Test Bank For Psychology in Everyday Life 6th Edition By David Myers, Nathan DeWall

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 1. The Greek naturalist and philosopher Aristotle suggested the source of our personality is the a. brain. b. throat. c. heart. d. stomach. ANSWER: c 2. Three key elements of the scientific attitude are a. pride, enthusiasm, and ingenuity. b. ingenuity, practicality, and certainty. c. certainty, creativity, and curiosity. d. curiosity, skepticism, and humility. ANSWER: d 3. Putting a scientific attitude into practice requires humility as well as a. enhanced critical thinking. b. a biopsychosocial approach. c. curiosity and skepticism. d. functionalism. ANSWER: c 4. In conducting research, Douglas demonstrates a scientific attitude. Which of the following characteristics are part of that attitude? a. curiosity b. indifference c. certainty d. sureness ANSWER: a 5. Stacey insists that Dr. Hendricks' theory of aggression be checked against observable evidence. She is demonstrating the scientific attitude of a. pride. b. skepticism. c. practicality. d. enthusiasm. ANSWER: b 6. A desire to use data to evaluate predictions is related to a. structuralism. b. curiosity. c. functionalism.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice d. the biopsychosocial approach. ANSWER: b 7. The scientific attitude requires an open-minded humility because it involves a willingness to a. avoid many levels of analysis. b. reject any ideas that can't be scientifically tested. c. recognize the errors in our own ideas. d. respect political beliefs that contradict our own. ANSWER: c 8. Professor Kimmons realizes that researchers may err as a result of personal bias. The professor is expressing a. enhanced critical thinking. b. a lack of curiosity. c. increased skepticism. d. an attitude of humility. ANSWER: d 9. One of psychology's early mottos was "The rat is always right." Which aspect of the scientific attitude did this represent? a. humility b. respect for animals c. curiosity d. skepticism ANSWER: a 10. Reasoning that does not blindly accept available arguments and conclusions best illustrates a. dual processing. b. critical thinking. c. the psychodynamic perspective. d. a biopsychosocial approach. ANSWER: b 11. Critical thinking most clearly involves a. a biopsychosocial approach. b. applied research. c. evaluating evidence. d. dual processing. ANSWER: c 12. Ivan is discussing self-driving cars with Bassem. Ivan is convinced that self-driving cars are more dangerous. Bassem believes that self-driving cars are less dangerous but is open to the possibility that he could be wrong. Who would be most likely to engage in critical thinking? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice a. Shane b. Bassem c. both Shane and Bassem d. neither Shane nor Bassem ANSWER: b 13. Which of the following is NOT associated with critical thinking? a. debunking popular presumptions b. making factual claims based on one's gut c. revealing surprising findings d. identifying effective policies ANSWER: b 14. Lizbeth is concerned about pollution and its effects on the planet. She has read several news articles, paying careful attention to the content in the articles and the sources of the information. She has also reviewed information that seems contrary to her view. She is involved in a. critical thinking. b. skepticism. c. making assumptions. d. sharing false information. ANSWER: a 15. A questioning attitude regarding psychologists' assumptions and hidden values best illustrates a. behaviorism. b. critical thinking. c. a biopsychosocial approach. d. Freudian psychology. ANSWER: b 16. Jennifer was worried that the wording of the questions in a diet and exercise survey may have encouraged respondents to express unusually positive levels of health. Jennifer's concern best illustrates a. behavior genetics. b. dual processing. c. critical thinking. d. the neuroscience perspective. ANSWER: c 17. When you question the claim that hypnosis helps people to recall memories more accurately, you are most clearly demonstrating a. positive psychology. b. the neuroscience perspective. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice c. a biopsychosocial approach. d. critical thinking. ANSWER: d 18. Wilhelm Wundt measured how long it took people to press a telegraph key after hearing a ball hit a platform in order to measure a. human perception. b. biopsychosocial events. c. the fastest and simplest mental processes. d. critical thinking. ANSWER: c 19. The birth of psychology is often attributed to Wilhelm Wundt because he pioneered the investigation of mental processes by a. using a biopsychosocial approach. b. adopting an evolutionary perspective. c. advocating positive psychology. d. conducting the first psychological experiment. ANSWER: d 20. The English naturalist whose thinking about species variation led to evolutionary psychology was a. Ivan Pavlov. b. Charles Darwin. c. John B. Watson. d. Carl Rogers. ANSWER: b 21. The personality theorist Sigmund Freud was an Austrian a. chemist. b. physician. c. theologian. d. politician. ANSWER: b 22. One of the last century's most influential observers of children was the Swiss biologist a. Charles Darwin. b. Margaret Floy Washburn. c. William James. d. Jean Piaget. ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 23. Who was the American philosopher who shared his love of psychology in his 1890 textbook? a. Wilhelm Wundt b. John B. Watson c. Sigmund Freud d. William James ANSWER: d 24. Who was a student of William James and the first female president of the American Psychological Association? a. Jean Piaget b. Margaret Floy Washburn c. Rosalie Rayner d. Mary Whiton Calkins ANSWER: d 25. Which woman psychologist was the first to officially earn a doctorate degree? a. Margaret Floy Washburn b. Mary Whiton Calkins c. Anna Freud d. Marla Wundt ANSWER: a 26. Between 1997 and 2021, more than ________ percent of the elected presidents of the Association for Psychological Science were women. a. 10 b. 25 c. 50 d. 75 ANSWER: c 27. Which of the following people is most likely to earn a doctorate degree in psychology today? a. Samantha, who is from the United States b. Nick, who is from Canada c. Margo, who is from Mexico d. Steven, who is from Europe ANSWER: a 28. In its earliest years, psychology focused on the study of a. mental processes. b. maladaptive behaviors. ScholarFriends.com c. unconscious motives. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice d. brain chemistry. ANSWER: a 29. Who promoted the school of thought in psychology known as structuralism? a. William James b. Wilhelm Wundt c. Margaret Floy Washburn d. Mary Whiton Calkins ANSWER: b 30. Wilhelm Wundt performed experiments to study a. animal intelligence. b. personality development. c. brain structures. d. mental processes. ANSWER: d 31. Which school of thought in psychology focused on the structure of the human mind? a. functionalism b. behaviorism c. structuralism d. humanism ANSWER: c 32. Which early school of thought in psychology was influenced by Darwin? a. behaviorism b. humanism c. structuralism d. functionalism ANSWER: d 33. Who promoted the early school of thought in psychology referred to as functionalism? a. Wilhelm Wundt b. William James c. Margaret Floy Washburn d. Mary Whiton Calkins ANSWER: b 34. Which early school of thought in psychology focused on how the mind functions? a. behaviorism ScholarFriends.com b. functionalism Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice c. structuralism d. humanism ANSWER: b 35. Late in the nineteenth century, Kumar was interested studying how mental and behavioral processes enable the organism to adapt, survive, and flourish. Kumar's school of thought was called a. behaviorism. b. functionalism. c. structuralism. d. humanism. ANSWER: b 36. Two women psychologists helped break through psychology's male dominance. ________ was the first female president of the American Psychological Association (APA), and ________ became the first woman to officially received a psychology Ph.D. and later became the second female APA president. a. Margaret Floy Washburn; Mary Whiton Calkins b. Eleanor Gibson; Mamie Phipps Clark c. Mary Whiton Calkins; Margaret Floy Washburn d. Mamie Phipps Clark; Eleanor Gibson ANSWER: d 37. Beginning in the 1920s, American psychologists such as John B. Watson emphasized the study of a. genetic influences. b. self-esteem. c. conscious thoughts and feelings. d. observable behavior. ANSWER: d 38. The view that psychology should be an objective science that studies observable human activity without reference to mental processes is known as a. behaviorism. b. cognitive neuroscience. c. humanistic psychology. d. positive psychology. ANSWER: a 39. Observing and recording people's behavior as they are being conditioned is a central interest of a. Freudian psychology. b. humanistic psychology. c. behaviorism. d. cognitive neuroscience. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 40. Kristine is observing how teenagers react to social media posts. Which psychological perspective is she likely applying to her research? a. behaviorism b. Freudian psychology c. humanistic psychology d. cognitive psychology ANSWER: a 41. Beverly is observing how children react to being pushed by other children while playing in the schoolyard. Which psychological perspective is she likely applying to her research? a. behaviorism b. Freudian psychology c. humanistic psychology d. cognitive psychology ANSWER: a 42. John B. Watson was an American a. psychiatrist. b. behaviorist. c. cognitive neuroscientist. d. structuralist. ANSWER: b 43. Which of the following is a conditioned behavior that can be observed? a. anxiety b. intelligence c. depression d. crying ANSWER: d 44. Early behaviorists such as John B. Watson would have considered the study of conscious self-awareness to be a. applied research. b. a positive psychology. c. an unscientific method. d. a biopsychosocial approach. ANSWER: c 45. Which major force in psychology emphasized unconscious sexual conflicts? ScholarFriends.com a. evolutionary psychology Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice b. Freudian psychology c. behavior genetics d. behaviorism ANSWER: b 46. Who developed psychoanalytic psychology? a. John B. Watson b. Sigmund Freud c. B. F. Skinner d. William James ANSWER: b 47. Amanda spends most of her time working with community groups established to help those in need. Her friend suggests that by devoting her time to helping others Amanda avoids confronting her own unconscious conflicts. Her friend's suggestion illustrates the type of explanation that is most typical of a. evolutionary psychology. b. cognitive neuroscience. c. behaviorism. d. Freudian psychology. ANSWER: d 48. Carl Rogers and Abraham Maslow promoted a historically significant approach known as a. behaviorism. b. humanistic psychology. c. cognitive neuroscience. d. behavior genetics. ANSWER: b 49. Humanistic psychologists focused attention on the importance of people's a. childhood memories. b. genetic predispositions. c. unconscious thought processes. d. growth potential. ANSWER: d 50. Dr. Calash's therapeutic approach focuses on his clients' growth potential and the environments that nurture or limit personal growth. Dr. Calash's area of specialization is a. humanistic psychology. b. cognitive psychology. c. personality psychology. ScholarFriends.com d. behaviorism. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 51. In the 1960s, the cognitive revolution in psychology led the field back to its early interest in the scientific study of a. mental processes. b. hereditary influences. c. sexual conflicts. d. learned behaviors. ANSWER: a 52. The study of the mental activities involved in perceiving, learning, remembering, thinking, communicating, and solving problems is most central to a. clinical psychology. b. humanistic psychology. c. evolutionary psychology. d. cognitive psychology. ANSWER: d 53. Cognitive psychology a. emphasizes the effects of learning. b. focuses on unconscious aspects of the mind. c. focuses on the positive potential of people. d. emphasizes the study of mental processes. ANSWER: d 54. Professor Goshaw studies how we remember information and how thinking and emotion interact in anxiety and depression. Professor Goshaw's area of specialization is a. humanistic psychology. b. cognitive psychology. c. personality psychology. d. behaviorism. ANSWER: b 55. The interdisciplinary study of the brain activity that underlies mental activity is a. behavior genetics. b. cognitive neuroscience. c. behaviorism. d. evolutionary psychology. ANSWER: b 56. Cognitive neuroscience studies relationships between ScholarFriends.com a. natural selection and genetic predispositions. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice b. childhood memories and psychological disorders. c. thought processes and brain functions. d. philosophy and physiology. ANSWER: c 57. Investigating patterns of brain activity that accompany people's recollections of a stressful experience would be of most direct interest to the specialty area known as a. behavior genetics. b. cognitive neuroscience. c. evolutionary psychology. d. humanistic psychology. ANSWER: b 58. Psychology is currently best defined as the science of a. conscious and unconscious mental activity. b. observable responses to the environment. c. behavior and mental processes. d. maladaptive and adaptive behaviors. ANSWER: c 59. Montel is defining psychology for his parents who want to learn about his studies. Which definition of psychology is most accurate? a. Psychology is the science of behavior and mental processes. b. Psychology is the study of mental processes. c. Psychology is a therapeutic perspective that emphasizes human growth potential. d. Psychology is the study of the structure of the human mind. ANSWER: a 60. Talking is to thoughts as ________ is to ________. a. evolution; natural selection b. behavior; mental process c. conscious; unconscious d. nurture; nature ANSWER: b 61. In defining psychology, our internal, subjective experiences are considered a. behaviors. b. actions. c. mental processes. d. conclusions. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 62. In the following definition of psychology—the science of behavior and mental processes—what is the key word? a. behavior b. science c. mental processes d. All words are key words. ANSWER: b 63. Professor Melendez is studying children's reactions to being unfriended on Facebook. Their reactions can be considered a a. behavior. b. type of learning. c. mental process. d. conclusion. ANSWER: c 64. The neuroscience perspective in psychology would be most likely to emphasize that behavior is influenced by a. environmental circumstances. b. blood chemistry. c. unconscious conflicts. d. conditioned fears. ANSWER: b 65. The psychological perspective that would help us understand how seizures and brain diseases affect memory is ________ psychology. a. evolutionary b. behavioral c. psychodynamic d. neuroscience ANSWER: d 66. Professor Ramesh believes that severe depression results primarily from an imbalanced diet and abnormal brain chemistry. Professor Ramesh favors a ________ perspective on depression. a. neuroscience b. psychodynamic c. behavior genetics d. cognitive ANSWER: a ScholarFriends.com

67. Which perspective highlights the reproductive advantages of inherited psychological traits? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice a. evolutionary b. cognitive c. behavioral d. social-cultural ANSWER: a 68. Which perspective would suggest that natural selection of traits helps explain our similarities? a. cognitive b. behavioral c. evolutionary d. social-cultural ANSWER: c 69. Jeremy is interested in how anger facilitated the survival of our ancestors' genes. He is studying anger based on which perspective? a. neuroscience b. evolutionary c. behavior genetics d. psychodynamic ANSWER: b 70. Which perspective studies the relative contributions of our genes and our environment to our individual differences? a. cognitive b. behavior genetics c. social-cultural d. psychodynamic ANSWER: b 71. Professor Thornton is studying experiences that influence genetic expression. He is most likely studying a. behavior genetics. b. gender psychology. c. cross-cultural psychology. d. positive psychology. ANSWER: a 72. Dr. Steely measures the relative contributions of inherited traits and social influences on mating preferences and behavior patterns. Her research efforts best illustrate the interests of the ________ perspective. a. behavior genetics b. psychodynamic ScholarFriends.com c. behavioral Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice d. cognitive ANSWER: a 73. The distinctive feature of the psychodynamic perspective is its emphasis on a. natural selection. b. brain chemistry. c. unconscious conflicts. d. learned behaviors. ANSWER: c 74. Andrew believes that his parents' constant criticism of him results from their unconscious hatred of their own parents. Andrew is looking at his wife's behavior from a(n) ________ perspective. a. evolutionary b. behavioral c. psychodynamic d. behavior genetics ANSWER: c 75. Which perspective most clearly focuses on how we learn observable responses? a. evolutionary b. neuroscience c. behavioral d. behavior genetics ANSWER: c 76. Professor James is studying how mice navigate a new maze. His research study is most consistent with the ________ perspective. a. humanistic b. cognitive c. cognitive neuroscience d. behavioral ANSWER: d 77. Bettina believes that her son has become a good student because he is frequently praised for his learning efforts. Her belief best illustrates a ________ perspective. a. behavior genetics b. neuroscience c. psychodynamic d. behavioral ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com

78. The cognitive perspective in psychology focuses on how Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice a. feelings are influenced by blood chemistry. b. people try to understand their own unconscious motives. c. behavior is influenced by environmental conditions. d. people encode, process, store, and retrieve information. ANSWER: d 79. Which psychological perspective is most likely to be concerned with identifying the powers and the limits of human reasoning? a. cognitive b. behavioral c. neuroscience d. behavior genetics ANSWER: a 80. Professor Beddu is studying how people store and retrieve information. Which field of psychology does he study? a. neuroscience b. evolutionary c. psychodynamic d. cognitive ANSWER: d 81. Professor Naundorf is studying how memory works in problem solving. This research topic is consistent with the ________ perspective. a. humanistic b. cognitive c. cognitive neuroscience d. behavioral ANSWER: b 82. Memory processes are to the ________ perspective as cultures are to the ________ perspective. a. evolutionary b. neuroscience c. cognitive d. social-cultural ANSWER: d 83. What perspective would focus on how different ethnic groups might adopt different child-raising practices? a. evolutionary b. psychodynamic ScholarFriends.com c. social-cultural Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice d. neuroscience ANSWER: c 84. ________ psychologists study the connection between the brain and the mind. a. Developmental b. Biological c. Cognitive d. Personality ANSWER: b 85. Dr. Costellese conducts research on the role of the nervous system in learning and memory. Which psychological specialty does Dr. Costellese's research best represent? a. social psychology b. clinical psychology c. biological psychology d. industrial-organizational psychology ANSWER: c 86. Dr. Stembridge conducts research on how children's moral reasoning changes as they grow older. It is most likely that Dr. Stembridge is a(n) ________ psychologist. a. social b. clinical c. developmental d. industrial-organizational ANSWER: c 87. Dr. McDowell conducts research on the relationship between adults' language skills and their capacity to solve mathematical problems. Dr. McDowell is most likely a _________ psychologist. a. cognitive b. biological c. clinical d. social ANSWER: a 88. Professor Ye investigates traits that are stable throughout the life span. Her subfield is a. developmental psychology. b. biological psychology. c. cognitive psychology. d. personality psychology. ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com

89. Dr. Osorio conducts research on why individuals obey orders from an authoritative person. Which specialty Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice area does his research best represent? a. cognitive psychology b. social psychology c. developmental psychology d. clinical psychology ANSWER: b 90. Professor Eudy conducts basic research on the psychological, biological, and behavioral factors that contribute to heart disease. She is most likely a a. personality psychologist. b. cognitive psychologist. c. clinical psychologist. d. health psychologist. ANSWER: d 91. Which subfield of psychology investigates workplace-related behaviors? a. cognitive psychology b. social psychology c. industrial-organizational psychology d. biological psychology ANSWER: c 92. Dr. Reber focuses on improving system and product designs. Dr. Reber is most likely a(n) ________ psychologist. a. clinical b. developmental c. personality d. industrial-organizational ANSWER: d 93. Studies conducted for the sake of building psychology's base of knowledge are most clearly examples of a. behavior genetics. b. replication. c. basic research. d. positive psychology. ANSWER: c 94. Which psychologists are most likely to be involved in applied research? a. industrial-organizational psychologists b. developmental psychologists ScholarFriends.com c. personality psychologists Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice d. biological psychologists ANSWER: a 95. We are each unique individuals who are part of a larger social system, such as a family, ethnic group, and culture. This demonstrates that we are a. biological systems. b. impressionable systems. c. neurological systems. d. biopsychosocial systems. ANSWER: d 96. Different accounts of the same behavior that together give us a more complete understanding represent different a. cognitive functions. b. unconscious motives. c. levels of analysis. d. conditioned responses. ANSWER: c 97. The biopsychosocial approach provides an understanding of social-cultural influences within the larger framework of a. the psychodynamic perspective. b. a dual-processing model. c. humanistic psychology. d. many levels of analysis. ANSWER: d 98. Dewey has high self-esteem because he is often praised for his athletic ability. Appreciating the full complexity of Dewey's high self-esteem most clearly requires a. humanistic psychology. b. a psychodynamic perspective. c. positive psychology. d. a biopsychosocial approach. ANSWER: d 99. The enduring traditions, values, attitudes, ideas, and behaviors shared by a group of people constitute their a. culture. b. levels of analysis. c. behavior genetics. d. community psychology. ANSWER: a ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 100. Parents handing down to their children the custom of respecting people of different ethnicities best illustrates the importance of a. a psychodynamic perspective. b. culture. c. critical thinking. d. behavior genetics. ANSWER: b 101. Studying people of all races and cultures is most helpful for a. dual processing. b. avoiding many levels of analysis. c. detecting human similarities and differences. d. encouraging natural selection. ANSWER: c 102. The nature–nurture issue refers to the debate over the relative contributions that ________ make to the development of psychological traits. a. physical illness and health b. unconscious and conscious motives c. behavior and mental processes d. biology and experience ANSWER: d 103. Annika is babysitting for her new neighbors' three little boys. Peter is high-strung and sensitive, Jake is calm and easygoing, and Andy is shy and timid. Annika wonders if these differences are the result of biological influences or parental influences. In other words, she is curious about the relative contributions of a. neuroscience and cognition. b. nature and nurture. c. behavior and mental processes. d. conscious and unconscious thoughts. ANSWER: b 104. Inherited ability is to learned skill as ________ is to ________. a. naturalistic observation; case study b. psychology; psychiatry c. nature; nurture d. behavior; mental processes ANSWER: c 105. Efforts to discover whether children's personalities are more heavily influenced by their biology or their home environments are most directly relevant ScholarFriends.com to the debate regarding a. behavior and mental processes. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice b. conscious and unconscious thought. c. correlation and causation. d. nature and nurture. ANSWER: d 106. Arsan has been selected for the Olympics gymnastics team because genetically he has good balance, strength, flexibility, and agility. He has also spent hundreds of hours practicing in his high school gym. This best illustrates that a. nature outweighs the importance of nurture. b. nature limits our adaptive capacities. c. nurture works on what nature provides. d. nature selects traits that contribute to survival. ANSWER: c 107. By suggesting that nurture works on what nature provides, psychologists highlight the fact that we are biologically graced with a capacity for a. dual processing. b. natural selection. c. replication. d. brain neuroplasticity. ANSWER: d 108. We know more than we know we know thanks to our capacity for a. biological and psychological levels of analysis. b. cognitive neuroscience. c. functionalism. d. dual processing. ANSWER: d 109. The simultaneous processing of information at both conscious and unconscious levels is called a. the double-blind procedure. b. replication. c. critical thinking. d. dual processing. ANSWER: d 110. Our visual perception track enables us to recognize objects while our visual action track enables us to manipulate objects. This best illustrates a. the testing effect. b. dual processing. c. random assignment. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice d. replication. ANSWER: b 111. Accurately hitting a baseball a split second before we consciously recognize that the ball has reached our bat best illustrates our capacity for a. critical thinking. b. hindsight bias. c. dual processing. d. naturalistic observation. ANSWER: c 112. Yannis is learning how to read and is having trouble distinguishing between the letters b, d, p, and q. This specific task is related to his a. visual action track. b. overconfidence. c. hindsight bias. d. visual perception track. ANSWER: d 113. Liam is playing baseball and catches a pop fly that was hit in his direction. His ability to do so is related to his a. visual action track. b. overconfidence. c. hindsight bias. d. visual perception track. ANSWER: a 114. Ezekiel was able to correctly solve a novel logic problem by simultaneously applying unconscious inferences and conscious knowledge of philosophical principles. This best illustrates the value of a. functionalism. b. a biopsychosocial approach. c. dual processing. d. behaviorism. ANSWER: c 115. Sometimes our unconscious biases do not match our conscious beliefs. This illustrates that a. much of our thinking, feeling, and acting operates outside conscious awareness. b. we are ruled by our intentions and deliberate choices. c. we are often motivated to avoid thinking. d. consciousness enables us to exert voluntary control. ANSWER: a ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 116. Dr. Tebbeb helps children with friendship problems by assisting them in understanding their interests and skills. Dr. Tebbeb is most likely a a. biological psychologist. b. counseling psychologist. c. cognitive psychologist. d. social psychologist. ANSWER: b 117. Clinical psychologists specialize in a. constructing surveys. b. animal research. c. providing therapy to people with psychological disorders. d. providing drugs to treat behavioral disorders. ANSWER: c 118. Elmira has recently been so depressed that she frequently makes excuses not to go to work. It would be best for Elmira to contact a ________ psychologist. a. developmental b. clinical c. personality d. biological ANSWER: b 119. The specialist most likely to have a medical degree is a a. clinical psychologist. b. personality psychologist. c. developmental psychologist. d. psychiatrist. ANSWER: d 120. Rather than seeking to change people to fit their environments, ________ work to create social and physical environments that are healthy for all. a. counseling psychologists b. cognitive psychologists c. community psychologists d. clinical psychologists ANSWER: c 121. Research on human flourishing is the major focus of a. the psychodynamic perspective. b. behavior genetics. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice c. naturalistic observation. d. positive psychology. ANSWER: d 122. Martin Seligman calls for a positive psychology that focuses on such topics as a. understanding the roots of abuse. b. developing emotional traits that promote thriving. c. curing disease. d. addressing the psychological manifestations of poverty. ANSWER: b 123. Dr. Salvia is studying how happiness in late adulthood relates to a person's social network and social connectedness. Her approach is called a. cognitive psychology. b. positive psychology. c. evolutionary psychology. d. the biopsychosocial approach. ANSWER: b 124. Professor Kurtines is researching the psychological benefit of friendships during adolescence. His research is best aligned with which approach to psychology? a. cognitive psychology b. positive psychology c. evolutionary psychology d. the biopsychosocial approach ANSWER: b 125. Positive psychology uniquely focuses on the promotion of positive a. curiosity, skepticism, and humility. b. emotions, character traits, and institutions. c. descriptive, correlational, and experimental methods. d. classroom instruction, study techniques, and test grades. ANSWER: b 126. Unconscious gut feelings, or ________, provide(s) a sharp contrast to explicit, conscious reasoning. a. theory b. hypotheses c. common sense d. naturalistic observation ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 127. Commonsense thinking has several flaws. Which of the following is NOT one of those flaws? a. hindsight bias b. overconfidence c. scientific inquiry d. perceiving patterns in random events ANSWER: c 128. As COVID-19 cases began to mount, many citizens blamed the initial underreaction of authorities who, they believed, should have anticipated the seriousness of the threat. This is an example of a. superforecasting. b. overconfidence. c. hindsight bias. d. perceiving patterns in random events. ANSWER: c 129. ________ describes, after the fact, what has happened better than it predicts what will happen. a. Theory b. Chance-based explanation c. Common sense d. The scientific method ANSWER: c 130. Norman meets briefly with recent college graduates from the school of education and relies on his automatic first impressions in deciding whether to offer them a teaching position. Norman's hiring decisions are most clearly guided by a. an operational definition. b. the testing effect. c. hindsight bias. d. common sense. ANSWER: d 131. The hindsight bias refers to people's tendency to a. dismiss the value of skepticism. b. reject any ideas that can't be scientifically tested. c. exaggerate their ability to have foreseen an outcome. d. overestimate the extent to which others share their opinions. ANSWER: c 132. The perception that psychological research findings merely verify our commonsense understanding is most clearly encouraged by a. random assignment. ScholarFriends.com b. hindsight bias. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice c. operational definitions. d. the placebo effect. ANSWER: b 133. A researcher gives half the members of a group a true psychological finding and the other half an opposite result. Both groups believe the given finding is common sense. This is an easy way to demonstrate the impact of a. the placebo effect. b. confounding variables. c. hindsight bias. d. the double-blind procedure. ANSWER: c 134. Professor Soares told one class that research has found thatwheat flax prevents the loss of brain cells. He informed another class that researchers have found that there is no brain benefit to eating wheat flax. The fact that neither class was surprised by the information they received best illustrates the power of a. replication. b. hindsight bias. c. the double-blind procedure. d. the placebo effect. ANSWER: b 135. Bob MacElroy's stockbroker informed him that he lost substantial investment value. When Bob told his wife, she angrily responded, "I could have told you that your investment plan would fail!" Her comment best illustrates a. hindsight bias. b. debriefing. c. the placebo effect. d. replication. ANSWER: a 136. Our tendency to believe we know more than we do best illustrates a. naturalistic observation. b. the placebo effect. c. overconfidence. d. random assignment. ANSWER: c 137. Lilja was sure that she would not want to go to a university far from home. However, when she was accepted by a school thousands of miles from her home, she quickly agreed to enroll. Lilja's experience best illustrates a. hindsight bias. ScholarFriends.com b. random assignment. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice c. the placebo effect. d. overconfidence. ANSWER: d 138. Which of the following is most likely to inhibit critical thinking? a. operational definitions b. overconfidence c. random assignment d. informed consent ANSWER: b 139. Research has shown that about two percent of people are able to accurately predict social behavior. Psychologist Philip Tetlock (with Dan Gardner) has referred to these successful predictors as a. common sense. b. operational definitions. c. informed consent. d. the double-blind procedure. ANSWER: a 140. Five of the students in Professor Dogan's class were born on exactly the same day. Professor Dogan does not believe that this is possible. In this instance, he should be reminded that a. random sequences of events often don't look random. b. events often seem more probable in hindsight. c. sampling extreme cases leads to false generalizations. d. correlation does not prove causation. ANSWER: a 141. The idea that "people's emotions and personal beliefs tend to override their acceptance of objective facts" is expressed in the dictionary definition of a. false news. b. post-truth. c. powerful examples. d. repetition. ANSWER: b 142. What was the Oxford English Dictionary's word of the year in 2017? a. false news b. preregistration c. post-truth d. repetition ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 143. Even after being shown specific information regarding the state of the nation's economy, Katerina still believes that social programs drain the economy. Her persistent belief and refusal to accept the facts provided to her may be related to a. both liberals and conservatives are prone to believing untruths. b. successful couples have similar political interests. c. partisan bias exists in both liberals and conservatives. d. statements become more believable when they are repeated often. ANSWER: c 144. Which of the following is NOT a contributor to why, according to Tom Gilovich (1991), people "know what isn't so"? a. increase in false news b. repetition c. limited powerful examples d. group identification ANSWER: c 145. Which of the following is NOT a reason that misinformation can spread through social media? a. We tend to friend people online who think as we do. b. Psychologists can use preregistration to publicly communicate their hypotheses online. c. False news can easily be shared and re-shared online. d. Powerful visual examples are readily available online. ANSWER: b 146. Misinformation that is given intentionally can be called a. false news. b. post-truth. c. powerful examples. d. repetition. ANSWER: a 147. In one analysis of 126,000 stories tweeted by 3 million people, when compared with true information, false information a. was less likely to be believe. b. was less likely to be shared. c. spread farther, faster, deeper, and more broadly. d. was more easily accessible. ANSWER: c 148. Why might so many people believe the commonly accepted idea that roaches could survive a nuclear bomb? ScholarFriends.com a. false news Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice b. repetition c. availability of powerful examples d. group identity ANSWER: b 149. Dr. Smith is conducting a research study on people's belief in real and false information. He is likely to find that participants are more likely to believe false information if it is a. told to them by an expert. b. told to them in front of a group of people. c. shared with them on multiple occasions. d. shared with them anonymously. ANSWER: c 150. Anastasia is asking her parents if she can attend a particular concert the following week. Her parents will not give her permission to attend because they are afraid that a mass shooting could occur. When Anastasia asked why her parents would make such a statement, her parents reply that mass shootings are always in the news. This demonstrates how ________ can lead to the acceptance of misinformation. a. false news b. repetition c. the availability of powerful examples d. group identity ANSWER: c 151. Vishal believes that the Earth is flat and has befriended several people on social media who also hold this view. This is an example of how ________ can feed the acceptance of misinformation. a. false news b. repetition c. availability of powerful examples d. group identity ANSWER: d 152. To better discern fiction from fact, people should a. trust their intuition. b. embrace critical thinking and a scientific mindset. c. use powerful examples to guide their perspectives. d. rely on view-affirming news sources and social media groups. ANSWER: b 153. Dr. Tate is an excellent professor. She is curious, humble, and skeptical. These are all characteristics of a. having a scientific attitude. b. using the scientific method. ScholarFriends.com c. forming a theory. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice d. testing a hypothesis. ANSWER: a 154. The self-correcting process for asking questions and observing nature's answers is known as a. a theory. b. a prediction. c. the scientific method. d. an operational definition. ANSWER: c 155. When researchers submit their work to a scientific journal, ________ provide anonymous evaluations of the study's theory, originality, and accuracy. a. consultants b. peer reviewers c. counselors d. testers ANSWER: b 156. Dr. Stott is an expert in cognitive psychology and is currently reading and reviewing a research study that has been submitted for publication consideration in an academic journal. Dr. Stott does not know who wrote the article and is reviewing the study based on incorporation and application of theory, originality, and accuracy in research design, analysis, and results. Dr. Stott is serving as a a. consultant. b. peer reviewer. c. counselor. d. tester. ANSWER: b 157. A theory is an explanation using principles that ________ observations and ________ behaviors or events. a. question; survey b. replicate; control c. organize; predict d. randomly sample; randomly assign ANSWER: c 158. Professor Palma believes fraternal twins differ in personality because they do not share the same genes. Her idea is best described as a(n) a. theory. b. replication. c. naturalistic observation. d. operational definition. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 159. The explanatory power of a scientific theory is most closely linked to its capacity to generate testable a. assumptions. b. correlations. c. predictions. d. variables. ANSWER: c 160. A hypothesis is a(n) a. observable relationship between specific independent and dependent variables. b. testable prediction that gives direction to research. c. set of principles that organizes observations and explains newly discovered facts. d. unprovable assumption about the processes that underlie psychological functioning. ANSWER: b 161. Testing hypotheses and refining theories in light of those tests is central to a. debriefing. b. the testing effect. c. the scientific method. d. informed consent. ANSWER: c 162. Professor Horton believes that intelligent people are more successful and more likely to get a high-paying job. The professor's prediction regarding employment success is an example of a. informed consent. b. the placebo effect. c. a hypothesis. d. a confounding variable. ANSWER: c 163. A carefully worded statement describing the exact procedures for measuring an anticipated experimental outcome is known as a(n) a. hypothesis. b. control condition. c. replication. d. operational definition. ANSWER: d 164. Dr. Farley is conducting a study that examines how violent video games are related to aggression in children. He hypothesizes that there is a positive relationship between the two, meaning that as children play more violent video games their level of aggression also increases. To ensure that his hypothesis does not ScholarFriends.com influence the results of his study, Dr. Farley should Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice a. clearly state his hypothesis. b. include a control condition in his research study. c. begin by replicating the studies of previous researchers. d. specify, clearly, his operational definitions for both aggression and violent video games. ANSWER: d 165. Replication of a research study is most likely to be made easier by a. massed practice. b. debriefing. c. operational definitions. d. the placebo effect. ANSWER: c 166. Repeating the essence of an earlier research study to confirm that its findings extend to a new group of research participants and to different circumstances is called a. replication. b. random sampling. c. naturalistic observation. d. the double-blind procedure. ANSWER: a 167. Professor Tudosa was concerned that research results on the value of aerobic exercise were not exactly accurate. Which process would best enable her to assess the reliability of the findings? a. naturalistic observation b. replication c. random sampling d. the case study ANSWER: b 168. What does preregistration mean when used in relation to scientific research? a. preregistration. b. replication. c. prediction. d. debriefing. ANSWER: a 169. Dr. Vaughn has publicly communicated her planned research design and hypotheses. She has also communicated how she plans to collect data and anticipated analyses that will be used to test her study hypotheses. This is known as a. a correlation. b. preregistration. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice c. peer review. d. repetition. ANSWER: b 170. Preregistration encourages researchers to a. report their findings, even when those findings fail to replicate earlier findings. b. report only those findings that confirm earlier findings. c. report only those findings that have been subject to peer review. d. change their hypotheses to fit the data before reporting their findings. ANSWER: a 171. The case study is a research method in which a. a single individual or group is studied in great depth. b. a representative sample of people are questioned regarding their opinions or behaviors. c. organisms are carefully observed in a laboratory environment. d. an investigator manipulates one or more variables that might affect behavior. ANSWER: a 172. To better understand how patients recover from a traumatic brain injury after an automobile accident, Dr. Thomas carefully observes and questions Michael, who experienced a traumatic brain injury in an automobile accident over a year ago. Which research method is Dr. Thomas implementing? a. random sampling b. the survey c. the case study d. experimentation ANSWER: c 173. To understand the anxiety experienced by his 30-year-old client, Dr. Vince, a clinical psychologist, carefully investigates the client's current life situation and his physical, social-cultural, and educational history. Which research method has the psychologist used? a. the survey b. the case study c. experimentation d. naturalistic observation ANSWER: b 174. By revealing what can happen through an in-depth examination of an atypical individual, ________ often suggests directions for future research. a. the double-blind procedure b. random assignment c. a case study ScholarFriends.com d. a survey Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 175. The biggest danger of relying on case-study evidence is that it a. is based on naturalistic observation. b. may not represent what is generally true. c. overestimates the importance of operational definitions. d. leads us to underestimate the causal relationships between events. ANSWER: b 176. Sixteen-year-old Marc would like to learn to drive, but his parents won't let him. When he asks why, they remind him about two family members who were involved in collisions with younger drivers. "Teenagers are always getting into accidents," his father tells him. Marc's parents' reasoning best illustrates the danger of a. replication. b. random assignment. c. the placebo effect. d. generalizing from vivid cases. ANSWER: d 177. A descriptive technique of monitoring and recording behavior in naturally occurring situations without trying to change or control the situation is called a. random sampling. b. naturalistic observation. c. replication. d. the double-blind procedure. ANSWER: b 178. Psychologists who carefully watch the behavior of lion societies in the jungle are using a research method known as a. the survey. b. experimentation. c. naturalistic observation. d. the case study. ANSWER: c 179. Rossen is observing families as they interact at the local camping grounds. He does not do anything to change or manipulate the situation. Rather, he is recording their interactions without interruption or influence. This is referred to as a. a case study. b. naturalistic observation. c. correlational research. d. an experiment. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 180. Digital technologies such as wearable cameras and fitness sensors have enabled the collection of "big data" by means of a. the testing effect. b. case studies. c. experimentation. d. naturalistic observation. ANSWER: d 181. Dr. Broome is reviewing Instagram messages among teens from around the world as part of her research project. This is an example of how modern technology has improved research using a. experimentation. b. naturalistic observation. c. case studies. d. a survey. ANSWER: b 182. Which of the following enables more exact descriptions of ongoing behaviors without explaining them? a. random assignment b. informed consent c. naturalistic observation d. the double-blind procedure ANSWER: c 183. Studying one individual or group in depth is to ________ as observing and recording behavior in naturally occurring situations is to ________. a. survey; correlation b. case study; naturalistic observation c. correlation; survey d. naturalistic observation; case study ANSWER: b 184. A descriptive technique for obtaining the self-reported attitudes or behaviors of a representative sample of a population is known as a. naturalistic observation. b. debriefing. c. a case study. d. a survey. ANSWER: d 185. Which research method would be most appropriate for investigating the relationship between the political ScholarFriends.com beliefs of Americans and their attitudes toward welfare? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice a. the survey b. naturalistic observation c. the case study d. experimentation ANSWER: a 186. Surveys have found that people are more likely to support "revenue enhancers" than "taxes." These survey results best illustrate the importance of a. random sampling. b. wording effects. c. the placebo effect. d. naturalistic observation. ANSWER: b 187. All those in a group being studied make up the a. population. b. sample. c. case study. d. survey. ANSWER: a 188. A representative sample is one that accurately reflects a larger a. control group. b. correlation coefficient. c. dependent variable. d. population. ANSWER: d 189. Damien is studying the use of social media by students at Yonkers High School. He has randomly selected and questioned 100 students. In this instance, all the students attending the school are considered to be a(n) a. population. b. representative sample. c. independent variable. d. control condition. ANSWER: a 190. When every individual in a large population has a small but equal chance of being included in a survey, researchers are using a procedure known as a. the case study. b. the double-blind procedure. ScholarFriends.com c. random sampling. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice d. naturalistic observation. ANSWER: c 191. Representative Jeffers was cheered by large and friendly crowds at all his rallies. As a result, he became unrealistically sure that he would be reelected. In this instance, the representative needs to be alerted to the value of a. replication. b. random sampling. c. experimental control. d. naturalistic observation. ANSWER: b 192. To assess reactions to a proposed tuition hike at her school, Aruna sent a questionnaire to every fifteenth person in the registrar's alphabetical listing of all currently enrolled students. Aruna is ensuring that her survey results are accurate by using a. random assignment. b. naturalistic observation. c. replication. d. random sampling. ANSWER: d 193. Suppose you want to find out which candidate women will vote for in an upcoming national election. To be sure the sample you survey is representative of the population of women, you should a. survey only a small sample of women. b. survey only politically informed women. c. survey every woman in the country. d. survey a large representative sample of the population of women. ANSWER: d 194. Correlation is a measure of the extent to which two factors a. vary together. b. are random samples. c. influence each other. d. are dependent variables. ANSWER: a 195. Correlational research is most useful for purposes of a. explanation. b. prediction. c. control. d. replication. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 196. Professor Dobrynski is studying the extent to which age can be used to predict political leanings. Professor Dobrynski and his colleagues are most likely to use a. the case study approach. b. naturalistic observation. c. correlational measures. d. experimental research. ANSWER: c 197. Professor Terrance has conducted a study that examined the relationship between level of physical activity and academic performance among children. He is most likely to use ________ to determine if a relationship exists. a. meta-analysis b. preregistration c. a correlation coefficient d. experimental research ANSWER: c 198. Which of the following is a statistical measure of the relationship between two variables? a. a correlation coefficient b. a random sample c. SQ3R d. an independent variable ANSWER: a 199. A direct relationship in which two factors increase together or decrease together represents a. a dependent variable. b. replication. c. a positive correlation. d. a confounding variable. ANSWER: c 200. A positive correlation indicates a. a direct relationship in which two sets of scores increase together or decrease together. b. an inverse relationship in which scores for one variable increase as scores for another variable decrease. c. one of the variables causes the other. d. the independent and dependent variables are indirectly related. ANSWER: a 201. Dr. Abe is an expert in weight-loss management and techniques. He repeatedly finds that as consumers eat ScholarFriends.com fewer calories, they also lose weight. This is an example of a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice a. positive correlation. b. negative correlation. c. confounding variable. d. neutral relationship. ANSWER: a 202. Professor Schmidt is a developmental psychologist who examines external influences on the parent-child relationship. She has found that as parental work pressure decreases, the level of parental stress decreases, which then increases the level of parent-child interaction. The relationship between parental work pressure and parental stress is a a. positive correlation. b. negative correlation. c. confounding variable. d. neutral relationship. ANSWER: a 203. An inverse relationship in which one factor increases as another factor decreases represents a. a confounding variable. b. random assignment. c. replication. d. a negative correlation. ANSWER: d 204. Suppose that research studies have found that as positive parenting increases, children's feelings of depression decrease. This would demonstrate a(n) a. positive correlation. b. neutral relationship. c. absence of cause and effect. d. negative correlation. ANSWER: d 205. During the COVID-19 pandemic, higher rates of mask-wearing predicted fewer reported COVID-19 symptoms. We could also say that a. mask-wearing correlated negatively with reported COVID-19 symptoms. b. mask-wearing correlated positively with reported COVID-19 symptoms. c. there is a direct relationship between mask-wearing and reported COVID-19 symptoms. d. there is likely some third variable involved. ANSWER: a 206. Suppose the correlation between children's body weight and their reading ability is –1.00. This would mean that ScholarFriends.com a. there is very little statistical relationship between children's body weight and reading ability. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice b. low body weight has a negative effect on children's reading ability. c. among children, better reading ability is associated with lower body weight. d. body weight has no causal influence on the reading ability of children. ANSWER: c 207. Which research method assesses how well one variable predicts another without demonstrating a causeeffect relationship between the variables? a. naturalistic observation b. correlational research c. the case study d. the experimental method ANSWER: b 208. Suppose that people who see a lot of violent movies are also particularly likely to behave aggressively. This relationship would NOT necessarily indicate that watching violence influences aggressive behavior because a. random sequences often don't look random. b. correlation does not prove causation. c. sampling extreme cases leads to false generalizations. d. the sample may have been randomly selected. ANSWER: b 209. Based on a recent survey indicating that people who smoke regularly report having less energy, a news article includes the headline "Smoking Makes You Sleepy!" What is wrong with this conclusion? a. It was derived from a survey study. b. Correlation does not prove causation. c. The experiment that reached this conclusion cannot be replicated. d. This finding is not problematic. ANSWER: b 210. If researchers found that younger parents have more intelligent children than older parents, this would demonstrate that a. intelligence is inherited. b. younger parents provide their children with greater educational opportunities than do older parents. c. the age of parents and children's intelligence is positively correlated. d. all of these statements are correct. ANSWER: c 211. Which of the following methods is most helpful for clarifying cause-effect relationships? a. the survey b. the experiment ScholarFriends.com c. correlational research Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice d. naturalistic observation ANSWER: b 212. Researchers use experiments rather than other research methods in order to isolate a. facts from theories. b. causes from effects. c. case studies from surveys. d. random samples from representative samples. ANSWER: b 213. An experiment enables researchers to isolate the effects of one or more factors by manipulating the factors of interest and also by a. obtaining participants' informed consent prior to beginning the experiment. b. summarizing participants' responses with a correlation coefficient. c. holding other factors constant across experimental and control groups. d. fully debriefing participants after completing the experiment. ANSWER: c 214. The best research method to use if you want to determine whether teens' social media use predicted future mental health issues would be a. the case study. b. the survey. c. naturalistic observation. d. the experiment. ANSWER: d 215. In which type of research would an investigator manipulate at least one factor and observe its effect on some behavior or mental process? a. the survey b. the case study c. experimentation d. naturalistic observation ANSWER: c 216. In a test of the effects of sleep deprivation on problem-solving skills, research participants are allowed to sleep either 4 or 8 hours on each of three consecutive nights. This research is an example of a. naturalistic observation. b. survey research. c. a case study. d. an experiment. ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 217. Professor Larsson wants to determine how self-esteem can affect teen relationships. Specifically, he wants to prove that poor self-esteem causes inability to form relationships. Professor Larsson must use which research design? a. correlation b. case study c. survey d. experiment ANSWER: d 218. Being randomly assigned to the experimental group in a research project involves being assigned a. to that group by chance. b. to the group in which participants are representative of people in general. c. in a way that ensures that the independent variable will affect the dependent variable. d. to the group in which participants all have similar personalities. ANSWER: a 219. To accurately isolate cause and effect, experimenters should use a. random assignment. b. naturalistic observation. c. case studies. d. correlation coefficients. ANSWER: a 220. Amit is working on his term paper for his psychology course. He plans to design an experiment in which participants are assigned to the experimental and control groups by chance. He is using a. a correlational design. b. a case study. c. forced participation. d. random assignment. ANSWER: d 221. To assess the impact of test difficulty on persistence of effort, Professor Shinde plans to give one group of children relatively easy tests and another group more difficult tests. To reduce the chance that the children in one group are more intelligent than those in the other group, Professor Shinde should make use of a. random assignment. b. the double-blind procedure. c. naturalistic observation. d. operational definitions. ANSWER: a 222. Research participants are randomly assigned to different groups in an experiment in order to ScholarFriends.com a. minimize chances that participants in any group know one another. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice b. increase chances that participants are representative of people in general. c. minimize any differences between groups of participants. d. increase chances that the different groups have the same number of participants. ANSWER: c 223. One research team randomly assigned children either to stop using Facebook, or to no change in their social media habits. Which research method did they use? a. case study b. experimentation c. naturalistic observation d. correlational research ANSWER: b 224. Participants who are exposed to the treatment being tested in an experiment are said to be assigned to the a. random sample. b. experimental group. c. standardized treatment. d. control group. ANSWER: b 225. Which of the following is true for those assigned to a control group? a. The experimenter exerts the greatest influence on participants' behavior. b. The research participants are exposed to all the different experimental treatments. c. The research participants are exposed to the most favorable levels of experimental treatment. d. The experimental treatment is absent. ANSWER: d 226. To study the potential effects of social interaction on problem solving, some research participants were instructed to solve problems by working together; other participants were told to solve problems by working alone. Those who worked alone were assigned to the ________ group. a. experimental b. survey c. control d. correlational ANSWER: c 227. Research participants drank either caffeinated or decaffeinated beverages in a study of the effects of caffeine on anxiety levels. Those who received the caffeinated drinks were assigned to the ________ group. a. survey b. experimental c. correlational ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice d. control ANSWER: b 228. To assess whether a flu vaccine is effective for citizens of his state, Dr. Muddasani plans to administer the vaccine to all residents of the state rather than give half of them a placebo injection. Dr. Muddasami is most clearly underestimating the importance of a. testing a large sample. b. operationally defining his procedures. c. replicating observations of other researchers. d. creating a control group. ANSWER: d 229. Random assignment minimizes ________ between experimental and control groups. Random sampling minimizes ________ between a sample and a population. a. similarities; differences b. differences; similarities c. similarities; similarities d. differences; differences ANSWER: d 230. An inactive substance that may be administered instead of a drug to see if it produces any of the same effects as the drug is called a a. placebo. b. coefficient. c. case study. d. replication. ANSWER: a 231. In a study of the effects of drinking coffee, some participants drank a decaf coffee that actually smelled and tasted like coffee. This decaf coffee was a a. dependent variable. b. replication. c. placebo. d. double blind. ANSWER: c 232. A(n) ________ is said to be double-blind when the participants and the research staff are unaware of who has received an actual treatment and who has not. a. correlation b. case study c. survey ScholarFriends.com d. experiment Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 233. Participants in an experiment are said to be blind if they are uninformed about a. what experimental hypothesis is being tested. b. whether the experimental findings will be meaningful. c. how the dependent variable is measured. d. which experimental treatment, if any, they are receiving. ANSWER: d 234. Both the researchers and the participants in a memory study are ignorant about which participants have actually received a potentially memory-enhancing drug and which have received a placebo. This investigation involves the use of a. naturalistic observation. b. random sampling. c. the double-blind procedure. d. replication. ANSWER: c 235. To minimize the extent to which outcome differences between experimental and control groups can be attributed to placebo effects, researchers make use of a. random sampling. b. the double-blind procedure. c. random assignment. d. operational definitions. ANSWER: b 236. The relief of pain following the taking of an inactive substance that is perceived to have pain-relieving benefits illustrates a. random assignment. b. hindsight bias. c. debriefing. d. the placebo effect. ANSWER: d 237. The placebo effect best illustrates the impact of ________ on feelings and behaviors. a. the double-blind procedure b. random sampling c. positive expectations d. hindsight bias ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com

238. In an experimental study, men with erectile disorder received either Viagra or a placebo. In this study, the Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice drug dosage (none versus peak dosage) was the a. confounding variable. b. dependent variable. c. random sample. d. independent variable. ANSWER: d 239. In a psychological experiment, the experimental factor that is manipulated by the investigator is called the ________ variable. a. dependent b. independent c. control d. experimental ANSWER: b 240. In an experiment to study how parental criticisms affect a child's self-esteem, parental criticisms would be the ________ variable. a. replicated b. dependent c. confounding d. independent ANSWER: d 241. A factor other than the independent variable that might produce an effect in an experiment is called a a. wording effect. b. correlation coefficient. c. placebo effect. d. confounding variable. ANSWER: d 242. If participants in the experimental group of a study of athletic ability are much older than participants in the control group, the age of the research participants is a a. dependent variable. b. correlation coefficient. c. confounding variable. d. replication. ANSWER: c 243. In a psychological experiment, the factor that may be influenced by the manipulated experimental treatment is called the ________ variable. a. dependent ScholarFriends.com b. experimental Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice c. control d. independent ANSWER: a 244. To assess the influence of self-esteem on interpersonal attraction, researchers either insulted or complimented students about their physical appearance just before they went on a blind date. In this research, the dependent variable was a. insults or compliments. b. physical appearance. c. interpersonal attraction. d. feelings of self-esteem. ANSWER: c 245. A researcher is studying how drinking caffeinated sodas might affect childhood friendships, the researcher clearly identified the procedures used to measure childhood friendships. This illustrates a. the independent variable. b. an operational definition. c. the double-blind procedure. d. random assignment. ANSWER: b 246. Assessing how well one variable predicts another variable is to ________ as detecting cause-effect relationships between different variables is to ________. a. naturalistic observation; case studies b. descriptive methods; correlational methods c. a control group; an experimental group d. correlational research; experimental research ANSWER: d 247. Observing and recording behavior is the main purpose behind ________ research. a. descriptive b. correlational c. experimental d. longitudinal ANSWER: a 248. Examining naturally occurring relationships is the basic purpose of conducting ________ research. a. descriptive b. correlational c. experimental d. longitudinal ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 249. Determining a cause-effect relationship is the main purpose of conducting a. descriptive research. b. correlational research. c. an experiment. d. longitudinal research. ANSWER: c 250. The simplified reality of laboratory experiments is most helpful in enabling psychologists to a. predict human behavior in almost all situations. b. perceive order in completely random events. c. develop general principles that help explain behavior. d. observe random samples of human conduct. ANSWER: c 251. Depression and suicide are more common in North America today than they were a century ago. But in both periods, pessimistic thinking and feelings of loneliness correspond to a heightened risk of depression and suicide. This best illustrates that ________ play a role in depression and suicide in varied settings. a. genetic differences b. unconscious motives c. early childhood memories d. common underlying principles ANSWER: d 252. Professor Gordon is studying the effect that lack of sleep has on driving ability. She divides participants into two groups. One group gets the treatment, in this case interrupted sleep, and the other group does not. Participants then complete a task to measure their reaction time. Professor Gordon finds that those whose sleep had been interruptedhad a slower reaction time than those who had a full night's sleepl. She then concludes that lack of sleep would impair driving ability. Why is she able to reach this conclusion? a. She can make this conclusion because she adhered to all research ethics. b. She did not use deception in her study, making her results more accurate. c. She is testing theoretical principles that can help explain everyday behaviors. d. She cannot make this conclusion because participants did not drive in the study. ANSWER: c 253. Psychologists study animals because a. animal behavior is just as complex as human behavior. b. experiments on people are generally considered to be unethical. c. the ethical treatment of animals is not mandated by professional guidelines. d. similar processes often underlie animal and human behavior. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 254. A central issue that emerges in debates over experimenting on animals is the a. usefulness of studying biological processes in animals. b. ethics of placing the well-being of humans above that of animals. c. obligation to treat information about individual animals with confidentiality. d. need to obtain the informed consent of animals used in research. ANSWER: b 255. A major issue that has emerged from debates over the use of animals in psychological research centers on a. whether operational definitions help to distinguish between animal and human functioning. b. when use of the double-blind procedure is most appropriate in animal studies. c. whether experimental methods can reduce the need for descriptive methods in research involving animals. d. what safeguards should protect the well-being of animals used in research. ANSWER: d 256. Research on animal subjects has demonstrated that a. animals can benefit from research. b. animals are always harmed during research. c. it is not possible for animals to benefit from research. d. research using animal subjects is unethical. ANSWER: a 257. Which of the following is NOT an example of animal research guidelines, as discussed in the text? a. informed consent b. companions for social animals c. humane care d. minimize discomfort ANSWER: a 258. Some of psychology's classic experiments used methods that were stressful and deceptive. Which of the following is NOT an example of a practice that safeguards against such methods today? a. Researchers must explain temporary deceptions to participants afterward. b. Researchers must obtain participants' informed consent. c. Researchers must ensure that their values do not impact their scientific judgment. d. Researchers must protect participants against out-of-the-ordinary harm and discomfort. ANSWER: c 259. In an effort to prevent participants in an experiment from trying to confirm the researchers' predictions, psychologists sometimes a. obtain written promises from participants to respond honestly. ScholarFriends.com b. treat information about individual participants confidentially. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice c. deceive participants about the true purpose of an experiment. d. allow people to decide for themselves whether they want to participate in an experiment. ANSWER: c 260. The ethics codes of the APA and Britain's BPS urge researchers to a. avoid the use of monetary incentives in recruiting people to participate in research. b. forewarn potential research participants of the exact hypotheses that the research will test. c. avoid the manipulation of independent variables in research involving human participants. d. explain the research to the participants after the study has been completed. ANSWER: d 261. Potential research participants are told enough about an upcoming study to enable them to choose whether they wish to participate. This illustrates the practice of seeking a. a representative sample. b. informed consent. c. an operational definition. d. a placebo effect. ANSWER: b 262. After an experiment, research participants are told its purpose and about any deception they may have experienced. This is called a. debriefing. b. replication. c. informed consent. d. the double-blind procedure. ANSWER: a 263. Dr. Zuniga has just completed a research study, and so she is now explaining to the participants the true purpose of the study and any deceptions that were used. Her explanations are referred to as a. debriefing. b. informed consent. c. the double-blind procedure. d. random assignment. ANSWER: a 264. To ensure scientific integrity, leading scientists cite honesty as the most important scientific value, followed by a. skepticism and conformity. b. curiosity and perseverance. c. computation and interpretation. d. rigidity and consistency. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 265. Dr. Correa is leading a team of researchers to study the effect of social media on a person's self-esteem. Dr. Correa advises his team that it is most important that they a. persuade each other about the correct results. b. be honest in their evaluations. c. use naturalistic observation. d. obtain study participants' informed consent. ANSWER: b 266. Based on a fraudulent 1998 study, some parents were misled into thinking that the childhood MMR vaccine increased the risk of a. childhood obesity. b. autism spectrum disorder. c. infantile amnesia. d. stranger anxiety. ANSWER: b 267. Psychologists' personal values and goals a. are carefully tested by means of observation and experimentation. b. lead them to avoid experiments involving human participants. c. can bias their observations and interpretations. d. have very little influence on the process of scientific observation. ANSWER: c 268. Dr. Ibrahim and Dr. Garba are observing a preschool class to study children's social interactions. When one child refuses to share a toy with a classmate, Dr. Ibrahim notes that the child is "resolute and determined"; Dr. Garba notes that the child is "inflexible and unsympathetic." What issue does this reflect in psychology? a. Psychological science has the power to persuade. b. Researchers' attitudes can influence their interpretations. c. Fraudulent studies can cause great harm. d. It is critical to obtain study participants' informed consent. ANSWER: b 269. Researchers have demonstrated that the way a question is phrased can affect how people respond. This reveals that a. we tend to generalize from samples that we observe. b. correlation does not prove causation. c. the words used can reflect values. d. an experiment manipulates a factor to determine its effect. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 270. The study of psychology is potentially dangerous because a. psychological knowledge can be used for destructive purposes. b. psychologists generally believe that people are not personally responsible for their actions. c. psychological research usually requires performing stressful experiments on people. d. psychological research typically violates personal privacy rights. ANSWER: a 271. According to the text, you can use psychology in three ways: think, consider, and a. learn. b. improve. c. test. d. evaluate. ANSWER: b 272. According to the text, you can use psychology in three ways: think, ________, and improve. a. learn b. test c. consider d. evaluate ANSWER: c 273. Which of the following is NOT an important way for you to use psychology? a. think critically b. criticize others c. consider other ideas d. improve yourself ANSWER: b 274. Psychological research indicates that regular aerobic exercise is an effective way to minimize a. critical thinking. b. anxiety. c. overconfidence. d. all of these things. ANSWER: b 275. Psychological research indicates that people who are both happier and healthier than average tend to be those who a. perceive their intellectual abilities as fixed by their heredity. b. live spontaneously without focusing on long-term goals. c. give priority to relationships with supportive friends. ScholarFriends.com d. are more physically attractive than average. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 276. The idea that memory is enhanced after retrieving, rather than simply rereading, information is called the a. growth mindset. b. review method. c. SQ3R method. d. testing effect. ANSWER: d 277. In one study, English-speaking students who had been tested repeatedly recalled the meaning of 20 previously learned Lithuanian words better than those who had spent the same time restudying the words. The results of this study demonstrate a. social learning. b. the benefits of heuristics. c. the testing effect. d. the SQ3R method. ANSWER: c 278. SQ3R is a study method incorporating five steps: survey, question, read, ________, and review. a. revise b. reason c. retrieve d. research ANSWER: c 279. The SQ3R study method emphasizes the importance of a. massed practice. b. replication. c. retrieving information. d. random sampling. ANSWER: c 280. Carolyn is attending a class lecture. She listens for the main ideas and sub-ideas of the lecture and writes them down. She also asks questions during class as well as after class. Carolyn is a. thinking critically. b. using massed practice. c. processing the information actively. d. overlearning. ANSWER: c 281. One way to improve our understanding and retention of course material is to actively retrieve the ScholarFriends.com information by Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice a. self-testing. b. rehearsal. c. both self-testing and rehearsal. d. neither self-testing nor rehearsal. ANSWER: c 282. Miguel just opened his psychology textbook to read the chapter that is being covered this week. He turns to the learning objectives listed at the beginning of the chapter and tries to answer each one. He is currently using which part of the SQ3R method? a. read b. retrieve c. survey d. question ANSWER: d 283. Using note cards to test yourself on course material while studying aids a. critical thinking. b. using massed practice. c. processing the information actively. d. overlearning. ANSWER: d 284. The testing effect refers to the ________ that accompanies repeated retrieval of learned information. a. hindsight bias b. naturalistic observation c. enhanced memory d. increasing boredom ANSWER: c 285. Bria, who is taking her first psychology class, earned a C on her first exam. Although C is a passing grade, Bria would like to earn an A in this class. What can she do to help improve not only her grade but also her retention of the material? a. Set long-term goals. b. Break up with her boyfriend. c. Cram for the test the night before the exam. d. Use the SQ3R method when studying. ANSWER: d 286. Detecting the unstated assumptions and values that underlie conclusions best illustrates ________, which is an important learning tool. a. critical thinking ScholarFriends.com b. the testing effect Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice c. spaced practice d. SQ3R ANSWER: a 287. Students learn and remember course materials best when they a. give informed consent. b. engage in massed practice. c. process class information actively. d. avoid operational definitions. ANSWER: c

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 1. The central principle to today's psychology is that a. how we develop is determined only by our biology. b. nature dominates nurture. c. everything psychological is simultaneously biological. d. nature and nurture do not interact. ANSWER: c 2. Professor Miranda studies how evolution, culture, and daily experiences influence human behavior. He is applying a. the biopsychosocial approach. b. the localization of function. c. phrenology. d. neuroplasticity. ANSWER: a 3. Neuroplasticity refers to the brain's capacity to change by forming new neural pathways based on a. refractory periods. b. lateralization. c. experience. d. reuptake. ANSWER: c 4. London's taxi drivers, who spend years learning all the city's 25,000 street locations and connections, have been found to have ________, as compared with London's bus drivers, who learn fewer roads. a. enlarged neurons b. an enlarged hippocampus c. enlarged dendrites d. enlarged glial cells ANSWER: b 5. When she was only a year old, Wilma was seriously injured in a car accident. Fortunately, her brain recovered because ________ is greatest in childhood. a. cerebral cortex maturation b. neuroplasticity c. folding of the four lobes d. localization of simple brain functions ANSWER: b 6. Blind echolocation experts who can use the brain's visual centers to navigate their surroundings best illustrate the value of a. neuroplasticity. ScholarFriends.com b. reuptake. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice c. endorphins. d. refractory periods. ANSWER: a 7. After a number of years of rigorous piano practice, Anthea's motor cortex has changed in a way that enables her skilled finger movements. This best illustrates the value of a. reuptake. b. echolocation. c. neuroplasticity. d. lateralization. ANSWER: c 8. Professor Correa believes that repeated exposure to different traditions, beliefs, and rituals can lead people from different cultural groups to have unique behaviors and brain activation patterns. Professor Correa is a a. biological psychologist. b. cognitive neuroscientist. c. cultural neuroscientist. d. geneticist. ANSWER: c 9. Neurons are best described as a. brief electrical charges that travel down the axon. b. chemical molecules that cross the synaptic gap. c. nerve cells that function as the building blocks of the nervous system. d. bundled axon cables that connect the CNS with muscles, glands, and sense organs. ANSWER: c 10. The part of the neuron that contains the nucleus is called the a. cell body. b. dendrite. c. axon. d. myelin sheath. ANSWER: a 11. Dendrites are branching extensions of a. neurotransmitters. b. endorphins. c. neurons. d. glial cells. ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 12. The function of dendrites is to a. receive and integrate incoming signals from the axons of other neurons. b. release neurotransmitters into the spatial junctions between neurons. c. coordinate the activation of the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems. d. control pain through the release of opioid-like chemicals into the brain. ANSWER: a 13. An axon is a. a cell that serves as the basic building block of the nervous system. b. a layer of fatty tissue that encases the fibers of many neurons. c. a molecule that blocks neurotransmitter receptor sites. d. the segmented extension of a neuron that carries messages away from the cell body. ANSWER: d 14. Dendrite is to ________ as axon is to ________. a. sensory neuron; motor neuron b. sympathetic nervous system: parasympathetic nervous system c. signal reception; signal transmission d. central nervous system; peripheral nervous system ANSWER: c 15. In transmitting sensory information to the brain, an electrical signal travels from the ________ of a single neuron. a. dendrites to the axon to the cell body b. axon to the cell body to the dendrites c. dendrites to the cell body to the axon d. axon to the dendrites to the cell body ANSWER: c 16. Action potentials, or nerve impulses, are a. chemical messengers. b. hormones. c. dendrites. d. electrical signals. ANSWER: d 17. An electrical signal that travels down the axon of a neuron is called the a. synapse. b. myelin sheath. c. action potential. ScholarFriends.com d. refractory period. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 18. When comparing brain activity to computer activity, we can say that a. the brain is more complex than a computer, but it is slower at executing simple responses. b. a computer is more complex than the brain, and it is faster at executing simple responses. c. computers and brains are equally complex, but the brain is faster at executing simple responses. d. computers and brains have similar complexity and response speeds. ANSWER: a 19. Queen bees are to ________ as worker bees are to ________. a. neurons; glial cells b. cell bodies; dendrites c. axons; glial cells d. dendrites; axons ANSWER: a 20. Neurons are surrounded by ________, which guide neural connections and clean up after neurons send messages to one another. a. endorphins b. glial cells c. hormones d. dendrites ANSWER: b 21. One function of glial cells is to a. increase the speed of neural impulses. b. mimic the effects of neurotransmitters. c. provide nutrients to neurons. d. stimulate the production of hormones. ANSWER: c 22. Glial cells provide ________, the sheath of fatty tissue that insulates some neurons. a. synapses b. myelin c. dendrites d. axons ANSWER: b 23. ________ is a sheath of fatty tissue that play(s) an important role in learning. a. Myelin ScholarFriends.com b. Glial cells Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice c. Dendrites d. Axons ANSWER: b 24. A myelin sheath a. is a nerve network within the spinal cord that controls physical arousal. b. is a large band of neural fibers connecting the two adrenal glands. c. covers the axon of some neurons and helps speed neural impulses. d. is a bushy extension of a neuron that conducts impulses toward the cell body. ANSWER: c 25. The speed at which a neural impulse travels is increased when the axon is encased by a(n) a. endorphin. b. myelin sheath. c. glial cell. d. synaptic vesicle. ANSWER: b 26. A synapse is a(n) a. chemical messenger that triggers muscle contractions. b. automatic response to sensory input. c. junction between a sending neuron and a receiving neuron. d. electrical cable containing many axons. ANSWER: c 27. The axon of a sending neuron is separated from the dendrite of a receiving neuron by a a. myelin sheath. b. neural network. c. glial cell. d. synaptic gap. ANSWER: d 28. Most signals that neurons receive from other neurons are ________, speeding up the neuron; some, however, are ________, slowing it down. a. refractory; reuptake b. reuptake; refractory c. inhibitory; excitatory d. excitatory; inhibitory ANSWER: d 29. The signals that a neuron receives are Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice a. always excitatory. b. always inhibitory. c. mostly excitatory and sometimes inhibitory. d. never excitatory nor inhibitory. ANSWER: c 30. To trigger an action potential, the excitatory signals must ________ the inhibitory signals by a minimum intensity, or ________. a. exceed; threshold b. exceed; synapse c. be less than; threshold d. be less than; synapse ANSWER: a 31. The minimum level of stimulation required to trigger a neural impulse is called the a. reflex. b. threshold. c. synapse. d. action potential. ANSWER: b 32. Excitatory signals to a neuron must exceed inhibitory signals by a minimum intensity in order to trigger a. reuptake. b. a refractory period. c. an action potential. d. neurogenesis. ANSWER: c 33. Seamus is describing how neurons communicate to his son. How should he best define threshold for his son? a. It is the tiny gap between neurons. b. It is a nerve impulse. c. It is the level of stimulation required to trigger a neural impulse. d. It is a brief resting pause that occurs after a neuron has fired. ANSWER: c 34. When a neuron fires a. an impulse travels down its axon, carrying information to another cell. b. the synaptic gap closes. c. inhibitory signals are automatically sent to neighboring cells. ScholarFriends.com d. nothing happens. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 35. The refractory period that occurs after a neuron has fired is a time interval in which a. chemical messengers cross synaptic gaps between neurons. b. a neurotransmitter is reabsorbed by a sending neuron. c. an action potential cannot occur. d. an organism reflexively withdraws from a pain stimulus. ANSWER: c 36. Increasing excitatory signals above the threshold for a neuron to fire will not affect the intensity of an action potential. This indicates that a neuron's reaction a. is inhibited by the myelin sheath. b. is delayed by a refractory period. c. is an all-or-none response. d. depends on neurotransmitter molecules. ANSWER: c 37. A neuron's reaction of either firing at full strength or not firing at all is described as a. an all-or-none response. b. a refractory period. c. neuroplasticity. d. a reflexive response. ANSWER: a 38. Guns either fire or they don't, just like the ________ of a neuron. a. all-or-none response b. excitatory signals c. reuptake process d. inhibitory signals ANSWER: a 39. Teresa believes that neurons fire a little at a time. Based on what you have learned about how neurons communicate, how would you explain the firing of a neuron? a. the refractory response b. reuptake response c. inhibitory responses d. an all-or-none response ANSWER: d 40. A slap on the back is more painful than a pat on the back because a slap triggers a. the release of endorphins. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice b. more intense neural impulses. c. the release of GABA. d. more neurons to fire, and to fire more often. ANSWER: d 41. When an action potential reaches the end of an axon, an electrical impulse is then converted into a a. myelin sheath. b. reflexive response. c. chemical message. d. glial cell. ANSWER: c 42. When a(n) ________ reaches the button-like terminals at an axon's end, it triggers the release of chemical messengers. a. dendrite b. action potential c. glial cell d. ion ANSWER: b 43. Neuron-produced chemicals that carry messages to other neurons or to muscles and glands are called a. synapses. b. interneurons. c. dendrites. d. neurotransmitters. ANSWER: d 44. The chemical messengers released into the spatial junctions between neurons are called a. hormones. b. neurotransmitters. c. interneurons. d. glial cells. ANSWER: b 45. Neurotransmitters are released from terminal branches of the a. dendrites. b. cell body. c. axon. d. myelin sheath. ANSWER: c

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 46. Excess neurotransmitters are reabsorbed, drift away, or a. transferred to other neurons. b. released into the bloodstream. c. left in the sending sites. d. are broken down by enzymes. ANSWER: d 47. Reuptake refers to the a. movement of neurotransmitter molecules across a synaptic gap. b. release of hormones into the bloodstream. c. resting pause that occurs after a neuron has fired. d. reabsorption of excess neurotransmitter molecules by a sending neuron. ANSWER: d 48. The number of neurotransmitter molecules located within a specific synaptic gap would most clearly be reduced by a. an action potential. b. ACh-producing neurons. c. lateralization. d. reuptake. ANSWER: d 49. The neurotransmitter dopamine is responsible for all of the following EXCEPT a. learning. b. hunger. c. attention. d. pleasure. ANSWER: b 50. Serotonin is NOT associated with a. attention. b. hunger. c. sleepiness. d. arousal. ANSWER: a 51. Which neurotransmitter plays the most direct role in learning and memory? a. dopamine b. acetylcholine c. GABA ScholarFriends.com d. oxytocin Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 52. Mr. Hernandez's symptoms of confusion and memory loss have led his physicians to conclude that he has Alzheimer's disease. His symptoms are most likely to be linked with a deterioration of brain cells that produce the neurotransmitter a. dopamine. b. acetylcholine. c. epinephrine. d. endorphin. ANSWER: b 53. Mr. Hernandez's symptoms of confusion and memory loss have led his physicians to conclude that he has Alzheimer's disease. His symptoms are most likely to be linked with a deterioration of brain cells that produce the neurotransmitter a. dopamine. b. acetylcholine. c. epinephrine. d. endorphins. ANSWER: b 54. Which neurotransmitter influences movement, learning, attention, and emotion? a. ACh b. dopamine c. serotonin d. GABA ANSWER: b 55. The neurotransmitter dopamine is responsible for all of the following EXCEPT a. learning. b. hunger. c. attention. d. emotion. ANSWER: b 56. Schizophrenia is most closely linked to an oversupply of the neurotransmitter a. dopamine. b. epinephrine. c. acetylcholine. d. serotonin. ANSWER: a ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice feeding or dressing himself without help. His symptoms are most likely to be linked with an undersupply of the neurotransmitter a. cortisol. b. dopamine. c. serotonin. d. oxytocin. ANSWER: b 58. An undersupply of serotonin is most closely linked to a. Alzheimer's disease. b. schizophrenia. c. Parkinson's disease. d. depression. ANSWER: d 59. Sherry has been somewhat depressed lately. Her physician believes that the neurotransmitter that influences alertness and arousal is the root of her depression. Which neurotransmitter may be the culprit? a. dopamine b. serotonin c. GABA d. norepinephrine ANSWER: d 60. Serotonin is NOT associated with a. attention. b. hunger. c. sleepiness. d. arousal. ANSWER: a 61. An undersupply of the major inhibitory neurotransmitter known as ________ is linked to insomnia. a. glutamate b. GABA c. serotonin d. ACh ANSWER: b 62. Christopher has experienced a seizure, which his doctor believes is neurotransmitter-related. Christopher's seizure was most likely linked to an a. undersupply of GABA. b. undersupply of serotonin. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice c. oversupply of glutamate. d. undersupply of acetylcholine. ANSWER: a 63. Ogden's migraines have led him to seek medical help. It is likely that his symptoms are most closely linked to an a. oversupply of GABA. b. undersupply of serotonin. c. oversupply of glutamate. d. undersupply of acetylcholine. ANSWER: c 64. Insomnia is to ________ as depression is to ________. a. ACh, dopamine b. GABA, serotonin c. glutamate, endorphins d. norepinephrine, GABA ANSWER: b 65. Opioid drugs ________ neural activity and temporarily ________ pain and anxiety. a. depress; increase b. accelerate; decrease c. depress; decrease d. accelerate; increase ANSWER: c 66. Which of the following would NOT be affected by the level of norepinephrine in our body? a. mood b. memory c. alertness d. arousal ANSWER: b 67. Corrine has been depressed for the last few months. Her doctor believes that the neurotransmitter that helps control alertness and arousal is the root of her depression. Which neurotransmitter may be the culprit? a. dopamine b. acetylcholine c. GABA d. norepinephrine ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 68. Which of the following is an opioid that elevates mood and eases pain? a. GABA b. acetylcholine c. morphine d. glutamate ANSWER: c 69. Opioid-like neurotransmitters linked to pain control and to feelings of pleasure are known as a. glia. b. GABAs. c. endorphins. d. glutamates. ANSWER: c 70. Endorphins are a. neurotransmitters. b. sex hormones. c. endocrine glands. d. glial cells. ANSWER: a 71. Mathilda believes in the healing effects of acupuncture and frequently advocates for its use. Researchers have been able to confirm its effectiveness and credit ________ for its effects. a. GABA b. endorphins c. glutamate d. ACh ANSWER: b 72. Opioid drugs occupy the same receptor sites as a. serotonin. b. endorphins. c. dopamine. d. epinephrine. ANSWER: b 73. Ricardo was the goalie in a long, bruising soccer game but feels little fatigue or discomfort. His lack of pain is most likely caused by the release of a. glutamate. b. dopamine. ScholarFriends.com c. acetylcholine. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice d. endorphins. ANSWER: d 74. Deidra has been doing aerobic exercise daily for more than three years. The release of ________ can help explain why she feels good after exercising. a. axons b. neurons c. endorphins d. glial cells ANSWER: c 75. The body's natural production of endorphins is likely to be a. increased by heroin use and increased by vigorous exercise. b. decreased by heroin use and decreased by vigorous exercise. c. increased by heroin use and decreased by vigorous exercise. d. decreased by heroin use and increased by vigorous exercise. ANSWER: d 76. Kevin's intensely uncomfortable withdrawal symptoms following heroin use were probably due in part to a reduction in his body's normal production of a. dopamine. b. epinephrine. c. acetylcholine. d. endorphins. ANSWER: d 77. Mathilda believes in the healing effects of acupuncture and frequently advocates for its use. Researchers have been able to confirm its effectiveness and credit ________ for its effects. a. GABA b. endorphins c. glutamate d. ACh ANSWER: b 78. The nervous system is a. the complete set of glands that secrete hormones into the bloodstream. b. the collection of bundled axons that form electrical cables carrying information to the body's muscles. c. an organism's complete set of automatic reflex responses. d. the electrochemical communication network that includes all the body's neurons. ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 79. The two major divisions of the nervous system are the central nervous system and the ________ nervous system. a. autonomic b. sympathetic c. somatic d. peripheral ANSWER: d 80. The central nervous system consists of a. sensory and motor neurons. b. somatic and autonomic systems. c. the brain and the spinal cord. d. sympathetic and parasympathetic branches. ANSWER: c 81. Which nervous system is responsible for gathering information and transmitting decisions from the CNS to other parts of the body? a. sympathetic nervous system b. peripheral nervous system c. somatic nervous system d. autonomic nervous system ANSWER: b 82. Devin is playing soccer. Instructions about where and how to move are carried from his CNS to his muscles by a. the myelin sheath. b. interneurons. c. motor neurons. d. sensory neurons. ANSWER: c 83. Information travels through axons that are bundled into the cables we call a. interneurons. b. action potentials. c. nerves. d. reflex pathways. ANSWER: c 84. You feel the pain of a sprained ankle when ________ relay(s) messages from your ankle to your central nervous system. a. the myelin sheath ScholarFriends.com b. interneurons Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice c. motor neurons d. sensory neurons ANSWER: d 85. Sensory neurons are located in the a. synaptic gaps. b. endocrine system. c. peripheral nervous system. d. myelin sheath. ANSWER: c 86. Sanjay was bitten by fire ants when he stepped on a dome-shaped mound of soil. Messages about the ant bites on his foot were sent inward to the brain and spinal cord for processing by a. sensory neurons. b. motor neurons. c. interneurons. d. spinal neurons. ANSWER: a 87. Information is carried from the central nervous system to the body's tissues by a. interneurons. b. sensory neurons. c. motor neurons. d. adrenal glands. ANSWER: c 88. Some neurons enable you to kick a soccer ball by relaying outgoing messages to the muscles in your legs and feet. These neurons are called a. interneurons. b. sensory neurons. c. neurotransmitters. d. motor neurons. ANSWER: d 89. Motor neurons transmit signals to a. glands. b. interneurons. c. sensory neurons. d. all of these parts. ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 90. Neurons that function within the brain and spinal cord are called a. sensory neurons. b. interneurons. c. endorphins. d. motor neurons. ANSWER: b 91. Central nervous system neurons that process information between sensory inputs and motor outputs are called a. neurotransmitters. b. interneurons. c. synapses. d. dendrites. ANSWER: b 92. The complexity of humans is related mostly to ________, which are far more numerous than other types of neurons. a. sensory neurons b. motor neurons c. interneurons d. spinal neurons ANSWER: c 93. The two parts of the peripheral nervous system are the a. brain and spinal cord. b. sympathetic nervous system and parasympathetic nervous system. c. endocrine system and circulatory system. d. somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system. ANSWER: d 94. The somatic nervous system is a component of the ________ nervous system. a. peripheral b. central c. sympathetic d. parasympathetic ANSWER: a 95. Messages are transmitted from your spinal cord to muscles in your back by the ________ nervous system. a. somatic b. parasympathetic ScholarFriends.com c. sympathetic Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice d. autonomic ANSWER: a 96. The part of the peripheral nervous system that controls the movements of your mouth and jaws as you eat is called the a. somatic nervous system. b. sympathetic nervous system. c. endocrine system. d. autonomic nervous system. ANSWER: a 97. As you are sitting in the library reading a book, a friend approaches you from behind, places her hand on your shoulder, and says "Hi." Which part of your nervous system transfers this information to your brain and then gives you instructions to turn your head? a. autonomic b. sympathetic c. parasympathetic d. somatic ANSWER: d 98. The part of the peripheral nervous system that controls the glands and the muscles of the internal organs is called the a. somatic nervous system. b. endocrine system. c. sensory nervous system. d. autonomic nervous system. ANSWER: d 99. Messages are transmitted from your spinal cord to your stomach by the a. sensory nervous system. b. somatic nervous system. c. central nervous system. d. autonomic nervous system. ANSWER: d 100. Which nervous system is self-regulating and named as such? a. autonomic b. sympathetic c. parasympathetic d. somatic ANSWER: a ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 101. Irishe is having lunch in the school cafeteria while checking messages on her iPhone. Which part of the nervous system is responsible for stimulating digestion? a. autonomic b. sympathetic c. somatic d. peripheral ANSWER: a 102. Which division of the autonomic nervous system arouses the body and mobilizes its energy in stressful situations? a. the parasympathetic nervous system b. the sympathetic nervous system c. the somatic nervous system d. the central nervous system ANSWER: b 103. When a large moose comes charging through his backyard, Millo's ________ nervous system arouses and energizes him. When the moose is gone and the perceived threat is over, his ________ nervous system calms and conserves his energy. a. autonomic; somatic b. sympathetic; parasympathetic c. somatic; autonomic d. parasympathetic; sympathetic ANSWER: b 104. You are asleep one night when you hear a rustling sound from downstairs. Your heart starts racing and you begin to perspire. These physical reactions are triggered by the a. somatic nervous system. b. sympathetic nervous system. c. parasympathetic nervous system. d. sensory nervous system. ANSWER: b 105. The parasympathetic nervous system a. stimulates digestion and slows heartbeat. b. inhibits digestion and accelerates heartbeat. c. stimulates digestion and accelerates heartbeat. d. inhibits digestion and slows heartbeat. ANSWER: a 106. After Luka's parents assure him that thereScholarFriends.com are no animals hiding under his bed, his blood pressure decreases and his heartbeat slows. These physical reactions were most directly regulated by his Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice a. parasympathetic nervous system. b. sympathetic nervous system. c. somatic nervous system. d. sensory nervous system. ANSWER: a 107. An accelerated heartbeat is to a slowed heartbeat as the ________ nervous system is to the ________ nervous system. a. somatic; autonomic b. autonomic; somatic c. sympathetic; parasympathetic d. parasympathetic; sympathetic ANSWER: c 108. Neural networks refer to a. the branching extensions of a neuron. b. interrelated clusters of neurons in the central nervous system. c. electrical cables containing many axons. d. junctions between sending and receiving neurons. ANSWER: b 109. The strengthening of the brain's synaptic connections facilitates the formation of a. interneurons. b. endorphins. c. neural networks. d. glial cells. ANSWER: c 110. While Javier is sitting in class, he is taking in information from what his professor says and does. This information is then carried from his sensory neurons to the spinal cord and brain, or ________, for processing. a. central nervous system b. peripheral nervous system c. somatic nervous system d. autonomic nervous system ANSWER: a 111. Jessica, a goalie on the soccer team, can simultaneously make calculations of receiver distances, player movements, and the force of her own arm movements needed to effectively prevent a kicked ball passing her by. This best illustrates the activity of multiple a. endocrine glands. b. endorphins. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice c. neural networks. d. reticular formations. ANSWER: c 112. The part of the central nervous system that carries information from your senses to your brain and motorcontrol information to your body parts is the a. pituitary gland. b. pancreas. c. spinal cord. d. myelin sheath. ANSWER: c 113. The part of the ________ that carries information from your senses to your brain and motor-control information to your body parts is the spinal cord. a. central nervous system b. peripheral nervous system c. parasympathetic nervous system d. somatic nervous system ANSWER: a 114. A simple, automatic, inborn response to a sensory stimulus is called a(n) a. neural network. b. action potential. c. neurotransmitter. d. reflex. ANSWER: d 115. Simple reflexes are controlled by the a. cerebral cortex. b. spinal cord. c. amygdala. d. pons. ANSWER: b 116. As Jason tries to remove the steak he is making from the grill, he accidentally touches the grill with his hand, burning it. Jason instinctively moves his hand from the grill before realizing that he has burned his hand. This illustrates the a. importance of the parasympathetic nervous system. b. relevance of interneurons. c. all-or-none response. d. importance of reflexive responses. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 117. The knee-jerk reflex is controlled by interneurons in the a. synaptic gap. b. spinal cord. c. sympathetic nervous system. d. parasympathetic nervous system. ANSWER: b 118. In a tragic biking accident, Dan damaged his spinal cord. As a result, his legs are paralyzed. Dan's injury was located in his a. somatic nervous system. b. autonomic nervous system. c. sympathetic nervous system. d. central nervous system. ANSWER: d 119. Erik consistently exhibits a knee-jerk response without having any sensations of the taps on his knees. Erik's experience is most indicative of a. neuroplasticity. b. a severed spinal cord. c. a sympathetic nervous system injury. d. a refractory period. ANSWER: b 120. The endocrine system consists of the a. communication network that includes all the body's neurons. b. regions of the brain that regulate emotion. c. interneurons within the spinal cord. d. glands and fat tissue that secrete hormones. ANSWER: d 121. Hormones are the chemical messengers of the a. autonomic nervous system. b. somatic nervous system. c. endocrine system. d. central nervous system. ANSWER: c 122. The speedy nervous system zips messages by way of neurotransmitters. Endocrine messages, however, are delivered more slowly because hormones travel through ScholarFriends.com a. myelinated neurons. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice b. the bloodstream. c. glial cells. d. interneurons. ANSWER: b 123. The ________ is similar to the nervous system in that both produce molecules that act on receptors elsewhere in the body. a. central nervous system b. endocrine system c. peripheral nervous system d. autonomic nervous system ANSWER: b 124. The effects of ________ last longer than neural messages. a. hormones b. neurotransmitters c. the nervous system d. reflexes ANSWER: a 125. Michelle and her boyfriend had a fight earlier in the day. Although they made up after the fight, Michelle still feels angry hours later. Why is this? a. Central nervous system messages last an extended period. b. Peripheral nervous system messages last an extended period. c. Endocrine system messages last an extended period. d. Parasympathetic nervous system messages last an extended period. ANSWER: c 126. The ovaries in females and the testes in males are part of the a. somatic nervous system. b. endocrine system. c. autonomic nervous system. d. central nervous system. ANSWER: b 127. The release of hormones by the adrenal glands is most likely to trigger a. depression. b. the fight-or-flight response. c. the pain reflex. d. a refractory period. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 128. Suppose your boyfriend accuses you of cheating on him, your adrenal glands would probably release ________ into your bloodstream. a. endorphins b. acetylcholine c. epinephrine d. oxytocin ANSWER: c 129. The release of epinephrine into the bloodstream is most likely to a. increase blood sugar. b. lower blood pressure. c. stimulate digestion. d. decrease perspiration. ANSWER: a 130. The hypothalamus influences the ________ to send messages to the ________. a. adrenal glands; pancreas b. pituitary; endocrine glands c. motor neurons; sensory neurons d. somatic nervous system; autonomic nervous system ANSWER: b 131. At the age of 25, Mrs. Scott was 4 feet 2 inches tall. Mrs. Scott was probably so short because of the lack of a growth hormone produced by the a. pancreas. b. thyroid. c. adrenal gland. d. pituitary gland. ANSWER: d 132. Laura and several classmates are studying for upcoming test. As they talk, levels of oxytocin in Laura's bloodstream begin to rise. This is most likely to lead Laura to experience increased feelings of a. irritation. b. envy. c. social connection. d. anxiety. ANSWER: c 133. Oxytocin is secreted by the a. pancreas. b. thyroid gland. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice c. pituitary gland. d. adrenal gland. ANSWER: c 134. Darleen is in labor with her first child. Which hormone is responsible for the contractions that she feels as part of labor? a. ACh b. glutamate c. oxytocin d. GABA ANSWER: c 135. The fact that oxytocin aids both milk flow in nursing and orgasm suggests that oxytocin a. is important for survival. b. facilitates pleasurable sensations. c. aids pair bonding. d. promotes social connection. ANSWER: d 136. Oxytocin does all of the following EXCEPT a. enabling communities to act cooperatively. b. enabling contractions during labor. c. enabling milk flow while nursing. d. enabling the hypothalamus to influence the pituitary gland. ANSWER: d 137. The master gland of the endocrine system is the a. thyroid gland. b. adrenal gland. c. pituitary gland. d. pancreas. ANSWER: c 138. The pituitary gland is referred to as the "master gland" because it a. directs other endocrine glands to release their hormones. b. directs the hypothalamus to release its hormones. c. is directed by the hypothalamus. d. directs other adrenal glands to release their hormones. ANSWER: a ScholarFriends.com 139. A device that records waves of electrical activity sweeping across the surface of the brain is called a(n) Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice a. fMRI. b. EEG. c. PET scan. d. MRI. ANSWER: b 140. Erika is participating in a study in which she completes tasks while electrodes are placed on her scalp to record waves of electrical activity on the brain's surface. Which brain imaging technique is being used? a. MRI b. EEG c. MEG d. PET ANSWER: b 141. Professor Glenday wants to learn how reading influences brain activity. Which technique is he likely to use to aid his research on the brain? a. fMRI b. PET c. EEG d. MEG ANSWER: d 142. Which technique measures fields from the brain's natural electrical activity? a. MRI b. PET scan c. EEG d. MEG ANSWER: d 143. By measuring magnetic fields from the brain's natural electrical activity, researchers are able to understand how certain tasks are related to brain activity in certain areas. This technique is called a(n) a. EEG. b. MEG. c. PET scan. d. MRI. ANSWER: b 144. Garry just left his physician's office where he underwent a brain scan that measured the magnetic fields from his brain's neural electrical activity. Which brain scan was this? a. MRI b. EEG ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice c. MEG d. PET scan ANSWER: c 145. To identify which of Iona's brain areas was most active when she talked, neuroscientists gave her a temporarily radioactive form of glucose and a(n) a. fMRI. b. PET scan. c. EEG. d. MRI scan. ANSWER: b 146. Professor Schittone is studying the specific brain areas that become active when people perform math computations. Which technique would be most helpful for this research? a. lesioning b. PET scan c. EEG d. MEG ANSWER: b 147. Magnetic resonance imaging uses magnetic fields and ________ to produce computer-generated images of soft tissue. a. radio waves b. microelectrodes inserted into the brain c. a radioactive form of glucose d. electrodes placed on the scalp ANSWER: a 148. Fluid-filled brain areas are called a. ventricles. b. pons. c. the cerebellum. d. lesions. ANSWER: a 149. The best way to detect enlarged fluid-filled brain regions in some patients who have schizophrenia is to use a(n) a. EEG. b. MRI. c. PET scan. d. MEG. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 150. To detect Mr. Wagner's loss of brain tissue from a type of dementia, his physicians are most likely to request that he receive a(n) a. EEG. b. MRI scan. c. MEG. d. PET scan. ANSWER: b 151. To identify which specific brain areas are most active while a person is doing the multiplication tables, researchers would be most likely to make use of a(n) a. fMRI. b. microelectrode insertion. c. MRI. d. PET scan. ANSWER: a 152. Wayne's doctor performed a test to reveal both the function and structure of his brain. Which brain scan was used? a. MRI b. EEG c. fMRI d. PET ANSWER: c 153. Jessica and her mother are arguing over Jessica's daily chores. She has forgotten to do them again. The brain imaging technique that would show which areas of Jessica's brain are active as she argues with her mother is the a. fMRI. b. EEG. c. lesioning. d. MRI. ANSWER: a 154. Researchers who found that symptoms of depression and anxiety correlated with increased activity in the right frontal lobe used the ________ to examine the brain. a. EEG b. MEG c. PET d. MRI ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 155. Studies have found that people with a history of violent behavior tend to have smaller frontal lobes than people without such a history. What neural measure did researchers use to study this difference? a. EEG b. MEG c. PET d. MRI ANSWER: d 156. The study that is using MRI scans of 1400 people to map the brain's interconnected network of neurons is the a. Brain Exposure Project. b. Positron Emission Tomography Scan. c. Human Connectome Project. d. Organ of Agility Study. ANSWER: c 157. In vertebrates, the ________ contains brainstem structures that direct essential survival functions such as breathing and sleeping. a. forebrain b. midbrain c. hindbrain d. thalamus ANSWER: c 158. Bears are known to hibernate during the winter months. Their sleeping is controlled by the a. pons. b. forebrain. c. midbrain. d. hindbrain. ANSWER: d 159. The ________ connects the hindbrain and the forebrain. a. reticular formation b. midbrain c. medulla d. thalamus ANSWER: b 160. In vertebrates, the ________ controls some movement and transmits information that enables seeing and hearing. ScholarFriends.com a. medulla Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice b. forebrain c. midbrain d. hindbrain ANSWER: c 161. Yesenia loves to walk through the woods, seeing and listening to the wildlife. Yesenia's seeing and hearing are enabled by the a. pons. b. forebrain. c. midbrain. d. hindbrain. ANSWER: c 162. In vertebrates, the ________ manages complex cognitive activities, sensory and associative functions, and voluntary motor activities. a. pons b. forebrain c. midbrain d. hindbrain ANSWER: b 163. Humans have well-developed forebrains, which allow us to excel at making complex decisions and judgments. Predatory sharks have complex hindbrains, which allow them to excel at hunting prey. These differences indicate that a. humans and sharks rival one another in intelligence. b. humans are not known for their excellence in hunting prey. c. complex development in one brain region occurs at the expense of other brain regions. d. organisms' brains have evolved to best suit their environment. ANSWER: d 164. A brain structure that is NOT part of the forebrain is the a. cerebral cortex. b. pons. c. thalamus. d. hypothalamus. ANSWER: b 165. Susan, a mathematician, experienced a small stroke that affected her ability to analyze complex problems. The stroke most likely occurred in Susan's a. forebrain. b. midbrain. ScholarFriends.com c. hindbrain. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice d. spinal cord. ANSWER: a 166. Conscious information processing is LEAST likely to be required for the automatic physical survival functions regulated by the a. hippocampus. b. thalamus. c. brainstem. d. amygdala. ANSWER: c 167. Basic automatic survival functions, such as heartbeat and breathing, are controlled by the a. pons. b. brainstem. c. thalamus. d. reticular formation. ANSWER: b 168. The hindbrain structure at the brainstem's base that controls heartbeat and breathing is called the a. cerebellum. b. medulla. c. amygdala. d. thalamus. ANSWER: b 169. Abigail has realized that both her heartbeat and breathing are automatic functions that she does not have to consciously think about. The hindbrain structure at the brainstem's base that regulates these functions is her a. thalamus. b. reticular formation. c. cerebellum. d. medulla. ANSWER: d 170. The part of the brainstem that helps to control sleep is called the a. hypothalamus. b. hippocampus. c. amygdala. d. pons. ANSWER: d 171. Jon has trouble sleeping regularly. He hasScholarFriends.com difficulty falling asleep and then staying asleep. On average, he gets 4 hours of sleep each night. His ________ may not be functioning properly. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice a. thalamus b. hypothalamus c. reticular formation d. pons ANSWER: d 172. Harry often struggles with coordinating his gross motor movements. Researchers have determined that the ________ is responsible for this function. a. medulla b. pons c. cerebellum d. thalamus ANSWER: b 173. If your ________ is destroyed, the right side of your brain could not control the movements of your left hand. a. brainstem b. hippocampus c. amygdala d. hypothalamus ANSWER: a 174. Which part of the brain is considered a crossover point, where most nerves to and from each side of the brain connect with the body's opposite side? a. brainstem b. hippocampus c. amygdala d. hypothalamus ANSWER: a 175. The joined pair of egg-shaped brain structures that receives information from all your senses except smell is the a. hippocampus. b. amygdala. c. pons. d. thalamus. ANSWER: d 176. The brain structure that acts as a sensory control center is the a. medulla. b. cerebellum. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice c. thalamus. d. hippocampus. ANSWER: c 177. The ________ receives replies regarding the senses from various brain regions and directs the information to the medulla and the cerebellum. a. thalamus b. hypothalamus c. reticular formation d. pons ANSWER: a 178. Darron lost his sense of taste because a tumor caused damage to a structure located on top of his brainstem. This structure is known as the a. amygdala. b. thalamus. c. medulla. d. hippocampus. ANSWER: b 179. Information from higher brain regions is transmitted to the medulla and cerebellum through the a. hypothalamus. b. hippocampus. c. amygdala. d. thalamus. ANSWER: d 180. Who discovered that the reticular formation controlled arousal in the 1949 study involving electrically stimulating the reticular formation of cats? a. Moruzzi and Magoun b. Klüver c. Bucy d. Milner ANSWER: a 181. The reticular formation is a nerve network that travels through the ________ into the thalamus. a. brainstem b. amygdala c. hypothalamus d. cerebellum ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 182. Alan is preparing breakfast for his children while also rehearsing for a speech he has to give in the afternoon. Which brain area is involved in this multitasking? a. reticular formation b. medulla c. pons d. cerebellum ANSWER: a 183. Which region inside your brainstem plays a role in arousing you to a state of alertness when, for example, you trip over the slippers you accidentally left by your bed? a. reticular formation b. hypothalamus c. amygdala d. hippocampus ANSWER: a 184. Severing a cat's reticular formation from higher brain regions causes the cat to a. become violently aggressive. b. cower in fear. c. experience convulsive seizures. d. lapse into a coma. ANSWER: d 185. Which baseball-sized structure behind the brainstem serves many functions, including helping you to control your emotions and aiding your vocabulary, reading, and ability to store information? a. amygdala b. cerebellum c. hippocampus d. reticular formation ANSWER: b 186. The cerebellum regulates a. hunger and thirst. b. heartbeat and breathing. c. physical coordination and balance. d. fear and rage. ANSWER: c 187. As Cloe sends a text to a friend, the ________ aids in coordinating her finger movements on the iPhone. a. medulla b. pons ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice c. cerebellum d. thalamus ANSWER: c 188. In a motorcycle race, Dexter missed a sharp curve and was thrown from his motorcycle. The doctor detected damage to his cerebellum. Dexter is most likely to have difficulty a. doing mathematical computations. b. understanding what others are saying. c. tasting the flavors of foods. d. playing his guitar. ANSWER: d 189. Which structure at the back of the brain helps process and store memories for things you cannot consciously recall, such as how to ride a skateboard? a. amygdala b. cerebellum c. hypothalamus d. reticular formation ANSWER: b 190. As Cloe reads a new book, her ________ is involved in aiding her vocabulary, reading, and ability to store information. a. medulla b. pons c. cerebellum d. thalamus ANSWER: c 191. By managing life-sustaining functions outside our awareness, the brainstem frees newer brain regions to enable our conscious thinking. This best illustrates the value of a. the all-or-none response. b. two-track processing. c. neuroplasticity. d. the split brain. ANSWER: b 192. A neural system located mostly in the forebrain below the cerebral hemispheres is known as the a. pons. b. limbic system. c. reticular formation. d. medulla. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 193. The limbic system consists of a. the amygdala, hypothalamus, and hippocampus. b. the cerebral hemispheres and frontal lobes. c. all four frontal lobes. d. the motor cortex and somatosensory cortex. ANSWER: a 194. The amygdala consists of almond-shaped, emotion-linked neural clusters in the a. brainstem. b. reticular formation. c. limbic system. d. cerebellum. ANSWER: c 195. The amygdala is responsible for the regulation of a. survival mechanisms. b. hunger. c. balance. d. emotion. ANSWER: d 196. Christa, who is terrified of insects, discovers that the cake she left overnight on the kitchen counter is now overrun with ants. Which brain area is involved in her fear response? a. amygdala b. hypothalamus c. medulla d. hippocampus ANSWER: a 197. One woman no longer experienced fear even when threatened with a gun. Her fearlessness is best attributed to damage to her a. pons. b. cerebellum. c. hypothalamus. d. amygdala. ANSWER: d 198. After removing the amygdala of a rhesus monkey, ___________ found that the normally ill-tempered animal had become the most mellow of creatures. ScholarFriends.com a. Olds and Milner Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice b. Moruzzi and Magoun c. Klüver and Bucy d. Fritsch and Hitzig ANSWER: c 199. To demonstrate that brain stimulation can make a rat violently aggressive, a neuroscientist should electrically stimulate the rat's a. reticular formation. b. cerebellum. c. medulla. d. amygdala. ANSWER: d 200. Electrically stimulating different parts of an animal's amygdala can make the animal behave fearfully or aggressively. What does this suggest? a. Multiple brain areas are involved in our feeling afraid or acting aggressively. b. Aggression and fear are localized in the amygdala. c. The limbic system is the only system that regulates emotions. d. The amygdala plays a role in fear and aggression. ANSWER: d 201. Although the amygdala plays a major role in aggression and fear, we cannot attribute all fearful and aggressive behavior to the amygdala because a. there is neural activity in many areas of our brain when we are fearful or act aggressively. b. aggression and fear are not the only emotions regulated by the amygdala. c. the limbic system is the only system that regulates emotions. d. the amygdala works closely with the hypothalamus and hippocampus. ANSWER: a 202. Which limbic system structure regulates hunger and thirst? a. medulla b. amygdala c. hippocampus d. hypothalamus ANSWER: d 203. The brain structure that provides a major link between the nervous system and the endocrine system is the a. cerebellum. b. amygdala. c. reticular formation. ScholarFriends.com d. hypothalamus. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 204. Your hypothalamus secretes hormones based on signals it receives from the a. motor cortex. b. cerebral cortex. c. somatosensory cortex. d. association areas. ANSWER: b 205. Based on signals it receives from your blood chemistry or other brain parts, your hypothalamus a. secretes hormones. b. intensifies thought. c. seeks further stimulation. d. provides pleasurable rewards. ANSWER: a 206. As Ossy thinks about making love to his romantic partner, his hypothalamus secretes hormones that trigger the pituitary gland to a. influence the hippocampus to release hormones. b. activate a reward deficiency syndrome. c. activate his cerebellum. d. influence his sex glands to release their hormones. ANSWER: d 207. The neural center in the limbic system that processes conscious, explicit memories of facts and events for storage is called the a. hypothalamus. b. thalamus. c. hippocampus. d. medulla. ANSWER: c 208. James Olds and Peter Milner located reward centers in the brain structure known as the a. hypothalamus. b. cerebellum. c. medulla. d. amygdala. ANSWER: a 209. Underneath Harriette's car windshield wiper is a note that reads "You are the light in someone's world!" What part of the brain is likely to be activated ScholarFriends.com when Harriette reads the note? a. reward center Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice b. hippocampus c. thalamus d. frontal lobe ANSWER: a 210. Animal research has revealed one general reward system that triggers the release of the neurotransmitter a. acetylcholine. b. GABA. c. dopamine. d. epinephrine. ANSWER: c 211. The pleasure we feel when meeting a likeable person is facilitated by a. cerebral cortex signals. b. reward center activity. c. reticular formation multitasking. d. frontal lobe stimulation. ANSWER: b 212. A brain tumor caused extensive damage to Mr. Roller's hypothalamus. It is most likely that he may experience a loss of a. visual perception. b. muscular coordination. c. sexual motivation. d. language comprehension. ANSWER: c 213. Those who survive a hippocampal brain tumor in childhood are likely to have difficulty ________. a. getting adequate sleep. b. remembering new information. c. maintaining body balance while walking. d. experiencing feelings of fear. ANSWER: b 214. After experiencing a series of head injuries while playing professional football, Art has begun to struggle with remembering the names of friends and even family members. His memory difficulties are most likely to be due to damage to his a. hippocampus. b. motor cortex. c. amygdala. ScholarFriends.com d. hypothalamus. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 215. With age, Judy has noticed a gradual cognitive decline. This is likely partly attributable to a(n) a. increase in hypothalamus functioning. b. decrease in the size of the frontal lobe. c. decrease in hippocampus functioning. d. increasingly large limbic system. ANSWER: c 216. Eighty-five percent of human brain weight comes from the a. hippocampus. b. cerebrum. c. corpus callosum. d. frontal lobes. ANSWER: b 217. The cerebral cortex is the covering layer of the forebrain's a. brainstem. b. corpus callosum. c. hippocampus. d. cerebrum. ANSWER: d 218. The brain's thin surface layer, which serves as your body's ultimate control and information processing center, is the a. limbic system. b. cerebellum. c. corpus callosum. d. cerebral cortex. ANSWER: d 219. The brain's left and right hemispheres are filled mainly with axons that a. control the motor and somatosensory areas. b. connect the cortex to other areas of the brain. c. control the association areas of the brain. d. monitor the various lobes of the brain. ANSWER: b 220. Your conscious awareness of your own name and self-identity depends primarily on the regular functioning of your a. somatosensory cortex. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice b. amygdala. c. motor cortex. d. cerebral cortex. ANSWER: d 221. Which portion of the cerebral cortex lies directly behind the forehead and is involved in speaking and muscle movements and in making plans and judgments? a. temporal lobes b. frontal lobes c. parietal lobes d. occipital lobes ANSWER: b 222. Claudine just started the semester and is now working on her schedule for the term. Which area of her brain is involved in her ability to plan her semester? a. temporal lobes b. frontal lobes c. parietal lobes d. occipital lobes ANSWER: b 223. Which portion of the cerebral cortex is roughly above the ears and includes areas that receive information from the ears? a. parietal lobes b. temporal lobes c. occipital lobes d. frontal lobes ANSWER: b 224. Which portion of the cerebral cortex is located nearest the top of the head just behind the frontal lobes and receives sensory input for touch and body position? a. occipital lobes b. hippocampus c. parietal lobes d. temporal lobes ANSWER: c 225. The occipital lobes are to ________ as the temporal lobes are to ________. a. hearing; sensing movement b. seeing; sensing touch c. seeing; hearing ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice d. speaking; hearing ANSWER: c 226. The parietal lobes are to ________ as the temporal lobes are to ________. a. speaking; sensing movement b. seeing; sensing touch c. sensing touch; hearing d. speaking; hearing ANSWER: c 227. The brain devotes cortical tissue to body parts on the basis of a. their size. b. the amount of control they require. c. their location. d. their frequency of use. ANSWER: b 228. By applying mild electrical stimulation to parts of an animal's cortex, Gustav Fritsch and Eduard Hitzig triggered body movements. They discovered what is now called the a. motor cortex. b. visual cortex. c. auditory cortex. d. somatosensory cortex. ANSWER: a 229. The motor cortex is located at the rear of the ________ lobes. a. occipital b. temporal c. frontal d. parietal ANSWER: c 230. The motor cortex is a. an area at the rear of the frontal lobes that controls voluntary movements. b. an area at the front of the parietal lobes that registers and processes body touch and movement sensations. c. an area of the cerebral cortex that is not involved in primary motor or sensory functions. d. the portion of the cerebral cortex lying at the back of the head. ANSWER: a 231. A laboratory cat could be made to twitch ScholarFriends.com its whiskers by direct stimulation of the ________ lobes of its cerebral cortex. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice a. temporal b. occipital c. frontal d. parietal ANSWER: c 232. During open-brain surgery, Frank's right ankle twitched whenever the surgeon electrically stimulated a specific area within Frank's a. left frontal lobe. b. right frontal lobe. c. left parietal lobe. d. right parietal lobe. ANSWER: a 233. Who stimulated a spot on a patient's left motor cortex, triggering the right hand to make a fist? a. José Delgado b. Otfrid Foerster c. Wilder Penfield d. Eduard Hitzig ANSWER: a 234. Scientists can predict a monkey's arm motion ________ by repeatedly measuring motor cortex activity preceding specific arm movements. a. just before it moves b. during the movement c. long before it moves d. only after it moves ANSWER: a 235. Carlann experienced damage to the left side of her brain. Yet, she has difficulty using her right hand, not her left hand. This indicates that the a. somatosensory cortex is responsible for phantom limb movements. b. motor cortex on the left side of the brain controls movements of specific body parts on the left side of the body. c. association areas of the brain control movements of all body parts. d. motor cortex on the left side of the brain controls movements of specific body parts on the opposite side of the body. ANSWER: d 236. Stimulating the right side of the brain will cause movement on the left side of the body. This indicates that the ScholarFriends.com a. somatosensory cortex is responsible for phantom limb movements. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice b. motor cortex on the right side of the brain controls movements of specific body parts on the right side of the body. c. association areas of the brain control movements of all body parts. d. motor cortex on the right side of the brain controls movements of specific body parts on the opposite side of the body. ANSWER: d 237. Who mapped the motor cortex during the 1930s? a. de Courten-Myers b. Foerster and Penfield c. Fritsch and Hitzig d. Delgado and Gibbs ANSWER: b 238. Which of the following body parts is associated with the greatest amount of brain tissue in the motor cortex? a. arms b. face c. trunk d. knees ANSWER: b 239. By planting a device in the hand area of the ________and in the hand, arm, and shoulder muscles of a man with paralysis in all four limbs, scientists enabled to use his paralyzed arm to drink a cup of coffee. a. motor cortex b. association area c. somatosensory cortex d. hippocampus ANSWER: a 240. The ________ is at the front of the parietal lobes and registers and processes body touch and movement sensations. a. motor cortex b. occipital lobe c. temporal lobe d. somatosensory cortex ANSWER: d 241. The somatosensory cortex is most critical for our sense of a. sight. b. hearing. ScholarFriends.com c. touch. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice d. smell. ANSWER: c 242. Which lobes of the brain receive the input that enables you to feel your friend giving you a backrub? a. parietal b. temporal c. occipital d. frontal ANSWER: a 243. The part of Albert's brain that is essential for him to receive information about his body temperature is the a. corpus callosum. b. hippocampus. c. somatosensory cortex. d. temporal lobe. ANSWER: c 244. Calphus is racing his motorcycle. Which area of his brain registers and processes information related to the movement sensations he feels while riding? a. motor cortex b. somatosensory cortex c. frontal lobe d. temporal lobe ANSWER: b 245. Of the following body parts, which is associated with the greatest amount of brain tissue in the somatosensory cortex? a. toes b. knees c. neck d. fingers ANSWER: d 246. Tammy is talking with a group of friends at another friend's house party. This behavior is regulated by her a. frontal lobes. b. occipital lobes. c. parietal lobes. d. temporal lobes. ANSWER: a 247. People's moral judgments are most likely ScholarFriends.com to seem unrestrained by typical emotions if they have experienced damage to their Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice a. hippocampus. b. somatosensory cortex. c. corpus callosum. d. frontal lobes. ANSWER: d 248. Jeroen does extremely well in classes involving mathematical and spatial reasoning. He can thank the association areas in his ________ for this ability. a. temporal lobes b. frontal lobes c. parietal lobes d. occipital lobes ANSWER: c 249. When the doctors found a large tumor in Gerald's occipital lobe, they removed it, which resulted in extensive loss of brain tissue. Gerald is most likely to experience some loss of a. muscular coordination. b. visual perception. c. speaking ability. d. pain sensations. ANSWER: b 250. Auditory stimulation is processed in the ________ lobes. a. occipital b. temporal c. frontal d. parietal ANSWER: b 251. Falsely hearing a sound in the absence of any external stimulus is called a. neurogenesis. b. a split-brain condition. c. a hallucination. d. an fMRI. ANSWER: c 252. The auditory hallucinations experienced by people with schizophrenia are most closely linked with the activation of areas in their a. motor cortex. b. parietal lobes. ScholarFriends.com c. temporal lobes. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice d. somatosensory cortex. ANSWER: c 253. The association areas are located in the a. brainstem. b. thalamus. c. hippocampus. d. cerebral cortex. ANSWER: d 254. The largest regions of the brain are involved in higher mental functions such as learning, remembering, thinking, and speaking. These regions are called the a. somatosensory cortex. b. hippocampus. c. corpus callosum. d. association areas. ANSWER: d 255. The fact that the ability to interpret and integrate sensory information with stored memories is lost following damage to the ________ disconfirms the claim that we really only use 10 percent of our brain. a. motor cortex b. amygdala c. hypothalamus d. association areas ANSWER: d 256. Mr. Salaya was in a train accident and experienced a traumatic brain injury. Although he quickly regained his ability to play tennis, he could no longer figure out how to find his way from his kitchen to the living room. It is most likely that Mr. Salaya experienced damage to a. the amygdala. b. the somatosensory cortex. c. the motor cortex. d. an association area. ANSWER: d 257. Which of the following brain areas enables judgment, planning, social interactions, and processing of new memories? a. frontal lobes b. prefrontal cortex c. temporal lobes d. parietal lobes ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 258. Knowing that you will be punished for hitting your little sister is a function of the a. somatosensory cortex. b. corpus callosum. c. association areas. d. motor cortex. ANSWER: c 259. Melinda is a returning college student. She took 10 years off when she had her first child and is now finishing course requirements for her bachelor's degree. She has noticed that many of her classmates are much younger than she is and that they miss many classes and talk about "partying" frequently. This may be because their ________ are not yet completely developed. a. frontal lobes b. occipital lobes c. parietal lobes d. temporal lobes ANSWER: a 260. The classic case of railroad worker Phineas Gage best illustrated that frontal lobe damage can a. trigger muscle spasms. b. enhance moral reasoning skills. c. alter one's personality. d. facilitate neurogenesis. ANSWER: c 261. Cecil Clayton became increasingly impulsive and violent, and his score on an intelligence test dropped following damage to his left ________ lobe in a sawmill accident. a. parietal b. occipital c. frontal d. temporal ANSWER: c 262. People's moral judgments are most likely to seem untouched by typical emotions if they have experienced damage to their ________ lobes. a. temporal b. occipital c. parietal d. frontal ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com

263. Impaired mathematical and spatial reasoning is especially likely to be linked with damage to association Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice areas in the a. parietal lobes. b. temporal lobes. c. occipital lobes. d. frontal lobes. ANSWER: a 264. The inability to recognize familiar faces even though one can clearly see and describe features of the faces is associated with damage to the right ________ lobe. a. frontal b. parietal c. occipital d. temporal ANSWER: d 265. Which of the following abilities is NOT directly related to functional connectivity? a. memory b. language c. hearing d. attention ANSWER: c 266. Professor Benjamin is conducting research on how the various regions of the brain work together. He is also interested in the causes of mental disorders. Which of the following techniques is he likely to implement in his research? a. analyses of functional connectivity b. cortex mapping c. neurogenesis d. splitting the corpus callosum ANSWER: a 267. The capacity of a brain area to develop new ________ as it adjusts to damage is known as neuroplasticity. a. manifest content b. information-processing abilities c. latent content d. neural pathways ANSWER: d 268. The capacity of a brain area to ________ as it adjusts to damage is known as neuroplasticity. a. communicate with other areas b. improve its information-processing abilities ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice c. develop new axons d. reorganize ANSWER: d 269. Although Ray lost some manual dexterity following brain damage from a stroke, the development of new neural pathways enabled him to regain most of his lost agility. This best illustrates the value of a. neurogenesis. b. lateralization. c. neuroplasticity. d. reuptake. ANSWER: c 270. The benefits of brain neuroplasticity are most clearly demonstrated in a. children who have had a cerebral hemisphere surgically removed. b. people paralyzed by a severed spinal cord. c. individuals with Alzheimer's disease. d. split-brain patients. ANSWER: a 271. If a slow-growing right-hemisphere tumor disrupts perception, the left hemisphere may take over this perception functioning. This best illustrates the value of a. the split brain. b. neurogenesis. c. reuptake. d. neuroplasticity. ANSWER: d 272. Among Deaf people, a temporal lobe area normally dedicated to hearing may begin to process signals from the visual system used to see and interpret signs, for example. This best illustrates the impact of a. neuroplasticity. b. neurogenesis. c. lateralization. d. refractory periods. ANSWER: a 273. After Warren's right hand was paralyzed, the somatosensory cortex area that had processed sensations of touch from that hand gradually began to process touch sensations from his lower right arm. This best illustrates the consequences of a. neurogenesis. b. neuroplasticity. c. lateralization. ScholarFriends.com d. the split brain. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 274. The surgical removal most of an entire hemisphere of the brain is called a. a hemispherectomy. b. neurogenesis. c. neuroplasticity. d. lateralization. ANSWER: a 275. The process of producing new neurons that may mature longer and grow larger than the neurons we are born with is called a. lateralization. b. hemispherectomy. c. neurogenesis. d. neuroplasticity. ANSWER: c 276. A tendency for the brain's left and right hemispheres to serve different functions is called a. hemispherectomy. b. lateralization. c. neurogenesis. d. neuroplasticity. ANSWER: b 277. A person's ability to reason is controlled by the left rather than the right hemisphere of the brain. This best illustrates a. neurogenesis. b. lateralization. c. tomography. d. neuroplasticity. ANSWER: b 278. Damage to the left cerebral hemisphere is most likely to reduce people's ability to a. solve arithmetic problems. b. copy drawings. c. recognize faces. d. recognize familiar melodies. ANSWER: a 279. Barbara has recently experienced a left hemisphere stroke. Barbara can expect impairment in all of the following areas EXCEPT ScholarFriends.com a. reading. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice b. writing. c. speaking. d. intuition. ANSWER: d 280. The corpus callosum is a wide band of axon fibers that a. enables the left hemisphere to control the right side of the body. b. transmits information between the cerebral hemispheres. c. sends information from the left half of your field of vision to your right cerebral hemisphere. d. transfers neural impulses from the somatosensory cortex to the motor cortex. ANSWER: b 281. People who have had their corpus callosum surgically severed are said to be patients with a. brain neuroplasticity. b. brain fissures. c. neurogenesis. d. split brains. ANSWER: d 282. Neurosurgeons have severed the corpus callosum in human patients to reduce a. lateralization. b. epileptic seizures. c. neuroplasticity. d. neurogenesis. ANSWER: b 283. When psychologists Roger Sperry, Ronald Myers, and Michael Gazzaniga divided the brains of cats and monkeys, a. the cats and monkeys could no longer use their limbs. b. the cats but not the monkeys could no longer make sounds. c. there were no serious ill effects. d. both the cats and monkeys suffered from vertigo. ANSWER: c 284. Gazzaniga (2006) concluded that the brain often runs on autopilot, acting first and then explaining our actions later. These explanations derive from a. both hemispheres acting simultaneously. b. action of the left hemisphere. c. the corpus callosum. d. action of the right hemisphere. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 285. Sensory information is transmitted from the ________ visual field of ________ to the left cerebral hemisphere. a. left; only the left eye b. right; only the right eye c. left; only the right eye d. right; both the right and left eyes ANSWER: d 286. A picture of a cat is briefly flashed in the left visual field of a split-brain patient named Anna. At the same time a picture of a girl is flashed in the right visual field. In identifying what she saw, Anna would be most likely to a. use her left hand to point to a picture of a cat. b. verbally report that she saw a cat. c. use her left hand to point to a picture of a girl. d. verbally report that she saw a girl. ANSWER: d 287. A neurosurgeon begins to sedate the entire left cerebral hemisphere of a patient, who is instructed to count aloud with both arms in the air. What will most likely happen? a. The patient's left arm will fall limp, and the patient will become speechless. b. The patient's right arm will fall limp, and the patient will become speechless. c. The patient's left arm will fall limp, but the patient will continue counting aloud. d. The patient's right arm will fall limp, but the patient will continue counting aloud. ANSWER: b 288. Deaf people who use sign language typically a. demonstrate greater mathematical competence than hearing persons. b. process language in their left cerebral hemisphere. c. have better communication skills than hearing persons. d. have a smaller corpus callosum than hearing persons. ANSWER: b 289. Which of the following best describes the relationship between the left and right brain hemispheres? a. They work together. b. They are not aware of each other. c. The right brain hemisphere controls most of human functioning. d. The left brain hemisphere is not required. ANSWER: a 290. Although most people have undivided brains, the two hemispheres perform distinct functions. For ScholarFriends.com example, the ________ is active when a person performs a perceptual task, and the ________ is active when a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice person speaks. a. left hemisphere; right hemisphere b. right hemisphere; left hemisphere c. association area; somatosensory cortex d. somatosensory cortex; association area ANSWER: b 291. Diego is working calculus problems, and Carmen is reading about artists in the Renaissance. Based on their current activities, it is likely that Diego's ________ is active, and Carmen's ________ is active. a. left hemisphere; right hemisphere b. right hemisphere; left hemisphere c. association area; somatosensory cortex d. somatosensory cortex; association area ANSWER: a 292. People who have partial paralysis as a result of damage to the ________will sometimes maintain that they can still move a paralyzed limb. a. right cerebral hemisphere b. corpus callosum c. left cerebral hemisphere d. occipital lobes ANSWER: a 293. In a recent car accident, Tamiko sustained damage to the right cerebral hemisphere. This injury is most likely to reduce Tamiko's ability to a. perceive emotions. b. solve arithmetic problems. c. understand simple verbal requests. d. correctly pronounce familiar words. ANSWER: a 294. When Lanae does her math homework, which area of her brain is most active? a. her amygdala b. her left hemisphere c. her temporal lobe d. her right hemisphere ANSWER: b 295. Which of the following best describes the relationship between the left and right brain hemispheres? a. They work together. b. They are not aware of each other. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice c. The right brain hemisphere controls most of human functioning. d. The left brain hemisphere is not required. ANSWER: a 296. The scientific study of the links between biological and psychological processes is called a. neurology. b. cognitive psychology. c. endocrinology. d. biological psychology. ANSWER: d 297. Dr. Warbs conducts research on the relationship between excess neurotransmitter molecules in the synaptic gap and migraines. Dr. Warbs' research focus is most characteristic of a. tomography. b. biological psychology. c. endocrinology. d. cognitive psychology. ANSWER: b 298. A biological psychologist would be most interested in conducting research on the relationship between a. neurotransmitters and schizophrenia. b. age and bone density. c. self-esteem and popularity. d. genetics and eye color. ANSWER: a 299. Cognitive neuroscience is most directly concerned with studying connections between a. hormonal and neural processes. b. evolution and natural selection. c. genes and neurotransmitters. d. brain activity and thought processes. ANSWER: d 300. Which specialty area would be most interested in identifying the brain-activation patterns associated with a person's ability to solve crossword puzzles? a. evolutionary psychology b. cognitive neuroscience c. behavior genetics d. personality psychology ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 301. Professor Geier is teaching a course that includes material on the study of the relationship between brain activity and mental processes. This interdisciplinary study is referred to as a. cognitive neuroscience. b. selective attention. c. dual processing. d. blindsight. ANSWER: a 302. Consciousness is defined as a. the ability to solve problems, reason, and remember. b. the process of organizing and interpreting sensory information. c. effortless processing of incidental information into memory. d. our awareness of ourselves and our environment. ANSWER: d 303. Fernando is studying to become a lawyer. Because this goal is so important to him, he avoids thoughtlessly skipping difficult class assignments. This best illustrates the adaptive value of a. change blindness. b. consciousness. c. the circadian rhythm. d. REM rebound. ANSWER: b 304. Brain scans indicate that consciousness arises from a. the suprachiasmatic nucleus. b. the amygdala. c. the somatosensory cortex. d. coordinated, cortex-wide activity. ANSWER: d 305. ________ is a product of coordinated, cortex-wide activity. a. Selective attention b. Sequential processing c. Consciousness d. Echolocation ANSWER: c 306. Conscious awareness helps us a. understand inattentional blindness. b. express the correct feelings and emotions. c. reflect on the past, adapt to the present, ScholarFriends.com and plan for the future. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice d. perform well-learned skills. ANSWER: c 307. If a stimulus activates enough brain-wide coordinated neural activity, it crosses a(n) ________ for consciousness. a. synapse b. sequence c. action potential d. threshold ANSWER: d 308. Madelyn is learning how to ride a bicycle and is intently focused on operating the pedals and the hand brakes and on the road signs for bicycle paths. This concentration is an aspect of her a. inattentional blindness. b. change blindness. c. consciousness. d. two-track mind. ANSWER: c 309. Sequential processing refers to a. the formation of complex neural networks. b. consciously focusing on one aspect of a problem at a time. c. the brain's ability to automatically regulate basic life-sustaining processes such as breathing. d. the coordinated cortex-wide activity that triggers consciousness. ANSWER: b 310. Alison is concentrating on learning the process of neural communication. Specifically, she is focused on an assignment about action potentials. She is likely to use a. sequential processing. b. selective attention. c. neurogenesis. d. parallel processing. ANSWER: a 311. Multiplying two large numbers by consciously focusing on and solving each subcomponent of the task in serial order best illustrates a. the circadian rhythm. b. the two-track mind. c. sequential processing. d. change blindness. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 312. June is at a research conference and is browsing through a poster session when a title catches her eye. Reading carefully about the new research described in the poster, June is engaged in a. parallel processing. b. sequential processing. c. consciousness. d. inattentional blindness. ANSWER: b 313. Stephanie is learning how to touch type. Because this is a new skill for her, it will involve a. sequential processing. b. parallel processing. c. selective attention. d. neurogenesis. ANSWER: a 314. Stephanie is learning how to type on her computer keyboard. Because this is a new skill for her, it will involve a. sequential processing. b. parallel processing. c. change blindness. d. neurogenesis. ANSWER: a 315. The processing of multiple aspects of a stimulus or problem at the same time is called a. neuroplasticity. b. selective attention. c. parallel processing. d. REM rebound. ANSWER: c 316. As Sarah sits in class, she is able to listen to her professor's lecture while also viewing slides on the screen. This involves a. parallel processing. b. sequential processing. c. consciousness. d. selective attention. ANSWER: a 317. A capacity to monitor the color, shape, and motion of a flying kite all at the same time best illustrates a. REM rebound. b. parallel processing. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice c. the circadian rhythm. d. change blindness. ANSWER: b 318. As you watch an airplane fly by, you notice the motion, the color, and shape of the plane. This involves a. parallel processing. b. sequential processing. c. consciousness. d. selective attention. ANSWER: a 319. When Fran awoke this morning, she was slightly groggy but was able to function. Before lunch she was exceptionally alert. When she left work this afternoon, she was tired and wanted to take a nap. These changes in Fran throughout the day represent different a. states of consciousness. b. selective attentions. c. cocktail party effects. d. inattentional blindness. ANSWER: a 320. Which of the following is NOT a state of consciousness? a. daydreaming b. sleeping c. inattentional blindness d. meditating ANSWER: c 321. Focusing conscious awareness on a particular stimulus is called a. neurogenesis. b. parallel processing. c. change blindness. d. selective attention. ANSWER: d 322. Our inability to consciously process all the sensory information available to us at any single point in time best illustrates the need for a. circadian rhythm. b. selective attention. c. REM rebound. d. hypnagogic sensations. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 323. Mosese is focused on learning new material for his sociology course, so he is not, easily distracted by the sounds of the video his brother is watching or even by his sisters' conversation. This best illustrates a. inattentional blindness. b. latent content. c. hypnagogic sensations. d. selective attention. ANSWER: d 324. Jules is taking a psychology class this semester and always brings his phone with him to class. He tends to check his phone about every 15 minutes during lectures. This means that Jules is likely to a. take excellent notes during lectures. b. be distracted during lectures. c. do well on class assessments. d. befriend the student sitting next to him during lectures. ANSWER: b 325. A grocery store employee was so distracted by the sight of a bank robber's weapon that she failed to perceive the unique tattoo on his arm. This best illustrates the impact of a. parallel processing. b. change blindness. c. selective attention. d. hypnagogic sensations. ANSWER: c 326. Tracey frequently checks her text messages while driving. Although this is extremely dangerous, like Tracey, ________ percent of U.S. drivers have read or sent a text message while driving in the past month. a. 15 b. 25 c. 35 d. 60 ANSWER: d 327. The increased risk of car accidents for drivers talking on a cell phone a. results primarily from using one hand to simply hold one's cell phone. b. is no greater than the risk for drivers chatting with other passengers. c. is no greater than the risks for drivers listening to a car radio. d. is equally great for those using handheld and those using hands-free phones. ANSWER: d 328. Which of the following poses the greatest risk of an accident while driving? a. sending text messages ScholarFriends.com b. talking on a cell phone Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice c. listening to the car radio d. talking with others in the vehicle ANSWER: a 329. An 18-month video cam study of the driving habits of long-haul truckers found that when they were texting, their risk of a collision increased ________ times. a. 12 b. 23 c. 45 d. 76 ANSWER: b 330. While driving to work, Tom was so focused on his cell-phone conversation that he inadvertently drove through a red light and hit another vehicle. Tom's experience best illustrates the impact of a. parallel processing. b. the suprachiasmatic nucleus. c. hypnagogic sensations. d. selective attention. ANSWER: d 331. Failing to see visible objects when our attention is directed elsewhere is called a. narcolepsy. b. parallel processing. c. paradoxical sleep. d. inattentional blindness. ANSWER: d 332. When asked to watch a video and press a key each time a black-shirted player passed a basketball, most research participants remained unaware of an umbrella-toting woman strolling across the video screen. This illustrated a. REM rebound. b. inattentional blindness. c. hypnagogic sensations. d. parallel processing. ANSWER: b 333. While a man provided directions to a worker, two experimenters rudely interrupted by passing between them carrying a door. The man's failure to notice that during this interruption the worker was replaced by another person wearing different-colored clothes illustrates a. neuroplasticity. b. latent content. ScholarFriends.com c. parallel processing. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice d. change blindness. ANSWER: d 334. After stopping to talk to a friend at the library, Lisa fails to notice that her cell phone, which had been in her back pocket, has fallen out. Her oversight best illustrates a. parallel processing. b. inattentional blindness. c. sequential processing. d. change blindness. ANSWER: d 335. When Lisa sits down in a café for lunch, a server greets her and hands her a menu. He then goes outside to take his break. Lisa, who is hungry and focused on what she plans to eat, fails to notice that the server who returns to take her order is different from the original server. Lisa's oversight is due to a. parallel processing. b. inattentional blindness. c. sequential processing. d. change blindness. ANSWER: d 336. Research on sleep and dreaming confirms that a. sleepwalkers are acting out their dreams. b. while some people dream every night, others seldom dream. c. the brain's auditory cortex responds to sound stimuli even during sleep. d. older adults sleep more than young adults. ANSWER: c 337. Circadian rhythm refers to a. the pattern of emotional ups and downs we routinely experience. b. a pattern of biological functioning that occurs on a 24-hour cycle. c. the experience of sleep apnea following a lengthy transoceanic plane flight. d. the cycle of four distinct stages that we experience during a normal night's sleep. ANSWER: b 338. When pulling an all-nighter to study for an exam, students often feel groggiest in the middle of the night but experience new energy around the time they normally would wake up. This best illustrates the impact of a. sleep apnea. b. neurogenesis. c. the circadian rhythm. d. REM rebound. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 339. With the approach of night, our body temperature begins to drop. This best illustrates the dynamics of the a. hypnagogic state. b. circadian rhythm. c. alpha wave pattern. d. REM rebound. ANSWER: b 340. Human body temperatures typically ________ with the approach of night but ________ as morning approaches. a. rise; stay the same b. fall; rise c. fall; stay the same d. rise; fall ANSWER: b 341. Amber most enjoys partying with friends in the late evening. Her mother, however, prefers to socialize in the morning when she feels most energetic. This difference between Amber and her mother is best explained by the fact that age and experience tend to alter our a. REM rebound. b. NREM-2 sleep. c. hypnagogic sensations. d. circadian rhythm. ANSWER: d 342. Thinking and memory improve as we approach our daily peak in a. sleep. b. delta waves. c. dreaming. d. circadian arousal. ANSWER: d 343. Most 20-year-olds are "owls," with performance ________ across the day. Most older adults are "larks," with performance ________ as the day progresses. a. improving; declining b. declining; improving c. declining; staying the same d. staying the same; declining ANSWER: a 344. Who was the first to trace the rolling eye movements during sleep? a. William Dement ScholarFriends.com b. Rebecca Robbins Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice c. Eugene Aserinsky d. James Maas ANSWER: c 345. The ________ of an alert, waking state and the regular ________ of an awake, relaxed state differ from the slower, larger ________ of deep N3 sleep. a. alpha waves; beta waves; delta waves b. delta waves; alpha waves; beta waves c. beta waves; delta waves; alpha waves d. beta waves; alpha waves; delta waves ANSWER: d 346. Fast and jerky movements of the eyes are especially likely to be associated with a. change blindness. b. parallel processing. c. REM sleep. d. sleep apnea. ANSWER: c 347. The relatively slow brain waves of a relaxed, awake state are called a. EEGs. b. REM rebound. c. alpha waves. d. delta waves. ANSWER: c 348. It's almost midnight and Joanna is ready to go to sleep. Although her eyes are closed and she's very relaxed, she has not yet fallen asleep. An EEG is most likely to indicate the presence of a. delta waves. b. alpha waves. c. free radicals. d. rapid eye movements. ANSWER: b 349. A periodic, natural loss of consciousness that involves distinct stages is known as a. general anesthesia. b. the two-track mind. c. a hallucination. d. sleep. ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 350. Which sleep stage is characterized by slowed breathing and irregular brain waves? a. N1 b. N2 c. N3 d. REM ANSWER: a 351. Fantastic images resembling hallucinations occur with the onset of a. sleep apnea. b. delta waves. c. change blindness. d. N1 sleep. ANSWER: d 352. Hypnagogic sensations are most closely associated with ________ sleep. a. N1 b. N2 c. N3 d. REM ANSWER: a 353. Jayson, who has just fallen asleep, feels like he is floating weightlessly in space. His experience best illustrates a. the circadian rhythm. b. hypnagogic sensations. c. sleep apnea. d. narcolepsy. ANSWER: b 354. Which sleep stage lasts about 20 minutes and includes bursts of rapid, rhythmic brain-wave activity? a. N1 b. N2 c. N3 d. REM ANSWER: b 355. An EEG shows bursts of rapid brain-wave activity during ________ sleep. a. N1 b. N2 c. N3 ScholarFriends.com d. REM Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 356. Amanda is currently asleep and is experiencing sleep spindles that aid memory processing. Which stage of sleep is she in? a. N1 b. N2 c. N3 d. REM ANSWER: b 357. An hour after going to bed, Joseph was so soundly asleep his parents were unable to awaken him for a scheduled dose of medicine. At this point in Joseph's sleep, an EEG would have most likely detected a. alpha waves. b. free radicals. c. delta waves. d. REM rebound. ANSWER: c 358. The large slow brain waves associated with deep sleep are called a. EEGs. b. delta waves. c. REM rebound. d. alpha waves. ANSWER: b 359. Which 30-minute sleep stage is characterized by slow-wave sleep and delta waves? a. N1 b. N2 c. N3 d. REM ANSWER: c 360. Delta waves are most clearly associated with ________ sleep. a. N1 b. N2 c. N3 d. REM ANSWER: c 361. Bed-wetting is most likely to occur at the end of ________ sleep. a. N1 ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice b. N2 c. N3 d. REM ANSWER: c 362. Hypnagogic sensations are to ________ as delta waves are to _______. a. N1; N3 b. REM; N2 c. N2; REM d. REM; N1 ANSWER: a 363. Piper is in a sleep stage that is also known as paradoxical sleep. Which sleep stage is she in? a. REM b. N1 c. N2 d. N3 ANSWER: a 364. At 2 o'clock in the morning, 25-year-old Shawn has already slept for three hours. As long as his sleep continues, we can expect an increasing occurrence of a. hypnagogic sensations. b. muscle tension. c. REM sleep. d. NREM-3 sleep. ANSWER: c 365. During the course of a full night's sleep, young adults are most likely to spend more time in a. N3 sleep than in N2 sleep. b. REM sleep than in N1 sleep. c. N1 sleep than in N3 sleep. d. REM sleep than in N2 sleep. ANSWER: b 366. Compared with young adults, older adults are especially likely to a. spend less time in paradoxical sleep. b. spend less time in N1 sleep. c. spend more time in paradoxical sleep. d. complete the sleep cycle more slowly. ANSWER: a ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 367. As Jan sleeps, she will pass through a cycle consisting of multiple stages several times tonight. As the night progresses, we can expect that she will spend less time in ________ sleep. a. deep b. REM c. N1 d. N2 ANSWER: a 368. The brain waves associated with REM sleep are most similar to those of a. N1 sleep. b. N2 sleep. c. N3 sleep. d. an awake but relaxed state. ANSWER: a 369. Alicia is sleeping and is currently dreaming. Which sleep stage is she in? a. REM b. N1 c. N2 d. N3 ANSWER: a 370. Three hours after she goes to sleep, Alexandra's heart rate increases, her breathing becomes more rapid, and her eyes move rapidly under her closed lids. Research suggests that Alexandra is a. dreaming. b. emitting delta waves. c. about to sleepwalk. d. experiencing a night terror. ANSWER: a 371. Genital arousal is most likely to be associated with a. sleep apnea. b. REM sleep. c. NREM-3 sleep. d. narcolepsy. ANSWER: b 372. During REM sleep, your muscles are relaxed because messages from the motor cortex are blocked by the a. brainstem. b. hypothalamus. ScholarFriends.com c. suprachiasmatic nucleus. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice d. amygdala. ANSWER: a 373. REM sleep is called paradoxical sleep because a. our heart rate is slow and steady, while our breathing is highly irregular. b. we are deeply asleep but can be awakened easily. c. our motor cortex is highly active, while our voluntary muscles hardly move. d. it leads to highly imaginative dreams that are perceived as colorless images. ANSWER: c 374. Piper is in a sleep stage that is also known as paradoxical sleep. Which sleep stage is she in? a. REM b. N1 c. N2 d. N3 ANSWER: a 375. After sleeping for about an hour and a half, Fernando enters a phase of paradoxical sleep. He is likely to a. be easily awakened. b. have slower, more regular breathing. c. emit slower brain waves. d. have very relaxed muscles. ANSWER: d 376. Fifty-year-old Wayne insists that he never dreams. Research suggests that he probably a. would report a vivid dream if he were awakened during REM sleep. b. dreams during N1 rather than during REM sleep. c. experiences more N2 sleep than most people. d. cycles through the distinct sleep stages much more slowly than most people. ANSWER: a 377. The sleep cycle can be expected to repeat itself every ________ minutes. a. 30 b. 60 c. 90 d. 120 ANSWER: c 378. Which of the following is a good indicator of how much sleep a person needs each day? a. biological sex ScholarFriends.com b. weight Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice c. age d. race ANSWER: c 379. Which of the following is NOT an influence on sleep patterns? a. biological sex b. culture c. income d. social status ANSWER: a 380. Kirsten worries that her teenage son, Jimmy, doesn't get enough sleep. Which of the following is NOT linked to U.S. adolescents getting less sleep? a. earlier school start times b. eating an early dinner c. extracurricular activities d. social media use ANSWER: b 381. The circadian rhythm is influenced by light-sensitive retinal proteins that trigger signals to the a. suprachiasmatic nucleus. b. hippocampus. c. amygdala. d. brainstem. ANSWER: a 382. Which of the following is NOT a contributor to students not getting enough sleep? a. earlier school start times b. more extracurricular activities c. fewer parent-set bedtimes d. higher incomes ANSWER: d 383. After flying from Barcelona to Boston, Andrew experienced extra hours of daylight and had a restless, sleepless night. His problem was most likely caused by a disruption of his a. sequential processing. b. circadian rhythm. c. hypnagogic sensations. d. sleep apnea. ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 384. The activation of light-sensitive proteins in our eyes' retinas signals our brain to decrease the production of a. free radicals. b. serotonin. c. melatonin. d. dopamine. ANSWER: c 385. The pair of cell clusters in the hypothalamus that controls our circadian rhythm is a. the hippocampus. b. melatonin. c. hypnagogic sensation. d. the suprachiasmatic nucleus. ANSWER: d 386. It is almost midnight and Bill is beginning to feel extremely sleepy. This is because the ________ quiets down, allowing the release of melatonin into the bloodstream. a. suprachiasmatic nucleus b. pituitary gland c. thyroid gland d. hypothalamus ANSWER: a 387. Exposure to bright light causes the a. thyroid gland to increase the production of melatonin. b. thyroid gland to suppress the production of melatonin. c. suprachiasmatic nucleus to increase the production of melatonin. d. suprachiasmatic nucleus to suppress the production of melatonin. ANSWER: d 388. Humans placed under unnatural constant illumination have more difficulty sleeping thanks to decreased production of a. leptin. b. cortisol. c. melatonin. d. free radicals. ANSWER: c 389. It is around 11:00 P.M. and Bill is beginning to feel extremely sleepy. This is because the ________ quiets down, allowing the release of melatonin into the bloodstream. a. suprachiasmatic nucleus b. pituitary gland ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice c. thyroid gland d. hypothalamus ANSWER: a 390. Our ancestors likely got ________ during the winter months and ________ during the summer months. a. more sleep; less sleep b. more sleep; more sleep c. less sleep; less sleep d. less sleep; more sleep ANSWER: a 391. The idea that sleeping at night kept our ancestors out of danger supports which theory of why we need sleep? a. Sleep protects. b. Sleep helps us recover. c. Sleep aids memory. d. Sleep helps creativity. ANSWER: a 392. Bats need a lot of sleep because they burn a lot of calories, which produces ________ that are toxic to neurons. a. growth hormones b. high melatonin levels c. free radicals d. alpha waves ANSWER: c 393. Which of the following animals tend to sleep the least? a. giraffes b. dolphins c. cats d. bats ANSWER: a 394. Sleep can help us to recuperate by doing all of the following EXCEPT a. restoring the immune system. b. consolidating our memories. c. repairing resting neurons. d. helping the body heal from infection. ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 395. Marco has the flu. What can he do to help recover and restore his immune system? a. have some chicken soup b. exercise c. watch TV d. sleep ANSWER: d 396. Our memories are consolidated during a. paradoxical sleep. b. slow-wave deep sleep. c. brief N1 sleep. d. hypnagogic experiences. ANSWER: b 397. During sleep, memories stored in the ________ are moved to permanent storage in areas of the cortex. a. thalamus b. suprachiasmatic nucleus c. amygdala d. hippocampus ANSWER: d 398. You have an exam coming up and have been studying for the past hour. You know that if you get a good night's rest, it will aid your memory of what you have studied. Why is that? a. Sleep appears to reactivate recent experiences that are stored in the hippocampus and move them to permanent storage elsewhere in the cortex. b. Sleep allows resting neurons time to repair themselves and prunes unused connections in the brain. c. During sleep, the pituitary gland releases a human growth hormone that is necessary for muscle development. d. You are incorrect. Getting a good night's rest will not improve your memory of what you studied. ANSWER: a 399. Marjoy has a psychology exam tomorrow and has been studying all day today. What advice would you give her to help her on her exam tomorrow? a. "Cram for the exam all night tonight." b. "Don't worry about it tonight. Get up early tomorrow and cram for the exam right before you take it." c. "Don't sweat it! If you don't know the material by now, there is no point studying." d. "Make sure you get enough sleep tonight because sleep strengthens neural connections and replays recent learning." ANSWER: d 400. Simone is a political cartoonist whose work requires her to think imaginatively and present ideas in ScholarFriends.com visually novel ways. Her work is most likely to be facilitated by Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice a. hypnagogic sensations. b. EEG recordings. c. full nights of sleep. d. sleep apnea. ANSWER: c 401. Researchers have found that after working on a task and sleeping on it, people tend to solve difficult problems more insightfully compared with those who stayed awake after working on the task. This demonstrates that sleep a. can aid creative thinking. b. helps us to recuperate. c. consolidates memories. d. supports growth. ANSWER: a 402. Production of the human growth hormone necessary for muscle development is most strongly associated with a. alpha waves. b. slow-wave sleep. c. hypnagogic sensations. d. REM rebound. ANSWER: b 403. Terrance spent several sleepless nights worrying about whether he would be accepted by the college of his choice. During the first few days after he received his acceptance letter, he averaged nearly 12 hours of sleep. He then settled back to 7.5 to 9 hours of sleep a day. The unusually lengthy sleep time of the first few days after exams suggests that Terrance ended the semester with a. sleep apnea. b. narcolepsy. c. low melatonin levels. d. a sleep debt. ANSWER: d 404. Javier is a first-year college student who has recently developed the pattern of staying up late watching movies with his new friends. This is likely to lead to a. sleep difficulties. b. him being a morning person. c. increased energy. d. increased well-being. ANSWER: a ScholarFriends.com

405. Dylan's parents have emphasized the importance of sleep to well-being, and so Dylan has averaged 8 hours Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice of sleep a night. As a result, he is LESS likely to experience a. increased energy. b. good mood. c. high academic achievement. d. depression. ANSWER: d 406. Researchers have found that adolescents who sleep ________ a night are at an increased risk of depression. a. less than 10 hours b. less than 8 hours c. 7 or more hours d. 5 or fewer hours ANSWER: d 407. Scarlett has an active social life and sleeps only 4 hours a night. As a result, Scarlett is most likely to experience a. increased energy. b. good mood. c. high academic achievement. d. depression. ANSWER: d 408. Sleep loss has been associated with all of the following, EXCEPT a. reduced energy. b. bad mood. c. high academic achievement. d. depression. ANSWER: c 409. Research has concluded that there is a clear association between sleep loss and a. weight gain. b. decreased depression. c. decreased anxiety. d. weight loss. ANSWER: a 410. Caleb has been very busy attending classes in his college major and participating in the school's football team. After dinner in the school cafeteria, he returns to his dorm room to do his homework, leaving him with only 4 or 5 hours of sleep. Caleb has noticed that he's been gaining weight. This is because a. of increased cortical responses to help him resist temptation. b. all this work has made him feel depressed. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice c. sleep deprivation alters our hormones and the brain's responses to food. d. decreased limbic brain responses to the sight of food. ANSWER: c 411. Sleep loss can result in a(n) ________ risk of depression and a(n) ________ risk of gaining weight. a. decreased; decreased b. increased; increased c. decreased; increased d. increased; decreased ANSWER: b 412. Chronic sleep loss has been shown to a. increase attentiveness to highly motivating tasks. b. reduce REM rebound. c. lower resistance to illness. d. decrease narcolepsy. ANSWER: c 413. ________ can suppress immune cells that battle viral infections and cancer. a. Sleep paralysis b. Physical exercise c. Sleep deprivation d. Oversleeping ANSWER: c 414. Sleep deprivation a. slows reactions. b. increases errors on visual attention tasks. c. both slows reactions and increases errors on visual attention tasks. d. neither slows reactions nor increases errors on visual attention tasks. ANSWER: c 415. Traffic accident rates have been found to ________ after the spring change to daylight saving time and to ________ after the fall change back to standard time. a. increase; increase b. decrease; decrease c. increase; decrease d. decrease; increase ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com 416. Shelby has not had enough sleep in the past week. She is at increased risk of having a driving accident Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice because her lack of sleep diminishes her a. cortisol levels. b. REM rebound. c. ability to focus attention. d. hypnagogic sensations. ANSWER: c 417. Of the following people, who will be LEAST likely to resist temptation to the sight of food? a. Bree, who is on a diet b. Scott, who is fasting for religious reasons c. Parker, who is well rested d. Margo, who has not gotten enough sleep for the past few days ANSWER: d 418. It is difficult to resist food temptations when sleep deprived because the a. cortical responses that help us resist temptation decrease. b. production of cortisol increases. c. production of ghrelin increases. d. decreased production of cortisol related to sleep loss increases hunger. ANSWER: a 419. Sleep deprivation increases levels of the hunger-arousing hormone ________ and decreases levels of the hunger-suppressing hormone ________. a. melatonin; cortisol b. serotonin; orexin c. ghrelin; leptin d. epinephrine; norepinephrine ANSWER: c 420. Sleep deprivation ________ the production of body fat by ________ levels of the stress hormone cortisol. a. stimulates; increasing b. inhibits; increasing c. stimulates; decreasing d. inhibits; decreasing ANSWER: a 421. Sleep deprivation has been found to ________ cortical responses that help us resist temptation and ________ limbic brain responses to the mere sight of food. a. increase; enhance b. decrease; diminish ScholarFriends.com c. increase; diminish Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice d. decrease; enhance ANSWER: d 422. Josephine consistently fails to get as much sleep as she needs. This is most likely to place her at an increased risk of a. narcolepsy. b. night terrors. c. sleep apnea. d. gaining weight. ANSWER: d 423. Today, Ben experienced discrimination when a suspicious clerk followed him around a clothing store. Tonight, Ben may experience a. slowed reaction times. b. difficulty sleeping. c. a microsleep. d. immune suppression. ANSWER: b 424. Herlinde, who is graduating from college tomorrow, can't get to sleep. Regarding Herlinde's inability to fall asleep, you would say that she is a. displaying early signs of insomnia. b. displaying normal sleep deprivation because she is either excited or anxious. c. displaying both sleep apnea and narcolepsy. d. unable to sleep because she is afraid of experiencing night terrors due to her excitement. ANSWER: b 425. Frequently during the week, Gretchen has trouble falling and staying asleep. Which of the following is NOT a natural sleep aid that you should recommend to Gretchen? a. get regular exercise b. take long naps c. relax before bedtime d. manage your stress ANSWER: b 426. A recurring difficulty in falling or staying asleep is called a. narcolepsy. b. insomnia. c. sleep apnea. d. paradoxical sleep. ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 427. REM sleep is a. reduced by alcohol and reduced by sleeping pills. b. increased by alcohol and reduced by sleeping pills. c. reduced by alcohol and increased by sleeping pills. d. increased by alcohol and increased by sleeping pills. ANSWER: a 428. Narcolepsy is a disorder in which a person a. temporarily stops breathing during sleep. b. has sudden uncontrollable seizures. c. experiences uncontrollable attacks of overwhelming sleepiness. d. has difficulty falling and staying asleep. ANSWER: c 429. Barnaby is arguing with his daughter about her plan to date an older student. In the middle of the argument, Barnaby suddenly falls asleep. Barnaby apparently suffers from a. narcolepsy. b. insomnia. c. sleep apnea. d. sleepwalking. ANSWER: a 430. In which of the following disorders does the person repeatedly stop breathing while asleep? a. narcolepsy b. sleep apnea c. night terrors d. insomnia ANSWER: b 431. Mr. Glenday repeatedly stops breathing while asleep. It is most likely that Mr. Glenday has a. sleep apnea. b. narcolepsy. c. night terrors. d. insomnia. ANSWER: a 432. Particularly among men, sleep apnea is linked with a. night terrors. b. sleepwalking. c. narcolepsy. ScholarFriends.com d. obesity. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 433. At 3:00 A.M., 8-year-old Jeremiah gets out of bed and sleepwalks to the kitchen. An EEG of his brain activity is most likely to indicate that he is in a. N1 sleep. b. N2 sleep. c. REM sleep. d. N3 sleep. ANSWER: d 434. Sitting up in bed, talking nonsense, and appearing terrified during N3 sleep is most characteristic of a. narcolepsy. b. sleep apnea. c. night terrors. d. REM rebound. ANSWER: c 435. It has been found that night terrors a. are usually recalled vividly for days following their occurrence. b. are typically accompanied by a state of temporary muscular immobility or paralysis. c. jolt the sleeper to a sudden state of full waking alertness. d. typically occur during N3 sleep. ANSWER: d 436. A sequence of images, emotions, and thoughts passing through a sleeping person's mind is called a(n) a. dream. b. image. c. memory. d. REM rebound. ANSWER: a 437. A dream is best described as a. a sequence of images, emotions, and thoughts passing through a sleeping person's mind. b. a periodic, natural loss of consciousness. c. regular body rhythms that occur on a 24-hour cycle. d. false sensory experiences. ANSWER: a 438. Research studies of the content of dreams indicate that a. men are less likely than women to report dreams with sexual overtones. ScholarFriends.com b. the genital arousal that occurs during sleep is typically related to sexual dreams. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice c. most dreams are bad dreams, involving being attacked or rejected, for example. d. most dreams are pleasant, exotic, and unrelated to ordinary daily life. ANSWER: c 439. Which of the following is NOT a common theme in our dreams? a. winning the lottery b. failing at something c. being attacked d. experiencing misfortune ANSWER: a 440. During lunch your friend tells you about her latest dream. In her dream, she was attacked, beaten, and robbed while at home. What would your response be? a. "That's a strange dream." b. "You should be extra careful. It may be a premonition." c. "I read recently that those types of dreams are very rare." d. "Being attacked is one of the most common themes in dreams." ANSWER: d 441. Our capacity to monitor external stimuli well enough to stroll around our house while sleeping best illustrates that we function with a a. circadian rhythm. b. two-track mind. c. REM rebound. d. sleep debt. ANSWER: b 442. Reddy has been asleep for several hours when his phone begins to ring. Reddy does not wake up but is suddenly dreaming that he is answering his phone as he walks to class. By incorporating something from the environment into his dream Reddy is demonstrating a. circadian rhythms. b. our two-track mind. c. REM rebound. d. the effects of a sleep debt. ANSWER: b 443. According to Freud, the dreams of adults can be traced back to a. unconscious drives and wishes. b. stressful life events. c. biological needs for brain stimulation. d. random bursts of neural activity. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 444. Freud called the remembered story line of a dream its ________ content. a. manifest b. paradoxical c. hypnagogic d. circadian ANSWER: a 445. Leander told a friend that she dreamed she was at a scientific meeting when she was approached by a fellow scientist who looked very much like her father; suddenly the scene shifted and the scientist disappeared. According to Freud, Leander's account represents the ________ content of her dream. a. paradoxical b. manifest c. latent d. hypnagogic ANSWER: b 446. According to Freud, the latent content of a dream refers to a. its accompanying brain-wave pattern. b. the previous day's events that prompted the dream. c. the sensory stimuli in the sleeper's environment that are incorporated into the dream. d. its underlying but censored meaning. ANSWER: d 447. Kumar remembered a recent dream in which his romantic partner suddenly grabbed the wheel of his car. Kumar's therapist suggested that the dream might be a representation of the partner's efforts to avoid sexual intimacy. According to Freud, the therapist was attempting to reveal the ________ of Fred's dream. a. paradoxical content b. circadian rhythm c. latent content d. manifest content ANSWER: c 448. Which of the following is NOT a criticism of Freud's dream theory? a. Dreams can be interpreted in many different ways. b. There is no scientific evidence to support Freud's theory. c. We do not experience sexually themed dreams frequently. d. Freud's theory has inspired other theories. ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com

449. The ________ theory of dreaming suggests that dreams help sift, sort, and fix the day's events in our Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice memory? a. wish-fulfillment b. cognitive development c. activation-synthesis d. information-processing ANSWER: d 450. Ilfan has a problem remembering what he has learned during his French class if he has been deprived of both slow-wave and REM sleep the night after the class. Which theory best accounts for Ilfan's experience? a. wish-fulfillment theory b. cognitive development theory c. REM rebound theory d. information-processing theory ANSWER: d 451. Brain regions that were active as people learned to identify the difference between objects were especially likely to be active again later as they experienced a. night terrors. b. narcolepsy. c. sleep apnea. d. REM sleep. ANSWER: d 452. Research indicates that total time spent in REM sleep is especially high in a. males. b. infants. c. females. d. older adults. ANSWER: b 453. Dreams often involve sudden emotional reactions and seemingly random changes in scene. This best serves to support the theory that dreams a. strengthen our memories of the preceding day's events. b. reflect our level of cognitive development. c. prepare us for the stress and challenges of the following day. d. are initiated when neural activity spreads upward from the brainstem. ANSWER: d 454. Stuart dreamed last night that he was being chased by a dragon. He believes that during sleep, neural activity happens in the brain that evokes random visual memories and that his brain then weaves the images into stories. His explanation supports the ________ScholarFriends.com theory of dreaming. a. Freud's wish-fulfillment Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice b. information-processing c. cognitive development d. random neural activation ANSWER: d 455. Increased activity in the ________ during REM sleep may best explain why dream images are often accompanied by a strong emotional tone. a. suprachiasmatic nucleus b. frontal lobes c. somatosensory cortex d. limbic system ANSWER: d 456. Which theory emphasizes that dreams simulate reality by drawing on our concepts and knowledge? a. wish-fulfillment theory b. random neural activation theory c. REM rebound theory d. cognitive development theory ANSWER: d 457. Mary is 60 years old and dreamed last night about playing with her grandchildren. Samantha is 6 years old and dreamed last night about going to the circus. Their differences in dream content supports which theory of dreaming? a. Freud's wish-fulfillment b. information processing c. cognitive development d. activation synthesis ANSWER: c 458. Kailee is a university student in a philosophy program. The fact that her dreams often involve abstract issues is best explained by a. wish-fulfillment theory. b. cognitive development theory. c. neural activation theory. d. REM rebound theory. ANSWER: b 459. REM rebound involves the a. tendency for REM sleep periods to become longer and more frequent as a normal night of sleep progresses. b. increase in REM sleep that characteristically follows intense learning episodes or stressful daytime ScholarFriends.com experiences. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice c. unusual symptoms of tiredness and irritability that follow periods of REM sleep deprivation. d. tendency for REM sleep to increase following REM sleep deprivation. ANSWER: d 460. Desiree is repeatedly awakened by her roommate during REM sleep. This means that she is likely to experience an increase in REM sleep once she goes back to sleep. Her pattern of sleep is known as a. REM rebound. b. hallucinations. c. neural activation. d. neural static. ANSWER: a 461. The best indication that our dreaming serves a necessary biological function is provided by the fact that a. most dreams are psychologically meaningless. b. the disruption of REM sleep leads to narcolepsy. c. we experience REM rebound. d. sexual tension is naturally discharged during REM sleep. ANSWER: c

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 1. Developmental psychology is defined as the branch of psychology that a. focuses on the genetic transfer of characteristics from parents to offspring. b. examines external influences on organism change, from prenatal nutrition to social support in later life. c. focuses on the physical, cognitive, and social changes that occur throughout the life span. d. studies the molecular ways by which environments influence gene expression. ANSWER: c 2. Tanya is a second-year college student and has to declare a major. She is interested in learning about the influences of heredity and environment on a person's development. Based on this, she might be interested in a. clinical psychology. b. social psychology. c. nursing. d. developmental psychology. ANSWER: d 3. Developmental psychologists study physical, cognitive, and ________ changes throughout the life span. a. zygotic b. embryonic c. genetic d. social ANSWER: d 4. Dr. Tomor is researching the development of children's social skills. It is most likely that Dr. Tomor is a ________ psychologist. a. cognitive b. developmental c. biological d. psychodynamic ANSWER: b 5. A cross-sectional study is one in which a. the same people are retested over a period of years. b. different age groups are tested at the same time. c. different characteristics of a given individual are assessed at the same time. d. the behavior of a group is assessed by different researchers. ANSWER: b 6. In a study of family and peer effects on social development, Professor Pacia compared the social behavior of one group of 8-year-olds, a second group of 14-year-olds, and a third group of 30-year-olds by assessing their reactions to a variety of social situations. Professor Pacia conducted a ________ study. ScholarFriends.com a. longitudinal Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice b. social clock c. cross-sectional d. neurogenesis ANSWER: c 7. The same people are retested over time in a ________ study. a. terminal decline b. longitudinal c. life-span d. cross-sectional ANSWER: b 8. To learn how physical exercises affects people's health, researchers studied 3000 members of a community throughout their middle and late adulthoods. The research best illustrates a ________ study. a. terminal decline b. cross-sectional c. social clock d. longitudinal ANSWER: d 9. Professor Gordon first studied the social interactions of first-grade children. He has now studied these same people, who are now in their forties, at different times in their life span. Professor Gordon conducted a ________ study. a. longitudinal b. habituation c. cross-sectional d. epigenetic ANSWER: a 10. Which of the following is NOT a major issue in developmental psychology? a. nature and nurture b. continuity and stages c. predictability and unpredictability d. stability and change ANSWER: c 11. The understanding that biological, psychological, and social-cultural forces interact in development supports which major issue in developmental psychology? a. continuity and stages b. conception and prenatal development c. stability and change ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice d. nature and nurture ANSWER: d 12. Efforts to identify the interactive influences of inherited personality traits and culturally prescribed educational practices on the intellectual development of children is most central to the major issue of a. stability and change. b. extraversion and introversion. c. continuity and stages. d. nature and nurture. ANSWER: d 13. In the nature and nurture issue in developmental psychology, which of the following is an example of nature? a. the school you attended as a child b. moving to a new city as a child c. the genetics you inherited from both parents d. the household in which you grew up ANSWER: c 14. In the nature and nurture issue in developmental psychology, which of the following is an example of nurture? a. the school you attended as a child b. the genes you inherited from your father c. the genes you inherited from your mother d. your mother's egg that engulfed your father's sperm ANSWER: a 15. Dr. Stott has devoted his career to investigating the influence of genetic and environmental factors on developmental processes. Which major issue in developmental psychology is he most interested in? a. nature and nurture b. continuity and stages c. predictability and unpredictability d. stability and change ANSWER: a 16. The fact that genetic differences can be amplified by nurture demonstrates that a. our experiences help form us. b. development is stage-like. c. we are continually changing. d. nature is more important in development than nurture. ANSWER: a ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 17. Which of the following statements is TRUE? a. The differences between ethnic groups are rather small. b. The differences between ethnic groups are considered moderate. c. The differences between ethnic groups are rather large. d. There are no differences between ethnic groups. ANSWER: a 18. One of the three major concerns of developmental psychology involves a focus on a. conception and prenatal development. b. continuity and stages. c. maturation and object permanence. d. conservation and egocentrism. ANSWER: b 19. Researchers who emphasize experience and learning typically see development as a. occurring in stages. b. stable and consistent. c. a slow, ongoing process. d. a result of genetic predispositions. ANSWER: c 20. Psychologists who view the developmental process as a slow, continuous shaping process a. believe that although the order of stages is the same for everyone, the timing may be different. b. emphasize experience and learning. c. believe in clear-cut stages of psychological development. d. contend that our temperament changes throughout the life span. ANSWER: b 21. Researchers who emphasize learning and experience tend to view development as ________; those who emphasize maturation tend to view development as ________. a. stable; likely to change b. likely to change; stable c. occurring in stages; continuous d. continuous; occurring in stages ANSWER: d 22. Distinguishing between very gradual and very abrupt developmental changes over the life span is most central to the major issue of a. prenatal and postnatal development. b. stability and change. ScholarFriends.com c. continuity and stages. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice d. nature and nurture. ANSWER: c 23. Ryno believes that cognitive development is a matter of gradual and almost imperceptible changes over time. His viewpoint is most directly relevant to the issue of a. nature and nurture. b. genes and environment. c. continuity and stages. d. stability and change. ANSWER: c 24. Psychologists who view the developmental process as a sequence of distinct stages generally believe that ________ is(are) the same for everyone. a. both the order and the timing of the stages b. the order but not the timing of the stages c. the timing but not the order of the stages d. neither the order nor the timing of the stages ANSWER: b 25. Professor Johnson generally views development as resulting from biological maturation. He is most likely to view development as a. occurring in stages. b. slow and continuous. c. stable across time. d. heavily influenced by the environment. ANSWER: a 26. Theories of human development have been most likely to be criticized for overemphasizing a. clear-cut age-linked stages. b. the interaction of nature and nurture. c. maturation during adolescent development. d. cognitive changes during adult development. ANSWER: a 27. A belief that adult personality is completely determined in early childhood would be most relevant to the issue of a. stability and change. b. nature and nurture. c. cognition and morality. d. conception and prenatal development. ANSWER: a ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 28. A child's temperament is likely to be a. difficult to observe. b. stable over time. c. a product of parenting style. d. a reflection of their thinking. ANSWER: b 29. Will anxious children grow up to be fearful or relaxed adults? This question most directly highlights the issue of a. continuity and stages. b. stability and change. c. identity and temperament. d. nature and nurture. ANSWER: b 30. The question of whether happy and well-adjusted adults were ever once unhappy and poorly adjusted adolescents is most relevant to the issue of a. continuity and stages. b. egocentrism and conservation. c. stability and change. d. object permanence and stranger anxiety. ANSWER: c 31. Which of the following people is most likely to be convicted of a violent crime during emerging adulthood? a. Mary, who was an introvert as a child b. Justin, who was an extravert as a child c. Susan, who has always been a loner d. Casey, who exhibited conduct problems as a child ANSWER: d 32. James is repeatedly cruel to the family pet. Based on recent research, we can predict that James may a. become a violent adult. b. become a successful adult. c. experience depression. d. experience increased academic achievement. ANSWER: a 33. Which of the following people is most likely to enjoy an enduring marriage? a. Zach, who smiled all the time as a child b. Michael, who was an introvert as a child c. Casey, who exhibited conduct problemsScholarFriends.com as a teen Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice d. Christina, who started dating when she was 16 years old ANSWER: a 34. Serena's college photos show her smiling broadly. When comparing these photos with her high school photos, we see the same wide smile. According to one study of 306 U.S. college graduates, what may be expected as Serena moves through life? a. She is likely to have a long, enduring marriage as an adult. b. She is likely to be popular at work. c. She is likely to get along well with both her immediate and extended family. d. She is likely to marry in her early twenties. ANSWER: a 35. Manuel believes that, although he ________ changed in the past, he will change ________ in the future. a. has not; a lot b. has; little c. has not; little d. has; a lot ANSWER: b 36. The text notes that ________ provides our identity, whereas ________ allows us to adapt and grow with experience. a. nature; nurture b. continuity; stages c. predictability; unpredictability d. stability; change ANSWER: d 37. Human sperm cells ________ than egg cells. a. are larger b. contain more genes c. are smaller d. contain fewer genes ANSWER: c 38. After one sperm has broken through the egg's coating and has entered the egg, a. the sperm releases enzymes to close the entrance. b. the egg's surface blocks out other sperm from entering the egg. c. multiple other sperm also enter the egg. d. one additional sperm enters the egg. ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com

39. The digestive enzymes released by the sperm entering a mature egg Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice a. releases teratogens to close the entrance. b. eat away the egg's protective coating. c. are not strong enough to enable fusion. d. make room for more sperm to enter. ANSWER: b 40. Within half a day after the sperm enters the egg a. the egg releases enzymes to close the entrance. b. the sperm prevents other eggs from being fertilized. c. the egg nucleus and sperm nucleus fuse. d. at least one additional sperm enters the egg. ANSWER: c 41. Chromosomes are threadlike structures made of a. serotonin molecules. b. epigenetic molecules. c. DNA molecules. d. dizygotic molecules. ANSWER: c 42. Chromosomes are contained within a. brain cells. b. sperm cells. c. blood cells. d. all of these types of cells. ANSWER: d 43. DNA is a ________ made up of two strands connected in a double helix. a. sex hormone b. genome c. molecule d. epigenetic mark ANSWER: c 44. DNA is a molecule made up of two strands connected in a a. teratogen. b. epigenetic mark. c. chromosome. d. double helix. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 45. The biochemical units of heredity that make up the chromosomes are called a. genes. b. genomes. c. epigenetic molecules. d. neurotransmitters. ANSWER: a 46. A segment of DNA that provides the code for creating protein molecules is called a(n) a. schema. b. epigenetic mark. c. chromosome. d. gene. ANSWER: d 47. Depending on environmental conditions, specific genes can be either a. monozygotic or dizygotic. b. active or inactive. c. identical or fraternal. d. structured or unstructured. ANSWER: b 48. Andreas was raised by parents who devoted their energy to their work and so spent only limited amounts of time with him. As a result, he failed to form proper attachments with others in adulthood. This demonstrates that a. there is no genetic predisposition for us to be social animals. b. social connectedness is not necessary for human survival. c. life experiences have little impact on social relationships during childhood and adulthood. d. our genetic predisposition to form attachments can be "turned off" by life experiences. ANSWER: d 49. The biochemical code for eye color is transmitted from parents to offspring by a. neurotransmitters. b. the placenta. c. epigenetic molecules. d. genes. ANSWER: d 50. Physical traits such as eye color transferred from parents to offspring are a result of a. epigenetics. b. heredity. ScholarFriends.com c. temperament. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice d. teratogens. ANSWER: b 51. Mark and Janice recently had their first child. Like Mark, the child has blue eyes. This is a result of a. heredity. b. environmental influences. c. epigenetics. d. maternal nutrition. ANSWER: a 52. The genome refers to an organism's complete set of a. epigenetic marks. b. genetic material. c. protein molecules. d. zygotic cells. ANSWER: b 53. Which of the following is true of most human traits? a. They are influenced by a single gene. b. They may be influenced by different genes interacting with your specific environment. c. They are directly related to your individual environment. d. They are influenced by a specific group of genes only. ANSWER: b 54. A person's height reflects multiple aspects of who they are, such as the size of their face, leg bones, and vertebrae. This demonstrates that most of our traits a. have complex genetic roots. b. are influenced by the environment. c. are based on molecular genetics. d. result from an interaction among genetics inherited from both parents. ANSWER: a 55. Gene analyses of more than 800,000 people have identified 269 genes that are associated with a. depression. b. anxiety. c. stress. d. gender identity. ANSWER: a 56. Every external influence on our development, from prenatal nutrition to the family that cares for us, is an aspect of our ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice a. temperament. b. genome. c. environment. d. heredity. ANSWER: c 57. What Hilda eats while pregnant is an example of a(n) ________ influence on fetal development. a. genetic b. environmental c. chromosomal d. behavioral ANSWER: b 58. The impact of our cultural backgrounds on the development of our personal values best illustrates the influence of a. our shared human genome. b. epigenetic marks. c. natural selection. d. the environment. ANSWER: d 59. Zach's father is 6 feet tall and his mother is almost 5'11". However, as an adult, Zach is only 5'3". As a child, Zach was an extremely picky eater and often refused to eat fruits and vegetables, instead opting for less healthy alternatives, such as chips and soda. This demonstrates a. height is not a genetically determined characteristic. b. Zach likely has an extended family member that is much shorter than average. c. that his parents were not supportive of his food preferences when he was growing up. d. environmental factors, such as diet, influenced Zach's growth and height as an adult. ANSWER: d 60. When the effect of one factor depends on the presence of another factor, outcomes are said to reflect a. an epigenetic mark. b. an interaction. c. natural selection. d. a syndrome. ANSWER: b 61. The unique genetically influenced traits of children often encourage predictable responses from their caregivers. This best illustrates the ________ of nature and nurture. a. assimilation b. interaction ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice c. epigenetics d. independence ANSWER: b 62. When she was a child, people always responded positively to her outgoing personality. Now, as a young adult, she is socially confident and extremely extraverted. This best illustrates the a. principle of conservation. b. influence of maturation. c. interaction of heredity and environment. d. importance of critical periods. ANSWER: c 63. The study of influences on gene expression that occur without a DNA change is called a. genomics. b. epigenetics. c. neurogenesis. d. social psychology. ANSWER: b 64. The molecules that can trigger or block genetic expression are called a. genomes. b. chromosomes. c. stress hormones. d. epigenetic marks. ANSWER: d 65. Trish drank contaminated water, which contained toxic molecules that blocked the expression of some of her genes. As a result, she is now highly allergic to certain foods. This best illustrates the impact of a. digestive enzymes. b. stress hormones. c. epigenetic marks. d. natural selection. ANSWER: c 66. During the course of successful prenatal development, a human organism begins as a(n) a. zygote and finally develops into an embryo. b. embryo and finally develops into a fetus. c. zygote and finally develops into a fetus. d. fetus and finally develops into an embryo. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 67. A zygote is a(n) a. agent that can harm prenatal development. b. developing organism from about 2 weeks after fertilization through the second month. c. developing organism from 9 weeks after conception to birth. d. fertilized egg. ANSWER: d 68. Cell division and specialization begin during the ________ stage of prenatal development. a. fetal b. placental c. zygotic d. embryonic ANSWER: c 69. The zygote attaches to the uterine wall of the pregnant parent ________ after conception. a. 2 days b. 5 days c. 10 days d. 2 months ANSWER: c 70. The zygote's inner cells a. form the placenta. b. become the embryo. c. become the heart of the organism. d. attach to the uterine wall. ANSWER: b 71. The placenta is formed from a. fertilization and implantation. b. the interplay of genetics and the uterine environment. c. many of the outer cells of the zygote. d. proper prenatal nutrition. ANSWER: c 72. The organ that transfers nutrients and oxygen from mother to embryo is called the a. ovary. b. zygote. c. placenta. d. teratogen. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 73. The placenta develops from many of the outer cells of the a. ovary. b. zygote. c. fetus. d. embryo. ANSWER: b 74. When a placenta is first developed, it begins to transfer nutrients and oxygen from mother to a. egg cell. b. fetus. c. embryo. d. zygote. ANSWER: c 75. Resting her hand on her body, Alexa detects the heartbeat of her future baby. This is the first time she senses the heart beat, which means the developing person would be referred to as a(n) a. embryo. b. zygote. c. genome. d. fetus. ANSWER: a 76. The fetus is the a. agent that can harm prenatal development. b. developing organism from about 2 weeks after fertilization through the second month. c. developing organism from 9 weeks after conception to birth. d. fertilized egg. ANSWER: c 77. A teratogen is a(n) a. fertilized egg that undergoes rapid cell division. b. unborn child with one or more physical disabilities or abnormalities. c. chromosomal abnormality. d. substance that can cross the placental barrier and harm an unborn child. ANSWER: d 78. Helena experienced a severe case of COVID-19 during her fourth month of pregnancy that affected her baby's brain. In this instance, the virus was clearly a a. stress hormone. b. digestive enzyme. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice c. teratogen. d. zygote. ANSWER: c 79. One of the most consistently damaging teratogens is a. blood. b. oxygen. c. testosterone. d. alcohol. ANSWER: d 80. When alcohol, nicotine, or other drugs enter a pregnant woman's bloodstream and that of her fetus, a. digestive enzymes are released. b. stress hormones are created. c. activity is affected in both their central nervous systems. d. the fetus' later desire for alcohol is reduced. ANSWER: c 81. Research regarding the use of alcohol or marijuana while pregnant has concluded that a. even light drinking, occasional binge drinking, or marijuana smoke can affect the fetal brain. b. moderate use does not negatively impact fetal development. c. light drinking or occasional marijuana use does not influence prenatal development. d. only excessive use can have a negative impact on prenatal development. ANSWER: a 82. Approximately ________ children in the United States have visible effects of fetal alcohol spectrum disorder. a. 1 in 5 b. 1 in 15 c. 1 in 30 d. 2 in 50 ANSWER: c 83. The symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome are most likely to include a. visual impairments. b. mental abnormalities. c. stranger anxiety. d. hearing problems. ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com 84. Abdel was born with fetal alcohol syndrome. What is one physical sign that is an indicator? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice a. He may wear glasses because of visual impairments. b. He may have a lifelong physical abnormality. c. He may have difficulties hearing and communicating due to hearing problems. d. He experiences high levels of anxiety when meeting new people. ANSWER: b 85. Alcohol may cause fetal damage by leaving chemical marks on DNA that switch genes abnormally on or off. This best illustrates a. object permanence. b. reflexive rooting. c. an epigenetic effect. d. neural networking. ANSWER: c 86. A reflex refers to a. an emotional tie to another person. b. an epigenetic effect that is observable at birth. c. a simple, automatic response to sensory stimulation. d. the consistency of temperament over time. ANSWER: c 87. Babies are born with several reflexes for getting food. One of these is to a. withdraw a limb to escape pain. b. turn the head away from a cloth placed over the face. c. open the mouth in search of a nipple when touched on the cheek. d. prefer face-like images more than abstract images. ANSWER: c 88. While holding her friend's newborn, Elmira caresses the baby's cheek. The baby turns her head toward the touch and opens her mouth. The baby will next a. suck on Elmira's hand. b. extend his or her arms and legs. c. cry. d. root for a nipple. ANSWER: d 89. Mr. Mercado triggered a rooting reflex in his infant son by touching him on the a. foot. b. knee. c. arm. ScholarFriends.com d. cheek. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 90. An infant's tendency to automatically grasp objects placed in his or her hands best illustrates a. object permanence. b. insecure attachment. c. a reflex response. d. basic trust. ANSWER: c 91. Newborns have been observed to show the greatest visual interest in a a. rectangular shape. b. circular shape. c. bull's-eye pattern. d. face-like image. ANSWER: d 92. Our preference for face-like images has been demonstrated as early as a. shortly after birth. b. 2 months of age. c. during the late-stage fetal period. d. 3 months of age. ANSWER: c 93. French toddlers preferred playing with chamomile-scented toys if a. they had never before smelled chamomile. b. they had been diagnosed with fetal alcohol syndrome. c. their mothers had once used a skin balm with a chamomile scent. d. their fathers were devoted chamomile tea drinkers. ANSWER: c 94. People's characteristic emotional reactivity and intensity is called their a. social identity. b. temperament. c. maturation level. d. critical period. ANSWER: b 95. Leanne reacts strongly to stimulation; Rosemarie is usually calm and confident. The two children most clearly differ in a. maturation. ScholarFriends.com b. egocentrism. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice c. temperament. d. object permanence. ANSWER: c 96. Anxious, inhibited infants have a. lower intelligence than calm infants. b. high and variable heart rates. c. assertive personalities. d. outgoing dispositions. ANSWER: b 97. Who are likely to show the greatest similarity in temperament? a. Ruth and Ramona, identical twins b. Philip and Paul, fraternal twins c. Larry and Laura, brother and sister d. Vincent Sr. and Vincent Jr., father and son ANSWER: a 98. Twin and adoption studies have been most helpful for teasing apart the influences of a. temperament and maturation. b. outgoingness and agreeableness. c. genes and protein molecules. d. heredity and environment. ANSWER: d 99. Identical twins originate from the fertilization of a. a single egg by a single sperm cell. b. two eggs by a single sperm cell. c. a single egg by two sperm cells. d. two eggs by two sperm cells. ANSWER: a 100. Twins who develop from separate fertilized eggs are called ________ twins. a. epigenetic b. monozygotic c. identical d. fraternal ANSWER: d 101. Unlike identical twins, fraternal twins are described as ScholarFriends.com a. epigenetic. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice b. dizygotic. c. extraverted. d. monozygotic. ANSWER: b 102. Compared with identical twins, fraternal twins are ________ similar in their abilities and ________ similar in their interests. a. more; less b. less; less c. more; more d. less; more ANSWER: b 103. Sebastian and Carlos are fraternal twins. As compared with identical twins, they would probably be ________ similar in their personalities and ________ similar in their artistic ability. a. more; less b. less; less c. more; more d. less; more ANSWER: b 104. Environmental influences on personality traits are most clearly highlighted by comparing a. identical twins raised together with fraternal twins raised apart. b. identical twins raised together with fraternal twins raised together. c. identical twins raised apart with fraternal twins raised together. d. identical twins raised together with identical twins raised apart. ANSWER: d 105. Identical twins have been shown to have some amazing psychological similarities. But we should be cautious about attributing these similarities to shared genes because a. the twins may have been raised in completely different environments. b. genetic factors influence physical, not psychological, characteristics. c. any two strangers are likely to share many coincidental similarities. d. many fraternal twins have been shown to be psychologically different from each other. ANSWER: c 106. The personalities of adopted children a. are very similar to the personalities of the other children in their adoptive families. b. are very similar to the personalities of their biologically related siblings. c. are not very similar to the personalities of their adoptive parents. ScholarFriends.com d. are more similar to the personalities of their caregiving adoptive parents than to the personalities of Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice their biological parents. ANSWER: c 107. Juan and Rahul are biologically related nontwin siblings raised in the same home. Mini and Tatsiana are biologically unrelated children adopted at birth and raised as siblings in the same home. People are likely to ________ the personality similarities of Juan and Rahul and ________ the personality similarities of Mini and Tatsiana. a. overestimate; underestimate b. underestimate; overestimate c. underestimate; underestimate d. overestimate; overestimate ANSWER: d 108. In one study, biological mothers parented some of their children, while other children were parented by adoptive mothers. Compared with the biological mothers, the adoptive mothers a. paid less attention to their adopted children. b. worried too much to be effective parents. c. used gentler parenting and gave more guidance. d. raised less happy and less stable children. ANSWER: c 109. Agnes was adopted at 2 years of age. Agnes' adoptive parents were very loving and supportive. It can be expected that Agnes would be more ________ as an adult compared with those who may not have been adopted. a. intelligent b. reserved c. self-giving d. sociable and extraverted ANSWER: c 110. Maturation refers to a. the development of socially acceptable behaviors. b. biological growth processes that are mostly independent of experience. c. any learned behavior patterns that accompany personal growth and development. d. the physical and sexual development of childhood. ANSWER: b 111. The human tendency to stand before walking is an illustration of a. maturation. b. change. c. stability. ScholarFriends.com d. nurture. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 112. The human tendency to use nouns before adjectives is an illustration of a. maturation. b. change. c. stability. d. nurture. ANSWER: a 113. Maturation is to education as ________ is to ________. a. accommodation; assimilation b. nature; nurture c. conservation; object permanence d. environment; learning ANSWER: b 114. Which of the following is true of your brain on the day you were born? a. You had most of the brain cells you would ever have and they were already well wired. b. Your brain cells, which were just beginning to form, would develop over the next six years. c. You had most of the brain cells you would ever have, but the wiring was immature. d. Your brain cells would form only if you had adequate stimulation. ANSWER: c 115. After birth, your abilities had a wild growth spurt. This growth spurt was enabled by a. the development of schemas. b. accommodation. c. the increasing complexity of neural networks. d. epigenetic marks. ANSWER: c 116. When 10-year-old Danielle repeatedly practices the precise motor skills involved in texting, the cortical areas directly controlling these motor skills are likely to develop more complex a. epigenetic marks. b. neural networks. c. object permanence. d. formal operations. ANSWER: b 117. From ages 3 to 6, your ability to control your attention and behavior developed rapidly thanks to rapid brain growth in the a. temporal lobes. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice b. frontal lobes. c. occipital lobes. d. parietal lobes. ANSWER: b 118. The parts of the brain linked to thinking, memory, and language, which are the last to fully develop, are known as the a. reticular formation. b. limbic system. c. association areas. d. somatosensory cortex. ANSWER: c 119. Devin is learning how to play basketball. As his brain incorporates new learning related to this skill, he performs with increasing skill. This is related to a. neuroplasticity. b. pruning. c. critical periods. d. assimilation. ANSWER: a 120. A failure to practice important motor skills can result in a loss of agility because unused neural connections a. become insecurely attached. b. assimilate. c. accommodate. d. are pruned. ANSWER: d 121. Compared with environmentally impoverished rats, those rats housed in enriched environments experienced a dramatic increase in the number of their a. critical periods. b. schemas. c. synapses. d. epigenetic marks. ANSWER: c 122. Brain maturation provides us with a wealth of neural connections, some of which are further strengthened by the experience of sights and sounds, touches and tastes, music and movement. This best illustrates that nature and nurture interact to sculpt our a. schemas. b. epigenetic marks. ScholarFriends.com c. synapses. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice d. critical periods. ANSWER: c 123. Premature infants who are regularly touched and massaged are more likely than their unstimulated counterparts to show signs of a. object permanence. b. a fidgety temperament. c. an epigenetic mark. d. rapid weight gain. ANSWER: d 124. Cora was born prematurely. Which of the following would aid her development? a. overstimulation b. an individualist culture c. touch and massage d. isolation ANSWER: c 125. For children from impoverished environments, stimulating educational experiences during early childhood are most likely to a. increase the development of epigenetic marks. b. decrease their emotional attachment to their parents. c. have no discernible effect on subsequent academic performance. d. activate and strengthen some neural pathways. ANSWER: d 126. A critical period is a period of time during which a. children frequently disobey and resist their parents. b. children become able to think hypothetically and reason abstractly. c. parents frequently show impatience with a child's slowness in becoming toilet trained. d. exposure to certain stimuli or experiences is needed for proper development. ANSWER: d 127. Lacking any exposure to language before adolescence, a person will never master any language because of the ________ of unemployed neural connections. a. conservation b. neuroplasticity c. pruning d. maturation ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com

128. Marjoy was born with cataracts on her eyes and did not have her vision corrected until she was 2 years old. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice As a result, she will never develop typical visual perception because these early years represent a a. concrete operational stage. b. critical period. c. cognitive schema. d. epigenetic mark. ANSWER: b 129. Based on what researchers have learned about the environment and development, what is the expected outcome of a lack of stimulation during human development? a. Brain development will slow down. b. Cognitive development will slow down. c. Both brain and cognitive development will slow down. d. Neither brain nor cognitive development will slow down. ANSWER: c 130. Infant motor development is typically characterized by individual differences in ________ of the major developmental milestones. a. both the sequence and the age-related timing b. the sequence but not the age-related timing c. the age-related timing but not the sequence d. neither the sequence nor the age-related timing ANSWER: c 131. Gerard, the son of a professional football player, was able to roll over at 4 months, crawl at 8 months, and walk at 11 months. This ordered sequence of motor development was largely due to a. the baby's temperament. b. maturation. c. responsive parenting. d. secure attachment. ANSWER: b 132. Della's baby is 1 year old and is not walking yet. What should you tell Della? a. "Ninety percent of babies walk by the time they are 12 months old. Perhaps you should have the pediatrician check on her motor-skill development." b. "Perhaps her fine motor skills are behind schedule." c. "This is perfectly normal. Although 50 percent of babies walk within a week after their first birthday, many don't until they are 15 months old." d. "Don't worry about it! Only 25 percent of babies walk by the time they are 12 months old." ANSWER: c 133. Putting babies to sleep on their backs to reduce the risk of a smothering crib death has been associated with ScholarFriends.com a slight delay in children's Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice a. walking. b. crawling. c. bladder control. d. stranger anxiety. ANSWER: b 134. The recommended position for putting babies to sleep is a. on their stomachs. b. on their backs. c. on their sides. d. in a nearly upright sitting position. ANSWER: b 135. The concept of maturation is most relevant to understanding the absence of a. secure attachments among infants. b. bladder control among 2-year-olds. c. self-esteem among kindergarten students. d. moral behavior among adolescents. ANSWER: b 136. Our earliest conscious memories seldom predate our fourth birthday. This best illustrates a. egocentrism. b. role confusion. c. assimilation. d. infantile amnesia. ANSWER: d 137. Eight-year-old Samantha can't consciously recall any of the family trips that occurred before she was 4 years old. This best illustrates that a. the trauma of birth interferes with the early formation of memories. b. most brain cells do not yet exist at the time of birth. c. infants' experiences are a meaningless blur of darkness and light. d. all children experience infantile amnesia. ANSWER: d 138. Six-year-old Marvin can't remember a family trip to Nassau when he was 2 years old. This best illustrates a. stranger anxiety. b. an insecure attachment. c. infantile amnesia. d. egocentrism. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 139. The psychologist who showed that infants can learn and remember through experiments involving moving a crib mobile was a. Jonathan Haidt. b. Carolyn Rovee-Collier. c. Jean Piaget. d. Harry Harlow. ANSWER: b 140. One study found that English-speaking British adults could, up to age 40, relearn subtle sound contrasts in the Hindi or Zulu language they had spoken as children even though they had no ________ the language they had once spoken. a. personal curiosity about b. conscious memory of c. basic trust regarding d. schemas associated with ANSWER: b 141. Which psychologist was most influential in shaping our understanding of cognitive development? a. Harry Harlow b. Jean Piaget c. Sigmund Freud d. Erik Erikson ANSWER: b 142. Cognition refers to a. an emotional tie linking one person with another. b. the mental activities associated with thinking, knowing, remembering, and communicating. c. any process that facilitates the physical development of the brain. d. any process of change that accompanies maturation. ANSWER: b 143. Piaget was convinced that the mind of a child a. is like a blank slate at birth. b. is not heavily influenced by maturation. c. develops through a series of stages. d. is heavily dependent on the child's personality. ANSWER: c 144. Piaget was convinced that children a. experience continuous development. ScholarFriends.com b. depend on their parents for knowledge. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice c. are active thinkers. d. are unable to learn by themselves. ANSWER: c 145. According to Piaget, schemas are a. fixed sequences of cognitive developmental stages. b. children's ways of coming to terms with their sexuality. c. people's concepts or frameworks for understanding their experiences. d. problem-solving strategies that are typically not developed until the formal operational stage. ANSWER: c 146. Two-year-old Willem's belief that tossing unwanted food on the floor will make it disappear best illustrates a. an epigenetic mark. b. a critical period. c. a schema. d. an insecure attachment. ANSWER: c 147. Interpreting new experiences in terms of existing schemas is called a. egocentrism. b. assimilation. c. conservation. d. accommodation. ANSWER: b 148. When 4-year-old Sandy first saw her older brother play a flute, she thought it was simply a large whistle. Sandy's initial understanding of the flute best illustrates the process of a. assimilation. b. conservation. c. accommodation. d. maturation. ANSWER: a 149. Interpreting new experiences in terms of existing schemas is to ________ as adapting current schemas to incorporate new information is to ________. a. conservation; egocentrism b. imprinting; maturation c. sensorimotor stage; preoperational stage d. assimilation; accommodation ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 150. According to Piaget, accommodation refers to a. parental efforts to include new children in the existing family structure. b. interpreting new experiences according to current schemas. c. developmental changes in a child's behavior that facilitate social acceptance by family and peers. d. adapting current schemas to incorporate new information. ANSWER: d 151. Hamp thought all teachers were older women until he had a young man as his second-grade teacher. Hamp's altered conception of a "teacher" illustrates the process of a. conservation. b. assimilation. c. accommodation. d. attachment. ANSWER: c 152. Which of the following is the correct order of Piaget's stages of cognitive development? a. preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational, sensorimotor b. sensorimotor, preoperational, formal operational, concrete operational c. sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational d. preoperational, sensorimotor, concrete operational, formal operational ANSWER: c 153. In Piaget's theory of cognitive development, the ________ stage lasts from birth to almost 2 years of age. During this stage, infants know their world in terms of motor activities and sensory impressions. a. preoperational b. formal operational c. sensorimotor d. concrete operational ANSWER: c 154. Dragos understands his world primarily by touching and grasping the toys in his crib. Dragos is clearly in Piaget's ________ stage. a. preoperational b. concrete operational c. sensorimotor d. formal operational ANSWER: c 155. According to Piaget, during the sensorimotor stage babies take in the world primarily by looking, hearing, touching, mouthing, and grasping. This stage occurs a. from age 1 until age 3. ScholarFriends.com b. between birth and nearly age 2 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice c. between age 2 and 4. d. after age 3. ANSWER: b 156. Jazmine has been playing with a toy as she sits in her swing. She accidently drops the toy. Rather than look for the toy, she starts playing with another nearby toy. It is as if the toy she dropped no longer exists. According to Piaget, how old is she likely to be? a. less than 6 months of age b. 8 months of age c. between 8 and 10 months of age d. at least 10 months of age ANSWER: a 157. Object permanence is the understanding that a. developmental stages occur in a predictable sequence. b. biological growth processes enable orderly development. c. things continue to exist even when they are not perceived. d. the mass and volume of objects remain the same despite changes in their form. ANSWER: c 158. According to Piaget, a person develops an awareness that things continue to exist even when they are not perceived during the ________ stage a. sensorimotor b. preoperational c. concrete operational d. formal operational ANSWER: a 159. When Joshua's father hides his rabbit toy under a sheet, Joshua acts as though it no longer exists and does not try to find it. Joshua is clearly near the beginning of Piaget's ________ stage. a. sensorimotor b. formal operational c. concrete operational d. preoperational ANSWER: a 160. Sebastian is sitting on the living room floor, playing with his stacking cubes. He accidently drops one but immediately begins looking for it. According to Piaget, how old is he likely to be? a. less than 3 months of age b. 5 months of age c. 6 months of age ScholarFriends.com d. at least 8 months of age Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 161. Infants stare longer than usual at unexpected events such as a ball stopping in midair. This suggests that Piaget a. overestimated the continuity of cognitive development. b. underestimated the cognitive capacities of infants. c. overestimated the impact of culture on infant intelligence. d. underestimated the impact of object permanence on infant attachment. ANSWER: b 162. According to Piaget, a child can represent things with words and images but cannot reason with logic during the ________ stage. a. concrete operational b. sensorimotor c. formal operational d. preoperational ANSWER: d 163. Sarah is in the preoperational stage of development. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of this stage? a. pretend play b. egocentrism c. symbolic thinking d. abstract reasoning ANSWER: d 164. In one study, 3-year-olds were told to pretend they were firefighters. The researchers found that the children were making up stories and pretending to rescue princes and princesses from burning towers, thus demonstrating their capacity for a. egocentrism. b. symbolic thinking. c. conservation. d. concrete operational reasoning. ANSWER: b 165. Denzil and Mario are converting a used carton into a racing car and pretending they are drivers at a world racing challenge. The children are most clearly demonstrating a. conservation. b. role confusion. c. pretend play. d. egocentrism. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 166. The egocentrism of preschoolers was most strongly emphasized by a. the Harlows' attachment theory. b. Baumrind's parenting style theory. c. Piaget's cognitive development theory. d. Erikson's psychosocial development theory. ANSWER: c 167. According to Piaget, egocentrism refers to a. a sensorimotor need for self-stimulation, as evidenced by thumb sucking. b. young children's exaggerated interest in themselves and their own pleasure. c. the difficulty of perceiving things from another person's point of view. d. a failure to realize that things continue to exist even when they are not visible. ANSWER: c 168. Four-year-old Claire mistakenly believes that her mother would like to receive a toy doll as a Christmas present. This best illustrates Piaget's concept of a. accommodation. b. object permanence. c. conservation. d. egocentrism. ANSWER: d 169. Arsan asked his toddler to "show me your drawing." His toddler then held up the picture facing his own eyes. This is an example of a. egocentric behavior. b. pretend play. c. conservatism. d. object permanence. ANSWER: a 170. Iputu is 4 years old and is playing hide and seek with his older brothers and sisters. When it is his turn to hide, he puts his hands over his eyes. He is demonstrating a. egocentric behavior. b. pretend play. c. conservatism. d. object permanence. ANSWER: a 171. Nigede is 5 years old and is standing in front of the TV while watching a soccer game. Her parents are also trying to watch, but Nigede is standing right in front of them. Nigede doesn't realize that she is blocking her ScholarFriends.com parents' view. This is an example of Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice a. egocentric behavior. b. pretend play. c. conservatism. d. object permanence. ANSWER: a 172. Incorrectly assuming that something that is clearly understood by us will also be clearly understood by others illustrates a. basic trust. b. egocentrism. c. object permanence. d. an insecure attachment. ANSWER: b 173. Specific accomplishments during the concrete operational stage of cognitive development include a. logic and moral reasoning. b. object permanence and stranger anxiety. c. pretend play and egocentrism. d. conservation and mathematical transformations. ANSWER: d 174. If children cannot grasp the principle of conservation, they are unable to a. deal with the discipline of toilet training. b. see things from the point of view of another person. c. recognize that the quantity of a substance remains the same despite changes in its shape. d. retain earlier schemas when confronted by new experiences. ANSWER: c 175. Mrs. Matherson cut Beth's pickle into six pieces and Gail's into four pieces. Gail cried because she felt she wasn't getting as much pickle as Beth. Piaget would say that Gail doesn't understand the principle of a. object permanence. b. conservation. c. egocentrism. d. accommodation. ANSWER: b 176. According to Piaget, the ability to think logically about events first develops during the ________ stage. a. sensorimotor b. formal operational c. concrete operational ScholarFriends.com d. preoperational Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 177. According to Piaget, imagining an action and mentally reversing it would be an example of a a. pruning process. b. critical period. c. mental operation. d. sensorimotor action. ANSWER: c 178. According to Piaget, children come to understand that the volume of a substance remains constant despite changes in its shape during the ________ stage. a. sensorimotor b. preoperational c. concrete operational d. formal operational ANSWER: c 179. Rossen counted 15 Lego building blocks piled one on top of the other. When the pile was knocked over and the blocks were scattered in front of him, he knew that there were still 15 blocks. This indicates that Rossen has reached the ________ stage of development. a. sensorimotor b. concrete operational c. preoperational d. formal operational ANSWER: b 180. According to Piaget, egocentrism is to conservation as the ________ stage is to the ________ stage. a. concrete operational; preoperational b. sensorimotor; preoperational c. concrete operational; formal operational d. preoperational; concrete operational ANSWER: d 181. According to Piaget, a person first comprehends that division is the reverse of multiplication during the ________ stage. a. preoperational b. concrete operational c. formal operational d. sensorimotor ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com

182. According to Piaget, during the formal operational stage people first begin to Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice a. reason abstractly. b. follow social norms. c. recognize the difference between helpful and harmful behaviors. d. experience object permanence. ANSWER: a 183. Evilio is 15 years old. According to Piaget, which specific accomplishments are characteristic of children his age? a. abstract logic and moral reasoning b. object permanence and stranger anxiety c. pretend play and egocentrism d. conservation and mathematical transformations ANSWER: a 184. Dale, a 15-year-old high school student, needs to take an advanced science course this year. He has chosen physics. His parents aren't surprised that a physics class is available to Dale now because when children enter the ________ stage they are able to engage in abstract thinking and systematic reasoning. a. concrete operational b. preoperational c. formal operational d. sensorimotor ANSWER: c 185. Criminal courts do not treat teens as adults because a. their ability to think morally has not yet matured. b. they are still only able to engage in concrete reasoning. c. their reasoning abilities mature before their behavior in emotional situations. d. they are only just beginning to understand conservation. ANSWER: c 186. Contemporary researchers have been able to a. confirm the accuracy of Piaget's theory. b. identify conceptual abilities that Piaget did not. c. dispute almost all of Piaget's ideas about cognitive development. d. research cognitive development but not come to any solid conclusions. ANSWER: b 187. For optimal cognitive development. Piaget stressed the importance of a child's interaction with ________, whereas Vygotsky stressed the importance of a child's interaction with ________. a. both parents; extended family, such as grandparents b. the physical environment; the social environment ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice c. public education and instruction; peers of similar ages d. adult teachers; other children ANSWER: b 188. If Piaget pictured the developing child as a young ________, Vygotsky pictured the developing child as a young ________. a. empathizer; systemizer b. postoperational child; preoperational child c. scientist; apprentice d. athlete; artist ANSWER: c 189. The psychologist Lev Vygotsky suggested that children's ability to solve problems is enhanced by a. basic trust. b. inner speech. c. conservation. d. pruning. ANSWER: b 190. We now refer to Vygotsky's framework that offers children temporary support as they develop higher levels of thinking as a. egocentrism. b. a theory of mind. c. a scaffold. d. a schema. ANSWER: c 191. According to Vygotsky, parents who say "No, no, Bella!" when moving her hand away from a cookie tin are giving their child a tool for a. pretend play. b. self-control. c. object permanence. d. a secure attachment. ANSWER: b 192. Seven-year-old Blanche was able to stop herself from drinking the hot chocolate before it cooled a bit by inaudibly whispering the word "hot." The advantage of her verbal self-control tactic was most clearly highlighted by a. Erik Erikson. b. Lev Vygotsky. c. Jean Piaget. ScholarFriends.com d. Harry Harlow. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 193. Ideas about one's own and others' feelings, perceptions, and thoughts, along with the behaviors these might predict, are said to constitute a. formal operational thinking. b. a theory of mind. c. the principle of conservation. d. a secure attachment. ANSWER: b 194. Evidence that preschoolers develop a theory of mind suggests that Piaget overestimated young children's a. egocentrism. b. infantile amnesia. c. stranger anxiety. d. sense of object permanence. ANSWER: a 195. Preschoolers who were surprised to discover that a Band-Aid box contained pencils were able to anticipate their friend's false belief about the contents of the box. This best illustrates that the children had developed a a. secure attachment. b. conventional morality. c. theory of mind. d. concept of conservation. ANSWER: c 196. Nizar can clearly sense when his brother's roughhousing is just for fun or an angry outburst. This best illustrates that Nizar has developed a(n) a. sense of object permanence. b. insecure attachment. c. concept of conservation. d. theory of mind. ANSWER: d 197. Children with ________ have difficulty understanding that another's state of mind differs from their own. a. fetal alcohol syndrome b. conventional morality. c. autism spectrum disorder d. concept of conservation. ANSWER: c 198. Kailey is now 5 months of age. She should be able to ScholarFriends.com a. walk while holding on to furniture. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice b. show signs of stranger anxiety when exposed to new adults. c. demonstrate a clear-cut attachment to caregivers. d. distinguish between familiar and unfamiliar languages. ANSWER: d 199. By about 8 months, children become increasingly likely to react to newcomers with tears and distress. This best illustrates a. assimilation. b. insecure attachment. c. egocentrism. d. stranger anxiety. ANSWER: d 200. Christa is beginning to develop a fear of strangers and will reach for her caregiver when she sees someone she does not know. It is likely that Christa has also just a. mastered the principle of conservation. b. overcome the limitation of egocentrism. c. developed a sense of object permanence. d. lost her sense of secure attachment. ANSWER: c 201. Lenny, who is 9 months old, plays happily while his father is cooking dinner. When a neighbor joins them and tries to talk to Lenny, however, Lenny begins to cry. Lenny's behavior best illustrates a. egocentrism. b. stranger anxiety. c. sense of self-awareness. d. understanding of conservation. ANSWER: b 202. Infants develop a fear of strangers by about 8 months of age because they can't assimilate unfamiliar faces into their a. schemas. b. insecure attachments. c. impaired theory of mind. d. critical period. ANSWER: a 203. The powerful survival impulse that leads infants to seek closeness to their caregivers is called a. attachment. b. conservation. c. egocentrism. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice d. pruning. ANSWER: a 204. Little Samson will play with children he doesn't know only if his mother first reassures him that it is okay to do so. This best illustrates the adaptive value of a. conservation. b. attachment. c. egocentrism. d. authoritarian parenting. ANSWER: b 205. Studies of monkeys raised with artificial mothers suggest that mother-infant emotional bonds result primarily from mothers providing infants with a. adequate nourishment. b. contact comfort. c. the opportunity to explore. d. permissive parenting. ANSWER: b 206. The Harlows' infant monkeys used an artificial cloth mother as a secure base for a. conservation. b. delay of gratification. c. exploration. d. object permanence. ANSWER: c 207. Infants normally become attached to caregivers who are comfortable and a. who provide nourishment. b. mature. c. secure. d. familiar. ANSWER: d 208. Which of the following is NOT true of parental affection? a. It is soothing to the infant. b. It is associated with attachment deprivation. c. It is associated with brain development. d. It is associated with cognitive ability. ANSWER: b 209. Physicians have advised Claudia, a new mother, to show affection to her infant by touching her. This type ScholarFriends.com of affection has been shown to Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice a. aid brain development and cognitive ability. b. decrease parent-child attachment formation. c. lead to problematic adult relationships in later life. d. hinder social relationships in childhood. ANSWER: a 210. Responsive parents provide ________ to their children. a. a secure base b. a safe haven c. a secure base and a safe haven d. neither a secure base nor a safe haven ANSWER: c 211. To assess attachment differences among infants, Mary Ainsworth placed them in a laboratory setting called a a. formal operation stage. b. secure base. c. strange situation. d. safe haven. ANSWER: c 212. Providing children with a safe haven in times of stress contributes most directly to a. conservation. b. stranger anxiety. c. object permanence. d. secure attachment. ANSWER: d 213. If children sense that their parents are trustworthy and dependable, this most clearly indicates a. maturation. b. accommodation. c. secure attachment. d. object permanence. ANSWER: c 214. One-year-old Iris generally does not seem to be afraid of unfamiliar people but she clearly prefers being held by her parents than by anyone else. Her behavior best illustrates a. accommodation. b. secure attachment. c. conservation. ScholarFriends.com d. egocentrism. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 215. Infants in a pleasant but strange situation who respond to their mother's departure with extreme anxiety or to their mother's return with avoidance are showing signs of a. infantile amnesia. b. object permanence. c. insecure attachment. d. egocentrism. ANSWER: c 216. One-year-old Maggie prefers to sit on her mother's lap than to play with the toys in the dentist's office. Maggie most clearly shows signs of a. conservation. b. egocentrism. c. insecure attachment. d. accommodation. ANSWER: c 217. Abram cried when his mother left him at their neighbor's house, and he was not reassured or comforted by her return a short while later. Abram showed signs of a. egocentrism. b. assimilation. c. conservation. d. insecure attachment. ANSWER: d 218. In the strange situation experiment, toddlers with an anxious attachment to their mothers were most likely to a. cling to their mothers and ignore their new surroundings. b. show relief when their mothers momentarily departed from them. c. show indifference when their mothers returned after a brief absence. d. show anger when their mothers approached them after a brief absence. ANSWER: a 219. Infants in a strange situation who appear not to notice or care about their mother's departure or return show signs of a. object permanence. b. basic trust. c. avoidant attachment. d. egocentrism. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 220. Some mothers feed their infants when they show signs of hunger, whereas others fail to respond predictably to their infants' demands for food. These different maternal feeding practices are most likely to contribute to differences in infant a. accommodation. b. attachment. c. conservation. d. egocentrism. ANSWER: b 221. A mother who is slow in responding to her infant's cries of distress is most likely to encourage a. conservation. b. insecure attachment. c. object permanence. d. egocentrism. ANSWER: b 222. Which of the following factors contributes most positively to the development of secure attachment between human infants and their mothers? a. egocentrism b. responsive parenting c. stranger anxiety d. authoritarian discipline ANSWER: b 223. Three-year-old Amy perceives her parents as cold and rejecting. This is most indicative of a. conservation. b. egocentrism. c. infantile amnesia. d. insecure attachment. ANSWER: d 224. When raised in total isolation without artificial mothers, when later placed with other monkeys their age, the Harlows' monkeys a. either cowered in fright or lashed out in aggression. b. behaved in the same way as monkeys who were raised with artificial mothers. c. were more likely to mate than were monkeys raised with artificial mothers. d. showed signs of severe depression. ANSWER: a 225. Babies who are cheerful, relaxed, and feeding and sleeping on predictable schedules are considered to have a(n) ________ temperament. ScholarFriends.com a. difficult Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice b. easy c. fearless d. outgoing ANSWER: b 226. Which of the following babies would be most likely to form a secure attachment with their primary caregiver? a. Mark, who is an only child b. Vince, who is his parents' first child c. Stacey, who has an easy temperament d. Nadene, who has a difficult temperament ANSWER: c 227. Evidence that cheerful and relaxed infants develop secure attachments more readily than irritable and emotionally intense babies would illustrate the importance of a. egocentrism. b. temperament. c. conservation. d. object permanence. ANSWER: b 228. Myron is an emotionally intense infant and unpredictable in his sleeping schedule. Justin is a very relaxed infant and predictable in his sleeping schedule. The two children most clearly differ in a. epigenetic marks. b. theory of mind. c. temperament. d. attachments. ANSWER: c 229. Alejandro is a difficult baby who is often anxious and withdrawn. It is most likely that Alejandro a. has a reactive nervous system. b. is usually cheerful and relaxed. c. has a predictable feeding and sleeping schedule. d. is securely attached to his parents. ANSWER: a 230. Babies who are generally cheerful, relaxed, and have predictable feeding and sleeping schedules are considered to have a(n) ________ temperament. a. difficult b. easy c. fearless ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice d. outgoing ANSWER: b 231. Half the mothers of temperamentally difficult 6- to 9-month-old infants received personal training in sensitive responding. The other half did not. Those who received this training were more likely than the others to have their 12-month-old babies rated as a. empathizers. b. systemizers. c. securely attached. d. egocentric. ANSWER: c 232. Danah has two children, both of whom are girls. Her oldest is 3 years old and the youngest is now 9 months old. Danah is amazed at how different they are. The oldest is shy and quiet. Her youngest is happy and smiling most of the time. These differences can be attributed to a. differences in temperament. b. differences in gene expression. c. differences in parenting style. d. a shared genome. ANSWER: a 233. Who are likely to show the greatest similarity in temperament? a. Ruth and Ramona, identical twins b. Philippe and Paul, fraternal twins c. Janak and Kaira, brother and sister d. Vincent Sr. and Vincent Jr., father and son ANSWER: a 234. When considering the development of secure attachments, nature is to nurture as ________ is to ________. a. conservation; object permanence b. heredity; maturation c. accommodation; assimilation d. temperament; responsive parenting ANSWER: d 235. Nearly 100 studies worldwide have concluded that ________ in predicting an offspring's health and wellbeing. a. mother care is more important than father care b. father care is more important than mother care c. both father care and mother care are important d. neither father care nor mother care is important ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 236. Children's anxiety over separation from parents peaks at around ________ months and then gradually declines. a. 7 b. 13 c. 21 d. 30 ANSWER: b 237. Who coined the term basic trust, which is a sense that the world is predictable and reliable? a. Harry Harlow b. Jean Piaget c. Erik Erikson d. Lev Vygotsky ANSWER: c 238. According to Erikson, a sense that the world is predictable and reliable is referred to as a. anxiety. b. avoidant attachment. c. basic trust. d. anxious attachment. ANSWER: c 239. Lim Chung and Erica are responsive caregivers who consistently satisfy their infant son's needs. According to Erikson, their son is likely to a. form a lifelong attitude of basic trust toward the world. b. encounter some difficulty in overcoming the limitation of egocentrism. c. encounter some difficulty in forming romantic attachments. d. achieve formal operational intelligence more quickly than the average child. ANSWER: a 240. At 15 months of age, Michael already strongly senses that he can rely on his parents to comfort and protect him. According to Erikson, this most clearly contributes to a. egocentrism. b. conservation. c. object permanence. d. basic trust. ANSWER: d 241. Many researchers believe that adult styles of relationship intimacy correspond with childhood patterns of a. accommodation. ScholarFriends.com b. attachment. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice c. conservation. d. object permanence. ANSWER: b 242. Louise is a first-year college student. Because the school is far from her parents' home, she is living in a dorm on campus. Thus far, she is adjusting well. She is able to adjust so well in large part because of her a. secure attachment to her parents. b. close family ties. c. having friends from high school attending the same college. d. living on campus. ANSWER: a 243. According to the research, people who enjoy secure attachments with their parents tend to a. enjoy secure friendships. b. fear leaving the security of the family home. c. crave acceptance from all those they meet. d. are constantly concerned about rejection. ANSWER: a 244. Adela's mother is secure and responsive to Adela's needs. Which of the following can be predicted about Adela? a. She is likely to have good grades and strong friendships. b. She is likely to annoy relationship partners. c. She is likely to have relationships with low commitment and high conflict. d. She is likely to crave acceptance from others. ANSWER: a 245. Some individuals constantly crave acceptance in romantic relationships but remain alert to signs of possible rejection. This insecure attachment may take the form of a. avoidant attachment. b. egocentric attachment. c. anxious attachment. d. preoperational attachment. ANSWER: c 246. Freda posts her daily activities on Facebook and repeatedly checks to see her friends' reactions, hoping for approval. She is secretly afraid that her friends will disapprove of some of her posts. Freda is demonstrating a. preoperational attachment. b. anxious attachment. c. egocentric attachment. d. avoidant attachment. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 247. When someone experiences discomfort getting close to others and uses various strategies to maintain distance from others, they are demonstrating a. avoidant attachment. b. basic trust. c. secure attachment. d. anxious attachment. ANSWER: a 248. Thandi feels extremely uncomfortable if someone tries to get close to her, and she never tries to get close to other people. Thandi may have an insecure a. preoperational attachment style. b. anxious attachment style. c. egocentric attachment style. d. avoidant attachment style. ANSWER: d 249. Harlow observed that most monkeys raised in total isolation a. were totally apathetic and indifferent to the first monkeys they encountered. b. were incapable of mating upon reaching sexual maturity. c. showed slower social development but more rapid cognitive development. d. showed no lasting adverse effects when placed in a socially enriched environment. ANSWER: b 250. Barbara punishes both her 3-year-old and 1-year-old daughters frequently, often for what seems like no misbehavior. Her behavior is most likely related to a lack of a. childhood experience with younger brothers and sisters. b. maturation. c. an early and secure attachment to her own parents. d. formal operational intelligence. ANSWER: c 251. Childhood abuse victims are at considerable risk for depression if they carry a gene variation that spurs the production of a. serotonin. b. stress hormones. c. DNA. d. testosterone. ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com

252. Experiencing severe child abuse can put ________ on one's genes that influence their expression. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice a. neurotransmitters b. enzymes c. molecular marks d. critical periods ANSWER: c 253. Golden hamsters that were repeatedly threatened and attacked while young grew up to be ________ when caged with weaker hamsters. a. egocentric b. cowards c. securely attached d. bullies ANSWER: d 254. Children who have survived severe or prolonged abuse are at increased risk for a. fetal alcohol syndrome. b. substance abuse. c. postconventional morality. d. infantile amnesia. ANSWER: b 255. Carla has been bullied through all of her school years, including high school. These experiences a. are associated with improved academic grades. b. have solidified her self-concept. c. have increased her risk of an earlier death. d. have helped her develop resiliency. ANSWER: c 256. Children raised in poverty face all of the following hardships EXCEPT that they a. complete less schooling. b. commit more crimes. c. have more problems with anxiety. d. develop physically at an early age. ANSWER: d 257. Most children who have coped with adversity become well-adjusted adults. This best illustrates a. egocentrism. b. object permanence. c. conservation. d. resilience. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 258. Thomas was bullied as a child but has become a well-adjusted adult. This demonstrates that Thomas is a. anxious. b. resilient. c. trustworthy. d. secure. ANSWER: b 259. Experiencing ________ has been found to aid resilience in later life. a. some childhood adversity b. enriched environments in childhood c. secure parent-child attachment d. insecure parent-child attachment ANSWER: a 260. Two characteristics of authoritarian parents are that they a. expect obedience but are responsive to their children's needs. b. submit to their children's desires but are unresponsive in times of need. c. impose rules and expect obedience. d. exert control by setting rules and explaining the reasons for those rules. ANSWER: c 261. The McCluskys set strict rules for their children's behavior and demand unquestioning obedience. Psychologists are likely to characterize the McCluskys as ________ parents. a. authoritarian b. neglectful c. permissive d. authoritative ANSWER: a 262. Permissive parents are said to be ________, whereas neglectful parents are said to be ________. a. uninvolved; unrestraining b. confrontive; coercive c. unrestraining; uninvolved d. coercive; confrontive ANSWER: c 263. Christophe and Julia make few demands of their two young children and use little punishment. Psychologists would characterize Christophe and Julia as ________ parents. a. authoritarian b. authoritative ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice c. neglectful d. permissive ANSWER: d 264. Parents who are neither demanding nor responsive are said to be a. authoritarian. b. permissive. c. neglectful. d. authoritative. ANSWER: c 265. Nadja's parents paid very little attention to her when she was a child. Their parenting style would best be described as a. authoritarian. b. permissive. c. neglectful. d. authoritative. ANSWER: c 266. Neglectful parents are especially likely to be a. coercive. b. confrontive. c. unrestraining. d. uninvolved. ANSWER: d 267. Meghan and Andrew demand nothing from their children, and they are typically inattentive to their children's needs. Psychologists would characterize Meghan and Andrew as ________ parents. a. authoritarian b. neglectful c. authoritative d. permissive ANSWER: b 268. Parents who are demanding and yet sensitively responsive to their children are said to be a. authoritarian. b. conservative. c. permissive. d. authoritative. ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 269. Compared with authoritarian parents, authoritative parents are likely to be a. more conservative. b. less educated. c. more responsive. d. less trusting. ANSWER: c 270. Jentry's parents have clear rules for their children and specific consequences should their children break those rules. However, they also encourage open discussions about the house rules and sometimes make an exception. Jentry's parents would be considered a. authoritarian. b. permissive. c. neglectful. d. authoritative. ANSWER: d 271. Coercive parents are ________, whereas confrontive parents are_______. a. conservative; neglectful b. authoritative; authoritarian c. neglectful; conservative d. authoritarian; authoritative ANSWER: d 272. Unrestraining is to ________ as uninvolved is to ________. a. authoritarian; permissive b. neglectful; permissive c. authoritative; neglectful d. permissive; neglectful ANSWER: d 273. Authoritative parents are likely to have children who a. are obedient but have low self-esteem. b. have high self-esteem and are self-reliant. c. have high self-esteem but are somewhat dependent. d. are rebellious and have low self-esteem. ANSWER: b 274. Dragos, a first-year high school student, is socially competent, self-reliant, and has high self-esteem. It is most likely that Sven's parents are a. permissive. b. conservative. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice c. authoritarian. d. authoritative. ANSWER: d 275. If warmly supportive parents are especially likely to have children with high self-esteem, this most clearly indicates that a. authoritative parenting is more effective than authoritarian parenting. b. permissive parenting is more effective than authoritative parenting. c. children's self-esteem stimulates warmly supportive parenting. d. warmly supportive parenting and children's self-esteem are correlated. ANSWER: d 276. Children of ________ parents often have poor academic and social outcomes. a. authoritarian b. permissive c. neglectful d. authoritative ANSWER: c 277. Which of the following statements is true? a. Correlational results always lead to cause-effect outcomes. b. Correlational studies are rarely used in studying parenting styles. c. Correlational results do not imply a cause-effect relationship. d. Research on parenting styles relies on experimental designs. ANSWER: c 278. The enduring traditions, values, attitudes, ideas, and behaviors shared by a group of people and transmitted from one generation to the next define their a. epigenetic marks. b. theory of mind. c. temperament. d. culture. ANSWER: d 279. Compared with families in Asian cultures, families in Western cultures more often favor a. obedience. b. emotional closeness. c. independence. d. family traditions. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 280. A strong sense of family self is likely to be characteristic of those who grow up in cultures that value a. emotional closeness. b. permissive parenting. c. nonconformity. d. egocentrism. ANSWER: a 281. Parents in Asian cultures are more likely than parents in Western cultures to encourage children to a. pick out and purchase their own clothes. b. participate in household activities. c. publicly protest unpopular government policies. d. establish close friendships with ethnically diverse groups of people. ANSWER: b 282. Which of the following is NOT true regarding child-raising practices? a. Child-raising practices are influenced by individual values. b. Child-raising practices are influenced by cultural values. c. Western parents today emphasize obedience, respect, and sensitivity to others. d. Children have thrived under various child-raising systems. ANSWER: c 283. In the traditional culture of ________, babies spend most of the day on their mother's or sibling's back. a. the United States b. Gusii society c. Britain d. China ANSWER: b 284. Vikas is growing up in a culture that values physical and emotional closeness. Vikas is most likely to develop a a. strong sense of family self. b. desire for independence. c. need to follow his conscience. d. strong sense of personal value. ANSWER: a 285. The years during which a person changes from a child to an adult are called a. puberty. b. adolescence. c. menarche. ScholarFriends.com d. emerging adulthood. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 286. Alejandro is currently in a transition period between childhood and adulthood. This period is called a. puberty. b. adolescence. c. menarche. d. emerging adulthood. ANSWER: b 287. Adolescence extends from a. the beginning of concrete operations to the end of formal operations. b. 12 to 15 years of age. c. the beginnings of sexual maturity to independent adulthood. d. the beginning to the end of puberty. ANSWER: c 288. The developmental stage of adolescence is likely to be briefest in cultures where post-pubertal teens are a. preoccupied with peer approval. b. seldom married. c. experiencing role confusion. d. self-supporting. ANSWER: d 289. The period of sexual maturation, during which a person usually becomes capable of reproducing, is called a. the formal operational stage. b. emerging adulthood. c. pruning. d. puberty. ANSWER: d 290. People experience a series of physical changes and sexual maturation a. during late adolescence. b. at puberty. c. when the frontal lobe matures. d. during emerging adulthood. ANSWER: b 291. Selwyn and Lucas are both going through puberty. The two boys a. may differ in the sequence but not the age-related timing of their pubertal development. b. may differ in both the sequence and the age-related timing of their pubertal development. ScholarFriends.com c. will not differ in the sequence or the age-related timing of their pubertal development. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice d. may differ in the age-related timing but not the sequence of their pubertal development. ANSWER: d 292. Which of the following is the typical sequence of female pubertal development? a. pubic hair, menarche, breast buds b. menarche, breast buds, pubic hair c. The sequence of female pubertal development cannot be predicted. d. breast buds, pubic hair, menarche ANSWER: d 293. The first menstrual period, called menarche, is a maturational milestone most directly associated with a. postconventional morality. b. dual processing. c. role confusion. d. puberty. ANSWER: d 294. Amelia is 12 years old and has just experienced menarche, which refers to a. the development of egocentrism. b. the beginning of postconventional morality. c. maturation of frontal lobes. d. the first menstrual period. ANSWER: d 295. Which of the following can make experiencing early pubertal maturation especially problematic for teens? a. having a secure attachment to parents b. having an emotionally reactive temperament c. having high intelligence compared with other teens d. experiencing their parents' divorce ANSWER: b 296. Early maturing teens are most likely to experience mental health problems if they have which of the following characteristics? a. an emotionally reactive temperament b. reduced emotional maturity c. underdeveloped frontal lobes d. increased independence from parents ANSWER: a 297. Twelve-year-old Carla is maturing early and is already taller than her peers in her sixth-grade class. Carla is likely to be ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice a. the most popular student in class. b. self-assured and independent. c. challenging her teacher's authority. d. the object of some teasing. ANSWER: d 298. The selective loss of unused connections among brain cells is called a. pruning. b. menarche. c. accommodation. d. generativity. ANSWER: a 299. Young teens often find it difficult to curb emotionalityand impulsiveness because frontal lobe maturation lags behind the development of the a. occipital lobe. b. somatosensory cortex. c. limbic system. d. pituitary gland. ANSWER: c 300. Thirteen-year-old Brad is upset because his parents won't let him go to a party being held by an older schoolmate. He goes to his bedroom, slams the door shut behind him, and turns up the music as high as it will go. Brad's emotional storm is most likely because frontal lobe maturation lags behind the development of the a. occipital lobe. b. somatosensory cortex. c. limbic system. d. pituitary gland. ANSWER: b 301. Young teens are not fully equipped for curbing risky behavior or making long-term plans because of the incomplete maturation of their a. thalamus. b. cerebellum. c. frontal lobes. d. somatosensory cortex. ANSWER: c 302. Adolescents have a tendency to take risks because a. their brains are biased toward immediate rewards. b. they are in the midst of puberty. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice c. they have reached the peak of cognitive development. d. they are in the postconventional stage of moral reasoning. ANSWER: a 303. As Johann matures, his frontal lobes will continue to develop. Which of the following is NOT a result of this development? a. improved judgment b. greater impulse control c. the ability to make long-term plans d. improved visual-spatial skills ANSWER: d 304. In 2005, the ________ declared juvenile death penalties unconstitutional. a. U.S. Supreme Court b. American Psychological Association c. American Association of Retired Persons d. Association for Psychological Science ANSWER: a 305. During the early teen years, egocentrism endures and reasoning often becomes self-focused as teens begin imagining what others are thinking about them and develop what is called a. a personal fable. b. moral reasoning. c. puberty. d. a imaginary audience. ANSWER: d 306. Rudy believes that all the other students are staring at her because her blouse is wrinkled and her pants are too tight. Rudy is experiencing a. egocentrism. b. an imaginary audience. c. a personal fable. d. formal operations. ANSWER: b 307. During the early teen years, teens have a tendency to see themselves as unique and special. This is called a. moral intuition. b. their social identity c. a personal fable. d. an imaginary audience. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 308. Jessica sees herself as a special person whose experiences are unique. This is an example of a. egocentrism. b. an imaginary audience. c. a personal fable. d. formal operations. ANSWER: c 309. Hundreds of thousands of teens have participated in school walkouts and marches to demand U.S. gun law reform. Their actions demonstrate that teens a. lack reasoning skills. b. are not mature enough to handle controversial issues. c. have been affected by media. d. can think logically about abstract topics. ANSWER: d 310. Adolescents begin to use abstract reasoning skills when they achieve the intellectual summit that Piaget called a. an intuitionist perspective. b. formal operations. c. autonomy. d. generativity. ANSWER: b 311. Fourteen-year-old Virginia was asked, "What would happen if everyone in the world suddenly went blind?" She responded, "Those who had previously been blind would become leaders." Virginia's answer indicates she is in the ________ stage of development. a. preconventional b. postconventional c. formal operational d. conventional ANSWER: c 312. The #NeverAgain movement that was initiated by survivors of the Parkland school shooting demonstrates Piaget's ________ stage of cognitive development. a. formal operational b. sensorimotor c. preoperational d. concrete operational ANSWER: a 313. Lawrence Kohlberg focused on the development of ScholarFriends.com a. a sense of identity. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice b. self-awareness. c. moral reasoning. d. moral intuitions. ANSWER: c 314. Lawrence Kohlberg proposed that moral reasoning guides our moral actions. A newer view recognizes that much of our functioning occurs on the "low road" of a. social identity. b. self-awareness. c. epigenetic experience. d. unconscious, automatic thinking. ANSWER: c 315. Kohlberg emphasized that children's moral judgments build on their a. social development. b. physical development. c. cognitive development. d. economic development. ANSWER: c 316. According to Kohlberg, morality based on the avoidance of punishment and the attainment of concrete rewards represents ________ morality. a. conventional b. preconventional c. intuitionist d. postconventional ANSWER: b 317. Ross thinks it's wrong to hit somebody simply because he might get punished for doing so. He is demonstrating Kohlberg's ________ stage of morality. a. conventional b. postconventional c. preconventional d. formal operational ANSWER: c 318. After surgery on her knee, Lyli suffered great pain every time she tried to bend her knee. Using CBD would reduce her pain, but she thinks it would be wrong to use CBD because it is prohibited by the laws of her state. Lyli is demonstrating Kohlberg's ________ level of morality. a. conventional b. unconventional ScholarFriends.com c. preconventional Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice d. postconventional ANSWER: a 319. According to Kohlberg, postconventional morality involves a. behavior based on self-interest. b. affirming self-defined ethical principles. c. strong concern for social approval. d. unquestioning obedience to authority figures. ANSWER: b 320. Mr. Lopez has not paid any income taxes for the last 10 years because his conscience will not allow him to support a government that does nothing to support gun control. Mr. Lopez's reasoning best illustrates Kohlberg's ________ stage. a. postconventional b. intuitionist c. preconventional d. conventional ANSWER: a 321. Upholding laws to gain approval is to ________ morality as acting on self-defined ethical principles is to ________ morality. a. conventional; postconventional b. preconventional; postconventional c. conventional; preconventional d. preconventional; conventional ANSWER: d 322. Critics have noted that Kohlberg's theory of moral development is biased against ________ societies. a. industrial b. ethnically diverse c. agricultural d. collectivist ANSWER: d 323. Kohlberg's theory of moral reasoning has been criticized for emphasizing postconventional reasoning among people from large ________ societies. a. collectivist b. formal operational c. concrete operational d. individualist ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 324. The fact that women tend to emphasize care for others in need over what would be considered "fair" suggests that Kohlberg's theory is a. male-focused. b. culturally limited. c. female-centered. d. focused on collectivist societies. ANSWER: a 325. Jonathan Haidt's intuitionist perspective highlights the impact of automatic gut-level feelings on a. intimacy. b. role confusion. c. moral judgments. d. social identity. ANSWER: c 326. Psychologist Jonathan Haidt has described our moral intuitions as a. formal operations. b. a pruning process. c. quick gut feelings. d. postconventional judgments. ANSWER: c 327. Piaget and Kohlberg believed that most moral action resulted from moral reasoning. More recent research by Haidt suggests that much of our moral action occurs as a result of a. cognitive empathy. b. deliberate, conscious thinking. c. unconscious, automatic thinking. d. moral intuition. ANSWER: c 328. People's desire to punish wrongdoing is often driven mostly by automatic emotional reactions rather than by deliberate conscious calculations that punishment will deter crime and promote justice. This most clearly supports the ________ perspective on morality. a. psychosocial b. intuitionist c. postconventional d. concrete operational ANSWER: b 329. Pushing one large stranger onto the tracks of a trolley car to force the trolley to stop, which will save five people, is generally judged as less morally acceptable than choosing to throw a switch that kills one person but ScholarFriends.com saves five people. This best illustrates that moral judgments may reflect Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice a. postconventional reasoning. b. gut-level intuitions. c. social identity. d. formal operational thought. ANSWER: b 330. Many people would find it more morally repulsive to kill someone by thrusting a knife into his or her body than by shooting him or her with a gun from a distance. This is best explained in terms of a. Erikson's psychosocial perspective. b. Piaget's cognitive development perspective. c. Haidt's intuitionist perspective. d. Kohlberg's moral development perspective. ANSWER: c 331. In service-learning programs where teens have tutored, cleaned up their neighborhoods, or assisted older adults, the teens have experienced a. a decreased sense of peer approval. b. increased school absenteeism. c. a decreased sense of competence. d. an increased desire to serve. ANSWER: d 332. Vineet is able to delay gratification. Based on what you have learned about moral action from the text, which of the following is NOT likely to be associated with Vineet? a. He is likely to be socially responsible. b. He is likely to be academically successful. c. He is likely to experience reduced competence. d. He is likely to be productive. ANSWER: c 333. Walter Mischel gave preschoolers a choice between one marshmallow now and two marshmallows when he returned a few minutes later. Children who chose to wait for two marshmallows demonstrated a. a pruning process. b. formal operational thinking. c. delay of gratification. d. postconventional morality. ANSWER: c 334. Delaying gratification fosters ________, and a future time perspective promotes ________. a. maturation; basic trust b. preconventional morality; autonomy ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice c. flourishing; goal striving d. individualism; initiative ANSWER: c 335. According to Erikson, each developmental stage has its own a. psychosocial task. b. moral task. c. cognitive task. d. psychosexual task. ANSWER: a 336. According to Erikson, trust is to infancy as identity is to a. childhood. b. adolescence. c. young adulthood. d. late adulthood. ANSWER: b 337. According to Erikson, achieving a sense of identity is the special task of the a. toddler. b. preschooler. c. elementary schoolchild. d. adolescent. ANSWER: d 338. According to Erikson, teens who suffer role confusion have not yet a. experienced a sense of basic trust. b. achieved a sense of autonomy. c. striven for a sense of competence. d. solidified a sense of identity. ANSWER: d 339. Natasha does not know what she wants to do with her life. She has worked at a variety of jobs but does not feel that any are right for her. According to Erikson, Natasha best illustrates a. a pruning process. b. preconventional morality. c. role confusion. d. delay of gratification. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com 340. Which psychologist most clearly emphasized that adolescents often explore different roles in different Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice situations as part of the process of forming an identity? a. Jonathan Haidt b. Lawrence Kohlberg c. Erik Erikson d. Jean Piaget ANSWER: c 341. Our sense of self defines our a. moral intuitions. b. temperament. c. egocentrism. d. identity. ANSWER: d 342. The sense of who we are makes up our a. identity. b. social image. c. social identity. d. self-concept. ANSWER: a 343. Erikson would have suggested that adolescents can most effectively develop a sense of identity by a. seeking a lifelong romantic relationship. b. severing the emotional ties between themselves and their childhood friends. c. investigating whether various occupational and social roles fit well with their interests. d. adopting whatever values and expectations their parents recommend. ANSWER: c 344. Fifteen-year-old Mabel does not agree with some of her friends' values but does not totally accept her parents' values. According to Erikson, her confusion about what she really wants and values in life suggests that Mabel is struggling with the issue of a. autonomy. b. identity. c. initiative. d. integrity. ANSWER: b 345. The "we" aspect of our self-concept that comes from our group membership is our a. moral intuition. b. role confusion. ScholarFriends.com c. social identity. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice d. preconventional morality. ANSWER: c 346. Prapti, a student from India, is well aware of her distinctive status as an international student at her university in the United States. This best illustrates a sense of a. stagnation. b. postconventional morality. c. social identity. d. menarche. ANSWER: c 347. An awareness of your distinctive status as traveler in a country far from your homeland best illustrates a sense of a. stagnation. b. postconventional morality. c. social identity. d. menarche. ANSWER: c 348. Erikson suggested that adolescents who simply take on their parents' values and expectations have failed to work on a. developing a sense of basic trust. b. delaying gratification. c. achieving a conventional morality. d. refining their sense of identity. ANSWER: d 349. In his first year of high school, Roland joined the debate club and quickly adopted the views and values of its members. He never bothered to learn about other students with different interests. As such, Roland did not go through a period associated with the formation of a. an identity. b. an initiative. c. romantic relationships. d. future goals. ANSWER: a 350. Which of the following cultures teach adolescents who they are? a. collectivist b. individualist c. both collectivist and individualist d. neither collectivist nor individualist ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 351. Adolescents' search for identity is especially likely to be prolonged well into their late teens in cultures that value a. conventional morality. b. individualism. c. basic trust. d. conformity. ANSWER: b 352. Which of the following best describes adolescent self-esteem? a. It rises through the early teen years and falls during the late teens and twenties. b. It falls through the early teen years and rises during the late teens and twenties. c. It rises through the early teen years and rises during the late teens and twenties. d. It falls through the early teen years and falls during the late teens and twenties. ANSWER: b 353. Craig is in his early teen years. It is most likely that he will experience a. an increase in self-esteem. b. a decline in self-esteem. c. an increase in intelligence. d. a decrease in intelligence. ANSWER: b 354. The use of social media has been associated with an increase in a. teen depression. b. teen suicide rates. c. both teen depression and suicide rates. d. neither teen depression nor suicide rates. ANSWER: c 355. During late adolescence and early adulthood, people show a(n) ________ in agreeableness and a(n) ________ in emotional stability. a. decrease; increase b. increase; decrease c. decrease; decrease d. increase; increase ANSWER: d 356. Erikson suggested that the adolescent search for identity is followed by a developing capacity for a. competence. b. intimacy. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice c. autonomy. d. trust. ANSWER: b 357. Vicki, who is 18 years old, has a clear and comfortable sense of self. Regarding her adolescent loving relationships, it is likely that Vicki a. will not be able to form a romantic relationship. b. is ready to form a close relationship. c. will experience only superficial relationships. d. will experience multiple romantic relationships. ANSWER: b 358. Which of the following is a benefit of adolescent close relationships? a. They provide an opportunity for sexual exploration. b. They aid adolescents in the development of identity. c. There is no benefit of romantic relationships during adolescence. d. For most of us, they are a source of great pleasure. ANSWER: d 359. Adolescence is typically a time of a. diminishing parental influence and diminishing peer influence. b. growing parental influence and growing peer influence. c. diminishing parental influence and growing peer influence. d. growing parental influence and diminishing peer influence. ANSWER: c 360. Although Minakshi didn't care for the taste of oysters, she began eating it when she saw that her classmates were doing so. Her behavior best illustrates the importance of a. conservation. b. role confusion. c. a pruning process. d. peer influence. ANSWER: d 361. The selection effect refers to the adolescent tendency to seek out friends who a. have values that are similar to those of their parents. b. are smarter and will help them with their homework. c. have similar attitudes, interests, and traits. d. have attitudes that are very different from theirs. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 362. Teens who smoke typically have friends who offer cigarettes. To avoid overestimating the impact of peer pressure on teen's smoking habits, it would make most sense to consider the importance of a. a selection effect. b. a pruning process. c. stranger anxiety. d. brain neuroplasticity. ANSWER: a 363. Christine has noticed that many of her teen daughters' friends are very similar to her daughter in terms of dress style and interests. These similarities may be because of a. a selection effect. b. role confusion. c. their similar temperaments. d. their similar culture. ANSWER: a 364. Compared with disagreements between parents and adolescent sons, the disagreements between parents and adolescent daughters are more likely to center on issues such as a. personal hygiene. b. dating and friendships. c. household chores. d. illegal drug use. ANSWER: b 365. Research indicates that the high school girls who had the most affectionate relationships with their mothers have also tended to a. enjoy the most intimate relationships with girlfriends. b. enjoy somewhat less intimate relationships with girlfriends. c. take longer than normal to establish their own independence and separate identity. d. have difficulty forming intimate relationships with boys. ANSWER: a 366. Which of the following is NOT an indicator that adolescents can be considered herd animals? a. They tend to talk more like their peers than their parents. b. They tend to dress more like their peers than their parents. c. They prefer social media photos that have received many likes. d. They tend to act more like their parents than their peers. ANSWER: d 367. Tracey has experienced severe bullying by her peers. Which of the following is true regarding Tracey? a. She is likely to experience poor physicalScholarFriends.com health. b. She is likely to experience greater psychological distress. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice c. She is likely to experience poor physical health and greater psychological distress. d. She is not likely to experience poor physical health or psychological distress. ANSWER: c 368. As noted in the text, a person who has been abused as a child may become abusive as a parent. This best illustrates the importance of a. individualism. b. temperament. c. parenting. d. postconventional morality. ANSWER: c 369. Adolescents are most likely to be influenced by their parents with respect to ________, and they are most likely to be influenced by their peers with respect to ________. a. language accents; college choices b. dating practices; religious faith c. bedtime preferences; political views d. faith; clothing preferences ANSWER: d 370. Children raised in the same family are not especially likely to have similar personalities. This most clearly implies that we should be cautious about attributing personality to a. role confusion. b. parental influences. c. temperament. d. peer influences. ANSWER: b 371. Seth and Logan are siblings being raised in the same family. However, they have very different personalities. This indicates that in personality development a. genetics play a major role. b. parenting style plays a major role. c. peers play a larger role than parents. d. parents play a larger role than peers. ANSWER: a 372. One study followed 3000 Swedish children with at least one biological parent who had depression. Compared to their not-adopted siblings, those raised by an adoptive family were about ________ percent less likely to develop depression. a. 20 b. 40 ScholarFriends.com c. 60 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice d. 80 ANSWER: a 373. Children in adoptive homes are ________ likely to experience parental neglect and abuse. They have typically grown up to be ________ self-giving. a. more; less b. more; more c. less; less d. less; more ANSWER: d 374. An elaborate initiation used to celebrate a person's emergence into adulthood is an example of a a. postconventional morality. b. role confusion. c. pruning process. d. rite of passage. ANSWER: d 375. A rite of passage is defined as a(n) a. moral intuition. b. formal operational stage. c. initiation ceremony. d. sense of basic trust. ANSWER: c 376. Amelia is sexually mature and has assumed adult responsibilities and status. This transition might be celebrated by a. the ability to be intimate with another person. b. puberty. c. assumption of a social identity. d. a public rite of passage. ANSWER: d 377. Which of the following is true of adolescence in contemporary Western societies, as compared with previous centuries? a. It begins earlier in life and ends earlier in life. b. It begins later in life and ends earlier in life. c. It begins earlier in life and ends later in life. d. It begins later in life and ends later in life. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com

378. Kayla is 17 years old. Compared with previous generations of adolescents, she is LESS likely to Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice a. have a paying job. b. live at home. c. go to college. d. be in a romantic relationship. ANSWER: a 379. In the early twenty-first century, ________ of 30-year-old women and ________ of men had finished school, left home, were financially independent, married, and had a child. a. three-quarters; two-thirds b. two-thirds; three-quarters c. one-third; fewer than half d. fewer than half; one-third ANSWER: d 380. A period from about age 18 to the mid-twenties when many in Western cultures have not yet achieved full independence as adults is called a. puberty. b. a rite of passage. c. emerging adulthood. d. the formal operational stage. ANSWER: c 381. Martin, a single 22-year-old, has moved back into his parents' house after graduating from university so that he can afford to go to graduate school to become a lawyer. His situation best illustrates a life phase called a. empty nest syndrome. b. a rite of passage. c. a midlife crisis. d. emerging adulthood. ANSWER: d 382. Belinda is 29 years old. She recently graduated from college and now has a full-time job and lives independently. She is in the ________ years. a. emerging adulthood b. early adulthood c. middle adulthood d. late adulthood ANSWER: b 383. Scott is 40 years old and works as an advertising consultant. He is married with two children. He is in the ________ years. a. emerging adulthood ScholarFriends.com b. early adulthood Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice c. middle adulthood d. late adulthood ANSWER: c 384. Physical abilities such as muscular strength, reaction time, sensory keenness, and cardiac output reach their peak during a. late childhood. b. early adulthood. c. puberty. d. middle adulthood. ANSWER: b 385. Menopause refers to the a. cessation of menstruation. b. loss of male sexual potency. c. irregular timing of menstrual periods. d. loss of sexual interest in late adulthood. ANSWER: a 386. Minerva is 53 years old and is experiencing the end of her menstrual cycle, which is referred to as a. the social clock. b. menopause. c. neurogenesis. d. neuroplasticity. ANSWER: b 387. As men advance through middle adulthood, they experience a gradual decline in a. testosterone level. b. sperm count. c. ejaculation speed. d. all of these things. ANSWER: d 388. With the onset of old age, less light reaches the light sensitive inner portion of the eye known as the a. cornea. b. retina. c. pupil. d. lens. ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com 389. George is a 70-year-old retired accountant. In contrast to when he was 30, he now probably Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice a. needs more light when reading. b. is more susceptible to catching the flu. c. has significantly fewer neural connections. d. has all of these problems. ANSWER: a 390. In late adulthood, Mr. Bart has become increasingly likely to make socially impolite remarks about other people's appearance or mannerisms. His blunt comments are most likely to indicate late life shrinkage of the ________ lobes. a. temporal b. occipital c. parietal d. frontal ANSWER: d 391. Juanita is 75 years old and hasn't seen her granddaughter, Maria, in a few months. When Maria came to visit, Juanita asked her "What's wrong with your hair?" This bluntness may be related to a. hippocampal degeneration. b. blood-brain barrier. c. frontal lobe shrinkage. d. neuroplasticity. ANSWER: c 392. The aging brain partly compensates for a loss of brain cells by recruiting and reorganizing existing neural networks. This best illustrates a. neurogenesis. b. terminal decline. c. neuroplasticity. d. telomere wearing down. ANSWER: c 393. Rufino and Phoebe, who are both in late adulthood, are celebrating their 50th anniversary. Which of the following would NOT be an accurate description of their sexual activity? a. It will be satisfying. b. It will become less frequent. c. George, but not Jenny, will feel less sexually satisfied. d. Both Rufino and Phoebe will experience less sexual desire. ANSWER: c 394. Most 20-year-olds outperform most 70-year-olds on video games because of age-related differences in a. menopause. ScholarFriends.com b. empty nest syndrome. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice c. immune system strength. d. information-processing speed. ANSWER: d 395. Sedentary older adults randomly assigned to aerobic exercise programs exhibit a. reduced risk of significant cognitive decline. b. increased risk of wearing down of telomeres. c. reduced risk of neurogenesis. d. increased risk of upper respiratory flu. ANSWER: a 396. Daniel engages in physical exercise regularly. Which of the following is NOT a benefit he is likely to experience? a. increased brain shrinkage b. increased blood flow to the brain c. new neural connections d. enhanced physical health ANSWER: a 397. Physical exercise appears to stimulate the development of new brain cells, referred to as a. telemetry. b. menopause. c. neuroplasticity. d. neurogenesis. ANSWER: d 398. Physical exercise in later life stimulates ________, which helps explain the enhanced memory of older adults who exercise. a. a reduction of myelin b. the wearing down of telomeres c. the process of neurogenesis d. reduced neuroplasticity ANSWER: c 399. With age, the ________, which protect the ends of chromosomes, wear down. a. immune system antibodies b. menopause c. distance perception d. telomeres ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 400. Physical exercise helps maintain the telomeres that ________ and appear to slow the progression of Alzheimer's disease. a. are part of the blood-brain barrier b. are neuroplastic neural networks c. improve neurogenesis d. protect the ends of chromosomes ANSWER: d 401. Beverly is 70 years old and exercises regularly. Her physician commends her for her efforts and explains how regular exercise can help maintain telomeres, which can actually slow the progression of a. cognitive decline. b. Parkinson's disease. c. arthritis. d. Alzheimer's disease. ANSWER: d 402. A wearing down of telomeres is accelerated by a. aerobic exercise. b. sexual intercourse. c. neurogenesis. d. obesity. ANSWER: d 403. Virginia is in late adulthood. What can be expected regarding her health? a. Her immune system strengthens. b. She is more likely to catch the common cold. c. She is more likely to catch the flu each year. d. She is more likely to develop cancer. ANSWER: d 404. As Margaret ages in late adulthood, which of the following is NOT expected to occur? a. reduced muscle strength b. reduced reaction time c. reduced stamina d. reduced health risks ANSWER: d 405. Over the past two years, Mrs. Eudy, who is 81 years old, has been undergoing radiation treatment for ovarian cancer. She was at higher risk for cancer because of a. slower neural processing. b. a weakening immune system. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice c. the brain's neuroplasticity. d. neurogenesis. ANSWER: b 406. Older people are NOT increasingly susceptible to a. COVID-19. b. terminal decline. c. common cold viruses. d. accident risks. ANSWER: c 407. Rufino and Phoebe, who are both in late adulthood, are celebrating their 50th anniversary. Which of the following would NOT be an accurate description of their sexual activity? a. It will be satisfying. b. It will become less frequent. c. George, but not Jenny, will feel less sexually satisfied. d. Both Rufino and Phoebe will experience less sexual desire. ANSWER: c 408. When asked to recall the one or two most important events over the last half-century, older adults tend to name events that occurred when they were in their a. preadolescent years. b. teens or twenties. c. thirties or forties. d. fifties and sixties. ANSWER: b 409. When adults of varying ages were tested for their memory of a recently learned list of 24 words, the older adults demonstrated a. no decline in either recall or recognition. b. a decline in recognition but not in recall. c. a decline in recognition and an even greater decline in recall. d. a similar level of decline in both recognition and recall. ANSWER: c 410. On which of the following tasks is a 20-year-old most likely to outperform a 70-year-old? a. recalling previously presented nonsense syllables b. recognizing previously presented foreign language words c. recalling previously presented names of cities d. recognizing previously presented names of fruits and vegetables ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 411. In a test of recall, people watched video clips as strangers said their names, using a common format. Even after a second and third replay of the introductions with more personal information, ________ remembered more names than ________. a. older adults; younger adults b. adolescents; younger adults c. younger adults; adolescents d. younger adults; older adults ANSWER: d 412. Which of the following people is more likely to experience tip-of-the-tongue forgetting? a. Stacey, who is 11 years old b. Thomas, who is 20 years old c. Mark, who is 30 years old d. Margaret, who is 60 years old ANSWER: d 413. The terminal decline phenomenon involves a decrease in mental ability that accompanies the approach of a. menopause. b. retirement. c. death. d. a midlife crisis. ANSWER: c 414. Terrance has cancer and is not expected to live for more than a few more weeks. As death approaches, his cognition is declining at a rapid pace. This near-death drop is called a. neuroplasticity. b. terminal decline. c. neurogenesis. d. the social clock. ANSWER: b 415. Vivek plays Brain Age daily because he believes that it will improve his cognition and mental performance. Recent research has found that brain-exercise programs such as Brain Age a. can be expected to improve mental performance but only for those in middle adulthood. b. can be expected to improve mental performance but only for those in late adulthood. c. can be expected to improve mental performance but only for those in emerging adulthood. d. improved performance on closely related tasks but not on unrelated tasks. ANSWER: d 416. Erik Erikson suggested that a major task of adulthood was to develop a sense of contributing to the world by being productive. According to Erikson, those who do this effectively demonstrate ScholarFriends.com a. conservation. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice b. generativity. c. accommodation. d. moral intuition. ANSWER: b 417. Thelma is a social worker and feels that she is performing a useful and vital role in society. Erik Erikson would have suggested that Thelma experiences a sense of a. neurogenesis. b. autonomy. c. generativity. d. neuroplasticity. ANSWER: c 418. According to Freud, a healthy adult is one who a. can love and work. b. forms close relationships. c. is productive. d. supports future generations. ANSWER: a 419. Professor Rowley tells his class that humans pair-bond because parents who cooperated to nurture their children to maturity were more likely to have their gene-carrying children survive and reproduce. The professor's suggestion best illustrates a(n) ________ perspective. a. longitudinal b. cross-sectional c. neurological d. evolutionary ANSWER: d 420. Josiah met Emma when they stood next to each other on a line to get coffee. This led to the beginning of a relationship that resulted in marriage. This best illustrates that the directions in which our lives develop are influenced by a. neuroplasticity. b. terminal decline. c. neurogenesis. d. chance events. ANSWER: d 421. In the process of getting to know each other, Lucinda and Leroy share intimate information about their lives. As a result, they are likely to develop a satisfying and enduring romantic relationship. This best illustrates the value of ScholarFriends.com a. generativity. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice b. the social clock. c. self-disclosure. d. chance encounters. ANSWER: c 422. Which couple's marriage is most likely to last? a. Ami and Brad, who met in high school and married right after graduation b. Ciara and David, who met in their first college class and married the following year c. Stephanie and Jon, who were both college graduates, professionals, and in their late twenties when they married d. Brenda and Erik, who were introduced by friends while Brenda was in college and Erik was working in a restaurant ANSWER: c 423. Compared with their counterparts of 70 years ago, men in Western countries today are marrying a. at a younger age and women in Western countries are marrying at an older age. b. at an older age and women in Western countries are marrying at a younger age. c. at an older age and women in Western countries are marrying at an older age. d. at a younger age and women in Western countries are marrying at a younger age. ANSWER: c 424. After living together for a year, Carla and Jake have decided to become engaged and plan their marriage. Research most strongly suggests that a. they have more positive attitudes toward the institution of marriage than the average couple. b. their marriage will have a higher-than-average probability of being successful. c. most of their U.S. college friends and acquaintances have viewed their living together negatively. d. their future marriage will have a greater chance of ending in divorce. ANSWER: d 425. Jack and Jill have been married for 20 years. Which of the following is NOT likely to be associated with their marriage? a. increased happiness b. increased sexual satisfaction c. increased income d. decreased mental health ANSWER: d 426. Research has found that a long marriage is a predictor of all of the following EXCEPT a. increased happiness. b. increased sexual satisfaction. c. increased income. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice d. decreased physical health. ANSWER: d 427. When children grow up and leave home, parents most frequently report feeling a. depressed. b. bored. c. happy. d. anxious. ANSWER: c 428. George and Karen's last child is about to leave home to go to college. Once he has left, George and Karen will experience an empty nest, which is likely to bring a. depression. b. happiness. c. anxiousness. d. boredom. ANSWER: b 429. Which of the following is a predictor of work happiness? a. having a career that matches your interests b. having a career that has flexible working hours c. having a career that has a high salary d. having a career that requires frequent travel ANSWER: a 430. Adolescents ask, "Who am I as an individual?" When adults are asked "Who are you?" their answer is related to a large extent to their a. work. b. hobbies. c. music preferences. d. family. ANSWER: a 431. The culturally preferred time to leave home, marry, have children, and retire is known as a. the social clock. b. nonnormative transitions. c. generativity. d. consistent cultural expectations. ANSWER: a 432. The age at which people are expected to leave home, get a job, and marry has changed dramatically in ScholarFriends.com Wallonia over the past 50 years. Developmentalists would say that the country's ________ has been altered. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice a. social clock b. self-disclosure c. maturation cycle d. family calendar ANSWER: a 433. The once-rigid sequence of the social clock has loosened. For example, ________ can have lasting significance in how our lives turn out. a. chance events b. biochemical structures c. neural upsets d. telomeres ANSWER: a 434. People typically experience an increasing sense of identity, confidence, and self-esteem a. from the early to mid-teen years. b. from the mid-teen years to midlife. c. from middle adulthood through the very final weeks prior to death. d. during all of these periods. ANSWER: b 435. Which of the following is NOT true regarding well-being in late adulthood? a. Older adults experience less attachment anxiety than younger adults. b. Older adults experience increased cognitive functioning compared with younger adults. c. Older adults experience less stress and anger than younger adults. d. Older adults are more trusting, more helpful, and more generous than younger adults. ANSWER: b 436. Compared with teens and young adults, older adults experience ________ problems in their relationships and ________ attachment anxiety. a. more; less b. fewer; more c. more; more d. fewer; less ANSWER: d 437. As people progress into late adulthood, they experience ________ emotional control and their negative feelings ________. a. worse; decline b. better; increase ScholarFriends.com c. worse; increase Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice d. better; decline ANSWER: d 438. Andié is an older adult and has noticed that after midlife she experienced less attachment anxiety, stress, and anger. This may be the case because older adults a. experience a decline in emotional control. b. experience more problems in her relationships. c. become more trusting, more helpful, and more generous. d. are focused on their identity and self-esteem. ANSWER: c 439. Which of the following people will forget their feelings associated with their experience the fastest? a. Jane, who was bitten by a dog b. Brad, who was just married c. Brenda, who just gave birth d. Sally, who just graduated from college ANSWER: a 440. A Gallup poll of 952,739 people in 150 countries to rate their lives on a ladder from 0 to 10. What was their finding? a. Older adults had a stronger sense of identity. b. Self-esteem decreased between adolescence and midlife. c. Psychological well-being decreased in over-65-year-olds. d. Age gave no clue to life satisfaction. ANSWER: d 441. Alonza has a terminal illness and has been given a short period of time to live. Which of the following best describes how she feels? a. She is likely to be more positive. b. She is likely to be angry. c. She is likely to be in denial. d. She is likely to be extremely sad. ANSWER: a 442. During the time following the death of a loved one a. those who express the strongest grief immediately do not purge their grief more quickly. b. those who talk frequently with others are unusually likely to prolong their own feelings of depression. c. grieving men are at less risk for ill health than are grieving women. d. both men and women go through predictable stages of denial followed by anger. ANSWER: a ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 443. The most difficult separation a person experiences is the death of a a. sibling. b. grandparent. c. parent. d. partner. ANSWER: d 444. According to Erikson, adolescence is to identity as late adulthood is to a. integrity. b. autonomy. c. generativity. d. intimacy. ANSWER: a 445. Older adults who feel satisfied when reflecting on their lives demonstrate what Erikson called a sense of a. neuroplasticity. b. maturity. c. integrity. d. resilience. ANSWER: c 446. Clay is 86 years old and feels that his life has been meaningful and worthwhile. According to Erikson, Clay is demonstrating a. despair. b. generativity. c. stagnation. d. integrity. ANSWER: d 447. Which of the following is NOT a misperception about the experience of death? a. There are stages of grieving. b. Therapy is needed after the death of a loved one. c. Experiencing death is scary. d. We will all experience death. ANSWER: d 448. George has bone cancer and has been given three months to live. Which of the following best describes how he feels? a. He is likely to be more positive. b. He is likely to be angry. ScholarFriends.com c. He is likely to be in denial. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice d. He is likely to be extremely sad. ANSWER: a

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 1. A century ago, it was more common to dress baby girls in blue and baby boys in pink. This tells us that cultural norms relating to gender a. are subject to children's preferences. b. vary and change over time. c. depend on our definitions of gender and sex. d. are consistent across place and time. ANSWER: b 2. Which of the following terms refers to the biologically influenced characteristics by which people define male, female, and intersex? a. gender b. transgender c. sex d. androgyny ANSWER: c 3. Unlike the concept of gender, the definition of people's sex is based only on a. cultural expectations. b. biologically influenced characteristics. c. behavioral characteristics. d. social relationships. ANSWER: b 4. Which of the following terms refers to the behavioral characteristics that people associate with boy, girl, man, and woman? a. schema b. gender c. sexual orientation d. Y chromosome ANSWER: b 5. At conception, Monica's parents both contributed an X chromosome, which defined her ________. Her life experiences then helped shape her behavioral characteristics, which define her ________. a. primary sex characteristics: secondary sex characteristics b. gender schema; sexual orientation c. intersex condition; secondary sex characteristics d. sex; gender ANSWER: d 6. In contrast to sex, which is solely defined by ________ characteristics, the definition of gender involves ________ characteristics. ScholarFriends.com a. genital; chromosomal Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice b. primary sex; secondary sex c. biologically influenced; behavioral d. hormonal; genital ANSWER: c 7. ________ refers to people who possess male and female biological sexual characteristics at birth. a. Sexual orientation b. Gender identity c. Intersex d. Gender schema ANSWER: c 8. People who are intersex most clearly differ from non-intersex people in the development of their a. sexual orientation. b. gender identity. c. sexual characteristics. d. gender schemas. ANSWER: c 9. Most of us receive ________ chromosome(s) from our mother and ________ chromosome(s) from our father. a. 23; 23 b. 45; 1 c. 10; 35 d. 1; 45 ANSWER: a 10. ________ of our chromosomes are considered unisex. a. 23 b. 30 c. 45 d. 1 ANSWER: c 11. Our evolutionary ancestors needed to migrate long distances, and today, men and women run ultralongdistance races with similar finishing times. This illustrates the principle that a. gender differences vary across time and place. b. men and women show few differences in general athletic ability. c. we are in most ways identical to our evolutionary ancestors. d. men's and women's similar biology helped our ancestors face similar adaptive challenges. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 12. In considering gender differences, you should remember that a. no gender difference is common to all human cultures. b. gender similarities are much greater than gender differences. c. genetic differences between the genders do not contribute to gender differences in behavior. d. all of these answers are true. ANSWER: b 13. Compared with the average female, the average male is ________ spelling and reading. a. less skilled at b. more self-conscious about c. better at d. similarly skilled at ANSWER: a 14. Compared with the average male, the average female a. enters puberty later. b. has a shorter life expectancy. c. smiles and cries more. d. has trouble detecting faint odors. ANSWER: c 15. Compared with the average male, the average female experiences a greater risk of a. autism spectrum disorder. b. color-deficient vision. c. eating disorders. d. antisocial personality disorder. ANSWER: c 16. Compared with the average male, the average female experiences a greater risk of a. an eating disorder. b. depression. c. anxiety. d. all of these disorders. ANSWER: d 17. Compared with the average female, the average male a. enters puberty later. b. has a longer life expectancy. c. smiles more. ScholarFriends.com d. is good at detecting faint odors. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 18. Compared with the average female, the average male is ________ likely to suffer depression and is ________ likely to die by suicide. a. more; more b. less; less c. more; less d. less; more ANSWER: d 19. Omar and Rachel are friends who attend the same elementary school. Research on gender differences would lead one to suspect that Omar is ________ likely to develop depression and ________ likely to develop autism spectrum disorder than his friend, Rachel. a. more; less b. less; more c. more; more d. less; less ANSWER: b 20. Avila and Willy are both in their twenties. Gender research would most likely suggest that Willy is ________ likely to abuse tobacco products and ________ likely to develop an eating disorder than Avila. a. more; less b. less; more c. more; more d. less; less ANSWER: a 21. To a psychologist, aggression is defined as a. physical behavior intended to hurt someone. b. any behavior that harms someone, whether it is intentional or unintentional. c. any act intended to harm someone physically or emotionally. d. verbally insulting someone, whether intentional or unintentional. ANSWER: c 22. Which of the following people is most likely to behave aggressively? a. Marla, who is in her thirties and is a single parent b. Grace, who is in her late teens and has dropped out of high school c. Shelly, who is in her early twenties and is a college student d. Tom, who is in his thirties and works full time ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com

23. Of the following traits, males and females are most likely to differ in their levels of Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice a. happiness. b. intelligence. c. creativity. d. violent crime. ANSWER: d 24. Men worldwide are ________ likely than women to hunt, fight, and support war. In laboratory experiments, men have been ________ willing than women to blast people with what they believed was intense and prolonged noise. a. more; less b. less; more c. more; more d. less; less ANSWER: c 25. Which of the following would you most likely observe on extended visits to foreign countries? a. men and women earning approximately the same salaries b. more women than men holding elected offices c. more men than women involved in fistfights d. men and women taking equal responsibility for childcare ANSWER: c 26. Physical or verbal behavior intended to harm a person's social standing or relationship constitutes a. solitary confinement. b. bullying. c. social segregation. d. relational aggression. ANSWER: d 27. Simona tells all her friends that Noreen lies a lot, which is not true. Her behavior best illustrates a. gender typing. b. relational aggression. c. relational violence. d. prejudice. ANSWER: b 28. Christopher and Wendy are interviewing applicants for the job of office manager. During the interview, Christopher demonstrates self-confidence and independence, and maintains eye contact with the person being interviewed. Wendy makes less eye contact during the interview but is generally warm and welcoming. These differences demonstrate gender variations in a. social power. ScholarFriends.com b. aggression. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice c. intelligence. d. social connectedness. ANSWER: a 29. Worldwide, ________ people believe that men are better political leaders than women. a. 5 percent of b. nearly 10 percent of c. nearly 50 percent of d. most ANSWER: c 30. Valentina has decided to enter her town's race for mayor. She has very definite and strong opinions about what is best for the community. Alejandro is also running for mayor with similarly strong opinions. Between Valentina and Alejandro, who is likely to be seen as power-hungry? a. Valentina b. Alejandro c. neither Valentina nor Alejandro d. both Valentina and Alejandro ANSWER: a 31. On extended visits to foreign countries, you would be most likely to observe a. more men than women in political leadership positions. b. women earning the same amount of money as men. c. men and women equally involved in child care. d. men and women equally involved in violent crime. ANSWER: a 32. A power-hungry female politician is ________ likely to be perceived as aggressive than a power-hungry male politician. Among male and female politicians who seem power-hungry, women are ________ successful than men. a. less; less b. more; more c. less; more d. more; less ANSWER: d 33. Dr. Mathilda Wescon and Dr. Albert Reddy are orthopedic doctors. Considering the gender differences in compensation, one would expect that Dr. Reddy will earn roughly _____ more than Dr. Wescon each year. a. $10,000 b. $25,000 c. $70,000 ScholarFriends.com d. $80,000 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 34. Leander is most likely to be driven by ________ when it comes to career choice and the workplace. a. finances b. status c. reduced work hours d. overtime ANSWER: c 35. Maya works in construction, a traditionally male occupation. Like most women in such industries, her salary is ________ than that of her male colleagues. Nayeli, who teaches ecological science at a local university, submitted an application to fund her research. Like most female research grant applicants, she received ________ quality of researcher ratings from those who reviewed her application than did the average male applicant. a. higher; higher b. lower; lower c. higher; lower d. lower; higher ANSWER: b 36. In the past, mothers typically engaged in ________. Today's mothers typically engage in ________. a. a greater amount of child care than fathers; a lesser amount of child care than fathers b. a greater amount of child care than fathers; nearly twice as much child care as fathers c. nearly twice as much child care as fathers; nearly twice as much child care as fathers d. the same amount of child care as fathers; the same amount of child care as fathers ANSWER: c 37. The social norm that has most clearly contributed to gender bias in the workplace is the fact that a. men exercise a more democratic leadership style than women. b. men more readily apologize for being impolite than women. c. men place more emphasis on achievement and power than women. d. men more readily express support for others' opinions than women. ANSWER: c 38. With respect to their leadership style, men tend to be ________ directive and ________ democratic than women. a. more; more b. less; less c. more; less d. less; more ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 39. In interaction styles, men are LESS likely than women to a. express support. b. stare at others. c. interrupt others. d. apologize. ANSWER: a 40. In everyday behavior, men are LESS likely than women to a. smile at others. b. stare at others. c. interrupt others. d. initiate touching others. ANSWER: a 41. Olivia, Patsy, and Dominick are talking about work conditions at the local factory. Which of the following events is most likely to occur? a. Dominick interrupts Olivia. b. Olivia interrupts Patsy. c. Patsy interrupts Dominick. d. All of these events are equally likely to occur. ANSWER: a 42. Frank's teen son has asked him, "How do we know that the earth is not flat?" Frank proceeds to answer the question, even though he is not an expert in this area, rather than admit to his son that he isn't sure. This phenomenon, which is more common among males, is called a. relational aggression. b. interdependence. c. the male answer syndrome. d. androgyny. ANSWER: c 43. Russ, a carpenter, is having coffee with Bettina, a professional stock trader. He spends half an hour providing Bettina with an inaccurate description of how the stock market works, then offers his own critiques of the advice she has recently given her clients. This is an example of a. mansplaining. b. relational aggression. c. social power. d. androgyny. ANSWER: a 44. Large play groups are to _____ as small play groups are to _____. ScholarFriends.com a. independent; interdependent Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice b. interdependent; independent c. physical aggression; relational aggression d. relational aggression; physical aggression ANSWER: a 45. A lack of intimate discussion is to ________ as imitating social relationships is to ________. a. independent; interdependent b. interdependent; independent c. physical aggression; relational aggression d. relational aggression; physical aggression ANSWER: a 46. Girls typically play in ________ groups than do boys and, during their teens, girls spend ________ time with friends than do boys. a. larger; more b. smaller; less c. larger; less d. smaller; more ANSWER: d 47. Compared with boys, girls are more likely to play in ________ groups. a. small b. competitive c. mixed-age d. unsupervised ANSWER: a 48. Compared with women, men tend to use conversation to focus on a. exploring relationships. b. solving problems. c. obtaining feedback on their views. d. demonstrating empathy. ANSWER: b 49. In late adolescence, teen girls tend to spend _______ time than teen boys on social networking sites. As adults, when stressed, women are _______ likely than men to turn to others for support. a. less; less b. more; more c. less; more d. more; less ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 50. Bettina and Theo have been married for 10 years and have many of the same interests. However, they differ in how they want to satisfy their need to belong. Bettina most enjoys more intimate friendships, with conversations that explore relationships, whereas Theo most enjoys side-by-side activities and conversations that focus on problem solving. Their unique activity preferences best illustrate a difference in a. gender schemas. b. primary sex characteristics. c. social connectedness. d. secondary sex characteristics. ANSWER: c 51. When looking for someone to whom they can confide their personal worries, women usually turn to ________ and men usually turn to ________. a. men; men b. women; men c. women; women d. men; women ANSWER: c 52. The concept of tend and befriend describes a. men's tendency to turn to others for support. b. women's tendency to turn to others for support. c. the tendency of both men and women turn to others for support. d. the idea that turning to others for support is ineffective. ANSWER: b 53. Nora is highly stressed because of the strict deadlines she is facing at work, so she turns to her best friend Myra for support. Nora's behavior is referred to as a. relational aggression. b. a social norm. c. tend and befriend. d. gender bias. ANSWER: c 54. Women are more likely than men to a. stare at people who make them angry. b. interrupt others while they are talking. c. refuse to apologize when angry. d. tend and befriend as a way to cope with stress. ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com

55. Carlann and Chip both have highly stressful jobs. Research on gender similarities and differences suggests Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice that when they need to be comforted about their job concerns, Carlann is likely to turn to ________ and Chip is likely to turn to ________. a. men; men b. women; men c. women; women d. men; women ANSWER: c 56. By age 50, women become progressively ________ assertive and men become progressively ________ domineering. a. more; more b. less; less c. more; less d. less; more ANSWER: c 57. How does biology influence our gender psychology? a. genetically b. physiologically c. both genetically and physiologically d. neither genetically nor physiologically ANSWER: c 58. The sex chromosome found in both males and females is called the ________ chromosome. a. X b. Y c. bisexual d. asexual ANSWER: a 59. Males have ________ and females have ________. a. one X chromosome; one Y chromosome b. one Y chromosome; one X chromosome c. one X chromosome; two X chromosomes d. one Y chromosome; two Y chromosomes ANSWER: c 60. A mother's contribution to an offspring's two sex chromosomes is ________ chromosome and a father's contribution to an offspring's two sex chromosomes is ________ chromosome. a. a Y; either an X or a Y b. either an X or a Y; an X ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice c. an X; either an X or a Y d. either an X or a Y; a Y ANSWER: c 61. Jacob's birth-assigned sex is male, which means that his father contributed ________ during conception. a. an X chromosome b. a Y chromosome c. two X chromosomes d. two Y chromosomes ANSWER: b 62. Secretions of sex hormones during the fourth and fifth months of prenatal development tilt the fetal brain toward a. gender typing. b. secondary sex characteristics. c. gender schemas. d. male or female patterns. ANSWER: d 63. The most important androgen (male sex hormone) is a. menarche. b. estradiol. c. estrogen. d. testosterone. ANSWER: d 64. The birth-assigned sex of Eleanor's infant-to-be is male. Eleanor has researched how the fetus develops and so knows that about seven weeks after conception the Y chromosome triggers the testes to develop and to produce a. estrogen. b. testosterone. c. estradiol. d. menarche. ANSWER: b 65. Although Nate is genetically male, his testes were unusually small at birth. This condition most likely resulted from his body's insufficient production of ________ during his prenatal development. a. Y chromosomes b. gender schemas c. testosterone d. spermarche ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 66. Which of the following is (are) the main female sex hormone(s)? a. testosterone b. estrogens c. the X chromosome d. the Y chromosome ANSWER: b 67. Candice is a genetic female. Which of the following contributes to the development of her sex characteristics? a. testosterone b. estrogen c. the X chromosome d. the Y chromosome ANSWER: b 68. An example of a female sex hormone is a. testosterone. b. androgen. c. menarche. d. estradiol. ANSWER: d 69. The period of sexual maturation during which a person becomes capable of reproducing is called a. androgyny. b. puberty. c. gender typing. d. sexual orientation. ANSWER: b 70. Heather is 10 years old and is experiencing a surge of hormones that will trigger a period of rapid physical development. This period is called a. menarche. b. menopause. c. puberty. d. spermarche. ANSWER: c 71. Visible male-female differences begin to emerge a. during the 2-year period of rapid physical development associated with puberty. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice b. after the teen experiences parental conflict at home. c. during emerging adulthood, a few years after the completion of pubertal development. d. during prenatal development, prior to birth. ANSWER: a 72. The body structures that enable reproduction are the a. primary sex characteristics. b. secondary sex characteristics. c. gender schemas. d. adrenal glands. ANSWER: a 73. Which of the following is NOT considered a primary sex characteristic? a. ovaries b. testes c. external genitalia d. breasts ANSWER: d 74. For 11-year-old Marlene, puberty means that she will experience several physical changes, such as development of her ovaries and her first menstrual period. This best illustrates adolescent development of a. gender typing. b. primary sex characteristics. c. sexual orientation. d. secondary sex characteristics. ANSWER: b 75. During pubertal development, a surge of hormones triggers a variety of visible physical changes. For instance, the pituitary gland releases hormones that stimulate the adrenal glands. The adrenal glands then release hormones that stimulate all of the following in females, EXCEPT a. underarm hair growth. b. breast development. c. larynx enlargement. d. pubic hair growth. ANSWER: c 76. The first appearance of secondary sex characteristics is most likely to be associated with the onset of a. androgyny. b. gender identity. c. the X chromosome. ScholarFriends.com d. puberty. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 77. Which of the following is an example of a secondary sex characteristic? a. female ovaries b. male facial hair c. gender typing d. spermarche ANSWER: b 78. At age 13 Noble's voice deepened as his larynx enlarged. The larynx enlargement best illustrates a. spermarche. b. a primary sex characteristic. c. androgyny. d. a secondary sex characteristic. ANSWER: d 79. Primary sex characteristics are to ________ as secondary sex characteristics are to ________. a. male testes; adrenal glands b. female ovaries; deepened male voice c. male testes; female ovaries d. adrenal glands; underarm hair ANSWER: b 80. The term spermarche refers to the a. development of secondary sex characteristics. b. acquisition of gender identity. c. display of both masculine and feminine traits. d. first ejaculation. ANSWER: d 81. When Thor awakened, he realized that during that night's sleep he must have experienced his first ejaculation as a "wet dream." This most clearly represents a major landmark of a. menarche. b. androgyny. c. puberty. d. gender typing. ANSWER: c 82. The first ejaculation is to an adolescent boy as ________ is to an adolescent girl. a. secondary sex characteristics ScholarFriends.com b. gender typing Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice c. menarche d. gender identity ANSWER: c 83. Puberty is most closely related to the onset of a. androgyny. b. menarche. c. gender identity. d. gender typing. ANSWER: b 84. A person's first menstrual period is called a. a secondary sex characteristic. b. a refractory period. c. gender development. d. menarche. ANSWER: d 85. Scientists have discovered 250 genes that predict age at a. androgyny. b. menarche. c. gender identity. d. gender typing. ANSWER: b 86. Clarissa is a preteen whose primary and secondary sex characteristics are just beginning to develop. When can she expect to experience menarche? a. 9 to 11 years of age b. 10.5 to 11.5 years of age c. 10 years of age d. 11.5 to 13.5 years of age ANSWER: d 87. Girls who have experienced stress related to poverty, father absence, sexual abuse, insecure attachments, or a history of a mother's smoking during pregnancy tend to experience ________ earlier than average. a. gender identity b. androgyny c. gender typing d. menarche ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 88. Pretty's father left her mother just after Pretty was born. Asa result, it is more likely that Pretty will experience menarche a. later than average. b. at an early age. c. at the same time as most other girls. d. well after she reaches puberty. ANSWER: b 89. Diets laden with hormone-mimicking chemicals are suspected of contributing to an earlier experience of a. gender roles. b. gender identity. c. menarche. d. gender schemas. ANSWER: c 90. Childhood stresses, including those related to early puberty, can be offset by a. late menarche. b. early spermarche. c. a secure child-mother attachment. d. a father's presence during early childhood. ANSWER: c 91. People who are intersex differ from non-intersex people in their a. sexual orientation. b. gender identity. c. male and female chromosomes, hormones, and anatomy. d. gender schemas. ANSWER: c 92. During prenatal development, a genetically female newborn was exposed to unusually high levels of testosterone. As a result, she developed male-appearing genitals. The newborn most clearly showed signs of a. experiencing spermarche. b. having a bisexual orientation. c. having secondary sex characteristics. d. being intersex. ANSWER: d 93. A genetic male who was born with two or more X chromosomes as well as a Y chromosome, has small testes and is sterile has the condition known as a. Klinefelter syndrome. b. Turner syndrome. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice c. gender identity. d. androgyny. ANSWER: a 94. Norbert, a genetic male who was born with two X chromosomes and one Y chromosome, has small testes and is sterile. His condition is known as a. Klinefelter syndrome. b. Turner syndrome. c. Gonadal Dysgenesis. d. Androgen insensitivity syndrome. ANSWER: b 95. Genetic females who are born with only one X chromosome are said to have a condition known as a. Klinefelter syndrome. b. Turner syndrome. c. Gonadal Dysgenesis. d. Androgen insensitivity syndrome. ANSWER: b 96. Genevieve, a genetic female who was born with only one intact X chromosome, does not have menstrual periods and has not developed breasts. Her condition is known as a. Klinefelter syndrome. b. Turner syndrome. c. Gonadal Dysgenesis. d. Androgen insensitivity syndrome. ANSWER: b 97. Research has demonstrated that genetic females born with only one normal X chromosome may a. struggle with their gender identity. b. look forward to pubertal development. c. experience pubertal development earlier than their peers. d. feel conflicted regarding gender roles and expectations. ANSWER: a 98. Wayan is a genetic male who was born with two X chromosomes as well as a Y chromosome. He is likely to a. struggle with his gender identity. b. experience concern regarding pubertal development. c. miss the two-year rapid physical growth that occurs during puberty. d. adopt aspects of various gender roles. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 99. Today, most experts recommend that sex-reassignment surgery for ________ newborns be postponed until their naturally developing physical appearance and gender identity become clear. a. transgender b. intersex c. gender-typed d. asexual ANSWER: b 100. A role is defined as a. our sense of being male, female, neither, or some combination of male and female. b. the acquisition of a traditional masculine or feminine identity. c. a set of expectations about a social position that define how those in that position ought to behave. d. a set of expected behaviors, attitudes, and traits for men and for women. ANSWER: c 101. A gender role refers to a. a person's birth-assigned sex. b. a sense of being male, female, neither, or some combination of male and female. c. a set of expected behaviors, attitudes, and traits for men, women, and nonbinary people. d. the development of secondary sex characteristics. ANSWER: c 102. At the beginning of the twentieth century, only one country in the world granted women the right to vote. By 2015, that right existed in all countries. This best illustrates a dramatic shift in a. gender roles. b. sexual orientation. c. gender identity. d. secondary sex characteristics. ANSWER: a 103. Which of the following demonstrates a relatively recent shift in gender roles in the United States? a. Women have recently been given the right to vote in national elections. b. As compared with men, women earn higher college grades and more college degrees and show equal competence in science and math. c. Women are less likely to work outside the home today than they were in the past. d. Women typically work in fields to gather food while men herd livestock. ANSWER: b 104. Sexual aggression is defined as a. sexual desire expressed in an unusual way. b. any physical or verbal behavior of a sexual nature that is unwanted or intended to harm someone ScholarFriends.com physically or emotionally. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice c. a problem that consistently impairs sexual arousal or functioning. d. distress over infrequently or never experiencing orgasm. ANSWER: b 105. Which of the following is true about sexual aggression? a. It is more prevalent in underdeveloped countries. b. It can be expressed as sexual harassment or sexual assault. c. It.is more likely among older people. d. It is more likely among younger people. ANSWER: b 106. Making unwanted sexual advances, obscene remarks, or requests for sexual favors in the workplace, is the definition of a. sexual harassment. b. sexual assault. c. sexual aggression. d. sexual attitude. ANSWER: a 107. Helena is operations manager for a large manufacturing company. She has repeatedly received unwanted sexual advances and has been the target of obscene remarks at work. She is experiencing a. sexual harassment. b. sexual assault. c. sexual aggression. d. sexual attitude. ANSWER: a 108. Which of the following is NOT an example of sexual assault? a. unwanted touching b. attempted rape c. molestation d. unwanted sexual advances ANSWER: d 109. By one estimate, about how many women are killed each year by male family members in India and Pakistan for "dishonoring" their families by being a victim of sexual aggression? a. 500 b. 1000 c. 5000 d. 10,000 ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 110. The first significant studies of rape victim blaming were conducted in the a. 1950s. b. 1960s. c. 1970s. d. 1980s. ANSWER: c 111. According to the research, nearly ________ percent of rape victims are between the ages of 11 and 24. a. 30 b. 50 c. 70 d. 90 ANSWER: c 112. Which of the following strategies is NOT a recommendation for reducing sexual aggression? a. encouraging victims to report their experiences to authority figures and to share their experiences publicly b. educating people about violence-preventing bystander intervention strategies c. treating perpetrators of sexual aggression through psychotherapy d. empowering victims to take control of their situations and refuse to let perpetrators dominate them ANSWER: c 113. Considering oneself to be a female is to ________ as behaving in a manner to align with social expectations for females is to ________. a. gender identity; gender roles b. gender typing; gender roles c. gender roles; gender identity d. gender identity; gender typing ANSWER: a 114. Gender identity refers to a. a person's birth-assigned sex. b. our personal sense of being male, female, neither, or some combination of male and female. c. the set of expected behaviors, attitudes, and traits for men and for women. d. how masculine a boy is or how feminine a girl is. ANSWER: b 115. When 10-year-old Boney falls down, he does not cry because his parents have told him that boys do not cry. Boney's behavior best illustrates the importance of a. secondary sex characteristics. b. gender identity. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice c. testosterone. d. menarche. ANSWER: b 116. Our gender identity is ________ if it involves our personal sense of being male or female. a. primary b. nonbinary c. androgynous d. binary ANSWER: d 117. Mark identifies as male. This means that his gender identity is a. binary. b. secondary. c. primary. d. nonbinary. ANSWER: a 118. A gender identity that involves some combination of male and female or neither male nor female is referred to as a. binary. b. secondary. c. primary. d. nonbinary. ANSWER: d 119. Grace does not feel male or female. In fact, sometimes they feel as though they are some combination of male and female. This means that their gender identity is a. binary. b. secondary. c. primary. d. nonbinary. ANSWER: d 120. Social learning theory is the a. study of the evolution of behavior and the mind. b. study of how the structure and function of genes interact with our environment to influence behavior. c. study of the relative power and limits of genetic and environmental influences on behavior. d. theory that we learn social behavior by observing and imitating others and by being rewarded or punished. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 121. Gender typing refers to acquiring a. a sexual attraction toward members of the other gender. b. a sense of being male, female, neither, or some combination of male and female. c. a traditional masculine or feminine role. d. secondary sex characteristics. ANSWER: c 122. A boy who consistently exhibits traditionally masculine interests and behavior patterns demonstrates a. androgyny. b. spermarche. c. secondary sex characteristics. d. gender typing. ANSWER: d 123. Priscilla insists on wearing very feminine-looking outfits because she wants to be treated like a woman. This best illustrates the impact of a. the Y chromosome. b. androgyny. c. secondary sex characteristics. d. gender typing. ANSWER: d 124. Mr. Strapp encourages his son to play with cars and trucks but tells his daughter that she should be playing with dolls, not trucks. Mr. Strapp's contribution to the gender typing of his children would most likely be highlighted by a. Freudian psychology. b. social learning theory. c. the fertile females theory. d. evolutionary psychology. ANSWER: b 125. Those who prefer to express a blend of traditionally masculine and traditionally feminine psychological characteristics demonstrate a. a bisexual orientation. b. intersex. c. heterosexuality. d. androgyny. ANSWER: d 126. Our ________ organize our experiences of male-female characteristics and help us think about our gender identity. ScholarFriends.com a. gender types Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice b. gender expressions c. gender roles d. gender schemas ANSWER: d 127. Children tend to organize their worlds into male and female categories. This best illustrates their use of a. secondary sex characteristics. b. sexual orientation. c. gender schemas. d. relational aggression. ANSWER: c 128. Merial is getting ready to attend her friend's birthday party. She takes a frilly dress from the closet even though her mother has suggested that she wear the capri pants she just bought. Merial's preference for a dress is an example of a a. gender role. b. gender schema. c. gender type. d. gender identity. ANSWER: b 129. The belief that boys have shorter hair than girls is a a. gender role. b. gender schema. c. sexual orientation. d. secondary sex characteristic. ANSWER: b 130. The belief that boys are more independent than girls is a a. gender role. b. gender identity. c. gender schema. d. gender type. ANSWER: c 131. The belief that girls, but not boys, can wear skirts is a a. gender role. b. gender schema. c. sexual orientation. d. secondary sex characteristic. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 132. Categorizing baby clothing as either masculine-looking or feminine-looking best illustrates the functioning of a. androgyny. b. intersex. c. secondary sex characteristics. d. a gender schema. ANSWER: d 133. When his mother offered to jump rope with him, Andre complained, "I'm not going to play a girl's game!" Andre's reaction best illustrates the impact of a. gender typing. b. gender schemas. c. sexual orientation. d. secondary sex characteristics. ANSWER: b 134. Ray is now 2 years old and is learning how to talk. In terms of gender development, language development will a. allow Ray to communicate variations in gender identity. b. result in Ray labeling his world in terms of male or female. c. permit Ray to learn what are the acceptable behaviors associated with his gender. d. force Ray to take on a traditional male role. ANSWER: b 135. Gender stereotypes are most rigid around age a. 2. b. 3. c. 6. d. 10. ANSWER: c 136. Which of the following statements is true regarding gender expression? a. Young children cannot distinguish between typical male and female voices. b. The English language has classified people as he and she, although gender-neutral they is increasingly used. c. No language classifies people as masculine or feminine. d. At age 1, children are unable to distinguish different faces. ANSWER: b 137. Clothes, toys, books, media, and games can all be used to demonstrate a person's ScholarFriends.com a. gender role. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice b. gender expression. c. gender type. d. gender identity. ANSWER: b 138. A person whose gender corresponds with his or her birth sex is said to be a. cisgender. b. pansexual. c. transgender. d. nonbinary. ANSWER: a 139. Daveed was born a biological male and identifies as male. This means that he identifies as a. pansexual. b. cisgender. c. transgender. d. nonbinary. ANSWER: b 140. Those whose gender identity or expression differs from that associated with their birth-assigned sex are described as a. asexual. b. androgynous. c. transgender. d. bisexual. ANSWER: c 141. Milan's birth-assigned sex is male. However, she prefers feminine clothing as a way of expressing her strong sense of identity as a female. Milan could best be described as a. asexual. b. bisexual. c. transgender. d. pansexual. ANSWER: c 142. Research has shown, by using brain imaging techniques, that those who seek medical sex-reassignment have ________ when compared with those whose gender identity matches their birth-assigned sex. a. similar brain structures b. similar gender typing characteristics c. some different neural tracts ScholarFriends.com d. similar gender role expectations Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 143. Transgender people who experience profound distress as a result of being verbally harassed and discriminated against may receive a diagnosis of a. cisgender-typing. b. pansexuality. c. gender dysphoria. d. paraphilia. ANSWER: c 144. As a transgender person, Mischa has experienced verbal harassment, prejudice, and discrimination. As a result, her level of distress is so severe that she has received a diagnosis of a. cisgender-typing. b. gender dysphoria. c. pansexuality. d. paraphilia. ANSWER: b 145. Identifying as transgender ________ indicate a psychological disorder and ________ increase the risk of suicide among military veterans. a. does not; does not b. does; does not c. does; does d. does not; does ANSWER: d 146. Regina, who identifies as transgender, does not strictly identify as female. Instead, she feels as if she is some combination of male and female. This is common as roughly ________ percent of Americans who are considered transgender feel the same way. a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 50 ANSWER: c 147. Our sexuality can best be described as a. the direction of our sexual attractions, as reflected in our longings and fantasies. b. our thoughts, feelings, and actions related to our physical attraction to another. c. our attitudes toward both our own sexual attractions and those of others. d. the personal role that our physical attractions play in our life. ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 148. Those who are NOT sexually attracted to others are described as a. asexual. b. androgynous. c. transgender. d. intersex. ANSWER: a 149. Shirley has never felt sexually attracted to another person. She can best be described as a. bisexual. b. intersex. c. transgender. d. asexual. ANSWER: d 150. Which of the following is NOT actually a need? a. hunger b. thirst c. sex d. security ANSWER: c 151. Maurice is learning about how hormones affect development through the life span. He has learned that, for him, his hormones have influenced specific periods of development. Which of the following is NOT one of these periods? a. prenatal development b. childhood c. puberty d. adulthood ANSWER: b 152. For males, the main sex hormone is ________; for females, the main sex hormones are the ________. a. estradiol; estrogens b. testosterone; estrogens c. estradiol; testosterones d. estrogen, testosterones ANSWER: b 153. The sex hormone secreted in greater amounts by females than by males is a. estradiol. b. epinephrine. ScholarFriends.com c. HPV. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice d. serotonin. ANSWER: a 154. Arnold is going through puberty and is experiencing an increase in sexual desire. This is most likely a result of a. large hormonal increases. b. social expectations. c. media influences on adolescent behavior. d. a lack of parental supervision. ANSWER: a 155. In most nonhuman mammals, female sexual receptivity is greatest when a. testosterone levels are lowest. b. testosterone levels are highest. c. estrogen levels are lowest. d. estrogen levels are highest. ANSWER: d 156. By injecting female animals with estrogens, researchers can increase the animals' a. aversion for sexual behavior. b. refractory period. c. sexual interest. d. habituation. ANSWER: c 157. Male hamsters that have their testes surgically removed ________ much of their sexual interest in receptive females. These same animals ________ sexual interest if injected with testosterone. a. retain; show excessively high levels of b. gradually lose; gradually regain c. retain; show no change in d. gradually lose; fail to regain ANSWER: b 158. Taffy is a 5-year-old female dog whose estrogen levels have peaked. She is standing by the door scratching to be let out. Her owner would be correct in understanding that Taffy is experiencing a. a sexual dysfunction. b. a refractory period. c. ovulation. d. menarche. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com

159. Human sexual behavior is influenced by hormones ________ other mammals. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice a. in the same manner as in b. at higher levels than c. more loosely than d. in a different manner than ANSWER: c 160. More than in other mammalian females, the sex drive in human females is responsive to their ________ levels. a. estradiol b. estrogen c. serotonin d. testosterone ANSWER: d 161. Tatyana is 50 years old and has been married for 20 years. However, she has recently lost most of her desire for sexual activities. Which of the following might be causing this? a. a drop in her testosterone level b. an increase in her testosterone level c. an increase in estrogen levels d. an increase in serotonin levels ANSWER: a 162. Which of the following might help women whose sexual activity, arousal, and desire have dropped? a. ovulation therapy b. estrogen injections c. estrogen replacement therapy d. testosterone replacement therapy ANSWER: d 163. During the 1600s and 1700s, boys were castrated to preserve their soprano voices. As a result, their sex characteristics and sexual desire a. did not develop as it would have if they still had testes. b. developed at an early age. c. developed in the same way as did boys who were not castrated. d. showed an increase in testosterone levels. ANSWER: a 164. Matteo has abnormally low testosterone levels. What can be expected if he undergoes testosteronereplacement therapy? a. He will experience an increase in sexual desire and energy. b. He will experience an increase in sexualScholarFriends.com desire but a decrease in energy. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice c. He will experience a decrease in sexual desire and energy. d. He will experience a decrease in sexual desire but an increase in energy. ANSWER: a 165. Mimi's interest in sexual activity has changed at various times throughout her life as a result of large hormonal surges and declines. Which of the following is NOT a time of hormonal increase or decrease? a. pubertal development b. menopause c. prenatal development d. after surgery that may affect hormone levels ANSWER: c 166. Fifteen-year-old Ethan is experiencing an increase in the hormone ________, which causes his sexual arousal to ________. a. estrogen; increase b. estrogen; decrease c. testosterone; increase d. testosterone; decrease ANSWER: c 167. Fifteen-year-old Justin is on his high school soccer team. While they are practicing, several girls stop by to watch them practice. Justin immediately tries increasingly long and difficult passes while the girls watch. If Justin's hormone levels were checked at that time, we are likely to find a. a drop in his testosterone level. b. an increase in his testosterone level. c. an increase in estrogen levels. d. an increase in serotonin levels. ANSWER: b 168. Adult men who suffer castration typically experience ________ testosterone levels, and adult male sex offenders who take a drug that reduces sexual desire typically experience ________ testosterone levels. a. decreased; increased b. normal; increased c. decreased; decreased d. normal; decreased ANSWER: c 169. Researchers have found that male sex offenders who were given a drug lost much of their sexual urge because of a. a reduced surge of estradiol. b. reduced testosterone levels. ScholarFriends.com c. loss of serotonin. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice d. reduced sexual motivation. ANSWER: b 170. As estrogen and testosterone levels fall in later life, the frequency of intercourse ________ and the frequency of sexual fantasies ________. a. decreases; decreases b. decreases: remains the same c. remains the same; decreases d. remains the same; remains the same ANSWER: a 171. There exists a bidirectional relationship between sexual arousal and testosterone levels. Which of the following best describes that relationship? a. Decreased testosterone levels can be a cause and a consequence of sexual activity. b. Increased sexual arousal is related to fluctuations in testosterone levels. c. Decreased sexual activity is directly related to variations in testosterone levels of men only. d. Sexual arousal can be a cause and a consequence of increased testosterone levels. ANSWER: d 172. Masters and Johnson conducted research on a. the sexual response cycle. b. pubertal development during adolescence. c. prenatal influences on gender development. d. gender variations on aggressive behavior. ANSWER: a 173. In their effort to describe the stages of the human sexual response, researchers Masters and Johnson a. observed chimps and monkeys engaging in sex. b. interviewed married couples who were randomly selected from the U.S. population. c. interviewed only married couples who had regular sex. d. directly observed people engaging in sex in their lab. ANSWER: d 174. Elvis and Vera are at home alone while their children are attending a school play. As they begin kissing and hugging, they become sexually aroused and decide to engage in intercourse. According to Masters and Johnson, the correct order of the stages of the sexual response cycle the two of them will experience is a. plateau, excitement, orgasm, and resolution. b. resolution, excitement, plateau, and orgasm. c. excitement, plateau, orgasm, and resolution. d. orgasm, excitement, plateau, and resolution. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 175. The first stage of the sexual response cycle is a. a refractory period. b. an excitement stage. c. a plateau stage. d. orgasm. ANSWER: b 176. During ________, excitement peaks as breathing, pulse, and blood pressure rates continue to increase. a. the plateau stage b. the resolution stage c. the excitement stage d. orgasm ANSWER: a 177. Research on the sexual response cycle indicates that a. men and women experience an equally long refractory period following orgasm. b. women undergo a decrease in physiological arousal more slowly if they have experienced orgasm than if they have not. c. enough sperm may be released prior to male orgasm to enable conception. d. during the resolution stage, sexual excitement increases in women but decreases in men. ANSWER: c 178. Reagan and Miranda are engaging in sexual intercourse. Their excitement has peaked and breathing, pulse, and blood pressure have increased. Which stage of the sexual response cycle are they in? a. excitement b. plateau c. orgasm d. resolution ANSWER: b 179. Which stage of the sexual response cycle involves muscle contractions all over the body, accompanied by an increase in breathing, pulse, and blood pressure rates? a. excitement b. plateau c. orgasm d. resolution ANSWER: c 180. Masters and Johnson identified orgasm as the ________ stage of the sexual response cycle. a. first b. second ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice c. third d. fourth ANSWER: c 181. Nadal and Barbora are both breathing hard and experiencing raised pulse and blood pressure rates. They are currently in the ________ of the sexual response cycle. a. excitement b. plateau c. orgasm d. resolution ANSWER: c 182. Barty has just engaged in sexual intercourse with her partner. Her body is now returning to its unaroused state as genital blood vessels release their accumulated blood. Barty is currently in the ________ of the sexual response cycle. a. excitement b. plateau c. orgasm d. resolution ANSWER: d 183. During the resolution stage of the sexual response cycle, men are most likely to experience a rapid decrease in arousal if a. they have just experienced orgasm. b. they have not used contraceptives. c. their refractory period is unusually short. d. their sexual interaction has not resulted in conception. ANSWER: a 184. The refractory period is the a. moment before orgasm during which sexual arousal is maintained at a fairly high level. b. stage of the sexual response cycle during which sexual excitation reaches its climax. c. span of the monthly female reproductive cycle during which ovulation occurs. d. time span after orgasm during which a man cannot be aroused to another orgasm. ANSWER: d 185. Unlike men, some women are capable of experiencing two or more orgasms if restimulated during or soon after resolution because of their a. lower levels of testosterone. b. more romantic fantasies. c. briefer refractory periods. ScholarFriends.com d. secondary sex characteristics. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 186. Victoria has just experienced orgasm but, during resolution, her partner restimulated her. Victoria can possibly expect to a. skip the plateau stage. b. stay in her refractory period. c. experience another orgasm. d. quickly return to the plateau stage. ANSWER: c 187. A problem that consistently interferes with a person's ability to complete the sexual response cycle is called a(n) a. STI. b. secondary sex characteristic. c. sexual dysfunction. d. refractory period. ANSWER: c 188. Rafa has been unable to develop or maintain an erection. Rafa most clearly is experiencing a. premature ejaculation. b. HPV. c. a sexual dysfunction. d. androgyny. ANSWER: c 189. A man who reaches a sexual climax before he or his partner wishes is experiencing a. pedophilia. b. necrophilia. c. premature ejaculation. d. erectile disorder. ANSWER: c 190. Female orgasmic disorder is a form of a. androgyny. b. intersex. c. refractory period. d. sexual dysfunction. ANSWER: d 191. Daniele is unable to have intercourse with her partner because the pain she feels prevents her from completing the sexual response cycle. Her difficulty best illustrates ScholarFriends.com a. a refractory period. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice b. a sexual dysfunction. c. intersex. d. habituation. ANSWER: b 192. A woman who experiences distress due to a persistent inability to reach a sexual climax during prolonged sexual intercourse is most likely suffering from a. androgyny. b. habituation. c. the older sibling effect. d. female orgasmic disorder. ANSWER: d 193. Viktor, a 25-year-old accountant, experiences premature ejaculation. Behaviorally oriented therapy has enabled him to minimize his problem by a. engaging in sexual activity less frequently. b. eliminating his high level of sexual guilt. c. uncovering the unconscious fears that underlie his problem. d. learning ways to control his urge to ejaculate. ANSWER: d 194. Since 1998, Viagra has been a highly successful treatment for a. female orgasmic disorder. b. premature ejaculation. c. erectile disorder. d. orgasmic disorder. ANSWER: c 195. The American Psychiatric Association classifies sexual behavior as a paraphilia if a. a person experiences distress from an unusual sexual interest or it entails harm or risk of harm to others. b. a person has no sexual attraction toward others. c. a person has a gender identity or expression that differs from that associated with their birth-assigned sex. d. a person's sexual attraction is not restricted to any sex or gender identity. ANSWER: a 196. Sexual arousal from fantasies, behaviors, or urges involving nonhuman objects, the suffering of the self or others, and/or nonconsenting persons is called a. a paraphilia. b. pansexual. ScholarFriends.com c. asexual. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice d. bisexual. ANSWER: a 197. Yolanda reveals to her therapist that she has some unusual sexual interests and behaviors; however, they do not distress her or entail harm or risk of harm to others. Her therapist would probably a. classify Yolanda's behavior as disordered, since she directs her sexual desire in unusual ways. b. not classify Yolanda's behavior as disordered, since it neither distresses her nor places anyone at risk. c. suggest that Yolanda be evaluated for a sexual dysfunction. d. suggest that Yolanda undergo psychological and medical therapy to overcome these behaviors. ANSWER: b 198. Hudson really enjoys exposing himself sexually to others, without their consent. This is called a. necrophilia. b. exhibitionism. c. pedophilia. d. erectile disorder. ANSWER: b 199. Which of the following is an STI? a. herpes simplex virus b. intersex c. premature ejaculation d. female orgasmic disorder ANSWER: a 200. Sexually active teenage girls are especially vulnerable to STIs because of their a. shorter refractory periods. b. high estrogen levels. c. rapid habituation. d. lower levels of antibodies. ANSWER: d 201. Condoms are most helpful in protecting against a. herpes infections. b. genital warts. c. HIV infections. d. erectile disorder. ANSWER: c 202. Mr. Thompson, a college instructor, is giving a lecture on sexually transmitted infections to a class of sophomores when one of them stands up and says, "I'm safe with my boyfriend. We use condoms." Which of ScholarFriends.com the following responses from the teacher is most likely to be MISLEADING? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice a. Condoms offer only limited protection against certain skin-to-skin sexually transmitted diseases. b. Condoms have been 80 percent effective in preventing transmission of HIV. c. Condoms provide complete protection against certain infections such as herpes. d. Condoms are less likely to be used by those who use alcohol prior to sex. ANSWER: c 203. The human immunodeficiency virus has been found to be the cause of a. herpes. b. refractory periods. c. intersex. d. AIDS. ANSWER: d 204. More than half of Americans with AIDS are between the ages of a. 18 and 29. b. 30 and 49. c. 40 and 49. d. 50 and 59. ANSWER: b 205. Which of the following is passed much more often from men to women than from women to men? a. HIV infections b. refractory periods c. orgasmic disorder d. herpes ANSWER: a 206. Which of the following is true of HIV, the virus that causes AIDS? a. It is usually transmitted via needle sharing during drug use. b. It is usually transmitted sexually. c. Condoms have been 30 percent effective in preventing its transmission. d. It is transmitted more easily from women to men. ANSWER: b 207. Raymond is sexually active and wants to avoid contracting AIDS. To prevent that from happening, Raymond most clearly needs to avoid unprotected sex with partners infected with a. bacterial STIs. b. HPV. c. a herpes virus. d. HIV. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 208. AIDS is most commonly transmitted through a. unsanitary foods and eating utensils. b. unprotected sex with an infected person. c. a prenatal infection from one's own mother. d. receiving a transfusion of blood from a person with AIDS. ANSWER: b 209. Because of the long incubation period of AIDS it can be expected that most who have the disease were infected in their a. teens and twenties. b. twenties. c. twenties and thirties. d. thirties and forties. ANSWER: a 210. Sigmund has been diagnosed with AIDS. This means that he experiences a ________ and that he is ________. a. weakened immune system; vulnerable to infections b. improved immune system; protected from infections c. heightened immune system; vulnerable to bacterial infections d. inoperable immune system; exposed to bacterial infections ANSWER: a 211. It has been said that the most significant sex organ is the a. skin. b. genitalia. c. secondary sex characteristics. d. brain. ANSWER: d 212. Professor Langston emphasizes that premature sexual activity among high school students involves the interplay of alcohol consumption, mass media norms, and teens' underestimation of their vulnerability to sexually transmitted infections. The professor's emphasis best illustrates a reliance on a. the fertile females theory. b. a social script. c. the biopsychosocial approach. d. Freudian psychology. ANSWER: c 213. The biopsychosocial approach is ScholarFriends.com a. a theory stating that people develop gay and lesbian erotic attachments if segregated by sex at the Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice time their sex drive matures. b. an integrated understanding of sexual motivation in terms of sex hormones, sexual fantasies, and cultural values. c. a therapy used to help men and women with their sexual dysfunctions. d. a refuted explanation for the development of sexual orientations. ANSWER: b 214. Based on the biopsychosocial model, our sexual motivation a. depends on internal biological factors but even more by psychological and social-cultural factors. b. is influenced by imagined stimuli more so than by physical stimuli. c. is variable across time and places. d. is influenced by cultural expectations more so than by any other factor. ANSWER: a 215. Dr. Ramirez believes that male teens involved in sex at an early age have been highly influenced by pornography and graphic video games that involve these types of behaviors. Dr. Ramirez is referring to the ________ of the biopsychosocial approach. a. biological influences b. social-cultural influences c. imagined stimuli influences d. psychological influences ANSWER: d 216. Dr. Yu is studying sexual behavior. In her research, she focuses on the role of sex hormones and sexual maturity in this behavior. According to the biopsychosocial approach, Dr. Yu is studying the ________ influences on sexual behavior. a. biological b. social-cultural c. external stimulus d. psychological ANSWER: a 217. With repeated exposure to any erotic stimulus, our emotional response often lessens. This illustrates a. the older-sibling effect. b. intersex. c. habituation. d. dishabituation. ANSWER: c 218. Some research has found that extensive online pornography exposure does all of the following EXCEPT a. contribute to erectile problems. ScholarFriends.com b. increase sexual desire. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice c. diminish brain activation to sexual images. d. desensitize young men to normal sexuality. ANSWER: b 219. Jake just spent an evening watching pornographic movies of women who actually seemed to enjoy being forced to have sex. This experience may lead him to a. perceive himself as unable to perform sexually. b. be more willing to hurt women. c. feel unsure about his gender identity. d. view sexual promiscuity as morally wrong. ANSWER: b 220. After viewing X-rated films of sexually attractive women and men, people have judged their own dating partner or spouse to be a. more physically attractive. b. more sexually active. c. less physically attractive. d. less sexually active. ANSWER: c 221. Men tend to experience ________ romantic and ________ frequent fantasies about sex than do women. a. more; more b. less; less c. more; less d. less; more ANSWER: d 222. Which of the following is NOT true about sexual fantasizing? a. Our imagination can increase our sexual arousal and desire. b. In some women sexual fantasies can lead to orgasm. c. Men fantasize about sex more often and less romantically. d. Fantasizing about sex indicates a sexual problem or dissatisfaction. ANSWER: d 223. Pregnancy rates among American teens are ________. Sexual activity among American teens is ________. a. increasing; increasing b. decreasing; increasing c. increasing; decreasing d. decreasing; decreasing ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 224. Many sexually active American teens fail to avoid pregnancy because a. they fail to talk openly about birth control with their parents, partners, and peers. b. media portrayals often glamorize early parenthood. c. sex education classes actually discourage contraceptive use. d. of all these reasons. ANSWER: a 225. Karen felt so passionate while interacting with her boyfriend that her feelings overwhelmed her intentions to delay having sex. Her behavior is best explained by the fact that sexual arousal a. increases habituation. b. reduces impulse control. c. increases ovulation. d. reduces androgyny. ANSWER: b 226. In one survey, 72 percent of sexually active 12- to 17-year-old American girls said a. they never use condoms during sex. b. they abstain from alcohol prior to sex. c. none of their close friends were sexually active. d. they regretted having had sex. ANSWER: d 227. Teens who use alcohol prior to sexual intercourse experience a. enhanced self-awareness and are less likely to use condoms. b. reduced self-awareness and are more likely to use condoms. c. enhanced self-awareness and are more likely to use condoms. d. reduced self-awareness and are less likely to use condoms. ANSWER: d 228. The more sexual content adolescents view on TV and in movies, the more likely they are to a. perceive their peers as sexually active. b. talk with their parents about contraception. c. view their own sexual partners as attractive. d. avoid premature sexual intercourse. ANSWER: a 229. A culturally modeled guide for how to act in particular situations is called a(n) a. response cycle. b. social script. c. behavioral syndrome. ScholarFriends.com d. natural selection. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 230. Researchers have found that teens who consume alcohol are less likely to use condoms if they engage in sexual intercourse. This is true because alcohol consumption a. reduces communication with parents about birth control. b. is related to father absence. c. is related to lower intelligence among teens. d. affects the ability to control judgment and inhibition. ANSWER: d 231. Popular media influence teens' sexual behavior by providing a. secondary sex characteristics. b. social scripts. c. sexual response cycles. d. refractory periods. ANSWER: b 232. In the process of portraying women as "hypersexualized," video games are most likely to promote a. safe contraceptive use. b. sexual dysfunctions. c. the early sexualization of girls. d. sexual abstinence. ANSWER: c 233. Every day, seventeen-year-old Norby sends several sexual text messages ("sexts") to his girlfriend after seeing movie and TV characters sending such messages. His behavior best reflects the impact of the ________ provided by the movies. a. social scripts b. sexual response cycle c. refractory period d. sexual dysfunction ANSWER: a 234. Mary Louise is 16 years old and has not and will not engage in any sexual activity until she is an adult or is in a long-term relationship. Which of the following is NOT likely to be related to her decision? a. communication about birth control b. high intelligence c. religious engagement d. alcohol use ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com

235. Teens are more likely to delay sex if they have ________ levels of intelligence and ________ levels of Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice religious engagement. a. higher; lower b. lower; higher c. higher; higher d. lower; lower ANSWER: c 236. Irish teens who received comprehensive sex education in school were more likely than those who did not receive any education to a. have an asexual orientation. b. focus on thinking about the past. c. delay having sex until they were older. d. play sexually oriented video games. ANSWER: c 237. Lower rates of pregnancy have been observed among U.S. teens who a. sexually vivid dreams that lead to orgasm. b. imagined being taken sexually by someone overwhelmed with passion. c. watched a higher-than-average amount of prime-time television. d. participated in a service learning program as tutors or teachers' aides. ANSWER: d 238. One's sexual orientation refers to a. one's sense of being male, female, neither, or some combination of male and female. b. a set of expected behaviors, attitudes, and traits for men and for women. c. the direction of one's sexual attraction. d. all of these. ANSWER: c 239. Our sexual orientation refers to a(n) ________ that may be female-male, to our own sex, to males and females, or to no one at all. a. sexual response cycle b. experience of shared interests c. sexual attraction d. attitude of social acceptance ANSWER: c 240. Morgan is a 26-year-old attorney. He is sexually attracted to females. Ceasar, a 17-year-old high school senior, experiences same-sex attractions. The brothers obviously differ in their a. gender identity. b. sexual response cycle. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice c. sexual orientation. d. habituation. ANSWER: c 241. Those whose sexual attraction may be female-male are said to have a(n) ________ orientation. a. pansexual b. heterosexual c. asexual d. bisexual ANSWER: b 242. Kennedy is sexually attracted to females. He can best be described as a. heterosexual. b. bisexual. c. asexual. d. having a same-sex orientation. ANSWER: a 243. Those who are attracted to males and females are said to have a(n) ________ orientation. a. heterosexual b. same-sex c. asexual d. bisexual ANSWER: d 244. Those who are attracted to members of their own sex are said to have a(n) ________ orientation. a. pansexual b. same-sex c. asexual d. bisexual ANSWER: b 245. Alize is sexually attracted to other females. She can best be described as a. heterosexual. b. bisexual. c. asexual. d. having a same-sex orientation. ANSWER: d 246. Those who are not attracted to anyone are said to have a(n) ________ orientation. ScholarFriends.com a. pansexual Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice b. same-sex c. asexual d. bisexual ANSWER: c 247. Kayla is not sexually attracted to anyone. She can best be described as a. heterosexual. b. bisexual. c. asexual. d. having a same-sex orientation. ANSWER: c 248. Those whose sexual attraction is not restricted to any sex or gender identity are said to have a(n) ________ orientation. a. pansexual b. same-sex c. asexual d. bisexual ANSWER: a 249. Which country is LEAST likely to have favorable attitudes toward same-sex attraction? a. United States b. Spain c. Nigeria d. Italy ANSWER: c 250. Attitudes toward same-sex attractions are becoming more ________ worldwide. a. accepting b. rigid c. varied d. negative ANSWER: a 251. Tim is gay. He is most likely to conceal his sexual orientation when he is a. 3 or 4; 2 b. 2; 3 or 4 c. 10; 5 or 6 d. 5 or 6; 10 ANSWER: a ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 252. Detailed information and resources related to sexual orientation can be obtained from the a. Society for the Psychology of Sexual Orientation and Gender Diversity. b. Society for General Psychology. c. Society for the Psychological Study of Social Issues. d. Rehabilitation Psychology. ANSWER: a 253. In surveys of U.S. high schoolers, gay and lesbian youth have been more likely to a. express less anxiety. b. experience decreased depression. c. have seriously considered attempting suicide. d. tell only their closest friends about their sexual orientation. ANSWER: c 254. Arnold, who is gay, lives in a region where same-sex attractions are largely condemned. As a result, Arnold conceals his orientation from his family and friends. This may have the effect of a. increasing Arnold's self-esteem. b. harming Arnold's mental health. c. altering Arnold's sexual orientation. d. strengthening Arnold's social network. ANSWER: b 255. A same-sex orientation is a. equally likely among members of both genders. b. associated with a lack of estrogen. c. neither willfully chosen nor willfully changed. d. characteristic of more than 10 percent of American males. ANSWER: c 256. James tells his parents that he has a same-sex orientation; they respond that he is just going through a phase. Without social support, James is likely to experience all of the following EXCEPT a. attempts to change his orientation. b. increased anxiety. c. an increase in suicidal thoughts. d. less depression. ANSWER: d 257. More women than men report having had at least one same-sex sexual contact, even though males' rate of same-sex attraction exceeds the female rate. This is best explained by the fact that compared with men, women's sexual orientation is a. more often asexual. ScholarFriends.com b. influenced by gender typing. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice c. marked by shorter refractory periods. d. more fluid. ANSWER: d 258. Research on the environmental conditions that influence sexual orientation indicates that a. gay/lesbian people are more likely than heterosexual people to have been neglected by their parents. b. gay/lesbian people are more likely than heterosexual people to have been overprotected by their mothers. c. gay/lesbian people are more likely than heterosexual people to have been raised in a father-absent home. d. the reported backgrounds of gay/lesbian and heterosexual people are similar. ANSWER: d 259. Andrew is growing up in a household with two mothers. Based on research of outcomes for children raised by gay parents, all of the following can be expected of Andrew EXCEPT that he will a. likely display gender-typical behavior. b. likely be heterosexual. c. experience emotional well-being similar to children with straight parents. d. experience more depression than children with straight parents. ANSWER: d 260. Which of the following is most clearly NOT true with respect to sexual orientation? a. Same-sex attraction is linked with problems during childhood involving relationships with parents. b. The environmental factors that influence sexual orientation are currently unknown. c. The heterosexual maternal relatives of gay men produce more offspring than do the maternal relatives of straight men. d. Sexual orientation is persistent and unlikely to be successfully changed, especially among males. ANSWER: a 261. A biological influence on same-sex attraction is most clearly seen from evidence of a. same-sex sexual interactions in several hundred different species. b. an increase in same-sex attraction among women who had fraternal twin brothers. c. the increase in people who have same-sex attractions and bisexual people among males with domineering mothers. d. the link between sexual orientation and the levels of sex hormones currently in a person's blood. ANSWER: a 262. Simon LeVay discovered that a neural cluster located in the ________ was larger in straight men than in gay men. a. cerebellum b. amygdala ScholarFriends.com c. hypothalamus Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice d. medulla ANSWER: c 263. An area of the hypothalamus that governs sexual arousal becomes active when ________ are given a whiff of scent derived from men's sweat. a. gay women and gay men b. gay women and straight men c. straight women and straight men d. straight women and gay men ANSWER: d 264. In remembering the spatial locations of objects, straight men perform a. better than gay men and better than straight women. b. worse than gay men and worse than straight women. c. better than gay men and worse than straight women. d. worse than gay men and better than straight women. ANSWER: b 265. Who is likely to be the LEAST skilled at remembering an object's spatial location in memory game tasks? a. Maury, a straight man b. Ian, a gay man c. Claire, a gay woman d. Stephanie, a straight woman ANSWER: a 266. On mental rotation tasks, gay men and gay women have been observed to score ________ than straight men and ________ than straight women. a. higher; higher b. lower; lower c. higher; lower d. lower; higher ANSWER: d 267. Gay men tend to have ________ gay relatives on their mother's side of the family than on their father's side. The heterosexual maternal relatives of gay men produce ________ offspring than do the maternal relatives of straight men. a. more; fewer b. fewer; more c. more; more d. fewer; fewer ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 268. The heterosexual maternal relatives of gay men produce ________ offspring than the maternal relatives of heterosexual men, and male same-sex attraction is more likely to be transmitted by genes from the ________ side of the family. a. more; mother's b. fewer; father's c. fewer; mother's d. more; father's ANSWER: a 269. Your father's cousin thinks that a same-sex orientation is not determined by genetics but is rather a choice people make. To dissuade him of this erroneous belief, you would be best advised to note that a. same-sex attraction does not appear to run in families. b. identical twins are no more likely than fraternal twins to share their twin's same-sex orientation. c. researchers have been able to create female fruit flies that, during courtship, act like males. d. gay men tend to have more gay relatives on their mother's side of the family than on their father's side. ANSWER: d 270. By manipulating a single gene, scientists have been able to control sexual orientation in a. humans. b. chimpanzees. c. fruit flies. d. all of these organisms. ANSWER: c 271. Researchers have found links between sexual orientation and two genes on chromosomes 13 and 14. One influences a brain area that varies in size based on sexual orientation. The other influences a. thyroid function. b. epigenetic marks. c. level of intelligence. d. spatial abilities. ANSWER: a 272. Female identical twins are more likely to differ in sexual orientation than a. male fraternal twins. b. female fraternal twins. c. male identical twins. d. all of these pairs of twins. ANSWER: c 273. Which of the following can help distinguish straight and gay identical twins? ScholarFriends.com a. environmental experiences related to the development of sexual orientation Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice b. specific genes that are associated with the development of sexual orientation c. epigenetic marks that may be related to the development of sexual orientation d. paternally transmitted genes that are associated with the development of sexual orientation ANSWER: c 274. Which of the following has an impact on genetic influences on sexual orientation? a. habituation b. desensitization c. impulsivity d. epigenetic marks ANSWER: d 275. Sex hormone levels experienced during the second trimester of prenatal development are most likely to influence a male's sexual orientation in later life because of their impact on a. the X chromosome. b. the Y chromosome. c. brain development. d. sexually transmitted infections. ANSWER: c 276. Research has found that an animal's sexual orientation can be altered by a. manipulation of prenatal hormone levels. b. exposure only to animals of the same sex. c. injections of sex hormones in early adulthood. d. destruction of the hippocampus. ANSWER: a 277. If female fetuses are exposed to ________ during a critical period of prenatal development, they are more likely later to exhibit gender-atypical traits and experience same-sex desires. a. estrogen b. HIV c. HPV d. testosterone ANSWER: d 278. The incidence of same-sex attraction has been found to be slightly higher than usual among a. physicians. b. professional athletes. c. residents of small villages. d. men who have older brothers. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 279. The older-sibling effect refers to the idea that a. the genes that dispose women to be strongly attracted to men and to have more children also dispose some men to be attracted to them. b. antibodies in the mother's immune system may grow stronger and may prevent the fetal brain from developing in a heterosexual pattern. c. same-sex orientation appears more often in some families that in others. d. identical male twins are somewhat more likely than fraternal twins to share a same-sex orientation. ANSWER: b 280. Men with older brothers have been somewhat more likely to be gay. This is referred to as a. the fertile females theory. b. the older-sibling effect. c. a social script. d. sexual orientation. ANSWER: b 281. Aaron has three older brothers. He is also the only one who has a same-sex orientation. This may be explained by the a. older-sibling effect. b. younger brother birth-order effect. c. fertile females theory. d. biopsychosocial model of sexual orientation. ANSWER: a 282. Justine and Malcolm have four sons. Justine is pregnant with another son. Research on the older-sibling effect indicates that the chances of the fourth son being gay is ________ percent. a. less than 1 b. less than 2 c. more than 4 d. more than 10 ANSWER: c 283. The older-sibling effect does NOT apply to a. men who have several older brothers. b. men who are right-handed. c. women who have older sisters. d. brothers born to the same mother. ANSWER: c 284. Trevor has three older brothers and one older sister. There is an increased likelihood of him having a sameScholarFriends.com sex orientation. This is called the Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice a. antibody effect. b. older-sibling effect. c. male syndrome effect. d. immune effect. ANSWER: b 285. An older-sibling effect plays a role in sexual orientation among a. men who are right-handed. b. women who are right-handed. c. men who are not right-handed. d. both men and women who are not right-handed. ANSWER: a 286. A similar but weaker older-sibling effect may occur among men a. who are left-handed. b. who are adopted. c. with older sisters. d. with only one older brother. ANSWER: c 287. It has been suggested that the older-sibling effect is a result of a. gender typing. b. refractory periods. c. a maternal immune response. d. mass-media norms. ANSWER: c 288. Who proposed that male fetuses may stimulate maternal antibody production, contributing to same-sex orientation in adulthood? a. Ray Blanchard b. Simon LeVay c. William Masters d. Virginia Johnson ANSWER: a 289. Equal rights for people who have a same-sex or bisexual orientation are most likely to be favored by those who a. understand that sexual orientation is a result of biological and prenatal influences. b. believe that sexual orientation is a lifestyle choice. c. think that sexual orientation is a result of negative life experiences. ScholarFriends.com d. understand the fluid nature of sexual orientation. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 290. Evolutionary psychology studies how our behavior and mind have changed in adaptive ways over time because of a. habituation. b. gender typing. c. secondary sex characteristics. d. natural selection. ANSWER: d 291. When looking for a sexual partner, humans generally a. prize very different traits. b. avoid close genetic relatives. c. prioritize physical attractiveness at the expense of other traits. d. seek out those who have faced adaptive challenges. ANSWER: b 292. According to evolutionary psychologists, gender differences exist a. when men and women are faced with different adaptive challenges, such as reproduction. b. prenatally and continue throughout life. c. when men and women are faced with varying social situations and cultural expectations. d. in all aspects of life. ANSWER: a 293. As compared with Holly, Reddy is more likely to do all of the following EXCEPT a. engage in sexual hook-ups. b. masturbate. c. seek wealth in a partner. d. view pornography. ANSWER: c 294. Compared with gay women, gay men report ________ responsiveness to visual stimuli and ________ interest in their partner's physical attractiveness. a. more; less b. less; more c. more; more d. less; less ANSWER: c 295. Gender similarities and differences related to sexuality are a. only evident in heterosexuals. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice b. evident regardless of one's sexual orientation. c. not evident in gay men. d. nonexistent. ANSWER: b 296. Christopher is a gay man. Based on his gender alone, we can expect he will do all of the following EXCEPT a. experience increased responsiveness to visual sexual stimuli. b. not have a very active sex life with his partner. c. be concerned with his partner's physical attractiveness. d. be interested in uncommitted sex. ANSWER: b 297. Sorana is looking for a male romantic partner, and Roger is looking for a female romantic partner. Both Sorana and Roger will be most concerned about finding mates with all of the following traits EXCEPT a. kindness. b. honesty. c. humor. d. intelligence. ANSWER: c 298. Compared with women, men are likely to a. hook up more often. b. think more about sex. c. view more pornography. d. behave in all of these ways. ANSWER: d 299. Helmut and Kaia, both in their early thirties, are beginning a potentially romantic relationship. Research suggests that ________ is most likely to initiate greater sexual intimacy in their relationship and ________ has a more accepting attitude toward uncommitted sex. a. George; Jenny b. Jenny; George c. George; George d. Sally: Jenny ANSWER: c 300. The reproductive advantage enjoyed by organisms best suited to a particular environment is known as a. a secondary sex characteristic. b. a primary sex characteristic. c. natural selection. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice d. the older-sibling effect. ANSWER: c 301. Breeanna has inherited a tendency to be sexually attracted to handsome men. If this trait increases her chances of survival and reproductive success, it will likely be passed on to her female offspring. This best illustrates a. the fertile females theory. b. the sexual response cycle. c. a secondary sex characteristic. d. natural selection. ANSWER: d 302. Women are naturally inclined to be selective than men about whom they select as a mate because they are more limited than men in the number of children they can have. This statement best illustrates the logic of a. evolutionary psychology. b. social learning theory. c. the fertile females theory. d. the older-sibling effect. ANSWER: a 303. Evolutionary psychologists would most likely say that the differences between men and women in their attitudes toward uncommitted sex are due to the fact that men have ________ than women do. a. more sexually liberal social scripts b. greater awareness of their own sex c. longer refractory periods d. greater reproductive potential ANSWER: d 304. Heterosexual women are most likely to be sexually attracted to men who appear to be a. shy. b. asexual. c. interested in uncommitted sex. d. mature and wealthy. ANSWER: d 305. Simone is heterosexual and is looking for a romantic partner. She is most likely to seek a partner who a. is protective. b. is wealthy. c. is supportive. d. has all of these characteristics. ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 306. In a study of hundreds of Welsh pedestrians, women rated a man as ________ if he was pictured at the wheel of a swanky Bentley rather than a humble Ford Fiesta. Men rated a woman as ________ if she was pictured at the wheel of the expensive car rather than the inexpensive car. a. less attractive; more attractive b. more attractive; no more attractive c. no more attractive; more attractive d. less attractive; no more attractive ANSWER: b 307. Novak makes a good living and so is able to afford luxury items, such as expensive suits and jewelry. He buys these items as a way of winning the sexual affection of women he finds attractive. Evolutionary psychologists would most likely say that his behavior is due to a. social scripts. b. gender schemas. c. the older-sibling effect. d. genetic predispositions. ANSWER: d 308. Heterosexual men, regardless of time and place, tend to prefer ________ in potential romantic partners. a. smooth skin. b. a youthful shape. c. wealth. d. a waist that is roughly a third narrower than their hips. ANSWER: c 309. Straight men tend to prefer women who have a youthful appearance, and straight women are generally attracted to tall men. Both of these preferences can be explained by a. an epigenetic mark. b. an interaction. c. natural selection. d. adaptive flexibility. ANSWER: c 310. The fertile females theory has been proposed to explain the transmission of genes that promote a. gender typing. b. a same-sex orientation in men. c. refractory periods. d. secondary sex characteristics. ANSWER: b 311. DJ's psychology professor states that gay ScholarFriends.com men tend to have more gay relatives on their mother's side than on their father's, which supports a genetic basis for a same-sex orientation. The position explained by DJ's Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice professor is called a. the fertile females theory. b. the adaptive flexibility principle. c. the older-sibling effect. d. social learning theory. ANSWER: a 312. Sam has a same-sex orientation. Based on the fertile females theory, he is more likely to have family members who are also gay on a. his mother's side of the family. b. his father's side of the family. c. both sides of the family. d. neither side of the family. ANSWER: a 313. Men and women working for an experimenter asked strangers of the opposite sex: "Would you go to bed with me tonight?" Their invitations were accepted by a. more than half of men but no women. b. almost half of the men but no women. c. more than half of the men and almost half of the women. d. almost half of the men and almost half of the women. ANSWER: a 314. Evolutionary theory is often criticized for a. working backward to explain what happened. b. the use of natural selection. c. views regarding sexual preferences. d. explanations for sexual behavior. ANSWER: a 315. Which theoretical perspective can explain why behavior differences between men and women are smaller in cultures with greater gender equality? a. evolutionary theory b. social learning theory c. biopsychosocial theory d. fertile females theory ANSWER: b 316. Critics of evolutionary psychology are most likely to suggest that it underestimates the a. impact of genetic predispositions on human sexual behavior. b. impact of cultural expectations on human sexual behavior. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice c. variety of traits that contribute to reproductively successful behaviors. d. extent to which certain gender differences in sexual behavior are common to all cultures. ANSWER: b 317. The impact of cultural expectations on men's and women's mating preferences is most clearly highlighted by a. the fertile females theory. b. the older-sibling effect. c. social learning theory. d. evolutionary psychology. ANSWER: c 318. Excusing men's inappropriate sexual behavior is an example of a. how evolutionary theory starts with an effect and works backward to explain what happened. b. how the decisions of our ancestors have affected our behavior. c. the negative social consequences of accepting an evolutionary perspective. d. how biological, psychological, and social-cultural factors can influence behavior. ANSWER: c 319. Those who defend evolutionary psychology against criticism are most likely to suggest that evolutionary principles a. generate testable predictions. b. are intended to be descriptive but not explanatory. c. are more applicable to men than to women. d. are more applicable to humans than to nonhuman animal species. ANSWER: a 320. When a couple engages in sexual intercourse within the context of a committed relationship rather than as a one-night sexual hook-up, they are more likely to experience a. the older-sibling effect. b. intersex. c. spermarche. d. orgasm. ANSWER: d 321. Those who suggest that the choices we make today determine what our future will be like are emphasizing the importance of a. habituation. b. human responsibility. c. social scripts. d. natural selection. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 322. Which statement best describes how nature and nurture affect us? a. Genetics primarily influences who we are. b. Personal experiences is solely responsible for who we are. c. Culture is both all-powerful and all-pervasive. d. We are both creatures and creators of our world. ANSWER: d

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 1. Normal visual sensation in the absence of complete visual perception is best illustrated by a. prosopagnosia. b. priming. c. the difference threshold. d. sensory adaptation. ANSWER: a 2. Simone hears the cry of her baby over all the noise in a large, crowded room. This demonstrates that a. human sensory perception allows us to obtain essential information. b. environmental contexts are important for obtaining essential information. c. learning experiences are important for obtaining essential information. d. Simone can easily detect essential information now that she is a mother. ANSWER: a 3. The process by which our sensory receptors and nervous system receive and represent stimulus energies from the environment is called a. priming. b. sensory adaptation. c. top-down processing. d. sensation. ANSWER: d 4. Marco is watching a movie when he detects a loud noise outside his home. This is an example of a. transduction. b. sensation. c. perception. d. Weber's law. ANSWER: b 5. Dwayne's excellent peripheral vision enabled him to detect a brief flash of lightning far to his right, even though he couldn't recognize what he had seen. His experience best illustrates a. top-down processing. b. prosopagnosia. c. sensation. d. priming. ANSWER: c 6. Sensory nerve endings that respond to stimuli are called a. perception. b. sensory receptors. ScholarFriends.com c. sensory stimulation. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice d. transduction. ANSWER: b 7. Malissa is talking to her friend Abigail. Malissa uses her ________ to detect information about her environment. a. sensory receptors b. bottom-up processing c. top-down processing d. transduction ANSWER: a 8. Shelley is eating lunch with a long-time friend. Which of the following helps Shelley detect information from her environment? a. absolute threshold b. transduction c. sensory receptors d. sensory adaptation ANSWER: c 9. Perception is the process by which a. stimulus energies are detected. b. stimulus energies are transformed into neural activity. c. sensory input is organized and interpreted by our brain. d. nerve cells respond to specific features of a stimulus. ANSWER: c 10. As Kayla is eating a cupcake, she finds a bitter taste in the center and identifies it as baking soda that was not mixed in well. This is an example of a. transduction. b. sensation. c. perception. d. Weber's law. ANSWER: c 11. Recognizing an odor as the familiar smell of blueberry pie is an example of a. perception. b. prosopagnosia. c. sensory adaptation. d. subliminal stimulation. ANSWER: a ScholarFriends.com

12. Sensation is to ________ as perception is to ________. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice a. representing; receiving b. receiving; interpreting c. interpretation; organization d. organization; transduction ANSWER: b 13. Seeing a group of objects of different shapes is to ________ as recognizing the objects as a group of stuffed animals is to ________. a. absolute threshold; difference threshold b. sensory adaptation; priming c. perceptual set; sensory adaptation d. sensation; perception ANSWER: d 14. Bottom-up processing involves information processing that begins with the a. hypothalamus. b. sensory receptors. c. cerebral cortex. d. absolute threshold. ANSWER: b 15. Emily has developed glaucoma in both eyes, so she is unable to recognize her friend's face. Emily most clearly is deficient in a. priming. b. perceptual set. c. bottom-up processing. d. sensory adaptation. ANSWER: c 16. Information processing guided by higher-level mental processes is called a. prosopagnosia. b. sensory adaptation. c. top-down processing. d. transduction. ANSWER: c 17. Jerry is reading a chapter for his psychology class but finds that he does not know some of the words used by the author in as sentence. He is better able to grasp the words' full meaning when he reads the entire sentence because he can then use context clues to determine the meaning of words he does not understand. This is an example of a. top-down processing. ScholarFriends.com b. perception. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice c. transduction. d. bottom-up processing. ANSWER: a 18. Jordan is having knee surgery and expects a good outcome. It is likely that Jordan will experience less postoperative pain. This best illustrates the importance of a. subliminal stimulation. b. sensory adaptation. c. difference thresholds. d. top-down processing. ANSWER: d 19. Three steps that are basic to all sensory systems include the ________ of information to the brain. a. adaptation, stimulation, and detection b. receiving, transforming, and delivering c. priming, tracking, and categorizing d. activation, transduction, and sensory adaptation ANSWER: b 20. Which of the following represents the first of three steps basic to all sensory systems? a. forming perceptual sets b. delivering neural information to the brain c. receiving sensory stimulation d. transforming physical energy into neural impulses ANSWER: c 21. The process by which our sensory systems transform physical energy into neural impulses our brain can interpret is called a. priming. b. sensory adaptation. c. transduction. d. top-down processing. ANSWER: c 22. Santiago is at home playing a video game. He has no problem making out the movement of the ninjas as they battle for control. Converting the physical energy from the game into neural impulses involves a process called a. top-down processing. b. perception. c. transduction. d. bottom-up processing. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 23. The conversion of a fresh coffee aroma into neural impulses by sensory receptor cells best illustrates a. top-down processing. b. transduction. c. sensory adaptation. d. priming. ANSWER: b 24. Hearing receptors transform a loud noise into neural impulses. This illustrates a. priming. b. transduction. c. subliminal stimulation. d. sensory adaptation. ANSWER: b 25. Which of the following is the third step in sensory processing? a. receiving sensory stimuli b. detecting signals from the environment c. delivering neural information to the brain d. transforming stimuli into a neural impulse ANSWER: c 26. The minimum stimulus energy needed to detect a stimulus 50 percent of the time is called the a. sensory midpoint. b. just noticeable difference. c. perceptual set. d. absolute threshold. ANSWER: d 27. During a hearing test, many sounds were presented at such a low level of intensity that Mr. Sardarov could not detect them. These sounds were below Mr. Sardarov's a. perceptual set. b. absolute threshold. c. prosopagnosia. d. difference threshold. ANSWER: b 28. If a hard-of-hearing person's ability to hear certain sounds ________, their absolute threshold for sound ________. a. improves; remains unchanged ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice b. worsens; decreases c. worsens; remains unchanged d. improves; decreases ANSWER: d 29. A subliminal stimulus is one that is a. below one's absolute threshold for conscious awareness. b. unconsciously persuasive. c. presented with very soft background music. d. repetitious. ANSWER: a 30. Subliminally presented stimuli a. can sometimes be consciously perceived. b. effectively influence purchases of consumer goods. c. increase our absolute thresholds for visual images. d. are usually mentally processed as completely as any other stimuli. ANSWER: a 31. Priming refers to the activation of certain a. conscious motives. b. difference thresholds. c. nerve cells. d. associations. ANSWER: d 32. Under certain conditions, people are affected by stimuli so weak that they fail to consciously notice them. This is best illustrated by experiments involving a. sensory adaptation. b. subliminal priming. c. perceptual set. d. prosopagnosia. ANSWER: b 33. People are rated more favorably if a slide of that person is presented immediately after a subliminally flashed image of kittens. This best illustrates the impact of a. sensory adaptation. b. the just noticeable difference. c. priming. d. prosopagnosia. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 34. People are rated more unfavorably if a slide of that person is presented immediately after a subliminally flashed image of a werewolf. This best illustrates the impact of a. sensory adaptation. b. the just noticeable difference. c. priming. d. prosopagnosia. ANSWER: c 35. Vinny formed a positive first impression of a new schoolmate because she looked and acted in a way that reminded him of his sister. This best illustrates the impact of a. priming. b. prosopagnosia. c. sensory adaptation. d. Weber's law. ANSWER: a 36. People's response to subliminal priming indicates that a. they are capable of processing information without any conscious awareness of doing so. b. their unconscious mind is incapable of resisting subliminally presented suggestions. c. they are more sensitive to subliminal sounds than to subliminal sights. d. they experience a sense of discomfort whenever they are exposed to subliminal stimuli. ANSWER: a 37. Which of the following strategies best illustrates the use of subliminal stimulation? a. A store plays a musical soundtrack in which a faint and imperceptible verbal warning against shoplifting is repeated frequently. b. The laughter of a studio audience is dubbed into the soundtrack of a televised situation comedy. c. A radio advertiser repeatedly smacks her lips before biting into a candy bar. d. An unseen television narrator repeatedly suggests that you are thirsty while a cold drink is visually displayed on the screen. ANSWER: a 38. In an experiment, researchers expose participants to subliminal recordings designed to boost their selfesteem. Based on existing research, you would be correct in predicting that the recordings will a. interfere with the participants' capacity for sensory adaptation. b. have no more impact on participants' self-esteem than a placebo. c. improve participants' capacity for auditory transduction. d. have a positive and long-lasting impact on participants' mood states. ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com

39. Professor McLachlan is doing research on subliminal priming. Her hypothesis is that participants who have Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice been exposed to subliminal messages related to the advantages of physical exercise will be more likely to engage in exercise, than will those who have not been exposed to those messages. This hypothesis best illustrates a. Weber's law. b. prosopagnosia. c. sensory adaptation. d. the two-track mind. ANSWER: d 40. Shawna is trying to quit smoking and has purchased an audio series that claims she can play the audio while sleeping and it will help her stop smoking. Shawna is convinced that this works. What would you say to her? a. "That will never work." b. "There are a few research studies that support this but it isn't very many." c. "You're not too bright if you're buying into this." d. "If this works for you, it is likely because you believe it will work and not because of the effectiveness of the technique." ANSWER: d 41. The minimum stimulus difference that a person can detect half the time is called a. retinal disparity. b. the absolute threshold. c. perceptual set. d. the just noticeable difference. ANSWER: d 42. Ariel is streaming a television show but the sound is very low. She asks her father to turn up the sound. After he increases the volume only 10 decibels, Ariel says "Okay. That's good. Thank you." Ariel's detection of this slight increase in volume demonstrates a. subliminal stimuli. b. the absolute threshold. c. top-down processing. d. the just noticeable difference. ANSWER: d 43. Rosamund can tune her cello more easily than London because Rosamund is better at detecting whether specific strings are playing too sharp or too flat. With respect to tone sensitivity, London apparently has a ________ threshold than does Rosamund. a. lower absolute b. higher absolute c. smaller difference d. larger difference ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 44. The principle that two stimuli must differ by a constant minimum percentage for their difference to be perceived is known as a. the opponent-process theory. b. Weber's law. c. feature detection. d. sensory adaptation. ANSWER: b 45. According to ________, for an average person to perceive a difference, two stimuli must differ by a constant minimum ________. a. bottom-up processing. b. perceptual set. c. sensory adaptation. d. Weber's law. ANSWER: d 46. This morning, while carrying his textbooks that weighed 5 pounds while she walked to class, Rachel picked up her purse, which weighed half a pound. She immediately noticed a change in the weight of what she was carrying. If her textbooks had weighed 10 pounds, the just noticeable difference with the addition of her purse would be ________ pound(s). a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 5 ANSWER: a 47. Sensory adaptation refers to a. the process by which physical energy is changed into neural impulses. b. diminished sensitivity to an unchanging stimulus. c. the process of organizing and interpreting sensory information. d. the effect of our expectations on perception. ANSWER: b 48. When Margot's car stopped behind a garbage truck making pickups, Jennifer was initially overwhelmed by the odor. After a few minutes, she hardly noticed it. This is because Margot's nerve cells a. quit functioning properly. b. were damaged. c. began to fire less frequently. d. began to fire more frequently. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 49. When Jessica started using a new, scented brand of soap, the smell really bothered her partner. After several days, however, he became less aware of the smell. This was because his nerve cells a. quit functioning properly. b. were damaged. c. began to fire less frequently. d. began to fire more frequently. ANSWER: c 50. After listening to your high-volume car stereo for 15 minutes, you fail to realize how loudly the music is blasting. This best illustrates a. Weber's law. b. subliminal stimulation. c. sensory adaptation. d. prosopagnosia. ANSWER: c 51. The constant movements of our eyes enable us to a. focus the light on the back of our eyes. b. adjust the amount of light entering our eyes. c. minimize sensory adaptation. d. do all of these things. ANSWER: c 52. How do technology companies take advantage of our attention to changing stimuli? a. They understand our desire for what is scarce, and so they create new technologies more frequently for consumers to purchase. b. They understand our need for consistency and ensure that newer technologies are made durable. c. They understand our need for social interaction and have developed social media platforms to help us form social connections. d. They understand that changing stimuli, such as new tweets or breaking news stories, are more likely to grab our attention, and thus our clicks. ANSWER: d 53. Which of the following statements is TRUE? a. We perceive the world exactly as it is. b. Sensory adaptation increases our sensitivity. c. We perceive the world in a way that is useful for us to perceive it. d. When repeatedly exposed to the same stimulus, we become more aware of it. ANSWER: c 54. A perceptual set refers to ScholarFriends.com a. an unnoticed image that activates certain associated memories. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice b. an inability to recognize familiar faces or voices. c. a diminished sensitivity to an unchanging stimulus. d. mental tendencies and assumptions that influence what we perceive. ANSWER: d 55. When having friends over for dinner, Elana bought two bottles of the same moderately priced wine. As an experiment, she told half her guests that their wine was from an expensive bottle she had received for her birthday, and she told the other half that theirs was a cheap wine she had purchased on sale. Her guests overwhelmingly preferred the supposedly expensive wine. This example illustrates the effect of a. difference thresholds b. sensory adaptation c. subliminal stimulation d. perceptual set ANSWER: d 56. Rosemary is an English teacher. She has just met Carl, who is new to their school. Rosemary was told that Carl was once hospitalized for depression. As a result, Rosemary incorrectly perceived Carl's laughter as artificial and phony. This best illustrates the impact of a. difference thresholds. b. perceptual set. c. subliminal persuasion. d. sensory adaptation. ANSWER: b 57. When researchers at MIT added a few drops of vinegar to a brand-name beer, the beer tasters disliked it only if they had been told they were drinking vinegar-laced beer. This best illustrates the impact of a. sensory adaptation. b. prosopagnosia. c. perceptual set. d. subliminal stimulation. ANSWER: c 58. The cruise ship captain announced that they would be returning to their home port because of an outbreak ofCOVID-19 among the crew. Colette suddenly began to perceive her normal muscle aches and headaches as disease-related symptoms. Her reaction best illustrates the impact of a. difference thresholds. b. sensory adaptation. c. subliminal stimulation. d. perceptual set. ANSWER: d 59. The tendency to perceive a moving light inScholarFriends.com the night sky as belonging to an airplane rather than a meteor Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice best illustrates the impact of a. subliminal stimulation. b. sensory adaptation. c. perceptual set. d. bottom-up processing. ANSWER: c 60. A concept that helps us to interpret new stimuli is called a a. sensory adaptation. b. schema. c. feature detector. d. gestalt. ANSWER: b 61. People form schemas, or concepts, that they then use to interpret new stimuli on the basis of a. past experiences. b. sensory adaptation. c. bottom-up processing. d. difference thresholds. ANSWER: a 62. The influence of schemas on our interpretations of unfamiliar information best illustrates a. context effects. b. top-down processing. c. bottom-up processing. d. sensory adaptation. ANSWER: b 63. Visual perceptions of objects often change when the objects are viewed in different surroundings. This best illustrates a. prosopagnosia. b. Weber's law. c. context effects. d. subliminal stimulation. ANSWER: c 64. In one study, a pictured woman was perceived by some as balancing a box on her head and by others as sitting under a window. The study best illustrated that perceptions are influenced by a. sensory adaptation. b. Weber's law. ScholarFriends.com c. context effects. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice d. subliminal stimulation. ANSWER: c 65. Cheryl, a first-year college student, is taking an introductory biology course. Classes meet three times a week. On Saturday, when Cheryl went grocery shopping, she didn't recognize her professor at the store. This best illustrates the importance of a. bottom-up processing. b. context effects. c. subliminal priming. d. sensory adaptation. ANSWER: b 66. When Aubry learned that many of his fellow students had failed the chemistry exam, he was no longer disappointed by his C grade. His experience best illustrates the importance of a. sensory adaptation. b. subliminal stimulation. c. context effects. d. Weber's law. ANSWER: c 67. A softball may appear smaller to batters who are discouraged by their poor performance than to batters who are hitting well. This best illustrates the importance of a. Weber's law. b. top-down processing. c. sensory adaptation. d. absolute thresholds. ANSWER: b 68. Austin is playing football and kicks almost every ball over the goal post. Which of the following is true of Austin? a. He has obviously spent a considerable amount of time practicing. b. He must love to play fotball. c. He will perceive the football as bigger than it actually is. d. He will perceive the football as closer than it actually is. ANSWER: c 69. We may perceive a granola bar as less expensive when we are most hungry. This best illustrates that perceptions are influenced by a. subliminal stimulation. b. Weber's law. c. sensory adaptation. ScholarFriends.com d. motivation. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 70. Jennie just lost 30 pounds. When she walks up the stairs at work, a. the stairs will seem difficult to walk up. b. she will view the stairs as steep. c. she will be out of breath by the time she gets to the top of the stairs. d. the stairs will not seem as steep to her now. ANSWER: d 71. While listening to sad rather than happy music, people are more likely to perceive a spoken word as mourning rather than morning. This best illustrates that perception is influenced by a. sensory adaptation. b. subliminal stimuli. c. Weber's law. d. top-down processing. ANSWER: d 72. Loud, dramatic music accompanied a TV scene in which deep-sea divers swam through a shark-infested reef. The fact that the music made the swimming appear more dangerous to viewers illustrates that perceptions are influenced by a. emotion. b. sensory adaptation. c. prosopagnosia. d. subliminal stimulation. ANSWER: a 73. Our eyes receive light energy and ________ it into neural messages. a. transduce b. change c. move d. send ANSWER: a 74. Going outside in the morning, Irishe's eyes receive light energy from the sun. Her eyes then ________ the light energy into neural messages that her brain creates into what she sees. a. transduce b. perceive c. interpret d. understand ANSWER: a 75. Visible light is a section of the Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice a. gamma waves. b. ultraviolet light. c. wavelength. d. spectrum of electromagnetic energy. ANSWER: d 76. Humans experience the longest visible electromagnetic waves as the color ________ and the shortest visible waves as ________. a. blue-violet; red b. red; green c. red; blue-violet d. black; white ANSWER: c 77. At one end of the spectrum of electromagnetic energy are short ________; at the other end are long waves of ________. a. X-rays; ultraviolet rays b. broadcast bands; infrared rays c. radio transmission; gamma waves d. gamma waves; radio transmission ANSWER: c 78. Light's wavelength is defined as the a. height of a light wave. b. distance from one wave peak to the next. c. amount of energy the wave contains. d. brightness of the hue. ANSWER: b 79. The wavelength of visible light determines its a. length; intensity b. hue; wavelength c. length; amplitude d. hue; intensity ANSWER: b 80. A light wave's amplitude is defined as the a. height of a light wave. b. distance from one wave peak to the next. c. amount of energy the wave contains. ScholarFriends.com d. brightness of the hue. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 81. A light wave's intensity is determined by its a. wavelength. b. hue. c. brightness. d. amplitude. ANSWER: d 82. The amount of energy a light wave contains is its a. wavelength. b. hue. c. brightness. d. intensity. ANSWER: d 83. The perceived brightness of visible light waves is determined by their a. relative motion. b. difference threshold. c. amplitude. d. frequency. ANSWER: c 84. Virginia's yellow shirt is extremely bright. This is because it has a. amplitude. b. color. c. pitch. d. wavelength. ANSWER: d 85. On her twentieth birthday, Rose received a bouquet of bright blue flowers. Compared with the entire range of visible light waves, the flowers reflected relatively ________ frequency and ________ amplitude light waves. a. high; small b. high; great c. low; small d. low; great ANSWER: b 86. Which of the following is true of the pupil? a. It is controlled by the iris. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice b. It focuses light rays into an image on the retina. c. it detects fine details and colors. d. it is the central focal point in the retina. ANSWER: a 87. Nicole is talking to her close friend, Sherilyn, whom she trusts. This will be evident in her a. dilated iris. b. retracted cornea. c. constricted iris. d. blind spot. ANSWER: a 88. The amount of light entering the eye is regulated by the a. iris. b. retina. c. optic nerve. d. feature detectors. ANSWER: a 89. The doughnut-shaped iris controls the size of the a. cornea. b. retina. c. optic nerve. d. pupil. ANSWER: d 90. The colored ring of muscle that constricts when you are about to answer No is the a. cornea. b. iris. c. retina. d. fovea. ANSWER: b 91. Chuck and Kamala are both feeling romantic. They are most likely to detect their joint interest by changes in the appearance of their eyes caused by a. curvature changes in the lens. b. dilation of the iris. c. decreased retinal disparity. d. disappearance of the blind spot. ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 92. Chris is reading a message from a Facebook friend. The words he is reading travel through his eye in the following order: a. pupil, lens, cornea, iris. b. cornea, pupil, lens, retina. c. pupil, lens, iris, retina. d. lens, pupil, retina, iris. ANSWER: b 93. Objects are brought into focus on the retina by changes in the curvature and thickness of the a. rods and cones. b. lens. c. bipolar cells. d. optic nerve. ANSWER: b 94. Light first enters the eye through the front surface structure known as the a. fovea. b. pupil. c. cornea. d. retina. ANSWER: c 95. The light-sensitive back inner surface of the eye is called the a. cornea. b. pupil. c. retina. d. iris. ANSWER: c 96. The retina is best described as the a. area where light enters the eye. b. transparent area that focuses light rays into an image on the inner surface of your eye. c. area of your eye where light passes through. d. light-sensitive back inner surface of the eye that contains rods and cones. ANSWER: d 97. Which process allows more light to reach the retina? a. sensory adaptation of the optic nerve b. transduction of the blind spot c. dilation of the iris, which enlarges the pupil ScholarFriends.com d. perceptual adaptation of feature detectors Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 98. Which of the following explains how the upside-down image on the retina produces a right-side-up image? a. The eye's watery fluids bend the light rays, re-inverting the image to an upright position as it reaches the retina. b. The retina receives an upside-down image, and the image is reversed via the eye's watery fluids. c. The millions of receptor cells in the retina convert particles of light energy into neural impulses and forward them to the brain, which reassembles them into an upright image. d. There is no upside-down image on the retina. Rather, the upside-down image is located on the iris. ANSWER: c 99. The encoding and analysis of visual information begin within the neural layers of the a. lens. b. optic nerve. c. retina. d. thalamus. ANSWER: c 100. Which of the following is the correct order in which the retina's neural layers process visual stimulation? a. ganglion cells, rods and cones, bipolar cells b. rods and cones, ganglion cells, bipolar cells c. bipolar cells, ganglion cells, rods and cones d. rods and cones, bipolar cells, ganglion cells ANSWER: d 101. Which of the following are the light-sensitive photoreceptor cells in the retina? a. lens and cornea b. pupil and lens c. rods and cones d. bipolar and ganglion cells ANSWER: c 102. Which cells for visual processing are located closest to the back of the retina? a. ganglion cells b. bipolar cells c. rods and cones d. feature detectors ANSWER: c 103. Neural impulses are transmitted to bipolar cells when light energy triggers ________ in the rods and cones. a. top-down processing ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice b. constriction c. afterimages d. chemical changes ANSWER: d 104. Chemical changes that occur in the rods and cones spark neural signals in the nearby a. ganglion cells. b. optic nerve. c. bipolar cells. d. feature detectors. ANSWER: c 105. Bipolar cells activate neighboring ganglion cells, which combine to form the ________ that proceeds through the thalamus. a. rods b. cones c. retina d. optic nerve ANSWER: d 106. Axons of the ________ twine together to form the ________. a. ganglion cells; optic nerve b. receptor cells; retina c. cones; retina d. supercell clusters; optic nerve ANSWER: a 107. The nerve that carries neural impulses from the eye to the brain is referred to as the a. frontal lobe. b. parietal lobe. c. occipital lobe. d. temporal lobe. ANSWER: c 108. The area of the retina with no receptor cells, called the blind spot, a. is called the fovea. b. contains rods but no cones. c. is located where the optic nerve leaves the eye. d. is where bipolar cells connect with ganglion cells. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 109. Derrick is taking driving lessons. The instructor repeatedly tells him that he should not rely on the rearview mirrors when checking for cars. Rather, he should also turn his head to check for cars because he has a ________ that would prevent him from seeing all the cars. a. optic nerve b. blind spot c. blindsight d. bipolar cell ANSWER: b 110. The fovea refers to a. the outer protective surface of the eye. b. a colored muscle that adjusts light intake. c. an area of the thalamus that receives information from the optic nerve. d. the central focal point in the retina. ANSWER: d 111. The ________ is(are) located in the center of the retina. a. rods b. bipolar cells c. iris d. cones ANSWER: d 112. The direct link between a single cone and a single ________ preserves the fine details in the cone's message. a. rod b. ganglion cell c. blind spot d. bipolar cell ANSWER: d 113. The ________ are retinal cells that have a direct link to the brain, whereas several ________ must combine to send a message to the brain. a. rods; cones b. ganglion cells; bipolar cells c. bipolar cells; ganglion cells d. cones; rods ANSWER: d 114. Which photoreceptor cells most directly enable us to distinguish different wavelengths of light? a. rods ScholarFriends.com b. cones Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice c. bipolar cells d. feature detectors ANSWER: b 115. Blake is attending a light show and enjoying all the beautiful colors being projected against the wall. Which of the following helps give rise to the color sensations that Blake sees? a. the fovea b. rods c. cones d. the blind spot ANSWER: c 116. Which of the following can detect white and enable you to perceive color during the day? a. rods b. the fovea c. the iris d. cones ANSWER: d 117. Which of the following has a low sensitivity to dim light? a. rods b. the fovea c. the iris d. cones ANSWER: d 118. Damage to the fovea would probably have the LEAST effect on visual sensitivity to ________ stimuli. a. brilliantly colored b. finely detailed c. dimly illuminated d. highly familiar ANSWER: c 119. Rods are a. more light-sensitive and more color-sensitive than are cones. b. less light-sensitive and less color-sensitive than are cones. c. more light-sensitive and less color-sensitive than are cones. d. less light-sensitive and more color-sensitive than are cones. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com 120. Which cells in the retina detect black, white, and gray, and are sensitive to movement? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice a. cones b. rods c. ganglion cells d. bipolar cells ANSWER: b 121. The retina's ganglion axons form the ________, which runs to the ________, where the axons pass messages to other neurons that run to the visual cortex. a. optic nerve, thalamus b. fovea; thalamus c. optic nerve; visual cortex d. fovea; visual cortex ANSWER: a 122. When we are exposed to the narrow band of wavelengths visible to the human eye, we see a red object as red because it rejects wavelengths of a. blue-violet light. b. red light. c. green light. d. yellow light. ANSWER: b 123. Who first hypothesized that the eye must have three different types of color receptors, with each especially sensitive to one of the three primary colors? a. Eleanor Gibson and Richard Walk b. David Hubel and Torsten Wiesel c. Thomas Young and Hermann von Helmholtz d. John Locke and Immanuel Kant ANSWER: c 124. Evidence that some cones are especially sensitive to red light, others to green light, and still others to blue light is most directly supportive of the Young-Helmholtz a. feature detection theory. b. trichromatic theory. c. dissociation theory. d. opponent-process theory. ANSWER: b 125. Alexandra has just completed a school assignment on color processing and is explaining to her brother that three primary colors can produce the perception of any color. Alexandra is referring to the ________ theory of color processing. ScholarFriends.com a. Young-Helmholtz trichromatic Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice b. opponent-process c. sensory perceptual processing d. parallel processing ANSWER: a 126. According to the Young-Helmholtz theory, when both red-sensitive and green-sensitive cones are stimulated simultaneously, a person should see a. red. b. yellow. c. blue. d. green. ANSWER: b 127. A genetically sex-linked condition accounts for the greater incidence of a. retinal disparity among females than among males. b. visual afterimages among males than among females. c. blind spots among females than among males. d. color-deficient vision among males than among females. ANSWER: d 128. Color-deficient vision is characterized by a. trichromatic visual processing. b. limited receptor cells in the eye. c. a lack of ability to bend light to provide focus during visual processing. d. a lack of functioning red- or green-sensitive cones, or both. ANSWER: d 129. Guarav has just been to the optometrist and has been told that he has color-deficient vision. This means that he a. has overfunctioning red- and green-sensitive cones. b. lacks functioning red- or green-sensitive rods. c. has overfunctioning red- and green-sensitive rods. d. lacks functioning red- or green-sensitive cones. ANSWER: d 130. People with color-deficient vision for red and green may still see yellow. This is most easily explained by a. the Young-Helmholtz theory. b. Weber's law. c. dissociation theory. d. the opponent-process theory. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 131. Ewald Hering found a clue to the mystery of color vision in a. color constancy. b. afterimages. c. retinal disparity. d. the Moon illusion. ANSWER: b 132. Which of the following theories proposes that opposing retinal processes enable color vision? a. retina and the thalamus. b. cornea and the lens. c. lens and the retina. d. thalamus and the hypothalamus. ANSWER: a 133. According to the opponent-process theory, cells that are turned "on" by a. green light are turned "off" by blue light. b. yellow light are turned "off" by red light. c. green light are turned "off" by red light. d. red light are turned "off" by blue light. ANSWER: c 134. Simona is at a lecture on color vision. The speaker shows a solid red square on the projector and asks students to stare at the red square for 30 seconds. When the 30 seconds have passed, the speaker then shows a blank white screen. Simona sees a greed square that is not actually on the screen. The speaker has just demonstrated a. opposite colors. b. afterimages. c. transduction. d. intensity. ANSWER: b 135. Which of the following is NOT a set of opposing retinal processes, as proposed by the opponent-process theory? a. red-green b. pink-purple c. blue-yellow d. white-black ANSWER: b 136. When most people stare first at a blue circle and then shift their eyes to a white surface, the afterimage of ScholarFriends.com the circle appears Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice a. yellow. b. red. c. green. d. blue. ANSWER: a 137. Color receptors are to ________ as opposing retinal processes are to ________. a. Information processing in the eye and brain is due to opposing retinal processes. b. Information processing in the eye and brain is caused by three different color receptors located in the retina. c. Information processing in the eye and brain is directly related to parallel processing. d. Information processing in the eye and brain occurs in two stages. ANSWER: d 138. The current understanding of color processing is that it occurs in two stages, thus confirming a. Gestalt theories and dissociation theory. b. Gibson and Walk's theory and Hubel and Wiesel's theory. c. both the Young-Helmholtz theory and Hering's opponent-process theory. d. both Kant and Locke's views of perceptin. ANSWER: c 139. Feature detectors were first identified by a. Ewald Hering. b. Hermann von Helmholtz and Thomas Young. c. Eleanor Gibson and Richard Walk. d. David Hubel and Torsten Wiesel. ANSWER: d 140. Hubel and Wiesel discovered nerve cells in the occipital lobe's visual cortex that respond to specific aspects of a stimulus. These are called a. cones. b. ganglion cells. c. rods. d. feature detectors. ANSWER: d 141. Visual information is processed by a. feature detectors before it is processed by rods and cones. b. ganglion cells before it is processed by feature detectors. c. bipolar cells before it is processed by rods and cones. ScholarFriends.com d. feature detectors before it is processed by bipolar cells. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 142. The feature detectors identified by Hubel and Wiesel consist of a. nerve cells in the brain. b. rods and cones. c. bipolar cells. d. ganglion cells. ANSWER: a 143. The feature detectors identified by Hubel and Wiesel respond to specific aspects of a. a visual scene. b. a musical recording. c. pain sensations. d. familiar odors. ANSWER: a 144. Incoming visual stimuli are processed by feature detectors that are located in the a. somatosensory cortex. b. frontal and temporal lobes. c. frontal-temporal lobe border. d. occipital lobe's visual cortex. ANSWER: d 145. When a person looks at a triangle, certain brain cells in their visual cortex are more responsive than when they look at a circle. This best illustrates a. retinal disparity. b. feature detection. c. perceptual adaptation. d. priming. ANSWER: b 146. Bill loves to play baseball and is excellent at detecting when the ball is approaching him. This is related to a. transduction. b. feature detection. c. the Young-Helmholtz trichromatic theory. d. opponent-process theory. ANSWER: b 147. Teams of neurons in the cerebral cortex enable us to identify a familiar table by recognizing its unique visual patterns. These neural teams have been called a. optic nerves. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice b. ganglion cells. c. supercell clusters. d. bipolar cells. ANSWER: c 148. Carolyn is driving when she notices that the car in the next lane is drifting into her lane. She quickly moves her car over to avoid being hit as the other driver moves into her lane. Her ability to anticipate the other driver's next move is most likely related to the action of a. supercell clusters. b. afterimages. c. opponent processes. d. her blind spot. ANSWER: a 149. An area of the brain dedicated to the specialized task of recognizing faces is located in the right ________ lobe. a. frontal b. parietal c. occipital d. temporal ANSWER: d 150. Dr. Marigol is conducting a research study that examines how people identify those from similar ethnic backgrounds. When looking at the brain, she should pay attention to the a. thalamus. b. visual cortex. c. optic nerve. d. fusiform face area. ANSWER: d 151. Lin is no longer able to recognize her family's faces. However, she can still recognize other objects, such as tables and chairs. Which area of Lin's brain was most likely damaged? a. frontal lobes b. fusiform face area c. hippocampus d. hypothalamus ANSWER: b 152. If the ________ of the temporal lobe is stimulated, a person might spontaneously see faces. a. supercell clusters b. fusiform face area ScholarFriends.com c. hippocampus Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice d. hypothalamus ANSWER: b 153. Processing distinct bits of information in different areas of the brain at the same time is known as a. interposition. b. perceptual adaptation. c. parallel processing. d. feature detection. ANSWER: c 154. When 6-year-old Elsa hears noises overhead, she looks up. Her brain simultaneously processes information about the object's color, movement, form, and depth. "Look, it's bird!" she cries. This recognition involves a. interposition. b. Weber's law. c. perceptual adaptation. d. parallel processing. ANSWER: d 155. The ability to speedily recognize familiar objects best illustrates the value of a. closure. b. afterimages. c. retinal disparity. d. parallel processing. ANSWER: d 156. Early in the twentieth century, some German psychologists noticed that people tend to organize visual sensations into a(n) a. parallel process. b. monocular cue. c. afterimage. d. gestalt. ANSWER: d 157. Which of the following psychologists would believe that, in perception, the whole may exceed the sum of its parts? a. gestalt psychologist b. psychophysicist c. social psychologist d. perceptual psychologist ANSWER: a ScholarFriends.com

158. A gestalt is best described as a(n) Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice a. binocular cue. b. illusion. c. organized whole. d. linear perspective. ANSWER: c 159. The Necker cube, in which eight hexagons, each with three white lines meeting near their center, illustrates the Gestalt saying that a. all aspects of vision live not in the objects themselves but in the theater of our brain. b. in perception, the whole may exceed the sum of its parts. c. perception is more innate than learned. d. our brain is sometimes tricked into believing what it is not seeing. ANSWER: b 160. Our shifting perceptions of a Necker cube best illustrate the importance of a. color constancy. b. retinal disparity. c. perceptual adaptation. d. top-down processing. ANSWER: d 161. The organizational rules identified by Gestalt psychologists illustrate that a. perception is the same as sensation. b. we learn to perceive the world through experience. c. the perceived whole may exceed the sum of its parts. d. sensation has no effect on perception. ANSWER: c 162. Jerome is shown a Necker cube and asked what he sees. He responds that he sees a cube. This supports the idea of gestalt psychologists that a. the whole may exceed the sum of its parts. b. we process many aspects of a stimulus simultaneously. c. the visual cortex responds to specific features of a stimulus. d. the eye's lens changes shape to focus objects on the retina. ANSWER: a 163. The perception of an object as distinct from its surroundings is called a. linear perspective. b. perceptual constancy. c. figure-ground perception. ScholarFriends.com d. interposition. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 164. A person visually perceiving words as separate from the surrounding screen on which they appear, best illustrates a. retinal disparity. b. figure-ground perception. c. visual afterimage. d. perceptual adaptation. ANSWER: b 165. Avery is at the movies with her friend Luna. As they sit in the movie theater, when Luna talks to her and she attends to Luna, Luna's words become the a. figure. b. ground. c. set. d. group. ANSWER: a 166. Delilah is reading a novel. Which of the following would be considered the ground in the novel she is reading? a. the cover of the book b. the words on the pages c. the white of the paper d. the table of contents ANSWER: c 167. As the airplane descended for a landing, the pilot saw several beautiful islands that appeared to float in a vast expanse of blue ocean water. In this instance, the ocean is a a. figure. b. binocular cue. c. ground. d. perceptual adaptation. ANSWER: c 168. Figure is to ground as ________ is to ________. a. form; substance b. looking up; looking down c. sensation; perception d. a star; dark sky ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice a. inserting. b. feature detecting. c. combining. d. grouping. ANSWER: d 170. The tendency to hear the steady drip of a leaky sink faucet as if it were a repeating rhythm of two or more beats best illustrates a. interposition. b. perceptual organization. c. relative motion. d. perceptual adaptation. ANSWER: b 171. The perceptual tendency to group together stimuli that are near one another is called a. interposition. b. perceptual constancy. c. proximity. d. closure. ANSWER: c 172. Bosco, Johann, and Carlington are sitting at the same table in the cafeteria, so Angela perceived that they were friends. This best illustrates the organizational principle of a. proximity. b. interposition. c. closure. d. continuity. ANSWER: a 173. The principles of continuity and closure best illustrate that a. sensations are organized into meaningful patterns. b. perception is the direct product of sensation. c. cultural experiences shape perception. d. retinal disparity enables three-dimensional perceptions. ANSWER: a 174. The perception of the letter "t" as two intersecting lines rather than as four nonintersecting lines illustrates the principle of a. linear perspective. b. proximity. ScholarFriends.com c. closure. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice d. continuity. ANSWER: d 175. While playing a pirate treasure game with his brother, Arsan sees the "X" on the treasure map as two lines that cross rather than four individual lines. Arsan is demonstrating the gestalt principle of a. linear perspective. b. proximity. c. closure. d. continuity. ANSWER: d 176. The perceptual tendency to fill in gaps in order to perceive disconnected parts as a whole object is called a. interposition. b. closure. c. continuity. d. proximity. ANSWER: b 177. Although the sounds of traffic outside her window briefly overpowered the sound of the music in her earbuds, Hayley mentally filled in the missing words in the familiar music. This best illustrates the principle of a. proximity. b. closure. c. perceptual constancy. d. interposition. ANSWER: b 178. When hearing the words "eel is on the wagon," you would likely perceive the first word as "wheel." Given "eel is on the orange," you would likely perceive the first word as "peel." This context effect best illustrates the organizational principle of a. proximity. b. interposition. c. closure. d. parallel processing. ANSWER: c 179. The ability to see objects in three dimensions is most essential for making judgments of a. continuity. b. distance. c. sensory interaction. d. color constancy. ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 180. Oriol is standing on the front porch of his house and sees his mother and sister walking toward him. He quickly realizes that his sister is walking ahead of his mother. This best illustrates Michelle's capacity for a. retinal disparity. b. closure. c. depth perception. d. sensory adaptation. ANSWER: c 181. The visual cliff is a laboratory device for testing ________ in infants. a. size constancy b. light wave amplitude c. depth perception d. perceptual adaptation ANSWER: c 182. Experiments using a visual cliff to test for depth perception in infants were conducted by a. Hering. b. Young and Helmholtz. c. Gibson and Walk. d. Gestalt psychologists. ANSWER: c 183. Rob does not know whether his 10-month-old daughter can perceive depth well enough to avoid crawling over the edge of the outdoor trampoline. Researchers could safely assess his daughter's perceptual ability using a. a visual afterimage. b. a Necker cube. c. a visual cliff. d. the Moon illusion. ANSWER: c 184. Most infants who were exposed to the visual cliff a. tried to climb up the cliff if their mother was at the top. b. gave no evidence that they could perceive depth. c. refused to cross the glass over the cliff to their mothers. d. eagerly crossed to their mothers by means of the "bridge" provided. ANSWER: c 185. Karen Adolph found that crawling, no matter when it begins, increases an infant's fear of heights. This demonstrates that a. parallel processing is involved in depth perception. b. depth perception in infancy is related toScholarFriends.com grouping. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice c. infant learning increases their ability to perceive depth. d. infant motion perception decreases their depth perception. ANSWER: c 186. Depth perception that uses information transmitted to both eyes depends on a. visual afterimages. b. binocular cues. c. shape constancy. d. monocular cues. ANSWER: b 187. The inward angle of the eyes focusing on a near object is referred to as a. depth perception. b. grouping. c. parallel processing. d. convergence. ANSWER: d 188. Retinal disparity is an important cue for a. perceiving color. b. shape constancy. c. perceiving distance. d. brightness constancy. ANSWER: c 189. Retinal disparity refers to the a. tendency to see parallel lines as coming together in the distance. b. tendency to see stimuli that are near each other as parts of a unified object. c. somewhat different images our two eyes receive of the same object. d. inability to distinguish figure from ground. ANSWER: c 190. Holding two index fingers about 5 inches (12 centimeters) in front of the eyes with their tips about half an inch (1 centimeter) apart can create the perception of a floating finger sausage. This best illustrates the effect of a. relative height. b. retinal disparity. c. interposition. d. relative motion. ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com 191. Agnes finds it difficult to hit a baseball because she was born blind in her left eye. Her difficulty can best Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice be attributed to her lack of the depth cue known as a. proximity. b. interposition. c. retinal disparity. d. linear perspective. ANSWER: c 192. Monocular cues to depth perception a. are based on the distance between the two eyes. b. use information transmitted to both eyes. c. depend on the object's distance from the perceiver. d. use information transmitted to only one eye. ANSWER: d 193. Indicators of distance such as interposition and linear perspective are a. visual cliffs. b. feature detectors. c. monocular cues. d. cataracts. ANSWER: c 194. Relative height is a cue involving our perception of objects higher in our field of vision as a. brighter. b. farther away. c. hazier. d. smaller. ANSWER: b 195. Brenda is painting a picture of the forest. She is painting some trees as smaller than others, which should lead viewers to interpret those trees as farther away. This is an example of a. relative height. b. perceptual constancy. c. relative motion. d. perceptual adaptation. ANSWER: a 196. Jeremy is drawing a picture of a restaurant and is attempting to show that some tables and chairs are closer to the viewer than others. He can do this by taking advantage of which monocular cue? a. relative size b. perceptual constancy ScholarFriends.com c. relative motion Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice d. perceptual adaptation ANSWER: a 197. If two objects are assumed to be the same size, the object that casts the smaller retinal image is perceived to be a. moving faster. b. less hazy. c. more distant. d. closer. ANSWER: c 198. If you stared at a house as you walked down a street, the trees in front of the house would appear to be moving a. in the opposite direction to you, and the trees behind the house would appear to be moving in the opposite direction as you. b. in the same direction as you, and the trees behind the house would appear to be moving in the opposite direction to you. c. in the same direction as you, and the trees behind the house would appear to be moving in the same direction as you. d. in the opposite direction to you, and the trees behind the house would appear to be moving in the same direction as you. ANSWER: d 199. As Ines sits in her parked car waiting for her son to come out of school, the car beside her begins to back out to leave. When that happens, Ines feels as though her car is moving. This is related to a. relative motion. b. relative size. c. interposition. d. linear perspective. ANSWER: a 200. Based on ________, when parallel lines appear to meet in the distance, the sharper the angle of convergence the greater the perceived distance. a. relative height b. linear perspective c. interposition d. relative motion ANSWER: b 201. As Yanis looks down the two-lane highway, the lanes appear to converge in the distance. This provides him with a distance cue known as ScholarFriends.com a. proximity. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice b. linear perspective. c. closure. d. continuity. ANSWER: b 202. The monocular depth cue in which an object blocking another object is perceived as closer is a. interposition. b. relative height. c. continuity. d. linear perspective. ANSWER: a 203. Which of the following is a cue used by artists to convey depth on a flat canvas? a. proximity b. continuity c. interposition d. closure ANSWER: c 204. Mario sees three trucks coming toward him: a red truck, a blue truck, and a green truck. The blue truck is partially blocking the green truck. Based on the information provided, which truck will Mario perceive as closer? a. blue car b. yellow car c. red truck d. It is not possible to determine which auto is closer based on the information provided. ANSWER: c 205. The retinal image of an object increases as the object approaches. This is especially important for perceiving the object's a. shape. b. motion. c. weight. d. color. ANSWER: b 206. Dale is tossing a Frisbee to his dog. His retinal image of the dog grew increasingly smaller Dale most likely perceived the dog to be changing in its a. size. b. color. c. shape. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice d. distance. ANSWER: d 207. When large and small objects move at the same speed a. small objects appear to move more slowly. b. large objects appear to move more slowly. c. large objects appear to move more quickly. d. both objects appear to move at the same speed. ANSWER: b 208. Perceiving objects as unchanging even as illumination and retinal images change is known as a. interposition. b. linear perspective. c. perceptual constancy. d. parallel processing. ANSWER: c 209. Our capacity for perceptual constancy even as illumination and retinal image change illustrates the importance of a. difference thresholds. b. proximity. c. top-down processing. d. closure. ANSWER: c 210. Who argued for an ecological approach to perception, in which our perceptions depend on an object's context. a. Karen Adolph b. Eleanor Gibson c. James Gibson d. Richard Walk ANSWER: c 211. James Gibson argued for an ecological approach to perception, in which our perceptions depend on a. an object's distance from us. b. an object's context. c. the hue of the object. d. the intensity of the object. ANSWER: b 212. Color constancy refers to the fact that Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice a. light waves reflected by an object remain constant despite changes in lighting. b. objects are perceived to be the same color even if the light they reflect changes. c. the perceived color of an object has a constant relation to its brightness. d. the frequency of light waves is directly proportional to the light's wavelength. ANSWER: b 213. To Gina, the paper in her lecture notebook has the same level of brightness regardless of the lighting where she is when reviewing her notes. This is an example of a. shape constancy. b. perceptual adaptation. c. relative size. d. brightness constancy. ANSWER: d 214. To experience color constancy, we should view things a. from very short distances. b. for long periods of time. c. under low levels of illumination. d. in relation to surrounding objects. ANSWER: d 215. Carla's horse looks as dark brown outdoors in the bright sun as it does in the dimly lit stable. This illustrates what is known as a. interposition. b. parallel processing. c. color constancy. d. continuity. ANSWER: c 216. Although open books cast a trapezoidal image on the retina, readers typically perceive the books as rectangular objects. This illustrates the importance of a. size constancy. b. linear perspective. c. shape constancy. d. binocular cues. ANSWER: c 217. Your retinal image of a racing greyhound increases as the dog runs toward you. However, you will not see the dog as growing larger. This best illustrates the importance of a. sensory adaptation. b. size constancy. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice c. closure. d. relative motion. ANSWER: b 218. The perceived size of an object is most strongly influenced by that object's perceived a. shape. b. color. c. distance. d. motion. ANSWER: c 219. Vicki is 2 years old and loves riding in cars and playing in them. She even tries to get into her toy cars. Her perception, which is normal for 2-year-olds, is directly related to a. shape constancy. b. color constancy. c. relative size. d. size constancy. ANSWER: d 220. When the Moon is near the horizon, it appears larger than when it is high in the sky. This effect is primarily a result of a. the slightly dimmer appearance of the horizon Moon. b. the scattering of the horizon Moon's light waves, which penetrate the atmosphere at an angle. c. monocular distance cues, which make the horizon Moon seem farther away. d. the brighter appearance of the horizon Moon. ANSWER: c 221. Knowing about the effects of the perceived distance of objects on their perceived size helps us to understand a. the Moon illusion. b. the opponent-process theory. c. shape constancy. d. sensory adaptation. ANSWER: a 222. Who emphasized that perceptual understanding comes from inborn ways of organizing sensory experience? a. Immanuel Kant b. Aristotle c. John Locke d. Sigmund Freud ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 223. Professor Neisen argues that knowledge comes from our inborn ways of organizing sensory experiences. This is consistent with the views of a. William Molyneux. b. James Gibson. c. John Locke. d. Immanuel Kant. ANSWER: d 224. The ability of newborn infants to perceive depth best serves to support the views of a. John Locke. b. Immanuel Kant. c. Sigmund Freud. d. Aristotle. ANSWER: b 225. The philosopher John Locke believed that people a. learn to perceive the world through experience. b. are endowed at birth with perceptual skills. c. perceive whole figures as greater than the sum of their parts. d. are unable to adapt to an inverted visual world. ANSWER: a 226. Dr. Davis believes that it is through our experiences that we learn to perceive the world. This is consistent with the ideas of a. William Molyneux. b. James Gibson. c. John Locke. d. Immanuel Kant. ANSWER: c 227. John Locke is to Immanuel Kant as ________ is to ________. a. figure; ground b. perception; sensation c. nurture; nature d. experience; learning ANSWER: c 228. A clouding of the lens of the eye is called a a. blind spot. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice b. cataract. c. fovea. d. gestalt. ANSWER: b 229. Eko had been blind from birth. Immediately after cataract surgery, he could tell the difference between figure and ground and could sense colors. This fact would serve to support the position advanced by a. Immanuel Kant. b. Thomas Young. c. Ewald Hering. d. John Locke. ANSWER: a 230. If an adult who was blind from birth gains the ability to see, that person would have the greatest difficulty visually distinguishing a. peaches from tennis balls. b. the Sun from the Moon. c. blue from yellow. d. a white star from the black sky. ANSWER: a 231. Theresa was born with cataracts that were not surgically removed until she was 3 years old. As a result, Theresa is most likely to a. have lost photoreceptor cells in her eyes. b. be unable to perceive figure-ground relationships. c. have inadequate neural connections in her brain's visual cortex. d. be unable to sense colors. ANSWER: c 232. Researchers outfitted infant kittens and monkeys with goggles through which they could see only unpatterned light. When their vision was restored, the animals a. behaved much like humans with glaucoma. b. could distinguish form but not color. c. no longer had healthy eyes. d. remained functionally blind to shape. ANSWER: d 233. Sensory restriction is much more likely to hinder visual development in early infancy than during other times of life. This suggests that there is a(n) ________ for normal visual development. a. difference threshold b. retinal disparity ScholarFriends.com c. critical period Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice d. blind spot ANSWER: c 234. Ryno was born with cataracts, which were not surgically removed until he was 8 years old. As a result, he never gained full visual abilities. What is the best explanation for this? a. There is no best explanation for this as Miguel should have developed normal vision after surgical removal of the cataracts. b. Unfortunately, cataracts were not the only reason that Miguel's vision was impaired. c. It seems as though the cortical cells in Miguel's brain developed multiple connections, which were related to vision impairment after surgical removal of cataracts. d. Unfortunately, Miguel missed the critical period for visual exposure in order to develop normal vision. ANSWER: d 235. The ability to adjust to changed sensory input is called a. retinal disparity. b. sensory interaction. c. perceptual adaptation. d. shape constancy. ANSWER: c 236. Research with distorting goggles best supports the view of human perception advanced by a. John Locke. b. Hermann von Helmholtz. c. Immanuel Kant. d. Ewald Hering. ANSWER: a 237. In an experiment, Denys was given a pair of glasses that shifted the apparent location of objects 40 degrees to the left. However, after a short practice session Denys was still able to play tennis very effectively. This best illustrates the value of a. linear perspective. b. shape constancy. c. retinal disparity. d. perceptual adaptation. ANSWER: d 238. Kelly was recently outfitted with a new pair of glasses. At first he felt dizzy, but after a few days he felt fine while wearing the glasses and appreciated his corrected vision. This demonstrates a. perceptual constancy. b. sensory restriction. ScholarFriends.com c. perceptual adaptation. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice d. perceptual interpretation. ANSWER: c 239. Our sense of hearing is known as a. the vestibular sense. b. kinesthesia. c. audition. d. tinnitus. ANSWER: c 240. The process of transforming air pressure waves into neural messages that the brain interprets as meaningful sound is known as a. sensory interaction. b. the vestibular sense. c. kinesthesia. d. audition. ANSWER: d 241. Adults with significant hearing loss a. usually hear higher voices better than deeper voices. b. are troubled by the constant hiss from the movement of air molecules. c. react to a sudden sound much faster than they respond to a sudden vision. d. experience an increased risk of depression and anxiety. ANSWER: c 242. Brightness is to light as ________ is to sound. a. pitch b. loudness c. frequency d. wavelength ANSWER: b 243. A sound wave's ________, or height, determines its loudness. a. length b. brightness c. transduction d. amplitude ANSWER: d 244. Amit is at a concert. The loudness of the sounds he hears are due to the height, or ________, of the sound waves. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice a. length b. brightness c. transduction d. amplitude ANSWER: d 245. Mihaela is listening to a concert on her iPad. The sound of the singer's voice is low-pitched, which means that the a. sound waves have great amplitude. b. wavelengths are short. c. sound waves have small amplitude. d. wavelengths are long. ANSWER: d 246. The number of complete wavelengths that pass a point in a given time is referred to as the wave's a. frequency. b. audition. c. pitch. d. wavelength. ANSWER: a 247. The high notes from a cello always produce ________ sound waves than the low notes. a. greater-amplitude b. smaller-amplitude c. higher-frequency d. lower-frequency ANSWER: c 248. High-frequency sound waves are to ________ as low-frequency sound waves are to ________. a. a loud voice; a soft voice b. a high-pitched voice; a low-pitched voice c. a soft voice; a loud voice d. a low-pitched voice; a high-pitched voice ANSWER: b 249. The pitch of sound is determined by the sound wave's a. intensity. b. amplitude. c. wavelength. d. frequency. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 250. A tone's experienced highness or lowness is referred to as its a. frequency. b. audition. c. pitch. d. wavelength. ANSWER: c 251. The frequency of sound waves, which is ________, determines their pitch. a. measured in decibels b. measured in hertz c. examined using amplitude d. examined using receptors ANSWER: b 252. Edgar is 9 years old and his voice has not yet changed to the lower pitch of most teen males. The pitch of Edgar's voice is determined by the ________ of the sound waves. a. frequency b. amplitude c. height d. width ANSWER: a 253. Sound intensity is measured in a. endorphins. b. amps. c. decibels. d. hertz. ANSWER: c 254. The lowest level of sound detectable by human ears is defined as zero a. decibels. b. amps. c. ESPs. d. hertz. ANSWER: a 255. Prolonged exposure to sounds above ________ decibels is related to hearing loss. a. 10 b. 35 ScholarFriends.com c. 85 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice d. 110 ANSWER: c 256. Kiril lives fairly close to a major airport. He is standing outside his house when a jet plane passes about 500 feet overhead. This will likely register at about a. 10 decibels. b. 30 decibels. c. 50 decibels. d. 110 decibels. ANSWER: d 257. In 2017, the University of Kentucky broke the Guinness World Record for the noisiest indoor stadium at ________ decibels. a. 60 b. 85 c. 126 d. 152 ANSWER: c 258. After a sound passes through the auditory canal, it first strikes a tight membrane to vibrate. This membrane is called the a. basilar membrane. b. oval window. c. eardrum. d. vestibular sac. ANSWER: c 259. The bones of the middle ear relay vibrations received from the a. cochlea. b. eardrum. c. vestibular sacs. d. semicircular canals. ANSWER: b 260. The chamber between the eardrum and cochlea containing three tiny bones that concentrate the vibrations of the eardrum on the cochlea's oval window is the a. auditory canal. b. middle ear. c. inner ear. d. semicircular canal. ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 261. Which of the following is NOT one of the three tiny bones in the middle ear? a. malleus b. incus c. basilar d. stapes ANSWER: c 262. Eardrum vibrations are transmitted to the cochlea by a. protruding hair cells. b. the basilar membrane. c. the hammer, anvil, and stirrup. d. vestibular sacs. ANSWER: c 263. Incoming vibrations cause the cochlea's ________ to vibrate. a. oval window b. basilar membrane c. hammer d. anvil ANSWER: a 264. The cochlea's membrane-covered opening is the a. malleus. b. incus. c. basilar membrane. d. oval window. ANSWER: d 265. In the process of transforming sound waves into nerve impulses that our brain interprets, vibrations of the ________ send ripples through the fluid that is located inside the ________. a. hammer; inner ear b. oval window; cochlea c. anvil; eardrum d. middle ear; cochlea ANSWER: b 266. Membrane-covered opening is to ________ as fluid-filled tube is to ________. a. basilar membrane; auditory nerve b. oval window; cochlea c. middle ear; auditory nerve ScholarFriends.com d. auditory cortex; inner ear Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 267. Cochlea is the name for a. interconnected nerve fibers in the spinal cord. b. a fluid-filled tube in the inner ear. c. olfactory receptor cells at the top of each nasal cavity. d. neural networks located within each temporal lobe. ANSWER: b 268. The ________ is a snail-shaped tube in the inner ear. a. cochlea b. hammer c. anvil d. stirrup ANSWER: a 269. The cochlea is located in the a. inner ear. b. middle ear. c. basilar membrane. d. oval window. ANSWER: a 270. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events regarding incoming vibrations and audition? a. nerve cells hair cells oval window auditory nerve b. basilar membrane auditory nerve oval window nerve cells c. hair cells nerve cells auditory nerve oval window d. oval window basilar membrane hair cells nerve cells auditory nerve ANSWER: d 271. The surface of the basilar membrane is lined with a. hair cells. b. olfactory receptors. c. nociceptors. d. decibels. ANSWER: a 272. Which of the following is located on the tips of hair cells in the inner ear? a. cilia b. hammer ScholarFriends.com c. anvil Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice d. stirrup ANSWER: a 273. Movement of the hair cells lining the basilar membrane trigger impulses in nerve cells, whose axons combine to form the a. oval window. b. auditory cortex. c. auditory nerve. d. semicircular canals. ANSWER: c 274. Sharat hears the sounds of the video game her sister is playing in the den. This sound is transmitted from Sharat's ear to her brain's temporal lobe by the a. cochlea. b. inner ear. c. auditory nerve. d. basilar membrane. ANSWER: c 275. On the way to the temporal lobe's auditory cortex, neural impulses from the auditory nerve are first relayed to the a. thalamus. b. amygdala. c. hippocampus. d. hypothalamus. ANSWER: a 276. Margery is experiencing hearing loss. She is not alone, as ________ people worldwide have this experience. a. 105,000 b. 1 million c. 10 million d. 1.57 billion ANSWER: d 277. Damage to the cochlea's hair cell receptors is most likely to result in a. phantom limb sensations. b. conduction hearing loss. c. loss of the sense of balance. d. sensorineural hearing loss. ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 278. Nerve deafness is most often called a. auditory nerve damage. b. sensorineural hearing loss. c. conduction hearing loss. d. impaired cochlea. ANSWER: b 279. George is now in his early eighties and has trouble discerning what people are saying, even though he is able to hear the sound of their voices. This may be the result of a. auditory nerve damage. b. a damaged eardrum. c. damage to the auditory cortex. d. impaired cochlea. ANSWER: a 280. As a member of a disco band, Eduardo is constantly exposed to high-amplitude sounds. As a result, Eduardo is beginning to lose his hearing. It is most likely that this hearing loss involves problems in the a. auditory canal. b. eardrum. c. tiny bones of the middle ear. d. cochlea. ANSWER: d 281. Conduction hearing loss is caused by a. damage to the ear's mechanical system. b. damage to the cochlea's receptor cells. c. damage to the auditory nerve. d. damage to the oval window. ANSWER: a 282. Damage to the hammer, anvil, and stirrup is most likely to cause a. dissociation. b. sensorineural hearing loss. c. phantom limb sensations. d. conduction hearing loss. ANSWER: d 283. Lisa's hearing loss is caused by damage to the mechanical system that conducts sound waves to the cochlea. She is experiencing a. sensorineural hearing loss. b. auditory cortex damage. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice c. conduction hearing loss. d. a cochlear implant. ANSWER: c 284. Patrick, who is 60 years old, has been told by an audiologist that he has conduction hearing loss. It is likely that Patrick's hearing loss involves problems in the a. inner ear. b. middle ear. c. auditory nerve. d. basilar membrane. ANSWER: b 285. Dennis is in his late teens and already suffers from hearing loss. Which of the following is a likely cause? a. watching online videos b. getting excited and yelling while playing video games c. listening to loud music through headphones d. using a cell phone to make phone calls ANSWER: c 286. Ringing in the ears after exposure to loud music is most likely to be caused by damage to a. nociceptors. b. hair cells. c. cochlear implants. d. bipolar cells. ANSWER: b 287. A cochlear implant converts sounds into a. decibels. b. electrical signals. c. air pressure changes. d. fluid vibrations. ANSWER: b 288. Which of the following best explains why a cochlear implant may NOT work? a. Hearing has a critical period. b. The implants are only effective for sensorineural hearing loss. c. The implants do not work for conduction hearing loss. d. The middle ear is damaged when there is hearing loss. ANSWER: a 289. A time lag between sound waves striking ScholarFriends.com our left and right ears is important for accurately Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice a. locating sounds. b. detecting pitch. c. recognizing rhythms. d. judging amplitude. ANSWER: a 290. Cocking your head would be most useful for detecting the ________ of a sound. a. pitch b. loudness c. location d. amplitude ANSWER: c 291. Millie hears music coming from a nearby radio. To determine where the radio is located, she first tilts her head to the right, then to the left. She does this because a. the closer ear will receive a less intense sound. b. the closer ear will receive the sound first. c. the ear that is farther away will barely hear the sound. d. the ear that is farther away will hear a louder sound. ANSWER: b 292. Premature human babies gain weight faster if they are stimulated by a. blinking lights. b. rhythmic sounds. c. hand massage. d. phantom limb sensations. ANSWER: c 293. The sense of touch includes the four basic sensations of a. pleasure, pain, warmth, and cold. b. pain, pressure, hot, and cold. c. wetness, pain, hot, and cold. d. pressure, pain, warmth, and cold. ANSWER: d 294. Stroking side-by-side pressure spots is most likely to trigger a sense of a. being tickled. b. itchiness. c. tinnitus. d. synesthesia. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 295. Jessica is tickling her younger sister Ashlyn. The tickling sensation felt by Ashlyn is caused by a. Jessica touching adjacent pressure spots. b. the large fibers that travel up her spine. c. Ashlyn experiencing phantom limb sensations. d. Ashlyn experiencing dissociation from her environment. ANSWER: a 296. A cold metal necklace that touches side-by-side cold and pressure spots on your neck is most likely to trigger a sense of a. wetness. b. itchiness. c. tinnitus. d. synesthesia. ANSWER: a 297. Five-year-old Trudy loves it when her mother tickles her. However, her mother is busy working on the computer now, so Trudy decides to tickle herself instead. But when she tickles herself, she doesn't feel tickled. Why is this? a. Trudy's somatosensory cortex is experiencing increased activation. b. Trudy misses her mother. c. The social influences related to the tickle monster game are missing. d. Trudy's thinking influences her brain's response to sensory stimuli. ANSWER: d 298. As a child, Wayne lacked the ability to feel pain. While this was great as a child, now as an adult he is a. at risk for severe injury. b. at risk for an early death. c. at risk for severe injury or early death. d. not at risk for severe injury or early death. ANSWER: c 299. The biopsychosocial approach to pain is likely to emphasize the importance of both a. top-down and bottom-up processing. b. precognition and synesthesia. c. kinesthesia and psychokinesis. d. telepathy and clairvoyance. ANSWER: a 300. Sensory receptors in our skin that detect hurtful temperatures, pressure, or chemicals are called a. vestibular sacs. ScholarFriends.com b. hair cells. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice c. nociceptors. d. olfactory nerves. ANSWER: c 301. In response to a hurtful stimulus, the sensations produced by your ________ are processed by your brain's ________, which then produce your perception of pain. a. endorphins; temporal lobe b. nociceptors; neural networks c. olfactory receptor cells; neural networks d. semicircular canals; feature detectors ANSWER: b 302. Shannon just broke her leg and is in pain. Her level of pain is NOT likely to be influenced by her a. Women are less sensitive to pain than are men. b. Those who fear pain the most tend to feel pain the most. c. Pain is triggered by a specific type of stimulus. d. People who carry a gene that boosts the normal supply of endorphins are more responsive to pain. ANSWER: b 303. Men's sense of hearing tends to be ________ sensitive than women's, and women are ________ pain sensitive than men. a. more; more b. less; less c. more; less d. less; more ANSWER: d 304. The theory that the spinal cord contains nerve fibers that either conduct or block pain signals is known as the a. volley principle. b. temporal theory. c. place theory. d. gate-control theory. ANSWER: d 305. According to the gate-control theory, a gate in the spinal cord controls the transmission of pain messages to the brain. Which of the following statements is correct? a. Small fibers close the gate, while large fibers open the gate. b. When pain occurs, spinal cord fibers stop transmitting messages. c. Small fibers open the gate, while large fibers close the gate. d. All spinal cord fibers send pain messages to the brain. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 306. Stephanie is in labor and has decided on an epidural as a means of pain management. The epidural contains medication that is injected into the spinal cord and has been proven to be an effective form of pain management for women in labor. Which of the following can best explain this? a. the Young-Helmholtz theory b. the opponent-process theory c. social influence theory d. the gate-control theory ANSWER: d 307. Gloria works as a sales clerk and has to stand most of the day. When she gets home at night, her back is sore, and so her husband offers to give her a back massage to help relieve her back pain. This always helps Gloria, which can best be explained by a. social influence theory b. the Young-Helmholtz theory. c. the opponent-process theory. d. gate-control theory. ANSWER: d 308. Our own natural painkillers are referred to as a. GABA. b. glutamates. c. norepinephrines. d. endorphins. ANSWER: d 309. The brain's release of endorphins reduces a. pain. b. tinnitus. c. kinesthesia. d. sensory interaction. ANSWER: a 310. When Evelyn exercises, her own natural painkillers, or ________, are released. a. GABA b. glutamates c. norepinephrines d. endorphins ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com

311. After receiving a placebo said to reduce the pain of her sprained wrist, Veronica is most likely to respond Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice with a(n) ________ in her brain's release of ________. a. decrease; nociceptors b. decrease; endorphins c. increase; nociceptors d. increase; endorphins ANSWER: d 312. After losing his left leg while on active duty in Vietnam, Jules continued to experience pain in his nonexistent leg. His experience illustrates a. dissociation. b. sensory adaptation. c. phantom limb sensations. d. the McGurk effect. ANSWER: c 313. Which of the following experiences best illustrates the impact of brain activity in the absence of normal sensory input? a. tinnitus b. kinesthesia c. sensory interaction d. psychokinesis ANSWER: a 314. Betty is very hard of hearing and so wears hearing aids in both ears. When she removes them before getting into bed, she hears ringing in her ears. This phantom ringing in the ears is called a. dissociation. b. tinnitus. c. phantom limb sensations. d. the McGurk effect. ANSWER: b 315. Clay has lost his vision to cataracts. Even so, he experiences nonthreatening visual hallucinations referred to as a. phantom sights. b. phantom limb sensations. c. a phantom hand. d. phantom tastes. ANSWER: a 316. After painful medical procedures, people's memory snapshots tend to overlook a. the final moments of pain associated with the procedure. ScholarFriends.com b. the peak moments of pain associated with the procedure. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice c. the total duration of the pain associated with the procedure. d. all of these periods of pain. ANSWER: c 317. Considering psychological influences on pain, physicians with patients undergoing sedation-free colon exams have ________ their discomfort by one minute but ________ its intensity at the end of the procedure. a. shortened; increased b. increased; reduced c. shortened; reduced d. lengthened; lessened ANSWER: d 318. Pain is not only a biological event. It is a product of our attention, our expectations, and our a. ethnicity b. culture. c. gender. d. weight. ANSWER: b 319. We tend to feel more pain when we perceive that others seem to be experiencing pain. This best illustrates the impact of a. synesthesia. b. the McGurk effect. c. phantom limb sensations. d. top-down processing. ANSWER: d 320. By dampening the central nervous system's attention and responses to painful experiences, ________ can help control pain. a. synesthesia b. nociceptors c. bottom-up processing d. placebos ANSWER: d 321. Although Adela sprained her ankle during the early speed skating trials, she is continuing to participate with minimal pain. Adela's pain was psychologically minimized by ________ and physically minimized by the brain's release of ________. a. synesthesia; nociceptors b. distraction; endorphins c. synesthesia; endorphins ScholarFriends.com d. distraction; nociceptors Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 322. For burn victims receiving painful wound care, virtual reality can help to control pain by means of a. synesthesia. b. thought distraction. c. phantom limb sensations. d. kinesthesia. ANSWER: b 323. Virtual reality may be used to control pain because it a. is a placebo. b. alters biological influences on pain. c. serves as a distraction. d. is a form of hypnosis. ANSWER: c 324. Hypnosis involves a state of a. increased physical stamina. b. heightened openness to suggestion. c. improved perceptual skills. d. elevated physical arousal. ANSWER: b 325. A social interaction in which one person suggests to another that certain perceptions, feelings, thoughts, or behaviors will spontaneously occur is called a. hypnosis. b. gate-control theory. c. a placebo. d. social influence. ANSWER: a 326. Research on hypnosis indicates that a. very few people can actually be hypnotized. b. people who are most easily hypnotized usually have difficulty paying attention to their own personal thoughts and feelings. c. how well a person responds to hypnotic suggestion depends primarily on the skill and experience of the hypnotist. d. people who are highly responsive to hypnotic induction are especially imaginative. ANSWER: d 327. Hang is a highly hypnotizable person. This means that she is ScholarFriends.com a. suggestible. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice b. imaginative. c. suggestible and imaginative. d. neither suggestible nor imaginative. ANSWER: c 328. In surgical experiments, hypnotized patients have required ________ medication and they have recovered ________ than patients in unhypnotized control groups. a. less; sooner b. more; later c. less; no sooner d. more; no sooner ANSWER: a 329. One theory suggests that hypnosis simply involves getting caught up in role-playing the feelings and behaviors appropriate for "good hypnotic subjects." This theory emphasizes that hypnosis is a form of a. dissociation. b. synesthesia. c. social influence. d. phantom limb sensation. ANSWER: c 330. Imagine that unhypnotized adults who are asked to behave like they are dancing to jive music dance just as wildly as hypnotized adults who are encouraged to dance in this way. This fact would most clearly support the view that hypnosis involves a. precognition. b. social influence. c. psychokinesis. d. dissociation. ANSWER: b 331. Jerome is in a great deal of pain since the automobile accident. He has decided to try hypnosis as a form of pain treatment and wants to be a good subject during the procedure. When the hypnotist does the procedure, Jerome's pain is reduced. One theory would suggest that Jerome's pain was reduced because of a. precognition. b. social influence. c. psychokinesis. d. dissociation. ANSWER: b 332. A split between normal sensations of pain and conscious awareness of pain is called a. embodied cognition. ScholarFriends.com b. dissociation. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice c. psychokinesis. d. posthypnotic suggestion. ANSWER: b 333. The claim that hypnosis involves a special dual-processing state of mind is associated with the theory that hypnosis involves a. phantom limb sensations. b. dissociation. c. synesthesia. d. role playing. ANSWER: b 334. Ernest Hilgard considered the results of experiments involving pain control as evidence of a split between different levels of consciousness. This split is referred to as a. synesthesia. b. dissociation. c. psychokinesis. d. a phantom limb sensation. ANSWER: b 335. Nethaji is a soldier who has been injured in battle. However, he feels little pain until he reaches the safety of his unit's field position. This is likely related to a. selective attention. b. social influence. c. dissociation. d. posthypnotic suggestion. ANSWER: c 336. A posthypnotic suggestion is made ________ a hypnosis session and intended to be carried out in the future when the subject is ________. a. after; once again hypnotized b. during; once again hypnotized c. after; no longer hypnotized d. during; no longer hypnotized ANSWER: d 337. In an effort to quit drinking, Werner decides to go to a therapist. The therapist tells him that during the next few days he will feel nauseous whenever he drinks alcohol. Werner's therapist was attempting to make use of a. ESP. b. posthypnotic suggestion. c. the McGurk effect. ScholarFriends.com d. phantom limb sensations. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 338. People hypnotized for pain relief may show brain activity in areas that receive sensory information but not in areas that normally process pain-related information. This fact most clearly supports a. social influence theory. b. the McGurk effect. c. claims of extrasensory perception. d. dissociation theory. ANSWER: d 339. Brain scans have shown that hypnosis increases activity in the brain's attention systems. Although hypnosis does not block sensory input, it appears to block our attention to it, lending support to the role of ________ in hypnosis. a. dissociation b. distraction c. selective attention d. social influence ANSWER: c 340. One plausible theory suggests that hypnotic pain relief may result from a. selective attention. b. stereophonic hearing. c. extrasensory perception. d. phantom limb sensations. ANSWER: a 341. Another name for taste is a. gustation. b. audition. c. somatosensation. d. olfaction. ANSWER: a 342. Our sense of taste was once thought to involve only the four sensations of a. sweet, salty, starchy, and bitter. b. salty, fatty, bitter, and sweet. c. sour, bitter, sweet, and starchy. d. bitter, sweet, sour, and salty. ANSWER: d 343. The taste sensation umami is most likely to attract us to foods that are ScholarFriends.com a. sweet. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice b. bitter. c. starchy. d. rich in protein. ANSWER: d 344. Which taste sensation is best experienced as MSG? a. sweet b. sour c. umami d. salty ANSWER: c 345. Aubrey is eating beef and broccoli spiced up with monosodium glutamate. This dish is likely to have a a. strong umami flavor. b. mild bitter taste. c. strong sour taste. d. minimal salty flavor. ANSWER: a 346. The sense of ________ is a chemical sense. a. taste b. kinesthesia c. equilibrium d. pain ANSWER: a 347. Which of the following is an example of how our ancestors may have used taste to survive? a. spitting out a food that tasted unpleasant b. trying a new food several times before learning to like the taste of the food c. enjoying the taste of fresh berries d. breastfeeding offspring until they were around 3 or 4 years old ANSWER: a 348. Jackson is 4 years old and his parents are trying to persuade him to eat the spinach served with dinner. He refuses. His refusal may demonstrate a. the need for eating to bring pleasure. b. the inheritance of biological wisdom related to food toxicity. c. his strive for independence from his mother. d. that he is not hungry right now. ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 349. Sweet flavors tend to a. provide a source of energy. b. be potentially poisonous. c. aid in repairing tissue. d. provide sodium. ANSWER: a 350. Bitter flavors may a. provide a source of energy. b. be potentially poisonous. c. aid in repairing tissue. d. provide sodium. ANSWER: b 351. Sensory receptor cells that project antenna-like hairs are located within a. the eardrum. b. phantom limbs. c. taste buds. d. nociceptors. ANSWER: c 352. Inside each little bump on the top and sides of your tongue are 200 or more taste buds, each containing a pore that a. catches food chemicals. b. releases neurotransmitters. c. catches food chemicals and releases neurotransmitters. d. does not catch food chemicals nor release neurotransmitters. ANSWER: c 353. Interestingly, each of the 50 to 100 receptor cells located in each of our taste bud pores a. responds increasingly to sweet-tasting molecules. b. transmits its message to a matching partner cell in our temporal lobe. c. is present at birth and last our entire lifetime. d. doubles in size as we age. ANSWER: b 354. Receptor cells for our sense of ________ reproduce themselves every week or two. a. body position b. hearing c. taste ScholarFriends.com d. equilibrium Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 355. Margo preferred the taste of the chocolate candy when she thought it cost $10 a pound than when she thought it cost half that much. This best illustrates the impact of a. the McGurk effect. b. top-down processing. c. synesthesia. d. precognition. ANSWER: b 356. The sense of smell is known as a. telepathy. b. the vestibular sense. c. transduction. d. olfaction. ANSWER: d 357. Which of the following senses is best described as a chemical sense? a. kinesthesia b. audition c. equilibrium d. smell ANSWER: d 358. The olfactory receptors are activated by a. nociceptors. b. phantom limb sensations. c. airborne molecules. d. the basilar membrane. ANSWER: c 359. Which of the following senses bypasses the brain's sensory control center, the thalamus? a. taste b. smell c. vision d. hearing ANSWER: b 360. Sensory information from ________ instantly alerts the brain by bypassing the thalamus. a. kinesthetic receptor cells ScholarFriends.com b. olfactory receptor cells Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice c. taste receptor cells d. nociceptors ANSWER: b 361. Molecules that may serve as sexual attractants are called a. nociceptors. b. pheromones. c. olfactory receptors. d. vestibular sacs. ANSWER: b 362. When straight men smelled ovulating women's T-shirts, the men became more sexually interested and experienced increased testosterone. This is directly related to the impact of a. pheromones. b. olfaction. c. umami. d. gustation. ANSWER: a 363. There are so many different odor molecules that it takes many different ________, designed by a large family of ________, to detect them. a. nociceptors; neurons b. olfactory bulbs; receptor cells c. receptors; genes d. membranes; olfactors ANSWER: c 364. Suppose that you forgot to turn off your car engine and carbon monoxide is enveloping your enclosed garage. Which of the following would be most useful in alerting you to the gas? a. nociceptors b. olfactory receptors c. vestibular sacs d. the basilar membrane ANSWER: b 365. Research has found that when people in loving relationships smell their romantic partner's scent, their a. stress hormone levels decrease. b. stress hormone levels increase. c. anxiety levels decrease. d. anxiety levels increase. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 366. Researchers have found that when mice smell a predator's scent, their brain a. signals anxiety. b. signals stress. c. instigates the fight-or-flight mechanism. d. initiates the activity of olfactory receptors. ANSWER: b 367. Areas of the brain involved in memory are closest to areas of the brain responsible for our sense of a. touch. b. smell. c. vision. d. hearing. ANSWER: b 368. Information from the taste buds travels to an area between the brain's a. frontal and parietal lobes. b. parietal and occipital lobes. c. occipital and temporal lobes. d. frontal and temporal lobes. ANSWER: d 369. Because of the brain's circuitry, memories are likely to be most quickly evoked by exposure to a. bright colors. b. soft touches. c. fragrant odors. d. loud sounds. ANSWER: c 370. As Norm walks through the garden, the smell of the roses reminds him of his parents on Valentine's Day. This demonstrates the a. connection between childhood memories and gender. b. connection between smell and memories. c. association between candles and olfaction. d. association between olfaction and the brain. ANSWER: b 371. Compared with how we experience and remember sights and sounds, we may struggle to learn to identify subtle ________ differences. a. smell b. bone ScholarFriends.com c. muscle Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice d. taste ANSWER: a 372. Our sense of the position and movement of individual body parts is called a. the vestibular sense. b. olfaction. c. kinesthesia. d. sensory interaction. ANSWER: c 373. Receptor cells for kinesthesia are located in the a. temporal lobe. b. tendons, joints, and muscles. c. semicircular canals. d. auditory nerve. ANSWER: b 374. Millions of position and motion sensors in muscles, tendons, and joints all over your body, called ________, provide constant feedback to your brain, enabling your sense of ________. a. proprioceptors; kinesthesia b. pheromones; olfaction c. proprioceptors; olfaction d. pheromones; kinesthesis ANSWER: a 375. The system for sensing the movement of your hand as you takes notes in class best illustrates a. synesthesia. b. kinesthesia. c. psychokinesis. d. tinnitus. ANSWER: b 376. The semicircular canals are one of the structures most directly relevant to a. hearing. b. kinesthesia. c. the vestibular sense. d. olfaction. ANSWER: c 377. Your sense of balance is controlled by a. semicircular canals. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice b. vestibular sacs. c. both semicircular canals and vestibular sacs. d. neither semicircular canals nor vestibular sacs. ANSWER: c 378. Fluid-filled ________ that look like a three-dimensional pretzel are involved in our sense of balance. a. semicircular canals b. vestibular sacs c. proprioceptors d. olfactory bulbs ANSWER: a 379. Which of the following play the biggest role in our feeling dizzy and unbalanced after a thrilling roller coaster ride? a. olfactory receptors b. nociceptors c. basilar membranes d. semicircular canals ANSWER: d 380. Which structure involved in our sense of balance is calcium-crystal–filled? a. semicircular canals b. vestibular sacs c. proprioceptors d. the olfactory bulb ANSWER: b 381. Tiny hair-like receptors that monitor the tilting of your head are located in the a. temporal lobe. b. tendons, joints, and muscles. c. olfactory nerve. d. vestibular sacs. ANSWER: d 382. Darren tends to tilt as he walks and is constantly bumping into walls. This may demonstrate that he has a problem with his a. olfactory sense. b. vestibular sense. c. sense of gustation. d. sense of pain. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 383. If you have difficulty with balance it may be due to the two structures in your inner ear not properly sending signals to your a. cerebellum. b. occipital lobe. c. frontal lobe. d. sensory cortex. ANSWER: a 384. Dominique was spinning in circles and has stopped suddenly. Now she feels dizzy. This is related to her a. olfactory sense. b. vestibular sense. c. sense of gustation. d. sense of pain. ANSWER: b 385. One sense influencing another is called a. embodied cognition. b. the vestibular sense. c. sensory interaction. d. kinesthesia. ANSWER: c 386. When you have a cold, your nose is stuffed up and you cannot smell the different food aromas. At the same time, your food all seems to taste the same. This illustrates the importance of a. sensory interaction. b. kinesthesia. c. tinnitus. d. dissociation. ANSWER: a 387. Landon is at the doctor's office. Because of the COVID-19 pandemic, Landon and the doctor both have to wear masks. Because Landon is hard of hearing, he often can't understand what a person is saying without seeing mouth movements. With the doctor wearing a mask, Landon is finding it difficult to understand what she is saying. Landon's need to see a person speaking demonstrates a. embodied cognition. b. the vestibular sense. c. sensory interaction. d. kinesthesia. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com

388. Mihaela is talking with a friend who has hearing loss. For the friend to understand what Mihaela is saying Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice they must face each other. His friend's need to see Mihaela talk to improve his hearing of Mihaela's speech demonstrates a. embodied cognition. b. the vestibular sense. c. sensory interaction. d. kinesthesia. ANSWER: c 389. Baseball umpires' vision informs their hearing of when the ball hits a player's glove to determine if a base runner is safe or out. This demonstrates how a. smell and touch interact. b. vision and hearing interact. c. hearing and touch interact. d. taste and smell interact. ANSWER: b 390. The McGurk effect best illustrates a. phantom limb sensations. b. posthypnotic suggestion. c. tinnitus. d. sensory interaction. ANSWER: d 391. All of us visually read lips as part of our hearing. This is best illustrated by a. retinal disparity. b. cochlear implants. c. phantom limb sensations. d. the McGurk effect. ANSWER: d 392. Hearing ba and seeing mouth movements for ga may result in our perceiving da. This best illustrates a. synesthesia. b. psychokinesis. c. sensory interaction. d. kinesthesia. ANSWER: c 393. Your brother, Liam, is facing you and is silently mouthing the words, "I feel sad." At the same time, your other brother, Alfred, who is standing behind you, says aloud, "I feel bad." Suppose that you perceive that Alfred actually said, "I feel mad." This would best illustrate a. dissociation. ScholarFriends.com b. synesthesia. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice c. the McGurk effect. d. embodied cognition. ANSWER: c 394. The influence of bodily sensations and gestures on our cognitive preferences and judgments is said to be an indication of a. embodied cognition. b. dissociation. c. psychokinesis. d. phantom limb sensations. ANSWER: a 395. The interaction of brain circuits that process sensory experiences with brain circuits responsible for judgments contributes to what psychologists call a. psychokinesis. b. embodied cognition. c. precognition. d. kinesthesia. ANSWER: b 396. After holding a warm drink rather than a cold one, people are more likely to rate others more warmly. This best illustrates a. the McGurk effect. b. psychokinesis. c. synesthesia. d. embodied cognition. ANSWER: d 397. If hikers perceive a hill as steeper when carrying heavy backpacks rather than light backpacks, this would best illustrate a. embodied cognition. b. synesthesia. c. phantom limb sensations. d. psychokinesis. ANSWER: a 398. In the library, Jayden was sitting on a hard wood chair while studying for his psychology exam. Malcolm was studying for the exam while sitting on his soft bed. When Jayden and Malcolm were told that a friend had cheated on the last exam, Jayden was more likely than Malcolm to suggest that the student should be expelled from school. This is an example of a. dissociation. ScholarFriends.com b. synesthesia. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice c. the McGurk effect. d. embodied cognition. ANSWER: d 399. Delilah is drinking a warm latte with Emery. She previously had a cold Pepsi with Emery's identical twin Vivian. Delilah may perceive Emery to be the warmer sister. This illustrates a. dissociation. b. synesthesia. c. psychokinesis. d. embodied cognition. ANSWER: d 400. For some people, hearing certain sounds may activate color-sensitive regions of the cortex so as to trigger a sensation of color. This phenomenon is called a. tinnitus. b. telepathy. c. synesthesia. d. kinesthesia. ANSWER: c 401. While listening to music, Gloria feels as though she can see the sound of music. This is an example of a. synesthesia. b. embodied cognition. c. kinesthesia. d. olfaction. ANSWER: a 402. Psychics' suggestions that perception can occur apart from sensory input involve claims for the existence of a. phantom limb sensations. b. posthypnotic suggestion. c. synesthesia. d. ESP. ANSWER: d 403. Telepathy refers to the a. extrasensory transmission of thoughts from one mind to another. b. extrasensory perception of events that occur at places remote to the perceiver. c. perception of future events, such as a person's fate. d. ability to understand and share the emotions of another person. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 404. Viguhi claims to have a special psychic power that enables him to perceive exactly where the protesters were hiding after the demonstration. Viguhi is claiming to possess the power of a. psychokinesis. b. precognition. c. telepathy. d. clairvoyance. ANSWER: d 405. The ESP claim of perceiving a car accident taking place 300 miles away is to ________ as the ESP claim of knowing what your teacher is thinking is to ________. a. telepathy; precognition b. precognition; psychokinesis c. psychokinesis; clairvoyance d. clairvoyance; telepathy ANSWER: d 406. Wilfredo insists that his dreams frequently enable him to perceive and predict future events. Wilfredo is claiming to possess the power of a. telepathy. b. clairvoyance. c. precognition. d. psychokinesis. ANSWER: c 407. Hajeong claims that she can control where a slot machine will stop simply by entering a state of intense mental concentration. Hajeong is claiming to possess the power of a. precognition. b. telepathy. c. clairvoyance. d. psychokinesis. ANSWER: d 408. Vince just watched a movie in which one of the characters could levitate objects. The character's ability is known as a. telepathy. b. psychokinesis. c. clairvoyance. d. precognition. ANSWER: b 409. Psychics who have worked with police departments in an effort to solve difficult crimes have demonstrated ScholarFriends.com the value of Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice a. clairvoyance. b. telepathy. c. precognition. d. none of these things. ANSWER: d 410. The existence of convincing scientific evidence that ESP is possible would pose the greatest challenge to the a. contemporary scientific understanding of human nature. b. continued existence of parapsychology. c. continuation of research on the processes that underlie ordinary forms of sensation and perception. d. ordinary belief systems of most Americans. ANSWER: a 411. The greatest difficulty facing contemporary research on ESP is the a. inability to subject claims of ESP to scientific testing. b. lack of reproducible evidence of ESP. c. willingness of many experts to accept fraudulent evidence. d. difficulty of persuading many ordinary people that there really is such a thing as ESP. ANSWER: b

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 1. Our capacity to learn new behaviors that help us cope with our changing world is known as a. reinforcement. b. cognition. c. association. d. adaptability. ANSWER: d 2. During the COVID-19 pandemic, we learned to wear masks in public and to keep our distance from other people. This demonstrates our capacity to learn new behaviors that help us cope with our changing world; that is, this demonstrates our a. generalization. b. adaptability. c. discrimination. d. respondent behavior. ANSWER: b 3. Psychologists define learning as the process of a. adapting to the environment. b. responding to external stimuli. c. rewarding behavioral responses. d. acquiring, through experience, new and relatively enduring information or behaviors. ANSWER: d 4. Acquiring new habits best illustrates the process of a. discrimination. b. generalization. c. learning. d. spontaneous recovery. ANSWER: c 5. Tim is taking introductory physics because the college requires that everyone take a science course. Physics is not his favorite subject, so he is constantly checking his phone for messages. Repeating this behavior in the same context is likely to a. increase his physics performance. b. lead to physics anxiety. c. cause him to form a habit. d. reduce his ability to concentrate. ANSWER: c 6. Diana strongly associates watching a baseball game with eating hot dogs, so that every time she goes to a game, she habitually eats them even when she'sScholarFriends.com not hungry. Her eating habit best illustrates the impact of a. unconditioned responses. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice b. spontaneous recovery. c. neutral stimuli. d. learning. ANSWER: d 7. When our mind naturally connects events that occur in sequence, we learn via a. observation. b. association. c. generalization. d. averting. ANSWER: b 8. When voting, people are more likely to support taxes to aid education if their assigned voting place is in a school. This best illustrates the impact of a. spontaneous recovery. b. unconditioned responses. c. learned associations. d. behaviorism. ANSWER: c 9. After enjoying listening to the music of Justin Bieber on the radio, you expect that attending one of his concerts will also be enjoyable. This best illustrates the impact of a. spontaneous recovery. b. unconditioned responses. c. learned associations. d. behaviorism. ANSWER: c 10. If a sea slug repeatedly receives an electric shock just after being squirted with water, its protective withdrawal response to a squirt of water grows stronger. This best illustrates a. spontaneous recovery. b. associative learning. c. observational learning. d. operant conditioning. ANSWER: b 11. Conditioning is the process of a. discrimination. b. spontaneous recovery. c. learning associations. d. observational learning. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 12. Classical conditioning is a type of learning a. in which a behavior becomes more likely to recur if followed by a reinforcer or less likely to recur if followed by a punisher. b. in which we link two or more stimuli. c. that occurs as an automatic response to some stimulus. d. that references mental processes. ANSWER: b 13. A stimulus is any event or situation that a. triggers imitation. b. signals a reward. c. elicits operant behavior. d. evokes a response. ANSWER: d 14. Vera is startled by a loud noise on her computer. The sound is a(n) a. unconditioned response. b. generalization. c. acquisition. d. stimulus. ANSWER: d 15. When people learn that a flash on their cell phone signals an incoming message, they are illustrating a. operant conditioning. b. spontaneous recovery. c. classical conditioning. d. observational learning. ANSWER: c 16. Respondent behavior is defined as a(n) ________ response to some stimulus. a. novel b. operant c. automatic d. generalized ANSWER: c 17. Zach smells the food his father is cooking for dinner and begins to salivate. He is demonstrating a. observational learning. ScholarFriends.com b. respondent behavior. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice c. spontaneous recovery. d. operant behavior. ANSWER: b 18. Classically conditioned habits are said to involve a. observational learning. b. respondent behavior. c. spontaneous recovery. d. operant behavior. ANSWER: b 19. An example of a respondent behavior would be a. taking notes in class. b. salivating to the smell of a baking cake. c. thanking someone for their help. d. sniffing to locate the source of a strange odor ANSWER: b 20. A type of learning in which a behavior becomes more likely to recur if followed by a reinforcer or less likely to recur if followed by a punisher is called a. cognitive learning. b. shaping. c. operant conditioning. d. classical conditioning. ANSWER: c 21. Infants learn that crying will elicit attention from their parents. This best illustrates the process underlying a. observational learning. b. respondent behavior. c. spontaneous recovery. d. operant conditioning. ANSWER: d 22. Voluntary behaviors that produce rewarding or punishing outcomes are called a. respondent behaviors. b. associative behaviors. c. operant behaviors. d. conditioned responses. ANSWER: c 23. When Bert's little sister accidentally lockedScholarFriends.com herself inside her father's car, Bert used his father's car key to Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice unlock the door. Bert's action could best be described as a(n) a. unconditioned response. b. respondent behavior. c. spontaneous recovery. d. operant behavior. ANSWER: d 24. Respondent behavior is to ________ as operant behavior is to ________. a. generalization; discrimination b. associative learning; cognitive learning c. unconditioned stimulus; conditioned stimulus d. an automatic response; a behavior that produces consequences ANSWER: d 25. The acquisition of mental information by observing events, watching others, or through language is called a. classical conditioning. b. cognitive learning. c. operant conditioning. d. shaping. ANSWER: b 26. In her lecture on achievement motivation, Professor Osorio briefly explains the basic concept, then provides a number of examples. The professor's students are engaged in a. classical conditioning. b. cognitive learning. c. associative learning. d. operant conditioning. ANSWER: b 27. The type of learning in which we learn from others' experiences is known as a. respondent behavior. b. spontaneous recovery. c. observational learning. d. operant conditioning. ANSWER: c 28. A chimpanzee sees a second chimpanzee gain a food reward after solving a puzzle. The first chimpanzee may perform the trick more quickly. This best illustrates a. classical conditioning. b. spontaneous recovery. ScholarFriends.com c. respondent behavior. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice d. observational learning. ANSWER: d 29. Abigail, who is 16 years old, is replacing a battery in a flashlight as her 6-year-old sister Johanna watches. The following week, when Johanna's talking toy breaks, she replaces the battery herself. Johanna is demonstrating a. observational learning. b. respondent behavior. c. spontaneous recovery. d. operant behavior. ANSWER: a 30. The type of learning in which we link two or more stimuli and anticipate events is called a. respondent behavior. b. classical conditioning. c. spontaneous recovery. d. operant conditioning. ANSWER: b 31. The first experimental studies of associative learning were conducted by a. John B. Watson. b. Rosalie Rayner. c. B. F. Skinner. d. Ivan Pavlov. ANSWER: d 32. Which researcher first realized that certain "psychic secretions" pointed to a simple but important form of learning? a. B. F. Skinner b. Rosalie Rayner c. John B. Watson d. Ivan Pavlov ANSWER: d 33. How many researchers on Ivan Pavlov's team were women? a. none of them b. about 10 percent of them c. over half of them d. almost 80 percent of them ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com

34. Last spring, Dr. Glaser cleaned Jeanne's skin with rubbing alcohol prior to administering each of her two Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice COVID-19 vaccinations. Which of the following processes accounts for the fact that Jeanne currently becomes fearful every time she smells rubbing alcohol? a. cognitive learning b. classical conditioning c. observational learning d. operant conditioning ANSWER: b 35. The "psychic secretions" that Pavlov initially considered an annoyance were a. unconditioned responses. b. unconditioned stimuli. c. conditioned responses. d. conditioned stimuli. ANSWER: c 36. In classical conditioning, a stimulus that elicits no response before conditioning is called a(n) a. unconditioned stimulus. b. primary stimulus. c. neutral stimulus. d. secondary stimulus. ANSWER: c 37. Before Pavlov conditioned a dog to salivate in response to a tone, the tone was a(n) a. conditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned stimulus. c. partial conditioner. d. neutral stimulus. ANSWER: d 38. Jeremy's dog salivates in response to the taste of food in its mouth. Whenever Jeremy is ready to feed the dog, he taps the bowl on the counter. Now, Jeremy's dog salivates every time he hears Jeremy tapping. Which of the following is the neutral stimulus in this example? a. food b. salivation c. the counter d. the tapping sound ANSWER: d 39. Bonnie felt no fear in response to the hissing sound of an approaching snake until one painful day she learned that the hissing sound signaled a snake was ready to strike. For Bonnie, the sound of the hissing snake was originally a(n) ScholarFriends.com a. conditioned stimulus. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice b. neutral stimulus. c. conditioned response. d. unconditioned stimulus. ANSWER: b 40. Marla is afraid of wasps. Recently, when she went to put on her red blouse a wasp surprised her. She screamed, quickly took her blouse off, and began stomping on it. A few days later, when Marla finds her red blouse in the closet, she is fearful and refuses to put it on. In this example, the neutral stimulus is a. the wasp. b. her fear. c. her red blouse. d. her screaming. ANSWER: c 41. In classical conditioning, an unlearned, naturally occurring response to an unconditioned stimulus is called a(n) a. conditioned response. b. unconditioned response. c. neutral stimulus. d. unconditioned stimulus. ANSWER: b 42. In Pavlov's experiments, the taste of food triggered the dog's salivation. Salivation to the taste of food was a(n) a. conditioned response. b. unconditioned response. c. unconditioned stimulus. d. conditioned stimulus. ANSWER: b 43. Which of the following is an unconditioned response? a. playing marbles b. running through a maze to get a food reward c. shaking in cold weather d. clapping after a exciting concert performance ANSWER: c 44. Nolan hears the bell from the ice cream truck and immediately begins to salivate. He is exhibiting a(n) a. unconditioned response. b. conditioned response. c. neutral response. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice d. acquired response. ANSWER: a 45. In classical conditioning, the unconditioned stimulus is a. a stimulus that evokes no response before conditioning. b. the stimulus that naturally and automatically triggers a response. c. a stimulus that evokes a response only when paired with a conditioned stimulus. d. an originally neutral stimulus that eventually triggers a conditioned response. ANSWER: b 46. In classical conditioning, a stimulus that naturally and automatically triggers an unconditioned response is called a(n) a. conditioned stimulus. b. generalized stimulus. c. neutral stimulus. d. unconditioned stimulus. ANSWER: d 47. In Pavlov's experiments on the salivary conditioning of dogs, the US was a. a tone. b. salivation to the sound of a tone. c. the presentation of food in the dog's mouth. d. salivation to the food in the mouth. ANSWER: c 48. Jeremy's dog salivates in response to the taste of food in its mouth. Whenever Jeremy is ready to feed the dog, he taps the bowl on the counter. Now, Jeremy's dog salivates every time he hears Jeremy tapping. Which of the following is the unconditioned stimulus in this example? a. food b. salivation c. the counter d. the tapping sound ANSWER: a 49. In Aldous Huxley's Brave New World, infants develop a fear of books after books are repeatedly presented with a loud noise. In this fictional example, the loud noise is a(n) a. unconditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned response. c. conditioned stimulus. d. conditioned response. ANSWER: a ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 50. When Abner is with his romantic partner, he feels so in love, happy, and content. Because they text and talk on the phone several times during the day, Abner has set up a special ring tone for his romantic partner. Now, when he hears the ring tone, he feels happy and content. Which of the following is the unconditioned stimulus in this example? a. Abner's romantic partner b. feeling in love, happy, and content c. Abner's phone d. the ring tone ANSWER: a 51. In classical conditioning, a learned response to a previously neutral stimulus is referred to as a(n) a. conditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned stimulus. c. conditioned response. d. unconditioned response. ANSWER: c 52. In Pavlov's experiments, the sound of the tone triggered the dog's salivation. Salivation to the sound of a tone was a(n) a. conditioned response. b. unconditioned stimulus. c. unconditioned response. d. conditioned stimulus. ANSWER: a 53. Imogene is 4 years old and has learned to fear the sound of thunder. This is an example of a(n) a. conditioned response. b. unconditioned stimulus. c. conditioned stimulus. d. unconditioned response. ANSWER: a 54. In classical conditioning, an originally neutral stimulus that comes to trigger a conditioned response is called a(n) a. unconditioned stimulus. b. neutral stimulus. c. conditioned stimulus. d. unconditioned response. ANSWER: c 55. A dog salivates to the sound of a tone because the tone has regularly been associated with the delivery of ScholarFriends.com food. In this case, the tone is called a(n) Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice a. unconditioned stimulus. b. primary stimulus. c. conditioned stimulus. d. neutral stimulus. ANSWER: c 56. Olaore is looking to buy a house. The real estate agent insists that they should first stop for something to eat. While they are eating a delicious egg salad and pickles sandwich, the agent shows Olaore several lakefront property. Later, when Olaore was given a tour of the property, he drooled with delight. For Olaore, the lakefront property was a a. US. b. CS. c. UR. d. CR. ANSWER: b 57. Which of the following is NOT a process of classical conditioning studied by Pavlov? a. acquisition b. extinction c. operant behavior d. spontaneous recovery ANSWER: c 58. In classical conditioning, the initial stage of learning is referred to as a. acquisition. b. generalization. c. discrimination. d. extinction. ANSWER: a 59. Dr. Dogan and his colleagues are conditioning a sea slug to withdraw its gill when squirted with water by repeatedly pairing the squirted water with electric shock. The stage in which the sea slug's withdrawal of its gill in response to the squirting water is first established and gradually strengthened is called a. discrimination. b. acquisition. c. generalization. d. spontaneous recovery. ANSWER: b 60. Three-year-old Willem saw fireworks that were repeatedly followed by loud, fear-producing explosive sounds. The mere sight of fireworks first beganScholarFriends.com to trigger a learned fear reaction in Willem during the process of a. spontaneous recovery. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice b. extinction. c. discrimination. d. acquisition. ANSWER: d 61. In classical conditioning, the conditioned stimulus signals that ________ is about to occur. a. a neutral stimulus b. generalization c. an unconditioned stimulus d. operant behavior ANSWER: c 62. In classical conditioning, the NS becomes a ________ after it reliably signals the upcoming appearance of the ________. a. US; CS b. UR; CR c. CS; US d. CR; UR ANSWER: c 63. Professor Estrella is conducting experiments in classical conditioning. His first experiment involves having a dog learn to salivate to the sound of a tone by pairing the tone with food. The dog will learn to salivate to the sound of the tone most quickly if Professor Estrella sounds the tone a. five seconds before the food. b. half a second before the food. c. at precisely the same time as the food. d. half a second after the food. ANSWER: b 64. Male Japanese quail became excited by a red light that was repeatedly associated with the presentation of a sexually approachable female quail. The excitement triggered by the red light was a a. UR. b. US. c. CR. d. CS. ANSWER: c 65. A smell is most likely to trigger sexual arousal if presented shortly a. after an appropriate UR. b. after an appropriate US. c. before an appropriate UR. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice d. before an appropriate US. ANSWER: d 66. Classical conditioning is most clearly biologically adaptive because it enables us to learn that a ________ predicts the onset of a ________. a. US; UR b. US; CS c. UR; CR d. CS; US ANSWER: d 67. In classical conditioning, the diminishing of a conditioned response is referred to as a. acquisition. b. generalization. c. discrimination. d. extinction. ANSWER: d 68. Extinction is said to occur when a a. US is paired with a CS and the CR emerges. b. CS is not paired with a US and the CR fades. c. NS remains neutral. d. UR becomes the CR when paired with a NS. ANSWER: b 69. Extinction occurs when a ________ is no longer paired with a ________. a. UR; CR b. CS; UR c. US; UR d. CS; US ANSWER: d 70. Allison, who was recently stung by a bee in her neighbor Gia's garden, now tenses with fear every time she passes Gia's house. As weeks go by without her getting stung again, however, the association weakens. and Allison begins to relax. This process is called a. acquisition. b. extinction. c. spontaneous recovery. d. generalization. ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com

71. After Claudia was bitten by her friend's parrot, she became afraid of all birds. She has since been exposed to Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice many friendly birds in safe settings, and her fear of birds has gradually faded. Claudia's diminishing fear of birds best illustrates a. operant behavior. b. spontaneous recovery. c. extinction. d. acquisition. ANSWER: c 72. Marla had previously associated her red blouse with wasps and had quit wearing her blouse. As time has passed, this association has weakened, a process called a. acquisition. b. extinction. c. spontaneous recovery. d. generalization. ANSWER: b 73. The reappearance, after a time lapse, of a weakened CR is called a. generalization. b. spontaneous recovery. c. discrimination. d. secondary conditioning. ANSWER: b 74. After a scary car accident as he entered the highway, Diego was afraid to use that entrance ramp. Then, by using the ramp every day for a week, Diego was able to extinguish his conditioned fear. The reappearance of his previously weakened fear when he used that entrance ramp two weeks later best illustrates a. discrimination. b. operant behavior. c. generalization. d. spontaneous recovery. ANSWER: d 75. The occurrence of spontaneous recovery suggests that during extinction the a. CS is eliminated. b. CR is eliminated. c. CS is suppressed. d. CR is suppressed. ANSWER: d 76. In classical conditioning, generalization refers to the tendency for the conditioned response to be evoked by stimuli that resemble the ScholarFriends.com a. unconditioned stimulus. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice b. respondent behavior. c. conditioned stimulus. d. unconditioned response. ANSWER: c 77. Four-year-old Jesse was recently attacked by his friend's little dog. Jesse now fears all small animals. His fear demonstrates the process of a. generalization. b. operant conditioning. c. spontaneous recovery. d. extinction. ANSWER: a 78. Dogs conditioned to salivate when rubbed on their thigh also begin to salivate when rubbed on their back or stomach. This best illustrates a. spontaneous recovery. b. an unconditioned response. c. an operant behavior. d. generalization. ANSWER: d 79. I Gede's therapist reminds him so much of his father that he has many of the same mixture of love and hate to him that he feels to his dad. His reactions to his therapist best illustrate the influence of a. spontaneous recovery. b. discrimination. c. an unconditioned response. d. generalization. ANSWER: d 80. Joseph is 3 years old and is afraid of a moving car. He is also afraid of moving trucks, motorcycles, and bicycles. This is an example of a. acquisition. b. extinction. c. spontaneous recovery. d. generalization. ANSWER: d 81. When a toddler who fears moving cars also becomes afraid of moving trucks and motorcycles, their ________ fear has proven to be adaptive. a. generalized b. discriminated ScholarFriends.com c. extinguished Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice d. acquired ANSWER: a 82. Because of the discomfort and embarrassment associated with his childhood bed-wetting, Colin becomes nervous whenever he senses an urge to urinate. If getting ready for bed to go to sleep at night subsequently makes Colin unusually anxious, this would best illustrate a. observational learning. b. generalization. c. spontaneous recovery. d. an unconditioned response. ANSWER: b 83. Research has documented that ________ fears can linger in memory. a. generalized b. discriminated c. extinguished d. acquired ANSWER: a 84. Years after being tortured in an Argentinean prison, one journalist reported still flinching with fear at the sight of black shoes. This best illustrates a. operant behavior. b. generalization. c. spontaneous recovery. d. discrimination. ANSWER: b 85. The ability to distinguish between a conditioned stimulus and stimuli that do not signal an unconditioned stimulus is called a. acquisition. b. discrimination. c. generalization. d. spontaneous recovery. ANSWER: b 86. You may become anxious and frightened when you are confronted by a tiger but not when you are approached by a cat. This best illustrates the adaptive value of a. operant behavior. b. discrimination. c. observational learning. d. spontaneous recovery. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 87. Jacqueline becomes excited when she sees her handsome boyfriend but not when she sees her equally handsome brother. This best illustrates the value of a. operant behavior. b. extinction. c. discrimination. d. spontaneous recovery. ANSWER: c 88. Professor Miu has identified specific neural circuits that link a conditioned stimulus with an upcoming unconditioned stimulus. Her research is clearly influenced by the findings of a. Tirrell. b. Pavlov. c. Skinner. d. Winfrey. ANSWER: b 89. Pavlov's research on classical conditioning was important because a. it highlighted the role of cognitive processes in learning. b. so many different species of animals, including humans, can be classically conditioned. c. it demonstrated an essential difference between animal and human learning. d. all learning depends on respondent behavior. ANSWER: b 90. Who showed us how a process such as learning could be studied objectively? a. B. F. Skinner b. Ivan Pavlov c. John Locke d. John B. Watson ANSWER: b 91. Pavlov's studies of classical conditioning were most clearly valuable because they provided the young discipline of psychology with a model of a. animal consciousness. b. scientific methodology. c. cognitive processes. d. operant conditioning. ANSWER: b 92. Antonio, who has substance use disorder, usually drinks at parties with a particular group of friends. It is likely that these friends have become a ________ for Antonio's alcohol cravings. ScholarFriends.com a. UR Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice b. CR c. US d. CS ANSWER: d 93. Patrick, a former drug user, has been advised to avoid places and people that he associates with drug use because his brain has become conditioned to a. associate unconditioned stimuli with unconditioned responses. b. generalize and therefore adapt to the situation. c. associate those contexts with a drug's reward. d. discriminate between the people who encouraged his drug use. ANSWER: d 94. Which form of learning makes dieting difficult? a. classical conditioning b. operant conditioning c. observational learning d. discrimination ANSWER: a 95. To assess whether Mrs. Wright had suffered a brain injury, researchers conditioned her to blink in response to a sound that signaled the delivery of a puff of air directed toward her face. In this application of classical conditioning, the sound was a a. US. b. UR. c. CS. d. CR. ANSWER: c 96. Professor Gazzara is studying learning in mice. In her study, just after they taste a sweet liquid, mice are injected with a drug that produces a nausea response. Later, the taste of the sweet liquid by itself triggers a nausea response. This best illustrates a. operant conditioning. b. spontaneous recovery. c. classical conditioning. d. observational learning. ANSWER: c 97. Watson and Rayner's study of Little Albert demonstrated how specific fears a. can interfere with the process of learning. b. can be extinguished. ScholarFriends.com c. are acquired through observational learning. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice d. may be produced through classical conditioning. ANSWER: d 98. After learning to fear a white rat, Little Albert responded with fear to the sight of a rabbit. This best illustrates the process of a. observational learning. b. generalization. c. operant conditioning. d. spontaneous recovery. ANSWER: b 99. Dragos was scolded several times for pulling the cat's tail. As a result, Dragos became afraid to go near the cat. In this case, scolding was a(n) ________ for Dragos' fear. a. unconditional response b. conditioned stimulus c. secondary conditioner d. unconditioned stimulus ANSWER: d 100. Psychologist Mary Cover Jones was the first to extend Watson and Rayner's results by showing how conditioning can also ________ fear in children. a. create b. trigger c. reduce d. augment ANSWER: c 101. Comedian-writer Mark Malkoff reported that his fear of flying faded after he faced his fear and lived on an airplane for 30 days. His reduction of fear best illustrates the process of a. operant conditioning. b. extinction. c. spontaneous recovery. d. generalization. ANSWER: b 102. Behavior that occurs automatically in response to a stimulus is to ________ as behavior that operates on the environment to produce a consequence is to ________. a. unconditioned stimulus; unconditioned response b. respondent behavior; operant behavior c. generalization; discrimination d. associative learning; cognitive learning ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 103. Learning to associate two stimuli is to ________ as learning to associate one's behavior with its consequences is to ________. a. shaping; reinforcement b. generalization; discrimination c. operant behavior; respondent behavior d. classical conditioning; operant conditioning ANSWER: d 104. Classical conditioning is to ________ as operant conditioning is to ________. a. unconditioned stimulus; unconditioned response b. respondent behavior; operant behavior c. generalization; discrimination d. associative learning; cognitive learning ANSWER: b 105. Learning to associate two stimuli is to ________ as an automatic response to a stimuli is to _____. a. shaping; reinforcement b. generalization; discrimination c. operant behavior; classical conditioning d. classical conditioning; respondent behavior ANSWER: d 106. Eko is trying to teach his daughter to throw and catch a football. He is most likely to use principles associated with a. classical conditioning. b. operant conditioning. c. learning by observation. d. cognitive learning. ANSWER: b 107. In which form of learning is behavior influenced by its consequences? a. primary conditioning b. classical conditioning c. operant conditioning d. delayed conditioning ANSWER: c 108. Jazmine associates a rainstorm with the electricity going out in her house, so when the rain starts, she gets the candles ready. Jazmine's behavior results from a. classical conditioning. ScholarFriends.com b. a partial reinforcement schedule. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice c. operant conditioning. d. spontaneous recovery. ANSWER: c 109. Steven used to hit his sister. After his parents took his toys and games away for one week, Steven stopped hitting his sister. This demonstrates the process of a. generalization. b. classical conditioning. c. discrimination. d. operant conditioning. ANSWER: d 110. Rafael's shaking his leg has become habitual because he feels less nervous when he shakes his leg. This best illustrates the process of a. generalization. b. classical conditioning. c. discrimination. d. operant conditioning. ANSWER: d 111. A type of learning in which behavior is diminished if followed by a punisher is called a. delayed conditioning. b. classical conditioning. c. secondary conditioning. d. operant conditioning. ANSWER: d 112. Voluntary behaviors that become more frequent when followed by reinforcers are called a. associative behaviors. b. respondent behaviors. c. operant behaviors. d. unconditioned responses. ANSWER: c 113. B. F. Skinner is most closely associated with a. operant conditioning. b. classical conditioning. c. the law of effect. d. spontaneous recovery. ANSWER: a

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 114. The psychologist who elaborated on what Edward Thorndike called the law of effect was a. B. F. Skinner. b. Keller Breland. c. John B. Watson. d. Marian Breland. ANSWER: a 115. B. F. Skinner's work elaborated what E. L. Thorndike had called a. shaping. b. conditioned reinforcement. c. the law of effect. d. resistance to extinction. ANSWER: c 116. Thorndike used fish rewards to encourage cats to learn their way out of a puzzle box. In doing so, he showed that a. rewarded behavior tends to recur. b. punishment teaches new behaviors. c. reinforcers and punishers have similar results. d. spontaneous recovery is unlikely to occur in such situations. ANSWER: a 117. Behaviors followed by favorable consequences become more likely, and behaviors followed by unfavorable consequences become less likely. This principle is called a. discrimination. b. intermittent reinforcement. c. spontaneous recovery. d. the law of effect. ANSWER: d 118. Graciela curses a lot when she is with her friends because of their approving laughter; she does not curse in front of her parents because they disapprove of her cursing. This best illustrates a. respondent behavior. b. the law of effect. c. spontaneous recovery. d. shaping. ANSWER: b 119. Skinner's operant conditioning revealed principles of a. reinforcement schedules. b. behavior control. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice c. punishment. d. acquisition and extinction. ANSWER: b 120. A Skinner box is a(n) a. aversive or punishing event that decreases the occurrence of certain undesirable behaviors. b. "slot machine" used to study the effects of partial reinforcement on human gambling practices. c. chamber containing a bar or key that an animal can manipulate to obtain a reward. d. television projection device designed for use in laboratory studies of operant conditioning. ANSWER: c 121. The Skinner box is the popular name for a. a puzzle box. b. behavior control. c. identifying reinforcement schedules. d. an operant chamber. ANSWER: d 122. Professor Perna and colleagues are studying how quickly a hungry pigeon in a confined cage will learn to peck at a target in order to receive food. The researchers are most clearly using a(n) ________ to study learning. a. Pavlovian maze b. conditioned reinforcer c. operant chamber d. variable-ratio schedule ANSWER: c 123. An event that strengthens the behavior it follows is a(n) a. conditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned stimulus. c. reinforcement. d. operant behavior. ANSWER: c 124. If capuchin monkeys find insects after using a stick to get inside a log, they more often dig into a log with a stick. This most clearly indicates that finding insects is a a. reinforcement. b. respondent behavior. c. spontaneous recovery. d. classically conditioned habit. ANSWER: a ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 125. Mihaela gives her 6-year-old son a star every time he cleans his room before going to bed. This is a great idea as the star will come to serve as a(n) ________ for cleaning the room, strengthening the behavior. a. reinforcer b. stimulus c. punisher d. aversion ANSWER: a 126. Shaping is a(n) ________ procedure. a. spontaneous recovery b. operant conditioning c. classical conditioning d. positive punishment ANSWER: b 127. Shaping is a procedure in which reinforcers are a. designed to evoke respondent behavior. b. interspersed with punishers to speed the process of learning. c. used to guide actions closer and closer to a desired behavior. d. given on a variable-ratio schedule. ANSWER: c 128. Shaping is effective by rewarding ________ to the desired behavior. a. respondent behaviors related b. primary reinforcers related c. operant behaviors related d. successive approximations ANSWER: d 129. Pigeons have been trained to correctly spot cancerous breast tumors by means of a. classical conditioning. b. spontaneous recovery. c. operant conditioning. d. modeling. ANSWER: c 130. When Aurora makes rewards given to her pet contingent on specific desired behaviors, such as sitting, she is ________ her dog's behavior. a. shaping b. averting ScholarFriends.com c. modeling Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice d. preparing ANSWER: a 131. You would be most likely to use operant conditioning to teach a dog to a. fear cars in the street. b. dislike the taste of dead birds. c. wag its tail whenever it is emotionally excited. d. walk on its hind legs. ANSWER: d 132. Jerome is teaching a golden retriever to climb a ladder. Initially, he gives the golden retriever a treat for approaching the ladder, then only for putting a paw on a rung, and finally only for climbing up several rungs of the ladder. Jerome is using the method of a. successive approximations. b. delayed reinforcement. c. classical conditioning. d. secondary reinforcement. ANSWER: a 133. Stefan is training his cat to run on a hamster wheel, which is good exercise for the cat. He will be most successful if he rewards his cat based on a. spontaneous recovery. b. respondent behavior. c. operant conditioning. d. successive approximations. ANSWER: d 134. Roberto is teaching his daughter how to use eating utensils. The child will probably be most successful with learning to eat with a fork, knife, and spoon if Roberto rewards her based on a. spontaneous recovery. b. respondent behavior. c. a conditioned stimulus. d. successive approximations. ANSWER: d 135. Seven-year-old Barry sits quietly in class, never talking to any of his classmates or answering any of his teacher's questions. To get him to speak, his teacher first gives him a piece of candy for any sounds, then only for a clearly spoken word, and finally only for a complete sentence. The teacher is using the method of a. secondary reinforcement. b. delayed reinforcement. c. spontaneous recovery. ScholarFriends.com d. shaping. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 136. Liza learned how to make 3-point baskets by successfully shooting from spots near the basket before shooting from increasingly longer distances from the basket. This learning strategy best illustrates the process of a. variable-interval scheduling. b. delayed reinforcement. c. spontaneous recovery. d. shaping. ANSWER: d 137. Because Mr. Zuniga rewards students only for very good classroom answers, his students have stopped participating in class. Mr. Zuniga most clearly needs to be informed of the value of a. generalization. b. spontaneous recovery. c. shaping. d. partial reinforcement. ANSWER: c 138. Any stimulus that, when presented after a response, strengthens the response is called a(n) a. conditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned stimulus. c. positive reinforcer. d. negative reinforcer. ANSWER: c 139. Sarita makes her bed every day so that her parents will allow to spend Saturdays at the mall with her friends. In this instance, spending Saturdays at the mall with her friends is a(n) a. positive reinforcer. b. unconditioned response. c. conditioned response. d. negative reinforcer. ANSWER: a 140. To help Jules learn how to use a fork to eat his eggs, his father gives him a star each time he holds the fork correctly so that he gets the egg into his mouth. The star is an example of a a. negative reinforcer. b. positive reinforcer. c. negative punishment. d. positive punishment. ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com

141. Receiving delicious food is to escaping electric shock as ________ is to ________. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice a. positive reinforcer; negative reinforcer b. primary reinforcer; secondary reinforcer c. immediate reinforcer; delayed reinforcer d. reinforcement; punishment ANSWER: a 142. Positive reinforcers ________ the rate of operant responding, and negative reinforcers ________ the rate of operant responding. a. decrease; increase b. increase; decrease c. increase; increase d. have no effect on; decrease ANSWER: c 143. Any stimulus that, when removed after a response, strengthens the response is called a(n) a. conditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned stimulus. c. positive reinforcer. d. negative reinforcer. ANSWER: d 144. Xavier gets terrible headaches during the day. To relieve the pain, Xavier sits quietly and meditates for a while. The meditation are an example of a a. positive reinforcer. b. negative reinforcer. c. primary reinforcer. d. conditioned reinforcer. ANSWER: b 145. Terrance, a stockbroker, runs for about an hour every day after work because it reduces his level of stress. Terrance's habit of running is maintained by a ________ reinforcer. a. positive b. negative c. conditioned d. partial ANSWER: b 146. Frances has a migraine headache and takes medicine to relieve the pain. In this case, the medicine is a a. negative reinforcer. b. positive reinforcer. ScholarFriends.com c. negative punishment. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice d. positive punishment. ANSWER: a 147. Primary reinforcers could best be described as a. immediate reinforcers. b. conditioned stimuli. c. conditioned reinforcers. d. innately satisfying stimuli. ANSWER: d 148. The taste of ice cream and getting a good night's sleep are both ________ reinforcers. a. positive b. neutral c. primary d. conditioned ANSWER: c 149. Iris is teaching her son how to write the letters of the alphabet. Every time her son successfully writes a letter, Iris gives him a piece of cake. In this instance, the cake is a a. conditioned reinforcer. b. delayed reinforcer. c. primary reinforcer. d. secondary reinforcer. ANSWER: c 150. When you give your dog a treat for coming to you after you call its name, you are using a a. neutral reinforcer. b. negative reinforcer. c. primary reinforcer. d. conditioned reinforcer. ANSWER: c 151. A stimulus that acquires reinforcing power through its association with a primary reinforcer is called a ________ reinforcer. a. delayed b. negative c. partial d. conditioned ANSWER: d 152. Which of the following is the best example of a conditioned reinforcer? ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice a. clapping for a delightful dance recital b. a spanking for eating popcorn before dinner c. a cold ginger ale for mowing the lawn on a hot day d. ending the pain from a burn after lifting one's hand from a hot stove ANSWER: a 153. Arcanjo was paid $300 for a week's work at the local furniture factory. The money was a(n) a. primary reinforcer. b. spontaneous recovery. c. conditioned reinforcer. d. operant behavior. ANSWER: c 154. After a long walk to campus in uncomfortable shoes, Deena sits down on a bench and enjoys resting her aching feet. She has a few minutes before class, so she checks her social media feed and feels pleased that many friends have liked her recent post. In this case, sitting down is a ________ and the social media likes are a ________. a. conditioned reinforcer; primary reinforcer b. primary reinforcer; conditioned reinforcer c. primary reinforcer; primary reinforcer d. conditioned reinforcer; conditioned reinforcer ANSWER: b 155. The removal of electric shock is to the receipt of money as ________ is to ________. a. delayed reinforcer; immediate reinforcer b. primary reinforcer; conditioned reinforcer c. discrimination; generalization d. partial reinforcement; continuous reinforcement ANSWER: b 156. Giving a hungry rat food for pressing a bar before the rat has a chance to engage in other incidental behaviors like running or scratching best illustrates a. respondent behavior. b. secondary reinforcement. c. intermittent reinforcement. d. immediate reinforcement. ANSWER: d 157. To quickly teach a parrot to talk, you would be best advised to use a. classical conditioning rather than operant conditioning. b. partial reinforcement rather than continuous reinforcement. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice c. immediate reinforcers rather than delayed reinforcers. d. negative reinforcers rather than positive reinforcers. ANSWER: c 158. Fabian's tendency to overeat when presented with foods he likes is influenced more by his love of food than by fear of becoming obese or suffering health risks. This best illustrates the impact of a. shaping. b. classical conditioning. c. a fixed-interval schedule. d. immediate reinforcers. ANSWER: d 159. Leander works much harder collecting blueberries if she gets paid after filling each pail rather than at the end of the workday. This best illustrates that her blueberry picking is strongly influenced by a. primary reinforcers. b. spontaneous recovery. c. immediate reinforcers. d. a fixed-interval schedule. ANSWER: c 160. Garland and Michael are second-year college students who study hard throughout the semester so that they will receive high final course grades. This best illustrates that human behavior can be influenced by a. classical conditioning. b. primary reinforcers. c. latent learning. d. delayed reinforcers. ANSWER: d 161. Pedro is in his fourth season playing baseball. He knows that at the end of the season he will receive a trophy because, as in the past three seasons, his batting average is high. He really wants to get another trophy. Pedro is clearly responding to a a. delayed reinforcer. b. partial reinforcer. c. primary reinforcer. d. variable reinforcer. ANSWER: a 162. A pattern that defines how often a desired response will be reinforced is referred to as a. continuous reinforcement. b. a reinforcement schedule. c. partial reinforcement. ScholarFriends.com d. operant conditioning. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 163. A response is learned most rapidly and is most resistant to extinction if it is acquired under conditions of a. continuous reinforcement followed by partial reinforcement. b. primary reinforcement followed by secondary reinforcement. c. partial reinforcement followed by continuous reinforcement. d. secondary reinforcement followed by primary reinforcement. ANSWER: a 164. Hernando wants to teach his dog to come when he calls. To ensure that the behavior will not later become extinct, he should use ________ reinforcement until the response is mastered followed by ________ reinforcement. a. positive; negative b. negative; positive c. continuous; partial d. partial; continuous ANSWER: c 165. Each time is to some of the time as a. continuous reinforcement is to partial reinforcement. b. ratio reinforcement is to fixed-interval reinforcement. c. internal reinforcement is to variable reinforcement. d. partial reinforcement is to continuous reinforcement. ANSWER: a 166. Partial reinforcement is to continuous reinforcement as a. innately reinforcing is to associative reinforcing. b. each time is to some of the time. c. some of the time is to each time. d. immediate reinforcement is to delayed reinforcement. ANSWER: a 167. When a behavior is reinforced every time it occurs, what has occurred? a. continuous reinforcement b. positive reinforcement c. partial reinforcement d. negative reinforcement ANSWER: a 168. Camila is house training her new puppy Taffy. She gives Taffy a tasty treat each time the dog lets her know it needs to go out. She is demonstrating ScholarFriends.com a. continuous reinforcement. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice b. positive reinforcement. c. partial reinforcement. d. negative reinforcement. ANSWER: a 169. When a person reinforces a response only part of the time, it is referred to as a. continuous reinforcement. b. positive reinforcement. c. partial reinforcement. d. negative reinforcement. ANSWER: c 170. Resistance to extinction is most strongly encouraged by ________ reinforcement. a. delayed b. intermittent c. conditioned d. negative ANSWER: b 171. The way slot machines reward gamblers with money best illustrates a. spontaneous recovery. b. partial reinforcement. c. generalization. d. shaping. ANSWER: b 172. Seven-year-old Elmira asks her mother for a cookie whenever her mother takes her to the bakery. At first her mother granted every request, but now she does so less consistently. Research suggests that Elmira will a. soon give up asking for a treat entirely. b. come to ask for a treat only occasionally. c. continue to ask for a treat nearly every time she goes to the bakery. d. ask for a treat every time her mother takes her out, even if they don't go to the bakery. ANSWER: c 173. A fixed-ratio schedule of reinforcement is one in which a response is reinforced only after a(n) a. specified time period has elapsed. b. unpredictable time period has elapsed. c. specified number of responses have been made. d. unpredictable number of responses have been made. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 174. Whenever Sheila goes on a cruise, she parks at an offsite lot. For every four weeks she parks there, she receives one free week of parking. She is being rewarded on a ________ schedule. a. variable-ratio b. variable-interval c. fixed-ratio d. fixed-interval ANSWER: c 175. Guney is a carpet installer who wants to be paid for each square foot of carpet he lays rather than with an hourly wage. Guney prefers working on a ________ schedule of reinforcement. a. fixed-ratio b. fixed-interval c. variable-interval d. variable-ratio ANSWER: a 176. Agus and Ralph sell cell phone accessories by telephone. Agus is paid $2.00 for every five calls he makes, while Ralph is paid $2.00 for every accessory he sells, regardless of the number of calls he makes. Agus' telephoning is reinforced on a ________ schedule, whereas Ralph's is reinforced on a ________ schedule. a. variable-ratio; fixed-ratio b. fixed-ratio; variable-ratio c. fixed-ratio; variable-interval d. fixed-interval; variable-ratio ANSWER: b 177. A partial reinforcement schedule that reinforces a response after an unpredictable number of responses is a ________ schedule. a. fixed-ratio b. variable-ratio c. fixed-interval d. variable-interval ANSWER: b 178. Andres plays bingo every week at his local youth center. Occasionally he wins a few dollars, and sometimes he even wins the jackpot. This is an example of a ________ schedule. a. variable-ratio b. variable-interval c. fixed-ratio d. fixed-interval ANSWER: a ScholarFriends.com

179. Playing roulette is reinforced with monetary winnings on a ________ schedule. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice a. fixed-interval b. variable-interval c. fixed-ratio d. variable-ratio ANSWER: d 180. Asking potential partners for a date is most likely to be reinforced on a ________ schedule. a. fixed-interval b. fixed-ratio c. variable-interval d. variable-ratio ANSWER: d 181. A fixed-interval schedule of reinforcement is one in which a response is reinforced only after a(n) a. unpredictable time period has elapsed. b. specified time period has elapsed. c. specified number of responses has been made. d. unpredictable number of responses has been made. ANSWER: b 182. You check newspaper ads every Sunday because you know that your local grocery store is going to advertise its discount offers then. This is an example of a ________ schedule. a. fixed-ratio b. variable-ratio c. fixed-interval d. variable-interval ANSWER: c 183. Mr. Gutteling is the marketing manager for a technology company and works with his office door closed. Every day he briefly opens the door to observe his employees at work. The employees have learned to work especially hard during the time the door is open. Their work pattern is typical of responses that are reinforced on a ________ schedule. a. fixed-interval b. fixed-ratio c. variable-ratio d. variable-interval ANSWER: a 184. A partial reinforcement schedule that reinforces a response that occurs after an unpredictable period of time is a ________ schedule. a. fixed-ratio ScholarFriends.com b. variable-ratio Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice c. fixed-interval d. variable-interval ANSWER: d 185. Jennifer has been waiting for Sam to reply to her text message. She has been checking her phone periodically for the past day. When he finally responds, she has been rewarded on which reinforcement schedule? a. fixed-ratio b. variable-ratio c. variable-interval d. fixed-interval ANSWER: c 186. At the beginning of the term, Professor Karkera tells his geology students that they will be quizzed at random times throughout the term. Studying for Professor Karkera's surprise quizzes will be reinforced on a ________ schedule. a. fixed-interval b. fixed-ratio c. variable-interval d. variable-ratio ANSWER: c 187. Lyli's parents are concerned about her social media use. Lyli checks her phone constantly for messages, updates, and likes, often refreshing the page thirty or forty times until something new appears. Erika is being rewarded on a(n) ________ schedule. a. fixed-ratio b. variable-ratio c. fixed-interval d. variable-interval ANSWER: d 188. Watching the night sky for shooting stars is likely to be reinforced on a ________ schedule. a. fixed-interval b. fixed-ratio c. variable-interval d. variable-ratio ANSWER: c 189. On Thursdays only, Dion goes to the café near his office to get a donut because he knows they give a 10 percent discount on donuts on Thursdays. The discount is being offered on a ________ schedule. a. variable-ratio ScholarFriends.com b. variable-interval Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice c. fixed-ratio d. fixed-interval ANSWER: d 190. Social media rewards its customers on a ________ schedule. a. fixed-ratio b. variable-ratio c. fixed-interval d. variable-interval ANSWER: d 191. Operant response rates tend to be ________ when linked to a ratio schedule rather than an interval schedule. Operant response rates tend to be ________ consistent when linked to a variable schedule rather than a fixed schedule. a. higher; less b. lower; more c. higher; more d. lower; less ANSWER: c 192. Operant response rates tend to be ________ when linked to an interval schedule rather than a ratio schedule. Operant response rates tend to be ________ consistent when linked to a fixed schedule rather than a variable schedule. a. higher; less b. lower; more c. higher; more d. lower; less ANSWER: d 193. A reinforcement schedule that, when graphed, resembles a staircase is the ________ schedule of reinforcement. a. fixed-ratio b. fixed-interval c. variable-ratio d. variable-interval ANSWER: b 194. A reinforcement schedule that resembles a slide is the ________ schedule of reinforcement. a. fixed-ratio b. fixed-interval c. variable-ratio ScholarFriends.com d. variable-interval Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 195. Strengthening a response by removing something negative is to ________ as a consequence that decreases the frequency of a preceding behavior is to ________. a. positive reinforcement; positive punishment b. punishment; positive reinforcement c. negative reinforcement; punishment d. primary reinforcement; negative punishment ANSWER: c 196. The introduction of a pleasant stimulus is to ________ as the withdrawal of a pleasant stimulus is to ________. a. positive reinforcer; negative reinforcer b. immediate reinforcer; delayed reinforcer c. positive reinforcement; negative punishment d. primary reinforcer; secondary reinforcer ANSWER: c 197. When Sarah does not have to do her regular chores because she has demonstrated good behavior, ________ has occurred. When Joshua is grounded for a week for staying out past his curfew, ________ has occurred. a. negative reinforcement; positive punishment b. positive reinforcement; negative reinforcement c. positive punishment; positive reinforcement d. negative reinforcement; positive reinforcement ANSWER: a 198. Punishment is any consequence that a. evokes a response. b. evokes no response before conditioning. c. increases the frequency of the behavior it follows. d. decreases the frequency of the behavior it follows. ANSWER: d 199. Oriol has stopped playing blackjack after he lost more than $1000. This best illustrates the effects of a. negative reinforcers. b. shaping. c. spontaneous recovery. d. punishment. ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com

200. Administering an aversive stimulus following an operant response is Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice a. negative punishment. b. positive punishment. c. negative reinforcement. d. positive reinforcement. ANSWER: b 201. Withdrawing a rewarding stimulus is called a. negative punishment. b. positive punishment. c. negative reinforcement. d. positive reinforcement. ANSWER: a 202. Nate did not come home last night by curfew, so his parents have now grounded him. This is an example of a. positive reinforcement. b. negative reinforcement. c. negative punishment. d. positive punishment. ANSWER: c 203. Ridwin has unfriended Mo on his social media account because Mo's comments are often unkind. This is an example of a(n) a. positive punisher. b. negative punisher. c. positive reinforcer. d. negative reinforcer. ANSWER: b 204. Taking away the driver's license of a reckless teen driver is intended to serve as a a. negative reinforcement. b. positive reinforcement. c. negative punishment. d. positive punishment. ANSWER: c 205. Positive punishment is the introduction of a(n) ________ stimulus following a behavior and negative punishment is the withdrawal of a(n) ________ stimulus following a behavior. a. pleasant; pleasant b. aversive; aversive ScholarFriends.com c. pleasant; aversive Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice d. aversive; pleasant ANSWER: d 206. Darren, who is given a time-out for not cleaning his room, learns to clean his room every day. In this case, the time-out is a a. positive reinforcer. b. negative reinforcer. c. positive punishment. d. negative punishment. ANSWER: c 207. Kym's use of crude language decreased because it was followed by a $20 decrease in her allowance. Reducing Kym's allowance served as ________ for her use of crude language. a. negative reinforcement b. positive punishment c. secondary reinforcement d. negative punishment ANSWER: d 208. Studies suggest that criminal behavior is most likely to be deterred by a. moderate levels of punishment. b. swiftly delivered punishment. c. severe levels of punishment. d. an unpredictable level of punishment. ANSWER: b 209. An analysis of 131,000 children from 49 countries found that a. most of their behaviors were unintentional and not influenced by punishment. b. their intentional misbehaviors typically increase in frequency when followed by punishment. c. children who were hit and spanked fare more poorly. d. other family differences had more of an impact than spanking did. ANSWER: c 210. One of the major drawbacks of using physical punishment to change children's behavior is that a. a lot of their behaviors are unintentional and not influenced by punishment. b. their intentional misbehaviors typically increase in frequency when followed by punishment. c. the frequency of their intentional misbehavior is reduced by positive punishment but increased by negative punishment. d. their punished behavior is often suppressed but not forgotten. ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com

211. Which of the following is NOT a consequence of physical punishment? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice a. respondent behavior. b. secondary reinforcement. c. discrimination. d. spontaneous recovery. ANSWER: c 212. A child who is punished for swearing in front of parents is most likely to demonstrate a patterned habit of swearing that is indicative of a. negative reinforcement. b. shaping. c. discrimination. d. extinction. ANSWER: c 213. As of 2021, ________ countries had outlawed all corporal punishment of children, including in the home. a. 48 b. 62 c. 100 d. 156 ANSWER: b 214. The use of physical punishment may a. lead to the suppression but not the forgetting of undesirable behavior. b. model aggression as a way of coping with problems. c. lead people to fear and avoid the punishing agent. d. have all of these results. ANSWER: d 215. To discipline a misbehaving child, may psychologists encourage a. negative punishment over positive punishment. b. time-out from positive reinforcement. c. lighter spankings. d. positive punishment over negative punishment. ANSWER: b 216. Most psychologists would advise parents and caregivers who want to change a child's bad behavior to make greater use of a. shaping than of modeling. b. reinforcement than of punishment. c. classical conditioning than of operant conditioning. ScholarFriends.com d. primary reinforcers than of secondary reinforcers. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 217. According to B. F. Skinner, human behavior is shaped primarily by a. external influences. b. emotions. c. unconscious motives. d. conscious thoughts. ANSWER: a 218. In explaining serious childhood misbehavior, B. F. Skinner would most likely have emphasized a. inherited predispositions. b. fear and greed. c. faulty child-raising practices. d. a weak internalized conscience. ANSWER: c 219. B. F. Skinner's critics have claimed that he neglected the importance of the individual's a. personal freedom. b. early childhood experiences. c. pleasure-seeking tendencies. d. cultural background. ANSWER: a 220. Some critics of Skinner said that he dehumanized people by neglecting their personal freedom and by seeking to control their actions. What was his response? a. A science of human behavior is related to human neurology. b. Internal thoughts and feelings only cause complications and disruptions for the human race. c. Internal thoughts and feelings should be redirected toward human betterment. d. Since external consequences already control people's behavior, why not administer those consequences toward human betterment? ANSWER: d 221. B. F. Skinner believed that "machines and textbooks" could promote effective learning because they allow for both a. delayed reinforcement and generalization. b. positive reinforcement and punishment. c. shaping and immediate reinforcement. d. respondent behavior and spontaneous recovery. ANSWER: c 222. Online ________ programs enable students to work at their own pace and receive immediate feedback on ScholarFriends.com their efforts. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice a. respondent behavior b. adaptive quizzing c. variable-interval d. secondary conditioning ANSWER: b 223. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be considered an important component of effective student learning when using online adaptive quizzing? a. respondent behavior b. immediate reinforcement c. operant behavior d. shaping ANSWER: a 224. Joy is a business owner who wants to ensure that her employees work a full 7-hour day with an hour for lunch. She has decided to provide a monthly reward of longer lunch hours to each employee who commits to the daily requirement. What principle is he using to reward her employees? a. delayed conditioning b. primary conditioning c. classical conditioning d. operant conditioning ANSWER: d 225. Three years ago, the Ramesh Construction Company included its employees in a profit-sharing plan in which workers receive annual bonuses based on the company's profits. Since this plan was initiated, worker productivity at Ramesh has nearly doubled. This productivity increase is best explained in terms of a. discrimination. b. operant conditioning. c. classical conditioning. d. spontaneous recovery. ANSWER: b 226. Rather than focus only on team wins and losses, Coach Gonzales highlights his football players' efforts during practice. The result is an obvious improvement in throwing and catching. This improvement is best explained in terms of a. discrimination. b. operant conditioning. c. classical conditioning. d. spontaneous recovery. ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com

227. Video game developers have used reinforcement principles to Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice a. teach teenagers how to make good decisions. b. create computer programs that mimic human learning. c. prepare parent-training programs. d. provide immediate feedback on game responses. ANSWER: b 228. Five-year-old Melissa starts crying loudly when her mother reuses to purchase the candy she wants. Parent-training experts would suggest that his mother should a. threaten to punish Melissa if she continues her crying. b. offer to buy the candy Melissa wants only if she quiets down and behaves herself. c. explain what Melissa is doing is wrong and give her a brief time-out. d. return any candy that is already in her cart to the store shelves. ANSWER: c 229. Elena, who started vaping several years ago, has finally decided to quit. What should she do first? a. State a realistic goal in measurable terms and announce it. b. Decide how, when, and where she will work toward her goal. c. Monitor how often she engages in her desired behavior. d. Reinforce her desired behavior. ANSWER: a 230. To get you to increase the frequency of your daily exercise, operant behavior specialists are most likely to recommend that you a. share your exercise goals with a friend and specify how you plan to achieve them. b. congratulate yourself even when you fail to fulfill your specific exercise goals. c. never reward yourself with a light snack after achieving specific exercise goals. d. avoid trying to keep track of exactly how much you have exercised in a specific weekly period. ANSWER: a 231. Which of the following would be the most appropriate step in attempting to check your progress on your own behavior change? a. State a realistic goal in measurable terms and announce it. b. Decide how, when, and where you will work toward your goal. c. Monitor how often you engage in your desired behavior. d. Reinforce your desired behavior. ANSWER: c 232. An involuntary response is to ________ as a voluntary response is to ________. a. operant behavior; respondent behavior b. unconditioned response; conditioned response ScholarFriends.com c. generalization; discrimination Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice d. classical conditioning; operant conditioning ANSWER: d 233. Both classical and operant conditioning are forms of a. associative learning. b. respondent behavior. c. continuous reinforcement. d. shaping. ANSWER: a 234. An organism learns associations between events it does not control during the process of a. negative reinforcement. b. spontaneous recovery. c. classical conditioning. d. shaping. ANSWER: c 235. A learned association between behaviors and resulting events is central to a. operant conditioning. b. extinction. c. classical conditioning. d. spontaneous recovery. ANSWER: a 236. A learned association between two stimuli is most central to a. shaping. b. negative reinforcement. c. a fixed-interval schedule. d. classical conditioning. ANSWER: d 237. Which of the following is NOT associated with learning? a. biological influences b. psychological influences c. social-cultural influences d. All of these are associated with learning. ANSWER: d 238. The theory of natural selection was proposed by a. Charles Darwin. ScholarFriends.com b. John Garcia. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice c. Robert Rescorla. d. Allan Wagner. ANSWER: a 239. Each species is predisposed to learn those things crucial to its survival. This fact demonstrates a. biological limits on conditioning. b. the relevance of cognitive learning in survival. c. the difference between operant conditioning and classical conditioning. d. spontaneous recovery and acquisition. ANSWER: a 240. Tendencies developed through evolutionary history that predispose members of a species to learn some associations more readily than others are a. cognitive maps. b. biological limits. c. respondent behaviors. d. conditioned responses. ANSWER: b 241. The idea that almost any stimulus (whether a taste, sight, or sound) would serve equally well as a conditioned stimulus was challenged by a. Garcia and Koelling's findings on taste aversion in rats. b. Pavlov's findings on the conditioned salivary response. c. Watson and Rayner's findings on fear conditioning in infants. d. Bandura's findings on observational learning and aggression in children. ANSWER: a 242. Joseph became violently ill after eating a turkey sandwich a few months ago. Although he developed an aversion to the taste of turkey sandwiches, he did not avoid the sight of the associated restaurant. Joseph's taste aversion supports a. Darwin's principle of natural selection. b. Skinner's principles of reinforcement. c. the importance of latent learning. d. Bandura's concept of modeling. ANSWER: a 243. Taste aversion demonstrates a. both acquisition and extinction. b. biological limits on classical conditioning. c. the effect of spontaneous recovery. d. biological limits on operant conditioning. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 244. At one time, Cornelius loved the taste of carrots until he ate some carrots laced with a nausea-producing toxin. After that, he developed a taste aversion to carrots. This best illustrates the impact of a. latent learning. b. classical conditioning. c. negative reinforcement. d. observational learning. ANSWER: b 245. Garcia and Koelling's studies of taste aversion in rats demonstrated the impact of ________ on classical conditioning. a. cognitive processes b. biological limits c. modeling d. latent learning ANSWER: b 246. Which of the following has helped prevent coyotes and wolves from attacking sheep? a. observational learning b. conditioned taste aversion c. positive reinforcement d. latent learning ANSWER: b 247. Generally, ________ predispose(s) organisms to learn associations that ________. a. evolution; are advantageous b. biological limits; are naturally adaptive c. latent learning; are naturally adaptive d. predictability; are advantageous ANSWER: b 248. Our ancestors learned to avoid foods and situations that made them sick, which helped them survive and leave descendants. This demonstrates that ________ favors traits that aid survival. a. modeling b. mirror neurons c. associative learning d. natural selection ANSWER: d 249. Evidence that organisms most readily learn behaviors favored by natural selection best illustrates the ScholarFriends.com importance of Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice a. vicarious reinforcement. b. cognitive learning. c. conditioned reinforcers. d. biological limits. ANSWER: d 250. It's easier to train a pigeon to peck a disk for a food reward than to flap its wings for a food reward. This illustrates the importance of ________ in learning. a. predictability b. modeling c. cognitive maps d. biological limits ANSWER: d 251. John B. Watson considered himself to be a a. physiological psychologist. b. cognitive psychologist. c. behaviorist. d. psychoanalyst. ANSWER: c 252. Behaviorism was the view that psychology should scientifically study behavior without reference to a. conditioning. b. neutral stimuli. c. discrimination. d. mental processes. ANSWER: d 253. John B. Watson would have expressed the greatest disapproval of attempts to scientifically study whether a. consumer buying habits are influenced by newspaper advertisements. b. worker productivity is influenced by hourly wage rates. c. academic achievement is influenced by a positive self-concept. d. aggressive behavior is influenced by threats of punishment. ANSWER: c 254. Both Watson and Pavlov believed that the behavior of rats and dogs could be reduced to mindless mechanisms. To them, this meant there was no need to a. consider cognition. b. attempt to predict or control behavior. c. understand behavior. ScholarFriends.com d. infer behavior. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 255. Ivan Pavlov and John B. Watson ________ the impact of biological limits on classical conditioning and they ________ the impact of cognitive processes on classical conditioning. a. underestimated; overestimated b. overestimated; underestimated c. underestimated; underestimated d. overestimated; overestimated ANSWER: c 256. The views of learning advanced by Ivan Pavlov and John B. Watson underestimated the importance of a. neutral stimuli. b. cognitive processes. c. associative learning. d. unconditioned responses. ANSWER: b 257. Watson believed that the field of psychology should have goals associated with a. predicting and controlling behavior. b. understanding behavior. c. interpreting behavior. d. inferring behavior ANSWER: a 258. An event's predictability appears to be crucial for an organism to learn an association between two stimuli. This highlights the importance of ________ in conditioning. a. modeling b. latent learning c. frequency d. cognitive processes ANSWER: d 259. Tina has learned that dark clouds predict rain in the near future. This suggests that associative learning involves a. generalization. b. cognitive processes. c. mirror neurons. d. genetic predispositions. ANSWER: b 260. An event's ________ appears to be crucialScholarFriends.com for an organism to learn an association between two stimuli. a. objectivity Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice b. predictability c. frequency d. latency ANSWER: b 261. Psychologiss who believe that cognitive processes are necessary for learning would most likely suggest that classical conditioning depends on a. an organism's behavior in response to environmental stimulation. b. the amount of time between the presentation of the CS and the US. c. how frequently an organism is exposed to an association of a CS and a US. d. an organism's expectation that a US will follow a CS. ANSWER: d 262. Brooke is teaching her dog to lie down on command, so she works with the dog every day after lunch and then again after dinner. After several days, she notices that her dog lies down on its own, without her command, around lunch time. This demonstrates a. how latent learning is involved in classical conditioning. b. the use of cognitive maps in learning. c. the role of cognitive processes in conditioning. d. the role of observational learning. ANSWER: c 263. Rosemarie feels that her contribution to the company's profits is unappreciated because she sees no connection between her work and the size of her annual bonus. Therefore, she stops putting her usual effort into her work, even though she really wants a big bonus. This best illustrates the importance of ________ in the operant conditioning of work habits. a. modeling b. biological limits c. latent learning d. cognitive processes ANSWER: d 264. Operant response rates remain highest when individuals anticipate that their behavior will actually lead to further reinforcement. This best illustrates the importance of ________ in operant conditioning. a. latent learning b. cognitive processes c. biological limits d. modeling ANSWER: b 265. A mental representation of the layout of one's environment is called ScholarFriends.com a. a cognitive map. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice b. a prosocial behavior. c. an unconditioned stimulus. d. a fixed-interval schedule. ANSWER: a 266. Learning that occurs but is not apparent until there is an incentive to demonstrate it is called a. associative learning. b. operant conditioning. c. latent learning. d. shaping. ANSWER: c 267. If rats are allowed to wander through a maze, they will subsequently run the maze with few errors when a food reward is placed in the maze's goal box. Their good performance demonstrates a. prosocial behavior. b. latent learning. c. antisocial behavior. d. modeling. ANSWER: b 268. Avia has always homeschooled her children and has not given them "grades" on their assignments. Instead, she would make them redo any assignments that were completed incorrectly. But her daughter started complaining about her schoolwork, saying that she did not want to do it, especially her math. So, Avia decided to try giving grades for completed work. Now her daughter completes her assignments faster, gets high marks on her assignments, and no longer complains about her work. This demonstrates a. observational learning. b. classical conditioning. c. natural selection. d. latent learning. ANSWER: d 269. The fact that learning can occur without reinforcement is most clearly demonstrated by studies of a. fixed-interval schedules. b. latent learning. c. predictability. d. shaping. ANSWER: b 270. Studies of latent learning highlight the importance of a. conditioned stimuli. b. unconditioned stimuli. ScholarFriends.com c. cognitive processes. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice d. conditioned reinforcers. ANSWER: c 271. Our ability to learn by witnessing the behavior of others best illustrates a. classical conditioning. b. prosocial behavior. c. operant conditioning. d. observational learning. ANSWER: d 272. Cognition supports observational learning, which is also called a. classical conditioning. b. prosocial behavior. c. operant conditioning. d. social learning. ANSWER: d 273. Hernando is watching his older brother practice martial arts. Hernando then imitates the same behaviors and actions while playing with friends. Hernando is demonstrating a. observational learning. b. the effect of mirror neurons. c. classical conditioning. d. associative learning. ANSWER: a 274. Alicia and Kate are 8 years old and have seen all the Wonder Woman movies. Kate's mother recently found the girls holding garbage can tops and ready to do battle . What best accounts for the girls' behavior? a. conditioned reinforcement b. observational learning c. immediate reinforcement d. classical conditioning ANSWER: b 275. Yogi wears a hoodie because he noticed that his older brother does so. This illustrates the importance of a. latent learning. b. immediate reinforcement. c. modeling. d. prosocial behavior. ANSWER: c 276. The process of observing and imitating a ScholarFriends.com specific behavior is called Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice a. shaping. b. modeling. c. generalization. d. prosocial behavior. ANSWER: b 277. The pioneering researcher of observational learning was a. John Garcia. b. B. F. Skinner. c. Albert Bandura. d. John B. Watson. ANSWER: c 278. In Bandura's experiment, preschool children pounded and kicked a large inflated toy clown called a Bobo doll that an adult had just pounded, kicked, and thrown across the room. This experiment served to illustrate the importance of a. operant conditioning. b. classical conditioning. c. observational learning. d. vicarious punishment. ANSWER: c 279. In Bandura's classic experiment, after observing an adult beating an inflated doll, preschool children a. imitated only the modeled aggressive behaviors. b. both imitated the modeled aggressive behaviors and displayed some "non-modeled" aggressive behaviors. c. imitated both the modeled aggressive behaviors and some previously observed prosocial behaviors. d. overestimated their ability to imitate the modeled behaviors. ANSWER: b 280. We are most likely to imitate the behavior of models if we observe that their actions are a. conditioned responses. b. predictable. c. followed by reinforcement. d. violent or antisocial. ANSWER: c 281. The tendency to engage in behaviors that we observe others being rewarded for performing best illustrates the influence of a. prosocial behavior. b. operant conditioning. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice c. antisocial behavior. d. vicarious reinforcement. ANSWER: d 282. Abigail watched her big sister play soccer last season and win a trophy for her participation. Abigail now wants to play soccer so that she too can win a trophy. Her understanding of how her big sister got the trophy is related to a. vicarious reinforcement. b. latent learning. c. vicarious punishment. d. classical conditioning. ANSWER: a 283. Learning to anticipate consequences by watching others is related to a. cognitive maps. b. latent learning. c. vicarious punishment. d. classical conditioning ANSWER: c 284. When Alex saw his brother being given a time-out for taking other children's toys, Alex also discontinued taking toys that didn't belong to him. This best illustrates the impact of a. latent learning. b. vicarious punishment. c. respondent behavior. d. prosocial behavior. ANSWER: b 285. After watching online videos of Olympic figure skaters performing their routines and winning medals, 10year-old Samia, who has never skated before, is certain she'll be able to perform similar feats immediately. This illustrates a. a limitation of observational learning. b. the power of prosocial behavior. c. an application of modeling. d. a benefit of vicarious reinforcement. ANSWER: a 286. Leeza, who is 14, has begun blowing off her schoolwork and spending all her time with friends. As a result, her grades have dropped, and she is in danger of failing two courses. Leeza's parents hope that her older sister Anne, who has just received a college scholarship and learned that she will be her high school's valedictorian, can be a good model for Leeza. This vicarious reinforcement is most likely if Leeza perceives ScholarFriends.com Anne as Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice a. serious and thoughtful. b. successful and similar to herself. c. kind and willing to help others. d. friendly and unintimidating. ANSWER: b 287. We are especially likely to vicariously experience the reinforcing outcomes of those we perceive as a. predictable. b. antisocial models. c. latent learners. d. similar to ourselves. ANSWER: d 288. Feng is a second-year high school student who loves to watch college baseball games. His favorite player is also getting very good grades in college. Feng is most likely to experience vicarious reinforcement for education if his favorite baseball player is all of the following EXCEPT a. similar to him. b. successful. c. admirable. d. famous. ANSWER: d 289. Mirror neurons are believed by some scientists to provide a biological basis for a. classical conditioning. b. cognitive maps. c. observational learning. d. predictability. ANSWER: c 290. Which of the following do some scientists believe are activated both by shooting baskets and by simply watching another person shoot baskets? a. prosocial behaviors b. taste aversions c. cognitive maps d. mirror neurons ANSWER: d 291. Ciara watches as her daughter falls off her bicycle and begins to cry. Ciara feels her daughter's pain. This emotional contagion is likely related to a. cognitive maps. b. latent learning. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice c. mirror neurons. d. cognitive learning. ANSWER: a 292. Researchers found that ________ are activated when a monkey moves a peanut into its own mouth and when a monkey simply observes other monkeys move a peanut into their mouths. a. prosocial behaviors b. antisocial behaviors c. cognitive maps d. mirror neurons ANSWER: d 293. Rhesus macaque monkeys are more likely to reconcile after a fight if they grow up with forgiving older macaque monkeys. This best illustrates the impact of a. classical conditioning. b. latent learning. c. observational learning. d. cognitive maps. ANSWER: c 294. Psychologists are currently debating whether our physical capacity for mentally simulating the observed behavior of others is due to specialized a. cognitive learning. b. cognitive maps. c. respondent behaviors. d. mirror neurons. ANSWER: d 295. From 8 to 16 months, infants imitate various novel gestures they see others perform. This best illustrates a. classical conditioning. b. observational learning. c. latent learning. d. a fixed-interval schedule. ANSWER: b 296. Psychologists conducting research on observational learning would suggest that a video game involving wrestling may lead viewers to mentally simulate wrestling thanks to the activation of a. cognitive maps. b. mirror neurons. c. cognitive learning. d. taste aversions. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 297. Dennis has trouble frowning when he sees his sister smile than when seeing her frown. Scientists are currently debating whether this can be attributed to the activation of a. the law of effect. b. cognitive learning. c. mirror neurons. d. cognitive maps. ANSWER: c 298. Helpful and constructive actions best illustrate a. latent learning. b. antisocial behavior. c. respondent behavior. d. prosocial behavior. ANSWER: d 299. Models are most effective when a. they are the older than the observer. b. they are demonstrating prosocial behaviors. c. they are biologically related to the observer. d. their actions and words are consistent. ANSWER: d 300. Janice learned to care for small animals by observing the many ways her father cared for their pet dogs and cats. This best illustrates the value of observational learning for promoting a. fixed-interval schedules. b. prosocial behavior. c. antisocial behavior. d. spontaneous recovery. ANSWER: b 301. During the COVID-19 pandemic, Mr. Bakare frequently told his children that it is important to use hand sanitizer frequently during the day, but he rarely does so himself. Experiments suggest that his children will learn to a. practice and preach the virtues of health and safety. b. practice healthy behaviors but not preach their virtues. c. neither practice nor preach the virtues of healthy behavior. d. preach the virtues of healthy behavior but not practice healthy behavior. ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice a. modeled behavior. b. latent behavior. c. respondent behavior. d. antisocial behavior. ANSWER: d 303. Children often imitate the exact aggressive actions seen on television and online videos. This best illustrates the impact of a. modeling. b. latent learning. c. respondent behavior. d. delayed reinforcement. ANSWER: a 304. Correlational studies show that heavy exposure to media violence among U.S. children 9 to 11 years old ________ increased rates of violent behavior when they were teens. a. inhibited b. caused c. was unrelated to d. predicted ANSWER: d 305. People are especially likely to behave aggressively after heavy exposure to TV violence in which attractive people engage in seemingly a. justified and realistic violence that causes no visible pain or harm. b. unjustified but realistic violence that causes no visible pain or harm. c. justified and realistic violence that causes a lot of visible pain or harm. d. unjustified but realistic violence that causes a lot of visible pain or harm. ANSWER: a 306. After playing violent video games, Margie and Norm decide to imitate the video fighting and engage in a boxing match. This best illustrates that one of the factors contributing to the violence-viewing effect is a. classical conditioning. b. spontaneous recovery. c. imitation. d. shaping. ANSWER: c 307. Desensitization has been found to be an important factor contributing to a. latent learning. b. conditioned taste aversions. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice c. the violence-viewing effect. d. cognitive learning. ANSWER: c 308. Carolyn recently discovered that since the introduction of television, there have been twice as many homicides in the United States and Canada. What conclusion can she reach? a. The size of the effect is low. b. The results may be unreliable. c. Other cultures with similar levels of media violence have different levels of violent behavior. d. The results are valid. ANSWER: d

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 1. Alzheimer's disease begins with ________ and progresses into ________. a. speech deficits; damaged memory centers in the brain b. damaged memory centers in the brain; speech deficits c. difficulty remembering new information; an inability to complete daily tasks d. an inability to complete daily tasks; difficulty remembering new information ANSWER: c 2. Bianca has Alzheimer's disease and has lost many of her memories. She doesn't know who her children or grandchildren are. She doesn't remember being married and a wife and doesn't remember the career she had. She often wonders "Who am I?" This demonstrates her a. declining recognition abilities. b. ability to relearn. c. damaged ability to engage in parallel processing. d. weakened sense of self. ANSWER: d 3. The average person can permanently store and recognize ________ faces. a. 1000 b. 2000 c. 4000 d. 5000 ANSWER: d 4. People who have an extraordinary face-recognition ability are referred to as a. super-mnemonists. b. automatic processors. c. super-recognizers. d. semantic memorists. ANSWER: c 5. Krisha was walking down the street when she recognized a woman who had been featured on a news program a few months ago. With her outstanding face-recognition ability, Krisha is referred to as a(n) a. overlearner. b. mnemonic expert. c. super-recognizer. d. deep processor. ANSWER: c 6. The persistence of learning over time most clearly depends on a. chunking. b. massed practice. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice c. visual encoding. d. memory. ANSWER: d 7. Genevieve, a first-year college student, is taking an introductory physics course. She has attended all the classes, read the chapter, and worked all the problems. On exam day she is able to retrieve information as needed to answer the questions. In being able to answer the questions, Genevieve is relying on her a. memory. b. relearning. c. automatic processing. d. parallel processing. ANSWER: a 8. Dean can make his way back to his new home after work because of his a. flashbulb memory. b. information-processing models. c. the serial position effect. d. massed practice. ANSWER: b 9. The process of encoding refers to a. the persistence of learning over time. b. the recall of information previously learned. c. getting information into memory. d. a momentary sensory memory lasting less than a second. ANSWER: c 10. As Sam reads the textbook for his class and takes notes, he is attempting to ________ the information. a. encode b. store c. retrieve d. relearn ANSWER: a 11. The retention of encoded information over time refers to a. effortful processing. b. implicit memory. c. the spacing effect. d. storage. ANSWER: d

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 12. Francesca is studying for an upcoming exam, hoping that she will be able to accurately ________ the information to do well on the exam. a. encode b. recognize c. store d. retrieve ANSWER: c 13. Storage is to encoding as ________ is to ________. a. recognition; recall b. rehearsal; retrieval c. retention; acquisition d. explicit memory; implicit memory ANSWER: c 14. The process of getting information out of memory is called a. encoding. b. relearning. c. retrieval. d. rehearsal. ANSWER: c 15. Anthea is reading a text chapter for her psychology class and wants to make sure that the information gets into her brain, or is ________. She also wants to be able to retain, or ________, the information so that she can later use it when taking a test. a. encoded; store b. stored; retrieve c. retrieved; encode d. encoded; retrieve ANSWER: a 16. Professor Hoffmann has an accurate memory of the students in his large introductory psychology class. However, when he needs to call on one of them to answer a question, his mind goes blank and he forgets their name. Professor Hoffmann most clearly demonstrates difficulty with a. iconic memory. b. encoding. c. echoic memory. d. retrieval. ANSWER: d 17. The original Atkinson and Shiffrin three-stage information-processing model introduced distinctions among ScholarFriends.com a. recall, recognition, and relearning. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice b. proactive interference, retroactive interference, and repression. c. sensory memory, short-term memory, and long-term memory. d. the serial position effect, the spacing effect, and the testing effect. ANSWER: c 18. Richard Atkinson and Richard Shiffrin introduced a. a new concept of long-term memory. b. the concept of a capacity for short-term memory. c. a three-stage information-processing model that distinguishes among sensory memory, short-term memory, and long-term memory. d. various strategies that can be used for effortful processing. ANSWER: c 19. Which of the following outlines the sequence of the Atkinson and Shiffrin three-stage model of memory? a. working memory ? short-term memory ? sensory memory b. short-term memory ? sensory memory ? long-term memory c. short-term memory ? working memory ? long-term memory d. sensory memory ? short-term memory ? long-term memory ANSWER: d 20. Piper is attending a class lecture and is taking detailed notes. Her goal is to learn the information provided by the professor so that she can do well on course exams. For the information to reach Piper's long-term memory, it must first enter a. working memory, then be transferred to her short-term memory, and finally stored in her sensory memory. b. short-term memory, then be transferred to her sensory memory, and finally stored in her long-term memory. c. short-term memory, then be transferred to her working memory, and finally stored in her long-term memory. d. sensory memory, then be transferred to her short-term memory, and finally stored in her long-term memory. ANSWER: d 21. Mayra is hiking through the woods. She sees the squirrels playing, hears the birds singing, and feels the wet ground beneath her feet. These are examples of information entering her a. sensory memory. b. short-term memory. c. working memory. d. long-term memory. ANSWER: a 22. In which stage of the Atkinson and ShiffrinScholarFriends.com model do we rehearse information? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice a. sensory memory b. short-term memory c. long-term memory d. working memory ANSWER: b 23. Some information in our fleeting ________ is encoded into short-term memory. a. repressed memory b. sensory memory c. flashbulb memory d. long-term memory ANSWER: b 24. Your briefly activated but limited-capacity memory is called ________ memory. a. short-term b. implicit c. mood-congruent d. explicit ANSWER: a 25. When Lumi was introduced to the other officers on the ship, she was only able to remember their names for a couple of minutes afterward. During this time their names were stored in her ________ memory. a. echoic b. implicit c. short-term d. iconic ANSWER: c 26. Long-term memory refers to a. the conscious active processing of incoming visual and auditory information. b. the retention of learned facts rather than learned skills. c. a photographic or picture-image sensory memory. d. the relatively permanent and limitless archive of the memory system. ANSWER: d 27. Trond learned how to ride a bicycle when he was 7 years old. He is now 21 and has not ridden a bike for more than 5 years but has no problem remembering how to ride. During this time this skill was stored in his ________ memory. a. echoic b. implicit ScholarFriends.com c. short-term Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice d. iconic ANSWER: c 28. The original Atkinson and Shiffrin three-stage model of memory has been revised with newer concepts, including a. working memory. b. automatic processing. c. both working memory and automatic processing. d. neither working memory nor automatic processing. ANSWER: c 29. The term working memory represents psychologists' newer understanding of a. long-term memory. b. implicit memory. c. short-term memory. d. sensory memory. ANSWER: c 30. Working memory is a. retention of learned skills or classically conditioned associations independent of conscious recollection. b. retention of facts and experiences that one can consciously know. c. the immediate, very brief recording of sensory information in the memory system. d. a newer understanding of short-term memory that adds conscious, active processing of incoming sensory information, and of information retrieved from long-term memory. ANSWER: d 31. Conscious active processing of incoming information requires ________ memory. a. implicit b. working c. flashbulb d. echoic ANSWER: b 32. Tanya is listening to her father's description of the family's ancestry. As Tanya processes what her father is saying, her ________ connects the new information to what she already knows. a. automatic working memory b. active working memory c. automatic long-term memory d. active long-term memory ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 33. In one experiment, people read and typed new information they would later need. If they knew the information would be available online, they invested less time remembering it, and they remembered it less well. This demonstrates that integrating memory inputs with long-term memories requires a. sensory input. b. focused attention. c. automatic processing. d. retrieval. ANSWER: b 34. Imani is trying to learn the elements in the periodic table for her chemistry exam. To ensure that the information makes its way into his long-term memory, Imani needs to know that this requires a. sensory input. b. automatic processing. c. focused attention. d. retrieval. ANSWER: c 35. Conscious active processing of incoming auditory and visual information requires ________ memory. a. implicit b. working c. flashbulb d. echoic ANSWER: b 36. The integration of new incoming information with knowledge retrieved from long-term memory involves the activity of a. implicit memory. b. iconic memory. c. echoic memory. d. working memory. ANSWER: d 37. When Mr. Sherck arrived at school, he realized that he had left his lesson plan at home. By mentally visualizing his notes on his desk, he was able to recall his plan. His mental visualization most clearly involved a. iconic memory. b. working memory. c. implicit memory. d. automatic processing. ANSWER: b 38. Automatic processing most clearly occurs without ScholarFriends.com a. encoding. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice b. conscious rehearsal. c. implicit memory. d. chunking. ANSWER: b 39. The distinction between automatic and effortful processing most clearly highlights the nature of a. the two-track mind. b. the serial position effect. c. sensory memory. d. mood-congruent memory. ANSWER: a 40. Implicit memories are a. classically conditioned associations or learned skills that are automatically processed. b. memories of physical skills such as how to ride a bike. c. memories of facts and personal events that can be consciously retrieved. d. memories that are formed by massed practice rather than by distributed practice. ANSWER: a 41. Because it happens without our awareness, implicit memory is also called a. sensory memory. b. nondeclarative memory. c. automatic memory. d. declarative memory. ANSWER: b 42. Geovannie has learned how to button his shirt. This is an example of a(n) a. declarative memory. b. sensory memory. c. explicit memory. d. implicit memory. ANSWER: d 43. We encode implicit memories by means of a. recall. b. working memory. c. automatic processing. d. mnemonics. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com 44. Remembering how to solve a puzzle without any conscious recollection that you can do so best illustrates Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice ________ memory. a. working b. short-term c. implicit d. sensory ANSWER: c 45. Knowing how to read and write are examples of a. implicit memories. b. explicit memories. c. declarative memories. d. sensory memories. ANSWER: a 46. Lyla is looking for her sunglasses, which she apparently misplaced when she came in after sitting in the sun. She is easily able to retrace her steps and find her sunglasses on the kitchen table. The information she used to retrace her steps was stored through a. effortful processing. b. automatic processing. c. implicit processing. d. explicit processing. ANSWER: b 47. Encoding that requires attention and conscious awareness is called a. massed practice. b. effortful processing. c. distributed practice. d. priming. ANSWER: b 48. Selena has just been introduced to her gym partner for the semester. The process of remembering the girl's name illustrates a. implicit memory. b. sensory memory. c. effortful processing. d. the serial position effect. ANSWER: c 49. When Inyoman was in his third year in high school, he learned all the capitols of all the states in the United States. He likely learned this information through a. effortful processing. ScholarFriends.com b. automatic processing. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice c. implicit processing. d. explicit processing. ANSWER: a 50. When you consciously repeat to yourself the names of people you want to remember, you are using a. implicit memory. b. echoic memory. c. effortful processing. d. the serial position effect. ANSWER: c 51. Implicit memory is to explicit memory as ________ is to ________. a. iconic memory; echoic memory b. automatic processing; effortful processing c. short-term memory; long-term memory d. the spacing effect; the testing effect ANSWER: b 52. Explicit memories are a. classically conditioned associations that are automatically processed. b. memories of physical skills such as how to ride a bike. c. memories of facts and personal events that can be consciously retrieved. d. memories that are formed by massed practice rather than by distributed practice. ANSWER: c 53. Explicit memory is also known as a. echoic memory. b. working memory. c. declarative memory. d. iconic memory. ANSWER: c 54. Nera has a conscious memory of the person who was elected president when Nera first voted. This is a(n) ________ memory. a. iconic b. explicit c. flashbulb d. nondeclarative ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com 55. Odie knows that Paul Revere was the person who made the famous ride warning colonists that the British Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice were coming. This is an example of a(n) a. nondeclarative memory. b. sensory memory. c. explicit memory. d. implicit memory. ANSWER: c 56. The original Atkinson-Shiffrin memory model focused on how we a. engage in automatic processing. b. process our explicit memories. c. form implicit memories. d. develop classically conditioned associations without conscious awareness. ANSWER: b 57. Idika was caught in a rip tide when she was 12 years old. Since then, she has been very careful about wading into the ocean. Idika's classically conditioned response to the ocean is an example of a. declarative memory. b. sensory memory. c. an explicit memory. d. an implicit memory. ANSWER: d 58. Sumeet has just been hired to work on a large cruise ship. He is at the restaurant where he is the host when he realizes he does not have his crew card. By retracing his steps, he is able to find the card at the entranceway where he first checked in. This demonstrates that Sumeet had automatically processed information related to a. space. b. time. c. frequency. d. identification. ANSWER: b 59. Automatic skills such as how to tie your shoelaces are typically ________ memories. a. working b. implicit c. sensory d. explicit ANSWER: b 60. Catalina has no memory of the indigestion she suffered after eating pancakes with too much syrup several times in early childhood. However, whenever she smells syrup-coated pancakes now she experiences a classically conditioned feeling of nausea. Catalina's conditioned reaction indicates that she retains a(n) ScholarFriends.com ________ memory. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice a. working b. echoic c. iconic d. implicit ANSWER: d 61. Putu is unable to remember the name of the celebrity he met at a show years ago. Surprisingly, however, he has an accurate mental picture of the street where they met. His memory of this incidental information is best explained in terms of a. automatic processing. b. the spacing effect. c. echoic memory. d. effortful processing. ANSWER: a 62. Information learned through classical conditioning forms ________ memories. a. implicit b. explicit c. nondeclarative d. sensory ANSWER: a 63. We do not automatically process information about a. space. b. frequency. c. language. d. time. ANSWER: c 64. Sheldon has been diligently studying for his abnormal psychology course. During a study session, a friend asked Sheldon a question about schizophrenia. Sheldon took out his text and immediately turned to the page that discussed schizophrenia. This demonstrates that while he was studying Sheldon automatically processed information related to a. space. b. time. c. frequency. d. identification. ANSWER: a 65. Which of the following is NOT an example of an implicit memory? a. how to ride a bike ScholarFriends.com b. how to drive a car Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice c. how to tie our shoes d. who the current president is ANSWER: d 66. Information about when and where you saw your best friend is likely to be a. a working memory. b. an iconic memory. c. automatically processed. d. an echoic memory. ANSWER: c 67. You are most likely to automatically encode information about a. politicians' names. b. friends' birthdays. c. new web addresses. d. how often things happen. ANSWER: d 68. The ability to unconsciously encode how often you checked Messenger during the day best illustrates a. working memory. b. automatic processing. c. iconic memory. d. distributed practice. ANSWER: b 69. The processing of many aspects of a stimulus or problem simultaneously best illustrates our brain's capacity for a. massed practice. b. automatic processing. c. distributed practice. d. parallel processing. ANSWER: d 70. Parallel processing refers to the processing of a. semantic information at a deep level. b. information automatically without conscious effort. c. information in familiar, manageable units. d. multiple aspects of a stimulus or problem simultaneously. ANSWER: d 71. Sherry is driving to the local grocery store.ScholarFriends.com As she drives, her brain is taking in information from her various Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice senses at the same time to ensure that she can safely make her way to the grocery store. This demonstrates a. parallel processing. b. short-term memory. c. working memory. d. long-term memory. ANSWER: a 72. Being able to encode the sights, sounds, and smells of a remembered Christmas party best illustrates a. distributed practice. b. implicit memory. c. parallel processing. d. chunking. ANSWER: c 73. The effortful processing of information a. cannot occur simultaneously with automatic processing. b. refers to the process of getting information out of memory storage. c. can become automatic through practice. d. occurs less frequently among adults than children. ANSWER: c 74. Maddie is learning how to drive. This is a skill that a. is classically conditioned. b. is learned automatically. c. is easy for small children to acquire. d. requires experience and practice. ANSWER: d 75. The immediate, very brief recording of sensory information in the memory system is referred to as a. short-term memory. b. sensory memory. c. long-term memory. d. explicit memory. ANSWER: b 76. Maya enjoyed the sweet aroma of cookies baking in the oven as she walked through the kitchen. This momentary scent first entered Maya's memory system through her a. echoic memory. b. working memory. c. short-term memory. ScholarFriends.com d. sensory memory. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 77. When experimental participants viewed three rows of three letters each for only one-twentieth of a second, they a. recalled only half the letters because they did not have enough time to see all of them. b. recalled only about seven of the letters because of storage limitations. c. had a momentary sensory memory of all nine letters. d. formed a sensory memory of no more than a single letter. ANSWER: c 78. A momentary sensory memory of visual stimuli is called ________ memory. a. echoic b. short-term c. iconic d. implicit ANSWER: c 79. Just before a movie is shown, the theater flashes a number for ordering tickets at a discount, but the image disappears before Moses has had a chance to write down the complete number. To his surprise, however, he has retained a momentary mental image of the complete phone number. His experience best illustrates ________ memory. a. iconic b. implicit c. echoic d. flashbulb ANSWER: a 80. An iconic memory is a ________ memory. a. sensory b. short-term c. working d. long-term ANSWER: a 81. ________ memory is to picture-image memory as________ memory is to sound memory. a. Implicit; explicit b. Iconic; echoic c. Explicit; implicit d. Echoic; iconic ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice seconds. a. Implicit; explicit b. Iconic; echoic c. Explicit; implicit d. Echoic; iconic ANSWER: b 83. Echoic memory refers to a. the encoded meanings of words and events in long-term memory. b. a vivid memory of an emotionally significant event. c. the automatic retention of incidental information about the timing and frequency of events. d. a momentary sensory memory of a sound. ANSWER: d 84. Three or four seconds after hearing her dog's howling, Mrs. Ticich has a vivid auditory impression of the dog's howling. Her experience most clearly illustrates ________ memory. a. short-term b. iconic c. implicit d. echoic ANSWER: d 85. Our ability to retain information in short-term memory for a few seconds along with our ability to link information with stored memories is the job of short-term memory's processing manager, called a. iconic memory. b. explicit memory. c. working memory. d. implicit memory. ANSWER: c 86. George Miller proposed that about seven information bits constitute the capacity of ________ memory. a. short-term b. explicit c. long-term d. implicit ANSWER: a 87. Talia is signing up for a course in lifesaving techniques but she doesn't have her credit card with her. How many of the numbers from her credit card is she likely to remember? a. two b. five ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice c. seven d. ten ANSWER: c 88. Imagine seeing a letter of the alphabet, then being asked a simple question, then another letter, followed by another question, and so on. People who can consciously process and recall the most letters, despite such interruptions, are demonstrating effective a. echoic memory. b. procedural memory. c. implicit memory. d. working memory. ANSWER: d 89. Which of the following is true regarding working memory? a. Females have a larger working memory capacity then males. b. Young adults have a larger working memory capacity than children. c. Males have a larger working memory capacity than females. d. Children have a larger working memory capacity than adults. ANSWER: b 90. Who is more likely to have greater working memory capacity? a. Mandi, who is 5 years old b. Christine, who is 50 years old c. Trevor, who is 15 years old d. Stan, who is 20 years old ANSWER: d 91. To retain a newly introduced group of three consonants such as CHJ in our working memory, it is most clearly necessary to engage in a. chunking. b. proactive interference. c. rehearsal. d. automatic processing. ANSWER: c 92. Researchers have demonstrated that unrehearsed short-term memories for three consonants almost completely decay in as short a time as a. 12 seconds. b. 1 minute. c. 12 minutes. d. 1 hour. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 93. After being asked to remember three consonants, participants in a research study counted aloud backward by threes to prevent a. source amnesia. b. iconic memory. c. encoding failure. d. rehearsal. ANSWER: d 94. Young adults' ability to retain information after sleeping and to solve problems creatively has been found to be most closely associated with a large ________ memory capacity. a. iconic b. implicit c. echoic d. working ANSWER: d 95. Chunking refers to a. getting information into memory through the use of visual imagery. b. the organization of information into familiar, manageable units. c. the unconscious encoding of incidental information. d. the tendency to recognize names we can't recall. ANSWER: b 96. Salvatore has no problem remembering the telephone number for UPS by using the mnemonic 1-800PICKUPS. He is using a memory aid known as a. chunking. b. the spacing effect. c. automatic processing. d. the serial position effect. ANSWER: a 97. Miriam has to learn the names of all the U.S. states. To make learning easier, Miriam divides the states into sections, such as Midwest, East Coast, West Coast. Miriam has used a. rehearsal. b. chunking. c. a mnemonic. d. automatic processing. ANSWER: b 98. A mnemonic is a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice a. sensory memory. b. test or measure of memory retention. c. long-term memory. d. memory aid. ANSWER: d 99. Mnemonics are memory aids that a. organize items into familiar, manageable units. b. divide information into smaller and smaller units. c. mostly use vivid imagery and organizational devices. d. distribute practice to yield better long-term retention. ANSWER: c 100. Gerald needs to remember apron, stuffed animal, and chocolate chip cookies for his brother's birthday, so he forms a vivid mental image of his brother in the kitchen baking cookies while their pet dog stands by to catch any crumbs that fall. Gerald's strategy best illustrates the use of a. the spacing effect. b. the serial position effect. c. mnemonics. d. implicit memory. ANSWER: c 101. We are more likely to remember the words "bicycle, cigarette, and fire" than the words "void, inherent, and process." This best illustrates the value of a. the spacing effect. b. implicit memory. c. imagery. d. iconic memory. ANSWER: c 102. The use of mnemonics, which often rely on vivid imagery, illustrates a. automatic processing. b. flashbulb memory. c. effortful processing. d. echoic memory. ANSWER: c 103. Learning the sentence "George eats old gray rats and paints houses yellow" to help you remember the spelling of "geography" involves using a. a mnemonic technique. b. the spacing effect. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice c. implicit memory. d. the serial position effect. ANSWER: a 104. Ella is taking a basic algebra course and is trying to learn the order in which he should perform the operations in an equation: parentheses, exponents, multiplication, division, addition, subtraction. Her teacher suggests that she remember the following: please excuse my dear aunt Sally. Ella is using a. rehearsal. b. chunking. c. a mnemonic. d. automatic processing. ANSWER: c 105. The spacing effect is defined as a. the tendency for distributed study to yield better long-term retention than massed study. b. enhanced memory after retrieving, rather than simply rereading, information. c. semantically encoding information that tends to yield the best retention. d. the neural storage of a long-term memory. ANSWER: a 106. Which of the following techniques is more likely to produce better long-term recall of information? a. massed practice b. distributed practice c. priming d. mnemonics ANSWER: b 107. Massed practice is to ________ as distributed practice is to ________. a. long-term recall; memory b. retrieval; retrieval failure c. long-term recall; short-term recall d. short-term learning; long-term recall ANSWER: d 108. Stephanie, a second-year high school student, is taking her first course in French. Her grades on vocabulary tests are better if she studies for 30 minutes each day for 2 weeks than if she crams for 4 hours the night before the test. This illustrates what is known as a. the spacing effect. b. state-dependent memory. c. chunking. d. automatic processing. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 109. Students who study throughout the term and then restudy course material at the end of a semester to pass a comprehensive final exam are especially likely to demonstrate long-term retention of the course material. This best illustrates a. implicit memory. b. the serial position effect. c. chunking. d. the spacing effect. ANSWER: d 110. The testing effect refers to the enhanced memory resulting from a. retrieving, rather than simply rereading, information. b. the automatic processing of information. c. combining information into larger chunks. d. rereading previously studied information. ANSWER: a 111. Which of the following is an effective study technique? a. massed practice b. repeated self-testing c. the use of mnemonics d. parallel processing ANSWER: b 112. The importance of effortful processing for long-term retention of memories is best illustrated by a. the testing effect. b. implicit memory. c. classically conditioned associations. d. iconic memory. ANSWER: a 113. Melinda answers all the Retrieve & Remember questions that appear periodically throughout her text. As a result, she has a better memory of the concepts covered than if she merely read and reread the material. This best illustrates a. parallel processing. b. the serial position effect. c. automatic processing. d. the testing effect. ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com

114. Jacqueline is taking introductory sociology this term and wants to make sure that she masters the course Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice material. Which of the following is the best way for her to learn and remember course material? a. self-testing b. reread the material several times c. cramming d. massed practice ANSWER: a 115. Silas studies French vocabulary words just before going out to dinner with friends. How well will Silas do on a French vocabulary test the next day? a. He won't do well because the words did not even make it into sensory memory. b. He will do very well because the dinner distraction helped set the words in memory. c. He won't do well because he has not had a chance to rehearse the words. d. He will answer correctly on the meaning of 80 percent of the words. ANSWER: c 116. When people are asked to recall a list of words they had earlier memorized, they often replace some of the words on the original list with similar but more familiar words. This best illustrates the impact of a. automatic processing. b. distributed practice. c. encoding meaning. d. echoic memory. ANSWER: c 117. Who is most likely to do better and more efficient work? a. Greyson, who is multitasking b. Vince, who is listening to music while studying c. Tammy, who is working on an assignment in a quiet room d. Wayne, who is eating while writing a paper ANSWER: c 118. We have trouble processing information if it is a. meaningful. b. related to our experience. c. both meaningful and related to our experience. d. neither meaningful nor related to our experience. ANSWER: d 119. Ebbinghaus found that memorizing familiar words required much less effort than memorizing nonsense syllables. This best illustrates the advantage of a. the spacing effect. b. implicit memory. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice c. the serial position effect. d. meaningful encoding. ANSWER: d 120. Children can better remember an ancient Latin verse if the definition of each unfamiliar Latin word is explained to them. This best illustrates the value of a. iconic memory. b. encoding meaning. c. state-dependent memory. d. source amnesia. ANSWER: b 121. To remember the concepts discussed in her sociology textbook, Ami often relates them to her own life experiences. Ami's strategy is an effective memory aid because it involves a. iconic memory. b. meaningful encoding. c. implicit memory. d. massed practice. ANSWER: b 122. Which of the following is NOT associated with the amount of information remembered? a. the amount of time spent learning the material b. forgoing the use of the self-reference effect c. making the material personally meaningful d. processing the material semantically ANSWER: b 123. Lucinda has to create a password for her new savings account. To make sure that she could easily remember the password, she used her initials, her age, and her birthdate. She is likely to always remember this password because of a. the testing effect. b. the spacing effect. c. the self-reference effect. d. episodic memory. ANSWER: c 124. Which type of memory has an essentially limitless capacity? a. working memory b. short-term memory c. long-term memory d. flashbulb memory ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 125. Which of the following statements is true regarding memory storage? a. The brain stores memories in a single location. b. The brain distributes memory components across a network of locations. c. The brain has limited storage capacity for memory. d. The brain stores memories in only the hippocampus and frontal lobes. ANSWER: b 126. Which of the following statements is true regarding memory storage? a. Our brain can store new memories only if it discards some old memories. b. Our capacity for storing information in our short-term working memory has no real limit. c. We do not process and store memories in only one spot in the brain. d. Once memories are consolidated in storage, they can never be forgotten. ANSWER: c 127. Explicit memory of facts and general knowledge is known as a. episodic memory. b. state-dependent memory. c. semantic memory. d. context-dependent memory. ANSWER: c 128. Wayan is an expert in geography and can easily list all the countries in Europe and point out their locations on a map. This is an example of a(n) a. episodic memory. b. semantic memory. c. echoic memory. d. iconic memory. ANSWER: b 129. Episodic memory is best described as ________ memory of ________. a. implicit; facts and general knowledge b. implicit; personally experienced events c. explicit; facts and general knowledge d. explicit; personally experienced events ANSWER: d 130. Having a clear conscious memory of your sixteenth birthday party illustrates a. state-dependent memory. ScholarFriends.com b. episodic memory. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice c. context-dependent memory. d. semantic memory. ANSWER: b 131. Trilok has a clear memory of a family holiday celebration when he was only 10. This is an example of a(n) a. episodic memory. b. semantic memory. c. echoic memory. d. iconic memory. ANSWER: a 132. Which neural center in the limbic system helps process explicit memories for storage? a. hypothalamus b. basal ganglia c. cerebellum d. hippocampus ANSWER: d 133. If a person's hippocampus is damaged, that person would most likely have trouble learning a. to ride a bike. b. to eat with a fork. c. a classically conditioned fear response. d. the names of newly introduced people. ANSWER: d 134. Tatiana suffered a stroke several months ago. With physical therapy, she is now able to learn both forehand and backhand strokes in tennis. However, she is not able to learn and remember the name of the person who has been working with her each day to develop her swing. Tatiana is most likely to have suffered damage to her a. cerebellum. b. hypothalamus. c. basal ganglia. d. hippocampus. ANSWER: d 135. Adriana just started a new job and is trying to remember the names of all her coworkers. Which brain area is likely to be active as she tries to learn their names? a. hippocampus b. frontal lobes c. cerebellum d. basal ganglia ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 136. The growth and maturation of which brain structure aids the construction of detailed memories in children? a. hippocampus b. amygdala c. frontal lobes d. parietal lobes ANSWER: a 137. At school yesterday, Bogdan learned a lot of information about the Korean war. During his sleep that night, memories of this history were transferred from his hippocampus to areas within his brain's cortex. This transfer best illustrates a. working memory. b. the spacing effect. c. episodic memory. d. memory consolidation. ANSWER: d 138. Memory consolidation refers to the neural ________ of a long-term memory. a. encoding b. priming c. retrieval d. storage ANSWER: d 139. The process in which memories registered in the hippocampus are transferred for long-term storage to other regions of the brain is called a. priming. b. memory consolidation. c. the serial position effect. d. implicit memory. ANSWER: b 140. Removing a rat's hippocampus 48 hours after it learns the location of some tasty food does not prevent it from forming a long-term memory of where the food is located. This best illustrates the importance of a. the encoding specificity principle. b. state-dependent memory. c. memory consolidation. d. the serial position effect. ANSWER: c 141. A good night's sleep improves recall of the previous day's events by promoting the transfer of memories from the ScholarFriends.com a. amygdala to the hippocampus. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice b. hippocampus to the cerebral cortex. c. cerebral cortex to the basal ganglia. d. basal ganglia to the cerebellum. ANSWER: b 142. A good night's sleep is most likely to improve exam grades by supporting the process of a. priming. b. proactive interference. c. memory consolidation. d. mood-congruent memory. ANSWER: c 143. As Abdel studies psychology and learns specific information related to information-processing theory, his ________ processes and stores the information. a. hypothalamus b. amygdala c. left frontal lobe d. right parietal lobe ANSWER: c 144. Recalling an old password and holding it in working memory would be most likely to activate the a. right frontal lobe. b. left frontal lobe. c. right cerebellum. d. left cerebellum. ANSWER: b 145. Recalling the amazingly beautiful Blue Mountains outside Sydney, Australia and holding it in working memory would most clearly require activation of the a. basal ganglia. b. right frontal lobe. c. cerebellum. d. amygdala. ANSWER: b 146. In an experiment, as compared with students who studied and restudied material without intervening sleep, students who learned material in a study/sleep/restudy condition a. lost their memory of learning during sleep. b. remembered about half as much material. c. remembered the material better even 6 months later. d. remembered the material only briefly. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 147. Which part of the brain plays a key role in forming and storing the implicit memories created by classical conditioning? a. hippocampus b. cerebellum c. hypothalamus d. amygdala ANSWER: b 148. People fail to learn to link a tone with an oncoming puff of air when their ________ is damaged. a. hypothalamus b. amygdala c. hippocampus d. cerebellum ANSWER: d 149. When Joy's cerebellum was damaged, she could not learn to link a tone with an oncoming puff of air. As a result, she didn't blink just before the puff. This indicates that the cerebellum plays a role in forming and storing memories such as those involved in a. personal experiences b. stressful situations. c. dressing herself. d. classical conditioning. ANSWER: d 150. Carlos has worn glasses since he was a small child. He is at his annual eye exam and has been asked to place his face close to a machine and look at an image through a small opening. The machine beeps and then a puff of air is blown into his eye. Immediately after hearing the beep, but before the puff of air is administered, Carlos blinks. Which brain area is responsible for his expectation of what occurs after the machine beeps? a. amygdala b. basal ganglia c. cerebellum d. temporal lobe ANSWER: c 151. Marjoy learned to ride a bike when she was only 5 years old. She is now 12 years old and rides daily with ease. The brain area responsible for the formation of her biking memory is the a. amygdala. b. basal ganglia. c. cerebellum. ScholarFriends.com d. temporal lobe. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 152. The basal ganglia help you form implicit memories of a. motor skills. b. class lecture material. c. daily news events. d. generally known historical facts. ANSWER: a 153. Adan is a top-notch hockey player. She should thank her a. hippocampus. b. frontal lobe. c. basal ganglia. d. cerebellum. ANSWER: c 154. A person might lose their memory of how to play the guitar if their ________ is damaged. a. hippocampus b. amygdala c. hypothalamus d. basal ganglia ANSWER: d 155. Which brain area is responsible for learning how to walk? a. hippocampus b. frontal lobes c. cerebellum d. basal ganglia ANSWER: d 156. Cerebellum is to ________ memory as hippocampus is to ________ memory. a. working; long-term b. long-term; working c. implicit; explicit d. explicit; implicit ANSWER: c 157. A lack of conscious memories of your first four years of life best illustrates a. priming. b. long-term potentiation. ScholarFriends.com c. infantile amnesia. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice d. the serial position effect. ANSWER: c 158. Which of the following is a partial explanation for infantile amnesia? a. The hippocampus is not well-developed then. b. The emotional reactivity of infants inhibits the process of encoding. c. The accumulation of life experiences disrupts the retrieval of early life events. d. Implicit memories last for less than a second in infants. ANSWER: a 159. Stress hormones promote stronger memories by a. decreasing the availability of serotonin. b. increasing the availability of glucose. c. decreasing the availability of epinephrine. d. increasing the availability of dopamine. ANSWER: b 160. Stress hormones provoke the ________ to boost activity in the brain's memory-forming areas. a. amygdala b. hippocampus c. hypothalamus d. cerebellum ANSWER: a 161. The persistence of memories of a traumatic experience is ________ because it warns us and protects us from future dangers. a. automatic b. adaptive c. conditioned d. consolidated ANSWER: b 162. Elevated levels of stress hormones most clearly contribute to developing a. source amnesia. b. implicit memories. c. infantile amnesia. d. flashbulb memories. ANSWER: d 163. Petar vividly remembers how he felt and what he was doing when he heard that his partner had been killed in a car accident. This best illustrates ________ScholarFriends.com memory. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice a. nondeclarative b. implicit c. flashbulb d. echoic ANSWER: c 164. A flashbulb memory would typically be a(n) a. motor skill memory. b. sensory memory. c. implicit memory. d. long-term memory. ANSWER: d 165. Dramatic experiences that can trigger flashbulb memories are most likely to remain bright and clear in our conscious memories because they a. are automatically processed. b. involve classically conditioned associations. c. are frequently rehearsed. d. initiate a memory trace in the cerebellum. ANSWER: c 166. Alfred remembers everything about the day he graduated from college. This is an example of a. LTP. b. memory consolidation. c. priming. d. a flashbulb memory. ANSWER: d 167. Which of the following is true regarding flashbulb memories? a. People lack confidence in their flashbulb memories. b. Flashbulb memories lack vividness. c. Flashbulb memories may contain errors in part because they are frequently rehearsed. d. Flashbulb memories explain why the reactions and skills we learned during infancy reach far into our future. ANSWER: c 168. The site where nerve cells communicate with one another by means of chemical messengers is known as the a. synapse. b. basal ganglia. ScholarFriends.com c. amygdala. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice d. limbic system. ANSWER: a 169. Kandel and Schwartz administered mild electric shocks to get sea slugs to withdraw their gills when squirted with water. The sea slugs' withdrawal response illustrates a. parallel processing. b. classical conditioning. c. chunking. d. memory consolidation. ANSWER: b 170. Research by Kandel and Schwartz on California sea slugs indicates that memory formation is associated with the a. structure of DNA molecules. b. release of certain neurotransmitters. c. activity level of the hippocampus. d. development of the cerebellum. ANSWER: b 171. By releasing more of the neurotransmitter serotonin into certain neurons, the sea slug makes these neurons more efficient at ________ the signals necessary for learning. a. priming b. transmitting c. consolidating d. repressing ANSWER: b 172. The increase in synaptic firing potential after brief, rapid stimulation that contributes to memory formation is known as a. priming. b. classical conditioning. c. long-term potentiation. d. the serial position effect. ANSWER: c 173. Research showing that drugs that block long-term potentiation (LTP) interfere with learning provides evidence that LTP is a. not associated with memory. b. associated with sensory memory. c. associated with short-term but not long-term memory. d. a physical basis for learning and memory. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 174. Students who repeatedly rehearse their instructor's lectures and text material will form lasting memories of course information thanks to the neural process of a. positive transfer. b. LTP. c. classical conditioning. d. priming. ANSWER: b 175. After long-term potentiation has occurred a. sending neurons release their neurotransmitters more easily. b. it takes longer to process new information. c. a receiving neuron's receptor sites are reduced. d. you more readily forget facts that you once knew. ANSWER: a 176. Passing an electric current through the brain during electroconvulsive therapy is most likely to disrupt a. long-term memories. b. implicit memories. c. very recent memories. d. flashbulb memories. ANSWER: c 177. Jon is on his school's wrestling team. When he was thrown by an opponent during a match, he hit his head hard on the mat. Jon has no memory of the match. What is the likely reason? a. His working memory did not have time to consolidate the information into long-term memory. b. His sensory memory failed to process the information. c. His long-term memory has been damaged as a result of being thrown onto the mat. d. His short-term memory did not have time to transfer the information into his working memory. ANSWER: a 178. Which measure of memory retention assesses the ability to draw information out of storage and into conscious awareness? a. rehearsal b. relearning c. recognition d. recall ANSWER: d 179. A bystander witnesses a car accident and is asked to describe what happened. Which measure of memory is being used? ScholarFriends.com a. recognition Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice b. rehearsal c. recall d. relearning ANSWER: c 180. Daya took Italian classes during her first year of high school. Because it has been 4 years since she spoke any Italian, she remembers a few words and phrases from her earlier classes. Now that she is in college and taking higher-level Italian, she finds that it is all coming back to her and she is doing well in the class. This is directly related to a. recall. b. recognition. c. relearning. d. retrieval. ANSWER: a 181. Carla is taking her final exam in history. The exam includes only essay and fill-in-the-blank questions. Both types of questions assess her ability to ________ information. a. recall b. recognize c. relearn d. retrieve ANSWER: a 182. Which test of memory typically provides the fewest retrieval cues? a. recognition b. recall c. relearning d. rehearsal ANSWER: b 183. Recall is to ________ as recognition is to ________. a. identifying items previously learned; processing multiple aspects of a stimulus simultaneously b. retaining coded information over time; retrieving information that is not currently in your conscious awareness c. retrieving information that is not currently in your conscious awareness; identifying items previously learned d. conscious, active processing of incoming sensory information; retrieving information from long-term memory ANSWER: c 184. On a test, ________ is the measure of memory that requires selecting the correct answer from multiple ScholarFriends.com choices. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice a. recognition b. relearning c. rehearsal d. recall ANSWER: a 185. Memory demonstrated by identifying items previously learned is called a. recall. b. recognition. c. relearning. d. retrieval. ANSWER: b 186. Jesse is taking an online course in biological psychology. The course requires that he take weekly online quizzes. The quizzes contain matching and multiple-choice questions, which are used to assess his ________ of course material. a. recall b. memory c. recognition d. relearning ANSWER: c 187. The memory test that would most effectively reveal that Mr. Rowley, at age 60, still remembers many of his college classmates is measuring a. recall. b. recognition. c. rehearsal. d. retrieval. ANSWER: b 188. Memory demonstrated by time saved when learning material again is called a. recall. b. recognition. c. relearning. d. retrieval. ANSWER: c 189. Eric's younger brother has asked him for help with his algebra homework. Eric hasn't worked on algebra problems in a long time but has agreed to help. He asks his younger brother to see his textbook and assignment so he can review the content and ________ the information before helping him with it. a. recall ScholarFriends.com b. recognize Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice c. relearn d. retrieve ANSWER: c 190. To study the impact of practice on memory retention, Hermann Ebbinghaus practiced learning a. poems. b. names. c. short sentences. d. nonsense syllables. ANSWER: d 191. In an effort to assess the impact of rehearsal on the retention of nonsense syllables, which measure of memory did Ebbinghaus use? a. recall b. recognition c. relearning d. recitation ANSWER: c 192. Ebbinghaus' use of nonsense syllables to study memory led to the discovery that a. the amount remembered depends on the time spent learning. b. what is learned while in one mood is most easily retrieved when in that same mood. c. information that is automatically processed is rarely forgotten. d. our sensory memory capacity is essentially unlimited. ANSWER: a 193. Which of the following is true of overlearning of verbal information? a. It works best if it is done all in one study time. b. It is particularly effective for meaningless material. c. It increases retention, especially if distributed over time. d. It tends to confuse learning of two different subjects. ANSWER: c 194. Leonardo is taking his first course in geography, and so he wants to do well. He attends all the classes, takes careful notes, and reviews the notes and the text material for at least an hour every night. The odds of Leonardo remembering the information he has learned for years to come are increased because of his a. recognition. b. overlearning. c. information processing d. retrieval. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 195. Any stimulus linked to a specific memory is called a a. LTP. b. retrieval cue. c. memory trace. d. iconic memory. ANSWER: b 196. When 75-year-old Bulava reviewed his family videos, he was overcome with emotional memories of times with his parents, his wife, and his children. The pictures served as powerful a. memory traces. b. implicit memories. c. serial position effects. d. retrieval cues. ANSWER: d 197. Memory of our past is called a. retrospective memory. b. prospective memory. c. retrieval cue. d. motivated recall. ANSWER: a 198. Lucas is remembering his piano teacher and the thrill of learning to play complicated chords. His thoughts about the past are considered a. retrospective memory. b. prospective memory. c. retrieval cue. d. motivated recall. ANSWER: a 199. Memory for what actions may lie ahead is called a. retrospective memory. b. prospective memory. c. a retrieval cue. d. motivated recall. ANSWER: b 200. Tanalina is planning to have dinner with friends tomorrow night. Her dinner plans are considered a a. retrospective memory. b. prospective memory. ScholarFriends.com c. retrieval cue. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice d. motivated recall. ANSWER: b 201. Memories are primed by a. memory consolidation. b. retrieval cues. c. long-term potentiation. d. infantile amnesia. ANSWER: b 202. Hearing the word rabbit may lead people to spell the spoken word hair/hare as h-a-r-e. This best illustrates the outcome of a process known as a. flashbulb memory. b. the serial position effect. c. context-dependent memory. d. priming. ANSWER: d 203. After hearing a police siren, you are more likely to consider two cars parked on the side of the road as participants in an accident. This best illustrates the impact of a. retroactive interference. b. the serial position effect. c. priming. d. flashbulb memory. ANSWER: c 204. Mateo is watching a movie in which two brothers are constantly fighting. The movie scenes lead Mateo to recall instances in which his brother picked a fight with him. The effect of the movie on Mateo's recall provides an example of a. implicit memory. b. memory consolidation. c. the serial position effect. d. priming. ANSWER: d 205. Recall of what you have learned is often improved when your physical surroundings at the time of retrieval and encoding are the same. This best illustrates a. long-term potentiation. b. memory consolidation. c. context-dependent memory. d. the serial position effect. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 206. The encoding specificity principle refers to a. the idea that cues and contexts specific to a particular memory will be most effective in helping us recall that memory. b. the tendency to recall experiences that are consistent with our current good or bad mood. c. our tendency to recall best the last items we were exposed to. d. an inability to form new memories. ANSWER: a 207. Scuba divers who heard a word list while 10 feet underwater later recalled more of the words if their recall was tested while they were underwater rather than on the beach. This best illustrates a. the encoding specificity principle. b. the serial position effect. c. memory consolidation. d. flashbulb memory. ANSWER: a 208. Recognizing someone but not being able to identify where you know them from or who exactly they are is related to a. long-term potentiation. b. the encoding specificity principle. c. the serial position effect. d. memory consolidation. ANSWER: b 209. Lorenzo finds it difficult to recall the name of a person he has cruised with several times when he sees him on land than when he sees him on a ship. This best illustrates a. the serial position effect. b. context-dependent memory. c. long-term potentiation. d. memory consolidation. ANSWER: b 210. Aurora has just left her favorite coffee shop. After arriving at her car, she realizes that she doesn't have her phone. She decides to go back into the coffee shop and retrace her steps to try and find her phone. She is relying on ________ to help her locate her phone. a. context-dependent memory b. state-dependent memory c. mood-congruent memory d. motivated recall ANSWER: a ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 211. After his last drinking spree, Daniel hid a half-empty liquor bottle. He couldn't remember where he hid it until he started drinking again. Daniel's pattern of recall best illustrates a. proactive interference. b. flashbulb memory. c. the serial position effect. d. state-dependent memory. ANSWER: d 212. Mood-congruent memory best illustrates that the emotions we experienced while learning something become a. implicit memories. b. retrieval cues. c. iconic memories. d. flashbulb memories. ANSWER: b 213. Recalling sad experiences is often primed by feelings of sadness. This most clearly illustrates a. the serial position effect. b. flashbulb memories. c. implicit memory. d. mood-congruent memory. ANSWER: d 214. Whenever Sofia feels anxious, she remembers times during her childhood that her parents were discussing something they thought Sofia should not have done. Sofia's experience best illustrates a. retroactive interference. b. long-term potentiation. c. mood-congruent memory. d. memory consolidation. ANSWER: c 215. When Lumin is in a foul mood, she is more likely to recall her romantic partner's criticisms than their compliments. When she is in a great mood, she is more likely to recall their compliments than their criticisms. This best illustrates that our mood states influence the process of a. encoding. b. proactive interference. c. retrieval. d. positive transfer. ANSWER: c 216. The tendency to recall the first and last items in a list better than the middle items is known as ScholarFriends.com a. the serial position effect. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice b. implicit memory. c. memory consolidation. d. flashbulb memory. ANSWER: a 217. Shortly after hearing a list of items, people tend to recall the last items in the list especially quickly and accurately. This best illustrates a. state-dependent memory. b. context-dependent memory. c. implicit memory. d. a recency effect. ANSWER: d 218. After hearing a list of items, peoples' immediate recall of the items is more likely to show a(n) ________ effect than is their later recall of the items. a. automatic processing b. recency c. memory consolidation d. implicit memory ANSWER: b 219. Edgar has applied for a job as human resources manager. The company is interviewing people on only one day. Edgar is allowed to select his interview time, so he chooses 4:00 P.M., the last interview slot for the day. He knows that the last person interviewed should be recalled quickly and easily by the person doing the interview. He feels that this will improve his chances of getting the job. This is based on the a. primacy effect. b. recency effect. c. priming effect. d. memory trace. ANSWER: b 220. After a delay, our tendency to recall the first items in a list is referred to as a. the recency effect. b. the primacy effect. c. implicit memory. d. explicit memory. ANSWER: b 221. Ten days after Pancho hears his friend list the players selected for their baseball team, Pancho is most likely to remember the names ________ of the list. a. at the beginning and end ScholarFriends.com b. at the end Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice c. at the beginning d. in the middle ANSWER: c 222. Six people interviewed Katiana for the job of restaurant host. Although they all introduced themselves, Katiana only remembers the name of the first interviewer. This demonstrates a. the recency effect. b. the primacy effect. c. implicit memory. d. explicit memory. ANSWER: b 223. After having brain surgery to stop severe seizures, Henry Molaison could recall events he experienced prior to the surgery but was unable to form new conscious memories. Molaison's memory difficulty most clearly illustrates a. motivated forgetting. b. retrograde amnesia. c. anterograde amnesia. d. retroactive interference. ANSWER: c 224. The inability to form new conscious memories is called a. retrieval failure. b. storage decay. c. anterograde amnesia. d. retrograde amnesia. ANSWER: c 225. Claudine was recently diagnosed with a brain tumor. Although she easily recalls her past, she has problems forming new memories. Claudine's memory difficulty illustrates a. retrograde amnesia. b. anterograde amnesia. c. storage decay. d. proactive interference. ANSWER: b 226. An inability to remember information from our past is known as a. retrograde amnesia. b. anterograde amnesia. c. storage decay. d. proactive interference. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 227. Lonny has no memory of events that occurred prior to an auto accident. Lonny's memory difficulty illustrates a. retrograde amnesia. b. anterograde amnesia. c. storage decay. d. proactive interference. ANSWER: a 228. Bart suffered a brain injury after a hunting accident in which he was shot by a hunter's rifle. Although Bart is unable to consciously recall or recognize what a rifle is, he still shows a conditioned fear response to the sight of a rifle. His conditioned reaction best indicates that he retains a(n) ________ memory. a. sensory b. flashbulb c. working d. implicit ANSWER: d 229. Some people with severe amnesia can learn how to do something despite having no conscious recall of learning their new skill. This best illustrates the need to distinguish between a. proactive interference and retroactive interference. b. encoding failure and storage decay. c. infantile amnesia and source amnesia. d. explicit memory and implicit memory. ANSWER: d 230. Some people can learn how to do something but have no conscious recall of learning the new skill. This would be an example of a. anterograde amnesia. b. retrograde amnesia. c. reconsolidation. d. memory construction error. ANSWER: a 231. Although some people cannot recall new facts or what they have done recently, they can learn new skills and be classically conditioned. In other words, although they have lost their ability to form _______, their ________ ability remains intact. a. implicit memories; effortful processing b. short-term memories; retrieval c. explicit memories; automatic processing ScholarFriends.com d. long-term memories; storage Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 232. We are unable to consciously attend to most of the sights and sounds that are continually bombarding us. This fact most clearly contributes to a. storage decay. b. retroactive interference. c. encoding failure. d. repression. ANSWER: c 233. The inability to recall which symbols are on top of which numbers on a computer keyboard is most likely due to a. encoding failure. b. the misinformation effect. c. retroactive interference. d. source amnesia. ANSWER: a 234. Most of us are unable to remember which president appears on a $10 bill because of a failure in a. retrieval. b. storage. c. encoding. d. implicit memory. ANSWER: c 235. The famous Ebbinghaus forgetting curve indicates that how well we remember information depends on a. how long ago we learned that information. b. the nature of our mood during encoding and retrieval. c. whether the information is part of our implicit or explicit memory. d. whether the information was forcibly repressed. ANSWER: a 236. Ebbinghaus discovered that the rate at which we forget newly learned information is initially a. slow and subsequently stays slow. b. slow and subsequently speeds up. c. rapid and subsequently stays rapid. d. rapid and subsequently levels off. ANSWER: d 237. Signore took a number of courses in German during high school and college. As a young adult traveling in Europe, she realizes that she remembers only aScholarFriends.com few terms and the phrase "Do you speak English?" Several years later, when Signore meets Greta, who is a German citizen, she is able to ask whether Greta speaks English and Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice to use the few terms she remembers. However, that is as far as the conversation in the German language goes. This illustrates a. retrieval failure. b. the forgetting curve. c. encoding failure. d. repression. ANSWER: b 238. A lasting physical change in the brain as a memory forms is called a a. priming effect. b. positive transfer. c. memory trace. d. retrieval cue. ANSWER: c 239. A loss of an encoded memory as a result of a gradual fading of the physical memory trace best illustrates a. repression. b. interference. c. storage decay. d. the misinformation effect. ANSWER: c 240. Because his memory trace has faded, Mr. Rodrigues remembers much less of the Tennyson poems he once memorized as a college student. His memory loss best illustrates a. storage decay. b. proactive interference. c. encoding failure. d. repression. ANSWER: a 241. Ursula took a course in algebra during high school but has had no reason to use what she learned since then. Now, four years after graduation, she remembers very little of it. This is likely due to a. storage decay. b. encoding failure. c. retrieval failure. d. production failure. ANSWER: a 242. An inability to access information in long-term memory is known as a. the misinformation effect. b. long-term potentiation. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice c. déjà vu. d. retrieval failure. ANSWER: d 243. Amira is ashamed that she is momentarily unable to remember a neighbor's name. Amira's poor memory most likely results from a failure in a. storage. b. encoding. c. rehearsal. d. retrieval. ANSWER: d 244. A retrieval problem that is caused by not having enough information to access it is referred to as a. proactive interference. b. storage decay. c. retroactive interference. d. tip-of-the-tongue forgetting. ANSWER: d 245. Klaus remembers the first name of the actor who starred in his favorite movie, but he cannot recall the actor's last name until someone mentions the name of the movie. Klaus' initial inability to recall the last name was most likely caused by a. encoding failure. b. automatic processing. c. retrieval failure. d. repression. ANSWER: c 246. Proactive interference refers to the a. blocking of painful memories from conscious awareness. b. incorporation of misleading information into one's memory of an event. c. disruptive effect of new learning on the recall of previously learned information. d. disruptive effect of prior learning on the recall of new information. ANSWER: d 247. Proactive interference can be considered a. forward-acting. b. backward-acting. c. retrograde. d. anterograde. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 248. The disruptive effect of older memory on the retention of new information is called a. repression. b. source amnesia. c. proactive interference. d. reconsolidation. ANSWER: c 249. Telly was in a committed relationship with Marco for so long that he now has difficulty remembering his new friend Angel's phone number. Telly's difficulty best illustrates a. retroactive interference. b. the misinformation effect. c. source amnesia. d. proactive interference. ANSWER: d 250. Retroactive interference can be considered a. forward-acting. b. backward-acting. c. retrograde. d. anterograde. ANSWER: b 251. The disruptive effect of new learning on the recall of previously learned information is called a. repression. b. source amnesia. c. retroactive interference. d. reconsolidation. ANSWER: c 252. Your Instagram account was hacked, so you have to change your password. Unfortunately, your familiar old Instagram password may block the recall of your new password. This illustrates a. source amnesia. b. retroactive interference. c. repression. d. proactive interference. ANSWER: b 253. Melanie has learned the combination for her safe at home. Unfortunately, she is now unable to remember the combination for her year-old school locker. Melanie is experiencing the effects of a. source amnesia. b. retroactive interference. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice c. proactive interference. d. automatic processing. ANSWER: b 254. Retroactive interference involves the disruption of a. automatic processing. b. sensory memory. c. memory retrieval. d. effortful processing. ANSWER: c 255. In a classic experiment, researchers found that people who sleep after learning a list of nonsense syllables forget less than people who stay awake. This provides evidence that forgetting may involve a. encoding failure. b. repression. c. implicit memory loss. d. interference. ANSWER: d 256. Previously learned information often makes our learning of new information easier. This effect is called a. déjà vu. b. positive transfer. c. reconsolidation. d. the misinformation effect. ANSWER: b 257. Lawrence's bike needs some repairs, so his brother is letting him use his racing bike. Although he has never ridden a racing bike before, he finds that after a few minutes he has the hang of it. This is an example of a. déjà vu. b. positive transfer. c. reconsolidation. d. the misinformation effect. ANSWER: b 258. Alejandro was born in Guadalajara and naturally speaks Spanish very well. For Alejandro, it is likely that he will pick up Italian quickly because of a. repression. b. positive transfer. c. memory construction errors. d. reconsolidation. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 259. Compulsive gamblers frequently recall losing less money than is actually the case. Their memory failure best illustrates a. source amnesia. b. the misinformation effect. c. motivated forgetting. d. the serial position effect. ANSWER: c 260. Noah served in the army during the Vietnam war. He is now 80 years old and refuses to talk about his experience. This could be an example of a. proactive interference. b. motivated forgetting. c. reconsolidation. d. retroactive interference. ANSWER: b 261. A type of motivated forgetting in which anxiety-arousing memories are blocked from conscious awareness is known as a. retroactive interference. b. proactive interference. c. repression. d. déjà vu. ANSWER: c 262. Sigmund Freud emphasized that the forgetting of painful experiences is caused by a process that involves a. retroactive interference. b. memory decay. c. retrieval failure. d. proactive interference. ANSWER: c 263. Oliver adored his father and did not cope well when he passed away. Oliver tries not to think about all the good times he had with his father and rarely mentions him. Freud would say that Oliver's behavior is an example of a. repression. b. reconsolidation. c. interference. d. the misinformation effect. ANSWER: a 264. Among contemporary memory researchers, increasing numbers think that ________ rarely, if ever, occurs. ScholarFriends.com a. retroactive interference Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice b. automatic processing c. source amnesia d. repression ANSWER: d 265. Freud argued that we repress traumatic experiences. Lydia, however, disagrees. She remembers every detail of the last blizzard that dumped over a foot of snow on their town and how she and her neighbors were affected by it. In fact, her memories are often intrusive, and she wishes she could repress them, as Freud had suggested. Why are Lydia's memories NOT repressed? a. Research has found that experiencing trauma releases stress hormones that cause people to pay attention and remember the threat. b. Memory of traumatic events is stored differently in the brain. Some information may be forgotten, whereas other information is remembered in great detail. c. Elaborate rehearsal is to blame here. If Lydia can stop telling her experience to others, she is likely to forget the event. d. Research has demonstrated that her memories will be repressed over the next few years. ANSWER: a 266. Research on memory construction indicates that memories of past experiences are likely to be a. difficult to retrieve but never completely lost. b. distorted by our current expectations. c. much easier to recall if they are seldom rehearsed. d. retrieved in the very same form and detail as they were originally encoded. ANSWER: b 267. When retrieving memories of a past event, we often fill in memory gaps with guesses about details. The fact that these guessed details are then incorporated into our memory of that event is most relevant to appreciating the importance of a. anterograde amnesia. b. automatic processing. c. memory construction. d. proactive interference. ANSWER: c 268. Memory reconsolidation involves the modification of stored memories during the process of a. déjà vu. b. repression. c. retrieval. d. source amnesia. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com 269. Every time Viktor tells the story of what happened the day his first daughter was born, the story changes Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice slightly. This is an example of a. proactive interference. b. motivated forgetting. c. reconsolidation. d. retroactive interference. ANSWER: c 270. After clinical researchers asked people to recall a traumatic or negative experience, the researchers have attempted to disrupt the ________ of that memory with a drug, painless electroconvulsive shock, or novel distracting images. a. repression b. reconsolidation c. retroactive interference d. proactive interference ANSWER: b 271. In the study led by Elizabeth Loftus, two groups of observers were asked how fast two cars had been going in a filmed traffic accident. Observers who heard the vividly descriptive word "smashed" in relation to the accident later recalled a. broken glass at the scene of the accident. b. that the drivers of the vehicles were intoxicated. c. that the drivers of the vehicles were males. d. the details of the accident with vivid accuracy. ANSWER: a 272. Many of the research participants who were asked how fast two cars in a filmed traffic accident were going when they smashed into each other subsequently recalled seeing broken glass at the scene of the accident. This experiment best illustrated a. proactive interference. b. source amnesia. c. positive transfer. d. the misinformation effect. ANSWER: d 273. The corrupting effect of introducing misleading information into one's memory of an event is referred to as a. proactive interference. b. motivated forgetting. c. the misinformation effect. d. retroactive interference. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com

274. The misinformation effect best illustrates the dynamics of Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice a. memory construction. b. repression. c. proactive interference. d. implicit memory. ANSWER: a 275. After listening to a TV news report about a fight between two people in a bar, several people, including Elena, who actually witnessed the event, began to remember the people as more intoxicated than was actually the case. This provides an example of a. proactive interference. b. déjà vu. c. automatic processing. d. the misinformation effect. ANSWER: d 276. Research on memory construction indicates that a. recent events are more vulnerable to memory distortion than events from our more distant past. b. false memories of imagined events are often recalled as something that really happened. c. hypnotic suggestion is a particularly effective technique for accurate memory retrieval. d. it is very difficult to lead people to construct memories of events that never happened. ANSWER: b 277. Repeated lying can actually change your own memories. This is related to the a. spacing effect. b. misinformation effect. c. production effect. d. mnemonic devices. ANSWER: b 278. Children reported false memories of taking a hot-air balloon ride after viewing digitally altered photos of themselves and other family members involved in such an event. The children's reports best illustrated a. implicit memory. b. proactive interference. c. the misinformation effect. d. retroactive interference. ANSWER: c 279. Several days after viewing altered photos that indicated they had taken a hot-air balloon ride, children reported even richer details of their false memories of the balloon ride. The children's reports best illustrated a. implicit memory. b. proactive interference. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice c. imagination inflation. d. retroactive interference. ANSWER: c 280. Faulty memory for how, when, or where information was learned or imagined is called a. source amnesia. b. the misinformation effect. c. repression. d. déjà vu. ANSWER: a 281. Valerie has been attending group therapy sessions for survivors of traumatic events. Sometime after the sessions, Valerie mistakenly remembered details from other group members' traumatic events as part of her own life history. This best illustrates the dangers of a. proactive interference. b. positive transfer. c. implicit memory. d. source amnesia. ANSWER: d 282. Carlise was 7 years old when she dreamed that she had been bitten by her friend's dog. Many years later, she mistakenly recalled that this had actually happened to her. Carlise's false recollection best illustrates a. infantile amnesia. b. proactive interference. c. implicit memory. d. source amnesia. ANSWER: d 283. Source amnesia helps to explain a. déjà vu. b. sensory memory. c. proactive interference. d. implicit memory. ANSWER: a 284. Déjà vu refers to the a. emotional arousal produced by proactive interference. b. memory of events as real when they were only dreams. c. unconscious activation of particular associations in memory. d. eerie sense of having previously experienced a situation or event. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 285. Research participants viewed pictures of cats and dogs on a large screen without knowing that these pictures had earlier been subliminally flashed on the screen. Based on the text discussion, you can expect that half the participants will report experiencing a. the misinformation effect. b. anterograde amnesia. c. déjà vu. d. the spacing effect. ANSWER: c 286. While walking down Paris' famed Champs Élysées for the first time, Sebastián, who is from Spain, experienced an eerie sense of having been in this exact location before. His experience best illustrates a. the spacing effect. b. proactive interference. c. positive transfer. d. déjà vu. ANSWER: d 287. Research on memory construction indicates that a. recent events are more vulnerable to memory distortion than events from our more distant past. b. false memories often feel as real as true memories. c. hypnotic suggestion is a particularly effective technique for accurate memory retrieval. d. it is very difficult to lead people to construct memories of events that never happened. ANSWER: b 288. After Luis fell in love with Isabella, he told his friends that it was love at first sight. Later Luis' memory of his first meeting with Isabella became increasingly more positive. This best illustrates a. proactive interference. b. the spacing effect. c. déjà vu. d. memory construction. ANSWER: d 289. The day Tommaso and Ginevra were married was a very happy day for both of them. Five years later, they are getting divorced and are now remembering the wedding as a confusing and difficult day. Their recollections best illustrate the nature of a. proactive interference. b. memory construction. c. repression. d. the serial position effect. ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com

290. Which of the following may be related to false memories of childhood sexual abuse that develop during Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice therapy? a. déjà vu and reconsolidation b. both proactive and retroactive interference c. repression and source amnesia d. the misinformation effect and source amnesia ANSWER: d 291. To help resolve the controversy over reports of repressed memories of sexual abuse, major psychological and psychiatric associations suggest that a. all our experiences are preserved somewhere in our minds. b. the more stressful an experience is, the more quickly it will be consciously forgotten. c. repression is the most common mechanism underlying the failure to recall early childhood abuse. d. adult memories of experiences happening before age 4 are unreliable. ANSWER: d 292. Research reports of repression and recovered memories indicate that a. people rarely recall memories of long-ago stressful events. b. most extremely traumatic life experiences are never encoded in long-term memory. c. only those memories recovered with the help of a professional psychotherapist are likely to be reliable. d. extremely stressful life experiences are especially likely to be well remembered. ANSWER: d 293. Which of the following poses the greatest threat to the credibility of children's recollections of sexual abuse? a. repression b. proactive interference c. the misinformation effect d. positive transfer ANSWER: c 294. Research on young children's false eyewitness recollections has indicated that a. children are less susceptible to source amnesia than adults. b. children are no more susceptible to the misinformation effect than adults. c. it is surprisingly difficult for both children and professional interviewers to reliably separate the children's true memories from false memories. d. all of these statements are true. ANSWER: c 295. When children are interviewed about their recollections of an event, their reports are especially credible if a. they are asked specific, detailed questions about the issue rather than more general, open-ended ScholarFriends.com questions. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice b. after responding to an interviewer, they are repeatedly asked the same question they just answered. c. they use anatomically correct dolls to indicate if and where they had been physically touched. d. they are asked nonleading questions by a neutral interviewer soon after the event. ANSWER: d 296. The last three steps of the SQ3R study technique are a. recognize, recall, and relearn. b. reason, research, and revise. c. read, retrieve, and review. d. repeat, reconsolidate, and rest. ANSWER: c 297. Arianna is studying for next week's history exam. Based on recent research, how many times should she retrieve the information before she ends her study session? a. just once b. twice c. three times d. at least five times ANSWER: c 298. To learn the concepts covered in your psychology course, you read and retrieve information during many separate study sessions over the semester. By doing this you are most clearly taking advantage of a. proactive interference. b. the serial position effect. c. distributed practice. d. automatic processing. ANSWER: c 299. Forming conscious associations between new course material and facts you already know is an effective way to build a network of a. retrieval cues. b. sensory memories. c. implicit memories. d. distributed practice. ANSWER: a 300. Giuseppe wants to get a better grade in his chemistry course. This means that he needs to improve his memory of the material covered in class and in the textbook. Which of the following is NOT something that he can do to improve his memory? a. maximize both proactive and retroactive interference b. try to make the material meaningful ScholarFriends.com c. use mnemonic devices Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice d. get enough sleep ANSWER: a 301. Students should not study Italian right after studying Spanish in order to minimize a. déjà vu. b. mnemonics. c. implicit memory. d. interference. ANSWER: d 302. During sleep, the brain consolidates information into ________ memory. a. working b. recognition c. long-term d. sensory ANSWER: c

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 1. Which term refers to all the mental activities associated with thinking, knowing, remembering, and communicating? a. algorithm b. heuristic c. cognition d. mental set ANSWER: c 2. Psychologists who study cognition focus on mental activities associated with all of the following EXCEPT a. thinking. b. communicating information. c. spatial rotation. d. remembering. ANSWER: c 3. Professor Argyle conducts research on how people's use of intuition affects their decision to buy a particular house. Which specialty area does his research best represent? a. developmental psychology b. biological psychology c. cognitive psychology d. personality psychology ANSWER: c 4. Professor Hoffmann is studying how multitasking might affect memory. He is studying a. problem solving. b. cognition. c. decision making. d. creativity. ANSWER: b 5. Metacognition is defined as a. thinking about thinking. b. a strategy-based solution. c. a simple thinking strategy. d. the best example of a category. ANSWER: a 6. Evilio monitors his learning in his psychology class and evaluates what he understands and what he does not understand about the various topics. This is an example of a. an algorithm. b. insight. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice c. a heuristic. d. metacognition. ANSWER: d 7. A mental grouping of similar objects, events, ideas, or people is a(n) a. algorithm. b. prototype. c. heuristic. d. concept. ANSWER: d 8. Colton has formed a(n) ________ by mentally grouping all tables together. a. representation b. heuristic c. concept d. algorithm ANSWER: c 9. When people use the word automobile to refer to a group of transportation vehicles, they are using this word as a(n) a. intuition. b. heuristic. c. concept. d. algorithm. ANSWER: c 10. Fourteen-month-old Luke has learned that "bird" refers to flying animals. He has referred to bats, flying squirrels, and flying geckos as "birds." Baby Luke has formed a(n) a. algorithm. b. heuristic. c. frame. d. concept. ANSWER: d 11. A prototype is a a. mental grouping of similar objects, events, ideas, or people. b. step-by-step procedure for solving problems. c. best example of a particular category. d. simple thinking strategy for solving problems efficiently. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 12. In the process of classifying objects, people are especially likely to make use of a. algorithms. b. fixation. c. prototypes. d. telegraphic speech. ANSWER: c 13. Jamila, who is 25, and Virginia, who is 60, are both applying for a job requiring heavy technology expertise. The employer hires Jamila on the assumption that younger people are more technology savvy. The employer is basing her decision on a(n) a. fixation. b. heuristic. c. algorithm. d. prototype. ANSWER: d 14. Prototype is to category as ________ is to ________. a. oak; tree b. chair; table c. man; woman d. rope; weapon ANSWER: a 15. With which of the following statements will people typically agree most quickly? a. A penguin is a bird. b. A goose is a bird. c. A robin is a bird. d. An ostrich is a bird. ANSWER: c 16. Miriam did not realize that an eel is a fish because it did not closely resemble her fish a. fixation. b. heuristic. c. algorithm. d. prototype. ANSWER: d 17. People may more quickly recognize a man as a forward on a basketball team than a woman as a forward because a man more closely resembles their quarterback a. heuristic. b. prototype. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice c. algorithm. d. fixation. ANSWER: b 18. Thomas Edison tried thousands of light bulb filaments before stumbling upon one that worked. This demonstrates problem solving via a. the use of algorithms. b. trial and error. c. the use of heuristics. d. insight. ANSWER: b 19. Loel did not know whether he should turn left or right for the new grocery store. Hoping for the best, he decided to turn right. His problem-solving strategy best illustrates a. confirmation bias. b. the framing effect. c. trial and error. d. belief perseverance. ANSWER: c 20. An algorithm is a(n) a. simple thinking strategy for making decisions quickly and efficiently. b. testing method involving trial and error. c. automatic, intuitive judgment. d. methodical, logical rule or procedure for solving problems. ANSWER: d 21. A chess-playing computer program that routinely calculates all possible outcomes of all possible game moves best illustrates problem solving by means of a. the availability heuristic. b. belief perseverance. c. an algorithm. d. framing. ANSWER: c 22. The Gelaberts' daughter has just turned 1, and they are using the instruction manual to put together a swing for her. This demonstrates problem solving via a. the use of algorithms. b. trial and error. c. the use of heuristics. d. insight. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 23. Dionata is taking a test online that covers the text chapter on thinking and language. When she has to solve an application question, Dionata is most likely to rely on a. heuristics. b. intuition. c. concepts. d. algorithms. ANSWER: d 24. Hannah's mother gave her a couch for use in her new house. To move the couch into her house, Hannah first tries going through the front door, but the couch gets stuck. She then tries the side door. Again, she is unsuccessful. Finally, she opens the sliding glass door to the patio and easily moves the couch into the house. This demonstrates problem solving via a. the use of algorithms. b. trial and error. c. the use of heuristics. d. insight. ANSWER: a 25. Simple thinking strategies that allow us to solve problems and make judgments efficiently are called a. fixations. b. heuristics. c. prototypes. d. algorithms. ANSWER: b 26. The use of heuristics rather than algorithms is most likely to a. save time in solving problems. b. yield more accurate solutions to problems. c. minimize the overconfidence phenomenon. d. involve greater reliance on convergent thinking. ANSWER: a 27. It is raining outside, so Vicente reminds himself to bring an umbrella. Vicente's self-reminder best illustrates the use of a. trial and error. b. insight. c. an algorithm. d. a heuristic. ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 28. Iputu is trying to remember the names of the five Great Lakes by remembering HOMES. This demonstrates problem solving via a. the use of algorithms. b. trial and error. c. the use of heuristics. d. insight. ANSWER: c 29. Insight refers to a. a simple thinking strategy for solving problems quickly. b. a sudden realization of the solution to a problem. c. expanding the number of possible solutions to a problem. d. solving problems by means of trial and error. ANSWER: b 30. Miesel just spent the last two hours trying to figure out a chemistry equation. She has finally given up and decided to go to sleep. Sometime during the night she awakens with a solution to the equation. Miesel's experience best illustrates a. belief perseverance. b. the availability heuristic. c. insight. d. fixation. ANSWER: c 31. The frontal lobes help us to solve problems because of their involvement in a. focusing attention. b. automatic processing. c. feeling emotion. d. balance, posture, and coordination. ANSWER: a 32. In one study, researchers asked people to identify a word that would form a compound word or phrase with each of three words in a set. Sudden Aha! insight was accompanied by a burst of activity in the brain's ________ lobe. a. right temporal b. left temporal c. right occipital d. left occipital ANSWER: a 33. The confirmation bias refers to the tendency to ScholarFriends.com a. search for information that supports our preconceptions. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice b. judge the likelihood of events on the basis of how easily we can remember examples of them. c. overestimate the accuracy of our beliefs and judgments. d. judge the likelihood of events on the basis of how well they match a particular prototype. ANSWER: a 34. Mr. Salaya, who teaches third grade, believes that girls are more likely than boys to engage in gossip about classmates, so he watches girls more closely for whispering and snickering. Mr. Salaya's surveillance strategy best illustrates a. the availability heuristic. b. confirmation bias. c. framing. d. belief perseverance. ANSWER: b 35. Mrs. Zuercher is human resources manager for a large manufacturing company. She is overly confident of her ability to pick the right person for the right job because she is more likely to monitor the successes of people she hired than the achievements of those she did not hire. This illustrates that overconfidence may be encouraged by a. an algorithm. b. prototypes. c. the framing effect. d. confirmation bias. ANSWER: d 36. Scientists are trained to carefully observe and record any research outcomes that are inconsistent with their hypotheses. This practice most directly serves to reduce a. the framing effect. b. divergent thinking. c. confirmation bias. d. algorithms. ANSWER: c 37. As the COVID-19 pandemic entered its third year, people who believed that vaccines do not work tended to view news reports of breakthrough cases as proof of their belief. This illustrates a. an algorithm. b. prototypes. c. the framing effect. d. confirmation bias. ANSWER: d 38. The inability to see a problem from a new perspective is called ScholarFriends.com a. divergent thinking. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice b. a fixation c. a heuristic. d. framing. ANSWER: b 39. Some people are unable to arrange six matchsticks to form four equilateral triangles because they fail to consider a three-dimensional arrangement. This best illustrates the effects of ________ on problem solving. a. fixation b. heuristics c. framing d. overconfidence ANSWER: a 40. A fixation is most likely to inhibit a. confirmation bias. b. overconfidence. c. creativity. d. belief perseverance. ANSWER: c 41. As a high school student, Maggie found it easy to copy test answers from the student sitting next to her. College is more difficult, so Maggie has to figure out better ways to cheat. She spends as much time devising new cheating plans as she would studying. Maggie's shortsightedness best illustrates the consequences of a. an algorithm. b. a fixation. c. confirmation bias. d. the availability heuristic. ANSWER: b 42. In contrast to our systematic reasoning, our effortless, immediate, and automatic feelings or thoughts are called a. fixations. b. aptitudes. c. algorithms. d. intuitions. ANSWER: d 43. Aaron and Mathilda have just met. Aaron has a good feeling about their future relationship. This is an example of Aaron's a. intuition. b. concept. ScholarFriends.com c. prototype. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice d. heuristic. ANSWER: a 44. Lim has just started a new job. His boss looks like a high school friend. Without consciously realizing the similarity, Lim experienced an immediate and automatic liking for his new boss. His reaction best illustrates the impact of a. algorithms. b. confirmation bias. c. intuition. d. extrinsic motivation. ANSWER: c 45. A reliance on quick intuitive judgments is best illustrated by our use of a. convergent thinking. b. algorithms. c. trial and error. d. heuristics. ANSWER: d 46. The representativeness heuristic is defined as a. the tendency to be more confident than correct. b. the tendency to approach a problem in one particular way, often a way that has been successful in the past. c. estimating the likelihood of events based on their availability in memory. d. estimating the likelihood of events in terms of how well they seem to represent, or match, particular prototypes. ANSWER: d 47. Angga, a Black student, is told by his teacher to stop talking to his classmate. However, none of the White students are asked to stop talking, even though they are disrupting the class. In this instance, it may be that the teacher a. has a positive view of Angga and wants him to do better than his White classmates. b. is not fond of Angga because he has a history of disrupting the class. c. has a prototype of delinquent Black teens and is unconsciously using the representative heuristic when judging Angga. d. has a positive view of White students in general and is consciously using the availability heuristic when allowing them to disrupt the class setting. ANSWER: c 48. ________ may lead us to ignore other relevant information as we intuitively compare something with a particular prototype. ScholarFriends.com a. Overconfidence Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice b. The representativeness heuristic c. Belief perseverance d. The availability heuristic ANSWER: b 49. Many people guess that someone who is short, slim, and likes to read poetry is an Ivy League university English professor rather than a truck driver. The fact that there are about 7000 times more truck drivers means that the poetry reader is many times more likely to be a truck driver. The people guessed wrong because they used a. the availability heuristic. b. a fixation. c. the representativeness heuristic. d. belief perseverance. ANSWER: c 50. Angelina is shopping for a new winter jacket. Based on past shopping experience, Angelina believes that a higher price means better quality, so she chooses the more expensive jacket. Angelina's decision reflects her use of a. the availability heuristic. b. confirmation bias. c. the representativeness heuristic. d. intuition. ANSWER: c 51. The use of the representativeness heuristic has when judging individuals may result in a. racial bias. b. increased intelligence. c. reduced academic performance. d. problematic social relationships. ANSWER: a 52. Our tendency to judge the likelihood of an event on the basis of how readily we can remember instances of its occurrence is called a. framing. b. confirmation bias. c. belief perseverance. d. the availability heuristic. ANSWER: d 53. Lucinda overestimates the number of times she has vacuumed the rugs because it's easier for her to remember what she has done than to remember what her husband has done. This best illustrates the impact of ScholarFriends.com a. overconfidence. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice b. framing. c. confirmation bias. d. the availability heuristic. ANSWER: d 54. Nonstop news coverage of the COVID-19 pandemic led young people to express as much worry about their health as older adults did, even though they were 180 times less like to die from COVID-19 than were Americans aged 65 and older. The availability heuristic thus a. may lead us to ignore relevant information. b. distorts our judgments of risks. c. leads us to be more confident than correct. d. encourages us to cling to our beliefs despite contrary evidence. ANSWER: b 55. In 2015, a viral photograph of a Syrian child lying dead on a beach had a massive impact Red Cross donations to Syrian refugees were 55 times greater than in response to statistics that described hundreds of thousands of other refugee deaths. This demonstrates that our emotions as well as actions can be related to the a. availability heuristic. b. representativeness heuristic. c. formation of concepts. d. use of incorrect prototypes. ANSWER: a 56. A televised image of a sick child had a greater impact on Mr. Smith's perception of the desperate need for medical help in developing countries than did a statistical chart summarizing the scope of the problem. This suggests that his understanding of the problems caused by poverty was influenced by a. belief perseverance. b. an algorithm. c. confirmation bias. d. the availability heuristic. ANSWER: d 57. Advertising by insurance companies encourages people to imagine their homes being destroyed by fire. By doing this, they improve their salespeople's success at selling expensive homeowners' policies. They are most clearly exploiting the influence of a. belief perseverance. b. an algorithm. c. overconfidence. d. the availability heuristic. ANSWER: d 58. A single memorable case of Medicare fraudScholarFriends.com can have a greater impact on people's estimates of Medicare Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice abuse than do statistics showing that this case is actually the exception to the rule. This illustrates that judgments are influenced by a. confirmation bias. b. overconfidence. c. belief perseverance. d. the availability heuristic. ANSWER: d 59. Miguel is very concerned about climate change. One reason for Miguel's concern might be that a. the weather in his area has been hot recently. b. he is trying to go against his intuition regarding climate change. c. his views regarding climate change are related to confirmation bias. d. climate change has become more vividly associated with extreme weather. ANSWER: d 60. Fear of not being able to control something is to ________ as our ancestral history is to _______. a. fear of flying; fear of spiders b. fear of snakes; fear of driving c. fear of sharks; fear of lizards d. fear of a heart attack; fear of smoking ANSWER: a 61. One reason people fear flying more than driving is that the two activities involve differences in a. convergent thinking. b. belief perseverance. c. confirmation bias. d. perceived control. ANSWER: d 62. The vivid memories of the 9/11 terrorist tragedy unduly inflated many people's judgments of the risks associated with air travel. This best illustrates the importance of a. fixations. b. the availability heuristic. c. confirmation bias. d. framing. ANSWER: b 63. We fear too little those events that will claim lives a. accidentally. b. undramatically. ScholarFriends.com c. in the near future. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice d. in a highly memorable way. ANSWER: b 64. Public fears of gun violence tend to increase dramatically for a brief time after highly publicized mass shootings. This best illustrates the impact of a. confirmation bias. b. a fixation. c. the availability heuristic. d. belief perseverance. ANSWER: c 65. Reddy is scheduled to work on a ship beginning next week. Although the ship will be docked 200 miles from where he lives, he has decided to drive rather than to fly. He told his friend that flying was not safe and that he would feel more comfortable driving there instead. What would be his friend's best response? a. "You're right! People are more likely to be injured or die on a scheduled flight than any other method of transportation." b. "I understand why you don't like to fly. I don't fly either." c. "Statistically, it is actually safer to fly, because Americans are more likely to die in car accidents than on a scheduled flight." d. "It is not irrational to fear flying. Remember the 9/11 terrorist attacks?" ANSWER: c 66. We tend to NOT fear events that can be considered a. accidents. b. ongoing threats. c. future events. d. disasters. ANSWER: b 67. Overconfidence is defined as the tendency to a. cling to our initial beliefs, even though they have been proven wrong. b. search for information that supports our preconceptions. c. overestimate the accuracy of our beliefs and judgments. d. judge the likelihood of an event based on how well it represents a particular prototype. ANSWER: c 68. Underestimating the time and cost necessary to complete a project best demonstrates a. divergent thinking. b. the framing effect. c. the availability heuristic. d. overconfidence. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 69. As she began her first year of college, Jake was certain that she would never do vaping. By the end of her first year, however, Jake had purchased a vaporizer and was using it regularly. Jake's experience best illustrates a. the availability heuristic. b. confirmation bias. c. overconfidence. d. the framing effect. ANSWER: c 70. Overconfidence underlies our overestimating how quickly a task will be completed, called the a. confirmation bias. b. planning fallacy. c. availability heuristic. d. representativeness heuristic. ANSWER: b 71. Enrique is planning a family vacation and wants to create T-shirts with a clever saying and the family logo on them. Unfortunately, it is taking him much more time than he had anticipated. This best illustrates a. confirmation bias. b. the planning fallacy. c. belief perseverance. d. the framing effect. ANSWER: b 72. People with a superficial understanding of proposals for political change often express excessively strong pro or con views. This best illustrates the impact of a. overconfidence. b. divergent thinking. c. the framing effect. d. the representativeness heuristic. ANSWER: a 73. After limited testing, Dr. Fusari has incorrectly given his patient a diagnosis of kidney failure, which requires dialysis three times a week. The dialysis is not working. However, Dr. Fusari insists that his diagnosis is accurate. This may be related to a. concept formation. b. overconfidence. c. belief preservation. d. the representative heuristic. ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com

74. People who err on the side of overconfidence are especially likely to Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice a. use algorithms to solve problems. b. think creatively. c. avoid confirmation bias. d. live happily. ANSWER: d 75. Rafael is a town supervisor who daily makes decisions affecting the well-being of all his neighbors. He tends to be overconfident that he is always making the right decision. Rafael is especially likely to a. use algorithms to solve problems. b. think creatively. c. avoid confirmation bias. d. seem competent. ANSWER: b 76. An unwillingness to give up our beliefs even when the evidence proves them wrong is called a. the availability heuristic. b. trial and error. c. belief perseverance. d. confirmation bias. ANSWER: c 77. Which cognitive process and strategy closes our mind to new ideas? a. belief perseverance b. framing c. overconfidence d. intuition ANSWER: a 78. In a classic study, people with opposing views of the death penalty reviewed mixed evidence regarding whether it is effective in lowering the crime rate. The result was that the mixed evidence actually increased their disagreement about the value of capital punishment. This best illustrates a. the framing effect. b. convergent thinking. c. belief perseverance. d. the representativeness heuristic. ANSWER: c 79. Arsan was dressing for a formal party and so was looking for his diamond/onyx ring. Because he couldn't find it, he questioned his boarder's honesty. Although Arsan later recalled that he had left the ring on the kitchen table, he continued to doubt his boarder's honesty. Arsan's irrational thinking best illustrates a. confirmation bias. ScholarFriends.com b. an algorithm. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice c. belief perseverance. d. framing. ANSWER: c 80. Travis believes that older people commit more crime than young adults do. When presented with data on crime prevalence rates between the two groups, he sees that young adults actually commit more crime than older people. However, Travis dismisses the evidence as untrustworthy. This illustrates a. overconfidence. b. belief perseverance. c. the availability heuristic. d. framing. ANSWER: b 81. The value of making a good first impression when you begin work for a new employer is best underscored by the research on a. overconfidence. b. the framing effect. c. belief perseverance. d. the availability heuristic. ANSWER: c 82. People are often positively impressed by research that supports their own point of view. Asking them whether they would have been equally impressed by the same research if it had provided results that disputed their point of view is likely to inhibit a. divergent thinking. b. concept formation. c. belief perseverance. d. insight. ANSWER: c 83. Research findings suggest that the best advice to give people who want to avoid belief perseverance is a. "Try to justify your positions." b. "Consider the opposite." c. "Don't draw hasty conclusions." d. "Be as objective as possible." ANSWER: b 84. Mila is taking a debate class in which students are assigned a side to defend on a controversial topic. Mila has been assigned to a debate on abortion. While Mila is pro-life, she has been assigned to argue the side of prochoice. Engaging in this activity may a. lead to Mila being less biased against pro-choice views. ScholarFriends.com b. lead to Mila being pro-choice. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice c. lead to Mila encouraging others to have an abortion. d. strengthen Mila's pro-life attitude. ANSWER: a 85. Wording a question or presenting an issue in such a way that it evokes a desired judgment is called a. framing. b. confirmation bias. c. belief perseverance. d. an algorithm. ANSWER: a 86. Tversky and Kahneman asked people how the U.S. should prepare for the outbreak of a disease that could kill 600 people. They found that people a. noted that they already expected such a disaster. b. felt that this just confirmed their beliefs in a future disaster. c. preferred solutions framed as gains rather than losses. d. began putting together a plan to keep themselves safe. ANSWER: c 87. At the beginning of the week, the meteorologist forecast a 15 percent chance of very cold weather, so Brooke wore her heavy jacket to work. At the end of the week, he reported an 85 percent chance that it would not be so cold, so Brooke wore a lighter jacket. Brooke's behavior illustrates the effect of a. confirmation bias. b. overconfidence. c. the availability heuristic. d. framing. ANSWER: d 88. A dress marked down to $40 from $75 can seem like a better deal to Jamie than the same dress priced regularly at $40. This best illustrates the importance of a. belief perseverance. b. confirmation bias. c. framing. d. the availability heuristic. ANSWER: c 89. Consumers respond more positively to ground beef advertised as "75 percent lean" than to ground beef described as "25 percent fat." This illustrates that consumer reactions are influenced by a. belief perseverance. b. confirmation bias. c. the availability heuristic. ScholarFriends.com d. framing. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 90. The risks of smoking are more alarming when presented in terms of the number of cigarette-users with lung cancer than the percentage of cigarette-users with lung cancer. This illustrates the importance of a. fixation. b. belief perseverance. c. overconfidence. d. framing. ANSWER: d 91. Framing choices in a way that encourages people to make beneficial decisions is called a. nudging. b. confirmation bias. c. heuristics. d. an algorithm. ANSWER: a 92. A framing of choices by which people can be encouraged to make choices that support their health, retirement savings, and moral decisions is called a. belief perseverance. b. a nudge. c. overconfidence. d. intuition. ANSWER: b 93. Nudging people to ________ can make them more generous, increasing charity donations by 44 percent. a. take a moral mindset b. engage in overconfidence c. trust their intuition d. demonstrate belief perseverance ANSWER: a 94. Clyde won $50 in a Bingo game. The host asked Clyde how much he would like to donate to their local charity. He also asks Clyde what he thinks is the morally right thing to do in this situation. This question led Clyde to donate half his winnings to charity instead of the $5 he had originally planned to give. Clyde's generosity was the result of the host's a. confirmation bias. b. nudging. c. overconfidence. d. perseverance. ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 95. Adrian was asked, "Would you be willing to help save the wildlife roaming around her town?" before being asked if she would sign a petition in support of legislation banning hunting in their area. Adrian decided to sign the petition. This demonstrates a. the power of belief perseverance. b. the powerful influence of the representativeness heuristic. c. how intuition can be used to help form attitudes and decisions. d. how framing an issue can nudge our attitudes and decisions. ANSWER: d 96. People are very likely to decide to be organ donors when the assumed answer on their renewable drivers' license form is Yes, but they can choose to opt out. They are much less likely to decide to be organ donors if the assumed answer is No, but they can choose to opt in. This best illustrates the effects of a. framing. b. overconfidence. c. confirmation bias. d. the availability heuristic. ANSWER: a 97. Implicit knowledge of what we've learned but can't fully explain is most clearly reflected in our a. intrinsic motivation. b. algorithms. c. intuitions. d. prototypes. ANSWER: c 98. Trudy is attending a seminar for real estate agents. The speaker looks very much like a high school student that Trudy disliked, which led Trudy to form an unnecessarily negative first impression of the speaker. This best illustrates the impact of a. intuition. b. confirmation bias. c. overconfidence. d. belief perseverance. ANSWER: a 99. The smart and quick judgments of seasoned firefighters that results from their acquired expertise feels like a. an algorithm. b. a prototype. c. extrinsic motivation. d. intuition. ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com

100. Although intuition can at times hinder rationality, it is often adaptive because it facilitates Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice a. framing. b. quick decisions. c. belief perseverance. d. fixation. ANSWER: b 101. If a stranger looks like someone who previously harmed or threatened us in some way, we may—without consciously recalling the earlier experience—react warily. This illustrates that our reactions to others may be influenced by a. fixations. b. algorithms. c. intuition. d. overconfidence. ANSWER: c 102. A period of distraction that enables people to process complex information unconsciously can improve decision making. This best illustrates the value of a. algorithms. b. belief perseverance. c. intuition. d. trial and error. ANSWER: c 103. Complex tasks generally require a. deliberate, conscious thought. b. the use of heuristics. c. the use of algorithms. d. intuitive thought. ANSWER: a 104. When making complex decisions we sometimes benefit by letting our brain work on the problem without consciously thinking about it. This demonstrates the importance of a. intuition. b. framing. c. nudging. d. overconfidence. ANSWER: a 105. Alonzo has just moved into a new house and needs to complete the wiring to connect his computer with the internet and enable the operation of his various programs. He has never done this before because in the past he has had an IT expert do the work for him. Which of the following would likely help him the most? ScholarFriends.com a. intuitive thought Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice b. deliberate, conscious thought c. the use of heuristics d. relying on algorithms ANSWER: b 106. When trying to decipher between real and false news headlines consumers should a. take a moral mindset. b. base their decision on intuition. c. take time to think. d. focus on the framing of the news story. ANSWER: c 107. The ability to produce novel and valuable ideas is called a. convergent thinking. b. belief perseverance. c. framing. d. creativity. ANSWER: d 108. Convergent thinking involves a. a sudden realization of a problem's solution. b. searching for information that supports our preconceptions. c. narrowing down the available solutions to a problem. d. clinging to our initial conceptions despite contradictory evidence. ANSWER: c 109. Ivan is studying for his college entrance exam. This test requires a. divergent thinking. b. creativity. c. intrinsic motivation. d. convergent thinking. ANSWER: d 110. Expanding the number of possible solutions to a problem illustrates a. the availability heuristic. b. fixation. c. belief perseverance. d. divergent thinking. ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com 111. Enrique is marketing manager for a tool manufacturing company. To get people to buy his products, he Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice suggests all the different ways they can use the various tools. Enrique is using ________ to improve company sales. a. divergent thinking b. intuition c. intrinsic motivation d. convergent thinking ANSWER: a 112. People who can imagine many different uses of a paper clip best illustrate a. the framing effect. b. divergent thinking. c. the availability heuristic. d. convergent thinking. ANSWER: b 113. Convergent thinking is to academic aptitude as divergent thinking is to a. belief perseverance. b. the availability heuristic. c. a fixation. d. creativity. ANSWER: d 114. Slimming is to expanding as a. divergent thinking is to imaginative thinking. b. convergent thinking is to divergent thinking. c. imaginative thinking is to convergent thinking. d. divergent thinking is to convergent thinking. ANSWER: b 115. Five ingredients of creativity were identified by ________ and his colleagues. a. Peter Wason b. Robert Sternberg c. Daniel Kahneman d. Wolfgang Köhler ANSWER: b 116. Charlotte has good imaginative thinking skills, a venturesome personality, and has high levels of intrinsic motivation. According to Sternberg, Charlotte is likely to a. display high levels of insight. b. be creative. ScholarFriends.com c. be an expert. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice d. rely on convergent thinking. ANSWER: b 117. Darren has been working as a marketing manager for about 10 years. He has just devised a social media strategy for a new product. According to Sternberg, Darren's ________ fuel(s) his creativity. a. insight b. heuristics c. expertise d. convergent thinking ANSWER: b 118. Benjamin's creative success as a dress designer is his eagerness to consider novel design ideas and stay focused despite interruptions and strict deadlines. Benjamin's bold dedication best illustrates a. belief perseverance. b. the framing effect. c. a venturesome personality. d. the availability heuristic. ANSWER: c 119. Intrinsic motivation is thought to be an important component of a. creativity. b. heuristics. c. an algorithm. d. intuition. ANSWER: a 120. Professor Hodgson is a wonderful, engaging lecturer. Her students love her creative lectures. Which of the following is NOT likely to be related to Professor Hodgson's creativity? a. She is an expert in her field. b. She has a venturesome personality. c. Her environment promotes creativity. d. She is extrinsically motivated. ANSWER: d 121. The most creative scientists are those who a. investigate issues about which they have very little previous knowledge. b. are intrinsically motivated to solve problems. c. have little tolerance for ambiguity. d. have a timid personality. ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com

122. Notable achievements that are driven more by personal interest than by external pressures to perform best Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice illustrate the impact of a. the framing effect. b. belief perseverance. c. intrinsic motivation. d. the availability heuristic. ANSWER: c 123. Imogene is motivated by the pleasure and challenge of her work, which results in her many creative accomplishments. According to Sternberg, Imogene has a. intrinsic motivation. b. belief perseverance. c. intuitive thinking. d. convergent thinking. ANSWER: a 124. Professor Tudosa teaches English at the local university. He wants to encourage his students to be creative in their writing. Which of the following reminders is likely to do the most to accomplish his goal? a. "Your final essay will be evaluated by a well-known author." b. "Many of the best jobs demand good writing skills." c. "You can produce interesting insights through your writing." d. "Admission to the most well-known colleges demands some creative ability." ANSWER: c 125. Environments that maximize creativity are likely to be those that foster a. convergent thinking. b. focused awareness. c. belief perseverance. d. extrinsic motivation. ANSWER: b 126. Aziz has always enjoyed working with animals. He has read a lot about how to care for animals of various species and is majoring in veterinary science in college. Becoming an expert in his area of interest will a. decrease his creativity. b. increase his creativity. c. decrease overconfidence. d. increase overconfidence. ANSWER: b 127. Allowing time for complex ideas to hatch outside of conscious awareness is most likely to promote a. extrinsic motivation. b. confirmation bias. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice c. algorithms. d. creativity. ANSWER: d 128. Sunil is from India but works on a cruise ship, which has allowed to experience various cultures. Research has demonstrated that these experiences are likely to a. decrease his creativity. b. increase his creativity. c. decrease overconfidence. d. increase overconfidence. ANSWER: b 129. John just spent six months studying abroad in Japan. Based on his experiences, he is more likely to be a. creative. b. fixated. c. intuitive. d. biased. ANSWER: a 130. Playwright and musician Lin-Manuel Miranda has said "time alone is… the font of creativity." This highlights a. the need to allow the mind to roam freely. b. the ability for automatic processing to solve problems. c. how viewing problems from different perspectives can aid problem solving. d. the need to develop expertise in an area. ANSWER: a 131. The use of ________ always guarantees a solution but requires a considerable amount of time and effort. a. heuristics b. insight c. algorithms d. a fixation ANSWER: c 132. ________ allow(s) us to act quickly but put(s) us at risk for error. a. Heuristics b. Insight c. Algorithms d. Fixation ANSWER: a ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 133. Mel is preparing data for his term paper and is unable to reach a conclusion about the meaning of the data. He has been considering various possibilities over the last few days but cannot figure it out. Then, while having lunch one day, the solution just came to him. This demonstrates a. trial and error. b. an algorithm. c. heuristics. d. insight. ANSWER: d 134. By learning to classify cats and dogs, chimpanzees demonstrate a capacity to form a. heuristics. b. algorithms. c. rules of syntax. d. concepts. ANSWER: d 135. Alex was an African Grey parrot who displayed a. self-awareness. b. numerical ability. c. algorithms. d. the availability heuristic. ANSWER: b 136. For show and tell at school, Pedro has his pet monkey sort pictures into dog-like and cat-like images. He has demonstrated that a. animals other than humans do not have intelligence. b. animals other than humans can form categories. c. pigeons can be taught to count. d. humans are the only creatures that display insight. ANSWER: b 137. In Wolfgang Köhler's experiments, the chimpanzee Sultan used a short stick to retrieve a longer stick, which he then used to reach a piece of fruit. The chimpanzee appeared to display a. insight. b. fixation. c. trial and error. d. the availability heuristic. ANSWER: a 138. Forest-dwelling chimpanzees use a light, flexible stick for fishing for termites. This illustrates their naturally developed use of ScholarFriends.com a. prototypes. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice b. tools. c. heuristics. d. algorithms. ANSWER: b 139. One group of chimpanzees slurp termites directly from a stick; another group picks them off the stick one by one. One group of chimpanzees breaks nuts with a stone; another group does this with a piece of wood. These food-gathering practices best illustrate differences in a. algorithms. b. heuristics. c. belief perseverance. d. local customs. ANSWER: d 140. Which of the following is an example of cultural transmission among nonhuman animals? a. Naked mole-rats' vocal "chirps" mirror those who are nearby. b. Black bears can sort pictures into animal and nonanimal categories. c. Pigeons have been found to be able to form concepts. d. Apes have been found to anticipate the actions of others. ANSWER: a 141. In research studies, chimps a. demonstrate altruism. b. show self-recognition. c. discriminate smells. d. learn to speak. ANSWER: a 142. Great apes, dolphins, magpies, elephants, and horses have demonstrated self-awareness by a. sorting pictures into animal and nonanimal categories. b. demonstrating insight. c. recognizing themselves in a mirror. d. selecting different tools for different purposes ANSWER: c 143. Language refers to the a. total set of distinctive consonant and vowel sounds. b. rules for combining words into grammatically sensible sentences. c. spoken, written, or signed words, and the ways they are combined to communicate meaning. d. rules by which we derive meaning from speech sounds. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 144. To string words together to form sensible sentences, we need to apply proper rules of a. framing. b. syntax. c. simulation. d. fixation. ANSWER: b 145. In writing his essay for English class, Dennis made sure that his subjects and verbs agreed because he did not want to lose points for faulty a. heuristics. b. prototypes. c. algorithms. d. syntax. ANSWER: d 146. Noam Chomsky believed that humans are born with a built-in readiness to learn rules of a. receptive language. b. neural networks. c. telegraphic speech. d. grammar. ANSWER: d 147. The system of rules in a language that enables us to communicate with and understand others is called a. convergent thinking. b. telegraphic speech. c. grammar. d. an algorithm. ANSWER: c 148. Noam Chomsky suggested that all human languages share a(n) a. universal grammar. b. neural network. c. outcome simulation. d. algorithm. ANSWER: a 149. Concerning language development, some researchers have speculated that children learn grammar as they discern patterns in the language they hear. This demonstrates that a. not all researchers agree with Noam Chomsky. b. not all researchers agree with Howard Gardner. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice c. most researchers agree with Charles Spearman. d. some researchers disagree with Robert Sternberg. ANSWER: a 150. The world's 6000+ languages are structurally more diverse than the universal grammar idea implies. And Chomsky agrees that we are a. not born with a built-in specific language. b. not born with a set of grammatical rules. c. not born with a built-in specific language or set of grammatical rules. d. born with a built-in specific language and set of grammatical rules. ANSWER: c 151. No matter which language we first use, our first words are mostly a. verbs. b. adverbs. c. adjectives. d. nouns. ANSWER: d 152. Thirteen-month-old Emile is just beginning to use words to convey meaning. His first words are mostly a. verbs. b. nouns. c. adjectives. d. adverbs. ANSWER: b 153. Long before they can say words, many 6-month-old infants can read lips. This best illustrates their emerging capacity for a. productive language. b. telegraphic speech. c. receptive language. d. outcome simulations. ANSWER: c 154. Babies are born prepared to learn any language, but they are slightly more likely to learn a. telegraphic speech. b. universal sounds. c. the language they hear in the womb. d. productive language. ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 155. Mentally breaking language they hear into individual words best illustrates a 7-month-old's developing capacity for a. telegraphic speech. b. receptive language. c. outcome simulation. d. productive language. ANSWER: b 156. The ability to produce words is to productive language as the ability to comprehend speech is to ________ language. a. sign b. grammatical c. receptive d. telegraphic ANSWER: c 157. Productive language is to the ability to produce words as receptive language is to the ability to a. spontaneously utter various sounds. b. speak in compressed sentences. c. speak mostly in single words. d. understand what is said to them. ANSWER: c 158. Using barely recognizable syllables to communicate meaning best illustrates a 12-month-old's developing capacity for a. syntax. b. telegraphic speech. c. productive language. d. babbling. ANSWER: c 159. The earliest stage of speech development is called the ________ stage. a. babbling b. telegraphic speech c. one-word d. grammatical ANSWER: a 160. Sanjay is 4 months old and is able to make a wide range of sounds, such as ah-goo. This best illustrates a. productive language. b. telegraphic speech. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice c. a universal grammar. d. babbling. ANSWER: d 161. Infants are first able to recognize differences in speech sounds during the ________ stage. a. one-word b. telegraphic c. babbling d. syntactic ANSWER: c 162. By what age can babies recognize differences in speech sounds? a. 2 months b. 4 months c. 6 months d. 1 year ANSWER: b 163. At some point during the babbling stage, babies begin to a. imitate adult grammar. b. communicate in telegraphic speech. c. speak in simple words that may be barely recognizable. d. lose their ability to discriminate and produce sounds they never hear. ANSWER: d 164. Babbling transforms from general sounds to the sounds associated with one's native language around ________ months of age. a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 10 ANSWER: d 165. Rovenia's baby is learning how to talk and can say "ma" and "da." How old is the baby likely to be? a. 6 months of age b. 8 months of age c. 10 months of age d. 12 months of age ANSWER: d 166. Renne, who is 14 months old, repeatedly ScholarFriends.com cries "Juice!" when she wants her mother to give her some apple Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice juice. Renne is most likely in the ________ stage of language development. a. syntactic b. babbling c. telegraphic speech d. one-word ANSWER: d 167. Gustavo is 16 months old and says "Doggy!" every time he sees his family's dog sitting on the couch. It seems as though he actually means "Look at the doggy!" Gustavo is in the ________ stage of language development. a. one-word b. two-word c. babbling d. telegraphic speech ANSWER: a 168. Which stage in speech development emerges around 2 years of age in which children speak mostly in twoword sentences? a. babbling stage b. one-word stage c. two-word stage d. telegraphic speech ANSWER: c 169. Bertha, who is 2 years old, speaks mostly in nouns and verbs, such as "Get milk." Bertha is in the ________ stage of language development. a. one-word b. two-word c. babbling d. telegraphic speech ANSWER: b 170. Telegraphic speech is most closely associated with the ________ stage of language development. a. one-word b. babbling c. two-word d. grammatical ANSWER: c 171. The early speech stage in which the child speaks in compressed sentences is called a. the babbling stage. ScholarFriends.com b. telegraphic speech. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice c. the one-word stage. d. syntax. ANSWER: b 172. Which of the following would be most characteristic of a 2-year-old's telegraphic speech? a. "a kitty" b. "drink soda" c. "to park" d. "doll pretty" ANSWER: b 173. By early elementary school, children can understand a. sentences from another language. b. signs that indicate concrete objects. c. complex sentences. d. grammatical mistakes. ANSWER: c 174. By about age 7, those who have not been exposed to either a spoken or a signed language gradually lose their ability to master any language. This illustrates the importance of ________ for language acquisition. a. a critical period b. an outcome simulation c. telegraphic speech d. the availability heuristic ANSWER: a 175. Compared with deaf children exposed to sign language from birth, those who first learn sign language as teens are less likely to a. correctly imitate the signs they are shown. b. use signs to indicate concrete objects. c. mentally associate signs with written words. d. understand subtle differences in the grammar of sign language. ANSWER: d 176. Alec has been deaf from birth. Because his parents are not deaf and do not use sign language, Alec does not learn to sign until he is a teenager, and so he is not as fluent as native signers in using and understanding differences in a. grammar. b. concepts. c. syntax. d. heuristics. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 177. The best evidence that there is a critical period for learning language is the fact that a. infants babble sounds that occur in their parents' native language. b. toddlers maintain a capacity to discriminate language sounds they have never heard. c. people most easily master the grammar of a second language during childhood. d. preschoolers typically fail to use proper syntax. ANSWER: c 178. Vanessa, who majored in French in college, is still able to communicate in French. However, she has a clear English accent from her first language. This demonstrates that a. those who speak English can never learn another language. b. women are less likely than men to learn a new language. c. French is a particularly difficult language to learn. d. there is a critical period for learning a new language. ANSWER: d 179. The part of the brain's cortex that directs the muscle movements involved in speech is known as a. Wernicke's area. b. Broca's area. c. the temporal lobe. d. the parietal lobe. ANSWER: b 180. Broca's area is typically located in the left ________ lobe. a. frontal b. occipital c. temporal d. parietal ANSWER: a 181. Katiana was on a school bus trip when the bus suddenly veered off the road and turned over. Katiana suffered brain damage during the accident. As a result, she has lost her ability to speak. Research has demonstrated that electrical stimulation of which brain area may help restore her speaking abilities? a. Broca's area b. Wernicke's area c. the parietal lobe d. the right hemisphere ANSWER: a 182. Sarita was involved in an accident on her ScholarFriends.com motor scooter. When the doctor examined her, hedetected brain damage in Broca's area. It is likely that Sarita will have difficulty Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice a. remembering past events. b. speaking fluently. c. reading. d. understanding other people when they speak. ANSWER: b 183. Wernicke's area is a region of the brain involved in a. spatial intelligence. b. muscle coordination. c. language comprehension. d. face recognition. ANSWER: c 184. Wernicke's area is typically located in the left ________ lobe. a. parietal b. occipital c. temporal d. frontal ANSWER: c 185. Borja fell from his bike onto the hard concrete sidewalk. In examining him, his doctor detected brain damage to Wernicke's area. Because of the damage, Borja is most likely to experience difficulty in a. remembering past events. b. pronouncing words correctly. c. understanding what others are saying. d. recognizing familiar faces. ANSWER: c 186. Marvin is natively fluent in two languages. Interestingly, his brain processes a. one language in the right hemisphere and the other language in the left hemisphere. b. both languages in similar areas of the brain. c. the first language he learned in the right hemisphere. d. his second language in his right hemisphere. ANSWER: b 187. Jules is natively fluent in English. He did not learn Italian until he was 9 years old. Interestingly, his brain processes a. the two languages in different areas. b. both languages in similar areas of the brain. c. the first language he learned in the right hemisphere. ScholarFriends.com d. his second language in his right hemisphere. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 188. A stroke may impair the ability to speak distinctly without harming the ability to read because different language functions depend on different a. mental images. b. perceptual sets. c. neural networks. d. critical periods. ANSWER: c 189. While driving to your local grocery store, your ability to safely make a right turn into the parking lot is most likely to involve a. an algorithm. b. a mental image. c. telegraphic speech. d. a universal grammar. ANSWER: b 190. Introductory psychology students facing a midterm exam 1 week later spent 5 minutes each day visualizing themselves scanning the posted grade list, seeing their A grade, and feeling proud. This ________ simulation had ________ effect on their exam scores. a. process; little b. outcome; little c. process; a large d. outcome; a large ANSWER: b 191. Introductory psychology students facing a midterm exam 1 week later spent 5 minutes each day imagining themselves effectively studying. This ________ simulation had ________ effect on their exam scores. a. process; little b. outcome; little c. process; a large d. outcome; a large ANSWER: c 192. Daniel is learning how to ride a motorcycle. When given the opportunity to ride by himself for the first time, how is he likely to think about what he needs to do? a. He is likely to think in images. b. He is likely to think with words. c. He is likely to reminisce on driving previously with his father. d. He is likely to use heuristics. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 193. Dragos is afraid of needles but has to have blood drawn for an upcoming surgery. The day before he has to have blood drawn, he can't help but imagine how much it will hurt. What does research indicate will happen? a. While imagining the pain, his neural networks will activate as if actual pain has occurred. b. When the procedure is being completed, he will feel more pain than usual. c. He will leave without having the procedure completed because of his fear. d. Nothing will happen since the procedure hasn't happened yet. ANSWER: a 194. Imagining an experience activates ________ that are active during the actual experience. a. the outcome simulations b. some of the same neural networks c. areas of the left temporal lobe d. productive languages ANSWER: b 195. Althea is an accomplished ice skater. When she watches someone else performing an intricate routine a. Wernicke's area becomes active. b. linguistic determinism influences her future performances. c. her brain's internal simulation of it is activated. d. she develops a universal grammar. ANSWER: c 196. More than other animals, humans can a. recognize themselves in a mirror. b. form concepts. c. understand syntax in spoken language. d. take others' perspectives. ANSWER: d 197. Beatrice and Allen Gardner taught the chimpanzee Washoe to communicate by means of a. pictures. b. Morse code. c. sign language. d. English letters. ANSWER: c 198. Research on the language capabilities of apes clearly demonstrates that they have the capacity to a. vocalize the most common vowel sounds. b. acquire language vocabulary as rapidly as most children. ScholarFriends.com c. communicate through the use of symbols. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice d. do all of these things. ANSWER: c 199. Which of the following demonstrates that other species have the ability to communicate and comprehend? a. Various monkey species sound different alarm cries for different predators. b. Chimpanzees are able to learn sign language. c. A bonobo is able to understand syntax in spoken English. d. All of these actions demonstrate that other species are able to communicate and comprehend. ANSWER: d 200. Animal trainers' expectations may have led them to interpret some chimpanzees' signs as indicating greater linguistic ability than is warranted. This best illustrates the shortcoming of a. a universal grammar. b. a critical period. c. a perceptual set. d. telegraphic speech. ANSWER: c 201. "Pick me up" and "Me pick up" communicate different ideas to a child. A chimpanzee using sign language might make signs in the same sequence for both phrases because it is not capable of a. receptive language. b. appropriate syntax. c. outcome simulations. d. concept formation. ANSWER: b 202. When communicating, chimps seem to consider what others know. This demonstrates that some animals a. can exhibit care for one another. b. can display insight. c. show loyalty to other animals. d. display basic language processing. ANSWER: a 203. Intelligence is generally defined as a. an inborn ability to perform well on standard intelligence tests. b. the ability to learn from experience, solve problems, and use knowledge to adapt to new situations. c. a general trait that underlies success on nearly any task. d. a multiple array of completely independent adaptive traits. ANSWER: b 204. Which of the following is NOT an aspect ScholarFriends.com of what is commonly called intelligence? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice a. musical ability b. problem solving c. the ability to adapt to new situations d. the ability to learn from experience ANSWER: a 205. Ahmed is taking his first physics course and is attempting to learn Newton's three laws of motion. To accomplish his goal, Ahmed is using what is commonly called a. achievement. b. aptitude. c. intelligence. d. savant syndrome. ANSWER: c 206. Spearman's g factor refers to a. the genetic contribution to intelligence. b. a general intelligence that underlies successful performance on a wide variety of tasks. c. a highly developed skill or talent possessed by a person with an otherwise limited mental ability. d. the ability to understand and regulate emotions. ANSWER: b 207. A student who receives a high score on a test of verbal ability is also likely to receive a high score on a test of spatial ability. According to Spearman, this best illustrates the importance of a. predictive validity. b. heritability c. the g factor. d. test reliability. ANSWER: c 208. Who would have been most enthusiastic about the value of a single intelligence test score as an index of an individual's mental capacities? a. David Wechsler b. Charles Spearman c. Howard Gardner d. Robert Sternberg ANSWER: b 209. Royston received one score on her intelligence test. According to Spearman, this would represent his a. creative intelligence. b. practical intelligence. ScholarFriends.com c. analytical intelligence. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice d. g factor. ANSWER: d 210. Factor analysis is a statistical procedure that can be used to a. derive IQ scores by comparing mental age with chronological age. b. develop test norms from a standardization sample. c. identify clusters of related variables. d. provide a numerical estimate of a test's reliability. ANSWER: c 211. To assess whether intelligence is a single trait or a collection of several distinct abilities, Spearman used a. the normal curve. b. standardization. c. Down syndrome. d. factor analysis. ANSWER: d 212. We have many distinct neural networks that enable our many varied abilities. The brain's coordination of all these networks results in a. a normal curve. b. savant syndrome. c. factor analysis. d. general intelligence. ANSWER: d 213. Who formulated a theory of general ability based on two factors? a. Raymond Cattell and John Horn b. Howard Gardner c. Charles Spearman d. Robert Sternberg ANSWER: a 214. Professor Denton believes that a person's general mental ability is based on two factors, fluid and crystallized intelligence. Professor Denton's view of intelligence most closely resembles that of a. Charles Spearman. b. Raymond Cattell. c. Howard Gardner. d. Robert Sternberg. ANSWER: b 215. Which theory affirmed the existence of both Gf and Gc? ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice a. Sternberg's triarchic theory b. Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences c. Spearman's theory of general intelligence d. Cattell-Horn-Carroll theory ANSWER: d 216. Professor Carlson believes that many abilities comprise intelligence but that these specific abilities exist under a broader umbrella of general intelligence. This is consistent with a. triarchic theory. b. Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences. c. Spearman's theory of general intelligence. d. CHC theory. ANSWER: d 217. Fluid intelligence refers most directly to a person's a. accumulated knowledge. b. ability to reason speedily and abstractly. c. ability to engage in factor analysis. d. ability to use different brain regions for storing memories. ANSWER: b 218. Marlo has excellent "street smarts" in that he is great at solving everyday problems quickly. This ability is known as a. emotional intelligence. b. general intelligence. c. crystallized intelligence. d. fluid intelligence. ANSWER: d 219. The ability to learn how to navigate a new internet communications program is to ________ as knowledge of European countries is to ________. a. longitudinal intelligence; cross-sectional intelligence b. cross-sectional intelligence; longitudinal intelligence c. crystallized intelligence; fluid intelligence d. fluid intelligence; crystallized intelligence ANSWER: d 220. Cattell and Horn's term for our accumulated knowledge as reflected in vocabulary and applied skills is abbreviated as a. g. b. Gf. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice c. CHC. d. Gc. ANSWER: d 221. Professor Johnson is attending a conference in his discipline where he will present his research. This utilizes his a. crystallized intelligence. b. emotional intelligence. c. spatial intelligence. d. fluid intelligence. ANSWER: a 222. Knowledge of United States history is to ________ as understanding algebra is to ________. a. emotional intelligence; analytical intelligence b. crystallized intelligence; fluid intelligence c. interpersonal intelligence; intrapersonal intelligence d. creative intelligence; practical intelligence ANSWER: b 223. Which of the following bridges the gap from general intelligence to specific abilities? a. a g factor b. practical intelligence c. the Cattell-Horn-Carroll theory d. emotional intelligence ANSWER: c 224. Hundreds of studies on intelligence support the idea that a. emotional intelligence exists. b. there are nine types of intelligence, including existential intelligence. c. Sternberg's analytical, creative, and practical intelligences are accurate. d. g exists, as do more specific abilities, with Gf and Gc bridging the gap between them. ANSWER: d 225. People with savant syndrome are best described as those who demonstrate a. high levels of emotional intelligence. b. difficulty remembering past experiences. c. an exceptional specific skill. d. a lack of numerical ability. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com 226. Which of the following people is most likely to be diagnosed with savant syndrome? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice a. Samantha, who scores high on intelligence tests but has no aptitude for creating unique artwork b. Margo, who scores high on intelligence tests but has no creative instincts c. Hernando, who can compute complicated calculations almost instantly but scores low on intelligence tests d. Shawna, who is unable to recognize people by looking at their faces ANSWER: c 227. Thirty-year-old Erik scores low on intelligence tests and has limited language ability. However, after briefly seeing an elaborate church building, he can create a perfect drawing of that building. It is likely that Erik is a. gifted with a superior level of Spearman's g factor. b. demonstrating a high level of emotional intelligence. c. above average in analytical intelligence. d. someone with savant syndrome. ANSWER: d 228. The characteristics of savant syndrome most directly suggest that intelligence a. is a diverse set of distinct abilities. b. is largely unpredictable and unmeasurable. c. is a culturally constructed concept. d. depends on the speed of cognitive processing. ANSWER: a 229. In 8 to 10 seconds, the late memory whiz Kim Peek could read and remember the contents of a book page. Yet, he had little capacity for understanding abstract concepts. Kim's mental capacities best illustrate a. Binet's mental age. b. eugenics. c. emotional intelligence. d. savant syndrome. ANSWER: d 230. Howard Gardner identified a total of ________ relatively independent intelligences. a. three b. five c. nine d. twelve ANSWER: c 231. Those who define intelligence as academic aptitude are most likely to criticize a. Spearman's concept of general intelligence. b. Binet's concept of mental age. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice c. Gardner's concept of multiple intelligences. d. Sternberg's concept of analytical intelligence. ANSWER: c 232. Howard Gardner is most likely to agree that the concept of intelligence includes a. minimizing one's negative emotions. b. spatially analyzing visual input. c. behaving morally. d. a single ability that can only be measured by standardized testing. ANSWER: b 233. Tanya has been doing gymnastics since she was 7 and is extremely good at them. In fact, she is far better than other students who have been doing gymnastics for the same amount of time. Gardner would say that Tanya demonstrates ________ intelligence. a. linguistic b. bodily-kinesthetic c. spatial d. musical ANSWER: b 234. Which of the following people best illustrates Gardner's spatial intelligence? a. Joaquin, who is an excellent public speaker b. Bella, who plays the piano c. Clara, who loves to dance d. Felipe, who enjoys painting ANSWER: d 235. Melroy has been playing team sports since he was very young and is very good at navigating around the players on the opposing team. Gardner would say that Melroy demonstrates ________ intelligence. a. linguistic b. bodily-kinesthetic c. spatial d. musical ANSWER: c 236. Gerald is very good with numbers and finds it easy to solve algebraic equations. Martina is an excellent, creative writer. Gardner would say that Gerald is high in ________ intelligence and Martina is high in ________ intelligence. a. linguistic; spatial b. spatial; interpersonal c. logical-mathematical; linguistic ScholarFriends.com d. spatial; intrapersonal Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 237. Howard Gardner has proposed ________ as a ninth type of intelligence. a. emotional intelligence b. existential intelligence c. fluid intelligence d. crystallized intelligence ANSWER: b 238. Which of Gardner's types of intelligence involves thinking in depth about deep questions in life? a. linguistic b. bodily-kinesthetic c. spatial d. existential ANSWER: d 239. Oka spends many hours pondering the meaning of life and whether there is existence after death. He is demonstrating which of Gardner's types of intelligence? a. linguistic b. bodily-kinesthetic c. spatial d. existential ANSWER: d 240. William is a published philosopher. He regularly spends time in a monastery to ponder large questions about life, death, and human existence. According to Gardner, William is demonstrating ________ intelligence. a. emotional b. interpersonal c. existential d. analytical ANSWER: c 241. Robert Sternberg distinguished among ________, practical, and creative intelligence. a. intrapersonal b. analytical c. spatial d. musical ANSWER: b 242. The triarchic theory of intelligence was advanced by a. Alfred Binet. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice b. Howard Gardner. c. Charles Spearman. d. Robert Sternberg. ANSWER: d 243. Hefner has started a nonprofit organization whose goal is to help those who have been devastated by natural disasters such as fires, cyclones, and hurricanes. When his town was hit by a cyclone, he allocated people, financial resources, and shelter to help those whose homes were damaged by the cyclone. According to Sternberg, Hefner is demonstrating ________ intelligence. a. practical b. creative c. emotional d. analytical ANSWER: a 244. Dunderic's lawn mower sometimes would not start. Dunderic thought about possible solutions: cleaning the air filter, connecting a loose spark plug, or taking his lawn mower to a mechanic and letting the mechanic figure out the problem. Dunderic decided to clean the air filter to see if that corrected the problem. Which of Sternberg's intelligences was Dunderic using? a. emotional intelligence b. creative intelligence c. analytical intelligence d. mathematical intelligence ANSWER: c 245. Jan and her friends went camping. However, they forgot a lighter for the fire. Jan's friend, Huang, provides a number of different ideas to solve the issue. Huang is demonstrating a. practical intelligence. b. general intelligence. c. emotional intelligence. d. creative intelligence. ANSWER: d 246. Youths' intelligence test scores have been found to predict their_________ decades later. a. existential intelligence b. income levels c. emotional intelligence d. political views ANSWER: b 247. Energetic persistence in pursuit of challenging goals is most clearly an indication of ScholarFriends.com a. emotional intelligence. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice b. street smarts. c. the g factor. d. grit. ANSWER: d 248. By demonstrating both intelligence and grit, highly successful people demonstrate the importance of both ability and a. creativity. b. problem solving. c. motivation. d. aptitude. ANSWER: c 249. In her third year of college, Nadja's conscientiousness and passionate dedication to long study hours resulted in very good grades and admission to the school's Honor Society. Nadja's success best illustrates the importance of a. grit. b. the g factor. c. street smarts. d. analytical intelligence. ANSWER: a 250. The role of intense, daily practice in developing expert performance skills is known as a. longitudinal study. b. the g factor. c. practical intelligence. d. the 10-year rule. ANSWER: d 251. JJ really enjoys her ballet classes and wants to be a starring ballerina when she grows up. Researchers would recommend that JJ devote about ________ years to intense, daily practice. a. 2 b. 5 c. 10 d. 15 ANSWER: c 252. The concept of social intelligence was proposed by a. Charles Spearman. b. Alfred Binet. c. Edward Thorndike. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice d. Howard Gardner. ANSWER: c 253. An important aspect of social intelligence is called a. the g factor. b. analytical intelligence. c. grit. d. emotional intelligence. ANSWER: d 254. The know-how involved in understanding social situations and managing ourselves successfully is called a. social intelligence. b. creative intelligence. c. practical intelligence. d. analytical intelligence. ANSWER: a 255. Social intelligence is defined as the a. ability to perceive, understand, manage, and use emotions. b. ability to adapt to new situations and generate novel ideas. c. ability to reason speedily and abstractly. d. know-how involved in understanding social situations and managing ourselves successfully. ANSWER: c 256. The ability to perceive, understand, manage, and use emotions is called a. street smarts. b. existential intelligence. c. emotional intelligence. d. the g factor. ANSWER: c 257. Which of the following is NOT an ability associated with emotional intelligence? a. perceiving emotions b. understanding emotions c. controlling emotions d. using emotions ANSWER: c 258. Adela quickly recognizes people's emotions from the expressions on their face. She would score a. high on perceiving emotions. ScholarFriends.com b. low on understanding emotions. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice c. moderately on managing emotions. d. high on using emotions. ANSWER: a 259. Jayne is very socially aware and self-aware. She is likely to a. have moderate fluid intelligence. b. be low in analytical intelligence. c. be high in emotional intelligence. d. have average general intelligence. ANSWER: c 260. When Stephanie questions her children about what they did at school, she can quickly tell from their facial expressions whether they are telling the truth. Stephanie's perceptual skill best illustrates a. analytical intelligence. b. practical intelligence. c. emotional intelligence. d. factor analysis. ANSWER: c 261. Those who are socially aware and know what to say to soothe a grieving friend or to encourage a struggling workmate most clearly demonstrate a. existential intelligence. b. fluid intelligence. c. creative intelligence. d. emotional intelligence. ANSWER: d 262. The ability to delay immediate pleasures in pursuit of long-range rewards is most clearly a characteristic of a. emotional intelligence. b. the g factor. c. savant syndrome. d. practical intelligence. ANSWER: a 263. Victoria does very well in school. But, when she is playing with friends, she tends to lose her temper easily, which angers her friends. Her behavior best illustrates a low level of a. analytical intelligence. b. the g factor. c. creative intelligence. d. emotional intelligence. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 264. Emotionally intelligent people tend to be happy and healthy, and they a. tend to succeed in their careers. b. do somewhat better academically, as well. c. can delay gratification in favor of long-range rewards. d. do all of these things. ANSWER: d 265. The concept of emotional intelligence is most likely to be criticized for a. lacking definitional clarity. b. being indistinguishable from analytical intelligence. c. being difficult to measure reliably. d. extending the definition of intelligence to an overly broad range of skills. ANSWER: d 266. Which theory views a basic intelligence as predicting our abilities in varied academic areas? a. Spearman's general intelligence b. CHC theory c. Gardner's multiple intelligences d. Sternberg's triarchic theory ANSWER: a 267. Which theory proposes that intelligence is composed of broad and narrow abilities? a. Spearman's general intelligence b. Cattell-Horn-Carroll theory c. Gardner's multiple intelligences d. Sternberg's triarchic theory ANSWER: b 268. Compared with Gardner, Sternberg has identified ________ independent dimensions of intelligence, and his forms of intelligence have been ________ reliably measured. a. more; more b. fewer; less c. more; less d. fewer; more ANSWER: d 269. Psychologists use ________ to assess individuals' mental aptitudes and compare them with those of others, using numerical scores. a. eugenics b. reliability coefficients ScholarFriends.com c. intelligence tests Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice d. the g factor ANSWER: c 270. Kyle is in the sixth grade and is taking a test to measure his mental aptitudes as compared with those of others. Kyle is taking a(n) ________ test. a. standardization b. reliability c. intelligence d. eugenics ANSWER: c 271. Achievement tests are designed to a. measure the desire and potential capacity to successfully meet challenges. b. assess ability to produce novel ideas. c. compare an individual's personality with those of highly successful people. d. assess learned knowledge or skills. ANSWER: d 272. The written exam for a driver's license would most likely be considered a(n) ________ test. a. achievement b. reliability c. aptitude d. intelligence ANSWER: a 273. Alesso is studying for her final exam in world history. This exam is an example of an a. intelligence test. b. emotional intelligence test. c. achievement test. d. aptitude test. ANSWER: c 274. Tests designed to predict the ability to learn new skills are called a. interest inventories. b. factor analyses. c. standardized assessments. d. aptitude tests. ANSWER: d 275. You are taking a test to determine whether you are capable of learning to be a computer technician. The test would be considered a(n) ________ test. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice a. reliability b. achievement c. aptitude d. intelligence ANSWER: c 276. Aptitude tests are to ________ as achievement tests are to ________. a. current interests; past competence b. past competence; current interests c. current competence; future performance d. future performance; current competence ANSWER: d 277. To avoid teacher bias, France's minister of public education gave ________ the task of designing fair tests. a. Lewis Terman b. Alfred Binet c. Robert Sternberg d. Howard Gardner ANSWER: b 278. Binet and Simon designed a test of intellectual abilities in order to a. provide a quantitative estimate of inherited intellectual potential. b. distinguish between academic and practical intelligence. c. identify children likely to have difficulty learning in regular school classes. d. assess general capacity for goal-directed adaptive behavior. ANSWER: c 279. To determine whether a child's intellectual development was fast or slow, Binet and Simon assessed the child's a. natural ability. b. emotional intelligence. c. mental age. d. cultural background. ANSWER: c 280. To assess mental age, Binet and Simon measured children's a. head size. b. reasoning skills. c. muscular power. d. neural processing speed. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 281. The level of performance typically associated with a certain chronological age is known as a. mental age. b. intelligence. c. achievement. d. IQ. ANSWER: a 282. Five-year-old Angelin performs on an intelligence test at a level characteristic of an average 7-year-old. Angelin's mental age is a. 4. b. 5. c. 7. d. 80. ANSWER: c 283. Binet and Simon tested their questions on Binet's two daughters and then on what they called "backward" and "bright" Parisian schoolchildren. The items they developed a. would differentiate between aptitude and achievement. b. predicted how well French schoolchildren would handle their schoolwork. c. would measure human traits. d. distinguish between verbal and performance abilities. ANSWER: b 284. The Stanford-Binet was first developed by a. Robert Sternberg. b. David Wechsler. c. Lewis Terman. d. Charles Spearman. ANSWER: c 285. William Stern was the first to introduce the term a. standardization. b. mental age. c. validity. d. intelligence quotient. ANSWER: d 286. For the original version of the Stanford-Binet, IQ was defined as a. mental age multiplied by 100. b. chronological age subtracted from mental age and multiplied by 100. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice c. chronological age divided by mental age and multiplied by 100. d. mental age divided by chronological age and multiplied by 100. ANSWER: d 287. Bil Jana is a 10-year-old who answered questions on the original Stanford-Binet with the proficiency typical of an average 8-year-old. She can be said to have an IQ of a. 80. b. 100. c. 115. d. 125. ANSWER: a 288. Victor is 12 years old and has a mental age of 12. What is his IQ? a. 80 b. 90 c. 100 d. 125 ANSWER: c 289. Five-year-old Zack has an IQ of 120 on the original version of the Stanford-Binet. His mental age is a. 4. b. 6. c. 8. d. 9. ANSWER: b 290. Instead of calculating an intelligence quotient, most current intelligence tests represent the test-taker's performance relative to the a. test-taker's own previous intelligence test performance. b. best possible performance of others the same age as the test-taker. c. best possible performance of others of any age. d. average performance of others the same age as the test-taker. ANSWER: d 291. The average performance for any given age is assigned a score of ________ on contemporary intelligence tests. a. 50 b. 75 c. 80 d. 100 ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 292. Which discriminatory nineteenth- and twentieth-century movement proposed using intelligence test results to encourage only "fit' people to reproduce? a. fluid intelligence b. crystallized intelligence c. factor analysis d. eugenics ANSWER: d 293. Terman's support of the eugenics movement demonstrates how a. research findings drove his ideas. b. science can be value laden. c. his research lacked reliability and validity. d. much emphasis he placed on environmental forces. ANSWER: b 294. Allwyn is attending a seminar in which the lecturer insists that "all governments should use intelligence scores to identify those who should and should not reproduce in order to benefit humankind." This lecturer is advocating a. eugenics. b. factor analysis. c. test standardization. d. crystallized intelligence. ANSWER: a 295. Who was most enthusiastic about relying on eugenics for the improvement of human intellectual functioning? a. Robert Sternberg b. Alfred Binet c. Lewis Terman d. David Wechsler ANSWER: c 296. The eugenics movement would have been most likely to encourage a. selective breeding of highly intelligent people. b. creation of special education programs for intellectually inferior children. c. construction of tests to measure a variety of intelligences. d. use of factor analysis for identification of various types of intelligence. ANSWER: a 297. Who would have been the LEAST enthusiastic about relying on eugenics for the improvement of human intellectual functioning? ScholarFriends.com a. Francis Galton Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice b. Alfred Binet c. Lewis Terman d. Charles Darwin ANSWER: b 298. Binet and Terman would have been most likely to disagree about the a. extent to which intelligence is determined by heredity. b. need to standardize intelligence tests. c. possibility of predicting people's academic success from intelligence test scores. d. definition of mental age. ANSWER: a 299. The WAIS was initially created by a. William Stern. b. Alfred Binet. c. Robert Sternberg. d. David Wechsler. ANSWER: d 300. The intelligence test that contains 15 verbal and performance subtests is the a. Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale. b. Scholastic Aptitude Test. c. Stanford-Binet. d. Binet-Simon intelligence test. ANSWER: a 301. The WAIS contains ________ subtests. a. 2 b. 5 c. 15 d. 25 ANSWER: c 302. Letter-number-sequencing is used in one of the subtests of the a. WAIS. b. SAT. c. Stanford-Binet. d. Fluid Intelligence Questionnaire. ANSWER: a ScholarFriends.com 303. Valentin is taking a test that includes questions such as "In what way are rayon and nylon alike?" Valentin Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice is taking the a. WAIS. b. SAT. c. Stanford-Binet. d. Convergent Thinking Questionnaire. ANSWER: a 304. The WAIS yields an overall intelligence score, as well as separate scores for more specific abilities such as a. factor analysis. b. creative thinking. c. working memory. d. emotional intelligence. ANSWER: c 305. Janet is taking the WAIS and is completing the section in which she is tested on vocabulary, similarities between words, and reading comprehension. Which area of the test is she currently working on? a. working memory b. perceptual reasoning c. processing speed d. verbal comprehension ANSWER: d 306. Ali is taking an intelligence test that has separate scores for four different categories of questions, whereas Abdel is taking a test that provides a single score. Ali's test is the ________, and Abdel's is the ________. a. WAIS; Stanford-Binet b. Stanford-Binet; WAIS c. WAIS; WISC d. WISC; WAIS ANSWER: a 307. An increase in average intelligence test performance during the past decade would best illustrate why intelligence testing requires up-to-date a. validity tests. b. standardization. c. reliability indices. d. processing speed estimates. ANSWER: b 308. If a test is standardized, this means that a. it accurately measures what it is intended to measure. b. a person's test performance can be compared with that of a representative pretested group. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice c. most test scores will cluster near the average. d. the test will yield consistent results when administered on different occasions. ANSWER: b 309. When Viguhi learned that he had answered 80 percent of the items on an achievement test correctly, he asked how his performance compared with that of the average test-taker. Viguhi's concern was directly related to the issue of a. standardization. b. predictive validity. c. reliability. d. stability. ANSWER: a 310. The distribution of intelligence test scores in the general population forms a bell-shaped pattern. This pattern is called a. a standardization sample. b. a reliability coefficient. c. factor analysis. d. a normal curve. ANSWER: d 311. About ________ percent of WAIS scores fall between 85 and 115. a. 30 b. 50 c. 68 d. 96 ANSWER: c 312. The normal curve would represent the distribution of a. the American population in terms of gender. b. American schoolchildren in terms of their ages. c. American women in terms of their physical heights. d. all of these groups. ANSWER: c 313. Profssor Muddin is preparing a graph to illustrate the weights of students in his class. It is most likely that the resulting graph will a. be standardized. b. form a normal curve. c. represent only the male members of the class. d. represent only the female members of the class. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 314. If a test yields consistent results every time it is used, it has a high degree of a. standardization. b. predictive validity. c. reliability. d. stability. ANSWER: c 315. Iwayan completed the Information Technology Aptitude Test when she applied for a position with Rand Computer Systems. A year later, he took the same test when he applied for a position with Agustian Systems. The fact that his scores were almost identical on the two occasions suggests that the test has a high degree of a. stability. b. reliability. c. predictive validity. d. standardization. ANSWER: b 316. Researchers assess the correlation between scores obtained on alternative forms of a test in order to measure the ________ of the test. a. validity b. reliability c. standardization d. normal distribution ANSWER: b 317. Dr. Beddu assesses the consistency of scores obtained on alternative forms of his aptitude test. He is checking the ________ of his new test. a. reliability b. predictive validity c. standardization d. stability ANSWER: a 318. A measure of adult intelligence based on head size is likely to have a ________ level of reliability and a ________ level of validity. a. low; low b. low; high c. high; low d. high; high ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 319. A test that measures or predicts what it is supposed to is said to have a high degree of a. validity. b. standardization. c. reliability. d. the g factor. ANSWER: a 320. Psychologists would calculate the relationship between intelligence test scores and school grades in order to assess the ________ of the intelligence test. a. reliability b. standardization c. normal distribution d. predictive validity ANSWER: d 321. To find out if her new perceptual reasoning test is good at measuring what it was designed to measure, Dr. Tebbeb compares the scores on her test with the scores and grades of college students enrolled in courses that involve perceptual reasoning. In this instance, Dr. Tebbeb is in the process of a. establishing the test's reliability. b. establishing the test's validity. c. standardizing the test. d. conducting a factor analysis of the test. ANSWER: b 322. In one analysis of 223,000 students from 171 colleges and universities, SAT aptitude scores correlated +.5 with first-year college grade-point average. Thus, the SAT has a. demonstrated reliability. b. scores that form a normal curve. c. has been successfully standardized. d. predictive validity of first-year college success and retention. ANSWER: b 323. Intellectual developmental disorder is considered a(n) a. achievement score. b. neurodevelopmental disorder. c. mental age. d. innate intelligence ability. ANSWER: b 324. Because of the imprecision and arbitrariness of a fixed cutoff score for intellectual developmental disorder, the U.S. Supreme Court ScholarFriends.com a. no longer rules on the death penalty. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice b. has abolished the death penalty. c. requires other evidence to be considered in relation to the death penalty. d. considers intelligence tests inadmissible. ANSWER: c 325. Terman's studies of 1500 California schoolchildren with IQ scores over 135 indicated that these highscoring children a. were well-adjusted. b. suffered poor eyesight. c. scored below average on tests of creativity. d. tended to be socially withdrawn. ANSWER: a 326. Among Americans in general, about 1 percent earn doctorates. But for the 12- and 13-year-oldswho scored in the top hundredth of 1 percent on the ________, 40 percent earned doctorates. a. WAIS b. Stanford-Binet c. SAT d. WISC ANSWER: c 327. The intelligence test scores of precocious youths may predict ________ in adulthood. a. existential intelligence b. earning a doctorate degree c. emotional intelligence d. political views ANSWER: b 328. Catalina has secured several patents in her chosen field of engineering. Which of the following statements is most likely true of Catalina as a 13-year-old? a. She was part of a standardization group for the SAT. b. Her SAT score was in line with the rest of her classmates. c. She scored higher on the WISC than on the SAT. d. She aced the math SAT. ANSWER: d 329. The heritability of intelligence refers to a. the extent to which an individual's intelligence is attributable to genetic factors. b. the proportion of variation in intelligence among a group of people that is attributable to genes. c. the extent to which the intelligence test scores of a large group indicate an average IQ of 100. d. a general underlying intelligence factor ScholarFriends.com that is measured by every task on an intelligence test. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 330. The heritability of intelligence is estimated to range from ________ percent. a. 30 to 50 b. 20 to 60 c. 40 to 70 d. 50 to 80 ANSWER: d 331. Professor Ramesh has completed a research project on the variation in WISC scores among a large group of school-age children can be attributed to genetic differences among the students. He has found that approximately 35 percent of the variation can be attributed to genetic differences. His 35-percent figure represents an assessment of a. crystallized intelligence. b. predictive validity. c. heritability. d. the g factor. ANSWER: c 332. The heritability of intelligence is lowest among a. genetically similar individuals who have been raised in similar environments. b. genetically different individuals who have been raised in similar environments. c. genetically similar individuals who have been raised in different environments. d. genetically different individuals who have been raised in different environments. ANSWER: c 333. The similarity between the intelligence test scores of identical twins raised apart is a. less than that between children and their biological parents. b. equal to that between identical twins raised together. c. equal to that between fraternal twins raised together. d. greater than that between different-aged siblings raised together. ANSWER: d 334. To estimate trait heritability, behavior geneticists are most likely to make use of a. protein molecules. b. stress hormones. c. epigenetic marks. d. twin studies. ANSWER: d 335. Which of the following observations provides the best evidence that intelligence test scores are influenced ScholarFriends.com by heredity? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice a. Japanese children have higher average intelligence test scores than do American children. b. Identical twins raised together are more similar in their intelligence test scores than identical twins raised separately. c. The intelligence test scores of children are positively correlated with the intelligence scores of their parents. d. Identical twins raised separately are more similar in their intelligence test scores than fraternal twins raised together. ANSWER: d 336. When 100 researchers pooled their data on 269,867 people, all of the gene variations analyzed accounted for a very ________ percentage of the differences in educational achievement among individuals in this group. This suggests that there are ________ genes that contribute to intelligence. a. small; many b. small; very few c. large; many d. large; very few ANSWER: a 337. An analysis of genes from more than 1 million people found a heritability of about ________ related to differences in educational attainment. a. 1 percent b. 5 percent c. 12 percent d. 25 percent ANSWER: c 338. Which of the following observations provides the best evidence that intelligence test scores are influenced by environmental factors? a. Fraternal twins have more similar intelligence test scores than other biological siblings. b. Children's intelligence test scores are positively correlated with those of their parents. c. Identical twins have more similar intelligence test scores than fraternal twins. d. The intelligence test scores of siblings raised together are positively correlated. ANSWER: a 339. Marc's early childhood was spent in an overcrowded orphanage where he was badly neglected. Fortunately, when he reached school age, he was adopted by a loving family. What can be expected for Marc? a. His intelligence test score will increase after adoption. b. His intelligence test score will decrease after adoption. c. There will be no change in his intelligence test score. d. It is not possible to determine what will happen to Marc. ANSWER: a ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 340. Which of the following is FALSE regarding adoption and intelligence? a. Adoption from poverty into financially secure homes increases intelligence test scores. b. The intelligence test scores of fraternal twins who have been adopted do not correlate with one another. c. Adoption of neglected children can increase their intelligence test scores. d. During childhood, adoptive siblings test scores correlate modestly. ANSWER: b 341. With increasing age, adopted children's verbal ability scores become ________ positively correlated with their adoptive parents' scores and ________ positively correlated with their biological parents' scores. a. more; more b. less; less c. more; less d. less; more ANSWER: d 342. The study of how genes and environment interact to influence intelligence and other human characteristics is called a. validity. b. heritability. c. epigenetics. d. growth mindset. ANSWER: c 343. The notion that our genes shape the experiences that shape us is consistent with a. heritability. b. a growth mindset. c. stereotype threat. d. epigenetics. ANSWER: d 344. As a result of gene–environment interactions, even small genetic advantages can a. reduce social interactions. b. hinder the development of emotional intelligence. c. trigger social experiences that multiply our original skills. d. lead to enhanced specific abilities. ANSWER: c 345. Hamid believes that genes and environment interact to produce intelligence. Shannon's position is consistent with a. epigenetics. ScholarFriends.com b. validity. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice c. the family-environment effect. d. growth mindset. ANSWER: a 346. Paul has a natural aptitude for mathematics, and so he has taken as all the high school and college math courses as he could in order to increase his ability to work mathematical problems. His success in this area best illustrates the impact of a. factor analysis. b. a longitudinal study. c. gene–environment interaction. d. predictive validity. ANSWER: c 347. Babies in an Iranian orphanage experienced delayed intellectual development as a result of a. stereotype threat. b. low heritability estimates. c. a deprived environment. d. savant syndrome. ANSWER: c 348. J. McVicker Hunt observed children in an Iranian orphanage being raised in an extremely deprived environment. These children were passive and cognitively immature. Hunt's successful training program for Iranian caregivers encouraged them to engage in ________ with these infants. a. DNA profiling b. adoption studies c. language-fostering games d. heritability estimates ANSWER: c 349. Harold Skeels observed two toddler girls in an Iowa orphanage being raised in an extremely deprived environment. When they reached adulthood, they had IQ scores below 50 and were placed in an institution for adults with intellectual disabilities. The caretakers at this institution lavished the girls with affection, and nine months later, Skeels found the girls a. physically improved but cognitively undeveloped. b. alert, attractive, and playful. c. still cognitively immature. d. physically undeveloped. ANSWER: b 350. The importance of environmental influences on intelligence is provided by evidence that a. general intelligence test scores predict performance on a variety of complex tasks. ScholarFriends.com b. the cognitive development of neglected children is often delayed. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice c. identical twins raised together have more similar intelligence test scores than fraternal twins raised together. d. mental similarities between adopted children and their adoptive families increase with age. ANSWER: b 351. One analysis of 72,431 undergraduates found that ________ rivaled ________ as predictor(s) of academic achievement. a. study motivation and study skills; aptitude and previous grades b. innate intelligence; stereotype threat c. environment; a growth mindset d. aptitude and previous grades; motivation and study skills ANSWER: a 352. The psychologist who has shown the benefits of a growth mindset is a. J. McVicker Hunt. b. Steven Pinker. c. Donna Strickland. d. Carol Dweck. ANSWER: d 353. Psychologist Carol Dweck believes that training students to believe that intelligence is changeable, not fixed, can help them develop ________, in which students attribute their successes to hard work, not to fixed intelligence. a. their general intelligence b. their epigenetics c. grit d. a growth mindset ANSWER: d 354. A focus on learning and growing rather than viewing abilities as fixed is referred to as a. general intelligence. b. the 10-year rule. c. grit. d. a growth mindset. ANSWER: d 355. Professor Zuniga emphasizes in class that people can always learn new things and grow as individuals. It is clear that Professor Zuniga has a. an advanced mental age. b. high intelligence. c. low emotional intelligence. ScholarFriends.com d. a growth mindset. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 356. Sumeet received a C on his last biology test and is complaining about his instructor to his father. His father stresses to Sumeet that he can learn anything he puts his mind to. It is likely that his father has a. an advanced mental age. b. high intelligence. c. low emotional intelligence. d. a growth mindset. ANSWER: d 357. When promised money for doing well on an intelligence test, adolescents scored higher. This best illustrates that intelligence test performance is influenced by a. motivation. b. stereotype threat. c. a growth mindset. d. heritability estimates. ANSWER: a 358. The belief that intelligence is changeable fosters a. predictive validity. b. trait heritability. c. stereotype threat. d. a growth mindset. ANSWER: d 359. Carol Dweck teaches young teens that the brain is like a muscle that strengthens with use. This idea is designed to encourage teens to view intelligence as a. a reflection of the g factor. b. a biologically determined capacity. c. changeable over time. d. distributed in a bell-shaped curve. ANSWER: c 360. Jason teaches tenth-grade English classes in a high school located in an economically deprived area of a large city. He stresses to his students that the brain is like a muscle; it grows stronger with use. He praises effort rather than ability. Jason is trying to help his students through fostering a. trait heritability. b. stereotype threat. c. a growth mindset. d. factor analysis. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 361. At what age does children's performance on intelligence tests begin to predict their adolescent and adult scores? a. 2 years b. 3 years c. 4 years d. 6 years ANSWER: c 362. By ________, intelligence and other aptitude scores are likely to remain stable. a. early childhood b. middle childhood c. early adolescence d. late adolescence ANSWER: d 363. Facundo is 17 years old and is taking his second intelligence test. Which of the following statements is most likely true of Facundo's score? a. It is likely to be much lower than it will eventually be. b. It will be similar to the scores of his cohort. c. His score will be much higher than it will eventually be. d. His score will be impressively stable. ANSWER: d 364. Intelligence test scores are most likely to be stable over a one-year period for a a. preschool student whose intelligence test score is 80. b. first-grade student whose intelligence test score is 125. c. fourth-grade student whose intelligence test score is 115. d. ninth-grade student whose intelligence test score is 95. ANSWER: d 365. A cross-sectional study is one in which a. the same people are tested and retested over time. b. people of different ages are tested at the same time. c. different characteristics of a given individual are assessed at the same time. d. the behavior of a group is assessed by different researchers. ANSWER: b 366. Researchers at one point in time assess and compare the performance of different age groups on the SAT. The procedure used in this research best illustrates a. a cross-sectional study. b. a factor analysis. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice c. a longitudinal study. d. predictive validity. ANSWER: a 367. Dr. Yee is conducting research on the difference in logic and reasoning power among people of different ages. He intends to give these people a logic and reasoning test next month. Dr. Yee will be conducting a. a factor analysis. b. a longitudinal study. c. a cross-sectional study. d. a test standardization. ANSWER: c 368. Repeatedly assessing the intelligence of the same group of people at different times across their life span best illustrates a a. predictive study. b. cross-sectional study. c. cohort study. d. longitudinal study. ANSWER: d 369. Professor Crivelente is conducting research on changes in reasoning power in a group of people over the last 25 years. The participants were all 5 years old at the beginning of the study. Professor Crivelente, whose assistant will take over the study when she retires, is conducting a a. factor analysis. b. longitudinal study. c. cross-sectional study. d. test standardization. ANSWER: b 370. Ian Deary and his colleagues retested 80-year-old Scots, using an intelligence test the Scots had taken as 11-year-olds. The procedure used in this research best illustrates a a. crystallized study. b. longitudinal study. c. factor analysis. d. cross-sectional study. ANSWER: b 371. People scoring higher on the Scottish national intelligence test at age 11 tended to ________ than those who scored lower. a. live longer b. be less creative ScholarFriends.com c. talk at an earlier age Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice d. experience more emotional disabilities ANSWER: a 372. According to Deary, which of the following explains why those with higher intelligence tend to be healthier and live longer? a. Intelligence facilitates more education, better jobs, and a healthier environment. b. Intelligence encourages healthy living. c. Prenatal events or early childhood illnesses can influence both intelligence and health. d. Deary proposed all of these as explanations for why those with higher intelligence tend to be healthier and live longer. ANSWER: d 373. Which of the following does NOT explain why those with higher intelligence tend to be healthier and live longer? a. Intelligence facilitates more education, better jobs, and a healthier environment. b. Intelligence encourages healthy living. c. Illnesses in adolescence and early adulthood might have influenced both intelligence and health. d. A well-wired body fosters intelligence and longevity. ANSWER: c 374. Ability to reason speedily and abstractly is to ________ as accumulated knowledge is to ________. a. fluid intelligence; crystallized intelligence b. crystallized intelligence; fluid intelligence c. heritability; epigenetics d. epigenetics; heritability ANSWER: a 375. It can be expected that social reasoning skills will increase during a. early childhood. b. middle childhood. c. late adolescence. d. older adulthood. ANSWER: d 376. In terms of intelligence, getting older often leads to a. gains in solving novel logic problems. b. losses in taking multiple perspectives. c. gains in social reasoning skills. d. losses in appreciating knowledge limits. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com

377. Jacquelyne just turned 25 years old. Which of the following best explains how her intelligence is likely to Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice change? a. Her crystallized intelligence will begin to decrease. b. Her crystallized intelligence will begin to increase. c. Her fluid intelligence will begin to decrease. d. Her fluid intelligence will begin to increase. ANSWER: c 378. To qualify for the plant supervisor's job, 50-year-old Donna must take a series of psychological tests. Her performance on the test of ________ is likely to be poorer than if she had taken it as a 25-year-old. a. general knowledge b. spelling c. abstract reasoning d. vocabulary ANSWER: c 379. Explaining why the best work of mathematicians and scientists is often produced in early adulthood while that of historians and philosophers often originates during middle adulthood requires a distinction between a. analytical and practical intelligence. b. reliability and validity. c. fluid and crystallized intelligence. d. aptitude and grit. ANSWER: c 380. Older people's capacity to understand the meaning of words does not decline as much as their capacity to engage in abstract reasoning. This best illustrates the stability of a. emotional intelligence. b. crystallized intelligence. c. cross-sectional intelligence. d. fluid intelligence. ANSWER: b 381. Malcolm believes that men are smarter than women. Why might this be the case? a. Men tend to self-estimate their level of intelligence higher than women do. b. Women tend to self-estimate their level of intelligence higher than men do. c. Malcolm is intentionally biased against women. d. Malcolm has reviewed scientific evidence that has compared the intelligence level of men and women. ANSWER: a 382. Girls are ________ likely than boys to correctly identify the taste of an unseen food, and they are _________ likely than boys to detect whether their best friend is upset. ScholarFriends.com a. less; more Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice b. more; less c. less; less d. more; more ANSWER: d 383. Boys outnumber girls at extremely ________ levels of detecting emotions and at extremely ________ levels of solving complex math problems. a. high; low b. low; low c. high; high d. low; high ANSWER: d 384. Boys are most likely to outperform girls in a a. spatial abilities test. b. speed-reading tournament. c. spelling bee. d. speech-giving contest. ANSWER: a 385. Males' mental ability scores show greater ________ than females' mental ability scores. a. stability b. heritability c. variability d. growth mindset ANSWER: c 386. Catherine notices that men tend to take more risks than women do. Based on what she has learned about evolutionary psychologist Steven Pinker, she is likely to attribute this observed difference to a. biology. b. environment. c. nurture. d. experience. ANSWER: a 387. Sweden and Iceland exhibit little of the gender gap in mathematical abilities found in Turkey and Korea. This best illustrates that these abilities are a. aptitudes. b. distributed in a bell-shaped curve. c. socially influenced. ScholarFriends.com d. stable over time. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 388. In Asia and Russia, teen girls have outperformed boys in an international science exam. In North America and Britain, boys have scored higher. This best illustrates that these abilities are a. aptitudes. b. distributed in a bell-shaped curve. c. influenced by social expectations and opportunities. d. stable over time. ANSWER: c 389. On average, the intelligence test scores of the Dingbats are much higher than those of the Dodos. The difference in the average test scores of the two groups might be a product of a. genetic differences between two groups with similar environments. b. environmental differences between two groups with similar genetics. c. genetic and environmental differences between the two groups. d. any of these things. ANSWER: d 390. Which of the following statements is true regarding racial and ethnic similarities and differences? a. The average genetic differences between two ethnic groups is greater than the average difference between two individuals in an ethnic group. b. The average genetic differences between two individuals in an ethnic group is greater than the average group differences. c. Race is a neatly defined biological category. d. Generational differences are due entirely to heritability changes. ANSWER: b 391. Many social scientists think race is no longer a meaningful term because they view race primarily as a(n) __________ without well-defined physical boundaries. a. aptitude b. g factor c. social category d. normal curve ANSWER: c 392. The intelligence test scores of today's better-fed, better-educated, and more test-prepared population ________ the scores of the 1930s population. a. are higher than b. are lower than c. are equal to d. can't be compared with ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 393. Research on racial and ethnic differences in intelligence indicates that a. school desegregation has actually decreased the academic achievement of Black American children. b. the average mathematics achievement test scores of students in Asia are higher than those of North American students. c. among American Blacks, those with the most African ancestry receive the highest intelligence test scores. d. the differences between White Americans and Black Americans in intelligence test scores has increased in recent years. ANSWER: b 394. A large intelligence test score gap between those who have high incomes and those who have low incomes can be found in countries with a. a small wealth gap between the rich and the poor. b. no wealth gap between the rich and the poor. c. a modest wealth gap between the rich and the poor. d. a large wealth gap between the rich and the poor. ANSWER: d 395. Experts who defend intelligence tests against the charge of being culturally biased and discriminatory would be most likely to highlight the ________ of intelligence tests. a. stability b. reliability c. predictive validity d. heritability ANSWER: c 396. Intelligence tests are "biased" in the sense that a. test performance is influenced by cultural experiences. b. the validity of intelligence tests is close to zero. c. the heritability of intelligence is very high. d. numerical scores of intelligence serve to dehumanize individuals. ANSWER: a 397. Dr. Victor is an intelligence researcher who suggests that tests should assess people's ability to learn novel words, sayings, and analogies. This is consistent with a. stereotype threat. b. culture-fair aptitude tests. c. the growth mindset. d. epigenetics. ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 398. When completing a verbal aptitude test, members of an ethnic minority group are particularly likely to perform below their true ability levels if they believe that the test a. is a measure of academic intelligence. b. assesses their interests as well as their abilities. c. is biased against members of their own ethnic group. d. will yield scores that are distributed in a normal curve. ANSWER: c 399. Stereotype threat involves a concern about confirming a. low heritability estimates. b. a multiracial self-identity. c. low performance expectations. d. the poor predictive validity of intelligence tests. ANSWER: c 400. Mrs. Sañares is an elementary school teacher and tends to perform her job better when men elementary school teachers are not present. This might be because of a. stereotype threat. b. emotional intelligence. c. test bias. d. self-expressed intelligence. ANSWER: a 401. Performance-impairing anxiety is likely to be associated with a. a growth mindset. b. stereotype threat. c. test standardization. d. emotional intelligence. ANSWER: b 402. Jules, who is 60 years old, plays pickleball with a 30-year-old partner and is concerned that his partner might consider his age to hinder their outcome. His concern actually undermines his athletic performance. This best illustrates the impact of a. a growth mindset. b. factor analysis. c. emotional intelligence. d. stereotype threat. ANSWER: d 403. Which of the following individuals is most likely to experience the stereotype threat? a. John, a White student, who is taking theScholarFriends.com SAT with fellow classmates b. Miguel, who is Mexican American and is taking the SAT with his classmates, of whom 90 percent Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice are Mexican- American c. Jackie, who attends an all-girl prep school and is taking the SAT with her classmates d. Malik, who is the only Black student taking the SAT with White students ANSWER: d 404. Women have scored ________ on math tests when no male test-takers were in the tested group, and Blacks have scored ________ when tested by Blacks than when tested by Whites. a. lower; lower b. higher; higher c. lower; higher d. higher; lower ANSWER: b 405. To offset the negative effects of stereotype threat, some research teams have demonstrated the benefits of a. competence tests. b. crystallized intelligence tests. c. fluid intelligence tests. d. self-affirmation exercises. ANSWER: d

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 1. Motivation is defined by psychologists as a. an impulse to accomplish something of significance. b. optimal performance resulting from moderate arousal. c. a need or desire that energizes and directs (or pushes) behavior. d. the cause of behavior. ANSWER: c 2. Darjen has a strong, internal desire to get an A in his geology course. He is experiencing a. a physiological need. b. motivation. c. homeostasis. d. a safety need. ANSWER: b 3. Motivations may arise from the interplay between ________, the bodily "push," and ________, the "pulls" from our personal experiences, thoughts, and culture. a. nature; nurture b. nurture; nature c. nature; homeostasis d. incentives; homeostasis ANSWER: a 4. Dr. Boubaker is studying how substance use disorder drives people to satisfy harmful cravings. Dr. Boubaker's area of research is a. emotion. b. cognition. c. motivation. d. self-actualization. ANSWER: c 5. Psychologists use three perspectives in their efforts to explain motivation. These include an emphasis on drive-reduction, a hierarchy of needs, and a. optimal arousal. b. homeostasis. c. set point. d. affiliation. ANSWER: a 6. According to the ________ theory, a physiological need creates an aroused state that motivates us to satisfy a need. a. drive-reduction ScholarFriends.com b. Cannon-Bard Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice c. James-Lange d. Schachter-Singer ANSWER: a 7. Kamaal is feeling hunger pangs and realizes he hasn't eaten anything all morning. He feels hungry, so he immediately stops reading his book and heads for the nearest restaurant. Which of the following can be used to explain why he is motivated to eat some food? a. drive-reduction theory b. homeostasis c. arousal theory d. set point ANSWER: a 8. According to ________, a physiological need creates an aroused state that drives us to reduce the need. a. arousal theory b. drive-reduction theory c. hierarchy of needs theory d. the Yerkes-Dodson law ANSWER: b 9. Dawn is downtown shopping on an extremely cold day. She starts to shiver so much that she pulls her jacket out of her backpack. Which of the following most clearly explains her behavior by emphasizing the importance of homeostasis in motivation? a. Yerkes-Dodson law b. drive-reduction theory c. arousal theory d. hierarchy of needs theory ANSWER: b 10. According to drive-reduction theory, a need refers to a. a physiological state that usually triggers motivational arousal. b. anything that is perceived as having positive or negative value in motivating behavior. c. a desire to perform a behavior in order to avoid punishment. d. optimal performance resulting from moderate arousal. ANSWER: a 11. A basic bodily requirement is referred to as a a. psychological need. b. physiological need. c. psychological want. d. physiological want. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 12. An inadequate level of glucose circulating in your bloodstream is an example of a. an incentive. b. a drive. c. a physiological need. d. arousal. ANSWER: c 13. An inadequate supply of water to drink is an example of a(n) a. drive. b. emotion. c. need. d. incentive. ANSWER: c 14. Jorge is so warm in the hot sun that he takes off his jacket. Jorge's body temperature is a physiological state that has produced a motivational state. The physiological state is called a. a need. b. homeostasis. c. a drive. d. an incentive. ANSWER: a 15. An aroused, motivated state that is often triggered by a physiological need is called a. a drive. b. a need. c. homeostasis. d. an incentive. ANSWER: a 16. Allycin has been driving for several hours and realizes she needs to use a restroom. As she searches for a rest area, she begins to feel more and more desperate. In this instance, her push to use the restroom is best described as a(n) a. incentive. b. drive. c. primary need. d. instinct. ANSWER: b 17. Noel is very hungry after fasting all day asScholarFriends.com part of her religious practice. Her hunger is an example of a. a drive. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice b. a need. c. homeostasis. d. an incentive. ANSWER: a 18. Lack of nourishment is to hunger as ________ is to ________. a. motivation; emotion b. need; drive c. homeostasis; hunger d. incentive; arousal ANSWER: b 19. Wayan is working hard on his lab experiment for his biology final. Focusing on his work is becoming increasingly difficult because he is hungry. His hunger becomes so distracting that he leaves the lab and heads to the nearest cafeteria. Which of the following best explains Wayan's behavior? a. drive-reduction theory b. arousal theory c. need for affiliation d. two-factor theory ANSWER: a 20. Our body's temperature cools, our blood vessels constrict, and we seek to put on more clothes or seek a warmer environment. Our cooling body is an example of a(n) a. incentive. b. drive. c. physiological need. d. arousal. ANSWER: c 21. An aroused, motivated state that is often triggered by a physiological need is called a. self-actualization. b. an incentive. c. a drive. d. homeostasis. ANSWER: c 22. For a thirsty person, drinking a glass of iced tea serves to reduce a. a drive. b. stimulation. c. an incentive. ScholarFriends.com d. homeostasis. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 23. Food deprivation is to ________ as hunger is to ________. a. homeostasis; thirst b. incentive; drive c. need; drive d. pornography; lust ANSWER: c 24. During a famine, people will often eat unappetizing and nutritionally poor foods simply to relieve their constant hunger. Their behavior is best explained in terms of a. arousal theory. b. James-Lange theory. c. drive-reduction theory. d. Cannon-Bard theory. ANSWER: c 25. Homeostasis, which is the goal of drive reduction, is defined as a. optimal performance resulting from moderate arousal. b. an aroused tension state that is often triggered by a physiological need. c. the body's tendency to maintain a constant internal state. d. a physical need that usually triggers motivational arousal. ANSWER: c 26. Antonio uses the treadmill at his local gym for his daily exercise. Today, however, they have turned the air conditioning up so high that he is too cold to walk. He decides to go outside and walk in the warm sunshine. Which theory most clearly explains Antonio's behavior by emphasizing the importance of homeostasis in motivation? a. two-factor theory b. drive-reduction theory c. arousal theory d. hierarchy of needs theory ANSWER: b 27. For Abner, who is extremely hungry, eating a filling dinner serves to a. create an incentive. b. create a drive. c. maintain homeostasis. d. eliminate homeostasis. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com

28. Which theory most clearly emphasizes the importance of homeostasis in motivation? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice a. incentive theory b. drive-reduction theory c. arousal theory d. Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory ANSWER: b 29. While we are pushed to reduce ________, we are pulled by ________, which can be positive or negative environmental stimuli that lure or repel us. a. incentives; homeostasis b. drives; incentives c. drives; needs d. homeostasis; drives ANSWER: b 30. Positive and negative environmental stimuli that motivate behavior are called a. needs. b. incentives. c. arousals. d. drives. ANSWER: b 31. Gulustan has been invited to dinner with friends, but she already ate. While she doesn't feel hungry, she decides to go with her friends anyway. At the restaurant, as her friends are ordering food, Gulustan decides to order food also. In this example, Gulustan is eating as a result of a. drives. b. instincts. c. incentives. d. evolutionary forces. ANSWER: c 32. Which of the following is clearly NOT an example of an incentive? a. $1000 b. threat of punishment c. smell of popcorn d. dehydration ANSWER: d 33. Shawn is training for the Tokyo marathon. He knows there is a deli about 15 miles from where he starts his training and so plans to stop for a roast beef sandwich as a reward for running 15 miles. The sandwich is a(n) ________ for running 15 miles. a. arousal ScholarFriends.com b. drive-reduction Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice c. incentive d. set point ANSWER: c 34. Jeffrey is on his high school football team and has been rewarded for outstanding performance with a gold star on his helmet. This practice best illustrates the use of a. arousal. b. drive-reduction. c. incentives. d. homeostasis. ANSWER: c 35. The role of learning in motivation is most obvious from the influence of a. needs. b. homeostasis. c. arousal. d. incentives. ANSWER: d 36. Lack of body fluids is to cold water as ________ is to ________. a. need; incentive b. need; drive c. stimulus; incentive d. homeostasis; stimulus ANSWER: a 37. Incentives have been found to increase our ________ levels, causing our underlying drives to become active impulses. a. ghrelin b. leptin c. serotonin d. dopamine ANSWER: d 38. Which of the following examples would contradict drive-reduction theory? a. Marshall is hungry but has not eaten all day so he can eat more during Thanksgiving dinner. b. John is thirsty and spends money for a bottle of water. c. Virginia is sleepy and decides to take a nap. d. Jessica exercises very hard and eats a snack when she arrives home. ANSWER: a ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 39. Giovanni spends at least 4 hours every day practicing the violin. His goal is to eventually play for Boston Symphony Orchestra. Giovanni's goal is an example of a. drive-reduction. b. an incentive c. an arousal. d. homeostasis. ANSWER: b 40. Which theoretical perspective focuses on people finding the right level of stimulation? a. drive-reduction theory b. arousal theory c. instinct theory d. hierarchy of needs theory ANSWER: b 41. Trilok loves to watch action-packed adventure movies. Which theory would be most useful in explaining Trilok's motivation to watch these kinds of movies? a. incentive theory b. drive-reduction theory c. hierarchy of needs theory d. arousal theory ANSWER: d 42. Which theory would be most likely to predict that rats are motivated to explore precisely those areas of an experimental maze where they receive mild electric shocks? a. arousal theory b. hierarchy of needs theory c. incentive theory d. drive-reduction theory ANSWER: a 43. Adventurous people who relish the pursuit of novel and intense experiences are said to be seeking a. arousal. b. self-transcendence. c. incentives. d. self-actualization. ANSWER: a 44. Mary Louise is stimulated by unique and risky activities, such as diving off a high board on a moving ship. Mary Louise is likely seeking a. arousal. ScholarFriends.com b. self-transcendence. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice c. an incentive. d. self-actualization. ANSWER: a 45. Diego participates in several "extreme" sports, such as bodyboarding, hang gliding, and rock climbing. While his friends say he is adventurous, ________ might say that he may be motivated to engage in "extreme" sports as a way to conquer his own emotions and actions. a. drive-reduction theory b. the hierarchy of needs c. the Yerkes-Dodson law d. arousal theory ANSWER: d 46. Ten-year-old Jerome becomes restless when he is not active or playing with other children. Realizing his needs, his parents have involved him in after-school sports and summer camps, and they encourage him to play outside with other children as much as possible. His parents understand Jerome's high need for a. arousal. b. homeostasis. c. incentives. d. drive-reduction. ANSWER: a 47. The arousal theory of motivation would be most useful for understanding the aversive effects of a. homeostasis. b. negative stimuli. c. hunger. d. boredom. ANSWER: d 48. The tendency for optimal levels of performance to be associated with moderate levels of arousal is known as a. drive-reduction. b. homeostasis. c. the Yerkes-Dodson law. d. self-actualization. ANSWER: c 49. Aurora's tennis performance is best when her level of arousal is moderate rather than high or low. This best illustrates a. the hierarchy of needs theory. b. incentive theory. c. the Yerkes-Dodson law. ScholarFriends.com d. drive-reduction theory. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 50. According to the Yerkes-Dodson law, test performance is typically ________ when physiological arousal is ________. a. best; moderate b. worst; moderate c. best; very low d. best; very high ANSWER: a 51. Darzen is playing the leading character in the annual school play. According to the Yerkes-Dodson law, his acting is likely to be ________ if his physiological arousal during the performance is ________. a. best; very low b. worst; moderate c. best; very high d. best; moderate ANSWER: d 52. According to the Yerkes-Dodson law, very high levels of physiological arousal would be most likely to interfere with effectively a. solving a crossword puzzle. b. reciting the alphabet. c. riding a bicycle. d. washing dishes. ANSWER: a 53. Gunney plays center for his university basketball team. Before their first game of the season Gunney was so nervous about his upcoming performance that he could not eat breakfast or lunch. His performance was so poor that he had to be replaced after the first quarter. Which of the following would have best predicted Gunney's performance? a. drive-reduction b. homeostasis c. the Yerkes-Dodson law d. self-actualization ANSWER: c 54. Two-year-old Olivia is bored. She has been stuck in her car seat for 30 minutes, has played with every toy available to her, and has looked at everything in the car. She wants desperately to escape. She is motivated to escape the car seat to a. maintain her current level of arousal. b. decrease her arousal. ScholarFriends.com c. increase her arousal to an optimum level. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice d. reach homeostasis. ANSWER: c 55. Which theory of motivation did psychologists later visualize as a pyramid? a. arousal theory b. drive-reduction c. hierarchy of needs d. Yerkes-Dodson ANSWER: c 56. Who described our priority for fulfilling certain needs before others? a. Abraham Maslow b. George Mallory c. Walter Cannon d. Chris Klein ANSWER: a 57. The most basic or lowest-level need in Maslow's hierarchy of human motives includes the need for a. self-esteem. b. love and friendship. c. religious fulfillment. d. food and water. ANSWER: d 58. According to Maslow, our need for ________ must be met before we can become concerned with satisfying our need for ________. a. love; food b. safety; self-esteem c. self-transcendence; friendship d. political freedom; economic security ANSWER: b 59. Based on Maslow's hierarchy of needs, Ivan, who has substance use disorder, probably would be more driven to satisfy ________ than his other needs. a. hunger b. safety needs c. need for social support d. drug cravings ANSWER: d 60. Rahul earns a good living, providing him with adequate food and shelter. But, there is a hole in his life, ScholarFriends.com which can only be filled by a loving relationship. According to Maslow, Rahul is now motivated by Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice a. self-actualization needs. b. esteem needs. c. safety needs. d. belongingness and love needs. ANSWER: d 61. According to Maslow, the need to reach your own potential is the need for a. belongingness and love. b. achievement. c. self-actualization. d. self-transcendence. ANSWER: c 62. Trond, who is a financial advisor, is motivated to be the best in his chosen field. According to Maslow, Trond is motivated by a. self-actualization needs. b. esteem needs. c. safety needs. d. belongingness and love needs. ANSWER: a 63. Abraham Maslow's hierarchy originally included five levels of needs. Toward the end of his life, he added a sixth level, a. belongingness and love needs. b. achievement needs. c. self-actualization needs. d. self-transcendence needs. ANSWER: d 64. Maslow referred to the needs for purpose and meaning that lie beyond the self as a. belongingness needs. b. self-esteem needs. c. self-transcendence needs. d. self-actualization needs. ANSWER: c 65. On the basis of Maslow's hierarchy of needs, one would be LEAST likely to predict that a a. starving person might rob a store to obtain food. b. teacher with high self-esteem might seek a career change to use their abilities more fully. c. successful business executive might show greater concern for his or her family relationships than for becoming president of his corporation. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice d. prisoner might choose to die rather than betray his or her country. ANSWER: d 66. Dr. Ocampo has decided to take six months off from his medical practice and will travel to different parts of the world to try to find meaning in his life and strive for purpose beyond the self. According to Maslow, Dr. Ocampo is motivated to seek a. belongingness. b. self-esteem. c. self-transcendence. d. self-actualization. ANSWER: c 67. Rolland worked hard to obtain a high salary, allowing him to be able to afford a nice home in a safe neighborhood. He feels confident and really good about his accomplishments. Recently, he has entered a committed relationship. According to Maslow, Rolland is moving through a. drive-reduction. b. homeostasis. c. the hierarchy of needs. d. incentives. ANSWER: c 68. Abigail, who is a doctor, has been frequently complemented by her patients for her expertise and thoughtfulness. As a result, Abigail feels a sense of achievement and competence. According to Maslow, Abigail is motivated by a. belongingness needs. b. self-esteem needs. c. self-transcendence needs. d. self-actualization needs. ANSWER: b 69. Juan feels that his life is meaningful. This means that he believes that his life has all of the following EXCEPT a. purpose. b. well-being. c. significance. d. coherence. ANSWER: b 70. Luke is a returning college student and a single father who also works a full-time job. His family is struggling financially, often paying their rent and utility bills late, and Luke is sometimes unable to afford enough groceries to feed himself and his children. Based on Maslow's hierarchy of needs, at what point will Luke be able to focus on his academics? ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice a. once he has reached self-transcendence b. after reaching self-actualization c. after paying rent and utilities, buying groceries for his family, and spending time with his children d. after receiving his current grades for the semester and making sure rent and utilities have been paid ANSWER: c 71. Feeling as though life has meaning predicts all of the following EXCEPT a. the ability to delay gratification. b. physical well-being. c. increased performance on difficult tasks. d. psychological well-being. ANSWER: c 72. By starving herself to make a political statement, suffragist Alice Paul demonstrated that a. physiological needs create an aroused state. b. when placed into practice, Maslow's theory is easily disproved. c. for high achievers, the need for achievement can overwhelm the need for food. d. Maslow's hierarchy is not universally fixed. ANSWER: d 73. In developing nations, feelings of well-being are especially likely to be influenced by satisfaction with one's ________. In developed countries, feelings of well-being are especially likely to be influenced by satisfaction with one's ________. a. financial circumstances; home life b. physical appearance; financial circumstances c. personal achievements; personal safety d. sexual desires; financial circumstances ANSWER: a 74. Estella comes from Burundi, an east-central African country with an extremely low average income. Guida lives in Switzerland, where the standard of living is fairly high. Estella's feelings of well-being are especially likely to be influenced by satisfaction with her ________. Guida's feelings of well-being are especially likely to be influenced by satisfaction with her ________. a. financial circumstances; home life b. physical appearance; financial circumstances c. personal achievements; personal safety d. sexual desires; financial circumstances ANSWER: a 75. ________ conducted a study in which 200 men were fed normally for three months, after which point the food intake of some participants was halved. ScholarFriends.com a. Abraham Maslow Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice b. Walter Cannon c. A. L. Washburn d. Ancel Keys ANSWER: d 76. In an experiment, Ancel Keys fed 200 men normally for 3 months, then halved the food intake for36 male volunteers. In response to this semistarvation, the volunteers a. did not stabilize their weight, even though they were taking in half their previous calories. b. stabilized at 50 percent of their normal weight, while taking in half their previous calories. c. reduced their energy expenditure, and their body weights stabilized at about 25 percent below their starting weights. d. increased their energy expenditure and their basal metabolic rate. ANSWER: c 77. The theorist who worked with A. L. Washburn to determine the source of hunger was a. Abraham Maslow. b. Walter Cannon. c. Henry Flipper. d. Ancel Keys. ANSWER: b 78. Who swallowed a balloon that was attached to a recording device and reported information about his feelings of hunger by pressing a key each time he felt a hunger pang? a. Abraham Maslow b. Walter Cannon c. A. L. Washburn d. Ancel Keys ANSWER: c 79. Working with Walter Cannon, A. L. Washburn used a balloon to show that feelings of hunger are accompanied by a. rising blood glucose levels. b. reduced secretions of ghrelin. c. a rising set point. d. stomach contractions. ANSWER: d 80. Research on the physiological basis of hunger has indicated that a. stomach contractions are unrelated to feelings of hunger. b. hunger continues in humans whose stomachs have been removed due to ulcers or cancer. c. rats whose stomachs have been removedScholarFriends.com must be force-fed to prevent starvation. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice d. less ghrelin is secreted when the stomach is empty. ANSWER: b 81. After being diagnosed with stomach cancer, Jerry had to have his stomach removed. Which of the following is true regarding Jerry and hunger now? a. He will still experience feelings of hunger. b. He will have little interest in food. c. His blood glucose level will be lower. d. He will no longer experience feelings of hunger. ANSWER: a 82. ________ is a major source of energy in your body. a. Glucose b. Leptin c. Insulin d. Ghrelin ANSWER: a 83. Glucose is a form of________ that circulates in the ________ and provides the major source of energy for body tissues. a. fat; brain b. neurotransmitter; body c. sugar; blood d. hormone; stomach ANSWER: c 84. Daniel is on his school's wrestling team. He hasn't eaten since early this morning because he is trying to make weight. It is now time for dinner. His stomach is growling and he feels very hungry. One reason for his hunger is that his a. blood glucose level has dropped. b. blood glucose level has increased. c. leptin levels are high. d. ghrelin production is low. ANSWER: a 85. A person will experience hunger when the level of a. ghrelin in their bloodstream is low. b. leptin in their bloodstream is low. c. glucose in their bloodstream is low. d. PYY in their bloodstream is high. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 86. Amber has spent the last five hours doing her homework. Because she did not take a break to eat, she is now very hungry. One reason for her hunger is that her a. leptin levels are high. b. blood glucose level has increased. c. blood glucose level has dropped. d. ghrelin production is low. ANSWER: c 87. Besides the hypothalamus, which area of the brain contains a neural area that tells us when we are hungry? a. amygdala b. hippocampus c. left frontal lobe d. right frontal lobe ANSWER: c 88. Which area of the hypothalamus is a neural arc with a center that secretes appetite-stimulating hormones and another center that secretes appetite-suppressing hormones? a. stomach b. pancreas c. arcuate nucleus d. liver ANSWER: c 89. The arcuate nucleus is a(n) a. form of sugar that provides a major source of energy for the body. b. appetite hormone secreted by the stomach. c. appetite-stimulating neural network in the hypothalamus. d. appetite-stimulating center in the liver. ANSWER: c 90. Destruction of an appetite-suppressing area within the hypothalamus of an animal is most likely to a. lower the animal's set point for body weight. b. cause the animal to become extremely fat. c. lower the animal's PYY levels. d. increase the animal's basal metabolic rate. ANSWER: b 91. ________ is a hormone secreted by an empty stomach; it sends the "I am hungry" signal to the brain. a. PYY b. Orexin ScholarFriends.com c. Ghrelin Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice d. leptin ANSWER: c 92. Zachary has just eaten a large meal at a specialty restaurant on the ship. When the waiter offers to give him a free dessert, he declines, explaining that he is not feeling hungry at the moment. This is likely because his a. PYY levels are low. b. ghrelin levels are low. c. blood glucose level has dropped. d. level of orexin is high. ANSWER: b 93. Surgeons removed a sizable part of Levi's stomach to prevent the spread of a cancerous tumor. Following a successful recovery, Levi's reduced appetite for food is most likely because his stomach produces much less a. PYY. b. leptin. c. ghrelin. d. epinephrine. ANSWER: c 94. When people with severe obesity undergo surgery that seals off or removes part of the stomach, the remaining stomach then produces much less a. PYY. b. orexin. c. ghrelin. d. leptin. ANSWER: c 95. Dexter was severely obese, so his doctor suggested that he undergo surgery to remove part of the stomach. After the surgery, the remaining stomach will produce much less a. PYY. b. orexin. c. ghrelin. d. leptin. ANSWER: c 96. In addition to secreting the hunger-triggering hormone orexin, the ________ monitors levels of the body's other appetite hormones. a. hippocampus b. amygdala c. cerebellum d. hypothalamus ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 97. Orexin is a ________ hormone secreted by the ________. a. hunger-arousing; hypothalamus b. hunger-suppressing; hypothalamus c. hunger-arousing; stomach d. hunger-suppressing; stomach ANSWER: a 98. Catalina has spent the entire morning working on a special project for school. She hasn't eaten since breakfast, so she is now very hungry. Catalina's hunger is being triggered by the hormone ________, which is secreted by the ________. a. orexin; hypothalamus b. leptin; hypothalamus c. PYY; stomach d. orexin; stomach ANSWER: a 99. Leptin is a hunger-dampening hormone secreted by a. the adrenal glands. b. the liver. c. fat cells. d. the hypothalamus. ANSWER: c 100. Fat cells are to digestive tract as a. ghrelin is to orexin. b. leptin is to PYY. c. leptin is to orexin. d. PYY is to ghrelin. ANSWER: b 101. Feelings of hunger are decreased by the hormone a. ghrelin. b. orexin. c. serotonin. d. PYY. ANSWER: d 102. Nitin has just finished eating a delicious meal that included a bowl of pumpkin soup and a large dish of pasta. The waiter brings a dessert menu, but Nitin does not take it, saying, "No thanks. I'm not hungry." The digestive tract hormone ________ is sending the "I am not hungry" signal to Nitin's brain. ScholarFriends.com a. ghrelin Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice b. orexin c. serotonin d. PYY ANSWER: d 103. Melissa is eating dinner when she begins to feel full. Which hormone is giving her that message? a. glucose b. orexin c. PYY d. ghrelin ANSWER: c 104. The set point is the a. the basal metabolic rate after eating a meal. b. the body temperature of a healthy organism, for example, 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit in humans. c. the point at which energy expenditures from exercise and from metabolism are equal. d. the point at which the "weight thermostat" may be set. ANSWER: d 105. Which of the following is true of a person's set point? a. It is influenced in part by heredity. b. It results from environmental factors only. c. It can be adjusted based on a person's weight thermostat. d. It depends on a person's glucose level. ANSWER: a 106. Which of the following best describes the basic idea of a set point? a. People are consciously capable of choosing, or "setting," a particular weight level and easily maintaining it. b. The body is naturally "set" to maintain a particular weight by increasing or decreasing feelings of hunger and basal metabolic rate. c. Once you "set" your basal metabolic rate to a higher level, you can eat more food without gaining weight. d. Once you establish and "set" PYY at a lower level, you can eat more food without gaining weight. ANSWER: b 107. A dieter whose weight falls below his or her set point is likely to experience a(n) a. increase in hunger and an increase in metabolic rate. b. increase in hunger and a decrease in metabolic rate. c. decrease in hunger and a decrease in metabolic rate. ScholarFriends.com d. decrease in hunger and an increase in metabolic rate. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 108. Forty-year-old Jacob has always maintained a rigorous exercise schedule. Over the years, however, his body weight has remained about 160 pounds, which was his body weight in college. His stable body weight best illustrates a. a hierarchy of needs. b. body mass index. c. basal metabolic rate. d. a set point. ANSWER: d 109. An explanation of motivation in terms of homeostasis is best illustrated by the concept of a. a hierarchy of needs. b. set point. c. basal metabolic rate. d. self-transcendence. ANSWER: b 110. Basal metabolic rate is the body's resting rate of a. the settling point. b. appetite suppression. c. energy output. d. homeostasis. ANSWER: c 111. When an organism's weight rises above its set point, the organism is likely to experience a(n) a. decrease in both hunger and basal metabolic rate. b. increase in hunger and a decrease in basal metabolic rate. c. decrease in hunger and an increase in basal metabolic rate. d. increase in both hunger and basal metabolic rate. ANSWER: c 112. Luminai has maintained a stable weight for most of their life, but during the COVID-19 pandemic their weight increased more than 10 percent above their set point. It is likely that Luminai is experiencing a(n) ________ in hunger and a(n) ________ in basal metabolic rate. a. increase; increase b. decrease; increase c. increase; decrease d. decrease; decrease ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com

113. Dr. Vavricek disagrees with the idea that our weight has a set point; instead, he prefers the term settling Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice point. Which of the following observations seems to support the idea of a settling point? a. Although laboratory mice and rats will overeat if given a variety of foods to eat, animals in the wild will eat only enough to maintain a normal body weight. b. Slow, sustained changes in body weight can alter one's set point, and psychological factors also sometimes drive our feelings of hunger. c. Even when people are given medications that boost brain levels of serotonin, their weight will gradually decrease with age. d. The frequency of obesity is just as great in developing countries as in North America. ANSWER: b 114. To explain why, given unlimited access to a wide variety of tasty foods, people and other animals tend to overeat and gain weight, some researchers use the term ________ to indicate a person's base weight level. a. homeostasis b. basal metabolic rate c. metabolism d. settling point ANSWER: d 115. Which term indicates that a person's weight may be altered in response to caloric intake and expenditure? a. basal metabolic rate b. neophobia c. set point d. settling point ANSWER: d 116. One's settling point is influenced by a. both the environment and biology. b. appetite-suppressing hormones. c. cultural influences on taste preference. d. only physiological factors. ANSWER: a 117. After Joni graduated from college, he landed his first job, which required him to sit for long hours each day. He gained 10 pounds fairly quickly, but after about 6 months, his weight has stabilized. Joni has reached his a. basal metabolic rate. b. homeostasis. c. set point. d. settling point. ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com

118. After eating a normal lunch, two patients readily consumed a second lunch 20 minutes later because they Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice had a. no memory of the previous meal. b. excessively high blood glucose levels. c. suffered the loss of their hypothalamus. d. unusually low levels of ghrelin secretions. ANSWER: a 119. Ridwin has no memory for events occurring more than a minute ago. If he eats dinner at 6, and is then offered dinner at 6:30, most likely he would a. not remember his recent meal, so would eat the second dinner readily. b. refuse the second dinner, saying he had just had dinner. c. take one bite and then say he was full from his earlier dinner. d. refuse the second dinner, saying he was feeling full. ANSWER: a 120. The level of serotonin in the brain is a. decreased by a diet high in sugar. b. decreased by a diet high in salt. c. increased by a diet high in protein. d. increased by a diet high in carbohydrates. ANSWER: d 121. Eating foods that boost levels of the neurotransmitter serotonin serves to a. reduce tense feelings. b. increase ghrelin secretions. c. reduce self-esteem. d. increase bodily arousal. ANSWER: a 122. Which of the following foods does NOT boost levels of serotonin, which has a calming effect on us? a. pasta b. chips c. candy d. green beans ANSWER: d 123. Zoe is nervous about a speech she has to give to her senior class and is consuming large quantities of lasagna. She is surprised by how much of this starchy, carbohydrate-laden food she is eating. What can you tell her that will explain her eating behavior? a. Carbohydrates increase levels of ghrelin, which can help you sleep. b. Carbohydrates help increase levels of serotonin, which can have calming effects. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice c. Carbohydrates help increase levels of orexin, which can have calming effects. d. Carbohydrates help increase levels of norepinephrine, which can have calming effects. ANSWER: b 124. People's preferences for sweet tastes are ________, and their preferences for highly salted foods are ________. a. needs; drives b. drives; needs c. universal; learned d. learned; universal ANSWER: c 125. Juan can't stand pineapples after getting a stomach virus and vomiting pineapple slices more than three years ago. This demonstrates that a. taste preferences can be learned. b. taste preferences are genetic. c. taste preferences are universal. d. Juan is overreacting. ANSWER: a 126. The recipes commonly used in countries with hot climates are more likely to include ________ than those used in countries with colder climates. a. spices b. carbohydrates c. fats d. proteins ANSWER: a 127. People are most likely to dislike the taste of ________ foods. a. salty b. starchy c. unfamiliar d. familiar ANSWER: c 128. Five-year-old Connor refuses to try your new stir fry dish. He is also wary of trying olives. This avoidance of unfamiliar foods a. is uncommon in rats. b. is uncommon in humans. c. was adaptive for our human ancestors by protecting them from toxic substances. d. was not adaptive for our human ancestors because they became bored eating the same foods. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 129. Francesca is pregnant with her first child and is enduring severe food aversions and nausea. What may explain her experience? a. Her exposure to novel foods has been limited. b. Her developing embryo is vulnerable to toxins. c. Her body is unprepared for pregnancy. d. She is dehydrated. ANSWER: b 130. We know that our tastes are influenced by learning and culture. The amount we eat is also influenced by experience. For example, food consumption often depends on a. the arcuate nucleus. b. appetite hormones. c. hypothalamic activity. d. situational influences. ANSWER: d 131. Which of the following is NOT a situational influence on eating? a. serving size b. taste preference c. food variety d. nutritional nudges ANSWER: b 132. According to research on situations and food, we a. eat more when eating with friends. b. forget when our last meal was. c. eat a balanced meal no matter whether we are alone or with friends. d. tend to prefer spicy foods. ANSWER: a 133. Benni is going out to dinner with their friends. They are likely to eat a. less than usual. b. the same as usual. c. more than usual. d. an amount that can't be determined from the information given. ANSWER: c 134. Jack is watching an intense action movie with his friends Sam and Al. What can be expected regarding their snacking behavior while watching the movie? ScholarFriends.com a. They will prefer sweet snacks over salty snacks. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice b. They will prefer salty snacks over sweet snacks. c. They will not snack while watching the movie. d. Their snacking will double while watching the movie. ANSWER: d 135. Herlinde had a dinner party in which she offered her guests a plate of breadsticks that were cut in half rather than whole. She discovered that her guests tended to eat less. This best illustrates a. body mass index. b. the settling point. c. that serving size matters. d. nudging nutrition. ANSWER: c 136. When offered as many servings of ice cream as they would like to eat, people are likely to eat more if they are a. given small rather than large serving bowls out of which they can eat. b. offered servings from a wide variety rather than a small variety of ice cream flavors. c. eating the servings of ice cream with smaller rather than larger spoons. d. eating the servings of ice cream alone rather than in the presence of others. ANSWER: b 137. When carrots were offered early (rather than late) in a lunch line, schoolchildren took four times more carrots. This demonstrates how a. social settings can influence food selections. b. psychological science can nudge people into making better health choices. c. serving size can affect the amount of food consumed during lunch. d. limited variety improves food selection. ANSWER: b 138. Obesity is defined as a. a body weight 30 percent higher than one's normal set point. b. a regular daily consumption of over more than calories. c. a body mass index measurement of 30 or higher. d. a basal metabolic rate 30 percent lower than average for people of similar height. ANSWER: c 139. Body mass index (BMI) is calculated as a. height compared with age. b. weight-to-age ratio. c. the body's resting rate of energy output. ScholarFriends.com d. a weight-to-height ratio. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 140. Alane is interested in calculating her BMI. Her BMI is a. based on her height compared with her age. b. her weight-to-age ratio. c. based on her weight compared with her age. d. her weight-to-height ratio. ANSWER: d 141. A body that can store fat has the advantage of possessing a. low blood pressure. b. stored energy. c. a low set point. d. reduced levels of serotonin. ANSWER: b 142. In impoverished places a heavier body is a sign of a. low affluence and status. b. high affluence and status. c. neophobia. d. importance of portion size. ANSWER: b 143. A heavier body is sometimes a sign of affluence and status a. in wealthy nations. b. in impoverished areas. c. all over the world. d. in no known countries. ANSWER: b 144. In the United States, the rate of obesity among adults has ________ since 1975, and the child-teen obesity rate has ________. a. doubled; stayed the same b. decreased; doubled c. doubled; quadrupled d. tripled; increased a bit ANSWER: c 145. How many genes have been identified as affecting weight, even in a small way? a. 10 ScholarFriends.com b. 50 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice c. more than 100 d. more than 300 ANSWER: c 146. Which of the following is true regarding research on obesity and weight control? a. There are fewer obese people now than 50 years ago. b. When a person is dieting, the body perceives starvation and so burns fewer calories. c. In food-deprived countries, the drive for fat has become dysfunctional. d. Adoptive siblings' body weights are correlated with one another. ANSWER: b 147. Margo has been on a diet for more than a year. She has now reached a healthy weight, so she has decided to end her diet. What should she know about weight regain? a. Continuing to exercise can help you regain less weight. b. Gradually increasing your portion size will minimize weight regain. c. To avoid weight regain, she should begin eating normally again as soon as possible. d. Fasting all day and eating one large meal before bed will reduce weight regain. ANSWER: a 148. Rather than play outside with friends, Aaron once preferred to sit inside watching TV and munching on chips. As a result, he has become obese. He is now determined to lose excess weight with a reduced-calorie diet. Aaron is likely to have difficulty losing weight while dieting because a. low-calorie diets trigger increased secretions of leptin. b. his resting metabolic rate will increase and cause him to overeat. c. he has an unusually low set point for body weight. d. it takes less food intake to maintain fat than it did to gain fat. ANSWER: d 149. Research on obesity and weight control indicates that a. when an obese person has lost weight, a diet and exercise program are no longer necessary for maintaining the lower weight. b. fat has a lower metabolic rate than muscle. c. overweight people typically suffer from a lack of willpower and self-discipline. d. the settling point for our body weight increases after people complete weight-loss diets. ANSWER: b 150. Elmira wants to lose weight, so they go on a strict diet, reducing the number of calories taken in each day. Research suggests that after a few weeks of sustained dieting, Elmira will a. have increased blood glucose levels. b. experience a decrease in their feelings of hunger. c. have a lower resting metabolic rate. ScholarFriends.com d. have a lower set point for body weight. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 151. The body weights of adopted children ________ resemble those of their adoptive parents than those of their biological parents, and they ________ resemble those of their adoptive siblings than those of their biological siblings. a. more closely; more closely b. less closely; less closely c. more closely; less closely d. less closely; more closely ANSWER: b 152. Sleep loss makes us more vulnerable to obesity because a. orexin is decreased and PYY is decreased. b. ghrelin is increased, and leptin is decreased. c. PYY is increased, and orexin is increased. d. ghrelin is decreased, and leptin is increased. ANSWER: b 153. If your close friend becomes obese, the odds of you likewise becoming obese increase. This best illustrates the impact of ________ on obesity. a. the basal metabolic rate b. set point c. narcissism d. social influence ANSWER: d 154. Willie has gained 15 pounds since he became close friends with George, who is 50 pounds overweight. Willie finds that he eats larger portions and more unhealthy foods when he is around George. Willie's change in diet and weight gain can be explained by the impact of a. the basal metabolic rate. b. narcissism. c. sleep loss. d. social influence. ANSWER: d 155. ________ explain(s) why one person may be heavier than another, and ________ explain(s) why people today weigh more than people 50 years ago. a. Environment; genes b. Nurture; nature c. Environment; heredity d. Genes; environment ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 156. Exercising regularly and getting enough sleep contribute to a(n) ________ in metabolism and a(n) ________ in the settling point. a. increase; increase b. decrease; decrease c. increase; decrease d. decrease; increase ANSWER: c 157. Which of the following suggestions would be the WORST advice for a dieter? a. "Minimize your exposure to unhealthy food cues." b. "Accompany your diet with a sustained exercise program." c. "Avoid eating during the day so you can enjoy a big meal in the evening." d. "Don't eat your meals with friends who are not on a diet." ANSWER: c 158. Most humans are genetically predisposed to a. maintain their self-esteem. b. form close enduring relationships with fellow humans. c. satisfy a need for social isolation. d. satisfy their need for political freedom before seeking emotional security. ANSWER: b 159. Professor Tafic asks his introductory psychology students. "What is necessary for you to be happy?" The students are likely to attribute happiness to a. money. b. autonomy. c. close satisfying relationships. d. sex. ANSWER: c 160. After moving to a new neighborhood, 8-year-old Nora tells her mother that she feels lonely and unhappy because she has not yet made any friends. Nora is not having her need for ________ met. a. belonging b. autonomy c. competence d. ostracism ANSWER: a 161. Who called humans the social animal? a. Darwin b. Wilson Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice c. Aristotle d. Walton ANSWER: c 162. The need to belong is defined as the need to build and maintain relationships and to a. feel competent. b. be protected from external threats. c. cooperate. d. feel part of a group. ANSWER: d 163. Those early ancestors who formed social bonds were a. more likely to reproduce. b. more likely to be seen as a threat to others. c. more likely to co-nurture their offspring to maturity. d. likely to increase their chances of survival. ANSWER: d 164. The existence of governments, families, and cooperative child-raising, and the formation of social attachments all illustrate a. our need to belong. b. ostracism. c. the importance of incentives. d. narcissism. ANSWER: a 165. Feeling part of a group defines our a. autonomy. b. self-determination. c. focus. d. social identity. ANSWER: d 166. Having a clear social identity can a. foster close relationships. b. boost our health and well-being. c. adjust our hierarchy of needs. d. decrease our need to belong. ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com 167. Adan is in the tenth grade and is happy that he has been accepted to play on the school's fencing team, Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice which defines his a. extrinsic motivation. b. social identity. c. sense of competence. d. narcissism. ANSWER: b 168. Which of the following states that we feel motivated to satisfy our needs for competence, autonomy, and relatedness? a. arousal theory b. Yerkes-Dodson law c. self-determination theory d. drive-reduction theory ANSWER: c 169. Sven feels particularly empowered at work. He is likely to experience a. increased motivation. b. increased depression. c. increased anxiety. d. decreased emotional health. ANSWER: a 170. One analysis of 200,000 people from nearly 500 studies concluded that self-determination a. results in decreased activity. b. puts people at greater risk for obesity. c. is extremely difficult to achieve. d. is key to explaining human motivation. ANSWER: d 171. During the COVID-19 pandemic, Tanalina reported feelings of competence, relatedness, and autonomy. Which theoretical perspective attempts to explain this? a. arousal theory b. Yerkes-Dodson law c. self-determination theory d. drive-reduction theory ANSWER: c 172. A deep sense of well-being results when our need for relatedness is satisfied in balance with our psychological need for a. competence. b. survival. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice c. affiliation. d. self-transcendence. ANSWER: a 173. Jerry has a strong sense of competence and autonomy, both in his personal life and professionally. Thus, Jerry is also likely to have a high level of a. relatedness. b. ostracism. c. narcissism. d. self-discipline. ANSWER: a 174. Olaore has been married for 10 years, but the last 3 years have been particularly unhappy. However, he remains in the marriage because his fear of being alone seems worse to him than the certainty of emotional unhappiness. This demonstrates Olaore's a. narcissism. b. ostracism. c. need to belong. d. strong self-esteem. ANSWER: c 175. Data from more than 600 million people in 24 countries reveal that, compared with married people, separated and divorced people a. are at greater risk for early death. b. are at a greater risk for obesity. c. are happier and more well-adjusted than those who are married. d. are more likely to have successful and happy second marriages. ANSWER: a 176. Children who endure a series of foster homes without a sense of belonging are especially at risk for a. developing low self-discipline. b. becoming narcissistic. c. having difficulty developing deep attachments. d. developing autonomy. ANSWER: c 177. Danielle was abandoned by her parents when she was 2 years old and has been in and out of foster homes for the last 12 years. Danielle is at a high risk for a. developing low self-discipline. b. becoming narcissistic. c. having difficulty developing deep attachments. ScholarFriends.com d. developing autonomy. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 178. In one study, entering African American college students who were reassured about their ability to belong experienced a. higher grades. b. increased ostracism. c. greater narcissism. d. less autonomy. ANSWER: a 179. During the socially isolating early months of the COVID-19 pandemic, adults reported all of the following effects EXCEPT a. anxiety. b. clinical depression. c. increased competence. d. moderate or severe distress. ANSWER: c 180. The deliberate social exclusion of an individual or group is known as a. narcissism. b. ostracism. c. grit. d. autonomy. ANSWER: b 181. Feeling excluded, shunned, or ignored by others is to experience the pain of a. narcissism. b. homeostasis. c. ostracism. d. drive reduction. ANSWER: c 182. Our need to belong is most clearly threatened by a. self-disclosure. b. self-esteem. c. ostracism. d. autonomy. ANSWER: c 183. The students in Mihaela's class exclude her from their study groups and from all their afterschool activities. Their treatment of Mihaela most clearly illustrates ScholarFriends.com a. ostracism. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice b. narcissism. c. autonomy needs. d. self-disclosure ANSWER: a 184. Nine-year-old Chickie tells her parents that she feels lonely because she does not have a best friend in school. Chickie is not having her ________ met at school. a. need to belong b. autonomy c. competence d. ostracism ANSWER: a 185. Nine-year-old Andres has been talking out of turn and running around during class. As a result, he will not be allowed to play with his classmates during recess. Andres dislikes the punishment because it produces feelings of a. narcissism. b. self-esteem. c. ostracism. d. self-disclosure. ANSWER: c 186. Which of the following is most clearly a form of ostracism? a. autonomy b. social networking c. self-disclosure d. solitary confinement ANSWER: d 187. One research study told some participants that others wanted them to be included in the group and other participants that others did not want them to be included in the group. Those who were excluded were a. more likely to engage in self-defeating behaviors. b. more likely to experience an increase in self-esteem. c. more likely to have a clear social identity. d. less likely to strive for competence, autonomy, and relatedness. ANSWER: a 188. Brain scans of those experiencing ostracism show activation in the same areas that are also activated when experiencing a. physical pain. b. physical pleasure. ScholarFriends.com c. narcissism. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice d. drive reduction. ANSWER: a 189. Feelings of physical pain may be reduced by viewing pictures of loved ones, which activates the a. autonomic nervous system. b. brain areas associated with rewards. c. neural networks. d. hippocampus. ANSWER: b 190. Being excluded socially can lead to all of the following EXCEPT ________, which leads to further ostracism. a. disagreeableness b. hostility c. uncooperativeness d. increased competence ANSWER: d 191. Mr. and Mrs. Bakare each have their own mobile phone. They are not alone, as ________ percent of the world's 7.8 billion people live in an area covered by a mobile-cellular network. a. 25 b. 30 c. 70 d. 96 ANSWER: d 192. Josie's parents are dismayed that Josie is on her phone all day long! But she isn't alone as the average American sends and receives ________ messages per day. a. 24 b. 42 c. 65 d. 94 ANSWER: d 193. Kayla is in her first year of college. If she is like more than half of entering American college students, she uses social media a. at least 6 hours a week. b. 2 hours a day. c. around 6 hours a month. d. about an hour a week. ANSWER: a ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 194. Which of the following is NOT associated with increased screen time among American teens? a. decreased loneliness b. increased anxiety c. increased depression d. increased risk for suicide ANSWER: a 195. Nizar spends upwards of three hours each day socializing online. This behavior has been associated with a. ostracism. b. increased anxiety and depression. c. decreased self-esteem. d. increased prosocial behavior. ANSWER: b 196. When scrolling through her social media feed to view her friends' recent photos and posts, Claudia is likely to perceive that a. others' social lives are more active than her own. b. her friends are ostracizing her. c. she is spending time social networking that could be better spent on other activities. d. she is more successful and popular than her friends. ANSWER: a 197. With an increased use of smart phones among college students, all of the following EXCEPT ________ have also increased among college students. a. depression b. anxiety c. self-injury d. studying ANSWER: d 198. Which of the following is NOT a negative consequence of spending time on social networking sites? a. In times of social crisis or personal stress, social networking sites provide information and supportive connections with other people. b. Spending time online often interferes with sleep and exercise. c. Spending time online reduces the number of face-to-face interactions between people. d. Spending time online can interfere with spending time outdoors. ANSWER: a 199. Dragos is checking his social media feed and notices that his best friend is now dating his ex-girlfriend. What is the likely outcome for Dragos? a. He will become upset. ScholarFriends.com b. He will not feel supported by his friends. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice c. He will deactivate his social media account. d. He will try to contact his ex-girlfriend. ANSWER: a 200. Those who spend hours online and texting daily experience ________ relationships with their existing friends and are ________ likely to know their real-world neighbors. a. strengthened; more b. weakened; less c. strengthened; less d. weakened; more ANSWER: c 201. A recent study that randomly assigned volunteers to deactivate their Facebook account or not found that those with four weeks without social media experienced a. increased feelings of loneliness and isolation. b. improved subjective well-being. c. other bad habits that replaced social media use. d. increased anxiety. ANSWER: b 202. ________ is confiding and sharing our joys, worries, and weaknesses with others. a. Ostracism b. Self-transcendence c. Self-actualization d. Self-disclosure ANSWER: d 203. Anis and Joao are in a committed relationship and are very close, always willing to express their feelings, good and bad, to each other. Their relationship illustrates a. ostracism. b. self-disclosure. c. self-actualization. d. self-transcendence. ANSWER: b 204. Narcissism is defined as a. deliberate social exclusion. b. excessive self-love and self-absorption. c. excessive arousal. d. low self-esteem. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 205. Narcissism refers to feeling a. happy. b. overweight. c. ostracized. d. self-important. ANSWER: d 206. Elena posts on social media hourly as she goes about her daily routine. If her friends do not "like" her posts, she fires off an angry response. Elena is demonstrating a. ostracism. b. self-disclosure. c. narcissism. d. self-transcendence. ANSWER: c 207. In one study, college students were randomly assigned to edit and explain their online profiles for 15 minutes rather than to study and explain a Google Maps routing. These students subsequently scored higher on a measure of a. ostracism. b. narcissism. c. self-disclosure. d. autonomy. ANSWER: b 208. Melissa engages in excessive gaming and internet socializing. Both of these behaviors have been associated with a. ostracism. b. increased anxiety and depression. c. decreases in self-esteem. d. increased prosocial behavior. ANSWER: b 209. Those who engage in excess internet socializing during work hours should be reminded that sound alerts, vibrations, and pop-ups hijack a. ostracism. b. self-disclosure. c. attention. d. narcissism. ANSWER: c 210. Marjoy spends hours at a time on social media. As a result, her study time is reduced, and all of her grades ScholarFriends.com have dropped. Marjoy signs a contract with her parents to reduce her social networking time so that she spends Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice more time studying and socializing with her family. According to the text, which of the following should NOT be placed in the contract? a. limits on the amount of time spent online b. turning off her mobile phone when she is at home in the evening c. logging her time on the phone and computer to make sure she is meeting her time limits d. being denied all access to the phone and computer for an entire semester or until her grades improve ANSWER: d 211. Who defined achievement motivation? a. Henry Murray b. George Mallory c. Abraham Maslow d. Ancel Keys ANSWER: a 212. Thirteen-year-old Akira spends at least three hours a day practicing acrobatics and power tumbling because she wants to master gymnastics and be selected to represent her country in the Olympics. Her goal and behavior best illustrate the concept of a. narcissism. b. self-discipline. c. self-disclosure. d. achievement motivation. ANSWER: d 213. The desire for significant accomplishment, for mastery of skills or ideas, for control, and for attaining a high standard is called a. narcissism. b. grit. c. achievement motivation. d. self-esteem. ANSWER: c 214. Chiaki is highly motivated to achieve in her adult years. Which of the following will NOT be expected of Chiaki? a. financial success b. poor mental health c. healthy social relationships d. good physical health ANSWER: b 215. When researchers monitored the professional accomplishments of more than 1500 highly intelligent ScholarFriends.com individuals, they found that the most successful were more ambitious, energetic, and persistent. This best Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice illustrates the importance of a. narcissism. b. grit. c. achievement motivation. d. self-discipline. ANSWER: c 216. In studies of both secondary school and university students, ________ has been a better predictor of school performance than intelligence test scores have been. a. narcissism b. self-discipline c. self-disclosure d. self-esteem ANSWER: b 217. Asnee is in his second year of college. Which of the following is the best predictor that Asnee will do well in college and will probably graduate with honors? a. a high intelligence test score b. self-discipline c. a good sleep and exercise routine d. good psychological health ANSWER: b 218. Who referred to passionate dedication to an ambitious, long-term goal as grit? a. Charles Darwin b. Henry Murray c. Angela Duckworth d. Malcolm MacLeod ANSWER: c 219. In psychology, which of the following is an important component of grit? a. charisma b. self-actualization c. perseverance d. optimal performance ANSWER: c 220. Grit can best be described as a. increased self-esteem. b. positive self-esteem. c. a reduced awareness of self and time. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice d. passionate perseverance in the pursuit of long-term goals. ANSWER: d 221. Even as a young child, Booker would spend hours drawing imaginary scenes or events from his own life. His goal was to be a full-time, creative artist. In pursuing this goal, Booker's behavior exemplifies a. grit. b. narcissism. c. achievement motivation. d. self-disclosure. ANSWER: a 222. Those who demonstrate grit are especially likely to demonstrate a high level of a. narcissism. b. self-disclosure. c. achievement motivation. d. extrinsic motivation. ANSWER: c 223. The desire to engage in an activity for the sake of its enjoyment alone involves a. extrinsic motivation. b. grit. c. intrinsic motivation. d. self-disclosure. ANSWER: c 224. Caroline loves to read and enjoys looking up the meanings of words she does not know. In school, her teacher promises a gold star to students each time they learn a new word. The teacher's behavior is most likely to undermine a. extrinsic motivation. b. intrinsic motivation. c. grit. d. self-disclosure. ANSWER: b 225. The desire to perform a behavior to gain a reward or to avoid punishment involves a. intrinsic motivation. b. extrinsic motivation. c. self-discipline. d. grit. ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com

226. Rubin, a high-school senior, has been volunteering at a hospital in hopes that the experience will look good Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice on his college applications. When he is accepted early to his first-choice college, he stops showing up at the hospital for work. Rubin's volunteering was clearly driven by a. intrinsic motivation. b. extrinsic motivation. c. gritty perseverance. d. self-discipline. ANSWER: b 227. Promising people a reward for a task they enjoy can have the effect of destroying a. intrinsic motivation. b. extrinsic motivation. c. self-discipline. d. grit. ANSWER: a 228. Using rewards to bribe people to engage in an activity they already enjoy is most likely to inhibit a. intrinsic motivation. b. extrinsic motivation. c. self-discipline. d. grit. ANSWER: a 229. Because Ghalen was curious about human behavior, he enrolled in an introductory psychology course. Jadyn registered because he heard it was an easy course that would boost his grade-point average. In this instance, Ghalen's behavior was a reflection of ________, whereas Jadyn's behavior was a reflection of ________. a. narcissism; grit b. intrinsic motivation; extrinsic motivation c. grit; narcissism d. extrinsic motivation; intrinsic motivation ANSWER: b 230. Extrinsic rewards work well if the rewards a. are mentally associated with task completion. b. are awarded in front of their social circle. c. informatively signal that performance was well done. d. function as secondary reinforcers. ANSWER: c 231. During the COVID-19 pandemic, when people were forced to stay home, Ingrid gained 15 pounds. To get rid of the extra weight, Ingrid goes to the gym ScholarFriends.com to work out three times a week. Which of the following is something that she should NOT do? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice a. make a resolution to work out regularly b. keep her goal to work out regularly to herself c. monitor her own progress of working out regularly d. create a plan to work out regularly ANSWER: b 232. Aiyden wants to improve his health, so he decides to exercise every day. How long would he need to exercise daily for it to become an ingrained habit? a. two weeks b. one month c. two months d. three months ANSWER: c 233. Delayed rewards are to immediate rewards as ________ is to ________. a. goal setting; goal persistence b. short-term; long-term c. goal consistency; goal setting d. goal persistence; goal consistency ANSWER: a 234. Psychologists define ________ as a complex psychological state that involves conscious experience, bodily arousal, and expressive behaviors. a. motivation b. emotion c. homeostasis d. basal metabolic rate ANSWER: b 235. Emotion consists of conscious experience, bodily arousal, and a. implicit awareness. b. reappraisal. c. expressive behaviors. d. unconscious feelings. ANSWER: c 236. Emotion consists of bodily arousal, expressive behaviors, and ________ resulting from our interpretations. a. implicit awareness b. reappraisal c. unconscious feelings ScholarFriends.com d. conscious experience Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 237. The basic components of emotion are a. sympathetic arousal, parasympathetic inhibition, and cognitive labeling. b. physical gestures, facial expressions, and psychological drives. c. expressive behaviors, bodily arousal, and conscious experience resulting from our interpretations. d. cognition, affect, and behavior. ANSWER: c 238. Walking quickly to get away from a possible attacker is an example of which aspect of emotion? a. bodily arousal b. expressive behaviors c. conscious experience d. conscious feelings ANSWER: b 239. Adama is walking down an alley that provides a shortcut to her home. She sees a shadowy figure up ahead, which causes her to experience intense fear. According to the text, the fear Adama now feels involves all of the following EXCEPT a. parasympathetic activity. b. a physiological response. c. an expressive behavior. d. conscious experience resulting from her interpretation. ANSWER: a 240. Who suggested that "We feel sorry because we cry . . . afraid because we tremble"? a. Stanley Schachter b. William James c. Walter Cannon d. Richard Lazarus ANSWER: b 241. Who agreed with William James that our experience of emotion occurs when we become aware of our physiological responses? a. Stanley Schachter b. Carl Lange c. Walter Cannon d. Richard Lazarus ANSWER: b 242. The James-Lange theory of emotion statesScholarFriends.com that a. to experience emotion is to be aware of our physiological responses to an emotion-arousing event. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice b. the expression of emotion reduces our level of physiological arousal. c. an emotion-arousing stimulus simultaneously triggers both physiological arousal and the subjective experience of emotion. d. to experience emotion, we must be physically aroused and able to cognitively label the emotion. ANSWER: a 243. Shahina notices her pounding heart, so she becomes fearful as she walks down the street to meet a friend at a local restaurant. What does this describe? a. activation of her parasympathetic nervous system b. the James-Lange theory of emotion c. the Cannon-Bard theory of emotion d. the two-factor theory ANSWER: b 244. Lixin's parents told him, "You know you are in love when your heart starts to pound and you feel all tingly inside." This remark best illustrates the a. Cannon-Bard theory. b. two-factor theory. c. cognitive appraisal. d. James-Lange theory. ANSWER: d 245. When Wang Lei first tried hang gliding, he looked at the height of the hill and became aware of his high level of physiological arousal. Suddenly he felt frightened. The sequence of events in Wang Lei's emotional experience reflects a. the Cannon-Bard theory. b. the two-factor theory. c. cognitive appraisal. d. the James-Lange theory. ANSWER: d 246. Who proposed that bodily responses and the subjective experience of emotion occur at the same time? a. William James and Carl Lange b. Stanley Schachter and Jerome Singer c. Robert Zajonc and Joseph LeDoux d. Walter Cannon and Philip Bard ANSWER: d 247. According to the ________, bodily responses and the subjective experience of emotion occur at the same time. a. Cannon-Bard theory ScholarFriends.com b. James-Lange theory Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice c. two-factor theory d. cognitive appraisal theory ANSWER: a 248. The idea that an emotion-arousing stimulus is simultaneously routed to the cortex and to the sympathetic nervous system is central to a. the James-Lange theory. b. cognitive appraisal. c. two-factor theory. d. the Cannon-Bard theory. ANSWER: d 249. Walter Cannon and Philip Bard argued that our bodily responses and experienced emotions occur a. separately but simultaneously. b. one after the other. c. within the same neural circuit. d. only after we consciously interpret our arousal. ANSWER: a 250. Walter Cannon challenged the James-Lange theory on the grounds that a. the James-Lange theory overemphasized the importance of physiological reactions. b. the James-Lange theory failed to consider the importance of thoughts in emotional reactions. c. bodily reactions are similar for many emotions, yet our subjective experience of various emotions is very different. d. the James-Lange theory described the nature of emotions but failed to explain how they occur. ANSWER: c 251. Bon-Hwa insists that whenever he sees a rifle, he experiences an intense level of fear, whether or not he is physically aroused. Bon-Hwa's reported experience is most consistent with a. the James-Lange theory. b. the two-factor theory. c. cognitive appraisal. d. the Cannon-Bard theory. ANSWER: d 252. According to the Cannon-Bard theory, the body's arousal is related to the sympathetic nervous system in the same way that subjective awareness of emotion is related to the a. cortex. b. hypothalamus. c. thalamus. d. parasympathetic nervous system. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 253. According to the James-Lange theory, we experience emotion ________ we notice our physiological arousal. According to the Cannon-Bard theory we experience emotion ________ we become physiologically aroused. a. before; before b. before; after c. after; at the same time as d. at the same time as; after ANSWER: c 254. Tranquilizing drugs that inhibit sympathetic nervous system activity often reduce people's experience of intense anxiety. Which theory of emotion would have the greatest difficulty explaining this effect? a. James-Lange b. Cannon-Bard c. two-factor d. cognitive appraisal ANSWER: b 255. Research has shown that high spinal cord injuries reduce the intensity of certain emotional experiences. This finding challenges the a. Cannon-Bard theory. b. two-factor theory. c. James-Lange theory. d. spillover effect. ANSWER: a 256. Researchers discovered that the ________ an individual's spinal cord injury, the more feelings of anger tended to ________ in intensity following the injury. a. higher; decrease b. higher; increase c. lower; decrease d. lower; increase ANSWER: a 257. Francisco was in an automobile accident and now experiences emotions differently than before the accident. For instance, he now cries more easily and gets choked up when saying good-bye. What type of injury did Francisco likely experience? a. a lower-spine injury b. an injury to his brainstem c. an injury to the back of his neck ScholarFriends.com d. a high spinal cord injury Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 258. Jasmine was injured when she fell off her bicycle onto the concrete road. She now experiences emotions differently than before the accident. Some reactions are much less intense; for example, anger doesn't have the heat to it that it used to. What type of injury did Jasmine likely experience? a. a lower-spine injury b. an injury to his brainstem c. an injury to the back of his neck d. a high spinal cord injury ANSWER: d 259. The two-factor theory of emotion was proposed by a. Walter Cannon and Philip Bard. b. Robert Zajonc and Richard Lazarus. c. William James and Carl Lange. d. Stanley Schachter and Jerome Singer. ANSWER: d 260. The two-factor theory of emotion places more emphasis on the importance of ________ than does the James-Lange theory. a. cognitive activity b. the autonomic nervous system c. physiological arousal d. stress hormones ANSWER: a 261. According to the two-factor theory, the two basic components of emotions are ________ and ________. a. facial expressions; cognitive appraisal b. emotion-arousing events; physical arousal c. physical arousal; overt behavior d. cognitive appraisal; physical arousal ANSWER: d 262. While working on a difficult assignment for his job, Bosco noticed his racing heart and heavy sweating. He concluded that he was "anxious." Later, when a person he had been admiring asked him to be his friend, he concluded that his racing heart and perspiration meant that he was "falling in love." The differing emotions experienced by Bosco can best be explained by the a. Cannon-Bard theory. b. James-Lange theory. c. two-factor theory. d. Concealed Information Test. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 263. Dr. Strapp is a psychotherapist with a patient who is afraid of heights. She tells her patient who is afraid of heights that his rapid breathing while on the top of a very high hill is not due to fear but is a natural consequence of too little oxygen at that height. With this new interpretation of his arousal, the patient no longer fears heights. The reduction in the patient's fear is best understood in terms of a. the Cannon-Bard theory. b. the two-factor theory. c. the James-Lange theory. d. sympathetic nervous system activity. ANSWER: b 264. Dr. Amaro believes that emotion has two ingredients: physiological arousal and the cognitive appraisal that we apply to explain the arousal. Dr. Amaro's view is most consistent with the ________ theory of emotion. a. facial feedback b. Cannon-Bard c. James–Lange d. Schachter-Singer ANSWER: d 265. The two-factor theory of emotion would have difficulty explaining why a a. person comes to fear snakes after he sees someone else bitten by one. b. person's fear of snakes is reduced after she receives a calming tranquilizer. c. person automatically fears snakes even though he thinks they are attractive and harmless. d. person's fear of snakes is reduced after she learns that most snakes are harmless. ANSWER: c 266. Who examined the spillover effect by injecting college men with epinephrine? a. Lazarus b. Cannon and Bard c. Zajonc d. Schachter and Singer ANSWER: d 267. The lingering arousal associated with one emotional state can intensify a completely different state of emotion. This is called a. the spillover effect. b. appraisal. c. reappraisal. d. the polygraph principle. ANSWER: a ScholarFriends.com

268. Samir volunteered in a psychology study of emotion. If Samir were injected with ________, he would Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice experience feelings of arousal. a. leptin b. orexin c. epinephrine d. PYY ANSWER: c 269. In one experiment, college men were injected with epinephrine before spending time with either a joyful or an irritated person. The results of this experiment support the idea that a. some emotions can be experienced apart from cognition. b. there are subtle but distinct physiological differences among the emotions. c. our experience of emotion depends on how we interpret the body's arousal. d. happiness is largely a function of right frontal lobe activation. ANSWER: c 270. In an experiment to test the spillover effect, college men were injected with epinephrine prior to spending time with an experimenter's accomplice who acted either joyful or irritated. Which individuals in this experiment were LEAST likely to experience the emotion demonstrated by the experimenter's accomplice? a. those who were led to think the injection would produce no physiological arousal b. those who were promised a large sum of money for participating in the experiment c. those who were told that the injection would cause them to become physiologically aroused d. those who were asked to run in place after receiving the injection ANSWER: c 271. The spillover effect is best explained in terms of the a. Cannon-Bard theory. b. low road pathway. c. James-Lange theory. d. two-factor theory. ANSWER: d 272. After riding the roller coaster, William begins to feel unusually irritated at having to wait in line for a drink. His irritation may be related to a. the spillover effect. b. the Cannon-Bard theory. c. the two-factor theory. d. reappraisal. ANSWER: a 273. Garland has spent the last three hours on a run through the woods and is physically aroused. When he returns home, if his wife asks him to clean the ScholarFriends.com patio, he becomes angry. If instead she gives him a big hug, he experiences feelings of love. Garland's experience can best be explained by the Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice a. Schachter-Singer theory. b. James-Lange theory. c. Cannon-Bard theory. d. Concealed Information Test. ANSWER: a 274. Who argued that our emotional reactions to specific situations can occur rapidly and prior to any conscious interpretations of those situations? a. Walter Cannon b. Stanley Schachter c. Robert Zajonc d. Jerome Singer ANSWER: c 275. Tanya just met Sanni at the gym and immediately liked her. Which theorist would explain this phenomenon by saying that we have many emotional reactions even before our interpretation of a situation? a. William James b. Robert Zajonc c. Jerome Singer d. Walter Cannon ANSWER: b 276. The fact that we can have an emotional reaction apart from, or even before, our interpretation of a situation reflects a. our two-track mind. b. our intrinsic motivation. c. the effects of facial expressions. d. our ability to reappraise a situation. ANSWER: a 277. Unlike the low road brain pathway, the high road for emotional responses extends through the a. thalamus. b. cortex. c. hypothalamus. d. amygdala. ANSWER: b 278. Complex emotional reactions tend to follow a neural pathway from the thalamus to the cerebral cortex to the amygdala. This is known as a. the spillover effect. b. the thinking high road. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice c. reappraisal. d. the speedy low road. ANSWER: b 279. Serena loves Serfi with all her heart. Her feelings for them will follow a neural pathway from the thalamus to the cerebral cortex to the amygdala. This is known as a. the spillover effect. b. the thinking high road. c. reappraisal. d. the speedy low road. ANSWER: b 280. Unlike simple fears that involve automatic processing, complex feelings of love and hatred typically involve a. bodily arousal. b. expressive behavior. c. conscious interpretation. d. the low road of emotional processing. ANSWER: c 281. Our most rapid and automatic emotional responses may result from the routing of sensory input through the thalamus directly to the a. hippocampus. b. hypothalamus. c. cortex. d. amygdala. ANSWER: d 282. According to Joseph LeDoux, our automatic and most rapid emotional responses involve neural processing that follows a. the high road. b. the spillover effect. c. the low road. d. the experience of moderate levels of arousal. ANSWER: c 283. Joseph LeDoux suggested that rapid emotional responses are the result of a. emotion regulation within the cortex. b. quick processing by the thalamus. c. a neural shortcut that bypasses the cortex. d. neural processing in the hypothalamus. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 284. We sometimes interpret emotions such as fear quickly. These emotional reactions follow a neural pathway from the a. thalamus to the cerebral cortex. b. amygdala to the thalamus. c. thalamus to the amygdala. d. amygdala to the cerebral cortex. ANSWER: c 285. Zona scared her unsuspecting girlfriend by touching her while yelling "Boo!" as Thelma walked into their darkened dorm room where Zona was hiding. Before she consciously recognized the "boo" as a silly prank, Thelma experienced an immediate surge of fear, resulting from the routing of the unexpected sensory input through her thalamus directly to the a. hippocampus. b. hypothalamus. c. cortex. d. amygdala. ANSWER: d 286. Rapid fear reactions to sensory input in the absence of conscious thought are possible because certain neural pathways bypass the a. hypothalamus. b. amygdala. c. thalamus. d. cortex. ANSWER: d 287. When we become aware that our brain has detected danger, we have experienced a(n) a. conscious fear. b. reappraisal. c. spillover effect. d. amygdala activation. ANSWER: a 288. Richard Lazarus' theory regarding emotion states that a. emotions arise from our awareness of our specific bodily responses to emotion-arousing stimuli. b. our experience of emotion depends on general arousal and a conscious cognitive label. c. cognitive appraisal, sometimes without our awareness, defines emotion. d. some embodied responses happen instantly, without conscious appraisal. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 289. Who argued that while the experience of a split-second fear response may not involve conscious thinking, it still requires an effortless, unconscious cognitive appraisal? a. Robert Zajonc b. William James c. Richard Lazarus d. Joseph LeDoux ANSWER: c 290. Which of the following theorists believes that our emotions arise when we appraise an event as harmless or dangerous, whether or not we truly know it is? a. Robert Zajonc b. William James c. Richard Lazarus d. Joseph LeDoux ANSWER: c 291. Dr. Carlson believes that cognitive appraisal is the essential trigger for an emotional response and that all other components of emotion, including physiological arousal, follow from the initial cognitive appraisal. Dr. Carlson's views are most consistent with those of a. Robert Zajonc. b. William James. c. Richard Lazarus. d. Joseph LeDoux. ANSWER: c 292. At your annual performance review, your boss tells you that you will not be getting a raise this year. Whether you feel angry or depressed depends on whether you attribute the decision to your boss' unfairness or to your own poor performance. This best illustrates that some emotions are influenced by a. physical arousal. b. stress hormones. c. cognitive appraisals. d. genetic predispositions. ANSWER: c 293. Simona and Christina are walking through the woods when they come across a fox. Simona is excited to see the fox, but Christina is frightened and runs away. Which theorist would explain that their different responses are based on differences in their cognitive appraisal of the situation? a. Robert Zajonc b. William James c. Richard Lazarus d. Joseph LeDoux ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 294. In their dispute over the role of cognition in emotion, both Zajonc and Lazarus agree that a. cognitive reactions always precede emotional reactions. b. emotional reactions always precede cognitive reactions. c. some emotional reactions involve no conscious thinking. d. cognitive reactions and emotional reactions always occur simultaneously. ANSWER: c 295. Fiona has to take an exam today and she has extreme test anxiety. She is afraid that she won't ace the test, which would bring her grade down. If Fiona can engage in ________, it could actually improve her performance on the test. a. reappraisal of her emotion b. expressive behaviors c. reduced bodily arousal d. conscious assessment ANSWER: a 296. Talia has to give a speech in class today and feels nauseous and nervous. She tells herself that she is actually excited, and not nervous, about her speech. She has engaged in a. emotion monitoring. b. cognitive reappraisal. c. cognitive appraisal. d. the spillover effect. ANSWER: b 297. Who isolated 10 basic emotions that are mostly present in infancy? a. Stanley Schachter b. Carroll Izard c. William James d. Walter Cannon ANSWER: b 298. Carroll Izard has argued that ________ involves a combination of some of the 10 basic emotions he identified. a. love b. fear c. joy d. anger ANSWER: a 299. One of the 10 basic emotions isolated by Carroll Izard is ScholarFriends.com a. greed. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice b. selfishness. c. surprise. d. love. ANSWER: c 300. Which of the following are thought by some researchers to be basic emotions NOT identified by Carroll Izard? a. pride and love b. joy and anger c. sadness and fear d. shame and guilt ANSWER: a 301. Carroll Izard identified 10 basic emotions. Other researchers believe that as many as ________ emotions exist. a. 14 b. 28 c. 35 d. 42 ANSWER: b 302. Which basic emotion is facially expressed by nose wrinkled, upper lip raised, and tongue pushed outward? a. fear b. surprise c. disgust d. anger ANSWER: c 303. When Sherry talks to her infant, he smiles, his cheeks lift, and he seems to have a twinkle in his eye. What emotion is he expressing? a. joy b. surprise c. interest d. disgust ANSWER: a 304. Which basic emotion is facially expressed by brows drawn together and downward, eyes fixed, and mouth squarish? a. anger b. fear c. surprise ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice d. interest ANSWER: a 305. Priscilla is showing her daughter her new bicycle. She reacts by knitting her eyebrows, rounding her mouth, and pursing her lips. It should be obvious to Priscilla that her daughter is a. interested. b. angry. c. sad. d. afraid. ANSWER: a 306. Emotions are categorized along which two dimensions? a. sympathetic and parasympathetic b. valence and arousal c. serenity and anxiety d. excitement and interest ANSWER: b 307. Emotions are categorized along the dimensions of valence and arousal. The valence dimension refers to whether the emotion is a. high or low. b. inborn or learned. c. positive or negative. d. physical or psychological. ANSWER: c 308. The autonomic nervous system regulates the ________ that accompanies different emotions. a. conscious experiences b. expressive behaviors c. physiological arousal d. subjective well-being ANSWER: c 309. Leanne is sitting in a dark theater waiting for the movie to begin when she feels a tap on her shoulder (her friend). Leanne's sympathetic nervous system triggers her liver to pour extra glucose into her bloodstream, which provides energy. This reaction is part of what is known as a. the spillover effect. b. the fight-or-flight response. c. appraisal. d. reappraisal. ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 310. Without any conscious effort, your ________ prepares you to fight or flee from dangerous situations. a. thalamus b. arcuate nucleus c. sympathetic nervous system d. parasympathetic nervous system ANSWER: c 311. In a crisis, the sympathetic division of your ANS directs your adrenal glands to release a. oxygen b. blood sugar c. serotonin d. stress hormones ANSWER: d 312. As her instructor distributed the physics test to the class, Tammy's heart rate increased, and she began to perspire. These physiological reactions were activated by her ________ nervous system. a. sympathetic b. central c. somatic d. parasympathetic ANSWER: a 313. Activation of the sympathetic nervous system a. increases respiration and increases blood sugar levels. b. increases respiration and decreases blood sugar levels. c. decreases respiration and decreases blood sugar levels. d. decreases respiration and increases blood sugar levels. ANSWER: a 314. Heart rate, blood pressure, and blood sugar levels are increased in times of emergency by a. the parasympathetic nervous system. b. the sympathetic nervous system. c. the thalamus. d. the amygdala. ANSWER: b 315. When confronted by a hooded stranger in a dark alley, your emotional arousal is likely to be accompanied by a. decreases in blood sugar levels. b. slowing of digestion. ScholarFriends.com c. increases in salivation. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice d. decreases in respiration rate. ANSWER: b 316. The parasympathetic nervous system is to the sympathetic nervous system as ________ is to ________. a. raising of blood sugar; lowering of blood sugar b. inhibition of digestion; activation of digestion c. contraction of pupils; dilation of pupils d. increasing blood pressure; decreasing blood pressure ANSWER: c 317. The parasympathetic nervous system is to the sympathetic nervous system as ________ is to ________. a. raising of blood sugar; lowering of blood sugar b. activation of digestion; inhibition of digestion c. dilation of pupils; contraction of pupils d. increasing blood pressure; decreasing blood pressure ANSWER: b 318. Dale is wingsuit flying for the first time. When he takes off, he feels intense arousal and fear, which are activated by the ________; when he deploys a parachute to get ready for landing, he feels calm and a sense of relief, which is produced by the ________. a. parasympathetic division; sympathetic division b. thalamus; amygdala c. amygdala; hypothalamus d. sympathetic division; parasympathetic division ANSWER: d 319. Which division of the nervous system calms the body after an emergency has passed? a. somatic b. central c. sympathetic d. parasympathetic ANSWER: d 320. Trilok's son is suiting up to use the zipline that crosses the ocean. Trilok's heart and respiration rates remain high until he sees his son land safely on the other end. His body soon returns to normal because of the action of his ________ nervous system. a. parasympathetic b. sympathetic c. central d. somatic ANSWER: a ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 321. After having participants watch one of four movies, researchers found that different emotions can share common physiological responses. Which of the following was NOT one of those movies? a. a horror film b. an anger-provoking film c. a comedy film d. a boring film ANSWER: c 322. A psychologist would have the greatest difficulty differentiating between anger and fear by monitoring the ________ associated with each. a. self-reported conscious experience b. facial expressions c. heart rates d. brain activity ANSWER: c 323. While fear and joy both share similar ________, they have different ________. a. levels of brain activation; physiological responses b. physiological responses; facial expressions c. facial expressions; levels of brain activation d. activity in the parasympathetic nervous system; activity in the sympathetic nervous system ANSWER: b 324. Which emotions stimulate different facial muscles? a. fear and joy b. anger and disgust c. disgust and surprise d. surprise and sadness ANSWER: a 325. Infants Rafael and Sebastian are experiencing different emotions. One is joyful and the other is fearful. You would be able to distinguish between their different emotions by noting that a. they produce different hormone secretions. b. only one of the babies cries. c. they stimulate different facial muscles. d. they are associated with different finger temperatures. ANSWER: c 326. Which of the following emotions does not share the same physiological responses as the others? a. fear b. anger ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice c. boredom d. sexual arousal ANSWER: c 327. As people experience negative emotions a. the right frontal cortex becomes more active. b. the right frontal cortex becomes less active. c. the left frontal cortex becomes more active. d. the left frontal cortex becomes less active. ANSWER: a 328. The Estrella's are looking to move from the cold North to the sunny South. Their real estate agent takes them to a house that smells of cigarettes and is covered with dog hair. These things disgust them, so they quickly exit the house. If their brain activity was measured while they were having this negative emotion, the a. right frontal cortex would be more active. b. right frontal cortex would be less active. c. left frontal cortex would be more active. d. left frontal cortex would be less active. ANSWER: a 329. The right prefrontal cortex is more active than the left prefrontal cortex when people experience a. pride. b. joy. c. disgust. d. love. ANSWER: c 330. Gloria is about to have dinner with her parents when her father brings out a dish that Gloria has never seen before. Gloria takes one look at the new dish and feels disgusted. Which of the following is activated when she feels disgust? a. parasympathetic division of her ANS b. adrenal glands c. frontal lobe d. right frontal cortex ANSWER: d 331. Irina is generally positive. She often is enthusiastic, energized, and happy. Which of the following is true? a. The left frontal lobe of her brain will show more activity than the right frontal lobe. b. The right frontal lobe of her brain will show more activity than the left frontal lobe. c. The sympathetic division of her ANS will increase its activity. d. The parasympathetic division of her ANS will increase its activity. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 332. Left prefrontal cortex activation is to right prefrontal cortex activation as ________ is to ________. a. fear; anger b. delight; disgust c. anger; fear d. disgust; delight ANSWER: b 333. Marissa and Megan are very close friends. Marissa is very attracted to Megan's romantic partner, Jordan. Which of the following is activated when Marissa feels this attraction? a. parasympathetic division of her ANS b. adrenal glands c. frontal lobe d. amygdala ANSWER: d 334. For purposes of lie detection, investigators have most commonly made use of a(n) a. electrocardiograph. b. electroencephalograph. c. myograph. d. polygraph. ANSWER: d 335. The machine commonly used in attempts to detect lies, which measures some bodily responses that accompany emotion, is called a(n) a. electrocardiograph. b. electroencephalograph. c. myograph. d. polygraph. ANSWER: d 336. The police officer is administering a lie detector test to Mortimer, who is a person of interest in a home invasion. The machine used in this test is most likely to measure his a. blood sugar levels. b. pupil dilation. c. hormone secretions. d. perspiration levels. ANSWER: d 337. Research on the accuracy of lie detector tests suggests that they ScholarFriends.com a. are more accurate for men than women. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice b. are accurate only 50 percent of the time, even when administered by experts. c. are more likely to declare the innocent guilty than to declare the guilty innocent. d. are more likely to declare the guilty innocent than to declare the innocent guilty. ANSWER: c 338. The Concealed Information Test is typically used to a. evaluate a criminal's mental health. b. assess a suspect's responses to details of a crime. c. screen potential employees for possible past misdeeds. d. determine the frequency with which an individual lies. ANSWER: b 339. When investigators assess a person's reaction to details regarding a particular crime—details that would be known only to a person at the scene of the crime, they are using a. appraisal. b. the spillover effect. c. the Concealed Information Test. d. the two-factor theory. ANSWER: c 340. With regard to being honest or lying, research has found that a. it takes less time to make up a lie than to tell the truth. b. it takes the same amount of time to tell the truth or make up a lie. c. it is better to take the extra time needed to tell the truth. d. it takes less time to tell the truth than to make up a lie. ANSWER: d 341. Researchers asked male-female heterosexual strangers to spend 2 minutes gazing into each other's eyes. They found that at the end of that time the couples a. separated without a moment's thought of each other. b. spent time later sharing feelings. c. felt a tingle of attraction and affection. d. were less interested in each other. ANSWER: c 342. Borja and his romantic partner both want to feel and express their passionate love for each other. They would be advised to spend time looking intently at each other's a. eyes. b. lips. c. hand gestures. ScholarFriends.com d. body postures. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 343. People are especially good at quickly detecting a. subtle expressions. b. deceit. c. lies. d. criticism. ANSWER: a 344. Like most people, Francesca is pretty good at detecting subtle expressions. She would probably have the most trouble discerning a. deceit. b. the hint of a smile. c. whether people are attracted to each other. d. nonverbal threats. ANSWER: a 345. Using both verbal and nonverbal cues, people find it most difficult to detect a. angry expressions. b. sad expressions. c. deceiving expressions. d. fearful expressions. ANSWER: c 346. Which of the following people would be able to more accurately determine if someone was lying? a. David, who is an extraverted college student b. Dr. Smith, who is looking in his student's eyes as they explain why they missed an exam c. Officer Stott, who has pulled over a driver for speeding d. Officer Thomas, who is on the scene of a hostage situation ANSWER: d 347. In terms of ability to read others' facial expressions of emotion a. women do better than men. b. both men and women are very good at recognizing liars. c. women do worse than men. d. both men and women are poor emotion detectors. ANSWER: a 348. Men and women students watched 2-second film clips of an upset woman. Measures taken during their viewing of the films showed that the genders differed the most in their a. self-reported emotions. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice b. changes in heart rate. c. ability to detect the correct emotion. d. changes in respiration. ANSWER: c 349. The fact that women tend to respond with and express greater emotion, especially positive emotions may be explained by a. men's ability to decode emotions in others. b. men's decreased sensitivity to nonverbal cues. c. women's ability to decode emotions in others. d. women's decreased sensitivity to nonverbal cues. ANSWER: c 350. Jared, Jake, Nate, and Stephanie are watching a dramatic film. Which of them is most likely to experience strong emotion while viewing the film? a. Jared b. Jake c. Nate d. Stephanie ANSWER: d 351. Compared with boys, girls are ________ likely to give strong expression to their emotions. When asked to describe how they would feel in certain situations, females are ________ likely to express empathy. a. less; less b. more; less c. less; more d. more; more ANSWER: d 352. If a gender-neutral face is made to look ________, people are more likely to perceive it as male. a. disgusted b. surprised c. angry d. sad ANSWER: c 353. Compared with men, women are more likely to cry and report distress when observing someone in distress. This best illustrates a gender difference in a. narcissism. b. the facial feedback effect. c. egocentrism. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice d. empathy. ANSWER: d 354. Which of the following people would be more likely to express empathy? a. Alexandra, an African American woman b. Vincent, an Italian man c. Jerome, an African American man d. Hernando, a Latino man ANSWER: a 355. Riley is at her son's high school graduation. Riley expressed happiness and tears of joy when she saw how excited her son was to be named valedictorian. Riley is demonstrating a. fight or flight. b. the facial feedback effect. c. egocentrism. d. empathy. ANSWER: d 356. Gender differences in empathy are most likely the result of a. both genetic predispositions and cultural learning. b. people's attributions of women's emotionality to their disposition. c. biases in women's self-reported emotions. d. women's skill at emotional decoding. ANSWER: a 357. People from different cultures are most likely to differ with respect to a. the way they categorize basic emotions such as fear and anger. b. their facial expressions of different emotions such as sadness or surprise. c. the specific states of physiological arousal associated with their feelings of happiness or disgust. d. how they interpret hand gestures, such as the "A-OK" sign. ANSWER: d 358. Stephanie is at a cocktail party when a colleague makes a bad joke. Everyone begins to laugh, and Stephanie tries to push out a fake laugh at the joke. What may happen? a. Her colleague will be able to tell that her laugh is fake. b. Everyone will keep laughing. c. Her colleague will continue telling bad jokes. d. Everyone will think that she thought the joke was funny. ANSWER: a 359. When someone is surprised, their eyebrows raise and eyes widen, which enables them to ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice a. take in more information. b. discern the emotions of others better. c. block foul odors. d. contain their facial expressions. ANSWER: a 360. The fact that people from widely different cultures display and interpret facial expressions of emotion in a similar manner best illustrates the impact of a. human genetic similarities. b. environmental influences. c. context on emotional expression. d. facial feedback. ANSWER: a 361. It has been suggested that baring the teeth is universally associated with the expression of anger because this ability to convey threats has helped humans to survive. This suggestion best illustrates a. specific ideas proposed by Charles Darwin. b. the facial feedback effect. c. the James-Lange theory. d. how gestures depict emotions worldwide. ANSWER: a 362. Who suggested that, before our ancestors communicated in words, they used facial expressions to communicate threats, greetings, and submission, which had survival value? a. Paul Ekman b. William James c. James Laird d. Charles Darwin ANSWER: d 363. People judge a fearful face set in a painful situation as pained, and a smile on the face of a villain may be more terrifying than cheerful. These examples demonstrate a. the universal language of facial expressions. b. how facial expressions have different cultural meanings. c. how context is used to interpret facial expressions. d. how females display more empathy than males. ANSWER: c 364. Amy often visibly displays her emotions. She does not try to hide them. Which culture is she most likely from? a. Japan ScholarFriends.com b. China Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice c. France d. Korea ANSWER: c 365. New college roommates Milla and Ying Yue are from New Zealand and China, respectively. Both feel equally happy and excited about their first day on campus. When posing for a selfie to celebrate, however, Ying Yue flashes the camera a smaller, closed-mouth smile; Milla grins broadly and widens her eyes to signal her joy. This difference in facial expression is because a. cultural differences shape facial expressiveness. b. genetic differences shape facial expressiveness. c. of the facial feedback effect. d. of the behavioral feedback effect. ANSWER: a 366. In which location would researchers expect to see fewer broad smiles? a. Australia b. the United States c. New Zealand d. Beijing ANSWER: d 367. Who came to believe that we can control emotions by going through the outward movements of any emotion we want to experience? a. William James b. Judith Hall c. Christopher Olivola d. Alexander Todorov ANSWER: a 368. The fact that facial expressions of emotion tend to intensify the experience of emotion most clearly serves to support the a. facial feedback effect. b. behavior feedback effect. c. egocentrism. d. nonverbal communication effect. ANSWER: a 369. The tendency of facial muscle states to trigger corresponding feelings such as fear or happiness is called a. narcissism. b. the behavior feedback effect. c. spontaneous expression. ScholarFriends.com d. the facial feedback effect. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 370. In relation to the facial feedback effect, expressions can do all of the following EXCEPT a. communicate emotion. b. duplicate emotion. c. amplify emotion. d. regulate emotion. ANSWER: b 371. Repeatedly saying the word "me," which activates some of the muscles involved in a smile, puts people in a better mood than repeatedly saying "you," which activates muscles involved in a frown. This best illustrates a. the behavior feedback effect. b. the two-track brain. c. egocentrism. d. the facial feedback effect. ANSWER: d 372. The facial feedback effect suggests that a. culture plays no role in the subjective experience of emotion. b. facial expressions of a specific emotion have no effect on the experience of that particular emotion. c. expressing a specific emotion, especially facially, influences the subjective experience of that particular emotion. d. emotions are determined by one's behavioral response. ANSWER: c 373. The view that expressing a specific emotion, especially facially, causes the experience of that emotion is called a. the behavior feedback effect. b. egocentrism. c. the facial feedback effect. d. narcissism. ANSWER: c 374. When Xavier feels sad, he mouths the words to the song "Put on a Happy Face." According to the facial feedback effect, if he follows the advice of the song, Xavier is likely to a. become more depressed. b. experience little or no change in his emotions. c. irritate most people he comes in contact with. d. experience an elevation in his mood. ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com

375. Botox paralysis of the frowning facial muscles ________ people's reading of sadness-related sentences and Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice ________ activity in emotion-related brain circuits. a. speeds; speeds b. slows; slows c. slows; speeds d. speeds; slows ANSWER: b 376. According to ________, certain movements can stimulate emotions. a. the behavior feedback effect b. egocentrism c. the facial feedback effect d. the two-factor theory ANSWER: a 377. Ali is watching his baby sister while his parents are out for the evening. His sister is feeling sad, so Ali convinces his sister to play a silly game with him. His sister suddenly begins to laugh and have fun. This illustrates a. the behavior feedback effect. b. egocentrism. c. the facial feedback effect. d. the two-factor theory. ANSWER: a 378. People experience a mood shift when they switch from taking short shuffling steps to taking long strides and swinging their arms by their sides. This best illustrates a. the facial feedback effect. b. extraversion. c. the behavior feedback effect. d. egocentrism. ANSWER: c 379. Sarita is upset and depressed. Her next-door neighbor, who is a good friend, suggests that she try taking long strides with her arms swinging and his eyes looking straight ahead as she walks. After doing so, Sarita notices that she doesn't feel as depressed as she did before. This illustrates the a. behavior feedback effect. b. facial feedback effect. c. physiology of emotions. d. concept of egocentrism. ANSWER: a 380. Shawntae scored a C– on her chemistry exam and so is feeling depressed. Her friend, Tabitha, suggests ScholarFriends.com that she stop moping and join her for a walk around campus. Tabitha walks with a very straight back, moves her Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice arms briskly, and has a smile on her face. Soon Shawntae mimics Tabitha and her mood becomes elevated. Shawntae's change in mood can be explained by a. the behavior feedback effect. b. egocentrism. c. the facial feedback effect. d. nonverbal sensitivity. ANSWER: a 381. Tim is currently angry over something that happened at work today. What is something he can do when he gets home to help lessen his anger? a. watch a football game b. help his children with homework c. lean back in his recliner d. eat some fruit ANSWER: c 382. Positive social media posts tend to lead to online friends also expressing more positive emotions. This demonstrates a. the behavior feedback effect. b. our natural mimicry of emotion. c. empathy. d. the facial feedback effect. ANSWER: b

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 1. Psychologists define stress as a. the experience of realistic anxiety. b. the process by which we appraise and respond to events that we perceive as threatening or challenging. c. an attempt to reach some important goal. d. physical, emotional, or mental exhaustion. ANSWER: b 2. Lorenzo was driving on the highway when the cars in his lane suddenly started braking. Lorenzo quickly hit his brakes and was able to avoid hitting the car in front of him. Lorenzo's perception and action in relation to this event is called a. stress. b. a stressor. c. a stress reaction. d. the tend-and-befriend response. ANSWER: a 3. Events that we view as threatening or challenging are referred to as a. stress reactions. b. primary appraisals. c. stressors. d. secondary appraisals. ANSWER: c 4. Facing a hive of bees while walking in the woods is best described as a(n) a. fight-or-flight response. b. general adaption syndrome. c. relative deprivation. d. stressor. ANSWER: d 5. Mikael's sister is turning 50 and he wants to surprise her by visiting her on her birthday. However, she lives six hours away from him and he is now stuck in traffic that is showing no signs of letting up. He is beginning to feel frustrated and angry. Which of the following is the stressor? a. his sister's birthday b. his feelings of frustration and anger c. the six-hour road trip d. the traffic ANSWER: d 6. Our physical and emotional responses to events that we view as threatening or challenging are referred to as ScholarFriends.com a. stress appraisals. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice b. stress reactions. c. stressors. d. stress systems. ANSWER: b 7. While taking a difficult test, Cindy's muscles tense and her heart pounds. These physiological responses are best described as a. stressors. b. stress reactions. c. stress appraisal. d. immune deficiencies. ANSWER: b 8. Rush hour traffic is to upset stomach as ________ is to ________. a. fight; flight b. Type B; Type A c. lymphocyte; macrophage d. stressor; stress reaction ANSWER: d 9. Luigi minimized the stress of testing positive for HIV by viewing this circumstance as an opportunity for a renewed religious commitment and spiritual growth. His reaction best illustrates the importance of a. an external locus of control. b. the Type A personality. c. the general adaptation syndrome. d. stress appraisal. ANSWER: d 10. Vera regards her new job as a challenge, whereas Willa regards the same new job as a potential threat. These different perceptions best illustrate a. the general adaption syndrome. b. stress appraisal. c. immune deficiencies. d. emotion regulation. ANSWER: b 11. Appraising an event as a stressor is to ________ as assessing your ability to respond to it is to ________. a. resistance; exhaustion b. T lymphocytes; macrophage cells c. fight; flight d. primary appraisal; secondary appraisal ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 12. Karla views her upcoming chemistry exam as a challenge, referred to as her ________, but feels she has studied enough to do well on it, which is her ________. a. alarm reaction; resistance b. coping strategy; personal control c. primary appraisal; secondary appraisal d. stress reaction; willpower ANSWER: c 13. Which of the following items is NOT likely to be seen on the Perceived Stress Scale? a. How often have you been upset because of something that happened unexpectedly? b. How often have you felt happy? c. How often have you felt that you were on top of things? d. How often have you felt difficulties were piling up so high that you could not overcome them? ANSWER: b 14. Researchers have found that demanding jobs that mentally exhaust workers also a. increase their need for social support. b. increase personal control. c. are related to social stress. d. risk their physical health. ANSWER: d 15. Stress can lead to all of the following EXCEPT a. risky decision making. b. unhealthy behaviors. c. a healthy diet. d. poor physical health. ANSWER: c 16. Stressors fall into specific categories, which are a. an alarm reaction, resistance, and exhaustion. b. Type A and Type B. c. approach and avoidance situations. d. catastrophes, significant life changes, and daily hassles. ANSWER: d 17. Fifty-eight percent of Americans responding to surveys taken in the three weeks after the 9/11 terrorist attacks reported experiencing heightened symptoms of a. anxiety. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice b. coronary heart disease. c. stomach ulcers. d. upper respiratory infections. ANSWER: a 18. In the month after a damaging hurricane, for example, many people tend to experience an increase in anxiety. Those who were affected by a hurricane most clearly experienced a. a Type A personality. b. a catastrophe. c. an approach motive. d. an internal locus of control. ANSWER: b 19. Long-term studies of the stress related to life changes indicate that a. those who live a relatively stress-free life actually suffer a higher-than-average rate of heart attacks. b. the risk of death doubles among widowed people in the week following their partner's death. c. survivors of a natural disaster are immunized against stress and have fewer long-term health problems. d. all of these statements are true. ANSWER: b 20. Taking out a loan to go to college is an example of a a. significant life change. b. daily hassle. c. social stress. d. catastrophe. ANSWER: a 21. Simone just left home to go to college. She will be living on campus and attending classes full-time. This is an example of a a. significant life change. b. daily hassle. c. social stress. d. catastrophe. ANSWER: a 22. At which stage in development are we more likely to struggle with significant life changes? a. childhood b. adolescence c. middle adulthood ScholarFriends.com d. late adulthood Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 23. If you feel as though there are too many things on your to-do list, you are likely experiencing a. a significant life change. b. a catastrophe. c. social stress. d. daily hassles. ANSWER: d 24. Who is NOT experiencing a daily hassle? a. Jane, whose cell phone is currently out of battery b. John, who has too many things on his to-do list today c. Brad, who just lost his job d. Sammy, who has to give a speech in her class today ANSWER: c 25. Seamus was up late last night and so is a bit groggy and irritable this morning. He has an early meeting with a client, who is demanding several new concessions to their deal. Seamus becomes increasingly annoyed. He is experiencing a(n) a. catastrophe. b. daily hassle. c. significant life change. d. unpredictable event. ANSWER: b 26. Arabella experiences the daily stress that accompanies unreliable childcare. The stress she feels remains with her day and night. In the future, Arabella is likely to a. be extremely successful in her career. b. be at decreased risk for cancer. c. experience poor physical health. d. experience low blood pressure. ANSWER: c 27. The daily hassle of experiencing racial discrimination is best described as a. a fight-or-flight response. b. relative deprivation. c. learned helplessness. d. a stressor. ANSWER: d 28. Experiencing prejudice and discrimination ScholarFriends.com because of gender identity or sexual orientation is a form of a. significant life change. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice b. catastrophe. c. social stress. d. daily hassle. ANSWER: d 29. The drive to move toward or away from a stimulus is referred to as a. an approach and avoidance motive. b. a stressor. c. a daily hassle. d. the general adaption syndrome. ANSWER: a 30. Horatio loves spaghetti carbonara, but he also loves moussaka. He is asked whether he wants to go to an Italian or a Greek restaurant for dinner. His difficulty in deciding is an example of a(n) a. avoidance-avoidance conflict. b. approach-approach conflict. c. tend-and-befriend response. d. approach-avoidance conflict. ANSWER: b 31. Nicole has just received a diagnosis of breast cancer. Her doctor has provided two options for treatment, both of which will be painful, but Nicole has to decide between surgery and chemotherapy. Nicole is experiencing a(n) a. avoidance-avoidance conflict. b. approach-approach conflict. c. tend-and-befriend response. d. approach-avoidance conflict. ANSWER: a 32. Nadine does not like her geometry class this semester and so spends all her time studying for her other classes. This is an example of a(n) a. avoidance-avoidance motive. b. alarm reaction. c. tend-and-befriend response. d. approach-avoidance motive. ANSWER: d 33. Extreme cold, lack of oxygen, and emotion-arousing events trigger an outpouring of epinephrine and norepinephrine by the a. telomeres. b. adrenal glands. ScholarFriends.com c. skeletal muscles Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice d. parasympathetic nervous system. ANSWER: b 34. Logan is sound asleep when he hears a noise that appears to be coming from downstairs. He gets up, grabs a bat, and heads downstairs. At this time, Logan's adrenal glands are releasing a. stress hormones. b. serotonin. c. cortisol. d. lymphocytes. ANSWER: a 35. In the 1920s, Walter Cannon discovered that emotion-arousing events trigger an outpouring of ________ from the adrenal glands. a. stress hormones b. cortisol c. serotonin d. lymphocytes ANSWER: a 36. In a stressful situation, feelings of pain are dulled by the activation of a. an external locus of control. b. NK cells. c. the sympathetic nervous system. d. lymphocytes. ANSWER: c 37. When confronted with a stressful event, your sympathetic nervous system a. speeds up your stomach's digestive activity. b. triggers an increase in the production of disease-fighting lymphocytes. c. speeds up the removal of fat from your bloodstream. d. increases your heart rate and respiration. ANSWER: d 38. Carlington is sitting in the lobby outside his employer's office, who will be giving him details about his future assignment. He is nervous and his heart rate and respiration begin to increase. These physiological changes are produced by activation of the ________ nervous system. a. parasympathetic b. sympathetic c. somatic d. central ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 39. Walter Cannon observed that a variety of stressors trigger activation of the sympathetic nervous system, which prepares the body for a. decreased respiration. b. lowered blood sugar levels. c. a fight-or-flight response. d. an increase in the production of lymphocytes. ANSWER: c 40. An emergency reaction when dealing with a threat often includes sympathetic nervous system arousal and the mobilization of one's energy. This is best illustrated by a. resilience. b. emotion-focused coping. c. the fight-or-flight response. d. the adaptation-level phenomenon. ANSWER: c 41. Fear is to ________ as anger is to ________. a. fight; freeze b. freeze, flight c. fight; flight d. flight; fight ANSWER: d 42. Clarah is taking a walk through the forest near her house when she hears a rustling in the underbrush. She then sees a small black animal with a white stripe, which she immediately recognizes as a skunk. Clarah turns quickly and runs out of the woods toward her house. Clarah's actions demonstrate the a. fight-or-flight response. b. tend-and-befriend response. c. general adaptation syndrome. d. problem-focused coping. ANSWER: a 43. Which of the following threats would the sympathetic nervous system NOT be likely to help with? a. James is walking in the woods when he encounters a rattlesnake. b. Samantha is swimming with friends when she spots an alligator. c. Trevor is driving to work when he witnesses a car accident ahead. d. Juanita is contemplating the effects of pollution on the environment. ANSWER: d 44. Who first identified the three-stage general adaptation syndrome? a. Meyer Friedman ScholarFriends.com b. Hans Selye Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice c. Walter Cannon d. Julian Rotter ANSWER: b 45. The general adaptation syndrome describes stages in the a. production of lymphocytes. b. development of personal control. c. body's response to prolonged stress. d. adaptation-level phenomenon. ANSWER: c 46. The three successive phases of the general adaptation syndrome are a. attention, comprehension, and resistance. b. alarm reaction, resistance, and exhaustion. c. adrenal release, cognitive appraisal, and self-control. d. reactive frustration, sympathetic arousal, and parasympathetic inhibition. ANSWER: b 47. Which of the following takes place during the alarm reaction of the GAS? a. Your adrenal glands pump stress hormones into your bloodstream and you are fully engaged in the current threat. b. You provide support to other people and bond with others and seek support from them. c. You become vulnerable to illness, collapse, and death. d. Your sympathetic nervous system suddenly activates, causing your heart rate to increase and your blood to race to your skeletal muscles. ANSWER: d 48. Abraham, who has worked as a chef for an Italian restaurant for 20 years, has just been told that he is being laid off because the restaurant has to close during the COVID-19 shutdown. Which phase of the general adaptation syndrome is Abraham most likely experiencing? a. resistance b. alarm reaction c. adjustment d. exhaustion ANSWER: b 49. Resistance to stress is greatest during ________ of the GAS. a. Phase 1 b. Phase 2 c. Phase 3 d. Phase 4 ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 50. Wayan is sitting on a bus on his way to work when someone enters holding a gun. Wayan's sympathetic nervous system increases his heart and breathing rates. Which phase of the GAS is Wayan currently in? a. alarm reaction b. resistance c. exhaustion d. fight-or-flight ANSWER: b 51. The third phase of the general adaptation syndrome is characterized by a. resistance. b. exhaustion. c. an alarm reaction. d. a tend-and-befriend response. ANSWER: b 52. Adolfo went to work as usual, only to find the office in disarray and an empty safe. He called the police, who investigated and hours later, promised to let him know what they find. Adolfo decides to go home and rest; he is so tired. Which phase of the GAS is he now in? a. alarm reaction b. resistance c. exhaustion d. fight-or-flight ANSWER: c 53. An increased risk of illness is most closely associated with ________ of the general adaptation syndrome. a. Phase 1 b. Phase 2 c. Phase 3 d. Phase 4 ANSWER: c 54. Experiencing prolonged stress can make us more vulnerable to illness a. because our somatic nervous system affects physiological changes. b. because our experiences with stressors are inconsistent. c. by promoting a healthy lifestyle. d. because our body's reserves wear out. ANSWER: d 55. The pieces at the ends of chromosomes areScholarFriends.com referred to as a. cortisol. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice b. glucocorticoid. c. telomeres. d. NK cells. ANSWER: c 56. Black Americans who experience frequent racial discrimination develop shorter a. adrenal glands. b. frontal lobes. c. telomeres. d. lymphocytes. ANSWER: c 57. Under stress, people often provide support to others and bond with and seek support from others. This is referred to as the a. fight-or-flight response. b. general adaptation syndrome. c. tend-and-befriend response. d. immune response. ANSWER: c 58. The emotional bonding and mutual support that people who survive a tornado provide to one another best illustrates a. the general adaptation syndrome. b. the tend-and-befriend response. c. an external locus of control. d. psychoneuroimmunology. ANSWER: b 59. During Russia's invasion of Ukraine, people throughout the world came together to provide support, supplies, and arms for Ukranians who could not leave their homeland. This reaction best illustrates a. elevated lymphocyte levels. b. the adaptation-level phenomenon. c. the tend-and-befriend response. d. the Type A personality. ANSWER: c 60. Psychoneuroimmunology is most broadly concerned with how psychological, neural, and endocrine processes together affect the a. reproductive system. b. cardiovascular system. c. immune system. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice d. respiratory system. ANSWER: c 61. Dr. Hermawan conducts research on how stress affect your brain, which controls the endocrine hormones that influence your disease-fighting lymphocytes. His research best illustrates the specialty area known as a. clinical psychology. b. psychopharmacology. c. cognitive neuroscience. d. psychoneuroimmunology. ANSWER: d 62. An understanding of how stress affects our resistance to disease is the central focus of the field of a. biopsychology. b. psychoneuroimmunology. c. cognitive psychology. d. behavioral psychology. ANSWER: b 63. Macrophage cells and lymphocytes are major agents of the a. sympathetic nervous system. b. immune system. c. digestive system. d. parasympathetic nervous system. ANSWER: b 64. Lymphocytes are a. harmful agents such as viruses and bacteria. b. stress hormones produced by the sympathetic nervous system. c. cancer cells that form in the adrenal glands. d. disease-fighting cells that are part of the body's immune system. ANSWER: d 65. Rosemarie just ended a 10-year relationship with her best friend. She not only feels stress from the breakup but she suddenly developed a nasty cold. This was most likely because of a. elevated serotonin levels. b. reduced cortisol levels. c. suppressed lymphocyte activity. d. an elevated NK cell count. ANSWER: c 66. The primary function of B lymphocytes is ScholarFriends.com to attack Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice a. natural killer cells. b. bacterial infections. c. stress hormones. d. cancer cells. ANSWER: b 67. Joao has a nasty bacterial infection. Which type of immune system cell will be the primary agent helping her to fight the bacterial infection? a. B lymphocytes b. T lymphocytes c. macrophage cells d. NK cells ANSWER: a 68. B lymphocytes inhibit ________, whereas T lymphocytes inhibit ________. a. bacterial infections; viral infections b. heart attacks; strokes c. NK cells; cancer cells d. HIV; AIDS ANSWER: a 69. Which immune system cell acts as a "big eater," which attacks harmful invaders and worn-out cells? a. B lymphocyte b. NK cell c. T lymphocyte d. macrophage cell ANSWER: d 70. Natural killer cells are part of the body's a. immune system. b. endocrine system. c. digestive system. d. sympathetic nervous system. ANSWER: a 71. Immune system cells that pursue and destroy diseased body cells are called a. stressors. b. endorphins. c. B lymphocytes. d. NK cells. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 72. An overactive immune system puts women at higher risk of a. high blood pressure. b. stomach cancer. c. lupus. d. AIDS. ANSWER: c 73. Catalina has an overreacting immune system. Which of the following is likely to happen? a. A dormant herpes virus may erupt. b. Cancer cells may multiply. c. She may develop lupus. d. She will develop a bacterial infection. ANSWER: c 74. Elmira has an underreacting immune system. Which of the following is likely to happen? a. A dormant herpes virus may erupt. b. She will have an allergic reaction. c. She may develop lupus. d. She will develop arthritis. ANSWER: a 75. Compared with men, women have ________ immune systems, and they are at ________ risk for autoimmune diseases such as multiple sclerosis. a. stronger; lower b. weaker; higher c. stronger; higher d. weaker; lower ANSWER: c 76. Bonzo, a chimpanzee, lived in the wild until he was captured and placed in a cage at the local zoo. The stress of living in confinement led to his subsequent difficulty recovering from an infectious disease. This most likely resulted from a. suppressed lymphocyte activity. b. elevated serotonin levels. c. an elevated NK cell count. d. reduced cortisol levels. ANSWER: a 77. Animals stressed by physical restraints, noise, and social defeat, for example, experience a. immune system suppression. ScholarFriends.com b. increased levels of epinephrine. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice c. decreased levels of cortisol. d. the general adaptation syndrome. ANSWER: a 78. Dental students healed more slowly from punch wounds received three days prior to a major exam than from punch wounds received during summer vacation. The slower healing prior to a major exam is best explained by a. elevated serotonin levels. b. suppressed lymphocyte activity. c. elevated NK cell count. d. reduced cortisol levels. ANSWER: b 79. Research has found that those who are suffering from stress are a. more susceptible to catching colds. b. more likely to develop cancer. c. at an increased risk for contracting HIV. d. likely to heal faster from surgery. ANSWER: a 80. The infectious agent that triggers AIDS is called a. cortisol. b. an NK cell. c. HIV. d. a macrophage cell. ANSWER: c 81. Stress ________ give people AIDS; stress ________ speed the progression from HIV to AIDS. a. produces lymphocytes that; suppresses lymphocytes that b. cannot; can c. suppressing lymphocyte activity d. suppresses lymphocytes that; produces lymphocytes that ANSWER: c 82. Stress is most likely to speed the progression from HIV to AIDS by a. stimulating the release of endorphins. b. accelerating the production of NK cells. c. suppressing lymphocyte activity. d. slowing heart rate and respiration. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 83. Which of the following describes a likely effect of stress? a. It results in a faster decline in those who have AIDS. b. It results in a decline in cancer cells. c. It reduces the likelihood of a person developing heart disease. d. It reduces the risk of a person having a heart attack. ANSWER: a 84. Coronary heart disease involves a. an immunodeficiency virus. b. overproduction of macrophage cells. c. the clogging of blood vessels. d. excess serotonin secretions. ANSWER: c 85. The risk of coronary heart disease is increased by a. an internal locus of control. b. a Type B personality. c. high blood pressure. d. natural killer cells. ANSWER: c 86. Jorge's doctor explains to him that several factors increase his risk of developing heart disease. Which following is NOT a risk factor for Jorge? a. a family history of heart disease b. high blood pressure c. obesity d. a healthy diet ANSWER: d 87. Heart disease and depression may both result when chronic stress triggers a. persistent inflammation. b. reduced cortisol levels. c. the production of lymphocytes. d. elevated serotonin levels. ANSWER: a 88. The more psychological trauma people experience, the more their bodies generate ________, which is associated with heart and other health problems. a. inflammation b. respiratory infections ScholarFriends.com c. natural killer cells Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice d. muscular energy ANSWER: a 89. For the last 10 years, Totaram has been subjected to constant psychological trauma. This has resulted in increased inflammation in his body, which may a. be associated with an increased risk for cancer. b. be associated with a decreased risk of catching colds. c. lead to an increased risk for heart disease. d. lead to a decreased risk of depression. ANSWER: c 90. Children and adolescents who experience ________ have a 40 percent greater risk of adult heart disease. a. physical abuse b. sexual abuse c. emotional abuse d. extremely stressful events ANSWER: d 91. Meyer Friedman, Ray Rosenman, and their colleagues conducted a longitudinal study on a. how stress is associated with increased risk for HIV. b. the relationship between stress and recovery time from surgery. c. how experiencing stress can slow down the course of disease. d. characteristics associated with an increased risk of stress-related coronary disease. ANSWER: d 92. Friedman and Rosenman referred to competitive, hard-driving, impatient, verbally aggressive, and angerprone individuals as ________ personalities. a. Type A b. Type B c. Type C d. Type D ANSWER: a 93. Friedman and Rosenman referred to competitive and impatient individuals as ________ personalities. a. Type A b. Type B c. Type C d. Type D ANSWER: a 94. Who is the best example of a Type A personality? ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice a. Valentin, a self-confident, intelligent journalist b. Kane, a relaxed, easygoing mail carrier c. Philip, a competitive, hot-tempered corporation president d. Thomas, a quiet, contemplative artist ANSWER: c 95. Easygoing is to ________ as impatient is to ________. a. Type C; Type D b. Type A; Type D c. Type B; Type A d. Type B; Type C ANSWER: c 96. Who is the best example of a Type B personality? a. George, a self-confident, time-conscious mail carrier b. Wang Lung, a relaxed, easygoing dentist c. Henry, an irritable, impatient college professor d. Stasio, a fun-loving, hard-driving corporation president ANSWER: b 97. In a nine-year longitudinal study, Friedman and Rosenman reported that, compared with Type A men, Type B men were a. at higher risk for stomach ulcers. b. at lower risk for stomach ulcers. c. at higher risk for heart attacks. d. at lower risk for heart attacks. ANSWER: d 98. Anger is the toxic core of a. an internal locus of control. b. the Type A personality. c. an external locus of control. d. the Type B personality. ANSWER: b 99. Onkar is an impatient, competitive, verbally aggressive, and easily angered lawyer, who suffered a heart attack last year. Research suggests that Onkar's susceptibility to heart attacks may be most closely linked to his a. ambition. b. anger. c. perfectionism. ScholarFriends.com d. competitiveness. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 100. Persistent stress reduces the capacity of the ________ to remove cholesterol and fat from the blood. a. liver b. thyroid gland c. pancreas d. adrenal glands ANSWER: a 101. When Type A people are threatened, they react aggressively. As a result, their sympathetic nervous system a. removes cholesterol and fat from the blood. b. redistributes blood flow to the muscles, pulling blood away from their internal organs. c. reduces the release of stress hormones. d. decreases lymphocyte activity. ANSWER: a 102. Persistent anger ________ the risk of heart disease, and persistent depression ________ the risk of heart disease. a. increases; decreases b. increases; increases c. has no effect on; increases d. increases; has no effect on ANSWER: b 103. Pessimism and depression increase the risk for a. lupus. b. multiple sclerosis. c. heart attack. d. stomach cancer. ANSWER: c 104. One U.S. longitudinal study followed 1306 men (ages 40 to 90) over a 10-year period. The study found that ________ were twice as likely as ________ to develop heart disease. a. married men; single men b. those with Type B personalities; those with Type A personalities c. pessimists; optimists d. those with an internal locus of control; those with an external locus of control ANSWER: c 105. Among nearly 4000 English men and women (ages 52 to 79), compared with those in a good mood, those who reported being in a depressed mood on a single day ScholarFriends.com a. were four times as likely to develop fewer heart problems. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice b. aged less quickly than their counterparts. c. were twice as likely to be dead 5 years later. d. generally had an external locus of control. ANSWER: c 106. Which of the following accurately reflects the link between stress and heart disease? a. stress ? heart disease b. stress ? anger ? heart disease c. persistent stress and negative emotions ? unhealthy behaviors and stress hormones ? ANS effects, immune suppression ? heart disease d. stress and negative emotions ?ANS effects, immune suppression, and heart disease ANSWER: c 107. Prolonged stress can increase one's vulnerability to illness in part because recurrent autonomic nervous system arousal leads to a. an elevated NK cell count. b. inflammation of body tissues. c. reduced cortisol levels. d. an increased production of lymphocytes. ANSWER: b 108. Royston's significant other passed away several months ago. Royston has been so depressed that he has started overeating unhealthy foods and drinking too much. As a result, he now has high blood pressure and high cholesterol levels. This best illustrates that persistent stress often a. diverts blood from the skeletal muscles to the body's digestive organs. b. prevents the release of fat from the body's stored energy reserves. c. encourages behaviors that contribute to poor health. d. stimulates increased production of natural killer cells. ANSWER: c 109. Shortly after ending a 5-year relationship with his romantic partner, Dunderic came down with an especially severe case of the flu. The severity of his infection is most likely because his a. blood pressure levels have been lowered. b. serotonin levels have been elevated. c. immune system has been suppressed. d. cortisol levels have been reduced. ANSWER: c 110. Coping refers to emotional, cognitive, or behavioral methods used to a. avoid the adaptation-level phenomenon. b. inhibit learned helplessness. ScholarFriends.com c. prevent the release of serotonin. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice d. reduce stress. ANSWER: d 111. Alleviating stress using emotional, cognitive, or behavioral methods is known as a. coping. b. control. c. learned helplessness. d. meditation. ANSWER: a 112. The main form(s) of coping is/are a. problem-focused. b. emotion-focused. c. both problem-focused and emotion-focused. d. neither problem-focused nor emotion-focused. ANSWER: c 113. Attempting to reduce stress directly by changing the stressor or the way we interact with the stressor is known as a. mindfulness meditation. b. the adaptation-level phenomenon. c. problem-focused coping. d. the feel-good, do-good phenomenon. ANSWER: c 114. During the COVID-19 pandemic, Septa's company had to reduce their workforce, and Septa was laid off. Instead of sitting home moping, Septa took an online course in a different field and found a new job. Septa's behavior best illustrates a. learned helplessness. b. an external locus of control. c. problem-focused coping. d. a Type A personality. ANSWER: c 115. Attempting to alleviate stress by avoiding or ignoring a stressor because we believe we cannot change the situation is known as a. mindfulness meditation. b. emotion-focused coping. c. problem-focused coping. d. the feel-good, do-good phenomenon. ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 116. Chekr scored in the low 900s on his SAT, which causes him to fear that he will not be accepted by the college of his choice. Chekr seeks social support from his friends and family. Chekr's behavior best illustrates a. learned helplessness. b. a Type A personality. c. problem-focused coping. d. emotion-focused coping. ANSWER: d 117. In an effort to relieve the stress caused by his wife's long-term illness, Vaneet spent more and more hours engaging with friends online. His response best illustrates a. the faith factor. b. an external locus of control. c. emotion-focused coping. d. a Type B personality. ANSWER: c 118. A habit of playing video games to take your mind off your worry about keeping up with class reading assignments best illustrates a maladaptive a. internal locus of control. b. Type B personality. c. adaptation-level phenomenon. d. emotion-focused coping strategy. ANSWER: d 119. ________ could be used to examine the effects of changing one's sense of personal control, whereas ________ could be used to examine how feelings of personal control are related to specific behaviors. a. Naturalistic observation; correlational research b. Correlational research; experimentation c. Correlational research; naturalistic observation d. Experimentation; correlational research ANSWER: d 120. A sense that one can exert an influence on their environment is called a. problem-focused coping. b. subjective well-being c. personal control. d. resilience. ANSWER: c 121. Johann just completed his first nursing course. He did not do as well as he would have liked. So, he decides to take a part-time job at a local hospital to get some real-world knowledge. He believes that if he does ScholarFriends.com the work and pays attention to what the nurses do, he will do better in the next course. Johann is demonstrating Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice a. a low level of personal control. b. a high level of personal control. c. a low level of optimism. d. learned helplessness. ANSWER: b 122. The passive resignation that accompanies an inability to avoid repeated aversive events is called a. an internal locus of control. b. emotion-focused coping. c. the adaptation-level phenomenon. d. learned helplessness. ANSWER: d 123. Dogs strapped in a harness and given repeated shocks that they could not avoid developed a. a Type B personality. b. an internal locus of control. c. learned helplessness. d. problem-focused coping. ANSWER: c 124. Thiago, who started smoking when he was 16, has been trying to quit for the last few years. He succeeds for a while, but when something bad happens, he returns to smoking. He has decided to stop trying to quit. Thiago is exhibiting a. an internal locus of control. b. problem-focused coping. c. pessimism. d. learned helplessness. ANSWER: d 125. During the COVID-19 pandemic, many people felt there was nothing they could do avoid getting the virus, so they simply refused to wear masks, socially distance, or be vaccinated. These people were demonstrating a. an internal locus of control. b. problem-focused coping. c. pessimism. d. learned helplessness. ANSWER: d 126. Saul Goldberg was arrested by the German police and sent to a Nazi concentration camp. His treatment was so horrendous that he gave up all hope of surviving; he became apathetic, stopped eating, and gave up all efforts to physically survive the ordeal. Saul Goldberg's reaction most clearly illustrates a. the adaptation-level phenomenon. ScholarFriends.com b. the faith factor. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice c. learned helplessness. d. an internal locus of control. ANSWER: c 127. Learned helplessness, which is a dramatic form of loss of control, tends to result in a. low blood pressure. b. weakened immune responses. c. problem-focused coping. d. low blood sugar levels. ANSWER: b 128. A loss of perceived control tends to result in a. high blood pressure. b. strengthened immune responses. c. problem-focused coping. d. a decrease in the level of cortisol. ANSWER: a 129. The loss of personal control is most likely to be accompanied by elevated levels of a. antibodies. b. lymphocytes. c. serotonin. d. cortisol. ANSWER: d 130. Learned helplessness is likely to be accompanied by ________ cortisol levels and ________ blood pressure. a. increased; decreased b. increased; increased c. decreased; decreased d. decreased; increased ANSWER: b 131. As a child and adolescent, Arturo lived in an impoverished neighborhood and so was unable to go to college and get a high-paying job. As a result, Arturo feels little control over his life. His body is most likely to respond with a. reduced stress hormone levels. b. increased immune responses. c. lowered cortisol level. d. elevated blood pressure. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 132. In a study of nurses, those who reported a heavy workload plus little control over their environment experienced a. strengthened immune responses. b. lower levels of stress hormones. c. lower levels of cortisol. d. higher blood pressure. ANSWER: d 133. In one study, 93 percent of nursing home patients became happier, more active, and more alert when they experienced a. personal control. b. relaxation. c. cortisol injections. d. mindfulness meditation. ANSWER: a 134. Some researchers suggest that today's Western cultures offer too many choices, which may result in decreased life satisfaction, increased depression, or even a. emotion-focused coping. b. unrealistic optimism. c. behavior paralysis. d. an external locus of control. ANSWER: c 135. When faced with an ever-increasing number of consumer product choices, people often experience the discomfort of a. emotion-focused coping. b. unrealistic optimism. c. information overload. d. an external locus of control. ANSWER: c 136. Melanie is given a choice of 15 different toppings for her bagel. She chooses sesame seeds, but feels regret over bypassing some of the remaining toppings. Her regret best illustrates a consequence of a. an external locus of control. b. the tyranny of choice. c. emotion-focused coping. d. the general adaptation syndrome. ANSWER: b 137. The belief that our fate is determined by outside forces beyond our personal control reflects ScholarFriends.com a. problem-focused coping. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice b. a Type A personality. c. an external locus of control. d. the adaptation-level phenomenon. ANSWER: c 138. As a result of being taken from their parents at the U.S. southern border, immigrating children experienced a. lower levels of cortisol. b. an internal locus of control. c. an optimistic explanatory style. d. diminished feelings of control. ANSWER: d 139. Learned helplessness is most likely to be associated with a. a Type A personality. b. an external locus of control. c. problem-focused coping. d. the faith factor. ANSWER: b 140. Nelson believes that the questions on the survey after his cruise have nothing to do with his experience on the ship, so he doesn't bother to take the survey. Nelson's belief most clearly illustrates a. emotion-focused coping. b. relative deprivation. c. an external locus of control. d. problem-focused coping. ANSWER: c 141. Dejan does not wear a mask or social distance from people in the store because he believes that no matter how he protects himself, he may still get COVID-19. His misperception best illustrates the dangers of a. emotion-focused coping. b. mindfulness meditation. c. Type B personalities. d. an external locus of control. ANSWER: d 142. Those who perceive an internal locus of control believe that a. world events are largely controlled by a few powerful people. b. personal freedom decreases life satisfaction. c. individuals can influence their own outcomes in life. d. self-control grows permanently weaker with exercise. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 143. Ranson believes that he will be promoted to a better position at work if he goes above and beyond his job requirements. His belief most clearly illustrates a. a Type B personality. b. the faith factor. c. emotion-focused coping. d. an internal locus of control. ANSWER: d 144. Those with an internal locus of control act ________ independently and feel ________ depressed than those with an external locus of control. a. more; more b. less; less c. more; less d. less; more ANSWER: c 145. In longitudinal research on 7500 people, those who had expressed a more internal locus of control at age 10 experienced all of the following at age 30 EXCEPT a. increased depression. b. less obesity. c. lower blood pressure. d. less distress. ANSWER: a 146. In a study of more than 1200 Israeli individuals exposed to missile attacks, those with an externa locus of control experienced a. decreased depression. b. lower blood pressure. c. the most posttraumatic stress symptoms. d. less distress. ANSWER: a 147. A belief in free will is most likely to be associated with a. the faith factor. b. mindfulness meditation. c. an internal locus of control. d. a Type A personality. ANSWER: c 148. Compared to those with an external locus of control, people who perceive an internal locus of control are ScholarFriends.com more likely to Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice a. be shy personalities. b. suffer high blood pressure. c. conform to social pressure. d. cope effectively with stress. ANSWER: d 149. Rodrigo has worked very hard at perfecting his skills and so was just hired for the job of his dreams. Rodrigo believes he is in control of his life, which is another way of saying that he believes in a. an optimistic explanatory style. b. the faith factor. c. free will. d. an external locus of control. ANSWER: c 150. Being able to delay immediate gratification and control our impulses for greater long-term rewards best illustrates a. self-control. b. the adaptation-level phenomenon. c. an external locus of control. d. the faith factor. ANSWER: a 151. Resisting the temptation to eat tasty cookies led research participants to subsequently abandon a frustrating task sooner than those who hadn't had to deal with the cookies. This illustrated that self-control momentarily weakens following a. the practice of controlling one's impulses. b. an awareness of relative deprivation. c. the development of learned helplessness. d. the distraction of mindfulness meditation. ANSWER: a 152. Ace had just finished dinner when he was offered a delicious-looking chocolate cake. Although he loves chocolate, he resisted the temptation. Later, at his friend's party, he was unable to resist the temptation to drink too many margaritas. Ace's excessive drinking best illustrates the impact of a. relative deprivation. b. a Type B personality. c. learned helplessness. d. using up self-control energy. ANSWER: d 153. Research has found that people with moreScholarFriends.com self-control have all of the following EXCEPT a. good health. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice b. lower well-being. c. higher income. d. better school performance. ANSWER: b 154. Research has found that strengthened self-control is related to improved self-management of all of the following EXCEPT a. alcohol consumption. b. anger. c. smoking. d. impulsive spending. ANSWER: a 155. Victoria smokes two packs of cigarettes a day. Based on information from the text, which of the following actions would be best to help Victoria quit smoking? a. frequently practice overcoming the urge to bite her nails b. put hot sauce on her fingertips c. sit on her hands d. join a support group for nail biters ANSWER: a 156. People who expect things to go well and who expect more control over their life illustrate a. problem-focused coping. b. emotion-focused coping. c. optimism. d. an internal locus of control. ANSWER: c 157. Damien leads a fairly stress-free life because he expects everything to work out the way he wants it to. This best illustrates the value of a. a Type A personality. b. an external locus of control. c. optimism. d. the adaptation-level phenomenon. ANSWER: c 158. People who doubt their goals can be achieved are described as ________; people who believe their goals are achievable are described as ________. a. having an external locus of control; having an internal locus of control b. pessimistic; optimistic c. having an internal locus of control; having an external locus of control ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice d. optimistic; pessimistic ANSWER: b 159. Lumiti wants to be an engineer and believes that she will accomplish her goals as soon as she finishes college. Noreen wants to be a lawyer but feels that her goals are likely out of reach. Lumiti could be described as ________, and Noreen could be described as ________. a. having an external locus of control; having an internal locus of control b. pessimistic; optimistic c. having an internal locus of control; having an external locus of control d. optimistic; pessimistic ANSWER: d 160. People who typically expect that their outcomes in life will be negative best illustrate a. problem-focused coping. b. the Type A personality. c. pessimism. d. an internal locus of control. ANSWER: c 161. Those who attribute their poor performance to a lack of ability or to situations beyond their control demonstrate a. pessimism. b. problem-focused coping. c. a Type B personality. d. the adaptation-level phenomenon. ANSWER: a 162. During the stressful first few weeks of classes, U.S. law school students enjoyed stronger immune systems if they a. exhibited an external locus of control. b. were optimistic. c. had high blood sugar levels. d. had low serotonin levels. ANSWER: b 163. ________ and their romantic partners generally manage conflict constructively. a. Type A personalities b. Those with an external locus of control c. Type B personalities d. optimists ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 164. In long-term studies of nurses and veterans, those who were more optimistic were ________ percent more likely than pessimists to live beyond 85. a. 30 b. 40 to 50 c. 60 to 80 d. 50 to 70 ANSWER: d 165. Margaret is approaching the end of her life but feels more life satisfaction. This likely means that Margaret is a. optimistic. b. pessimistic. c. demonstrating self-control. d. demonstrating an external locus of control. ANSWER: a 166. Duncan and Mo are identical twins. Duncan tends to be very optimistic. What does this tell you about Mo? a. He is likely to be optimistic. b. He is not likely to be optimistic. c. He is likely to be pessimistic. d. He sometimes optimistic, sometimes pessimistic. ANSWER: a 167. Learned helplessness is most likely to promote a. problem-focused coping. b. an internal locus of control. c. mindfulness meditation. d. pessimism. ANSWER: d 168. Compared with European American students, Asian American students tend to express slightly more ________ regarding their future performance, which may result in greater academic achievements. a. relaxation b. unrealistic optimism c. external locus of control d. pessimism ANSWER: d 169. When students believed they were less likely than their average classmate to get cancer, they were expressing a. an external of control. ScholarFriends.com b. a Type B personality. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice c. unrealistic optimism. d. the tyranny of choice. ANSWER: c 170. Some sexually active undergraduates do not consistently use contraceptives because they see themselves as being at lower risk of pregnancy than most other undergraduates. This best illustrates a. the tyranny of choice. b. emotion-focused coping. c. a Type A personality. d. unrealistic optimism. ANSWER: d 171. When we say a person is able to determine which emotions they allow themselves to feel, when they feel them, and how they express them, we are saying that the person has a. more self-control. b. healthy emotion regulation. c. a stable, coherent worldview. d. resilience. ANSWER: b 172. Vladimir is extremely angry with his friend for not telling him about the party he attended last night. However, when he sees his friend, he does not express any of that anger. Vladimir is demonstrating a. emotion regulation. b. optimism. c. social support. d. an external locus of control. ANSWER: a 173. Although all her friends did well on their history exam, Jezebel received a C. Instead of feeling bad or sad, Jezebel decides that she will study more and do better on the next exam. Jezebel is demonstrating a. optimism. b. social support. c. an external locus of control. d. emotion regulation. ANSWER: d 174. When we say a person is able to determine which emotions they allow themselves to feel, when they feel them, and how they express them, we are saying that the person has a. more self-control. b. healthy emotion regulation. c. a stable, coherent worldview. ScholarFriends.com d. resilience. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 175. Healthy emotion regulation enables more happiness, better life satisfaction, less depression and anxiety, and a. more self-control. b. a stable, coherent worldview. c. closer social relationships. d. increased resilience. ANSWER: c 176. Isabella demonstrates healthy emotion regulation. As a result, she experiences more happiness and a. more self-control. b. better life satisfaction. c. an external locus of control. d. increased resilience. ANSWER: b 177. People most often report trying to ________ their negative feelings and ________ their positive feelings a. improve; reduce b. increase; decrease c. decrease; increase d. reduce; improve ANSWER: c 178. People most often try to decrease their negative emotions. However, sometimes they welcome their anger, such as for a. times when their parents punish them. b. a protest against injustice. c. increased self-control. d. times when their best friend is angry. ANSWER: b 179. Who describes three strategies people often use to regulate their emotions? a. Walter Cannon b. Hans Selye c. James Gross d. Jerome Singer ANSWER: c 180. The three strategies James Gross described for emotion regulation include situation selection, suppression, and ScholarFriends.com a. finding meaning. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice b. meditation. c. relaxation. d. cognitive reappraisal. ANSWER: d 181. In an experiment, researchers asked participants to view a disturbing video. Compared with those who were told to suppress their emotions, those who used a reappraisal strategy had a. less authentic feelings. b. more negative emotions. c. a lower bodily stress response. d. more depression. ANSWER: c 182. Günter manages his emotions by containing his feelings, in other words, he ________ his feelings. Jürgen thinks about emotional situations in a more neutral way; in other words, he uses ________ to dampen emotional negativity. a. is pessimistic about; social support b. suppresses; cognitive reappraisal c. focuses on; personal control d. adapts to; resistance ANSWER: b 183. The situation selection strategy for emotion regulation promotes more positive emotions and a. better social relationships. b. less emotional expression. c. less authentic feelings. d. less depression. ANSWER: d 184. Of the three strategies described by James Gross for emotion regulation, the least effective is a. situation selection. b. suppression. c. relaxation. d. cognitive reappraisal. ANSWER: b 185. Psychology offers four tips for managing emotions, including a. figuring out a way to reduce angry outbursts. b. allowing your emotions to occur at any time anywhere. c. pressure ourselves to be happy all the time. d. do not let those close to you know how ScholarFriends.com you are feeling. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 186. Just after reading her psychology text's suggestions for managing her emotions, Giana learns that a family member has just been diagnosed with lung cancer. Using what she has learned from the text, Giana a. . tries to control her sadness. b. turns to friends for support. c. becomes extremely angry. d. tries to turn her sadness into a happy mood. ANSWER: b 187. Social support can lead to all of the following EXCEPT a. increased happiness. b. increased level of anxiety. c. improved health. d. better stress management. ANSWER: b 188. Mary feels that she is liked by her closest friends and family members. She also feels encouraged by them. This is likely to a. increase her optimism. b. improve her emotion-focused coping. c. reduce the amount of control she has. d. promote both happiness and health. ANSWER: d 189. Close relationships have predicted ________ in both individualist and collectivist cultures. a. relative deprivation b. an internal locus of control c. reduced self-control d. health and happiness ANSWER: d 190. Although individualist and collectivist cultures vary in how much value they place on ________, it is universally related to happiness. a. an external locus of control b. a Type A personality c. relative deprivation d. social support ANSWER: d 191. One 7-decade-long study found that at ageScholarFriends.com 50, healthy aging was better predicted by ________ than by a low cholesterol level. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice a. an external locus of control b. mindfulness meditation c. a good marriage d. a type A personality ANSWER: c 192. Which of the following is most important regarding the relationship between marriage and longevity? a. marital status b. length of marriage c. quality of the marriage d. number of marriages ANSWER: c 193. Barbara and Steve are happily married, and their oldest child is about to leave home to head off to college. For Barbara, this is a stressful event that she has been dreading. What can she do to help her reduce the stress she feels about this event? a. She can hold her breath. b. She can convince the child not to go to college. c. She can hold Steve's hand. d. She can move closer to the college campus. ANSWER: c 194. Compared with the unmarried, people in a happy marriage are more likely to experience a. healthy aging. b. stress appraisal. c. elevated blood sugar. d. mindfulness meditation. ANSWER: a 195. People who laugh a lot have tended to have lower rates of a. cancer. b. emotion-focused coping. c. heart disease. d. problem-focused coping. ANSWER: c 196. Miesel has met a wide variety of people on the cruises she has taken. She has hooked up with a special group of people who spend lots of time talking and laughing. Which of the following is true for Miesel and her friends? a. They are likely to have a weakened immune system. b. Their laughter causes indigestion. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice c. Their cholesterol level will increase. d. They will have strengthened immune activity. ANSWER: d 197. Social support helps to promote cardiovascular health by a. lowering blood pressure. b. inhibiting immune system activity. c. reducing the production of macrophage cells. d. redistributing blood flow from internal organs to skeletal muscles. ANSWER: a 198. Keniel's father was recently diagnosed with pancreatic cancer. Fortunately, Keniel has several good friends who are helping him through this trying time. Research suggests that this social support was likely to improve Keniel's health by reducing his a. blood pressure. b. NK cell count. c. serotonin levels. d. internal locus of control. ANSWER: a 199. Which of the following is most likely to foster stronger immune functioning? a. an external locus of control b. social support c. a Type A personality d. increased cortisol levels ANSWER: b 200. Social support can lead to all of the following EXCEPT a. lower stress hormone levels. b. increased level of anxiety. c. stronger immune functioning. d. lower blood pressure. ANSWER: b 201. Which of the following has NOT been associated with pet ownership? a. increasing coronary risk factors b. increasing the chances of survival after a heart attack c. relieving depression among those with AIDS d. lowering blood pressure ANSWER: a ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 202. Vicente now lives alone as all of his children are grown and have families of their own. His daughter recently surprised him with a new dog. For Vicente, having a dog is likely to a. decrease his self-control. b. limit his external locus of control. c. decrease the amount of exercise he gets. d. give him a companion and increase his social support. ANSWER: d 203. Which of the following is NOT true regarding social support and stress? a. Social support calms us and reduces blood pressure and stress hormones. b. Social support fosters stronger immune functioning. c. Close relationships provide an opportunity to confide painful feelings. d. Social support is associated with increased negativity. ANSWER: d 204. After a significant life change, a person may "find meaning in life," which means that they have a. found enough personal strength to cope with stress. b. found a good social support system. c. found some redeeming purpose in their suffering. d. been helpful when their mood improved. ANSWER: c 205. The short-term effect of confiding painful feelings may be arousal, but in the long term, talking about painful stress-producing experiences calms us by a. reducing serotonin levels. b. using up our self-control energy. c. reducing our physical stress response. d. redistributing blood flow from internal organs to the skeletal muscles. ANSWER: c 206. Victor Frankl, a psychiatrist who survived a Nazi concentration camp, observed that stressful circumstances are made unbearable by a. problem-focused coping. b. an internal locus of control. c. a lack of meaning in life. d. relative deprivation. ANSWER: c 207. Confiding painful feelings to trusted friends or family members can most clearly help us cope with stressful events because it helps a. form lasting memories of those events. ScholarFriends.com b. make sense of those events. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice c. develop an external locus of control. d. reduce serotonin levels ANSWER: b 208. Nannette's spouse died by suicide several months ago. Nannette has several close friends with whom she has been able to talk about her spouse's action. This social support has helped her to a. form a lasting memory of the event. b. make sense of her spouse's behavior. c. develop an external locus of control. d. reduce serotonin levels. ANSWER: b 209. Sustained activity that increases heart and lung fitness is called a. resilience. b. subjective well-being. c. aerobic exercise. d. the adaptation-level phenomenon. ANSWER: c 210. Activities such as jogging or swimming are forms of a. mindfulness training. b. relaxation. c. aerobic exercise. d. stress appraisal. ANSWER: c 211. Aerobic exercise has been associated with all of the following EXCEPT a. increased self-confidence. b. increased energy. c. increased risk for obesity. d. toned muscles. ANSWER: c 212. ________ increases heart and lung fitness and can help alleviate depression and anxiety. a. Aerobic exercise b. Relaxation c. Meditation d. Social support ANSWER: a ScholarFriends.com 213. Jeff wants to improve his heart and lung fitness while also reducing his depression and anxiety over Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice problems at home. Jeff is most likely to engage in a. emotion-focused coping. b. self-control. c. meditation. d. aerobic exercise. ANSWER: d 214. Marletta has not been happy with the way things are going in her life, so she has decided to make some changes. For one thing, she has started jogging three times a week for at least 30 minutes each time. She is most likely to experience a. an external locus of control. b. elevated cortisol levels. c. a decrease in depression. d. an inability to sleep after exercising. ANSWER: c 215. Who conducted the first experimental study to test the belief that exercise reduced people's risk of heart attacks? a. Hans Selye b. Walter Cannon c. Jeremy Morris d. Ray Rosenman ANSWER: c 216. Jesse is a double-decker bus driver and Morris is his conductor. Jesse sits all day doing his job, while Morris frequently walks the stairs and up and down the aisles. lowering Compared with Jesse, Morris is less likely to suffer a heart attack, demonstrating that ________ reduces the risk of heart attack. a. an external locus of control b. aerobic exercise c. problem-focused coping d. relaxation ANSWER: b 217. Felicia has a reduced risk of having a heart attack. Which of the following may be responsible for strengthening her heart, increasing blood flow, keeping blood vessels open, and lowering her blood pressure; all of which reduce her risk of having a heart attack? a. an external locus of control b. elevated cortisol levels c. emotion-focused coping d. aerobic exercise ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 218. Which of the following most effectively lowers risk of death among older women? a. having an external locus of control b. an elevated cortisol level c. doing physical chores for at least 10 hours a week d. taking 4400 steps per day ANSWER: d 219. In an analysis of 1.2 million Americans, those who exercised experienced a. an increased external locus of control. b. an elevated cortisol level. c. 43 percent fewer days of poor mental health. d. a reduction in the brain's serotonin activity. ANSWER: d 220. Aerobic exercise has been most closely linked to a decrease in a. lymphocyte production. b. depression. c. problem-focused coping. d. cancer. ANSWER: b 221. Mildly depressed female college students assigned to a program of ________ reported a greater decrease in depression than those assigned to a program of ________. a. problem-focused coping; emotion-focused coping b. relative deprivation; mindfulness meditation c. aerobic exercise; relaxation d. dietary restriction; cognitive therapy ANSWER: c 222. Catalin is in his first year of college and is feeling stressed out and depressed. Which of the following would most effectively boost his mood by increasing the activity of the neurotransmitter serotonin? a. the faith factor b. relaxation training c. mindfulness meditation d. aerobic exercise ANSWER: d 223. Which of the following is a stress-management technique that counteracts depression by increasing arousal and increasing the brain's serotonin activity? a. the faith factor b. relaxation ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice c. mindfulness meditation d. aerobic exercise ANSWER: d 224. Marlene's baby was born prematurely. According to the research, ________ will help the baby relax. a. cortisol b. meditation c. massage d. social support ANSWER: c 225. Relaxation procedures can do all of the following EXCEPT relieve a. headaches. b. blood pressure. c. insomnia. d. academic performance. ANSWER: d 226. Sarika fell and hurt her back. She is in some pain and is depressed about her inability to participate in sports. However, after ________ she now feels more relaxed and is no longer feeling depressed. a. developing an external locus of control b. learning how to manage her Type A personality c. taking medication to reduce her serotonin levels d. getting a massage ANSWER: d 227. Relaxation procedures have been found to reduce a. serotonin levels. b. immune system functioning. c. depression levels. d. the adaptation-level phenomenon. ANSWER: c 228. Research has shown that a key determinant in reducing the risk of a heart attack is a. being informed of needed lifestyle changes. b. learning how to change your lifestyle. c. engaging in aerobic exercise daily. d. medication. ANSWER: b 229. Based on research reported in the text, to ScholarFriends.com help hard-driving Type A heart attack survivors reduce their risk Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice of future attacks, it would be best to a. teach them ways to modify their lifestyle. b. train them in mindfulness meditation. c. provide relaxation training. d. give them pain-control medication. ANSWER: c 230. Viraj, a 50-year-old tax accountant and Type A personality, recently suffered a serious heart attack. To prevent a recurrence, Viraj would probably benefit most from a. massage therapy. b. early retirement. c. advice on lifestyle changes. d. pain-control medication. ANSWER: c 231. In one study, surgery patients who received relaxation training reported a. lower stress and showed better wound healing. b. lower serotonin levels and slower wound healing. c. increased emotion-focused coping. d. reduced awareness and insight. ANSWER: a 232. Attending closely to current experiences in a nonjudgmental and accepting manner is most clearly central to a. an internal locus of control. b. the adaptation-level phenomenon. c. mindfulness meditation. d. the tend-and-befriend response. ANSWER: c 233. Valeria is mentally scanning her body parts and responses, paying attention to her breathing while remaining aware and accepting. Valeria's behavior best illustrates a. the tend-and-befriend response. b. an external locus of control. c. the adaptation-level phenomenon. d. mindfulness meditation. ANSWER: d 234. Mindfulness meditation has been found to reduce a. depression. b. lymphocyte levels. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice c. personal control. d. the tend-and-befriend response. ANSWER: a 235. Mindfulness meditation practices have been shown to a. improve sleep. b. elevate cortisol levels. c. increase alcohol use disorder. d. trigger an external locus of control. ANSWER: a 236. Practicing mindfulness meditation has been associated with all of the following EXCEPT a. increased happiness. b. increased sadness. c. reduced anxiety. d. reduced depression. ANSWER: b 237. In one experiment, Korean participants were asked to think about their own mortality. Those who ________ were less anxious when reminded of their own inevitable death. a. meditated b. exercised c. relaxed d. slept ANSWER: a 238. Phoebe engages in mindfulness meditation regularly. Which of the following is something she should NOT expect? a. improved sleep b. better immune system functioning c. increased helpfulness d. decreased intelligence ANSWER: d 239. Which of the following is NOT taking place in the brain as one practices mindfulness? a. Connections among brain regions are strengthened. b. Brain regions associated with emotion regulation are activated. c. Blood flow in brain regions is decreased. d. Brain activation in emotional situations is calmed. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 240. During mindfulness meditation, a part of the ________ involved in emotion regulation is ________ active than usual. a. prefrontal cortex; less b. parietal lobe; less c. prefrontal cortex; more d. parietal lobe; more ANSWER: c 241. When labeling emotions, mindful people show less activation in the a. prefrontal cortex. b. telomeres. c. amygdala. d. parietal lobe. ANSWER: c 242. Experimental participants did not show strong differences in brain activation whether watching a sad or a neutral movie if they a. were Type A personalities. b. perceived an external locus of control. c. had been trained in mindfulness meditation. d. experienced weakened immune functioning. ANSWER: c 243. Mortimer practices mindfulness meditation. Correlational and experimental research offer an explanation for the effectiveness of meditation in reducing stress. Which of the following is NOT one of their explanations? a. Mindfulness calms brain activation in emotional situations. b. Mindfulness increases activation of the amygdala. c. Mindfulness strengthens connections among brain regions. d. Mindfulness activates regions associated with emotion regulation. ANSWER: b 244. The correlation between religious involvement and life expectancy best illustrates the health value of a. the adaptation-level phenomenon. b. an external locus of control. c. a Type A personality. d. the faith factor. ANSWER: d 245. In one 16-year study, researchers found that Israelis living in nonreligious collective settlements had ________ than those living in religiously orthodox collective settlements. a. higher rates of death ScholarFriends.com b. better emotion-focused coping skills Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice c. better self-control d. better problem-focused coping skills ANSWER: a 246. In U.S. obituaries, mention of a religious affiliation predicted ________ of additional life. a. 2 years b. 5.5 years c. 7.5 years d. 10 years ANSWER: c 247. Horace and Abigail are both religious people who attend church services at least twice a week. What can we say about Horace and Abigail? a. Horace is likely to live longer than Abigail because he is healthier. b. Abigail is likely to outlive Horace because women have a stronger immune system. c. They are both likely to live longer than those with no religious affiliation. d. Both will live about the same number of years as those with no religious affiliation. ANSWER: c 248. The correlation between religious involvement and life expectancy is ________ among women and ________ among men. a. positive; negative b. negative; positive c. positive; positive d. negative; negative ANSWER: c 249. Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. Religious involvement is related to greater life expectancy, but only for women. b. Religious involvement is related to greater life expectancy for both men and women. c. Religious involvement is a predictor of health and longevity. d. Religiously active people live longer than those who are not religiously active. ANSWER: a 250. Most of the people living in Boynton Beach attend religious services at least twice a week, whereas most of those in the nearby town of Juno rarely do so. Compared with the residents of Juno, the residents of Boynton Beach are more likely to a. have elevated levels of cortisol. b. develop an external locus of control. c. have a physically healthy lifestyle. d. experience the adaptation-level phenomenon. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 251. One of the factors that might account for the association of religious involvement and life expectancy is a. a pessimistic explanatory style. b. social support. c. an external locus of control. d. immune suppression. ANSWER: b 252. Research that has controlled for numerous factors related to well-being has found that those who are ________ have a stable, coherent worldview, which may be related to their ________. a. atheist; general positive emotions b. religiously active; positive emotions c. spiritual but not religious; external locus of control d. atheist; external locus of control ANSWER: b 253. Elissa is 85 years old and still in fairly good health. She attends church regularly and participates in most of the church's activities. Which of the following is probably NOT true of Elissa? a. She has a stable, coherent worldview. b. She has a healthier lifestyle. c. She smokes at least a pack of cigarettes every day. d. She has a strong support network. ANSWER: c 254. Positive psychology is the study of a. social behavior and emotions. b. the religious activity and lifestyle. c. what makes people feel good, accomplished, and socially connected. d. stress levels in people after they have experienced negative events. ANSWER: c 255. Dr. Bigelow is using scientific methods to study human flourishing in an effort to discover and promote strengths and virtues that help individuals and communities to thrive. Dr. Bigelow's area of interest is a. cognitive psychology. b. positive psychology. c. behaviorism. d. humanistic psychology. ANSWER: b 256. Subjective well-being refers to a. empathy. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice b. relative deprivation. c. self-perceived happiness. d. emotion-focused coping. ANSWER: c 257. Professor Magidio adheres to ideals associated with positive psychology and so is examining the selfperceived satisfaction with life among research participants. The professor is assessing their a. subjective well-being. b. relative mood change. c. relative deprivation. d. adaption level. ANSWER: a 258. Aurora is a generally happy person and is satisfied with her life. Which of the following can be said of Aurora? a. She has high levels of subjective well-being. b. She is demonstrating the feel-good, do-good phenomenon. c. She is demonstrating aspects of resilience. d. She has an external locus of control. ANSWER: a 259. The feel-good, do-good phenomenon refers to the fact that when people feel happy they a. are more willing to help others. b. make decisions more effectively. c. experience a more positive self-image. d. report greater satisfaction with their whole lives. ANSWER: a 260. Agwa asks her friend Bianca to help her do her algebra homework. Bianca is most likely to be willing to help after she has a. unsuccessfully tried to repair thefaucet in her sink. b. received an A on her history test. c. heard that a friend was involved in an automobile accident. d. been caught cheating on a Spanish test. ANSWER: b 261. Which of the following is NOT associated with happier individuals? a. career success b. more likely to marry c. a healthier life ScholarFriends.com d. equally likely to divorce Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 262. One study surveyed thousands of U.S. college students in 1976 and restudied them 2 decades later. College students who were ________ had gone on to earn significantly more money than their less-happy-than-average peers. a. angry b. sad c. fearful d. happy ANSWER: d 263. Nethaji is generally a very happy person. Daily stresses do not seem to bother him and seems to see something positive in everything. Which of the following is NOT something that would be attributed to Nethaji? a. a healthier life b. decreased intelligence c. career success d. increased income ANSWER: b 264. The frequency of positive and negative emotion words used by U.S. Facebook users indicates that their most positive moods were expressed on a. Thursdays. b. Fridays. c. Wednesdays. d. Sundays. ANSWER: b 265. Krisha keeps in touch with her cruise friends via social media, making sure to post information about important events in-between cruises. According to research by a social psychologist, a person reviewing Krisha's posts would be able to sense that she is happiest on a. Monday. b. Wednesday. c. Thursday. d. Friday. ANSWER: d 266. Like most of us, when is Pedro likely to experience positive emotions? a. in the early morning b. during the early to middle part of the day c. after lunch ScholarFriends.com d. in the evening Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 267. The adaptation-level phenomenon refers to the a. perception that one is worse off than those with whom one compares oneself. b. tendency for standards of judgment to be heavily influenced by previous experiences. c. temporary depletion of self-control energy following the exercise of willpower. d. survival of organisms that adapt best to their environment. ANSWER: b 268. Which of the following best explains why after summer, a chilly fall day feels colder than the same temperatures in late winter? a. relative deprivation b. subjective well-being c. the adaptation-level phenomenon d. the do-good, feel-good phenomenon ANSWER: c 269. Tristan was elated to learn that he had just won the lottery jackpot. After a few weeks, however, he is only mildly happy when he thinks about his big winnings. This change in his feelings can best be explained in terms of a. learned helplessness. b. relative deprivation. c. the feel-good, do-good phenomenon. d. the adaptation-level phenomenon. ANSWER: d 270. Based on research on the predictors of happiness, which of the following individuals is most likely to experience high levels of subjective well-being? a. Michelle, who is young and physically attractive b. Sara, who has an active religious faith c. Donna, who seldom delays immediately satisfying her impulses d. Kelsey, who experiences an external locus of control ANSWER: b 271. Based on research, characteristics of happy people include all of the following EXCEPT a. high self-esteem. b. close, positive relationships. c. physical attractiveness. d. an active religious faith. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice most likely associated with happy people such as Jingco? a. gender b. physical attractiveness c. youth d. high self-esteem ANSWER: d 273. One analysis of 55,000 identical and fraternal twins indicated that heredity accounts for about ________ percent of the difference among people's happiness ratings. a. 12 b. 36 c. 55 d. 76 ANSWER: b 274. Self-esteem is especially likely to be a predictor of happiness in cultures that value a. an external locus of control. b. relative deprivation. c. individualism. d. the feel-good, do-good phenomenon. ANSWER: c 275. In considering the impact of public policies such as tax rates or divorce laws, many psychologists believe that assessments of ________ would be the most useful for guiding nations toward policies that foster human flourishing. a. self-control b. relative deprivation c. subjective well-being d. the adaptation-level phenomenon ANSWER: c 276. The idea that individual happiness can lead to an improved society for all is demonstrated by the fact that a. many nations focus their efforts on pushing national priorities. b. some nations have a clear goal of monitoring and controlling their populace. c. some nations focus on developing national pride and honor among their citizens. d. many nations measure their citizens' well-being and provide interventions to increase national wellbeing. ANSWER: d 277. Level of happiness tends to fluctuate around a. a happiness set point. ScholarFriends.com b. predictable levels. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice c. heritable levels. d. relative deprivation. ANSWER: a 278. Work activities are most likely to foster happiness when they promote a. the adaptation-level phenomenon. b. an external locus of control. c. the experience of flow. d. relative deprivation. ANSWER: c 279. As a result of the COVID-19 pandemic, Seth has been quarantined at home with his wife and three kids for six months. To maintain some level of happiness, Seth should a. nurture his family relationships. b. try to exercise a little each day. c. get enough sleep. d. do all of these things. ANSWER: d 280. Compared with unhappy people, happy people report ________ close social relationships and engage in ________ meaningful conversations. a. less; less b. more; more c. less; more d. more; less ANSWER: b 281. One way for people to improve their own subjective well-being is to a. focus more attention on themselves. b. participate in regular aerobic exercise. c. overestimate how much they can accomplish. d. do all of these things. ANSWER: b 282. Which of the following is NOT something you should do to increase your level of happiness? a. Take control of your time. b. Get enough sleep. c. Engage in aerobic exercise. d. Focus on you. ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 283. Research suggests that subjective well-being is fostered by keeping a ________ journal. a. happiness set point b. relative deprivation c. resilience d. gratitude ANSWER: d 284. A wage increase of $3000 per year is most likely to increase the subjective well-being of people who currently earn ________ per year. a. $12,000 b. $25,000 c. $40,000 d. $75,000 ANSWER: a 285. Within most countries, the power of more money to increase happiness is strongest at a. low incomes. b. middle incomes. c. high incomes. d. no incomes. ANSWER: a 286. People in countries where most people have a secure livelihood tend to be ________ than those in poor countries. Over time, a rising economic tide ________ produced increased happiness. a. happier; has not b. happier; has c. less happy; has not d. less happy; has ANSWER: a 287. Since the late 1950s, the buying power of the average U.S. citizen has ________ and their self-reported personal happiness has ________. a. remained almost unchanged; decreased b. increased; remained almost unchanged c. remained almost unchanged; increased d. remained almost unchanged; remained almost unchanged ANSWER: b 288. For which of the following people would "money buy happiness"? a. Jacob, who received a 2 percent raise this year b. Kelly, who receives a weekly allowanceScholarFriends.com from her parents Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice c. Cassi, who lives with her parents and works part time d. Tina, an unemployed single mom who just got offered a job making $60,000 a year ANSWER: d 289. In countries and states with larger income inequality, lower income people tend to experience all of the following EXCEPT more a. health problems. b. happiness. c. social problems. d. mental disorders. ANSWER: b 290. The personal strength that helps most people to recover from adversity and trauma is called a. mindfulness. b. resilience. c. an external locus of control d. the adaptation-level phenomenon. ANSWER: b 291. Although Marissa suffered intensely from the unexpected death of her young husband, her personal strength and optimistic outlook on life enabled her to effectively cope with her loss and live a productive and meaningful life. Marissa most clearly illustrated a. a Type A personality. b. an external locus of control. c. the faith factor. d. resilience. ANSWER: d 292. People with an agreeable personality who become blind usually ________ recover near-normal levels of day-to-day happiness. Those who become paralyzed usually ________ recover near-normal levels of day-to-day happiness. a. do; do not b. do not; do c. do; do d. do not; do not ANSWER: c 293. The feeling that we are worse off than others with whom we compare ourselves is called a. relative deprivation. b. subjective well-being. c. the feel-good, do-good phenomenon. ScholarFriends.com d. the adaption-level phenomenon. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 294. Relative deprivation refers to the tendency for our personal happiness to be heavily influenced by a. genetics. b. previous experiences. c. the faith factor. d. others' success. ANSWER: d 295. Emma is from a low-income family. Lydia is from a middle-class family. If Emma compares herself to Lydia, she is likely to experience a. relative deprivation. b. subjective well-being. c. the feel-good, do-good phenomenon. d. the adaption-level phenomenon. ANSWER: a 296. One analysis of 2.4 million participants in 357 studies found that happiness depended less on actual financial success than on how participants compared themselves financially to their peers. This is explained in terms of a. the adaptation-level phenomenon. b. relative deprivation. c. the faith factor. d. the feel-good, do-good phenomenon. ANSWER: b 297. Pamela's parents bought her a used car when she turned 18 and got her driver's license. She was thrilled until she learned that her best friend received a brand-new car when she turned 18. Pamela's declining satisfaction illustrates a. relative deprivation. b. the adaptation-level phenomenon. c. learned helplessness. d. problem-focused coping. ANSWER: a 298. Willie has a poor social self-concept because most of his friends are dating. Willie's experience best illustrates a. the adaptation-level phenomenon. b. the concept of flow. c. relative deprivation. d. an internal locus of control. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 299. Patrick is the owner of a failing business who feels little satisfaction with life. To increase his subjective well-being, Patrick should a. imagine what his own life might be like if he became rich and famous. b. compare himself with friends who became rich and successful. c. recall past moments when his life was much more pleasant than it is now. d. think about what his life might be like if he were suffering from a fatal disease. ANSWER: d

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 1. Which branch of psychology is most directly concerned with the study of how people think about, influence, and relate to one another? a. developmental psychology b. social psychology c. personality psychology d. clinical psychology ANSWER: b 2. Professor Blaz conducts research on the real-life effects of attributing a person's actions to that person or the situation. Professor Blaz is most likely a ________ psychologist. a. personality b. clinical c. social d. biological ANSWER: c 3. Professor Yee is studying how role-playing affects attitudes. Dr. Yee is most likely a ________ psychologist. a. personality b. clinical c. social d. developmental ANSWER: c 4. Mortimer tends to be very quiet in class but very talkative outside with friends. A psychologist studying behavior such as Mortimer's would most likely be a ________ psychologist. a. personality b. clinical c. social d. developmental ANSWER: c 5. Attributing the cause of behavior is a. the process of revealing intimate aspects of ourselves to others. b. the impact of both heredity and environment on social behavior. c. the loss of self-awareness that occurs in group situations. d. how people explain others' behavior. ANSWER: d 6. Our explanations for our own behavior and the behavior of others are called a. attributions. b. attitudes. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice c. cognitive dissonance. d. the fundamental attribution error. ANSWER: a 7. Students in Professor Dogan's psychology class scored much lower than normal on their latest exam, which was just before spring break. Professor Dogan believes that students were preoccupied with the upcoming break and did not prepare well for the exam. Professor Dogan's explanation for his students' exam performance is an example of a. cognitive dissonance. b. an attitude. c. an attribution. d. the fundamental attribution error. ANSWER: c 8. Genevieve forgives her significant other for forgetting their anniversary because she believes her partner was preoccupied with concern for her father's health. Genevieve's explanation for her significant other's forgetfulness is an example of a. an attribution. b. an attitude. c. cognitive dissonance. d. the fundamental attribution error. ANSWER: a 9. According to social psychologists, when we try to attribute the causes of another's actions, our search for answers often leaves us with two choices. These choices are a. heredity or environment. b. biological motives or psychological motives. c. thoughts or emotions. d. personality or the situation. ANSWER: d 10. Hampton believes that his sister earns more money than he does because she is better than he is at promoting herself. Hampton's belief about his sister's pay is an example of a. a situational attribution. b. cognitive dissonance. c. the foot-in-the-door phenomenon. d. a personality attribution. ANSWER: a 11. Jon insists that Bob's skiing accident resulted from his carelessness. His explanation for the accident provides an example of ScholarFriends.com a. a situational attribution. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice b. cognitive dissonance. c. the foot-in-the-door phenomenon. d. a personality attribution. ANSWER: d 12. Gustavo sees Alfredo, who is normally outgoing, freeze up when asked to speak in class. Gustavo attributes Alfredo's behavior to the large number of students listening to him. Gustavo's explanation for Alfredo's behavior is an example of a. a situational attribution. b. cognitive dissonance. c. the foot-in-the-door phenomenon. d. a personality attribution. ANSWER: a 13. Shawna, who notices that her sister volunteers for many charitable organizations, believes that her sister is a very caring, giving person. Shawna's explanation of her sister's behavior is an example of a. a situational attribution. b. cognitive dissonance. c. the foot-in-the-door phenomenon. d. a personality attribution. ANSWER: d 14. The fundamental attribution error refers to our tendency to underestimate the impact of ________ and to overestimate the impact of ________ in explaining the behavior of others. a. attitudes; cognitive dissonance b. cognitive dissonance; attitudes c. personal traits; situational influences d. situational influences; personality ANSWER: d 15. In an experiment, college students talked with a woman who acted either cold and critical or warm and friendly. Half the students were told that the woman had been instructed to act friendly or unfriendly. Despite knowing this, they attributed her behavior to her personal traits, thus committing a. cognitive dissonance. b. social contagion. c. the foot-in-the-door phenomenon. d. the fundamental attribution error. ANSWER: d 16. Laszlo received a C– on his last history exam. His teacher is making the fundamental attribution error when she concludes that Laszlo earned a low grade because ScholarFriends.com a. he is unmotivated to do well in school. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice b. the test covered material that had not been adequately covered in class. c. his parents had an argument the evening before the test. d. he was not given enough time to complete the test. ANSWER: a 17. While attending a basketball game at your high school, you see a player trip and fall. "How clumsy," you mumble to yourself. You have just committed a. cognitive dissonance. b. an attitude. c. the foot-in-the-door phenomenon. d. the fundamental attribution error. ANSWER: d 18. Paloma, who averages five baskets in a game for her basketball team, did not score any baskets in today's game. The other players believe that she was "slacking off," but in reality she was playing despite an injury. Paloma's teammates have committed a. cognitive dissonance. b. the fundamental attribution error. c. the foot-in-the-door phenomenon. d. an attitude. ANSWER: b 19. The tendency in Western cultures to attribute the behavior of others to internal, personality characteristics while ignoring or underestimating the effects of external, situational factors is called a. cognitive dissonance. b. an attitude. c. foot-in-the-door phenomenon. d. the fundamental attribution error. ANSWER: d 20. Akino is from Japan; her college roommate, Bree, is from the United States. While waiting in line to buy school supplies, they witness an irate customer yelling at the cashier. Later, when they discuss it, Akino is more likely to attribute the customer's behavior to ________; Bree is more likely to attribute it to ________. a. their personality; the situation b. normative social influence; cognitive dissonance c. cognitive dissonance; normative social influence d. the situation; their personality ANSWER: d 21. Compared with people from China and Japan, Westerners are more likely to a. make situational attributions. ScholarFriends.com b. demonstrate cognitive dissonance. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice c. have positive attitudes. d. commit the fundamental attribution error. ANSWER: d 22. Researchers studying the fundamental attribution error have found that people in Japan a. are more sensitive than are Westerners to the power of the situation. b. are not particularly sensitive to the power of the situation. c. attribute behavior to a person's personal traits more often than Westerners do. d. are not prone to the fundamental attribution error. ANSWER: a 23. An 8-year-old slaps the kid who lives across the street because he tends to belittle him. People from Japan would be more likely than people from Western cultures to explain the 8-year-old's behavior in terms of a. hostile motives. b. a lack of self-control. c. an enduring personality trait. d. the stressful situation. ANSWER: d 24. We have a tendency to explain the behavior of strangers we have observed in only one type of situation in terms of ________ and to explain our own behavior in terms of ________. a. attitudes; cognitive dissonance b. situational constraints; personality traits c. cognitive dissonance; attitudes d. personality traits; situational constraints ANSWER: d 25. In explaining the actions of people we do not know well, we often demonstrate a. cognitive dissonance. b. central route persuasion. c. the fundamental attribution error. d. the foot-in-the-door phenomenon. ANSWER: c 26. We are NOT likely to make the fundamental attribution error if we observe someone a. in a variety of situations. b. who is unemployed. c. who is wealthy. d. we dislike. ANSWER: a ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 27. The fundamental attribution error is most likely to occur when we explain an instance of a. good behavior performed by a person we have never met before. b. good behavior performed by a person we have previously met in a number of different situations. c. bad behavior performed by a person we have never met before. d. bad behavior performed by a person we have previously met in a number of different situations. ANSWER: c 28. In which of the following situations would you be most likely to commit the fundamental attribution error? a. you failed to finish a term paper in time b. you failed to return a phone call from a friend c. a waiter failed to smile when serving you d. you received a low grade on an exam ANSWER: c 29. Adeline is focusing on her phone messages during class because her instructor's bored facial expressions lead her to believe that he is bored with the subject. Conversely, the instructor is concerned because he sees Adeline's inattention as an indication that she lacks any motivation to learn. At this point, both student and instructor should be informed of the dangers of a. cognitive dissonance. b. central route persuasion. c. negative attitudes. d. the fundamental attribution error. ANSWER: d 30. The fundamental attribution error is likely to lead observers to attribute a stranger's a. lack of employment to a weak economy. b. act of kindness to a compassionate personality. c. criminal behavior to a poor education. d. friendliness to social role requirements. ANSWER: b 31. In an experiment in which observers were made to see the world from the actor's perspective, the observers credited their own behavior more to their personal character, or their a. observer status. b. social influence. c. attitudes. d. disposition. ANSWER: d 32. Researchers filmed two people interacting with a camera behind each person. Then they showed each person a replay of their interaction—filmed from the other person's perspective. This reversed participants' ScholarFriends.com attributions of the behaviors. Seeing the world from the actor's perspective, the observers Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice a. better appreciated the situation. b. attributed their behavior to their disposition. c. were less likely to attribute the cause of behavior to disposition. d. were more likely to commit the fundamental attribution error. ANSWER: b 33. Observing yourself on a video replay is most likely to increase your tendency to attribute your behavior to a. cognitive dissonance. b. role-playing. c. personality traits. d. attitudes. ANSWER: c 34. When people assess a police officer's actions from the perspective of the________, they become more sympathetic to the officer. a. officer's body cam b. dash cam c. victim d. suspect ANSWER: a 35. Our explanations of our deliberate and admirable actions are ________ likely to involve situational attributions. And, as we age, our attributions for our younger selves' behavior are ________ likely to involve personality attributions. a. less; less b. more; more c. less; more d. more; less ANSWER: c 36. After reflecting on the power of choice, participants in experiments became increasingly less likely to attribute income inequality to a. personality traits. b. role-playing. c. situational influences. d. cognitive dissonance. ANSWER: c 37. Bradley and Veronica live in a large city where many residents are experiencing homelessness. Bradley, who believes that homelessness reflects people's own bad choices, refuses to vote in favor of policies that provide aid to those in need. Veronica, who believes that homelessness reflects systemic discrimination and a ScholarFriends.com lack of opportunity, always votes in favor of such policies. This demonstrates Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice a. the foot-in-the-door phenomenon. b. the effect of role-playing on attitudes. c. the real-world consequences of our attributions. d. the effect of cognitive dissonance. ANSWER: c 38. Poverty and unemployment have been explained in terms of personal traits by ________ and in terms of situational influences by ________. a. people with low incomes/people with high incomes b. women; men c. social psychologists; evolutionary psychologists d. political conservatives; political liberals ANSWER: d 39. Attitudes are defined as a. roles that we play in unfamiliar situations. b. situational attributions. c. feelings, often based on our beliefs, that influence our responses. d. personality attributions. ANSWER: c 40. Attitudes, which influence how we respond to objects, people, and events, a. are situational attributions. b. are the roles we assume. c. are often based on our beliefs. d. result from cognitive dissonance. ANSWER: c 41. Shamira is taking a course in international relations. Her instructor spends only a few minutes on each topic. Shamira thinks that this instructor doesn't know enough about the subject. This ________ will likely influence her to consider changing instructors. a. role-playing b. foot-in-the-door phenomenon c. situational attribution d. attitude ANSWER: d 42. Allegra feels that her sister is not eating enough healthy food, so she prepares special, healthy meals for her. Allegra's feeling about her sister's diet is an example of a. an attitude. b. the foot-in-the-door phenomenon. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice c. a situational attribution. d. role-playing. ANSWER: a 43. Politicians who publicly oppose a tax increase that they privately favor best illustrate that a. strong social pressure has very little influence on attitudes. b. attitudes and actions are always consistent. c. actions may sometimes be inconsistent with attitudes. d. situations rarely influence actions and attitudes. ANSWER: c 44. Dalila feels that Hunter is a mean person. As a result, she avoids any contact with him. This demonstrates how a. attitudes can affect actions. b. values affect behavior. c. behaviors can influence perceptions. d. actions can affect general attitudes. ANSWER: a 45. Attitudes are especially likely to affect behavior when a. the attitudes are implicit rather than explicit. b. external influences on behavior are minimal. c. the person has not publicly stated those attitudes. d. the attitudes differ from most other people's opinions. ANSWER: b 46. Millie's sister, whose healthy lifestyle Millie finds inspiring, recently made a simple, memorable argument about the negative impact of alcohol on the body. Now, when Millie is home alone, she no longer drinks. However, when Millie is out with friends, she continues to drink despite this change in her attitude. This is likely because a. attitudes more readily affect behavior when external influences are present. b. attitudes are less likely to affect behavior when external influences are present. c. attitudes are more powerful when they are behavior-specific. d. attitudes are more powerful when they are easily recalled. ANSWER: b 47. An adult's attitude toward organized religion is most likely to predict their likelihood of attending church if the attitude a. is implicit rather than explicit. b. first developed during adulthood. c. is moderately positive rather than extremely positive. ScholarFriends.com d. is stable and enduring. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 48. Amaros has always felt that it is important to help those who are less fortunate than he is. His friends, however, seem to focus on their own needs. Amaros is most likely to continue helping others because his attitude a. is implicit rather than explicit. b. was first developed during adulthood. c. is moderately positive rather than extremely positive. d. is stable and enduring. ANSWER: d 49. Whether a person eats healthy foods depends on their attitude about a. central route persuasion. b. role-playing. c. exercise. d. diet. ANSWER: d 50. Katya is thinking of stealing a diamond bracelet even though she has negative feelings about stealing. Katya is LEAST likely to steal the merchandise if she a. knows other people are watching. b. has been asked to get the necklace for her best friend. c. easily recalls her negative feelings about shoplifting. d. has recently shoplifted jewelry from several different stores. ANSWER: c 51. The impact of our actions on our attitudes is best illustrated by a. the fundamental attribution error. b. the foot-in-the-door phenomenon. c. central route persuasion. d. peripheral route persuasion. ANSWER: b 52. The foot-in-the-door phenomenon refers to the tendency to a. behave according to our feelings rather than our beliefs. b. change our attitude because it differs from our behavior. c. comply with a large request if one has previously complied with a small request. d. attribute strangers' behavior to their personal traits. ANSWER: c 53. During the Korean war, many U.S. prisoners were held in Chinese communist war camps. The captors ScholarFriends.com secured prisoners' collaboration in various activities, ranging from simple tasks to more serious actions. After Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice doing so, the prisoners sometimes adjusted their beliefs to be more consistent with their public acts. Which technique was used to accomplish this? a. the fundamental attribution error b. the foot-in-the-door phenomenon c. peripheral route persuasion d. central route persuasion ANSWER: b 54. Your professor has asked you to write an essay on the value of social distancing and mask-wearing during the COVID-19 pandemic. Based on things you have heard, you have doubts about the value of mask wearing. After writing the essay, however, you begin to see the value of mask wearing. Your professor appears to have made effective use of a. the fundamental attribution error. b. peripheral route persuasion. c. the foot-in-the-door phenomenon. d. cognitive dissonance. ANSWER: c 55. Janet and Cora are friends. Cora is leaving for vacation in a few weeks and asks Janet, "Could you swing by my house each day just to check on it and keep an eye on things?" After Janet agrees, Cora then says, "Do you mind checking on my dog too while you're there?" Janet agrees as well. This is an example of a. the foot-in-the door phenomenon. b. the fundamental attribution error. c. cognitive dissonance theory. d. central route persuasion. ANSWER: a 56. Hudson agreed to Connor's suggestion that they steal an iPhone charger for each of them. Three days later, Hudson agreed to go along with Connor's suggestion to steal an expensive iPad. Reflecting on what he had done, Hudson was surprised by his willingness to comply with Connor's requests. Hudson's experience illustrates a. cognitive dissonance. b. the foot-in-the-door phenomenon. c. the fundamental attribution error. d. central route persuasion. ANSWER: b 57. Kennedy enjoys making fun of his kid brother. Sometimes he even slaps him around. If this behavior continues, it is likely that Kennedy will a. experience a substantial loss of self-esteem. b. develop an increasing dislike for his brother. ScholarFriends.com c. experience a sense of cognitive dissonance. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice d. develop a great sense of admiration and respect for his brother. ANSWER: b 58. In the years immediately following the introduction of school desegregation in the United States and the passage of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, White Americans expressed lower levels of racial prejudice. According to the text author, this best illustrated the impact of a. role-playing. b. actions on attitudes. c. the fundamental attribution error. d. attributions. ANSWER: b 59. A set of expectations about a particular social position is best described as a(n) a. cognitive dissonance. b. attribution. c. attitude. d. role. ANSWER: d 60. After you graduate from college and start a new position in your chosen field, you will take on a. a new role. b. a new attitude. c. new attributions. d. cognitive dissonance. ANSWER: a 61. After she was promoted to a high-level executive position in the large company for which she worked, Hajeong developed more pro-business political attitudes. This best illustrates the impact of ________ on attitudes. a. cognitive dissonance b. peripheral route persuasion c. role-playing d. personality attributions ANSWER: c 62. The discomfort we feel when our thoughts and behaviors are inconsistent is called a. cognitive dissonance. b. an attribution. c. role-playing. d. an attitude. ANSWER: a ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 63. Cognitive dissonance theory was proposed by a. Stanley Milgram. b. Norman Triplett. c. Leon Festinger. d. Solomon Asch. ANSWER: c 64. Which theory best explains why our actions can lead us to modify our attitudes? a. role-playing theory b. cognitive dissonance theory c. attribution theory d. two-factor theory ANSWER: b 65. Russell knows that smoking is bad for him, but he continues to smoke up to two packs of cigarettes a day. He is likely to experience a. a new role. b. a new attitude. c. new attributions. d. cognitive dissonance. ANSWER: d 66. Colton is in favor of allowing teachers to have guns in their classrooms. His attitude began to change when he was assigned to argue the opposing viewpoint in debate class. His attitude change is best explained by ________ theory. a. cognitive dissonance b. role-playing c. attribution d. two-factor ANSWER: a 67. We are most likely to experience cognitive dissonance if we feel a. little sense of responsibility for engaging in behaviors of which we personally disapprove. b. little sense of responsibility for engaging in behaviors of which we personally approve. c. a great sense of responsibility for engaging in behaviors of which we personally disapprove. d. a great sense of responsibility for engaging in behaviors of which we personally approve. ANSWER: c 68. Before Landon began his first year of college, he told his friend Nolan that he thought that pledging for a fraternity involved dangerous activities and so he would never consider joining one. During Landon's first week on campus, a fraternity member invited him toScholarFriends.com a social function and encouraged him to pledge. After Landon attended the party, he told Nolan, "Fraternities do a lot of good things for the community. They're really service Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice organizations." Landon's change in attitude illustrates a. cognitive dissonance theory. b. role-playing theory. c. attribution theory. d. two-factor theory. ANSWER: a 69. Madison has very strong opinions about increases in textbook prices. However, when Madison becomes a sales rep for a textbook publisher, she develops a more favorable attitude about the price increases. Which theory best explains why? a. attribution theory b. two-factor theory c. cognitive dissonance theory d. role-playing theory ANSWER: c 70. Nevach decides to make a positive change in his life. Instead of going to work with a frown on his face, he will force himself to smile when he walks into work. According to ________, by altering his behavior Nevach is likely to change his negative attitude about work. a. the foot-in-the-door phenomenon b. informational social influence c. cognitive dissonance theory d. attribution theory ANSWER: c 71. Although we often cannot directly control all of our feelings, we can influence our feelings by changing our behavior, according to a. cognitive dissonance theory. b. social facilitation theory. c. attribution theory. d. role-playing theory. ANSWER: a 72. Peripheral route persuasion involves a. offering evidence and arguments in hopes of motivating careful thinking. b. the tendency, when analyzing others' behavior, to overestimate the influence of personal traits and underestimate the effects of the situation. c. being influenced by unimportant cues, such as a speaker's attractiveness. d. the tendency for people who have first agreed to a small request to comply later with a larger request. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com

73. Many ads owe their success to the association of their product with a celebrity. This strategy best illustrates Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice a. central route persuasion. b. cognitive dissonance. c. peripheral route persuasion. d. role-playing. ANSWER: c 74. Which of the following illustrates peripheral route persuasion? a. Dan searches Consumer Reports for ratings and information on new dishwashers. b. Liam provides research-based evidence to Noah about the benefits of buying a gym membership. c. Donna, who is a city councilperson, provides the mayor with information and evidence on the benefits of spending more money on bike trails. d. Ethan is tempted to buy a new car because he is impressed that his favorite actor advertises the car on television commercials. ANSWER: d 75. Opinion change resulting from a thoughtful focus on the evidence and arguments illustrates a. central route persuasion. b. peripheral route persuasion. c. the fundamental attributional error. d. cognitive dissonance. ANSWER: a 76. Compared with peripheral route persuasion, central route persuasion tends to a. be more durable. b. occur more rapidly. c. be more likely to influence behavior. d. involve a greater number of logical arguments. ANSWER: a 77. Jenna is about to vote in a presidential election. Jenna chose a particular candidate because she agrees with her policies on taxes, health care, and climate change. Jenna made her decision on the basis of a. the foot-in-the-door phenomenon. b. peripheral route persuasion. c. central route persuasion. d. cognitive dissonance. ANSWER: c 78. Eliana is looking to purchase a new tablet. The sales representative shows her the features of each tablet she is considering, explaining the pros and cons of purchasing each. The sales rep's strategy illustrates a. central route persuasion. b. cognitive dissonance. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice c. peripheral route persuasion. d. role-playing. ANSWER: a 79. Roman, who sells TV sets, provides his customers with information on all models and honestly explains all their pros and cons. Roman is using a. role-playing. b. cognitive dissonance. c. peripheral route persuasion. d. central route persuasion. ANSWER: d 80. When people actively process a message, they more often retain it. This is described by the a. foot-in-the-door phenomenon. b. peripheral route persuasion. c. elaboration likelihood model. d. cognitive dissonance. ANSWER: c 81. After hearing a lecture on the nutritional value of eating edamame, Levi carefully reads the research on edamame, which confirms the lecturer's statements. According to the ________, Levi is likely to retain the information he heard at the lecture. a. foot-in-the-door phenomenon. b. peripheral route persuasion. c. elaboration likelihood model. d. cognitive dissonance. ANSWER: c 82. Steven and Terrance are in their psychology class and the topic being covered today is violent crime. The professor asks the class what things society can do to help reduce violent crime. Steven raises his hand and answers "Close the border." Terrance disagrees and is upset by Steven's answer. Which of the following is the best option for Terrance in terms of how to persuade Steven? a. raise his voice when responding to Steven b. imply that Steven is ignorant c. provide Steven complex data related to immigration and crime d. try to find a shared goal with Steven ANSWER: d 83. Janet is debating political views online when she calls another person an "idiot." What is likely to happen? a. Janet will successfully convince the person to agree with her stance. b. Janet will not be able to persuade the other person. ScholarFriends.com c. The other person will persuade Janet to agree with their view. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice d. The other person will agree with Janet. ANSWER: b 84. Which of the following is NOT one of the major "Do nots" regarding persuading others? a. loudly arguing with those who do not agree with you b. insulting those who do not agree with you c. appealing to the admirable motives of those who do not agree with you d. boring those who do not agree with you with complex information ANSWER: c 85. Early one morning, Jade is the only passenger on a public bus. After several stops, a second passenger boards and chooses the seat directly beside Jade, even though the bus is otherwise empty. Although Jade often sits beside others when the bus is crowded, in this situation, she feels surprised and uncomfortable. This best illustrates the impact of a. individualism. b. collectivism. c. mood linkage. d. social norms. ANSWER: d 86. The enduring traditions, ideas, values, attitudes, and behaviors shared by a group of people and transmitted from one generation to the next define their a. group polarization. b. deindividuation. c. conformity. d. culture. ANSWER: d 87. Whether people enjoy watching cricket matches or baseball games depends on their a. values. b. culture. c. conformity. d. informational social influence. ANSWER: b 88. The invention and transmission of dating and courtship customs best illustrate a. conformity b. cultural influences. c. central route persuasion. d. the foot-in-the-door phenomenon. ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 89. The transmission of shared knowledge and customs across generations is an indication of a. groupthink. b. collectivism. c. culture. d. individualism. ANSWER: c 90. The transmission of a democratic political system from one generation to the next best illustrates the impact of a. culture. b. group polarization. c. groupthink. d. collectivism. ANSWER: a 91. The preservation of innovation best illustrates the survival value of a. culture. b. scapegoating. c. individualism. d. collectivism. ANSWER: a 92. Which of the following does NOT demonstrate the preservation of innovation? a. social living b. imitation c. language d. cultural differences ANSWER: d 93. The many professional specialties by which people support themselves and their societies best illustrate that culture enables a. conformity. b. social facilitation. c. division of labor. d. deindividuation. ANSWER: c 94. Irina and Sofia both work for a travel agency. Irina prepares the media advertising and customer emails, while Sofia works with the customers to book vacation trips. Their combined efforts for the company's success illustrate a. conformity. ScholarFriends.com b. division of labor. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice c. central route persuasion. d. the foot-in-the-door phenomenon. ANSWER: b 95. People are most likely to notice the impact of environmental influences on behavior when confronted by a. central route persuasion. b. social loafing. c. cultural diversity. d. groupthink. ANSWER: c 96. Collectivism is valued in the everyday practices of people from a. Asian countries. b. African countries. c. Latin American countries. d. all of these countries. ANSWER: d 97. A collectivist culture is especially likely to emphasize the importance of a. social harmony. b. personal privacy. c. innovation and creativity. d. racial diversity. ANSWER: a 98. People living in a culture that promotes collectivism are more likely than those in individualist cultures to report experiencing a. happiness. b. family obligations. c. personal freedom. d. marital romance. ANSWER: b 99. Individualism is valued in the everyday practices of people from a. Asian countries. b. African countries. c. Western European countries. d. Latin American countries. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com 100. Phyllis lives in Sydney, Australia, an individualist society. Which of the following is best associated with Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice her social norms? a. maintain connections b. interdependent c. an independent, separate self d. morality is defined by social networks ANSWER: c 101. The independent self is most closely associated with a culture that values a. central route persuasion. b. individualism. c. conformity. d. social harmony. ANSWER: b 102. A willingness to leave your extended family and migrate to a new place best illustrates one of the consequences of a. collectivism. b. social facilitation. c. individualism. d. group polarization. ANSWER: c 103. Professor Zuercher believes that her students' most important personal characteristics are those that distinguish them as uniquely different from most other people. Her attitude best illustrates one of the consequences of a. individualism. b. social facilitation. c. collectivism. d. deindividuation. ANSWER: a 104. Individualism is to collectivism as ________ is to ________. a. norm; role b. group polarization; groupthink c. independence; interdependence d. central route persuasion; peripheral route persuasion ANSWER: c 105. The rules of a culture for accepted and expected behavior are a. group pressure. b. norms. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice c. attitudes. d. dispositions. ANSWER: b 106. The practice of covering your mouth when you cough best illustrates the impact of a. genetics. b. group pressure. c. culture shock. d. norms. ANSWER: d 107. A culture in which most people obey social norms is considered a ________ culture; a culture in which people adhere to these norms with more variability is considered a ________ culture. a. tight; loose b. loose; tight c. variable; conforming d. conforming; variable ANSWER: a 108. Guney avoids cutting ahead of people in line because other people think it is rude and inappropriate. This best illustrates the impact of a. individualism. b. cognitive dissonance. c. stereotypes. d. social norms. ANSWER: d 109. A tight culture is a culture in which a. norms are flexible and informal. b. there is more variability in the customs. c. norms are clearly defined and reliably imposed. d. people focus on an independent, separate self. ANSWER: c 110. Sanjay lives in a tight culture. It is therefore likely that Sanjay considers it ________ to arrive late for a dinner appointment or to kiss his sweetheart in public. a. socially unacceptable b. socially permissible c. socially variable d. socially normative ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 111. A loose culture is a culture in which a. norms are flexible and informal. b. there is more variability in the customs. c. norms are clearly defined and reliably imposed. d. people focus on an independent, separate self. ANSWER: a 112. Nicole lives in a loose culture. It is therefore likely that Nicole considers it ________ to jaywalk, display affection in public, and arrive slightly late to an event. a. socially unacceptable b. socially permissible c. socially variable d. socially normative ANSWER: b 113. Stricter adherence to social norms is to a ________ culture as more flexible adherence to social norms is to a ________ culture. a. tight; loose b. loose; tight c. variable; conforming d. conforming; variable ANSWER: a 114. Each cultural pattern has benefits: tight cultures coordinate their actions well, thus ensuring ________, whereas loose cultures allow for ________. a. group polarization; social facilitation b. outstanding public transportation; creativity and innovation c. peripheral route persuasion; central route persuasion d. creativity and innovation; outstanding public transportation ANSWER: b 115. The speed at which cultures have changed over the centuries can be explained by a. norms are flexible and informal. b. the human gene pool. c. norms are clearly defined and reliably imposed. d. people focus on an independent, separate self. ANSWER: a 116. Nicole lives in a loose culture. It is therefore likely that Nicole considers it ________ to jaywalk, display affection in public, and arrive slightly late to an event. a. socially unacceptable ScholarFriends.com b. socially permissible Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice c. socially variable d. socially normative ANSWER: b 117. Since 1960, Americans have experienced a(n) a. increase in the incidence of depression and a decrease in work hours. b. decrease in the incidence of depression and an increase in work hours. c. increase in the incidence of depression and an increase in work hours. d. decrease in the incidence of depression and a decrease in work hours. ANSWER: c 118. Since 1960, most Western cultures have changed with remarkable speed. The LEAST likely explanation for these variations involves changes in a. communication systems. b. the human gene pool. c. scientific knowledge. d. social norms. ANSWER: b 119. In comparison to 1960, most Western cultures have changed with astonishing speed. For example, a. legal protections cover fewer members of society. b. human rights have been restricted. c. people earn less than they did then. d. civil rights have expanded. ANSWER: d 120. When Connie is eating dinner with her father, her father yawns. Connie then yawns too. This is likely related to a. social contagion. b. conformity. c. normative social influence. d. obedience. ANSWER: a 121. In one experiment, researchers had students work in a room beside another person, who was actually an accomplice working for the experimenters. Sometimes the accomplice would rub their face and other times they would shake their foot. Students tended to rub their face with the face-rubbing accomplice and then shake their foot with the foot-shaking accomplice. This research demonstrated a. social contagion. b. conformity. c. mood contagion. ScholarFriends.com d. cognitive dissonance. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 122. Unconsciously mimicking those around us is known as a. group polarization. b. the chameleon effect. c. social facilitation. d. social loafing. ANSWER: b 123. If a group of people are standing on the street staring at a cloud formation in the sky, people walking by them will also pause to look. This best illustrates a. social facilitation. b. deindividuation. c. social loafing. d. the chameleon effect. ANSWER: d 124. Brandice is listening to a music station on the car radio. A joyous love song is playing, which makes Brandice feel happy. This demonstrates a. conformity. b. cognitive dissonance. c. obedience. d. mood contagion. ANSWER: d 125. When his dog scratches its ear, Ravlee also scratches his ear. This is an example of a. informational social influence. b. natural mimicry. c. cognitive dissonance. d. personal control. ANSWER: b 126. ________ is to feel what others are feeling. a. Empathy b. Conformity c. Obedience d. Deindividuation ANSWER: a 127. Which of the following is most likely to help us empathize with others? a. deindividuation ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice b. natural mimicry c. social loafing d. social facilitation ANSWER: b 128. Lydia tends to ________ people she likes. a. ignore b. argue with c. avoid d. mimic ANSWER: d 129. Nieme has a large circle of friends who are always eager to spend time with her. This is most likely because she smiles when they smile and frowns when they frown. In other words, she seems to match their moods. Researchers would suggest that this natural mimicry is a component of a. empathy. b. deindividuation. c. personal control. d. conformity. ANSWER: a 130. Which of the following statements is true? a. Social contagion is limited to behavior. b. Empathic mimicking leads to abhorring. c. Natural mimicry helps people to empathize. d. Social contagion is associated with deindividuation. ANSWER: c 131. Research has found that ________ synchronizes movements between two people and increases rapport and empathy. a. going for a walk with someone b. sitting across from someone c. eating lunch with someone d. talking to someone ANSWER: a 132. You and your coworker Halina don't always get along. But one evening after work, you and Halina end up walking a mile to the bus stop together. This experience may a. demonstrate conformity. b. lead to social contagion. c. help you empathize with her. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice d. demonstrate normative social influence. ANSWER: c 133. Adjusting our behavior or thinking toward a group standard is called a. groupthink. b. natural mimicry. c. social loafing. d. conformity. ANSWER: d 134. Ten-year-old Mava is watching her friends work out on the balance beams. At first, she is afraid to do so until her friends call her a "chicken." She then gets up on the beam and attempts a handstand. Mava's behavior illustrates a. groupthink. b. conformity. c. social loafing. d. social facilitation. ANSWER: b 135. The social psychologist who is best known for his pioneering studies of conformity is a. Solomon Asch. b. Stanley Milgram. c. Leon Festinger. d. Norman Triplett. ANSWER: a 136. Research participants believed that the Asch conformity test involved a study of a. natural mimicry. b. visual perception. c. learning. d. aggression. ANSWER: b 137. Solomon Asch reported that individuals conformed to a group's judgment of the lengths of lines a. only when the group was composed of at least six members. b. even when the group judgment was clearly incorrect. c. even when the group seemed uncertain and repeatedly altered its judgment. d. only when members of the group were friends prior to the experiment. ANSWER: b 138. Researchers find that conformity to the group is more likely when all of the following occur EXCEPT ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice a. one is made to feel secure. b. one has not made a prior commitment to any response. c. the group is unanimous. d. one admires the group's status and attractiveness. ANSWER: a 139. Stasia has just gone along with the decision of the other students in her study group, although she isn't sure she agrees with them. It is most likely that Stasia a. feels competent and secure. b. witnessed someone else disagreeing. c. was in a group with more than three people. d. felt that the other group members were of a lower status. ANSWER: c 140. Parker thinks smoking is addictive but other players on his hockey team insist that it's not. Parker is likely to conform to their opinion if a. he has publicly voiced his opinion on this issue. b. there is obvious disagreement among team players regarding the issue. c. he feels insecure in his role as a new team member. d. there are very few team members whom he currently wants to befriend. ANSWER: c 141. Mr. Zuercher is on his company's committee to review possible promotions. Other committee members want to begin promoting employees based only on length of employment. Mr. Zuercher personally disagrees, but he will probably vote in favor of their plan if a. the other committee members are all in favor of the plan. b. he states his personal opinion early in the committee's discussion. c. the committee votes by private ballot. d. he has a high level of self-esteem. ANSWER: a 142. Individuals are likely to conform to the responses of other group members if they ________ already publicly committed themselves to their own personal response and if they know that others in the group ________ observe their response. a. have; will b. have; will not c. have not; will d. have not; will not ANSWER: c 143. Our desire to gain others' approval and avoid their rejection most clearly contributes to the powerful ScholarFriends.com influence of Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice a. social loafing. b. deindividuation. c. social norms. d. cognitive dissonance. ANSWER: c 144. Our desire to gain others' approval and avoid their rejection most clearly contributes to the powerful influence of a. social loafing. b. deindividuation. c. social norms. d. cognitive dissonance. ANSWER: c 145. Aaron prefers hanging out in jeans and a T-shirt and tries to avoid any events requiring more formal attire. However, for a meeting with a potential client, Aaron puts on a suit and tie. Aaron's behavior best illustrates a. social loafing. b. social norms. c. deindividuation. d. social facilitation. ANSWER: b 146. Normative social influence results from people's desire to a. clarify reality. b. maintain personal control. c. gain social approval. d. demonstrate self-restraint. ANSWER: c 147. Caroline reads numerous social media posts about whether to teach young children about gender identity. Many of the posts come across as anti-LGBTQ and Caroline disagrees with them. However, because the negative comments are posted by friends, Caroline posts that she agrees with them. This is likely related to a. normative social influence. b. informational social influence. c. obedience to authority. d. general social facilitation. ANSWER: a 148. Amaya rarely wears a skirt or anything dressier than a pair of jeans, but it's her brother's bar mitzvah, so she gets dressed up. Amaya's behavior illustrates the importance of a. deindividuation. ScholarFriends.com b. informational social influence. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice c. normative social influence. d. social facilitation. ANSWER: c 149. Rahima writes on social media that she agrees with her friends that teenagers should be allowed to vape. Later that day, she tells her parents that she thinks that vaping is dangerous for teenagers. Rahima's public conformity to her friends' opinion best illustrates the power of a. deindividuation. b. normative social influence. c. informational social influence. d. social facilitation. ANSWER: b 150. The term used to describe that norms are changing is a. dynamic norms. b. social contagion. c. conformity. d. normative social influence. ANSWER: a 151. Accepting others' opinions about reality is to ________ as the desire to gain approval is to ________. a. deindividuation; social facilitation b. social facilitation; deindividuation c. informational social influence; normative social influence d. normative social influence; informational social influence ANSWER: c 152. Informational social influence is defined as a. influence resulting from a person's desire to gain approval from others. b. improved performance on simple tasks in the presence of others. c. adjusting our behavior to coincide with a group standard. d. influence resulting from the acceptance of others' opinions about reality. ANSWER: d 153. Staren's doctor tells him that his blood test shows high cholesterol, which may lead to heart problems. Staren, who never exercises, knows that exercise will help bring the number down, so he now rides his bike three times a week. The change in Staren's behavior best illustrates the impact of a. normative social influence. b. cognitive dissonance. c. social facilitation. d. informational social influence. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 154. Camila was an avid believer in astrology until she saw a documentary demonstrating that it is not a real science and heard her psychology professor refute the claims made by astrologers. This evidence persuaded her to adopt the views of her professor and the documentary. This change of opinion demonstrates the impact of a. normative social influence. b. cognitive dissonance. c. social facilitation. d. informational social influence. ANSWER: d 155. Individualist and loose cultures are most likely to encourage a. lower conformity. b. deindividuation. c. groupthink. d. mood linkage. ANSWER: a 156. If a cross-cultural researcher investigates conformity in both collectivist cultures and individualist cultures, she is generally likely to find a. conformity tends to be higher in collectivist cultures than in individualist cultures. b. conformity tends to be lower in collectivist cultures than in individualist cultures. c. there is no difference in the level of conformity between collectivist cultures and individualist cultures. d. conformity in individualist cultures does not seem to carry the same negative connotations that it does in collectivist cultures. ANSWER: a 157. Who is most likely to conform to a group? a. Samantha, who is from the United States b. Mark, who lives in Australia c. Margo, who is from Europe d. Jwa, who is from Korea ANSWER: d 158. The social psychologist who is best known for his controversial studies investigating destructive obedience to an authority is a. Solomon Asch. b. Leon Festinger. c. Stanley Milgram. d. Norman Triplett. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 159. Participants in the Milgram obedience studies were ordered to a. share their values with a group of strangers. b. write an essay supporting a position they didn't believe in. c. deliver electric shocks to a learner for giving incorrect answers. d. participate in a team tug-of-war by pulling on a rope as hard as they could. ANSWER: c 160. Most people are likely to be surprised by the results of Milgram's initial obedience experiment because the a. "learners" made so few learning errors under stressful circumstances. b. "teachers" actually enjoyed shocking another person. c. "teachers" were more obedient than most people would have predicted. d. "learners" obediently accepted painful shocks without any protest. ANSWER: c 161. In Milgram's original obedience study, if the "teacher" protested that he wished to stop or that he was worried about the "learner's" safety, what did the experimenter do? a. The experimenter immediately stopped the experiment. b. The experimenter ignored the protests. c. The experimenter said, "Please continue — the experiment requires that you continue." d. The experimenter offered the "teacher" more money to continue. ANSWER: c 162. What were the basic results of psychologist Stanley Milgram's original obedience study? a. Only about one-third of the participants continued to obey the experimenter and administer shocks beyond the 350-volt level. b. Despite hearing protests from the "learner" in another room, more than 60 percent of the participants continued to administer shocks all the way to the full 450-volt level. c. The majority of the participants refused to continue the experiment when the "learner" first protested that the shocks were painful at the 90-volt level. d. Even though ordered by the experimenter to do so, no participant went beyond the 300-volt level. ANSWER: b 163. In Milgram's original obedience experiment, participants who were assigned the role of "teacher" a. were deceived about the real role of the "learner" and the level of shock that he actually received. b. were told to stop whenever they felt the slightest discomfort about what they were doing. c. seemed to enjoy shocking the "learner," especially at the higher voltage levels. d. quickly figured out that the "learner" was not really being shocked. ANSWER: a 164. In the Milgram experiments, the level of obedience was highest when the "teacher" was ________ the ScholarFriends.com experimenter and ________ the "learner." Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice a. close to; close to b. far from; far from c. close to; far from d. far from; close to ANSWER: c 165. Which of the following is NOT a contributing factor for obedience? a. The person giving orders is viewed as an authority figure. b. The person giving orders is in close proximity to the participant. c. There are role models of defiance. d. There is depersonalization. ANSWER: c 166. In Dr. Zuniga's experiment on obedience to authority, participants are instructed to deliver shocks as punishment for incorrect answers given by a confederate of the researcher. How can Dr. Zuniga increase the likelihood of the participants' obedience? a. He can set up the learning laboratory in a room above a restaurant. b. He can make sure the participants know that he has a Ph.D. from a prestigious university. c. He can make the participants think he is unsure of his role as an authority figure. d. He can have a second confederate in the room, who should be a role model for defiant behavior. ANSWER: b 167. In Milgram's obedience experiments, "teachers" were most likely to deliver high levels of shock when a. the experimenter was perceived to be an ordinary college student like themselves. b. the "learner" was placed in a different room from the "teacher." c. they saw that other "learners" disobeyed the experimenter. d. they saw how "learners" who disobeyed the experimenter were punished. ANSWER: b 168. In Milgram's obedience experiments, "teachers" would most likely exhibit a somewhat lower level of compliance with an experimenter's orders if a. the experiment was not associated with a prestigious institution like Yale University. b. the "learner" complained of a slight heart condition just before the experiment began. c. the "learner" screamed as the shocks became more punishing. d. the "learner" was in another room where his physical well-being couldn't be observed by the "teacher." ANSWER: a 169. In the summer of 1942, 485 German reserve police officers obeyed their visibly upset commander's orders to kill some 1500 Jews, including women, children, and older adults, in the village of Jozefow, Poland. This incident illustrated that people are most likely ScholarFriends.com to be destructively obedient when a. they fail to realize their actions are morally wrong. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice b. their victims are close by and depersonalized. c. they perceive their orders to come from legitimate authority figures. d. they derive personal satisfaction from destructive acts. ANSWER: c 170. According to Milgram, the most fundamental lesson to be learned from his study of obedience is that a. people are naturally predisposed to be hostile and aggressive. b. even ordinary people, who are not usually hostile, can become agents of destruction. c. the desire to be accepted by others is one of the strongest human motives. d. people value their personal freedom and react negatively when they feel they are being coerced to do something. ANSWER: b 171. The impact of the foot-in-the-door phenomenon is most clearly illustrated by a. the connection of like-minded individuals online. b. President John F. Kennedy's ill-fated decision to invade Cuba. c. the tragic murder of Kitty Genovese just outside her New York apartment. d. the destructive obedience of participants in the Milgram experiments. ANSWER: d 172. Those who assert their freedom by refusing to yield to conformity pressures best illustrate a. cognitive dissonance. b. deindividuation. c. the chameleon effect. d. personal control. ANSWER: d 173. The same set of harmful social pressures that corrupts some individuals can lead others to respond with a healthy resistance. This best illustrates the ________ of social control and personal control. a. normative influence b. conformity c. deindividuation d. interaction ANSWER: d 174. Our tendency to give in to group pressure or pressure from situations is called a. social control. b. social facilitation. c. informational social influence. d. personal control. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 175. Although he wears jeans almost every day, Santiago wears proper shorts while playing pickleball because his community center prefers them. Santiago's behavior illustrates the influence of a. social facilitation. b. social control. c. informational social influence. d. personal control. ANSWER: b 176. Patty and Jack are afraid that their 15-year-old daughter's new friends may get her into trouble with the law. They tell their daughter, Eva, that she cannot hang out with these friends, so she begins sneaking out of the house at night to be with them. Eva's response to her parents' demands illustrates a. personal control. b. normative social influence. c. the chameleon effect. d. conformity. ANSWER: a 177. The power of one or two individuals to sway a majority is known as a. normative social influence. b. minority influence. c. informational social influence. d. obedience. ANSWER: b 178. Owen strongly believes in the importance of climate control and has started an online group to get the message across to as many people as possible. Despite the opposing opinions of some people, Owen remains committed to his viewpoint. Owen's behavior illustrates a. minority influence. b. normative social influence. c. the chameleon effect. d. conformity. ANSWER: a 179. Research has shown that if you are the minority in a group, you are more likely to influence the majority if you a. hold firmly to your position. b. are popular in the group. c. are generally an influential person. d. have low self-confidence. ANSWER: a ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 180. Grayson is the only congressional representative to favor maintaining the current election laws. To influence the majority he should a. express some uncertainty about his position. b. be self-confident and consistent in expressing his viewpoint. c. be the last member to speak and present his argument as briefly as possible. d. address his arguments specifically to the member of the majority who seems most disagreeable. ANSWER: b 181. To study social facilitation, Norman Triplett observed adolescents while they were a. judging the lengths of lines. b. winding fishing reels. c. mimicking emotions. d. conforming to group pressure. ANSWER: b 182. Social facilitation refers to the tendency to a. neglect critical thinking because of a strong desire for social harmony within a group. b. perform well-learned tasks more effectively in the presence of others. c. lose self-restraint in group situations that foster anonymity. d. comply with a large request if one has previously complied with a small request. ANSWER: b 183. The presence of others a. improves our performance on difficult tasks. b. improves verbal performance only. c. strengthens our most likely response. d. hinders our performance. ANSWER: c 184. When a task is relatively simple or well-rehearsed, the presence of other people tends to enhance individual performance, a pattern called a. social loafing. b. groupthink. c. social facilitation. d. deindividuation. ANSWER: c 185. Our most likely response in the presence of others is the a. incorrect one on an easy task. b. correct one on a difficult task. ScholarFriends.com c. correct one on an easy task and the incorrect one on a difficult task. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice d. correct one on a difficult task and the incorrect one on an easy task. ANSWER: c 186. Zoey takes a piano lesson every week. She enjoys playing and practices on her own between lessons. At the piano recital, Zoey receives a hearty round of applause. This demonstrates how the presence of others can a. improve performance on difficult tasks. b. worsen the performance on easy tasks. c. worsen the performance on intrinsically motivated tasks. d. improve performance on well-learned tasks. ANSWER: d 187. Professional athletic events in various countries have shown a home-team advantage of 54 percent in Major League Baseball games. This best illustrates a. social facilitation. b. group polarization. c. conformity. d. social loafing. ANSWER: a 188. The presence of others does not always lead to social facilitation because a. an increasing familiarity with novel stimuli facilitates free riding. b. the loss of self-restraint often accompanies arousal and anonymity. c. a high level of arousal inhibits the correct performance of difficult tasks. d. group discussion enhances whatever attitude is initially dominant in a group. ANSWER: c 189. Expert pool players were observed to make 71 percent of their shots when alone. When four people watched them, they made 80 percent of their shots. This improvement illustrates the influence of a. social facilitation. b. group polarization. c. deindividuation. d. social loafing. ANSWER: a 190. On which of the following tasks would the presence of others be most likely to lead to improved performance? a. reciting the months of the year in alphabetical order b. learning foreign language words c. counting backward from 10 to 1 d. learning nonsense syllables ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 191. Adelin is an expert gymnast. When practicing at the local gym, her performance improves significantly as soon as people start watching her. Adelin's improved performance illustrates a. social facilitation. b. group polarization. c. deindividuation. d. groupthink. ANSWER: a 192. Dominic just started playing tennis and has very little confidence in his skills, especially his serve. One day when he was practicing by himself, a friend offered to play with him. He proceeded to serve the ball outside the lines. This illustrates that a. an increasing familiarity with novel stimuli facilitates performance. b. the loss of self-restraint often accompanies arousal and anonymity. c. a high level of arousal inhibits the correct performance of difficult tasks. d. group discussion enhances whatever attitude is initially dominant in a group. ANSWER: c 193. Linda is watching her son complete his math homework and has noticed that he is answering all the math problems incorrectly. This may be because he a. would rather be outside playing. b. dislikes his math teacher. c. already finds math difficult. d. has not learned this particular math concept. ANSWER: c 194. Comedy routines that are mildly amusing to people in an uncrowded room seem funnier in a densely packed room. This is best explained in terms of a. deindividuation. b. social facilitation. c. social loafing. d. group polarization. ANSWER: b 195. With a packed audience. John's comedy routine a. seems funnier. b. is not at all funny. c. is mildly funny. d. comes across as insensitive. ANSWER: a 196. Students were observed to pull harder in aScholarFriends.com tug-of-war when they knew they were pulling alone than when they thought three others were pulling behind them. This best illustrates Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice a. social loafing. b. deindividuation. c. group polarization. d. social facilitation. ANSWER: a 197. Social loafing refers to the tendency for people to a. perform a complex task more poorly when others are present. b. exert less effort when they are pooling their efforts toward a common goal. c. exert less effort when they are paid by the hour, not by the amount of work completed. d. become more distracted from their tasks when working with friends than when working with strangers. ANSWER: b 198. Social loafing has been found to be especially common among a. women in cultures that value collectivism. b. women in cultures that value individualism. c. men in cultures that value collectivism. d. men in cultures that value individualism. ANSWER: d 199. People sometimes feel less personally accountable and less concerned about what others think of them when acting as part of a group. This most clearly contributes to a. social facilitation. b. group polarization. c. social loafing. d. cognitive dissonance. ANSWER: c 200. Social loafing is most likely to occur among a. audience members who are asked to applaud after a speaker is introduced. b. factory workers paid on the basis of individual level of productivity. c. a group of runners competing for first place in a race. d. students who are each assigned a different topic for their course term papers. ANSWER: a 201. Caleb is the only student working on a class project who is not majoring in economics. He knows that the others are economics majors and need to get a good grade on this project. Caleb therefore is depending on them to do most of the work. Caleb is demonstrating a. social facilitation. b. group polarization. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice c. social loafing. d. deindividuation. ANSWER: c 202. Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons that people engage in social loafing? a. They feel less accountable for the work. b. They view individual contributions to the work as unnecessary. c. They free ride on the efforts of others. d. They underestimate their contributions and overestimate those of others. ANSWER: d 203. Brielle is working with several classmates on a term paper for her history class. Which of the following would NOT be a factor in her decision to engage in social loafing? a. feeling more accountable for the group project b. viewing individual contributions to the project as dispensable c. overestimating her own contributions to the group project d. being unmotivated and not identifying with the group members ANSWER: a 204. Miles, Claire, Joshua, Leah, and Ruby are working on a group project for their sociology class. They will all receive the same grade for the project. While Joshua, Leah, and Ruby are making every effort to prepare a top-notch project , Miles and Claire are doing very little work. Which aspect of social loafing applies to Miles and Claire's lack of work? a. They feel less accountable for the work. b. They view their contributions as dispensable. c. They have overestimated the level of their effort on the project. d. They are taking a free ride on the efforts of the other members of the group. ANSWER: d 205. Deindividuation refers to a. a lack of critical thinking due to a strong desire for social harmony within a group. b. the tendency to comply with a large request after agreeing to a small request. c. a loss of self-awareness and self-restraint in group situations that fosters arousal and anonymity. d. the enhancement of a group's prevailing attitudes through group discussion. ANSWER: c 206. When some female students were dressed in Ku Klux Klan–style hoods, they delivered twice as much presumed electric shock to a victim as those in a control group. This finding is best explained in terms of a. social facilitation. b. groupthink. c. deindividuation. ScholarFriends.com d. minority influence. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 207. During a protest, a large sporting event, or an anonymous social media group, people may lose selfawareness and self-restraint. This is known as a. normative social influence. b. social facilitation. c. deindividuation. d. social loafing. ANSWER: c 208. While you are browsing your social media, you see several posts that would be considered hate speech. This type of posting is likely because of a. social contagion. b. social facilitation. c. social loafing. d. deindividuation. ANSWER: d 209. Cyberbullying and online hate speech can both be explained by a. social loafing. b. social facilitation. c. conformity. d. deindividuation. ANSWER: d 210. After a close-scoring football game in which the local team loses by a field goal, fans are so upset that they run on the field and start tearing down the goal post. This behavior is best understood in terms of a. groupthink. b. deindividuation. c. group polarization. d. social facilitation. ANSWER: b 211. Circumstances that decrease ________ are likely to increase ________. a. anonymity; social loafing b. self-awareness; deindividuation c. anonymity; groupthink d. self-awareness; social facilitation ANSWER: b 212. As you are reading through online social media posts about a recent basketball game, you notice that many ScholarFriends.com of them are unnecessarily harsh. These may be related to the fact that the posters feel Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice a. accountable. b. deindividuated. c. responsible. d. dispensable. ANSWER: b 213. Zeyton is angry with the schoolmates who made fun of him, but fear of angry backlash prevents him from expressing his views openly. Instead, he uses the anonymity of the internet to express his anger. This demonstrates a. social loafing. b. deindividuation. c. accountability. d. social facilitation. ANSWER: b 214. Which of the following helps to counteract deindividuation? a. heightening self-awareness b. heightening feelings of anonymity c. heightening antisocial behavior d. heightening arousal ANSWER: a 215. Professor Gillman is a psychologist who is helping law enforcement officers prevent damaging behavior during protest marches. He knows this behavior is caused by situations that foster deindividuation. To help counteract deindividuation, the police should increase a. self-awareness. b. feelings of anonymity. c. antisocial behavior. d. arousal. ANSWER: a 216. Every Halloween, Mrs. Coakley puts a bowl of candy on her porch with a sign that says, "Take one." This year the bowl was empty after just a few minutes, leading Mrs. Coakley to believe that one group of children took more than their fair share. To discourage such dishonest actions, Mrs. Coakley positioned a mirror above the candy bowl, which should work because a. children who can see their own costumes will be too distracted to take candy. b. seeing your own face in a mirror heightens self-awareness, counteracting deindividuation that can lead to irresponsible behavior. c. self-reflection increases in-group behavior. d. seeing your own face in a mirror heightens the sense of being watched, inhibiting irresponsible behavior. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 217. The enhancement of a group's prevailing inclinations through group discussion is called a. group polarization. b. social facilitation. c. cognitive dissonance. d. the chameleon effect. ANSWER: a 218. Group polarization is most likely to occur in a group in which a. little communication is possible. b. individuals share a similar opinion. c. each individual has a unique perspective. d. individuals have not formed any opinion. ANSWER: b 219. At a meeting of their university's Students for the Environment club, members are discussing recycling. During their conversation, their attitudes change to an increased promotion of the benefits of recycling. This is related to a. group polarization. b. the chameleon effect. c. social facilitation. d. deindividuation. ANSWER: a 220. Melani, Ethan, Jacob, and Adrian each think that Ms. Bakare may be a better teacher than Mr. Constantin. After discussing why each of them believes this to be so, they all conclude that Ms. Bakare is definitely a better teacher than Mr. Constantin. This episode provides an example of a. social facilitation. b. groupthink. c. group polarization. d. deindividuation. ANSWER: c 221. Groups of citizens from conservative Midland, Texas, and groups of citizens from liberal San Francisco, California, were asked to discuss socially relevant issues such as climate change and same-sex marriage. After group discussion, the groups from Midland expressed increasingly ________ positions and the groups from San Francisco expressed increasingly ________ positions. a. liberal; liberal b. moderate; moderate c. conservative; liberal d. liberal; conservative ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 222. People who believe that same-sex marriage should be allowed, in fact, encouraged, meet to discuss the issue. Research on group interaction suggests that after discussion the individuals will be a. even more in favor of same-sex marriage. b. convinced that same-sex marriage should be prohibited. c. sharply divided over the issue of same-sex marriage. d. in favor of a more moderate position on the issue. ANSWER: a 223. A mentality that becomes increasingly extreme among people who interact without outside moderating influences best illustrates a. groupthink. b. deindividuation. c. group polarization. d. social loafing. ANSWER: c 224. Several college students who are pro-Black Lives Matter meet to discuss issues related to BLM. During the conversation, their attitudes become even more positive, and they vow to work toward a more diversified country. This best illustrates a. group polarization. b. the chameleon effect. c. social facilitation. d. deindividuation. ANSWER: a 225. Rain is a breast cancer survivor who interacts with other survivors online. This demonstrates that the internet can be a source of a. groupthink. b. emotional healing. c. deindividuation. d. social facilitation. ANSWER: b 226. Claudine's son has just been diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS). She doesn't know how to handle her negative emotions and do what's best for her son, so she joins an online support group for parents who have children with MS. This may actually a. lead to Mandi conforming to the group. b. evoke feelings of deindividuation for Mandi. c. bring emotional healing to Mandi. d. lead to group polarization. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 227. The internet can be an avenue to strengthen social movements, lending support for the notion of a. group polarization. b. emotional healing. c. deindividuation. d. social facilitation. ANSWER: a 228. By enabling like-minded antigovernment militias to pool their ideas, internet social networking sites are likely to contribute to a. the chameleon effect. b. social facilitation. c. social loafing. d. group polarization. ANSWER: d 229. When groups of people who support a particular candidate for county commissioner get together for discussions on the internet, their opinions tend to be more strongly in favor of that candidate than they were before discussion. This phenomenon is known as a. groupthink. b. social facilitation. c. group polarization. d. diffusion of responsibility. ANSWER: c 230. Elias has lung cancer and believes that he can heal himself with naturopathic medicine regardless of what his family and doctors say. He has found support for his views in various internet discussion groups. These group discussions have strengthened his views because of a. groupthink. b. social loafing. c. group polarization. d. diffusion of responsibility. ANSWER: c 231. Margo is vegan and is an advocate for animal rights. She is very active online in chat rooms for vegans, online support groups, and even social media friends. The more she associates with like-minded people online the stronger her views become. This illustrates a. group polarization. b. social contagion. c. conformity. d. obedience. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 232. Groupthink is defined as a. the mode of thinking that occurs when the desire for harmony in a decision-making group overrides a realistic appraisal of alternatives. b. enhancement of a group's prevailing inclinations through discussion within the group. c. improved performance on simple or well-learned tasks in the presence of others. d. the loss of self-awareness and self-restraint that occurs in group situations that foster arousal and anonymity. ANSWER: a 233. The ill-fated decision of President John F. Kennedy and his advisors to invade Cuba best illustrates the dangers of a. deindividuation. b. peripheral route persuasion. c. social facilitation. d. groupthink. ANSWER: d 234. Which of the following processes most obviously operates in groupthink? a. social facilitation b. deindividuation c. group polarization d. social loafing ANSWER: c 235. Which of the following is a factor related to groupthink? a. overconfidence b. social facilitation c. social loafing d. deindividuation ANSWER: a 236. Which of the following is NOT a factor related to groupthink? a. overconfidence b. conformity c. social loafing d. group polarization ANSWER: c 237. One of the dangers of groupthink is the group's tendency to a. overthink all possible options. ScholarFriends.com b. come up with too many solutions to a problem. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice c. be unable to come up with a solution. d. make poor decisions in order to achieve consensus. ANSWER: d 238. Which of the following comments is most likely to be made in a group characterized by groupthink? a. "To proceed democratically, we need to know the honest opinions of all group members." b. "We all seem to be in basic agreement, so there's no sense in continuing our discussion of this issue." c. "Do any of you see any potential problem with our group's position?" d. "As a group, we have to think carefully about all the pros and cons surrounding this issue." ANSWER: b 239. The CEO of a large corporation who invites experts to give their opinions on company plans is most likely to inhibit a. groupthink. b. cognitive dissonance. c. social facilitation. d. social loafing. ANSWER: a 240. Cameron is chairperson of the community council. At his first meeting he announces. "I expect each of you to speak your mind honestly. Your only purpose here is to serve the people in our community." Cameron is trying to avoid a. cognitive dissonance. b. groupthink. c. social facilitation. d. social loafing. ANSWER: b 241. Prejudice is best defined as a. the tendency to favor members of one's own group. b. an unfair and usually negative attitude toward a group and its members. c. a perceived incompatibility of actions or goals. d. the belief that victims of misfortune deserve their fate. ANSWER: b 242. Prejudice is a mixture of all of the following EXCEPT a. stereotyped beliefs. b. negative feelings. c. neural influences. d. predispositions to discriminatory actions. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 243. Gabriella believes that all professional sports figures are egotistical and self-centered, and that they think they are entitled to special treatment. These negative feelings are reflected in her refusal to attend any games with friends. Gabriella's attitude toward sports figures illustrates a. prejudice. b. the just-world phenomenon. c. ingroup bias. d. blaming the victim. ANSWER: a 244. Sixty-five-year-old Hannah is taking advanced college courses in economics with the goal of getting a job as a financial manager. Some members of her family think she is not likely to succeed because she is much too old to learn new information. This family's thinking about Hannah illustrates a. outgroup bias. b. prejudice. c. discrimination. d. stereotyping. ANSWER: d 245. Overgeneralized beliefs about a group of people that often underlie prejudicial emotions are called a. social scripts. b. discrimination. c. stereotypes. d. blaming the victim. ANSWER: c 246. Which of the following describes a stereotype? a. Vladimir is especially attracted to women who are much younger than he is. b. Peter feels very uncomfortable interacting with older people. c. Robin is convinced that university professors are usually impractical and forgetful. d. Cyril never hires people younger than 16 to work in his restaurant. ANSWER: c 247. Quinn thinks that all business executives are "vulture capitalists." This is an example of a. a negative emotion. b. a stereotype. c. discrimination. d. preference. ANSWER: b 248. Michelle is a liberal and Sarah is a conservative. Both overestimate the extremism of the other. This is known as ScholarFriends.com a. social facilitation. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice b. the perception gap. c. minority influence. d. a microaggression. ANSWER: b 249. Unfair negative behavior toward a group or its members is called a. stereotyping. b. blaming the victim. c. discrimination. d. outgroup bias. ANSWER: c 250. A plumber charges Black customers more than White customers for the very same service. The plumber is most clearly engaging in a. social scripts. b. stereotyping. c. scapegoating. d. discrimination. ANSWER: d 251. Mr. Campbell refuses to rent any of his apartments to Muslim families. Mr. Campbell's behavior illustrates a. social scripts. b. stereotyping. c. scapegoating. d. discrimination. ANSWER: d 252. Prejudice is a(n) ________; discrimination is a(n) ________. a. behavior; attitude b. ingroup bias; outgroup bias c. explicit; implicit d. attitude; behavior ANSWER: d 253. Which of the following is NOT an example of discrimination? a. race-related traffic stops b. a scholarship program for just African Americans c. less Airbnb acceptance for African Americans d. reluctance to sit next to someone of a different race on a train ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 254. Race-related traffic stops, a reluctance to choose a train seat next to someone of a different race, and longer Uber wait times and less Airbnb acceptance for people with African American names are all examples of a. scapegoating. b. stereotypes. c. overgeneralizations. d. microaggressions. ANSWER: d 255. Addison claims that he is not prejudiced against anyone with a same-sex orientation. However, on the bus to school he never sits next to anyone who identifies as gay and in class he never works on a project with someone who identifies with LGBTQ. This type of subtle prejudice illustrates a. a social script. b. microaggressions. c. stereotyping. d. scapegoating. ANSWER: b 256. Vanessa has a disability that requires that she use a wheelchair to get around. Although she is definitely qualified for the job she is seeking, her potential employer sees her disability and dismisses her as a candidate. The employer's behavior illustrates a. a social script. b. discrimination. c. stereotyping. d. scapegoating. ANSWER: b 257. Conscious is to ________ as unconscious is to ________. a. explicit prejudice; implicit prejudice b. racial prejudice; ethnic prejudice c. prejudice; discrimination d. the scapegoat theory; the other-race effect ANSWER: a 258. Which of the following tend(s) to be obvious? a. discrimination b. explicit prejudice c. stereotypes d. implicit prejudice ANSWER: b 259. At a conscious level, Cooper doesn't thinkScholarFriends.com he's prejudiced. Yet he automatically feels uncomfortable in situations in which he has to interact with people of races different from his own. Cooper's experience best Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice illustrates the distinction between a. blaming the victim and ingroup bias. b. outgroup bias and scapegoat theory. c. explicit and implicit attitudes. d. scapegoat theory and ingroup bias. ANSWER: c 260. Rosemarie, who admits that she does not want Muslims moving into her neighborhood, believes that they should "live with their own kind." Rosemarie is demonstrating a. explicit prejudice. b. the other-race effect. c. scapegoating. d. implicit prejudice. ANSWER: a 261. Prejudice can be not only subtle but also automatic and unconscious. This is best illustrated in studies of a. outgroup bias. b. implicit associations. c. explicit associations. d. the just-world phenomenon. ANSWER: b 262. Studies of implicit prejudice indicate that prejudice is often a. triggered by scapegoating. b. a response to frustration. c. unconscious. d. unlearned. ANSWER: c 263. An unthinking knee-jerk response when encountering someone from a different race demonstrates a. discrimination. b. explicit prejudice. c. stereotypes. d. implicit prejudice. ANSWER: d 264. In 2015, the U.S. Supreme Court recognized research on unconscious favoritism toward or prejudice against people of a particular race, gender, or other social group, which is referred to as a. discrimination. b. explicit prejudice. ScholarFriends.com c. stereotypes. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice d. implicit bias. ANSWER: d 265. Which of the following is FALSE regarding implicit bias? a. Implicit biases are unconscious. b. Implicit biases can predict behavior. c. We are aware of our implicit biases. d. Tests for implicit bias may not be reliable. ANSWER: c 266. Based on facial-muscle responses and brain activity in the amygdala, neuroscientists are able to detect a. explicit prejudice. b. the other-race effect. c. stereotypes. d. implicit prejudice. ANSWER: d 267. Since 1958, expressed support for diversity has ________ and agreement that their nation's having many different races and ethnicities is good for the country has ________. a. increased; decreased b. decreased; decreased c. increased; increased d. decreased; increased ANSWER: c 268. Jorge and Nancy are an interracial couple who have been together for more than 40 years. During this time, they have experienced numerous instances of discrimination. Chaquille and Jennifer are an interracial couple who have been together for the past 5 years. While they have experienced some discrimination, overall, they believe that their experience will be different from that of Jorge and Nacy. Why is this the case? a. Racial attitudes have changed dramatically since 1958. b. Racial attitudes have stabilized since 1958. c. Discriminatory practices have increased since 1958. d. Racial attitudes have remained the same since 1958. ANSWER: a 269. One analysis of 9 million papers and 6 million scientists demonstrated that ethnically diverse research teams a. resulted in haphazard research results. b. ended in racial conflict among researchers. c. produced the most influential research. d. were too divisive to successfully complete the research. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 270. Within certain racial and ethnic groups, those with darker skin tones experience greater discrimination and prejudice. This phenomenon is known as a. racism. b. colorism. c. stereotyping. d. unconscious patronization. ANSWER: b 271. Black men are judged more harshly when they commit "stereotypically Black" crimes rather than "stereotypically White" crimes. This is an example of a. a reflexive response. b. colorism. c. subtle prejudice. d. unconscious patronization. ANSWER: c 272. The rate at which Black men have been killed by a police officer is ________ that of White men. a. about the same as b. less often than c. double d. more than double ANSWER: d 273. A medical provider who recommends a sophisticated test to diagnose a White patient, but does not recommend the test to a Black patient with the same symptoms, is exhibiting a. subtle prejudice. b. blatant prejudice. c. the perception gap. d. minority influence. ANSWER: a 274. Worldwide, women are ________ likely than men to be illiterate, and they are ________ likely than men to direct a film. a. more; less b. less; more c. more; more d. less; less ANSWER: a 275. Which of the following countries is most likely to have a serious shortfall of females in their population? ScholarFriends.com a. China Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice b. France c. United States d. Canada ANSWER: a 276. China has recently experienced a shortage in ________, making it ________ likely that Chinese bachelors will be unable to find mates. a. women; less b. men; less c. women; more d. men; more ANSWER: c 277. Which of the following people is likely to be paid a higher salary? a. Sarah, who is an elementary school teacher b. Theresa, who works at a day care center c. Jennifer, who is a lawyer d. Steven, who is an engineer ANSWER: d 278. Which of the following contributes to women NOT being promoted in their careers? a. the just-world phenomenon b. implicit bias c. ingroup bias d. microaggressions ANSWER: b 279. Emily, a management consultant with a democratic interaction style, encourages those on her team to work together and share ideas. Her colleague Geoffrey is very assertive and encourages independent work on his team. Geoffrey is significantly less qualified than Emily, but when a promotion becomes available, he nominates himself for and ultimately gets the job. It is likely that Emily and Geoffrey's company a. is premised upon the idea that women are less capable than men. b. values and rewards masculine norms. c. is run by executives who believe that men have more right than women to scarce jobs. d. is run entirely by men. ANSWER: b 280. Which of the following people reflects an example of gender prejudice? a. Myra, who says she would vote for a qualified woman for president of the United States b. Rebecca, who is 16, thinks her mother is less intelligent than her father c. Mark, who says he would vote for a qualified woman for president of the United States ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice d. Wayne, who is paid the same as Jane for the same job ANSWER: b 281. By 2021, 29 countries ________ legalized same-sex marriage, but dozens more ________ laws criminalizing same-sex relationships. a. had not; had b. had; did have c. had; had d. had not; did have ANSWER: c 282. Which of the following is NOT evidence of an anti-LGBTQ attitude? a. being rejected by your family b. being subjected to slurs or jokes c. being protected by your friends d. being harassed at work ANSWER: c 283. Monica, who is twelve, lives in a state where same-sex marriage has been legal for her whole life. "Things are better than they used to be," explains her Uncle Andrew. "In the years before Uncle Carl and I were able to get married, there was a lot more discrimination against gay people around here." The shift in local anti-gay bias following the legalization of same-sex marriage is an illustration of a. attitudes following behavior. b. behavior following attitudes. c. a predisposition to discriminate. d. unconscious group associations. ANSWER: a 284. Prejudice is most likely to develop as a way of justifying a. ingroup bias. b. outgroup homogeneity. c. aggression. d. social inequalities. ANSWER: d 285. The just-world phenomenon refers to the a. tendency to favor our own group. b. idea that prejudice offers an outlet for anger by providing someone to blame for negative events. c. tendency to believe that people get what they deserve and deserve what they get. d. phenomenon that repeated exposure to novel stimuli increases liking of them. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 286. Believing that wealthy people deserve to be robbed because of their ill-gotten gains best illustrates a potential consequence of a. social facilitation. b. ingroup bias. c. the other-race effect. d. the just-world phenomenon. ANSWER: d 287. People who blame victims of cancer for their medical misfortune best illustrate a. stereotyping. b. outgroup bias. c. scapegoating. d. the just-world phenomenon. ANSWER: d 288. During deliberations on an assault case, some of the jurors commented that the victim had a history of anger problems and had entered therapy for anger management. They reasoned that his past anger issues were likely to lead to a fight. The jurors' comments are best explained in terms of a. the just-world phenomenon. b. implicit prejudice. c. the scapegoat theory. d. social facilitation. ANSWER: a 289. Believing that victims of a major hurricane are being punished for their misdeeds is best explained in terms of a. the scapegoat theory. b. ingroup bias. c. self-fulfilling prophecies. d. the just-world phenomenon. ANSWER: d 290. If the circumstances of poverty breed high rates of crime, the high crime rates can be used to justify discrimination against those who live in poverty. This best illustrates a. scapegoating theory. b. ingroup bias. c. the blame-the-victim dynamic. d. outgroup homogeneity. ANSWER: c 291. We define who we are mostly in terms ofScholarFriends.com our groups. This definition is referred to as our a. stereotype. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice b. media model. c. social identity. d. ethnic group. ANSWER: c 292. A common identity is shared among a. members of an ingroup. b. those adhering to the scapegoat theory. c. those who experience ingroup bias. d. ethnic groups. ANSWER: a 293. Sadie is an active member of her local church community. Others in this community would be considered her a. ingroup. b. outgroup. c. friends. d. supporters. ANSWER: a 294. The set of people perceived as different from "us" is called a(n) a. ingroup. b. scapegoat. c. other-race effect. d. outgroup. ANSWER: d 295. Esperanza is Latina. Those who are European would be considered her a. ingroup. b. outgroup. c. friends. d. acquaintances. ANSWER: b 296. Francesca is at the park cheering for her local baseball team, the North Side Navigators. Beside her is Lee, who is cheering for the opposing team, the South Side Stars. Lee would be considered part of Francesca's a. ingroup. b. outgroup. c. social identity. d. scapegoats. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 297. Ingroup bias refers to a. the tendency to favor "us" rather than "them." b. those who share a common identity. c. those perceived as different and separate from us. d. the tendency to recall faces of one's own race more accurately than faces of other races. ANSWER: a 298. Ingroup bias best illustrates the impact of our ________ on prejudice. a. social facilitation b. social identities c. scapegoating d. discrimination ANSWER: b 299. Creating groups based on the outcome of a coin toss leads people to favor their own new group when dividing any rewards. This best illustrates a. outgroup homogeneity. b. implicit prejudice. c. the just-world phenomenon. d. ingroup bias. ANSWER: d 300. Stella is politically liberal and Alexa is politically conservative. Both believe that those who believe as they do are more fair-minded and trustworthy than those with opposing views. This belief best illustrates a. outgroup homogeneity. b. the just-world phenomenon. c. scapegoating. d. ingroup bias. ANSWER: d 301. Most children believe their school is better than the other schools in town. This best illustrates a. the just-world phenomenon. b. ingroup bias. c. outgroup homogeneity. d. scapegoating. ANSWER: b 302. In the United States during the late 1980s, most Democrats wrongly believed that inflation had risen under Republican president Ronald Reagan. In 2010, most Republicans wrongly believed that taxes had increased under Democratic president Barack Obama. These incorrect beliefs best illustrate the impact of ScholarFriends.com a. outgroup homogeneity. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice b. scapegoat theory. c. social identities. d. ingroup bias. ANSWER: d 303. People are more likely to cling to their ingroup in all of the following situations EXCEPT when a. fearing terrorism. b. experiencing frustration. c. feeling content. d. feeling threatened. ANSWER: c 304. Which theory most clearly suggests that prejudice offers an outlet for anger by providing someone to blame when things go wrong? a. discrimination b. the just-world phenomenon c. group polarization d. scapegoat theory ANSWER: d 305. According to scapegoat theory, prejudice is likely to result from a. the other-race effect. b. the just-world phenomenon. c. ingroup bias. d. frustration. ANSWER: d 306. Jared was recently passed over for a promotion, which instead went to his more qualified coworker, Marlena. Yet Jared insists to his best friend that "companies give all the good jobs to women now, because they're afraid they'll get sued if they don't." Jared's beliefs can be explained by a. the just-world phenomenon. b. scapegoat theory. c. the blaming-the-victim dynamic. d. heuristics. ANSWER: b 307. Jeffrey, who is in the sixth grade, has been suspended from school for bullying another student. Ever since he received notice of his suspension, Jeffrey has become increasingly hostile toward racial minority students and staff. His increasing hostility can best be explained in terms of a. the other-race effect. b. the just-world phenomenon. ScholarFriends.com c. scapegoat theory. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice d. the blame-the-victim dynamic. ANSWER: c 308. As a result of the COVID-19 pandemic, Samuel was laid off from the job he had for 15 years. Samuel is having trouble finding a new job but sees that most of the illegal immigrants in his town are all working. Samuel believes that he is unable to get a new job because of illegal immigration. Samuel's beliefs can be explained by a. the just-world phenomenon. b. scapegoat theory. c. groupthink. d. prejudice. ANSWER: b 309. U.S. counties that hosted Trump rallies in 2016 experienced ________ afterward. a. no change in hate crimes b. a significant decrease in hate crimes c. a minor decrease in hate crimes d. an increase in hate crimes ANSWER: d 310. Researchers report that frequent and repetitive exposure to hate speech leads to a. improved social scripts. b. desensitization. c. lower self-esteem. d. the other-race effect. ANSWER: b 311. Economically frustrated people often express heightened prejudice. This can be explained by a. scapegoat theory. b. the just-world phenomenon. c. ingroup bias. d. explicit prejudice. ANSWER: a 312. Insulting a rival school or another person may help a person who has been made to feel insecure restore their a. social scripts. b. social identity. c. self-esteem. d. the other-race effect. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 313. When trying to make sense of our world, we form categories to explain what we see and experience. This may feed a. negative emotions. b. explicit prejudice. c. discrimination. d. the formation of stereotypes. ANSWER: d 314. When we overestimate the extent to which members of other groups are alike, we are perceiving a. discrimination. b. prejudice. c. outgroup homogeneity. d. conformity. ANSWER: c 315. People tend to perceive the members of an outgroup as ________ one another and the members of an ingroup as ________ one another. a. different from; similar to b. similar to; different from c. similar to; similar to d. different from; different from ANSWER: b 316. The tendency to recall faces of one's own race more accurately than faces of other races is called a. ingroup bias. b. the other-race effect. c. normative social influence. d. scapegoating. ANSWER: b 317. Sarah, who is of European descent, was introduced to several foreign exchange students from Japan and France. Although she was easily able to distinguish each of the French students at a later time, she found it difficult to remember each of the Japanese students. Sarah's inability to later recognize the Japanese students illustrates a. groupthink. b. social identities. c. the other-race effect. d. scapegoating. ANSWER: c 318. When New Zealand observers were askedScholarFriends.com to quickly classify faces with blended Chinese and White features, those of European descent were more likely to classify the ambiguous faces as Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice a. European. b. Chinese. c. Australian. d. American. ANSWER: b 319. Children of Asian descent are better at recognizing the faces of Asian people than White faces. This illustrates a. stereotyping. b. ingroup bias. c. outgroup homogeneity. d. the other-race effect. ANSWER: d 320. Our selective attention is drawn to distinctive features of a less-familiar racial/ethnic minority. Therefore, a person who does not fit easily into our racial categories will a. experience stereotypes and discrimination. b. fall victim to ingroup bias. c. be assigned to their racial/ethnic minority identity. d. be classified according to their racial status. ANSWER: c 321. Although former President Obama is of mixed race, White Americans typically perceive and label him as Black. Researchers believe this happens because White observers ________ the distinctive physical features of the less-familiar Black minority. a. selectively attend to b. have negative attitudes regarding c. stereotype d. have implicit associations about ANSWER: a 322. The tendency to estimate the frequency of an event by how readily it comes to mind is referred to as a. explicit bias. b. the just-world phenomenon. c. the availability heuristic. d. ingroup bias. ANSWER: c 323. Hiram is in his second year of college. Because of all the news reports of school shootings, Hiram spends much of his life figuring out how to stay safe . Each day on his way to class he maps out what he would need to do if there was an active shooter. He always sits by the exit in his classrooms and has an emergency number on ScholarFriends.com speed dial in case of an attack. Hiram's fear illustrates Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice a. explicit bias. b. the just-world phenomenon. c. the availability heuristic. d. ingroup bias. ANSWER: c 324. The violent crimes of some group members inflate people's judgments of the crime rate of the entire group because the instances of violent crime are a. social events. b. frustrating events. c. memorable cases. d. repetitive events. ANSWER: c 325. Twenty Wallonians were arrested for nonviolent crimes, whereas 20 Pireaneans were arrested for violent crimes. The tendency to judge that more crimes were committed by Pireaneans than by Wallonians best illustrates the power of a. ingroup bias. b. the other-race effect. c. social scripts. d. vivid cases. ANSWER: d 326. The tendency, after an event has occurred, to overestimate one's ability to have foreseen or predicted the outcome is called a. the other-gender effect. b. scapegoating. c. hindsight bias. d. unconscious patronization. ANSWER: c 327. People have a basic tendency to justify their culture's social systems. This ________ makes it difficult to legislate major social changes, such as climate change policies. a. just-world phenomenon b. natural resistance c. scapegoat theory d. other-race effect ANSWER: b 328. Any physical or verbal behavior that is intended to harm someone physically or emotionally is known as a. aggression. ScholarFriends.com b. victim blaming. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice c. the other-race effect. d. ingroup bias. ANSWER: a 329. In psychology, aggression always involves a. physical damage. b. anger and hostility. c. the intent to harm another. d. a reaction to frustration. ANSWER: c 330. Which of the following persons is most clearly acting aggressively? a. a noisy neighbor who often mows his lawn at 8 o'clock on Saturday mornings b. a child who tries to hit another child with a rock c. an assertive salesperson who interrupts your evening meal with a telephone sales pitch d. a careless motorist who accidentally smashes into the fender of a parked car ANSWER: b 331. After they have been drinking alcohol, people are increasingly likely to respond to minor frustrations with violent outbursts. This best illustrates a. scapegoat theory. b. implicit association. c. the just-world phenomenon. d. the interaction of biology and experience. ANSWER: d 332. Which of the following is NOT a level of biological influence on aggression? a. genetic b. biochemical c. neural d. aversive events ANSWER: d 333. Comparisons of identical and fraternal twins highlight the impact of ________ on aggression. a. the environment b. culture c. genes d. social scripts ANSWER: c 334. Scarlett and Madelyn are identical twins. ScholarFriends.com Scarlett admits that she tends to become angry over the slightest Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice misdeeds by friends. Madelyn also admits to being easily angered. This best illustrates a. biochemical influences on aggression. b. environmental influences on aggression. c. genetic influences on aggression. d. the interaction of biology and experience. ANSWER: d 335. The Y chromosome is the most well-known genetic marker identifying those who are most likely to a. form stereotypes. b. engage in aggression. c. experience scapegoating. d. demonstrate the other-race effect. ANSWER: b 336. Travis breeds dogs for fighting, which is illegal. However, Travis' work demonstrates a. the genetic nature of aggression. b. biochemical influences on aggression. c. social constructions of aggressive behavior. d. neurological influences on aggression. ANSWER: a 337. The hormone that influences the neural systems that control aggression is a. adrenaline. b. testosterone. c. dopamine. d. serotonin. ANSWER: b 338. Landon is standing on line at the grocery store when the person behind him accidentally bumps into him. Research suggests that Landon would be most likely to respond aggressively to this incident if he has a a. lower-than-average level of adrenaline. b. higher-than-average level of serotonin. c. higher-than-average level of oxytocin. d. higher-than-average level of testosterone. ANSWER: d 339. Which of the following individuals is most likely to respond aggressively to a situation? a. Dale, whose brother has a history of picking fights b. 70-year-old John, who exhibited violent behavior when he was younger c. Marcus, who has a history of heavy drinking and high levels of testosterone ScholarFriends.com d. Samantha, who plays nonviolent video games Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 340. Alec has issues with delinquency, hard drug use, and aggressive bullying responses to frustration. If tested, Alec's level of ________ is likely to be higher than average but will decline with age. a. unconscious patronization b. testosterone c. stereotyping d. serotonin ANSWER: b 341. Aggressive behavior is most likely to be ________ by injections of testosterone and ________ by drinking alcohol. a. increased; decreased b. decreased; increased c. increased; increased d. decreased; decreased ANSWER: c 342. Aggression-prone people are more likely to drink, and when intoxicated they are more likely to become violent. This is because alcohol slows the brain activity that controls judgment and inhibitions. That is, alcohol a. provides a social script. b. decreases testosterone levels. c. provides a model for violence. d. is a disinhibitor. ANSWER: d 343. Mark has consumed a large amount of alcohol and is intoxicated. When he is accidentally bumped as a person walks by, Mark starts yelling and cursing at the person. This best illustrates a. scapegoat theory. b. implicit association. c. the just-world phenomenon. d. the interaction of biology and experience. ANSWER: d 344. When alcohol sales have been restricted in different parts of the world, assaults have dropped. This illustrates the importance of ________ on aggression. a. modeling b. biochemical influences c. legal influences d. neural influences ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 345. When a leader of a caged monkey colony became threatening, one small monkey learned to push the control button, which reduced the lead monkey's threatening behavior by activating the a. food release mechanism. b. alcoholic drink dispenser. c. room lighting fixture. d. leader's brain-implanted electrode. ANSWER: d 346. Ferdinand was pushed to the floor by a player on the opposing basketball team. Because he was drinking alcohol prior to the game, Ferdinand is most likely to interpret the foul as a. funny. b. his own fault. c. unintended. d. an aggressive act. ANSWER: d 347. Which of the following statements is true? a. The amygdala is the only part of the brain that is activated during aggression. b. Aggression only has genetic causes. c. People's level of aggression depends only on their testosterone levels. d. There is no one spot in the brain that controls aggression. ANSWER: d 348. Which areas of the brain do researchers believe may be responsible for violent behavior if they are damaged, inactive, immature, or disconnected? a. temporal lobes b. frontal lobes c. hippocampus d. hypothalamus ANSWER: b 349. Which area(s) of the brains of violent criminals has(have) exhibited reduced activity? a. amygdala b. limbic system c. hypothalamus d. frontal lobes ANSWER: d 350. When a neurosurgeon implanted an electrode in the amygdala of mild-mannered woman, the woman a. behaved aggressively toward her doctor. b. acted just as she had before the implantation. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice c. became even milder, unable even to say "no" to anyone's request for help. d. lost her ability to remember events that had recently occurred. ANSWER: a 351. A recent study that examined more than 200 convicted murderers found a. increased levels of estrogens. b. decreased levels of estrogens. c. increased tissue in the frontal lobes. d. reduced tissue in the frontal lobes. ANSWER: d 352. The frustration-aggression principle suggests that anger results when a. false stereotypes influence perceptions of others. b. an attempt to achieve some goal is blocked. c. there are striking differences of opinion among group members. d. self-awareness and self-restraint are reduced. ANSWER: b 353. After 15-year-old Ovinn's parents said he was too young to go on a date Saturday night, Ovinn syphoned off all the gas in their car. His action is best explained in terms of a. the just-world phenomenon. b. ingroup bias. c. scapegoat theory. d. the frustration-aggression principle. ANSWER: d 354. When Halina did not make the girls' baseball team, she posted several negative comments about team members. Her behavior is best explained in terms of a. social scripts. b. the self-fulfilling prophecy. c. ingroup bias. d. the frustration-aggression principle. ANSWER: d 355. Amaros tends to anger easily, which usually causes him to behave aggressively. Which of the following is LEAST likely to contribute to his aggressive behaviors? a. physical pain b. extremely hot air temperatures c. cigarette smoke d. attending a football game in the winter ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 356. Which situation is LEAST likely to produce the level of frustration that could lead to increased violence? a. foul odors coming from a sewer into a neighborhood b. increased global temperatures due to global warming c. a crowded bus with no air conditioning on a hot summer day d. driving to work, with normal traffic, on a cool fall day ANSWER: d 357. One analysis of 27,667 hit-by-pitch Major League Baseball incidents between 1960 and 2004 revealed a link between frustration and aggression. Which of the following is LEAST likely to cause the pitcher to hit a batter? a. The pitcher had been frustrated by the previous batter hitting a home run. b. The current batter had hit a home run the last time at bat. c. A teammate had been hit by a pitch in the previous half-inning. d. The game is on the line on a cool spring day. ANSWER: d 358. In Major League Baseball games, the probability of batters being hit by a pitched ball increases with a. the batter's age. b. larger crowd sizes. c. higher air temperatures. d. the salary levels of the pitchers. ANSWER: c 359. In situations where experience has taught us that there are advantages to behaving aggressively, we are a. likely to become a victim of aggressive behavior. b. less likely to behave aggressively in the future. c. likely to behave aggressively again. d. more likely to identify aggressive acts. ANSWER: c 360. Tommaso tends to be a somewhat aggressive child and has frequently been successful in intimidating other children. Based on what you know about reinforcement and modeling, what is a likely outcome for Tommaso? a. He is likely to become a victim of bullying. b. He will probably be the most popular kid in school. c. He may become a bully. d. He is likely to be well-liked by his peers. ANSWER: c 361. Animals that have successfully fought to get food or mates become increasingly ferocious. This best illustrates that aggression is influenced by a. social scripts. ScholarFriends.com b. scapegoating. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice c. frustration. d. reinforcement. ANSWER: d 362. Which of the following would be the best advice to give parents who are concerned about the frequent aggressive outbursts of their 5-year-old daughter? a. "Make a point of rewarding and praising your daughter whenever she is socially cooperative and altruistic." b. "Be consistent in spanking your child after every outburst so she'll realize that aggression never pays." c. "Encourage your daughter to watch the devastating consequences of violence portrayed on TV." d. "Don't be concerned about your child's aggressiveness, unless the behavior pattern continues beyond the fifth grade." ANSWER: a 363. Parent training programs are most likely to advise parents to avoid a. implicit prejudice. b. the other-race effect. c. modeling violence. d. social scripts. ANSWER: c 364. Which of the following can best explain why lynch mobs in Georgia murdered more than 500 people between 1882 and 1926? a. social scripts for lynchings b. increased aggression levels among men at that time c. higher levels of testosterone among men d. cultural norms that encouraged and supported lynching ANSWER: d 365. Between 1882 and 1926, American lynch mobs in Georgia murdered more than 500 people. This behavior was culturally accepted at that time and demonstrates how a. aggression is fueled by the frustration-aggression principle. b. aggressive behavior is affected by genetics. c. biological changes can affect the expression of behavior. d. cultural modeling can affect levels of aggression. ANSWER: d 366. A wide economic gulf between a country's high and low income people is especially likely to be associated with a. media models for violence. ScholarFriends.com b. implicit prejudice. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice c. high crime rates. d. the just-world phenomenon. ANSWER: c 367. Minimal or no father care is associated with high rates of a. stereotyping. b. discrimination. c. social scripts. d. violence. ANSWER: d 368. Culturally modeled guides for how to act in various situations are called a. social scripts. b. implicit associations. c. ingroup biases. d. outgroup homogeneity. ANSWER: a 369. People heavily exposed to violent video games are likely to engage in aggressive behaviors that reflect a misleading a. hindsight bias. b. social script. c. implicit association. d. ingroup bias. ANSWER: b 370. German university men administered hotter chili sauce to a woman after listening to women-hating lyrics. The song lyrics provided the university men with a. discrimination. b. a social script. c. ingroup bias. d. an implicit association. ANSWER: b 371. Repeatedly watching pornography a. decreases men's readiness to behave aggressively toward women and to be less accepting of short prison sentences for convicted rapists. b. increases men's readiness to behave aggressively toward women and to be less accepting of short prison sentences for convicted rapists. c. increases men's readiness to behave aggressively toward women and to be more accepting of short prison sentences for convicted rapists. ScholarFriends.com d. decreases men's readiness to behave aggressively toward women and to be more accepting of short Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice prison sentences for convicted rapists. ANSWER: c 372. Extensive exposure to violent pornographic films contributes to a(n) a. increasing willingness to hurt women that is due primarily to the film's eroticism. b. decreasing willingness to hurt women that is due primarily to the film's eroticism. c. decreasing willingness to hurt women that is due primarily to the film's depiction of sexual violence. d. increasing willingness to hurt women that is due primarily to the film's depiction of sexual violence. ANSWER: d 373. Which of the following is NOT associated with playing violent video games? a. It can make players less sensitive to cruelty. b. It can prime aggressive thoughts. c. It can increase empathy. d. It can lead to behaving aggressively. ANSWER: c 374. Kevin plays a lot of video games, mostly those that involve some kind of murder. Which of the following is NOT associated with Kevin's video game playing? a. It can make him less sensitive to cruelty. b. It can prime aggressive thoughts. c. It can increase empathy. d. It can lead to behaving aggressively. ANSWER: c 375. In experiments, people randomly assigned to play a video game involving bloody murders and groaning victims became ________ hostile. Studies of young adolescents reveal that, as compared with nongaming kids, they get into ________ arguments and fights. a. more; less b. less; less c. less; more d. more; more ANSWER: d 376. Which of the following is FALSE regarding kids who play violent video games, as compared with nongaming kids? a. They get into more arguments. b. They are more likely to handle a real gun. c. They are likely to earn better grades. d. They get into more physical fights. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 377. Compared with their nonplaying counterparts, young adolescents who play a lot of violent video games have been found to a. experience fewer angry feelings. b. see the real world as less dangerous. c. get into more arguments and fights. d. earn better grades in school. ANSWER: c 378. Which of the following best states current views by most researchers regarding the effect of violent video games on social violence? a. Violent video games are just one modest contributor to social violence. b. Violent video games alone predict violent behavior. c. The availability of guns is a better predictor of violence than playing violent video games. d. Violent video game playing has decreased as a result of concern for its effects. ANSWER: a 379. Hugo's violent behavior is influenced by his unrealistic social scripts, his rejection by men in his office, and his abuse of alcohol. A comprehensive understanding of Hugo's behavior is most clearly provided by a. cognitive dissonance theory. b. the frustration-aggression principle. c. a biopsychosocial approach. d. scapegoat theory. ANSWER: c 380. People are most inclined to like those who are nearby. This most clearly illustrates the association between ________ and interpersonal attraction. a. physical arousal b. beauty c. equity d. proximity ANSWER: d 381. Alejandro, an extraverted first-year college students, has just moved into a dorm. He is most likely to become friends with a. Oliver, a junior who is majoring in sociology and lives across the hall. b. Afran, an introverted student who lives on the next floor and enjoys sports. c. James, a lonely sophomore who lives down the hall and is undecided about his major. d. Manuel, his assigned roommate who is majoring in English literature. ANSWER: d 382. The mere exposure effect refers to the factScholarFriends.com that people a. are more likely to help people who are nearby. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice b. tend to help those who are most like them. c. are more likely to become friends with attractive people. d. experience increasing attraction to novel stimuli that become more familiar. ANSWER: d 383. Which of the following strategies was most successful in reducing intergroup conflict among outgroup pairs at an Israeli summer camp? a. eat at the same table b. share a sleeping bunk c. attend the same 110-minute dialogue group d. arrange for groups to see the same movies ANSWER: b 384. According to the research, our liking of geometric figures is increased by a. self-disclosure. b. mirror-image perceptions. c. mere exposure. d. social responsibility ANSWER: c 385. Lucas is going to the store to buy this week's groceries for his family. As he checks his list against products on the shelves, he picks out those with familiar brand names. This preference best illustrates the importance of a. the self-fulfilling prophecy. b. the mere exposure effect. c. mirror-image perceptions. d. social facilitation. ANSWER: b 386. You and Joseph have been sitting next to each other in class for the entire semester. Yesterday, you saw him at the mall. You would be likely to see him as a. happy. b. angry. c. moody. d. sad. ANSWER: a 387. After three months of riding the 8:30 bus to work, Aria has actually started to feel affection for the gruff and scowling bus driver. Aria's reaction best illustrates a. the reciprocity norm. b. the mere exposure effect. c. mirror-image perceptions. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice d. the bystander effect. ANSWER: b 388. People's preference for mirror-image photographs of themselves illustrates the impact of a. the bystander effect. b. mirror-image perceptions. c. the mere exposure effect. d. self-disclosure. ANSWER: c 389. Haseeb's history teacher seats his pupils according to height. Haseeb is 5'4", so he sits at the front of the room. By the end of the school year, Haseeb's best friends had become Riccardo and Lorenzo, who were both extremely short. This is best explained by the phenomenon called a. the mere exposure effect. b. mirror-image perceptions. c. the self-fulfilling prophecy. d. the bystander effect. ANSWER: a 390. Although online connecting comes with some risks, such as receiving unwanted sexual messages, around ________ Americans use online matchmaking. a. 10,000 b. 1 million c. 10 million d. 10 billion ANSWER: c 391. Internet-formed friendships and romantic relationships are, on average, slightly ________ likely than relationships formed in person to last and be satisfying. Compared to couples meeting offline, those who meet online also more often ________ race or ethnicity. a. more; are of the same b. less; differ in c. more; differ in d. less; are of the same ANSWER: c 392. Penelope is 22 years old and is single. If she is like the 27 percent of 18- to 24-year-old Americans in 2015, she may try ________ to find a romantic partner. a. a singles bar b. an online dating service c. speed dating ScholarFriends.com d. visiting a club Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 393. Asher attended a matchmaking gathering in which he met several women one at a time for 3 to 8 minutes. Asher was participating in a. social facilitation. b. speed dating. c. social scripts. d. the bystander effect. ANSWER: b 394. Researchers have found all of the following about speed dating EXCEPT a. compatibility is difficult to predict. b. given more options, people make more superficial choices. c. men wish for future contact with more of their speed dates. d. people who fear rejection often elicit rejection. ANSWER: a 395. Our first impression of another person is most affected by the person's a. proximity. b. similarity. c. physical attractiveness. d. intellectual capacity. ANSWER: c 396. Jia's sister has set her up on a dinner date with someone Jia has never met. After an hour spent eating and chatting, Jia ducks into the restroom to call her sister with a report. Which of the following is most likely to influence Jia's liking of this new person? a. intelligence b. affluence c. sensitivity d. appearance ANSWER: d 397. Iylah has just moved to a new town and would like to begin dating. Which of the following is most likely to influence her potential dates' first impressions of Iylah? a. proximity b. similarity c. physical attractiveness d. intellectual capacity ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com

398. What determined whether new students who had been randomly matched for heterosexual blind dates in a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice Welcome Week dance liked each other? a. similarity in attitudes b. similarity in intelligence c. physical attractiveness d. self-disclosure skills ANSWER: c 399. Riley, who is in his second year of college, is handsome. Research suggests that he is likely to ________ than less-attractive men. a. be perceived as more socially skilled b. have a much higher level of self-esteem c. be perceived as less sensitive d. date less frequently ANSWER: a 400. Brenda views Mark as physically attractive. Which of the following is NOT a trait she is likely to attribute to him? a. happiness b. insensitivity c. success d. health ANSWER: b 401. Bohdana, who is beautiful, works as a physician's assistant in a doctor's office. How is Bohdana likely to take the compliments she receives from the male doctors in her office? a. She is likely to think that the compliments are sincere. b. She is likely to think that she deserves more compliments. c. She is not likely to think that the compliments are sincere. d. She is likely to work harder for more compliments. ANSWER: c 402. Which of the following is NOT a feature that heterosexual men in worldwide cultures find attractive in women? a. youthful appearance b. fertile appearance c. varying political opinions d. symmetrical face ANSWER: c 403. Women are attracted to healthy-looking men, but especially to those who seem to be a. submissive. ScholarFriends.com b. insecure. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice c. mature. d. less attractive than themselves. ANSWER: c 404. Which of the following is NOT a feature that heterosexual women tend to find attractive in men? a. maturity b. wealthy c. docility d. healthy ANSWER: c 405. Adeline has met several men online. She is most likely to accept a date request from a. Jon, who is very smart but overweight. b. Manny, who makes a lot of money but has health problems. c. Doug, who is healthy, wealthy and well-educated but is unattractive. d. Gene, who has a good job, exercises frequently, and is attractive. ANSWER: d 406. Some adult physical features seem attractive everywhere. These include a. a healthy appearance. b. a relatively symmetrical face. c. a healthy appearance and a relatively symmetrical face. d. neither a healthy appearance nor a symmetrical face. ANSWER: c 407. Nicolás has arranged a first date with Mariana. Which of the following is he most likely to find attractive in her? a. a relatively symmetrical face b. her different political views c. her unique spiritual views d. a mature appearance ANSWER: a 408. Which of the following traits would NOT generally be considered attractive? a. honesty b. humor c. politeness d. aggression ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com 409. Gisela, an 18-year-old first-year university student, is very talkative, intelligent, assertive, and politically Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice conservative. Research suggests that she would be most likely to develop a close friendship with a. Ingrid, who is talkative and assertive. b. Petra, who is quiet and passive. c. Ursula, who is intelligent and quiet. d. Monika, who is politically liberal and talkative. ANSWER: a 410. Compared with randomly paired people, friends are more likely to share the same attitudes and beliefs. This best illustrates the association between ________ and attraction. a. equity b. proximity c. similarity d. self-disclosure ANSWER: c 411. Which of the following is most clearly supported by research on social attraction? a. The beautiful are the lonely. b. Birds of a feather flock together. c. Familiarity breeds contempt. d. Absence makes the heart grow fonder. ANSWER: b 412. Joel tends to have a low self-image. Because of this, he is a. likely to make friends easily. b. more likely to like and gravitate to those who like him. c. likely to focus on a person's level of physical attractiveness when they meet. d. less likely to focus on similarity when meeting new people. ANSWER: b 413. According to the ________ of attraction, we will like those whose behavior is rewarding to us, including those who are both able and willing to help us achieve our goals. a. just-world theory b. equity theory c. reward theory d. scapegoat theory ANSWER: c 414. Grace and Rodrigo work as co-hosts in one of the ship's specialty restaurants. Rodrigo is very good with the passengers and Grace is very efficient in keeping everything moving. They both benefit from working together. They are now friends and spend time together when they are not working. Which theory best explains the emergence of their friendship? ScholarFriends.com a. ingroup bias theory Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice b. equity theory c. reward theory d. opposites attract theory ANSWER: c 415. The two-factor theory of emotion has been used to explain a. passionate love. b. companionate love. c. the mere exposure effect. d. altruism. ANSWER: a 416. Which of the following defines passionate love? a. It involves revealing intimate aspects of ourselves to others. b. It is the deep affectionate attachment we feel for those with whom are lives are intertwined. c. It is an aroused state of intense positive absorption in another, usually present at the beginning of a love relationship. d. It is a condition in which people receive from a relationship in proportion to what they give to it. ANSWER: c 417. Nora and Natalie have been seeing each other for several months and are experiencing passionate love for each other. When Nora enters a room, Natalie experiences blood flow to a part of his brain that is linked to a. desire and intimacy. b. lust and hunger. c. craving and obsession. d. sociability and trust. ANSWER: c 418. According to the two-factory theory, emotions involve a. physical arousal. b. cognitive appraisal. c. both physical arousal and cognitive appraisal. d. neither physical arousal nor cognitive appraisal. ANSWER: c 419. Leah, who is not only very attractive but also warm and giving, has just phoned Ezekiel to ask him to have dinner with her. According to the two-factor theory of emotion, Ezekiel is likely to experience the most intense romantic feelings for Leah during their phone conversation if he has just a. awakened from a short nap. b. finished eating a delicious meal. c. returned from the gym after exercising for an hour. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice d. been studying his geography lecture notes. ANSWER: c 420. Violet and Jameson are both cardiac surgeons and have just performed a particularly difficult operation on a person who has just had a heart attack. Afterward, they both feel a high level of physical arousal, which they interpret as physical attraction and romantic feelings for each other. Violet and Jameson are experiencing a. altruism. b. self-disclosure. c. companionate love. d. passionate love. ANSWER: d 421. In one famous experiment, a group of men were asked by an attractive woman to complete a short questionnaire immediately after they had crossed a swaying footbridge suspended 230 feet above the Capilano River. This experiment was designed to study the factors that contribute to a. altruism. b. the mere exposure effect. c. passionate love. d. companionate love. ANSWER: c 422. Which statement about passionate love is true? a. Passionate love takes some time to develop. b. Passionate love seldom endures. c. Passionate love can last a lifetime. d. Passionate love increases as companionate love decreases. ANSWER: b 423. Craving and obsession are to ________ as deep affection and trust are to ________. a. companionate love; passionate love b. attraction; equity c. equity; attraction d. passionate love; companionate love ANSWER: d 424. The deep affectionate attachment that keeps a relationship going after passionate feelings cool is known as a. altruism. b. self-disclosure. c. companionate love. d. the mere exposure effect. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 425. The passion-feeding hormones include a. oxytocin. b. serotonin. c. dopamine. d. noradrenaline. ANSWER: c 426. Oxytocin is a hormone that has been found to promote feelings of a. anonymity. b. anger. c. attachment. d. envy. ANSWER: c 427. Which of the following hormones does NOT facilitate feelings of passion? a. testosterone b. dopamine c. oxytocin d. adrenaline ANSWER: c 428. Theo and Lana have been married for 32 years and together for 39 years. They are most likely to demonstrate a. romantic love. b. passionate love. c. companionate love. d. superordinate goals. ANSWER: c 429. Carol and Dave have been married for 50 years. They are both deeply committed to the marriage and to each other. They both give and receive equally to their marriage and depend on and trust each other. Carol and Dave's marriage illustrates a. passionate love. b. altruism. c. companionate love. d. the reciprocity norm. ANSWER: c 430. A condition in which people receive from a relationship in proportion to what they give to it is called a. altruism. b. self-disclosure. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice c. equity. d. reciprocity. ANSWER: c 431. Both Nesar and Kimberly receive from their relationship in proportion to what they put into it. Their relationship can be said to have a. equity. b. self-disclosure. c. passionate love. d. similarity. ANSWER: a 432. In one national survey, sharing household chores ranked third on a list of seven things people associate with successful marriages. This best illustrates the perceived value of a. equity. b. proximity. c. passionate love. d. self-disclosure. ANSWER: a 433. Pedro is warm and friendly and does everything he can to take care of his wife. She displays little affection for him, however, and prefers spending time with her friends than at home with Pedro. Pedro's relationship with his wife is best characterized as a. altruistic. b. companionate. c. inequitable. d. passionate. ANSWER: c 434. When we share our likes and dislikes with others, we are engaging in a. equity. b. self-disclosure. c. passionate love. d. similarity. ANSWER: b 435. Callie and Duarte have a fulfilling romantic relationship because they readily share all their likes and dislikes and their dreams and worries. This best illustrates the value of a. passionate love. b. altruism. c. self-disclosure. ScholarFriends.com d. the mere exposure effect. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 436. Three keys to an enduring companionate love are a. the reciprocity norm, bystander intervention, and passionate love. b. self-disclosure, altruism, and social responsibility. c. equity, self-disclosure, and positive support. d. superordinate goals, mirror-image perceptions, and the mere exposure effect. ANSWER: c 437. The fact that it takes multiple compliments to equal the power of one criticism demonstrates a. our sensitivity to criticism. b. our lack of self-worth. c. a decrease in self-esteem. d. a lack of self-efficacy. ANSWER: a 438. Behaving with unselfish concern for the welfare of others is called a. social responsibility theory. b. passionate love. c. companionate love. d. altruism. ANSWER: d 439. Following the 9/11 terrorist attack on New York, people across the country donated their time and money to assist the devastated community. This behavior best illustrates a. altruism. b. social responsibility. c. the bystander effect. d. equity. ANSWER: a 440. Maverick won $5 million on a lottery scratch-off ticket. As an anonymous source, he donated $2 million to a home for unhoused veterans. Maverick's behavior can be described as a. altruism. b. the social-responsibility norm. c. equity. d. the reciprocity norm. ANSWER: a 441. Dr. Istrati spent his whole working life selflessly helping sick and low-income people in developing countries around the world. This example illustrates ScholarFriends.com a. altruism. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice b. the social-responsibility norm. c. equity. d. the reciprocity norm. ANSWER: a 442. Observers' responses to the tragic murder of Kitty Genovese outside her New York apartment best illustrated a. the bystander effect. b. the mere exposure effect. c. the social-responsibility norm. d. the reciprocity norm. ANSWER: a 443. Which social psychologist(s) drew attention to bystander intervention as a reason that onlookers of the murder of Kitty Genovese did not help? a. Milgram b. Sherif c. Festinger d. Darley and Latané ANSWER: d 444. According to Darley and Latané, the decision-making process necessary for bystander intervention in an emergency situation requires a. recognizing a shared predicament and identifying a superordinate goal. b. an increase in self-awareness, the recognition of personal responsibility, and the experience of cognitive dissonance. c. learning the social responsibility norm, and application of the norm to the situation at hand. d. noticing an incident, interpreting the incident as an emergency, and assuming responsibility for helping. ANSWER: d 445. Social psychologists John Darley and Bibb Latané staged emergencies under various conditions in their effort to study a. the reciprocity norm. b. self-fulfilling prophecies c. altruism. d. the bystander effect. ANSWER: d 446. Dale is walking through the mall when he spots a man sitting on a bench gasping for breath. Dale is prepared to help until he notices that none of the passersby are stopping to offer help. So, he decides the man ScholarFriends.com does not need help. His reaction most clearly illustrates one of the dynamics involved in the Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice a. just-world phenomenon. b. reciprocity norm. c. social-responsibility norm. d. bystander effect. ANSWER: d 447. Darley and Latané observed that most students failed to help a person having an epileptic seizure when they thought there were others who could also hear the victim's cries. The students' failure to help is best explained in terms of a. the reciprocity norm. b. a failure to interpret the incident as an emergency. c. indifference and apathy. d. the bystander effect. ANSWER: d 448. The bystander effect refers to the tendency for an observer of an emergency to withhold aid if the a. emergency takes place in a large city. b. observer has just endured a frustrating experience. c. emergency is being observed by a number of other people. d. observer has been exposed to many similar emergencies in the past. ANSWER: c 449. When 60-year-old Mrs. Tudosa ran out of gas on a fairly isolated highway, she received help from a passerby in less than 10 minutes. One year later, when she ran out of gas on a busy freeway, an hour elapsed before someone finally stopped to offer assistance. Mrs. Tudosa's experience best illustrates a. the self-fulfilling prophecy. b. the mere exposure effect. c. altruism. d. the bystander effect. ANSWER: d 450. Social psychologists have observed people's willingness to pick up dropped coins or pencils in elevators in order to study the a. self-fulfilling prophecy. b. mere exposure effect. c. reciprocity norm. d. bystander effect. ANSWER: d 451. Studies of bystander intervention have revealed the situational factors that make our ________ acts more or less likely. ScholarFriends.com a. reciprocal Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice b. apathetic c. altruistic d. responsible ANSWER: c 452. The odds of our helping someone are higher when we are in a ________ town and we are feeling ________. a. small; frustrated b. large; frustrated c. small; guilty d. large; guilty ANSWER: c 453. Which of the following people would be most likely to help Henrietta prepare for a speech she has to give in class the next day? a. Henrietta's older sister, who probably has nothing better to do that evening b. Henrietta's mother, who is excited about the unexpected bonus she just received from her employer c. Henrietta's father, who always points out how differently men and women think and act d. Henrietta's younger brother, whose girlfriend just canceled their date for the next evening ANSWER: b 454. In which of the following scenarios is the person most likely to be helped by other people? a. At a moderately crowded Greyhound bus station, a woman struggles to retrieve her suitcase from a man who shouts at her, "Do you understand? You're not leaving!" b. Just moments after hundreds of people get off a crowded subway train on their way to work, an oddly dressed man in the crowd stumbles and falls as he is walking up the exit steps. c. Carla's car won't restart and partially blocks the exit drive as her fellow employees are walking to their own cars. d. As the impatient crowd surges forward to enter the stadium in the race for the best possible seats for the concert, a man in the crowd yells, "Wait! Stop! I dropped my contact lens!" ANSWER: c 455. While Bogdan was studying alone in the library, he heard a strange, loud noise and immediately went to report the incident. Bogdan's behavior a. was not constrained by the bystander effect. b. was the result of shared responsibility. c. is an example of the reciprocity norm. d. was constrained by altruism. ANSWER: a 456. Researchers have found that helpfulness breeds happiness because helping those in need ScholarFriends.com a. activates the reciprocity norm. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice b. activates brain areas associated with reward. c. is a reason for bystander intervention. d. produces an expectation that others will help us. ANSWER: b 457. Researchers in one experiment gave people cash and instructions either to spend it on themselves or to spend it on others. Those assigned to spend it on others subsequently experienced the greatest a. equity. b. reciprocity norm. c. self-disclosure. d. happiness. ANSWER: d 458. The expectation that people should return help, not harm, to those who have helped them is called the a. the bystander effect. b. equity norm. c. social-responsibility norm. d. reciprocity norm. ANSWER: d 459. Doing a favor for someone because they have helped you in the past illustrates a. conflict. b. cost-benefit analysis. c. the reciprocity norm. d. the social-responsibility norm. ANSWER: c 460. Kayla gave her friend a great present for her birthday and expects to receive a great gift when it is her birthday in a few months. She has this expectation based on the a. reciprocity norm. b. social-responsibility norm. c. just-world phenomenon. d. the bystander effect. ANSWER: a 461. After she received a free hand-painted Christmas ornament from a religious organization, Mrs. Montevecchi felt obligated to mail a cash donation to the organization. Her response to the free gift best illustrates the impact of the a. mere exposure effect. b. social-responsibility norm. c. bystander effect. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice d. reciprocity norm. ANSWER: d 462. An expectation that people will help those who depend on them is known as a. the reciprocity norm. b. the bystander effect. c. shared responsibility. d. the social-responsibility norm. ANSWER: d 463. The social-responsibility norm refers to the expectation that people should help those who a. depend on them. b. deserve help. c. help themselves. d. have helped them. ANSWER: a 464. Katiana tells her family that they should help those who cannot help themselves. This is an example of a. conflict. b. the just-world phenomenon. c. the reciprocity norm. d. the social-responsibility norm. ANSWER: d 465. Helping those who are experiencing homelessness illustrates a. conflict. b. the just-world phenomenon. c. the reciprocity norm. d. the social-responsibility norm. ANSWER: d 466. While waiting in line in a large supermarket, Abigail spots a lost toddler. She abandons her groceries, walks the child over to the customer service desk, and waits while the parents are paged over the intercom. Abigail likely helped in this way because of a. the reciprocity norm. b. the social-responsibility norm. c. superordinate goals. d. the bystander effect. ANSWER: b 467. Picking up a prescription for an older neighbor who is ill illustrates ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice a. conflict. b. the just-world phenomenon. c. the reciprocity norm. d. the social-responsibility norm. ANSWER: d 468. Despite the risk of infection, many people cared for the sick and shopped for older neighbors during the COVID-19 pandemic. Their behavior is related to a. the social-responsibility norm. b. the bystander effect. c. mirror-image perceptions. d. the reciprocity norm. ANSWER: a 469. Gallup surveys of more than 300,000 people across 140 countries indicate that "highly religious" people are more likely than the less religious to a. report that they have volunteered time to an organization. b. demonstrate the bystander effect. c. violate the social-responsibility norm. d. base their altruistic acts on the principle of reciprocity. ANSWER: a 470. New surveys of 8000 Australians and 42,000 New Zealanders have replicated the association between ________ and volunteerism. a. religious engagement b. home environment c. intelligence scores d. academic achievement ANSWER: a 471. Reciprocity and social responsibility are social norms that a. affect equity. b. correspond to the reward theory of attraction. c. affect self-disclosure. d. influence altruistic behavior. ANSWER: d 472. To a social psychologist, a perceived incompatibility of goals indicates a. superordinate goals. b. a mirror-image perception. ScholarFriends.com c. a conflict. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice d. the social-responsibility norm. ANSWER: c 473. Eldridge wants to use his father's car on Saturday to attend a concert, but his father wants to use it to attend a lecture. Their differing goals for Saturday illustrates a. a conflict. b. the reciprocity norm. c. social responsibility. d. equity. ANSWER: a 474. To help people avoid conflicts, psychologists should promote an increased awareness of a. equity. b. the mere exposure effect. c. the reciprocity norm. d. the social-responsibility norm. ANSWER: d 475. Two conflicting groups who share the same negative views of each other demonstrate a. the reciprocity norm. b. social facilitation. c. the social-responsibility norm. d. mirror-image perceptions. ANSWER: d 476. Rolland thinks Serena is annoyed with him, so he snubs her. In return, Serena may act annoyed, justifying his perceptions. This situation best illustrates a. mirror-image perceptions. b. the reciprocity norm. c. superordinate goals. d. equity. ANSWER: a 477. A belief that confirms itself by influencing us to react in a way that seems to justify the belief is called a. a self-fulfilling prophecy. b. cognitive dissonance. c. a superordinate goal. d. the bystander effect. ANSWER: a 478. Sarita's friend tells her that her sister, Aruna, is angry with her, although she is not. Sarita enters their home ScholarFriends.com with an angry facial expression and does not speak to her sister. Aruna, who took Sarita's behavior to mean that Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice she was in a bad mood, spoke sarcastically to her, which led to an argument. This misunderstanding was facilitated by each person forming a. a self-fulfilling prophecy. b. superordinate goals. c. social scripts. d. the social-responsibility norm. ANSWER: a 479. Jayson thinks that Vedant does not like him. Jayson therefore tends to ignore Vedant, who then acts rude to Jayson. This is an example of a a. self-fulfilling prophecy. b. reciprocity norm. c. mirror-image perception. d. superordinate goal. ANSWER: a 480. Stephanie believes her teacher does not like her, so she behaves in a surly manner in class. Her teacher responds by scolding her, justifying her perceptions. This process is called a. superordinate goals. b. cognitive dissonance. c. a self-fulfilling prophecy. d. the bystander effect. ANSWER: c 481. By demonizing one another with ________, parties in conflict may then act in ways that confirm these beliefs, leading them to become ________. a. peripheral route persuasion; self-fulfilling prophecies b. mirror-image perceptions; tight cultures c. mirror-image perceptions; self-fulfilling prophecies d. self-fulfilling prophecies; mirror-image perceptions ANSWER: c 482. University College London volunteers used a mechanical device to press on another volunteer's finger, after feeling pressure on their own finger. They typically responded to the pressure on their finger a. with less pressure than they had just experienced. b. with more pressure than they had just experienced. c. with the same amount of pressure they had just experienced. d. with no pressure at all. ANSWER: b 483. Noncompetitive contact between members of two different ethnic groups is likely to reduce prejudice ScholarFriends.com when the contact is between individuals with Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice a. a self-fulfilling prophecy. b. superordinate goals. c. equal status. d. mirror-image perceptions. ANSWER: c 484. Alane has always had a negative attitude toward people from Far East countries. When she first went to college, she was assigned a roommate from China. This experience caused her to give up her prejudicial attitude. This best illustrates the impact of a. altruism. b. the reciprocity norm. c. equal status contact. d. equity. ANSWER: c 485. Which of the following statements is true? a. Countries and U.S. states with the most immigrants tend to have more supportive attitudes toward immigrants. b. Countries and U.S. states with no immigrants tend to have more supportive attitudes toward immigrants. c. Countries and U.S. states with a diverse group of immigrants tend to have less supportive attitudes toward immigrants. d. Countries and U.S. states with few immigrants tend to have more supportive attitudes toward immigrants. ANSWER: a 486. Which of the following people is most likely to have supportive attitudes regarding immigrants? a. Jane, who lives in a state that has a large number of established immigrants b. Vince, who lives in a state with few immigrants c. Clara, who lives in a state with few immigrants d. Marla, who lives in a state with an influx of recent immigrants ANSWER: a 487. Marjoy, who is straight, has a brother, an aunt, and several good friends who are gay. Which of the following is likely to be true of Marjoy? a. She will display outgroup prejudice toward gay people. b. She will be supportive of same-sex marriage. c. Her explicit and implicit attitudes toward gay people will differ. d. Her explicit and implicit attitudes toward same-sex marriage will differ. ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com

488. Sherif's study of conflict in a Boy Scout camp indicated that conflict between two groups of boys could be Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice reduced most effectively by a. bringing the members of both groups into close contact. b. having one group make conciliatory gestures to the other group. c. allowing leaders of the two groups to communicate. d. exposing the groups to tasks that required their joint cooperation. ANSWER: d 489. Psychologists describe shared goals that override differences among people and require their cooperation as a. social responsibilities. b. self-fulfilling prophecies. c. companionate. d. superordinate. ANSWER: d 490. Muzafer Sherif planned a disruption of the water supply in a Boy Scout camp in order to observe how social relationships are influenced by a. reciprocity norms. b. social-responsibility norms. c. superordinate goals. d. the mere exposure effect. ANSWER: c 491. Steven and Miguel dislike each other. Which of the following could help them overcome their feelings of dislike and promote peace between them? a. working together on superordinate goals b. understanding conflict resolution strategies c. learning about their differences d. observing someone else be friendly to the other person ANSWER: a 492. Ms. Gui teaches at a high school with students from a wide variety of racial, ethnic, and socioeconomic backgrounds. When assigning group activities, she chooses the groups herself to ensure that each group has a diversity of students. As a result, all of her students get along well regardless of their individual differences. Ms. Gui has instituted the use of ________ in her classroom. a. equity b. social responsibility c. superordinate goals d. mirror-image perceptions ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com

493. Researchers have found that when countries are experiencing conflict, having them imagine the shared Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice threat of global climate change tends to reduce conflict. This demonstrates the power of a. equity. b. social responsibility. c. superordinate goals. d. a reciprocity norm. ANSWER: c 494. If one were to generalize from Sherif's study of conflict resolution between two groups of campers, the best way for the United States and China to improve their relationship would be to a. hold highly publicized athletic contests between the two countries. b. minimize their trade and economic exchanges. c. conduct a joint space program designed to land humans on Mars. d. allow citizens of each country the right to freely immigrate to the other country. ANSWER: c

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 1. An individual's characteristic pattern of thinking, feeling, and acting is their a. self-esteem. b. personality. c. reality principle. d. defense mechanism. ANSWER: b 2. Zorana spends most of her time home alone, usually reading a good book. Amara prefers going out with friends and enjoying a good party. The characteristics of Zorana and Amara indicate that each has a distinctive a. fixation. b. personality. c. Electra complex. d. collective unconscious. ANSWER: b 3. Which theory of personality proposed that childhood sexuality and unconscious motivations influence personality? a. humanistic b. psychoanalytic c. social-cognitive d. trait ANSWER: b 4. Which theories of personality focused on our inner capacities for growth and self-fulfillment? a. humanistic b. psychodynamic c. social-cognitive d. trait ANSWER: a 5. Dr. Ambrose tends to focus on the self-fulfillment of her clients. Her goals of therapy are consistent with a. psychoanalytic theory. b. humanistic theory. c. social-cognitive theory. d. trait theory. ANSWER: b 6. Trait theories built upon a. psychoanalytic theories. b. humanistic theories. ScholarFriends.com c. both psychoanalytic and humanistic theories. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice d. neither psychoanalytic nor humanistic theories. ANSWER: c 7. Which theories of personality examine characteristic patterns of behavior? a. humanistic b. psychodynamic c. social-cognitive d. trait ANSWER: d 8. Which theories of personality explore the interaction between people's traits and their social context? a. humanistic b. psychodynamic c. social-cognitive d. trait ANSWER: c 9. Which contemporary theoretical approach is most directly descended from Freud's psychoanalysis? a. trait theories b. psychodynamic theories c. social-cognitive theories d. humanistic theories ANSWER: b 10. Which theories of personality view human behavior as a lively (dynamic) interaction between the conscious and unconscious mind, involving related motives and conflicts? a. humanistic b. psychodynamic c. social-cognitive d. trait ANSWER: b 11. Psychodynamic theories emphasize that personality involves a dynamic interaction between a. persons and situations. b. repression and fixation. c. conscious and unconscious mental processes. d. the inferiority complex and the collective unconscious. ANSWER: c 12. Jules' therapist tells him he would have higher self-esteem and would be more effective at work if he could realize how his respect and anger toward his boss caused unconscious conflicting feelings. The therapist's belief ScholarFriends.com best illustrates the ________ perspective. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice a. trait b. humanistic c. psychodynamic d. social-cognitive ANSWER: c 13. Sigmund Freud's theory of personality and the associated treatment techniques is referred to as a. psychoanalysis. b. reaction formation. c. social-cognitive theory. d. the reality principle. ANSWER: a 14. Psychoanalysis refers to the personality theory and therapeutic practices developed by a. Karen Horney. b. Carl Jung. c. Sigmund Freud. d. Alfred Adler. ANSWER: c 15. By professional training, Freud was a a. philosopher. b. sociologist. c. physician. d. literary scholar. ANSWER: c 16. Freud became interested in unconscious personality dynamics when he noticed that certain patients' symptoms a. resulted from the physical abuse they had received from their parents during childhood. b. reflected a loss of individuality. c. illustrated a collective unconscious. d. made no medical sense. ANSWER: d 17. Dalila is a physical therapist whose left hand feels numb. Dalila goes to her doctor, who has referred her to a specialist because her symptoms a. are obviously fictitious. b. indicate a serious medical disorder. c. are easily fixed. ScholarFriends.com d. do not make medical sense. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 18. Freud believed that certain troubling symptoms could be traced to painful unconscious memories. This led him to suspect that these symptoms resulted from a. genetic defects. b. an inferiority complex. c. mental processes. d. the collective unconscious. ANSWER: c 19. According to Freud, the unconscious is a. the part of personality that cannot process information. b. a reservoir of mostly unacceptable thoughts, wishes, feelings, and memories. c. a set of universal concepts acquired by all humans from our common past. d. a reservoir of deeply repressed memories that do not affect behavior. ANSWER: b 20. According to Freud, the ________ is a reservoir of mostly unacceptable thoughts, wishes, feelings, and memories of which we are unaware. a. self-concept b. ego c. unconscious d. superego ANSWER: c 21. Vera tends to avoid any interaction with her brother, but she doesn't know why. According to Freud, she most likely has conflicting feelings of love and hate for her brother, but she is unaware of the hatred she feels because it is held in her a. preconscious. b. conscious mind. c. unconscious. d. collective unconscious. ANSWER: c 22. Rana does not remember anything about the day her mother was diagnosed with cancer. According to Freud's theory of personality, Rana's memories are stored at the ________ level of awareness. a. collective unconscious b. unconscious c. conscious d. implicit ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 23. Malika cannot remember the abuse she experienced while in foster care when she was 5 and 6 years old. According to her psychoanalyst, Malika has ________ these memories into her ________. a. projected; conscious mind b. repressed; unconscious mind c. displaced; unconscious mind d. fixated; conscious mind ANSWER: b 24. Easton's friends remind him of the day they laughed at him because he cried after missing a hit baseball. Easton says he has no memory of the event. According to psychoanalysis, Easton's memory of this event was repressed into his a. unconscious. b. superego. c. ego. d. id. ANSWER: a 25. According to Freud, repressed feelings and ideas seep out in a. people's work and daily habits. b. slips of the tongue and pen. c. people's dreams. d. all of these ways. ANSWER: d 26. Freud believed that ________ are the "royal road to the unconscious." a. projective tests b. dreams c. erogenous zones d. psychosexual stages ANSWER: b 27. Prior to his use of free association, Freud unsuccessfully tried to make use of a. hypnosis. b. projective tests. c. psychoactive drugs. d. fixation. ANSWER: a 28. Freud's use of free association was intended to a. identify the presence of the Oedipus complex as it affects the present. b. trace a path from the troubled present toScholarFriends.com a fixation at a previous psychosocial stage of development. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice c. trace a path from the troubled present to painful memories from childhood. d. uncover an imbalance between the id, ego, and superego. ANSWER: c 29. Reporting whatever thoughts come to mind even if they are trivial or embarrassing is characteristic of a. defense mechanisms. b. schemas. c. free association. d. the inferiority complex. ANSWER: c 30. Free association is central to a. personality development. b. reaction formation. c. psychoanalysis. d. projective testing. ANSWER: c 31. A psychotherapist instructs Ezra to relax and say whatever comes to mind, no matter how unimportant or embarrassing. The therapist is using a technique known as a. fixation. b. free association. c. projection. d. hypnosis. ANSWER: b 32. Forgotten memories were said by Freud to be repressed into a. the conscious mind. b. the id. c. the superego. d. the unconscious. ANSWER: d 33. Freud believed that the basis of human personality was some form of ________ that needed to be resolved. a. conflict b. impulse c. restraint d. tendency ANSWER: a ScholarFriends.com 34. According to psychoanalytic theory, the part of the personality that strives for immediate gratification of Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice basic drives is the a. id. b. ego. c. superego. d. erogenous zone. ANSWER: a 35. When 7-year-old Vineet was told he could not go outside and play with his friends until he finished his homework, he went into his room and slammed the door. Freud would have suggested that Vineet was unable to resist the demands of his a. superego. b. ego. c. id. d. Oedipus complex. ANSWER: c 36. Freud emphasized that the id operates on the ________ principle. a. schema b. false consensus c. identity d. pleasure ANSWER: d 37. According to Freud, the need to satisfy basic sexual and aggressive motives comes from the ________, which operates on the ________. a. ego; pleasure principle b. superego; Oedipus complex c. id; pleasure principle d. ego; reality principle ANSWER: c 38. When a newborn cries because it is hungry, Freud would say that the newborn's ________ is in control. a. id b. ego c. superego d. erogenous zone ANSWER: a 39. According to Freud, the id stores unconscious energy, including its ________, which is a sexual energy force that fuels our pleasure-seeking. a. ego ScholarFriends.com b. libido Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice c. superego d. Oedipus complex ANSWER: b 40. Five-year-old Keniel notices a tray of freshly baked chocolate candy. He would love to sneak a piece before dinner, but he knows his mother doesn't want him to eat anything just before dinner. According to Freud, the desire for the cookie and the thoughts of sneaking a cookie come from the ________ seeking to satisfy the ________ principle. a. id; pleasure principle b. ego; pleasure principle c. id; reality principle d. ego; reality principle ANSWER: a 41. Matey's father brought home an apple pie to be used for tonight's dinner dessert. While his father was in the den, Matey grabbed a piece with his hands and took a bite. Which part of his personality, according to Freud, was obviously in control? a. id b. ego c. superego d. executive ANSWER: a 42. Darius spends hours playing video games on his phone. His parents have him put away his phone before dinner, and he is not allowed to play until the next day. After completing his homework and after his parents have gone to bed, Darius gets out of bed and gets the phone to play games. Which part of his personality is in control, according to Freud's theory? a. id b. ego c. superego d. executive ANSWER: a 43. Ego is to id as ________ is to ________. a. unconscious; conscious b. biology; morality c. reality principle; pleasure principle d. regression; repression ANSWER: c 44. Freud emphasized that the ________ operates on the reality principle. ScholarFriends.com a. id Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice b. superego c. ego d. personality ANSWER: c 45. According to Freud, the component of personality that seeks to reconcile the demands of the id, superego, and reality is the a. collective unconscious. b. Oedipus complex. c. erogenous zone. d. ego. ANSWER: d 46. Freud referred to the partly conscious "executive" part of the personality as the a. Oedipus complex. b. superego. c. ego. d. id. ANSWER: c 47. Mason wants to be a caring friend but also wants to express his dislike for some of his friend's habits. According to Freud, Mason's ________ might enable him to partially satisfy both desires. a. collective unconscious b. superego c. Oedipus complex d. ego ANSWER: d 48. According to Freud, the partly conscious, "executive" part of personality that weighs a decision's risks and rewards is the a. collective unconscious. b. Oedipus complex. c. ego. d. superego. ANSWER: c 49. Because the ego tries to balance the demands of the id, the superego, and reality, the ego is considered the ________ part of personality. a. collective b. complex c. unconscious. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice d. executive ANSWER: d 50. Jana is a somewhat aggressive adolescent. Rather than acting out with her family and peers, she expresses her aggressive nature while playing video games. This demonstrates her ________ at work. a. id b. ego c. superego d. erogenous zone ANSWER: b 51. Melani's aggressiveness has resulted in confrontations between her and local police. According to Freud, Melani's ________ is being overwhelmed by the desires of the ________. a. id; superego b. ego; id c. id; ego d. collective unconscious; unconscious ANSWER: b 52. When 5-year-old Willow enters the kitchen, she notices a plate of brownies on the kitchen counter. She really wants one, but her mother tells her that she must wait until after dinner. As Willow goes to grab a brownie, she pauses and decides to sit at the dinner table. Willow calls for her mother and says, "I'm ready for dinner." Which aspect of Willow's personality, according to Freud, is responsible for her actions? a. id b. superego c. ego d. impulse ANSWER: c 53. When 20-year-old Noah won a large sum from a Lottery scratch-off, he was tempted to buy an expensive car. Instead, he put most of the money into a savings account for his college education and used some to repair his family home. Noah shows signs of a a. weak superego. b. weak id. c. strong collective unconscious. d. strong ego. ANSWER: d 54. According to Freud, the partly conscious part of personality that represents internalized ideals and provides standards for judgment is the a. Oedipus complex. ScholarFriends.com b. ego. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice c. id. d. superego. ANSWER: d 55. According to Freud, a child's ego begins to recognize the demands of the superego at around age a. 2 or 3. b. 4 or 5. c. 6 or 7. d. 8 or 9. ANSWER: b 56. According to Freud's theory, the ________ strives for perfection and judges actions as well as produces positive feelings of pride or negative feelings of guilt. a. id b. ego c. superego d. erogenous zone ANSWER: c 57. Mia is horrified by the thought of watching a video that shows young men riding around randomly shooting people on the street. Freud would have attributed these feelings to Mia's a. ego. b. id. c. superego. d. inferiority complex. ANSWER: c 58. Luca's parents won't let him go to a friend's party because they think there will be underage drinking there. Luca's plans to sneak out of the house to attend the party. However, he starts to feel guilty and decides to stay home. According to Freud, the feelings of guilt come from his a. id. b. ego. c. self-concept. d. superego. ANSWER: d 59. Although Mava studies very hard to do well in her courses, she always feels she has not done enough. A Freudian psychologist would suggest that Mava shows signs of a a. weak id. b. weak ego. c. strong id. ScholarFriends.com d. strong superego. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 60. Internalized ideals are to ________ as unconscious energy is to ________. a. superego; id b. ego; id c. id; ego d. ego; superego ANSWER: a 61. Freud suggested that children pass through a series of ________, during which the id's pleasure-seeking energies focus on distinct erogenous zones. a. psychosexual stages b. archetypes c. fixations d. Oedipus complexes ANSWER: a 62. Freud suggested that the id's pleasure-seeking energies focus on distinct pleasure-sensitive areas of the body known as a. psychosexual stages. b. archetypes. c. erogenous zones. d. Oedipus complexes. ANSWER: c 63. Which of the following represents the correct order of Freud's psychosexual stages of development? a. oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital b. oral, anal, genital, latency, phallic c. anal, oral, latency, phallic, genital d. oral, genital, anal, latency, phallic ANSWER: a 64. Which stage of development, according to Freud, occurs between birth and 18 months of age? a. oral b. anal c. phallic d. latency ANSWER: a 65. Thirteen-month-old Abigail is determined to check out the contents of all the cabinets in the kitchen. Her mother is worried about her explorations because she knows that Abigail tends to put everything in her mouth, ScholarFriends.com She bites, chews, and sucks on objects. According to Freud, Abigail is in the ________ stage of development. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice a. anal b. oral c. latency d. phallic ANSWER: b 66. Which psychosexual stage of development focuses on coping with demands for control? a. oral b. anal c. phallic d. latency ANSWER: b 67. Two-year-old Colton frequently refuses to obey his parents because he derives immense pleasure from demonstrating his independence from their control. Freud would have suggested that Colton is going through the ________ stage of development. a. phallic b. anal c. latency d. oral ANSWER: b 68. Freud believed that children cope with incestuous sexual feelings during the ________ stage of development. a. oral b. anal c. phallic d. genital ANSWER: c 69. Four-year-old Avery stands between his parents when he sees his father trying to kiss his mother. Avery is going through the ________ stage of development. a. phallic b. anal c. latency d. oral ANSWER: a 70. According to Freud, the development of sexual desires for their mother and jealousy and hatred for their father causes boys to a. fixate on the anal stage. ScholarFriends.com b. be passively dependent on their mother. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice c. feel guilty and fear punishment from their father. d. identify with their mother. ANSWER: c 71. According to Freud, boys are most likely to experience the Oedipus complex during the ________ stage. a. anal b. phallic c. oral d. latency ANSWER: b 72. The Oedipus complex is the term used by Freud to describe a. the erogenous zones that are the focus of the latency stage. b. the passive dependence of someone who is orally fixated. c. children's efforts to overcome feelings of inferiority. d. boys' feelings of guilt and fear of punishment over their sexual desire for their mother. ANSWER: d 73. Five-year-old Kinsley dreams that he and his mother are walking through the woods when they see a snake crawling across their path. Kinsley pushes his mother out of the way, thus saving her from being bitten. A psychoanalyst would most likely suspect that Kinsley's dream reflects a(n) a. oral fixation. b. reaction formation. c. projective test. d. Oedipus complex. ANSWER: d 74. Some psychoanalysts in Freud's era believed that girls experienced unconscious sexual desires for their father during the phallic stage. These feelings, they thought, reflected a. reaction formation. b. an Electra complex. c. projection. d. a weak superego. ANSWER: b 75. According to some psychologists in Freud's era, Maureen's dream of rescuing her father from a falling rock reflect a(n) a. oral fixation. b. reaction formation. c. Electra complex. d. Oedipus complex. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 76. Freud suggested that a boy's identification with his father during the phallic stage illustrates a. latency development. b. the benefits of immediate gratification. c. free association. d. the process of conflict resolution. ANSWER: d 77. According to Freud, identification involves a. disguising one's own threatening impulses by attributing them to others. b. switching unacceptable impulses into their opposites. c. refusing to believe or even perceive painful realities. d. the process by which children incorporate their parents' values into their developing superegos. ANSWER: d 78. Freud suggested that the process of identification is most directly responsible for strengthening a. the Oedipus complex. b. free association. c. the superego. d. erogenous zones. ANSWER: c 79. Gender identity refers to a. our birth sex. b. the sense of being male, female, neither, or some combination of male and female. c. the set of socially expected behaviors for males and females. d. internalized ideals for appropriate sexual behavior. ANSWER: b 80. Nicholas has a sense of being a male. This would be considered his a. pleasure principle. b. superego. c. fixation. d. gender identity. ANSWER: d 81. Layla follows her mother around the house, pretending to do everything her mother does. She also expresses opinions that mimic her mother's opinions. According to Freud, this ________ with her mother provides Layla with her gender identity, or sense of being female. a. hatred for ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice b. jealousy toward c. affiliation motivation with d. identification with ANSWER: d 82. The theory that would most likely predict that boys raised without a father figure will have difficulty developing a strongly masculine gender identity was proposed by a. Carl Jung. b. Alfred Adler. c. Karen Horney. d. Sigmund Freud. ANSWER: d 83. In which psychosexual stage of development are sexual feelings dormant? a. oral b. anal c. phallic d. latency ANSWER: d 84. Serenity is in the fifth grade and spends all her time playing video games. She also has no sexual desires. Which of Freud's psychosexual stage of development is she currently in? a. oral b. anal c. phallic d. latency ANSWER: d 85. Nine-year-old Riley enjoys spending time playing outside with his friends. According to Freud, Riley, who is no longer dealing with feelings of sexual desire for his mother, is probably in the ________ stage of development. a. phallic b. anal c. latency d. oral ANSWER: c 86. In the ________ stage of development, sexual interests mature. a. phallic b. anal c. genital ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice d. latency ANSWER: c 87. Maverick, who is 14 years old, has experienced a re-awakening of his sexual interests.. According to Freud, Maverick is in the ________ stage of development. a. anal b. genital c. latency d. phallic ANSWER: b 88. Freud referred to a lingering focus of pleasure-seeking energies at an earlier psychosexual stage as a. projection. b. a fixation. c. displacement. d. repression. ANSWER: b 89. Freud suggested that orally fixated adults may be more likely to a. overeat. b. develop an inferiority complex. c. develop an Electra complex. d. have a strong superego. ANSWER: a 90. Ruby has never resolved the conflict she felt over her love for her father, so she smokes two packs of cigarettes a day in an effort to reduce her anxiety. Freud would have suggested that Ruby demonstrates a. a fixation. b. free association. c. reaction formation. d. collective unconscious. ANSWER: a 91. Freud suggested that defense mechanisms protect an individual from a. anxiety. b. an inferiority complex. c. the collective unconscious. d. erogenous zones. ANSWER: a 92. According to Freud, all defense mechanisms ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice a. function at a conscious level. b. are controlled by the id. c. are controlled by the superego. d. function indirectly and unconsciously. ANSWER: d 93. In psychoanalytic theory, defense mechanisms are used by the a. id to defend against the accusations and guilt feelings produced by the superego. b. ego to reduce anxiety by unconsciously distorting reality. c. superego to prevent expression of sexual and aggressive drives. d. id, ego, and superego in a repetitive sequence of internal conflicts. ANSWER: b 94. According to Freud, repression is the a. process of storing new information in the conscious mind. b. process of banishing from the conscious mind memories, thoughts, and feelings that produce anxiety. c. lingering focus of pleasure-seeking energies at an earlier psychosexual stage of development. d. use of hypnosis to uncover unconscious, painful memories and replace them with more pleasant memories. ANSWER: b 95. Freud believed that repression was the defense mechanism that a. helps us retreat to earlier psychosexual stages. b. switches unacceptable impulses into their opposites. c. shifts sexual impulses toward a more acceptable person. d. underlies all of the other defense mechanisms. ANSWER: d 96. Fifteen-year-old Katiana feels uncomfortable whenever she is around her uncle but does not know why. A psychoanalyst would most likely suggest that something bad happened between them when Katiana was very young and so Katiana is using the defense mechanism of ________ to defend against the anxiety she would otherwise feel. a. repression b. rationalization c. regression d. displacement ANSWER: a 97. Regression is a defense mechanism that involves a. consciously expressing feelings that are the opposite of underlying unconscious impulses. b. disguising threatening impulses by attributing them to others. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice c. retreating to an earlier psychosexual stage. d. shifting sexual or aggressive impulses toward less-threatening targets. ANSWER: c 98. Freud would have suggested that an excessive fixation is most likely to contribute to a. regression. b. an inferiority complex. c. reciprocal determinism. d. free association. ANSWER: a 99. Five-year-old Olak had not sucked his thumb since he was 3. However, he started sucking his thumb again soon after his sister was born. Olak's behavior best illustrates a. reaction formation. b. projection. c. regression. d. denial. ANSWER: c 100. Reaction formation refers to the process by which people a. disguise unacceptable unconscious impulses by attributing them to others. b. consciously express feelings that are the opposite of unacceptable unconscious impulses. c. retreat to behavior patterns characteristic of a more infantile stage of development. d. offer self-justifying explanations in place of the real but unacceptable unconscious reasons for action. ANSWER: b 101. Parents who disguise hostility toward their children by becoming overly protective of them are very likely using the defense mechanism of a. projection. b. regression. c. rationalization. d. reaction formation. ANSWER: d 102. Mary is usually extremely friendly with new people she meets, even though she is repressing feelings of anger. Which defense mechanism does this represent? a. regression b. reaction formation c. rationalization d. displacement ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 103. The defense mechanism by which people disguise threatening impulses by attributing them to others is called a. projection. b. displacement. c. fixation. d. reaction formation. ANSWER: a 104. Mr. Burnell thinks his neighbor talks too much when in fact Mr. Burnell tends to monopolize the conversation. According to psychoanalytic theory, Mr. Burnell's belief that his neighbor talks too much is a a. regression. b. projection. c. denial. d. reaction formation. ANSWER: b 105. The defense mechanism in which self-justifying explanations replace the real, unconscious reasons for actions is a. projection. b. denial. c. rationalization. d. displacement. ANSWER: c 106. James drinks regularly but explains his frequent drinking as a way to be sociable with friends. Which defense mechanism does this represent? a. regression b. reaction formation c. rationalization d. displacement ANSWER: c 107. Redirecting aggressive or sexual impulses toward a less threatening target is referred to as a. regression. b. reaction formation. c. projection. d. displacement. ANSWER: d 108. Mr. And Mrs. Muirfield have been separated for more than a year, and it has been a trying time. Both of them tend to take their anger out on their children by punishing them for even minor misdeeds. A psychoanalyst ScholarFriends.com would be most likely to view the Muirfields' treatment of their children as an example of Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice a. reaction formation. b. displacement. c. projection. d. regression. ANSWER: b 109. Refusing to believe or even to perceive painful realities constitutes the defense mechanism known as a. regression. b. denial. c. displacement. d. projection. ANSWER: b 110. Alfredo's doctor tells him that he has pancreatic cancer and must undergo chemotherapy for the next four months. Alfredo feels fine and does not believe the doctor. Alfredo's belief best illustrates a. denial. b. displacement. c. fixation. d. projection. ANSWER: a 111. Freud suggested that slips of the tongue illustrate an incomplete a. fixation. b. displacement. c. rationalization. d. repression. ANSWER: d 112. It is finals week and Jessica has two cumulative exams tomorrow. She has been studying, it seems, nonstop for the past few days and is currently in her dorm room studying. Her roommate tells her that she is studying too much and that she should go out to dinner with her. Jessica replies, "No thanks. I plan to spend the evening sleeping . . . uh, I mean studying." Jessica's reply is an example of what Freud would call a. a slip of the tongue. b. denial. c. rationalization. d. projection. ANSWER: a 113. Which of the following Freudian ideas did neo-Freudians tend to agree with? a. the idea that women have weak superegos b. the importance of the conscious mind inScholarFriends.com interpreting experience Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice c. the emphasis on sex and aggression as human motivations d. the personality structure outlined by Freud ANSWER: d 114. Neo-Freudian personality theorists were most likely to disagree with Freud about the importance of a. the unconscious dynamics underlying behavior. b. childhood sexual instincts. c. anxiety and defense mechanisms. d. distinguishing between id, ego, and superego. ANSWER: b 115. Which of the following Freudian ideas was NOT one of the ideas accepted by neo-Freudians? a. the personality structures of the id, ego, and superego b. the importance of the unconscious c. the defense mechanisms d. the dynamics of depression ANSWER: d 116. Which of the following Freudian ideas did neo-Freudians tend to disagree with? a. the childhood roots of personality b. the importance of the unconscious mind c. the emphasis on sex and aggression as human motivations d. the personality structure outlined by Freud ANSWER: c 117. Neo-Freudians placed ________ emphasis on the conscious mind than Freud did and ________ believe that sex and aggression were all-consuming motivations. a. less; did b. more; did not c. less; did not d. more; did ANSWER: b 118. Alfred Adler was a neo-Freudian who proposed the concept of a. an oral fixation. b. identification. c. an inferiority complex. d. penis envy. ANSWER: c 119. Karen Horney, a prominent neo-Freudian,ScholarFriends.com believed that Freud's theory Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice a. showed a masculine bias. b. discounted strong unconscious, aggressive desires. c. discounted the importance of dreams. d. disputed that women never experience a phallic stage of development. ANSWER: a 120. Hermina becomes extremely anxious whenever she comes close to developing a long-lasting romantic relationship because her parents abandoned her when she was very young. Her therapist explains that her problem results from unfulfilled childhood desire for love and security. Hermina's therapist's statement reflects the views of a. Sigmund Freud. b. Alfred Adler. c. Karen Horney. d. Carl Jung. ANSWER: c 121. Alfred Adler and Karen Horney agreed with Freud on the notion that childhood is important. However, they believed that ________ tensions during this time were important for personality development. a. sexual b. aggressive c. social d. temperamental ANSWER: c 122. The theorist who agreed with Freud that the unconscious exerts a powerful influence on personality development but also contended that the unconscious contains much more than our repressed thoughts and feelings was a. Alfred Adler. b. Karen Horney. c. Carl Jung. d. Drew Westen. ANSWER: c 123. The common story of a global flood that is included in most religious teachings from around the world demonstrates Jung's idea of a(n) a. collective unconscious. b. reaction formation. c. Oedipus complex. d. Electra complex. ANSWER: a ScholarFriends.com

124. Carl Jung referred to a shared reservoir of memory traces from our species' history as the Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice a. false consensus effect. b. pleasure principle. c. collective unconscious. d. erogenous zone. ANSWER: c 125. Carl Jung believed that the collective unconscious contains ________ derived from our species' universal experiences. a. archetypes b. free associations c. defense mechanisms d. erogenous zones ANSWER: a 126. Carl Jung referred to the shared memories and images in our collective unconscious as. a. complexes. b. archetypes. c. defense mechanisms. d. projections. ANSWER: a 127. Which personality theorist would have suggested that many ideas about good and evil that are shared across many different cultures are expressions of universally experienced archetypes? a. Sigmund Freud b. Karen Horney c. Carl Jung d. Alfred Adler ANSWER: c 128. Which neo-Freudian theorist emphasized the influence of the collective unconscious in personality development? a. Carl Jung b. Alfred Adler c. Karen Horney d. Hermann Rorschach ANSWER: a 129. According to Carl Jung, the collective unconscious a. is analogous to Freud's concept of defense mechanisms. b. gives rise to the ego and superego. c. is the part of the unconscious mind that ScholarFriends.com reflects human evolutionary history and is common to all Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice people. d. is the source of sexual and aggressive instinctual drives. ANSWER: c 130. Professor Calabrese is researching the folklore that has been passed from generation to generation in countries around the world. According to Carl Jung, this folklore provides examples of cultural a. defense mechanisms. b. stereotypes. c. implicit memories. d. archetypes. ANSWER: d 131. Today's psychologists don't advocate Jung's collective unconscious, but they do assume that a. much of our mental functioning is unconscious. b. people often struggle with conflicting wishes. c. our shared evolutionary history shaped some universal dispositions. d. sexual drives are central to personality development. ANSWER: d 132. Contemporary psychodynamic theorists are most likely to disagree with Freud's assumption that a. much of our mental functioning is unconscious. b. people often struggle with conflicting wishes. c. childhood experiences influence our adulthood relationships. d. sex is the basis of personality. ANSWER: d 133. Contemporary psychodynamic theorists agree that childhood shapes our a. Electra complex. b. collective unconscious. c. personality. d. erogenous zones. ANSWER: c 134. Contemporary psychodynamic theorists agree with Freud that a. much of our mental life is unconscious. b. we often struggle with inner conflicts. c. childhood shapes our personality. d. all of these things are true. ANSWER: d 135. The type of personality test that involves ScholarFriends.com interpreting an ambiguous image and is used to assess Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice unconscious thoughts or feelings is a(n) a. projective test. b. free association test. c. repression test. d. archetype test. ANSWER: a 136. The Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) is a(n) a. defense mechanism. b. objective test. c. projective test. d. measure of conscious thought. ANSWER: c 137. ________ is a test in which people express their inner feelings and interests through a series of stories they make up about ambiguous scenes. a. The Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) b. Free association c. Identification d. The Rorschach inkblot test ANSWER: a 138. Hernando is learning about projective tests in his psychology class. He just learned about a test in which people are shown ambiguous pictures and asked to make up stories about them. Which test is he learning about? a. TAT b. Rorschach inkblot test c. implicit association test d. MMPI ANSWER: a 139. A psychotherapist showed Mrs. Maisel a series of ambiguous scenes and asked her to make up a story about each. Mrs. Maisel was most likely a. taking the Thematic Apperception Test. b. taking a life story approach. c. experiencing defense mechanisms. d. taking the Rorschach inkblot test. ANSWER: a 140. Delinda has been asked to hire an assistant who has high achievement motivation. To find the right person, Delinda should administer the a. Thematic Apperception Test. ScholarFriends.com b. False Consensus Effect Test. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice c. Collective Unconscious Assessment. d. Rorschach Inkblot Test. ANSWER: a 141. The famous test introduced by Hermann Rorschach asks test-takers to respond to a. frightening pictures. b. ambiguous stories. c. meaningless inkblots. d. incomplete sentences. ANSWER: c 142. A major reason for criticism of the Rorschach test is that a. no computer-aided tool has been designed to facilitate scoring of the test. b. its scores have not demonstrated validity or reliability. c. the test discourages individuals from communicating openly in clinical interviews. d. the test can be used effectively only with individuals who are severely maladjusted. ANSWER: b 143. Dr. Whitney had a patient take the Rorschach inkblot test. After analyzing how the patient interpreted the 10 inkblots, Dr. Whitney determined a diagnosis. He then sent the patient's test results to four other therapists. Each therapist came up with a different diagnosis. The disagreement among the therapists illustrates that the Rorschach inkblot test does not demonstrate a. projection. b. reliability. c. validity. d. unconscious motivations. ANSWER: b 144. Rorschach inkblot test results diagnose many healthy adults as disordered. This indicates that the test has little a. consensus. b. interpretive value. c. genuineness. d. validity. ANSWER: d 145. Today's developmental psychologists DISAGREE with which of the following of Freud's ideas? a. the importance of peer influence b. development is fixed in childhood c. we develop a gender identity even without a same-sex parent present d. infants experience serious emotional trauma ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 146. Some of today's developmental psychologists think that Freud ________ parental influences and ________ other factors, such as peer influence. a. underestimated; overestimated b. underestimated; underestimated c. overestimated; overestimated d. overestimated; underestimated ANSWER: d 147. Dr. Barua is a developmental psychologist. She is likely to think that Freud ________ parental influence and ________ peer influence. a. overestimated; overestimated b. overestimated; underestimated c. underestimated; underestimated d. underestimated; overestimated ANSWER: b 148. Contemporary psychologists are LEAST likely to agree with Freud's belief that a. conscience and gender identity form during the process of resolving the Oedipus complex. b. conscious awareness of our own mental processes is very limited. c. memories are often distorted and incomplete. d. defense mechanisms help protect individuals from anxiety. ANSWER: a 149. According to some scholars, Freud thought that stories of childhood sexual abuse reported by his adult female patients reflected their a. erogenous zones. b. inferiority complexes. c. childhood sexual wishes. d. social standing. ANSWER: c 150. As Dotty is typing her research paper on learning strategies for class, she types "Sex learning styles are…" Modern research would conclude that a. Dotty has experienced emotional trauma in the past. b. Dotty has not formed a solid gender identity. c. what Dotty typed reveals her hidden wishes. d. what Dotty typed was simply a random typo. ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com

151. Freud's theory of personality has been criticized because it Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice a. underestimates the importance of biological contributions to personality development. b. is contradicted by recent research demonstrating the human capacity for destructive behavior. c. is overly reliant upon observations derived from Freud's use of projective tests. d. offers few testable hypotheses that allow one to determine its validity. ANSWER: d 152. Freud's supporters note that some of his ideas are enduring. Research by psychologist Daniel Kahneman, who won a 2002 Nobel Prize, has demonstrated support for Freud's idea of a. the connection between the unconscious and the irrational. b. the importance of dreams. c. the existence of the Oedipus complex. d. the unconscious origin of defense mechanisms. ANSWER: a 153. During his two tours in the army in Vietnam Brian experienced so much death and destruction that he continues to have nightmares about his service there. Brian's experience is most clearly inconsistent with Freud's concept of a. erogenous zones. b. free association. c. archetypes. d. repression. ANSWER: d 154. Freud emphasized that stressful and painful experiences are repressed into the unconscious. But modern research has demonstrated a. support for fixation of repressed sexual desires. b. support for the projection of repressed fears. c. that high stress and associated stress hormones enhance memory. d. support for the displacement of repressed hostilities. ANSWER: c 155. Current research has concluded that repression is a. something that happens occasionally. b. rare, even in response to trauma. c. associated with the development of psychological disorders. d. common when a person experiences a traumatic event. ANSWER: b 156. Contemporary researchers view the unconscious as something that involves all of the following EXCEPT a. schemas. b. implicit memories. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice c. priming. d. erogenous zones. ANSWER: d 157. Freud believed in the influence of the unconscious mind on behavior; modern cognitive researchers believe that unconscious processes are a part of our ________, where cooler information processing occurs without our awareness. a. collective unconscious b. defense mechanisms c. two-track mind d. schemas ANSWER: c 158. Right-hemisphere brain activity enables a split-brain patient's left hand to carry out instructions the patient cannot verbalize. This best illustrates the importance of a. erogenous zones. b. unconscious thought. c. reaction formation. d. the false consensus effect. ANSWER: b 159. The modern unconscious mind involves ________ that automatically control our perceptions and interpretations. a. emotions b. the id c. schemas d. our memories ANSWER: c 160. Dawn's plan was to drive to the grocery store; however, she inadvertently started taking her usual route to school. Freud might say that her mistake came from his ________, but cognitive researchers would say that it was a result of confused ________. a. unconscious; implicit memories b. collective unconscious; parallel processing c. unconscious; archetypes d. collective unconscious; implicit memories ANSWER: a 161. Subliminal stimuli can briefly influence our responses to subsequent events. This best illustrates the importance of a. the false consensus effect. ScholarFriends.com b. repression. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice c. unconscious thought. d. identification. ANSWER: c 162. ________, which are often unconscious, can automatically influence how people see those from other racial backgrounds, religions, and sexual orientations. a. Schemas b. Memories c. Emotions d. Stereotypes ANSWER: d 163. Five-year-old Cecilia has been watching her favorite cartoon while her father prepares dinner. When the cartoon is over, Cecilia asks her father for a new toy sports car and for a special cereal for breakfast tomorrow. A psychologist might say that Cecilia asked for these things because of the ________ of the toy and cereal commercials she saw while watching the cartoon. a. schemas b. implicit memories c. projection d. influence ANSWER: d 164. Claudine is walking to a friend's house one night when she is startled and scared by a loud noise. A few seconds later, she realizes that the noise came from sand hill cranes. Her experience demonstrates how ________ can be instantly activated prior to conscious awareness. a. schemas b. emotions c. stereotypes d. memories ANSWER: b 165. Preliminary evidence suggests that those who unconsciously identify as gay—but who consciously identify as straight—report more negative attitudes toward gays than most people do. This best illustrates the defense mechanism known as a. projection. b. regression. c. displacement. d. reaction formation. ANSWER: d 166. Abraham unconsciously identifies as gay but consciously identifies as straight. He also expresses negative attitudes toward gays. Freud would explain thisScholarFriends.com in terms of which defense mechanism? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice a. reaction formation b. projection c. regression d. displacement ANSWER: a 167. Freud's concept of projection is most similar to what today's researchers call a. schemas. b. the false consensus effect. c. an inferiority complex. d. parallel processing. ANSWER: b 168. Wayne is in college and frequently binge drinks on the weekends. He believes that many of his college peers do the same. While modern researchers refer to this as the false consensus effect, Freud would have attributed this to which defense mechanism? a. reaction formation b. projection c. regression d. displacement ANSWER: b 169. Easton is a heavy smoker who overestimates the extent to which other people also engage in heavy smoking. Easton's overestimate best illustrates a. the false consensus effect. b. identification. c. a superiority complex. d. fixation. ANSWER: a 170. Freud's defense mechanism of ________ has been confirmed by recent research. a. projection b. repression c. fixation d. denial ANSWER: a 171. The humanistic perspective emphasized the value of a. the collective unconscious. b. self-determination. ScholarFriends.com c. schemas. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice d. behaviorism. ANSWER: b 172. Dr. Faevelen conducts research on how healthy people strive for self-determination. Which personality theory reflects his area of interest? a. psychoanalysis b. trait theory c. humanistic theory d. social-cognitive theory ANSWER: c 173. ________ tend to emphasize the ways people strive for self-determination and self-realization. a. Psychodynamic theorists b. Behaviorists c. Humanistic theorists d. Trait theorists ANSWER: c 174. Abraham Maslow proposed that we are all motivated by a. self-determination. b. a hierarchy of needs. c. self-actualization. d. third-force perspective. ANSWER: b 175. Which of the following is the correct sequence in Maslow's hierarchy of needs? a. safety, physiological, self-esteem, love and be loved, self-actualization, self-transcendence b. physiological, safety, love and be loved, self-esteem, self-actualization, self-transcendence c. physiological, safety, self-esteem, love and be loved, self-transcendence, self-actualization d. safety, physiological, love and be loved, self-esteem, self-transcendence, self-actualization ANSWER: b 176. Maslow placed ________ at the base of his hierarchy of needs. a. cognitive needs b. social needs c. bodily needs d. spiritual needs ANSWER: c 177. Violet has been working out at the gym for two hours and desperately needs to drink some water. Maslow would say that Violet is focused on which need? ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice a. physiological b. safety c. self-actualization d. love ANSWER: a 178. According to Abraham Maslow, we focus on personal safety after meeting our ________ needs. a. bodily b. belonging and love c. self-esteem d. self-actualization ANSWER: a 179. Hiram is worried that his house will be robbed while he is away on vacation, so he has installed a camera attached to his doorbell. No matter where he is he will receive a notification and video on his phone any time someone approaches the door. Maslow would say that Hiram is focused on which need? a. physiological b. safety c. self-actualization d. love ANSWER: b 180. Abraham Maslow suggested that those who fulfill their potential have satisfied the need for a. implicit memories. b. an ideal self. c. self-actualization. d. unconditional positive regard. ANSWER: c 181. Landon has reached self-actualization, according to Maslow's theory. Landon is most likely to be a. self-centered. b. rigid. c. self-aware. d. paralyzed by other people's opinions. ANSWER: c 182. Zeina has reached her unique potential for growth. Maslow would say that Zeina a. has achieved acceptance. b. is self-actualized. c. has attained unconditional positive regard. ScholarFriends.com d. is expressing genuineness. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 183. Jared has reached self-actualization, according to Maslow's theory. Which of the following is NOT likely to be characteristic of Jared? a. He is self-centered. b. He is self-aware and self-accepting. c. He is loving and caring. d. He can be spontaneous. ANSWER: a 184. Abraham Maslow studied the lives of people such as Abraham Lincoln in order to understand the nature of a. empathy. b. an ideal self. c. self-actualization. d. unconditional positive regard. ANSWER: c 185. Self-actualized people, as described by Maslow, are LEAST likely to be highly a. compassionate. b. empathic. c. self-centered. d. self-accepting. ANSWER: c 186. According to Maslow, many self-actualized people have been moved by spiritual or personal ________ that were beyond normal consciousness. a. defense mechanisms b. self-concepts c. peak experiences d. empathic experiences ANSWER: c 187. Josiah, who has satisfied all of Maslow's lower-level needs, is now at the self-actualization level. He has recently been moved by spiritual experiences that are beyond normal consciousness. Maslow referred to these as a. defense mechanisms. b. unconditional positive regard. c. peak experiences. d. empathic experiences. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com

188. Which of the following is an item you would expect to see on the Characteristics of Self-Actualization Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice Scale? a. I take responsibility for my actions. b. I tend to confuse ideals with reality. c. I am selective about using my creativity. d. I do not easily accept blame for my faults. ANSWER: a 189. Which perspective held that people are basically good and are endowed with self-actualizing tendencies? a. Abraham Maslow's hierarchy of needs b. B. F. Skinner's behaviorism c. Carl Roger's person-centered perspective d. Sigmund Freud's psychosexual stages of development ANSWER: c 190. Carl Rogers' ________ perspective held that people are primed to reach their potential and are basically good. a. social-cognitive b. person-centered c. psychodynamic d. psychoanalytic ANSWER: b 191. Which theorist emphasized that an individual's personal growth is promoted by interactions with others who are genuine, accepting, and empathic? a. Sigmund Freud b. Carl Rogers c. Abraham Maslow d. Alfred Adler ANSWER: b 192. According to Rogers, a growth-promoting social climate provides a. self-actualization and self-transcendence. b. schemas, priming, and implicit memories. c. acceptance, genuineness, and empathy. d. identification and a gender identity. ANSWER: c 193. Carl Rogers referred to an attitude of total acceptance toward another person as a. genuineness. b. unconditional positive regard. ScholarFriends.com c. self-actualization. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice d. the ideal self. ANSWER: b 194. Greyson teaches students in fourth grade. He believes that all his students should be valued and accepted no matter what shortcomings they may have. Greyson's attitude toward his students is an example of Carl Rogers' concept of a. the ideal self. b. unconditional positive regard. c. the reality principle. d. self-actualization. ANSWER: b 195. According to Rogers, when a person offers unconditional positive regard, they are demonstrating a. acceptance. b. genuineness. c. empathy. d. self-transcendence. ANSWER: a 196. Barbara feels that her grandmother loves and cares for her, despite the many wrongdoings Barbara has committed. Her grandmother is demonstrating a. unconditional positive regard. b. genuineness. c. empathy. d. self-actualization. ANSWER: a 197. According to Carl Rogers, people who are self-disclosing and open with their own feelings are demonstrating a. self-transcendence. b. individualism. c. empathy. d. genuineness. ANSWER: d 198. Miguel tends to be rather open about his feelings and likes to share his experiences and opinions with others. According to Carl Rogers, Miguel demonstrates characteristics associated with a. acceptance. b. empathy. c. genuineness. d. self-transcendence. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 199. Mrs. Buta believes that parents should accept and try to understand their children's feelings and should honestly disclose their own inner feelings to their children. Her approach to parent-child interaction was most explicitly recommended by a. B. F. Skinner. b. Alfred Adler. c. Carl Rogers. d. Carl Jung. ANSWER: c 200. When Adeline's friend talks about her relationship problems, Adeline does not tell her what to do but rather reflects her meanings back to her. Adeline is using ________ to help her friend understand the problem. a. individualism b. denial c. empathy d. self-transcendence ANSWER: c 201. Carl Rogers and Abraham Maslow believed that ________ is a central feature of personality. a. empathy b. individualism c. self-actualization d. the self-concept ANSWER: d 202. According to Carl Rogers, all our thoughts and feelings about ourselves refers to our a. empathy. b. individualism. c. self-actualization. d. self-concept. ANSWER: d 203. When Yonit thinks about herself, all the thoughts and feelings she has make up her _____, according to humanistic theorists. a. identity beyond the self b. purpose c. self-concept d. perspective ANSWER: c 204. According to Carl Rogers, we feel dissatisfied and unhappy if our self-concept is negative, that is, if it falls ScholarFriends.com far short of our Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice a. empathy. b. ideal self. c. genuineness. d. superego's demands. ANSWER: b 205. Caitlyn recently started college and has not been performing as well as she had hoped. Although she wanted to earn high grades in all of her classes, she has earned Cs and Ds in some of them. Caitlyn is likely to experience a. implicit memories. b. a negative self-concept. c. empathy. d. unconditional positive regard. ANSWER: b 206. Amit has a poor self-concept because his performance at athletic contests does not always meet his expectations. Amit's problem is most clearly addressed by an assessment strategy used by a. B. F. Skinner. b. Alfred Adler. c. Sigmund Freud. d. Carl Rogers. ANSWER: d 207. Humanistic psychologists sometimes assessed personality by a. interviewing people about their self-efficacy. b. engaging in intimate conversations about a person's self-esteem. c. asking people to fill out questionnaires that would evaluate their self-concept. d. administering projective tests. ANSWER: c 208. According to Rogers, a person's self-concept is positive if a. the ideal self and actual self are completely different. b. the ideal self outweighs the actual self. c. the actual self is overrepresented. d. the ideal self and actual self are nearly alike. ANSWER: d 209. Sadie, who loves to sing and has performed as part of a group and as a single. As a child see had always dreamed of having a successful singing career. Carl Rogers would say that Sadie has a positive self-concept because there is consistency between her a. introversion and extraversion. ScholarFriends.com b. self-transcendence and self-actualization. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice c. actual self and ideal self. d. self-esteem and self-actualization. ANSWER: c 210. Addison, who has set high academic goals for himself, feels that his work is never good enough. He is highly critical of himself and believes that he is just not as intelligent as he would like to be. According to Carl Rogers, Addison is experiencing a conflict between a. introversion and extraversion. b. self-transcendence and self-actualization. c. the actual self and the ideal self. d. self-esteem and self-actualization. ANSWER: c 211. Which psychologists are most likely to criticize standardized personality tests for failing to capture the individual's unique experiences? a. psychodynamic theorists b. Jungian theorists c. behaviorists d. humanistic theorists ANSWER: d 212. Some humanistic psychologists today prefer to assess a person by having them tell personal stories about their unique history. They call this a. unconditional positive regard. b. a peak experience narrative. c. the life story approach. d. a hierarchy of needs. ANSWER: c 213. Brayden has been asked by his therapist to provide a detailed narrative of his life in an effort to reveal more of Brayden's complete identity. Brayden's therapist is using ________ to help him. a. psychoanalysis b. schemas c. the life story approach d. the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) ANSWER: c 214. Counseling, education, management, and even child raising have all been influenced by a. humanistic psychology. b. trait theory. c. behaviorism. ScholarFriends.com d. psychodynamic theory. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 215. The new field of positive psychology has been heavily influenced by a. humanistic psychology. b. trait theory. c. behaviorism. d. Sigmund Freud. ANSWER: a 216. Kayden's parents believe that it is most important for him to develop a positive self-concept and high selfesteem. By so doing, he will improve his chances of being successful in later life. They have probably been influenced by a. humanistic psychology. b. trait theory. c. behaviorism. d. Sigmund Freud. ANSWER: a 217. Which of the following theorists have been criticized the most for offering concepts that are vague and based on the theorists' personal opinions rather than on scientific methods? a. behaviorists b. humanistic theorists c. psychodynamic theorists d. Jungian theorists ANSWER: b 218. Maslow's description of self-actualized individuals was said to reflect his own personal values because he a. selectively studied people with qualities he admired. b. interpreted their flattering self-descriptions as self-serving. c. overemphasized the value of their loyalty to cultural norms. d. used projective tests to assess their motives. ANSWER: a 219. Humanistic psychologists would most likely be criticized for underestimating the value of a. the self-concept. b. individualism. c. moral restraint. d. unconditional positive regard. ANSWER: c 220. Some critics argue that humanistic psychology's emphasis on ________ can lead to self-indulgence, ScholarFriends.com selfishness, and a lack of moral restraint. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice a. the superego b. self-acceptance c. genuineness d. individualism ANSWER: b 221. Humanistic psychologists reply to critics of their emphasis on self-acceptance by saying that a. a having a virtuous ideal self brings the person closer to reaching unconditional positive regard. b. without self-acceptance people are unable to function well in the real world. c. a secure, nondefensive self-acceptance is the first step toward loving others. d. self-acceptance allows for genuineness and empathy. ANSWER: c 222. Humanistic theorists have been criticized for a. overestimating the impact of childhood experiences on adult personality. b. underestimating the inconsistency of behavior from one situation to another. c. overestimating the degree of similarity among people. d. underestimating the inherent human capacity for evil. ANSWER: d 223. Freud is to psychoanalytic theory as Allport is to ________ theory. a. behavioral b. self c. trait d. social-cognitive ANSWER: c 224. Which of the following theorists described personality in terms of fundamental traits? a. Sigmund Freud b. Carl Rogers c. Abraham Maslow d. Gordon Allport ANSWER: d 225. Which approach to personality focuses on describing individual differences? a. trait perspective b. psychoanalytic perspective c. humanistic perspective d. social-cognitive perspective ANSWER: a ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 226. Dr. Holm believes that the study of personality should focus on describing individual differences. Dr. Holm probably would identify with the ________ perspective on personality. a. psychoanalytic b. trait c. genetic d. social-cognitive ANSWER: b 227. Trait theorists are more concerned with ________ personality than with ________ it. a. predicting; analyzing b. describing; explaining c. changing; analyzing d. interpreting; observing ANSWER: b 228. A characteristic pattern of behavior or a tendency to feel and act in certain ways is called a. self-efficacy. b. self-esteem. c. introversion. d. a trait. ANSWER: d 229. Skylar describes her best friend, Brielle, as "extremely friendly, very intelligent, and empathetic. She is lots of fun to be with and always enjoys a get-together with friends. When it comes to work, however, she is very serious and committed to her job." Skylar's description of her friend's personality would be most consistent with the ________ approach to personality. a. psychoanalytic b. social-cognitive c. humanistic d. trait ANSWER: d 230. A consistent tendency to be outgoing is best described as a. a trait. b. empirically derived. c. self-efficacy. d. heritable. ANSWER: a 231. According to trait theorists, ________ are clusters of behavior tendencies that occur together. a. human needs ScholarFriends.com b. factors Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice c. self-concepts d. dimensions ANSWER: b 232. Savannah, who is an extravert, prefers spending her time with groups of friends to sitting home alone reading a book. According to trait theorists, this cluster of behaviors is called a a. human need. b. factor. c. self-concept. d. dimension. ANSWER: b 233. Personality factors are best described as a. clusters of behavior tendencies that occur together. b. defense mechanisms. c. internalized standards of judgment. d. empirically derived tests. ANSWER: a 234. British psychologists Hans and Sybil Eysenck believed that we can reduce normal individual variations to a. extraversion-introversion. b. emotional stability-instability. c. both extraversion-introversion and emotional stability-instability. d. neither extraversion-introversion nor emotional stability-instability. ANSWER: c 235. Hans and Sybil Eysenck described personality differences by identifying a. genetic markers. b. personality inventories. c. self-efficacy. d. basic personality dimensions. ANSWER: d 236. Which of the following is a basic personality factor assessed by the Eysenck Personality Questionnaire? a. emotional stability b. self-efficacy c. openness d. self-esteem ANSWER: a ScholarFriends.com 237. Parker is typically reserved, thoughtful, and even-tempered. Parker would most clearly be classified as the Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice Eysencks' basic factor of a. extraversion. b. introversion. c. narcissism. d. emotionally instability. ANSWER: b 238. Thomas is very outgoing and has lots of friends. He also likes joking around and trying exciting new things. Thomas would be considered a. extraverted. b. neurotic. c. agreeable. d. introverted. ANSWER: a 239. The Eysencks believed that extraversion and emotionality a. explain behaviors. b. are learned. c. are basic personality dimensions. d. are aspects of self-esteem. ANSWER: c 240. Personalities are more similar among a. fraternal twins. b. parents and their children. c. cousins. d. identical twins. ANSWER: d 241. Genes influence our _______ and behavioral style, which shape our personality. a. learned responses b. factors c. temperament d. self-concepts ANSWER: c 242. ________ influence(s) our temperament and behavioral style, which shape our personality. a. Empathy b. Environment c. Genes ScholarFriends.com d. Parents Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 243. The temperament and behavioral style that Sawyer was born with will shape his personality. These were influenced by a. his prenatal environment. b. his mothers' diet while pregnant. c. many genes having small effects. d. paternal influences. ANSWER: c 244. Which of the following may shape our personality? a. temperament b. behavioral style c. both temperament and behavioral style d. neither temperament nor behavioral style ANSWER: c 245. Children respond to stress with greater anxiety if they have a. a high level of emotional stability. b. a high level of self-efficacy. c. high levels of self-esteem. d. a reactive autonomic nervous system. ANSWER: d 246. Carson enjoys risky sports such as hang gliding and free-fall parachuting. We can probably say that Carson is an a. extravert who seeks stimulation because his normal brain arousal is relatively low. b. extravert who seeks stimulation because his normal brain arousal is relatively high. c. introvert who seeks stimulation because his normal brain arousal is relatively low. d. introvert who seeks stimulation because his normal brain arousal is relatively high. ANSWER: a 247. A frontal lobe area involved in ________ is ________ active in extraverts than in introverts. a. restraining behavior; less b. stimulating behavior; more c. self-efficacy; less d. aggression; more ANSWER: a 248. Theresa is generally a calm and even-tempered person. It could be said that she demonstrates a. a stable personality. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice b. high levels of neuroticism. c. high levels of introversion. d. an unstable personality. ANSWER: a 249. By selective breeding, researchers can produce bold or shy birds. This best illustrates that some personality differences among birds are a. among the Big Five. b. empirically derived. c. genetically influenced. d. situational. ANSWER: c 250. Western cultures are hard on introverts as evidenced by the fact that a. most Westerners want to be more introverted. b. those who are introverted are more likely to be accepted into elite colleges. c. introversion is a top personality trait desired by employers. d. their superheroes tend to be extraverts. ANSWER: d 251. People in Western cultures tend to imply that those who may be ________ do not have what it takes to be successful. a. excitable b. introverted c. outgoing d. extraverted ANSWER: b 252. In Western cultures, introversion is not as valued as extraversion in part because people tend to equate introversion with a. selfishness. b. self-efficacy. c. shyness. d. narcissism. ANSWER: c 253. Penny is being interviewed for a clerical job at the local insurance company. Which personality trait would the interviewer rank above all others? a. self-actualization b. extraversion c. agreeableness ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice d. conscientiousness ANSWER: b 254. Introvert is to ________ as shy person is to ________. a. open-minded; close-minded b. enjoying time alone; fear of a negative evaluation c. impulsive; controlled d. aggressive; peaceful ANSWER: b 255. Autumn is reluctant to participate in conversations with a group of friends because she fears being negatively evaluated by her friends. She mostly enjoys staying home reading a good book. Autumn's behavior illustrates a. shyness. b. introversion. c. extraversion. d. openness. ANSWER: a 256. One study found that, when tasting lemon juice, ________ people salivated more than ________ people. a. open-minded; self-centered b. extraverted; introverted c. close-minded; empathic d. introverted; extraverted ANSWER: d 257. When employees voice new ideas and challenge existing workplace norms, they are especially likely to receive a receptive hearing from employers with the trait of a. extraversion. b. narcissism. c. introversion. d. neuroticism. ANSWER: c 258. Aziz is holding a Zoom conference to discuss health benefits with his employees. He wants their opinions about the type and amount of insurance they need. It is most likely that Aziz is a(n) ________ employer. a. extraverted b. optimistic c. introverted d. neurotic ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 259. A trait theorist would most likely use ________ to gauge a wide range of a person's feelings and behaviors. a. a personality inventory b. an inkblot test c. the TAT d. a self-concept questionnaire ANSWER: a 260. Personality inventories are designed to assess several ________ at once. a. personalities b. types of cultures c. motives d. traits ANSWER: d 261. Personality inventories are long sets of ________ questions covering a wide range of feelings and behaviors. a. behavioral style b. self-report c. temperament d. vague ANSWER: b 262. Enrique is filling out a questionnaire that requires him to describe his personality traits. He is filling out a. an inkblot analysis. b. the Eysenck Personality Inventory c. a self-report questionnaire. d. a factor report. ANSWER: c 263. The MMPI is an example of a a. projective test. b. personality inventory. c. self-efficacy test. d. self-esteem test. ANSWER: b 264. Dr. Perez-Gallardo wants to assess whether a client should be diagnosed with an emotional disorder. Which personality inventory would be most helpful for this purpose? a. the MMPI b. the Eysenck Personality Inventory ScholarFriends.com c. the Big Five factors test Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice d. factor analysis ANSWER: a 265. The MMPI, which was originally developed to identify emotional disorders, is also currently used to a. assess personality traits. b. characterize one's self-concept. c. assess unconditional positive regard. d. rate a person's self-esteem. ANSWER: a 266. Which test can be used to identify people who are pretending to have a disorder in order to avoid responsibilities? a. the MMPI b. the CSAS c. the TAT d. the Rorschach ANSWER: a 267. To ensure against people answering questions falsely in order to impress the person administering the test, the MMPI includes ________ to detect such false answers. a. factor analysis b. a hierarchical list of questions c. a lie scale d. fake questions ANSWER: c 268. Minerva tells everyone that she can't get a job because she suffers from an emotional disorder. Which personality inventory might she be given to test the accuracy of her statement? a. Eysenck Personality Questionnaire b. the Big Five factors assessment c. a general personality test d. MMPI ANSWER: d 269. Projective tests are scored ________; personality inventories are scored ________. a. subjectively; subjectively b. subjectively; objectively c. objectively; objectively d. objectively; subjectively ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com

270. People who take personality inventories may lie to create a good impression. This best illustrates that the Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice objectivity in scoring personality inventories does not guarantee that they a. have validity. b. accurately measure unconscious motivations. c. assess several different traits. d. can measure the use of defense mechanisms. ANSWER: a 271. As part of his job application, Christopher has to take a personality inventory. Getting this job is very important to him, so he is answering the questions in a way he believes will impress his future employer. As a result, Christopher scores high on the lie scale. Which test did he likely take? a. MBTI b. Third-force perspective c. MMPI d. Rorschach inkblot test ANSWER: c 272. Which of the following statements would most likely appear on a lie scale? a. "I am usually fairly happy." b. "I constantly worry about my health." c. "Most people are willing to lie in order to get ahead." d. "I have never disliked anyone." ANSWER: d 273. Today's trait theorists rely on ________ to understand personality. a. reciprocal determinism b. two personality dimensions c. unconscious motives d. five factors ANSWER: d 274. The traits that seem to provide the most useful information are often referred to as a. the Big Five factors. b. the MMPI. c. the MBTI. d. the self-concept. ANSWER: a 275. Dr. Jeffers, a clinical psychologist, would be most likely to use the Big Five factors to understand a. psychological flourishing. b. psychological dysfunction. ScholarFriends.com c. attachment differences. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice d. psychological flourishing and dysfunction. ANSWER: d 276. Being highly imaginative is most closely related to the Big Five personality factor of a. extraversion. b. openness. c. neuroticism. d. conscientiousness. ANSWER: b 277. Anastasia earns a good living as an artist because her paintings are always unique and imaginative. Anastasia most clearly ranks high on the Big Five trait dimension of a. extraversion. b. openness. c. neuroticism. d. conscientiousness. ANSWER: b 278. A person who is careless and disorganized most clearly ranks low on the Big Five trait dimension of a. neuroticism. b. extraversion. c. openness. d. conscientiousness. ANSWER: d 279. Malika has always taken her education very seriously. As a child, she studied for at least two hours a night. In high school, she took very detailed notes in class and reviewed them every night. Now Malika is in college. She can be expected to score high on the Big Five factor of a. agreeableness. b. openness. c. neuroticism. d. conscientiousness. ANSWER: d 280. Matías is imaginative, creative, and seeks new experiences. Felipe is hardworking, ambitious, neat, and prides himself on never giving up until a task is finished. In terms of the Big Five factors, Matías would probably score high on the dimension of ________, while Felipe would probably score high on the dimension of ________. a. extraversion; neuroticism b. openness; conscientiousness c. neuroticism; conscientiousness ScholarFriends.com d. agreeableness; neuroticism Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 281. A person who is retiring and sober most clearly ranks low on the Big Five trait dimension of a. neuroticism. b. extraversion. c. openness. d. conscientiousness. ANSWER: b 282. Camila is a very friendly person and enjoys large group gatherings. She tends to be openly affectionate, especially with her closest friends. She most clearly ranks high on the Big Five factor known as a. openness. b. individualism. c. extraversion. d. conscientiousness. ANSWER: c 283. Gianna was generally outgoing and friendly. As a teen, she had numerous friends. As an adult, her social circle continued to grow. She seemed to make friends wherever she went. In late adulthood, Gianna will probably score high on the Big Five factor of a. agreeableness. b. openness. c. neuroticism. d. extraversion. ANSWER: d 284. Augstin tends to be shy, especially with people he doesn't know well. He prefers having lunch or dinner with only one friend over going to parties with a large group. In terms of the Big Five factor model of personality, Augstin appears to rank low on the trait of a. openness. b. neuroticism. c. narcissism. d. extraversion. ANSWER: d 285. A person who is ruthless and suspicious most clearly ranks low on the Big Five dimension of a. neuroticism. b. extraversion. c. openness. d. agreeableness. ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 286. Dylan tends to be soft-hearted and trusting and is always willing to help those who are less fortunate than he is. He most clearly ranks high on the Big Five dimension of a. conscientiousness. b. agreeableness. c. openness. d. extraversion. ANSWER: b 287. A personality test reveals that Valentina is, ruthless, suspicious, and uncooperative, whereas Angela is accepting, soft-hearted, and trusting. It appears that Valentina and Angela have scored at opposite ends of the ________ dimension of the Big Five factors. a. conscientiousness b. openness c. extraversion d. agreeableness ANSWER: d 288. Miles received a high score on the Big Five trait dimension of agreeableness. What can be said about Miles? a. He is probably extremely helpful to others. b. He tends to use personal pronouns when text messaging friends. c. He is a social butterfly. d. He tends to keep to himself. ANSWER: a 289. Yumna is very trusting of others, volunteers to help those in need, and is always willing to help a friend. Which of the Big Five factors does Yumna demonstrate? a. agreeableness b. openness c. extraversion d. neuroticism ANSWER: a 290. Emotional instability is most closely related to the Big Five trait dimension of a. openness. b. neuroticism. c. agreeableness. d. conscientiousness. ANSWER: b 291. A person who ranks high in the Big Five trait dimension of neuroticism is likely to be ScholarFriends.com a. calm and self-satisfied. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice b. reserved and retiring. c. organized and disciplined. d. anxious and insecure. ANSWER: d 292. Trilok is anxious, insecure, and self-pitying. He does not do well in stressful situations, frequently becoming extremely emotional. Which of the Big Five factors does he illustrate? a. agreeableness b. openness c. extraversion d. neuroticism ANSWER: d 293. Kyle graduated from high school last year and is now in college. It is possible that he will demonstrate all of the following EXCEPT a. increased levels of agreeableness. b. increased levels of conscientiousness. c. decreased levels of neuroticism. d. decreased levels of openness. ANSWER: d 294. As people get older, they tend to become more conscientiousness and agreeable and less neurotic. This is referred to as a. the self-concept. b. the maturity principle. c. individualism. d. trait theories. ANSWER: b 295. According to the maturity principle, Isaac, who is 40 years old, has become more a. conscientious. b. reciprocal. c. extraverted. d. open. ANSWER: a 296. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the maturity principle? a. We become more conscientious. b. We become more agreeable. c. We become less neurotic. ScholarFriends.com d. We become less open. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 297. When Jon was in his teens, he was moody and less conscientious in his studies. Now that he is in his thirties, he is more emotionally stable and more agreeable in his work and family life. Jon's change illustrates a. reciprocal determinism. b. that personality continues to develop and change. c. the heritability of traits. d. the spotlight effect. ANSWER: b 298. Compared with Americans, people in Japan more often adapt their personality to their social environment. As a result, a. their self-concept becomes more stable. b. they do not demonstrate the maturity principle. c. their Big Five traits vary more over time. d. their ego overwhelms their superego. ANSWER: c 299. Olivia's family and friends have been asked to rate Olivia's personality traits. Who is likely to rate her similar to how Olivia would rate herself? a. her closest friends b. her parents c. both her family and friends d. her teachers ANSWER: c 300. Those who score high on the Big Five factor of ________ tend to have a larger frontal lobe area that aids in planning and controlling behavior. a. extraversion b. agreeableness c. conscientiousness d. neuroticism ANSWER: c 301. Christina scores high on the Big Five trait of neuroticism. It is most likely that a. her brain is wired to experience stress intensely. b. she has inherited this trait from her mother. c. she has a larger frontal lobe area. d. she is also high on extraversion. ANSWER: a ScholarFriends.com

302. The Big Five traits ________ reflect birth order and ________ reliably predict our everyday behaviors. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice a. do not; do not b. do; do c. do; do not d. do not; do ANSWER: d 303. Features of the Big Five factors are common to people a. from industrialized countries only. b. from individualist cultures only. c. from democratic cultures only. d. from all human groups. ANSWER: d 304. After studying people from 50 different cultures, researchers have concluded that the Big Five factors a. only exist in Western cultures. b. vary among the different cultures. c. are common across all cultures. d. are heavily influenced by the social environment. ANSWER: c 305. Those with high levels of ________ are more likely to become leaders. a. agreeableness b. openness c. extraversion d. neuroticism ANSWER: c 306. The use of positive-emotion words in text messaging would most likely be an example of the Big Five trait of a. openness. b. extraversion. c. agreeableness. d. conscientiousness. ANSWER: c 307. On Instagram, Oadira tends to focus on her negative experiences. Oadira is likely high in which Big Five trait? a. openness b. extraversion c. neuroticism ScholarFriends.com d. conscientiousness Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 308. Which of the following can shift our expression of personality traits? a. new situations b. major life events c. both new situations and major life events d. neither new situations nor major life events ANSWER: c 309. Rana was just laid off from the job she had held for 25 years. This is likely to make her less a. conscientious. b. neurotic. c. introverted. d. agreeable. ANSWER: d 310. The person-situation controversy refers to a. whether the person exhibits a spotlight effect. b. arguments about whether behavior is more strongly influenced by the environment or by enduring inner traits. c. where the Big Five traits apply to various cultures. d. whether personality traits stabilize with age. ANSWER: b 311. Arguments as to whether people's behavior is more strongly influenced by temporary external influences or by enduring inner influences best characterize the a. psychodynamic perspective. b. person-situation controversy. c. hierarchy of needs. d. biopsychosocial approach. ANSWER: b 312. The person-situation controversy involves a debate regarding the influence of ________ and ________ on behavior. a. self-concept; self-esteem b. intelligence; emotions c. environments; traits d. extraversion; introversion ANSWER: c 313. Studies have correlated early trait scores with scores for the same traits seven years later. The weakest ScholarFriends.com correlations were observed among Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice a. children. b. college students. c. 30-year-olds. d. 70-year-olds. ANSWER: a 314. People's personalities show their greatest stability during a. early childhood. b. late childhood. c. adolescence. d. adulthood. ANSWER: d 315. At work, Adalun is very conscientious and serious. At home, he is easy-going and fun-loving. This change in personality demonstrates that a. personality is fixed and unchangeable. b. personality is inherited. c. his personality is still developing. d. expressed personality traits change from one situation to another. ANSWER: d 316. Which theorists are most likely to be criticized for underestimating the variability of behavior from situation to situation? a. social-cognitive b. psychodynamic c. humanistic d. trait ANSWER: d 317. Arguments as to whether a person's behavior is more strongly influenced by temporary external influences or by enduring inner influences best characterize the a. psychodynamic perspective. b. person-situation controversy. c. introversion-extraversion debate. d. spotlight effect. ANSWER: b 318. Noris is usually talkative and fun-loving when he is with his friends, but he is often quiet and reserved at home. He enjoys talking with friends at the campus coffee shop, but he is reluctant to speak up in class. Noris' behavior should make us more cautious about overemphasizing the impact of ________ on behavior. a. personality traits ScholarFriends.com b. self-serving bias Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice c. inner motives d. the self-concept ANSWER: a 319. People's scores on a test of extraversion are likely to be most strongly correlated with the number of social conversations they initiate during the course of a single a. hour. b. day. c. week. d. month. ANSWER: d 320. Which of the following is true about people's traits? a. People's behavior is unpredictable from one situation to the next. b. People's personality test scores are strong predictors of behaviors. c. People's behavior in one situation correlates well with their behavior in every other situation. d. People's average outgoingness or carelessness, for example, is predictable over many situations. ANSWER: d 321. People who prefer folk, classical, and atmospheric music tend to score high on the Big Five trait dimension known as a. extraversion. b. openness. c. neuroticism. d. conscientiousness. ANSWER: b 322. Which of the following is NOT true regarding our online profiles, websites, and avatars? a. They provide a source of self-expression. b. They give people a chance to express themselves in misleading ways. c. The most likable people on social media also seem most likable in person. d. A person's clothes can give clues to personality. ANSWER: b 323. Our personality traits are most likely to remain hidden as we carefully attend to social cues in a. unfamiliar, informal situations. b. familiar, informal situations. c. unfamiliar, formal situations. d. familiar, formal situations. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 324. The stability of personality traits is best illustrated by the consistency of a. fixations. b. self-serving bias. c. expressive styles. d. the spotlight effect. ANSWER: c 325. Which perspective focuses on how our individual traits and thoughts interact with our social situations? a. social-cognitive perspective b. humanistic perspective c. psychoanalytic perspective d. psychodynamic perspective ANSWER: a 326. Which personality theories emphasize reciprocal determinism? a. psychodynamic b. social-cognitive c. trait d. humanistic ANSWER: b 327. Who called the interaction of personal traits and the environment reciprocal determinism? a. Albert Bandura b. Justin Kruger c. David Dunning d. Thomas Gilovich ANSWER: a 328. According to Bandura, reciprocal determinism involves multidirectional influences among a. thoughts, emotions, and actions. b. behaviors, internal personal factors, and environmental events. c. id, ego, and superego. d. self-concept, self-esteem, and self-image. ANSWER: b 329. Valeria's excellent college grades are both a result and a cause of her feelings of academic superiority. This best illustrates the importance of a. self-serving bias. b. the spotlight effect. c. reciprocal determinism. ScholarFriends.com d. self-image. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 330. Because Mr. Rodrigues trusts his employees, he treats them kindly. His kindness leads them to work hard on his behalf, which in turn increases his trust in them. This pattern of trust, kindness, diligence, and increasing trust illustrates what is meant by a. possible selves. b. the spotlight effect. c. self-serving bias. d. reciprocal determinism. ANSWER: d 331. Alvaro is an extravert and spends most of his time with large groups of friends. Borja is an introvert, so he prefers staying home reading a good book. Alvaro and Borja best illustrate what is meant by a. behaviorism. b. reciprocal determinism. c. self-serving bias. d. the spotlight effect. ANSWER: b 332. The social-cognitive perspective emphasizes the interactive influences of our traits and our a. temperaments. b. situations. c. possible selves. d. self-concepts. ANSWER: b 333. As a psychotherapist, Dario believes that people's internal personal factors interact with their environment as their situations change. Dario is most likely to agree with which of the following perspectives on personality? a. social-cognitive perspective b. behavioral genetic perspective c. psychodynamic perspective d. psychoanalytic perspective ANSWER: a 334. Which perspective emphasized that we learn many of our behaviors either through conditioning or by observing others? a. social-cognitive perspective b. humanistic perspective c. psychoanalytic perspective d. psychodynamic perspective ANSWER: a ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 335. Self-efficacy refers to our experience of our own a. narcissism. b. self-serving bias. c. competence. d. reciprocal determinism. ANSWER: c 336. According to Bandura's social-cognitive perspective, ________ is our expectations about whether we will succeed in (and attempt) new challenges. a. self-esteem b. reciprocal determinism c. the spotlight effect d. self-efficacy ANSWER: d 337. Genghis is confident that he can succeed at most new educational endeavors. According to Bandura, Genghis is demonstrating a. self-esteem. b. reciprocal determinism. c. the spotlight effect. d. self-efficacy. ANSWER: d 338. Triana attributes her A on a difficult chemistry test to her superior scientific knowledge. This most clearly indicates that she experiences a high level of a. self-efficacy. b. narcissism. c. reciprocal determinism. d. defensive self-esteem. ANSWER: a 339. Using his concept of reciprocal determinism, Albert Bandura would consider self-efficacy to be a(n) a. narcissism. b. defense mechanism. c. internal personal factor. d. genetic predisposition. ANSWER: c 340. All of the major choices you make, such as your academic major, where you attend college, and what music you listen to, demonstrate how a. we choose our environment based on our personality. ScholarFriends.com b. our self-serving bias influences our choices. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice c. we see ourselves as better than average. d. self-esteem can enhance our life choices. ANSWER: a 341. Clarissa is playing soccer this fall because she enjoys the sport. Trevor has joined a chess club because he loves playing the game. Both of these examples demonstrate how a. our personalities shape how we interact with others. b. our personalities help create situations that we react to. c. different people choose different environments. d. our personalities shape how we react to personal experiences. ANSWER: c 342. Which perspective most clearly emphasizes that our personalities shape how we interpret and react to events? a. psychoanalytic perspective b. social-cognitive perspective c. humanistic perspective d. trait perspective ANSWER: b 343. Which perspective most clearly emphasizes that our personalities help create the situations to which we react? a. psychoanalytic perspective b. social-cognitive perspective c. humanistic perspective d. trait perspective ANSWER: b 344. Our genetically influenced traits evoke certain responses in others, which lead us to develop specific social-interaction skills. This best illustrates the impact of a. group identification. b. the spotlight effect. c. fixations. d. gene-environment interactions. ANSWER: d 345. Research has found that a person with a specific gene associated with aggression who was raised in a difficult environment will most likely demonstrate adult antisocial behavior. This best illustrates the impact of a. group identification. b. the spotlight effect. c. fixations. ScholarFriends.com d. gene-environment interactions. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 346. Hugo tends to behave aggressively. He was raised in a neighborhood ruled by conflicting violent gangs. By the time Hugo was 21 he had already been disciplined and then arrested for physically aggressive behavior against his neighbors. Hugo's aggressive behavior is a result of a. group identification. b. the spotlight effect. c. self-efficacy. d. gene-environment interactions. ANSWER: d 347. Personality is fruitfully studied at multiple levels of analysis because people are best understood as a. unconscious information processors. b. biopsychosocial organisms. c. demonstrating self-serving bias. d. possible selves. ANSWER: b 348. An integrated understanding of Laia's constant happiness in terms of her positive peer relationships, her relaxed temperament, and her optimistic expectations best illustrates a. the spotlight effect. b. unconditional positive regard. c. a biopsychosocial approach. d. a humanistic perspective. ANSWER: c 349. In assessing candidates for spy missions during World War II, U.S. Army psychologists subjected them to simulated undercover conditions. This best illustrates the use of an assessment strategy favored by ________ theories. a. trait b. psychoanalytic c. social-cognitive d. humanistic ANSWER: c 350. Many colleges assess nursing students' potential by observing their clinical work. This best illustrates the use of an assessment strategy favored by ________ theorists. a. social-cognitive b. psychodynamic c. humanistic d. trait ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 351. All medical students must go through an intern program in which their clinical work is observed. This best illustrates the use of an assessment strategy favored by ________ theorists. a. social-cognitive b. psychodynamic c. humanistic d. trait ANSWER: a 352. Social-cognitive theorists would suggest that the best way to predict a political candidate's performance effectiveness after election is to assess that individual's a. self-esteem. b. specific political goals for the future. c. general feelings of optimism about the future. d. past performance in situations involving similar responsibilities. ANSWER: d 353. Which theories build from psychological research on learning and cognition? a. humanism b. social-cognitive c. trait d. personality ANSWER: b 354. Thiago teaches third-grade students. He believes that if any of his students are aggressive, they will cause other students to also become aggressive. Similar to the social-cognitive perspective, Thiago has a. blamed TV and movies for showing aggressive behavior. b. focused on personality and not the environment. c. emphasized the situation and given little attention to inner traits. d. focused on the unconscious mind in explaining behavior. ANSWER: c 355. Social-cognitive theories are LEAST likely to be criticized for neglecting the importance of a. environmental influences. b. unconscious motives. c. personality traits. d. genetic influences. ANSWER: a 356. Projective tests and therapy sessions are associated with which personality theory? a. psychodynamic ScholarFriends.com b. humanistic Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice c. trait d. social-cognitive ANSWER: a 357. Which personality theorists use inventories to assess personality? a. trait b. psychodynamic c. social-cognitive d. psychoanalytic ANSWER: a 358. Bandura is to ________ as Maslow is to _______. a. psychoanalytic theory; trait theory b. social-cognitive theory; humanistic theory c. trait theory; psychodynamic theory d. psychoanalytic theory; humanistic theory ANSWER: b 359. Dr. Goodrtich is a humanistic psychologist and wants to find a way to assess personality. Which method will he likely use? a. projective tests b. dream analysis c. questionnaires d. personality inventories ANSWER: c 360. Contemporary psychologists are most likely to consider ________ to be of pivotal importance to personality. a. narcissism b. conditioning c. the self d. self-efficacy ANSWER: c 361. In modern psychology, the self is assumed to be a. the center of personality. b. an internal locus of control. c. our feelings of self-worth. d. our ego. ANSWER: a

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 362. Hui sees herself as a dedicated, caring teacher who tries to help all her students. These characteristics make up Hui's a. self. b. self-efficacy. c. self-serving bias. d. self-worth. ANSWER: a 363. In contemporary psychology, the self is considered to be a. the part of personality that represents our internalized standards of morality. b. the totality of the gene-environment interaction. c. the organizer of our thoughts, feelings, and actions. d. part of the person-situation controversy. ANSWER: c 364. The concept of ________ refers to your visions of the self you dream of becoming and the self you fear becoming. a. self-serving bias b. self-efficacy c. possible selves d. self-esteem ANSWER: c 365. Oswald is a very conscientious student because he fears that he will not be able to graduate from high school. Oswald's conscientiousness best illustrates the motivational impact of a. group identification. b. self-efficacy. c. possible selves. d. the spotlight effect. ANSWER: c 366. Overestimating the extent to which others notice and evaluate our appearance and performance is called a. reciprocal determinism. b. self-serving bias. c. the spotlight effect. d. defensive self-esteem. ANSWER: c 367. Junfeng is running for president of her high school class. She has to give a speech outlining her plans. While Junfeng is extremely nervous about speaking in front of so many people a. she can expert to perform poorly. ScholarFriends.com b. she can expect to receive a low grade on her presentation. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice c. the audience will hardly notice her nervousness. d. the audience will notice her nervousness during her presentation. ANSWER: c 368. Gonzalo was having dinner at a restaurant when he spilled his drink all over the table. He was extremely embarrassed and thought others would believe he is clumsy, even though no one else noticed him spilling the drink. This is an example of a. self-efficacy. b. self-esteem. c. self-affirming behavior. d. the spotlight effect. ANSWER: d 369. If we are nervous about our personal appearance after adopting a new hairstyle, we are likely to ________ the extent to which others notice our nervousness and we are likely to ________ the extent to which they notice our new hairstyle. a. overestimate; underestimate b. underestimate; overestimate c. overestimate; overestimate d. underestimate; underestimate ANSWER: c 370. Although you are nervous about your upcoming karaoke performance, simply imagining how much the audience empathizes with you can reduce the threat associated with your experience of a. self-efficacy. b. defensive self-esteem. c. self-serving bias. d. the spotlight effect. ANSWER: d 371. A sense of personal self-worth is called a. self-esteem. b. self-efficacy. c. defensive self-esteem. d. self-disclosure. ANSWER: a 372. Klaus received a low grade on his case history exam and so fears that he is too dumb to become a successful lawyer. Klaus' low opinion of himself is representative of his low a. self-esteem. b. self-efficacy. ScholarFriends.com c. defensive self-esteem. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice d. self-disclosure. ANSWER: a 373. Shortly after Janet found out that she failed her psychology test, she started acting rudely to her classmates. Her behavior could be related to a. high neuroticism. b. low levels of agreeableness. c. high sense of self. d. low self-esteem. ANSWER: d 374. Which of the following is true regarding those with high self-esteem? a. They have fewer sleepless nights. b. They communicate negatively. c. They tend to be shy. d. They are more likely to feel lonely. ANSWER: a 375. Individuals with high self-esteem are more likely than those with low self-esteem to a. be open to new experiences. b. experience the spotlight effect. c. dismiss flattering descriptions of themselves as untrue. d. underestimate the accuracy of their own beliefs. ANSWER: a 376. Lingyun has high self-esteem. We can conclude, then, that he is LESS likely to a. sleep well at night. b. be irresponsible. c. be extraverted. d. be happy. ANSWER: b 377. All of the following are true regarding those with high self-esteem EXCEPT that they a. have fewer sleepless nights. b. communicate more positively. c. behave negatively toward others. d. are less likely to feel lonely. ANSWER: c 378. Ross is outgoing, responsible, and open to new experiences and so has high ________. However, because he behaves as though he is more important thanScholarFriends.com his fellow students, he ________. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice a. self-esteem; is narcissistic b. pessimism; is optimistic c. self-efficacy; exhibits reciprocal determinism d. self-esteem; demonstrates self-serving bias ANSWER: a 379. Ten-year-old Iputu played cricket with other kids his own age. Although he was not very good at cricket, at the end of the season he received the same trophy as the "stars" on his team. Based on the research, which of the following can likely be expected of Iputu? a. He will try harder next season. b. He will refuse to play soccer next season. c. He will want to try a different sport. d. He may give up on the sport and be passive. ANSWER: d 380. A person whose self-esteem is temporarily lowered is especially likely to a. demonstrate an independence from social pressure to conform. b. insult others. c. experience narcissism. d. praise others. ANSWER: b 381. Researchers have found that personal insults are especially likely to trigger a response of aggression from those who experience a. high self-efficacy. b. defensive self-esteem. c. inflated self-esteem. d. possible selves. ANSWER: c 382. Researchers found that individuals with an inflated sense of self-esteem and self-love could develop a. reciprocal determinism. b. narcissism. c. secure self-esteem. d. self-efficacy. ANSWER: b 383. Narcissism is associated with a. having more empathy. b. being more forgiving. ScholarFriends.com c. valuing equality in romantic relationships. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice d. a game-playing, sexually forceful approach to romantic relationships. ANSWER: d 384. Lonnie brags excessively about his good looks and posts a lot of carefully posed photos of himself on social media. His behavior most clearly illustrates a. self-efficacy. b. self-serving bias. c. the spotlight effect. d. narcissism. ANSWER: d 385. Melvin remembers hearing his parents tell everyone how intelligent their son is. And, of course, they repeatedly told him how smart he is. This may increase the likelihood that Melvin will have a high score on the trait of ________ as an adult. a. agreeableness b. extraversion c. narcissism d. openness ANSWER: c 386. Ignorance of one's own incompetence is called a. self-serving bias. b. the Dunning-Kruger effect. c. self-efficacy. d. the spotlight effect. ANSWER: a 387. Mae just took a test for her psychology class. Immediately after completing the exam, she expressed to her friend that she knew she aced the text. However, when she received her grade, she had actually earned a C. This is an example of a. the Dunning-Kruger effect. b. the spotlight effect. c. decreased self-esteem. d. increased self-efficacy. ANSWER: a 388. The best way to judge your competence and future performance, according to David Dunning, is to a. act as though you are competent. b. demonstrate self-serving bias. c. demonstrate self-efficacy. d. invite others' assessments. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 389. Having a readiness to perceive oneself favorably is known as a. self-serving bias. b. excessive optimism. c. self-efficacy. d. the spotlight effect. ANSWER: a 390. When a fans' favorite basketball team loses, that person will believe that poor officiating, for example, was responsible for the loss. This best illustrates a. reciprocal determinism. b. the spotlight effect. c. self-serving bias. d. narcissism. ANSWER: c 391. Most students perceive a poor exam grade as the exam's or the instructor's fault rather than a reflection of their ability. This best illustrates a. defensive self-esteem. b. the spotlight effect. c. self-serving bias. d. low self-efficacy. ANSWER: c 392. Chen failed her last geography exam. Which of the following conclusions would be most representative of a self-serving bias on Chen's part? a. "I really didn't prepare well enough for that test." b. "I wasn't concentrating as hard as I should have during the test." c. "I lack ability in history." d. "I think the test questions were ambiguous and confusing." ANSWER: d 393. Some sexually active college students do not consistently use contraceptives because they see themselves as less vulnerable to unwanted pregnancy than the average college student. This best illustrates the impact of a. low self-esteem. b. defensive self-esteem. c. the spotlight effect. d. self-serving bias. ANSWER: d 394. Research indicates that most people ScholarFriends.com a. feel more personally responsible for their failures than for their successes. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice b. see themselves as better than average. c. underestimate the accuracy of their beliefs and judgments. d. are unrealistically pessimistic about their personal future. ANSWER: b 395. Jia is the CEO for a small printing company. She believes she is much more ethical and competent than the other executives in her company. Jia's beliefs illustrate a. self-serving bias. b. defensive self-esteem. c. possible selves. d. the spotlight effect. ANSWER: a 396. Most people in the United Kingdom, United States, and Germany believed that, compared with other same-aged citizens, they had a better-than-average chance of not catching COVID-19. This best illustrates the pervasiveness of a. extraversion. b. the spotlight effect. c. self-serving bias. d. narcissism. ANSWER: c 397. Which of the following is most likely to be associated with high self-esteem? a. the spotlight effect b. self-serving bias c. fixation d. reciprocal determinism ANSWER: b 398. Izan is most likely to blame business problems on his partner. This is one example of how a. the self-serving bias underlies conflict. b. the spotlight effect can affect relationships. c. narcissism is associated with maintaining relationships. d. low self-esteem is related to conflict. ANSWER: a 399. People tend to see their own school, organization, region, or country as superior. This is referred to as a. collectivism. b. group-serving bias. c. secure self-esteem. ScholarFriends.com d. narcissism. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 400. Psychologists have suggested that some people disparage themselves for all of the following reasons EXCEPT that it a. can prepare them for possible failure. b. can help them learn from their mistakes. c. tends to focus on their older self. d. can prepare them to understand that no one likes them. ANSWER: d 401. People put themselves down for a variety of reasons, including "humblebragging," which is a form of a. self-serving bias. b. individualism. c. false humility. d. narcissism. ANSWER: c 402. People are more critical of their ________ selves than of their ________ selves. a. old; current b. current; old c. possible; impossible d. impossible; possible ANSWER: a 403. Positive self-esteem predicts happiness and a. a self-serving bias. b. optimism. c. narcissism. d. extraversion. ANSWER: a 404. A person who experiences defensive self-esteem is more likely to feel ________ by criticism and is more likely to respond to these perceived threats with ________. a. fear; anger b. depressed; fear c. hurt; aggression d. threatened; aggression ANSWER: d 405. Lixin brags to anyone who will listen about his many achievements and responds to any criticism with great anger. Lixin most clearly demonstrates ScholarFriends.com a. the spotlight effect. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice b. secure self-esteem c. defensive self-esteem. d. self-efficacy. ANSWER: c 406. Accepting ourselves without excessive dependence on the approval of others best illustrates a. reciprocal determinism. b. defensive self-esteem. c. self-serving bias. d. secure self-esteem. ANSWER: d 407. Gabriela feels accepted for who she is, not only because of her good looks or her accomplishments as an athlete and a student. Gabriela best illustrates a. narcissism. b. low self-efficacy. c. defensive self-esteem. d. secure self-esteem. ANSWER: d 408. Professor Kyker believes that her students' most important personal characteristics are those that distinguish them as uniquely different from most other people. Her attitude best illustrates one of the consequences of a. individualism. b. conditioning. c. collectivism. d. the spotlight effect. ANSWER: a 409. A willingness to switch jobs and move from one part of the country to another best illustrates one of the consequences of a. collectivism. b. reciprocal determinism. c. individualism. d. self-serving bias. ANSWER: c 410. Romance and personal fulfillment in marriage are required by people in cultures characterized by a. repression. b. collectivism. c. group identification. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice d. individualism. ANSWER: d 411. Which of the following people is most likely to come from an individualist culture? a. Samuel, who places a great deal of value on personal responsibility and success b. Juan, whose professional identity is based on conforming to the expectations of his workplace c. Gunter, who believes in the importance of group goals and solidarity d. Pierre, who strongly believes in the importance of social relationships and family duty ANSWER: a 412. The preference for unique and unusual names is most likely representative of a culture characterized by a. modesty. b. individualism. c. group identification. d. collectivism. ANSWER: b 413. People living in a culture that promotes individualism are more likely than people in collectivist cultures to value a. modesty. b. respect for older people. c. group identification. d. personal freedom. ANSWER: d 414. Which of the following is true of countries with high levels of individualism? a. They were better able to combat the spread of COVID-19. b. Their increased engagement helped to reduce the spread of COVID-19. c. They suffered the worst COVID-19 death rates. d. They emphasized mask wearing and social distancing. ANSWER: d 415. In an unfamiliar culture, the collectivist self is most likely to experience a greater loss of a. reciprocal determinism. b. individualism. c. group identification. d. personal identity ANSWER: c 416. Seamus comes from a culture that emphasizes collectivism. Because of a promotion at his job, he has moved to a town about 100 miles away from his family. How is Seamus likely to feel? ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice a. He is angry at his boss for forcing him to move. b. He is glad to finally be out on his own. c. He is likely to feel a loss of family unity. d. He is annoyed that he will have to drive back and forth frequently. ANSWER: c 417. People living in a culture that promotes collectivism are more likely than those in individualist cultures to report experiencing a. defensive self-esteem. b. family duty. c. personal freedom. d. marital romance. ANSWER: b 418. When Mr. Seacat, who comes from the Northeastern United States, lived in Japan for six months, he was surprised at how much respect he received simply because he was an older person. His sense of surprise suggests that he had NOT previously lived in a culture characterized by a. introversion. b. collectivism. c. extraversion. d. individualism. ANSWER: b 419. A collectivist culture is especially likely to emphasize the importance of a. social harmony. b. personal privacy. c. self-image. d. self-esteem. ANSWER: a 420. Compared with people in individualist cultures, those in collectivist cultures are a. less likely to display signs of humility and more likely to value group goals. b. more likely to display signs of humility and less likely to value group goals. c. less likely to display signs of humility and less likely to value group goals. d. more likely to display signs of humility and more likely to value group goals. ANSWER: d 421. Fen values group goals and interdependence more than individual recognition for her academic achievements. Her identity is based on her affiliation with her family. Fen's values most closely coincide with a. collectivism. b. individualism. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice c. personal privacy. d. narcissism. ANSWER: a 422. Individualism is to collectivism as ________ is to ________. a. norm; role b. nature; nurture c. independence; interdependence d. self-efficacy; self-image ANSWER: c

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 1. The psychological disorder(s) reported by the most people in the United States in 2018 was/were a. depressive disorders. b. posttraumatic stress disorder. c. schizophrenia. d. phobias. ANSWER: d 2. A psychological disorder is a collection of symptoms marked by a clinically significant disturbance a. that is aggressive, persistent, and intentional. b. that is selfish, habitual, and avoidable. c. to people's thoughts, emotions, or behavior. d. that is biologically influenced, unconsciously motivated, and difficult to change. ANSWER: c 3. To say that a person has a psychological disorder, that person's symptoms must a. be intentional. b. cause distress or suffering. c. be biologically influenced. d. be unconsciously motivated. ANSWER: b 4. Imogene is suffering from a collection of symptoms marked by a clinically significant disturbance in her thinking, behavior, or emotions. This is called a a. psychological disorder. b. dysfunction. c. maladaptive behavior. d. typical aspect of adulthood. ANSWER: a 5. Sebastian has been so depressed for the last month that all he can do is lie in bed, cry, and wonder whether his life has meaning. He has not been able to go to work or attend school, and he feels distressed by his situation. Sebastian most likely a. has a psychological disorder. b. is experiencing symptoms that are dysfunctional, but not disabling. c. is exhibiting behavior that, while maladaptive, is not clinically significant. d. is enduring a normal aspect of adulthood. ANSWER: a 6. Psychological disorders consist of emotions, behavior, and cognitive processes that are all of the following EXCEPT a. maladaptive. ScholarFriends.com b. dysfunctional. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice c. that they interfere with daily functioning. d. immoral. ANSWER: d 7. Thoughts, emotions, or behaviors that interfere with normal day-to-day life are described as a. biopsychosocial. b. hormonal. c. maladaptive. d. epigenetic. ANSWER: c 8. Dysfunctional behaviors are maladaptive, which means that they a. interfere with normal day-to-day life. b. are socially unacceptable. c. differ from those of most other people in your culture. d. can result only from genetic changes. ANSWER: a 9. Colin swings back and forth between being very happy and very sad. As a result, he is experiencing both family and work problems. Colin likely has a. a psychological disorder. b. hormonal problems. c. a moral problem. d. epigenetics. ANSWER: a 10. Joaquin is deathly afraid of snakes. He refuses to go outside and spends all his time in his house. This behavior is most likely to be diagnosed as a symptom of psychological disorder if it is a. also noticeable in other members of his family. b. preventing him from functioning effectively. c. not caused by a biological disorder. d. difficult for him to change. ANSWER: b 11. Lydia suffers from obsessive thoughts and compulsive actions. She doesn't like her thoughts or actions and wishes she could control them. Lydia is experiencing a. a diagnosis. b. impaired intelligence. c. hindered emotional stability. d. distress. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 12. In 1973, the American Psychiatric Association discontinued classifying "homosexuality" as a disorder because more and more of its members viewed same-sex attraction as a natural biological predisposition that was not a. stress-related. b. dysfunctional. c. compulsive. d. illegal. ANSWER: b 13. The removal of "homosexuality" as a psychological disorder demonstrates the a. maladaptive nature of the disorder. b. power of shifting societal beliefs. c. stigma associated with the disorder. d. increased prevalence of the disorder. ANSWER: b 14. Believing that psychological disorders are caused by the devil is consistent with a. historical perceptions of disorders. b. the medical model. c. the biopsychosocial approach. d. epigenetics. ANSWER: a 15. The major problem associated with explanations of psychological disorders in terms of demon possession is that these explanations a. were relevant only to severe disorders such as schizophrenia. b. encouraged many to believe there was no such thing as insanity. c. led to some harsh and ineffective remedial treatments. d. relieved people of personal responsibility for their own behavior. ANSWER: c 16. The first person to promote moral treatment for psychological disorders, instead of the brutal treatments used during his time, was a. Sigmund Freud. b. Philippe Pinel. c. E. Fuller Torrey. d. Kay Jamison. ANSWER: b 17. In some places around the world, cruel treatment for mental illness still exists. In response, the a. DSM is currently under revision. ScholarFriends.com b. medical model for psychological disorders is being expanded. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice c. criteria to be diagnosed with a psychological disorder is changing. d. World Health Organization has launched a plan to transform hospitals into humane places. ANSWER: d 18. The discovery that psychologically disordered behavior could result from syphilis infections triggered the birth of a. the biopsychosocial approach. b. the medical model. c. the DSM-5-TR. d. epigenetics. ANSWER: b 19. The medical model defines psychological disorders as a. diseases that have physical causes that can be diagnosed, treated, and, in most cases, cured. b. maladaptive responses to a troubling environment. c. purely imaginary symptoms of distress. d. learned habits that need to be extinguished. ANSWER: a 20. Tanya claims that psychological disorders have physical causes that can be diagnosed, treated through therapy, and, in most cases, cured. Her belief is most clearly consistent with the a. biopsychosocial approach. b. cognitive perspective. c. medical model. d. social-cultural approach. ANSWER: c 21. If research indicated that generalized anxiety disorder results from overarousal of certain brain areas, this would most clearly give added credibility to a. psychoanalytic theory. b. the medical model. c. the biopsychosocial approach. d. the DSM-5-TR. ANSWER: b 22. Dr. Jurek believes that psychological disorders result from an excess of hormones secreted by the endocrine glands. Dr. Jurek's emphasis best illustrates a. the medical model. b. the cognitive perspective. c. psychoanalytic theory. d. a biopsychosocial approach. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 23. The medical model of psychologically disordered behavior is most likely to be criticized for neglecting the importance of a. social circumstances and psychological factors. b. biological evolution. c. the DSM-5-TR. d. genetically influenced abnormalities. ANSWER: a 24. Recent discoveries that many genes together influence the brain and biochemical abnormalities that contribute to all major psychological disorders has supported the a. medical model. b. biopsychosocial approach. c. classification system. d. psychological component of psychological disorders. ANSWER: a 25. It would be most difficult to use the ________ to explain why taijin kyofusho occurs mostly in Japanese cultures and anorexia nervosa occurs mostly in Western cultures. a. cognitive perspective b. medical model c. social-cultural perspective d. biopsychosocial approach ANSWER: b 26. Hajeong immigrated to the United States with her mother and father when she was 13 years old. Since last year when she moved away to attend the university, she has demonstrated social anxiety; she also blushes and avoids eye contact with other students and her instructors. A Japanese psychologist is likely to diagnose Hajeong with a. taijin-kyofusho. b. susto. c. bulimia nervosa. d. amok. ANSWER: a 27. The ideas that the mind and body work as one and that nature and nurture interact are most clearly emphasized by the a. cognitive perspective. b. medical model. c. social-cultural perspective. ScholarFriends.com d. biopsychosocial approach. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 28. The interaction of brain structure and chemistry, mood-related perceptions, and social expectations is most clearly emphasized by the a. cognitive perspective. b. medical model. c. social-cultural perspective. d. biopsychosocial approach. ANSWER: d 29. Professor Rehberg's research involves the interactions between heredity, cultural ideals, and low self-esteem in the development of anorexia nervosa. Professor Rehberg's focus best illustrates a. the medical model. b. the social-cultural perspective. c. epigenetics. d. the biopsychosocial approach. ANSWER: d 30. Dr. Hardin believes that psychological disorders are influenced by genetic predispositions and physiological states. He is also aware that inner psychological dynamics, social dynamics, and culture play a role in psychological disorders. Which of the following illustrates Dr. Hardin's view? a. the biopsychosocial approach b. the medical model c. epigenetics d. the cognitive perspective ANSWER: a 31. The ________ argues that individual characteristics combine with environmental stressors to increase or decrease the likelihood of developing a psychological disorder. a. biopsychosocial approach b. vulnerability-stress model c. medical model d. DSM-5-TR ANSWER: b 32. The vulnerability-stress model is also referred to as the ________ stress model, which is derived from the Greek word for predisposition. a. epigenetic b. biopsychosocial c. diathesis d. medical ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 33. Professor Goodrich is giving a lecture on the vulnerability-stress model, which originated from the a. medical model. b. DSM. c. biopsychosocial approach. d. original classification system used for diagnosing mental illness. ANSWER: c 34. Epigenetics is defined as the a. concept that diseases have physical causes that can be diagnosed, treated, and cured. b. study of the molecular ways by which environments can influence gene expression (without a DNA change). c. idea that individual characteristics combine with environmental stressors to increase or decrease the likelihood of developing a psychological disorder. d. notion that disorders reflect genetic predispositions and physiological states, inner psychological dynamics, and social and cultural circumstances. ANSWER: b 35. Environmental influences can determine whether a gene is expressed. For some people, that will be decisive in whether they develop a psychological disorder. This best illustrates the need for a. the cognitive perspective. b. the social-cultural perspective. c. research on epigenetics. d. the DSM-5-TR. ANSWER: c 36. Professor Paliwal studies the molecular ways in which environments can influence gene expression, which is known as a. the vulnerability-stress model. b. the medical model. c. the biopsychosocial approach. d. epigenetics. ANSWER: d 37. As a child, Wendy experienced a severe case of pneumonia, which blocked the expression of some of her genes. As a result, she now suffers from a psychological disorder. Her experience best illustrates the importance of a. the DSM-5-TR. b. epigenetic effects. c. natural selection. d. the social-cultural perspective. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 38. Because of overlapping genes, people diagnosed with one disorder are at higher risk for being diagnosed with another. This is referred to as a. epigenetics. b. comorbidity. c. tolerance. d. heritability. ANSWER: b 39. Diagnostic classification of psychological disorders not only sketches a person's disordered behavior, but also aims to provide to psychologists and psychiatrists all of the following EXCEPT a. a guide to predict a disorder's future course. b. suggestions for appropriate treatment. c. the promotion of research into a disorder's causes. d. help in creating labels that are self-fulfilling. ANSWER: d 40. In many countries, the most common tool for describing disorders is the American Psychiatric Association's a. International Classification of Diseases (ICD). b. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5-TR). c. Research Domain Criteria (RDC). d. vulnerability-stress model. ANSWER: b 41. The DSM-5-TR is most clearly designed to ________ psychological disorders. a. explain b. classify c. cure d. prevent ANSWER: b 42. Like most psychologists and psychiatrists, Dr. Westinghaus uses the DSM-5-TR in his private practice. Which of the following is NOT a reason that Dr. Westinghaus uses the DSM-5-TR? a. to predict a disorder's future course b. to suggest appropriate treatment c. to prompt research on the causes of disorders d. to identify almost any type of a behavior as a disorder ANSWER: d 43. Caleb has been diagnosed with posttraumatic stress disorder. By referring to the DSM-5-TR, his therapist will ScholarFriends.com a. know the cause of his problem. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice b. be able to provide appropriate treatment. c. be able to apply his personal experience to the treatment. d. be able to create a self-fulfilling label. ANSWER: b 44. Clinicians diagnose the presence of insomnia disorder using the ________ in the DSM-5-TR. a. biological predispositions identified b. diagnostic criteria c. biopsychosocial levels of analysis d. cultural definitions of disorder ANSWER: b 45. Mario has been diagnosed with insomnia disorder because he meets all the criteria established by the a. medical model. b. American Psychological Association's publication manual. c. DSM-5-TR. d. World Health Organization's International Classification of Diseases. ANSWER: c 46. Mosese has been unable to fall asleep almost every night this week. Although he feels tired, he just can't fall asleep. He is distressed because he is exhausted during the day and unable to perform at work. Mosese is demonstrating symptoms associated with a. depression. b. generalized anxiety disorder. c. insomnia disorder. d. a phobia. ANSWER: c 47. Louise suffers from lack of sleep and she is convinced that she has insomnia. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of insomnia disorder? a. sleep disruption causes distress or diminished everyday functioning b. inability to sleep three or more nights each week c. inability to sleep occurs during three consecutive months d. inability to sleep is dependent on substance use ANSWER: d 48. The DSM-5-TR's diagnostic codes resemble those found in the a. biopsychosocial approach. b. American Psychological Association's publication manual. c. Physician's Medical Guide. ScholarFriends.com d. World Health Organization's International Classification of Diseases. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 49. The DSM-5-TR does NOT a. include a classification of personality disorders. b. explain the causes of the various psychological disorders. c. include a very broad range of psychological disorders. d. provide guidelines for diagnosing psychological disorders. ANSWER: b 50. Field trials of the DSM-5-TR have compared clinicians' diagnoses in order to a. assess the reliability of its categories. b. shorten the time it takes to make a diagnosis. c. avoid invading clients' psychological privacy. d. reduce the need for medical terminology in psychological assessments. ANSWER: a 51. Field trials indicate that the DSM-5-TR does NOT a. include a very broad range of different psychological disorders. b. estimate the frequency of different psychological disorders. c. generate the same levels of diagnostic agreement for every different form of psychological disorder. d. classify psychological disorders that have been shown to be genetically influenced. ANSWER: c 52. To assess the reliability of the DSM-5-TR categories, clinicians have conducted real-world tests called a. medical models. b. epigenetics. c. field trials. d. biopsychosocial events. ANSWER: c 53. Field trials that assess clinician agreement when using the new DSM-5-TR categories indicate that diagnoses of antisocial personality disorder fared ________ and diagnoses of posttraumatic stress disorder fared ________. a. well; well b. poorly; poorly c. well; poorly d. poorly; well ANSWER: d 54. Barbara has been experiencing a great deal of stress and has sought the help of a therapist. The first therapist she sees diagnoses her with generalized anxietyScholarFriends.com disorder. Barbara decides that she wants a second opinion before beginning treatment. The second therapist she sees diagnoses her with depression. What does this say Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice about the DSM? a. The DSM is not a valid way to assess disorders. b. The DSM has varying reliability depending on the disorder. c. The DSM should be revised immediately. d. A new classification system should be used instead of the DSM. ANSWER: b 55. The DSM-5-TR is most likely to be criticized for a. attempting to explain behavior by simply labeling it. b. classifying an excessively broad range of human behaviors as psychologically disordered. c. failing to base diagnoses on observable behaviors. d. inhibiting scientific efforts to discover the underlying causes of psychological disorders. ANSWER: b 56. Marge recently lost her long-time partner and has been suffering from severe grief for more than a year. According to the DSM-5-TR, her symptoms may qualify for a diagnosis of a. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. b. generalized anxiety disorder. c. prolonged grief disorder. d. autism spectrum disorder. ANSWER: c 57. The ________ is a new classification approach that helps organize disorders according to behaviors and brain activity. a. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders b. World Health Organization's International Classification of Diseases c. American Psychiatric Association's manual d. U.S. National Institute of Mental Health's Research Domain Criteria project ANSWER: d 58. Some critics note that the DSM-5's labels are subjective, thus creating expectations in clinicians that can ________ when diagnosing and treating a patient. a. be self-fulfilling b. lead to a moral treatment c. lead to psychopathology d. trigger epigenetic effects ANSWER: a 59. When children are told that certain classmates have learning disabilities, they may behave in ways that inhibit the success of those students in the classroom. This best illustrates that labels a. have low reliability. ScholarFriends.com b. trigger epigenetic effects. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice c. can be self-fulfilling. d. prevent diagnostic classification. ANSWER: c 60. A fundamental problem with the diagnostic labeling of psychologically disordered behaviors is that the labels often a. bias our perceptions of the labeled person. b. represent attempts by psychologists to explain behavior by simply naming it. c. interfere with effective research on the causes of these disorders. d. interfere with effective treatment of these disorders. ANSWER: a 61. In one study, therapists watched recorded interviews. When told the interviewees were job applicants, participants perceived them as typical; when told the interviewees were psychiatric patients, participants perceived them as "different from most people." This illustrates the a. benefits of diagnostic labels. b. shortcomings of the medical model. c. limitations of human understanding. d. biasing power of diagnostic labels. ANSWER: d 62. After Malcolm was told that Mr. Vallee was diagnosed with major depressive disorder, he mistakenly concluded that his tendency to spend most of his time alone at home was a symptom of his disorder. This best illustrates the a. unreliability of the DSM-5-TR. b. shortcomings of the medical model. c. biasing power of diagnostic labels. d. dangers of the biopsychosocial approach. ANSWER: c 63. The use of diagnostic labels aids the ability of mental health professionals to a. quickly communicate the characteristics of their patients' complex symptoms. b. avoid misdiagnosing patients. c. enable their patients to get along with family members. d. use the proper terminology in writing their research papers. ANSWER: a 64. Anxiety disorders may sometimes be mistaken for a. creativity. b. shyness. c. irritability. ScholarFriends.com d. depression. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 65. Anxiety disorders are generally defined as psychological disorders characterized by distressing, persistent, anxiety or a. a depressed mood and loss of interest or pleasure. b. excited mood and increased energy. c. diminished, inappropriate emotional expression. d. maladaptive behaviors that reduce anxiety. ANSWER: d 66. Maladaptive behaviors that reduce worry and fear are most indicative of a. a bipolar disorder. b. an anxiety disorder. c. survivor resiliency. d. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. ANSWER: b 67. People with ________ become extremely anxious at parties, giving class presentations, or eating in a public place, for example. a. generalized anxiety disorder b. a specific phobia c. social anxiety disorder d. major depressive disorder ANSWER: b 68. Jaziel experiences heart palpitations, blushing, and sweating whenever he has to speak in front of a large group or even when he has to talk to a group of friends. As a result, he avoids social settings, such as parties, outings, and meetings. Jaziel may be experiencing a. social anxiety disorder. b. a specific phobia. c. generalized anxiety disorder. d. bipolar disorder. ANSWER: a 69. Anis, who has been diagnosed with social anxiety disorder, is likely to experience a. recurring haunting memories and feelings of worthlessness and jumpy anxiety. b. the overwhelming urge to repeatedly wash his hands to avoid being contaminated by other people's germs. c. a fear of confined areas such as elevators or small rooms. d. a fear of involving himself in public situations such as speaking or eating in a restaurant. ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 70. Mpho avoids all situations that involve him talking with others, especially with potential romantic partners. He makes a special effort to avoid situations that he fears may cause him to be judged or evaluated. Mpho is demonstrating the symptoms of a. panic disorder. b. social anxiety disorder. c. free-floating anxiety. d. obsessive-compulsive disorder. ANSWER: b 71. Edelyn, who has social anxiety disorder, rarely ventures out of her home to avoid feeling anxious. Her behavior is considered ________ because it prevents her from learning to cope with the world and left her feeling lonely. a. persistent b. distressing c. maladaptive d. irrational ANSWER: c 72. Which of the following examples reflects a symptom of an anxiety disorder rather than typical anxiety? a. The night before his final exam, Bill is unable to sleep because he is worried about doing well on the test. b. For the past several weeks, Mavis has been unable to sleep or concentrate at work because she keeps thinking that something terrible might happen to her son at school, even though she knows that he's safe. c. Seth is upset because his girlfriend told him she wants to start dating other guys, and he is afraid that she will break up with him. d. Barbara has just found out that her company has been sold, and she is very worried that she might lose her job. ANSWER: b 73. Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by a. intrusive and unwanted thoughts that persistently preoccupy a person. b. a continuous state of tension, fearfulness, and autonomic nervous system arousal. c. a persistent, irrational fear and avoidance of a specific object, activity, or situation. d. nightmares, social withdrawal, jumpy anxiety, and/or insomnia. ANSWER: b 74. Which of the following is an anxiety disorder that is characterized by excessive and uncontrollable worry that persists for six months or more? a. panic disorder b. generalized anxiety disorder ScholarFriends.com c. agoraphobia Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice d. posttraumatic stress disorder ANSWER: b 75. Generalized anxiety disorder is ________ common among men than women, and the symptoms last six months or ________. a. more; more b. less; less c. more; less d. less; more ANSWER: d 76. People with ________ are constantly tense and anxious, and they are often jittery, on edge, and sleepdeprived. They feel anxious about a wide range of life circumstances, sometimes with little or no apparent reason. a. panic disorder b. generalized anxiety disorder c. agoraphobia d. posttraumatic stress disorder ANSWER: b 77. Michelle feels tense and uneasy most of the time for no real reason. She may be demonstrating a. generalized anxiety disorder. b. posttraumatic stress disorder. c. panic disorder. d. a specific phobia. ANSWER: a 78. Yannis, a college student, complains that he is tense and feels fearful most of the time but doesn't know why. Without warning, his heart begins to pound, his hands get icy, and he breaks out in a cold sweat. Yannis most likely suffers from a. social anxiety disorder. b. obsessive-compulsive disorder. c. generalized anxiety disorder. d. a specific phobia. ANSWER: c 79. Twitching eyelids, trembling, sweating, or fidgeting are all symptoms associated with generalized anxiety disorder. These symptoms are caused by arousal of the a. somatic nervous system. b. autonomic nervous system. c. central nervous system. ScholarFriends.com d. parasympathetic nervous system. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 80. Rento, who has generalized anxiety disorder, is constantly trembling, sweating, or fidgeting. These symptoms are caused by arousal of his a. somatic nervous system. b. autonomic nervous system. c. central nervous system. d. parasympathetic nervous system. ANSWER: c 81. Freud suggested that for those with a generalized anxiety disorder, the anxiety is a. cyclical. b. free-floating. c. antisocial. d. completely outside of conscious awareness. ANSWER: b 82. Lori is constantly concerned about things at work even when she is at home. She is constantly worried about her home life even when she is at work. Lori's free-floating anxiety leaves her tense and irritable, impairs her concentration, and results in many sleepless nights. Lori is affected by a. a specific phobia. b. social anxiety disorder. c. generalized anxiety disorder. d. obsessive-compulsive disorder. ANSWER: c 83. Generalized anxiety disorder often goes hand in hand with a. panic disorder. b. a bipolar disorder. c. depression. d. schizophrenia. ANSWER: c 84. Compared with generalized anxiety disorder, panic disorder is characterized by periods of distress that are ________ intense and ________ prolonged. a. more; more b. less; less c. more; less d. less; more ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com

85. Which of the following disorders is characterized by the most sudden and unpredictable episodes of Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice distress? a. social anxiety disorder b. panic disorder c. obsessions d. compulsions ANSWER: b 86. The most common symptoms of ________ are a racing heart, chest pains, difficulty breathing, sweating, hot flashes or chills, and a choking sensation. The person may also become dizzy, tremble, and fear loss of control. a. a panic attack b. generalized anxiety disorder c. obsessive-compulsive disorder d. free-floating anxiety ANSWER: a 87. While he was preparing lunch for his children, Fiedley was suddenly overwhelmed by feelings of intense dread that something terrible was about to happen. For several minutes he experienced such terror that he felt like he was choking to death. Fiedley was most likely suffering from a. social anxiety disorder. b. a panic attack. c. obsessive-compulsive disorder. d. a specific phobia. ANSWER: b 88. Experiencing four or more symptoms of a panic attack and one month or more of intense and persistent fear of future panic attacks may lead to ________, which signals panic disorder. a. maladaptive avoidance behaviors b. a specific phobia c. autonomic nervous system arousal d. free-floating anxiety ANSWER: a 89. For the fifth time this month, Carlington rushed his 24-year-old daughter, Melani, to the hospital emergency room because he thought she was having a heart attack. Her symptoms included a racing heart, chest pains, and difficulty breathing. Although her doctor can find no physical problems, Melani lives in fear of another attack. Melani would most likely be diagnosed with a. a specific phobia. b. panic disorder. c. generalized anxiety disorder. d. obsessive-compulsive disorder. ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 90. Every time she goes out, Sophia has to rush home after being overwhelmed by dizzy spells, a racing heart, and feeling as though she can't breathe. Finally, she decides to go to the emergency room, but a thorough exam rules out any medical problem. Nevertheless, Sophia has become increasingly fearful about having more episodes and has restricted her activities to only the most essential outings. Sophia seems to be displaying symptoms of a. posttraumatic stress disorder. b. generalized anxiety disorder. c. social anxiety disorder. d. panic disorder. ANSWER: d 91. Anxiety about having a panic attack in places or situations from which escape might be difficult indicates a. obsessive-compulsive disorder. b. social anxiety disorder. c. agoraphobia. d. generalized anxiety disorder. ANSWER: c 92. Nova is terrified of having a panic attack, so she avoids all situations that might lead to an attack. The thought of going to the store and being surrounded by people she does not know scares her, so she buys everything online so it will be delivered. Because of her fear, she earns her living as a freelance editor, working at home. Nova's behavior is most characteristic of a. agoraphobia. b. generalized anxiety disorder. c. posttraumatic stress disorder. d. obsessive-compulsive disorder. ANSWER: a 93. Because he is constantly afraid of having a panic attack, Logan rarely leaves his home. His fears are so intense that he won't even go out to get his mail or even to sit in his patio. For the most part, he is afraid of having another panic attack and not being able to get help. Logan has been diagnosed with a. posttraumatic stress disorder. b. generalized anxiety disorder. c. social anxiety disorder. d. agoraphobia. ANSWER: d 94. A persistent, irrational fear of a specific object, activity, or situation is most indicative of a. depression. b. compulsions. c. specific phobias. ScholarFriends.com d. obsessions. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 95. Although all of the following specific phobias are likely, which is the most common? a. being alone b. storms c. blood d. heights ANSWER: d 96. Easton has a terrible fear of insects. Although the family has a screened patio, he will not go outside to play until his parents thoroughly check for insects. He won't even watch TV shows where insects surround a person. Most likely, Easton is suffering from a psychological disorder called a. social anxiety disorder. b. posttraumatic stress disorder. c. specific phobia. d. obsessive-compulsive disorder. ANSWER: c 97. Katrina is so afraid of spiders that she checks the ground, the walls, and the screens in every area she enters. Katrina is exhibiting symptoms of a. obsessive-compulsive disorder. b. posttraumatic stress disorder. c. depression. d. a specific phobia. ANSWER: d 98. An immediate and irrational anxiety response to the mere sight of blood is indicative of a. an obsession. b. a compulsion. c. specific phobia. d. generalized anxiety disorder. ANSWER: c 99. Repetitive, intrusive, and unwanted thoughts and repetitive behaviors that the individual feels driven to perform are characteristic of a. generalized anxiety disorder. b. specific phobia. c. posttraumatic stress disorder. d. obsessive-compulsive disorder. ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com

100. Kinsley has unwanted, intrusive, and persistent thoughts about falling down the stairs in his two-story Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice home. To reduce his anxiety, he refuses to go upstairs and sleeps on the couch instead. Kinsley would most likely be diagnosed as experiencing a. panic disorder. b. social anxiety disorder. c. generalized anxiety disorder. d. obsessive-compulsive disorder. ANSWER: d 101. Obsessions are a. persistent, irrational fears of specific objects, activities, or situations. b. feelings of jumpy anxiety. c. periodic episodes of intense dread accompanied by frightening physical sensations. d. unwanted, intrusive, and repetitive thoughts. ANSWER: d 102. Compulsions are a. persistent, irrational fears of specific objects, activities, or situations. b. feelings of jumpy anxiety. c. responses to unwanted and persistent thoughts. d. symptoms that take a bodily form without apparent physical cause. ANSWER: c 103. Amanda is a new mother and is concerned that the world will contaminate her new baby. She washes her hands hundreds of times each day, wears gloves when touching her baby, and constantly sanitizes the surfaces in her home. Her behaviors represent ________ related to OCD. a. negative symptoms b. compulsive behaviors c. panic attacks d. disorganized speech ANSWER: b 104. Mrs. Travisi is alarmed by her own intrusive and irrational thoughts that her house is contaminated by germs. Her experience best illustrates the agitating effects of a. compulsions. b. an obsession. c. agoraphobia. d. panic disorder. ANSWER: b 105. The billionaire aviator Howard Hughes insisted that his assistants carry out elaborate hand-washing rituals and wear white gloves when handling any document he would later touch. His behavior best illustrated the ScholarFriends.com symptoms of Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice a. panic disorder. b. obsessive-compulsive disorder. c. generalized anxiety disorder. d. posttraumatic stress disorder. ANSWER: b 106. Repeatedly thinking about contamination from algae-laden water is to ________ as taking five showers a day is to ________. a. panic; agoraphobia b. depression; compulsion c. panic; specific phobia d. obsession; compulsion ANSWER: d 107. Aiden is so preoccupied by his fear of germs that he always keeps his car and apartment windows sealed tightly, refuses to allow anyone into his apartment, carries his own silverware whenever he eats away from home, and washes his hands every time he touches anything that has been touched by someone else. Aiden would most likely be diagnosed with a. panic disorder. b. obsessive-compulsive disorder. c. generalized anxiety disorder. d. agoraphobia. ANSWER: b 108. Ruby has collected magazines, talking dolls, and toy trucks for most of her adult life. Every room in her house is filled to overflowing with these items. When her son suggested that she discard some of the items to clear out her house, Ruby became upset. Ruby may be experiencing a. hoarding disorder. b. panic disorder. c. body dysmorphic disorder. d. excoriation disorder. ANSWER: a 109. A preoccupation with perceived body defects is associated with a. hoarding disorder. b. panic disorder. c. body dysmorphic disorder. d. excoriation disorder. ANSWER: c 110. Matthew is preoccupied with thoughts about his lack of arm and leg muscle. Matthew may be experiencing ScholarFriends.com a. hoarding disorder. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice b. panic disorder. c. body dysmorphic disorder. d. excoriation disorder. ANSWER: c 111. Many people feel sensitive about their appearance, but for their thoughts to be considered OCD, they must a. be related to the shape of their body. b. occur when they are among friends. c. force them to stay home alone. d. occur frequently and disrupt their lives. ANSWER: d 112. Of 104,000 veterans returning from Iraq and Afghanistan, what percentage have been diagnosed with a psychological disorder? a. 10 b. 25 c. 40 d. 65 ANSWER: b 113. The disorder that develops in response to being exposed to a severe and life-threatening trauma is a. generalized anxiety disorder. b. obsessive-compulsive disorder. c. posttraumatic stress disorder. d. social anxiety disorder. ANSWER: c 114. Recurring vivid, distressing memories of a traumatic event, social withdrawal, nightmares, jumpy anxiety, and trouble sleeping are the major symptoms associated with a. obsessive-compulsive disorder. b. generalized anxiety disorder. c. posttraumatic stress disorder. d. social anxiety disorder. ANSWER: c 115. Two months after experiencing a terrifying home invasion, Jack finds himself constantly scanning his environment for possible threats and jumping at the slightest noises. Jack may be experiencing a. panic disorder. b. posttraumatic stress disorder. c. generalized anxiety disorder. ScholarFriends.com d. social anxiety disorder. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 116. A year after being threatened by an armed robber, Mariana still experiences jumpy anxiety and has vivid, distressing memories of the robbery. She also has trouble sleeping. Mariana is most clearly showing signs of a. panic disorder. b. posttraumatic stress disorder. c. generalized anxiety disorder. d. social anxiety disorder. ANSWER: b 117. Valeria was in her favorite Italian restaurant when someone entered with a gun drawn. Before killing himself the gunman randomly killed three people. Although Valeria was not injured in the shooting spree, she has since been unable to return to work. She can't seem to stop thinking about the event. She has recurrent nightmares, is unable to sleep, and does not want to leave her home. It is most likely that Valeria is exhibiting a. generalized anxiety disorder. b. obsessive-compulsive disorder. c. posttraumatic stress disorder. d. social anxiety disorder. ANSWER: c 118. Recovering after severe stress is referred to as a. survivor resiliency. b. traumatic brain injury. c. grit. d. posttraumatic growth. ANSWER: a 119. As a child, Cora was punished for every little misbehavior. As an adult, Cora has recovered from the severe stress she experienced as a child, although she does not have a close relationship with her parents. She is displaying a. survivor resiliency. b. social anxiety. c. free-floating anxiety. d. a specific phobia. ANSWER: a 120. Many political protesters who survive episodes of torture and imprisonment do not later exhibit PTSD. This best illustrates a. free-floating anxiety. b. stimulus generalization. c. dissociation. ScholarFriends.com d. survivor resiliency. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 121. Riley experienced extreme stress when a tornado landed in her neighborhood and destroyed many of her neighbors' homes. It's two weeks later and she has fully recovered from the experience. This is known as a. stimulus generalization. b. reinforcement. c. posttraumatic growth. d. survivor resiliency. ANSWER: d 122. Positive psychological changes that result from struggling with extremely challenging life crises demonstrate a. stimulus generalization. b. conditioning. c. posttraumatic growth. d. epigenetics. ANSWER: c 123. Cancer survivors who develop a fresh delight in their children and savor the joy of each new day best illustrate a. stimulus generalization. b. a near-death experience. c. posttraumatic growth. d. hypervigilance. ANSWER: c 124. Kevin and Andrew both served in the military overseas. Upon returning home, Kevin developed PTSD but Andrew did not. Why might this be the case? a. As compared with Kevin, Andrew experienced higher levels of emotional distress. b. As compared with Andrew, Kevin experienced higher levels of emotional distress. c. Andrew is experiencing posttraumatic growth and Kevin is not. d. Kevin is experiencing posttraumatic growth and Andrew is not. ANSWER: b 125. The ________ the emotional distress after experiencing a trauma, the ________ the risk for developing PTSD. a. higher; greater b. higher; less c. lower; greater d. lower; less ANSWER: a ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 126. In memory testing of people who had suffered a Paris terror attack, those who had more difficulty ________ were more likely to experience PTSD after a trauma. a. remembering emotional distress b. experiencing negative emotions c. inhibiting unwanted memories d. recalling negative events ANSWER: c 127. Some psychologists believe that mental health professionals have been diagnosing normal stress-related bad memories and dreams as a. panic disorder. b. PTSD. c. OCD. d. generalized anxiety disorder. ANSWER: b 128. Which of the following common problems brings people into primary care doctors' offices? a. specific phobias b. survivor resiliency c. medically unexplained illnesses d. PTSD ANSWER: c 129. A psychological disorder in which the symptoms take a bodily form without apparent physical causes is called a. illness anxiety disorder. b. somatic symptom disorder. c. posttraumatic stress disorder. d. obsessive-compulsive disorder. ANSWER: b 130. Jerri's stomach hurts frequently but the doctors aren't able to identify a physical cause. Jerri may have symptoms associated with a. illness anxiety disorder. b. somatic symptom disorder. c. posttraumatic stress disorder. d. obsessive-compulsive disorder. ANSWER: b 131. What is the most common psychological disorder in China? a. obsessive compulsive disorder ScholarFriends.com b. anxiety disorders Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice c. posttraumatic stress disorder d. somatic symptom disorder ANSWER: b 132. People who interpret normal sensations as symptoms of a dreaded disease may be demonstrating symptoms of a. illness anxiety disorder. b. generalized anxiety disorder. c. obsessive-compulsive disorder. d. posttraumatic stress disorder ANSWER: a 133. Illness anxiety disorder, in which a person interprets normal physical sensations as symptoms of a disease, was formerly known as a. somatic symptom disorder. b. hypochondriasis. c. generalized anxiety disorder. d. posttraumatic stress disorder. ANSWER: b 134. Ivy has a pain in her side and is convinced that her kidneys are failing. Ivy may have symptoms associated with a. illness anxiety disorder. b. somatic symptom disorder. c. posttraumatic stress disorder. d. obsessive-compulsive disorder. ANSWER: a 135. Both William and Linda frequently interpret their normal body sensations as symptoms of disease. William responds to these fears by visiting several physicians each month. Linda responds by avoiding medical care completely. It is likely that William is experiencing ________ and Linda is experiencing ________. a. somatic symptom disorder; somatic symptom disorder b. illness anxiety disorder; somatic symptom disorder c. somatic symptom disorder; illness anxiety disorder d. illness anxiety disorder; illness anxiety disorder ANSWER: d 136. Rats that received unpredictable electric shocks in a laboratory experiment subsequently became uneasy when returned to that same laboratory setting. This best illustrates that anxiety may result from a. repression. b. an epigenetic effect. ScholarFriends.com c. reinforcement. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice d. classical conditioning. ANSWER: d 137. Those who suggest that specific phobias are learned would be most likely to emphasize the role of ________ in the onset of anxiety disorders. a. repression b. epigenetics c. glutamate d. conditioning ANSWER: d 138. Autumn is afraid of cats and refuses to visit at her friend's house because they have two cats. Her therapist suggests that she is fearful because she was scratched by a cat when she was young; thus, she has generalized her fear to all cats. The therapist's suggestion most clearly reflects a view that her fear is caused by a. epigenetics. b. conditioning. c. genes. d. repression. ANSWER: b 139. Addison has trypanophobia, fear of needles. His therapist suggests that his reaction to needles generalized from a childhood incident in which a doctor's misplaced vaccine caused him severe pain. The therapist's suggestion indicates that he believes Addison's fear results from a. conditioning. b. repression. c. epigenetics. d. a biological predisposition. ANSWER: a 140. A single painful and frightening event may trigger the development of a full-blown phobia. This may be related to a. natural selection. b. heredity. c. repetitive thoughts. d. stimulus generalization. ANSWER: d 141. A person stung by a bee may develop a fear of all insects. This best illustrates a. survivor resiliency. b. agoraphobia. c. stimulus generalization. ScholarFriends.com d. operant conditioning. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 142. Cooper has acrophobia, a fear of heights, that prevents him from going to the top of a tall building, traveling on an airplane, or driving over bridges. Cooper's specific phobia illustrates the impact of a. survivor resiliency. b. repression. c. stimulus generalization. d. epigenetics. ANSWER: c 143. Anything that enables us to avoid or escape a feared situation can ________ our maladaptive behaviors. a. generalize to b. encourage c. reduce d. reinforce ANSWER: d 144. Compulsive hand washing often increases in frequency because it relieves feelings of anxiety. This best illustrates the impact of ________ on compulsive behaviors. a. reinforcement b. panic c. classical conditioning d. stimulus generalization ANSWER: a 145. Margo is afraid of germs and contamination. She has learned that washing her hands every 30 minutes makes her feel better. This demonstrates how maladaptive behaviors can be a. generalized. b. reduced. c. reinforced. d. enhanced. ANSWER: c 146. Phobic behaviors such as avoiding insects or snakes may increase in frequency because they reduce anxiety. This best illustrates the impact of a. repression. b. panic. c. reinforcement. d. survivor resiliency. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com

147. Santiago has been diagnosed with OCD because his fear of contamination by germs compels him to Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice sanitize his apartment every day. He also refuses to allow anyone to touch him. His therapist suggests that Santiago continues his maladaptive behavior because it reduces his anxiety. The therapist's suggestion most directly reflects a(n) ________ perspective. a. biological b. conditioning c. psychoanalytic d. epigenetic ANSWER: b 148. Obsessive thoughts typically ________ anxiety and compulsive behaviors typically ________ anxiety. a. increase; increase b. decrease; decrease c. increase; decrease d. decrease; increase ANSWER: c 149. Whether a creaky sound in an old house triggers a panic attack depends on whether we interpret the sound as the wind or as a possible knife-wielding intruder. This best illustrates the importance of ________ in the occurrence of a panic attack. a. stimulus generalization b. cognitive processes c. natural selection d. operant conditioning ANSWER: b 150. Quinn and his brother are in the kitchen. As his brother watches, Quinn touches a hot pan and burns his hand. Quinn's brother is now intensely afraid of cooking pans. This best illustrates that fear can be learned through a. stimulus generalization. b. observational learning. c. survivor resiliency. d. reinforcement. ANSWER: b 151. Irrational beliefs and hypervigilance to any possible threats can sometimes contribute to feelings of anxiety. This best illustrates that anxiety-related disorders can be affected by a. conditioning. b. repressed memories. c. stimulus generalization. d. cognition. ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 152. Kylee tends to misinterpret stimuli as threatening, such as interpreting heart palpitations as signs of a heart attack. This demonstrates that Kylee is a. learning through classical conditioning. b. hypervigilant. c. experiencing PTSD. d. experiencing OCD. ANSWER: b 153. A traumatic experience may trigger a lasting specific phobia in a child with a sensitive, high-strung temperament. The same experience, however, may have no long-term impact on a child with a more relaxed temperament. This best illustrates the role of ________ in the development of phobias. a. reward centers b. resiliency c. genetic predispositions d. free-floating anxiety ANSWER: c 154. Who of the following is LEAST likely to develop PTSD? a. Anna, who was attacked and has a history of anxiety b. Bill, who experienced war trauma and has a brain danger-detection system that is hyperactive c. Stan, who experienced a mugging but has no history of PTSD in his family d. Jessica, who was recently assaulted and has a twin sister with PTSD ANSWER: c 155. Which of the following is true about identical twins and anxiety disorders? a. If one identical twin has an anxiety disorder, the other twin is also at risk. b. Identical twins are less likely than nontwin siblings to have an anxiety disorder. c. Only one of an identical twin pair will have an anxiety disorder. d. If they do not have an anxiety disorder by age 5, they will never show symptoms. ANSWER: a 156. Stressful experiences can influence gene expression and thereby increase the chances of having a disorder such as PTSD. This best illustrates the importance of a. free-floating anxiety. b. operant conditioning. c. stimulus generalization. d. environmental effects. ANSWER: d 157. Support for the genetic basis for the development of OCD comes from a. field studies. ScholarFriends.com b. inner psychological dynamics. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice c. twin studies. d. cultural studies. ANSWER: c 158. Anxiety disorders such as panic attacks and OCD express themselves biologically as overarousal of brain areas involved in habitual behaviors and a. processing memories. b. impulse control. c. regulating hunger. d. controlling speech. ANSWER: b 159. A brain danger-detecting system is especially likely to be hyperactive in those with a. ADHD. b. obsessive-compulsive disorder. c. binge-eating disorder. d. antisocial personality disorder. ANSWER: b 160. Anxiety-related disorders are thought to reflect a. maladaptive social behaviors that have escalated beyond control. b. a danger-detection system that has become hyperactive. c. continuous worry and sleep deprivation. d. intense anxiety that escalates into terrifying panic attacks. ANSWER: b 161. Brain scans of people with ________ reveal elevated activity in specific brain areas during behaviors such as hoarding. a. dissociative identity disorder b. antisocial personality disorder c. obsessive-compulsive disorder d. major depressive disorder ANSWER: c 162. We can more easily extinguish a fear of driving a car than a fear of holding snakes. This is best explained from a(n) ________ perspective. a. cognitive b. biological c. psychoanalytic d. epigenetic ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 163. It has been suggested that compulsive acts typically exaggerate behaviors that contributed to the survival of the human species. This idea best illustrates the ________ perspective. a. cognitive b. conditioning c. psychoanalytic d. biological ANSWER: d 164. Chemical substances that alter the brain, producing changes in perceptions and moods, are called ________ drugs. a. delusional b. disinhibiting c. psychoactive d. dehydrating ANSWER: c 165. Continued substance craving and use despite significant life disruption or physical risk is most characteristic of a. intoxication. b. withdrawal. c. substance use disorder. d. a near-death experience. ANSWER: c 166. Drug use is considered a substance use disorder when a person a. craves the substance. b. continues use despite social problems. c. continues use despite hazards. d. experiences all of these conditions. ANSWER: d 167. Nizar spends so much time trying to acquire and then use the psychoactive drug methamphetamine that he frequently misses work and is unable to support his family. Nizar most clearly shows symptoms of a. obsessive-compulsive disorder. b. a near-death experience. c. substance use disorder. d. posttraumatic stress disorder. ANSWER: c 168. Recurring symptoms of tolerance and withdrawal are an indication of a. major depressive disorder. ScholarFriends.com b. social anxiety disorder. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice c. obsessive-compulsive disorder. d. substance use disorder. ANSWER: d 169. Arcanjo has been drinking alcohol regularly for the past 5 years, despite the fact that it interferes with his ability to show up to work on time and get along with his romantic partner. He spends much of his free time sleeping off the effects of the previous night's drinking. Based on these indicators, the APA would classify Arcanjo's substance use problem as a. mild. b. moderate. c. minimal. d. severe. ANSWER: b 170. A substance/medication-induced disorder is a disorder a. characterized by continued substance craving and use despite significant life disruption or physical risk. b. related to a chemical substance that alters perceptions and mood. c. in which drug use causes cognitive, emotional, and behavioral changes that resemble a psychological disorder. d. marked by a persistent, irrational fear and avoidance of a specific object. ANSWER: c 171. Sharat is exhibiting symptoms that appear to be panic disorder. However, he does not suffer from panic disorder. Instead, Sharat's symptoms are caused by his illegal drug use. The correct diagnosis for Sharat would be a. schizophrenia. b. substance/medication-induced disorder. c. generalized anxiety disorder. d. OCD. ANSWER: b 172. Psychoactive drugs work at the brain's synapses, stimulating, mimicking, or ________ the activity of neurotransmitters. a. synthesizing b. inhibiting c. intoxicating d. dehydrating ANSWER: b 173. Psychoactive drugs work at the brain's synapses, stimulating, inhibiting, or ________ the activity of ScholarFriends.com neurotransmitters. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice a. synthesizing b. intoxicating c. mimicking d. dehydrating ANSWER: c 174. Peoples' emotional reactions to the use of psychoactive drugs depends on a. the drugs' biological effects. b. the user's expectations. c. the user's cultural traditions. d. all of these factors. ANSWER: d 175. The need to take larger and larger doses of a drug in order to experience its effects is an indication of a. withdrawal. b. disinhibition. c. tolerance. d. dehydration. ANSWER: c 176. Katalina often has at least four glasses of vodka before she experiences any noticeable symptoms of intoxication. This suggests that Katalina has developed a. disinhibition. b. tolerance. c. withdrawal. d. hallucinations. ANSWER: b 177. Dragos finds that he needs more and more alcohol in order to feel its effects. This suggests that Dragos has developed a. disinhibition. b. tolerance. c. withdrawal. d. hallucinations. ANSWER: b 178. The change in brain chemistry that offsets the effects of a psychoactive drug leads to a. dehydration. b. reuptake. c. disinhibition. ScholarFriends.com d. tolerance. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 179. Which process most clearly underlies the development of drug tolerance? a. disinhibition b. REM sleep c. neuroadaptation d. sensory deprivation ANSWER: c 180. The everyday term for compulsive substance use or dysfunctional behavior patterns despite harmful consequences is a. tolerance. b. disinhibition. c. addiction. d. neuroadaptation. ANSWER: c 181. Oriol twisted his back while exercising and has been taking a drug to relieve the pain. At first, he enjoyed the effects of the drug, but now he can't go a day without taking a pill and it is interfering with his life. Oriol is experiencing a. tolerance. b. addiction. c. OCD. d. PTSD. ANSWER: b 182. The lifetime odds of becoming addicted to marijuana are ________ percent. a. 9 b. 21 c. 23 d. 68 ANSWER: a 183. Which of the following drugs has the highest lifetime addiction rate? a. marijuana b. cocaine c. alcohol d. tobacco ANSWER: d 184. Research on the use of addictive drugs indicates that ScholarFriends.com a. fewer than one-third of Americans who have ever smoked cigarettes have ever quit. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice b. regular marijuana smokers typically need to take progressively larger doses to feel the same effect. c. many people do voluntarily stop using addictive drugs without any treatment. d. the majority of people who try cocaine become addicted within 10 years of first use. ANSWER: c 185. Helen wants to quit smoking. What is the best advice that you could give her? a. "Therapy is always needed to quit smoking." b. "It is not possible to quit smoking now." c. "Alcohol will help her quit." d. "Many people have been able to quit on their own." ANSWER: d 186. Psychological and drug therapies have been shown to be effective treatments for a. shopping addiction. b. cell phone addiction. c. sex addiction. d. problematic internet use. ANSWER: d 187. Psychologists try to avoid using "addiction" to label certain behaviors, such as excessive eating, because these behaviors a. may become compulsive. b. are often dysfunctional. c. can be treated using psychological and drug therapies. d. while excessive, are driven. ANSWER: d 188. The discomfort and distress that follow discontinuing an addictive drug or behavior is called a. disinhibition. b. withdrawal. c. dissociation. d. intoxication. ANSWER: b 189. When Lolita's supplier could not provide enough cocaine for the week, Lolita became distressed and suffered pain in her stomach. Lolita was experiencing symptoms of a. tolerance. b. hallucinations. c. delusions. d. withdrawal. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 190. An example of a diagnosable behavior addiction is a. binge-eating disorder. b. exercise addiction. c. gambling disorder. d. obsessive-compulsive disorder. ANSWER: c 191. Ryno's persistent urges to gamble are so strong that he continues even after he has lost more than he can afford. Ryno most clearly shows signs of a. withdrawal. b. a behavior addiction. c. reuptake. d. intoxication. ANSWER: b 192. Depressants are drugs such as a. marijuana and LSD. b. barbiturates and opioids. c. nicotine and caffeine. d. cocaine and amphetamines. ANSWER: b 193. Depressants are drugs that a. calm neural activity and slow body functions. b. excite neural activity and speed up body functions. c. depress neural activity and temporarily lessen pain and anxiety. d. stimulate the central nervous system. ANSWER: a 194. In large amounts, alcohol is a ________; in small amounts, it is a ________. a. depressant; stimulant b. stimulant; depressant c. stimulant; stimulant d. depressant; depressant ANSWER: d 195. A drug that leads people to behave impulsively and to lack normal restraint or self-control is said to act as a(n) a. hallucinogen. b. disinhibitor. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice c. stimulant. d. anesthetic. ANSWER: b 196. Alcohol acts as a ________, slowing activity in a part of the brain that controls judgment and inhibitions. a. disinhibitor b. stimulant c. hallucinogen d. hazard ANSWER: a 197. Under the influence of alcohol, sexually aroused men are ________ likely to be sexually aggressive than they would otherwise be and restaurant patrons are ________ likely to tip generously than they otherwise would. a. more; more b. less; less c. more; less d. less; more ANSWER: a 198. After having six glasses of alcohol, Marcus often behaves recklessly and becomes aggressive. This best illustrates that alcohol may act as a a. methamphetamine. b. disinhibitor. c. hallucinogen. d. stimulant. ANSWER: b 199. University men were shown an erotic movie clip. Compared with those who thought they had recently consumed a nonalcoholic beverage, men who believed they had recently consumed an alcoholic beverage were a. more likely to report having strong sexual fantasies and more likely to report having feelings of guilt. b. less likely to report having strong sexual fantasies and less likely to report having feelings of guilt. c. less likely to report having strong sexual fantasies and more likely to report having feelings of guilt. d. more likely to report having strong sexual fantasies and less likely to report having feelings of guilt. ANSWER: d 200. Alcohol consumption is likely to ________ attention to a personally insulting comment and ________ attention to the future consequences of responding in anger. a. decrease; increase b. increase; decrease c. decrease; decrease ScholarFriends.com d. increase; increase Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 201. An evening of moderate alcohol consumption is most likely to a. impair short-term recall of immediate experiences. b. disrupt the processing of recent experiences into long-term memory. c. impair recall of existing long-term memories. d. increase REM sleep. ANSWER: b 202. Nethaji is stressed out because his boss criticized his presentation to their client. After work, he stops at his favorite bar and has too many drinks. Research suggests that Nethaji's heavy drinking will have the most adverse effect on his ability to remember a. at the time he is drinking the names of the people he has just met. b. the next day the names of the people he talked to and what he said while drinking. c. at the time he is drinking the name of his employer and his own home address. d. the next day the names of the business associates he talked to before going to the bar. ANSWER: b 203. Heavy drinking can have long-term effects on the brain, including a. contributing to the death of nerve cells. b. reducing the birth rates of new nerve cells. c. impairing the growth of synaptic connections. d. affecting the brain in all these ways. ANSWER: d 204. Especially when coupled with sleep deprivation, alcohol is a potent a. sedative. b. hallucinogen. c. stimulant. d. tranquilizer. ANSWER: a 205. When sober, most drinkers believe that driving under the influence is wrong, and that they would not do so. However, most will drive home from a bar even if given a Breathalyzer test and told they are intoxicated. This best illustrates that alcohol acts as a(n) a. stimulant. b. opioid. c. disinhibitor. d. mild hallucinogen. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com

206. Larger doses of ________ cause reactions to slow, speech to slur, and skilled performance to decline Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice because the drug slows sympathetic nervous system activity. a. alcohol b. marijuana c. LSD d. cocaine ANSWER: a 207. If heavy drinking follows a period of moderate drinking, people may poison themselves with an overdose because the moderate drinking a. stimulates their secretion of serotonin. b. reduces their body's level of free radicals. c. depresses their vomiting response. d. increases their inhibitions. ANSWER: c 208. The prolonged, excessive drinking that characterizes alcohol use disorder may contribute to a. over 200 diseases. b. long-term stomach enzyme suppression. c. abuse of stimulants. d. the retention of unwanted memories. ANSWER: a 209. Brain shrinkage and premature death are possible effects of a. OCD. b. PTSD. c. stimulant use. d. alcohol use disorder. ANSWER: d 210. Those with alcohol use disorder are likely to experience symptoms of ________ when alcohol use is suspended. a. dehydration b. withdrawal c. disinhibition d. hallucinations ANSWER: b 211. Sarita has just ended a 5-year romantic relationship. At the same time, her company is moving to another state and she is unable to move with them. However, her alcohol withdrawal symptoms have been so severe that she will not try again to reduce the amount she drinks each day. Sarita is most likely suffering from a. low alcohol tolerance. ScholarFriends.com b. mild hallucinations. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice c. alcohol use disorder. d. excessive self-awareness. ANSWER: c 212. Symptoms of alcohol use disorder are increased ________ alcohol, ________ symptoms when alcohol use is suspended, and a drive to continue using alcohol despite significant problems associated with its use. a. dehydration from; addiction b. withdrawal from; neuroadaptation c. disinhibition of; tolerance d. tolerance to; withdrawal ANSWER: d 213. Alcohol use disorder is marked by a combination of symptoms that may include tolerance, withdrawal, and a. disinhibition. b. a drive to continue problematic use. c. a decrease in the production of endorphins. d. hallucinations. ANSWER: b 214. Those with alcohol use disorder are likely to experience symptoms of ________ when alcohol use is suspended. a. dehydration b. withdrawal c. disinhibition d. hallucinations ANSWER: b 215. Women are ________ vulnerable to alcohol's effects than are men of the same age, and the damage that alcohol inflicts on women's lungs, brain, and liver occurs at ________ consumption levels. a. more; higher b. less; lower c. more; lower d. less; higher ANSWER: c 216. Jennifer, a 21-year-old woman, and Sam, a 21-year-old man, both consume alcohol casually with friends. Which of the two is more likely to become addicted faster and is at risk for physical damage with lower consumption levels of alcohol? a. Jennifer b. Sam c. both Jennifer and Sam ScholarFriends.com d. It cannot be determined from the information provided. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 217. Between 2001 and 2017, Canadian women's risk for alcohol-related deaths a. decreased substantially more than men's. b. decreased by half. c. increased at five times the rate of men's. d. increased at three times the rate of men's. ANSWER: c 218. Drugs that depress central nervous system activity, reducing anxiety but impairing memory and judgment, are the a. opioids. b. barbiturates. c. hallucinogens. d. amphetamines. ANSWER: b 219. An example of a barbiturate is a. methamphetamine. b. LSD. c. cocaine. d. Nembutal. ANSWER: d 220. Which drugs are most likely to be prescribed as tranquilizers? a. amphetamines b. barbiturates c. hallucinogens d. opioids ANSWER: b 221. The use of barbiturates ________ anxiety and ________ nervous system activity. a. increases; decreases b. decreases; increases c. decreases; decreases d. increases; increases ANSWER: c 222. Clara has had difficulty sleeping for a few days now. Her doctor has prescribed a drug that depresses activity in her nervous system to help her sleep. She was likely prescribed a(n) a. barbiturate. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice b. opioid. c. stimulant. d. amphetamine. ANSWER: a 223. In large doses, ________ can impair memory and judgment; if combined with alcohol, the total depressive effect on the body can lead to death. a. opioids b. stimulants c. barbiturates d. hallucinogens ANSWER: c 224. Which of the following drugs depress neural activity and temporarily reduce pain and anxiety? a. opioids b. stimulants c. barbiturates d. hallucinogens ANSWER: a 225. Morphine and heroin are a. amphetamines. b. opioids. c. hallucinogens. d. barbiturates. ANSWER: b 226. Which synthetic opioid is sometimes prescribed as a substitute for heroin? a. methamphetamine b. Ecstasy c. methadone d. THC ANSWER: c 227. Angga has been addicted to a drug that in the past helped relieve his back pain. He is currently on methadone to help him quit using the drug. His brain no longer produces endorphins because of his drug use. He was using a(n) a. barbiturate. b. opioid. c. stimulant. ScholarFriends.com d. amphetamine. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 228. Craig's feelings of pain and anxiety were replaced not only by pleasure but also by slowed breathing, pupil constriction, and a lack of energy shortly after using a. heroin. b. cocaine. c. Ecstasy. d. methamphetamine. ANSWER: a 229. Repeated use of an artificial opioid a. decreases the brain's production of endorphins. b. increases heart and breathing rates. c. is not associated with any serious withdrawal symptoms. d. triggers auditory as well as visual hallucinations. ANSWER: a 230. Between 2013 and 2016, the U.S. rate of opioid overdose deaths a. decreased substantially. b. decreased by half. c. increased almost ten times. d. increased more than three times. ANSWER: c 231. Amphetamines are classified as ________, and barbiturates are classified as ________. a. hallucinogens; depressants b. stimulants; depressants c. hallucinogens; stimulants d. stimulants; hallucinogens ANSWER: b 232. Drugs that excite neural activity and speed up body functions are referred to as a. barbiturates. b. stimulants. c. narcotics. d. endorphins. ANSWER: b 233. The category of drugs that includes nicotine, Ecstasy, and amphetamines is the a. barbiturates. ScholarFriends.com b. opioids. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice c. stimulants. d. amphetamines. ANSWER: c 234. Which of the following is NOT considered a stimulant? a. nicotine b. cocaine c. opioids d. Ecstasy ANSWER: c 235. Stimulants ________ appetite and ________ self-confidence. a. decrease; increase b. increase; decrease c. increase; increase d. decrease; decrease ANSWER: a 236. Which of the following is NOT associated with stimulant use? a. increase in heart rate b. dilated pupils c. increased blood-sugar levels d. depressed nervous system activity ANSWER: d 237. Stimulant use increases heart and breathing rates, increases energy and self-confidence, and a. slows neural activity, reducing pain. b. slows down body functions. c. increases blood-sugar levels, reducing appetite. d. distorts perceptions. ANSWER: c 238. Caffeine is an example of a(n) a. barbiturate. b. opioid. c. stimulant. d. amphetamine. ANSWER: c 239. Blanche was disturbed to learn that some of her soccer teammates were using drugs to enhance their ScholarFriends.com footwork and endurance. Which of the following drugs were the players most likely using? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice a. morphine b. marijuana c. amphetamines d. barbiturates ANSWER: c 240. Margo usually drinks one cup of coffee each morning. Which of the following will NOT occur if she misses her cup of coffee? a. She will be more alert. b. She will be depressed. c. She will suffer a headache. d. She will be irritable. ANSWER: a 241. The stimulating and highly addictive psychoactive drug in tobacco products is a. nicotine. b. amphetamine. c. opioid. d. fentanyl. ANSWER: a 242. The fastest drug use increase on record is for a. alcohol. b. marijuana. c. opioids. d. vaping. ANSWER: d 243. In 2019, U.S. high school students used ________ at five times the rate of traditional cigarettes. a. cigars b. e-cigarettes c. pipe tobacco d. snuff ANSWER: b 244. Vikas uses e-cigarettes. He is not alone as youth e-cigarette use ________ the rate of traditional cigarettes. a. is double b. is triple c. stayed about the same as d. is five times ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 245. Mihaela is a high school junior. All her friends have started vaping because a. it gives them a jolt of nicotine without cancer-causing tar. b. they believe it helps them cut down on smoking traditional cigarettes. c. it is more enjoyable than regular cigarette smoking. d. they like the excess smoke it generates. ANSWER: b 246. Experts agree that the use of ________ are addictive nicotine dispensers that introduce nonsmokers to smoking. a. cigars b. e-cigarettes c. pipe tobacco d. snuff ANSWER: b 247. After 10 years of smoking a pack and a half of cigarettes a day, Bruce is preparing to quit. Which of the following symptoms of nicotine withdrawal is he most likely to experience when he first discontinues smoking? a. anxiety b. drowsiness c. diminished appetite d. insensitivity to pain ANSWER: a 248. When deprived of nicotine, smokers experience a. hallucinations. b. distractibility. c. heightened levels of dopamine. d. heightened levels of endorphins. ANSWER: b 249. When Rodesia first quit smoking, she experienced insomnia, anxiety, irritability, and distractibility that made it difficult for her to fulfill her obligations at work. Rodesia was most clearly experiencing symptoms of a. hallucinations. b. withdrawal. c. intoxication. d. disinhibition. ANSWER: b 250. By triggering the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine, ________ boosts alertness and diminishes appetite. ScholarFriends.com a. alcohol Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice b. heroin c. nicotine d. marijuana ANSWER: c 251. Which of the following calms anxiety and diminishes sensitivity to pain by triggering the release of dopamine and other neurotransmitters? a. nicotine b. alcohol c. barbiturates d. hallucinogens ANSWER: a 252. A rewarding consequence of cigarette smoking is that it reduces a. blood pressure and heart rate. b. sensitivity to pain. c. mental alertness. d. the release of epinephrine into the bloodstream. ANSWER: b 253. Renne was able to stop smoking for the past year, but stress at home has caused her to resume smoking. This helps her because the nicotine in cigarettes signals the central nervous system to release ________, which calm(s) anxiety. a. epinephrine b. dopamine c. norepinephrine d. endorphins ANSWER: b 254. What is the leading cause of preventable death in the United States? a. cigarette smoking b. opioid use c. alcohol consumption d. marijuana use ANSWER: a 255. Compared to nonsmokers, smokers' life expectancy is a. at least 10 years shorter. b. 20 years shorter. c. the same. ScholarFriends.com d. 2 years longer. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 256. Worldwide, smoking has decreased by about ________ percent since 1990. a. 5 b. 15 c. 30 d. 50 ANSWER: c 257. Cocaine is classified as a(n) a. hallucinogen. b. stimulant. c. depressant. d. opioid. ANSWER: b 258. Zane experienced a surge of energy and feelings of self-confidence and euphoria that lasted less than an hour until the brain's elevated supply of dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin plummeted. Zane was most likely using a. heroin. b. cocaine. c. LSD. d. marijuana. ANSWER: b 259. When cocaine is snorted, injected, or smoked, it enters the bloodstream quickly, producing a rush of euphoria by a. creating hallucinations. b. elevating the brain's supply of neurotransmitters. c. increasing the occurrence of REM. d. triggering feelings of extreme relaxation. ANSWER: b 260. Emotional disturbances, suspiciousness, convulsions, cardiac arrest, and respiratory failure are disturbances most closely associated with the use of a. marijuana. b. cocaine. c. barbiturates. d. heroin. ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com

261. When cocaine is injected or smoked, it produces a brief rush of euphoria. But the stimulant drug ________ Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice can trigger 8 hours or so of heightened energy and euphoria. a. LSD b. heroin c. Amytal d. methamphetamine ANSWER: d 262. Drugs that stimulate neural activity, causing speeded-up body functions and associated energy and mood changes, are the a. opioids. b. hallucinogens. c. barbiturates. d. amphetamines. ANSWER: d 263. The stimulant drug with aftereffects that may include irritability, high blood pressure, seizures, social isolation, depression, and occasional violent outbursts is a. methamphetamine. b. heroin. c. marijuana. d. LSD. ANSWER: a 264. About eight hours of heightened energy and mood follow use of the stimulant drug a. caffeine. b. Ecstasy. c. cocaine. d. methamphetamine. ANSWER: d 265. Elmira is using a particular drug. The drug she is using gives her heightened energy and mood and, over time, reduced baseline dopamine levels. Which drug is she most likely using? a. nicotine b. alcohol c. methamphetamine d. Ecstasy ANSWER: c 266. Reynold is using a drug that makes him energetic, but also irritable, depressed, and occasionally violent. Which drug is he most likely using? a. nicotine ScholarFriends.com b. alcohol Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice c. methamphetamine d. Ecstasy ANSWER: c 267. Which of the following is an amphetamine derivative that acts as a mild hallucinogen? a. marijuana b. Nembutal c. Ecstasy d. heroin ANSWER: c 268. The street name for MDMA (methylenedioxymethamphetamine) is a. marijuana. b. Nembutal. c. Ecstasy. d. cocaine. ANSWER: c 269. Which of the following drugs is an amphetamine derivative? a. Ecstasy b. LSD c. marijuana d. cocaine ANSWER: a 270. Which drug triggers the release of dopamine and also releases stored serotonin and blocks its reuptake? a. marijuana b. LSD c. Ecstasy d. cocaine ANSWER: c 271. Osner is planning to attend an all-night dance party. In preparation, he takes an Ecstasy pill. One of the immediate dangers of using the drug at this event is a. increased appetite. b. dehydration. c. lethargy. d. pupil constriction. ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com 272. Reduced immune system functioning is most likely to accompany long-term repeated use of Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice a. Nembutal. b. caffeine. c. Ecstasy. d. morphine. ANSWER: c 273. Which of the following is an effect of Ecstasy on serotonin? a. Ecstasy interferes with serotonin's regulation of body rhythms. b. Ecstasy encourages the reuptake of serotonin. c. Ecstasy doubles the reuptake of serotonin. d. Ecstasy use promotes serotonin's control of the circadian clock. ANSWER: a 274. Psychedelic drugs, which distort perceptions and evoke sensory images in the absence of sensory input, are called a. amphetamines. b. hallucinogens. c. barbiturates. d. opioids. ANSWER: b 275. Which of the following is a psychedelic drug? a. LSD b. cocaine c. heroin d. nicotine ANSWER: a 276. After taking a small dose of a psychoactive drug, Mini experienced simple geometric forms followed by tunnel-like visions or replays of past emotional experiences. She felt as if she were separated from her own body. Mini most likely experienced the effects of a. cocaine. b. LSD. c. heroin. d. marijuana. ANSWER: b 277. Oxygen deprivation, epileptic seizures, and other insults to the brain are most clearly known to produce a. REM sleep. b. dehydration. ScholarFriends.com c. hallucinations. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice d. behavior addictions. ANSWER: c 278. Randy suffered a heart attack and lost consciousness. When he regained consciousness, he described traveling through a tunnel with bright lights and feeling as though he had left his body. What he described is a. a near-death experience. b. withdrawal. c. the effects of alcohol use disorder. d. a general effect of depressants. ANSWER: a 279. An altered state of consciousness similar to that of a near-death experience is most likely to result from the use of a. heroin. b. cocaine. c. marijuana. d. LSD. ANSWER: d 280. Near-death experiences are a. typically triggered by the release of endorphins. b. often accompanied by visions of bright lights. c. recalled by nearly all who have been revived from a cardiac arrest. d. a clear indication of a substance use disorder. ANSWER: b 281. Mortimer just took a drug that is associated with an increased risk of panic. Which substance did he take? a. MDMA b. Marijuana c. LSD d. alcohol ANSWER: c 282. THC, the active ingredient in ________, is classified as a ________. a. marijuana; hallucinogen b. marijuana; stimulant c. cocaine; stimulant d. cocaine; hallucinogen ANSWER: a 283. Synthetic marijuana that can have harmfulScholarFriends.com side effects such as agitation and hallucinations is known as Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice a. THC. b. LSD. c. MMDA or Ecstasy. d. K-2 or Spice. ANSWER: d 284. Marijuana is classified as a mild hallucinogen because a. it increases sensitivity to colors, sounds, tastes, and smells. b. it produces tunnel-like visions. c. its use results in a near-death experience. d. it is associated with tobacco-related diseases. ANSWER: a 285. Studies showed that the THC in ________ joint(s) was enough to produce psychiatric symptoms such as hallucinations, delusions, and anxiety. a. one b. three c. five d. zero; THC does not have these side effects. ANSWER: a 286. Like alcohol, the THC in marijuana a. acts as a disinhibitor. b. improves motor coordination skills. c. increases in presence after repeated short-term use. d. lingers in the body for more than a week. ANSWER: a 287. Bradley has trouble sleeping. If he is like some other people, he may use ________ to try and help him sleep. a. alcohol b. marijuana c. either alcohol or marijuana d. neither alcohol nor marijuana ANSWER: c 288. Unlike alcohol, the THC in marijuana a. acts as a disinhibitor. b. impairs motor coordination skills. c. promotes a state of relaxation. ScholarFriends.com d. lingers in the body for more than a week. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 289. Unlike the typical experience of drug tolerance, regular users of ________ may achieve a high with smaller-than-usual amounts of the drug. a. alcohol b. morphine c. marijuana d. heroin ANSWER: c 290. Which of the following is NOT associated with marijuana use? a. It reduces chronic pain. b. It causes lung cancer. c. It is related to increased traffic accidents. d. It is related to chronic bronchitis. ANSWER: b 291. Gary is a college student who smokes marijuana at least four times a week. Which of the following is NOT a way in which marijuana use can lead to academic underachievement? a. Marijuana use is associated with impaired attention. b. Marijuana use is associated with impaired learning ability. c. Marijuana use is related to memory impairment. d. Marijuana use is related to the development of phobias. ANSWER: d 292. According to the U.S. National Academies of Sciences, Engineering, and Medicine, the use of ________ is predictive of increased risk of social anxiety disorder and suicidal thoughts. a. alcohol b. morphine c. marijuana d. heroin ANSWER: c 293. Toni, who experiences nausea from the chemotherapy she has to undergo to treat her cancer, has been prescribed a mild hallucinogen. Considering her situation, it is likely that she has received a. LSD. b. cocaine. c. marijuana. d. heroin. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com

294. What is the rate of addiction among those that begin using marijuana during adolescence? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice a. 1 in 2 b. 1 in 3 c. 1 in 5 d. 2 in 7 ANSWER: c 295. As a result of greater legal acceptance of marijuana use, the number of Americans who have tried marijuana rose dramatically between 1969 and 2019, from a. 1 to 20 percent. b. 2 to 29 percent. c. 3 to 37 percent. d. 4 to 45 percent. ANSWER: d 296. With repeated use of most psychoactive drugs, the immediate pleasant effects become ________ and the unpleasant aftereffects become ________. a. less pleasant; less strongly unpleasant b. more pleasant; more strongly unpleasant c. less pleasant; more strongly unpleasant d. more pleasant; less strongly unpleasant ANSWER: c 297. Carlos has just taken a depressant that caused a rush of euphoria and relief from pain. Which of the following drugs has he taken? a. alcohol b. heroin c. caffeine d. nicotine ANSWER: b 298. Sharon was adopted when she was 3 years old. Her biological parents abused drugs, but her adoptive parents do not. Based on this information, how likely is it that Sharon will abuse drugs as an adult? a. Sharon is not any more likely to abuse drugs as an adult. b. Sharon is at doubled risk of drug abuse. c. Sharon is less likely to abuse drugs because of her adoptive parents' influence. d. Sharon is 25 percent more likely to abuse drugs as an adult. ANSWER: b 299. One biological basis for addiction involves brain activity in the ________ reward system. a. sensory b. dopamine ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice c. motor d. melatonin ANSWER: b 300. Large studies of adopted people, twins, and siblings found that those with drug-abusing biological parents were at ________ risk of drug abuse and those with a drug-abusing adoptive sibling were at ________ risk for drug abuse. a. increased; no increased b. no increased; increased c. increased; increased d. increased; decreased ANSWER: c 301. Like most other behaviors, disordered drug use includes all of the following EXCEPT ________ influences. a. inoculation b. biological c. psychological d. social-cultural ANSWER: a 302. Drug abuse may be related to biological, psychological, and social-cultural influences. Feeling that life is meaningless and directionless would be an example of a ________ influence. a. biological b. psychological c. social d. cultural ANSWER: b 303. Brianna is severely depressed and believes that her life is meaningless. This may be a precursor to a. drug abuse. b. entering therapy. c. the development of PTSD. d. anxiety. ANSWER: a 304. Justine and her mother do not get along well and have had a problematic relationship since Justine was in her early teens. Now that Justine is in her twenties, she has begun using drugs. Her substance use may be related to her a. secure attachment to her mother. b. relationship with her father. ScholarFriends.com c. relationships with friends and extended family. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice d. insecure attachment to her mother. ANSWER: d 305. Girls with a history of eating disorders are at ________ risk for substance use disorder. Those with a history of depression are at ________ risk for substance user disorder. a. increased; decreased b. decreased; increased c. increased; increased d. decreased; decreased ANSWER: c 306. Who is most likely to develop a substance use disorder? a. Marla, who is Baptist and active in her religion b. Suan, who is Mormon and very active in his religion c. Joshua, who is a practicing Orthodox Jew d. Nina, who is Catholic but not very religiously involved ANSWER: d 307. Young teens are most likely to start smoking in order to a. gain social acceptance. b. develop drug tolerance. c. reduce their mental alertness. d. reduce their blood pressure. ANSWER: a 308. Fifteen-year-old Ginger is becoming concerned that her use of marijuana on weekends has increased. To reduce her use of this drug Ginger should a. recognize that life is stressful and often beyond control. b. be warned that marijuana interferes with female sexual functioning. c. stop associating with friends who use marijuana. d. recognize that drug use results from her own lack of social skills. ANSWER: c 309. U.S. sixth graders ________ their friends' use of marijuana, and college students ________ their fellow students' enthusiasm for alcohol. a. underestimate; overestimate b. overestimate; underestimate c. underestimate; underestimate d. overestimate; overestimate ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com

310. Research has documented a cultural influence on drug use, as indicated by Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice a. drug users' feeling that life is meaningless and directionless. b. heavy drug use among those suffering from depression. c. drug use by identical twins. d. the glamorization of drug use by celebrities. ANSWER: d 311. Training young people in drug refusal skills is a tactic that is most clearly designed to "inoculate" them against a. hallucinations. b. peer pressure. c. excess dopamine receptors. d. painkilling neurotransmitters. ANSWER: b 312. Linir wants to make sure that his younger brother, Marcus, does not use drugs when he gets older. To help prevent his brother from using drugs, Linir might a. try to boost his brother's self-esteem. b. test Marcus with a difficult environment. c. tease his brother. d. use drugs around his brother. ANSWER: a 313. Which of the following is NOT a proven method of preventing and treating substance use and addiction? a. education regarding the effects of substance use b. increasing people's self-esteem c. modify peer association with substance use d. making psychoactive drugs legal ANSWER: d 314. When experiencing mild sadness, people process and recall faces ________ accurately, and they pay ________ attention to details. a. more; more b. less; less c. more; less d. less; more ANSWER: a 315. Sadness can ________ critical thinking and ________ cooperativeness. a. decrease; increase b. increase; decrease ScholarFriends.com c. decrease; decrease Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice d. increase; increase ANSWER: c 316. The DSM-5-TR classifies major depressive disorder as a disruption to normal functioning and the presence of at least five symptoms over a 2-week period. Which of the following is NOT one of those five symptoms? a. depressed mood most of the time b. increased energy c. significant challenges regulating appetite and weight d. physical agitation or lethargy ANSWER: b 317. A disorder in which a person experiences 2 or more weeks with either depressed mood or loss of interest or pleasure, in addition to five additional symptoms, is called a. major depressive disorder. b. bipolar disorder. c. mania. d. anxiety. ANSWER: a 318. A major depressive disorder is most likely to be characterized by a. a seasonal pattern of symptoms. b. alternations between extreme hopelessness and unrealistic optimism. c. a persistent irrational fear of other people. d. feelings of personal worthlessness. ANSWER: d 319. In people with major depressive disorder, interest in activities is ________ and agitation may be ________. a. reduced; reduced b. increased; increased c. reduced; increased d. increased; reduced ANSWER: c 320. Iwayan has lost his job and sees no opportunity to get another job. Because he can no longer afford to keep his house, he moves into a community shelter. Iwayan becomes listless, feels worthless, and has no energy to find a job. He sleeps most of the day and eats very little. Iwayan is suffering from a. mania. b. bipolar disorder. c. major depressive disorder. d. disruptive mood dysregulation disorder. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 321. Distress most of the time over a 2-week period because of fatigue or loss of energy is most likely associated with a. mania. b. major depressive disorder. c. bipolar disorder. d. disruptive mood dysregulation disorder. ANSWER: b 322. The DSM-5-TR identifies a loss of interest in formerly enjoyable activities and a decrease in one's natural ability to make decisions as symptoms of a. obsessive-compulsive disorder. b. major depressive disorder. c. antisocial personality disorder. d. panic disorder. ANSWER: b 323. Jules has been diagnosed with major depressive disorder. Compared with people who are not depressed, Jules may experience which one of the following symptoms? a. a heightened ability to think, concentrate, and make decisions b. manic episodes, characterized by euphoria, high energy, and grandiose ideas c. a tendency to have frequent or unexpected panic attacks d. repetitive thinking of death or suicide ANSWER: d 324. For the last month, Lindsey has felt listless and has been unable to get out of bed in the morning. She no longer spends time with friends or family because she feels worthless and unlovable. Lindsey most likely has a. agoraphobia. b. major depressive disorder. c. PTSD. d. disruptive mood dysregulation disorder. ANSWER: b 325. Persistent depressive disorder is characterized by a. repetitive delusions occurring over a year. b. milder symptoms that last for a much longer time than major depressive disorder. c. angry outbursts spanning a period of months. d. a seasonal pattern of depressive symptoms. ANSWER: b 326. Severe, debilitating depression is to ________ as chronic, low-grade depression is to ________. a. major depressive disorder: mania ScholarFriends.com b. persistent depressive disorder; disruptive mood dysregulation disorder Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice c. major depressive disorder; persistent depressive disorder d. persistent depressive disorder; bipolar disorder ANSWER: c 327. Delilah has been working as an information security analyst for the last five years, a job that she had always wanted. Despite having the job she trained for, she almost always feels slightly down and sad. Her symptoms are most characteristic of a. persistent depressive disorder. b. bipolar disorder. c. disruptive mood dysregulation disorder. d. major depressive disorder. ANSWER: a 328. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder is characterized by a. depression that occurs only during the winter months. b. feeling depressed with mild symptoms that last a long time. c. feeling unusually depressed a week before your menses. d. having trouble falling or staying asleep. ANSWER: c 329. Arsan is feeling both depressed and anxious. According to the DSM-5-TR, Arsan is likely to be diagnosed with a. disruptive mood dysregulation disorder. b. major depressive disorder. c. dissociative identity disorder. d. mixed anxiety-depressive disorder. ANSWER: d 330. Feeling depressed alongside severe irritability that starts at a young age is a pattern of behavior called a. anorexia nervosa. b. posttraumatic stress disorder. c. disruptive mood dysregulation disorder. d. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. ANSWER: c 331. The number-one reason people seek mental health services is a. bipolar disorder. b. disruptive mood dysregulation disorder. c. depression. d. schizophrenia. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 332. About ________ U.S. adults will have experienced depression in the past year. a. 1 in 10 b. 2 in 10 c. 5 in 100 d. 15 in 100 ANSWER: a 333. A seasonal pattern of symptoms is most likely to be a characteristic of a. generalized anxiety disorder. b. schizophrenia. c. depression. d. dissociative disorders. ANSWER: c 334. A seasonal pattern of depression is suggested by the fact that in some people symptoms increase in the a. spring. b. summer. c. fall. d. winter. ANSWER: d 335. Janette experiences depression each winter and then recovers each spring. This is an example of a. a seasonal pattern of depression. b. major depressive disorder. c. bipolar II disorder. d. disruptive mood dysregulation disorder. ANSWER: a 336. Some researchers question the idea of widespread "seasonal affective disorder" because people a. in southern areas also experience depression during the winter months. b. in northerly or cloudier areas do not experience more wintertime depression. c. are equally depressed during the fall. d. have trouble sleeping all year round. ANSWER: b 337. In which disorder(s) do people alternate between states of depression and wild overexcitement? a. panic disorder b. bipolar disorders c. disruptive mood dysregulation disorder d. major depressive disorder ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 338. Bipolar I disorder is to ________ as bipolar II disorder is to ________. a. hypomania; mania b. mania; hypomania c. heritability; cognition d. cognition; heritability ANSWER: b 339. Extreme mood swings are to ________ as moving between depression and hypomania are to ________. a. bipolar II disorder; bipolar I disorder b. major depressive disorder; bipolar I disorder c. bipolar I disorder; bipolar II disorder d. bipolar II disorder; major depressive disorder ANSWER: c 340. A mood state in which an individual is euphoric, highly energetic, and overly ambitious is known as a. paranoia. b. mania. c. disruptive mood dysregulation disorder. d. agoraphobia. ANSWER: b 341. During the manic phase of bipolar disorder, individuals are most likely to a. be overly talkative. b. demonstrate a negative explanatory style. c. feel uncontrollable grief and despair. d. demonstrate learned helplessness. ANSWER: a 342. Hugo, the owner of a car dealership, suddenly began smashing the front fenders and hoods of showroom cars. When asked why, he excitedly explained that he was transforming the cars into "NASCAR racers." When an employee tried to stop him, he shouted that everybody was fired and quickly began breaking the car windows. Hugo is exhibiting symptoms of a. a dissociative disorder. b. disruptive mood dysregulation disorder. c. a panic attack. d. mania. ANSWER: d 343. Meghan has been depressed for several weeks. However, for the last few days she has become wildly energetic and overly ambitious, claiming that she alone can bring peace to the world. Meghan is most likely ScholarFriends.com suffering from Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice a. major depressive disorder. b. a bipolar disorder. c. disruptive mood dysregulation disorder. d. dissociative identity disorder. ANSWER: b 344. People with bipolar I disorder can sometimes go back and forth between the highs and lows. This is called a. hypomania. b. disruptive mood dysregulation. c. rapid cycling. d. learned helplessness. ANSWER: c 345. People with a bipolar disorder may exhibit reckless behaviors such as out-of-control spending. This illustrates which of the following characteristics of bipolar disorders? a. overexcitement b. poor judgment c. a seasonal pattern d. learned helplessness ANSWER: b 346. Classical composer George Frideric Handel composed his 3-hour-long Messiah during 3 weeks of intense, creative energy. Many believe Handel suffered from a mild a. agoraphobia. b. disruptive mood dysregulation disorder. c. bipolar disorder. d. major depressive disorder. ANSWER: c 347. Which of the following people has the more dysfunctional disorder? a. Mary, who developed major depressive disorder when she was young b. Brandon, who was recently diagnosed with major depressive disorder c. Sam, who has been diagnosed with disruptive mood dysregulation disorder d. Tracey, who suffers from a bipolar disorder ANSWER: d 348. Those whose occupations rely on precision and logic are LESS likely than those who rely on emotional expression to be diagnosed with a. major depressive disorder. b. a bipolar disorder. ScholarFriends.com c. seasonal depression. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice d. disruptive mood dysregulation disorder. ANSWER: b 349. Bipolar disorder is most likely to strike people in which occupation? a. architect b. designer c. journalist d. artist ANSWER: d 350. Bipolar disorders tend to be ________ common and ________ dysfunctional than major depressive disorder. a. less; more b. less; less c. more; less d. more; more ANSWER: a 351. Which of the following disorders is the most dysfunctional and most likely to lead to suicide? a. bipolar disorders b. major depressive disorder c. generalized anxiety disorder d. specific phobia ANSWER: a 352. Between 1994 and 2003, there was a 40-fold increase in the number of people under age 20 who were given a diagnosis of a. panic disorder. b. a bipolar disorder. c. bulimia nervosa. d. major depressive disorder. ANSWER: b 353. Thought changes that accompany depression include a(n) a. decrease in self-focused thinking. b. increased expectation of negative outcomes. c. increased externalization of blame. d. increased obsession with experiencing physical pleasure. ANSWER: b 354. Which of the following is NOT a behaviorScholarFriends.com or thought change that accompanies major depressive disorder? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice a. inactivity b. feelings of emptiness c. recalling negative outcomes d. mania ANSWER: d 355. Justine had a difficult time during her teen years with many schoolmates laughing at her excessive weight. As an adult she is at an increased risk for experiencing a. depression. b. an anxiety disorder. c. a phobia. d. schizophrenia. ANSWER: a 356. Globally, women's risk of major depressive disorder is ________ men's. a. the same as b. roughly double c. five times d. less than ANSWER: b 357. Men are generally ________ vulnerable than women to disorders involving internal states such as anxiety or depression. Men are generally ________ vulnerable than women to disorders involving external behaviors such as alcohol use disorder or antisocial conduct. a. less; less b. more; more c. less; more d. more; less ANSWER: c 358. As compared with his wife, Vicky, Jon is at an increased risk for developing a disorder that involves external symptoms. Which of the following is NOT one of those disorders? a. inhibited sexual desire b. alcohol use disorder c. antisocial conduct d. lack of impulse control ANSWER: a 359. Melissa, a wife and mother of three, who also has a full-time job, has recently been diagnosed with depression. Which of the following is NOT likely to be associated with her depression? a. receiving less pay for equal work ScholarFriends.com b. being a wife Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice c. juggling multiple roles d. caring for children ANSWER: b 360. Which of the following is true of people who have experienced depression? a. They will never experience another bout of depression. b. They will never recover. c. For about 20 percent, the condition will be chronic. d. Their depression will terminate when they grow older. ANSWER: c 361. Research has found that experiencing childhood abuse a. is not related to a person's risk of adult depression. b. doubles a person's risk of adult depression. c. triples a person's risk of adult depression. d. slightly increases a person's risk of adult depression. ANSWER: b 362. Research regarding depression indicates that a. depression is typically unrelated to stressful life events. b. depression is unlikely to be overcome without professional help. c. depression is associated with abnormally high levels of the neurotransmitter serotonin. d. with each new generation, depression is increasing in its prevalence. ANSWER: d 363. When minimal physical or psychological stress is involved and ample social support is provided, a person with ________ will most likely recover. a. generalized anxiety disorder b. anorexia nervosa c. major depressive disorder d. antisocial personality disorder ANSWER: c 364. Depression is likely to be a shared tendency between identical twins. This most clearly supports explanations of this disorder from a ________ perspective. a. conditioning b. biological c. social-cognitive d. psychoanalytic ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 365. The extent to which individual differences are attributable to genes is called a. linkage analysis. b. rumination. c. epigenetics. d. heritability. ANSWER: d 366. The heritability of bipolar disorders has been estimated to be ________ than the heritability of major depressive disorder and ________ than the heritability of generalized anxiety disorder. a. less; greater b. greater; less c. less; less d. greater; greater ANSWER: d 367. To find the genes that put people at risk for depression, researchers locate families in which the disorder appears across several generations, then look for differences in DNA from affected and unaffected family members. This is called a. epigenetics. b. linkage analysis. c. the vicious cycle. d. dysregulation. ANSWER: b 368. Which individual, according to linkage analysis, is most likely to develop major depressive disorder? a. Marcus, who has a cousin with major depressive disorder b. Jennifer, who has a fraternal twin with major depressive disorder c. Pablo, whose identical twin with major depressive disorder was raised in a different family d. Cindra, who has an older sister with major depressive disorder ANSWER: c 369. Linkage analysis is of greatest interest to those who attempt to explain depressive and bipolar disorders from a ________ perspective. a. psychoanalytic b. biological c. social-cognitive d. conditioning ANSWER: b 370. Julia experiences depression, which can cause her brain's a. reward centers to become less active. ScholarFriends.com b. limbic system to be activated. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice c. occipital lobe to become less active. d. brainstem to be more active. ANSWER: a 371. During depression, the neurotransmitter serotonin is a. abundant. b. scarce. c. overactive. d. uncompromised. ANSWER: b 372. Mania is associated with overabundant levels of the neurotransmitter a. acetylcholine. b. norepinephrine. c. dopamine. d. THC. ANSWER: b 373. Leander has been diagnosed with major depressive disorder. When she is depressed, the amounts of ________ and norepinephrine in her brain are likely to be scarce. a. serotonin b. THC c. dopamine d. acetylcholine ANSWER: a 374. Abnormally low levels of the neurotransmitter serotonin are associated with a. mania. b. disruptive mood dysregulation disorder. c. depression. d. schizophrenia. ANSWER: c 375. Repetitive physical exercise may reduce depression, in part because it increases a. cognition. b. serotonin. c. mania. d. gene production. ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com 376. Alba has been told by her doctor that jogging will help reduce her depression. It may, considering that Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice repetitive physical exercise increases a. serotonin. b. norepinephrine. c. oxytocin. d. dopamine. ANSWER: a 377. People who eat a "Mediterranean diet" have a comparatively low risk of depression and a. heart disease. b. late-life cognitive decline. c. stroke. d. all of these problems, which are caused by inflammation in the body. ANSWER: d 378. Professor Hodgson suggests that major depressive disorder may stem from the impact of life experiences such as diet, drugs, and stress on molecular genetic tags that can turn genes on or off. The professor's suggestion most clearly highlights the importance of a. explanatory styles. b. epigenetic influences. c. rumination. d. learned helplessness. ANSWER: b 379. The ________ explores how people's assumptions and expectations influence what they perceive. a. biological perspective b. social-cognitive perspective c. behavioral perspective d. linkage analysis model ANSWER: b 380. Morris tends to do well in school but believes that his grades will be low each term. He also plays baseball but believes that his team will always lose the next game. Morris may be experiencing a. depression. b. antisocial conduct. c. anxiety. d. mania. ANSWER: a 381. Which perspective has emphasized the impact of self-defeating beliefs on depression? a. psychoanalytic b. biological ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice c. social-cognitive d. epigenetic ANSWER: c 382. Myron feels that his boss thinks he is mostly incompetent, no matter how hard he works. This is an example of a. a self-defeating belief. b. a negative explanatory style. c. learned helplessness. d. rumination. ANSWER: a 383. Saking's best friend recently passed away, and Saking can't stop feeling sad. Also, she constantly thinks about not being able to lose weight, and she much more easily recalls her relationship failures than her many relationship successes. These factors are most likely to place Saking at a high level of risk for a. a bipolar disorder. b. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. c. disruptive mood dysregulation disorder. d. major depressive disorder. ANSWER: d 384. According to the social-cognitive perspective, women are more vulnerable to depression than men because they are more likely to a. have unrealistically optimistic goals in life. b. overthink, fret, and brood. c. experience low levels of norepinephrine. d. experience cyclical variations in hormone levels. ANSWER: b 385. Women may be at greater risk of depression than men because women tend to ________ in response to stressful circumstances. a. ruminate b. externalize blame c. suffer memory loss d. become socially withdrawn ANSWER: a 386. Overthinking negative events is another way to describe a. rumination. b. linkage analysis. c. a systematic behavior change. ScholarFriends.com d. mania. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 387. Rumination is a. fretting and overthinking about problems and their causes. b. denial about having any depressed feelings. c. explaining our own failures in terms that are global, stable, and internal. d. the tendency to recall experiences that are consistent with one's current good or bad mood. ANSWER: a 388. Hawa is constantly worried that her colleagues will feel that her work is not up to par and that she will let the group down. This overthinking has caused her insomnia and has interfered with her work effectiveness. Hawa best illustrates the destructive effects of a. rumination. b. learned helplessness. c. linkage analysis. d. disruptive mood dysregulation disorder. ANSWER: a 389. Distraction, increased negative emotions, and disrupted daily activities may be the result of a. overabundant norepinephrine. b. learned helplessness. c. increased activity in the left frontal lobe. d. rumination. ANSWER: d 390. Who or what a person blames for their failures (or credit for their successes) is referred to as their a. self-defeating beliefs. b. explanatory style. c. learned helplessness. d. epigenetics. ANSWER: b 391. The social-cognitive perspective has emphasized that depression is perpetuated by a. underactivity of the frontal lobe. b. a negative explanatory style. c. unconscious conflict. d. epigenetics. ANSWER: b 392. As Vince is driving to work, he gets pulled over by a police officer. He thinks to himself, "Of course! Bad things always happen to me." This is an example of ScholarFriends.com a. state-dependent memory. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice b. a negative explanatory style. c. learned helplessness. d. rumination. ANSWER: b 393. Internal, stable, and global explanations of one's own failures are indicative of a. disruptive mood dysregulation disorder. b. rumination. c. a negative explanatory style. d. linkage analysis. ANSWER: c 394. Staren explains his inability to make his school's football team in terms that are stable, global, and internal. He best illustrates a. rumination. b. linkage analysis. c. disruptive mood dysregulation disorder. d. a negative explanatory style. ANSWER: d 395. Haruto explains his low grade on the midterm exam as a lack of intelligence, and so sees himself as a failure. Haruto's explanation in terms that are stable, global, and internal suggests that he probably a. believes specific circumstances caused his poor grade. b. suffers from epigenetic effects. c. has a negative explanatory style. d. has undergone linkage analysis. ANSWER: c 396. People who are depression-prone respond to bad events in terms that are internal, stable, and global. Their explanations thus tend to be self-blaming and a. psychedelic. b. dissociative. c. self-focused. d. free-floating. ANSWER: c 397. Which perspective suggests that explaining our own failures in terms that are global, stable, and internal contributes to depression? a. psychoanalytic b. biological c. epigenetic ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice d. social-cognitive ANSWER: d 398. A therapist suggests that Akari is depressed because she attributes her failures to her own incompetence instead of blaming her parents and teachers for the unreasonable demands they place on her. The therapist's interpretation most clearly reflects a ________ perspective. a. biological b. psychoanalytic c. epigenetic d. social-cognitive ANSWER: d 399. When they are unable to avoid repeated painful events, depressed individuals may develop self-defeating beliefs that arise from a. linkage analysis. b. elevated serotonin levels. c. lowered inhibitions. d. learned helplessness. ANSWER: d 400. The hopeless and passive resignation humans and other animals learn when they experience uncontrollable painful events is called a. a self-defeating belief. b. a negative explanatory style. c. learned helplessness. d. rumination. ANSWER: c 401. One difficulty with the social-cognitive explanation of depression is that negative explanations a. are more characteristic of men than of women. b. may be a consequence rather than a cause of depression. c. do not coincide with actual episodes of depression. d. are more clearly associated with mania than with depression. ANSWER: b 402. The pessimistic, overgeneralized, self-blaming attributions that give rise to learned helplessness are part of what is called a. self-defeating beliefs. b. a negative explanatory style. c. a vicious cycle. d. rumination. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 403. Stressful events interpreted with a negative explanatory style can encourage dampened mood states that lead to behavioral withdrawal and subsequent social rejection by others. This best illustrates a. bipolar disorder. b. free-floating anxiety. c. depression's vicious cycle. d. an epigenetic effect. ANSWER: c 404. Gene and Gloria are arguing about Gene meeting up with a former girlfriend. Gloria begins recalling all the times Gene has not told her where he was going or what he was doing, and so her mood declines and she withdraws from Gene. Gloria's recollections of Gene's past misbehaviors illustrate a. state-dependent memory. b. rumination. c. a negative explanatory style. d. learned helplessness. ANSWER: a 405. Freya is frequently depressed and has been caught in the vicious cycle of depressed thinking. She is currently seeking therapy. Which of the following is NOT something her therapist will suggest so that she can overcome this cycle of depression? a. change her negative thinking b. turn her attention outward c. engage in pleasant behavior d. deny that this cycle exists ANSWER: d 406. To break the vicious cycle of depression, the social-cognitive perspective suggests that people should be encouraged to explain their failures in terms that are both a. internal and stable. b. external and global. c. internal and global. d. external and temporary. ANSWER: d 407. People who suffer chronic depression are at high risk for experiencing a. unrealistic optimism. b. reduced self-awareness. c. excessive levels of norepinephrine. d. social rejection. ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 408. Schizophrenia is most likely to be characterized by a. disorganized thinking and disturbed perceptions. b. a lack of guilt feelings. c. multiple personalities. d. periodic intervals of uncontrollable violence. ANSWER: a 409. A disorder in which a person loses contact with reality and experiences irrational ideas and disordered perceptions is a. a personality disorder. b. a dissociative disorder. c. a psychotic disorder. d. bulimia nervosa. ANSWER: c 410. Damaris has been diagnosed with schizophrenia, which is the chief example of a(n) a. bipolar disorder. b. anxiety disorder. c. psychotic disorder. d. depressive disorder. ANSWER: c 411. Totaram believes that the government can read his thoughts and is spying on him. He hears voices telling him that the government is plotting to take his house and imprison him because he is a superhero. Totaram is most clearly suffering from a. bipolar disorder. b. a psychotic disorder. c. antisocial personality disorder. d. a dissociative disorder. ANSWER: b 412. Aarav frequently hears voices telling him that he is bad, unworthy, and undeserving of friendship. At school and work, he has trouble distinguishing between the voices in his mind and the voices of fellow students and coworkers. These symptoms are most characteristic of a. dopamine underactivity. b. schizophrenia. c. impaired theory of mind. d. word salad. ANSWER: b 413. Positive symptoms of schizophrenia are the ________ of inappropriate behaviors, and negative symptoms ScholarFriends.com are the ________ of appropriate behaviors. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice a. absence; absence b. presence; presence c. absence; presence d. presence; absence ANSWER: d 414. People with schizophrenia who experience hallucinations and delusions and speak in word salad are demonstrating a. the positive symptoms of schizophrenia. b. flat affect. c. antisocial personality disorder. d. the negative symptoms of schizophrenia. ANSWER: a 415. Lim Chung Ye believes that his neighbors are spying on him. He hears voices telling him that he needs to move to Australia to get away from those seeking to harm him. Lim, who has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and has been admitted to the psychiatric ward of the university hospital, is most clearly demonstrating a. positive symptoms. b. flat affect. c. learned helplessness. d. negative symptoms. ANSWER: a 416. Laughing when seeing a car accident is to ________ as an expressionless face is to ________. a. positive symptoms of schizophrenia; negative symptoms of schizophrenia b. psychotic disorder; hallucinations c. delusions; disorganized speech d. impaired theory of mind; neutral symptoms of schizophrenia ANSWER: a 417. One of the negative symptoms of schizophrenia is a. an expressionless face. b. loud and meaningless talking. c. inappropriate laughter. d. uncontrollable outbursts of rage. ANSWER: a 418. Darius, a 25-year-old engineer, thinks he is Napoleon. He further believes he is being imprisoned against his will in the psychiatric hospital where his parents have brought him for treatment. Darius is most clearly exhibiting symptoms of ScholarFriends.com a. bipolar disorder. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice b. schizophrenia. c. panic disorder. d. dissociative identity disorder. ANSWER: b 419. The false perceptions of people with schizophrenia are referred to as a. hallucinations. b. delusions. c. word salad. d. flat affect. ANSWER: a 420. Patricia hears voices that tell her that the nurses in her ward are ordering her to leave the hospital. Patricia is most clearly a. delusional. b. exhibiting flat affect. c. experiencing a dissociative disorder. d. hallucinating. ANSWER: d 421. A delusion is best described as a. a minutes-long feeling of intense fear that something horrible is about to happen. b. an explanation of a bad event in terms that are temporary, specific, and external. c. a false belief, often of persecution or grandeur, that may accompany a psychotic disorder. d. a time-consuming behavior ritual that temporarily relieves feelings of anxiety. ANSWER: c 422. The false beliefs of those with schizophrenia are referred to as a. hallucinations. b. delusions. c. word salad. d. flat affect. ANSWER: b 423. Mitch, who has recently been diagnosed with schizophrenia, believes his neighbors are spying on him through his television. Mitch is experiencing a. delusions. b. disorganized speech. c. word salad. d. flat affect. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 424. Mr. Estrella believes that he is the prime minister of England and that he will soon become the "Ruler of the World." Mr. Estrella is most clearly having a. delusions. b. flat affect. c. hallucinations. d. a personality disorder. ANSWER: a 425. One of the hallmarks of schizophrenia is disorganized thinking. Theorists suggest that people with such disorganized thinking may have a. negative symptoms. b. a breakdown in selective attention. c. low levels of dopamine. d. free-floating anxiety. ANSWER: b 426. In which type of disorder is a person's speech likely to be so full of unrelated words and phrases that it could be characterized as word salad? a. antisocial personality disorder b. obsessive-compulsive disorder c. schizophrenia d. dissociative identity disorder ANSWER: c 427. Kato, who has been diagnosed with schizophrenia, has just told his parents that he "likes the orange sky because it rained olives on his sandwich." This is an example of a. word salad. b. a delusion. c. a hallucination. d. an obsessive thought. ANSWER: a 428. Kevin, who has recently been diagnosed with schizophrenia, sometimes speaks in jumbled, unintelligible sentences. This is an example of a. word salad. b. a delusion. c. a hallucination. d. catatonia. ANSWER: a ScholarFriends.com

429. In relation to schizophrenia, flat affect refers to Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice a. jumbled ideas that make no sense. b. false beliefs. c. false perceptions. d. a state of no apparent emotion. ANSWER: d 430. Justin just won $10,000 on a scratch-off lottery ticket, but he demonstrated no apparent emotional reaction. This is an example of a. word salad. b. a delusion. c. a hallucination. d. flat affect. ANSWER: d 431. Flat affect and remaining motionless for hours at a time are symptoms most closely associated with a. schizophrenia. b. dissociative disorders. c. mania. d. antisocial personality disorder. ANSWER: a 432. Experiencing a complete lack of emotion is referred to as a. word salad. b. a delusion. c. a hallucination. d. flat affect. ANSWER: d 433. Sharat has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. He is uncommunicative and shows no physical signs of emotion. His behavior is most clearly an indication of a. hallucinations. b. flat affect. c. delusions d. mania. ANSWER: b 434. Most people with schizophrenia have difficulty reading other peoples' facial expressions and states of mind, which means that they have a. delusions. b. an impaired theory of mind. ScholarFriends.com c. flat effect. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice d. obsessive thoughts. ANSWER: d 435. Having difficulty reading other people's facial expressions and state of mind demonstrates a. flat affect. b. obsessive thoughts. c. an impaired theory of mind. d. disorganized speech. ANSWER: c 436. Jeroen, who has schizophrenia, cannot read other peoples' facial emotions and states of mind. His symptoms are most clearly an indication of a. flat affect. b. dissociation. c. auditory hallucinations. d. an impaired theory of mind. ANSWER: d 437. The onset of schizophrenia is typically associated with early a. infancy. b. childhood. c. adolescence. d. adulthood. ANSWER: d 438. Men tend to be diagnosed with schizophrenia ________ often and ________ severely than women. a. more; less b. less; more c. less; less d. more; more ANSWER: d 439. Schizophrenia is said to be chronic when a. it is responsive to drug therapy. b. it is accompanied by hallucinations. c. it develops slowly and recovery is doubtful. d. recovery is likely even without professional help. ANSWER: c 440. Hiram has always had a problem with social relationships and poor school performance. By age 21, he was clearly exhibiting all the negative symptoms ofScholarFriends.com schizophrenia. He is not responding to medication. Hiram is demonstrating ________ schizophrenia. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice a. chronic b. dissociative c. acute d. paranoid ANSWER: a 441. Grayson has been diagnosed with chronic schizophrenia. It is most likely that he is a. in early adolescence. b. a child. c. an older adult. d. in late adolescence. ANSWER: d 442. Slow-developing is to rapid as ________ is to ________. a. chronic schizophrenia; acute schizophrenia b. acute schizophrenia; chronic schizophrenia c. positive symptoms; negative symptoms d. negative symptoms; positive symptoms ANSWER: a 443. Schizophrenia that develops rapidly, seemingly as a reaction to stress, is called ________ schizophrenia. a. chronic b. paranoid c. acute d. dissociative ANSWER: c 444. Jacunda developed schizophrenia quite suddenly after being robbed at gunpoint while walking to school. Jacunda is responding to medication and most of her symptoms have decreased. Jacunda's case illustrates ________ schizophrenia. a. paranoid b. chronic c. dissociative d. acute ANSWER: d 445. People with acute schizophrenia more often have the ________ symptoms that respond to drug therapy. a. negative b. positive c. bipolar ScholarFriends.com d. unipolar Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 446. Schizophrenia is associated with an excess of receptors for a. norepinephrine. b. dopamine. c. serotonin. d. acetylcholine. ANSWER: b 447. Dopamine overactivity appears to be most clearly related to a. flat affect. b. agoraphobia. c. hallucinations. d. anorexia nervosa. ANSWER: c 448. Which of the following is associated with intensified brain signals that lead to positive symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and paranoia? a. abnormal development of the frontal lobe b. an excess number of dopamine receptors c. a larger-than-normal cortex d. a hyperactive hippocampus ANSWER: b 449. Drugs such as nicotine, amphetamines, and cocaine intensify brain signals in schizophrenia because they a. cause increased activity in the thalamus. b. increase dopamine levels. c. decrease dopamine levels. d. cause low brain activity in the brain's frontal lobes. ANSWER: b 450. Mr. Tudosa, who has been diagnosed with schizophrenia, experiences both hallucinations and delusions. Based on the research, which of the following is likely responsible for his hallucinations? a. abnormally low brain activity in the frontal lobes b. an overabundance of dopamine receptors in the brain c. overactivity in the thalamus d. increased activity in his amygdala ANSWER: b 451. Dionata has recently been diagnosed with schizophrenia. One of her symptoms is that she has problems with reasoning, making plans, and solving problems. Her physicians have explained that this is likely caused by ScholarFriends.com a. abnormally low brain activity in the frontal lobes. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice b. an overabundance of dopamine receptors in the brain. c. overactivity in the thalamus. d. increased activity in her amygdala. ANSWER: a 452. Vigorous activity in the thalamus of schizophrenia patients has been found to be associated with a. hearing voices. b. flat affect. c. disorganized speech. d. repetitive rocking motions. ANSWER: a 453. Stefan, who has schizophrenia, experiences auditory hallucinations. Based on research using PET scans, which brain structure is active when Stefan experiences these hallucinations? a. thalamus b. amygdala c. hippocampus d. frontal lobe ANSWER: a 454. Jeffrey has schizophrenia and is frequently paranoid. Which brain structure exhibits increased activity when he experiences paranoia? a. parietal lobe b. amygdala c. hippocampus d. frontal lobe ANSWER: b 455. Overactivity in the thalamus among those with schizophrenia is related to a. hallucinations. b. delusions. c. paranoia. d. a short attention span. ANSWER: a 456. Brain scans have found enlarged fluid-filled ventricles in people with a. binge-eating disorder. b. dissociative identity disorder. c. schizophrenia. d. bulimia nervosa. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 457. Among schizophrenia patients, the fluid-filled areas of the brain are a. abnormally large and cerebral tissue is abnormally small. b. abnormally small and cerebral tissue is abnormally large. c. abnormally small and cerebral tissue is abnormally small. d. abnormally large and cerebral tissue is abnormally large. ANSWER: a 458. Low birth weight and mother's diabetes are two of the known risk factors for a. dissociative identity disorder. b. antisocial personality disorder. c. anorexia nervosa. d. schizophrenia. ANSWER: d 459. People conceived during the peak of World War II's Dutch famine and during the famine of 1959 to 1961 in eastern China developed ________ at twice the normal rate. a. posttraumatic stress disorder b. antisocial personality disorder c. binge-eating disorder d. schizophrenia ANSWER: d 460. A study involving 200,000 Israeli mothers demonstrated that exposure to terror attacks during ________ their children's risk of developing schizophrenia. a. early prenatal development tripled b. pregnancy doubled c. infancy doubled d. childhood quadrupled ANSWER: b 461. Evidence suggests that prenatal viral infections contribute to a. anorexia nervosa. b. dissociative identity disorder. c. schizophrenia. d. antisocial personality disorder. ANSWER: c 462. People born in a country that experienced a flu epidemic during the middle of their fetal development are at increased risk of a. bipolar disorder. ScholarFriends.com b. schizophrenia. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice c. dissociative disorders. d. generalized anxiety disorder. ANSWER: b 463. Danes born in densely populated areas have been found to be at increased risk of a. bipolar disorder. b. schizophrenia. c. dissociative disorders. d. generalized anxiety disorder. ANSWER: b 464. People born in ________ during the month of ________ are at increased risk for schizophrenia. a. North America; February b. Asia; September c. Australia; February d. Europe; September ANSWER: a 465. Research on the causes of schizophrenia strongly suggests that a. there is a genetic predisposition to schizophrenia. b. almost anybody will develop schizophrenia if exposed to extensive environmental stress. c. schizophrenia patients suffer from a deficiency of the neurotransmitter serotonin. d. if adopted children's adoptive parents have schizophrenia, they will, too. ANSWER: a 466. In relation to schizophrenia, if one identical twin's brain shows abnormalities, the odds are ________ that the other twin's brain will also have them. a. 1 in 2 b. 1 in 3 c. 1 in 4 d. 2 in 3 ANSWER: a 467. Norman and Jacob are identical twins who shared a placenta. If Jacob is diagnosed with schizophrenia, it is most likely that a. Jacob will cause his brother to also develop the disorder. b. there is a 10 percent chance that Norman will also develop the disorder. c. there is a 60 percent chance that Norman will also develop the disorder. d. Norman will help Jacob to recover. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 468. The impact of a shared placenta on a co-twin's risk of developing schizophrenia suggests a. a reason for the brain abnormalities in people with schizophrenia. b. the heritability of schizophrenia. c. the viability of the fetal-virus idea. d. the importance of epigenetic factors. ANSWER: c 469. If identical twins share a single placenta rather than having separate placentas, their chances of being similarly affected by ________ are dramatically increased. a. binge-eating disorder b. schizophrenia c. a dissociative disorder d. posttraumatic stress disorder ANSWER: b 470. An adopted child's chances of developing schizophrenia ________ if the biological parents have schizophrenia. The child's chances ________ if the adopted parents have schizophrenia. a. increase; increase b. do not increase; do not increase c. increase; do not increase d. do not increase; increase ANSWER: c 471. Researchers have been able to identify ________ genome locations linked with schizophrenia. a. 3 b. 20 c. 67 d. 176 ANSWER: d 472. During prenatal development, nutritional deprivation may influence the expression of certain genes that are known to increase the risk of specific physical and psychological disorders. This best illustrates the impact of a. stimulus generalization. b. epigenetic factors. c. an impaired theory of mind. d. dissociation. ANSWER: b 473. A person's conscious awareness separating from painful memories, thoughts, and feelings is the definition of a. dissociation. ScholarFriends.com b. inhibition. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice c. fugue. d. imagination. ANSWER: a 474. Disruptions in conscious awareness and sense of identity are most characteristic of a. obsessive-compulsive disorder. b. bulimia nervosa. c. antisocial personality disorder. d. dissociative disorders. ANSWER: d 475. Howard, a bus driver, cannot remember anything about an accident in which the bus turned over and one of his passengers was killed. Because he himself suffered no physical injuries, psychologists suspect that Howard probably has a. panic disorder. b. a dissociative disorder. c. anorexia nervosa. d. bipolar disorder. ANSWER: b 476. A sense of being separated from your body and watching yourself as if in a movie is a symptom of a. binge-eating disorder. b. panic disorder. c. bipolar disorder. d. dissociation. ANSWER: d 477. Exhibiting two or more distinct and alternating personalities is a symptom of a. bulimia nervosa. b. dissociative identity disorder. c. obsessive-compulsive disorder. d. antisocial personality disorder. ANSWER: b 478. The experience of multiple personalities is most likely to be characterized by a. a massive dissociation of self from ordinary consciousness. b. intrusive and unwanted thoughts that persistently preoccupy a person. c. visual hallucinations. d. a lack of guilt feelings. ANSWER: a ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 479. Katrina is unable to explain or remember trips to another town, Tweets from people she says she doesn't know, and bills from companies she has never heard of. Katrina's parents take her to a clinic where she admits that there are long stretches of her life that are completely blank to her. Suddenly, using a different voice, facial expression, and demeanor, Katrina said to the psychologist, "Don't pay any attention to that old Katrina. She's just a bore and I'm a lot more fun to talk to." Katrina's symptoms are characteristic of a. anorexia nervosa. b. dissociative identity disorder. c. bulimia nervosa. d. bipolar disorder. ANSWER: b 480. Stephen has three very distinct identities. Sometimes he is warm and charming, sometimes he is cold and aloof, and sometimes he is loud and aggressive. He tells his therapist that he has no awareness or memory of what happens when he is displaying a different identity. Stephen may be diagnosed with a. antisocial personality disorder. b. anorexia nervosa. c. schizotypal personality disorder. d. dissociative identity disorder. ANSWER: d 481. Some skeptics have suggested that the role playing of fantasy-prone patients in response to the leading questions of therapists has often contributed to a. anorexia nervosa. b. dissociative identity disorder. c. bulimia nervosa. d. bipolar disorder. ANSWER: b 482. Evidence that symptoms of dissociative identity disorder are triggered by the suggestions and leading questions of therapists would most clearly point to the importance of ________ in the onset of this disorder. a. free-floating anxiety b. repression c. childhood sexual trauma d. role playing ANSWER: d 483. Increased activity in brain areas involved with the control and inhibition of traumatic memories has been linked with the experience of a. major depressive disorder. b. dissociative identity disorder. c. obsessive-compulsive disorder. ScholarFriends.com d. bulimia nervosa. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 484. Evidence that dissociative identity disorder has biological roots comes from brain scans of DID patients that show a. reduced activity in brain areas associated with the control and inhibition of traumatic memories. b. shrinkage in areas that aid memory and detection of threat. c. inability of psychiatric experts to hypnotize patients with this disorder. d. the similarity of body and brain states associated with different identities. ANSWER: b 485. Both psychodynamic and learning theorists have interpreted DID symptoms as ways of coping with a. depression. b. anxiety. c. environmental events. d. unexplained fears. ANSWER: b 486. Wilfredo's therapist suggests that Wilfredo developed dissociative identity disorder in order to behave badly without feeling guilty. The therapist's suggestion most directly reflects a(n) ________ perspective. a. social-cognitive b. epigenetic c. psychodynamic d. biological ANSWER: c 487. Drago's therapist suggests that Drago developed dissociative identity disorder because his dissociative behavior was reinforced by anxiety reduction. The therapist's suggestion most directly reflects a(n) ________ perspective. a. social-cognitive b. epigenetic c. psychodynamic d. learning ANSWER: d 488. Evidence that many people being treated for DID have suffered physical, emotional, or sexual abuse as children leads some psychologists to include dissociative disorders under the umbrella of a. panic disorder. b. generalized anxiety disorder. c. anorexia nervosa. d. posttraumatic stress disorder. ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 489. Psychological disorders characterized by inflexible, enduring, and socially maladaptive behavior patterns are called ________ disorders. a. acute b. dissociative c. psychotic d. personality ANSWER: d 490. Avoidant personality disorder falls under which of the three personality disorder clusters? a. anxiety b. dramatic c. impulsive d. eccentric ANSWER: a 491. Amanda is generally withdrawn from others and fears being rejected by her peers. These characteristics are associated with which personality disorder? a. avoidant b. schizotypal c. borderline d. narcissistic ANSWER: a 492. Jorge mostly keeps to himself, rarely interacting with coworkers or people in his neighborhood. His longstanding maladaptive patterns of social interaction best illustrate a. dissociative identity disorder. b. a psychotic disorder. c. anorexia nervosa. d. a personality disorder. ANSWER: d 493. Magical thinking is a characteristic of which type of personality disorder? a. schizotypal b. narcissistic c. borderline d. avoidant ANSWER: a 494. Borderline personality disorder falls under which of the three personality disorder clusters? a. anxiety b. dramatic ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice c. odd d. eccentric ANSWER: b 495. Which personality disorder is described as self-focused and self-inflating? a. avoidant b. schizotypal c. borderline d. narcissistic ANSWER: d 496. Claudia's excessive focus on herself makes it difficult for her to have empathy for others, which impairs her social relationships. She has an inflated sense of her own self-importance, requires constant admiration and attention, and is extremely sensitive to the smallest criticisms. Her maladaptive patterns of social interaction best illustrate a. dissociative identity disorder. b. narcissistic personality disorder. c. bulimia nervosa. d. anorexia nervosa. ANSWER: b 497. People, typically males, who develop ________ can display symptoms by age 8. a. binge eating disorder b. antisocial personality disorder c. dissociative identity disorder d. anorexia nervosa ANSWER: b 498. Which of the following disorders is more common among men than women? a. major depressive disorder b. antisocial personality disorder c. dissociative identity disorder d. anorexia nervosa ANSWER: b 499. Antisocial personality disorder is most likely to be characterized by a. a persistent, irrational fear of people. b. episodes of intense autonomic nervous system arousal. c. disruptions in conscious awareness and sense of identity. d. a lack of conscience. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 500. Lack of conscience for wrongdoing ________ characteristic of antisocial personality disorder, and criminality ________ an essential component of antisocial behavior. a. is; is b. is; is not c. is not; is not d. is not; is ANSWER: b 501. Not all children with antisocial traits become antisocial adults, but those who do develop antisocial personality disorder generally a. behave in self-focused, self-inflating ways. b. act in violent or otherwise criminal ways. c. withdraw from social interactions. d. engage in magical thinking. ANSWER: b 502. The term psychopath is sometimes used to refer to an individual with a. a psychotic disorder. b. obsessive-compulsive disorder. c. dissociative identity disorder. d. antisocial personality disorder. ANSWER: d 503. Hampton has antisocial personality disorder. This means that he is likely to a. have a heightened theory of mind. b. engage in rumination. c. exhibit less emotional intelligence. d. have low levels of impulsivity. ANSWER: c 504. Catalin is 30 years old, extremely intelligent, and a real charmer. He has convinced a number of older men and women to turn their savings accounts over to him, and he seems to have little feeling for his victims, nor does he fear the consequences of getting caught. His behavior is evidence of a. chronic schizophrenia. b. posttraumatic stress disorder. c. antisocial personality disorder. d. a dissociative disorder. ANSWER: c 505. Dwayne, who has antisocial personality disorder, is unable to understand and perceive other people's emotions. This suggests that he has lower ScholarFriends.com a. emotional intelligence. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice b. stress. c. anxiety. d. fearlessness. ANSWER: a 506. Antisocial traits, such as fearlessness and dominance, a. always lead to criminal behaviors. b. never lead to criminal behaviors. c. can be adaptive. d. are never adaptive. ANSWER: c 507. Twin and adoption studies indicate that biological relatives of those with antisocial and unemotional tendencies a. are at increased risk for antisocial behavior. b. are at decreased risk for antisocial behavior. c. experience unusually high levels of bodily arousal when awaiting aversive events. d. have a larger-than-normal amygdala. ANSWER: a 508. Which of the following is the best explanation for the development of antisocial personality disorder? a. genetic influences b. negative environmental factors c. positive familial factors d. both genetic influences and negative environmental factors ANSWER: d 509. There is evidence that a relatively low level of bodily arousal may contribute to a. bulimia nervosa. b. antisocial personality disorder. c. dissociative disorders. d. schizophrenia. ANSWER: b 510. Long-term studies show that stress hormone levels were lower than average when those with ________ were teenagers. a. bulimia nervosa b. antisocial personality disorder c. dissociative disorders d. schizophrenia ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 511. When shown photographs such as of a man holding a knife to a woman's throat, people with ________ showed lower-than-normal heart rate and perspiration responses. a. bipolar disorder b. dissociative identity disorder c. antisocial personality disorder d. posttraumatic stress disorder ANSWER: c 512. Studies have found that those with a smaller-than-normal amygdala are a. more likely to develop antisocial criminal tendencies. b. more likely to develop an eating disorder. c. not likely to develop schizophrenia. d. more vulnerable to both anxiety and depression. ANSWER: a 513. A hyper-reactive dopamine reward system has been observed among those with a. antisocial personality disorder. b. obsessive-compulsive disorder c. dissociative identity disorder. d. anorexia nervosa. ANSWER: a 514. Reduced activity in a frontal lobe area that helps control impulses has been found in those who murdered impulsively. This reduced activity is associated with a. anorexia nervosa. b. antisocial personality disorder. c. dissociative identity disorder. d. generalized anxiety disorder. ANSWER: b 515. Anorexia nervosa is typically characterized by a. an unusually high rate of metabolism. b. cyclical fluctuations between extreme thinness and plumpness. c. frequent migraine headaches. d. a fear of being fat. ANSWER: d 516. Twelve-year-old Augusta has been on a drastic weight-loss diet for the last six months. She has lost 30 pounds. Although she is now undernourished and far below typical weight for girls her age, she continues to think she looks fat. Augusta most likely has ScholarFriends.com a. obsessive-compulsive disorder. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice b. bulimia nervosa. c. a dissociative disorder. d. anorexia nervosa. ANSWER: d 517. ________ often begins as an attempt to lose weight but the dieting becomes a habit. a. Anorexia nervosa b. Binge-eating disorder c. Bulimia nervosa d. Dissociative identity disorder ANSWER: a 518. Severely restricted eating and an intense fear of weight gain is to ________ as binge eating followed by self-induced vomiting is to ________. a. anorexia nervosa; bulimia nervosa b. bulimia nervosa; anorexia nervosa c. binge-eating disorder; anorexia nervosa d. bulimia nervosa; binge-eating disorder ANSWER: a 519. Margaret was initially excited to be selected for the lead role in the school play. However, her parents noticed that she was skipping at least one meal a day, and she refused to eat anything that might contain sugar or other fat. Most concerning was her significant weight loss from a healthy 120 pounds to 85 pounds. This case most clearly illustrates symptoms of a. bulimia nervosa. b. dissociative identity disorder. c. anorexia nervosa. d. obsessive-compulsive disorder. ANSWER: c 520. Nik suffers from ________, which began as a diet to lose some weight and then became a self-sustaining habit. a. anorexia nervosa b. bulimia nervosa c. depression d. schizophrenia ANSWER: a 521. Food binges that alternate with vomiting are most characteristic of a. anorexia nervosa. b. bipolar disorder. ScholarFriends.com c. bulimia nervosa. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice d. binge-eating disorder. ANSWER: c 522. Leonore's weight is within the normal range. However, whenever she goes on an eating binge, she purges the excess food by vomiting and then exercising. It is likely that Leonore suffers from a. anorexia nervosa. b. bulimia nervosa. c. a personality disorder. d. obsessive-compulsive disorder. ANSWER: b 523. Regan, who is 20 years old, is slightly overweight and mostly enjoys eating at fast-food restaurants. Fearful of gaining more weight, she frequently takes laxatives following episodes of binge eating. Regan most clearly suffers from a. bulimia nervosa. b. anorexia nervosa. c. bipolar disorder. d. social anxiety disorder. ANSWER: a 524. Unlike those with bulimia nervosa, those with binge-eating disorder are NOT likely to ________ following binge eating. a. experience remorse b. gain weight c. purge or fast d. suffer indigestion ANSWER: c 525. When Adolfo becomes anxious, he overeats. Afterward, Adolfo feels remorse but does not purge or exercise excessively. Adolfo is demonstrating the symptoms of a. dissociative identity disorder. b. anorexia nervosa. c. binge-eating disorder. d. bulimia nervosa. ANSWER: c 526. Which of the following suggests that heritability plays a role in explaining eating disorders? a. Families of those with anorexia tend to be competitive and high-achieving. b. Western cultures have seen a rise in eating disorders over the last half of the twentieth century. c. Identical twins share eating disorders more often than do fraternal twins. d. Adopted children are less like to share an eating disorder with their biological parents. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 527. Worry about how they are perceived by others and fear of falling short of expectations is most likely to be characteristic of people with a. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. b. antisocial personality disorder. c. posttraumatic stress disorder. d. an eating disorder. ANSWER: d 528. People with anorexia nervosa often come from families that a. lack educational opportunities. b. are high-achieving and competitive. c. are unable to afford adequate food. d. don't care about physical appearance or excess weight. ANSWER: b 529. Carlann, who comes from a competitive, high-achieving family, began dieting two months ago and has since lost 30 pounds. Though her weight is now below what is considered healthy for her height, she remains obsessively focused on losing more weight. Carlann is exhibiting symptoms of a. dissociative identity disorder. b. anorexia nervosa. c. binge-eating disorder. d. bulimia nervosa. ANSWER: b 530. Bert is a 15-year-old who aims to be excessively muscular. Which of the following factors is NOT associated with this pursuit? a. high self-evaluation b. fretting about falling short of expectations c. perfectionist standards d. concern about how others view him ANSWER: a 531. Frequent exposure to images of thin fashion models and celebrities is most likely to contribute to the development of a. dissociative identity disorder. b. antisocial personality disorder. c. binge-eating disorder. d. bulimia nervosa. ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com

532. Research has found that the rise in eating disorders in the last half of the twentieth century coincided with Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice a. an increase in the heritability of anorexia. b. a reduction in the family ideal of high achievement. c. a dramatic decline in Western women's body image. d. an increase in the consumption of fast foods. ANSWER: c 533. Those most vulnerable to anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa are those who ________ value thinness and have the ________ body dissatisfaction. a. least; least b. most; greatest c. least; greatest d. most; least ANSWER: b 534. Marcia is slightly overweight and is teased and harassed about her weight by her peers. Which of the following is most likely to occur? a. Marcia's bullying behavior directed toward her little brother will increase. b. Marcia will develop an eating disorder. c. Marcia will develop schizophrenia. d. Marcia's school performance will improve. ANSWER: b 535. Which of the following does NOT represent a possible cultural influence on the development of eating disorders? a. images of unnaturally thin models and celebrities b. the tendency of identical twins to share a genetic vulnerability to eating disorders c. the variability of body ideals across time and place d. the decline in Western women's body image ANSWER: b 536. Which of the following might be useful in preventing the development of eating disorders? a. recognize that the diagnostic criteria in the DSM-5-TR are incorrect b. use interactive programs to teach body acceptance to those at risk for developing eating disorders c. understand that the eating disorder classification criteria do not generalize well outside of the United States d. accurately measure genetic risk factors in the development of eating disorders ANSWER: b 537. Prevention of eating disorders is ________. Where prevention does not work, it is ________ that the person will improve with time. a. possible; likely ScholarFriends.com b. not possible; not likely Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice c. possible; not likely d. not possible; likely ANSWER: a 538. Worldwide, each year about ________ people will die by suicide. a. 1000 b. 100,000 c. 800,000 d. 1,000,000 ANSWER: c 539. When comparing the suicide rates of various groups, researchers have found that a. women are more likely than men to consider suicide. b. perfectionist people are less likely to consider suicide. c. suicide rates decline steeply in late adulthood. d. in most countries, suicides have been decreasing. ANSWER: a 540. When comparing the suicide rates of various groups, researchers have found that a. men are twice as likely as women to actually die by suicide. b. perfectionist people are less likely to consider suicide. c. suicide rates decline steeply in late adulthood. d. in most countries, suicides have been decreasing. ANSWER: a 541. Compared with the general population, those ________ have at least five times greater risk of suicide. a. with disruptive mood dysregulation disorder b. with obsessive-compulsive disorder c. who have been depressed d. with panic disorder ANSWER: c 542. The risk of suicide is greatest when people a. anticipate the onset of a depressive episode. b. experience the first symptoms of a depressive episode. c. experience depressive symptoms at their most extreme levels of severity. d. begin to rebound from their depression. ANSWER: d 543. Herman has been diagnosed with major depressive disorder and has had suicidal thoughts. When should ScholarFriends.com his friends and family be most worried about Herman acting on his suicidal thoughts? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice a. at the onset of a depressive episode b. when he first experiences the symptoms of a depressive episode c. when the depressive symptoms are at the most extreme levels of severity d. when he begins to rebound from his depression ANSWER: d 544. When the need to belong and the need to feel effective are frustrated, the person is especially likely to experience a. delusions. b. mania. c. suicidal urges. d. obsessive-compulsive disorder. ANSWER: c 545. Iris is considering suicide. Which of the following would NOT forewarn family members and friends about Iris' intent? a. verbal hints b. giving possessions away c. a sudden change in mood d. an increase in sociability ANSWER: d 546. Helen is a perfectionist and has set high goals for herself. Her ________ may increase if she falls short of her goals. a. optimism b. thoughts of suicide c. posttraumatic growth d. acts of violence ANSWER: b 547. Based on surveys of 84,850 people across 17 nations, fewer than ________ people will die by suicide. a. 1 in 10 b. 1 in 15 c. 1 in 20 d. 1 in 30 ANSWER: c 548. Which of the following is NOT one of the ways in which researchers are trying to solve the suicide puzzle? a. studying teen volunteers' tone of voice, photos, and angry words in text messages b. studying how genes predict suicide risk c. studying how family and friends react toScholarFriends.com suicide attempts Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice d. developing suicide-predicting artificial intelligence ANSWER: c 549. Among Americans, drug overdoses account for a ________ of suicide attempts and gun use accounts for a ________ of suicide fatalities. a. majority; minority b. minority; majority c. majority; majority d. minority; minority ANSWER: c 550. About half of the 47,000 Americans who die by suicide each year involve ________; only 14 percent of suicide fatalities involve ________. a. guns; poison and drug overdoses b. poison and drug overdoses; guns c. ropes; drowning d. drowning; ropes ANSWER: a 551. Which of the following is true regarding having a gun in the house? a. It makes one safer. b. It makes one less safe. c. It is a deterrent for burglaries. d. It teaches children how to protect themselves. ANSWER: b 552. If someone is talking about attempting suicide, which of the following is NOT something you should do? a. Connect the person with an agency that can help, such as the National Suicide Prevention Lifeline. b. Listen to the person and try to empathize with them. c. Discourage the person from talking at length about the issue. d. Seek immediate help if the person is at immediate risk. ANSWER: c 553. Rates of nonsuicidal self-injury in the United States are highest among a. adolescent males. b. adolescent females. c. older adult males. d. older adult females. ANSWER: b 554. Monica's parents have discovered their daughter using a knife to inflict painful but non–life-threatening ScholarFriends.com cuts on her arms. Her behavior best illustrates Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice a. PTSD. b. DID. c. NSSI. d. OCD. ANSWER: c 555. Gaining relief from negative thoughts through the distraction of pain is one of the motives for a. mania. b. rumination. c. linkage analysis. d. nonsuicidal self-injury. ANSWER: d 556. People who engage in NSSI may do so because it allows them to a. gain relief from intense negative thoughts. b. attract attention and possibly get help. c. get others to change their negative behavior. d. do all of these things. ANSWER: d 557. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding NSSI? a. NSSI is a risk factor for suicidal thoughts. b. NSSI is a risk factor for future suicide attempts. c. NSSI is intended to be a suicide attempt. d. NSSI is a suicide gesture. ANSWER: c 558. NSSI is a risk factor for suicidal thoughts and future suicide attempts, especially if it coexists with a. a bipolar disorder. b. generalized anxiety disorder. c. panic disorder. d. mania. ANSWER: a 559. Kristen's mother noticed a deep cut on her daughter's arm. Because Kristen has already been diagnosed with a bipolar disorder, Kristen's mother is concerned that Kristen may a. become violent against her. b. be thinking about suicide. c. have schizophrenia. d. be empathizing with a friend. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 560. The vast majority of violent crimes are committed by those with a. no diagnosed psychological disorder. b. posttraumatic stress disorder. c. antisocial personality disorder. d. psychotic disorders. ANSWER: a 561. Your friend Terrence believes that people with a psychological disorder are violent. Based on what you have learned about psychological disorders and crime, what would you respond? a. "This probably isn't true because distress often leads to dysfunction." b. "Researchers aren't sure if this is the case because the definition of psychological disorders repeatedly changes." c. "I agree. People with disorders are more likely to be perpetrators of violent crime than victims of it." d. "Actually, most violent criminals are not mentally ill, and most mentally ill people are not violent." ANSWER: d 562. Which of the following is NOT a good predictor that a person will engage in violent behavior? a. use of alcohol or drugs b. engaging in previous violent behavior c. mental illness d. access to a gun ANSWER: c 563. Which of the following is FALSE regarding violent crimes? a. Mass-killing shooters are more likely to be young males than any other demographic. b. The use of alcohol and drugs, brain damage, and a history of previous violence are all good predictors of violent crime. c. Focusing gun restrictions on those suffering from psychological disorders will reduce gun violence substantially. d. Those diagnosed with psychological disorders are more likely to be victims, rather than perpetrators, of violent crime. ANSWER: c 564. Which of the following statements about people with psychological disorders is true? a. People with psychological disorders are more likely to be victims of violence than perpetrators of violence. b. In the popular media, people with psychological disorders are typically portrayed in positive ways, such as being creative geniuses or artistic prodigies. c. Research has shown that even people with mild psychological disorders tend to be unusually dangerous and prone to violence. ScholarFriends.com d. The few people with psychological disorders who commit violence tend to be those with dissociative Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice disorders. ANSWER: a 565. Shooters who engage in mass killings have several things in common, including the fact that they tend to a. be young adult males. b. suffer from a psychological disorder. c. be older men with no diagnosed psychological disorders. d. have no previous history of violence. ANSWER: a 566. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a neurodevelopmental disorder? a. central nervous system abnormalities b. altered thinking c. altered behavior d. early adulthood onset ANSWER: d 567. A condition of limited mental ability, indicated by an intelligence test score of 70 or below and difficulty adapting to the demands of life is referred to as a. intellectual developmental disorder. b. dissociative identity disorder. c. antisocial personality disorder. d. anorexia nervosa. ANSWER: a 568. To be diagnosed with intellectual developmental disorder, one's score on an intelligence test must be a. 100. b. 120. c. 50 or below. d. 70 or below. ANSWER: d 569. Amanda's score on an intelligence test is less than 70. This means that a. she may be diagnosed with intellectual developmental disorder. b. she is on the autism spectrum. c. she has rigidly fixated interests. d. she tends to be overly active and impulsive. ANSWER: a 570. Mr. and Mrs. Packwood are parents of an adult child who received a diagnosis of intellectual developmental disorder. It is most likely that their child ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice a. is unusually creative. b. received an intelligence test score between 80 and 100. c. was born with a missing chromosome. d. has difficulty adapting to the demands of independent adult life. ANSWER: d 571. Kiril, who has been diagnosed with intellectual developmental disorder, has never learned how to speak, read, or write. Which area of independent living is he having difficulties with? a. conceptual skills b. social skills c. verbal skills d. practical skills ANSWER: a 572. Mark has been diagnosed with intellectual developmental disorder and has difficulties following basic rules and laws. He also has poor interpersonal skills. Which area of independent living is he having difficulties with? a. conceptual skills b. social skills c. verbal skills d. practical skills ANSWER: b 573. Which of the following individuals clearly does NOT meet the criteria for a diagnosis of intellectual developmental disorder? a. 21-year-old Jack has Down syndrome and lives in a supervised residential treatment facility. b. Thomas has an IQ of 80 and is able to live on his own with some help from his family. c. 14-year-old Jujuan has extreme difficulty with language, cannot read, cannot follow basic rules, and needs help with his personal hygiene. d. 25-year-old Christine has an IQ of 65 and lives at home, where she receives much assistance with learning practical and social skills. ANSWER: b 574. A condition of mild to severe intellectual and physical severity caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21 is known as a. autism spectrum disorder. b. ADHD. c. Down syndrome. d. antisocial personality disorder. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com

575. Arlene is 3 years old and has an extra copy of chromosome 21. She has been diagnosed with the disorder Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice known as a. ADHD. b. Down syndrome. c. autism spectrum disorder. d. dissociative identity disorder. ANSWER: b 576. Andres does not understand that a friend's twinkling eyes mean happiness or mischief. Andres' difficulty would be especially common for those with a. a dissociative disorder. b. ADHD. c. a bipolar disorder. d. autism spectrum disorder. ANSWER: d 577. A disorder that appears in childhood involving deficiencies in communication, rigidly fixated interests, and repetitive behaviors is known as a. major depressive disorder. b. bipolar I disorder. c. generalized anxiety disorder. d. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. ANSWER: b 578. Because they look less at others' eyes and have difficulty inferring how others think different than they do, researchers are debating whether those with ASD have a. an empathizing tendency. b. a personality disorder. c. an impaired theory of mind. d. a systemizing tendency. ANSWER: c 579. People with autism spectrum disorder may have difficulty inferring others' thoughts and feelings. This is known as a. an exceptional skill in a specific area. b. an impaired theory of mind. c. an inability to pay attention for long periods. d. an absence of conceptual or social skills. ANSWER: b 580. Difficulty understanding that another's state of mind differs from their own is most closely associated with a. ADHD. ScholarFriends.com b. bipolar II disorder. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice c. panic disorder. d. autism spectrum disorder. ANSWER: d 581. Dom, who has autism spectrum disorder, likely has a. an impaired theory of mind. b. increased emotional intelligence. c. low impulsivity. d. reduced anxiety. ANSWER: a 582. Gregory looks less at others' eyes and has difficulty reading and remembering other people's thoughts and feelings. He likely is displaying characteristics of a. ADHD. b. bulimia nervosa. c. autism spectrum disorder. d. Down syndrome. ANSWER: c 583. Recent estimates indicate that almost ________ U.S. children are diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder. a. 1 in 10 b. 1 in 28 c. 1 in 54 d. 1 in 66 ANSWER: c 584. Estimates indicate that almost ________ children in Canada are diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder. a. 1 in 4 b. 1 in 12 c. 1 in 62 d. 1 in 100 ANSWER: c 585. Arnold has ASD. He has normal intelligence and is very talented when it comes to playing music. However, he struggles with social and communication skills and sometimes gets distracted by irrelevant environmental stimuli. Because ASD is a spectrum disorder, Arnold can be said to be a. underfunctioning. b. low-functioning. c. high-functioning. d. moderate-functioning. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 586. Psychologist Simon Baron-Cohen has argued that being a "systemizer" is characteristic of those with a. major depressive disorder. b. substance use disorder. c. a bipolar disorder. d. autism spectrum disorder. ANSWER: d 587. Psychologist Simon Baron-Cohen has proposed that autism spectrum disorder is characterized by an inborn a. female empathizing tendency. b. inattention and distractibility. c. self-focused personality. d. male systemizing tendency. ANSWER: d 588. Simon Baron-Cohen has suggested that ASD affects more boys than girls because girls are more naturally disposed to be ________, whereas boys are more naturally disposed to be ________. a. trusting; self-aware b. confrontive; coercive c. empathizers; systemizers d. idealists; realists ANSWER: c 589. Which of the following would provide support for the idea that people with ASD are "systemizers"? a. underconnectivity in the brains of people with ASD b. people in STEM fields' exhibiting of ASD-like traits c. females' skill at reading facial expressions and understanding others' feelings d. the fact that many genes appear to contribute to ASD ANSWER: b 590. People working in STEM fields are somewhat more likely than others to exhibit traits of a. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. b. autism spectrum disorder. c. generalized anxiety disorder. d. intellectual developmental disorder. ANSWER: b 591. Poor communication among brain regions that normally work together to enable one to take another's viewpoint is most clearly linked with ScholarFriends.com a. major depressive disorder. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice b. ADHD. c. antisocial personality disorder. d. autism spectrum disorder. ANSWER: d 592. Which of the following has been found to contribute to autism spectrum disorder? a. an empathizing tendency b. MMR vaccinations c. abnormal brain development d. hyperactivity ANSWER: c 593. Which of the following does NOT contribute to ASD? a. prenatal environment b. genes c. childhood vaccinations d. brain deficiencies ANSWER: c 594. Inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity are major symptoms of a. OCD. b. PTSD. c. ADHD. d. DSM. ANSWER: c 595. Joao finds it difficult to maintain his daily schedule of school homework. He frequently makes careless mistakes or fails to do his homework because he is easily distracted. Joao's behavior is most characteristic of a. antisocial personality disorder. b. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. c. generalized anxiety disorder. d. autism spectrum disorder. ANSWER: b 596. The fact that 9.4 percent of 2- to 17-year-old children and only 2.5 percent of adults meet the criteria for a diagnosis of ADHD may indicate that a. there is no such thing as ADHD. b. clinicians are inconsistent in how they diagnose ADHD. c. symptoms related to ADHD lessen as children grow into adulthood. d. there is too much controversy around the disorder. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 597. About ________ percent of 2- to 17-year-old children in the United States receive a diagnosis of ADHD. ADHD is diagnosed ________ often in girls than in boys. a. 4: less b. 18; more c. 9; less d. 7: more ANSWER: c 598. Those who are skeptical of the rise in ADHD diagnoses have most strongly emphasized that a. an increased use of stimulant drugs has increased the incidence of ADHD symptoms. b. today's more frequent diagnoses of ADHD reflect our increased awareness of the disorder. c. children by nature are not designed to sit for long hours in classroom settings. d. ADHD is a neurobiological disorder associated with abnormal brain functioning. ANSWER: c 599. Those who support the increase in ADHD diagnoses have most strongly emphasized that a. children are not designed to sit for hours in chairs inside. b. stimulant drugs calm hyperactivity and increase the ability to sit and focus. c. increased diagnoses of ADHD reflects an increased awareness of the disorder. d. psychological therapies help with the distress associated with ADHD. ANSWER: c 600. Which of the following disorders most often coexists with a learning disorder or with defiant and temperprone behavior? a. generalized anxiety disorder b. bulimia nervosa c. obsessive-compulsive disorder d. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder ANSWER: d 601. ADHD is often treated with the ________ drugs Ritalin and Adderall. a. opioid b. stimulant c. hunger-arousing d. sleep-inducing ANSWER: b

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 1. Reformers ________ and ________ started the transition to more humane treatment of those with psychological disorders. a. Sigmund Freud; Carl Rogers b. Philippe Pinel; Dorothea Dix c. Philippe Pinel; Sigmund Freud d. Aaron Beck; Dorothea Dix ANSWER: b 2. Unfortunately, increased homelessness and incarceration can partly be attributed to a. psychoanalysis. b. insight therapies. c. deinstitutionalization. d. psychotherapy. ANSWER: c 3. Psychotherapy is defined as a. therapy influenced by the psychoanalytic tradition that views individuals as responding to unconscious forces and childhood experiences. b. an approach that uses techniques from various forms of therapy. c. therapy that aims to improve psychological functioning by increasing a person's awareness of underlying motives and defenses. d. treatment involving psychological techniques that consists of interactions between a trained therapist and someone seeking to address psychological difficulties or achieve personal growth. ANSWER: d 4. Psychological disorders that can be overcome with techniques such as counterconditioning are most likely to be treated with a. free association. b. psychotherapy. c. person-centered therapy. d. psychoanalysis. ANSWER: b 5. Dr. Zander applies psychological techniques involving interactions between himself and his client, who seeks to overcome psychological difficulties. Dr. Zander is using a. family therapy. b. deep-brain stimulation. c. psychotherapy. d. biomedical therapy. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com

6. Dr. Tamar is a therapist who explores his client's early relationships. Based on what he learns, he encourages Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice the client to adopt new ways of thinking and behaving. Dr. Tamar is using a. biomedical therapy. b. behavior therapy. c. psychotherapy. d. electroconvulsive therapy. ANSWER: c 7. The treatment of serious psychological disorders with prescribed medications or medical procedures that directly influence the nervous system is called a. systematic desensitization. b. cognitive-behavioral therapy. c. psychodynamic therapy. d. biomedical therapy. ANSWER: d 8. Dr. Yang treats people with schizophrenia by prescribing antipsychotics or, in more serious cases, transcranial magnetic stimulation. The treatment being applied by Dr. Yu is called a. biomedical therapy. b. cognitive-behavioral therapy. c. psychoanalysis. d. person-centered therapy. ANSWER: a 9. Dr. Smith has prescribed an antianxiety drug to help his client reduce her fear of crowds. Dr. Smith is using a. biomedical therapy. b. insight therapy. c. psychotherapy. d. psychodynamic therapy. ANSWER: a 10. Mary is currently receiving treatment for a psychological disorder. She is not alone, as currently ________ Americans receive some form of mental health therapy. a. 1 in 3 b. 1 in 5 c. 1 in 7 d. 1 in 10 ANSWER: b 11. Although therapy often occurs in-person, people can receive treatment by phone or online via a. biomedical therapy. b. teletherapy. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice c. group therapy. d. active listening. ANSWER: b 12. An eclectic approach to psychotherapy is one that a. treats people with drugs. b. emphasizes the importance of free association. c. involves treatment in a group setting. d. uses techniques from various forms of therapy. ANSWER: d 13. Because it involves a blending of therapies, an eclectic approach to psychotherapy is also referred to as a. integrative. b. associative. c. psychodynamic. d. interpretive. ANSWER: d 14. Dr. Karkera, whose specialty is the treatment of people with somatic symptom disorders, uses techniques from several forms of therapy to treat his clients. Dr. Karkera is using a. psychoanalysis. b. person-centered therapy. c. an eclectic approach. d. cognitive-behavioral therapy. ANSWER: c 15. Dr. Shinde is a clinical psychologist who treats her clients with classical conditioning techniques; she also encourages them to reverse their self-defeating beliefs, and sometimes she interprets their resistances. Dr. Shinde's therapeutic approach would best be described as a. humanistic. b. psychoanalytic. c. behavioral. d. eclectic. ANSWER: d 16. The first major psychological therapy was introduced by a. Joseph Wolpe. b. Sigmund Freud. c. Aaron Beck. d. Carl Rogers. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 17. The first major psychological therapy was Sigmund Freud's a. cognitive therapy. b. psychodynamic therapy. c. psychoanalysis. d. biomedical therapy. ANSWER: c 18. ________ helped form the foundation for treating psychological disorders, and it continues to influence modern therapists working from the ________. a. Psychoanalysis; cognitive-behavioral perspective b. Person-centered therapy; psychodynamic perspective c. Cognitive-behavioral therapy; person-centered perspective d. Psychoanalysis; psychodynamic perspective ANSWER: d 19. Modern therapists working from the psychodynamic perspective are influenced by a. the humanistic perspective. b. Freud's psychoanalysis. c. the behaviorist perspective. d. the cognitive perspective. ANSWER: b 20. Helping people gain self-insight by getting them to release previously repressed feelings is a central aim of a. cognitive therapies. b. systematic desensitization. c. a token economy. d. psychoanalysis. ANSWER: d 21. The primary goal of psychoanalysis is to a. learn and reinforce more productive behaviors in place of maladaptive behaviors. b. bring unconscious conflicts to conscious awareness to help the person gain insight into those conflicts and resolve them. c. provide unconditional positive regard to the person seeking help. d. actively confront irrational thought patterns. ANSWER: b 22. According to Freud, when early experiences result in unresolved conflicts, these emotionally charged memories are ________ but can continue to influence a person's thoughts and behavior. a. discharged b. transferred ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice c. resisted d. repressed ANSWER: d 23. Dr. Gaunt is trying to help Helen understand her present problems by exploring her childhood experiences. According to ________, unearthing the past will loosen its hold on the present. a. counterconditioning b. psychoanalysis c. virtual reality d. humanistic therapy ANSWER: b 24. Mr. Matherson's analyst wants to help him become aware of his conflicting childhood feelings of love and hate for his parents. The analyst's goal best reflects a primary aim of a. person-centered therapy. b. cognitive therapy. c. psychoanalysis. d. systematic desensitization. ANSWER: c 25. Dr. Saunders is helping a client overcome his feelings of anxiety by addressing his repressed feelings from childhood. Dr. Saunders is clearly practicing a. psychoanalysis. b. cognitive therapy. c. an eclectic approach. d. psychotherapy. ANSWER: a 26. Psychoanalytic techniques are designed to help people become aware of their repressed conflicts and impulses. In other words, the analyst is helping them to ________ the origins of their disorders. a. analyze b. interpret c. free associate about d. gain insight into ANSWER: d 27. Which of the following approaches to therapy would most likely involve efforts to understand an adult's psychological disorder by exploring that person's childhood experiences? a. psychoanalysis b. behavior therapy c. humanistic therapy ScholarFriends.com d. cognitive therapy Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 28. In his early attempts to unearth his patient's past conflicts, Freud used ________ before turning to free association. a. active listening b. counterconditioning c. hypnosis d. unconditional positive regard ANSWER: c 29. A central therapeutic technique of psychoanalysis is a. progressive relaxation. b. systematic desensitization. c. active listening. d. free association. ANSWER: d 30. Freud's technique of free association involves a. a caring, accepting, and nonjudgmental attitude. b. having the patient relax, then say anything that comes to mind, no matter how trivial or embarrassing. c. empathic listening in which the listener echoes, restates and seeks clarification of the client's words. d. exposing people to the things they fear and avoid. ANSWER: b 31. Inga is describing for her analyst a recent difficult discussion with her parents. The analyst instructs her to close her eyes and talk about any thoughts related to this experience, even if they were nasty or embarrassing. The analyst was making use of a technique known as a. active listening. b. transference. c. systematic desensitization. d. free association. ANSWER: d 32. According to psychoanalysts, resistance refers to the a. expression toward a confidant of feelings linked with earlier relationships. b. blocking from consciousness of unpleasant or anxiety-laden material during therapy. c. replacement of a genuine concern for others with self-centeredness. d. conversion of psychological conflicts into physical and behavioral disorders. ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com

33. According to traditional psychoanalysis, when the person experiences blocks in the process of free Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice association, abruptly changes the topic being discussed, or suddenly goes silent, it probably signals a. insight. b. resistance. c. interpretation. d. transference. ANSWER: b 34. In which approach to therapy do psychotherapists expect that patients are often motivated to resist discussing anxiety-laden material? a. humanistic therapy b. psychoanalysis c. behavior therapy d. cognitive therapy ANSWER: b 35. During psychotherapy, Rafael would start to cough, then change the subject whenever he began discussing personally uncomfortable thoughts. Sigmund Freud would have been likely to interpret this stuttering as a. counterconditioning. b. progressive relaxation. c. transference. d. resistance. ANSWER: d 36. A psychoanalyst who notes the supposed meaning of a patient's dream in order to provide the patient with new insight is engaging in a. transference. b. interpretation. c. counterconditioning. d. free association. ANSWER: b 37. In psychoanalysis, an important component of the interpretation of resistance is a. active listening. b. dream analysis. c. unconditional positive regard. d. systematic desensitization. ANSWER: b 38. Jonah has been seeing a psychoanalyst for several months. The analyst feels that Jonah is now ready to hear his explanations of various resistances and dreams to help Jonah recognize unconscious conflicts and motivations. Jonah's analyst is using the psychoanalytic technique called ScholarFriends.com a. resistance. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice b. transference. c. systematic desensitization. d. interpretation. ANSWER: d 39. Vivienne is telling her analyst about a dream in which she stops her car just in time to avoid crashing into a tree. Vivienne's analyst suggests that the dream imagery reflects her desperate efforts to cope with her failing romantic relationship. The analyst's suggestion best illustrates the practice of a. transference. b. systematic desensitization. c. free association. d. interpretation. ANSWER: d 40. In psychoanalysis, the goal of the analyst's interpretation of dream meanings, resistances, and other significant behaviors is a. empathy and a nonjudgmental attitude. b. transference. c. unconditional positive regard. d. insight and growth. ANSWER: d 41. Transference refers to a patient's a. conversion of psychological conflicts into physical and behavioral disorders. b. expression toward a confidant of feelings linked with earlier life relationships. c. replacement of self-centeredness with a genuine concern for others. d. translation of threatening dream content into nonthreatening images. ANSWER: b 42. Antoine has begun to buy flowers and other gifts for his analyst, and he is jealous of the time she spends with her other patients. To a psychoanalyst, this is most indicative of a. unconditional positive regard. b. resistance. c. transference. d. free association. ANSWER: c 43. For the past two weeks, Mikhail has been saying nasty things to his analyst. Mikhail often responds in the same way to his parents. Mikhail is probably unconsciously experiencing a. resistance. b. transference. ScholarFriends.com c. free association. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice d. unconditional positive regard. ANSWER: b 44. Psychoanalysis is most likely to view patient transference as a. a symptom of depression. b. a sign of healthy personality development. c. a potential aid to the patient in developing insight. d. evidence that no further therapy is needed. ANSWER: c 45. Which form of therapy has been criticized for offering interpretations that cannot be proven or disproven? a. person-centered therapy b. psychoanalysis c. cognitive-behavioral therapy d. systematic desensitization ANSWER: b 46. Which of the following statements about psychoanalysis is FALSE? a. Traditional psychoanalysis is a slow therapeutic process that may last for years. b. It is a myth that Sigmund Freud's patients lie on a couch during psychoanalytical sessions. c. Psychoanalysis places importance on understanding one's dreams. d. Free association is a major technique. ANSWER: b 47. Psychoanalysis would most likely involve discouraging patients from a. experiencing strong positive or negative feelings for their analyst. b. discontinuing psychotherapy whenever they felt it was no longer necessary. c. talking about anxiety-arousing material during therapy. d. talking about whatever comes to mind. ANSWER: b 48. Psychodynamic therapy is ________ than traditional psychoanalysis. a. less effective b. briefer c. more expensive d. less commonly used ANSWER: b 49. Psychodynamic therapy differs from psychoanalysis in all of the following ways EXCEPT that a. clients meet with their therapist face-to-face in person, over the phone, or online. ScholarFriends.com b. client-therapist sessions occur weekly rather than several times per week. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice c. it is more expensive than psychoanalysis. d. therapist might prescribe antidepressants rather than cocaine. ANSWER: c 50. Psychodynamic therapy techniques involve efforts to understand people's current thoughts and feelings by focusing on recurring patterns in a. important relationships and events. b. sexual dysfunctions. c. their eating habits and drug use. d. their self-blaming explanations. ANSWER: a 51. Which form of therapy would most likely help people recognize and work through the difficulties in their relationship patterns? a. systematic desensitization b. psychodynamic therapy c. humanistic therapy d. cognitive therapy ANSWER: b 52. Ruth has developed hateful feelings toward her best friend. Her therapist is helping her to understand how her feelings reflect childhood relationships. The therapist's goal is most clearly consistent with the aims of a. psychodynamic therapy. b. behavior therapy. c. biomedical therapy. d. person-centered therapy. ANSWER: a 53. Freja's past relationships with her parents, her last romantic partner, and her boss have been characterized by common patterns of nastiness and insecurity. Helping Freja to gain insight into these recurring relationship patterns would be of greatest concern during the process of a. behavior modification. b. systematic desensitization. c. psychodynamic therapy. d. biomedical therapy. ANSWER: c 54. One ________ therapist observed that people can have both loving and hateful feelings toward the same person, and that people can desire something and also fear it. a. behavior b. psychodynamic ScholarFriends.com c. humanistic Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice d. cognitive ANSWER: b 55. An analyst wants to help Olivia recognize her mixed feelings of love and hate for her best friend and to realize that she often experienced similar feelings for her sisters and brothers during their childhood. The analyst's goal is most clearly consistent with the aims of a. psychodynamic therapy. b. behavior therapy. c. biomedical therapy. d. person-centered therapy. ANSWER: a 56. Helping people gain perspective on thoughts and feelings they seem to be defending against is a major goal of a. systematic desensitization. b. psychodynamic therapy. c. a token economy. d. cognitive therapy. ANSWER: b 57. One psychodynamic therapist reported helping a client to realize that he couldn't say "I love you" to his wife because it would feel soft and unmanly, he was in effect a. exposing the client's unconscious conflicts. b. inoculating the client against future conflicts. c. introducing the client to himself. d. counterconditioning the client. ANSWER: c 58. Insight therapies aim to improve psychological functioning by a. discouraging people from using antidepressant drugs. b. using progressive relaxation to reduce anxiety. c. increasing a person's awareness of underlying motives and defenses. d. using personality tests to accurately diagnose the person's difficulties. ANSWER: c 59. Mihaela's therapist focuses on helping her to grow in self-awareness and self-acceptance. Her therapist practices which type of therapy? a. behavior modification b. systematic desensitization c. psychodynamic therapy d. humanistic therapy ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 60. Unlike psychodynamic therapists, humanistic therapists tend to focus on the ________ more than the ________. a. present; future b. past; present c. present; past d. past; future ANSWER: c 61. Humanistic therapists are likely to teach clients to a. focus more on other people's feelings than on their own. b. adapt more readily to social norms and expectations. c. imitate the behavior of others who are happy and successful. d. take immediate responsibility for their current feelings and actions. ANSWER: d 62. The humanistic perspective emphasizes a. helping people grow in self-awareness and self-acceptance. b. unconscious motives and conflicts. c. the use of reinforcement and punishment in shaping behavior. d. the use of aversive conditioning. ANSWER: a 63. Both psychoanalysis and person-centered therapy stress a. the importance of insight and increased self-understanding. b. learning new conditioned responses that are incompatible with previously learned responses. c. the importance of determining an accurate baseline measurement for the incidence of problem behaviors. d. the importance of focusing on past relationships and social interactions rather than on present experiences. ANSWER: a 64. Person-centered therapy was developed by a. Aaron Beck. b. Joseph Wolpe. c. Albert Ellis. d. Carl Rogers. ANSWER: d 65. Person-centered therapy is also referred to as a. nondirective therapy. ScholarFriends.com b. the psychodynamic perspective. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice c. active listening. d. counterconditioning. ANSWER: a 66. In nondirective therapy, such as Rogers' person-centered therapy, the therapist a. uses free association to enable patients to talk about anything on their mind. b. listens, without judging or interpreting, and allows the client to direct the session. c. pairs a fear response with a new response that is incompatible with fear. d. helps people change their mind with new, more constructive ways of perceiving and interpreting events. ANSWER: b 67. Instead of focusing on unconscious thoughts and impulses, ________ therapies focus on conscious thoughts and self-perceptions. a. behavior b. humanistic c. biomedical d. psychodynamic ANSWER: b 68. Which therapeutic approach relies most heavily on clients discovering their own ways of effectively dealing with their difficulties? a. psychoanalysis b. cognitive therapy c. systematic desensitization d. person-centered therapy ANSWER: d 69. During Lina's therapy sessions, her therapist listens, without judging or interpreting. She also refrains from directing Lina toward certain insights. This therapy, which focuses on the person's conscious self-perceptions, is considered to be a. nondirective. b. diagnostic. c. systematic. d. behavioral. ANSWER: a 70. Carl Rogers encouraged therapists to foster client growth by exhibiting a. resistance, transference, and interpretation. b. insight, progressive relaxation, and adaptive habits. c. acceptance, genuineness, and empathy. ScholarFriends.com d. self-awareness, self-acceptance, and self-fulfillment. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 71. According to Rogers, by engaging in ________, therapists may help clients feel freer and more open to change. a. acceptance b. genuineness c. empathy d. sympathy ANSWER: a 72. Dr. Strapp's client feels as though she can tell him anything without being judged or criticized. As a result, his client is more open to change. Dr. Strapp appears to have done well at expressing a. genuineness. b. acceptance. c. empathy. d. interpretation. ANSWER: b 73. Carl Rogers encouraged person-centered therapists to ________ during the process of therapy. a. clearly communicate their diagnosis of a client's disorder b. genuinely express their own true feelings c. explain the immediate causes of a client's difficulties d. make a list of situations that trigger the client's anxiety ANSWER: b 74. Giulia's person-centered therapist openly and honestly shares her own feelings during their sessions. Giulia's therapist is a. modeling genuineness in a way that encourages Giulia to also express herself in an open and honest way. b. fostering countertransference so that Giulia will understand the difficulties of being a therapist. c. using systematic desensitization so that Giulia understands that all people have problems. d. trying to counteract Giulia's negative cognitive bias. ANSWER: a 75. Empathic understanding of the client's subjective experiences is a major goal of a. psychoanalysis. b. biomedical therapy. c. person-centered therapy. d. behavior therapy. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com

76. Dr. McLucas is listening to her client describe a negative event she remembers from her childhood. By Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice understanding her client's unhappy feelings about the incident and reflecting them, Dr. McLucas is demonstrating a. genuineness. b. acceptance. c. empathy. d. interpretation. ANSWER: c 77. Echoing, restating, and asking for clarification of what a client expresses is most central to the process of a. systematic desensitization. b. counterconditioning. c. free association. d. active listening. ANSWER: d 78. An important feature of person-centered therapy is a. systematic desensitization. b. transference. c. free association. d. active listening. ANSWER: d 79. Calphus tells his therapist, "I can't shake feelings that something bad is about to happen." The therapist answers, "It sounds like you're feeling you need some help. Am I right?" The therapist's response illustrates the technique of a. transference. b. free association. c. active listening. d. systematic desensitization. ANSWER: c 80. During a marriage counseling session, the therapist suggests to Mr. and Mrs. Bachman that they each restate their spouse's comments before making their own. The therapist was applying a technique most closely associated with a. psychoanalysis. b. cognitive-behavioral therapy. c. systematic desensitization. d. person-centered therapy. ANSWER: d 81. Carl Rogers referred to a caring, accepting,ScholarFriends.com and nonjudgmental attitude as a. active listening. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice b. free association. c. unconditional positive regard. d. positive reinforcement. ANSWER: c 82. Dr. Amaro is a person-centered therapist and strives to provide unconditional positive regard to her clients. Which of the following is NOT something she should do? a. paraphrase what her client's say b. interpret what her client's say to her c. invite clarification of her clients' statements d. reflect her clients' feelings ANSWER: b 83. Ryder's parents have agreed to let him live with them while he pursues his dream of becoming an actor, even though they were disappointed that he had not chosen to become a lawyer as they had hoped. According to Carl Rogers, Ryder's parents are withholding a. unconditional positive regard. b. empathic understanding. c. counterconditioning. d. transference. ANSWER: a 84. Arran's therapist is nonjudgmental and supportive of him even when Arran reveals some of his questionable motives and less-than-admirable personality traits. The psychotherapist most clearly is demonstrating a. an eclectic approach. b. free association. c. systematic desensitization. d. unconditional positive regard. ANSWER: d 85. Considering Carl Rogers' views about therapy, which of the following is NOT something that can be used to improve interpersonal communication? a. summarize what the other person has said b. seek clarification of the person's statements c. reflect on the feelings of the other person d. focus on the problem behaviors of the other person ANSWER: d 86. The healing power of insight and self-awareness is LEAST likely to be emphasized by a. cognitive therapies. b. psychodynamic therapy. ScholarFriends.com c. behavior therapies. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice d. humanistic therapies. ANSWER: c 87. The basic assumption of behavior therapy is that a. faulty patterns of thinking are producing the current difficulties. b. problem behaviors are the problems. c. every family has unspoken rules of interaction and communication that have contributed to the current difficulties. d. the therapist must be nondirective and provide the client with unconditional positive regard and empathic understanding. ANSWER: b 88. Regina has a fear of wasps. Her therapy is designed to replace fear with calm when Regina sees a wasp. Regina's therapist is applying ________ therapy. a. behavior b. humanistic c. cognitive d. psychodynamic ANSWER: a 89. Psychological research on the principles of learning has most directly influenced the development of a. behavior therapies. b. humanistic therapies. c. psychodynamic therapy. d. cognitive therapies. ANSWER: a 90. One cluster of behavior therapies draw on principles developed in a. classical conditioning. b. humanistic psychology. c. positive psychology. d. psychoanalysis. ANSWER: a 91. Some behavior therapies are based on classical conditioning principles developed by a. B. F. Skinner. b. Carl Rogers. c. Ivan Pavlov. d. Aaron Beck. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com

92. If a fear of cats generalizes, and all cats become ________, a specific phobia may develop. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice a. unconditioned stimuli b. conditioned stimuli c. unconditioned responses d. conditioned responses ANSWER: b 93. In classical conditioning therapies, maladaptive symptoms would most likely be considered to be a. unconditioned stimuli. b. conditioned stimuli. c. unconditioned responses. d. conditioned responses. ANSWER: d 94. Dr. Costellese's client has a fear of going to the doctor, so Dr. Costellese repeatedly paired the sight of a needle that triggered a learned fear response with the taste of chocolate that triggered an unlearned sense of pleasure. Dr. Costellese was most clearly using a technique involving a. unconditional positive regard. b. a token economy. c. classical conditioning. d. free association. ANSWER: c 95. The learning theorist who, believing that unwanted responses could be explained by conditioning, developed a successful conditioning therapy for chronic bed-wetting was a. Mary Cover Jones. b. O. H. Mowrer. c. Ivan Pavlov. d. Joseph Wolpe. ANSWER: b 96. In one treatment for bed-wetting, the child sleeps on a liquid-sensitive pad that when wet, triggers an alarm and awakens the child. This treatment is a form of a. biomedical therapy. b. cognitive therapy. c. behavior therapy. d. humanistic therapy. ANSWER: c 97. Which of the following is a technique that has been used to help people unlearn fear responses? a. person-centered therapy b. psychodynamic therapies ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice c. psychoanalysis d. counterconditioning ANSWER: d 98. A procedure that trains people to make new responses to stimuli that currently trigger unwanted responses is called a. free association. b. transference. c. counterconditioning. d. unconditional positive regard. ANSWER: c 99. Who was the first behavioral psychologist to use exposure therapy? a. Mary Cover Jones b. Ivan Pavlov c. Aaron Beck d. Albert Ellis ANSWER: a 100. Mary Cover Jones was able to replace 3-year-old Peter's fear of rabbits by a. using unconditional positive acceptance and empathic understanding. b. having him don a head-mounted display unit that projected images of rabbits. c. replacing his fear with a relaxed state that cannot coexist with fear. d. using operant conditioning techniques such as reinforcement. ANSWER: c 101. According to Mary Cover Jones, 3-year-old Peter lost his fear of rabbits when one was repeatedly presented while he was eating his midafternoon snack. This episode best illustrated the potential usefulness of a. cognitive therapy. b. exposure therapies. c. free association. d. transference. ANSWER: b 102. Kyan's parents try to reduce his fear of enclosed spaces by giving the 5-year-old his favorite toy as soon as they're in an elevator. The parents' strategy best illustrates a. counterconditioning. b. cognitive therapy. c. transference. d. dialectical behavior therapy. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 103. Two counterconditioning techniques for replacing unwanted responses are a. systematic desensitization and free association. b. dialectical behavior therapy and psychoanalysis. c. unconditional positive regard and transference. d. aversive conditioning and exposure therapy. ANSWER: d 104. Reducing person's anxiety by having them repeatedly experience in safe settings the things they fear and often avoid is most central to a. a token economy. b. exposure therapies. c. free association. d. aversive conditioning. ANSWER: b 105. Joseph Wolpe refined the counterconditioning procedures first introduced by a. Mary Cover Jones. b. Ivan Pavlov. c. Aaron Beck. d. Albert Ellis. ANSWER: a 106. Joseph Wolpe is best known for promoting the development of a. dialectical behavior therapy. b. exposure therapies. c. aversive conditioning. d. psychodynamic therapy. ANSWER: b 107. Which of the following is a type of exposure therapy? a. psychodynamic therapy b. a token economy c. systematic desensitization d. person-centered therapy ANSWER: c 108. Vinny has been diagnosed with PTSD and is undergoing exposure therapy for treatment. For therapy to be most effective, Vinny will need a. high self-esteem. b. good interpretation skills. ScholarFriends.com c. to avoid transference. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice d. supportive family and friends. ANSWER: d 109. Systematic desensitization is a form of ________, which is a type of ________. a. transference; dialectical behavior therapy b. active listening; biomedical therapy c. free association; cognitive therapy d. counterconditioning; behavior therapy ANSWER: d 110. A token economy is to operant conditioning as ________ is to classical conditioning. a. systematic desensitization b. active listening c. free association d. catastrophizing ANSWER: a 111. Systematic desensitization involves a. depriving a client access to an addictive drug. b. associating unwanted behaviors with unpleasant experiences. c. replacing a positive response to a harmful stimulus with a negative response. d. associating a pleasant, relaxed state with anxiety-arousing stimuli. ANSWER: d 112. Systematic desensitization is based on the idea that ________ in fear-provoking situations can gradually eliminate anxiety. a. self-awareness b. free association c. relaxation d. active listening ANSWER: c 113. Progressive relaxation is a technique used in a. biomedical therapy. b. systematic desensitization. c. counterconditioning. d. insight therapy. ANSWER: b 114. Releasing tension in one muscle group after another until one achieves a completely relaxed state of comfort is called ________ relaxation. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice a. simulated b. systematic c. progressive d. unconditional ANSWER: c 115. Jon is afraid to ask Bob to go out with him, so his therapist instructs him to relax, close his eyes, and simply imagine he is reaching for his cell phone and then calling him. The therapist's technique best illustrates the process of a. dialectical behavior therapy. b. transference. c. cognitive therapy. d. systematic desensitization. ANSWER: d 116. In systematic desensitization, the therapist helps the person to create a(n) ________, in which the person rank-orders the increasing levels of fear they experience. a. relaxation plan b. token economy c. anxiety hierarchy d. dialectic ANSWER: c 117. The process of systematic desensitization is most likely to require clients to a. use free association to extinguish their fears. b. construct a list of anxiety-triggering situations. c. take more personal responsibility for self-defeating behaviors. d. associate unwanted behaviors with unpleasant feelings. ANSWER: b 118. Gabriel is so afraid of being interviewed for a job that he experiences mild anxiety when calling to schedule an interview, intense anxiety when entering the future employer's office, and extreme anxiety during the interview. His greatest fear, however, is experienced while waiting to be called into the employer's office. During the process of systematically desensitizing his anxiety, the therapist is likely to ask Gabriel first to imagine a. being interviewed. b. waiting to be called into the employer's office. c. entering the future employer's office. d. calling for an appointment. ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com

119. The classical conditioning technique that treats anxiety through creative electronic simulations in which Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice people can safely face their greatest fears is called a. systematic desensitization. b. behavior modification. c. person-centered therapy. d. virtual reality exposure therapy. ANSWER: d 120. Andre's therapist uses a counterconditioning technique that is especially helpful when it is too expensive, difficult, or risky to re-create the anxiety-arousing situation. This technique is called a. virtual reality exposure therapy. b. a token economy. c. free association. d. aversive conditioning. ANSWER: a 121. Virtual reality exposure therapy is most similar to a. dialectical behavior therapy. b. aversive conditioning. c. systematic desensitization. d. transference. ANSWER: c 122. Helena is afraid of flying. Which form of therapy may be used to create a flying experience in a costeffective and easy-to-implement way? a. virtual reality exposure therapy b. aversive conditioning c. cognitive-behavioral therapy d. family therapy ANSWER: a 123. Recent research has found that people treated with ________ have experienced significant relief from reallife fear and social anxiety. a. antidepressant medications b. virtual reality exposure therapy c. psychosurgery d. therapeutic lifestyle change ANSWER: b 124. In which form of therapy is unwanted behavior systematically associated with unpleasant experiences? a. virtual reality exposure therapy b. systematic desensitization ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice c. cognitive therapy d. aversive conditioning ANSWER: d 125. Systematic desensitization involves replacing a negative response to a harmless stimulus with a positive response, whereas ________ involves replacing a positive response to a harmful stimulus with a negative response. a. transference b. operant conditioning c. aversive conditioning d. free association ANSWER: c 126. In treating alcohol use disorder, therapists have clients consume alcohol that contains a nausea-producing drug. This technique is known as a. operant conditioning. b. systematic desensitization. c. aversive conditioning. d. transference. ANSWER: c 127. To help Veronica quit biting her nails, a therapist coats her nails with terrible-tasting nail polish. The therapist is using a. aversive conditioning. b. systematic desensitization. c. cognitive-behavioral therapy. d. transference. ANSWER: a 128. Loel is trying e-cigarettes to help him quit smoking real cigarettes. However, he is now addicted to vaping. To reduce his appetite for vaping, a behavior therapist would most likely use a. free association. b. transference. c. systematic desensitization. d. aversive conditioning. ANSWER: d 129. In a therapeutic setting, a client who wants to cure his alcohol use disorder is given alcoholic drinks laced with a nausea-producing drug. Yet, outside the therapist's office the client knows they can drink alcohol without fear of nausea. This awareness contributes to the limited effectiveness of a. transference. ScholarFriends.com b. aversive conditioning. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice c. person-centered therapy. d. progressive relaxation. ANSWER: b 130. The practice of behavior modification is based on the application of________ principles. a. cognitive-behavioral b. classical conditioning c. free association d. operant conditioning ANSWER: d 131. Reinforcing desired behaviors and withholding reinforcement for undesired behaviors is most central to the process of a. classical conditioning. b. free association. c. behavior modification. d. progressive relaxation. ANSWER: c 132. Which of the following is the best description of behavior modification? a. People are asked to construct a list of anxiety-triggering situations. b. People's actions are influenced by controlling the consequences of those actions. c. What a client says during the course of therapy is repeated or rephrased. d. Attention is focused on clients' positive and negative feelings toward their therapists. ANSWER: b 133. Children with autism spectrum disorder have learned to interact successfully with the use of ________ techniques. a. operant conditioning b. dialectical behavior therapy c. double-blind d. aversive conditioning ANSWER: a 134. Praising socially withdrawn children when they make eye contact with others and ignoring them after a temper tantrum best illustrates an application of a. cognitive therapy. b. psychodynamic therapy. c. operant conditioning. d. unconditional positive regard. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 135. Therapists apply ________ by using positive reinforcers to reward behaviors that come closer and closer to the desired behaviors. a. free association b. progressive relaxation c. behavior modification d. unconditional positive regard ANSWER: c 136. Andrew is a 6-year-old with ASD who is socially inhibited. Which of the following could be used to teach him how to interact with other people? a. shaping b. a token economy c. repression d. insight ANSWER: a 137. Children with intellectual developmental disorder have been taught to care for themselves using a. operant conditioning. b. psychoanalysis. c. insight therapy. d. classical conditioning. ANSWER: a 138. Pablo is trying to get his 4-year-old son to stop crying when it is time for bed. He wants to reinforce him for not crying. Which of the following would best serve as a successful reinforcer for Pablo's son? a. money b. promising to take him to Florida next spring c. letting him stay up later when he doesn't cry d. reading a book of his choice while he is in bed ANSWER: d 139. A token economy represents an application of the principles of a. operant conditioning. b. systematic desensitization. c. humanistic therapy. d. classical conditioning. ANSWER: a 140. A token economy is an operant conditioning procedure in which a. positive reinforcers are given for desired behaviors. b. an unwanted behavior is associated withScholarFriends.com unpleasant feelings. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice c. a pleasant, relaxed state is associated with gradually increasing anxiety-triggering stimuli. d. the therapist provides the client with unconditional positive regard. ANSWER: a 141. Mrs. Deiss is in a home for people with schizophrenia. One of her symptoms is what is known as word salad; that is, her sentences often make no sense at all. To help her talk meaningfully, institutional staff members give her tokens whenever she vocalizes a sensible sentence. She can then exchange those tokens for TV time or a day trip. Staff members are making use of a. active listening. b. systematic desensitization. c. a token economy. d. classical conditioning. ANSWER: c 142. Systematic desensitization is to classical conditioning as ________ is to operant conditioning. a. aversive conditioning b. a token economy c. free association d. active listening ANSWER: b 143. The assumption that thoughts intervene between events and our emotional reactions is most clearly central to a. progressive relaxation. b. cognitive therapies. c. behavior modification. d. exposure therapies. ANSWER: b 144. Which therapeutic approach emphasizes that people are often disturbed because of their negative interpretations of events? a. person-centered therapy b. systematic desensitization c. cognitive therapy d. aversive conditioning ANSWER: c 145. Cognitive therapies would be most likely to encourage clients with major depressive disorder to a. carefully observe the negative consequences of their depression. b. take more personal responsibility for their own negative feelings and actions. c. stop blaming themselves for negative circumstances beyond their control. ScholarFriends.com d. identify a list of anxiety-arousing situations. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 146. Cognitive therapies help people break out of depression's vicious cycle by a. developing behaviors that are more likely to be rewarded. b. achieving self-acceptance and self-fulfillment. c. recognizing the repressed conflicts of their childhood. d. adopting new and healthier ways of perceiving and interpreting events. ANSWER: b 147. Mr. Horton's wife passed away several years ago. He remains unable to go on with his life because of feelings of guilt and sadness. To reduce Mr. Horton's depression, a therapist is actively encouraging him to stop blaming himself for not being able to prevent his wife's death. The therapist's approach is most representative of a. systematic desensitization. b. psychodynamic therapy. c. cognitive therapy. d. person-centered therapy. ANSWER: c 148. Aaron Beck developed a ________ therapy in which he challenged people's automatic negative thoughts. a. behavior b. cognitive c. person-centered d. biomedical ANSWER: b 149. Beck believed that challenging people's automatic negative thoughts could be therapeutic. This view formed the basis of his ________ therapy, which assumes that changing people's thinking can change their functioning. a. cognitive b. biomedical c. humanistic d. insight ANSWER: a 150. In his cognitive therapy, Beck uses gentle questioning to reveal ________and then to persuade people to reduce their ________. a. senseless talking; positive symptoms b. irrational thinking; negative bias c. daily stresses; suicidal thoughts d. hidden conflicts; delusions ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 151. Chacko is in his second year of college. He feels so inept that he believes his life is worthless and hopeless. Chacko would profit the most from a. Jones' counterconditioning. b. Wolpe's exposure therapy. c. Beck's cognitive therapy. d. Freud's psychoanalysis. ANSWER: c 152. The relentless rehearsal of overgeneralized, self-blaming thoughts by depressed clients is called a. aversive conditioning. b. catastrophizing. c. systematic desensitization. d. transference. ANSWER: b 153. Training people to actively dispute their own self-defeating ideas best illustrates a. psychoanalysis. b. behavior therapy. c. cognitive therapy. d. person-centered therapy. ANSWER: c 154. Cognitive therapy for the treatment of depression is most likely to focus on helping people to a. associate unwanted behaviors with unpleasant experiences. b. replace negative self-talk with more positive comments. c. associate a pleasant relaxed state with anxiety-arousing stimuli. d. use free association to extinguish distressing emotions. ANSWER: b 155. As part of her therapy, Breanna is learning how to restructure her thinking when under stressful situations. Breanna is experiencing a. aversive conditioning. b. virtual reality exposure therapy. c. cognitive therapy. d. counterconditioning. ANSWER: c 156. Cristina's best friend, Alane, told her that she no longer wants to be friends. According to cognitive therapists, which "self-talk" would allow her to best handle the loss? a. "I will never find another friend as good as Alane." b. "I am unlovable, I don't blame her for not wanting to be friends." ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice c. "I am totally responsible for Alane's decision." d. "I am sad, but I guess it was not meant to be. I will grow from this experience." ANSWER: d 157. Research has found that learning how to "talk back" to negative thoughts can actually reduce a. depression. b. anxiety. c. both depression and anxiety. d. neither depression nor anxiety. ANSWER: c 158. Research that has concluded that being able to "talk back" to negative thoughts reduces depression and anxiety supports the basic premise of the a. humanistic therapies. b. behavior therapies. c. psychodynamic therapies. d. cognitive therapies. ANSWER: d 159. Which form of therapy most directly encourages clients to question their reasoning, decatastrophize their thinking, and reattribute responsibility for past outcomes? a. humanistic therapy b. behavior therapy c. cognitive therapy d. psychodynamic therapy ANSWER: c 160. Dr. Stranks wants to motive his client to change his thinking from "I am a total failure at completing the life-saving exercises needed to become a lifeguard" to "I was unable to complete some of the life-saving exercises but I can spend a little more time working on them so I can succeed next time." This technique is used in a. psychoanalysis. b. cognitive therapy. c. person-centered therapy. d. a token economy. ANSWER: b 161. Which of the following is NOT a directive used by a cognitive therapist who is attempting to get clients to test their beliefs? a. explore difficult situations and assess possible consequences b. challenge faulty reasoning ScholarFriends.com c. give unconditional positive regard to clients and accept all of their feelings and thoughts Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice d. work through the actual worst-case consequences of the situation they may face ANSWER: c 162. Talia's therapist teaches her to change her habit of total self-blame and negative thinking, while noting behaviors for which she may be truly responsible, as well as aspects that aren't her responsibility. With these techniques, the therapist is aiming to get Talia to a. test her beliefs. b. experience unconditional positive regard. c. reveal her beliefs. d. change her beliefs. ANSWER: d 163. Carlann tends to view every comment about her appearance as a criticism. Her therapist suggests that she question her assumptions and rank her thoughts and emotions from mildly to extremely upsetting. The goal of these cognitive therapy techniques is to get Carlann to a. test his beliefs. b. experience unconditional positive regard. c. reveal his beliefs. d. change his beliefs. ANSWER: c 164. An integrative therapy that aims to modify both self-defeating thinking and maladaptive actions is known as a. a token economy. b. person-centered therapy. c. psychoanalysis. d. cognitive-behavioral therapy. ANSWER: d 165. Cognitive-behavioral therapy is a(n) ________ therapy that combines changing self-defeating thinking with changing behavior. a. token b. person-centered c. integrative d. stress inoculation ANSWER: c 166. In one classic study, people with obsessive-compulsive disorder were taught to attribute their compulsive urges to abnormal brain functioning. Instead of giving in to an urge, they participated in an enjoyable alternative activity that engaged other parts of the brain. This strategy for dealing with their difficulty best illustrates a. systematic desensitization. ScholarFriends.com b. cognitive-behavioral therapy. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice c. biomedical therapy. d. psychodynamic therapy. ANSWER: b 167. Mariana frequently becomes anxious for no apparent reason. Her therapist suggests that she should attribute her anxiety to her highly reactive nervous system and shift her attention to playing with her pet dog. This suggestion best illustrates a. systematic desensitization. b. cognitive-behavioral therapy. c. person-centered therapy. d. psychodynamic therapy. ANSWER: b 168. Which of the following is NOT one of the disorders that research has found to be effectively treated by cognitive-behavioral therapy? a. anxiety b. OCD and related disorders c. PTSD d. autism spectrum disorder ANSWER: d 169. The therapy that helps change harmful and even suicidal behavior patterns is a. psychodynamic therapy. b. person-centered therapy. c. systematic desensitization. d. dialectical behavior therapy. ANSWER: d 170. Dialectical behavior therapy is a form of a. person-centered therapy. b. exposure therapy. c. cognitive-behavioral therapy. d. systematic desensitization. ANSWER: c 171. Providing strategies that support the need for both self-acceptance and self-change is most clearly emphasized by a. psychodynamic therapy. b. person-centered therapy. c. systematic desensitization. d. dialectical behavior therapy. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 172. Thiago's therapist is helping him to tolerate the distress he feels after losing his job because of the COVID pandemic and helping him to develop effective strategies for reducing unnecessary feelings of anger. The therapist's approach best illustrates a. dialectical behavior therapy. b. virtual reality exposure therapy. c. person-centered therapy. d. psychodynamic therapy. ANSWER: a 173. Acceptance and commitment therapy, which is a variation of ________, effectively treats depression and anxiety. a. virtual reality exposure therapy b. psychoanalysis c. aversive conditioning d. cognitive-behavioral therapy ANSWER: d 174. Mariana's therapist is helping her learn to accept her feelings and commit to actions that are more consistent with her life values. The therapist's acceptance and commitment therapy is a form of a. cognitive-behavioral therapy. b. humanistic therapy. c. person-centered therapy. d. psychodynamic therapy. ANSWER: a 175. Which form of psychotherapy is LEAST likely to occur in therapist-led small groups? a. person-centered therapy b. psychoanalysis c. systematic desensitization d. cognitive therapy ANSWER: b 176. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of group therapy? a. It saves therapists' time and clients' money. b. It offers an opportunity to explore social behaviors and develop social skills. c. It enables people to see that others share their problems. d. It discourages clients from trying out new ways of behaving. ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com

177. Group therapy is typically more effective than individual therapy for Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice a. encouraging severely disturbed individuals to quickly regain normal social functioning. b. enabling people to discover that others have problems similar to their own. c. ensuring that therapists will become more emotionally involved in clients' real-life problems. d. eliminating clients' anxiety during the process of therapy. ANSWER: b 178. Jacquelyne has been diagnosed with an eating disorder and goes to a group therapy session each week. She finds this form of therapy helpful. This is likely because it a. can be quite costly for her. b. involves systematic desensitization and active listening techniques. c. provides an environment in which the therapist can work with her individually and provide unconditional positive regard. d. enables her to see that others have similar experiences and feelings. ANSWER: d 179. Carmen experiences both anxiety and depression. She meets once a week with a therapist and a small group of people who also experience anxiety and depression. Carmen is engaging in a. family therapy. b. humanistic therapy. c. behavior therapy. d. group therapy. ANSWER: d 180. Marvin and Sylvia have been married for 20 years and are undergoing couples therapy. They hope that this will enable them to a. explore social behaviors and develop social skills. b. understand and work through unhealthy emotions and communication patterns. c. see that others share their problems. d. attribute their problems to biological causes. ANSWER: b 181. Which form of therapy is most likely to emphasize the importance of examining a person's role within a social system? a. cognitive therapy b. psychoanalysis c. family therapy d. person-centered therapy ANSWER: c 182. Which form of therapy provides feedback as clients try out new ways of behaving? a. cognitive therapy ScholarFriends.com b. psychoanalysis Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice c. group therapy d. person-centered therapy ANSWER: c 183. To help Mrs. Tebbeb overcome alcohol use disorder, her therapist first attempted to learn whether her drinking was somehow a reaction to her husband's behavior. The therapist's concern is most likely to be characteristic of a a. psychoanalyst. b. family therapist. c. person-centered therapist. d. biomedical therapist. ANSWER: b 184. Which of the following is a benefit of family therapy? a. It highlights the emotional conflicts among family members. b. It helps the children develop social skills. c. It helps family members understand and build healthier and more supportive family interactions. d. It provides relief to family members, who see that others share their problems. ANSWER: c 185. People often enter psychotherapy during a period of crisis in their lives. This helps us understand why they a. prefer behavior therapies over other forms of treatment. b. seldom block anxiety-laden thoughts from consciousness. c. tend to overestimate the effectiveness of their psychotherapy. d. claim to receive the most effective treatment from highly experienced clinicians. ANSWER: c 186. Which of the following is NOT a reason that clients tend to say they are satisfied with their therapy? a. Because they have improved, they need to attribute their improvement to the therapy. b. Even if the problems remain, they want to say something positive about their therapist. c. They want to believe the therapy was worth the effort. d. The problems remain, and they need to find a new therapist. ANSWER: d 187. The placebo effect refers to a. relief from symptoms without psychotherapy. b. relieving depression and anxiety by means of aerobic exercise. c. the use of drugs in the treatment of psychological disorders. d. the beneficial consequences of merely expecting that a treatment will be effective. ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 188. Mrs. Hoover mistakenly believed that filling out a questionnaire in which she identified and explained her problems was a treatment for her anxiety. Her immediate relief from several symptoms following the interview best illustrates a. a randomized clinical trial. b. evidence-based practice. c. transference. d. the placebo effect. ANSWER: d 189. Psychologists call a client's need to believe that therapy was worth the time and money a. a therapeutic alliance. b. confirmation bias. c. effort justification. d. the placebo effect. ANSWER: c 190. Alejxandra attended therapy sessions for 6 months and a lot of money in an effort to achieve positive cognitive and behavioral changes. Which of the following factors is most likely to lead her to exaggerate the effectiveness of her psychotherapy? a. evidence-based practice b. counterconditioning c. randomized clinical trials d. effort justification ANSWER: d 191. Clinicians' perceptions of therapy's effectiveness are more likely to be overly positive because clients a. enter therapy by emphasizing their financial well-being. b. leave therapy by focusing on their psychological well-being. c. enter therapy by focusing on their psychological well-being. d. leave therapy by focusing on their financial well-being. ANSWER: b 192. Clients often stay in touch with their psychotherapists only if satisfied with the treatment they received. This helps us understand why therapists a. avoid developing a therapeutic alliance. b. prefer person-centered therapy over other forms of treatment. c. avoid diagnosing clients' disorders during the course of therapy. d. often overestimate the effectiveness of psychotherapy. ANSWER: d 193. Clinicians' tendency to unconsciously seek evidence that confirms their beliefs and to ignore contradictory ScholarFriends.com evidence is called Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice a. effort justification. b. the placebo effect. c. illusory correlation. d. confirmation bias. ANSWER: d 194. In reading a survey measuring his clients' satisfaction with his services, Dr. Istrati accepted many of their positive comments but ignored most of the negative comments, assuming that they were based on client issues. Dr. Istrati concluded that he is a very effective therapist. Dr. Istrati may be influenced by a. the therapeutic alliance. b. the confirmation bias. c. resilience. d. transference. ANSWER: b 195. A British psychologist launched a spirited debate regarding the effectiveness of psychotherapy because he found that it appeared to be a. too expensive and time-consuming. b. less beneficial than drug therapy. c. helpful only for those with relatively mild disorders. d. no more beneficial than no treatment at all. ANSWER: d 196. A summary of 24 studies of psychotherapy outcomes found that psychotherapy was not necessarily the reason that people with disorders not involving hallucinations or delusions improved. This research was criticized because a. the study was too expensive and time-consuming. b. there was no control group. c. the sample was small. d. confounding variables were not considered. ANSWER: c 197. Outcome studies in which people on a waiting list are randomly assigned to therapy or no therapy and then evaluated by others who don't know whether therapy was given are called a. paraprofessionalism. b. evidence-based practice. c. randomized clinical trials. d. a therapeutic alliance. ANSWER: c 198. The best outcome studies for evaluating the effectiveness of psychotherapy typically use ScholarFriends.com a. virtual reality. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice b. token economies. c. randomized clinical trials. d. EMDR. ANSWER: c 199. After analyzing the results of some 475 psychotherapy outcome studies, Mary Lee Smith and colleagues reported that a. evidence supports the efficacy of psychotherapy. b. psychotherapy is no more effective than talking to a friend. c. psychotherapy harms just as many people as it helps. d. it is impossible to measure the effectiveness of psychotherapy. ANSWER: a 200. Professor Caste is researching the effects of virtual reality exposure therapy on treating people with PTSD. She combines the results of 50 different studies on the topic to determine the therapy's effectiveness. She finds that a. those not undergoing therapy improve as well as those undergoing therapy. b. those undergoing therapy are more likely than those not undergoing therapy to improve, and to improve more quickly. c. only those undergoing behavior therapy tend to improve. d. those undergoing therapy tend to spend more time searching for other medical treatment. ANSWER: b 201. One strategy to evaluate the effectiveness of psychotherapy is to compare people who enter psychotherapy with a control group of people who do not receive psychotherapy. When researchers combine and summarize the results of studies using this strategy, what overall conclusions emerge? a. People in the psychotherapy group improve at about the same rate as the people in the untreated group. b. People in the psychotherapy group actually improve at a slower rate than the people in the untreated group. c. The people in the untreated group do not get better, while about one-third of the people in the psychotherapy group get better, about one-third deteriorate, and about one-third remain unchanged. d. When compared with the untreated, those who undergo psychotherapy tend to have better overall outcomes. ANSWER: d 202. Research has shown that clients' level of satisfaction with psychotherapy a. is unrelated to the level of training and experience of their therapists. b. depends on whether they received individual treatment or group therapy. c. depends on whether they were treated with cognitive therapy or behavior therapy. d. depends on whether they were treated by a psychiatrist, psychologist, or social worker. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 203. The overlapping of two or more disorders in a single person is an indication of a. double blind. b. comorbidity. c. randomized clinical trials. d. the placebo effect. ANSWER: b 204. When a person has more than one psychological disorder at the same time, they are experiencing a(n) a. illusory correlation. b. effort justification. c. comorbidity of disorders. d. clinical trial. ANSWER: c 205. Marcus has been diagnosed with posttraumatic stress disorder. Which of the following therapies may be most beneficial to him? a. behavioral conditioning therapy b. psychodynamic therapy c. person-centered therapy d. cognitive-behavioral therapy ANSWER: d 206. Behavioral conditioning therapies have achieved especially favorable results in the treatment of a. bipolar disorders. b. personality disorders. c. specific phobias. d. depression. ANSWER: c 207. Psychodynamic therapy has been found to be helpful in the treatment of a. depression. b. sexual dysfunctions. c. obsessive-compulsive disorder. d. posttraumatic stress disorder. ANSWER: a 208. Harrison has been diagnosed with a depressive disorder. Although his problem is not specific, he may receive some therapeutic help. Which of the following therapies may be most beneficial to him? a. behavioral conditioning therapy b. psychodynamic therapy ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice c. person-centered therapy d. dialectical behavior therapy ANSWER: b 209. Johann experiences extreme anxiety. Which therapy(ies) would probably be an effective treatment for him? a. cognitive and cognitive-behavioral therapies b. behavioral conditioning therapies c. psychodynamic therapy, cognitive therapy, and cognitive-behavioral therapy d. person-centered therapy ANSWER: c 210. Patrick experiences feelings of depression. Which therapy(ies) would NOT be effective in treating his depression? a. cognitive and cognitive-behavioral therapies b. behavioral conditioning therapies c. psychodynamic therapy d. person-centered therapy ANSWER: b 211. Which form of therapy has been found to be especially effective in the treatment of posttraumatic stress disorder? a. person-centered therapy b. psychodynamic therapy c. cognitive-behavioral therapy d. humanistic therapy ANSWER: c 212. Selma is a 30-year-old engineer who has an extreme fear of enclosed spaces. The most effective way to treat Selma's problem would involve ________ therapy. a. cognitive b. psychoanalytic c. person-centered d. behavioral conditioning ANSWER: d 213. Angilynn is mildly depressed as a result of her break-up with her romantic partner. Which therapy(ies) has(have) proven to be effective in treating her condition? a. person-centered therapy b. behavior therapy c. conversion therapies ScholarFriends.com d. humanistic therapies Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 214. Which of the following is NOT an alternative form of therapy? a. energy therapy b. conversion therapy c. rebirthing therapy d. nondirective therapy ANSWER: d 215. Mavis is undergoing a therapy that involves reenacting the supposed trauma of her birth. This type of therapy has received no scientific support. Which therapy is it? a. energy therapy b. aversive conditioning c. rebirthing therapy d. cognitive-behavioral therapy ANSWER: c 216. There is no scientific support for the therapeutic effectiveness of a. systematic desensitization. b. aversive conditioning. c. energy therapies. d. cognitive-behavioral therapy. ANSWER: c 217. The American Psychiatric Association, the Canadian Psychological Association, and the British Psychological Society have warned against ________ that propose to change people's sexual orientation. a. behavioral conditioning therapy b. conversion therapies c. psychodynamic therapy d. nondirective counseling ANSWER: b 218. Clinical decision making that integrates the best available research with clinical expertise and an understanding of client characteristics best illustrates a. conversion therapies. b. energy therapies. c. rebirthing therapies. d. evidence-based practice. ANSWER: d 219. Dr. Bakare integrates the best available research with her clinical expertise and with the preferences and ScholarFriends.com characteristics of her client. She is engaged in Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice a. a randomized clinical trial. b. evidence-based practice. c. diversity therapy. d. biomedical therapy. ANSWER: b 220. A common ingredient underlying the success of diverse psychotherapies is the a. professional training and experience of the therapist. b. escape from real-life pressures offered by psychotherapy. c. length of time the client spends in psychotherapy. d. client's expectation that through psychotherapy things will get better. ANSWER: d 221. Evidence that placebos can reduce some of the distressing symptoms of psychological disorders best illustrates the therapeutic value of a. a new perspective. b. individualism. c. empathy. d. hope. ANSWER: d 222. Sandor has a phobic fear of rats and is optimistic that exposure therapy will be an effective therapy for his fear. His optimism highlights how psychotherapy a. is ineffective. b. is costly. c. is evidence-based. d. offers hope. ANSWER: d 223. Clients often benefit from psychotherapy because it provides them with an explanation for their symptoms and frees them from false beliefs. This best illustrates the therapeutic value of a. transference. b. a new perspective. c. randomized clinical trials. d. free association. ANSWER: b 224. Renee has always thought that she was not good enough to meet her parents' expectations and so has been depressed for the last six months. She finally decided to try psychotherapy. The therapist has focused on reversing her negative thinking and getting her to think more about how well she is doing in school, for example. This illustrates the therapeutic value ScholarFriends.com of a. expecting things will get better. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice b. gaining a new perspective. c. establishing a therapeutic alliance. d. a therapist who has the same values as she has. ANSWER: b 225. Psychotherapies share three benefits: hope, a new perspective, and a. an evidence-based practice. b. a placebo. c. an empathic, trusting, caring relationship. d. improvement within a short time. ANSWER: c 226. The therapeutic alliance refers to a. the transference of feelings from earlier relationships to client-therapist interactions. b. a form of therapy conducted with groups rather than individuals. c. a bond of trust and mutual understanding between a therapist and a client. d. a program developed by the American Psychological Association to advance evidence-based practice. ANSWER: c 227. By earning a client's trust, empathic and caring therapists promote a. evidence-based practice. b. a therapeutic alliance. c. an eclectic approach. d. transference. ANSWER: b 228. Several sessions into therapy Gail has still not been able to develop an emotional bond with her therapist. She is unhappy because the therapist is more interested in telling her how she should feel rather than having her tell him how she does feel. Gail and her therapist have not developed a(n) a. evidence-based practice. b. therapeutic alliance. c. eclectic approach. d. transference. ANSWER: b 229. Briefly trained caregivers are referred to as a. therapists. b. psychiatrists. c. counselors. ScholarFriends.com d. paraprofessionals. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 230. Garfield has recently recovered from substance use disorder and now wants to help other people with similar problems. Because of the common elements of the therapeutic alliance, he may be very effective in helping others. Garfield is a a. paraprofessional. b. psychiatrist. c. counselor. d. therapist. ANSWER: a 231. People are less likely to need psychotherapy if they experience a. randomized clinical trials. b. caring relationships. c. confirmation bias. d. the self-justification motive. ANSWER: b 232. Which of the following is NOT a proposed benefit of psychotherapy? a. hope b. transference c. a new perspective d. a caring relationship ANSWER: b 233. In North America, Europe, and Australia, most psychotherapists reflect their culture's ________; in Asian cultures, most psychotherapists reflect their culture's ________. a. collectivism; individualism b. perspective; diversity c. diversity; perspective d. individualism; collectivism ANSWER: b 234. Therapists who encourage clients to think about social and family responsibilities are likely to experience difficulty forming a strong ________ with clients who value individualism. a. transference b. therapeutic alliance c. psychotherapy outcome study d. randomized clinical trial ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com

235. Dr. Campbell practices various forms of psychotherapy, but all emphasize the importance of personal Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice desires, identity, and goals. Dr. Campbell's therapeutic practice is biased toward a. collectivism. b. individualism. c. transference. d. resilience. ANSWER: b 236. In his practice, Dr. Laatari emphasizes the importance of group goals, harmony, and social and family responsibilities. Dr. Laatari's therapeutic practice is biased toward a. collectivism. b. individualism. c. transference. d. resilience. ANSWER: a 237. In one experiment, Asian American clients were more likely to perceive counselor empathy if their counselor a. encouraged free association. b. was actively religious. c. shared the clients' cultural values. d. practiced systematic desensitization. ANSWER: c 238. Client-therapist mismatches may also stem from personal differences other than cultural. Which of the following is NOT one of those differences? a. religious beliefs b. transgender identity c. body image d. refugee status ANSWER: c 239. People living in "cultures of honor," which prize ________, tend to be more reluctant to seek mental health care. a. academic achievement b. strength and toughness c. a token economy d. unconditional positive regard ANSWER: b 240. Nizar suffered a severe back injury. His doctor prescribed OxyContin. However, even after the pain had subsided, Nizar pretended he was still in pain and continued to take the OxyContin. His behavior is a sign that ScholarFriends.com he should Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice a. try a different medication. b. go online to find other sources of OxyContin. c. find another doctor. d. seek a mental health professional's help. ANSWER: d 241. Which of the following is NOT a trouble sign that a person should seek help from a mental health professional? a. sexual difficulties b. deep and lasting depression c. sudden mood shifts d. feeling hopeful ANSWER: d 242. There are more than ________ mental health smartphone apps. a. 100 b. 1000 c. 10,000 d. 100,000 ANSWER: c 243. The fact that there are more than 10,000 mental health apps suggests that a. online help has been more successful than in-person therapy. b. an in-person therapeutic alliance is difficult to develop. c. more people are seeking help online. d. more and more people are acting as therapists. ANSWER: c 244. Therapist-guided therapy that is conducted online or through apps can help reduce all of the following EXXCEPT a. depression. b. social anxiety disorder. c. antisocial personality disorder. d. panic disorder. ANSWER: c 245. Psychologists with a Ph.D. or Psy.D. who specialize in the practice of therapy are typically a. psychiatric social workers. b. clinical psychologists. c. psychoanalysts. ScholarFriends.com d. psychiatrists. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 246. Dr. Gupta has a Ph.D. in psychology and specializes in psychodynamic therapy. Dr. Gupta is a a. clinical social worker. b. clinical psychologist. c. psychiatrist. d. counselor. ANSWER: b 247. Psychotherapists who can prescribe drugs in treating people with serious psychological problems are a. clinical psychologists. b. psychiatric social workers. c. psychiatrists. d. counselors. ANSWER: c 248. Dr. Markowitz prescribes antidepressants for the treatment of posttraumatic stress disorder, and she encourages aerobic exercise for clients who feel anxious. It is most likely that Dr. Markowitz is a a. clinical social worker. b. cognitive therapist. c. psychiatrist. d. person-centered therapist. ANSWER: c 249. Many professionals outside the field of psychology are prepared to offer psychotherapy after completing a graduate program in ________ plus postgraduate supervision. a. law b. anthropology c. social work d. philosophy ANSWER: c 250. Mr. Martis has a master's in social work and has participated in a supervised postgraduate program. As a clinical social worker, he is allowed to offer psychotherapy to a. substance abusers. b. people with everyday personal and family problems. c. people who need prescription drugs. d. students suffering from major depressive disorder. ANSWER: b 251. According to the American PsychologicalScholarFriends.com Association, therapists should follow all of the following principles EXCEPT Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice a. establish a role of authority over their clients. b. be honest, truthful, and accurate. c. be fair and promote justice for their clients. d. respect the dignity of their clients. ANSWER: a 252. Maison is currently in graduate school and aims to be a therapist when he is finished. He should be aware that there are specific principles he will be expected to follow. These principles include all of the following EXCEPT a. aim to benefit his clients. b. ensure his clients are not harmed during therapy. c. take on an authoritative role. d. be honest with his clients. ANSWER: c 253. The treatment of psychological disorders with prescription drugs, therapeutic lifestyle change, electrical stimulation of the brain, or brain surgery is called a. behavior therapy. b. biomedical therapy. c. psychotherapy. d. psychoanalysis. ANSWER: b 254. Advocates of therapeutic lifestyle change note that human brains and bodies were designed for physical activity and a. rTMS. b. tardive dyskinesia. c. social engagement. d. self-esteem. ANSWER: c 255. Training seminars promoting therapeutic lifestyle change would likely be most effective in helping a. Darlene effectively cope with schizophrenia. b. Jeremy effectively cope with antisocial personality disorder. c. Amy effectively cope with major depressive disorder. d. Larry effectively cope with dissociative identity disorder. ANSWER: c 256. Barbara is under a lot of stress at work. To help her reduce the stress, modern researchers would suggest that she should a. engage in outdoor physical activity. ScholarFriends.com b. sleep 9 to 10 hours each night. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice c. manipulate her energy fields. d. focus on recovering repressed memories. ANSWER: a 257. Engaging in which of the following increases fitness and vitality and stimulates endorphins and can even rival the effectiveness of antidepressant drugs? a. sleeping 7 to 8 hours each night b. sleeping 9 to 10 hours each night c. aerobic exercise for 30 minutes a day, at least three times a week d. aerobic exercise for 60 minutes a day, seven days a week ANSWER: c 258. Fifteen to 30 minutes with a light-emitting box each morning will influence a. the body's arousal. b. self-awareness. c. animal magnetism. d. self-fulfillment. ANSWER: a 259. Darius spends 15 to 30 minutes each morning with a light-emitting box. According to therapeutic lifestyle change advocates, this is likely to increase his a. body's arousal. b. self-awareness. c. ability to sleep well at night. d. rumination. ANSWER: a 260. Leander tends to spend time rethinking the events of the day and assuming that she performed badly on her assigned tasks. Therapeutic lifestyle advocates would suggest that she redirect her negative thoughts and think more positively; that is, she should a. reduce her rumination. b. become more self-aware. c. engage in less alone time. d. make new friends. ANSWER: a 261. According to therapeutic lifestyle change, 7 to 8 hours sleep per night a. boosts immunity and increases energy. b. amplifies arousal. c. enhances positive thinking. d. reduces aggressive behavior. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 262. Arturo, who tends to spend a lot of time alone either reading or playing video games, experiences feelings of depression. Therapeutic lifestyle advocates would suggest that he a. reduce his rumination. b. become more self-aware. c. engage in at least two meaningful social interactions weekly. d. identify and redirect his negative thoughts. ANSWER: c 263. The use of a daily ________ supplement can promote healthy brain functioning. a. hormone b. omega-3 fatty acid c. dopamine d. carbohydrate ANSWER: b 264. Advocates of therapeutic lifestyle change recommend the use of a daily supplement of ________ to reduce aggressive behavior. a. hormone b. omega-3 fatty acid c. dopamine d. carbohydrate ANSWER: b 265. An initial small study comparing the benefits of lifestyle change with treatment-as-usual found that a. both groups fared equally in combating depressive symptoms. b. the treatment-as-usual group experienced more relief than those in the lifestyle change program. c. neither group experienced relief from depressive symptoms. d. the majority of those who completed the lifestyle change program experienced relief from depressive symptoms. ANSWER: d 266. Dr. Schmidt believes that most psychological disorders result from chemical imbalances. In her work as a therapist, Dr. Schmidt is most likely to make use of a. psychosurgery. b. rTMS. c. drug therapies. d. lobotomies. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com

267. To evaluate any new drug's effectiveness, researchers need to know all the following EXCEPT Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice a. how many people recover without treatment. b. how quickly people recover without treatment. c. who administered the drug. d. whether recovery is due to the drug or to the placebo effect. ANSWER: c 268. Which form of therapy has played the greatest role in contributing to the sharp reduction in the number of residents in U.S. psychiatric hospitals? a. psychosurgery b. cognitive therapy c. electroconvulsive therapy d. drug therapy ANSWER: d 269. The sharp reduction in the number of residents in U.S. psychiatric hospitals can be attributed to drug therapies and a. cognitive-behavioral therapies. b. community mental health programs. c. electroconvulsive therapy. d. psychodynamic therapies. ANSWER: b 270. Daniel has a headache. His father gave him what he thought was aspirin but was really a dummy pill. In 30 minutes, Daniel reported that his headache was gone. The "effectiveness" of the dummy pill was due to a. the double-blind technique. b. tardive dyskinesia. c. the placebo effect. d. resilience. ANSWER: c 271. The double-blind technique involves a. using drug therapy on one participant and brain stimulation on another. b. a research method in which neither participants nor health care staff know whether a given participant is receiving a drug or a placebo. c. the simultaneous use of two or more therapeutic treatments in the hope that at least one will be effective. d. administering deep brain stimulation to those whose depression has resisted drug therapy. ANSWER: b 272. One group of senior citizens receives a new but untested pill for COVID-19 and a second group is given an inactive pill. Neither the senior citizens nor theScholarFriends.com experimental researchers know which group has received the new pill. In this experiment, the investigators are making use of Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice a. deep brain stimulation. b. resilience. c. SSRIs. d. the double-blind technique. ANSWER: d 273. Drugs used to treat schizophrenia and other forms of severe thought disorders are called ________ drugs. a. antianxiety b. antidepressant c. antipsychotic d. mood-stabilizing. ANSWER: c 274. Jerome has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. What type of drug is he likely to be given to help reduce his symptoms? a. antidepressant drugs b. antianxiety drugs c. antipsychotic drugs d. mood-stabilizing drugs ANSWER: c 275. Kamala experiences auditory hallucinations and falsely believes that her former high school teachers are trying to kill her. Kamala's symptoms are most likely to be relieved by ________ drugs. a. antidepressant b. antianxiety c. mood-stabilizing d. antipsychotic ANSWER: d 276. Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic drug that reduces paranoia and auditory hallucinations by a. reducing involuntary muscle movements. b. dampening responsiveness to irrelevant stimuli. c. decreasing the availability of norepinephrine. d. elevating arousal and mood. ANSWER: b 277. Thorazine is a(n) ________ drug that dampens responsiveness to irrelevant stimuli and is most useful for people with the schizophrenia symptoms of auditory hallucinations and paranoia. a. SSRI b. antianxiety ScholarFriends.com c. antipsychotic Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice d. mood-stabilizing ANSWER: c 278. Darren believes that his schoolmates are trying to kill him, and he hears voices telling him to kill them first. Darren's symptoms are most likely to be relieved by ________ drugs. a. antidepressant b. antianxiety c. mood-stabilizing d. antipsychotic ANSWER: d 279. Antipsychotic drugs are ________ helpful to people experiencing auditory hallucinations and paranoia and ________ effective in apathy and withdrawal. a. most; less b. less; less c. most; equally d. less; most ANSWER: a 280. Some antipsychotic drugs work to diminish psychotic symptoms by blocking the activity of ________. They do this by occupying this neurotransmitter's ________. a. dopamine; axons b. serotonin; receptor sites c. dopamine; receptor sites d. serotonin; axons ANSWER: c 281. Which drugs appear to produce therapeutic effects by blocking receptor sites for dopamine? a. antianxiety drugs b. antidepressant drugs c. antipsychotic drugs d. mood-stabilizing drugs ANSWER: c 282. Julio, who has Parkinson's disease, is taking L-dopa to boost his production of dopamine. As a side effect, he might experience a. hallucinations. b. tremors. c. memory loss. d. fatigue. ANSWER: a ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 283. Which of the following is a disadvantage of the first-generation antipsychotic drugs when compared with newer-generation antipsychotic drugs? a. First-generation antipsychotics have some powerful side effects, such as sluggishness and tremors. b. First-generation antipsychotics are less likely to produce tardive dyskinesia. c. First-generation antipsychotics do not reduce hallucinations and delusions. d. First-generation antipsychotics increase the chance of developing depressive symptoms. ANSWER: a 284. Sluggishness, tremors, and twitches similar to those of Parkinson's disease are most likely to be associated with the excessive use of certain first-generation ________ drugs. a. antidepressant b. antipsychotic c. mood-stabilizing d. antianxiety ANSWER: b 285. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by a. obsessions. b. panic attacks. c. auditory hallucinations. d. involuntary muscle movements. ANSWER: d 286. Tardive dyskinesia is often associated with long-term use of drugs that occupy certain ________ receptor sites. a. serotonin b. norepinephrine c. acetylcholine d. dopamine ANSWER: d 287. Genesis has been taking antipsychotic drugs for two years and has recently noticed involuntary movements of her facial muscles. Genesis has a condition known as a. SSRI. b. neurogenesis. c. TMS. d. tardive dyskinesia. ANSWER: d 288. Aiden experiences delusions of grandeur, and extraneous sounds constantly distract him from things that require his attention. Which of the following drugs is most likely to relieve these distressing symptoms? ScholarFriends.com a. Ativan Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice b. olanzapine c. Depakote d. Zoloft ANSWER: b 289. Compared with the first-generation antipsychotic medications, which of the following is an advantage of the newer-generation antipsychotics? a. They are more likely to reduce the hallucinations and delusions of schizophrenia. b. They are much less likely to cause movement-related side effects such as tardive dyskinesia. c. They increase brain levels of dopamine in more brain areas. d. They are much better at increasing brain levels of serotonin. ANSWER: b 290. Newer-generation antipsychotic drugs such as risperidone and olanzapine have ________ side effects than the first-generation antipsychotic medications. However, they increase the risk of diabetes and ________. a. no; tremors b. no; twitches c. fewer; paranoia d. fewer; obesity ANSWER: d 291. Although the newer-generation antipsychotics have been effective in treating the symptoms of schizophrenia, they have side effects, such as a. addiction. b. obesity and diabetes. c. hypertension. d. dizzy spells. ANSWER: b 292. The widespread use of antipsychotic medications, combined with life-skills programs and family support, resulted in a. a dramatic decline in the number of people who were hospitalized for mental disorders. b. new laws requiring the shutdown of almost all state mental hospitals. c. a surge in the number of people who were hospitalized for mental disorders. d. a dramatic increase in the number of people showing up in emergency departments suffering from drug overdoses. ANSWER: a 293. Martha has been unable to get a job because of the hallucinations she experiences. What might a general practitioner recommend that would help Martha lead a near-normal life? a. Risperdal and light exposure therapy ScholarFriends.com b. Zyprexa and life-skills programs and family support Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice c. Depakote and aerobic exercise d. Zoloft and nutritional supplements ANSWER: b 294. Hundreds of thousands of people have returned to work and to near-normal lives as a result of antipsychotics combined with a. better hospital programs. b. life-skills programs and family support. c. antianxiety drugs. d. exercise and nutritional supplements. ANSWER: b 295. Xanax and Ativan are ________ drugs. a. antidepressant b. antipsychotic c. mood-stabilizing d. antianxiety ANSWER: d 296. Xanax would most likely be prescribed in order to help a. Cynthia give up her irrational belief that her husband is a foreign government spy. b. Cassius get rid of his suicidal thoughts and feelings of apathy and hopelessness. c. Jerome overcome feelings of nervous apprehension and an inability to relax. d. Bradan discontinue his habit of smoking more than three packs of cigarettes a day. ANSWER: c 297. Dakota's psychiatrist prescribed an antianxiety drug such as Xanax in combination with a behavioral conditioning therapy. Dakota is most likely being treated for a. obsessive-compulsive disorder. b. a bipolar disorder. c. antisocial personality disorder. d. schizophrenia. ANSWER: a 298. An antianxiety drug, in combination with psychological therapy, has been used successfully to treat a. schizophrenia. b. bipolar disorders. c. antisocial personality. d. posttraumatic stress disorder. ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 299. Halona is terribly afraid of flying. Even watching a plan take off produces severe anxiety. In addition to providing virtual reality exposure therapy, Halona's psychiatrist is likely to prescribe a. lithium. b. Depakote. c. Xanax. d. Thorazine. ANSWER: c 300. Antianxiety drugs control anxiety and agitation by a. increasing the availability of norepinephrine. b. blocking the activity of dopamine. c. prolonging the time serotonin molecules remain in the brain's synapses. d. depressing central nervous system activity. ANSWER: d 301. Taking an antianxiety drug at the first sign of tension can create a. side effects such as tremors. b. resilience. c. a learned response. d. neurogenesis. ANSWER: c 302. The criticism most likely to be made regarding the use of antianxiety drugs as an ongoing treatment is that they may a. produce involuntary movements of the facial muscles, tongue, and limbs. b. block the normal reuptake of excess serotonin from synapses. c. reduce symptoms without resolving underlying problems. d. increase overreactions to distracting or irrelevant stimuli. ANSWER: c 303. After discontinuing heavy use of an antianxiety drug, Winona experienced increased anxiety and difficulty sleeping. Winona was experiencing symptoms of a. withdrawal. b. resilience. c. tardive dyskinesia. d. transference. ANSWER: a 304. In addition to their use in treating depression, antidepressant drugs are now being used to treat a. auditory hallucinations and delusions of persecution. b. tardive dyskinesia and attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice c. anxiety disorders, obsessive-compulsive and related disorders, and posttraumatic stress disorder. d. antisocial personality disorder and dissociative identity disorder. ANSWER: c 305. Many antidepressant drugs work by increasing the availability of serotonin or a. dopamine. b. antipsychotics. c. norepinephrine. d. lithium. ANSWER: c 306. Many antidepressant drugs work by partially blocking the reuptake or serotonin or norepinephrine, neurotransmitters that a. depress central nervous system activity. b. produce hallucinations. c. control manic episodes. d. elevate arousal and mood. ANSWER: d 307. Prozac is an antidepressant drug that partially blocks the reuptake of ________ from synapses. a. serotonin b. dopamine c. acetylcholine d. chlorpromazine ANSWER: a 308. Which of the following individuals is most likely to benefit from Prozac? a. Calian, who has lost his sense of identity and wandered from his home to a distant city b. Agatha, who hears imaginary voices telling her that she will suffer a fatal accident c. Tami, who is so addicted to cigarettes that she doesn't want to quit smoking d. Celia, who feels helpless and apathetic and thinks her life is meaningless and worthless ANSWER: d 309. Several widely used antidepressant drugs are most often called ________ because they slow the synaptic vacuuming up of a neurotransmitter that is scarce in depressive disorders. a. placebos b. mood-stabilizing medications c. selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors d. norepinephrine blockers ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 310. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors are frequently prescribed for the treatment of a. tardive dyskinesia. b. schizophrenia. c. depression. d. mania. ANSWER: c 311. Pedro is taking an antidepressant drug to treat his posttraumatic stress disorder. Because the drug slows the reuptake of serotonin, the drug is called a a. cognitive-behavioral drug. b. newer-generation antidepressant. c. mood stabilizer. d. selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor. ANSWER: d 312. One possible explanation for the delayed effect of antidepressant drugs is that the increased availability of serotonin seems to promote a. increased metabolic rates. b. tardive dyskinesia. c. decreased norepinephrine levels. d. the birth of new brain cells. ANSWER: d 313. An anesthetic that acts as an opioid and can provide relief from depression in as little as 4 hours is a. Xanax. b. ketamine. c. Thorazine. d. lithium. ANSWER: b 314. Judith experiences feelings of depression and has been given a medication that can help her in as little as 4 hours. She was given a. Thorazine. b. Risperdal. c. Zyprexa. d. ketamine. ANSWER: d 315. Cognitive-behavioral therapy works, top down, by changing thinking. Antidepressant drugs work, bottom up, on the emotion-forming a. brainstem. ScholarFriends.com b. cerebellum. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice c. limbic system. d. sensory cortex. ANSWER: c 316. Quinn has been diagnosed with severe depression. His psychiatrist, who has prescribed Prozac, is also likely to use ________ therapy to change his thought processes. a. person-centered b. virtual reality c. cognitive-behavioral d. exposure ANSWER: c 317. Antidepressants can have negative side effects, including all of the following EXCEPT a. increased appetite. b. nausea. c. increased sex drive. d. fatigue. ANSWER: c 318. One good alternative to antidepressant drugs is a. aerobic exercise. b. a lobotomy. c. exposure therapy. d. Thorazine. ANSWER: a 319. Sixteen-year-old Moira has been depressed during this last semester, but she doesn't want to take drugs. An alternative way for her to lift her spirits is to a. see a person-centered therapist. b. undergo electroconvulsive therapy. c. engage in aerobic exercise. d. eat a more balanced diet. ANSWER: c 320. Compared with placebos, antidepressant drugs provide ________ benefits to people with severe symptoms of depression and ________ benefits to people with mild symptoms of depression. a. minimal; substantial b. substantial; minimal c. minimal; minimal d. substantial; substantial ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 321. Originally used to treat epilepsy, ________ has been found to be effective in controlling the manic episodes associated with bipolar disorders. a. Thorazine b. Depakote c. Prozac d. lithium ANSWER: b 322. Which of the following drugs has been found to be effective in treating the manic episodes associated with bipolar disorders? a. Thorazine b. L-dopa c. Ativan d. Depakote ANSWER: d 323. Lithium is often an effective ________ drug. a. antipsychotic b. antianxiety c. antidepressant d. mood-stabilizing ANSWER: d 324. The simple salt ________ effectively levels the emotional highs and lows of bipolar disorders. a. Depakote b. lithium c. Zoloft d. Paxil ANSWER: b 325. Oskar, a 40-year-old financial consultant, alternates between extreme sadness and hopelessness and overexcitement. The drug most likely to prove beneficial to him is a. lithium. b. Xanax. c. Zoloft. d. Thorazine. ANSWER: a 326. Lithium reduces the risk of ________ among people with a bipolar disorder. a. obesity b. suicide ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice c. long-term potentiation d. tardive dyskinesia ANSWER: b 327. When lithium failed to reduce Adelheid's manic episodes, her doctor tried a drug originally used to treat epilepsy called a. Prozac. b. Depakote. c. Thorazine. d. Paxil. ANSWER: b 328. Electroconvulsive therapy for severe depression involves a. the application of repeated pulses of magnetic energy to the brain. b. using the double-blind procedure. c. sending a brief electrical current through the brain of an anesthetized person. d. destruction of brain tissue. ANSWER: c 329. Which of the following procedures for people with severe depression is associated with no apparent brain damage or increased dementia risk? a. TMS b. the double-blind procedure c. deep brain stimulation d. electroconvulsive therapy ANSWER: d 330. Wolfgang has attempted suicide several times this year because of severe depression that is not responding to the antidepressant Zoloft. His psychiatrist has recommended electroconvulsive therapy, which involves a. a brief electric current through the brain of an anesthetized person. b. repeated pulses that surge through a magnetic coil held close to a person's skull. c. injecting the person with insulin or another chemical that induces a seizure. d. the surgical implantation of a device in the chest wall that delivers intermittent electrical stimulation to the brainstem. ANSWER: a 331. Electroconvulsive therapy has proven to be effective in the treatment of a. phobias. b. dissociative disorders. c. schizophrenia. d. depression. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 332. Chantal's feelings of worthlessness, sadness, and hopelessness have become so severe that she is considering suicide. Which of the following treatments is likely to provide her with the quickest effective relief from her anguish? a. electroconvulsive therapy b. antipsychotic drugs c. a lobotomy d. antianxiety drugs ANSWER: a 333. Electroconvulsive therapy is most effective if the person a. is on the verge of committing suicide. b. is not given an anesthetic. c. also receives antidepressant drugs. d. experiences convulsions. ANSWER: c 334. Some research indicates that ECT works by stimulating ________ and new synaptic connections. a. neurogenesis b. plasticity c. a placebo effect d. tremors ANSWER: a 335. With transcranial direct current stimulation (tDCS), the therapist administers ________ of electricity to the scalp of a depressed person. a. 700–800 milliamps b. 50–60 milliamps c. 1–2 milliamps d. 10–20 milliamps ANSWER: c 336. Sharat is being treated for his depression. The therapist, who administers a 1- to 2-milliamp electric current to Sharat's scalp, is using ________; Drago's therapist, on the other hand, is applying ________, in which repeated pulses surge through a magnetic coil held close to the skull. a. electroconvulsive therapy; deep brain stimulation b. electroconvulsive therapy; transcranial magnetic stimulation c. transcranial direct current stimulation; transcranial magnetic stimulation d. transcranial direct current stimulation; deep brain stimulation ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 337. Which treatment procedure involves the application of repeated pulses of magnetic energy to the brain? a. TMS b. psychosurgery c. long-term potentiation d. the double-blind technique ANSWER: a 338. Which of the following individuals is most likely to benefit from transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS)? a. Jaydon, who has an excessive fear of needles and the sight of blood b. Anissa, whose depressive episodes have been increasing in both length and frequency c. Zackory, who engages in aggressive behavior and has been diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder d. Elena, who experiences auditory hallucinations and delusions of persecution ANSWER: b 339. Which of the following biomedical treatments provides some of the benefits of ECT without causing memory loss? a. the lobotomy b. TMS c. antipsychotic medication d. psychosurgery ANSWER: b 340. Irina's depression has not responded to medication. Her psychiatrist is suggesting a treatment that involves stimulation of certain regions of the brain with magnetic pulses. The treatment being suggested is a. lobotomy. b. TMS. c. electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). d. deep brain stimulation. ANSWER: b 341. Willem has been diagnosed with schizophrenia, such as social apathy and memory loss. Which of the following may help reduce his symptoms? a. TMS b. DBS c. psychosurgery d. psychodynamic therapy ANSWER: a 342. One possible explanation for the effectiveness of transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) is that the stimulation ScholarFriends.com a. manipulates electrodes that have been placed in the brain. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice b. calms sadness centers in the brain. c. energizes the left frontal lobe of the brain. d. electrically shocks the brain. ANSWER: c 343. It has been suggested that the effectiveness of TMS results from nerve cells forming new functioning circuits through the process of a. therapeutic lifestyle change. b. psychopharmacology. c. long-term potentiation. d. neurogenesis. ANSWER: c 344. A possible explanation for the effectiveness of ________ is that it may reduce depression by triggering the formation of new functioning brain circuits through the long-term potentiation of nerve cells. a. the double-blind procedure b. transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) c. chlorpromazine d. psychosurgery ANSWER: b 345. Helen Mayberg has used ________ to manipulate activity in brain areas that feed negative emotions and thoughts. a. psychosurgery b. antipsychotic drugs c. deep brain stimulation d. ECT ANSWER: c 346. Deep brain stimulation involves the implantation of ________ into the brain. a. SSRIs b. lithium c. electrodes d. new nerve cells ANSWER: c 347. Deep brain stimulation has been reported to provide relief from a. dissociative disorders. b. phobias. c. schizophrenia. ScholarFriends.com d. depression. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 348. Gerfried was diagnosed with major depressive disorder 5 years ago. His psychiatrist tried treating him with Paxil, but Gerfried is still depressed, so the psychiatrist has suggested applying a pacemaker that activates implanted electrodes in brain areas that feed negative emotions and thoughts. Gerfried's psychiatrist is recommending a. a lobotomy. b. TMS. c. ECT. d. deep brain stimulation. ANSWER: d 349. Psychosurgery involves a. passing an electric current through the entire brain. b. injecting lithium directly into the limbic system. c. removing or destroying brain tissue. d. all of these procedures. ANSWER: c 350. Who developed the surgical procedure known as lobotomy? a. Stephen Ilardi b. Egas Moniz c. John Cade d. Sigmund Freud ANSWER: b 351. Egas Moniz found that he could calm uncontrollably emotional and violent patients by a. stimulating neurogenesis. b. injecting lithium directly into the limbic system. c. cutting the nerves connecting the frontal lobes with the emotion-controlling centers of the inner brain. d. activating neurons that inhibit negative activity. ANSWER: c 352. Inserting an icepick-like instrument through each eye socket was part of a biomedical therapy procedure known as a. ECT. b. TMS. c. the double-blind procedure. d. a lobotomy. ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 353. Between 1936 and 1954, lobotomies were most likely to be performed on people who were a. uncontrollably violent. b. hopelessly depressed. c. notably overweight. d. consistently forgetful. ANSWER: a 354. The LEAST-used biomedical intervention for changing thoughts and behavior is a. TMS. b. electroconvulsive therapy. c. psychosurgery. d. drug therapy. ANSWER: c 355. MRI-guided precision surgery is occasionally done to cut the brain circuits involved in severe cases of a. obsessive-compulsive disorder. b. a bipolar disorder. c. schizophrenia. d. antisocial personality disorder. ANSWER: a 356. Trevor has OCD. Which type of brain stimulation therapy might be effective in treating his OCD symptoms? a. a lobotomy b. deep brain stimulation c. transcranial magnetic stimulation d. micropsychosurgery ANSWER: d 357. Identifying and eliminating the socially stressful conditions that contribute to psychological disorders is of central interest to the advocates of a. exposure therapy. b. the biomedical therapies. c. preventive mental health. d. cognitive therapy. ANSWER: c 358. Preventing psychological problems means using ________ to enhance human flourishing. a. a therapeutic alliance. b. positive psychology ScholarFriends.com c. psychoanalysis Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice d. cognitive-behavioral therapy ANSWER: b 359. Teaching children how to manage their emotions, get along with others, and keep up with academic demands best illustrates a. a therapeutic alliance. b. biomedical therapy. c. psychoanalysis. d. preventive mental health. ANSWER: d 360. Dr. Estrella believes that psychological problems arise from environments that breed loneliness, suicidal thinking, and excessive alcohol and drug use. Dr. Estrella's belief is most consistent with the assumptions that underlie the work of a. psychoanalysts. b. cognitive psychologists. c. exposure therapists. d. community psychologists. ANSWER: d 361. The personal strength that enables people to cope with stress and recover from adversity is called a. resilience. b. individualism. c. transference. d. long-term potentiation. ANSWER: a 362. Philip is a lung cancer survivor and now reports a greater appreciation for life and more meaningful relationships. He is experiencing a. cognitive decline. b. posttraumatic growth. c. a therapeutic lifestyle change. d. person-centered growth. ANSWER: b 363. Most combat-stressed veterans do not later exhibit posttraumatic stress disorder. This best illustrates a. resistance. b. resilience. c. withdrawal. d. tardive dyskinesia. ANSWER: b ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 364. Positive psychological changes that result from struggling with extremely challenging life crises demonstrate a. TMS. b. a double-blind technique. c. posttraumatic growth. d. resistance. ANSWER: c 365. Reddy lost several family members to COVID-19. Since then, he has developed an increased capacity to empathize with those who suffer and to care for those in need. His response to stressful life circumstances best illustrates a. long-term potentiation. b. posttraumatic growth. c. tardive dyskinesia. d. transference. ANSWER: b

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TB1 Appendix A - Multiple Choice 1. The importance of statistical literacy is emphasized in the statement that people should a. share the valuable information with everyone they know. b. think critically when presented with big, round, undocumented numbers. c. apply that information to relevant personal situations. d. try to find the source of the information so they can quote it when sharing the information with others. ANSWER: b 2. Arsenio believes that, to be healthy, people should walk 10,000 steps a day. He doesn't remember where he heard this but is convinced that the information is accurate. What would you suggest Arsenio do to confirm or disconfirm this information? a. conduct his own study on this to confirm the information b. try to find the source of the information so that he can quote it when sharing the information with others c. make sure that he shares this valuable information with others d. use critical thinking when presented with such round, undocumented numbers ANSWER: d 3. After researchers have gathered their data, they may organize that data using a. descriptive statistics. b. inferential statistics. c. a correlation coefficient. d. statistical significance. ANSWER: a 4. Dr. Zuniga has collected data on the relationship between social media use and depression. She will use ________ to organize her data. a. inferential statistics b. the correlation coefficient c. descriptive statistics d. a scatterplot ANSWER: c 5. The average price for different brands of shampoo could be visually displayed in a a. correlation coefficient. b. scatterplot. c. standard deviation. d. bar graph. ANSWER: d 6. It's easy to design a ________ to make differences look small or large by how you label the vertical axis (the ScholarFriends.com y-axis). Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Appendix A - Multiple Choice a. normal curve b. scatterplot c. bar graph d. standard deviation ANSWER: c 7. When you read a bar graph, it is most important for you to a. mentally transform the data into a normal curve. b. identify the value of the standard deviation. c. note the range and size of the scale values. d. remember that correlation aids prediction. ANSWER: c 8. A single score that represents a whole distribution of scores is called a measure of a. central tendency. b. variation. c. correlation. d. standard deviation. ANSWER: c 9. Professor Oterson is summarizing his data with a single score that represents a whole set of scores. That score is called a a. measure of variation. b. correlation. c. measure of central tendency. d. standard deviation. ANSWER: c 10. The most frequently occurring score in a distribution of scores is the a. mode. b. median. c. standard deviation. d. mean. ANSWER: a 11. Among eight homeowners in one town, four report annual incomes of $25,000, and the other four report incomes of $18,000, $20,000, $27,000, and $35,000, respectively. The mode of this group's distribution of annual incomes is a. $25,000. b. $18,000. ScholarFriends.com c. $20,000. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Appendix A - Multiple Choice d. $35,000. ANSWER: a 12. The mean of a distribution of scores is calculated by a. finding the most frequently occurring score. b. finding the difference between the highest and lowest scores. c. adding the scores and dividing by the number of scores. d. finding the score exceeded by 50 percent of all the scores. ANSWER: c 13. Ms. Onisii is calculating the arithmetic average, or the ________, of the prices she has paid for coffee. a. mode b. mean c. median d. range ANSWER: b 14. Which measure of central tendency is used to calculate the average of your school grades? a. standard deviation b. median c. mean d. mode ANSWER: c 15. Mr. and Mrs. Maldari have five children ages 4, 6, 6, 10, and 14. The mean age of the Maldari children is a. 6. b. 8. c. 10. d. 12. ANSWER: b 16. The median of a distribution of scores is the a. most frequently occurring score. b. difference between the highest and lowest scores. c. arithmetic average of all the scores. d. middle score. ANSWER: d 17. During the past year, Lucy and Ethel each read 6 books, but Jessica read 12, Malcolm read 16, and Joseph read 22. The median number of books read by these individuals was ScholarFriends.com a. 4. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Appendix A - Multiple Choice b. 10. c. 12. d. 14. ANSWER: c 18. Seven members of a Boy Scout troop report the following individual earnings from their sale of cookies: $2, $9, $8, $10, $4, $9, and $7. In this distribution of individual earnings a. the median is greater than the mean and greater than the mode. b. the median is less than the mean and less than the mode. c. the median is greater than the mean and less than the mode. d. the median is less than the mean and greater than the mode. ANSWER: c 19. Seven members of a Girl Scout troop report the following individual earnings from their sale of cookies: $4, $1, $7, $6, $8, $2, and $7. In this distribution of individual earnings a. the mean is less than the mode and equal to the median. b. the mean is equal to the mode and greater than the median. c. the mean is greater than the mode and greater than the median. d. the mean is less than the mode and less than the median. ANSWER: d 20. Which measure of central tendency may be skewed by a few extreme scores? a. mode b. range c. mean d. median ANSWER: c 21. When a mean is reported on a news program, it is most important for listeners to a. determine whether it is statistically significant. b. consider whether it is distorted by a few extreme cases. c. be sure that it represents a standard deviation. d. assume that it is the midpoint of a normal curve. ANSWER: b 22. For which of the following distributions of scores would the median most clearly be a more appropriate measure of central tendency than the mean? a. 10, 22, 8, 9, 6 b. 12, 6, 8, 5, 4 c. 12, 15, 12, 9, 12 ScholarFriends.com d. 23, 7, 3, 27, 16 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Appendix A - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 23. A lopsided distribution of scores in which the mean is much larger than both the mode and median is said to be a. statistically significant. b. a normal curve. c. a standard deviation. d. skewed. ANSWER: d 24. In the process of summarizing his data, Dr. Coakley notices that the distribution of scores is lopsided because of a few extreme scores. This means that his distribution a. is representative of the population. b. is unbiased. c. forms a bell-shaped curve. d. is skewed. ANSWER: d 25. When Mrs. Shim calculated her students' calculus test scores, she noticed that three of the scores were extremely high. Which measure of central tendency is affected most by these high scores? a. mean b. standard deviation c. mode d. median ANSWER: a 26. According to the 2020 U.S. Census, over 60 percent of U.S. households have "below average" income. In this instance, which measure was used to represent the average U.S. household income? a. range b. median c. standard deviation d. mean ANSWER: d 27. Median is to range as central tendency is to a. skewed distribution. b. mode. c. correlation. d. variation. ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com

28. Central tendency is to variation as ________ is to ________. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Appendix A - Multiple Choice a. scatterplot; correlation b. range; skewed distribution c. mean; standard deviation d. median; mode ANSWER: c 29. The difference between the highest and lowest scores in a distribution is the a. mean. b. range. c. median. d. standard deviation. ANSWER: b 30. Your instructor tells the class that on the last exam the lowest score was 66 and the highest score was 95. What is the range for the test scores? a. 75 b. 161 c. 29 d. 66 ANSWER: c 31. During the last Tuckahoe High School basketball game, the players on the starting team scored 8, 10, 16, 18, and 28 points, respectively. For this distribution of scores, the range is a. 8. b. 10. c. 20. d. 28. ANSWER: c 32. Which of the following is a measure of the degree of variation among a set of scores? a. mean b. scatterplot c. standard deviation d. correlation coefficient ANSWER: c 33. Selwyn is trying to determine the consistency of his soccer scores during the past season. Which of the following measures would tell him what he wants to know? a. mean b. median ScholarFriends.com c. standard deviation Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Appendix A - Multiple Choice d. correlation coefficient ANSWER: c 34. Although Millie's psychology class is sometimes longer or shorter than usual, on average each class is 50 minutes. If the lengths of these classes form a normal curve, which statistic would enable Millie to estimate the probability that any single class will last somewhere between 45 and 55 minutes? a. range b. median c. correlation coefficient d. standard deviation ANSWER: d 35. Jerome scored 100 on the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale. What does this mean? a. He has below-average intelligence. b. He has above-average intelligence. c. He is of average intelligence. d. His intelligence level cannot be determined. ANSWER: c 36. The symmetrical, bell-shaped figure used to represent the distribution of many physical and psychological characteristics is called a a. bar graph. b. normal curve. c. correlation. d. scatterplot. ANSWER: b 37. A normal curve is a a. graphed cluster of dots showing patterns of correlation. b. graphic representation of measures of central tendency. c. symmetrical, bell-shaped curve. d. statistical index of the direction and strength of a relationship between two variables. ANSWER: b 38. A normal curve would approximate the distribution of a. adolescents and young adults in the total American population. b. American children enrolled in each of the first through sixth grades. c. the physical heights of all American women. d. all of these data. ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com

39. Approximately ________ percent of the cases represented by the normal curve fall between –1 and +1 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Appendix A - Multiple Choice standard deviations from the mean. a. 16 b. 34 c. 68 d. 95 ANSWER: c 40. If a set of standardized test scores is normally distributed, having a mean of 65 and a standard deviation of 15, approximately 68 percent of the group members receive scores somewhere between a. 65 and 75. b. 65 and 80. c. 55 and 75. d. 45 and 80. ANSWER: c 41. Approximately 95 percent of the cases represented by the normal curve fall within ________ standard deviation(s) from the mean. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 5 ANSWER: b 42. If IQ scores are normally distributed, having a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 15, approximately what percentage of people have IQ scores somewhere between 70 and 130? a. 34 b. 50 c. 68 d. 95 ANSWER: d 43. A variable is defined as a. the gap between the highest and lowest scores. b. anything that can vary and is feasible and ethical to measure. c. a coefficient. d. a computed measure of how much scores vary around the mean. ANSWER: b 44. Anything that can vary and is feasible and ethical to measure is called a(n) a. scatterplot. b. coefficient. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Appendix A - Multiple Choice c. integer. d. variable. ANSWER: d 45. Professor Minguez is measuring the relationship between a person's height and career success; that is, she is measuring whether these two ________ are related. a. ranges b. standard deviations c. variables d. medians ANSWER: c 46. Correlation is a measure of the extent to which two variables a. are related. b. are standardized. c. influence each other. d. are in the range. ANSWER: a 47. Which of the following is a statistical measure of the direction and strength of the relationship between two variables? a. standard deviation b. correlation coefficient c. range d. mean ANSWER: b 48. Professor Calash is conducting a study of the relationship between social media use and popularity among teenagers. He is most likely to use ________ to determine if a relationship exists. a. descriptive statistics b. inferential statistics c. a correlation coefficient d. experimental research ANSWER: c 49. Which of the following statistical measures is most helpful for indicating the extent to which intelligence test scores can be used to predict grades in school? a. mean b. standard deviation c. correlation coefficient d. range ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Appendix A - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 50. A graphed cluster of dots, each of which represents the values of two factors, is called a a. bar graph. b. scatterplot. c. normal curve. d. correlation coefficient. ANSWER: b 51. Displaying data in a scatterplot can help us see the extent to which two variables are a. random samples. b. normally distributed. c. correlated. d. standard deviations. ANSWER: c 52. To represent the correlation between two variables graphically, researchers often construct a a. skewed distribution. b. scatterplot. c. standard deviation. d. bar graph. ANSWER: b 53. Dr. Johnson has used a ________ to display the results of his study on the correlation between college student stress and academic performance. a. bar graph b. scatterplot c. table d. normal curve ANSWER: b 54. A positive correlation indicates a. a direct relationship in which two sets of scores increase together or decrease together. b. an inverse relationship in which scores for one variable increase as scores for another variable decrease. c. a measure of how much scores vary around the mean score. d. the difference between the highest and lowest scores in a distribution. ANSWER: a 55. A negative correlation indicates a. a direct relationship in which two sets ofScholarFriends.com scores increase together or decrease together. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Appendix A - Multiple Choice b. an inverse relationship in which scores for one variable increase as scores for another variable decrease. c. a measure of how much scores vary around the mean score. d. the difference between the highest and lowest scores in a distribution. ANSWER: b 56. If the points on a scatterplot are clustered in a pattern that extends from the upper left to the lower right, this would suggest that the two variables depicted are a. normally distributed. b. positively correlated. c. negatively correlated. d. not correlated. ANSWER: c 57. If a positive correlation between two sets of scores is displayed in a scatterplot, the points are clustered in a pattern that a. resembles a bell-shaped curve. b. extends from the lower left to the upper right of the graph. c. resembles a U-shaped curve. d. extends from the upper left to the lower right of the graph. ANSWER: b 58. Professor O'Malley displays on a scatterplot the relationship between students' exam scores and their success at obtaining gainful employment. The points on the scatterplot are most likely clustered in a pattern that a. resembles a U-shaped curve. b. extends from the upper left to the lower right. c. resembles a bell-shaped curve. d. extends from the lower left to the upper right. ANSWER: d 59. Which of the following correlations between self-esteem and body weight would enable you to most accurately predict body weight from knowledge of level of self-esteem? a. +0.60 b. +0.01 c. –0.10 d. –0.06 ANSWER: a 60. Which of the following correlation coefficients expresses the weakest degree of relationship between two variables? a. –0.15 ScholarFriends.com b. –0.99 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Appendix A - Multiple Choice c. +0.20 d. –0.65 ANSWER: a 61. Illusory correlation refers to a. the perception of a relationship between two variables that does not exist. b. a correlation that exceeds the value of +1.00. c. a random cluster of points on a scatterplot. d. the belief that correlations indicate relationships between causes and effects. ANSWER: a 62. Gamblers often throw dice gently for low numbers and hard for high numbers. This most directly illustrates a. an illusion of control. b. a scatterplot. c. the normal curve. d. regression toward the mean. ANSWER: a 63. The illusion that uncontrollable events are correlated with our actions is fed by a phenomenon known as a. regression toward the mean. b. the correlation coefficient. c. the central tendency. d. the standard deviation. ANSWER: a 64. Regression toward the mean refers to the tendency for a. changes in one factor to predict changes in another factor. b. unusual scores or events to be followed by more ordinary scores or events. c. pessimistic thinking to trigger episodes of depression. d. data to be distributed in a normal curve. ANSWER: b 65. Vivek is generally a happy person. Two weeks ago, he felt sad and depressed. This week, he feels happy again. What is the best explanation for his fluctuating emotions? a. illusory correlation b. descriptive statistics c. regression toward the mean d. correlational relationship ANSWER: c ScholarFriends.com 66. Potokar earned an A on last month's biology test and a B on this month's test, even though he studied Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Appendix A - Multiple Choice equally hard for both tests. Which of the following best explains Potokar's deteriorating pattern of performance? a. illusory correlation b. the illusion of control c. the random sampling effect d. regression toward the mean ANSWER: d 67. After sports magazines give cover-story attention to the recent outstanding performances of an athlete, the individual often suffers a real decline in performance. This may be at least partially explained in terms of a. illusory correlation. b. the illusion control. c. the placebo effect. d. regression toward the mean. ANSWER: d 68. Nicole, who is an average cricket player, has scored 30 points in her country's last game. It is most likely that she will score fewer points in later games. Psychologists call this a. illusory correlation. b. an illusion of control. c. regression toward the mean. d. the normal curve. ANSWER: c 69. In research studies, psychologists use ________ to decide whether an observed difference between two groups is significant. a. scatterplots b. regression toward the mean c. inferential statistics d. illusory correlation ANSWER: c 70. Statistical reasoning can help us to generalize correctly from a a. range to a standard deviation. b. standard deviation to a mean. c. sample to a population. d. scatterplot to a skewed distribution. ANSWER: c 71. When we say that the difference between samples is statistically significant, we are saying that a. the sample and the population correlate positively. b. our sample's difference reflects a true population difference. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Appendix A - Multiple Choice c. the sample deviates only +1 from the mean. d. the sample provides a skewed distribution. ANSWER: b 72. The best basis for generalizing results is from a(n) ________ sample of cases. a. variable b. representative c. significant d. unrepresentative ANSWER: b 73. ________ samples are better than ________ samples. a. Significant; variable b. Representative; unrepresentative c. Variable; representative d. Significant; unrepresentative ANSWER: b 74. Professor Heinz wants to examine the impact of parental divorce on childhood outcomes. To do so, he collects data from adult participants who experienced the divorce of their parents when they were children. His participants make up a(n) a. variable sample. b. representative sample. c. significant sample. d. unrepresentative sample. ANSWER: b 75. Which statement is true regarding representative samples? a. Generalizations based on a few unrepresentative cases are unreliable. b. Exceptional cases are the best for drawing conclusions that can be generalized to the population. c. Research usually samples from the entire human population. d. Fewer cases from an unrepresentative sample are better than many cases from a representative sample. ANSWER: a 76. Wayan earned an 84 on his first sociology exam, an 86 on the second exam, and an 82 on the third exam. What can be said about his exam scores? a. They are a reliable representation of his performance in the class. b. He needs to take more exams in order to determine a reliable representation of his class performance. c. They do not represent his class performance. d. They demonstrate differences in variability and reliability. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Appendix A - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 77. Which of the following is true of larger samples? a. They are less representative. b. They make for a more replicable study. c. They are more variable. d. They have larger standard deviations. ANSWER: b 78. The college dean is deciding whether to build a new dormitory to house an increase in student enrollments or try to fit everyone in the existing dormitories. His colleague suggests asking 15 students for their opinions. He would prefer to ask all 75 of the students in an existing dorm. Why? a. Representative samples are better than biased samples. b. Bigger samples are better than smaller ones. c. More estimates are better than fewer estimates. d. Descriptive statistics are more precise. ANSWER: b 79. A cross-sectional study is one in which a. the same people are retested over a period of years. b. different age groups are tested at the same time. c. different characteristics of a given individual are assessed at the same time. d. the behavior of a group is assessed by different researchers. ANSWER: b 80. Professor Steely arranged for 35-, 45-, and 65-year-old people to complete a problem-solving test. He then compared the problem-solving ability of the people in these different age groups. The professor's research best illustrates a a. longitudinal study. b. normal curve. c. cross-sectional study. d. standard deviation. ANSWER: c 81. A longitudinal study is one in which a. different characteristics of individuals are assessed at the same time. b. individuals of different ages are compared with one another. c. the behavior of a group of individuals is assessed by different researchers. d. the same people are tested and retested over time. ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com

82. Repeatedly assessing the intelligence of the same group of people at different times across their life span Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Appendix A - Multiple Choice best illustrates a a. predictive study. b. cross-sectional study. c. correlational study. d. longitudinal study. ANSWER: d 83. Researchers studied how taking 1000 mg of vitamin D3 daily affected the health of 250 town residents from young to older adulthood. This research procedure best illustrated a. regression toward the mean. b. a cross-sectional study. c. a scatterplot. d. a longitudinal study. ANSWER: d 84. Cross-sectional research indicated that with age, mental ability ________. Longitudinal research indicated that as adults age, intelligence ________. a. remains stable; declines b. declines; declines c. declines; remains stable d. increases; remains stable ANSWER: c 85. Which of the following best explains why early cross-sectional research found that intelligence declines with age? a. Cross-sectional studies compare groups of people over an extended length of time. b. Early cross-sectional studies were limited because a large number of participants withdrew from the studies. c. Cross-sectional studies compare groups of people who are the same age. d. Early cross-sectional studies compared people of different eras who had varying levels of education and different family experiences. ANSWER: d 86. Educational differences between people from different generations partially account for the apparent agerelated decline in mental ability found in a. standard deviations. b. longitudinal studies. c. the normal curve. d. cross-sectional studies. ANSWER: d ScholarFriends.com

87. Longer survival rates of the healthiest and brightest people partially account for the apparent stability of Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Appendix A - Multiple Choice intelligence across the life span found in a. the normal curve. b. longitudinal studies. c. standard deviations. d. cross-sectional studies. ANSWER: b 88. A sample average can be used to estimate a population average with greater precision if the sample is a. large. b. a skewed distribution. c. highly variable. d. vivid and memorable. ANSWER: a 89. Which of the following events is the most probable? a. flipping 6 or more heads in 10 coin flips b. flipping 60 or more heads in 100 coin flips c. flipping 600 or more heads in 1000 coin flips d. All these events are equally probable. ANSWER: a 90. In a single day, 45 babies were born in hospital X, 65 babies in hospital Y, and 25 babies in hospital Z. At which hospital is there the greatest probability that more than 60 percent of the babies are female? a. hospital X b. hospital Y c. hospital Z d. The probability is the same at all three hospitals. ANSWER: c 91. Differences between two sample averages are most likely to be statistically significant if a. the difference between the samples is large. b. the standard deviations of the samples are large. c. both samples are drawn from the same population. d. the sample means are larger than the sample medians. ANSWER: a 92. To determine whether a difference between groups is reliable and statistically significant, you would use a. representative samples. b. data observations. c. increased number of participants. ScholarFriends.com d. inferential statistics. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Appendix A - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 93. James, a graduate student, is working on his thesis. He is examining factors that may be related to academic achievement among college students and wants to ensure that his results describe the larger population. To accomplish his goal, he should use a. inferential statistics. b. a correlation. c. descriptive statistics. d. a score distribution. ANSWER: a 94. To find out whether observed differences between samples reflect actual differences between populations, you should determine the ________ of the observed differences. a. mean b. median c. standard deviation d. statistical significance ANSWER: d 95. A statistically significant difference between two sample groups is NOT likely to be a. a reflection of differences between the populations they represent. b. due to chance variation within and between the sample groups. c. observed more than 5 percent of the time the groups are compared. d. observed when the two groups are very large. ANSWER: b 96. Dr. Eudy conducted a study in which he compared the aggressive behavior of high school students who either played violent video games or did not play violent video games. The average scores used for aggressive behavior were reliable for both groups and the difference between the two groups was relatively large. This means that the results he found can be considered a. reliable. b. valid. c. statistically significant. d. correlated. ANSWER: c 97. Statistical significance indicates all of the following EXCEPT a. the importance of the results. b. the likelihood that the results happened by chance. c. the averages from two samples are each reliable measures of their populations. d. the difference between two populations has any practical significance. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Appendix A - Multiple Choice 98. A statistical procedure for analyzing the results of multiple studies to reach an overall conclusion is called a. effect size. b. meta-analysis. c. statistical significance. d. the null hypothesis. ANSWER: b 99. Professor Mitchell wants to determine whether social media have a negative effect on students. To get the most accurate results, she is combining the results of multiple studies on this subject. She is conducting a a. correlational study. b. meta-analysis. c. measure of variation. d. measure of central tendency. ANSWER: b 100. The precision with which a sample average approximates a population average increases as the a. amount of variability in the sample increases. b. amount of variability in the sample decreases. c. mean of the sample increases. d. mean of the sample decreases. ANSWER: b 101. Dr. Johnson is testing academic differences among elementary school children from high-income and lowincome families. What would a statistically significant finding mean? a. There is no difference in academic performance among elementary school children from highincome and low-income families. b. There is a difference in academic performance among elementary school children from high-income and low-income families. c. Compared with children from high-income families, elementary school children from low-income families perform better academically. d. Compared with children from low-income families, elementary school children from high-income families perform better academically. ANSWER: b 102. Averages derived from scores with ________ are more reliable than averages based on scores with ________. a. low variability; high variability b. low range; high ranges c. high variability; low variability d. high ranges; low ranges ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Appendix A - Multiple Choice 103. All statistical tests begin with the assumption that no difference exists between groups. This is called a. effect size. b. meta-analysis. c. statistical significance. d. the null hypothesis. ANSWER: d 104. In a study of differences in impulsiveness between men and women, Professor Stuart begins by assuming that there are no differences between men and women. This is called a. a correlation. b. the null hypothesis. c. a measure of variation. d. regression toward the mean. ANSWER: b

ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Appendix B - Multiple Choice 1. Those who view their work as a necessary way to make money are said to view work as a a. contract. b. job. c. calling. d. career. ANSWER: b 2. Rodrigo knows that he has no choice but to go to work. He needs the paycheck each week to pay his rent, electric, and water bills and save for retirement. He views his work as a a. job. b. career. c. calling. d. position. ANSWER: a 3. Those who view their work as a career are especially likely to be concerned about opportunities for a. outsourcing. b. creating action plans. c. transformational leadership. d. increasingly better employment positions. ANSWER: d 4. Mary Louise devotes all energies to doing a good job mainly because she hopes to be promoted to supervisor of her department. Mary Louise apparently views her work as a a. calling. b. job. c. contract. d. career. ANSWER: d 5. People report the greatest satisfaction with their work and their lives if they a. work only part-time. b. view their work as a calling. c. are strongly motivated by high wages. d. are supervised by managers with a directive style. ANSWER: b 6. Mr. Palma is a lawyer who views his work as a fulfilling and socially useful activity. This means that he is more likely to a. be actively disengaged in his career. b. avoid burnout and enjoy his career. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Appendix B - Multiple Choice c. not be engaged in his work. d. experience dissatisfaction in his work. ANSWER: b 7. Those who view their work as a job report ________ work satisfaction than those who view their work as a calling, and those who view their work as a career report ________ work satisfaction than those who view their work as a calling. a. more; less b. less; more c. more; more d. less; less ANSWER: d 8. Flow is characterized by a ________ awareness of self and a ________ awareness of the passing of time. a. raised; lowered b. lowered; raised c. raised; raised d. lowered; lowered ANSWER: d 9. Manuel is a skilled and creative musician. He often becomes so involved in and focused on the music he is playing that he loses track of time. His experience best illustrates the concept of a. flow. b. task leadership. c. human factors psychology. d. mind-wandering. ANSWER: a 10. Sienna is so absorbed in solving complex engineering problems that she loses track of time as she spends entire weekends working. Sienna's experience best illustrates the concept of a. task leadership. b. managing by objectives. c. charisma. d. flow. ANSWER: d 11. Csikszentmihalyi came up with the concept of ________ after studying artists who would spend hour after hour painting or sculpting with focused concentration. a. charisma b. goal orientation c. leadership ScholarFriends.com d. flow Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Appendix B - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 12. People who experience flow are driven less by ________ than by ________. a. their calling; their career b. external rewards; intrinsic rewards c. their career; their job d. intrinsic rewards; external rewards ANSWER: b 13. Dana is interested in computers and loves to take them apart to see how they work. Dana also likes to play around with computer code and finds themselves engulfed in projects involving computers—completely losing track of time. Dana is motivated by ________ and has found ________. a. extrinsic motivation; flow b. personal achievement; satisfaction c. intrinsic motivation; flow d. appraisal; engagement ANSWER: c 14. Flow experiences boost our sense of all of the following EXCEPT a. self-esteem. b. competence. c. depression. d. well-being. ANSWER: c 15. One research team studying 10,000 Swedes found that frequent flow experiences a. created a sense of charisma in them. b. reduced their sense of competence. c. increased their risk of burnout. d. reduced their risk of depression. ANSWER: d 16. Work activities that leave you wondering "When can I do this again?" rather than "When will this be over?" are most likely to be associated with a. outsourcing. b. goal orientation. c. mind-wandering. d. the experience of flow. ANSWER: d 17. Which of the following is NOT a question ScholarFriends.com you can ask yourself to help you find flow? a. What activities give me pleasure? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Appendix B - Multiple Choice b. What sorts of challenges do I relish? c. What activities leave me wondering, "When will this be over?" d. What sorts of tasks do I learn easily? ANSWER: c 18. Alonzo is trying to determine the type of work that will provide him with flow. Which of the following questions should he NOT ask to help him decide? a. What activities give me pleasure? b. What sorts of challenges do I relish? c. What activities do I find difficult to learn? d. What activities leave me wondering, "When can I do this again?" ANSWER: c 19. Which of the following is NOT an interest identified by the career interest questionnaire located at O*NET? a. realistic b. investigative c. artistic d. spiritual ANSWER: d 20. Norman loves to create stories that suggest how early settlers survived in unexplored territory. According to the career interest questionnaire, Norman's responses would probably reflect the ________ interest type. a. realistic b. investigative c. artistic d. conventional ANSWER: c 21. A career-counseling science aims to match people's careers to their personality, that is, to be sure that they are experiencing a a. good person-environment fit. b. knowledge work experience. c. career change. d. flow experience. ANSWER: a 22. Mei is a financial consultant and is extremely conscientious. Based on the concept of the personenvironment fit, which of the following is most likely to be true of Mei and her current job? a. Mei is likely to dislike her job. b. Mei is currently looking for a new job. c. Mei is not likely to earn much money. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Appendix B - Multiple Choice d. Mei is likely to earn a good income as a financial consultant. ANSWER: d 23. Aki is training to be an actor at the local theater and has so far been told that she is a very good actor. The needs and demands of her job match her personality. She is likely high in ________, and her job requires ________. a. conscientiousness; conscientiousness b. openness; openness c. openness; conscientiousness d. conscientiousness; openness ANSWER: b 24. Rodney has always been interested in caring for animals. He spends a lot of time outdoors and frequently comes in with birds or raccoons that have been injured by a fall or attacked by another animal. As an adult, he is likely to do well as a veterinarian because a. he has scored high on O*NET's enterprising interest type. b. he has developed special skills. c. interests predict both performance and persistence. d. his interests coincide with his community's needs. ANSWER: c 25. Work in developed nations has expanded along which of the following paths? a. manufacturing → laborer → farming b. agriculture → knowledge work → science c. farming → laborer → social science d. farming → manufacturing → knowledge work ANSWER: d 26. Danylo's grandfather worked on a farm. His father worked in a factory. Most likely Danylo will a. be a farmer. b. work in a factory. c. have a manufacturing job. d. have a career related to knowledge work. ANSWER: d 27. The trend in hiring temporary employees or workers telecommuting from off-site workplaces is referred to as a. outsourcing. b. manufacturing. c. reorganization. d. knowledge work. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Appendix B - Multiple Choice 28. Harlow is a freelance editor working from her home on college textbooks. This trend in workers telecommuting from off-site workplaces is referred to as a. outsourcing. b. manufacturing. c. reorganization. d. knowledge work. ANSWER: a 29. Since the COVID-19 pandemic the number of people working remotely has increased substantially. Which of the following is NOT a question asked by I/O psychologists? a. How will remote work affect workers' attitudes toward their employer? b. Are people being underemployed now in their chosen profession? c. Does remote work affect a worker's well-being? d. How can remote work inclusively support and connect workers? ANSWER: b 30. Which of the following represents the two-way feeling of duty between workers and employers? a. a psychological contract b. flow c. appraisal d. the person-environment fit ANSWER: a 31. The psychological contract is defined as the a. advent of knowledge work as the major source of employment. b. sense of mutual obligation between workers and employers. c. efforts of leaders to motivate workers and increase worker satisfaction. d. need to optimize worker placement. ANSWER: b 32. Baldwin owns a small furniture manufacturing company. He knows that his workers will do their jobs well, and they know that he will reward them appropriately. Which of the following statements is true of Baldwin and his workers? a. They have formed a psychological contract. b. Baldwin's task leadership has proven effective. c. The charisma displayed by Baldwin is working well. d. Most but not all of the workers are engaged. ANSWER: a 33. ________ is the scientific study of working and the application of psychological concepts to human ScholarFriends.com behavior in workplaces. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Appendix B - Multiple Choice a. Social psychology b. Personality psychology c. Developmental psychology d. Industrial-organizational psychology ANSWER: d 34. Which profession is most directly involved in the application of psychology's concepts to human behavior in workplaces? a. social psychology b. personality psychology c. developmental psychology d. industrial-organizational psychology ANSWER: d 35. Personnel psychologists are most likely to be involved in a. analyzing job content. b. designing optimum work environments. c. developing systems technologies. d. facilitating organizational change. ANSWER: a 36. Kuzma's job is to select and place employees; design and evaluate training programs for employees; and measure both individual and organizational performance. Kuzma is most likely a(n) a. personnel psychologist. b. human factors psychologist. c. industrial-organizational psychologist. d. conventional psychologist. ANSWER: a 37. Developing assessment tools for selecting, placing, training and evaluating workers is of most direct relevance to a. clinical psychology. b. organizational psychology. c. human factors psychology. d. personnel psychology. ANSWER: d 38. Dr. Crivelente identifies company needs, then designs training programs, including for ethical and diverse workplaces. Her work best illustrates that of a(n) ________ psychologist. a. personnel b. organizational ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Appendix B - Multiple Choice c. human factors d. clinical ANSWER: a 39. Human factors psychologists are most likely to be involved in a. designing training programs to prepare unemployed persons for existing jobs. b. exploring how machines can be optimally designed to fit human abilities. c. assessing the impact of supervisors' management styles on business productivity. d. matching people's strengths with specific job assignments. ANSWER: b 40. Dr. Dundon is a psychologist who works on optimizing person-machine interactions in his company's factory. He is a ________ psychologist. a. personnel b. organizational c. human factors d. career ANSWER: c 41. Designing the storage area of a cruise ship so that it allows for the efficient handling of supplies best illustrates a task that might be the responsibility of a. personnel psychologists. b. organizational psychologists. c. clinical psychologists. d. human factors psychologists. ANSWER: d 42. Organizational psychologists are most likely to be involved in a. developing assessment tools for evaluating workers' performance. b. modifying work environments to improve employee engagement. c. contributing to the design of user-friendly industrial machines. d. designing training programs to prepare unemployed persons for existing jobs. ANSWER: b 43. Dr. Dragutan studies how an organization's goals, work environments, and management styles influence worker motivation, productivity, and satisfaction. They are most likely a(n) a. organizational psychologist. b. personnel psychologist. c. human factors psychologist. d. performance psychologist. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Appendix B - Multiple Choice 44. In the process of generating humanitarian reforms in a cotton mill in Scotland, Robert Owen demonstrated a. flow. b. outsourcing. c. the bell-shaped curve. d. transformational leadership. ANSWER: d 45. Which of the following is NOT a way in which Robert Owen demonstrated transformational leadership? a. He developed a nursery school for preschool children. b. He created assisted listening technology. c. He offered Sundays off from work. d. He provided health care to workers. ANSWER: b 46. Satisfied employees' positive moods at work have most clearly been found to promote a. a directive leadership style. b. outsourcing. c. helpfulness and persistence. d. charisma. ANSWER: c 47. In one analysis, employee job satisfaction at 31 firms a. was unrelated to the company's profitability or employee productivity. b. was found to benefit top management substantially. c. predicted those firms' profitability over the next 4 years. d. found a modest correlation between individual job satisfaction and performance. ANSWER: c 48. Employees who work with commitment and energy and feel connected to their company can be described as ________ employees. a. engaged b. not engaged c. disengaged d. actively disengaged ANSWER: a 49. Mortimer feels fully committed to the company he works for because their goals of good customer service match his own personal sense of occupational calling. Mortimer's attitude best illustrates a. a directive leadership style. b. charisma. ScholarFriends.com c. operant conditioning. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Appendix B - Multiple Choice d. employee engagement. ANSWER: d 50. When Nari goes to work, she works with commitment and energy and truly feels connected to her organization. Nari can be described as a(n) ________ employee. a. engaged b. not engaged c. disengaged d. actively disengaged ANSWER: a 51. Employees who put in work time but invest little passion or energy in their work are described as a. resilient. b. outsourced. c. not engaged. d. actively disengaged. ANSWER: c 52. Orson shows up to work every day and on time, but he is bored with his job. Orson would be described as a. engaged. b. not engaged. c. actively disengaged. d. conscientious. ANSWER: b 53. Unhappy employees who also undermine their co-workers' accomplishments are described as a. resilient. b. outsourced. c. not engaged. d. actively disengaged. ANSWER: d 54. Charmaine hates her job and her coworkers. She deliberately messes up the work of her coworkers and tries to harm the outcome of their work efforts. She can be said to be a(n) ________ employee. a. engaged b. not engaged c. disengaged d. actively disengaged ANSWER: d 55. A business setting in which workers have regular opportunities to do what they do best and perceive that ScholarFriends.com they are part of something significant is one that promotes Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Appendix B - Multiple Choice a. task leadership. b. action plans. c. employee engagement. d. employee performance reviews. ANSWER: c 56. Engaged employees are likely to a. practice human factors psychology. b. view their work as a job rather than a calling. c. prefer working for managers with a directive management style. d. know what is expected of them at their workplace. ANSWER: d 57. When examining the relationship between employee engagement and business success, a longitudinal study of 142,000 workers concluded that a. the success of the business hindered employee positive attitudes. b. there was no relationship between employee attitudes and business success. c. employee attitudes could not predict future business success. d. over time, employee attitudes predicted future business success. ANSWER: d 58. Those who motivate and influence others to enable their group's success and who engage others' interests and loyalty are called a. leaders. b. personnel. c. psychologists. d. managers. ANSWER: a 59. An individual's ability to motivate and influence others to contribute to their group's success is referred to as a. positive reinforcement. b. leadership. c. participative management. d. engagement. ANSWER: b 60. Kiril is the plant supervisor for a company that manufactures computers. He makes sure that each employee is assigned to a task that meets their interests. He is also very good at motivating his employees to do the best job they know how. Kiril is a(n) a. engaged employee. b. leader. ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Appendix B - Multiple Choice c. human factors psychologist. d. company interviewer. ANSWER: b 61. Amanda is great at motivating and influencing other people to contribute to the success of the group. Amanda is demonstrating ________ leadership. a. effective b. engaged c. social d. directive ANSWER: a 62. The end of the calendar year is quickly approaching. What are you likely to do this time of year? a. get a new job b. set goals c. enroll in a new class d. learn a new skill ANSWER: b 63. The on-time completion of major work projects is most clearly promoted by a. reducing flow. b. mind-wandering. c. outsourcing. d. creating action plans. ANSWER: d 64. A specification of when, where, and how to achieve the subgoals necessary for completion of a major task illustrates a(n) a. psychological contact. b. state of flow. c. action plan. d. democratic leadership style. ANSWER: c 65. You are in your first year of college and planning on majoring in biology. Your list of things to accomplish this year include earning an A in your anatomy class, pass the next anatomy exam, complete a bachelor's degree in biology, and get accepted to a biology graduate program. What should you focus on first? a. earning an A in the class b. passing the next exam c. earning your degree d. acceptance into graduate school ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Appendix B - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 66. Action plans that break larger goals into subgoals and specify where, when, and how to achieve those subgoals, also known as ________, increase the likelihood of completing the larger goal successfully. a. charisma b. flow c. implementation intentions d. transformational leadership ANSWER: c 67. Leaders who set target dates for the completion of specific measurable goals best illustrate a. transformational leadership. b. managing by objectives. c. a goal orientation. d. the experience of flow. ANSWER: b 68. Sebastian is the lead lawyer for a person accused of embezzling from their firm. To be sure his team can mount a proper defense Sebastian prepares an action plan, setting dates by which they must complete certain tasks. Sebastian is a. engaging in social leadership. b. managing by objective. c. experiencing participative management. d. creating a checklist. ANSWER: b 69. Leaders with the ability to influence others while making them comfortable and inspiring their loyalty are said to demonstrate a. flow. b. charisma. c. directive leadership. d. a Western culture orientation. ANSWER: b 70. Donovan has the ability to influence others while making them comfortable. He is able to inspire other people's loyalty and focus their enthusiasm. Donovan is demonstrating a. charisma. b. flow. c. social leadership. d. task leadership. ANSWER: a ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Appendix B - Multiple Choice 71. Managers who excel at task leadership typically a. demonstrate charisma. b. use a directive style. c. discourage employee performance reviews. d. use a democratic style. ANSWER: b 72. Mila is the plant manager for a company that makes shoes. Without asking employees' opinions, she sets standards, organizes work, and focuses attention on goals. Mila best illustrates a. charisma. b. transformational leadership. c. engagement. d. a directive leadership style. ANSWER: d 73. Managers with a task-leadership style would be most likely to a. help resolve a conflict between two argumentative employees. b. give employees a high degree of freedom to develop their own work procedures. c. remind employees of the exact deadlines for the completion of work projects. d. avoid closely monitoring the productivity of individual employees. ANSWER: c 74. A directive style is to ________ as a democratic style is to ________. a. management leadership; goal-oriented leadership b. charisma; task leadership c. task leadership; social leadership d. flow; charisma ANSWER: c 75. Managers who excel at social leadership typically a. demonstrate charisma. b. use a democratic style. c. discourage employee performance reviews. d. use a democratic style. ANSWER: b 76. Managers with a social-leadership style would be most likely to a. help resolve a conflict between two argumentative employees. b. dictate to employees the exact procedures to follow. c. remind employees of the exact deadlines for the completion of work projects. ScholarFriends.com d. closely monitor the productivity of individual employees. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Appendix B - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 77. A group-oriented manager who helps group members solve their conflicts and builds effective teamwork most clearly demonstrates a. managing by objectives. b. the experience of flow. c. social leadership. d. a directive management style. ANSWER: c 78. If given a chance to express their own opinions during a decision-making process, people will respond more positively to the decision. This best illustrates the value of a. task leadership. b. flow. c. a democratic leadership style. d. action plans. ANSWER: c 79. As a manager, Klaus is good at dividing employees into effective groups for specific projects and at resolving any conflicts that occur. He appears to be high in a. social leadership. b. task leadership. c. participative management. d. providing positive reinforcement. ANSWER: a 80. A military general is to a ________ style of leadership as a band leader is to ________ style. a. transformational; task b. social; task c. directive; democratic d. democratic; directive ANSWER: c 81. Motivating workers to identify with and commit themselves to a group mission best illustrates a. the experience of flow. b. operant conditioning. c. a directive management style. d. transformational leadership. ANSWER: d 82. Nik is the manager of a human resources department. They have high standards with the goal of maintaining ScholarFriends.com and improving employee morale, which they communicate to their department in such a way that their coCopyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Appendix B - Multiple Choice workers are glad to share their vision. Nik is demonstrating a. transformational leadership. b. task leadership. c. participative management. d. providing positive reinforcement. ANSWER: a 83. Women are more likely than men to exhibit the qualities associated with a. outsourcing. b. achievement motivation. c. transformational leadership. d. a directive management style. ANSWER: c 84. Studies in India, Taiwan, and Iran suggest that effective leaders are those who a. tend to be more directive. b. focus primarily on the task at hand. c. exhibit a high degree of both task and social leadership. d. tend to ignore their workers' personal needs. ANSWER: c 85. By praising their employees' positive behaviors, managers often encourage their workers to continue laboring productively. This best illustrates the value of a. reinforcement. b. action plans. c. a democratic management style. d. experiencing flow. ANSWER: a 86. As an office manager, Beatriz often calls her employees' attention to their occasional mistakes while withholding praise for their many accomplishments. Beatriz fails to take full advantage of a basic principle of a. outsourcing. b. operant conditioning. c. task leadership. d. human factors psychology. ANSWER: b 87. A work environment that satisfies employees' need ________ can be energizing to them. a. for direction b. to belong ScholarFriends.com c. for attention Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Appendix B - Multiple Choice d. for very specific orders ANSWER: b 88. Matilde aims to be an effective leader and knows that ________ can be energizing to employees. a. the use of negative punishments b. helping them feel like they belong c. a directive leadership style d. following specific orders ANSWER: b 89. Sokol enjoys good relations with his co-workers and frequently spends time with them over the weekend. How will these friendships affect Sokol at work? a. He will not get much work done because he is too busy making friends. b. He will talk too much to his co-workers while at work. c. He will experience depression at work because he does not have friends outside his workplace. d. He will be energized at work because he feels that he belongs there. ANSWER: d 90. Grayson and their fellow workers always get to voice their opinion before a company decision is made. Which of the following is NOT associated with this form of participative management? a. Grayson and their fellow workers will be creative at work. b. Grayson and their fellow workers will be committed to their job. c. Grayson and their fellow workers will feel belittled by the company that they work for. d. Grayson and their fellow workers will be pleased with company decisions. ANSWER: c 91. Which of the following is NOT true regarding cultural influences on leadership styles? a. Some cultures encourage collective sharing of resources and rewards. b. Culture shapes leadership and what makes for leadership success. c. Some cultures highlight traditional gender roles. d. Cultural influences ensure that no leader behaviors are universally effective. ANSWER: d 92. Regardless of culture, research has found that successful leaders a. punish employee deficiencies. b. encourage employee privacy. c. fulfill expectations. d. promote employee independence. ANSWER: c 93. Which type of leadership supports happier,ScholarFriends.com more creative, more productive employees with less turnover and absenteeism? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Appendix B - Multiple Choice a. strengths-based leadership b. transformational leadership c. social leadership d. task leadership ANSWER: a 94. You just started a supervisory position at a company. What is one thing that you can do to increase employee engagement, customer satisfaction, and profitability? a. punish employee deficiencies b. identify and enhance employee strengths c. promote employee independence d. encourage employee privacy ANSWER: b 95. Expecting every faculty member at a university to teach the same number of courses, advise the same number of students, serve on the same number of committees, and engage in the same amount of research would a. interfere with the practice of outsourcing. b. help to promote social leadership. c. fail to match tasks to the unique strengths of each professor. d. promote the professors' experience of flow. ANSWER: c

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Essay 1. An online news story claims that subtle differences between the body odors of male and female infants enable women to correctly identify the sex of a baby solely on the basis of their smell. Describe how critical thinking and the scientific attitude would enable you to think effectively about this claim. ANSWER: 2. Outline the three key aspects of a scientific attitude and provide an example of each. ANSWER: 3. Briefly outline the history of psychology. ANSWER: 4. Compare and contrast behaviorism, Freudian psychology, and humanistic psychology. ANSWER: 5. Describe how psychology has changed since its early origins as the study of mental processes to the science it is today. ANSWER: 6. How were women first treated in the male-dominated field of psychology? Give specific examples. How has the treatment of women in the field changed over time? ANSWER: 7. Minerva has decided that she does not want to major in psychology because she thinks it involves only clinical work with people who have behavior disorders. Use your knowledge of psychology's perspectives and subfields to expand Minerva's misperceptions about career opportunities for psychologists. ANSWER: 8. Compare and contrast some of the subfields of psychology that are most likely to involve basic research. ANSWER: 9. Compare and contrast the subfields of psychology that are most likely to involve applied research. ANSWER: 10. Julio is an industrial-organizational psychologist. Briefly compare Julio's focus with that of Sheldon, who is a cognitive psychologist. ANSWER: 11. Riza is in the third grade. He is frequently disruptive in class when he isn't daydreaming about play after school. Describe how a biopsychosocial approach might provide both an integrated explanation of Riza's classroom behavior and practical suggestions for helping Riza to cope more effectively with the challenges he faces. ANSWER: 12. Explain how the nature–nurture issue is debated in the field of psychology. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Essay 13. Outline how our visual system is a dual-processing system. ANSWER: 14. Discuss the differences and similarities between clinical psychology and counseling psychology. ANSWER: 15. Professor Xi explains that she is a positive psychologist. What does that mean? ANSWER: 16. When your best friend hears that you are taking a psychology course, she asserts that psychology is simply common sense. Explain why your awareness of both the limits of everyday reasoning and the methods of psychological research would lead you to disagree with your friend's assertion. ANSWER: 17. Dionata believes that the U.S. crime rate is rising. Discuss four ways in which misperceptions, such as this, are so readily accepted by most people. ANSWER: 18. Discuss the value of a theory and the testable hypotheses it produces. ANSWER: 19. Think of a research topic that might lend itself well to a case study. Why would this method be well suited to your topic? What could your case study tell us and not tell us about the topic? What are the limitations of case studies, and how would you take account of these limitations in your research? ANSWER: 20. Professor James wants to examine children's classroom behavior in relation to their peers. Explain how he would use naturalistic observation in his research. ANSWER: 21. Stephanie is a graduate student who is preparing a survey for her thesis. Her survey will assess healthcompromising behaviors among college students, such as drug and alcohol use. What should she know about wording effects when developing her survey? What can she do to make sure that her questions are not worded in such a way as to influence the responses of her participants? ANSWER: 22. Imagine that you are a researcher. Outline a study that you might want to conduct using correlation to determine if a relationship exists between your variables. Identify your variables. What kind of relationship would you expect to find between the variables you selected? ANSWER: 23. We know that correlations do not provide cause-effect explanations. Give an example of a correlation, and explain why it does not demonstrate cause and effect. ANSWER: ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 1 - Essay 24. Speaking at a Central Florida University seminar, Professor Salaya compared college and university graduates with adults with a high school education. She correctly noted that people with a college or university degree pay more taxes, are more likely to vote, and engage in more volunteer activities in their communities than less-educated adults. The professor concluded that colleges and universities obviously do great things for society. How might you reasonably challenge the way the professor reached her conclusion? ANSWER: 25. Design an experiment to test whether drinking alcohol influences people's tendency to become socially aggressive. Be sure to specify your experimental hypothesis and identify your dependent and independent variables, as well as your experimental and control conditions. Identify any experimental procedures that would help to ensure the reliability of your research. ANSWER: 26. Dr. Palma plans to study whether parental attention and caring is related, if at all, to adolescent risky behavior. Which research design should he use? What factors would Dr. Palma consider when deciding which research design is best? ANSWER: 27. The text explains that experimental researchers use simplified lab conditions to illuminate human behavior in everyday life. Identify some of those noted in the text, and discuss why you think they successfully apply theoretical principles. ANSWER: 28. To investigate the impact of alcohol consumption on sexual arousal, researchers plan to give experimental participants either an alcoholic or a nonalcoholic drink just prior to their watching a sexually arousing movie. Describe the appropriate ethical guidelines that the researchers would need to meet in order to conduct this study. ANSWER: 29. Discuss the negative effects of a 1998 fraudulent study of the effects of the MMR vaccine, then explain how scientific scrutiny may come to the rescue. ANSWER: 30. Professor Fernandes is studying the effects of a person's culture on whether the person is a conformist or independent. Discuss how the professor's work is affected by his values. ANSWER: 31. How might the application of psychological principles improve your own life? ANSWER: 32. Explain how you can use the SQ3R method for this course. ANSWER:

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Essay 1. Explain how brain neuroplasticity changes throughout life. When is it considered the greatest? ANSWER: 2. Identify the parts of the neuron and describe their functions; then draw a diagram to demonstrate how an action potential would travel into and through a neuron. ANSWER: 3. Describe how an action potential moves down a neuron. ANSWER: 4. Describe the process by which neurons communicate with other neurons. ANSWER: 5. Describe the role of glial cells in relation to nerve cells. ANSWER: 6. Explain what we mean when we say a neuron's response is an all-or-none response. ANSWER: 7. Identify some of the more common neurotransmitters and describe their roles in the body and the effects they can have when they malfunction. ANSWER: 8. Inez is using an opioid to lessen her feelings of anxiety. Explain how Inez's use of opioids may affect the brain's natural pain-killing neurotransmitters. ANSWER: 9. Diagram the divisions and subdivisions of the nervous system. Make sure to explain the responsibilities and functions of each. ANSWER: 10. While crossing the street, Diego was nearly hit by a van that missed a stop sign. Describe the response of his sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems during and after the experience. ANSWER: 11. Lucretia is baking cookies when her hand accidentally touches the hot rack in her oven. She immediately jerks her hand away. Describe the reflex that enabled Lucretia to avoid a very serious burn. ANSWER: 12. Compare and contrast neurotransmitters and hormones, by noting where they come from, how they travel through the body, their roles and responsibilities, and how and for how long they influence us. ANSWER: 13. Describe how the endocrine system and the nervous system influence one another. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Essay 14. Compare and contrast the use of an EEG and an MEG for observing mental activity. ANSWER: 15. Compare and contrast the uses of MRI and fMRI brain scans. ANSWER: 16. Describe the location and roles of the hindbrain, midbrain, and forebrain, and outline the major brain structures associated with each region. ANSWER: 17. Describe the structures, functions, and unique cross-wiring of the brainstem, the brain's innermost region. ANSWER: 18. Describe the specific functions of the brain's thalamus, which sits atop the brainstem. ANSWER: 19. Describe the structure and function of the reticular formation, which lies inside the brainstem. ANSWER: 20. Describe the specific functions of the brain's cerebellum, which extends from the rear of the brainstem. ANSWER: 21. Describe how damage to specific structures in your limbic system would likely affect your experience of (a) emotions such as fear and anger, (b) motives such as the thirst and sex drives, and (c) memories such as recall of high school classmates. ANSWER: 22. After experiencing a head injury while playing football, Mirajoy is unable to form new memories of facts and events. Use your understanding of the functioning brain to account for Mirajoy's experience. ANSWER: 23. Compare and contrast the four lobes of the brain. Where are they located, and what are their functions? ANSWER: 24. A series of strokes has damaged regions of Mr. Sklar's temporal lobes. He can still clearly hear what others are saying, but he now has trouble comprehending spoken language. Use your understanding of the brain's association areas to explain why the stroke damage could leave Mr. Sklar's hearing unaffected while interfering with his ability to identify the meaning of spoken words. ANSWER: 25. Jason and Brandon are studying together for their psychology class. Jason says, "Some people believe the myth that we use only 10 percent of our brain, but we actually use all of our brain." Explain why people believe this myth and give Jason's explanation for why it is a myth. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Essay 26. Miranda was in a train accident as a child but seems to have fully recovered as an adult. Explain the role of neuroplasticity in her recovery. ANSWER: 27. Define neurogenesis, and describe how it may play a role in helping the brain to recover from damage. ANSWER: 28. Describe the role played by the corpus callosum in a typically functioning brain, and discuss what happens when it is severed. ANSWER: 29. Compare the independent functions of the brain's right and left hemispheres. ANSWER: 30. Describe how an understanding of both a typically functioning brain and a split brain enables us to better appreciate the fact that most information processing takes place outside of conscious awareness. ANSWER: 31. Describe the focus of the fields of biological psychology and cognitive neuroscience, and discuss the importance of consciousness to human existence. ANSWER: 32. Describe what is meant by parallel processing and sequential processing, and explain why the simultaneous occurrence of both parallel and sequential processing illustrates our two-track mind. ANSWER: 33. Imagine that you are at a party and are trying to have a conversation with a person who you just met. Explain how selective attention will help you in holding this conversation. ANSWER: 34. How might a magician manipulate our selective attention? Discuss how the principles of inattentional blindness and change blindness, specifically, could be exploited to make magic tricks seem believable. ANSWER: 35. Steve works a graveyard shift at his current place of employment and always feels tired and sleep deprived. Explain how this work pattern is affecting his circadian rhythm. ANSWER: 36. Identify the different sleep stages, and describe what occurs during each stage. ANSWER: 37. It's 10 P.M. and Oriol has just gotten into bed. His 3-year-old daughter is in the next room crying and the neighbor's dog is barking. Describe how these events will or will not affect Oriol's sleep. Identify some of the myths associated with sleep. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 2 - Essay 38. Werner has worked hard all day, had a nice, filling dinner at 7, watched some TV for a while, and is now sound asleep. Describe the interactive effects of biology and environment during sleep and as Werner awakens. ANSWER: 39. Compare and contrast the five theories that are used to help explain our need for sleep. ANSWER: 40. Discuss what happens to the different parts of our bodies if we are deprived of sleep, and describe how these responses might affect a sleep-deprived person on a daily basis. ANSWER: 41. Compare and contrast the major sleep disorders that are discussed in the text. ANSWER: 42. Andre, a college junior, has difficulty falling asleep at night and therefore avoids going to bed until very late at night. Before he retires for the night, he tries to wear himself out by doing 100 push-ups. Before getting into bed he eats some cake, takes a couple of sleeping pills, and then reviews the assignments of his early morning class. What specific advice would you give Andre to help him fall asleep? ANSWER: 43. Justine was present when there was an active shooter at a concert. Describe the dreams she was likely to have the night after the shooting, and explain why she would have those dreams. ANSWER: 44. Jesse studied all day Tuesday for Wednesday's psychology test. In a dream Tuesday night, Jesse imagined that he received an A on the test. Compare and contrast explanations of Jesse's dream that might be provided by Freud's wish-fulfillment theory, by an information-processing theory, and by the theory that dreams are initiated by random neural activation. ANSWER:

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Essay 1. Professor Alvarez is a developmental psychologist who is planning on studying the development of motor skills in children. He has to decide whether to conduct a longitudinal or cross-sectional study. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of each type of study in relation to the study of motor skill development. ANSWER: 2. What are the three major issues in developmental psychology? Provide an example of each. ANSWER: 3. Describe one of your personality traits that you believe to be heavily influenced by your unique genetic profile and another trait that seems to be much less so. Provide reasons for your answer, and explain why you would expect genetics to exert a greater impact on some personality traits than on others. ANSWER: 4. Mona is taking an introductory psychology course and is now studying development throughout the life span. She notes that some psychologists focus on stages of development. Discuss the criticisms of stage theories while noting the value of the stage concept. ANSWER: 5. The text notes that we experience both stability and change throughout our life. Discuss why temperament is considered to be very stable and social attitudes are considered much less stable. ANSWER: 6. Describe the role of chromosomes, genes, and DNA in the process of conception, and discuss the interaction of heredity and environment in creating our human differences. ANSWER: 7. Explain the process of prenatal development from conception to birth. ANSWER: 8. You are in your fifth month of pregnancy. You are tired of cooking and eating at home, so you agree to go out to dinner with a friend. Your friend is surprised when you order wine with your dinner. When the waiter leaves, what should she say to convince you that it is unwise to drink alcohol while pregnant? ANSWER: 9. Explain how a newborn is prepared for survival once it enters the world. ANSWER: 10. Explain the difference between identical and fraternal twins, and describe what twin and adoption studies reveal about the extent to which variations in heredity and in-home environments contribute to personality differences. ANSWER: 11. Outline the development of brain areas in infants, and explain what that means in terms of infant memory. ANSWER: ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Essay 12. Nadja has just given birth to a 7-pound baby. Outline the motor development that she can expect to see in her infant. ANSWER: 13. Explain Piaget's theory of cognitive development, and provide an example of cognition at each stage. ANSWER: 14. When playing with other children, 4-year-old Hefner does not realize that he is upsetting his playmates when he takes toys away from them. Why would Piaget have suggested that Hefner's insensitivity to the feelings of others is, in part, due to his own cognitive limitations. Describe how you might encourage him to be more considerate of other playmates. ANSWER: 15. Explain Vygotsky's view of cognitive development. ANSWER: 16. What does it mean when we say that a child has developed a theory of mind? ANSWER: 17. Mr. Elliott spends a lot of time stroking, cuddling, and rocking his infant son and seems to be highly aware of the baby's actions and needs. Mrs. Elliott worries that her husband's interactions with the baby may eventually lead the child to (a) cry easily when frustrated, (b) fearfully cling to his father (c) become unfriendly toward other people, and (d) become withdrawn and uninterested in his surroundings. Describe research on social development that supports or refutes each of the mother's concerns. ANSWER: 18. Mrs. Fuentes is extremely shy and often feels anxious for no particular reason. She tells her therapist that she had an unhappy childhood, feeling that she did not receive enough attention from her parents and resenting the conservative family discipline and lifestyle her parents enforced. She blames her parents for her current anxiety, shyness, and loneliness. In light of your understanding of the interactive influences of nature and nurture, explain why Mrs. Fuentes' complaints about her parents may be somewhat unfair and unhelpful. ANSWER: 19. What are the different types of attachment styles that psychologists have identified? Describe each one and then provide an example of each in terms of how the parent and child behave. ANSWER: 20. Explain how deprivation of physical and social contact is related to the development of attachment in infants and children. ANSWER: 21. Mr. and Mrs. McDonald believe in the importance of stern discipline; they impose strict rules that they expect their children to obey without question. They penalize misbehavior harshly, frequently with a spanking. Mr. and Mrs. Reynolds use milder forms of punishment to enforce their rules. They also have regular family meetings in which their children help them to establish household rules and penalties for breaking them. What ScholarFriends.com do you see as the advantages and disadvantages of these two disciplinary approaches? Explain the reasons for Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Essay your answer. ANSWER: 22. Compare and contrast variations in child-raising practices over time and across cultures. ANSWER: 23. Explain how the different parenting styles may be related to how their children turn out. ANSWER: 24. Define puberty, and describe the various physical changes that adolescents undergo at this time. ANSWER: 25. Explain why adolescents are more likely to engage in risky behaviors, such as smoking, speeding, and engaging in unprotected sex using what you know about brain development during adolescence. ANSWER: 26. Ridwin is 14 years old and has started challenging many of his parents' values and to express his own views of how the world should be. Discuss how Piaget and Kohlberg would explain Ridwin's behavior. ANSWER: 27. Compare and contrast Kohlberg and Haidt's theories of moral judgments. ANSWER: 28. Describe the process whereby an adolescent forms an identity and provide an example. ANSWER: 29. Explain the concept of social identity and provide an example. ANSWER: 30. Jana's teenage son has developed friendships with a whole new group of teens this year. Jana is concerned. What can you say to Jana regarding the relative influences of peers and parents on adolescent development? ANSWER: 31. Define emerging adulthood, and explain why it is considered a separate developmental stage primarily in Western cultures. ANSWER: 32. Outline the physical changes that can be expected during middle and late adulthood. ANSWER: 33. Describe the cognitive decline that occurs with aging. ANSWER: 34. Angelin, who is 28 years old, is reluctant to commit herself to a lifelong marital relationship, primarily ScholarFriends.com because she believes that people's personalities often change in surprising and unpredictable ways during their Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 3 - Essay lifetimes. What professional advice could you appropriately provide to Angelin in light of the research on marital happiness, life satisfaction, and adult development? ANSWER: 35. As Adolfo moves through life, what are some factors that can affect his well-being? ANSWER: 36. Valentin and Justine's grandfather has just passed away. Describe how their reactions to their grandfather's death may differ. ANSWER:

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Essay 1. Your friend Alison, who is pregnant, recently had a sonogram that included an examination of the fetal anatomy. Based on this, the technician said, "It's a girl!" Now, Alison is planning an elaborate "gender reveal" party for her family, where she will open a box of pink balloons and unfurl a large sign that says "It's a pretty little princess!" Discuss how this relates to the different meanings of sex and gender, cultural norms, gender roles, and gender typing. ANSWER: 2. Jeremiah is a transgender male who is sexually attracted to males. Based on what you know about sex and gender, what does this mean for Jeremiah? ANSWER: 3. Males and females are more alike than different. However, they do differ significantly in some areas. Describe several significant differences, andgive examples from your own life. ANSWER: 4. Discuss how gender differences in both aggression and social connectedness are influenced by nature and nurture. Describe and justify the approaches that you would recommend to reduce the current gender differences in each of these areas. ANSWER: 5. Petula has three children with her romantic partner. She also has a degree in accounting and works for a tax preparation company. Explain common difficulties she may experience in the workplace as well as at home? ANSWER: 6. Explain how sex hormones influence prenatal sexual development. ANSWER: 7. Megan is 14 and her brother Ryan is 15. Describe their development during puberty, including the different hormones that affect Megan and Ryan as they go through their teen years. ANSWER: 8. Carl is intersex. Explain what this means, and describe one specific condition that Carl could potentially have. How might this affect Carl's gender identity? ANSWER: 9. Describe the gender roles your parents were probably taught by either their family or by society. How do they differ from those you have been taught? ANSWER: 10. Using the STEM fields as an example, compare how men and women have fared in relation to degrees earned, jobs held, and awards received. ANSWER: 11. Compare and contrast sexual harassment and sexual assault. Suggest ways to help reduce sexual aggression ScholarFriends.com in society. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Essay ANSWER: 12. James' 8-year-old son Kai wants to take classes at a ballet studio. James has angrily refused, telling Kai that "Ballet is for girls!" According to social learning theory, how might James' attitude affect Kai? ANSWER: 13. Describe likely differences between gender-typed and androgynous people with respect to the way or the extent to which they might classify things in terms of gender-linked traits such as masculinity and femininity. Illustrate your distinctions by referring to how gender-typed and androgynous people might think differently about academic interests, athletic pursuits, and political values. ANSWER: 14. Define cisgender and transgender, and, based on the text discussion, describe the problems a person who identifies as transgender will likely encounter. ANSWER: 15. Judy is now 80 years old. Identify and describe the large hormonal changes that she experienced during puberty and after menopause. She also had a hysterectomy, which caused additional hormonal shifts. Also describe how these changes affected her sexual desire. ANSWER: 16. Describe the four stages of the sexual response cycle as outlined by researchers William Masters and Virginia Johnson. ANSWER: 17. Mark was recently diagnosed with an STI. What measures can he take in the future to avoid contracting another? ANSWER: 18. Marvin and LeeAnn have been married for 25 years and previously had good sexual relations. Recently, neither of them has experienced any sexual desire. Describe how an understanding of the biological, psychological, and social-cultural factors that affect sexual feelings and behaviors might help this couple increase their sexual relations. ANSWER: 19. Vishal's romantic partner is concerned that Vishal spends hours every day viewing erotic material. Explain the adverse effects that Vishal may experience related to his exposure to such sexually explicit material. Does his romantic partner have reason to be concerned or is he overreacting? ANSWER: 20. Talking with her friend, Julia recalled having a dream last night that involved strong sexual imagery. Describe how imagined stimuli can influence sexual desire and arousal. ANSWER: ScholarFriends.com 21. Describe the effects of the mass media on teen sexual behavior, and illustrate with an example from your own life. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 4 - Essay ANSWER: 22. Now that 14-year-old Alexandra is dating, her parents want to speak with her about avoiding STIs and pregnancy. What environmental factors contribute to teens' sexual risk taking, and what measures can Alexandra's parents take to encourage responsible sexual behavior in Alexandra? ANSWER: 23. Our sexual orientation, or direction of our sexual attractions, can vary. Define each sexual orientation described in the text and provide an example of each. ANSWER: 24. Leah, who is 16, feels generally attracted to boys. Recently, however, she has also begun to feel some samesex attractions, and she wonders what this means. Drawing on research about sexual orientation and the prevalence of different sexual orientations, explain the various possibilities to Leah. ANSWER: 25. Describe how evolutionary psychologists have used natural selection to explain male-female differences in the processes of mate selection. ANSWER: 26. Kurt, who calls himself "commitment-phobic," has always felt comfortable having casual sex with multiple partners. But when Megan, with whom he has had several sexual hook-ups, begins a long-term relationship with a mutual friend, he becomes jealous and angry and threatens the friend. "I can't help it," Kurt says when Megan confronts him. "This is just how guys are!" How might an evolutionary psychologist explain Kurt's behavior? How does Kurt's thinking about his behavior illustrate a criticism of evolutionary psychology's social effects? ANSWER: 27. Most psychologists agree that natural selection prepares us for survival and reproduction. However, critics say there is a weakness in evolutionary psychology's explanation of our mating preferences. Explain those criticisms and discuss whether they are valid. Why or why not? ANSWER: 28. Explain the research that has demonstrated that sexual desire motivates people to form intimate, committed relationships, which influence their level of sexual satisfaction. ANSWER: 29. Basile tells his friend that we are formed entirely by our heredity. Explain to Basile how not only genes but also our experiences and our culture help form us. ANSWER:

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Essay 1. Compare and contrast sensation and perception. ANSWER: 2. Define bottom-up and top-down processing, and explain how research on subliminal priming might be used to indicate that our responses to stimulation below the absolute threshold may sometimes involve top-down processing. ANSWER: 3. All of our sensory systems convert one form of energy into another. To do this, each sensory system does the same three things. Describe this process and provide an example to support your description. ANSWER: 4. Compare and contrast absolute and difference thresholds. ANSWER: 5. Provide an example of how subliminal stimuli could be used in advertising. Would it be effective? ANSWER: 6. Explain how sensory adaptation would be used to respond to new auditory stimuli. ANSWER: 7. Josephine, who is 75 years old, exercises every day and so is physically fit. However, when she goes to the store, younger people indicate by the way they approach her that they see "an old lady." Explain how perceptual set plays a role in the way the young people react to Josephine. ANSWER: 8. Explain how our contexts, motivations, and emotions can help shape our perception of events happening around us. Provide an example of each to support your explanation. ANSWER: 9. Diagram and describe the structures of the eye. ANSWER: 10. Suppose you are looking at a hammer with the claw facing downward and the face and neck directed upward. Describe how incoming light reflected by the hammer is focused on the retina, and describe the location of the visual receptor cells that convert the light energy into neural impulses. Describe the pathway by which these neural impulses are forwarded to the optic nerve and on to the brain's visual processing centers, which enable you to perceive an image of a hammer. ANSWER: 11. Leondra sees a blue car. Explain how she sees the car's color; that is, explain the two stages of color processing. ANSWER: 12. Zakary has color-deficient vision. Explain ScholarFriends.com how Zakary's vision differs from the vision of those who are not Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Essay colorblind. ANSWER: 13. Describe the function and location of feature detectors. ANSWER: 14. Anh is attending a gallery opening and enjoying the artists' use of colors. Describe how parallel processing helps him construct visual perceptions of the paintings? ANSWER: 15. Angelique is studying for her sociology exam. How would a Gestalt psychologist explain her perception of the words on the pages of her textbook? ANSWER: 16. What is the difference between binocular and monocular cues? Provide an example of each. ANSWER: 17. You have been asked to paint a picture that includes buildings, fields, a river, and a mountain. Describe how you would use at least four monocular cues to give your painting a sense of depth. ANSWER: 18. First, list the different types of perceptual constancy. Then select two types and provide an example of each. ANSWER: 19. Explain how research on restored vision, sensory restriction, and perceptual adaptation serves to support and/or refute John Locke's emphasis on the importance of experience in our learning to perceive the world. ANSWER: 20. Outline how research has determined that there is a critical period for normal sensory and perceptual development. ANSWER: 21. Describe the physical properties of the air pressure waves that we hear as the sound of music at a concert. Then, describe how these sound waves are converted into fluid waves that trigger nerve impulses, which our brain interprets as music. ANSWER: 22. Compare and contrast sensorineural hearing loss and conduction hearing loss. ANSWER: 23. Jo-Ann is walking down the street when she hears a loud thud and glass breaking. Explain how Jo-Ann is able to locate the direction of the sound she just heard. ANSWER: ScholarFriends.com 24. What are the four basic touch sensations? Provide an example of each. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 5 - Essay ANSWER: 25. Explain why both top-down and bottom-up processing are emphasized by people who attempt to understand the sources of pain and how to control chronic pain. ANSWER: 26. Select two methods of pain control, and explain how they are effective. ANSWER: 27. Describe the different sensations involved with taste, and explain why the sense of taste is important for our survival. ANSWER: 28. Compare and contrast the sensations of taste and smell, and discuss how they interact to form perceptions. ANSWER: 29. Explain how a person's ability to sense their body's position and movement is used to guide them in doing gymnastics. ANSWER: 30. Elijah tells his younger brother that the five human senses—seeing, hearing, tasting, smelling, and touching—are independent of one another and of our beliefs about people and the world around us. Explain what is wrong with Elijah's belief. ANSWER: 31. Explain what is meant by embodied cognition, and then provide an example. ANSWER: 32. Yesterday your best friend fell off her bicycle. You feel guilty because the night before you dreamt of such an accident but failed to warn your friend. How would you explain your experience and how would you counter your feelings? ANSWER:

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Essay 1. Explain how learning contributes to our adaptability, giving an example from your own life. ANSWER: 2. Describe how our capacity for associative learning enables us to anticipate events, develop highly adaptive skills, and replace bad habits with beneficial ones. ANSWER: 3. Compare and contrast respondent and operant behavior. Provide at least one example of each in your explanation. ANSWER: 4. Define cognitive learning, and give an example from your own life, both early in childhood and today. ANSWER: 5. Using the basic elements of classical conditioning (US, NS, CS, UR, and CR) describe (a) how you would classically condition a curious 4-year-old to be afraid of petting a stray animal; and (b) how you would classically condition a 5-year-old who is afraid of dogs to enjoy playing with a neighbor's friendly dog? ANSWER: 6. Provide an example of classical conditioning, specifying how the processes of acquisition, extinction, spontaneous recovery, generalization, and discrimination would fit in your example. ANSWER: 7. Explain why the work of Pavlov remains an important contribution to psychology. ANSWER: 8. How did Pavlov's research influence that of Watson and modern researchers? ANSWER: 9. Explain what operant conditioning is, and give a personal example of an operant behavior being conditioned. ANSWER: 10. Explain how Skinner's research demonstrated the principles of behavior control. ANSWER: 11. Briefly describe B. F. Skinner's experiments on operant conditioning, focusing on his use of shaping as he reinforces desired behaviors. ANSWER: 12. Describe how you could use operant conditioning to teach a third-grade student better study habits. ANSWER: 13. Mr. Santana punishes his son for saying nasty things to his sister. He does not understand why his son continues to be mean to his sister. Explain Mr. Santana's predicament in terms of operant conditioning ScholarFriends.com principles. Show how he could use operant conditioning techniques to (a) reduce bad behaviors and (b) increase Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Essay cooperative behaviors. ANSWER: 14. Sanjay's drinking helps reduce his work tension and anxiety. Because of his heavy drinking, however, he is suffering serious cardiovascular problems. How can the principles of operant conditioning help to explain the development and continuation of Sanjay's self-defeating drinking habit? Explain the extent to which the reinforcement for Sanjay's habit is positive or negative, primary or conditioned, immediate or delayed, partial or continuous. ANSWER: 15. Compare and contrast the different reinforcement schedules discussed in the text (fixed-ratio, fixed-interval, variable-ratio, and variable-interval schedules). When is each reinforcement schedule most effective? ANSWER: 16. Casey's cat loves to rest on her comfortable living room chair, but Casey usually won't allow it. Every once in a while, however, Casey gives in and lets the cat join her on the chair. Use your understanding of partial reinforcement to explain how this will likely affect the cat's future behavior. ANSWER: 17. Damaris believes that punishment is the same as negative reinforcement. Explain to Damaris the difference between them, and provide examples of each to support your claim. ANSWER: 18. Suppose your 16-year-old son is lax in his care and use of the family car. How could you use both reinforcement and punishment to get him to take care of the car and be more careful in his driving? Be sure to describe the use of both positive and negative reinforcers, as well as positive and negative punishment. ANSWER: 19. Francisco is having trouble getting his 4-year-old son to listen to and obey his rules. So, he thinks that he probably should start spanking his son to get him to obey him. Explain to Francisco the five negative consequences that have been associated with spanking and what he can do instead. ANSWER: 20. Imagine you've just been promoted to manager of the retail store where you work. You'll have a staff of 10 employees working under you. Your previous manager was not especially effective, so most employees are relatively unengaged and do the minimum they need to do before leaving for the day. Using operant conditioning principles, what specific actions could you take to motivate your staff and increase their productivity and enjoyment of their work? ANSWER: 21. Imagine that you have a bad habit that you want to stop, such as biting your nails. What are some things you can do to change your own behavior? ANSWER: 22. Compare and contrast operant and classicalScholarFriends.com conditioning. ANSWER: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Essay 23. Explain how biological limits affect classical conditioning, and give an example from the research cited in the text. ANSWER: 24. Explain how biological limits affect operant conditioning, and try to think of an example from your own life. ANSWER: 25. Explain how cognitive processes influence classical conditioning, and describe the role of predictability in an animal's behavior. ANSWER: 26. Explain how cognitive processes influence operant conditioning, focusing on experiments that demonstrated latent learning. ANSWER: 27. (a) Several days after drinking an excessive amount of alcohol, Kendra becomes nauseated simply by the smell of liquor. The sight of the half-empty liquor bottle from which she drank does not, however, upset her. What does Kendra's pattern of response indicate about the limits of associative learning? (b) If George is spanked immediately after his baby sister cries, he is likely to become fearful every time she cries. If Ken is spanked immediately before his baby sister cries, he is not likely to become fearful when she cries. What do the different reactions of George and Ken suggest about the role of cognitive processes in associative learning? ANSWER: 28. Define observational learning. Give an example of how a 6-year-old might learn to play nicely with other children via observational learning. ANSWER: 29. Mr. Shim believes that movies and televised news should portray only justifiable acts of violence and should never focus on the physical injury and suffering caused by these acts. Use your understanding of observational learning to indicate the extent to which you agree or disagree with Mr. Shim. ANSWER: 30. Explain the research that has been conducted in relation to observational learning and mirror neurons. ANSWER: 31. Osner is watching his brother play basketball. How might neural mirroring be involved in his experience? ANSWER: 32. Outline how observational learning and modeling can be related to both prosocial and antisocial behaviors. ANSWER: 33. Suppose you have a friend who spends a lotScholarFriends.com of time watching violent TV shows. He says that this is not a problem because he believes that media have no effect on aggressive behavior. Based on the text discussion, Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 6 - Essay how would you respond to your friend? How would you describe the opposite view of the research in this area? ANSWER:

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Essay 1. Explain what memory is, and then provide an example, specifically identifying the memory processes of encoding, storage, and retrieval. ANSWER: 2. Explain how the Atkinson and Shiffrin model of memory was revised to replace the concept of short-term memory with the idea of working memory. ANSWER: 3. Describe how the concepts of working memory and automatic processing updated the original AtkinsonShiffrin information-processing model of memory. ANSWER: 4. Provide two examples of personal explicit and implicit memories. What is the difference between the two types of memory? ANSWER: 5. Provide an example of a time when you automatically processed information related to space, time, and frequency and later needed that information. ANSWER: 6. Explain how sensory memory works, and provide an example of an iconic memory and one of an echoic memory. ANSWER: 7. How might your effort to remember a list of words for class be affected by your short-term memory capacity? ANSWER: 8. A friend claims that the faster you read, the more you remember. Use your knowledge of effortful processing and effective encoding strategies to refute your friend's claim. ANSWER: 9. Give an example of each of the effortful processing strategies discussed in the text. Describe when each strategy would be most useful? ANSWER: 10. Describe how you would use two mnemonic techniques to remember the following list of hardware items: hammer, screwdriver, wrench, saw, drill, bolt, screws, and nails. Explain why each would be effective. ANSWER: 11. Suppose you have a geography test next week. You plan to use a study strategy that includes practicing retrieval of the information you are studying. What is this called, and why is it effective? ANSWER: 12. Reynaldo is studying for his sociology exam. To help him remember the information, he is trying to relate ScholarFriends.com specific concepts to events in his own life. Explain why this is an effective study technique. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Essay ANSWER: 13. First, define long-term memory and outline its capacity. Then, specify where these memories are stored in the brain. ANSWER: 14. Outline how sleep aids memory consolidation. ANSWER: 15. Sridevi's daughter is 3 years old and has a clear memory of playing with friends in nursery school last week. This causes Sridevi to doubt the existence of infantile amnesia. Explain to Sridevi why her understanding of infantile amnesia is incorrect, noting what infantile amnesia really is. Provide an example of infantile amnesia to support your response. ANSWER: 16. Detail how emotions affect memory. Provide some real-life examples. ANSWER: 17. Explain how changes at the synapse level affect the processing of memories. ANSWER: 18. What are the three ways to measure retention? Provide an example of each. ANSWER: 19. Which measure of memory retention would you consider to be most useful for assessing the strength of an implicit memory? Provide an example of a specific implicit memory to show the reasoning behind your answer. ANSWER: 20. You have spent a couple of hours every night studying for your history exam, and you feel good about your memory of the material. However, during the exam you suddenly blank out and can't remember some specific facts. What can you do at this point to retrieve the information that you had previously stored in your memory? ANSWER: 21. Professor Reber has highly superior autobiographical memory. This might seem to be a good thing, but it is not. Explain why. ANSWER: 22. Dejan wants to recall a birthday party that his parents gave him when he was 5 years old. Identify and describe some factors that can affect his ability to effectively retrieve this information. ANSWER: 23. Professor Gelabert is a 75-year-old biology instructor. Although he looks forward to interacting with his students, over the past few years, he has found it increasingly difficult to remember his students' names. Suggest several possible explanations for the professor's memory problems. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 7 - Essay 24. Ossy is taking his final art history exam, but is finding it difficult to remember the names and dates of some of the artists he studied at the beginning of the course. He is experiencing forgetting. Give possible reasons he may have forgotten the information ANSWER: 25. Describe some factors that could affect the reliability and accuracy of a memory. ANSWER: 26. Jeremias tells his friend that he remembers every detail of his first date. Why it is likely that his memory is not completely accurate? ANSWER: 27. Don tells the story of having been in Lebanon when the rebels took over when in fact he had heard the story about the rebel attack from a friend. Why might this type of memory misinformation occur? ANSWER: 28. Herlinde tells her therapist that she has suddenly remembered some long-forgotten and painful memories from her childhood. This experience led her to conclude that these memories must have been repressed for many years. Discuss the issues involved in assessing Herlinde's claim. ANSWER: 29. Explain why relying on eyewitness accounts of children may be problematic. Also, outline under what conditions children's accounts are most accurate. ANSWER: 30. Considering what you learned about improving memory from the text, what can you do next or what can you change about the way you currently study that should improve your memory of the material being covered? ANSWER:

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Essay 1. Explain what psychologists mean when they say they are studying cognition. How does metacognition fit into those studies? ANSWER: 2. Explain how we form concepts and then use prototypes to categorize objects, events, ideas, and people. ANSWER: 3. Explain how the use of algorithms is more accurate than the error-prone use of heuristics. ANSWER: 4. Provide an example of when you were trying to solve a problem and experienced insight. ANSWER: 5. Explain confirmation bias. Provide an example of a time when you fell prey to confirmation bias. ANSWER: 6. Explain how a fixation can prevent people from solving a problem? Can you recall any instances of being fixated on a possible solution to a problem? ANSWER: 7. Discuss how you have or would use heuristics in making a decision to (a) go to the beach and swim in the ocean or (b) ask your neighbor for a date. Under what circumstances are these heuristics likely to contribute to poor decision making? ANSWER: 8. Most of the time we judge new experiences on the basis of how well they match particular prototypes. Define the representativeness heuristic and give an example of how you have used it in your own life. ANSWER: 9. Your sister wants you to go out with one of her classmates, but you are not comfortable about doing that. Explain how your intuition in this instance may be related to both the availability and representativeness heuristic. ANSWER: 10. You are responsible for sales of scratch-off lottery cards. The cards have not been selling well over the past few months. Describe four ways you could take advantage of people's use of the availability heuristic to boost sales. Explain why you would judge your tactics to be fair or unfair to your customers. ANSWER: 11. Jessica's mother has bipolar disorder. Jessica's mother has mistakenly informed her that there is a 60 percent chance she will also develop bipolar disorder. Explain how the availability heuristic, framing, the confirmation bias, and belief perseverance might lead Jessica to conclude that she will definitely develop the symptoms of bipolar disorder. ANSWER: ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Essay 12. Kyle has read about several airplane accidents and so has developed a fear of flying. He would rather drive for 5 hours to visit a friend than take a commercial flight. Give some possible reasons for Kyle's unreasonable fear. ANSWER: 13. You have an exam in your psychology course tomorrow. You have read the relevant chapters and attended all the lectures, taking careful notes. So, you decide to spend tonight with your friends. Explain the disadvantages of your overconfidence. ANSWER: 14. Explain how "smart thinkers" use their intuition when making decisions. ANSWER: 15. Considering some of the basic ingredients of creativity highlighted by Robert Sternberg and his colleagues, describe some ways in which your educational experiences have at times served to encourage and at other times served to inhibit your creativity. What might you do in your upcoming educational and career pursuits to further enhance your own creativity? ANSWER: 16. Researchers have discovered that other species can form concepts, experience flashes of insight, demonstrate self-consciousness, and transmit customs for tool use. Give an example of how researchers have discovered that animals have one of these abilities. ANSWER: 17. Explain Chomsky's view of universal grammar, and discuss how other researchers have responded to Chomsky's views on language acquisition. Note how Chomsky agreed with aspects of their views. ANSWER: 18. Deedra has been deaf since birth. Describe the progress of her language development and how her parents might adapt to the situation. ANSWER: 19. Discuss evidence demonstrating the importance of a critical period for learning language. Explain what this critical period suggests regarding the biological and environmental influences on language development. ANSWER: 20. Mrs. Nohner had a stroke and is now showing some signs of language impairment. What pattern of symptoms would lead you to believe the damage occurred primarily in Broca's area? What different symptom pattern would be associated with damage to Wernicke's area? ANSWER: 21. Explain how thinking in images can be beneficial. ANSWER: 22. Compare and contrast the language abilitiesScholarFriends.com of humans and nonhuman animals. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Essay ANSWER: 23. Define intelligence, and discuss how that definition depends on time and place. ANSWER: 24. Describe how Spearman concluded that we have one general intelligence. What did he mean by general intelligence? ANSWER: 25. Explain the CHC theory and how it affirmed the existence of a general intellectual ability factor. Discuss how it extended the idea of a general intelligence. ANSWER: 26. Compare and contrast crystallized and fluid intelligences and provide two examples of each. ANSWER: 27. Although Oliver is an excellent saxophone player who is part of a renowned orchestra, his intelligence test scores were only average. What does Oliver's experience suggest regarding the nature of intelligence? Use Gardner's and Sternberg's theories to make your point. ANSWER: 28. Discuss the role of grit in developing expertise in a particular subject. Describe any instances in which you spent hours learning a subject (or practicing a skill). ANSWER: 29. Millie's parents have told her that she is emotionally intelligent. Explain what they mean by that. Include in your explanation the four components of emotional intelligence. ANSWER: 30. Professor Dobrynski is on the review committee for graduate admissions at her institution. What type of test results is she likely to rely on to demonstrate how well an applicant will be able to do in graduate school, and in which subjects each will excel? Explain why this type of test would be useful as compared with other types of testing. ANSWER: 31. Give the definition of the intelligence quotient, and describe how it was developed. ANSWER: 32. Psychologist David Wechsler developed the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale. Explain the age-related variations of this intelligence test and provide examples of each of the verbal and performance areas of the test. ANSWER: 33. Your college administrator has asked you to construct an aptitude test to measure verbal ability. Describe how you would standardize your test and assess its reliability and validity. Explain why it might be more ScholarFriends.com difficult to develop a valid verbal ability aptitude test than a reliable one. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 8 - Essay ANSWER: 34. Doris Ann is considered "gifted." What traits would you expect her to have and how is she likely to succeed in life? ANSWER: 35. Outline genetic influences on intelligence. ANSWER: 36. Describe the influence of environment on intelligence. ANSWER: 37. First, define epigenetics, then explain how genes and experience together determine our life course. ANSWER: 38. Imagine that you are a scientist who is examining how intelligence changes with age. Design both a crosssectional and a longitudinal study to examine how intelligence changes from young to middle to late adulthood. What results would you expect from each type of study? ANSWER: 39. Discuss the link between intelligence and health. What are the advantages of having high intelligence? ANSWER: 40. Andres and Walter are discussing how intelligence changes throughout the life span. Walter believes that intelligence is rather stable, but Andres believes that intelligence can easily be changed. Discuss research evidence that supports each claim, focusing on changes in crystallized and fluid intelligence. ANSWER: 41. Describe some gender differences in intelligence between males and females, and provide examples of skills in which males and females each excel. ANSWER: 42. Enrique is the youngest son of Mexican parents who emigrated to the United States four years ago. Enrique's high school teachers perceive him to be fairly intelligent, but his SAT scores are low, and he is having trouble getting into college. Enrique's mother angrily claims that "intelligence tests are biased against Latinos." Enrique's father sadly counters, "It's not the tests that are biased; it's U.S. education that is biased." Carefully explain why you would agree or disagree with the comments made by each parent. ANSWER:

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Essay 1. Explain how motivation is influenced by both nature and nurture. ANSWER: 2. Jeffrey was caught by his father taking money from his mother's wallet. Describe what incentives would drive Jeffrey's attempt to steal from his mother. ANSWER: 3. Nadja has decided that she wants to learn how to skateboard. How might Nadja's decision be explained by arousal theory? ANSWER: 4. Outline Abraham Maslow's theory of a hierarchy of needs. ANSWER: 5. Abraham Maslow suggested that "a person who is lacking food, love, and self-esteem would most likely hunger for food more strongly than anything else." Give evidence that would lead you to support this statement and give two examples that are exceptions to Maslow's theory. ANSWER: 6. Heather and Heath became lost on a hike and spent a week in the woods with enough food for only two days. By the end of the week, what would a researcher studying their physiological responses and brain changes have likely found? ANSWER: 7. Differentiate between set point and settling point. Explain why psychologists today prefer the use of the term settling point. ANSWER: 8. Although Cliff is 20 pounds underweight for his height, he is afraid of becoming fat and consistently restricts what he eats. Although Callum is overweight for his height, he enjoys eating and always eats as much as he wants. Explain how their different reactions to food might result from differences in their reactions to external incentives. ANSWER: 9. Explain how taste preferences can be influenced by one's cultural background. Provide an example to support your explanation. ANSWER: 10. Mia, whose obesity has begun to affect her health, plans to lose weight with a reduced-calorie diet prescribed by her doctor. Explain how physiological factors (including genes, set point, and metabolism) and environmental factors (including sleep, social influences, eating habits, and activity levels) may interact to make Mia's goal more or less difficult to achieve. ANSWER: ScholarFriends.com 11. Gerard, who is overweight, has been struggling to lose weight for years. Identify the factors that might have contributed to his weight gain, as well as some of the negative health outcomes related to being overweight. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Essay What can Gerard do to lose some weight? ANSWER: 12. Ten-year-old Liam's family has moved from the country to the city. Liam had a difficult time making new friends. His parents suggested he try out for the basketball team. When he made the team, his life improved both socially and academically. Consider the benefits of meeting his need to belong and explain why his situation improved. ANSWER: 13. During the COVID-19 pandemic, millions of people endured social isolation and separation from their closest relatives and friends. Given what you have learned about the human need to belong, self-determination theory, and the benefits of belonging, explain how and why this situation would put people's mental health at risk. ANSWER: 14. Lawson has been regularly excluded at school and during after-school activities. Explain how experiencing such ostracism can affect Lawson. ANSWER: 15. Discuss the benefits and problems associated with social networking. Include in your discussion increased social isolation, self-disclosure, improved relationships, narcissism, and maintaining balance and focus in our lives. ANSWER: 16. Josefine is at dinner with her parents. During the two hours that dinner lasted, Josefine has checked her social media on her cell phone at least 15 times. Explain both the positive and potential negative effects of social media use, as well as current trends in social media use. Provide suggestions for Josefine to balance her use of social media. ANSWER: 17. Almira has always enjoyed playing hockey with her friends and is very good at it. In fact, she made the girls' hockey team. However, she now seems to enjoy the sport less and less with each game. This is because her parents and coach are applying a lot of pressure on her to have a winning season, which would increase her chances of receiving a college scholarship. Explain how her different motivations might have affected her enjoyment of playing hockey. ANSWER: 18. In various studies, researchers have found that self-discipline has surpassed intelligence test scores to better predict school performance, attendance, and graduation honors among secondary school and university students. Discuss the characteristics of achievement motivation that account for these results. Include in your discussion the findings of two studies cited in the text that support the advantage students with self-discipline have over those with high intelligence and less achievement motivation. How would you use what you know about achievement motivation to help select musicians for a university music school? ANSWER: ScholarFriends.com

19. Declan is stopped at a red light when he looks in his rearview mirror and sees a car speeding toward him. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Essay His heart begins to beat wildly, and he begins to perspire. He fears for his life. Describe how the James-Lange theory would explain Declan's emotional reaction. ANSWER: 20. Discuss Walter Cannon and Philip Bard's view of emotional reactions, especially how it counters the theory of William James and Carl Lange. ANSWER: 21. While walking through the park Astrid and Laila encountered a red panda cub. While Astrid was extremely frightened of the cub, Laila, realizing the cub was harmless, knelt down to pet the cub. Describe how the twofactor theory would explain the emotional reactions of Astrid and Laila. ANSWER: 22. A newspaper advice columnist suggests that thinking can be voluntarily controlled and changed but that emotions are gut-level, biological reactions that can't be voluntarily controlled or modified. Use your knowledge of emotion research and theory to either support or refute the columnist's claim. ANSWER: 23. Carroll Izard identified 10 basic emotions that appear to be present in infancy. Identify those emotions, and discuss Izard's view that all other emotions are combinations of these. ANSWER: 24. Tyler is on a sailing vacation when he receives an email from his security firm that the alarm on one of the windows in his house has gone off. When he calls the security firm, he learns that the alarm has been turned off and his home has not been breached; everything is okay. Describe the action of the autonomic nervous system as he experiences different emotions during this episode. ANSWER: 25. Jerome and Ursula just went through a scary haunted house and now are experiencing strong feelings of passionate love for each other. Use your understanding of the physiology of emotion to explain why fearful events could fuel their romantic feelings. ANSWER: 26. While Monika was home alone watching TV, she heard what sounded like someone turning the knob to her front door. As she approached the door, she heard people talking, and she could tell that whoever was outside was trying to get in. Describe the physiological and brain changes she will experience as she tries to protect herself. How will her body respond once the threat is over? ANSWER: 27. Petra is in a positive mood; Klaus is not. Explain the brain activity that is occurring during each of their current emotional states. ANSWER: 28. Describe how polygraphs are intended to measure lying, and discuss their accuracy. ANSWER: ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 9 - Essay 29. Explain how nonverbal communication is understood universally. ANSWER: 30. Describe the female advantage regarding nonverbal communication. ANSWER: 31. Describe and discuss nonverbal communications that are commonly used across various cultures. ANSWER: 32. Explain how facial expressions can communicate clues to a person's culture, and discuss how we interpret facial expressions based on context. ANSWER: 33. Compare and contrast the facial feedback effect and the behavior feedback effect. Provide an example of each. ANSWER: 34. Aine has lots of friends because she is empathic, always trying to sympathize with her friends and help them through any difficulties. Explain how use of the facial and behavior feedback effects help her to be empathic. ANSWER:

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Essay 1. When did you most recently experience stress? Explain your stress appraisal and stress reaction. ANSWER: 2. Name the three types of stressors and provide an example of each. Describe any stress you have experienced within one of the categories. ANSWER: 3. Explain Hans Selye's general adaptation syndrome. ANSWER: 4. In one study of widowed people, their risk of death doubled in the week following their partner's death. Describe some of the specific biological and psychological processes that may contribute to this effect. ANSWER: 5. Describe the focus of the field of psychoneuroimmunology and give some examples of its research. ANSWER: 6. Archie is under a lot of stress lately because his boss has added to his responsibilities without an adequate pay raise. He recently came down with the flu. Explain how his stress may have increased the likelihood that he would become sick. ANSWER: 7. Outline how experiencing stress can negatively affect the immune system. ANSWER: 8. Persistent stress can influence not only our biological functioning but also our behavioral lifestyles. Describe how both our physiology and our lifestyle help to account for the link between prolonged stress and an increased risk of coronary heart disease. ANSWER: 9. Explain why stress, by itself, does not cause illness. ANSWER: 10. A friend tells you "You can best handle stress by working harder and meeting life's challenges head on." Evaluate both the strengths and the weaknesses of your friend's comment in light of the distinction between problem-focused coping and emotion-focused coping. ANSWER: 11. Describe two continuing sources of stress at this time in your life. For each source of stress, propose a specific problem-focused or a specific emotion-focused coping strategy that is likely to effectively reduce your stress. ANSWER: 12. Dennis has external locus of control and Ethan has an internal locus of control, Describe how each person ScholarFriends.com would approach a specific stressful situation. What are the consequences of these two different approaches? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Essay What life experiences might have contributed to Dennis' external locus of control and Ethan's internal approach? ANSWER: 13. Outline how self-control is important to health. Also describe how self-control can be strengthened and how it is depleted. ANSWER: 14. Margaret is an older woman with breast cancer who resides in a long-term care facility. She has an optimistic outlook on life. Explain how Margaret's optimism will affect her health. ANSWER: 15. Rodrigo has a large circle of close friends because he knows how to regulate his emotions. Identify the components of good emotion regulation. Give examples of when you demonstrate good emotion regulation and when you do not. ANSWER: 16. Naomi lives alone in a retirement community, but she has many friends among the other residents. Plus, her children and grandchildren visit regularly. Explain how Naomi's social support will affect her health. ANSWER: 17. It seems to be well established that aerobic exercise is an effective way in which to manage stress and improve general well-being. Explain why this is so. Make sure to use research cited in the text to support your answer. ANSWER: 18. Use your understanding of our biological responses to stressful situations to explain why relaxation and mindfulness meditation are associated with reduced stress and better health. ANSWER: 19. How would you best describe the faith factor? ANSWER: 20. Professor Balantac is giving a presentation on subjective well-being and happiness. What information is he likely to include in his discussion? ANSWER: 21. Explain the feel-good, do-good phenomenon, and provide an example. ANSWER: 22. It's December and Skylar has just moved from cold, snowy Massachusetts to warm, sunny Florida. At first, the weather seems much too warm to her. After a year in Florida, she complains that anything below 70 degrees is way too cold. Use the adaptation level phenomenon to explain why Skylar has changed her attitude. ANSWER: ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 10 - Essay 23. What are some things that you can do to improve your own level of happiness? ANSWER: 24. Imagine that you have just graduated college and need to make a plan for your life, at least for the near future. What are some suggestions provided in the text for creating a happy life? ANSWER: 25. Explain the relationship between financial wealth and long-term happiness. ANSWER: 26. Minerva, a 60-year-old U.S. school teacher, is unhappy about her annual salary. Her husband, Deacon, suggests that she think about the teachers in Rwanda who barely earn enough to eat. Use your understanding of psychological principles to explain why Deacon's suggestion might help to increase Minerva's feelings of economic satisfaction. ANSWER:

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Essay 1. Briefly describe the focus of the field of social psychology, and provide an example of a topic that social psychologists might study. ANSWER: 2. Martim is on line at the grocery store when someone pushes ahead of him. Based on the fundamental attribution error, how might Martim interpret the situation? ANSWER: 3. Describe an instance of your having fallen victim to the fundamental attribution error. What happened, and explain why you viewed the situation and person as you did at that time? ANSWER: 4. Considering your childhood and adolescent years, provide at least one example of a time when you were successful at using the foot-in-the-door technique with your parents. ANSWER: 5. Describe a time in your life when you adopted a brand-new role. What social prescriptions did you have to follow to inhabit this role? How did it feel at the beginning, and how did those feelings change as you became accustomed to the role? ANSWER: 6. You are on a train headed from New York to Philadelphia when you notice the conductor being rude and short-tempered with passengers. Considering what you have learned about how roles can affect attitudes and behavior, explain a possible reason for the conductor's behavior. ANSWER: 7. Twenty-year-old Vanessa tells her friend: "Although I was not at all sure that I really wanted to go out with someone from work, Sheldon convinced me to have dinner with him. After that, I began to believe that I really did want to date him." Use your understanding of cognitive dissonance theory to explain Vanessa's behavior and changed attitude. ANSWER: 8. Explain the difference between peripheral route persuasion and central route persuasion and provide an example of each. ANSWER: 9. Imagine that you are trying to convince a friend to agree with you on a hot topic or controversial issue. Explain your view on this topic and then describe the best way to convince your friend that your view is correct. ANSWER: 10. As psychological research has demonstrated, cultures vary significantly across time and place. Discuss some of these variations, and describe the benefits and drawbacks of tight and loose cultures. ANSWER: ScholarFriends.com 11. Describe the research of Solomon Asch. Explain why participants in his study conformed to the group. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Essay ANSWER: 12. Compare and contrast normative and informational social influence. Provide an example of each. ANSWER: 13. Explain how conformity can be both a good and a bad thing. Give an example of each to support your explanation. ANSWER: 14. Describe Milgram's obedience experiments, and explain what these experiments and those that followed have taught social psychologists about obedience to authority. ANSWER: 15. Explain how and why social facilitation contributes to improved or worsened performance on a given task. Give personal examples of a task that is easy for you and one that is difficult for you, and discuss how social facilitation would likely affect your performance on each. ANSWER: 16. You have an assignment for one of your classes that requires you to work with a group of four other college students. Based on what you know about social loafing, what can you do to reduce the chance of some students not helping to complete this assignment? ANSWER: 17. Arturo has never been very political, but he feels motivated to vote for a particular candidate in the upcoming presidential election. He begins reading and responding to people's commentary about the candidate on social media and joins several forums supporting the candidate. Describe what is likely to happen to Arturo's beliefs and attitudes, and explain why this is the case. In what ways is this beneficial, and in what ways is it harmful? ANSWER: 18. Bill is a White supremacist. Explain the role of the internet in strengthening Bill's views and how deindividuation would be related to Bill freely expressing his views online. ANSWER: 19. A newspaper publishes a front-page article about NimbleFrog, a trendy new company that just lost most of its massive startup funds as a result of poor investment decisions. Several anonymous employees blame the prevalence of groupthink at NimbleFrog for these decisions. Imagine that you are one of the employees interviewed for the article. Imagine and describe specific elements of NimbleFrog's company culture that contributed to this problem. Then, outline for the interviewer some actions the company president could have taken to reduce groupthink. ANSWER: 20. Minnie, who manages a souvenir shop, feels that teenagers are dishonest and untrustworthy. As a result, she watches her teenage customers closely and occasionally follows them to be sure they aren't stealing. Recently, when interviewing candidates to help her in theScholarFriends.com stockroom, Minnie refused to hire a 19-year-old with stockroom experience and instead hired a 40-year-old with no such experience. Describe the roles of prejudice, stereotypes, Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Essay and discrimination in this situation. ANSWER: 21. Although expressed racial attitudes have changed dramatically since 1958, subtle prejudice remains. Describe three forms of subtle prejudice and give an example of each. ANSWER: 22. Despite a decline in gender and LGBTQ prejudice, implicit and explicit prejudice and discrimination persist. Give examples of situations in which such prejudice remains. ANSWER: 23. Amanda, a female employee at Perna Enterprises, recently complained that she had been harassed by one of her male supervisors. Upon hearing this complaint, a couple of other co-workers made insensitive comments about women and how the way they are treated could be their own fault. Explain how these insensitive remarks illustrate some of the social, emotional, and cognitive roots of prejudice. ANSWER: 24. How do the just-world phenomenon, ingroup bias, scapegoat theory, the availability heuristic, and victim blaming feed prejudice and discrimination? Imagine and describe a hypothetical situation in which understanding one or more of these tendencies could help us combat that tendency. ANSWER: 25. What are some ways that society can help reduce the social, emotional, and cognitive roots of prejudice? ANSWER: 26. Based on the text, what is a take-away message in terms of the cause of prejudice. What are some things you think society can do as a whole to try and help reduce prejudice and discrimination? ANSWER: 27. Aggression is in part the result of genetic, biochemical, and neural influences. Provide an example of each of these influences on aggression. ANSWER: 28. Eddie has always been somewhat aggression-prone. Whenever he visits a particular bar, which is always hot and crowded, he tends to drink too much and become involved in physical altercations with other patrons. Describe how psychological and social-cultural influences may contribute to Eddie's experience, and explain how Eddie could use this understanding to reduce his aggressive behaviors. ANSWER: 29. Research indicates that we often form more positive impressions of physically beautiful people than of those who are physically unattractive. Explain how advertisements, movies, and children's fairy tales might encourage this tendency. Use your knowledge of the factors that facilitate interpersonal attraction to suggest how people could be influenced to feel more positively about those who are physically unattractive. ANSWER: ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 11 - Essay equity and self-disclosure, and the neurotransmitter oxytocin contribute to the success of their marriage. ANSWER: 31. While walking down the street on his way to work, Mr. Reyes begins to feel weak and light-headed, which indicates to him the onset of a heart attack. Describe how the bystander effect would influence whether Mr. Reyes would receive help from others. Explain the factors that would reduce the bystander effect. ANSWER: 32. Shawn is driving when he notices a car broken down on the side of the road with a woman sitting in the driver's seat. Based on what you know about altruism, bystander intervention, and helping behavior, when is Shawn most likely to pull over to help the woman? ANSWER: 33. On Saturday, 16-year-old Larissa has been invited to spend the day with her new friend Josie. Departing from Josie's after dinner, Larissa promises to return the favor and have Josie over for dinner soon, too. As she approaches her house, Larissa notices that a neighbor's toddler is walking out the open front door; so, she runs over, grabs the child's hand, and walks him back inside. Explain the two norms for helping that have motivated Larissa's actions today, and describe how they operated in each situation. ANSWER: 34. Identify and describe some of the social processes that fuel conflict between groups. ANSWER: 35. What are some methods that can be implemented to reduce prejudice and increase peace between groups? ANSWER:

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Essay 1. In your own words, define personality and provide some examples. ANSWER: 2. Explain how Freud developed his view of the unconscious mind. ANSWER: 3. After a major argument with his romantic partner, Ranson's left leg became paralyzed. His doctor could find no physical cause for the paralysis. Use Freud's psychoanalytic perspective to explain how the paralysis may be Ranson's attempt to deal with an unconscious conflict between his id and superego. ANSWER: 4. Explain the structure of the mind, according to Freud. Make sure you include a discussion of what each structure is responsible for and how the structures interact. ANSWER: 5. Outline Freud's proposed stages of psychosexual development, including in your outline the features of each stage. ANSWER: 6. Explain what a fixation is, according to Freud, and give an example of someone fixated at Freud's oral stage. ANSWER: 7. Freud laid the foundation for the psychoanalytic view of the unconscious mind. Some theorists, however, disagreed with some of Freud's ideas. Describe the controversy surrounding those ideas and explain which ideas were easily accepted by those who followed in his footsteps. ANSWER: 8. Describe Carl Jung's view of the collective unconscious and discuss how today's psychologists view Jung's unconscious. ANSWER: 9. Discuss areas in which psychodynamic theorists agree or disagree with Freud's perspective. ANSWER: 10. Compare and contrast the projective tests described in the text. Give an example of an appropriate use of each test and provide criticisms of the Rorschach inkblot test in particular. ANSWER: 11. Explain how Freud's ideas would stand up to today's modern-day research findings and theoretical perspectives. ANSWER: 12. Cognitive researchers today agree with Freud that we have limited access to all that goes on in our mind. Describe how these researchers view the unconscious mind. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Essay 13. Generally, how did humanistic theorists view personality? Compare the views of the two pioneering humanistic theorists. ANSWER: 14. Outline Abraham Maslow's concept of the self-actualizing person and provide at least one example. ANSWER: 15. Junior and Sheri hope to raise their 2-year-old in a way that promotes a positive self-concept. How does Carl Rogers describe a positive self-concept? According to Rogers, what three ways can Junior and Sheri use to develop a growth-promoting environment to nurture a positive self-concept in their child? ANSWER: 16. Explain how a therapist who adheres to Carl Rogers' view would evaluate a person's self-concept. ANSWER: 17. Outline both the praises and criticisms of humanistic theories. ANSWER: 18. Explain how the trait theories focus on describing rather than explaining the various aspects of personality. ANSWER: 19. Differentiate between the personality traits introversion and extraversion, and explain the differences between introversion and shyness. Discuss the evidence that suggests that Western cultures prize extraversion over introversion. What are some of the benefits of having an introverted personality? ANSWER: 20. Dr. Reyes is interested in assessing the reliability and validity of personality inventories. First, explain what personality inventories are. Then, explain both their strengths and their weaknesses. ANSWER: 21. Discuss each of the following questions that theorists have addressed in research pertaining to the Big Five factors. How stable are the Big Five traits? Do we inherit these traits? Do these traits reflect differing brain structures or functions? Do the Big Five traits predict our actual behavior? ANSWER: 22. At home with her family, Mona is relatively quiet and retiring. Out with friends, she is talkative and funloving. Using your knowledge of the person-situation controversy, explain why the variability of Mona's behavior in different situations is not surprising. ANSWER: 23. Albert Bandura views the person-environment interaction as reciprocal determinism. "Behavior, internal personal factors, and environmental influences," he said, "all operate as interlocking determinants of each other." Discuss three ways in which individuals and the environment interact. Explain how genes and environment can interact to influence a person's traits, and discuss one study that supports this interaction. ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 12 - Essay 24. Mackey has a strong sense of his own competence. Describe how Mackey's sense of self-efficacy would most likely contribute to his effectiveness in business. ANSWER: 25. Professor Kumar is a critic of the social-cognitive theory of personality. What is he likely to state in his criticisms? ANSWER: 26. Psychologists today consider the self the center of personality. Using your own life as an example, explain why this might be true. ANSWER: 27. Some have suggested that it's hard to love others if you can't feel uniformly positive about yourself. Others have suggested that uniformly positive self-esteem can lead us to overvalue ourselves and undervalue others. What do you consider to be the strengths and weaknesses of these contrasting positions? Use psychological research to support your positions. ANSWER: 28. Define the Kruger-Dunning effect and give an example from your or your friend's life. ANSWER: 29. Explain what self-serving bias is and give an example from your own life and from the life of someone you know well. ANSWER: 30. Compare and contrast defensive and secure self-esteem. ANSWER: 31. Describe how differences between individualist and collectivist cultures are likely to manifest themselves in the processes of group identification and group-versus-individual goals in athletics and work. How do these cultures differ in the personal freedom they enjoy? What are the advantages and disadvantages of more or less personal freedom? ANSWER:

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Essay 1. Explain how to differentiate between a behavior that would be considered disordered and a behavior that is considered typical. ANSWER: 2. Compare and contrast the medical model and the biopsychosocial perspective in terms of how each explains psychological disorders. What are the pros and cons of each perspective, and how has each view affected the treatment of those with psychological disorders? ANSWER: 3. A guest on a TV talk show claims that "major depressive disorder is not a psychological problem; it's an illness that can be medically treated." Evaluate the strengths and weaknesses of this claim. ANSWER: 4. A newspaper editorialist argues that the use of the DSM-5-TR diagnostic labels is destructively antidemocratic, because it enables an elite corps of mental health professionals to subtly control the values and lifestyles of the rest of society. First give reasons supporting this argument, then defend the continued use of diagnostic labels. ANSWER: 5. Thomas and Jordan are concerned that their teenage son, Drew, may have a psychological disorder. Thomas is reluctant to bring Drew to a mental health professional, where he worries Drew will be arbitrarily labeled and stigmatized. Jordan, on the other hand, believes it is important to have Drew evaluated and diagnosed. Using your knowledge of the benefits and drawbacks of diagnostic classification and labels, describe the points that both Thomas and Jordan may make in their conversation. ANSWER: 6. Maya is terrified of spiders. If a psychologist were evaluating Maya, what might indicate that Maya's fear has crossed the line from being typical to disorder? If Maya's fear is indeed disordered, what DSM-5-TR diagnostic criteria would the psychologist likely use to classify it? ANSWER: 7. Alexandra has been diagnosed with agoraphobia. Describe the symptoms of Alexandra's disorder, including the events that might have led to this diagnosis. ANSWER: 8. Identify and explain the diagnostic criteria for OCD. ANSWER: 9. Haydee survived a natural disaster and has developed PTSD as a result of her experience. Describe the symptoms that predispose a diagnosis of this disorder. ANSWER: 10. Provide an example of illness anxiety disorder and indicate what makes this disorder unique as a psychological disorder. ANSWER: ScholarFriends.com Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Essay 11. Explain how different aspects of our individual biology—our genes, our brain, and our evolutionary predispositions—work together to make us more or less vulnerable to anxiety-related disorders. ANSWER: 12. Derrick is deathly afraid of being infected by germs. He spends so much time cleaning and disinfecting his home that his children complain that he never spends time with them. At work, he spends many hours cleaning his office. When Derrick tries to discontinue these behaviors, he experiences strong feelings of discomfort. Use the conditioning and biological perspectives to explain what may be responsible for Derrick's behavior. ANSWER: 13. Outline the DSM-5-TR criteria for a substance use disorder diagnosis. Include in your explanation a differentiation between mild, moderate, and severe substance use disorders. ANSWER: 14. Nolan is addicted to cocaine. Explain what he is going through with regard to tolerance, withdrawal, and addiction. What can he do to eliminate his addiction? ANSWER: 15. Your friend believes that large doses of alcohol act as a depressant, whereas small doses act as a stimulant. Carefully evaluate the weaknesses of your friend's position. ANSWER: 16. Depressants are drugs that calm neural activity and slow body functions. Compare and contrast the depressants that are discussed in the text (alcohol, barbiturates, and opiates). ANSWER: 17. Nicotine is one of the most addictive stimulants. Outline the physiological effects of nicotine, and explain why it is so difficult to quit use of this substance. ANSWER: 18. Avery uses cocaine on the weekends. Describe the physiological and psychological effects of this drug on Avery. ANSWER: 19. Serenity has cancer and uses marijuana for medicinal purposes. Explain the medicinal purposes of marijuana and why marijuana has been classified as a hallucinogen, and describe any negative effects associated with marijuana use. ANSWER: 20. Dylan has been diagnosed with a substance use disorder. Explain the biological, psychological, and socialcultural influences on the development of a substance use disorder. ANSWER: 21. Discuss the difference between feeling discouraged or sad because of a failure to accomplish some goal and ScholarFriends.com experiencing major depressive disorder. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Essay ANSWER: 22. Denny's psychologist has just diagnosed Denny with bipolar II disorder. Describe the symptoms Denny is most likely experiencing, and explain how his psychologist might have distinguished between bipolar I disorder, bipolar II disorder, and major depressive disorder. ANSWER: 23. Outline and explain the findings related to major depressive disorder that any theory of depression must be able to explain. ANSWER: 24. Hermine is often depressed and has a tendency to overthink her problems. What are the potential biological and social-cognitive factors that may have influenced the development of Hermine's depression? How would her tendency to overthink likely factor into her depression? ANSWER: 25. What biological factors may influence the development of a bipolar disorder? How are the risk factors for bipolar disorders and major depressive disorder similar to and different from one another? ANSWER: 26. Describe and give examples of the positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. ANSWER: 27. Chris has been diagnosed with chronic schizophrenia, and Joey has been diagnosed with acute schizophrenia. Explain how these two types of schizophrenia differ, and describe the likely timeline for and development of each person's symptoms. ANSWER: 28. Augstin is receiving treatment for schizophrenia. Discuss possible causes related to brain abnormalities. ANSWER: 29. Discuss the potential influences of prenatal environment on the development of schizophrenia, and describe some of the research that has bolstered this view. ANSWER: 30. Discuss the idea that schizophrenia may be genetic, focusing on the research that has led to this view. ANSWER: 31. Describe the characteristics of dissociative identity disorder, and discuss the factors that have been implicated in its development. Why are many mental health professionals skeptical about the validity of this disorder? ANSWER: 32. Outline the three clusters of personality disorders and provide at least one example from each cluster. How does antisocial personality disorder fit into thisScholarFriends.com framework? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Essay ANSWER: 33. Identify some of the biological and psychological factors associated with the development of antisocial personality disorder. Do these factors necessarily lead to criminality? Why or why not? ANSWER: 34. Compare and contrast the characteristics of anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa, and binge-eating disorder. What are the similarities and differences among them? In what ways are eating disorders similar to anxiety disorders? ANSWER: 35. In Western cultures, the rise in eating disorders over the last half of the twentieth century has coincided with a dramatic decline in women's body image. Describe how today's weight-obsessed culture contributes to the idealization of thinness, and identify how prevention of eating disorders might be achieved. ANSWER: 36. Explain the factors that increase the risk of suicidal thoughts and behaviors, and compare this with the factors that increase the risk of nonsuicidal self-injury. Finally, explain the steps you would take if someone you knew seemed to be contemplating suicide. ANSWER: 37. Heidi has just donated to the political campaign of a mayoral candidate who promises to increase mental health screenings in the community, which Heidi believes will decrease violent crime. What evidence could you provide to convince Heidi that she is mistaken in her assumptions? ANSWER: 38. What are the defining characteristics of intellectual developmental disorder? Provide an example of a set of symptoms that would make this diagnosis more likely. ANSWER: 39. Ezekiel, who is 4 years old, has been diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder. Explain how this disorder may be related to theory of mind, and provide some examples of the types of behavior that Ezekiel may exhibit that would provide support for this relationship. ANSWER: 40. Identify the biological factors that may contribute to ASD. ANSWER: 41. Outline the DSM-5-TR criteria for diagnosing a child with ADHD, and explain the controversy surrounding this diagnosis. ANSWER: 42. Diagnoses of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder have increased significantly in recent years. Provide some reasons for this. What are the implications of this diagnosis for the children who receive it? ScholarFriends.com ANSWER: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB1 Chapter 13 - Essay

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Essay 1. Briefly describe the history of treatments for psychological disorders, beginning with the harshest methods and ending with deinstitutionalization. ANSWER: 2. Outline the difference between psychotherapy and biomedical therapy. ANSWER: 3. Bruno becomes very anxious when he has to talk with anyone in a position of authority over him. In fact, he becomes tongue-tied and may even walk away from any such situations. Explain how a psychoanalyst would use the techniques of free association, resistance, and interpretation to treat Bruno's problem. What are the disadvantages of this approach? ANSWER: 4. Marjoy works as an accountant, and is so afraid of needles that she has refused to get the necessary vaccines for COVID-19. She has recently contacted a psychotherapist for help in overcoming her fear. Describe how a psychodynamic therapist would treat Marjoy's problem. ANSWER: 5. Carl Rogers encouraged therapists to genuinely express their own true feelings during their interactions with clients. He also encouraged therapists to refrain from directing clients toward certain insights. Explain how a therapist might be genuine and nondirective and still be able to help a client who feels ashamed of his or her physical appearance and is intensely anxious about developing close friendships. ANSWER: 6. Giovanny is so afraid of heights that he refuses to meet with anyone in an office above the third floor. Describe how a therapist might use systematic desensitization to help Giovanny get over his fear. Be clear about the exact procedures that would be used. ANSWER: 7. Describe how a therapist might use aversive conditioning to help a client overcome a compulsive habit of drinking more than five glasses of vodka a day. Be clear about the exact procedures that would be used. Why might this procedure be ineffective? ANSWER: 8. Describe how a therapist might use operant conditioning techniques to help a client lose weight. Be clear about the exact procedures that would be used. ANSWER: 9. One of your best friends feels that he fails at everything he does and that his life isn't worth living. When you suggest that he talk to a psychotherapist, your friend responds, "Talking won't help. The more I talk about myself, the more I think about my problems. The more I think about my problems, the more depressed I get." Explain why your friend's comment illustrates his need for cognitive therapy. What procedures would a cognitive therapist use to help your friend overcome his negative feelings? ANSWER: ScholarFriends.com

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TB1 Chapter 14 - Essay disorder involving cleaning and contamination. Be clear about the exact procedures that would be used. ANSWER: 11. Jessica is attending group therapy with others who suffer from anxiety attacks. What are some of the benefits she will experience from group therapy? ANSWER: 12. Harold and Georgina are experiencing communication problems in their relationship. They decide to engage a therapist. Describe how couples therapies might help them to improve their relationship. ANSWER: 13. Improvement following psychotherapy for the treatment of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) may result from many factors other than the psychotherapy itself. First, identify some factors that might contribute to improvement. Then, carefully describe how you would design an experiment to determine the extent to which the psychotherapy itself actually contributes to relief from OCD-related symptoms. ANSWER: 14. As noted in the text, some therapies are best for treating particular problems. For cognitive therapy and psychodynamic therapy, discuss why each might be especially effective in treating anxiety. In your discussion, refer to specific techniques used in that therapy. ANSWER: 15. Hajeong wants to try energy therapy to help deal with her depression. Explain to Hajeong why energy therapy may not be effective, and explain the role of scientific evidence in determining which psychotherapies work best. Also, explain to Hajeong which forms of psychotherapy are frequently used to treat depression and which ones are most effective. ANSWER: 16. Identify and describe the three benefits shared by all psychotherapies. ANSWER: 17. Outline what is needed for a successful client-therapist relationship, focusing on how cultural differences can impact the effectiveness of therapy. ANSWER: 18. Anjou has decided that psychotherapy is the only way for him to get rid of his frequent feelings of stress and anxiety. Briefly explain to Anjou what he should look for when searching for a therapist and how he should go about selecting the best therapist for his needs. ANSWER: 19. Although psychotherapists differ in the methods they use, they all must follow their country's ethical principles and code of conduct. Describe the basic principles of the American Psychological Association. ANSWER: 20. Bosco has been dealing with panic attacks ScholarFriends.com for many years. He does not want to take antianxiety drugs. His therapist recommends therapeutic lifestyle change as a way of eliminating his panic attacks. Give three Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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