TEST BANK for Scientific American Environmental Science for a Changing World, 3rd Edition Susan Karr

TEST BANK for Scientific American Environmental Science for a Changing World, 3rd Edition Susan Karr, InterlandI Test Bank for Houtman, Scientific American Environmental Science for a Changing World, 3e Susan Karr, Anne Houtman, Jeneen InterlandI (All Chapters) MODULE 1.1 Guiding Question 1 What is the purpose and scope of environmental science?

Multiple Choice 1. Environmental science does NOT rely or draw on: A. natural sciences such as ecology.

B. applied sciences such as engineering.

C. social sciences such as anthropology.

D. humanities such as literature.

E. All of these choices are related to environmental science.

Answer: E Section: Environmental Science Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 2. Which example does NOT describe an environment?

A. fish living in a stream B. bacteria living in a human’s intestinal tract C. mold growing on a wood stump in a forest D. a cat living in a house E. All of these choices describe an environment.

Answer: E Section: Environmental Science Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 3. Which phrase BEST describes the term environment?

A. the climate where an organism lives B.t he living surroundings in which an organism exists C. the living and nonliving surroundings in which an organism exists D. the nonliving surroundings where an organism lives E. the domination of nonliving systems by living systems Answer: C Section: Environmental Science Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

4. Which statement is TRUE of environmental science?

A. It relies only on natural sciences such as ecology and geology.

B. It examines only the workings of the natural world.

C. It examines the natural world and our relationship to it.

D. It is focused on areas without human impact.

E. It focuses on the future of the Earth.

Answer: C Section: Environmental Science Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

Essay 5. What does an environment include?

Section: Environmental Science Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Feedback: An environment includes the biological (living) and physical (nonliving) surroundings in which any given living organism exists.

6. What is environmental science, and what fields of study does it rely on?

Section: Environmental Science Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Feedback: Environmental science is an interdisciplinary field of research that draws on the natural (for example, ecology) and social sciences (for example, anthropology) as well as the humanities (for example, literature) in order to understand the natural world and our relationship to it.

7. Why are nonliving things included in the definition of an environment?

Section: Environmental Science Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Feedback: Nonliving things—such as rocks, water, and oxygen—are included in the definition of an environment because although they are not living, they still have a tremendous impact on the organic beings that do live in that environment. Imagine an environment that contains several species of fish, some of which suddenly start to die off.

Now let’s say this die-off is caused by the temperature of the water rising in this environment. If we didn’t consider water to be part of an environment, we would not know to test the water for the possible cause of the fish dying.

Guiding Question 2 Why are both empirical and applied approaches useful in environmental science?

Multiple Choice 8. An example of applied science is:

A. designing a solar panel for increased efficiency.

B. observing chimpanzee behavior in a rainforest.

C. collecting ice core samples to determine carbon dioxide levels 100,000 years ago.

D. determining the diet of Greenland Vikings based on analysis of their garbage.

E. counting the number of geese on a pond.

Answer: A Section: Empirical and Applied Science Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 9. Which example illustrates an empirical study?

A. developing more efficient photovoltaic cells for electricity production B. producing models of the impact of various greenhouse gas concentrations on global temperature C. developing ultrafast passenger trains D. improving the efficiency of electricity transmission E. developing pest control methods that do not include pesticides Answer: B Section: Empirical and Applied Science Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 10. What is empirical science?

A. a scientific approach using observation and experimentation B. research findings that help solve practical problems C. a scientific approach to predict climate problems in the future D. a method to examine the nonliving components of the world E. a field of research including humanities and social sciences Answer: A Section: Empirical and Applied Science Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 11. What did mud cores from lake beds around Viking settlements tell scientists?

A. The temperature was unusually higher than average over the past 1,000 years.

B. The Vikings vanished during the Little Ice Age. C. There were not enough people in the Viking settlements.

D. Soil erosion was a significant problem for the Vikings.

E. Vikings ate sheep, seal, and walrus.

Answer: D Section: Empirical and Applied Science Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 12. Which statement is NOT an example of self-inflicted environmental damage done by the Greenland Vikings?

A. They overgrazed.

B. They used grassland to insulate their houses.

C. They chopped down forests for fuel and home construction.

D. They grew to a few thousand individuals.

E. The climate cooled.

Answer: E Section: Empirical and Applied Science Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 13. What evidence did scientists use in Greenland to study atmospheric conditions at the time of the Viking settlements?

A. air bubbles trapped in ice cores B. mud core samples C. animal bones collected from middens D. insect fossils E. the law of superposition Answer: A Section: Empirical and Applied Science Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 14. Which would likely come first when studying an environmental issue: an applied science study or an empirical science study? Why? Section: Empirical and Applied Science Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Feedback: It is likely than an empirical science study would occur first. These studies investigate the environmental issue through rigorous scientific testing to determine the impact and extent of the issue. An applied science study may take the findings of the empirical study to design and test a potential solution to the problems uncovered.

Guiding Question 1-3 What characteristics make an environmental dilemma a “wicked problem”?

Multiple Choice 15. Due to their complexity, any given response to an environmental problem involves significant _____, and no one response is likely to present the ultimate solution.

A. sliding reinforcers B. trade-offs C. wicked problems D. anthropogenics E. tragedies Answer: B Section: Environmental Issues as “Wicked Problems”

Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 16. Which factors make up the triple bottom line?

A. human, natural, and solar B. international, national, and local C. social, economic, and environmental D. agricultural, financial, and environmental E. solar energy, water, and air Answer: C Section: Environmental Issues as “Wicked Problems” Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 17. What does it mean when an environmental issue is a “wicked problem”?

A. It is created by people who care only about themselves.

B. It is global in nature.

C. It involves trade-offs that not everyone will be happy with.

D. It is a problem that cannot be solved.

E. It involves the destruction of a specific habitat.

Answer: C Section: Environmental Issues as “Wicked Problems” Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 18. Potential trade-offs to reforestation efforts do NOT include: A. high cost.

B. water shortages.

C. fragmentation of habitats.

D. less land for agriculture.

E. All of these answers are potential trade-offs to reforestation efforts.

Answer: E Section: Environmental Issues as “Wicked Problems” Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying/Analyzing 19. Which example illustrates a consequence of climate change?

A. deforestation B. sea level rise C. overconsumption D. irrigation E. burning fossil fuels Answer: B Section: Environmental Issues as “Wicked Problems” Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

Essay 20. What is environmental literacy? Why is it important for individuals to have a strong understanding of environmental literacy when discussing environmental problems caused by humans?

Section: Environmental Issues as “Wicked Problems” Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding/Applying Feedback: Environmental literacy is a basic understanding of how ecosystems function and of the impact of our choices on the environment. Most environmental problems can be traced to three causes: human population growth, overuse of resources, and pollution.

It is important that people understand the impact that a growing human population has on Earth and how our increasing numbers are consuming resources at unsustainable rates.

Additionally, it is important that individuals understand how our activities generate pollution and how this pollution affects our health and the environment.

21. Refer to Infographic 3. The Green Revolution brought modern industrialized agricultural techniques to developing countries so that they could better feed their growing populations. The idea is to achieve higher yields by taking advantage of better seed types, irrigation, chemical fertilizers, and pesticides. By doing this, less land, such as rainforest, would need to be converted to agriculture. Use the infographic to describe the pros and cons of the Green Revolution on the environment, thus illustrating why climate change is a wicked problem.

Section: Environmental Issues as “Wicked Problems” Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Feedback: When deforestation is prevented, more carbon dioxide is taken out of the atmosphere, which helps to prevent global warming. Also, when habitats are kept intact, biodiversity is better protected in those areas not converted into agriculture. However, by adding use of tractors, fossil fuels need to be combusted, and this contributes to global warming. Chemicals added to crops will run off into water and soil. Added irrigation can cause water shortages and soil problems.

22. Refer to Infographic 3. What is the triple bottom line of climate change?

Section: Environmental Issues as “Wicked Problems” Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Feedback: The triple bottom line includes the environmental, social, and economic impacts of our choices. In the instance of climate change, our choices, such as burning fossil fuels, deforestation, and overconsumption, have led to global warming. Some of the environmental impacts of these choices include increased average atmospheric temperature, sea level rise due to melting of polar ice caps, and habitat and species endangerment and loss. Some of the social impacts of our choices that have led to climate change are the suffering of agriculture in certain regions, the spread of tropical disease (which impacts socioeconomic factors when people are too sick to work or contribute to their societies or when the cost of treating the disease increases), human habitat destruction (such as mining, conversion of forest to farmland, and so on), and the development of political issues surrounding the causes of and potential solutions to climate change. Some of the economic impacts of climate change are decreased food production due to poor climate conditions and lack of water for farming; financial crisis in some industries such as commercial fishing, since some species of fish can no longer survive in the warmer waters; and increased costs in food production and energy production.

Guiding Question 4 What does it mean to be sustainable?

Multiple Choice 23. What food source was absent from the animal bones found in the Greenland middens?

A. seal B. caribou C. walrus D. cattle E. fish Answer: E Section: Sustainable Development Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 24. Some of the most revealing clues to the demise of the Greenland Vikings come from: A. ice cores.

B. mud samples.

C. animal bones.

D. the Inuit.

E. the climate.

Answer: D Section: Sustainable Development Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 25. Which statement is NOT a goal of the UN 2030 Sustainable Development Agenda?

A. Develop more uses for fossil fuels.

B. End hunger and all forms of malnutrition.

C. Increase efficient use of water to reduce waste.

D. Prevent or significantly reduce ocean pollution.

E. Eliminate poverty.

Answer: A Section: Sustainable Development Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

Essay 26. Unlike the Icelandic Vikings or Inuit, the Greenland Viking society was not sustainable. Describe what we know about their collapse.

Section: Sustainable Development Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Feedback: From ice cores, we know the climate cooled due to natural causes, and this made life difficult for the population in terms of growing food and raising livestock. In

terms of self-inflicted environmental damage, evidence from mud cores indicates that soil erosion was a significant problem. This was due to overgrazing livestock (cows); using grassland to insulate Viking homes; and cutting down forests for fuel, homes, and other wooden products. These impacts on the environment were particularly severe because the environment was sensitive to begin with. As the population swelled to several thousand, the environment could no longer support the population and it crashed.

Guiding Question 5 Why do scientists think we are living in a new geologic epoch, the Anthropocene?

Multiple Choice 27. Why do scientists suggest that we have entered the Anthropocene, a new geologic time interval?

A. We have been in the Holocene so long, it is time for a new interval on the Geological Time Scale.

B. The human population will be 11 billion in 2100.

C. Geologic evidence from humans is accumulating and will be found after we are gone.

D. Climate change from greenhouse gas–emitting fossil fuels is melting too much polar ice.

E. The previous natural climate cycle is ending.

Answer: C Section: Human Impact and the Anthropocene Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 28. How is anthropogenic climate change different from the climate change experienced by the Greenland Vikings?

A. It involves new chemical compounds.

B. It is caused by human actions.

C. It is a natural cycle Earth goes through.

D. It causes average atmospheric temperature to decrease.

E. It is caused by increased tectonic activity.

Answer: B Section: Human Impact and the Anthropocene Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding/Applying 29. What was the conclusion of the UN Millennium Ecosystem Assessment?

A. Human actions have no impact on the planet’s ecosystems.

B. Human actions will impact the planet’s ecosystems only in the far future.

C. Human actions are straining the ability of the planet’s ecosystems to sustain the current generation.

D. The damage of human actions on the planet’s ecosystems cannot be reversed.

E. Human actions are straining the ability of the planet’s ecosystems to sustain future generations.

Answer: E

Section: Human Impact and the Anthropocene Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 30. Which example illustrates a disconnect between our actions and their environmental consequences?

A. buying sustainably raised fish B. leaving lights on and the air conditioning running when no one is home C. driving an electric car D. using sustainable farming practices E. learning seasonal cycles of the area to respond accordingly Answer: B Section: Human Impact and the Anthropocene Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

Guiding Question 6 What are the characteristics of a sustainable ecosystem?

31. Which statement is NOT characteristic of a sustainable ecosystem?

A. It makes the most of renewable energy.

B. It uses matter conservatively. (It recycles or reuses so nothing is wasted.)

C. It keeps populations in check.

D. It depends on local biodiversity.

E. It is able to support an ever-increasing number of species.

Answer: E Section: The Characteristics of a Sustainable Ecosystem Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 32. Which statement is NOT characteristic of a sustainable ecosystem?

A. It uses renewable energy.

B. It eliminates waste by reusing matter.

C. It contains species that all depend on the same limited resource.

D. It recycles matter.

E. Local biodiversity is present to perform essential ecosystem processes.

Answer: C Section: The Characteristics of a Sustainable Ecosystem Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 33. What does it mean for sustainable ecosystems to rely on renewable energy?

A. Population size is kept in check.

B. Energy is replenished daily by new inputs.

C. Energy can be recycled.

D. No new energy arrives on Earth.

E. Waste form one organism can be used by another.

Answer: B Section: The Characteristics of a Sustainable Ecosystem Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 34. Which factor does NOT provide population control in sustainable ecosystems?

A. disease B. predators C. competition D. abundant food and water Answer: D Section: The Characteristics of a Sustainable Ecosystem Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 35. What does it mean to be sustainable, and what are four characteristics of a sustainable ecosystem?

Section: The Characteristics of a Sustainable Ecosystem Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Feedback: Sustainable methods use resources in such a way that we can continue to use them indefinitely. A sustainable ecosystem (1) makes the most of renewable energy, (2) wastes nothing by recycling and reusing resources, (3) keeps populations in check so that resources are not overused, and (4) depends on local biodiversity to perform many of these tasks.

36. Is our modern society acting sustainably? What are some areas of concern? Refer Infographic 6 and compare and contrast a sustainable ecosystem to our current human ecosystem.

Section: The Characteristics of a Sustainable Ecosystem Level: 2/3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing/Evaluating Feedback: Experts claim that humans are already living beyond the means our planet has to support us, and if we continue along this path, a population crash could occur, similar to the collapse of the Greenland Vikings.

In our society, we do not use matter sustainably. We use farming practices that erode topsoil faster than it can form. We have overharvested forests at the expense of habitat and biodiversity loss, soil erosion, and water pollution. In a sustainable ecosystem, systems would be in place to prevent topsoil erosion and curb the overharvesting of forests. We would find ways to make our waste usable by other organisms in the environment, thus keeping with the idea that to use matter sustainably, it must be recycled.

We also do not depend on local biodiversity and have actually driven ecosystem biodiversity in some places to an alarmingly low level. We have overfished and overhunted and allowed invasive species to further degrade natural ecosystems, thus reducing biodiversity. In a sustainable ecosystem, the value of having a high biodiversity is seen, as it better prepares the ecosystem to weather disturbances. Biodiversity should be protected through regulations of hunting, fishing, and the introduction of invasive species.

Our human ecosystem certainly does not have population control, at least for humans.

The population continues to grow exponentially, and our consumption of resources and generation of waste continue unabated. Although fraught with ethical issues, the population of humans currently living on Earth is not sustainable and is damaging almost every ecosystem. In a sustainable ecosystem, every population is kept in check so that resources are evenly distributed and shared.

We also do not rely on renewable energy. We depend largely on nonrenewable resources for energy, which have all sorts of implications for ecosystem health. Since energy is nonrenewable, if we continue to use only nonrenewable sources, we will eventually run

out. In this process, we also damage ecosystems through pollution, habitat destruction, and many other negative actions. In a sustainable ecosystem, organisms must rely on new inputs of energy that are renewable and sensitive to environmental effects.

Guiding Question 7 What can human societies and individuals do to pursue sustainability?

Multiple Choice 37. In biomimicry, scientists use nature as a model, _____, and measure.

A. map B. method C. control D. mentor E. mean Answer: D Section: Nature as a Model for Sustainable Actions Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 38. Coal, natural gas, and oil are examples of: A. renewable resources.

B. nonrenewable resources.

C. alternative forms of energy.

D. infinite resources.

E. unlimited resources.

Answer: B Section: Nature as a Model for Sustainable Actions Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 39. Solar, wind, geothermal, and biomass energy sources are examples of: A. nonrenewable energy.

B. finite energy.

C. renewable energy.

D. fossil fuels.

E. nonsustainable energy.

Answer: C Section: Nature as a Model for Sustainable Actions Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 40. What is biomimicry?

A. cloning technologies and equipment that allow scientists to re-create photosynthetic bacteria in laboratory settings B. re-creating natural ecosystems in areas where severe deforestation has occurred

C. turning natural ecosystems into scientific experiment sites to help scientists better understand their functioning D. the process of collecting data from various ecosystems E. the use of nature as a model for our own systems Answer: E Section: Nature as a Model for Sustainable Actions Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 41. A good example of sustainability is: A. limiting commercial fishing to amounts that allow the fish population to repopulate.

B. using solar panels to generate electricity.

C. riding a bicycle to work.

D. purchasing products in packaging that can be recycled.

E. All of the above choices are good examples of sustainability.

Answer: E Section: Nature as a Model for Sustainable Actions Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding/Applying 42. Which personal attitude will lead to the GREATEST long-term sustainability?

A. The forest is there for us to use.

B. The lake will be able to handle the raw sewage because it always has.

C. It doesn’t matter what we do because we don’t have the power to change anything.

D. I wonder how using this product will affect the environment; maybe there’s a better choice available.

E. Scientists will figure out a way to reduce the effects of pollution.

Answer: D Section: Nature as a Model for Sustainable Actions Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 43. Refer to Infographic 7 and describe ways that you could live more sustainably.

Section: Nature as a Model for Sustainable Actions Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Feedback: One of the first things a person can do is become environmentally literate.

This includes becoming informed about the issues but also learning to appreciate the natural areas near where you live. Small behavioral changes are important. Can you walk, bicycle, or take public transportation at least one day per week to go to school, work, or shopping? Shopping behavior can be changed—bring your own shopping bags and question what you buy. Do an inventory of your trash. How many items were not necessary or could have been reused, recycled, or composted? Buy locally produced goods and foods. Do an inventory of your possessions. Donate or recycle unwanted items. Join a group by asking others: Are you interested in increasing the sustainability of your town? Do you like to go hiking? Are you interested in wildlife? Many small steps add up. Begin today and continue to add sustainable behaviors to your lifestyle.

44. How would you go about convincing a company to switch to renewable sources of energy?

Section: Nature as a Model for Sustainable Actions Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Feedback: There are a growing number of companies that are obtaining more of their energy from renewable sources of energy. You would need to explain how switching to renewable sources of energy will save money over the long term and also how the switch will result in less pollution and improved health for workers and the environment.

Guiding Question 8 What challenges does humanity face in dealing with environmental issues?

Multiple Choice 45. Which situation BEST describes the tragedy of the commons?

A. A fisherman uses his net to catch a large quantity of fish.

B. Increasing amounts of pesticides need to be used over time to maintain the same effect on pests.

C. An oil pipeline leaks.

D. Sustainable forestry practices are applied to a plot of land in the rainforest.

E. Herders put too many sheep in a public field because they think, “If I don’t use this available resource, someone else will.”

Answer: E Section: Challenges to Solving Environmental Problems Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 46. Modern fishing techniques use giant nets to harvest large numbers of fish in the short term. This may result in severely reduced populations of fish in the future. Which term BEST describes this scenario?

A. time delay B. tragedy of the commons C. sliding reinforcer D. extinction Answer: A Section: Challenges to Solving Environmental Problems Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 47. If antibiotics are used frequently over a short period of time, bacteria can become resistant to those antibiotics and harder to treat. This scenario is an example of: A. tragedy of the commons.

B. time delay.

C. sliding reinforcer.

D. extinction.

Answer: A Section: Challenges to Solving Environmental Problems Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

Essay 48. Refer to Infographic 8. Ethanol is often produced in locations where farmers also grow corn. Underground water reservoirs are used to grow the corn and process the ethanol. These reservoirs are being depleted in some areas of the Midwest. Which social traps apply to the water depletion?

Section: Challenges to Solving Environmental Problems Level: 2

Bloom’s Level: Applying Feedback: The tragedy of the commons (no entity “owns” the groundwater, so each party draws as much as it can to meet its needs, until the unregulated resource is depleted) and time delay (a benefit of growing corn and producing ethanol is seen today, but depleted ground water decades into the future would mean an inability to produce either) apply.

49. Refer to Infographic 8. Antibiotics are routinely given to animals in confinement facilities to avoid the spread of disease through dense populations. The antibiotics get into the surrounding environment (water and soil) and allow antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria to flourish and become the majority strain in the population. When infected by such a strain, an animal or human will not respond to treatment with the antibiotic. Which social trap is in effect here? What should be done about this?

Section: Challenges to Solving Environmental Problems Level: 2

Bloom’s Level: Applying Feedback: The sliding reinforcer is in effect here. We must be more careful in the application of antibiotics to humans and livestock; what is helpful at first becomes no longer helpful and then deadly over time. Many strains of bacteria exist that are resistant to all of our available antibiotic treatments.

50. How can the tragedy of the commons be applied to anthropogenic climate change?

Section: Challenges to Solving Environmental Problems Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Feedback: No one entity owns the atmosphere. It is common to all countries. We combust fossil fuels and then greenhouse gases enter the atmosphere, where they trap heat and enhance the greenhouse effect. Unless regulations are enacted, each industry/nation will benefit from burning fossil fuels because it is in their own best interest. However, if everyone does this, the entire planet will suffer. This type of problem is difficult to solve because it is global and thus requires all nations to agree to reforms, without causing undue suffering to any particular participant.

51. You have been given the task of making the fishing industry more sustainable. How will you accomplish this task?

Section: Challenges to Solving Environmental Problems Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Feedback: You will have to educate fishermen that the oceans can support only a certain catch size and that overfishing will make the industry unsustainable. By restricting catch size and the fishing season, you can make the industry sustainable and ensure abundant catches in future seasons. You will also need to address the international fishing industry and try to get governments to realize that the fishing industry is a global concern. All countries will need to protect the oceans to ensure the future of the fishing industry.

Guiding Question 9 Distinguish between an anthropocentric, a biocentric, and an ecocentric worldview Multiple Choice 52. Which statement about environmental ethics is TRUE? A. All people with environmental ethics recycle.

B. Environmental ethics have no control over how people resolve problems in the environment.

C. People with environmental ethics tend to have an anthropogenic worldview rather than a biocentric worldview.

D. Each person has a philosophy surrounding environmental ethics that influences his or her interactions with the natural environment.

E. Worldviews do not tend to influence people’s environmental ethics.

Answer: D Section: Worldviews and Environmental Ethics Level: 1

Bloom’s Level: Understanding 53. Which statement is FALSE? A. In a biocentric worldview, all life is valued.

B. An ecocentric worldview values the ecosystem as an intact whole.

C. An ecocentric worldview includes all of the organisms and nonliving processes that occur in an ecosystem.

D. In an anthropogenic worldview, human beings have an instrumental value.

E. An anthropogenic worldview places human lives and interests as the most important.

Answer: D Section: Worldviews and Environmental Ethics Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 54. Which of the following choices is NOT an example of an anthropocentric worldview?

A. clear-cutting a forest to sell timber B. testing a nuclear bomb C. large commercial fishing ships processing tons of fish per day D. purchasing a rice product stored in a recycled cardboard container instead of one stored in a plastic container E. clearing land to build shopping malls Answer: D Section: Worldviews and Environmental Ethics Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 55. Which of the following is an example of a biocentric worldview?

A. catching a spider in your house and releasing it outside B. exterminating all insects C. viewing nature as existing only for us to use its resources D. thinking the nitrogen and water cycles are as important as humans E. believing animals exist to provide food for humans Answer: A Section: Worldviews and Environmental Ethics Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 56. What type of worldview did the Vikings have?

A. anthropocentric B. biocentric C. ecocentric D. intrinsic E. geologic Answer: A Section: Worldviews and Environmental Ethics Level: 1

Bloom’s Level: Remembering 57. The window through which we view our world and existence is called our: A. ethic.

B. value.

C. worldview.

D. ecoview.

Answer: C Section: Worldviews and Environmental Ethics Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 58. If the Vikings had a _____ worldview, they would protect the forests and grasslands not just for the resources provided but also for the natural processes in those areas.

A. anthropocentric B. biocentric C. ecocentric D. intrinsic Answer: C Section: Worldviews and Environmental Ethics Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 59. The worldview that considers interactions between organisms and between living and nonliving components of a system is called: A. ecocentric.

B. anthropocentric.

C. biocentric.

D. geocentric.

Answer: A Section: Worldviews and Environmental Ethics Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

Essay 60. What is the difference between an anthropocentric worldview, a biocentric worldview, and an ecocentric worldview?

Section: Worldviews and Environmental Ethics Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Feedback: An anthropocentric worldview considers human life and interests as the most important. Environmental resources such as forests and other species are valued only for what they provide for humans. A biocentric worldview considers all organisms as having the right to exist, regardless of the benefit or harm to humans. A biocentric worldview

values a mosquito as much as a dolphin. An ecocentric worldview values the living and nonliving components of an ecosystem as being equally important.

Matching Questions Match each term in the left-hand column to the statement that it best exemplifies.

1. environment 2. environmental science

3. applied science

4. trade-offs

5. triple bottom line 6. sustainable development 7. sustainable

8. renewable energy 9. biodiversity 10. nonrenewable resources 11. time delay 12. worldview

13. anthropocentric worldview 14. empirical science

15. anthropogenic

resources whose supply is finite or not replenished in a timely fashion (*10) the personal philosophy that influences how a person interacts with his or her natural environment and thus affects how that person responds to environmental problems (*19) decisions by individuals or groups that seem good at the time and produce a short-term benefit but that hurt society in the long run (*4) a scientific approach that investigates the natural world through systematic observation and experimentation (*16) research findings that are used to help solve practical problems (*3) energy that comes from an infinitely available or easily replenished source (*8) actions that are beneficial at first but then change conditions such that their benefit declines over time (*20) a method of using resources in such a way that we can continue to use them indefinitely (*7) the combination of the environmental, social, and economic impacts of our choices (*5) the biological and physical surroundings in which any given living organism exists (*1) a basic understanding of how ecosystems function and of the impact of our choices on the environment (*21) an interdisciplinary field of research that draws on the natural and social sciences and the humanities in order to understand the natural world and our relationship to it (*2) the variety of species on Earth (*9) a scientific approach that investigates the natural world through systematic observation and experimentation. (*14) the window through which one views one’s world and existence (*12)

16. social traps 17. Anthropocene 18. tragedy of the commons 19. environmental ethic 20. sliding reinforcer 21. environmental literacy

actions that produce a benefit today and set into motion events that cause problems later on (*11) a human-centered view that assigns intrinsic value only to humans (*13) development that meets present needs without compromising the ability of future generations to do the same (*6) a proposed new geologic epoch that is marked by modern human impact (*17) caused by or related to human action (*15) the tendency of an individual to abuse commonly held resources in order to maximize his or her own personal interest (*18)

Linked Questions Data were collected on the power generated by wind and solar installations worldwide since 1996. Look at the following graph of these data and answer the three questions that follow.

Graph created by Susan Karr based on data from http://cleantechnica.com/2013/11/07/renewable-energy-charts-renewable-energy-facts/

1. What type of scientific study do the data in this graph represent?

A. applied science B. empirical study Answer: A Section: Science Literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

2. How much wind capacity did the world have in 2012?

A. 280 GW B. 380 GW C. 100 GW D. 250 GW Answer: A Section: Science Literacy Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

3. Based on this graph and what you know about how best to pursue sustainability, which of these two renewable energy sources should we pursue most vigorously in the future?

A. Wind: It is more popular than solar, so it is probably more useful or profitable.

B. Solar: It appears to be increasing at a faster rate in recent years.

C. Wind: It has shown the steadiest rise since 2002.

D. Both should be pursued to diversify our energy options.

Answer: D Section: Science Literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating

The following 4 questions are based on this scenario: You attend a community meeting at which people are discussing the possibility of approving a large-scale wind power project that would allow developers to install six large wind turbines on the crest of a hill in a rural, wooded part of the county, and this installation would be enough to supply the nearby community with electricity. Answer the following questions based on this scenario.

1. One developer who recently bought land in the area near the proposed site and who has plans to develop a new subdivision complains that the wind turbines will be a noisy eyesore, and he does not want the project approved. He worries that the installation will drive down property values and make prospective buyers wary about buying his subdivision lots. What worldview do his comments suggest he has?

A. antropocentric B. biocentric C. ecocentric Answer: A Section: Making Connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding/Applying 2. The wind project developer replies that similar projects in other areas have actually increased property values because they attract residents who have a strong desire to protect the environment. She explains that the closest home to the proposed wind turbines would be more than 5 miles away, far enough so that they would not be heard by residents. Thus, the subdivision developer could make a larger profit than he had anticipated. With these comments, the wind developer is pointing out: A. the intrinsic value of wind turbines.

B. the trade-offs of environmental projects.

C. the instrumental value of the project.

D. that environmental ethics don’t need to be considered here.

Answer: C Section: Making Connections Level: 2

Bloom’s Level: Understanding /Applying 3 Another resident argues strongly against the wind project, citing the number of birds and bats that are killed annually by wind turbines. “If even one bat or bird dies, that is unacceptable,” he argues. “Every living thing has a right to life.” His worldview is: A. antropocentric.

B. biocentric.

C. ecocentric.

Answer: B Section: Making Connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding /Applying 4. A final speaker acknowledges that wind turbines have problems but suggests that the advantages outweigh the disadvantages. The area suffers from acid rain and particulate air pollution that is linked to a nearby coal-fired power plant. These wind turbines will decrease the amount of coal that must be burned, and this will reduce air pollution.

Though some animals may unfortunately be killed, the wind instillation will help the ecosystem as a whole, he argues, making it healthier for the plants and animals that live there. His argument addresses concerns of those with _____ point of view.

A. an anthropocentric B. an ecocentric C. a biocentric D. both an anthropocentric and ecocentric E. both an anthropocentric and biocentric Answer: D Section: Making Connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

MODULE 1.2 Guiding Question 1 How do scientists study the natural world?

Multiple Choice 1. The first step of the scientific process is a(n) __________.

A. prediction B. hypothesis C. experiment D. peer review E. observation Answer: E Section: The nature of science and the scientific method Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 2. A(n) _____ is a possible explanation for what is observed that is based on some previous knowledge.

A. peer review B. prediction C. hypothesis D. theory E. anecdote Answer: C Section: The nature of science and the scientific method Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 3. Which of the following lists the steps of the scientific process in the correct order?

A. observe, create a testable prediction, form a hypothesis, experiment, support or refute the hypothesis B. observe, form a hypothesis, create a testable prediction, experiment, support or refute the hypothesis C. form a hypothesis, create a testable prediction, observe, experiment, support or refute the hypothesis D. create a testable prediction, form a hypothesis, observe, experiment, support or refute the hypothesis Answer: B Section: The nature of science and the scientific method Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 4. Which of the following questions can be solved with empirical evidence?

A. Do ghosts exist?

B. What is the meaning of life?

C. What is my cat thinking?

D. What causes the changing of the seasons?

E. Is the death penalty wrong?

Answer: D Section: The nature of science and the scientific method Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 5. What is TRUE regarding the following statements?

(1) “Higher levels of greenhouse gases cause increased warming of the troposphere.”

(2) “People who are good go to heaven when they die.”

A. Both statements are obviously wrong.

B. Both statements have been proven true by long-standing scientific theories.

C. Only statement (1) is a scientific hypothesis testable by scientific methods.

D. Only statement (2) can generate falsifiable predictions.

E. Neither statement is suitable for science.

Answer: C Section: The nature of science and the scientific method Level: 1/2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 6. Which of the following statements is NOT falsifiable?

A. Car exhaust contributes to ozone depletion.

B. Iced wings of a plane contribute to some plane crashes.

C. Dogs become tired when they are hungry.

D. People should not litter because it is wrong to do so.

E. All of these are falsifiable statements.

Answer: D Section: The nature of science and the scientific method Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying/Analyzing 7. Which of the following hypotheses is NOT testable?

A. The white fungus is causing death of bats.

B. Bacterial water pollution increases risk of infectious disease.

C. Increased salt intake leads to high blood pressure.

D. Reincarnation exists.

E. Increased UV exposure increases the risk of skin cancer.

Answer: D Section: The nature of science and the scientific method Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 8. Peer review is _______________.

A. the process a scientist undergoes to analyze the results of the experiment B. a measure of how well the report is received by the general public

C. a method for measuring the results of an experiment D. a panel of editors who proofread the report after it is accepted for publication E. a process by which a group of scientists in the field evaluate the report and determine if it is of high enough quality to publish in a journal Answer: E Section: The nature of science and the scientific method Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 9. Which of the following ensures that only quality scientific studies that have been well controlled and avoid bias appear in scientific journals?

A. peer review B. funding agencies C. an independent variable D. anecdotal evidence E. the scientist responsible for the experiment Answer: A Section: The nature of science and the scientific method Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 10. How does a peer-reviewed article compare to an Internet blog?

A. Both are equally analyzed and evaluated by scientists in the field prior to publication.

B. Any person can easily create and publish a peer-reviewed article.

C. A peer-reviewed article is likely to contain opinions that are not supported by data.

D. A blog must be written by a researcher and not a reporter.

E. The study design and results are evaluated in a peer-reviewed article.

Answer: E Section: The nature of science and the scientific method Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 11. What criteria must be met for a hypothesis to be valid?

FEEDBACK: A valid hypothesis must be testable. It must be possible to create predictions from the hypothesis that we can objectively observe if we run a test.

Predictions based on a hypothesis also must be falsifiable. It must be possible to refute them by evidence.

Section: The nature of science and the scientific method Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 12. Is the following a valid hypothesis? Cancer patients who are prayed for will have better outcomes compared with patients with similar prognoses (likely outcomes) who are not prayed for.

FEEDBACK: Yes. Predictions from the hypothesis are testable and falsifiable.

Section: The nature of science and the scientific method Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 13. Is the following a valid hypothesis? Natural disasters around the world are a result of a supernatural deity punishing humanity for our actions.

FEEDBACK: No. Predictions from the hypothesis are not testable, nor are they falsifiable.

Section: The nature of science and the scientific method Level: 1/2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding/Applying 14. Scientists use the scientific method to investigate the natural world. The scientific method is based on gathering empirical evidence. What is empirical evidence, and why are empirical data a hallmark of good science?

FEEDBACK: Empirical evidence is information gathered by means of observation of physical phenomena. The same data can be objectively observed by anyone in the same place (using the same equipment). Phenomena that are not objectively observable cannot be empirically studied and are therefore not under the purview of science.

Section: The nature of science and the scientific method Level: 1/2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding/Applying 15. Describe the importance of peer review to the scientific process.

FEEDBACK: Prior to publication in a scientific journal, a study is rigorously analyzed by peers in that scientific area who can determine well if the study is of acceptable quality.

This ensures only quality scientific reports (without bias, well-controlled studies, etc.) appear in the scientific literature.

Section: The nature of science and the scientific method Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying/Analyzing 16. Refer to Infographic 1. What are the possible outcomes after using the scientific method to analyze the data?

FEEDBACK: The hypothesis is either rejected (develop and test alternate hypotheses), modified, or accepted (published in a peer-reviewed journal and used to test new predictions or hypotheses).

Section: The nature of science and the scientific method Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Guiding Question 2 What influences the degree of certainty in a scientific explanation?

Multiple Choice 17. A(n) ______ is a widely accepted explanation of a natural phenomenon that has been extensively and rigorously tested scientifically.

A. theory B. fact C. explanation D. definition E. proof Answer: A Section: Certainty in science: From hypothesis to theory Level: 1

Bloom’s Level: Remembering 18. Which of the following is FALSE regarding a scientific theory?

A. It can be modified over time as new information is discovered.

B. It is the result of a hypothesis being repeatedly supported by many lines of inquiry.

C. It has strong predictive powers that can explain observed phenomena.

D. It is an idea based only on observations.

E. It is a very well-supported hypothesis.

Answer: D Section: Certainty in science: From hypothesis to theory Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 19. Cell theory states that all living organisms are made up of one or more cells. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding this theory?

A. All living organisms discovered so far have been made of one or more cells.

B. A newly discovered organism is very likely to be made out of one or more cells.

C. Cells are the basic units of structure for all known living organisms.

D. No living organism will ever be discovered that is not made out of cells.

E. All of these answers are true.

Answer: D Section: Certainty in science: From hypothesis to theory Level: 1/2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding/Applying 20. Why can scientific opinions change over time?

A. All conclusions in science are considered tentative and open to revision.

B. Our understanding of a concept or process can change as scientists learn more.

C. New evidence may be used to overturn a prevailing conclusion.

D. All of these statements are true.

E. None of these statements are true.

Answer: D Section: Certainty in science: From hypothesis to theory Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 21. The highest level of certainty a scientific explanation can attain is a(n) ___________.

A. observation B. inference C. hypothesis D. theory E. study Answer: D Section: Certainty in science: From hypothesis to theory Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

Essay 22. How would you respond to someone who says, “Evolution is just a theory”?

FEEDBACK: The word “theory” in casual usage means “an idea.” In contrast, a “scientific theory” is a very well-supported hypothesis with strong predictive powers. It is very likely not going to be refuted by additional studies.

Section: Certainty in science: From hypothesis to theory Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Applying 23. In this chapter it has been made clear that the process used to obtain a body of knowledge (facts and explanations) is more important than the body of knowledge itself.

Why is this?

FEEDBACK: Facts may change as additional information is collected through the scientific process. Consequently, it is important that the entire process be open-ended and that the investigators be open-minded to change.

Section: Certainty in science: From hypothesis to theory Level: 2/3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 24. Refer to Infographic 2. Explain why in science absolute proof is not required.

FEEDACK: Since all scientific information is open to further investigation, it is not expected or required that there will be absolute proof in science.

Section: Certainty in science: From hypothesis to theory Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 25. Describe the difference between a hypothesis and a scientific theory.

FEEDBACK: A hypothesis is a possible explanation for what we have observed that is based on some previous knowledge. A scientific theory is a widely accepted explanation of a natural phenomenon that has been extensively and rigorously tested scientifically.

Section: Certainty in science: From hypothesis to theory Level: 1/2

Bloom’s Level: Understanding/Applying

Guiding Question 3 How do comparative studies contribute to the understanding of an environmental issue?

Multiple Choice 26. Why do scientists use comparative studies?

A. Most species are all the same, so a comparative study can be used instead of performing an experiment.

B. Similar phenomena in other species or regions can provide clues to events being investigated.

C. Comparative studies can replace an observational study, saving time and money.

D. Scientists use comparative studies to prove a hypothesis.

E. Scientists use comparative studies for research to publish peer-reviewed papers.

Answer: B Section: Comparative studies Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 27. Scientists looked at comparative studies to help their work with bats and a fungal infection. What organism was used in the comparative studies?

A. birds B. fish C. rats D. frogs E. humans Answer: D Section: Comparative studies Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 28. The disease caused by a novel fungus affecting some species of North American bats is called ____________.

A. white-nose syndrome B. reduced torpor disease C. chytridiomycosis D. white-wing syndrome E. bat hibernacula disease Answer: A Section: Comparative studies Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

29. Which of the following did the researchers suspect about the fungus that was affecting bats and its effect on the bats?

A. Hibernating bats were more susceptible to the fungus, since their body temperature was lower than normal and their immune system was suppressed.

B. Active bats were more susceptible to the fungus, since their body temperature was lower than normal and their immune system was suppressed.

C. Hibernating bats were more susceptible to the fungus, since their body temperature was higher than normal and their immune system was suppressed.

D. Active bats were more susceptible to the fungus, since their body temperature was higher than normal and their immune system was suppressed.

E. None of these reflects what researchers thought about the fungus and the bats.

Answer: A Section: Comparative studies Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 30. Bats found with white-nose syndrome appeared to die because _____________.

A. the fungal infection affected their wings and they could not fly, making them easy prey for other animals B. the fungal infection attacked the areas needed to maintain body temperature, so the bats froze to death C. the fungal infection caused them to wake more often and use up their fat reserves, so they died of starvation D. their immune system was suppressed, so they contracted other deadly infections E. their torpor became so deep they could wake from their hibernation Answer: C Section: Comparative studies Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 31. What did the comparative study on chytridiomycosis teach scientists studying whitenose syndrome in bats?

A. It was probably not a fungal infection affecting the bats and scientists needed to look elsewhere for a cause.

B. Chytridiomycosis affected only certain amphibians, so the comparative study could not teach the scientists anything useful.

C. A novel fungal infection could spread to colonies and cause dramatic population crashes, as seen in the comparative study.

D. Humans were responsible for the spread of chytridiomycosis, but not white-nose syndrome.

E. White-nose syndrome affects bats but does not cause death in organisms like chytridiomycosis does in amphibians.

Answer: C Section: Comparative studies Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

Essay 32. Why did scientists initially think bats with white-nose syndrome were dying?

FEEDBACK: During hibernation, the bats are in a state of reduced metabolism called torpor. To wake up, the bats must use lots of energy. Scientists thought the fungal infection was causing the bats to wake up more often than usual, causing them to use more energy. This caused them to use their fat reserves up too soon, and since there were no insects to eat in the winter, the bats starved to death.

Section: Comparative studies Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 33. How did the comparative study on amphibians help scientists studying the white-nose syndrome in bats?

FEEDBACK: The study on amphibians showed it was a fungal infection causing frogs to die in large numbers. The fungus spread quickly around the world, believed to be helped by human activity. This study taught scientists studying WNS that a novel fungal infection could cause large population crashes, which led them to look at the WNs fungus.

Section: Comparative studies Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

Guiding Question 4 Why are observational and experimental studies needed to investigate the natural world?

Multiple Choice 34. Which type of study manipulates a variable in a test group and compares the responses to a control group?

A. anecdotal B. observational C. experimental D. inferential E. natural Answer: C Section: Observational and experimental studies Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 35. Which type of experiment collects data in the real world, without manipulating the subject of study?

A. experimental B. anecdotal

C. theoretical D. observational E. randomized Answer: D Section: Observational and experimental studies Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 36. In an experimental study, what is TRUE about the independent variable?

A. It shows a response.

B. It is charted on the y-axis (vertical axis).

C. It is what you manipulate.

D. It is what you measure.

E. It is the same for both the control and experimental groups.

Answer: C Section: Observational and experimental studies Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 37. In an experimental study, what is TRUE about the dependent variable?

A. It is charted on the x-axis (horizontal axis).

B. It pertains only to the experimental group.

C. It is what you manipulate.

D. It is a measured response.

E. It is what can be changed to see if it produces an effect.

Answer: D Section: Observational and experimental studies Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 38. When data are shown in a graph, the independent variable should be plotted on the _______.

A. vertical axis B. x-axis C. response D. ordinate E. y-axis Answer: B Section: Observational and experimental studies Level: 1/2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding/Applying 39. Scientists generally require a level of certainty of at least ______ to be sure their conclusions are correct.

A. 50% B. 60%

C. 75% D. 80% E. 95% Answer: E Section: Observational and experimental studies Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Applying

40. In the following example, what is the independent variable?

Hypothesis: Mice on a restricted low-caloric diet will live longer than mice that can eat as much as they want.

Experiment: A large population of genetically identical mice is divided into two groups.

Half receive as much food as they care to eat each day. The other half receive 20% less food than a typical mouse eats each day. The day of death (lifespan) is recorded for all mice. All mice live in the same room, in the same type of cage, with access to water.

A. amount of food available B. volume of water available C. genetically identical mice D. happiness of each mouse E. lifespan of each mouse Answer: A Section: Observational and experimental studies Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying/Analyzing 41. A researcher wants to know how effective a new suntan lotion is at preventing skin cancer caused by UV radiation. She uses mice as test subjects to model the effects on humans. Which of the following is the best control for this experiment?

A. Only mice in the control group are shaded during the experiment.

B. Mice in the test group receive twice as much UV radiation as those in the control group.

C. No suntan lotion is applied to mice in the control group; lotion is applied only to the test group.

D. Mice in the test group are from a genetic line that increases their susceptibility to UV radiation.

E. Mice in the control group are provided lotion in their drinking water to maximize effectiveness.

Answer: C Section: Observational and experimental studies Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying/Analyzing 42. When conducting an experimental study, scientists manipulate the ________ variable and measure the _____________ variable to see if it is affected.

A. dependent; independent

B. independent; dependent C. observational; dependent D. experimental; independent E. observational; experimental Answer: B Section: Observational and experimental studies Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 43. In an experiment examining the effect of the Pd fungus on the torpor of bats, the presence of Pd fungus would be the _____________ variable.

A. independent B. dependent C. non-independent D. control E. extraneous Answer: A Section: Observational and experimental studies Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 44. The group in an experimental study that is manipulated such that it differs from the control group in only one way is the _________ group.

A. confirmation B. test C. validation D. placebo E. independent Answer: B Section: Observational and experimental studies Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 45. Refer to Infographic 4. Which study depicted in the infographic provides stronger support for the stated hypothesis? Briefly explain why.

FEEDBACK: By manipulating the independent variable (infection status), the experimental study (Warnecke et al.) provides stronger support because it allows researchers to compare the response in the test group to the control group that was not exposed.

Section: Observational and experimental studies

Level: 1/2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding/Applying

46. The health and lifestyle of 10,000 nurses are tracked for a period of 30 years. It is discovered that of the nurses who smoked cigarettes for at least 10 years, 35% had lung cancer. Is this an observational or an experimental study? Does this study demonstrate that cigarettes cause lung cancer?

FEEDBACK: This is an observational study which shows a correlation between smoking and lung cancer. It is not an experimental study, where variables can be directly manipulated. It would be unethical to directly test this cause-and-effect relationship using human subjects.

Section: Observational and experimental studies Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing/Evaluating 47. Explain the function of a control group in an experimental study.

FEEDBACK: A control group validates the experiment. The control group should be identical to the test group except for the independent variable. This allows conclusions to be drawn about the outcome by comparing the experimental group with the control group. Any differences are due to the independent variable.

Section: Observational and experimental studies Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 48. Tests of significance help to determine if an event was due to chance or something else. The probability value is expressed as a p-value. What does it mean to have a p-value equal to 0.05?

FEEDBACK: The null hypothesis is that the result observed is due to chance. A p-value is the probability of obtaining a result at least as extreme as the one observed (assuming the null hypothesis is true). A p-value less than 0.05 means rejection of the null (by chance) hypothesis. This means the result is statistically significant. The smaller the pvalue, the more strongly the test rejects the null hypothesis.

Section: Observational and experimental studies Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 49. Explain how scientists use probability to apply a level of certainty to their conclusions.

FEEDBACK: Scientists generally require a high level of certainty that their conclusions are correct. Normally scientists try to achieve 95% certainty that they are correct in their conclusions, meaning they accept no more than a 5% chance the wrong conclusion will be drawn.

Section: Observational and experimental studies Level: 2

Bloom’s Level: Applying

50. Refer to Infographic 4. In Warnecke et al., what is the independent variable? What is the dependent variable? List as many qualities as possible that should be the same between bats in the two groups (control and test groups). Ideally, what should be the only difference between the two groups of bats?

FEEDBACK: The independent variable is the infection status. The dependent variable is the arousals per bat per day. Bats in both groups should be handled the same way, and arousals should be measured the same way. The bats should be the same age and same sex, or there should at least be a balance across the groups, given the same diet, housed in

the same conditions, and so on. The only difference between the groups should be the independent variable.

Section: Observational and experimental studies Level: 2/3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing/Evaluating 51. Refer to Infographic 4. In the observational study ( Reeder et al.), explain why the bat condition is the independent variable and the mean torpor length is the dependent variable.

FEEDBACK: The bat condition is the independent variable because this is the variable in the experiment that is being compared by the investigator to see if it produces an effect. The mean torpor length is the dependent variable because this is what is measured to see if it changes due to the conditions of the experiment.

Section: Observational and experimental studies

Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying/Analyzing

Guiding Question 5 What is the difference between a correlation and a cause-and-effect relationship?

Multiple Choice 52. What type of studies can provide correlations?

A. experimental B. variable C. correlational D. observational E. demonstrative Answer: D Section: Correlation versus causation Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 53. What is a correlation?

A. when changing one variable affects a change in another variable B. when two things occur together, but one does not necessarily cause the other to happen C. a study where a variable is manipulated in one group to compare the response to another group D. research that gathers data in a real-world setting without manipulating any variables E. the mathematical evaluation of experimental data to determine likely differences due to an observed variable Answer: B Section: Correlation versus causation Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 54. What type of evidence shows that smoking causes lung cancer in humans?

A. cause-and-effect B. experimental C. correlational D. statistical E. hypothetical Answer: C Section: Correlation versus causation Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 55. In Warnecke’s experimental study, fewer individual bats exposed to WNS fungus survived than did bats not exposed. This is an example of a(n) _____________.

A. correlation

B. cause-and-effect relationship C. observation D. relationship E. variable Answer: B Section: Correlation versus causation Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 56. What is a correlation, and how does it differ from a cause-and-effect relationship?

Give an example of each and note what type of study can provide that information.

FEEDBACK: In an observational study, data can provide a correlation between, for example, a bat colony was exposed to WNS and most bats in the colony died shortly after. Both occur together, which suggests a cause-and-effect relationship. An experimental study, where variables can be directly manipulated and controlled, can be used to test a cause-and-effect relationship, for example, showing that exposure to WNS fungus decreased bat survival.

Section: Correlation versus causation Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying/Analyzing 57. In terms of manipulating variables, what is the difference between an observational study and an experimental study? Which type of study can test cause-and-effect relationships?

FEEDBACK: In an observational study, data are gathered in a real-world setting, without intentionally manipulating any variable. This can lead to correlative conclusions. In an experimental study, the independent variable is manipulated by the researcher to evaluate a cause-and-effect relationship.

Section: Correlation versus causation Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 58. When it rains, you often notice people outside holding open umbrellas. You hypothesize that opening an umbrella causes rain to fall. What type of experiment can be used to test this? Explain what is meant by the phrase “correlation is not causation.”

FEEDBACK: Although the appearance of rain and open umbrellas is correlated, it is not clear yet if one variable is causing the other to happen. We need an experimental study to test if rain is causing people to open umbrellas or if opening umbrellas causes rain to fall.

“Correlation is not causation” means that just because two things happen at the same time does not mean that one is caused by the other.

Section: Correlation versus causation Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Guiding Question 6

How can science help policy makers address environmental problems?

Multiple Choice 59. A formalized plan that addresses a desired outcome of goal is a(n) ___________.

A. policy B. treaty C. law D. correlation E. outcome Answer: A Section: Using science to address environmental problems Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 60. What is TRUE about establishing environmental policy?

A. It is easy and straightforward to establish good environmental policy.

B. Stakeholders all agree on the same way to deal with an environmental issue.

C. Policies need to wait until we have all the data on an issue.

D. Policies must be flexible and adapt to new scientific findings.

E. Policies need to address only the environmental problem.

Answer: D Section: Using science to address environmental problems Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 61. Policies should address the triple bottom line—that is, they should ___________.

A. address environmental problems, fit scientific data, and not affect economics B. address environmental problems, fit societal needs, and be economically viable C. address environmental problems and fit scientific data regardless of economic considerations D. focus on social and economic needs before environmental issues E. use evidence that supports our beliefs no matter how compelling other evidence may be Answer: B Section: Using science to address environmental problems Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 62. What did scientists find that could help treat WNS in bats?

A. a different fungus B. an antibiotic C. a bacterium D. a vaccine E. a virus Answer: C Section: Using science to address environmental problems

Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 63. When we are presented with evidence that supports our current beliefs, we strengthen our beliefs. If evidence contradicts our beliefs, we dismiss it. This is called a ____________.

A. belief bias B. confirmation bias C. validation belief D. contradiction belief E. scientific evidence Answer: B Section: Using science to address environmental problems Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 64. Why is it difficult to establish policies to deal with environmental problems?

FEEDBACK: There are often conflicts between protecting the environment and serving the short-term interests of one societal group or another. Stakeholders often have differing needs, and policy makers must balance all these considerations while still protecting human populations and the environment.

Section: Using science to address environmental problems Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 65. What are some approaches used to protect bats from WNS? FEEDBACK: The northern long-eared bat was listed as a threatened species, giving it federal protection. Hibernacula have been closed to the public to prevent humans from transmitting fungal spores from one cave to another. Cave visitors should decontaminate clothing after leaving caves. Education about the ecological role of bats can help dispel myths. A bacterium is being tested to see if it can reduce the amount of fungus growing on bats.

Section: Using science to address environmental problems Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

Matching Questions Match each term in the left-hand column to the statement that it best exemplifies.

1. observations

2. inferences

3. policy

4. science

5. empirical evidence

6. correlation

7. cause-and-effect relationship

8. scientific method

9. hypothesis

10. observational study

an association between two variables that identifies one (the effect) occurring as a result of or in response to the other (the cause) (*7) the group in an experimental study that the test group’s results are compared to; ideally, the control group will differ from the test group in only one way (*12) research that manipulates a variable in a test group and compares the response to that of a control group that was not exposed to the same variable (*11) the mathematical evaluation of experimental data to determine how likely it is that any difference observed is due to the variable being tested (*18) a formalized plan that addresses a desired outcome or goal (*3) information detected with the senses or with equipment that extends our senses (*1) researchers submit a report of their work to a group of outside experts who evaluate the study’s design and results of the study to determine whether it is of high enough quality to publish (*16) a body of knowledge (facts and explanations) about the natural world, and the process used to get that knowledge (*4) a widely accepted explanation of a natural phenomenon that has been extensively and rigorously tested scientifically (*17) the variable in an experiment that is evaluated to see if it changes due to the conditions of the experiment

11. experimental study

12. control group

13. test group

14. independent variable

15. dependent variable

16. peer review

17. theory

18. statistics

(*15) conclusions we draw based on observations (*2) the group in an experimental study that is manipulated such that it differs from the control group in only one way (*13) procedure scientists use to empirically test a hypothesis (*8) two things occur together, but it doesn’t necessarily mean that one caused the other (*6) information gathered via observation of physical phenomena (*5) a possible explanation for what we have observed that is based on some previous knowledge (*9) research that gathers data in a real-world setting without intentionally manipulating any variable (*10) the variable in an experiment that a researcher manipulates or changes to see if the change produces an effect. (*14)

Linked Questions Science Literacy Use Infographic 5 below to answer the next five questions.

1. When bats were exposed to WNS fungus, how many were still alive on day 120?

A. 18 B. 16 C. 8 D. 6 Answer: D Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 2. What did the observational study find?

A. A cause-and-effect relationship was found between bats and exposure to WNS fungus.

B. The winter count of bats in colonies where WNS was present declined after the appearance of WNS in the colony.

C. Bats who were not exposed to WNS fungus survived longer than bats who were exposed to the fungus.

Answer: B Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 3. How long did it take to see a decrease in survival of bats exposed to the WNS fugus?

A. 80 days B. 120 days

C. 4 years D. over 20 years Answer: A Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 4. In the experimental study, what was the independent variable?

A. number of bats during the winter count B. number of individual bats surviving C. the day of study D. exposure to the WNS fungus Answer: D Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 5. The bat colony affected by the WNS fungus reached the lowest winter count in which year?

A. 1985 B. 1995 C. 2005 D. 2010 Answer: D Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

Making Connections Use the following scenario to answer the next five questions.

You are a scientist doing research for U.S. Fish and Wildlife on the effect of fox predators on snowshoe hares. Park rangers have noticed fewer snowshoe hares in areas where foxes are more abundant. You set up two areas in the boreal forest with a fence that will allow the hares to get in but will keep out foxes, and two areas the same size which are marked but not fenced in. You count the number of snowshoe hares surviving after one year.

1. Which of the following hypotheses is NOT testable in your experiment?

A. Foxes are preying on the snowshoe hares and decreasing their survival.

B. Something supernatural is decreasing the population of snowshoe hares.

C. A predator other than foxes is preying on snowshoe hares and decreasing their survival.

D. Something other than a predator is decreasing the survival of snowshoe hares.

Answer: B Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 2. The type of study you are setting up is a(n) __________________ study.

A. experimental B. observational C. variable D. independent Answer: A Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 3. The dependent variable in your study is the ______________.

A. number of foxes B. type of forest C. size of the area D. number of hares surviving Answer: D Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 4. Your study will provide which type of results?

A. correlation B. cause-and-effect C. control D. observational Answer: B Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 5. After you carry out your experiment and collect your data, what is the next step for you in the scientific process?

A. make a new observation B. publish your conclusions C. analyze your data D. form a hypothesis Answer: C Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

MODULE 1.3 Guiding Question 1 What classes of toxic substances are recognized, and what are common routes of exposure?

Multiple Choice 1. A substance that causes damage when it contacts, or enters, the body is called a ______________.

A. toxic B. venom C. synthetic D. chemical E. hazard Answer: A Section: Toxic substances in the environment Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 2. What is TRUE of lead?

A. It is a synthetic chemical.

B. It is safe for humans at low levels.

C. The lead in the water in Flint, Michigan, came from pollutants in the river.

D. Lead was used in various products, including paint and water pipes.

Answer: A Section: Toxic substances in the environment Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 3. Which book created an uproar and eventually led to stricter regulations for chemical pesticides?

A. Quiet Skies B. Chemicals in the Environment C. Environmental Science for a Changing World D. Silent Spring E. Poisoned by Toxic Chemicals Answer: D Section: Toxic substances in the environment Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 4. Which of the following is NOT a type of toxic chemical?

A. carcinogens B. poisons C. irritants D. sensitizers

E. neutralizers Answer: E Section: Toxic substances in the environment Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 5. The concept that everyone should have access to a clean, healthy environment as a basic human right is known as ___________________.

A. environmental justice B. environmental equality C. an environmental worldview D. ecological equality E. environmental right Answer: A Section: Toxic substances in the environment Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 6. Which type of chemical interferes with a person’s hormone system in the body?

A. carcinogens B. sensitizers C. irritants D. endocrine disruptors E. teratogens Answer: D Section: Toxic substances in the environment Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 7. You are out camping with friends. When you return home, you notice you have developed a rash on parts of your arms and legs. You have most likely come into contact with a ___________________.

A. mutagen B. sensitizer C. carcinogen D. poison E. teratogen Answer: B Section: Toxic substances in the environment Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 8. As you are painting your room, you develop a headache from the paint fumes. You are experiencing a(n) ___________________ effect.

A. chronic B. acute

C. delayed D. poison E. toxic Answer: B Section: Toxic substances in the environment Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 9. Teratogens work by _____________________.

A. disrupting the body’s hormone system B. damaging or killing cells in the body C. disrupting embryonic development D. directly damaging DNA E. causing localized tissue damage Answer: C Section: Toxic substances in the environment Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 10. The lead found in the water in Flint, Michigan, is what type of toxic chemical?

A. carcinogen B. sensitizer C. endocrine disruptor D. poison E. irritant Answer: D Section: Toxic substances in the environment Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 11. What is a toxic substance?

FEEDBACK: A toxic substance is something that causes damage after exposure. For example, arsenic can leach into ground water and cause cancer and damage the nervous system. Asbestos, another good example, is found in old building materials and affects the lungs after long exposure.

Section: Toxic substances in the environment Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 12. What is the difference between an acute effect and a chronic effect? Give an example of each.

FEEDBACK: An acute effect is an adverse reaction that occurs very soon after one is exposed to a toxic substance, whereas a chronic effect is an adverse effect that happens after repeated long-term exposure to low doses of a toxic substance. An example of an

acute effect would be a headache after inhaling fumes from a cleaning solution, while a chronic effect would be lung cancer from smoking cigarettes for years.

Section: Toxic substances in the environment Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 13. Refer to Infographic 1 below. How could a toxic substance be classified into more than one category?

FEEDBACK: If a toxic substance has multiple effects, such as formaldehyde, which causes direct damage, localized damage, allergic reactions, cancer, and birth defects, it would be classified as a poison, irritant, sensitizer, carcinogen, and teratogen.

Section: Toxic substances in the environment Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Guiding Question 2 How do the chemical characteristics of a substance influence its toxicity?

Multiple Choice 14. Why are water-soluble chemicals sometimes safer for humans but not for the environment?

A. They have a low persistence in the environment.

B. Humans can excrete water-soluble chemicals in their urine, but environments are “stuck” with them.

C. Water-soluble chemicals are stored in human fat, so they cannot harm organs.

D. Water-soluble chemicals have a greater tendency to be biomagnified.

E. Water-soluble chemicals have a greater tendency to be bioaccumulated.

Answer: B Section: Factors that affect toxicity: Chemical characteristics Level: 1/2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 15. Why is knowledge about the persistence of a chemical important when considering its toxicity?

A. Persistence is a direct measure of the toxicity of a chemical, so would determine whether it is toxic or nontoxic.

B. Persistence is an indirect measure of the toxicity of a chemical; that is, high persistence means low toxicity.

C. Persistence measures how long a chemical remains in its present state in an area and, therefore, how long it might be a health concern.

D. Persistence is a measure of the number of carbons in an organic molecule, which is a direct measure of toxicity.

E. Persistence is a measure of the amount of a chemical present in a particular food chain.

Answer: C Section: Factors that affect toxicity: Chemical characteristics Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 16. What is the difference between bioaccumulation and biomagnification?

A. Bioaccumulation involves mainly fat-soluble chemicals, while biomagnification involves mostly water-soluble chemicals.

B. Bioaccumulation involves mainly water-soluble chemicals, while biomagnification involves mostly fat-soluble chemicals.

C. Bioaccumulation is predominantly an aquatic problem, while biomagnification is usually a terrestrial problem.

D. Only animals lower on the food chain bioaccumulate, while all organisms can biomagnify.

E. Bioaccumulation is the buildup of substances within one organism, while biomagnification involves those substances moving up the food chain as one organism eats another.

Answer: E Section: Factors that affect toxicity: Chemical characteristics Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 17. The time it takes for a substance to decay in the environment is called ________.

A. accumulation B. solubility C. magnification D. persistence E. bioaccumulation

Answer: D Section: Factors that affect toxicity: Chemical characteristics Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 18. Chemicals that can pass easily through cell membranes are called ________.

A. water soluble B. fat soluble C. fat insoluble D. cell soluble E. membrane insoluble Answer: B Section: Factors that affect toxicity: Chemical characteristics Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 19. The increase in concentration of a fat-soluble substance in a food chain is called ________.

A. biomagnification B. bioaccumulation C. amplification D. magnification E. additive Answer: A Section: Factors that affect toxicity: Chemical characteristics Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 20. Ocean tuna eat smaller fish that consume material containing mercury. Mercury is a persistent toxin that builds up in higher amounts in the bodies of fish. The mercury in the smaller fish accumulates in the ocean tuna in higher amounts. When we consume tuna, the mercury in the tuna can accumulate in our bodies in higher amounts. This phenomenon is called _________.

A. bioaccumulation B. biomagnification C. solubility D. secondary accumulation Answer: B Section: Factors that affect toxicity: Chemical characteristics Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 21. The dose size required for a chemical to do harm is called the _______________.

A. lethal dose B. potency C. persistence

D. soluble dose E. toxic dose Answer: B Section: Factors that affect toxicity: Chemical characteristics Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 22. Which if the following is FALSE about lead exposure?

A. Lead is so potent there is “no safe level” of exposure.

B. A small amount of lead exposure can cause neurological damage.

C. Lead is very persistent in the environment.

D. Lead is fat soluble.

E. Lead will bioaccumulate, but not biomagnify.

Answer: D Section: Factors that affect toxicity: Chemical characteristics Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 23. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention declared that medical intervention is needed when concentrations of lead in the blood are at or above 5 micrograms per deciliter (µg/dL). In Flint, most children with elevated blood levels of lead had values between _______________ µg/dL. A. 0 and 1 B. 1 and 5 C. 5 and 9 D. 10 and 20 E. 30 and 50 Answer: C Section: Factors that affect toxicity: Chemical characteristics Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 24. What is the relationship between persistence and biomagnification?

FEEDBACK: The longer a chemical remains in its present toxic state, the more chances an organism has to pick it up. Additionally, it is more likely to still be toxic when that organism is eaten by another organism. If a chemical has a low persistence, it is more likely to be broken down before it passes too far through the food chain.

Section: Factors that affect toxicity: Chemical characteristics Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 25. Refer to Infographic 2. What is biomagnification? Use the figure to explain how predatory fish higher on the food chain are more likely to suffer health problems compared to organisms lower on the food chain.

FEEDBACK: Biomagnification is the process by which animals that are higher up on the food chain eat other animals that have accumulated toxins in their bodies. The higher organisms consume their prey’s entire lifetime dose of toxins. The predatory fish ends up with a much higher dose of the toxins than it would have bioaccumulated directly from the water.

Section: Factors that affect toxicity: Chemical characteristics Level: 1/2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 26. You have been assigned the task of investigating a case of mercury poisoning in a small fishing village in Japan. How would you go about looking for the cause of the mercury poisoning?

FEEDBACK: Knowing that mercury will accumulate in tissue over time and that this is a fishing village, you would need to examine the mercury content of the fish being caught and eaten. Since predators higher up on the food chain have a greater chance of containing more mercury, you would want to look at the larger fish, especially tuna, which can weigh hundreds of pounds. Tissue samples would need to be taken from the tuna and tested for mercury.

Section: Factors that affect toxicity: Chemical characteristics Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying/Analyzing 27. Eagle populations crashed because their eggshells were so thin that the fetuses were not able to survive, a result of DDT toxicity. Low levels of DDT were measured in nearby waterways, yet the fish living there appeared unaffected. Explain how the low levels of DDT in the water had no obvious effect on the fish populations but wreaked havoc on eagles, the top predators.

FEEDBACK: Although DDT starts out in very small concentrations in the water, it concentrates up food chains in the process of biomagnification. Plankton accumulate DDT from the water, and they are then eaten by small fish, which survive by eating a lot of plankton. Small fish are then consumed in large quantities by bigger fish. Birds of prey need to consume lots of large fish to support their metabolism. They consume their prey’s

entire lifetime dose of those toxins, and the high level of DDT is enough to affect the health of the birds.

Section: Factors that affect toxicity: Chemical characteristics Level: 2/3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

Guiding Question 3 How is toxicity affected by exposure route, chemical interactions, and the victim’s characteristics?

Multiple Choice 28. Individuals react differently to toxin exposures. Which of the following factors could affect an individual’s reaction to toxin exposure?

A. route of exposure (inhalation or skin contact) B. dose of toxin C. age of the individual D. genetics of the individual E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: Factors that affect toxicity: Exposure, victim traits, and chemical interactions Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 29. Scientists are studying the effects of two chemicals on high blood pressure. When chemical A is used, blood pressure decreases by 20%. When chemical B is used, blood pressure decreases by 40%. When both chemical A and chemical B are used, blood pressure decreases by 35%. The effect of the chemical interaction is _________________.

A. additive B. antagonistic C. synergistic D. symbiotic E. decreasing Answer: B Section: Factors that affect toxicity: Exposure, victim traits, and chemical interactions Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 30. According to the World Health Organization, children absorb ___________ times as much lead as adults do in the same environment.

A. 1 to 2 B. 2 to 3 C. 3 to 4

D. 4 to 5 E. 5 to 6 Answer: D Section: Factors that affect toxicity: Exposure, victim traits, and chemical interactions Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 31. The effect where chemicals interact and produce an effect equivalent to the sum of their individual effects is ___________________.

A. antagonistic B. synergistic C. additive D. combining E. quantitative Answer: B Section: Factors that affect toxicity: Exposure, victim traits, and chemical interactions Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 32. Which of the following is the term for chemicals that work together in the body to produce toxic effects greater than the sum of their individual effects would predict?

A. additive B. synergistic C. antagonistic D. disruptive E. agonistic Answer: B Section: Factors that affect toxicity: Exposure, victim traits, and chemical interactions Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 33. Decades of research show even low levels of lead exposure can impact a child’s development in which way?

A. intellectually B. physically C. emotionally D. All of these answers are correct.

E. None of these answers are correct.

Answer: D Section: Factors that affect toxicity: Exposure, victim traits, and chemical interactions Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay

34. Research has shown that children of migratory farm workers are more likely to be exposed to toxins than are children of nonmigratory farm workers. How could you explain this?

FEEDBACK: Migratory workers are exposed to toxins while they are working in the fields, and their clothes can become saturated with the toxins. When the migratory workers go home, they bring the toxins home to their children on their clothes, and as they interact with their children, the children are exposed to the toxins. Children of nonmigratory workers do not have this risk of exposure, since their parents are not exposed to toxins in this way, and their parents’ clothes do not become covered with toxins.

Section: Factors that affect toxicity: Exposure, victim traits, and chemical interactions Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying/Analyzing Guiding Question 4 How is toxicity determined?

Multiple Choice 35. Which LD50 score (dose in ppm) indicates the highest level of toxicity?

A. 19 B. 250 C. 96 D. 8 E. 550 Answer: D Section: Studying toxic substances Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying/Analyzing 36. A graph that shows the strength of an effect of a substance at different doses is a(n) __________________ curve.

A. lethal-dose B. dose-response C. low-effect D. adverse-dose E. effective-dose Answer: B Section: Studying toxic substances Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 37. The highest dose at which no adverse effect is seen is called the _______________________.

A. lethal dose 50 B. dose-response effect C. lowest observed adverse effect level

D. no observed adverse effect level E. highest observed adverse effect level Answer: D Section: Studying toxic substances Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 38. What kind of studies were conducted by Hanna-Attisha and Edwards that correlated lead levels in water with lead levels in children?

A. toxicological B. biomagnifying C. epidemiological D. demographical E. environmental Answer: C Section: Studying toxic substances Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 39. Why is the allowable limit of lead in drinking water set at 15 ppb if researchers have concluded there is no acceptable level of lead that should be allowed in drinking water?

FEEDBACK: It is not economically feasible or physically possible to eliminate all lead from the water supply, since it is a naturally occurring chemical and pervasive due to centuries of industrial use.

Section: Studying toxic substances Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 40. Refer to Infographic 4 below. Describe how a dose-response curve helps determine a safe dose.

FEEDBACK: Scientists use a dose-response curve to calculate the NOAEL (no observed adverse effect level), the highest dose at which there is no adverse effect. They set a safe dose at 100 to 1,000 times lower than the NOAEL. Section: Studying toxic substances Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 41. Epidemiological studies show an association between serious cognitive deficits and children exposed to lead in drinking water, in paint chips, and/or in the air they breathe.

Design an in vivo (manipulative) experiment using lab animals as a model for humans to show a cause-and-effect relationship between lead and cognitive deficits.

FEEDBACK: Divide the mice into test groups. One group will not receive any lead to act as a control. Each of the other groups receives an increasing concentration of lead. Over time, measure the incidence of cognitive deficits in all animals. Determine if there is support for a cause-and-effect relationship between lead and cognitive deficits in these animals.

Section: Studying toxic substances Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Creating Guiding Question 5 How are toxic substances regulated in the United States?

Multiple Choice 42. In risk assessment, why is it not possible to carefully weigh all of the risks and benefits associated with a new chemical?

A. insufficient funding B. not enough people power available C. unknown synergistic interactions with other chemicals D. the need for the chemical to be available immediately E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: Regulating toxic substances Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 43. What is the rule of thumb that calls for leaving a safety margin when the data about a particular substance’s potential for harm are uncertain, and when the substance may cause unexpected or unpredictable effects?

A. innocent until proven guilty B. guilty until proven innocent C. the precautionary principle D. do no harm E. risk assessment Answer: C

Section: Regulating toxic substances Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 44. Carefully weighing the risks and benefits associated with any chemical is known as _______.

A. innocent until proven guilty B. guilty until proven innocent C. the precautionary principle D. do no harm E. risk assessment Answer: E Section: Regulating toxic substances Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 45. Based on the precautionary principle, what is TRUE? A. Regulators make educated guesses about safety based on how other similar compounds have fared.

B. Toxic products are often discovered only after they reach the marketplace.

C. Typically, many consumers are harmed by chemicals that reach consumers.

D. Products are recalled after they are shown to be harming consumers.

E. Harmful products are prevented from reaching store shelves.

Answer: E Section: Regulating toxic substances Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 46. What federal law regulates chemical safety in the United States?

A. Safe Drinking Water Act B. Toxic Chemical Act C. Hazardous Waste Act D. Toxic Substances Control Act E. Dangerous Chemical Act Answer: D Section: Regulating toxic substances Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 47. Under the Lautenberg Act, who has to show a chemical is safe before it receives approval to go on the market?

A. the manufacturers of the chemical B. the public C. medical doctors D. the EPA E. the media

Answer: A Section: Regulating toxic substances Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 48. A new drug has been developed to inhibit the replication of HIV, the retrovirus that causes AIDS. In studies using mice as a model organism, the drug showed amazing results: 60% of infected mice who received the drug did not go on to develop AIDS. This drug has the potential to help eradicate AIDS in humans, but it is unknown what possible side effects exist. As an FDA regulator, what would you see as the pros and cons of applying the precautionary principle to this new drug?

FEEDBACK: The precautionary principle calls for leaving a safety margin when the data about a particular substance’s potential harm are uncertain and when the substance may cause unexpected or unpredictable effects. In this case, the danger of unexpected side effects to patients must be balanced with the dire need to lessen the AIDS epidemic, which is estimated to kill 2 million globally each year.

Section: Regulating toxic substances Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying/Analyzing 49. A new drug has been successful in alleviating nausea in cancer patients undergoing chemotherapy. Many women also experience intense nausea at certain stages of pregnancy. First, as an FDA regulator, apply the precautionary principle to this new drug and describe what criteria must be met before it is made available to expectant mothers.

Second, as a representative of the drug company who manufactures the drug, apply the innocent until proven guilty approach to argue why this drug is likely safe and should be made available to all who need it.

FEEDBACK: The potential for unexpected effects of a new drug is increased with pregnancy, as it may pass through the placenta and harm fetal growth. Thus, information regarding the drug’s ability to reach the fetus must be taken into account. Industry will tend to argue that most of their products are safe and must enter the market in order to benefit people and generate revenue for the company that invested in the research and development of the product.

Section: Regulating toxic substances Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating 50. A chain-smoking friend says that there is no way she’s ever going to fly in a plane because she’s terrified the plane will crash. What information sources could you provide your friend regarding the relative safety of flying and the dangers of smoking?

FEEDBACK: Reliable sources for aviation safety (from the FAA, for example) will demonstrate to your friend that flying is actually one of the safest forms of transportation.

In the mass media, an airplane crash will be reported, but all of the flights that land safely are not reported. Scientific epidemiological studies will show the friend the strong

correlation between smoking and lung cancer. It seems to be human nature to perceive higher risk from activities that we have no control over (for example, flying) compared with those that we do (for example, smoking).

Section: Regulating toxic substances Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Applying/Analyzing Guiding Question 6 What is information literacy, and why is it important in environmental science?

Multiple Choice 51. The ability to distinguish between reliable and unreliable sources of information is called information__________.

A. decoding B. literacy C. reasoning D. deduction E. analysis Answer: B Section: Information literacy: Evaluating information sources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 52. Papers that are published in scientific journals are examples of ______ sources.

A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. review E. report Answer: A Section: Information literacy: Evaluating information sources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 53. During the peer-review process, what criteria do reviewers look for in papers to determine if the papers will be accepted or rejected?

A. quality of the design B. quality of the data C. statistical analysis D. soundness of conclusion E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: Information literacy: Evaluating information sources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

54. Textbooks are examples of ________ sources.

A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. review E. report Answer: B Section: Information literacy: Evaluating information sources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 55. Blogs, websites, and news shows that provide additional commentary on reports from the popular press are considered ________ sources.

A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. review E. report Answer: C Section: Information literacy: Evaluating information sources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 56. Which type of source is the most likely to perpetuate errors that have previously appeared?

A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. review E. report Answer: C Section: Information literacy: Evaluating information sources Level: 1/2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 57. Which of the following information sources is peer reviewed?

A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. review E. report Answer: A Section: Information literacy: Evaluating information sources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

Essay 58. Explain the differences between primary, secondary, and tertiary sources of information. Provide an example of each type.

FEEDBACK: Primary sources present new and original data or information, including novel scientific experiments and first-hand accounts of any given observation. An example would be a peer-reviewed journal article. Secondary sources come from reputable sources and present and interpret information from primary sources. An example would be a textbook on environmental science. Tertiary sources are those that present and interpret information from secondary sources. Tertiary sources may be accurate; however, they may introduce errors because they do not rely on primary source for facts. Many blogs, websites, and even news shows are examples.

Section: Information literacy: Evaluating information sources Level: 1/2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 59. What is information literacy, and why is it important in cases like that of BPA? FEEDBACK: Information literacy is the ability to distinguish between reliable and unreliable sources. It is the ability to find and evaluate the quality of information in order to be able to then draw reasonable, evidence-based conclusions about an issue or topic. It is especially important in the case of BPA, where misinformation or biased reports can create panic (or false security) in the public who are concerned about the effects of BPA, particularly in products for babies.

Section: Information literacy: Evaluating information sources Level: 1/2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 60. A student is assigned a research paper looking at the effects of CFCs on the ozone layer. The student gathers information by looking at blogs, websites, and news shows that summarize recent magazine and newspaper articles written on this topic. What type of information source is the student using, and what if any problems are associated with this type of source?

FEEDBACK: The student is using tertiary sources to investigate the effects of CFCs on the ozone layer. Tertiary sources may contain errors because they do not rely on original sources for facts. Tertiary sources may also perpetuate any errors that have appeared in secondary sources.

Section: Information literacy: Evaluating information sources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding/Applying 61. Jenny McCarthy has a son with autism, which she believes was directly caused by childhood vaccinations he received. She has drawn attention to this anecdotal evidence in numerous magazine and newspaper articles. Her appearance on the Oprah Winfrey Show caused parents across the nation to question whether they should immunize their children.

In fact, several diseases that had been controlled in the United States have recently reappeared as more children now go unvaccinated. Meanwhile, no peer-reviewed

scientific study to date has shown a correlation between the immunizations and autism.

Your spouse recently asked you for your opinion as to whether or not your child should be vaccinated. Explain to him or her the difference between primary, secondary, and tertiary sources in this example and which should carry more weight in making an informed decision. What other information would you want to know in order to form an opinion?

FEEDBACK: Peer-reviewed scientific reports are primary sources of information. These reports are objective, avoid bias, and should be used to make informed decisions. The public is often unaware of these studies because they are not readily available and often contain jargon that can be hard to understand. The public is more likely to form opinions based on secondary or tertiary sources (for example, magazine articles or television shows) that can be susceptible to bias and agendas that can obscure the actual information. These studies are therefore not ideal for making informed decisions. In forming an opinion on this matter, you might be interested in learning more about how studies were carried out (for example, how many people were included in the study and which vaccinations were tested).

Section: Information literacy: Evaluating information sources Level: 2/3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating 62. Your uncle Barney goes with you to the gas station to fuel up your car. He strongly indicates his disapproval of ethanol-blended gasoline. His good friend used ethanol fuel once and it “killed his engine.” He went on to add that his friend’s fuel efficiency (miles per gallon) was at least 30% worse when using gasoline with the additive. Use critical thinking skills to assess Uncle Barney’s input. What additional information do you need in order to decide which fuel to use in your vehicle?

FEEDBACK: The input from Barney is anecdotal. It is likely that something else may have been wrong with his friend’s car, or it may have not been approved to use flex fuels.

You should consult reliable sources to investigate if ethanol can be used in your fuel tank and what the expected mpg with or without ethanol blending is. You might also be interested in researching the level of emissions generated by your car with each fuel type.

In addition, you might wish to consider how much energy was required to make the ethanol and if that is enough to offset potential benefits of burning a cleaner fuel.

Section: Information literacy: Evaluating information sources Level: 2/3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating Guiding Question 7 What is critical thinking, and how can it counter logical fallacies used in arguments?

Multiple Choice 63. Which of the following are components of a critical thinker’s skill set?

A. be skeptical B. evaluate the evidence C. be open minded D. watch out for biases

E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: Information literacy: Critical thinking and logical fallacies Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 64. Which of the following is NOT a part of critical thinking?

A. logically assessing and reflecting on information B. reaching one’s own conclusion based on evidence C. uncovering and rejecting logical fallacies in arguments or claims D. refusing to believe anything E. avoiding bias Answer: D Section: Information literacy: Critical thinking and logical fallacies Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 65. Consumer groups called for a ban on BPA, a chemical known to be an endocrine disruptor, suggesting that financial interests from companies that profit from BPA-made products cause them to suppress data that might show BPA to be harmful. Which common logical fallacy is at work here?

A. appeal to authority B. false dichotomy C. appeal to ignorance D. ad hominem attack E. hasty generalization Answer: D Section: Information literacy: Critical thinking and logical fallacies Level: 1/2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 66. Which common logical fallacy draws a broad conclusion based on too little evidence?

A. appeal to authority B. false dichotomy C. appeal to ignorance D. ad hominem attack E. hasty generalization Answer: E Section: Information literacy: Critical thinking and logical fallacies Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 67. Which common logical fallacy presents extraneous information that does not directly support the claim but that might confuse the reader/listener?

A. red herring B. false dichotomy

C. appeal to ignorance D. ad hominem attack E. hasty generalization Answer: A Section: Information literacy: Critical thinking and logical fallacies Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 68. Which common logical fallacy is used when claiming there is no way to know the effect of lead, since humans are exposed to so many toxins; thus, we should do nothing about the use of lead?

A. red herring B. false dichotomy C. appeal to ignorance D. ad hominem attack E. hasty generalization Answer: C Section: Information literacy: Critical thinking and logical fallacies Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 69. Which common logical fallacy is an argument that sets up an either/or choice that is not valid?

A. red herring B. false dichotomy C. appeal to ignorance D. ad hominem attack E. hasty generalization Answer: B Section: Information literacy: Critical thinking and logical fallacies Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 70. The claims that a chemical either must be completely avoided or it is totally safe for everyone are which type of common logical fallacy?

A. hasty generalization B. red herring C. ad hominem attack D. false dichotomy E. appeal to ignorance Answer: D Section: Information literacy: Critical thinking and logical fallacies Level: 1/2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Essay

71. Describe what it means to be a critical thinker. List four measures that should be included in a critical thinker’s skill set.

FEEDBACK: Critical thinkers have skills that enable them to logically assess the information they find, reflect on that information, and reach their own conclusions. The relevant skills include being skeptical, evaluating the evidence, being open minded, and watching out for biases.

Section: Information literacy: Critical thinking and logical fallacies Level: 1/2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 72. Refer to Infographic 7. Which logical fallacies listed in the figure are used to sway the reader in the following example? The proposed Keystone pipeline from Canada to refineries in the Gulf is not safe and should be opposed. The British Petroleum (BP) Deepwater Horizon oil spill wreaked havoc even while top oil executives made recordbreaking profits.

FEEDBACK: Red herring. Information regarding the offshore drilling oil spill does not tell us anything about the safety of the proposed pipeline, but it may confuse readers into

thinking all oil projects must result in catastrophes. Ad hominem attack. The fact that oil executives made record profits may upset the reader, but it does not have anything to do with the safety of the project.

Section: Information literacy: Critical thinking and logical fallacies Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 73. Refer to Infographic 7. Which logical fallacies listed in the figure are used to sway the reader in the following example? Marijuana should be the preferred treatment for glaucoma. It is effective and safe, as it is a naturally occurring plant. The only reason it is not used more is government opposition.

FEEDBACK: False dichotomy. It omits data that other treatments (eye drops) work just as well or better without the side effects. Hasty generalization. Some naturally occurring plants can be harmful. Ad hominem attack. Government opposition to legalization does not inform the reader as to whether the product is safe or effective.

Section: Information literacy: Critical thinking and logical fallacies Level: 2

Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 74. Refer to Infographic 7. Which logical fallacies listed in the figure are used to sway the reader in the following example? Genetically modified (GM) foods do not pose a safety concern and should not be labeled. We would need to label the majority of food products available today, since most already contain GM products. By including GM crops in agriculture, we have been able to greatly increase yields and feed more people. If GM foods were dangerous, we would have seen the effects already in the population.

FEEDBACK: Red herring. The fact that it would be overwhelming to label all GM products does not have anything to do with safety. Ad hominem attack against regulators.

False dichotomy. It is not an either/or choice to have GM foods or not have food security.

Hasty generalization. Not enough time has passed to know if GM foods have longer-term effects. Appeal to ignorance. GM foods are already in so many food items and there are so many chemicals in our environment that we are not capable of understanding such a big situation.

Section: Information literacy: Critical thinking and logical fallacies Level: 2

Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 75. A lobbyist for the oil and gas industry points out that as the global temperature rises, the level of carbon dioxide increases in the atmosphere; he shows you ice-core evidence of this occurring after an ice age. He goes on to say that since rising temperatures lead to increased levels of carbon dioxide, and not vice versa, we shouldn’t worry about current rising levels of carbon dioxide because it shouldn’t affect temperature in the future. As a critical thinker, what do you notice here?

FEEDBACK: Watch out for biases. A lobbyist for the oil and gas industry wants to promote the sale and combustion of fossil fuels such as oil and coal. Caps on carbon dioxide emissions would harm the industry; there could be an agenda here. Let’s also evaluate the evidence. It is true that an increase in temperature causes an increase in carbon dioxide, but there is an important omission of data. An increase in carbon dioxide also leads to an increase in temperature (the greenhouse effect). This is a false dichotomy (argument sets up an either/or choice that is not valid). The relationship between temperature and carbon dioxide is complicated, and it works both ways.

Section: Information literacy: Critical thinking and logical fallacies Level: 2/3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating

Matching Questions Match each term in the left-hand column to the statement that it best exemplifies.

1. solubility 2. persistence

3. bioaccumulation 4. biomagnification

5. environmental justice 6. information literacy 7. acute effect 8. synergistic effects 9. NOAEL (no observed adverse effect level) 10. additive effects 11. chronic effect 12. peer review 13. toxic substance/toxic

information source that presents original data or first-hand information (*19) a rule of thumb that calls for leaving a safety margin when the data about a particular substance’s potential for harm are uncertain and when the substance may cause unexpected or unpredictable effects (*17) federal law that protects drinking water by setting standards for water quality that must be met (*23) a process by which researchers submit a report of their work to outside experts who evaluate the study’s design and results to determine if it is of a high enough quality to publish (*12) the federal agency responsible for setting policy and enforcing U.S. environmental laws (*15) the primary federal law governing chemical safety (*24) ability of a toxin to dissolve in gas or liquid, particularly water (*1) adverse reaction that happens only after repeated long-term exposure to low doses of a toxic substance (*11) the dose size required for a chemical to cause harm (*22) buildup of fat-soluble substances in the tissue of an organism over the course of its lifetime (*3) a substance that causes damage when it contacts, or enters, the body (*13) the concept that access to a clean, healthy environment is a basic human right (*5) skills that enable individuals to logically assess information, reflect on that information, and reach their own conclusions (*27)

14. LOAEL (lowest observed adverse effect level) 15. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)

adverse reaction that occurs very rapidly after exposure to a toxic substance has occurred (*7) arguments that attempt to sway the reader without using reasonable evidence (*16) 16. logical fallacies time required for a substance to break down in the environment (*2) 17. precautionary principle a graph of the effects of a substance at different concentrations or levels of exposures (*25) 18. secondary source the increased levels of fat-soluble substances in the tissue of predatory animals that have consumed organisms that have taken up toxins (*4) 19. primary source the dose of a substance that would kill 50% of the test population (*26) 20. tertiary source information source that uses information from at least one secondary source (*20) 21. antagonistic effects exposure to two or more chemicals has a lesser effect than the sum of their individual effects would predict (*21) 22. potency exposure to two or more chemicals has a greater effect than the sum of their individual effects would predict (*8) 23. Safe Water Drinking information source that presents and interpret information Act (SWDA) solely from primary sources (*18) 24. Toxic Substances exposure to two or more chemicals has an effect equivalent Control Act (TSCA) to the sum of their individual effects (*10) 25. dose-response curve the ability to find and evaluate the quality of information (*6) 26. LD50 (lethal dose 50%) the lowest dose where an adverse effect was first seen (*14) 27. critical thinking the highest dose where no adverse effect is seen (*9) Linked Questions Science Literacy Une Infographic 3 below to answer the next five questions.

1. The effects of lead on dopamine in mice show a(n) ___________________.

A. decrease of 40% B. decrease of 17% C. increase of 40% D. increase of 35% Answer: A Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 2. When human cells are exposed to both thimerosal and aluminum hydroxide, neuron death rises to 60%, as compared to 10% with thimerosal alone and 7% with aluminum hydroxide alone. Which effect occurs when these chemicals interact?

A. antagonistic B. additive C. synergistic Answer: C Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 3. What is the chemical interaction and effect of decrease in enzyme activity when both lead and cadmium are given to rats?

A. antagonistic effect causing a 35% decrease in enzyme activity B. additive effect causing a 35% decrease in enzyme activity C. synergistic effect causing a 25% decrease in enzyme activity D. antagonistic effect causing a 25% decrease in enzyme activity Answer: B Section: Science literacy Level: 2

Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 4. When both lead and arsenic are given to mice, dopamine decreases by ______.

A. 40% B. 20% C. 25% D. 17% Answer: C Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 5. An antagonistic effect is seen when ____________________.

A. human cells are exposed to both thimerosal and aluminum hydroxide B. rats are given both lead and cadmium C. mice are given both lead and arsenic Answer: C Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Making Connections Use the following scenario to answer the next five questions.

Chemical X was used widely in the United States as an insecticide for many years.

Eventually, research showed chemical X was a persistent chemical that bioaccumulated and biomagnified in the environment. The chemical was later banned from use in the United States.

1. Chemical X was used to kill insects but was found to also affect birds by disrupting biochemical processes. This chemical is a(n) ________________.

A. carcinogen B. endocrine disruptor C. teratogen D. poison Answer: D Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 2. Chemical X was found to biomagnify in the environment. Below is part of a food chain. In which organism would the highest concentration of chemical X be found? zooplankton → sardines → herring → tuna → dolphin

A. zooplankton B. sardines C. herring D. tuna E. dolphins Answer: E Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 3. Researchers found that when chemical X came into contact with chemical Y, the toxic effects on fish increased. Chemical X alone causes 10% mortality, and chemical Y alone causes 7% mortality. When they are combined, there is 35% mortality. These chemicals are interacting by _____________ effects.

A. additive B. synergistic C. antagonistic Answer: B Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 4. You are writing a report on the history of chemical X in the United States. Your instructor says that all sources used for your report must be primary sources. Which of the following would you choose?

A. an interview with the scientist who created chemical X B. a textbook from an environmental toxicity class C. a news website story about chemical X D. an original research article in a scientific journal about the effects of chemical X Answer: D Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 5. In your research, you find a website stating that since chemical X was found to be dangerous to birds, all chemical insecticides should be banned, since none of them are safe. This argument is which type of logical fallacy?

A. appeal to ignorance B. false dichotomy C. red herring D. ad hominem attack Answer: B Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

MODULE 2.1 Guiding Question 1 What is the hierarchy of organization recognized by ecologists, and why might it be useful to recognize such distinctions?

Multiple Choice 1. Which choice represents the correct hierarchy of organization from largest to smallest?

A. biome → biosphere → community → ecosystem → population → individual B. biosphere → biome → ecosystem → community → population → individual C. ecosystem → population → individual → community → biosphere → biome D. individual → community → population → ecosystem → biome → biosphere Answer: B Section: The Ecological Hierarchy: From Biosphere to Individual Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 2. A coral reef community may include all of the following EXCEPT _______.

A. water B. fish C. aquatic plants D. phytoplankton Answer: A Section: The Ecological Hierarchy: From Biosphere to Individual Level: 1/2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 3. The specific role a species plays in its community is its ___________.

A. habitat B. community C. niche D. physical environment E. address Answer: C Section: The Ecological Hierarchy: From Biosphere to Individual Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 4. Which of the following choices includes all of the others?

A. community B. biome C. biosphere D. ecosystem E. population Answer: C Section: The Ecological Hierarchy: From Biosphere to Individual

Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 5. All of the populations living and interacting in an area is known as a(n) ________.

A. species B. population C. ecosystem D. community E. biome Answer: D Section: The Ecological Hierarchy: From Biosphere to Individual Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 6. Which of the following could be defined as an ecosystem?

A. the Mojave Desert B. a tide pool C. a coral reef D. a forest E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: E Section: The Ecological Hierarchy: From Biosphere to Individual Level: 1/2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 7. Which factors must be considered to create an ecosystem?

A. limiting factors, such as organic matter B. animals and plants C. abiotic factors, such as streams and soil D. all of the above E. none of the above Answer: D Section: The Ecological Hierarchy: From Biosphere to Individual Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 8. A group of individuals of the same species living and interacting in the same region is a(n) ____________.

A. community B. population C. cohort D. biome E. ecosystem Answer: B Section: The Ecological Hierarchy: From Biosphere to Individual Level:1

Bloom’s Level: Remembering 9. An organism’s habitat can be considered its _________, while its niche can be viewed as its ___________.

A. address; profession B. profession; address C. place where it reproduces; place where it lives D. life requirements; physical environment E. role in a community; energy source Answer: A Section: The Ecological Hierarchy: From Biosphere to Individual Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 10. Which type of scientist best matches the area he or she would study?

A. botanist—various ecosystems within a tundra biome B. ecologist—individual animals or plants C. zoologist—plant community in a tropical rainforest D. ecologist—ecosystems and the interactions between organisms and their surroundings Answer: D Section: The Ecological Hierarchy: From Biosphere to Individual Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 11. Learning how ecosystems function can help ______________.

A. us protect current ecosystems B. us restore already damaged ecosystems C. scientists learn about the complexities of biomes D. humans and other species continue to live and thrive on Earth E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: The Ecological Hierarchy: From Biosphere to Individual Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 12. All of the following can be found in the biosphere EXCEPT ________.

A. the ozone layer B. soil C. fish D. rocks E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: A Section: The Ecological Hierarchy: From Biosphere to Individual Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

13. Which would be considered to be a part of a lake ecosystem?

A. fish B. minerals C. water D. rocks E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: E Section: The Ecological Hierarchy: From Biosphere to Individual Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 14. Refer to Infographic 1. Use the infographic to describe examples of considerations scientists had to take into account when planning Biosphere 2.

FEEDBACK: For each biome, scientists needed to consider how diverse plant and animal species would interact within and across biomes. In addition, they needed to examine the

nutrient requirements of each organism included. Termites, for example, would need enough dead wood at the start of the experiment to sustain them until some of the larger plants died. If termites died, organisms in the soil would not get enough oxygen because termites stir up the soil and allow air to penetrate soil particles. Hummingbirds need nectar-filled flowers. Scientists needed to calculate how many such flowers would be required to support a hummingbird population.

Section: The ecological hierarchy: from biosphere to individual Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating 15. Why is it difficult or impossible for ecologists to study the biosphere as a whole?

Why is it useful to break down the biosphere into sections such as ecosystems, communities, and populations?

FEEDBACK: The biosphere, or Earth, is made up of many complex ecosystems. Within each ecosystem lie further complexities in the types of abiotic and biotic components interacting within that ecosystem. The complexities exist beyond the ecosystem level and into the community, population, and even the individual level. In short, the biosphere is typically just too complex to know what effect a certain factor has on the system as a whole. However, ecologists are still able to make inferences about what is happening in the biosphere by studying its components. By breaking down the biosphere into more manageable research studies, focusing on a particular community within an ecosystem or a population within that community, for example, ecologists can collect data and make predictions of what their results mean for the biosphere as a whole. That is not to say that these “smaller” studies are any less complex and don’t come with the same challenges as studying the biosphere as a whole, yet these studies offer a better chance at understanding what is going on in the world around us.

Section: The ecological hierarchy: from biosphere to individual Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating

Guiding Question 2 Why do ecosystems need a constant input of energy yet can handle the fact that they do not receive appreciable new inputs of matter?

Multiple Choice 16. On Earth, all ecosystems function through two fundamental processes, nutrient cycling and energy flow. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Nutrient cycling is considered an open process.

B. Energy flow is considered an open process.

C. Both nutrient cycling and energy flow are open processes.

D. Neither nutrient cycling nor energy flow are open processes.

E. Neither nutrient nor energy processes are important for ecosystem functioning.

Answer: B Section: Energy and matter in ecosystems Level: 1

Bloom’s Level: Understanding 17. What is biomass?

A. the total weight of the Earth B. all nonliving components of an ecosystem C. the resulting mass of nutrients after a portion has left the system D. all organic material that makes up an ecosystem E. all organic material in an ecosystem minus the energy lost in production Answer: D Section: Energy and matter in ecosystems Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

18. Energy can leave a system in which form?

A. heat B. matter C. nutrients D. biomass E. chemicals Answer: A Section: Energy and matter in ecosystems Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 19. A plant harnessing solar energy from the Sun is an example of which of the following?

A. nutrient cycling B. community interactions C. energy flow D. biomass E. terrestrial radiation Answer: C Section: Energy and matter in ecosystems Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 20. A bear eating a fish is an example of which of the following?

A. nutrient cycling B. energy flow C. solar radiation D. both nutrient cycling and energy flow E. both energy flow and solar radiation Answer: D Section: Energy and matter in ecosystems Level: 2

Bloom’s Level: Understanding/Applying 21. Why do ecologists say that Earth is a closed system for matter?

A. because there are no new inputs of matter B. because there is no net loss of matter C. because matter cycles in and out of organisms in ecosystems D. because matter stays in the biosphere E. All of the answer choices are correct.

Answer: E Section: Energy and matter in ecosystems Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 22. Consider the following scenario: A plant grows in the soil and is eventually eaten by a rabbit. The rabbit is eaten by a hawk. The hawk becomes ill, dies, and falls to the ground. Fungi and bacteria decompose the hawk. How is this scenario an example of both matter cycling and energy flow?

FEEDBACK: The scenario is an example of matter cycling because the plant is gaining nutrients from the soil, water, and air. The rabbit harvests these nutrients when it eats the plant. In turn, the hawk harvests these nutrients when it eats the rabbit. When the hawk dies, these nutrients are harvested by the fungi and bacteria and returned to the soil, where another plant can now use them. It is a cycle because no new nutrients are entering the system; they are getting transferred up and down the food chain from organism to organism. The scenario is also an example of energy flow, since energy from the Sun, in the form of photons, is harvested by the plant and used to produce nutrients. In this production, some of the energy is lost as heat. When the rabbit eats the plant, the energy gained through the consumption of nutrients powers the rabbit’s functions. Again, in the process of eating the plant and converting the nutrients into useable energy, some energy is lost, mainly as heat. This process of conversion and loss repeats itself in the remaining steps of the scenario, until eventually there is no energy remaining. Energy is considered to flow through an ecosystem, and in this scenario, the energy does not get cycled back into the ecosystem. Rather it is lost and must be continually replaced. Think of matter cycling as a round-trip ticket, while energy flow is only a one-way ticket.

Section: Energy and matter in ecosystems Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating 23. If no new matter enters the system, how can Earth continue to exist?

FEEDBACK: Since Earth is a closed system for matter—that is, no new matter comes in—the matter that is present must be cycled through the ecosystems and used again and again. This manifests when you look at food webs of one organism eating another, passing nutrients and matter between them. This is why waste is not present in natural, nonhuman ecosystems; every molecule of an animal or plant is used by members of the ecosystem, and there is nothing left to be considered waste. This is why Earth continues

to exist as a closed system for matter; it does not need new inputs of matter, since the ecosystems continually use and reuse what is already there.

Section: Energy and matter in ecosystems Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Guiding Question 3 How do environmental factors affect the distribution and makeup of biomes?

Multiple Choice 24. Which is NOT an example of a terrestrial biome?

A. a temperate forest B. an open ocean C. a Mediterranean scrub D. a savanna E. a desert Answer: B Section: Biomes Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 25. The biome that contains the least amount of moisture is a __________.

A. savanna B. temperate grassland C. mountain D. temperate forest E. tropical scrub Answer: E Section: Biomes Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

26. Which biome would have the lowest mean annual temperature and the lowest mean annual precipitation?

A. a boreal forest B. a desert C. a temperate grassland D. a tundra E. a savannah Answer: D Section: Biomes Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 27. Which of the following does NOT characterize a particular biome?

A. distinct climate B. dominant vegetation C. temperature D. precipitation E. size Answer: E Section: Biomes Level: 1/2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding/Applying 28. Which biome has abundant biodiversity, with warm temperatures and a great deal of rain?

A. tundra B. temperate forest C. savanna D. tropical rainforest E. boreal forest Answer: D Section: Biomes Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 29. What is a biome? What are the major factors that distinguish one biome from another?

FEEDBACK: A biome is one of many distinctive types of ecosystems determined by climate and identified by the predominant vegetation and organisms that have adapted to live there. Biomes are specific types of terrestrial ecosystems with characteristic temperature and precipitation conditions that exert great influence on the communities that exist there.

Section: Biomes Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding/Applying 30. Refer to Infographic 3. From the infographic, which type of biome is mostly found 30° north or south of the equator? What conditions exist there?

FEEDBACK: Dry areas exist at those latitudes due to global air circulation patterns. The desert biome is mostly found there.

Section: Biomes Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding/Applying 31. Describe two abiotic factors that influence the distribution and makeup of biomes and how they do this.

FEEDBACK: Two abiotic factors that influence the distribution and makeup of biomes are annual precipitation and temperature (refer to Infographic 3). Both precipitation and temperature can affect biomes because they can dictate what kind of organisms live and thrive in the environment (for example, a cactus that has adapted to live in a dry environment would not survive in a rainforest). They can also affect the abiotic aspects of biomes by weathering rock from rainfall, for example, or evaporating water due to intense heat. These two factors help set the stage, so to speak, for how a particular biome looks and functions.

Section: Biomes Level: 2/3 Bloom’s Level: Applying/Analyzing Guiding Question 4 What is a populations’ range of tolerance, and how does it affect the distribution of a population or its ability to adapt to changing conditions?

Multiple Choice 32. Populations that have a _______ range of tolerance and are _______ genetically diverse have a greater chance of surviving a change to their environment.

A. narrow; more B. narrow; less C. broad; more D. broad; less E. small; less Answer: C Section: Range of tolerance and its impact on species distribution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 33. The principal of limiting factors states that the survival, growth, and _______ of a species in an ecosystem are determined by the critical resource in least supply.

A. maturation B. migration C. diversity D. reproduction E. development Answer: D Section: Range of tolerance and its impact on species distribution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 34. The range, within upper and lower limits, of a limiting factor that allows a species to survive and reproduce is called the range of ________.

A. tolerance B. survivability C. adaptation D. living E. life Answer: A Section: Range of tolerance and its impact on species distribution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 35. The zone of __________ is the portion of an environmental gradient within which the species survives, grows, and reproduces the best.

A. intolerance B. tolerance C. optimum range D. physiological stress E. limiting factors Answer: C

Section: Range of tolerance and its impact on species distribution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 36. A(n) _________ factor is the one abiotic or biotic factor whose supply determines the population size of a given species in a given biome.

A. tolerance B. stress C. intolerance D. finite E. limiting Answer: E Section: Range of tolerance and its impact on species distribution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 37. Which of the following could be considered a limiting factor for a species?

A. pH of the soil B. temperature C. level of humidity D. dissolved oxygen levels in water E. All of the choices listed above could be a limiting factor for a species.

Answer: E Section: Range of tolerance and its impact on species distribution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 38. A bait shop wants to sell leeches and performs an experiment to determine the water temperature range of tolerance for them. Which choice best represents this range based on the data shown in this graph?

Effect of Temperature on Leeches 25

Leech Number

20 15 10 5 0 5

10

15

20 25 Temperature (°C)

30

35

40

A. 5°C to 35°C B. 15°C to 30°C C. 15°C to 20°C D. 5°C to 20°C E. 5°C to 25°C Answer: D Section: Range of tolerance and its impact on species distribution Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 39. In the design of Biosphere 2, which environmental variables could be carefully controlled and precisely measured?

A. temperature B. water availability C. proportion of oxygen in the air D. proportion of carbon dioxide in the air E. all of the answer choices are correct Answer: E Section: Range of tolerance and its impact on species distribution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 40. Refer to Infographic 4. For several years, you have been investigating the effects of a warmer climate on a butterfly population. Recently, you have noticed that the butterflies found in what would traditionally be the zone of physiological stress are growing and

breeding more successfully than the butterflies in the zone of optimum range. How do you explain this shift?

FEEDBACK: The butterflies that are found in the zone of physiological stress may have some genetic differences from the main population that allow them to be more tolerant of the warming conditions. As climate conditions change, these butterflies in the zone of physiological stress are better able to survive and reproduce compared to the rest of the population. Over time, this will cause a directional shift of the zone of optimum range toward the original zone of physiological stress. Those individuals that used to make up a smaller percentage of the population will become the new average.

Section: Range of tolerance and its impact on species distribution Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying/Analyzing 41. As you hike up a mountain, you observe that the vegetation changes. What are some of the limiting factors that are determining what vegetation you observe on the mountain?

FEEDBACK: Plants need soil and water to survive. As you move up the mountain, the availability of water, soil composition and fertility, temperature, and amount of wind will all play a role in determining the type and amount of vegetation you will encounter.

Section: Range of tolerance and its impact on species distribution Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 42. Several years ago, you planted a pine tree at the base of a mountain and another on the summit of the mountain. On a recent hike, you photographed each tree. Do you expect to see any differences in their appearance? Explain.

FEEDBACK: Yes. The two pine trees would have experienced different environmental conditions during their growth. The pine tree at the base of the mountain may be growing in its zone of optimum range, while the pine tree at the summit may be in its zone of physiological stress. Additionally, a resource required by the tree may be abundant in one location but scarce in the other.

Section: Range of tolerance and its impact on species distribution Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying/Analyzing

43. Refer to the figure below. Describe ways that scientists attempted to design Biosphere 2 to minimize the effects of limiting factors and help keep organisms within their zone of optimum range.

FEEDBACK: Scientists selected a combination of soil, plants, and animals that seemed most capable of working together in balance. A summer-dormant desert was chosen because it would reduce the desert’s carbon dioxide demands when the savanna’s productivity was at its highest. The ocean was situated between the desert and rainforest so that it could serve as a temperature buffer between the two. Each biome was created from a carefully selected array of species to optimize the chances of success.

Section: Range of tolerance and its impact on species distribution Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding/Applying

Guiding Question 5 What role do biotic and abiotic factors play in matter cycles?

Multiple Choice 44. Which of the following is NOT an abiotic factor?

A. rock B. mineral composition of soil C. rainfall D. bacterium Answer: D Section: Matter cycles and sinks

Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 45. The length of time nutrients spend in a sink (or reservoir) is called the ______________ time.

A. sink B. residence C. nutrient travel D. matter cycle E. reservoir Answer: B Section: Matter cycles and sinks Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 46. Nutrient cycles, or biogeochemical cycles, refer to ______________.

A. energy passed from one organism to another B. plants and organic matter entering and leaving the biosphere C. the movement of life’s essential chemicals or nutrients through an ecosystem D. the sharing of nutrients between a parasite and a host Answer: C Section: Matter cycles and sinks Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

Guiding Question 6 How does carbon cycle through ecosystems, how is this cycle being disrupted, and what problems can this disruption cause?

Multiple Choice 47. Which of the following is NOT a way humans disrupt the carbon cycle?

A. deforestation B. using excessive fertilizers C. burning fossil fuels D. burning forests to clear land Answer: B Section: The carbon cycle Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 48. In the carbon cycle, plants release carbon back to the environment through the process of _________.

A. photosynthesis B. cellular respiration C. oxidation

D. transpiration E. evaporation Answer: B Section: The carbon cycle Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 49. In the carbon cycle, photosynthetic organisms use carbon dioxide to produce _________.

A. sugar molecules B. lipid molecules C. protein molecules D. nucleic acids E. protons Answer: C Section: The carbon cycle Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 50. In the carbon cycle, plants remove carbon from the atmosphere through the process of _______.

A. photosynthesis B. cellular respiration C. oxidation D. transpiration E. evaporation Answer: A Section: The carbon cycle Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 51. When an oak tree undergoes photosynthesis, it is essentially __________.

A. adding carbon dioxide to the atmosphere B. removing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere C. adding nitrogen to the atmosphere D. removing nitrogen from the atmosphere E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: B Section: The carbon cycle Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 52. Biosphere 2 helped scientists realize ____________.

A. the complexities of the carbon cycle B. they wasted their money C. humans cannot function without technology

D. ecosystems are simpler than originally thought E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: A Section: The carbon cycle Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 53. Carbon cycles in and out of living things during which process(es)?

A. cellular respiration B. photosynthesis C. decomposition D. both cellular respiration and photosynthesis E. both photosynthesis and decomposition Answer: D Section: The carbon cycle Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 54. How is Biosphere 2 useful today?

A. People still live in the humanmade biosphere.

B. Farmers use it to graze cattle.

C. It allows scientists to study the consequences of high CO2 levels.

D. Biosphere 2 no longer exists.

E. It is used as training for astronauts.

Answer: C Section: The carbon cycle Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 55. How have humans impacted the carbon cycle, and how can humans use nature to address this issue?

FEEDBACK: Humans combust fossil fuels that had been stored underground for millions of years, which releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere. Also, human activity has led to massive deforestation around the world. Producers act as a reservoir or sink for carbon dioxide, taking it out of the atmosphere. These two human activities have led to the highest level of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere in hundreds of thousands of years. To address this, humans need to shift away from fossil fuel energy sources to renewable sources. In addition, by slowing deforestation and increasing the planting of trees, less carbon dioxide will be released into the atmosphere and more will be taken in by plant life.

Section: The carbon cycle Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

56. In terms of the carbon cycle, how is combustion of fossil fuels different from burning biomass (wood) for fuel?

FEEDBACK: Fossil fuels, such as coal, are the result of ancient photosynthesis. Plants millions of years ago took in carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. They died, were buried, and were turned into fossil fuels by temperature, pressure, and time. When we burn coal for energy, the carbon that was stored underground for millions of years is rapidly emitted into the atmosphere. In contrast, biomass sources of fuel, such as wood, are the result of recent photosynthesis. Carbon dioxide that was recently taken in by those living plants is being returned to the atmosphere, so there is little net change.

Section: The carbon cycle Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating 57. Refer to Infographic 6. Describe what limiting factor caused the human population in Biosphere 2 to become so tired they couldn’t work.

FEEDBACK: Sufficient oxygen is required to perform cellular respiration. This is the process organisms use to break down sugar to release its energy. In Biosphere 2, the oxygen levels fell from 21% down to 14%, a level low enough that the human population was unable to convert the food they consumed into usable energy.

Section: The carbon cycle Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question 7 How does nitrogen cycle through ecosystems, how is this cycle being disrupted, and what problems can this disruption cause?

Multiple Choice

58. Denitrifying bacteria convert nitrate into ________, thus returning nitrogen to _________.

A. ammonia; its most stable form B. nitrogen gas; the atmosphere C. proteins; a usable form D. ammonia; its least stable form E. nitrogen gas; the soil Answer: B Section: The nitrogen cycle Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 59. Nitrogen-rich compounds found in animal waste or the remains of dead plants and animals are converted to ___________ by decomposer bacteria.

A. ammonium ions B. protein C. nitrogen gas D. nitrate E. nitrite Answer: A Section: The nitrogen cycle Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 60. Which form of nitrogen can be taken up by plant roots?

A. N2 B. NH2 C. NO4 D. NH3 E. N3 Answer: D Section: The nitrogen cycle Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 61. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the nitrogen cycle?

A. Microbes convert atmospheric N2 to NH3.

B. Lightning converts N2 to NO3.

C. Microbes use NO3 and convert it to N2.

D. Microbes break down organic matter and release NH4.

E. All of these answer choices are true regarding the nitrogen cycle.

Answer: E Section: The nitrogen cycle Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

Essay 63. Certain plants called legumes can fix atmospheric nitrogen thanks to a symbiotic relationship with nitrogen-fixing bacteria associated with their root systems. How does this relationship benefit the plants? How can humans take advantage of this in agriculture?

FEEDBACK: Plants need nitrogen to survive and grow, but they lack the ability to capture nitrogen directly from the atmosphere. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria can change nitrogen gas into a form usable by plants. By having this close relationship with bacteria, the plant has an available source of nitrogen. For humans, this relationship reduces fertilizer costs for growing legumes. Also, in crop rotation, a legume such as soy beans that restores appropriate nitrogen levels to the soil can alternate with a crop such as corn that uses up considerable nitrogen from the soil.

Section: The nitrogen cycle Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating Guiding Question 8 How does phosphorus cycle through ecosystems, how is this cycle being disrupted, and what problems can this disruption cause?

Multiple Choice 64. Which nutrient is found only in solid or liquid form on Earth?

A. carbon B. nitrogen C. phosphorous D. both carbon and nitrogen E. carbon, nitrogen, and phosphorous Answer: C Section: The phosphorus cycle Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 65. Which of the following is NOT a main nutrient cycle?

A. carbon B. nitrogen C. phosphorous D. magnesium E. All of these choices are main nutrient cycles.

Answer: D Section: The phosphorus cycle Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 66. Which nutrient cycle(s) do/does NOT have a phase in the atmosphere?

A. carbon B. nitrogen

C. phosphorous D. both carbon and nitrogen E. both nitrogen and phosphorous Answer: C Section: The phosphorus cycle Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 67. Refer to Infographic 8. Each year a “dead zone” appears in the Gulf of Mexico when oxygen levels in the water drop to levels insufficient to support the fish and shrimp that live there. The drop-in oxygen is due to the decomposition of photosynthetic phytoplankton that grow in huge numbers, die, and sink to the bottom; they are then decomposed by bacteria that use up oxygen in the process. Use the infographic to describe what the limiting factor to phytoplankton normally is and how that factor is removed each spring when rains wash runoff from Midwestern farm fields into rivers that empty into the Gulf. What could be done to help prevent this from occurring?

FEEDBACK: Using technology, humans “fix” more nitrogen from the atmosphere than that which occurs in nature through bacteria and lightning. We apply this artificial fertilizer (nitrogen and phosphorous) on crops to increase yields because they are limiting factors to plant growth. Some of the nutrients run off from fields into rivers that lead to the Gulf of Mexico. The phytoplankton that grow there are also normally limited in their growth by levels of nitrogen. With excess nutrients available, a bloom of growth occurs that leads to formation of the dead zone. This effect could be reduced by applying less

fertilizer to fields and creating buffer strips of vegetation along streams to help filter out nutrients before the runoff reaches the river.

Section: The phosphorus cycle Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating 68. Describe the two main goals of the Biosphere 2 experiment. Was the experiment a success or a failure?

FEEDBACK: The Biosphere 2 experiment had two main goals. First, scientists wanted to demonstrate that an entirely self-contained, humanmade system could sustain life for potential application in Moon or Mars colonization. Second, they hoped to gain a better understanding of Earth’s delicate balance and learn how best to protect it. At the experiment’s end, more than one-third of the flora and fauna had become extinct. Certain species, such as morning glory vines, became invasive. The Biospherians suffered from too little oxygen and limited food supplies. The integrity of the closed-system experiment was compromised when outside air was pumped into the biosphere as well as when food supplies were sneaked in. This result showed that Biosphere 2 was inadequate as a model for life on the Moon. The experiment did succeed in demonstrating that our current lack of knowledge of how ecosystems work prohibits the re-creation of a functional biosphere.

However, it did allow for a controlled study of how increased levels of carbon dioxide affect ecosystems (for example, coral reefs), with application to global climate change.

Section: The phosphorus cycle Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing/Evaluating

Matching Questions Match each term in the left-hand column to the statement that it best exemplifies.

A. habitat

B. limiting factor C. biotic

D. producer

E. biosphere

F. nitrification G. species

H. reservoirs (or sinks)

I. ecosystem

J. consumer

K. niche

L. abiotic M. community

all of the organisms in a given area plus the physical environment in which they interact (I) the role a species plays in its community (K) a continuous series of natural processes by which nitrogen passes from the air to the soil, to organism, and then returns back to the air or soil (U) the critical resource whose supply determines the population size of a given species in a given biome (B) the process by which all organisms break down sugar to release its energy, using oxygen and giving off CO2 as a waste product (S) the physical environment in which individuals of a particular species can be found (A) the range, within upper and lower limits, of a limiting factor that allows a species to survive and reproduce (R) all the individuals of a species that live in the same geographic area and are able to interact and interbreed (N) the movement of carbon through biotic and abiotic parts of an ecosystem; carbon cycles via photosynthesis and cellular respiration as well as in and out of other reservoirs, such as oceans, soil, rock and atmosphere; it is also released by human actions such as the burning of fossil fuels (T) all the populations (plants, animals, and other species) living and interacting in an area (M) a group of plants or animals that have a high degree of similarity and can generally interbreed only among themselves (G) conversion of ammonia to nitrate (NO3–) (F) abiotic or biotic components of the environment that serve as a storage place for cycling nutrients

N. population O. energy flow

P. denitrification Q. biome

R. range of tolerance

S. cellular respiration

T. carbon cycle

U. nitrogen cycle V. nitrogen fixation

W. phosphorous cycle

X. matter cycles

Y. photosynthesis

Z. decomposers

(H) the sum total of all of Earth’s ecosystems (E) conversion of atmospheric nitrogen into a biologically usable form; carried out by bacteria found in soil or via lightening (V) an organism that converts solar energy to chemical energy via photosynthesis (D) the living (organic) components of an ecosystem, such as the plants and animals and their waste (C) an organism that obtains energy and nutrients by feeding on another organism (J) a series of natural processes by which the nutrient phosphorus moves from rock to soil or water, to living organism, and then back to soil (W) movement of life’s essential chemicals or nutrients through an ecosystem (X) conversion of nitrate to molecular nitrogen (N2) (P) the nonliving components of an ecosystem, such as rainfall and mineral composition of the soil (L) the chemical reaction performed by producers that use the energy of the Sun to convert carbon dioxide and water into sugar and oxygen (Y) organisms such as bacteria and fungi that break organic matter all the way down to constituent atoms or molecules in a form that plants can take back up (Z) one of the many distinctive types of ecosystems determined by climate and identified by the predominant vegetation and organisms that have adapted to live there (Q) the one-way passage of energy through an ecosystem (O)

Linked Questions Science Literacy Use the following graph to answer the next 5 questions:

1. Which biome has the greatest range of mean annual temperature?

A. temperate forest B. tundra C. tropical rainforest D. desert Answer: D Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 2. Which biome is found in the cold temperate range?

A. tundra B. boreal forest C. temperate forest D. savannah Answer: B Section: Science literacy Level: 2

Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 3. If the mean annual precipitation in the tropical seasonal forest biome increased by 200 cm while mean annual temperature remained the same, which biome would it turn into?

A. temperate forest B. mediterranean scrub C. tropical rainforest D. It would stay as a tropical seasonal forest.

Answer: C Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 4. The biome that exists across the widest range of mean annual precipitation is the: A. temperate forest B. tundra C. tropical rainforest D. tesert Answer: A Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 5. Which best describes the climate of the tropical scrub biome?

A. drier, warmer B. wetter, warmer C. drier, colder D. wetter, colder Answer: A Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Making Connections Use the following scenario to answer the following 5 questions: You are part of a mission exploring a new planet, Planet Y. You and your team go out to record data and make observations about the planet.

1. If you and your team are interested in identifying the parts of the biosphere with distinct climates and predominant vegetation and organisms adapted to living there, you are interested in identifying the A. populations.

B. communities.

C. ecosystems.

D. biomes.

Answer: D Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 2. Your botanist, Dr. Flowers, is studying plants on Planet Y. She finds out the plants use the same components in photosynthesis to make sugar as Earth plants use. The plants on Planet Y use solar energy and A. carbon dioxide and oxygen.

B. water and oxygen.

C. carbon dioxide and water.

D. carbon and nitrogen.

Answer: C Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 3. Dr. Rock, the scientist studying nutrient cycles, discovers all the nutrients on Plant Y move through the atmosphere. This is different than the nutrient cycles on Earth since the ____ cycle does not move through the atmosphere.

A. nitrogen B. carbon C. water D. phosphorus Answer: D Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 4. The team’s zoologist, Dr. Fish, is examining a small furry mammal like a rabbit. He finds the mammal only eats a certain type of flower, and the supply of the flower determines the population size of the mammal in its ecosystem. The flower would be an example of A. the range of tolerance.

B. a limiting factor.

C. a decomposer.

D. an abiotic component.

Answer: B Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 5. If matter and energy in ecosystems on Plant Y function the same as they do on Earth, which of the following would be true?

A. Matter cycles through the biosphere, and energy can enter and leave the planet.

B. Matter can enter and leave the planet, and energy can cycle through the biosphere.

C. Matter and energy can both cycle through the biosphere.

D. Matter and energy can both enter and leave the planet.

Answer: A Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

Module 2.2 Guiding Question: Population Dynamics What is a population and why do ecologists study them?

Multiple Choice 1. Which of the following are characteristics of a population?

A. all the same species B. interaction between members C. interbreeding D. live in the same geographic area E. all of these answer choices are correct Answer: E Section: Population Dynamics Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 2. The range of a given population is best defined as the geographic area where ______________.

A. the population can be found B. the population used to exist C. one individual of the population is able to travel D. food can be found for the population E. only one species is found Answer: A Section: Population Dynamics Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Guiding Question: Population Distributions What population distributions are seen in nature?

3. Individuals of a population that are spread out irregularly over their environment with no discernable pattern are referred to as living in a _________________ distribution.

A. random B. clumped C. uniform D. irregular E. none of the above Answer: A Section: Population Distributions Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 4. Which of the following terms best describes the population distribution of humans in relation to the biosphere?

A. clumped

B. random C. uniform D. irregular Answer: A Section: Population Distributions Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 5. Which is the rarest form of population distribution naturally found in nature?

A. clumped B. uniform C. random D. irregular Answer: B Section: Population Distributions Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 6. A wind-pollinated species like a dandelion would best fit which form of population distribution?

A. clumped B. uniform C. random D. irregular Answer: C Section: Population Distributions Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Essay 7. Why would a clumped distribution be an advantage for a bee-pollinated plant?

FEEDBACK: The location of patches of appropriate plants would be easier for bees if they were clumped together, and it increases the chance that the correct species’ pollen would be transferred to each plant, leading to successful pollination and the greatest production of seeds.

Section: Population Distributions Level: 2/3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question: Population Size and Density What is the importance of population size and density?

Multiple Choice 8. Population density is best defined as _____________.

A. the location and spacing of individuals with their range B. the number of individuals per unit area

C. individuals found in groups or patches within a habitat D. individuals spread out irregularly over an environment and with no discernable pattern Answer: B Section: Population Size and Density Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 9. The minimum viable population is the _____________.

A. smallest number of individuals that allows the population to survive long term B. smallest number of populations required to make up an ecosystem C. same number of individuals for each population D. smallest area required for a mating ritual E. smallest flock size that would protect against predators Answer: A Section: Population Size and Density Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 10. What is one negative effect of a low-density population?

A. competition for resources B. quick spreading of disease C. inbreeding D. increased fighting Answer: C Section: Population Size and Density Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 11. Which of the following is unlikely to be a factor in determining the minimum viable population for a specific population?

A. fire frequency B. mating rituals C. flocking D. schooling behavior E. foraging Answer: A Section: Population Size and Density Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 12. A population at low density is more likely to _____________.

A. undergo high intraspecific competition B. lose genetic variability C. be randomly distributed D. show rapid rates of disease spread E. adapt to environmental changes

Answer: B Section: Population Size and Density Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 13. All populations eventually reach a maximum number as they experience resistance factors. What is the name of the term describing this maximum size?

A. biotic potential B. carrying capacity C. growth rate D. population density E. population distribution Answer: B Section: Population Size and Density Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 14. Human populations have exceeded the natural carrying capacity of the Earth. Pick the factor(s) that allows us to increase the carrying capacity for humanity.

A. fossil fuel–based agriculture B. advancements in healthcare C. habitat destruction D. biotechnology E. all of these answer choices are correct Answer: E Section: Population Size and Density Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 15. Bacteria that can cause tooth decay undergo boom-and-bust cycles based on the availability of sugars in the mouth for growth. Which of the following is/are a resistance factor(s) affecting the sugar’s carrying capacity?

A. low-sugar food choices B. brushing teeth C. flossing teeth D. dental care E. all of these answer choices are correct Answer: E Section: Population Size and Density Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Essay 16. Why might a minimum viable–population not be an ecologically effective population?

FEEDBACK: A population that is in a minimum viable–population state basically has the smallest number of individuals that would allow a population to survive, persist, and grow. It may not, however, have enough individuals to perform the ecosystem services that the population would normally provide. For example, let’s say you had a barn full of mice that were eating your supply of grain. If you had two cats (of opposite sex), they would likely be a minimum viable population, as they would be able to reproduce and grow their numbers, but they might not be effective at getting rid of all the mice in the barn. If you had a larger population of cats, it would be more likely that they would be able to keep the population of mice under control.

Section: Population Size and Density Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

Guiding Question: Exponential Growth What is exponential growth and when does it occur?

Multiple Choice 17. Subtracting the death rate from the birth rate gives the _____________.

A. biotic potential B. carrying capacity C. logistic growth D. population growth rate E. exponential growth Answer: D Section: Exponential Growth Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

18. Germany currently has a negative growth rate for people. Which of the following statements is true about this population?

A. birth rate > death rate B. death rate > birth rate C. birth rate = death rate D. Choices A and C could be true.

Answer: B Section: Exponential Growth Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 19. Predators, competitors, and diseases are all examples of _____________.

A. limiting factors B. density-independent factors C. resistance factors D. logistic factors

E. population growth factors Answer: C Section: Exponential Growth Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 20. ________ population(s) is/are more susceptible to the effects of predation.

A. A small B. A large C. Neither small nor large D. Both small and large E. A minimum viable Answer: B Section: Exponential Growth Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 21. Bighorn sheep were introduced to an island in the Gulf of California in 2010.

Originally, 75 bighorns were introduced. When a census was taken in 2011, there were 100 bighorns found. What is the growth rate of the bighorns on the island?

A. 33% B. 3% C. 25% D. 4% E. 10% Answer: A Section: Exponential Growth Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 22. The biotic potential (r) of a population occurs when _____________.

A. the birth rate equals 100 B. the death rate equals 0 C. there are no environmental limits to survival or reproduction D. both the birth rate equals 100 and the death rate equals 0 Answer: C Section: Exponential Growth Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 23. The term that describes a population growing at its biotic potential is ________________.

A. exponential growth B. logistic growth C. carrying capacity D. birth rate < death rate

E. birth rate = death rate Answer: A Section: Exponential Growth Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 24. Which of the following influences population size?

A. access to food B. presence of predators C. sufficient habitat D. presence of pathogens E. all of these answer choices are correct Answer: E Section: Exponential Growth Level:1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 25. Deer mice have a high biotic potential. Therefore, they have a ______________.

A. high birth rate and high death rate B. high birth rate and low death rate C. low birth rate and high death rate D. low birth rate and low death rate E. none of the answer choices are correct Answer: B Section: Exponential Growth Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

Essay 26. Why is it ultimately better for a population to have some resistance factors (that is, factors that reduce a population’s size)?

FEEDBACK: There are many drawbacks for a population that becomes too large. There may not be enough food, shelter, or water for all the members; there may be increased competition and fighting for mates; and in dense populations, disease can quickly spread.

So, contrary to what you may think, it is actually better for most populations to have predators, or limited resources or other resistance factors, since the population will ultimately be healthier and more likely to persist.

Section: Exponential Growth Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 27. Several decades ago, around 24 rabbits were introduced into the wild of Australia, a country with no native rabbit population, mild winters, and large rabbit-friendly food supplies. Where do you think the rabbit population is today, and was it a big deal that only 24 rabbits were released?

FEEDBACK: Due to a combination of factors such as the high fecundity of rabbits, large suitable habitats, long reproductive seasons (due to mild winters), and large and stable food supplies, the exponential growth of the rabbit population in Australia has been one of the most rapid expansions of a mammal ever documented in modern times. Even though the population began with only 24 individuals, through exponential growth, the population of rabbits today is over 200 million, which causes a plethora of damaging issues for almost all of Australia’s ecosystems.

Section: Exponential Growth Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Guiding Question: Logistic Population Growth What is logistic growth and when does it occur in a population?

Multiple Choice 28. Early in the colonization of a new habitat, a population will show _____________, shifting to _____________ as the density of the population increases.

A. resistance; biotic potential B. exponential growth; logistic growth C. logistic growth; exponential growth D. biotic potential; overshoot E. exponential growth; logistic growth Answer: B Section: Logistic Population Growth Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 29._______________population growth produces an S curve when plotted over time.

A. Exponential B. Biotic C. Potential D. Logistic E. Resistance Answer: D Section: Logistic Population Growth Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 30. A farm field becomes abandoned and milkweed plants grow up in numbers over time.

Based on the shape of the graph below, what kind of growth is this population experiencing? Where is the population in its growth, and what does this mean?

Milkweed Plant Growth Over Time 600

Number of Plants

500 400 300 200 100 0

Number of Years

FEEDBACK: Based on the graph, it appears that the milkweed population is in logistical growth and has reached its carrying capacity, since the population has stopped growing.

This means that the milkweed’s population size is increasing while the growth rate decreases and the environment that the milkweed population is growing in can support only this many members of the population.

Section: Logistic Population Growth Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying/Analyzing

Guiding Question: Density-Dependent and Density-Independent Growth Factors How do density-dependent and density-independent factors affect population growth?

Multiple Choice 31. Which of the following factors affecting the human population is not density dependent?

A. starvation B. aggressive behavior C. disease D. forest fires Answer: D Section: Density-Dependent and Density-Independent Growth Factors Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 32. Lions in a savanna will increase in population as the total population of their prey species in the ecosystem increases. The number of lions present in the ecosystem is _____________.

A. a density-independent factor B. a reproductive strategy C. a density-dependent factor D. the biotic potential E. at carrying capacity Answer: C Section: Density-Dependent and Density-Independent Growth Factors Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 33. Which of the following is a density-independent factor?

A. fire B. avalanche C. tornado D. Fire, avalanche, and tornado are all density-independent factors.

E. Fire, avalanche, and tornado are all density-dependent factors.

Answer: D Section: Density-Dependent and Density-Independent Growth Factors Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 34. A predator is an example of a(n) _____________.

A. density-dependent factor B. density-independent factor C. commensalism D. mutualism

E. herbivore Answer: A Section: Density-Dependent and Density-Independent Growth Factors Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 35. Why is weather considered to be a density-independent factor?

FEEDBACK: Weather is a density-independent factor because a tornado, for example, will affect a population regardless of how many individuals are in that population.

Having a high or low population size does not affect whether the tornado does any damage.

Section: Density-Dependent and Density-Independent Growth Factors Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 36. What would happen to a large moose population if wolves were removed from the ecosystem? Explain your answer in terms of density-dependent or density-independent factors.

FEEDBACK: Wolves are the natural predator of moose and are therefore a densitydependent limiting factor. Since the moose population was large, it is likely that the wolves were exerting a significant effect. The wolf population prevents the moose population from increasing to a level that would have negative impacts on the ecosystem.

Their removal could result in a moose population that would increase to a level that would degrade the ecosystem, resulting in an ecosystem that would support less moose.

Section: Density-Dependent and Density-Independent Growth Factors Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question: Life History Strategies: r and K species What are the life-history strategies of r- and K-selected species, and how do they relate to population growth patterns and their ability to respond to environmental changes?

Multiple Choice 37. What are some biological characteristics of a species that determines its life-history strategy?

A. maturity rate B. life span C. level of fecundity D. maturity rate, life span, and level of fecundity E. maturity rate and life span Answer: D Section: Life History Strategies: r and K species Level: 1

Bloom’s Level: Remembering 38. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of r-selected species?

A. long life B. early maturity C. rapid growth of an individual D. many, small offspring E. niche generalists Answer: A Section: Life History Strategies: r and K species Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 39. A good example of a K-selected species would be _______________.

A. E. coli (a bacterium) B. ants C. wolves D. blackberry plants E. mushrooms Answer: C Section: Life History Strategies: r and K species Level:1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 40. Which of the following is true of r-selected species?

A. They usually give high parental care to their offspring.

B. They can live in unpredictable or seasonally changing environments.

C. They are slow to respond to environmental changes.

D. Their population size tends to be stable.

E. They have long life spans.

Answer: B Section: Life History Strategies: r and K species Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 41. Which species would be better suited to survive an unexpected environmental change?

A. r-selected species B. K-selected species C. Both r-selected species and K-selected species would be able to survive.

D. Neither r-selected species nor K-selected species would survive.

Answer: A Section: Life History Strategies: r and K species Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

42. Which species’ offspring are more likely to survive?

A. r-selected B. K-selected C. Both r-selected species and K-selected species are likely to survive.

D. Neither r-selected species nor K-selected species is likely to survive.

Answer: B Section: Life History Strategies: r and K species Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 43. Which species’ population size is closer to its carrying capacity at any given time?

A. r-selected B. K-selected C. Both r-selected species and K-selected species would be able to survive.

D. Neither r-selected species and K-selected species would survive.

Answer: B Section: Life History Strategies: r and K species Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 44. The current interglacial period (global warming) has allowed humanity to expand in large numbers due to the increased capacity to grow food. Which characteristics of Kselected species will work against humanity if we have a sudden onset of the next ice age?

A. adaptation to stable environments B. niche specialists C. slower growth of individuals D. late maturity E. all of these answer choices are correct Answer: E Section: Life History Strategies: r and K species Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 45. Fluctuations in populations that produce a very large population followed by a crash that lowers the population size drastically and is then repeated are called _____________.

A. exponential growth B. log growth C. boom-and-bust cycles D. extirpation cycles E. carrying capacity Answer: C Section: Life History Strategies: r and K species Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

46. During a typical predator–prey population cycle, the increase in the predator population is normally seen _____________ an increase in the prey population.

A. after B. before C. at the same time as D. as not correlated with E. as randomly changing with Answer: A Section: Life History Strategies: r and K species Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 47. When a wolf population goes from high to low as a result of a decrease in moose population, both the moose and wolves experience _____________.

A. boom-and-bust cycles B. overshoot-and-crash cycles C. natural population cycles D. up-and-down cycles Answer: A Section: Life History Strategies: r and K species Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 48. How might the fact that a threatened prairie plant you are in charge of managing is an r-selected species influence the way you manage the population?

FEEDBACK: Adapted to frequent disturbance regimes, a management plan that includes periodic disturbances, such as planned burns, would enhance the success of the r-selected species and mimic the natural pattern of disturbances.

Section: Life History Strategies: r and K species Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyze 49. With global warming having increasing effects on the environment, which type of species (r or K) would you think would be better suited to survive such a global disturbance? Why? FEEDBACK: Since r-selected species are better adapted to using many different habitats and resources and are especially adapted to unstable environments, they are likely to fair better as the effects of global warming become more prominent and change ecosystems.

Section: Life History Strategies: r and K species Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 50. Draw a graph of population size over time for wolves and elk in Yellowstone National Park. (Hint: think about the predator–prey relationship between the two species.)

FEEDBACK: Your graph should reflect a boom-and-bust cycle of population growth as depicted in the image below.

Section: Life History Strategies: r and K species Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

Guiding Question: Top-Down and Bottom-Up Regulation What are top-down and bottom-up regulation, and which is most important in determining the size of a population?

Multiple Choice 51. What is an example of top-down regulation?

A. availability of sunlight B. control of a prey population by a predator C. large amounts of food D. drought killing young willow trees E. none of these answer choices are correct Answer: B Section: Top-Down and Bottom-Up Regulation Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 52. The number-one reason for the endangered status of many species is _____________.

A. disease B. habitat destruction C. storms and floods D. volcanic activity Answer: B Section: Top-Down and Bottom-Up Regulation Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

53. Availability of water, food, and sunlight are all _________ regulators.

A. biotic B. exponential C. logarithmic D. bottom-up E. top-down Answer: D Section: Top-Down and Bottom-Up Regulation Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 54. If a population size is determined by food availability and not predation pressures, it is likely under which regulation type?

A. top-down regulation B. bottom-up regulation C. global warming D. boom-and-bust regulation E. keystone species pressure Answer: B Section: Top-Down and Bottom-Up Regulation Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 55. Which regulation is more likely to promote species diversity in the ecosystem?

A. top-down regulation B. bottom-up regulation C. global warming D. boom-and-bust regulation E. keystone species pressure Answer: A Section: Top-Down and Bottom-Up Regulation Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 56. True or False: Fire can be an effective bottom-up regulator.

Answer: True Section: Top-Down and Bottom-Up Regulation Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 57. Habitat destruction, the number-one reason that species become endangered today, likely acts as which kind of regulator?

A. top-down regulation B. bottom-up regulation C. global warming

D. boom-and-bust regulation E. keystone species pressure Answer: B Section: Top-Down and Bottom-Up Regulation Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Essay 58. Numerous towns and cities in the United States have a deer population problem due to the removal of predators. How would you explain that top-down regulation would help with the overpopulation problem? In addition, are there any bottom-up regulation strategies you would suggest to the townspeople?

FEEDBACK: Top-down regulation would help the overpopulation of the deer because the introduction of predators, like wolves, would help control the population and bring it back down to a level that could be supported by the ecosystem. A bottom-up regulation strategy that could also work to thin the deer population would be educating the townspeople about the kinds of shrubs, bushes, and plants that deer eat. If the townspeople reduced the number of tree-friendly vegetation in their yards, it would reduce the food supply for the deer and thus be a bottom-up regulator.

Section: Top-Down and Bottom-Up Regulation Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 59. How does maintaining the top-down regulation by wolves help in providing for diverse fish and amphibian communities in Yellowstone?

FEEDBACK: Wolf populations keep elk numbers in check, which in turn allows willow trees to rebound. Beavers depend on willows and in their presence create dams, thereby increasing the prevalence of lakes in Yellowstone. An increase in the lake habitat area and total number of lakes results in increases in fish and amphibian populations and diversity.

Section: Top-Down and Bottom-Up Regulation Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluation 60. Why is it difficult to determine whether a population’s size is more affected by topdown or bottom-up regulation?

FEEDBACK: It is likely that any population you study will be affected by both top-down and bottom-up regulators and that there will be many factors that determine which is having a greater effect at a certain time point. For example, in the summer when plants and other food sources are plentiful for rabbits, the regulator that is likely to have a greater effect on the population is predation, a top-down regulation (since the population of rabbits will likely be high). In the winter, however, when food is scarcer, that lack of food may become more influential on the rabbit population; thus bottom-up regulation has a stronger effect. To echo the answer to many ecological questions asked in the chapter, “It depends.”

Section: Top-Down and Bottom-Up Regulation

Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Matching Questions Match each term in the left-hand column to the statement that it best exemplifies.

1. population

2. population dynamics

3. minimum viable population

4. population density

5. population distribution

6. clumped distribution

7. random distribution

8. uniform distribution 9. population growth rate

the kind of growth in which population size increases rapidly at first but then slows down as the population becomes larger; produces an S curve when plotted over time (14) a distribution in which individuals are spread out irregularly over the environment, with no discernable pattern (7) the location and spacing of individuals within their range (5) fluctuations in population size that produce a very large population followed by a crash that lowers the population size drastically, followed again by an increase to a large size and a subsequent crash (21) the kind of growth in which a population becomes progressively larger each breeding cycle; produces a J curve when plotted over time (13) resources individuals need to survive and reproduce that allow a population to grow in number (10) biological characteristics of a species (for example, life span, fecundity, maturity rate) that influence how quickly a population can potentially increase in number (18) the number of individuals per unit area (4) factors, such as a storm or an avalanche, whose impact on a population is not related to population size (17)

10. growth factors

11. resistance factors

12. biotic potential (r)

13. exponential growth

14. logistic growth

15. carrying capacity (K)

16. density-dependent factors

17. density-independent factors

18. life-history strategies

19. r-selected species

the smallest number of individuals that would still allow a population to be able to persist or grow, ensuring long-term survival (3) factors, such as predation or disease, whose impact on a population increases as population size goes up (16) a distribution in which individuals are spaced evenly, perhaps due to territorial behavior or mechanisms for suppressing the growth of nearby individuals (8) the control of populations’ size by factors that reduce population size (resistance factors), such as predation, competition, or disease (22) species that have a high biotic potential and that share other characteristics, such as a short life span, early maturity, and high fecundity (19) changes over time in population size and composition (2) the change in population size over time that takes into account the number of births and deaths as well as immigration and emigration numbers (9) things that directly (predators, disease) or indirectly (competitors) reduce population size (11) species that have a low biotic potential and that share other characteristics, such as a long life span, late maturity, and low fecundity; generally show logistic population growth (20) the control of population size by factors that enhance growth and survival (growth factors), such as nutrients, water, sunlight, and habitat

20. K-selected species

21. boom-and-bust cycles

22. top-down regulation

23. bottom-up regulation

(23) a distribution in which individuals are found in groups or patches within the habitat (6) all the individuals of a species that live in the same geographic area and are able to interact and interbreed (1) the maximum rate at which the population can grow due to births if each member of the population survives and reproduces (12) the maximum population size that a particular environment can support indefinitely (15)

Linked Questions Science Literacy Use the graph below to answer the following three questions.

A

C

B

1. On the graph, which point shows where resistance factors would kick in to decrease the population growth rate?

A. A B. B C. C Answer: A Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

2. Which point indicates exponential growth?

A. A B. B C. C Answer: B Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 3. Which point indicates population growth at the carrying capacity?

A. A B. B C. C Answer: C Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Making Connections Use the following scenario to answer the following five questions.

Snowshoe hare and Canadian lynx live in the boreal forest of Canada. The snowshoe hare is the main prey species of the Canadian lynx. They usually live 1 to 2 years and have four to six offspring at one time. The Canadian lynx is a large cat, which lives up to 15 years and has one to four cubs each year. In spring when vegetation is plentiful, the hare population increases quickly. When the hare population becomes more numerous, they are easy to track and catch, and the Canadian lynx population increases. The Canadian lynx hunts the snowshoe hare and causes their population numbers to drop over time.

1. Which species is most likely to be classified as an r-selected species?

A. Canadian lynx B. snowshoe hare Answer: B Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 2. When the hare population increases, it is easier for the lynx to find and take a member of that population. This is an example of a _________.

A. density-dependent factor B. density-independent factor Answer: A

Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 3. You would expect the snowshoe hare to have a _________biotic potential.

A. high B. low Answer: A Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 4. Which of the following is TRUE based on the scenario?

A. Lynx control the hare population through bottom-up regulation.

B. The hare population would take a long time to bounce back from a sudden change in the environment.

C. Lynx control the hare population through top-down regulation.

D. The lynx population could quickly overshoot the carrying capacity.

Answer: C Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 5. The snowshoe hare would most likely have which kind of population growth?

A. Exponential B. Logistic Answer: A Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

Module 2.3 Guiding Question: Community Ecology What is an ecological community?

Multiple Choice 1. The field that addresses how a given ecosystem is structured and how the species living in it interact is known as ________________.

A. population ecology B. community ecology C. nutrient cycles D. ecosystem services E. resilience ecology Answer: B Section: Community Ecology Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 2. What is a characteristic of a niche specialist?

A. will eat almost anything B. requires a specific habitat C. can live almost anywhere D. cannot out compete other organisms E. can switch food resources if one declines Answer: B Section: Community Ecology Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 3. Humans drained the Everglades in the early 20th century because ________________.

A. they were seen as having no utility to humans B. people wanted to develop cities and towns in the region C. people thought it would prevent flooding D. All of the answer choices are correct.

Answer: D Section: Community Ecology Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

Essay 4. What is a niche generalist, and what advantage do they have over a niche specialist?

FEEDBACK: A niche generalist is a species that occupies a broad niche. Their advantage is flexibility; since they can use a wide variety of resources, they have the option to switch to another food source if one food source is depleted. A niche specialist is

restricted in where they can live or the food they can eat. If a food resource is diminishing, they have fewer options.

Section: Community Ecology Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Guiding Question: The Food Web What can we learn about a community by identifying its food web?

Multiple Choice 5. Which of the following groups can undergo photosynthesis to generate energy?

A. secondary consumers B. primary consumers C. producers D. both secondary consumers and primary consumers E. none of these answer choices are correct Answer: C Section: The Food Web Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 6. The sensitivity of a species to changes in the environment is often what makes it a useful _________________ for the management of an ecosystem.

A. keystone species B. consumer species C. indicator species D. apex predator E. edge species Answer: C Section: The Food Web Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 7. The difference between a food chain and a food web is that ________________.

A. a food web includes only a single line of species consuming other organisms among trophic levels B. a food chain always shows how much energy is passed from one organism to the next C. producers are the first species in a food web, while secondary consumers begin a food chain D. a food web shows interactions between all the species of a community, instead of just a single line of energy transfer among trophic levels E. There is no difference between a food chain and a food web.

Answer: D Section: The Food Web Level:2 Bloom’s Level: Applying/Analyzing

8. In the Everglades, what organism is an example of a consumer?

A. periphyton B. sawgrass C. applesnail D. Bladderwort E. all of the above Section: The Food Web Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

Essay 9. What is an indicator species, and why is it easier for scientists to study them as a measure of the health of an ecosystem rather than an entire ecosystem as a whole?

FEEDBACK: Indicator species are members of an ecosystem that are particularly vulnerable to changes in that ecosystem. Perturbations may show an effect on indicator species well before other members of the ecosystem, meaning if you were to wait to see an effect in those members, it may be too late to prevent major damage. Thus it is useful to study and monitor the indicator species as a measure of the ecosystem as a whole.

Section: The Food Web Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

Guiding Question: The Trophic Pyramid What are trophic levels, how are they classified, and why are these illustrated as a pyramid?

Multiple Choice 10. Phytoplankton live on the ocean surface, capturing sunlight and converting it to energy. Tiny shrimp eat the phytoplankton as a food source. Small fish eat the shrimp as food. The interaction between the phytoplankton, shrimp, and fish is a good example of ________________.

A. a food web B. a food chain C. trophic levels D. both a food web and a food chain E. both a food chain and trophic levels Answer: D Section: The Trophic Pyramid Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

11. Which of the following groups feed on all of the other groups?

A. decomposers B. producers C. primary consumers D. secondary consumers E. tertiary consumers Answer: A Section: The Trophic Pyramid Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

12. The concept of the trophic pyramid reflects ________________.

A. the fact that each transfer of energy as you move up the food web results in a loss of about 90% B. the fact that each transfer of energy as you move up the food web results in a loss of about 10% C. the fact that biomass increases as you move up the food web D. the number of decomposers found in a system Answer: A Section: The Trophic Pyramid Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 13. Organisms that eat dead organic matter are known as ________________.

A. producers B. decomposers C. detritivores D. consumers E. both detritivores and consumers Answer: E Section: The Trophic Pyramid Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 14. Organisms living in an ecosystem that are particularly sensitive to changes in that ecosystem are known as________________.

A. keystone species B. indicator species C. consumers D. producers E. none of these choices are correct Answer: B Section: The Trophic Pyramid Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

15. In a study comparing the trophic interactions in two streams, you discover that a Florida stream has 12 different fish species at the secondary consumer level, while an Ohio stream has only six. Compared to the Ohio stream, you hypothesize that the Florida stream shows________________.

A. greater resilience B. greater ecological complexity C. greater connectivity in the food web D. a higher number of trophic levels E. all of these answer choices are correct Answer: E Section: The Trophic Pyramid Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating 16. In the Everglades food chain below, which organism is a secondary consumer? sawgrass → insect → frog → raccoon → alligator A. sawgrass B. insect C. frog D. raccoon E. alligator Answer: C Section: The Trophic Pyramid Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 17. In terms of energy transfer, why can’t trophic levels be in the shape of an inverted pyramid, that is, more quaternary consumers and fewer producers?

FEEDBACK: Trophic levels cannot be in the shape of an inverted pyramid because there would not be enough energy transferred to support the ecosystem as a whole. Since most energy is not transferred between the levels and is instead lost as heat within and out of the organism, it would be impossible for quaternary consumers to produce enough energy to support the rest of the trophic levels. The only energy transfer between levels that is substantial is that from producers to primary consumers. The energy made by producers is what supports and fuels the entire ecosystem, so if they were the least abundant, they would also not produce enough energy for the other trophic levels and the ecosystem would collapse.

Section: The Trophic Pyramid Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating 18. Why are decomposers and detritivores essential members of any ecosystem?

ANSWER: Decomposers and detritivores are essential members of any ecosystem because they return vital nutrients to the soil, where producers can use them to grow and

provide more energy to the other trophic levels. Without them, the producers would not be able to survive, and thus the ecosystem would collapse.

Section: The Trophic Pyramid Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question: Species Diversity How is species diversity measured and why is it important to a community?

Multiple Choice 19. A study examined the bird community composition of four different mangrove forests. Which forest community would you conclude shows a high species diversity in birds?

A. high richness, high evenness B. high richness, low evenness C. low richness, high evenness D. low richness, low evenness Answer: A Section: Species Diversity Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 20. Species diversity is measured in which two ways?

A. species richness and niche availability B. number of producers and consumers C. species richness and species evenness D. species evenness and resilience E. species richness and number of trophic levels Answer: C Section: Species Diversity Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 21. Which community do you think would be more resilient to a perturbation: a community with high species richness and low species evenness or one with low species richness and high species evenness? Why? FEEDBACK: Although communities with BOTH high species richness and evenness are the most resilient to perturbation, it is likely that a community with high species richness and low species evenness would be somewhat more resilient than one with low species richness and high species evenness. With high species richness and low species evenness, there is a better chance, due to the higher number of species present, that some of those species would be able to survive the perturbation and maintain the ecosystem.

Section: Species Diversity Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

22. Why are invasive species so damaging to ecosystems?

FEEDBACK: Invasive species are damaging to ecosystems for a variety of reasons. They likely do not have natural predators in the new environment and can thus grow their population unchecked, decreasing the species evenness. Invasive species are also more likely to live in a niche that is already occupied by a member of the original ecosystem and thus will likely outcompete that member for food and shelter and possibly drive it to extinction, decreasing the species richness.

Section: Species Diversity Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating 23. Small woodland wetlands can be very diverse, productive communities. In a study comparing the food webs of a wetland in Alabama with one in Michigan, you collect the following data: Wetland Species richness Number of connections in food web Alabama 20 35 Michigan 10 18 Which wetland would you predict to show the greatest resilience, and why?

FEEDBACK: In general, resilience increases with increasing ecological complexity.

Complexity is determined in part by the overall species’ richness in the food web, the number of trophic levels, and the number of connections between species in the food web. Given the data collected, the Alabama wetland shows both higher richness and greater connectivity, so it should show greater ecological resilience than the Michigan wetland.

Section: Species Diversity Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 24. How does the introduction of an exotic predator species circumvent the natural predator–prey relationship?

FEEDBACK: Introduced (exotic) species normally have a significant impact on an ecosystem. The organisms that the exotic species prey on have not evolved defense mechanisms to allow them to elude predation. Natural selection is a very gradual process, and there may not be enough time for the prey item to develop a defense mechanism to elude the newly introduced predator before the prey population is decimated.

Section: Species Diversity Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing/Evaluating Guiding Question: Habitat Structure: Edge and Core Regions What are core and edge habitats and how can habitat fragmentation affect species that inhabit them?

Multiple Choice

25. Which of the following options includes two of the other options?

A. species evenness B. edge effects C. core species D. species diversity E. species richness Answer: D Section: Habitat Structure: Edge and Core Regions Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding/Applying 26. Regions of distinctly different physical areas that serve as boundaries between different communities are called __________________.

A. ecotones B. ecological zones C. buffers D. core habitat Answer: A Section: Habitat Structure: Edge and Core Regions Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Guiding Question: Keystone Species What is a keystone species?

Multiple Choice 27. Human alterations of the Everglades system resulted in ________________.

A. a reduction in the sheet flow of water B. changes in food webs C. reductions in wading bird populations D. all of these choices are correct E. none of these choices are correct Answer: D Section: Keystone Species Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 28. A chemical leaks into a pond that selectively kills off the phytoplankton (a producer).

Many of the other organisms in the pond die over a short period of weeks, and the overall species diversity declines. The phytoplankton in this pond could be considered a good example of ________________.

A. a keystone species B. an edge species C. an indicator species D. a core species Answer: A

Section: Keystone Species Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding/Applying Essay 29. The American honeybee population has been decimated by colony collapse disorder.

What impact will the removal of the American honeybee have?

FEEDBACK: The honeybee is a very efficient pollinator, and many species of plants rely on the honeybee for pollination. Removal of the honeybee will also have an impact on any agriculture crops that need pollinators. Potentially, another pollinator could fill the gap, but that pollinator may not be as efficient or may not be attracted to the plants that need to be pollinated.

Section: Keystone Species Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating Guiding Question: Species Interactions What species interactions are seen in a community and what problems can emerge if these interactions are disrupted?

Multiple Choice 30. A comparison of the diets of two snake species, a native species and a newly introduced species, yields the following data: Percentage of Diet for Each Species Prey species Native species Introduced species House mouse 12 14 Rice rat 20 19 Cotton rat 62 61 Juvenile fox squirrel 6 6 The introduced species is aggressive and the superior competitor. What is your prediction for the long-term future of this interaction?

A. local extirpation of the native species B. a shift in the diet composition of the native species C. dispersal from the community by the native species D. All of these choices are possible outcomes of the interaction over time.

E. None of these choices are possible outcomes of the interaction over time.

Answer: D Section: Species Interactions Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing/Evaluating 31. The cowbird is a nest parasite that lays its eggs in the nests of other species in the trees along the boundaries of forests and meadows. Nest parasitism (the number of nests with cowbird eggs) declines dramatically as you move deeper into the forest. Cowbirds would be considered a ________________.

A. core species B. keystone species C. edge species D. indicator species E. ecological zone species Answer: C Section: Species Interactions Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 32. Owls hunt for field mice in a field at night. Foxes hunt for field mice in the same field during the day. The term that best describes the interaction between the owls and the foxes is ________________.

A. mutualism B. commensalism C. parasitism D. resource partitioning E. predation Answer: D Section: Species Interactions Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 33. One example of commensal interaction could be ________________.

A. snail kites and apple snails B. gray squirrels and humans C. bees and daffodils D. leeches and alligators E. gray squirrels and fox squirrels Answer: B Section: Species Interactions Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 34. A tick attaches itself to a human to feed but harms the human in the process. The tick and human have a ________________ relationship.

A. parasitic B. mutualistic C. commensal D. competitive E. symbiotic Answer: A Section: Species Interactions Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

35. In mutualism, one organism is ________________, and the other organism is ________________.

A. harmed; harmed B. harmed; benefited C. benefited; benefited D. benefited; harmed E. neither benefited nor harmed; neither benefited nor harmed Answer: C Section: Species Interactions Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 36. Gray squirrels and fox squirrels competing for the same resources are an example of ________________.

A. predation B. intraspecific competition C. interspecific competition D. commensalism E. symbiosis Answer: C Section: Species Interactions Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 37. The American alligator is considered a keystone species in the Everglades system because its presence leads to an increase in the ________________.

A. availability of aquatic habitat B. abundance and diversity of fish C. abundance and diversity of wading birds D. all of the above E. none of the above Answer: D Section: Species Interactions Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 38. What is it called when two species use different parts of a resource instead of competing directly for that resource?

A. predation partitioning B. habitat partitioning C. resource sharing D. resource symbiosis E. resource partitioning Answer: E Section: Species Interactions Level: 1

Bloom’s Level: Remembering 39. A survey of morphological diversity among three weasel species in Minnesota showed some interesting patterns in skull size, with the length of skulls ranging from 25 to 55 mm and little to no overlap between species. The assumption in the study was that skull size is related to the size of prey a weasel can handle (primarily small rodents). This appears to be a good example of________________.

A. resilience B. trophic pyramids C. niche differentiation D. edge effects Answer: C Section: Species Interactions Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Applying/Analyzing

Guiding Question: Restoration Ecology What is the goal of restoration ecology and what obstacles do restoration ecologists face?

Multiple Choice 40. Which indicator species gave ecologists an early warning the Everglades ecosystem was suffering from drastic changes caused by human impact?

A. alligator B. wood stork C. raccoon D. applesnail E. sawgrass Answer: B Section: Restoration Ecology Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 41. Professionals involved in a restoration ecology project would probably include all of the following EXCEPT a _________.

A. psychologist B. engineer C. politician D. biologist E. ecologist Answer: A Section: Restoration Ecology Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

42. What was the purpose of the Comprehensive Everglades Restoration Plan?

A. introduce new species to the area for increased biodiversity B. give scientists a place to test the impacts of disturbances in ecosystems C. restore the flow of water back to the wetlands and raise water levels D. silence environmentalists by vowing to no longer interfere with the Everglades E. take over the U.S. sugar industry Answer: C Section: Restoration Ecology Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 43. To effectively plan restoration projects, scientists and engineers must be ________________.

A. innovative B. flexible C. adaptive D. innovative, flexible, and adaptive E. innovative and flexible Answer: D Section: Restoration Ecology Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

44. The number of wood stork nests in the Everglades suggest the population is__________.

A. declining B. increasing C. stable D. crashing Answer: C Section: Restoration Ecology Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

45. A key goal of the Everglades restoration is to increase the amount of water flowing through the Everglades. This should lead to the restoration of the wood stork population, in part through the increase in the availability of nesting trees due to restoring the ____________ relationship between alligators and storks.

A. predator–prey B. mutualistic C. parasitic D. commensal E. competitive Answer: D

Section: Restoration Ecology Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 46. ______________ ecology is the science that deals with the repair of damage or disturbed ecosystems A. Restoration B. Remediation C. Adaptive D. Landscape E. Corrective Answer: A Section: Restoration Ecology Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 47. In 2000, Congress enacted the ______________, the most comprehensive ecological repair project to restore some of the natural flow of water through the Everglades.

A. Complete Everglades Restoration Plan B. Complete Everglades Restoration Project C. Comprehensive Everglades Restoration Plan D. Healthy Everglades Remediation Project E. Developing Everglades Resources Project Answer: C Section: Restoration Ecology Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 48. Human impact has reduced the original Everglades by approximately ______________.

A. 10% B. 25% C. 50% D. 75% E. 90% Answer: C Section: Restoration Ecology Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 49. Human activities in the Everglades has ______________.

A. reduced species richness B. reduced species evenness C. fragmented habitats D. polluted natural water sources E. All of these answer choices are correct

Answer: E Section: Restoration Ecology Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 50. After decades of human-caused disturbance in the Everglades, the species diversity is ______________ it was before human involvement.

A. higher than B. lower than C. the same as Answer: B Section: Restoration Ecology Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 51. The historic flow of water in South Florida was from Lake Okeechobee, with the main flow moving ________________.

A. south through the Everglades and into Florida Bay B. east–west across Florida C. southeast through the Everglades to Miami and the Atlantic Ocean D. north to Orlando E. east through West Palm Beach and into the Atlantic Ocean Answer: A Section: Restoration Ecology Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 52. Why is the lowered species diversity and availability of healthy habitat a problem for the continued survival of the Everglades ecosystem?

FEEDBACK: Largely due to human involvement, the species diversity and healthy habitat availability have both decreased in the Everglades ecosystem. This is a problem for the continued survival of this ecosystem because, as we know, decreased species diversity, due to whatever reason, makes the ecosystem more vulnerable to disturbances.

If the ecosystem is no longer able to recover totally or quickly enough from any number of disturbances, it will likely cease to exist.

Section: Restoration Ecology Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 53. The United States has some of the strictest laws on the harvesting of timber. Timber companies, however, have realized that even though they are required to replant after harvesting, they can just plant pine trees. What problems does this cause, and how would you change the regulation?

FEEDBACK: Pine trees are easy for the timber company to plant, but doing so does not re-create the forest that was there before it was harvested. The number of niches and

diversity of life that can be supported by the pine trees could be and probably is much less than what was there previously. It is unrealistic and economically impractical to force a timber company to exactly replant the forest as it was, but timber companies should be required to at least replant a ratio of the most common trees that were there to more closely approximate the natural community.

Section: Restoration Ecology Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing/Evaluating

Guiding Question: Ecological Succession What is ecological succession and how can we use this knowledge to assist in ecosystem restoration?

Multiple Choice 54. Which species would you often find in areas of primary succession?

A. grasses B. shrubs C. moss D. trees E. herbs Answer: C Section: Ecological Succession Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 55. Species that move into areas at later stages of ecological succession are called ________________ species.

A. edge B. climax C. pioneer D. colonizing E. indicator Answer: B Section: Ecological Succession Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 56. The process by which one community replaces another is known as ________________.

A. species regression B. ecological succession C. successive diversification D. pioneer colonization E. ecological replacement

Answer: B Section: Ecological Succession Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 57. The difference between primary succession and secondary succession is ________________.

A. primary succession occurs when a species moves into an area that starts as bare rock B. secondary succession begins with the entrance of a pioneer species C. primary succession involves repopulating a previously damaged ecosystem D. secondary succession occurs when a species moves into an area that starts as bare rock Answer: A Section: Ecological Succession Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 58. An example of secondary succession is ________________.

A. an old agricultural field that has been abandoned B. the extirpation of mangrove forests C. a tropical rainforest being cleared and replanted with non-native grasses for cattle grazing D. coastal erosion due to lost wetland E. succession on a recent volcanic lava flow Answer: A Section: Ecological Succession Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 59. Some species, like trees that thrive in the shade, can survive as long as their environment remains unchanged. A climax species ________________.

A. will survive until a disturbance causes a new ecosystem to move in B. will survive any ecosystem disturbances C. will decline after reaching the climax stage D. will be the first things to grow in that area after a disturbance E. are r-adapted species Answer: A Section: Ecological Succession Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 60. The Hawaiian Islands are a chain formed by volcanic activity about 1–3 million years ago. Which pattern of ecological succession would have occurred soon after the formation of the Big Island, Hawaii?

A. late stage B. secondary C. primary

Answer: C Section: Ecological Succession Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 61. Trees whose seeds can grow under low-light conditions would most likely be found ________________.

A. early in primary succession B. late in primary succession C. early in secondary succession D. late in secondary succession Answer: D Section: Ecological Succession Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 62. During ecological succession in the Everglades, __________________ will move in as the sediment layer becomes thicker through time, outcompeting the ________________.

A. floating and submerged plants; cypress and willow trees B. floating and submerged plants; sawgrass C. cypress and willow trees; floating and submerged plants D. cypress and willow trees; sawgrass Answer: D Section: Ecological Succession Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding/Applying 63. Early in primary succession, lichens and mosses colonize bare rock and become the first ecological community. Why are they critical to later stages of succession?

A. They deplete nutrients.

B. Decomposing lichen and moss biomass create soil.

C. They outcompete pioneer species, allowing succession to progress.

D. They limit the ability of climax species to colonize the area.

Answer: B Section: Ecological Succession Level: 1/2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 64. The red-cockaded woodpecker is an endangered species with highly specific niche requirements. They prefer longleaf pine forests in the southeast with open understories and few to no deciduous trees. Longleaf pines are a fire-adapted species, and periodic natural wildfires would kill other trees and select for open, longleaf pine forests. How would knowledge of ecological succession help you conserve red-cockaded woodpeckers?

FEEDBACK: The natural pattern of periodic wildfires has historically maintained these communities at the young forest stage of secondary succession, preventing colonization by late successional, shade-tolerant climax species. Since red-cockaded woodpeckers require the longleaf pine forests, periodic managed burns would mimic natural wildfires and maintain these areas at an earlier successional stage, enhancing the habitat for woodpeckers and allowing for their persistence.

Section: Ecological Succession Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 65. Along the southeast coast of the United States, an important part of the Gullah culture (African American descendants of slaves brought through South Carolina and Georgia) has been the weaving of sawgrass and other marsh grass baskets (called sweetgrass baskets). How could you use your knowledge of ecological succession in wetland habitats to maintain sawgrass communities as a natural and cultural resource?

FEEDBACK: Sawgrass marshes occur early in wetland succession as sediments collect and deepen and sawgrass is able to outcompete the early successional floating and submerged vegetation. Without disturbance, the natural pattern would be for the sediment to continue to deepen and allow for the colonization of cypress and willow trees.

Sawgrass is a fire-adapted species, and in some areas periodic natural wildfires would prevent the colonization of trees, allowing the sawgrass marsh to persist. Periodic controlled burns of marsh areas would therefore maintain marsh grasses as a resource for both the Gullah community and the natural communities dependent upon the marsh grass ecosystem.

Section: Ecological Succession Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

Matching Match each term in the left-hand column to the statement that it best exemplifies.

1. community ecology

2. habitat

3. ecosystems

4. indicator species

5. food chain

6. food web 7. producer

8. consumer

9. trophic levels 10. detritivores

11. decomposers

consumers (including worms, insects, crabs) that eat dead organic material (*10) a symbiotic relationship between individuals of two species in which one benefits from the presence of the other, but the other is unaffected (*30) the relative abundance of each species in a community (*19) an organism that eats other organisms to gain energy and nutrients; this includes animals, fungi, and most bacteria (*8) progressive replacement of plant (and then animal) species in a community over time due to the changing conditions that the plants themselves create (more soil, shade, and so on) (*33) the study of all the populations (plants, animals, and other species) living and interacting in an area (*1) a symbiotic relationship between individuals of two species in which one benefits and the other is negatively affected (*31) feeding levels in a food chain (*9) the variety of species in an area; this includes measures of species richness and evenness (*17) the role a species plays in its community, including how it gets its energy and nutrients, what habitat requirements it has, and which other species and parts of the ecosystem it interacts with (*15)

12. niche generalist

13. niche specialist

15. niche

16. resilience

17. species diversity

18. species richness

19. species evenness

20. ecotones

21. edge effects

a linkage of all the food chains together that shows the many connections in a community (*6) a strategy in which different species use different parts or aspects of a resource rather than competing directly for exactly the same resource (*27) a photosynthetic organism that captures solar energy directly and uses it to produce its own food (sugar) (*7) the physical environment in which individuals of a particular species can be found (*2) species interaction in which individuals are vying for limited resources (*26) the different physical makeup of an ecotone that creates different conditions that either attract or repel certain species (for example, it is drier, warmer, and more open at the edge of a forest and field than it is further in the forest) (*21) the science that deals with the repair of damaged or disturbed ecosystems (*32) a simple, linear path starting with a plant (or other photosynthetic organism) that identifies what each organism in the path eats (*5) organisms such as bacteria and fungi that break organic matter all the way down to constituent atoms or molecules in a form that plants can take back up (*11) regions of distinctly different physical areas that serve as boundaries between different communities

24. keystone species

25. predation

26. competition

27. resource partitioning

28. symbiosis

29. mutualism

30. commensalism

31. parasitism

32. restoration ecology

33. ecological succession

34. primary succession

(*20) the ability of an ecosystem to recover when it is damaged or perturbed (*16) a species that is particularly vulnerable to ecosystem perturbations and that, when we monitor it, can give us advanced warning of a problem (*4) ecological succession that occurs in an area where no ecosystem existed before (for example, on bare rock with no soil) (*34) ecological succession that occurs in an ecosystem that has been disturbed; it occurs more quickly than primary succession because soil is present (*36) plant species that move into an area during early stages of succession; these are often r species and may be annuals (species that live a year, leave behind seeds, and then die) (*35) a species with very specific habitat or resource requirements that restricts where it can live (*13) species interaction in which one individual (the predator) feeds on another (the prey) (*25) the total number of different species in a community (*18) a symbiotic relationship between individuals of two species in which both parties benefit (*29) a close biological or ecological relationship between two species (*28) all the organisms in a given area plus the physical environment in which they interact (*3)

35. pioneer species

36. secondary succession

a species that impacts its community more than its mere abundance would predict, often altering ecosystem structure (*24) a species that occupies a broad niche because it can utilize a wide variety of resources (*12)

Linked Questions Science Literacy Use the following scenario and table to answer the next five questions.

You are performing ecological research in the Chihuahuan Desert in New Mexico.

You are examining the species diversity in two areas, site 1, near a freshwater spring, and site 2, out in the desert. You count the number of species you see at each site, and you record the following data: Species Site 1 Site 2 Spadefoot toad

5

1

Ladderback woodpecker

7

5

Deer mice

8

4

Bell’s vireo

5

0

Bobcat

3

2

Pronghorn antelope

7

12

1. To measure species diversity in your research sites, you need which of the following?

A. only species evenness B. only species richness C. both species richness and species evenness Answer: C Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 2. According to your data, which site has greater species richness?

A. site 1 B. site 2 C. They have the same species richness.

Answer: A Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 3. According to your data, which site has greater species evenness?

A. site 1 B. site 2 C. They have the same species evenness.

Answer: A Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

4. One food chain seen in site 1 is: seeds → deer mice → bobcat What trophic level would the bobcat be on?

A. producer B. primary consumer C. secondary consumer D. tertiary consumer Answer: C Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 5. The deer mouse will eat a wide variety of plant and animal matter, including seeds, nuts, flowers, insects, and spiders. They would be considered __________________.

A. niche specialists B. niche generalists Answer: B Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Making Connections Use the following scenario to answer the next four questions.

You are on a safari in the African savanna. You see an elephant and a giraffe drinking from the same watering hole. There are small birds called oxpeckers riding on the backs of some zebras. The safari guide explains they feed on ticks and other insects that bite the zebras. Your guide points out several male lions feeding on an antelope, and several hyenas waiting nearby. The guide says the hyenas will feed on the remains after the lions have left. The lions begin to fight over their prey. There are many herbivorous hooved animals that live on the savanna. The giraffe feeds from the tops of trees while the impala, a small antelope, feeds on grasses and fruits.

1. Which of the following describes the interaction between the oxpecker and the zebra?

A. interspecific competition B. commensalism C. mutualism D. predation Answer: C Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

2. Which of the following would describe commensalism?

A. several male lions fighting over their prey B. an elephant and giraffe drinking from the same watering hole C. giraffes and impalas feeding from different areas of vegetation D. hyenas feeding on the remains of the lions’ prey Answer: D Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 3. The savanna can support many grazing species of animals that feed on different kinds of vegetation or in different areas, like the giraffe and the impala. This is an example of __________________.

A. resource partitioning B. predation C. intraspecific competition D. mutualism Answer: A Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 4. Interspecific competition can be seen in the __________________.

A. oxpecker feeding on ticks from the zebra B. lions fighting over their prey C. giraffe and the elephant drinking from the same watering hole D. giraffe feeding on tree leaves and the impala feeding on grasses Answer: C Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

MODULE 3.1 1. __________________ is the complete loss of a species from the Earth.

A. Endangering B. Threatening C. Extirpation D. Endemic E. Extinction Answer: E Section: Introduction Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 2. The second leading cause of species endangerment worldwide is __________________.

A. habitat loss B. invasive species C. habitat fragmentation D. pollution E. climate change Answer: B Section: Introduction Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Guiding Question 1 What is biological evolution, and how do populations adapt to changes via natural selection?

Multiple Choice 3. When the next ice age comes, species that are adapted to warmer climates will have to change their survival strategies. Nonrandom influences affecting which individuals survive and reproduce within the population are known as __________.

A. macroevolution B. endemic pressures C. selective pressures D. natural indicators Answer: C Section: Natural selection as a mechanism for evolution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 4. ________ are stretches of DNA that influence traits of an individual.

A. Proteins B. Imprints

C. Genes D. Founders E. Constraints Answer: C Section: Natural selection as a mechanism for evolution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 5. Different versions of genes in a population are called ___________.

A. alleles B. memes C. individuals D. directors E. assortments Answer: A Section: Natural selection as a mechanism for evolution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Guiding Question 2 Why is genetic diversity important to natural selection?

6. The two main sources of genetic variation are __________.

A. genetic mutations and genetic similarity B. genetic recombination and coevolution C. genetic mutations and genetic recombination D. coevolution and extirpation Answer: C Section: Genetic diversity and natural selection Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 7. A scientist notices that a lot more polar bears living in the warmer parts of the Arctic Circle have darker fur than they did 30 years ago. She wonders if this is an adaptation to global warming. Which of the following terms might help explain the increase in the number of darker polar bears?

A. genetic diversity B. adaptation C. evolution D. selective pressure E. All of the answer choices might explain the phenomenon.

Answer: E Section: Genetic diversity and natural selection Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

8. What is the heritable variation among individuals of a single population or within the species as a whole?

A. species diversity B. genetic diversity C. natural selection D. coevolution E. extirpation Answer: B Section: Genetic diversity and natural selection Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

9. Natural selection acts on ________, while ________ evolve.

A. populations; individuals B. communities; individuals C. species; individuals D. individuals; populations E. communities; populations Answer: D Section: Genetic diversity and natural selection Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 10. In a coral reef, small fish can hide from predators in the corals. Large fish are fast and can evade predators with speed. Medium fish cannot fit in the coral and are not as fast as the large fish. In evolutionary terms, what would you expect to see in the population over time?

A. The large fish would be selected against.

B. Only the medium fish would survive.

C. The small fish would be less likely to survive.

D. The medium fish would be less likely to survive.

E. The small fish would be selected against.

Answer: D Section: Genetic diversity and natural selection Level: 2/3 Bloom’s Level: Applying 11. Which type of natural selection would favor the norm of a population and select against extremes?

A. stabilizing B. directional C. disruptive D. individual E. unnatural Answer: A

Section: Genetic diversity and natural selection Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 12. On the Galápagos Islands, the finches that Darwin studied tended to have either small beaks or large beaks. The smaller beaks are best at eating soft seeds but are ineffective at cracking large seeds. The larger beaks are best at cracking hard seeds. Beaks of intermediate size are inefficient for either seed type. Which result of natural selection is at work in this example?

A. stabilizing selection B. directional selection C. disruptive selection D. individual selection E. unnatural selection Answer: C Section: Genetic diversity and natural selection Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 13. Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. Populations with more genetic diversity are less likely to suffer from inbreeding.

B. Selection pressures can change over time.

C. Giraffes that stretch their necks more than other giraffes will have babies with longer necks.

D. Natural selection acts on individual organisms.

E. Adaptive traits allow individual organisms to better survive and reproduce.

Answer: C Section: Genetic diversity and natural selection Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

14. The more genetically diverse a population is, the more likely ___________.

A. favorable traits will be selected for evolution B. the population will survive C. the population will be lost to global climate change D. favorable traits will be selected for evolution AND the population will survive E. favorable traits will be selected for evolution AND the population will be lost to global climate change Answer: D Section: Genetic diversity and natural selection Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 15. Which of the following can make a difference in how quickly natural selection can produce a change in a population?

A. level of genetic diversity B. size of the population C. reproductive rate and generation time D. strength of the selective pressure E. All of these answer choices can make a difference.

Answer: E Section: Genetic diversity and natural selection Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Essay 16. What are four observations that natural selection is based on?

FEEDBACK: Species tend to produce more offspring than can survive. Resources necessary for survival are generally limited for a population. Individuals within a population have distinctive genetic makeups. Individuals that are best adapted to their environment will survive and reproduce more than less adaptive individuals within the population.

Section: Genetic diversity and natural selection Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 17. Describe how a population evolves by natural selection.

FEEDBACK: Individuals within a population are genetically diverse. This allows individuals with genes/traits that enable them to survive and reproduce to pass along their genes to the next generation, unlike less-adapted individuals. Over time, a greater frequency of individuals within the population will have those adaptive genes/traits. This shift of gene frequency is evolution.

Section: Genetic diversity and natural selection Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 18. An owl population moves into an area where field mice live. The owls prey upon the mice. Over time, what might happen to the population of field mice in terms of evolved traits?

FEEDBACK: The owls will first consume the individual mice that are easiest to catch.

This selection pressure means that mice with genes that cause them to be spotted by owls and captured (fur color, behavior, slower speed) will be less likely to survive and reproduce. In contrast, the individual mice that do have adaptive traits will be able to pass on their genes to the next generation more frequently than will less-adapted mice. Over time, the population of field mice will contain a large proportion of individuals with the genes/traits that afford them protection from the predator. Thus the population of field mice has evolved in response to the arrival of owl predators.

Section: Genetic diversity and natural selection Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

19. Based on the information in infographic 1, come up with an example of natural selection for a population (either real or fictional), and describe which kind of natural selection is at work. Be sure to describe the population in its original state and its evolved state.

FEEDBACK: There are many different scenarios that one could come up with. For example, peppered moths found in the forests of England come in gray and black variations. Before the Industrial Revolution, the gray moths outnumbered black moths in the population. As a result of the Industrial Revolution, soot from factories blackened trees used as habitats for the moths. The frequency of black moths began to dominate the population as they were now better camouflaged from predators. This is an example of directional selection.

Section: Genetic diversity and natural selection Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Creating 20. What must exist within a population in order for evolution by natural selection to occur, and what are its sources?

FEEDBACK: The ability of a population to adapt depends upon genetic diversity.

Individuals within a population have different versions of genes called alleles. Increased genetic diversity means it is more likely that some individuals will exist that can withstand changes and that the population as a whole will survive. The two main sources of genetic variation are genetic mutations and genetic recombination.

Section: Genetic diversity and natural selection Level: 2 Level: Understanding/Applying 21. Refer to Infographic 1. Prior to advances in health care, premature low-birth-weight babies were unlikely to survive. At the other end of the spectrum, very large babies were unable to be born, often killing the mother during labor. As a result, birth weight for humans averages between 7 and 8 pounds. Use the Infographic to identify and name which result of natural selection is at work in this example.

FEEDBACK: Human birth weight is an example of stabilizing selection. It favors the norm and selects against the extremes (low or high birth weight).

Section: Genetic diversity and natural selection Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

Guiding Question 3 What is coevolution and how does its presence or absence make some native species vulnerable to invasive predators or competitors?

Multiple Choice 22. Coevolution is a type of ____________.

A. natural selection B. speciation C. genetic recombination D. genetic mutation E. extirpation Answer: A Section: Coevolution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 23. For coevolution to occur, which of the following must happen between two species?

A. natural selection B. successful reproduction of each species C. each provides selective pressure for traits in the other D. each affects the differential survival and reproductive success of the other E. all of these answer choices are correct Answer: E Section: Coevolution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 24. Which is likely not an example of coevolution?

A. A moth that has a long tongue reaches the nectar of a flower that is housed in a long tube.

B. A tree trunk growing thicker and stronger prevents breakage from hurricane-force winds.

C. A caterpillar develops resistance to a toxin produced by its main plant food source.

D. A mollusk develops a thick shell to avoid predation by a crab with strong pinchers.

Answer: B Section: Coevolution Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying/Analyzing 25. A genetic mutation that allows lions to better hunt their prey (gazelles) becomes prevalent in a population. In order to survive, a gazelle population must _________.

A. increase their numbers through immigration to the area B. find a new food source C. individually adapt to the threat D. coevolve to avoid the lions more effectively E. move to an area where lions are not the keystone species

Answer: D Section: Coevolution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 26. Which of the following is most likely the reason the bird species of Guam did not coevolve with the brown tree snake?

A. The brown tree snake eats only bird eggs.

B. There was not enough random mutation in the bird species to produce protective traits.

C. The brown tree snake preyed on the bird species too rapidly, not allowing enough time for protective traits in the bird species to be selected for and passed on to the next generation.

D. Many bird species migrated off of the island.

E. The birds did not need to coevolve; the brown tree snake did not pose a significant threat.

Answer: C Section: Coevolution Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Applying 27. A species is considered _______ to an area if it is not found anywhere else on Earth.

A. extinct B. extirpated C. exiled D. endemic E. elected Answer: D Section: Coevolution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 28. The nation of Guam used to be home to 18 native avian species. By the 1980s, four species of birds had gone extinct and 10 others were in danger of extinction. What caused this to happen? What evidence was found to support this?

FEEDBACK: The accidental introduction of non-native brown tree snakes was responsible for the birds’ demise. First, biologist Julie Savidge ruled out the potential that diseases like blood parasites or pesticides were to blame. When she sampled for bacteria, viruses, and parasites, she found that the birds were basically healthy. Savidge found that the distribution of the snakes on Guam matched up with the areas where birds had disappeared. In addition, the smaller birds disappeared first, suggesting the small size put them at a disadvantage when the snakes arrived. Savidge set bird-bait traps around the island to demonstrate that the snakes indeed liked eating birds. When she repeated this experiment on a nearby island that lacked the snakes, all the birds survived. Lastly, she documented that small mammals on Guam were also preyed upon by the snakes. The invasive brown tree snake was already well adapted to prey upon birds. The speed of

eradication of the birds prevented the bird population from coevolving a survival strategy.

Section: Coevolution Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 29. Refer to Infographic 3. A population of grasshopper mice preys upon a population of beetles. The population of beetles contains individuals with an adaptive trait of squirting a noxious fluid that repels the mice. Over time, the majority of beetles in the population will have the genes that provide for that trait. Use the infographic to describe what changes will need to occur in the grasshopper mouse population to counter what has happened in the beetle population. What is this situation an example of?

FEEDBACK: The grasshopper mouse population is made up of individuals with varying genetic traits. Individual mice that have traits that allow them to better catch the beetles will survive and reproduce better than the other mice. More offspring will then also have those genes/traits. For example, an adaptive trait would be for a mouse to have a tendency to turn objects upside down and place them in the dirt. Beetles captured by these individual mice would then squirt their defensive fluid into the soil instead of on the

mice. Over time, the majority of the mice will have this same trait as the population evolves. This is an example of coevolution in a predator–prey interaction.

Section: Coevolution Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question 4 How do random events influence the evolution of a population?

Multiple Choice 30. Random events that play a role in evolution typically _________ genetic diversity.

A. increase B. decrease C. do not affect D. increase then decrease Answer: B Section: Random events and evolution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 31. Human impact increases instances of which random events?

A. genetic drift and the bottleneck effect B. only the founder effect C. genetic drift and the founder effect D. only the bottleneck effect E. the bottleneck effect and the founder effect Answer: E Section: Random events and evolution Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

32. _______ happens when there is a decrease in the frequency of a particular trait due to random mating.

A. The founder effect B. The bottleneck effect C. Genetic drift D. Natural selection E. Extirpation Answer: C Section: Random events and evolution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 33. Green and blue coral snakes are found in even numbers on an small isolated Pacific island. A hurricane hits the island and randomly kills the majority of the blue coral

snakes. The remaining coral snakes repopulate the island, with green now being the predominant color. With regards to evolution, this change is considered an excellent example of ___________.

A. the founder effect B. speciation C. directional selection D. natural selection E. the bottleneck effect Answer: E Section: Random events and evolution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

34. When populations diverge, like that of the Arctic fox and the red fox, ______________.

A. speciation may occur B. individuals will mate with members of another species C. genetic drift must occur D. the change must have been caused by human activities E. species diversity decreases Answer: A Section: Random events and evolution Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

35. Which type of population is more likely to experience genetic drift?

A. a large population B. a medium population C. a small population D. only animal populations Answer: C Section: Random events and evolution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 36. Which event may lead two populations to undergo speciation?

A. habitat fragmentation B. food availability C. new predators D. isolation E. All of these events may lead to speciation.

Answer: E Section: Random events and evolution Level: 1

Bloom’s Level: Remembering 37. If some members of a bird population had been able to escape Guam and colonize another island, which genetic concept would likely have happened?

A. genetic drift B. the founder effect C. speciation D. the bottleneck effect E. genetic recombination Answer: B Section: Random events and evolution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 38. Refer to Infographic 4. The infographic shows a small random group of beetles being blown by storm winds from island 1 to island 2, which is a new area. This group is now physically isolated from the original population. How would you describe the population on island 2 compared with the original population on island 1? What is this concept called?

FEEDBACK: The storm winds blew a small subset of the population over to the neighboring island. This group was a random sample of the original population, and it is likely less genetically diverse than the original population (only tan and black beetles founded the new island, while the original population also has gray and green beetles).

This is called the founder effect.

Section: Random events and evolution Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 39. You have noticed in your greenhouse that your plants are covered by a pest, so you decide to apply a chemical pesticide. The first time you spray the pesticide, 90% of the

pests are eliminated, but you have noticed that subsequent spraying of the pesticide has resulted in a smaller reduction of the pest population. What is happening in the pest population?

FEEDBACK: The initial spray of the pesticide killed the majority of the pests that were susceptible to the pesticide. The surviving pests had some trait (innate genetic ability) that gave them some resistance to the pesticide. When they reproduced, that trait was passed on to the next generation of pests, resulting in a population with fewer individuals susceptible to the pesticide.

Section: Random events and evolution Level: 2/3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 40. A major river changes course and divides a population of rabbits into two subpopulations. The two groups are reproductively isolated from each other and become subjected to different selective pressures in the two locations. A predator exists on one side of the river but not the other. Over time, the two groups evolve enough that during a drought that temporarily allows the groups to once again intermingle, they can no longer reproduce with each other. What has happened in this example?

FEEDBACK: The genetically isolated groups have evolved distinctly different characteristics. Different genes/traits are selected for on each side of the river due to differing selection pressures (one side evolves to adapt to the predator, while the group on the other side lacks that pressure). Speciation has occurred when the differences are significant enough that they can no longer interbreed.

Section: Random events and evolution Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question 5 What factors impact the pace of evolution and extinction, and why are extinctions that occur quickly more of a concern than those that take a long time to unfold?

Multiple Choice 41. Which of the following is NOT a factor which can influence the speed of evolution?

A. genetic diversity B. size of an individual C. size of the population D. reproductive rate E. generation time Answer: B Section: The pace of evolution and extinction Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 42. Several factors contribute to the endangerment of species, including all of the following EXCEPT _________.

A. habitat destruction

B. anthropogenic climate change C. diversification of genes D. overharvesting E. pollution Answer: C Section: The pace of evolution and extinction Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

43. What is a characteristic seen in many endangered species?

A. high reproductive rates B. long generation times C. fast generation times D. produce many offspring per breeding cycle Answer: B Section: The pace of evolution and extinction Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

44. Which of the following are human activities that could cause an increase in extinction rates?

A. habitat destruction B. pollution C. anthropogenic climate change D. habitat destruction, pollution, and anthropogenic climate change E. habitat destruction and pollution Answer: D Section: The pace of evolution and extinction Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

Guiding Question 6 How do the mass extinction events of the past compare to extinctions in intervening times and today?

Multiple Choice 45. It is estimated that _____ of all species that have ever lived on this planet have gone extinct.

A. 10% B. 25% C. 50%

D. 75% E. more than 99% Answer: E Section: Mass extinctions: Past and present Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 46. In Earth’s history, there has/have been ____ major extinction event(s) leading to the loss of 50% or more of the species present.

A. one B. three C. five D. seven E. nine Answer: C Section: Mass extinctions: Past and present Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 47. Information obtained from the fossil record sets the background rate of extinction per year at _____ species out of every million species.

A. 0.1 B. 1 C. 10 D. 100 E. 1,000 Answer: B Section: Mass extinctions: Past and present Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 48. The most famous major extinction event that occurred on Earth was the _________ extinction, which resulted in the extinction of the dinosaurs.

A. Ordovician B. K-T boundary mass C. Devonian D. Permian E. Triassic Answer: B Section: Mass extinctions: Past and present Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 49. The background rate of extinction describes the ___________.

A. average amount of time a species has before extinction B. amount of time it takes for a similar species to become extinct

C. average rate of extinction in the time periods between mass extinctions D. length of a given mass extinction E. average rate of extinction after human impact on the environment Answer: C Section: Mass extinctions: Past and present Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 50. Compared with the background rate of extinction, currently ___________.

A. species are going extinct much faster than in the past B. the rate of extinction is more than 100 times higher C. humans are greatly enhancing the rate of extinction D. species are going extinct much faster than in the past AND the rate of extinction if more than 100 times higher E. All of these choices are correct.

Answer: E Section: Mass extinctions: Past and present Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 51. Which does NOT represent a human-caused threat to biodiversity?

A. the draining of wetlands for housing developments B. clear-cutting a forest to plant a soybean field C. the population of Earth reaching 7 billion people D. accidental introduction of brown tree snakes to Guam E. All of these answer choices are human-caused threats.

Answer: E Section: Mass extinctions: Past and present Level: Medium Bloom’s Level: Applying 52. One major problem with human stress on ecosystems is that ______.

A. ecosystems are too biodiverse to respond to human-caused threats B. natural selection cannot keep up with the constant human-caused threats C. evolution tends to occur more rapidly while under stress D. newly introduced species almost never thrive in unfamiliar ecosystems E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: B Section: Mass extinctions: Past and present Level: Medium Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 53. The slow extinction of species is always occurring on Earth. Five periods of mass extinction have also happened. Many scientists feel that humans are responsible for causing another era of mass extinction. Which of the following human factors might contribute to this mass extinction?

A. overpopulation B. pollution C. human-made contributions to global climate change D. encroachment on animal habitat E. All of these factors may contribute to the current mass extinction.

Answer: E Section: Mass extinctions: Past and present Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 54. What are the main activities that humans are doing to greatly accelerate the rate of extinction above background levels?

FEEDBACK: Habitat destruction is the primary threat to biodiversity. Other factors are pollution of the environment, overharvesting of organisms, introduction of invasive species, and anthropogenic climate change.

Section: Mass extinctions: Past and present Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 55. Some people insist that human activity is not affecting extinction rates. Many people point out that in the history of Earth, there were several periods of mass extinction before humans were around. As a scientist, what could you do to change their views?

FEEDBACK: What you will need to do is note that those mass extinction events were due to catastrophic events, such as asteroid impacts (K-T mass extinction). Next, you need to demonstrate that the current extinction rate is well above the natural background rate. Note several ways humans are impacting this rate (habitat alteration, pollution, overharvesting, invasive species, and anthropogenic climate change). You can look to examples like the loss of bird species on Guam due to invasive snakes.

Section: Mass extinctions: Past and present Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing/Evaluating 56. Why is the sixth mass extinction event different from previous mass extinction events, and why is it so important?

FEEDBACK: The sixth mass extinction event is rapidly eliminating the biodiversity that humans and the other species on Earth depend on for survival. Previous mass extinction events were caused by massive volcanic eruptions or asteroids. Unlike the previous mass extinction events where humans did not exist on Earth, this event will directly affect us.

In addition, this event is being caused by humans, and steps can be taken to slow or stop this event if humans take immediate action.

Section: Mass extinctions: Past and present Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating

Guiding Question 7 How do humans, intentionally or accidentally, affect the evolution of a population?

57. The difference between natural selection and artificial selection is ____________.

A. artificial selection takes longer than natural selection B. artificial selection works only in animals C. the selective pressure for artificial selection is humans D. there is no selective pressure for artificial selection E. only natural selection leads to pesticide- or antibiotic-resistant populations Answer: C Section: Artificial selection Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 58. The intentional breeding for certain traits, or combination of traits, is ________.

A. natural selection B. the founder effect C. the bottleneck effect D. genetic drift E. artificial selection Answer: E Section: Artificial selection Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 59. A genetic trait causes double muscling in cattle. Breeders mate individuals with this trait to increase muscle mass in their herd. This is an example of ____________.

A. artificial selection B. natural selection C. stabilizing selection D. core speciation E. disruptive selection Answer: A Section: Artificial selection Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 60. Why is artificial selection likely bad for the ultimate survival of a species?

A. It reduces the genetic diversity of the population and thus makes the population more susceptible to disruptions.

B. Only nature can decide what is best for a population.

C. There are not as many individuals in each population, that is, small population sizes.

D. It decreases the rate at which individuals reproduce.

E. There are no adverse effects of artificial selection.

Answer: A

Section: Artificial selection Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 61. Which of the following human activities has the potential to influence selection and affect evolution?

A. use of pesticides B. use of antibiotics C. use of herbicides D. use of pesticides, antibiotics, and herbicides E. use of pesticides and herbicides Answer: D Section: Artificial selection Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

Matching Questions Match each term in the left-hand column to the statement that it best exemplifies.

A. selective pressure

B. extinction

C. evolution

D. genetic drift

E. alleles

F. invasive species

G. coevolution

H. extirpation

I. natural selection

J. genetic diversity

K. endangered

L. artificial selection

M. adaptation

a non-native species whose introduction causes or is likely to cause economic or environmental harm or harm to human health (*f) two species each provide the selective pressure that determines which traits are favored by natural selection in the other (*g) the assortment and abundance of particular variants of genes relative to each other within a population (*o) humans decide which individuals breed and which do not, in an attempt to produce a population with desired traits (*l) the change in gene frequency of a population over time due to random mating that results in the loss of some gene variants (*d) the complete loss of a species from an area; it may be local or global (*b) the heritable variation among individuals of a single population or within the species as a whole (*j) stretches of DNA, the hereditary material of cells, that each direct the production of a particular protein and influence an individual’s traits (*n) differences in the gene frequencies within a population from one generation to the next (*c) the average rate of extinction that occurred before the appearance of humans or that occurs between mass extinction events (*s) local extinction in one or more areas, though some individuals exist in other areas (*h) a species that faces a very high risk of extinction in the immediate future (*k) a trait that helps an individual survive and reproduce

(*m) N. genes O. gene frequencies P. endemic

Q. bottleneck effect

R. founder effect

S. background rate of extinction

the situation that occurs when a small group with only a subset of the larger population’s genetic diversity becomes isolated and evolves into a different population, missing some of the traits of the original (*r) the situation that occurs when population size is drastically reduced, leading to the loss of some genetic variants and resulting in a less diverse population (*q) a nonrandom influence affecting who survives or reproduces (*a) variants of genes that account for the diversity of traits seen in a population (*e) the process by which organisms best adapted to the environment survive to reproduce, leaving more offspring than do less well-adapted individuals (*i) describes a species that is native to a particular area and is not naturally found elsewhere (*p)

Linked Questions Science Literacy Use the graphic below to answer the next three questions.

1. Scientists have been studying natural selection on a certain species of lizard. They found the lizard lives in trees in a small forest, but only in the thick lower branches.

Over time, the body size of the lizards has become larger and heavier to allow them to take advantage of the wide branches. This is an example of ____________ selection.

A. stabilizing B. directional C. disruptive Answer: B Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 2. A large cat predator in the forest has been preying on the lizards. The lizards are forced to find a new habitat and start living in hollowed out branches in the trees. The larger lizards cannot fit into the nest holes, and the smaller lizards cannot climb high enough to find the nest holes. The lizards with medium body sizes are favored. This is ____________ selection.

A. stabilizing B. directional C. disruptive Answer: A Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 3. The cat predators have moved on from the forest, and the lizards can again live in the tree branches. Some lizards move up to the thin higher branches in the tree tops, and

some move down to the thick lower branches. Eventually, the population is made up of small lizards and large lizards. This is ____________ selection.

A. stabilizing B. directional C. disruptive Answer: C Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Making Connections Use the following scenario to answer the following five questions.

A small island is home to a population of butterflies. There are mostly red and yellow individuals in the population, with only a few blue and green individuals. Over time, there are fewer blue and green individuals seen, and the following generations are only red and yellow. A hurricane strikes the island and kills a large portion of the butterfly population. There are enough individuals remaining for the population to recover in size.

A non-native bird predator is accidentally introduced to the island. The birds begin preying on the red butterflies, which stand out on the green leaves of plants. The yellow butterflies are camouflaged on the flowers of plants and do not get eaten. Eventually, some birds notice them and begin eating the yellow butterflies.

1. Which most likely contributed to the decrease in the blue and green individuals in the butterfly population?

A. the bottleneck effect B. the founder effect C. genetic drift Answer: C Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 2. When the hurricane strikes the island and kills part of the butterfly population, what has occurred?

A. the bottleneck effect B. the founder effect C. genetic drift Answer: B Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 3. Which of the following would describe the role of the bird on the island?

A. a selective force B. a genetic drift C. coevolution

D. a genetic mutation Answer: A Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 4. The relationship between the bird and the butterflies would be described as ____________.

A. genetic drift B. the bottleneck effect C. stabilizing selection D. coevolution Answer: D Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 5. The bird would be considered an ____________.

A. invasive species B. adaptation C. endemic species D. extinct species Answer: A Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

MODULE 3.2 1. Palm oil can be found in which of the following products?

A. chocolate B. shampoos C. toilet cleaner D. peanut butter E. Palm oil can be found in all of the above products.

Answer: E Section: Introduction Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 2. What percentage of palm oil comes from plantations in Southeast Asia?

A. 10 B. 25 C. 50 D. 75 E. 95% Answer: E Section: Introduction Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Guiding Question 1 What is biodiversity?

Multiple Choice 3. What is biodiversity?

A. the measurement of individuals in a particular population B. diversity that refers only to coloration of fur, feathers, and skin C. the variety of all living and nonliving things on Earth D. the variety of all living things on Earth E. a field of study that focuses on humans and their interactions with the environment Answer: D Section: Biodiversity: The variety of life Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 4. Which of the following is TRUE of the biodiversity on Earth?

A. There are more categorized than uncategorized species on Earth.

B. There are more uncategorized than categorized species on Earth.

C. There are no uncategorized species on Earth.

D. There are more known species of plants than any other group of organisms.

E. There are more species of mammals than species of insects.

Answer: B

Section: Biodiversity: The variety of life Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 5. There are currently around 1.9 million species that have been identified. What is the total number of species predicted to live on Earth?

A. between 1 million and 2 million B. between 2 million and 3 million C. between 3 million and 11 million D. between 11 million and 19 million E. over 1 billion Answer: C Section: Biodiversity: The variety of life Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 6. Which groupings of organisms are ordered from most diverse to least diverse?

A. plants > fungi > bacteria > insects > vertebrates B. insects > plants > fungi > vertebrates > bacteria C. fungi > insects > bacteria > vertebrates > plants D. insects > vertebrates > plants > fungi > bacteria E. bacteria > insects > plants > fungi > vertebrates Answer: B Section: Biodiversity: The variety of life Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 7. Since the early 1990s, more than 8 million hectares of rainforest have been cleared in Southeast Asia for growing which crop?

A. corn B. rubber trees C. sugar cane D. oil palms E. pineapples Answer: D Section: Biodiversity: The variety of life Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 8. Of the following ecosystems, which likely has the MOST biodiversity?

A. desert B. lake C. temperate forest D. frozen tundra E. tropical rain forest Answer: E

Section: Biodiversity: The variety of life Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 9. Which of the following is NOT an environmental cost of clearing tropical forests?

A. accelerating global warming B. increased soil erosion C. increased flooding D. increased biodiversity E. increased air pollution Answer: D Section: Biodiversity: The variety of life Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 10. What percentage of mammal species originally found in the natural forest can be found on palm oil plantations?

A. 10 B. 95 C. 5 D. 50 E. 75 Answer: A Section: Biodiversity: The variety of life Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

Essay 11. Why do you think scientists know much more about the diversity of mammals than they do insects?

FEEDBACK: It is likely this discrepancy is due to the fact that insects are very small, have a high rate of reproduction, live in almost all environments on Earth, and can adapt to very specific niches (for example, a particular species of fly that lives in the deserts of Nevada is not likely to resemble a fly that lives in a similar environment like the Sahara Desert). All of these characteristics lead to a large diversity of insect species. When looking at mammals, on the other hand, we tend to know more about this group because mammals are larger, are not able to live in as many habitats as insects, and can take a long time to reproduce (think of humans, for example, who biologically cannot reproduce until the age of 12 or 13 years). In short, we know more about mammals because they are less diverse than insects and we are better at finding and identifying them.

Section: Biodiversity: The variety of life Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing/Evaluating

12. Why do tropical areas typically have more biodiversity than colder or drier climates?

FEEDBACK: Tropical areas typically have more niches or habitats in their ecosystem.

Each niche typically has organisms that are specifically suited to that niche and differ from other organisms that live in the same ecosystem but in different niches. The more niches an ecosystem has, the greater the potential diversity of its resident organisms.

Section: Biodiversity: The variety of life Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying/Analyzing 13. Take what you know about biodiversity and climate change. Which ecosystem do you think would be more resistant to the effects of climate change (to a point): one with a high level of biodiversity or one with a low level of biodiversity? Explain your answer.

FEEDBACK: The ecosystem with a high level of biodiversity would likely be more resistant to the effects of climate change than an ecosystem with a lower level of diversity. When an ecosystem has a high level of biodiversity, it is unlikely that any one particular assault, like rising temperatures or increased rainfall, will wipe out all the organisms in that ecosystem, as there are many organisms suited to living in different niches or conditions. If an environmental assault due to climate change were to hit an ecosystem with a lower level of diversity, it would be more likely to do damage because the loss of even one species could be devastating to the ecosystem as a whole.

Section: Biodiversity: The variety of life Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating/Creating Guiding Question 2 Why is biodiversity important?

Multiple Choice 14. Biodiversity has many benefits, including ____________.

A. the regulation of ecosystems B. the selection of particular species to survive C. the ability to predict which species will go extinct in an ecosystem D. the propagation of disease-carrying organisms Answer: A Section: The value of biodiversity Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 15. Which of the following would be an economic benefit of biodiverse ecosystems?

A. enjoyment of a natural area for hiking B. appreciation of a beautiful waterfall C. insects pollinating flowers D. the production of chemicals to manufacture medicines E. water cycling through a forest Answer: D Section: The value of biodiversity

Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 16. Biodiversity is important in a population because ____________.

A. individuals in that population need a variety of mates.

B. it allows the population to be more resistant to disruptions.

C. it increases the population’s vulnerability to extinction.

D. it increases the chances that each member of the population will be identical to each other member.

E. it measures the species’ richness but not the genetic diversity in the population and is therefore a great predictor of ecosystem stability.

Answer: B Section: The value of biodiversity Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 17. What is the estimated monetary value of annual ecosystem services the Earth provides?

A. $1 billion B. $16 billion C. $120 billion D. $122 billion E. $125 trillion Answer: C Section: The value of biodiversity Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 18. What are ecosystem services?

A. a system of trade for nature products B. nonessential processes of nature C. life-supporting ecological processes D. services that are valuable only to humans E. all life-supporting processes that do not garner a monetary benefit for humans Answer: C Section: The value of biodiversity Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 19. What is NOT an example of an ecosystem service?

A. fuel made from forest materials B. water purification C. decomposition of organic material D. camping E. All of these choices are examples of ecosystem services.

Answer: E Section: The value of biodiversity Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 20. Not killing a spider because it scares you is an example of what kind of value?

A. instrumental B. intrinsic C. genetic D. ecosystem Answer: B Section: The value of biodiversity Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 21. You see a bee pollinating a flower. This is an example of which ecosystem service?

A. cultural benefits B. economic provisions C. recreational benefits D. ecosystem regulation and support services Answer: D Section: The value of biodiversity Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

22. If you enjoy hiking in nature, what type of ecosystem services are you enjoying?

A. cultural benefits B. economic provisions C. recreational benefits D. ecosystem support services Answer: A Section: The value of biodiversity Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Guiding Question 3 How do genetic, species, and ecosystem diversity each contribute to ecosystem function and services?

Multiple Choice 23. Which population would be the most likely to survive a disturbance in their ecosystem?

A. one with high genetic diversity B. one with low genetic diversity C. one with no genetic diversity

D. one with medium genetic diversity Answer: A Section: Types of biodiversity: Genetic, species, and ecological Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 24. An ecosystem with high species richness but low evenness would have ____________.

A. many different species, with each population having similar amounts of individuals in the ecosystem B. few species, with one population being overrepresented in the ecosystem C. many different species, with one population being overrepresented in the ecosystem D. few species, with each population having similar amounts of individuals in the ecosystem Answer: C Section: Types of biodiversity: Genetic, species, and ecological Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 25. Biodiversity at the community level is known as ____________ diversity.

A. population B. genetic C. species D. ecological E. biosphere Answer: B Section: Types of biodiversity: Genetic, species, and ecological Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 26. What was the cause of the potato famine in Ireland?

A. The climate was unsuitable for growing potatoes.

B. A fungus attacked and killed the potato population.

C. Sheep ate all the potatoes.

D. The potatoes had too much genetic diversity to survive.

Answer: B Section: Types of biodiversity: Genetic, species, and ecological Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 27. The varieties of apples in the produce section of the grocery store would be an example of ____________ diversity.

A. ecosystem B. genetic C. species D. artificial

E. community Answer: B Section: Types of biodiversity: Genetic, species, and ecological Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 28. Which type of diversity provides the raw material that allows populations to adapt to their environment?

A. ecosystem B. species C. genetic D. community E. population Answer: C Section: Types of biodiversity: Genetic, species, and ecological Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 29. It is common for fast food restaurants to use a particular species of potato to make their French fries. This species has a characteristic shape and size that fits nicely in the potato cutting machines. They also have the desired taste and color the fast food restaurants, and their patrons, prefer. You can image that potato farming for fast food restaurants is a lucrative business. Given what you know about the Irish potato famine, how are fast food restaurants endangering potato crops and farming?

FEEDBACK: The Irish potato famine was so devastating because the lack of genetic diversity of the potato plants left them susceptible to mass infection and death due to the pathogen Phytophthora. Since each potato plant was identical to the next, the pathogen was able to rapidly infect and kill entire fields of plants. When fast food restaurants hire farmers to grow only a very specific species of potato, they are decreasing the genetic diversity of the population. If a pathogen were to infect the fast food potato field, and the plants were susceptible to the pathogen, the disease would spread quickly and decimate the crops, leaving no plant behind. This would reduce the potato production of the nation and likely send many farms into a financial crisis.

Section: Types of biodiversity: Genetic, species, and ecological Level: 2/3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 30. The population of “fast food potatoes” would lack what kind of diversity: genetic, species, or ecological? Please explain your answer.

FEEDBACK: They would, in essence, lack all three. Since each plant is genetically identical to the next, they would lack genetic diversity. Because of this, there would also be a lack in species diversity, since only one species of potato would be present and the variety of organisms that fed or lived on that plant would be reduced when compared to a field of diverse potato species. Since the plants are identical, they would all need the same environmental conditions to grow (that is, nutrient types, amount of water, amount

of sun, and so on). This leads to a lack in ecological diversity, since there would be fewer habitats and niches than would normally exist in a species-diverse potato field.

Section: Types of biodiversity: Genetic, species, and ecological Level: 2/3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 31. How could the effects of global warming diminish ecosystem services? Use genetic, species, and ecosystem diversity in your answer.

FEEDBACK: Ecosystem services are defined as the ecological processes that are essential to make life on Earth possible. Many of these processes are financially lucrative for businesses around the world (like whale watching or campgrounds, for example). As the effects of global warming—including warming ocean waters, melting polar ice caps, and increasing extreme weather—become more pronounced, we will see changes in the genetic, species, and ecosystem diversity of the Earth. Each one of these diversity categories affects overall ecosystem services. There may be a decrease in the genetic diversity found in populations as warmer temperatures select for a few individuals that are genetically similar. It may also be the case that entire populations of organisms are wiped out by the effects of global warming, which thus decreases the species diversity of their ecosystem. What is even more troubling is the effect that global warming is beginning to have on entire ecosystems. As the weather and temperature change globally, there is a loss of ecosystems that have been established for hundreds of years. For example, the warming temperatures are diminishing the polar ice caps, home to many organisms, and may eventually wipe out that entire ecosystem. If the ecosystem diversity decreases, so too shall the species and genetic diversity of Earth. If there is less diversity overall, the ecological processes that make up ecosystem services will also change and become hindered as the species that are relied on to perform the service, like carbon fixation, disappear.

Section: Types of biodiversity: Genetic, species, and ecological Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing/Evaluating Guiding Question 4 What are biodiversity hotspots, and why are they important?

Multiple Choice 32. Which of the following is NOT true of endemic species?

A. They exist in only one area on Earth.

B. They are specially adapted to their environment.

C. An endemic population cannot easily disperse to share genes with other populations.

D. They are less susceptible to extinction than other species.

E. They are commonly found in small isolated ecosystems.

Answer: D Section: Biodiversity hotspots Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

33. What is the MOST likely location of a biodiversity hotspot?

A. prairie B. island C. ocean D. expansive forest E. Sahara Desert Answer: B Section: Biodiversity hotspots Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

34. Biodiversity hotspots cover a small percentage of land and water but hold more than _______ of all plant and vertebrate endemic animal species.

A. 90% to 95% B. 10% to 15% C. 40% to 50% D. 25% to 50% E. 70% to 80% Answer: C Section: Biodiversity hotspots Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

35. How many land and aquatic regions have been designated as biodiversity hotspots?

A. 30 B. 35 C. 36 D. 40 E. 50 Answer: C Section: Biodiversity hotspots Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

36. Why might a species become endangered?

A. habitat loss B. low genetic diversity C. human involvement (for example, hunting, destruction of habitat) D. habitat loss and human involvement

E. habitat loss, low genetic diversity, and human involvement Answer: E Section: Biodiversity hotspots Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Essay 37. What is the connection between endemic species and endangered species?

FEEDBACK: Endemic species are species that exist in only one habitat and would likely not survive anywhere else. Endangered species are species that are at a high risk of becoming extinct. Endemic species can easily become endangered species due to habitat alteration or destruction. Since they are not suited to survive elsewhere, any change in their habitat could lead to mass death and eventual extinction.

Section: Biodiversity hotspots Level: 2/3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 38. Why are biodiversity hotspots important?

FEEDBACK: Biodiversity hotspots are important because it is within these unique ecosystems that many rare and endangered species exist. Therefore, it is important to study and protect these areas. As we have learned, the more diverse (in every sense) the ecosystem, the hardier it is.

Section: Biodiversity hotspots Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question 5 What role does isolation play in a species’ vulnerability to extinction?

Multiple Choice 39. Which of the following is TRUE of isolation and extinction risk?

A. The number of unique species increases with isolation.

B. The larger the population size, the more likely a random event might exterminate the entire group.

C. Isolation increases the chance of recolonization to replace lost members.

D. Isolation increases the genetic diversity of a population.

Answer: A Section: Isolation and extinction risk Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 40. Which human impact contributes to isolation?

A. habitat destruction B. habitat fragmentation C. pollution

D. climate change E. overharvesting Answer: B Section: Isolation and extinction risk Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

341. Which event would NOT lead to possible endemic species loss on a remote island?

A. hurricane B. fire C. deforestation D. introduction of invasive species E. All of these choices could lead to possible endemic species loss.

Answer: E Section: Isolation and extinction risk Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 42. If islands make up a tiny percentage of the landmass of Earth, why have they accounted for around half of all species extinctions in the past 400 years?

FEEDBACK: Islands tend to be isolated ecosystems, especially if they are a far distance away from any mainland. Since their ecosystems are isolated, they likely have a high number of endemic species that exist only in that particular ecosystem. Endemic species are typically lower in genetic diversity as a population because they do not have other populations to mate with (that is, there is no new genetic material entering their gene pool). If there is a disturbance in the ecosystem, from whatever cause, it may wipe out an entire endemic species because of this low genetic diversity.

Section: Isolation and extinction risk Level: 1/2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding/Applying 43. Refer to Infographic 5 below. Which of the islands A, B, or C would have the lowest number of endemic species and why?

FEEDBACK: Island A would have the lowest number of endemic species. It is the closest to the mainland, so species would be able to move between the island and the mainland to share genes. There is the ability for genetic diversity and the introduction of new genes into the population. The populations on the island would not become genetically different and diverge into new species.

Section: Isolation and extinction risk Level: 1/2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

Guiding Question 6 How do habitat destruction and fragmentation threaten species?

Multiple Choice 44. Habitat fragmentation can be detrimental to species because ____________.

A. populations of the same species may be separated and would no longer be able to mate B. there are no livable habitats left after fragmentation C. it increases the chance that species will breed with other species out of necessity D. it decreases the isolation of particular populations E. it encourages genetic diversity, which leads to species diversity

Answer: A Section: Threats to biodiversity Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

45. What is the largest human-caused threat to biodiversity?

A. pollution B. introduction of invasive species C. illegal trade of animal body parts D. habitat destruction E. fair trade practices Answer: D Section: Threats to biodiversity Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 46. What is NOT a cause of habitat destruction?

A. consumer need/want B. water dams C. coal mining D. expansion of cities E. conversion to sustainable farming Answer: E Section: Threats to biodiversity Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 47. What is one situation seen in natural forests that is not found in palm oil plantations?

A. Only half as many birds are found in natural forests than are found on palm oil plantations.

B. Palm oil plantations have lower rates of flooding than natural forests.

C. Palm oil plantations have more insect biodiversity than natural forests.

D. More than 15% of all bird, reptile, and amphibian species on Earth can be found in natural forests.

Answer: D Section: Threats to biodiversity Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 48. The leading cause of habitat destruction has historically been and continues to be ____________.

A. suburban development B. clearing land for agriculture C. mineral mining D. timber harvesting

E. construction of dams in waterways Answer: B Section: Threats to biodiversity Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 49. If a species is extirpated, this means that ____________.

A. it does not exist in any ecosystem—it is extinct B. its close relatives, but not the same species, will continue to exist C. it is extinct in one ecosystem but still exists in others D. it has grown in numbers and disrupts the evenness of the species diversity for that ecosystem Answer: C Section: Threats to biodiversity Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 50. If new ecosystems can replace collapsed ecosystems, why are people still concerned with ecosystem destruction?

A. They are not concerned.

B. New ecosystems typically do not form fast enough to prevent ecosystem services loss.

C. The new ecosystem will be just like the old and will collapse again.

D. The same species will not repopulate the new ecosystem.

E. It costs a lot of money to replace ecosystems.

Answer: B Section: Threats to biodiversity Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying/Analyzing Essay 51. Why is increased genetic diversity tied to an increased chance of survival for populations?

FEEDBACK: It is more likely that a genetically diverse population will have a few individuals survive any given assault—be it environmental, human, disease, and so on— and continue on to repopulate the population.

Section: Threats to biodiversity Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

52. Compare and contrast habitat destruction and habitat fragmentation.

FEEDBACK: Habitat destruction and habitat fragmentation are similar in that they both reduce the “usable” habitat for populations of species. This reduces the genetic, species, and ecological diversity of the ecosystem. Habitat destruction actually destroys habitats, making them unlivable for their former inhabitants. Habitat fragmentation physically

breaks up habitats, maybe through road construction, dam formation, deforestation, and so on, which doesn’t necessarily make them uninhabitable for their residents but greatly impacts the future of the species that live there. Over time, due to this isolation, species will become genetically less diverse and more susceptible to ecological disturbances.

Less genetic diversity means less species diversity, which means the total ecosystem services for that area will be damaged and reduced.

Section: Threats to biodiversity Level: 2/3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 53. If an extirpated species is extinct in only one particular location, is this important or does the fact that it still exists in other places make the extinction not a big deal?

FEEDBACK: The extinction of a species, whether it is in only one particular ecosystem or globally, always has consequences. Just because the species still exists in other places does not mean its absence in the one habitat is not devastating. Ecosystems are based on the intricate relationships between their members (living and nonliving). If one species is missing, this could impact a plethora of relationships in the ecosystem, potentially causing a lot of harm; it might even cause the extinction of other species. Thus extirpation is a big deal with potentially far-reaching consequences.

Section: Threats to biodiversity Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying/Analyzing Guiding Question 7 How can we acquire the resources we need without harming the ecosystems and species that provide those resources?

Multiple Choice 54. What is one major motivation for companies to source sustainably grown palm oil?

A. The palm oil is cheaper.

B. The palm oil tastes better.

C. Their customers demand sustainably grown palm oil.

D. Their customers demand cheaper prices on palm oil products.

E. The government requires them to.

Answer: C Section: Protecting biodiversity Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 455. Why is palm oil a good alternative to other edible oils?

A. Palm oil plantations produce more oil per acre than other oil crops.

B. Palm oil is cheaper.

C. Palm oil is healthier than other edible oils containing trans fats.

D. Palm oil can be sustainably farmed.

E. All of these choices are correct.

Answer: E

Section: Protecting biodiversity Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 56. Why must certified sustainable palm oil plantations be required to minimize their use of fire and pesticides?

A. Fire and pesticides decrease the genetic, species, and ecosystem diversity of the local ecosystem.

B. Fire and pesticides kill the palm trees, causing the farmers to replant the trees every year.

C. Fire and pesticides make the palm oil taste bad.

D. Fire and pesticides may cause harm to plantation workers.

E. Certified sustainable palm oil plantations are not restricted in their use of fire and pesticides.

Answer: A Section: Protecting biodiversity Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 57. What personal choice would NOT protect Earth’s biodiversity?

A. buying captive-bred birds B. planting a rain garden in a ditch by the road C. limiting the use of weed killer on your lawn D. always buying the cheapest product, no matter how it was farmed E. joining a local wildlife monitoring group Answer: D Section: Protecting biodiversity Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 58. In an effort to repair damage to the ecosystem, some lumber companies plant trees after they have cleared the forest for timber. Can you think of any scenarios where this would be a BAD thing for the ecosystem?

FEEDBACK: If not done properly, the replanting of the forest could be more detrimental than just leaving the cleared area to recover on its own. If lumber companies do not consider the species of trees, their abundance, and other foliage that composed the forest before clearing it, they may not plant the correct variety of species for that ecosystem.

For example, if the lumber company planted only one or two species of trees, that would effectively narrow the genetic, species, and ecological diversity of the ecosystem, and we know that this does not make for a long-lived, robust ecosystem.

Section: Protecting biodiversity Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing/Evaluating

59. How do palm oil plantations, a lucrative business, still decrease ecosystem services of the local ecosystems?

FEEDBACK: Ecosystem services are not all tied to the monetary gain of humans. They include things like water and carbon recycling, air purification, and seed dispersal for plants, which do not necessarily provide financial gains for the human populations living in or near the ecosystem. So even though palm oil plantations bring a lot of money into the local economy, the reduced genetic, species, and ecosystem diversity of the fields greatly lowers the ability of that ecosystem to perform its vital services.

Section: Protecting biodiversity Level: 2/3 Bloom’s Level: Applying/Analyzing 60. What are some ways that you can protect biodiversity?

FEEDBACK: There are many different ways that you can help protect biodiversity. By buying products that have been sustainably farmed or contain sustainably farmed ingredients, you are protecting the ecosystem services of that ecosystem and any ecosystem that interacts with it. Become educated on issues surrounding ecological concerns and problems; share this information with others. You could join a local group dedicated to protecting various ecosystems, like lakes and rivers, in your area. These are just a few ways you can become involved to ensure that the genetic, species, and ecological diversity of Earth remain robust and healthy.

Section: Protecting biodiversity Level: 1/2 Bloom’s Level: Remembering/Understanding/Applying

Matching Questions Please match each term in the left-hand column to the statement that best defines it.

1. biodiversity

2. ecosystem services 3. instrumental values

4. intrinsic value

5. genetic diversity

6. species diversity

7. ecological diversity 8. endemic species

9. biodiversity hotspots

10. endangered species

11. habitat destruction

12. habitat fragmentation

13. extirpated

the variety of species, including how many are present (richness) and their abundance relative to each other (evenness) (*6) species at high risk of becoming extinct (*10) an object’s or species’ worth, based on its mere existence; it has an inherent right to exist (*4) the destruction of part of an area that creates a patchwork of suitable and unsuitable habitat areas that may exclude some species altogether (*12) essential ecological processes that make life on earth possible (*2) the alteration of a natural area in a way that makes it unsuitable for the species living there (*11) the variety of life on Earth; it includes species, genetic, and ecological diversity (*1) an object’s or species’ worth, based on its usefulness to humans (*3) the heritable variation among individuals of a single population or within the species as a whole (*5) a species that is native to a particular area and is not naturally found elsewhere (*8) a species that is locally extinct in one or more areas but still has some individual members in other areas (*13) an area that contains a large number of endangered endemic species (*9) the variety within an ecosystem’s structure, including many communities, habitats, niches, and trophic levels (*7)

Linked Questions Science Literacy Use the following graphic to answer the following four questions.

Island A

Island B

Island C

1. Which island would have the highest number of endemic species?

A. A B. B C. C Answer: C Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 2. What is true of the individuals on island A? A. New species or additional individuals will most likely not come over from the mainland, and the population may produce a new species.

B. The individuals can move easily to and from the mainland and will not become genetically different.

C. It will have the most niches and the largest number of species of all the islands.

Answer: B Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 3. Between islands B and C, which one will have more species?

A. B B. C

C. They will have the same number of species.

Answer: C Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 4. Which island would have the lowest number of endemic species?

A. A B. B C. C Answer: A Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

Making Connections Use the scenario to answer the following six questions.

You are taking a trip and would like to go to a place with lots of different plant and animal species. You want to spend time hiking, kayaking, and watching wildlife. You choose a destination in the Hawaiian Islands. The Hawaiian Islands have a large number of species found nowhere else in the world, and many are endangered.

1. When you are out hiking in the tropical jungle, you are amazed at all the different plants you see. You also see many animals and many insects. You are thinking of how we know more about some life forms than others. Of the species you see, the group we know the most about are the ____________.

A. mammals B. plants C. insects D. bacteria Answer: C Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 2. Since Hawaii has a large number of plant and animal species compared to other regions, you would say they have ____________ biodiversity.

A. high B. low C. no Answer: A Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

3. While hiking, you spot a Hawaiian duck, a bird only found in Hawaii. This makes it ____________.

A. extinct B. endemic C. extirpated Answer: B Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 4. You take a snorkeling trip off the coast of one of the islands. You see many fish, corals, and even some dolphins. Your snorkeling trip is an example of which ecosystem service?

A. ecosystem regulation and support B. human provisions C. cultural benefits Answer: C Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 5. From the description, the Hawaiian Islands would be classified as a(n) ____________.

A. biodiversity highlight B. biodiversity hotspot C. endangered hotspot D. tropical hotspot Answer: B Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 6. What is true of the degree of endemism and the relationship to isolation on an island such as one of the Hawaiian Islands?

A. As isolation increases on an island, the degree of endemism generally increases.

B. As isolation decreases on an island, the degree of endemism generally increases.

C. As isolation increases on an island, the degree of endemism generally decreases.

D. As isolation decreases on an island, the degree of endemism generally decreases.

Answer: A Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

MODULE 3.3 1. How many African elephants were estimated killed in 2011 alone?

A. 35,000 B. 40,000 C. 325,000 D. 1 million E. 50 Answer: B Section: Introduction Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 2. Why are elephants killed by poachers?

A. for their tail, to make bracelets form the hair B. for their eyes, which are thought to have medicinal powers C. for their tusks, to make jewelry and carvings D. All of these choices are reasons poachers kill elephants.

Answer: D Section: Introduction Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Guiding Question 1 What are the causes and consequences of species loss?

Multiple Choice 3. Conservation biology is a science whose aim is to preserve ___________.

A. ecosystems B. habitats C. biodiversity D. specific species E. only endangered species Answer: C Section: The causes and consequences of biodiversity loss Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

4. Which are global threats to biodiversity?

A. climate change B. introduction of invasive species C. habitat destruction and fragmentation D. overexploitation E. All of the choices are global threats.

Answer: E

Section: The causes and consequences of biodiversity loss Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 5. Which of the following biodiversity threats is matched correctly to its effect?

A. overfishing — decreased population numbers of the Mekong River dolphin B. pollution — decreased oyster reefs by 85% C. climate change — threatens polar bear habitat in the Arctic Circle D. habitat fragmentation — caused the Bramble Cay melomys to go extinct E. invasive species — increases vulnerability of elephants and tigers to poaching drives Answer: C Section: The causes and consequences of biodiversity loss Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

6. Which of the following is due to human activities?

A. climate change B. introduction of invasive species C. habitat destruction and fragmentation D. overexploitation E. All of the answer choices are caused by human activities.

Answer: E Section: The causes and consequences of biodiversity loss Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 7. Refer to the graph in Infographic 1. Which human activities likely contribute to climate change?

A. logging, agriculture, pollution B. energy production, residential development, aquaculture C. mining, commercial development, fisheries

D. All of these activities contribute to climate change.

E. None of these activities contribute to climate change.

Answer: D Section: The causes and consequences of biodiversity loss Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 8. The number one threat to biodiversity is ___________.

A. habitat fragmentation B. overexploitation C. pollution D. climate change E. habitat destruction Answer: E Section: The causes and consequences of biodiversity loss Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 9. What is the effect on a population as more individuals die off?

A. genetic diversity increases, and the population becomes safer B. genetic diversity decreases, and the population becomes vulnerable to extinction C. genetic diversity decreases, and the population becomes safer D. genetic diversity increases, and the population becomes vulnerable to extinction Answer: B Section: The causes and consequences of biodiversity loss Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 10. What is a keystone species?

A. only threatened species B. a species that impacts the community more than its numbers would predict C. species that have gone extinct D. a species that is poached E. only forest species Answer: B Section: The causes and consequences of biodiversity loss Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 11. Which of the following is/are impacts African elephants have as keystone species?

A. dispersing fruit tree seeds throughout the forest B. trampling young trees in the savanna C. dispersing fertilizer in the form of dung D. opening the forest canopy by felling trees E. These are all impacts African elephants have.

Answer: E

Section: The causes and consequences of biodiversity loss Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 12. Refer to the graph in Infographic 1. Agriculture/aquaculture represents the second greatest threat to species. Why do you think this is? Frame your answer in terms of the major threats to global biodiversity.

FEEDBACK: The major threats to global biodiversity are overexploitation, pollution, climate change, the introduction of invasive species, and habitat destruction and fragmentation. If you consider the common practices of agriculture and aquaculture, you will see that these practices contribute to each major threat of biodiversity: overexploitation in the overfished fishing grounds; pollution from a variety of farm practices like fertilizer and chemical pesticide use; climate change from the multitude of machines needed to run the farms releasing greenhouse gas; introduction of invasive species by purposefully planting species of crops or harvestable organisms like oysters, in an area where they have no natural predators; and habitat destruction and fragmentation in the acres of forests cleared for farmland and coral reefs decimated by overharvesting and pollution. Agriculture and aquaculture impact all of these areas and unfortunately are major players in the endangerment of many organisms.

Section: The causes and consequences of biodiversity loss Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating Guiding Question 2 What conservation status designations are used to identify the threat level?

Multiple Choice 13. According to the Red List, created by the International Union for Conservation of Nature, which classification would be given to a species under the most serious threat?

A. near threatened B. vulnerable C. critically endangered

D. endangered E. least concern Answer: C Section: Conservation status: IUCN designations Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

14. According to the UN Environment Programme, how many of all plants and animals on Earth are at risk of going extinct?

A. 1/2 B. 1/3 C. 1/4 D. 1/8 E. 1/100 Answer: B Section: Conservation status: IUCN designations Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 15. What are threatened species?

A. species we do not have enough data for to determine their population numbers B. only large mammals like elephants, pandas, and whales C. only species poached for their organs or other parts D. species at risk for extinction E. species that have already gone extinct Answer: D Section: Conservation status: IUCN designations Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 16. Which of the following is the correct order for IUCN-threatened species designations from MOST threatened to LEAST threatened?

A. critically endangered > endangered > vulnerable B. vulnerable > endangered > critically endangered C. endangered > critically endangered > vulnerable D. critically endangered > near threatened > vulnerable E. endangered > near threatened > vulnerable Answer: A Section: Conservation status: IUCN designations Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

17. Refer to Infographic 2. Why might the number of species counted in the Red List of Threatened Species be underestimated in every category?

FEEDBACK: Many scientists agree that there is a large percentage of species that are unknown to humans at this time. It is likely that, especially in biodiversity hotspots, damage to ecosystems is affecting more than the known species that are there. There could be several thousand species of insects on the brink of extinction that, as of yet, we don’t know exist.

Section: Conservation status: IUCN designations Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question 3 What is the focus and effectiveness of single-species conservation programs?

Multiple Choice 18. The singling out of well-known species for conservation efforts falls under which approach?

A. ecosystem conservation B. single-species conservation C. landscape conservation D. conservation genetics E. ecosystem restoration Answer: B Section: Single-species conservation programs Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

19. What are some tactics utilized in single-species conservation efforts?

A. captive breeding programs B. release of animals back into the wild C. use of charismatic species—that is, those that garner attention and funds from the public D. fieldwork to monitor species and habitat health E. all of these answer choices are correct Answer: E Section: Single-species conservation programs Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 20. Many zoos participate in species survival plans in which members of a particular endangered species are transferred from zoo to zoo to mate with other members of that species. Why is this mating technique important for the continuation of the species?

A. Oftentimes, zoos will have only one sex of the endangered animal, so to mate those individuals, they must be moved to another zoo with members of the opposite sex.

B. This reduces the genetic diversity of the population as a whole and increases the likelihood that the species will survive and thrive in the wild.

C. This technique allows captive animals to experience different environments, since they are unlikely to ever be released back into the wild.

D. This technique increases the genetic diversity of the next generation of the species, which makes them more suited to weather any disturbances in their natural habitats upon release.

E. There are only a few zoos that are certified to house and rear young, so mating and birth must take place at these facilities.

Answer: D Section: Single-species conservation programs Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 21. What are some limits to the single-species conservation approach?

A. Typically, only cute animals are recipients of this approach.

B. It does not take the entire ecosystem into account.

C. The genetic altering of keystone species does not always produce a more fit species for that ecosystem.

D. Mostly cute animals are recipients of this approach, and it does not take the entire ecosystem into account.

E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: D Section: Single-species conservation programs Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 22. Which of the following would be an example of a flagship species?

A. white warty-back pearly mussel

B. zebra mussel C. brown tree snake D. giant panda E. red robin Answer: D Section: Single-species conservation programs Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

Essay 23. Why do you think single-species conservation efforts have focused on cute and cuddly endangered species? What are the pros and cons to such an approach?

FEEDBACK: Many conservation efforts rely on donations from the public. It is more likely that you are going to give money to a cause that “saves the whales/polar bears/white rhino” than the humble blob fish. For the species that are targeted, this kind of conservation effort can be very successful. It may bring some from the brink of extinction to having healthy and growing populations in the wild. Unfortunately, sometimes the species that are targeted have other pressures, like habitat destruction or poaching, which may not be fully addressed by the conservation efforts, and thus they will likely not reach healthy population conditions in the wild. Another con of this approach is that the majority of endangered species is neither cute nor cuddly. Our friend the blob fish, recently voted world’s ugliest animal, does not benefit from traditional single-species efforts. However, societies like the Ugly Animal Preservation Society, whose motto is “We can’t all be pandas,” are taking these less attractive animals and funding conservation efforts on their behalf. They recognize that any endangered organism, cute or not, is part of a greater ecosystem and has an important role to play.

Section: Single-species conservation programs Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question 4 What is the focus and effectiveness of ecosystem-based conservation approaches?

Multiple Choice 24. In contrast to single-species conservation, ecosystem conservation ___________.

A. focuses only on species of financial interest to humans B. uses measures such as species richness and evenness to guide conservation efforts C. uses genetically modified organisms (GMOs) to increase the health of an ecosystem D. affects only the health of indicator species of an ecosystem E. focuses only on species with a low population number Answer: B Section: Ecosystem-based conservation programs Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

25. Which ecosystem would yield the greatest benefit from ecosystem conservation efforts?

A. an ecosystem with high biodiversity B. an ecosystem with low biodiversity C. Ecosystem conservation efforts would benefit both ecosystems equally.

D. Ecosystem conservation efforts would not benefit either ecosystem.

Answer: A Section: Ecosystem-based conservation programs Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 26. What are some techniques employed by ecosystem conservationists?

A. reforestation B. remediation C. landscape conservation D. monitoring of indicator species E. All of these techniques are employed.

Answer: E Section: Ecosystem-based conservation programs Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 27. What is the goal of ecosystem restoration?

A. to completely restore the ecosystem to the state before humans existed B. to restore the species that have gone extinct from the area C. to return the ecosystem to its original state or as close as possible D. to change the ecosystem into a different one based on the area E. to bring new species into the ecosystem Answer: C Section: Ecosystem-based conservation programs Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 28. In landscape conservation, several indicator species are chosen as a group that uses all vital areas within an ecosystem. What is this group of species called?

A. landscape indicator species B. landscape species suite C. ecosystem conservation suite D. flagship indicator species E. ecosystem indicator suite Answer: B Section: Ecosystem-based conservation programs Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

29. Which of the following groups make up the landscape species suite for the northeastern forests of Congo?

A. giraffes, chimpanzees, and mountain gorillas B. savanna elephants, giraffes, and chimpanzees C. forest elephants, giraffes, and mountain gorillas D. savanna elephants, hyenas, and cheetahs E. forest elephants, chimpanzees, and mountain gorillas Answer: E Section: Ecosystem-based conservation programs Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

Essay 30. Consider the following scenario: A captive breeding program employed by several zoos has had tremendous success in increasing the number of Amazon River dolphins in captivity. The eventual goal of this effort is to release these animals back into their natural habitat, which is increasingly becoming more and more polluted. Do you think this conservation effort will save the Amazon River dolphin? Why or why not? If not, what would you do in conjunction with the breeding program?

FEEDBACK: Alone, this successful breeding program is unlikely to prevent the extinction of the Amazon River dolphin in the wild. Think of it this way: No matter how many members of a species you successfully breed and release back in the wild, if they are going back to an ecosystem that is on the verge of collapse, it will not matter in the end how many individuals there are. If pollution wipes out their food supply or if industrial activities destroy their habitats, they will be unable to survive in that ecosystem. One way to prevent this from happening would be to also employ ecosystem conservation techniques along with the breeding program. If you could prevent the pollution and habitat destruction from poisoning their natural ecosystem, they would have a healthy habitat to be released into and would have a higher chance of survival as a whole.

Section: Ecosystem-based conservation programs Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

Guiding Question 5 How does conservation genetics contribute to the conservation of species?

Multiple Choice 31. What is conservation genetics?

A. conserving a species genome so that it is best adapted to the current environment B. harvesting and saving samples of species genomes from distinct time periods C. a way to inform conservation efforts based on genetic information from species D. techniques that preserve a low genetic diversity of an ecosystem

E. the use of genetically modified organisms (GMOs) to strength a particular ecosystem Answer: C Section: Conservation genetics Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 32. Conservation genetics is useful to determine ___________.

A. whether two populations are distinct species or the same species B. the amount of genetic diversity in a population C. from which region of a country a contraband animal product is from D. whether one population is part of an endangered species E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: E Section: Conservation genetics Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering/Understanding 33. From where can conservation geneticists collect DNA samples to monitor endangered species?

A. hair B. feces C. ivory D. skin cells E. hair, skin cells, feces, and ivory Answer: E Section: Conservation genetics Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 34. Which region of DNA molecules do conservation geneticists study?

A. promoters B. the entire gene sequence C. a portion of the gene sequence that encodes a protein D. small sequences of repeating nucleotides E. Conservation geneticists actually study RNA molecules.

Answer: D Section: Conservation genetics Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

35. Through conservation genetics, poaching hotspots for elephants have been identified.

Where is one of these hotspots located?

A. Cameroon B. Tanzania C. Botswana

D. Zambia E. Zimbabwe Answer: B Section: Conservation genetics Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 36. Refer to Infographic 5. Using the DNA fingerprints, determine from where the unknown tusk was likely to have originated.

A. from the purple elephant population B. from the brown elephant population C. from the blue elephant population D. from the dark green elephant population E. There are not enough data to determine this.

Answer: B Section: Conservation genetics Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

37. With which other conservation efforts could conservation genetics collaborate with?

A. ecosystem conservation B. single-species conservation C. landscape conservation D. remediation E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: E Section: Conservation genetics Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying/Analyzing Essay 38. Why would DNA fingerprinting be a useful tool to monitor some populations of endangered species?

FEEDBACK: Sometimes it is very difficult to get an idea of the health of a population in the wild. It could be due to the population’s habitat being difficult to get to, or the population itself may be elusive to observation and sampling. Since conservation geneticists can collect DNA samples from dung and other tissues, they do not need to see the actual animal in order to gain some information on the animal’s health and behavior.

This technique is also useful to trace contraband animal products back to their origin in order to combat poachers in that area.

Section: Conservation genetics Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 39. What information can be obtained through DNA fingerprinting, and why is it important that DNA fingerprinting be done using microsatellite DNA regions? What is special about these regions?

FEEDBACK: DNA fingerprinting looks at unique patterns of DNA from one population or species to another. Based on the pattern of the fingerprint, a conservation geneticist can glean information as to what the organism is, where it is from, to what species/population it is related, and even certain health characteristics about the individual. The reason that microsatellite regions are used is because these regions accumulate changes (mutations) readily and thus can be traced from generation to generation. The reason that these areas can handle all of these mutations is because microsatellite DNA does not code for any protein, so the organism is not likely to be damaged from mutations in this area.

Section: Conservation genetics Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question 6 What legal protections do threatened species have in the United States and internationally?

Multiple Choice 40. Which conservation treaties or acts are international?

A. Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora B. Convention on Biological Diversity C. Endangered Species Act D. both the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora and Convention on Biological Diversity E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: B Section: Legal protections Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering/Understanding 41. Which strategies are included in the Endangered Species Act to protect endangered species?

A. relocation of populations B. genetic modification C. habitat destruction D. privately funded habitat conservation Answer: A Section: Legal protections Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

42. Which of the following legal protections regulates the international sale and trade of endangered and threatened species or products?

A. Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) B. Convention on Biological Diversity C. Marine Mammals Protection Act D. Lacey Act E. Endangered Species Act Answer: A Section: Legal protections Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 43. What legal protection did the Lacey Act of 1900 give?

A. protection of all marine mammals B. regulation of the trade of endangered species C. prohibition on the sale or possession of illegally obtained wildlife D. pursuit of goals related to biodiversity conservation E. encouragement of wetlands conservation Answer: C Section: Legal protections

Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 44. Which of the following is considered one of the main laws in the United States that protect threatened species?

A. Lacey Act B. Ramsar Convention C. Convention on Biological Diversity D. Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) E. Endangered Species Act Answer: E Section: Legal protections Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

Guiding Question 7 What role do protected area play in species conservation?

Multiple Choice 45. Which of the following is classified as a protected area?

A. wilderness area B. national park C. nature preserve D. wildlife refuge E. All of these answer choices are classified as protected areas.

Answer: E Section: Protected areas Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 46. In which protected area(s) can you hunt and fish?

A. wilderness area B. national park C. nature preserve D. wildlife refuge E. both wilderness areas and wildlife refuges Answer: E Section: Protected areas Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 47. How much of Earth’s total land area is protected to some degree?

A. 7% B. 13%

C. 28% D. 48% E. 62% Answer: B Section: Protected areas Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 48. How much of Earth’s total ocean area is protected to some degree?

A. 1.6% B. 5.8% C. 12.1% D. 19.4% E. 24.4% Answer: A Section: Protected areas Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 49. Why do experts think that protected areas, even though they have been successful in the past, are not a long-term solution for endangered species?

A. There are not enough nature preserves, which have the highest level of protection.

B. Populations within these areas will become inbred after a while, which decreases the genetic diversity and makes the population more vulnerable to disturbances.

C. The areas themselves are being degraded due to factors like global warming and human construction, so the populations within the areas have to go outside of them, in unprotected areas, to find suitable habitats.

D. There is not enough species diversity within these areas.

E. Experts actually think that these kinds of protected areas are the solution for long-term management of endangered species.

Answer: C Section: Protected areas Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 50. Which of the following protected areas are set aside primarily for human recreation?

A. national parks B. wildlife refuges C. wilderness areas D. nature preserves Answer: A Section: Protected areas Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

Essay 51. Why would the sale of legitimately acquired ivory (from elephants deceased from natural causes, for example) increase poaching and the sale of illegally acquired ivory?

FEEDBACK: There are likely several factors at play in this situation. The key factor, however, is supply and demand. If there is a small supply of ivory that is legally available for consumers, the demand for that ivory will go up. Poachers will see this demand as a financial opportunity and collect more ivory through slaughter of protected elephants and thus meet the demand of the market.

Section: Protected areas Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating 52. In which protected area do you think an endangered species would best thrive?

FEEDBACK: Although the situation is different for every endangered species, it is likely that they would do best in a nature preserve. Nature preserves are areas that are closed to hunting and fishing and are generally free of human involvement. Since many of these species are endangered due to human activities, they would likely have the best shot at survival in an area free of humans.

Section: Protected areas Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 53. In Infographic 7, South America is shown as having a large amount of protected areas. Why do you think these protected areas are especially important to the biodiversity of Earth?

FEEDBACK: Since the protected areas fall around the northern half of the country, it is likely that these areas are rainforests. We know from our previous readings that rainforests are typically biodiversity hotspots, meaning that they have a high level of biodiversity. Protecting and preserving these areas helps raise the overall level of biodiversity for the Earth, which in turn makes ecosystems, and the species within them, more resistant to perturbation.

Section: Protected areas

Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating Guiding Question 8 How can local communities and consumers contribute to the protection of biodiversity?

Multiple Choice 54. What is ecotourism?

A. low-impact travel to natural areas that contributes to the protection of the environment B. where travelers go to different ecosystems around the globe C. the ability of a tourist to purchase a small plot of land in a protected reserve D. the financial gain that a community makes through the sale of their contraband animal products to tourists E. virtual travel where the tourist does not impact the environment Answer: A Section: Community and consumer contributions to conservation Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 55. What is the most important aspect of the protection of endangered species and ecosystems?

A. strict laws forbidding the sale of illegal animal products B. international treaties protecting endangered ecosystems C. conservation groups and efforts D. cooperation from the local communities E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: E Section Community and consumer contributions to conservation Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 56. What is a potential cause of a community hunting and selling products from endangered species?

A. droughts B. war C. poor nutrient soil D. disease E. droughts, war, poor nutrient soil, and disease Answer: E Section: Community and consumer contributions to conservation Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 57. What is true in debt-for-nature swaps?

A. The wealthy nation’s debt is forgiven when it donates money to conservation efforts.

B. In exchange for land rights in protected areas, wealthy nations forgive part of a developing nation’s debt.

C. Wealthy nations forgive a part of a developing nation’s debt if that nation promises to pay a percentage of any ecotourism profit to the wealthy nations.

D. Part of a developing nation’s debt is forgiven by wealthy nations if they promise to protect natural areas in their country.

E. Part of a developing nation’s debt is forgiven by wealthy nations if they promise to give the wealthy nations exclusive rights to vacation in protected areas.

Answer: D Section: Community and consumer contributions to conservation Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 58. What is one way a consumer might impact the conservation of species and their habitats?

A. being educated about local and global conservation issues B. buying sustainably produced products C. using fewer resources D. reducing carbon emissions E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: E Section: Community and consumer contributions to conservation Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

59. You own a ranch, and the surrounding areas are being developed for residential and commercial use. You want to limit development on your property and preserve the conservation value of your ranch. Which of the following conservation efforts would be the best option?

A. a debt-for-nature swap B. ecotourism C. joining a nonprofit organization D. a conservation easement Answer: D Section: Community and consumer contributions to conservation Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 60. The overall goal of conservation efforts is to ___________.

A. increase and maintain Earth’s biodiversity B. protect species on the Red List C. increase the ecotourism industry D. make developing countries more financially stable E. protect only land ecosystems and not ocean ecosystems Answer: A

Section: Community and consumer contributions to conservation Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Essay 61. Why would efforts to reduce armed conflict in many communities aid the preservation of endangered species?

FEEDBACK: For conservation efforts to truly succeed in the long term, support from local communities is key. These communities have to see the value in preserving their ecosystems and have to be given the choice to do so. Armed conflict disrupts many aspects of these communities’ lives, including causing food shortages, destruction, disease, and death, to name a few. If a community is starving and has no way to produce or purchase food, they may have to turn to illegal activities, like the sale of ivory, in order to feed their families. Armed conflict oftentimes inhibits help from outside sources as well. Conservationists or even aid workers are sometimes not allowed in the conflicted areas, if the area is too unsafe for them to travel in. This slows down and often stops conservation efforts in these areas, so efforts to reduce armed conflict would help these communities and their endangered members in a myriad of ways.

Section: Community and consumer contributions to conservation Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating 62. Refer to Infographic 8. Which conservation method do you think would benefit an endangered species whose habitat is being destroyed?

FEEDBACK: Actually, any of the listed conservation methods would benefit an endangered species habitat. Ecotourism, debt-for-nature, land trusts, and conservation easements provide communities with financial resources to protect these ecosystems.

Valuing ecosystem services and consumer choices affects ecosystems by sending a message to companies and industries whose products are not sustainably made and saying that we will no longer buy your product. The companies lose money and are forced to

enact new policies toward their business, like sustainable farming. Citizen scientists can also have a great effect on the survival of endangered species by going out to these ecosystems and participating in activities that help better them, be it picking up garbage or destroying a dam that had rerouted a river. The preservation of all species, humans included, will depend on all of these methods and more.

Section: Community and consumer contributions to conservation Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying/Analyzing

Matching Please match each term in the left-hand column to the statement that it best exemplifies 1. conservation biology

2. threatened species

3. keystone species

4. single-species conservation

5. flagship species

6. ecosystem conservation 7. ecosystem restoration

9. indicator species

10. landscape conservation

an international treaty that promotes sustainable use of ecosystems and biodiversity (*13) a species that is particularly vulnerable to ecosystem perturbations, and that, when we monitor it, can give us advance warning of a problem (*9) arrangements in which a wealthy nation forgives the debt of a developing nation in return for a pledge to protect natural areas in that developing nation (*17) an international treaty that regulates the global trade of selected species (*12) the science concerned with preserving biodiversity (*1) the repair of natural habitats back to (or close to) their original state (*7) low-impact travel to natural areas that contributes to the protection of the environment and respects the local people (*16) a management strategy that focuses on protecting one particular species (*4) the primary federal law that protects biodiversity in the United States

11. conservation genetics

12. Convention in International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) 13. Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) 14. Endangered Species Act (ESA)

15. protected areas

16. ecotourism

17. debt-for-nature

(*14) species that are at risk for extinction; various threat levels have been identified, ranging from least concern to extinct (*2) geographic spaces on land or at sea that are recognized, dedicated, and managed to achieve long-term conservation of nature (*15) a species that impacts its community more than its mere abundance would predict (*3) the scientific field that relies on species’ genetics to inform conservation efforts (*11) a management strategy that focuses on protecting an ecosystem as a whole in an effort to protect the species that live there (*6) an ecosystem conservation strategy that specifically identifies a suite of species, chosen because they use all the vital areas within an ecosystem; meeting the needs of these species will keep the ecosystem fully functional, thus meeting the needs of all species that live there (*10) the focus of public awareness campaigns aimed at generating interest in conservation in general; usually the focus is an interesting or charismatic species, such as the giant panda or tiger (*5)

Linked Questions Science Literacy The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) has maintained an inventory, called the “Red List,” of the extinction risk for the world’s species since 1963. In the following IUCN graph, the total number of species per group is at the end of each bar in the graph. Use the graph to answer the next 5 questions:

1. The group with the most proportion of species in the endangered category is the A. cycads.

B. conifers.

C. amphibians.

D. mammals.

Answer: A Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 2. The group with the largest total number of species is the A. amphibians.

B. sharks and rays.

C. freshwater crabs.

D. birds.

Answer: D Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 3. Which of the following groups has the highest proportion of data deficient species?

A. amphibians B. lobsters C. groupers D. sharks and rays Answer: D Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 4. Approximately what percentage of amphibians are classified as endangered and critically endangered?

A. 10% B. 20%

C. 40% D. 70% Answer: B Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 5. How many total number of species of conifers are shown?

A. 100 B. 609 C. 501 D. 163 Answer: B Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Making Connections Use the following scenario to answer the next 5 questions: You are working as a conservation biologist. You travel around the world and work to preserve biodiversity in many areas, help organizations, and give talks to educate about biodiversity loss.

1. You work with the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) on several threatened species. A threatened species is one A. at risk for extinction.

B. extinct in the wild, but some individuals are still found in zoos or protected areas.

C. that is labeled as data deficient by the IUCN. D. that needs specific habitat to survive.

Answer: A Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 2. You are working with the Red Wolf, a critically endangered species in the southeastern United States. Your conservation strategy is to establish a Species Survival Plan to use a captive breeding program to increase the population numbers. The ultimate goal of this plan would be to A. restore the habitat of the red wolf.

B. increase legal protections for the red wolf.

C. release more red wolves into the wild.

D. create protected areas for the red wolf.

Answer: C Section: Science literacy

Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 3. You are giving a talk about your conservation work. Someone in the audience asks what she can do to help conservation efforts. You talk about low-impact travel to natural areas, which can contribute to conservation by bringing in money to protect the environment. This is known as A. debt-for-nature swaps.

B. a conservation easement.

C. valuing ecosystem services.

D. ecotourism.

Answer: D Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 4. You are asked to work on a conservation project in the Costa Rican rainforest. The plan is to use an ecosystem-based conservation approach to return part of the rainforest ecosystem to its original state after it had been converted to cropland.

This is an example of A. landscape conservation.

B. ecosystem restoration.

C. a debt-for-nature swap.

D. an international legal habitat protection.

Answer: B Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 5. Part of your conservation work is done with monarch butterflies, and you are part of a team gathering data to see if the species show have legal protection in the Unites States under the federal law that protects biodiversity. That law is the A. Convention on Biological Diversity.

B. Endangered Species Act. C. Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora.

D. Lacy Act. Answer: B Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

MODULE 4.1 Guiding Question 1 How and why have human population size and growth rate changed over time?

Multiple Choice 1. Which of the following is NOT a reason the global growth rate surged as a result of the Industrial Revolution in the 1700s?

A. greater use of vaccines B. access to cleaner water C. improved nutrition D. improvements to the educational system Answer: D Section: Human population: Past, present, and future Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 2. Life expectancy at birth has more than doubled since ____.

A. 1600 B. 2011 C. 1800 D. 1920 E. 1960 Answer: C Section: Human population: Past, present, and future Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 3. Zero population growth occurs when the population reaches ____.

A. demographic transition B. the replacement fertility rate C. the total fertility rate D. the infant mortality rate E. population momentum Answer: B Section: Human population: Past, present, and future Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 4. When does zero population growth occur?

A. when population growth rates decline B. when birth rates equal death rates C. when the replacement fertility rate is higher than the death rate D. when death rates fall E. when birth rates fall and death rates continue to rise Answer: B

Section: Human population: Past, present, and future Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 5. Which of the following is NOT a good predictor of population growth in a country?

A. the land mass of a country B. crude death rate C. crude birth rate D. population momentum E. All of these answer choices are good predictors.

Answer: A Section: Human population: Past, present, and future Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 6. The change in population size over time is known as ________.

A. population momentum B. crude birth rate C. life expectancy D. population growth rate E. total fertility rate Answer: D Section: Human population: Past, present, and future Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 7. Which event 10,000 years ago resulted in a dramatic growth spurt in global human population?

A. an agricultural revolution B. the Bronze Age C. the Computer Age D. the Industrial Revolution E. the Black Death in Europe Answer: A Section: Human population: Past, present, and future Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 8. Annual growth rates peaked around ____.

A. 2015 B. 1955 C. 1963 D. 1800 E. 2011 Answer: C Section: Human population: Past, present, and future

Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 9. The global population has roughly doubled since _____ to reach the current size.

A. 1750 B. 1800 C. 1935 D. 1967 E. 2000 Answer: D Section: Human population: Past, present, and future Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Applying Essay 10. Refer to Infographic 1. As an emergency food supply in World War II, 20 reindeer were taken to an island in the Pacific, along with troops stationed there. Shortly thereafter, the war ended and the troops returned home, leaving the reindeer behind. After 10 years, the population of reindeer had increased to 6,000. However, with no predators and limited food and space available on the island, the population crashed, with no reindeer remaining after 10 more years. Describe what lessons can be learned from this as it applies to human populations on Earth.

FEEDBACK: The island can be viewed as an analogy for our Earth. With limited space and resources available, unchecked population growth will reach a point where not enough resources are available. This could lead to starvation, conflict, and collapse of the human population, just as it did for the reindeer on the island.

Section: Human population: Past, present, and future Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 11. The discovery of penicillin, the first antibiotic, changed the face of disease management and treatment. For the first time, people were surviving infections that before would have killed them. How would you think antibiotics such as penicillin affect a population’s growth rate?

FEEDBACK: With antibiotic treatment, more people survive diseases that would normally kill them. Since more people are surviving to reproduce, and their quality of life is improved (that is, they are not sick for long periods of time), antibiotics increase a population’s growth rate.

Section: Human population: Past, present, and future Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Guiding Question 2 How big is the human population today, and where do most of these people live?

Multiple Choice 12. The global population in 2017 was approximately _________.

A. 700,000 B. 7 million C. 7.5 billion D. 700 million E. 70 billion Answer: C Section: Human population: Size and distribution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 13. More than half of the world’s population lives in ____.

A. North America B. South America C. Europe D. Asia E. Africa Answer: D Section: Human population: Size and distribution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 14. Worldwide, most human populations are located close to ____.

A. oceans or rivers B. mountains C. grasslands

D. deserts E. forests Answer: A Section: Human population: Size and distribution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 15. To control population growth, leaders in China and India have tried ____.

A. prohibiting families from having more than one child B. forced sterilization for men C. forced sterilization for women D. fines and penalties E. All of these answer choices have been tried.

Answer: E Section: Human population: Size and distribution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 16. Emigration is the movement of individuals ____.

A. out of an area B. closer to urban areas C. into an area D. closer to coastal areas E. into more populated areas Answer: A Section: Human population: Size and distribution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 17. Why were population control measure taken by leaders of China and India in past years unsuccessful?

FEEDBACK: Most of the programs to control population in China and India were considered human rights violations. The Chinese government denied state-funded education and health care to all but first-born children, and families who didn’t comply often lost jobs or faced fines. In India, the government established vasectomy camps for sterilization and coerced men and women into surgery through offering payment or withholding food rations.

Section: Human population: Size and distribution Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question 3 What factors affect population growth?

Multiple Choice

18. The growth rate of a population is affected by which of the following?

A. crude birth rate B. crude death rate C. emigration D. immigration E. All of these answer choices affect the growth rate.

Answer: E Section: Factors that affect population growth Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 19. The crude death rate is defined as the number of deaths per ____ individuals per year.

A. 10 B. 100 C. 1,000 D. 10,000 E. 100,000 Answer: C Section: Factors that affect population growth Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 20. Which statement is FALSE? A. More and less developed countries have similar values for demographic factors.

B. Desired family size is one of the best predictors of actual fertility.

C. The need for labor is a common pronatalist pressure in agrarian societies.

D. Total fertility rate is the average number of children a woman has in the course of her lifetime.

E. A high infant mortality rate contributes to higher fertility.

Answer: A Section: Factors that affect population growth Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 21. Cultural and economic forces that encourage women to have more children are called __________.

A. pronatalist pressures B. population momentum C. total fertility rates D. demographic transitions Answer: A Section: Factors that affect population growth Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

22. A good example of a demographic factor that influences population changes is ________.

A. education B. economic conditions C. cultural values D. health care E. All of these factors influence population changes.

Answer: E Section: Factors that affect population growth Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 23. Which of the following is TRUE regarding values for demographic factors between more and less developed countries?

A. Developed countries have higher total fertility rates.

B. Life expectancy in developing countries is higher.

C. Infant mortality rates are lower in developing countries.

D. Crude birth rates are higher in developing countries.

E. Life expectancy is higher in developing countries.

Answer: D Section: Factors that affect population growth Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 24. The average number of children that a woman has over her lifetime is called the _______.

A. replacement fertility rate B. total fertility rate C. crude birth rate D. population momentum E. desired fertility Answer: B Section: Factors that affect population growth Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 25. The rate at which children must be born to replace those dying in the population is called ____________.

A. positive growth B. fertility rate C. demographic transition D. carrying capacity E. replacement fertility rate Answer: E Section: Factors that affect population growth Level: 1

Bloom’s Level: Remembering 26. Globally, the replacement fertility rate is ______.

A. 1 B. 2 C. 2.1 D. 3 E. 0 Answer: C Section: Factors that affect population growth Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 27. What is total fertility rate (TFR)? How do programs such as Social Security, pension plans, and Medicare affect TFR? FEEDBACK: Total fertility rate is the number of children the average woman has in her lifetime. Without those programs, parents would likely produce more children in the hopes that they would be taken care of in old age. The provision of those programs lessens the need to produce additional children.

Section: Factors that affect population growth Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 28. A less developed country with high infant mortality and extensive poverty has a total fertility rate (TFR) of 5.7. Very few women receive a secondary education, and most do not work outside the home. What pronatalist pressures can you identify? What strategies can you propose to successfully lower TFR in this country?

FEEDBACK: Pronatalist pressures are cultural and economic forces that encourage women to have more children. In this example, these pressures include the need for labor (to help save a family from poverty), the lack of other options for women (limited education and opportunities outside the home), and a high infant mortality (trying to have more children to increase the chances that some will survive to adulthood). Lower TFRs are associated with increased female education and status as well as increased access to health care, including contraceptives.

Section: Factors that affect population growth Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 29. Why would airlifting crates of condoms and dropping them over African countries with high total fertility rates not be a successful strategy at slowing global population growth rates? What factors need to be considered, beyond making contraceptives available?

FEEDBACK: Desired family size (how many children a couple wants) is one of the best predictors of actual fertility. In addition to making contraceptives available, one would need to consider the customs of the people (for example, there may be religious

objections to contraceptives), as well as the status and education of women living there. If contraceptives are incorporated into a larger family planning scheme, people might be more likely to see benefits of smaller family sizes.

Section: Factors that affect population growth Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question 4 How does the age structure of a population influence its growth?

Multiple Choice 30. A country with a growing population will have a ________ age structure diagram, while a country with a shrinking population will have a ________ age structure diagram.

A. pyramid-shaped; bottom-heavy B. evenly distributed; pyramid-shaped C. bottom-heavy; top-heavy D. evenly distributed; top-heavy E. top-heavy; bottom-heavy Answer: C Section: Age structure and population momentum Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 31. Which of the following is an issue that a country with a top-heavy age structure diagram would face?

A. younger members of the population being forced to care for a large number of older relatives B. a shrinking workforce C. higher wages, better working conditions, and more jobs to choose from for younger members of the population D. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: D Section: Age structure and population momentum Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 32. An age structure diagram that shows a significant loss in the male population for a specific age group is likely representative of __________.

A. epidemic B. war C. pandemic D. emigration E. natural selection Answer: B Section: Age structure and population momentum Level: 2

Bloom’s Level: Applying 33. Japan’s population is fairly stable and is represented by an age structure diagram that looks like a(n) ________.

A. pyramid B. inverted pyramid C. column D. circle E. square Answer: C Section: Age structure and population momentum Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 34. Kerala has population momentum for two reasons: lots of ______ and lots of _____.

A. younger people; females B. younger people; males C. older people; females D. older people; males E. females; males Answer: A Section: Age structure and population momentum Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 35. Today, the United States and France each exhibit an aging population. Why is this such a concern for demographers?

A. Too many babies are being born.

B. People are dying earlier.

C. More people are retiring with fewer younger people to support them.

D. There isn’t enough housing for the people.

E. The aging population is producing more waste than younger people.

Answer: C Section: Age structure and population momentum Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Essay 36. Refer to Infographic 4. Looking at these three age structure diagrams, explain which country will experience rapid population growth during the next two decades.

FEEDBACK: Niger will undergo rapid population growth in the next few decades. The majority of Niger’s population is under 30 and is in either the pre-reproductive or reproductive stages of life. As these individuals have children, those children will add to the population. With Niger’s population being so young, it has a very high capacity for growth (high population momentum).

Section: Age structure and population momentum Level: 1/2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 37. You have been assigned the task of determining if a population will be growing, slowing, or declining. What aspects of an age structure diagram will help you determine what will happen to the population in the future?

FEEDBACK: To determine what will likely happen to the population, you would need to look at the pre-reproductive and reproductive cohorts. If these cohorts are large, the potential to add more individuals to the population through birth is great, resulting in a high population momentum. On the other hand, if these cohorts are small, the potential to add more individuals through birth is limited, resulting in a slowing or even decreasing population. Additionally, you would need to look at the ratio of males to females. High numbers of women in the reproductive and pre-reproductive cohorts increase the likelihood that the population will grow.

Section: Age structure and population momentum Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question 5 What is the demographic transition, and why is it important?

Multiple Choice 38. As a country progresses from the preindustrial stage to the postindustrial stage, what will happen to the birth rate and death rate?

A. Both will increase.

B. Both will decrease.

C. Both will remain unchanged.

D. Birth rate will increase, and death rate will decrease.

E. Birth rate will decrease, and death rate will increase.

Answer: B Section: Addressing population growth: The demographic transition Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 39. The industrializing stage of the demographic transition is characterized by _______ population growth.

A. moderate B. slow C. very slow D. rapid E. declining Answer: D Section: Addressing population growth: The demographic transition Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 40. As a country’s economy changes from preindustrial to postindustrial, low birth and death rates replace high birth and death rates. This phenomenon is known as _____________.

A. replacement fertility rate B. demographic transition C. zero population growth D. total fertility rate E. population densities Answer: B Section: Addressing population growth: The demographic transition Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 41. _________ have already undergone the demographic transition.

A. Developing countries B. Developed countries C. Countries with high replacement fertility rates D. Agrarian societies Answer: B Section: Addressing population growth: The demographic transition Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 42. In the mature industrial stage, what happens to birth and death rates?

A. Birth rates remain high while death rates drop.

B. Birth rates begin to fall after death rates drop.

C. Birth and death rates are equal and low.

D. Birth and death rates are equal and high.

E. Birth rates drop as death rates rise.

Answer: B Section: Addressing population growth: The demographic transition Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 43. In which stage of the demographic transition does most population growth occur?

A. preindustrial B. industrializing C. mature industrial D. transitional industrial E. postindustrial Answer: C Section: Addressing population growth: The demographic transition Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 44. Using the following information, at what stage in the demographic transition would this country be classified in: a decline in the death rate, advances in food safety and health care, a decline in the birth rate, and a slowing population growth?

FEEDBACK: This country would be in stage 3 (mature industrial). Stage 3 of the demographic transition is characterized by slowing population growth, a falling death rate as conditions improve, a decline in birth rate, and a mature industrial base.

Section: Addressing population growth: The demographic transition Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 45. Refer to Infographic 5. The AIDS epidemic continues to affect certain African countries especially hard, as it targets individuals of reproductive and pre-reproductive age. Describe how this epidemic might prevent a country from proceeding through the demographic transition. In which stage might it be stuck?

FEEDBACK: In the demographic transition, the need for couples to have many children declines as health care improves and infant mortality declines. The culture changes as couples are more assured that some of their children will make it to adulthood. In areas hit with the AIDS epidemic, the size of the reproductive age group is constrained. In addition, the epidemic takes an economic toll, which also encourages having more children to help support families. These countries become stuck in stage 2 (industrializing) because the death rates do not fall, and this also encourages the birth rates to remain high.

Section: Addressing population growth: The demographic transition Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating Guiding Question 6 How can addressing social justice issues help achieve zero population growth?

Multiple Choice 46. Addressing which of the following will help countries lower their total fertility rates?

A. poverty B. high infant mortality C. lack of education for women D. lack of job opportunities for women E. All of the answer choices are correct.

Answer: E Section: Addressing population growth: Social justice Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

47. Which of the following would NOT be a useful approach to helping a country reach zero population growth?

A. identifying reasons why birth rates are high B. increasing educational opportunities for women C. increasing access to family planning programs and contraceptives D. educating men and providing them with job opportunities E. providing better maternal and infant health care Answer: D Section: Addressing population growth: Social justice Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 48. Which of the following correlates with lower population growth in many regions?

A. access to the internet B. education of boys C. reduced access to health care D. economic opportunities for men E. education of girls Answer: E Section: Addressing population growth: Social justice Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 49. Which of the following social justice issues influence desired fertility and total fertility rates?

A. education for women B. access to health care C. land reform for women to own property D. access to birth control E. All of these answer choices influence fertility.

Answer: E Section: Addressing population growth: Social justice Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 50. The correlation between social justice and curbing population growth depends heavily on ___________.

A. economics B. health care C. education D. culture E. government Answer: D Section: Addressing population growth: Social justice Level: 2

Bloom’s Level: Understanding

Essay 51. The global replacement fertility rate is approximately 2.33 children per woman. Why is this value higher than the 2.1 replacement fertility rate in the United States? If the current global total fertility rate (TFR) of 2.5 were brought down to 2.33, would that be enough to allow for sustainable existence of humans on Earth? What others factors must we also consider?

FEEDBACK: The global replacement fertility rate of 2.33 is due to higher mortality rates in developing countries. Even if global TFR were brought to 2.33 and we approached zero population growth, the environmental impacts of overconsumption of resources and waste generation must also be considered.

Section: Addressing population growth: Social justice Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating 52. You have been assigned the task of helping a developing country transition from demographic stage 2 (industrializing) to demographic stage 3 (mature industrial). How would you accomplish this task?

FEEDBACK: You would want to focus on programs that work within the cultural and religious traditions of the population. Specifically, look at programs that address poverty, infant mortality, lack of educational opportunities for women, and lack of career opportunities for women.

Section: Addressing population growth: Social justice Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question 7 What determines Earth’s carrying capacity for humans and can Earth support the current or future (projected) human population?

Multiple Choice 53. In terms of reaching Earth’s carrying capacity, developing countries exacerbate the problem due to their ________, while developed countries also aggravate the situation due to their ___________.

A. unsustainable resource use; high fertility rates B. high fertility rates; overconsumption C. high immigration rates; low emigration rates D. gendercide; overconsumption E. use of nonrenewable energy; high death rates Answer: B Section: How many people can Earth support?

Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

54. To feed an increasing world population, humanity has needed to increase the carrying capacity of the planet. This has involved ___________.

A. dependence on the use of fossil fuels to grow food B. dependence on the use of herbicides to grow food C. removing more fish from the oceans than can be repopulated D. destruction of animal habitat for human use E. It has involved all of the above issues.

Answer: E Section: How many people can Earth support?

Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 55. The carrying capacity of an area depends on ___________.

A. resource availability and use B. the growth rate of a population C. the transition to renewable energy sources D. the level of education of the people E. economic level of the government Answer: A Section: How many people can Earth support?

Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 56. Which of the following correctly describes the relationship between carrying capacity and ecological footprints in a region?

A. Less developed regions tend to have a greater number of people, but a smaller per capita ecological footprint.

B. More developed regions tend to have a greater number of people, but a smaller per capita ecological footprint.

C. Less developed regions tend to have a fewer number of people, but a smaller per capita ecological footprint.

D. Less developed regions tend to have a fewer number of people, but a larger per capita ecological footprint.

E. More developed regions tend to have a greater number of people, but a greater per capita ecological footprint.

Answer: A Section: How many people can Earth support?

Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 57. What is the ultimate population question?

A. Is the carrying capacity 7 billion people?

B. Is the carrying capacity 9 billion people?

C. Should China continue its one-child policy?

D. What is the acceptable quality of life?

E. Is population growth linked to climate change?

Answer: D Section: How many people can Earth support?

Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 58. An increase in population causes all but which of the following?

A. an increased standard of living due to technology B. land degradation C. water supply depletion D. water pollution E. an impoverished environment Answer: A Section: How many people can Earth support?

Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 59. Refer to the graphic below. Use the infographic to explain how countries in Latin America cut down vast amounts of forests despite not actually needing that quantity of the resource for themselves.

FEEDBACK: Many resources, including timber, are exported from Latin America to wealthy countries such as the United States that consume far more resources than the developing world.

Section: How many people can Earth support?

Level: 2

Bloom’s Level: Applying 60. How does overconsumption in developed countries, such as the United States, affect countries in other regions, such as Asia?

FEEDBACK: Developed countries use more resources, especially fossil fuels. This disrupts the distribution of resources to developing countries, causing less to go around.

Also, the overuse of fuels increases greenhouse gases in the atmosphere. Climate change is a global, not local, issue. As a result, typhoons, flooding, drought, and so on can affect countries far removed from the countries burning the fuels. Bangladesh is a classic example. Rising sea level from climate change is disrupting flood cycles there. Also, destruction of trees along the rivers in India is having similar results in Bangladesh.

Therefore, a very poor country is made poorer by events happening elsewhere and over which they have no control.

Section: How many people can Earth support?

Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 61. Refer to the image below. Only one region shown in this graph produces more resources than it uses. How is biocapacity related to population?

FEEDBACK: If the entire world uses more resources than they produce, the planet will soon run out of resources. Asia, North America, and Europe have to depend on imports.

It is estimated that we actually need 1.5 Earths to sustain our lifestyle. Realistically, we should leave behind enough resources so that they can replenish themselves. In reality, we are not doing this.

Section: 4.5 Level: 2/3

Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

Matching Questions Match each term in the left-hand column to the statement that it best exemplifies.

A. population growth rate B. demographic factors C. carrying capacity D. emigration

E. population momentum F. immigration

G. zero population growth H. demographic transition I. total fertility rate (TFR) J. ecological footprint K. pronatalist pressure L. replacement fertility

M. desired fertility

N. demography

the absence of population growth; occurs when birth rates equal death rates (*g) the number of individuals in an area exceeds the carrying capacity of that area (*q) factor that increases the desire to have children (*k) the percentage of the population that is distributed into various age groups (*o) the movement of people into a given population (*f) population characteristics, such as birth rate or life expectancy, that influence how a population changes in size and composition (*b) the statistical analysis of the characteristics of a population (*n) the movement of people out of a given population (*d) the number of children the average woman has in her lifetime (*i) the number of children under 5 years of age that die per every 1,000 live births that year (*p) the tendency of a young population to continue to grow even after birth rates drop to “replacement rates” (*e) the population size that an area can support for the long term; it depends on resource availability and the rate of per capita resource use by the population (*c) the change in population size over time that takes into account the number of births and deaths as well as immigration and emigration numbers (*a) theoretical model that describes the expected drop in once-high population growth rates as economic conditions improve the quality of life in a population (*h)

O. age structure

P. childhood mortality rate Q. overpopulated

the rate at which children must be born to replace those dying in the population (*l) the ideal number of children an individual indicates he or she would like to have (*m) the land area needed to provide the resources for, and assimilate the waste of, a person or population (*j)

Linked Questions Science Literacy Use Infographic 7 below to answer the next six questions.

1. In which year did we begin to use more resources than we could replace in the long term?

A. 1950 B. 1960 C. 1970 D. 1980 E. 1990 Answer: C

Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 2. The resource deficit on 2013 was ______ billion global hectares.

A. 8.4 B. 12.2 C. 20.6 D. 32.8 Answer: A Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 3. Approximately how many Earth’s worth of resources was needed in 2013 to meet our needs?

A. 1 B. 1.5 C. 1.7 D. 2 E. 2.5 Answer: C Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 4. How much larger in global hectares is the per capita footprint of the United States compared to China?

A. 3.6 B. 4.0 C. 5.0 D. 8.6 Answer: C Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 5. Which country has the smallest ecological footprint in global hectares per person?

A. Luxembourg B. United States C. United Kingdom D. China E. Haiti Answer: E Section: Science literacy Level: 2

Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 6. Which of the following countries would have a per capita footprint comparison similar to the United States?

A. Canada B. Thailand C. India D. Nigeria Answer: A Section: Science literacy Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Making Connections Use the scenario below to answer the next five questions.

In the fictitious country of Ecoland, 75% of the population is under age 30. There are better economic conditions and health care than there have been, but birth rates are still high. Desired fertility is high due to the culture in Ecoland. Children are needed to work in family businesses, and women do not have access to education or contraceptives.

Ecoland is very environmentally conscious and uses resources in a sustainable manner, so they have a small per capita ecological footprint.

1. What would the age structure diagram of Ecoland look like?

A. The base would be smaller than the midpoint.

B. The base would be equal to the midpoint.

C. The base would be wider than the midpoint.

Answer: C Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 2. Which of the following would be true of Ecoland’s population?

A. They would have high population momentum.

B. They would have an average population momentum.

C. They would have low population momentum.

Answer: A Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 3. The demographic transition stage Ecoland is currently in would be ___________.

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Answer: B

Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 4. One way Ecoland could address reducing total fertility and helping the country reach zero population growth would be to ___________.

A. educate girls.

B. allow men to hold more jobs.

C. cultivate more crop fields.

D. increase immigration.

Answer: A Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 5. Ecoland has a small ecological footprint. This means an average person in Ecoland uses _________ a person in another similar country.

A. fewer resources than B. the same amount of resources as C. more resources than Answer: A Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

MODULE 4.2 1. In the New York case study, the South Bronx handled ______ of the entire city’s waste.

A. 5% B. 10% C. 15% D. 40% E. 80% Answer: D Section: Introduction Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Guiding Question 1 What is the pattern of global urbanization and megacity growth in recent decades?

Multiple Choice 2. Densely populated regions that include cities and the suburbs that surround them are known as _________________.

A. urban areas B. sprawl zones C. core areas D. exurbs Answer: A Section: Global urbanization patterns Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 3. _____________________ is the migration of people to large cities.

A. Rural migration B. Sprawl zones C. Urbanization D. Exurbs Answer: C Section: Global urbanization patterns Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 4. Which of the following statements is true about the world’s population?

A. Population growth has reached peak levels.

B. People are moving out of cities and into rural areas.

C. People are moving out of rural areas and into cities.

D. Equal amounts of people live in rural areas and cities.

Answer: C Section: Global urbanization patterns

Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 5. All the following statements are true about the movement of the world’s population EXCEPT _________________.

A. more people live in urban areas than in rural areas B. the rate of population growth has increased since the end of the 20th century C. urbanization is occurring in developed, developing, and nondeveloped countries D. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: B Section: Global urbanization patterns Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 6. How many megacities are there predicted to be by 2030?

A. 5 B. 34 C. 20 D. 41 E. 100 Answer: D Section: Global urbanization patterns Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 7. Where are the majority of megacities predicted to be in 2030?

A. Asia B. North America C. South America D. Europe E. Africa Answer: A Section: Global urbanization patterns Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 8. What is the population size generally considered for classifying a city as a megacity?

A. 1 million B. 5 million C. 10 million D. 50 million E. 100 million Answer: C Section: Global urbanization patterns Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

Essay 9. Explain the patterns in the development of megacities from the mid-20th century to 2030.

FEEDBACK: In the 1950s, there were only two cities that would classify as megacities (those with populations greater than 10 million): New York City, which was the largest in the world with 12.3 million people, and Tokyo, a close second with 11.3 million people.

By 2014, the number of megacities expanded to 28, and that number is expected to increase to 41 cities by 2030. There are also patterns in the rate of growth that differ across the globe. Cities such as Tokyo, New York, and Mexico City (megacities in 1980) will continue to grow, but their rate of growth will be greatly exceeded by many Asian cities, such as Mumbai, Shanghai, and Delhi, each of which is expected to approximately triple in size between 1980 and 2030.

Section: Global urbanization patterns Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 10. What has happened to the distribution of people (rural and urban) from the 1950s to 2013?

FEEDBACK: In the 1950s, the majority of people worldwide lived in rural areas, which had almost twice the population of urban centers globally. While rural populations flattened out in the 1990s, urban populations continued to grow at accelerating rates. The “tipping point” occurred in 2008, when more people inhabited urban areas than rural areas for the first time in world history. This pattern is exaggerated in the United States, where 80% of people are urban dwellers.

Section: Global urbanization patterns Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question 2 What are the trade-offs associated with cities and urban areas?

Multiple Choice 11. Refer to Infographic 2B. Which of the following is NOT one of the advantages of residing in an urban area?

A. more job opportunities B. better quality of life C. more educational opportunities D. better health care options Answer: B Section: The trade-offs of urban living Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 12. Refer to Infographic 2A. Which country has the lowest carbon footprint?

A. United States B. Spain C. China D. Japan E. Brazil

Answer: C Section: The trade-offs of urban living Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 13. All of the following are true about urban areas when compared with rural areas EXCEPT___________________.

A. they have higher population densities B. there is less personal vehicle travel C. the homes are smaller D. they have a lower carbon footprint E. None of these answers is correct.

Answer: E Section: The trade-offs of urban living Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 14. Urban areas are sometimes warmer than the surrounding countryside. This phenomenon is known as ___________________.

A. environmental justice B. the urban heat island effect C. global warming D. the greenhouse effect Answer: B Section: The trade-offs of urban living Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 15. Advantages of urbanization for a society include ___________________.

A. concentrated wastes that have to be transported away

B. lower energy impact per person due to smaller homes and less traveling C. the urban heat island effect D. dependence on food and resource inputs from outside the city E. higher levels of air pollution Answer: B Section: The trade-offs of urban living Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 16. The disadvantages of urbanization for a society include ___________________.

A. higher energy efficiency in stacked houses B. more job opportunities C. a higher rate of disease D. more transportation options E. more services for citizens Answer: C Section: The trade-offs of urban living Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 17. Which of the following factors requires urban areas to use more fossil fuel than rural areas?

A. dependence on food and resource inputs from outside the city B. concentrated wastes that have to be transported away C. traffic congestion and the lack of available parking D. All of these answer choices are correct.

E. None of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: D Section: The trade-offs of urban living Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 18. Which of the following are reasons urban areas are environmentally unfriendly?

A. importation of food and exportation of waste B. traffic congestion C. sewage overflow D. both traffic congestion and sewage overflow E. importation of food and exportation of waste, traffic congestion, and sewage overflow Answer: E Section: The trade-offs of urban living Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 19. Refer to Infographic 2A. Discuss at least two environmental benefits of urbanization.

FEEDBACK: The concentration of people in smaller areas and building up rather than out can help protect existing farms, green space, and ecosystems. Having higher population densities will also help to make environmentally friendly practices more cost effective. Urbanization also decreases the use of energy and thus the carbon footprint because the population lives in smaller homes and is closer to the amenities they need.

Section: The trade-offs of urban living Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 20. Refer to Infographic 2B. Explain the causation of the urban heat island effect and the issues it leads to.

FEEDBACK: It is caused by a trifecta, which is a combination of too little plant life, too much pavement, and high energy use. Heat is absorbed and put off by buildings, making the city warmer than the surrounding countryside. Issues that can arise from this include an increase in energy needs for cooling. There are health consequences related to the heat issues, as well. The presence of green space can ameliorate heat island effects and lead to cooling in urban areas.

Section: The trade-offs of urban living Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question 3 What is environmental justice and what common problems does it address?

Multiple Choice 21. Environmental justice is becoming more relevant as more people move to and live in cities. This migration has created imbalances among communities concerning environmental burdens and benefits. Globally, more than ________________ people live in slums near large cities.

A. 500,000 B. 3 million C. 85 million D. 1 billion E. 13 billion

Answer: D Section: Environmental justice issues Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 22. Which of the following is NOT normally found in the poorer districts of a city?

A. sewage plants B. landfills C. power plants D. recycling facilities E. top-notch health care facilities Answer: E Section: Environmental justice issues Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 23. A major obstacle in environmental justice projects is often _____________________.

A. that waste sites in the neighborhood are harmful B. the thought that parks and green space are seen as benefits C. that green space would attract new investment D. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: B Section: Environmental justice issues Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 24. Majora Carter’s South Bronx Greenway would provide many benefits, including _________________.

A. new waste sites as income generators B. increased air quality C. alternative transportation opportunities D. both new waste sites as income generators and increased air quality E. both increased air quality and alternative transportation opportunities Answer: E Section: Environmental justice issues Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 25. Why are minority communities traditionally burdened with more than their share of environmental risks in this country?

FEEDBACK: The concept of environmental justice argues that minority populations often undertake environmentally hazardous activities because they have few economic alternatives and/or are not fully aware of the risks involved. A combination of lack of awareness of the potential risks coupled with their relative lack of political and economic

power makes poor minority communities a target for environmentally hazardous activities.

Section: Environmental justice issues Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating 26. Why would some consider the Cross Bronx Expressway a contributor to environmental justice problems?

FEEDBACK: The Cross Bronx Expressway basically allowed commuters coming into the city from the suburbs to pass over the Bronx all together. The expressway does not necessarily benefit the Bronx and in fact contributes to noise and air pollution. Its construction also displaced 600,000 Bronx residents. This is an environmental justice problem because the expressway benefits, in a variety of ways, communities that do not directly have to deal with the costs of such a thing.

Section: Environmental justice issues Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating Guiding Question 4 What environmental problems does suburban sprawl generate?

Multiple Choice 27. Urban flight was made possible by mass transit and the _________________.

A. automobile B. Internet C. telephone D. cable E. mail Answer: A Section: Suburban sprawl Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 28. A consequence of urban flight was suburban sprawl. Suburban sprawl is the conversion of rural areas into suburbs and ________________, A. towns B. communities C. villages D. exurbs E. townships Answer: D Section: Suburban sprawl Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

29. The more sparsely populated towns beyond the immediate suburbs whose residents commute into the city for work are called ________________.

A. exurbs B. super suburbs C. rural areas D. urban areas E. urban sprawl areas Answer: A Section: Suburban sprawl Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 30. Urban flight today can be triggered by which of the following?

A. clean air in cities B. low cost of city living C. friendly neighbors D. overcrowding E. the need for more farmers Answer: D Section: Suburban sprawl Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 31. Residents of which areas have the greatest environmental impact?

A. urban B. suburban C. exurban D. rural E. The impact for all the areas is the same.

Answer: C Section: Suburban sprawl Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 32. Which of the following is normally a consequence of urban/suburban sprawl?

A. loss of farmland B. wildlife loss C. ecosystem disruption D. large ecological footprint E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: Suburban sprawl Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 33. Homes that are built father away from the urban centers of cities are normally

_______________ and _____________ energy efficient than those found in urban centers.

A. smaller; less B. smaller; more C. larger; less D. larger; more E. They’re about the same as homes built in cities.

Answer: C Section: Suburban sprawl Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 34. ________________ is defined as a slow conversion of rural areas into suburban and exurban ones.

A. Suburban sprawl B. Suburban flight C. Urban sprawl D. Exurban sprawl Answer: A Section: Suburban sprawl Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 35. The Cross Bronx Expressway was built to accommodate urban flight, but it also brought a lot of issues. Which of the following is NOT one of those issues?

A. displacement of thousands of residents B. unemployment due to factories C. redlining D. worsened commuting E. asthma Answer: D Section: Suburban sprawl Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 36. Which of the following can we do to help prevent suburban sprawl?

A. maintain open and agricultural land B. establish urban growth boundaries C. implement infill D. build up rather than out E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: Suburban sprawl Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

37. The process of people leaving the inner-city area to live in surrounding areas is called ________.

A. suburban sprawl B. exurb sprawl C. urban flight D. urban migration E. urban flee Answer: C Section: Suburban sprawl Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 38. The phenomenon of the spread of low population–density development across the landscape is referred to as________________.

A. urban flight B. suburban sprawl C. zoning D. infill development E. new urbanism Answer: B Section: Suburban sprawl Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 39. Which of the following are impacts of sprawl?

A. Sprawl limits transportation options, forcing people to drive cars.

B. Sprawl reduces pollution, as pollutants get dispersed over a large area.

C. Sprawl promotes physical activity, as people have to walk long distances to get to their cars parked in huge parking lots.

D. The low-density development of sprawl enables more open space to be saved.

E. Sprawl has lower infrastructure costs and a smaller ecological footprint compared with downtown urban centers.

Answer: A Section: Suburban sprawl Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 40. What is suburban sprawl, and what environmental problems does it generate?

Describe three potential problems and briefly discuss the implications of these problems for human society.

FEEDBACK: Suburban sprawl refers to low population–density developments that are built outside of a city. Such developments, which tend to spread out over large areas in an unplanned and often inefficient manner, create significant environmental problems that have consequences for human society. First, by covering ever-greater swaths of terrain

with concrete and pavement, sprawl reduces the amount of land available for farming, wildlife, and ecosystem services, which means loss of local food production, loss of a connection with nature, and increased problems with such things as flooding. Second, because of the haphazard way in which sprawl develops, the resulting communities cannot accommodate mass transit systems and instead force residents to drive almost everywhere they need to go, increasing fossil fuel use and exacerbating air pollution. And finally, because suburban homes are typically larger than urban ones, they tend to have a greater ecological footprint both in resources and energy necessary to build and maintain the homes, which also means higher infrastructure costs for individuals and the community.

Section: Suburban sprawl Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying/Analyzing 41. Refer to Infographic 4. What are some of the unwanted consequences of suburban sprawl?

FEEDBACK: Suburban sprawl causes loss of arable land as developers purchase and subdivide farmlands. Homes get larger and less energy efficient, resulting in the residents having a larger ecological footprint. Wildlife is displaced, and there is normally a loss of species’ habitats.

Section: Suburban sprawl Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question 5

What is the value of urban green space?

Multiple Choice 42. Which of the following demonstrates how green spaces and community gardens in a city improve the physical and psychological health of people who live near them?

A. decreasing space for people to exercise B. releasing pollutants from the air C. increasing rainwater that could carry trash into the river D. decreasing opportunities for relaxation E. providing a healthy food option Answer: E Section: The value of green space Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 43. Why does open space make a difference?

A. Trees and plants can trap pollutants from the air, reducing what infiltrates people’s lungs.

B. Parks improve both the physical and psychological health of people who live near them.

C. More green space can mean less crime.

D. Open space provides people a connection to nature, and the built environment in which they live essentially increases community pride.

E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: The value of green space Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Guiding Question 6 What are “green cities”?

Multiple Choice 44. Why are parking garages considered part of the new urbanism?

A. They encourage single occupancy car use.

B. They are more compact than parking lots.

C. They are an important part of suburban and exurban development—the growth pattern of the future.

D. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: B Section: Green Cities Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 45.What makes a city “green”?

A. having policies to improve air quality B. using more renewable energy than nonrenewable energy

C. using programs that reduce vehicle traffic in the city D. increasing green space around the city E. All of these answers make a city “green.”

Answer: E Section: Green Cities Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 46. The City University of New York Institute for Research on the City Environment estimates if a city is designed and built sustainably, the impact of people living in that city will be about _____ of an average American.

A. 1/3 B. 1/4 C. 1/2 D. 3/4 E. the same Answer: C Section: Green Cities Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 47. Which of the following would NOT be a way to assess whether a city is “green,” according to the Green City Index?

A. measuring emissions of specific air pollutants B. tracking energy consumption of each person C. measuring the percentage of waste that is recycled D. calculating the amount of green space E. All of the methods can measure how “green” the city is.

Answer: E Section: Green Cities Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Guiding Question 7 How does smart growth help make a city “green”?

Multiple Choice 48. As more people migrate to the suburbs and exurbs, many cities have passed ______________ to create buffer zones between commercial and residential areas.

A. zoning laws B. suburbs laws C. exurbs laws D. migration laws E. development rules Answer: A Section: Smart growth as a way forward

Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 49. ________________ is a strategy that creates walkable communities with lower ecological footprints.

A. Smart growth B. Infill development C. New urbanism D. Sustainable growth E. Carbon offset Answer: A Section: Smart growth as a way forward Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 50. What is the key way to persuade people to support smart growth?

A. show the government how much would be saved in health care costs B. show the benefits of the triple bottom line C. show the benefits to hiring a new green workforce D. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: B Section: Smart growth as a way forward Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 51. ________________, which promotes the creation of compact, mixed-use communities, with all of the amenities for day-to-day living close by and accessible, can _______________ urban residents.

A. Infill development; improve environmental justice for B. Green building; increase energy efficiency and thus reduce CO2 emissions of C. Environmental justice; ensure affordability, even in the face of increasing property values, for D. New urbanism; reduce the ecological footprint of E. Smart growth; reduce traffic congestion and thus improve air quality for Answer: E Section: Smart growth as a way forward Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Applying 52. Characteristics of a sustainable city include _______________.

A. maximized sprawl B. minimized walkability C. increased local self-sufficiency D. decreased urban growth boundaries E. zoning laws’ prohibition of mixed-use development Answer: C

Section: Smart growth as a way forward Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 53. What is zoning?

A. the classification of areas for different types of development and land use B. the practice of promoting urbanization in rural areas C. the professional pursuit of designing efficient cities D. the establishment of public parks and gardens in urban centers E. areas that allow animals to travel between islands of protected habitat Answer: A Section: Smart growth as a way forward Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 54. The movement to rejuvenate communities, improve the quality of life, and reduce ecological footprints using such strategies as establishing urban boundaries to preserve open space and directing development toward existing communities is referred to as _______________.

A. smart growth B. urbanization C. infill development D. urban flight E. suburban sprawl Answer: A Section: Smart growth as a way forward Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 55. What is a sustainable city? Explain how strategies such as infill development, urban growth boundaries, and mixed land use enable a city to become sustainable.

FEEDBACK: A sustainable city is one where the environmental pros outweigh the cons.

It employs strategies that make efficient use of land to create pleasant, livable communities with a lower ecological footprint by reducing sprawl, maximizing walkability, and increasing local self-sufficiency. Urban planners have come up with a wide range of strategies for accomplishing these goals, three of which are infill development, urban growth boundaries, and mixed land use. To achieve self-sufficiency and limit sprawl, for example, a sustainable city might establish urban growth boundaries—outer city limits beyond which major development would be prohibited— and instead maintain a mixture of open and agricultural land along its outskirts. Such land could provide a large part of the local food, fiber, and fuel crops, along with recreational opportunities and ecological services. Similarly, promoting infill development—the development of empty lots within a city—can significantly reduce suburban sprawl and instead encourage growth that increases walkability and supports mass transit. To further encourage more walking and less driving, zoning laws might allow for mixed land uses,

where residential areas are located reasonably close to commercial and light industrial ones so that people can meet their daily needs without having to travel far.

Section: Smart growth as a way forward Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 57. Refer to Infographic 7. Explain at least three ways to create a sustainable city.

FEEDBACK: Cities can take advantage of compact building design. They can incorporate environmentally friendly technologies. They can choose from a variety of “clean” transportation choices, such as busses, or implement car-sharing programs. Cities can create more walking- and biking-friendly environments to reduce the amount of greenhouse gas emissions. They can build parks, which create urban green space. They

can place residential and commercial areas together to mix land use and make the use of land more efficient.

Section: Smart growth as a way forward Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Guiding Question 8 What are some of the design features of a green building?

Multiple Choice 57. LEED certifies green buildings based on which of the following?

A. cost efficiency B. sustainable building material use C. innovative design D. both sustainable building material use and innovative design E. cost efficiency, sustainable building material use, and innovative design Answer: D Section: Green building Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 58. Which of the following is considered a component of green building?

A. low-VOC design features B. the use of sustainable FSC lumber C. strategically placed windows D. the use of wind turbines and water-saving devices E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: Green building Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 59. Which urban planning term is correctly matched to what it represents?

A. green buildings — a strategy that helps create walkable communities with lower ecological footprints B. infill development — construction and operation designs that promote resource and energy efficiency C. urban growth boundaries — the development of empty lots within a city D. Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design – a certification program awarding a rating to buildings that include environmentally friendly sound design features E. green roofs — rooftop-installed energy production using such technologies as solar panels or wind turbines to reduce fossil fuel use Answer: D Section: Green building Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

60. In urban design, fossil fuel use can be reduced at many levels. So while implementing bike lanes and mass transit would be part of a _______________ strategy, installing energy-efficient skylights and rooftop solar panels would be part of a _______________ movement.

A. new urbanism; green roof B. environmental justice; infill development C. LEED; sustainable city D. greenway; zoning E. smart growth; green building Answer: E Section: Green building Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 61. What of the following is NOT a LEED rating for sustainable buildings?

A. silver B. gold C. platinum D. bronze E. standard Answer: D Section: Green building Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 62. What is a green building? Describe three design features that help make a building green, and explain the benefits of such choices.

FEEDBACK: A green building is one in which construction and operational design choices reduce environmental impact and provide a healthier environment for occupants.

Three specific design features of green buildings include green roofs, selecting sustainable building materials, and improving resource and energy efficiency. A green roof can be a rooftop rain garden that helps to absorb rainfall and reduce storm water runoff, while also reducing heating and cooling costs and thus conserving energy.

Selecting sustainable building materials such as FSC-certified wood, low-VOC paint and carpeting, and energy-efficient windows results in not only a lower ecological impact but also improved indoor air quality and lower energy bills. Resource and energy efficiency can further be improved by strategically placing windows and skylights to bring in natural light and reduce the need for electric lighting and by installing water-saving devices such as waterless urinals and motion-sensitive low-flow faucets.

Section: Green Building Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

Matching Questions Match each term in the left-hand column to the statement that it best exemplifies.

1. urban areas

2. urbanization

3. urban heat island effect

4. environmental justice

5. urban flight 6. suburban sprawl

7. exurbs

8. new urbanism

9. infill development

10. smart growth

11. green building

12. LEED (Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design) 13. carbon footprint

the concept that access to a clean, healthy environment is a basic human right (*4) strategies that help create walkable communities with lower ecological footprints (*10) a movement that promotes the creation of compact, mixed-use communities with all the amenities of day-today living close by and accessible (*8) a certification program that awards a rating (standard, silver, gold, or platinum) to buildings that include environmentally sound design features (*12) the development of empty lots within a city (*9) the phenomenon in which urban areas are warmer than the surrounding countryside because of pavement, dark surfaces, closed-in spaces, and high energy use (*3) construction and operational designs that promote resource and energy efficiency and provide a better environment for occupants (*11) low population–density developments that are built outside of a city (*6) the migration of people to large cities; sometimes also defined as the growth of urban areas (*2) densely populated regions that include cities and the suburbs that surround them (*1) the process of people leaving an inner-city area to live in surrounding areas (*5) towns beyond the immediate suburbs whose residents commute into the city for work (*7) a natural area such as a park or undeveloped landscape containing grass, trees, or other vegetation in an urban area, usually set aside for recreational use (*14)

14. green space

15. green city

a city designed to improve environmental quality and social equity while reducing its overall environmental impact (*15) a measure of the amount of CO2 greenhouse gas that contributes to climate change, released by a population, individual, or activity (*13)

Linked Questions Science Literacy Use Infographic 2A below to answer the following 5 questions:

1. Which city has the largest average carbon footprint?

A. New York City B. Barcelona C. Shanghai D. Glasgow Answer: C Section: Science Literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 2. The country with the largest difference between their city average and the national average is: A. The United Kingdom B. Spain C. Japan D. The United States Answer: D Section: Science Literacy

Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 3. The statement that best describes this infographic is: A. Most cities have greater carbon dioxide emissions than their national average.

B. People living in urban environments have smaller carbon footprints than people living in suburban or rural areas.

C. Cities require too much energy and are warmer than the surrounding countryside.

D. Air pollution in cities is higher than their national average due to traffic congestion.

Answer: B Section: Science Literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 4. The smallest amount of carbon dioxide emissions for a city shown is: A. 3.4 B. 2.3 C. 4.8 D. 8.2 Answer: B Section: Science Literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 5. How much more carbon dioxide does the country of Spain emit than the city of Barcelona?

A. 3.4 B. 10 C. 6.6 D. 2.3 Answer: C Section: Science Literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Making Connections Use the following scenario to answer the next 5 questions: You work for a company with multiple branches over the world. You are being promoted and the company is asking you where you would like to move.

1. You like living in an urban environment. One benefit of living in a city is: A. resources like food and energy are constantly imported.

B. the dense population can cause higher traffic congestion.

C. recycling and mass transit programs are easier to implement.

D. the development of outlying agricultural land.

Answer: C Section: Science Literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 2. However, you have noticed while living in urban areas the city is usually warmer than the areas around it. This is due to a combination of: A. too little vegetation, too much pavement, and high energy use.

B. too much vegetation, pavement, and energy use.

C. too little vegetation, pavement, and energy use.

D. too little vegetation, too much pavement, and lowered energy use.

Answer: A Section: Science Literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 3. You want to find a city with an abundance of green spaces. Green spaces have benefits: A. physically, as people can jog, bike, and play.

B. environmentally, as unpaved areas can reduce flooding and provide habitat for wildlife.

C. socially, through community pride and higher property values.

D. All of these are benefits of green spaces.

Answer: D Section: Science Literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 4. Your company asks if you would like to live in an urban area or a suburban area.

You ask to move to a sustainable city with smart growth. In a city with smart growth, you expect there to be: A. separate residential and commercial areas.

B. buildings outside the city instead to using existing communities.

C. reliable public transportation, bike lanes, and walkable passageways.

D. resources located out away from the city and transported in daily.

Answer: C Section: Science Literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 5. Your company wants your input on their new building. They would like it to be LEED certified. Which of the following would be a good recommendation to help your company?

A. Using any kind of interior material, and focusing only on green spaces outside.

B. Implementing a standard roof to prevent runoff.

C. Building a new building instead of retrofitting an older building.

D. Focusing on green spaces outside, and using sustainable materials and products throughout the building.

Answer: D Section: Science Literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

MODULE 4.3 1. Which of the following is NOT true of Guinea worm disease?

A. The infection starts when a person ingests contaminated water containing copepods infected with Guinea worm larvae.

B. The larvae mature into adult male and female worms in the heart tissue.

C. The males die, but the females continue to grow in the victim’s tissue.

D. The disease is not fatal but can be debilitating E. There are no medications or vaccines for the disease.

Answer: B Section: Introduction Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Guiding Question 1 What environmental hazards do humans face?

Multiple Choice 2. Which of the following is a physical environmental hazard?

A. air pollution B. water pollution C. a dangerous road D. infectious bacteria E. viruses Answer: C Section: Environmental hazards Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 3. The leading environmental threat overall is ___________.

A. air pollution B. water pollution C. climate change D. radiation E. infectious agents Answer: A Section: Environmental hazards Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 4. How does climate change affect environmental hazards?

A. increases clean water supplies B. decreases extreme weather conditions C. decreases the range of pathogens D. increases the range of vectors E. decreases air pollution

Answer: D Section: Environmental hazards Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 5. What is the biggest environmental threat in low-income nations?

A. biological risks B. air pollution C. hazardous chemicals D. radiation E. asbestos Answer: A Section: Environmental hazards Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 6. Infectious diseases are a type of ______ hazard.

A. physical B. chemical C. biological D. human-caused E. Infectious diseases are not hazardous.

Answer: C Section: Environmental hazards Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 7. Which of the following is TRUE of environmental hazards?

A. Someone negatively affected by a chemical hazard may be less susceptible to a biological hazard.

B. Indoor air pollution in especially problematic in high-income areas throughout the world.

C. Humans are exposed to only one type of hazard at a time.

D. Even the human-built environment is seen as an environmental hazard.

E. Environmental factors contribute to about half of deaths worldwide.

Answer: D Section: Environmental hazards Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 8. Why is it difficult to map cause-and-effect relationships of human hazards and disease?

FEEDBACK: It is difficult to assess the direct relationship between a human hazard and disease because humans are typically not exposed to just one hazard in isolation. Rather, it is typically a combination of hazards acting together that cause the disease. For example, the soil runoff from local farms might change the pH of the freshwater reservoir

enough that it then becomes a suitable habitat for a particular water flea that is a vector for a human pathogen.

Section: Environmental hazards Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing/Evaluating Guiding Question 2 What are the most common environmental routes of transmission for infectious diseases and how has human impact increased the risk of transmission?

Multiple Choice 9. According to the World Health Organization, how many people fall victim to waterborne diseases each year?

A. 100,000 B. 1,000,000 C. 100,000,000 D. 1,000,000,000 E. 10,000 Answer: D Section: Environmentally mediated infectious diseases Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 10. Waterborne and _______ diseases are the main infectious disease threats to human health.

A. airborne B. chemical hazard C. vector-borne D. physical hazard E. biological hazard Answer: C Section: Environmentally mediated infectious diseases Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 11. In a vector-borne disease, the _______ directly causes the disease.

A. vector B. pathogen C. human D. host E. water Answer: B Section: Environmentally mediated infectious diseases Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

12. Which human activity has NOT influenced the prevalence and seriousness of health hazards?

A. deforestation B. urbanization C. dam building D. habitat fragmentation E. All of these options have influenced the prevalence and seriousness of human health hazards.

Answer: E Section: Environmentally mediated infectious diseases Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 13. Which of the organisms listed below causes disease in humans?

A. fungi B. bacteria C. viruses D. worms E. fungi, bacteria, viruses, and worms Answer: E Section: Environmentally mediated infectious diseases Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 14. In the northeastern United States, habitat fragmentation has caused an increase in which of the following?

A. a schistosomiasis-carrying snail B. incidences of Lyme disease C. Guinea worm disease D. the Zika virus E. cholera Answer: B Section: Environmentally mediated infectious diseases Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 15. In Guinea worm disease (GWD), which organism is a vector?

A. humans B. copepods C. Guinea worms D. contaminated water Answer: B Section: Environmentally mediated infectious diseases Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

16. Which of the following is an environmental link to vector-borne diseases?

A. standing water in tires, vessels, and so on B. contaminated water used on crops C. flood delivering fecal waste to bodies of water D. rain events that overwhelm sewage treatment plants E. fecal contamination of water from animal waste Answer: A Section: Environmentally mediated infectious diseases Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 17. Why is the health of the natural environment one of the biggest influences on human health hazards?

FEEDBACK: The health of the natural environment has a large influence on the severity and number of human health hazards because we humans have disrupted the Earth’s ecosystems to better suit our own needs and wants. This causes the ecosystems to be unbalanced, and as we know from previous modules, this can cause a lot of problems. In terms of human health, unbalanced ecosystems can select for the overpopulation of a particular pathogen or vector. For example, deforestation increases the breeding grounds for mosquitoes harboring the protozoan that causes malaria or dengue fever virus.

Section: Environmentally mediated infectious diseases Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 18. Why does urbanization sometimes lead to an increased incidence of waterborne pathogen infections?

FEEDBACK: Urbanization can lead to increased waterborne pathogen infections by creating suitable habitats for the vectors, or pathogens, to live in. With urbanization, more people are living closer together and creating a higher concentration of waste (which can collect water and become habitats for a multitude of organisms, including disease-causing pathogens). The increased density of hosts (humans) may also help spread disease more efficiently and quickly through the population.

Section: Environmentally mediated infectious diseases Level: 2/3 Bloom’s Level: Applying/Analyzing Guiding Question 3 What is the focus of the field of public health?

Multiple Choice 19. Public health epidemiologists study the overall health status of ________.

A. a human population B. a human individual C. all organisms

D. an ecosystem E. any organism pathogenic to humans Answer: A Section: Public health programs Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 20. What are the variables that a public health epidemiologist should take into account when devising a plan to mitigate a health threat?

A. economic B. environmental C. cultural D. both economic and environmental E. economic, environmental, and cultural Answer: E Section: Public health programs Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 21. What is an example of a cultural variable that may influence the plan of action for a particular health threat?

A. water cleanliness B. habitat fragmentation C. average income of the population affected D. religious beliefs Answer: D Section: Public health programs Level: 1/2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 22. Environmental health is a branch of public health that focuses on health hazards in ___________.

A. only natural environments B. only human-built environments C. both natural and human-built environments D. contaminated water, air, and soil E. drinking water Answer: C Section: Public health programs Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 23. Which of the following is NOT a way public health programs work to improve the health of human populations?

A. provide information and health care advice to communities B. provide needed preventative medical care and treatment

C. make recommendation to improve health in specific groups and the population as a whole D. analyze statistics related to a person’s health to determine risk for various population groups E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: Public health programs Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 24. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), a sexually transmitted infection, is especially prevalent in sub-Saharan Africa. Given what you know about the variables affecting health threats, why do you think passing out free condoms, which would prevent the spread of the virus, may not be an effective strategy?

FEEDBACK: Coming up with a plan of action to combat a human health threat includes assessing and addressing a lot of variables. Not only do public health epidemiologist have to consider the environmental factors of the threat itself, they have to consider social and economic factors as well. In the case of HIV infection in sub-Saharan Africa, just handing out free condoms has proven to be an ineffective strategy to mitigate the threat.

Cultural, social, and religious beliefs must be taken into account when discussing any form of birth control, even if that control would prevent disease. Also, for many communities, the people may not be able to go to the store and purchase more condoms once the free ones are gone, as the nearest “store” could be several towns away. These communities may also be financially unable to purchase nonessential goods. In short, there are a lot of factors that go into developing a strategy to fight human health threats, and these factors will change from community to community.

Section: Public health programs Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating 25. How might poor water quality be a result of all the variable types of a population— that is, cultural and social factors, economic stability or instability, and environmental factors?

FEEDBACK: Poor water quality could be a result of many different variables, including (1) cultural and social factors (it is practice in some countries to place deceased relatives in the river or other bodies of water; when the bodies decompose, they become host to all kinds of organism, some pathogenic, which can affect water quality), (2) economic stability or instability (some populations do not have access to running water, sewage systems, or sanitation facilities; thus they must use their water sources as bathrooms and laundry rooms and still as sources for drinking and cooking water), and (3) environmental factors (runoff from farms could contain hazardous chemicals like pesticides that may eventually end up in the population’s drinking water).

Section: Public health programs Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing/Evaluating

26. How might washing your hands lead to a human health threat?

FEEDBACK: Although it may seem counterintuitive, hand washing in some instances and with some substances has had a detrimental effect on human health. Some argue that too much hand washing has led to the development of diseases like asthma and allergies, and others have found that the overuse of antimicrobial soaps has led to the development of antimicrobial-resistant bacteria.

Section: Public health programs Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating 27. Why do you think such a high proportion of diarrheal diseases can be attributed to environmental factors?

FEEDBACK: A high proportion of diarrheal diseases can be attributed to environmental factors because they are typically caused by drinking contaminated water. Water cleanliness is a huge issue, especially in developing nations where sanitation and knowledge of how to prevent contamination of drinking water may be lacking.

Section: Public health programs Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying/Analyzing Guiding Question 4 What can be done to reduce the incidence and spread of infectious diseases?

Multiple Choice 28. Guinea worm disease (GWD) in humans is caused by ___________.

A. direct burrowing of the worm into a person’s foot B. drinking contaminated water containing adult Guinea worms C. drinking contaminated water containing copepods infected with Guinea worm larvae D. human-to-human contact (that is, an infected human can transmit the worms directly to another uninfected human) E. drinking contaminated water containing copepods Answer: C Section: Reducing the spread of infectious disease Level: 1/2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 29. What was the main problem related to preventing Guinea worm disease in the Nigerian village where Ruiz-Tiben was working?

A. too much urbanization B. habitat fragmentation C. deforestation D. human resistance to change E. climate change Answer: D Section: Reducing the spread of infectious disease

Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 30. What is one way to prevent Guinea worm disease (GWD)?

A. educating the human population about GWD and ways to prevent it B. killing copepods with pesticides C. drinking filtered water D. avoiding immersing GWD blisters in water E. All of the above are ways to prevent GWD. Answer: E Section: Reducing the spread of infectious disease Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 31. Which prevention method(s) would be most effective in the eradication of Guinea worm disease?

A. reducing air pollution B. providing access to clean water C. ceasing all war D. using solar stoves for cooking E. planting runoff gardens near bodies of water Answer: B Section: Reducing the spread of infectious disease Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 32. Guinea worm disease is close to total eradication. What is the only other infectious disease to have been eradicated?

A. HIV/AIDS B. tuberculosis C. smallpox D. lung cancer E. No other infectious disease has ever been eradicated.

Answer: C Section: Reducing the spread of infectious disease Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 33. What did the Nigerian villagers believe about Guinea worm disease?

A. The sickness was delivered by angry gods as punishment.

B. The scientists brought the disease with them.

C. Treating the water with pesticides would please the gods.

D. Their ancestors wanted them to be sick E. The worms would never be eradicated.

Answer: A Section: Reducing the spread of infectious disease

Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 34. Refer to Infographic 4. Of the prevention methods mentioned in the graphic, which do you think would have the largest impact on Guinea worm disease (GWD) eradication?

FEEDBACK: Of the three prevention methods mentioned—(1) drinking only safe water, (2) treating water with pesticides that kill copepods, and (3) keeping victims from immersing blisters in water sources—treating water with pesticides that kill copepods would likely have the largest impact on GWD eradication. In the other two prevention methods, there is still a possibility that humans could become infected by the worms (that is, not everyone may drink safe water or refrain from plunging their blistered foot in water). If pesticides kill the vector (copepods), then there would be no possibility that humans could become infected by the worm, and GWD would be one step closer to eradication.

Section: Reducing the spread of infectious disease

Level: 2/3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question 5 How do factors that affect human health differ between more and less developed nations?

Multiple Choice 35. People in less developed nations are more likely to die of ___________.

A. noncommunicable diseases B. infectious diseases C. lifestyle choices D. cancer E. a heart attack Answer: B Section: Health issues in developed versus less developed nations Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 36. Why was treating Guinea worm disease in Sudan so problematic?

A. The country was too poor to afford treatment.

B. The country was in the middle of a civil war.

C. No workers wanted to go into the country to help.

D. The U.S. government forbid any one to help the people.

E. It was too much work to help the nation.

Answer: B Section: Health issues in developed versus less developed nations Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 37. Which prevention action is likely to have the greatest effect on reducing the death rate in less developed countries?

A. diet B. clean water C. exercise D. strict industrial pollution regulations E. regular medical checkups Answer: B Section: Health issues in developed versus less developed nations Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 38. What major step did former U.S. president Jimmy Carter take to help Guinea worm disease prevention in Sudan?

A. He donated millions to the prevention teams.

B. He sent more workers to help in Sudan.

C. He negotiated a Guinea Worm Cease Fire to allow for 6 months of treatment across the country.

D. He made a vaccine for the disease.

E. He did not do anything to help the prevention efforts.

Answer: C Section: Health issues in developed versus less developed nations Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 39. Refer to Infographic 5 below. Which economic status shows the largest proportion of infectious, neonatal, and nutritional diseases?

A. high income B. upper-middle income C. lower-middle income D. low income E. They all have the same proportion of infectious, neonatal, and nutritional diseases.

Answer: D Section: Health issues in developed versus less developed nations Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 40. Refer to Infographic 5 below. Which area shows the highest percentage of disease burden?

A. United States B. Australia C. South America D. Africa E. Canada Answer: D Section: Health issues in developed versus less developed nations Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 41. What might be some reasons diarrheal disease is not one of the top 10 causes of death in high-income countries?

FEEDBACK: Individuals living in high-income countries typically have access to clean water, health care, and medication, which are not so readily available in low-income countries. Clean water helps prevent the initial infection leading to the disease, and for those that do contract the disease, health care and medication can prevent death and shorten the time the individual is sick and unable to work.

Section: Health issues in developed versus less developed nations Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying/Analyzing 42. In the chapter, Nabil Aziz Mikhail says that war is the one human behavior that favors Guinea worm disease (GWD) more than bathing in infested water. Why do you think that is?

FEEDBACK: Most of the factors that lead to the prevention of GWD, like education, pesticides, and water purification techniques, are typically administered by people coming from outside the community. These health care workers cannot access the at-risk communities if there is active war and violence happening in the area. Also, the health

workers may not have any way to ship supplies needed for these prevention methods into a war zone. In the absence of these methods, GWD is left to infect and spread throughout the communities.

Section: Health issues in developed versus less developed nations Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying/Analyzing 43. How might challenges to prevent Guinea worm disease (GWD) in a low-income country be similar to challenges to prevent cardiovascular disease in a high-income country?

FEEDBACK: Challenges to the prevention of GWD and cardiovascular disease share some similarities. For instance, health workers trying to rid areas of GWD have run into resistance from local inhabitants because they are opposed to changes in their lifestyle, for a variety of different reasons. The same resistance can be seen when looking at cardiovascular disease in high-income countries. In most cases, diet and exercise would go a long way to full prevention of the disease, yet many people are resistant to this change, for one reason or another. While the reasons behind the resistance may differ, the prevention of GWD and cardiovascular disease both run into these challenges, ironically, from the people that the prevention efforts would help the most.

Section: Health issues in developed versus less developed nations Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluate Guiding Question 6 What role do environmental factors play in the global burden of disease?

Multiple Choice 44. Environmental hazards are responsible for what percent of death and disease worldwide?

A. 23 B. 75 C. 25 D. 50 E. 77 Answer: A Section: Zoonotic and emerging infectious diseases Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 45. Which of the following causes the most deaths globally?

A. diarrheal diseases B. malaria C. noncommunicable diseases D. dengue fever E. schistosomiasis Answer: C

Section: Zoonotic and emerging infectious diseases Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 46. Which of the following is TRUE of global environmental health?

A. Infectious and parasitic diseases account for 80% of deaths due to environmental factors worldwide each year.

B. Zoonotic diseases cause the most deaths globally.

C. No environmental hazards are modifiable.

D. Environmental factors contribute to 77% of deaths annually.

E. The main environmentally mediated infectious diseases are diarrheal diseases, lung infections, and mosquito-transmitted diseases.

Answer: E Section: Zoonotic and emerging infectious diseases Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Guiding Question 7 What are zoonotic diseases, why is their incidence increasing, and what can be done to reduce their incidence?

Multiple Choice 47. A zoonotic disease is one that ___________.

A. occurs in zoos and other artificial environments B. can spread between one infected animal to another, but cannot be spread to humans C. can spread between infected animals and humans D. is an emerging infectious disease E. is caused by environmental changes that are usually caused by humans Answer: C Section: Zoonotic and emerging infectious diseases Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 48. Which of the following is NOT an example of a zoonotic disease?

A. Zika B. Ebola C. rabies D. Guinea worm disease E. chikungunya Answer: D Section: Zoonotic and emerging infectious diseases Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 49. Zoonotic diseases are impacted by ___________.

A. bushmeat trade

B. environmental changes C. human encroachment into wild areas D. climate change E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: Zoonotic and emerging infectious diseases Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 50. Emerging infectious diseases are ___________.

A. diseases new to humans B. illnesses that are not transmissible between people C. diseases that have established themselves in the natural world D. all zoonotic E. None of these answers is correct.

Answer: A Section: Zoonotic and emerging infectious diseases Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 51. About 72% of zoonotic disease, including Ebola, comes from which of the following?

A. environmental change B. wildlife C. air pollution D. habitat loss E. infected drinking water Answer: B Section: Zoonotic and emerging infectious diseases Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 52. Why is Guinea worm disease (GWD) not a zoonotic disease?

FEEDBACK: For a disease to be zoonotic, it has to be passed from one infected animal (a host) to a human (a host), not from a vector to a human. In the case of GWD, the worms are passed from the copepod (the vector) to humans (the hosts). The copepods are not actually affected by the disease and are not considered a host for the worm.

Section: Zoonotic and emerging infectious diseases Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding/Applying 53. Why do you think 75% of all emerging infectious diseases are zoonotic?

FEEDBACK: Zoonotic diseases are diseases that are transmitted to humans through an animal host. Exposure of humans to these animal hosts is increasing due to environmental changes like global warming and habitat encroachment. These actions are causing

humans to come in contact with animals that they normally wouldn’t have, with the possibility that these animals are infected with a disease that could also infect humans.

Section: Zoonotic and emerging infectious diseases Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 54. Why is the eradication of Guinea worm disease (GWD) possible?

FEEDBACK: Unlike many diseases, GWD has only one known host: humans. If infection of humans could be prevented, the Guinea worm would have nowhere to complete its life cycle and would thus become extinct.

Section: Zoonotic and emerging infectious diseases Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Guiding Question 8 What can be done to address environmental hazards and how will this contribute to our overall goal of sustainability?

Multiple Choice 55. Who must support the prevention of environmentally mediated health problems for the efforts to be successful?

A. the at-risk communities themselves B. international communities C. more developed countries D. the at-risk communities themselves, international communities, and more developed countries E. The efforts need no support.

Answer: D Section: Addressing environmentally mediated health problems Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 56. In 1986, there were over 3.5 million cases of Guinea worm disease. How many confirmed cases were reported in 2016?

A. 25 B. 500 C. 3,500 D. 50,000 E. over 100,000 Answer: A Section: Addressing environmentally mediated health problems Level:1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 57. What is an obstacle to the eradication of Guinea worm disease?

A. indifference

B. political issues C. human stubbornness D. poverty E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: Addressing environmentally mediated health problems Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 58. Why is it important to get affected community buy-in when trying to reduce environmental health hazards (or any kind of hazard, for that matter)?

FEEDBACK: It is important to get buy-in from the affected community because they are the ones that typically have to make the lifestyle changes in order for the prevention methods to work. For example, you could buy and place several outhouses around a community, but if the local people do not want to use them or do not understand how to use them, they would be ineffective. Instead, educating the community about the prevention methods themselves goes a long way. When you get buy-in, the community members help each other understand and implement the practices that will eventually reduce the environmental health hazard.

Section: Addressing environmentally mediated health problems Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 59. What do you think has had the greatest impact on eradicating Guinea worm disease?

FEEDBACK: The answer to this question will be different depending on the community you are talking about. For some communities, education about how to purify water while hunting in the forests may have had the most impact, while in other communities the greatest impact may come from the use of pesticides. No matter which community you are talking about, though, it is safe to assume that several prevention methods must be used simultaneously to reach the goal of eradication.

Section: Addressing environmentally mediated health problems Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying/Analyzing 60. How would your actions of taking the entire prescription of an antibiotic potentially help individuals living on the other side of the world?

FEEDBACK: By taking the entire prescription of an antibiotic, you are reducing the chance that antibiotic-resistant bacteria will emerge. Although the connection may not be clear, this does in fact help those individuals around the world that are more likely to be exposed to and contract bacteria-caused illnesses. For those individuals, being infected with an antibiotic-resistant bacterium could mean limited or no treatment options and death. If we can prevent the emergence of antibiotic-resistant bacteria in the first place, this will save lives all around the world.

Section: Addressing environmentally mediated health problems Level: 3

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate

Matching Questions Match each term in the left-hand column to the statement that it best exemplifies.

A. waterborne disease B. vector-borne disease C. infectious disease D. pathogen

E. public health

F. epidemiologist

G. environmental health H. noncommunicable diseases (NCD) I. zoonotic disease

J. emerging infectious diseases

a scientist who studies the causes and patterns of disease in human populations (*F) the science that deals with the health of human populations (*E) an infectious agent that causes illness or disease (*D) the branch of public health that focuses on factors in the natural world and the human-built environment that impact the health of populations (*G) a disease that is spread to humans from infected animals (not merely a vector that transmits the pathogen but another host that harbors the pathogen through its life cycle) (*I) infectious diseases that are new to humans or that have recently increased significantly in incidence, in some cases by spreading to new ranges (*J) an infectious disease acquired through contact with contaminated water (*A) an infectious disease acquired from organisms that transmit a pathogen from one host to another (*B) illnesses that are not transmissible between people; not infectious (*H) an illness caused by an invading pathogen such as a bacterium or virus (*C)

Linked Questions Science Literacy Look at this breakdown of the environmental connection to some of the most serious human health problems and answer the four questions that follow.

1. Which of the following is the probable question researchers were trying to answer with this study?

A. Which human health problems are most affected by environmental factors?

B. Are human health problems more problematic in developing or developed regions?

C. Which types of disease cause the most deaths—communicable or noncommunicable?

D. How do major human health problems compare in terms of incidence and death?

Answer: A Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 2. Which of the following is an observation (result) based on this data?

A. Factors that cause diarrheal diseases could also be linked to malnutrition.

B. The incidence of asthma and lung infections is going up.

C. Schistosomiasis is more strongly influence by the environment than malaria is.

D. Dengue causes twice as many deaths as malaria, lung infections, or asthma.

Answer: C Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 3. Which of the following is a logical inference (conclusion) based on these data and what you know about environmental health problems?

A. Pursuing environmental modifications for malaria would be unlikely to lower its incidence.

B. Improving access to proper sanitation could decrease the incidence of diarrheal diseases.

C. All schistosomiasis and intestinal nematode infections are linked to environmental factors.

D. Most lung infections are caused by environmental factors like air pollution.

Answer: B Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 4. Malaria, dengue, and Japanese encephalitis are all transmitted by a mosquito vector.

Which action below would be most helpful in reducing the incidence of this disease?

A. providing more nutritious food for potential victims B. providing better sanitation C. purifying drinking water or provide filters D. reducing standing water in the area Answer: D Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

MODULE 5.1 1. What is meant by the term “sustainable”?

A. capable of being continued indefinitely B. consuming more than the environment is able to renew C. not caring about resources future generations need D. following the law in terms of the environment E. making less expensive products for consumers Answer: B Section: Introduction Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Guiding Question 1 What are ecosystem services, and why are they important to ecosystems and human populations?

Multiple Choice 2. Which of the following would NOT be considered an ecosystem service?

A. oxygen provided by green plants B. timber from trees C. pollination of crops D. nitrogen cycling in soil E. water purification Answer: B Section: Economics and the environment Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 3. Refer to Infographic 1. What is the approximate value of services that affect human provisions?

A. $136 billion B. $502 billion C. $673 billion D. $ 809 billion E. $1498 billion Answer: D Section: Economics and the environment Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 4. Why is the production of some ecosystem services considered priceless?

A. No one can afford to do it.

B. No one knows what it costs.

C. There currently are no substitutes for these services.

D. The technology to do these things is very expensive.

E. They require large amounts of fossil fuels.

Answer: C Section: Economics and the environment Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 5. Which of the following is NOT an important reason to maintain an intact ecosystem?

A. An intact ecosystem provides numerous ecosystem services.

B. An intact ecosystem can renew and recycle resources.

C. If we use more resources and goods than the ecosystem can replenish, we will not be able to receive these goods and services.

D. Our future health and well-being will be threatened.

E. All of these choices are important reasons to maintain intact ecosystems.

Answer: E Section: Economics and the environment

Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 6. Refer to Infographic 1. Which of the following might be considered a “cultural use” of an ecosystem?

A. bees pollinating cherry trees B. an open field and nearby forest used for a Civil War reenactment C. carbon moving from a tree to a caterpillar to a bird to the soil D. water percolating through soil in a wetland E. rocks being weathered by the wind Answer: B Section: Economics and the environment Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Applying 7. Which of the following is NOT an ecosystem service?

A. water purification B. crop pollination C. climate regulation D. landfilling waste E. pest control Answer: D Section: Economics and the environment Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 8. Refer to Infographic 1. Which ecosystem service is considered to be the most valuable to us?

A. water supply B. habitat C. recreation D. food production E. genetic resources Answer: D Section: Economics and the environment Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 9. An essential ecological process that makes life on Earth possible is called ______.

A. sustainable development B. an ecosystem service C. the circular system D. an economic system E. the triple-bottom line Answer: B Section: Economics and the environment Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 10. Refer to Infographic 1. What does the figure show?

A. the cost to restore a degraded ecosystem for particular ecosystem services B. the price of maintaining ecosystems such that they can continue to provide specific ecosystem services without degrading the environment C. the monetary value ascribed to particular ecosystem services D. the ecological footprint value of specific ecosystem services E. the cost differential between natural capital and natural interest Answer: C Section: Economics and the environment Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 11. The government must decide if a section of forest in north Wisconsin can be sold for lumber or if it should be added to the Nicolet National Forest. The social science that deals with how this resource should be allocated is called _______.

A. political science B. economics C. ecology D. sociology Answer: B Section: Economics and the environment Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 12. All of the following actions would threaten the Earth’s ability to provide ecosystem goods and services EXCEPT __________.

A. recycling B. deforestation C. overfishing D. soil erosion E. littering

Answer: A Section: Economics and the environment Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 13. A forest provides a(n) _________ in climate regulation and a(n) _______in plantbased pharmaceutical drugs.

A. ecological footprint; ecolabel B. natural capital; natural interest C. external cost; internal cost D. triple-bottom line; economic system E. ecosystem service; ecosystem good Answer: E Section: Natural resources as capital and interest Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Essay 14. Why would nutrient cycling be considered such a valuable ecosystem service to humans?

FEEDBACK: The Earth has only a limited supply of nutrients, such as carbon, phosphorus, nitrogen, and oxygen. If these nutrients are locked up in rocks, can’t be obtained from the atmosphere, or are deep in the oceans, they are not available to us. All living organisms need these nutrients. Therefore, the cycling of these nutrients from atmosphere to lithosphere to hydrosphere, and, of course, to biosphere is essential to life on Earth.

Section: Economics and the environment Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating 15. Refer to Infographic 1. Why is it useful to put a monetary value on ecosystem services?

FEEDBACK: Humans, especially those in industry, government, and other positions of power, need to realize how valuable preserving ecosystems and organisms is. Many people think in only dollars and cents. Putting a monetary value on these services may help them realize that preserving ecosystems isn’t just a nice thing to do. They need to see that even though they think destroying the ecosystem might make them more money, destroying it will in actuality cost them money.

Section: Economics and the environment Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 16. What is the monetary value attributed to essential ecosystem services? Who calculated this value, and how can it be useful to place a monetary value on ecosystem services?

FEEDBACK: According to the work of Robert Constanza, an ecological economist at the University of Vermont, the value of ecosystem services was quantified to be more than $33 trillion (in 1994 dollars), or $44 trillion (in 2009 dollars). Placing a monetary value on ecosystem services allows us to understand that ecosystems provide us with valuable, sometimes irreplaceable, services.

Section: Economics and the environment Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 17. While placing a monetary value on ecosystem services can help us to understand that ecosystems provide us with valuable services, critics say that it is dangerous to put a price on ecosystem services. What are the limitations of such valuation of ecosystems?

FEEDBACK: The valuation of ecosystems has two major limitations. For one, the figures are considered to be gross underestimates, especially for services that are hard to quantify, like habitat and genetic resources, or for services that are priceless because there are no substitutes, such as the oxygen produced by green plants which we need in order to survive. Second, the value of ecosystem services assumes intact and functioning

ecosystems. When we degrade ecosystems, we reduce their ability to provide these services, and thus the value of those ecosystems is diminished as well.

Section: Economics and the environment Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating 18. Discuss how the ecosystem service of pollination benefits humans.

FEEDBACK: Many plants, such as fruit trees, berries, flowers, and some crops, need insects, bats, or other organisms to pollinate them. Without this service, the plants wouldn’t bear fruit or seeds, and we wouldn’t have them available to eat or enjoy.

Section: Economics and the environment Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Guiding Question 2 What is an ecological footprint?

Multiple Choice 19. A(n) ________ for a country is the amount of land needed to provide its resources and assimilate its waste.

A. circular system B. external cost C. ecological footprint D. ecolabel E. ecosystem service Answer: C Section: Measuring our impact: The ecological footprint Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 20. If everyone lived like the average person in the United States, we would need the landmass of ______ Earths to sustain everyone.

A. 2 B. 5 C. 7 D. 10 E. 15 Answer: B Section: Measuring our impact: The ecological footprint Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Guiding Question 3 What are natural capital and natural interest and how can they be sustainably used?

Multiple Choice 21. If a forest produces 200 trees each year, which of the following is a sustainable action?

A. taking all 200 trees produced in the year B. taking only 100 of the trees produced in that year C. taking all 200 trees produced in that year, plus 50 mature trees D. taking all the trees in the forest E. Both answers A and B are sustainable Answer: E Section: Natural resources as capital and interest Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 22. An example of natural capital is _________, and an example of a natural interest is ___________.

A. oxygen; new growth in a forest B. trees; oceans C. an increased fish population; new growth in a forest D. wood; forests E. forests; wetlands Answer: A Section: Natural resources as capital and interest Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Applying 23. Which of the following choices is considered natural capital?

A. oxygen B. water C. trees D. fish E. All of these choices are considered natural capital.

Answer: E Section: Natural resources as capital and interest Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 24. Sustainable use of forests allows us to use the trees to produce goods without depleting them. The amount of net resources produced from the forest or any other form of natural capital is known as ____________.

A. an ecological footprint B. internal cost C. raw material D. natural interest E. true cost Answer: D Section: Natural resources as capital and interest

Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Guiding Question 4 What does the IPAT equation tell us about our impact and the potential to reduce that impact?

Multiple Choice 25. If a car company manufactures an electric car made of recycled and bio-based components and powers the car battery by leasing solar panels to its customers, then which of the following happens?

A. The car would not be considered a sustainable business.

B. The manufacturing system discounts the future value of the car.

C. I = (P  A)/T instead of I = P  A  T. D. The process exclusively reflects a product-oriented economy.

E. The car cannot be given an ecolabel.

Answer: C Section: Factors that affect our ecological footprint: The IPAT equation Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 26. What three factors are multiplied in the IPAT model to gauge a population’s ecological footprint?

A. predisposition, annual income, and taxation B. population growth, agriculture, and textiles C. perception, action, and time D. population, affluence, and technology E. people, animals, and technology Answer: D Section: Factors that affect our ecological footprint: The IPAT equation Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 27. The IPAT equation is used to estimate the size of a population’s ecological footprint.

Which of the following factors is NOT found in that equation?

A. productivity B. affluence C. technology D. population E. Technology and population are not found in the IPAT equation.

Answer: A Section: Factors that affect our ecological footprint: The IPAT equation Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay

28. Of the next billion people added to Earth, over 99% will be born in less developed, poorer parts of the world. Is it fair to say that the overall impact of humans on the environment is mostly the fault of developing countries? Explain.

FEEDBACK: Although rapidly growing populations in developing countries do increase the impact on the environment, slower growing populations in more affluent countries use many more resources and generate much more waste. This effect is evident by the much larger per capita ecological footprints in wealthier nations.

Section: Factors that affect our ecological footprint: The IPAT equation Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 29. Compare and contrast technology as a variable that increases and decreases a population’s overall impact.

FEEDBACK: Technology could increase a population’s overall impact by introducing new technology, like gasoline engines or the ability to extract oil from sand in fossil fuel production. These actions increase the impact humans have on the environment by increasing the amount of pollution released into the environment, destruction of ecosystems, and so on. Conversely, technology may also reduce the impact that humans have on the environment if the technology prevents harmful actions, like the technology to harvest oil from algae or improve the harnessing of energy from wind.

Section: Factors that affect our ecological footprint: The IPAT equation Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question 5 What is true cost accounting, and why should we employ it?

Multiple Choice 30. One of the limitations of mainstream economics is that it does not take into account ___________ costs when a price is assigned to a product or service.

A. safety B. internal C. external D. marginal E. fringe Answer: C Section: True cost accounting Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 31. An assessment of the cost of a good or service that includes the environmental, social, and economic costs is called the __________.

A. internal analysis B. external analysis C. complete valuation D. triple-bottom line

E. validation cost Answer: D Section: True cost accounting Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 32. _________ costs include manufacturing costs, labor, taxes, utilities, insurance, and rent.

A. Internal B. External C. Safety D. Potential E. True Answer: A Section: True cost accounting Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 33. Including both internal and external costs when setting a price for a good or service is an example of ______ cost.

A. overall B. valuation C. total D. marginal E. true Answer: E Section: True cost accounting Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 34. Which of the following is an example of an external cost?

A. a federal tax that is placed on a product sold by a business B. a fee a company pays to have its product shipped internationally C. health costs stemming from the hazardous wastes produced during the making of a product D. the extra money a business pays to make its products or services sustainable E. labor Answer: C Section: True cost accounting Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 35. By ignoring the ________, economies create a false idea of the _______ of particular choices.

A. internal costs; external cost B. true costs; external cost

C. external costs; true cost D. true costs; circular system E. internal costs; true cost Answer: C Section: True cost accounting Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 36. Today, if we were to purchase a good or service at its true cost, how would the price compare to what we are accustomed to paying for the good or service?

A. The price would be lower.

B. The price would be higher.

C. The price would stay the same.

D. The price would decrease exponentially.

E. We cannot predict how the price would change.

Answer: B Section: True cost accounting Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 37. The true cost of an item produced in a factory includes which of the following factors?

A. social costs B. environmental costs C. internal costs D. external costs E. It includes all of these factors.

Answer: E Section: True cost accounting Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Applying Essay 38. Refer to Infographic 5. Why is it important to consider the cost to an ecosystem when purchasing a product as well as considering the price of the object or service?

FEEDBACK: We are very familiar with checking price tags, looking for sales or deals, and so on. What needs to happen is for both the manufacturer and the consumer to consider the cost to the environment as well. How much water was used? How many fossil fuels were burned? What wastes were produced? Where did they end up? Were people displaced by this process? What is the possibility of injury to the workers or people in the area? Are there other health issues? Once these are considered, a consumer may discover that the good or service is actually not the best choice, in spite of the cheaper price tag.

Section: True cost accounting Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 39. What are the internal and external costs associated with producing paper?

FEEDBACK: The internal costs of manufacturing paper include harvesting trees, labor costs, equipment costs, and fuel consumption. The external costs include health problems associated with the manufacturing of paper, deforestation, soil erosion, and water pollution.

Section: True cost accounting Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

40. Your company is in the process of developing an alternative to carpet tile. To make your product more desirable and profitable, what true costs of manufacturing carpet tiles should your designers focus on and why?

FEEDBACK: The true costs of manufacturing carpet tile include the cost of greenhouse gas emissions, cost of health problems, and other environmental issues. Your company should try to limit the amount of greenhouse gas emissions by using alternative energy sources to heat and provide electricity to the plant. Additionally, a significant part of the tiles should be made from postconsumer recycled content, and the packaging of the tile should use recyclable material.

Section: True cost accounting Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 41. Refer to Infographic 5. You can find a double cheeseburger on the “dollar menu” at many fast food chains. Refer to the infographic and describe how the true cost of that food product is not reflected by the sale price.

FEEDBACK: The true cost of a good or service includes both internal (labor, equipment, buildings) and external costs. Some of the hidden external costs in this example are subsidies to grow cheap corn that is fed to cattle (making prices artificially cheaper), cleanup costs for pollution (manure, agricultural chemicals), and loss of wildlife habitat

near large animal confinements. There is a decreased quality of life in terms of tasteless food and the loss of pleasure preparing and eating the food together. Health issues include obesity, diabetes, poor nutrition, and possible food contamination. Also, fossil fuels are required to transport food long distances instead of relying on local food sources.

Section: True cost accounting Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating Guiding Question 6a What concerns do environmental economists have with mainstream economics?

Guiding Question 6b What similarities and differences exist between linear and circular models of economics?

Multiple Choice 42. Ecosystem services would be discounted in the _________economic system.

A. environmental B. ecological C. triple-bottom line D. mainstream E. true cost accounting Answer: D Section: Environmental economics vs mainstream economics Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 43. Which of the following would be part of an environmental economist’s agenda?

A. to consider the long-term impact of our consumption choices on human society and the environment B. to discount the future value of ecosystem goods and services C. to price the product of a service such that costs associated with manufacturing, labor, and utilities are accounted for, but costs associated with pollution and resource depletion are not D. to emphasize a linear, product-oriented economic system E. to maximize the size of the ecological footprint associated with a product or service Answer: A Section: Environmental economics vs mainstream economics Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 44. Refer to Infographic 6b. What does each figure represent?

A. a = true cost accounting; b = green business B. a = mainstream economics; b = environmental economics C. a = environmental economics; b = discounting future value D. a = service-oriented economics; b = product-oriented economics E. a = external cost accounting; b = internal cost accounting Answer: B Section: Environmental economics vs mainstream economics Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 45. The two schools of economic thought that consider the environment when making economic decisions are __________ and _____________.

A. deep ecology; Western B. environmental; ecological C. Western; environmental D. deep ecology; environmental E. Western; ecological Answer: B

Section: Environmental economics vs mainstream economics Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 46. One major difference between mainstream and environmental economics is that mainstream economics assumes that waste can be disposed of in a(n) _______ system.

A. circular B. open-loop C. two-way D. linear E. bilinear Answer: D Section: Environmental economics vs mainstream economics Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 47. A product system in which the product is folded back into the resource stream when the consumer is finished with it is a(n) _________.

A. open-loop system B. circular system C. linear system D. one-way system E. cradle-to-grave system Answer: B Section: Environmental economics vs mainstream economics Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 48. One area where traditional economics differs from environmental economics is that traditional economics tends to give more weight to _________ benefits and costs than it does to ________ benefits and costs.

A. long-term; short-term B. short-term; long-term C. long-term; middle-term D. short-term; middle-term E. middle-term; long-term Answer: B Section: Environmental economics vs mainstream economics Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 49. Mainstream economics makes the inaccurate assumption that natural resources are _______ and that substitutes can be found if needed.

A. finite B. unimportant C. limited

D. infinite E. fixed Answer: D Section: Environmental economics vs mainstream economics Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 50. Which statement is correct?

A. Traditional economics discounts short-term benefits and costs more than it does longterm ones.

B. Natural and human resources are infinite.

C. In a circular system, models of production follow a linear sequence.

D. Linear systems are sustainable in business and economic models.

E. Mainstream economics assumes that economic growth will increase forever.

Answer: E Section: Environmental economics vs mainstream economics Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 51. An item most likely to be a part of a circular system would be _________.

A. a computer B. coal C. natural gas D. an aluminum can Answer: D Section: Environmental economics vs mainstream economics Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 52. A linear economic model would include which of the following items?

A. recyclable products B. crude oil as an energy source C. cow manure D. reclaimable waste E. both recyclable products and cow manure Answer: B Section: Environmental economics vs mainstream economics Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 53. Which of the following animals does NOT live sustainably with the environment?

A. sharks B. ants C. humans D. birds E. rabbits

Answer: C Section: Environmental economics vs mainstream economics Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 54. The company you are currently working for follows a linear (one-way) system.

Explain why this system will eventually fail.

FEEDBACK: Companies that follow a linear (one-way) system make the assumption that economic growth will continue forever and that resources are unlimited. The problem is that some resources are finite and that waste in the form of pollution will eventually damage natural capital, resulting in eventual failure.

Section: Environmental economics vs mainstream economics Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 55. What is a circular system? How could an automatic car wash become more cyclical in a circular system?

FEEDBACK: A circular system is a production system in which the product is folded back into the resource stream when consumers are finished with it, or it is disposed of in such a way that nature can decompose it. In an automatic car wash, the water from the final rinse cycle can be collected and reused as the initial presoak wash before the soap is applied. This will reduce the amount of water needed and decrease the amount of wastewater that must be treated. To further improve the process, a biological wash water recycling system can be used to remove organic contaminants from wash water that can be used again and again. Other factors, such as increasing water pressure, can also mean less water volume is needed per car.

Section: Environmental economics vs mainstream economics Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing/Evaluating 56. It is predicted that there will soon be more cell phones in the world than people.

Inside each phone is a metal called tantalum. This metal is mined from the Earth and is a nonrenewable resource. How could cell phone manufacturing become more cyclical in a circular system? What can consumers do to help?

FEEDBACK: Manufacturers of cell phones, as well as other electronic devices such as computers, are aware of finite supplies of precious metals required in the manufacturing of their products. In a sense, it would be easier for them to “mine” landfills in search of discarded electronic products, since it takes significant energy to mine and manufacture those precious metals. Companies now design their products in such a way that they can be efficiently demanufactured to recover the metals and materials needed to construct a new product. This has the added benefit of keeping from landfills the toxic metals that can pollute the environment and harm human health. Consumers can help the process by recycling their old electronic devices to cell phone manufacturers, retailers, network carriers, charities, or solid waste programs. In some cases, businesses offer money for the return of those old products.

Section: Environmental economics vs mainstream economics Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing/Evaluating 57. What are assumptions of mainstream economics that fall short?

FEEDBACK: Mainstream economics does not take into account all potential costs. It only considers the internal costs, such as manufacturing costs, labor, taxes, utilities, insurance, and rent, that are accounted for when a product or service is evaluated for pricing. External costs, such as the health costs associated with the waste produced or environmental damage caused by pollution, are ignored. Another inaccurate assumption is that natural and human resources are either infinite or that substitutes can be found if needed. This is not true for all resources. In addition, mainstream economics assumes that economic growth will go on forever and ignores inherent limits to resource-dependent growth. Lastly, traditional economics discounts future value by giving more weight to short-term benefits and costs than it does long-term ones.

Section: Environmental economics vs mainstream economics Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question 7 How can businesses make better choices that reduce their overall impact?

Multiple Choice 58. A computer company leases rather than sells its computers to consumers for a monthly fee. The company maintains the computers and replaces them as needed. The old computers are either refurbished or recycled. What does this business model represent?

A. cradle-to-cradle management B. a circular system C. green business D. a service-oriented economy E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: E Section: Sustainable practices: The role of business Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 59. What is cradle-to-cradle management?

A. accounting for part of the life of a product B. considering how to produce a product and dispose of the product at the end of its life C. a program to return a product to the producer when consumers are finished with it D. considering the entire life cycle of a product from raw materials to final disposal or recycling E. leasing a product to a consumer rather than selling it Answer: D Section: Sustainable practices: The role of business

Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 60. A cell phone company has a program which encourages consumers to turn in their old cell phones rather than throw them away when they are finished with them. This is an example of ___________.

A. cradle-to-cradle management B. a service economy C. a take-back program D. ecolabeling E. linear outputs Answer: C Section: Sustainable practices: The role of business Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Guiding Question 8 How can consumers make better choices that reduce their overall impact?

Multiple Choice 61. You want to buy a t-shirt labeled as “eco-friendly” from a business, but you cannot find any evidence of sustainable actions from the business. This may be ___________.

A. greenwashing B. ecolabeling C. fair trade D. ecowashing E. a share program Answer: A Section: Sustainable practices: The role of business Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 62. How can consumers influence businesses to be more environmentally sustainable?

A. buying any product from any business B. buying more fair trade items to ensure methods support sustainable practices and social justice C. buying any item with an ecolabel, regardless of any verification for the label D. buying a product instead of renting or borrowing E. purchasing more goods and services from businesses to increase the economy Answer: B Section: Sustainable practices: The role of business Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

Matching Questions Match each term in the left-hand column to the statement that it best exemplifies.

1. internal cost

costs that are not taken into account when a price is assigned to a product or service (*8) 2. natural capital capable of being continued indefinitely (*13) 3. circular economic system readily produced resources that we could use and still leave enough natural capital behind to replace what we took (*6) 4. fair trade an equation (I = P  A  T) that measures human impact (I) based on three factors: population (P), affluence (A), and technology (T) (*17) 5. service economy management of a resource that considers the impact of its use at every stage, from raw material extraction to final disposal or recycling (*7) 6. natural interest considering the environmental, social, and economic impacts of our choices (*11) 7. cradle-to-cradle a cost—such as for raw materials, manufacturing costs, management labor, taxes, utilities, insurance, or rent—that is accounted for when a product or service is evaluated for pricing (*1) 8. external cost the social science that deals with the production, distribution, and consumption of goods and services (*14) 9. green business the wealth of resources on Earth (*2) 10. discounting future value including both internal and external costs when setting a price for a good or service (*18) 11. triple-bottom line providing information about how a product is made and where it comes from (*12) 12. ecolabeling a business model whose focus is on leasing and caring for a product in the customer’s possession rather than on selling the product itself (*5) 13. sustainable advertisement that claims environmental benefits when they are minor or nonexistent (*21)

14. economics

15. ecosystem services

16. ecological footprint

17. IPAT model

18. true cost

19. environmental economics 20. linear economic system

21. greenwashing

new theory of economics that consider the long-term impact of our choices on people and the environment (*19) giving more weight to short-term benefits and costs than to long-term ones (*10) a production system in which the product is returned to the resource stream when consumers are finished with it, or it is disposed of in such a way that nature can decompose it (*3) doing business in a way that is good for people and the environment (*9) essential ecological processes that make life on Earth possible (*15) the land needed to provide the resources for, and assimilate the waste of, a person or population (*16) a certification program whose products are made in ways that are environmentally sustainable and socially beneficial (for example, fair wages, good working conditions) (*4) a production model that is one way; inputs are used to manufacture a produce, and waste is discarded (*20)

Linked Questions Science Literacy Refer to the graph below to answer the following four questions.

1. Which country shows the largest use of forest products?

A. Canada B. Australia C. Singapore D. Trinidad and Tobago E. United States Answer: A Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 2. Based on this graph, what would you recommend as the best method for countries to reduce their ecological footprint?

A. designing compact development in cities to use land already developed instead of building new neighborhoods in the suburbs B. converting more land to cropland instead of grazing pasture to feed more people in the population C. moving from traditional fossil fuel energy sources to renewable energy sources for power D. planting more trees after harvesting to use forests in a sustainable manner when producing forest products Answer: C Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 3. According to the data in the graph, which country would be most affected by a severe drought?

A. Luxembourg B. Australia

C. Canada D. Kuwait E. Oman Answer: B Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding/ Applying 4. What is the correct order for countries from largest to smallest ecological footprint?

A. Australia > Kuwait > Oman > Singapore B. Luxembourg > Qatar > United States > Australia C. Australia > Qatar > Bahrain > Trinidad and Tobago D. Singapore > Canada > United States > Luxembourg E. Qatar > Kuwait > Oman > Bahrain Answer: E Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Examine the graph below to answer the following six questions.

1. How many billions of dollars per year would human provisions cost if we had to supply them?

A. $673 B. $809 C. $502 D. $136 E. $583 Answer: B Section: Science literacy Level: 2

Bloom’s Level: Understanding 2. What is the correct order of ecosystem services from greatest to least in billions of dollars?

A. recreation > aesthetic, spiritual, educational value > food production > air quality B. food production > habitat > recreation > genetic resources C. habitat > recreation > air quality > aesthetic, spiritual, education value D. genetic resources > recreation > soil formation and erosion control > water supply E. air quality > water supply > pest control > recreation Answer: C Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 3. Which category would result in the greatest economic loss if those services were destroyed?

A. ecosystem regulation and support B. human provisions C. cultural benefits Answer: A Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 4. Which category would be most affected by increasing the number of cars on the highways?

A. cultural benefits B. ecosystem regulation and support C. human provisions Answer: B Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 5. What ecosystem regulation and support service provides the most in billions of dollars each year?

A. food production B. recreation C. genetic resources D. air quality E. habitat Answer: E Section: Science literacy Level: 2

Bloom’s Level: Understanding 6. You enjoy hiking and kayaking in national parks. What is the value yearly provided to you for this service?

A. $673 B. $463 C. $583 D. $63 E. $468 Answer: B Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Making Connections Woodwinds, a small company that produces handmade wooden furniture, is taking steps to reduce its environmental impact and make safer, more sustainable products. The company upgraded to LED lighting and installed water-saving fixtures in their workshop.

It has arranged to source wood for furniture production only from a local woodlot where the wood is sustainably harvested, and it makes sure that three trees are planted for every one that is cut down. Wood chip and sawdust waste is picked up by a local stable for use as bedding in horse stalls. The company also switched to natural waxes and oils to replace varnishes and stains. It recently installed solar panels to help produce some of its electricity. Finally, it has a policy that offers a discount on a replacement to any customer who returns a piece of Woodwinds furniture that needs to be repaired or refurbished.

Answer the following four questions about this company and its efforts.

1. Harvesting wood sustainably will reduce air and water pollution, and as a result it will ___________.

A. reduce the internal costs of doing business B. decrease the price of their furniture because the wood will be cheaper C. internalize some of the negative external costs of making furniture D. convert some of the company’s internal costs to external costs Answer: D Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 2. By planting more trees than Woodwinds harvests, it is ___________.

A. increasing the natural capital of their main resource, “trees” B. depending only on natural capital and leaving natural interest alone C. using natural interest faster than it is replaced D. harvesting natural capital and natural interest equally Answer: A Section: Making connections Level: 2

Bloom’s Level: Applying 3. Which of these actions is an example of pursing a circular economic system rather than a linear one?

A. upgrading to energy efficient lighting B. sending wood chip and sawdust waste to another user C. using natural waxes and oils instead of varnishes and stains D. installing solar panels to generate sustainable energy Answer: B Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 4. When Woodwinds takes back a product that needs to be repaired or refurbished, it is ___________.

A. discounting the future B. recognizing that all resources are infinite or substitutable C. operating in a cradle-to-cradle fashion D. greenwashing their products Answer: C Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

MODULE 5.2 Guiding Question 1 What causes stratospheric ozone depletion, and why should it be addressed?

Multiple Choice 1. The ozone layer is located in the ___________.

A. stratosphere B. troposphere C. mesosphere D. thermosphere E. exosphere Answer: A Section: The issue: Stratospheric ozone depletion Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 2. What is the chemical formula for ozone?

A. O2 B. C2F2Cl2 C. SF6 D. O3 E. CrO2Cl2 Answer: D Section: The issue: Stratospheric ozone depletion Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 3. Which form of ultraviolet (UV) radiation can cause serious health problems such as DNA mutations?

A. UV-A B. UV-B C. UV-C D. UV-A and UV-B E. UV-A, UV-B, and UV-C Answer: B Section: The issue: Stratospheric ozone depletion Level: 2/3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 4. Refer to Infographic 1. What happens to the chlorine atom liberated from chlorine monoxide in the second portion of this figure?

A. It escapes into the thermosphere above.

B. It becomes inert.

C. It sinks back down to the troposphere, where it becomes a part of smog pollution.

D. It breaks down many other ozone molecules.

E. It bonds with one additional ozone molecule to make chlorine trioxide.

Answer: D Section: The issue: Stratospheric ozone depletion Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 5. Refer to Infographic 1. Why is it that the form of ultraviolet light to reach the surface, UV-B, causes sunburns and skin damage but the most energetic form, UV-C, is of no concern whatsoever?

A. Water vapor in the air filters all but UV-B. B. CFCs in the air filter all but UV-B. C. Radiation from the sun is mostly UV-B. D. UV-A radiation passes through the atmosphere easily, UV-B is absorbed by the stratospheric ozone layer, and UV-C is absorbed by oxygen (O2).

E. NOx reacts with UV-B and UV-C. Answer: D Section: The issue: Stratospheric ozone depletion Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 6. Ozone-depleting chemicals are most efficient at the poles, both for Arctic and Antarctic regions. The major reason for this is ___________.

A. lots of CFCs are used in polar regions B. tourists there pollute the atmosphere C. the presence of ice crystals and solar UV radiation D. all the ozone is formed over the equator and none reaches the poles E. a lack of stringent air pollution laws at the poles Answer: C Section: The issue: Stratospheric ozone depletion Level: 3

Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 7. Where in the atmosphere is the majority of ozone found?

A. the mesosphere and paleosphere B. the troposphere C. the stratosphere D. both the troposphere and stratosphere E. It is not found in the atmosphere at any level.

Answer: C Section: The issue: Stratospheric ozone depletion Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 8. Why should we care about ozone?

A. It’s a dangerous stratospheric pollutant.

B. It protects the Earth’s surface from UV radiation.

C. It is used in the production of CFCs. D. It’s a major pollutant in our rainwater.

E. It protects the Earth from climate change.

Answer: B Section: The issue: Stratospheric ozone depletion Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 9. Scientists have concluded that increasing levels of _________ were causing the depletion of the ozone layer.

A. methane B. smog C. particulates D. CFCs E. O3 Answer: D Section: The issue: Stratospheric ozone depletion Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 10. Which statement best describes the relationship between ozone in the stratosphere and the presence of CFCs? A. Ozone in the stratosphere is broken down by chemicals like CFCs, but as CFCs themselves are broken apart by UV radiation, ozone depletion slows.

B. When CFCs come in contact with ozone in the troposphere, their reaction sometimes causes increased UV radiation to reach Earth’s surface.

C. Ozone naturally breaks down in the stratosphere, but substances like CFCs regulate its reformation so that less harmful UV radiation reaches Earth’s surface.

D. Ozone from the stratosphere migrates down to the troposphere, where it reacts with chemicals like CFCs to produce more oxygen.

E. Ozone is formed naturally and is broken down in the stratosphere. However, CFCs cause additional ozone breakdown.

Answer: E Section: The issue: Stratospheric ozone depletion Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 11. Which of the following statements is TRUE of CFCs? A. A CFC is an industrial chemical that was once used as a refrigerant.

B. A CFC is a type of ultraviolet radiation between UV-A and UV-B. C. CFCs are used to cook food at the McMurdo research station.

D. CFCs react with water to generate ozone.

E. Both B and C are true.

Answer: A Section: The issue: Stratospheric ozone depletion Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 12. Which form of ultraviolet (UV) radiation is mostly absorbed by the ozone layer?

What are the effects of this form of UV radiation on living things?

FEEDBACK: UV-B can cause damage to the DNA of living things. The ozone layer absorbs most of this so that only about 10% normally reaches Earth’s surface.

Section: The issue: Stratospheric ozone depletion Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 13. Why is the term “ozone hole” misleading?

FEEDBACK: Ozone is still present over Antarctica and the Arctic, but it is present in reduced quantities or concentration. A thinning of the ozone layer would be a more accurate description.

Section: The issue: Stratospheric ozone depletion Level: 1/2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 14. Explain how the depletion of the ozone layer in the stratosphere is allowing more UV-B radiation to reach the Earth’s surface.

FEEDBACK: Ozone molecules in the stratosphere normally absorb UV-B rays.

Depletion of ozone molecules in the stratosphere allows more UV-B rays to reach the surface of the Earth.

Section: The issue: Stratospheric ozone depletion Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Applying 15. Refer to Infographic 1. Explain chemically how CFCs in the stratosphere are damaging the ozone layer.

FEEDBACK: CFCs in the stratosphere are broken apart by UV-B to release a chlorine atom, which then breaks down ozone molecules into O2 and ClO. This becomes a positive feedback mechanism (chain reaction) when the Cl is then reformed and able to catalyze additional breakdown reactions of even more ozone molecules (up to 100,000 ozone molecules).

Section: The issue: Stratospheric ozone depletion Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Guiding Question 2 What are environmental policies and why do we need them?

Multiple Choice 16. What type of policy is needed when an environmental problem extends across national boundaries?

A. national B. local C. international D. state E. intranational Answer: C

Section: Environmental policy: Purpose and scope Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 17. A(n) _____________ problem is one that extends across state and national boundaries.

A. transboundary B. environmental C. adaptive D. national E. political Answer: A Section: Environmental policy: Purpose and scope Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 18. Which of the following is an example of a transboundary problem?

A. pollution in Mexico’s Tijuana River closing beaches in San Diego where the river empties into the sea B. acid rain falling in Canada because of industrial emissions from the United States C. currents concentrating garbage in areas of the Atlantic Ocean D. All of these answer choices are examples of a transboundary problem.

E. None of these answer choices are examples of a transboundary problem.

Answer: D Section: Environmental policy: Purpose and scope Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Applying 19. Environmental policy ___________.

A. provides guidelines meant to restore or protect the natural environment B. is limited to the nation that creates it C. can help mitigate human impact on the environment D. All of these answers choices are correct.

E. both provides guidelines meant to restore or protect the natural environment and can help mitigate human impact on the environment Answer: E Section: Environmental policy: Purpose and scope Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 20. Which of the following environmental issues occurs across state and national boundaries?

A. ozone depletion B. species endangerment C. global warming D. ozone depletion, species endangerment, and global warming

E. both ozone depletion and species endangerment Answer: D Section: Environmental policy: Purpose and scope Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Applying Essay 21. What is an environmental policy? Why are many environmental problems considered “wicked problems”?

FEEDBACK: An environmental policy is a course of action adopted by a government or organization, designed to improve the natural environment and public health or reduce human impact on the environment. Sometimes environmental policies provide guidelines for repairing damaged ecosystems or for how to reduce or mitigate negative human impacts on the planet. Many environmental problems are considered “wicked problems” because they are complex, with multiple causes and consequences, along with multiple stakeholders. For example, species endangerment, pollution, and climate change are seen as “wicked problems.”

Section: Environmental policy: Purpose and scope Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 22. In a famous essay, Garrett Hardin described “the tragedy of the common,” where individual self-interests lead to depletion of shared, limited resources. For example, in a public pasture, where no rules are in place to restrict the number of grazing animals, individuals will maximize their usage of the resource and the end result may be loss or destruction of the resource. What examples on Earth would qualify as “common” areas that no one person, state, or government owns or controls? How could these areas be managed to avoid environmental degradation?

FEEDBACK: Areas could include the atmosphere, oceans, freshwater resources, forests, or wildlife. National or international policies can be enacted to avoid environmental degradation. For example, on the global scale, the Montréal protocol aimed to reverse ozone destruction by eliminating CFCs in the atmosphere. Carbon credit trading is designed to control carbon emissions in order to slow human-driven climate change.

Fisheries can be monitored and closed down when necessary to avoid population crashes that affect multiple nations.

Section: Environmental policy: Purpose and scope Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating 23. Many coastal areas and low-lying island nations are currently at risk from rising sea levels attributed to global climate change. How does this illustrate the need for policy at the international level?

FEEDBACK: Residents of coastal areas and low-lying island nations are at high risk of damage from rising sea levels. Sea levels are rising due to water expansion from higher temperatures and from the melting of land-based ice into the oceans. The increased temperatures are being driven by human activity, particularly fossil fuel combustion and

deforestation. These activities occur globally, but the effects of rising sea levels are localized to those people nearest the oceans. International policy is thus needed to ensure fairness across all nations.

Section: Environmental policy: Purpose and scope Level: 2/3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating Guiding Question 3 How has environmental policy evolved in the United States?

Multiple Choice 24. Which was the first environmental law that required the U.S. government to consider environmental issues before approving policies?

A. Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA) B. Toxic Substances Control Act (TOSCA) C. Clean Water Act (CWA) D. National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) E. Clean Air Act (CAA) Answer: D Section: Environmental policy in the United States Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 25. The ________________ allows U.S. citizens to sue, in federal court, perceived violators of certain environmental laws in order to force compliance.

A. citizen suit provision B. protection standard C. litigation loophole D. National Act E. Environmental Policy Act Answer: A Section: Environmental policy in the United States Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 26. The environmental law that regulates the amount of hazardous pollutants in the air and that contains provisions for protecting the ozone layer is the ___________.

A. National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) B. Clean Air Act (CAA) C. Toxic Substances Act (TOSCA) D. Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA) E. The EPA lacks the authority to regulate air pollutants.

Answer: B Section: Environmental policy in the United States

Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 27. Which of the following is CORRECT regarding U.S. environmental policy prior to the 1960s?

A. Environmental issues were focused on addressing pollution.

B. A key objective was mitigating environmental damage.

C. Environmental issues were handled primarily at the federal level.

D. Environmental policies mostly dealt with how best to use resources.

Answer: D Section: Environmental policy in the United States Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 28. Industries must act to meet ___________ standards, that is, targets set to specify acceptable levels of pollution that can be released or exist in outdoor air.

A. performance B. normative C. attainment D. completion E. discharge Answer: A Section: Environmental policy in the United States Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 29. In the 1960s and 1970s, ___________.

A. it became more difficult to demonstrate that a toxin from a particular source was responsible for harming life B. federal legislators saw regulation as an impediment to economic growth C. most environmental problems were addressed after the fact through litigation D. oil release into coastal waters was first banned E. environmental problems in one state started affecting other states more often Answer: E Section: Environmental policy in the United States Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 30. The era of modern environmental policy had begun by ___________.

A. 1849 B. 1880 C. 1923 D. 1969 E. 1996 Answer: D Section: Environmental policy in the United States

Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 31. Which of the following is FALSE regarding the landmark environmental laws passed in the 1960s and 1970s?

A. Tremendous bipartisan support existed for environmental protection.

B. Many environmental problems crossed state lines.

C. These landmark laws have remained as is, without amendments.

D. Included in these laws was the Endangered Species Act in 1973.

E. All of these answer choices are true regarding these laws.

Answer: C Section: Environmental policy in the United States Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 32. Excess nitrogen fertilizer runs off Midwestern farmland into waterways that lead to the Gulf of Mexico, where the result is a “dead zone” of low oxygen levels. This impacts the ecosystem there and presents a significant economic hardship to the shrimping industry. What level of policy might be needed to address this problem? What existing federal law could be applied?

FEEDBACK: The pollution in this example is not produced in the state that is bearing the negative consequences. To address an environmental problem that crosses state lines, policy at the national level may be most appropriate. Residents of Louisiana can look to the Clean Water Act (CWA) for help in reducing the nutrient pollution entering the Gulf.

This act regulates water quality by setting standards for the release or presence of specified toxic or hazardous water pollutants.

Section: Environmental policy in the United States Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating

Guiding Question 4 How are policies developed and administered in the United States?

Multiple Choice 33. An environmental impact statement (EIS) accomplishes which of the following?

A. sets monetary damages awarded to the plaintiff in an environmental lawsuit B. outlines the positive and negative impacts of a proposed action C. allows a private citizen to sue, in federal court, a violator of environmental law D. details damage done to an environment, including air, water, and soil E. regulates production and distribution of designated toxic chemicals Answer: B Section: The policy cycle: Development and administration of policies Level: 1

Bloom’s Level: Applying 34. Which of the following was established by Congress to implement and enforce federal environmental laws?

A. FDA B. USDA C. EPA D. CWA E. ESA Answer: C Section: The policy cycle: Development and administration of policies Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 35. The EPA and other agencies such as the USDA are administered by the ___________.

A. legislative branch B. executive branch C. judicial branch D. both legislative branch and executive branch E. legislative branch, executive branch, and judicial branch Answer: B Section: The policy cycle: Development and administration of policies Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 36. What is the correct order of the policy decision-making process?

A. identify a problem — consider options — formulation — adoption — implementation — evaluation B. identify a problem — consider options — adoption — formulation — implementation — evaluation C. consider options — adoption — formulation — implementation — evaluation — identify a problem D. consider options — formulation — adoption — implementation — evaluation E. identify a problem — consider options — formulation — adoption — evaluation — implementation Answer: A Section: The policy cycle: Development and administration of policies Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 37. After an EIS, the proposed action of building a road is not taken. Where in the policy decision-making process does this step does this fit in?

A. identifying a problem B. formulation C. adoption D. implementation

E. consideration of options Answer: E Section: The policy cycle: Development and administration of policies Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Essay 38. A federal highway project is proposed to connect two existing stretches of interstate.

What signature feature of the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) must be met prior to construction of the highway?

FEEDBACK: The environmental impact statement (EIS) is the signature feature of the NEPA. This statement is required for federal projects. It details the likely effect of the proposed action on the environment. For example, it checks for potential harm to endangered species, increased soil erosion, reduction of water or air quality, or habitat loss affecting wildlife. In this case, it must be determined that the construction of the highway in that location is appropriate. If not, the road could be relocated elsewhere or not built at all.

Section: The policy cycle: Development and administration of policies Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 39. Explain the role of the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).

FEEDBACK: Congress established the EPA in 1970 as a regulatory agency to create rules and regulations to support environmental laws. The EPA sets standards that ensure the goals of any given law are met. If an entity fails to meet these standards, the EPA holds it accountable by mandating change. This could include closing down an industry for repeat violations, fines for failing to meet standards, revocation of operating permits, and fines for clean-up costs.

Section: The policy cycle: Development and administration of policies Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Guiding Question 5 What factors influence policy decisions?

Multiple Choice 40. Which of the following influences U.S. environmental policy decision making?

A. industry lobbyists B. science C. congressional committees D. industry lobbyists, science, and congressional committees E. only science and C Answer: D Section: Factors that influence policy formation Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

41. What is a disadvantage of the current political lobbying system?

A. Well-financed professional lobbyists may disproportionally interfere with policy makers’ judgments.

B. An individual citizen can share opinions with policy makers.

C. It is part of a democratic government.

D. A, B, and C are all disadvantages.

Answer: A Section: Factors that influence policy formation Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 42. In an ideal world, all policies would be based on ___________.

A. sound science B. professional lobbyists for corporations C. professional lobbyists for nonprofit organizations D. a strong public voice E. congressional committees Answer: A Section: Factors that influence policy formation Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 43. How do political lobbyists influence the policy making process?

A. Lobbyists review sound science and use the results to propose policy.

B. Lobbyists contact elected officials in support of a particular position.

C. Lobbyists only work for industry corporations to support bills that will benefit the corporations.

D. Lobbyists only support regulation of toxic substances to help the environment.

E. Lobbyists for the chemical industry govern the decisions of the EPA. Answer: B Section: Factors that influence policy formation Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 44. What is political lobbying? In the United States, how does lobbying affect policy decisions?

FEEDBACK: As part of the democratic process, political lobbyists contact elected officials in support of a particular position. In the United States, professional lobbying has become highly organized, with substantial financial backing. These funds are often used to contribute to a candidate’s election fund in hopes that, if elected, that candidate will support the lobbyist’s cause. In addition, money can be used for running ad campaigns that promote the lobbyist’s positions to the general public. Some argue that the tremendous growth of lobbying in the United States overwhelms the voice of the individual citizen and potentially interferes with policy makers’ judgments.

Section: Factors that influence policy formation Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 45. In the United States, government officials selected to regulate an industry are often chosen from a pool of industry executives because they possess detailed knowledge of that industry that other candidates lack and therefore can best regulate it. What unintended consequences might this arrangement result in?

FEEDBACK: This phenomenon is called the revolving door. Executives from industry are selected to government posts and charged with regulating the very industry they once profited from. Since election cycles are short-term arrangements, those individuals will likely return to industry once their post concludes. It could be viewed as a conflict of interest to regulate an industry that you have had, or will have in the future, a financial interest in.

Section: Factors that influence policy formation Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating Guiding Question 6 What policy tools can be used to implement and enforce environmental policy?

Multiple Choice 46. Which of the following is NOT a form of command and control regulation?

A. subsidies B. permits to authorize operation C. performance and technology standards D. penalties E. none of these answers Answer: A Section: Tools for the implementation and enforcement of policies Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 47. __________ taxes refer to taxes levied on an environmentally harmful action.

A. Polluter B. Green C. Industrial D. Emission-based E. Eco-based Answer: B Section: Tools for the implementation and enforcement of policies Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 48. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of command and control regulation?

A. It directly changes the behavior of the regulated industry.

B. A one-size-fits-all approach may limit some industries’ ability to use the most costeffective methods to address their impact.

C. It is a market-based approach.

D. Regulatory agencies must have sufficient funding to enforce compliance.

E. It provides no incentive for companies to reduce pollution below mandated limits.

Answer: C Section: Tools for the implementation and enforcement of policies Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 49. A disadvantage of command and control policy used to protect the environment is ___________.

A. the potential for cap-and-trade programs to create pollution hotspots in areas where most users choose to buy credits rather than reduce emissions B. the potential for perverse subsidies that support undesirable activities C. passing the cost of green taxes on to the consumer D. the lack of incentive for companies to reduce pollution below mandated limits E. the complexity of the concept and the long time required to achieve desired goals Answer: D Section: Tools for the implementation and enforcement of policies Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 50. An advantage of an economic policy tool approach to protecting the environment is the ___________.

A. simplicity of the concept and ability to achieve desired goals quickly B. ability to change the behavior of the regulated industry directly C. potential to ban extremely toxic substances through authorization permits D. widespread citizen support for spending tax dollars to impose emission limits E. encouragement of innovation for reducing environmental impacts Answer: E Section: Tools for the implementation and enforcement of policies Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 51. Which of the following is a market-based approach to protecting the environment?

A. assessing green taxes on pollution produced by a factory—more pollution leads to higher taxes B. tax breaks awarded to industries for carrying out environmentally favorable actions C. permit trading for an environmental pollutant, such as emitted sulfur dioxide D. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: D Section: Tools for the implementation and enforcement of policies Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

Essay 52. Describe how the emissions trading policy, known as cap-and-trade, is designed to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.

FEEDBACK: A cap, or upper limit, is placed on the amount of any given greenhouse gas that a company is permitted to emit each year. Credits are earned if the company reduces its emissions below the cap. The company can then sell, or trade, those “carbon credits” in the global marketplace. Thus a financial incentive encourages companies to reduce emissions. For companies that are unable to reduce their own emissions, they can still contribute to reductions elsewhere by purchasing carbon credits.

Section: Tools for the implementation and enforcement of policies Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 53. Compare command and control regulation with market-based approaches that create economic incentives. What are some advantages and disadvantages of these policy tools?

FEEDBACK: Governmental command and control can take several forms, including issuing permits to authorize operation, setting performance and technology standards that regulate emissions, and/or specifying the technology and methods required to reduce pollution. Advantages of this approach are that it directly changes the behavior of the regulated industry. This is simple in concept and may achieve desired outcomes quickly.

It is especially effective when the potential for severe environmental or health impact is high and when the level of control is known and uniform across all regulated industries.

Disadvantages of this approach are that a one-size-fits-all approach may limit flexibility in how some industries can address their impact. It can be seen as being heavy handed and provides no incentive for companies to reduce pollution below mandated limits.

Regulatory agencies must have sufficient funding to enforce compliance. In contrast, market-based approaches create economic incentives for the private sector to reduce environmentally harmful actions, without dictating exactly how to do it. These incentives include green taxes, subsidies, grants or low-interest loans, and tradable permits (cap and trade). Advantages are that it may be more cost effective than command and control regulation and may stimulate the economy. It encourages innovation for reducing environmental impact and provides incentives to reduce pollution below requirements.

Disadvantages include the potential for harmful subsidies, the unintentional creation of pollution hotspots through cap-and-trade programs, and the passing on of green-tax burdens to consumers.

Section: Tools for the implementation and enforcement of policies Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 54. Describe how command and control regulation could be used to decrease gasoline usage in automobiles. How could incentive-based regulation be used to accomplish the same task?

FEEDBACK: An example of command and control regulation could be mandating fuel efficiency standards for all newly produced automobiles—for example, setting the standard to 50 miles per gallon. An incentive-based regulation could be to assess a green tax on gasoline that leads to an increase in carpooling.

Section: Tools for the implementation and enforcement of policies Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Guiding Question 7 How are international policies established and enforced?

Multiple Choice 55. Which of the following groups provide input toward how best to curb emissions and slow global warming?

A. scientists B. environmental activists C. policy makers D. political leaders E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: E Section: International environmental policy Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 56. An effective international policy often requires ___________.

A. time and lots of work B. the identification of specific targets C. compromise D. addressing the causes as well as the consequences E. All of these answer choices are often required.

Answer: E Section: International environmental policy Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 57. Which of the following is true of international environmental policy?

A. The process is slow and incremental.

B. Many meetings, negotiations, and votes are required.

C. Specific targets are identified.

D. Science helps to inform policy.

E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: E Section: International environmental policy Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 58. Describe several characteristics of an effective policy at the international level.

FEEDBACK: Generally speaking, effective policies at the international level provide benefits across sectors, rather than just for one group or region. In addition, they address

causes as well as consequences, identify specific benchmark targets, and are flexible to accommodate ongoing science-based adaptive management. Lastly, successful international policies must have effective enforcement and have buy-in at multiple levels, including government, citizens, industry, and among nations.

Section: International environmental policy Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating 59. As president of a country that relies significantly on income from whaling, you are concerned about declining whale populations. Several other countries are considered whaling countries. What can be done to help ensure sustainable whaling into the future?

FEEDBACK: A commission could be established that includes members from each of the whaling countries. Informed by scientific studies that document population declines and future predictions, the commission could agree cooperatively to take steps toward avoiding an industry collapse. For example, they could ban whaling in certain “hotspot” areas and/or set harvest quotas. As an international policy, enforcement will likely be limited to trade sanctions levied against countries that violate the agreements.

Section: International environmental policy Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating Guiding Question 8 How has the international community responded to ozone depletion?

Multiple Choice 60. The 1987 Montréal Protocol involved the regulation of ___________.

A. ozone-depleting substances B. global warming C. whaling D. endangered species E. overfishing Answer: A Section: Responding to ozone depletion: The Montréal Protocol Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 61. Re-entering the policy cycle for revision as new or changing information comes to light is known as ___________.

A. adaptive management B. lobbying C. circulation D. evolving management E. revolving management Answer: A Section: Responding to ozone depletion: The Montréal Protocol Level: 1

Bloom’s Level: Remembering 62. Prior to the 1987 Montréal Protocol, there existed some uncertainty in the scientific community as to the magnitude of ozone depletion caused by CFCs in the atmosphere.

Nevertheless, the protocol did recommend phasing out CFCs from refrigerants and other uses because the potential consequences of not doing so were so severe. This is an example of applying the _______________ principle.

A. uncertainty B. guilty-until-proven-innocent C. precautionary D. utopian E. better-safe-than-sorry Answer: C Section: Responding to ozone depletion: The Montréal Protocol Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 63. Which international agreement phased out CFCs and other stratospheric ODSs? A. Kyoto Protocol B. United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change C. Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants D. Montréal Protocol E. Paris Agreement Answer: C Section: Responding to ozone depletion: The Montréal Protocol Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 64. What is the precautionary principle? How can it be used to shape policy regarding the recent changes in global climate attributed to human activity?

FEEDBACK: The precautionary principle leads to acting in a way that leaves a safety margin when the data are uncertain or when severe consequences are possible. In the case of climate change, the scientific consensus is that increased atmospheric greenhouse gases, because of combustion of fossil fuels and deforestation, are driving the recent changes in global climate. Scientists project that these changes will have severe consequences and immediate action to reduce emissions is necessary, despite opposition from those who disagree with the science and/or the politics surrounding the issue.

Section: Responding to ozone depletion: The Montréal Protocol Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying/Analyzing

Matching Questions Match each term in the left-hand column to the statement that it best exemplifies.

1. subsidies

2. citizen suit provision

3. command and control regulation 4. adaptive management

5. green tax 6. cap and trade 7. performance standards 8. precautionary principle

9. environmental impact statement (EIS) 10. environmental policy

11. political lobbying 12. atmosphere 13. transboundary problem

a document that outlines the positive and negative impacts of a proposed action; used to help decide whether that action will be approved (*9) targets set that specify acceptable levels of pollution that can be released or exist in ambient (outdoor) air; industries must act to meet these standards (*7) the lowest level of the atmosphere (*16) a 1969 U.S. law that established environmental protection as a guiding policy for the nation and required that the federal government take the environment into consideration before taking action that might affect it (*14) a molecule made up of three oxygen atoms (*17) a layer of atmosphere that lies directly about the troposphere (*18) a plan that allows room for altering strategies as new information comes in or as the situation itself changes (*4) contacting elected officials in support of a particular position; some professional lobbyists are highly organized, with substantial financial backing (*11) financial assistance given by the government or other party in support of actions that are expected to benefit the public good (*1) a tax (a fee paid to the government) assessed on environmentally undesirable activities (for example, a tax per unit of pollution emitted) (*5) the federal agency responsible for setting policy and enforcing U.S. environmental laws (*15) acting in a way that leaves a safety margin when the data are uncertain or severe consequences are possible (*8) a provision that allows a private citizen to sue, in federal court, a perceived violator of certain U.S. environmental

laws, such as the Clean Air Act, in order to force compliance (*2) 14. National Environmental the blanket of gases surrounding earth Policy Act (NEPA) (*12) 15. Environmental regulations that set an upper limit for pollution emissions, Protection Agency (EPA) issue permits to producers for a portion of that amount, and allow producers that release less than their allotment to sell permits to those who exceeded their allotment (*6) 16. troposphere regulations that set an upper allowable limit of pollution release, which is enforced with fines and/or incarceration (*3) 17. ozone (O3) an international agreement that represents a position on an issue and identifies general goals that the signing countries agree to pursue (*21) 18. stratosphere a course of action adopted by a government or organization that is intended to improve the natural environment and public health or reduce human impact on the environment (*10) 19. tax credit a reduction in the tax one has to pay in exchange for some desirable action (*19) 20. ultraviolet (UV) a document that sets precise goals and targets radiation (*22) 21. convention a problem that extends across state and national boundaries; pollution that is produced in one area but falls in or reaches other states or nations (*13) 22. protocol high-energy radiation that is harmful to living things (*20)

Linked Questions Science Literacy Use the following infographic to answer the next five questions.

1. Which wavelength is the most dangerous to living organisms?

A. UV-A B. UV-B C. UV-C D. They are all equally dangerous to living organisms.

Answer: C Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 2. What happens to a CF2Cl2 molecule when it encounters UV-B rays?

A. It is converted into an O3 molecule.

B. It produces ClO molecules.

C. It breaks apart into CF2Cl and a Cl molecule.

D. It produces O2 molecules.

Answer: C Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 3. Where is ozone (O3) naturally broken down and formed?

A. troposphere

B. stratosphere C. mesosphere D. thermosphere Answer: B Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 4. What happens to the Cl molecule after it is released from CF2Cl2?

A. It combines with an oxygen molecule to produce ClO. B. It breaks down O2 into two oxygen atoms.

C. It travels down to the troposphere and becomes a pollutant.

D. It combines with ozone to produce ClO3.

Answer: A Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 5. With fewer O3 molecules in the stratosphere, how much UV-B radiation reaches the surface of Earth?

A. 0% B. 0 to 5% C. 5% to 10% D. more than 10% Answer: D Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Making Connections Use the following scenario to answer the next four questions.

The international community has been wrestling with climate change since 1979. The United Nations created the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) in 1988 to review and report on published research on climate. The Kyoto Protocol was introduced in 1997 as an amendment to the 1992 UN Framework Convention on Climate Change, which was an international treaty to address climate change. The Clean Development Mechanism was created in 2003, which required industrialized nations to lower their carbon emissions and allowed them to purchase carbon credits.

1. Which of the following is true of the climate change issue?

A. It is an easily solvable problem.

B. It is a transboundary problem.

C. It cannot be addressed with environmental policy.

D. It is an issue only for the United States.

Answer: B Section: Making connections

Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 2. Why did the UN create the IPCC? A. High-quality science should be the basis for policies.

B. Lobbyists demanded a panel of scientists look at climate change research.

C. They wanted to use taxpayer monies.

D. The citizen suit provision demanded a review of the science.

Answer: A Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 3. The Clean Development Mechanism would be considered a ___________.

A. command-and-control regulation B. tax credit C. cap-and-trade program D. subsidy E. green tax Answer: C Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 4. The purpose of the Kyoto Protocol was to ___________.

A. present a position on climate change and identify general goals for the signing countries to pursue B. set precise goals and targets to address climate change C. allow room for altering strategies on climate change as new information becomes available D. offer subsidies to governments reducing greenhouse emissions Answer: B Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

MODULE 5.3 Multiple Choice 1. Tiny bits of plastic gather in specific areas of the world’s oceans where strong currents circle around areas with very weak, or even no, currents. These regions are called __________.

A. Bermuda triangles B. gyres C. pods D. waterfills E. neuston layers Answer: B Section: Introduction Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 2. What is the Great Atlantic Garbage Patch?

A. an area where garbage gets dumped into the Atlantic Ocean B. an area with high densities of plastic in the Atlantic Ocean C. a giant plastic island in the Atlantic Ocean D. an island of waste that will be taken to the Atlantic Ocean E. an area where waste can be biodegraded by the Atlantic Ocean Answer: B Section: Introduction Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Guiding Question 1 What types of solid waste do we produce, and why do we say it is a “human invention”?

Multiple Choice 3. Waste is _____________.

A. anything that humans do not deem valuable to survival B. a human term used to describe things we throw away C. any discarded item that can be naturally degraded in the environment D. common in natural ecosystems E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: B Section: Waste: A human invention Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 4. Why is there no such thing as waste in natural, nonhuman ecosystems?

A. There is not enough consumption to produce waste.

B. The discarded matter of one organism becomes the resources for another.

C. All organisms reuse their own discarded matter.

D. There is one niche in every ecosystem that consumes all waste from the other members of the ecosystem.

E. Waste does exist in natural ecosystems; we just can’t see it.

Answer: B Section: Waste: A human invention Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 5. Matter can be neither created nor destroyed; it only changes form. This is the law of _________.

A. conservation of energy B. waste management C. conservation of matter D. no returns E. sustainability Answer: C Section: Waste: A human invention Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 6. Why can’t we permanently get rid of the waste we generate?

A. It is illegal to dump waste in the oceans.

B. Most states prohibit the burning of waste.

C. It would violate the law of conservation of matter.

D. Disposal costs are prohibitive.

E. None of the choices above fit the description.

Answer: C Section: Waste: A human invention Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 7. What are the characteristics of something that is nondegradable?

A. It does not degrade in normal atmospheric conditions.

B. It is mostly synthetic molecules.

C. It is chemically stable.

D. It cannot be broken down by naturally occurring enzymes.

E. All of these choices are characteristics.

Answer: E Section: Waste: A human invention Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 8. A manufacturer of potato chips claims that its packaging can be broken down by living organisms. This packaging is considered _____________.

A. industrial waste

B. nondegradable C. biodegradable D. All of these choices fit the description.

E. None of these choices fit the description.

Answer: C Section: Waste: A human invention Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 9. Why are take-back laws important for waste management?

A. They encourage companies to design products which can be reused.

B. They encourage companies to produce fewer products.

C. They discourage consumers from buying products.

D. They require companies to create products using all biodegradable materials.

E. They outlaw using nondegradable materials in products.

Answer: A Section: Waste: A human invention Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 10. Which of the following statements about waste is TRUE? A. Waste is found in natural ecosystems.

B. Synthetic molecules such as DDT and CFCs are easily biodegradable.

C. Most plastic waste degrades quickly in any environment.

D. Humans use matter in a linear manner.

E. The best way to keep garbage out of the ocean is to throw it away somewhere else.

Answer: D Section: Waste: A human invention Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 11. _________ require(s) manufacturers to take back some of their products after consumers are finished with them.

A. Cradle-to-cradle laws B. Take-back laws C. Demanufacturing D. Reuse laws E. Reduction laws Answer: B Section: Waste: A human invention Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 12. Disassembling equipment, machinery, and appliances into components which can be salvaged or reused is an example of ___________.

A. refusing

B. reducing C. negative feedback D. limited growth E. demanufacturing Answer: E Section: Waste: A human invention Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 13. This picture shows people scavenging Cambodia’s municipal garbage dump. What does their presence there imply about what has been thrown away?

FEEDBACK: The presence of people at the landfill implies that items of worth (which could be reused or recycled) have been thrown away. People work around the clock collecting plastic, metals, wood, cloth, and paper, which they can sell to recyclers.

Developed countries in particular throw away items that could be reused or recycled, but growing consumption in developing countries is also increasing the volume of solid waste generated there.

Section: Waste: A human invention Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Application 14. What is the difference between degradable and biodegradable waste?

FEEDBACK: Both degradable and biodegradable waste can be broken down. The difference between the two lies in what is doing the degrading. Waste that is biodegradable can be broken down by organisms such as bacteria and fungi. Waste that

can be broken down by chemicals or physical wearing is considered degradable, but not biodegradable, since organisms cannot process this type of waste.

Section: Waste: A human invention Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 15. Even though a banana peel is biodegradable and is typically broken down at rapid rates, if you bury the peel deep within a landfill, it takes much longer to degrade. Why is this?

FEEDBACK: By burying the banana peel deep in a landfill, you are effectively preventing the rapid degradation of it by removing the necessary ingredients of decomposition: oxygen, water, and microorganisms. The absence, or reduced presence, of these components draws out the degradation period far longer than if the banana peel were exposed to an abundance of all three.

Section: Waste: A human invention Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 16. Many states in the United States have take-back laws which require manufacturers to take back some of their products (such as computers) after consumers have finished with them. How does this encourage companies to rethink their product design?

FEEDBACK: Since companies have to take back their products, they will have a cost associated with this. Companies that design products from which components can easily be salvaged and reused will incur a smaller cost.

Section: Reducing solid waste: Consumers and the 4Rs Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Guiding Question 2 What is municipal solid waste (MSW) and what are the types and proportion of waste in the U.S. MSW stream?

17. In the United States, 91% to 97% of all garbage is categorized as ___________ waste.

A. recycled paper B. mining C. municipal paper D. agricultural, mining, and industrial E. municipal metal Answer: D Section: Municipal solid waste Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 18. Everyday garbage or trash (solid waste) produced by individuals or small businesses is known as ____________.

A. municipal solid waste

B. industrial solid waste C. hazardous waste D. biodegradable E. sanitary Answer: A Section: Municipal solid waste Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 19. In 2014 alone, each American produced about _____ of solid waste per day.

A. 0.5 pound B. 2.5 pounds C. 3.2 pounds D. 4.44 pounds E. 10 pounds Answer: D Section: Municipal solid waste Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 20. Americans produce _______ amount of solid waste produced by most less-developed countries.

A. half the B. the same C. twice the D. 10 times the E. 100 times the Answer: D Section: Municipal solid waste Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 21. Refer to Infographic 2 below. In 2014, what made up the highest percentage of total U.S. MSW before recycling?

A. yard trimmings B. food C. plastic D. paper E. metal Answer: D Section: Municipal solid waste Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 22. The amount of solid waste produced each year by urban dwellers is expected to _______ by 2025.

A. stay the same B. decrease C. double D. triple E. quadruple Answer: C Section: Municipal solid waste Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 23. Refer to Infographic 2. The pie chart shows components of U.S. municipal solid waste. For each component, describe what can be done to avoid disposal at a sanitary landfill.

FEEDBACK: Paper products, plastics, metals, and glass can all be recycled. Food and yard trimmings can be composted. At waste-to-energy facilities, the paper products and other burnable items can be combusted for energy.

Section: Municipal solid waste Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Guiding Question 3 What is the EPA’s preferred hierarchy of preferred MSW disposal methods and how well does the United States meet this recommendation?

Multiple Choice 24. The majority of municipal solid waste produced in the United States ends up being __________.

A. recycled B. composted C. incinerated D. landfilled E. reused Answer: D Section: Disposal methods: What we should do-what we actually do Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 25. Currently, 53% of our waste is put into landfills. According to the EPA, which of the following shows available waste management techniques in order of most preferred to least preferred?

A. recycling/compost, incineration with energy capture, source reduction/reuse, landfilling

B. source reduction/reuse, recycling/composting, incineration with energy capture, landfilling C. landfilling, recycling/composting, incineration with energy capture, source reduction/reuse D. source reduction/reuse, incineration with energy capture, recycling/composting, incineration without energy capture E. recycling/composting, source reduction/reuse, landfilling Answer: B Section: Disposal methods: What we should do, what we actually do Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Essay 26. Waste that is not disposed of correctly may end up in the oceans. How can we reduce the amount of waste that ends up in the oceans?

FEEDBACK: Through the practices of recycling, composting, and source reduction and reusing, the amount of waste being generated can be reduced. Additionally, biodegradable material can be used to replace plastics, which are a key source of pollution in the ocean.

Section: Disposal methods: What we should do, what we actually do Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Guiding Question 4 Compare the design, advantages, and disadvantages of open dumps and sanitary landfills.

Multiple Choice 27. One of the cheapest and most common methods of handling solid wastes in developing countries is _________.

A. sanitary landfills B. incinerators C. recycling D. open dumps E. composting Answer: D Section: Sanitary landfills Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 28. Sanitary landfills are commonly used in the United States to manage solid waste.

Since decomposition in sanitary landfills relies upon anaerobic bacteria (those that live in oxygen-poor environments), a large amount of the greenhouse gas ______ is produced.

A. methane B. carbon dioxide C. oxygen D. nitrogen

E. sulfur Answer: A Section: Sanitary landfills Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 29. Hazardous and nonhazardous wastes in developing countries often end up in open dumps. Which of the following is FALSE regarding open dumps?

A. Open dumps attract pests such as flies and rats.

B. Leachate from open dumps can contaminate groundwater.

C. Sanitary landfills and open dumps are essentially the same thing.

D. Open dumps are one of the cheapest ways to get rid of human trash.

E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: C Section: Sanitary landfills Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 31. It has been shown that a bottle deposit, a center for returning and recycling bottles and cans, significantly reduces the amount of plastic or glass bottles and aluminum cans that end up in a landfill. Not all states have a bottle deposit. What would be the benefits of having a bottle deposit in all states?

FEEDBACK: Landfills are expensive to construct and maintain, and the more recycling that can be done to reduce the amount of material being sent to the landfill, the more the life of the landfill will be extended. Additionally, recycling helps to prevent degradation of the environment (for example, not needing to mine for as much raw material to produce aluminum and cleaner roadsides from less litter) and can create jobs in the recycling industry. Financial incentives are a powerful driver of recycling.

Section: Sanitary landfills Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying/Analyzing 32. Refer to Infographic 4. From the diagram of a sanitary landfill, describe potential environmental issues associated with landfills and what steps are taken to protect the environment.

FEEDBACK: Leachate (contaminated liquid) must be prevented from leaking into the surrounding soil and groundwater. This is accomplished with layers of plastic and impermeable clay. In addition, the leachate is collected and treated. If too little liquid is available, conditions for decomposition by bacteria suffer, so this must be monitored carefully. Layers of dirt prevent pests and odors from accumulating in the landfill.

Anaerobic bacteria (those that survive with little oxygen) produce methane as a byproduct of breaking down organic waste. This methane is a potent greenhouse gas. It is collected and combusted for energy.

Section: Sanitary landfills Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Guiding Question 5 What are the pros and cons of waste incinerators?

Multiple Choice 33. Incinerators reduce the volume of solid waste by about ______________.

A. 10% to 20% B. 30% to 40% C. 50% to 60% D. 70% to 80% E. 80% to 90% Answer: E

Section: Waste incinerators Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 34. Incineration of waste reduces its volume by 80% to 90%, which is good. What are problems associated with this practice?

A. the creation of air pollution B. the creation of water pollution C. the production of toxic solid waste D. the cost of incinerators Answer: B Section: Waste incinerators Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 35 Refer to Infographic 5. Describe the pros and cons of a waste-to-energy incinerator.

FEEDBACK: Incinerators reduce the volume of solid waste by 80% to 90%. This means much less waste is sent to sanitary landfills, which require money to create and maintain as well as valuable land. In addition, under high temperatures, the burnable portion of the solid waste is combusted for energy. This means less coal is required to produce electricity (and less environmental damage from mining coal and combusting coal, which sends off more heat, trapping carbon dioxide into the atmosphere, as well as other pollutants). As a con, combustion of some materials in trash produces toxic chemicals that can escape into the air. To lessen that, filters are used to remove chemicals and particulate matter before they reach the smoke stacks. Also, the ash produced could be toxic and would need to be treated as hazardous materials. Lastly, incinerators have high start-up costs.

Section: Waste incinerators Level: Medium Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question 6 What problems does solid waste cause?

Multiple Choice 36. Match the waste management method to its potential harm to ecosystems.

A. landfills — ground water contamination from leachate B. incineration — production of methane, a greenhouse gas C. ocean dumping — toxic ash as waste breaks down under sunlight D. composting — thermal (heat) pollution in local waterways E. recycling — release of hazardous waste due to combustion of recyclable material Answer: A Section: Impacts of solid waste Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 37. Ecological concerns regarding plastics in oceans include which of the following?

A. Sea mammals can get tangled in discarded plastic items, such as fishing nets and sixpack rings.

B. Seabirds eat plastic, mistaking it for food, and may end up choking on the plastic.

C. Plastic absorbs fat-soluble pollutants such as PCBs and DDT; these are toxins known to bioaccumulate in the tissues of marine organisms and biomagnify up food chains.

D. Floating bits of plastic can serve as attachment points for fish eggs, barnacles, and many types of larval and juvenile organisms, and thus they could potentially transport harmful, invasive species to new locales.

E. All of the above are concerns regarding plastics in oceans.

Answer: E Section: Impacts of solid waste Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

38. Which of the following waste and waste management techniques are best matched up so as to cause the least harm to ecosystems?

A. aluminum cans — incinerating B. pesticides — dumping in waterways C. paper waste — open dumps D. yard waste — composting E. e-waste — landfilling Answer: D Section: Impacts of solid waste Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 39. Aquatic ecosystems are considered particularly vulnerable to plastic waste. Describe four ways that plastic waste can affect aquatic species and ecosystems.

FEEDBACK: Four ways that plastic waste can affect aquatic species and ecosystems are: (1) sea mammals can die due to entanglement in discarded plastic items, such as fishing nets and six-pack rings; (2) sea birds and mammals often eat plastic, mistaking it for food, and may end up choking on the plastic or dying due to starvation because their digestive system gets clogged with the plastic waste; (3) plastic absorbs fat-soluble pollutants such as PCBs and DDT, toxins that are known to bioaccumulate in the tissues of marine organisms and biomagnify up food chains; and (4) floating bits of plastic can serve as attachment points for fish eggs, barnacles, and many types of larval and juvenile organisms, and thus can potentially transport harmful, invasive species to new locales.

Section: Impacts of solid waste Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 40. What are the potential environmental consequences of disposing of waste via landfilling and incineration? What systems exist in each disposal method to try and prevent these potential problems?

FEEDBACK: Landfilling involves buying waste in the ground. The two main environmental consequences of landfills are groundwater pollution from leachate and air pollution from methane. In an effort to prevent leachate from depositing toxins into groundwater under the landfill, several protective layers of gravel, soil, and thick plastic seal the waste from below. Newer landfills also have leachate-collection systems whereby the leachate is extracted from the landfill and treated before being released into the environment. Landfills also produce methane as a result of anaerobic decomposition (since the compacted and sealed trash is deprived of oxygen), and that makes them a significant contributor of this potent greenhouse gas. In some landfills, the methane is captured and burned to generate electricity. Incinerators burn waste, and that pollutes the air and produces toxic ash. Air-cleaning systems installed in incinerators remove some of the air pollutants, such as particulates, sulfur, nitrogen, and toxic pollutants like mercury and dioxins. The ash, since it is considered toxic, must be buried in specially designed hazardous waste landfills.

Section: Impacts of solid waste

Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying/Analyzing

Guiding Question 7 What are some common household hazardous wastes and how should individuals deal with this waste?

Multiple Choice 41. Hazardous waste is __________.

A. any material that humans deem to be unwanted B. everyday garbage or trash produced by individuals or small businesses C. waste that is capable of being broken down by living organisms D. waste that is incapable of being broken down under normal conditions E. waste that is toxic, flammable, corrosive, explosive, or radioactive Answer: E Section: Household hazardous waste Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 42. Which of the following is NOT considered hazardous waste?

A. pesticides B. automotive oil C. plastic bottles D. e-waste E. compact fluorescent light bulbs Answer: C Section: Household hazardous waste Level: 1/2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding/Applying 43. What is the MOST appropriate way to handle hazardous waste?

A. incinerate it, as burning eliminates all toxic waste B. landfill it, as leachate contains the hazardous waste and prevents it from contaminating ground water C. dump it in the ocean, as the volume of water dilutes the waste, essentially making it nonhazardous D. send it to developing countries in Africa, as they have developed methods of extracting the valuable components of such waste without causing harm to the workers E. None of these answer choices is an appropriate way to handle hazardous waste.

Answer: E Section: Household hazardous waste Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 44. When e-waste is improperly recycled, toxic metals can be released; this can include _________.

A. lead B. mercury C. chromium

D. lead, mercury, and chromium E. only lead and mercury Answer: D Section: Household hazardous waste Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 45. __________ is harmful to humans; it is toxic, flammable, corrosive, explosive, and/or radioactive.

A. biodegradable waste B. sanitary landfill waste C. municipal waste D. hazardous waste E. industrial waste Answer: D Section: Household hazardous waste Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 46. What is hazardous waste, and why is it considered to be problematic? Discuss two ways the average person can reduce their contribution to the potential problems caused by hazardous waste.

FEEDBACK: Hazardous waste is waste that is toxic, flammable, corrosive, explosive, or radioactive. Due to its nature (that is, being poisonous, flammable, and so on), such waste is considered problematic, as it can be harmful to ecological well-being (by polluting air, water, and soil) and thus to human health as well. The best way to reduce one’s contribution to the potential problems caused by hazardous waste is to avoid the use of hazardous materials. So, for example, use nontoxic cleaning agents or avoid using pesticides by managing pests using more natural methods. In some instances, we cannot avoid using things that are hazardous or contain hazardous components, such as motor oil, batteries, or electronics. In these cases, safe and responsible recycling and disposal of these items is the best way to reduce potential problems.

Section: Household hazardous waste Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 47. What is e-waste? Explain why recycling e-waste is a better idea than simply burying it in a hazardous waste landfill. What are the concerns with such recycling efforts?

FEEDBACK: Unwanted electronic devices, such as computers, televisions, and cell phones that are discarded are referred to as e-waste. These items have many components in them that are valuable, such as the precious metals gold, copper, and zinc, and it only makes sense to recover these resources. However, e-waste also contains a suite of toxic metals, such as lead, mercury, and chromium, which, if released due to unsafe and poor extraction methods, can contaminate the soil, air, and water surrounding e-waste disposal

sites and also cause a wide range of health problems, including birth defects, organ damage, and cancer.

Section: Household hazardous waste Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 48. Often, humans use hazardous materials without even knowing that the products they are using are harmful. What are some products that qualify as household hazardous waste? What efforts do you think should be made to make people more aware of the products they are using and how they should be properly disposed of?

FEEDBACK: Some examples of household hazardous waste are bug killers, paint thinners and strippers, automobile oil, oven cleaner, and certain batteries. Proper disposal of these items is extremely important. Governments should require labels on all hazardous materials specifying them as such and should facilitate proper recycling and disposal for the public. Companies should clearly state in instructions and advertisements if their product could be harmful to humans and how to dispose of such products in a safe manner.

Section: Household hazardous waste Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 49. Hazardous waste affects not only humans but also other living organisms in a variety of ecosystems when disposed of improperly. Explain how hazardous waste can affect different organisms and why it is important to reduce human use of these products.

FEEDBACK: Disposing of hazardous waste improperly can cause many animals to digest this waste, causing bioaccumulation of fat-soluble chemicals in organisms and biomagnification along food chains, which may eventually reach dangerous levels in top predators and humans. Some animals die due to ingestion of certain chemicals.

Hazardous wastes can also reduce air quality for all organisms if they are incinerated. We can lessen these concerns by limiting our use of products that become hazardous waste by using alternative eco-friendly products whenever possible. It is essential to dispose of hazardous waste correctly because all levels of organisms are directly and indirectly affected by their pollution.

Section: Household hazardous waste Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating Guiding Question 8 What is composting and how can it help us in our quest to deal with solid waste?

Multiple Choice 50. Which of the following can be composted?

A. paper B. old cell phones C. plastic D. batteries

E. fluorescent light bulbs Answer: A Section: Reducing solid waste: Composting Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 51. Which of the following is TRUE of composting?

A. It works on biodegradable and nondegradable trash.

B. It can be done only on a small scale at present.

C. It can turn some trash into soil-like mulch.

D. It is an unnatural way to deal with trash.

E. It uses industrial chemicals which can be hazardous.

Answer: C Section: Reducing solid waste: Composting Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 52. Which of the following materials should NOT be added to a compost pile?

A. pet waste B. livestock manure C. paper D. dead leaves E. All of these answer choices could be added to a compost pile.

Answer: A Section: Reducing solid waste: Composting Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 53. What is the process of allowing waste to biologically decompose in the presence of oxygen and water?

A. bioaccumulation B. composting C. recycling D. eutrophication E. hypoxia Answer: B Section: Reducing solid waste: Composting Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Guiding Question 9 What are the four Rs of waste reduction?

Multiple Choice 54. A soup company wants to reduce the waste associated with its soup packaging. Which option would help it to accomplish this goal?

A. make the soup out of organically grown vegetables B. encourage consumers to burn the soup cans as a source of heat C. package the soup in reusable glass containers D. encourage the location of landfills in communities near the factory so that the surplus soup ingredients and packaging materials can be landfilled locally E. package the soup in smaller cans Answer: C Section: Reducing solid waste: Consumers and the 4Rs Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 55. Choosing to buy goods with minimal packaging is an example of ____.

A. refusing B. reducing C. reusing D. recycling E. demanufacturing Answer: B Section: Reducing solid waste: Consumers and the 4Rs Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 56. Declining to take a plastic bag for a few items purchased at a store is an example of ________.

A. refusing B. reducing C. reusing D. recycling E. demanufacturing Answer: A Section: Reducing solid waste: Consumers and the 4Rs Level:1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 57. Composting kitchen and yard waste is an example of ____________.

A. refusing B. reducing C. reusing D. recycling E. demanufacturing Answer: B Section: Reducing solid waste: Consumers and the 4Rs Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

58. The four Rs to help an individual limit waste production are _______________.

A. reclaim, rename, retake, and recycle B. recycle, recycle, recycle, and recycle C. ratify, rectify, remedy, and reframe D. refuse, reduce, reuse, and recycle E. revamp, retrofit, reduce, and regulation Answer: D Section: Reducing solid waste: Consumers and the 4Rs Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 59. Which of the following is NOT a way to personally reduce your solid waste production?

A. filling a canteen instead of using plastic water bottles B. buying goods with minimal packaging C. composting kitchen and yard wastes D. buying organic foods from developing countries E. reusing plastic shopping bags for household chores Answer: D Section: Reducing solid waste: Consumers and the 4Rs Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 60. Consumers can decrease the amount of landfilled solid waste by ___________.

A. refusing to purchase products that contribute to solid waste generation B. purchasing goods with minimal packaging C. finding ways to reuse materials instead of purchasing new ones D. actively recycling materials E. All of these choices will decrease the amount of landfilled solid waste.

Answer: E Section: Reducing solid waste: Consumers and the 4Rs Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 61. What everyday changes can you make to reduce the amount of waste you produce?

FEEDBACK: To reduce the amount of waste you produce you need to follow the four R’s: reduce, reuse, reuse, and recycle. By following these four simple guidelines, you can significantly reduce the amount of waste you produce.

Section: Reducing solid waste: Consumers and the 4Rs Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 62. Refer to Infographic 9. What options do consumers have for disposing of their waste, and which options are the most environmentally friendly?

FEEDBACK: Typically, there are three options available to deal with solid waste produced by individuals. The waste can be disposed of in landfills, it can be recycled, or it can be reused. To minimize their ecological footprint, consumers should first attempt to reuse their waste, like reusing plastic bags from the grocery store before disposing of them. Next, the consumer should attempt to recycle their products, like newspapers that

could be recycled to make new newspapers. Finally, once all other options are exhausted, the consumer can get rid of their waste in sanitary landfills.

Section: Reducing solid waste: Consumers and the 4Rs Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 63. At the grocery store, you are faced with a dilemma. Which container of milk is the most eco-friendly (plastic, paperboard, or glass)? Discuss impacts and trade-offs for each type.

FEEDBACK: Plastic containers require petroleum for manufacturing. Plastic can be recycled. If you have to purchase milk in a plastic container, choose the larger gallon size instead of smaller containers, which require more plastic. Paperboard cartons tend to be smaller sizes (half gallon), so you would need to purchase more of them compared to a gallon plastic jug. Not all municipal recycling programs accept paperboard, so you’ll need to check if it can be recycled in your area. Alternatively, some municipal waste programs accept paperboard for composting. The glass bottle is refillable. It takes less energy to clean and refill a glass bottle than recycle plastic or paperboard. In most cases, a refundable deposit is required on glass bottles, so this cost could be prohibitive in some cases. As long as the glass bottle is reused/recycled and the cost and availability work for consumers, it seems to be the best choice. The second best choice is the paperboard container, since it can be composted or recycled and is made from a renewable source (not fossil fuels).

Section: Reducing solid waste: Consumers and the 4Rs Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating 64. Refer to Infographic 9. What are the three required steps of recycling? Which step drives the entire process and is therefore most important?

FEEDBACK: The three required steps of recycling are (1) collection of recyclable materials, (2) production of goods using those recycled materials, and (3) consumer purchase of goods made with recycled materials. The third step is the most critical and drives the entire process. If consumers do not purchase goods made with recycled

materials, industry will not manufacture them. If industry does not produce goods made with the recycled materials, there is no drive to collect them in the first place.

Section: Reducing solid waste: Consumers and the 4Rs Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

Matching Questions Match each term in the left-hand column to the statement that it best exemplifies.

1. biodegradable 2. open dumps 3. incinerators 4. refuse 5. waste 6. e-waste 7. hazardous waste

8. recycle

9. municipal solid waste (MSW) 10. leachate 11. reduce 12. nondegradable 13. sanitary landfills 14. composting 15. take-back law

everyday garbage or trash (solid waste) produced by individuals or small businesses (*9) waste that is toxic, flammable, corrosive, explosive, or radioactive (*7) water that carries solutes (often contaminated) that can percolate through soil (*10) places where trash, both hazardous and nonhazardous, is simply piled up (*2) incapable of being broken down under normal conditions (*12) reprocessing items to make new products (*8) disposal sites that seal in trash at the top and bottom to prevent its release into the atmosphere; the sites are lined on the bottom, and trash is dumped in and covered with soil daily (*13) the second of the waste reduction four Rs: make choices that allow you to use less of a resource by, for instance, purchasing durable goods that will last or can be repaired (*11) capable of being broken down by living organisms (*1) facilities that burn trash at high temperatures (*3) the federal law that regulates the management of solid and hazardous waste (*17) the third of the waste reduction four Rs: use a product more than once for its original purpose or for another purpose (*16) any material that humans deem to be unwanted (*5) the first of the waste reduction four Rs: choose not to use or buy a product if you can do without it (*4) unwanted computers and other electronic devices, such as televisions and cell phones, that are discarded (*6)

16. reuse 17. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)

a law that requires companies take a product back from a consumer when the consumer is finished with it. (*15) allowing waste to biologically decompose in the presence of oxygen and water, producing a soil-like mulch (*14)

Linked Questions Science Literacy Use the following graphs to answer the next four questions.

1. What was the per capita generation of MSW generation in 1970 (lbs/person/day)?

A. 121.1 B. 3.83 C. 2.96 D. 3.25 E. 104.4

Answer: D Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 2. Which action could have the greatest impact in reducing total U.S. MSW generation?

A. reusing glass bottles B. composting leftover food C. composting yard trimmings D. recycling paper E. recycling plastic bottles Answer: D

Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 3. From 1960 to 2014, total municipal solid waste generation increased by ___ million tons.

A. 254.06 B. 170.4 C. 346.6 D. 258.5 E. 1.76 Answer: B Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 4. In what year was per capita generation of municipal solid waste the greatest?

A. 2014 B. 1995 C. 1960 D. 1990 E. 2000 Answer: E Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding The following four questions are based on this following scenario.

Scientists used tow nets to collect garbage from the North Atlantic Ocean near Bermuda for the purpose of tracking human garbage across the ocean. They are interested in sampling and measuring the amount of plastic in the water. They are also interested in determining if toxic substances found in plastic are accumulating up the food chain.

1. Collecting and counting the pieces of plastic pulled up in the nets to measure the number of plastic bits found in one square kilometer would be considered which type of study?

A. experimental B. observational Answer: B Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 2. Scientists want to determine if toxic chemicals in plastic are accumulating up the food chain. They catch 24 small fish in the area and 24 large fish in the area and

test both types of fish for chemicals that could have come from plastic. What type of study would this be?

A. experimental B. observational Answer: B Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 3. To examine if microplastics (less than 5 millimeters in diameter) are harmful to small marine organisms, scientists exposed marine copepods to either their normal diet of algae or a diet of algae with plastic microbeads added. What would be the dependent variable in this study?

A. species of marine copepod B. algae in the diet C. size of the microbeads D. presence of plastic microbeads in the diet E. number of marine copepods used Answer: D Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 4. In the experiment exposing marine copepods to either their normal diet of algae or to a diet of algae with plastic microbeads added, which would be the control group?

A. group of marine copepods fed the diet of normal algae B. group of marine copepods fed the diet of normal algae with plastic microbeads added C. neither group of marine copepods; there was no control Answer: B Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Making Connections Use the following scenario to answer the following four questions.

The Green Society on your campus is looking for ways to reduce solid waste produced by the students and employees of the university. They recommend to the administration one way to do this is to implement recycling bins across campus. A suggestion is made for all sections of a course to use the same textbook and to start a textbook rental program on campus, where books can be rented for a semester then returned to the bookstore. One member says there should be bike-sharing stations across campus to cut down on students driving cars. Another member suggests installing water bottle refill stations instead of having students buying disposable bottles of water.

1. The first of the four Rs of waste reduction is refuse, choosing not to use or buy a product you don’t need. Which of the following best fits this R? A. a student putting her plastic water bottle into a recycling bin B. students using the bikes to get across campus instead of driving C. renting a textbook and returning it at the end of the semester D. buying products with minimal packaging Answer: B Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 2. We can reduce our ecological footprint by using less of a resource or purchasing goods that will last. Which of the following is the best example of minimizing your ecological footprint in this way?

A. buying disposable bottles of water but recycling them when you are finished drinking B. reusing your shopping bags at the grocery store instead of using plastic bags C. buying a refillable water bottle and using the water stations around campus D. buying a notebook made from recycled paper Answer: C Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 3. The university bookstore does begin a textbook rental program. Students now rent textbooks at the bookstore and return them for future students to use the following semester instead of ordering and buying new textbooks each semester. This is an example of ___________.

A. reusing a product again B. refusing to use a product C. using less of a product D. returning a product to be broken down and reprocessed Answer: A Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 4. Which of the four Rs suggested by the Green Society would relate to the fourth R, returning items for reprocessing into new products?

A. bike-sharing station B. textbook rental program C. refillable water bottle station D. recycling bins Answer: D

Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

MODULE 6.1 Guiding Question 1 How is water distributed on Earth, and what are the sources of freshwater?

Multiple Choice 1. Refer to Infographic 1. Even though the planet is 75% water, only _________ of this water is freshwater.

A. 10% B. 20% C. less than 1/100th of 1% D. 3% E. 5% Answer: D Section: Freshwater: Distribution and sources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 2. Of all the freshwater on the Earth, approximately ________________ is trapped as ice.

A. 10% B. 80% C. 50% D. 8% E. 60% Answer: B Section: Freshwater: Distribution and sources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 3. Refer to Infographic 1. Which of the following contains the most surface freshwater?

A. groundwater B. glaciers and ice caps C. soil moisture D. rivers E. lakes Answer: E Section: Freshwater: Distribution and sources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

4. Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. Ocean water is toxic to humans in large doses.

B. Each region around the world faces unique water challenges.

C. Snowmelt from the Sierra Nevada Mountain could increase as a result of climate change.

D. Up to 75% of the human body consists of water.

E. Nearly 80% of freshwater on the planet is trapped in ice caps at the poles and on glaciers.

Answer: C Section: Freshwater: Distribution and sources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

5. Out of all of the water on Earth, how much is usable by humans?

A. 50% B. 10% C. 5% D. 1% E. less than 1% Answer: E

Section: Freshwater: Distribution and sources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 6. The largest potential source of freshwater is found in ________________.

A. groundwater B. lakes C. oceans D. polar ice caps and glaciers E. rivers Answer: D Section: Freshwater: Distribution and sources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 7. Water that has a low level of dissolved ions in it can be found in ____________.

A. glaciers B. streams C. lakes D. groundwater E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: E Section: Freshwater: Distribution and sources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Guiding Question 2 How does water cycle through the environment?

Multiple Choice 8. The action by which plant roots pull water from the soil and then release some of it into the atmosphere is known as _______________.

A. evaporation B. transpiration C. evapotranspiration D. infiltration E. condensation Answer: B Section: The water cycle Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 9. Gravity “powers” all of the following processes of the hydrological cycle EXCEPT ________________.

A. runoff B. infiltration C. precipitation D. transpiration

E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: D Section: The water cycle Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 10. Which of the following contribute to the formation of precipitation?

A. cold air in the upper atmosphere B. solar energy C. the movement of groundwater D. evaporation E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: E Section: The water cycle Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Applying

Essay 11. Refer to Infographic 2. Explain how salty ocean water can be recycled to become usable freshwater.

FEEDBACK: Solar energy heats the ocean water, causing it to evaporate into gaseous water vapor. The salt remains behind. After rising, cooler air causes the water vapor to condense as clouds. Eventually, the water in these clouds will fall back to Earth as precipitation. Some of this may infiltrate into the groundwater, where it can be used as freshwater. Some of it will remain as fresh, usable surface water. Of course, much of it may also fall back into the oceans.

Section: The water cycle Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 12. Refer to Infographic 2. Explain the steps and processes in the water cycle as water moves from the ocean to the atmosphere to land and back to the ocean.

FEEDBACK: Water in the ocean is heated by solar energy, causing it to evaporate. As this water rises and cools, it condenses over land to form clouds. This cloud water eventually falls back to Earth as precipitation. On the Earth’s surface, precipitated water can travel down a couple of paths. If it soaks into the ground, or infiltrates, it can enter the groundwater supply, which will eventually bring it back to the ocean. Also, infiltrated water can be absorbed by plants, transpired through them, and released back to the atmosphere. If water lands on the surface and flows over the surface rather than infiltrating, it becomes runoff and can flow into a lake, river, or other body of water, eventually making its way back to the ocean. On the surface or from any body of water, water can evaporate, condensate, and then re-precipitate.

Section: The water cycle Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 13. Why is deforestation a problem in regard to the Earth’s freshwater supply?

FEEDBACK: Deforestation cuts down acres and acres of trees and other plants. As we know from the water cycle, plants, especially large trees, take up water from underground reserves (transpiration) and release it back into the atmosphere (evaporation). If these plants were no longer present and able to do this process, the water cycle would be

broken and less freshwater would fall from the clouds to the Earth’s surface, resulting in lower ground water supplies in more areas.

Section: The water cycle Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question 3 What is an aquifer, how does it receive or lose water, and what problems emerge when too much water is removed?

Multiple Choice 14. The top of a rain-saturated region that may rise or fall seasonally is called the _____________.

A. unconfined aquifer B. confined aquifer C. water table D. infiltrator E. porous rock Answer: C Section: Groundwater Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 15. What is an aquifer?

A. an area in which saltwater intrudes on freshwater supplies B. a species of conifer that can live underwater C. an underground region of permeable soil or rock saturated with water D. the very top region of an underground water reservoir E. a human-made underground water reservoir system Answer: C Section: Groundwater Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 16. What is one important quality of an aquifer?

A. Bacteria and other contaminants are filtered out of the water by rocks and soil.

B. The water supply is replenished through infiltration of rain and snowmelt.

C. It is a source of potable water.

D. Individual homes can access the water supply by digging wells into the aquifer.

E. All of these answer choices are important qualities of aquifers.

Answer: E Section: Groundwater Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

17. An aquifer that is separated by impermeable rock is called a(n) _____________ aquifer.

A. confined B. unconfirmed C. confirmed D. unconfined E. nonporous Answer: A Section: Groundwater Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 18. Groundwater in aquifers is naturally replenished by _____________.

A. runoff B. transpiration C. infiltration D. seepage from sewers E. evaporation Answer: C Section: Groundwater Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 19. Predict whether the water table would be higher or lower in New Mexico at the height of summer.

A. higher B. lower Answer: B Section: Groundwater Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 20. Which of the following would reduce the amount of infiltration of water into an aquifer?

A. paved roads B. monoculture lawns C. cement driveways D. buildings E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: E Section: Groundwater Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 21. What happens when the water table drops below sea level in aquifers near the ocean?

A. saltwater intrusion B. seawater conversion to freshwater C. freshwater intrusion

D. contamination of the entire aquifer with saltwater E. There is no consequence to this.

Answer: A Section: Groundwater Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 22. What is the most likely reason that more communities do not use the potable water stored in confined aquifers?

A. It is usually contaminated with salt water.

B. It is impossible to access.

C. Bacteria are not filtered out of this water.

D. It is too expensive to reach and pump out.

E. Most aquifers are unconfined.

Answer: D Section: Groundwater Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 23. What is a consequence of too much water being removed from an aquifer?

A. saltwater intrusion B. dry wells C. cones of depression D. lowered water table levels E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: E Section: Groundwater Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 24. Which of the following lists the path of water correctly?

A. surface → soil → water table → aquifer B. surface → saturated zone → soil → aquifer → water table C. surface → water table → soil D. lake → soil → aquifer → water table E. infiltration → soil → aquifer → water table Answer: A Section: Groundwater Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 25. How did the Orange County Water District solve the problem of saltwater intrusion into unconfined coastal aquifers?

A. It built a dam to block the seepage of saltwater into the aquifers.

B. It stopped using those aquifers as public water supplies.

C. It installed desalination plants to purify the water coming out of the aquifers.

D. It began to pump highly treated sewage wastewater into infiltrated wells.

E. It built sea walls along coastal areas to keep out advancing waves.

Answer: D Section: Groundwater Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 26. What is one way you can help protect, or advise others in order to protect, your local aquifer?

FEEDBACK: Depending on where you live and what is present in your community, there are different ways that you can protect your local aquifer. If you live in an urban area, you could build your driveway out of porous materials to let rainwater seep through to the groundwater below. You could also plant different species of grasses and plants in your yard that could increase the amount of rainwater and snowmelt that are taken into the ground instead of running off into the sewer. If you lived in a more agricultural area, you could make sure that water runoff from your farm is reduced and free of pollutants like fertilizer and pesticides. You could also invest in technology and methods that reduce the amount of water needed for your crops or use different sources of water (perhaps purified wastewater). All of these methods, including watching your personal water usage and educating others on theirs, will help keep our aquifers healthy and full.

Section: Groundwater Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 27. What are some potential impacts of global warming on aquifers?

FEEDBACK: Global warming is having and will have large effects on Earth’s ecosystems. In terms of aquifers, some potential effects will include aquifers drying up completely (especially in drought-stricken areas); lowered water tables to the point where saltwater intrusion will occur; less snowfall on mountains, which means less snowmelt to replenish the aquifer in the spring thaw; and rising temperatures, meaning less rainfall, which would cause water table levels to drop, people to dig wells deeper, and more dry wells to occur. All of these effects would be compounded by the likelihood that water demand would rise, for both personal and commercial/agricultural use, in warming temperatures.

Section: Groundwater Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating 28. Refer to Infographic 3. Explain how the deeper well to the larger house affects the water supply to each of the smaller houses.

FEEDBACK: The excess withdrawal of water by the larger house is causing what is referred to as a cone of depression. This lowers the water table (top level of the aquifer) so that the well from one of the smaller houses will dry up. This homeowner will be forced to drill deeper or get water elsewhere. The other smaller house is closer to the ocean. The depleted aquifer is now contaminated with salt water that has pushed into the open space.

Section: Groundwater Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 29. Refer to Infographic 3. Explain the relationships between the saturated and unsaturated zones, precipitation and infiltration, and the water table.

FEEDBACK: The saturated zone is where the groundwater is located; the unsaturated zone is where infiltration takes place, but the water doesn’t stay there. The water table is the boundary between the two. Precipitation is the process that provides the water, and infiltration is the process by which the water percolates through the unsaturated zone into the saturated zone.

Section: Groundwater Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating

Guiding Question 4 What is the breakdown of water use by sector and national income level?

Multiple Choice 30. Which practice requires the greatest amount of water input?

A. flushing the toilet B. taking a shower C. making a cotton T-shirt D. washing dishes

E. producing 1 pound of beef Answer: E Section: Global water use Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 31. Which of the following countries has the greatest domestic water use per capita?

A. United States B. Australia C. Canada D. China E. France Answer: A Section: Global water use Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 32. Globally, what is the biggest user of freshwater?

A. agriculture B. industry C. domestic D. mining E. thermoelectric power plants Answer: A Section: Global water use Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

Guiding Question 5 What are the causes and consequences of water scarcity?

Multiple Choice 33. Not having access to enough clean water supplies is known as _______________.

A. drought B. freshwater debt C. groundwater depletion D. water scarcity E. none of these answers Answer: D Section: Water scarcity: Causes and consequences Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

34. In the Southwestern United States, the use of water is approaching or exceeding sustainable limits. This is a good example of _______________.

A. economic water scarcity B. physical water scarcity C. inadequate sanitation D. All of these answer choices are correct.

E. None of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: B Section: Water scarcity: Causes and consequences Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

35. Which of the following continents has the greatest water scarcity?

A. North America B. South America C. Africa D. Antarctica E. Europe Answer: C Section: Water scarcity: Causes and consequences Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

36. Water scarcity can lead to _______________.

A. a short life span B. malnutrition C. conflict over water rights D. cultural turmoil E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: E Section: Water scarcity: Causes and consequences Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 37. Which statement about water use is INCORRECT? A. The United Nations estimates that 2.8 billion people lack sufficient access to clean water.

B. As the population increases, water scarcity and sanitation issues will also increase.

C. Because of their unsustainable practices, per capita water use in developing countries is far greater than in developed nations.

D. In some areas of the world, there is enough water, but people do not have enough money to purchase or dig wells to access it.

E. Middle Eastern nations are among the most water-stressed countries in the world.

Answer: C Section: Water scarcity: Causes and consequences Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

Essay 38. Compare and contrast physical and economic water scarcity. How might solutions to water scarcity differ for these two causes?

FEEDBACK: Physical water scarcity occurs when there is not enough water in any kind of reservoir to meet the demand of the communities living around them. There is “physically” not enough water to go around. Economic water scarcity occurs where there is actually water available but the communities, due to economic reasons, cannot utilize it. A solution to any problem must take into account the cause of the problem in the first place. For example, changing agricultural water use policies and technology would likely not help some communities with economic water scarcity because the water that is available for use would still be contaminated by raw sewage. And vice versa, better home water use policies may not greatly help a community where a physical scarcity is caused by extensive agricultural use.

Section: Water scarcity: Causes and consequences Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing/Evaluating 39. How might global warming and climate change affect water scarcity in the future?

FEEDBACK: Climate change will affect many areas concerning water scarcity, but in general, you can imagine that as the average temperature of the Earth rises, the need for water, for all uses, will grow. If you add to that the exponential population growth that the Earth is experiencing, you now have more people to feed, more sanitation issues to deal with, and less water to provide solutions. Billions of humans are already experiencing water scarcity, and unless area-specific policies and solutions are put into place, that number is going to continue to grow.

Section: Water scarcity: Causes and consequences Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating

Guiding Question 6 What are some of the ways that our wastewater is treated to make it potable or safe to release into the environment?

Multiple Choice 40. Problems associated with poor sanitation include _______________.

A. disease transmission B. exposure to toxins C. dehydration D. premature death

E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: E Section: Wastewater treatment Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 41. Which of the following areas has the lowest percentage of its population with access to improved sanitation?

A. rural Latin America B. urban East Asia C. rural sub-Saharan Africa D. urban South-Central Asia E. None of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: C Section: Wastewater treatment Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 42. To make wastewater ___________, or clean enough for consumption, it is put through a process called reverse osmosis.

A. sanitary B. desalinated C. effluent D. intrusive E. potable Answer: E Section: Wastewater treatment Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

43. Wetland filtration systems differ from traditional high-tech filtration systems in that _____________.

A. they create water that is not potable B. they depend on nature to help purify sewage C. they require a higher energy input than high-tech methods D. none of these answers E. they both create water that is not potable and depend on nature to help purify sewage Answer: E Section: Wastewater treatment Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 44. To ensure an ongoing water source, communities construct _____________, which in turn create ______________.

A. wetland sewage filtration systems; reservoirs

B. reservoirs; aquifers C. dams; reservoirs D. water tables; aquifers E. reverse osmosis plants; dams Answer: C Section: Wastewater treatment Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

45. __________ treatment is a physical process that removes large particles with a screen.

A Primary B. Secondary C. Tertiary D. Potable E. Clarifier Answer: A Section: Wastewater treatment Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 46. _____________ treatment is a biological process that uses microorganisms to break down organic matter.

A Primary B. Secondary C. Tertiary D. Potable E. Clarifier Answer: B Section: Wastewater treatment Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 47. When treatment marshes are used by sewage treatment facilities to treat wastewater, the treatment marsh is acting as a form of ____________ treatment.

A primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. potable E. clarifier Answer: B Section: Wastewater treatment Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

48. One of the first steps in the Orange County project for cleaning up water supplies relied upon _______________.

A. wetlands B. microfiltration C. reverse osmosis D. UV exposure E. none of these answers Answer: B Section: Wastewater treatment Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

49. Final treatment of wastewater in the United States normally involves treatment with ___________ to make it safe.

A. alcohol B. radon C. nitrogen D. antibiotics E. chlorine Answer: E Section: Wastewater treatment Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 50. One of the ways wastewater in Orange County is treated is by using reverse osmosis, UV light, and hydrogen peroxide. What does each process do in the treatment of wastewater?

FEEDBACK: Reverse osmosis removes salt and other contaminants (such as pharmaceutical drugs and toxic chemicals), UV light destroys bacteria and viruses, and hydrogen peroxide converts dioxane and other toxic chemicals into harmless molecules.

Section: Wastewater treatment Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 51. How do traditional wastewater treatment plants differ from wastewater treatment plants that mimic nature?

FEEDBACK: The goal of both types of plants is to treat wastewater and make it safe before discharging it back into nature. Traditional wastewater plants use energy-intensive high-tech methods that rely upon chemicals to treat the wastewater. Plants that mimic nature use ponds and wetlands to naturally treat wastewater; the microorganisms and plants in the ponds and wetlands purify the wastewater as it flows through them.

Section: Wastewater treatment Level: 2

Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 52. What could be some of the potential problems related to using wastewater treatment plants that mimic nature in colder environments?

FEEDBACK: Wastewater treatment plants that mimic nature rely upon plants and microorganisms to purify and treat the wastewater. The ability of plants and microorganisms to treat the wastewater will decrease during colder weather as the plants die off and the colder temperature decreases the metabolism of the microorganisms.

Section: Wastewater treatment Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating 53. Why are two sets of marshes used in the Arcata wetland sewage treatment system?

FEEDBACK: The first marsh is referred to as the treatment marsh and accepts water from holding ponds after the water has left the clarifier. These primary wetlands remove the majority of the nutrients nitrogen and phosphorous, as well as coliform bacteria. The second set of marshes, called the enhancement marshes, further purifies the water and also serves as a wildlife habitat. Water leaving the enhancement marshes enters Humboldt Bay, and this water is treated to the point that it enhances the water quality of the bay.

Section: Wastewater treatment Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question 7 What technologies can help provide more potable water and what are their tradeoffs?

54. Which of the water projects discussed in this chapter was designed to produce potable water?

A. Arcata B. Orange County C. Three Gorges Dam D. both a and b E. none of these answers Answer: B Section: Wastewater treatment Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 55. While dams are important, they lose large amounts of water every day due to _____________.

A. infiltration B. evaporation C. runoff D. transpiration

E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: B Section: Addressing water shortages with technology Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 56. Desalination, the process that removes ________________ from water, is _______________.

A. bacteria; cheap B. salt and other minerals; expensive C. pollution; a biomimicry process D. sewage; mandated by the federal government E. organic matter; facilitated by reverse osmosis Answer: B Section: Addressing water shortages with technology Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 57. In January 2008, Orange County implemented the Groundwater Replenishment System, which reclaimed water that normally would have been wasted as ____________.

A. evaporation B. runoff C. ocean D. landfill Answer: C Section: Addressing water shortages with technology Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 58. Many countries have constructed dams and reservoirs as a method to solve water shortages. What are some of the problems associated with dams and reservoirs?

FEEDBACK: Some of the problems seen with dams and reservoirs are political conflicts, water losses that can range in thousands of gallons per day to evaporation, accumulation of silt behind the dam, and the ecological impacts on habitats and biodiversity.

Section: Addressing water shortages with technology Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

Guiding Question 8 How can conservation help address water scarcity issues?

Multiple Choice 59. Our per capita use of water is known as our ________________.

A. water footprint B. ecological footprint C. water scarcity D. aquifer E. ecosystem service Answer: A Section: Addressing water shortages with conservation Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 60. Refer to Infographic 8. Which of the following represents the largest single use of water in a typical U.S. household?

A. leaks B. baths C. showering D. washing clothes E. toilets Answer: E Section: Addressing water shortages with conservation Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 61. How much less water do newer Energy Star washing machines use compared with older models?

A. 10% B. 25% C. 50% D. 75% E. 90% Answer: C Section: Addressing water shortages with conservation

Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 62. Switching to water-saving irrigation methods not only saves water but also _______________.

A. limits water loss to evaporation B. reduces runoff C. protects surface water D. prevents soil salinization E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: E Section: Addressing water shortages with conservation Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 63. Currently, several states are using recycled water for nonpotable uses, including _______________.

A. irrigating landscapes B. irrigating crops C. filling fountains D. flushing toilets E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: E Section: Addressing water shortages with conservation Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

64. Which of the following is a cheap way to maintain water supplies?

A. not waste so much water B. use water-saving irrigation methods C. create groundwater replenishment systems D. install high-tech water filtration systems E. both not waste so much water and use water-saving irrigation methods Answer: E Section: Addressing water shortages with conservation Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 65. Which statement about recycled water projects is true?

A. Public perception of recycled water projects is, for the majority, negative.

B. Public perception of recycled water projects depends on how plagued a community is by water-scarcity issues.

C. When it comes to citizens’ understanding, the “toilet to tap” phrase is the best explanation of recycled water projects.

D. Most recycled water projects are unsuccessful.

E. A statewide survey in Arizona, a drought-stricken state, found that residents did not support recycled water projects.

Answer: B Section: Addressing water shortages with conservation Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 66. Refer to the table. List two conservation strategies that individuals can use to reduce their water use, and provide examples. Why are small changes important?

FEEDBACK: Individuals can reduce their water use in a number of ways, mainly by using new water-efficient technologies and making behavioral changes. New waterefficient technologies include low-flow toilets, low-flow showerheads, low-flow faucets, and Energy Star–certified appliances. However, to really save water, these appliances should be purchased only when new appliances are needed because production of these items itself requires water. Some behavioral changes include flushing liquid waste less frequently, turning off the shower head except to rinse, turning off the faucet while brushing teeth, and running appliances (that is, dishwashers and washing machines) only when they are full. These small changes are important because they can add up to saving a lot of water in the long run.

Section: Addressing water shortages with conservation Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

67. Your job is to help households improve water conservation. What are some of the recommendations you would make?

FEEDBACK: Install low-flow toilets, showerheads, and faucets. Replace old clothes washers and dishwashers with Energy Star machines. Teach the importance of turning off the faucet while you brush your teeth. Have the household wash their clothes or dishes only when the machines are full.

Section: 14.5 Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 68. Explain why it is cheaper to conserve water than it is to purify it or build a dam.

FEEDBACK: Purification projects, such as the GWRS project in California, can cost almost $500 million just to build. And then they need money for operation and maintenance. Most rivers that can be dammed have been. Reservoirs are prone to evaporation. Also, there are many political issues involved in damming rivers. The environmental issues in damming a river need to be considered, such as disrupting fish life cycles and changing the temperature of the water. Finally, there are the issues of the people and culture being displaced by a reservoir. For example, the Land between the Lakes project in Kentucky and Tennessee covered over 300 cemeteries. The Three Gorges Dam in China is forcing over 1 million people to move. In contrast, it is easier and cheaper not to waste as much water in daily living. Many new technologies for the home are being developed, such as low-flow toilets, faucets, washers, and dishwashers.

Just fixing a leak can conserve 14% of a household’s water use. New irrigation methods in agriculture that reduce evaporation and runoff loss are also being developed.

Section: Addressing water shortages with conservation Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating 69. Refer to the table. Explain how using less energy saves water.

FEEDBACK: The three main processes used to make electricity—nuclear, fossil fuels, and hydroelectric—all require water. The first two require water to make steam to turn the turbines. Nuclear energy also requires a lot of water to cool the reactor core. And even though it consumes the least of the three, since the water to produce hydroelectric power can also be used for other purposes, it does require water and alters the hydrologic cycle.

Section: Addressing water shortages with conservation Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 70. Explain how the choice of crops or ornamental plants to plant can help conserve water.

FEEDBACK: Choosing to plant native species and low-water-demand ornamental plants, such as cacti, prairie flowers, or grasses, instead of high-water-demand grasses, like Kentucky blue grass, can greatly reduce the amount of watering needed to maintain the lawn and gardens. Choices of agricultural crops can also greatly reduce irrigation needs.

For example, cotton and rice are water-intensive crops. Farmers in drought-prone areas or areas with less rain should consider crops that require less water and irrigation.

Section: Addressing water shortages with conservation Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating Matching Match each term in the left-hand column to the statement that it best exemplifies.

1. wastewater

2. freshwater

3. water cycle

4. surface water 5. transpiration

6. evaporation 7. condensation

the process of water soaking into the ground (*12) the uppermost water level of the saturated zone of an aquifer (*13) the water appropriated by industry to produce products or energy; this includes the water actually used and water that is polluted in the production process (*23) water found underground in aquifers (*9) the process of removing contaminants from wastewater to make it safe enough to release into the environment (*17) not having access to enough clean water (*10) clean enough for consumption (*18)

8. precipitation

9. groundwater

10. water scarcity

11. aquifer

12. infiltration

13. water table

14. saltwater intrusion 15. effluent

16. domestic water use

17. wastewater treatment

18. potable

19. Safe Water Drinking Act (SWDA)

20. dam

21. reservoir

water that has few dissolved ions, such as salt (*2) the removal of salt and minerals from seawater to make it suitable for consumption (*22) the movement of water through various water compartments, such as surface waters, atmosphere, soil, and living organisms (*3) an artificial lake formed when a river is impounded by a dam (*21) the conversion of water from a gaseous state (water vapor) to a liquid state (*7) an underground, permeable region of soil or rock that is saturated with water (*11) the loss of water vapor from plants (*5) rain, snow, sleet, or any other form of water falling from the atmosphere (*8) federal law that protects public drinking water supplies in the United States (*19) a structure that blocks the flow of water in a river or stream (*20) the inflow of ocean (salt) water into a freshwater aquifer that happens when an aquifer has lost some of its freshwater stores (*14) political conflicts over the allocation of water sources (*24) any body of water found aboveground, such as oceans, rivers, and lakes (*4) wastewater discharged into the environment (*15)

22. desalination

23. water footprint

24. water wars

the conversion of water from a liquid state to a gaseous state (*6) indoor and outdoor use of water by households and small businesses (*16) used and contaminated water that is released after use by households, industry, or agriculture (*1)

MODULE 6.1 Linked Questions Science Literacy Use Infographic 8 to answer the next 5 questions.

1. What uses the greatest percentage of water in a U.S. household?

A. showering B. washing clothes C. flushing the toilet D. leaks

Answer: C Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 2. How many more gallons of water does it take to produce a pair of blue jeans than a cotton T-shirt?

A. 2,100 B. 1,440 C. 660 D. 350 Answer: B Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 3. To conserve the most water, people should eat less A. corn.

B. bread.

C. pork.

D. beef.

Answer: D Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 4. We can save the most water by using which type of electricity production?

A. nuclear energy B. coal fired power plants C. hydroelectric energy Answer: C Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 5. How much water could be saved in gallons per minute if you use a low-flow faucet instead of a traditional faucet?

A. 5 B. 1.5 C. 4.5 D. 3.5 E. 6 Answer: D Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

Making Connections Use the following scenario to answer the next 5 questions: Water scarcity is a concern to many countries around the world. To people living in the United States, it may not seem like a critical issue, however, parts of the United States experience heavy droughts which leave regions facing water challenges.

Much of our water from domestic and agricultural use comes from aquifers and groundwater. You are working with the United Nations on Goal Six of the Sustainability Developmental Goals: to ensure access to water and sanitation for all.

1. As part of your job, you have to know the distribution of water available on Earth.

You report that of the available freshwater, only ___% is available for use by humans.

A. 10 B. 1 C. 0.01 D. 0.001 Answer: D Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 2. Globally, the biggest use of freshwater is from A. domestic water use.

B. agricultural irrigation.

C. industrial use for thermoelectric plants.

D. These all use the same amounts of freshwater.

Answer: B Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 3. One recommendation you can make to businesses in your city to improve infiltration to recharge the local aquifer is A. withdrawing more water for industry use.

B. constructing a new parking lot using traditional asphalt.

C. planting a rain garden in the front of the building.

D. All of these will improve infiltration of the aquifer.

Answer: C Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 4. You are working in Africa to help developing nations with water scarcity. To decrease the number of people dying each day from waterborne diseases, you propose a program which will

A. install pit latrines away from water sources.

B. build a treatment plant for decontamination of waste water.

C. support the local community to improve water management.

D. these are all parts of your program which would decrease waterborne diseases.

Answer: D Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 5. You are asked to talk to a school group about the importance of water conservation. Which of the following would not be a conservation method you could talk about?

A. Farmers using irrigation methods to limit loss to evaporation and runoff.

B. Choosing to plant crops more suited to the environment they are growing in.

C. Reducing use of our resources and being aware of our consumer choices.

D. All of these answer choices are ways in which we can conserve water.

Answer: D Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

MODULE 6.2 1. What alerted researchers to a problem in the waters of the Gulf of Mexico?

A. high raw sewage levels B. excess oil pollution C. low pH levels D. low measured oxygen levels E. high measured water temperature Answer: D Section: Introduction Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Guiding Question 1 What is water pollution, and how is it classified by source?

Multiple Choice 2. Which characteristic is TRUE of all water pollution?

A. Chemical contaminants cause all water pollution.

B. There are no organic substances that cause water pollution.

C. All water pollution degrades the quality of water.

D. Water pollution is always caused by humans.

E. Water pollution is always caused by a local source.

Answer: C Section: Water pollution: Types and causes Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 3. Which of the following statements about water pollution is TRUE? A. Air pollution can cause water pollution.

B. There is a short list of substances that cause water pollution.

C. Water pollution comes only from chemicals introduced into a body of water.

D. Only surface water is at risk of becoming polluted.

E. The origin of water pollution is always easy to identify and treat.

Answer: A Section: Water pollution: Types and causes Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 4. Which causes of water pollution are due to human activity?

A. thermal pollution B. stormwater runoff C. raw sewage D. underground chemical storage E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: E

Section: Water pollution: Types and causes Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 5. The difference between point source and nonpoint source pollution is that _________.

A. point source pollution sources can be identified, while nonpoint source pollution sources are more obscure B. point source pollution sources can always be remedied C. nonpoint source pollution is due to improper chemical storage D. nonpoint source pollution is located next to the body of contaminated water E. None of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: A Section: Water pollution: Types and causes Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

6. Which is an example of nonpoint source pollution?

A. a sewage treatment pipe leaking B. a discharge pipe from an industrial site C. runoff water from lawns D. animal waste from a feedlot pumped into a river Answer: C Section: Water pollution: Types and causes Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 7. Which is an example of a point source pollution source?

A. farm water runoff B. a ruptured sewer pipe C. acid rain D. sediment pollution Answer: B Section: Water pollution: Types and causes Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 8. Refer to Infographic 1. What is the leading cause of impaired surface water in the United States?

A. nutrients such as nitrogen and phosphorus B. metals C. low oxygen levels D. pathogens E. pesticides Answer: D

Section: Water pollution: Types and causes Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 9. Most pollutants from nonpoint source pollution enter the water from _________.

A. the air B. stormwater runoff C. other streams D. the ocean E. broken or leaky pipes Answer: B Section: Water pollution: Types and causes Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 10. Why should we care about water pollution?

FEEDBACK: Water pollution is the addition of any substance, caused by humans or not, to a body of water that might degrade its quality. Water pollution affects many aspects of the ecosystem. Organisms that live in the affected water area may not be able to survive the pollution, especially if it is a toxic chemical. If some organisms are directly affected, this likely indirectly affects many more (for example, a food source may go away, or the waters may be inhospitable for mating). If the pollution is really bad, it may cause that ecosystem to collapse entirely, which, as we know from previous modules, is not good for the overall biodiversity of the planet. Water pollution can also directly affect the humans that depend on that body of water for drinking, cooking, bathing, and other dayto-day activities. Many pathogens can be found in polluted waters, making the water unsafe for drinking or bathing. Water pollution also affects the ecosystem services of the polluted, and sometimes related nonpolluted, areas.

Section: Water pollution: Types and causes Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 11. Why are sources of point source pollution considered easier to “fix” than nonpoint source pollution sources?

FEEDBACK: Point source pollution sources are considered easier to remedy because the source of the pollution is identified. For example, if the source of the pollution is found to be a leaky sewer pipe, that pipe can be repaired or replaced. With nonpoint source pollution, the actual source of the pollution cannot be pinpointed, and if the source is not identified, it cannot be directly addressed.

Section: Water pollution: Types and causes Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding/Applying Guiding Question 2 What are the causes and consequences of eutrophication?

Multiple Choice 12. What is hypoxia?

A. when your body temperature drops below 98.6°F B. where there is too much dissolved oxygen in water C. where there is not enough dissolved oxygen in the water to support local organisms D. when your veins and arteries constrict to prevent heat loss E. a disease affecting fish, often caused by pollution Answer: C Section: Eutrophication Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 13. What plant nutrients are found in animal waste and fertilizer that can cause eutrophication?

A. nitrogen B. phosphorous C. oxygen D. carbon dioxide E. both nitrogen and phosphorous Answer: E Section: Eutrophication Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 14. Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. Water can hold an unlimited amount of oxygen.

B. Water can hold less oxygen than air can.

C. Underwater organisms need oxygen.

D. A small decrease in dissolved oxygen can have an effect on aquatic life.

E. Underwater organisms use oxygen in cellular respiration.

Answer: A Section: Eutrophication Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 15. An effect of hypoxic waters can be _________.

A. loss of millions of dollars in revenue to the seafood industry B. a decrease in some species like oysters C. fish moving further away from coastal dead zones D. commercial fishermen and -women have a harder time catching fish E. All of these answer choices are effects of hypoxic waters.

Answer: E Section: Eutrophication Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

16. The end result of eutrophication is _________.

A. increased nitrogen content of the water B. decreased nitrogen content of the water C. increased oxygen content of the water D. decreased oxygen content of the water Answer: D Section: Eutrophication Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

17. What is a dead zone?

A. waters so depleted of oxygen that aquatic life suffers B. waters too hot for aquatic life to survive C. water too salty for humans to drink D. an area of water with high densities of plastic E. water with any nutrients in it Answer: A Section: Eutrophication Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 18. What can trigger the process of eutrophication?

A. hot water discharged into a body of water B. an excess of nutrients discharged into the water C. oil rigs operating in the ocean D. too many fish in a body of water E. too much dissolved oxygen in the water Answer: B Section: Eutrophication Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 19. Where have dead zones been found?

A. Gulf of Mexico B. Pacific coast region C. Great Lakes D. Atlantic coast E. Dead zones have been found in all of these locations.

Answer: E Section: Eutrophication Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

20. What is the immediate effect of excess nutrients entering a body of water as runoff pollution?

A. a decrease of sunlight due to algal blooms B. an increase in the number of decomposers C. an increase in algal blooms D. a decrease in underwater photosynthesis E. a decrease in dissolved oxygen levels Answer: C Section: Eutrophication Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

Essay 21. If eutrophication leads to the abundance of nutrients plants need to grow and survive, why is it considered a bad thing?

FEEDBACK: The addition to water of nutrients for plant growth is a good thing, in moderation. When eutrophication occurs, however, there is an overabundance of these nutrients that leads to a mass overgrowth (or bloom) of algae. The algae effectively block the sunlight from the plants underneath them, causing these plants to die. If there are no plants, there is no photosynthesis, which means there is no oxygen. In addition, there is a plethora of new carbon sources (that is, the dead plants) for organisms that obtain nutrients through the decomposition of other organisms. This decomposition filters even more oxygen out of the water, making a bad problem even worse. The end result is water that does not have the amount of oxygen needed to support a healthy and diverse ecosystem.

Section: Eutrophication Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying/Analyzing Guiding Question 3 What is a watershed, and how does it affect the quality of surface water as well as the quantity of groundwater?

Multiple Choice 22. A watershed is _________.

A. a storage facility for groundwater B. an area of land over which rain and other sources of water flow to drain into a body of water C. an area in which people dig drinking water wells D. where a river meets the ocean E. the evaporation of river water Answer: B Section: The watershed concept Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

23. Where can pollutants from a watershed end up?

A. surface water B. groundwater C. the air D. both surface water and groundwater E. both groundwater and the air Answer: D Section: The watershed concept Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 24. If you find pollution at a certain point in a river, would you look at the watershed upstream or downstream to determine its origin?

A. upstream B. downstream C. neither D. origin would not be able to be determined E. outside the watershed Answer: A Section: The watershed concept Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

25. Which of the following would affect the quantity of groundwater in a watershed?

A. parking lot covered by pavement B. stream that has been channelized C. drained wetlands for agriculture D. suburban lawns E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: E Section: The watershed concept Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 26. The Mississippi River watershed includes land area from _________.

A. Texas B. Louisiana C. Mississippi D. Minnesota E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: E Section: The watershed concept Level: 1

Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 27. If water flows more slowly through watershed areas, will this increase or decrease the number of pathogens found in the water that eventually flows into the ending river or lake?

FEEDBACK: By flowing more slowly through the watershed, the water will be filtered to a higher extent by the soil and sediment, thus reducing the number of pathogens ending up in the river or lake.

Section: The watershed concept Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying/Analyzing 28. Discuss some ways that human alteration of watersheds has affected the quality of surface water and the quantity of groundwater.

FEEDBACK: Human alteration of watersheds can affect the quality of surface waters when industrial or agricultural properties are built on the watershed land. The water running through these areas now picks up pollutants, such as pesticides, fertilizer, and chemicals, and deposits them into the body of water that the watershed flows into.

Human alteration of watersheds can also affect the quantity of groundwater that flows through watersheds. If you consider industrial parks with their miles of concrete or you neighbor’s perfectly manufactured, monocultural lawn, you will find that rain in these areas does not soak into the ground; rather, it stays on the concrete to evaporate or runs off into drainage ditches. The end result is that this rain does not end up in the groundwater; thus the quantity of the groundwater is reduced, causing a problem for anyone who relies on aquifers for drinking water.

Section: The watershed concept Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying/Analyzing

Guiding Question 4 How is water quality assessed?

Multiple Choice 29. What is one method to determine how healthy an ecosystem is?

A. determining the point source pollutant B. carrying out watershed management C. conducting biological assessment D. using controlled drainage pipes E. counting the number of organisms present Answer: C Section: Assessing water quality Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering/Understanding

30. What was the goal of the Gulf of Mexico Watershed Nutrient Task Force?

A. to eliminate the hypoxic zone B. to take the farmers along the Mississippi watershed to court for water pollution C. to map the Gulf of Mexico watershed D. to reduce the hypoxic zone E. to make the water in the Mississippi River crystal clear Answer: D Section: Assessing water quality Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 31. How can water quality be assessed?

A. measuring dissolved oxygen levels B. measuring pH C. measuring nitrates D. counting benthic macroinvertebrates E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: E Section: Assessing water quality Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering/Understanding 32. You are conducting a biological assessment on a stream. Which of the following would you see the most of if the stream has good water quality?

A. caddisfly larvae B. crayfish C. leeches D. dragonfly larvae E. aquatic worms Answer: A Section: Assessing water quality Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Applying 33. Finding only leeches and aquatic worms in a biological assessment would indicate _________.

A. some low levels of pollution B. slightly diminished oxygen levels C. clear water D. well-oxygenated water E. higher levels of pollution Answer: E Section: Assessing water quality Level: 1

Bloom’s Level: Understanding

Essay 34. Let’s say you become interested in studying the amount of water pollution in a stream that runs through your backyard. Without special equipment, how could you perform a biological assessment on the stream?

FEEDBACK: By counting the number and species of macroinvertebrates, you can assess the health of the water. Since these invertebrates are macroscopic—meaning that you do not need a microscope to see them—it is relatively easy to count and monitor them, as you do not need any fancy equipment to do so. There are species of macroinvertebrates that are sensitive to water pollution and species that are not. By counting the ratio of these two groups over time, you could track the amount of water pollution and the overall health of the ecosystem.

Section: Assessing water quality Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Guiding Question 5 What public policies are in place to protect water quality?

Multiple Choice 35. What was the dramatic event which helped spur passage of the 1972 Clean Water Act? A. an oil spill in the ocean B. the dead zone in the Gulf of Mexico C. the Cuyahoga River caught fire D. toxic chemicals were released into the Mississippi River E. people were becoming sick from drinking water Answer: C Section: Legal protections: The Clean Water Act Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 36. What are performance standards?

A. excess levels of pollution present in environmental waters B. acceptable levels of pollutants that can be present in environmental waters C. the number of pathogens allowed in drinking water D. regulation of nonpoint source pollution E. permits issued to companies to allow industrial discharge into waterways Answer: B Section: Legal protections: The Clean Water Act Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

37. What percentage of U.S. waters meet the fishable/swimmable goal for pathogens in recreational waters today?

A. 25 B. 56 C. 65 D. 80 E. 100 Answer: C Section: Legal protections: The Clean Water Act Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 38. What is one of the leading causes of infection globally?

A. exposure to pathogen-polluted waters B. drinking water with heavy metals in it C. swimming in water with toxic chemicals D. oil spills into watersheds E. None of these answers are correct.

Answer: A Section: Legal protections: The Clean Water Act Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

39. Which is NOT an aspect of the Clean Water Act? A. regulating municipal point source pollution B. setting pollution standards C. allowing a small percentage of pathogens in recreational water D. regulating industrial point source pollution E. allowing a small percentage of pathogens in drinking water Answer: E Section: Legal protections: The Clean Water Act Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Guiding Question 6 What role does watershed protection play in preventing water pollution?

Multiple Choice 40. Runoff potential of nitrogen fertilizer from a farm can vary due to _________.

A. amount applied B. rainfall amount C. differences in terrain D. the type of crop planted E. all of the above answers Answer: E

Section: Addressing nonpoint source pollution with watershed management Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering/Understanding 41. Which crop releases the most nitrogen into the soil?

A. oats B. corn C. alfalfa D. rye E. Plants do not release nitrogen into the soil.

Answer: B Section: Addressing nonpoint source pollution with watershed management Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 42. The switch to growing foods that leak nitrogen into the soil has resulted in _________.

A. ahigher level of nitrogen in the watershed runoff B. better nutrient content of the food C. easier growing seasons for the farmers D. poorer sales of produce E. increased use of synthetic nitrogen Answer: A Section: Addressing nonpoint source pollution with watershed management Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering/Understanding 43. What do drainage pipes drain off farms?

A. water B. phosphorus C. nitrogen D. both water and nitrogen E. water, phosphorus, and nitrogen Answer: D Section: Addressing nonpoint source pollution with watershed management Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering/Understanding 44. Which is likely the easiest problem to address concerning increased nitrogen pollution?

A. the growth of nitrogen leaky crops B. the use of synthetic fertilizers C. the use of drainage pipes D. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: C Section: Addressing nonpoint source pollution with watershed management

Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering/Understanding 45. What are riparian areas?

A. land areas close enough to water to be affected by it B. mountain areas with streams C. lake and river bottoms D. areas where streams begin E. agricultural fields with runoff areas Answer: A Section: Addressing nonpoint source pollution with watershed management Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 46. In many scientists’ opinions, what is the key to saving the ecosystems of the Gulf of Mexico?

A. organic farming B. watershed management C. tighter control of point source pollution D. harsher punishments and fines for noncompliance with the Clean Water Act E. purification of the water entering the Gulf Answer: B Section: Addressing nonpoint source pollution with watershed management Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 47. What do healthy riparian areas provide?

A. a quick path for water to enter the river or lake B. filtration of runoff water before it enters the river or lake C. excellent surfing conditions D. optimal areas for industrial construction E. increased hypoxic conditions Answer: B Section: Addressing nonpoint source pollution with watershed management Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 48. Refer to Infographic 6. How much land, in feet, does the U.S. Department of Agriculture recommend setting aside in managed and undisturbed forest to protect land in riparian areas?

A. 20 B. 60 C. 15 D. 75 E. 95 Answer: D Section: Addressing nonpoint source pollution with watershed management Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 49. Refer to Infographic 6. Which of the following would be appropriate land use for Zone 3?

A. industrial projects B. managed forests C. undisturbed forests D. residential homes E. light agricultural use Answer: E Section: Addressing nonpoint source pollution with watershed management Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 50. Discuss the pros and cons of using drainage pipes for agricultural fields.

FEEDBACK: The use of drainage pipes prevents water from running off the fields, carrying with it pesticides and other pollutants, into nearby lakes and rivers. Drainage

pipes also allow farmers to plant crops earlier and guard against crop losses during flooding, resulting in more food for us to eat. The negative aspect of drainage pipes, however, is that they allow copious amounts of nitrogen to leak out of the fields, into the drainage pipes, and into the lakes and rivers that the watersheds feed into. This leads to the nutrient pollution and eutrophication of many aqueous ecosystems, ultimately causing their collapse.

Section: Addressing nonpoint source pollution with watershed management Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding/Applying 51. Why is the prevention of soil erosion one of the best management practices to reduce the amount of pollution being delivered to the Mississippi River?

FEEDBACK: Soil erosion can cause a variety of problems in the context of water pollution. First, the soil itself can cause sediment pollution if enough is washed away and deposited in the river. It can clog the gills of fish, destroy habitats and niches in ecosystems, and make the water itself cloudy so that underwater plants cannot complete photosynthesis. Phosphorous, one of the key nutrients in eutrophication, is also bound to the soil and will enter the runoff if the soil erodes. Finally, if the soil is eroding, the stormwater runoff, for instance, will not have anything to filter through. It will simply flow off the watershed and into the river, carrying with it all of the pollutants it picked up along the way.

Section: Addressing nonpoint source pollution with watershed management Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

Guiding Question 7 How can runoff pollution from farms be reduced?

Multiple Choice 52. Refer to Infographic 7. How much water is lost through free drainage in mm?

A. 40 B. 2.4 C. 12.7 D. 80 E. 14.0 Answer: D Section: Reducing agricultural runoff pollution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

53. Refer to Infographic 7. What was the difference in the end of season crop yield (metric tons/ha) between the controlled drainage plot and the free drainage plot?

A. 12.7 B. 14.0 C. 13.0 D. 1.3 E. 26.7 Answer: D Section: Reducing agricultural runoff pollution Level: 1

Bloom’s Level: Understanding 54. Which of the following is NOT an agricultural best management practice to reduce the amount of nitrogen and phosphorus in runoff waters?

A. testing the soil frequently B. planting winter crops in the off season C. using GPS technology to guide farm equipment D. planting trees as windbreaks E. using drainage systems that remove water from the soil Answer: E Section: Reducing agricultural runoff pollution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 55. How did Strock and Hicks compare agriculture runoff on Nettiewyynt Farm?

A. adding cattle to the pastureland B. installing two drainage treatments C. converting the untouched prairie to corn pastures D. adding more fertilizer to the pastures E. letting both pastures freely drain water Answer: B Section: Reducing agricultural runoff pollution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 56. During a normal, nondrought year, by how much was nutrient loss reduced on the Nettiewyynt Farm in Strock and Hick’s experiment?

A. 25% B. 30% C. 50% D. 75% E. 90% Answer: C Section: Reducing agricultural runoff pollution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

Guiding Question 8 What can be done to reduce urban and suburban stormwater runoff?

Multiple Choice 57. What is a major nonpoint source of nitrogen pollution in suburban areas?

A. pet waste B. lawn fertilizer C. rain gardens

D. native plants E. green roofs Answer: B Section: Reducing urban and suburban stormwater runoff Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 58. Which of the following can increase infiltration of stormwater in suburban areas?

A. trees B. green roofs C. curb cutouts D. rain gardens E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: E Section: Reducing urban and suburban stormwater runoff Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

Essay 59. How can you explain to your neighbor that her perfectly manicured, monocultural, heavily fertilized lawn may be contributing to the destruction of ecosystems in the Gulf of Mexico?

FEEDBACK: Even though your neighbor’s lawn may look nice, her lawn maintenance techniques may be contributing to the hypoxic zone in the Gulf of Mexico. By keeping her lawn free of undesired species of plants, your neighbor is lowering the species diversity of her lawn. By this point, we know that lower species diversity means lower biodiversity, leading to the reduced ability of that ecosystem to perform its ecosystem services (like filtering rainwater through the ground). Though overfertilizing may make the lawn a pleasing and healthy-looking green color, most of the nitrogen in the fertilizer will be washed away in rain or even wind storms because of the lack of species diversity.

This nitrogen ends up in storm drains, or is deposited directly into lakes and rivers, and may ultimately end up contributing to the hypoxic zone in the Gulf of Mexico.

Section: Reducing urban and suburban stormwater runoff Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

Guiding Question 9 What strategies can be used to restore damaged aquatic ecosystems?

Multiple Choice 60. In their efforts to address hypoxia in the Gulf of Mexico, the Gulf Task Force’s recommendations consider _________.

A. social impacts

B. economic realities C. environmental needs D. all of the above E. none of the above Answer: D Section: Holistic strategies to protect and restore aquatic habitats Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 61. When is the target date for the Gulf of Mexico Hypoxia Task Force goal to reduce nonpoint source pollution and restore damaged areas?

A. 2015 B. 2018 C. 2020 D. 2035 E. 2050 Answer: D Section: Holistic strategies to protect and restore aquatic habitats Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 62. Refer to Infographic 9. Choose three strategies from the Gulf of Mexico Regional Ecosystem Restoration plan. Explain what the goals of those strategies are and, if implemented, how the strategies will help reach those goals.

FEEDBACK: Answers will vary based on strategies chosen. A possible answer could be that under the “enhance community resilience” goal, there is the promotion of low-impact community growth plans. If new communities consider the watershed area before the build, they will be able to reduce the amount of pollutants entering into the water from their community. For example, if all streets had green boulevards (the area between streets, sidewalks and streets, or even lanes), this would reduce the amount of stormwater runoff that enters directly the storm drains. Rather, the rain would first filter through the plants of the green boulevards, leaving behind many water pollutants before entering into the storm drains and area lakes and rivers.

Section: Holistic strategies to protect and restore aquatic habitats Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

Matching Questions Match each term in the left-hand column to the statement that best defines it.

1. water pollution

2. stormwater runoff

3. point source pollution

4. nonpoint source pollution

5. dissolved oxygen (DO)

6. hypoxia

7. eutrophication

8. watershed 9. aquifer

10. biological assessment

11. benthic macroinvertebrates

12. Clean Water Act (CWA)

allowable levels of a pollutant that can be present in environmental waters or released over a certain time period (*13) an underground, permeable region of soil or rock that is saturated with water (*9) management of what goes on in an area around streams and rivers (*14) easy-to-see (not microscopic) arthropods, such as insects that live on a stream bottom (*11) the land area surrounding a body of water over which water, such as rain, can flow and potentially enter that body of water (*8) the land areas close enough to a body of water to be affected by the water’s presence (for example, areas where water-tolerant plants grow) and that affect the water itself (for example, providing shade) (*15) U.S. federal legislation that regulates the release of point source pollution into surface waters and sets water quality standards for those waters; also supports best management practices to reduce nonpoint source pollution (*12) wastewater discharged into the environment (*16) the addition of any substance to a body of water that might degrade the water’s quality (*1) runoff that enters the water from overland flow and that can come from any area in the watershed (*4) a situation in which a body of water contains inadequate levels of oxygen, compromising the health of many aquatic organisms (*6) water from precipitation that flows over the surface of the land (*2)

13. performance standards

14. watershed management

15. riparian areas 16. effluent

the process of sampling an area to see what lives there as a tool to determine how healthy the area is (*10) a process in which excess nutrients in aquatic ecosystems feed biological productivity, ultimately lowering the oxygen content in the water (*7) the amount of oxygen in the water (*5) pollution from discharge pipes (or smoke stacks), such as that from wastewater treatment plants or industrial sites (*3)

Linked Questions Science Literacy Use Infographic 7 below to answer the next 5 questions:

1. How much water was lost through drainage on control plots with free drainage?

A. 80 m B. 80 mm C. 40 mm D. 40 kg Answer: B Section: Science Literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

2. What was the difference in nitrate-nitrogen loss when comparing control and test plots?

A. Control plots lost 0.6 kg/ha more than test plots.

B. Control plots lost 0.6 kg/ha less than test plots.

C. Test plots lost 0.6 kg/ha more than control plots.

D. Test plots lost 1.8 kg/ha less than control plots.

Answer: A Section: Science Literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 3. What was the approximate end-of-season yield in metric tons per hectare for crops grown in controlled drainage conditions?

A. 12.7 B. 14.0 C. 2.4 D. 40 Answer: B Section: Science Literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 4. How much water was saved using controlled drainage instead of free drainage?

A. 80 mm B. 40 mm C. 30 mm D. 10 mm Answer: B Section: Science Literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 5. What was the result of using drainage blocks to keep water in the field level during the growing season?

A. Less water and nutrients lost through drainage and larger yields in the control plots.

B. More water and nutrients lost through drainage and larger yields in the test plots.

C. Less water and nutrients lost through drainage and larger yields in the test plots.

D. More water and nutrients lost through drainage and smaller yields in the test plots.

Answer: C Section: Science Literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Making Connections

Use the following scenario to answer the next 5 questions: You and your friends go to the beach for vacation. You all walk down to the beach to go swimming. When you get there, you see the water is murky and green, and there are algae blooms floating on top.

1. You know there is a river that feeds into the waters at the beach. There are animal pastures and croplands on land near the river which would not directly discharge waste into the river, but it could still run off and reach the river. You hypothesize if this is the cause of the water conditions at the beach, it would be considered: A. point source pollution.

B. nonpoint source pollution.

C. effluent pollution.

Answer: B Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 2. If it is excess nutrients which are feeding the algae blooms and lowering the oxygen content in the water, that process is called A. nitrification.

B. hypoxia.

C. eutrophication.

D. nutrient cycling.

Answer: C Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 3. What could be the effects of runoff and land use in the watershed that feeds the waters at the beach?

A. Water quality and quantity could both be affected.

B. Water quality but not quantity could be affected.

C. Water quantity but not quality could be affected.

D. Neither water quality nor quantity could be affected.

Answer: A Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 4. If you wanted to check the water quality in a stream that feeds a river in the watershed, what could you do?

A. check for insects and crayfish inhabiting the bottom of the stream.

B. look to see if the water looks crystal clear, which means the water is healthy.

C. examine the animals living around the stream for health problems.

Answer: A

Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 5. You decide to help improve the water quality in a river upstream that feeds into your beach. Your suggestion is to plant a buffer zone of vegetation close to a river to slow runoff and increase the health of the watershed feeding the waters at your beach. Which of the following would be a benefit of your suggestion?

A. Plants store nutrients in their tissues, removing them from the water.

B. Vegetation allows rainwater and runoff to soak into the ground.

C. Plant roots stabilize river banks and prevent erosion.

D. Shade from trees cools water, which can then hold more oxygen.

E. These are all benefits to planting more vegetation in river areas.

Answer: E Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

MODULE 6.3 Guiding Question 1 What is ocean acidification and what are its causes?

Multiple Choice 1. The lowering of the pH of the oceans is known as ___________.

A. salting B. reduction C. alkalinity D. acidification E. chloride shifting Answer: D Section: Ocean acidification Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 2. What is the major cause of ocean acidification?

A. the increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide levels caused by human activity B. pollution C. overfishing D. naturally occurring pH changes in the ocean E. invasive species Answer: A Section: Ocean acidification Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 3. Scientists estimate _______ of all CO2 released by humans is being absorbed by the world’s oceans.

A. 25% B. 30% C. 35% D. 40% E. 55% Answer: A Section: Ocean acidification Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 4. If present trends continue, the ocean’s surface waters will be ______ more acidic by 2100 than they were in 1800.

A. 75% B. 100% C. 125% D. 150%

E. 200% Answer: D Section: Ocean acidification Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 5. A pH drop of 0.1 corresponds to a ____ increase in ocean water acidity.

A. 10% B. 20% C. 30% D. 40% E. 50% Answer: D Section: Ocean acidification Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

6. Refer to the graph depicting ocean acidification over time in Infographic 1. Which of the following statements is TRUE of the graph?

A. As the atmospheric concentration of CO2 increases, the amount of CO2 absorbed by the oceans (pCO2) also increases.

B. As the atmospheric concentration of CO2 increases, the amount of CO2 absorbed by the oceans (pCO2) decreases.

C. As the atmospheric concentration of CO2 increases, the seawater pH increases.

D. As the amount of CO2 absorbed by the oceans (pCO2) decreases, the seawater pH increases.

E. None of these answers is correct.

Answer: A Section: Ocean acidification Level: 2

Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 7. What allows CO2 to mix quickly into the top 100 feet of water from the atmosphere?

A. wind B. waves C. currents D. both waves and currents E. wind, waves, and currents Answer: E Section: Ocean acidification Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 8. When a solution becomes acidic, it contains a greater amount of which of the following?

A. H2O B. OH– C. CH4 D. H+ E. O2 Answer: D Section: Ocean acidification Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 9. What is the pH trend in the seawater represented in the chart shown in Infographic 1?

A. The pH trend is not significant.

B. The pH is becoming more acidic.

C. The pH is becoming more basic.

D. There is no trend in the pH. E. More information is needed to answer the question.

Answer: B

Section: Ocean acidification Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 10. Examine the pH scale below. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Rainwater is more basic than pure water.

B. Soapy water is more acidic than rainwater.

C. Seawater is more acidic than pure water.

D. Lemon juice is the most acidic substance on the scale.

E. Soft drinks are more acidic than pure water.

Answer: E Section: Ocean acidification Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Essay 11. What is ocean acidification? How are humans contributing to ocean acidification?

FEEDBACK: Ocean acidification is the name scientists chose to describe the current catastrophe that is occurring in ocean waters—the decrease in pH of ocean water because of increased amounts of atmospheric carbon dioxide. Since the Industrial Revolution, humans have been burning fossil fuels and releasing carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.

Because the ocean and atmosphere are in direct contact on over 75% of the Earth’s surface, the carbon dioxide emitted into the atmosphere eventually winds up in the ocean.

Increased levels of carbon dioxide in the ocean cause chemical reactions to occur, which lowers the pH of ocean waters.

Section: Ocean acidification Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Applying

12. Refer to Infographic 1. Carbon dioxide emissions have reduced the ocean’s pH by about 0.1. Why is this acidification of the ocean a problem?

FEEDBACK: Normal seawater has an average pH of 8.2. Since the Industrial Revolution, the average pH has dropped to 8.1. Since the pH scale is logarithmic, a decline of 0.1 corresponds to a 30% increase in ocean water acidity. Even a decline of a few tenths of a pH unit can alter the ability of marine organisms to produce shells. At pH 7.6, most shells would dissolve quickly. The projected pH for 2100 is 7.7. Marine ecosystems contain vast biodiversity, and experts say that the ocean acidification changes are happening too fast for many organisms to adapt. The loss of that biodiversity will be a catastrophe.

Section: Ocean acidification Level: 2 Guiding Question 2 What are the consequences of ocean acidification for marine organisms?

Multiple Choice 13. What effect do acidic ocean waters have on shells made of calcium carbonate?

A. They cause increased dissolution (dissolving) of calcium carbonate shells.

B. They cause decreased dissolution (dissolving) of calcium carbonate shells.

C. There is no effect on shells made of calcium carbonate.

D. They cause shells to grow at faster rates.

E. They cause shells to overly calcify.

Answer: A Section: The chemistry and effects of ocean acidification Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 14. The most well-documented effect of ocean acidification is on _________.

A. marine mammals B. saltwater fish C. marine calcifiers D. seaweeds E. sharks Answer: C Section: The chemistry and effects of ocean acidification Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 15. What do organisms use to make shells?

A. Ca+2 B. H2O C. H+ D. CO2 E. CaCO3 Answer: A Section: The chemistry and effects of ocean acidification Level: 1

Bloom’s Level: Remembering 16. Organisms use calcium and carbonate to make shells. What is the correct chemical formula for calcium carbonate?

A. Ca+2 B. CO32C. CO2 D. CaCO3 E. Ca2CO3 Answer: D Section: The chemistry and effects of ocean acidification Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Guiding Question 3 What environmental conditions determine the location and makeup of marine ecosystems?

Multiple Choice 17. Which factor in the ocean is key in determining environmental conditions?

A. space B. depth C. predators D. pressure E. biota Answer: B Section: The ecology of marine ecosystems Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

18. Nutrient-rich areas where shallow rivers meet the ocean are known as ______.

A. intertidal zones B. estuaries C. coral reefs D. abyssal zones E. open ocean Answer: B Section: The ecology of marine ecosystems Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 19. The deepest zone in the ocean is the ____________.

A. abyssal B. hadal C. bathypelagic

D. epipelagic E. meso Answer: B Section: The ecology of marine ecosystems Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 20. Refer to Infographic 3. Which ocean zone has the highest rate of photosynthesis?

A. abyssal B. hadal C. bathypelagic D. epipelagic E. meso Answer: D Section: The ecology of marine ecosystems

Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 21. You would expect to find barnacles, starfish, and mussels in which ocean zone?

A. abyssal B. hadal C. bathypelagic D. intertidal Answer: D Section: The ecology of marine ecosystems Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 22. Why is depth such an important factor in determining the abundance of life in a given region of the ocean? Provide an example to support your reasoning.

FEEDBACK: Depth is important because most of the sunlight that enters the ocean is absorbed in the first 10 meters of the water column. Since sunlight is essential to photosynthesis, surface and shallow regions of the ocean are more productive than deeper regions. For example, the majority of ocean life, including coral reefs, is found in coastal waters on shallow continental shelves. As you move away from the coast into deeper waters, the deeper you go, the less life there is.

Section: The ecology of marine ecosystems Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 23. Why is proximity to land an important factor in determining the abundance of an ocean region? Provide an example to support your reasoning.

FEEDBACK: The more nutrient-rich areas, and thus productive areas, in the ocean community are closer to land and where rivers empty into the ocean. Estuaries are known as “the nurseries of the sea” because they are where rivers empty into the ocean, and many species come to these areas to spawn.

Section: The ecology of marine ecosystems Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Guiding Question 4 Where are coral reefs found, and what is their status?

Multiple Choice 24. The majority of coral reefs on Earth are found between ______ and _______ of the equator.

A. 10 N; 10 S B. 30 N; 30 S C. 50 N; 50 S D. 10 W; 10 E

E. 30 W; 30 S Answer: B Section: Coral reef communities Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 25. Which statement about coral reefs is FALSE? A. Overfishing is a major cause of coral reef destruction.

B. Coral reefs serve as a source of current and potential medicines.

C. Coral reefs help protect shorelines from storms.

D. Coastal development does not affect coral reefs because they develop far away from the shore.

E. Most coral reefs are found between 30 degrees north latitude and 30 degrees south latitude.

Answer: D Section: Coral reef communities Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 26. Which of the following is TRUE of the environments that coral reefs are found in?

A. Colder water is trapped on top of warmer water, creating stratification.

B. There is intensive mixing of deep water and surface water.

C. The waters are saturated with nitrogen and iron.

D. They are nutrient poor.

E. They are typically deep waters.

Answer: D Section: Coral reef communities Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 27. It is estimated that ______ of all ocean species spend some portion of their life in a coral reef.

A. 10% B. 25% C. 50% D. 75% E. 90% Answer: B Section: Coral reef communities Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 28. Coral reefs are complex ecosystems with numerous interspecies interactions. Which of the following interactions is an example of commensalism?

A. clown fish and sea anemone B. remora fish and manta ray

C. corals and zooxanthellae D. sharks and tuna E. octopus and crab Answer: B Section: Coral reef communities Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 29. Where would you find the highest concentration of coral reefs?

A. freshwater lakes B. freshwater streams C. temperate marine areas D. tropical marine areas E. terrestrial areas Answer: D Section: Coral reef communities Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 30. NOAA estimates that ______ of coral reefs worldwide are threatened by either human activity or environmental changes.

A. 10% B. 25% C. 50% D. 75% E. 90% Answer: D Section: Coral reef communities Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 31. All of the following are major threats to reefs EXCEPT _________.

A. overfishing B. coastal development C. inland pollution D. marine-based pollution E. aquarium collection Answer: E Section: Coral reef communities Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

Guiding Question 5 Explain the biology of coral and the causes and consequences of coral bleaching

Multiple Choice 32. Coral is a type of marine _________.

A. plant B. fungi C. bacterium D. animal E. protozoan Answer: D Section: Coral biology and bleaching Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 33. The skeleton of coral is mostly composed of ________.

A. nitrogen B. aluminum C. calcium carbonate D. silicon E. iron Answer: C Section: Coral biology and bleaching Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 34. Lower pH affects which coral developmental stage/process?

A. fertilization B. larval development C. settlement D. fertilization, larval development, and settlement E. both fertilization and settlement Answer: D Section: Coral biology and bleaching Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

35. Why do corals need a mutualistic relationship with other species, like zooxanthellae?

A. Corals typically live in nutrient-poor regions.

B. Corals grow on top of one another C. Corals live in cold water.

D. Corals live so deep that the sunlight cannot reach them.

E. Corals live in oxygen-poor water.

Answer: A Section: Coral biology and bleaching Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

36. What benefit do zooxanthellae get from their mutualistic relationship with corals?

A. oxygen B. sugars from photosynthesis C. color D. carbon dioxide E. lower pH Answer: D Section: Coral biology and bleaching Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 37. What benefit do corals get from their mutualistic relationship with zooxanthellae?

A. give coral their color B. provide coral with food via sugars they make during photosynthesis C. provide coral with a place to attach to the ocean floor D. All of these answer choices are correct.

E. both give coral their color and provide coral with food via sugars they make during photosynthesis Answer: E Section: Coral biology and bleaching Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 38. Coral bleaching is _________.

A. when the sun bleaches the pigment of the coral and turns it white B. when a chemical spill causes the coral to die and the skeleton, which is white, to show through C. when coral expel the zooxanthellae from their cells in response to stress D. when coral turns white due to lowering water temperatures E. when another organism colonizes the coral and turns it white Answer: C Section: Coral biology and bleaching Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 39. What event can lead to coral bleaching?

A. pollution B. acidification C. high temperatures D. salinity changes E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: E Section: Coral biology and bleaching Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

40. Marc Slattery conducted several experiments using both natural and simulated coral reefs. When reef species (sponges) were subjected to higher temperatures and lower pH, most likely the conditions that will exist in the future ocean environment, Slattery found that the reef species had slower growth rates and reduced reproduction. What was the cause of these results?

A. The higher temperature directly affected the growth rate of the sponge.

B. The higher temperature and lower pH reduced the sponges’ symbiotic partners’ ability to conduct photosynthesis.

C. The lower pH prevented the sponge prodigy from attaching to a solid surface.

D. The higher temperature and lower pH interfered with the sponges’ reproductive cycle.

E. The higher temperature and lower pH increased the sponges’ symbiotic partners’ ability to photosynthesize, and they were therefore able to survive on their own.

Answer: B Section: Coral biology and bleaching Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

Essay 41. Describe the complex relationship that coral have with zooxanthellae (“zooks”).

FEEDBACK: Coral live in a mutualistic relationship with zooxanthellae. The two species share nutrients. The zooxanthellae raise the pH of the coral cells, which helps the coral lay down its coral skeleton. Corals provide the zooxanthellae with nutrients and carbon dioxide for photosynthesis. Zooxanthellae provide the coral with food made during photosynthesis.

Section: Coral biology and bleaching Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 42. Why do ecologists consider coral reefs a keystone species?

FEEDBACK: Keystone species are particular organisms in an ecosystem that are depended upon by many other organisms in that ecosystem for things like food, shelter, and water. If a keystone species were to disappear from the ecosystem, many species in that ecosystem would feel the effects, typically in a detrimental way. Coral reefs are considered a keystone species because many ocean ecosystems are dependent on coral reefs for several necessary resources like food and habitat.

Section: Coral biology and bleaching Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 43. Refer to Infographic 5. What does the white area on this coral indicate? Discuss the possible causes and the ecological impact of this phenomenon.

FEEDBACK: The white area indicates bleached coral. A healthy coral lives in a symbiotic relationship with its algal partners (the zooxanthellae, or “zooks”). Corals provide their resident zooks with nutrients and CO2 for photosynthesis as well as protection of the calcium carbonate skeletons of coral reefs. Zooks, in turn, provide the coral polyps with food (sugars made during photosynthesis). When corals get stressed, they expel their zooxanthellae. This event is known as coral bleaching because when it happens, the coral turns bone white (as the zooxanthellae also give the corals their colors). Environmental stressors such as warmer seawater temperatures, pollution, and coral diseases are all potential causes of coral bleaching. Bleaching could be an adaptation that allows the coral to take up a different species of zooks, one that can tolerate the particular environmental stress, and coral may survive for a few months without the zooks. But since these algae are necessary for the survival of the coral, when the zooxanthellae die, the coral slowly dies if not recolonized. Loss of coral reefs means loss of marine habitat for many organisms and loss of ecosystem services, including protection of coastal areas from storms, purification of the water (many reef occupants are filter feeders), provision of recreational opportunities, support of important commercial fisheries, and a source of current and potential medicines such as antibiotics and anticancer drugs.

Section: Coral biology and bleaching Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

Guiding Question 6 In addition to acidification, what other threats do ocean communities face?

Multiple Choice 44. Which of the following is NOT a source of human impact on marine ecosystems?

A. fishing practices such as bottom trawling B. resort development in coastal areas C. agricultural use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides D. offshore oil drilling E. All of the above are examples of human impact on marine ecosystems.

Answer: E Section: Other threats to ocean ecosystems Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 45. Refer to the graph in Infographic 4. The graph shows the level of each of the four major threats that coral reefs currently face. Which are the correct labels for the graph?

A. a = overfishing; b = marine-based pollution; c = coastal development; d = inland pollution B. a = inland pollution; b = marine-based pollution; c = overfishing; d = coastal development C. a = coastal development; b = inland pollution; c = marine-based pollution; d = overfishing D. a = overfishing; b = coastal development; c = inland population; d = marine-based pollution E. a = marine-based pollution; b = coastal development; c = inland pollution; d = overfishing Answer: D Section: Other threats to ocean ecosystems Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

46. Match the human activity to its correct consequence for marine ecosystems.

A. drilling for oil — coral bleaching B. using fertilizer — ocean acidification C. fishing with dynamite — algal blooms D. releasing ballast water from ships — introduction of invasive species Answer: D Section: Other threats to ocean ecosystems Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 47. Which of the following changes will have the GREATEST global effect on coral reefs despite their particular geographic location in the oceans?

A. increased water temperatures from anthropogenic CO2 emissions B. increased salinity from desalination of ocean water for human use C. increased oxygen concentrations from algal blooms due to nutrient pollution D. increased predation of native coral reef fish by non-native lionfish E. increased sediment pollution from clear-cut inland forests that smother reefs Answer: A Section: Other threats to ocean ecosystems Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 48. Coral reefs are limited to shallow water, and there is a concern that rising sea levels will affect the reefs. This is because ______________.

A. they require the lower salinity found in shallow waters B. there are more nutrients found in shallow water C. their symbiotic zooxanthellae require light to survive D. they require coastal upwellings of CO2 in order to survive E. it is too difficult for them to build reefs in deeper water Answer: C Section: Other threats to ocean ecosystems Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Applying 49. More than ______ of today’s oceans contain at least one invasive species.

A. 20% B. 40% C. 50% D. 60% E. 80% Answer: E Section: Other threats to ocean ecosystems Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

50. Threats from fishing pressure include _________.

A. sediment pollution B. plastic bag debris C. oil spills D. damage from dynamite E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: D Section: Other threats to ocean ecosystems Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

51. Fishing pressures (overexploitation) have eliminated ______ of top trophic-level predators in the oceans.

A. 15% B. 30% C. 55% D. 75% E. 90% Answer: E Section: Other threats to ocean ecosystems Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 52. The greatest threat to coral reefs worldwide is ___________.

A. marine-based pollution B. inland pollution C. coastal development D. overfishing Answer: D Section: Other threats to ocean ecosystems Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 53. In some areas of Florida, divers who remove non-native lionfish from coral reefs are eligible for a $10,000 prize. This is because lionfish ___________.

A. produce a chemical in great demand in the pharmaceutical industry B. exclusively eat grouper, a fish considered a delicacy in fine dining C. aggressively kill native fish outright or outcompete them when foraging D. populations are dwindling in some parts of their range, and this is a way to repopulate them in those regions E. are in high demand by aquarium enthusiasts Answer: C Section: Other threats to ocean ecosystems Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

Essay 54. The ocean is so vast it is difficult to imagine that human activities could harm it.

However, the evidence of human impact is unmistakable. Discuss the nature of marine ecosystem destruction from pollution and overfishing.

FEEDBACK: Human activities harm marine ecosystems in a variety of different ways, with major threats coming from pollution and overfishing. Oceans receive pollution from land (via runoff) and from the atmosphere (via precipitation). Millions of tons of trash, including plastic and fishing nets, entangle and kill marine organisms. Less visible contaminants, like fertilizers, pesticides, and human sewage, also cause problems.

Nutrient runoff from agricultural areas causes algal blooms which smother corals and block sunlight, reducing photosynthesis. Pathogens in untreated sewage contaminate shellfish and other seafood, posing a threat to public health. Offshore oil drilling not only pollutes as a result of oil spills but the combustion of fossil fuels releases CO2 into the Earth’s atmosphere which is then absorbed by the world’s oceans, leading to ocean acidification. But it is overfishing that is currently the biggest threat to oceans; about 90% of top trophic-level predators have already been eliminated by overexploitation. Fishing pressure also inflicts other wounds, such as the destruction of seabeds, by bottom trawling and the destruction of reefs from the use of dynamite and cyanide sprays.

Section: Other threats to ocean ecosystems Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 55. What are invasive species? Discuss the possible causes and the ecological impact of this threat to ocean ecosystems using the lionfish as an example.

FEEDBACK: Invasive species are non-native species that are introduced into ocean ecosystems in which they do not belong and where they can wreak major havoc. More than 80% of ocean harbors around the world now host at least one invasive species which may have arrived in the ballast water of ships, was accidentally released from aquaculture pens, or escaped while being moved as part of the aquarium trade. Take the lionfish as an example. It was an escapee from aquaria and now poses a significant threat to coral reefs in places like the Bahamas and Florida. Lionfish are aggressive and poisonous predators and either outright kill native fish or outcompete them when foraging. When they are introduced to a coral reef, the survival of native fish can drop by as much as 80%.

Section: Other threats to ocean ecosystems Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 56. You have been given the task of monitoring the health of a coral reef. Over the years, you have documented a decrease in the biodiversity of life in the reef. What could be some of the reasons why the reef is suffering?

FEEDBACK: The introduction of invasive species can have a major impact on the health of a reef. Lionfish have the ability to reduce native fish populations by 80%. Changes in the temperature and pH of the water can cause coral bleaching, which would reduce the productivity of the reef, reducing the number of organisms the reef could support. Illegal

use of dynamite, cyanide, or bottom trawling could also damage the reef. Other threats include overfishing, pollution, debris, and fish collection.

Section: Other threats to ocean ecosystems Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 57. What are the causes of algal blooms, and how do algal blooms affect coral reefs?

FEEDBACK: Runoff from agricultural areas contains high levels of nutrients and can increase algae production and create algal blooms. Algal blooms can smother corals and block sunlight, reducing photosynthesis and thus leading to a decline in the health of the reef.

Section: Other threats to ocean ecosystems Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Applying Guiding Question 7 How can we reduce the threats to coral reefs and other ocean ecosystems?

Multiple Choice 58. All of the following actions would threaten the ocean’s ability to provide ecosystem goods and services EXCEPT ___________.

A. dumping motor oil down storm drains B. fishing using bottom trawlers C. spilling gasoline while fueling your lawn mower D. soil erosion from construction sites E. installing solar panels Answer: E Section: Reducing the threats Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 59. Choose the strategy that is correctly matched with how it reduces the threat to marine ecosystems.

A. reducing beachfront development — reduces overfishing B. designating marine-protected areas — enables recovery from coral-bleaching events C. transitioning to non–fossil fuel energy sources — reduces algal blooms D. prohibiting bottom trawling — prevents introduction of invasive species E. banning release of ballast water from ships — reduces ocean acidification Answer: B Section: Reducing the threats Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 60. In 2006, commercial fishing was prohibited in the marine protected area of the South Pacific coral reefs of the Republic of Kirbati’s Kanton Island. What was the effect of this?

A. Fishermen lost their jobs and went bankrupt.

B. The fish in the reef died off anyway.

C. The reef began to recover from a bleaching event.

D. The corals were stressed further and more of them died.

E. Algae began growing on the corals and took over the area.

Answer: E Section: Reducing the threats Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

61. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE regarding reducing threats to marine ecosystems?

A. Evidence shows that MPAs do not improve marine ecosystems, as it is impossible to keep community connections intact and because ocean ecosystems are generally not resilient.

B. A transition to energy sources not based on fossil fuels will reduce the amount of anthropogenic CO2 released and slow ocean acidification and warming.

C. Given that sea levels are likely rising, it is less critical to reduce nutrient (fertilizer or sewage) or toxic pollution, as the larger volume of water will dilute the pollutants.

D. Overfishing is not the problem, but rather the problem lies in the fishing techniques.

So, we can continue to fish at current levels and still improve ocean ecosystems if we just change how we fish.

E. All of these statements are true regarding reducing threats to marine ecosystems.

Answer: B Section: Reducing the threats Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 62. Which of the following is NOT a major threat to ocean ecosystems?

A. overfishing B. plate tectonics C. pollution D. rising sea levels E. invasive species Answer: B Section: Reducing the threats Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 63. What are MPAs? A. fishing areas for commercial fishermen B. places where fishing and other human activities are restricted or completely prohibited C. delicate intertidal communities D. areas that are overrun with invasive species E. places near shorelines that have been extremely polluted by sediment

Answer: B Section: Reducing the threats Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 64. Which strategy is INCORRECTLY matched with its effect on ocean ecosystems?

A. prohibiting bottom-trawling in vulnerable areas — reduces exposure to land-based pollution B. reducing the use of fossil fuel — reduces the amount of anthropogenic carbon dioxide released and slows ocean acidification C. reducing pollution — reduces infections and keeps coral healthy D. designating MPAs — protects ocean communities to help them recover from environmental damage E. prohibiting bottom-trawling in vulnerable areas — protects reefs from destructive practices Answer: A Section: Reducing the threats Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Applying Essay 65. How can we reduce threats to ocean ecosystems? Discuss three strategies to improve oceans and coasts, and explain the potential positive effects.

FEEDBACK: Students can select any three of the following strategies to reduce threats to ocean ecosystems: (1) establish marine protected areas (MPAs) or places where fishing and other human activities are restricted or completely prohibited: evidence shows that in the right conditions, MPAs can be very effective in allowing an area to recover from environmental damage and benefit not only fish stock but other ecosystem services as well; (2) reduce use of fossil fuels and transition to energy sources not based on fossil fuels: this will reduce the amount of anthropogenic CO2 released, which will reduce the CO2 available to be absorbed by oceans and thus slow ocean acidification and warming; (3) limit coastal development, especially in vulnerable areas: this keeps the areas intact and also reduces exposure to land-based pollution that can harm sea life; (4) reduce pollution on all fronts: keeping waters clear, clean, and free of nutrients, toxins, litter, and pathogens benefits both ocean organisms and humans by reducing wildlife entanglement, limiting algal blooms, and minimizing pathogen and toxin contamination of seafood; (5) change fishing techniques and reduce overfishing: using safer techniques will be less disruptive to nontarget species and will also protect ocean ecosystems from being destroyed; similarly, keeping populations viable by not overfishing improves an ocean community’s ability to withstand perturbations; and (6) monitor and manage invasive species: this will reduce the likelihood that ocean ecosystems are wrecked by aggressive non-native species.

Section: Reducing the threats Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Applying

66. The majority of coral reefs that have been destroyed are found near less-developed countries. What are some of the reasons why these coral reefs have been more damaged compared with reefs found near countries that are more developed?

FEEDBACK: The major threats facing coral reefs today include overfishing, coastal development, and pollution. Countries that are more developed have enacted laws protecting coral reefs and have the resources to enforce protection of their coral reefs.

Additionally, countries that are more developed have rules regulating coastal development and strict regulations on the treatment of pollution and its disposal. Lessdeveloped countries may not have these rules or resources to protect their coral reefs from human impact and exploitation.

Section: Reducing the threats Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating 67. Refer to Infographic 7. Describe ways that you can reduce threats to ocean ecosystems through your personal actions.

FEEDBACK: To help reduce carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere, can ride your bike to work, carpool, or use mass transit options. In addition, plant trees that will act as CO2 sinks. Support efforts for alternative energy sources like wind and solar energy. Use only organic fertilizer and limit water usage. Fertilizer and wastewater runoff into oceans harm sea life. Participate in local “clean up the river” activities. Watersheds affect oceans and reefs. Reduce your trash by purchasing long-lasting goods and reusing and recycling

products so less trash ends up in oceans where it harms reefs and fish. Donate time/resources or do business with groups that clean up reefs, practice responsible reef dives/snorkeling (don’t touch the coral), or provide education through zoos or aquariums.

Purchase marine aquarium fish or other reef objects only if they were harvested in an ecologically sustainable way. Avoid fish products known to be harvested in a manner that damages marine ecosystems (bottom trawling and overfishing). Continue to educate yourself and others about how marine ecosystems are affected by human activity. Use your knowledge to make informed decisions regarding policies and elected officials (for the creation of marine-protected areas and reserves).

Section: Reducing the threats Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

Matching Questions Match each term in the left-hand column to the statement that it best exemplifies.

1. acidification 2. marine calcifiers

3. coral 4. coral reef

5. estuary 6. coral bleaching

7. mutualism

8. zooxanthellae

9. commensalism

organisms that make a hard calcium-based shell or exoskeleton (*2) mutualistic photosynthetic dinoflagellate partner of a coral polyp; each provides nutrients to the other (*8) the lowering of the pH or a solution (*1) a large underwater structure formed by colonies of tiny animals (coral) that produce a calcium carbonate exoskeleton that over time builds up; found in shallow, warm, tropical seas (*4) a symbiotic relationship between individuals of two species in which both parties benefit (*7) colonial marine animals that secrete hard outer shells in which they live and are mutualistically dependent on an algal partner (*3) a symbiotic relationship between individuals of two species in which one benefits from the presence of the other, but the other is unaffected (*9) a stress response in coral in which the mutualistic algal partner is expelled; this weakens and can even kill the coral if it is not recolonized soon (*6) a region where a river empties into the ocean (*5)

Linked Questions Science Literacy Refer to the graphs below to answer the following five questions.

Below are data from a study (described in Module 6.3) conducted by Michael Lesser, Marc Slattery, and colleagues. The rate of photosynthesis (Graph A) and the amount of carbohydrate present (Graph B), an indication of photosynthetic production of sugars, were determined in sponges exposed to current temperature and pH (control) or to one of three test groups: the expected pH in 2100 (test group 1), the expected temperature in 2100 (test group 2), or both (test group 3).

(Note: Significant difference between groups is denoted by a different letter above the bars; if two groups share the same letter, they are not statistically different.)

1. What was the dependent variable(s) for the rate of photosynthesis experiment?

A. reduced pH B. elevated temperature C. elevated pH D. both reduced pH and elevated temperature Answer: D Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 2. Which groups in Graph A are not statistically different from each other?

A. the control group and the reduced pH group B. the reduced pH group and the elevated temperature group C. the elevated temperature group and the elevated temperature combined with reduced pH group Answer: B Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 3. The results of Graph B suggest which of the following is TRUE? A. The amount of carbohydrates present in the control group was significantly less than the amount present in the reduced pH group.

B. The amount of carbohydrates present in the reduced pH group was the only significant difference shown in Graph B. C. The group with elevated temperature and reduced pH had significantly fewer carbohydrates than the reduced pH group.

D. The reduced pH group had significantly more carbohydrates than the elevated temperature group.

Answer: C Section: Science literacy

Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 4. What would the control conditions be for this experiment?

A. reduced pH B. normal temperature and pH C. elevated temperatures D. both reduced pH and elevated temperatures Answer: C Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 5. Which of the following hypothesis is supported by Graphs A and B? A. Reduced pH in oceans has the greatest effect on barrel sponge photosynthesis and carbohydrates.

B. Elevated temperatures in oceans have the greatest effect on barrel sponge photosynthesis and carbohydrates.

C. Reduced pH and elevated temperatures in oceans have the greatest effect on barrel sponge photosynthesis and carbohydrates.

Answer: C Section: Science literacy Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Making Connections Use the following scenario to answer the following four questions.

Sombra, a development company, wants to build new hotels on a beach close to your home. You know there is an extensive coral reef off the coast, and you often go snorkeling to look at the coral and fish. You are a member of the Save Our Reefs committee and want to convince the townspeople to protest the development. Your day job is a scientist researching ocean acidification.

1. At a Save Our Reefs meeting, people are asking you what effect the development of new hotels would have on the beach and the reef. You tell them that _________.

A. the hotels would increase tourism, and more people would be a benefit for the beach and coral reefs, since they would be able to capture fish for the aquarium trade and fish in the reef B. the development company could harvest the coral reef for building material and expose it to more land-based pollution C. even if the development harms the reef, the beach and the town will be safe, since corals don’t contribute much to the ocean ecosystems Answer: B Section: Making connections Level: 2

Bloom’s Level: Applying 2. An older man asks you, “What are the benefits of coral reefs?” You tell him that _________.

A. reefs attract food and provide habitat for other species B. they contain high biodiversity C. 25% of all ocean species spend at least some part of their lives in a coral reef D. You tell him all of the above are benefits to coral reefs.

Answer: D Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 3. You explain the main threat to reefs worldwide is _________.

A. overfishing B. coastal development C. inland pollution D. marine-based pollution Answer: A Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 4. A young woman asks what the danger is of using cyanide spray to stun fish for aquarium collection. You tell her that _________.

A. it can kill fish and coral other than the fish intended for collection B. it will affect only the fish that are being captured, so there is not much harm to the reef C. it can cause coral bleaching Answer: A Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

MODULE 7.1 Guiding Question 1 What is a forest and what influences which forest type is found in a given area?

Multiple Choice 1. Forest biomes currently cover how much of the planet’s landmass?

A. 20% B. 30% C. 40% D. 50% C. 70% Answer: B Section: The forest biome Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 2. The type of forest is determined by which main factor(s)?

A. temperature B. precipitation C. type of soil D. temperature and precipitation E. precipitation and type of soil Answer: D Section: The forest biome Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 3. The forest biome that you would expect to find in a cool location with mild precipitation and a short growing season would be __________________.

A. deciduous B. boreal C. coniferous D. tropical Answer: B Section: The forest biome Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 4. The term for trees that lose their leaves on an annual basis is __________________.

A. emergent B. temperate C. deciduous D. boreal E. coniferous

Answer: C Section: The forest biome Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 5. Which of the following statements about forests is NOT true?

A. Temperature and the amount of sunlight an area receives determine which type of forest is present in that area.

B. Forests cover about one-third of the planet’s landmass.

C. In terms of biodiversity, forests are home to over one-half of Earth’s terrestrial life.

D. Forests are dominated by trees.

E. The types of forests vary across the globe.

Answer: A Section: The forest biome Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Applying 6. Forests around the world are home to more than ______ of Earth’s terrestrial life.

A. 20% B. 30% C. 40% D. 50% E. 60% Answer: D Section: The forest biome Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 7. A temperate forest __________________.

A. is characterized by evergreen species B. covers vast tracks of land in the higher latitudes and altitudes C. is found in tropical latitudes D. contains deciduous trees that lose their leaves in the winter E. is characterized by low temperatures and precipitation levels Answer: D Section: The forest biome Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 8. Which forest type is NOT paired with its correct description?

A. boreal forest — short growing season B. temperate forest — distinct seasons C. boreal forest — thick soils from plant decomposition D. tropical forest — wet and dry seasons E. tropical forest — thin, acidic, low-nutrient soils

Answer: C Section: The forest biome Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 9. What percentage of Haiti’s original forests remain compared with those that existed prior to European settlement?

A. 2 B. 6 C. 10 D. 25 E. 50 Answer: A Section: The forest biome Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 10. Which forest type has the most fertile soil?

A. deciduous B. boreal C. coniferous D. tropical E. temperate Answer: E Section: The forest biome Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 11. What would you expect to happen to the distribution of boreal forests as average global temperatures increase with climate change?

FEEDBACK: As temperatures increase, these cold-dependent boreal forests may shift their distributions farther north in Alaska, Canada, and Siberia. They may also move to higher elevations in alpine areas in the temperate zone.

Section: The forest biome Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 12. The soils of tropical forests are typically thin and low in plant nutrients. Yet tropical forests are some of the most productive and diverse ecosystems on the planet. How can you explain this paradox?

FEEDBACK: Warm and wet conditions can drive extremely high rates of decomposition by bacteria, fungi, and other decomposers. This decomposition can “unlock” nutrients from biomass that can then be rapidly absorbed by the tropical vegetation, allowing for high rates of productivity and diversity.

Section: The forest biome

Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Applying

Guiding Question 2 What is the three-dimensional structure of a forest and how are the plant species found there adapted to their level of the forest?

Multiple Choice 13. The correct order of forest layers from the bottom to top of a forest is __________________.

A. forest floor, canopy, understory, emergent layer B. emergent layer, forest floor, understory, canopy C. forest floor, understory, emergent layer, canopy D. forest floor, understory, canopy, emergent layer E. understory, forest floor, emergent layer, canopy Answer: D Section: Forest structure Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 14. Trees and shrubs that are adapted to shade would be found in which layer of a forest?

A. forest floor B. understory C. canopy D. emergent layer Answer: B Section: Forest structure Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 15. The layer of a forest cross section that generally would contain seedlings is the ___________.

A. forest floor B. understory C. canopy D. emergent layer Answer: A Section: Forest structure Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

16. The emergent layer of the forest is the ___________.

A. lowest level of the forest, where herbaceous plants and fungi emerge out of the soil B. region where a tree taller than the canopy is rising above the canopy layer C. upper layer of the forest where the crowns of most of the tallest trees meet D. area where the smaller trees live under the canopy and try to emerge into the sunlight E. layer most often used for timber harvest Answer: B Section: Forest structure

Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 17. The three-dimensional structure of the forest refers to the fact that forests __________________.

A. can cover thousands of acres B. can contain a variety of tree species C. can have multiple layers D. can be restored in a relatively short time span E. exist in several types, such as tropical, deciduous, and boreal Answer: C Section: Forest structure Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 18. Refer to Infographic 2. Which of the following would NOT be an effect of a tree falling down in the local forest?

A. Increased sunlight could cause saplings to quickly grow, trying to take its place.

B. More niches would be opened up.

C. Decomposers and scavengers would make a home in the fallen tree.

D. Wildflowers would not bloom.

E. Shade-adapted species might be detrimentally affected.

Answer: D

Section: Forest structure Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 19. If a particular species of vine required sunlight and a moderate level of temperature and humidity to survive, which forest layer would it most likely be found in?

A. emergent layer B. canopy C. understory D. forest floor Answer: B Section: Forest structure Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 20. Many species of trees found in the canopy and emergent layer of forests have seeds and saplings that are shade adapted. Why do you think this is?

A. The seeds need a low temperature to germinate and grow.

B. The seeds and saplings will be in the shade for much of their early life because the parent trees in the upper layers of the forest will block a portion of sunlight.

C. There is a higher level of humidity in the shade, which the saplings need to survive.

D. In order for animals to find and eat the seeds, a necessary step in the trees’ germination cycle, they must be on the forest floor.

E. Canopy and emergent-layer trees do not produce shade-adapted saplings.

Answer: B Section: Forest structure Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Essay 21. Refer to Infographic 2. What microclimate exists in the emergent tree layer, and how would this affect the species dwelling there?

FEEDBACK: It will be hotter and dryer in the emergent trees than in the canopy or on the ground. Therefore, species will have to be more heat and water tolerant. One example is the sloth that moves slowly and has algae growing in its fur to keep it cooler.

Section: Forest structure Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 22. How does the layering or stratification of forests contribute to overall animal biodiversity?

FEEDBACK: The unique microclimates and plant species of each layer allow for a greater variety and number of niches in the forest. As the number of available niches increases, so will the overall animal diversity across the entire forest.

Section: Forest structure Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question 3 What ecosystem services do forests provide?

Multiple Choice 23. The net loss of trees in a region is known as __________________.

A. deforestation B. industrialization C. clear-cutting

D. fire suppression E. charcoal Answer: A Section: Ecosystem services of forests Level: Easy Bloom’s Level: Remembering 24. Why are forests called carbon sinks?

A. Carbon drains out of forest biomes through groundwater running below the surface.

B. Forest biomes store more carbon than they release.

C. Carbon in forest biomes becomes trapped and is never released, even after logging occurs.

D. High amounts of water in forest biomes capture carbon and hold it there.

E. Forests pull carbon out of organic plant materials and transform it into atmospheric carbon.

Answer: B Section: Ecosystem services of forests Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 25. Which of the following is NOT an ecosystem service of a forest?

A. goods B. soil maintenance and protection C. contribution to the increase of atmospheric carbon dioxide D. recreation E. ecotourism Answer: C Section: Ecosystem services of forests Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 26. Which of the following is a sociocultural benefit of forests?

A. Forest stands are considered sacred by indigenous people, connecting them to their past.

B. Soil and roots of forest trees slow rainwater flow to allow more water to soak into the ground.

C. Forest layers provide habitat and food for animals, fungi, and microbes.

D. Wood products, including lumber, firewood, charcoal, and some medicines, come from forests.

E. Forests provide genetic diversity, which could improve our crops or provide new medicines.

Answer: A Section: Ecosystem services of forests Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 27. Which of the following are services provided by forests?

A. watershed purification B. sink for carbon dioxide C. recycling of nutrients

D. reduction of soil erosion E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: E Section: Ecosystem services of forests Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 28. Robert Constanza and his colleagues estimated the total value of the ecosystem services provided by forests to be ______________ in 2007 U.S. dollars.

A. $100 million B. $4.8 million C. $3.8 billion D. $1 trillion E. $3.8 trillion Answer: E Section: Ecosystem services of forests Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 29. Water that flows downhill over the land surface, usually after a rainfall event, is called _______________.

A. surface water B. ground water C. runoff D. riparian E. aquifer Answer: C Section: Ecosystem services of forests Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 30. Forests remove ____________ from the atmosphere and release _____________ back into the atmosphere.

A. oxygen; carbon dioxide B. carbon dioxide; oxygen C. nitrogen gas; oxygen D. nitrogen gas; carbon dioxide E. carbon dioxide; nitrogen gas Answer: B Section: Ecosystem services of forests Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 31. Wood products account for approximately _______________billion in global trade every year.

A. $500,000

B. $1 C. $10 D. $50 E. $100 Answer: E Section: Ecosystem services of forests Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 32. You have been given the task of convincing a country to maintain its forests instead of converting them into large farms. What information would you present in your argument for keeping the forests?

FEEDBACK: You would need to list all of the services provided by the forest, including watershed, atmosphere and climate regulation, soil maintenance and protection, and biodiversity and genetic resources. You would also want to discuss any economic goods provided by the forest and the number of jobs the forest provides, such as food and building material. Finally, you would want to talk about the sociocultural benefits derived from the forest, such as artistic inspiration and a connection to the past.

Section: Ecosystem services of forests Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating 33. One important functions of a forest is nutrient cycling. What nutrients does a forest normally recycle?

FEEDBACK: Forests play an important role in the carbon cycle, nitrogen cycle, and phosphorus cycle. Many of these nutrients are trapped in the biomass of trees and are released back into the soil upon the death and decomposition of trees or the clearing and burning of trees for agriculture.

Section: Ecosystem services of forests Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 34. How does “slash and burn” agriculture (clear-cutting a forested area and burning the trees on site) affect the carbon cycle and influence climate change?

FEEDBACK: The clear-cutting and subsequent burning of trees affects the carbon cycle in two ways. First, the removal of the trees reduces the ability of the area to pull carbon out of the atmosphere and therefore allows for less carbon storage in biomass. Second, the burning of the trees releases the carbon that had been stored in biomass over the tree’s life cycle, adding carbon dioxide to the atmosphere. Both of these result in a net increase in carbon dioxide in the atmosphere and contribute to the increase in greenhouse gases that drive climate change.

Section: Ecosystem services of forests Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

Guiding Question 4 What threats do forests face?

Multiple Choice 35. Production of charcoal results in __________________.

A. the release of carbon dioxide and soot into the atmosphere, causing air pollution B. severe deforestation as trees are chopped down to produce charcoal C. a sustainable source of energy for countries like Haiti D. All of these answer choices are correct.

E. the release of carbon dioxide and soot into the atmosphere, causing air pollution and severe deforestation as trees are chopped down to produce charcoal Answer: E Section: Threats to forests Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 36. Which statement is correct?

A. Fire suppression prevents destruction of forests in the long run.

B. Deforestation causes little change in the water supply of an area.

C. Subsistence farming can help prevent mass scale deforestation.

D. Roads going through forested areas have little effect on deforestation because people use them solely for transportation.

Answer: C Section: Threats to forests Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 37. Why does forest conservation in countries that are more developed not make a significant difference in worldwide conservation efforts?

A. Nations that are more developed still demand wood, driving deforestation elsewhere.

B. Multinational corporations simply move their businesses to less-developed nations where deforestation regulations do not exist.

C. Deforestation in countries that are more developed offsets gains in less-developed countries.

D. Both because nations that are more developed still demand wood and because multinational corporations move their businesses to less-developed nations with fewer deforestation regulations.

E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: D Section: Threats to forests Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 38. What is one way climate change is impacting forests?

A. increasing the build-up of deadwood, thus increasing the chance of deadly fires B. decreasing the instance of fire, especially in drought-stricken areas

C. increasing the need for timber products, which would increase logging D. increasing pest population attacks on trees from seasonally to all year round E. decreasing the conversion of forestland to cropland for agriculture to export Answer: D Section: Threats to forests Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 39. What could be one reason why people in developing countries may not agree with conserving forested land?

A. They are unaware of the services intact forests provide.

B. They can easily replace the ecosystem services provided by forests through development of public utilities infrastructure.

C. It is not as profitable in the short term.

D. They do not understand the benefits that can be gained by preserving forests.

E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: C Section: Threats to forests Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 40. Refer to the map in Infographic 4. The data on the net change in forested area between 2005 and 2010 suggest that, in general, _________________ exists between a country’s rate of deforestation and its overall economic status.

A. a positive relationship B. a negative relationship C. no relationship D. a random relationship Answer: B

Section: Threats to forests Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 41. Haiti’s ____________ trade grew to account for 20% of the rural economy and 80% of the country’s energy supply.

A. charcoal B. fossil fuels C. lumber D. fuel wood E. solar energy Answer: A Section: Threats to forests Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 42. Deforestation in less-developed countries can best be described as ___________________.

A. a vicious cycle that results in even further environmental degradation, poverty, and other social issues B. a problem caused by lack of education among poor people C. the result of developed nations’ dependence on charcoal D. the only cost-effective way developing nations can meet their energy needs E. an unsolvable problem Answer: A Section: Threats to forests Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 43. Which of the following are major causes of global deforestation?

A. logging B. cattle ranching C. pest infestation D. charcoal production E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: E Section: Threats to forests Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 44. The majority of deforestation is currently taking place _______________.

A. in countries that are more developed B. in countries that are less developed C. at the same rate in both developed and developing countries D. at rates that vary worldwide, with no pattern E. The data to determine this are insufficient.

Answer: B Section: Threats to forests Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 45. Total global deforestation is approximately ____________ million hectares per year.

A. 2.3 B. 7.6 C. 10.2 D. 20.8 E. 50.1 Answer: B Section: Threats to forests Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 46. The three main causes of forest destruction are harvesting of wood, conversion of forests into agricultural land, and _______________.

A. pest infestation B. fires C. roads D. urbanization E. air pollution Answer: D Section: Threats to forests Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 47. The United States was one of a few countries that had a net increase in forested areas between the years 2005 and 2010. What are some of the reasons why the United States saw an increase, and how could this increase have had a negative impact on other countries?

FEEDBACK: Over the years, the United States has passed several laws that regulate the use of and the replanting of forested areas. These laws have resulted in an increase in the forested area in the United States. Since there are strict regulations on how forests can be used in the United States, more wood is imported from developing countries. Developing countries may not regulate the use of their forests, and even with regulations, they may not have the resources to properly enforce the regulations, which could result in overharvesting and degradation of their forests.

Section: Threats to forests Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 48. The amount of global deforestation has slowed significantly since the 1990s. One of the major reasons why there is still a net loss of forested land each year is harvesting of forests for

wood and wood products. What are some of the ways that a country could reduce its dependence on wood and wood products?

FEEDBACK: One of the easiest ways to reduce the demand for a product is through recycling.

Recycling of material made from wood not only preserves forests but also lessens the amount of waste being put into landfills. Also, using wood classified as ecological construction material or ecologically green (bamboo) would put less of a stress on the harvesting of hardwoods that grow at a significantly slower rate.

Section: Threats to forests Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Guiding Question 5 How do different timber harvesting techniques compare in terms of method and sustainability?

Multiple Choice 49. What is the Multiple-Use Sustained-Yield Act? A. an act created in 1960 that mandated the management of national forests in a way that balances a variety of uses B. the key act that drove the establishment of the National Forest Service in 1905 C. the act that went against Gifford Pinchot’s concept of inexhaustible forest resources D. the act that was created to support sustainable business development so that economic benefits from forests could be ranked with more value than recreational benefits from forests E. the act that supported maximizing the yields of specific forestry products Answer: A Section: Timber harvesting: Sustainable options Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 50. Timber harvests are managed by several different techniques. Choose the technique that has the smallest overall effect on biodiversity.

A. clear-cutting B. strip harvesting C. select harvesting D. shelterwood harvesting E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: D Section: Timber harvesting: Sustainable options Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 51. Which statement is INCORRECT? A. Clear-cutting can be appropriate when it removes genetically inferior trees.

B. Shelterwood harvesting works by cutting the high-value trees and leaving the others to reseed the plot.

C. Strip harvesting maintains a small level of biodiversity after a cut is made.

D. Shelterwood harvesting may have the highest levels of biodiversity postharvest compared with the other methods of harvest.

Answer: B Section: Timber harvesting: Sustainable options Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 52. Harvesting as much as is sustainably possible but not more for the greatest economic benefit is called the ___________ yield.

A. minimum sustainable B. maximum sustainable C. normal sustainable D. unsustainable E. multiple-use sustained Answer: B Section: Timber harvesting: Sustainable options Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 53. The first director of the U.S. Forest Service was ___________.

A. Teddy Roosevelt B. Aldo Leopold C. Rachel Carson D. Wallace Stegner E. Gifford Pinchot Answer: E Section: Timber harvesting: Sustainable options Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 54. Which order of timber harvesting methods goes from least conservation of biodiversity to most conservation of biodiversity?

A. clear-cutting, selective harvesting, strip harvesting B. strip harvesting, shelterwood harvesting, clear-cutting C. selective harvesting, strip harvesting, shelterwood harvesting D. clear-cutting, strip harvesting, shelterwood harvesting E. All harvesting methods increase biodiversity equally.

Answer: D Section: Timber harvesting: Sustainable options Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Guiding Question 6 How can we protect and sustainably manage forest resources?

Multiple Choice

55. The Forest Stewardship Council certifies lumber and other timber processes through a method that ___________________.

A. punishes companies that do not follow sustainable harvesting techniques B. evaluates the forest itself and timber-harvesting techniques in terms of wildlife, water, and soil quality C. funds sustainable forestry operations in developing nations D. prices ecosystem services and incorporates them into taxes E. focuses on the jobs and economics behind the forestry industry Answer: B Section: Sustainable forest management Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 56. Many people in poor countries, like Haiti, will do whatever is necessary to help support their families. Forests in poor countries are often cut down to harvest for charcoal, use for farming, or harvest for lumber. What could we do to limit the destruction of forests in these countries?

A. encourage our government to provide them with financial support B. purchase items made in those countries C. help to sponsor their schools D. educate the citizens about forests E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: E Section: Sustainable forest management Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 57. __________________ is low-impact travel to natural areas that contributes to environmental protection and respects the local people.

A. Ecosystem service B. Ecotourism C. A green job D. Recreation E. Ecosystem tourism Answer: B Section: Sustainable forest management Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 58. You are put in charge of a timber harvest for a section of forest that runs along a river. Which of the following techniques will minimize the effects on the environment?

A. leaving a width of trees that run along the side of the river untouched B. cutting a limited number of selected trees C. leaving the best trees behind to reseed the forest D. allowing ample time for the forest to recover before harvesting again E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: E

Section: Sustainable forest management Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 59. Which act of Congress mandates that national forests be managed in a way that balances a variety of uses?

A. Clean Air Act B. Clean Water Act C. Multiple-Use Sustained-Yield Act D. Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability (Superfund) Act Answer: C Section: Sustainable forest management Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 60. Which of the following species can replenish the nutrients in soil?

A. mango trees B. oak trees C. mahogany trees D. moringa trees Answer: D Section: Sustainable forest management Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 61. Globally, what proportion of harvested forests is certified as “sustainable” by the Forest Stewardship Council?

A. 4% B. 16% C. 22% D. 38% E. 56% Answer: A Section: Sustainable forest management Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 62. The key to the regeneration of Haiti’s forests is _______________________.

A. finding alternative sources of energy B. finding alternative sources of food, building materials, and income C. changing the species used for charcoal production D. both finding alternative sources of energy and finding alternative sources of food, building materials, and income E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: E

Section: Sustainable forest management Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 63. Which of the following are current approaches to forest restoration?

A. recycling lumber from salvage B. using fast-growing plant species, such as flax for paper, instead of tree species C. Green Belt movements D. emphasizing alternative forest products, such as nuts and shade-grown coffee E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: E Section: Sustainable forest management Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 64. Many developing countries are removing their forests at an alarming rate. What can be done to slow the rate at which developing countries are harvesting their forests?

FEEDBACK: One of the causes of rapid deforestation in developing countries is the amount of poverty and lack of alternatives to timber for people to use. Providing alternatives to charcoal as a source of fuel and more jobs to lessen the demand on forest products to sell in the marketplace will reduce the rate of deforestation. Developing countries should also be encouraged to grow native food crops instead of cash crops; this will reduce the amount of space needed for agriculture and allow for more forests to be preserved.

Section: Sustainable forest management Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 65. The dependence on charcoal as an energy source in Haiti is referred to as a vicious cycle with regard to environmental degradation. Why? FEEDBACK: The people of Haiti depend on charcoal as one of their main energy sources. The unsustainable harvest of trees leads to soil erosion, which in turn leads to reduced crop production, reduced incomes, and higher flood frequencies. All of this reduces the productivity of forests and lowers charcoal production.

Section: Sustainable forest management Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 66. What is the difference between the mandate of maximum sustainable yield (MSY) and the Forest Service’s new approach, Forest Ecosystem Management (FEM)?

FEEDBACK: MSY focuses on managing tree species and harvesting them at a rate no greater than the trees can be regenerated. FEM takes a broader approach and includes not only the management of timber harvests but also other techniques for managing forests, such as controlled burns and restoration. This approach focuses on the management of not just the harvested species of trees but the entire forest ecosystem.

Section: Sustainable forest management

Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 67. Why might forest management be considered a “wicked problem”?

FEEDBACK: Forest management is considered a wicked problem because there is no clear solution that provides benefits for all parties involved. For example, in order to preserve high levels of biodiversity, you could argue that deforestation must end on all continents. While that strategy may be good for the environment, the people living in poverty that depend on those forests for fuel and income would suffer greatly. There are many considerations that must be made when thinking about possible solutions to forest management issues.

Section: Sustainable forest management Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

Matching Questions Please match each term in the left-hand column to the statement that it best exemplifies.

1. deforestation 2. boreal forests

3. temperate forests 4. tropical forests 5. canopy 6. emergent layer 7. understory 8. forest floor

9. storm water runoff 10. carbon sink 11. hectare (ha)

12. maximum sustainable yield (MSY) 13. Multiple-Use Sustained-Yield Act

a system that focuses on managing the forest as a whole rather than for maximizing yields of a specific product (*14) forests found in areas with four seasons and a moderate climate, which receive 30 to 60 inches of precipitation per year, and which may include conifers and/or hardwood deciduous trees (which lose their leaves in the winter) (*3) the lowest level of the forest, containing herbaceous plants, fungi, leaf litter, and soil (*8) the upper layer of a forest, formed where the crowns (tops) of the majority of the tallest trees meet (*5) essential ecological processes that make life on Earth possible (*17) a metric unit of measure for area; 1 ha = 2.5 acres (ac) (*11) the region where a tree that is taller than the canopy trees rises above the canopy layer (*6) timber-harvesting technique that clear-cuts a small section of a forest, allowing regrowth in that section before moving on to another (*18) the smaller trees, shrubs, and saplings that live in the shade of the forest canopy (*7) timber-harvesting technique that cuts all but the best trees, which reseed the plot and are then harvested (*21) coniferous forests found at high latitudes and altitudes, characterized by low temperatures and low annual precipitation (*2) U.S. legislation (1960) mandating that national forests be managed in a way that balances a variety of uses (*13) water that flows across the land surface under the force of gravity, usually after a rainfall (*9)

14. forest ecosystem management (FEM) 15. ecotourism

16. forest

17. ecosystem services 18. clear-cut 19. strip harvesting 20. selective harvesting 21. shelterwood harvesting

an area such as a forest, ocean sediment, or soil, where accumulated carbon does not readily re-enter the carbon cycle (*10) forests found in equatorial areas with warm temperatures year-round and high rainfall; some have distinct wet and dry seasons, but none have a winter season (*4) timber-harvesting technique that clear0cuts a small section of a forest, allowing regrowth in that section before moving on to another (*19) timber-harvesting technique that cuts only the highest value trees; the remaining trees reseed the plot (*20) net loss of trees in a forested area (*1) low-impact travel to natural areas that contributes to the protection of the environment and respects the local people (*15) harvesting as much as is sustainably possible (but no more) for the greatest economic benefit (*12) an ecosystem made up primarily of trees and other woody vegetation (*16)

Linked Questions Science Literacy Refer to Infographic 5 to answer the following four questions.

1. Which timber-harvesting technique would result in lower water quality of nearby streams?

A. clear-cutting B. strip harvesting C. selective harvesting D. shelterwood harvesting Answer: A Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 2. What is the order of harvesting techniques from highest biodiversity immediately after the harvest to lowest biodiversity immediately after the harvest?

A. clear-cut, selective, strip, shelterwood B. shelterwood, strip, selective, clear-cut C. clear-cut, strip, selective, shelterwood D. shelterwood, selective, strip, clear-cut E. selective, strip, shelterwood, clear-cut Answer: D Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 3. Which harvesting technique would result in more frequent profits and higher biodiversity than clear cut?

A. clear-cutting B. strip harvesting C. selective harvesting D. shelterwood harvesting Answer: B Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 4. Which statement is TRUE of selective harvest?

A. Fifty years after harvest, new growth is from the best trees.

B. There are high profits at the initial harvest, then no profits until the forest regrows.

C. The forest can be harvested again in less than 50 years.

D. The best trees are not harvested so that they can reseed the plot.

Answer: C Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Making Connections Use the following scenario to answer the next six questions.

You own a timber company, Green Woods. Your company harvests oak, hickory, and maple trees.

You run your company in a sustainable way, and do not take trees from the emergent layer, only the canopy layer. You tell your employees about ecosystem services of forests and why they are important. The forests you harvest in are also used for outdoor recreation and wildlife habitat.

The lumber you sell is certified sustainable through the Forest Stewardship Council.

1. If your company harvests oak, hickory, and maple trees, which forest type do you work in?

A. tropical B. boreal C. temperate Answer: C Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 2. Where would the forests you work in be located?

A. high latitudes B. mid latitudes C. low latitudes Answer: B Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

3. Why would you take trees only from the canopy layer?

A. Trees in the emergent layer are too high to harvest.

B. Harvesting some of the canopy trees will open the lower layers to more sunlight.

C. More animals live in the emergent layer.

D. The canopy trees are more valuable than trees in other layers.

Answer: B Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 4. While you are telling your employees about the ecosystem services of forests, someone asks how else forests have economic value besides goods like lumber. You tell them forests ___________.

A. help purify water and maintain storm water runoff levels B. provide a place for spiritual renewal, artistic inspiration, and stress reduction C. are a major sink for carbon dioxide and help regulate the climate D. provide ecotourism opportunities and jobs Answer: D Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 5. You receive a report that a forest fire has started in one of your harvesting areas. Your response is ___________.

A. put it out; it will burn up your profits B. monitor it and let it burn; it will reduce the flammable material in the understory Answer: B Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 6. As a sustainable forest manager, you use the harvesting method with the least environmental impact where the best trees are left behind to reseed the plot. This is ___________.

A. clear-cutting B. selective harvesting C. shelterwood harvesting D. strip harvesting Answer: C Section: Making Connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

MODULE 7.2 Guiding Question 1 What is a grassland and what influences which grassland type is found in a given area?

Multiple Choice 1. All of the following are examples of grasslands EXCEPT ____________________.

A. tundra B. steppes C. prairies D. savannas E. None of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: Grasslands of the world Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 2. The grassland that is found in cold climates is known as a ____________________.

A. pampa B. steppe C. tall-grass prairie D. savanna E. northern mixed grass prairie Answer: B Section: Grasslands of the world Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 3. What factors lead to the maintenance of grassland ecosystems in a given area?

A. the amount of precipitation B. the presence of grazing animals C. periodic wildfires D. the amount of precipitation, the presence of grazing animals, and periodic wildfires E. both the amount of precipitation and periodic wildfires Answer: D Section: Grasslands of the world Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 4. Prairies are found in which of the following biome classifications?

A. tropical B. boreal C. temperate D. polar E. None of these answers are correct.

Answer: C

Section: Grasslands of the world Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 5. Which type of grasslands are also known as savannas?

A. rangeland B. tropical C. cold D. temperate E. none of these answers Answer: B Section: Grasslands of the world Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 6. Which statement is correct?

A. Grasslands are biomes.

B. Grasslands receive enough rainfall to support grass and herbaceous plants.

C. Grasslands do not get enough rainfall to support forests.

D. Grasslands both are biomes and do not get enough rainfall to support forests.

E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: Grasslands of the world Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 7. Which statement is INCORRECT? A. The Great Plains are a type of temperate grassland.

B. The Great Plains lie between the Mississippi River and the Rocky Mountains.

C. The Great Plains are also known as a rangeland.

D. The Great Plains stretch from Texas to Canada.

E. None of these answers is incorrect.

Answer: C Section: Grasslands of the world Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 8. Which types of grasslands are characterized by ultra-thin layers of soil and very short growing seasons?

A. cold B. temperate C. savanna D. prairie E. rangeland Answer: A Section: Grasslands of the world

Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 9. Which of the following statements are correct?

A. Grasslands are not found in Antarctica.

B. Grasslands are found on every continent.

C. Grasslands vary based on climate.

D. Grasslands are not found in Antarctica and they vary based on climate.

E. Grasslands are found on every continent and they vary based on climate.

Answer: D Section: Grasslands of the world Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 10. The Flint Hills region of the Great Plains is dominated by tallgrass prairie. Large tracts of the prairie remain because the soil was too thin and rocky to be especially good for crop production.

In the past two decades, areas of tallgrass prairie have been protected in reserves because of the loss of this grassland system over time—in large part a result of domestic animal production and some crop agriculture. At the eastern border of the region, deciduous forests have been gradually moving west, replacing tallgrass prairie. What do you think is leading to this pattern of change?

FEEDBACK: In areas of sufficient rainfall to support forests, it is often the disturbance regime that prevents the replacement of grasslands by forests. In many areas of the Midwest, the human suppression of periodic, natural wildfires has allowed secondary succession to progress and has resulted in the replacement of tallgrass prairie with deciduous forests.

Section: Grasslands of the world Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

Guiding Question 2 Why are grasslands important?

Multiple Choice 11. Grasslands provide which of the following ecosystem services?

A. nutrient cycling B. soil formation C. carbon sequestration D. wildlife habitats E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: The ecosystem services of grasslands Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 12. Which of the following crops was NOT originally derived from grasslands?

A. wheat B. rye C. barley D. rice E. millet Answer: D Section: The ecosystem services of grasslands Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 13. What is the main use of grasslands today by humans?

A. for recreational use B. growing food for humans C. as a food source for large grazing animals D. for energy production E. for housing construction Answer: C Section: The ecosystem services of grasslands Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 14. One of the advantages of using land for grazing is __________________.

A. it takes less land per animal than feeding grain to livestock B. we are turning material we cannot eat into food that we can eat C. that plants are eaten faster than they can grow D. that the soil becomes compacted, making it harder for seeds to germinate E. All of these answers are advantages for using land for grazing.

Answer: B Section: The ecosystem services of grasslands Level: 1

Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 15. What are some of the important ecosystem services provided by grasslands?

FEEDBACK: Grasslands provide numerous important services, including pasture and farmland for grazing livestock, nutrient cycling, soil formation and protection, carbon sequestration, protection of surface waters, and habitat for wildlife. In addition, there is a lot of research being conducted on the use of grasslands as a source of energy through the development of grasslandbased biofuels.

Section: The ecosystem services of grasslands Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 16. You have been employed by a seed company to genetically modify a high-yielding wheat variety so it is resistant to the most common types of wheat diseases. Why and how could grasslands be important in your research?

FEEDBACK: Most cereal crops, including wheat, were originally derived thousands of years ago from grassland seedbeds. Grasslands would provide an important source of genetic material that you could use as you develop your disease-resistant wheat. You would need to collect wheat specimens from grasslands where wheat diseases are prevalent and then determine what specific genes are making the wheat native to that disease.

Section: The ecosystem services of grasslands Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating 17. “Grassland systems are a rich source of one of the ecosystem’s goods and services: genetic resources.” Explain why this statement is TRUE. FEEDBACK: While grasslands are a rich source of food for human livestock, they are also a storehouse of genetic resources. Most of the grains we depend upon for food, such as wheat and barley, are grassland species that we selected for various traits to use as a food source. Plant breeders rely on wild stock as a source of new genes for introduction into domesticated species.

One example is genes that confer resistance to novel plant pathogens. A newly developing use for grassland species is the possibility that we can use them as a source for biofuels, and there may be genes among wild stock that provide an advantage in fuel production.

Section: The ecosystem services of grasslands Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 18. What are some of the natural and human threats that grasslands currently face?

FEEDBACK: Grasslands are being threatened by global climate change, overgrazing, conversion of grasslands into farmlands and cities, plant loss, soil compaction, and soil erosion.

Section: The ecosystem services of grasslands Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Applying

19. Humans rely upon grasslands to graze domestic livestock. How would degradation of grasslands impact grazing, and what affect would this have on humans?

FEEDBACK: Globally, 3 billion domestic livestock, including cattle, goats, and sheep, are grazed on grasslands. These animals provide not only meat but numerous other products like milk and wool. Degradation of grasslands would result in the grasslands supporting less domestic livestock, which would reduce the amount of goods and services available for human use.

Additionally, grasslands provide grain to feed and support chickens and pigs. Less grain would reduce the number of chickens and pigs available for human use and consumption.

Section: The ecosystem services of grasslands Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question 3 What causes desertification of grasslands?

Multiple Choice 20. The most common cause of desertification of grasslands is_________________.

A. climate change B. plowing too often C. depletion of aquifers D. overgrazing E. leaving them fallow Answer: D Section: Desertification Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 21. Which of the following does NOT explain how grazing can be beneficial to a grassland?

A. Clipping off the top part allows the sunlight to get to the new shoots.

B. Hooves can break up soil, allowing water to penetrate.

C. Breaking up soil with hooves allows new seeds to germinate.

D. Defecation and urination from grazers adds phosphorus and nitrogen to the soil.

E. Chewing a grass down to its roots helps it rejuvenate.

Answer: E Section: Desertification Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 22. Which of the following processes contribute to the process of desertification?

A. overgrazing by livestock B. global warming C. soil erosion D. overgrazing by livestock, global warming, and soil erosion E. both overgrazing by livestock and global warming Answer: D Section: Desertification Level: 1

Bloom’s Level: Understanding 23. As desertification of grasslands continues, smaller amounts of food will be available to feed humanity. What might be some of the consequences of the desertification of grasslands?

A. increased starvation B. movement of people from one area to another C. social unrest D. physical conflict between people of different cultures E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: Desertification Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 24. What is the greatest threat facing grasslands today?

A. global climate change B. human land use decisions C. overgrazing D. urbanization E. pollution Answer: C Section: Desertification Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 25. Grassland that are MOST susceptible to desertification are found in ____________ areas.

A. humid B. arid C. cold D. boreal E. tropical Answer: B Section: Desertification Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 26. Which of the following is a consequence of overgrazing in grasslands?

A. compaction of soil B. reduction in water penetration C. reduction in seed germination D. reduced seedling growth E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: Desertification Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

27. Which area seems to be at threat for major desertification?

A. New Mexico and western Texas B. New Mexico C. Mexico and southern Texas D. Arizona E. the Great Plains Answer: A Section: Desertification Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 28. Refer to Infographic 3. Discuss three characteristics many of those areas at highest risk of desertification have in common.

FEEDBACK: Many of these areas are bordering desert or dry areas and so have limited rainfall at best (especially in Africa, Australia, and Asia). Many are on the leeward side of mountain ranges, again, having limited rainfall. Also, many appear to be in the same latitude bands so would have similar temperature ranges. Those areas in the United States at highest risk of desertification are all in the western part of the country.

Section: Desertification

Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 29. Refer to Infographic 3. Discuss some scenarios that could lead the healthy grass in the first picture to begin to look like the overgrazed grass in the second picture.

FEEDBACK: As the market for meat increased, the rancher may have purchased too many cattle for the acres of grass owned. Perhaps there was a lengthy drought and grass failed to grow as much that season, but the rancher chose to pasture the usual number of animals. Another possibility is the rancher chose to pasture a less efficient animal such as horses instead of more efficient grazers/browsers like sheep. Another scenario may be that the rancher neglected to move the animals to a different pasture soon enough for the grass to regenerate. It may also be a possibility that as grasslands became marginally productive, more ranchers moved their cattle onto federal lands, thus overgrazing more area, or as the economy worsened, ranchers chose to pasture their animals on marginal land rather than slaughter them before they were ready for market.

Section: Desertification Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating

Guiding Question 4 What is involved in the formation of soil and how does land use affect it?

Multiple Choice 30. Soil erosion is often caused by _________________.

A. overgrazing by livestock B. soil compacting by large amounts of grazing herbivores C. grasses being grazed down to the growth area D. consumer demand for meat E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: The importance of soil Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 31. Soil erosion in grasslands is a direct result of _____________.

A. urbanization and soil compaction B. soil compaction and energy production C. plant loss and urbanization D. plant loss and soil compaction E. plant loss and energy production Answer: D Section: The importance of soil Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 32. Which of the following layers of soil gets depleted during soil erosion?

A. A horizon B. B horizon C. C horizon D. R horizon Answer: A Section: The importance of soil Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 33. Decomposers and detritivores break down organic material to help form topsoil. Which layer of soil contains the decomposers and detritivores that aid this process?

A. A horizon B. B horizon C. C horizon D. R horizon E. O horizon Answer: A Section: The importance of soil Level: 1

Bloom’s Level: Remembering 34. This layer contains rocks that are in the process of being broken down in order to produce new soil. Which horizon is this?

A. O horizon B. A horizon C. C horizon D. R horizon E. S horizon Answer: C Section: The importance of soil Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 35. Under ideal conditions, it takes about _____________ to make 1 millimeter of soil.

A. 5 years B. 10 years C. 5 months D. 1 year E. 20 days Answer: D Section: The importance of soil Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 36. Which soil layer contains the most decaying material and living organisms?

A. B horizon B. A horizon C. R horizon D. C horizon E. D horizon Answer: B Section: The importance of soil Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 37. How does a prairie grass access water during a drought?

A. It has many shallow roots covering a large area to reach nearby rivers or streams.

B. It has long deep roots allowing it to reach water supplies.

C. It has long deep roots to hold the soil in place, thus producing a more porous soil.

D. It stays shorter in a drought and thus does not lose as much water through transpiration.

E. Grasses are not adapted to drought, so they usually die.

Answer: B Section: The importance of soil Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

38. Which two processes are essential to soil formation?

A. soil erosion and overgrazing B. decay of organic material and soil erosion C. decay of organic material and weathering of parent material D. weathering of parent material and overgrazing E. desertification and weathering of parent material Answer: C Section: The importance of soil Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 39. The R horizon ___________________.

A. is solid, unbroken rock B. contains decaying and organic material C. is less fertile but higher in mineral content D. contains mostly surface litter E. is the rock that is in the process of being weathered or broken up Answer: A Section: The importance of soil Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 40. The long root systems of native prairie grasses allow them to access greater supplies of water and generally pass through which three soil horizons?

A. R, C, and B B. O, A, and C C. O, A, and B D. A, B, and C Answer: C Section: The importance of soil Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Applying Essay 41. How does overgrazing lead to soil erosion?

FEEDBACK: Chewing a grass plant down to its roots, as can occur when grasses are overgrazed, destroys the growth area at the base of the grass blade. This causes the plant to eventually die.

When the grass roots are no longer there to hold the soil in place, the area is susceptible to wind and rain, thus leading to erosion of the exposed soil.

Section: The importance of soil Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

42. One modern farming technique is to give livestock antibiotics to prevent infection and promote growth. These antibiotics are excreted in the fecal matter of the animals and are still active. What is the consequence of this practice on soil?

FEEDBACK: Since the antibiotics are still active in the livestock feces, they can now have an effect on the bacterial species in the O and A horizons, killing bacteria or preventing their growth. If the bacteria in this layer cannot do their job, that is, releasing nutrients from organic matter into the soil, the quality of the soil will go down and it will not be able to support plant growth.

Section: The importance of soil Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question 5 How does the impact of grazing differ between wild and domestic grazers?

Multiple Choice 43. What did Allan Savory notice about the lands grazed by wild animals at the Africa Centre for Holistic Management?

A. The plants were more abundant.

B. The rivers were cleaner.

C. There was more plant diversity.

D. The rivers were better stocked.

E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: Lessons from nature: Wild versus domestic grazing Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 44. What provides a livelihood for many people living in Zimbabwe?

A. ranching B. fishing C. farming D. raising wildlife E. hunting Answer: A Section: Lessons from nature: Wild versus domestic grazing Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 45. Why did the British government cull thousands of wild herds in Zimbabwe in the 1950s?

A. They were annoying the villagers.

B. More land needed to be created for ranching.

C. They were needed as a source of meat in the markets.

D. They were eating too much grass.

E. They were damaging the land.

Answer: B

Section: Lessons from nature: Wild versus domestic grazing Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 46. How do the grazing patterns of wild herbivores make the lands healthier than those grazed by cattle?

FEEDBACK: Wild herbivores graze in tightly bunched packs to protect themselves from predators and move quickly from one area to another. This means they stay in one area long enough to fertilize it with their waste and agitate the soil, then move on so the land has a chance to recover before it is grazed again.

Section: Lessons from nature: Wild versus domestic grazing Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Guiding Question 6 How does undergrazing damage grasslands?

Multiple Choice 47. What happens when lands are undergrazed?

A. Grasses grow wild and take over the area.

B. There is plenty of grass for all the cattle to eat, and they grow healthier over time.

C. Weeds grow wild, and there is less cattle feed over time.

D. There is no effect to the land if it is undergrazed.

E. Desertification occurs in the area.

Answer: B Section: Grazing: The causes and consequences of undergrazing Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 48. What is undergrazing?

A. grazing animals in a way that mimics wild grazers B. when animals grazing on lands do not have enough grass to eat C. the process that transforms fertile grasslands into deserts D. grazing too many animals on a grassland and eating the plants faster than they can grow E. grazing too few animals on a grassland to maintain it ecologically Answer: E Section: Grazing: The causes and consequences of undergrazing Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 49. How does undergrazing reduce the biodiversity of grasslands?

FEEDBACK: Since overgrazing pastures leads to desertification and other problems for grasslands, you may think that undergrazing would be the ideal solution for these biomes. This is not the case, however. Undergrazing leads to overgrowth of weeds, since grazing animals, now

without pressure or competition from other animals, can eat the “tastiest” grasses and leave the unpalatable species be. This gives a competitive edge to the unpalatable weeds, and they quickly overtake the other species of grasses in these ecosystems, and thus biodiversity decreases.

Section: Grazing: The causes and consequences of undergrazing Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question 7 What is planned grazing and how can it help prevent under- and overgrazing?

Multiple Choice 50. The animal farming technique known as __________________ allows animals to graze on one small section of a pasture for a few days before being moved to another section for grazing.

A. rotational grazing B. terracing C. planned grazing D. numerical limits grazing Answer: A Section: Sustainable grazing Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 51. Designing a process, such as grazing, so that it occurs in a way that is similar to how it happens in nature is known as ______________.

A. conservation B. biomimicry C. environmentalism D. ecology Answer: B Section: Sustainable grazing Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 52. What were some of the problems with the concept of rotational grazing?

A. It did not help to stop desertification.

B. Savory felt it focused too heavily on limiting the number of animals allowed to graze.

C. Savory felt it focused too heavily on the amount of time the animals were allowed to graze.

D. It did not help to stop desertification, and felt it focused too heavily on limiting the number of animals allowed to graze.

E. None of these answers are correct.

Answer: D Section: Sustainable grazing Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 53. What is rotational grazing an example of?

A. sustainable grazing B. shelterbelts C. a conservation reserve program D. a conservation easement Answer: A Section: Sustainable grazing Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 54. What is an outcome of holistic planned grazing?

A. Keeping animals bunched for a set period of time ensures that all plants are grazed evenly, even weeds.

B. It maximizes productivity.

C. It helps keep plant biomass levels in an ideal range, which maximizes productivity.

D. It makes ranching profitable again.

E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: Sustainable grazing Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 55. Explain why planned grazing is considered to be an approach based on biomimicry.

FEEDBACK: Large native herbivores tend to occur in large herds and migrate across the grassland systems as they feed. Large numbers in the herd tend to increase intraspecies competition and reduce the selectivity of grazing animals among grassland species, and the movement out of an area that has been grazed down allows the grassland to recover. Savory’s planned grazing approach focused these aspects in larger numbers than traditional rotational grazing (to spur competition) and in movement to a new pasture, before the degradation of the currently utilized pasture, thus mimicking the natural pattern of grazing.

Section: Sustainable grazing Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 56. What are the challenges of a planned grazing approach to grassland management?

FEEDBACK: A key challenge is determining how to divide up your grazing land (more small pastures means more frequent movements) and therefore the timing of herd movement to the next pasture. If the time interval is too long, the herd will suffer from insufficient food intake, and if too short, the grasses will not be stimulated to maximum productivity.

Section: Sustainable grazing

Guiding Question 8 How can we manage grasslands to reduce the threats they face while still using them productively?

Multiple Choice 57. Livestock ranchers often reach legal agreements with governments that permit them to use an area of land in a defined manner. These agreements are known as _____________________.

A. reserves B. shelter belts C. rotational grazing permits D. conservation easements Answer: D Section: Protecting grasslands Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 58. The grassland protection mechanism that helps to reduce soil erosion, reduce water pollution, and increase wildlife habitat is known as ______________________.

A. conservation easement B. a conservation reserve program C. park status D. a shelterbelt Answer: B Section: Protecting grasslands Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 59. Which of the following is a way to protect our grasslands?

A. conservation reserve programs B. park status C. sustainable grazing D. both conservation reserve programs and sustainable grazing E. conservation reserve programs, park status, and sustainable grazing Answer: E Section: Protecting grasslands Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 60. What are advantages of shelterbelts?

A. They increase wildlife habitat.

B. They protect the crops and grasses from wind damage.

C. They reduce soil erosion and water pollution.

D. They allow recreational use while protecting habitats.

E. They reduce taxes to the landowner if their land stays protected.

Answer: B Section: Protecting grasslands Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 61. What is the purpose of the Conservation Reserve Program, and what are some of the controversies surrounding it?

FEEDBACK: The purpose is to set aside overgrazed rangeland by paying ranchers not to use it.

This is intended to allow the grass to recover. However, critics say that leaves farmers dependent on government checks, without stimulating the local economy. Also, in the short term, it decreases the production of food for the world.

Section: Protecting grasslands Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Applying 62. Human activity has caused the degradation of grasslands. How has grassland degradation in turn affected humans?

FEEDBACK: Grassland degradation has resulted in a global reduction in grain production by 12%, threatening the food supply of more than 1 billion people. The loss in grain production has also led to a loss of $23 billion annually in the global GDP. The Food and Agricultural Organization predicts that grassland degradation will result in the displacement of 50 million people over the coming decades because of the loss of jobs and income.

Section: Protecting grasslands Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

Matching Questions Match each term in the left-hand column to the statement that it best exemplifies.

1. rangeland 2. desertification

3. conservation reserve program 4. grassland 5. herbivore 6. soil erosion 7. undergrazing 8. rotational grazing 9. sustainable grazing 10. overgrazing 11. holistic planned grazing 12. adaptive management 13. shelterbelts

the removal of soil by wind and water that exceeds the soil’s natural replacement (*6) grazing livestock in a way that mimics wild grazers by grazing intensively on a small section of pasture before moving to another (*11) moving animals from one pasture to the next in a predetermined sequence to prevent overgrazing (*8) a stand of trees that blocks the wind and decreases soil erosion (*13) grassland used for grazing of livestock (*1) grazing too few animals on a grassland to maintain its ecological integrity (*7) the process that transforms once-fertile land into desert (*2) a plan that allows room for altering strategies as new information becomes available or as the situation changes (*12) an animal that feeds on plants (*5) a biome that is predominately grasses due to low rainfall, grazing animals, and/or fire (*4) programs in which farmers and ranchers are paid to keep damaged land out of production to promote recovery (*3) practices that allow animals to graze in a way that keeps pastures healthy and allows grasses to recover (*9) too many herbivores feeding in an area, eating plants faster than they can regrow (*10)

Linked Questions Science Literacy Use the following graphic to answer the next four questions.

1. Which horizon would be the most vulnerable to desertification?

A. O B. B C. C D. R Answer: A Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 2. Desertification can produce drier B and C horizons. What is the most likely hypothesis for this?

A. The thick grass roots in the upper horizons take up the water before it can reach the lower horizons.

B. The grazing animals leave waste on the surface which prevents water from filtering into the lower horizons.

C. Hot fires cause the moisture to evaporate out of the soil horizons.

D. When the upper horizons are lost the lower horizons are exposed to more incoming sunlight, drying out the lower horizons.

Answer: D Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 3. Which horizon is most fertile for plant growth?

A. the O horizon, where the surface litter occurs and water enters the soil B. the A horizon, where organic matter decays and organisms live

C. the B horizon, where mineral content is higher D. the C horizon, where soil is produces from rock weathering Answer: B Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 4. Which two layers are involved in the formation of soil?

A. A and O B. B and C C. C and O D. A and C Answer: C Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Making Connections Use the following graphic to answer the next four questions.

1. You are working on a ranch and explaining to Jill, the head rancher, that she should use holistic planned grazing. What is the best explanation you can give to convince her?

A. Although it is the hardest to manage, it will give the best quality of pasture compared to other grazing methods.

B. Since it is the easiest to manage, she will have to do less work to get a betterquality pasture.

C. It will give a mid-quality pasture but be the easiest methods of managing the fields.

Answer: A Section: Making connections

Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 2. Which of the grazing methods would contribute the most to desertification?

A. continuous B. rotational C. holistic planned Answer: A Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 3. Jill, the head rancher, tells you to move most of the cattle off a certain pasture. She says by grazing fewer cattle, the grass will grow thicker and recover more quickly. When she asks what you think, you tell her that __________________.

A. the cattle will eat the weeds and leave more room for the grasses, so she should put even more cattle in the pasture B. the soil erosion will speed up without as many cattle to churn up the topsoil C. it will increase competition between weeds and grasses, since the cattle will eat only the sweet grass and leave the weeds, then the weeds will take over D. she should get rid of the cattle and raise chickens, which eat grain and will allow the grass to grow back Answer: C Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 4. Jill wants to do something to help prevent soil erosion on the ranch. You recommend a(n) __________________.

A. adaptive management program B. conservation easement C. conservation reserve program D. shelterbelt Answer: D Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

MODULE 7.3 Multiple Choice 1. Which characteristics of indium make it such a desirable ingredient in touchscreens and liquid crystal displays?

A. hard and flexible B. high melting and boiling points C. soft and malleable D. renewable and plentiful Answer: C Section: Introduction Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 2. Which of the following correctly characterizes indium?

A. It is considered a renewable resource.

B. Its radioactivity provides a constant supply of electric power.

C. It is environmentally hazardous to mine.

D. It has been replaced in most electronic devices by carbon nanotubes.

E. It is common in nature.

Answer: C Section: Introduction Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 3. Which of the following was developed by Mark Hersam at Northwestern University in Chicago?

A. a technique using cyanide instead of mercury to process gold ores B. thinner aluminum cans that require less raw material C. carbon nanotubes to replace indium D. fiber-optic cables to replace copper wiring E. e-waste recycling Answer: C Section: Introduction Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Guiding Question 1 What are mineral resources and how do we use them in modern society?

Multiple Choice 4. Which of the following is a nonmetallic mineral?

A. quartz B. gold C. zinc D. lead

E. none of these answer Answer: A Section: Mineral resources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 5. Which of the following is best described as a naturally occurring chemical compound that exists as a solid with a predictable, three-dimensional, repeating structure?

A. metal B. rock C. element D. mineral E. ore Answer: D Section: Mineral resources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 6. Metals are a critical part of nearly all electronic devices, largely because they are easy to shape and form and because of their ability to __________________.

A. emit radioactivity B. reflect light C. act as insulators D. conduct electricity E. None of these answers is correct.

Answer: D Section: Mineral resources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 7. Gold and silver are commonly found in which of the following products?

A. electronics B. paints C. jewelry D. electronics, paints, and jewelry E. both electronics and jewelry Answer: E Section: Mineral resources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 8. A(n) ______ is a rock deposit that contains economically valuable amounts of a particular mineral, often a metal.

A. ore B. formation C. element

D. smelt E. stone Answer: A Section: Mineral resources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 9. Which of the following contains mineral resources?

A. electronics B. construction materials C. vehicles D. paints E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: E Section: Mineral resources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 10. The most abundant minerals on Earth include: A. feldspar B. europium C. neodymium D. copper E. zinc Answer: A Section: Mineral resources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 11. Refer to Infographic 1. List five commonly used products that contain mineral resources.

FEEDBACK: From Infographic 1, examples include electronics, vehicles, construction materials, glass, wiring and pipes, paints, appliances, and tools.

Section: Mineral resources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 12. What characterizes a metal? List some examples of everyday products that contain metals.

FEEDBACK: Metals are malleable substances that can conduct electricity. Because of these characteristics, metals are an essential component of virtually all electronic devices.

In addition, metals are found in many other everyday items, including cookware, coins, appliances, tools, jewelry, wires, plumbing, and vehicles.

Section: Mineral resources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering/Understanding Guiding Question 2 How do geologic plate tectonic forces affect the planet surface and produce minerals?

Multiple Choice 13. Tectonic plates are part of which layer of Earth?

A. asthenosphere B. lithosphere C. inner core D. lower mantle E. outer core

Answer: B Section: Geology: Earth’s layers and plate tectonics Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 14. __________ is the study of Earth’s structure and the processes that shape it.

A. Biology B. Chemistry C. Physics D. Engineering E. Geology Answer: E Section: Geology: Earth’s layers and plate tectonics Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 15. When an oceanic plate meets a continental plate head-on, which of the following occurs?

A. The plates move apart from one another.

B. The plate edges buckle under the pressure.

C. Mountains form as the two plates collide.

D. A spreading ridge appears.

E. The denser oceanic plate slides beneath the continental plate.

Answer: E Section: Geology: Earth’s layers and plate tectonics Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 16. Which of the following correctly lists the layers of Earth, starting with the core?

A. lithosphere, mantle, asthenosphere B. asthenosphere, mantle, lithosphere C. mantle, lithosphere, asthenosphere D. mantle, asthenosphere, lithosphere E. lithosphere, asthenosphere, mantle Answer: D Section: Geology: Earth’s layers and plate tectonics Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 17. What happens at a divergent plate boundary?

A. The tectonic plates move toward each other.

B. The tectonic plates slide side to side relative to each other.

C. One tectonic plate moves below another.

D. The tectonic plates move away from each other.

E. A trench is formed.

Answer: D

Section: Geology: Earth’s layers and plate tectonics Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 18. Where would you find a fault (a fracture in a tectonic plate)?

A. the asthenosphere B. a convergent plate boundary C. a transform plate boundary D. the mantle E. a divergent plate boundary Answer: C Section: Geology: Earth’s layers and plate tectonics Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 19. Refer to Infographic 2. Describe how minerals are created.

FEEDBACK: Heat from the innermost parts of Earth power the movement of tectonic plates along Earth’s crust. At plate boundaries, magma pushes up and cools. The extraordinary heat and pressure allow for the formation of new minerals from combining atoms. Rocks of the crust contain mineral deposits.

Section: Geology: Earth’s layers and plate tectonics Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 20. Explain why minerals are not distributed evenly throughout the planet’s lithosphere.

FEEDBACK: Compounds form when atoms of naturally occurring elements combine under conditions of extraordinary heat and pressure. The relative abundance and assortment of different elements varies by location; thus the types of different compounds resulting from the interaction of those different types of elements also varies. Therefore, different minerals are plentiful or rare in different parts of Earth.

Section: Geology: Earth’s layers and plate tectonics Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question 3 How are rocks formed via the rock cycle?

Multiple Choice 21. Which type of rock forms where magma emerges and cools at a plate boundary?

A. igneous B. metamorphic C. sedimentary D. igneous, metamorphic, and sedimentary E. both igneous and metamorphic Answer: A Section: The rock cycle Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 22. Which of the following leads to the formation of sedimentary rock?

A. high heat and pressure B. crystallization C. melting D. weathering E. cooling Answer: D Section: The rock cycle Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 23. Rock is constantly made and destroyed in the process known as the __________.

A. tectonic cycle B. mineral cycle C. rock cycle D. geological cycle E. ore cycle Answer: C Section: The rock cycle Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 24. Which of the following is correct regarding the rock cycle?

A. Weathering leads to metamorphic rocks.

B. Cooling and crystallization lead to metamorphic rocks.

C. High heat and pressure lead to metamorphic rocks.

D. Sedimentary rocks result from high heat and pressure.

E. Igneous rocks result from melting and weathering.

Answer: C Section: The rock cycle Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 25. The breakdown of rock by physical or chemical forces is called __________.

A. weathering B. erosion

C. metamorphosis D. convergence E. divergence Answer: A Section: The rock cycle Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 26. Weathering and erosion in combination form which of the following?

A. igneous rock B. metamorphic rock C. soil D. sediment E. mineral ores Answer: C Section: The rock cycle Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 27. Infographic 3 illustrates how rocks constantly form and are transformed in the rock cycle. Since minerals are the building blocks of rocks, why are minerals considered nonrenewable resources?

FEEDBACK: Geological forces constantly but slowly rearrange rocks in Earth’s crust.

The existing deposits are being used up faster than new ones are being created. Use of mineral resources has accelerated with exponential growth of the human population, as well as increased consumption of everyday products containing minerals.

Section: The rock cycle Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Guiding Question 4 How are mineral resources mined?

Multiple Choice 28. Which of the following is a rare earth mineral that allowed for color television in the 1960s?

A. indium B. tantalum C. neodymium D. palladium E. europium Answer: E Section: Mining of mineral resources Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 29. Neodymium is a key ingredient in wind turbines and hybrid car batteries because of its __________.

A. tendency to occur in concentrated deposits B. extreme magnetic ability C. ability to produce electric currents with very little material D. tendency to occur in concentrated deposits, its extreme magnetic ability, and its ability to produce electric currents with very little material E. extreme magnetic ability and its ability to produce electric currents with very little material Answer: E Section: Mining of mineral resources Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 30. Which mining technique is commonly used in developing countries when sediments contain heavy metals like gold?

A. placer mining B. subsurface mining C. strip mining D. open-pit mining E. mountaintop removal

Answer: A Section: Mining of mineral resources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 31. Subsurface mining is used for which of the following?

A. the top of a fairly deep ore deposit found close to the surface B. a deposit deep underground or in a mountainous area C. sediment containing heavy metals D. a deposit seam close to the surface and fairly horizontal E. both the top of a fairly deep ore deposit found close to the surface and a deposit seam close to the surface and fairly horizontal Answer: B Section: Mining of mineral resources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 32. Which mining technique is best used when the top of a fairly deep ore deposit is found close to the surface?

A. placer mining B. subsurface mining C. strip mining D. open-pit mining E. mountaintop removal Answer: D Section: Mining of mineral resources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 33. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding rare earth elements (REEs)?

A. They are tightly bound to one another.

B. They are scattered diffusely through the ores that contain them.

C. They are always rare.

D. They tend to be attached to lots of radioactive substrate.

E. They do not occur in concentrated deposits.

Answer: C Section: Mining of mineral resources Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 34. More than half of all of the minerals used in the twentieth century were used between __________.

A. 1995 and 2000 B. 1900 and 1945 C. 1945 and 1975 D. 1985 and 1995

E. 1975 and 2000 Answer: E Section: Mining of mineral resources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 35. Describe how geologists help determine the location of mineral deposits.

FEEDBACK: Geologists help determine the location of deposits by exploring various rock formations. This requires remote sensing, exploratory digging or drilling, and chemical testing to evaluate samples.

Section: Mining of mineral resources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 36. Name four mining techniques discussed in the module. Describe the nature of a mineral deposit appropriate for each technique.

FEEDBACK: Refer to Infographic 4. Four mining techniques are (1) strip mining, used when mineral deposits are close to the Earth’s surface in fairly horizontal seams; (2) open-pit mining, used when the top of a fairly deep ore deposit is found close to the surface; (3) placer mining, used to remove heavy metals like gold from sediment; and (4) subsurface mining, used when deposits are deep underground or in mountainous areas.

Section: Mining of mineral resources Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Guiding Question 5 How are mineral resources processed?

Multiple Choice 37. Which of the following best describes the process known as smelting?

A. chemical testing to evaluate rock samples

B. the extraction of natural resources from the ground C. the separation of metal from ore D. the grinding of rock into a fine powder E. smaller-scale mining Answer: C Section: Processing of mineral resources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 38. What are mill tailings?

A. finely ground rock left over from processing mineral ores B. water that flows past exposed rock in mines, leaching out sulfates which react with water and oxygen to form acids C. a method to process ore using less water than usual D. a pond to store lightweight waste E. pipes to take waste from one area to another Answer: A Section: Processing of mineral resources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 39. List the main steps generally involved in the extraction of rare earth minerals from ore.

FEEDBACK: After ore is dug out, the rock is crushed and ground to a fine powder.

Flotation is used to separate heavier materials. Minerals are released via smelting, a process that uses high temperatures and chemicals. The product is then purified through multiple steps that include chemical and physical separation techniques.

Section: Processing of mineral resources Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 40. In addition to the waste produced by each of the steps outlined in Infographic 5 for processing rare earth minerals, what other environmental problems are often caused by large industrial mines?

FEEDBACK: Large industrial mines often require significant areas of land to be stripped clear of vegetation. In addition, many roads must be built for access and transport. The habitat damage from road building and deforestation leads to water pollution and loss of soil. Loss of vegetation also leads to a larger carbon footprint, as less carbon dioxide is taken in by plants. Also, ecosystems can be damaged as water collects contaminants as it travels through mines or waste rock. Further, air pollution can arise from blasting, digging, crushing, and grinding.

Section: Processing of mineral resources Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Guiding Question 6 What are the environmental impacts of mineral mining and processing?

Multiple Choice 41. Which of the following describes an “artisanal” mine?

A. is highly mechanized B. uses crude tools and simpler strategies C. is larger scale D. avoids harmful chemicals E. is extraction-free Answer: B

Section: Environmental impacts of acquiring mineral resources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 42. Use of mercury to extract metals like gold and silver is a problem because mercury __________.

A. can pollute areas around and downstream of mines B. acidifies water in drainage areas C. produces long-lasting radioactive waste D. itself is nonrenewable E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: A Section: Environmental impacts of acquiring mineral resources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 43. Which step(s) in rare earth mining generate(s) waste?

A. digging out ore B. purification using chemical and physical separation techniques C. smelting D. crushing and grinding rock to a fine powder E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: E Section: Environmental impacts of acquiring mineral resources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 44. Which of the following is a characteristic of surface mining?

A. It causes considerable habitat damage over the surface area mined.

B. There is a risk of chronic respiratory disease such as black lung.

C. Acid mine drainage as water is pumped out of underground mines.

D. Topsoil is left mostly intact.

E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: A Section: Environmental impacts of acquiring mineral resources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 45. Describe the environmental disaster that occurred at Mountain Pass between 1984 and 1994.

FEEDBACK: Significant leaks occurred in pipes running from the mining pits to waste ponds. An estimated 600,000 gallons of radioactive, acidic, and otherwise toxic waste polluted nearby lakes and the desert floor.

Section: Environmental impacts of acquiring mineral resources Level: 1

Bloom’s Level: Remembering 46. A mining operation extracts copper ore from the ground. Without access to modern smelters, they dig pits and use them as open-air smelters. They harvest nearby trees for fuel in order to produce the high temperatures required for separating the copper metal from other components of the ore, such as sulfur. Describe some environmental consequences of such an operation.

FEEDBACK: The release of sulfur into the air leads to formation of sulfur dioxide, which forms sulfuric acid in the presence of water vapor. The resulting acid precipitation changes the pH (acidity) of the surrounding soil and water, negatively affecting the vegetation. In addition, deforestation further removes vegetation that serves to protect soil from erosion and to provide habitat for animal species in the area. As acidic soil and water runoff into streams and creeks, the organisms in the water habitat are harmed as well.

Section: Environmental impacts of acquiring mineral resources Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Guiding Question 7 What are the social impacts of mineral mining and processing?

Multiple Choice 47. “Blood diamonds” refer to which of the following?

A. children forced to work in mines B. sulfur-containing rocks that acidify water C. diamonds extracted with the use of mercury D. diamonds taken from warlord-controlled areas E. microscopic dust particles emitted by smelters Answer: D Section: Social impacts of acquiring mineral resources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 48. Which of the following is viewed as a human-rights violation associated with mining?

A. displacement of farmers and entire communities B. violence to discourage protest among local residents C. child labor in mines D. displacement of farmers and entire communities, violence to discourage protest among local residents, and child labor in mines E. violence to discourage protest among local residents and child labor in mines Answer: D Section: Social impacts of acquiring mineral resources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 49. The true cost of minerals takes into account __________.

A. human health and human rights B. fuel, machinery, and labor C. environmental impacts D. human health and human rights, fuel, machinery, and labor, and environmental impacts E. fuel, machinery, and labor and environmental impacts Answer: D Section: Social impacts of acquiring mineral resources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 50. From Infographic 4, list and explain which mining technique would be considered most dangerous to a miner.

FEEDBACK: Subsurface mining poses the most danger to a miner. Dangers include mine collapse, explosions, and exposure to dusts and toxic gases as a result of poor ventilation.

Section: Social impacts of acquiring mineral resources Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 51. Despite the development of safer techniques to process ores containing gold and silver, many areas of Africa, South America, and Asia still use toxic chemicals in their smelting process. Describe why this situation exists in those countries.

FEEDBACK: In developing countries, the resources required to process gold and silver safely are not typically available. Instead, toxic chemicals such as mercury and cyanide

are relatively inexpensive, and the exploitation of poorer workers allows for harvesting of valuable gold and silver ores, despite the direct health risks to the workers as well as damage to the soil and water.

Section: Social impacts of acquiring mineral resources Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

Guiding Question 8 What role does recycling play in reducing the impact of using mineral resources?

Multiple Choice 52. __________ refers to unwanted electronic devices such as televisions, computers, and cell phones, which contain recoverable metals but also toxic chemicals.

A. Electric pollution B. Manufactured waste C. E-waste D. Nanotube waste Answer: C Section: Recycling mineral resources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 53. What is the most recycled metal on Earth?

A. gold B. aluminum C. copper D. silver E. neodymium Answer: B Section: Recycling mineral resources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 54. Which of the following statements best describes what is depicted in Infographic 8?

A. More aluminum cans are produced today from a pound of aluminum than in the past because today’s cans are thinner.

B. The cost of manufacturing products using recycled aluminum is nearly twice what it costs using aluminum from dug-out bauxite ore.

C. Although aluminum can be recycled, it is not as pure as aluminum obtained directly from ore.

D. Recycling aluminum for reuse reduces the need to obtain it from mined ores and thus decreases impacts associated with mining and processing the ore.

E. Recycling of aluminum requires more energy and transportation than production from raw material.

Answer: D Section: Recycling mineral resources Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Guiding Question 9 In general, what can industry and consumers do to address mineral resource issues?

Multiple Choice

55. Replacement of copper wiring with fiber-optic cables is an example of __________.

A. redesign B. recycling C. reusing D. refusing E. reducing Answer: A Section: Reducing impact: Industry and consumer options Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Applying 56. _________________ refer(s) to methods in mining and processing understood to be the most efficient and safest available at the current time.

A. Standard operating procedures B. Best practices C. Environmental redesigns D. Conservation plans E. Eco-mining Answer: B Section: Reducing impact: Industry and consumer options Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

57. Which of the following will help make mineral resource usage become more sustainable?

A. recycling valuable metals B. finding substitutes for scarce mineral resources C. increasing government subsidies and tax breaks for mining companies D. recycling valuable metals, finding substitutes for scarce mineral resources, and increasing government subsidies and tax breaks for mining companies E. both recycling valuable metals and finding substitutes for scarce mineral resources Answer: E Section: Reducing impact: Industry and consumer options Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 58. Describe how Mark Hersam’s work at Northwestern University helps address both resource scarcity and environmental pollution.

FEEDBACK: Mark Hersam developed an alternative to using indium as an ingredient in touchscreens, liquid crystal displays, and solar cells. While growing in demand, indium is rare in nature and is environmentally hazardous to mine. The alternative he created consists of carbon nanotubes made of carbon, latex, and polystyrene. These parts are

inexpensive, safe, and readily available, and they conduct electricity as well as indium does.

Section: Recycling mineral resources Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating 59. On a recent trip to the mall, a friend announces her need for the latest cell phone being released that day. This comes as a surprise to you, since her phone is less than a year old and is in working order. As a student of environmental science, describe how you could counsel this friend regarding the impact of acquiring and processing mineral resources.

FEEDBACK: Cell phones contain valuable metals such as gold, silver, copper, palladium, platinum, and neodymium. Obtaining these components from mined ores involves substantial environmental and health impacts. As a consumer, our use of mineral resources is reduced by, for example, waiting for the cell phone to naturally expire before obtaining a replacement. Further, the old phone should be traded in or recycled for use in other devices while keeping precious mineral resources out of landfills.

Section: Recycling mineral resources Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 60. Why is global demand for all types of minerals rising, and why is it critical to develop alternatives to minerals that are currently used in so many everyday products?

FEEDBACK: Demand is increasing globally as the human population continues to grow exponentially, standards of living increase, and revolutionary advances in technology continue to create products that use minerals. By substituting more abundant and less impactful resource alternatives, such as fiber-optic cable instead of copper wiring, the negative environmental and societal impacts due to mineral mining and processing will lessen.

Section: Recycling mineral resources Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 61. What are some problems with the current system in place for recycling e-waste? How could the system be improved?

FEEDBACK: Many cell phones, computers, and flat-screen televisions are either stored at home or sent to landfills instead of entering a recycling stream. An additional problem is that much e-waste is exported to developing countries for deconstruction, where lack of proper equipment and training can lead to exposure of toxins to workers and to the environment. To improve the e-waste recycling system, parallels to plastic, aluminum, or glass recycling can be made where incentives given for recycling and neighborhood pickup service make it convenient to recycle e-waste. Facilities need to exist that specialize in e-waste and that can safely recycle the mineral resources.

Section: Recycling mineral resources Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

Matching Questions Match each term in the left-hand column to the statement that it best exemplifies.

1. rare earth elements 2. acid mine drainage 3. rock cycle 4. mineral 5. e-waste 6. geology

7. ore mineral/ore 8. rock 9. metal

10. tectonic plates 11. mining 12. lithosphere 13. asthenosphere 14. divergent plate boundary

a place where tectonic plates are moving toward each other (*15) the study of the structure of Earth and the processes that have shaped it in the past and shape it today (*6) conglomerates of one or more minerals that occur in a variety of configurations (*8) the process by which rock is constantly made and destroyed (*3) the movement of broken-down rock, soil, and other material from one location to another (*19) water that flows past exposed rock in mines, leaching out sulfates that then react with the water and oxygen to form acids (*2) the layer of the mantle that is so hot that the rock begins to soften, allowing it to flow slowly (*13) the extraction of natural resources from the ground (*11) a group of chemically similar elements used in a variety of modern products; they are not necessarily rare but do not occur in concentrated deposits (*1) a place where two tectonic plates slide side to side relative to one another (*17) sections of Earth’s crust that float above the magma layer (*10) a rock deposit that contains economically valuable amounts of metal minerals (*7) the rigid outer layer of Earth made up of the crust and the hard uppermost layer of mantle (*12) the finely ground rock left over from processing mineral ores (*20)

15. convergent plate boundary

16. subduct 17. transform plate boundary 18. weathering

19. erosion 20. mill tailings

a naturally occurring chemical compound that exists as a solid with a predictable, three-dimensional, repeating structure (*4) a place where tectonic plates are moving away from each other (*14) a malleable substance that can conduct electricity; usually found in nature as part of a mineral compound (*9) unwanted computers and other electronic devices that are discarded; contains valuable metals that can be recovered but also contains toxic chemical (*5) the movement of one tectonic plate below another at a convergent plate boundary (*16) the breakdown of rock by physical or chemical forces (*18)

Linked Questions Science Literacy Use the graphic below to answer the following five questions.

1. When high heat and pressure are added to igneous rock, what is formed?

A. sedimentary rock B. more igneous rock C. metamorphic rock Answer: C Section: Science literacy Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 2. If sedimentary rock is melted then cooled and crystalized, what is formed?

A. metamorphic rock B. igneous rock C. more sedimentary rock Answer: B Section: Science literacy Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 3. What process will transform metamorphic rock into sedimentary rock?

A. weathering B. melting C. high heat and pressure D. melting, then cooling and crystallization Answer: A Section: Science literacy Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 4. If you were a geologist looking for fossil remains, which type of rock would you focus on?

A. igneous B. metamorphic C. sedimentary Answer: C Section: Science literacy Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Applying 5. High heat and pressure will lead to the formation of which type of rock?

A. igneous B. metamorphic C. sedimentary Answer: B Section: Science literacy Level: 1

Bloom’s Level: Applying Making Connections Use the following scenario to answer the next five questions.

Your friend Sarah tells you she wants to get the newest version of her smart phone, even though her current one is less than a year old. You reply she should use her current phone as long as it lasts. You tell her how rare earth elements are mined, and how companies should use best practices when mining, but many do not. You also tell her how consumers such as herself can reduce the environmental and social impact of mining through her purchasing choices.

1. If Sarah continues to use her current cell phone instead of buying a new version, how could her decision affect mineral mining and processing?

A. Using her current phone lessens the need for more rare earth elements and reduces the pollution caused by mining and processing.

B. The effects of mineral mining and processing would increase to put out a newer version, since companies want Sarah and other cosumers to purchase a new phone.

C. There would be no effect on mining and processing of minerals, since consumers cannot make a difference.

Answer: A Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 2. What would be a best practice to reduce environmental impacts of mining you could tell Sarah about?

A. using fiber-optic cable instead of copper wire in a new house B. using more sensitive equipment to reduce the need for extra drilling or digging C. recycling aluminum cans D. donating to a nonprofit to help restore areas destroyed by mining practices Answer: B Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 3. Sarah asks what you meant when you said mining can have social impacts.

You tell her that __________.

A. mining brings some communities closer together B. miners are paid very well and have safe working conditions C. there is a connection between mining and violence, especially in developing countries D. mining companies are sensitive to communities and help protect the residents in mining areas

Answer: C Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 4. You tell Sarah about different mining techniques, including the one which is usually used to mine rare earth roes used in making new cell phones. This technique is called __________ mining.

A. strip B. open-pit C. placer D. subsurface Answer: B Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 5. If Sarah does choose to buy the new version of her smart phone, what should she do with the old one?

A. throw it in the trash to go to a landfill B. take to apart to find the rare earth elements C. find a recycling program for e-waste D. burn it Answer: C Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

MODULE 8.1 1. What caused the lack of food and resulting riots in 2008 in Burkina Faso?

A. extreme weather events B. rising cost of oil C. growing demand for meat D. increased production of biofuels E. All of these answers likely contributed, with other factors as well.

Answer: E Section: Introduction Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Guiding Question 1 How prevalent is world hunger and what are its causes?

Multiple Choice 2. What percentage of the global population was undernourished in 2016?

A. 2 B. 8 C. 13 D. 19 E. 23 Answer: C Section: World hunger Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 3. Which scenario would be found in a population that is food secure?

A. The only local food source is many miles away.

B. Regardless of income, members of the community have access to high-quality food.

C. The highest quality and quantity of food is given to those in positions of power.

D. The cost of high-quality food is prohibitive to many in the community.

E. The lowest grade of meat is sold only in stores in lower-income neighborhoods.

Answer: B Section: World hunger Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 4. Many factors can contribute to the inability of a country to be food self-sufficient.

Which of the following choices is NOT one of those factors?

A. the use of high-yield crop varieties B. armed conflict C. degraded land D. natural disasters E. poor food distribution

Answer: A Section: World hunger Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 5. Why is 98% of the world’s underfed population found in developing nations?

A. war B. political unrest C. inability to recover from natural disasters D. lack of economic means to affect infrastructure solutions E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: E Section: World hunger Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 6. Having physical, social, and economic access to sufficient safe and nutritious food is called __________.

A. food insecurity B. nutrition security C. food security D. hunger security E. food justice Answer: E Section: World hunger Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 7. The United Nations is calling for an increase of _______ times the amount of agricultural productivity of smallholder family farms in developing countries by 2030 to end hunger and achieve food security.

A. two B. three C. four D. eight E. ten Answer: A Section: World hunger Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 8. Slightly less than __________ of the U.S. military budget for a single year would eliminate hunger and extreme poverty.

A. 1/4 B. 1/3 C. 1/2

D. 2/3 E. 3/4 Answer: C Section: World hunger Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 9. How might the recent Ebola outbreaks in Africa affect the food security of affected countries?

FEEDBACK: The recent Ebola outbreaks could affect the regions’ food security in a number of ways. People may be physically unable to access food due to quarantine or illness. Some may be prevented from traveling to get food due to social stigma about the disease, and in some regions, armed conflict has occurred due to inaccurate social beliefs, which diminish the reliable food supply for the area. As people fell sick, they were unable to do their jobs and, thus, unable to financially provide for themselves or possibly their families. Without their income, their family may not have been able to purchase sufficient quantities of food.

Section: World hunger Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating Guiding Question 2 What problems result from malnutrition?

Multiple Choice 10. Someone who is malnourished may not be getting an adequate amount of _________ in their daily diet.

A. fats B. carbohydrates C. vitamins D. proteins E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: Malnutrition Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

11. Choose the correct pairing of nutrient deficiency with its resulting disease.

A. vitamin B deficiency — anemia B. vitamin A deficiency — kwashiorkor C. iron deficiency — blindness D. protein deficiency — kwashiorkor E. vitamin D deficiency — marasmus Answer: D

Section: Malnutrition Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 12. What are obesity and type 2 diabetes typically the result of?

A. food insecurity B. kwashiorkor C. vitamin deficiencies D. wasting E. malnutrition Answer: E Section: Malnutrition Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 13. Which of the following statements is true of malnutrition?

A. A person who eats 5,000 calories a day can be malnourished.

B. Malnutrition begins only after birth.

C. Food quality does not matter in nutrition; only food quantity.

D. Only the wealthy suffer from overnutrition.

E. Undernourishment is greater in developed countries than developing countries.

Answer: A Section: Malnutrition Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 14. Even though it is counterintuitive, how can overnutrition, the consumption of too many calories, be a problem for people of lower economic means?

FEEDBACK: Unfortunately, foods that are of good quality and high nutritional value are typically higher in price. Sometimes, this is cost prohibited for people who are on a very restricted budget. In contrast, many foods that are lower in price are also lower in nutritional value. In many cases, it comes down to a quantity over quality issue. If you need to feed a family of four on a lower income, you are likely to purchase food supplies that will last you through the week, regardless of nutritional value, instead of purchasing foods that are of a high quality and a nutrient level that would last through one meal. The end result is that lower-quality foods with more calories and less nutritional value are eaten instead of foods that supply you with all the essential nutrients you need to remain healthy.

Section: Malnutrition Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

Guiding Question 3 What was the Green Revolution, and how does it relate to industrial agriculture?

Multiple Choice 15. The coordinated global effort to eliminate hunger by improving crop performance using modern agricultural technologies in developing countries is called _______.

A. organic farming B. the Green Revolution C. eutrophication D. the Food Act E. None of these answers fits the description.

Answer: B Section: The Green Revolution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 16. Which of the following was NOT introduced with the Green Revolution?

A. chemical pesticides B. sophisticated irrigation systems C. synthetic nitrogen fertilizer D. high-yield variety crops E. organic farming techniques Answer: E Section: The Green Revolution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 17. What is a pro of high-yield varieties of crops introduced globally during the Green Revolution?

A. more grain produced B. less nitrogen required C. less mechanical dependence to harvest crops D. environmentally friendly E. None of these answers are beneficial attributes of high-yield crops.

Answer: A Section: The Green Revolution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 18. What is a con of high-yield varieties of crops introduced globally during the Green Revolution?

A. faster growth cycle B. not as much grain produced as with traditional varieties C. increased vulnerability to pests D. genetic diversity E. None of these answers are negative attributes of high-yield crops.

Answer: C Section: The Green Revolution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 19. Efforts from the Green Revolution resulted in _________.

A. enough food to feed every human on Earth B. every human on Earth being fed a life-sustaining diet C. less food produced than usual D. the end of food insecurity E. the end of malnutrition Answer: A Section: The Green Revolution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 20. What was the Green Revolution, and was it successful? Discuss pros and cons of this approach on the environment.

FEEDBACK: The Green Revolution was a plant-breeding program in the mid-1900s that dramatically increased crop yields in the developing world and led the way for mechanized, large-scale agriculture. It was a huge success in terms of providing more food by incorporating high-yield crop varieties and industrialized agriculture, as practiced in developed countries. Environmentally, it succeeded in being more efficient and with land already dedicated to agriculture, lessened the need to alter additional habitats (much of it sensitive) for growing crops. Negative impacts to the environment include the use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides which pollute the soil, water, and air; increased erosion from mechanized farming equipment which also require unsustainable fossil fuels; use of freshwater supplies for irrigation; and minimized food diversity and increased threat of catastrophe due to disease from adopting monoculture agriculture.

Section: The Green Revolution Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question 4 What are the pros and cons of industrial agriculture?

Multiple Choice 21. What is the relationship between the Green Revolution and industrial agriculture?

A. The Green Revolution focuses on sustainable, organic farming methods, while industrial agriculture focuses on chemicals and technology.

B. The Green Revolution increased food production in less developed nations, while industrial agriculture increased food production in more developed nations.

C. The Green Revolution focuses only on naturally available crops, while industrial agriculture focuses on high-yield varieties of crops.

D. The Green Revolution took practices from industrial agriculture—like pesticide use, irrigation technologies, and high-yield crops—and brought them to developing nations like China and India.

E. The Green Revolution focuses on small-scale, family-owned farms while industrial agriculture focuses on multifarm corporate companies.

Answer: D Section: Industrial agriculture Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 22. What is a known problem associated with industrial agriculture?

A. greenhouse gas emission B. water pollution C. pesticide-resistant pests D. the disappearance of local, small, family-owned farms E. All are these answers are known problems.

Answer: E Section: Industrial agriculture Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 23. Industrial agriculture is dependent on _________.

A. organic pest control for crops B. hand-planted and -managed crops C. all-natural fertilizers D. machinery E. Industrial agriculture depends on all of these.

Answer: D Section: Industrial agriculture Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 24. Monocultures can result in _________.

A. reduction in agricultural biodiversity B. a resistance to pests C. a boost for old varieties of seeds D. an increase in valuable genetic traits E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: A Section: Industrial agriculture Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 25. Coffee productivity is declining by ______ in some areas due to__________.

A. 25%; climate change B. 50%; overharvesting

C. 50%; climate change D. 25%; overharvesting E. 50%; monocultures Answer: C Section: Industrial agriculture Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 26. An advantage of industrial agriculture is _________.

A. mechanization, to reduce pressure on the number of family farms B. monoculture use to improve yields and harvests C. use of fossil fuels for machines instead of manual labor D. fewer people working the fields E. All of these answers are advantages.

Answer: B Section: Industrial agriculture Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

Essay 27. Why is the decreased biodiversity of high-yield varieties of crops a concern?

FEEDBACK: As we have seen in previous modules, and will see again in future modules, decreased biodiversity in an ecosystem makes that ecosystem more vulnerable to disruptions. There is not enough diversity in the ecosystem populations to withstand a change. For example, the Irish potato famine was partially due to the decimation of Ireland’s potato crops by a single pathogen. The reason that this pathogen was able to infect and kill the plants so readily was that the plants were all genetically identical and thus equally susceptible to the pathogen-caused disease. The resulting famine affected millions of people, and many lost their lives due to starvation.

Section: Industrial agriculture Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 28. Given what you know about industrial agriculture and the Green Revolution, why is world hunger considered a “wicked problem”?

FEEDBACK: A wicked problem is one that does not have any straightforward or nondetrimental solution. World hunger is assuredly a wicked problem because there is no clear-cut solution that would not negatively impact some aspect of society or ecosystems.

For example, one obvious solution to the problem would be to grow more food. It is clear that the Green Revolution was successful in this endeavor, as there is now enough food grown annually to feed every person on Earth. However, 12% of the global population is still undernourished, and the environment has taken some extreme hits as a result of the expansion of industrial agriculture. Clearly, the solution to the problem is going to be difficult to obtain and not without costs.

Section: Industrial agriculture

Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating Guiding Question 5 What is the importance of food self-sufficiency and sovereignty, and what can undermine meeting these goals?

Multiple Choice 29. How did subsidies for American farmers contribute to the level of food security in some African countries?

A. American farmers were able to produce vast quantities of food and sell it cheaply.

This outcompeted local African farms selling the same products. To compensate, the African farms switched to cash crops and ultimately made their country dependent on foreign food supplies, decreasing their food security.

B. Since American farmers were able to produce vast quantities of food and sell it cheaply, this allowed African farmers to grow cash crops and thus bring more economic stability to the community as a whole, increasing their food security.

C. American farmers were able to take advantage of the subsidies and produce more food, which made America less dependent on food supplies imported from African farmers. Since the African farmers were unable to sell their crops, the farms failed and decreased their community’s level of food security.

D. Subsidies on American farms decreased the amount of crops that could economically be harvested. This decreased the overall world supply of food and resulted in African countries being unable to import enough food to feed their communities, thus decreasing their food security.

E. American farm subsidies did not have any effect, positive or negative, on food security in African countries.

Answer: A Section: Meeting food needs locally: Food self-sufficiency and sovereignty Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 30. What are cash crops?

A. only illegal crops like coca for cocaine B. crops like high quality cotton sold for higher profits than normal C. only food crops like coffee D. crops only grown for export E. any food and fiber crops grown for profit instead of use Answer: B Section: Meeting food needs locally: Food self-sufficiency and sovereignty Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 31. Food self-sufficiency refers to the ability of an individual nation to _________.

A. grow enough food to feed the majority of people in the world B. export food crops for a profit

C. grow enough food to feed its people D. control its own food system E. import enough food to feed its people Answer: C Section: Meeting food needs locally: Food self-sufficiency and sovereignty Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 32. Global population is expected to reach ________ billion by 2050, and we will need to produce more food than we are now.

A. 7 B. 8 C. 9 D. 10 E. 14 Answer: A Section: Meeting food needs locally: Food self-sufficiency and sovereignty Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Guiding Question 6 How can genetic engineering be used in agriculture?

Multiple Choice 33. __________ is the driving force behind the Green Revolution 2.0, or gene revolution.

A. Cross pollination B. Cross breeding C. Genetic engineering D. Organic farming E. Sustainable farming Answer: C Section: The gene revolution: Genetically engineered crops Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 34. The Green Revolution 2.0 is __________________.

A. a movement that focuses on the production of genetically modified organisms to increase crop productivity B. associated with feed conversion rates C. a movement focused on recycling D. a plant-breeding program that dramatically increased crop yields and led the way for mechanized, large-scale agriculture E. a program used by modern farmers to spread the use of organic agriculture Answer: A Section: The gene revolution: Genetically engineered crops Level: 1

Bloom’s Level: Remembering 35. A(n) _______ organism is one that contains genes from another species.

A. hybrid B. transgenic C. diploid D. asexual E. native Answer: B Section: The gene revolution: Genetically engineered crops Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 36. _________ are organisms that have had their genetic information modified in a way that does not occur naturally.

A. HMOs B. PMOs C. GMOs D. AMOs E. Hybrids Answer: C Section: The gene revolution: Genetically engineered crops Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 37. Genetic engineering involves the transfer of genes for desirable characteristics, including ___________.

A. drought resistance B. pest resistance C. increased nutrient production D. herbicide tolerance E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: The gene revolution: Genetically engineered crops Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 38. Which of the following contains genes from another species?

A. transgenic organisms B. Bt corn plants C. roundup tolerant cotton plants D. golden rice E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: The gene revolution: Genetically engineered crops Level: 1

Bloom’s Level: Understanding 39. Which of the following is a TRUE statement?

A. In the United States, GMOs are limited to a few corn products.

B. GMOs will almost certainly be part of the solution to meeting future food demands as the global population swells.

C. GMOs are cheap and therefore a popular option for developing countries.

D. Since DNA is unique for each species, it is not possible to move genes from one species to another.

E. In the United States, less than 1% of processed foods contain GMOs. Answer: B Section: The gene revolution: Genetically engineered crops Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 40. In making a transgenic organism, what is typically the role of the bacterium?

A. to donate the desired gene B. to mutate and create the desired gene C. to transport the desired gene D. to express the desired gene E. Bacteria are not involved in the creation of transgenic organisms.

Answer: C Section: The gene revolution: Genetically engineered crops Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 41. When making a transgenic organism, where do the desired genes come from?

A. insects B. bacteria C. fish D. corn E. All of these answers are possible donors.

Answer: E Section: The gene revolution: Genetically engineered crops Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 42. In transgenic organisms, what step(s) would a gene gun replace?

A. isolation and replication of a desired gene B. insertion of a desired gene into a plasmid C. plasmid delivering a desired gene to the host nucleus D. isolation and replication of a desired gene, insertion of a desired gene into a plasmid, and plasmid delivering a desired gene to the host nucleus E. insertion of a desired gene into a plasmid and plasmid delivering a desired gene to the host nucleus Answer: E

Section: The gene revolution: Genetically engineered crops Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 43. Refer to the graphic below. Use the graphic to explain step by step how a gene from Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is inserted into a plant. In your own words, describe how this happens and how a bacterial gene can be beneficial to a plant.

FEEDBACK: To make a genetically modified organism, you first have to identify a trait that you wish your organism would express. In this case, farmers wanted their crops to express a bacterial gene that kills insects in the hopes that they could use less pesticides on their crops. Once the desired trait is identified, the gene encoding that trait is isolated from the original organism, in this case a bacterium, and many copies of the gene are made in the lab. The gene is then put into a piece of circular DNA called a plasmid that is readily taken up by bacterial cells. In this case, the bacterial cells that take up the Bt gene are also able to enter plant cells. The plasmid carrying bacterium then infects the plant cell and delivers the desired gene to the nucleus of the plant cell, where it is incorporated

into the plant DNA. The plant then grows and expresses the desired gene—in this case, the insect toxin Bt. Seeds from the transgenic plant are harvested and sold to farmers who now require less chemical pesticide to be applied.

Section: The gene revolution: Genetically engineered crops Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 44. It is estimated that by 2050, the human population will reach 10 billion. While the ability to produce food has risen with population growth so far, increasing production for another 3 billion humans poses a tremendous challenge. Discuss how the gene revolution will likely be part of the solution to meeting future food demands.

FEEDBACK: The gene revolution focuses on the production of genetically modified organisms (GMOs) to increase crop productivity or create new varieties of crops. By creating strains of crops resistant to drought, flooding, saline or low-nutrient soils, and pests, yields will increase, producing more available food per area of given land. This may become even more important as the climate changes, increasing the severity of droughts and flooding in certain regions. Also, novel strains can be created to produce nutritionally enhanced food. In addition, food products created to have longer shelf lives will better tolerate distribution to areas where human food demand is greatest. Although not a panacea, it seems likely that GMOs will play a part in meeting future food demands.

Section: The gene revolution: Genetically engineered crops Level: 2/3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing/Evaluating 45. Describe how traditional selective breeding, where farmers attempt to produce offspring with valuable traits by breeding parents with those traits, is different from creating organisms with valuable traits using genetic engineering.

FEEDBACK: Traditional selective breeding has been used for thousands of years and has produced high-yielding varieties of many crops. In this approach, the farmer is limited by the genes available in the population of that species. Genetic engineering takes advantage of genes from multiple sources, including across different species, by manipulating genes in a laboratory and then incorporating those genes to create organisms with the desired trait.

Section: The gene revolution: Genetically engineered crops Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating Guiding Question 7 What are the trade-offs of using genetically modified organisms (GMOs) in agriculture?

Multiple Choice 46. Giant ragweed and pigweed are examples of super weeds. These weeds have acquired the gene for _______, which makes them tolerant to all herbicides.

A. Wt B. Bt

C. Ct D. Ht E. Pt Answer: D Section: The trade-offs of genetically engineered food Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 47. Which of the following is an INCORRECT statement regarding GMOs? A. GMOs are patented by a few corporations and are generally expensive.

B. Certain countries have banned GMOs. C. Some people are concerned about health impacts and environmental consequences that could be associated with GMOs. D. GMOs have been exhaustively shown to not pose a threat to living organisms, including humans.

E. All of these answers are true statements about GMOs. Answer: D Section: The trade-offs of genetically engineered food Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 48. What are some potential drawbacks of using pest-resistant crops?

A. water pollution B. the creation of pest-resistant weeds C. the creation of pesticide-resistant pests D. the repelling of beneficial insects E. All of these answers are potential drawbacks of using pest-resistant crops.

Answer: E Section: The trade-offs of genetically engineered food Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 49. How could planting Bt corn lead to even more pesticide use?

A. Bt-resistant pests thrive when Bt-susceptible pests are no longer competition, so it takes more pesticide to get rid of them.

B. Bt corn doesn’t actually produce Bt—it just means that the plants are Bt resistant—so farmers still have to use the pesticide to rid the corn of pests.

C. Bt corn repels beneficial insects, which usually kill all of the pests, so now farmers must use pesticide.

D. Bt corn actually depends on pesticide use to grow and survive.

E. Bt corn does not lead to more pesticide use, as the Bt toxin produced by the plant is sufficient to kill all natural pests.

Answer: A Section: The trade-offs of genetically engineered food Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying/Analyzing

50. Do GMOs raise or lower the overall crop biodiversity?

A. raise B. lower C. Biodiversity remains the same.

Answer: B Section: The trade-offs of genetically engineered food Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 51. Would a GMO crop bred to be herbicide resistant be more or less likely to withstand the effects of global climate change?

A. more B. less C. It would not be more or less suited.

Answer: B Section: The trade-offs of genetically engineered food Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying/Analyzing 52. What are some potential concerns about eating GMO foods?

A. allergic reactions B. the decline of nutritional quality C. the presence of toxins, like Bt, in consumer foods D. in the United States, no labels indicating that the product came from GMOs E. all of the above Answer: D Section: The trade-offs of genetically engineered food Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 53. What are some of the major concerns associated with genetically modified organisms (GMOs)?

FEEDBACK: One of the major concerns with GMOs is that the inserted gene could be transferred to a nontarget species, making the nontargeted species grow more aggressively and outcompete other plants. Another problem is that GMOs are patented and are more expensive than traditional seeds, making them a poor option for developing countries. People are also concerned about potential health issues resulting from consumption of GMOs or eating animals that have been fed GMOs. Section: The trade-offs of genetically engineered food Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 54. Why are many European countries opposed to the use of GMOs?

FEEDBACK: It has been shown in the United States that genes introduced into domestic crops can escape into nontarget species. Sixteen weed species have acquired the Ht gene, making them resistant to herbicides. They take over entire fields, stop combines, and are tough to clear by hand. In addition to the environmental impacts, consumers also worry about potential long-term health impacts of consuming GMO products. The banning of GMOs by other countries provides protection to their local farmers and protects the local agricultural economy from outside competition.

Section: The trade-offs of genetically engineered food Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 55. Refer to the graphic below. When looking at the advantages and disadvantages of using GMO crops as food sources, do you think the pros outweigh the cons? Now imagine if you were a member of a community in West Africa. Would your opinion about the value of GMO crops change?

FEEDBACK: This is a personal opinion question, but the take-home point here is that in developed nations, the majority of the population is not undernourished (although there are still percentages of the population that are, even in developed nations like the United States), so the cons of using GMOs in agriculture may outweigh the pros. However, if you now picture yourself as a member of a community in which the vast majority of people arw undernourished and starving, you may see the pros of GMO crops outweighing the cons.

Section: The trade-offs of genetically engineered food Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating Guiding Question 8

What are some low-tech (non-GMO, nonindustrial) options for increasing crop production?

Multiple Choice 56. Which of the following farming techniques is considered non-GMO and nonindustrial?

A. Bt corn B. Zaï pit C. high-yield varieties D. irrigation systems E. synthetic fertilizer Answer: B Section: Low-tech alternatives to increase crop production Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 57. What is the process of microfertilization?

A. the specific fertilization of microbes that provide nutrients to growing plants B. the application of a small amount of fertilizer to the area directly around the seed C. the use of only natural, nonsynthetic fertilizers D. the intentional overuse of fertilizer to prepare the soil for next year’s planting E. the use of GM organic matter that enhances plant growth Answer: B Section: Low-tech alternatives to increase crop production Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 58. Why does microfertilization reduce the amount of water pollution from farms that employ this technique?

A. Since no fertilizer is used, there is no contamination by fertilizer from water runoff of the farm.

B. Microfertilization employs a biodegradable nitrogen source that does not pollute water sources.

C. Since only a small amount of fertilizer is used, less will end up in the local water supply.

D. With this technique, all of the fertilizer applied is used by the plant; thus there isn’t a chance for it to end up in the water supply.

E. Microfertilization actually increases the amount of water pollution seen in local sources.

Answer: C Section: Low-tech alternatives to increase crop production Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 59. What is another low-tech farming method employed by some farms in Africa?

A. herbicide-resistant crops

B. use of synthetic nitrogen fertilizer C. growing only cash crops D. planting trees around the farm plot E. diverting rivers to flow through farm plots Answer: D Section: Low-tech alternatives to increase crop production Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 60. Like the Green Revolution, low-tech farming methods in Africa have _______.

A. revolutionized the way people farm all over the world B. increased grain production in less developed communities C. introduced the use of GMOs and industrial agriculture methods D. decreased the cost of farming for the typical farmer E. led to a decrease in environmental problems caused by farming Answer: B Section: Low-tech alternatives to increase crop production Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

61. Why are some people supportive of low-tech farming methods over industrial agricultural methods?

A. Low-tech farming methods produce more food.

B. Low-tech farming methods are strictly organic.

C. Industrial agriculture methods do not produce actual food crops.

D. Even though low-tech farming methods are more expensive, they do not use GMOs. E. Low-tech farming methods are typically less harmful to the environment.

Answer: E Section: Low-tech alternatives to increase crop production Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 62. How could governments support efforts to increase a community’s food security?

A. repair roads leading to markets B. support women farmers C. subsidize crops for local food supplies D. create a local seed bank E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: Low-tech alternatives to increase crop production Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 63. Why are low-tech farming methods more accessible to female farmers?

FEEDBACK: Many farms in Africa are actually run and worked by women. Introducing GMO crops and other industrial agriculture techniques to a community typically requires money, machinery, and support from local or national power structures. Unfortunately, women in these communities rarely receive any of these necessary components and are therefore unable to adopt industrial agricultural methods. Rather, farming techniques that have been passed down for centuries or smaller strategies that are readily adaptable to the social infrastructure are more commonly accepted and used.

Section: Low-tech alternatives to increase crop production Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 64. Why is there no clear answer to the problem of malnutrition in Africa?

FEEDBACK: Much like the wicked problem of global hunger, the lack of food security in Africa also has many factors influencing potential solutions, and no option would come without a cost. Such factors are economy (Can they afford the GM seeds?), social structure (Are women encouraged to try new farming techniques?), political state (Is the country in the middle of armed conflict?), financial support (Would this support come with a cost?), and damage to ecosystems (Are they willing to risk polluting the only potable water source with fertilizer or chemicals?). To make the issue even more complex, it is very likely that a solution that works for one community will fail in the next. Different communities have different factors affecting their food security.

Section: Low-tech alternatives to increase crop production Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

Matching Questions Please match each term in the left-hand column to the statement that it best exemplifies.

1. food security 2. Green Revolution 3. food sovereignty

4. industrial agriculture 5. transgenic organism

6. malnutrition

7. genetically modified organisms (GMOs) 8. high-yield varieties (HYVs) 9. Green Revolution 2.0 10. cash crops 11. food self-sufficiency

strains of staple crops selectively bred to be more productive than their natural counterparts (*8) food and fiber crops grown to sell for profit rather than for use by local families or communities (*10) organisms that have had their genetic information modified to give them desirable characteristics such as pest or drought resistance (*7) the ability of an individual nation to grow enough food to feed its people (*11) a plant-breeding program in the mid-1900s that dramatically increased crop yields and paved the way for mechanized, large-scale agriculture (*2) a state of poor health that results from inadequate caloric intake (too many or too few calories) or is deficient in one or more nutrients (*6) the ability of an individual nation to control its own food system (*3) programs that focus on the production of genetically modified organisms (GMOs) to increase crop productivity (*9) an organism that contains genes from another species (*5) having physical, social, and economic access to sufficient, safe, and nutritious food (*1) farming methods that rely on technology, synthetic chemical inputs, and economies of scale to increase productivity and profits (*4)

Linked Questions Science Literacy Use Infographic 6 below to answer the following four questions.

1. Since peaches are a soft fruit, they can be bruised during shipping and handling. When they arrive at the store with bruising, they are generally not bought and have to be thrown out. A gene research lab has turned off a gene in peaches which causes bruising. This technique of genetic engineering is called _______ genetic engineering.

A. transgenic B. cisgenic C. intragenic Answer: C Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 2. Droughts are common in the southern parts of the United States, and plants die quickly in the heat of a long, dry summer. A gene lab is working with garden crops like tomatoes and zucchini to add DNA from a bacterium which will reduce the amount of water needed to keep the plants alive. This is an example of _______ genetic engineering.

A. transgenic B. cisgenic C. intragenic Answer: A Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 3. A gene lab is working with cactus, and have taken a gene that codes for “no needles” in the cactus and introduced it into a different species of cactus to create a new smooth variety without needles. This is an example of _______ genetic engineering.

A. transgenic B. cisgenic C. intragenic Answer: B Section: Science literacy

Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 4. A gene that codes for thorns on rose bushes has been turned off to produce new varieties of roses without thorns. This is an example of _______ genetic engineering.

A. transgenic B. cisgenic C. intragenic Answer: C Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Making Connections Use the following information to answer the next three questions. (information source: http://www.un.org/sustainabledevelopment/hunger/) The United Nations has identified “zero hunger” as a sustainable development goal for the year 2030. To achieve this, the United Nations wants to end hunger, achieve food security and improved nutrition, and promote sustainable agriculture. Targets for this goal include doubling agricultural productivity and incomes of small-scale food producers, implementing resilient agricultural practices, increasing productivity, and maintaining genetic diversity of seeds, plants, and animals.

1. The practice of achieving food security means _______.

A. people have physical, social, and economic access to sufficient safe and nutritious food B. an individual nation can grow enough food to feed its own people C. an individual nation can control its own food system D. all these answers achieve food security Answer: D Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 2. Maintaining genetic diversity in plants and animals is important, since _______.

A. we need different types of plants and animals to eat B. without genetic diversity, plants and animals are more vulnerable to pests and diseases C. all plants and animals will adapt to climate change quickly without genetic diversity Answer: B Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

3. Which of the following would be a resilient agricultural practice to increase productivity?

A. growing monoculture crops B. using synthetic fertilizer on crops and fruits C. using Zaï pits D. employing more women in agriculture E. these are all examples of resilient agriculture.

Answer: E Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

MODULE 8.2 Multiple Choice 1. Modern industrial agriculture methods __________________.

A. rely on renewable energy sources to power modern farming equipment B. maintain and enrich ecosystem services C. focus all resources on a single crop D. avoid the use of chemical fertilizers E. are referred to as organic Answer: C Section: Introduction Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 2. What were the Massas were having problems with on their rice farm?

A. azolla B. ducks C. insects D. snakes E. wildlflowers Answer: A Section: Introduction Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Guiding Question 1 What is sustainable agriculture?

Multiple Choice 3. Sustainable agriculture is defined as a ______________________.

A. plant-breeding program focused on developing high-yield varieties (HYVs) of grain crops B. plant-breeding program focused on the production of genetically modified organisms (GMOs) to increase crop productivity or create new varieties of crops C. farming method in which one crop variety is planted over a large area of land with significant inputs of fertilizer, pesticides, and water D. farming method that does not use any synthetic fertilizer, pesticides, or other chemical additives E. farming method that does not deplete resources, such as soil and water, faster than they are replaced Answer: E Section: Sustainable agriculture Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 4. All of the following are considered sustainable farming techniques EXCEPT _______.

A. reduced tillage B. crop rotation C. strip cropping D. heavy pesticide use E. terrace farming Answer: D Section: Sustainable agriculture Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 5. Organic agriculture is a type of which farming method?

A. sustainable B. industrial C. commercial D. global E. nonprofit Answer: A Section: Sustainable agriculture Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 6. ________ is farming without the use of synthetic fertilizers, pesticides, and other chemical additives.

A. Synthetic farming B. Organic agriculture C. The Green Revolution D. Industrialized agriculture E. Symbiotic agriculture Answer: B Section: Sustainable agriculture Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 7. Which strategy would Greg and Raquel Massa NOT apply in managing their farm, given their conversion to sustainable agriculture?

A. planting native oak trees along field borders as a windbreak B. using transgenic golden rice seeds that are nutritionally enhanced to produce vitamin A C. introducing ducklings into rice paddies as a natural weed control D. building nest boxes for wood ducks, barn owls, and bats so that these wild animals will keep pests in check E. installing a recirculation system to reclaim and reuse irrigation water Answer: B Section: Sustainable agriculture Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

8. Which of the following is TRUE of organic farming?

A. Organically grown food has similar levels of pesticides as food grown conventionally.

B. Organic farms can grow genetically modified organisms (GMOs).

C. Organically produced food can be more nutritious than food grown conventionally.

D. Organic farming can use chemical fertilizers if needed.

E. Organically grown food has a shorter shelf life than food grown conventionally.

Answer: C Section: Sustainable agriculture Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 9. What is organic agriculture? Explain how it is similar to and different from sustainable agriculture, using livestock production as an example.

FEEDBACK: Organic agriculture is a farming method that does not use synthetic fertilizer, pesticides, or other chemical additives. It is one example of sustainable agriculture, which refers to farming in a way that can be depended upon indefinitely using farming methods that do not deplete resources, such as soil and water, faster than they are replaced. It is possible for an agricultural system to be organic but not entirely sustainable. For example, livestock could be raised organically (that is, without the use of antibiotics and hormones and fed grain that was grown without the use of chemical pesticides and synthetic fertilizers), but this may not be an entirely sustainable way to get our meat, milk, and eggs if no attention is paid to protecting the water from being polluted by manure or if pastureland is overgrazed, leading to soil degradation. Generally speaking, however, most organic farmers are also concerned about and focused on sustainability.

Section: Sustainable agriculture Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question 2 What are the trade-offs of using chemical fertilizers in industrial agriculture?

Multiple Choice 10. The farming technique that is seen in most industrial farms is called ________ agriculture.

A. organic B. integrated C. monoculture D. polyculture E. None of these answers fit the description.

Answer: C Section: Fertilizer use in industrial agriculture Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

11. Rearing meat or dairy animals in confined spaces, maximizing the number of animals that can be grown in a small area, is referred to as a __________.

A. sustainable agriculture system B. concentrated animal feeding operation (CAFO) C. monoculture D. traditional agriculture system E. transgenic operation Answer: B Section: Fertilizer use in industrial agriculture Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 12. Characteristic features of concentrated animal feeding operations (CAFOs) include which of the following?

A. Such operations raise only beef cattle.

B. They use a lot of land relative to the number of animals raised.

C. The manure is difficult to collect, as there are so many animals in a small space.

D. Animals are generally not permitted to roam free.

E. They have no net negative environmental impact.

Answer: D Section: Fertilizer use in industrial agriculture Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 13. A farm that plants non–locally adapted crops likely uses ________ agriculture methods.

A. sustainable B. industrial C. organic D. commercial E. home/personal Answer: B Section: Fertilizer use in industrial agriculture Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 14. In monoculture farming, farmers usually choose crops which _______.

A. are best suited to the existing ecosystem B. grow more quickly than other crops C. have the highest market demand D. will provide the highest yield E. require the least amount of water Answer: C Section: Fertilizer use in industrial agriculture Level: 1

Bloom’s Level: Understanding 15. In monoculture, the crops grown are usually _______.

A. a mix of plants B. different each season C. self-fertilizing D. drought tolerant E. the same single crop every year Answer: E Section: Fertilizer use in industrial agriculture Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 16. Environmental issues caused by industrial farming techniques include which of the following?

A. eutrophication B. reliance on synthetic nitrogen fertilizer C. heavy use of pesticides D. formation of a dead zone in the Gulf of Mexico E. All of these answers are environmental issues caused by industrial farming.

Answer: E Section: Fertilizer use in industrial agriculture Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 17. Which of the following is NOT a negative consequence associated with confined animal feeding operations (CAFOs)?

A. Cattle CAFO operations cause soil salinization, since cows drink so much water.

B. Since CAFO animals are more vulnerable to disease, farmers use heavy doses of antibiotics, which contributes to antibiotic resistance.

C. CAFOs contribute to global warming, since livestock emit greenhouse gases as part of their digestive process.

D. CAFO operations are not sustainable, since they are heavily dependent on external inputs, such as feed that is added from outside its own ecosystem.

E. Hog CAFO operations can pollute local waterways due to the vast quantities of manure that are produced in a small area.

Answer: A Section: Fertilizer use in industrial agriculture Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 18. What is the one possible result of growing crops in marginal soil?

A. cultural eutrophication B. dependence on fertilizer C. lower yields D. increased greenhouse gas release

E. All of these answers are potential results.

Answer: E Section: Fertilizer use in industrial agriculture Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 19. Soil salinization occurs when _______.

A. salt is added to the soil as a natural insecticide B. too much fertilizer is used in one area C. animals are introduced to the fields D. water brought to the fields through irrigation evaporates E. not enough variety of crops are planted in one area Answer: D Section: Fertilizer use in industrial agriculture Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 20. Which green bean would likely have a higher nutrient content?

A. one grown on a new industrial farm B. one grown on an established industrial farm C. They would both have the same nutrient content.

Answer: A Section: Fertilizer use in industrial agriculture Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 21. Genetic diversity decreases in what type of farming?

A. sustainable B. organic C. commercial D. monocultural E. global Answer: D Section: Fertilizer use in industrial agriculture Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 22. Refer to Infographic 2. How do industrial agricultural methods lead to eutrophication and dead zones?

FEEDBACK: While application of synthetic fertilizer increases crop yields, it also washes from fields by rain and irrigation practices into waterways that lead to freshwater reservoirs (ponds, lakes) and oceans, where it can lead to eutrophication. Normally, growth of photosynthetic organisms, such as algae and other aquatic plants, is limited by the amount of nutrients available to them. When excess fertilizer (and nutrients from other sources such as sewage) washes into those areas, nutrients are no longer limiting, and growth of aquatic plants explodes. Each year, a dead zone appears in the Gulf of Mexico, where rivers like the Mississippi bring excess nutrients from Corn Belt states.

When the bloom of growth dies and sinks to the bottom of the river, bacteria use up available oxygen to decompose the organic matter. Areas of very low oxygen at the bottom prevent fish and other organisms from living there.

Section: Fertilizer use in industrial agriculture Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating 23. What are monocultures and concentrated animal feeding operations (CAFOs)?

Describe pros and cons of each in industrialized agriculture.

FEEDBACK: In monoculture farming, a single variety of a single crop is planted over large areas of land. This is done in order to maximize efficiency in terms of planting, treating with fertilizer and pesticides, and harvesting. It also maximizes the ability to

produce large quantities of crops that are most in demand. However, monocultures put “all your eggs in one basket,” so if a disease affects a plant, the entire area is threatened with catastrophic loss. Also, large amounts of fertilizer and chemical pesticides are used to optimize yields but lead to pollution of the air, soil, and water. Since crops are chosen for high market demand, they may also require inputs of irrigated water (which can lead to soil salinization) if they have not evolved to the local climate. Heavy machinery uses fossil fuels and increases compaction and erosion of soil. In addition, our diet becomes narrowed when our food choices become limited by only a few types of foods. CAFOs raise livestock in confined spaces with a focus on raising as many animals in a given area as possible. They are fed a nutrient-rich diet and are generally not permitted to graze or roam free. They are highly productive and minimize the amount of land that would be required if the animals were allowed to graze. However, in order to combat disease in animals in confinement, heavy doses of antibiotics are used, which leads to antibioticresistant populations of bacteria. In addition, monoculture agriculture is required to produce the feed for the animals. Other environmental issues with CAFOs include manure spills and generation of greenhouse gases from animals.

Section: Fertilizer use in industrial agriculture Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question 3 What are the trade-offs of using chemical pesticides in industrial agriculture?

Multiple Choice 24. Which factor(s) contribute(s) to the emergence of pesticide-resistant crop pest populations?

A. lack of genetic diversity in the pest population B. the ability of individual pests within a population to survive exposure to the pesticide and reproduce C. organic farming techniques D. the ability of pesticide reapplication to kill all pests in a population E. All of these answers are factors that contribute to the emergence.

Answer: B Section: Pesticide use in industrial agriculture Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 25. The Irish potato famine was caused by a pathogen that quickly and successfully infected and killed millions of potato plants in Ireland. Based on the speed and ability of the pathogen to infect the plants, what kind of farming technique was likely implemented by the Irish?

A. sustainable B. organic C. monoculture D. CAFOs E. strip cropping

Answer: C Section: Pesticide use in industrial agriculture Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 26. Reduction of soil fertility and decreased effectiveness of pesticides as resistance emerges are examples of which social trap?

A. time delay B. sliding reinforcer C. tragedy of the commons D. sliding delay E. wicked problem Answer: C Section: Pesticide use in industrial agriculture Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 27. Refer to Infographic 3. Describe how application of chemical pesticides encourages the emergence of pesticide-resistant pest populations.

FEEDBACK: The initial population of pests is genetically diverse. When the pesticide is applied to the population, most are killed but a few survive because they have innate

resistance (genes that allow them to survive the chemical, perhaps by being able to break it down metabolically). Those surviving pests reproduce with each other and produce a population where the majority of pests now have the genetic trait of being resistant to the pesticide. When the chemical is applied again, most of the population is not killed. The frequency of resistant individuals in the population increases with each generation of pest and with each application of the pesticide.

Section: Pesticide use in industrial agriculture Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question 4 What is agroecology and what are its benefits?

Multiple Choice 28. A rice farmer can use integrated farming techniques in which ducklings, azolla, and fish are used to produce their crops without any extra chemical additives. This integrated technique _______________.

A. represents a method of organic farming B. is sustainable C. produces more than just rice as a product to sell D. eliminates the need for synthetic and toxic chemicals E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: Agroecology Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 29. By planting corn one year and beans the next on a given plot of land, or by planting alfalfa as a cover crop during the off-season, a farmer reduces the need for ___________ because beans and alfalfa fix nitrogen in the soil.

A. herbicides B. pesticides C. inorganic fertilizers D. expensive irrigation techniques E. harvesting machinery Answer: C Section: Agroecology Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 30. When using agroecology, Takao Furuno added ducklings to the rice paddies. What was one purpose of the ducklings?

A. eat all the azolla B. flatten the young rice seedlings C. eat all the rice seeds

D. provide fertilizer E. encourage more ducks to come to the rice paddies Answer: D Section: Agroecology Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 31. By using agroecology, Takao Furuno received financial gains. What was he able to sell from his land?

A. rice B. duck eggs C. fish D. figs E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: Agroecology Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 32. Refer to Infographic 4. Use the infographic to describe integrated farming at Takao Furuno’s duck/rice farm.

FEEDBACK: The integrated farm is a self-regulating, multiple-species system that naturally meets the needs of the farm ecosystem. The species present all play a role in the

system and help each other and overall production. The method includes planting rice seedlings in flooded rice paddies. Ducklings and fish are introduced to eat weeds (eliminating the need for chemical herbicides), and they provide natural fertilizer (eliminating the need for chemical fertilizers). Azolla is introduced to add nitrogen, and its growth is kept in check by ducks and fish. The final product of this integrated system is a harvest that includes not only rice (with yields increased 20% to 50% compared with industrial model approaches) but also duck eggs, duck, and fish.

Section: Agroecology Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying/Analyzing Guiding Question 5 What is integrated pest management?

Multiple Choice 33. Which kind of pest management system falls more in line with the methods of sustainable farming?

A. cultural B. mechanical C. biological D. chemical E. Cultural, mechanical, and biological are all pest control methods used in sustainable farming.

Answer: E Section: Managing Pests Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 34. What is the goal of integrated pest management?

A. controlling pest species while minimizing chemical toxins B. eliminating all pest species through any means necessary C. controlling pest species using only biological control methods D. eliminating all insect species in agricultural areas E. controlling pest species with traditional agricultural techniques Answer: A Section: Managing Pests Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 35. What is the first step in integrated pest management?

A. developing an action plan B. setting an action threshold C. monitoring pest species D. identifying true pests E. using cultural control methods Answer: D

Section: Managing Pests Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 36. Ladybugs are beetles that eat aphids, a small insect pest species that suck liquid out of plants. If you have a problem with aphids in your garden and release ladybugs to control the aphids, which type of control method are you using?

A. cultural B. mechanical C. biological D. chemical E. traditional Answer: C Section: Managing Pests Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Essay 37. What are some potential hazards to using biological methods of pest control?

FEEDBACK: When selecting which predator to use to help control whatever pest is present on the farm, a farmer must be very careful to choose a predator that will kill ONLY the pest and not the pest and other species present on the farm. They must also be careful to avoid introducing a non-native species into the ecosystem, since an invasive species situation may arise if the predator has no local predators of its own.

Section: Managing Pests Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

Guiding Question 6 How can traditional farming methods contribute to sustainable agriculture?

Multiple Choice 38. In sustainable agriculture, _________ is to soil erosion as ____________ is to soil fertility.

A. strip cropping; contour farming B. terrace farming; crop rotation C. cover cropping; reduced tillage D. contour farming; terrace farming E. crop rotation; windbreaks Answer: B Section: Traditional farming methods Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating 39. Which of the following would NOT be a sustainable agriculture method to reduce soil erosion?

A. reduced tillage B. contour farming C. terrace farming D. cover cropping E. strip cropping Answer: E Section: Traditional farming methods Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 40. Which of the following sustainable farming techniques disrupts the life cycle of pests, making it difficult for pest populations to build up and cause outbreaks?

A. contour farming B. cover crops C. crop rotation D. terrace farming E. reduced tillage Answer: C Section: Traditional farming methods Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 41. The 1930s Dust Bowl was caused by severe drought in prairie lands, coupled with farming techniques that left the bare soil vulnerable to wind erosion. Which of the following sustainable farming techniques would help prevent such a phenomenon from happening again?

A. contour farming

B. depression farming C. reduced tillage D. terrace farming E. strip cropping Answer: C Section: Traditional farming methods Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 42. What is an advantage of growing perennial crops?

A. increased soil erosion B. increased soil fertility C. decreased irrigation need D. the ability to grow in any environment E. There are no advantages over growing annual crops.

Answer: C Section: Traditional farming methods Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 43. Refer to Infographic 6. Which methods increase soil fertility, and why?

FEEDBACK: The sustainable farming methods that increase soil fertility are crop rotation and cover crops. With crop rotation, a different crop is planted on a plot every few years; thus the farmer can rotate in nitrogen-fixing crops, like legumes, that will help introduce nitrogen back into the soil. Also, different crops have different nutritional needs, so by rotating crops, the soil is less likely to get depleted of a vital nutrient. Cover crop are crops planted to cover the fields in the off season. If the farmer plants nitrogen-

fixing crops, these plants reintroduce nitrogen into the soil, making it more fertile for the next season’s crops.

Section: Traditional farming methods Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

Guiding Question 7 What role does the consumer play in helping build a sustainable food system?

Multiple Choice 44. The distance a food travels from its site of production to the consumer is ____________.

A. decreased in countries where industrialized agriculture is practiced B. typically less than 100 miles in the United States C. not a sustainability issue, since fossil fuels are plentiful in most countries D. not a factor when calculating the ecological footprint of a food E. referred to as food miles Answer: E Section: The role of consumers Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 45. Which of the following choices is MOST important to buy organic, if possible?

A. kiwi B. cabbage C. mushrooms D. grapes E. onions Answer: D Section: The role of consumers Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 46. Which food likely has the smallest carbon footprint?

A. a pineapple shipped from Hawaii B. a soybean from a local commercial farm C. an organic banana shipped from Costa Rica D. an organic strawberry from a local farm E. Both an organic banana shipped from Costa Rica and an organic strawberry from a local farm have equally small footprints.

Answer: D Section: The role of consumers Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 47. ________ is a term that describes misleading claims about the healthiness of organic foods.

A. Greenwashing B. Organic washing C. Organic inaccuracy D. Transgenic E. Greencarding

Answer: A Section: The role of consumers Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 48. Which of the following in an example of greenwashing that you may find on a food label?

A. produced locally (from commercial farm) B. contains only natural ingredients C. cage-free eggs D. healthy organic brownies E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: The role of consumers Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 49. As a consumer, you need to be wary of purported health claims made on organically grown foods. How could such claims be validated?

FEEDBACK: The FDA and the USDA could examine the “greenwashing” claims made regarding organic foods and provide labels that consumers could use to compare organically grown food with non–organically grown food. Also, the certification process could be standardized among the states so the term “organically grown” means the same thing in every state.

Section: The role of consumers Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 50. What are ways you can personally support sustainable/organic farming techniques and help them become more widely employed?

FEEDBACK: Support local farmers, buy organic products, and eat naturally fed and antibiotic-free meats. Financing the industry by paying a little extra for the products is the most important way to keep the practice alive.

Section: The role of consumers Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Guiding Question 8 Evaluate the trade-offs of sustainable agriculture and its potential to meet world food needs.

Multiple Choice 51. Sustainable farming would have less ____________ but would be more ____________.

A. expense and inputs; labor intensive

B. potential for causing water pollution; at risk for causing soil degradation C. genetic and species diversity; likely to have many beneficial insects D. hormone residues in the milk; than likely to have antibiotic residue in the meat E. utilization of crop rotation and cover cropping; apt to use integrated pest management and fertilizers Answer: A Section: Can sustainable agriculture feed the world?

Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 52. Consumers enjoy many benefits from sustainable farming. Which of the following is a benefit of sustainable farming to consumers?

A. no pesticide residue on produce B. better taste C. animal products contain no hormones D. fresher produce E. All of these answers are benefits.

Answer: E Section: Can sustainable agriculture feed the world?

Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 53. Which of the following is a disadvantage of sustainable farming for the consumer?

A. Fruits and vegetable are less uniform and may contain more blemishes.

B. The items have a shorter shelf life.

C. Usually the items are more expensive.

D. All of these answers are disadvantages.

E. None of these answers is a disadvantage.

Answer: D Section: Can sustainable agriculture feed the world?

Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 54. Which of the following is an advantage of organic farming?

A. Fruits and vegetables grown without pesticides are typically blemish-free and have a long shelf life, since they are picked when ripe and waxed as protection.

B. Organic food is less expensive, since there are many subsidies available to organic farmers that get passed on to customers.

C. Food is healthier, as there is no pesticide residue on the produce and organic food may contain more antioxidants.

D. There is more genetic and species diversity, as crops can be grown without concern for what is climatically suitable to a given area.

E. Labels on organic food are clear and never misleading, as the certification process is stringent but straightforward.

Answer: C Section: Can sustainable agriculture feed the world?

Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 55. Which of the following is an advantage of sustainable farming for the farmer/environment?

A. The soil is not degraded.

B. There is less potential for water pollution.

C. Beneficial insects are not killed.

D. All of these answers are advantages.

E. None of these answers is an advantage.

Answer: D Section: Can sustainable agriculture feed the world?

Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 56. Many advantages and disadvantages are associated with sustainable farming techniques, for the environment, the consumer, and the farmer. Which of the following is FALSE? A. Sustainable farming is more labor intensive than traditional farming.

B. More subsidies are available for farmers who use sustainable techniques.

C. Soil is not degraded as much when sustainable agricultural techniques are used.

D. Usually, organic products are more expensive to the consumer.

E. All of these answers are true statements about sustainable farming.

Answer: B Section: Can sustainable agriculture feed the world?

Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 57. An increase in crop genetic diversity is an advantage of what kind of farming?

A. sustainable B. commercial C. global D. industrial E. All farming decreases genetic diversity.

Answer: A Section: Can sustainable agriculture feed the world?

Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Essay 58. As the human population continues to grow, we increase our demand for food.

Describe how we can meet increased food demand in a way that is sustainable for the long term.

FEEDBACK: Of the next billion humans to be added to our population, 99% will be born in developing countries, where meat is much less common in the diet compared with

populations in developed countries. However, as developing countries modernize, they are adopting habits (such as increased meat consumption) of those in the developed countries. The growing of meat products, especially beef, requires large amounts of energy (grains) and resources (water, land). In order to feed an estimated 10 billion humans in 2050, we need to minimize our meat consumption in favor of a plant-based diet, which is far more energy efficient in terms of production. In addition, sustainable farming techniques, including crop rotation, terrace and contour farming, reduced tillage, strip cropping, and cover crops, need to be employed to minimize soil erosion, nutrient loss, and the need for irrigation.

Section: Can sustainable agriculture feed the world?

Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating 59. Why is sustainable farming a better way to grow food? Provide three reasons. What are the trade-offs? Discuss three.

FEEDBACK: Sustainable farming is a better way to grow food for the following three reasons: (1) Both crops and animals raised organically have fewer residues of unwanted chemicals, such as antibiotics, pesticides, and growth hormones, than their counterparts from industrial models; (2) the environment is better protected with organic systems because there are fewer unintended environmental consequences from the runoff of pesticides and fertilizers and more biodiversity is protected (for example, beneficial insects are not killed by broad-spectrum pesticides); and (3) in some ways, it is a less expensive way to farm, since fewer and less costly inputs are required. There are some trade-offs, however, and most have to do with cost. For instance, though inputs in organic agriculture cost less, it is a very labor-intensive method because what is accomplished using chemicals in the industrial system (for example, pest control) must now be done manually, increasing labor costs. There are also other ways that sustainable farming is more expensive. Currently, sustainable farming has far fewer subsidies compared with industrially grown crops. This generally translates into sustainably grown food being more costly, as these additional costs get passed along to consumers.

Section: Can sustainable agriculture feed the world?

Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyze 60. Discuss several trade-offs associated with organic farming for the consumer, the farmer, and the environment.

FEEDBACK: Advantages of organic farming for consumers include better taste, freshness, foods with more antioxidants, and no pesticide residues on the products.

However, disadvantages include occasional blemishes on fruits and vegetables, a shorter shelf life, and products that are more expensive. Regarding the farmer and the environment, organics are advantageous because they have fewer and less costly inputs because of the lack of pesticides, herbicides, and inorganic fertilizers; the soil is not degraded because of the lack of synthetic fertilizers and the use of crop rotation; and there is less potential for water pollution. Disadvantages for farmers and the environment include the fact that the certification process is costly and time consuming, there are

fewer subsidies available to organic farmers, and not all crops can grow in all areas because native plants thrive more with organic techniques.

Section: Can sustainable agriculture feed the world?

Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

Matching Questions Match each term in the left-hand column to the statement that it best exemplifies.

1. eutrophication

2. agroecology 3. monoculture 4. sustainable agriculture

5. pesticide resistance 6. organic agriculture

7. industrial agriculture

8. polyculture 9. food miles

10. fertilizer

farming that does not use synthetic fertilizer, pesticides, GMOs, or other chemical additives like hormones (for animal rearing) (*6) crops that grow, produce seeds, and die in a single year and must be replanted each season (*15) the ability of a pest to withstand exposure to a given pesticide; the result of natural selection favoring the survivors of an original population that was exposed to the pesticide (*5) the use of a variety of methods to control a pest population, with the goal of minimizing or eliminating the use of chemical toxins (*12) the distance a food travels from its site of production to the consumer (*9) a farming method in which one variety of one crop is planted, typically in rows over huge swaths of land, with large inputs of fertilizer, pesticides, and water (*3) farming methods that rely on technology, synthetic chemical inputs, and economies of scale to increase productivity and profits (*7) nutrient enrichment of an aquatic ecosystem that stimulates excess plant growth and disrupts normal energy uptake and matter cycles (*1) claiming environmental benefits about a product when the benefits are actually minor or nonexistent (*14)

11. pesticide 12. integrated pest management (IPM) a scientific field that considers the area’s ecology and indigenous knowledge and favors methods that protect the environment and meet the needs of the local people

(*2) a natural or synthetic mixture that contains nutrients that is added to soil to boost plant growth (*10) a natural or synthetic chemical that kills or repels plant or animal pests (*11) crops that do not die at the end of the growing season but live for several years, which means they can be harvested annually without replanting (*16) a farming method in which a mix of different species are grown together in one area (*8) 13. carbon footprint

14. greenwashing 15. annual crops

farming methods that can be used indefinitely because they do not deplete resources, such as soil and water, faster than they are replaced (*4) the amount of carbon released to the atmosphere by a person, a company, a nation, or an activity (*13)

16. perennial crops Linked Questions Science Literacy Use the following graph from the Farming Systems Trial (FST) research study conducted by the Rodale Institute to answer the following five questions.

1. Using an organic method to grow crops instead of conventional farming methods saves _________ pounds of carbon dioxide per acres per year.

A. 906 B. 1,400 C. 949 D. 494 E. 1,490 Answer: D Section: Scientific literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 2. The energy input for conventionally grown crops in megajoules (MJ) per area per year is ____________.

A. 3,264 B. 4,568 C. 7,832 D. 1,304 Answer: B Section: Scientific literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 3. In this study, the FST compared traditional tillage (turning and breaking up the soil) with no-till treatments on different plots to examine the effect on crop growth. What would be the dependent variable in this experiment?

A. the traditional tilling method B. the no-till method C. the crop yield D. the type of crop used

Answer: B Section: Scientific literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 4. How much more profit could a farmer expect to make per acre per year if she used the organic farming method instead of the conventional farming method?

A. $558 B. $190 C. $748 D. $368 E. $465 Answer: D Section: Scientific literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 5. Which of the following statements is supported by the graph?

A. Organic farming methods increased all the variables examined in the study.

B. Conventional farming methods produce as much crop yield in pounds per acre per year as organic farming methods.

C. More profit can be made with less energy input when using organic farming methods instead of conventional farming methods.

D. There are economic benefits to using only organic farming methods instead of conventional farming methods.

Answer: C Section: Scientific literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Making Connections Use the following scenario to answer the next six questions.

Janis and John own a farm where they plant and harvest corn. The soil on the farm is not very rich in nutrients, so they use fertilizer. They also have to use water for irrigation, and pesticides to control the insect pests that eat the corn. Janis wants to try different farming methods. They use reduced tilling when planting the next year’s crops, and plants alfalfa in alternating rows with the corn crops. They also plant some perennial wheat, and release ladybugs to help control the insect pests in the fields.

1. Which of the following BEST describes the original farming methods Janis and John were using?

A. sustainable agriculture B. polyculture C. agroecology D. industrial agriculture

Answer: D Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 2. What is a problem Janis and John may encounter when using fertilizers on their corm crops?

A. increased soil productivity B. cultural eutrophication of nearby lakes C. increased crop yield D. decreased insect pests Answer: B Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 3. Using ladybugs in the fields to help control insect pests is an example of _____ control: A. cultural B. mechanical C. biological D. chemical Answer: C Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 4. The next year Janis and John alternate the corn crops with alfalfa in strips several rows wide. This method is called _____.

A. contour farming B. crop rotation C. strip cropping D. cover cropping E. terrace farming Answer: C Section: Making Connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 5. What advantage do Janis and John have planting perennial wheat instead of annual wheat?

A. a higher profit B. using more herbicides C. replanting every year D. reduced irrigation Answer: D

Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 6. What benefit does reduced tilling have?

A. reduced soil erosion and water needs B. reduced pest outbreaks C. increased soil fertility D. reduced water loss after a rainfall Answer: A Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

MODULE 8.3 1. The Beef Recall of 2007 was caused by contamination with _____.

A. genetically modified beef B. ammonia C. E. coli strain O157:H7 D. antibiotics E. irradiation Answer: C Section: Introduction Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Guiding Question 1 What environmental and health issues are associated with meat products like beef?

Multiple Choice 2. The U.S. Department of Agriculture recommends that all ground meat be cooked to an internal temperature of _____.

A. 98.6°F B. 100°F C. 140°F D. 160°F E. 200°F Answer: D Section: Environmental concerns of meat production Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 3. Which of the following is a reason cattle farmers and the beef industry argue for the current system of rearing animals?

A. Overconsumption of meat contributes to obesity and heart disease.

B. Air and water pollution increase in areas of CAFOs. C. Industrial-scale production allows meat suppliers to raise more beef than ever before.

D. The overuse of antibiotics in CAFO-reared livestock can lead to resistant strains of bacteria.

E. Meat can become contaminated at any stage of processing.

Answer: C Section: Environmental concerns of meat production Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 4. Which of the following would help reduce the risk of human infection by E. coli strain O157:H7?

A. steam-washing animals prior to slaughter

B. adequate refrigeration of beef by grocery stores C. cooking beef to an internal temperature of 160°F D. development of a cattle vaccine for E. coli strain O157:H7 E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: Environmental concerns of meat production Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

Essay 5. How would bacterial contamination of steak differ from that of ground beef? How does the U.S. Department of Agriculture recommend ground meat be cooked?

FEEDBACK: Fecal matter containing bacteria such as E. coli can contaminate the surface of a steak. Cooking the steak will likely kill that surface bacteria. When the steak is ground up into ground beef, the bacteria becomes evenly mixed within. Thus, in order to kill all of the bacteria, the USDA recommends that all ground meat be cooked to an internal temperature of 160°F. Section: Environmental concerns of meat production Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 6. According to the graph below, the incidence of E. coli foodborne illness in the United States has trended toward the set goal of no more than 0.6 cases per 100,000. What are some preharvest and postharvest strategies used in the beef industry to reduce E. coli contamination?

FEEDBACK: Preharvest strategies include antibiotics or a change in diet that aims to kill or minimize the bacteria in live cattle. Postharvest strategies, including irradiation or intense washing, are designed to remove bacterial contamination from slaughtered carcasses.

Section: Environmental concerns of meat production Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Applying Guiding Question 2 How does affluence affect diet and health?

Multiple Choice 7. Affluence is best described as _____.

A. diet B. wealth C. poverty D. consumption E. demand Answer: B Section: Meat consumption and affluence Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 8. Overconsumption of meat has been associated with which of the following?

A. diabetes B. some cancers C. cardiovascular disease D. diabetes, some cancers, and cardiovascular disease E. both diabetes and cardiovascular disease Answer: D Section: Meat consumption and affluence Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 9. According to researchers at the Harvard School of Public Health, increased consumption of __________ increases one’s risk of dying.

A. chicken B. tuna C. red meat D. turkey E. nonmeat sources of protein Answer: C Section: Meat consumption and affluence Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

10. ___________ affects diet by increasing the demand for animal food products.

A. Affluence B. A food recall C. Eating lower on the food chain D. Use of antibiotics E. Poverty Answer: A Section: Meat consumption and affluence Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 11. According to Infographic 2, in 2005 China’s annual per capita meat consumption was _____ kilograms/year.

A. 5,000 B. 125 C. 60 D. 20 E. The information cannot be determined from this infographic.

Answer: C Section: Meat consumption and affluence Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 12. According to Infographic 2, a country with a per capita gross domestic product of 20,000 U.S.$ PPP would most likely have a per capita meat consumption near _____ kilograms/year.

A. 2,000 B. 80 C. 100 D. 70 E. The information cannot be determined from this infographic.

Answer: B Section: Meat consumption and affluence Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 13. Infographic 2 tells us that eating one red meat serving per day ___________ compared with those who ate no red meat.

A. increases the risk of dying by 50% B. has no effect on the risk of dying C. decreases the risk of dying by about 25% D. increases the risk of dying by about 25% E. increases the risk of dying by about 1.25% Answer: D Section: Meat consumption and affluence Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Essay 14. According to Infographic 2, what is the relationship between income and consumption of meat for most nations? How is Japan different? Why do you think Japan is an outlier?

FEEDBACK: Globally, as income rises, so does the per capita consumption of meat.

Japan has a per capita gross domestic product just over 30,000 U.S.$ PPP. The best-fit line of the graph would predict a per capita meat consumption between 80 and 100 kilograms/year. However, Japan’s per capita meat consumption falls quite short of that value, at just over 40 kilograms/year. The Japanese diet consists largely of seafood and thus their consumption of red meat is less than expected.

Section: Meat consumption and affluence Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 15. Refer to Infographic 2. Explain the relationship between red meat consumption and mortality. In designing a study to test this relationship, what other variables that affect mortality would need to be controlled for (taken into account) to avoid confounding the results?

FEEDBACK: As daily red meat consumption goes up, so does the risk of death. In this particular study, controlled variables included age, smoking, physical activity, body size, family history of disease, and other dietary choices.

Section: Meat consumption and affluence Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating

Guiding Question 3 What resources are needed to rear different types of livestock?

Multiple Choice 16. According to most health experts, meat and dairy products are valuable sources of _____.

A. carbohydrates B. nucleic acids C. triglycerides D. proteins E. starches Answer: D Section: Converting feed and water into meat and dairy Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 17. The __________________ refers to the amount of edible food that is produced per unit of feed input.

A. output per input ratio B. feed conversion ratio C. product per feed ratio D. feed footprint E. weight per time ratio Answer: B Section: Converting feed and water into meat and dairy Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 18. Which of the following is LEAST efficient and slowest at converting the food it eats into body mass?

A. CAFO-reared cattle B. grass-fed cattle C. chickens D. pigs E. salmon Answer: B Section: Converting feed and water into meat and dairy Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 19. The water footprint to produce a pound of pork is _____.

A. 7 pounds B. 90 gallons C. 23 gallons D. 7 pounds of feed and 23 gallons of water E. The water footprint cannot be determined.

Answer: C Section: Converting feed and water into meat and dairy Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 20. Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. Seventy percent of cropland in the United States is used to grow food for livestock.

B. Globally, some 14.5% of greenhouse gas emissions due to human activity are from livestock.

C. Nearly 75% of U.S.-produced corn is used as animal feed.

D. Some 80% of beef cattle spend the last few months of their lives in CAFO pens.

E. None—all of these statements are true.

Answer: E Section: Converting feed and water into meat and dairy Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 21. By some estimates, 17 to 34 acres worth of grain crop are required to produce a ton of beef (about four cows). This same amount of land could have been used to grow food to feed ____________ times more people than the ton of beef can feed.

A. 1 to 2 B. 5 to 10 C. 10 to 20 D. 30 to 40 E. 90 to 100 Answer: B Section: Converting feed and water into meat and dairy Level: Easy Bloom’s Level: Remembering 22. How much of the corn produced in the United States is used as animal feed?

A. 15% B. 25% C. 55% D. 60% E. 75% Answer: E Section: Converting feed and water into meat and dairy Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Guiding Question 4 How are concentrated animal feeding operations (CAFOs) used to rear animals for food, and what are the pros and cons of this method?

Multiple Choice

23. Concentrated animal feeding operations (CAFOs) _____.

A. allow more beef to be produced with fewer animals B. require less grazing land per animal C. reduce the need for antibiotic application D. allow more beef to be produced with fewer animals, require less grazing land per animal, and reduce the need for antibiotic application E. both allow more beef to be produced with fewer animals and require less grazing land per animal Answer: E Section: Concentrated animal feeding operations Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 24. Concentrated animal feeding operations (CAFOs) _________ the risk of meat contamination with E. coli because ___________________.

A. decrease; animals lack antibiotics in their feed B. increase; animals tend to be covered in fecal matter when kept at high densities C. decrease; a comprehensive database allows for immediate tracing back to the producer where the infection originated D. increase; animals are exposed to higher levels of methane gas E. increase; they require more grazing land per animal Answer: B Section: 30.1 Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 25. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding cattle?

A. Cattle are adapted to digest corn.

B. Cattle gain weight faster when movement is restricted.

C. Antibiotics fed to cattle are not passed to consumers in the meat.

D. E. coli strain O157:H7 does not make cattle sick.

E. None of these answers is correct.

Answer: A Section: Concentrated animal feeding operations Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 26. In the United States, which of the following are predominantly raised in CAFOs? A. cattle B. pigs C. chickens D. cattle, pigs, and chickens E. both cattle and pigs Answer: D Section: Concentrated animal feeding operations Level: 1

Bloom’s Level: Remembering 27. In America, CAFOs have enabled all of the following EXCEPT _____.

A. the ability to grow many thousands more food animals B. increased availability of inexpensive meat to people of rising affluence C. cheaper fruits and vegetables D. increased availability of inexpensive meat to low-income individuals E. increased accessibility of meat to all people Answer: C Section: Concentrated animal feeding operations Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 28. According to the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations, CAFOs produce more than _____ of all our animal food and account for _________ of all animal farms.

A. 80%; 5% B. 75%; 10% C. 50%; 50% D. 90%; 90% E. 25%; 50% Answer: A Section: Concentrated animal feeding operations Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

29. Which of the following is a benefit of intense mechanized feedlot farming relative to traditional open-pasture farms?

A. Animals receive a highly diverse food supply.

B. Manure is easily harvested to be sold as fertilizer.

C. The amount of land required is minimized.

D. Animals receive a highly diverse food supply, manure is easily harvested to be sold as fertilizer, and the amount of land required is minimized.

E. Manure is easily harvested to be sold as fertilizer, and the amount of land required is minimized.

Answer: E Section: Concentrated animal feeding operations Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 30. What is a result from raising animals in CAFOs? A. loss of biodiversity B. antibiotic resistance C. habitat destruction

D. air and water pollution E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: Concentrated animal feeding operations Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 31. The _______ footprint refers to the amount of carbon dioxide or other greenhouse gases released by an action.

A. water B. feed C. carbon D. environmental E. ecological Answer: C Section: Concentrated animal feeding operations Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 32. Which of the following actions increases the carbon footprint?

A. eutrophication of waterways due to nitrogen and phosphorus from manure spills B. removal of natural vegetation from land in order to grow feed crops C. methane gas emitted by livestock D. eutrophication of waterways due to nitrogen and phosphorus from manure spills, removal of natural vegetation from land in order to grow feed crops, and methane gas emitted by livestock E. both removal of natural vegetation from land in order to grow feed crops and methane gas emitted by livestock Answer: E Section: Concentrated animal feeding operations Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 33. Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding antibiotic use in large-scale livestock operations prior to 2012?

A. Animals were given the same antibiotics that humans used to treat disease.

B. Antibiotics helped reduce the risk of disease spreading through high-density animal confinements.

C. Antibiotics escaped into the environment through contaminated water and soil.

D. Only sick animals received antibiotics.

E. None—all of these statements are correct.

Answer: D Section: Concentrated animal feeding operations Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

34. A cancer-causing toxin is fat soluble (it is stored in the fat tissue of an organism). In the following food chain, which organism would likely have the largest concentration of this toxin: plankton, small fish (eats plankton), larger fish (eats smaller fish), bird of prey (eats larger fish)?

A. plankton B. small fish C. larger fish D. bird of prey Answer: D Section: Concentrated animal feeding operations Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Essay 35. Describe why antibiotic resistance is likely to emerge as a result of raising livestock in concentrated animal feeding operations (CAFOs) where antibiotics are included in feed.

FEEDBACK: In CAFOs, antibiotics are typically applied to all animals as a way to prevent the spread of disease among animals living in higher densities. Antibiotics function by killing bacteria. However, in a population of bacteria, not all are killed. Some bacteria survive the antibiotic because of genetic differences that provide innate resistance. Thus, they survive and reproduce, making up the majority of the bacterial population. If the antibiotic is applied again, it will not successfully kill this population that has evolved resistance.

Section: Concentrated animal feeding operations Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating 36. List several reasons beef-industry representatives would argue for industrial-scale production of beef in concentrated animal feeding operations (CAFOs), and then list several objections raised by critics of this industrial model.

FEEDBACK: Proponents of CAFOs would argue that our food supply is safer than it has ever been; meat is part of a healthy diet; and CAFOs allow meat suppliers to produce more beef with fewer animals, saving land from being dedicated to grazing. Opponents of CAFOs would argue that food safety is compromised, citing the 2007 E. coli outbreak; overconsumption of meat is associated with obesity and heart disease; and the negative effects on the environment, including air and water pollution, are not sustainable.

Section: Concentrated animal feeding operations Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 37. List and describe several ethical issues involved with raising animals in CAFOs. FEEDBACK: Animals are raised in spaces much smaller than areas animals would naturally graze in. The ability to move and exercise is highly restricted. In tight quarters, animals are exposed to high concentrations of their own urine and feces, which present a

health hazard. In bird CAFOs, chickens are debeaked in order to lessen the chance of birds attacking each other in these confined spaces. For cattle, grain diets can lead to liver abscesses or intestinal tract damage.

Section: Concentrated animal feeding operations Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Applying 38. What are some advantages and disadvantages to feeding cattle grains instead of grass?

FEEDBACK: Cattle are transitioned from a diet of hay or grass to a diet supplemented with soybeans and grains (including corn, sorghum, and oats). When this diet is coupled with a lack of exercise, rapid weight gain is made possible. This greatly reduces the time required to bring an animal to market. Thus many more animals can be raised in a shorter time. In addition, the area of land required to rear livestock is much smaller than what would be required to allow cattle to graze on grass. Further, concentrated manure can be sold as fertilizer. However, these animals may suffer health problems such as liver abscesses or intestinal tract damage. Also, industrialized agriculture requires large monocultures of grains, fossil-fueled equipment, and chemical fertilizers and pesticides that degrade the environment. In addition, water, soil, and air near CAFOs are subject to contamination.

Section: Concentrated animal feeding operations Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

Guiding Question 5 How can the environmental impact of rearing livestock be reduced and what are the trade-offs of these actions?

Multiple Choice 39. If you pick up a package at the grocery store and it says, “grass-fed beef,” what does that mean?

A. The cows in the CAFOs were fed grass instead of grain.

B. The cows have adapted, through several generations at the same farm, to digest grass instead of grain.

C. The cows are allowed to roam freely and graze on pasturelands.

D. The cows eat grass and quickly gain weight, making the meat very tender.

E. Since they are grass-fed, the cows have also been given high amounts of antibiotics.

Answer: C Section: Reducing the environmental impact of livestock Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 40. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of grass-fed beef?

A. Animal sickness is less of a problem.

B. The meat has more omega-3 fatty acids.

C. There is a reduced need for antibiotics.

D. The animals gain weight nearly as rapidly as feedlot animals do.

Answer: D Section: Reducing the environmental impact of livestock Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 41. On a(n) _________ farm, chickens follow cows onto a pasture to consume fly larvae on manure, so the flies do not hatch and bother the cows.

A. monoculture B. polyculture C. feed-lot D. industrial E. CAFO Answer: B Section: Reducing the environmental impact of livestock Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 42. What do proponents claim as benefits to meat from free-range, grass-fed animals?

A. increased level of omega-3 fatty acids B. less saturated fat C. less weight gain D. both increased level of omega-3 fatty acids and less saturated fat E. increased level of omega-3 fatty acids, less saturated fat, and less weight gain

Answer: D Section: Reducing the environmental impact of livestock Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 43. Why are grass-fed animals considered to represent a net gain for the human food supply?

A. They are raised following ethical guidelines.

B. They eat only what they have naturally evolved to eat—that is, grass.

C. They eat grass that humans cannot eat on land that is otherwise unsuitable for human crops.

D. They are raised on pastureland that does not require pesticides and fertilizer.

E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: C Section: Reducing the environmental impact of livestock Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 44. What is a polyculture farm?

A. a farm that rears different species of animals together B. a farm that grows different species of crops together C. a farm that has a set rotation schedule for animal feedings in particular areas and growth schedules for crops D. a farm that relies less on fertilizers and pesticides E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: Reducing the environmental impact of livestock Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 45. The USDA only acknowledges free-range _____.

A. beef B. pork C. poultry D. salmon E. None of these answers is acknowledged as free-range by the USDA. Answer: C Section: Reducing the environmental impact of livestock Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 46. How would raising grass-fed animals ultimately affect ecological problems such as erosion and pollution from fertilizers and pesticides?

FEEDBACK: Since grass-fed animals eat just that, grass, they require little to no supplemental grain in their diets. Because of this, the amount of fertilizer and pesticides that are typically required to grow corn and other grain crops for cattle would not be used and would not pollute the water and air. Grass-fed animals prevent erosion because they are feeding on pasturelands, which are covered by plants. If managed properly, the animals typically do not eat the plants all the way to the roots, which allows the plants to stay rooted in the ground and hold the soil in place.

Section: Reducing the environmental impact of livestock Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 47. Do sustainable animal rearing methods address the disadvantages of CAFOs? FEEDBACK: The disadvantages of CAFOs—namely, environmental problems, ethical issues, and human health concerns—can all be mitigated, to some extent, with sustainable rearing methods. For example, a polyculture farm does not have the ethical concerns that a CAFO elicits because the animals are allowed to roam free, interact with nature, and eat what millennia of adaptation has bred them to eat. Polyculture farms also mitigate human health concerns, such as meat contaminated with harmful bacteria, because the animals are not kept in close quarters and are not exposed to their feces at the same level that CAFO animals are exposed. Environmental issues, like pollution, habitat destruction, and greenhouse gas production, can also be largely decreased or eliminated through sustainable rearing methods because the animals themselves are eating grass instead of large quantities of grain, which reduces the fossil fuels and environmental pollutants (fertilizer, pesticides) needed to farm such mass quantities of corn. Polyculture farms, for example, also decrease the amount of habitat destruction because they do not require the acres and acres of farmland dedicated to growing grain.

Section: Reducing the environmental impact of livestock Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 48. Do you think sustainable animal rearing methods can supply enough meat and other animal products to meet the current levels of demand for such items in the United States?

Based on your answer, do you think this is a bad thing?

FEEDBACK: The United States has the highest per capita consumption of meat in the world. Since over half of all meat products currently consumed come from CAFOs, it is unlikely that sustainable animal rearing methods would be able to keep up with this demand. However, by many measures, Americans are eating too much meat in their diets, so the fact that sustainable farming would provide less meat and at higher prices could help to mitigate concerning health trends like obesity and heart disease.

Section: Reducing the environmental impact of livestock Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating

Guiding Question 6 How can agricultural policies address food supply and safety issues?

Multiple Choice 49. Which of the following historical federal policies has/have supported the CAFO model?

A. subsidies that allow feedlot operators to buy grain for less than it costs to grow B. FDA approval for routine use of antibiotics in animal feed C. lax regulation of wastewater treatment D. subsidies that allow feedlot operators to buy grain for less than it costs to grow, FDA approval for routine use of antibiotics in animal feed, and lax regulation of wastewater treatment E. both FDA approval for routine use of antibiotics in animal feed and lax regulation of wastewater treatment Answer: D Section: Agricultural policies Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

50. According to Infographic 6, food safety and the environment are most important to which economic development status group?

A. low development, many smallholders B. slow industrialization C. rapid industrialization D. postindustrial nations E. This cannot be determined from the infographic.

Answer: D Section: Agricultural policies Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 51. When developing policy objectives, which economic development status group shown in Infographic 6 needs to focus most equally on all four factors?

A. low development, many smallholders B. slow industrialization C. rapid industrialization D. postindustrial nations E. This cannot be determined from the infographic.

Answer: C Section: Agricultural policies Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 52. Which of the following is a UN FAO recommendation regarding livestock production?

A. Plant-based diets must be adopted globally.

B. Environmental concerns outweigh food-security concerns in most countries.

C. The biggest issue for developing countries is food safety.

D. The focus of an agricultural policy should depend on the level of industrialization.

E. Postindustrial countries should help bolster food security in developing countries.

Answer: D Section: Agricultural policies Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Applying

53. U.S. food policies largely support ___________ agriculture.

A. sustainable B. industrial C. traditional D. organic E. subsidy-free Answer: B Section: Agricultural policies Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 54. The original U.S. Farm Bill was created during which time period?

A. the Great Depression B. the 1980s farming crisis C. the 1970s corn blight D. the end of World War II E. 2008–2010 Answer: A Section: Agricultural policies Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 55. Kim Ferraro says the true price of producing beef should be reflected in the purchasing price of beef. This would include _____.

A. environmental costs B. costs of air pollution C. land degradation costs D. water depletion costs E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: Agricultural policies Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 56. Which U.S. Farm Bill legislation policies have been adapted or removed in recent years?

A. lax regulation of wastewater treatment B. routine use of antibiotics C. subsidies that enable feedlot operators to buy grain for less than it costs to grow D. both routine use of antibiotics and subsidies that enable feedlot operators to buy grain for less than it costs to grow E. lax regulation of wastewater treatment, routine use of antibiotics, and subsidies that enable feedlot operators to buy grain for less than it costs to grow Answer: D

Section: Agricultural policies Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 57. In terms of energy inputs required for raising beef, compare the industrial model, where cattle are fed grains, with a grass-fed model, where animals graze on pastureland.

When considering agricultural policy, which method is more sustainable?

FEEDBACK: In the industrial model, fossil fuels are required to power machinery and to produce the chemical fertilizers and pesticides needed to maximize grain yield. Fossil fuels, such as oil, are nonrenewable resources that are being consumed rapidly. In contrast, the energy of the Sun is used to power photosynthesis in pasture grasses. Solar power is renewable. In addition, these “free-range” cattle eat a more natural diet and require fewer, if any, synthetic inputs of fertilizer or pesticides. Although producing less overall meat than the industrial model, the “grass-fed” model produces beef more sustainably.

Section: Agricultural policies Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 58. What was the rationale for the original U.S. Farm Bill? What was it designed to do?

FEEDBACK: The original U.S. Farm Bill was created to provide a safety net for farmers and therefore help retain them in a business with much risk, including threats from weather, disease, and global economics. It ensured that farmers would be paid at least as much as it cost to produce the food. Specifically, farmers were encouraged to allow some farmland to recover and rejuvenate and keep prices high by preventing a flooded market.

In addition, storage programs for corn and soybeans helped stabilize prices between good and bad growing seasons.

Section: Agricultural policies Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 59. Infographic 6 depicts UN FAO recommendations for taking into account the importance of each of four factors in developing a country’s policies regarding raising livestock. Describe the shift in importance of factors as a country’s income increases and the percentage of the country’s income that comes from raising livestock decreases.

FEEDBACK: For low-income, developing countries (low development, many smallholders, and slow industrialization), food security and livelihoods are most important. Farmers need help to earn a living raising livestock and increasing access to affordable food for local citizens. As income increases (rapid industrialization and then to postindustrial nations), priority shifts to food safety and the protection of the environment. Here, food security and livelihoods are less of a concern.

Section: Agricultural policies Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 60. According to journalist and sustainable-food advocate Michael Pollan, “Cheap food is dishonestly priced. It is, in fact, unconscionably expensive.” What does this mean for beef production and consumption in the United States, and what can be done about it?

FEEDBACK: Pollan is stating that the price consumers currently pay for meat does not include the true cost of producing that meat. For example, the true costs would need to factor in fully the cost to produce and harvest the grains fed to cattle. This would include costs such as fossil fuels for machinery, synthetic fertilizers and pesticides, freshwater demands, loss of topsoil, and contamination of air, water, and soil. Federal subsidies enable feedlot operators to buy grain for less than it costs to grow. In addition, environmental costs from large-scale livestock operations, including greenhouse gas emissions and soil and water contamination from manure lagoons, are not factored in. If large-scale industrial livestock operations were required to treat their waste as other industries are, that higher price would be passed on to consumers. Further, health costs attributed to meat, including cardiovascular diseases, diabetes, and E. coli outbreaks, need to be included in order to reflect the true costs.

Section: Agricultural policies Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating

Guiding Question 7 What are the benefits of eating lower on the food chain or eating less meat, especially beef?

Multiple Choice 61. By 2050, an estimated 9.6 billion people will live on Earth. Which of the following would best help to ensure sustainable food security for all humans?

A. a decrease in the price of fast-food restaurant burgers in developing countries B. an increase from 50% to 90% in the number of animal farms that are CAFOs C. the minimization or elimination of dairy products in the diets of most adults D. a cultural shift involving a decrease in meat consumption in favor of a more plantbased diet Answer: D Section: Consumer choices Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 62. If U.S. agricultural policy changes and CAFOs give way to more pasture-raised cattle, we will have ______ meat which will be _____ expensive.

A. less; less B. more; less C. less; more D. more; less E. no; more Answer: C Section: Consumer choices Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 63. “Eating lower on the food chain” means _____.

A. becoming a vegan—not consuming any animal products, even eggs or cheese B. becoming a vegetarian—cutting out all meat from your diet C. eating chicken instead of beef D. spending more money on grass-fed beef E. reducing meat and dairy consumption for more plant-based food Answer: E Section: Consumer choices Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 64. In terms of how much energy input is required to produce food, it is more energetically efficient to consume which of the following?

A. steak B. milk C. tuna

D. eggs E. broccoli Answer: E Section: Consumer choices Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 66. What does it mean to “eat lower on the food chain?” How can it help make livestock production more sustainable?

FEEDBACK: Eating lower on the food chain means replacing meats in the diet with more fruits and vegetables. This will help make livestock production more sustainable, since less meat will be available without grain-fed cattle in a large-scale industrialized CAFO model.

Section: Consumer choices Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 67. Your friend refers to herself as a “meat and potatoes kind of girl.” That was the way she was raised. How could you describe to her the benefits to both the environment and to her personal health of a more plant-based diet with reduced meat consumption?

FEEDBACK: The production of meat using a large-scale industrialized CAFO model is not sustainable in terms of the energy inputs required (fossil fuels) or the environmental degradation to the air, water, and soil it causes. More sustainable methods produce smaller volumes of meat. This means that, as the human population continues to grow, less meat will be available per person and it will be more expensive. From a personal health standpoint, diets rich in meats are associated with various diseases, including cancer, heart disease, and diabetes.

Section: Consumer choices Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 68. Referring to the graph below, explain how the number of people an area of land can support varies with the meat content of their diet. What happens to that relationship when the total consumption of fat per day increases to 35% or more?

FEEDBACK: Dietitians recommend that diets contain between 10% and 30% fat. At 20% total consumption of fat per day, a diet with no meat can support 600,000 people in the study area. As the meat content increases, the carrying capacity drops (2 ounces of meat per person per day supports 500,000 people; 6 ounces of meat per person per day supports 350,000 people; 12 ounces of meat per person per day supports 200,000 people).

However, when total consumption of fat per day rises to 35% or higher, the difference in carrying capacity between the high- and low-meat-content diets is minimized, especially between no meat and 2 ounces of meat.

Section: Consumer choices Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

Matching Questions Match each term in the left-hand column to the statement that it best exemplifies.

1. concentrated animal feeding operation (CAFO) 2. affluence

3. feed conversion ratio 4. water footprint 5. carbon footprint 6. U.S. Farm Bill

the amount of carbon dioxide (CO2) or other greenhouse gases released by an action; it is a concern because it contributes to climate change (*5) a situation in which meat or dairy animals are raised in confined spaces, maximizing the number of animals that can be reared in a small area (*1) the state of having great wealth (*2) legislation that deals with many aspects of the production and sale of farm-raised commodity crops (*6) the amount of edible food that is produced per unit of feed input (*3) the amount of water consumed by a given group (that is, person or population) or for a process (such as raising livestock) (*4)

Linked Questions Science Literacy Use Infographic 5 below to answer the following five questions.

1. How much greenhouse gas emissions per pound could be saved if someone switched from eating beef to chicken?

A. 97 kg B. 78 kg C. 9 kg D. 88 kg E. 19 kg Answer: C Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 2. What is the order of land area needed from LEAST to GREATEST to produce the types of animal meat for consumption?

A. beef → dairy → pork → eggs B. beef → pork → poultry C. poultry → pork → beef D. eggs → poultry → dairy → beef Answer: B Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 3. Approximately how many liters of irrigation water are needed to produce a pound of beef in the United States?

A. 1,400 B. 1,500 C. 16,000 D. 18,000 Answer: C Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 4. The total amount of greenhouse gas emissions per pound of protein consumed in the United States for all the prominent types of livestock grown is _____ kg.

A. 97 B. 147 C. 125 D. 22 Answer: B Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

5. The type of livestock that contributes the most to land area used, water irrigation, and greenhouse gas emissions is _____.

A. eggs B. pork C. dairy D. poultry E. beef Answer: E Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Making Connections Use the following scenario to answer the next four questions.

Your friend Mike loves steak and eats it several times a week. You are trying to help him change his habits to eat lower on the food chain for his health and the good of the environment. He says he needs more protein in his diet, since he plays sports, and “rabbit food” won’t help him build muscle He says cows turn food we can’t eat into food we can eat. Another friend of yours, Susan, wants to cut out meat but isn’t sure if she will continue to eat animal products like dairy and eggs.

1. What could you tell Mike about the health issues of eating meat?

A. Meat is the best way to get enough protein in his diet.

B. Overconsumption of meat can lead to heart disease and increases the risk of cancer.

C. A healthy vegan diet can provide as much protein as eating meat.

D. All of these answers are health issues.

E. Overconsumption of meat can lead to heart disease and increases the risk of cancer, and a healthy vegan diet can provide as much protein as eating meat are correct.

Answer: E Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 2. You tell Mike about the feed conversion ratio of different animals, and you recommend if he won’t give up eating meat, then he could consume meat with the lowest feed conversion ratio. This would be _____.

A. pork B. beef C. poultry Answer: C Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

3. If Mike does want to continue to eat beef, what is the BEST suggestion you can make to him?

A. He should eat hamburgers instead of steak, since he is less likely to have health issues with hamburgers.

B. He ought to reduce his beef intake by swapping beef for other meats or plant-based foods a day or two day a week.

C. He should feel good for knowing plants cannot provide the protein he needs to continue his activity level.

D. All of these answers are good suggestions.

Answer: B Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 4. Susan asks you if she should cut out all animal products to help the environment.

Thinking back to your environmental science class, to help Susan decide, you tell her that _____.

A. raising cows for dairy products uses less than 90% of the land and water that raising cattle for meat does B. excluding eggs and dairy as part of a vegan diet will not result in any extra land to help feed more people C. all grasslands can support food crops and should not be used to raise animals for meat or dairy products D. All of these are true statements you can tell Susan to help her decide.

Answer: A Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

MODULE 8.4 Guiding Question 1 What types of industrial fishing methods are used today and what are their impacts?

Multiple Choice 1. Nontarget species that become trapped in fishing nets and are usually discarded are known as __________.

A. target catch B. endangered species C. bycatch D. depleted fisheries E. fishing down the food chain Answer: C Section: Modern industrial fishing Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 2. What is likely to be the MOST important global impact of bycatch?

A. loss of ocean biodiversity B. acidification and coral bleaching C. sediment pollution D. habitat destruction E. increase in invasive species Answer: A Section: Modern industrial fishing Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Applying 3. Many marine species are accidentally caught and killed in nets. Which of the following marine species’ populations have been reduced as a result of bycatch from fishing?

A. dolphins B. sea turtles C. sea birds D. dolphins, sea turtles, and sea birds E. both sea turtles and sea birds Answer: D Section: Modern industrial fishing Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 4. Bycatch is a problem with this method of fishing, which uses a free-floating net that entangles fish and has been banned in many areas, including the United States.

A. long-line fishing B. pole fishing

C. bottom trawling D. drift netting E. dynamite Answer: D Section: Modern industrial fishing Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 5. Major issues associated with the fishing technique of bottom trawling include ________.

A. bycatch B. damaged seabed C. sediment plume D. ecosystem damage E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: E Section: Modern industrial fishing Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 6. A fishery is considered collapsed when the annual catches fall below _____ of their historic high. The stocks can no longer support the fishery.

A. 10% B. 25% C. 50% D. 75% E. 90% Answer: A Section: Modern industrial fishing Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 7. A fishery with annual catches below 10% of their historic levels that has reduced reproductive capacity is called ___________.

A. overexploited B. collapsed C. exhausted D. finite E. shrunken Answer: B Section: Modern industrial fishing Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 8. The Grand Banks area ______________.

A. will be closed to fishing starting in 2030

B. has recovered since the moratorium on fishing was enacted in the early 1990s C. has never qualified as being a collapsed fishery D. boasts the largest number of commercial RAS facilities in the world E. was once a prolific cod fishery in the Atlantic Answer: E Section: Modern industrial fishing Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 9. In Frenchman Bay, Maine, the objective of David Alves’ program is to “turn fishers into fish farmers.” What does this mean, and why does he call this the “future of fishing”?

FEEDBACK: The program shows how to raise cod from hatchlings to full-sized adults, including how to feed them, monitor their health, and ultimately prepare them for sale.

Program participants are shown coastal net pens, where fish are raised in a system of stationary, floating nets, usually positioned in coastal waters as well as an indoor fish farm where the same types of fish are raised in indoor tanks. This is important to the fishermen who rely on cod for their livelihood. The traditional method of harvesting wild fish from the depths of the ocean using factory ships and huge fishing nets decimated the wild population because it was unsustainable. If we are to continue using fish such as cod as a source of protein and if fishermen are to continue making their living in this industry, the future of fishing is aquaculture.

Section: Modern industrial fishing Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 10. One of the most serious threats to many marine species is the accidental capture of bycatch. Describe some ways to lessen the impact of bycatch on marine populations.

ANSWER: Improvement in technology along with changes in the design of nets can significantly reduce the amount of bycatch. Incentives and fines could be used to ensure that the fishing fleet is using the latest in technology to reduce bycatch. Additionally, markets could be created to use the bycatch instead of returning the dead bycatch to the ocean, and tariffs or bans on fish imported from countries not using the latest methods to reduce bycatch could be passed.

Section: Modern industrial fishing Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Applying 11. Overfishing decimated the cod fisheries in North America. How can this information be used to educate other North American fisheries to prevent the same thing from happening?

ANSWER: It can be difficult to explain to people that the methods they have been using for decades are having a negative impact on fish populations and if they do not change their methods, the fish population may collapse. The cod story could be used to explain that even with a robust fish such as the cod, poor management and overfishing can

decimate and destroy the fish population over time. Additionally, it can be shown that even after fishing was halted, the cod population did not recover and all of the individuals whose livelihoods were based on the cod industry lost their jobs.

Section: Modern industrial fishing Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Guiding Question 2 How do technology and the tragedy of the commons interact to jeopardize global fisheries?

Multiple Choice 12. Which statement about fish is FALSE? A. In poorer nations, the cost of fish is cheaper compared with meat and poultry.

B. More than 15% of the world’s population relies on fish as their main source of protein.

C. Even though fish is a popular protein choice, humans consume more beef, pork, and chicken than fish.

D. Many trendy diets are based on fish consumption.

E. The FDA recommends that Americans consume two servings of fish per week.

Answer: C Section: Industrial fishing and the tragedy of the commons Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 13. Which of the following statements about the Atlantic cod is FALSE? A. The cod fishery was the economic backbone of colonial New England and Canada.

B. Twenty years after the moratorium on cod fishing, 40,000 people are still out of work and reliant on government support.

C. Cod became the source of New England’s early wealth.

D. By 1992, the annual catch had dropped to just 2% of its historic high.

E. None—all of these statements are true.

Answer: E Section: Industrial fishing and the tragedy of the commons Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 14. Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. Developing countries are dependent on fish as a source of protein as well as revenue.

B. More than half of all fish sold in the global market comes from developing countries.

C. Fish make up the single biggest developing-country export.

D. More than 200 million people around the world earn their living in the fishing industry.

E. None—all of these statements are true.

Answer: E Section: Industrial fishing and the tragedy of the commons Level: 1

Bloom’s Level: Remembering 15. Many people consider the open ocean to be an example of a commons because _______.

A. many different fish populations congregate in the open ocean B. the open ocean is host to an international fishery C. the open ocean supports high biodiversity D. the open ocean is the ideal environment for aquaculture E. fishing is prohibited in the open ocean Answer: B Section: Industrial fishing and the tragedy of the commons Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 16. About 28.8% of the global fish stock is considered overfished. The reason fisheries have experienced such pressure is because __________.

A. the growing human population requires protein, leading to a greater demand on fisheries B. technological advances allow us to fish so efficiently that often every single fish is removed from an area C. given that no nation can lay legal claim to resources in the open ocean, these resources are more susceptible to overuse and degradation D. A, B, and C E. A and B Answer: D Section: Industrial fishing and the tragedy of the commons Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

17. The collapse of fish populations is caused by many different factors. Which of the following technological advances aided in this collapse?

A. steam engines B. flash freezing C. trawler ships D. huge nets E. all of these answers Answer: E Section: Industrial fishing and the tragedy of the commons Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 18. The tragedy of the commons states that any resource to which a group of people have free access is likely to become ______ and degraded as each seeks to ______ personal benefit without consideration for the needs of others.

A. overexploited; minimize

B. overexploited; maximize C. underexploited; minimize D. underexploited; maximize E. bountiful; maximize Answer: B Section: Industrial fishing and the tragedy of the commons Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 19. Factors that contribute to the collapse of global fisheries include ________.

A. increased human demand for fish B. powerful ships with extended ranges C. flash freezing techniques D. fishing practices like bottom-trawling E. All of these answers contribute to the global collapse of fisheries.

Answer: E Section: Industrial fishing and the tragedy of the commons Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

Essay 20. What role do fish play in human diets? What drives consumption of fish in poorer and wealthier countries?

FEEDBACK: Humans consume more seafood each year than beef, pork, and chicken combined. More than 15% of the world’s population relies on fish as their main source of protein. In poorer nations, the cheaper cost of seafood compared with meat and poultry drives that preference. In wealthier countries, seafood demand is increasing with new understanding of the health benefits associated with omega-3 fatty acids found in fish oils. In 2011, the Food and Drug Administration doubled the recommended amount of fish in its nutritional guidelines from one serving to two servings per week.

Section: Industrial fishing and the tragedy of the commons Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 21. What is the tragedy of the commons? How do fishing technology and the tragedy of the commons intersect to jeopardize global fisheries?

FEEDBACK: The tragedy of the commons is the quandary that arises from a situation in which individuals, acting in self-interest, will ultimately deplete and degrade (the tragedy) a shared resource to which they have free access (the commons), even when it is clear that doing so is not in anyone’s long-term interest. Ocean ecosystems and fisheries are considered a global commons, as beyond the exclusive economic zone, the ocean is not easily regulated and has thus been subject to overexploitation by a global fleet of fishing ships. For an individual fisher, the choice is clear: “If I don’t take it, someone else

will.” So it doesn’t make sense to leave any fish behind when the immediate benefit of taking the fish is greater than the immediate cost, even if it means that there will be fewer fish to harvest in the future. For a long time, it seemed improbable that we could ever use up the resources in something as vast as the ocean, which makes up 70% of the planet.

But industrial fishing techniques such as long-line fishing (a main line holds many individual lines with baited hooks) and bottom trawling (huge nets are dragged across the ocean floor), along with industrial ships that are essentially floating factories with sophisticated freezing and processing technology, enabled fishers to travel farther into the ocean, catch more fish, and transport them greater distances than ever before. The net result was that fish populations plummeted, and in addition, the increased traffic of fuelguzzling ships polluted the water; other marine species that lived in the same waters were lost as bycatch; and bottom trawler ships did irreparable damage to the seabed, thus jeopardizing global fisheries.

Section: Industrial fishing and the tragedy of the commons Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 22. Refer to the graph in Infographic 2. Adult cod are quite large and live close to the sea floor. They eat a wide variety of fish, as well as mussels, squid, and crab. Their diet and early life-cycle stages depend on a seabed with a complex structure. Spawning schools of more than a hundred million fish have been observed, and the average female can spawn millions of eggs. How is it possible that in 1992 the Canadian government had to close the cod fishery?

FEEDBACK: Fishing practices devastated the population. Trawling methods that drag a heavy net across the sea floor seriously degraded the cods’ habitat and spawning beds.

Coupled with the increased technology that made fishing more efficient and damaging, the industry increased fishing pressures to meet growing demand for fish. More fish were harvested than could be replaced.

Section: Industrial fishing and the tragedy of the commons Level: 2

Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question 2 What is fishing down the food chain, and how does it jeopardize fish populations?

Multiple Choice 23. Overfishing of upper-trophic-level fish has led to humans seeking new species to harvest at lower trophic levels. This is called fishing __________.

A. down the food chain B. up the food chain C. through the food chain D. sustainably E. artificially Answer: A Section: Fishing disrupts ocean food chains Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 24. Refer to the Marine Food Pyramid in Infographic 3. The overfishing of which trophic level would most greatly affect that ecosystem?

A. TL5 B. TL4 C. TL3 D. TL2 E. Overfishing of any level would have the same effect on the ecosystem.

Answer: D Section: Fishing disrupts ocean food chains Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 25. The Marine Trophic Index has decreased dramatically since 1990. What does this statement mean?

A. Invasive species are taking over the oceans.

B. Higher-level predators are declining in numbers.

C. Whale numbers have made a dramatic increase.

D. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: B Section: Fishing disrupts ocean food chains Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 26. Refer to the graph in Infographic 3. What does the figure show?

A. fish catch in the 1960s containing mostly lower-trophic-level fish, suggesting that higher-trophic-level fish populations had been depleted B. the size of fish catch that could be harvested in any given year without decreasing the yield in future years C. the decrease in the size of the bycatch of different trophic levels over time as fishing technology improved D. a plot of the Marine Trophic Index from 1950 to 2006, which is a measure of the average trophic level of fish taken in a given year and which is an indicator of the status of a marine ecosystem E. the annual size of the cod harvest from 1950 to 2006 Answer: D Section: Fishing disrupts ocean food chains Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Essay

27. Refer to Infographic 3. What can cause a marine food pyramid to look like the one shown in the figure? What effects can it have on the fishing industry and on the ability of top-trophic-level fish to recover?

FEEDBACK: When top-trophic-level fish, such as cod or tuna, are lost to overharvesting, fishers will pursue organisms at lower trophic levels, as the catches will tend to contain mostly lower-trophic-level fish. Although fish lower on the food chain are seen as less desirable for human consumption, vendors have been able to rebrand certain fish, such as the invasive Asian carp as “silverfin,” to increase sales. When fishers pursue herring, crab, and shrimp at lower trophic levels, this reduces the food supply for the cod that remain, and it jeopardizes their recovery. In addition, the increased number of lowertrophic-level populations can feed on the same food required by the young top predators (such as cod) or feed on them directly, thus making their recovery more difficult.

Section: Fishing disrupts ocean food chains Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Guiding Question 3 What is the current status of the world’s fisheries?

Multiple Choice 28. Compared with 1950, only ______ of the large fish like tuna, cod, and halibut remain in the oceans.

A. 10% B. 25% C. 50%

D. 75% E. 90% Answer: A Section: Current status of global fisheries Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 29. More than half of the world’s fisheries are at ___________ yield, the amount of fish that can be harvested without decreasing the yield in future years.

A. overexploitation B. maximum sustainable C. depletion D. bycatch E. fishery maximum Answer: B Section: Current status of global fisheries Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 30. What percent of global marine fisheries are overexploited?

A. 10.2 B. 24.6 C. 29.0 D. 42.5 E. 50.9 Answer: C Section: Current status of global fisheries Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 31. Refer to Infographic 4. The figure shows fish catches in the Newfoundland–Labrador Shelf area of the North Atlantic. Describe the shift in the species and amounts taken in 1968, 1990, and 2005.

FEEDBACK: In 1968, the combined catch of all groups (expressed in thousands of tons) peaked at 1,330,000 tons of fish. Cod-like fishes made up most of the catch. In 1990, the combined catch had decreased to less than 600,000 tons of fish. Notably, cod made up less than 50% of the total catch. By 2005, the total catch was less than 400,000 tons of fish. Most species taken were mollusks and crustaceans.

Section: Current status of global fisheries Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question 4 What legal protections address threats to fisheries?

Multiple Choice 32. Many nations have tried to protect their fisheries by the creation of ______, which extend 200 nautical miles from the coastline and give exclusive rights over marine resources.

A. inclusive economic zones B. exclusive economic zones C. exclusive fishing zones D. marine protection areas E. marine reserves Answer: B Section: Protections for fisheries Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

33. __________ are discrete regions of ocean that are legally protected from various forms of human exploitation.

A. Marine economic zones B. Marine sanctuaries C. Marine buffer zones D. Marine-protected areas E. Ocean habitat areas Answer: D Section: Protections for fisheries Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 34. The Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act is the primary law in the United States that governs marine fisheries. The act and subsequent amendments focus on________.

A. rebuilding overfished fisheries B. protecting ecosystems C. reducing bycatch D. catch share programs E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: Protections for fisheries Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 35. One of the major problems of managing marine fisheries is the amount of illegal, unreported, and unregulated fishing. It is estimated that the revenue from these practices is _______ annually.

A. $1 to $5 million B. $50 to $100 million C. $1 to $5 billion D. $4 to $9 billion E. $20 to $30 billion Answer: D Section: Protections for fisheries Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 36. The Marine Stewardship Council defines a sustainable fishery as one that ensures that __________________.

A. fish stocks are maintained at healthy levels B. the ecosystem is fully functional C. fishing activity does not threaten biological diversity D. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: D Section: Protections for fisheries

Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 37. As a marine biologist, you notice that the coral reefs around the Florida Keys are depleting rapidly. Which of the following choices would be MOST effective in protecting the coral reefs?

A. marine reserves B. exclusive economic zones C. marine-protected areas D. conservation easements E. shelterbelts Answer: A Section: Protections for fisheries Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 38. The difference between a marine-protected area and a marine reserve is __________.

A. marine reserves are found only outside of the exclusive economic zone B. cultural artifacts are protected only by marine reserves C. no fishing is allowed in a marine reserve D. a marine-protected area maintains a higher level of ecosystem biodiversity Answer: C Section: Protections for fisheries Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 39. Explain the difference between a marine-protected area and a marine reserve.

FEEDBACK: A marine-protected area is a discrete region of the ocean that is legally protected from various forms of human exploitation. Many MPAs protect only certain elements within the area (certain species of fish; a discrete portion of the habitat, such as a spawning ground; or a cultural artifact, like a sunken ship). A marine reserve is a restricted area where all fishing is prohibited and no human disturbance is allowed.

Section: Protections for fisheries Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 40. Many countries have exclusive economic zones (EEZs). How are these EEZs supposed to protect fish populations, and what are the problems with EEZs? FEEDBACK: Countries have enacted EEZs as a method to protect dwindling fish populations. EEZs extend 200 nautical miles from the coastline of a given nation, and within that zone the nation has exclusive rights over marine resources. The problem is that some fish populations are migratory and will pass through several EEZs, where their numbers can be overharvested and poorly managed.

Section: Protections for fisheries

Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question 6 What is aquaculture, what are its pros and cons, and how can its cons be addressed?

Multiple Choice 41. What is aquaculture?

A. fishing without the use of trawl nets and thus without bycatch B. the marine resources, including fish, that are found within 200 nautical miles of the coastline of any given nation, where that nation has exclusive rights C. finding a use for nontarget species that become trapped in fishing nets and are usually discarded D. farming fish by rearing fish in tanks, ponds, or ocean net pens E. a fishery that ensures that fish stocks are maintained at healthy levels, the ecosystem is fully functional, and fishing activity does not threaten biological diversity Answer: D Section: Aquaculture: Traditional fishing methods Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 42. The difference(s) between fishing and aquaculture is/are ___________.

A. fish populations in aquaculture operations are typically more genetically uniform than wild fish captured by fishing fleets B. unlike fish harvested from the ocean, aquaculture operations have historically been much smaller, producing just enough fish to feed a family or a small village C. the size of the catch in fishing is limited by the size of the wild population, whereas in aquaculture, fish production is primarily limited by the size of the area in which organisms can be grown D. unlike fishing operations, aquaculture produces higher concentrations of waste that can pollute aquatic ecosystems in which they are housed E. All of these answers are differences between fishing and aquaculture.

Answer: E Section: Aquaculture: Traditional fishing methods Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 43. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding aquaculture?

A. Aquaculture provides a reliable protein source and thus needed nutrition for a growing human population.

B. As aquaculture grows in scale, the reduced pressure on natural fisheries is better for ocean biodiversity as it reduces bycatch.

C. The dense concentration of farmed fish makes it easier to prevent disease outbreaks from occurring, and thus food security is always assured.

D. Aquaculture is more energy efficient, as it uses less fossil fuel and produces more fish per unit area than open-water fishing operations.

E. All of these answers are true statements about aquaculture.

Answer: C Section: Aquaculture: Traditional fishing methods Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 44. Which statement about aquaculture is TRUE? A. Despite technological advances, fish farms still lag behind traditional fisheries in production.

B. Most fish species are able to reproduce in captivity, which made adoption of these species to aquaculture that much easier.

C. Aquaculture was only recently developed and practiced.

D. In 2009, aquaculture provided more than half of all seafood consumed worldwide.

E. The United States has the highest levels of seafood produced by aquaculture in the world.

Answer: D Section: Aquaculture: Traditional fishing methods Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 45. Aquaculture and fisheries both ___________________.

A. are sources of food and livelihood for people B. exploit renewable natural resources C. have significant potential for environmental degradation D. require significant energy resources E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: Aquaculture: Traditional fishing methods Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 46. Which of the following is NOT a problem associated with net pen and pond aquaculture?

A. use of antibiotics and pesticides B. disruption of human life in coastal communities C. escape of non-native or GMO species D. large amounts of waste released into the environment E. increased rates of disease and parasites relative to wild fish Answer: B Section: Aquaculture: Traditional fishing methods Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 47. Aquaculture can deplete lower-tropic-level fish because __________.

A. the fish are not raised in their typical environment

B. the fish are caught and used to feed the farmed fish C. the pollution from the underwater pens kills the fish D. harvesting the farmed fish with nets also catches lower-tropic-level fish Answer: B Section: Aquaculture: Traditional fishing methods Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 48. Compare and contrast fishing and open-water aquaculture. Discuss the benefits and challenges of both approaches in obtaining fish protein for our diets.

FEEDBACK: Fishing is like hunting, while aquaculture is like farming. Health-conscious eating patterns have made fish more popular than any other source of protein, but fish are more than a source of food, as several million people around the world earn their living in the fishing and aquaculture industries. Today, aquaculture and fishing each provide about half of our seafood, but while the former is more typical for developing countries, the latter is more commonly the way people in the developed world obtain fish protein.

However, these health and economic benefits come with an environmental cost.

Fish and other seafood can be captured in shallow coastal waters, as well as the open ocean, with harvest limits determined by the size of the natural population.

However, currently about 31% of the world’s fish stocks have catch rates that exceed the replacement rate because of growing human demand for fish protein and technological advances in fishing equipment. Fishers tend to concentrate on a few fish species of commercial value, such as salmon and tuna, while other species, collectively called bycatch, are unintentionally caught and then discarded. Most of these unwanted animals die because they are crushed by the fishing gear or are out of the water too long. The increased traffic of fishing fleets also pollutes the water, and bottom trawler ships irreparably damage the seabed.

Fish, shellfish, and seaweed can be grown for human consumption in a variety of enclosures either placed in coastal waters or in indoor tanks. In aquaculture production, the size of the harvest is largely dependent on the size of the enclosure. To further optimize the quality and productivity, aquaculture farmers control the diet, breeding cycle, and environmental conditions of the ponds or enclosures. However, open water coastal aquaculture damages or destroys coastal ecosystems, especially mangrove swamps. Aquaculture also produces wastes that can pollute water and harm other organisms. Aquaculture farms must also be monitored for disease and overbreeding, both of which can cause a net loss of wild fish because of the potential spread of diseases and many of the farmed fish are carnivorous. Domesticated fish are genetically more homogenous than wild ones; if the two groups interbreed, genetic diversity of wild populations could be diminished. The introduced organisms may also outcompete wild species, if the farmed fish are non-native species.

Section: Aquaculture: Traditional fishing methods Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing/Evaluating

49. Refer to Infographic 6. Even though aquaculture may help balance fishery collapse, there are several problems associated with net pen and pond aquaculture. Select three problems and describe a possible solution for each.

FEEDBACK: These types of aquaculture cause fish to have more diseases and parasites than wild fish, require the use of antibiotics and pesticides, and they release large amounts of waste into the environment. These issues can be solved by decreasing the density of net pens to minimize impact, which would then decrease the concentration of waste and the need to use antibiotics or pesticides. By moving outdoor fish farms farther from the coast, fish farms could stop displacing mangrove swamps and other coastal wetlands. Farmed fish still exert pressure on wild stocks because they are fed fishmeal made from wild-caught fish. To eliminate this problem, alternative foods that do not rely on wild-caught fish need to be developed. Since most farmed fish are from high trophic levels, they require large amounts of food. However, if fish lower on the food chain were produced by aquaculture, the efficiency of those systems would be higher. Another major problem with aquaculture is that non-native and GMO species can escape into the wild.

This problem can be eliminated if aquaculture systems were to use only native species if farming in natural waters.

Section: Aquaculture: Traditional fishing methods Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

50. How is aquaculture similar to a tree plantation?

FEEDBACK: In aquaculture, organisms are cultivated in water where most variables can be carefully controlled (for example, temperature, salt concentration, pH). This is similar to a tree plantation where only certain tree species are planted in large stands and are harvested in rotations. This monoculture consists of mostly even-aged trees with minimal biodiversity. It is therefore different from a natural forest ecosystem. In aquaculture, the production process is also carefully controlled. This is different from open-water fishing, which is more like hunting for a species within a functional ecosystem or logging a mature forest where loggers seek out certain trees within a natural forest ecosystem. As demand for both fish and wood products increases globally, producers turn to more efficient processes with strong growth potential to meet those demands. However, in fish farms and tree plantations, limited biodiversity increases vulnerability to disease and creates the potential for environmental degradation (for example, erosion from clearcutting, concentrated waste production for aquaculture). Lastly, aquaculture has the potential to alleviate pressures on natural ocean ecosystems, just as tree plantations allow for efficient wood production on less area, thus protecting areas of natural forest from needing to be logged.

Section: Aquaculture: Traditional fishing methods Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 51. Net pen and open pond aquaculture are technologically simple and inexpensive to set up and operate. However, they pose some significant environmental challenges. For three challenges—displacement of native habitat, generation of large volumes of waste, and potential escape of non-native species—explain why they are a problem and how the challenge can be addressed to make net pen and open pond aquaculture systems more sustainable.

FEEDBACK: Open water aquaculture has significantly destroyed coastal ecosystems, especially mangrove swamps, which have been cleared in many places to make way for the ponds. Mangrove trees are an important keystone species that provides habitat and protection for a wide variety of species, including humans, as they protect the coastline from storm surges during hurricanes. To reduce this displacement of native habitat, and in some instances, to restore degraded habitat, outdoor fish farms could be moved farther from the coast. Also, robotic fish cages that can be navigated through the sea with boatoperated remote controls are being developed. Fish in net pens and open ponds also generate a lot of waste, including uneaten food waste that sinks to the bottom of the pond.

This waste can pollute adjacent water and harm wild species, especially if it harbors pathogens and parasites. To reduce the impacts of waste, the best approach would be to generate less of it, and this can be accomplished by decreasing the density of net pens.

Not only would this decrease waste, it would also decrease the risk of disease. Finally, fish raised in open pond aquaculture operations sometimes are non-native species that can escape into the wild. If that happens, it could reduce the genetic diversity of wild populations, as the introduced organisms may predate on, or outcompete, wild species. To reduce effects on wild stock from non-native fish escaping, it would help to use only native species of fish in net pen operations.

Section: Aquaculture: Traditional fishing methods

Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question 31-5 How might recirculating aquaculture systems address concerns about traditional aquaculture?

Multiple Choice 52. The ability to spawn, hatch, and raise fish to adulthood in a laboratory setting is known as ________.

A. an ocean-based aquaculture system B. genetic engineering C. hormone-free aquaculture D. aquapod aquaculture E. a recirculating aquaculture system Answer: E Section: Indoor aquaculture: Recirculating aquaculture systems Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 53. Which of the following is a benefit of recirculating aquaculture systems (RAS) in comparison with net or pen aquaculture?

A. Food in RAS systems is controlled by natural processes of the fish life cycle.

B. Fish require less food per pound.

C. Fish convert their food into flesh at a much higher rate.

D. All of these answers are correct.

E. Fish both require less food per pound and convert their food into flesh at a much higher rate.

Answer: E Section: Indoor aquaculture: Recirculating aquaculture systems Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 54. Which of the following is TRUE regarding recirculating aquaculture systems (RAS)?

A. In blind tests, tasters were easily able to distinguish between wild-caught fish and those grown in the laboratory fish farm.

B. The types of microbes used in the RAS to manage liquid and solid waste are not found in oceans.

C. Scaled-up RAS operations have already proven to be commercially viable.

D. Fish harvested from RAS operations will need to be shipped thousands of miles across the globe, increasing the environmental footprint of fish consumption.

E. In RAS, the type of fish grown can be chosen based on economic opportunity rather than location.

Answer: E Section: Indoor aquaculture: Recirculating aquaculture systems Level: 2

Bloom’s Level: Understanding 55. Recirculating aquaculture systems (RAS) are best suited in __________.

A. urban centers of wealthy countries, as locations close to larger markets could help make RAS operations more likely to be economically viable B. water-poor regions, as RAS operations have a small water footprint because they use only a limited amount of freshwater C. tropical regions, as the breeding cycle of fish is best suited to the seasons in these regions D. poor countries, as the start-up costs for RAS are low and because they create a lot of jobs E. rural areas with access to a lot of open space, as RAS operations have a large land footprint that is not compatible with built-up urban areas Answer: A Section: Indoor aquaculture: Recirculating aquaculture systems Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 56. The difference between recirculating aquaculture systems (RAS) and net pen aquaculture operations is that ___________.

A. unlike net pen aquaculture, RAS operations are very limited in the type of fish they can culture, as most fish, especially the commercially profitable species, do not do well in enclosed facilities B. RAS facilities are more habitat friendly compared with net pen farms, which displace mangrove swamps and other wetland ecosystems in coastal areas C. in contrast to net pen aquaculture, RAS operations are low tech and easy to set up D. since RAS operations are very labor intensive, they are better suited than net pen systems for developing countries, where labor is cheap and the market for farm-raised fish is large E. net pen aquaculture, being biosecure, poses a much lower risk regarding the escape of non-native species than does an RAS operation Answer: B Section: Indoor aquaculture: Recirculating aquaculture systems Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 57. Which of the following is an obstacle that recirculating aquaculture systems (RAS) will need to overcome if they are to become more widespread?

A. efficiency B. expensive start-up costs C. productivity D. sustainability Answer: B Section: Indoor aquaculture: Recirculating aquaculture systems Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

58. If recirculating aquaculture systems (RAS) facilities become available on a larger scale, they could potentially lead to __________.

A. restoration of coastal mangrove swamps B. sustainable, local production of seafood C. a loss of income for those relying on net pen farms D. All of these answers are correct.

E. None of these answers are correct.

Answer: D Section: Indoor aquaculture: Recirculating aquaculture systems Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 59. The fish raised in recirculating aquaculture systems (RAS) will be __________.

A. harvested and sold to area restaurants B. released to sea to improve wild stocks C. kept in an aquarium D. exported to developing countries for food E. used to feed larger fish in the ocean to reestablish trophic levels Answer: A Section: Indoor aquaculture: Recirculating aquaculture systems Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 60. How can recirculating aquaculture systems (RAS) address the environmental challenges posed by net pen and open pond aquaculture? What constrains RAS, given all these advantages?

ANSWER: RAS systems, since they are conducted in biosecure indoor tanks, have some advantages that address the environmental challenges posed by net pen and open pond aquaculture: 1. Net pen operations can release a lot of waste that pollutes the water and potentially transfers pathogens and parasites to wild stock. RAS systems do not release pollution, as they employ carefully calibrated microbial communities to manage waste and convert some into fuel-grade methane that can be used to offset some energy costs.

2. Net pen operations displace and destroy coastal habitats, especially mangrove swamps. RAS operations do not displace habitat, and in fact, if such facilities prove commercially viable, coastal aquaculture ponds and net pen farms in developing countries could be scaled back, and the mangrove swamps and coastal ecosystems they displaced could be restored.

3. Farmed fish in net pen operations still exert pressure on wild stocks, as they are generally high-trophic-level fish that require large amounts of food and are fed fish meal made from wild-caught fish. Fish grown in RAS tanks may also be fed fish meal from wild stock, but these fish require less food per pound and convert their food into flesh at a much higher ratio than the same fish grown in a net pen.

This is because aquaculturists can control food intake much better, and since salinity is always optimal, fish in RAS tanks do not have to invest as much energy in osmoregulation.

4. Sometimes fish from net pen operations can escape into the wild, thereby impacting the genetic diversity of wild populations. This is of particular concern if the farmed fish are non-native. RAS operations can raise marine species to suit market demands, independent of the location of the aquaculture operation and without the risk of affecting wild stock from non-native fish escaping.

Despite these advantages, RAS systems are constrained by cost, as the technology is complex and start-up and operational costs are high, making the adoption of this system unlikely in poorer countries. Nor will large-scale RAS facilities be a viable option in water-starved regions, where several thousand gallons of freshwater can be difficult to come by.

Section: Indoor aquaculture: Recirculating aquaculture systems Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

Matching Questions Match each term in the left-hand column to the statement that it best exemplifies.

1. maximum sustainable yield

2. fisheries 3. exclusive economic zones (EEZs) 4. aquaculture

5. marine reserves

6. collapsed fishery 7. sustainable fishery

8. overexploited fisheries 9. bycatch 10. marine-protected areas (MPA) 11. recirculating aquaculture system (RAS) 12. tragedy of the commons 13. fishing down the food chain

nontarget species that become trapped in fishing nets and are usually discarded; some methods, like trawling, have very high bycatch levels, and discards often exceed the actual target species catch (*9) a fishery in which annual catches fall below 10% of their historic high; stocks can no longer support a fishery (*6) more fish are taken than is sustainable in the long run, leading to population declines (*7) zones that extend 200 nautical miles from the coastline of any given nation, where that nation has exclusive rights over marine resources, including fish (*3) a fishery that ensures that fish stocks are maintained at healthy levels, the ecosystem is fully functional, and fishing activity does not threaten biological diversity (*7) the industry devoted to commercial fishing or the places where fish are caught, harvested, processed, and sold (*2) the tendency of an individual to abuse commonly held resources in order to maximize his or her own personal interest (*12) a method used to rear fish indoors in tanks that filter and recirculate water (*11) the amount that can be harvested without decreasing the yield in future years (*1) restricted areas where all fishing is prohibited and absolutely no human disturbance is allowed (*5) discrete regions of ocean that are legally protected from various forms of human exploitation (*10) the harvest of fish at lower trophic levels once fish stocks at higher trophic levels become depleted (*13) fish farming; the rearing of aquatic species in tanks, ponds, or ocean net pens

(*4) Linked Questions Science Literacy Use Infographic 4 below to answer the next five questions.

1. According to the graph, which type of fish made up the most catch in 1965?

A. American plaice B. Atlantic herring C. other fish D. redfishes E. hakes Answer: D Section: Science literacy Level: 2

Bloom’s Level: Applying 2. What percentage of global marine fisheries were sustainably fished in 2013?

A. 31.4 B. 90 C. 51.8 D. 10.5 Answer: C Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 3. In which year was the combined catch of all groups the lowest?

A. 1950 B. 1980 C. 1975 D. 1995 E. 2000 Answer: D Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 4. In which year was the catch of eelpouts the greatest?

A. 1965 B. 1960 C. 1970 D. 1975 E. 1950 Answer: A Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 5. How many metric tons of Atlantic cod were caught in 1965?

A. 683.8 B. 656.1 C. 865.3 D. 498.5 E. 124.48 Answer: B Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Making Connections

The Seabiscuit Fishery wants to become more sustainable. It has stopped using bottom trawlers to catch fish. The managers at Seabiscuit have created several marine-protected areas and support marine reserves and research in sustainable fishing practices. They are using aquaculture techniques and looking into indoor aquaculture.

1. Why would Seabiscuit stop using bottom trawlers to be more sustainable?

A. They have less bycatch than other methods.

B. They catch fewer fish than other methods.

C. They destroy seabeds and impact more species than targeted fish.

D. They aren’t as profitable as using other fishing methods.

Answer: C Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 2. Seabiscuit fishing boats in one area used to bring in mostly adult cod. Now they are catching mostly herring and small cod form the lower trophic levels. This is __________.

A. fishing up the food chain B. harvesting at the maximum sustainable yield C. utilizing bycatch D. fishing down the food chain Answer: D Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 3. Creating marine-protected areas means that __________.

A. some fishing may be allowed, depending on the need B. only the Seabiscuit Fishery can use the waters for fishing C. only U.S.-based ships can use the areas for fishing D. no fishing is allowed in those areas Answer: A Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 4. A benefit of Seabiscuit using traditional outdoor aquaculture is __________.

A. they can control the wild fish population by using them to feed the farmed fish B. large amounts of fish can be harvested for food C. large amounts of waste from the net pens can fertilize aquatic plants in the area D. genetically modified species can be released into the wild to spread new genes Answer: B Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

5. If Seabiscuit switches from traditional aquaculture to recirculating aquaculture systems (RAS), one issue the company will face will be __________.

A. the technology is more complicated than the net pens B. the cost may be more expensive to implement C. the loss of local income for areas using traditional aquaculture D. These are all issues to consider with RAS Answer: D Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

MODULE 9.1 1. The Hobet 21 mine is best known as ___________.

A. the mine with the least environmental impact B. the mine that the Environmental Protection Agency recently rejected the permit for C. the largest mining operation in the Appalachian region D. a surface mine in Wyoming Answer: C Section: Introduction Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Guiding Question 1 What energy sources are used in modern society and for what purposes?

Multiple Choice 2. Energy is defined as the __________.

A. capacity to do work B. ability to generate heat C. capacity to generate electricity D. power available in fossil fuels E. source of electricity Answer: A Section: Energy sources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 3. What is a way electricity can be produced?

A. burning coal B. harnessing nuclear energy C. using the energy of moving water D. capturing solar energy E. These are all ways electricity can be produced.

Answer: A Section: Energy sources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 4. Mobile energy sources primarily come from __________.

A. solar energy B. geothermal energy C. wind D. coal E. oil Answer: E Section: Energy sources

Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 5. Fossil fuels still account for ______ of U.S. energy production.

A. 40% B. 50% C. 60% D. 70% E. 80% Answer: E Section: Energy sources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Guiding Question 2 How important is coal as an energy source, and how is it used to generate electricity?

Multiple Choice 6. Which of the following is NOT a problem associated with mountaintop removal mining?

A. This type of surface mining causes permanent, irreversible changes to the landscape.

B. Runoff from the mined area can deliver sulfur and other toxic compounds to streams downstream.

C. The reduction in forested areas can lead to increased frequency and severity of flooding.

D. While having environmental impacts, it leads to greater employment for residents.

Answer: D Section: Coal mining: Surface techniques Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 7. Coal burning produces as much electricity as ___________.

A. all other sources combined B. nuclear energy and natural gas combined C. nuclear energy, natural gas, and renewables combined D. nuclear energy, natural gas, and petroleum combined E. natural gas Answer: E Section: Generating electricity from coal Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 8. The key to generating electricity from coal is the generation of_________.

A. heat B. smoke

C. sulfur D. cold water Answer: A Section: Generating electricity from coal Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

9. In 2015, burning coal generated approximately ____ of electricity worldwide.

A. 30% B. 40% C. 50% D. 60% E. 70% Answer: B Section: Generating electricity from coal Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 10. Which of the following choices is NOT typical for converting coal to electricity?

A. creating steam B. burning the coal C. converting the coal to a liquid form D. spinning a turbine Answer: C Section: Generating electricity from coal Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 11. Which of the following choices has the highest energy return on energy investment ratio?

A. coal B. wind C. nuclear energy D. natural gas E. hydroelectric Answer: E Section: Generating electricity from coal Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 12. Which of the following resources is used the LEAST in the United States for generating electricity?

A. coal B. renewables C. nuclear energy

D. natural gas E. oil Answer: E Section: Generating electricity from coal Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 13. Burning coal to generate electricity creates all of the following types of pollution EXCEPT ____________________.

A. water pollution B. particulates C. thermal pollution D. mercury E. None of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: Generating electricity from coal Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 14. The use of coal creates all of the following impacts EXCEPT ____________________.

A. reduced water temperatures in water bodies B. emissions of mercury C. emissions of sulfur D. respiratory disease Answer: A Section: The advantages and disadvantages of coal Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 15. What is the purpose of the transformer in the electrical grid?

A. to cool the water used in steam production B. to reduce the voltage of the generated electricity C. to increase the voltage of the generated electricity D. to transmit electricity Answer: C Section: Generating electricity from coal Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Essay 16. What is the EROEI (energy return on energy investment)?

FEEDBACK: The EROEI is a measurement that allows you to compare the net energy obtained from a given energy source. It compares the energy we get out of a source with the energy required to acquire, process, and transport the energy source from where it is obtained to where it is used.

Section: Generating electricity from coal Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 17. What are the different types of pollution created in burning coal to generate electricity?

FEEDBACK: The use of coal in generating electricity creates pollution in basically every step of the process, from the mining of coal to the disposal of wastes generated in the combustion process. Mining coal can cause a variety of water pollution problems, from acid mine drainage to the dumping of overburden into stream valleys. At the power plant, the process of generating electricity from combustion produces air pollution (sulfates, particulates, mercury, and carbon dioxide), thermal pollution (from the cooling water that is much hotter when returned to the environment), and the disposal of ash left over after combustion causes solid waste pollution unless handled properly.

Section: The advantages and disadvantages of coal Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Guiding Question 3 What is coal, how is it formed, and what regions of the world have coal deposits that are accessible?

Multiple Choice 18. Peat, the precursor to coal formation, is typically formed in areas _________________.

A. of rapid decomposition B. with little vegetation C. with low rates of decomposition D. with highly oxygenated sediments Answer: D Section: Coal deposits: Formation and distribution Level: 1/2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding/Applying

19. The largest proven coal reserve in the world is located in __________.

A. South America B. North America C. Asia D. Europe E. Australia Answer: B Section: Coal deposits: Formation and distribution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

20. If we do not change our current rates of coal usage, how long will the proven coal reserves last?

A. 1 year B. 10 years C. 100 years D. 1,000 years E. 5,000 years Answer: C Section: Coal deposits: Formation and distribution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 21. Coal is a solid fossil fuel formed when plant material is buried in _______________ conditions and subjected to _________________ over a long time.

A. oxygen-rich; high heat and pressure B. oxygen-poor; high heat and pressure C. oxygen-poor; low heat and pressure D. oxygen-rich; low heat and pressure Answer: B Section: Coal deposits: Formation and distribution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 22. The hardest form of coal is _________________.

A. lignite B. bituminous C. peat D. anthracite Answer: D Section: Coal deposits: Formation and distribution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 23. The form of coal with the highest energy content is _______________.

A. lignite B. bituminous C. peat D. anthracite E. vegetation Answer: D Section: Coal deposits: Formation and distribution Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

24. The first form of coal that is created from submerged vegetation, pressure, and heat is ____________________.

A. peat B. anthracite C. lignite D. bituminous Answer: C Section: Coal deposits: Formation and distribution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 25. In Ireland, peat is often burned as a source of fuel. Peat is known to turn into which of the following fossil fuels?

A. oil B. coal C. wood D. shale E. uranium Answer: B Section: Coal deposits: Formation and distribution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 26. Which country held about 37% of the world’s proven reserves in 2016?

A. Asia B. Europe C. South America D. Australia E. Africa Answer: A Section: Coal deposits: Formation and distribution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 27. Which of the following regions once held the United States’ largest coal reserves?

A. Appalachian Mountains B. Wyoming C. Alaska D. Great Plains E. Rocky Mountains Answer: A Section: Coal deposits: Formation and distribution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

Essay 28. What are the steps in the long process of coal formation over time?

FEEDBACK: Around 300 million years ago, decaying plant material in swamp-like forests became buried in the sediments. The low oxygen concentration of these sediments reduced the rate of decomposition of the material, leading to the formation of peat deposits. Over time, with the accumulation of more sediment, high pressure in the peat layer in concert with high heat led to the formation of what is known as soft coal, or lignite. As time progressed, in areas where the lignite layer was exposed to continuing heat and pressure, the lignite was converted to harder varieties of coal, such as anthracite and bituminous coal.

Section: Coal deposits: Formation and distribution Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 29. Even though coal is produced by natural processes of the Earth, why is it classified as a nonrenewable resource?

FEEDBACK: Coal, and other energy sources like oil and natural gas, is considered a nonrenewable resource because it literally takes millennia for organic matter to form into coal. Humans are using coal at such a rapid rate that we are likely to run out before the Earth has a chance to make more; thus coal is classified as a nonrenewable resource.

Section: Coal deposits: Formation and distribution Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluate Guiding Question 4 What surface methods are used to mine coal, and what are their advantages and disadvantages?

Multiple Choice 30. __________________ is removing dirt and rock that overlays a mineral deposit close to the surface in order to access that deposit.

A. Subsurface mining B. Surface mining C. Fracking D. Deep mining E. Hydraulic mining Answer: B Section: Coal mining: Surface techniques Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 31. Which of the following is TRUE of surface mining compared to subsurface mining?

A. Surface mining has safer conditions than subsurface mining.

B. Surface mining creates greater damage to ecosystem than subsurface mining.

C. Surface mining has more alteration to landscape than subsurface mining.

D. Surface mining has greater expense than subsurface mining.

E. Surface mining is easier and simpler than subsurface mining.

Answer: D Section: Coal mining: Surface techniques Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

32. Overburden is associated with what type of coal mining?

A. subsurface mining B. surface mining C. fracking D. deep mining E. hydraulic mining Answer: B Section: Coal mining: Surface techniques Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 33. Discuss how mountaintop removal can affect stream quality.

FEEDBACK: When the tops of mountains are removed to extract the coal below, the overburden (removed material) is dumped into the stream valleys. This permanently buries many miles of small streams. Toxic chemicals such as selenium, iron, and aluminum can enter the streams and rivers lower in the watershed after leaching out of the overburden. These may bioaccumulate and biomagnify in the aquatic organisms and eventually end up in human tissues. An extreme example is when an impoundment breaks in a coal slurry pond, allowing tons of toxic sludge to enter the watershed.

Section: Coal mining: Surface techniques Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating 34. Which type of mining, surface or subsurface, has a greater impact on the environment, and why?

FEEDBACK: Surface mining has a greater impact on the environment because in surface mining the ground, rock, and vegetation above the coal are removed and discarded. This type of mining destroys habitats, buries miles of streams as the overburden is dumped into the valleys, and permanently and irreversibly alters the contours of both the land and watersheds. Currently, mining companies are not required by law to restore the ecosystem to its original, native form.

Section: Coal mining: Surface techniques Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

35. Coal mining production is up in the United States, but coal mining jobs are on the decline. Why are there fewer coal mining jobs today than 50 years ago?

FEEDBACK: The majority of new coal mines are opting to extract coal through surface mining instead of subsurface mining. Surface mining employs fewer miners compared with subsurface mining that is labor intensive. Also, many coal mining jobs have been lost to large machinery and automation. The few jobs remaining in the coal mining industry are, however, normally higher paying and safer.

Section: Coal mining: Surface techniques Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Guiding Question 5 How are deep deposits of coal mined, and what are the advantages and disadvantages of this method?

Multiple Choice 36. __________________ consists of digging tunnels or shafts into the Earth to reach buried ore deposits.

A. Subsurface mining B. Surface mining C. Fracking D. Deep mining E. Hydraulic mining Answer: A Section: Coal mining: Subsurface techniques Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 37. Which of the following is a characteristic of subsurface mining?

A. It permanently alters the landscape and its contours.

B. It delivers silt and acidic compounds to downstream rivers.

C. It damages the ecosystem by dumping overfill into valleys.

D. It has dangerous conditions including tunnel collapses, released gases, particulates in the air, low oxygen, and heat.

Answer: D Section: Coal mining: Subsurface techniques Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 38. Acid mine drainage is formed when water flows past exposed rocks that leach out _________________ that react with water and oxygen to form ________________.

A. carbonates; bases B. sulfates; acids C. arsenic; bases D. nitrates; acids

E. methane; acid Answer: B Section: Coal mining: Subsurface techniques Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 39. How is acid mine drainage formed, and what are its effects on the environment?

FEEDBACK: Acid mine drainage is formed as water flows past exposed rocks in mines or overburden. Sulfates are leached out from the rocks and react with the water and oxygen to form acids. The acidic water can be directly toxic to many aquatic plants and animals, and it can also alter the nutrient cycle of aquatic ecosystems and affect organisms and food webs.

Section: Coal mining: Subsurface techniques Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Guiding Question 6 What are the advantages and disadvantages of using coal?

Multiple Choice 40. Benefits of using coal as an energy source include ____________________.

A. low-cost electricity B. an established distribution system C. ease of isolation D. simple processing E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: The advantages and disadvantages of coal Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 41. Which of the following is NOT true about coal?

A. It has a high energy content.

B. It is a renewable resource.

C. Mining coal causes environmental damage.

D. Burning coal creates pollution.

E. It is formed over time by the compression and heating of peat.

Answer: B Section: The advantages and disadvantages of coal Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 42. How does the use of coal cause acid precipitation?

A. The acid drainage from mining evaporates, which puts the acids into the air.

B. The burning of coal puts out gases like sulfur dioxide, which can combine with water to form acids.

C. Acids, which leach into the soil from the mining process, are transpired by plants that have taken them up.

D. The equipment used for mining releases sulfur and carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.

E. The transporting of the coal mining releases sulfur and carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.

Answer: B Section: The advantages and disadvantages of coal Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 43. Environmentalists are especially concerned about the amount of carbon dioxide released from burning coal because it _________________.

A. is a significant contributor to acid rain B. depletes the ozone layer C. is a significant greenhouse gas D. clogs lungs and aggravates asthma E. blocks the uptake of oxygen by the hemoglobin Answer: C Section: The advantages and disadvantages of coal Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 44. Which of the following is the biggest advantage to the United States’ use of coal?

A. It burns cleaner than most fossil fuels.

B. The United States has a lot of coal.

C. The mining of coal is relatively safe and environmentally friendly.

D. It is the most efficient way to produce electricity.

E. There are no advantages to using coal.

Answer: B Section: The advantages and disadvantages of coal Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 45. In 2005, for which of the following did 87% of streams located downhill from mining operations exceed the EPA’s allowances?

A. arsenic B. lead C. iron D. sulfate E. selenium Answer: E Section: The advantages and disadvantages of coal Level: 1

Bloom’s Level: Remembering 46. Pollution from U.S. coal power plants includes all of the following EXCEPT _________________.

A. ash B. particulates C. nitrogen oxides D. ozone E. mercury Answer: D Section: The advantages and disadvantages of coal Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 47. The Environmental Protection Agency’s Mercury and Air Toxics Standards are projected to reduce emissions of these toxic substances by how much?

A. 10% B. 25% C. 50% D. 90% E. 100% Answer: D Section: The advantages and disadvantages of coal Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 48. All of the following are environmental drawbacks to the mining of coal EXCEPT ____________________.

A. damage to forests caused by mountaintop removal B. burial and damage to streams caused by the dumping of overburden C. soil compaction causing increased storm water runoff and flooding D. increased risk of cancer for some miners E. water and soil contamination by acid drainage Answer: D Section: The advantages and disadvantages of coal Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 49. Fly ash can be taken to a landfill that is expensive and not environmentally friendly, or it can be used to make _____________, which benefits both the power plant and the environment.

A. tar paper B. shingles C. sandpaper D. concrete E. glass

Answer: D Section: The advantages and disadvantages of coal Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 50. What is meant by the phrase “external costs of coal,” and what are the estimates of such costs on an annual basis?

FEEDBACK: External costs are those generated by activities such as the process of mining coal (surface or subsurface), transporting, burning, and dealing with wastes, such as fly ash and toxic emissions. These costs are not reflected in the actual costs paid by users of coal, such as electric utilities or industry. A Harvard University study estimated the external costs for using coal in the United States to be $300 to 500 billion a year.

Section: The advantages and disadvantages of coal Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating 51. What are some of the hazards associated with coal mining?

FEEDBACK: Many coal miners develop black lung disease from the coal dust they are exposed to in the mines. Methane gas fumes and coal dust are the most common causes of mine explosions and collapses. Underground coal seams can catch on fire and be very difficult to extinguish. Some underground fires have been burning for over a hundred years. Coal miners can be also exposed to potentially deadly carbon monoxide.

Section: The advantages and disadvantages of coal Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 52. Discuss some of the effects on health of mining and using coal to generate electricity.

FEEDBACK: Water wells near mines receive significant amounts of arsenic, lead, iron, and sulfate. Burning coal puts out these same chemicals plus carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide, fly ash, NOx, and mercury into the atmosphere. Sulfates leaching into water supplies cause acid mine drainage that is hazardous to humans and ecosystems. Because of all of these toxins, there is a greater incidence of kidney, lung, and heart disease in mining areas. In addition, people west of large coal-burning plants may suffer from an increase in lung disorders.

Section: The advantages and disadvantages of coal Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 53. What are the benefits of using coal as an energy source?

FEEDBACK: While there are multiple environmental costs to using coal, there are also benefits to using coal as an energy source. First, coal is cheap and relatively abundant, with known reserves that are estimated at 120 years at current usage rates. There is also an established distribution system from coal power plants to our homes, and unlike nuclear power, coal is also relatively simple to process, so it can be easily utilized as a fuel source.

Section: The advantages and disadvantages of coal Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question 18-5 What new technologies allow us to burn coal with fewer environmental and health problems?

Multiple Choice 54. The negatives involved in removing contaminants from coal before using it are ____________________.

A. the hazardous waste created and the fact that the product is a liquid or gaseous fuel B. the fact that the product is a liquid or gaseous fuel and the energy needed to complete the process lowers the EROEI C. the hazardous waste created and the energy needed to complete the process lower the EROEI D. the fact that the product is a liquid or gaseous fuel and the inefficiency of the process E. the amount of water needed and the energy needed to complete the process lower the EROEI Answer: C Section: Reducing the impact of burning coal Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 55. Currently, the biggest drawbacks to using the new clean coal technologies are ____________________.

A. the energy required and costs involved in using them B. the negativity of the public and their reluctance to pay more for electricity C. the technologies do not exist and too much energy is needed to develop them D. the fact that it has not been proven that coal is toxic and that there are no alternatives E. government incentives and the public apathy Answer: A Section: Reducing the impact of burning coal Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 56. We currently have technologies to capture all but which of the following?

A. mercury B. particulates C. sulfur D. carbon dioxide E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: Reducing the impact of burning coal Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

57. Clean coal technologies are being developed to _________________.

A. reduce CO2 emissions B. store emitted CO2 C. remove toxins from coal prior to combustion D. reduce CO2 emissions, store emitted CO2, and remove toxins from coal prior to combustion E. None of these answers are correct.

Answer: D Section: Reducing the impact of burning coal Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 58. What is a major drawback of clean coal technologies?

A. They produce their own toxic byproducts.

B. They increase coal’s EROEI. C. They decrease coal’s EROEI. D. They both produce their own toxic byproducts and increase coal’s EROEI. E. They both produce their own toxic byproducts and decrease coal’s EROEI. Answer: E Section: Reducing the impact of burning coal Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 59. What is one way to reduce the climate change impacts of burning coal for electricity generation?

FEEDBACK: One key to reducing the climate change impacts of coal is to capture the CO2 that is released by combustion prior to its release into the atmosphere. This is referred to as carbon capture and sequestration (CCS). One method for capture is to use solvents in the smokestacks that can trap the CO2 emissions. These emissions can then be separated from the solvents, and the CO2 can then be used for other purposes.

Sequestration generally involves the storage of CO2 in deep mines or wells so that it will not be released into the atmosphere.

Section: Reducing the impact of burning coal Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating 60. Refer to Infographic 7. Explain how carbon dioxide can be captured.

FEEDBACK: Carbon dioxide is created whenever a fossil fuel is burned. However, a solvent can trap it before it leaves the smokestack. The solvent can bind to the CO2, and a stripper can then be used to remove the carbon dioxide from the solvent. The CO2 can then be used in other industrial processes.

Section: Reducing the impact of burning coal Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 61. Refer to Infographic 7. Explain what can be done with captured carbon dioxide.

FEEDBACK: Some of the CO2 can be used in the chemical industry or for carbonated beverages. The rest of it can be sequestered or trapped in wells, deep mines, or salt formations. The purpose is to keep the carbon dioxide from being released into the atmosphere to minimize the increase in atmospheric CO2 that causes climate change.

Section: Reducing the impact of burning coal Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

Guiding Question 8 How can mining damage be repaired, and how effective is this restoration?

Multiple Choice 62. What is a common criticism of mountaintop removal mine reclamation?

A. The evidence suggests that the original native species will never recolonize the reclaimed site.

B. The artificial channels do not host the same amount of biodiversity as the natural streams.

C. The Appalachian Mountains are a region of extremely high biodiversity, and the reclaimed sites will not recover similar levels of diversity.

D. All of these answers are correct.

E. None of these answers are correct.

Answer: D Section: Mine reclamation Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 63. How is grass planted in mine reclamation?

A. Woven mats that include embedded grass seed are laid over the landscape.

B. Aerial drops of grass seed mixtures are laid over previously mined sites.

C. An aqueous mixture of seed and chemicals are sprayed on the thin soil.

D. It is not planted, rather the land will go through natural senescence.

E. It is not planted; grass will not grow on reclaimed mines.

Answer: C Section: Mine reclamation Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 64. How are mountaintop removal mines typically “reclaimed”?

FEEDBACK: The Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act requires coal companies to reclaim land to a state that is “close to its pre-mining” condition. In practice, however, with the reduction in elevation of the mountains, and the burial of thousands of miles of streams, reclamation often results in grass plantings over the mined site and artificial water channels where the buried streams once flowed. Neither condition will ever support the natural communities that existed before the mine.

Section: Mine reclamation Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 65. If mining company representatives came to you with a plan to plant the same species of pine trees, and only pine trees, on their reclaimed mine in order to comply with the law, what would you tell them? Would you advise them to go ahead with the plan, or would you suggest a different one?

FEEDBACK: The key to success in pretty much every ecosystem on Earth is diversity. If the mining company planted only one kind of pine tree over the reclaimed mine, that would not introduce the diversity of plants needed to re-establish, or at least get close to re-establishing, the ecosystem that was there prior to the mine. You could advise the mining company to take a survey of the plants and animals in undisturbed ecosystems around the mine and try as much as possible to replicate at least some of the species diversity seen in those ecosystems.

Section: Mine reclamation Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating

Matching Questions Match each term in the left-hand column to the statement that it best exemplifies.

1. coal

2. mountaintop removal (MTR) 3. energy 4. fossil fuels 5. electricity

6. energy return on energy investment (EROEI) 7. overburden

8. surface mining

9. subsurface mines 10. acid mine drainage

11. environmental impact statement 12. carbon capture and sequestration (CCS)

nonrenewable resources like coal, oil, and natural gas that were formed over millions of years from the remains of dead organisms (*4) a measure of the net energy from an energy source (the energy in the source minus the energy required to get it, process it, ship it, and then use it) (*6) a surface mining method that accesses coal from deposits close to the surface on level ground, one section at a time (*15) the process of restoring a damaged natural area to a less damaged state (*13) a document outlining the positive and negative impacts of any federal action that has the potential to cause environmental damage (*11) the process of removing carbon from fuel combustion emissions or other sources and storing it to prevent its release into the atmosphere (*12) a surface mining technique that involves using explosives to blast away the top of a mountain to expose the coal seam underneath; the waste rock and rubble is deposited in a nearby valley (*2) a liquid or gaseous product produced by removing some contaminant contained in coal so that the resulting fuel releases less pollution when burned (*16) the capacity to do work (*3) a fossil fuel that is formed when plant material is buried in oxygen-poor conditions and subjected to high heat and pressure over a long time (*1) the rock and soil removed to uncover a mineral deposit during surface mining (*7) a form of mining that involves removing soil and rock that overlay a mineral deposit close to the surface in order to access that deposit

13. reclamation 14. proven reserves 15. strip mining

16. clean coal

(*8) the flow of electrons (negatively charged subatomic particles) through a conductive material (such as wire) (*5) sites where tunnels are dug underground to access mineral resources (*9) water that flows past exposed rock in mines and leaches out sulfates; these sulfates react with the water and oxygen to form acids (low-pH solutions) (*10) a measure of the amount of a fossil fuel that is economically feasible to extract from a known deposit using current technology (*14)

Linked Questions Science Literacy Use Infographic 2 below to answer the following five questions.

1. The lowest EROEI for stationary sources of electricity comes from _________________.

A. wind B. nuclear C. coal D. natural gas E. geothermal Answer: D Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 2. Hydroelectric energy produces ______ more units of energy per unit of energy expended than does natural gas.

A. 84 B. 7 C. 77 D. 70 E. 90 Answer: C Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

3. Nonrenewable energy sources generated _______ of U.S. electricity in 2015.

A. 33% B. 66% C. 11.5% D. 7% E. 18.5% Answer: B Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 4. Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. Hydroelectric power accounts for the largest generation of electricity.

B. The largest EROEI comes from nonrenewable energy sources.

C. Nonrenewable sources account for the largest amount of energy generation.

D. Natural gas has the largest EROEI for nonrenewable energy.

Answer: C Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 5. Nuclear energy accounted for _________ of U.S. energy generation by fuel in 2015.

A. 14% B. 19% C. 33% D. 23% Answer: B Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Making Connections Use the following scenario to answer the next five questions.

Mountain Top Coal has coal-fired plants to generate electricity. The company uses mountaintop removal to access coal sources for its electric plants, in addition to strip mining and subsurface mining. Mountain Top Coal has since reclaimed the land from those mining sites. They are also considering retrofitting a plant for carbon capture and sequestration.

1. What would be a reason for Mountain Top Coal to stop using mountaintop removal for coal mining?

A. the danger to miners of explosions and toxic fumes B. acid mine drainage that can contaminate nearby streams C. the lack of someplace to store overburden D. the potential for miners to develop black lung disease

Answer: C Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 2. The purpose of using carbon capture and sequestration is to _________________.

A. remove carbon from combustion emissions for storage B. remove contaminants in coal to release less pollution when burned C. increase the energy return on energy investment D. decrease overburden produced from mining Answer: A Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 3. Mountain Top Coal uses reclamation on closed mining sites. One reason for this is to _________________.

A. prevent environmental damage to the area B. reduce environmental damage from mining the area C. remove over burden from the mining area D. produce overburden in the area Answer: B Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 4. The process of reclamation when a mined area was originally flat is done by _________________.

A. shaping the overburden to resemble the natural slope and replanting B. moving the overburden to a different area to allow the mined area to refill naturally C. replacing the mountain top with overburden and introducing new species Answer: A Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 5. Which of the following changes should Mountain Top Coal make to be more sustainable while producing energy?

A. close all mining sites to prevent any environmental damage B. stop using mountaintop removal for coal mining C. move all mining area to other countries D. contribute more funding to combat health issues from mining Answer: B Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

MODULE 9.2 Guiding Question 1 How are fossil fuels formed, and why are they considered nonrenewable resources?

Multiple Choice 1. A nonrenewable natural resource formed millions of years ago from plant or animal remains that is used as an energy source is called a ___________________.

A. hydrocarbon B. peat C. unconventional source D. fossil fuel Answer: D Section: Fossil fuels: Oil and natural gas Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 2. Which of the following is NOT a fossil fuel?

A. oil B. peat C. natural gas D. coal Answer: B Section: Fossil fuels: Oil and natural gas Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 3. Which of the following resources is considered nonrenewable as an energy source?

A. natural gas B. wood C. peat D. plant oil E. dung Answer: D Section: Fossil fuels: Oil and natural gas Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 4. The three principle fossil fuels are __________________.

A. coal, oil, and natural gas B. oil, natural gas, and tar sands C. oil, natural gas, and oil shale D. coal, peat, and lignite Answer: A Section: Fossil fuels: Oil and natural gas Level: 1

Bloom’s Level: Remembering 5. Unlike coal, the starting material for oil and natural gas was _________________.

A. mossy plant material B. petrified wood C. marine organisms D. fossilized birds E. dinosaur bones Answer: C Section: Fossil fuels: Oil and natural gas Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 6. Why are fossil fuels considered nonrenewable, given they are produced by natural processes?

FEEDBACK: The process of fossil fuel formation takes millions of years, as the buried marine organisms or plant life need to be subjected to intense heat and pressures over millennia to become oil or coal and other fossil fuels. We utilize the fuels at a rate that simply cannot be matched by the formation process; therefore, they are considered nonrenewable.

Section: Fossil fuels: Oil and natural gas Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying/Analyzing Guiding Question 2 Where are current proven oil and natural gas reserves found?

Multiple Choice 7. Which of the following types of fuel is composed of hydrocarbons?

A. oil B. coal C. natural gas D. wood E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: E Section: Oil and natural gas reserves Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 8. When talking about the formation of fossil fuels, cap rock is a ________________.

A. reservoir layer holding water B. reservoir layer hold petroleum C. reservoir layer holding natural gas D. dense layer holding in natural gas and petroleum Answer: D

Section: Oil and natural gas reserves Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 9. Refer to Infographic 2. Which area has the most natural gas and the most oil reserves?

A. United States B. Russia C. Middle East D. Libya and western Africa E. Venezuela Answer: C Section: Oil and natural gas reserves Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 10. What is a proven reserve?

A. the moment in time when oil will reach its highest production levels and then steadily and terminally decline B. a measure of the amount of fuel that is economically feasible to extract from a deposit, using current technology C. a liquid deposit that contains free-flowing oil or oil that can be pumped out D. the value of a barrel of oil at any given time Answer: B

Section: Oil and natural gas reserves Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

11. What is true of oil and natural gas?

A. They are often found together in formation.

B. They are usually found in different formations.

C. Oil is found on top of natural gas reserves.

D. Natural gas is not found in shale deposits.

E. Tight oil and shale gas are easier to access than conventional deposits.

Answer: B Section: Oil and natural gas reserves Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 12. If current rates of use and extraction do not change, known natural gas reserves are expected to last ____________ years.

A. 10 to 20 B. 60 to 100 C. 100 to 200 D. 500 to 1,000 E. 1,500 to 2,500 Answer: B Section: Oil and natural gas reserves Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 13. At the current rate of usage, which of the following energy sources is expected to run out first?

A. wood B. crude oil C. coal D. natural gas E. wind Answer: D Section: Oil and natural gas reserves Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 14. Unconventional reserves of oil or natural gas _________________.

A. can usually be recovered with traditional methods B. may be recoverable with alternative techniques C. will not be recoverable at all D. cannot be used if they are recovered E. are too expensive to recover

Answer: B Section: Oil and natural gas reserves Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

Essay 15. What is a conventional oil reserve? How does the distribution of conventional oil reserves impact relationships between countries?

FEEDBACK: Conventional petroleum reserves are liquid deposits that contain freely flowing oil or oil that can be pumped out. Conventional petroleum reserves are not evenly distributed across the Earth. Therefore, political problems arise between countries that have the oil reserves and those that do not, yet have high rates of oil consumption.

Section: Oil and natural gas reserves Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 16. Explain why it is difficult to determine how long oil reserves will last.

FEEDBACK: Such estimates rely on known reserves and both current use and rates of extraction. Many factors could change these numbers, including changes in the economy, the discovery of new reserves, increased prices, and advances in alternate fuel options.

Section: Oil and natural gas reserves Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 17. Why might it be difficult to accurately predict the point at which we reach peak oil?

FEEDBACK: Peak oil is the moment in time when oil reaches its highest production levels and then steadily continues to decline. For various reasons, we have had several declines in the past, such as in the 1980s, 2002, and 2006, but then we increased production. It is not known whether we’ll find new oil reserves or what the economy will do to the supply and demand for oil. For example, a large economic recovery with higher demand for consumer goods and gasoline could push oil production higher. For these reasons, it is difficult to predict peak oil levels or timing.

Section: Oil and natural gas reserves Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating 18. What would be the consequence of using up all available oil for gasoline and transport uses?

FEEDBACK: Modern society depends on petrochemicals, such as gasoline, in a variety of segments of the economy. They are used to create plastics, synthetic fibers, and soaps and supplies for the healthcare industry, ranging from medicines to the bags that store blood for transfusions. Currently, there are few substitutes for petrochemicals in these uses.

Section: Oil and natural gas reserves Level: 3

Bloom’s Level: Analyzing/Evaluating Guiding Question 3 How are conventional oil and natural gas extracted?

Multiple Choice 19. What process allows for primary production of oil from a well?

A. significant pressure on the oil from millions of tons of rocks pressing down and Earth’s heat B. drilling of injection wells C. water pumping through injection wells into the ground D. injection of carbon dioxide or steam into the reservoir E. use of hydraulic technologies in the well Answer: A Section: Extraction of conventional oil and natural gas Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 20. Secondary production of oil consists of _________________.

A. pumping steam into the well to force the oil out B. drilling a vertical well into the Earth C. using natural pressure to allow the oil to move upward D. pumping water into the well to force the oil out E. drilling a horizontal well into the rock layers Answer: D Section: Extraction of conventional oil and natural gas Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 21. Which of the following is TRUE of conventional natural gas deposits?

A. They can be found in deposits that contain no oil.

B. The extraction of natural gas is much more complex than extracting oil.

C. Secondary and tertiary methods will not work for any natural gas wells.

D. Natural gas will not flow out of the wells freely and must be pumped out.

E. Natural gas deposits are found under oil deposits.

Answer: A Section: Extraction of conventional oil and natural gas Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

22. When an oil well is first drilled, what is the primary recovery method?

A. natural pressure B. pumpjack C. water injection D. steam injection

E. CO2 injection Answer: A Section: Extraction of conventional oil and natural gas Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 23. How much additional oil can be recovered during secondary production?

A. 20% to 40% B. 15% C. 55% D. 75% E. 100% Answer: A Section: Extraction of conventional oil and natural gas Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 24. Which production phase injects steam, natural gas, or CO2 into the well to extract more oil?

A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. pumpjack E. fracking Answer: C Section: Extraction of conventional oil and natural gas Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

25. Natural gas is similar to oil in that it _________________.

A. has a similar extraction method B. contains impurities before it is refined C. has a similar processing method D. is found deep under the ground E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: E Section: Extraction of conventional oil and natural gas Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 26. The EROEI must be ____________ for any fuel to be worth harvesting.

A. positive B. negative C. positive or negative, it does not matter D. fluctuating

E. EROEI is not associated with profitability.

Answer: A Section: Extraction of conventional oil and natural gas Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Essay 27. What is the sequence used for extracting oil from petroleum reservoirs?

FEEDBACK: First, the reservoir is drilled into and the built-up pressure allows the flow of oil to move to the surface. Once the pressure lets up, pumpjacks are used to recover the oil under lower pressure by mechanically increasing the pressure. Finally, water or steam injection can be used to recover the last recoverable oil from the reservoir.

Section: Extraction of conventional oil and natural gas Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 28. What are the stages in the production of oil after a new well is drilled?

FEEDBACK: The intense pressure on the oil reservoir from overlying rock allows for primary production, during which the oil flows freely to the surface under natural pressure. This can account for the first 5% to 15% of the oil produced. As the pressure gradually declines, the secondary production phase begins. During this phase, water is pumped into the oil reservoir to artificially increase the pressure on the oil, allowing for more to flow to the surface. This can account for 20% to 40% of the total oil produced.

Finally, to recover the remaining oil, tertiary production methods are used that include injecting steam or CO2 into the reservoir. This can recover up to 60% of the remaining oil, though these methods are expensive.

Section: Extraction of conventional oil and natural gas Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Guiding Question 4 What are the trade-offs of acquiring and using conventional oil?

Multiple Choice 29. How does the preliminary search for oil reserves cause environmental degradation?

A. Drilling to try to find oil may release oil from reserves that then affects ecosystems.

B. Searching for oil can often cause spills that negatively affect ecosystems.

C. When searching for oil, companies often have to clear-cut areas of forest.

D. Seismic waves sent into the ground by companies searching for reserves can disorient marine and other wildlife.

Answer: D Section: The trade-offs of oil Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

30. Drilling could detrimentally affect which species in the Arctic National Wildlife Refuge?

A. Arctic fox B. polar bears C. caribou D. migratory birds E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: E Section: The trade-offs of oil Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

31. Petrochemicals create the raw materials used to produce which of the following?

A. pesticides B. plastics C. soaps D. computers E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: E Section: The trade-offs of oil Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 32. Which of the following is NOT true of the Deepwater Horizon oil spill?

A. The oil spill threatened the lives of many Gulf species.

B. The oil spill cost millions of dollars in lost fishing revenue.

C. The oil spill released close to 5 million barrels of oil into the Gulf.

D. The oil spill threatened the livelihoods of communities living along the Gulf of Mexico.

E. The oil spill was easily and quickly cleaned up.

Answer: E Section: The trade-offs of oil Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 33. Which of the following environmental costs is directly related to oil mining?

A. oil pollution B. habitat loss C. destruction due to explosions D. global warming E. All of these answers are costs of mining oil.

Answer: E Section: The trade-offs of oil Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

34. What is a hazard of burning fossil fuels?

A. the release of a variety of air pollutants B. emission of a major anthropogenic contributor to climate change C. higher rates of cancer and heart disease in workers in the petroleum industry D. dangers related to shipping and other transport E. These are all hazards to burning fossil fuels.

Answer: E Section: The trade-offs of oil Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

Essay 35. Why are environmentalists opposed to drilling for oil in the Arctic National Wildlife Refuge?

FEEDBACK: There are several reasons that environmentalists might be opposed to mining in this area: Drilling and harvesting the fuel reserves are disruptive to local ecosystems on many levels (for example, habitat fragmentation and destruction; pollution in water, soil, and air; actual threats to species in the event that anything were to go wrong); the processing of the crude oil uses valuable water resources for the area and has byproducts that pollute the environment; and then there is the shipping and other transport of the products, which could include a pipeline that will disrupt ecosystems in a multitude of ways, including releasing pollutants and greenhouse gases into the atmosphere.

Section: The trade-offs of oil Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question 5 What are the trade-offs of acquiring and using conventional natural gas?

Multiple Choice 36. Natural gas is predominantly which greenhouse gas?

A. carbon dioxide B. water vapor C. ozone D. methane E. nitrous oxide Answer: D Section: The trade-offs of natural gas Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 37. Why is flaring off of natural gas preferable to its release into the atmosphere?

A. Since it is actually methane, natural gas is a potent greenhouse gas.

B. It can spontaneously combust.

C. It doesn’t cost as much.

D. There is less loss of harvestable gas.

E. Flaring off rids the gas of its impurities.

Answer: A Section: The trade-offs of natural gas Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 38. Natural gas is seen as a bridge fuel to transition from oil to more sustainable options, since it _________________.

A. has more impurities than oil B. is less efficient to burn C. has a lower carbon footprint D. releases more CO2 than coal E. releases more toxic pollutants Answer: A Section: The trade-offs of natural gas Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

Essay 39. What do you think would be the most effective measure humans could take to reduce the amount of environmental damage from oil and natural gas mining?

FEEDBACK: While there are many things that humans could do to reduce environmental damage from fuel harvesting, perhaps the most effective measure would be to use less of it. If people as a whole reduced their energy consumption from nonrenewable resources, there would be less demand for the products of mining said resources, and corporations might shift to meet the needs of the market. Perhaps one day, with enough technological advances, energy generated from underwater turbines will heat our homes and power our lights. But for this technology to develop at a rapid pace, the demand from the paying public will have to increase.

Section: The trade-offs of natural gas Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating Guiding Question 6 What unconventional sources of oil and natural gas exist, and how are they extracted?

Multiple Choice 40. What is the definition of “unconventional oil reserves”?

A. unrecoverable oil that is found in rock, sand, or clay, whose extraction is cheap and environmentally sound

B. recoverable oil that is found in rock, sand, or clay, whose extraction is cheap and environmentally sound C. recoverable oil that is found in rock, sand, or clay, whose extraction is expensive and environmentally costly D. unrecoverable oil that is found in rock below natural gas deposits E. unrecoverable oil that is found deep below the ocean floor Answer: C Section: Unconventional oil and natural gas Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 41. Fracking is a method to extract ___________ from deep unconventional reserves.

A. coal B. oil C. natural gas D. oil shale E. both oil and natural gas Answer: E Section: Unconventional oil and natural gas Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 42. Refer to Infographic 6. What is the correct order of the steps involved in fracking?

I. Gas escapes through fractures and is collected.

II. Holes are blasted into rock, using explosive charges.

III. A well is drilled down into rock and then extended horizontally.

IV. A slurry of sand, water, and chemicals is pumped into fractures in the rock.

A. IV, II, III, I B. III, IV, II, I C. I, II, III, IV D. III, II, IV, I E. II, I, III, IV Answer: D Section: Unconventional oil and natural gas Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 43. How is fracking different from conventional oil wells?

A. It uses a quaternary production method.

B. It causes no environmental damage.

C. It uses fractures in the rock to release oil or natural gas.

D. It uses strip mining.

E. No chemicals are used in fracking.

Answer: C Section: Unconventional oil and natural gas Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

44. Which area leads the world in fracking recovery of oil and natural gas?

A. United States B. Canada C. Middle East D. South America E. Europe Answer: A Section: Unconventional oil and natural gas Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 45. Which products from the following graphic can be made with tar sand reserves?

A. petroleum gas B. gasoline C. diesel oil D. waxes E. materials for roads Answer: E Section: Unconventional oil and natural gas Level: 2

Bloom’s Level: Applying 46. How is oil extracted from Canadian tar sands?

A. fracking B. conventional oil wells C. subsurface mining D. strip mining E. mountaintop removal Answer: D Section: Unconventional oil and natural gas Level: Easy Bloom’s Level: Remembering 47. The largest concentrations of tar sands are found in ______________.

A. Canada B. Russia C. Saudi Arabia D. the United States E. Venezuela Answer: E Section: Unconventional oil and natural gas Level: Easy Bloom’s Level: Remembering 48. Which of the following statements about tar sands is NOT true?

A. They trap heavy, black oil called bitumen.

B. Tar sands mining is more efficient than harvesting conventional sources of oil.

C. Tar sands can be mined and processed to produce a substitute for petroleum.

D. Canada has the world’s largest bitumen reservoir, but much of it is trapped in tar sands.

Answer: B Section: Unconventional oil and natural gas Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 49. Which of the following is probably the MOST compelling reason to use unconventional sources of oil and natural gas in the United States?

A. There are a lot of them in North America.

B. They are easier to extract than conventional sources.

C. They are cleaner to burn than conventional sources.

D. Their extraction process is more environmentally friendly than conventional extraction.

E. They have a higher EROEI than conventional sources.

Answer: A Section: Unconventional oil and natural gas Level: 2

Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Essay 50. Explain how oil is extracted from Canadian tar sands.

FEEDBACK: The boreal forest above the tar sands deposit is removed, then the soil is dug out of the ground. The soil has to be washed with water to separate the oil from the soil. Additional processing has to be done, then the oil, or bitumen, can be shipped. If the deposit is deep, steam is injected into the deposit to melt the bitumen and force it to the surface, which requires a lot of energy.

Guiding Question 7 What are the trade-offs of pursuing unconventional oil and natural gas sources?

Multiple Choice 51. What is an unintended result of the Bakken boom?

A. increase in air pollution B. increased the crime rate C. road destruction D. increased water pollution E. All of the answers are unintended results.

Answer: E Section: The trade-offs of unconventional fossil fuels Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 52. What chemical contaminant has been found in local water supplies near fracking sites?

A. oxygen B. methane C. carbon dioxide D. lead E. oil Answer: B Section: Unconventional oil and natural gas Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 53. Which method of fracking wastewater disposal has a negative impact on the environment?

A. storage in open pits B. injection into deep wells C. use as a roadway desalter D. All of these answers have negative impacts on the environment.

Answer: D Section: Unconventional oil and natural gas Level: 1

Bloom’s Level: Understanding 54. Which natural occurrence has been linked with fracking sites in the United States?

A. monsoons B. tornados C. forest fires D. earthquakes E. hurricanes Answer: D Section: Unconventional oil and natural gas Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

Essay 55. What are the key environmental problems associated with the fracking methods for natural gas recovery?

FEEDBACK: During the process of fracking, fluids containing a mixture of toxic chemicals are injected into the well to pump the gas out. Anywhere from 30% to 70% of these fluids surface with the natural gas, and in the process they have the potential to contaminate air, soil, surface waters, and groundwater. The methane from the natural gas deposit may also contaminate local groundwater.

Section: Unconventional oil and natural gas Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 56. What effect will intensive extraction of oil sands and tar sands have on the surrounding area?

FEEDBACK: Concentrations of toxic substances are higher in waters downstream from extraction operations. Also, the oil companies must store huge quantities of acidic and toxic wastewater from the extraction process. These are huge pools of water that could leach and contaminate groundwater, nearby surface waters, or wildlife.

Section: Unconventional oil and natural gas Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding/Applying Guiding Question 8 What obstacles stand in the way of the United States (or any nation) achieving energy independence or security?

Multiple Choice 57. Which of the following is NOT a reason why our energy supplies may become unreliable or unaffordable?

A. dwindling supplies B. competition from other countries

C. dependence on energy exports D. increasing demand E. a cartel or monopoly that increases prices Answer: C Section: Fossil fuels and the future of energy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 58. What does it mean if a country is “energy independent”?

A. A country can pay to have all of its energy imported from other countries without having to borrow money.

B. A country uses a hybrid plan of energy production and energy imports to provide a stable supply of electricity for its citizens.

C. A country has access to enough reliable and affordable energy resources to meet its needs.

D. A country can meet of all of its energy needs without importing any fuel.

Answer: D Section: Fossil fuels and the future of energy Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 59. The United States has 700 billion barrels of tight oil in the Bakken, so why do people predict that we have only a 2-year supply of oil?

A. Oil demand is decreasing.

B. The oil in the Bakken is unusable.

C. Only a small fraction of the oil is recoverable.

D. We export the majority of the oil.

E. The type of oil in the Bakken can be used only for tar and roofing.

Answer: C Section: Fossil fuels and the future of energy Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 60. How can a society increase its energy security?

A. develop alternative energy sources B. increase energy efficiency C. exploit local energy sources D. reduce overall energy imports E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: E Section: Fossil fuels and the future of energy Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay

61. What is energy security, and why is it an important issue for many countries?

FEEDBACK: A country’s economy and lifestyle are dependent on reliable access to affordable energy. Dwindling supplies, increasing demand, dependence on energy imports, competition with other countries, and oil monopolies are causing an increase in global oil prices and a decrease in energy security.

Section: Fossil fuels and the future of energy Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating 62. Explain why oil consumption in the United States is on the decline, but oil consumption is on the rise globally.

FEEDBACK: Changing demographics and improved oil efficiency in the United States have resulted in declining consumption rates since 2005. However, in countries like China and India, oil consumption is rapidly increasing as incomes, standards of living, and the demand for automobiles rise.

Section: Fossil fuels and the future of energy Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating

Matching Questions Match each term in the left-hand column to the statement that it best exemplifies.

1. fossil fuel

distillation products from the processing of crude oil, such as fuels or industrial raw materials (*12) 2. oil a measure of the amount of a fossil fuel that is economically feasible to extract from a known deposit using current technology (*8) 3. natural gas deposits of oil or natural gas that cannot be recovered with traditional oil/gas wells but may be recoverable using alternative techniques (*11) 4. nonrenewable resource deposits of crude oil or natural gas that can be extracted by vertical drilling and pumping (*9) 5. tight oil a liquid fossil fuel useful as a fuel or as a raw material for industrial products (*2) 6. fracking (hydraulic sand or clay formations that contain a heavy-density crude fracturing) oil (crude bitumen); extracted by surface mining (*13) 7. crude oil having access to enough reliable and affordable energy sources to meet one’s needs (*16) 8. proven reserves meeting all of one’s energy needs without importing any energy (*15) 9. conventional reserves the amount of carbon released into the atmosphere by a person, company, nation, or activity (*14) 10. energy return on energy a resource that is formed more slowly than it is used or that investment (EROEI) is present in a finite supply (*4) 11. unconventional reserves the extraction of oil or natural gas from dense rock formations by creating factures in the rock and then flushing out the oil/gas with pressurized fluid (*6) 12. petrochemicals a mix of hydrocarbons that exists as a liquid underground; can be refined to produce fuels or other products (*7) 13. tar sands (oil sands) a measure of the net energy from an energy source (the energy in the source minus the energy required to get it, process it, ship it, and then use it) (*10)

14. carbon footprint 15. energy independence 16. energy security

a variety of hydrocarbons formed from the remains of dead organisms (*1) light (low-density) oil in shale rock deposits of very low permeability; extracted by fracking (*5) a gaseous fossil fuel composed mainly of simpler hydrocarbons, mostly methane (*3)

Linked Questions Science Literacy Use the following graph to answer the next five questions.

1. How much more oil does North America produce than natural gas?

A. 13% B. 6% C. 19% D. 7% Answer: D Section: Science literacy

Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 2. The region that produces equal amounts of oil and natural gas is _________________.

A. South America B. Africa C. Eurasia D. Middle East Answer: B Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 3. The Middle East holds approximately _______ of the world’s oil reserves.

A. 1/4 B. 1/3 C. 1/2 D. 2/3 E. 3/4 Answer: C Section: Science Literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 4. The correct order of countries from HIGHEST to LOWEST percent of natural gas reserves is _________________.

A. North America ← Africa ← Asia and Oceana ← Eurasia B. Africa ← North America ← Europe ← Central and South America C. Middle East ← Eurasia ← Africa ← Central and South America D. Asia and Oceana ← Africa ← Central and South America ← Eurasia E. Middle East ← Central and South America ← Africa ← North America Answer: E Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 5. The region that has the largest difference in percent of oil reserves compared to natural gas reserves is _________________.

A. Central and South America B. Europe C. North America D. Eurasia E. Middle East Answer: D Section: Science literacy Level: 2

Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Making Connections Use the following scenario to answer the next three questions.

The issue of how to meet our future energy needs is a wicked problem. We want to increase our energy independence and energy security. The United States has large deposits of unconventional oil and natural gas reserves, while the majority of conventional reserves are located in other areas of the world. Conventional oil and gas reserves are easiest to retrieve out of the earth, and we have used those supplies for our energy needs so far. As we deplete those conventional reserves, we turn to unconventional oil and gas reserves for more sources.

1. Why is meeting our future needs considered a wicked problem?

A. We are running out of oil and will have to rely on other countries to provide it.

B. We need reliable energy, but our energy choices create problems.

C. We don’t have the ability to use renewable energy sources.

D. There is no viable energy source available to replace fossil fuel use.

Answer: B Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 2. How can you help decrease oil and natural gas use?

A. run errands at once and not over multiple trips B. encourage public transportation or increased biking on your campus C. reduce your use of energy and disposable plastics D. All of these choices will help decrease oil and natural gas use.

Answer: D Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 3. Which of the following is a reason for using our unconventional reserves if they were more difficult to obtain?

A. Conventional reserves must be transported long distances, and are subject to spills and environmental disasters.

B. It is too expensive to import oil from other countries where the conventional reserves are located.

C. Unconventional reserves can help us become energy independent and rely less on energy imports.

D. The technology of using renewable energy sources is unreliable and too expensive to produce energy on a scale for our needs.

Answer: C Section: Making connections Level: 2

Bloom’s Level: Applying

MODULE 10.1 Guiding Question 1 What is air pollution, and what is its global impact?

Multiple Choice 1. The World Health Organization estimates that more than _______ people die prematurely each year as a result of exposure to air pollution.

A. 500,000 B. 1 million C. 4 million D. 5.5 million E. 8 million Answer: D Section: Global air pollution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 2. ________ is any material added to the atmosphere that harms organisms, affects the climate, or impacts structures.

A. Asthma B. An environmental insult C. Air pollution D. Acid deposition E. Airborne respiration Answer: C Section: Global air pollution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 3. What is the biggest health problem associated with air pollution?

A. respiratory ailments B. burns C. flulike symptoms D. birth defects E. cancers Answer: A Section: Global air pollution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 4. ________ is one of the most common chronic childhood diseases in the United States and other developed nations and a major cause of childhood disability.

A. Arthritis B. Heart disease C. Lung cancer

D. Asthma E. Skin cancer Answer: D Section: Global air pollution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 5. Which of the following is FALSE regarding asthma?

A. Developing nations are seeing a rise in asthma, especially in urban centers.

B. Asthma is a respiratory ailment marked by inflammation and constriction of the narrow airways of the lungs.

C. In the United States, asthma is the leading cause of school absences.

D. In the United States, the incidence of asthma more than doubled from 1980 to the mid-1990s.

E. None of these answers are false; all of these statements regarding asthma are true.

Answer: E Section: Global air pollution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 6. Refer to Infographic 1. The World Health Organization recognizes air pollution as a major threat to human health. Approximately how many people around the world die each year from air pollution? Why do you think India and China have a higher percentage of deaths due to air pollution?

FEEDBACK: Air pollution is responsible for at least 5.5 million deaths annually. In India and China, industrialization is happening rapidly, and air pollution regulations are not as strict as in the United States.

Section: Global air pollution Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question 2 What are the main types and sources of outdoor air pollution?

Multiple Choice 7. Air pollutants released directly from any source are considered to be which of the following?

A. ozone B. ground-level ozone C. primary air pollutants D. secondary air pollutants Answer: C Section: Outdoor air pollution: Types and sources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 8. You are driving a car. The emissions coming out of the automobile tailpipe are considered to be _________.

A. a point source B. ozone C. ground-level ozone D. primary air pollutants E. secondary air pollutants Answer: D Section: Outdoor air pollution: Types and sources Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 9. Air pollutants that are formed when primary air pollutants react with one another or other chemicals in the air are called _________.

A. nonpoint sources B. point sources C. primary air pollutants D. secondary air pollutants Answer: D Section: Outdoor air pollution: Types and sources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

10. Which of the following is NOT a primary pollutant that can contribute to the formation of secondary air pollution?

A. forest fires B. dust storms C. agriculture D. ground-level ozone E. All of these answers contribute to the formation of secondary air pollution.

Answer: D Section: Outdoor air pollution: Types and sources Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 11. Which compound is a secondary air pollutant?

A. sulfuric acid (H2SO4) B. carbon dioxide (CO2) C. particulate matter D. sulfur dioxide (SO2) E. carbon monoxide (CO) Answer: A Section: Outdoor air pollution: Types and sources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 12. Particulate pollution includes all of the following EXCEPT _______.

A. dust B. soot C. carbon dioxide D. small, suspended droplets (aerosols) E. pollen Answer: C Section: Outdoor air pollution: Types and sources Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 13. Which of the following sources of outdoor air pollution is anthropogenic?

A. sandstorms B. volcanic eruptions C. controlled burns D. wildfires Answer: C Section: Outdoor air pollution: Types and sources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 14. Sources of sulfur dioxide (SO2) air pollution include __________.

A. point sources

B. nonpoint sources C. volcanoes D. coal-burning power plants E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: Outdoor air pollution: Types and sources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

Essay 15. Why is ground-level ozone considered to be an air pollutant, while stratospheric ozone is not? How is ground-level ozone formed?

FEEDBACK: Ground-level ozone, also called tropospheric ozone, is considered a pollutant because it is a respiratory irritant that can reduce overall lung function; it can also reduce photosynthesis in plants. Ground-level ozone is produced from the interaction between nitrogen oxides and VOC with oxygen in the presence of sunlight. Stratospheric ozone in the “ozone layer” acts as Earth’s sunscreen by blocking out some of the harmful ultraviolet radiation before it reaches the surface of the Earth.

Section: Outdoor air pollution: Types and sources Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 16. What are two anthropogenic sources of outdoor air pollution? What are two natural sources of outdoor air pollution? Also list at least two of the major primary pollutants associated with these sources.

FEEDBACK: Anthropogenic (human-caused) sources include industry, agriculture, mining, and vehicles. Natural sources include dust storms, volcanoes, and forest fires.

Five major primary pollutants are sulfur dioxide, nitrogen monoxide or dioxide, carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide, and particulate matter.

Section: Outdoor air pollution: Types and sources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Guiding Question 3 What are the health, economic, social, and ecological consequences of air pollution?

Multiple Choice 17. Particulate matter is a common cause of respiratory disease because it ____________.

A. alters lung cell DNA and causes cancer B. irritates the lining of the respiratory system and causes inflammation C. physically blocks the lungs from properly processing oxygen D. causes red blood cells to not take up oxygen as efficiently E. can enter the circulatory system and physically block blood flow Answer: B Section: Consequences of air pollution

Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 18. Air pollution can cause which of the following conditions?

A. ground-level ozone B. water pollution C. asthma D. tissue damage in plants E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: Consequences of air pollution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 19. Why are children in low-income families at a higher risk for asthma than those in wealthier families?

A. Their parents are less likely to be able to afford proper medical care.

B. Their homes and schools are often located near major roads or factories.

C. They have poor diets.

D. They purchase more products that contribute to indoor air pollution.

E. Their schools are poorly ventilated.

Answer: B Section: Consequences of air pollution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 20. Power plants are often built in neighborhoods where residents have less ability to fight for their rights. This is a violation of ___________.

A. environmental regulations B. EPA protocol C. environmental justice D. transboundary jurisdiction E. deposition principles Answer: C Section: Consequences of air pollution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 21. The finding that minority communities face more exposure to pollution than their socioeconomically identical Caucasian counterparts is an example of ____________.

A. environmental justice B. EPA protocol C. environmental racism D. EPA-criteria pollutants E. poor city planning Answer: C

Section: Consequences of air pollution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 22. A study conducted by Brown University found a person’s risk for developing cancer from exposure to polluted air ______ as income _________.

A. increased; increased B. increased; decreased C. decreased; increased D. decreased; decreased E. stayed the same; increased Answer: B Section: Consequences of air pollution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 23. Which of the following is FALSE related to the health consequences of air pollution?

A. Anything that impairs the lungs also harms the cardiovascular system.

B. People living areas with higher air pollution have lower rates of heart attacks and strokes.

C. Exposure to radon is one of the leading environmental causes of lung cancer.

D. Exposure to smog and vehicle emissions is linked to increased risk of breast cancer.

E. All of these statements are true.

Answer: B Section: Consequences of air pollution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 24. What did the results of Thurston’s study of fifth graders and air pollution show?

A. Children living or going to school closer to highways were exposed to more air pollution and had more severe respiratory symptoms.

B. Children living or going to school closer to highways were not exposed to more air pollution but had more severe respiratory symptoms.

C. Children living or going to school closer to highways were not exposed to more air pollution and did not have more severe respiratory symptoms.

D. Children living or going to school closer to highways were exposed to more air pollution but did not have more severe respiratory symptoms.

E, Children living or going to school closer to highways were exposed to the same air pollution as other children but did have more severe respiratory symptoms.

Answer: A Section: Consequences of air pollution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

Essay

25. Why do lower-income and minority areas often have some of the worst outdoor air quality?

FEEDBACK: Polluting industries such as power plants and incinerators are often placed in areas where residents have less ability to fight for their rights. People in lower-income areas generally have less money, less education, and little influence in local governments, and as a result, they see a greater proportion of power plants and incinerators compared with higher-income areas which are able to exert greater influence on decision making. In addition, even in areas where socioeconomic status is accounted for, minority communities still face more exposure to pollution than average.

Section: Consequences of air pollution Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 26. What is it about the nature of the human lung that makes it so vulnerable to air pollution? Further, how does damage to respiratory tissue serve as a gateway to other kinds of human health problems?

FEEDBACK: Lungs are vulnerable to air pollution in general and particulates like soot in particular not only because they get so much exposure (because we breathe all the time) but also because lung tissue is delicate. Irritants like particles, dust, and pollen can cause the lungs to produce excess mucus in an attempt to trap and expel the irritant. As a result, the lining of the airways can become inflamed and swell; and in people with asthma, the irritation may trigger muscle contractions, which close off the airway completely. This damage to respiratory tissue also increases susceptibility to infections, and because the cardiovascular system depends on the respiratory system to provide oxygen for the body, anything that impairs the lungs also harms the cardiovascular system, which might explain the fact that people living in polluted areas also have higher rates of heart attacks and strokes. In addition, particles smaller than 2.5 µm can actually penetrate cells of the lungs or enter the bloodstream, where they are delivered to other cells of the body. If these particles come from the combustion of fossil fuels or other industrial sources, they may contain toxins, leading to problems associated with toxic exposure.

Section: Consequences of air pollution Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Guiding Question 4 What are the causes and consequences of acid deposition?

Multiple Choice 27. Even the most isolated regions on Earth are vulnerable to the effects of air pollution because atmospheric and hydrologic circulation moves chemical and particulate pollutants around the globe. This is an example of ___________.

A. environmental injustice B. transboundary pollution C. environmental racism D. internal costs Answer: B

Section: Acid deposition Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 28. Acid deposition results from burning fossil fuels that release ___________ that react in the atmosphere to form acids that fall back to Earth as acid rain, snow, and fog.

A. sulfur and nitrogen oxides B. lead and mercury C. carbon monoxide and nitrogen oxides D. VOC and sulfur oxides E. lead and VOC Answer: A Section: Acid deposition Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 29. Which of the following is a consequence of acid deposition?

A. reduced nutrient uptake by plants B. acidified lakes C. dying forests D. released aluminum from soils E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: Acid deposition Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 30. Which form of air pollution is acid rain?

A. secondary air pollutant B. primary air pollutant C. point source D. nonpoint source E. ground-level pollution Answer: A Section: Acid deposition Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Applying 31. Which nutrients are leached from soil due to acid rain?

A. aluminum B. potassium C. ozone D. nitrogen E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: B Section: Acid deposition

Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 32. Which statement about acid deposition is TRUE? A. Acid deposition is a local problem in that only areas that produce air pollution feel the effects of acid deposition.

B. Acid deposition occurs only through rain, snow, or fog.

C. Acid deposition causes plants to take up the now-available aluminum, which is detrimental to the plant.

D. Acid deposition causes the pH level to rise in affected lakes.

Answer: C Section: Acid deposition Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 33. Acid deposition can come in which form?

A. rain B. sleet C. snow D. fog E. Acid deposition can come in any of these forms.

Answer: E Section: Acid deposition Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 34. Which of the following animals are especially vulnerable to acidification of their habitat?

A. deer B. owls C. frogs D. bears E. songbirds Answer: C Section: Acid deposition Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 35. Why is looking at the local air pollution level not a good indicator of the health of various ecosystems in that area?

FEEDBACK: Air pollution, including acid deposition, is a transboundary problem in that it is not always the areas that are producing the air pollution that are the most harmed by it. Air pollution can sometimes cause problems for ecosystems that are on the other side of the continent from the source of the pollution. Acid deposition from pollution in a major city can cause remote ecosystems, like a lake, to acidify and become uninhabitable.

Therefore, if you looked only at the local air pollution levels for that remote ecosystem, you could miss the effects in other areas.

Section: Acid deposition Level: 1/2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 36. Go to the EPA’s Air Quality Index (http://www.airnow.gov/). Look at the air quality for the area in which you live (both current and archived). Does any of this information surprise you? Now, research an area that you think would have a high level of air pollution and one that you think would have a low level. Do the results surprise you?

FEEDBACK: The answer to this question will vary by student, time of year, and region.

The goal of this question is to give the student access to a wealth of data collected on air pollution in the United States and let them explore and ask their own questions of it.

Section: Acid deposition Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating 37. Refer to Infographic 4 and the pH values of precipitation in the U.S. Why are pH values for precipitation lower (more acidic) in the eastern part of the United States? What contributed to the improvement in conditions between 1994 and 2009?

FEEDBACK: Burning fossil fuels releases sulfur and nitrogen oxides, which react in the atmosphere to form acids. As a secondary pollutant, acid precipitation can fall at considerable distances from the origin of the primary pollutants (fossil fuel combustion).

In the United States, much of the population and fossil fuel combustion occurs in the eastern states. In addition, the prevailing winds carry emissions from the western and central states to the eastern states. Restrictions imposed by the Clean Air Act have helped decrease acid precipitation in the United States. Smokestack scrubbers remove sulfur from coal-burning facilities, reducing the sulfur dioxide released. In addition, emissioncontrol technologies on vehicles, such as the catalytic converter, convert dangerous combustion by-products to safer emissions.

Section: Acid deposition Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating Guiding Question 5

What air pollutants are regulated by the Clean Air Act? Multiple Choice 38. Which air pollutant is NOT regulated by the EPA? A. lead B. ground-level ozone C. volatile organic compounds (VOC) D. sulfur dioxide E. All of these answers are regulated by the EPA. Answer: E Section: The Clean Air Act Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 39. Which statement about VOCs is FALSE? A. “VOC” stands for volatile organic compound.

B. VOCs readily evaporate and dissolve in water.

C. VOCs are released by bogs.

D. The main outdoor source of VOCs is fossil fuel combustion.

Answer: B Section: The Clean Air Act Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 40. Which is FALSE regarding pollutants defined as hazardous by the EPA? A. Even in small doses, they can have adverse effects on human health.

B. They include volatile organic compounds (VOCs).

C. They may cause cancer or developmental defects.

D. All of these statements are true.

E. None of these statements are true.

Answer: D Section: The Clean Air Act Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 41. In 1963, the United States passed the ______, which sets a maximum amount for emissions of pollutants or the presence of pollutants in ambient air.

A. Safe Air Act B. Safe Air Law C. Clean Air Act D. Clear Air Law E. Safe and Clean Air Act Answer: C Section: The Clean Air Act Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

42. Which statement(s) about the Clean Air Act is/are TRUE? A. The Clean Air Act is evidence that regulations can be effective as a pollutionreduction tool because the United States has seen major reductions in common air pollutants.

B. Under the Clean Air Act, the EPA sets air quality standards for ambient air, with the states being responsible for monitoring and enforcing compliance.

C. The Clean Air Act is subject to political wrangling, as evidenced by the introduction of several congressional bills designed to limit the EPA’s ability to regulate air quality, specifically carbon dioxide (CO2).

D. Under the auspices of the Clean Air Act, the EPA approved greenhouse gas emission standards for light-duty vehicles (cars and trucks) that will require new vehicles to produce less greenhouse gas emissions.

E. All of these answers are true.

Answer: E Section: The Clean Air Act Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 43. U.S. law authorizes _____ to set standards for dangerous air pollutants.

A. the Environmental Protection Agency B. states C. the Department of Environmental Protection D. the Food and Drug Administration E. the World Health Organization Answer: A Section: The Clean Air Act Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 44. Douglas Dockery from Harvard University conducted a study to establish the link between air pollution and impaired health. Describe his study and what he found.

FEEDBACK: Dockery compared death rates in six cities before air pollution controls form the Clean Air Act were put in place with death rates after the CAA was implemented. The data showed that as the levels of small particulate matter decreased, so did the death rates. A follow-up study in 2006 showed a clear dose–response effect; the higher the air pollution, the higher the risk for death.

Section: The Clean Air Act Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question 6 What are the main sources of indoor air pollution, and what can be done to reduce it?

Multiple Choice 45. Which of the following is a source of indoor air pollution?

A. mold B. dust mites C. radon D. cigarette smoke E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: Indoor air pollution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 46. _______ is a naturally occurring radioactive gas that is produced from the decay of uranium in rock. After seeping through foundations, it can accumulate in basements and lead to lung cancer.

A. Mercury B. Lead C. VOC D. Radon E. Carbon dioxide Answer: D Section: Indoor air pollution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 47. In developing countries, the main source(s) of indoor air pollution is/are _______.

A. particulates like soot as a result of cooking with wood or charcoal B. mold C. toxic chemicals D. radon from the decay of uranium in rock that seeps through the foundations E. lead Answer: A Section: Indoor air pollution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 48. What does NOT explain why indoor air pollution may pose a bigger threat than outdoor air pollution in some locations?

A. We breathe more air indoors because we spend so much time in homes, schools, and/or the workplace.

B. Items in our home such as paint, cleaners, and furniture release VOCs, which can cause health problems.

C. Outdoor pollutants such as radon can also find their way into our buildings and concentrate in enclosed areas.

D. Secondary pollutants form and accumulate more easily in indoor environments.

E. All of these answers explain why indoor air pollution may pose a bigger threat than outdoor air pollution.

Answer: D Section: Indoor air pollution Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 49. Paints can release _______ while drying, and one way to prevent these pollutants from accumulating indoors is by _________.

A. VOCs; providing good ventilation B. chlorine; using a HEPA filter C. particulates; using low VOC paints D. toxic chemicals; removing your shoes while painting E. radon; limiting the use of carpets Answer: A Section: Indoor air pollution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Applying 44. Which of the following indoor air pollutants is correctly matched to its source?

A. radon―tobacco smoke B. cooking―particulates C. VOCs―poorly ventilated furnaces D. chlorine―damp basements E. carbon monoxide―soaps and cleaners Answer: B Section: Indoor air pollution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 50. Which of the following is NOT a source of indoor air pollution?

A. cigarettes B. cleaners C. furniture D. paint E. foundation cement Answer: E Section: Indoor air pollution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 51. According to Kirk Smith, a professor of environmental health at the University of California, Berkeley, indoor fires increase risks of pneumonia, tuberculosis, lung cancer, and low birth weight in babies born of women exposed during pregnancy. What simple solution is being widely promoted to reduce this risk of death?

A. preparing meals using solar cookers

B. switching from wood to burning crop waste as a fuel source C. adding more windows to houses as a source of ventilation D. passing a green tax to make homeowners pay for their pollution E. providing asthma inhalers to children under the age of 12 years Answer: A Section: Indoor air pollution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 52. Reducing indoor air pollution involved all of the following EXCEPT ____________.

A. providing adequate ventilation for a home B. properly storing household chemicals C. removing carpeting in the home D. sealing the home to prevent air leaks E. All of these reduce indoor air pollution.

Answer: D Section: Indoor air pollution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 53. For most people in developed countries, the greatest exposure to air pollution comes from being indoors, where structures tend to trap pollutants, keeping concentrations high.

How can exposure to these indoor pollutants be reduced?

FEEDBACK: Exposure can be minimized by avoiding or limiting the use of carpets, upholstered items, and furniture made with toxic glue and formaldehyde. Also, safer cleaners and low-VOC paints can be used where applicable. The use of a HEPA filter can also reduce indoor pollutants such as pet dander and dust mite feces. Homes should be checked for radon, and if found, the radon needs to be vented to the outside of the home.

For attached garages, running vehicles inside should be minimized to prevent carbon monoxide fumes from entering the home. Properly working heating and air-conditioning units with good ventilation will also help.

Section: Indoor air pollution Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 54. Compare and contrast the health risks associated with indoor air pollution in developed versus developing countries.

FEEDBACK: In both developed and developing countries, indoor air quality and the associated health risks are a growing concern among public health scientists. In part this is because of the amount of time people spend indoors, but it is also because certain air pollutants can get trapped inside enclosed indoor spaces at concentrations far higher than outdoor locations. Exposure to indoor air pollutants is linked to a host of potential health problems, ranging from chronic bronchitis and asthma, to eye irritation and cataracts, to lung cancer. But while the consequences of indoor air pollution are similar, the sources of the dominant indoor pollutants differ between the developing and developed world. In the

developed world, significant sources of indoor air pollution include such things as tobacco smoke; VOCs from paints, carpets, and furniture; and radon from natural uranium decay in certain bedrock formations that seeps through house foundations. In much of the developing world, the major source of indoor pollution is smoke and soot from burning wood, charcoal, dung, or crop waste as cooking fuel.

Section: Indoor air pollution Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question 20-5 How can air pollution be reduced, and what are the trade-offs of reducing it?

Multiple Choice 55. Improving air quality using command and control methods means ____________.

A. paying a tax to the government on environmentally undesirable activities or enjoying a reduction in the tax in exchange for some desirable action B. building tall smokestacks to send emissions high into the atmosphere so that they disperse and do not pool at the site of production C. following regulations that set an upper allowable limit of pollution release, which is enforced with fines and/or incarceration D. using free government money or resources intended to promote desired activities E. following regulations that set upper limits for pollution release based on which producers are issued permits that allow them to release a portion of that amount; if they release less, they can sell their remaining allotment to others who did not reduce their emissions enough Answer: C Section: Reducing outdoor air pollution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 56. Which of the following would be part of a technological solution to reducing air pollution?

A. providing tax credits for commuters who ride buses that run on compressed natural gas B. installing a carbon monoxide detector in your home C. pricing a pollution-generating product or service such that costs associated with pollution and resource depletion are accounted for D. allowing polluters to sell their excess pollution credits for a profit E. installing smokestack scrubbers to keep air pollutants from being released Answer: E Section: Reducing outdoor air pollution Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Applying

57. Reducing air pollution improves our environmental well-being and is a cost saver in the long term, as we rely on many ecosystem services. Which of the following statements correctly reflects the environmental benefit based on reducing air pollution?

A. Since lead can damage a leaf’s ability to photosynthesize, preventing lead pollution will allow for healthy plant growth and improved crop yields.

B. Since smog eats away at limestone and marble structures and damages steel and concrete, reducing smog provides protection for buildings and monuments, especially those made of marble and limestone.

C. Reducing acid rain will improve salmon fisheries, as acidified water causes aluminum to build up in water to levels that are toxic to juvenile salmon.

D. Mercury emissions create haze; thus, reducing such emissions improves visibility, a significant matter in tourist destinations.

E. Sulfur dioxide bioaccumulates in individuals and biomagnifies up food chains; thus, reducing such emissions protects our meat supply, which otherwise could become too toxic to eat.

Answer: C Section: Reducing outdoor air pollution Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 58. What did the Clean Power Plan, approved in 2016, establish rules for?

A. regulating carbon monoxide B. providing green taxes for polluters C. removing sulfur dioxide from point source emissions D. regulating carbon dioxide E. using clean coal technology Answer: D Section: Reducing outdoor air pollution Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 59. Because of the economic costs, there is often resistance to implementing solutions to reduce air pollution. What are these economic costs? Make a case for why, despite these financial costs, air pollution solutions should be implemented. In other words, what are the costs of NOT implementing these solutions? Provide two examples: one from the developing world and one from the developed world.

FEEDBACK: Mitigating or preventing air pollution costs money. Developing and installing new technology, such as scrubbers or electrostatic precipitators, to meet the mandates of the Clean Air Act can be expensive. However, the costs of the pollution reduction tools are not always that high, and it is money well spent because it prevents far greater losses down the line, both in terms of human health and environmental quality.

For example, in the developing world it is estimated that about 2 million women and children each year die a premature death due to pollution from open indoor cooking fires.

But this can be easily addressed with a simple $50 solar cooker that allows people to cook food without building a fire. Not only does this technology prevent human deaths, it

has the added advantage of not depleting local biomass resources for fuel. Similarly, in the United States, mercury and air toxic standards approved in late 2011 will limit the release of mercury, acid gases, and other pollutants from power plants, and this is expected to prevent 130,000 cases of serious asthma and as many as 11,000 premature deaths. This will save lives and money because currently in the United States, the average annual cost of care for a patient with asthma is $4,912, with 65% of that going to medications, hospital admissions, and nonemergency doctor visits, and the remaining 35% going to indirect costs like lost time at work.

Section: Reducing outdoor air pollution Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 60. If a car company wanted to reduce the air pollution created by its cars, how could it apply tools such as subsidies, tax credits, and cap-and-trade regulations in its efforts? Be sure to define each term as part of your response.

FEEDBACK: Subsidies are free government money or resources intended to promote desired activities. The car company could avail itself of subsidies to support its own investment in the research and development of new engine design or alternate fuel development that reduces air pollution. Tax credits are reductions in the amount of tax one pays in exchange for environmentally beneficial actions. The car company could use the availability of tax credits to encourage consumers to buy their cars that have reduced emissions but which might be more expensive than conventional options. Cap-and-trade regulations set upper limits for pollution release, with permits being issued to polluters that allow them to release a portion of that amount, or sell their surplus allotment to others that did not reduce their emissions enough. The car company could reduce the air emissions of its car fleet below the level of its permitted allowance and then sell the rest as a source of revenue.

Section: Reducing outdoor air pollution Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Matching Questions Match each term in the left-hand column to the statement that it best exemplifies.

1. primary air pollutants

2. particulate matter (PM)

3. transboundary pollution

hazy air pollution that contains a variety of pollutants, including sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, tropospheric ozone, and particulates (*6) a secondary pollutant that forms when some of the pollutants released during fossil fuel combustion react with atmospheric oxygen in the presence of sunlight (*13) financial assistance given by the government to promote desired activities (*10)

4. air pollution

5. command and control regulation 6. smog

7. volatile organic compound (VOC) 8. secondary air pollutants

9. cap-and-trade program

10. subsidies

11. environmental justice

12. tax credit

13. ground-level ozone

14. environmental racism

15. acid deposition

16. Clean Air Act (CAA)

the concept that access to a clean, healthy environment is a basic human right (*11) particles or droplets small enough to remain aloft in the air for long periods of time (*2) a form of racism that occurs when minority communities face more exposure to pollution than average for the region (*14) a chemical that readily evaporates and is released into the air as a gas; may be hazardous (*7) a tax (fee paid to government) assessed on environmentally undesirable activities (*17) air pollutants released directly from both mobile sources (such as cars) and stationary sources (such as industrial and power plants) (*1) pollution that is produced in one area but falls in a different state or nation (*3) first passed in 1963 and amended in 1990, a U.S. law that authorizes the EPA to set standards for dangerous air pollutants and enforce those standards (*16) regulations that set an upper limit for pollution emissions, issue permits to producers for a portion of that amount, and allow producers that release less than their allotment to sell permits to those who exceeded their allotment (*9) precipitation that contains sulfuric or nitric acid; dry particles may also fall and become acidified once they mix with water (*15) a type of regulation that involves setting an upper allowable limit of pollution release that is enforced with fines and/or incarceration (*5) a reduction in the tax one must pay in exchange for some desirable action (*12) air pollutants formed when primary air pollutants react with one another or with other chemicals in the air (*8)

17. green tax

any material added to the atmosphere (naturally or by humans) that harms living organisms, affects the climate, or impacts structures (*4)

Linked Questions Science Literacy Use the following graph to answer the next five questions.

1. In which city was relative mortality and particulate matter concentration the highest?

A. Harriman, Tennessee, during 1974–1989 B. Steubenville, Ohio, during 1990–1998 C. Harriman, Tennessee, during 1990–1998 D. Steubenville, Ohio, during 1974–1989 Answer: D Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 2. What city showed the smallest reduction in relative mortality from 1974–1989 to 1990–1998?

A. St. Louis, Missouri B. Topeka, Kansas C. Watertown, Massachusetts

D. Harriman, Tennessee Answer: B Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 3. The city with the lowest particulate matter concentration in the air during 1990–1998 was ____________.

A. St. Louis, Missouri B. Topeka, Kansas C. Watertown, Massachusetts D. Harriman, Tennessee Answer: C Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 4. The relative mortality for Harriman, Tennessee during 1990–1998 was approximately ____________.

A. 0.8 B. 1.0 C. 1.1 D. 1.2 E. 1.3 Answer: C Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 5. The particulate matter concentration in the air in St. Louis, Missouri, during 1990– 1998 was between ____________.

A. 10 and 15 µg/m3 B. 15 and 20 µg/m3 C. 20 and 25 µg/m3 D. 25 and 30 µg/m3 Answer: A Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

Making Connections Use the following scenario to answer the next five questions.

You have a young cousin with asthma. You know it is one of the most common chronic childhood diseases in developed nations, and the instance of asthma more than doubled in the United States from 1980 to the mid-1990s.

1. Which of the following is a point source of air pollution that could be harmful to your cousin?

A. smoke from burning crop fields to clear land B. exhaust released from a smokestack on a nearby power plant C. vehicle emissions from cars D. These are all point sources of harmful air pollution.

Answer: B Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 2. Which form of air pollution would aggravate your cousin’s asthma the most?

A. ground-level ozone B. dust C. carbon monoxide D. particulate matter Answer: D Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 3. Particles smaller than ____ µg are the most dangerous for people with asthma like your cousin.

A. 12.5 B. 10 C. 5 D. 2.5 Answer: D Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 4. You are talking with your family about your cousin’s asthma. You ask what can be done to reduce outdoor air pollution. Your mom describes two methods, one technological and one based on policy. Which of the following would be a technological method?

A. subsidies B. cap and trade C. smokestack scrubbers D. green taxes Answer: C Section: Making connections

Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 5. Particulates can damage respiratory tissue more in children than adults because ____________.

A. children play outside more than adults B. children breathe in more air for their size than adults do C. adults exhale more pollutants with each breath, so the effects are not as severe D. adults spend more time in buildings with controlled air ventilation Answer: B Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

MODULE 10.2 Guiding Question 1 What is climate change, and why is it more concerning than day-to-day changes in weather?

Multiple Choice 1. Long-term patterns or trends of meteorological conditions in a given area refer to its _________.

A. weather B. variability C. forecast D. climate E. albedo Answer: D Section: Climate and climate change Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 2. The meteorological conditions in a given place on a given day refer to its _________.

A. climate B. weather C. habitat D. ecosystem Answer: B Section: Climate and climate change Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 3. A shift of only a few degrees Fahrenheit in the average global temperature will likely result in more frequent and extreme heat waves. Which of the following best describes this phenomenon?

A. habitat destruction B. weather change C. climate change D. ozone formation Answer: C Section: Climate and climate change Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 4. Which of the following is NOT evidence for the recent changes in global climate?

A. a single weather event like a hurricane B. prairies giving way to deserts in Africa and the American West C. coral reefs dying off D. earlier springs and later winters E. more and longer heat waves

Answer: A Section: Climate and climate change Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 5. The actual temperature on any given day is the _________, while the range of expected values, based on location and time of year, is the __________.

A. climate; weather B. albedo; radiative forcer C. weather; climate D. prediction; weather E. forecast; reality Answer: C Section: Climate and climate change Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 6. Which of the following is NOT an aspect of climate?

A. long-term patterns or trends B. useful for predicting weather C. timing of seasonal shifts D. winter lows and summer highs hover close to expected norms E. a few warmer days here and there Answer: E Section: Climate and climate change Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 7. Global warming is an aspect of _____________.

A. climate B. weather C. extreme weather D. a particular location’s air temperature E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: A Section: Climate and climate change Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 8. Describe the difference between weather and climate. Provide an example for each.

FEEDBACK: Weather refers to the meteorological conditions in a given place on a given day. For example, the weather in New York City today is forecast to be 60° Fahrenheit and cloudy. Climate refers to long-term patterns or trends of meteorological conditions.

For example, the climate of the American Southwest includes high summer temperatures around 100°F to 125°F and below 0°F in the northernmost parts in the winter.

Section: Climate and climate change Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Applying 9. Refer to Infographic 1. What change is depicted in the infographic? What changes to weather are expected when the curve shifts to the right?

FEEDBACK: An increase of a few degrees in the average temperature shifts the entire curve to the right from the previous climate to the new climate. With the new climate, it is likely there will be more years that have the former “extreme” hot weather; it also means the affected area will likely set new records for extreme heat. Less cold weather extremes will be observed.

Section: Climate and climate change Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

Guiding Question 2 What is the physical and biological evidence that climate change is occurring?

Multiple Choice 10. Global climate change has had numerous effects on the Earth. Which of the following has been a result of global climate change?

A. increase in insect pest populations B. rise in infectious tropical diseases C. uncoupling of species connections D. increase in coastal flooding E. all of these answers Answer: E Section: Evidence for climate change Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 11. Which of the following phenomena would indicate the presence of climate change?

A. prairies turning into deserts B. coral reefs dying C. colder and longer winters D. an increase in the size of glaciers E. all of these answers Answer: E Section: Evidence for climate change Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 12. Much of which city will be under water at some point if we don’t address climate change?

A. Washington, D.C. B. Dallas C. Paris D. Miami E. Tokyo Answer: D Section: Evidence for climate change Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

13. Which of the following are expanding their range and distribution due to climate change?

A. mosquitoes B. squid C. trees D. octopi

E. All of these are expanding their range and distribution.

Answer: E Section: Evidence for climate change Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

14. Which of the following does NOT directly contribute to sea level rise?

A. melting of land-based ice B. melting of icebergs C. thermal expansion of water D. melting of glaciers E. all of these answers Answer: B Section: Evidence for climate change Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

15. Which of the following is FALSE about climate change evidence?

A. The rate of ice and permafrost melting is accelerating.

B. There is less precipitation in coastal areas.

C. Marine species are moving deeper into the ocean.

D. Some areas of Antarctica are cooling and gaining snow.

E. All of these statements are true.

Answer: B Section: Evidence for climate change Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 16. Since climatologists started keeping records in 1850, the warmest decade globally was ______________.

A. 1850 to 1860 B. 1950 to 1960 C. 1980 to 1990 D. 1990 to 2000 E. 2000 to 2010 Answer: E Section: Evidence for climate change Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 17. Species have responded to global climate change in various ways. Which of the following is an example of how species have responded?

A. shifting ranges B. earlier blooming

C. migrating to higher altitudes D. hatching earlier E. all of these answers Answer: E Section: Evidence for climate change Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 18. In terms of temperature, what recent global trends have been observed?

FEEDBACK: Overall, 2000 to 2010 is the warmest decade since records started to be kept in 1850. The seven warmest years occurred between 1998 and 2010. The global land average temperature increased by 1.73°F in 2010, compared to the twentieth-century average. In higher latitudes, temperatures have increased by 9°F or more. Sea surface temperatures have also increased by as much as 5°F in some places.

Section: Evidence for climate change Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying/Analyzing Guiding Question 3 What is the greenhouse effect, and how are we affecting it?

Multiple Choice 19. Which of the following is NOT a greenhouse gas?

A. carbon dioxide B. methane C. nitrous oxide D. halocarbons E. sulfur oxides Answer: E Section: Climate forcers: The greenhouse effect and human impact Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 20. Which of the following is the most potent greenhouse gas?

A. halocarbons like CFCs B. nitrous oxide C. methane D. carbon dioxide E. They are all equally potent.

Answer: B Section: Climate forcers: The greenhouse effect and human impact Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

21. ________ is/are anything that alters the balance of incoming solar radiation relative to the amount of heat that escapes out into space.

A. a climate forcer B. albedo C. radiation forcers D. Milankovitch cycles E. climate enforcers Answer: A Section: Climate forcers: The greenhouse effect and human impact Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 22. The biggest contributor to global warming is ______________.

A. methane released from rice paddies B. carbon dioxide released from burning fossil fuels C. CFCs released from landfill waste disposal D. nitrous oxide released from volcanic eruptions Answer: B Section: Climate forcers: The greenhouse effect and human impact Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 23. Without greenhouse gases, the average temperature on Earth would be ___________.

A. much warmer than current temperatures B. only a little warmer than current temperatures C. the same as current temperatures D. much cooler than current temperatures E. We cannot tell what the temperature would be like without greenhouse gases.

Answer: D Section: Climate forcers: The greenhouse effect and human impact Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

24. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the greenhouse effect?

A. Increased levels of human-produced carbon dioxide have enhanced the greenhouse effect.

B. The greenhouse effect did not exist before humans.

C. Greenhouse gases work by magnifying incoming solar radiation onto Earth’s surface, just like in a greenhouse.

D. Volcanoes are the largest source of greenhouse gases.

E. All of these answers are true.

Answer: A Section: Climate forcers: The greenhouse effect and human impact Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

25. What causes the level of atmospheric CO2 to rise and fall throughout the year?

A. plant growth and dormancy due to seasons B. temperature fluctuation C. movement of ocean air streams D. industry booms E. relative distance of Earth to the Sun Answer: A Section: Climate forcers: The greenhouse effect and human impact Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

26. Which of the following is an anthropogenic climate forcer?

A. volcanic eruptions B. fossil fuel combustion C. sunspot cycles D. orbital eccentricity E. none of these answers Answer: B Section: Climate forcers: The greenhouse effect and human impact Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

Essay 27. Refer to Infographic 3. Describe how the greenhouse effect works. What is different with the enhanced greenhouse effect, and what are the main causes of it?

FEEDBACK: Life on Earth depends on the ability of greenhouse gases (carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, and others) in the atmosphere to trap heat and warm the planet.

More greenhouse gases, however, mean more trapped heat and a warmer planet (an enhanced greenhouse effect). Carbon dioxide is the main driver of the enhanced greenhouse effect. The main anthropogenic sources are fossil fuel combustion and deforestation.

Section: Climate forcers: The greenhouse effect and human impact Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

Guiding Questions 4 How are atmospheric CO2 and temperature measured, and how are they correlated?

Multiple Choice 28. Data show temperature and CO2 levels are related to one another. What does this look like?

A. As temperatures rise, CO2 levels also rise.

B. As temperatures rise, CO2 levels drop.

C. As temperatures drop, CO2 levels rise.

D. As temperatures rise, there is no effect on CO2 levels.

E. We do not have enough data to say what kind of relationship there is between temperature and CO2 levels.

Answer: A Section: Temperature and CO2: Collecting and interpreting the data Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 29. Analyzing current and historic data bout CO2 tells us current CO2 levels _____________.

A. are lower than they have been in the past 2.7 million years B. are only slightly higher than they have been in the past 2.7 million years C. are the same as they have been for the past 100 years D. are higher than they have been in the past 2.7 million years E. We need more data to make any conclusions about the current CO2 levels.

Answer: D Section: Temperature and CO2: Collecting and interpreting the data Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 30. Which of the following is FALSE related to using tree rings to reveal clues about the climate?

A. Each annual tree ring provides clues about how wet and warm a year was.

B. Only living trees can be used to examine tree rings.

C. Scientists can use tree rings to examine climate more than 12,000 years ago.

D. Tree growth is tied to temperature and water availability.

E. All of these are true statements.

Answer: B Section: Temperature and CO2: Collecting and interpreting the data Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 31. Which isotope can we analyze from ice cores to give us data about the past climate?

A. 16O B. 14N C. 18O D. CO2 E. 14C Answer: C Section: Temperature and CO2: Collecting and interpreting the data Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 32. Which of the following sources are NOT used to reconstruct past climate?

A. ice cores B. sediment cores C. tree rings D. coral reef growth layers E. All of these sources are used.

Answer: E Section: Temperature and CO2: Collecting and interpreting the data Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 33. What method of measuring atmospheric CO2 levels gives a more accurate result?

A. local air measurement B. water sampling C. measurements taken from gas bubbles trapped in the ice D. temperature correlation Answer: A Section: Temperature and CO2: Collecting and interpreting the data Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 34. What method of measuring atmospheric CO2 levels gives data related to what past atmosphere CO2 levels were?

A. local air measurement B. water sampling C. measurements taken from gas bubbles trapped in the ice D. temperature correlation E. all of these answers

Answer: C Section: Temperature and CO2: Collecting and interpreting the data Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 35. List several techniques used by climate scientists to gather indirect data on climate (temperature, carbon dioxide levels, and so on) from the distant past.

FEEDBACK: They do this by studying a wide variety of clues that have been left behind, including ice and sediment cores, tree rings, coral reef growth layers, and fossilized mud at the bottom of lakes and rivers.

Section: Temperature and CO2: Collecting and interpreting the data Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

36. Refer to Infographic 4. The relationship between temperature and carbon dioxide is complex. Explain the relationship between these two variables (1) as Earth comes out of a glacial period (ice age) and increases in carbon dioxide lag temperature increases by hundreds of years, and (2) in reference to the recent warming over the past hundred years when increased carbon dioxide release is preceding the warming.

FEEDBACK: Changes in Milankovitch cycles (which affect the amount of sunlight reaching Earth’s surface) can cause warming, and as temperatures increase, more carbon dioxide is released from storage in oceans. This explains why carbon dioxide levels lag temperature by hundreds of years at the earlier time points (coming out of ice ages). Thus at this time point, carbon dioxide did not initiate the warming, but as more carbon dioxide enters the atmosphere, it causes additional warming as part of a positive feedback cycle.

In contrast, the recent warming is being driven by increased carbon dioxide levels (and other greenhouse gases) from fossil fuel combustion and deforestation. This enhances the greenhouse effect. The current warming cannot be explained by the Milankovitch cycles, as Earth is not currently in a part of any cycle in which it would have greater warming.

Section: Temperature and CO2: Collecting and interpreting the data Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating Guiding Question 5 Other than greenhouse gases, what factors affect climate change?

Multiple Choice 37. A variety of factors can warm or cool the planet. Which of the following is a positive forcer (warming effect)?

A. cloud albedo effect B. aerosols C. stratospheric ozone D. black soot on snow E. deforestation Answer: D Section: Climate forcers other than greenhouse gases Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 38. Which of the following factors has low albedo and contributes to warming?

A. glaciers B. meadows C. fresh snow D. asphalt E. aerosols Answer: D Section: Climate forcers other than greenhouse gases Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 39. Which is FALSE regarding positive feedback loops?

A. They are changes caused by an initial event that then accentuates that original event.

B. An example is melting sea ice in the Arctic.

C. They can cause rapid changes.

D. They always indicate a “positive” or beneficial event.

E. None of these answers is false.

Answer: D Section: Climate forcers other than greenhouse gases Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

40. _______ is the ability of a surface to reflect away solar radiation.

A. Albedo B. Positive feedback C. Radiative force D. Greenhouse effect Answer: A Section: Climate forcers other than greenhouse gases Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

Essay 41. How is a positive feedback loop different from a negative feedback loop? Provide an example of each.

FEEDBACK: A positive feedback loop is any change caused by an initial event that then accentuates the original event. For example, as temperatures warm, permafrost melts and releases stored carbon, which adds greenhouse gases to the atmosphere, causing more warming and additional melting of permafrost. A negative feedback loop is any change caused by an initial event that triggers an event, which then reverses the response. For example, warmer temperatures create more clouds, and those clouds have a net cooling effect.

Section: Climate forcers other than greenhouse gases Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 42. Refer to Infographic 5A. Explain why the Arctic is particularly vulnerable to climate change.

FEEDBACK: The Arctic is more vulnerable to climate change because warming that occurs there causes ice to melt, which triggers additional warming in a positive feedback loop. As ice melts, more water is exposed and absorbs more heat (darker surfaces have lower albedo), and that causes more ice to melt.

Section: Climate forcers other than greenhouse gases Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 43. Explain how clouds can participate in both positive and negative feedback loops.

FEEDBACK: Some clouds have high albedo (are more reflective) and work to cool the planet by reflecting sunlight, and thus heat, away from the planet’s surface. If warming temperatures cause the formation of more of the high-albedo clouds, this could trigger cooling in a negative feedback loop. Other clouds trap reradiated heat from the planet’s surface and thus have a warming effect in a positive feedback loop.

Section: Climate forcers other than greenhouse gases Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 44. Describe how Milankovitch cycles help explain past climate change. Explain why the current warming cannot be attributed to these cycles.

FEEDBACK: Warm periods and ice ages of the past can be attributed in part to Earth’s position in space relative to the Sun. The Milankovitch theory describes the collective effects of changes in Earth’s movements upon its climate. The variations in orbital eccentricity (shape of Earth’s orbit around the Sun), axial tilt (angle of Earth’s tilt as it spins on its axis), and axial precession (wobble of Earth’s axis) help determine climatic patterns on Earth. The current warming we are experiencing cannot be explained by the three Milankovitch cycles because Earth is not currently in a part of any cycle in which it would have greater warming.

Section: Climate forcers other than greenhouse gases Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Apply Guiding Question 6 What evidence suggests that climate change is due to human impact?

Multiple Choice 45. The cause of the vast majority of climate change can be attributed to ____________.

A. volcanoes B. the burning of fossil fuels C. cattle farming D. crop production E. forest fires Answer: B Section: Attribution: Human versus natural causes Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

46. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding climate models?

A. Climate models are not testable.

B. Climate models project future climate conditions.

C. Climate models take into account many variables, including global air circulation patterns and carbon dioxide levels.

D. Climate models that exclude anthropogenic factors are most accurate.

Answer: D Section: Attribution: Human versus natural causes Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 47. The upper limit on the number of people that will be forced to leave their homes because of climate change is 1 in every ___ people on Earth.

A. 20 B. 50 C. 100 D.1,000 E. 5,000 Answer: B Section: Attribution: Human versus natural causes Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 48. Climate models can use programs to make future climate projections by plugging in values for ____________.

A. temperature B. CO2 levels C. global air circulation patterns D. precipitation E. all of these variables Answer: E Section: Attribution: Human versus natural causes Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 49. Refer to Infographic 6. What is the scientific consensus regarding the cause of the recently observed changes in global climate?

FEEDBACK: Based on all the data gathered and analyzed, the scientific consensus is that all of the known natural forcers combined are not enough to account for the rapid climate change that is currently underway. Only when both natural and anthropogenic (related to human actions) forcers are considered together do current trends in climate make sense.

Section: Attribution: Human versus natural causes Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

Guiding Question 7 What are the current and potential future impacts of climate change?

Multiple Choice 50. Potential effects of climate change likely include all of the following EXCEPT _______.

A. an increase in the proportion of land area in severe drought B. heat extremes in some areas C. colder winters in some regions D. increased fire risk in boreal North America E. All of these answers are possible.

Answer: E Section: Impacts of climate change Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

51. Further changes in global climate will have a significant effect on world forests.

Global climate changes will impact both mean annual ______ and ______, which will cause shifts in tree populations.

A. temperature; precipitation B. logging; precipitation C. oxygen availability; temperature D. nitrogen levels; carbon dioxide levels E. temperature; available sunlight Answer: A Section: Impacts of climate change Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

52. Changes in global climate are predicted to have a negative impact on forests. Forests provide which of the following ecosystem services?

A. soil stabilization B. water purification C. sink for carbon D. oxygen production E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: Impacts of climate change Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 53. Climate change affect which of the following?

A. the environment B. human health C. economics D. societies E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: Impacts of climate change Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 54. What animals can be affected by climate change?

A. sea turtles B. alligators C. ringtail possums D. polar bears E. All of these animals can be affected.

Answer: E Section: Impacts of climate change Level: 1

Bloom’s Level: Remembering 55. How will human health be affected by climate change?

A. More precipitation will reduce water stress in regions.

B. Insect-borne diseases will increase in both range and incidence.

C. More crops will be available to feed people.

D. Fewer allergies will be seen since plants will grow poorly.

E. Fisheries will adapt and there will be more seafood to eat.

Answer: B Section: Impacts of climate change Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 56. How will climate change affect agriculture?

A. With more CO2 in the air, crops will become more productive.

B. Heat stress can improve crop growth.

C. Many weed species will die out in a warmer climate.

D. Pest outbreaks will decrease.

E. Storms could flood crops, washing away soil and nutrients.

Answer: E Section: Impacts of climate change Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 57. Climate change affects ocean ecosystems by _____________.

A. absorbing CO2 and lowering the pH of the water, causing it to become more acidic B. releasing excess CO2 into the atmosphere, increasing the air temperature over the oceans C. cooling the ocean waters, allowing ocean organisms to adapt easily D. lowering the pH, which causes organisms to create thicker, stronger shells E. cooling ocean waters, which reduces coral bleaching Answer: A Section: Impacts of climate change Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 58. Which organism is the first species whose extinction was directly related to climate change?

A. American alligator B. Bramble Cay melomys C. cuttlefish D. pika E. honeycreepers Answer: B Section: Impacts of climate change Level: 1

Bloom’s Level: Remembering

Essay 59. Describe how the recent changes in global climate are expected to impact biodiversity.

FEEDBACK: Biodiversity is being threatened on a scale not seen since the last mass extinction event 65 million years ago. Habitat destruction from human activities, such as deforestation and development, as well as changes to habitat from climate change, alter the conditions that populations have evolved to exist in. As the climate changes, those populations need to evolve in order to survive. Unlike some past changes in climate that took thousands of years to occur, the recent climate change is occurring with unprecedented speed, so these organisms might have just a few decades to adapt or migrate.

Section: Impacts of climate change Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Guiding Question 8 What actions can we take to respond to a world with a changing climate?

Multiple Choice 60. Efforts intended to minimize the extent or impact of climate change are referred to as ___________.

A. adaptation B. facilitation C. mitigation D. stabilization Answer: C Section: Responses to climate change Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 61. Accepting climate change as inevitable and adjusting as best as possible is referred to as __________.

A. adaptation B. prescription C. mitigation D. stabilization Answer: A Section: Responses to climate change Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

62. Which of the following is NOT an example of adaptation to climate change?

A. shoring up coastlines against rising sea levels B. preparing for heat waves, cold spells, and outbreaks of infectious diseases C. taking steps to ensure a sufficient water supply in areas where freshwater supplies may dry up D. consuming more fossil fuels E. All of these answers are examples.

Answer: D Section: Responses to climate change Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 63. Which of the following facilitate mitigation efforts on a national or global scale?

A. command and control regulations B. tax breaks C. carbon taxes D. cap-and-trade policies E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: Responses to climate change Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 64. How would applying the precautionary principle now to carbon dioxide emissions help to avoid, or at least lessen, some of the more serious outcomes of a changing global climate?

FEEDBACK: Many climate scientists set the upper limit of carbon dioxide that we should not cross at 560 ppm. Other scientists place it much lower at 350 ppm. At our current pace we will probably surpass the 560-ppm threshold before the end of this century. The precautionary principle can be used when data are uncertain or severe consequences are possible. In this case, consequences such as the melting of the Greenland ice sheet and other irreversible events are predicted. Although some argue that placing any kind of limit on carbon dioxide emissions would hurt the economy, others feel we need to set significant reduction targets now to make any dent in the problem.

Since there is still much debate over global climate change, acting now by using the precautionary principle should lessen risk and provide more time to further investigate the effects and consequences of global climate change.

Section: Responses to climate change Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 65. Describe the difference between mitigation and adaptation as it applies to climate change. Provide an example of each.

FEEDBACK: Mitigation refers to efforts intended to minimize the extent or impact of climate change. It includes any attempt to seriously curb the amount of carbon dioxide we are releasing into the atmosphere—for example, by using carbon capture techniques

to remove greenhouse gases from our air and sequester them underground or by consuming fewer fossil fuels to begin with. Adaptation refers to acceptance of climate change as being inevitable and adjusting as best we can—for example, by taking steps to ensure a sufficient water supply in areas where freshwater supplies may dry up, planting different crops more appropriate to the new climate, shoring up coastlines against rising sea levels, or preparing for heat waves and cold spells as well as outbreaks of infectious diseases.

Section: Responses to climate change Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 66. Describe adaptation strategies for any three of the following potential impacts of climate change: health, crop productivity, coastal erosion and flooding, biodiversity losses, drought, and fire risk.

FEEDBACK: Adaptation strategies for the potential impacts of climate change are as follows: (1) health: improve disease surveillance, implement sanitation improvements in flood-prone areas, and establish emergency action plans; (2) crop productivity: use erosion-control techniques to improve agricultural productivity and choose crops to fit new conditions; (3) coastal erosion and flooding: relocate some coastal communities if necessary, construct protective barriers like seawalls, and restore wetlands in coastal areas to protect inland areas; (4) biodiversity losses: manage wildlife and habitats to provide migration corridors or relocation assistance and protect vulnerable habitats from further human impact; (5) drought: focus on methods to capture and conserve water, including desalination in coastal areas, and practice pollution prevention to increase and protect water supplies; (6) fire risk: pursue better fire-prevention management, including prescribed burns and the thinning of forests to reduce combustible material, and improve fire-response plans.

Section: Responses to climate change Level: 2/3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

Matching Questions Match each term in the left-hand column to the statement that it best exemplifies.

1. albedo

2. climate forcer

3. negative feedback loops

4. climate change 5. climate mitigation

6. carbon taxes

7. climate adaptation 8. weather

9. greenhouse gases

10. climate

11. positive feedback loops

12. greenhouse effect

13. Milankovitch cycles

Linked Questions Science Literacy

the meteorological conditions in a given place on a given day (*8) changes caused by an initial event that then accentuate that original event (for example, a warming trend gets even warmer) (*11) predictable variations in Earth’s position in space relative to the Sun that affect climate (*13) the ability of a surface to reflect away solar radiation (*1) changes caused by an initial event that trigger events that then reverse the response (for example, warming leads to events that eventually result in cooling) (*3) molecules in the atmosphere that absorb heat and reradiate it back to Earth (*9) long-term patterns or trends of meteorological conditions (*10) governmental fees imposed on activities that release greenhouse gases into the atmosphere (*6) efforts intended to help deal with existing or impending climate change problems (*7) the warming of the planet that results when heat is trapped

by Earth’s atmosphere (*12) anything that alters the balance of incoming solar radiation relative to the amount of heat that escapes out into space (*2) efforts intended to minimize the extent or impact of climate change (*5) alteration in the long-term patterns and statistical averages of meteorological events (*4)

Use the following graphs to answer the next five questions.

1. What was the average distance moved in latitude for marine species in 2015?

A. 45 feet B. 25 miles C. 10 feet D. 20 miles Answer: B Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 2. How much deeper were marine species found in 2010 compared to 1982?

A. 45 feet B. 7 feet C. 30 feet D. 10 feet Answer: C Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 3. How does the trend of marine species change for depth from 1982 to 2015?

A. Species moved to more northern latitudes.

B. Species moved to more shallow depths.

C. Species moved to more southern latitudes.

D. Species moved to more deeper depths.

Answer: D Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

4. Which of the following correctly describes the trends seen for marine species in terms of both latitude and depth?

A. Species moved deeper in the ocean and into more northern latitudes over time.

B. Species moved deeper in the ocean and into more southern latitudes over time.

C. Species moved into more shallow areas in the ocean and into more northern latitudes over time.

D. Species moved into more shallow areas in the ocean and into more southern latitudes over time.

Answer: A Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 5. Why would marine species change latitude over time?

A. Northern latitudes would be warmer, so more species would migrate there to avoid climate changes in the ocean.

B. Southern latitudes would be warmer, so more species would migrate there to avoid climate changes in the ocean.

C. Northern latitudes would be cooler, so more species would migrate there to avoid climate changes in the ocean.

D. Southern latitudes would be cooler, so more species would migrate there to avoid climate changes in the ocean.

Answer: C Section: Science literacy Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Applying/Analyzing

Making Connections Use the following scenario to answer the next five questions.

You are talking with some friends. Your friend Jessica says she doesn’t believe in climate change, since the Earth has always gone through warming cycles. She says all the impacts we are experiencing now are a result of those cycles, and they will eventually slow down and stop as the Earth comes out of the cycle. “Plus,” she says, “it’s been really cold this winter, so there can’t be a changing climate.”

1. What is TRUE of the cold winter in your area?

A. The cold winter is a result of climate patterns and not weather.

B. The cold winter is part of the natural warming cycle of the Earth.

C. Climate change can cause extreme cold weather in some areas.

D. The cold winter has nothing to do with the overall climate in your area.

Answer: C Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

2. You tell Jessica evidence for climate change can be seen in ____________.

A. rising average temperatures each year B. rising sea levels C. changes in species habitat and relationships D. all of these Answer: D Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 3. What could you tell Jessica about the Earth’s natural cycles (Milankovitch cycles)?

A. The cycles have no impact on the climate of the Earth.

B. The cycles are very long-term and would not have a notable change over a few decades.

C. The cycles are speeding up and producing climate change.

D. The Earth’s position relative to the Sun is in a warming phase.

Answer: B Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 4. Climate models show that when we consider both anthropogenic and natural forcers together, the result is ____________.

A. observed temperatures match with the predictions of the model B. observed temperatures are higher than the predictions of the model C. observed temperatures are lower than the predictions of the model D. we do not have enough data to predict how anthropogenic forcers are affecting temperatures Answer: A Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 5. What is a mitigating approach to climate change you can tell Jessica about?

A. erecting coastal barriers to deal with current sea-level rise B. providing migration corridors for wildlife C. using sustainable energy sources D. planting crops to match the current climate Answer: C Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

MODULE 11.1 Guiding Question 1 What are radioactive isotopes, and why are they important for nuclear power?

Multiple Choice 1. Nuclear power plants use ___________ to boil water and produce steam, which is then used to generate electricity.

A. heat B. coal C. oil D. fossil fuels E. petroleum Answer: A Section: Nuclear powered fuel: Radioactive isotopes Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 2. Isotopes are atoms that have the same number of _____________ but a different number of ______________.

A. neutrons; protons B. protons; neutrons C. protons; electrons D. electrons; protons E. neutrons; electrons Answer: B Section: Nuclear powered fuel: Radioactive isotopes Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 3. An atom that spontaneously emits subatomic particles and/or energy is called ______________.

A. radioactive B. isotopic C. fissionary D. fusionary Answer: A Section: Nuclear powered fuel: Radioactive isotopes Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 4. The simplest form of matter that cannot be broken down by chemical means is a(n) ___________.

A. element B. isotope C. atom

D. uranium isotope E. helium element Answer: C Section: Nuclear powered fuel: Radioactive isotopes Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 5. While the number of ____ in the atom of an element is unique, the number of _______can vary.

A. neutrons, protons B. neutrons, electrons C. protons, neutrons D. protons, electrons E. electrons, protons Answer: C Section: Nuclear powered fuel: Radioactive isotopes Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 6. Isotopes are named according to the number of ___________.

A. neutrons B. protons C. electrons D. protons plus neutrons E. protons plus electrons Answer: D Section: Nuclear powered fuel: Radioactive isotopes Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 7. _____________________ is energy released when an atom is split or combines with another to form a new atom.

A. Nuclear decay B. The half-life C. Nuclear fusion D. Nuclear energy Answer: D Section: Nuclear powered fuel: Radioactive isotopes Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 8. Atoms that have different numbers of neutrons in their nucleus but the same number of protons are known as ___________________.

A. decay products B. half-lives C. isotopes

D. neutral Answer: C Section: Nuclear powered fuel: Radioactive isotopes Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 9. The mass number for an element is composed of which of the following?

A. electrons and protons B. protons and neutrons C. neutrons and electrons D. protons E. neutrons Answer: B Section: Nuclear powered fuel: Radioactive isotopes Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 10. Which of the following could be composed of 92 protons and 146 neutrons?

A. uranium-235 B. uranium-238 C. plutonium-241 D. plutonimum-236 Answer: B Section: Nuclear powered fuel: Radioactive isotopes Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 11. Radioactive isotopes are important for producing electricity because ___________________.

A. they can be converted directly into electricity B. electrons from the isotopes are separated and used for electricity C. the heat from their fission is used to create steam, which is converted to electricity D. All of these answer choices are correct.

E. None of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: C Section: Nuclear powered fuel: Radioactive isotopes Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Applying Essay 12. What are the similarities and differences between uranium-238 and uranium-235?

FEEDBACK: Both are radioactive isotopes of uranium, and each of their nuclei contains 92 protons. U-238 has a greater number of neutrons, 146, than U-235, which has 143.

The larger number of neutrons results in U-238 being a heavier atom and a more stable form than the lighter U-235.

Section: Nuclear powered fuel: Radioactive isotopes

Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question 2 How is uranium fuel for nuclear power produced?

Multiple Choice 13. Why is U-235 used more in nuclear reactors than U-238 is?

A. U-235 is more abundant.

B. U-235 is cheaper to mine.

C. U-235 is more reactive.

D. U-235 has fewer externalities.

E. U-235 produces less harmful radiation.

Answer: C Section: Production of nuclear fuel Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 14. ___________________ rods are used in a nuclear plant to absorb neutrons and regulate the speed of the fission chain reaction.

A. Fuel B. Nuclear C. Regulatory D. Control E. Mechanical Answer: D Section: Production of nuclear fuel Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 15. Radioactive tailings are created in which step of the nuclear fuel production?

A. mining the ore B. milling C. enrichment D. fuel production E. decommissioning of the nuclear plant Answer: B Section: Production of nuclear fuel Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 16. High cancer rates are observed in workers who mine U-235 because U-235 naturally decays into ________________.

A. radon B. mercury C. lead

D. carbon dioxide E. carbon monoxide Answer: A Section: Production of nuclear fuel Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 17. Yellowcake is produced by which step of the nuclear fuel process?

A. mining B. milling C. enrichment D. fuel rod assembly E. disposal Answer: B Section: Production of nuclear fuel Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 18. Refer to Infographic 2. Explain why the mining of uranium ore is hazardous for the miners.

FEEDBACK: Any mining process can be hazardous for miners. But U-235 naturally decays into radon gas. Radon gas is a very heavy, radioactive gas that settles in low places. Miners are exposed to this gas and as a result have higher rates of cancer than the rest of the population.

Section: Production of nuclear fuel Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 19. Refer to Infographic 2. The process of generating nuclear energy produces hazardous waste at every step. Speculate on the hazards of milling and enriching the uranium.

FEEDBACK: Milling requires either an alkaline or acidic solution that must be dealt with after use. One ton of ore is needed to make 1 to 5 pounds of usual yellow cake. This would leave almost a ton of milling waste, much of which is radioactive. Enrichment

removes some of the U-238 to leave behind a higher concentration of U-235. This, too, produces radioactive waste that must be stored safely.

Section: Production of nuclear fuel Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating Guiding Question 3 How is nuclear energy harnessed to generate electricity in a fission reactor?

Multiple Choice 20. How is a pressure water reactor different from a boiling water reactor?

A. In a pressure water reactor, the steam that turns the turbine is not exposed to radiation.

B. In a pressure water reactor, steam is produced in the reactor core itself.

C. In a pressure water reactor, only the turbine is exposed to radiation during electricity production.

D. In a boiling water reactor, the water heated by fuel rods is never exposed to the turbine.

E. In a boiling water reactor, steam is produced outside the reactor core.

Answer: A Section: Generating electricity with nuclear energy Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 21. Why is water valuable in the production of nuclear energy?

A. Water cools control rods.

B. Water produces steam.

C. Water prevents the reactor from overheating.

D. Water both produces steam and prevents the reactor from overheating.

E. Water both cools control rods and prevents the reactor from overheating.

Answer: E Section: Generating electricity with nuclear energy Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 22. ___________________ is a nuclear reaction that occurs when a neutron strikes the nucleus of an atom and breaks it into two or more parts.

A. Nuclear fusion B. Nuclear fission C. Radioactive decay D. Cold fusion E. Cold fission Answer: B Section: Generating electricity with nuclear energy Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

23. A chain reaction is created in a nuclear plant when U-235 in the fuel rods is bombarded with _______________, causing the nucleus to become unstable and split.

A. neutrons B. electrons C. protons D. electricity E. water Answer: A Section: Generating electricity with nuclear energy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 24. Which of the following statements about nuclear fission is NOT true?

A. Nuclear fission splits the nucleus of an atom.

B. Nuclear fission releases energy.

C. Nuclear fission reactions depend on radioactive isotopes.

D. Nuclear fission does not produce any heat.

Answer: D Section: Generating electricity with nuclear energy Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 25. What is the process of nuclear fission?

FEEDBACK: Nuclear fission is a nuclear reaction that occurs when a free neutron strikes the nucleus of an atom and breaks it into two or more component parts. Stated another way, it is a reaction that involves splitting an atom, and the splitting process gives off heat that can be used in generating electricity.

Section: Generating electricity with nuclear energy Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 26. How do control rods regulate the rate of the nuclear reaction?

FEEDBACK: Control rods are made of materials such as boron or graphite that can absorb neutrons. Control rods are placed in the fuel rod assembly and control the rate of the nuclear reaction. Control rods can be added to slow or stop the reaction or removed to make the reaction go faster.

Section: Generating electricity with nuclear energy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 27. Refer to Infographic 3. Use the infographic to explain how a nuclear reaction happens.

FEEDBACK: A nuclear reaction begins with the splitting of an atom. The atom is bombarded with a neutron that breaks the atom into a smaller atom and releases free neutrons and heat. The free neutrons hit other atoms, causing them to split and release more neutrons. The rate of the reaction is controlled by the insertion of control rods that absorb the free neutrons.

Section: Generating electricity with nuclear energy Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Applying 28. Explain why nuclear power plants require a vast amount of water.

FEEDBACK: All types of thermoelectric power take a lot of water. Nuclear power plants require the most. Water is needed not only to produce steam but also to keep spent fuel rods cool and to prevent the reaction from overheating. Without water to cool the fuel rods, the rods can melt down and release large amounts of radioactivity.

Section: Generating electricity with nuclear energy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 29. Explain the process involved in producing energy in a fission reactor, starting with U235 and ending with the production of electricity. Be sure to mention the words “fuel rods” and “control rods.”

FEEDBACK: The nuclear fission process that produces electricity is a chain reaction that begins in the fuel rods. First, a U-235 atom in the fuel rods is bombarded with a neutron, making the nucleus unstable and causing it to split into two or more smaller atoms. The split into smaller atoms releases neutrons. These additional neutrons bombard even more U-235 atoms, causing them to split and release further quantities of neutrons. Each time a U-235 atom splits, a small amount of heat is also released from the reaction. This heat from the reaction is used to boil water, which then produces steam, which is then used to turn turbines and create electricity. Control rods are placed among the fuel rods to control the speed of the reaction because the chain reaction is almost instantaneous and needs to be highly controlled.

Section: Generating electricity with nuclear energy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

30. What are some safety precautions used in the production of nuclear energy?

FEEDBACK: Unlike nuclear bomb reactions, the reactions used to boil water and generate energy are highly controlled. One control is the use of control rods, which are made of materials that absorb neutrons. They slow down the fission reaction by reducing the number of neutrons available to react with the radioactive isotopes. Tremendous amounts of water are also used to help keep the production of nuclear energy safe. Water cools the fuel rods and prevents the reactor from overheating.

Section: Generating electricity with nuclear energy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Guiding Question 4 What types of radiation are produced when an isotope decays?

Multiple Choice 31. During radioactive decay, radioactive isotopes can give off which of the following?

A. gamma radiation B. heat C. particles D. gamma radiation, heat, and particles E. both gamma radiation and heat Answer: D Section: Types of radiation Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 32. Which of the following is a high-energy photon?

A. alpha radiation B. beta radiation C. gamma radiation D. both alpha and beta radiation Answer: C Section: Types of radiation Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 33. What best describes alpha particles?

A. They have the greatest potential to cause serious health problems.

B. It takes thick concrete to stop them.

C. They can penetrate upper layers of skin.

D. They can be stopped by a sheet of paper.

E. They can be stopped by heavy clothing.

Answer: D Section: Types of radiation Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

34. What is beta radiation?

A. ionizing particle radiation that consists of two protons and two neutrons B. ionizing particle radiation that consists of electrons C. ionizing high energy photons D. ionizing particle radiation that consists of two protons, two neutrons, and two electrons E. an electromagnetic wave Answer: B Section: Types of radiation Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 35. Refer to Infographic 4. Three types of radiation are given off by radioactive isotopes.

Name each one, describe their penetration ability, and explain if and how they are hazardous to humans.

FEEDBACK: The three types of radiation given off by radioactive isotopes are alpha, beta, and gamma radiation. Alpha particles are the largest of the three and cannot penetrate paper or skin. However, they can be ingested or inhaled, which poses a threat to human health. Beta particles are smaller than alpha particles, but can be easily stopped from entering the human body by heavy clothing or a thin sheet of aluminum. Lastly, gamma rays are high-energy radiation and can be stopped only by thick concrete or lead.

Exposure to any of these types of radiation can damage body organs, lead to radiation sickness, cause birth defects, or cause genetic mutations that lead to cancer.

Section: Types of radiation Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Guiding Question 5 How is the rate of decay of a radioactive atom measured?

Multiple Choice 36. The time it takes for half of the radioactive isotopes in a sample to decay to a new form is known as its ___________________.

A. isotope

B. radioactivity C. radioactive half-life D. nuclear energy Answer: C Section: Radioactive decay Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 37. Which of the following is emitted during radioactive decay?

A. gamma radiation B. heat C. subatomic particles D. energy E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: E Section: Radioactive decay Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 38. Refer to the graphic below. Which of the following isotopes would be the safest to handle in the shortest period of time? (Radioactive isotopes are considered safe to handle after 10 half-lives.)

A. uranium-234 B. uranium-238 C. thorium-234 D. thorium-226 E. protactinium-234

Answer: E Section: Radioactive decay Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 39. Refer to the graphic below. Which of the following isotopes would you expect to find in the greatest amount throughout the universe?

A. uranium-238 B. thorium-234 C. protactinium-234 D. uranium-234 E. thorium-226

Answer: A Section: Radioactive decay Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 40. A radioactive particle that has gone through 2 half-lives retains what percent of its parent material?

A. 200 B. 100 C. 50 D. 25 E. 2 Answer: D Section: Radioactive decay

Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 41. Which of the following choices for an isotope represents the greatest production of daughter atoms?

A. 1 half-life B. 2 half-lives C. 3 half-lives D. 4 half-lives E. 5 half-lives Answer: E Section: Radioactive decay Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Applying 42. Refer to the graphic below. Which of the following choices is a daughter atom of Thorium-226?

A. thorium-234 B. radium-226 C. uranium-234 D. protactinium-234

Answer: B Section: Radioactive decay Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 43. Refer to Infographic 5. If the half-life of a certain radioactive isotope is 5 years and

100 atoms of parent material exist in the original sample, how many parent atoms will be present in the sample after 10 years?

A. 100 B. 75 C. 50 D. 25 E. 0 Answer: D Section: Radioactive decay Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Essay 44. What is the half-life of a radioactive isotope, and how long is it?

FEEDBACK: The half-life of a radioactive isotope is the time it takes for one isotope to decay. It is expressed as the time required for half of the isotope to decay and form a new daughter material. Radioactive isotopes continue to decay from one form to the next until they form a stable isotope that no longer gives off particles. The length of a half-life is different for each radioactive isotope.

Section: Radioactive decay Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

45. Disposal of radioactive waste from the generation of nuclear power is a controversial topic. Given what you know about radioactive decay, why would environmentalists be concerned about the generation of all this waste?

FEEDBACK: Environmentalists are concerned about radioactive waste for a variety of reasons. One important reason is that the half-life of the decay of uranium-235 to a stable form (lead) takes around 700 million years. That is a long time for something to be around that can potentially damage Earth’s ecosystems. The fact that no one has figured out yet how to safely dispose of the waste is another concerning issue.

Section: Radioactive decay Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Guiding Question 6 What problems are associated with nuclear waste?

Multiple Choice 46. Refer to the graphic below. Why is the progression of uranium-238 to the stable lead206 such a concern?

A. There is no guarantee that the uranium-238 will progress in this manner, so it might become something even more dangerous.

B. The long length of time it takes for uranium-238 to become harmless means it is difficult to dispose of in a safe manner.

C. Uranium-238 is the quickest of the radioactive elements to decay; the others are even more dangerous.

D. Uranium-238 is the most reactive of the uranium isotopes and so is the most dangerous.

E. Uranium-238 is the least common of the uranium isotopes and so is the hardest to find.

Answer: B Section: Nuclear waste Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 47. Which of the following is NOT true concerning the storage of high-level radioactive waste (HLRW) in the United States?

A. We do not have a reliable long-term storage site for these wastes.

B. We are running out of space in the short-term steel-lined pools the wastes are stored in.

C. The longest half-life of materials in the HLRW is about 2000 years.

D. Some sites are storing the waste in large steel casks.

E. Approximately 65,000 metric tons of HLRW are currently in storage in the United States.

Answer: C Section: Nuclear waste Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 48. Congress authorized a controversial, long-term storage facility, but construction was stopped after 15 years. What stopped the construction?

A. A better site was found.

B. An act of Congress stopped construction.

C. The local people protested and wouldn’t allow construction to continue.

D. President Obama halted construction, though the problem and controversy remain.

E. A tsunami made the site unsuitable.

Answer: D Section: Nuclear waste Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 49. One of the hazardous issues in producing electricity with nuclear fuel is the large quantity of water it requires. Which of the following is NOT one of the uses of water when producing electricity with nuclear fuel?

A. Without water, fuel rods will melt and release radon gas.

B. Water is needed to produce the steam to turn the turbines.

C. Without water, fuel rods will release radioactivity.

D. Fuel rods will get hot and react with the steam to produce explosive hydrogen gas.

E. Water is needed to keep the reactor from overheating.

Answer: A Section: Nuclear waste Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

50. Low-level radioactive waste ________________.

A. can usually be safely buried B. has low amounts of radiation relative to its volume C. includes clothing and tools exposed to radioactive material D. is stored at three sites in the United States E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: Nuclear waste Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 51. Where are spent fuel rods currently stored?

A. at long-term storage sites B. in steel-lined pools C. in Yucca Mountain, Nevada D. underground in emptied magma chambers E. in developing countries Answer: B Section: Nuclear waste Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 52. Spent fuel rods are one of the wastes associated with the production of nuclear energy. Spent fuel rods are classified as ________________.

A. LLRW (low-level radioactive waste) B. MLRW (medium-level radioactive waste) C. HLRW (high-level radioactive waste) D. recoverable waste E. insignificant waste Answer: C Section: Nuclear waste Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 53. How can nuclear waste best be disposed of?

FEEDBACK: The three main options for disposal of nuclear waste are a geologic repository, storage, and recycling. Most scientists agree that the best solution for longterm disposal of nuclear waste is burying it deep in the Earth in a geological repository.

Most nuclear plants store nuclear fuel in large steel-lined concrete pools filled with water.

However, this method of storage is only a short-term solution. Used nuclear fuel rods can be disposed of by recycling the unused fuel inside.

Section: Nuclear waste

Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating Guiding Question 7 What is the history of nuclear accidents worldwide?

Multiple Choice 54. The first major nuclear accident was at ___________.

A. Chernobyl B. Three Mile Island C. Fukushima D. Palo E. There have been no major nuclear power plant accidents.

Answer: B Section: Nuclear industry accidents Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 55. Which president was the first to talk about the benefits of nuclear energy instead of its horrors?

A. Truman B. Roosevelt C. Eisenhower D. Carter E. Nixon Answer: C Section: Nuclear industry accidents Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 56. What were the steam explosions at Fukushima rated on the International Nuclear and Radiological Event Scale?

A. Level 1 incident B. Level 3 incident C. Level 4 accident D. Level 5 accident E. Level 7 accident Answer: E Section: Nuclear industry accidents Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 57. The Chernobyl nuclear accident was caused by ___________.

A. an earthquake B. a tsunami C. human error

D. an electrical failure E. a cooling malfunction Answer: C Section: Nuclear industry accidents Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Guiding Question 8 What are the advantages and disadvantages of nuclear power?

Multiple Choice 58. Which of the following is NOT one of the causes of the high expense involved in nuclear power production?

A. It costs about twice as much to build a nuclear power plant than it does to build one that utilizes fossil fuels.

B. Nuclear power plants last about 40 years.

C. Nuclear plants are expensive to decommission.

D. Nuclear fuel is three times as expensive as fossil fuels.

E. Nuclear plants are more expensive to maintain than conventional plants, partly because the disposal of the fuel is costly.

Answer: D Section: The pros and cons of nuclear power Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 59. Nuclear energy is considered to be a clean energy because of all but which of the following?

A. Sulfur dioxide is not produced.

B. NOx compounds are not released.

C. Much less CO2 (therefore, fewer greenhouse gases) are released.

D. Particulates are not released.

E. Less hot water is produced than by conventional power plants.

Answer: E Section: The pros and cons of nuclear power Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 60. Compared with coal-fired plants, nuclear power plants are more ____________________.

A. likely to release particulates and gases B. susceptible to natural disasters C. likely to explode D. likely to pollute the water E. likely to cause an enhanced greenhouse effect Answer: B Section: 22.5

Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 61. A cost and benefit analysis of all our energy resources must include which of the following?

A. environmental costs B. monetary costs of kilowatt-hours C. social costs D. risk assessments E. All of these answer choices are correct.

Answer: E Section: The pros and cons of nuclear power Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 62. ________________ provides the cleanest source of energy.

A. Coal B. Oil C. Oil shale D. Natural gas E. Nuclear Answer: E Section: The pros and cons of nuclear power Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Applying 63. What is one criticism of nuclear energy–development projects?

A. They would upset the fossil fuel–based global economy.

B. Some methods of power generation create radioisotopes that can be used in weapons.

C. Power production cannot be increased or decreased to reflect demand.

D. Fuels used in nuclear power are not as energy rich as coal.

Answer: B Section: The pros and cons of nuclear power Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 64. Explain how using uranium as a fuel to produce energy is an advantage as far as availability goes versus the availability of fossil fuels.

FEEDBACK: Uranium ore is currently more plentiful than the remaining reserves of fossil fuels. Also, 1 pound of uranium contains the same amount of energy as 100,000 pounds of coal, resulting in comparable costs per kilowatt-hour.

Section: The pros and cons of nuclear power Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

65. Refer to Infographic 3. The Fukushima plant was a boiling water reactor. Why did this make preventing an explosion in the plant after the earthquake and tsunami more difficult? Would it have been easier if it had been a pressurized water reactor?

FEEDBACK: A boiling water plant produces the steam in the reactor core and then sends it to the turbine. This means that the steam would need to be vented after the earthquake to prevent an explosion. However, venting the steam to the outside would release radioactivity into the air. For this reason, plant operators were reluctant to vent the steam.

In a pressure water boiler, the radioactive water from the core is used to heat a second batch of water to steam. Therefore, venting the steam would not have released radioactivity.

Section: The pros and cons of nuclear power Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating 66. Discuss the safety of living near a nuclear power plant relative to living near a coalfired power plant.

FEEDBACK: Data show no increased risk of birth defects for those living near a nuclear plant compared with those living farther away. But another study shows that the number of cancer-related deaths does increase the closer one lives to a coal-fired plant. Research shows that living near a nuclear plant is actually safer than living near a coal plant.

Section: The pros and cons of nuclear power

Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 67. Do you think nuclear energy should replace energy generated from fossil fuels? Make your argument by highlighting costs, electricity production, pollution and safety, and supplies.

FEEDBACK: Answers will vary. Refer to Infographic 8 for a list of advantages and disadvantages concerning nuclear energy.

Section: The pros and cons of nuclear power Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating

Matching Questions Match each term in the left-hand column to the statement that it best exemplifies.

1. nuclear energy 2. nuclear fission

3. isotopes 4. radioactive

5. radioactive half-life 6. fuel-rod

7. control rods

8. low-level radioactive waste (LLRW) 9. high-level radioactive waste (HLRW) 10. U.S. Nuclear Waste Policy Act (1982) 11. atom 12. element

13. alpha radiation 14. beta radiation 15. gamma radiation 16. radioactive decay

atoms that spontaneously emit subatomic particles and/or energy (*4) hollow metal cylinders filled with uranium fuel pellets for use in fission reactors (*6) ionizing high-energy electromagnetic waves (photons) (*15) spent nuclear reactor fuel or waste from the production of nuclear weapons that is still highly radioactive (*9) the simplest form of matter that can be broken down by chemical means (*11) the spontaneous loss of particle or gamma radiation from an unstable nucleus (*16) energy released when an atom is split (fission) or combines with another to form a new atom (fusion) (*1) a nuclear reaction that occurs when a neutron strikes the nucleus of an atom and breaks it into two or more parts (*2) rods that absorb neutrons and slow the fission chain reaction (*7) the time it takes for half of the radioactive isotopes in a sample to decay to a new form (*5) ionizing particle radiation that consists of electrons (*14) atoms that have different numbers of neutrons in their nucleus but the same number of protons (*3) material that has a low level of radiation for its volume (*8) ionizing particle radiation that consists of two protons and two neutrons (*13) a substance composed of all the same type of atoms (*12) the federal law which mandated that the federal government build and operate a long-term repository for the disposal of high-level radioactive waste (*10)

Linked Questions Science Literacy Use the following graph to answer the next five questions.

Electriccity Generated (%)

State Electricity Generation by Fuel Type 90

Nuclear

80

Renewables

70

Fossil Fuels

60 50 40 30 20 10 0 Texas

South Carolina

Alabama

Washington

Nebraska

[Graph created by Terri Matiella based on data from: https://www.nei.org/Knowledge-Center/Nuclear-Statistics/US-Nuclear-PowerPlants/State-Electricity-Generation-Fuel-Shares] 1. Which state leads in electricity generation by nuclear energy?

A. Texas B. South Carolina C. Alabama D. Washington E. Nebraska Answer: B Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 2. Approximately how much power does Alabama generate from nuclear energy?

A. 39% B. 65% C. less than 10% D. 28% E. There is not enough data to tell.

Answer: D

Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 3. What is the correct order of the states from the GREATEST percent of electricity generated by nuclear power to the LEAST percent generated?

A. Texas, South Carolina, Alabama, Nebraska B. South Carolina, Washington, Nebraska, Texas C. South Carolina, Nebraska, Alabama, Texas D. Washington, Nebraska, Alabama, South Carolina E. Alabama, Nebraska, Texas, Washington Answer: E Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 4. Which state produces the greatest percent of energy from fossil fuels and the least from nuclear energy?

A. Texas B. South Carolina C. Alabama D. Washington E. Nebraska Answer: A Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 5. Which state produces the greatest percent of its energy from renewable sources?

A. Texas B. South Carolina C. Alabama D. Washington E. Nebraska Answer: D Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Making Connections Use the following scenario to answer the next three questions.

You are attending a community meeting that is discussing the possibility of approving a nuclear power plant to be built which would supply the entire community with electricity.

1. One of the community members says he heard nuclear power comes from a nuclear reaction where atoms are combined together. Is he correct?

A. Yes, this is how nuclear energy is produced.

B. No, nuclear energy is produced when atoms are split.

C. No, nuclear energy is produced with radiation from radioactive decay.

Answer: B Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 2. Another community member says she is worried about living near a nuclear power plant, since she heard they can cause people to get sick. She wants to know what benefits the plant would have. You speak up and tell her that ___________.

A. nuclear power produces hardly any air pollution–causing by-products like fossil fuels do B. research shows living next to a coal-fired power plant is more dangerous than living next to a nuclear power plant C. uranium ore is more abundant and produces more energy-rich fuel than fossil fuels do D. You tell the community member all of these reasons, since they are all benefits.

Answer: D Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 3. Your neighbor leans over and tell you he is opposed to the idea, since the radiation from the plant will go through any material, and can lead to radiation sickness. Is he correct?

A. Yes, all types of radiation are strong enough to penetrate any material.

B. No, while gamma radiation can penetrate through most material, it can be stopped with lead or thick concrete.

C. No, only alpha radiation will cause radiation sickness.

D. Yes, since radioactive isotopes only produce one type of radiation.

Answer: B Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

MODULE 11.2 Guiding Question 1 What are the characteristics of a sustainable energy source, and what types are commonly used?

Multiple Choice 1. ___________________ energy is replenished over short time scales or is perpetually available.

A. Sustainable B. Reusable C. Renewable D. Fossil fuel Answer: C Section: Characteristics of sustainable energy sources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 2. _____________________ energy is renewable and has a low environmental impact.

A. Sustainable B. Reusable C. Renewable D. Fossil fuel Answer: A Section: Characteristics of sustainable energy sources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 3. A sustainable energy source has which of the following characteristics?

A. It is renewable.

B. It has a low environmental footprint.

C. It is affordable to the consumer.

D. All of these answers are correct.

E. None of these answers is correct.

Answer: D Section: Characteristics of sustainable energy sources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 4. Why didn’t Samsø choose to rely on electric or hydrogen-powered automobiles?

A. Electricity was too expensive.

B. The island is so large that the cars would run out of charge or fuel easily.

C. The technologies were too expensive and inefficient to be feasible.

D. The technology did not exist when they were proposing their plan.

E. No one drives cars on the island; it is too small.

Answer: C

Section: Characteristics of sustainable energy sources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 5. The earliest renewable energy source used by humans was ___________.

A. biomass B. solar C. wind D. geothermal E. hydropower Answer: B Section: Characteristics of sustainable energy sources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 6. What is the relationship between the wind turbines and the automobiles used on Samsø?

A. They drive only electric cars.

B. They drive only cars produced on the island by wind power.

C. The clean energy produced by the turbines offsets the fossil fuels used by the cars.

D. The cars run on wind power.

E. There is no relationship between the cars and the wind turbines.

Answer: C Section: Characteristics of sustainable energy sources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Applying Essay 7. Has Samsø become completely independent of fossil fuels, and if not, what is the country doing to accomplish this goal?

FEEDBACK: No, Samsø still uses fossil fuels for their cars and boats. Samsø is in the process of converting to electric cars, and this is feasible because the daily commutes on the island are very short.

Section: Characteristics of sustainable energy sources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Guiding Question 2 What are the current and projected roles of renewables in global energy production?

Multiple Choice 8. Which the energy source is most renewable?

A. coal B. biomass C. oil

D. natural gas E. nuclear energy Answer: B Section: Characteristics of sustainable energy sources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 9. The largest segment of renewable energy is ____________________.

A. solar energy B. biomass C. hydroelectric energy D. geothermal energy E. wind Answer: C Section: Current and projected use of sustainable energy sources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 10. In 2016, how much energy used by the human population came from renewable resources?

A. 3% B. 9% C. 15% D. 25% E. 40% Answer: C Section: Current and projected use of sustainable energy sources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 11. In the United States, we rely on fossil fuels for _____ of our total energy.

A. 50% B. 60% C. 70% D. 80% E. 90% Answer: D Section: Current and projected use of sustainable energy sources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 12. Which energy sources will see the biggest increases as costs decline for the technologies?

A. wind and hydropower B. wind and solar C. solar and geothermal

D. solar and hydropower E. hydropower and geothermal Answer: B Section: Current and projected use of sustainable energy sources Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 13. Why is the unit barrels of oil equivalents (BOE) used in examining energy patterns?

FEEDBACK: This unit allows for the comparison among different energy sources by putting the energy output of a given source into a common unit—here, the equivalent amount of oil required to produce a given output. In Samsø, for example, they utilize 500 billion kilojoules of energy each year from a mixture of sources; converting to BOE yields an annual energy usage of 81,300 BOE annually.

Section: Current and projected use of sustainable energy sources Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question 3 How can wind energy be captured to generate electricity, and what are the pros and cons of these methods?

Multiple Choice 14. What factors make wind energy imperfect as an energy source?

A. Wind is intermittent.

B. Wind turbines are expensive to build.

C. Wind turbines can create noise.

D. Some people think turbines are an eyesore.

E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: Wind power Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 15. Refer to Infographic 3. What is the correct order of the steps used to generate electricity in a wind turbine?

I. Rotating blades turn a shaft inside the turbine.

II. A spinning generator produces electrical current.

III. Wind turns turbine blades.

IV. The shaft is attached to a higher-speed gear that turns the generator.

A. I, III, IV, II B. I, II, III, IV C. III, II, I, IV D. III, I, IV, II E. II, IV, I, III

Answer: D Section: Wind power Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 16. Which statement about wind turbines’ threat to birds is TRUE? A. Every year, domestic cats kill more birds than wind turbines do.

B. Wind turbines threaten birds but not bats.

C. Wind turbines kill more birds than communication towers do.

D. Because of their low risk to birds, engineers do not give much thought to how wind turbines are placed.

E. All of these answers are true.

Answer: A Section: Wind power Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 17. Wind turbines in Texas are able to provide power for roughly how many homes?

A. 1,000 B. 500,000 C. 3 million D. 5 million E. 1 billion Answer: D Section: Wind power Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 18. Wind turbines create electric energy by ____________________.

A. converting wind to steam in order to turn a generator B. converting wind, through a series of gears, to turn a generator C. allowing wind to blow directly into a generator to turn it D. All of these answers are correct.

E. None of these answers is correct.

Answer: B Section: Wind power Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 19. Which of the following are involved in wind turbine technology?

A. placing long blades at a height that catches the wind B. designing wind blades to allow for maximum lift for rotation C. internal gearing to convert the blade rotation into the turning of a generator D. a spinning generator that produces an electric current E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E

Section: Wind power Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 20. A criticism of wind turbine technology is that ____________________.

A. its electricity is not useful by the consumer B. its use is not sustainable C. they are unsightly to look at D. they are unable to produce electricity at night E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: C Section: Wind power Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Applying Guiding Question 4 How can solar energy be captured and used, and what are the pros and cons of these methods?

Multiple Choice 21. __________________ cells convert solar energy directly into electricity.

A. Passive B. Photovoltaic C. Active D. Thermoelectric Answer: B Section: Solar power Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 22. Which of the following converts the energy of the Sun directly into heating?

A. photovoltaic cells B. wind turbines C. biomass D. solar thermal systems Answer: D Section: Solar power Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 23. Which of the following is NOT an example of passive solar technology?

A. greenhouses B. photovoltaic cells C. strategically oriented windows on a home to maximize sunlight D. dark-colored walls and floors installed in a home to absorb more heat E. a roof overhang used to let winter sun enter and block summer sun

Answer: B Section: Solar power Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 24. What makes solar energy an unreliable energy source?

A. Photovoltaic cells have a lot of moving parts that produce noise.

B. Sunlight is intermittent, especially in high-latitude locations.

C. It has expensive start-up costs.

D. All of these answers are correct.

E. Sunlight is intermittent and solar energy has expensive start-up costs.

Answer: E Section: Solar power Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 25. Which statement about solar energy is correct?

A. Wind power is an indirect form of solar energy.

B. If just 4% of the world’s desert were covered in photovoltaic cells, the world’s electricity needs would be met.

C. Photovoltaic cells are becoming cheaper.

D. Solar energy can be harnessed through active or passive technologies.

E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: Solar power Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 26. What are the differences between active solar approaches and passive solar approaches?

FEEDBACK: Active solar technologies, such as photovoltaic (PV) cells and solar thermal systems, involve technological systems created to capture and use solar energy.

Solar panels are made up of PV cells and convert sunlight directly into electricity. Solar thermal systems generally involve solar collectors that are focused on a supply of water, providing hot water directly to homes. Passive solar approaches generally involve the capture of heat without any special technology involved, such as south-facing windows on buildings or dark walls to absorb heat.

Section: Solar Power Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question 5 How can geothermal energy be captured and used, and what are the pros and cons of these methods?

Multiple Choice 27. ________________ energy is the heat stored underground, contained in either rocks or fluids.

A. Wind B. Hydroelectric C. Biomass D. Geothermal E. Solar Answer: D Section: Geothermal power Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 28. Geothermal energy is considered to be one of the most efficient methods to heat and cool a house, since the ground temperature being harnessed to either heat or cool a house is always around _______________ Fahrenheit.

A. 10° B. 25° C. 55° D. 90° E. 125° Answer: C Section: Geothermal power Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 29. Geothermal power plants harness ________________ released from hydrothermal reservoirs to spin turbines to produce electricity.

A. steam B. natural gas C. carbon dioxide D. oil E. radiation Answer: A Section: Geothermal power Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 30. How do geothermal power plants work?

A. They actively move heat from underground into an overlying structure in order to remove or add heat to the structure.

B. They utilize steam released from hydrothermal reservoirs to spin turbines and produce electricity.

C. They use the heat from hot rocks located in earthquake zones to heat coal.

D. They use heat from volcanic eruptions to boil water and create steam that can power a turbine.

E. They funnel hot steam into people’s homes so that it can be used as a heat source.

Answer: B Section: Geothermal power Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 31. Which of the following is NOT true of geothermal energy?

A. Geothermal projects can cause earthquakes.

B. Home-based geothermal projects can be expensive to install but have a relatively short payback time.

C. Geothermal projects are dangerous because they can release toxic fumes from deep inside the Earth.

D. Geothermal projects are entirely dependent on the locations of hot zones in the Earth’s crust.

Answer: C Section: Geothermal power Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 32. Iceland uses geothermal energy to produce electricity and heat. Why didn’t the people of Samsø choose this energy source?

A. It is very expensive to use.

B. It isn’t a very efficient energy source.

C. It works only in areas close to hot zones or fault lines like Iceland is.

D. It can’t be used to produce electricity.

E. It is too cold in Samsø to use geothermal energy.

Answer: C Section: Geothermal power Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 33. How is electricity produced in a dry steam geothermal power plant?

FEEDBACK: In a dry steam geothermal power plant, water is injected into deep wells.

When the water hits hot rocks, underground steam is produced. The steam rises up through separate pipes and is used to turn turbines generating electricity.

Section: Geothermal power Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 34. What areas are BEST suited for geothermal energy production, and why?

FEEDBACK: Geothermal energy production is entirely dependent on location. Because drilling is expensive and potentially dangerous, only locations with enough heat to generate significant amounts of electricity are developed. The majority of these sites are located in Iceland and the western part of the United States. The best sites for geothermal energy production are where tectonic plates in the Earth’s crust pull away and rub against

each other, allowing the hot magma to flow upward through the cracks in the rock to reach areas close to the surface.

Section: Geothermal power Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question 6 How can the power of water be captured, and what are the pros and cons of these methods?

Multiple Choice 35. Which renewable resource supplies more electricity to the human population than any other single renewable resource?

A. solar energy B. wind C. geothermal energy D. biomass E. hydropower Answer: E Section: Hydropower Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 36. Which renewable energy source has the greatest impact on the local environment?

A. solar energy B. wind C. geothermal energy D. biomass E. hydropower Answer: E Section: Hydropower Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 37. How do run-of-the-river hydroelectric systems differ from giant dams?

A. They don’t block all of the water flowing down a channel and direct only some of it through a turbine.

B. They literally “run” the river and take over the entire ecosystem.

C. They flood an area to create a reservoir.

D. They do not differ; they work the same way.

E. They are built close to shorelines, whereas giant dams can be built only farther inland.

Answer: A Section: Hydropower Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

Essay 38. Why does a run-of-the-river hydroelectric system have less impact on aquatic systems than a giant dam?

FEEDBACK: A run-of-the-river hydroelectric system consists of either a low stone or concrete wall that doesn’t block the water, unlike a giant dam. A run-of-the-river hydroelectric system simply redirects some of the flowing water past a turbine that is used to generate electricity. A run-of-the-river system uses the natural flow and elevation of the river to produce electricity that is less disruptive to the river’s aquatic ecosystem.

Section: Hydropower Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 39. Explain why wind and water energy sources are considered an indirect form of solar energy.

FEEDBACK: Wind is considered an indirect form of solar energy because wind results from the difference in temperature between different regions of Earth. These temperature variances, which are caused by heating of the atmosphere by solar energy, cause air to move from cooler regions to warmer regions and wind to then occur. Hydropower is also an indirect form of energy. Evaporation and condensation, the two processes that drive the water cycle, are controlled by solar energy. The downward flow of water from mountaintop to ocean would not occur if the processes of evaporation, condensation, and precipitation did not allow clouds to form over mountains.

Section: Hydropower Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question 7 What roles do conservation and energy efficiency play in helping us meet our energy needs sustainably?

Multiple Choice 40. LED lightbulbs are the most energy efficient way to light your home, as they use ______ of the energy of a comparable compact fluorescent bulb.

A. 1/2 B. 1/3 C. 1/4 D. 2/3 E. 3/4 Answer: B Section: The role of conservation and energy efficiency Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 41. The people of Samsø discovered the best way to achieve energy independence is to____________.

A. use solar energy

B. use wind energy C. conserve energy D. use geothermal energy E. buy electric cars Answer: C Section: The role of conservation and energy efficiency Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 42. Refer to Infographic 7. What does “payback time” mean in terms of conservation of energy?

A. how long it takes to pay for an appliance or new technology at today’s interest rates B. how long it takes for the savings to equal the original cost of the technology C. how long it takes to find investors for the new technology D. the amount of money required for the development of the technology E. the amount of time before the manufacturer starts to make a profit

Answer: B Section: The role of conservation and energy efficiency Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

43. Which of the following is NOT a no-cost way to conserve energy?

A. washing clothes in cold water B. taking shorter showers C. closing the fireplace damper when it is not in use D. insulating hot water pipes E. lowering the thermostat Answer: D Section: The role of conservation and energy efficiency Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 44. Turning off lights when you leave a room or switching to CFL or LED lighting is an effective conservation method because lighting usually accounts for ___________ of average home electrical costs.

A. 45% B. 50% C. 25% D. 10% E. 35% Answer: C Section: The role of conservation and energy efficiency Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 45. According to energy advisors, what produces the “greenest” kilowatt of electricity?

A. photovoltaic cells B. run-of-the-river hydroelectric systems C. geothermal heat pumps D. wind turbines E. an “unused” kilowatt Answer: E Section: The role of conservation and energy efficiency Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 46. For the residents of Samsø, one of the first conservation efforts revolved around ___________.

A. cooling homes B. heating homes C. converting to electric cars D. using geothermal power E. using hydropower Answer: B Section: The role of conservation and energy efficiency Level: 1

Bloom’s Level: Understanding 47. Switching from incandescent bulbs to compact fluorescents (CFL) provides a twofold benefit during the summer. Why? A. CFL bulbs use less energy.

B. Incandescent bulbs produce excess heat.

C. CFL bulbs produce excess heat.

D. Both CFL bulbs use less energy and incandescent bulbs product excess heat.

E. Both incandescent bulbs and CFL bulbs produce excess heat.

Answer: D Section: The role of conservation and energy efficiency Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 48.Which step costs money but has a quick payback time?

A. turning off the computer when not in use B. replacing old light bulbs with energy-efficient LED bulbs C. replacing older windows with high efficiency windows D. lowering the thermostat on the water heater E. taking short showers instead of baths Answer: B Section: The role of conservation and energy efficiency Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 49. Refer to Infographic 7. Why are renewable forms of energy so expensive when compared with fossil fuels? What are two cheaper ways to sustainably meet energy needs without such a huge financial input?

FEEDBACK: Even though the energies being harnessed by renewable technologies are free to access, the infrastructure necessary to access them is very expensive to construct.

On the other hand, fossil fuels are comparably cheaper because the external costs to use them (i.e., environmental degradation and damage to human health) are not included in their cost. While harnessing renewable energy is important, energy efficiency and conservation are cheap, if not free, ways to sustainably reduce energy consumption.

Conservation and efficiency tactics include turning off electronics when they are not in use, reducing use of hot water, installing insulation in homes, purchasing Energy Star– certified appliances and light bulbs, and having energy assessments performed on homes.

Section: The role of conservation and energy efficiency Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 50. What do energy advisors mean by the phrase “the greenest kilowatt is the one you never use”?

FEEDBACK: They are referring to the fact that conservation and energy efficiency will reduce the amount of electricity and thus fuels we use. So, if the electricity doesn’t need to be produced, we will release less carbon dioxide and other emissions. We will harm the environment less by reductions in drilling, mining, spilling, refining, and so on of

fossil fuels. We will produce less nuclear waste. In essence, a greener planet will result from simply conserving energy.

Section: The role of conservation and energy efficiency Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Applying 51. How does insulating pipes, using an on-demand water heater, and taking shorter showers save energy?

FEEDBACK: It takes energy to heat water and keep it warm, and an on-demand water heater heats water only when it is needed. Insulating pipes decreases heat loss to the surrounding air. Taking shorter showers uses less hot water, therefore using less energy to heat the water.

Section: The role of conservation and energy efficiency Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Applying Guiding Question 8 What economic adjustment and technological advances are needed for renewables to become a viable replacement for fossil fuels?

Multiple Choice 52. What costs should be considered when comparing renewable energy technologies?

A. social B. environmental C. economic D. both social and economic E. social, environmental, and economic Answer: E Section: The way forward: Meeting energy needs sustainably Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 53. What alternative energy resources did Samsø choose to use in order to become a green community?

A. geothermal energy, solar energy, and wind B. solar energy, wind, and biomass C. geothermal energy, solar energy, and biomass D. geothermal energy, solar energy, biomass, hydro energy, and wind E. hydro energy, solar energy, and wind Answer: B Section: The way forward: Meeting energy needs sustainably Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 54. One of the main reasons Samsø was able to convert fully to renewable energy sources is because of ______________.

A. grants B. citizen investors C. government bonds D. bank loans E. foreign aid Answer: B Section: The way forward: Meeting energy needs sustainably Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 55. Which of the following electricity energy sources is LEAST expensive for the consumer?

A. fossil fuels B. solar energy C. wind D. geothermal energy E. nuclear energy Answer: A Section: The way forward: Meeting energy needs sustainably Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 56. In terms of true cost, which of the following electricity energy sources is LEAST expensive for the consumer?

A. fossil fuels B. solar energy C. wind D. geothermal energy E. nuclear energy Answer: C Section: 23.2 Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Essay 57. Currently, fossil fuels meet most of the energy needs of the United States. Why do experts say that in the future, no one renewable source will dominate as fossil fuels do today?

FEEDBACK: This is because each of the renewables has both strengths and weaknesses, and many are geographically limited. For example, both solar and wind power suffer from issues of intermittency (e.g., overcast skies or low winds). Hydroelectric power is an example of a source with geographic limitations, generally occurring in areas with rivers large enough to drive the turbines. The solution in the future will likely be to have a mixture of renewable technologies, with the mixture varying by location.

Section: The way forward: Meeting energy needs sustainably Level: 2

Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 58. What is the “take-home message” Samsø is sending to other communities?

FEEDBACK: It is possible to be a greener and cleaner community. It takes innovative leaders as well as citizen commitment. Each community has resources it can tap into. So with research, some money, buy-in from the community, and innovation, any community can conserve energy, reduce emissions and footprint, and become a greener place to live.

Section: The way forward: Meeting energy needs sustainably Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 59. What is needed in order for a community like Samsø to switch to a greener lifestyle?

FEEDBACK: Most important is citizens’ buy-in and commitment. If they do not want to do it and have a vested or a monetary interest in less-green alternatives, then the project will fail. Samsø was lucky to have an islander interested enough to visit the residents and champion the project. It wouldn’t have worked nearly as well if an outsider had tried to take over. But it is also important to have resources. For example, if a community is not located in an area that receives much wind, then related technology is not viable. A community in the northern latitudes or other region with little solar radiation would not find solar energy technologies feasible. And finally, the community must have sufficient money to commit to the project. Renewable energy technologies are not cheap to build.

Samsø was fortunate enough to win the contest put forth by the Danish government and also to be a prosperous community in itself.

Section: The way forward: Meeting energy needs sustainably Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 60. What are the advantages and disadvantages to using straw to heat homes versus other more conventional heating fuels?

FEEDBACK: Straw is a renewable resource. It can be used for bedding but it is not usually considered a human or livestock food source. Fossil fuels are nonrenewable.

Electricity can be used for heating, but since it is a high quality source, it is better used for other purposes. A disadvantage to using straw is that it still produces carbon dioxide and other emissions. Also, fuel is required to cultivate and harvest the straw.

Section: The way forward: Meeting energy needs sustainably Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

Matching Questions Match each term in the left-hand column to the statement that it best exemplifies.

1. renewable energy

2. sustainable energy

3. wind power

4. biomass energy

5. solar power

6. photovoltaic (PV) cells

7. active solar technology

8. energy efficiency 9. passive solar technology

10. geothermal energy

11. geothermal heat pump

12. payback time

13. geothermal power plants 14. hydropower

efforts that reduce waste and increase efficient use of resources (*15) energy contained in the motion of air across Earth’s surface (*3) a technology that converts solar energy directly into electricity (*6) a system that transfers the steady 55°F (12.5°C) underground temperature to a building to help heat or cool it (*11) technologies that allow for capture of solar energy (heat or light) without any electronic or mechanical assistance (*9) power plants that use the heat of hydrothermal reservoirs to produce steam and turn turbines to generate electricity (*13) energy from sources that are renewable and have a low environmental impact (*2) energy produced from moving water (*14) the amount of time it takes to save enough money in operation costs to pay for equipment (*12) energy from sources that are replenished over short timescales or that are perpetually available (*1) a modernized network that provides electricity to users in a way that automatically optimizes the delivers of electricity (*16) energy from biological material such as plants (wood, charcoal, crops, etc.) and animal waste (*4) energy harnessed from the Sun in the form of heat or light (*5) heat stored underground, contained in either rocks or fluids (*10)

15. conservation

16. smart grid

mechanical equipment for capturing, converting, and sometimes concentrating solar energy into a more usable form (*7) a measure of the amount of energy needed to perform a task; higher efficiency means less energy is wasted (*8)

Linked Questions Science Literacy Use Infographic 2 to answer the next five questions.

1. In what year is solar electricity generation projected to equal hydroelectric energy generation?

A. 2016 B. 2040 C. 2035 D. 2020 Answer: C Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 2. In 2016, what was the renewable energy source producing the most electricity?

A. wind

B. solar C. biomass D. geothermal E. hydroelectric Answer: E Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 3. Which renewable energy source is projected to produce the most energy in 2040?

A. wind B. solar C. biomass D. geothermal E. hydroelectric Answer: A Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 4. What is the order of energy production by nonrenewable sources from LOWEST to Highest amount?

A. coal, natural gas, nuclear, oil B. natural gas, coal, nuclear, oil C. oil, nuclear, natural gas, coal D. coal, nuclear, natural gas, oil Answer: A Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 5. How much electricity, in billion kWh, is hydroelectric power expected to generate in 2040?

A. 500 B. 400 C. 300 D. 100 E. 50 Answer: C Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Making Connections Use the following scenario to answer the next five questions.

You have started a renewable energy club on your campus. You are interested in helping your school move into providing more energy through renewable sources. The club is asked to give a presentation on different types of renewable energy sources to the president of the school. You begin the presentation by describing sustainable energy, and discuss the pros and cons of different renewable energy sources.

1. Which of the following descriptions would you use for sustainable energy?

A. energy from sources that are replenished over short time scales B. energy from sources that have a low environmental impact C. energy from sources that are replenished over long time scales D. energy from sources that are quickly used Answer: B Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 2. What is an advantage of solar energy you would use in your talk?

A. It is unpredictable and intermittent.

B. It is effective at large and small scales.

C. It has to be paired with other energy sources to meet needs.

D. It is expensive compared to other renewable energy sources.

Answer: B Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 3. In your presentation, you tell the president that the EPA considers a particular type of energy to be the most efficient at heating and cooling, which would make what a good choice for your school?

A. hydroelectric B. solar C. biomass D. geothermal Answer: D Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 4. The president wants to know which type of renewable energy source supplies more electricity than any other single renewable resource. You tell him the answer is ________.

A. hydroelectric B. solar C. biomass D. geothermal Answer: A

Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 5. The president is very impressed with your presentation and wants to convert the campus into an energy positive campus. You tell him this will require ________________.

A. true cost pricing B. diversification of renewable energy sources C. energy storage methods D. a smart grid E. all of the above Answer: E Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

MODULE 11.3 Guiding Question 1 What are biofuels?

Multiple Choice 1. __________ are defined as solids, liquids, or gases that produce energy from biological material.

A. Biosources B. Biomaterials C. Biofuels D. Biopowers Answer: C Section: Biofuels: A renewable alternative to fossil fuels Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 2. Material from living or recently living organisms or their by-products is defined as _________.

A. biofuel B. biomass C. feedstock D. extract Answer: B Section: Biofuels: A renewable alternative to fossil fuels Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 3. In 2012, biofuels provided about _______ of the energy used in the United States, more than any other type of renewable resource.

A. 0.4% B. 7% C. 14% D. 40% E. 80% Answer: B Section: Biofuels: A renewable alternative to fossil fuels Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 4. Which of the following would NOT make a good biofuel source?

A. poplar trees B. eucalyptus trees C. oak trees D. grasses E. All of these answers would be good biofuel sources.

Answer: C Section: Biofuels: A renewable alternative to fossil fuels Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 5. Fuels derived from current biomass are considered renewable since _________.

A. their production takes days or weeks B. they have a higher carbon footprint than fossil fuels C. they are a short-term option to our energy problem D. they are not harvested from living material E. they do not release any carbon back into the atmosphere when burned Answer: A Section: Biofuels: A renewable alternative to fossil fuels Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 6. Explain the outcome of David Tilman’s research and what it meant for biofuel crops.

FEEDBACK: Tilman’s research showed that plants grown in areas where multiple species are present are much more productive than those grown in areas with only one species present (monoculture). Tilman reasoned that biodiverse ecosystems that are naturally adapted to their environment are the most productive. Thus, growing switchgrass as a source of biofuel in high-diversity mixtures of many plant species (instead of as a monoculture of switchgrass as a crop by itself) could produce a lot more biomass with the same or smaller amounts of irrigation, fertilizer, and management.

Section: Biofuels: A renewable alternative to fossil fuels Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 7. Explain why there is a critical need for the development of biofuels.

FEEDBACK: Globally, we rely primarily on fossil fuels as our main source of energy.

Combusting fossil fuels leads to considerable environmental damage, including the increase of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, which is driving global climate change. As global demand for energy continues to increase, dependence on nonrenewable fossil fuels is not a viable long-term option. Biofuels are a potentially important alternative to fossil fuels. They are considered renewable because the raw materials can be naturally replenished at least as quickly as they are used. In contrast with fossil fuels, which are the result of ancient photosynthesis, the biomass used to make biofuels is the result of recent photosynthesis; so combustion of biofuels can result in no net increase in carbon dioxide production. In addition, they have the advantage of being locally produced, and thus they reduce a nation’s dependence on other countries for energy.

Section: Biofuels: A renewable alternative to fossil fuels Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Guiding Question 2

What raw materials can be used to make biofuels?

Multiple Choice 8. Which of the following choices would NOT be considered a biofuel feedstock?

A. beef from cows B. animal waste C. crops D. wood products Answer: A Section: Sources and types of biofuels Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 9. Which form(s) of biomass is/are burned directly for energy?

A. dried manure B. restaurant fry grease C. firewood D. both dried manure and firewood E. both restaurant fry grease and firewood Answer: D Section: Sources and types of biofuels Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 10. Choose the form of biomass that is easiest to ferment into bioethanol.

A. switchgrass B. crop waste C. corn D. forestry waste E. manure Answer: C Section: Sources and types of biofuels Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 11. Which of the following is an annual plant?

A. corn B. switchgrass C. goldenrod D. wheatgrass Answer: A Section: Sources and types of biofuels Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 12. Which of the following is CORRECT regarding indirect biomass energy?

A. It is converted from biomass and then burned.

B. This energy-rich fuel is less bulky than the original biomass.

C. These fuels burn more cleanly than the original biomass.

D. These fuels can power engines that currently run on gasoline or diesel fuel.

E. All of these answers are correct regarding indirect biomass energy.

Answer: E Section: Sources and types of biofuels Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 13. Which of the following is a waste that can be used to produce biofuel?

A. used fryer oil from restaurants B. manure C. crop residues D. animal fats E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: Sources and types of biofuels Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 14. What are biofuels, and what are potential biofuel sources?

FEEDBACK: Biofuels are defined as solids, liquids, or gases that produce energy from biological material. They are derived from material from living or recently living organisms (biomass) or their by-products. Raw materials include crops, animal waste, and wood products. Biomass such as wood, dried manure, and crop waste can be burned directly for energy. Bioethanol can be derived from high-sugar/starch crops, such as corn and sugarcane, or from high-cellulose/low-sugar plants, like grasses, trees, and the nonedible parts of crops. Any kind of organic material has the potential to be converted to liquid biofuels, such as ethanol, or to a gaseous product known as biogas. Methane gas can be captured from municipal solid waste landfills. Biodiesel is most often made from high-oil crops like soybeans or rapeseed (canola). It can be made from animal fats or waste oil. Algae can be grown as a feedstock for biofuels. Biodiesel is the most common product, but the sugars in algae can also be extracted to produce ethanol.

Section: Sources and types of biofuels Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

15. Concerned about rising gas prices, the need for energy security, and greenhouse gas emissions from fossil fuel combustion, you set out to find a plant species that could serve as a biofuel. What characteristics are you looking for in such a plant?

FEEDBACK: The plant should be a perennial that can absorb carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and store carbon in its deep root system as the plant grows again immediately after harvesting. The plant should be able to grow in a variety of ecosystems and on

marginal land so that many locales can utilize it and it does not compete with farmland dedicated to food production. Adapted to growing in those locations, it should require little, if any, fertilizer or water inputs. Also, the plant should be naturally resistant to disease, pests, and drought. Energy yield needs to be high, meaning that minimal energy is spent harvesting and processing biofuel from the plant.

Section: Sources and types of biofuels Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating 16. What is biowaste? Describe the benefits of converting waste into energy.

FEEDBACK: Biowastes are another source of biofuels. Often they are in the form of organic leftovers, such as crop residues, garbage, or manure. For example, the stalks, husks, and leaves of plants left over after harvest can be used to produce ethanol.

Converting waste into energy has the duel benefit of producing energy and dealing with waste at the same time. For example, methane is a potent greenhouse gas produced by bacteria in sanitary landfills. Some communities are now working to capture that gas for energy use and at the same time preventing additional heat-trapping gases from entering the atmosphere. As another example, used fryer oil from restaurants can be turned into biodiesel, which reduces the need for petrodiesel in diesel-powered engines.

Section: Sources and types of biofuels Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Guiding Question 3 What are the trade-offs of using biofuels as an energy source?

Multiple Choice 17. Which of the following choices is typically used to produce biodiesel?

A. corn B. sugarcane C. soybeans D. switchgrass E. beets Answer: C Section: The trade-offs of biofuels Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 18. Which of the following is a concern regarding early corn ethanol projects?

A. Corn production requires energy inputs like fertilizers and pesticides.

B. Considerable water is required to produce ethanol from corn.

C. The projects used as much (or almost as much) energy as they produced.

D. All of these answers are concerns.

E. None of these answers are concerns.

Answer: D Section: The trade-offs of biofuels

Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 19. Which of the following is NOT a concern when it comes to the conversion of natural lands into farmland for biofuel production?

A. displacement of food crops that would normally be grown there B. endangerment of native species around the area C. increase in price for food crops D. job losses for native workers Answer: D Section: The trade-offs of biofuels Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 20. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using biofuels as an alternative energy source?

A. Biofuels can be replaced over short time scales.

B. Biofuels enable us to turn waste into energy.

C. Crops for biofuels can be grown on marginal land.

D. Biofuels are versatile; they can be used in a variety of ways.

E. All of these answers are advantages.

Answer: E Section: The trade-offs of biofuels Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 21. _____________ is a term used to explain a biofuel disadvantage that reduces the contributions made from forests and grasslands to ecosystem services.

A. “Overhauling” B. “Overharvesting” C. “Hyperproducing” D. “Overgrowing” Answer: B Section: The trade-offs of biofuels Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

21. The EROEI of corn is 5:1 compared to conventional oil, which has an EROEI of 20:1. This means _________.

A. corn produces 5 units of energy for every unit of energy invested.

B. oil gives less energy return on energy invested per unit.

C. corn has a net energy production of 5.

D. oil has a net energy production of 21.

E. corn and oil have the same energy return for each unit of energy invested.

Answer: A

Section: The trade-offs of biofuels Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 22. Which of the following is an advantage of using biofuel?

A. All types have a higher energy content than fossil fuels, so less needs to be burned to produce the same amount of energy.

B. Burning biomass directly produces minimal particulate matter pollution.

C. If grown with minimal or no fossil fuel inputs, it is carbon neutral or negative.

D. The most commonly grown biofuel crops consume far less water per kilowatt-hour than what is used for traditional fossil fuels.

Answer: C Section: The trade-offs of biofuels Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying

23. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the increasing production of biofuels in the United States?

A. Ethanol and biodiesel are becoming competitors for gasoline and diesel fuel.

B. If grown with minimal or no fossil fuel inputs, biofuels decrease greenhouse gas emissions.

C. Increased use of biofuels improves national security by lessening dependence on foreign oil.

D. All of these answers are true.

E. None of these answers is true.

Answer: D Section: The trade-offs of biofuels Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 24. Globally, food crops are being displaced by biofuel crops. Crops that normally were grown for either human or animal consumption are instead being grown for fuel. This switch has resulted in price increases and food riots. Which of the following crops has caused the most issues when switched from a food crop to a biofuel crop?

A. corn B. wheat C. potato D. rice E. soybean Answer: A Section: The trade-offs of biofuels Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay

25. List and describe at least three advantages and three disadvantages of biofuels.

FEEDBACK: Refer to Infographic 3 for a list and descriptions of advantages and disadvantages of biofuels.

Section: The trade-offs of biofuels Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Applying

26. Most biofuels today are made from crops grown specifically for energy use. What are the main crops used to produce ethanol and biodiesel? What are the environmental downsides to using these crops in biofuel production?

FEEDBACK: Biodiesel is typically produced from crops with a high oil content, such as soybeans or rapeseed (canola). Sugarcane is the primary source of ethanol in Brazil, and corn is used in the United States. The problem with using traditional monoculture crops like corn or soybeans is that they require high fossil fuel inputs, thus lowering the overall energy return of the biofuel and releasing additional pollution into the environment. Corn is one of the most energy-intensive crops to grow and harvest. It requires energy inputs like fertilizers and pesticides (made from fossil fuel), as well as fuel needed for the

operation of farm machinery. Biofuel crops also require considerable water. Also, clearing land for biofuel crops releases carbon stored in soil and plants, adding greenhouse gases to the atmosphere as well as disrupting benefits those ecosystems provide, such as habitat for a variety of organisms. Native species are endangered when more natural lands are converted to farmland for biofuels.

Section: The trade-offs of biofuels Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 27. Describe the advantages and disadvantages of biofuels in terms of air pollution, relative to fossil fuels.

FEEDBACK: An advantage is that biofuels burn more cleanly and are less toxic than petroleum fuels. In addition, biofuel combustion releases no net carbon dioxide because it is the result of recent photosynthesis. Fossil fuels are the result of ancient photosynthesis, so burning those fuels adds to the amount of heat-trapping greenhouse gases in our atmosphere. A disadvantage, especially in developing countries, is the production of dangerous indoor air pollution through direct burning of biomass (wood, manure, and so on). This burning contains high levels of particulate matter, which damages the respiratory system.

Section: The trade-offs of biofuels Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 28. What are some of the concerns regarding the use of crops in biofuel production?

FEEDBACK: Some of the crops, specifically corn, are not that much more environmentally friendly than fossil fuels. Corn is a very energy-intensive crop to grow and harvest; it requires large energy inputs for fertilizers, pesticides, planting, and harvesting. Also, the use of crops to produce biofuels has resulted in natural lands being converted to farmlands for biofuels, the displacement of native species, the conversion of croplands to biocrops, food shortages, and increases in food prices.

Section: The trade-offs of biofuels Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 29. What unintended consequence(s) could arise from government subsidies, tax breaks, or mandates that support biofuel production?

FEEDBACK: Government policies that support biofuel production could take resources away from food production in those countries. This could lead to less available food and higher food prices. In some cases, the environment could also suffer degradation. For example, policies that promote ethanol production could increase corn plantings, and corn is one of the most energy-intensive crops to grow and harvest. It requires energy inputs like fertilizers and pesticides as well as the fuel needed for the operation of farm machinery and considerable amounts of water.

Section: The trade-offs of biofuels Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Evaluating

Guiding Question 4 What are the pros and cons of biofuels made from cellulosic crops?

Multiple Choice 30. Which of the following is a benefit of growing diverse grasses for biofuel production?

A. can be grown in marginal soil B. can be grown on neglected agricultural land C. does not displace food production D. is not destructive to habitats E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: Biofuels made from cellulosic crops Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 31. One way to improve energy return and reduce the amount of greenhouse gases typically released by traditional monoculture fuel crops is to use LIHD grassland plants.

What does LIHD stand for?

A. low-input, high-density B. low-input, high-diversity C. lean-inflow, high-density D. lean-inflow, high-diversity E. late-ingrass, high-dependence Answer: B Section: Biofuels made from cellulosic crops Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 32. Compared with gasoline, biofuels produce fewer greenhouse emissions. Which of the following biofuels produces the FEWEST greenhouse gas emissions when compared with gasoline?

A. corn grain ethanol B. high-input biofuels C. soybean biodiesel D. LIHD grasses grown on farmland E. LIHD grasses grown on marginal land Answer: E Section: Biofuels made from cellulosic crops Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 33. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of switching from corn ethanol to cellulosic ethanol?

A. potential to circumvent the food controversy by not occupying land that could support food crops

B. resistance to many pests and plant diseases C. requirement of less fertilizer D. consumption of less energy for production E. ease of scaling up production Answer: E Section: Biofuels made from cellulosic crops Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 34. Refer to Infographic 4. Use the data from the energy return on energy investment comparison graph to determine which crop offers the highest net energy return (output – input).

A. corn grain ethanol B. soybean biodiesel C. biomass combustion D. biomass ethanol E. biomass biodiesel Answer: D Section: Biofuels made from cellulosic crops Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 35. Which of the following is NOT observed when switchgrass is grown in a highdiversity mix of plant species instead of as a monoculture?

A. less irrigation B. less management C. more fertilizer because plants are competing with each other D. a lot more biomass being produced E. more biofuel for fewer inputs Answer: C Section: Biofuels made from cellulosic crops

Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 36. Bioethanol that is produced by breaking down cellulose in plants is called _________.

A. cellulosic ethanol B. starch ethanol C. plant ethanol D. cellulose sequestering E. cellulosic sequestering Answer: A Section: Biofuels made from cellulosic crops Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 37. While starch from corn is soft, cellulose in grasses is _________.

A. complex B. durable C. not easily degraded D. All of these answers are correct.

E. None of these answers is correct.

Answer: D Section: Biofuels made from cellulosic crops Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 38. Cellulose is complex and difficult to break down. Which of the following is NOT a method currently in use to tear apart the strong chemical bonds in cellulose?

A. low temperatures B. high temperatures C. acid D. enzymes E. yeast Answer: A Section: Biofuels made from cellulosic crops Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 39. Which of the following is a benefit to using crops such as switchgrass to produce cellulosic ethanol?

A. It makes use of exhausted farmland.

B. It does not displace food production.

C. Production consumes less energy.

D. These crops are perennials.

E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E

Section: Biofuels made from cellulosic crops Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 40. _____________ refers to the process where a plant absorbs carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and then stores carbon in its roots.

A. Carbon absorption B. Carbon storing C. Carbon loading D. Carbon sequestration Answer: D Section: Biofuels made from cellulosic crops Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering Essay 41. Refer to the following graphic and use the data to help describe how emissions from biofuels compare with those from gasoline. Also address how emissions from current biofuels compare to those from LIHD biofuels.

FEEDBACK: All biofuels release fewer greenhouse gas emissions than do fossil fuels (gasoline). LIHD biofuels as a group release fewer greenhouse gas emissions than current biofuels, corn ethanol, and soybean biodiesel.

Section: Biofuels made from cellulosic crops Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 42. Describe some benefits of making cellulosic ethanol from switchgrass.

FEEDBACK: Cellulosic ethanol has the potential to circumvent the food controversy because land that could support food crops won’t be occupied. Switchgrass is resistant to many pests and plant diseases and requires little fertilization, so it consumes less energy to produce. This is especially true if switchgrass is grown in high-diversity mixtures of many plant species. Also, it absorbs carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and stores carbon in its roots. This is important because switchgrass is a perennial plant; much of the plant (and its carbon) would remain behind in the deep root system, ready to grow again after harvesting.

Section: Biofuels made from cellulosic crops Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 43. How would the production of cellulosic ethanol circumvent the “food versus fuel” controversy?

FEEDBACK: Cellulosic ethanol can be produced from crops such as switchgrass.

Switchgrass can be grown on land that cannot support food crops, thus allowing the most fertile land to remain dedicated to food production. Switchgrass is also resistant to many pests and plant diseases, requires very little fertilizer, and consumes very little energy in the production process.

Section: Biofuels made from cellulosic crops Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question 5 How is bioethanol produced?

Multiple Choice 44. Which step is needed in cellulosic ethanol production that is not needed in production from grain ethanol?

A. preparation B. pretreatment C. enzymatic cellulose breakdown D. fermentation E. distillation Answer: C Section: Biofuel production: Bioethanol Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 45. What is a barrier to producing ethanol from cellulosic feedstocks on a large scale?

A. It is a slow process.

B. It is expensive.

C. It requires high temperatures.

D. It can be energy-intensive.

E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E

Section: Biofuel production: Bioethanol Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

46. Refer to Infographic 5. In which step in the conversion of cellulose to ethanol is the raw material chopped or ground into small, uniform-sized pieces?

A. preparation B. pretreatment C. enzymatic cellulose breakdown D. lignin separation E. distillation Answer: A

Section: Biofuel production: Bioethanol Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 47. Ethanol can be produced from the biological fermentation of all of the following sources EXCEPT _________.

A. corn.

B. algae.

C. sugarcane.

D. switchgrass.

E. None of these answers—ethanol can be produced from the biological fermentation of any plant material.

Answer: E Section: Biofuel production: Bioethanol Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding

Essay 48. Refer to Infographic 5. Describe the production of grain ethanol and cellulosic ethanol. Why is it more challenging to produce ethanol from plants with high cellulose content compared with producing it from grain?

FEEDBACK: Ethanol can be produced from the biological fermentation of any plant material. Food sources like grains and sugarcane with soft starch are easily broken down by yeast (fermentation), whereas plant material high in cellulose is more challenging to break down and requires stronger chemical reactions. The process begins with the harvesting of the plant material that then undergoes preparation. The preparation involves chopping and grinding the raw material into small, uniform-sized pieces. The small

pieces then undergo steaming. The steaming causes the raw material to swell, increasing the surface area. The swollen pieces are then treated with enzymes. The enzymes chemically break down the cellulose into sugar subunits. Lignin is removed, and the remaining mixture is treated with yeast. The yeast digests the sugars and procures ethanol that is then concentrated.

Section: Biofuel production: Bioethanol Level: 3 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing 49. What has recently become an attractive alternative to using grains (corn) or sugarcane to make bioethanol? Briefly describe what sources are used and why its production efficiency is currently an issue.

FEEDBACK: Recently, cellulosic ethanol that can be produced from plant material such as switchgrass (or other grasses, trees, or the nonedible parts of crops) has become a popular alternative to corn ethanol. It is made by breaking down cellulose in plants.

However, this is a difficult process because strong chemical reactions are required to break down cellulose, compared with the ease of starch breakdown. Because of this technical hurdle, the process has yet to be scaled up to meet large production goals.

Section: Biofuel production: Bioethanol Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing

Guiding Question 6 How is biodiesel produced?

Multiple Choice 50. Which of the following is/are predicted to generate the most oil per acre in biodiesel production?

A. algae B. switchgrass C. soybeans D. rapeseed E. oil palms Answer: A Section: Biofuel production: Biodiesel Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 51. Which of the following is FALSE regarding biodiesel production?

A. Biodiesel is mixed with water to capture impurities.

B. It is formed directly from its feedstock.

C. Feedstocks include vegetable oils, animal fats, or recycled greases.

D. It can be produced on small or large scales.

E. It is a multistep process.

Answer: B

Section: Biofuel production: Biodiesel Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 52. Which of the following is a challenge faced when making biofuel from algae?

A. meeting fresh water requirements B. competing with food crops C. paying the high expenses of oil production facilities D. convincing companies to invest in turning algae oil into fuel Answer: C Section: Biofuel production: Biodiesel Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 53. Which of the following is FALSE regarding biodiesel?

A. It is the only biofuel to be certified by the EPA. B. It comprises only a small portion of the biofuels produced today.

C. It can be produced from soybeans as well as from animal fats.

D. It can be used in both diesel and gasoline engines.

Answer: D Section: Biofuel production: Biodiesel Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering 54. Which trade-off of traditional biofuels, like ethanol produced from corn, can be addressed by using algae as a biofuel source?

A. using large amounts of fresh water to grow and process the source B. overharvesting of a biofuel source that negatively affects the local ecosystem C. using farmland for biofuel source production D. All of these answers are correct.

E. None of these answers is correct.

Answer: D Section: Biofuel production: Biodiesel Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 55. What are some advantages and disadvantages of using algae for biofuel?

FEEDBACK: Algae can be grown as a feedstock for biofuels. Biodiesel is the most common product, as it has the highest oil production potential per acre compared with other crops such as soy, sunflower, coconut, or oil palms. It is an extremely fast-growing organism, and the fuel produced contains no sulfur and is nontoxic and biodegradable. In addition, the sugars in algae can be extracted to produce ethanol, while the solids can be harvested to produce a high-protein animal feed. Self-contained operations can grow lots of algae in a small space (in tubes or vats) or in outdoor algae ponds, which take up more land area. Other advantages include noncompetition with food and the ability to grow on

salty water, so they don’t use up fresh water. Disadvantages are that it is difficult to maintain ideal conditions for algae to maximize oil production, and the facilities are expensive. In addition, as a new biofuel, infrastructure is not yet in place like it is for other more established biofuels such as corn.

Section: Biofuel production: Biodiesel Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Analyzing Guiding Question 7 What roles do conservation and energy efficiency play in addressing our mobile fuel needs?

Multiple Choice 56. Which of the following is NOT a driving habit that maximizes mileage?

A. using cruise control B. keeping tires properly inflated C. avoiding carrying excess weight in the vehicle D. keeping the car idling when parked briefly and avoiding turning the car on and off E. combining trips and planning your route to avoid backtracking Answer: D Section: Conservation and energy efficiency Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 57. Driving habits that maximize mileage include all of the following EXCEPT _________.

A. keeping your vehicle in tune by scheduling regular maintenance appointments B. avoiding idling and turning off your car if you will be parked, even briefly C. maintaining 70 miles per hour on the highway to decrease the time the engine is running D. avoiding carrying excess weight in the vehicle E. None of these answers is correct.

Answer: C Section: Conservation and energy efficiency Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 58. Which of the following is a way to improve a vehicle’s energy efficiency?

A. construction with lighter materials B. more aerodynamic shapes C. incorporation of hybrid technologies D. more energy-efficient engines E. All of these answers are correct.

Answer: E Section: Conservation and energy efficiency Level: 1

Bloom’s Level: Understanding

59. Which of the following is the BEST option in terms of being environmentally friendly while operating a motor vehicle?

A. avoiding quick starts and speeding up to stop signs B. removing golf clubs from the trunk unless going to the golf course C. combining errands into one trip that minimizes driving miles D. investing in a hybrid or all-electric car E. biking or walking to work, to school, or to run errands Answer: E Section: Conservation and energy efficiency Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Understanding 60. Although it is clear that alternative energy sources such as bioethanol and biodiesel are reducing fossil fuel usage, ___________ is also a key strategy to reducing our dependence on fossil fuels.

A. desalination B. development of vertical farming C. conservation D. space exploration Answer: C Section: Conservation and energy efficiency Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Understanding Essay 61. List and describe at least five habits drivers can employ to maximize mileage and conserve energy.

FEEDBACK: Drivers can do the following to maximize mileage and conserve energy: drive more efficiently by not being an aggressive driver, not speeding, using cruise control, and avoiding idling; take care of the car by getting a tune-up, keeping tires properly inflated, and unloading the trunk; and plan outings by combining trips and planning a route or commuting with others.

Section: Conservation and energy efficiency Level: 1 Bloom’s Level: Remembering

Matching Questions Match each term in the left-hand column to the statement that it best exemplifies.

1. fuel crops

2. biofuels 3. bioethanol

4. energy return on energy investment (EROEI) 5. cellulosic ethanol 6. biomass 7. carbon sequestration

8. feedstock

9. biodiesel 10. carbon footprint

an alcohol fuel made from crops like corn and sugarcane in a process of fermentation and distillation (*3) a measure of the net energy from an energy source (*4) the amount of carbon released to the atmosphere by a person, company, nation, or activity (*10) solids, liquids, or gases that produce energy from biological material (*2) biomass sources used to make biofuels (*8) bioethanol made by breaking down cellulose in plants (*5) a liquid fuel made from vegetable oil, animal fats, or waste oil that can be used directly in diesel internal combustion machines (*9) material from living or recently living organisms or their by-products (*6) crops grown to be used specifically to produce biofuels (*1) the storage of carbon in a form that prevents its release into the atmosphere (*7)

Linked Questions Science Literacy Use the graph below in answer the next five questions.

1. The biofuel with the highest net energy yield is _______.

A. corn ethanol B. soybean biodiesel C. biomass ethanol D. biomass biodiesel Answer: C Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 2. The biofuel with the highest output of energy produced is _______.

A. corn ethanol B. soybean biodiesel C. biomass ethanol D. biomass biodiesel Answer: A Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 3. The order of biofuels from the HIGHEST net energy production to the LOWEST is _______.

A. corn ethanol, biomass ethanol, biomass biodiesel B. soybean diesel, biomass biodiesel, corn ethanol C. biomass biodiesel, corn ethanol, biomass ethanol D. biomass ethanol, biomass biodiesel, corn ethanol Answer: D Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 4. The greatest difference between the highest net energy yield and the lowest net energy yield of the biofuels in the graph is _______.

A. 15 B. 13 C. 14 D. 2 Answer: C Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 5. The net energy balance of biomass biodiesel is _______.

A. 1 B. 7 C. 13 D. 15 Answer: C Section: Science literacy Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying Making Connections Use the following scenario to answer the next four questions.

You are concerned about the environment. You want to do your part to make the world more sustainable. Your environmental science professor mentions biofuels as an alternative to fossil fuels and that they have a lower carbon footprint than fossil fuels.

You decide to do more research on biofuels.

1. You hear from your professor that the difference between biofuels and fossil fuels is _______.

A. the time frame in which the fuels are created B. that biofuels cannot be locally produced C. that biofuels can be used only to produce electricity Answer: A Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 2. In your research on biofuels, you discover biofuels can be made from cellulosic crops.

This means _______.

A. high-sugar crops like corn are used to make the fuel B. fields planted in a monoculture yield more production for a fuel source C. using plants such as grasses, which are more difficult to break down, for the fuel D. the plants used for fuel are not useful as crops Answer: C Section: Making connections Level: 2

Bloom’s Level: Applying 3. To your surprise, you discover algae can be used to make biofuel. You tell your friend a major advantage of this is _______.

A. it can easily be harvested on a large scale B. algae is small, so it won’t take up much space C. cultivation won’t compete with food crops D. it can be made cheaply Answer: C Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying 4. You are trying to be a more efficient driver. Which of these would help you do that?

A. using cruise control B. commuting to and from work with someone else C. keeping your tires properly inflated Answer: A Section: Making connections Level: 2 Bloom’s Level: Applying