TEST BANK Test BANK For Structure & Function of the Body 17th Edition by 2025 Structure & Function of the Body 17th Edition 2025 Kevin T. Patton & Frank B. Bell & Terry Kevin T.&Patton & Frank B. Bell & Terry Thompson & Thompson Peggie L. Williamson Chapter 1-22 Peggie L. Williamson Chapter 01: Introduction to the Body MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The word derived from two word parts that mean “cutting apart” is: a. physiology. b. homeostasis. c. anatomy. d. dissection. ANS: C OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 1
2. The study of how the body functions is called: a. physiology. b. homeostasis. c. anatomy. d. dissection. ANS: A OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 1
3. The correct sequence of the level of organization is: a. cellular, chemical, tissue, organ. b. chemical, cellular, tissue, organ. c. chemical, cellular, organ, tissue. d. chemical, tissue, cellular, organ. ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Levels of organization
REF: p. 3
4. The smallest living unit of structure is considered to be at the: a. chemical level. b. cellular level. c. organ level. d. tissue level. ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Levels of organization
5. The reference position for all body directional terms is the: a. anatomical position.
REF: p. 3
b. prone position. c. supine position. d. sitting position. ANS: A OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anatomical position
REF: p. 4
6. The relationship between the knee and the ankle can be described as: a. the knee is inferior to the ankle. b. the knee is distal to the ankle. c. the knee is proximal to the ankle. d. the knee is medial to the ankle. ANS: C DIF: Applying TOP: Anatomical directions
REF: p. 5
OBJ: 5
7. The relationship between the heart and the lungs can be described as: a. the heart is distal to the lungs. b. the heart is medial to the lungs. c. the heart is lateral to the lungs. d. the heart is proximal to the lungs. ANS: B DIF: Applying TOP: Anatomical directions
REF: p. 5
OBJ: 5
8. The term most opposite proximal is: a. medial. b. superior. c. anterior. d. distal. ANS: D OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anatomical directions
REF: p. 5
9. Because humans walk in an upright position, the two terms that can be used interchangeably are: a. posterior and ventral. b. posterior and inferior. c. posterior and superficial. d. posterior and dorsal. ANS: D OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anatomical directions
REF: p. 5
10. The term most opposite medial is: a. dorsal. b. lateral. c. superficial. d. proximal ANS: B OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anatomical directions
REF: p. 5
11. The relationship between the skin and the muscles can be described as: a. the skin is superficial to the muscle. b. the muscle is superficial to the skin. c. the muscle is deep to the skin. d. the muscle is deep to the skin or the skin is superficial to the muscle. ANS: D OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anatomical directions
REF: p. 5
12. A cut dividing the body into anterior and posterior portions is called a: a. sagittal section. b. frontal section. c. transverse section. d. oblique section. ANS: B OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Planes of the body
REF: p. 6
13. A cut dividing the body into upper and lower portions is called a: a. sagittal section. b. frontal section. c. transverse section. d. coronal section. ANS: C OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Planes of the body
REF: p. 6
14. A cut dividing the body into right and left portions is called a: a. sagittal section. b. frontal section. c. transverse section. d. coronal section. ANS: A OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Planes of the body
REF: p. 6
15. The mediastinum is part of the: a. dorsal cavity. b. ventral cavity. c. abdominal cavity. d. pelvic cavity. ANS: B OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body cavities
16. The two major cavities of the body are the: a. dorsal and ventral. b. thoracic and abdominal. c. pleural and mediastinum. d. thoracic and ventral.
REF: p. 7
ANS: A OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body cavities
REF: p. 7
17. The diaphragm divides the: a. dorsal from the ventral cavity. b. abdominal from the pelvic cavity. c. thoracic from the abdominal cavity. d. pleural from the mediastinum. ANS: C OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body cavities
REF: p. 7
18. The upper abdominopelvic regions include the: a. right and left hypochondriac and umbilical. b. right and left lumbar and umbilical. c. right and left iliac and epigastric. d. right and left hypochondriac and epigastric. ANS: D OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Abdominopelvic regions
REF: p. 8
19. The middle abdominopelvic regions include the: a. right and left lumbar and umbilical. b. right and left lumbar and epigastric. c. right and left iliac and hypogastric. d. right and left iliac and umbilical. ANS: A OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Abdominopelvic regions
REF: p. 8
20. The lower abdominopelvic regions include the: a. right and left iliac and umbilical. b. right and left lumbar and epigastric. c. right and left lumbar and hypogastric. d. right and left iliac and hypogastric. ANS: D OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Abdominopelvic regions
REF: p. 8
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body cavities
REF: p. 8
21. The brain is in the: a. ventral cavity. b. cranial cavity. c. mediastinum. d. thoracic cavity. ANS: B OBJ: 6
22. The spinal cavity is part of the: a. dorsal cavity. b. ventral cavity.
c. cranial cavity. d. thoracic cavity. ANS: A OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body cavities
REF: p. 8
23. The left upper quadrant of the abdominopelvic cavity includes all of the: a. left lumbar region. b. left iliac region. c. left hypochondriac region. d. left inguinal region. ANS: C DIF: Applying TOP: Abdominopelvic subdivisions
REF: p. 8
OBJ: 7
24. Using the maintaining of a constant temperature in a building as an example of a feedback loop, the thermometer would be an example of a(n): a. sensor. b. control center. c. effector. d. positive feedback loop. ANS: A OBJ: 9
DIF: Remembering TOP: The balance of body functions
REF: p. 12
25. Using the maintaining of a constant temperature in a building as an example of a feedback loop, the furnace would be an example of a(n): a. sensor. b. control center. c. effector. d. positive feedback loop. ANS: C OBJ: 9
DIF: Remembering TOP: The balance of body functions
REF: p. 12
26. Using the maintaining of a constant temperature in a building as an example of a feedback loop, the thermostat would be an example of a(n): a. sensor. b. control center. c. effector. d. positive feedback loop. ANS: B OBJ: 9
DIF: Remembering TOP: The balance of body functions
REF: p. 12
27. The abdominopelvic region that can be found in each of the four quadrants is the: a. umbilical. b. hypogastric. c. epigastric. d. left iliac. ANS: A
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 8
OBJ: 7
TOP: Abdominopelvic regions 28. The lower right abdominopelvic quadrant includes all of the: a. right hypochondriac region. b. right lumbar region. c. right iliac region. d. right epigastric region. ANS: C DIF: Applying TOP: Abdominopelvic subdivisions
REF: p. 8
OBJ: 7
29. An example of a positive feedback loop would be a. maintaining proper body temperature. b. forming a blood clot. c. uterine contractions during childbirth. d. forming a blood clot and uterine contractions during childbirth. ANS: D DIF: Applying TOP: The balance of body functions
REF: p. 12
OBJ: 9
30. An example of a negative feedback loop would be: a. maintaining proper body temperature. b. forming a blood clot. c. uterine contractions during childbirth. d. lactation. ANS: A DIF: Applying TOP: The balance of body functions
REF: p. 12
OBJ: 9
31. A midsagittal section through the head would divide: a. the forehead from the chin. b. the nose from the back of the head. c. the right eye from the left eye. d. the chin from the nose. ANS: C DIF: TOP: Planes of the body
Applying
REF: p. 6
OBJ: 5
32. A transverse section through the head would divide: a. the forehead from the chin. b. the nose from the back of the head. c. the right eye from the left eye. d. the right eye from the nose. ANS: A DIF: TOP: Planes of the body
Applying
REF: p. 6
33. A frontal section through the head would divide: a. the forehead from the chin. b. the nose from the back of the head. c. the right eye from the left eye.
OBJ: 5
d. the nose from the chin. ANS: B DIF: TOP: Planes of the body
Applying
REF: p. 6
OBJ: 5
34. If this kind of section were made through the center of the head, both the right and left eyes would be on the same section. a. Coronal section b. Midsagittal section c. Transverse section d. Coronal and transverse sections ANS: D DIF: TOP: Planes of the body
Applying
REF: p. 6
OBJ: 5
35. The relationship between an organ and organ system is similar to the relationship between a cell and: a. an organism. b. the cellular level of organization. c. a tissue. d. an organ. ANS: C DIF: Creating TOP: Levels of organization
REF: p. 3 | p. 4
OBJ: 3
36. The heart is an example of this level or organization. a. Tissue b. Organ c. Organ system d. Organism ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Levels of organization
REF: p. 4
37. Blood vessels are examples of this level or organization. a. Organ system b. Tissue c. Organ d. Cellular ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Levels of organization
REF: p. 4
38. On a directional rosette, a letter L would stand for: a. “left” if it is opposite the letter R b. “lateral” if it is opposite the letter D c. “lateral” if it is opposite the letter A d. “lower” if it is opposite the letter U ANS: A OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anatomical compass rosette
REF: p. 5
39. Which of the following terms do not refer to a part of the head region? a. Olecranal b. Zygomatic c. Frontal d. Buccal ANS: A OBJ: 8
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body regions
REF: p. 10 (Table 1-2)
40. Which of the following is not controlled by a negative feedback loop? a. Body temperature b. Blood oxygen concentration c. Fluid levels of the body d. Blood clot formation ANS: D OBJ: 9
DIF: Remembering TOP: The balance of body functions
REF: p. 12
41. The organ level of organization contains all of these lower levels. a. The cellular and tissue levels only b. The chemical and tissue levels only c. The chemical, cellular, and tissue levels only d. The chemical, cellular, tissue, and system levels ANS: C DIF: Applying TOP: Levels of organization
REF: p. 3 | p. 4
OBJ: 3
42. This structure physically separates the pelvic cavity from the abdominal cavity. a. Mediastinum b. Diaphragm c. Mesenteries d. No physical partition separates them ANS: D OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body cavities
REF: p. 7
43. The lungs are located in the: a. thoracic cavity. b. mediastinum. c. dorsal cavity. d. abdominal cavity. ANS: A OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body cavities
REF: p. 8
44. A scientific experiment testing a new drug used two groups, one getting the drug and one getting the sugar pill. The group getting the sugar pill is the: a. test group. b. hypothesis group. c. control group. d. observational group.
ANS: C DIF: TOP: Scientific method
Applying
REF: p. 1 | p. 2
OBJ: 2
45. A scientific experiment testing a new drug used two groups, one getting the drug and one getting a sugar pill. If the two groups had the same result, it would indicate: a. the drug was safe and effective. b. the drug was ineffective because it did no better than the sugar pill. c. the experiment was a failure and no information could be gained. d. the experiment was not completed. ANS: B DIF: TOP: Scientific method
Applying
REF: p. 1 | p. 2
OBJ: 2
46. A scientific experiment testing a new drug used two groups, one getting the drug and one getting a sugar pill. If the group getting the drug did much better than the group with the sugar pill: a. it would indicate that the drug was more effective than the sugar pill. b. a theory would be formed. c. the control group would be shown to have improved because of the drug. d. it would indicate that the experiment was ineffective. ANS: A DIF: TOP: Scientific method
Applying
REF: p. 1 | p. 2
OBJ: 2
47. In the metric system: a. a meter is longer than a yard. b. a centimeter is longer than an inch. c. a nanometer is longer than a micrometer. d. a millimeter is longer than a centimeter. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Metric System
REF: p. 2
48. If a person lost a little more than 3 pounds on a diet, they would have lost about: a. 500 g b. 1000 g c. 1500 g d. 2000 g ANS: C DIF: TOP: Metric System
Applying
REF: p. 2
OBJ: 2
49. The word supine describes: a. the body lying face downward. b. an anatomical direction. c. the reference position of the body. d. the body lying face upward. ANS: D OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anatomical position
REF: p. 5
50. Which process is used as the principal technique used to isolate and study the structural components or parts of the human body? a. Imaging b. Dissection c. X-rays d. Resection ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 1
MATCHING Match each of the following terms with its correct definition. a. Anterior b. Lateral c. Superior d. Medial e. Proximal f. Superficial g. Posterior 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.
Toward the head, upper or above Toward the midline of the body In humans, this term means the same as ventral Nearest to the point of origin Toward the back of the body Nearest the surface of the body Toward the side of the body
1. ANS: OBJ: 2. ANS: OBJ: 3. ANS: OBJ: 4. ANS: OBJ: 5. ANS: OBJ: 6. ANS: OBJ: 7. ANS: OBJ:
C 5 D 5 A 5 E 5 G 5 F 5 B 5
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering Anatomical directions Remembering Anatomical directions Remembering Anatomical directions Remembering Anatomical directions Remembering Anatomical directions Remembering Anatomical directions Remembering Anatomical directions
Match the body region with the correct body part. a. Skull b. Groin c. Chest
REF: p. 5 REF: p. 5 REF: p. 5 REF: p. 5 REF: p. 5 REF: p. 5 REF: p. 5
d. Mouth e. Brachial f. Wrist g. Cephalic h. Antebrachial i. Antecubital j. Cervical k. Axillary l. Femoral m. Lumbar n. Popliteal o. Tarsal p. Plantar 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23.
Arm Head Cranial Oral Inguinal Thoracic Carpal Sole of the foot Neck Thigh Armpit Depressed area in the front of the elbow Lower back between ribs and pelvis Ankle Forearm Area behind the knee
8. ANS: OBJ: 9. ANS: OBJ: 10. ANS: OBJ: 11. ANS: OBJ: 12. ANS: OBJ: 13. ANS: OBJ: 14. ANS: OBJ: 15. ANS: OBJ: 16. ANS:
E 8 G 8 A 8 D 8 B 8 C 8 F 8 P 8 J
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF:
Remembering Body regions Remembering Body regions Remembering Body regions Remembering Body regions Remembering Body regions Remembering Body regions Remembering Body regions Remembering Body regions Remembering
REF: p. 10 (Table 1-2) REF: p. 10 (Table 1-2) REF: p. 10 (Table 1-2) REF: p. 10 (Table 1-2) REF: p. 10 (Table 1-2) REF: p. 10 (Table 1-2) REF: p. 10 (Table 1-2) REF: p. 10 (Table 1-2) REF: p. 10 (Table 1-2)
17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23.
OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ:
8 L 8 K 8 I 8 M 8 O 8 H 8 N 8
TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Body regions Remembering Body regions Remembering Body regions Remembering Body regions Remembering Body regions Remembering Body regions Remembering Body regions Remembering Body regions
REF: p. 10 (Table 1-2) REF: p. 10 (Table 1-2) REF: p. 10 (Table 1-2) REF: p. 10 (Table 1-2) REF: p. 10 (Table 1-2) REF: p. 10 (Table 1-2) REF: p. 10 (Table 1-2)
Match the term with the correct definition or explanation. a. Hypothesis b. Scientific method c. Theory d. Experimentation e. Control group f. Test group 24. A hypothesis that has been supported by repeated testing and has gained a high level of confidence 25. A systematic approach to discovery 26. A group that does not get what is being tested 27. A reasonable guess based on previous informal observations 28. A process used to test a hypothesis 29. A group that receives what is being tested 24. ANS: OBJ: 25. ANS: OBJ: 26. ANS: OBJ: 27. ANS: OBJ: 28. ANS: OBJ: 29. ANS: OBJ:
C 2 B 2 E 2 A 2 D 2 F 2
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering Scientific method Remembering Scientific method Remembering Scientific method Remembering Scientific method Remembering Scientific method Remembering Scientific method
REF: p. 1 REF: p. 1 REF: p. 1 REF: p. 1 REF: p. 1 REF: p. 1
TRUE/FALSE 1. The word dissection is derived from two word parts that mean “cutting apart.”
ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 1
2. The cell is the smallest living structural unit of the body. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Levels of organization
REF: p. 3
3. An organ is defined as a group of several types of cells working together to perform a specific function. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Levels of organization
REF: p. 4
4. The reference position for the directional terms of the body is called the anatomical position. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anatomical position
REF: p. 4
5. The prone position is a position in which the body is lying face down. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anatomical position
REF: p. 4
6. The prone position is a position in which the body is lying face up. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anatomical position
REF: p. 5
7. The supine position is a position in which the body is lying face up. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anatomical position
REF: p. 5
8. Superior means toward the head. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anatomical directions
REF: p. 5
9. Because humans walk upright, superior and superficial mean the same thing. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anatomical directions
REF: p. 5
10. Anterior and proximal are opposite terms. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anatomical directions
REF: p. 5
11. Medial and lateral are opposite terms. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anatomical directions
REF: p. 5
12. Proximal and distal are opposite terms. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anatomical directions
REF: p. 5
13. Because humans walk upright, inferior and deep mean the same thing. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anatomical directions
REF: p. 5
14. Because humans walk upright, ventral and anterior mean the same thing. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anatomical directions
REF: p. 5
15. Because humans walk upright, dorsal and posterior mean the same thing. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anatomical directions
REF: p. 5
16. The hand is distal to the elbow. ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: Anatomical directions
REF: p. 5
OBJ: 5
REF: p. 5
OBJ: 5
REF: p. 5
OBJ: 5
REF: p. 5
OBJ: 5
REF: p. 5
OBJ: 5
17. The foot is proximal to the knee. ANS: F DIF: Applying TOP: Anatomical directions 18. The nose is superior to the mouth. ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: Anatomical directions 19. The mouth is inferior to the chin. ANS: F DIF: Applying TOP: Anatomical directions 20. The big toe is lateral to the little toe. ANS: F
DIF:
Applying
TOP: Anatomical directions 21. The ears are lateral to the nose. ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: Anatomical directions
REF: p. 5
OBJ: 5
REF: p. 5
OBJ: 5
REF: p. 5
OBJ: 5
REF: p. 5
OBJ: 5
22. The heart is medial to the lungs. ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: Anatomical directions 23. The skin is superficial to the ribs. ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: Anatomical directions 24. The lungs are deep to the ribs. ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: Anatomical directions
25. The bones of the arm are superficial to the muscles of the arm. ANS: F DIF: Applying TOP: Anatomical directions
REF: p. 5
OBJ: 5
REF: p. 5
OBJ: 5
REF: p. 5
OBJ: 5
26. The nose is on the anterior side of the body. ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: Anatomical directions 27. The navel is on the dorsal side of the body. ANS: F DIF: Applying TOP: Anatomical directions
28. The vertebrae are on the dorsal side of the body. ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: Anatomical directions
REF: p. 5
OBJ: 5
29. A sagittal section divides the body into upper and lower parts. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Planes of the body
30. A sagittal section divides the body into right and left parts.
REF: p. 6
ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Planes of the body
REF: p. 6
31. A frontal section divides the body into front and back parts. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Planes of the body
REF: p. 6
32. A transverse section divides the body into upper and lower parts. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Planes of the body
REF: p. 6
33. The two major cavities of the body are the abdominal and thoracic cavities. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body cavities
REF: p. 7
34. The two major cavities of the body are the dorsal and ventral cavities. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body cavities
REF: p. 7
35. The diaphragm divides the thoracic cavity and the abdominal cavity. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body cavities
REF: p. 7
36. The mediastinum is in both the ventral and thoracic cavities. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body cavities
REF: p. 7
37. The pleural cavity is in both the thoracic and dorsal cavities. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body cavities
REF: p. 7
38. The brain and spinal cord are in the dorsal cavity. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body cavities
REF: p. 8
39. The cranial cavity contains the brain and spinal cord. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body cavities
REF: p. 8
40. The upper abdominopelvic area consists of the right and left hypogastric and the epigastric regions. ANS: F OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Abdominopelvic regions
REF: p. 8
41. The lower abdominopelvic area contains the left iliac region. ANS: T OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Abdominopelvic regions
REF: p. 8
42. The middle abdominopelvic area contains the umbilical region. ANS: T OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Abdominopelvic regions
REF: p. 8
43. The epigastric, umbilical, and left lumbar regions are all in the middle abdominopelvic area. ANS: F OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Abdominopelvic regions
REF: p. 8
44. Homeostasis refers to the relatively constant internal environment the body tries to maintain. ANS: T OBJ: 9
DIF: Remembering TOP: The balance of body functions
REF: p. 10
45. A negative feedback loop is one way the body tries to maintain homeostasis. ANS: T OBJ: 9
DIF: Remembering TOP: The balance of body functions
REF: p. 12
46. The sensor in a feedback loop compares the actual condition to the “normal” condition the body tries to maintain. ANS: F OBJ: 9
DIF: Remembering TOP: The balance of body functions
REF: p. 11
47. The effector in a negative feedback loop does something to move the regulated condition back to “normal.” ANS: T OBJ: 9
DIF: Remembering TOP: The balance of body functions
REF: p. 11 | p. 12
48. The sensor in a negative feedback loop detects a change in the regulated condition. ANS: T OBJ: 9
DIF: Remembering TOP: The balance of body functions
REF: p. 11 | p. 12
49. In the negative feedback loop, the effector is the link between the sensor and the control center. ANS: F OBJ: 9
DIF: Remembering TOP: The balance of body functions
REF: p. 11 | p. 12
50. The formation of a blood clot is an example of a negative feedback loop. ANS: F OBJ: 9
DIF: Remembering TOP: The balance of body functions
REF: p. 12
51. The control of the volume of body fluid is an example of a negative feedback loop. ANS: T OBJ: 9
DIF: Remembering TOP: The balance of body functions
REF: p. 12
52. The regulation of blood pH is an example of a positive feedback loop. ANS: F OBJ: 9
DIF: Remembering TOP: The balance of body functions
REF: p. 12
53. The contraction of the uterus during childbirth is an example of a positive feedback loop. ANS: T OBJ: 9
DIF: Remembering TOP: The balance of body functions
REF: p. 12
54. The arms and legs are part of the axial body portion. ANS: F OBJ: 8
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body regions
REF: p. 10
55. The head and trunk are part of the axial body portion. ANS: T OBJ: 8
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body regions
REF: p. 10
56. The arms and legs are part of the appendicular body portion. ANS: T OBJ: 8
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body regions
REF: p. 10
57. Feedback loops continue to improve throughout life, reaching their peak in late adulthood. ANS: F OBJ: 9
DIF: Remembering TOP: The balance of body functions
REF: p. 13
58. The word organism can be used to describe a living thing. ANS: T
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 1
OBJ: 3
TOP: Levels of organization
59. A body in a supine position has its dorsal side to the ground. ANS: T DIF: Applying REF: p. 5 TOP: Anatomical position | Anatomical directions
OBJ: 4
60. A body in a prone position has its dorsal side to the ground. ANS: F DIF: Applying REF: p. 5 TOP: Anatomical position | Anatomical directions
OBJ: 4
61. On the compass rosettes in a figure, the letter P opposite the letter D would stand for the word proximal. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anatomical compass rosette
REF: p. 5
62. The thoracic cavity is divided into two parts, the mediastinum and the dorsal cavity. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body cavities
REF: p. 7
63. The midsagittal and transverse sections, which divide the abdomen into quadrants, intersect at the base of the mediastinum. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Abdominopelvic quadrants
REF: p. 7
64. The diaphragm divides the axial from the appendicular region of the body. ANS: F OBJ: 8
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body regions
REF: p. 7
65. The word leg refers only to the part of the body between the knee and the ankle. ANS: T OBJ: 8
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body regions
REF: p. 10
66. Women can have one more body function regulated by a positive feedback loop than men can. ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: The balance of body functions
REF: p. 12
OBJ: 9
67. Changes and functions that occur after young adulthood are called developmental processes. ANS: F OBJ: 9
DIF: Remembering TOP: The balance of body functions
REF: p. 13
68. The cell is the simplest level of organization in a living thing. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Levels of organization
REF: p. 3
69. When reading a compass rosette in a figure, the letter L can mean either left or lateral. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anatomical compass rosette
REF: p. 5
70. When reading a compass rosette in a figure, the letter P opposite the letter D stands for posterior. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anatomical compass rosette
REF: p. 5
71. The dorsal cavity is a made up of a single cavity containing the brain and spinal cord. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body cavities
REF: p. 7
72. The abdominopelvic region is divided into four quadrants, the left and right lumbar regions on the upper part and the left and right iliac regions on the lower part. ANS: F OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Abdominopelvic quadrants
REF: p. 7
73. The cells in the body live in a water environment that contains dissolved salts and other substances. ANS: T OBJ: 9
DIF: Remembering TOP: Balance of body functions
REF: p. 10 | p. 11
74. The terms ophthalmic and orbital both refer to the eye area. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 10 (Table 1-2) TOP: Descriptive terms for body regions
75. In the scientific method, a hypothesis is based on observation. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Scientific method
REF: p. 1
76. The single method used for all scientific investigation is called the scientific method. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Scientific method
REF: p. 1
77. An accepted hypothesis must be retested numerous times to become a theory. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Scientific method
REF: p. 1
78. If the effects of a drug are being tested by a scientific experiment, two groups would be used: a group that gets the drug and a group that gets an inactive substance. The group that gets the inactive substance is called the control group. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Scientific method
Applying
REF: p. 1 | p. 2
OBJ: 2
79. The term atrophy describes a body structure that is at the peak of its efficiency. ANS: F OBJ: 8
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body regions
REF: p. 10
80. The term dystrophy describes a degenerative process on a body structure due to lack of use. ANS: F OBJ: 8
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body regions
REF: p. 10
81. The study of the structure of an organism and the relationships of its parts is often defined as physiology. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 1
Chapter 02: Chemistry of Life Patton: Structure & Function of the Body, 17th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is not a subatomic particle that makes up the atom? a. Ion b. Proton c. Neutron d. Electron ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Atoms
REF: p. 21
2. The atomic number of an atom is equal to the number of: a. electrons. b. neutrons. c. protons. d. neutrons and protons. ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Atoms
REF: p. 21
3. The atomic mass of an atom is equal to the number of: a. electrons. b. neutrons. c. protons. d. neutrons and protons combined. ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Atoms
REF: p. 21
4. This subatomic particle is found in the nucleus of the atom. a. Electron b. Neutron c. Proton d. neutrons and protons ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Atoms
REF: p. 21
5. This subatomic particle is found in orbitals around the nucleus of the atom. a. Electron b. Neutron c. Proton d. Neutrons and protons ANS: A
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 21
OBJ: 2
TOP: Atoms
6. This is not a characteristic of a proton: a. contributes to the atom’s atomic number. b. contributes to the atom’s atomic mass. c. is located in the nucleus of the atom. d. carries a negative electrical charge. ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Atoms
REF: p. 21
7. This is not a characteristic of a neutron: a. contributes to the atom’s atomic number. b. contributes to the atom’s atomic mass. c. is located in the nucleus of the atom. d. has no electrical charge. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Atoms
REF: p. 21
8. This is not a characteristic of an electron: a. is in an orbital around the nucleus of the atom. b. has a negative electrical charge. c. contributes to the atom’s atomic number. d. move about in chaotic, unpredictable paths. ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Atoms
REF: p. 21
9. A particular atom has 16 protons, 17 neutrons, and 16 electrons. The atomic number of this atom is: a. 49. b. 32. c. 33. d. 16. ANS: D TOP: Atoms
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 21
OBJ: 2
10. A particular atom has 16 protons, 17 neutrons, and 16 electrons. The atomic mass of this atom is: a. 49. b. 32. c. 33. d. 16. ANS: C TOP: Atoms
DIF:
Applying
11. The second energy level of an atom: a. has four orbitals.
REF: p. 21
OBJ: 2
b. can hold eight electrons. c. is a lower energy level then the first energy level. d. can hold only two electrons. ANS: B TOP: Atoms
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 21 | p. 22
OBJ: 2
12. Compounds are: a. pure substances. b. made up of only one type of atom. c. made up of two or more different types of atoms. d. make up 96% of the human body. ANS: C OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 22 TOP: Elements, molecules, and compounds
13. The formula for oxygen gas is O2; this means it is: a. made up of two atoms of oxygen. b. a molecule. c. a compound. d. made up of two atoms of oxygen and is a molecule. ANS: D DIF: Applying REF: p. 22 TOP: Elements, molecules, and compounds
OBJ: 1
14. If an atom had 20 protons and 18 electrons, it would: a. have a negative 2 charge. b. have a plus 2 charge. c. be attracted to a positively charged ion. d. have a negative 2 charge and be attracted to a positively charged atom. ANS: B TOP: Ionic bonds
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 22 | p. 23
OBJ: 3
15. Ionic bonds: a. usually dissolve easily in water. b. produced ions when dissolved in water. c. are formed by atoms of opposite charge. d. usually dissolve easily in water. ANS: D OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Ionic bonds
REF: p. 22 | p. 23
16. Covalent bonds: a. dissociate in water. b. are formed when electrons are shared between atoms. c. are formed by atoms of opposite charge. d. dissociate in water and are formed by atoms of opposite charge. ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Covalent bonds
REF: p. 24
17. Organic compounds must contain: a. oxygen. b. carbon–oxygen bonds. c. hydrogen–oxygen bonds. d. electrical charges in regions when tiny hydrogen atoms are not able to equally share their electrons. ANS: D OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Inorganic chemistry
REF: p. 24
18. Which of the following is not true of water? a. Water is the most abundant organic compound in the body. b. Water is found both in and around the cells of the body. c. Water is the solvent in which most other compounds are dissolved. d. Water is essential to life. ANS: A OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Water
REF: p. 25
19. In a dehydration synthesis reaction: a. water is a reactant. b. water is a product. c. a large molecule is broken down into a smaller one. d. water is both a reactant and a large molecule broken down into a smaller one. ANS: B OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Water chemistry
REF: p. 25
20. In a dehydration synthesis reaction: a. hydrogen and oxygen are removed from the reactants. b. water is added to the reactants. c. water is broken down into hydrogen and oxygen. d. water is broken down into other reactants. ANS: A OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Water chemistry
REF: p. 25
21. In a hydrolysis reaction: a. water is a product. b. water is a reactant. c. water is broken down into hydrogen and oxygen. d. the product is larger than either reactant. ANS: B OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Water chemistry
REF: p. 25
22. Which of the following statements is true? a. The process of hydrolysis is used to build a larger molecule from smaller molecules. b. Water is an end product of a hydrolysis reaction. c. The process of dehydration synthesis is used to build a larger molecule from
smaller molecules. d. Water is a reactant in a dehydration synthesis reaction. ANS: C OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Water chemistry
REF: p. 25
23. Which is not true of the following chemical equation? K+ + Cl– = KCl a. The equation indicates that there are two reactants. b. The equation indicates that there is one product. c. The equation indicates that the reaction occurs in both directions equally. d. The equation indicates that there are three products. ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Water chemistry
REF: p. 25
24. An acid: a. has a pH greater than 7. b. has a pH less than 7. c. has more OH– ions than H+ ions in solution. d. has a pH that is neutral. ANS: B OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Acids, bases, and salts
REF: p. 26
25. A base: a. has a pH greater than 7. b. has a pH less than 7. c. has more OH– ions than H+ ions in solution. d. has a pH greater than 7 and has more OH– ions than H+ ions in solution. ANS: D OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Acids, bases, and salts
REF: p. 26
26. A solution with a pH of 6: a. is an acid. b. is a base. c. has 10 times more H+ ions than a solution with a pH of 5. d. is neutral. ANS: A OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Acids, bases, and salts
REF: p. 26
27. A solution with a pH of 11: a. is an acid. b. is a base. c. has 10 times more OH– ions than a solution with a pH of 10. d. is a base and has 10 times more OH– ions than a solution with a pH of 10. ANS: D OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Acids, bases, and salts
28. When the body removes CO2 by way of the respiratory system:
REF: p. 26
a. b. c. d.
it lowers the pH of the blood. it raises the pH of the blood. it has no effect on pH because CO2 is neither an acid nor a base. it is acting as a buffer.
ANS: B OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Homeostasis of pH
REF: p. 26 | p. 27
29. If a strong acid were added to one container of pure water and an equal amount of a weak acid were added to a second container of pure water: a. the pH of both containers would go up equally. b. the pH of both containers would go down equally. c. the pH of the container with the strong acid would go up more than the container with the weak acid. d. the ions of the container with the strong acid may neutralize each other. ANS: D DIF: Applying TOP: Acids, bases, and salts
REF: p. 26 | p. 27
OBJ: 6
30. Which of the following is a monosaccharide? a. Glucose b. Sucrose c. Lactose d. Glucagon ANS: A OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Carbohydrates
REF: p. 27
31. Which of the following is a disaccharide? a. Glucose b. Sucrose c. Starch d. Glycogen ANS: B OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Carbohydrates
REF: p. 27
32. Which of the following is a polysaccharide? a. Glucose b. Lactose c. Sucrose d. Glycogen ANS: D OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Carbohydrates
REF: p. 27
33. Liver cells and muscle cells are able to store chains of glucose in a molecule called: a. glycogen. b. polyglucose. c. sucrose. d. lactose.
ANS: A OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Carbohydrates
REF: p. 27
34. Which of the following is not true of triglycerides? a. A part of the molecule attracts water. b. The molecule contains three fatty acids. c. The molecule contains glycerol. d. Triglycerides are used by the body to store energy. ANS: A OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lipids
REF: p. 28
35. Which of the following is not true of phospholipids? a. The molecule contains three fatty acids. b. The molecule has a water-attracting part. c. The molecule has a water-repelling part. d. It is important in the structure of the cell membrane. ANS: A OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Phospholipids
REF: p. 28
36. Which of the following is not true of cholesterol? a. It is a steroid lipid. b. It helps stabilize the cell membrane. c. It contains only two fatty acids. d. It is the starting point for making the hormone estrogen. ANS: C OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Steroids
REF: p. 29
37. This lipid can be found in the cell membrane: a. triglycerides. b. phospholipids. c. cholesterol. d. phospholipids and cholesterol. ANS: D OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lipids
REF: p. 29
38. Which of the following is a structural protein? a. Hormones b. Collagen c. Growth factor d. Enzymes ANS: B OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Proteins
39. The “lock and key” model is use to describe the functioning of: a. enzymes. b. collagen molecules.
REF: p. 30
c. keratin molecules. d. enzymes and keratin molecules. ANS: A OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Proteins
REF: p. 30
40. Which of the following is not true of enzymes? a. They function on the lock and key model. b. They are functional proteins. c. They are catalysts. d. They are not essential for chemical reactions. ANS: D OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Proteins
REF: p. 30
41. This molecule is found in DNA but not RNA: a. guanine. b. thymine. c. uracil. d. adenine. ANS: B OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nucleic acids
REF: p. 30
42. This molecule is found in DNA but not RNA: a. adenine. b. ribose sugar. c. deoxyribose sugar. d. phosphate. ANS: C OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nucleic acids
REF: p. 30
43. This molecule is found in RNA but not DNA: a. guanine. b. thymine. c. uracil. d. adenine. ANS: C OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nucleic acids
REF: p. 30
44. This molecule is found in RNA but not DNA: a. ribose sugar. b. deoxyribose sugar. c. adenine. d. cytosine. ANS: A OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nucleic acids
REF: p. 30
45. This subatomic particle does not contribute to the mass of an atom:
a. b. c. d.
proton. neutron. electron. protons and electrons.
ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Atoms
REF: p. 21
46. The magnesium atom has two electrons in its outer energy level and is willing to donate both of them. The sodium atom has seven electrons in its outer energy level and will accept one electron. The chemical formula for the compound formed by magnesium and sodium would be: a. Mg2Na. b. MgNa2. c. Mg2S. d. MgS2. ANS: B TOP: Ionic bonds
DIF:
Creating
REF: p. 21 | p. 22
OBJ: 3
47. Which of the following organs help maintain the proper pH of body fluids? a. Kidneys by forming urine b. Lungs by exhaling carbon dioxide c. Spleen by filtering the blood d. Kidneys by forming urine and the spleen by filtering blood ANS: D OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Homeostasis of pH
REF: p. 26
48. Which of the following lipids do not contain fatty acids? a. Phospholipids b. Cholesterol c. Triglycerides d. Phospholipids and cholesterol ANS: B OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lipids
REF: p. 29
49. Which of the following lipids are used as starting points in the making of hormones? a. Phospholipids b. Cholesterol c. Triglycerides d. Cholesterol and triglycerides ANS: B OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lipids
50. In an atom, each orbital can hold: a. one electron. b. two electrons. c. eight electrons.
REF: p. 29
d. hydrogen can hold two and the rest of the atoms can hold eight. ANS: B OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Atoms
REF: p. 21
51. An isotope is an atom with: a. more protons than electrons. b. more electrons than protons. c. the same number of protons but different number of neutrons. d. more protons than electrons and more electrons than protons. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 23 TOP: Clinical Application: Radioactive Isotopes
52. Which of the following carries a positive electrical charge? a. Proton b. Neutron c. Electron d. Both proton and neutron ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Atoms
REF: p. 21
53. Which of the following is found in the nucleus of the atom? a. Proton b. Neutron c. Electron d. Both proton and neutron ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Atoms
REF: p. 21
54. Which of the following is found in orbitals surrounding the nucleus of the atom? a. Proton b. Neutron c. Electron d. Both proton and neutron ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Atoms
REF: p. 21
55. Which of the following carries no electrical charge? a. Proton b. Neutron c. Electron d. Both proton and neutron ANS: B OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Atoms
56. Which of the following contributes to the atom’s atomic mass? a. Proton
REF: p. 21
b. Neutron c. Electron d. Both proton and neutron ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Atoms
REF: p. 21
57. Which of the following contributes to the atom’s atomic number? a. Proton b. Neutron c. Electron d. Both proton and neutron ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Atoms
REF: p. 21
58. Which of the following carries a negative electrical charge? a. Proton b. Neutron c. Electron d. Both proton and neutron ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Atoms
REF: p. 21
59. Which of the following contain three fatty acids and a molecule of glycerol? a. Enzymes b. Triglycerides c. Phospholipids d. Disaccharides ANS: B OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lipids
REF: p. 28
60. Which of the following is an example of a monosaccharide? a. Glucose b. Lactose c. Glycogen d. Starch ANS: A OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Carbohydrates
REF: p. 27
61. Which of the following has thymine as one of its nucleotides? a. DNA b. RNA c. mRNA d. ATP ANS: A OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nucleic acids
REF: p. 30
62. Which of the following is a lipid with a water-attracting and water-repelling part of its molecule? a. Triglycerides b. Cholesterol c. Phospholipids d. ATP ANS: C OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lipids
REF: p. 28
63. Which of the following is an example of a structural protein? a. Enzymes b. Collagen c. Glycogen d. Starch ANS: B OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Proteins
REF: p. 30
64. Which of the following is an example of a functional protein? a. Collagen b. Glycogen c. Enzymes d. Starch ANS: C OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Proteins
REF: p. 30
65. Which of the following is a lipid that can be found along with cholesterol in the cell membrane? a. Triglycerides b. Phospholipids c. Both triglycerides and phospholippids d. Neither triglycerides and phospholipids ANS: B OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Phospholipids
REF: p. 29
66. Which of the following is a nucleic acid with a double helix structure? a. DNA b. RNA c. Both DNA and RNA d. Neither DNA or RNA ANS: A OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nucleic acids
REF: p. 30
67. Which of the following is a protein whose function is explained by the lock and key model? a. Collagen b. Glycogen c. Enzymes
d. Starch ANS: C OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Proteins
REF: p. 30
68. Which of the following has uracil as one of its nucleotides? a. DNA b. RNA c. Both DNA and RNA d. Neither DNA or RNA ANS: B OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nucleic acids
REF: p. 30
69. Which of the following is an example of a disaccharide? a. Glucose b. Dextrose c. Glycogen d. Lactose ANS: D OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Carbohydrates
REF: p. 27
70. Which of the following is a starting substance for making the hormones estrogen and testosterone? a. Lactose b. Collagen c. DNA d. Cholesterol ANS: D OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Steroids
REF: p. 29
71. Which of the following acts as a chemical catalyst? a. DNA b. RNA c. Enzymes d. Phospholipids ANS: C OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Proteins
REF: p. 30
72. Which of the following is an example of a polysaccharide? a. Glucose b. Glycogen c. Dextrose d. Lactose ANS: B OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Carbohydrates
73. Which of the following is the steroid lipid?
REF: p. 27
a. b. c. d.
Cholesterol Triglycerides Enzymes Phospholipids
ANS: A OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lipids
REF: p. 29
74. This element is not one of the elements that make up 96% of the body. a. Nitrogen b. Hydrogen c. Oxygen d. Sodium ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 22 TOP: Elements, molecules, and compounds
75. This is a way the body can remove excess H+ ions from the body: a. excreting them in the urine. b. exhaling CO2 from the lungs. c. using a buffer. d. urine excretion, exhalation of CO2, and buffers. ANS: D OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Homeostasis of pH
REF: p. 26
76. This modified nucleotide plays an important role in energy-transfer in the body: a. adenosine triphosphate. b. enzymes. c. mRNA. d. glycoproteins. ANS: A OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nucleic acids
REF: p. 30
77. Low blood pH results in a condition called: a. alkalosis. b. acidosis. c. atherosclerosis. d. hydrolysis. ANS: B OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Homeostasis of pH
MATCHING Match the name of the element with the correct symbol. a. Potassium b. Phosphorus c. Sodium d. Calcium
REF: p. 26
e. f. g. h. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
Carbon Hydrogen Chlorine Nitrogen
C Ca Cl H Na P K N
1. ANS: OBJ: 2. ANS: OBJ: 3. ANS: OBJ: 4. ANS: OBJ: 5. ANS: OBJ: 6. ANS: OBJ: 7. ANS: OBJ: 8. ANS: OBJ:
E 1 D 1 G 1 F 1 C 1 B 1 A 1 H 1
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering REF: Elements, molecules, and compounds Remembering REF: Elements, molecules, and compounds Remembering REF: Elements, molecules, and compounds Remembering REF: Elements, molecules, and compounds Remembering REF: Elements, molecules, and compounds Remembering REF: Elements, molecules, and compounds Remembering REF: Elements, molecules, and compounds Remembering REF: Elements, molecules, and compounds
Match the term with its definition or explanation. a. Proton b. Electron c. Neutron d. Atomic mass e. Atomic number f. Element g. Compound h. Hydrolysis i. Acid j. Base k. Covalent bond l. Ionic bond m. Water n. Buffer o. Electrolytes p. Dehydration synthesis
p. 22 p. 22 p. 22 p. 22 p. 22 p. 22 p. 22 p. 22
9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24.
A process where a molecule of water is used to make large compounds smaller A substance composed of more than one type of element When an ionic compound dissociates in water, it forms these Bond formed by the attraction of opposite charges A subatomic particle with a positive charge The most important inorganic compound in the body A substance that resists a change in pH A subatomic particle with a negative charge The sum of the protons and neutrons in an atom The number of protons in an atom A pure substance made up of only one kind of atom A subatomic particle with no charge A substance that increases the concentration of H+ ions in a solution A bond formed when electrons are shared A substance that increases the concentration of OH– ions in a solution A process where a molecule of water is removed to make two small molecules into one larger molecule
9. ANS: OBJ: 10. ANS: OBJ: 11. ANS: OBJ: 12. ANS: OBJ: 13. ANS: OBJ: 14. ANS: OBJ: 15. ANS: OBJ: 16. ANS: OBJ: 17. ANS: OBJ: 18. ANS: OBJ: 19. ANS: OBJ: 20. ANS: OBJ: 21. ANS: OBJ: 22. ANS: OBJ: 23. ANS:
H 5 G 1 O 3 L 3 A 2 M 5 N 6 B 2 D 2 E 2 F 1 C 2 I 6 K 3 J
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF:
Remembering REF: Water chemistry Remembering REF: Elements, molecules, and compounds Remembering REF: Ionic bonds Remembering REF: Ionic bonds Remembering REF: Atoms Remembering REF: Water Remembering REF: Acids, bases, and salts Remembering REF: Atoms Remembering REF: Atoms Remembering REF: Atoms Remembering REF: Elements, molecules, and compounds Remembering REF: Atoms Remembering REF: Acids, bases, and salts Remembering REF: Covalent bonds Remembering REF:
p. 25 p. 22 p. 23 p. 23 p. 21 p. 25 p. 27 p. 21 p. 21 p. 21 p. 22 p. 21 p. 26 p. 24 p. 26
OBJ: 6 24. ANS: P OBJ: 5
TOP: Acids, bases, and salts DIF: Remembering TOP: Water chemistry
REF: p. 25
Match the term with the definition or explanation. a. Glucose b. Enzyme c. Triglyceride d. Glycogen e. Cholesterol f. Adenosine triphosphate g. RNA h. Phospholipids i. Collagen j. DNA 25. This is an example of a functional protein. 26. This nucleic acid has thymine as one of its nitrogen bases. 27. This lipid has a side that attracts water and another side that repels water and is important in formation of cell membranes. 28. This is the monosaccharide that the body prefers for its source of energy. 29. This is an example of a structural protein. 30. This nucleic acid has uracil as one of its nitrogen bases. 31. This lipid is made up of a molecule of glycerol and three fatty acids. 32. This is a special type of nucleotide that is used to transfer energy in the body. 33. This is a lipid that is used in the making of a number of hormones in the body. 34. This is the polysaccharide that the human body stores for energy. 25. ANS: OBJ: 26. ANS: OBJ: 27. ANS: OBJ: 28. ANS: OBJ: 29. ANS: OBJ: 30. ANS: OBJ: 31. ANS: OBJ: 32. ANS: OBJ: 33. ANS: OBJ: 34. ANS: OBJ:
B 7 J 7 H 7 A 7 I 7 G 7 C 7 F 7 E 7 D 7
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering Proteins Remembering Nucleic acids Remembering Lipids Remembering Carbohydrates Remembering Protein Remembering Nucleic acids Remembering Lipids Remembering Nucleic acids Remembering Lipids Remembering Carbohydrates
REF: p. 30 REF: p. 30 REF: p. 28 REF: p. 27 REF: p. 30 REF: p. 30 REF: p. 28 REF: p. 30 REF: p. 29 REF: p. 27
TRUE/FALSE 1. Matter can be defined as anything that occupies space and has mass. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Levels of chemical organization
REF: p. 21
2. Atoms have never been seen by scientists, but their presence is strongly supported by the atomic theory. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Atoms
REF: p. 21
3. The proton of the atom carries a positive electrical charge. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Atoms
REF: p. 21
4. The proton of the atom is found in orbitals around the nucleus. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Atoms
REF: p. 21
5. The proton of an atom is found in the nucleus. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Atoms
REF: p. 21
6. An atom with 15 protons would have an atomic mass of 15. ANS: F TOP: Atoms
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 21
OBJ: 2
7. An atom with 15 protons would have an atomic number of 15. ANS: T TOP: Atoms
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 21
OBJ: 2
8. An atom with 15 protons and 15 electrons would have an atomic mass of 30. ANS: F TOP: Atoms
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 21
OBJ: 2
9. An atom with 15 protons and 15 neutrons would have an atomic mass of 30. ANS: T TOP: Atoms
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 21
OBJ: 2
10. Neutrons have no electrical charge. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Atoms
REF: p. 21
11. Neutrons and electrons are found in the nucleus of the atom. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Atoms
REF: p. 21
12. Neutrons contribute to the atomic number of an atom. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Atoms
REF: p. 21
13. Neutrons contribute to the atomic mass of the atom. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Atoms
REF: p. 21
14. Electrons carry a negative electrical charge. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Atoms
REF: p. 21
15. The number of electrons plus the number of protons is equal to the atomic number of an atom. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Atoms
REF: p. 21
16. All orbitals of an atom can hold two electrons. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Atoms
REF: p. 21
17. All energy levels of an atom can hold four orbitals. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Atoms
REF: p. 21
18. All energy levels can hold eight electrons. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Atoms
REF: p. 21
19. The first energy level of an atom can hold only two orbitals. ANS: F
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 22
OBJ: 2
TOP: Atoms
20. The first energy level of an atom is closest to the nucleus and is the lowest energy level. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Atoms
REF: p. 22
21. The terms energy level and electron orbital are interchangeable. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Atoms
REF: p. 21
22. Elements are pure substances. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 22 TOP: Elements, molecules, and compounds
23. The terms molecule and compound are interchangeable. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 22 TOP: Elements, molecules, and compounds
24. A formula of a compound tells you the number and types of elements that make up that compound. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 22 TOP: Elements, molecules, and compounds
25. The elements sodium, oxygen, hydrogen, and nitrogen make up 96% of the human body. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 22 TOP: Elements, molecules, and compounds
26. An atom is said to be chemically stable when its outer energy level is full. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Chemical bonding
REF: p. 22
27. An atom with one more electron than proton would have a plus one charge. ANS: F TOP: Ionic bonds
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 23
OBJ: 3
28. In order for an atom to be an ion, the number of electrons cannot equal the number of protons. ANS: T TOP: Ionic bonds
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 23
OBJ: 3
29. When ionic compounds dissolve in water, they tend to dissociate into ions. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Ionic bonds
REF: p. 23
30. The ions that are dissolved in water are called electrolytes. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Ionic bonds
REF: p. 23
31. The symbol for a sodium atom that has lost one electron would be Na. ANS: F TOP: Ionic bonds
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 23
OBJ: 3
32. The symbol for a sodium atom that has lost one electron would be Na+. ANS: T TOP: Ionic bonds
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 23
OBJ: 3
33. Atom X has eight electrons, two in its first energy level and six in its second energy level. It would most likely form an ion with a plus two charge. ANS: F TOP: Ionic bonds
DIF:
Creating
REF: p. 23
OBJ: 3
34. Covalent bonds do not usually dissociate in water. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Covalent bonds
REF: p. 24
35. Covalent bonds dissociate into ions when dissolved in water. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Covalent bonds
REF: p. 24
36. All compounds in the human body are, by definition, organic compounds. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Inorganic chemistry
REF: p. 24
37. Organic compounds must have either a C–C or C–H bond. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Inorganic chemistry
REF: p. 24
38. Water is an inorganic compound. ANS: T
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 25
OBJ: 5
TOP: Water
39. Aqueous solutions have water as the solvent. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Solutions
REF: p. 25
40. In a dehydration synthesis reaction, water is always a reactant. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Water chemistry
REF: p. 25
41. In a dehydration synthesis reaction, water is always a product. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Water chemistry
REF: p. 25
42. In dehydration synthesis reaction, smaller reactants are joined to form a larger product. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Water chemistry
REF: p. 25
43. In the process of hydrolysis, a molecule of water is broken down to hydrogen and oxygen. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Water chemistry
REF: p. 25
44. In hydrolysis, water is used to break the bonds of a larger molecule and convert it to smaller molecules. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Water chemistry
REF: p. 25
45. In a hydrolysis reaction, water is always an end product. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Water chemistry
REF: p. 25
46. Hydrolysis is virtually the reverse of a dehydration synthesis reaction. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Water chemistry
REF: p. 25
47. Acids produce an excess of H+ ions. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Acids, bases, and salts
48. Bases produce an excess of OH– ions.
REF: p. 26
ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Acids, bases, and salts
REF: p. 26
49. An increase in H+ ions will cause an increase in the pH value. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Acids, bases, and salts
REF: p. 26
50. An increase in pH value would mean more H+ ions are in solution. ANS: F DIF: Applying TOP: Acids, bases, and salts
REF: p. 26
OBJ: 6
51. A solution with a pH of 4 has 100 times more H+ ions than a solution with a pH of 2. ANS: F DIF: Applying TOP: Acids, bases, and salts
REF: p. 26
OBJ: 6
52. A solution with a pH of 3 has 10 times more H+ ions than a solution with a pH of 4. ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: Acids, bases, and salts
REF: p. 26
OBJ: 6
53. A solution that has a greater concentration of OH– ions than H+ ions would be called a base. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Acids, bases, and salts
REF: p. 26
54. A strong acid added to a solution would raise the pH more than the same amount of a weak acid added to the solution. ANS: F DIF: Applying TOP: Acids, bases, and salts
REF: p. 26
OBJ: 6
55. When a neutralization reaction occurs between a strong acid and base, one of the end products is water. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Acids, bases, and salts
REF: p. 26
56. A buffer is a chemical that helps prevent a sudden change in pH. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Memorization TOP: Homeostasis of pH
REF: p. 27
57. The word carbohydrate literally means “sugar.” ANS: F
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 27
OBJ: 7
TOP: Carbohydrates
58. Both sucrose and lactose are monosaccharides. ANS: F OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Carbohydrates
REF: p. 27
59. Glucose is used by the body as a source of energy. ANS: T OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Carbohydrates
REF: p. 27
60. Both sucrose and lactose are disaccharides. ANS: T OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Carbohydrates
REF: p. 27
61. A molecule of glycogen contains more saccharide units than a molecule of sucrose. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Carbohydrates
Applying
REF: p. 27
OBJ: 7
62. A molecule of glucose has more saccharide units than a molecule of lactose. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Carbohydrates
Applying
REF: p. 27
OBJ: 7
63. Muscles store chains of glucose in a molecule called dextrose. ANS: F OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Carbohydrates
REF: p. 27
64. Glycogen and starch are both polysaccharides. ANS: T OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Carbohydrates
REF: p. 27
65. Cholesterol is an important source of energy for the body. ANS: F OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Steroids
REF: p. 27
66. Phospholipids and triglycerides both contain fatty acids. ANS: T OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lipids
REF: p. 28
67. Phospholipids and triglycerides both have parts of their molecules that attract water.
ANS: F OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lipids
REF: p. 28
68. Phospholipids are the starting substance for several steroid hormones in the body. ANS: F OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Phospholipids
REF: p. 28
69. Both phospholipids and cholesterol are structural components of the cell membrane. ANS: T OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lipids
REF: p. 28 | p. 29
70. Both phospholipids and cholesterol are steroid lipids. ANS: F OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lipids
REF: p. 29
71. The bonds that join amino acids together to form a protein are called peptide bonds. ANS: T OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Proteins
REF: p. 29
72. The functional proteins in the body include hormones, collagen, and cell membrane receptors. ANS: F OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Proteins
REF: p. 30
73. The shape of proteins determines their role in body chemistry. ANS: T OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Proteins
REF: p. 29 | p. 30
74. The basic building blocks of nucleic acids are nucleotides. ANS: T OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nucleic acids
REF: p. 30
75. Both DNA and RNA contain uracil. ANS: F OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nucleic acids
REF: p. 30
76. Both DNA and RNA contain a sugar molecule as part of their structure. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Nucleic acids
Applying
REF: p. 30
OBJ: 7
77. Both DNA and RNA have a double helix structure. ANS: F OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nucleic acids
REF: p. 30
78. DNA is the “master code” for making proteins. ANS: T OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nucleic acids
REF: p. 30
79. LDLs have a high concentration of protein and low concentration of lipid. ANS: F OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 29 TOP: Clinical Application: Blood Lipoproteins
80. HDL is sometimes called the “bad” cholesterol. ANS: F OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 29 TOP: Clinical Application: Blood Lipoproteins
81. LDL is sometimes called the “bad” cholesterol. ANS: T OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 29 TOP: Clinical Application: Blood Lipoproteins
82. High levels of LDL are associated with the development of atherosclerosis. ANS: T OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 29 TOP: Clinical Application: Blood Lipoproteins
83. An atom’s mass number is usually greater than its atomic number. ANS: T TOP: Atoms
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 21
OBJ: 2
84. An atom’s atomic number is usually greater than its mass number. ANS: F TOP: Atoms
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 21
OBJ: 2
85. Electrons move in an elliptical orbit rather than a circular orbit around the nucleus. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Atoms
REF: p. 21
86. An electron in the third energy level is closer to the nucleus than an electron in the second energy level. ANS: F
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 21
OBJ: 2
TOP: Atoms
87. All compounds are molecules, but not all molecules are compounds. ANS: T DIF: Applying REF: p. 22 TOP: Elements, molecules, and compounds
OBJ: 1
88. The bond between carbon and hydrogen in an organic compound is an example of a covalent bond. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Inorganic chemistry
REF: p. 24
89. Water is the most abundant solute in the body. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Water
REF: p. 25
90. Chemical bonds can store potential chemical energy. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Water chemistry
REF: p. 25
91. The primary source of energy used by the body is a carbohydrate. ANS: T OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Carbohydrates
REF: p. 27
92. The only group of organic compounds that contains sugar is the carbohydrates. ANS: F DIF: Applying TOP: Carbohydrates | Nucleic acids
REF: p. 27 | p. 30
OBJ: 7
93. Adenosine triphosphate is a modified nucleotide that is important in energy transfer in the body. ANS: T OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nucleic acids
REF: p. 30
94. If blood pH tests indicate that your blood pH is high, you are suffering from alkalosis. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Homeostasis of pH
Applying
REF: p. 26
Chapter 03: Cells Patton: Structure & Function of the Body, 17th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE
OBJ: 6
1. The plasma membrane of a cell is composed of: a. phospholipid molecules. b. cholesterol molecules. c. protein molecules. d. phospholipids, cholesterol, and protein molecules. ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Plasma membrane
REF: p. 41
2. The molecules in the plasma membrane that serve as receptors for other molecules are the: a. phospholipid molecules. b. cholesterol molecules. c. protein molecules. d. phospholipids, cholesterol, and protein molecules. ANS: C OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Plasma membrane
REF: p. 41
3. The molecules that stabilize the plasma membrane and prevent it from breaking easily are the: a. phospholipid molecules. b. cholesterol molecules. c. protein molecules. d. phospholipids, cholesterol, and protein molecules. ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Plasma membrane
REF: p. 41
4. An important function of the plasma membrane is: a. the production of energy. b. aiding in protein formation. c. acting as an “identification tag” for the cell. d. aiding in carbohydrate formation. ANS: C OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Plasma membrane
REF: p. 41
5. The organelles that are the “protein factories” for the cell are the: a. ribosomes. b. mitochondria. c. Golgi apparatus. d. centrioles. ANS: A OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of organelles
6. The organelles that are the “power plants” of the cell are the: a. ribosomes. b. mitochondria. c. Golgi apparatus. d. centrioles.
REF: p. 42
ANS: B OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of organelles
REF: p. 42
7. The organelles that are the “digestive bags” of the cell are the: a. flagella. b. endoplasmic reticulum. c. Golgi apparatus. d. lysosomes. ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of organelles
REF: p. 42
8. The organelles that consist of a network of canals that wind through the cytoplasm are the: a. endoplasmic reticulum. b. flagella. c. Golgi apparatus. d. lysosomes. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of organelles
REF: p. 42
9. The organelles that are flattened sacs that chemically process molecules are the: a. endoplasmic reticulum. b. flagella. c. Golgi apparatus. d. lysosome. ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of organelles
REF: p. 42
10. The organelles that are rod-shaped structures made of fine tubes and are important in cell division are the: a. ribosomes. b. mitochondria. c. Golgi apparatus. d. centrioles. ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of organelles
REF: p. 42
11. The structure in the cell that controls most of the activities of the cell is the: a. cilia. b. nucleus. c. nucleolus. d. ribosome. ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of organelles
REF: p. 42
12. Small, hairlike structures on the exposed side of some cells are called the: a. cilia.
b. nucleus. c. nucleolus. d. endoplasmic reticulum. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cell extensions
REF: p. 45
13. The structure in the cell that programs the formation of ribosomes is the: a. cilia. b. nucleus. c. nucleolus. d. endoplasmic reticulum. ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of organelles
REF: p. 45
14. The long, taillike structure that propels sperm cells is the: a. endoplasmic reticulum. b. cilia. c. Golgi apparatus. d. flagellum. ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cell extensions
REF: p. 45
15. Which of the following transport processes does not require cell energy? a. Osmosis b. Dialysis c. Pinocytosis d. Both osmosis and dialysis ANS: D OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 46 TOP: Movement of substances through cell membranes
16. Which of the following transport processes requires cell energy? a. Osmosis b. Dialysis c. Pinocytosis d. Both osmosis and dialysis ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 46 TOP: Movement of substances through cell membranes
17. The diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane is a process called: a. osmosis. b. dialysis. c. filtration. d. pinocytosis. ANS: A OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 46 TOP: Movement of substances through cell membranes
18. The diffusion of solutes through a selectively permeable membrane is a process called: a. osmosis. b. dialysis. c. filtration. d. pinocytosis. ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 48 TOP: Movement of substances through cell membranes
19. The process used by the cell membrane to actively take in fluids and dissolved substances is: a. osmosis. b. dialysis. c. filtration. d. pinocytosis. ANS: D OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 51 TOP: Movement of substances through cell membranes
20. The process that uses hydrostatic pressure to move water and solutes through a membrane is: a. osmosis. b. dialysis. c. filtration. d. pinocytosis. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 49 TOP: Movement of substances through cell membranes
21. The process that actively traps solids in the cell membrane and brings them into the cell is: a. pinocytosis. b. phagocytosis. c. ion pumps. d. diffusion. ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 51 TOP: Movement of substances through cell membranes
22. If a blood cell is placed in an isotonic solution: a. water will enter the cell. b. water will leave the cell. c. it will crenate. d. there will be no net movement of water. ANS: D OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 48 TOP: Clinical Application: Osmotic Balance
23. If a blood cell is placed in a hypotonic solution: a. water will enter the cell. b. water will leave the cell. c. it will crenate.
d. water will enter and leave the cell. ANS: A OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 48 TOP: Clinical Application: Osmotic Balance
24. If a blood cell is placed in a hypertonic solution: a. water will enter the cell. b. water will leave the cell. c. it will crenate. d. water will leave the cell and the cell will crenate. ANS: D OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 48 TOP: Clinical Application: Osmotic Balance
25. Because of complementary base pairing, if one side of a DNA molecule was ATCCGTAATC, the other side of the molecule would be: a. ATCCGCTAATC. b. AUCCGCUAATC. c. UAGGCGAUUAG. d. TAGGCATTAG. ANS: D DIF: Creating TOP: Cell growth and reproduction
REF: p. 51 | p. 52
OBJ: 4
26. Protein synthesis consists of the process of: a. mitosis. b. translation. c. transcription. d. both translation and transcription. ANS: D OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Protein synthesis
REF: p. 53
27. Chromosomes align themselves in the center of the cell during: a. interphase. b. prophase. c. metaphase. d. telophase. ANS: C OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Mitosis
REF: p. 55
28. Chromosomes form chromatin and the nuclear envelope reforms during: a. interphase. b. prophase. c. metaphase. d. telophase. ANS: D OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Mitosis
29. The DNA replicates itself during:
REF: p. 55
a. b. c. d.
interphase. prophase. anaphase. telophase.
ANS: A OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: DNA replication
REF: p. 54 | p. 55
30. Chromosomes are pulled by spindle fibers to opposite sides of the cell during: a. interphase. b. prophase. c. anaphase. d. telophase. ANS: C OBJ: 5
DIF: Memorization TOP: Mitosis
REF: p. 55
31. Chromatin becomes organized into chromosomes during: a. interphase. b. prophase. c. anaphase. d. telophase. ANS: B OBJ: 5
DIF: Memorization TOP: Mitosis
REF: p. 55
32. The following is not one of the main parts of a cell: a. plasma membrane. b. interstitial fluid. c. cytoplasm. d. nucleus. ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Parts of the cell
REF: p. 41
33. Which of the following is not a function of the cell membrane? a. Acting as the outer boundary for the cell b. Acting as the gateway for the cell c. Acting as a receptor site for hormones of the body d. Produce energy ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Plasma membrane
REF: p. 41
34. Ribosomes are: a. composed mostly of a type of nucleic acid. b. sometimes attached to mitochondria forming “rough” mitochondria. c. important sites for energy release. d. sometimes attached to Golgi apparatus forming “rough” Golgi apparatus. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Ribosomes
REF: p. 42 | p. 43
35. Which of the following is not a function of the endoplasmic reticulum? a. Receive proteins after they have been made by the ribosome. b. Produce new cell membrane for the cell. c. Digest microbes that may have entered the cell. d. Provide a route of transport from one part of the cell to another. ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Endoplasmic reticulum
REF: p. 43
36. Which of the following is not true of mitochondria? a. Make protein for the cell. b. Are the site of cellular respiration. c. Are composed of two membranous sacs, one inside the other. d. Contain DNA. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Mitochondria
REF: p. 44
37. The main difference between active and passive transport is: a. the amount of material moved. b. the direction in which the material is moved. c. whether cell energy is required. d. the type of cell involved. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 46 TOP: Movement of substances through cell membranes
38. If a 5% glucose solution were separated from a 10% glucose solution by a membrane that was permeable to both water and glucose: a. glucose would move from the 5% solution to the 10% solution. b. water would move from the 5% solution to the 10% solution. c. the movement of glucose between the two solutions would be equal. d. water would move from the 10% solution to the 5% solution. ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Diffusion
REF: p. 47
39. DNA differs from RNA in that: a. DNA is double stranded. b. DNA contains the base uracil. c. DNA contains the base adenine. d. DNA contains the base cytosine. ANS: A OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: RNA
REF: p. 51 | p. 52
40. The female sex cell (ovum) is about how much larger than a red blood cell? a. About 20 times larger b. About 10 times larger c. About 5 times larger
d. About twice as large ANS: A OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of cells
REF: p. 39
41. Another term for tissue fluid is: a. plasma. b. cytoplasm. c. interstitial fluid. d. blood. ANS: C OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of cells
REF: p. 40
42. Which organelle contains nucleic acids? a. Ribosomes b. Golgi apparatus c. Mitochondria d. Both ribosomes and mitochondria ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of organelles
REF: p. 42 | p. 44
43. Which organelle is not found on the outer surface of the cell membrane? a. Centriole b. Flagellum c. Cilia d. Microvilli ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of organelles
REF: p. 44
44. Which of the following is not true of ion pumps? a. Found in the plasma membrane. b. Moves material down a concentration gradient. c. Is made of protein. d. Is an active transport process. ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Active transport processes
REF: p. 49 | p. 50
45. The process of DNA replication occurs during which phase of mitosis? a. Prophase b. Metaphase c. Anaphase d. Interphase ANS: D OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: DNA replication
REF: p. 54 | p. 55
46. Because of complementary base pairing, if one side of a DNA molecule was ATCCGTAATC, the messenger RNA strand would be:
a. b. c. d.
ATCCGCTAATC. AUCCGCUAATC. UAGGCGAUUAG. TAGGCATTAG.
ANS: C DIF: Creating REF: p. 52 | p. 53 TOP: RNA molecules and protein synthesis
OBJ: 4
47. The largest cell in the body is: a. a blood cell. b. a brain cell. c. a skin cell. d. an ovum. ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of cells
REF: p. 39
48. In a cell, the fluid within the cell membrane is called ______________ and the fluid outside the cell membrane is called: __________________. a. cytoplasm; interstitial fluid b. interstitial fluid; tissue fluid c. tissue fluid; interstitial fluid d. interstitial fluid; cytoplasm ANS: A OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of cells
REF: p. 40
49. Which of the following is not part of the cytoskeleton of the cell? a. Microtubules b. Endoplasmic reticulum c. Microfilaments d. Molecular motors ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cytoplasm
REF: p. 42
50. Small, fingerlike projections of the plasma membrane that increase the surface area of the cell and make absorption more efficient are called: a. cilia. b. ion pumps. c. microvilli. d. flagella. ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cell extensions
51. Which of the following is not true of the process of transcription? a. It occurs at the ribosome. b. It occurs in the nucleus. c. It forms a messenger RNA molecule. d. It occurs at the ribosomes and forms a messenger RNA.
REF: p. 45
ANS: A OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Transcription
REF: p. 53
52. The function of transfer RNA is to: a. bring the ribosome to the endoplasmic reticulum. b. bring the messenger RNA to the ribosome. c. bring the RNA to the DNA for transcription. d. bring amino acids to the ribosome. ANS: D OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Translation
REF: p. 53
MATCHING Match each of the cell structures with its function or description. a. Plasma membrane b. Cytoplasm c. Ribosome d. Mitochondria e. Endoplasmic reticulum f. Golgi apparatus g. Lysosome h. Centriole i. Cilia j. Flagella k. Nucleus l. Nucleolus m. Chromatin 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13.
Short, hairlike structures on the free side of some cells Fluid in the cell between the nucleus and the plasma membrane Made of rodlike structures and are important in cell division “Protein factories” for the cell A set of membranes that form canals that wind through the cytoplasm “Digestive bags” of the cell Long “tail” that propels sperm cells Made up of phospholipids, cholesterol, and protein molecules Made of DNA in the nucleus “Brain” of the cell; controls all the cell’s functions “Power plant” of the cell Important in the formation of ribosomes Flattened sacs that process chemicals
1. ANS: OBJ: 2. ANS: OBJ: 3. ANS:
I 2 B 2 H
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF:
Remembering Overview of organelles Remembering Cytoplasm Remembering
REF: p. 45 REF: p. 41 REF: p. 44
4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13.
OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ:
2 C 2 E 2 G 2 J 2 A 2 M 2 K 2 D 2 L 2 F 2
TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Overview of organelles Remembering Overview of organelles Remembering Overview of organelles Remembering Overview of organelles Remembering Cell extensions Remembering Plasma membrane Remembering Chromatin and chromosomes Remembering Overview of organelles Remembering Overview of organelles Remembering Overview of organelles Remembering Overview of organelles
REF: p. 42 REF: p. 43 REF: p. 44 REF: p. 45 REF: p. 41 REF: p. 45 REF: p. 44 REF: p. 44 REF: p. 45 REF: p. 43
Match the phase of mitosis with an event in that phase. a. Interphase b. Prophase c. Metaphase d. Anaphase e. Telophase 14. 15. 16. 17. 18.
Chromosomes align in the center of the cell. DNA replicates. Nuclear envelope reforms around the chromosomes. Chromatin condenses into chromosomes. Chromosomes are pulled away from the center of the cell.
14. ANS: OBJ: 15. ANS: OBJ: 16. ANS: OBJ: 17. ANS: OBJ: 18. ANS: OBJ: TRUE/FALSE
C 5 A 5 E 5 B 5 D 5
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering Mitosis Remembering Mitosis Remembering Mitosis Remembering Mitosis Remembering Mitosis
REF: p. 55 REF: p. 55 REF: p. 55 REF: p. 55 REF: p. 55
1. The main structural unit of the plasma membrane is the protein molecule. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Plasma membrane
REF: p. 41
2. Phospholipids and cholesterol are two lipid molecules found in the plasma membrane. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Plasma membrane
REF: p. 41
3. Carbohydrate chains in the plasma membrane are used as identification tags for the cell. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Plasma membrane
REF: p. 41
4. The nonliving material between the cell nucleus and plasma membrane is called the cytoplasm. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Parts of the cell
REF: p. 41
5. The ribosomes are the “power plants” of the cells. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of organelles
REF: p. 42
6. Cilia are hairlike structures on the free or exposed sides of some cells. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of organelles
REF: p. 42
7. Endoplasmic reticulum is the “digestive bag” of the cell. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of organelles
REF: p. 42
8. The mitochondria is considered the “power plant” of the cell. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of organelles
REF: p. 42
9. Centrioles assist in cell division. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of organelles
10. The Golgi apparatus is called the “protein factory.”
REF: p. 42
ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of organelles
REF: p. 42
11. The nucleolus is the “brain” of the cell; it directs all cell activity. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of organelles
REF: p. 42
12. The flagellum is the “tail” of the sperm cell and acts to propel it. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cell extensions
REF: p. 42
13. Ribosomes are the “protein factories” of the cells. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of organelles
REF: p. 42
14. The things that make rough endoplasmic reticulum rough are ribosomes. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of organelles
REF: p. 42
15. The nucleolus plays an important role in the formation of ribosomes. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of organelles
REF: p. 45
16. Chromosomes and chromatin are both made of DNA. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Chromatin and chromosomes
REF: p. 45
17. Filtration is an example of a passive transport process. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 46 TOP: Movement of substances through cell membranes
18. The diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane is called dialysis. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 48 TOP: Movement of substances through cell membranes
19. Filtration uses hydrostatic pressure to move material through a membrane. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 49 TOP: Movement of substances through cell membranes
20. Osmosis and dialysis are special cases of diffusion.
ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 48 TOP: Movement of substances through cell membranes
21. Ion pumps are examples of active transport processes. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Active transport processes
REF: p. 49
22. Pinocytosis is a process by which the cell membrane takes in solid particles. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 51 TOP: Movement of substances through cell membranes
23. Phagocytosis is a process by which the cell membrane takes in fluid and dissolved substances. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 51 TOP: Movement of substances through cell membranes
24. A cell put in an isotonic solution would crenate. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 48 TOP: Clinical Application: Osmotic Balance
25. A cell put in a hypotonic solution would lyse. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 48 TOP: Clinical Application: Osmotic Balance
26. A cell put in a hypertonic solution would take in water. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 48 TOP: Clinical Application: Osmotic Balance
27. A cell put in a hypertonic solution would crenate. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 48 TOP: Clinical Application: Osmotic Balance
28. In DNA, adenine is always paired with thymine. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cell growth and reproduction
REF: p. 52
29. Only DNA contains the base uracil. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cell growth and reproduction
REF: p. 52
30. In DNA, cytosine is always paired with uracil. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cell growth and reproduction
REF: p. 52
31. A specific segment of base pairs in a chromosome is called a gene. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cell growth and reproduction
REF: p. 52
32. mRNA is formed during translation. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Protein synthesis
REF: p. 53
33. The sequencing of the amino acids occurs during translation. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Protein synthesis
REF: p. 53
34. The collective DNA in each cell of the body is called the genome. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 52 TOP: Research, issues, and trends: Human Genome
35. During anaphase, the DNA replicates. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Mitosis
REF: p. 55
36. During metaphase, chromosomes align in the center of the cell. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Mitosis
REF: p. 55
37. A cell in interphase is not in active cell division. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Mitosis
REF: p. 55
38. During prophase, chromatin becomes chromosomes. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Mitosis
REF: p. 54
39. During anaphase, the chromosomes move away from the center of the cell. ANS: T
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 55
OBJ: 5
TOP: Mitosis
40. During telophase, spindle fibers attach to each chromatid. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Mitosis
REF: p. 55
41. Organelles are located in the liquid part of the cell called the interstitial fluid. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of cells
REF: p. 40
42. All ion pumps are specific and can only move one type of molecule. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Ion pumps
REF: p. 49 | p. 50
43. The human body consists of about 25 billion cells. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 39
44. Robert Hooke named the small structures he saw “cells” because they reminded him of small monastery rooms. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 39
45. Cells are the smallest structural units of living things. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 39
46. Ribosomes can be found attached to mitochondria or floating freely in the cytoplasm. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Ribosomes
REF: p. 43
47. Ribosomes contain ribose sugar. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Ribosomes
REF: p. 42
48. Mucus is an example of a Golgi apparatus product. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Golgi apparatus
49. The mitochondria release energy to recharge ATP molecules.
REF: p. 44
ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Mitochondria
REF: p. 44
50. Lysosomes not only digest microbes but also are involved in the process of “cell suicide” called apoptosis. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lysosomes
REF: p. 44
51. Lysosomes are baglike structures that contain digestive enzymes. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lysosomes
REF: p. 44
52. Only about half the population has cells with flagella. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Flagella
REF: p. 45
53. Chromatin contains both protein and DNA. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Chromatin and chromosomes
REF: p. 45
54. Chromatin forms during prophase of cell division. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Chromatin and chromosomes
REF: p. 45
55. The nucleus is the only organelle in the cell that contains DNA. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Mitochondria
REF: p. 44
56. The process by which substances scatter themselves evenly throughout an available space is called diffusion. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Diffusion
REF: p. 46
57. After the process of diffusion establishes equilibrium, no further movement of molecules occurs. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Diffusion
REF: p. 46 | p. 47
58. The process responsible for urine formation in the kidney is called dialysis.
ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Filtration
REF: p. 49
59. Ion pumps are specialized protein structures in the cell membrane. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Ion pumps
REF: p. 49 | p. 50
60. In the DNA molecule, the fact that adenine always pairs with thymine is an example of complementary base pairing. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cell growth and reproduction
REF: p. 52
61. Transcription occurs at the ribosome. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Transcription
REF: p. 53
62. Translation occurs at the ribosome. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Translation
REF: p. 53
63. Cells of the human body have a variety of shapes, but they are all about the same size. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of cells
REF: p. 39
64. The dilute fluid that surrounds the outside of the cell is called cytoplasm. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of cells
REF: p. 41
65. Like chromosomes, ribosomes are made up mostly of nucleic acids. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of organelles
REF: p. 42
66. The function of the endoplasmic reticulum depends on whether it is smooth or rough. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Endoplasmic reticulum
REF: p. 43
67. In passive transport, material will always move down a concentration or hydrostatic gradient. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Passive transport processes
REF: p. 46 | p. 47
68. Ion pumps require ATP to function. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Active transport processes
REF: p. 49 | p. 50
69. If a molecule contains uracil, it must be RNA. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: RNA
REF: p. 52
70. Transfer RNA molecules carry the newly made messenger RNA to the ribosome to begin protein synthesis. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Translation
REF: p. 53
71. Thin, threadlike filaments called microfilaments are part of the cytoskeleton. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cytoskeleton
REF: p. 42
72. Cilia are small, fingerlike projections on the cell membrane that increase surface area and assist in absorption. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cell extensions
REF: p. 45
73. If one side of a DNA molecule has a base sequence of TCA, the other side of the molecule would have a sequence of AGT. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: DNA
REF: p. 51
74. If one side of a DNA molecule has a base sequence of TCA, the messenger RNA formed from that sequence would be UGT. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: DNA | RNA
REF: p. 51 | p. 52
75. Mitosis results in two new identical cells. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Results of cell division
REF: p. 55
76. During periods of body growth, mitosis allows groups of cells to differentiate and become neoplasms. ANS: F
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 56
OBJ: 5
TOP: Results of cell division
77. A neoplasm is the result of the body’s loss of control of the process of mitosis. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Results of cell division
REF: p. 56
78. A neoplasm that is relatively harmless is called malignant. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Results of cell division
REF: p. 56
Chapter 04: Tissues Patton: Structure & Function of the Body, 17th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Stratified squamous tissue is an example of: a. epithelial tissue. b. connective tissue. c. muscle tissue. d. nervous tissue. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Epithelial tissue
REF: p. 67
2. Smooth, striated, and cardiac are examples of: a. epithelial tissue. b. connective tissue. c. muscle tissue. d. nervous tissue. ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Muscle tissue
REF: p. 75
3. The tissue connected and supported by glia cells is: a. epithelial tissue. b. connective tissue. c. muscle tissue. d. nervous tissue. ANS: D OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nervous tissue
REF: p. 77
4. Adipose and areolar tissues are examples of: a. epithelial tissue. b. connective tissue. c. muscle tissue. d. nervous tissue. ANS: B
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 72
OBJ: 3
TOP: Connective tissue
5. The ideal body-fat percentage is considered to be: a. 8% to 12% for men and 12% to 15% for women. b. 12% to 18% for men and 25% to 30% for women. c. 12% to 18% for men and 18% to 24% for women. d. 18% to 24% for both men and women. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 75 TOP: Health and Well-Being: Tissues and Fitness
6. What type of tissue is simple columnar tissue? a. Epithelial tissue b. Connective tissue c. Muscle tissue d. Nervous tissue ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Epithelial tissue
REF: p. 67
7. What type of tissue are glia cells? a. Epithelial tissue b. Connective tissue c. Muscle tissue d. Nervous tissue ANS: D OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nervous tissue
REF: p. 77
8. What type of tissue is cardiac tissue? a. Epithelial tissue b. Connective tissue c. Muscle tissue d. Nervous tissue ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Muscle tissue
REF: p. 76
9. What type of tissue is bone tissue? a. Epithelial tissue b. Connective tissue c. Muscle tissue d. Nervous tissue ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Connective tissue
10. What type of tissue is blood? a. Epithelial tissue b. Connective tissue c. Muscle tissue
REF: p. 72
d. Nervous tissue ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Connective tissue
REF: p. 72
11. What type of tissue is simple squamous tissue? a. Epithelial tissue b. Connective tissue c. Muscle tissue d. Nervous tissue ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Epithelial tissue
REF: p. 67
12. What type of tissue are neurons? a. Epithelial tissue b. Connective tissue c. Muscle tissue d. Nervous tissue ANS: D OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nervous tissue
REF: p. 77
13. What type of tissue is hematopoietic tissue? a. Epithelial tissue b. Connective tissue c. Muscle tissue d. Nervous tissue ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Connective tissue
REF: p. 72
14. What type of tissue is pseudostratified tissue? a. Epithelial tissue b. Connective tissue c. Muscle tissue d. Nervous tissue ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Epithelial tissue
REF: p. 67
15. What is the most abundant and widely distributed tissue in the body? a. Epithelial tissue b. Connective tissue c. Muscle tissue d. Nervous tissue ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Connective tissue
16. Which tissue covers and lines many parts of the body? a. Epithelial tissue
REF: p. 71
b. Connective tissue c. Muscle tissue d. Nervous tissue ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Epithelial tissue
REF: p. 66
17. Axons and dendrites usually are found in cells of which tissue? a. Epithelial tissue b. Connective tissue c. Muscle tissue d. Nervous tissue ANS: D OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nervous tissue
REF: p. 77
18. Which tissue specializes in movement of the body? a. Epithelial tissue b. Connective tissue c. Muscle tissue d. Nervous tissue ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Muscle tissue
REF: p. 75
19. Which tissue forms a continuous sheet of cells with no blood vessels? a. Epithelial tissue b. Connective tissue c. Muscle tissue d. Nervous tissue ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Epithelial tissue
REF: p. 66
20. Cells of which tissue have the ability to shorten? a. Epithelial tissue b. Connective tissue c. Muscle tissue d. Nervous tissue ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Muscle tissue
REF: p. 75
21. Which tissue contains few cells found in extracellular material called matrix? a. Epithelial tissue b. Connective tissue c. Muscle tissue d. Nervous tissue ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Connective tissue
REF: p. 71
22. Which tissue is subdivided according to the shape and the arrangement of cells? a. Epithelial tissue b. Connective tissue c. Muscle tissue d. Nervous tissue ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Tissues
REF: p. 67
23. Which tissue allows rapid communication between body structures? a. Epithelial tissue b. Connective tissue c. Muscle tissue d. Nervous tissue ANS: D OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nervous tissue
REF: p. 77
24. Glands are usually made up of which tissue? a. Epithelial tissue b. Connective tissue c. Muscle tissue d. Nervous tissue ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Epithelial tissue
REF: p. 67
25. The fluid material found between the cells is called: a. ground substance. b. matrix. c. cytoplasm. d. fiber. ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Matrix
REF: p. 66
26. Which of these fibers found in the matrix gives the tissues the ability to stretch and rebound easily? a. Collagen b. Proteoglycans c. Reticular d. Elastin ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Matrix
REF: p. 66
27. Proteoglycans are commonly found in a tissue’s matrix. Which of the following describes its function(s)? a. Linking among cells b. Absorbing shock c. Regulation of tissue function
d. Lubrication e. Linking cells, absorbing shock, regulation of tissue function and lubrication. ANS: E OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Matrix
REF: p. 66
MATCHING Match the following tissues with the definition or description. a. Simple squamous epithelium b. Cartilage c. Areolar tissue d. Skeletal muscle e. Pseudostratified epithelial f. Neurons g. Hematopoietic tissue h. Simple columnar epithelium i. Smooth muscle j. Bone tissue k. Adipose tissue l. Cuboidal epithelial m. Glia cells n. Cardiac muscle 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.
Tissue that is also called voluntary muscle tissue Epithelial cells that are taller than they are wide; contain goblet cells Tissue with structural building blocks called osteons Epithelial tissue made up of a single layer of thin, irregularly shaped cells Tissue that is also called involuntary muscle Connecting and supporting cells of the nervous system Tissue made up of cells called chondrocytes Epithelial tissue that forms tubules or glands Tissue that is also called loose connective tissue Cells that are the conducting units of the nervous system Muscle tissue that makes up the walls of the heart Epithelial tissue that appears to be two cell layers thick but is really only one layer Tissue found in red bone cavities and makes blood cells Fat tissue that stores lipids
1. ANS: OBJ: 2. ANS: OBJ: 3. ANS: OBJ: 4. ANS: OBJ: 5. ANS:
D 4 H 2 J 3 A 2 I
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF:
Remembering Muscle tissue Remembering Epithelial tissue Remembering Connective tissue Remembering Epithelial tissue Remembering
REF: p. 75 REF: p. 68 REF: p. 74 REF: p. 67 REF: p. 76
6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.
OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ:
4 M 5 B 3 L 2 C 3 F 5 N 4 E 2 G 3 K 3
TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Muscle tissue Remembering Nervous tissue Remembering Connective tissue Remembering Epithelial tissue Remembering Connective tissue Remembering Nervous tissue Remembering Muscle tissue Remembering Epithelial tissue Remembering Connective tissue Remembering Connective tissue
REF: p. 77 REF: p. 74 REF: p. 67 REF: p. 72 REF: p. 77 REF: p. 76 REF: p. 71 REF: p. 74 REF: p. 73
TRUE/FALSE 1. A flat, scale like epithelial cell would be called squamous. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Epithelial tissue
REF: p. 76
2. Stratified squamous epithelial tissue is composed of a single layer of flat, scalelike cells. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Epithelial tissue
REF: p. 68
3. Glia cells are an example of connective tissue. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Connective tissue
REF: p. 77
4. Smooth, striated, and cardiac are examples of muscle tissues. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Muscle tissue
REF: p. 75
5. An important part of muscle tissue is the matrix found in between cells. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Muscle tissue
6. Both neurons and glia cells make up nervous tissue.
REF: p. 75
ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nervous tissue
REF: p. 77
7. Areolar, blood, bone, and cartilage are all examples of connective tissue. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Connective tissue
REF: p. 72
8. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium is two cell layers thick. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Epithelial tissue
REF: p. 71
9. Pseudostratified columnar epithelial tissue looks to be two cell layers thick but is actually only one cell layer thick. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Epithelial tissue
REF: p. 71
10. The most abundant tissue in the body is muscle tissue. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Connective tissue
REF: p. 71
11. The building block of bone tissue is called an osteon. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Connective tissue
REF: p. 74
12. Hematopoietic tissue is a connective tissue responsible for blood cell formation. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Connective tissue
REF: p. 74
13. A nerve cell usually has more axons extending from the cell body than dendrites. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nervous tissue
REF: p. 77
14. To emphasize its location between cells, matrix is also called intracellular matrix. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Matrix
Chapter 05: Organ Systems Patton: Structure & Function of the Body, 17th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE
REF: p. 66
1. A system is best defined as: a. a group of different types of cells working together to perform a function. b. a group of different tissues working together to perform a function. c. a group of organs working together to perform a function. d. a group of the same cells working together to perform a function. ANS: C OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 83
2. The integumentary system of the body includes: a. the skin. b. hair. c. specialized sense organs. d. skin, hair, and specialized sense organs. ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Integumentary system
REF: p. 83
3. The primary function of the integumentary system is: a. as a sense receptor. b. protection of underlying structures. c. body temperature regulation. d. manufacture of vitamin D. ANS: B OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Integumentary system
REF: p. 83
4. The accessory structures of the skin include all of the following except: a. teeth. b. hair. c. nails. d. sweat glands. ANS: A OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Integumentary system
REF: p. 83
5. The skeletal system includes all of the following except: a. bones. b. cartilage. c. tendons. d. ligaments. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Skeletal system
6. The skeletal system contains about: a. 157 bones. b. 326 bones. c. 411 bones. d. 206 bones.
REF: p. 84
ANS: D OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Skeletal system
REF: p. 84
7. The skeletal system does not: a. provide a rigid framework of support. b. produce blood cells. c. produce vitamin D. d. serve as a storage place for minerals. ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Skeletal system
REF: p. 84
8. The muscle that makes up the heart is: a. cardiac muscle. b. voluntary muscle. c. involuntary muscle. d. smooth muscle. ANS: A OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Muscular system
REF: p. 85
9. Voluntary movement occurs when: a. cardiac muscle contracts. b. smooth muscle contracts. c. skeletal muscle contracts. d. skeletal muscle relaxes. ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Muscular system
REF: p. 85
10. The muscular system functions to: a. provide movement. b. maintain body posture. c. generate heat. d. provide movement, maintain body posture and generate heat. ANS: D OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Muscular system
REF: p. 85
11. The organs of the nervous system include all of the following except: a. the brain. b. nerves. c. the spinal cord. d. neurons. ANS: D OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nervous system
REF: p. 85
12. The functions of the nervous system include all of the following except: a. regulation of the immune response. b. integration of body function.
c. control of body functions. d. regulation of environmental conditions. ANS: A OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nervous system
REF: p. 86
13. The nervous system performs the same general function as the: a. endocrine system. b. immune system. c. muscular system. d. lymphatic system. ANS: A OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 86 TOP: Endocrine system | Nervous system
14. The glands in the endocrine system are sometimes called: a. exocrine glands. b. digestive glands. c. ductless glands. d. hormones. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Endocrine system
REF: p. 86
15. The endocrine gland not located in the skull is the: a. pineal gland. b. thymus gland. c. pituitary gland. d. hypothalamus. ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Endocrine system
REF: p. 86
16. The endocrine gland not located in the neck is the: a. thyroid gland. b. thymus gland. c. parathyroid gland. d. adrenal gland. ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Endocrine system
REF: p. 86
17. The endocrine gland not located in the abdomen is: a. the adrenal gland. b. the pancreas. c. the ovaries. d. the adrenal gland, pancreas, and ovaries. ANS: D OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Endocrine system
18. The primary function of the cardiovascular system is:
REF: p. 86
a. b. c. d.
body temperature regulation. transportation of materials. regulation of the immune system. regulation of muscle contraction.
ANS: B OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cardiovascular system
REF: p. 86
19. The lymphatic system includes: a. the heart. b. arteries. c. lymph nodes. d. veins. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lymphatic system
REF: p. 87
20. The organ that is not part of the lymphatic system is the: a. liver. b. spleen. c. thymus. d. tonsils. ANS: A OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lymphatic system
REF: p. 87
21. Lymph returns to the blood by way of the: a. aorta. b. thoracic duct. c. superior vena cava. d. inferior vena cava. ANS: B OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lymphatic system
REF: p. 87
22. The lymphatic system is not involved in: a. movement of fat-related materials from the digestive system to the blood. b. the functioning of the immune system. c. movement of liquid waste to the kidney. d. movement of certain large molecules from tissue spaces around the cells. ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lymphatic system
REF: p. 87 | p. 88
23. A structure that is not included in the respiratory system is the: a. nose. b. esophagus. c. trachea. d. lungs. ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Respiratory system
REF: p. 88
24. The tiny, thin-walled sacs in the lungs are called: a. bronchi. b. villi. c. pharynx. d. alveoli. ANS: D OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Respiratory system
REF: p. 88
25. The respiratory system does not assist in: a. the regulation of acid-base balance. b. the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide. c. moving food to the esophagus. d. humidifying incoming air. ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Respiratory system
REF: p. 88
26. An organ that is part of the gastrointestinal tract is the: a. stomach. b. liver. c. pancreas. d. gallbladder. ANS: A OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Digestive system
REF: p. 89
27. An accessory organ of the digestive system is the: a. stomach. b. small intestine. c. salivary gland. d. large intestine. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Digestive system
REF: p. 89
28. Urine is carried from the kidney to the bladder by the: a. ureter. b. urethra. c. bronchiole. d. vas deferens. ANS: A OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Urinary system
29. The urinary system does not: a. clean the blood of metabolic waste products. b. clean the blood of digestive waste products. c. maintain acid-base balance. d. maintain electrolyte balance.
REF: p. 89
ANS: B OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Urinary system
REF: p. 89
30. The structure that is part of both the reproductive and urinary systems is the: a. ureter. b. bladder. c. urethra. d. prostate gland. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 89 | p. 90 TOP: Urinary system | Reproductive systems
31. The gonads of the male reproductive system include the: a. penis. b. testes. c. prostate gland. d. scrotum. ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Male reproductive system
REF: p. 90
32. An accessory organ of the male reproductive system is the: a. penis. b. testes. c. vas deferens. d. scrotum. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Male reproductive system
REF: p. 90
33. The structure in the male reproductive system that produces fluid and nutrients is the: a. prostate gland. b. penis. c. testes. d. scrotum. ANS: A OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Male reproductive system
REF: p. 90
34. The gonads for the female reproductive system include the: a. uterus. b. fallopian tubes. c. ovaries. d. vagina. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Female reproductive system
REF: p. 90
35. The structure that is not an accessory organ of the female reproductive system is: a. ovaries. b. fallopian tubes.
c. mammary glands. d. uterus. ANS: A OBJ: 3
DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
REF: p. 90
36. Some immune system cells are able to attack, engulf, and destroy harmful bacteria directly by: a. pinocytosis. b. secretion. c. phagocytosis. d. implantation. ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Immune system
REF: p. 88
37. Which of these substances produce chemical reactions that help protect the body from many harmful agents? a. Antibodies b. Antigens c. Complements d. Both antibodies and complement cells ANS: D OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Immune system
REF: p. 88
38. The weight of the skin in most adults is about: a. 5 pounds b. 10 pounds c. 20 pounds d. 40 pounds ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Integumentary system
REF: p. 83
39. The heaviest organ in the body is the: a. liver. b. skin. c. large intestine. d. heart. ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Integumentary system
REF: p. 83
40. Which of the following is not a part of the cardiovascular system? a. Heart b. Blood vessels c. Lymph vessels d. Veins ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cardiovascular system
REF: p. 86
41. Urine flows through the organs of the urinary system in the following sequence: a. ureter, kidney, bladder, urethra. b. kidney, bladder, ureter, urethra. c. kidney, urethra, bladder, ureter. d. kidney, ureter, bladder, urethra. ANS: D OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Urinary system
REF: p. 89
42. The nervous and endocrine systems are sometimes thought of as one large regulatory system (neuroendocrine system) because: a. they perform the same general functions. b. both systems are in close proximity of each other. c. cells in each system are similar. d. they contain the same structures. ANS: A OBJ: 4
DIF: Understanding TOP: Endocrine system
REF: p. 86
43. Which of the following does not occur when smooth muscle contracts? a. Walls of blood vessels help maintain blood pressure. b. Food moves through the digestive tract. c. Bones of the skeletal system move. d. Urine passes through the ureter. ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Muscle system
REF: p. 85
44. The main function of the respiratory system, the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide, occurs where? a. Pharynx b. Trachea c. Bronchi d. Alveoli ANS: D OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Respiratory system
REF: p. 88
45. Which of the following glands is not part of the endocrine system? a. Salivary gland b. Pituitary gland c. Thyroid gland d. Hypothalamus ANS: A OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Endocrine system
46. An organ: a. is composed of two or more kinds of tissues. b. is grouped into systems.
REF: p. 86
c. can perform more complex functions than individual types of tissues. d. is composed of two or more kinds of tissues, grouped into systems, and performs more complex functions than individual types of tissues. ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 83
MATCHING Match each system to an important function of the system. a. Integumentary system b. Skeletal system c. Muscular system d. Nervous system e. Endocrine system f. Cardiovascular system g. Female reproductive system h. Respiratory system i. Digestive system j. Urinary system k. Male reproductive system 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11.
Absorbs nutrients. Allows the body to move. Protects underlying structures. Produces sperm. Recognizes sensory stimuli. Transports materials to various parts of the body. Makes blood cells and stores minerals. Regulates body function by the release of hormones. Cleans the blood of metabolic waste. Produces ova. Exchanges oxygen and carbon dioxide.
1. ANS: OBJ: 2. ANS: OBJ: 3. ANS: OBJ: 4. ANS: OBJ: 5. ANS: OBJ: 6. ANS: OBJ: 7. ANS: OBJ:
I 4 C 4 A 4 K 4 D 4 F 4 B 4
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering Digestive system Remembering Muscular system Remembering Integumentary system Remembering Male reproductive system Remembering Nervous system Remembering Cardiovascular system Remembering Skeletal system
REF: p. 83 REF: p. 84 REF: p. 83 REF: p. 90 REF: p. 85 REF: p. 86 REF: p. 84
8. ANS: OBJ: 9. ANS: OBJ: 10. ANS: OBJ: 11. ANS: OBJ:
E 4 J 4 G 4 H 4
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering Endocrine system Remembering Urinary system Remembering Female reproductive system Remembering Respiratory system
REF: p. 86 REF: p. 89 REF: p. 90 REF: p. 88
TRUE/FALSE 1. An organ is a group of different types of cells that function together to perform a specific function. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 83
2. A system is a group of organs arranged in such a way that they can perform a more complex function. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 83
3. The skin is the most important organ of the integumentary system. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Integumentary system
REF: p. 83
4. Hair, nails, and teeth are called accessory structures of the skin. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Integumentary system
REF: p. 83
5. The main function of the skin is to act as a sense organ for the body. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Integumentary system
REF: p. 83
6. The main function of the skin is to assist in control of body temperature. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Integumentary system
REF: p. 83
7. The main function of the skin is protection of the underlying organs. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Integumentary system
REF: p. 83
8. Bones are the main organs of the skeletal system. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Skeletal system
REF: p. 84
9. There are over 300 bones in the human body. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Skeletal system
REF: p. 84
10. There are about 206 bones in the human body. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Skeletal system
REF: p. 84
11. Bones, ligaments, tendons, and cartilage are also included in the skeletal system. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Skeletal system
REF: p. 84
12. The skeletal system assists in the formation of blood cells. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Skeletal system
REF: p. 84
13. Cardiac muscle is the specialized muscle tissue of the heart. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Muscular system
REF: p. 85
14. Voluntary muscle is another name for smooth muscle. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Muscular system
REF: p. 85
15. Ligaments attach muscle to bone. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Muscular system
REF: p. 84
16. One of the functions of the muscular system is the generation of heat. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Muscular system
REF: p. 84
17. The brain is the only organ of the nervous system. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nervous system
REF: p. 85
18. Control of body functions and recognition of sensory stimuli are two functions of the nervous system. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nervous system
REF: p. 86
19. Special signals called nerve impulses are used by the nervous system. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nervous system
REF: p. 86
20. In general, the functions of the nervous system result in rapid activity that lasts for a long time. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nervous system
REF: p. 86
21. The endocrine system is composed of special glands that release enzymes into the blood. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Endocrine system
REF: p. 86
22. The glands of the endocrine system are sometimes called ductless glands. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Endocrine system
REF: p. 86
23. The endocrine system provides slower but longer lasting control when compared to the nervous system. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Endocrine system
REF: p. 86
24. The pineal gland is an endocrine gland found in the neck. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Endocrine system
REF: p. 86
25. The parathyroid gland is an endocrine gland found in the neck. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Endocrine system
REF: p. 86
26. The hypothalamus is an endocrine gland found in the skull. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Endocrine system
REF: p. 86
27. The pancreas is an endocrine gland found in the abdominal cavity. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Endocrine system
REF: p. 86
28. The cardiovascular system includes the heart and blood vessels. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cardiovascular system
REF: p. 86
29. The primary function of the cardiovascular system is the regulation of body temperature. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cardiovascular system
REF: p. 86
30. The tonsils are part of the lymphatic system. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lymphatic system
REF: p. 87
31. Lymph contains both tissue fluid and red blood cells. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lymphatic system
REF: p. 87
32. The thoracic duct helps return lymph to the blood. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lymphatic system
REF: p. 87
33. The lymphatic system is important in the functioning of the immune system. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lymphatic system
REF: p. 87
34. The tiny, thin-walled sacs in the lung are called bronchioles. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Respiratory system
REF: p. 88
35. One function of the respiratory system is to assist the body in maintaining acid-base balance. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Respiratory system
REF: p. 88
36. The stomach is part of the gastrointestinal tract. ANS: T
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 89
OBJ: 3
TOP: Digestive system
37. The liver is part of the gastrointestinal tract. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Digestive system
REF: p. 89
38. The esophagus is an accessory organ of the digestive system. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Digestive system
REF: p. 89
39. The gallbladder is an accessory organ of the digestive system. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Digestive system
REF: p. 89
40. The ureter carries urine from the bladder to the outside of the body. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Urinary system
REF: p. 89
41. The urinary system plays an important role in water, electrolyte, and acid-base balance. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Urinary system
REF: p. 89
42. In the male, the ureter is part of both the reproductive and urinary systems. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 89 TOP: Urinary system | Male reproductive system
43. The gonads in the male are the testes. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Male reproductive system
REF: p. 90
44. The prostate gland is part of the male genitalia. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Male reproductive system
REF: p. 90
45. The vas deferens is classified as an accessory organ of the male reproductive system. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Male reproductive system
46. In the male, the testes produce sperm.
REF: p. 90
ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Male reproductive system
REF: p. 90
47. The gonads for the female reproductive system are the fallopian tubes. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Female reproductive system
REF: p. 90
48. The reproductive organs in the female produce a sex cell called an ovum. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Female reproductive system
REF: p. 90
49. The uterus is an accessory organ of the female reproductive system. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Female reproductive system
REF: p. 90
50. All of the body’s defense systems together make up the immune system. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Immune system
REF: p. 88
51. Iron and potassium are two important minerals stored in bone. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Skeletal system
REF: p. 84
52. The muscles found in blood vessel walls, the stomach, and the small intestine is smooth muscles. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Muscular system
REF: p. 85
53. The nervous system can respond to stimuli such as light and heat. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nervous system
REF: p. 86
54. There are three endocrine glands in the skull. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Endocrine system
REF: p. 86
55. The endocrine system is the primary regulator of growth, but the nervous system is the primary regulator of body metabolism. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Endocrine system
REF: p. 86
56. The cardiovascular and circulatory systems refer to the same thing. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cardiovascular system
REF: p. 86
57. The thyroid gland is part of both the endocrine and lymphatic systems. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lymphatic system
REF: p. 87
58. Lymph is formed in the bone marrow. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lymphatic system
REF: p. 87
59. Both the lymphatic and cardiovascular systems repeatedly circulate fluid through a closed system. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lymphatic system
REF: p. 87
60. One function of the alveoli is to filter out dirt and pollen before it reaches the lung. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Respiratory system
REF: p. 88
61. The gallbladder is physically attached to the digestive system but has no role in digestion. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Digestive system
REF: p. 89
62. The sperm and ova are similar in that they both are sex cells. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 90 TOP: Male reproductive system | Female reproductive system
63. The organs of the muscle system are unique because they are made of only one type of tissue. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 83
64. A system is one level of organization higher than a tissue. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
65. An organ is one level of organization higher than a tissue.
REF: p. 83
ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 83
66. One important function of the skin is the synthesis of chemicals. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Integumentary system
REF: p. 83
67. A hormone in the endocrine system has a function similar to that of a nerve impulse in the nervous system. ANS: T DIF: Applying REF: p. 86 TOP: Nervous system | Endocrine system
OBJ: 4
68. The primary organs of the digestive system are found only in the gastrointestinal tract. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Digestive system
REF: p. 89
Chapter 06: Skin and Membranes Patton: Structure & Function of the Body, 17th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Epithelial membranes do not include: a. cutaneous membranes. b. synovial membranes. c. serous membranes. d. mucous membranes. ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Epithelial membranes
REF: p. 100
2. An example of a cutaneous membrane would be: a. the lining of the abdomen. b. the covering of the lung. c. skin. d. the lining of a joint. ANS: C OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Epithelial membranes
REF: p. 100
3. The membrane lining the interior of the thoracic cavity is called the: a. visceral pleura. b. visceral peritoneum. c. parietal pleura. d. parietal peritoneum. ANS: C
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 100
OBJ: 1
TOP: Serous membranes
4. The membrane covering the organs of the abdomen is called the: a. visceral pleura. b. visceral peritoneum. c. parietal pleura. d. parietal peritoneum. ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Serous membranes
REF: p. 100
5. The membrane covering the lungs is called the: a. visceral pleura. b. visceral peritoneum. c. parietal pleura. d. parietal peritoneum. ANS: A OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Serous membranes
REF: p. 100
6. The membrane lining the interior of the abdominal cavity is called the: a. visceral pleura. b. visceral peritoneum. c. parietal pleura. d. parietal peritoneum. ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Serous membranes
REF: p. 100
7. Which of the following is not a mucous membrane? a. Lining of the respiratory tract b. Lining of the blood vessels c. Lining of the digestive tract d. Lining of the urinary tract ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Mucous membranes
REF: p. 101
8. Small sacs lined with synovial fluid in joints are called: a. mucocutaneous sacs. b. parietal sacs. c. visceral sacs. d. bursae. ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Connective tissue membranes
REF: p. 101
9. Which of the following is not a function of the subcutaneous layer of skin? a. Produces melanin to protect skin from the ultraviolet rays of the sun. b. Stores fat that can be used for food. c. Protects the underlying tissue by acting as a “shock absorber.”
d. Helps the body in temperature regulation. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure of the skin
REF: p. 102
10. The outermost layer of the epidermis is called the: a. dermal papillae. b. stratum germinativum. c. stratum corneum. d. subcutaneous layer. ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Epidermis
REF: p. 103
11. The layer of the epidermis that is constantly undergoing mitosis is called the: a. dermal papillae. b. stratum germinativum. c. stratum corneum. d. subcutaneous layer. ANS: B OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Epidermis
REF: p. 103
12. The layer of epidermis that contains cells full of keratin is the: a. dermal papillae. b. stratum germinativum. c. stratum corneum. d. subcutaneous layer. ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Epidermis
REF: p. 103
13. The part of the skin that gives you a unique set of fingerprints is the: a. dermal papillae. b. stratum germinativum. c. stratum corneum. d. subcutaneous layer. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Dermis
REF: p. 104
14. The layer that is below the dermis and contains fat and blood vessels is called the: a. dermal papillae. b. stratum germinativum. c. stratum corneum. d. subcutaneous layer. ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure of the skin
REF: p. 104
15. The upper region of the dermis containing parallel rows of tiny bumps is called the: a. dermal papillae.
b. stratum germinativum. c. stratum corneum. d. subcutaneous layer. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Dermis
REF: p. 104
16. The part of the hair that begins from a small, cap-shaped cluster of cells is called the: a. hair follicle. b. hair shaft. c. hair papilla. d. lanugo. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Hair
REF: p. 105
17. The visible part of the hair is called the: a. hair follicle. b. hair shaft. c. hair papilla. d. lanugo. ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Hair
REF: p. 105
18. The very fine and soft hair of newborns is called the: a. hair follicle. b. hair shaft. c. hair papilla. d. lanugo. ANS: D OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Hair
REF: p. 104
19. The small muscle attached to the hair is called the: a. hair papilla. b. lanugo. c. arrector pili. d. hair root. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Hair
REF: p. 105
20. The receptor in skin that detects pressure is the: a. Krause end bulb. b. Lamellar corpuscle. c. Meissner corpuscle. d. free nerve endings. ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Skin Receptors
REF: p. 106
21. The root of the nail lies in a groove and is hidden by a fold of skin called the: a. cuticle. b. nail bed. c. lunula. d. nail body. ANS: A OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nails
REF: p. 105
22. The glands of skin that produce a thin, watery secretion are the: a. sebaceous glands. b. eccrine glands. c. apocrine glands. d. endocrine glands. ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Skin glands
REF: p. 106
23. The glands of skin that produce oil that lubricates the hair and skin are the: a. sebaceous glands. b. eccrine glands. c. apocrine glands. d. endocrine glands. ANS: A OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Skin glands
REF: p. 106
24. The glands of skin that produce a thick secretion are the: a. sebaceous glands. b. eccrine glands. c. apocrine glands. d. endocrine glands. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Skin glands
REF: p. 106
25. Which sudoriferous glands are very numerous and found over the total body surface? a. Sebaceous glands b. Eccrine glands c. Apocrine glands d. Endocrine glands ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Skin glands
REF: p. 106
26. Which sudoriferous glands are larger and are found in the axillae and around the genitals? a. Sebaceous glands b. Eccrine glands c. Apocrine glands d. Endocrine glands ANS: C
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 106
OBJ: 3
TOP: Skin glands
27. Which of the following is not a function of skin? a. Protection b. Temperature regulation c. Sense organ for the body d. Excretion of vitamin D ANS: D OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Functions of the skin
REF: p. 106
28. The “rule of nines”: a. is a method of determining the severity of burns. b. consists of nine areas of the body, each covering about 11% of the body. c. consists of 11 areas of the body, each covering about 9% of the body. d. is a method of determining severity of cancer. ANS: C OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Burns
REF: p. 110
29. A burn involving both the epidermis and the upper layers of the dermis is called a: a. first-degree burn. b. second-degree burn. c. third-degree burn. d. full-thickness burn. ANS: B OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Burns
REF: p. 111
30. Which of the following is not an appendage of the integumentary system? a. Hair b. Skin c. Nails d. Hair, skin, and nails ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Appendages of the skin
REF: p. 104
31. Which of the following is not a function of a membrane? a. It covers and protects the body surface. b. It secretes a fluid that reduces the friction of the beating heart. c. It lines cavities of the body. d. It protects body surface, secretes a friction reducing fluid around the heart, and lines body cavities. ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Classification of body membranes
32. Which of the following is not a function of a membrane? a. It produces a hormone that regulates growth and development. b. It covers the inner surface of hollow organs.
REF: p. 99 | p. 100
c. It anchors organs to each other. d. It secretes lubricating fluids. ANS: A OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Classification of body membranes
REF: p. 99 | p. 100
33. Which of the following is true of the epidermis? a. It is the outermost layer of skin. b. It is thicker than the dermis. c. It is made up of connective tissue. d. It is located below the dermis. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure of the skin
REF: p. 102
34. Which of the following is true of the dermis? a. It is the outermost layer of skin. b. It is thicker than the epidermis. c. It is made up of epithelial tissue. d. It is a thin sheet of stratified squamous epithelium. ANS: B OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure of the skin
REF: p. 103 | p. 104
35. Which of the following is not true of keratin? a. It prevents excessive fluid loss. b. It fills cells of the stratum corneum. c. It helps prevent ultraviolet rays from penetrating the interior of the body. d. It is a protein. ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Epidermis
REF: p. 103
36. Burns can be caused by: a. ultraviolet light. b. electrical current. c. fire or hot surfaces. d. ultraviolet light, electrical current, or a fire or hot surface. ANS: D OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Burns
REF: p. 109 | p. 110
37. Synovial membranes are found: a. lining the wall of body cavities. b. covering organs such as the lung. c. covering surfaces of the body that open to the exterior. d. lining the spaces between bones and joints that move. ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Connective tissue membranes
38. Going from superficial to deep, the layers of the skin would be:
REF: p. 101
a. b. c. d.
stratum germinativum, stratum corneum, reticular layer, papillary layer. stratum germinativum, stratum corneum, papillary layer, reticular layer. stratum corneum, stratum germinativum, papillary layer, reticular layer. stratum corneum, stratum germinativum, reticular layer, papillary layer.
ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Applying REF: p. 103 | p. 104 TOP: Epidermis and dermis
39. Which of the following is made of connective tissue? a. Epidermis b. Dermis ANS: B OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Dermis
REF: p. 104
40. Which of the following contains cells full of keratin? a. Epidermis b. Dermis ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Epidermis
REF: p. 103
41. Which of the following contains collagen and yellow elastic fibers? a. Epidermis b. Dermis ANS: B OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Dermis
REF: p. 104
42. Which of the following is the outermost layer of skin? a. Epidermis b. Dermis ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Epidermis
REF: p. 102
43. Which of the following is a deeper layer of skin? a. Epidermis b. Dermis ANS: B OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Dermis
REF: p. 102
44. Which of the following is composed of epithelial tissue? a. Epidermis b. Dermis ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure of the skin
45. Which of the following contains melanocytes? a. Epidermis
REF: p. 102
b. Dermis ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Skin pigment
REF: p. 103
46. Which of the following contains nerves that respond to touch? a. Epidermis b. Dermis ANS: B OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Receptors
REF: p. 106
47. This type of membrane is composed of only one kind of tissue: a. mucous. b. cutaneous. c. synovial. d. serous. ANS: C OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Connective tissue membranes
REF: p. 101
48. Pleurisy and peritonitis: a. occur in the chest cavity wall or the lung surface. b. refer to the inflammation of a serous membrane. c. refer to the inflammation of a mucous membrane. d. both occur in the chest cavity wall or lung surface and refer to the inflammation of a serous membrane. ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Serous membranes
REF: p. 100 | p. 101
49. Most mucous membranes are composed of: a. pseudostratified epithelium or simple squamous epithelium. b. cuboidal epithelium or stratified squamous epithelium. c. simple columnar epithelium or pseudostratified epithelium. d. stratified squamous epithelium or simple columnar epithelium. ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Mucous membranes
REF: p. 101
50. Which substance is not found in the reticular layer of the skin? a. Collagen b. Keratin c. Elastic fibers d. Fat ANS: B OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Dermis
51. This is not another name for the subcutaneous layer of the skin: a. hypodermis. b. superficial fascia.
REF: p. 104
c. reticular layer. d. papillary layer. ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Subcutaneous tissue
REF: p. 104
52. The visible part of the nail is called the: a. nail root. b. cuticle. c. lunula. d. nail body. ANS: D OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nails
REF: p. 105
53. The crescent-shaped white area of the nail is known as the: a. nail root. b. cuticle. c. lunula. d. nail body. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nails
REF: p. 105
54. This type of skin cancer can develop from benign pigmented moles: a. Kaposi sarcoma. b. squamous cell carcinoma. c. basal cell carcinoma. d. melanoma. ANS: D OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Skin cancer
REF: p. 108 | p. 109
55. This type of skin cancer is usually associated with immune deficiencies: a. Kaposi sarcoma. b. squamous cell carcinoma. c. basal cell carcinoma. d. melanoma. ANS: A OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Skin cancer
REF: p. 109
56. This type of skin cancer is a slow-growing malignant tumor of the epidermis: a. Kaposi sarcoma. b. squamous cell carcinoma. c. basal cell carcinoma. d. melanoma. ANS: B OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Skin cancer
REF: p. 108
57. This type of skin cancer is the most common type and originates at the base of the epidermis: a. Kaposi sarcoma. b. squamous cell carcinoma. c. basal cell carcinoma. d. melanoma. ANS: C OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Skin cancer
REF: p. 108
MATCHING Match each of the terms or structures with its definition, description, or function. a. Keratin b. Stratum germinativum c. Stratum corneum d. Hair papilla e. Hair shaft f. Lunula g. Cuticle h. Nail bed i. Eccrine gland j. Apocrine gland 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Skinfold that covers the root of the nail Outermost layer of the epidermis Sweat gland distributed over almost all of the body Part of the hair visible above the skin A tough protein that fills the outermost layer of skin cells Layer of epithelial tissue under the nail Sweat glands concentrated in the axillae and in the genital area Layer of the epidermis that undergoes constant mitosis White, crescent-shaped area at the base of the nail Cap-shaped cluster of cells from which hair growth begins
1. ANS: OBJ: 2. ANS: OBJ: 3. ANS: OBJ: 4. ANS: OBJ: 5. ANS: OBJ: 6. ANS: OBJ: 7. ANS:
G 3 C 2 I 3 E 3 A 2 H 3 J
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF:
Remembering Nails Remembering Epidermis Remembering Skin glands Remembering Hair Remembering Epidermis Remembering Nails Remembering
REF: p. 105 REF: p. 103 REF: p. 106 REF: p. 105 REF: p. 103 REF: p. 106 REF: p. 106
OBJ: 8. ANS: OBJ: 9. ANS: OBJ: 10. ANS: OBJ:
3 B 2 F 3 D 3
TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Skin glands Remembering Epidermis Remembering Nails Remembering Hair
REF: p. 103 REF: p. 105 REF: p. 105
Match each of the structures or terms with its definition, description, or function. a. Synovial membrane b. Parietal membrane c. Visceral membrane d. Dermal papilla e. Arrector pili f. Epidermis g. Sebum h. Free nerve ending i. “Rule of nines” j. Lamellar corpuscle 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
Structure in the skin that causes “goose pimples.” Membrane that lines the walls of body cavities. Skin receptor that responds to pain. Contains the stratum corneum and stratum germinativum. An oil produced by skin glands. Membrane that lines the joints of the body. A method of determining the percent of body surface area in a part of the body Membrane that covers the organs of the thoracic or abdominal cavities. Forms the fingerprints on the tips of the fingers. Skin receptor that responds to pressure.
11. ANS: OBJ: 12. ANS: OBJ: 13. ANS: OBJ: 14. ANS: OBJ: 15. ANS: OBJ: 16. ANS: OBJ: 17. ANS: OBJ: 18. ANS: OBJ: 19. ANS:
E 3 B 1 H 3 F 2 G 3 A 1 I 6 C 1 D
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF:
Remembering Hair Remembering Serous membranes Remembering Skin Receptors Remembering Epidermis Remembering Skin glands Remembering Connective tissue membranes Remembering Burns Remembering Serous Remembering
REF: p. 105 REF: p. 100 REF: p. 106 REF: p. 103 REF: p. 106 REF: p. 101 REF: p. 110 REF: p. 101 REF: p. 103
OBJ: 2 20. ANS: J OBJ: 3
TOP: Dermis DIF: Remembering TOP: Skin Receptors
REF: p. 106
TRUE/FALSE 1. Epithelial tissue membranes are made up of only epithelial tissue. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Classification of body membranes
REF: p. 100
2. Connective tissue membranes are made up of only connective tissue. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Classification of body membranes
REF: p. 100
3. The basement membrane portion of an epithelial tissue membrane is made of connective tissue. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Serous membranes
REF: p. 100
4. A serous membrane covering the wall of the chest cavity is called the visceral pleura. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Serous membranes
REF: p. 100
5. A serous membrane covering the organs of the abdominal cavity is called the visceral peritoneum. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Serous membranes
REF: p. 100
6. A serous membrane covering the wall of the abdominal cavity is called the visceral peritoneum. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Serous membranes
REF: p. 100
7. Pleurisy is the inflammation of the serous membrane lining the abdominal cavity. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Serous membranes
REF: p. 100
8. Serous membranes line body surfaces opening directly to the exterior. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Mucous membranes
REF: p. 101
9. The mucocutaneous junction is the area in which skin and mucous membranes meet. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Mucous membranes
REF: p. 101
10. Thick synovial fluid lines the digestive system and protects it from physical and chemical damage. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Connective tissue membranes
REF: p. 101
11. Synovial membranes line bursae. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Connective tissue membranes
REF: p. 101
12. Synovial membranes are made of connective tissue with a thin epithelial surface. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Connective tissue membranes
REF: p. 101
13. Synovial membranes line the spaces between bones and joints. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Connective tissue membranes
REF: p. 101
14. The outermost layer of the epidermis is the stratum germinativum. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Epidermis
REF: p. 103
15. The outermost layer of the epidermis contains cells consisting mostly of keratin. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Epidermis
REF: p. 103
16. The stratum corneum is the layer in the epidermis undergoing constant mitosis. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Epidermis
REF: p. 103
17. Melanocytes produce the brown pigment melanin. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Skin pigment
18. Exposure to sunlight can increase the production of melanin.
REF: p. 103
ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Skin pigment
REF: p. 103
19. If the volume of blood to skin increases, the skin will turn pink, a condition called cyanosis. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Skin pigment
REF: p. 103
20. Damage to the dermal-epidermal junction can result in the formation of a blister. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Dermal-epidermal junction
REF: p. 103
21. Fingerprints come from the layer of the epidermis called the dermal papilla. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Dermis
REF: p. 104
22. The subcutaneous layer contains fat that can be used by the body for energy. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure of the skin
REF: p. 104
23. Both the dermis and epidermis contain layers of tightly packed cells. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Dermis
REF: p. 104
24. As we age, the amount of collagen in skin decreases and the amount of elastic fibers increases. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Dermis
REF: p. 104
25. The soft, fine hair of a newborn is called lanugo. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Hair
REF: p. 104
26. Hair growth begins from a small, cap-shaped cluster of cells called the hair follicle. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Hair
REF: p. 105
27. The root of the hair is the visible part of the hair above skin. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Hair
REF: p. 105
28. The contraction of the arrector pili causes “goose bumps.” ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Hair
REF: p. 105
29. Basal cell carcinoma is the most common type of skin cancer. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Skin cancer
REF: p. 108
30. Malignant melanoma has been linked to exposure to the ultraviolet radiation of the sun. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Skin cancer
REF: p. 108
31. The lamellar corpuscle responds to pain. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Skin Receptors
REF: p. 106
32. The lamellar corpuscle responds to pressure. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Skin Receptors
REF: p. 106
33. The nail body lies hidden in a skinfold called the cuticle. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nails
REF: p. 105
34. The layer of epithelial tissue directly under the nail is called the nail bed. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nails
REF: p. 106
35. The crescent-shaped, white area near the root of the nail is called the lunula. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nails
REF: p. 105
36. Sebaceous glands produce oil for the skin called sebum. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Skin glands
REF: p. 106
37. Apocrine glands are distributed over almost the entire body surface. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Skin glands
REF: p. 106
38. Eccrine glands produce a watery liquid. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Skin glands
REF: p. 106
39. Apocrine glands produce a thicker liquid than do eccrine glands. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Skin glands
REF: p. 106
40. Eccrine glands are concentrated in the axillae and the genital area. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Skin glands
REF: p. 106
41. Apocrine and sebaceous glands are referred to as sudoriferous glands. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Skin glands
REF: p. 106
42. Both melanin and keratin are important in the protective function of skin. ANS: T DIF: Creating TOP: Functions of the skin
REF: p. 107
OBJ: 4
43. Skin helps cool the body by producing sweat that evaporates and by constricting the blood vessels near the surface of skin. ANS: F DIF: Applying TOP: Functions of the skin
REF: p. 107
OBJ: 4
44. The “rule of nines” is a method of determining the percent of body surface area in a part of the body. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Burns
REF: p. 110
45. The “rule of nines” divides the body into nine areas of 11% each. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Burns
REF: p. 110
46. If a person burned the back of both legs, about 9% of the body would be involved. ANS: F TOP: Burns
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 110
OBJ: 6
47. If a person burned the front of both arms, about 9% of the body would be involved.
ANS: T TOP: Burns
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 110
OBJ: 6
48. The extra 1% in the “rule of nines” is at the very top of the head. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Burns
REF: p. 110
49. Because a second-degree burn always damages the entire epidermis, it is referred to as a full-thickness burn. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Burns
REF: p. 110
50. Third-degree burns can damage tissue down to the bone. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Burns
REF: p. 111
51. The nails are accessory structures of the integumentary system. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nails
REF: p. 105
52. The skin is an accessory structure of the integumentary system. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: The skin
REF: p. 102
53. A thin, sheetlike structure in the body can be referred to as a membrane. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Classification of body membranes
REF: p. 99
54. The skin can be considered both a cutaneous membrane and a connective tissue membrane. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cutaneous membrane
REF: p. 100
55. The skin composes about 6% of the body weight. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cutaneous membrane
REF: p. 100
56. The gluelike basement membrane connects the connective tissue membrane to the underlying structures. ANS: F
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 100
OBJ: 2
TOP: Serous membranes
57. The parietal and visceral pleurae are actually two parts of a single, continuous membrane. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Serous membranes
Applying
REF: p. 100
OBJ: 2
58. A possible serious complication of an infected appendix is pleurisy. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Serous membranes
REF: p. 100
59. Keratin is a tough, waterproof protein that fills cells of the stratum corneum. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Epidermis
REF: p. 103
60. A loss of melanin in the skin leads to a condition called cyanosis. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Skin pigment
REF: p. 103
61. The cells of the dermis are more tightly packed than the cells of the epidermis. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Dermis
REF: p. 104
62. The arrector pili are tiny involuntary muscles in the dermis. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Hair
REF: p. 105
63. Eccrine glands reach full functioning before apocrine glands. ANS: T TOP: Skin glands
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 106
OBJ: 3
64. Pores in the skin are outlets for sebaceous glands. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Skin glands
REF: p. 106
65. The terms integument, skin, and cutaneous membrane refer to the same structure. ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: Epithelial membranes
REF: p. 100
OBJ: 1
66. Serous membranes are made up of columnar epithelial tissue attached to a basement membrane.
ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Serous membranes
REF: p. 100
67. Pleurisy and peritonitis are both inflammations of a serous membrane. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Serous membranes
REF: p. 100 | p. 101
68. Mucous membranes are all made of squamous epithelial tissue attached to a basement membrane. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Mucous membranes
REF: p. 101
69. The eyelid is an example of a mucocutaneous junction. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Mucous membranes
REF: p. 101
70. In one square inch of skin, there are more oil glands than sweat glands. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: The skin
REF: p. 102
71. In one square inch of skin, there are about twice as many pressure sensors as heat sensors. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: The skin
REF: p. 102
72. The hypodermis is the layer of the skin found between the epidermis and the dermis. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure of the skin
REF: p. 104
73. Strong, tough collagen fibers can be found in both the dermis and epidermis of the skin. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Dermis
REF: p. 104
74. Hair in certain parts of the body is stimulated to grow by the presence of hormones. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Hair
REF: p. 105
75. Hair that is frequently cut or shaved will grow in faster and darker than it would if it had not been cut or shaved frequently. ANS: F
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 105
OBJ: 3
TOP: Hair
76. The small pores in the skin of the face can be outlets for either eccrine or apocrine glands. ANS: T TOP: Skin glands
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 106
OBJ: 3
77. When the body is cold, blood vessels in the skin dilate and allow more blood to come through to warm up the skin. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Functions of the skin
REF: p. 107
78. Serous membranes are anchored to the underlying tissue by the lamina propria. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Mucous membranes
REF: p. 100
79. The eyelids and lips are examples of a mucocutaneous junction. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Mucous membranes
REF: p. 101
80. The superficial fascia is another name for subcutaneous tissue. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Subcutaneous tissue
REF: p. 104
81. In the presence of ultraviolet light, the skin can produce vitamin C. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Synthesis of vitamin D
REF: p. 108
82. The skin helps in the excretion of uric acid and ammonia. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Excretion
Chapter 07: Skeletal System Patton: Structure & Function of the Body, 17th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The red bone marrow is important in the skeletal function of: a. protection. b. support. c. hematopoiesis. d. storage.
REF: p. 108
ANS: C OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Functions of the skeletal system
REF: p. 120
2. Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system? a. Movement b. Calcium storage c. Blood cell formation d. Nerve impulse conduction ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Functions of the skeletal system
REF: p. 120
3. The humerus is an example of: a. a short bone. b. a long bone. c. a flat bone. d. an irregular bone. ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Bone types
REF: p. 120
4. The wrist bone is an example of: a. a short bone. b. a long bone. c. a flat bone. d. an irregular bone. ANS: A OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Bone types
REF: p. 120
5. The bones of the spine are examples of: a. a short bone. b. a long bone. c. a flat bone. d. an irregular bone. ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Bone types
REF: p. 120
6. The hollow shaft of a long bone is called the: a. diaphysis. b. epiphyses. c. periosteum. d. endosteum. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure of long bones
REF: p. 120
7. The thin, fibrous membrane that lines the medullary cavity is called the: a. diaphysis. b. epiphysis.
c. periosteum. d. endosteum. ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure of long bones
REF: p. 120
8. The strong, fibrous membrane covering the shaft of the long bone is called the: a. diaphysis. b. epiphysis. c. periosteum. d. endosteum. ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure of long bones
REF: p. 120
9. The ends of long bones are called the: a. diaphysis. b. epiphysis. c. periosteum. d. endosteum. ANS: B OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure of long bones
REF: p. 120
10. Trabeculae are: a. needlelike threads of spongy bone. b. the basic structure of cartilage. c. the basic structure of compact bone. d. the basic structure of bone marrow. ANS: A OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 121 TOP: Microscopic structure of bones | Cartilage tissue structure
11. Another name for the Haversian system is: a. central canal. b. lacunae. c. canaliculi. d. osteon. ANS: D OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Microscopic structure of bones
REF: p. 121
12. The bone cells in the Haversian system are found in little spaces called: a. central canal. b. canaliculi. c. lacunae. d. osteons. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Microscopic structure of bones
REF: p. 121
13. Nutrients pass from the blood vessels to the bone cells by way of the:
a. b. c. d.
central canal. canaliculi. lacunae. lamella.
ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Microscopic structure of bones
REF: p. 121
14. The bone-forming cells are called: a. osteoclasts. b. osteocytes. c. osteoblasts. d. chondrocytes. ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Bone development
REF: p. 121
15. Cartilage cells are called: a. osteoclasts. b. osteocytes. c. osteoblasts. d. chondrocytes. ANS: D OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cartilage tissue structure
REF: p. 122
16. The bone-resorbing cells are called: a. osteoclasts. b. osteocytes. c. osteoblasts. d. chondrocytes. ANS: A OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Bone development
REF: p. 123
17. As long as this is present in a bone, bone growth can continue. a. Diaphysis b. Epiphyseal plate c. Epiphysis d. Osteoclasts ANS: B OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Bone development
REF: p. 123
18. Which bone is not part of the axial skeleton? a. Ribs b. Vertebrae c. Carpal bone d. Sternum ANS: C DIF: TOP: Axial skeleton
Applying
REF: p. 126
OBJ: 5
19. Which bone is not part of the appendicular skeleton? a. Humerus b. Ulna c. Tibia d. Hyoid bone ANS: D DIF: Applying TOP: Appendicular skeleton
REF: p. 126
OBJ: 5
20. Which bone does not contain one of the paranasal sinuses? a. Mandible b. Maxillary c. Frontal d. Ethmoid ANS: A OBJ: 5
DIF: Memorization TOP: Sinuses
REF: p. 126
21. The upper jaw bone is called the: a. zygomatic. b. maxilla. c. mandible. d. vomer. ANS: B OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Bones of the skull (Table 7-2)
REF: p. 127
22. The cheekbone is called the: a. zygomatic. b. maxilla. c. mandible. d. vomer. ANS: A OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Bones of the skull (Table 7-2)
REF: p. 127
23. The bone at the back of the skull is called the: a. temporal. b. parietal. c. sphenoid. d. occipital. ANS: D OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Bones of the skull (Table 7-2)
REF: p. 127
24. The section of the vertebral column that contains the most vertebrae is the: a. cervical section. b. thoracic section. c. lumbar section. d. sacrum section.
ANS: B OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 127 TOP: Bones of the vertebral column (Table 7-3)
25. Ribs that attach individually to the sternum by way of the costal cartilage are: a. true ribs. b. false ribs. c. floating ribs. d. costal ribs. ANS: A OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Thorax
REF: p. 131
26. Ribs that do not attach to costal cartilage at all are: a. true ribs. b. false ribs. c. floating ribs. d. costal ribs. ANS: C OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Thorax
REF: p. 131
27. The two bones of the lower arm are the: a. tibia and fibula. b. femur and humerus. c. ulna and radius. d. ulna and fibula. ANS: C OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Upper extremity
REF: p. 132
28. The two bones of the lower leg are the: a. tibia and fibula. b. femur and humerus. c. ulna and radius. d. ulna and fibula. ANS: A OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lower extremity
REF: p. 134
29. The phalanges are the bones of the: a. fingers. b. wrists. c. toes. d. both the fingers and toes. ANS: D OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 132 | p. 134 TOP: Upper extremity | Lower extremity
30. The metacarpals are the bones of the: a. wrist. b. foot.
c. ankle. d. hand. ANS: D OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Upper extremity
REF: p. 133
31. The tarsals are the bones of the: a. wrist. b. foot. c. ankle. d. hand. ANS: C OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lower extremity
REF: p. 135
32. The bone of the thigh is the: a. ulna. b. radius. c. humerus. d. femur. ANS: D OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lower extremity
REF: p. 134
33. A suture is an example of a(n): a. amphiarthrotic joint. b. synarthrotic joint. c. diarthrotic joint. d. movable joint. ANS: B DIF: TOP: Synarthroses
Applying
REF: p. 139
OBJ: 7
REF: p. 139
OBJ: 7
REF: p. 139
OBJ: 7
34. The knee is an example of a(n): a. amphiarthrotic joint. b. synarthrotic joint. c. diarthrotic joint. d. slightly movable joint. ANS: C TOP: Diarthroses
DIF:
Applying
35. The elbow is an example of a(n): a. amphiarthrotic joint. b. synarthrotic joint. c. diarthrotic joint. d. slightly movable joint. ANS: C DIF: TOP: Amphiarthroses
Applying
36. Which of the following is not a type of bone?
a. b. c. d.
Round Flat Long Short
ANS: A OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Bone types
REF: p. 120
37. In the adult skeleton, red bone marrow is found in the: a. diaphysis. b. medullary canal. c. epiphysis. d. endosteum. ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure of long bones
REF: p. 120
38. Which of the following statements is true of both bone and cartilage? a. They both contain more intercellular matrix than cells. b. Both bone and cartilage cells are supplied with food and oxygen through canaliculi. c. Both bone and cartilage cells are located in lacunae. d. Both contain more intercellular matrix than cells and both are located in lacunae. ANS: D OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 121 TOP: Microscopic structure of bones | Cartilage tissue structure
39. Which of the following statements is not true of ribs? a. All ribs attach to vertebrae. b. All ribs attach to the sternum. c. There are three pairs of false ribs. d. Costal cartilage attaches ribs to the sternum. ANS: B OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Thorax
REF: p. 131
40. The total number of phalanges in the body is: a. 14. b. 28. c. 56. d. 84. ANS: C DIF: Applying REF: p. 134 | p. 136 OBJ: 5 TOP: Bones of the upper extremities (Table 7-5) | Bones of the lower extremities (Table 7-6) 41. Which bone is not part of the coxal bone? a. Sacrum b. Pubis c. Ischium
d. Ilium ANS: A OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 136 TOP: Bones of the lower extremities (Table 7-6)
42. Moving from superficial to deep in a bone, the parts of the bone would be encountered in which sequence? a. Periosteum, endosteum, medullary cavity b. Endosteum, periosteum, medullary cavity c. Periosteum, medullary cavity, endosteum d. Endosteum, medullary cavity, periosteum ANS: A DIF: Applying TOP: Structure of long bones
REF: p. 120
OBJ: 2
43. The lambdoidal suture is formed by the joining of the: a. occipital bone and the temporal bones. b. temporal bones and the frontal bone. c. parietal bones and the occipital bone. d. parietal bones and the frontal bone. ANS: C OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Sutures and fontanels
REF: p. 127
44. Going from superior to inferior, the regions of the spine would be in which order? a. Cervical, thoracic, sacrum, coccyx, lumbar b. Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacrum, coccyx c. Cervical, lumbar, thoracic, coccyx, sacrum d. Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, coccyx, sacrum ANS: B DIF: Applying TOP: Vertebral column (spine)
REF: p. 129
OBJ: 5
45. Straightening a bent elbow is: a. flexion. b. rotation. c. abduction. d. extension. e. adduction. f. circumduction. ANS: D OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 142 TOP: Types of joint movements (Table 7-7)
46. Moving part of the body away from the midline of the body is: a. flexion. b. rotation. c. abduction. d. extension. e. adduction. f. circumduction.
ANS: C OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 142 TOP: Types of joint movements (Table 7-7)
47. Which of the following reduces the angle of a joint? a. Flexion b. Rotation c. Abduction d. Extension e. Adduction f. Circumduction ANS: A OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 142 TOP: Types of joint movements (Table 7-7)
48. Moving the arm in a circle around the shoulder joint is: a. flexion. b. rotation. c. abduction. d. extension. e. adduction. f. circumduction. ANS: F OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 142 TOP: Types of joint movements (Table 7-7)
49. Moving part of the body toward the midline of the body is: a. flexion. b. rotation. c. abduction. d. extension. e. adduction. f. circumduction. ANS: E OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 142 TOP: Types of joint movements (Table 7-7)
50. Bending the elbow is: a. flexion. b. rotation. c. abduction. d. extension. e. adduction. f. circumduction. ANS: A OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 142 TOP: Types of joint movements (Table 7-7)
51. Which of the following increases the angle of a joint? a. Flexion b. Rotation c. Abduction
d. Extension e. Adduction f. Circumduction ANS: D OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 142 TOP: Types of joint movements (Table 7-7)
52. Which of the following spins one bone relative to another? a. Flexion b. Rotation c. Abduction d. Extension e. Adduction f. Circumduction ANS: B OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 142 TOP: Types of joint movements (Table 7-7)
53. The primary organ of the skeletal system is: a. cartilage. b. bone. c. bone and cartilage. d. bone, cartilage, and the joints. ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 119
54. Which of the following is not true of calcitonin? a. It is made in the thyroid gland. b. It increases blood calcium. c. It decreases blood calcium. d. It increases calcium in the bone. ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Storage
REF: p. 120
55. Which of the following is not true of PTH? a. It is made in the parathyroid gland. b. It increases blood calcium. c. It decreases blood calcium. d. It decreases bone calcium. ANS: C OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Storage
REF: p. 120
56. A treatment method for osteoporosis, a condition where there is too little calcium in the bone, might be to: a. stimulate the release of calcitonin from the parathyroid gland. b. stimulate the release of PTH from the thyroid gland. c. stimulate the release of calcitonin from the thyroid gland. d. decrease the amount of calcitonin from the thyroid gland.
ANS: C OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Storage
REF: p. 120
57. A bone that may develop in a tendon is called a(n): a. sesamoid bone. b. irregular bone. c. long bone. d. short bone. ANS: A OBJ: 1
DIF: Memorization TOP: Bone types
REF: p. 120
58. The diploe: a. is found in the medullary cavity. b. is the outer layer of a long bone. c. is the inner layer of a long bone. d. is the middle layer of a flat bone. ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure of flat bones
REF: p. 121
59. Which of the following is not true of the male skeleton? a. The bones tend to be larger than the female skeleton. b. The pelvic opening is wider than the female pelvic opening. c. The markings on the bones are larger and more distinct than in the female. d. The male pelvis is shaped more like a funnel. ANS: B OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Skeletal variations
REF: p. 137 | p. 138
60. Regarding the density of the bone, what occurs after age 50? a. Bone density often increases slowly. b. Bone density often decreases slowly. c. Bone density often decreases but gradually increases. d. There are no changes that occur. ANS: B OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Skeletal variations
REF: p. 138
61. A person who works daily with a heavy load on his or her right arm would expect to have: a. less dense bones in the right arm and shoulder. b. denser bones in the left arm and shoulder. c. denser bones in the right arm and shoulder. d. no change in the density of bone in either arm or shoulder. ANS: C OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Skeletal variations
REF: p. 138
MATCHING Match each of the terms with the correct definition, description, or function.
a. Diaphysis b. Epiphyses c. Periosteum d. Endosteum e. Medullary cavity f. Osteoclast g. Osteoblast h. Canaliculi i. Lacuna j. Epiphyseal plate k. Diarthrotic l. Hematopoiesis m. Synarthrotic n. Articulations o. Amphiarthrotic 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
Bone-forming cells Hollow shaft of the long bone A bone can grow as long as this remains Thin layer of connective tissue that lines the medullary canal Small canals that carry nutrients to bone cells Tough connective tissue surrounding the shaft of long bones Hollow part of the bone where marrow is stored Bone-resorbing cells Small spaces in the bone matrix where bone cells are located Ends of long bones Type of joint that allows no movement Refers to the process of blood cell formation Type of joint that allows for free movement Another term for joints Type of joint that allows for slight, limited movement
1. ANS: OBJ: 2. ANS: OBJ: 3. ANS: OBJ: 4. ANS: OBJ: 5. ANS: OBJ: 6. ANS: OBJ: 7. ANS: OBJ: 8. ANS: OBJ:
G 4 A 2 J 4 D 2 H 3 C 2 E 2 F 4
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering Bone development Remembering Structure of long bones Remembering Bone development Remembering Structure of long bones Remembering Microscopic structure of bones Remembering Structure of long bones Remembering Structure of long bones Remembering Bone development
REF: p. 123 REF: p. 120 REF: p. 123 REF: p. 120 REF: p. 121 REF: p. 120 REF: p. 120 REF: p. 123
9. ANS: OBJ: 10. ANS: OBJ: 11. ANS: OBJ: 12. ANS: OBJ: 13. ANS: OBJ: 14. ANS: OBJ: 15. ANS: OBJ:
I 3 B 2 M 7 L 1 K 7 N 1 O 7
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering Microscopic structure of bones Remembering Structure of long bones Remembering Kinds of joints Remembering Functions of the skeletal system Remembering Kinds of joints Remembering Articulation of bones Remembering Kinds of joints
REF: p. 121 REF: p. 120 REF: p. 139 REF: p. 121 REF: p. 139 REF: p. 138 REF: p. 139
Match each bone with its description or location. a. Femur b. Humerus c. Ulna d. Fibula e. Zygomatic bone f. Mandible g. Carpals h. Metatarsals i. Patella j. Ribs k. Phalanges l. Sternum m. Stapes 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28.
Cheekbone Bone of the thigh Bones of the wrist Can be true, false, or floating One of the bones of the lower leg Bone of the upper arm Kneecap One of the bones of the lower arm Bone of the lower jaw Bones of the foot One of the bones of the middle ear Bones of the fingers and toes Breast bone to which the ribs attach
16. ANS: OBJ: 17. ANS: OBJ:
E 5 A 5
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering REF: p. 127 Bones of the skull (Table 7-2) Remembering REF: p. 136 Bones of the lower extremities (Table 7-6)
18. ANS: OBJ: 19. ANS: OBJ: 20. ANS: OBJ: 21. ANS: OBJ: 22. ANS: OBJ: 23. ANS: OBJ: 24. ANS: OBJ: 25. ANS: OBJ: 26. ANS: OBJ: 27. ANS: OBJ: TOP: 7-6) 28. ANS: OBJ:
G DIF: Remembering REF: p. 134 5 TOP: Bones of the upper extremities (Table 7-5) J DIF: Remembering REF: p. 131 5 TOP: Thorax D DIF: Remembering REF: p. 136 5 TOP: Bones of the lower extremities (Table 7-6) B DIF: Remembering REF: p. 134 5 TOP: Bones of the upper extremities (Table 7-5) I DIF: Remembering REF: p. 136 5 TOP: Bones of the lower extremities (Table 7-6) C DIF: Remembering REF: p. 134 5 TOP: Bones of the upper extremities (Table 7-5) F DIF: Remembering REF: p. 127 5 TOP: Bones of the skull (Table 7-2) H DIF: Remembering REF: p. 136 5 TOP: Bones of the lower extremities (Table 7-6) M DIF: Remembering REF: p. 127 5 TOP: Bones of the skull (Table 7-2) K DIF: Remembering REF: p. 134 | p. 136 5 Bones of the upper extremities (Table 7-5) | Bones of the lower extremities (Table L 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Thorax
REF: p. 131
Match each type of joint movement with its definition or description. a. Adduction b. Flexion c. Circumduction d. Rotation e. Abduction f. Extension 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34.
Reduction of the angle of a joint. Moves a limb toward the midline of the body. Moves the distal end of a bone in a circle. Increases the angle of a joint. Spins one bone relative to another. Moves a limb away from the midline of the body.
29. ANS: OBJ: 30. ANS: OBJ: 31. ANS: OBJ: 32. ANS: OBJ:
B 7 A 7 C 7 F 7
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering REF: Types of joint movements (Table 7-7) Remembering REF: Types of joint movements (Table 7-7) Remembering REF: Types of joint movements (Table 7-7) Remembering REF: Types of joint movements (Table 7-7)
p. 142 p. 142 p. 142 p. 142
33. ANS: OBJ: 34. ANS: OBJ:
D 7 E 7
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering REF: p. 142 Types of joint movements (Table 7-7) Remembering REF: p. 142 Types of joint movements (Table 7-7)
Match the gender with its appropriate skeletal variation description. a. Male b. Female 35. 36. 37. 38. 39.
Wide pelvic opening. Skeleton is larger with more distinct bumps and other markings. Coxal bones form a narrower structure. Pelvis is shaped more like a funnel than a broad, shallow basin. Angle at the front of the pelvis is wide.
35. ANS: OBJ: 36. ANS: OBJ: 37. ANS: OBJ: 38. ANS: OBJ: 39. ANS: OBJ:
B 6 A 6 A 6 A 6 B 6
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering Skeletal variations Remembering Skeletal variations Remembering Skeletal variations Remembering Skeletal variations Remembering Skeletal variations
REF: p. 137 REF: p. 137 REF: p. 137 REF: p. 137 REF: p. 137
TRUE/FALSE 1. The storage of calcium is an important function of the skeletal system. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Functions of the skeletal system
REF: p. 120
2. The red bone marrow contributes to the support function of the skeletal system. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Functions of the skeletal system
REF: p. 120
3. The carpals are an example of short bones. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Bone types
REF: p. 120
4. The vertebrae are examples of flat bones. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Bone types
REF: p. 120
5. The frontal bone of the skull is an example of an irregular bone. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Bone types
REF: p. 120
6. The diaphysis is the hollow shaft of the long bone. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure of long bones
REF: p. 120
7. The articular cartilage covers and cushions the ends of the bones. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure of long bones
REF: p. 120
8. The periosteum lines the medullary cavity. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure of long bones
REF: p. 120
9. The epiphysis is the hollow area in the shaft of the bone where marrow is stored. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure of long bones
REF: p. 120
10. The needlelike threads of spongy bone are called trabeculae. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Microscopic structure of bones
REF: p. 121
11. The concentric rings surrounding the central canal of an osteon are called lamella. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Microscopic structure of bones
REF: p. 121
12. Canaliculi are small canals that help supply the bone cells with food and oxygen. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Microscopic structure of bones
REF: p. 121
13. The lacuna is a large canal in the center of the osteon that contains a blood vessel. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Microscopic structure of bones
REF: p. 121
14. Chondrocytes are cartilage cells. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cartilage tissue structure
REF: p. 122
15. Osteoclasts are the bone-forming cells. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Bone development
REF: p. 123
16. Osteoblasts are the bone-resorbing cells. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Bone development
REF: p. 123
17. Most of the bones of the body begin as cartilage. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Bone development
REF: p. 123
18. As long as the epiphyseal plate remains between the diaphysis and epiphysis, bone growth can continue. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Bone development
REF: p. 123
19. The “soft spots” in a baby’s skull are referred to as fontanels. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Sutures and fontanels
REF: p. 127
20. Osteoporosis is a weakening of the bone and occurs most often in women of childbearing age. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 125 TOP: Health and Well-Being: Osteoporosis
21. Vitamin C supplements are sometimes given to women to help prevent osteoporosis. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 125 TOP: Health and Well-Being: Osteoporosis
22. An improperly treated epiphyseal fracture can result in the affected limb being shorter than normal. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 138 TOP: Clinical Application: Epiphyseal Fracture
23. The bones of the middle ear are part of the axial skeleton. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Skull
REF: p. 125
24. There are more bones in the axial skeleton than in the appendicular skeleton. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 125 TOP: Main parts of the skeleton (Table 7-1)
25. The occipital bone is the bone in the back of the skull. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Bones of the skull (Table 7-2)
REF: p. 127
26. The maxilla is the bone of the lower jaw. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Bones of the skull (Table 7-2)
REF: p. 127
27. The zygomatic bone is the cheekbone. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Bones of the skull (Table 7-2)
REF: p. 127
28. Going from superior to inferior, the sequence of the vertebrae is cervical, thoracic, lumbar, coccyx, and sacrum. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Vertebral column (spine)
REF: p. 129
29. The curves of the spine are important in supporting the weight of the rest of the body. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Vertebral column (spine)
REF: p. 131
30. The ribs that individually attach to a costal cartilage and then to the sternum are called true ribs. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Thorax
REF: p. 131
31. The last two sets of ribs that are only attached to the vertebrae are called false ribs. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Thorax
REF: p. 131
32. The sternum is also called the breastbone. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Thorax
33. The scapula and clavicle make up the pectoral girdle.
REF: p. 131
ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Upper extremity
REF: p. 132
34. The tibia and fibula are the bones of the lower arm. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Upper extremity
REF: p. 132
35. The femur is the bone of the thigh. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lower extremity
REF: p. 134
36. The phalanges are the bones of the fingers and toes. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 133 | p. 135 TOP: Upper extremity | Lower extremity
37. The tibia and fibula are bones of the lower leg. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lower extremity
REF: p. 134 | p. 135
38. The carpals are the bones of the hand. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Upper extremity
REF: p. 133
39. The tarsals are the bones of the ankle. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 136 TOP: Lower extremity | Bones of the lower extremities (Table 7-6)
40. The patella is another term for the kneecap. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lower extremity
REF: p. 134
41. The olecranon process is another term for the elbow. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 134 TOP: Bones of the upper extremities (Table 7-5)
42. The metacarpals are the bones of the foot. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Upper extremity
REF: p. 133
43. One of the main differences between the male skeleton and female skeleton is the shape of the pelvis. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Skeletal variations
REF: p. 137
44. A joint with only slight movement is called a diarthrotic joint. ANS: F OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Joints (articulations)
REF: p. 139
45. A joint with no movement is called a synarthrotic joint. ANS: T OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Kinds of joints
REF: p. 139
46. A diarthrotic joint is a freely moving joint. ANS: T OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Kinds of joints
REF: p. 139
47. The sutures of the skull are synarthrotic joints. ANS: T OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Synarthroses
REF: p. 139
48. The knee is an amphiarthrotic joint. ANS: F OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Amphiarthroses
REF: p. 139
49. The hip is a diarthrotic joint. ANS: T OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Diarthroses
REF: p. 139
50. A ligament is a band of connective tissue that holds two bones together. ANS: T OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure of diarthroses
REF: p. 139
51. The hinge joint provides the widest range of motion for the body. ANS: F OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Hinge joints
REF: p. 142
52. To increase the angle of a joint is the definition of flexion. ANS: F
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 142
OBJ: 7
TOP: Types of joint movements (Table 7-7)
53. To increase the angle of a joint is the definition of extension. ANS: T OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 142 TOP: Types of joint movements (Table 7-7)
54. To move a part of the body away from the midline is called adduction. ANS: F OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 142 TOP: Types of joint movements (Table 7-7)
55. To move a part of the body toward the midline is called adduction. ANS: T OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 142 TOP: Types of joint movements (Table 7-7)
56. The word “articulation” is another word for joint. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Articulation of bones
REF: p. 138
57. The interaction between muscle and bone allows the body to move. ANS: T TOP: Movement
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 120
OBJ: 1
58. The function of hematopoiesis is accomplished in the osteon of the bone. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Hematopoiesis
REF: p. 120
59. In the adult skeleton, the function of hematopoiesis occurs in the medullary canal. ANS: F DIF: Applying TOP: Structure of long bones
REF: p. 120
OBJ: 2
60. Between the two diaphyses of a long bone is the epiphysis. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure of long bones
REF: p. 120
61. The endosteum is more interior (deep) than the periosteum. ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: Structure of long bones
REF: p. 120
62. Both bone and cartilage are examples of connective tissue.
OBJ: 2
ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 121 | p. 122 TOP: Microscopic structure of bones | Cartilage tissue structure
63. The central canal of the osteon is also called the medullary cavity. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Microscopic structure of bones
REF: p. 121
64. The terms osteon and Haversian system refer to the same structure. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Microscopic structure of bones
REF: p. 121
65. Osteocytes can be found in the lacunae of the osteon. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Microscopic structure of bones
REF: p. 121
66. Like bone cells, cartilage cells are located in lacunae. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 122 TOP: Microscopic structure of bones | Cartilage tissue structure
67. Canaliculi supply food and oxygen to cartilage cells. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 121 TOP: Microscopic structure of bones | Cartilage tissue structure
68. Osteoblasts and osteoclasts do opposite functions in the bone. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Bone development
Applying
REF: p. 123
OBJ: 4
69. The skull is formed by endochondral ossification. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Bone development
REF: p. 123
70. When fontanels fuse, they form sutures. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Sutures and fontanels
REF: p. 127
71. The spine has three curves: two convex and one concave. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Vertebral column (spine)
REF: p. 131
72. Because the last two sets of ribs are not attached to any other bones in the body, they are called floating ribs. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Thorax
REF: p. 131
73. Only the true ribs attach to the sternum by the costal cartilage. ANS: F TOP: Thorax
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 131
OBJ: 5
74. The olecranon process of the humerus and the olecranon fossa of the ulna make up the structure of the elbow. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 134 TOP: Bones of the upper extremities (Table 7-5)
75. The indentation in the femur where the patella or kneecap fits is called the acetabulum. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lower extremity
REF: p. 134
76. Bones are the primary organ of the skeletal system. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 119
77. Bones are the only major structure in the body that is not considered living. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 119
78. The articular cartilage covers and protects the diaphysis of the long bones. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure of long bones
REF: p. 120
79. The calcified rings of compact bone are called canaliculi. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Microscopic structure of bones
REF: p. 121
80. The curves of the spine in the cervical and lumbar regions are the convex curves of the spine. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Vertebral column (spine)
REF: p. 131
81. The head of the femur fits into a deep, cup-shaped socket in the coxal bone called the acetabulum. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lower extremity
REF: p. 134
82. The incus is a bone found in the skull. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Bones of the skull (Table 7-2)
REF: p. 127
83. Calcitonin increases the mineralization of bone. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Storage
REF: p. 120
84. Parathyroid hormone decreases the concentration of calcium in the blood. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Storage
REF: p. 120
85. Parathyroid hormone and calcitonin have opposite effects on the concentration of calcium in the blood. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Storage
REF: p. 120
86. In a flat bone, the compact layer of bone on either side of the spongy layer of bone is called the diploe. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure of flat bones
REF: p. 121
87. One of the differences between bone and cartilage is that in cartilage the matrix is more gel-like than the calcified matrix of bone. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 121 | p. 122 TOP: Microscopic structure of bones | Cartilage tissue structure
88. Trapped osteoblasts become osteocytes. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Bone development
REF: p. 123
89. The body has 20 phalanges; 10 on the hands and 10 on the feet. ANS: F DIF: Remembering REF: p. 134 | p. 136 OBJ: 5 TOP: Bones of the upper extremities (Table 7-5) | Bones of the lower extremities (Table
7-6) 90. A bursa is a shock-absorbing pocket of fluid found in some joints. ANS: T OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure of diarthroses
REF: p. 140
91. The human skeleton is considered to reach its mature state around the age of 35. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Skeletal variations
REF: p. 138
Chapter 08: Muscular System Patton: Structure & Function of the Body, 17th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Striations are found in: a. smooth muscle. b. skeletal muscle. c. cardiac muscle. d. both skeletal and cardiac muscle. ANS: D DIF: TOP: Skeletal muscle
Applying
REF: p. 152
OBJ: 1
2. Intercalated disks are found in: a. smooth muscle. b. skeletal muscle. c. cardiac muscle. d. voluntary muscle. ANS: C OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cardiac muscle
REF: p. 152
3. Another name for smooth muscle is: a. cardiac muscle. b. visceral muscle. c. voluntary muscle. d. skeletal muscle. ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Smooth muscle
REF: p. 152
4. Another name for skeletal muscle is: a. cardiac muscle. b. visceral muscle. c. voluntary muscle. d. involuntary muscle. ANS: C
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 152
OBJ: 1
TOP: Skeletal muscle
5. The muscle attachment to the more movable bone is called the: a. origin. b. insertion. c. tendon. d. bursae. ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Muscle organs
REF: p. 153
6. The muscle attachment to the more stationary bone is called the: a. origin. b. insertion. c. tendon. d. bursae. ANS: A OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Muscle organs
REF: p. 153
7. The connective tissue that attaches muscle to bone is called: a. origin. b. insertion. c. tendon. d. bursae. ANS: C OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Muscle organs
REF: p. 153
8. A fluid-filled sac that acts as a lubricating structure for muscle movement is a(n): a. origin. b. insertion. c. tendon. d. bursae. ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Muscle organs
REF: p. 153
9. If an injury caused damage to the insertion of the biceps brachii muscle (the anterior muscle of the upper arm), the injury would be nearest: a. the shoulder. b. the middle of the upper arm. c. the elbow. d. the upper thigh. ANS: C DIF: TOP: Muscle organs
Creating
REF: p. 153
10. The thin myofilament of the skeletal muscles is made of: a. sarcomere. b. actin.
OBJ: 1
c. myosin. d. Z lines. ANS: B OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure of muscle fibers
REF: p. 153
11. The thick myofilament of the skeletal muscles is made of: a. sarcomere. b. actin. c. myosin. d. Z lines. ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure of muscle fibers
REF: p. 153
12. The basic contractile unit of a skeletal muscle is the: a. sarcomere. b. actin. c. myosin. d. Z lines. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure of muscle fibers
REF: p. 153
13. When a muscle contraction occurs: a. the actin gets shorter. b. the myosin gets shorter. c. the Z lines are pulled closer together. d. both actin and myosin get shorter. ANS: C DIF: Creating TOP: Contraction of muscle fibers
REF: p. 154
OBJ: 2
14. According to the sliding filament model, in order for a sarcomere to contract: a. bridges must form between the actin and myosin. b. calcium must be released from the endoplasmic reticulum. c. adenosine triphosphate (ATP) must be broken down for energy. d. bridges must form between actin and myosin, calcium is released, and ATP must be broken down for energy. ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Contraction of muscle fibers
REF: p. 154
15. To produce smooth movement at a joint: a. the prime mover and antagonists must contract. b. the antagonist and synergists must contract. c. the prime mover and synergists must contract. d. the antagonist and prime movers relax. ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Movement
REF: p. 155
16. Tonic contractions a. move a muscle through a full range of motion b. do not shorten the muscle c. are important in maintaining posture d. do not shorten the muscle and are important in maintaining posture ANS: D OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Posture
REF: p. 155
17. The point of contact between the nerve and the muscle fibers it stimulates is called a: a. motor unit. b. neuromuscular junction. c. motor neuron. d. neurotransmitter. ANS: B OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Motor unit
REF: p. 157
18. A single motor neuron with all the muscle cells it innervates is called a: a. motor unit. b. neuromuscular junction. c. neurotransmitter. d. both a neuromuscular junction and a neurotransmitter. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Motor unit
REF: p. 157
19. The minimal level of stimulation required to cause a fiber to contract is called: a. a threshold stimulus. b. the all-or-none law. c. twitch contraction. d. tetanic contraction. ANS: A OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Muscle stimulus
REF: p. 158
20. When a muscle fiber is subjected to a stimulus, it contracts completely. This is called: a. threshold stimulus. b. the all-or-none-law. c. twitch contraction. d. tetanic contraction. ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Muscle stimulus
REF: p. 158
21. What allows you to lift different weights with the same muscle is the: a. difference in the threshold stimulus. b. number of motor units used by the muscle. c. all-or-none law. d. isometric contraction of the muscle fibers. ANS: B
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 158
OBJ: 3
TOP: Muscle stimulus 22. The muscle contracts and shortens and the insertion end moves toward the point of origin. This sentence describes: a. twitch contractions. b. tetanic contractions. c. isotonic contractions. d. isometric contractions. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Isotonic contraction
REF: p. 158
23. The muscle contracts but does not shorten, even though an increase in muscle tension does occur. This sentence describes: a. twitch contractions. b. tetanic contractions. c. isotonic contractions. d. isometric contractions. ANS: D OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Isometric contraction
REF: p. 159
24. Strength training leads to: a. an increased number of myofilaments. b. an increased number of muscle fibers. c. muscle atrophy. d. both in an increase number of myofilaments and muscle fibers. ANS: A OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 159 TOP: Effects of exercise on skeletal muscles
25. Endurance training leads to: a. an increased number of myofilaments. b. an increased number of muscle fibers. c. an increased number of blood vessels to the muscle. d. muscle atrophy. ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 159 TOP: Effects of exercise on skeletal muscles
26. Which of the following muscles is not a muscle of the head and neck? a. Frontal b. Masseter c. Latissimus dorsi d. Zygomaticus ANS: C OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Muscles of the head and neck
REF: p. 162
27. Which of the following muscles is not a muscle that moves the upper extremities? a. Biceps brachii
b. Triceps brachii c. Latissimus dorsi d. Rectus abdominis ANS: D OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 163 | p. 164 TOP: Muscles that move the upper extremities
28. Which of the following muscles is not a muscle of the trunk? a. Rectus abdominis b. Iliopsoas c. Internal oblique d. External oblique ANS: B OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Muscles of the trunk
REF: p. 165
29. Which of the following muscles is not a muscle that moves the lower extremities? a. Sartorius b. Trapezius c. Iliopsoas d. Gracilis ANS: B OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 166 TOP: Muscles that move the lower extremities
30. The term that refers to ankle and foot movement is: a. supination. b. pronation. c. dorsiflexion. d. both supination and pronation. ANS: C OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 160 TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions
31. The movement that is opposite dorsiflexion is: a. supination. b. pronation. c. rotation. d. plantar flexion. ANS: D OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 160 TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions
32. Movement around a longitudinal axis is: a. supination. b. rotation. c. dorsiflexion. d. pronation. ANS: B OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 160 TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions
33. Moving a part of the body away from the midline of the body is called: a. adduction. b. abduction. c. rotation. d. pronation. ANS: B OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 160 TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions
34. Moving a part of the body toward the midline of the body is called: a. adduction. b. abduction. c. rotation. d. pronation. ANS: A OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 160 TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions
35. The hand position when the body is in anatomical position is: a. dorsiflexion. b. pronation. c. supination. d. plantar flexion. ANS: C OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 160 TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions
36. The opposite movement of rotation is: a. flexion. b. abduction. c. pronation. d. circumduction. ANS: A OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 159 | p. 160 TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions
37. A bursae is a saclike structure that is filled with: a. blood. b. synovial fluid. c. blood plasma. d. lymph. ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Muscle organs
REF: p. 153
38. If a prime mover flexes a joint: a. the synergist will extend the joint. b. the synergist and antagonist will extend the joint. c. the antagonist will extend the joint. d. the antagonist will assist in flexing the joint. ANS: C
DIF:
Creating
REF: p. 155
OBJ: 1
TOP: Movement 39. What part of the body does the pectoralis major move? a. Head and neck b. Upper extremities c. Trunk of the body d. Lower extremities ANS: B OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 163 TOP: Muscles that move the upper extremities
40. What part of the body does the external oblique move? a. Head and neck b. Upper extremities c. Trunk of the body d. Lower extremities ANS: C OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Muscles of the trunk
REF: p. 166
41. What part of the body does the masseter move? a. Head and neck b. Upper extremities c. Trunk of the body d. Lower extremities ANS: A OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Muscles of the head and neck
REF: p. 162
42. What part of the body does the sartorius move? a. Head and neck b. Upper extremities c. Trunk of the body d. Lower extremities ANS: D OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 164 (Table 8-2) TOP: Muscles that move the lower extremities
43. What part of the body does the zygomaticus move? a. Head and neck b. Upper extremities c. Trunk of the body d. Lower extremities ANS: A OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Muscles of the head and neck
44. What part of the body does the sternocleidomastoid move? a. Head and neck b. Upper extremities c. Trunk of the body
REF: p. 162
d. Lower extremities ANS: A OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Muscles of the head and neck
REF: p. 162
45. What part of the body does the deltoid move? a. Head and neck b. Upper extremities c. Trunk of the body d. Lower extremities ANS: B OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 165 TOP: Muscles that move the upper extremities
46. What part of the body does the biceps femoris move? a. Head and neck b. Upper extremities c. Trunk of the body d. Lower extremities ANS: D OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 166 TOP: Muscles that move the lower extremities
47. What part of the body does the rectus abdominis move? a. Head and neck b. Upper extremities c. Trunk of the body d. Lower extremities ANS: C OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Muscles of the trunk
REF: p. 166
48. What part of the body does the gastrocnemius move? a. Head and neck b. Upper extremities c. Trunk of the body d. Lower extremities ANS: D OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 167 TOP: Muscles that move the lower extremities
49. If you weigh 120 pounds, your skeletal muscles weigh about: a. 50 pounds. b. 60 pounds. c. 70 pounds. d. 40 pounds. ANS: A OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
50. Groups of muscle fibers are called: a. microfilaments.
REF: p. 151
b. fascia. c. fascicles. d. sarcomeres. ANS: C OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Muscle organs
REF: p. 152
51. The loose connective tissue outside the muscle organs that forms a flexible, sticky “packing material” between the muscles, bone, and skin is called: a. microfilaments. b. fascia. c. fascicles. d. tendons. ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Muscle organs
REF: p. 152
52. When calcium is released into the sarcomere: a. it attaches to the myosin heads. b. acts as a crossbridge between actin and myosin. c. stimulates an ATP molecule to release energy. d. removes the blocking protein from the actin. ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 154 TOP: Microscopic structure and function
53. Tension during muscle lengthening is often called: a. isotonic contractions. b. isometric contractions. c. eccentric contractions. d. antagonist contractions. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Types of skeletal contractions
REF: p. 155
54. Which of the following systems do not play a role in body movement? a. Nervous system b. Respiratory system c. Circulatory system d. Urinary system ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 156 TOP: Role of other body systems in movement
55. This is a quick, jerky response to a stimulus seen in isolated muscles but is not important in normal muscle activity a. twitch contraction b. tetanic contraction c. isometric contraction d. isotonic contraction ANS: A
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 158
OBJ: 3
TOP: Types of skeletal contractions
MATCHING Match each of the terms with its definition or explanation. a. Skeletal muscle b. Smooth muscle c. Origin d. Insertion e. Actin f. Myosin g. Motor unit h. Neuromuscular junction i. Isotonic j. Isometric 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Protein that makes the thin myofilament Another name for voluntary muscle Type of muscle contraction in which the muscle shortens and the joint moves Point of contact between the nerve ending and the muscle fiber Attachment point to the bone that moves during muscle contraction Another name for visceral muscle Protein that makes up the thick myofilament Attachment point to the bone that is stationary during contraction Muscle contraction in which the muscle tenses but does not shorten Single motor neuron with all the muscle cells it innervates
1. ANS: OBJ: 2. ANS: OBJ: 3. ANS: OBJ: 4. ANS: OBJ: 5. ANS: OBJ: 6. ANS: OBJ: 7. ANS: OBJ: 8. ANS: OBJ: 9. ANS: OBJ: 10. ANS: OBJ:
E 2 A 1 I 3 H 2 D 1 B 1 F 2 C 1 J 3 G 2
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering Structure of muscle fibers Remembering Muscle tissue Remembering Isotonic contraction Remembering Motor unit Remembering Muscle organs Remembering Muscle tissue Remembering Structure of muscle fibers Remembering Structure of muscle fibers Remembering Isometric contraction Remembering Motor unit
REF: p. 153 REF: p. 152 REF: p. 158 REF: p. 157 REF: p. 153 REF: p. 152 REF: p. 153 REF: p. 153 REF: p. 159 REF: p. 157
Match the muscles of the head and neck with their function. a. Orbicularis oris b. Orbicularis oculi c. Sternocleidomastoid d. Masseter e. Frontal f. Zygomaticus g. Trapezius 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17.
Rotates and flexes the head and neck. Closes the jaw. Extends the head and neck. Raises eyebrows. Closes eyes. Elevates corners of the mouth and lips. Draws lips together.
11. ANS: OBJ: 12. ANS: OBJ: 13. ANS: OBJ: 14. ANS: OBJ: 15. ANS: OBJ: 16. ANS: OBJ: 17. ANS: OBJ:
C 6 D 6 G 6 E 6 B 6 F 6 A 6
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering REF: Table 8-2 | Principal muscles of the body Remembering REF: Table 8-2 | Principal muscles of the body Remembering REF: Table 8-2 | Principal muscles of the body Remembering REF: Table 8-2 | Principal muscles of the body Remembering REF: Table 8-2 | Principal muscles of the body Remembering REF: Table 8-2 | Principal muscles of the body Remembering REF: Table 8-2 | Principal muscles of the body
p. 164 p. 164 p. 164 p. 164 p. 164 p. 164 p. 164
Match the muscles that move the upper extremities and the muscles of the trunk with their function. a. Latissimus dorsi b. Deltoid c. Triceps brachii d. Pectoralis major e. Biceps brachii f. Rectus abdominis g. External oblique 18. 19. 20. 21. 22.
Extends elbow. Abducts upper arm. Flexes trunk. Flexes and helps adduct upper arm. Extends and helps adduct upper arm.
23. Compresses abdomen. 24. Flexes elbow. 18. ANS: OBJ: 19. ANS: OBJ: 20. ANS: OBJ: 21. ANS: OBJ: 22. ANS: OBJ: 23. ANS: OBJ: 24. ANS: OBJ:
C 6 B 6 F 6 D 6 A 6 G 6 E 6
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering REF: Table 8-2 | Principal muscles of the body Remembering REF: Table 8-2 | Principal muscles of the body Remembering REF: Table 8-2 | Principal muscles of the body Remembering REF: Table 8-2 | Principal muscles of the body Remembering REF: Table 8-2 | Principal muscles of the body Remembering REF: Table 8-2 | Principal muscles of the body Remembering REF: Table 8-2 | Principal muscles of the body
p. 164 p. 164 p. 164 p. 164 p. 164 p. 164 p. 164
Match the muscles that move the lower extremity with their function. a. Tibialis anterior b. Iliopsoas c. Gastrocnemius d. Sartorius e. Adductor group f. Hamstring group g. Gluteus maximus h. Quadriceps group 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32.
Plantar flexes the ankle. Flexes thigh or trunk. Extends knee. Flexes knee. Flexes thigh and rotates lower leg. Dorsiflexes the ankle. Adducts thigh. Extends thigh.
25. ANS: OBJ: 26. ANS: OBJ: 27. ANS: OBJ: 28. ANS: OBJ: 29. ANS: OBJ: 30. ANS:
C 6 B 6 H 6 F 6 D 6 A
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF:
Remembering REF: Table 8-2 | Principal muscles of the body Remembering REF: Table 8-2 | Principal muscles of the body Remembering REF: Table 8-2 | Principal muscles of the body Remembering REF: Table 8-2 | Principal muscles of the body Remembering REF: Table 8-2 | Principal muscles of the body Remembering REF:
p. 164 p. 164 p. 164 p. 164 p. 164 p. 164
OBJ: 31. ANS: OBJ: 32. ANS: OBJ:
6 E 6 G 6
TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Table 8-2 | Principal muscles of the body Remembering REF: p. 164 Table 8-2 | Principal muscles of the body Remembering REF: p. 164 Table 8-2 | Principal muscles of the body
Match the body movement term with its definition. a. Flexion b. Extension c. Abduction d. Adduction e. Supination f. Pronation g. Dorsiflexion h. Plantar flexion i. Inversion j. Eversion 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42.
The top of the foot is elevated with the toes pointing upward. Makes the angle between the two bones at the joint smaller. Turns the ankle so the bottom of the foot faces toward the midline of the body. Results in the hand position with the palm turned toward the anterior position. Moving part of the body toward the midline of the body. Turns the ankle so the bottom of the foot faces toward the lateral side of the body. Makes the angle between the two bones at a joint larger. Results in the hand position with the palm turned toward the posterior position. Moving part of the body away from the midline of the body. The bottom of the foot is directed downward so you are standing on your toes.
33. ANS: OBJ: 34. ANS: OBJ: 35. ANS: OBJ: 36. ANS: OBJ: 37. ANS: OBJ: 38. ANS: OBJ: 39. ANS: OBJ: 40. ANS: OBJ: 41. ANS: OBJ: 42. ANS:
G 5 A 5 I 5 E 5 D 5 J 5 B 5 F 5 C 5 H
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF:
Remembering REF: p. 160 Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions Remembering REF: p. 159 Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions Remembering REF: p. 160 Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions Remembering REF: p. 160 Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions Remembering REF: p. 160 Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions Remembering REF: p. 160 Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions Remembering REF: p. 159 Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions Remembering REF: p. 160 Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions Remembering REF: p. 160 Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions Remembering REF: p. 160
OBJ: 5
TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions
TRUE/FALSE 1. Skeletal muscle is also called striated muscle. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Skeletal muscle
REF: p. 152
2. Smooth muscle is also called voluntary muscle. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Smooth muscle
REF: p. 152
3. Cardiac muscle is found in the heart. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cardiac muscle
REF: p. 152
4. Like skeletal muscles, cardiac muscles have striations. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cardiac muscle
REF: p. 152
5. Like skeletal muscles, cardiac muscles have intercalated disks. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cardiac muscle
REF: p. 152
6. Involuntary muscles are also called visceral muscles. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Smooth muscle
REF: p. 152
7. Tendons anchor muscles to bones. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Muscle organs
REF: p. 153
8. The insertion of a muscle is on the more stationary bone. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Muscle organs
REF: p. 153
9. The origin of a muscle is on the more movable bone. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Muscle organs
REF: p. 153
10. The origin of a muscle is on the more stationary bone. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Muscle organs
REF: p. 153
11. Bursae are small, fluid-filled sacs that lie between some tendons and bones. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Muscle organs
REF: p. 153
12. The thin myofilament in a muscle fiber is made of actin. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure of muscle fibers
REF: p. 153
13. The thick myofilament in a muscle fiber is made of actin. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure of muscle fibers
REF: p. 153
14. The basic contractile unit of a muscle is called a sarcomere. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure of muscle fibers
REF: p. 153
15. Z lines mark the ends of individual sarcomeres. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure of muscle fibers
REF: p. 154
16. In order for the necessary bridges to form, potassium must be released from the endoplasmic reticulum. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Contraction of muscle fibers
REF: p. 154
17. In the sliding filament model of muscle contraction, bridges are formed between the myosin and actin. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Contraction of muscle fibers
REF: p. 154
18. Energy for muscle contraction is provided when ATP is broken down. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Contraction of muscle fibers
REF: p. 154
19. In order for movement to take place, when the prime mover contracts, the synergist must relax.
ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Movement
REF: p. 155
20. In order for movement to take place, the antagonists must do the opposite of the prime mover. ANS: T TOP: Movement
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 155
OBJ: 2
21. Tonic contractions provide rapid movement for skeletal muscles. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Posture
REF: p. 155
22. Good posture can be defined as holding the body parts in the position that favors best function. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Posture
REF: p. 156
23. The production of heat is a function of the muscular system. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Heat production
REF: p. 156
24. Hypothermia refers to a dangerous elevation in body temperature. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Heat production
REF: p. 156
25. The breakdown of ATP is the energy source that helps supply heat to the body. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Heat production
REF: p. 156
26. During strenuous exercise, the muscles’ use of oxygen and nutrients can outstrip the blood’s ability to supply them. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Fatigue
REF: p. 156
27. When muscles must use energy release that does not require oxygen, the waste product ascorbic acid is produced, which can cause soreness in the muscle. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Fatigue
REF: p. 156
28. The term oxygen debt describes the continued increased metabolism that must occur in a cell to remove the excess acid that accumulates during prolonged exercise. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Fatigue
REF: p. 156
29. The respiratory and nervous systems, in addition to the muscular system, play important roles in body movement. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 156 TOP: Role of other body systems in movement
30. A motor neuron and all the muscle cells it stimulates are called a neuromuscular junction. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Motor unit
REF: p. 157
31. A motor neuron and all the muscle cells it stimulates are called a motor unit. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Motor unit
REF: p. 157
32. The point of contact between the nerve and muscle is called a motor unit. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Motor unit
REF: p. 157
33. The minimum level of stimulation required to cause a muscle fiber to contract is called the threshold stimulus. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Muscle stimulus
REF: p. 158
34. When a muscle fiber is exposed to a greater-than-threshold stimulus, it contracts completely. This is called an all-or-none response. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Muscle stimulus
REF: p. 158
35. All motor units in a given muscle have the same threshold stimulus. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Muscle stimulus
Creating
REF: p. 158
OBJ: 3
36. The lifting of a 10-pound weight requires the activation of fewer motor units than the lifting of a 5-pound weight. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Muscle stimulus
Applying
REF: p. 158
OBJ: 3
37. Twitch contractions play an important role in normal muscle activity. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Twitch and tetanic contractions
REF: p. 158
38. Lifting your textbook off the desk is an example of an isotonic muscle contraction. ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: Isotonic contraction
REF: p. 158
OBJ: 3
39. Trying to lift a car (and failing) is an example of an isotonic muscle contraction. ANS: F DIF: Applying TOP: Isometric contraction
REF: p. 159
OBJ: 3
40. In an isometric contraction, no movement occurs but the muscle tension increases. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Isometric contraction
REF: p. 159
41. Prolonged inactivity in a muscle can result in disuse hypertrophy. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 159 TOP: Effects of exercise on skeletal muscles
42. Strength training results in an increase in the number of muscle fibers. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 159 TOP: Effects of exercise on skeletal muscles
43. Strength training results in an increase in the number of myofilaments in each muscle fiber. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 159 TOP: Effects of exercise on skeletal muscles
44. Endurance training causes muscle hypertrophy. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 159 TOP: Effects of exercise on skeletal muscles
45. Endurance training increases the blood flow to a muscle. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 159 TOP: Effects of exercise on skeletal muscles
46. Tenosynovitis in the wrist can cause carpal tunnel syndrome. ANS: T
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 162
OBJ: 5
TOP: Clinical Application: Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
47. The contraction of the biceps brachii muscle causes flexion of the elbow joint. ANS: T DIF: Applying REF: p. 160 TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions
OBJ: 5
48. Dorsiflexion allows you to stand on your toes. ANS: F DIF: Applying REF: p. 160 TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions
OBJ: 5
49. Raising your arm laterally away from your body is an example of adduction. ANS: F DIF: Applying REF: p. 160 TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions
OBJ: 5
50. In the anatomical position, the hands are supinated. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 160 TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions
51. Movement of your hand from a supinated to pronated position requires rotation of the forearm. ANS: T DIF: Applying REF: p. 160 TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions
OBJ: 5
52. Most anabolic steroids are made of synthetic testosterone. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 159 TOP: Research, issues, and trends: Enhancing muscle strength
53. Research has shown that anabolic steroids do not increase muscle size and strength. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 159 TOP: Research, issues, and trends: Enhancing muscle strength
54. Research has shown that prolonged use of anabolic steroids can have severe, even life-threatening, consequences. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 159 TOP: Research, issues, and trends: Enhancing muscle strength
55. The overuse of vitamins can cause a serious health problem called hypervitaminosis. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 159 TOP: Research, issues, and trends: Enhancing muscle strength
56. Skeletal muscle cells contain more than one nucleus. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Skeletal muscle
REF: p. 152
57. All muscles specialize in contraction or shortening. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Muscle tissue
REF: p. 152
58. Bursae and tendon sheaths have the same function. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Muscle organs
REF: p. 153
59. The pull of gravity assists the muscles in maintaining body posture. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Posture
REF: p. 156
60. When stimulated, the entire muscle follows the all-or-none law. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Muscle stimulus
REF: p. 158
61. Both tonic and isotonic contractions cause movement of a joint. ANS: F DIF: Applying TOP: Types of muscle contractions
REF: p. 158
OBJ: 3
62. Another name for aerobic training is strength training. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 159 TOP: Effects of exercise on skeletal muscles
63. If you weigh 120 pounds, you have about 50 pounds of skeletal muscles. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 151
64. A fascicle is the loose connective tissue that forms the “packing material” between muscles, bone, and skin. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Muscle organs
REF: p. 152
65. Fascicles are groups of muscle fibers. ANS: T
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 152
OBJ: 1
TOP: Muscle organs
66. Each shaftlike actin fiber has a “head” that sticks out toward the myosin fiber. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure of muscle fibers
REF: p. 153
67. The main function of calcium when it is released into the sarcomere is to assist ATP in energy release. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Contraction of muscle fibers
REF: p. 154
68. The main function of calcium when it is released into the sarcomere is to free the binding protein form the actin and allow it to bind with myosin. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Contraction of muscle fibers
REF: p. 154
69. Skeletal muscles contain a substance called myoglobin that helps store oxygen. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Contraction of muscle fibers
REF: p. 154
70. Tension during muscle lengthening is often called a tonic contraction. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Types of skeletal contractions
REF: p. 158
71. The zygomaticus is sometimes called the “kissing muscle.” ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Muscles of the head and neck
REF: p. 162
72. Neither the intercostal muscles nor the diaphragm can be seen from outside the body. ANS: F DIF: Applying TOP: Muscles of the trunk
REF: p. 166
OBJ: 6
73. There are three muscles that make up the hamstring muscles. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 166 TOP: Muscles that move the lower extremities
Chapter 09: Nervous System Patton: Structure & Function of the Body, 17th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The two principal divisions that make up the nervous system are the: a. central and sympathetic. b. sympathetic and parasympathetic. c. peripheral and central. d. peripheral and autonomic. ANS: C OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 175 TOP: Organization of the nervous system
2. The two types of cells found in the nervous system are: a. motor neurons and sensory neurons. b. neurons and glia cells. c. glia cells and astrocytes. d. neurons and microglia. ANS: B OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cells of the nervous system
REF: p. 176
3. The part of the neuron that carries impulses to the neuron cell body is the: a. dendrite. b. axon. c. neurolemma. d. node of Ranvier. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Neuron structure
REF: p. 176
4. The part of the neuron that carries impulses away from the neuron cell body is the: a. dendrite. b. axon. c. neurolemma. d. node of Ranvier. ANS: B OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Neuron structure
REF: p. 176
5. The types of neurons that carry impulses to the brain and spinal cord are called: a. motor neurons. b. sensory neurons. c. efferent neurons. d. both sensory and efferent neurons. ANS: B OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Sensory neurons
REF: p. 177
6. The types of neurons that carry impulses away from the brain and spinal cord are called: a. motor neurons. b. sensory neurons. c. efferent neurons. d. both motor and efferent neurons. ANS: D
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 177
OBJ: 2
TOP: Motor neurons
7. Interneurons connect: a. efferent neurons to motor neurons. b. afferent neurons to sensory neurons. c. central neurons to afferent neurons. d. afferent neurons to efferent neurons. ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Interneurons
REF: p. 177
8. Cells that produce myelin for the cells of the brain and spinal cord are the: a. Schwann cells. b. microglia. c. astrocytes. d. oligodendrocytes. ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Central glia
REF: p. 177
9. Cells that are important in the blood-brain barrier are the: a. Schwann cells. b. microglia. c. astrocytes. d. oligodendrocytes. ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Central glia
REF: p. 177
10. Cells that produce myelin for cells outside the brain and spinal cord are the: a. Schwann cells. b. microglia. c. astrocytes. d. oligodendrocytes. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Peripheral glia
REF: p. 178
11. Glia cells that act as microbe-eating cells are the: a. Schwann cells. b. microglia. c. astrocytes. d. oligodendrocytes. ANS: B OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Central glia
12. The tough fibrous sheath covering the whole nerve is called the: a. perineurium. b. fascicles. c. epineurium.
REF: p. 177
d. endoneurium. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nerves and tracts
REF: p. 178
13. Reflexes can be: a. a single neuron. b. two neurons. c. three neurons. d. two neurons or three neurons ANS: D OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Neuron pathways
REF: p. 179
14. A synapse is: a. a gap between neurons. b. crossed by a chemical. c. separates the axon end of one neuron from the dendrite of the next. d. a gap between neuron, crossed by a chemical, and separates the axon end of one neuron from the dendrite of the next. ANS: D OBJ: 3
DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of reflex arcs
REF: p. 179
15. The difference between a three- and a two-neuron reflex is that a three-neuron reflex: a. passes through the dorsal root ganglion. b. includes an efferent neuron. c. includes an interneuron. d. includes an afferent neuron. ANS: C DIF: TOP: Neuron pathways
Applying
REF: p. 179
OBJ: 3
16. The resting neuron: a. has a slight negative charge on the exterior. b. has a slight positive charge on the exterior. c. has an excess of sodium inside the cell. d. has a slight negative charge on the exterior and has an excess of sodium inside the cell. ANS: B OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Mechanism of a nerve impulse
REF: p. 181
17. When a section of the resting neuron is stimulated: a. sodium ions rush into the cell. b. sodium ions rush out of the cell. c. the interior of the cell becomes slightly positive. d. sodium ions rush into the cell and the interior of the cell becomes slightly positive. ANS: D OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Mechanism of a nerve impulse
REF: p. 181
18. When the nerve impulse encounters a myelin-covered section of neuron: a. it moves more slowly than it would in nonmyelinated sections. b. it stops. c. it jumps over the myelin. d. it pauses and resumes within seconds. ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Conduction of nerve impulses
REF: p. 181 | p. 182
19. A synapse includes: a. a very narrow synaptic cleft. b. a presynaptic neuron with neurotransmitter receptor sites on its membrane. c. a postsynaptic neuron that releases the neurotransmitter. d. a wide synaptic cleft. ANS: A OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 182 TOP: Structure and function of a synapse
20. Neurotransmitters: a. are released by the postsynaptic neuron. b. are distributed randomly throughout the nervous system. c. can diffuse back into the synaptic knob. d. do not diffuse back into the synaptic knob. ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Neurotransmitters
REF: p. 183
21. The brainstem includes the: a. medulla oblongata, pons, and thalamus. b. medulla oblongata, midbrain, and hypothalamus. c. pons, midbrain, and medulla oblongata. d. medulla oblongata, pons, and cerebellum. ANS: C OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Divisions of the brain
REF: p. 184
22. The “vital centers” (the cardiac, respiratory, and vasomotor centers) are located in the: a. pons. b. midbrain. c. thalamus. d. medulla oblongata. ANS: D OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Brainstem
REF: p. 185
23. The association of sensation with emotion occurs in the: a. hypothalamus. b. thalamus. c. medulla oblongata. d. cerebellum. ANS: B
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 186
OBJ: 5
TOP: Thalamus
24. The regulation of the sleep cycle, water balance, and the production of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) occurs in the: a. hypothalamus. b. thalamus. c. medulla oblongata. d. cerebellum. ANS: A OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Hypothalamus
REF: p. 186
25. The coordination of muscle movement and the maintenance of equilibrium occur in the: a. hypothalamus. b. thalamus. c. medulla oblongata. d. cerebellum. ANS: D OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cerebellum
REF: p. 186
26. Which of the following neurotransmitter is a amines? a. Acetylcholine b. Enkephalin c. Endorphin d. Dopamine ANS: D OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Neurotransmitters
REF: p. 183
27. The right and left sides of the cerebrum are connected by the: a. corpus callosum. b. sulcus. c. gyrus. d. basal ganglia. ANS: A OBJ: 5
DIF: Memorization TOP: Cerebrum
REF: p. 187
28. A cerebrovascular accident (CVA) occurring in the occipital lobe of the cerebrum would affect: a. the ability to speak. b. motor coordination. c. vision. d. memory. ANS: C TOP: Cerebrum
DIF:
Applying
29. The ridges in the cerebrum are called: a. sulci.
REF: p. 188
OBJ: 5
b. gyri. c. corpus callosum. d. cerebral nuclei. ANS: B OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cerebrum
REF: p. 187
30. The functions of the spinal cord include: a. the primary reflex center. b. carrying motor impulses to the brain. c. carrying sensory impulses away from the brain. d. integrating conscious commands. ANS: A OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Spinal cord | Functions
REF: p. 189
31. The tough outer layer of meninges is called the: a. pia mater. b. arachnoid mater. c. dura mater. d. ventricles. ANS: C OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Coverings and fluid spaces
REF: p. 190
32. The autonomic nervous system consists of neurons that conduct impulses from the central nervous system to: a. cardiac muscle. b. smooth muscle. c. glandular tissue. d. cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, and glandular tissue. ANS: D OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Autonomic neurotransmitters
REF: p. 194
33. Which axon releases norepinephrine? a. A sympathetic preganglionic axon b. A sympathetic postganglionic axon c. A parasympathetic preganglionic axon d. A parasympathetic postganglionic axon ANS: B OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Autonomic neurotransmitters
REF: p. 198
34. The parasympathetic nervous system: a. is also called the thoracolumbar system. b. is responsible for the “fight-or-flight” response. c. releases acetylcholine from its postganglionic axons. d. has neurons that enter the sympathetic chain ganglion. ANS: C OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Parasympathetic nervous system
REF: p. 197
35. The sympathetic nervous system: a. is called the thoracolumbar system. b. releases norepinephrine from its preganglionic axon. c. is called the craniosacral system. d. is called the thoracolumbar system and releases norepinephrine from its preganglionic axon. ANS: A OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Sympathetic nervous system
REF: p. 197
36. The axon of an afferent neuron could synapse with: a. a sense organ. b. a muscle cell. c. an interneuron. d. a gland. ANS: C DIF: TOP: Sensory neurons
Applying
REF: p. 177
OBJ: 2
37. An axon of an efferent neuron could synapse with: a. an interneuron. b. a sense organ. c. a muscle cell. d. either a sense organ or a muscle cell. ANS: C DIF: TOP: Motor neurons
Applying
REF: p. 177
OBJ: 2
38. An efferent neuron carries impulses in the direction opposite that of: a. a motor neuron. b. a sensory neuron. c. an afferent neuron. d. a sensory or afferent neuron. ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Memorization TOP: Motor neurons
REF: p. 177
39. Going from the interior to the exterior of a nerve, the layers of connective tissue would be: a. perineurium, epineurium, and fascicle. b. endoneurium, perineurium, and epineurium. c. epineurium, perineurium, and fascicle. d. epineurium, perineurium, and endoneurium. ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nerves and tracts
REF: p. 178
40. Which of the following is a morphinelike neurotransmitter that acts as a natural pain killer? a. Endorphin b. Acetylcholine c. Dopamine
d. Epinephrine ANS: A OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Neurotransmitters
REF: p. 183
41. Which structure is part of the diencephalon? a. Midbrain b. Hypothalamus c. Medulla oblongata d. Pons ANS: B OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Diencephalon
REF: p. 186
42. Which of the following is a function of the thalamus? a. Helps maintain body temperature. b. Associates sensation with emotion. c. Helps regulate water balance. d. Adjusts the output of melatonin. ANS: B OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Thalamus
REF: p. 186
43. The lobe of the brain that deals with vision is the: a. frontal lobe. b. parietal lobe. c. occipital lobe. d. temporal lobe. ANS: C OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cerebrum
REF: p. 189
44. The lobe of the brain that contains the auditory area is the: a. frontal lobe. b. parietal lobe. c. occipital lobe. d. temporal lobe. ANS: D OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cerebrum
REF: p. 189
45. The somatic nervous system controls actions of: a. skeletal muscles. b. smooth muscles. c. glandular epithelial tissue. d. both smooth muscles and glandular tissues. ANS: A OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Autonomic nervous system
REF: p. 195
46. A group of nerve cell bodies in the peripheral nervous system is called a: a. synapse.
b. ganglion. c. tract. d. plexus. ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure of reflex arcs
REF: p. 179
47. Which nervous system makes up part of the autonomic nervous system? a. Parasympathetic nervous system b. Sympathetic nervous system c. Both parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems ANS: C OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Autonomic nervous system
REF: p. 195
48. Postganglionic neurons release acetylcholine as part of which nervous system? a. Parasympathetic nervous system b. Sympathetic nervous system c. Both parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems ANS: A OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Autonomic neurotransmitters
REF: p. 198
49. Which is also called the thoracolumbar nervous system? a. Parasympathetic nervous system b. Sympathetic nervous system c. Both parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems ANS: B OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Sympathetic division
REF: p. 196
50. In which nervous system does the synapse between the preganglionic and postganglionic neurons usually occur some distance away from the spinal cord? a. Parasympathetic nervous system b. Sympathetic nervous system c. Both parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems ANS: A OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Parasympathetic division
REF: p. 197
51. As part of which nervous system do preganglionic neurons synapse with postganglionic neurons going to many different efferent organs? a. Parasympathetic nervous system b. Sympathetic nervous system c. Both parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems ANS: B OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Sympathetic division
REF: p. 196 | p. 197
52. As part of which nervous system do preganglionic neurons release acetylcholine? a. Parasympathetic nervous system b. Sympathetic nervous system
c. Both parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems ANS: C OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Autonomic neurotransmitters
REF: p. 198
53. Which nervous system dominates the control of effector organs under normal, everyday conditions? a. Parasympathetic nervous system b. Sympathetic nervous system c. Both parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems ANS: A OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Parasympathetic division
REF: p. 197
54. In which nervous system does the synapse of the preganglionic and postganglionic neurons usually occur close to the spinal cord? a. Parasympathetic nervous system b. Sympathetic nervous system c. Both parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems ANS: B OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Sympathetic division
REF: p. 197
55. As part of which nervous system do postganglionic neurons release norepinephrine? a. Parasympathetic nervous system b. Sympathetic nervous system c. Both parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems ANS: B OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Autonomic neurotransmitters
REF: p. 198
56. Which nervous system is also called the craniosacral nervous system? a. Parasympathetic nervous system b. Sympathetic nervous system c. Both parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems ANS: A OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Parasympathetic division
REF: p. 197
57. The nervous system and this are the two body-wide communication systems. a. Blood b. Lymph c. Endocrine d. Cardiovascular system composed of both blood and the lymphatic system ANS: C OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 175
58. Which of the following is not considered part of the nervous system as a whole? a. The brain b. The spinal cord c. The eyes
d. The skin ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 175 TOP: Organization of the nervous system
59. These types of neurons are sometimes called connecting neurons: a. sensory neurons. b. interneurons. c. afferent neurons. d. motor neurons. ANS: B OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Interneurons
REF: p. 177
60. Indentations between adjacent Schwann cells are called: a. the nodes of Ranvier. b. the myelin sheath. c. the neurolemma. d. the gyri. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Peripheral glia
REF: p. 178
61. The word glia comes from the Greek word meaning: a. found in the brain. b. glue. c. helper. d. protector. ANS: B OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Glia
REF: p. 177
62. A glioma is: a. a type of tumor. b. a glia cell that forms the blood-brain barrier. c. a glia cell that form a myelin substance in the central nervous system. d. a glia cell that kills microorganisms. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Glia
REF: p. 177
63. Myelinated bundles of axons in the central nervous system are called: a. gray matter. b. tracts. c. white matter. d. both tracts and white matter. ANS: D OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nerves and tracts
64. A nerve is: a. a long individual axon.
REF: p. 178
b. a group of axons. c. a group of cell bodies. d. a group of dendrites. ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nerves and tracts
REF: p. 178
65. A nerve impulse is also called a(n): a. reflex. b. sensation. c. action potential. d. both sensation and action potential. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Neuron pathways
REF: p. 179
66. Which of the following is not true of the cerebellum? a. It is the second largest part of the brain. b. It lies under the occipital lobe of the cerebrum. c. It has gray matter tracts in its interior called the arbor vitae. d. It plays an essential role in the production of normal movements. ANS: C OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cerebellum
REF: p. 186
67. This neurotransmitter is not a amine: a. dopamine. b. acetylcholine. c. serotonin. d. histamine. ANS: B OBJ: 4
DIF: Memorization TOP: Neurotransmitters
REF: p. 183
68. Some of the neurons in this structure function as endocrine glands: a. hypothalamus. b. thalamus. c. cerebellum. d. medulla oblongata. ANS: A OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Hypothalamus
REF: p. 186
69. In the cerebrum, the islands of gray matter within the white matter are called the: a. cerebral basal nuclei. b. cerebral cortex. c. basal ganglia. d. either the cerebral basal nuclei or basal ganglia. ANS: D OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cerebrum
REF: p. 187
70. The innermost membrane covering the brain and spinal cord is called the: a. dura mater. b. pia mater. c. arachnoid mater. d. cerebral mater. ANS: B OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Coverings and fluid spaces
REF: p. 190
71. The middle membrane covering the brain and spinal cord is called the: a. dura mater. b. pia mater. c. arachnoid mater. d. cerebral mater. ANS: C OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Coverings and fluid spaces
REF: p. 190
72. The total number of pairs of both spinal and cranial nerves is: a. 31. b. 12. c. 43. d. 56. ANS: C OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cranial nerves | Spinal nerves
REF: p. 193 | p. 194
MATCHING Match each of the terms with its correct definition or description. a. Dendrite b. Axon c. Astrocyte d. Microglia e. Schwann cell f. Interneuron g. Synaptic Knob h. Serotonin i. Synaptic cleft j. Enkephalins k. Oligodendrocyte l. Afferent neuron m. Saltatory conduction n. Efferent neurons o. Cell body p. Neurotransmitter q. Nodes of Ranvier 1. Part of the axon that releases neurotransmitters. 2. Highly branched part of the neuron that carries impulses toward the cell body.
3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17.
Microbe eaters in the brain. Connects sensory and motor neurons in a reflex arc. Small space between the end of one axon and the next neuron. Neurotransmitter that is a catecholamine. Part of the neuron that conducts impulses away from the cell body. Cells that produce myelin for cells in the peripheral nervous system. Cells that function in the blood-brain barrier. Neurotransmitter that functions as a natural pain killer. Main part of the neuron. Type of nerve impulse that jumps from one node of Ranvier to the next. Type of neuron that carries nerve impulses away from the central nervous system. Glia cell that produces myelin for the central nervous system. Type of neuron that carries nerve impulses toward the central nervous system. Carries a nerve impulse across a synapse. Indentations in between Schwann cells.
1. ANS: OBJ: 2. ANS: OBJ: 3. ANS: OBJ: 4. ANS: OBJ: 5. ANS: OBJ: 6. ANS: OBJ: 7. ANS: OBJ: 8. ANS: OBJ: 9. ANS: OBJ: 10. ANS: OBJ: 11. ANS: OBJ: 12. ANS: OBJ: 13. ANS: OBJ: 14. ANS: OBJ: 15. ANS: OBJ: 16. ANS:
G 4 A 2 D 2 F 3 I 4 H 4 B 2 E 2 C 2 J 4 O 2 M 4 N 2 K 2 L 2 P
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF:
Remembering REF: Structure and function of a synapse Remembering REF: Neuron structure Remembering REF: Central glia Remembering REF: Reflex arcs Remembering REF: Structure and function of a synapse Remembering REF: Neurotransmitters Remembering REF: Neuron structure Remembering REF: Peripheral glia Remembering REF: Central glia Remembering REF: Neurotransmitters Remembering REF: Neuron structure Remembering REF: Conduction of nerve impulses Remembering REF: Motor neurons Remembering REF: Central glia Remembering REF: Sensory neurons Remembering REF:
p. 183 p. 176 p. 177 p. 177 p. 183 p. 183 p. 176 p. 178 p. 177 p. 183 p. 176 p. 182 p. 177 p. 178 p. 177 p. 183
OBJ: 4 17. ANS: Q OBJ: 2
TOP: Neurotransmitters DIF: Remembering TOP: Peripheral glia
REF: p. 178
Match each of the terms with its function or description. a. Brainstem b. Hypothalamus c. Thalamus d. Cerebellum e. Gyrus f. Sulcus g. Corpus callosum h. Spinal cord i. Occipital lobe j. Temporal lobe k. Corpus callosum 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25.
Structure that controls balance and muscle coordination. Structure that contains the “vital centers” for the body. Structure that allows the right and left sides of the brain to communicate. Shallow groove in the cerebrum. Primary reflex center for the body. Structure that regulates body temperature and produces ADH. Ridge in the cerebrum. Structure that links sensation with emotion and is part of the alerting mechanism for the brain. 26. Lobe of the cerebrum that interprets incoming auditory impulses as sound. 27. Lobe of the cerebrum that deals with vision. 28. Group of nerves that connect the right and left sides of the brain. 18. ANS: OBJ: 19. ANS: OBJ: 20. ANS: OBJ: 21. ANS: OBJ: 22. ANS: OBJ: 23. ANS: OBJ: 24. ANS: OBJ: 25. ANS: OBJ: 26. ANS: OBJ:
D 5 A 5 G 5 F 5 H 5 B 5 E 5 C 5 J 5
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering Cerebellum Remembering Brainstem Remembering Cerebrum Remembering Cerebrum Remembering Spinal cord | Functions Remembering Hypothalamus Remembering Cerebrum Remembering Thalamus Remembering Cerebrum
REF: p. 186 REF: p. 185 REF: p. 187 REF: p. 187 REF: p. 189 REF: p. 186 REF: p. 187 REF: p. 186 REF: p. 189
27. ANS: OBJ: 28. ANS: OBJ:
I 5 K 5
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering Cerebrum Remembering Cerebrum
REF: p. 189 REF: p. 187
Match each of the terms with its definition or description. a. Pia mater b. Dura mater c. Cranial nerves d. Spinal nerves e. Arachnoid mater f. Dermatome g. Parasympathetic nervous system h. Sympathetic nervous system i. Acetylcholine j. Norepinephrine 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36.
Skin surface that is supplied by a single spinal nerve. Outermost and toughest of the meninges. 31 pairs of these make up part of the peripheral nervous system. “Cobweb”-like part of the meninges. Regulates the “fight-or-flight” response. Thin innermost layer of the meninges. 12 pairs of these make up part of the peripheral nervous system. Neurotransmitter that is released from the postganglionic axons of the parasympathetic nervous system. 37. Sometimes called the craniosacral nervous system. 38. Neurotransmitter that is released from the postganglionic axon or the sympathetic nervous system. 29. ANS: OBJ: 30. ANS: OBJ: 31. ANS: OBJ: 32. ANS: OBJ: 33. ANS: OBJ: 34. ANS: OBJ: 35. ANS: OBJ: 36. ANS: OBJ: 37. ANS: OBJ:
F 6 B 5 D 6 E 5 H 7 A 5 C 6 I 7 G 7
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering Spinal nerves | Functions Memorization Coverings and fluid spaces Remembering Spinal nerves | Structure Remembering Coverings and fluid spaces Remembering Sympathetic division Remembering Coverings and fluid spaces Remembering Cranial nerves Remembering Autonomic neurotransmitters Remembering Parasympathetic division
REF: p. 194 | p. 195 REF: p. 190 REF: p. 194 REF: p. 190 REF: p. 196 REF: p. 190 REF: p. 193 REF: p. 198 REF: p. 197
38. ANS: J OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Autonomic neurotransmitters
REF: p. 198
Match the cranial nerve with its function. a. Olfactory b. Optic c. Trochlear d. Trigeminal e. Facial f. Vestibulocochlear g. Glossopharyngeal h. Vagus i. Accessory j. Hypoglossal 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48.
Shoulder movement and turning movement of the head Eye movement Sense of smell Sense of taste, contraction of muscles of facial expression Tongue movements Sense of vision Sensations of face, scalp, and teeth; chewing movements Hearing and sense of balance Sensations of throat, taste, swallowing movements, secretion of saliva Sensations of throat and larynx and of thoracic and abdominal organs; swallowing, voice production, slowing of heartbeat, acceleration of peristalsis
39. ANS: OBJ: 40. ANS: OBJ: 41. ANS: OBJ: 42. ANS: OBJ: 43. ANS: OBJ: 44. ANS: OBJ: 45. ANS: OBJ: 46. ANS: OBJ: 47. ANS: OBJ: 48. ANS: OBJ:
I 6 C 6 A 6 E 6 J 6 B 6 D 6 F 6 G 6 H 6
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Memorization Table 9-3 | Cranial nerves Memorization Table 9-3 | Cranial nerves Memorization Table 9-3 | Cranial nerves Memorization Table 9-3 | Cranial nerves Memorization Table 9-3 | Cranial nerves Memorization Table 9-3 | Cranial nerves Memorization Table 9-3 | Cranial nerves Memorization Table 9-3 | Cranial nerves Memorization Table 9-3 | Cranial nerves Memorization Table 9-3 | Cranial nerves
REF: p. 194 REF: p. 194 REF: p. 194 REF: p. 194 REF: p. 194 REF: p. 194 REF: p. 194 REF: p. 194 REF: p. 194 REF: p. 194
TRUE/FALSE 1. One of the differences between how the endocrine system and nervous system control body functions is the more rapid communication of the nervous system. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 175
2. There are two types of cells in the nervous system: neurons and glia cells. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cells of the nervous system
REF: p. 176
3. An axon transmits impulses toward the cell body. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Neuron structure
REF: p. 176
4. Neurons can be classified based on the direction in which they transmit impulses. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of neurons
REF: p. 177
5. Motor neurons conduct impulses toward the central nervous system. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Motor neurons
REF: p. 177
6. Sensory neurons are also called efferent neurons. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Sensory neurons
REF: p. 177
7. One of the most common types of brain tumors develops from glia cells. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Glia
REF: p. 177
8. Astrocytes produce myelin for the cells of the central nervous system. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Central glia
REF: p. 177
9. Microglia helps protect the brain by eating microbes that may enter the brain. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Central glia
REF: p. 177
10. Oligodendrocytes are important in the formation of the blood-brain barrier. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Central glia
REF: p. 178
11. Schwann cells produce myelin for neurons outside the central nervous system. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Peripheral glia
REF: p. 178
12. Nodes of Ranvier are indentations between Schwann cells. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Peripheral glia
REF: p. 178
13. One of the differences between white matter and gray matter is that gray matter has a myelin sheath. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nerves and tracts
REF: p. 178
14. Perineurium surrounds fascicle. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nerves and tracts
REF: p. 178
15. The tough outer fibrous sheath that covers the whole nerve is called the endoneurium. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nerves and tracts
REF: p. 178
16. Two neuron reflexes contain an interneuron and a motor neuron. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Neuron pathways
REF: p. 178
17. A ganglion is a group of nerve cell bodies located in the peripheral nervous system. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Neuron pathways
REF: p. 179
18. The difference between a two- and three-neuron reflex is the presence of an interneuron. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Neuron pathways
REF: p. 179
19. All interneurons are found in the central nervous system. ANS: T
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 180
OBJ: 3
TOP: Neuron pathways
20. Multiple sclerosis is a disorder caused by injury or death to the oligodendrocytes. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 180 TOP: Clinical Application: Multiple Sclerosis (MS)
21. Each resting neuron has a slight positive charge on the outside. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Mechanism of a nerve impulse
REF: p. 181
22. In the resting neuron, there is an excess of sodium ions on the interior of the cell. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Mechanism of a nerve impulse
REF: p. 181
23. When a resting neuron is stimulated, sodium ions rush into the cell, causing the interior to become negatively charged. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Mechanism of a nerve impulse
REF: p. 181
24. Saltatory conduction occurs when a nerve impulse jumps over the myelin sheath of an axon. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Conduction of nerve impulses
REF: p. 181 | p. 182
25. Saltatory conduction tends to be slower than nonsaltatory nerve conduction. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Conduction of nerve impulses
REF: p. 181 | p. 182
26. The synaptic knob is on the postsynaptic neuron. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 183 TOP: Structure and function of a synapse
27. The synaptic knob contains and releases neurotransmitters. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 183 TOP: Structure and function of a synapse
28. Neurotransmitter receptors are located on the presynaptic neuron. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 183 TOP: Structure and function of a synapse
29. Neurotransmitter activity is terminated when it is transported back into the synaptic knob.
ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 183 TOP: Structure and function of a synapse
30. Acetylcholine is an example of a amine. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Neurotransmitters
REF: p. 183
31. Dopamine and serotonin are neurotransmitters that can act as natural pain killers. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Neurotransmitters
REF: p. 183
32. The brainstem consists of the medulla oblongata, the pons, and the midbrain. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Brainstem
REF: p. 185
33. Many of the “vital centers” are located in the brainstem. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Brainstem
REF: p. 185
34. The hypothalamus is important in regulation of body temperature. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Hypothalamus
REF: p. 186
35. The hypothalamus secretes ADH into the blood to help control water balance. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Hypothalamus
REF: p. 186
36. The hypothalamus plays an important part in the arousal or alerting mechanism in the brain. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Hypothalamus
REF: p. 186
37. The thalamus plays an important role in associating sensations with emotions. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Thalamus
REF: p. 186
38. The cerebellum helps in muscle coordination and equilibrium. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cerebellum
REF: p. 186
39. The ridges in the cerebrum are called sulci. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cerebrum
REF: p. 187
40. The deepest grooves in the cerebrum are called fissures. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cerebrum
REF: p. 187
41. The corpus callosum allows the right and left sides of the brain to communicate with each other. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cerebrum
REF: p. 187
42. Parkinson’s disease results from a deficiency of the neurotransmitter dopamine. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 187 TOP: Research, issues, and trends: Parkinson disease
43. Injections of dopamine have been used successfully to treat the symptoms of Parkinson’s disease. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 187 TOP: Research, issues, and trends: Parkinson disease
44. When a neuron depolarizes, the interior becomes more positive. ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: Mechanism of a nerve impulse
REF: p. 181
OBJ: 4
45. The primary auditory area is in the parietal lobe of the cerebrum. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cerebrum
REF: p. 189
46. The visual association area is in the occipital lobe of the cerebrum. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cerebrum
REF: p. 189
47. Your spinal cord begins at the base of the skull and ends at the second sacral vertebrae. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Spinal cord | Structure
REF: p. 189
48. The spinal cord functions as the primary reflex center for the body.
ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Spinal cord | Functions
REF: p. 189
49. The pia mater is the tough outermost layer of meninges. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Coverings and fluid spaces
REF: p. 190
50. The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is filtered out of the blood in the choroid plexus. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cerebrospinal fluid spaces
REF: p. 191
51. A lumbar puncture can be safely done at T4 because the spinal cord is very deep there. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 193 TOP: Clinical Application: Lumbar Puncture
52. The peripheral nervous system consists of the 12 pairs of cranial nerves and 31 pairs of spinal nerves and all of their branches. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 193 | p. 194 TOP: Cranial nerves | Spinal nerves | Structure
53. Most of the cranial nerves come from the brainstem. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cranial nerves
REF: p. 193
54. The skin surface area that is supplied by a single cranial nerve is called a dermatome. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Spinal nerves
REF: p. 194
55. The autonomic nervous system conducts impulses to cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, and skeletal muscle. ANS: F OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Autonomic nervous system
REF: p. 194
56. The sympathetic nervous system is also called the craniosacral nervous system. ANS: F OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Sympathetic division
REF: p. 196
57. Preganglionic axons of the sympathetic nervous system enter the sympathetic chain ganglion. ANS: T
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 197
OBJ: 7
TOP: Sympathetic division
58. Preganglionic axons of the sympathetic nervous system release norepinephrine. ANS: F OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Autonomic neurotransmitters
REF: p. 198
59. The sympathetic nervous system regulates the “fight-or-flight” response. ANS: T OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Sympathetic division
REF: p. 197
60. The parasympathetic nervous system is also called the thoracolumbar system. ANS: F OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Parasympathetic division
REF: p. 197
61. Postganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic nervous system have short axons. ANS: T OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Autonomic neurotransmitters
REF: p. 198
62. Preganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic nervous system release norepinephrine. ANS: F OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Autonomic neurotransmitters
REF: p. 198
63. Postganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic nervous system release norepinephrine. ANS: F OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Autonomic neurotransmitters
REF: p. 198
64. Postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system release norepinephrine. ANS: T OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Autonomic neurotransmitters
REF: p. 198
65. In normal, everyday conditions, the parasympathetic nervous system dominates control over many visceral effectors. ANS: T OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Parasympathetic division
REF: p. 197
66. The eyes and ears are considered organs of the nervous system. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 175 TOP: Organization of the nervous system
67. One of the divisions of the central nervous system is the autonomic nervous system.
ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 175 TOP: Organization of the nervous system
68. A nerve cell and a neuron are the same thing. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cells of the nervous system
REF: p. 176
69. Only myelinated fibers can have nodes of Ranvier. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Peripheral glia
Applying
REF: p. 178
OBJ: 2
70. Myelinated fibers have dendrites of the neuron surrounded by Schwann cells. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Peripheral glia
REF: p. 178
71. The presence of a neurilemma is necessary for the repair of an injured neuron. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Peripheral glia
REF: p. 178
72. Oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells have the same function but in different parts of the nervous system. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Glia
REF: p. 177 | p. 178
73. The terms nerve and neuron mean the same thing. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Nerves and tracts
Applying
REF: p. 178
OBJ: 3
74. A ganglion is a group of cell bodies located in the central nervous system. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Neuron pathways
REF: p. 179
75. Saltatory conduction occurs only in myelinated neurons. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Conduction of nerve impulses
REF: p. 181 | p. 182
76. Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter released in the neuromuscular junction. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Neurotransmitters
Applying
REF: p. 183
OBJ: 4
77. The midbrain is an enlarged upward extension of the spinal cord just inside the cranial cavity. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Brainstem
REF: p. 185
78. The hypothalamus releases chemicals that stimulate the release of hormones by the posterior pituitary gland. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Hypothalamus
REF: p. 186
79. Islands of gray matter in the white matter of the cerebrum are called basal ganglia. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cerebrum
REF: p. 187
80. The dura mater, pia mater, and arachnoid are layers of the meninges. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Coverings and fluid spaces
REF: p. 190
81. Cerebrospinal fluid is returned to the blood by being absorbed in the choroid plexus. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cerebrospinal fluid spaces
REF: p. 191
82. A blockage of the flow of cerebrospinal fluid can result in a condition called hydrocephalus. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cerebrospinal fluid spaces
REF: p. 192
83. A plexus allows the fibers from several spinal nerves to reorganize into a single peripheral nerve. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Spinal nerves | Structure
REF: p. 194
84. A skin surface area supplied by a single spinal nerve is called a plexus. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Spinal nerves | Structure
REF: p. 194
85. The autonomic nervous system is more likely to stimulate a smooth muscle than a voluntary muscle. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Introduction
Applying
REF: p. 175
OBJ: 1
86. Only nonmyelinated axons can have a neurilemma. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Peripheral glia
Applying
REF: p. 178
OBJ: 2
87. White matter in the central nervous system has only axons, not dendrites of cell bodies. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nerves and tracts
REF: p. 178
88. Gray matter can be made up of axons, dendrites, or cell bodies. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nerves and tracts
REF: p. 178
89. The knee-jerk reflex uses one more neuron than does the withdrawal reflex. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Reflex responses
Applying
REF: p. 179
OBJ: 3
90. Fissures in the central nervous system are the same as gyri, except they are deeper. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cerebrum
REF: p. 187
91. There are 24 cranial nerves. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cranial nerves
REF: p. 193
92. The two systems involved in body-wide communications are the nervous system and the circulatory system. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 175
93. The autonomic nervous system is a subdivision of the central nervous system. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 175 TOP: Organization of the nervous system
94. The main part of the neuron is the cell body. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Neuron structure
95. Dendrites carry nerve impulses toward the cell body of the neuron.
REF: p. 176
ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Neuron structure
REF: p. 176
96. Another name for a nerve impulse is a saltatory conduction. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Neuron pathways
REF: p. 181 | p. 182
97. The nerve impulse can only travel in one direction. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Conduction of nerve impulses
REF: p. 181
98. Unlike other neurotransmitters, nitric oxide passed directly through the plasma membrane rather than being released by vesicles. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Neurotransmitters
REF: p. 183
99. The brainstem is the second largest part of the brain. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cerebellum
REF: p. 186
100. The white tracts in the cerebellum form a treelike structure called the arbor vitae. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cerebellum
REF: p. 186
101. The pineal gland releases a “timekeeping hormone” called calcitonin. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pineal gland
REF: p. 187
102. Spinal tracts are made up of gray matter in the spinal cord. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Spinal cord
REF: p. 189
103. The middle layer of meninges is called the arachnoid mater. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Coverings and fluid spaces
REF: p. 190
104. The limbic system of the cerebral cortex is also called the emotional brain. ANS: T OBJ: 7
Chapter 10: Senses
DIF: Remembering TOP: Autonomic nervous system
REF: p. 199
Patton: Structure & Function of the Body, 17th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The sense of hearing can be classified as a: a. proprioceptor. b. mechanoreceptor. c. thermoreceptor. d. photoreceptor. ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Special sense organs
REF: p. 210
2. The sense of sight can be classified as a: a. proprioceptor. b. chemoreceptor. c. thermoreceptor. d. photoreceptor. ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Special sense organs
3. The Golgi tendon receptors can be classified as: a. proprioceptors. b. chemoreceptors. c. thermoreceptors. d. photoreceptors. ANS: A DIF: Remembering REF: p. 210 (Table 10-1) OBJ: 1 TOP: General sense organs 4. The free nerve endings in the skin respond to: a. high-frequency vibration. b. low-frequency vibration. c. pain. d. touch. ANS: C DIF: Remembering REF: p. 210 (Table 10-1) OBJ: 3 TOP: General sense organs 5. General sense organs can be found in the highest concentration in: a. muscle tissue. b. the skin. c. the tendons and connective tissue. d. the deep internal organs. ANS: B DIF: REF: p. 210 (Table 10-1)
Remembering OBJ: 3
REF: p. 210
TOP: General sense organs 6. The white part of the eye is called the: a. cornea. b. choroid. c. iris. d. sclera. ANS: D OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 212
7. The conjunctiva: a. is a mucous membrane covering part of the eye. b. opens and closes to regulate the light entering the eye. c. is the colored part of the eye. d. is the clear part of the sclera. ANS: A OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 213
8. The colored part of the eye is called the: a. conjunctiva. b. pupil. c. iris. d. lacrimal gland. ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 213
9. The cornea: a. is the colored part of the eye. b. produces tears. c. is the mucous covering of the eye. d. is the clear part of the sclera in the front of the eye. ANS: D OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 212
10. The pupil: a. is a hole that lets light into the eye. b. is the colored part of the eye. c. produces tears. d. helps focus light on the rear of the eye. ANS: A OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the eye
11. The choroid layer: a. helps focus light on the rear of the eye. b. produces tears. c. prevents the scattering of incoming light rays.
REF: p. 213
d. is the white of the eye. ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 213
12. The innermost layer of the eye is the: a. conjunctiva. b. choroid. c. sclera. d. retina. ANS: D OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 214
13. The rods in the eye: a. are part of the choroid layer. b. respond to the colors red, green, and blue. c. are used to see in dim light. d. are part of the sclera layer. ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 214
14. The cones in the eye: a. are part of the retinal layer. b. respond to the colors red, green, and blue. c. are used to see in dim light. d. are part of the retinal layer and they respond to the colors red, green, and blue. ANS: D OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 214
15. The part of the eye with the highest concentration of cones is the: a. macula lutea. b. fovea centralis. c. optic disc. d. choroid layer. ANS: B OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 215
16. The “blind spot” of the eye is also called the: a. macula lutea. b. fovea centralis. c. optic disc. d. choroid layer. ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the eye
17. The vitreous humor: a. is found in the anterior cavity.
REF: p. 216
b. is found in the posterior chamber. c. is a watery fluid in front of the lens. d. is found around the surface of the eye. ANS: B OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 216
18. The external ear is called the: a. auricle. b. tympanic membrane. c. pinna. d. auricle or pinna. ANS: D OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the ear
REF: p. 217
19. The eardrum is: a. also called the tympanic membrane. b. at the end of the auditory tube. c. part of the inner ear. d. is part of the cochlea. ANS: A OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the ear
REF: p. 218
20. The sequence of the ossicles from the eardrum to the inner ear is: a. malleus, stapes, incus. b. stapes, incus, malleus. c. malleus, incus, stapes. d. stapes, incus, cochlea. ANS: C OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the ear
REF: p. 219
21. In the middle ear, the: a. incus rests against the organ of Corti. b. tympanic membrane rests against the stapes. c. tympanic membrane rests against the incus. d. stapes rests against the oval window. ANS: D OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the ear
REF: p. 219
22. The structure that separates the middle ear from the inner ear is the: a. tympanic membrane. b. oval window. c. ossicles. d. auditory canal. ANS: B OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the ear
REF: p. 219
23. The inner ear consists of three spaces, which are the: a. perilymph, vestibule, and the cochlea. b. endolymph, vestibule, and the cochlea. c. vestibule, semicircular canals, and the cochlea. d. vestibule, semicircular canals, and the endolymph. ANS: C OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the ear
REF: p. 219
24. The perilymph is: a. inside the semicircular canal. b. inside the cochlea. c. inside the bony labyrinth. d. inside the membranous labyrinth. ANS: C OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the ear
REF: p. 219
25. Endolymph is: a. inside the cochlea. b. inside the semicircular canals. c. just inside the bony labyrinth. d. inside the cochlea and the semicircular canals. ANS: D OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the ear
REF: p. 219
26. The sense of balance: a. is classified as a proprioceptor. b. occurs in the cochlea. c. occurs in the ossicles. d. is classified as a mechanoreceptor. ANS: D OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Equilibrium
REF: p. 220
27. The sense of balance occurs in the: a. ossicles. b. semicircular canals. c. vestibule. d. semicircular canals and the vestibule. ANS: D OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Equilibrium
REF: p. 221
28. The specific organ of hearing is called the: a. cochlea. b. semicircular canal. c. organ of Corti. d. tympanic membrane. ANS: C
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 220
OBJ: 5
TOP: Hearing
29. The sense of taste is classified as a: a. proprioceptor. b. chemoreceptor. c. mechanoreceptor. d. thermoreceptor. ANS: B OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Taste
REF: p. 221
30. The cells responsible for the sense of taste are the: a. taste buds. b. papillae cells. c. salivary cells. d. gustatory cells. ANS: D OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Taste
REF: p. 221 | p. 222
31. The six primary taste sensations are: a. sweet, salty, fruity, metallic, umami, bitter. b. sweet, salty, metallic, bitter, sour, umami. c. sweet, metallic, sour, umami, fruity, salty. d. umami, sweet, fruity, bitter, sour, metallic. ANS: B OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Taste
REF: p. 222
32. The sense of smell is classified as: a. a proprioceptor. b. a chemoreceptor. c. a mechanoreceptor. d. a thermoreceptor. ANS: B OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Smell
REF: p. 222
33. The olfactory receptors: a. also assist in the sense of taste. b. are able to respond to four primary odors. c. are not sensitive because of the location of the receptors. d. also assist in the sense of sight. ANS: A TOP: Taste
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 222
34. The sense of smell is: a. sensitive. b. easily adapted. c. can respond to chemicals dissolved in water.
OBJ: 7
d. sensitive, easily adapted, and can respond to chemicals dissolved in water. ANS: D OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Smell
REF: p. 222
35. The sense of smell is able to stimulate vivid memories because the olfactory tract passes through the: a. hypothalamus. b. limbic. c. cerebellum. d. brainstem. ANS: B OBJ: 8
DIF: Remembering TOP: Smell
REF: p. 222
36. Which of the following sensations is generated by a general sense organ? a. Touch b. Taste c. Equilibrium d. Both touch and equilibrium ANS: A OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Classification of senses
REF: p. 209
37. Which of the following sensations is generated by a special sense? a. Touch b. Taste c. Pressure d. Touch, taste, and pressure ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Classification of senses
REF: p. 210
38. Which of the following is not considered one of the layers of the eye? a. Retina b. Sclera c. Iris d. Choroid ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 212
39. Which of the following is not part of the vascular layer of the eye? a. Iris b. Cornea c. Ciliary muscle d. Pupil ANS: B OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 213
40. Which of the following is not true about the senses of taste and smell?
a. b. c. d.
Both are chemoreceptors. Both contribute to the sense of taste Chemicals must be dissolved to stimulate the receptor. Both respond to six primary stimuli.
ANS: D OBJ: 6
DIF: Applying REF: p. 221 | p. 222 TOP: Taste | Smell
41. The vestibular nerve contains a nerve from the: a. semicircular canals. b. vestibule. c. cochlea. d. semicircular canals and vestibule. ANS: D OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Equilibrium
REF: p. 221
42. Which sensation is not sensed by a general sense organ? a. Temperature b. Equilibrium c. Touch d. Temperature, equilibrium, and touch ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Classification of senses
REF: p. 210
43. Which sensation is not sensed by a special sense organ? a. Smell b. Equilibrium c. Taste d. Smell, equilibrium, and taste ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Classification of senses
REF: p. 210
44. Which of the following is not true of a general sense organ? a. They are microscopic in size. b. They respond to touch and pressure. c. They are grouped in a localized area. d. They are not evenly distributed over the body surface. ANS: C OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Classification of senses
REF: p. 209
45. This is a functional characteristic of all sense organs: a. must be able to detect a stimulus. b. must be able to detect a change in the intensity of the stimulus. c. must be able to change the stimulus into a nerve impulse. d. must be able to detect a stimulus, detect a change in the intensity of the stimulus, and able to change the stimulus into a nerve impulse. ANS: D
DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 210 | p. 211
OBJ: 2
TOP: Sensory pathways
46. A condition where the lens of the eye becomes milky in appearance and loses its transparency is called: a. a cataract. b. presbyopia. c. otitis media. d. glaucoma. ANS: A OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 214
47. An infection of the middle ear is called: a. a cataract. b. presbyopia. c. otitis media. d. glaucoma. ANS: C OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Middle ear
REF: p. 219
48. An increase in pressure inside the eye is called: a. a cataract. b. presbyopia. c. otitis media. d. glaucoma. ANS: D OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 216
49. The “farsightedness” of old age is called: a. a cataract. b. presbyopia. c. otitis media. d. glaucoma. ANS: B OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 213
50. Which of the following is part of the sensory pathway of all sense organs? a. Able to sense or detect a stimulus. b. Detection of a stimulus is converted to a nerve impulse. c. Signal from nerve impulse is conducted to the brain. d. Processing information is the sensation perceived in the brain. e. Able to sense or detect a stimulus, convert it to a nerve impulse, conduct nerve impulse to the brain, and the processed information is perceived in the brain. ANS: E OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Sensory pathways
REF: p. 210 | p. 211
51. Why are the many unique flavors we recognize not just tastes alone but a combination of sensations based on tastes, odors, touch, temperature, and pain? a. All incoming signals are integrated with the spinal cord. b. All incoming signals are integrated with other sensory signals and even memories to produce our perceptions. c. All senses follow the same nerve pathway to the brain. d. Taste buds follow the same sensory pathways as other special senses. ANS: B OBJ: 8
DIF: Remembering TOP: Integration of senses
REF: p. 223
MATCHING Match each of the following terms with its function or description. a. Sclera b. Cornea c. Retina d. Rods e. Cones f. Iris g. Pupil h. Choroid i. Conjunctiva j. Lens 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Sometimes called the window of the eye Colored part of the eye Hole in the eye that lets light in Layer of the eye that keeps light from scattering in the eye Structures in the retina that are able to respond to color White of the eye Mucous membrane covering part of the sclera Structure that is changed in shape by ciliary muscles to facilitate focus of light Innermost layer of the eye Structures in the retina that respond in dim light
1. ANS: OBJ: 2. ANS: OBJ: 3. ANS: OBJ: 4. ANS: OBJ: 5. ANS: OBJ: 6. ANS: OBJ:
B 4 F 4 G 4 H 4 E 4 A 4
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering Structure and function of the eye Remembering Structure and function of the eye Remembering Structure and function of the eye Remembering Structure and function of the eye Remembering Structure and function of the eye Remembering Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 212 REF: p. 213 REF: p. 213 REF: p. 213 REF: p. 214 REF: p. 212
7. ANS: OBJ: 8. ANS: OBJ: 9. ANS: OBJ: 10. ANS: OBJ:
I 4 J 4 C 4 D 4
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering Structure and function of the eye Remembering Structure and function of the eye Remembering Structure and function of the eye Remembering Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 213 REF: p. 213 REF: p. 214 REF: p. 214
Match each of the following terms with its function or description. a. Tympanic membrane b. Malleus c. Stapes d. Semicircular canal e. Endolymph f. Perilymph g. Organ of Corti h. Oval window i. Pinna j. Auditory tube 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
Ossicle that rests against the eardrum Another term for the external ear Thicker fluid in the inner ear Structure that gives us our sense of balance Ossicle that rests against the oval window Another term for the eardrum Specific organ of hearing Separates the middle ear from the inner ear Thinner fluid in the inner ear Connects the throat to the middle ear
11. ANS: OBJ: 12. ANS: OBJ: 13. ANS: OBJ: 14. ANS: OBJ: 15. ANS: OBJ: 16. ANS: OBJ: 17. ANS: OBJ: 18. ANS: OBJ:
B 5 I 5 E 5 D 5 C 5 A 5 G 5 H 5
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering Structure and function of the ear Remembering Structure and function of the ear Remembering Structure and function of the ear Remembering Structure and function of the ear Remembering Structure and function of the ear Remembering Structure and function of the ear Remembering Structure and function of the ear Remembering Structure and function of the ear
REF: p. 219 REF: p. 217 REF: p. 219 REF: p. 220 REF: p. 219 REF: p. 218 REF: p. 220 REF: p. 219
19. ANS: OBJ: 20. ANS: OBJ:
F 5 J 5
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering Structure and function of the ear Remembering Structure and function of the ear
REF: p. 219 REF: p. 219
Match each of the following terms with its function or description. a. General sense organ b. Pacini corpuscle c. Mechanoreceptor d. Proprioceptor e. Photoreceptor f. Papillae g. Free nerve ending h. Special sense organ i. Gustatory cells j. Olfactory receptors k. Golgi tendon receptor 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31.
General sense organ that responds to pain and temperature. Microscopic sense organ distributed all over the body. Chemoreceptor responsible for the sense of taste. Receptor that responds to light. Receptor that provides information on position or movement of body parts. Taste buds are located here. Example of a mechanoreceptor. Chemoreceptor for the sense of smell. Example of a proprioceptor. Sense organ that has receptors grouped in a localized area or in complex organs. General sense organ that is activated by stimuli that deform or change the shape of the receptor.
21. ANS: REF: 22. ANS: REF: 23. ANS: OBJ: 24. ANS: OBJ: 25. ANS: OBJ: 26. ANS: OBJ: 27. ANS: REF: 28. ANS: OBJ: 29. ANS:
G DIF: p. 210 (Table 10-1) A DIF: p. 210 (Table 10-1) I DIF: 6 TOP: E DIF: 4 TOP: D DIF: 3 TOP: F DIF: 6 TOP: B DIF: p. 210 (Table 10-1) J DIF: 7 TOP: K DIF:
Remembering OBJ: 3
TOP: General senses
Remembering OBJ: 3 Remembering Taste Remembering Structure and function of the eye Remembering General senses Remembering Taste Remembering OBJ: 3 Remembering Smell Remembering
TOP: General senses REF: p. 221 | p. 222 REF: p. 210 REF: p. 211 REF: p. 222
TOP: General senses REF: p. 222 REF: p. 211
OBJ: 30. ANS: OBJ: 31. ANS: OBJ:
3 H 1 C 3
TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
General senses Remembering Classification of sense organs Remembering General sense organs
REF: p. 210 REF: p. 210
TRUE/FALSE 1. General sense organs are characterized by large complex organs or localized groupings of specialized receptors. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Classification of senses
REF: p. 209
2. One of the main functions of a sense organ is to change a physical stimulus into an electrical signal. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Sensory pathways
Applying
REF: p. 210
OBJ: 2
3. General sense organs are found throughout the body but are most concentrated in the internal organs. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: General senses
REF: p. 211
4. Specialized receptors found near the point of junction between tendons and muscles are called mechanoreceptors. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: General senses
REF: p. 211
5. Muscle spindles can be classified as proprioceptors. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: General senses
REF: p. 211
6. Golgi tendon receptors and muscle spindles are both proprioceptors but are able to sense different things. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: General senses
REF: p. 211
7. Meissner’s corpuscles respond to pain. ANS: F DIF: REF: p. 210 (Table 10-1)
Remembering OBJ: 3
TOP: General senses
8. Ruffini’s corpuscles respond to touch and pressure. ANS: T DIF: REF: p. 210 (Table 10-1)
Remembering OBJ: 3
TOP: General senses
9. Pacinian corpuscles respond to deep pressure. ANS: T DIF: REF: p. 210 (Table 10-1)
Remembering OBJ: 3
TOP: General senses
10. The highest concentration of general sense organs is in the epidermis of the skin. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Applying REF: p. 210 (Table 10-1) TOP: General sense organs
11. You are able to distinguish the difference between lifting a 20-lb weight and a 50-lb weight because of the Golgi tendon receptors. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Applying REF: p. 210 (Table 10-1) TOP: General sense organs
12. The cornea is considered part of the sclera. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 212
13. The iris is considered part of the sclera. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 213
14. The lacrimal gland produces tears that keep the eyes moist. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 213
15. The pupil is the colored part of the eye. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 213
16. The iris is actually a muscle in the choroid layer. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 213
17. In very dim light, the circular fibers of the iris contract, causing the pupil to dilate. ANS: F
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 213
OBJ: 4
TOP: Structure and function of the eye 18. Presbyopia is a term for the nearsightedness of old age. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 213
19. Cataracts may be caused by exposure to the ultraviolet radiation of the sun. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 214
20. A cataract is a condition in which the cornea becomes less transparent and “milky” in appearance. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 214
21. Dim light is able to stimulate the rods in the eye. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 214
22. Colorblindness is a malfunction of the cones of the eye. ANS: T DIF: Applying REF: p. 217 TOP: Clinical Application: Color Blindness
OBJ: 4
23. Cones are used for day vision or vision in bright light. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 214
24. There are three kinds of cones, each sensitive to a different color: red, yellow, or blue. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 215
25. The retina is the innermost layer of the eye. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 214
26. The yellowish area near the center of the retina is called the fovea centralis. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the eye
27. The greatest concentration of rods is found in the macula lutea.
REF: p. 215
ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 215
28. Looking directly at an object in bright light would give us greater visual acuity because the light would be focused on the fovea centralis. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 215
29. One of the functions of the fluids in the eye is to focus light. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 216
30. Aqueous humor is the watery fluid in the posterior chamber of the eye. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 216
31. Vitreous humor is the thick fluid in the posterior chamber of the eye. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 216
32. The potentially blinding condition called glaucoma can occur if the fluid pressure of the eye drops too low. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 216
33. The optic disc is able to respond only to bright light. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 216
34. The nerve impulse of the eye begins when light enters through the iris of the eye and ends in the occipital lobe of the brain. This is called the visual pathway. ANS: F DIF: Creating TOP: Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 216
OBJ: 4
35. The external ear has two parts, the auricle and the pinna. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the ear
36. The tympanic membrane is at the end of the auditory canal.
REF: p. 217
ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the ear
REF: p. 218
37. The ceruminous glands produce ear wax. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the ear
REF: p. 218
38. The ossicles are in the middle ear. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the ear
REF: p. 219
39. The handle of the incus attaches to the inside of the eardrum. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the ear
REF: p. 219
40. The stapes presses against the oval window. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the ear
REF: p. 219
41. The external auditory canal connects the throat to the middle ear and can allow the spread of infection from the throat to the middle ear. ANS: F DIF: Applying TOP: Structure and function of the ear
REF: p. 219
OBJ: 5
42. The inner ear is responsible for the sense of hearing and equilibrium. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the ear
REF: p. 219 | p. 220
43. The bony labyrinth is divided into three parts: the cochlea, the vestibule, and the semicircular canals. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the ear
REF: p. 219
44. The membranous labyrinth is filled with endolymph. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the ear
REF: p. 219
45. The crista ampullaris is stimulated when you move your head. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the ear
REF: p. 221
46. The tympanic membrane is considered the organ of hearing. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the ear
REF: p. 220
47. The organ of Corti is considered the organ of hearing. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the ear
REF: p. 220
48. Specialized cells on the tongue called taste buds provide the sense of taste. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Taste
REF: p. 221
49. Papillae are microscopic receptors that can be found on the taste buds. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Taste
REF: p. 222
50. Gustatory cells are responsible for the sense of taste. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Taste
REF: p. 221 | p. 222
51. There are only six taste sensations. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Taste
REF: p. 222
52. Much of our sense of taste is actually our sense of smell. ANS: T TOP: Taste
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 222
OBJ: 6
53. The olfactory sense is very sensitive and takes a long time to adapt. ANS: F OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Smell
REF: p. 222
54. The olfactory receptors are located in the upper part of the nasal cavity. ANS: T OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Smell
REF: p. 222
55. Because the olfactory nerve passes through the hypothalamus, which is important in memory and emotion, odor can often stimulate vivid memories.
ANS: F OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Smell
REF: p. 222
56. Senses can react to changes in both our internal and external environment. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 209
57. Sensations of touch and pain are usually generated by special senses. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Classification of sense organs
REF: p. 209
58. Equilibrium, temperature, and pressure are sensations generated by general sense organs. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Classification of sense organs
REF: p. 210
59. Most of the free nerve endings are found in the epithelial layers of the body. ANS: T DIF: TOP: General senses
Applying
REF: p. 210
OBJ: 2
60. The sensation of taste and the perception of taste occur in different parts of the body. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Creating REF: p. 210 (Table 10-1) TOP: Sensory pathways
61. General senses are evenly distributed over the surface of the body. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: General senses
REF: p. 211
62. The conjunctiva is the clear part of the sclera of the eye. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 213
63. Dilation of the pupil is caused by the contraction of the iris. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 213
64. In bright light, the iris muscles would tend to contract. ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 213
65. The ciliary muscle affects the eye’s ability to focus.
OBJ: 4
ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 213
OBJ: 4
66. If the iris muscles are contracted, the rods of the eye are probably being used to see. ANS: F DIF: Creating TOP: Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 213
OBJ: 4
67. The ossicles are named based on their shape. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the ear
REF: p. 219
68. Infections in the throat can cause otitis media by moving through the eustachian tube. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the ear
REF: p. 219
69. Only special sense organs can be classified as encapsulated. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Classification of sense organs
REF: p. 210
70. Only general sense organs are classified as either encapsulated or unencapsulated. ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: Classification of sense organs
REF: p. 210
OBJ: 1
71. Going from most external to most internal, the layers of the eye would be sclera, choroid, and retina. ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 213
OBJ: 4
72. The function of the lacrimal gland is to produce aqueous humor for the interior of the eye. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 213
73. Glaucoma occurs when too much vitreous humor builds up in the eye. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 216
74. The vestibular nerve joins with the cochlear nerve to from cranial nerve VIII. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the ear
REF: p. 221
75. If the eyeball is too short, a condition called hyperopia, or farsightedness, can exist. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 217 TOP: Clinical Application: Focusing Problems
76. Astigmatism is caused by an eyeball that is too elongated. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 217 TOP: Clinical Application: Focusing Problems
77. Myopia is another name for nearsightedness. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 217 TOP: Clinical Application: Focusing Problems
78. The sensory pathway for proprioceptors passes through the thalamus. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Sensory pathways
REF: p. 211
79. The sensory pathway for proprioceptors passes through the cerebellum. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Sensory pathways
REF: p. 211
80. The sensory pathway for both proprioceptors and cutaneous receptors passes through the spinal cord. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Sensory pathways
REF: p. 211
81. The root hair plexuses are associated with deep pressure and vibration. ANS: F DIF: REF: p. 210 (Table 10-1)
Remembering OBJ: 3
TOP: General senses
82. Lasers can be used to sculpt the lens to help treat cataracts. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the eye
REF: p. 214
83. The malleus rest against the oval window of the middle ear and helps transmit vibrations. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure and function of the ear
REF: p. 219
84. The stimulation of taste buds travel primarily through the cranial nerves VII and IX to a special area of the cerebral cortex.
ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Taste
REF: p. 222
85. Sensations are all perceived in the brain. ANS: T OBJ: 8
DIF: Remembering TOP: Integration of senses
REF: p. 223
86. Some sensory information is processed and perceived subconsciously. ANS: T OBJ: 8
DIF: Remembering TOP: Integration of senses
REF: p. 223
Chapter 11: Endocrine System Patton: Structure & Function of the Body, 17th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The endocrine system consists of glands that: a. release chemicals into ducts. b. release chemicals carried by the blood. c. release chemicals into body cavities. d. release chemicals into the brain. ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Endocrine glands
REF: p. 232
2. Hormones are not a major regulator of: a. metabolism. b. blood pH. c. voluntary muscle movement. d. both blood pH and voluntary muscle movement. ANS: C OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Endocrine glands
REF: p. 232
3. Second messengers are important in the functioning of: a. nonsteroid hormones. b. steroid hormones. c. carbohydrate hormones. d. both steroid hormones and carbohydrate hormones. ANS: A OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Mechanisms of hormone action
4. Nonsteroid hormones have hormone receptors in the: a. nucleus of the cell. b. cytoplasm of the cell. c. cell membrane.
REF: p. 232
d. nucleus and cell membrane. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Mechanisms of hormone action
REF: p. 232
5. Nonsteroid hormones: a. cause protein synthesis in the cell. b. can cause the formation of cyclic AMP. c. have hormone receptors in the nucleus of the cell. d. cause protein synthesis in the cell and have hormone receptors in the nucleus of the cell. ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Mechanisms of hormone action
REF: p. 232
6. Steroid hormones have hormone receptors in the: a. nucleus of the cell. b. cytoplasm of the cell. c. cell membrane. d. nucleus of the cell and cell membrane. ANS: A OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Mechanisms of hormone action
REF: p. 234
7. Steroid hormones: a. cause protein synthesis in the cell. b. can cause the formation of cyclic AMP. c. require a second messenger to function. d. can cause the formation of cyclic AMP and require a second messenger to function. ANS: A OBJ: 3
DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of hormone action
REF: p. 234
8. Hormones: a. can use positive feedback mechanisms. b. can use negative feedback mechanisms. c. do not use feedback mechanisms for regulation. d. can us both positive and negative feedback mechanisms. ANS: D OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Regulation of hormone secretion
REF: p. 235
9. The anterior pituitary: a. is called the neurohypophysis. b. is called the adenohypophysis. c. secretes antidiuretic hormone (ADH). d. secretes oxytocin. ANS: B OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structure of the pituitary gland
REF: p. 236
10. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH): a. is secreted by the neurohypophysis. b. is secreted by the adenohypophysis. c. stimulates the release of thyroid hormone. d. is secreted by the adenohypophysis and stimulates the release of thyroid hormone. ANS: D OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anterior pituitary gland hormones
REF: p. 235
11. The anterior pituitary secretes: a. TSH. b. oxytocin. c. ADH. d. TSH, oxytocin, and ADH. ANS: A OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anterior pituitary gland hormones
REF: p. 235
12. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH): a. is produced by the posterior pituitary gland. b. is called the ovulating hormone. c. stimulates the primary ovarian follicle to develop. d. acts on the adrenal cortex. ANS: C OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anterior pituitary gland hormones
REF: p. 237
13. The posterior pituitary gland releases: a. ADH. b. ACTH. c. TSH. d. both ACTH and TSH. ANS: A OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 238 TOP: Posterior pituitary gland hormones
14. Oxytocin: a. is released by the posterior pituitary gland. b. stimulates uterine contraction. c. uses a positive feedback mechanism. d. is released by the posterior pituitary gland, stimulates uterine contractions, and uses a positive feedback mechanism. ANS: D OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 239 TOP: Posterior pituitary gland hormones
15. ADH: a. is released by the hypothalamus. b. is made by the pituitary gland. c. increases the amount of water reabsorbed by the kidney. d. decreases the amount of water absorbed by the kidney.
ANS: C OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 238 TOP: Posterior pituitary gland hormones
16. The thyroid gland: a. is unique because it does not store the hormones it makes. b. is found in the neck. c. requires calcium to produce its hormone. d. requires potassium to produce its hormone. ANS: B OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Thyroid gland
REF: p. 239
17. The thyroid gland produces: a. T3. b. T4. c. calcitonin. d. T3, T4, and calcitonin. ANS: D OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Thyroid gland
REF: p. 239
18. Calcitonin causes: a. an increase in the blood concentration of calcium. b. a breakdown in the bone matrix. c. a decrease in the blood concentration of calcium. d. both an increase in the blood concentration of calcium and a breakdown of bone matrix. ANS: C OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Calcitonin
REF: p. 241
19. The parathyroid hormone: a. has the opposite effect of calcitonin. b. is made in the thyroid gland. c. causes a decrease in blood concentration of calcium. d. has the opposite effect of thyroid hormone. ANS: A OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Parathyroid gland
REF: p. 241
20. Aldosterone: a. increases gluconeogenesis. b. is produced in the inner zone of the adrenal cortex. c. is a mineralocorticoid. d. is a glucocorticoid. ANS: C OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Adrenal glands
21. Aldosterone: a. increases blood sodium levels.
REF: p. 242
b. decreases blood sodium levels. c. increases blood potassium levels. d. decreases blood antibodies. ANS: A OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Adrenal glands
REF: p. 242
22. Aldosterone has its effects mainly on the cells of the: a. intestine. b. stomach. c. liver. d. kidney. ANS: D OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Aldosterone
REF: p. 242
23. Cortisol: a. has the opposite effect of aldosterone. b. is made in the outer zone of the adrenal cortex. c. stimulates gluconeogenesis. d. stimulates glycolysis. ANS: C OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cortisol
REF: p. 242
24. Cortisol: a. is made in the middle zone of the adrenal cortex. b. is a glucocorticoid. c. has an anti-immunity effect. d. is made in the middle zone of the adrenal cortex, is a glucocorticoid, and has an anti-immunity effect. ANS: D OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cortisol
REF: p. 242
25. Androgens, which are similar to testosterone, are: a. secreted by the inner zone of the adrenal cortex. b. secreted by the middle zone of the adrenal cortex. c. secreted by the outer zone of the adrenal cortex. d. not secreted by the adrenal cortex. ANS: A OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Adrenal sex hormones
REF: p. 243
26. Epinephrine: a. is released by the inner zone of the adrenal cortex. b. reinforces the effects of the parasympathetic nervous system. c. is released in response to stress. d. is released by the outer zone of the adrenal cortex. ANS: C OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Adrenal medulla
REF: p. 243
27. Glucagon: a. is released by pancreatic beta cells. b. accelerates liver glycogenolysis. c. causes a drop in blood glucose levels. d. decreases liver glycogenolysis. ANS: B OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pancreatic islets
REF: p. 244
28. Insulin: a. is made by beta cells in the pancreas. b. has the opposite effect of glucagon. c. decreases the blood glucose level. d. is made by beta cells, has the opposite effect of glucagon, and decreases the blood glucose level. ANS: D OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pancreatic islets
REF: p. 244
29. A decrease in insulin production: a. usually causes type 1 diabetes mellitus. b. will stimulate the release of growth hormone. c. is usually the cause of type 2 diabetes mellitus. d. will stimulate the release of progesterone. ANS: A OBJ: 7
DIF: Applying REF: p. 244 | p. 245 TOP: Pancreatic islets
30. The ovary secretes: a. FSH. b. estrogen. c. LH. d. FSH and LH. ANS: B OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Female sex glands
REF: p. 246
31. The corpus luteum secretes mostly: a. progesterone but some estrogen. b. estrogen but some progesterone. c. estrogen but some FSH. d. progesterone but some FSH. ANS: A OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Female sex glands
32. Testosterone is: a. produced by the prostate gland. b. produced by the interstitial cells of the testes. c. the masculinizing hormone.
REF: p. 246
d. produced by the interstitial gland and is the masculinizing hormone. ANS: D OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Male sex glands
REF: p. 246
33. The thymus gland: a. is located in the neck. b. produces thymosin. c. is important in the development of red blood cells. d. is located at the base of the brain. ANS: B OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Thymus
REF: p. 247
34. The placenta releases: a. chorionic gonadotropins. b. progesterone. c. estrogen. d. chorionic gonadotropins, progesterone, and estrogen. ANS: D OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Placenta
REF: p. 247
35. The pineal gland is: a. located in the neck. b. located in the mediastinum. c. sometimes called the “third eye.” d. releases androgens. ANS: C OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pineal gland
REF: p. 247
36. Nonsteroid hormones can be made of: a. proteins. b. carbohydrates. c. nucleic acids. d. carbohydrates and nucleic acids. ANS: A OBJ: 3
DIF: Memorization TOP: Nonsteroid hormones
REF: p. 233
37. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a nonsteroid hormone? a. It attaches to a receptor on the cell membrane. b. It causes protein synthesis to occur. c. It can use cAMP as a second messenger. d. It serves as a first messenger. ANS: B DIF: Applying TOP: Nonsteroid hormones
REF: p. 232
OBJ: 3
38. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a steroid hormone? a. The receptor is in the nucleus of the cell.
b. It causes protein synthesis to occur. c. It uses cAMP as a second messenger. d. It can pass through the cell membrane. ANS: C DIF: TOP: Steroid hormones
Applying
REF: p. 234
OBJ: 3
39. Which of the following is not a function of luteinizing hormone? a. It stimulates the growth of an egg follicle in the ovary. b. It causes ovulation of the egg. c. It causes the testes to secrete testosterone. d. It stimulates the growth of an egg follicle, causes ovulation, and causes the testes to secrete testosterone. ANS: D OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anterior pituitary gland hormones
REF: p. 237
40. Lactogenic hormone is another name for: a. prolactin. b. oxytocin. c. growth hormone. d. estrogen. ANS: A OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anterior pituitary gland hormones
REF: p. 238
41. In order for T4 to be produced, the diet must contain sufficient amounts of: a. calcium. b. iodine. c. iron. d. sulfur. ANS: B OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Thyroid gland
REF: p. 239
42. The hormone that has the opposite function of calcitonin is: a. parathyroid hormone. b. T3. c. T4. d. insulin. ANS: A OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Parathyroid gland
REF: p. 241
43. Aldosterone has an impact on the concentration of which substance in the blood? a. Glucose b. Potassium c. Sodium d. Both potassium and sodium ANS: D OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Aldosterone
REF: p. 242
44. The hormone that seems to influence how fat is metabolized in the body is: a. leptin. b. ANH. c. ADH. d. melatonin. ANS: A OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Other endocrine tissues
REF: p. 247
45. The hormone that helps regulate the body’s internal clock is: a. leptin. b. ANH. c. ADH. d. melatonin. ANS: D OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pineal gland
REF: p. 247
46. Exocrine glands do not: a. release their products into ducts. b. secrete hormones into intercellular spaces. c. stimulate receptors in target cells. d. are types of endocrine glands. ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Endocrine glands
REF: p. 232
47. The posterior pituitary gland: a. is also called the neurohypophysis. b. produces TSH. c. releases several tropic hormones. d. produces prolactin. ANS: A OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pituitary gland
48. Which of the following is not a tropic hormone? a. Thyroid-stimulating hormone b. Prolactin c. Adrenocorticotropic hormone d. Luteinizing hormone ANS: B DIF: Remembering REF: p. 233 (Table 11-1) OBJ: 6 TOP: Endocrine glands, hormones, and their functions 49. Diabetes insipidus is caused by a hyposecretion of: a. insulin. b. glucagon. c. aldosterone.
REF: p. 236
d. ADH. ANS: D OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Antidiuretic hormone
REF: p. 238
50. The G protein: a. works with steroid hormones. b. works with nonsteroid hormones. c. assists in the process of protein synthesis after steroid hormone attachment. d. works with nonsteroid hormones and assists in the process of protein synthesis after steroid hormone attachment. ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 234 TOP: Research, issues, and trends: Second messenger systems
51. Nitric oxide: a. is a second messenger. b. is a new discovered hormone. c. causes the release of G protein. d. forms cyclic AMP. ANS: A OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 234 TOP: Research, issues, and trends: Second messenger systems
52. Which of the following is not true of prostaglandins? a. They are called tissue hormones. b. They are typical hormones. c. They influence activities of nearby cells. d. They may regulate cells by influencing the production of cyclic AMP. ANS: B OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Prostaglandins
REF: p. 236
53. Which of the following is not a class of prostaglandins? a. PGB b. PGA c. PGE d. PGB, PGA, and PGE are all classes of prostaglandins. ANS: A OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Prostaglandins
REF: p. 236
54. This endocrine gland is not in the brain: a. the adenohypophysis. b. the thymus gland. c. the pineal gland. d. the neurohypophysis. ANS: B OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Thymus
REF: p. 247
55. Prostaglandins, along with several other tissue hormones such as leukotrienes and thromboxane, are sometimes called: a. pancreatic agents. b. androgens. c. corticoids. d. paracrine agents. ANS: D OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Prostaglandins
REF: p. 236
MATCHING Match each of the terms with the correct definition or description. a. Endocrine gland b. Exocrine gland c. Steroid hormone d. Nonsteroid hormone e. Cyclic AMP f. Hormone g. Target organ h. Hypersecretion i. Hyposecretion j. Prostaglandins k. Second messenger l. Adenohypophysis m. Neurohypophysis n. Tropic hormone o. Releasing hormone 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.
A substance that is used as a second messenger. An organ with a receptor for a specific hormone. Underproduction of a hormone by a gland. A hormone that has its receptor in the nucleus of the cell. Substances called “tissue hormones.” A type of gland that releases its secretions into a duct. Overproduction of a hormone by a gland. A type of hormone that has its receptor on the cell membrane. A chemical released by an endocrine gland. A gland that releases its secretion into the blood. A hormone that causes an endocrine gland to grow or secrete a hormone. Part of the pituitary gland that is made of nervous tissue. A substance needed by nonsteroid hormones to impact intracellular activity. Substances produced by the hypothalamus that affect the functioning of the anterior pituitary gland. 15. Part of the pituitary gland that is made of glandular tissue. 1. ANS: E OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nonsteroid hormones
REF: p. 232
2. ANS: OBJ: 3. ANS: OBJ: 4. ANS: OBJ: 5. ANS: OBJ: 6. ANS: OBJ: 7. ANS: OBJ: 8. ANS: OBJ: 9. ANS: OBJ: 10. ANS: OBJ: 11. ANS: OBJ: 12. ANS: OBJ: 13. ANS: OBJ: 14. ANS: OBJ: 15. ANS: OBJ:
G 1 I 2 C 3 J 5 B 2 H 1 D 3 F 2 A 2 N 6 M 6 K 3 O 6 L 6
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering Endocrine glands Remembering Endocrine glands Remembering Steroid hormones Remembering Prostaglandins Remembering Endocrine glands Remembering Endocrine glands Remembering Nonsteroid hormones Remembering Endocrine glands Remembering Endocrine glands Remembering Anterior pituitary gland hormones Remembering Pituitary gland Remembering Nonsteroid hormones Remembering Hypothalamus Remembering Pituitary gland
Match each hormone with its function. a. THS b. Oxytocin c. ACTH d. Thyroxine e. Parathyroid hormone f. Calcitonin g. Aldosterone h. Cortisol i. Glucagon j. Insulin k. Luteinizing hormone l. FSH m. Prolactin n. ADH o. Epinephrine p. Melatonin q. ANH
REF: p. 232 REF: p. 232 REF: p. 234 REF: p. 236 REF: p. 232 REF: p. 232 REF: p. 232 REF: p. 232 REF: p. 232 REF: p. 236 REF: p. 236 REF: p. 232 REF: p. 239 REF: p. 236
16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32.
Stimulates the release of adrenal cortex hormone. Causes an increase in blood glucose level. Causes a drop in blood glucose level. Causes a reduction in the blood calcium level. Stimulates the release of thyroid hormone. A mineralocorticoid. A glucocorticoid. Causes an increase in the blood calcium level. Causes contraction of the pregnant uterus. Stimulates cell metabolism. Hormone that may assist the body in regulating its internal clock. Hormone released by the posterior pituitary gland that accelerates the reabsorption of water from urine. Hormone secreted by the cells of the heart that does the opposite of aldosterone. Hormone that stimulates the primary ovarian follicle to start growing in women. Hormone that assists in the body’s “fight-or-flight” response. Hormone that is also called the ovulating hormone. Hormone that in women stimulates the breasts to start secreting milk.
16. ANS: OBJ: 17. ANS: OBJ: 18. ANS: OBJ: 19. ANS: OBJ: 20. ANS: OBJ: 21. ANS: OBJ: 22. ANS: OBJ: 23. ANS: OBJ: 24. ANS: OBJ: 25. ANS: OBJ: 26. ANS: OBJ: 27. ANS: OBJ: 28. ANS: OBJ: 29. ANS: OBJ:
C 6 I 6 J 6 F 6 A 6 G 6 H 6 E 6 B 6 D 6 P 6 N 6 Q 6 L 6
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering Pituitary gland Remembering Pancreatic islets Remembering Pancreatic islets Remembering Thyroid gland Remembering Pituitary gland Remembering Adrenal glands Remembering Adrenal glands Remembering Parathyroid gland Remembering Pituitary gland Remembering Thyroid gland Remembering Pineal gland Remembering Pituitary gland Remembering Other endocrine tissues Remembering Pituitary gland
REF: p. 236 | p. 237 REF: p. 244 REF: p. 244 REF: p. 241 REF: p. 236 REF: p. 242 REF: p. 242 REF: p. 241 REF: p. 239 REF: p. 239 REF: p. 247 REF: p. 238 REF: p. 247 REF: p. 237
30. ANS: OBJ: 31. ANS: OBJ: 32. ANS: OBJ:
O 6 K 6 M 6
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering Adrenal medulla Remembering Pituitary gland Remembering Pituitary gland
REF: p. 243 REF: p. 237 REF: p. 238
Match the hormone with the gland that produces or secretes it. a. Thyroxine b. Insulin c. Testosterone d. Glucagon e. Parathyroid hormone f. Atrial natriuretic hormone g. Cortisol h. Estrogen i. Epinephrine j. Melatonin k. Oxytocin l. Leptin m. TSH 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45.
The heart Adrenal cortex Beta cells of the pancreas Ovary Thyroid gland Parathyroid gland Posterior pituitary gland Testes Fat-storing cells of the body Alpha cells of the pancreas Anterior pituitary gland Adrenal medulla Pineal gland
33. ANS: OBJ: 34. ANS: OBJ: 35. ANS: OBJ: 36. ANS: OBJ: 37. ANS: OBJ: 38. ANS: OBJ:
F 6 G 6 B 6 H 6 A 6 E 6
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering Other endocrine tissues Remembering Adrenal cortex Remembering Pancreatic islets Remembering Female sex glands Remembering Thyroid gland Remembering Parathyroid gland
REF: p. 247 REF: p. 242 REF: p. 244 REF: p. 246 REF: p. 239 REF: p. 241
39. ANS: OBJ: 40. ANS: OBJ: 41. ANS: OBJ: 42. ANS: OBJ: 43. ANS: OBJ: 44. ANS: OBJ: 45. ANS: OBJ:
K 6 C 6 L 6 D 6 M 6 I 6 J 6
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering Posterior pituitary gland hormones Remembering Male sex glands Remembering Other endocrine tissues Remembering Pancreatic islets Remembering Anterior pituitary gland hormones Remembering Adrenal medulla Remembering Pineal gland
REF: p. 239 REF: p. 246 REF: p. 247 REF: p. 244 REF: p. 236 REF: p. 243 REF: p. 247
TRUE/FALSE 1. The endocrine and nervous systems perform the same general function. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 231
2. Exocrine glands can also release hormones. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Endocrine glands
REF: p. 232
3. Endocrine glands secrete hormones. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Endocrine glands
REF: p. 232
4. Hormones are carried to their target organs by ducts. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Endocrine glands
REF: p. 232
5. ADH would have no effect on liver cells. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Endocrine glands
Creating
REF: p. 232
OBJ: 6
6. Nonsteroid hormone receptors are in the nucleus of the cell. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nonsteroid hormones
7. Nonsteroid hormones require a second messenger.
REF: p. 232
ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nonsteroid hormones
REF: p. 232
8. ATP is frequently a second messenger of protein hormones. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nonsteroid hormones
REF: p. 232
9. Steroid hormone receptors are in the cytoplasm of the cell. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Steroid hormones
REF: p. 234
10. Steroid hormones use nitrogen oxide as their second messenger. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Steroid hormones
REF: p. 234
11. Steroid hormone receptors are in the nucleus of the cell. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Steroid hormones
REF: p. 234
12. Steroid hormones do not need a second messenger because they are able to pass through the cell membrane. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Steroid hormones
REF: p. 234
13. A cell with an abnormally low number of ribosomes would slow down the effect of a steroid hormone. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Steroid hormones
Creating
REF: p. 234
OBJ: 3
14. TSH causes an increase in thyroid hormones when their blood level is too low. This is an example of a positive feedback mechanism. ANS: F DIF: Applying TOP: Regulation of hormone secretion
REF: p. 235
OBJ: 4
15. Most hormones use a negative feedback system for regulation. ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: Regulation of hormone secretion
REF: p. 235
OBJ: 4
16. Calcitonin is an example of a hormone that uses a negative feedback mechanism for regulation.
ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: Regulation of hormone secretion
REF: p. 235
OBJ: 4
17. Oxytocin is an example of a hormone that uses a positive feedback mechanism for regulation. ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: Regulation of hormone secretion
REF: p. 235
OBJ: 4
18. Positive feedback mechanisms work to return the body to homeostasis. ANS: F DIF: Applying TOP: Regulation of hormone secretion
REF: p. 235
OBJ: 4
19. Prostaglandins are also called “tissue hormones.” ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Prostaglandins
REF: p. 236
20. Prostaglandins made in one part of the body frequently can have an effect on distant parts of the body. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Prostaglandins
REF: p. 236
21. Research has indicated that prostaglandins work by increasing the number of hormone receptors produced by a cell. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Prostaglandins
REF: p. 236
22. Another name for the posterior pituitary gland is the adenohypophysis. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pituitary gland
REF: p. 236
23. One of the main differences between the anterior and posterior pituitary glands is that one is made of glandular tissue and one is made of nerve tissue. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Memorization TOP: Pituitary gland
REF: p. 236
24. The pituitary gland sits in the “Turkish saddle.” ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pituitary gland
25. Many of the posterior pituitary hormones are tropic hormones.
REF: p. 236
ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anterior pituitary gland hormones
REF: p. 236
26. A tropic hormone causes another endocrine gland to release its hormone or grow. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anterior pituitary gland hormones
REF: p. 236
27. The target organ for TSH is the thyroid gland. ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: Anterior pituitary gland hormones
REF: p. 236
OBJ: 6
28. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) stimulates the adrenal glands to release adrenaline. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anterior pituitary gland hormones
REF: p. 236
29. FSH is frequently called the ovulating hormone. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anterior pituitary gland hormones
REF: p. 237
30. The target organ for FSH is the ovarian follicle. ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: Anterior pituitary gland hormones
REF: p. 237
OBJ: 6
31. Luteinizing hormone is also called the ovulating hormone. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anterior pituitary gland hormones
REF: p. 237
32. Males also produce luteinizing hormone. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anterior pituitary gland hormones
REF: p. 237
33. ADH causes water to be excreted in the urine. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 238 TOP: Posterior pituitary gland hormones
34. A person who was working hard on a hot day and perspiring freely would probably have a fairly high concentration of ADH in his blood. ANS: T DIF: Creating REF: p. 238 TOP: Posterior pituitary gland hormones
OBJ: 6
35. Oxytocin stimulates contraction of the pregnant uterus. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 239 TOP: Posterior pituitary gland hormones
36. Hyposecretion of ADH results in diabetes mellitus. ANS: F OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 238 TOP: Posterior pituitary gland hormones
37. Damage to the hypothalamus may result in diabetes insipidus. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Hypothalamus
Creating
REF: p. 239
OBJ: 7
38. Although oxytocin is released by the posterior pituitary, it is made in the hypothalamus. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Hypothalamus
REF: p. 239
39. The thyroid gland is located in the neck. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Thyroid gland
REF: p. 239
40. Of the two thyroid hormones, T3 is the more abundant. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Thyroid gland
REF: p. 239
41. The thyroid gland is unique because it stores the hormones it produces. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Memorization TOP: Thyroid gland
REF: p. 240
42. A person with a simple goiter would probably have high blood levels of TSH. ANS: T DIF: Creating REF: p. 240 TOP: Clinical Application: Thyroid hormone abnormalities
OBJ: 7
43. Calcitonin causes an increase in blood calcium levels. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Calcitonin
REF: p. 241
44. Parathyroid hormone causes a decrease in blood calcium levels. ANS: F
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 241
OBJ: 6
TOP: Parathyroid hormone
45. Bone cells are “target organs” for both calcitonin and parathyroid hormone. ANS: T DIF: Creating TOP: Parathyroid hormone | Calcitonin
REF: p. 241
OBJ: 6
46. The outer zone of the adrenal cortex secretes mineralocorticoids. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Zones of the adrenal cortex
REF: p. 242
47. Cortisol is an example of a mineralocorticoid. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cortisol
REF: p. 242
48. The adrenal medulla releases hormones that support and prolong the effects of the sympathetic nervous system. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Adrenal medulla
Applying
REF: p. 243
OBJ: 6
49. Pancreatic alpha cells release glucagon. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pancreatic islets
REF: p. 244
50. Glucagon causes a reduction of the blood glucose concentration. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pancreatic islets
REF: p. 244
51. Pancreatic beta cells release insulin. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pancreatic islets
REF: p. 244
52. Lack of production of insulin by the pancreatic alpha cells can cause diabetes mellitus. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Pancreatic islets
Applying
REF: p. 245
OBJ: 7
53. An abnormally low level of insulin production may cause glycosuria. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Pancreatic islets
Applying
REF: p. 245
54. The thymus gland is located in the neck and produces thymosin.
OBJ: 7
ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Thymus
REF: p. 247
55. The placenta produces the substance that can be detected by home pregnancy tests. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Placenta
REF: p. 247
56. ANH is made by the heart and reinforces the effect of aldosterone on the kidney. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Other endocrine tissues
REF: p. 247
57. The function of the endocrine system is communication and control. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 231
58. Hormones have the same role in the endocrine system as nerve impulses have in the nervous system. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Introduction
Applying
REF: p. 231
OBJ: 1
59. Substances produced by the exocrine glands cause a reaction by stimulating target organ cells. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Endocrine glands
REF: p. 232
60. Hyposecretion is a term describing the release of too little hormone. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Endocrine glands
REF: p. 232
61. In the second messenger system, the hormone is assumed to be the first messenger. ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: Nonsteroid hormones
REF: p. 232
OBJ: 3
62. One difference between prostaglandins and hormones is that prostaglandins circulate throughout the body whereas hormones go only to target cells. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Prostaglandins
REF: p. 236
63. If prostaglandins influence the production of cyclic AMP, they could impact the function of steroid hormones.
ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Creating REF: p. 232 | p. 236 TOP: Prostaglandins | Nonsteroid hormones
64. An increase in ADH would increase the amount of urine the body produces. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 238 TOP: Posterior pituitary gland hormones
65. Hypersecretion of ADH results in diabetes insipidus. ANS: F OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 238 TOP: Posterior pituitary gland hormones
66. The hormone oxytocin produces its effects on only about half the population. ANS: T DIF: Applying REF: p. 239 TOP: Posterior pituitary gland hormones
OBJ: 6
67. The hypothalamus produces only two hormones, ADH and oxytocin. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Hypothalamus
REF: p. 239
68. The hypothalamus produces only two hormones with target organs outside the head, ADH and oxytocin. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Hypothalamus
Applying
REF: p. 239
OBJ: 6
69. The target cells for T4 are virtually all cells in the body. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Thyroid gland
REF: p. 239
70. The target cells for aldosterone are in the liver. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Aldosterone
REF: p. 242
71. One of the target organ cells of glucocorticoids is the liver cells. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cortisol
REF: p. 242
72. Prolonged release of glucocorticoids increases the activity of the immune system. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cortisol
REF: p. 243
73. The pancreas is both an endocrine and exocrine gland. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pancreatic islets
REF: p. 244
74. If the pancreatic islets produce too little insulin, a condition called diabetes insipidus can occur. ANS: F OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pancreatic islets
REF: p. 245
75. Glucosuria can be a symptom of diabetes mellitus. ANS: T OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pancreatic islets
REF: p. 246
76. Damage to a receptor on the cell membrane would make it more difficult for a cell to respond to a steroid hormone. ANS: F DIF: Applying TOP: Nonsteroid hormones
REF: p. 232
OBJ: 3
77. The “lock and key” model applies only to the functioning of nonsteroid hormones. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nonsteroid hormones
REF: p. 232
78. Researchers believe that prostaglandins influence the production of ATP in the cell. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Prostaglandins
REF: p. 236
79. The neurohypophysis produces about twice as many hormones as the adenohypophysis. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pituitary gland
REF: p. 236
80. The hypothalamus produces substances that function as tropic hormones. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Hypothalamus
Applying
REF: p. 239
OBJ: 6
81. The thyroid gland produces two hormones, thyroxine and TSH. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Thyroid gland
82. The G protein helps in the formation of cyclic AMP.
REF: p. 239
ANS: T DIF: Applying REF: p. 234 TOP: Research, issues, and trends: Second messenger systems
OBJ: 3
83. Glucocorticoids increase gluconeogenesis. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cortisol
REF: p. 242
84. Steroid hormones may also trigger membrane receptors to produce a variety of secondary effects. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Steroid hormones
REF: p. 234
85. Growth hormone accelerates the processes of cell catabolism. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anterior pituitary gland hormones
REF: p. 237
86. Acromegaly results from a hyposecretion of growth hormone. ANS: F OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 237 TOP: Clinical Application: Growth hormone abnormalities
87. One possible effect of oxytocin is to help establish the bond between mother and infant. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 239 TOP: Posterior pituitary gland hormones
Chapter 12: Blood Patton: Structure & Function of the Body, 17th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Plasma: a. consists of blood without the blood cells and clotting factors. b. carries almost all of the food to the cells. c. carries almost all of the oxygen to the cells. d. carries almost all carbon dioxide from the cells. ANS: B OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood plasma
2. Plasma contains: a. digested food. b. metabolic waste products. c. proteins. d. digested food, metabolic wastes, and proteins.
REF: p. 258
ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood plasma
REF: p. 258
3. Serum: a. is made from blood plasma. b. contains fibrinogen. c. has no antibodies. d. contains clotting factors. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood plasma
REF: p. 259
4. The function of albumin is to: a. assist in the formation of a blood clot. b. thicken the blood. c. act as an enzyme for the breakdown of carbonic acid. d. assist in the fighting of infection. ANS: B OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood plasma
REF: p. 259
5. Globulins: a. assist in the formation of a blood clot. b. thicken the blood. c. assist in fighting infection. d. assist in blood clotting. ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood plasma
REF: p. 259
6. The approximate number of red blood cells in a cubic millimeter of blood is: a. 50,000. b. 500,000. c. 5,000,000. d. 50,000,000. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Formed elements
REF: p. 259
7. The approximate number of white blood cells in a cubic millimeter of blood is: a. 7500. b. 75,000. c. 750,000. d. 7,500,000. ANS: A OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Formed elements
REF: p. 259
8. The approximate number of platelets in a cubic millimeter of blood is: a. 30,000. b. 300,000.
c. 3,000,000. d. 30,000,000. ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Formed elements
REF: p. 259
9. Myeloid tissue is: a. also called lymphoid tissue. b. also called red bone marrow. c. important in the formation of blood cells. d. also called red bone marrow and is important in the formation of red blood cells. ANS: D OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Hematopoiesis
REF: p. 259
10. Red bone marrow is found in greatest amounts in the: a. sternum and hipbone. b. clavicle and vertebrae. c. femur and tibia. d. humerus and ulna. ANS: A OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Formed elements
REF: p. 259
11. The blood cells with the longest circulating life span are the: a. red blood cells. b. granular white blood cells. c. nongranular white blood cells. d. platelets. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Formed elements
REF: p. 259
12. The red blood cell: a. has no nucleus. b. is spherical in shape to increase its surface area. c. is important in carrying metabolic waste to the kidney. d. fights infection. ANS: A OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Red blood cells
REF: p. 260
13. The red blood cell: a. assists in transporting carbon dioxide to the lungs. b. contains hemoglobin to carry oxygen. c. has a unique shape to increase its surface area. d. assists in transporting carbon dioxide to the lungs, contains hemoglobin, and has a unique shape to increase its surface area. ANS: D OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Red blood cells
REF: p. 260
14. Polycythemia can be caused by: a. too few red blood cells. b. too little hemoglobin in the blood cells. c. too many red blood cells being made. d. too many white blood cells being made. ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anemia
REF: p. 262
15. Anemia can be caused by: a. too few red blood cells. b. too little hemoglobin in the blood cells c. too many red blood cells being made. d. too few red blood cells and too little hemoglobin in the blood cells. ANS: D OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anemia
REF: p. 262
16. Pernicious anemia is caused by: a. severe hemorrhage. b. lack of vitamin B12. c. an insufficient amount of iron in the diet. d. radiation or chemical damage to bone marrow. ANS: B OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anemia
REF: p. 262
17. Which of the following describes the layering, in order from top to bottom, of a test tube of blood that has been “spun down” in a centrifuge? a. Plasma, red blood cells, buffy coat b. Buffy coat, plasma, red blood cells c. Plasma, buffy coat, red blood cells d. Red blood cells, buffy coat, plasma ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: RBC count
REF: p. 261
18. The blood component with the highest density is: a. white blood cells. b. red blood cells. c. plasma. d. serum. ANS: B TOP: RBC count
DIF:
Applying
19. Which white blood cells are phagocytes? a. Monocytes b. T lymphocytes c. B lymphocytes d. Basophils
REF: p. 261
OBJ: 4
ANS: A OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: White blood cells
REF: p. 266
20. Which white blood cells produce antibodies? a. Monocytes b. T lymphocytes c. B lymphocytes d. Neutrophils ANS: C OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: White blood cells
REF: p. 267
21. Which white blood cells directly attack microbes? a. Eosinophils b. T lymphocytes c. B lymphocytes d. Basophils ANS: B OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: White blood cells
REF: p. 267
22. Which white blood cells help protect the body from parasites? a. Eosinophils b. Monocytes c. Neutrophils d. Basophils ANS: A OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: White blood cells
REF: p. 266
23. Which white blood cells secrete heparin? a. Eosinophils b. Monocytes c. Neutrophils d. Basophils ANS: D OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: White blood cells
REF: p. 267
24. Leukopenia: a. refers to an excess of white blood cells. b. is characteristic of people with leukemia. c. is characteristic of people with AIDS. d. refers to an increased number of red blood cells. ANS: C OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: WBC count
REF: p. 266
25. Injury to a blood vessel or damage to a platelet can cause the formation of: a. fibrinogen. b. fibrin.
c. prothrombin activator. d. thrombin. ANS: C OBJ: 7
DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood clotting
REF: p. 267
26. In order for thrombin to be formed: a. fibrinogen must be present. b. sodium must be present. c. potassium must be present. d. calcium must be present. ANS: D OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood clotting
REF: p. 268
27. At the point of injury, platelets: a. become sticky and accumulate near the opening. b. release thrombin. c. release fibrin. d. become sticky and accumulate near the opening and releases fibrin. ANS: A OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood clotting
REF: p. 268
28. In the final step in the blood-clotting process: a. prothrombin reacts with fibrin to form fibrinogen. b. thrombin reacts with fibrinogen to form fibrin. c. prothrombin reacts with fibrin to form fibrinogen. d. prothrombin activator reacts with prothrombin to form thrombin. ANS: B OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood clotting
REF: p. 268
29. Vitamin K stimulates the liver to increase production of: a. prothrombin activator. b. fibrinogen. c. prothrombin. d. thrombin. ANS: C OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood clotting
REF: p. 268
30. A thrombus is: a. a clot that stays where it was formed. b. the same as an embolus. c. usually made of thrombin. d. a blood clot circulating in the bloodstream. ANS: A OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Abnormal blood clots
REF: p. 268
31. The blood type that has antigen A on the cell and anti-B antibody in the plasma is:
a. b. c. d.
type O. type AB. type A. type B.
ANS: C TOP: Blood types
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 264
OBJ: 5
32. The blood type with no antigens on the blood cell and both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the plasma is: a. type AB. b. type O. c. type A. d. type B. ANS: B TOP: Blood types
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 264
OBJ: 5
33. The “universal donor” blood type is: a. type A. b. type B. c. type AB. d. type O. ANS: D OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood types
REF: p. 264
34. The “universal recipient” blood type is: a. type A. b. type B. c. type AB. d. type O. ANS: C OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood types
REF: p. 264
35. Erythroblastosis fetalis: a. usually occurs in a mother’s first-born baby. b. occurs in the case of an Rh-positive mother and an Rh-negative baby. c. occurs in the case of an Rh-positive baby and an Rh-negative mother. d. occurs in the case of an Rh-negative baby and an Rh-negative mother. ANS: C TOP: Rh system
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 264
OBJ: 8
36. The most abundant type of solute in the blood plasma is: a. sodium. b. red blood cells. c. plasma proteins. d. potassium. ANS: C
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 258
OBJ: 2
TOP: Blood plasma
37. A substance found in plasma but not in serum is: a. fibrinogen. b. antibodies. c. formed elements. d. fibrinogen and antibodies. ANS: A DIF: TOP: Blood plasma
Applying
REF: p. 259
OBJ: 2
38. Another term for red blood cells is: a. leukocytes. b. eosinophils. c. thrombocytes. d. erythrocytes. ANS: D OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Formed elements
REF: p. 259
39. Another term for white blood cells is: a. thrombocytes. b. leukocytes. c. erythrocytes. d. albumin. ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Formed elements
REF: p. 259
40. Another term for platelets is: a. erythrocytes. b. leukocytes. c. thrombocytes. d. fibrinogen. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Formed elements
REF: p. 259
41. Which of the following is not a granular leukocyte? a. Monocyte b. Neutrophil c. Basophil d. Eosinophil ANS: A OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Formed elements
42. Basophils and lymphocytes have this characteristic in common. a. Both are thrombocytes. b. Both are leukocytes. c. Both are granular leukocytes.
REF: p. 259
d. Both are leukocytes and they are granular. ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Formed elements
REF: p. 259
43. Eosinophils and neutrophils have this characteristic in common. a. Both are thrombocytes. b. Both are leukocytes. c. Both are granular leukocytes. d. Both are leukocytes and they are granular. ANS: D OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Formed elements
REF: p. 259
44. A patient with a thicker-than-normal buffy coat may have: a. an infection. b. leukemia. c. leucopenia. d. an infection or leukemia. ANS: D TOP: RBC count
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 261
OBJ: 4
45. A patient with a thinner-than-normal buffy coat may have: a. an infection. b. leukemia. c. leucopenia. d. both an infection or leukemia. ANS: C TOP: RBC count
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 261
OBJ: 4
46. A couple would have to worry about their next child having erythroblastosis fetalis if: a. both parents are Rh-negative. b. both parents are Rh-positive. c. their first child was Rh-negative. d. the baby was Rh-positive and the mother was Rh-negative. ANS: D TOP: Rh system
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 264
OBJ: 5
47. Blood usually accounts for about: a. 3% to 5% of body weight. b. 7% to 9% of body weight. c. 10% to 12% of body weight. d. 14% to 18% of body weight. ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood tissue
48. Red bone marrow forms all types of blood cells except: a. monocytes.
REF: p. 258
b. basophils. c. lymphocytes. d. eosinophils. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Hematopoiesis
REF: p. 259
49. Aplastic anemia can be caused by: a. severe hemorrhage. b. damage to blood forming elements in the bone marrow. c. a lack of vitamin B12. d. an inherited condition resulting in the formation of abnormal hemoglobin. ANS: B OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anemia
REF: p. 262
50. Sickle-cell anemia can be caused by: a. severe hemorrhage. b. damage to blood-forming elements in the bone marrow. c. a lack of vitamin B12. d. an inherited condition resulting in the formation of abnormal hemoglobin. ANS: D OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anemia
REF: p. 262
51. The lack of this substance produced by the stomach lining can cause pernicious anemia. a. Hemoglobin b. Vitamin B12 c. Intrinsic factor d. Fibrin ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anemia
REF: p. 262
52. These plasma proteins are necessary for blood clotting: a. globulins. b. fibrinogen. c. prothrombin. d. both fibrinogen and prothrombin. ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood plasma
REF: p. 259
53. The hematocrit test measures: a. the volume of blood made up of red blood cells. b. the volume of blood made up of both red and white blood cells. c. the volume of blood made up of plasma. d. white blood cell counts. ANS: A OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: RBC count
REF: p. 261
MATCHING Match each term with its definition or description. a. Plasma b. Serum c. Red blood cell d. Monocyte e. Eosinophil f. Myeloid tissue g. Hemoglobin h. Fibrinogen i. Universal donor j. Universal recipient 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Blood cells that carry oxygen. Another term for red bone marrow. Liquid part of the blood including the clotting factors. A plasma protein that is important in blood clot formation. White blood cells that fight parasites. Type O blood is considered to be this. Liquid part of the blood with the clotting factors removed. Type AB blood is considered to be this. Red pigment of the red blood cell. Types of white blood cells that are phagocytes.
1. ANS: OBJ: 2. ANS: OBJ: 3. ANS: OBJ: 4. ANS: OBJ: 5. ANS: OBJ: 6. ANS: OBJ: 7. ANS: OBJ: 8. ANS: OBJ: 9. ANS: OBJ: 10. ANS: OBJ:
C 4 F 3 A 2 H 2 E 6 I 5 B 1 J 5 G 4 D 6
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering Red blood cells Remembering Formed elements Remembering Blood plasma Remembering Blood plasma Remembering WBC types Remembering Blood types Remembering Blood plasma Remembering Blood types Remembering Hemoglobin Remembering WBC types
REF: p. 260 REF: p. 259 REF: p. 258 REF: p. 259 REF: p. 266 REF: p. 264 REF: p. 259 REF: p. 264 REF: p. 259 REF: p. 267
Match the term with the description or definition. a. Red blood cell b. Lymphocyte c. Thrombocyte d. Globulin e. Serum f. Basophil g. Albumin h. Eosinophil i. Plasma j. Fibrinogen k. Hematopoiesis l. Leukemia m. Platelet n. Embolus o. Formed elements p. Anemia q. Thrombus r. Hematocrit test 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25.
Plasma protein that helps thicken the blood. White blood cell that helps protect against parasites. White blood cell that can be made in lymphatic tissue. Plasma protein necessary for blood clot formation. Another term for platelet. White blood cell that secretes heparin. Liquid part of the blood. Plasma protein that includes antibodies. Another term for erythrocyte. Liquid part of the blood minus the clotting factors. A formed element in the blood important in blood-clot formation. Process of blood-cell formation. A measure of the total blood volume made up by red blood cells. Part of a blood clot that has dislodged and is circulating through the bloodstream. A term for a number of conditions in which the blood is unable to carry a sufficient amount of oxygen. 26. Term for all the cells and cell fragments suspended in the blood. 27. A term used to describe a number of blood cancers affecting white blood cells. 28. A blood clot that stays in the place where it was formed. 11. ANS: OBJ: 12. ANS: OBJ: 13. ANS: OBJ: 14. ANS: OBJ:
G 2 H 6 B 3 J 7
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering Blood plasma Remembering WBC types Remembering Formed elements Remembering Blood clotting
REF: p. 260 REF: p. 266 REF: p. 259 REF: p. 268
15. ANS: OBJ: 16. ANS: OBJ: 17. ANS: OBJ: 18. ANS: OBJ: 19. ANS: OBJ: 20. ANS: OBJ: 21. ANS: OBJ: 22. ANS: OBJ: 23. ANS: OBJ: 24. ANS: OBJ: 25. ANS: OBJ: 26. ANS: OBJ: 27. ANS: OBJ: 28. ANS: OBJ:
C 3 F 6 I 2 D 2 A 3 E 2 M 7 K 3 R 4 N 7 P 4 O 1 L 6 Q 7
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering Formed elements Remembering WBC types Remembering Blood plasma Remembering Blood plasma Remembering Formed elements Remembering Blood plasma Remembering Blood clotting Remembering Formed elements Remembering RBC count Remembering Abnormal blood clots Remembering Anemia Remembering Blood tissue Remembering White blood cell disorders Remembering Abnormal blood clots
REF: p. 259 REF: p. 267 REF: p. 258 REF: p. 259 REF: p. 259 REF: p. 259 REF: p. 267 REF: p. 259 REF: p. 261 REF: p. 268 REF: p. 262 REF: p. 259 REF: p. 266 REF: p. 268
Match the term with the description or definition. a. Hematocrit b. Anemia c. Sickle cell d. Polycythemia e. Rh factor f. Erythroblastosis fetalis g. Leukocytosis h. Leukopenia i. Fibrinogen j. Phagocytosis k. Thrombosis 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34.
Severe hereditary disease caused by an abnormal type of hemoglobin Excess amount of red blood cells Abnormally low white blood cell count Plasma protein A condition caused by a stationary blood clot Blood disease caused by mother’s Rh antibodies reacting with the baby’s Rh-positive cells
35. 36. 37. 38. 39.
Lab test that measures total blood volume made up by red blood cells Abnormally high white blood cell count Inability of the blood to carry sufficient oxygen to the body cells Process of taking in invading microorganisms and digesting them Presence or absence of Rh antigens
29. ANS: OBJ: 30. ANS: OBJ: 31. ANS: OBJ: 32. ANS: OBJ: 33. ANS: OBJ: 34. ANS: OBJ: 35. ANS: OBJ: 36. ANS: OBJ: 37. ANS: OBJ: 38. ANS: OBJ: 39. ANS: OBJ:
C 8 D 8 H 8 I 8 K 8 F 8 A 8 G 8 B 8 J 8 E 8
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering Medical terms Remembering Medical terms Remembering Medical terms Remembering Medical terms Remembering Medical terms Remembering Medical terms Remembering Medical terms Remembering Medical terms Remembering Medical terms Remembering Medical terms Remembering Medical terms
REF: p. 262 REF: p. 262 REF: p. 266 REF: p. 268 REF: p. 268 REF: p. 264 REF: p. 261 REF: p. 266 REF: p. 262 REF: p. 266 REF: p. 264
TRUE/FALSE 1. Plasma is made up mostly of water. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood plasma
REF: p. 258
2. The globulins in the plasma are important in blood-clot formation. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood plasma
REF: p. 259
3. Fibrinogens in the plasma help the body fight infection. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood plasma
4. Albumins in the plasma help thicken the blood.
REF: p. 259
ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood plasma
REF: p. 259
5. Serum can be given to surgical patients to help their blood clot more readily. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Blood plasma
Creating
REF: p. 259
OBJ: 2
6. Serum can be given to patients in need of a specific antibody. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Blood plasma
Applying
REF: p. 259
OBJ: 2
7. Both myeloid tissue and lymphatic tissue are important in hematopoiesis. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Hematopoiesis
Applying
REF: p. 259
OBJ: 3
8. Red bone marrow makes only red blood cells. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Hematopoiesis
REF: p. 259
9. Lymphatic tissue is also called red bone marrow. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Hematopoiesis
REF: p. 259
10. Myeloid tissue is also called red bone marrow. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Hematopoiesis
REF: p. 259
11. Red bone marrow is chiefly found in the vertebrae and clavicle. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Hematopoiesis
REF: p. 259
12. Red bone marrow is chiefly found in the sternum, hipbone, and ribs. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Hematopoiesis
REF: p. 259
13. Lymphatic tissue forms monocytes. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Hematopoiesis
REF: p. 259
14. Lymphatic tissue is located in the spleen, thymus, and lymph nodes. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Hematopoiesis
REF: p. 259
15. Red blood cells circulate for up to 4 months. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Hematopoiesis
REF: p. 259
16. When the red blood cells break apart, their components are removed from the blood by the kidneys. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Hematopoiesis
REF: p. 259
17. Granular leukocytes may have a circulating life span of up to 6 months. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Hematopoiesis
REF: p. 259
18. Nongranular leukocytes have a circulating life span of just a few days. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Hematopoiesis
REF: p. 259
19. The shape of the red blood cell helps reduce its surface area. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Red blood cells
REF: p. 260
20. The red blood cells have no nucleus. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Red blood cells
REF: p. 260
21. Hemoglobin can carry oxygen. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Hemoglobin
REF: p. 261
22. Hemoglobin can carry carbon dioxide. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Hemoglobin
REF: p. 261
23. Oxyhemoglobin carries oxygen from the cells to the lungs. ANS: F
DIF:
Creating
REF: p. 261
OBJ: 4
TOP: Hemoglobin 24. Pernicious anemia results from a lack of iron in the blood. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anemia
REF: p. 262
25. The loss of a large amount of blood can result in anemia. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anemia
REF: p. 262
26. Polycythemia can result from too little hemoglobin even if there are an adequate number of red blood cells. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anemia
REF: p. 262
27. Normally, about 55% of the blood volume is red blood cells. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: RBC count
REF: p. 260 | p. 261
28. If a test tube of blood is “spun down” in a centrifuge, the white blood cells and platelets form a layer called the buffy coat. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: RBC count
REF: p. 261
29. A person with polycythemia would have a red blood cell volume less than 45%. ANS: F DIF: Applying TOP: Anemia | RBC count
REF: p. 262
OBJ: 4
30. A person with anemia might have a red blood cell volume as high as 65%. ANS: F TOP: Anemia
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 262
OBJ: 4
31. Both monocytes and neutrophils can be called phagocytes. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: WBC types
REF: p. 266 | p. 267
32. The production of antibodies by T lymphocytes is an important part of the immune system. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: WBC types
REF: p. 267
33. Eosinophils release important chemicals, such as heparin, that prevent blood clots. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: WBC types
REF: p. 266
34. Prothrombin activator plus the normal amount of blood sodium converts prothrombin into thrombin. ANS: F OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood clotting
REF: p. 267
35. Thrombin reacts with fibrinogen in the plasma to form fibrin. ANS: T OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood clotting
REF: p. 268
36. At the site of an injury, platelets become sticky and form a platelet plug. ANS: T OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood clotting
REF: p. 268
37. Vitamin K stimulates the liver to produce more fibrinogen, which helps the blood clot more efficiently. ANS: F OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood clotting
REF: p. 268
38. A thrombus is a clot that stays in the place where it was formed. ANS: T OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Abnormal blood clots
REF: p. 268
39. An embolus is part of a clot that has become dislodged and circulates through the bloodstream. ANS: T OBJ: 7
DIF: Remembering TOP: Abnormal blood clots
REF: p. 268
40. If a patient were having a heart attack caused by a blood clot, heparin would be an effective treatment in dissolving the clot. ANS: F DIF: Creating REF: p. 269 TOP: Clinical Application: Anticoagulant Therapy
OBJ: 7
41. If a patient were having a heart attack caused by a blood clot, streptokinase would be an effective treatment in dissolving the clot. ANS: T DIF: Creating TOP: Abnormal blood clots
REF: p. 268
OBJ: 7
42. A person with B antigens on the red blood cell and anti-A antibodies in the plasma would have type A blood. ANS: F TOP: Blood types
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 264
OBJ: 5
43. A person with both A and B antigens on the red blood cell and no antibodies in the plasma would have type AB blood. ANS: T TOP: Blood types
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 264
OBJ: 5
44. A person with both A and B antigens on the red blood cell and no antibodies in the plasma would have type O blood. ANS: F TOP: Blood types
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 264
OBJ: 5
45. A person with no antigens on the red blood cell and both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the plasma would be considered a universal recipient. ANS: F TOP: Blood types
DIF:
Creating
REF: p. 264
OBJ: 5
46. A person with no antigens on the red blood cell and both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the plasma would be considered a universal donor. ANS: T TOP: Blood types
DIF:
Creating
REF: p. 264
OBJ: 5
47. The Rh factor is found in the plasma of the blood. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Rh system
REF: p. 264
48. Erythroblastosis fetalis cannot occur if the mother is Rh-positive. ANS: T TOP: Rh system
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 264
OBJ: 5
49. Erythroblastosis fetalis cannot occur if the father is Rh-negative. ANS: T TOP: Rh system
DIF:
Creating
REF: p. 264
OBJ: 5
50. RhoGAM can be used to treat newborn babies to prevent erythroblastosis fetalis. ANS: F
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 264
OBJ: 5
TOP: Rh system 51. Plasma can also be called the extracellular part of the blood. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood tissue
REF: p. 258
52. Serum consists of blood minus the formed elements, whereas plasma consists of blood minus the formed elements and clotting factors. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Blood plasma
Applying
REF: p. 259
OBJ: 2
53. Blood makes up about 10% to 15% of the body weight in an adult. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood plasma
REF: p. 258
54. Most adults have between 4 and 6 L of blood. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood tissue
REF: p. 258
55. A neutrophil is a type of granular erythrocyte. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Formed elements
REF: p. 259
56. A monocyte is a nongranular leukocyte. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Formed elements
REF: p. 259
57. Both lymphocytes and monocytes are nongranular leukocytes. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Formed elements
REF: p. 259
58. The mature red blood cell contains fewer chromosomes than other cells in the body. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Red blood cells
Creating
REF: p. 260
OBJ: 4
59. Anemia refers to an inadequate number of red blood cells. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anemia
REF: p. 262
60. Pernicious, iron deficiency, and polycythemia are all examples of types of anemias.
ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anemia
REF: p. 262
61. A possible cause of leukopenia is the malignant disease leukemia. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: WBC count
REF: p. 266
62. An infection causes leukocytosis. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: WBC count
REF: p. 266
63. Most people in the United States are Rh-positive. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Rh system
REF: p. 264
64. An important function of the circulatory system is protection. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 257
65. An important function of the lymphatic system is protection. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 257
66. Whole blood without the clotting factors is called serum. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood plasma
REF: p. 259
67. In whole blood, the volume of plasma is larger than the volume of the formed elements. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Blood plasma
Applying
REF: p. 258
OBJ: 2
68. Although there are several types of white blood cells, there is only one type of red blood cell. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Formed elements
Applying
REF: p. 259
OBJ: 3
69. Hematocrit values tend to be higher in men than women and higher in older people than in younger people. ANS: F
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 261
OBJ: 4
TOP: RBC count
70. Dehydration would cause a temporary drop in hematocrit values. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: RBC count
REF: p. 261
71. A differential white blood cell count gives the proportions of each type of white blood cell in the blood. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: WBC count
REF: p. 266
72. Eosinophils help protect against infections caused by certain parasites. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: WBC types
REF: p. 266
73. Basophils secrete the chemical histamine during inflammatory reactions. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: WBC types
REF: p. 267
74. Macrophages are specialized neutrophils that increase their size after migrating out of the bloodstream. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: WBC types
REF: p. 267
75. Blood is considered a fluid tissue. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood tissue
REF: p. 258
76. In one cubic millimeter of blood, there are more red blood cells than white blood cells. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Formed elements
REF: p. 259
77. In one cubic millimeter of blood, there are more white blood cells than platelets. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Formed elements
REF: p. 259
78. Because red blood cells are constantly being destroyed, the body must make about 5 million red blood cells a day. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Formed elements
Applying
REF: p. 259
OBJ: 3
79. A destruction of the blood-forming elements in bone marrow can lead to aplastic anemia. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anemia
REF: p. 262
80. Sickle cell anemia and sickle cell trait refer to the same disease. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anemia
REF: p. 262
81. Sickle cell anemia is a hereditary disease. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anemia
REF: p. 262
82. Intrinsic factor produced by the liver is necessary for the formation of vitamin B12. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Anemia
REF: p. 262
Chapter 13: Cardiovascular System Patton: Structure & Function of the Body, 17th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The heart is located: a. mostly to the left of the midline of the sternum. b. mostly to the right of the midline of the sternum. c. with the apex slightly below the clavicle. d. with the apex slightly above the clavicle. ANS: A OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Heart-Location, size, and position
REF: p. 278
2. The chambers of the heart include: a. two upper larger chambers called the atria. b. two lower smaller chambers called the ventricles. c. two lower larger chambers called the ventricles. d. two upper smaller chambers called ventricles. ANS: C OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Heart chambers
3. The upper chambers are: a. discharging chambers. b. called ventricles. c. receiving chambers. d. both ventricles and discharging chambers.
REF: p. 279
ANS: C OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Heart chambers
REF: p. 279
4. The innermost layer of the heart is called the: a. epicardium. b. endocardium. c. visceral pericardium. d. epicardium or visceral pericardium. ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Heart chambers
REF: p. 279
5. The outermost layer of the heart is called the: a. epicardium. b. endocardium. c. visceral pericardium. d. epicardium or visceral pericardium. ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pericardium
REF: p. 279
6. The pericardium: a. is a sac surrounding the heart. b. has an outer layer called the parietal pericardium. c. has an inner layer called the epicardium. d. is a sac surrounding the heart, has an outer layer called the parietal pericardium, and has an inner layer called the epicardium. ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pericardium
REF: p. 279
7. In the pumping action of the heart: a. atrial systole follows ventricular systole. b. atrial systole precedes ventricular systole. c. atrial and ventricular systole occur at the same time. d. atrial systole is stronger than ventricular systole. ANS: B DIF: TOP: Heart action
Applying
REF: p. 280
OBJ: 1
8. The heart valves are arranged with the: a. mitral and pulmonary semilunar valves on the right side of the heart. b. bicuspid and aortic semilunar valves on the right side of the heart. c. tricuspid and pulmonary semilunar valves on the right side of the heart. d. tricuspid and aortic semilunar valves on the left side of the heart. ANS: C OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Heart valves
9. The first heart sound is the closing of the: a. pulmonary semilunar and aortic semilunar valves.
REF: p. 281
b. tricuspid and mitral valves. c. mitral and bicuspid valves. d. tricuspid and pulmonary semilunar valves. ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Heart sounds
REF: p. 281
10. The superior vena cava carries: a. oxygen-rich blood to the right atrium. b. oxygen-poor blood to the left atrium. c. oxygen-rich blood to the left atrium. d. oxygen-poor blood to the right atrium. ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood flow through the heart
REF: p. 281
11. When the left ventricle contracts, it pushes blood through a valve to the: a. aorta. b. pulmonary artery. c. pulmonary vein. d. inferior vena cava. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood flow through the heart
REF: p. 281
12. The pulmonary vein returns oxygen-rich blood to the: a. right atrium. b. right ventricle. c. left atrium. d. left ventricle. ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood flow through the heart
REF: p. 281
13. The right side of the heart: a. deals with oxygen-poor blood. b. deals with oxygen-rich blood. c. is the pump for systemic circulation. d. is the pump for hepatic circulation. ANS: A DIF: Applying TOP: Blood flow through the heart
REF: p. 281
OBJ: 2
14. The heart is supplied with blood by: a. diffusion through the heart wall. b. the right and left cardiac arteries. c. arteries that branch directly from the pulmonary artery. d. arteries that branch directly from the aorta. ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood supply to heart muscle
REF: p. 282
15. The volume of blood ejected from the ventricles during each beat is called: a. cardiac output. b. stroke volume. c. systole. d. the cardiac cycle. ANS: B OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cardiac output
REF: p. 286
16. The electrical connectors between heart muscle cells are called: a. myocardium. b. sinoatrial nodes. c. intercalated disks. d. Purkinje fibers. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction system
REF: p. 284
17. The “pacemaker” for the heart is usually the: a. sinoatrial node. b. Purkinje fibers. c. bundle of His. d. atrioventricular bundle. ANS: A OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Conduction system
REF: p. 285
18. The correct sequence for the conducting system is: a. sinoatrial node, AV bundle, Purkinje fibers, bundle of His. b. sinoatrial node, AV node, AV bundle, Purkinje fibers. c. sinoatrial node, bundle of His, AV bundle, Purkinje fibers. d. sinoatrial node, Purkinje fibers, AV bundle, AV node. ANS: B DIF: TOP: Conduction system
Applying
REF: p. 285
OBJ: 3
19. In a normal ECG tracing, the T wave represents the: a. repolarization of the atria. b. depolarization of the atria. c. repolarization of the ventricles. d. depolarization of the ventricles. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Electrocardiogram
REF: p. 285 | p. 286
20. In a normal ECG tracing, the QRS complex represents the: a. repolarization of the atria. b. depolarization of the atria. c. repolarization of the ventricles. d. depolarization of the ventricles. ANS: D
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 286
OBJ: 3
TOP: Electrocardiogram
21. Which tracing in a normal ECG is the repolarization of the atria? a. The P wave b. The QRS complex c. The T wave d. The U wave ANS: D OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Electrocardiogram
REF: p. 286
22. The blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart are the: a. veins. b. venules. c. arteries. d. capillaries. ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood vessels-Types
REF: p. 288
23. The blood vessels that carry blood toward the heart are the: a. veins. b. arteries. c. arterioles. d. capillaries. ANS: A OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood vessels-Types
REF: p. 288
24. The outermost layer of an artery or vein is called the: a. tunica intima. b. tunica media. c. tunica externa. d. endothelium. ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood vessels-Structure
REF: p. 288
25. The innermost layer of an artery or vein is called the: a. tunica intima. b. tunica media. c. endothelium. d. both the tunica intima and endothelium. ANS: D OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood vessels-Structure
REF: p. 289
26. The layer of the arteries and veins that contains smooth muscle tissue is the: a. tunica media. b. tunica intima. c. endothelium.
d. both the tunica intima and endothelium. ANS: A OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood vessels-Structure
REF: p. 288 | p. 289
27. One-way valves are found in which blood vessels? a. Capillaries b. Veins c. Arteries d. Arterioles ANS: B OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood vessels-Structure
REF: p. 289
28. The first blood vessel of systemic circulation is the: a. pulmonary artery. b. pulmonary vein. c. aorta. d. superior vena cava. ANS: C DIF: Applying REF: p. 291 TOP: Systemic and pulmonary routes of circulation
OBJ: 5
29. The last blood vessel of pulmonary circulation is the: a. pulmonary artery. b. pulmonary vein. c. aorta. d. superior vena cava. ANS: B DIF: Applying REF: p. 291 TOP: Systemic and pulmonary routes of circulation
OBJ: 5
30. The hepatic portal system: a. is the second capillary system. b. receives venous blood from the digestive system. c. helps maintain glucose homeostasis. d. is the second capillary system, receives venous blood from the digestive system, and helps maintain glucose homeostasis. ANS: D OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Hepatic portal circulation
REF: p. 294
31. The structure in the fetus that allows the blood to bypass the liver is the: a. ductus venosus. b. ductus arteriosus. c. foramen ovale. d. ductus arteriosus and foramen ovale. ANS: A OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Fetal circulation
REF: p. 295
32. The structure in the fetus that allows the blood to bypass the lungs is the:
a. b. c. d.
ductus venosus. ductus arteriosus. foramen ovale. ductus arteriosus and foramen ovale.
ANS: D OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Fetal circulation
REF: p. 295
33. Blood pressure is highest in the aorta and lowest in the: a. arterioles. b. capillaries. c. arteries. d. superior and inferior vena cava. ANS: D OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Defining blood pressure
REF: p. 297
34. As the viscosity level of the blood: a. decreases, the blood pressure increases. b. increases, the blood pressure decreases. c. increases, the blood pressure increases. d. decreases, the blood pressure decreases. ANS: C DIF: Applying TOP: Defining blood pressure
REF: p. 295
OBJ: 6
35. Central venous blood pressure: a. can be almost zero in the inferior vena cava. b. is usually 120 mm Hg during systole. c. is usually 80 mm Hg during diastole. d. is usually 120 mm Hg during diastole. ANS: A DIF: Applying TOP: Central venous blood pressure
REF: p. 299
OBJ: 6
36. Which of the following assists in moving venous blood back to the heart? a. Contraction of skeletal muscles b. One-way valves in the veins c. The changing pressure in the chest caused by breathing d. Contraction of skeletal muscles, one-way valves in the veins, and the changing pressure in the chest caused by breathing ANS: D OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Central venous blood pressure
REF: p. 300
37. Pulse: a. can only be felt in the neck or upper body. b. can be felt only in veins. c. can be felt only in arteries. d. requires that a vein pass over a bone. ANS: C
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 300
OBJ: 6
TOP: Pulse
38. The apical beat can best be heard: a. in the space between the third and fourth rib. b. on a line even with the midpoint of the left clavicle. c. in the space between the fifth and sixth rib. d. on a line even with the midpoint of the left clavicle and in the space between the fifth and sixth rib. ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Heart-Location, size, and position
REF: p. 278
39. Which of the following is not true of the atria? a. Receive blood from arteries returning to the heart. b. Are called receiving chambers. c. Have thinner walls than ventricles. d. Pump blood to ventricles. ANS: A OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Heart chambers
REF: p. 279
40. Which of the following is not true of ventricles? a. Are called discharging chambers. b. Pump blood into the arteries. c. Have thinner walls than atria. d. Pump blood out of the heart. ANS: C OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Heart chambers
REF: p. 279
41. The tricuspid valve is located between the: a. left atrium and left ventricle. b. right atrium and right ventricle. c. right ventricle and the pulmonary artery. d. left ventricle and the aorta. ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Heart valves
REF: p. 281
42. Cardiac output is: a. the volume of blood pumped from both ventricles per minute. b. the volume of blood pumped from one ventricle per minute. c. about 5 L in the average adult. d. the volume of blood pumped from one ventricle per minute, is about 5 liters in the average adult. ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cardiac output
43. Which of the following is not true of arteries? a. They carry blood away from the capillaries.
REF: p. 286
b. They carry blood away from the heart. c. They have thicker tunica media than do veins. d. Their innermost layer is composed of endothelium. ANS: A OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood vessels
REF: p. 288
44. Which of the following is not true of veins? a. Blood drains into them from venules. b. They carry blood back to the heart. c. They have a thicker tunica media than do arteries. d. Their innermost layer is called the tunica intima. ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood vessels
REF: p. 288
45. Another name for the visceral pericardium is the: a. epicardium. b. endocardium. c. myocardium. d. visceral pericardium is not known by another name. ANS: A OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pericardium
REF: p. 279
46. Another name for the parietal pericardium is the: a. epicardium. b. endocardium. c. myocardium. d. parietal pericardium is not known by another name. ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pericardium
REF: p. 279
47. The pericardium is composed of: a. muscle tissue. b. columnar epithelial tissue. c. serous membrane. d. fibrous connective tissue. ANS: C OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pericardium
REF: p. 279
48. The volume of blood ejected from the ventricles during each beat is called: a. stroke volume. b. cardiac output. c. cardiac cycle. d. stroke volume and cardiac output. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cardiac output
REF: p. 286
49. Blood that has just passed through the bicuspid valve is in the: a. aorta. b. right ventricle. c. left ventricle. d. pulmonary artery. ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood flow through the heart
REF: p. 281
50. Blood that has just passed through the bicuspid valve is in the: a. aorta. b. right ventricle. c. left ventricle. d. pulmonary artery. ANS: B OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood flow through the heart
REF: p. 281
51. Blood in the pulmonary artery: a. was ejected from the left ventricle. b. is rich in oxygen. c. has just passed through a semilunar valve. d. returns immediately to the left atrium. ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood flow through the heart
REF: p. 281
52. Blood in the aorta: a. was ejected from the left ventricle. b. is rich in oxygen. c. has just passed through a semilunar valve. d. was ejected from the left ventricle, is rich in oxygen, and has just passed through a semilunar valve. ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood flow through the heart
REF: p. 281
53. Chordae tendineae: a. are attached to the semilunar valves. b. are attached to the atrioventricular valves. c. are attached to the walls of the atria. d. are attached to the atrioventricular branches. ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Heart valves
54. Another name for a heart attack is a(n): a. embolism. b. angina pectoris. c. myocardial infarction. d. fibrillation.
REF: p. 281
ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood supply to heart muscle
REF: p. 282
55. The force(s) that influence capillary exchange are: a. osmosis. b. active transport. c. filtration. d. osmosis and filtration. ANS: D OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Capillary exchange
REF: p. 290
MATCHING Match each of the terms with its definition or description. a. Atria b. Ventricles c. Tricuspid valve d. Bicuspid valve e. Chordae tendineae f. Semilunar g. Parietal pericardium h. Myocardium i. Epicardium j. Endocardium 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Innermost layer of the heart wall Valve separating the right atrium from the right ventricle Valve separating the left atrium from the left ventricle Another term for the visceral pericardium Receiving chambers of the heart Fibrous sac surrounding the heart Valve between a ventricle and an artery Discharging chambers of the heart Stringlike structures that attach to the atrioventricular valves of the heart Muscle layer of the heart
1. ANS: OBJ: 2. ANS: OBJ: 3. ANS: OBJ: 4. ANS: OBJ: 5. ANS: OBJ: 6. ANS:
J 1 C 1 D 1 I 1 A 1 G
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF:
Remembering Heart chambers Remembering Heart valves Remembering Heart valves Remembering Pericardium Remembering Heart chambers Remembering
REF: p. 279 REF: p. 281 REF: p. 281 REF: p. 279 REF: p. 279 REF: p. 279
7. 8. 9. 10.
OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ:
1 F 1 B 1 E 1 H 1
TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Pericardium Remembering Heart valves Remembering Heart chambers Remembering Heart valves Remembering Heart chambers
REF: p. 281 REF: p. 279 REF: p. 281 REF: p. 279
Match each of the terms with its definition or description. a. Systole b. Diastole c. Cardiac cycle d. Stroke volume e. Cardiac output f. Sinoatrial node g. Purkinje fiber h. P wave i. QRS complex j. T wave 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
“Pacemaker” of the heart Relaxation of the heart muscle ECG tracing indicating the depolarization of the atria Volume of blood ejected from the ventricle during each beat Last structure in the heart conduction system; stimulates the ventricles to contract ECG tracing indicating the repolarization of the ventricles Contraction of the heart muscle ECG tracing indicating the depolarization of the ventricles Each complete heartbeat Volume of blood pumped by one ventricle in 1 minute
11. ANS: OBJ: 12. ANS: OBJ: 13. ANS: OBJ: 14. ANS: OBJ: 15. ANS: OBJ: 16. ANS: OBJ: 17. ANS: OBJ: 18. ANS:
F 3 B 1 H 3 D 2 G 3 J 3 A 1 I
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF:
Remembering Conduction system Remembering Heart action Remembering Electrocardiogram Remembering Cardiac output Remembering Conduction system Remembering Electrocardiogram Remembering Heart action Remembering
REF: p. 285 REF: p. 280 REF: p. 285 REF: p. 286 REF: p. 285 REF: p. 286 REF: p. 280 REF: p. 286
OBJ: 19. ANS: OBJ: 20. ANS: OBJ:
3 C 2 E 2
TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Electrocardiogram Remembering Cardiac output Remembering Cardiac output
REF: p. 286 REF: p. 286
Match each of the terms with its definition or description. a. Artery b. Vein c. Capillary d. Tunica adventitia e. Tunica intima f. Tunica media g. Ductus arteriosus h. Ductus venosus i. Hepatic portal system j. Pulse 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
Innermost layer of an artery or vein Expanding and recoiling of an artery due to the force of blood Blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart Blood vessel that allows fetal blood to bypass the immature liver Outermost layer of an artery or vein Blood vessel that allows fetal blood to bypass the lungs Blood vessel that carries blood back to the heart Second capillary bed in the liver, containing blood coming from the digestive system Muscle layer of an artery or vein Blood vessels that exchange substances between the blood and tissues
21. ANS: OBJ: 22. ANS: OBJ: 23. ANS: OBJ: 24. ANS: OBJ: 25. ANS: OBJ: 26. ANS: OBJ: 27. ANS: OBJ: 28. ANS: OBJ: 29. ANS: OBJ: 30. ANS:
E 4 J 6 A 4 H 5 D 4 G 5 B 4 I 5 F 4 C
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF:
Remembering Blood vessels Remembering Pulse Remembering Blood vessels Remembering Fetal circulation Remembering Blood vessels Remembering Fetal circulation Remembering Blood vessels Remembering Hepatic portal circulation Remembering Blood vessels-Structure Remembering
REF: p. 289 REF: p. 300 REF: p. 288 REF: p. 295 REF: p. 288 REF: p. 295 REF: p. 288 REF: p. 294 REF: p. 288 REF: p. 288
OBJ: 4
TOP: Blood vessels-Functions
Match the structure with the description. a. Right atrium b. Right ventricle c. Left atrium d. Left ventricle e. Tricuspid valve f. Mitral valve g. Aortic semilunar valve h. Pulmonary semilunar valve i. Aorta j. Pulmonary artery k. Pulmonary vein l. Inferior vena cava 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42.
Blood passing through the tricuspid valve enters this chamber. Valve that prevents blood from falling back into the left ventricle. Chamber that pushes blood through the aortic semilunar valve when contracted. Valve through which the left ventricle pushes blood into an artery. Blood vessel from which blood empties into the right atrium. Blood vessel that returns blood to the right atrium. Chamber that blood from the pulmonary vein enters. Valve that prevents blood from falling back into the right ventricle. Valve that blood in the left ventricle passes through. Blood vessel into which blood in the right ventricle is pushed. Valve that blood in the right ventricle passes through. Heart chamber into which blood from the superior vena cava enters.
31. ANS: OBJ: 32. ANS: OBJ: 33. ANS: OBJ: 34. ANS: OBJ: 35. ANS: OBJ: 36. ANS: OBJ: 37. ANS: OBJ: 38. ANS: OBJ: 39. ANS: OBJ: 40. ANS:
B 2 G 2 D 2 I 2 L 2 K 2 C 2 H 2 F 2 J
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF:
Remembering Blood flow through the heart Remembering Blood flow through the heart Remembering Blood flow through the heart Remembering Blood flow through the heart Remembering Blood flow through the heart Remembering Blood flow through the heart Remembering Blood flow through the heart Remembering Blood flow through the heart Remembering Blood flow through the heart Remembering
REF: p. 281 REF: p. 281 REF: p. 281 REF: p. 281 REF: p. 281 REF: p. 281 REF: p. 281 REF: p. 281 REF: p. 281 REF: p. 281
OBJ: 41. ANS: OBJ: 42. ANS: OBJ:
2 E 2 A 2
TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Blood flow through the heart Remembering Blood flow through the heart Remembering Blood flow through the heart
REF: p. 281 REF: p. 281
Identify the order in which a drop of blood would pass from the superior vena cava to the aorta. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 f. 6 g. 7 h. 8 i. 9 j. 10 k. 11 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53.
Pulmonary artery Tricuspid valve Pulmonary vein Mitral valve Right ventricle Left ventricle Lungs Aortic semilunar valve Right atrium Pulmonary semilunar valve Left atrium
43. ANS: OBJ: 44. ANS: OBJ: 45. ANS: OBJ: 46. ANS: OBJ: 47. ANS: OBJ: 48. ANS: OBJ: 49. ANS: OBJ: 50. ANS: OBJ:
E 2 B 2 G 2 I 2 C 2 J 2 F 2 K 2
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering Blood flow through the heart Remembering Blood flow through the heart Remembering Blood flow through the heart Remembering Blood flow through the heart Remembering Blood flow through the heart Remembering Blood flow through the heart Remembering Blood flow through the heart Remembering Blood flow through the heart
REF: p. 281 REF: p. 281 REF: p. 281 REF: p. 281 REF: p. 281 REF: p. 281 REF: p. 281 REF: p. 281
51. ANS: OBJ: 52. ANS: OBJ: 53. ANS: OBJ:
A 2 D 2 H 2
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering Blood flow through the heart Remembering Blood flow through the heart Remembering Blood flow through the heart
REF: p. 281 REF: p. 281 REF: p. 281
TRUE/FALSE 1. About one third of the heart lies to the left of the midline of the sternum. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Heart-Location, size, and position
REF: p. 278
2. The blunt point of the heart is called the apex of the heart. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Heart-Location, size, and position
REF: p. 278
3. The septum, which divides the upper chambers of the heart into right and left sides, is called the interventricular septum. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Heart | Heart chambers
REF: p. 279
4. The parietal pericardium is also called the epicardium. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pericardium
REF: p. 279
5. One of the functions of the pericardium is to reduce the friction created by the beating heart. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pericardium
REF: p. 279
6. A heart attack that causes injury to the myocardium will weaken the heart’s ability to pump blood. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Heart chambers
Applying
REF: p. 279
OBJ: 1
7. The myocardium is working hardest when the heart is in diastole. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Heart action
Applying
REF: p. 279
OBJ: 1
8. In the contracting heart, atrial systole is usually stronger than ventricular systole.
ANS: F DIF: TOP: Heart action
Applying
REF: p. 280
OBJ: 1
9. The tricuspid valve keeps blood from flowing back into the left atrium. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Heart valves
REF: p. 281
10. The mitral valve, the bicuspid valve, and the left atrioventricular valve all refer to the same structure. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Heart valves
REF: p. 281
11. Semilunar valves are between ventricles and arteries. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Heart valves
REF: p. 281
12. Valves are important in keeping the blood flow in the heart going in only one direction. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Heart valves
Applying
REF: p. 281
OBJ: 1
13. The chordae tendineae are stringlike structures attached to the semilunar valves. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Heart valves
REF: p. 281
14. The right ventricle provides the force to push the blood through systemic circulation. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood flow through the heart
REF: p. 281
15. In pulmonary circulation, arteries carry oxygen-poor blood. In systemic circulation, arteries carry oxygen-rich blood. ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: Blood flow through the heart
REF: p. 281
OBJ: 2
16. In pulmonary circulation, veins carry oxygen-poor blood. In systemic circulation, veins carry oxygen-rich blood. ANS: F DIF: Applying TOP: Blood flow through the heart
REF: p. 281
OBJ: 2
17. Both a myocardial infarction and angina pectoris are a result of an insufficient amount of oxygen getting to the heart muscle.
ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood supply to heart muscle
REF: p. 281
18. The stroke volume of a normal resting adult is about 5 L. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cardiac output
REF: p. 286
19. Cardiac output is the volume of blood pumped by one ventricle in 1 minute. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cardiac output
REF: p. 286
20. During exercise, the greatest increase in blood flow is to the cardiac muscle. ANS: F DIF: Remembering REF: p. 288 OBJ: 2 TOP: Health and Well-Being: Changes in blood flow during exercise 21. The intercalated disks that link the heart cells assist in the efficient conduction of the heart contraction. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Conduction system
REF: p. 284
22. The sinoatrial node is sometimes called the pacemaker of the heart. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Conduction system
REF: p. 285
23. The AV node initiates the contraction of the atria. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Conduction system
REF: p. 285
24. The Purkinje fibers and the bundle of His are involved in the contraction of the ventricles. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Conduction system
REF: p. 285
25. A patient with a serious heart block may be treated with an artificial pacemaker. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Conduction system
Applying
REF: p. 285
OBJ: 3
26. An ECG is a graphic representation of the heart’s electrical activity. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Electrocardiogram
REF: p. 285
27. An unusual P wave tracing on an ECG would indicate a problem with ventricular depolarization. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Applying REF: p. 285 | p. 286 TOP: Electrocardiogram
28. The QRS complex on an ECG measures the repolarization of the ventricles. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Electrocardiogram
REF: p. 286
29. The T wave tracing measures atrial repolarization. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Electrocardiogram
REF: p. 286
30. Depolarization occurs just before contraction. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Electrocardiogram
REF: p. 286
31. Repolarization occurs just before contraction. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Electrocardiogram
REF: p. 286
32. The QRS complex usually hides the repolarization of the atria. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Electrocardiogram
REF: p. 286
33. A patient with a very unusual P wave is more seriously ill than a patient with a very unusual QRS complex. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Applying REF: p. 285 | p. 286 TOP: Electrocardiogram
34. Veins always carry blood back to the heart. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood vessels
REF: p. 291
35. Veins always carry oxygen-poor blood. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 291 TOP: Blood vessels | Routes of circulation
36. Arteries always carry blood away from the heart.
ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood vessels-Functions
REF: p. 288
37. Arteries always carry oxygen-rich blood. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 291 TOP: Blood vessels | Routes of circulation
38. Every blood vessel in the body has the tunica media layer. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood vessels-Structure
REF: p. 288
39. Every blood vessel in the body has the tunica intima layer. ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: Blood vessels-Structure
REF: p. 288
OBJ: 4
40. Veins have one-way valves that are not present in arteries. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood vessels-Structure
REF: p. 288
41. Systemic circulation begins in the left ventricle or aorta and ends in the vena cava or right atrium. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Routes of circulation
REF: p. 291
42. Pulmonary circulation begins in the pulmonary artery or right ventricle and ends in the pulmonary vein or right atrium. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Routes of circulation
REF: p. 291
43. The hepatic portal vein connects the blood leaving the liver to the inferior vena cava. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Hepatic portal circulation
REF: p. 294
44. The hepatic portal system sends blood through two sets of capillary beds rather than the usual one set of capillaries. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Hepatic portal circulation
REF: p. 294
45. One function of the hepatic portal system is to help maintain glucose homeostasis in the blood.
ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Hepatic portal circulation
REF: p. 294
46. The ductus arteriosus allows the blood from the umbilical vein to bypass the immature liver of the fetus. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Fetal circulation
REF: p. 295
47. The ductus venosus connects the umbilical vein directly to the inferior vena cava. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Fetal circulation
REF: p. 295
48. The foramen ovale and the ductus arteriosus allow the blood in the fetus to bypass the immature liver. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Fetal circulation
REF: p. 295
49. The foramen ovale shunts blood from the right ventricle to the left ventricle. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Fetal circulation
REF: p. 295
50. The ductus arteriosus connects the aorta and the pulmonary artery. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Fetal circulation
REF: p. 295
51. Blood pressure is highest in the aorta and lowest in the capillaries. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Defining blood pressure
REF: p. 297
52. Blood pressure increases from the capillaries to the inferior vena cava. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Memorization TOP: Defining blood pressure
REF: p. 297
53. Whereas high blood pressure can cause arterial rupture and strokes, very low blood pressure is always healthy. ANS: F DIF: Applying TOP: Defining blood pressure
REF: p. 297
OBJ: 6
54. In general, as blood volume in the arteries increases, the blood pressure increases.
ANS: T DIF: Applying REF: p. 298 TOP: Factors that influence blood pressure
OBJ: 6
55. An increase in heart rate always leads to an increase in blood pressure. ANS: F DIF: Applying REF: p. 298 TOP: Factors that influence blood pressure
OBJ: 6
56. In general, as blood viscosity drops, blood pressure increases. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 299 TOP: Factors that influence blood pressure
57. Contracting skeletal muscles and breathing help the veins return blood to the heart. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Central venous blood pressure
REF: p. 299
58. The apex of the heart lies on the diaphragm muscle. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 278 TOP: Remembering heart-Location, size, and position
59. The muscle tissue of the heart is called myocardium. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Heart chambers
REF: p. 279
60. The visceral pericardium is also called the endocardium. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pericardium
REF: p. 279
61. The pericardium consists of two layers, the parietal pericardium and the epicardium. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pericardium
REF: p. 279
62. Atrial systole and ventricular systole occur at the same time. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Heart action
REF: p. 280
63. Both semilunar valves are attached to the heart wall by chordae tendineae. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Heart valves
REF: p. 281
64. A damaged chordae tendineae could affect the functioning of the tricuspid valve.
ANS: T DIF: TOP: Heart valves
Applying
REF: p. 281
OBJ: 1
65. The term angioplasty refers to the medical procedure in which a vein from another part of the body is used to direct blood flow around a blocked artery in the heart. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood supply to heart muscle
REF: p. 282
66. Cardiac veins empty into the superior vena cava, which drains into the right atrium. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood supply to heart muscle
REF: p. 282
67. One function of arteries is to serve as blood reservoirs. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood vessels-Functions
REF: p. 290
68. In the capillaries, glucose and carbon dioxide move in opposite directions. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood vessels-Functions
REF: p. 290
69. A heart that is beating weakly will cause a drop in the central venous pressure. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Central venous blood pressure
REF: p. 299
70. Normal average diastolic pressure is about 120 mm Hg. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 299 TOP: Fluctuations in arterial blood pressure
71. The heart is located in the mediastinum. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Heart-Location, size, and position
REF: p. 278
72. The apical beat of the heart can be heard between the 5th and 6th ribs. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Heart-Location, size, and position
REF: p. 278
73. The apex of the heart is the most inferior and pointed part of the heart. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Heart-Location, size, and position
REF: p. 278
74. A drop of blood would pass through the mitral valve before it passed through the tricuspid valve. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Heart valves
Applying
REF: p. 281
OBJ: 1
75. The blood passing through the pulmonary semilunar valve contains a high oxygen content. ANS: F DIF: Applying TOP: Blood flow through the heart
REF: p. 281
OBJ: 2
76. The medically correct name for a “heart attack” is angina pectoris. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood supply to heart muscle
REF: p. 282
77. The coronary sinus carries blood from the aorta to the muscle of the heart. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood supply to heart muscle
REF: p. 283
78. The terms “cardiac output” and “stroke volume” mean the same thing. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cardiac output
REF: p. 286
79. The P wave, QRS complex, and T wave in an ECG all record depolarizations in different parts of the heart. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Electrocardiogram
REF: p. 285
80. Both arteries and veins have the ability to dilate and constrict to regulate the amount of blood passing through them. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood vessels-Functions
REF: p. 289 | p. 290
81. The terms “high blood pressure” and “hypertension” mean the same thing. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Defining blood pressure
REF: p. 297
82. Together the cardiovascular and lymphatic vessels make up the circulatory system. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 277
83. Ventricles are referred to as the receiving chambers of the heart. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Heart chambers
REF: p. 279
84. The atria are referred to as the receiving chambers of the heart. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Heart chambers
REF: p. 279
85. Ventricles are referred to as the discharging chambers of the heart. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Heart chambers
REF: p. 279
86. The first of the heart sounds is caused by the closing of the semilunar valves. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Heart sounds
REF: p. 281
87. The first of the heart sounds is caused by the closing of the AV valves. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Heart sounds
REF: p. 281
88. The blood in the heart supplies the myocardium with food and oxygen by the process of diffusion. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood supply to heart muscle
REF: p. 281 | p. 282
89. The cardiac output will always be larger than the stroke volume. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cardiac output
REF: p. 286
90. The cardiac cycle consists of both systole and diastole. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cardiac output
REF: p. 286
91. The bundles of His are the last part of the conduction system of the heart. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Conduction system
REF: p. 285
92. Smooth muscle cells called precapillary sphincters guard the entrances to capillaries and determine the amount of blood that will flow into each capillary.
ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood vessels-Structure
REF: p. 290
93. The umbilical cord contains two veins and one artery. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Fetal circulation
REF: p. 295
94. Hemodynamics refers to the set of processes that influence the flow of blood. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Hemodynamics
REF: p. 296
95. Capillary exchange forces vary, depending on location. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Capillary exchange
REF: p. 290
Chapter 14: Lymphatic System and Immunity Patton: Structure & Function of the Body, 17th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following structures is not part of the lymphatic system? a. Thyroid b. Thymus c. Spleen d. Cisterna chyli ANS: A OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 311 | p. 312 TOP: Organization of the lymphatic system
2. Which of the following is not a common characteristic shared by blood and lymph capillaries? a. They are microscopic. b. They have a layer of endothelium. c. They have tight-fitting cells in the endothelial layer. d. They both consist of simple squamous epithelium. ANS: C OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 313 TOP: Organization of the lymphatic system
3. Which of the following is not a common characteristic shared by blood and lymph vessels? a. Some contain one-way valves. b. They contain continually circulating fluid. c. They have a layer of simple squamous epithelium. d. They are porous and allow large molecules to enter. ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 313 TOP: Organization of the lymphatic system
4. Lymph is formed by: a. the kidney releasing fluid into the tissue space. b. plasma leaving the capillary. c. pressure on the blood caused by the pumping action of the heart. d. plasma leaving the capillary and pressure on the blood caused by the pumping action of the heart. ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 312 TOP: Organization of the lymphatic system
5. The thoracic duct: a. drains the right upper part of the body. b. drains about one fourth of the body’s lymph. c. is the largest lymph vessel in the body. d. is the smallest lymph vessel in the body. ANS: C OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 313 TOP: Organization of the lymphatic system
6. The cisterna chyli: a. is part of the right lymphatic duct. b. is part of the thoracic duct. c. is a special name given to lymph capillaries in the walls of the small intestine. d. are the lymph vessels inside the spleen. ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 314 TOP: Organization of the lymphatic system
7. The name of the lymphatic vessels in the walls of the small intestine is: a. lacteals. b. cisterna chili. c. villi. d. nodes. ANS: A OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 314 TOP: Organization of the lymphatic system
8. Lymph nodes: a. have one afferent vessel. b. have several efferent vessels. c. contain phagocytic cells. d. do not perform biological filtration. ANS: C OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lymphoid organs
9. Lymph can: a. carry cancer cells that can be trapped in lymph nodes. b. be a possible route for the spread of cancer. c. carry bacteria to lymph nodes.
REF: p. 314
d. carry cancer cells that can be trapped in lymph nodes, are a possible route for the spread of cancer, and carry bacteria to lymph nodes. ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Biological filtration
REF: p. 314
10. The thymus: a. helps T lymphocytes mature. b. continues to grow throughout life, peaking in size in late middle age. c. is the largest of the lymphatic structures. d. is located high in the upper quadrant of the abdomen and lateral to the stomach. ANS: A OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Thymus
REF: p. 315
11. Which tonsils are located on either side of the throat? a. Pharyngeal tonsils b. Palatine tonsils c. Adenoids d. Both pharyngeal tonsils or adenoids ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Tonsils
REF: p. 315
12. Which tonsils are located near the posterior opening of the nasal cavity? a. Pharyngeal tonsils b. Palatine tonsils c. Adenoids d. Both pharyngeal tonsils or adenoids ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Tonsils
REF: p. 315
13. The spleen: a. is in the upper right quadrant of the abdomen, lateral to the liver. b. helps filter out bacteria. c. salvages the calcium from old or damaged red blood cells. d. is the smallest lymphoid organ. ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Spleen
REF: p. 316
14. Heat, one sign of inflammation, is caused by: a. increased blood flow to the inflamed area. b. increased vessel permeability. c. increased white blood cell concentration. d. increased red blood cell concentration. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Inflammatory response
15. Swelling, one sign of inflammation, is caused by:
REF: p. 318
a. b. c. d.
increased blood flow to the inflamed area. increased vessel permeability. increased white blood cell concentration. decreased vessel permeability.
ANS: B OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Inflammatory response
REF: p. 318
16. The inflammation response is part of: a. humoral immunity. b. cell-mediated immunity. c. specific immunity. d. nonspecific immunity. ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Inflammatory response
REF: p. 317
17. Receiving a flu shot to help protect you from getting the flu would be an example of: a. natural active immunity. b. natural passive immunity. c. artificial active immunity. d. artificial passive immunity. ANS: C DIF: TOP: Specific immunity
Applying
REF: p. 318
OBJ: 2
18. The immunity that is passed from mother to fetus is an example of: a. natural active immunity. b. natural passive immunity. c. artificial active immunity. d. artificial passive immunity. ANS: B DIF: TOP: Adaptive immunity
Applying
REF: p. 319
OBJ: 2
19. If you have had the measles, you cannot get them again. This is an example of: a. natural active immunity. b. natural passive immunity. c. artificial active immunity. d. artificial passive immunity. ANS: A DIF: TOP: Adaptive immunity
Applying
REF: p. 319
OBJ: 2
20. A person exposed to hepatitis is given a shot of gamma globulin (an antibody against hepatitis) to keep him from coming down with the disease. This is an example of: a. natural active immunity. b. natural passive immunity. c. artificial active immunity. d. artificial passive immunity. ANS: D
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 319
OBJ: 2
TOP: Adaptive immunity 21. An antigen can be a: a. toxin. b. protein on a cancer cell membrane. c. protein on a bacterial cell membrane. d. toxin, protein on a cancer cell membrane, and a protein on a bacterial cell membrane. ANS: D OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Antibodies
REF: p. 320
22. Antigens: a. are produced by T lymphocytes. b. are produced by B lymphocytes. c. can combine with antibodies. d. are produced by T and B lymphocytes. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Antibodies
REF: p. 320
23. When an antigen and a complement protein combine: a. the complement inactivates the antigen. b. it helps kill cells on whose surface complement-binding takes place. c. the complement cascade is initiated. d. it helps kill cells on whose surface complement-binding takes place and the complement cascade is initiated. ANS: D OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Antibodies
REF: p. 321
24. Complement: a. consists of a group of protein molecules. b. is activated by antibodies. c. is usually found in an inactive form in the blood. d. consists of a group of protein molecules, is activated by antibodies, and is usually found in an inactive form in the blood. ANS: D OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Complement proteins
REF: p. 321
25. Complement helps kill harmful cells by: a. “drilling” a hole in the cell membrane. b. causing sodium to rapidly leak out of the cell. c. causing water to rapidly leak out of the cell. d. causing potassium to rapidly leak out of the cell. ANS: A OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Complement proteins
26. Which of the following cells is not a phagocyte?
REF: p. 321
a. b. c. d.
Neutrophils Lymphocytes Macrophages Monocytes
ANS: B OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Immune system cells | Phagocytes
REF: p. 322
27. B cells: a. spend time developing in the thymus. b. have specific antibodies in their cell membranes. c. are responsible for cell-mediated immunity. d. bind to antigens to form cytotoxic cells. ANS: B OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 323 TOP: Immune system cells | Lymphocytes
28. Antigens cause immature B cells to: a. become T cells. b. become macrophages. c. become plasma cells. d. activate complement. ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 323 TOP: Immune system cells | Lymphocytes
29. Long-term immunity occurs when: a. T cells form plasma cells. b. neutrophils form plasma cells. c. macrophages form plasma cells. d. B cells form memory cells. ANS: D OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 323 TOP: Immune system cells | Lymphocytes
30. T cells: a. spend time developing in the thymus. b. are responsible for cell-mediated immunity. c. respond to antigens by releasing antibodies. d. spend time developing in the thymus and are responsible for cell-mediated immunity. ANS: D OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: T cells
REF: p. 325
31. T cells: a. are important in long-term immunity because they form memory cells. b. can release as many as 2000 antibodies a second. c. can release poisons that can directly kill cells. d. form plasma cells when activated. ANS: C
DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 325
OBJ: 4
TOP: T cells
32. These cells develop into macrophages once in the tissue. a. Monocytes b. Dendritic cells c. Neutrophil d. Memory cell ANS: A OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Immune system cells | Phagocytes
REF: p. 322
33. The main function of lacteals is: a. to return protein to the blood. b. to transport fats to the bloodstream. c. to move lymph to the right lymphatic duct. d. to move blood to the right lymphatic duct. ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 314 TOP: Organization of the lymphatic system
34. An important function of lymph nodes is: a. defense. b. formation of platelets. c. formation of white blood cells. d. defense and the formation of white blood cells. ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Memorization TOP: Biological filtration
REF: p. 314
35. Which of the following is not true of the thymus gland? a. Most of the thymus gland is found in the neck. b. It produces hormones called thymosins. c. It is the source and maturation site for T cells. d. It goes through the process of involution in later life. ANS: A OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Thymus
REF: p. 315
36. Which of the following is not a function of the spleen? a. It salvages iron from hemoglobin. b. It acts as a reservoir for blood. c. It is a site for the maturation of B cells. d. It destroys worn out red blood cells. ANS: C OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Spleen
37. Which of the following is not part of the body’s innate immunity? a. Antibodies b. The skin c. Tears
REF: p. 316
d. Phagocytosis ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Innate immunity
REF: p. 316 | p. 317
38. Compliment-binding sites are located on: a. antigens. b. antibodies. c. B cells. d. T cells. ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Antibodies
REF: p. 321
39. Lymphocytes can be found in: a. lymph nodes. b. the thymus. c. the liver. d. the lymph nodes, thymus, and liver. ANS: D OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lymphocytes
REF: p. 323
40. What type of fluid is called lymph when it enters a lymph vessel? a. Serum b. Interstitial fluid c. Serous fluid d. Blood plasma ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 312 TOP: Organization of the lymphatic system
41. Which of the following are called adenoids when they become swollen? a. Palatine tonsils b. Lingual tonsils c. Pharyngeal tonsils d. Lymph nodes of the neck ANS: C OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Tonsils
REF: p. 315
42. Antibodies are important in what type of immune response? a. Humoral immunity b. Cell-mediated immunity c. Innate immunity d. The inflammation response ANS: A OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Antibodies
REF: p. 320
43. Which of the following is not a role of complement in the immune system? a. Increasing the permeability of blood vessels
b. Attracting immune cells to the site of infection c. Marking foreign cells for destruction d. spend time developing in the thymus and are responsible for cell-mediated immunity ANS: D OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Complement proteins
REF: p. 321
44. Lymph flowing through the lymphatic capillaries moves into larger vessels called: a. lymphatic venules. b. lymphatic arterioles. c. lymphatic arteries. d. lymphatic lacteals. ANS: A OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 313 TOP: Organization of the lymphatic system
45. Lymph nodes can be: a. single cells. b. the size of a pinhead. c. the size of a lima bean. d. the size of a pinhead or the size of a lima bean. ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lymph nodes
REF: p. 314
46. Lymph nodes: a. always have more efferent vessels than afferent vessels. b. always have more afferent vessels than efferent vessels. c. usually have the same number of afferent and efferent vessels. d. have various ratios of afferent and efferent vessels depending on their location. ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Biological filtration
REF: p. 314
47. When T cells leave the thymus, they can go to: a. the spleen. b. the tonsils. c. lymph nodes. d. the spleen, tonsils, and lymph nodes. ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Thymus
REF: p. 315
48. Tonsils at the base of the tongue are called: a. palatine tonsils. b. adenoids. c. lingual tonsils. d. pharyngeal tonsils. ANS: C OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Tonsils
REF: p. 315
49. The largest lymphoid organ in the body is the: a. spleen. b. palatine tonsils. c. thymus. d. cisterna chyli. ANS: A OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Spleen
REF: p. 316
50. The spleen has a very rich blood supply and may contain: a. 5 L of blood. b. 1 L of blood. c. 500 mL of blood. d. 100 mL of blood. ANS: C OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Spleen
REF: p. 316
51. The function of the immune system is to protect the body from: a. disease-causing bacteria. b. transplanted foreign tissue. c. body cells that have become malignant or cancerous. d. disease-causing bacteria, transplanted foreign tissue, and body cells that have become malignant or cancerous. ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Function of the immune system
REF: p. 316
52. Innate immunity is sometimes called: a. the inflammatory response. b. in-bone immunity. c. nonspecific immunity. d. T-cell–mediated immunity. ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Memorization TOP: Innate immunity
REF: p. 316
53. This is not true of adaptive immunity: a. reacts faster than innate immunity. b. has a memory ability. c. produces a stronger response than innate immunity. d. reacts slower than innate immunity. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Adaptive immunity
54. This cell is not considered an antigen-presenting cell: a. dendritic cells. b. neutrophils. c. macrophages.
REF: p. 318
d. monocytes. ANS: B OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Phagocytes
REF: p. 322 | p. 323
55. Chemicals that are released from cells to act as direct agents of innate immunity are called: a. antigens. b. antibodies. c. cytokines. d. antigens or antibodies. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cytokines
REF: p. 319
56. This type of lymphocyte kill many types of tumor cells infected by different kinds of viruses. a. T cells b. Natural killer cells (NK) c. B cells d. Phagocyte ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Natural killer cells
REF: p. 323
MATCHING Match each of the terms with its definition or description. a. Right lymphatic duct b. Thoracic duct c. Cisterna chili d. Efferent vessels e. Afferent vessels f. Thymus g. Palatine tonsils h. Pharyngeal tonsils i. Lingual tonsils j. Spleen k. Lacteals l. Lymph nodes m. Thymosins 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9.
Type of lymph vessel that moves lymph toward the lymph node. Structure in which T cells mature. Structures that can also be called adenoids. Structure that drains about one fourth of the lymph of the body. Type of lymph vessel that moves lymph away from the lymph node. Tonsils that are near the base of the tongue. A storage area for lymph in the thoracic duct. Tonsils that are on either side of the throat. Structure through which about three fourths of the lymph in the body drains.
10. 11. 12. 13.
Largest organ of the lymphatic system. A group of hormones produced by the thymus gland. Lymphatic vessels in the wall of the small intestine. Structures that filter the lymph before it is returned to the blood.
1. ANS: OBJ: 2. ANS: OBJ: 3. ANS: OBJ: 4. ANS: OBJ: 5. ANS: OBJ: 6. ANS: OBJ: 7. ANS: OBJ: 8. ANS: OBJ: 9. ANS: OBJ: 10. ANS: OBJ: 11. ANS: OBJ: 12. ANS: OBJ: 13. ANS: OBJ:
E 1 F 1 H 1 A 1 D 1 I 1 C 1 G 1 B 1 J 1 M 1 K 1 L 1
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering REF: Biological filtration Remembering REF: Thymus Remembering REF: Tonsils Remembering REF: Organization of the lymphatic system Remembering REF: Biological filtration Remembering REF: Tonsils Remembering REF: Organization of the lymphatic system Remembering REF: Tonsils Remembering REF: Organization of the lymphatic system Remembering REF: Spleen Remembering REF: Thymus Remembering REF: Organization of the lymphatic system Remembering REF: Lymph nodes
Match each of the terms with its definition or description. a. Innate immunity b. Inflammatory response c. Natural active immunity d. Artificial active immunity e. Complement f. Neutrophil g. Antigen h. Antibody i. T cell j. B cell k. Artificial passive immunity l. Natural passive immunity m. Combining sites n. Humoral immunity o. Macrophages
p. 314 p. 315 p. 315 p. 313 p. 314 p. 315 p. 314 p. 315 p. 313 p. 316 p. 315 p. 314 p. 314
p. q. r. s. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32.
Dendritic cells Plasma cells Memory cells Cell-mediated immunity
Type of immunity you have to chickenpox after you have had chickenpox A group of inactive proteins in the blood that can be activated by antibodies. An important phagocytic cell of the immune system, found in pus. A molecule that is produced and released by a plasma cell. A type of immunity that is inborn. A cell that is responsible for humoral immunity. Type of immunity you have to the flu after getting a flu shot. Cell responsible for cell-mediated immunity. A nonspecific immune response that includes redness and swelling. Something that can stimulate the production and release of antibodies. Type of immunity produced by B lymphocytes. An injection of antibodies made by someone else into another person’s body. Type of immunity produced by T lymphocytes. B cells that produce antibodies and release them into the blood. Type of immunity an infant receives from mother’s milk. Phagocytes that are highly branched and migrate to tissues exposed to the environment. B cells that are on “stand-by” to quickly respond to a reinvasion of the antigen. Monocytes that have migrated into tissues to became phagocytes. Parts of the antibody that have a “lock and key” fit with antigens.
14. ANS: TOP: 15. ANS: OBJ: 16. ANS: OBJ: 17. ANS: OBJ: 18. ANS: TOP: 19. ANS: OBJ: 20. ANS: TOP: 21. ANS: OBJ: 22. ANS: OBJ: 23. ANS: OBJ: 24. ANS: OBJ:
C DIF: Adaptive immunity E DIF: 2 TOP: F DIF: 2 TOP: H DIF: 3 TOP: A DIF: Innate immunity J DIF: 4 TOP: D DIF: Adaptive immunity I DIF: 4 TOP: B DIF: 2 TOP: G DIF: 3 TOP: N DIF: 3 TOP:
Applying
REF: p. 319
OBJ: 2
Remembering Immune system molecules Remembering Immune system cells Remembering Immune system molecules Applying REF: p. 316
REF: p. 321
Remembering Immune system cells Applying REF: p. 319
REF: p. 323
Remembering Immune system cells Remembering Inflammatory response Remembering Immune system molecules Remembering Antibodies
REF: p. 325
REF: p. 322 REF: p. 320 OBJ: 2
OBJ: 2
REF: p. 317 REF: p. 320 REF: p. 320
25. ANS: OBJ: 26. ANS: OBJ: 27. ANS: OBJ: 28. ANS: OBJ: 29. ANS: OBJ: 30. ANS: OBJ: 31. ANS: OBJ: 32. ANS: OBJ:
K 2 S 4 Q 4 L 2 P 4 R 4 O 4 M 3
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering Adaptive immunity Remembering Functions of T-cells Remembering B cells Remembering Adaptive immunity Remembering Phagocytes Remembering B cells Remembering Phagocytes Remembering Antibodies
REF: p. 319 REF: p. 327 REF: p. 324 REF: p. 319 REF: p. 322 REF: p. 324 REF: p. 321 REF: p. 320
TRUE/FALSE 1. Much of the interstitial fluid that is pushed out of the blood vessels returns to the blood vessels. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 312 TOP: Organization of the lymphatic system
2. Both the lymph capillaries and blood capillaries have a layer of endothelium. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 313 TOP: Organization of the lymphatic system
3. Both the lymph capillaries and blood capillaries have a layer of tightly fitting squamous epithelium. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 313 TOP: Organization of the lymphatic system
4. Unlike blood vessels, lymph vessels have one-way valves to ensure the lymph moves in only one direction. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 313 TOP: Organization of the lymphatic system
5. Lymph from about one fourth of the body drains into the thoracic duct. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 313 TOP: Organization of the lymphatic system
6. Lymph from about one fourth of the body drains into the right lymphatic duct.
ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 313 TOP: Organization of the lymphatic system
7. The cisterna chyli is part of the right lymphatic duct that serves as a storage area for lymph. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 314 TOP: Organization of the lymphatic system
8. While the lymphatic system is part of the immune system, because lymph does not circulate, it is not part of the circulatory system. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 311 TOP: Organization of the lymphatic system
9. Lymph nodes are capable of filtering bacteria from the lymph. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Biological filtration
REF: p. 314
10. Lymph nodes typically have a single afferent vessel. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Biological filtration
REF: p. 314
11. Afferent vessels carry lymph toward the lymph node. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Biological filtration
REF: p. 314
12. Lymph typically has several efferent vessels. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Biological filtration
REF: p. 314
13. Efferent vessels carry lymph away from the lymph node. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Biological filtration
REF: p. 314
14. Lymph nodes can trap cancer cells that have been carried away from the primary cancer site. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Biological filtration
REF: p. 314
15. The lymphatic system may be the route that some cancers use to spread to other parts of the body. ANS: T
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 314
OBJ: 1
TOP: Biological filtration
16. T lymphocytes mature in the thymus. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Thymus
REF: p. 315
17. The thymus reaches its largest functional size in mid-adulthood. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Thymus
REF: p. 315
18. The tonsils located near the base of the tongue are called the palatine tonsils. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Tonsils
REF: p. 315
19. The tonsils located on either side of the throat are called the lingual tonsils. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Tonsils
REF: p. 315
20. The pharyngeal tonsils are also known as the adenoids. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Tonsils
REF: p. 315
21. Tears contribute to innate immunity. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Innate immunity
REF: p. 317
22. The heat and redness of the inflammatory response are caused by an increase in vascular permeability. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Inflammatory response
REF: p. 318
23. The swelling and pain of the inflammatory response are caused by an increase in vascular permeability. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Inflammatory response
REF: p. 318
24. Innate immunity usually is slower to respond than is adaptive immunity. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Innate immunity
REF: p. 316
25. The immunity a nursing infant receives from her mother’s milk is an example of natural active immunity. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Adaptive immunity
Applying
REF: p. 318
OBJ: 2
26. If you have had the mumps once, you cannot get them again. This is an example of natural active immunity. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Adaptive immunity
Applying
REF: p. 318
OBJ: 2
27. Receiving the polio vaccine to prevent you from getting polio is an example of artificial passive immunity. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Adaptive immunity
Applying
REF: p. 319
OBJ: 2
28. Someone with a severely compromised immune system would probably get very little benefit from receiving a flu shot to keep him from getting the flu. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Adaptive immunity
Creating
REF: p. 319
OBJ: 2
29. If someone with a severely compromised immune system was exposed to hepatitis, it would do him very little good to receive gamma globulin (antibodies to hepatitis). ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Creating REF: p. 318 | p. 319 TOP: Specific immunity
30. Artificial active immunity can be effective even after a person has been exposed to the infectious organism. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Adaptive immunity
Applying
REF: p. 319
OBJ: 2
31. Artificial passive immunity can be effective even after a person has been exposed to the infectious organism. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Adaptive immunity
Applying
REF: p. 319
OBJ: 2
32. The surface protein on a cancer cell or a microorganism can be an antigen. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Antibodies
33. An antibody and an antigen fit together like a key in a lock.
REF: p. 320
ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Immune system molecules
REF: p. 320
34. Antigens have the ability to neutralize specific toxins in the body. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Antibodies
REF: p. 320
35. When an antigen and an antibody unite, macrophages can destroy the antigen more efficiently. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Antibodies
REF: p. 320
36. The combination of an antigen and antibody can activate complement. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Complement proteins
REF: p. 321
37. Complement is a group of proteins that are usually found in an inactive form in the blood. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Complement proteins
REF: p. 321
38. Complement kills cells by drilling holes in the cell membrane, which allows sodium to rapidly leave the cell. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Complement proteins
REF: p. 321
39. Complement kills cells by drilling holes in the cell membrane, which allows water to rapidly leave the cell. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Complement proteins
REF: p. 321
40. Neutrophils are important phagocytes in the immune system. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Phagocytes
REF: p. 322
41. When neutrophils migrate into the tissues, they are called macrophages. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Phagocytes
REF: p. 322
42. A dendritic cell is a highly branched phagocytic cell that migrates to tissues that are exposed to the external environment.
ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Phagocytes
REF: p. 322
43. Both T cells and B cells are lymphocytes. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lymphocytes
REF: p. 323
44. B cells were named after an organ in birds called a bursa. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: B cells
REF: p. 323
45. B cells reach maturity in the thymus. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: B cells
REF: p. 323
46. When B cells come in contact with a specific antigen, they develop into plasma cells. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: B cells
REF: p. 325
47. Plasma cells are responsible for long-term immunity. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: B cells
REF: p. 325
48. T cells are responsible for long-term immunity. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: T cells
REF: p. 325
49. T cells are responsible for humoral immunity. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: T cells
REF: p. 325
50. T cells can kill invading cells directly by poisoning them and by releasing a substance that attracts macrophages. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: T cells
REF: p. 327
51. Lymph is interstitial fluid that has entered a lymph vessel. ANS: T DIF: Applying REF: p. 312 TOP: Organization of the lymphatic system
OBJ: 1
52. The original source of lymph is blood plasma. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 312 TOP: Organization of the lymphatic system
53. An important role of the lymphatic system is fluid homeostasis. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 311 TOP: Organization of the lymphatic system
54. The tunica media of lymph capillaries contains smooth muscle to help move lymph. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 313 TOP: Organization of the lymphatic system
55. Lymph nodes are found between the lymphatic capillaries and the right lymphatic duct or the thoracic duct. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Biological filtration
Applying
REF: p. 314
OBJ: 1
56. In the lymph node, biological filtration is accomplished by phagocytosis. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Biological filtration
REF: p. 314
57. The immune system is different from most systems because it is made up of cells and molecules rather than large organs. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Function of the immune system
REF: p. 316
58. Inborn or innate immunity is an example of the body’s adaptive immunity. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Adaptive immunity
REF: p. 318
59. The antibodies passed from the mother to the fetus before birth is an example of inherited immunity. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Adaptive immunity
REF: p. 319
60. Antibodies that attach to molecules on the surface of cells cause the cells to clump together, or agglutinate. ANS: T TOP: Antibodies
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 320
OBJ: 2
61. Both B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes come from stem cells in the bone marrow. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Development of B cells
REF: p. 323
62. Clones of B cells all share the same surface antibody molecule. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Development of B cells
REF: p. 324
63. By early adulthood, all immature B cells have been activated. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Development of B cells
REF: p. 323
64. Memory B cells outlive plasma B cells. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Development of B cells
REF: p. 325
65. Both T cells and B cells have antigen receptors on their cell membranes. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Applying REF: p. 323 | p. 325 TOP: Development of B cells | Development of T cells
66. When blood plasma enters a lymph node, it is called lymph. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 311 TOP: Organization of the lymphatic system
67. It is easier for substances to move into a lymph node than into a blood capillary. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 312 | p. 313 TOP: Organization of the lymphatic system
68. Lymph does not circulate through the lymph system the same way blood circulates through the circulatory system. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 312 TOP: Organization of the lymphatic system
69. Thymosins are hormones released by the thymus gland, which influence the development of B lymphocytes. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Thymus
70. The spleen can hold about 100 mL of blood.
REF: p. 315
ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Spleen
REF: p. 316
71. The terms innate immunity and nonspecific immunity refer to the same thing. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Innate immunity
REF: p. 316
72. The main difference between active and passive immunity is where the immunity develops. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Adaptive immunity
Applying
REF: p. 318
OBJ: 2
73. A main difference between natural and artificial immunity is how the body was exposed to the harmful agent. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Adaptive immunity
Applying
REF: p. 318
OBJ: 2
74. The combining sites on an antibody are only exposed when it is attached to an antigen. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Antibodies
REF: p. 320
75. Adults can produce B lymphocytes in both the liver and red bone marrow. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: B cells
REF: p. 323
76. Lymphatic capillaries in the spleen are called lacteals. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 314 TOP: Organization of the lymphatic system
77. The size of lymph nodes range between the size of a pinhead and a lima bean. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lymph nodes
REF: p. 314
78. The thymus is located in the mediastinum. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Thymus
REF: p. 315
79. Involution describes the rapid growth of the thymus gland from childhood to puberty. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Thymus
REF: p. 315
80. The thymus gland is the largest lymphoid organ in the body. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Spleen
REF: p. 316
81. One function of the spleen is to recycle the iron from worn out red blood cells. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Spleen
REF: p. 316
82. The skin and mucous membranes are mechanical barriers of the innate immune system. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Innate immunity
REF: p. 316 | p. 317
83. Nonspecific immunity is also called adaptive immunity. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Adaptive immunity
REF: p. 318
84. Complement proteins play an important role in the inflammatory response. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Complement proteins
REF: p. 321
85. An important role that neutrophils play in the immune system is that of antigen-presenting cells that trigger the specific immune response. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Phagocytes
REF: p. 322
86. Many of the cytokines are proteins called interleukins. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Cytokines
REF: p. 320
87. Because natural killer cells have broad action, they do not require exposure to an antigen. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Natural killer cells
REF: p. 323
Chapter 15: Respiratory System Patton: Structure & Function of the Body, 17th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The upper respiratory tract includes all of the following except the: a. nose. b. trachea.
c. pharynx. d. larynx. ANS: B OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Respiratory tract
REF: p. 336
2. The lower respiratory tract includes all of the following except the: a. trachea. b. bronchi. c. larynx. d. alveoli. ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Respiratory tract
REF: p. 336
3. The respiratory mucosa: a. lines most of the air distribution tubes. b. includes the wall of the alveoli. c. includes the wall of the capillaries surrounding the alveoli. d. includes the wall of the alveoli and the wall of the capillaries surrounding the alveoli. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Respiratory mucosa
REF: p. 337
4. The respiratory membrane: a. lines most of the air distribution tubes. b. is another term for the respiratory mucosa. c. lines the alveoli. d. lines most of the air distribution tubes and is another term for the respiratory mucosa. ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Respiratory mucosa
REF: p. 337
5. The mucous blanket: a. only covers the nose and throat. b. traps dust, pollen, and other contaminants. c. only covers the alveoli and bronchioles. d. lines the alveoli. ANS: B OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Respiratory mucosa
REF: p. 337
6. The respiratory mucosa helps protect the respiratory system by: a. trapping bacteria. b. moving contaminated mucus toward the pharynx. c. having ciliated epithelium beat in only one direction. d. trapping bacteria, moving contaminated mucus towards the pharynx, and having ciliated epithelium beat in only one direction. ANS: D
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 337
OBJ: 2
TOP: Respiratory mucosa
7. The partition that divides the nasal cavities is called the: a. nasal septum. b. external nares. c. conchae. d. vestibule. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nose
REF: p. 338
8. All of the following are paranasal sinuses except the: a. frontal sinus. b. maxillary sinus. c. sphenoid sinus. d. mandibular sinus. ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nose
REF: p. 338
9. The paranasal sinuses: a. are lined with mucosa continuous with the nasal cavity. b. help lighten the weight of the skull bones. c. act as resonant chambers for sound. d. are lined with mucosa continuous with the nasal cavity, help lighten the weight of the skull bones, and acts as a resonant chamber for sound. ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nose
REF: p. 338
10. The lacrimal sacs drain directly into the: a. oropharynx. b. laryngopharynx. c. nasal cavity. d. larynx. ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nose
REF: p. 338
11. Which of the following tubes does not enter or exit the pharynx? a. Larynx b. Esophagus c. Auditory tubes d. Larynx, esophagus, and auditory tubes ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pharynx
12. The thyroid cartilage (Adam’s apple) is part of the: a. larynx. b. oropharynx.
REF: p. 338
c. nasopharynx. d. trachea. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Larynx
REF: p. 339
13. Which of these structures is not in the larynx? a. Vocal cords b. Palatine tonsils c. Glottis d. Epiglottis ANS: B OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Larynx
REF: p. 339 | p. 340
14. The function of the epiglottis is to: a. anchor the vocal cords. b. change the pitch of the voice. c. keep food from entering the trachea. d. allow food to enter the trachea. ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Larynx
REF: p. 340
15. The trachea: a. is also called the windpipe. b. contains C-shaped rings of cartilage. c. is lined by respiratory mucosa. d. is also called the windpipe, contains C-shaped rings of cartilage, and is lined by respiratory mucosa. ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Trachea
REF: p. 340
16. All of the following structures contain cartilage in their walls except the: a. trachea. b. bronchioles. c. primary bronchi. d. secondary bronchi. ANS: B OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Bronchial tree
REF: p. 342
17. The smallest of the air distribution tubes in the respiratory tract are the: a. secondary bronchi. b. bronchioles. c. alveolar ducts. d. tracheae. ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Bronchial tree
REF: p. 342
18. The function of the surfactant in the lung is to help: a. reduce the surface tension of water in the alveoli. b. trap bacteria and dust. c. move bacteria and dust toward the pharynx. d. increase the surface tension of water in the alveoli. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli
REF: p. 343
19. Which of the following statements is correct? a. The right lung has two lobes; the left lung has three lobes. b. The apex of the lung rests against the diaphragm. c. The lungs are covered by the visceral pleura. d. The apex of the lung rests against mediastinum. ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lungs | Pleurae
REF: p. 343
20. The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the alveoli and blood in the lung is called: a. cellular respiration. b. internal respiration. c. external respiration. d. breathing. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Respiration
REF: p. 345
21. The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the blood and cells throughout the body is called: a. cellular respiration. b. internal respiration. c. external respiration. d. breathing. ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Respiration
REF: p. 345
22. During inspiration: a. the diaphragm contracts and moves up into the thoracic cavity. b. the chest cavity expands. c. the pressure in the thoracic cavity increases. d. the volume of the chest cavity is reduced. ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Inspiration
23. During expiration: a. the diaphragm relaxes and moves up into the thoracic cavity. b. the chest cavity is reduced in volume. c. the pressure in the thoracic cavity increases.
REF: p. 346
d. the diaphragm relaxes and moves up into the thoracic cavity, the chest cavity is reduced in volume, and the pressure in the thoracic cavity increases. ANS: D OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Expiration
REF: p. 347
24. The most important muscle(s) of inspiration is (are) the: a. diaphragm. b. internal intercostals. c. abdominal muscles. d. internal intercostals and abdominal muscles. ANS: A OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Inspiration
REF: p. 346
25. The most important muscle(s) of forced expiration is (are) the: a. diaphragm. b. internal intercostals. c. abdominal muscles. d. internal intercostals and abdominal muscles. ANS: D OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Expiration
REF: p. 347
26. Oxygen in the lung: a. is actively transported out of the lung. b. converts hemoglobin to oxyhemoglobin. c. converts oxyhemoglobin to hemoglobin. d. converts oxyhemoglobin to deoxyhemoglobin. ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Transport of oxygen
REF: p. 353
27. Carbon dioxide in the tissue cells: a. is actively transported to the blood. b. converts hemoglobin to carbaminohemoglobin. c. is carried as bicarbonate ions in the blood. d. converts hemoglobin to carbaminohemoglobin and is carried as bicarbonate ions in the blood. ANS: D OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Transport of carbon dioxide
REF: p. 353
28. The amount of air moved into and out of the lung during normal breathing is called: a. vital capacity. b. residual volume. c. tidal volume. d. expiratory reserve volume. ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pulmonary volumes
REF: p. 347
29. The largest amount of air that can be breathed in and out in one breath is called: a. vital capacity. b. residual volume. c. tidal volume. d. expiratory reserve volume. ANS: A OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pulmonary volumes
REF: p. 347
30. Which volume is not included in vital capacity? a. Tidal volume b. Residual volume c. Inspiratory reserve volume d. Expiratory reserve volume ANS: B OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pulmonary volumes
REF: p. 347
31. The inspiratory and expiratory centers are located in the: a. hypothalamus. b. cerebrum. c. brainstem. d. cerebellum. ANS: C OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Brainstem control of respiration
REF: p. 348
32. The chemoreceptors in the carotid and aorta are sensitive to: a. an increase in blood carbon dioxide. b. a decrease in blood oxygen. c. an increase in blood acidity. d. an increase in blood carbon dioxide, a decrease in blood oxygen, and an increase in blood acidity. ANS: D OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Respiratory reflexes
REF: p. 349
33. The pulmonary stretch receptors: a. stimulate inspiration. b. inhibit inspiration. c. are inhibited by expiration. d. inhibit inspiration and are inhibited by expiration. ANS: D OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Respiratory reflexes
34. Which term refers to a normal respiratory rate? a. Dyspnea b. Apnea c. Eupnea d. Hyperventilation
REF: p. 350
ANS: C OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Breathing patterns
REF: p. 350
35. Dyspnea is labored breathing that is often associated with: a. hypoventilation. b. hyperventilation. c. eupnea. d. apnea. ANS: A OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Breathing patterns
REF: p. 350
36. Which of the following is not done by the respiratory system? a. Warms the air coming into the body. b. Filters the air coming into the body. c. Facilitates the sense of smell. d. Warms and filters air coming into the body and facilitates the sense of smell. ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 335
37. Which of the following structures is involved in the air distribution function of the respiratory system? a. Trachea b. Alveoli c. Bronchi d. Trachea and bronchi ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structural plan
REF: p. 336
38. Which of the following structures is involved in the gas exchange function of the respiratory system? a. Trachea b. Alveoli c. Bronchi d. Trachea and bronchi ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Structural plan
REF: p. 336
39. Which of the following is not covered by the respiratory mucosa? a. Alveoli b. Trachea c. Primary bronchi d. Secondary bronchi ANS: A DIF: Applying TOP: Respiratory mucosa
REF: p. 337
40. Conchae are shelflike structures found in the:
OBJ: 2
a. b. c. d.
ethmoid sinus. nasal cavities. laryngopharynx. frontal sinus.
ANS: B OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nose
REF: p. 338
41. The space between the vocal cords is called the: a. epiglottis. b. conchae. c. glottis. d. thyroid cartilage. ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Larynx
REF: p. 340
42. Another term for pulmonary ventilation is: a. internal respiration. b. breathing. c. external respiration. d. cellular respiration. ANS: B OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Respiration
REF: p. 345
43. Organs of the respiratory system are designed to perform which of the following functions? a. Help regulate body temperature. b. Distribute air. c. Provide for the exchange of gases. d. Distribute air and provide for the exchange of gases. ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 335
44. Another name for the nostrils of the nose is: a. external nares. b. nasal cavities. c. nasal sinuses. d. nasal septum. ANS: A OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nose
REF: p. 338
45. The auditory, or eustachian, tubes connect the: a. inner ear with the nasopharynx. b. inner ear with the oropharynx. c. middle ear with the nasopharynx. d. middle ear with the oropharynx. ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pharynx
REF: p. 338
46. Which of the following is not a function of the conchae? a. It increases the surface area over which air must pass. b. It is the location of the sense of smell. c. It warms and humidifies the air. d. It spins air in the nasal cavity. ANS: B OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nose
REF: p. 338
47. These tonsils are not in the pharynx: a. lingual. b. pharyngeal. c. palatine. d. adenoids. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pharynx
REF: p. 339
48. The order in which food or air would pass through the pharynx would be: a. oropharynx, nasopharynx, laryngopharynx. b. laryngopharynx, oropharynx, nasopharynx. c. nasopharynx, laryngopharynx, oropharynx. d. nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx. ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pharynx
REF: p. 338
49. The surface area for gas exchange of all the alveoli is about: a. 10 square meters. b. 100 square meters. c. 500 square meters. d. 50 square meters. ANS: B OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Alveoli
REF: p. 343
50. Which of the following is not true of the pleura? a. An inflammation of the pleura is called a pneumothorax. b. The visceral pleura covers the lungs. c. The parietal pleura covers chest wall. d. The pleura is a serous membrane. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pleurae
REF: p. 343
51. The partial pressure of oxygen in the blood returning to the lungs from the body is about: a. 80 mm Hg. b. 60 mm Hg. c. 40 mm Hg. d. 20 mm Hg.
ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pulmonary gas exchange
REF: p. 351
52. The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood returning to the lungs from the body is about: a. 26 mm Hg. b. 46 mm Hg. c. 56 mm Hg. d. 66 mm Hg. ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pulmonary gas exchange
REF: p. 351
53. In order for gas exchange to occur properly in the lungs is: a. the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli must be greater than the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood. b. the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli must be greater than the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood. c. the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli must be less than the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood. d. the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli must be greater than the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood and the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli must be less than the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood. ANS: D DIF: Applying TOP: Pulmonary gas exchange
REF: p. 351
OBJ: 3
54. Oxygen in the blood is carried most efficiently by: a. combining with blood plasma. b. combining with water in the blood. c. combining with hemoglobin in blood cells. d. moving up the diffusion gradient of oxygen in the lungs. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Transport of oxygen
REF: p. 351 | p. 352
55. Carbon dioxide in the blood is carried most efficiently by: a. bicarbonate ions. b. being dissolved in blood plasma. c. combining with hemoglobin in blood cells. d. moving up the diffusion gradient of carbon dioxide in the tissues. ANS: A OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Transport of carbon dioxide
REF: p. 353
56. Which term describes the group of control centers in the brainstem that produce the basic rhythm of breathing? a. Medullary ventilation area b. Medullary rhythmicity area c. Brainstem rhythmicity area d. Brainstem ventilation area
ANS: B OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Brainstem control of respiration
REF: p. 348
57. Which of the following are the two most important control centers in the medulla for regulating breathing rhythm? a. Lateral respiratory group; ventral respiratory group b. Ventral respiratory group; anterior respiratory group c. Ventral respiratory group; dorsal respiratory group d. Dorsal respiratory group; posterior respiratory group ANS: C OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Brainstem control of respiration
REF: p. 348
MATCHING Match each term with its definition or description. a. Respiratory membrane b. Respiratory mucosa c. Pharynx d. Larynx e. Trachea f. Alveoli g. Surfactant h. Primary bronchi i. Bronchioles j. Pleura k. Respiratory tree l. Upper respiratory tract m. Lacrimal sacs n. Alveolar ducts o. Conchae p. Lower respiratory tract 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
Connects the larynx to the lung; also called the windpipe Small air tube that has no cartilage in its walls, only smooth muscle Reduces the surface tension of the fluid in the alveoli Contains the vocal cords and the epiglottis Separates the air in the alveoli from the blood in the capillaries of the lung Serous membrane covering the lung and the inner chest wall Also called the throat First branch off the trachea in the lung Lines most of the air distribution tubes Air sacs in which oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the lung Structures in the nose that help warm and humidify the air Term used to describe the air distribution system Structures from which tears drain into the nasal cavity Microscopic tubes that end in the alveolar sacs Refers to the respiratory structures outside the thorax
16. Refers to the respiratory structures within the thorax 1. ANS: OBJ: 2. ANS: OBJ: 3. ANS: OBJ: 4. ANS: OBJ: 5. ANS: OBJ: 6. ANS: OBJ: 7. ANS: OBJ: 8. ANS: OBJ: 9. ANS: OBJ: 10. ANS: OBJ: 11. ANS: OBJ: 12. ANS: OBJ: 13. ANS: OBJ: 14. ANS: OBJ: 15. ANS: OBJ: 16. ANS: OBJ:
E 2 I 2 G 2 D 2 A 2 J 2 C 2 H 2 B 2 F 2 O 2 K 1 M 2 N 2 L 1 P 1
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering Trachea Remembering Bronchial tree Remembering Alveoli Remembering Larynx Remembering Respiratory mucosa Remembering Pleurae Remembering Pharynx Remembering Bronchial tree Remembering Respiratory mucosa Remembering Alveoli Remembering Nose Remembering Structural plan Remembering Nose Remembering Alveoli Remembering Structural plan Remembering Structural plan
Match each term with its definition or description. a. External respiration b. Internal respiration c. Diaphragm d. Abdominal muscles e. Oxyhemoglobin f. Bicarbonate ion g. Tidal volume h. Vital capacity i. Aortic bodies j. Stretch receptors k. Pulmonary ventilation l. Dyspnea
REF: p. 340 REF: p. 342 REF: p. 343 REF: p. 339 REF: p. 343 REF: p. 343 REF: p. 338 REF: p. 342 REF: p. 337 REF: p. 343 REF: p. 338 REF: p. 336 REF: p. 338 REF: p. 342 REF: p. 336 REF: p. 336
m. Residual volume n. Eupnea 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
Muscle(s) that is (are) important in inspiration Form in which most of the oxygen is carried in the blood Amount of air moved in and out of the lung during normal, quiet breathing Inhibits inspiration in the inflated lung Exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lung Muscle(s) that is (are) important in forced expiration Form in which most of the carbon dioxide is carried in the blood Chemoreceptors that respond to an increase in blood acidity levels TV + IRV + ERV = Exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the tissue cells of the body Labored or difficult breathing Another term for breathing Air that remains in the lung after the most forceful expiration Normal respiration
17. ANS: OBJ: 18. ANS: OBJ: 19. ANS: OBJ: 20. ANS: OBJ: 21. ANS: OBJ: 22. ANS: OBJ: 23. ANS: OBJ: 24. ANS: OBJ: 25. ANS: OBJ: 26. ANS: OBJ: 27. ANS: OBJ: 28. ANS: OBJ: 29. ANS: OBJ: 30. ANS: OBJ:
C 3 E 3 G 4 J 5 A 3 D 3 F 3 I 5 H 4 B 3 L 5 K 3 M 4 N 5
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering Inspiration Remembering Transport of oxygen Remembering Pulmonary volumes Remembering Pulmonary stretch reflexes Remembering Respiration Remembering Expiration Remembering Transport of carbon dioxide Remembering Chemoreflexes Remembering Pulmonary volumes Remembering Respiration Remembering Breathing patterns Remembering Respiration Remembering Pulmonary volumes Remembering Breathing patterns
REF: p. 347 REF: p. 351 | p. 352 REF: p. 347 REF: p. 350 REF: p. 345 REF: p. 346 REF: p. 353 REF: p. 349 REF: p. 347 REF: p. 345 REF: p. 350 REF: p. 346 REF: p. 347 REF: p. 350
In what order would air going through the respiratory pass the structures below? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 f. 6 g. 7 h. 8 i. 9 j. 10 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
Laryngopharynx Primary bronchi Nasal cavities Larynx Nasopharynx Secondary bronchi Alveoli Oropharynx Trachea Bronchioles
31. ANS: REF: 32. ANS: REF: 33. ANS: REF: 34. ANS: REF: 35. ANS: REF: 36. ANS: REF: 37. ANS: REF: 38. ANS: REF: 39. ANS: REF: 40. ANS: REF: TRUE/FALSE
D DIF: p. 336 (Figure 15-1) G DIF: p. 336 (Figure 15-1) A DIF: p. 336 (Figure 15-1) E DIF: p. 336 (Figure 15-1) B DIF: p. 336 (Figure 15-1) H DIF: p. 336 (Figure 15-1) J DIF: p. 336 (Figure 15-1) C DIF: p. 336 (Figure 15-1) F DIF: p. 336 (Figure 15-1) I DIF: p. 336 (Figure 15-1)
Remembering OBJ: 2
TOP: Pharynx
OBJ: 2
TOP: Bronchial tree
OBJ: 2
TOP: Nose
OBJ: 2
TOP: Larynx
OBJ: 2
TOP: Pharynx
OBJ: 2
TOP: Bronchial tree
OBJ: 2
TOP: Alveoli
OBJ: 2
TOP: Pharynx
OBJ: 2
TOP: Trachea
OBJ: 2
TOP: Bronchial tree
Memorization Remembering Remembering Remembering Remembering Remembering Remembering Remembering Remembering
1. The organs of the respiratory system are designed to perform two basic functions: air distribution and gas exchange. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 335
2. The upper respiratory tract consists of the nose, pharynx, and trachea. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Respiratory tract
REF: p. 336
3. The lower respiratory tract consists of the larynx, bronchi, and lungs. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Respiratory tract
REF: p. 336
4. A “head cold” involves the upper respiratory tract. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Respiratory tract
REF: p. 337
5. A “chest cold” involves the lower respiratory tract. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Respiratory tract
REF: p. 337
6. The respiratory membrane lines most of the air distribution tubes in the respiratory system. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Respiratory mucosa
REF: p. 337
7. The respiratory membrane separates the air in the alveoli from the blood in the vessels. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Respiratory mucosa
REF: p. 343
8. The mucous blanket helps to purify the air as it enters the lung. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Respiratory mucosa
REF: p. 337
9. The cilia lining the air distribution tubes beat downward to help move air into the lung. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Respiratory mucosa
REF: p. 337
10. The cilia lining the air distribution tubes beat upward to help move the trapped debris to the pharynx.
ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Respiratory mucosa
REF: p. 337
11. The nicotine in cigarette smoke stimulates the cilia to beat rapidly in both directions, stopping the efficient removal of the trapped debris. ANS: F DIF: Applying TOP: Respiratory mucosa
REF: p. 337
OBJ: 2
12. Another name for nostrils is the right and left nasal cavities. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nose
REF: p. 338
13. The four paranasal sinuses are named for the bones in which they are found. They are the frontal, parietal, sphenoidal, and ethmoidal. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nose
REF: p. 338
14. The functions of the paranasal sinuses include lightening the bones of the skull and serving as a resonant chamber for sound. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nose
REF: p. 338
15. The lacrimal sacs drain tears into the nasopharynx. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nose
REF: p. 338
16. If an individual requires supplemental oxygen, it is first bubbled through water to remove dust and pollen. ANS: F TOP: Nose
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 338
OBJ: 2
17. The pharynx can be considered part of both the respiratory and digestive systems. ANS: T TOP: Pharynx
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 338
OBJ: 2
18. The auditory tubes open into the oropharynx and help in the equalization of air pressure between the middle ear and external ear. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pharynx
REF: p. 338
19. The auditory tubes allow infections in the nasopharynx to spread to the middle ear.
ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pharynx
REF: p. 338
20. The tonsils are located in the larynx. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pharynx
REF: p. 339
21. Two pairs of tonsils are located in the pharynx. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pharynx
REF: p. 339
22. The “Adam’s apple” is part of the larynx. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Larynx
REF: p. 339
23. The vocal cords are short smooth muscles that are found in the larynx. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Larynx
REF: p. 339
24. The thyroid and glottis are both pieces of cartilage in the larynx. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Larynx
REF: p. 340
25. The epiglottis closes the esophagus during swallowing to keep food out of the lung. ANS: F TOP: Larynx
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 340
OBJ: 2
26. The trachea connects the larynx to the primary bronchi. ANS: T TOP: Trachea
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 340
OBJ: 2
27. O-shaped rings of cartilage help keep the trachea open even when pressure is applied to it. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Trachea
REF: p. 340
28. Complete tracheal obstruction causes death in a matter of minutes. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Trachea
REF: p. 340
29. The trachea, primary bronchi, and secondary bronchi all contain cartilage in their walls to help keep them open. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Memorization TOP: Bronchial tree
REF: p. 342
30. The smooth muscle contraction that occurs in an asthma attack most seriously affects the secondary bronchi. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Bronchial tree
Creating
REF: p. 342
OBJ: 2
31. In an asthma attack, medication is inhaled to relax the constricted muscles of the bronchioles. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Bronchial tree
Creating
REF: p. 342
OBJ: 2
32. The smallest and last part of the air distribution system of the respiratory tract is the alveolar ducts. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Bronchial tree
REF: p. 342
33. Surfactant is needed in the lung to increase the surface tension in the alveoli. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 343 TOP: Clinical Application: Infant Respiratory Distress Syndrome
34. Premature infants may not make sufficient surfactant in the lung. This may increase the probability that the alveoli in the lungs will collapse. ANS: T DIF: Applying REF: p. 343 OBJ: 2 TOP: Clinical Application: Infant Respiratory Distress Syndrome 35. The apex of the lung is under the collarbone and the base rests on the diaphragm. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lungs
REF: p. 343
36. The lungs are covered by the parietal pleura. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pleurae
REF: p. 343
37. The interior walls of the thoracic cavity are covered by the visceral pleura. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pleurae
REF: p. 343
38. The exchange of gases between the air in the alveoli and the blood is called external respiration. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Respiration
REF: p. 345
39. A lung problem would most directly affect external respiration. A heart attack that drastically reduced stroke volume would most directly affect internal respiration. ANS: T TOP: Respiration
DIF:
Creating
REF: p. 345
OBJ: 3
40. Cellular respiration refers to the exchange of gases between the cells and the blood. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Respiration
REF: p. 346
41. During inspiration, the diaphragm contracts and moves up into the thoracic cavity. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Inspiration
REF: p. 346
42. During inspiration, the size of the chest cavity enlarges. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Inspiration
REF: p. 346
43. If atmospheric pressure is 760 mm Hg, the pressure inside the chest cavity must be below 760 mm Hg for inspiration to occur. ANS: T TOP: Inspiration
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 346
OBJ: 3
44. Quiet expiration requires the work of both the intercostal muscles and the abdominal muscles. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Expiration
REF: p. 347
45. In some lung diseases, the lungs lose their elasticity and their ability to recoil. This would have the greatest impact on expiration. ANS: T TOP: Expiration
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 347
OBJ: 3
46. In expiration, the size of the chest cavity is reduced. ANS: T
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 347
OBJ: 3
TOP: Expiration
47. In the lung, diffusion moves oxygen from the alveoli to the blood. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pulmonary gas exchange
REF: p. 350 | p. 351
48. In the lung, hemoglobin becomes oxyhemoglobin. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Transport of oxygen
REF: p. 351 | p. 352
49. Most of the carbon dioxide in the blood is carried as carbaminohemoglobin. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Transport of carbon dioxide
REF: p. 353
50. In order for external respiration to take place, the alveoli must have a higher oxygen concentration and a lower carbon dioxide concentration than the blood in the lung capillaries. ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: Blood transportation of gases
REF: p. 351
OBJ: 3
51. Tidal volume is part of vital capacity. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pulmonary volumes
REF: p. 347
52. Residual volume is part of vital capacity. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pulmonary volumes
REF: p. 347
53. Vital capacity is the amount of air that is inhaled and exhaled during normal, quiet breathing. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pulmonary volumes
REF: p. 347
54. Tidal volume plus residual volume is equal to vital capacity. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pulmonary volumes
REF: p. 347
55. The inspiratory center is located in the medulla. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Brainstem control of respiration
REF: p. 348
56. The expiratory center is located in the pons. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Brainstem control of respiration
REF: p. 348
57. The cerebral cortex is responsible for the voluntary increase or decrease in breathing rate. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 349 TOP: Cerebral cortex control of respiration
58. When stretch receptors in the lungs are stimulated, an inhibitory impulse is sent to the expiratory center in the brain. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pulmonary stretch reflexes
REF: p. 350
59. Carotid bodies are sensitive to oxygen concentration, carbon dioxide concentration, and acid concentration in the blood. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Chemoreflexes
REF: p. 349
60. Eupnea refers to difficulty or labored breathing. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Breathing patterns
REF: p. 350
61. The removal of carbon dioxide is as important to survival as is the constant supply of oxygen. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 335
62. The respiratory tree is the structure used by the respiratory system to distribute air. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Structural plan
Applying
REF: p. 336
OBJ: 1
63. The exchange of gases occurs by way of the active transport of oxygen. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Gas exchange and transport
REF: p. 351
64. The thickness of the walls of the respiratory membrane assists in the function of gas exchange. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Alveoli
REF: p. 343
65. The surface area of the alveoli for gas exchange is about 10 square meters. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Alveoli
REF: p. 343
66. All the structures of the upper respiratory tract are outside the chest cavity. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Respiratory tract
REF: p. 336
67. The respiratory membrane and respiratory mucosa are two names for the same structure. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Respiratory mucosa
REF: p. 337 | p. 343
68. The paranasal sinuses drain into the pharynx. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nose
REF: p. 338
69. The nasal cavities assist in warming and humidifying inspired air. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nose
REF: p. 338
70. Lacrimal sacs and paranasal sinuses both drain into the same structure. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nose
REF: p. 338
71. Conchae are shell-like structures in the ethmoid sinus. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nose
REF: p. 338
72. A person with enlarged pharyngeal tonsils would have a more difficult time warming and humidifying inspired air. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Creating REF: p. 338 | p. 339 TOP: Nose | Pharynx
73. The pitch of the voice depends on the tension on the vocal cords. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Larynx
74. The trachea is almost twice as long as the pharynx.
REF: p. 340
ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pharynx | Trachea
REF: p. 338 | p. 340
75. The discovery that a decrease in plasma pH or an increase in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide will increase hemoglobin’s binding affinity with oxygen is called the Bohr effect. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 353 TOP: Science applications-Respiratory medicine
76. The lungs are composed of five lobes: three in the left lung and two in the right lung. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lungs
REF: p. 343
77. Surfactant is a slippery fluid that allows the lungs to rub against the chest wall with very little friction. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Alveoli
REF: p. 343
78. A pneumothorax can result in a collapsed lung. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pleurae
REF: p. 345
79. The respiratory system needs to exist because most of our body cells are not in contact with the air. ANS: T TOP: Respiration
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 345
OBJ: 3
80. The main function of the diaphragm is to increase the air pressure in the chest cavity. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Inspiration
REF: p. 346
81. Quiet expiration requires much less energy than quiet inspiration. ANS: T TOP: Expiration
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 347
OBJ: 3
82. Hemoglobin can carry both oxygen and carbon dioxide. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood transportation of gases
REF: p. 351
83. There is more carbaminohemoglobin in the pulmonary vein than in the pulmonary artery. ANS: F
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 351 | p. 352 | p. 353
OBJ: 3
TOP: Blood transportation of gases
84. The respiratory membrane is found only in the lower respiratory tract. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Respiratory mucosa
REF: p. 337
85. The respiratory membrane plays an important role in air purification. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Respiratory mucosa
REF: p. 337
86. The uppermost part of the pharynx is the oropharynx. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pharynx
REF: p. 338
87. Pulmonary ventilation and external respiration are different terms for the same thing. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pulmonary ventilation
REF: p. 346
88. The respiratory mucosa is covered with pseudostratified columnar epithelium that contains goblet cells. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Respiratory mucosa
REF: p. 337
89. The external nares divide the nasal cavity into right and left sides. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Nose
REF: p. 338
90. Air would pass through the pharynx in this order: nasopharynx, laryngopharynx, and oropharynx. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pharynx
REF: p. 338
91. The larynx is part of both the respiratory system and the digestive system. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Larynx
REF: p. 339 | p. 340
92. The trachea, or windpipe, is an 11-inch long tube connecting the larynx and bronchi. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Trachea
REF: p. 340
93. Alveoli and alveolar sacs refer to the same structure. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Memorization TOP: Alveoli
REF: p. 342
94. External respiration and breathing refer to the same process. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Respiration
REF: p. 345
95. Breathing and pulmonary ventilation refer to the same process. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pulmonary ventilation
REF: p. 346
96. Inspiration occurs when the vagus nerve stimulates the diaphragm to contract. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Inspiration
REF: p. 347
97. Both oxygen and carbon dioxide can be carried as dissolved gases in the blood. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Blood transportation of gases
REF: p. 351
98. Tidal volume plus inspiratory reserve volume plus expiratory reserve volume equals vital capacity. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pulmonary volumes
REF: p. 347
99. A stoppage in breathing for a brief period, regardless of the cause is called dyspnea. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Breathing patterns
REF: p. 350
100. The pontine respiratory group provides input to the dorsal respiratory group to help modulate the basic rhythm of breathing as needed under various condition changes in the body. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Brainstem control of respiration
REF: p. 349
Chapter 16: Digestive System Patton: Structure & Function of the Body, 17th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Food undergoes which of the following types of processing in the body?
a. b. c. d.
Digestion Absorption Metabolism Digestion, absorption, and metabolism
ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 361
2. Which of the following processes does not occur in the digestive system exclusively? a. Digestion b. Absorption c. Metabolism d. Digestion, absorption, and metabolism ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 361
3. Which of the following is an accessory organ of the digestive system? a. Salivary glands b. Mouth c. Pharynx d. Small intestine ANS: A OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of digestion
REF: p. 361
4. Which of the following is a main organ of the digestive system? a. Liver b. Stomach c. Pancreas d. Gallbladder ANS: B OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of digestion
REF: p. 361
5. The layer of the digestive tract that is composed of stratified and columnar epithelium is the: a. serosa. b. muscularis. c. submucosa. d. mucosa. ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Wall of the digestive tract
REF: p. 364
6. The layer of the digestive tract that generates peristalsis is the: a. serosa. b. muscularis. c. submucosa. d. mucosa. ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Wall of the digestive tract
REF: p. 364
7. The outermost layer of the digestive tract is the: a. serosa. b. muscularis. c. submucosa. d. mucosa. ANS: A OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Wall of the digestive tract
REF: p. 364
8. The layer of the digestive tract that contains blood vessels, nerves, and connective tissue is the: a. serosa. b. muscularis. c. submucosa. d. mucosa. ANS: C OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Wall of the digestive tract
REF: p. 364
9. Which structure prevents food and liquid from entering the nasal cavities above the mouth? a. Soft palate b. Frenulum c. Vallate papillae d. Plicae ANS: A OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Mouth
REF: p. 365
10. Enamel is found in the: a. root of the tooth. b. crown of the tooth. c. neck of the tooth. d. gingiva of the tooth. ANS: B OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Typical tooth
REF: p. 366
11. Dentin is found in the: a. root of the tooth. b. crown of the tooth. c. neck of the tooth. d. root, crown, and neck of the tooth. ANS: D OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Typical tooth
12. Lining each tooth socket is: a. a mucous membrane. b. a simple squamous epithelium membrane. c. a periodontal membrane.
REF: p. 366
d. dentin. ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Typical tooth
REF: p. 366
13. The largest of the salivary glands is the: a. sublingual gland. b. parotid gland. c. submaxillary gland. d. submandibular gland. ANS: B OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Salivary glands
REF: p. 367
14. From which salivary gland do the ducts that open on either side of the lingual frenulum come? a. Sublingual gland b. Submaxillary gland c. Submandibular gland d. Submucosa gland ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Salivary glands
REF: p. 367
15. Because of its location, the pharynx can be considered part of the: a. digestive system. b. musculoskeletal system. c. respiratory system. d. digestive and respiratory systems. ANS: D OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pharynx
REF: p. 368
16. The term tricuspids refers to these types of teeth: a. incisors. b. canines. c. premolars. d. molars. ANS: D DIF: TOP: Types of teeth
Applying
REF: p. 366
OBJ: 4
17. The part of the stomach to the left and above the opening of the esophagus into the stomach is the: a. pylorus. b. fundus. c. body. d. rugae. ANS: B OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Stomach
REF: p. 369
18. The part of the stomach that joins with the small intestine is the: a. pylorus. b. fundus. c. body. d. rugae. ANS: A OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Stomach
REF: p. 369
19. Which of the following structures does not help to increase the absorptive surface area of the small intestine? a. Villi b. Plicae c. Lacteal d. Microvilli ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Small intestine
REF: p. 373
20. The sequence of sections of small intestine through which food passes would be: a. duodenum, jejunum, ileum. b. duodenum, ileum, jejunum. c. jejunum, ileum, duodenum. d. jejunum, duodenum, ileum. ANS: A OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Small intestine
REF: p. 371
21. In which part of the small intestine does most of the chemical digestion occur? a. Ileum b. Jejunum c. Duodenum d. Ileum and duodenum ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Small intestine
REF: p. 371
22. Which of the following statements is correct? a. The cystic duct drains bile from the liver. b. The cystic duct and hepatic duct join to form the common bile duct. c. The hepatic duct connects the gallbladder and the small intestine. d. The cystic duct drains bile from the liver and the hepatic duct connects the gallbladder and the small intestine. ANS: B OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Liver and gallbladder
23. The function of bile is to: a. chemically digest fat. b. emulsify fat. c. remove cholesterol from the body.
REF: p. 373
d. emulsify fat and remove cholesterol from the body. ANS: D OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Liver and gallbladder
REF: p. 373
24. At the hepatic flexure, the: a. transverse colon becomes the descending colon. b. descending colon becomes the transverse colon. c. ascending colon becomes the transverse colon. d. ascending colon becomes the descending colon. ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Large intestine
REF: p. 375 | p. 376
25. At the splenic flexure, the: a. transverse colon becomes the descending colon. b. descending colon becomes the sigmoid colon. c. ascending colon becomes the transverse colon. d. ascending colon becomes the descending colon. ANS: A OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Large intestine
REF: p. 376
26. The vermiform appendix: a. produces enzymes that assist in fat digestion. b. gets its name because it looks like a worm. c. is important in the reabsorption of bile. d. drains bile from the liver. ANS: B OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Appendix
REF: p. 376
27. Which of the following is an extension of the peritoneum? a. Mesentery b. Cecum c. The greater omentum d. Mesentery and the greater omentum ANS: D OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Peritoneum
REF: p. 377
28. Enzymes are important in: a. mechanical digestion. b. deglutition. c. chemical digestion. d. mechanical and chemical digestion. ANS: C DIF: Applying TOP: Enzymes and chemical digestion 29. Amylase is made in the: a. salivary glands.
REF: p. 378
OBJ: 3
b. stomach. c. pancreas. d. salivary glands and pancreas. ANS: D DIF: Applying TOP: Carbohydrate digestion
REF: p. 378
OBJ: 3
30. The end product of amylase digestion is usually: a. glucose. b. lactose. c. maltose. d. fructose. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Carbohydrate digestion
REF: p. 378
31. The most abundant end product of carbohydrate digestion is: a. maltose. b. glucose. c. lactose. d. sucrose. ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: End product of digestion
REF: p. 378
32. Maltase and sucrase are made in the: a. small intestine. b. pancreas. c. stomach. d. liver. ANS: A OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Carbohydrate digestion
REF: p. 378
33. Protein digestion begins in the: a. mouth. b. stomach. c. small intestine. d. large intestine. ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Protein digestion
REF: p. 378
34. In the stomach: a. pepsin converts hydrochloric acid to pepsinogen. b. pepsin converts pepsinogen to hydrochloric acid. c. hydrochloric acid converts pepsinogen to pepsin. d. hydrochloric acid converts pepsin to pepsinogen. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Protein digestion
REF: p. 378
35. Trypsin: a. is important in protein digestion. b. works in the stomach. c. is made in the liver. d. is important in carbohydrate digestion. ANS: A OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Protein digestion
REF: p. 378
36. Protein digestion: a. end products are amino acids. b. uses peptidase made in the small intestines. c. uses trypsin made in the pancreas. d. end products are amino acids, uses peptidase made in the small intestines, and uses trypsin made in the pancreas. ANS: D OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Protein digestion
REF: p. 378
37. Lipid digestion begins in the: a. mouth. b. stomach. c. small intestine. d. large intestine. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lipid digestion
REF: p. 378
38. Bile: a. causes the emulsification of lipids. b. is made in the liver. c. works in the small intestine. d. causes the emulsification of lipids, is made in the liver, and works in the small intestine. ANS: D OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 378 TOP: Liver and gallbladder | Lipid digestion
39. Lipase: a. is made in the pancreas. b. is stored in the gallbladder. c. converts fatty acid and glycerol to lipids. d. converts carbohydrates to glucose. ANS: A OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lipid digestion
REF: p. 378
40. The movement of digested food from the digestive system to the circulating fluid is called: a. digestion. b. deglutition. c. absorption.
d. peristalsis. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Absorption
REF: p. 379
41. Which of the following processes is not considered an example of mechanical digestion? a. The teeth chewing food b. The stomach churning food c. Amylase acting on food in the mouth d. Bile acting on food in the small intestine ANS: C DIF: TOP: Lipid digestion
Applying
REF: p. 378
OBJ: 2
42. The layers of the digestive tract from the inside (lumen) to the outside are: a. submucosa, mucosa, muscularis, serosa. b. mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, serosa. c. mucosa, submucosa, serosa, muscularis. d. mucosa, serosa, submucosa, muscularis. ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Wall of the digestive tract
REF: p. 363
43. Canine teeth are sometimes called: a. cuspids. b. incisors. c. bicuspids. d. tricuspids. ANS: A OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Types of teeth
REF: p. 365
44. The tube that drains bile from the liver is the: a. common bile duct. b. cystic duct. c. hepatic duct. d. major duodenal papillae. ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Liver and gallbladder
REF: p. 373
45. The tube that drains bile from the gallbladder is the: a. common bile duct. b. cystic duct. c. hepatic duct. d. major duodenal papillae. ANS: B OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Liver and gallbladder
REF: p. 373
46. Which of the following substances is absorbed by the large intestine? a. Salts
b. Vitamin K c. Water d. Salts, vitamin K, and water ANS: D OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Large intestine
REF: p. 376
47. Which of the following substances is absorbed into the blood capillaries of the intestinal villi? a. Amino acids b. Fatty acids c. Glycerol d. Amino acids, fatty acids, and glycerol ANS: A OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Absorption
REF: p. 379
48. The length of the gastrointestinal tract in an adult is about: a. 9 feet. b. 19 feet. c. 29 feet. d. 39 feet. ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 361
49. Which of the following is not true of the gastrointestinal tract? a. It is about 9 feet long in adults. b. It is also called the alimentary canal. c. The material in the gastrointestinal tract is considered to be outside the body. d. It is about 29 feet long in adults. ANS: A OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 361
50. Which of the following is not considered a main part of the tooth? a. Root b. Cuspid c. Crown d. Neck ANS: B OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Typical tooth
REF: p. 366
51. The ducts that carry secretion from the pancreas empty into which part of the digestive tract? a. Stomach b. Duodenum c. Ileum d. Jejunum ANS: B
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 373
OBJ: 4
TOP: Small intestine
52. Which of the following is not a function of the pancreas? a. Produces enzymes that digest proteins. b. Produces proteins that digest fat. c. Produces a substance that neutralizes hydrochloric acid produced in the stomach. d. Produces enzymes that digest protein, produces proteins that digest fat, and produces a substance that neutralizes hydrochloric acid produced in the stomach. ANS: D OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pancreas
REF: p. 374
53. Which of the following is not a name for the open-ended tube through which food passes? a. Digestive system b. Alimentary canal c. Gastrointestinal tract d. Alimentary canal and gastrointestinal tract ANS: A OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 361
54. Which of the following is not an example of mechanical digestion? a. Chewing food b. Churning food in the stomach c. Enzymes breaking food down to small molecules d. Mastication ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 378
55. Which of the following statements is not true? a. Peristalsis pushes food through the digestive tract. b. Segmentation does not move food through the digestive tract. c. Segmentation continues the mechanical digestion of food. d. Peristalsis pushes food through the digestive tract, segmentation does not move food through the digestive tract, and segmentation continues the mechanical digestion of food. ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Wall of the digestive tract
REF: p. 364
56. Which bone(s) does not make up part of the hard palate? a. ethmoid bone. b. palatine bone. c. maxillary bone. d. palatine and maxillary bones. ANS: A OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Mouth
57. Tooth decay, or dental caries, is a disease of this part of the tooth:
REF: p. 365
a. b. c. d.
enamel. dentin. cementum. enamel, dentin, and cementum.
ANS: D OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Typical tooth
REF: p. 366
58. A full set of permanent teeth consists of: a. 20 teeth. b. 24 teeth. c. 32 teeth. d. 38 teeth. ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Types of teeth
REF: p. 366
59. A full set of deciduous or baby teeth consists of: a. 20 teeth. b. 24 teeth. c. 32 teeth. d. 38 teeth. ANS: A OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Types of teeth
REF: p. 366
60. Sharp cutting edge teeth used for cutting during chewing are called: a. incisors. b. canines. c. premolars. d. molars. ANS: A OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Types of teeth
REF: p. 365
61. The largest salivary gland is the: a. parotid gland. b. submandibular gland. c. sublingual gland. d. submucosa gland. ANS: A OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Salivary glands
REF: p. 367
62. This part of the pharynx is the most actively and directly involved in the digestive process: a. nasopharynx. b. oropharynx. c. laryngopharynx. d. epiglottis. ANS: B OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pharynx
REF: p. 368
63. Which of the following is not true of the esophagus? a. It is about 25 cm long. b. It is a tube that connects the larynx and stomach. c. It is a muscular, mucus-lined tube. d. The mucosal lining lubricates the tube to permit easier passage of food to the stomach. ANS: B OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Esophagus
REF: p. 369
64. The structure that regulates the movement of food from the stomach to the small intestine is the: a. esophageal sphincter. b. cardiac sphincter. c. fundal sphincter. d. pyloric sphincter. ANS: D OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Stomach
REF: p. 370
65. The secretion of the hormone cholecystokinin from the small intestine causes: a. an increase in peristalsis in the stomach. b. a relaxation of the pyloric sphincter. c. an increase of intestinal segmentation. d. a contraction of the gallbladder to move bile to the duodenum. ANS: D OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Liver and gallbladder
REF: p. 373
66. Which of the following is not a characteristic of enzymes? a. Their names frequently end in -ase. b. They act as catalysts for the digestion of food. c. One enzyme can act on many different types of food. d. Enzymes are protein molecules. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Enzymes and chemical digestion
REF: p. 378
67. The semisolid mixture in the stomach is called: a. bolus. b. chyme. c. feces. d. deglutition. ANS: B OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Stomach
MATCHING Match each of the terms with its definition or description.
REF: p. 369
a. Liver b. Gallbladder c. Mucosa layer d. Mesentery e. Muscularis layer f. Serosa layer g. Ascending colon h. Salivary glands i. Esophagus j. Fundus k. Pylorus l. Duodenum m. Ileum n. Pancreas o. Transverse colon p. Peristalsis q. Vermiform appendix r. Villi s. Descending colon t. Jejunum 1. Part of the digestive tract wall that generates peristalsis. 2. Gland that produces lipase and trypsin. 3. Part of the small intestine that connects to the stomach; where most of the chemical digestion takes place. 4. Submandibular, sublingual, and parotid are all this type of gland. 5. Structure that concentrates and stores bile. 6. Innermost layer of the wall of the digestive tract. 7. Part of the large intestine that is between the cecum and hepatic flexure. 8. An extension of the peritoneum. 9. Part of the small intestine that joins with the large intestine. 10. Part of the stomach that joins with the small intestine. 11. Tube that leads from the pharynx to the stomach. 12. Gland that produces bile. 13. Outermost layer of the wall of the digestive tract. 14. Part of the large intestine between the splenic and hepatic flexures. 15. Part of the stomach that is to the left and above where the esophagus opens into the stomach. 16. Tiny fingerlike projections that increase surface area and help absorb food in the small intestine. 17. A wormlike tubular structure that is attached to the cecum of the large intestines. 18. Muscle contractions that propel food through the digestive tract. 19. Part of the small intestine into which food enters when it leaves the duodenum. 20. Part of the colon that lies between the splenic flexure and the sigmoid colon. 1. ANS: OBJ: 2. ANS: OBJ:
E 1 N 3
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering Wall of the digestive tract Remembering Lipid digestion | Protein digestion
REF: p. 364 REF: p. 378
3. ANS: OBJ: 4. ANS: OBJ: 5. ANS: OBJ: 6. ANS: OBJ: 7. ANS: OBJ: 8. ANS: OBJ: 9. ANS: OBJ: 10. ANS: OBJ: 11. ANS: OBJ: 12. ANS: OBJ: 13. ANS: OBJ: 14. ANS: OBJ: 15. ANS: OBJ: 16. ANS: OBJ: 17. ANS: OBJ: 18. ANS: OBJ: 19. ANS: OBJ: 20. ANS: OBJ:
L 4 H 4 B 4 C 1 G 4 D 4 M 4 K 4 I 4 A 4 F 1 O 4 J 4 R 4 Q 4 P 1 T 4 S 4
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering Small intestine Remembering Salivary glands Remembering Liver and gallbladder Remembering Wall of the digestive tract Remembering Large intestine Remembering Peritoneum Remembering Small intestine Remembering Stomach Remembering Esophagus Remembering Liver and gallbladder Remembering Wall of the digestive tract Remembering Large intestine Remembering Stomach Remembering Small intestine Remembering Appendix Remembering Wall of the digestive tract Remembering Small intestine Remembering Large intestine
Match each of the terms with its definition or description. a. Digestion b. Absorption c. Amylase d. Bile e. Maltase f. Lipase g. Pepsin h. Monosaccharides i. Glycerol j. Amino acids
REF: p. 371 REF: p. 367 REF: p. 373 REF: p. 363 REF: p. 375 REF: p. 377 REF: p. 371 REF: p. 369 REF: p. 369 REF: p. 373 REF: p. 364 REF: p. 376 REF: p. 369 REF: p. 373 REF: p. 376 REF: p. 371 REF: p. 371 REF: p. 376
k. Mastication l. Lactase m. Hydrochloric acid n. Trypsin o. Deglutition p. Sucrase 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36.
Causes the emulsification of lipids Enzyme that reduces complex carbohydrates to maltose This and fatty acids are the end products of lipid digestion Enzyme that converts maltose to simple sugars Enzyme that is responsible for the chemical digestion of lipids Movement of digested food from the digestive system to the blood or lymph End product of carbohydrate digestion A protein enzyme that must be activated by hydrochloric acid in the stomach End product of protein digestion Physical and chemical changes in food that prepare it for movement into the blood or lymph Another word for swallowing Enzyme that digests cane sugar Substance needed to convert pepsinogen to pepsin Another word for chewing Protein-digesting enzyme in pancreatic juice Enzyme that digests milk sugar
21. ANS: OBJ: 22. ANS: OBJ: 23. ANS: OBJ: 24. ANS: OBJ: 25. ANS: OBJ: 26. ANS: OBJ: 27. ANS: OBJ: 28. ANS: OBJ: 29. ANS: OBJ: 30. ANS: OBJ: 31. ANS: OBJ: 32. ANS:
D 3 C 3 I 3 E 3 F 3 B 3 H 3 G 3 J 3 A 2 O 2 P
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF:
Remembering Lipid digestion Remembering Carbohydrate digestion Remembering Lipid digestion Remembering Carbohydrate digestion Remembering Lipid digestion Remembering Absorption Remembering Carbohydrate digestion Remembering Protein digestion Remembering Protein digestion Remembering Digestion Remembering Digestion Remembering
REF: p. 378 REF: p. 378 REF: p. 378 REF: p. 378 REF: p. 378 REF: p. 379 REF: p. 378 REF: p. 378 REF: p. 378 REF: p. 377 REF: p. 378 REF: p. 378
33. 34. 35. 36.
OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ:
3 M 3 K 2 N 3 L 3
TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Carbohydrate digestion Remembering Protein digestion Remembering Digestion Remembering Protein digestion Remembering Carbohydrate digestion
REF: p. 378 REF: p. 378 REF: p. 378 REF: p. 378
In what order would food pass through the structures below? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 f. 6 g. 7 h. 8 i. 9 j. 10 k. 11 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47.
Duodenum Ileocecal valve Mouth Pyloric sphincter Esophagus Ascending colon Stomach Transverse colon Ileum Pharynx Jejunum
37. ANS: OBJ: 38. ANS: OBJ: 39. ANS: OBJ: 40. ANS: OBJ: 41. ANS: OBJ: 42. ANS: OBJ: 43. ANS:
F 4 I 4 A 4 E 4 C 4 J 4 D
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF:
Remembering Small intestine Remembering Large intestine Remembering Mouth Remembering Stomach Remembering Esophagus Remembering Large intestine Remembering
REF: p. 371 REF: p. 375 REF: p. 365 REF: p. 369 REF: p. 369 REF: p. 371 REF: p. 371
44. 45. 46. 47.
OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ:
4 K 4 H 4 B 4 G 4
TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Stomach Remembering Large intestine Remembering Small intestine Remembering Pharynx Remembering Small intestine
REF: p. 371 REF: p. 371 REF: p. 368 REF: p. 371
Match the term with its correction definition. a. Bolus b. Chyme c. Peristalsis d. Ulcer e. Jaundice f. Diarrhea 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53.
Partially digested food mixture leaving the stomach Craterlike lesions which destroy areas of the stomach or intestinal lining Abnormal yellowing of skin Wavelike, rhythmic contractions of the stomach and intestines Defecation of liquid feces Small rounded mass of masticated food
48. ANS: OBJ: 49. ANS: OBJ: 50. ANS: OBJ: 51. ANS: OBJ: 52. ANS: OBJ: 53. ANS: OBJ:
B 4 D 4 E 4 C 4 F 4 A 4
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering Stomach Remembering Stomach Remembering Liver Remembering Stomach Remembering Large intestine Remembering Mouth
REF: p. 369 REF: p. 372 REF: p. 373 REF: p. 364 REF: p. 376 REF: p. 368
TRUE/FALSE 1. Digestion occurs in the organs in the digestive tract. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 361
2. Metabolism occurs only in the organs of the digestive tract. ANS: F
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 361
OBJ: 4
TOP: Introduction
3. The alimentary canal and the gastrointestinal tract refer to the same thing. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 361
4. The esophagus is a main organ of the digestive system. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of digestion
REF: p. 361
5. The duodenum is an accessory structure of the digestive system. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of digestion
REF: p. 361
6. The vermiform appendix is an accessory structure of the digestive system. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of digestion
REF: p. 361
7. The submucosa layer of the digestive tract is composed of epithelial tissue. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Wall of the digestive tract
REF: p. 364
8. The muscularis layer of the digestive tract is responsible for peristalsis. ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: Wall of the digestive tract
REF: p. 364
OBJ: 1
9. The mucosa and the serosa are the innermost and outermost layers of the digestive tract, respectively. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Wall of the digestive tract
REF: p. 363 | p. 364
10. The soft palate and the frenulum are on the roof of the mouth and keep food from going into the nasal cavity when a person swallows. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Mouth
REF: p. 365
11. Tricuspids are teeth used for grinding or crushing. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Types of teeth
REF: p. 365
12. Incisors are also called the canine teeth. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Types of teeth
REF: p. 365
13. Enamel covers the crown and neck of the tooth. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Typical tooth
REF: p. 366
14. Cementum covers the crown and neck of the tooth. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Typical tooth
REF: p. 366
15. Cementum covers the neck and root of the tooth. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Typical tooth
REF: p. 366
16. The periodontal membrane surrounds the crown and root of each tooth. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Typical tooth
REF: p. 367
17. Mumps are an infection of the submandibular salivary gland. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Salivary glands
REF: p. 367
18. The ducts from the submandibular salivary gland empty into the mouth on either side of the frenulum. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Salivary glands
REF: p. 367
19. The parotid salivary glands are the largest of the three pairs of salivary glands. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Salivary glands
REF: p. 367
20. When food is in the mouth, the presence of saliva could increase the amount of maltase in the mouth. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Creating REF: p. 368 | p. 378 TOP: Salivary glands | Carbohydrate digestion
21. Saliva begins the process of fat digestion.
ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Salivary glands
REF: p. 368
22. The pharynx is part of both the respiratory and digestive systems. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pharynx
REF: p. 368
23. The esophagus connects the pharynx and the stomach. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Esophagus
REF: p. 368
24. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) can cause irritation to the pylorus of the stomach. ANS: F TOP: Stomach
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 370
OBJ: 4
25. An overly full stomach can interfere with the complete relaxation of the diaphragm and therefore may restrict the ability to take deep breaths. ANS: F TOP: Stomach
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 369
OBJ: 4
26. The wall of the stomach is unique because it contains two muscle layers rather than one. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Stomach
REF: p. 369
27. When the stomach is empty, its lining lies in folds called chyme. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Stomach
REF: p. 369
28. The body of the stomach is the enlarged portion of the stomach that is to the left and above where the esophagus opens into the stomach. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Stomach
REF: p. 369
29. The pyloric sphincter regulates the movement of food from the stomach into the small intestine. ANS: T TOP: Stomach
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 370
OBJ: 4
30. Plicae and villi increase the surface area of the inner wall of the small intestine. ANS: T
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 373
OBJ: 4
TOP: Small intestine
31. An increased surface area in the inner wall of the small intestine assists in the proper metabolism of ingested food. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Small intestine
Applying
REF: p. 373
OBJ: 4
32. The villi in the inner wall of the small intestine contain a lymphatic vessel called a lacteal, which assists in absorption of lipids. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Small intestine
REF: p. 373
33. The pylorus of the stomach empties into the duodenum of the small intestine. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Small intestine
REF: p. 369
34. The jejunum of the small intestine connects to the ascending colon. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Small intestine
Applying
REF: p. 371
OBJ: 4
35. The ileum of the small intestine connects to the cecum colon at the ileocecal valve. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Large intestine
Applying
REF: p. 371
OBJ: 4
36. Most of the chemical digestion that occurs in the small intestine occurs in the duodenum. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Small intestine
REF: p. 371
37. One of the functions of the liver is to produce bile. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Liver and gallbladder
REF: p. 373
38. The gallbladder stores and concentrates bile. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Liver and gallbladder
REF: p. 373
39. Bile digests lipids to glycerol and fatty acids and helps remove cholesterol from the body. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Liver and gallbladder
REF: p. 373
40. The hormone gastrin causes the contraction of the walls of the gallbladder and forces bile into the small intestine. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Liver and gallbladder
REF: p. 373
41. Jaundice will occur if the cystic duct is blocked and bile is not able to drain from the gallbladder. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Liver and gallbladder
REF: p. 373
42. Pancreatic juice helps neutralize the hydrochloric acid produced in the stomach. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pancreas
REF: p. 374
43. People on long-term antibiotic therapy that has killed most of the bacteria in the large intestine may develop blood-clotting problems. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Large intestine
Applying
REF: p. 376
OBJ: 4
44. The splenic flexure is where the ascending colon becomes the transverse colon. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Large intestine
REF: p. 376
45. The splenic flexure is where the transverse colon becomes the descending colon. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Large intestine
REF: p. 376
46. The sigmoid colon is the portion of the large intestine between the ascending and descending colon. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Large intestine
REF: p. 376
47. The two most important extensions of the peritoneum are the mesentery and the greater omentum. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Peritoneum
REF: p. 377
48. The action of bile is an example of mechanical digestion. ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: Digestion | Lipid digestion
REF: p. 378
OBJ: 3
49. Carbohydrate digestion begins in the mouth. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Carbohydrate digestion
REF: p. 378
50. The pancreas and the salivary glands both produce amylase. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Carbohydrate digestion
REF: p. 378
51. The end product of amylase digestion is glucose. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: End product of digestion
REF: p. 378
52. Lactose intolerance is caused by the inability of the pancreas to produce the proper amount of lactase. ANS: F DIF: Applying TOP: Carbohydrate digestion
REF: p. 378
OBJ: 3
53. The most abundant end product of carbohydrate digestion is glucose. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Carbohydrate digestion
REF: p. 378
54. Protein digestion begins in the mouth. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Protein digestion
REF: p. 378
55. In the stomach, hydrochloric acid converts pepsin to trypsin. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Protein digestion
REF: p. 378
56. Protein digestion uses trypsin made in the pancreas and peptidases made in the intestine. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Protein digestion
REF: p. 378
57. The end products of protein digestion are amino acids. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Protein digestion
REF: p. 378
58. Bile begins the digestion of lipids by emulsifying large fat droplets into smaller fat droplets.
ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lipid digestion
REF: p. 378
59. Lipase is made by the small intestine and digests lipids down to its end products of glycerol and fatty acids. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lipid digestion
REF: p. 378
60. The movement of digested food out of the digestive system into blood or lymph is called absorption. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Absorption
REF: p. 379
61. The length of the alimentary canal is about 30 feet. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 361
62. Substances in the stomach or small intestine are considered outside the body. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Introduction
Applying
REF: p. 361
OBJ: 4
63. Because they are not directly involved in digestion, the teeth, tongue, and large intestines are considered accessory organs of the digestive system. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of digestion
REF: p. 361
64. In the abdominal cavity, the serosa layer is composed of parietal peritoneum. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Wall of the digestive tract
REF: p. 364
65. The uvula is a thin membrane that attaches the tongue to the floor of the mouth. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Mouth
REF: p. 365
66. There are six salivary glands in the body. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Salivary glands
REF: p. 367
67. Because salivary glands produce an enzyme, it is correct to say that digestion begins in the mouth.
ANS: T DIF: TOP: Salivary glands
Applying
REF: p. 367
OBJ: 4
68. The cardiac sphincter is between the stomach and the small intestine. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Stomach
REF: p. 369
69. A weak cardiac sphincter could be the cause of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). ANS: T TOP: Stomach
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 370
OBJ: 4
70. About two thirds of the length of the alimentary canal is small intestine. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Small intestine
Applying
REF: p. 371
OBJ: 4
71. The major duodenal papillae allow partially digested food to enter the small intestine. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Small intestine
REF: p. 371
72. One function of cholecystokinin is to cause the gallbladder to contract. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Liver and gallbladder
REF: p. 373
73. One function of pancreatic juice is to lower the pH of the food entering the small intestine from the stomach. ANS: F TOP: Pancreas
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 374
OBJ: 4
74. Vitamin K and some B vitamins are produced by bacteria in the large intestine. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Large intestine
REF: p. 376
75. The chewing of food by the teeth is the only example of mechanical digestion in the human digestive system. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Introduction
Applying
REF: p. 362
OBJ: 2
76. There are four major types of teeth. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Types of teeth
REF: p. 365
77. Another name for baby teeth is deciduous teeth. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Types of teeth
REF: p. 366
78. The terms gastroesophageal sphincter and pyloric sphincter refer to the same structure. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Stomach
REF: p. 370
79. The ileum of the small intestine empties into the transverse colon of the large intestine. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Large intestine
REF: p. 375
80. The names of many enzymes end in -ase. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Enzymes and chemical digestion
REF: p. 378
81. In chemical digestion, large food molecules are reduced to smaller molecules that can be absorbed through the intestinal wall. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of digestion
REF: p. 378
82. Because the mucosa in the esophagus needs to be more abrasion-resistant, it is made of stratified epithelium while the rest of the mucosa is made of columnar epithelium. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Wall of the digestive tract
REF: p. 363
83. The process of peristalsis moves material through the digestive tract. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Wall of the digestive tract
REF: p. 364
84. The process of segmentation moves material through the digestive tract. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Wall of the digestive tract
REF: p. 364
85. The hard palate is formed by two bones, the ethmoid and the palatine. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Mouth
REF: p. 365
86. The tongue is made up of involuntary muscle with the blunt root in the rear and the pointed tip in the front. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Mouth
REF: p. 365
87. Only the submandibular salivary gland produces both enzyme-containing saliva and mucus. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Salivary glands
REF: p. 367
88. There are 36 teeth in a full set of permanent teeth. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Types of teeth
REF: p. 366
89. The part of the pharynx that is most actively and directly involved in the digestive process is the laryngopharynx. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Pharynx
REF: p. 368
90. The order in which food passes through the small intestine is the duodenum, the ileum, and the jejunum. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Small intestine
REF: p. 371
91. Most of the digestion that occurs in the small intestine occurs in the duodenum. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Small intestine
REF: p. 371
92. The liver is the largest gland in the body. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Liver and gallbladder
REF: p. 373
93. One function of bile is to remove cholesterol from the body. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Liver and gallbladder
REF: p. 373
94. Just as in the small intestine, villi are present in the large intestine to help in the absorption of water and vitamins. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Large intestine
REF: p. 376
95. The appendix maintains a normal intestinal microbiome which helps prevent the establishment of pathogenic bacteria. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Appendix
REF: p. 376
96. The two most prominent extensions of the peritoneum are the mesentery and greater omentum. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Extensions
REF: p. 377
97. Mastication is the more technical term for swallowing. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Types of teeth
REF: p. 365
98. Enzymes are specialized protein molecules that act as catalysts in the digestive process. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Enzymes and chemical digestion
REF: p. 378
99. The lymph in the lacteals leaving the small intestine contains the end products of lipid digestion and vitamins A, D, E, and K. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Absorption
REF: p. 379
100. If the rate of passage of material through the large intestine is prolonged beyond 5 days, the feces become more solid resulting in diarrhea. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Large intestine
REF: p. 376
Chapter 17: Nutrition and Metabolism Patton: Structure & Function of the Body, 17th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Proper nutrition requires the correct balance of three types of food. They are: a. fruits, vegetables, and meats. b. carbohydrates, dairy products, and proteins. c. carbohydrates, fats, and proteins. d. proteins, whole grains, and fruits. ANS: C OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 391
2. When food molecules enter the cell and undergo chemical changes there, the process is called: a. assimilation. b. digestion. c. absorption. d. nutrition. ANS: A OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 391
3. Besides the three basic types of food, good nutrition requires: a. vitamins. b. amino acids. c. minerals. d. vitamins and minerals. ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 391
4. Which process builds up food molecules into more complex molecules? a. Anabolism b. Catabolism c. Nutrition d. Absorption ANS: A OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 391
5. Which process breaks food molecules into smaller molecules to release energy? a. Anabolism b. Catabolism c. Nutrition d. Absorption ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 391
6. Metabolism includes: a. anabolism and assimilation. b. catabolism and nutrition. c. anabolism and catabolism. d. nutrition and assimilation. ANS: C OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
7. Which of the following is not a function of the liver? a. Produces bile. b. Carries out the first step of carbohydrate metabolism. c. Produces fibrinogen. d. Produces bile and fibrinogen.
REF: p. 391
ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Metabolic function of the liver
REF: p. 392
8. Which of the following is not a function of the liver? a. Helps maintain the normal blood glucose concentration. b. Produces albumin. c. Produces vitamin A. d. Helps maintain the normal blood glucose concentration and produces albumin and vitamin A. ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Metabolic function of the liver
REF: p. 392
9. Glycolysis: a. follows the citric acid cycle in carbohydrate metabolism. b. requires oxygen. c. occurs in the cytoplasm. d. requires oxygen and occurs in the cytoplasm. ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Glucose catabolism
REF: p. 393
10. Glycolysis: a. has pyruvic acid as an end product. b. occurs in the mitochondria. c. requires oxygen. d. has pyruvic acid as an end product and occurs in the mitochondria. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Glucose catabolism
REF: p. 393
11. The citric acid cycle: a. occurs in the mitochondria. b. produces pyruvic acid as an end product. c. occurs in the cytoplasm. d. produces pyruvic. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Glucose catabolism
REF: p. 393
12. The citric acid cycle: a. occurs in the mitochondria. b. follows glycolysis. c. is important in carbohydrate anabolism. d. occurs in the mitochondria and follows glycolysis. ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Glucose catabolism
13. The electron transport system: a. occurs in the cytoplasm.
REF: p. 393
b. produces carbon dioxide as an end product. c. produces ATP from ADP. d. occurs in the cytoplasm and produces ATP from ADP. ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Glucose catabolism
REF: p. 394
14. The electron transport system: a. occurs in the mitochondria. b. follows the citric acid cycle. c. follows glycolysis. d. occurs in the mitochondria and follows the citric acid cycle. ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Glucose catabolism
REF: p. 394
15. ATP: a. serves as the direct source of energy for the cell. b. releases food energy slowly. c. is produced primarily by the citric acid cycle. d. serves as the direct source of energy for the cell and is produced primarily by the citric acid cycle. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: ATP
REF: p. 394
16. Usable energy in the ATP molecule is stored in the: a. adenosine portion of the molecule. b. bond attaching the adenosine to the first phosphate group. c. bond between the second and third phosphate groups. d. bond between the first and second phosphate groups. ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: ATP
REF: p. 394
17. Glucose anabolism is called: a. glycolysis. b. glycogenesis. c. glucagon. d. glycolysis and glycogenesis. ANS: B OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Glucose anabolism
REF: p. 395
18. Which hormone increases blood glucose levels? a. Glucagon b. Hydrocortisone c. Growth hormone d. Glucagon, hydrocortisone, and growth hormone ANS: D DIF: Applying REF: p. 395 TOP: Regulation of carbohydrate metabolism
OBJ: 2
19. When lipids are used for energy, they are converted to: a. a substance that can enter glycolysis. b. pyruvic acid that can enter the electron transport system. c. a substance that can enter the citric acid cycle. d. amino acids. ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lipid metabolism
REF: p. 395
20. Proteins: a. are usually used by the body for anabolism. b. are usually used by the body for catabolism. c. can enter glycolysis for energy release. d. are usually used by the body for catabolism and can enter glycolysis for energy release. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Protein metabolism
REF: p. 395 | p. 396
21. Nonessential amino acids: a. are not used by the body. b. can be made by the body from other substances. c. are used only for catabolism. d. are found only in plant proteins. ANS: B OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Protein metabolism
REF: p. 396
22. Vitamins: a. are organic compounds. b. are inorganic compounds. c. can be stored by the liver if they are water soluble. d. are organic compounds and can be stored by the liver if they are water soluble. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Vitamins
REF: p. 396
23. Minerals: a. are organic substances. b. are inorganic substances. c. attach to enzymes to help them work. d. are inorganic substances and attach to enzymes to help them work. ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Minerals
24. The BMR: a. is usually less than the TMR. b. is usually greater than the TMR. c. increases as activity increases.
REF: p. 397
d. is usually greater than the TMR and increases as activity increases. ANS: A DIF: TOP: Metabolic rates
Applying
REF: p. 398
OBJ: 3
25. The TMR: a. is usually less than the BMR. b. is usually greater than the BMR. c. increases as activity increases. d. is usually greater than the BMR and increases as activity increases. ANS: D DIF: TOP: Metabolic rates
Applying
REF: p. 398
OBJ: 3
26. To safely lose weight: a. increase caloric intake above TMR. b. maintain caloric intake and reduce TMR. c. decrease caloric intake to below TMR. d. increase caloric intake above the TMR or maintain caloric intake and reduce TMR. ANS: C DIF: TOP: Metabolic rates
Creating
REF: p. 398
OBJ: 3
27. Basal conditions refer to: a. a normal level of daily activity. b. an increase of activity above what is normal for you. c. conditions in which the person is awake but resting, not digesting food or in a cold environment. d. a decrease of activity below what is normal for you. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Metabolic rates
REF: p. 398
28. Radiation is the: a. flow of heat waves away from the blood. b. transfer of heat to the skin and then to the external environment. c. absorption of heat by water (sweat) vaporization. d. transfer of heat energy to air that is continually flowing away from the skin. ANS: A OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body temperature
REF: p. 399
29. Convection is the: a. flow of heat waves away from the blood. b. transfer of heat to the skin and then to the external environment. c. absorption of heat by water (sweat) vaporization. d. transfer of heat energy to air that is continually flowing away from the skin. ANS: D OBJ: 4 30. Evaporation is the:
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body temperature
REF: p. 399
a. b. c. d.
flow of heat waves away from the blood. transfer of heat to the skin and then to the external environment. absorption of heat by water (sweat) vaporization. transfer of heat energy to air that is continually flowing away from the skin.
ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body temperature
REF: p. 399
31. Liver cells are unable to store which of the following substances? a. Vitamin C b. Vitamin D c. Iron d. Vitamin C, vitamin D, and iron ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Metabolic function of the liver
REF: p. 392
32. Which blood vessel allows blood from the digestive system to be sent directly to the liver? a. Hepatic artery b. Hepatic portal vein c. Mesenteric vein d. Inferior vena cava ANS: B OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Metabolic function of the liver
REF: p. 392
33. The process of glycolysis and the citric acid cycle: a. both require oxygen. b. both occur in the mitochondria. c. are involved in carbohydrate anabolism. d. produce ATP. ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Glucose catabolism
REF: p. 393
34. Which of the following vitamins can be stored by the liver? a. A b. B c. C d. C and B ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Vitamins
REF: p. 396
35. Minerals and vitamins share which characteristic? a. They help enzymes function. b. They are both organic. c. They are both inorganic. d. They help enzymes function and are both organic. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Micronutrients
REF: p. 396 | p. 397
36. Which of the following is not a condition of the basal metabolic rate? a. Resting but awake b. In a cold environment c. Not digesting a heavy meal d. In a cold environment and not digesting a heavy meal ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Metabolic rates
REF: p. 398
37. The use the body makes of food describes which term? a. Nutrition b. Metabolism c. Assimilation d. Digestion ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 391
38. Which of the following is not a plasma protein made by the liver? a. Prothrombin b. Fibrinogen c. Bile d. Albumin ANS: C DIF: Applying TOP: Metabolic function of the liver
REF: p. 392
OBJ: 2
39. Most of the energy released from a glucose molecule in glycolysis and the citric acid cycle is in the form of: a. high-energy electrons. b. ATP. c. ADP. d. ATP and ADP. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Glucose catabolism
REF: p. 393
40. Which of the following is not true of ATP? a. It contains adenosine. b. It contains phosphate groups. c. It contains three high-energy bonds. d. It is the direct source of energy for cellular work. ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Memorization TOP: ATP
41. Every glucose molecule can produce this many ATP molecules. a. 16 b. 28 c. 36
REF: p. 394
d. 42 ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Glucose catabolism
REF: p. 393
42. Glycogenolysis occurs in: a. liver or muscle cells. b. in the cytoplasm of all cells. c. in the mitochondrion of all cells. d. in the cytoplasm and mitochondrion of all cells. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Memorization TOP: Glucose anabolism
REF: p. 395
43. In one molecule of ATP there: a. is one high-energy bond. b. are two high-energy bonds. c. are three high-energy bonds. d. are four high-energy bonds. ANS: B TOP: ATP
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 394
OBJ: 2
44. Between meals, the concentration of glucose per 100 mL of blood is between: a. 40 and 70 mg. b. 60 and 90 mg. c. 80 and 110 mg. d. 110 and 145 mg. ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 395 TOP: Regulation of carbohydrate metabolism
45. This vitamin plays an important role in detecting light in the cells of the retina: a. vitamin A. b. vitamin B. c. vitamin D. d. vitamin E. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Memorization TOP: Vitamins
REF: p. 396
46. This vitamin acts as an antioxidant for the body: a. vitamin A. b. vitamin B. c. vitamin D. d. vitamin E. ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Memorization TOP: Vitamins
REF: p. 396
47. About this much of the energy released from food molecules during catabolism is released as heat:
a. b. c. d.
60%. 80%. 10%. 40%.
ANS: A OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body temperature
REF: p. 399
48. Thermoregulation is function of the: a. thalamus. b. hypothalamus. c. medulla. d. cerebellum. ANS: B OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body temperature
REF: p. 399
49. Which of the following is categorized as a micronutrient? a. Carbohydrate b. Protein c. Fats d. Mineral ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Dietary sources of nutrients
REF: p. 392
50. The appetite center and the satiety center are located in the: a. thalamus. b. medulla oblongata. c. hypothalamus. d. cerebellum. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Regulating food intake
MATCHING Match each of the terms with its definition or description. a. Anabolism b. Catabolism c. Glycolysis d. Citric acid cycle e. Adenosine triphosphate f. Glycogenesis g. Nonessential amino acid h. Essential amino acid i. BMR j. TMR k. Adipose tissue l. Nutrition
REF: p. 397
m. Metabolism n. Assimilation 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.
Part of carbohydrate metabolism that occurs in the mitochondria. Glucose anabolism. A type of chemical reaction that releases energy from food molecules. Necessary amino acids that can be made by the body. The amount of energy used when you are awake but resting, not digesting a meal and not in a cold environment. The total amount of energy used by the body. A type of chemical reaction that builds smaller molecules into more complex ones. Necessary amino acids that must be continually included in the diet. A molecule that provides the direct source of energy for doing cell work. The part of carbohydrate metabolism that occurs in the cytoplasm. Term best defined as the use of food. Location in the body where anabolized lipids are stored. Term best defined as the food we eat with the proper balance of carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, vitamins, and minerals. Occurs when food molecules enter the cell and undergo chemical changes there.
1. ANS: OBJ: 2. ANS: OBJ: 3. ANS: OBJ: 4. ANS: OBJ: 5. ANS: OBJ: 6. ANS: OBJ: 7. ANS: OBJ: 8. ANS: OBJ: 9. ANS: OBJ: 10. ANS: OBJ: 11. ANS: OBJ: 12. ANS: OBJ: 13. ANS: OBJ: 14. ANS:
D 2 F 2 B 1 G 3 I 3 J 3 A 1 H 2 E 2 C 2 M 1 K 2 L 1 N
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF:
Remembering Glucose catabolism Remembering Glucose catabolism Remembering Introduction Remembering Protein metabolism Remembering Metabolic rates Remembering Metabolic rates Remembering Introduction Remembering Protein metabolism Remembering ATP Remembering Glucose catabolism Remembering Introduction Remembering Lipid metabolism Remembering Introduction Remembering
REF: p. 393 REF: p. 395 REF: p. 391 REF: p. 396 REF: p. 398 REF: p. 398 REF: p. 391 REF: p. 396 REF: p. 394 REF: p. 393 REF: p. 391 REF: p. 395 REF: p. 391 REF: p. 391
OBJ: 1
TOP: Introduction
Match each vitamin or mineral with its function in the body. a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin B12 (cyanocobalamin) c. Vitamin B3 (niacin) d. Vitamin D (calciferol) e. Calcium f. Iron g. Iodine h. Phosphorous i. Vitamin E j. Vitamin B6 k. Vitamin C l. Vitamin K m. Sodium n. Chlorine 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28.
A vitamin that helps enzymes in the citric acid cycle. A mineral that is important in the structure of RNA, DNA, and ATP. A mineral that is necessary for the production of red blood cells. A vitamin that is important in the production of blood. A vitamin that is important in the production of visual pigment. A mineral that is important in bone formation. A mineral that is important in the production of thyroid hormones. A vitamin that aids in the absorption of calcium. A vitamin that helps in the manufacture of collagen fibers. A mineral that helps in muscle and nerve function and in fluid balance. A vitamin that acts as an antioxidant that prevents free radicals from damaging the cell. A vitamin that helps in blood clotting. A mineral that helps in stomach acid production and in acid-base balance. A vitamin that helps enzymes that catabolize amino acids.
15. ANS: REF: 16. ANS: REF: 17. ANS: REF: 18. ANS: REF: 19. ANS: REF: 20. ANS: REF: 21. ANS: REF: 22. ANS:
C DIF: p. 397 (Table 17-3) H DIF: p. 397 (Table 17-3) F DIF: p. 398 (Table 17-4) B DIF: p. 397 (Table 17-3) A DIF: p. 397 (Table 17-3) E DIF: p. 398 (Table 17-4) G DIF: p. 398 (Table 17-4) D DIF:
Memorization OBJ: 2
TOP: Major vitamins
OBJ: 2
TOP: Major minerals
OBJ: 2
TOP: Major minerals
OBJ: 2
TOP: Major vitamins
OBJ: 2
TOP: Major vitamins
OBJ: 2
TOP: Major minerals
OBJ: 2
TOP: Major minerals
Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization
23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28.
REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF:
p. 397 (Table 17-3) K DIF: p. 397 (Table 17-3) M DIF: p. 398 (Table 17-4) I DIF: p. 397 (Table 17-3) L DIF: p. 397 (Table 17-3) N DIF: p. 398 (Table 17-4) J DIF: p. 397 (Table 17-3)
OBJ: 2
TOP: Major vitamins
OBJ: 2
TOP: Major vitamins
OBJ: 2
TOP: Major minerals
OBJ: 2
TOP: Major vitamins
OBJ: 2
TOP: Major vitamins
OBJ: 2
TOP: Major minerals
OBJ: 2
TOP: Major vitamins
Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization
TRUE/FALSE 1. Assimilation includes both anabolism and catabolism. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Introduction
Creating
REF: p. 391
OBJ: 1
2. Anabolism releases energy from food molecules. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 391
3. Catabolism releases energy from food molecules. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 391
4. The end products of anabolism are larger and more complex than the starting substances. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Introduction
Applying
REF: p. 391
OBJ: 1
5. The liver produces bile for the emulsification of fat. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Metabolic function of the liver
REF: p. 392
6. The liver carries out the first steps in both protein and carbohydrate metabolism. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Metabolic function of the liver
REF: p. 392
7. The liver produces plasma proteins such as prothrombin and fibrinogen.
ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Metabolic function of the liver
REF: p. 392
8. Glucose is the preferred energy food for the cells. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Carbohydrate metabolism
REF: p. 393
9. The first step in carbohydrate catabolism is glycolysis. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Glucose catabolism
REF: p. 393
10. Glycolysis occurs in the mitochondria. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Glucose catabolism
REF: p. 393
11. Glycolysis does not require oxygen. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Glucose catabolism
REF: p. 393
12. An end product of glycolysis is lactic acid. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrate metabolism
REF: p. 393
13. An end product of glycolysis is citric acid. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Glucose catabolism
REF: p. 393
14. The citric acid cycle follows glycolysis. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Glucose catabolism
REF: p. 393
15. The citric acid cycle occurs in the cytoplasm. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Glucose catabolism
REF: p. 393
16. One of the end products of the citric acid cycle is carbon dioxide. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Glucose catabolism
17. One of the end products of the citric acid cycle is ADP.
REF: p. 393
ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Glucose catabolism
REF: p. 393
18. All of the processes in glucose catabolism require oxygen. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Glucose catabolism
Applying
REF: p. 393
OBJ: 2
19. Some of the end products of both glycolysis and the citric acid cycle are heat and high-energy electrons. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Glucose catabolism
Applying
REF: p. 393
OBJ: 2
20. Although glucose is the cell’s first choice as an energy source, it cannot use glucose directly. ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: Carbohydrate metabolism
REF: p. 393
OBJ: 2
21. ATP serves as the cell’s direct source of energy. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: ATP
REF: p. 394
22. ATP is used to store energy in the cell. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: ATP
REF: p. 394
23. ATP is able to release energy more rapidly than energy stored in food molecules. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: ATP
REF: p. 394
24. The only high-energy bond in ATP is between the second and third phosphate groups. ANS: F TOP: ATP
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 394
OBJ: 2
REF: p. 394
OBJ: 2
25. ADP has no usable high-energy bonds. ANS: F TOP: ATP
DIF:
Applying
26. In the ATP-ADP cycle, the most important thing being added or lost in the ATP is energy. ANS: T
DIF:
Creating
REF: p. 394
OBJ: 2
TOP: ATP 27. The catabolic reaction for glucose is called glycogenesis. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Glucose anabolism
REF: p. 395
28. The end product of glycogenesis is glycogen. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Glucose anabolism
Applying
REF: p. 395
OBJ: 2
29. A person who has diabetes mellitus has a surplus of glucose and insulin in the blood. ANS: F DIF: Applying REF: p. 395 TOP: Regulation of carbohydrate metabolism
OBJ: 2
30. Both insulin and hydrocortisone lower the blood concentration of glucose. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 395 TOP: Regulation of carbohydrate metabolism
31. Both growth hormone and epinephrine increase the blood concentration of glucose. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 395 TOP: Regulation of carbohydrate metabolism
32. Like carbohydrates, lipids are primarily energy foods. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lipid metabolism
REF: p. 395
33. When the body uses lipids for energy, it converts them to a substance that can go through glycolysis. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Lipid metabolism
REF: p. 395
34. People with diabetes mellitus burn much more glucose than they do fats. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Lipid metabolism
Applying
REF: p. 395
OBJ: 2
35. The result of lipid anabolism is adipose tissue. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Lipid metabolism
Applying
REF: p. 395
OBJ: 2
36. The body would prefer to use proteins for anabolism rather than catabolism.
ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Protein metabolism
REF: p. 395 | p. 396
37. Essential amino acids must be supplied by the diet. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Protein metabolism
REF: p. 396
38. Nonessential amino acids must be available for protein anabolism. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Protein metabolism
Applying
REF: p. 396
OBJ: 2
39. Vitamins are organic molecules needed in small quantities for normal metabolism. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Vitamins
REF: p. 396
40. Water-soluble vitamins can be stored in the liver, but fat-soluble vitamins must be included in the diet on a continual basis. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Vitamins
REF: p. 396
41. Minerals are inorganic elements or salts found naturally in the earth. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Minerals
REF: p. 397
42. Both vitamins and minerals are necessary for the proper functioning of enzymes. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Micronutrients
REF: p. 396
43. Someone who has just eaten a big meal is not under basal conditions. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Metabolic rates
Applying
REF: p. 398
OBJ: 3
44. Someone who is awake but inactive is not under basal conditions. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Metabolic rates
Applying
REF: p. 398
OBJ: 3
REF: p. 398
OBJ: 3
45. Your TMR is usually above your BMR. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Metabolic rates
Applying
46. Your BMR is usually above your TMR. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Metabolic rates
Applying
REF: p. 398
OBJ: 3
47. To maintain your weight, your caloric intake should equal your BMR. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Metabolic rates
Applying
REF: p. 398
OBJ: 3
48. To lose weight, reduce your caloric intake to below your TMR. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Metabolic rates
Applying
REF: p. 398
OBJ: 3
49. The skin is involved in a positive feedback loop for thermoregulation. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Body temperature
Applying
REF: p. 399
OBJ: 4
50. The body can regulate its heat by controlling the amount of blood near the surface of the skin. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Body temperature
Applying
REF: p. 399
OBJ: 4
51. The evaporation method of heat loss from the blood occurs by the absorption of heat by water vaporization. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body temperature
REF: p. 399
52. The convection method of heat loss from the blood occurs by the transfer of heat energy to the skin and then to the external environment. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body temperature
REF: p. 399
53. Shivering is a heat-generating activity of the body. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body temperature
REF: p. 399
54. MyPlate is a nutrition guide that promotes healthier eating. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 391
55. Before food can be assimilated, it must be digested. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Introduction
Applying
REF: p. 391
OBJ: 1
56. Before food can be assimilated, it must be metabolized. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Introduction
Applying
REF: p. 391
OBJ: 1
57. About 75% of the energy released by glycolysis and the citric acid cycle is in the form of ATP. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body temperature
REF: p. 399
58. ATP has three high-energy bonds, whereas ADP has only two. ANS: F TOP: ATP
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 394
OBJ: 2
59. The normal concentration of glucose in the blood is 80 to 110 mg per 100 mL of blood. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 395 TOP: Regulation of carbohydrate metabolism
60. A drop in insulin production can produce a drop in the blood glucose level. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 395 TOP: Regulation of carbohydrate metabolism
61. If nonessential amino acids are missing from the diet, essential amino acids can be substituted in the protein. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Applying REF: p. 395 | p. 396 TOP: Protein metabolism
62. The end products of catabolism are larger and more complex than the starting substances. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Introduction
Applying
REF: p. 391
OBJ: 1
63. The liver can store iron and vitamins A and C. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Metabolic function of the liver
REF: p. 392
64. The liver assists in mechanical digestion, but not in chemical digestion.
ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: Metabolic function of the liver
REF: p. 392
OBJ: 2
65. Thermoregulation is the function of the hypothalamus. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body temperature
REF: p. 399
66. Normal body temperature is in the range of 97° to 100° F. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body temperature
REF: p. 399
67. Proper nutrition requires a balance of the three basic types of food: carbohydrates, fats, and protein. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 391
68. One function of the liver is to help maintain normal blood glucose concentration. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Metabolic function of the liver
REF: p. 392
69. The liver can process newly absorbed food because the inferior vena cava carries blood directly from the small intestine to the liver. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Metabolic function of the liver
REF: p. 392
70. The process of glycolysis only produces enough energy for the body to gain two ATPs. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Glucose catabolism
REF: p. 393
71. Up to 42 molecules of ATP can be generated in the mitochondrion for every glucose molecule that enters the metabolic pathway. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Glucose catabolism
REF: p. 393
72. Vitamin C acts as an antioxidant that prevents free radicals from damaging DNA. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Vitamins
REF: p. 396
73. The four methods that the skin uses to cool the body are radiation, evaporation, conduction, and perspiration.
ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body temperature
REF: p. 399
74. Macronutrients form the bulk of our diet. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Dietary sources of nutrients
REF: p. 392
75. The satiety center promotes the feeling of hunger. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Regulating food intake
REF: p. 397
Chapter 18: Urinary System Patton: Structure & Function of the Body, 17th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The kidneys: a. lie medial to the backbone. b. are retroperitoneal. c. are in the peritoneum. d. lie medial to the backbone and are retroperitoneal. ANS: B DIF: Applying TOP: Location of the kidneys
REF: p. 408
OBJ: 1
2. The kidneys: a. are encased in a layer of fat. b. lie just above the waistline. c. lie directly across from each other. d. are encased in a layer of fat and lie just above the waistline. ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Location of the kidneys
REF: p. 408
3. The kidneys: a. receive 10% of the blood pumped from the heart. b. help maintain proper blood pH. c. receive 5% of the blood pumped from the heart. d. breakdown nutrients. ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Kidneys | Location of the kidneys
4. The cortex of the kidney is the: a. inner part of the kidney. b. narrow innermost end of the pyramids. c. outer part of the kidney. d. triangular division of the medulla.
REF: p. 408
ANS: C OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Kidneys | Internal anatomy
REF: p. 409
5. The medulla of the kidney is: a. the inner part of the kidney. b. the narrow innermost end of the pyramids. c. the outer part of the kidney. d. a division of the renal pelvis. ANS: A OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Kidneys | Internal anatomy
REF: p. 409
6. The pyramids of the kidney are: a. the inner part of the kidney. b. the triangular divisions of the medulla. c. the outer part of the kidney. d. an expansion of the upper end of the ureter. ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Kidneys | Internal anatomy
REF: p. 409
7. The pelvis of the kidney is: a. the inner part of the kidney. b. the triangular divisions of the medulla. c. an expansion of the upper end of the ureter. d. the outer part of the kidney. ANS: C OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Kidneys | Internal anatomy
REF: p. 409
8. The nephron is composed of the: a. renal corpuscle. b. renal capsule. c. renal tubules. d. renal corpuscle and renal tubules. ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Kidneys | Microscopic structure
REF: p. 409
9. Glomerular capsule is: a. part of the renal tubules. b. a network of blood capillaries. c. the cup-shaped top part of the nephron. d. part of the renal tubules and is the cup-shaped top part of the nephron. ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Kidneys | Microscopic structure
10. The glomerulus is: a. part of the renal tubules. b. a network of blood capillaries.
REF: p. 409
c. the cup-shaped top part of the nephron. d. part of the renal tubules and is a network of blood capillaries. ANS: B OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Kidneys | Microscopic structure
REF: p. 409
11. The distal convoluted tubules are: a. the part of the nephron between the nephron loop and the collecting tube. b. part of the renal corpuscle. c. the cup-shaped top of the nephron. d. is a straight part of the renal tubule. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Kidneys | Microscopic structure
REF: p. 410
12. The nephron loop: a. is part of the renal corpuscle. b. is part of the renal tubules. c. has a hairpin turn in its structure. d. is part of the renal corpuscle and renal tubules. ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Kidneys | Microscopic structure
REF: p. 409
13. Which part of the nephron can be found in the medulla of the kidney? a. Glomerular capsule b. Glomerulus c. Nephron loop d. Distal convoluted tubule ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Kidneys | Microscopic structure
REF: p. 409
14. Kidneys help regulate the concentration of which substance in the blood? a. Sodium b. Potassium c. Bicarbonate d. Sodium, potassium, and bicarbonate ANS: D OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of kidney function
REF: p. 411
15. The cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus help regulate: a. ammonia levels. b. acid-base balance. c. blood pressure. d. ammonia levels, acid-base balance, and blood pressure. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of kidney function
REF: p. 411
16. The movement of substances out of the renal tubules into the blood capillaries is called:
a. b. c. d.
reabsorption. glomerular filtrate. secretion. filtration.
ANS: A OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Formation of urine
REF: p. 413
17. The dissolved substances and fluid that move from the glomerulus into Bowman capsule are called: a. reabsorbed substances. b. glomerular filtrate. c. secreted substances. d. secreted filtrate. ANS: B OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Formation of urine
REF: p. 413
18. The process by which substances move from the tubules of the nephron to the peritubular capillaries is called: a. reabsorption. b. glomerular filtrate. c. secretion. d. filtration. ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Formation of urine
REF: p. 413
19. The amount of glomerular filtrate produced in 1 day is approximately: a. 180 L. b. 18 L. c. 8 L. d. 1.8 L. ANS: A OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Formation of urine
REF: p. 413
20. Which hormone is secreted by the pituitary gland and increases the permeability of the collecting tube to water? a. ANH b. Aldosterone c. ADH d. Insulin ANS: C OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Control of urine volume
REF: p. 416
21. Which hormone is secreted by the adrenal glands and increases the absorption of salt? a. ANH b. Aldosterone c. ADH
d. Insulin ANS: B OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Control of urine volume
REF: p. 416
22. Which hormone is secreted by the heart and is the salt- and water-losing hormone? a. ANH b. Aldosterone c. ADH d. Insulin ANS: A OBJ: 5
DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of urine volume
REF: p. 417
23. The production of an unusually large amount of urine is called: a. anuria. b. polyuria. c. oliguria. d. glycosuria. ANS: B OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Abnormalities of urine volume
REF: p. 417
24. The renal pelvis drains into the: a. urethra. b. urinary bladder. c. ureter. d. nephron. ANS: C OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Ureters
REF: p. 417
25. Urine leaves the body through the: a. urethra. b. urinary bladder. c. ureter. d. nephron. ANS: A OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Urethra
REF: p. 418
26. Until it leaves the body, urine is held by the: a. urethra. b. urinary bladder. c. ureter. d. nephron. ANS: B DIF: TOP: Urinary bladder
Applying
27. The urinary meatus is part of the: a. urethra.
REF: p. 418
OBJ: 6
b. urinary bladder. c. ureter. d. nephron. ANS: A OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Urethra
REF: p. 418
28. The trigone is found in the: a. urethra. b. urinary bladder. c. ureter. d. nephron. ANS: B OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Urinary bladder
REF: p. 418
29. Peristalsis like movement helps move urine through the: a. urethra. b. urinary bladder. c. ureter. d. nephron. ANS: C OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Ureters
REF: p. 418
30. Emptying of the bladder is called: a. voiding. b. urinating. c. micturition. d. voiding, urinating, and micturition. ANS: D OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Micturition
REF: p. 419
31. The emptying reflex causes the: a. contracting of the muscles of the bladder. b. relaxation of the internal sphincter. c. relaxation of the external sphincter. d. both the contracting of the muscles of the bladder and relaxation of the internal sphincter. ANS: D OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Micturition
REF: p. 419
32. Which part of urinating is under voluntary control? a. Contraction of the bladder muscles b. Relaxation of the internal sphincter c. Relaxation of the external sphincter d. Relaxation of the internal and external sphincters ANS: C OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Micturition
REF: p. 419
33. What condition occurs when the bladder is able to empty itself but no urine is being produced by the kidneys? a. Retention b. Suppression c. Incontinence d. Polyuria ANS: B OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Abnormalities of urine output
REF: p. 419
34. Which condition occurs when a person urinates involuntarily? a. Retention b. Suppression c. Incontinence d. Polyuria ANS: C OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Abnormalities of urine output
REF: p. 419
35. Which condition occurs when urine is produced but cannot be removed from the bladder? a. Retention b. Suppression c. Incontinence d. Polyuria ANS: A OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Abnormalities of urine output
REF: p. 419
36. The kidneys do not play a vital role in regulating: a. blood glucose level. b. pH balance. c. water balance. d. electrolyte balance. ANS: A OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 407
37. Which of the following do not help protect the kidney? a. The rib cage b. A fat pad c. The hip bone d. Muscles of the back ANS: C OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Location of the kidneys
38. Nitrogenous waste in the blood is the result of: a. fat catabolism. b. protein catabolism. c. carbohydrate catabolism.
REF: p. 408
d. nucleic acid catabolism. ANS: B DIF: Applying TOP: Overview of kidney function
REF: p. 411
OBJ: 3
39. A nitrogen-containing waste product excreted by the kidney is: a. amino acid. b. ammonia. c. urea. d. ammonia and urea ANS: D OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of kidney function
REF: p. 411
40. Most of the water in the nephron is reabsorbed by the: a. nephron loop. b. proximal convoluted tubule. c. distal convoluted tubule. d. collecting tube. ANS: B OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Reabsorption
REF: p. 413
41. Glycosuria: a. is a sign of diabetes mellitus. b. refers to glucose in the urine. c. occurs because the amount of glucose in the filtrate is more than the nephron can reabsorb. d. is a sign of diabetes, refers to glucose in the urine, and occurs because the amount of glucose in the filtrate is more than the nephron can absorb. ANS: D OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Reabsorption
REF: p. 414
42. Which of the following is not true of ADH? a. It increases the amount of urine produced. b. It is released from the pituitary gland. c. It increases the collecting tube’s permeability to water. d. Decreases the amount of urine. ANS: C OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Control of urine volume
REF: p. 416
43. The kidneys do not play a vital role in which of these functions? a. Maintaining blood pressure b. Stimulating red blood cell production c. Acid-base balance d. The kidney plays a vital role in all of these functions ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 407
44. Which of the following structures is (are) not part of the renal corpuscle? a. Nephron loop b. Glomerular capsule c. Glomerulus d. Glomerular capsule and glomerulus ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Microscopic structure
REF: p. 409
45. Which of the following structures is not part of the renal tubules? a. Nephron loop b. Glomerular capsule c. Collecting tubule d. Distal convoluted tubule ANS: B OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Microscopic structure
REF: p. 409
46. Which important mineral cannot be reabsorbed by the kidney? a. Sodium b. Chloride c. Potassium d. Chloride and potassium ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Reabsorption
REF: p. 413
47. Which of the following is not true of renin? a. It helps lower blood pressure in the body. b. It helps raise blood pressure in the body. c. It is a hormone. d. It constricts blood vessels. ANS: A OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of kidney function
REF: p. 416
48. The narrow, innermost end of a renal pyramid is called: a. a renal papilla. b. a renal calyx. c. a renal pelvis. d. a renal medulla. ANS: A OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Internal anatomy
REF: p. 409
49. The proximal convoluted tubule connects: a. the glomerulus and glomerular capsule. b. glomerular capsule and nephron loop. c. nephron loop and the collecting tubule. d. nephron loop and glomerular capsule. ANS: B
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 409
OBJ: 2
TOP: Kidneys | Microscopic structure
50. Substances to be reabsorbed must pass through how many barriers to get to the blood? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Reabsorption
REF: p. 413
51. The following is not a method used for reabsorption: a. phagocytosis. b. passive transport. c. active transport. d. Phagocytosis and passive transport. ANS: A OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Reabsorption
REF: p. 413
52. Glucose is reabsorbed coupled with this substance: a. chloride. b. sodium. c. water. d. potassium. ANS: B OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Reabsorption
REF: p. 413
53. This hormone increases the amount of water lost in the urine: a. ADH b. ANH c. aldosterone. d. Renin. ANS: B DIF: Applying TOP: Control of urine volume
REF: p. 416
OBJ: 5
54. The normal adult urine output is about: a. 500 mL/day. b. 1000 mL/day. c. 1500 mL/day. d. 2000 mL/day. ANS: C OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Control of urine volume
55. Which of the following is not true of ureters? a. They are about 25 inches long. b. They are about a quarter of an inch wide. c. They use peristalsis to help move urine to the bladder.
REF: p. 416
d. They are lined with a mucous membrane. ANS: A OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Ureters
REF: p. 417 | p. 418
56. The physical, chemical, and microscopic examination of urine is called: a. urinary retention. b. urinary suppression. c. urinalysis. d. countercurrent mechanism. ANS: C OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Urinalysis
REF: p. 421
MATCHING Match each of the following terms with its definition or description. a. Medulla of the kidney b. Cortex of the kidney c. Pyramids of the kidney d. Pelvis of the kidney e. Renal corpuscle f. Glomerulus g. Bowman capsule h. Nephron loop i. Proximal convoluted tubule j. Juxtaglomerular apparatus k. Nephron l. Renal papilla m. Calyx 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13.
First part of the renal tubules Part of the nephron that can extend into the medulla of the kidney An expansion of the upper end of the ureter Inner part of the kidney Cup-shaped part of the nephron Consists of Bowman capsule and the glomerulus A network of capillaries in the renal corpuscle Outer layer of the kidney Triangular divisions of the medulla of the kidney Part of the nephron that helps regulate blood pressure A division of the renal pelvis into which a renal pyramid opens Narrow, innermost end of a renal pyramid Microscopic structure that makes up the unit of filtration for the kidney
1. ANS: OBJ: 2. ANS: OBJ:
I 2 H 2
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering Kidneys | Microscopic structure Remembering Kidneys | Microscopic structure
REF: p. 409 REF: p. 409
3. ANS: OBJ: 4. ANS: OBJ: 5. ANS: OBJ: 6. ANS: OBJ: 7. ANS: OBJ: 8. ANS: OBJ: 9. ANS: OBJ: 10. ANS: OBJ: 11. ANS: OBJ: 12. ANS: OBJ: 13. ANS: OBJ:
D 1 A 1 G 2 E 2 F 2 B 1 C 1 J 3 M 1 L 1 K 2
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering Kidneys | Internal anatomy Remembering Kidneys | Internal anatomy Remembering Kidneys | Microscopic structure Remembering Kidneys | Microscopic structure Remembering Kidneys | Microscopic structure Remembering Kidneys | Internal anatomy Remembering Kidneys | Internal anatomy Remembering Overview of kidney function Remembering Kidneys | Internal anatomy Remembering Kidneys | Internal anatomy Remembering Kidneys | Microscopic structure
REF: p. 409 REF: p. 409 REF: p. 409 REF: p. 409 REF: p. 409 REF: p. 409 REF: p. 409 REF: p. 410 REF: p. 409 REF: p. 409 REF: p. 409
Match each of the following terms with its definition or description. a. Reabsorption b. Secretion c. ADH d. Aldosterone e. ANH f. Suppression g. Ureter h. Urinary bladder i. Urethra j. Micturition k. Incontinence l. Retention 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24.
Another term for urination. Movement of substances out of the renal tubules into the capillaries. Organ that stores urine until it is removed from the body. Tube that carries urine out of the body. A hormone that is produced in the pituitary gland and helps reabsorb water. Movement of substances from the capillaries into the renal tubules. A hormone that is made by the adrenal gland and helps reabsorb salt. Tube that carries urine from the kidney to the urinary bladder. A condition in which the bladder can empty itself, but the kidney is not producing urine. A hormone that is made in the heart and is the salt- and water-losing hormone. A condition in which urine can be produced but cannot be voided.
25. A condition in which a person voids involuntarily. 14. ANS: OBJ: 15. ANS: OBJ: 16. ANS: OBJ: 17. ANS: OBJ: 18. ANS: OBJ: 19. ANS: OBJ: 20. ANS: OBJ: 21. ANS: OBJ: 22. ANS: OBJ: 23. ANS: OBJ: 24. ANS: OBJ: 25. ANS: OBJ:
J 6 A 4 H 6 I 6 C 4 B 4 D 4 G 6 F 6 E 4 L 6 K 6
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering Micturition Remembering Formation of urine Remembering Urinary bladder Remembering Urethra Remembering Formation of urine Remembering Formation of urine Remembering Formation of urine Remembering Ureters Remembering Micturition Remembering Formation of urine Remembering Micturition Remembering Micturition
REF: p. 419 REF: p. 413 REF: p. 418 REF: p. 418 REF: p. 416 REF: p. 415 REF: p. 416 REF: p. 417 REF: p. 419 REF: p. 417 REF: p. 419 REF: p. 419
Match the order in which fluid would pass through the urinary system. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 f. 6 g. 7 h. 8 i. 9 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34.
Urethra Glomerular capsule Distal convoluted tubule Ureter Nephron loop Collecting tubule Proximal convoluted tubule Urinary bladder Pelvis of the kidney
26. ANS: OBJ: 27. ANS: OBJ: 28. ANS: OBJ: 29. ANS: OBJ: 30. ANS: OBJ: 31. ANS: OBJ: 32. ANS: OBJ: 33. ANS: OBJ: 34. ANS: OBJ:
I 6 A 2 D 2 G 6 C 2 E 2 B 2 H 6 F 1
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering Urethra Remembering Microscopic structure Remembering Microscopic structure Remembering Ureters Remembering Microscopic structure Remembering Microscopic structure Remembering Microscopic structure Remembering Urinary bladder Remembering Internal anatomy
REF: p. 418 REF: p. 409 REF: p. 410 REF: p. 417 REF: p. 409 REF: p. 410 REF: p. 409 REF: p. 418 REF: p. 409
TRUE/FALSE 1. Poorly functioning kidneys could lead to the development of uremia. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 407
2. The kidneys lie medial to the backbone and just above the waistline. ANS: F DIF: Applying TOP: Location of the kidneys
REF: p. 408
OBJ: 1
3. In most people, the left kidney is slightly higher than the right kidney. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Location of the kidneys
REF: p. 408
4. The kidneys are located in the abdominal cavity within the parietal peritoneum. ANS: F DIF: Applying TOP: Location of the kidneys
REF: p. 408
OBJ: 1
5. Because of their location, the kidneys are considered retroperitoneal. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Location of the kidneys
6. About 20% of the blood pumped by the heart enters the kidneys.
REF: p. 408
ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Kidneys | Location of the kidneys
REF: p. 408
7. The medulla is the inner part of the kidney. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Kidneys | Internal anatomy
REF: p. 409
8. The cortex is the inner part of the kidney. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Kidneys | Internal anatomy
REF: p. 409
9. The pyramids are expansions of the upper end of the ureters. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Kidneys | Internal anatomy
REF: p. 409
10. The pyramids are the triangular divisions of the medulla of the kidney. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Kidneys | Internal anatomy
REF: p. 409
11. The pelvis is an expansion of the upper end of the ureter. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Kidneys | Internal anatomy
REF: p. 409
12. The pelvis is the triangular division of the medulla of the kidney. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Kidneys | Internal anatomy
REF: p. 409
13. Calyces are part of the renal pyramids. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Kidneys | Internal anatomy
REF: p. 409
14. The papillae are a division of the renal pelvis. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Kidneys | Internal anatomy
REF: p. 409
15. The calyces are part of the renal pelvis. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Kidneys | Internal structure
REF: p. 409
16. The nephron can be divided into two parts, the renal tubules and the renal capsule.
ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Kidneys | Microscopic structure
REF: p. 409
17. The glomerulus is actually part of the circulatory system rather than the urinary system. ANS: T DIF: Creating TOP: Kidneys | Microscopic structure
REF: p. 409
OBJ: 2
18. The glomerular capsule is the cup-shaped top of the nephron. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Kidneys | Microscopic structure
REF: p. 409
19. Even though the glomerulus is a network of blood capillaries, it is considered part of the renal corpuscle. ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: Kidneys | Microscopic structure
REF: p. 409
OBJ: 2
20. The proximal convoluted tubule is the renal tubule nearest the glomerular capsule. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Kidneys | Microscopic structure
REF: p. 409
21. The distal convoluted tubule is an extension of the descending nephron loop. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Kidneys | Microscopic structure
REF: p. 410
22. The distal convoluted tubule connects with the collecting tubule. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Kidneys | Microscopic structure
REF: p. 410
23. The distal and proximal convoluted tubules are named for their proximity to the glomerular capsule. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Applying REF: p. 409 | p. 410 TOP: Kidneys | Microscopic structure
24. The nephron loop is located between the glomerular capsule and the proximal convoluted tubule. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Kidneys | Microscopic structure
REF: p. 409
25. The nephron loop is located between the distal convoluted tubule and the collecting tubule.
ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Kidneys | Microscopic structure
REF: p. 409
26. The nephron loop can extend into the medulla of the kidney. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Kidneys | Microscopic structure
REF: p. 409
27. The glomerular capsule can extend into the medulla of the kidney. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Kidneys | Microscopic structure
REF: p. 409
28. The glomerular capsule catches glomerular filtrate. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Formation of urine
Applying
REF: p. 413
OBJ: 2
29. The anabolism of protein creates nitrogenous wastes such as urea and ammonia. ANS: F DIF: Applying TOP: Overview of kidney function
REF: p. 411
OBJ: 3
30. The kidneys regulate the blood concentration of chloride, potassium, and bicarbonate. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of kidney function
REF: p. 411
31. The juxtaglomerular apparatus assists in the regulation of blood pressure. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of kidney function
REF: p. 411
32. The glomerular filtrate is actively transported into the glomerular capsule. ANS: F TOP: Filtration
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 413
OBJ: 4
33. A drop in blood pressure would cause a decrease in glomerular filtrate and a reflexive increase in urine production. ANS: F TOP: Filtration
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 413
OBJ: 4
34. The movement of materials from the filtrate to the blood is called secretion. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Reabsorption
REF: p. 413
35. Water is moved from the kidney tubules into the blood by osmosis. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Reabsorption
REF: p. 413
36. Of the 178 L of water filtered out of the blood every day, about 150 L are reabsorbed. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Filtration
REF: p. 413
37. In a healthy kidney, almost no glucose is lost in the urine. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Reabsorption
REF: p. 413
38. Glycosuria is symptomatic of diabetes mellitus. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Reabsorption
Applying
REF: p. 414
OBJ: 4
39. Sodium ions are returned to the blood primarily by active transport. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Reabsorption
REF: p. 414
40. Secretion moves hydrogen ions from the filtrate to the blood whereas active transport moves hydrogen ions from the blood to the filtrate. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Secretion
REF: p. 415
41. Secretion adds material to the urine; reabsorption removes material from the urine. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Applying REF: p. 413 | p. 414 | p. 415 TOP: Reabsorption | Secretion
42. Any material that is filtered and not reabsorbed will be lost in the urine. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Reabsorption
Applying
REF: p. 413
OBJ: 4
43. Any material that is reabsorbed and not secreted will be lost in the urine. ANS: F DIF: Applying TOP: Reabsorption | Secretion
REF: p. 416
OBJ: 4
44. ADH increases the amount of urine produced by increasing the permeability of the collecting tubule to water.
ANS: F DIF: Applying TOP: Control of urine volume
REF: p. 416
OBJ: 5
45. A high blood level of aldosterone would cause an increase in the amount of sodium in the peritubular blood vessel. ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: Control of urine volume
REF: p. 416
OBJ: 5
46. Both ADH and aldosterone tend to increase the volume of urine. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Control of urine volume
REF: p. 416
47. ANH and ADH have the opposite effect on urine volume. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Applying REF: p. 416 | p. 417 TOP: Control of urine volume
48. Anuria and polyuria are opposite conditions. ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: Abnormalities of urine volume
REF: p. 417
OBJ: 5
49. The urethra connects the kidneys to the urinary bladder. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Ureters
REF: p. 417
50. Gravity moves urine through the ureters. ANS: F TOP: Ureters
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 418
OBJ: 6
51. The wall of the urinary bladder consists of elastic fibers and voluntary muscles. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Urinary bladder
REF: p. 418
52. The trigone is formed by the entry of the two ureters and the exit of the urethra. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Urinary bladder
Applying
REF: p. 418
OBJ: 6
53. The trigone is unique in the bladder wall because it is the only part with rugae. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Urinary bladder
REF: p. 418
54. The urinary meatus is part of the urethra. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Urethra
REF: p. 418
55. The urethra is the tube leading from the bladder to the outside. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Urethra
REF: p. 418
56. The urethra tends to be longer in females than in males. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Urethra
REF: p. 418
57. In the male the urethra is part of two systems. In the female it is part of only one system. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Urethra
REF: p. 418
58. Micturition, voiding, and urination all refer to the same thing. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Micturition
REF: p. 419
59. The emptying reflex that allows the bladder to empty causes the contraction of the muscles of the bladder wall, and relaxation of the internal and external urethral sphincter. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Micturition
REF: p. 419
60. The internal urethral sphincter is under voluntary control. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Micturition
REF: p. 419
61. The external urethral sphincter is under voluntary control. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Micturition
REF: p. 419
62. In suppression, the kidneys are still functioning normally. ANS: F TOP: Micturition
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 419
OBJ: 6
63. In retention, the kidneys are no longer producing urine. ANS: F
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 419
OBJ: 6
TOP: Micturition
64. Incontinence is a condition in which urine is voided involuntarily. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Micturition
REF: p. 419
65. The source of the waste products that are removed by the kidney is cell metabolism. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 407
66. The lower part of the rib cage protects the uppermost part of the kidney. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Location of the kidneys
REF: p. 408
67. The portion of the medulla between the renal pyramids is called the renal columns. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Kidneys | Internal anatomy
REF: p. 409
68. In order to maintain high blood pressure in the glomerulus, the efferent arteriole has a larger diameter than the afferent arteriole. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Kidneys | Microscopic structure
REF: p. 409
69. The juxtaglomerular apparatus secretes a hormone when blood pressure is low. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of kidney function
REF: p. 411
70. The juxtaglomerular apparatus secretes a hormone that causes dilation of blood vessels. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of kidney function
REF: p. 411
71. Filtration and secretion occur in different parts of the nephron. ANS: T DIF: Remembering REF: p. 413 | p. 414 | p. 415 OBJ: 4 TOP: Filtration | Secretion 72. Filtration and secretion in the nephron move solutes in opposite directions. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Applying REF: p. 413 | p. 414 | p. 415 TOP: Filtration | Secretion
73. Secretion usually occurs in the distal convoluted tubule and the collecting tubule. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Secretion
REF: p. 415
74. The pituitary gland, adrenal gland, and the heart all produce hormones that help control urine volume. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Control of urine volume
REF: p. 416
75. Renal colic is caused by high concentrations of glucose in the urine. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Reabsorption
REF: p. 414
76. The bladder can easily hold 300 to 400 mL of urine. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Micturition
REF: p. 419
77. The kidneys help regulate both electrolytes and central “blood balancing.” ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 407
78. The kidneys help regulate water and the pH of the blood. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 407
79. The glomerular capsule and the nephron loop make up the renal capsule. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Kidneys | Microscopic structure
REF: p. 409
80. The proximal and distal convoluted tubules and the nephron loop are all part of the renal tubules. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Kidneys | Microscopic structure
REF: p. 409 | p. 410
81. Glycosuria can occur if the level of glucose in the blood is below the renal threshold. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Reabsorption
Applying
REF: p. 414
82. Both filtration and secretion occur in the renal corpuscle.
OBJ: 4
ANS: F DIF: Remembering REF: p. 413 | p. 414 | p. 415 OBJ: 4 TOP: Filtration | Secretion 83. None of the hormones that regulate urine volume are made in the kidney. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Control of urine volume
REF: p. 416
84. The renal pelvis is actually part of the ureter. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Ureters
REF: p. 417
85. A heavy cushion of smooth fat surrounds and protects each kidney. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Location of the kidneys
REF: p. 408
86. Kidneys are considered vital organs. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of kidney function
REF: p. 411
87. Glomerular filtration normally occurs at the rate of 225 mL/min. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Filtration
REF: p. 413
88. The urinary bladder sits behind the uterus in women and rests on the prostate gland in men. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Urinary bladder
REF: p. 418
89. The countercurrent flow of filtrate back up the nephron loop permits transport of large amounts of sodium and chloride into the interstitial fluid of the medulla. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Reabsorption
Chapter 19: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance Patton: Structure & Function of the Body, 17th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The fluid inside the cell is called: a. plasma. b. intracellular fluid. c. interstitial fluid.
REF: p. 414
d. plasma and intracellular fluid. ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body fluid compartments
REF: p. 430
2. Extracellular fluid includes: a. plasma and intracellular fluid. b. interstitial and intracellular fluids. c. plasma and interstitial fluid. d. plasma, interstitial fluid, and intracellular fluid. ANS: C OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body fluid compartments
REF: p. 430
3. The fluid that surrounds the cells is called: a. plasma. b. interstitial fluid. c. intracellular fluid. d. edema. ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body fluid compartments
REF: p. 430
4. Which of the following statements is correct? a. People with more body fat have more body water. b. Infants have less water per pound than adults. c. Females have less water per pound than men. d. People with more body fat have more body water and females have less water per pound than men. ANS: C DIF: Applying TOP: Body fluid volumes
REF: p. 430
OBJ: 1
5. Which of the following statements is correct? a. People with less body fat have more body water. b. Infants have less water per pound than adults. c. Females have more body water per pound than men. d. Infants have the same water per pound as adults. ANS: A DIF: Applying TOP: Body fluid volumes
REF: p. 430
OBJ: 1
6. The chief mechanism for maintaining fluid balance is to: a. adjust fluid intake so it equals fluid output. b. adjust fluid intake so it is slightly above fluid output. c. adjust fluid output so it equals fluid input. d. adjust fluid intake so it is slightly below fluid output. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of fluid balance
7. Sources of water intake include:
REF: p. 431
a. b. c. d.
the liquids we drink. water from the food we eat. water from metabolic processes. the liquids we drink, water from the food we eat, and water from metabolic processes.
ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of fluid balance
REF: p. 431
8. The organ that has the greatest effect on fluid output is the: a. kidney. b. lungs. c. skin. d. intestine. ANS: A OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 432 TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
9. The hormone that reduces the amount of water in the body is: a. ADH. b. aldosterone. c. ANH. d. ADH and aldosterone. ANS: C DIF: TOP: ANH mechanism
Applying
REF: p. 432
OBJ: 3
10. The hormone that increases the amount of water in the body is: a. ADH. b. aldosterone. c. ANH. d. ADH and aldosterone. ANS: D TOP: ADH
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 433
OBJ: 3
11. When dehydration begins to occur: a. the body reduces fluid output to zero. b. the body increases the release of ANH. c. the salivary secretions decrease. d. the salivary secretions increase. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Regulation of fluid intake
REF: p. 433
12. Electrolytes: a. form when glucose is added to water. b. dissociate in water solutions. c. form ions in water solutions. d. dissociate in water solutions and form ions in water solutions. ANS: D
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 435
OBJ: 4
TOP: Electrolytes and nonelectrolytes
13. The most abundant positive ion in blood plasma is: a. potassium. b. calcium. c. sodium. d. both potassium and sodium are in equal concentrations. ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Ions
REF: p. 435
14. The most abundant negative ion in blood plasma is: a. bicarbonate. b. chloride. c. hydroxide. d. phosphate. ANS: B OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Ions
REF: p. 435
15. Which electrolyte is important in hemoglobin production? a. Sodium b. Iodine c. Iron d. Chloride ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Electrolyte functions
REF: p. 436
16. Which electrolyte is important in the formation of the thyroid hormones? a. Sodium b. Iodine c. Iron d. Chloride ANS: B OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Electrolyte functions
REF: p. 436
17. Retention of electrolytes (especially sodium) in the interstitial fluid can result from: a. decreased aldosterone secretion. b. increased ADH secretion. c. increased aldosterone secretion. d. decreased ADH secretion. ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Edema: Clinical applications
REF: p. 436
18. The most important regulator of the amount of sodium in the body is the: a. kidney. b. small intestine. c. large intestine.
d. skin. ANS: A OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Electrolyte functions
REF: p. 436
19. Aldosterone: a. is released by the pituitary gland. b. increases the urine volume. c. increases sodium reabsorption. d. decreases sodium reabsorption. ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Aldosterone mechanism
REF: p. 433
20. Aldosterone: a. increases sodium reabsorption by the kidney. b. increases water reabsorption. c. increases the water volume in extracellular fluid. d. increases sodium reabsorption by the kidney, water reabsorption, and water volume in extracellular fluid. ANS: D OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Aldosterone mechanism
REF: p. 433
21. An increase in capillary blood pressure would tend to: a. increase interstitial fluid volume. b. increase plasma volume. c. decrease interstitial fluid volume. d. increases plasma volume and decreases interstitial fluid volume. ANS: A DIF: Applying TOP: Exchange of fluids by blood
REF: p. 434
OBJ: 2
22. A decrease in blood protein concentration would tend to: a. increase interstitial fluid volume. b. decrease blood plasma volume. c. decrease interstitial fluid volume. d. increase interstitial fluid volume and decrease blood plasma volume. ANS: D DIF: Applying TOP: Exchange of fluids by blood
REF: p. 434
OBJ: 2
23. The main water-holding force in the blood capillaries is: a. capillary blood pressure. b. sodium in the blood plasma. c. protein in the blood plasma. d. chloride in the blood plasma. ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Exchange of fluids by blood
24. The main water-pushing force in the blood capillaries is:
REF: p. 434
a. b. c. d.
blood pressure. sodium in the blood plasma. sodium in the interstitial fluid. protein in the blood plasma.
ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Exchange of fluids by blood
REF: p. 434
25. In dehydration: a. intercellular fluid volume drops first. b. plasma volume drops first. c. interstitial fluid drops first. d. neither interstitial nor intracellular fluid volume are affected. ANS: C OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Fluid imbalances
REF: p. 434
26. Dehydration can be caused by: a. prolonged vomiting. b. prolonged diarrhea. c. too little fluid intake. d. prolonged vomiting and diarrhea and too little fluid intake. ANS: D OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Fluid imbalances
REF: p. 434
27. Overhydration: a. occurs about as often as dehydration. b. can put too heavy a burden on the kidneys. c. can be caused by giving intravenous fluids too rapidly. d. more common than dehydration. ANS: C OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Fluid imbalances
REF: p. 435
28. Which of the following is not considered an extracellular fluid? a. Cerebrospinal fluid b. The humors of the eye c. Lymph d. Cerebrospinal fluid, the humors of the eye, and lymph ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body fluid compartments
REF: p. 430
29. The largest volume of water in the body is: a. plasma. b. the fluid inside the cells. c. interstitial fluid. d. lymph. ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body fluid compartments
REF: p. 430
30. The person with the greatest percentage of body water would be: a. an obese male. b. a nonobese male. c. a nonobese female. d. a newborn. ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body fluid volumes
REF: p. 430
31. Under normal circumstances, the kidneys provide the greatest means of water loss. Which organ provides the second greatest? a. Skin b. Lungs c. Intestines d. Muscles ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 432 TOP: Typical daily water intake and output (Table 19-2)
32. A newborn can have a percentage of body water as high as: a. 80%. b. 70%. c. 60%. d. 90%. ANS: A OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body fluid volumes
REF: p. 430
33. Which of the following organs does not contribute to fluid output from the body? a. Lungs b. Skin c. Intestine d. Lungs, skin, and intestine ANS: D OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Routes of fluid output
REF: p. 432
34. The most common positive ion in intracellular fluid is: a. calcium. b. potassium. c. sodium. d. magnesium. ANS: B OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Ions
35. The most important negative ion in intracellular fluid is: a. phosphate ions. b. protein molecules. c. chlorine.
REF: p. 435
d. phosphate ions and protein molecules. ANS: D OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Ions
REF: p. 435
36. The term used to describe a blood sodium level of more than 145 mEq/L is: a. hyponatremia. b. hyperkalemia. c. hypernatremia. d. hypercalcemia. ANS: C OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Electrolyte functions
REF: p. 436
MATCHING Match each of the terms with its definition or description. a. Intracellular fluid b. Interstitial fluid c. Plasma d. ADH e. ANH f. Electrolyte g. Capillary blood pressure h. Plasma proteins i. Dehydration j. Overhydration k. Anions l. Aldosterone m. Extracellular fluid n. Edema o. Fluid compartments p. Cations 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
Dissociates into ions in a water solution. Fluid that is in spaces between the cells. A hormone that is made in the pituitary gland and increases water absorption in the kidney. Can be the result of prolonged vomiting or diarrhea. A hormone that is made in the heart and can increase the amount of water lost in the urine. Liquid fraction of whole blood. Main water-pushing force moving fluid out of the capillaries. Can result if intravenous fluid is administered too rapidly. Fluid inside the cells. Force pulling water back into the capillaries. Consists of plasma, transcellular fluid, and interstitial fluid. The two examples of these are extracellular and intracellular. Term given to negatively changed ions. Term given to positively charged ions. Tissue swelling as a result of too much interstitial fluid.
16. Hormone secreted by the adrenal cortex that increases sodium reabsorption from the kidneys. 1. ANS: OBJ: 2. ANS: OBJ: 3. ANS: OBJ: 4. ANS: OBJ: 5. ANS: OBJ: 6. ANS: OBJ: 7. ANS: OBJ: 8. ANS: OBJ: 9. ANS: OBJ: 10. ANS: OBJ: 11. ANS: OBJ: 12. ANS: OBJ: 13. ANS: OBJ: 14. ANS: OBJ: 15. ANS: OBJ: 16. ANS: OBJ:
F 4 B 1 D 3 I 5 E 3 C 1 G 2 J 5 A 1 H 2 M 1 O 1 K 4 P 4 N 4 L 5
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering Electrolytes and nonelectrolytes Remembering Body fluid compartments Remembering ADH Remembering Fluid imbalances Remembering ANH mechanism Remembering Body fluid compartments Remembering Exchange of fluids by blood Remembering Fluid imbalances Remembering Body fluid compartments Remembering Exchange of fluids by blood Remembering Body fluid compartments Remembering Body fluid compartments Remembering Ions Remembering Ions Remembering Electrolyte functions Remembering Aldosterone mechanism
Match the term with its correct definition. a. Hyperkalemia b. Hyponatremia c. Hypocalcemia d. Hypernatremia e. Hypercalcemia f. Hypokalemia 17. 18. 19. 20.
Dietary calcium deficiency Low blood potassium level Blood sodium level of more than 145 mEq/L Blood potassium levels of more than 5.1 mEq/L
REF: p. 435 REF: p. 430 REF: p. 432 REF: p. 434 REF: p. 433 REF: p. 430 REF: p. 434 REF: p. 435 REF: p. 430 REF: p. 434 REF: p. 430 REF: p. 430 REF: p. 435 REF: p. 435 REF: p. 436 REF: p. 433
21. Blood sodium level below 136 mEq/L 22. Blood calcium levels rise above normal limits 17. ANS: OBJ: 18. ANS: OBJ: 19. ANS: OBJ: 20. ANS: OBJ: 21. ANS: OBJ: 22. ANS: OBJ:
C 5 F 5 D 5 A 5 B 5 E 5
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering Electrolyte imbalances Remembering Electrolyte imbalances Remembering Electrolyte imbalances Remembering Electrolyte imbalances Remembering Electrolyte imbalances Remembering Electrolyte imbalances
REF: p. 439 REF: p. 438 REF: p. 437 REF: p. 438 REF: p. 437 REF: p. 438
TRUE/FALSE 1. The largest volume of fluid in the body is in the plasma. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body fluid compartments
REF: p. 430
2. Three main fluid compartments of the body are intracellular fluid, extracellular fluid, and plasma. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body fluid compartments
REF: p. 430
3. Two fluid compartments make up the interstitial fluid compartment: the extracellular fluid and the plasma. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body fluid compartments
REF: p. 430
4. Infants have less water per pound of body weight than do adults. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body fluid volumes
REF: p. 430
5. Obese people tend to have more water per pound of body weight than do slender people. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body fluid volumes
REF: p. 430
6. Adults have less water per pound of body weight than do infants. ANS: T
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 430
OBJ: 1
TOP: Body fluid volumes
7. Men tend to have less water per pound of body weight than do women. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body fluid volumes
REF: p. 430
8. Slender people tend to have more water per pound of body weight than do obese people. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body fluid volumes
REF: p. 430
9. The most important mechanism in regulating fluid balance is to adjust fluid intake. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Overview of fluid balance
REF: p. 431
10. The three main sources of fluid intake are the fluids we drink, the liquid in the foods we eat, and the water formed by metabolic processes. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 431 TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
11. Fluid loss can occur from the kidneys, lungs, skin, or intestines. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 431 TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
12. The fluid output that changes most is the amount of sweat lost from the skin. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 432 TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
13. The body regulates the amount of fluid lost by increasing or decreasing the amount of urine produced. ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: Regulation of fluid output
REF: p. 432
OBJ: 3
14. ADH tends to increase the amount of urine produced. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: ADH
REF: p. 432
15. ADH tends to increase the amount of water reabsorbed by the body. ANS: T TOP: ADH
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 432
OBJ: 3
16. ANH is made by the heart. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: ANH mechanism
REF: p. 433
17. Aldosterone is released by the pituitary gland. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Aldosterone mechanism
REF: p. 433
18. ADH is released by the adrenal glands. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: ADH
REF: p. 432
19. In cases of dehydration, the body can reduce its fluid output to zero. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Regulation of fluid intake
REF: p. 433
20. The compound glucose is an electrolyte. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 435 TOP: Importance of electrolytes in body fluids
21. The compound sodium chloride is an electrolyte. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 435 TOP: Importance of electrolytes in body fluids
22. When electrolytes are dissolved in water they produce ions. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Ions
REF: p. 435
23. Potassium, calcium, and magnesium are examples of positive ions found in the body. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Ions
REF: p. 435
24. Chloride, bicarbonate, and phosphate are examples of negative ions found in the body. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Ions
REF: p. 435
25. The electrolyte iron is important in the production of thyroid hormones. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Electrolyte functions
REF: p. 436
26. The electrolyte iodine is important in the production of thyroid hormones. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Electrolyte functions
REF: p. 436
27. The electrolyte iron is important in the production of hemoglobin. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Electrolyte functions
REF: p. 436
28. Where sodium goes, water follows. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Electrolyte functions
REF: p. 436
29. The most abundant positive ion in the blood is calcium. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Ions
REF: p. 435
30. The most abundant negative ion in the blood is chloride. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Ions
REF: p. 435
31. In the blood, the total number of negative ions equals the total number of positive ions. ANS: T DIF: Remembering REF: p. 435 OBJ: 4 TOP: Figure 19-9 | Electrolytes found in fluid compartments of the body 32. Increased arterial blood pressure causes the baroreceptors to stimulate the release of aldosterone. ANS: F DIF: Applying REF: p. 433 TOP: Figure 19-5 | Aldosterone mechanism
OBJ: 4
33. As the sodium content in the blood increases, the volume of urine increases. ANS: F DIF: Applying REF: p. 433 TOP: Figure 19-5 | Aldosterone mechanism
OBJ: 4
34. The effect of aldosterone is to increase the volume of the extracellular fluid. ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: Aldosterone mechanism
REF: p. 433
OBJ: 4
35. The main regulators of sodium in the body are the sweat glands of the skin and the intestines. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Electrolyte functions
REF: p. 436
36. The kidney is the main regulator of sodium in the body. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Electrolyte functions
REF: p. 436
37. Plasma proteins are the main water-pushing force in the blood capillaries. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Exchange of fluids by blood
REF: p. 434
38. Plasma proteins are the main water-pulling force in the blood capillaries. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Exchange of fluids by blood
REF: p. 434
39. Capillary blood pressure is the main water-pushing force in the blood capillaries. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Exchange of fluids by blood
REF: p. 434
40. Capillary blood pressure is the main water-pulling force in the blood capillaries. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Exchange of fluids by blood
REF: p. 434
41. A reduction in capillary blood pressure would allow more blood to be pushed into the interstitial fluid. ANS: F DIF: Applying TOP: Exchange of fluids by blood
REF: p. 434
OBJ: 2
42. A reduction in the protein concentration in the plasma would allow more blood to remain in the interstitial fluid. ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: Exchange of fluids by blood
REF: p. 434
OBJ: 2
43. An increase in the protein concentration in the plasma would allow more blood to remain in the interstitial fluid. ANS: F DIF: Applying TOP: Exchange of fluids by blood
REF: p. 434
OBJ: 2
44. A decrease in capillary blood pressure or an increase in the plasma protein concentration would have about the same effect on the interstitial fluid. ANS: T DIF: Creating TOP: Exchange of fluids by blood
REF: p. 434
OBJ: 2
45. An increase in capillary blood pressure or a decrease in the plasma protein concentration would have about the same effect on the interstitial fluid. ANS: T DIF: Creating TOP: Exchange of fluids by blood
REF: p. 434
OBJ: 2
46. Capillary blood pressure and plasma protein concentration have the opposite effects on interstitial fluid. ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: Exchange of fluids by blood
REF: p. 434
OBJ: 2
47. If plasma volume drops drastically, adequate circulation cannot be maintained. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Exchange of fluids by blood
REF: p. 434
48. Dehydration and overhydration occur in about equal frequency. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Fluid imbalances
REF: p. 434 | p. 435
49. Prolonged vomiting can result in dehydration. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Fluid imbalances
REF: p. 434
50. Middle-aged adults are at the greatest risk for dehydration caused by diarrhea. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Fluid imbalances
REF: p. 434
51. Loss of skin elasticity is a clinical sign of overhydration. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Fluid imbalances
REF: p. 435
52. In dehydration, interstitial fluid volume decreases first. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Fluid imbalances
REF: p. 434
53. One of the results of overhydration is to put too heavy a burden on the kidneys.
ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Fluid imbalances
REF: p. 435
54. Fluid balance implies that both total volume and distribution of water remain normal. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 429
55. The most abundant substance in the body is water. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body fluid volumes
REF: p. 430
56. Fluid makes up about 25% of the body weight of the average adult. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body fluid volumes
REF: p. 430
57. The percentage of body water increases slightly over the first 10 years of life. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body fluid volumes
REF: p. 430
58. No matter how dehydrated the body gets, it will continue to lose water through the lungs and skin. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Regulation of fluid intake
REF: p. 433
59. One of the first signs of dehydration is the reduction in the production of saliva. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Regulation of fluid intake
REF: p. 433
60. Proteins are considered negative ions. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Ions
REF: p. 435
61. The intestines assist in the regulation of sodium in the body. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Electrolyte functions
REF: p. 436
62. The water-pushing forces in the capillary are highest at the venous end of the capillary. ANS: F DIF: Applying TOP: Exchange of fluids by blood
REF: p. 434
OBJ: 2
63. In newborns, water may account for as much as 80% of the total body weight. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body fluid volumes
REF: p. 430
64. One reason the amount of water per pound increases in the elderly is that the muscle mass decreases and body fat increases. ANS: F DIF: Applying TOP: Body fluid volumes
REF: p. 430
OBJ: 1
65. With slight variation, the amount of extracellular fluid equals the amount of intracellular fluid. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body fluid compartments
REF: p. 430
66. The second greatest source of water for the body is the water produced by the catabolism of food. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 432 TOP: Typical daily water intake and output (Table 19-2)
67. Potassium is the most common cation in intracellular fluid. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Ions
REF: p. 435
68. Lymph and cerebrospinal fluid are considered interstitial fluid. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body fluid compartments
REF: p. 430
69. Lymph, cerebrospinal fluid, and the humors in the eye are all considered transcellular fluid. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Body fluid compartments
REF: p. 430
70. Ions that carry a positive charge are called anions. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Ions
REF: p. 435
71. A milliequivalent (mEq) is a unit used to describe the relative atomic mass of various ions in the body. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Electrolyte functions
REF: p. 436
72. Water intoxication may result from rapidly drinking large volumes of water or giving hypotonic solutions to persons unable to dilute and excrete urine normally. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Fluid imbalances
REF: p. 435
Chapter 20: Acid-Base Balance Patton: Structure & Function of the Body, 17th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. pH is a measurement of the: a. hydrogen ion concentration of a solution. b. hydroxide ion concentration of a solution. c. amount of buffer needed in a solution. d. amount of electrolytes in a solution. ANS: A OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: pH of body fluids
REF: p. 446
2. A solution with a pH of 7.0: a. would have more hydrogen ions than hydroxide ions. b. would have fewer hydrogen ions than hydroxide ions. c. would have an equal number of hydrogen and hydroxide ions. d. would be an acid solution. ANS: C DIF: TOP: Using the pH scale
Applying
REF: p. 446
OBJ: 1
3. A solution with a pH of 9.0 would: a. be an acid solution. b. have fewer hydrogen ions than hydroxide ions. c. be neutral. d. have more hydrogen ions than hydroxide ions. ANS: B DIF: TOP: Using the pH scale
Applying
REF: p. 446
OBJ: 1
4. A solution with a pH of 5.0 would: a. be an acid solution. b. have more hydrogen ions than hydroxide ions. c. be neutral. d. be an acid solution and have more hydrogen ions than hydroxide ions. ANS: D DIF: TOP: Using the pH scale
Applying
REF: p. 446
5. A solution with a pH of 7.0 would: a. have more hydrogen ions than hydroxide ions. b. be an acid solution.
OBJ: 1
c. be a neutral solution. d. have more hydrogen ions than hydroxide ions and be a neutral solution. ANS: C OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Using the pH scale
REF: p. 446
6. If saliva has a pH of 7.7, arterial blood has a pH of 7.45. That means: a. arterial blood is more alkaline than saliva. b. arterial blood is more acid than saliva. c. saliva has more hydrogen ions than arterial blood. d. saliva has the same hydrogen ions as arterial blood. ANS: B DIF: TOP: Using the pH scale
Applying
REF: p. 446
OBJ: 1
7. The mechanism used by the body to regulate body pH is: a. the buffer system. b. the respiratory mechanism. c. the urinary mechanism. d. the buffer system and respiratory and urinary mechanisms. ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 447 TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
8. The slightly lower pH of venous blood compared to arterial blood is caused by: a. the lower oxygen level of venous blood. b. the influx of lactic acid in venous blood. c. the influx of carbon dioxide in venous blood. d. the influx of carbon dioxide in arterial blood. ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 447 TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
9. The enzyme that converts carbon dioxide and water to carbonic acid is: a. carbonic anhydrase. b. carbaminohemoglobin. c. carbonate. d. carbon dioxide. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 447 TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
10. Buffer pairs: a. absorb hydrogen ions. b. absorb hydroxide ions. c. prevent sharp changes in the pH of a solution. d. absorb hydrogen and hydroxide ions and prevent sharp changes in the pH of a solution. ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Chemical pH control mechanisms
REF: p. 448
11. Metabolism tends to add: a. more bases than acids to the blood. b. more acids than bases to the blood. c. about an equal amount of acids and bases. d. only neutral substances to the blood. ANS: B OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Chemical pH control mechanisms
REF: p. 448
12. The results of metabolic processes usually add: a. relatively weak bases to the blood. b. relatively strong bases to the blood. c. relatively weak acids to the blood. d. relatively strong acids to the blood. ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Chemical pH control mechanisms
REF: p. 448
13. Strong acids tend to: a. greatly raise the pH. b. greatly lower the pH. c. do not dissociate as much as weak acids. d. greatly raise and lower the pH. ANS: B OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Chemical pH control mechanisms
REF: p. 448
14. When the carbonic acid–sodium bicarbonate buffer pair buffers an acid: a. water is an end product. b. carbonic anhydrase reacts with the carbonic acid. c. more sodium bicarbonate is formed. d. more carbonic acid is formed. ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Applying REF: p. 448 | p. 449 | p. 450 TOP: Chemical pH control mechanisms
15. When the carbonic acid–sodium bicarbonate buffer pair buffers an acid: a. the pH of the blood drops slightly. b. a weak acid is replaced by a strong acid. c. water is formed. d. the pH of the blood drops slightly and water is formed. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Applying REF: p. 448 | p. 449 | p. 450 TOP: Chemical pH control mechanisms
16. When the carbonic acid–sodium bicarbonate buffer pair buffers a base: a. water is produced. b. hydrogen ions are added to the solution. c. more carbonic acid is produced. d. hydrogen ions are added to the solution and more carbonic acid is produced. ANS: A
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 448 | p. 449 | p. 450
OBJ: 2
TOP: Chemical pH control mechanisms
17. When the carbonic acid–sodium bicarbonate buffer pair buffers a base: a. sodium chloride is produced. b. water is produced. c. the pH rises less than it would if there were no buffer system. d. water is produced and the pH rises less than it would if there were no buffer system. ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Applying REF: p. 448 | p. 449 | p. 450 TOP: Chemical pH control mechanisms
18. An increased respiration rate: a. increases the carbonic acid in the blood. b. decreases the carbonic acid in the blood. c. causes the pH of the blood to drop. d. increases the carbonic acid in the blood and causes the pH of the blood to drop. ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Respiratory mechanism
REF: p. 450
19. A decrease in respiration rate: a. increases the carbonic acid in the blood. b. decreases the carbonic acid in the blood. c. causes a drop in blood pH. d. increases the carbonic acid in the blood and causes a drop in blood pH. ANS: D OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Respiratory mechanism
REF: p. 450
20. The most effective regulator of blood pH is: a. the buffer system. b. the respiratory system. c. the urinary system. d. respiratory and urinary systems. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Urinary mechanism
REF: p. 451
21. When the kidney secretes hydrogen ions: a. the pH of the blood drops. b. the pH of the urine drops. c. carbonic acid is formed in the blood. d. the pH of the blood and urine stay the same. ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Urinary mechanism
22. When the kidney secretes hydrogen ions: a. the pH of the urine rises. b. sodium ions are added to the urine also.
REF: p. 451
c. the bicarbonate ion is added to the urine also. d. the pH of the urine lowers. ANS: D OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Urinary mechanism
REF: p. 451
23. The kidney also can acidify the urine by: a. converting an ammonia molecule to an amino group. b. by deaminating a fat. c. by converting an amino group to ammonia. d. by deaminating a fat and by converting an amino group to ammonia. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Urinary mechanism
REF: p. 451
24. Acidosis occurs when the: a. blood concentration of hydrogen ions drop. b. blood pH drops. c. concentration of the hydroxide ion increases. d. pH of the blood rises. ANS: B OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: pH imbalances
REF: p. 451
25. Alkalosis occurs when the: a. blood concentration of hydrogen ions rises. b. pH of the blood drops. c. concentration of the hydroxide ion drops. d. blood pH rises. ANS: D OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: pH imbalances
REF: p. 451
26. The proper buffer pair ratio is: a. 20 times more sodium bicarbonate than carbonic acid. b. 20 times more carbonic acid than sodium bicarbonate. c. 10 times more sodium bicarbonate than carbonic acid. d. 10 times more carbonic acid than sodium bicarbonate. ANS: A OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: pH imbalances
REF: p. 451
27. Patients with a bicarbonate deficit experience: a. metabolic alkalosis. b. metabolic acidosis. c. respiratory alkalosis. d. respiratory acidosis. ANS: B OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 453 TOP: Metabolic and respiratory disturbances
28. Patients with a carbonic acid excess experience:
a. b. c. d.
metabolic alkalosis. metabolic acidosis. respiratory alkalosis. respiratory acidosis.
ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 454 TOP: Metabolic and respiratory disturbances
29. Excessive vomiting results in a massive loss of chloride and: a. respiratory alkalosis. b. metabolic acidosis. c. metabolic alkalosis. d. respiratory acidosis. ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Clinical Application: Vomiting
REF: p. 452
30. A drop in the ratio of sodium bicarbonate to carbonic acid because of untreated diabetes can be called: a. uncompensated respiratory acidosis. b. uncompensated respiratory alkalosis. c. uncompensated metabolic acidosis. d. uncompensated metabolic alkalosis. ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Compensation for pH imbalances
REF: p. 455
31. The fluid in the body with the highest hydrogen ion concentration is: a. saliva. b. gastric juice. c. venous blood. d. arterial blood. ANS: B DIF: TOP: Using the pH scale
Applying
REF: p. 446
OBJ: 1
32. The enzyme carbonic anhydrase is found: a. in red blood cells. b. in white blood cells. c. in epithelial cells lining blood vessels. d. as a free protein in blood plasma. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 447 TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
33. When the carbonic acid–sodium bicarbonate buffer pair buffers lactic acid: a. the amount of carbonic acid in the blood decreases. b. the amount of carbonic acid in the blood increases. c. the amount of bicarbonate in the blood increases. d. the amount of carbonic acid in the blood increases and the amount of bicarbonate in the blood increases.
ANS: B OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Chemical pH control mechanisms
REF: p. 448
34. The term fixed acid means: a. an acid that does not break down to form a gas. b. a weak acid that will not dissociate. c. an acid that cannot be broken down to a simpler substance. d. an acid that resists neutralization. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Chemical pH control mechanisms
REF: p. 448
35. The part of the nephron that secretes hydrogen ions into the urine is the: a. proximal tubule. b. Henle loop. c. distal tubule. d. collecting tubule. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Urinary mechanism
REF: p. 451
36. Effective functioning of which of the following depends on the regulation of the hydrogen ion concentration? a. Cellular enzymes b. Antibodies c. Hemoglobin d. Cellular enzymes and hemoglobin ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 445
37. A solution with a pH of 9.0 has: a. 10 times more hydrogen ions than a solution with a pH of 7.0. b. 100 times more hydrogen ions than a solution with a pH of 7.0. c. 100 times fewer hydrogen ions than a solution with a pH of 7.0. d. 10 times fewer hydrogen ions than a solution with a pH of 7.0. ANS: C DIF: TOP: Using the pH scale
Applying
REF: p. 446
OBJ: 1
38. When comparing venous and arterial blood: a. arterial blood is basic and venous blood is acidic. b. venous blood is basic and arterial blood is acidic. c. both venous and arterial blood are slightly acidic. d. both venous and arterial blood are slightly basic. ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Using the pH scale
REF: p. 446
39. The lungs can remove the equivalent of more than this much carbonic acid each day: a. 30 L.
b. 40 L. c. 50 L. d. 20 L. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 447 TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
40. One advantage that the kidneys have over the lungs in regulating pH is that: a. they can remove a large amount of carbonic acid. b. they can raise the pH of the blood. c. they can lower the pH of the blood. d. kidneys have no advantage over the lungs in regulating pH. ANS: C DIF: TOP: Urinary mechanism
Applying
REF: p. 451
OBJ: 3
41. What term describes the set of processes that the body uses to try to restore balance when acidosis or alkalosis occurs? a. Cotransport b. Compensation c. Bicarbonate loading d. Emesis ANS: B OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Compensation for pH imbalances
REF: p. 455
42. The term that describes the condition when the respiratory system has not yet compensated for the drop in pH is called: a. bicarbonate loading. b. emesis. c. uncompensated metabolic acidosis. d. uncompensated metabolic alkalosis. ANS: C OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Compensation for pH imbalances
REF: p. 455
43. Following cardiac arrest, there is almost an immediate development of: a. respiratory alkalosis. b. respiratory acidosis. c. metabolic alkalosis. d. metabolic acidosis. ANS: B OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 453 TOP: Clinical Application: Cardiac arrest and respiratory acidosis
44. If a chemical pH control mechanism is unable to stabilize the pH, which of the following will halt and reverse harmful pH shifts? a. Physical pH control mechanism b. Physiological pH control mechanism c. Bicarbonate loading d. Physical pH control mechanism and bicarbonate loading
ANS: B OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Integration of pH control
REF: p. 447
MATCHING Match each term with its definition or description. a. Acid solution b. Alkaline solution c. Neutral solution d. Buffer e. Alkalosis f. Acidosis g. Metabolic acidosis h. Respiratory acidosis i. Respiratory alkalosis j. Metabolic alkalosis k. Carbonic anhydrase l. pH 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12.
General term that describes a condition of low blood Ph. A solution that has a pH less than 7.0. A condition that results from a carbonic acid deficit. A condition that results from a bicarbonate deficit. A solution with a pH of 7.0. A condition that results from a bicarbonate excess. A general term that describes a condition of high blood pH. A solution with a pH greater than 7.0. Condition that results from carbonic acid excess. A substance that prevents a sharp change in pH. Scale that measures the hydrogen ion concentration in a solution. Enzyme that combines water and carbon dioxide to form carbonic acid.
1. ANS: OBJ: 2. ANS: OBJ: 3. ANS: OBJ: 4. ANS: OBJ: 5. ANS: OBJ: 6. ANS: OBJ: 7. ANS: OBJ: 8. ANS:
F 4 A 1 I 4 G 4 C 1 J 4 E 4 B
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF:
Remembering REF: pH imbalances Remembering REF: Using the pH scale Remembering REF: Metabolic and respiratory disturbances Remembering REF: Metabolic and respiratory disturbances Remembering REF: Using the pH scale Remembering REF: Metabolic and respiratory disturbances Remembering REF: pH imbalances Remembering REF:
p. 451 p. 446 p. 454 p. 453 p. 446 p. 453 p. 451 p. 446
9. 10. 11. 12.
OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ: ANS: OBJ:
1 H 4 D 2 L 1 K 2
TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Using the pH scale Remembering REF: p. 454 Metabolic and respiratory disturbances Remembering REF: p. 448 Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids Remembering REF: p. 446 pH of body fluids Remembering REF: p. 447 Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
TRUE/FALSE 1. The pH of a solution indicates the solution’s hydrogen ion concentration. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: pH of body fluids
REF: p. 446
2. An acid solution has a pH above 7.0. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Using the pH scale
REF: p. 446
3. An acid solution has more hydroxide ions than hydrogen ions. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Using the pH scale
Applying
REF: p. 446
OBJ: 1
4. As the pH value of a solution goes up, the hydrogen ion concentration goes up. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Using the pH scale
Applying
REF: p. 446
OBJ: 1
5. A neutral solution has an equal number of hydroxide and hydrogen ions. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Using the pH scale
REF: p. 446
6. An alkaline solution has a pH greater than 7.0. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Using the pH scale
REF: p. 446
7. Arterial blood has a pH of 7.45. Venous blood has a pH of 7.35. This means that venous blood is more basic than arterial blood. ANS: F DIF: TOP: pH of body fluids
Applying
REF: p. 446
OBJ: 1
8. Arterial blood has a pH of 7.45. Venous blood has a pH of 7.35. This means that arterial blood has fewer hydrogen ions than arterial blood. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Using the pH scale
Applying
REF: p. 446
OBJ: 1
9. The slightly lower pH of venous blood is the result of its higher concentration of carbon dioxide. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 447 TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
10. Water turns carbon dioxide into carbonic anhydrase. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 447 TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
11. Carbonic anhydrase turns water and carbon dioxide into carbonic acid. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 447 TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
12. A buffer is a substance that prevents a sharp change in the pH of a solution when an acid or base is added. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Chemical pH control mechanisms
REF: p. 448
13. Metabolic processes tend to produce more bases than acids. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Chemical pH control mechanisms
REF: p. 448
14. A common buffer pair is sodium bicarbonate and carbonic acid. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Chemical pH control mechanisms
REF: p. 448
15. If the sodium bicarbonate–carbonic acid buffer pair was to buffer a solution of HCl, more carbonic acid would be formed. ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: Chemical pH control mechanisms
REF: p. 448
OBJ: 2
16. If the sodium bicarbonate–carbonic acid buffer pair was to buffer a solution of HCl, sodium chloride would be produced. ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: Chemical pH control mechanisms
REF: p. 448
OBJ: 2
17. If the sodium bicarbonate–carbonic acid buffer pair was to buffer a solution of HCl, more sodium bicarbonate would be produced. ANS: F DIF: Applying TOP: Chemical pH control mechanisms
REF: p. 448
OBJ: 2
18. When buffer systems buffer an acid, a strong acid is replaced with a weak acid. ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: Chemical pH control mechanisms
REF: p. 448
OBJ: 2
19. If the sodium bicarbonate–carbonic acid buffer pair was to buffer a solution of NaOH, water would be an end product. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Applying REF: p. 448 | p. 449 | p. 450 TOP: Chemical pH control mechanisms
20. If the sodium bicarbonate–carbonic acid buffer pair was to buffer a solution of NaOH, the amount of carbonic acid would increase. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Applying REF: p. 448 | p. 449 | p. 450 TOP: Chemical pH control mechanisms
21. When a buffer system buffers a basic solution, the weak acid donates a hydrogen ion to convert the hydroxide ion to water. ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: Chemical pH control mechanisms
REF: p. 448
OBJ: 2
22. A “fixed” acid does not break down to form a gas. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Chemical pH control mechanisms
REF: p. 448
23. Lactic acid is an example of a “fixed” acid. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Chemical pH control mechanisms
REF: p. 448
24. Lactic acid is the most abundant acid in body fluids. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Chemical pH control mechanisms
REF: p. 448
25. Carbonic acid is the most abundant acid in body fluids. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Chemical pH control mechanisms
REF: p. 448
26. The carbon dioxide that is exhaled reduces the amount of carbonic acid in the blood. ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: Respiratory mechanism
REF: p. 450
OBJ: 3
27. A decreased breathing rate reduces the amount of carbonic acid removed and causes a rise in the pH of the blood. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Applying REF: p. 450 | p. 451 TOP: Respiratory mechanism
28. A decrease in breathing rate reduces the amount of carbonic acid removed and causes an increase of hydrogen ions in the blood. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Applying REF: p. 450 | p. 451 TOP: Respiratory mechanism
29. Hyperventilation can cause acidosis. ANS: F DIF: Applying TOP: Respiratory mechanism
REF: p. 451
OBJ: 3
30. Hyperventilation would remove more carbonic acid than normal and would cause a decrease in the hydrogen ion concentration. ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: Respiratory mechanism
REF: p. 451
OBJ: 3
31. Hyperventilation would remove more carbonic acid than normal and would cause a drop in blood pH. ANS: F DIF: Applying TOP: Respiratory mechanism
REF: p. 451
OBJ: 3
32. The lung is the most effective regulator of body pH. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Urinary mechanism
REF: p. 451
33. The kidney is the most effective regulator of body pH. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Urinary mechanism
REF: p. 451
34. The kidneys are able to remove base from the body, whereas the lungs can remove only acid. ANS: T
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 451
OBJ: 3
TOP: Urinary mechanism
35. In the glomerular capsule, carbon dioxide and water join to become carbonic acid. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Urinary mechanism
REF: p. 451
36. When the kidney secretes hydrogen ions, it lowers the pH of the blood. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Urinary mechanism
Applying
REF: p. 451
OBJ: 3
37. When the kidney secretes hydrogen ions, it lowers the pH of the urine. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Urinary mechanism
Applying
REF: p. 451
OBJ: 3
38. When the kidney secretes a hydrogen ion, it absorbs a sodium ion. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Urinary mechanism
REF: p. 451
39. When the kidneys acidify the urine, they conserve sodium bicarbonate. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Urinary mechanism
REF: p. 451
40. If the respiratory mechanism is unable to stop the pH shift, renal mechanisms will be initiated within 24 hours. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Integration of pH control
REF: p. 447
41. In the kidney, ammonia is exchanged for sodium bicarbonate. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Urinary mechanism
Applying
REF: p. 451
OBJ: 3
42. The amine group used by the kidney to help remove hydrogen ions is contributed by a fatty acid molecule. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Urinary mechanism
Applying
REF: p. 451
OBJ: 3
43. To raise the pH of the blood, the kidneys lower the pH of the urine. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Urinary mechanism
Applying
REF: p. 451
OBJ: 3
44. To raise the pH of the blood, the kidneys lower the hydrogen ion concentration of the urine. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Urinary mechanism
Applying
REF: p. 451
OBJ: 3
45. In acidosis, the pH of the blood drops. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: pH imbalances
REF: p. 451
46. In alkalosis, the hydrogen ion concentration of the blood rises. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: pH imbalances
REF: p. 451
47. The proper ratio of the buffer pair would be 20 times more carbonic acid than sodium bicarbonate. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: pH imbalances
REF: p. 451
48. The proper ratio of the buffer pair would be 20 times more sodium bicarbonate than carbonic acid. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: pH imbalances
REF: p. 451
49. Uncontrolled diabetes or prolonged diarrhea can lead to metabolic alkalosis. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Compensation for pH imbalances
REF: p. 455
50. Bicarbonate deficit can lead to metabolic acidosis. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 453 TOP: Metabolic and respiratory disturbances
51. Prolonged respiratory depression can lead to respiratory acidosis. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 454 TOP: Metabolic and respiratory disturbances
52. Carbonic acid excess can lead to respiratory alkalosis. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 454 TOP: Metabolic and respiratory disturbances
53. Overventilation of patients on ventilators can lead to respiratory alkalosis.
ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 454 TOP: Metabolic and respiratory disturbances
54. A possible risk of severe, prolonged vomiting is metabolic acidosis. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 453 TOP: Metabolic and respiratory disturbances
55. When the ratio of the buffer pair falls below what it should be, uncompensated metabolic acidosis can occur. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 455 TOP: Metabolic and respiratory disturbances
56. Pure water with a pH of 7.0 would have neither hydrogen nor hydroxide ions. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Using the pH scale
Applying
REF: p. 446
OBJ: 1
57. The lungs remove just under 10 L of carbonic acid from the venous blood each day. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 447 TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
58. The buffer system works because weak acids dissociate much less than do strong acids. ANS: T DIF: Creating TOP: Chemical pH control mechanisms
REF: p. 448
OBJ: 2
59. The end products of both aerobic and anaerobic catabolism of glucose can cause a drop in the blood pH. ANS: T DIF: Applying REF: p. 447 | p. 448 OBJ: 2 TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids | Chemical pH control mechanisms 60. Carbonic acid is a “fixed acid.” ANS: F DIF: Applying TOP: Chemical pH control mechanisms
REF: p. 448
OBJ: 2
61. Blood in the pulmonary artery has a higher pH than the blood in the pulmonary vein. ANS: F DIF: Creating TOP: Respiratory mechanism
REF: p. 450
OBJ: 3
62. The kidneys can produce urine with a pH less than 5. ANS: T
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 451
OBJ: 3
TOP: Urinary mechanism
63. In most cases, a person with acidosis does not have a blood pH lower than 7.0. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: pH imbalances
REF: p. 451
64. If the blood pH of 7.1 caused a person’s death, the cause of the person’s death would be acidosis. ANS: T DIF: TOP: pH imbalances
Applying
REF: p. 451
OBJ: 4
65. Toxic chemicals, such as methanol, can cause respiratory acidosis. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 454 TOP: Metabolic and respiratory disturbances
66. Emphysema or pneumonia can lead to respiratory acidosis. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 454 TOP: Metabolic and respiratory disturbances
67. Proper control of the hydrogen ion concentration is important to the functioning of hemoglobin. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 445
68. The pH of a solution is based on the exponent of the hydrogen ion concentration. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: pH of body fluids
REF: p. 446
69. More acids than bases are usually added to body fluids. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Chemical pH control mechanisms
REF: p. 448
70. When sodium bicarbonate buffers a strong acid, the hydrogen ion from the acid replaces the carbon in the bicarbonate. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Applying REF: p. 448 | p. 449 | p. 450 TOP: Chemical pH control mechanisms
71. Gastric juice is the most acidic substance in the body. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Using the pH scale
REF: p. 446
72. A solution with a pH of 5.0 has 100 times more hydrogen ions than a solution with a pH of 3.0. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: The pH unit
REF: p. 446
73. Carbonic anhydrase is an enzyme found in red blood cells. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 447 TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
74. Compensation can quickly counteract an abnormal shift in blood pH. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Compensation for pH imbalances
REF: p. 455
75. If the respiratory system does not compensate for a drop in pH resulting from a metabolic condition, it results in a case of uncompensated metabolic alkalosis. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Compensation for pH imbalances
REF: p. 455
Chapter 21: Reproductive Systems Patton: Structure & Function of the Body, 17th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The essential organ(s) of the male reproductive system is (are) the: a. spermatozoa. b. testes. c. penis. d. scrotum. ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Male reproductive system
REF: p. 462
2. The location of the testes allows them to: a. be maintained at a temperature about 1° C (3° F) below normal body temperature. b. be insured of an adequate blood supply. c. be maintained at a temperature about 1° C (3° F) above normal body temperature. d. be assured of an adequate nerve supply. ANS: A OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Testes
3. The tough, whitish membrane surrounding the testes is called the: a. seminiferous tubules. b. interstitial cells. c. tunica albuginea.
REF: p. 463
d. scrotum. ANS: C OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Testes
REF: p. 463
4. Sperm cells develop in the: a. interstitial cells. b. tunic albuginea. c. prostate gland. d. seminiferous tubules. ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Spermatogenesis
REF: p. 463
5. The primary spermatocyte: a. produces spermatogonium. b. contains 46 chromosomes. c. contains 23 chromosomes. d. produces spermatogonium and contains 46 chromosomes. ANS: B DIF: TOP: Spermatogenesis
Applying
REF: p. 464
OBJ: 2
6. The spermatids: a. are direct daughter cells of the spermatogonium. b. are direct daughter cells of the secondary spermatocytes. c. contain 23 chromosomes. d. are direct daughter cells of the secondary spermatocytes and contain 23 chromosomes. ANS: D DIF: TOP: Spermatogenesis
Applying
REF: p. 465
OBJ: 2
7. The acrosome of the sperm cell: a. contains enzymes that help break down the covering of the ovum. b. contains mitochondria. c. produces ATP for sperm cell mobility. d. is a whiplike structure that provides movement for the sperm. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Sperm
REF: p. 466
8. The midpiece of the sperm: a. supplies enzymes to break down the covering of the ovum. b. contains mitochondria. c. holds 23 chromosomes. d. is a whiplike structure that provides movement for the sperm. ANS: B OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Sperm
9. Which of the following is not a function of testosterone?
REF: p. 466
a. b. c. d.
It is the masculinizing hormone. It causes spermatogonia to undergo a unique kind of cell division at puberty. It has a stimulating effect on protein synthesis. It promotes and maintains the development of the male accessory organs.
ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Production of testosterone
REF: p. 466 | p. 467
10. The tube that leaves the scrotal sac and enters the abdominal cavity is the: a. epididymis. b. ductus deferens. c. ejaculatory duct. d. urethra. ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 467 TOP: Male reproductive system | Reproductive ducts
11. The tightly coiled tube that lies along the top and sides of the testes is the: a. epididymis. b. ductus deferens. c. ejaculatory duct. d. urethra. ANS: A OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 467 TOP: Male reproductive system | Reproductive ducts
12. The tube that carries sperm out of the body and is also part of the urinary system is the: a. epididymis. b. ductus deferens. c. ejaculatory duct. d. urethra. ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 467 TOP: Male reproductive system | Reproductive ducts
13. Seminal fluid: a. contains about 100,000 sperm per milliliter. b. is produced primarily by the seminiferous tubule. c. is slightly alkaline. d. contains about 100,000 sperm per milliliter and is slightly alkaline. ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 467 TOP: Male reproductive system | Accessory glands
14. The structure that produces a thin, milk-colored fluid that composes about 30% of the seminal fluid volume is the: a. seminal vesicles. b. prostate gland. c. bulbourethral glands. d. seminiferous tubules. ANS: B
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 468
OBJ: 1
TOP: Male reproductive system | Accessory glands
15. The structure that produces a thick, yellowish fluid that contains fructose and composes about 60% of the seminal fluid volume is the: a. seminal vesicles. b. prostate gland. c. bulbourethral glands. d. seminiferous tubules. ANS: A OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 467 | p. 468 TOP: Male reproductive system | Accessory glands
16. The scrotum contains which of the following structures? a. Testes b. Prostate gland c. Epididymis d. Testes and epididymis ANS: D OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 469 TOP: Male reproductive system | External genitals
17. The essential organ of the female reproductive system is the: a. uterus. b. ova. c. ovary. d. vagina. ANS: C OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Female reproductive system
REF: p. 469
18. After ovulation, the hormone-secreting remnant of the follicle is called the: a. corpus luteum. b. antrum. c. graafian follicle. d. granulosa cells. ANS: A OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Ovaries
REF: p. 470
19. Oogenesis differs from spermatogenesis because in oogenesis: a. the end product is a cell that contains 46 chromosomes. b. the end product is a cell that contains 23 chromosomes. c. polar bodies are produced. d. gonadotropin releasing hormone is produced. ANS: C TOP: Oogenesis
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 470
OBJ: 2
20. Which of the following is not true of estrogen? a. It is produced by the granulosa cells around the oocytes. b. It stimulates the proliferation of the epithelial lining of the uterus.
c. It stimulates the development and maturation of the female reproductive organs. d. It is produced by the granulosa cells around the oocytes and stimulates both the proliferation of the epithelial lining of the uterus and the develop and maturation of the female reproductive organs. ANS: D OBJ: 3
DIF: Applying REF: p. 470 | p. 471 | p. 472 TOP: Production of estrogen and progesterone
21. Which of the following is not true of progesterone? a. It is produced by the corpus luteum. b. It stimulates the proliferation of the epithelial lining of the uterus. c. It is produced by the granulosa cells around the oocyte. d. It acts with estrogen to initiate the menstrual cycle in girls entering puberty. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 472 TOP: Production of estrogen and progesterone
22. The fringelike structures on the funnel-shaped end of the oviduct are called: a. fallopian tubes. b. fimbriae. c. uterine tubes. d. uterine follicles. ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 472 TOP: Female reproductive system | Reproductive ducts
23. At ovulation, the ovum: a. enters the oviduct directly. b. is assisted into the oviduct by the fimbriae. c. enters the abdominal cavity first. d. is assisted into the oviduct by the fimbriae and enters the abdominal cavity first. ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 472 TOP: Female reproductive system | Reproductive ducts
24. Fertilization normally occurs in the: a. ovary. b. oviduct. c. uterus. d. vagina. ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 472 TOP: Female reproductive system | Reproductive ducts
25. The narrow lower portion of the uterus is called the: a. cervix. b. myometrium. c. body. d. fundus. ANS: A OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 472 TOP: Female reproductive system | Uterus
26. The portion of the uterus that forms a bulging prominence above the entry point of the oviducts is called the: a. cervix. b. myometrium. c. body. d. fundus. ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 472 TOP: Female reproductive system | Uterus
27. The muscle layer of the uterus is called the: a. cervix. b. myometrium. c. endometrium. d. fundus. ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 472 TOP: Female reproductive system | Uterus
28. The structure that lies on either side of the vaginal outlet and secretes a lubricating fluid is the: a. labia majora. b. clitoris. c. greater vestibular glands. d. labia minora. ANS: C OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 473 TOP: Female reproductive system | Accessory glands
29. The lactiferous ducts: a. drain milk from the alveoli of the breasts. b. carry milk toward the nipple. c. drain only one lobe of each breast. d. drain milk from the alveoli of the breasts, carry milk toward the nipple, and drain only one lobe of each breast. ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 474 TOP: Female reproductive system | Accessory glands
30. The erectile tissue of the female external genitalia is the: a. vestibule. b. clitoris. c. labia majora. d. labia minora. ANS: B OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 475 TOP: Female reproductive system | External genitals
31. The part of the female reproductive cycle that involves passage of part of the inner lining of the uterus and blood is:
a. b. c. d.
menses. the secretory phase. the proliferative phase. ovulation.
ANS: A OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Menstrual cycle
REF: p. 475
32. The part of the female reproductive cycle that occurs when the egg is released from the ovary is: a. menses. b. the secretory phase. c. the proliferative phase. d. ovulation. ANS: D OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Menstrual cycle
REF: p. 476
33. The part of the female reproductive cycle that begins at the end of menses and ends at ovulation is: a. menarche. b. the secretory phase. c. the proliferative phase. d. menopause. ANS: C OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Menstrual cycle
REF: p. 476
34. The corpus luteum functions as an endocrine gland during part of the female reproductive cycle is called: a. menses. b. the secretory phase. c. the proliferative phase. d. menarche. ANS: B OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Menstrual cycle
REF: p. 476
35. The part of the female reproductive cycle that begins at ovulation and ends at the start of menses is: a. menarche. b. the secretory phase. c. the proliferative phase. d. menopause. ANS: B OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Menstrual cycle
REF: p. 476
36. The part of the female reproductive cycle during which estrogen secretion reaches its highest level is: a. menarche.
b. the secretory phase. c. the proliferative phase. d. menopause. ANS: C OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Menstrual cycle
REF: p. 476
37. The part of the female reproductive cycle during which progesterone secretion reaches its highest level is: a. menarche. b. menses. c. the proliferative phase. d. the secretory phase. ANS: D OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Menstrual cycle
REF: p. 476
38. The hormone that stimulates the development of the egg follicle in the ovary is: a. estrogen. b. LH. c. FSH. d. progesterone. ANS: C OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Menstrual cycle
REF: p. 476
39. The hormone that causes the formation of the corpus luteum and is also the ovulation hormone is: a. estrogen. b. LH. c. FSH. d. progesterone. ANS: B OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Menstrual cycle
REF: p. 477
40. The hormones LH and FSH are produced by the: a. ovary. b. corpus luteum. c. anterior pituitary gland. d. adrenal glands. ANS: C OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Menstrual cycle
REF: p. 476
41. When gametes unite, they form: a. an ova. b. a zygote. c. a spermatozoa. d. a blastocyst. ANS: B
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 462
OBJ: 1
TOP: Sexual reproduction
42. Which of the following does not describe accessory organs of the male reproductive system? a. Produce spermatozoa b. A series of ducts or passageways to carry sperm c. External genitals d. Glands that provide secretions to protect and nurture the sperm ANS: A OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Male reproductive system | Testes
REF: p. 463
43. Which of the following is not considered a reproductive duct of the male reproductive system? a. Epididymis b. Vas deferens c. Seminiferous tubule d. Urethra ANS: C OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 467 TOP: Male reproductive system | Reproductive ducts
44. Which of the following structures is not part of the spermatic cord? a. Epididymis b. Nerves c. Blood vessels d. Vas deferens ANS: A OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 467 TOP: Male reproductive system | Reproductive ducts
45. The number of sperm cells ejaculated at one time is about a. 100,000 to 200,000 b. 300 million to 500 million c. 1 million to 3 million d. 3 million to 5 million ANS: B DIF: Applying REF: p. 467 TOP: Male reproductive system | Accessory glands
OBJ: 2
46. The ejaculatory duct forms as a result of the joining of the: a. epididymis and the seminal vesicle duct. b. ductus deferens and the Cowper’s gland duct. c. ductus deferens and the seminal vesicle duct. d. epididymis and the Cowper’s gland duct. ANS: C OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Ejaculatory duct and urethra
REF: p. 467
47. If estrogen in the female is the counterpart of testosterone in the male, then which part of the ovary would be the counterpart of the interstitial cells of the testes?
a. b. c. d.
Granulosa cells Egg cell (ovum) Corpus luteum The antrum
ANS: A TOP: Ovaries
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 470
OBJ: 3
48. The mucous membrane lining of the uterus is the: a. myometrium. b. endometrium. c. fundus. d. cervix. ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Uterus
REF: p. 472
49. Which of the following can only be found in the female reproductive system? a. Zygote b. Gametes c. Gonads d. Zygotes and gametes ANS: A DIF: Applying TOP: Sexual reproduction
REF: p. 462
OBJ: 2
50. Which of the following is not part of the mature sperm cell? a. Acrosome b. Midpiece c. Tail d. Acrosome, midpiece, and tail ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Sperm
REF: p. 465
51. The number of spermatids that come from one primary spermatocyte is: a. 1. b. 2. c. 4. d. 8. ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Spermatogenesis
REF: p. 465
52. During the reproductive lifetime of most women, about how many of the primary follicles fully develop into mature follicles? a. 350 to 500 b. 550 to 700 c. 750 to 1000 d. Over 1000 ANS: A
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 470
OBJ: 1
TOP: Ovaries-Structure and location
53. The number of functional gametes produced by one mature egg follicle is: a. 1. b. 2. c. 4. d. 8. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Oogenesis
REF: p. 470
54. The sperm precursor or stem cell is called: a. primary spermatocyte. b. spermatogonia. c. secondary spermatocyte. d. spermatozoa. ANS: B OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Spermatogenesis
REF: p. 464
55. This structure in the testes secretes testosterone: a. tunica albuginea. b. seminiferous tubules. c. spermatogonia. d. interstitial cells. ANS: D OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Production of testosterone
REF: p. 466
56. This hormone stimulates spermatogonia to undergo a unique type of cell division: a. follicle-stimulating hormone. b. luteinizing hormone. c. testosterone. d. gonadotropin-releasing hormone. ANS: A OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Spermatogenesis
REF: p. 464
57. The correct sequence of structures that sperm pass through to exit the body is: a. ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, epididymis, urethra. b. ductus deferens, epididymis, ejaculatory duct, urethra. c. epididymis, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra. d. epididymis, ejaculatory duct, ductus deferens, urethra. ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 467 TOP: Male reproductive system | Reproductive ducts
58. Sperm mature and develop their ability to move and swim in this structure: a. epididymis. b. seminiferous tubules. c. ductus deferens.
d. ejaculatory duct. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 467 TOP: Male reproductive system | Reproductive ducts
59. This gland secretes a substance that lubricates the urethra and neutralizes any remaining acidic urine: a. seminal vesicles. b. bulbourethral glands. c. prostate gland. d. epididymis. ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Accessory glands
REF: p. 468
60. Which of the following is not true of the penis? a. It is part of the external genitalia. b. It deposits sperm in the vagina during intercourse. c. It has two columns of corpora spongiosum, which surrounds the urethra. d. It has an enlarged glans covered with highly sensitive skin. ANS: C OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: External genitals
REF: p. 468 | p. 469
61. As a girl goes from being a newborn to puberty: a. the number of ovarian follicles about doubles. b. less than half of the ovarian follicles become primary follicles. c. most of the primary follicles have become ovarian follicles. d. most of the primary follicles have become mature follicles. ANS: B OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Ovaries-Structure and location
REF: p. 470
62. The name for the tube that carries the ovum to the uterus after ovulation is: a. the uterine tubes. b. the fallopian tubes. c. the oviducts. d. the uterine tubes, fallopian tubes, or oviducts. ANS: D OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Uterine tubes
REF: p. 472
63. Which of the following is not part of the female external genitalia? a. Urethra b. Clitoris c. Labia minora d. Vestibule ANS: A OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: External genitals
REF: p. 475
64. This structure is the target organ for gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH):
a. b. c. d.
the hypothalamus. the uterus. the anterior pituitary gland. the ovaries.
ANS: C OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Menstrual cycle
REF: p. 476
MATCHING Match each term with its definition or description. a. Testes b. Seminiferous tubules c. Interstitial cells d. Epididymis e. Vas deferens f. Urethra g. Seminal vesicles h. Prostate gland i. Corpora cavernosa j. Corpus spongiosum 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
A tightly coiled tube that lies on the top of and behind the testes Produces 60% of the seminal fluid and supplies the sperm with fructose Essential organ of the male reproductive system Carries sperm and allows them to pass out of the scrotum and into the abdominal cavity The penis contains one of these types of erectile tissue Structures responsible for the secretion of testosterone Produces a thin, milk-colored fluid that composes 30% of the seminal fluid Tube in which sperm cells develop The penis contains two of this type of erectile tissue Tube that leads sperm to the outside; also part of the urinary system
1. ANS: OBJ: 2. ANS: OBJ: 3. ANS: OBJ: 4. ANS: OBJ: 5. ANS: OBJ: 6. ANS: OBJ: 7. ANS: OBJ: 8. ANS:
D 1 G 1 A 1 E 1 J 4 C 3 H 1 B
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF:
Remembering Male reproductive system Remembering Male reproductive system Remembering Male reproductive system Remembering Male reproductive system Remembering Male reproductive system Remembering Testes Remembering Male reproductive system Remembering
REF: p. 467 REF: p. 468 REF: p. 463 REF: p. 467 REF: p. 469 REF: p. 463 REF: p. 468 REF: p. 469
OBJ: 9. ANS: OBJ: 10. ANS: OBJ:
1 I 4 F 4
TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Male reproductive system Remembering Male reproductive system Remembering Male reproductive system
REF: p. 469 REF: p. 467
Match each term with its definition or description. a. Ovary b. Oviduct c. Fimbriae d. Cervix e. Fundus f. Myometrium g. Vagina h. Greater vestibular glands i. Lactiferous ducts j. Clitoris k. Spermatogenesis l. Primary spermatocyte m. Sperm n. Gonads o. Oogenesis p. Ova q. Polar bodies r. Endometrium s. Zygote t. Spermatogonia 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
Fringelike projection on the funnel-shaped end of the oviduct The lower, narrow part of the uterus Produces a mucuslike lubricating fluid near the outlet of the vagina Essential organ of the female reproductive system Opening of the female reproductive system to the outside; it receives sperm Drains milk from the alveoli of the breasts Tube that carries the egg from the ovary to the uterus Part of the uterus that lies above the entry point of the oviducts Structure containing erectile tissue in the female external genitalia Muscle layer of the uterus Male gamete Female gamete Formed as a result of fertilization Name given to the essential organs of the male and female reproductive system Process of sperm production Precursor or stem cell for the production of sperm Cell that undergoes meiosis to form spermatids Process of egg production Produced during oogenesis but do not develop and eventually degenerate Lines the interior of the uterus
11. ANS: OBJ: 12. ANS: OBJ: 13. ANS: OBJ: 14. ANS: OBJ: 15. ANS: OBJ: 16. ANS: OBJ: 17. ANS: OBJ: 18. ANS: OBJ: 19. ANS: OBJ: 20. ANS: OBJ: 21. ANS: OBJ: 22. ANS: OBJ: 23. ANS: OBJ: 24. ANS: OBJ: 25. ANS: OBJ: 26. ANS: OBJ: 27. ANS: OBJ: 28. ANS: OBJ: 29. ANS: OBJ: 30. ANS: OBJ:
C 1 D 1 H 1 A 1 G 1 I 1 B 1 E 1 J 4 F 1 M 2 P 1 S 1 N 1 K 2 T 2 L 2 O 2 Q 2 R 1
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering Female reproductive system Remembering Female reproductive system Remembering Female reproductive system Remembering Female reproductive system Remembering Female reproductive system Remembering Female reproductive system Remembering Female reproductive system Remembering Female reproductive system Remembering Female reproductive system Remembering Female reproductive system Remembering Sexual reproduction Remembering Sexual reproduction Remembering Sexual reproduction Remembering Male reproductive system Remembering Spermatogenesis Remembering Spermatogenesis Remembering Spermatogenesis Remembering Oogenesis Remembering Oogenesis Remembering Uterus
Match each term with its definition or description. a. Menses b. Secretory phase c. Ovulation d. Proliferative phase
REF: p. 472 REF: p. 472 REF: p. 473 REF: p. 470 REF: p. 473 REF: p. 474 REF: p. 472 REF: p. 472 REF: p. 475 REF: p. 472 REF: p. 462 REF: p. 462 REF: p. 462 REF: p. 462 REF: p. 463 REF: p. 464 REF: p. 464 REF: p. 473 REF: p. 470 REF: p. 473
e. f. g. h. i. j.
Estrogen Progesterone Testosterone FSH LH Menarche
31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39.
Male sex hormone Part of the female reproductive cycle from the end of menses to ovulation Term for the first menses Pituitary hormone that stimulates the development of an egg follicle Release of the egg by the egg follicle Hormone released by the corpus luteum Ovulating hormone Term for menstrual flow Hormone that is released by the ovary and reaches its highest concentration during the proliferative phase of the female reproductive cycle 40. Part of the female reproductive cycle that begins at ovulation and ends at the beginning of menses 31. ANS: OBJ: 32. ANS: OBJ: 33. ANS: OBJ: 34. ANS: OBJ: 35. ANS: OBJ: 36. ANS: OBJ: 37. ANS: OBJ: 38. ANS: OBJ: 39. ANS: OBJ: 40. ANS: OBJ:
G 3 D 5 J 5 H 3 C 2 F 3 I 3 A 5 E 3 B 5
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering Male reproductive system Remembering Menstrual cycle Remembering Menstrual cycle Remembering Menstrual cycle Remembering Menstrual cycle Remembering Menstrual cycle Remembering Menstrual cycle Remembering Menstrual cycle Remembering Menstrual cycle Remembering Menstrual cycle
REF: p. 463 REF: p. 476 REF: p. 475 REF: p. 476 REF: p. 476 REF: p. 472 REF: p. 472 REF: p. 475 REF: p. 470 REF: p. 476
TRUE/FALSE 1. The specialized cells used in sexual reproduction are called gametes. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Sexual reproduction
REF: p. 462
2. The essential organ of the male reproductive system is the penis. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Male reproductive system
REF: p. 462
3. The testes require a slightly higher temperature than normal body temperature to function properly. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Testes
REF: p. 463
4. The testes require a slightly lower temperature than normal body temperature to function properly. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Testes
REF: p. 463
5. The tough, whitish membrane surrounding the testes is called the tunica adventitia. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Testes
REF: p. 463
6. Testosterone is produced by the seminiferous tubules. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Production of testosterone
REF: p. 466
7. Sperm develop in the walls of the seminiferous tubules. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Spermatogenesis
REF: p. 464
8. The primary spermatocyte contains only 23 chromosomes. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Spermatogenesis
REF: p. 464
9. The spermatozoa contain only 23 chromosomes. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Spermatogenesis
10. Both the male and female gametes contain only 23 chromosomes. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Applying REF: p. 465 | p. 470 TOP: Spermatogenesis | Oogenesis
REF: p. 465
11. The acrosome is a special structure in the sperm cell that contains mitochondria for energy production. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Sperm
REF: p. 466
12. One of the functions of testosterone is the stimulation of protein anabolism. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Production of testosterone
REF: p. 466 | p. 467
13. The midpiece is a part of the sperm cell that supplies ATP so the sperm has the energy to swim. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Sperm
REF: p. 466
14. The epididymis is a tube that permits sperm to pass from the scrotal sac into the abdominal cavity. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 467 TOP: Male reproductive system | Reproductive ducts
15. The vas deferens is a tightly coiled tube that lies along the top and behind the testes in the scrotum. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 467 TOP: Male reproductive system | Reproductive ducts
16. Sperm mature and develop their ability to swim as they pass through the epididymis. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 467 TOP: Male reproductive system | Reproductive ducts
17. The urethra carries sperm to the outside and is also part of the urinary system. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Male reproductive system
REF: p. 467
18. The bulbourethral gland produces a thick, yellowish fluid that makes up about 60% of the seminal fluid. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 468 TOP: Male reproductive system | Accessory glands
19. The prostate gland produces a thin, milk-colored fluid that makes up about 30% of the seminal fluid. ANS: T
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 468
OBJ: 1
TOP: Male reproductive system | Accessory glands
20. The seminal vesicles supply fructose for the seminal fluid to provide a source of energy for the sperm cells. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 467 | p. 468 TOP: Male reproductive system | Accessory glands
21. Seminal fluid is slightly acidic to protect the sperm from the alkaline condition of the female reproductive tract. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 468 TOP: Male reproductive system | Accessory glands
22. The penis contains two separate columns of erectile tissue: one corpus spongiosum and one corpus cavernosa. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 469 TOP: Male reproductive system | External genitals
23. The scrotum contains the testes, epididymis, the lower part of the ductus deferens, and the beginning of the spermatic cords. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 469 TOP: Male reproductive system | External genitals
24. The female gonads are the ovaries. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Female reproductive system
REF: p. 470
25. In the female, the gonads produce ova. ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: Female reproductive system
REF: p. 470
OBJ: 2
26. A newborn girl has more ovarian follicles than a girl at puberty. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Ovaries
REF: p. 470
27. Almost all the primary follicles a girl has at puberty will develop into mature follicles. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Ovaries
REF: p. 470
28. Each follicle has a layer of cells around it called the antrum. ANS: F
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 470
OBJ: 1
TOP: Ovaries
29. The part of the follicle that remains in the ovary after ovulation is called the corpus luteum. ANS: T TOP: Ovaries
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 470
OBJ: 1
30. The ova that results from oogenesis contains 23 chromosomes. ANS: T TOP: Oogenesis
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 470
OBJ: 2
31. The cytoplasm of the ovum is divided equally with the polar bodies. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Oogenesis
REF: p. 470
32. One of the functions of the polar bodies is to assist the ovum in its development in the follicle. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Oogenesis
REF: p. 470
33. The ovum is larger than the sperm because the ovum must supply all the nutrients for the developing embryo until it gets to the uterus. ANS: T TOP: Oogenesis
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 470
OBJ: 2
34. Estrogen is secreted by the granulosa cell that surrounds the oocyte. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 470 TOP: Production of estrogen and progesterone
35. One of the functions of estrogen is the initiation of the first menstrual cycle. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 470 TOP: Production of estrogen and progesterone
36. The oviducts are connected to the ovaries at one end and the uterus at the other end. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 472 TOP: Female reproductive system | Reproductive ducts
37. Fimbriae help move the egg cell into the oviduct. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 472 TOP: Female reproductive system | Reproductive ducts
38. Because the lining of the oviducts is continuous with the uterus and vagina, it allows infections to spread from the reproductive tract to the abdominal cavity. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 472 TOP: Female reproductive system | Reproductive ducts
39. The narrow, lower part of the uterus is called the body. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 472 TOP: Female reproductive system | Uterus
40. The rounded part of the uterus above the entry point of the oviducts is called the cervix. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 472 TOP: Female reproductive system | Uterus
41. The uterus functions in three processes: menstruation, pregnancy, and labor. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 473 TOP: Female reproductive system | Uterus
42. The vagina both receives sperm cells and is the last structure the baby passes through at birth. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 473 TOP: Female reproductive system | Vagina
43. The amount of milk produced by the breast is directly related to the size of the breast. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 473 TOP: Female reproductive system | Breasts
44. The lactiferous ducts drain the alveoli of the breasts and move the milk toward the nipple. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 474 TOP: Female reproductive system | Breasts
45. The greater vestibular glands lie on either side of the vaginal outlet and secrete a lubricating fluid. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 473 TOP: Female reproductive system | Accessory glands
46. The erectile tissue in the female external genitalia is the mons pubis. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: External genitals
47. The first menses is referred to as menarche.
REF: p. 475
ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Menstrual cycle
REF: p. 475
48. The secretory phase is the part of the female reproductive cycle from ovulation to the beginning of menses. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Menstrual cycle
REF: p. 476
49. The blood level of estrogen is at its highest during the secretory phase of the female reproductive cycle. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Menstrual cycle
REF: p. 476
50. The proliferative phase is the part of the female reproductive cycle from the end of menses to ovulation. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Menstrual cycle
REF: p. 476
51. The corpus luteum functions as an endocrine gland during the proliferative phase of the female reproductive cycle. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Menstrual cycle
Applying
REF: p. 476
OBJ: 2
52. The release of an egg by an egg follicle is called ovulation. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Menstrual cycle
REF: p. 476
53. Ovulation always occurs 14 days after the end of menses. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Menstrual cycle
REF: p. 476
54. The length of the reproductive cycle varies because the time between the end of menses and ovulation varies. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Menstrual cycle
Applying
REF: p. 476
OBJ: 5
55. Progesterone stimulates proliferation and vascularization of the epithelial lining of the uterus. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Menstrual cycle
REF: p. 472
56. LH stimulates the development of several immature ovarian follicles and is responsible for the release of estrogen. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Menstrual cycle
REF: p. 477
57. Although LH is called the ovulation hormone, without FSH there would be nothing to ovulate. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Menstrual cycle
Creating
REF: p. 477
OBJ: 5
58. Creatures that do not produce gametes are said to reproduce asexually. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Sexual reproduction
REF: p. 462
59. Both the ovum and sperm are considered gametes. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Sexual reproduction
REF: p. 462
60. One of the differences between sexual and asexual reproduction is the number of parents that an offspring has. ANS: T DIF: Applying TOP: Sexual reproduction
REF: p. 462
OBJ: 1
61. One function of the sex hormones is to stimulate the development of the secondary sex characteristics. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 478 TOP: Analogous features of the reproductive system (Table 21-3)
62. When the tunica adventitia enters the testicle, it is called the seminiferous tubule. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Testes
REF: p. 463
63. The bulk of the testes are made up of interstitial cells that produce testosterone. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Testes
REF: p. 463
64. Sperm precursors or stem cells are called spermatogonia. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Spermatogenesis
REF: p. 464
65. Under the influence of FSH, the spermatogonium divides to form two primary spermatocytes. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Spermatogenesis
REF: p. 464
66. The end result of spermatogenesis is the formation of four cells, each containing 23 chromosomes. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Spermatogenesis
Applying
REF: p. 465
OBJ: 2
67. As spermatogenesis takes place, each cell division moves the sperm closer to the exterior wall of the seminiferous tubule. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Spermatogenesis
REF: p. 465
68. The epididymis is a tightly coiled tube attached to the testes and is about 6 feet long. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 467 TOP: Male reproductive system | Reproductive ducts
69. The epididymis makes up part of the spermatic cord. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 467 TOP: Male reproductive system | Reproductive ducts
70. Only a small group of the primary follicles in the ovary develop into a mature follicle. ANS: T TOP: Ovaries
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 470
OBJ: 1
71. A graafian follicle is another name for a mature ovum and its surrounding sac. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Ovaries
REF: p. 470
72. Oogenesis has a similar function to spermatogenesis, the formation of a gamete. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Oogenesis
REF: p. 470
73. The day that the egg leaves the ovary (ovulation) is considered the first day of the menstrual cycle. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Menstrual cycle
REF: p. 476
74. When a sperm fertilizes an egg, a zygote is formed. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Sexual reproduction
REF: p. 462
75. The structure connecting the testes to the prostate gland is called the seminiferous tubule. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Testes
REF: p. 463
76. A circumcision is the surgical removal of the glands. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 469 TOP: Male reproductive system | External genitals
77. The terms uterine tubes, fallopian tubes, and oviducts refer to the same structure. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Female reproductive ducts
REF: p. 472
78. Both LH and FSH are secreted by the anterior pituitary gland. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Control of the menstrual cycle
REF: p. 476
79. The spermatozoa is one of the smallest and most highly specialized cells in the body. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Spermatogenesis
REF: p. 463 | p. 464
80. From their exit from the testis to being passed out of the body, the sperm go through these structures in this order: ductus deferens, epididymis, ejaculatory duct, and urethra. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Male | Reproductive ducts
REF: p. 467
81. Because the urethra is part of both the reproductive and the urinary system, the male reproductive system is sometimes called the urogenital system. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Male reproductive system
REF: p. 467
82. The ejaculatory duct is formed by the joining of the duct from the seminal vesicle and the ductus deferens. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Male | Reproductive ducts
REF: p. 467
83. The male prostate gland is also called Skene gland. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Male | Accessory glands
REF: p. 468
84. The bulbourethral gland secretions have two functions: to neutralize any residual acidic urine in the urethra and to lubricate the urethra. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Male | Accessory glands
REF: p. 468
85. The penis and scrotum constitute the external genitalia of the male. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 468 TOP: Male reproductive system | External genitals
86. The corpus luteum produces estrogen for about 11 days following ovulation. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 472 TOP: Production of estrogen and progesterone
87. Fertilization usually occurs in the uterus. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Female | Reproductive ducts
REF: p. 472
88. The muscle layer of the uterus is called the myometrium. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Female | Uterus
REF: p. 472
89. Milk-secreting cells in the breast are arranged in grapelike clusters called areola. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Female | Accessory glands
REF: p. 474
90. Another term for the female external genitals is the mons pubis. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Female | External genitals
REF: p. 475
91. The area between the anus and the vaginal opening is called the perineum. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Female | External genitals
REF: p. 475
92. A woman is fertile only about 14 days out of the 28-day menstrual cycle. ANS: F
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 476
OBJ: 5
TOP: Menstrual cycle
Chapter 22: Growth, Development, and Aging Patton: Structure & Function of the Body, 17th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Fertilization usually occurs in the: a. ovary. b. uterus. c. oviduct. d. vagina. ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Prenatal period
REF: p. 488
2. The fertilized egg is called: a. a zygote. b. an ovum. c. a morula. d. a blastocyst. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Fertilization to implantation
REF: p. 488
3. After about 3 days, the fertilized egg becomes a mass of cells called a: a. zygote. b. morula. c. blastocyst. d. fetus. ANS: B OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Fertilization to implantation
REF: p. 488
4. By the time the fertilized egg reaches the uterus, it is a hollow ball of cells called a: a. zygote. b. morula. c. blastocyst. d. fetus. ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Fertilization to implantation
REF: p. 488
5. The structure that anchors the developing fetus and acts as a bridge between mother and baby is the: a. yolk sac. b. amnion. c. uterus. d. placenta. ANS: D
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 489
OBJ: 2
TOP: Amniotic cavity and placenta
6. The placenta functions as a: a. respiratory organ. b. excretory organ. c. endocrine organ. d. respiratory, excretory, and endocrine organ. ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Amniotic cavity and placenta
REF: p. 490
7. The kidney ducts, bladder, thyroid gland, and tonsils all develop from the primary germ layer called the: a. ectoderm. b. mesoderm. c. endoderm. d. epiderm. ANS: C OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 491 | p. 492 TOP: Formation of the primary germ layers
8. The circulatory system, gonads, and muscles develop from the primary germ layer called the: a. ectoderm. b. mesoderm. c. endoderm. d. epiderm. ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 491 | p. 492 TOP: Formation of the primary germ layers
9. The brain, spinal cord, and lens and cornea of the eye develop from the primary germ layer called the: a. ectoderm. b. mesoderm. c. endoderm. d. epiderm. ANS: A OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 491 | p. 492 TOP: Formation of the primary germ layers
10. The development of tissues is called: a. organogenesis. b. histogenesis. c. oogenesis. d. speciation. ANS: B OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Histogenesis and organogenesis
11. Stage 3 of labor ends with the:
REF: p. 492
a. b. c. d.
delivery of the baby. dilation of the cervix. rupture of the amniotic sac. expulsion of the placenta from the uterus.
ANS: D OBJ: 4
DIF: Memorization TOP: Stages of labor
REF: p. 495
12. Infancy: a. begins at birth. b. ends at about 18 months. c. includes the neonatal period. d. begins at birth, ends at about 18 months, and includes the neonatal period. ANS: D OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Infancy
REF: p. 497
13. The baby’s first breath is stimulated primarily by: a. the lack of oxygen in the blood. b. the accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood. c. exposure to the “cold” temperatures outside the uterus. d. the rigors of the birth process. ANS: B TOP: Infancy
DIF:
Applying
REF: p. 497
OBJ: 5
14. The full closure of bone growth plates occurs during: a. late childhood. b. early adolescence. c. late adolescence. d. early adulthood. ANS: D OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Postnatal period
REF: p. 498
15. Lipping: a. is a skin condition caused by aging. b. is a degenerative joint disease. c. is when bones develop indistinct and shaggy-appearing margins. d. is an endocrine disease caused by aging. ANS: C OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Effects of aging
REF: p. 499
16. As the urinary system ages: a. the number of nephrons decreases. b. the blood flow to the kidney is reduced. c. the muscles of the bladder begin to atrophy. d. the number of nephrons decreases, the blood flow to the kidney is reduced, and the muscles of the bladder begin to atrophy. ANS: D
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 500
OBJ: 6
TOP: Effects of aging
17. As the respiratory system ages: a. the costal cartilages harden. b. a condition called “barrel chest” develops. c. the strength of inspiratory and expiratory muscles decreases. d. the costal cartilage harden, a condition called “barrel chest” develops, and the strength of inspiratory and expiratory muscles decreases. ANS: D OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Effects of aging
REF: p. 500
18. Calcification or “hardening” of the arteries is called: a. atherosclerosis. b. arteriosclerosis. c. myocardial infarction. d. hypertension. ANS: B OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Effects of aging
REF: p. 500
19. An increase in the pressure inside the eyeball is called: a. a cataract. b. presbyopia. c. glaucoma. d. hypertension. ANS: C OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Effects of aging
REF: p. 499
20. The condition in which the lens of the eye becomes cloudy is called: a. a cataract. b. presbyopia. c. glaucoma. d. pink eye. ANS: A OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Effects of aging
REF: p. 499
21. The primary job of the amniotic cavity during pregnancy is: a. protection. b. anchoring the fetus to the uterus. c. providing a bridge for the exchange of materials between mother and fetus. d. production of blood cells for the developing fetus. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Amniotic cavity and placenta
22. The term embryo is used: a. after the first 8 weeks of pregnancy. b. after the blastocyst has implanted in the uterine wall.
REF: p. 489
c. during the entire pregnancy. d. from fertilization to the end of the eighth week of pregnancy. ANS: D OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Periods of development
REF: p. 491
23. The term fetus is used: a. after the first 8 weeks of pregnancy. b. after the blastocyst has implanted in the uterine wall. c. during the entire pregnancy. d. from fertilization to the end of the eighth week of pregnancy. ANS: A OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Periods of development
REF: p. 491
24. If a birth defect were said to be caused by a teratogen, it was caused by: a. an abnormal gene. b. an environmental factor. c. an unusual number of chromosomes. d. an abnormal gene and an unusual number of chromosomes. ANS: B OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Birth defects
REF: p. 493
25. Which of the following developmental periods is the shortest? a. Embryo stage b. Fetus stage c. Neonatal stage d. Infancy stage ANS: C DIF: Applying REF: p. 497 TOP: Periods of development | Postnatal period
OBJ: 5
26. Which of the following developmental periods is the longest? a. Embryo stage b. Fetus stage c. Neonatal stage d. Infancy stage ANS: D DIF: Applying REF: p. 497 TOP: Periods of development | Postnatal period
OBJ: 5
27. The function of the yolk sac in humans is the following. a. It supplies food to the morula and blastocyst until it reaches the uterus. b. It helps in the production of blood cells. c. It assists in attracting sperm cells to the ovum. d. It has no function in humans but is an evolutionary remnant. ANS: C OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Amniotic cavity and placenta
28. The longest stage of labor is usually:
REF: p. 489
a. b. c. d.
stage 1. stage 2. stage 3. stage 4.
ANS: A OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Stages of labor
REF: p. 495
29. Which of the following is not true as we move from infancy to adulthood? a. The legs become proportionately longer. b. The trunk becomes proportionately shorter. c. The head becomes proportionately larger. d. Maturation of bone occurs resulting in full closure of the growth plates. ANS: C OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Postnatal period
REF: p. 497 | p. 498
30. The prenatal period begins at: a. birth and continues until death. b. conception and continues until death. c. conception and ends at birth. d. birth and ends during the older adulthood stage. ANS: C OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 487
MATCHING Match each term with its definition or description. a. Zygote b. Morula c. Blastocyst d. Placenta e. Fetus f. Embryo g. Ectoderm h. Mesoderm i. Endoderm j. Histogenesis k. Amniotic cavity l. Implantation m. Organogenesis n. Fertilization o. Yolk sac 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Connecting “bridge” between mother and baby. Term used to describe the developing baby during the first 8 weeks. Term used for the fertilized egg. Term used to describe the development of tissues. Term used to describe the developing baby from 9 to 39 week.
6. Term for the solid mass of cells formed by the fertilized egg about three days after fertilization. 7. Primary germ layer that forms the lining of the gastrointestinal tract. 8. Term for the hollow ball of cells the fertilized egg has formed by the time it reaches the uterus. 9. Primary germ layer that forms the brain and spinal cord. 10. Primary germ layer that forms muscles. 11. Moment when the ova and sperm unite. 12. Embedding of the blastocyst into the uterine wall. 13. Source of nutrients in birds, but produces blood cells in humans. 14. Fluid-filled shock-absorbing sac sometimes called the bag of waters. 15. Process by which tissues arrange themselves into organs. 1. ANS: OBJ: 2. ANS: OBJ: 3. ANS: OBJ: 4. ANS: OBJ: 5. ANS: OBJ: 6. ANS: OBJ: 7. ANS: OBJ: 8. ANS: OBJ: 9. ANS: OBJ: 10. ANS: OBJ: 11. ANS: OBJ: 12. ANS: OBJ: 13. ANS: OBJ: 14. ANS: OBJ: 15. ANS: OBJ:
D 2 F 2 A 2 J 3 E 2 B 2 I 3 C 2 G 3 H 3 N 2 L 2 O 2 K 2 M 3
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering REF: Amniotic cavity and placenta Remembering REF: Fertilization to implantation Remembering REF: Fertilization to implantation Remembering REF: Histogenesis and organogenesis Remembering REF: Periods of development Remembering REF: Fertilization to implantation Remembering REF: Formation of the primary germ layers Remembering REF: Fertilization to implantation Remembering REF: Formation of the primary germ layers Remembering REF: Formation of the primary germ layers Remembering REF: Prenatal period Remembering REF: Fertilization to implantation Remembering REF: Amniotic cavity and placenta Remembering REF: Amniotic cavity and placenta Remembering REF: Histogenesis and organogenesis
Match each term with its definition or description. a. Parturition b. Neonatal period
p. 490 p. 491 p. 488 p. 492 p. 491 p. 488 p. 492 p. 488 p. 492 p. 492 p. 488 p. 488 p. 489 p. 489 p. 492
c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25.
Senescence Osteoarthritis Atherosclerosis Arteriosclerosis Hypertension Presbyopia Cataract Glaucoma
Degenerative joint disease Term that refers to high blood pressure Another term for birth Term that refers to “hardening” of the arteries An increase of pressure inside the eyeball Term used to describe the first 4 weeks of infancy A clouding of the lens of the eye Another term for older adulthood Term that means “old eye” Development of fatty deposits in a blood vessel
16. ANS: OBJ: 17. ANS: OBJ: 18. ANS: OBJ: 19. ANS: OBJ: 20. ANS: OBJ: 21. ANS: OBJ: 22. ANS: OBJ: 23. ANS: OBJ: 24. ANS: OBJ: 25. ANS: OBJ:
D 6 G 6 A 4 F 6 J 6 B 5 I 6 C 5 H 6 E 6
DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP: DIF: TOP:
Remembering Effects of aging Remembering Effects of aging Remembering Birth Remembering Effects of aging Remembering Effects of aging Remembering Infancy Remembering Effects of aging Remembering Older adulthood Remembering Effects of aging Remembering Effects of aging
REF: p. 499 REF: p. 500 REF: p. 493 REF: p. 500 REF: p. 500 REF: p. 497 REF: p. 499 REF: p. 498 REF: p. 499 REF: p. 500
TRUE/FALSE 1. The science of the development of an individual before birth is called neonatology. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Infancy
REF: p. 497
2. Fertilization most often occurs in the outer one third of the oviduct. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Fertilization to implantation
REF: p. 488
3. The fertilized egg is called a morula. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Fertilization to implantation
REF: p. 488
4. The new individual becomes genetically complete during the blastocyst stage. ANS: F DIF: Applying TOP: Fertilization to implantation
REF: p. 488
OBJ: 2
5. The blastocyst, which is a hollow ball of cells, is formed by the time the fertilized egg reaches the uterus. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Fertilization to implantation
REF: p. 488
6. The correct sequence of development is zygote, blastocyst, and morula. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Fertilization to implantation
REF: p. 488
7. The energy needed for the early development of the zygote is supplied by the ovum that was fertilized. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Prenatal period
Applying
REF: p. 488
OBJ: 2
8. The yolk sac is an important food supply for the growing fetus. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Amniotic cavity and placenta
REF: p. 489
9. In humans, one function of the yolk sac is to assist in the production of blood cells. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Amniotic cavity and placenta
REF: p. 489
10. The amnion is the bridge between the mother and baby wherein food and oxygen are exchanged for carbon dioxide and waste products. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Amniotic cavity and placenta
REF: p. 489
11. The placenta serves as a structural anchor for the baby, and it also serves as an endocrine organ. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Amniotic cavity and placenta
REF: p. 490
12. Substances such as alcohol and the Zika virus can pass through the placental barrier and cause injury or developmental defects in the fetus. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Amniotic cavity and placenta
REF: p. 490
13. For the first 8 weeks, the developing fertilized egg is called a zygote. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Periods of development
REF: p. 490
14. For the first 8 weeks, the developing fertilized egg is called a fetus. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Periods of development
REF: p. 491
15. From 9 to 39 week, the developing baby is called a fetus. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Periods of development
REF: p. 491
16. By about day 35 of gestation, the heart is beating. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Periods of development
REF: p. 491
17. By the eighth week of gestation, all organ systems are complete and in place. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Periods of development
REF: p. 491
18. The lining of the lungs and the lining of the gastrointestinal tract develop from the mesoderm. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 492 TOP: Formation of the primary germ layers
19. The brain and spinal cord develop from the ectoderm. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 492 TOP: Formation of the primary germ layers
20. The dermis of the skin and the circulatory system develop from the mesoderm.
ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 492 TOP: Formation of the primary germ layers
21. The thymus gland and the thyroid gland develop from the same primary germ layer. ANS: T DIF: Applying REF: p. 492 TOP: Formation of the primary germ layers
OBJ: 3
22. Tooth enamel and the dermis of the skin develop from the same primary germ layer. ANS: F DIF: Applying REF: p. 492 TOP: Formation of the primary germ layers
OBJ: 3
23. The circulatory system and the muscles develop from the same primary germ layer. ANS: T DIF: Applying REF: p. 492 TOP: Formation of the primary germ layers
OBJ: 3
24. Histogenesis is the development of different types of tissues. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Histogenesis and organogenesis
REF: p. 492
25. Organogenesis must precede histogenesis. ANS: F DIF: Applying TOP: Histogenesis and organogenesis
REF: p. 492
OBJ: 3
26. The normal gestation period for a human baby is about 280 days. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Histogenesis and organogenesis
REF: p. 492
27. Parturition is another term for fertilization. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Birth
REF: p. 493
28. Stage 1 of labor is the period from onset of uterine contractions until dilation of the cervix is complete. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Stages of labor
REF: p. 494
29. The final stage of labor ends when the baby exits through the vagina. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Stages of labor
REF: p. 495
30. The rupture of the amniotic membrane and the loss of amniotic fluid occur during the second stage of labor. ANS: F OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Stages of labor
REF: p. 495
31. The process of the expulsion of the placenta through the vagina ends labor. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Stages of labor
REF: p. 495
32. Stage 1 of labor can last several times longer than either stage 2 or stage 3. ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Stages of labor
REF: p. 495
33. The proportion of the head to the rest of the body is greater in an infant than in an adult. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Postnatal period
REF: p. 496
34. The proportion of the face to the skull is greater in an infant than in an adult. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Postnatal period
REF: p. 497
35. The neonatal period is considered to be the first 12 weeks of life. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Infancy
REF: p. 497
36. The baby’s first breath is stimulated primarily by the lack of oxygen in the blood. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Infancy
REF: p. 497
37. The baby’s first breath is stimulated primarily by an increase of carbon dioxide in the blood. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Infancy
REF: p. 497
38. When a baby is born, it has only one spinal curve, adults have two. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Infancy
39. Childhood extends from infancy to sexual maturity.
REF: p. 497
ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Childhood
REF: p. 498
40. Both the deciduous teeth and the permanent teeth develop during childhood, deciduous at the beginning of childhood and the permanent teeth at the end. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Childhood
REF: p. 498
41. Many of the changes that occur during adolescence are controlled by the secretion of sex hormones. ANS: T OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Adolescence
REF: p. 498
42. Osteoporosis is a degenerative joint disease of old age. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Effects of aging
REF: p. 499
43. About 25% of the nephrons of the kidney stop functioning between the ages of 30 and 75. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Effects of aging
REF: p. 500
44. Hypertension is another term for high blood pressure. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Effects of aging
REF: p. 500
45. Atherosclerosis is sometimes called hardening of the arteries. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Effects of aging
REF: p. 500
46. Arteriosclerosis is sometimes called hardening of the arteries. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Effects of aging
REF: p. 500
47. Fatty deposits that build up in the blood vessels can develop into a condition called atherosclerosis. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Effects of aging
REF: p. 500
48. A cataract is caused by pressure building up inside the eyeball. ANS: F
DIF:
Remembering
REF: p. 499
OBJ: 6
TOP: Effects of aging
49. The clouding of the lens of the eye is called a cataract. ANS: T OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Effects of aging
REF: p. 499
50. Glasses can successfully treat glaucoma. ANS: F DIF: TOP: Effects of aging
Applying
REF: p. 500
OBJ: 6
REF: p. 499
OBJ: 6
51. Glasses can successfully treat presbyopia. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Effects of aging
Applying
52. The actual day of birth marks the end of the prenatal period. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 487
53. The prenatal period of life usually starts in the oviduct. ANS: T DIF: TOP: Prenatal period
Applying
REF: p. 488
OBJ: 2
54. The blastocyst has about three times the mass of the zygote. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Fertilization to implantation
REF: p. 488
55. Although the function of the placenta is to act as a barrier between the mother and fetus, substances such as alcohol can cross the barrier. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Amniotic cavity and placenta
REF: p. 490
56. The morula stage precedes the embryonic stage. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Fertilization to implantation
REF: p. 488
57. By the end of the first trimester, the gender of the baby can be identified. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Periods of development
REF: p. 491
58. The primary germ layers develop during the second trimester of pregnancy.
ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 491 TOP: Formation of the primary germ layers
59. Exposure to a teratogen is most dangerous to the embryo during the morula stage. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Birth defects
REF: p. 493
60. Teratogens can include x rays and alcohol. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering TOP: Birth defects
REF: p. 493
61. One of the first signs of labor is the rupture of the “bag of waters.” ANS: T OBJ: 4
DIF: Remembering TOP: Birth
REF: p. 493
62. The birth weight of a baby usually triples by age 4 months. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Infancy
REF: p. 497
63. Boys start and finish their early-teen growth spurt earlier than girls. ANS: F OBJ: 5
DIF: Remembering TOP: Adolescence
REF: p. 498
64. In older adulthood, the costal cartilage begins to soften, leading to a condition called “barrel chest.” ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Effects of aging
REF: p. 500
65. The prenatal period is the time before birth. ANS: T OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 488
66. After ovulation, the egg discharged by the ovary first enters the fimbriae of the oviduct. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Fertilization to implantation
REF: p. 487
67. The placenta is composed of tissue from both the mother and child. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Amniotic cavity and placenta
REF: p. 490
68. Because all structures develop from them, the morula and blastocyst are called the primary germ layers. ANS: F OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 491 TOP: Formation of the primary germ layers
69. The terms conception and fertilization refer to the same thing. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Prenatal period
REF: p. 488
70. When the yolk sac fills with fluid, it is referred to as the “bag of waters.” ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Amniotic cavity and placenta
REF: p. 489
71. The blood of the fetus mixes with the blood of the mother in the chorionic villi. ANS: F OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Amniotic cavity and placenta
REF: p. 490
72. Pregnancy is also called the gestation period. ANS: T OBJ: 2
DIF: Remembering TOP: Periods of development
REF: p. 490
73. There are three primary germ layers. ANS: T OBJ: 3
DIF: Remembering REF: p. 491 | p. 492 TOP: Formation of the primary germ layers
74. Unlike the senses of sight and hearing, the senses of taste and smell become more sensitive as we age. ANS: F OBJ: 6
DIF: Remembering TOP: Effects of aging
REF: p. 500
75. The postnatal period begins at conception and ends at birth. ANS: F OBJ: 1
DIF: Remembering TOP: Introduction
REF: p. 487