TEST BANK for Talaro’s Foundations in Microbiology, 10th Edition, by Barry Chess | All Chapters 1-27

Page 1


Foundations In Microbiology 10th Edition Talaro Test Bank Chapter 01 Testbank Student:

1.

Disease-causing microorganisms are called A. decomposers. B. prokaryotes. C. pathogens. D. eukaryotes. E. fermenters.

2.

The microorganisms that recycle nutrients by breaking down dead matter and wastes are called A. decomposers. B. prokaryotes. C. pathogens. D. eukaryotes. E. fermenters.

3.

The microorganisms that do not have a nucleus in their cells are called A. decomposers. B. prokaryotes. C. pathogens. D. eukaryotes. E. fermenters.

4.

When humans manipulate the genes of microorganisms the process is called2013 A. bioremediation. B. genetic engineering. C. epidemiology. D. immunology. E. taxonomy.

5.

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Which of the following are not considered microorganisms? A. mosquitoes B. protozoa C. bacteria D. viruses E. fungi

6.

All microorganisms are best defined as organisms that A. cause human disease. B. lack a cell nucleus. C. are infectious particles. D. are too small to be seen with the unaided eye. E. can only be found growing in laboratories.

7.

Which activity is an example of biotechnology? A. Bacteria in the soil secrete an antibiotic to kill competitors. B. A microbiologist uses a microscope to study bacteria. C. Humans use yeast to make beer and wine. D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis causes tuberculosis in the lungs. E. Public health officials monitor diseases in a community.

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8.

Which of the following is a unique characteristic of viruses that distinguishes them from the other major groups of microorganisms? A. Viruses cause human disease. B. Vruses are composed of cells that lack nuclei. C. Viruses cannot be seen without an electron microscope. D. Viruses contain genetic material. E. Viruses lack cell structure.

9.

The Dutch merchant who made and used quality magnifying lenses to see and record microorganisms was A. Francesco Redi. B. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek. C. Louis Pasteur. D. Joseph Lister. E. Robert Koch.

10. Pasteur used swan-neck flasks in his experiments to prove that A. air had "vital forces" capable of spontaneous generation. B. microbial fermentation could be used to make wine. C. dust in air was a source of living microorganisms. D. microorganisms could cause disease. E. microorganisms could be grown in laboratory infusions. 11. Which of the following is not a process in the scientific method? A. belief in a preconceived idea B. formulate a hypothesis C. systematic observation D. laboratory experimentation E. development of a theory 12. Spontaneous generation is the belief that A. germs cause infectious diseases. B. microbes are diverse and ubiquitous. C. microbes placed in an infusion can grow in it. D. aseptic techniques reduce microbes in medical settings. E. living things arise from nonliving matter. 13. Koch's postulates are criteria used to establish that A. microbes are found on dust particles. B. a specific microbe is the cause of a specific disease. C. life-forms can only arise from preexisting life-forms. D. a specific microbe should be classified in a specific kingdom. E. microbes can be used to clean up toxic spills. 14. Which of the following is a taxon that contains all the other taxa listed? A. species B. phylum C. kingdom D. genus E. family 15. Which of the following is a scientific name? A. bacteria B. Protista C. species D. Bacillus subtilis E. bacilli


16. Taxonomy does not involve A. nomenclature. B. classification. C. taxa. D. identification. E. Koch's postulates. 17. The smallest and most significant taxon is A. genus. B. species. C. kingdom. D. family. E. phylum. 18. The study of evolutionary relationships among organisms is called A. biotechnology. B. genetics. C. recombinant DNA. D. phylogeny. E. taxonomy. 19. A scientist studying the sequence of nucleotides in the rRNA of a bacterial species is working on A. determining evolutionary relatedness. B. bioremediation. C. recombinant DNA. D. nomenclature. E. determining if that species is the cause of aNnUeRwSd isG eT asBe.C . OM IN 20. A scientist discovers a new microbial species. It is a single-celled eukaryote without cell walls. In which kingdom will it likely be classified? A. Monera B. Protista C. Fungi D. Animalia E. Plantae 21. A scientist collects grass clippings to find the source of an outbreak of tularemia is an example of working in the field of A. food microbiology. B. epidemiology. C. agricultural microbiology. D. genetic engineering. E. biotechnology. 22. Helminths are A. bacteria. B. protozoa. C. molds. D. parasitic worms. E. infectious particles.

23. All of the following pertain to photosynthesis, except A. it occurs only in members of the kingdom Plantae.


B. carbon dioxide is converted to organic material. C. it contributes to the oxygen content in the atmosphere. D. it is fueled by light. E. it is important to each ecosystem's flow of energy and food. 24. Organisms called parasites are A. always classified in the kingdom Monera. B. always harmful to their host. C. the decomposers in ecosystems. D. always viruses. E. free-living. 25. The surgeon who advocated using disinfectants on hands and in the air prior to surgery was A. Joseph Lister. B. Ignaz Semmelweis. C. Robert Koch. D. Louis Pasteur. E. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek. 26. Which scientist showed that anthrax was caused by the bacterium Bacillus anthracis? A. Joseph Lister B. Ignaz Semmelweis C. Robert Koch D. Louis Pasteur E. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek 27. Which of the following lists the correct descending taxonomic hierarchy (left to right)? A. family, order, class B. family, genus, species C. genus, species, family D. class, phylum, order E. kingdom, domain, phylum

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28. When assigning a scientific name to an organism, A. the species name is capitalized. B. the species name is placed first. C. the species name can be abbreviated. D. both genus and species names are capitalized. E. both genus and species names are italicized or underlined. 29. In Whittaker's system, the protozoa and algae are classified in the kingdom A. Monera. B. Protista. C. Mycetae. D. Plantae. E. Animalia. 30. The scientist(s) that proposed assigning organisms to one of three domains is(are) A. Robert Koch and Louis Pasteur. B. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek. C. Carl Woese and George Fox. D. Robert Whittaker. E. Francesco Redi. 31. Which kingdom does not contain any eukaryotes? A. Monera


B. Protista C. Mycetae D. Plantae E. Animalia 32. Which of the following are the main decomposers of the Earth? A. bacteria and fungi B. bacteria and viruses C. algae and viruses D. protists and fungi E. All organisms are decomposers. 33. The most common infectious cause of death worldwide is A. HIV/AIDS. B. stroke. C. heart disease. D. cancer. E. malaria. 34. Which of the following diseases is transmitted by mosquitoes? A. diarrheal diseases B. tuberculosis C. malaria D. septicemia E. influenza

35. All of the following are correct about prokaryotes, except A. they are smaller than eukaryotes. B. they lack a nucleus. C. they are less complex than eukaryotes. D. they have organelles. E. they are found nearly everywhere.

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36. All of the following contribute to the rise of emerging diseases, except A. the decrease in drug-resistant bacteria. B. human encroachment on wild habitats. C. changes in agricultural practices. D. populations are more mobile. 37. Which scientist discovered heat-resistant bacterial spores? A. Joseph Lister B. Ignaz Semmelweis C. Robert Koch D. Ferdinand Cohn E. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek 38. Which of the following is the correct way to write the scientific name of this bacterium? A. Staph Aureus B. Staphylococcus Aureus C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Staphylococcus Aureus E. S. Aureus 39. Where are you most likely to find bacteria belonging to the domain Archaea? A. a human's large intestine B. in a hot spring


C. a pond D. a sewage treatment plant E. a beer production facility 40. When microbes are introduced into the environment to restore stability, the process is called A. bioremediation. B. genetic engineering. C. epidemiology. D. immunology. E. taxonomy. 41. In which of the following conditions is(are) microbial infection often implicated as a cause? A. gastric ulcers B. female infertility C. coronary artery disease D. cervical cancer E. All of these choices are correct. 42. Cyanide is a chemical used to dissolve gold and is harmful to the environment and organisms living there. A couple of biochemists came up with the idea of using the bacteria in the genus Pseudomonas to break down the cyanide used by a gold mining company. Which term refers to this use of bacteria? A. bioremediation B. immunoextraction C. decomposition D. bioextraction E. biosynthesis 43. Which of the following branches of Microbiology is utilized in diagnosing or treating someone who has broken out in hives and is experiencing respiratory distress due to an exposure to a microbial toxin? A. agricultural Microbiology B. epidemiology C. biotechnology D. immunology E. industrial Microbiology

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44. Bacteria and fungi are important in bioremediation. These decomposers are also called

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A. strict aerobes B. strict anaerobes C. saprobes D. predators E. parasites 45. Members of the same species share many more characteristics compared to those shared by members of the same kingdom. True False 46. Viruses are not classified in any of Whittaker's five kingdoms. True False 47. Members of the kingdom Fungi are hotosynthetic. True False 48. A scientist studying helminths is working with bacteria. True False


49. The fossil record has established that prokaryotes existed on Earth for approximately two billion years before eukaryotes appeared. True False 50. It has been over 25 years since a new infectious disease has emerged in the world. True False 51. The term sterile means free of all life-forms. True False 52. All microorganisms are parasites. True False 53. During a scientific experiment, the control group is used to directly test or measure the consequences of a variable in the study. True False 54. The scientific method involves formulating a tentative explanation, called the hypothesis, to account for what has been observed or measured. True False 55. Once an organism is assigned to a particular taxonomic hierarchy, it is permanent and cannot be revised. True False 56. When a the results of an experiment support a hypothesis, the hypothesis can now be considered a theory. True False

NURSINGTB.COM 57. The names of the three proposed domains are: Bacteria, Protista, Eukarya. True False 58. One distinguishing characteristic of the archaea is that they live in extreme environments. True False 59. The scientific field called 60.

is involved in the identification, classification, and naming of organisms.

is the area of biology that states that living things undergo gradual structural and functional changes over long periods of time.

61. Living things ordinarily too small to be seen with the unaided eye are termed 62.

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are the group of microorganisms composed only of hereditary material wrapped in a protein covering.

63. A scientist that constructs a hypothesis and then tests its validity by outlining predicted events of the hypothesis followed by experiments to test for those events is using the approach. A. inductive B. deductive C. instructive D. trial-and-error


64. Discuss what might be three different beneficial consequences and three different detrimental consequences of killing all microorganisms on the Earth. 65. Discuss five of the reasons why infectious diseases are increasing in number around the world. 66. Describe the experiment that Louis Pasteur did with swan-necked-shaped tubes to disprove spontaneous generation. 67. Recently Zika virus has been in the news, with many cases in Central and South America and increasing numbers of cases in the southern United States. Five years ago this virus was essentially unheard of in these areas. This is an example of A. an endemic virus. B. an emerging infectious disease. C. genetic recombination. D. a pandemic. 68. Numerous cases of microcephaly have been observed in the newborn babies of women who were infected with Zika virus during pregnancy. This led to the proposed hypothesis that Zika virus was causing the birth defects. This is an example of A. hypothesis testing. B. deductive reasoning. C. inductive reasoning. D. theory development.


Chapter 01 Testbank Key 1.

Disease-causing microorganisms are called A. decomposers. B. prokaryotes. C. pathogens. D. eukaryotes. E. fermenters.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.07 Review the roles of microorganisms as parasites and pathogens that cause infection and disease. Section: 01.04

Topic: Microbial Roles

2.

The microorganisms that recycle nutrients by breaking down dead matter and wastes are called A. decomposers. B. prokaryotes. C. pathogens. D. eukaryotes. E. fermenters. ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.01 Define microbiology and microorganisms, and identify the major organisms included in the science of microbiology. Learning Outcome: 01.04 State several ways that microbes are involved in the earth's ecosystems. Section: 01.02

3.

The microorganisms that do not have a nucleus in their cells are called

Topic: Microbial Roles

A. decomposers. B. prokaryotes. C. pathogens. D. eukaryotes. E. fermenters. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.03 Describe the basic characteristics of prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells and their evolutionary origins.

Learning Outcome: 01.05 Describe the cellular makeup of microorganisms and their size range, and indicate how viruses differ from cellular microbes. Section: 01.02 Topic: Cellular Organization

4.

When humans manipulate the genes of microorganisms the process is called3-7-2013 A. bioremediation. B. genetic engineering. C. epidemiology. D. immunology. E. taxonomy. ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.06 Discuss the ways microorganisms can be used to create solutions for environmental problems and industrial products. Section: 01.03 Topic: Basics of Genetic Engineering


Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology

5.

Which of the following are not considered microorganisms? A. mosquitoes B. protozoa C. bacteria D. viruses E. fungi ASM Objective: 01.05 The evolutionary relatedness of organisms is best reflected in phylogenetic trees. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.01 Define microbiology and microorganisms, and identify the major organisms included in the science of microbiology. Section: 01.01

Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms

6.

All microorganisms are best defined as organisms that A. cause human disease. B. lack a cell nucleus. C. are infectious particles. D. are too small to be seen with the unaided eye. E. can only be found growing in laboratories. ASM Objective: 01.05 The evolutionary relatedness of organisms is best reflected in phylogenetic trees. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.01 Define microbiology and microorganisms, and identify the major organisms included in the science of microbiology. Section: 01.01 Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms

7.

Which activity is an example of biotechnology? A. Bacteria in the soil secrete an antibiotic to kill competitors. B. A microbiologist uses a microscope to sNtud acGtT eB ria.C. OM URySbIN C. Humans use yeast to make beer and wine. D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis causes tuberculosis in the lungs. E. Public health officials monitor diseases in a community. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom's Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 01.02 Name and define the primary areas included in microbiological studies. Learning Outcome: 01.06 Discuss the ways microorganisms can be used to create solutions for environmental problems and industrial products. Section: 01.01 Section: 01.03 Topic: Food Microbiology

Topic: Microbial Roles

8.

Which of the following is a unique characteristic of viruses that distinguishes them from the other major groups of microorganisms? A. Viruses cause human disease. B. Vruses are composed of cells that lack nuclei. C. Viruses cannot be seen without an electron microscope. D. Viruses contain genetic material. E. Viruses lack cell structure.

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 02. Understand General Viral Properties Learning Outcome: 01.05 Describe the cellular makeup of microorganisms and their size range, and indicate how viruses differ from cellular microbes. Section: 01.02

Topic: Viral structure

9.

The Dutch merchant who made and used quality magnifying lenses to see and record microorganisms was


A. Francesco Redi. B. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek. C. Louis Pasteur. D. Joseph Lister. E. Robert Koch. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if possible, phase contrast). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.09 Outline the major events in the history of mirobiology, including the major contributors to the early development of microscopy, medical advances, aseptic techniques, and the germ theory of disease. Section: 01.05 Topic: History of Microbiology

10.

Pasteur used swan-neck flasks in his experiments to prove that A. air had "vital forces" capable of spontaneous generation. B. microbial fermentation could be used to make wine. C. dust in air was a source of living microorganisms. D. microorganisms could cause disease. E. microorganisms could be grown in laboratory infusions. ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.09 Outline the major events in the history of mirobiology, including the major contributors to the early development of microscopy, medical advances, aseptic techniques, and the germ theory of disease. Section: 01.05 Topic: History of Microbiology

11.

Which of the following is not a process in the scientific method? A. belief in a preconceived idea B. formulate a hypothesis C. systematic observation D. laboratory experimentation E. development of a theory

ASM Objective: 07.01a Ability to apply the process of science: Demonstrate an ability to formulate hypotheses and design experiments based on the scientific method. ASM Topic: Module 07 Scientific Thinking Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.10 Explain the main features of the scientific method, and differentiate between inductive and deductive reasoning and between hypothesis and theory. Section: 01.05 Topic: History of Microbiology

12.

Spontaneous generation is the belief that A. germs cause infectious diseases. B. microbes are diverse and ubiquitous. C. microbes placed in an infusion can grow in it. D. aseptic techniques reduce microbes in medical settings. E. living things arise from nonliving matter. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 07 Scientific Thinking Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.09 Outline the major events in the history of mirobiology, including the major contributors to the early development of microscopy, medical advances, aseptic techniques, and the germ theory of disease. Learning Outcome: 01.10 Explain the main features of the scientific method, and differentiate between inductive and deductive reasoning and between hypothesis and theory. Section: 01.05 Topic: History of Microbiology

13.

Koch's postulates are criteria used to establish that A. microbes are found on dust particles. B. a specific microbe is the cause of a specific disease. C. life-forms can only arise from preexisting life-forms.


D. a specific microbe should be classified in a specific kingdom. E. microbes can be used to clean up toxic spills. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 07.01a Ability to apply the process of science: Demonstrate an ability to formulate hypotheses and design experiments based on the scientific method. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 07 Scientific Thinking Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.07 Review the roles of microorganisms as parasites and pathogens that cause infection and disease. Learning Outcome: 01.09 Outline the major events in the history of mirobiology, including the major contributors to the early development of microscopy, medical advances, aseptic techniques, and the germ theory of disease. Section: 01.05 Topic: History of Microbiology Topic: Microbial Roles

14.

Which of the following is a taxon that contains all the other taxa listed? A. species B. phylum C. kingdom D. genus E. family ASM Objective: 01.04 The traditional concept of species is not readily applicable to microbes due to asexual reproduction and the frequent occurrence of horizontal gene transfer. ASM Objective: 01.05 The evolutionary relatedness of organisms is best reflected in phylogenetic trees. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution Bloom's Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 01.11 Define taxonomy and its supporting terms classification, nomenclature, and identification. Learning Outcome: 01.12 Explain how the levels of a taxonomic scheme relate to each other. Give the names of the levels, and place them in a hierarchy. Section: 01.06

15.

Which of the following is a scientific name?

Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms

A. bacteria B. Protista C. species D. Bacillus subtilis E. bacilli ASM Objective: 01.05 The evolutionary relatedness of organisms is best reflected in phylogenetic trees. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.11 Define taxonomy and its supporting terms classification, nomenclature, and identification.

Learning Outcome: 01.13 Describe the goals of nomenclature and how the binomial system is structured. Know how to correctly write a scientific name. Learning Outcome: 01.17 Recall the order of taxa and the system of notation used in creating scientific name Section: 01.06 Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms

16.

Taxonomy does not involve A. nomenclature. B. classification. C. taxa. D. identification. E. Koch's postulates. ASM Objective: 01.05 The evolutionary relatedness of organisms is best reflected in phylogenetic trees. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.11 Define taxonomy and its supporting terms classification, nomenclature, and identification. Learning Outcome: 01.12 Explain how the levels of a taxonomic scheme relate to each other. Give the names of the levels, and place them in a hierarchy.

Learning Outcome: 01.13 Describe the goals of nomenclature and how the binomial system is structured. Know how to correctly write a scientific name. Learning Outcome: 01.16 Explain the bases for classification, taxonomy, and nomenclature. Section: 01.06 Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms

17.

The smallest and most significant taxon is A. genus.


B. species. C. kingdom. D. family. E. phylum. ASM Objective: 01.05 The evolutionary relatedness of organisms is best reflected in phylogenetic trees. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.11 Define taxonomy and its supporting terms classification, nomenclature, and identification.

Learning Outcome: 01.13 Describe the goals of nomenclature and how the binomial system is structured. Know how to correctly write a scientific name. Learning Outcome: 01.16 Explain the bases for classification, taxonomy, and nomenclature. Learning Outcome: 01.17 Recall the order of taxa and the system of notation used in creating scientific name Section: 01.06 Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms

18.

The study of evolutionary relationships among organisms is called A. biotechnology. B. genetics. C. recombinant DNA. D. phylogeny. E. taxonomy. ASM Objective: 01.05 The evolutionary relatedness of organisms is best reflected in phylogenetic trees. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.12 Explain how the levels of a taxonomic scheme relate to each other. Give the names of the levels, and place them in a hierarchy.

Learning Outcome: 01.14 Discuss the fundamentals of evolution, evidence used to verify evolutionary trends, and the use of evolutionary theory in the study of organisms. Section: 01.06 Section: 01.07 Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms

19.

A scientist studying the sequence of nucleotides in the rRNA of a bacterial species is working on A. determining evolutionary relatedness. B. bioremediation. C. recombinant DNA. D. nomenclature. E. determining if that species is the cause of a new disease. ASM Objective: 01.05 The evolutionary relatedness of organisms is best reflected in phylogenetic trees. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution Bloom's Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 01.16 Explain the bases for classification, taxonomy, and nomenclature. Section: 01.07 Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms

20.

A scientist discovers a new microbial species. It is a single-celled eukaryote without cell walls. In which kingdom will it likely be classified? A. Monera B. Protista C. Fungi D. Animalia E. Plantae ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 01.16 Explain the bases for classification, taxonomy, and nomenclature. Section: 01.07 Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms

21.

A scientist collects grass clippings to find the source of an outbreak of tularemia is an example of working in the field of A. food microbiology. B. epidemiology.


C. agricultural microbiology. D. genetic engineering. E. biotechnology. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 01.02 Name and define the primary areas included in microbiological studies. Section: 01.01

Topic: Epidemiology

22.

Helminths are A. bacteria. B. protozoa. C. molds. D. parasitic worms. E. infectious particles.

ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.01 Define microbiology and microorganisms, and identify the major organisms included in the science of microbiology. Learning Outcome: 01.07 Review the roles of microorganisms as parasites and pathogens that cause infection and disease. Section: 01.01

23.

Topic: Helminths

All of the following pertain to photosynthesis, except A. it occurs only in members of the kingdom Plantae. B. carbon dioxide is converted to organic material. C. it contributes to the oxygen content in the atmosphere. D. it is fueled by light. E. it is important to each ecosystem's flow of energy and food. ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.04 State several ways that microbes are involved in the earth's ecosystems. Learning Outcome: 01.15 Explain the concepts behind the organization of the two main trees of life, and indicate where the major groups of microorganisms fall on these trees. Section: 01.02 Topic: Microbial Roles Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms

24.

Organisms called parasites are A. always classified in the kingdom Monera. B. always harmful to their host. C. the decomposers in ecosystems. D. always viruses. E. free-living.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.01 Define microbiology and microorganisms, and identify the major organisms included in the science of microbiology. Learning Outcome: 01.07 Review the roles of microorganisms as parasites and pathogens that cause infection and disease. Section: 01.04

Topic: Microbial Roles

25.

The surgeon who advocated using disinfectants on hands and in the air prior to surgery was A. Joseph Lister. B. Ignaz Semmelweis. C. Robert Koch. D. Louis Pasteur. E. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek.


ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.09 Outline the major events in the history of mirobiology, including the major contributors to the early development of microscopy, medical advances, aseptic techniques, and the germ theory of disease. Section: 01.05

26.

Which scientist showed that anthrax was caused by the bacterium Bacillus anthracis?

Topic: History of Microbiology

A. Joseph Lister B. Ignaz Semmelweis C. Robert Koch D. Louis Pasteur E. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.09 Outline the major events in the history of mirobiology, including the major contributors to the early development of microscopy, medical advances, aseptic techniques, and the germ theory of disease. Section: 01.05 Topic: History of Microbiology

27.

Which of the following lists the correct descending taxonomic hierarchy (left to right)? A. family, order, class B. family, genus, species C. genus, species, family D. class, phylum, order E. kingdom, domain, phylum

28.

ASM Objective: 01.05 The evolutionary relatedness of organisms is best reflected in phylogenetic trees. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.12 Explain how the levels of a taxonomic scheme relate to each other. Give the names of the levels, and place them in a hierarchy. Section: 01.06 Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms NURSINGTB.COM

When assigning a scientific name to an organism,

A. the species name is capitalized. B. the species name is placed first. C. the species name can be abbreviated. D. both genus and species names are capitalized. E. both genus and species names are italicized or underlined. ASM Objective: 07.03a Ability to communicate and collaborate with other disciplines: Effectively communicate fundamental concepts of microbiology in written and oral format. ASM Topic: Module 07 Scientific Thinking Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.13 Describe the goals of nomenclature and how the binomial system is structured. Know how to correctly write a scientific name. Section: 01.06 Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms

29.

In Whittaker's system, the protozoa and algae are classified in the kingdom A. Monera. B. Protista. C. Mycetae. D. Plantae. E. Animalia. ASM Objective: 01.05 The evolutionary relatedness of organisms is best reflected in phylogenetic trees. ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.01 Define microbiology and microorganisms, and identify the major organisms included in the science of microbiology. Learning Outcome: 01.15 Explain the concepts behind the organization of the two main trees of life, and indicate where the major groups of microorganisms fall on these trees.


Section: 01.07 Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms

30.

The scientist(s) that proposed assigning organisms to one of three domains is(are) A. Robert Koch and Louis Pasteur. B. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek. C. Carl Woese and George Fox. D. Robert Whittaker. E. Francesco Redi. ASM Objective: 01.05 The evolutionary relatedness of organisms is best reflected in phylogenetic trees. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution Bloom's Level: 01. Remember

Learning Outcome: 01.03 Describe the basic characteristics of prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells and their evolutionary origins. Learning Outcome: 01.14 Discuss the fundamentals of evolution, evidence used to verify evolutionary trends, and the use of evolutionary theory in the study of organisms.

Learning Outcome: 01.15 Explain the concepts behind the organization of the two main trees of life, and indicate where the major groups of microorganisms fall on these trees. Section: 01.07 Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms

31.

Which kingdom does not contain any eukaryotes? A. Monera B. Protista C. Mycetae D. Plantae E. Animalia ASM Objective: 01.05 The evolutionary relatedness of organisms is best reflected in phylogenetic trees. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.15 Explain the concepts behind the organization of the two main trees of life, and indicate where the major groups of microorganisms fall on these trees. Section: 01.07 Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms

32.

Which of the following are the main decomposers of the Earth? A. bacteria and fungi B. bacteria and viruses C. algae and viruses D. protists and fungi E. All organisms are decomposers.

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.04 State several ways that microbes are involved in the earth's ecosystems. Section: 01.02

Topic: Microbial Roles

33.

The most common infectious cause of death worldwide is A. HIV/AIDS. B. stroke. C. heart disease. D. cancer. E. malaria.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.07 Review the roles of microorganisms as parasites and pathogens that cause infection and disease. Section: 01.04

Topic: Microbial Roles

34.

Which of the following diseases is transmitted by mosquitoes? A. diarrheal diseases B. tuberculosis


C. malaria D. septicemia E. influenza ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.03 Describe the basic characteristics of prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells and their evolutionary origins.

Learning Outcome: 01.07 Review the roles of microorganisms as parasites and pathogens that cause infection and disease. Section: 01.04

35.

Topic: Microbial Roles

All of the following are correct about prokaryotes, except A. they are smaller than eukaryotes. B. they lack a nucleus. C. they are less complex than eukaryotes. D. they have organelles. E. they are found nearly everywhere. ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage infection.

ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.03 Describe the basic characteristics of prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells and their evolutionary origins. Section: 01.02

36.

Topic: Cellular Organization

All of the following contribute to the rise of emerging diseases, except A. the decrease in drug-resistant bacteria. B. human encroachment on wild habitats. C. changes in agricultural practices. D. populations are more mobile.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems NURSINGTB.COM Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.08 Define what is meant by emerging and reemerging diseases. Section: 01.04

Topic: Microbial Roles

37.

Which scientist discovered heat-resistant bacterial spores? A. Joseph Lister B. Ignaz Semmelweis C. Robert Koch D. Ferdinand Cohn E. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.09 Outline the major events in the history of mirobiology, including the major contributors to the early development of microscopy, medical advances, aseptic techniques, and the germ theory of disease. Section: 01.05

Topic: History of Microbiology

38.

Which of the following is the correct way to write the scientific name of this bacterium? A. Staph Aureus B. Staphylococcus Aureus C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Staphylococcus Aureus E. S. Aureus ASM Objective: 07.03a Ability to communicate and collaborate with other disciplines: Effectively communicate fundamental concepts of microbiology in written and oral format.


ASM Topic: Module 07 Scientific Thinking Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.13 Describe the goals of nomenclature and how the binomial system is structured. Know how to correctly write a scientific name. Section: 01.06 Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms

39.

Where are you most likely to find bacteria belonging to the domain Archaea? A. a human's large intestine B. in a hot spring C. a pond D. a sewage treatment plant E. a beer production facility ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fixation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis). ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.15 Explain the concepts behind the organization of the two main trees of life, and indicate where the major groups of microorganisms fall on these trees. Section: 01.07 Topic: Microbial Roles Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms

40.

When microbes are introduced into the environment to restore stability, the process is called A. bioremediation. B. genetic engineering. C. epidemiology. D. immunology. E. taxonomy. ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems.

ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems NURSINGTB.COM ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.06 Discuss the ways microorganisms can be used to create solutions for environmental problems and industrial products. Section: 01.03 Topic: Microbial Roles

41.

In which of the following conditions is(are) microbial infection often implicated as a cause? A. gastric ulcers B. female infertility C. coronary artery disease D. cervical cancer E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.01 Define microbiology and microorganisms, and identify the major organisms included in the science of microbiology. Learning Outcome: 01.07 Review the roles of microorganisms as parasites and pathogens that cause infection and disease. Section: 01.04

Topic: Microbial Roles

42.

Cyanide is a chemical used to dissolve gold and is harmful to the environment and organisms living there. A couple of biochemists came up with the idea of using the bacteria in the genus Pseudomonas to break down the cyanide used by a gold mining company. Which term refers to this use of bacteria? A. bioremediation B. immunoextraction C. decomposition D. bioextraction E. biosynthesis ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products.


ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom's Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 01.06 Discuss the ways microorganisms can be used to create solutions for environmental problems and industrial products. Section: 01.03

Topic: Microbial Roles

43.

Which of the following branches of Microbiology is utilized in diagnosing or treating someone who has broken out in hives and is experiencing respiratory distress due to an exposure to a microbial toxin? A. agricultural Microbiology B. epidemiology C. biotechnology D. immunology E. industrial Microbiology

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.02 Name and define the primary areas included in microbiological studies. Section: 01.01

Topic: Hypersensitivities

44.

Bacteria and fungi are important in bioremediation. These decomposers are also called

.

A. strict aerobes B. strict anaerobes C. saprobes D. predators E. parasites ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.04 State several ways that microbes are involved in the earth's ecosystems. Learning Outcome: 01.06 Discuss the ways microorganisms can be used to create solutions for environmental problems and industrial products. Section: 01.02 Section: 01.03

45.

Topic: Microbial Roles

Members of the same species share manyNm risMtics compared to those shared by members of UoRre SIcNhGaTraBc.tCeO the same kingdom. TRUE

ASM Objective: 01.05 The evolutionary relatedness of organisms is best reflected in phylogenetic trees. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.12 Explain how the levels of a taxonomic scheme relate to each other. Give the names of the levels, and place them in a hierarchy. Section: 01.06 Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms

46.

Viruses are not classified in any of Whittaker's five kingdoms. TRUE

ASM Objective: 01.05 The evolutionary relatedness of organisms is best reflected in phylogenetic trees. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.05 Describe the cellular makeup of microorganisms and their size range, and indicate how viruses differ from cellular microbes. Section: 01.02 Section: 01.07

Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms

47.

Members of the kingdom Fungi are photosynthetic. FALSE ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.01 Define microbiology and microorganisms, and identify the major organisms included in the science of microbiology.


Learning Outcome: 01.04 State several ways that microbes are involved in the earth's ecosystems. Section: 01.02

Topic: Microbial Roles

48.

A scientist studying helminths is working with bacteria. FALSE ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.01 Define microbiology and microorganisms, and identify the major organisms included in the science of microbiology. Section: 01.01 Topic: Helminths Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms

49.

The fossil record has established that prokaryotes existed on Earth for approximately two billion years before eukaryotes appeared. TRUE ASM Objective: 01.01 Cells, organelles (e.g., mitochondria and chloroplasts) and all major metabolic pathways evolved from early prokaryotic cells. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution Bloom's Level: 01. Remember

Learning Outcome: 01.14 Discuss the fundamentals of evolution, evidence used to verify evolutionary trends, and the use of evolutionary theory in the study of organisms. Section: 01.07

Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms

50.

It has been over 25 years since a new infectious disease has emerged in the world. FALSE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.08 Define what is meant by emerging and reemerging diseases. Section: 01.04 Topic: Epidemiology Topic: Microbial Roles

51.

The term sterile means free of all life-formsN. URSINGTB.COM TRUE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.01 Define microbiology and microorganisms, and identify the major organisms included in the science of microbiology. Section: 01.01

Topic: Microbial Roles

52.

All microorganisms are parasites. FALSE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.07 Review the roles of microorganisms as parasites and pathogens that cause infection and disease. Section: 01.04

Topic: Microbial Roles

53.

During a scientific experiment, the control group is used to directly test or measure the consequences of a variable in the study. FALSE

ASM Objective: 07.01a Ability to apply the process of science: Demonstrate an ability to formulate hypotheses and design experiments based on the scientific method. ASM Topic: Module 07 Scientific Thinking Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.10 Explain the main features of the scientific method, and differentiate between inductive and deductive reasoning and between hypothesis and theory. Section: 01.05 Topic: History of Microbiology

54.

The scientific method involves formulating a tentative explanation, called the hypothesis, to account for what has been observed or measured.


TRUE ASM Objective: 07.01a Ability to apply the process of science: Demonstrate an ability to formulate hypotheses and design experiments based on the scientific method. ASM Topic: Module 07 Scientific Thinking Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.10 Explain the main features of the scientific method, and differentiate between inductive and deductive reasoning and between hypothesis and theory. Section: 01.05 Topic: History of Microbiology

55.

Once an organism is assigned to a particular taxonomic hierarchy, it is permanent and cannot be revised. FALSE ASM Objective: 01.05 The evolutionary relatedness of organisms is best reflected in phylogenetic trees. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.12 Explain how the levels of a taxonomic scheme relate to each other. Give the names of the levels, and place them in a hierarchy.

Learning Outcome: 01.14 Discuss the fundamentals of evolution, evidence used to verify evolutionary trends, and the use of evolutionary theory in the study of organisms. Section: 01.07 Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms

56.

When a the results of an experiment support a hypothesis, the hypothesis can now be considered a theory. FALSE

ASM Objective: 07.01a Ability to apply the process of science: Demonstrate an ability to formulate hypotheses and design experiments based on the scientific method. ASM Topic: Module 07 Scientific Thinking Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.10 Explain the main features of the scientific method, and differentiate between inductive and deductive reasoning and between hypothesis and theory. Section: 01.05 Topic: History of Microbiology

57.

The names of the three proposed domains are: Bacteria, Protista, Eukarya. FALSE

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 01.05 The evolutionary relatedness of organisms is best reflected in phylogenetic trees. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.15 Explain the concepts behind the organization of the two main trees of life, and indicate where the major groups of microorganisms fall on these trees. Learning Outcome: 01.16 Explain the bases for classification, taxonomy, and nomenclature. Section: 01.07 Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms

58.

One distinguishing characteristic of the archaea is that they live in extreme environments. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fixation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis). ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.01 Define microbiology and microorganisms, and identify the major organisms included in the science of microbiology. Learning Outcome: 01.17 Recall the order of taxa and the system of notation used in creating scientific name Section: 01.07 Topic: Microbial Roles Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms

59.

The scientific field called

is involved in the identification, classification, and naming of organisms.

taxonomy ASM Objective: 01.05 The evolutionary relatedness of organisms is best reflected in phylogenetic trees. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.16 Explain the bases for classification, taxonomy, and nomenclature. Section: 01.07 Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms

60.

is the area of biology that states that living things undergo gradual structural and functional changes over long periods of time.


Evolution ASM Objective: 01.05 The evolutionary relatedness of organisms is best reflected in phylogenetic trees. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.14 Discuss the fundamentals of evolution, evidence used to verify evolutionary trends, and the use of evolutionary theory in the study of organisms. Section: 01.07 Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms

61.

Living things ordinarily too small to be seen with the unaided eye are termed

.

microorganisms ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if possible, phase contrast). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.01 Define microbiology and microorganisms, and identify the major organisms included in the science of microbiology. Learning Outcome: 01.02 Name and define the primary areas included in microbiological studies. Section: 01.01

Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms

62.

are the group of microorganisms composed only of hereditary material wrapped in a protein covering. Viruses

ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.05 Describe the cellular makeup of microorganisms and their size range, and indicate how viruses differ from cellular microbes. Section: 01.02

Topic: Viral structure

63.

A scientist that constructs a hypothesis andNU thR en stTsBit.sCvOaM lidity by outlining predicted events of the hypothesis SItNeG followed by experiments to test for those events is using the approach. A. inductive B. deductive C. instructive D. trial-and-error

ASM Objective: 07.01a Ability to apply the process of science: Demonstrate an ability to formulate hypotheses and design experiments based on the scientific method. ASM Topic: Module 07 Scientific Thinking Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.10 Explain the main features of the scientific method, and differentiate between inductive and deductive reasoning and between hypothesis and theory. Section: 01.05 Topic: History of Microbiology

64.

Discuss what might be three different beneficial consequences and three different detrimental consequences of killing all microorganisms on the Earth.

ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.

ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom's Level: 04. Analyze Learning Outcome: 01.06 Discuss the ways microorganisms can be used to create solutions for environmental problems and industrial products. Learning Outcome: 01.07 Review the roles of microorganisms as parasites and pathogens that cause infection and disease. Section: 01.03 Section: 01.04 Topic: Microbial Roles

65.

Discuss five of the reasons why infectious diseases are increasing in number around the world. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.


ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 04. Analyze Learning Outcome: 01.07 Review the roles of microorganisms as parasites and pathogens that cause infection and disease. Learning Outcome: 01.08 Define what is meant by emerging and reemerging diseases. Section: 01.04

Topic: Microbial Roles

66.

Describe the experiment that Louis Pasteur did with swan-necked-shaped tubes to disprove spontaneous generation.

ASM Objective: 07.01a Ability to apply the process of science: Demonstrate an ability to formulate hypotheses and design experiments based on the scientific method. ASM Objective: 07.01b Ability to apply the process of science: Analyze and interpret results from a variety of microbiological methods and apply these methods to analogous situations. ASM Topic: Module 07 Scientific Thinking Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.09 Outline the major events in the history of mirobiology, including the major contributors to the early development of microscopy, medical advances, aseptic techniques, and the germ theory of disease. Section: 01.05 Topic: History of Microbiology

67.

Recently Zika virus has been in the news, with many cases in Central and South America and increasing numbers of cases in the southern United States. Five years ago this virus was essentially unheard of in these areas. This is an example of A. an endemic virus. B. an emerging infectious disease. C. genetic recombination. D. a pandemic.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. Bloom's Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 01.08 Define what is meant by emerging and reemerging diseases. Section: 01.04 Topic: Epidemiology

68.

Numerous cases of microcephaly have been observed in the newborn babies of women who were infected with Zika virus during pregnancy. This led to the proposed hypothesis that Zika virus was causing the birth defects. This is an example of A. hypothesis testing. B. deductive reasoning. C. inductive reasoning. D. theory development.

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.

ASM Objective: 07.01b Ability to apply the process of science: Analyze and interpret results from a variety of microbiological methods and apply these methods to analogous situations. ASM Objective: 07.03b Ability to communicate and collaborate with other disciplines: Identify credible scientific sources and interpret and evaluate the information therein. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 07 Scientific Thinking Bloom's Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 01.10 Explain the main features of the scientific method, and differentiate between inductive and deductive reasoning and between hypothesis and theory.

Section: 01.05


Chapter 01 Testbank Summary Category

# of Questions

ASM Objective: 01.01 Cells, organelles (e.g., mitochondria and chloroplasts) and all major metabolic pathways evolv ed from early prokaryotic cells.

1

ASM Objective: 01.04 The traditional concept of species is not readily applicable to microbes due to asexual reprodu ction and the frequent occurrence of horizontal gene transfer.

1

ASM Objective: 01.05 The evolutionary relatedness of organisms is best reflected in phylogenetic trees.

18

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (in cluding bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron).

7

ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage inf ection.

1

ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that ofte n confer critical capabilities.

2

ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different.

6

ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes.

2

ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fix ation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis).

2

ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determi ned by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations).

5

ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metaboli c characteristics.

1

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biologic al means.

3

ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells.

1

ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function.

1

ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems.

3

ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in benefi NURSINGTB.COM cial, neutral or detrimental ways.

5 17

ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeo chemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora).

3

ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products.

4

ASM Objective: 07.01a Ability to apply the process of science: Demonstrate an ability to formulate hypotheses and d esign experiments based on the scientific method.

7

ASM Objective: 07.01b Ability to apply the process of science: Analyze and interpret results from a variety of microbi ological methods and apply these methods to analogous situations.

2

ASM Objective: 07.03a Ability to communicate and collaborate with other disciplines: Effectively communicate funda mental concepts of microbiology in written and oral format.

2

ASM Objective: 07.03b Ability to communicate and collaborate with other disciplines: Identify credible scientific sourc es and interpret and evaluate the information therein.

1

ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if po ssible, phase contrast).

2

ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (mediabased, molecular and serological).

1

ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution

19

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function

14

ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways

10

ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow

2

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems

22

ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms

6

ASM Topic: Module 07 Scientific Thinking

11

ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills

3

Bloom's Level: 01. Remember

30

Bloom's Level: 02. Understand

28

Bloom's Level: 03. Apply

8


Bloom's Level: 04. Analyze General Viral Properties

2 1

Learning Outcome: 01.01 Define microbiology and microorganisms, and identify the major organisms included in the science of microbiology.

12

Learning Outcome: 01.02 Name and define the primary areas included in microbiological studies.

4

Learning Outcome: 01.03 Describe the basic characteristics of prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells and their evoluti onary origins.

4

Learning Outcome: 01.04 State several ways that microbes are involved in the earth's ecosystems.

5

Learning Outcome: 01.05 Describe the cellular makeup of microorganisms and their size range, and indicate how vir uses differ from cellular microbes.

4

Learning Outcome: 01.06 Discuss the ways microorganisms can be used to create solutions for environmental proble ms and industrial products.

6

Learning Outcome: 01.07 Review the roles of microorganisms as parasites and pathogens that cause infection and di sease.

10

Learning Outcome: 01.08 Define what is meant by emerging and reemerging diseases.

4

Learning Outcome: 01.09 Outline the major events in the history of mirobiology, including the major contributors to th e early development of microscopy, medical advances, aseptic techniques, and the germ theory of disease.

8

Learning Outcome: 01.10 Explain the main features of the scientific method, and differentiate between inductive and deductive reasoning and between hypothesis and theory.

7

Learning Outcome: 01.11 Define taxonomy and its supporting terms classification, nomenclature, and identification.

4

Learning Outcome: 01.12 Explain how the levels of a taxonomic scheme relate to each other. Give the names of the l evels, and place them in a hierarchy.

6

Learning Outcome: 01.13 Describe the goals of nomenclature and how the binomial system is structured. Know how to correctly write a scientific name.

5

Learning Outcome: 01.14 Discuss the fundamentals of evolution, evidence used to verify evolutionary trends, and the use of evolutionary theory in the study of organisms.

5

Learning Outcome: 01.15 Explain the concepts behind the organization of the two main trees of life, and indicate whe re the major groups of microorganisms fall on these trees.

6

Learning Outcome: 01.16 Explain the bases for classification, taxonomy, and nomenclature.

6

Learning Outcome: 01.17 Recall the order of taxa and the system of notation used in creating scientific name

3

Section: 01.01 Section: 01.02

9 10

NURSINGTB.COM

Section: 01.03

6

Section: 01.04

11

Section: 01.05

14

Section: 01.06

9

Section: 01.07

14

Topic: Basics of Genetic Engineering

1

Topic: Cellular Organization

2

Topic: Epidemiology

3

Topic: Food Microbiology

1

Topic: Helminths

2

Topic: History of Microbiology

13

Topic: Hypersensitivities

1

Topic: Microbial Roles

22

Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology

1

Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms Topic: Viral structure

27 2


Chapter 02 Testbank Student:

1.

Anything that occupies space and has mass is called A. an electron. B. living. C. matter. D. energy. E. space.

2.

All of the following pertain to

14

6C except it

A. has 6 protons. B. has 6 electrons. C. has 14 neutrons. D. is an isotope of carbon. E. has a mass number of 14. 3.

The electrons of an atom are A. always equal in number to the number of neutrons in an atom. B. found in the nucleus. C. used to determine atomic number. D. positively charged. E. moving in pathways called orbitals.

4.

The subatomic particles that surround the nucleus are the A. electrons. B. protons. C. neutrons. D. protons and neutrons. E. protons and electrons.

5.

NURSINGTB.COM

What is the maximum number of electrons in the second energy shell of an atom? A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 18 E. 32

6.

Isotopes are atoms of the same element that differ in their A. neutron number. B. electron number. C. proton number. D. atomic number. E. chemical properties.

7.

Two or more atoms bonded together are called a/an

8.

A. ion. B. isotope. C. element. D. electrolyte. E. molecule. 32 What would be the valence number of electrons in the sulfur atom A. 2 B. 6

S?

16


C. 8 D. 16 E. 32 9.

Polar molecules are composed of covalently-bonded A. identical atoms. B. carbon atoms. C. ions. D. atoms of different electronegativity. E. atoms of identical electronegativity.

10. Reactions involving electron removal are called

reactions.

A. oxidation B. reduction C. dehydration D. decomposition E. dissolution 11. Which of the following represents a synthesis reaction? A. AB → A + B B. A + B→AB C. AB + XY→AX + BY D. AB + XY→AX + BY 12. The important solvent associated with living things is A. carbon dioxide. B. sodium chloride. C. ethyl alcohol. D. benzene. E. water.

NURSINGTB.COM

13. What do H2O, NaCl, CO2, and HCl all have in common? A. All are salts. B. All are acids. C. All are gases. D. All are inorganic. E. All are solutes. 14. Which term does not belong in this list? A. lactic acid B. vinegar C. hydrogen ion donor D. pH 8 E. acidic 15. Compared to a solution of pH 9, a solution of pH 7 A. is more basic. B. has no OH ions.

+ C. has more H ions.

D. has a higher pH. E. All of these choices are correct. 16. The building blocks of an enzyme are A. nucleotides. B. glycerol and fatty acids. C. monosaccharides.


D. phosphate, glycerol, fatty acids. E. amino acids. 17. Cations are A. charged subatomic particles. B. atoms that have gained electrons. C. radioactive isotopes. D. capable of forming ionic bonds with anions. E. atoms without protons. 18. Which of the following functional groups is mismatched to the organic compound? A. phosphate – carbohydrates B. sulfhydryl – proteins C. amino – proteins D. hydroxyl – alcohols E. carboxyl – fatty acids

19. All of the following are monosaccharides except A. glucose. B. glycogen. C. fructose. D. ribose. E. deoxyribose.

20. All of the following are lipids except A. cholesterol. B. starch. C. phospholipid. D. wax. E. triglyceride.

NURSINGTB.COM

21. A monosaccharide with 5 carbon atoms will have

A. 10; 5 B. 5; 10 C. 5; 5 D. 10; 10 E. 2; 1 22. One nucleotide contains A. one phosphate. B. one pentose. C. one nitrogen base. D. All of these choices are correct. 23. Which of the following would have glycosidic bonds? A. triglycerides B. monosaccharides C. polypeptides D. polysaccharides E. ATP

24. All of the following are polysaccharides, except A. dextran in some bacterial slime layers. B. agar used to make solid culture media. C. a cell's glycocalyx. D. cellulose in certain cell walls.

hydrogen atoms and

oxygen atoms.


E. prostaglandins in inflammation. 25. The hydrophobic tails of a phospholipid are composed of A. fatty acids. B. glycerol. C. phosphate. D. alcohol. E. All of these choices are correct. 26. Which of the following is found in DNA but not in RNA? A. ribose B. adenine C. thymine D. uracil E. nucleotides 27. An amino acid contains all of the following except A. an amino group. B. a carboxyl group. C. a variable R group. D. a carbon atom. E. a nitrogenous base. 28. ATP is best described as A. an enzyme. B. a double helix. C. an electron carrier. D. the energy molecule of cells. E. All of these choices are correct. NURSINGTB.COM 29. Which amino acid contains sulfur atoms that form covalent disulfide bonds and stabilize the tertiary structure of some proteins? A. valine B. cysteine C. serine D. alanine E. tyrosine 30. The nucleic acid that delivers the correct amino acid to the ribosome for protein synthesis is A. rRNA. B. DNA. C. tRNA. D. mRNA. E. ATP. 31. Which is not true about enzymes? A. Enzymes are found in all cells. B. Enzymes are catalysts. C. Enzymes participate in the cell's chemical reactions. D. Enzymes can be denatured by heat and other agents. E. Enzymes have high-energy bonds between phosphates. 32. The weak, attractive force between water molecules is due to A. hydrogen bonds. B. covalent bonds. C. ionic bonds.


D. peptide bonds. E. glycosidic bonds. 33. The purine bases in nucleic acids include A. thymine and cytosine. B. guanine and adenine. C. cytosine and guanine. D. adenine and thymine. E. ribose and deoxyribose. 34. A student forgot to label a beaker containing a DNA solution and a beaker containing a glucose solution. If chemical analysis was performed to identify the contents of each beaker, which of the following would be found in the beaker of DNA but not in the beaker with glucose? A. amino acids B. hydrogen and oxygen atoms C. nitrogen and phosphorus D. fatty acids E. carbon atoms 35. The atomic number equals the number of

in an atom.

A. neutrons B. protons C. protons plus electrons D. neutrons plus protons 36. C6H12O6 + C6H12O6 →C12H22O11 + H2O is an example of A. formation of a peptide bond. B. a decomposition reaction. C. denaturation. D. a hydrolytic reaction. E. dehydration synthesis.

NURSINGTB.COM

37. If carbon has an atomic number of 6 and an atomic mass of 14, how many neutrons does it have? A. 6 B. 7 C. 8 D. 14 E. There is not enough information to determine this. 38. The neutrons of an atom are A. always equal to the number of protons in an atom. B. found in the nucleus. C. used to determine atomic number. D. positively charged. E. moving in pathways called orbitals. 39. Which of the following represents an exchange reaction? A. AB → A + B 40. B. A + B→AB 41. C. X + Y→XYD

D. AB + XY↔AX + BY 40. Jim needs to prepare one liter of a 4% NaCl solution. How much NaCl should he weigh out? A. 0.4 grams B. 4.0 grams


C. 40 grams D. 400 grams 41. How many times more acidic is a solution with a pH of 3 than a solution with a pH of 6? A. 3 B. 10 C. 1000 D. 36 E. 63 42. Which of the following carbohydrates is found in dairy products? A. lactose B. sucrose C. maltose D. glucose E. fructose 43. Which of the following is the stored form of carbohydrates in animals? A. glycogen B. maltose C. starch D. cellulose E. galactose

44. All of the following are correct about triglycerides, except A. triglycerides are insoluble in water. B. triglycerides are a concentrated source of energy. C. unsaturated triglycerides are solid at room temperature. D. triglycerides dissolve in nonpolar solvents. E. triglycerides are hydrolyzed by lipases. NURSINGTB.COM 45. Which of the following functional groups participate in the formation of an ester bond? A. hydroxyl group and amino group B. carboxyl group and amino group C. hydroxyl group and carboxyl group D. hydroxyl group and carbonyl group 46. The chemical reaction that forms an ester bond in a triglyceride is a A. dehydration synthesis B. oxidation C. hydrolysis D. reduction 47. The type of chemical bond linking amino acids together is a(n) A. glycosidic bond. B. peptide bond. C. ester bond. D. ionic bond. E. hydrogen bond. 48. The alpha helix and beta pleated sheet are examples of A. primary structure. B. secondary structure. C. tertiary structure. D. quaternary structure. E. gamma structure.

reaction.


49. The polynucleotide strands of DNA are linked along their length by

bonds between the bases.

A. covalent B. ionic C. Van der Waals D. double E. hydrogen 50. Which of the following is/are hydrophilic? A. glucose B. vegetable oil C. butter D. cholesterol E. Vegetable oil, butter, and cholesterol are correct. 51. A covalent bond is formed between an anion and a cation. True False 52. Electrons that participate in chemical bonding are typically located closest to the nucleus. True False 53. Only charged atoms can form ionic bonds. True False 54. Water molecules are nonpolar molecules. True False 55. Polar molecules have more reactivity compared to nonpolar molecules. NURSINGTB.COM True False 56. Elements have predictable chemical properties. True False 57. The concentration of a solution expresses the amount of solvent present. True False 58. If solution A has a lower pH compared to solution B, then solution A is more acidic than solution B. True False 59. The only part of an amino acid that differs from other amino acids is its R group. True False 60. All proteins are enzymes. True False 61. Replication is the cellular process that copies the DNA prior to cell division. True False 62. Nucleic acids have primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary levels of organization. True False


63. The total number of protons and neutrons of an element establishes its 64. Atoms that gain or lose electrons become charged particles called

.

65. Protons and neutrons make up the atom's central core referred to as its 66. A solution is composed of one or more substances called dissolving medium called a .

.

that are uniformly dispersed in a

67. Organic chemicals always have a basic framework of the element 68.

number.

bonded to other atoms.

bonds are formed by dehydration synthesis between adjacent amino acids.

69. A fat is called hydrogens.

if all carbons of the fatty acid chain are single bonded to 2 other carbons and 2

70. Purines and pyrimidines are components in the building block units of all 71. During protein synthesis, genes in DNA are copied, making

.

RNA.

72. Certain antibiotics are effective against bacteria that cause human infections because they target prokaryotic ribosomes. Discuss, in detail, how the drug attacking a pathogen's ribosomes will affect the cell. Discuss at least three specific detrimental results. 73. Explain what radioisotopes are, and describe how they can be used to monitor the uptake of a specific biochemical by a microbial culture. NURSINGTB.COM 74. Compare and contrast the chemical and functional characteristics of DNA and RNA molecules. 75. Identify and provide specific examples of the classes of macromolecules that are associated with life. 76. Water, glucose, and carbon dioxide are examples of A. compounds. B. atoms. C. gases. D. macromolecules. 77. Which elements are found in all carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids? nitrogen carbon hydrogen oxygen phosphorus sulfur 78. Chemical analysis of an unidentified compound isolated from cells showed the presence of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and sulfur. This unknown compound is most likely a A. carbohydrate. B. nucleic acid. C. lipid. D. protein. 79. Select the incorrect statement.


A. Molecules contain atoms. B. Compounds may contain only one type of atom. C. Compounds contain molecules. D. Atoms are joined by chemical bonds forming molecules. E. Molecules may contain two of the same type of atom. 80. During cellular reactions, electrons may be removed from compounds such as glucose and picked up by a

+

coenzyme known as NAD . When NAD

+

gains these electrons, it is said to be

A. oxidized. B. reduced. C. synthesized. D. dehydrated. 81. A newly synthesized polypeptide that will ultimately form a cytoplasmic protein will most likely fold into a tertiary structure with its amino acid R-groups facing outward. A. hydrophilic B. hydrophobic 82. A newly synthesized polypeptide will ultimately be located within the phospholipid bilayer of the plasma membrane. When this polypeptide folds to form its tertiary structure, the amino acid R-groups will most likely be facing outward. A. hydrophilic B. hydrophobic

NURSINGTB.COM


Chapter 02 Testbank Key 1.

Anything that occupies space and has mass is called A. an electron. B. living. C. matter. D. energy. E. space. ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 1 Remember Learning Outcome: 02.01 Describe the properties of atoms and identify the relationships of the particles that they contain. Learning Outcome: 02.17 Identify functional groups and give some examples. Section: 02.01

2.

All of the following pertain to

14

Topic: Basic Chemistry

6C except it

A. has 6 protons. B. has 6 electrons. C. has 14 neutrons. D. is an isotope of carbon. E. has a mass number of 14. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 3 Apply Learning Outcome: 02.01 Describe the properties of atoms and identify the relationships of the particles that they contain. Section: 02.01 Topic: Basic Chemistry

3.

The electrons of an atom are A. always equal in number to the number of neutrons in an atom. B. found in the nucleus. C. used to determine atomic number. NURSINGTB.COM D. positively charged. E. moving in pathways called orbitals. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 1 Remember Learning Outcome: 02.01 Describe the properties of atoms and identify the relationships of the particles that they contain. Section: 02.01 Topic: Basic Chemistry

4.

The subatomic particles that surround the nucleus are the A. electrons. B. protons. C. neutrons. D. protons and neutrons. E. protons and electrons. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 1 Remember Learning Outcome: 02.01 Describe the properties of atoms and identify the relationships of the particles that they contain. Section: 02.01 Topic: Basic Chemistry

5.

What is the maximum number of electrons in the second energy shell of an atom? A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 18 E. 32 ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 1 Remember Learning Outcome: 02.05 Describe electron orbitals and energy shells and how they are filled.

Section: 02.01


Topic: Basic Chemistry

6.

Isotopes are atoms of the same element that differ in their A. neutron number. B. electron number. C. proton number. D. atomic number. E. chemical properties. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 1 Remember Learning Outcome: 02.02 Characterize elements and their isotopes.

Section: 02.01 Topic: Basic Chemistry

7.

Two or more atoms bonded together are called a/an A. ion. B. isotope. C. element. D. electrolyte. E. molecule. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 1 Remember

Learning Outcome: 02.06 Explain how elements make chemical bonds to form molecules and compounds. Learning Outcome: 02.07 State the relationship among an atom, molecule, and compound. Section: 02.02 Topic: Basic Chemistry

8.

What would be the valence number of electrons in the sulfur atom

32

16S?

A. 2 B. 6 C. 8 D. 16 E. 32 NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 3 Apply

Learning Outcome: 02.05 Describe electron orbitals and energy shells and how they are filled. Learning Outcome: 02.09 Summarize the concepts of valence, polarity, and diatomic elements.

Section: 02.02 Topic: Basic Chemistry

9.

Polar molecules are composed of covalently-bonded A. identical atoms. B. carbon atoms. C. ions. D. atoms of different electronegativity. E. atoms of identical electronegativity. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 2 Understand Learning Outcome: 02.08 Identify the differences between covalent, ionic, and hydrogen bonds. Learning Outcome: 02.09 Summarize the concepts of valence, polarity, and diatomic elements.

Section: 02.02 Topic: Basic Chemistry

10.

Reactions involving electron removal are called

reactions.

A. oxidation B. reduction C. dehydration D. decomposition E. dissolution ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 2 Understand Learning Outcome: 02.11 Compare oxidation and reduction and their effects. Section: 02.02 Topic: Basic Chemistry


11.

Which of the following represents a synthesis reaction? A. AB → A + B B. A + B → AB C. AB + XY → AX + BY D. AB + XY ↔ AX + BY ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 3 Apply Learning Outcome: 02.06 Explain how elements make chemical bonds to form molecules and compounds. Learning Outcome: 02.12 Classify different forms of chemical shorthand and types of reactions.

Section: 02.03 Topic: Basic Chemistry

12.

The important solvent associated with living things is A. carbon dioxide. B. sodium chloride. C. ethyl alcohol. D. benzene. E. water. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 2 Understand Learning Outcome: 02.13 Explain solutes, solvents, and hydration.

Section: 02.03 Topic: Basic Chemistry

13.

What do H2O, NaCl, CO2, and HCl all have in common?

A. All are salts. B. All are acids. C. All are gases. D. All are inorganic. E. All are solutes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's: Level 4 Analyze NURSINGTB.COM Learning Outcome: 02.16 Describe the chemistry of carbon and the difference between inorganic and organic compounds. Section: 02.05

Topic: Basic Chemistry

14.

Which term does not belong in this list? A. lactic acid B. vinegar C. hydrogen ion donor D. pH 8 E. acidic ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 2 Understand Learning Outcome: 02.15 Describe the pH scale and how it was derived; define acid, base, and neutral levels. Section: 02.03 Topic: Basic Chemistry

15.

Compared to a solution of pH 9, a solution of pH 7 A. is more basic. B. has no OH ions. +

C. has more H ions.

D. has a higher pH. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 3 Apply Learning Outcome: 02.15 Describe the pH scale and how it was derived; define acid, base, and neutral levels. Section: 02.03 Topic: Basic Chemistry


16.

The building blocks of an enzyme are A. nucleotides. B. glycerol and fatty acids. C. monosaccharides. D. phosphate, glycerol, fatty acids. E. amino acids. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 1 Remember Learning Outcome: 02.18 Define macromolecule, polymer, and monomer.

Learning Outcome: 02.25 Describe the structure of peptides and polypeptides and how their bonds form. Learning Outcome: 02.27 Summarize some of the essential functions of proteins. Section: 02.04 Topic: Biochemistry

17.

Cations are A. charged subatomic particles. B. atoms that have gained electrons. C. radioactive isotopes. D. capable of forming ionic bonds with anions. E. atoms without protons. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 2 Understand Learning Outcome: 02.06 Explain how elements make chemical bonds to form molecules and compounds. Learning Outcome: 02.10 Describe ionization and distinguish between anions and cations.

Section: 02.02 Topic: Basic Chemistry

18.

Which of the following functional groups is mismatched to the organic compound? A. phosphate – carbohydrates B. sulfhydryl – proteins C. amino – proteins D. hydroxyl – alcohols E. carboxyl – fatty acids ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 1 Remember Learning Outcome: 02.16 Describe the chemistry of carbon and the difference between inorganic and organic compounds. Learning Outcome: 02.17 Identify functional groups and give some examples. Learning Outcome: 02.19 Define carbohydrate and know the functional groups that characterize carbohydrates. Section: 02.04 Topic: Basic Chemistry Topic: Biochemistry

NURSINGTB.COM

19.

All of the following are monosaccharides except A. glucose. B. glycogen. C. fructose. D. ribose. E. deoxyribose.

20.

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 1 Remember Learning Outcome: 02.20 Distinguish among mono-, di-, and polysaccharides, and describe how their bonds are made. Section: 02.05 Topic: Biochemistry

All of the following are lipids except A. cholesterol. B. starch. C. phospholipid. D. wax. E. triglyceride. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 1 Remember

Learning Outcome: 02.22 Define lipid, triglyceride, phospholipid, fatty acid, and cholesterol. Section: 02.06 Topic: Biochemistry


21.

A monosaccharide with 5 carbon atoms will have

hydrogen atoms and

oxygen atoms.

A. 10; 5 B. 5; 10 C. 5; 5 D. 10; 10 E. 2; 1 ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 3 Apply Learning Outcome: 02.19 Define carbohydrate and know the functional groups that characterize carbohydrates. Learning Outcome: 02.20 Distinguish among mono-, di-, and polysaccharides, and describe how their bonds are made. Section: 02.05

Topic: Biochemistry

22.

One nucleotide contains A. one phosphate. B. one pentose. C. one nitrogen base. D. All of these choices are correct. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 1 Remember Learning Outcome: 02.29 Describe the structures of nucleotides and list the nitrogen bases.

23.

Section: 02.08 Topic: Biochemistry

Which of the following would have glycosidic bonds? A. triglycerides B. monosaccharides C. polypeptides D. polysaccharides E. ATP

24.

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 2 Understand Learning Outcome: 02.20 DistingN uU ishRaSm IN onG gTmBo.nC oO -, M di-, and polysaccharides, and describe how their bonds are made. Section: 02.05 Topic: Biochemistry

All of the following are polysaccharides, except A. dextran in some bacterial slime layers. B. agar used to make solid culture media. C. a cell's glycocalyx. D. cellulose in certain cell walls. E. prostaglandins in inflammation. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 1 Remember Learning Outcome: 02.20 Distinguish among mono-, di-, and polysaccharides, and describe how their bonds are made. Learning Outcome: 02.21 Discuss the functions of carbohydrates in cells. Section: 02.05

Topic: Biochemistry

25.

The hydrophobic tails of a phospholipid are composed of A. fatty acids. B. glycerol. C. phosphate. D. alcohol. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 2 Understand Learning Outcome: 02.14 Differentiate between hydrophilic and hydrophobic.

Learning Outcome: 02.22 Define lipid, triglyceride, phospholipid, fatty acid, and cholesterol. Section: 02.06 Topic: Biochemistry


26.

ICARbOuBt InOoLt O YN1A0?TH Which of the fF oO lloUwNinDgAisTIfO ouNnSdIiN nM DN inGR A. ribose B. adenine C. thymine D. uracil E. nucleotides ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 1 Remember Learning Outcome: 02.28 Identify a nucleic acid and differentiate between DNA and RNA. Learning Outcome: 02.29 Describe the structures of nucleotides and list the nitrogen bases.

27.

Section: 02.08 Topic: Biochemistry

An amino acid contains all of the following except A. an amino group. B. a carboxyl group. C. a variable R group. D. a carbon atom. E. a nitrogenous base.

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 2 Understand Learning Outcome: 02.25 Describe the structure of peptides and polypeptides and how their bonds form. Section: 02.07 Topic: Biochemistry

28.

ATP is best described as A. an enzyme. B. a double helix. C. an electron carrier. D. the energy molecule of cells. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 2 Understand

Learning Outcome: 02.29 Describe the structures of nucleotides and list the nitrogen bases.

NURSINGTB.COM 29.

Section: 02.08 Topic: Biochemistry

Which amino acid contains sulfur atoms that form covalent disulfide bonds and stabilize the tertiary structure of some proteins? A. valine B. cysteine C. serine D. alanine E. tyrosine ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 1 Remember

Learning Outcome: 02.25 Describe the structure of peptides and polypeptides and how their bonds form. Learning Outcome: 02.26 Characterize the four levels of protein structure and describe the pattern of folding.

Section: 02.07 Topic: Biochemistry

30.

The nucleic acid that delivers the correct amino acid to the ribosome for protein synthesis is A. rRNA. B. DNA. C. tRNA. D. mRNA. E. ATP.

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom's: Level 2 Understand Learning Outcome: 02.30 Explain how the DNA code may be copied, and describe the basic functions of RNA. Section: 02.08

Topic: Biochemistry


31.

Which is not true about enzymes? A. Enzymes are found in all cells. B. Enzymes are catalysts. C. Enzymes participate in the cell's chemical reactions. D. Enzymes can be denatured by heat and other agents. E. Enzymes have high-energy bonds between phosphates. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 2 Understand Learning Outcome: 02.26 Characterize the four levels of protein structure and describe the pattern of folding.

32.

Learning Outcome: 02.27 Summarize some of the essential functions of proteins. Section: 02.07 Topic: Biochemistry

The weak, attractive force between water molecules is due to A. hydrogen bonds. B. covalent bonds. C. ionic bonds. D. peptide bonds. E. glycosidic bonds.

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 2 Understand Learning Outcome: 02.08 Identify the differences between covalent, ionic, and hydrogen bonds.

Section: 02.02 Topic: Basic Chemistry

33.

The purine bases in nucleic acids include A. thymine and cytosine. B. guanine and adenine. C. cytosine and guanine. D. adenine and thymine. E. ribose and deoxyribose.

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria,

NURSINGTB.COM

Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom's: Level 1 Remember

Learning Outcome: 02.29 Describe the structures of nucleotides and list the nitrogen bases. Section: 02.08

Topic: Biochemistry

34.

A student forgot to label a beaker containing a DNA solution and a beaker containing a glucose solution. If chemical analysis was performed to identify the contents of each beaker, which of the following would be found in the beaker of DNA but not in the beaker with glucose? A. amino acids B. hydrogen and oxygen atoms C. nitrogen and phosphorus D. fatty acids E. carbon atoms ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 3 Apply Learning Outcome: 02.04 List the major elements that are associated with life. Learning Outcome: 02.19 Define carbohydrate and know the functional groups that characterize carbohydrates. Learning Outcome: 02.28 Identify a nucleic acid and differentiate between DNA and RNA. Learning Outcome: 02.29 Describe the structures of nucleotides and list the nitrogen bases.

Section: 02.05 Section: 02.08 Topic: Biochemistry

35.

The atomic number equals the number of A. neutrons B. protons C. protons plus electrons D. neutrons plus protons

in an atom.


ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 1 Remember Learning Outcome: 02.03 Explain the differences between atomic number, mass number, and atomic weight.

Section: 02.01 Topic: Basic Chemistry

36.

C6H12O6 + C6H12O6 →C12H22O11 + H2O is an example of A. formation of a peptide bond. B. a decomposition reaction. C. denaturation. D. a hydrolytic reaction. E. dehydration synthesis. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 3 Apply Learning Outcome: 02.12 Classify different forms of chemical shorthand and types of reactions. Learning Outcome: 02.18 Define macromolecule, polymer, and monomer. Learning Outcome: 02.20 Distinguish among mono-, di-, and polysaccharides, and describe how their bonds are made. Section: 02.05 Topic: Basic Chemistry Topic: Biochemistry

37.

If carbon has an atomic number of 6 and an atomic mass of 14, how many neutrons does it have? A. 6 B. 7 C. 8 D. 14 E. There is not enough information to determine this. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 3 Apply Learning Outcome: 02.01 Describe the properties of atoms and identify the relationships of the particles that they contain. Learning Outcome: 02.03 Explain the differences between atomic number, mass number, and atomic weight. Section: 02.01

Topic: Basic Chemistry

38.

The neutrons of an atom are

NURSINGTB.COM

A. always equal to the number of protons in an atom. B. found in the nucleus. C. used to determine atomic number. D. positively charged. E. moving in pathways called orbitals. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 1 Remember Learning Outcome: 02.01 Describe the properties of atoms and identify the relationships of the particles that they contain. Section: 02.01 Topic: Basic Chemistry

39.

Which of the following represents an exchange reaction? A. AB → A + B B. A + B → AB C. X + Y → XYD D. AB + XY ↔ AX + BY ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 3 Apply Learning Outcome: 02.12 Classify different forms of chemical shorthand and types of reactions.

Section: 02.03 Topic: Basic Chemistry

40.

Jim needs to prepare one liter of a 4% NaCl solution. How much NaCl should he weigh out? A. 0.4 grams B. 4.0 grams C. 40 grams D. 400 grams


ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's: Level 3 Apply Learning Outcome: 02.13 Explain solutes, solvents, and hydration.

Section: 02.03 Topic: Basic Chemistry

41.

How many times more acidic is a solution with a pH of 3 than a solution with a pH of 6? A. 3 B. 10 C. 1000 D. 36 E. 63 ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 3 Apply Learning Outcome: 02.15 Describe the pH scale and how it was derived; define acid, base, and neutral levels. Section: 02.03 Topic: Basic Chemistry

42.

Which of the following carbohydrates is found in dairy products? A. lactose B. sucrose C. maltose D. glucose E. fructose ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 1 Remember Learning Outcome: 02.20 Distinguish among mono-, di-, and polysaccharides, and describe how their bonds are made. Learning Outcome: 02.21 Discuss the functions of carbohydrates in cells. Section: 02.05

Topic: Biochemistry

43.

Which of the following is the stored form of carbohydrates in animals? A. glycogen B. maltose C. starch D. cellulose E. galactose

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 1 Remember Learning Outcome: 02.20 Distinguish among mono-, di-, and polysaccharides, and describe how their bonds are made. Learning Outcome: 02.21 Discuss the functions of carbohydrates in cells. Section: 02.05

44.

Topic: Biochemistry

All of the following are correct about triglycerides, except A. triglycerides are insoluble in water. B. triglycerides are a concentrated source of energy. C. unsaturated triglycerides are solid at room temperature. D. triglycerides dissolve in nonpolar solvents. E. triglycerides are hydrolyzed by lipases. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 2 Understand Learning Outcome: 02.22 Define lipid, triglyceride, phospholipid, fatty acid, and cholesterol. Learning Outcome: 02.24 Discuss major functions of lipids in cells.

Section: 02.06 Topic: Biochemistry

45.

Which of the following functional groups participate in the formation of an ester bond? A. hydroxyl group and amino group B. carboxyl group and amino group C. hydroxyl group and carboxyl group D. hydroxyl group and carbonyl group ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 2 Understand


Learning Outcome: 02.23 Describe how an ester bond is formed. Section: 02.06 Topic: Biochemistry

46.

The chemical reaction that forms an ester bond in a triglyceride is a

reaction.

A. dehydration synthesis B. oxidation C. hydrolysis D. reduction ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 2 Understand Learning Outcome: 02.23 Describe how an ester bond is formed. Section: 02.06 Topic: Biochemistry

47.

The type of chemical bond linking amino acids together is a(n) A. glycosidic bond. B. peptide bond. C. ester bond. D. ionic bond. E. hydrogen bond. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 1 Remember

Learning Outcome: 02.25 Describe the structure of peptides and polypeptides and how their bonds form. Section: 02.07 Topic: Biochemistry

48.

The alpha helix and beta pleated sheet are examples of A. primary structure. B. secondary structure. C. tertiary structure. D. quaternary structure. E. gamma structure. NURSINGTB.COM ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 1 Remember Learning Outcome: 02.26 Characterize the four levels of protein structure and describe the pattern of folding.

Section: 02.07 Topic: Biochemistry

49.

The polynucleotide strands of DNA are linked along their length by

bonds between the bases.

A. covalent B. ionic C. Van der Waals D. double E. hydrogen ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 1 Remember Learning Outcome: 02.08 Identify the differences between covalent, ionic, and hydrogen bonds. Learning Outcome: 02.28 Identify a nucleic acid and differentiate between DNA and RNA. Learning Outcome: 02.29 Describe the structures of nucleotides and list the nitrogen bases.

50.

Which of the following is/are hydrophilic?

Section: 02.08 Topic: Biochemistry

A. glucose B. vegetable oil C. butter D. cholesterol E. Vegetable oil, butter, and cholesterol are correct. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 3 Apply Learning Outcome: 02.14 Differentiate between hydrophilic and hydrophobic. Learning Outcome: 02.19 Define carbohydrate and know the functional groups that characterize carbohydrates. Learning Outcome: 02.24 Discuss major functions of lipids in cells.


Section: 02.03 Topic: Biochemistry

51.

A covalent bond is formed between an anion and a cation. FALSE ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 2 Understand Learning Outcome: 02.06 Explain how elements make chemical bonds to form molecules and compounds. Learning Outcome: 02.10 Describe ionization and distinguish between anions and cations.

Section: 02.02 Topic: Basic Chemistry

52.

Electrons that participate in chemical bonding are typically located closest to the nucleus. FALSE ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 2 Understand Learning Outcome: 02.05 Describe electron orbitals and energy shells and how they are filled.

Learning Outcome: 02.06 Explain how elements make chemical bonds to form molecules and compounds. Learning Outcome: 02.09 Summarize the concepts of valence, polarity, and diatomic elements.

Section: 02.02 Topic: Basic Chemistry

53.

Only charged atoms can form ionic bonds.

TRUE ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 2 Understand Learning Outcome: 02.08 Identify the differences between covalent, ionic, and hydrogen bonds. Learning Outcome: 02.10 Describe ionization and distinguish between anions and cations.

Section: 02.02 Topic: Basic Chemistry

54.

Water molecules are nonpolar molecules. FALSE

NURSINGTB.COM ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 2 Understand Learning Outcome: 02.09 Summarize the concepts of valence, polarity, and diatomic elements.

Section: 02.02 Topic: Basic Chemistry

55.

Polar molecules have more reactivity compared to nonpolar molecules. TRUE ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 2 Understand Learning Outcome: 02.09 Summarize the concepts of valence, polarity, and diatomic elements.

Section: 02.02 Topic: Basic Chemistry

56.

Elements have predictable chemical properties. TRUE ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 2 Understand Learning Outcome: 02.02 Characterize elements and their isotopes.

Section: 02.01 Topic: Basic Chemistry

57.

The concentration of a solution expresses the amount of solvent present. FALSE ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 2 Understand Learning Outcome: 02.13 Explain solutes, solvents, and hydration.

Section: 02.03 Topic: Basic Chemistry

58.

If solution A has a lower pH compared to solution B, then solution A is more acidic than solution B.


TRUE ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 2 Understand Learning Outcome: 02.15 Describe the pH scale and how it was derived; define acid, base, and neutral levels. Section: 02.03 Topic: Basic Chemistry

59.

The only part of an amino acid that differs from other amino acids is its R group. TRUE ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 2 Understand Learning Outcome: 02.25 Describe the structure of peptides and polypeptides and how their bonds form. Section: 02.07 Topic: Biochemistry

60.

All proteins are enzymes. FALSE ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 2 Understand Learning Outcome: 02.27 Summarize some of the essential functions of proteins. Section: 02.07 Topic: Biochemistry

61.

Replication is the cellular process that copies the DNA prior to cell division. TRUE

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom's: Level 2 Understand Learning Outcome: 02.30 Explain how the DNA code may be copied, and describe the basic functions of RNA. Section: 02.08

Topic: Biochemistry

62.

GT Mary levels of organization. Nucleic acids have primary, secondary, terN tiaUrR y,SaIN nd qB ua.CteOrn FALSE ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 2 Understand Learning Outcome: 02.26 Characterize the four levels of protein structure and describe the pattern of folding. Learning Outcome: 02.28 Identify a nucleic acid and differentiate between DNA and RNA.

Section: 02.08 Topic: Biochemistry

63.

The total number of protons and neutrons of an element establishes its

number.

mass ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 1 Remember Learning Outcome: 02.03 Explain the differences between atomic number, mass number, and atomic weight.

Section: 02.01 Topic: Basic Chemistry

64.

Atoms that gain or lose electrons become charged particles called

.

ions ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 1 Remember Learning Outcome: 02.10 Describe ionization and distinguish between anions and cations.

Section: 02.02 Topic: Basic Chemistry

65.

Protons and neutrons make up the atom's central core referred to as its

.

nucleus ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 1 Remember


Learning Outcome: 02.01 Describe the properties of atoms and identify the relationships of the particles that they contain. Section: 02.01 Topic: Basic Chemistry

66.

A solution is composed of one or more substances called dissolving medium called a .

that are uniformly dispersed in a

solutes ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 1 Remember Learning Outcome: 02.13 Explain solutes, solvents, and hydration.

Section: 02.03 Topic: Basic Chemistry

67.

Organic chemicals always have a basic framework of the element atoms.

bonded to other

carbon ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 1 Remember Learning Outcome: 02.16 Describe the chemistry of carbon and the difference between inorganic and organic compounds. Section: 02.04 Topic: Basic Chemistry Topic: Biochemistry

68.

bonds are formed by dehydration synthesis between adjacent amino acids. Peptide ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 1 Remember

Learning Outcome: 02.25 Describe the structure of peptides and polypeptides and how their bonds form. Section: 02.07 Topic: Biochemistry

69.

A fat is called hydrogens.

saturated

if all carbons of the fatty acid chain are single bonded to 2 other carbons and 2

NURSINGTB.COM ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 2 Understand Learning Outcome: 02.24 Discuss major functions of lipids in cells.

70.

Purines and pyrimidines are components in the building block units of all

Section: 02.06 Topic:

nucleic acids ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 1 Remember Learning Outcome: 02.29 Describe the structures of nucleotides and list the nitrogen bases.

Section: 02.08 Topic: Biochemistry

71.

During protein synthesis, genes in DNA are copied, making

RNA.

messenger; m; M ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom's: Level 2 Understand Learning Outcome: 02.30 Explain how the DNA code may be copied, and describe the basic functions of RNA. Section: 02.08

Topic: Biochemistry

72.

Certain antibiotics are effective against bacteria that cause human infections because they target prokaryotic ribosomes. Discuss, in detail, how the drug attacking a pathogen's ribosomes will affect the cell. Discuss at least three specific detrimental results.


ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage infection.

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom's: Level 3 Apply Learning Outcome: 02.27 Summarize some of the essential functions of proteins. Learning Outcome: 02.30 Explain how the DNA code may be copied, and describe the basic functions of RNA. Section: 02.08

Topic: Biochemistry

73.

Explain what radioisotopes are, and describe how they can be used to monitor the uptake of a specific biochemical by a microbial culture. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's: Level 3 Apply Learning Outcome: 02.02 Characterize elements and their isotopes.

Section: 02.01 Topic: Basic Chemistry

74.

Compare and contrast the chemical and functional characteristics of DNA and RNA molecules.

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom's: Level 2 Understand Learning Outcome: 02.28 Identify a nucleic acid and differentiate between DNA and RNA. Section: 02.08

Topic: Biochemistry

75.

Identify and provide specific examples of the classes of macromolecules that are associated with life. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 2 Understand Learning Outcome: 02.04 List the major elements that are associated with life. Learning Outcome: 02.18 Define macromolecule, polymer, and monomer. Learning Outcome: 02.19 Define carbohydrate and know the functional groups that characterize carbohydrates.

Learning Outcome: 02.22 Define lipid, triglyceride, phospholipid, fatty acid, and cholesterol. Learning Outcome: 02.25 Describe the structure of peptides and polypeptides and how their bonds form. Learning Outcome: 02.28 Identify a nucleic acid and differentiate between DNA and RNA.

Section: 02.05 Section: 02.06 Section: 02.07 Section: 02.08 Topic: Biochemistry

NURSINGTB.COM

76.

Water, glucose, and carbon dioxide are examples of A. compounds. B. atoms. C. gases. D. macromolecules. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 3 Apply Learning Outcome: 02.07 State the relationship among an atom, molecule, and compound. Section: 02.01 Topic: Basic Chemistry

77.

Which elements are found in all carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids? nitrogen carbon hydrogen oxygen phosphorus sulfur ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 2 Understand Learning Outcome: 02.04 List the major elements that are associated with life.

Section: 02.01 Topic: Biochemistry

78.

Chemical analysis of an unidentified compound isolated from cells showed the presence of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and sulfur. This unknown compound is most likely a


A. carbohydrate. B. nucleic acid. C. lipid. D. protein. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 3 Apply Learning Outcome: 02.04 List the major elements that are associated with life.

Learning Outcome: 02.25 Describe the structure of peptides and polypeptides and how their bonds form. Section: 02.01 Section: 02.07

79.

Select the incorrect statement. A. Molecules contain atoms. B. Compounds may contain only one type of atom. C. Compounds contain molecules. D. Atoms are joined by chemical bonds forming molecules. E. Molecules may contain two of the same type of atom.

80.

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 2 Understand Learning Outcome: 02.07 State the relationship among an atom, molecule, and compound. Section: 02.02 Topic: Basic Chemistry

During cellular reactions, electrons may be removed from compounds such as glucose and picked up by

+

+

a coenzyme known as NAD . When NAD gains these electrons, it is said to be A. oxidized. B. reduced. C. synthesized. D. dehydrated.

81.

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 3 Apply Learning Outcome: 02.11 Compare oxidation and reduction and their effects. Section: 02.02 Topic: Basic Chemistry NURSINGTB.COM

A newly synthesized polypeptide that will ultimately form a cytoplasmic protein will most likely fold into a tertiary structure with its amino acid R-groups facing outward. A. hydrophilic B. hydrophobic

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 3 Apply Learning Outcome: 02.14 Differentiate between hydrophilic and hydrophobic. Learning Outcome: 02.26 Characterize the four levels of protein structure and describe the pattern of folding.

Section: 02.03 Section: 02.07 Topic: Biochemistry

82.

A newly synthesized polypeptide will ultimately be located within the phospholipid bilayer of the plasma membrane. When this polypeptide folds to form its tertiary structure, the amino acid R-groups will most likely be facing outward. A. hydrophilic B. hydrophobic ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level 3 Apply Learning Outcome: 02.14 Differentiate between hydrophilic and hydrophobic. Learning Outcome: 02.26 Characterize the four levels of protein structure and describe the pattern of folding.

Section: 02.03 Section: 02.07 Topic: Biochemistry


Chapter 02 Testbank Summary Category

# of Questions

ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage inf ection. ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes.

1

ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems.

1

ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

2

ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products.

1

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function

81

ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow

6

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems

1

ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills

2

Bloom's: Level 1 Remember

29

Bloom's: Level 2 Understand

33

Bloom's: Level 3 Apply

19

Bloom's: Level 4 Analyze Learning Outcome: 02.01 Describe the properties of atoms and identify the relationships of the particles that they con tain.

1 7

Learning Outcome: 02.02 Characterize elements and their isotopes.

3

Learning Outcome: 02.03 Explain the differences between atomic number, mass number, and atomic weight.

3

Learning Outcome: 02.04 List the major elements that are associated with life.

4

Learning Outcome: 02.05 Describe electron orbitals and energy shells and how they are filled.

3

Learning Outcome: 02.06 Explain how elements make chemical bonds to form molecules and compounds.

5

Learning Outcome: 02.07 State the relationship among an atom, molecule, and compound. Learning Outcome: 02.08 Identify the differences between covalent, ionic, and hydrogen bonds.

3 4

Learning Outcome: 02.09 Summarize the concepts of vaNleUnR ceS,IN poGlaTrB ity.,CaOnM d diatomic elements.

5

Learning Outcome: 02.10 Describe ionization and distinguish between anions and cations.

4

Learning Outcome: 02.11 Compare oxidation and reduction and their effects.

2

Learning Outcome: 02.12 Classify different forms of chemical shorthand and types of reactions.

3

Learning Outcome: 02.13 Explain solutes, solvents, and hydration.

4

Learning Outcome: 02.14 Differentiate between hydrophilic and hydrophobic.

4

Learning Outcome: 02.15 Describe the pH scale and how it was derived; define acid, base, and neutral levels. Learning Outcome: 02.16 Describe the chemistry of carbon and the difference between inorganic and organic compo unds.

4 3

Learning Outcome: 02.17 Identify functional groups and give some examples.

2

Learning Outcome: 02.18 Define macromolecule, polymer, and monomer.

3

Learning Outcome: 02.19 Define carbohydrate and know the functional groups that characterize carbohydrates. Learning Outcome: 02.20 Distinguish among mono-, di-, and polysaccharides, and describe how their bonds are mad e.

5 7

Learning Outcome: 02.21 Discuss the functions of carbohydrates in cells.

3

Learning Outcome: 02.22 Define lipid, triglyceride, phospholipid, fatty acid, and cholesterol.

4

Learning Outcome: 02.23 Describe how an ester bond is formed.

2

Learning Outcome: 02.24 Discuss major functions of lipids in cells.

3

Learning Outcome: 02.25 Describe the structure of peptides and polypeptides and how their bonds form.

8

Learning Outcome: 02.26 Characterize the four levels of protein structure and describe the pattern of folding.

6

Learning Outcome: 02.27 Summarize some of the essential functions of proteins.

4

Learning Outcome: 02.28 Identify a nucleic acid and differentiate between DNA and RNA.

6

Learning Outcome: 02.29 Describe the structures of nucleotides and list the nitrogen bases.

7

Learning Outcome: 02.30 Explain how the DNA code may be copied, and describe the basic functions of RNA. Section: 02.01

4 16

1 6


Section: 02.02 Section: 02.03 Section: 02.04

14 13 3

Section: 02.05

10

Section: 02.06

7

Section: 02.07

12

Section: 02.08

14

Topic: Basic Chemistry Topic: Biochemistry

42 42


NURSINGTB.COM

.


Chapter 03 Testbank

FOUNDATIONS IN MICROBIOLOGY 10TH EDITION TALARO

Student:

1.

Syphilis is diagnosed either with microscopy or serology because the causative agent (Treponema pallidum) does not grow on any microbiological media. Which term best describes this aspect of the T. pallidum? A. Fastidious B. Nonculturable C. Commensalistic D. Symbiotic

2.

The Six "I's" of studying microorganisms include all of the following except A. inoculation. B. incubation. C. infection. D. isolation. E. identification.

3.

All of the following are examples of different types of microbiological media except A. broth. B. enriched. C. agar. D. Petri dish. E. gelatin.

4.

Which of the following is essential for development of discrete, isolated colonies? A. broth medium B. differential medium C. selective medium D. solid medium E. assay medium

5.

NURSINGTB.COM

The term that refers to the purposeful addition of microorganisms into a laboratory nutrient medium is A. isolation. B. inoculation. C. immunization. D. infection. E. contamination.

6.

A pure culture contains only A. one species of microorganism. B. bacteria. C. a variety of microbes from one source. D. All of these choices are correct.

7.

Which of the following will result when 1% to 5% agar is added to nutrient broth, boiled and cooled? A. a pure culture B. a mixed culture C. a solid medium D. a liquid medium E. a contaminated medium

8.

A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus aureus into a culture medium. Following incubation, both Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis are determined to be growing in this culture. What is the most likely explanation? A. The microbiologist used too much inoculum. B. The culture is contaminated.


mN pD erA aT tuIrOeNwSaIsNinM co ctB . IOLOGY 10TH EDITION TALARO TEST BANK C. The incubationFtOeU ICrrReO D. The culture medium must be selective. E. The culture medium must be differential. 9.

A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus epidermidis and Escherichia coli into a culture medium. Following incubation, only the E. coli grows in the culture. What is the most likely explanation? A. The microbiologist used too much inoculum. B. The culture is contaminated. C. The incubation temperature was incorrect. D. The culture medium must be selective. E. The culture medium must be differential.

10. Which method often results in colonies developing down throughout the agar and some colonies on the surface? A. streak plate B. spread plate C. pour plate D. All of these choices are correct. 11. A common medium used for growing fastidious bacteria is A. chocolate agar. B. trypticase soy agar. C. mannitol salt agar. D. MacConkey medium. E. a reducing medium. 12. A reducing medium contains A. sugars that can be fermented. B. extra oxygen. C. hemoglobin, vitamins, or other growth factors. D. substances that remove oxygen. E. inhibiting agents. NURSINGTB.COM 13. A nutrient medium that has all of its chemical components identified and their precise concentrations known and reproducible would be termed A. complex. B. reducing. C. enriched. D. enumeration. E. synthetic. 14. Which type of medium is able to distinguish different species or types of microorganisms based on an observable change in the colonies or in the medium? A. differential B. selective C. enumeration D. enriched E. reducing 15. A microbiologist decides to use a nutrient medium that contains thioglycolic acid. What type of microbe is she attempting to culture? A. fastidious B. gram positive C. anaerobe D. gram negative E. virus 16. Mannitol salt agar is selective for which bacterial genus?

A. Salmonella


B. StreptococcusFOUNDATIONS IN MICROBIOLOGY 10TH EDITION TALARO TEST BANK C. Neisseria D. Staphylococcus E. Escherichia 17. A microbiologist must culture a patient's feces for intestinal pathogens. Which of the following would likely be present in selective media for analyzing this fecal specimen? A. NaCl B. sheep red blood cells C. bile salts D. thioglycolic acid E. peptone 18. Which of the following characteristics refers to the microscope's ability to show two separate entities as separate and distinct? A. resolving power B. magnification C. refraction D. All of these choices are correct. 19. Which of the following magnifies the specimen to produce the real image of the specimen? A. condenser B. objective lens C. ocular lens D. body E. nosepiece 20. If a microbiologist is studying a specimen at a total magnification of 950X, what is the magnifying power of the objective lens if the ocular lens is 10X? A. 100X B. 950X C. 85X D. 850X E. 95X

NURSINGTB.COM

21. The wavelength of light used plus the numerical aperture governs A. illumination. B. resolution. C. magnification. D. size of the field. E. All of these choices are correct.

22. All of the following are diameters of cells that would be resolved in a microscope with a limit of resolution of 0.2 µm except

A. 0.2 µm. B. 0.2 mm. C. 0.1 µm. D. 0.3 µm. E. 2.0 µm. 23. The type of microscope in which you would see brightly illuminated specimens against a black background is A. bright-field. B. dark-field. C. phase-contrast. D. fluorescence. E. electron. 24. Which microscope does not use light in forming the specimen image?


A. bright-field FOUNDATIONS IN MICROBIOLOGY 10TH EDITION TALARO TEST BANK B. dark-field C. phase-contrast D. fluorescence E. electron 25. Which microscope achieves the greatest resolution and highest magnification? A. bright-field B. dark-field C. phase-contrast D. fluorescence E. electron 26. Which microscope shows cells against a bright background and the intracellular structures of unstained cells based on their varying densities? A. bright-field B. dark-field C. phase-contrast D. fluorescence E. electron 27. Which microscope is the most widely used to show stained cells against a bright background? A. bright-field B. dark-field C. phase-contrast D. fluorescence E. electron 28. Which is incorrect about chocolate agar? A. It can be used to cultivate Neisseria. B. It usually uses sheep blood that has been heated. C. It has chocolate extract in it. NURSINGTB.COM D. It is an enriched medium. E. It is used to grow fastidious bacteria. 29. All of the following pertain to the fluorescence microscope except it A. uses electrons to produce a specimen image. B. is a type of compound microscope. C. requires the use of dyes like acridine and fluorescein. D. is commonly used to diagnose certain infections. E. requires an ultraviolet radiation source. 30. Which microscope bombards a whole, metal-coated specimen with electrons moving back and forth over it? A. fluorescence B. differential interference contrast C. scanning electron D. transmission electron E. phase-contrast 31. The specimen preparation that is best for viewing cell motility is A. hanging drop. B. fixed-stained smear. C. Gram stain. D. negative stain. E. flagellar stain. 32. The primary purpose of staining cells on a microscope slide is to A. kill them.


thU eNsD lidAeT. IONS IN MICROBIOLOGY 10TH EDITION TALARO TEST BANK B. secure them toFO C. enlarge the cells. D. add contrast in order to see them better. E. see motility. 33. The Gram stain, acid-fast stain, and endospore stain

.

A. are used on a wet mount of the specimen B. use heat to force the dye into cell structures C. have outcomes based on cell wall differences D. use a negative stain technique E. are differential stains 34. Basic dyes are A. attracted to the acidic substances of bacterial cells. B. anionic. C. used in negative staining. D. repelled by cells. E. dyes such as India ink and nigrosin. 35. A microbiologist makes a fixed smear of bacterial cells and stains them with Loeffler's methylene blue. All the cells appear blue under the oil lens. This is an example of A. negative staining. B. using an acidic dye. C. simple staining. D. using the acid-fast stain. E. capsule staining. 36. Media that contains extracts from plants, animals, or yeasts are A. synthetic. B. complex. C. reducing. D. enriched. E. All of these choices are correct.

NURSINGTB.COM

37. Brain-heart infusion, trypticase soy agar (TSA), and nutrient agar are all examples of which type of media? A. synthetic B. reducing C. enriched D. complex E. selective 38. Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex organic substances are called A. fastidious. B. pathogenic. C. harmless. D. anaerobic. E. aerobic. 39. A media is designed that allows only staphylococci to grow. In addition, S. aureus colonies have a yellow halo around them and other staphylococci appear white. This type of media is A. selective only. B. differential only. C. both selective and differential. D. a reducing media. E. enriched. 40. All of the following are examples of basic dyes except A. methylene blue. B. nigrosin.


C. crystal violet. FOUNDATIONS IN MICROBIOLOGY 10TH EDITION TALARO TEST BANK D. safranin. E. carbol fuchsin. 41. Which type of media can be used to determine if a bacteria is motile? A. SIM B. MacConkey C. enriched media D. Thayer-Martin media E. chocolate agar

42. All of the following are correct about agar except A. it is flexible. ° B. it melts at the boiling point of water (100 C). C. it is a source of nutrition for bacteria. ° D. it solidifies below 42 C. E. it is solid at room temperature. 43. Which of the following media is useful for cultivating fungi? A. Sabouraud's agar B. MacConkey agar C. tomato juice agar D. phenylethanol agar E. Mueller tellurite 44. Which of the following places the steps for microbial culture and identification in the correct order? A. inoculation, incubation, isolation, inspection, identification B. isolation, inspection, inoculation, incubation, identification C. incubation, inspection, isolation, identification, inoculation D. inspection, identification, isolation, incubation, inoculation E. inspection, isolation, incubation, inoculation, identification NURSINGTB.COM ng specimens under th 45. Why is immersion oil often used when viewi

e microscope?

A. to stain the cells blue B. to prevent the smear from drying out C. to slow bacterial movement so you can see cells better D. to increase the resolution E. to reduce the amount of heat reaching the slide from the light source 46. The procedure for culturing a microorganism requires the use of a microscope. True False 47. One colony typically develops from the growth of several parent bacterial cells. True False 48. Some microbes are not capable of growing on artificial media. True False 49. Mixed cultures are also referred to as contaminated cultures. True False 50. A medium that is gel-like has less agar in it compared to a solid medium. True False 51. A selective medium contains one or more substances that inhibit growth of certain microbes in order to facilitate the growth of other microbes.


True False

FOUNDATIONS IN MICROBIOLOGY 10TH EDITION TALARO TEST BANK

52. A bacterial species that grows on blood agar but will not grow on trypticase soy agar is termed an anaerobe. True False 53. Fixed smears of specimens are required in order to perform the Gram stain and endospore stain on the specimens. True False 54. The bending of light rays as they pass from one medium to another is called refraction. True False 55. At the end of the Gram stain, gram-positive bacteria will be seen as purple cells. True False 56. Scanning tunneling and atomic force microscopes are used to image the detailed structure of biological molecules. True False 57. The correct microbiological term for the tiny sample of specimen that is put into a nutrient medium in order to produce a culture is the . 58. The three physical forms of laboratory media are: solid, semisolid, and

.

59. Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex nutrients are termed 60.

.

is the term for a starting a new culture from an existing one. NURSINGTB.COM

61. Newly inoculated cultures must be

at a specific temperature and time to encourage growth.

62. Magnification is achieved in a compound microscope through the initial magnification of the specimen by the lens. This image is then projected to the lens that will further magnify the specimen to form a virtual image received by the eye. 63. The 64. 65.

of the microscope holds and allows selection of the objective lenses. dyes have a negative charge on the chromophore and are repelled by bacterial cells.

has the same optical qualities as glass and thus prevents refractive loss of light as it passes from the slide to the objective lens.

66. Compare and contrast the reagents and functions of negative staining versus positive staining. 67. Explain the difference and significance between a contaminated culture and a mixed culture. 68. A contaminated food sample contains several different species of bacteria. A food microbiologist is interested in studying just one of these species. Describe the sequence of procedures that the microbiologist must perform in order to obtain a pure culture of the bacterial species of interest from this food sample. Detail all the necessary media and equipment.


mD mAeTrsIO ioN n SoiIlNinM crIeCaRsO esBrIe on1b utHnEoD tm gnNifiTcA atLioAnRwOhT eE nSuTsiB nA gN thKe 100X objective. 69. Explain how and w Fh OyUiN OsLoOluGtiY 0T ITaIO 70. Which of the following reagents reacts with crystal violet as the mordant? A. crystal violet B. Gram’s iodine C. 95% ethyl alcohol D. Safranin 71. How will E. coli appear if the mordant is not applied? A. gram-positive B. gram-negative C. gram-variable D. colorless 72. Observing and characterizing colonial growth for size, shape, edge, elevation, color, odor, and texture is part of . A. specimen collection B. inoculation C. incubation D. isolation E. inspection 73. In lab, Tom was given a mixed culture. His objective is to isolate single colonies. What should be used to accomplish this goal? A. sterile swab, loop dilution, TSB B. hockey stick, spread plate technique, and 4 degree Celsius incubation temperature C. loop dilution, TSA, hockey stick, 37 degree Celsius incubator D. inoculating loop, incinerator, streak plate method, 37 degree Celsius incubator E. sterile swab, streak plate method, 37 degree Celsius incubator 74. Sally had a throat sample taken at a satellite lab within her health care provider’s office. What kind of media would be best suited for maintaining the quality of thiN sU spReScIiN mGeT nBp.rCioOrM to its arrival in the clinical laboratory? A. TSA plate B. TSB tube C. transport media D. selective agar E. differential agar 75. Identification relies entirely on biochemical test results. True False 76. Using the numbers 1–4, label the correct chronological sequence of events for the Gram staining procedure. (1, 2, 3, 4) Apply iodine for 1 minute to the smear and rinse. (1, 2, 3, 4) Add crystal violet for 60 seconds and rinse. (1, 2, 3, 4) Add 95% ethanol for 10–20 seconds and rinse. (1, 2, 3, 4) Apply safranin for 60 seconds and rinse. 77. You are doing research on a bacterial species, trying to determine the nature and structure of a number of intracellular inclusions. Which type of microscopy would provide the best view of these intracellular structures? A. scanning electron microscopy B. transmission electron microscopy C. bright-field microscopy D. dark-Field microscopy


aU rcN hDoA n TaIO baNcSteIrNiaM l sIpCeRcO ieBsI, OtrL yO inG gY to1d0eTtH erE mDinIe he e,RdOisT trE ibSuTtioBnA, N aK nd arrangement of a 78. You are doing resFeO TItO N sThAaLpA number of filamentous structures that protrude from the cell surface. Which type of microscopy would best enable you to do this? A. scanning electron microscopy B. transmission electron microscopy C. bright-field microscopy D. dark-field microscopy

79. Each of the following are characteristics of microorganisms that pose unique challenges to their study EXCEPT A. the fact that they must be viewed through a microscope rather than the unaided eye. B. the fact that many do not have membrane-enclosed nucleus or other organelles. C. the fact that they often exist in complex communities and individual species may be difficult to isolate from others. D. the fact that they usually must be grown and studied under somewhat artificial conditions in vitro rather than in their natural habit. 80. Microbes can be challenging to study because they often grow in complex communities and it may be difficult to separate the various species from one another to study individually. Which of the following laboratory "tools" or techniques may be of the the most help with separating out different species from complex mixtures? A. use of transmission electron microscopy B. use of enriched agar for culture C. use of selective agars for culture D. use of light microscopy 81. A student was given a stained smear to observe. Upon observation, the student noted rod-shaped bacteria that were clear and unstained against a darker background. What sort of stain was performed on this slide? A. Gram stain B. acid-fast stain C. simple stain D. negative stain 82. A bacterial cell that is deposited on the surfaceNoUfRaSnIN ap op atM e solid growth media will divide repeatedly until GpTrB .CriO it forms a visible accumulation of bacterial growth. This is known as a bacterial A. colony. B. community. C. biofilm. D. smear.

83. All of the following are criteria that are used to classify different types of microbiological growth media EXCEPT A. physical state or consistency. B. purpose or function. C. chemical composition. D. sensory characteristics (color, smell). 84. To prepare large volumes of influenza virus for use in the flu vaccines each year, the virus is grown in embryonated hen eggs. This is an example of the use of A. enriched media. B. selective media. C. live media. D. complex media. 85. Viruses, Rickettsia, and Chlamydia are described as obligate intracellular parasites because they can only be propagated inside living host cells. Which of the following would be appropriate for their cultivation? A. enriched media B. cell or tissue cultures C. media that contains sheep red blood cells D. differential media


Chapter 03 Testbank Key 1.

Syphilis is diagnosed either with microscopy or serology because the causative agent (Treponema pallidum) does not grow on any microbiological media. Which term best describes this aspect of the T. pallidum? A. Fastidious B. Nonculturable C. Commensalistic D. Symbiotic ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways

ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.26 Explain what it means to say that microorganisms are not culturable.

2.

Section: 03.05

The Six "I's" of studying microorganisms include all of the following except A. inoculation. B. incubation. C. infection. D. isolation. E. identification.

ASM Objective: 07.01b Ability to apply the process of science: Analyze and interpret results from a variety of microbiological methods and apply these methods to analogous situations. ASM Topic: Module 07 Scientific Thinking Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.02 Briefly outline the processes and purposes of the six types of procedures that are used in handling, maintaining, and studying microorganisms. Section: 03.01 Topic: Culturing Microorganisms Topic: Identifying Microorganisms

3.

All of the following are examples of differenNt U tyRpSeIsNoGf TmBi.cCroObM iological media except A. broth. B. enriched. C. agar. D. Petri dish. E. gelatin. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.22 Compare and contrast liquid, solid, and semisolid media, giving examples. Section: 03.05

Topic: Culturing Microorganisms

4.

Which of the following is essential for development of discrete, isolated colonies? A. broth medium B. differential medium C. selective medium D. solid medium E. assay medium ASM Objective: 08.02 Use pure culture and selective techniques to enrich for and isolate microorganisms. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.15 Describe three basic techniques for isolation, including tools, media, incubation, and outcome. Learning Outcome: 03.22 Compare and contrast liquid, solid, and semisolid media, giving examples. Section: 03.04 Section: 03.05 Topic: Culturing Microorganisms


5.

The term that refers to the purposeful addition of microorganisms into a laboratory nutrient medium is A. isolation. B. inoculation. C. immunization. D. infection. E. contamination. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.02 Briefly outline the processes and purposes of the six types of procedures that are used in handling, maintaining, and studying microorganisms. Learning Outcome: 03.14 Define inoculation, media, and culture, and describe sampling methods and instruments, and what events must be controlled. Section: 03.01 Section: 03.04 Topic: Culturing Microorganisms

6.

A pure culture contains only A. one species of microorganism. B. bacteria. C. a variety of microbes from one source. D. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 08.02 Use pure culture and selective techniques to enrich for and isolate microorganisms. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.17 Differentiate between a pure culture, subculture, mixed culture, and contaminated culture. Define contaminant. Section: 03.04

Topic: Culturing Microorganisms

7.

Which of the following will result when 1% to 5% agar is added to nutrient broth, boiled and cooled? A. a pure culture B. a mixed culture C. a solid medium D. a liquid medium E. a contaminated medium

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ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods.

ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.22 Compare and contrast liquid, solid, and semisolid media, giving examples. Section: 03.05 Topic: Culturing Microorganisms

8.

A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus aureus into a culture medium. Following incubation, both Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis are determined to be growing in this culture. What is the most likely explanation? A. The microbiologist used too much inoculum. B. The culture is contaminated. C. The incubation temperature was incorrect. D. The culture medium must be selective. E. The culture medium must be differential.

ASM Objective: 07.01b Ability to apply the process of science: Analyze and interpret results from a variety of microbiological methods and apply these methods to analogous situations. ASM Objective: 08.02 Use pure culture and selective techniques to enrich for and isolate microorganisms. ASM Topic: Module 07 Scientific Thinking ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 04. Analyze Learning Outcome: 03.17 Differentiate between a pure culture, subculture, mixed culture, and contaminated culture. Define contaminant. Section: 03.04

Topic: Culturing Microorganisms


9.

A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus epidermidis and Escherichia coli into a culture medium. Following incubation, only the E. coli grows in the culture. What is the most likely explanation? A. The microbiologist used too much inoculum. B. The culture is contaminated. C. The incubation temperature was incorrect. D. The culture medium must be selective. E. The culture medium must be differential.

ASM Objective: 07.01b Ability to apply the process of science: Analyze and interpret results from a variety of microbiological methods and apply these methods to analogous situations. ASM Objective: 08.02 Use pure culture and selective techniques to enrich for and isolate microorganisms. ASM Topic: Module 07 Scientific Thinking ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 04. Analyze Learning Outcome: 03.24 Describe functional media; list several different categories, and explain what characterizes each type of functional media. Learning Outcome: 03.25 Identify the qualities of enriched, selective, and differential media; use examples to explain their content and purposes. Section: 03.05

Topic: Culturing Microorganisms

10.

Which method often results in colonies developing down throughout the agar and some colonies on the surface? A. streak plate B. spread plate C. pour plate D. All of these choices are correct.

11.

ASM Objective: 08.02 Use pure culture and selective techniques to enrich for and isolate microorganisms. ASM Objective: 08.04 Estimate the number of microorganisms in a sample (using, for example, direct count, viable plate count, and spectrophotometric methods). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.15 Describe three basic techniques for isolation, including tools, media, incubation, and outcome. Section: 03.04 Topic: Culturing Microorganisms

A common medium used for growing fastidious bacteria is A. chocolate agar. B. trypticase soy agar. C. mannitol salt agar. D. MacConkey medium. E. a reducing medium.

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ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 08.02 Use pure culture and selective techniques to enrich for and isolate microorganisms. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.24 Describe functional media; list several different categories, and explain what characterizes each type of functional media. Learning Outcome: 03.25 Identify the qualities of enriched, selective, and differential media; use examples to explain their content and purposes. Section: 03.05

Topic: Culturing Microorganisms

12.

A reducing medium contains A. sugars that can be fermented. B. extra oxygen. C. hemoglobin, vitamins, or other growth factors. D. substances that remove oxygen. E. inhibiting agents. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.24 Describe functional media; list several different categories, and explain what characterizes each type of functional media. Section: 03.05 Topic: Culturing Microorganisms


13.

A nutrient medium that has all of its chemical components identified and their precise concentrations known and reproducible would be termed A. complex. B. reducing. C. enriched. D. enumeration. E. synthetic. ASM Objective: 08.02 Use pure culture and selective techniques to enrich for and isolate microorganisms. ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.23 Analyze chemically defined and complex media, describing their basic differences and content. Section: 03.05 Topic: Culturing Microorganisms

14.

Which type of medium is able to distinguish different species or types of microorganisms based on an observable change in the colonies or in the medium? A. differential B. selective C. enumeration D. enriched E. reducing ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.24 Describe functional media; list several different categories, and explain what characterizes each type of functional media. Learning Outcome: 03.25 Identify the qualities of enriched, selective, and differential media; use examples to explain their content and purposes. Section: 03.05

Topic: Culturing Microorganisms

15.

A microbiologist decides to use a nutrient medium that contains thioglycolic acid. What type of microbe is she attempting to culture? A. fastidious B. gram positive C. anaerobe D. gram negative E. virus

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ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 08.02 Use pure culture and selective techniques to enrich for and isolate microorganisms. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways

ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.24 Describe functional media; list several different categories, and explain what characterizes each type of functional media. Section: 03.05 Topic: Culturing Microorganisms

16.

Mannitol salt agar is selective for which bacterial genus?

A. Salmonella B. Streptococcus C. Neisseria D. Staphylococcus E. Escherichia ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.25 Identify the qualities of enriched, selective, and differential media; use examples to explain their content and purposes. Section: 03.05

Topic: Culturing Microorganisms Topic: Identifying Microorganisms


17.

A microbiologist must culture a patient's feces for intestinal pathogens. Which of the following would likely be present in selective media for analyzing this fecal specimen? A. NaCl B. sheep red blood cells C. bile salts D. thioglycolic acid E. peptone ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways

ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.25 Identify the qualities of enriched, selective, and differential media; use examples to explain their content and purposes. Section: 03.05 Topic: Culturing Microorganisms

18.

Which of the following characteristics refers to the microscope's ability to show two separate entities as separate and distinct? A. resolving power B. magnification C. refraction D. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.03 Describe the basic plan of an optical microscope, and differentiate between magnification and resolution. Learning Outcome: 03.05 Indicate how the resolving power is determined and how resolution affects image visibility. Section: 03.02

Topic: Microscopy

19.

Which of the following magnifies the specimen to produce the real image of the specimen? A. condenser B. objective lens C. ocular lens D. body E. nosepiece

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ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.04 Explain how the images are formed, along with the role of light and the different powers of lenses. Section: 03.02

Topic: Microscopy

20.

If a microbiologist is studying a specimen at a total magnification of 950X, what is the magnifying power of the objective lens if the ocular lens is 10X? A. 100X B. 950X C. 85X D. 850X E. 95X ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 03: Apply Learning Outcome: 03.03 Describe the basic plan of an optical microscope, and differentiate between magnification and resolution. Section: 03.02

Topic: Microscopy


21.

The wavelength of light used plus the numerical aperture governs A. illumination. B. resolution. C. magnification. D. size of the field. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.05 Indicate how the resolving power is determined and how resolution affects image visibility. Section: 03.02

22.

Topic: Microscopy

All of the following are diameters of cells that would be resolved in a microscope with a limit of resolution of 0.2 µm except A. 0.2 µm. B. 0.2 mm. C. 0.1 µm. D. 0.3 µm. E. 2.0 µm. ASM Objective: 07.02 Ability to use quantitative reasoning: Use mathematical reasoning and graphing skills to solve problems in microbiology. ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 07 Scientific Thinking ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 03: Apply Learning Outcome: 03.05 Indicate how the resolving power is determined and how resolution affects image visibility. Section: 03.02 Topic: Microscopy

23.

The type of microscope in which you would see brightly illuminated specimens against a black background is A. bright-field. B. dark-field. C. phase-contrast. D. fluorescence. E. electron.

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ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.06 Differentiate between the major types of optical microscopes, their illumination sources, image appearance, and uses. Section: 03.02

Topic: Microscopy

24.

Which microscope does not use light in forming the specimen image? A. bright-field B. dark-field C. phase-contrast D. fluorescence E. electron

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.07 Describe the operating features of electron microscopes and how they differ from optical microscopes in illumination source, magnification, resolution, and image appearance. Section: 03.02 Topic: Microscopy


25.

Which microscope achieves the greatest resolution and highest magnification? A. bright-field B. dark-field C. phase-contrast D. fluorescence E. electron

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.07 Describe the operating features of electron microscopes and how they differ from optical microscopes in illumination source, magnification, resolution, and image appearance. Section: 03.02 Topic: Microscopy

26.

Which microscope shows cells against a bright background and the intracellular structures of unstained cells based on their varying densities? A. bright-field B. dark-field C. phase-contrast D. fluorescence E. electron ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.06 Differentiate between the major types of optical microscopes, their illumination sources, image appearance, and uses. Section: 03.02

Topic: Microscopy

27.

Which microscope is the most widely used to show stained cells against a bright background? NURSINGTB.COM A. bright-field B. dark-field C. phase-contrast D. fluorescence E. electron ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.06 Differentiate between the major types of optical microscopes, their illumination sources, image appearance, and uses. Section: 03.02

28.

Which is incorrect about chocolate agar?

Topic: Microscopy

A. It can be used to cultivate Neisseria. B. It usually uses sheep blood that has been heated. C. It has chocolate extract in it. D. It is an enriched medium. E. It is used to grow fastidious bacteria. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 08.02 Use pure culture and selective techniques to enrich for and isolate microorganisms. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.24 Describe functional media; list several different categories, and explain what characterizes each type of functional media. Learning Outcome: 03.25 Identify the qualities of enriched, selective, and differential media; use examples to explain their content and purposes. Section: 03.05

Topic: Culturing Microorganisms


29.

All of the following pertain to the fluorescence microscope except it A. uses electrons to produce a specimen image. B. is a type of compound microscope. C. requires the use of dyes like acridine and fluorescein. D. is commonly used to diagnose certain infections. E. requires an ultraviolet radiation source. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.06 Differentiate between the major types of optical microscopes, their illumination sources, image appearance, and uses. Section: 03.02

Topic: Microscopy

30.

Which microscope bombards a whole, metal-coated specimen with electrons moving back and forth over it? A. fluorescence B. differential interference contrast C. scanning electron D. transmission electron E. phase-contrast ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.08 Differentiate between transmission and scanning electron microscopes in image formation and appearance. Section: 03.02

Topic: Microscopy

31.

The specimen preparation that is best for viewing cell motility is A. hanging drop. B. fixed-stained smear. C. Gram stain. D. negative stain. E. flagellar stain.

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ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if possible, phase contrast). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.09 Explain the basic differences between fresh and fixed preparations for microscopy and how they are used. Section: 03.03

Topic: Preparing Microscopy Specimens

32.

The primary purpose of staining cells on a microscope slide is to A. kill them. B. secure them to the slide. C. enlarge the cells. D. add contrast in order to see them better. E. see motility. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if possible, phase contrast). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.09 Explain the basic differences between fresh and fixed preparations for microscopy and how they are used. Learning Outcome: 03.12 Distinguish between simple, differential, and structural stains, including their applications. Section: 03.03

Topic: Preparing Microscopy Specimens


33.

The Gram stain, acid-fast stain, and endospore stain

.

A. are used on a wet mount of the specimen B. use heat to force the dye into cell structures C. have outcomes based on cell wall differences D. use a negative stain technique E. are differential stains ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if possible, phase contrast). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.12 Distinguish between simple, differential, and structural stains, including their applications. Section: 03.03

Topic: Preparing Microscopy Specimens

34.

Basic dyes are A. attracted to the acidic substances of bacterial cells. B. anionic. C. used in negative staining. D. repelled by cells. E. dyes such as India ink and nigrosin. ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if possible, phase contrast). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.10 Define dyes and describe the basic chemistry behind the process of staining. Section: 03.03

Topic: Preparing Microscopy Specimens

35.

A microbiologist makes a fixed smear of bacterial cells and stains them with Loeffler's methylene blue. All the cells appear blue under the oil lens. This is an example of A. negative staining. B. using an acidic dye. C. simple staining. D. using the acid-fast stain. E. capsule staining.

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ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if possible, phase contrast). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 03: Apply Learning Outcome: 03.12 Distinguish between simple, differential, and structural stains, including their applications. Section: 03.03

Topic: Preparing Microscopy Specimens

36.

Media that contains extracts from plants, animals, or yeasts are A. synthetic. B. complex. C. reducing. D. enriched. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways

ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.23 Analyze chemically defined and complex media, describing their basic differences and content. Section: 03.05 Topic: Culturing Microorganisms


37.

Brain-heart infusion, trypticase soy agar (TSA), and nutrient agar are all examples of which type of media? A. synthetic B. reducing C. enriched D. complex E. selective ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways

ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.23 Analyze chemically defined and complex media, describing their basic differences and content. Section: 03.05 Topic: Culturing Microorganisms

38.

Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex organic substances are called A. fastidious. B. pathogenic. C. harmless. D. anaerobic. E. aerobic. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways

ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.24 Describe functional media; list several different categories, and explain what characterizes each type of functional media. Section: 03.05 Topic: Culturing Microorganisms

39.

A media is designed that allows only staphylococci to grow. In addition, S. aureus colonies have a yellow halo around them and other staphylococci appear white. This type of media is A. selective only. B. differential only. C. both selective and differential. D. a reducing media. E. enriched.

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ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 03: Apply Learning Outcome: 03.24 Describe functional media; list several different categories, and explain what characterizes each type of functional media. Learning Outcome: 03.25 Identify the qualities of enriched, selective, and differential media; use examples to explain their content and purposes. Section: 03.05

Topic: Culturing Microorganisms

40.

All of the following are examples of basic dyes except A. methylene blue. B. nigrosin. C. crystal violet. D. safranin. E. carbol fuchsin. ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if possible, phase contrast). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.10 Define dyes and describe the basic chemistry behind the process of staining. Section: 03.03

Topic: Preparing Microscopy Specimens

41.

Which type of media can be used to determine if a bacteria is motile? A. SIM B. MacConkey C. enriched media D. Thayer-Martin media


E. chocolate agar ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.22 Compare and contrast liquid, solid, and semisolid media, giving examples. Learning Outcome: 03.24 Describe functional media; list several different categories, and explain what characterizes each type of functional media. Section: 03.05

42.

Topic: Culturing Microorganisms

All of the following are correct about agar except A. it is flexible. ° B. it melts at the boiling point of water (100 C). C. it is a source of nutrition for bacteria. ° D. it solidifies below 42 C. E. it is solid at room temperature. ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.21 Name the three general categories of media, based on their inherent properties and uses. Learning Outcome: 03.22 Compare and contrast liquid, solid, and semisolid media, giving examples. Section: 03.05

Topic: Culturing Microorganisms

43.

Which of the following media is useful for cultivating fungi? A. Sabouraud's agar B. MacConkey agar C. tomato juice agar D. phenylethanol agar E. Mueller tellurite

ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.24 Describe functional media; list sevN erU al R diS ffe reG ntTcB at.eC gO orM ies, and explain what characterizes each type of functional media. IN

Section: 03.05

Topic: Culturing Microorganisms

44.

Which of the following places the steps for microbial culture and identification in the correct order? A. inoculation, incubation, isolation, inspection, identification B. isolation, inspection, inoculation, incubation, identification C. incubation, inspection, isolation, identification, inoculation D. inspection, identification, isolation, incubation, inoculation E. inspection, isolation, incubation, inoculation, identification

ASM Objective: 07.01b Ability to apply the process of science: Analyze and interpret results from a variety of microbiological methods and apply these methods to analogous situations. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 07 Scientific Thinking ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.02 Briefly outline the processes and purposes of the six types of procedures that are used in handling, maintaining, and studying microorganisms. Section: 03.01 Topic: Culturing Microorganisms Topic: Identifying Microorganisms

45.

Why is immersion oil often used when viewing specimens under the microscope? A. to stain the cells blue B. to prevent the smear from drying out C. to slow bacterial movement so you can see cells better D. to increase the resolution E. to reduce the amount of heat reaching the slide from the light source ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if possible, phase contrast). ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.05 Indicate how the resolving power is determined and how resolution affects image visibility.


Section: 03.02 Topic: Microscopy

46.

The procedure for culturing a microorganism requires the use of a microscope. FALSE ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.14 Define inoculation, media, and culture, and describe sampling methods and instruments, and what events must be controlled. Learning Outcome: 03.20 Explain the importance of media for culturing microbes in the laboratory. Section: 03.04 Topic: Culturing Microorganisms

47.

One colony typically develops from the growth of several parent bacterial cells. FALSE ASM Objective: 08.02 Use pure culture and selective techniques to enrich for and isolate microorganisms. ASM Objective: 08.04 Estimate the number of microorganisms in a sample (using, for example, direct count, viable plate count, and spectrophotometric methods). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.16 Explain what an isolated colony is and indicate how it forms. Section: 03.04 Topic: Culturing Microorganisms

48.

Some microbes are not capable of growing on artificial media. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.20 Explain the importance of media for culturing microbes in the laboratory. Learning Outcome: 03.26 Explain what it means to say that microorganisms are not culturable.

Section: 03.04 Section: 03.05 Topic: Culturing Microorganisms

49.

Mixed cultures are also referred to as contaminated cultures. FALSE

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ASM Objective: 08.02 Use pure culture and selective techniques to enrich for and isolate microorganisms. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.17 Differentiate between a pure culture, subculture, mixed culture, and contaminated culture. Define contaminant. Section: 03.04

Topic: Culturing Microorganisms

50.

A medium that is gel-like has less agar in it compared to a solid medium. TRUE ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods.

ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 03: Apply Learning Outcome: 03.22 Compare and contrast liquid, solid, and semisolid media, giving examples. Section: 03.05 Topic: Culturing Microorganisms

51.

A selective medium contains one or more substances that inhibit growth of certain microbes in order to facilitate the growth of other microbes. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 08.02 Use pure culture and selective techniques to enrich for and isolate microorganisms. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.24 Describe functional media; list several different categories, and explain what characterizes each type of functional media. Learning Outcome: 03.25 Identify the qualities of enriched, selective, and differential media; use examples to explain their content and purposes. Section: 03.05

Topic: Culturing Microorganisms

52.

A bacterial species that grows on blood agar but will not grow on trypticase soy agar is termed an anaerobe.


FALSE ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways

ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.24 Describe functional media; list several different categories, and explain what characterizes each type of functional media. Learning Outcome: 03.25 Identify the qualities of enriched, selective, and differential media; use examples to explain their content and purposes. Section: 03.05

Topic: Culturing Microorganisms

53.

Fixed smears of specimens are required in order to perform the Gram stain and endospore stain on the specimens. TRUE ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if possible, phase contrast). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.09 Explain the basic differences between fresh and fixed preparations for microscopy and how they are used. Learning Outcome: 03.13 Describe the process of Gram staining and how its results can aid the identification process. Section: 03.03

Topic: Preparing Microscopy Specimens

54.

The bending of light rays as they pass from one medium to another is called refraction. TRUE ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.04 Explain how the images are formed, along with the role of light and the different powers of lenses. Section: 03.02

Topic: Microscopy

55.

At the end of the Gram stain, gram-positive bacteria will be seen as purple cells. TRUE NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 07.01b Ability to apply the process of science: Analyze and interpret results from a variety of microbiological methods and apply these methods to analogous situations. ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if possible, phase contrast). ASM Topic: Module 07 Scientific Thinking ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.13 Describe the process of Gram staining and how its results can aid the identification process. Section: 03.03

Topic: Preparing Microscopy Specimens

56.

Scanning tunneling and atomic force microscopes are used to image the detailed structure of biological molecules. TRUE

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.07 Describe the operating features of electron microscopes and how they differ from optical microscopes in illumination source, magnification, resolution, and image appearance. Section: 03.02 Topic: Microscopy

57.

The correct microbiological term for the tiny sample of specimen that is put into a nutrient medium in order to produce a culture is the . inoculum ASM Objective: 08.02 Use pure culture and selective techniques to enrich for and isolate microorganisms. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.14 Define inoculation, media, and culture, and describe sampling methods and instruments, and what events must be controlled. Section: 03.04 Topic: Culturing Microorganisms


58.

The three physical forms of laboratory media are: solid, semisolid, and

.

liquid ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods.

ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.22 Compare and contrast liquid, solid, and semisolid media, giving examples. Section: 03.05 Topic: Culturing Microorganisms

59.

Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex nutrients are termed

.

fastidious ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 08.02 Use pure culture and selective techniques to enrich for and isolate microorganisms. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.20 Explain the importance of media for culturing microbes in the laboratory. Learning Outcome: 03.25 Identify the qualities of enriched, selective, and differential media; use examples to explain their content and purposes. Section: 03.05

Topic: Culturing Microorganisms

60.

is the term for a starting a new culture from an existing one.

Subculture ASM Objective: 08.02 Use pure culture and selective techniques to enrich for and isolate microorganisms. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.17 Differentiate between a pure culture, subculture, mixed culture, and contaminated culture. Define contaminant. Section: 03.04

Topic: Culturing Microorganisms

61.

Newly inoculated cultures must be

at a specific temperature and time to encourage growth.

incubated NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways

ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.02 Briefly outline the processes and purposes of the six types of procedures that are used in handling, maintaining, and studying microorganisms. Learning Outcome: 03.14 Define inoculation, media, and culture, and describe sampling methods and instruments, and what events must be controlled. Section: 03.01 Section: 03.04 Topic: Culturing Microorganisms

62.

Magnification is achieved in a compound microscope through the initial magnification of the specimen by the lens. This image is then projected to the lens that will further magnify the specimen to form a virtual image received by the eye. objective; ocular ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.04 Explain how the images are formed, along with the role of light and the different powers of lenses. Section: 03.02

Topic: Microscopy

63.

The

of the microscope holds and allows selection of the objective lenses.

nosepiece ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.03 Describe the basic plan of an optical microscope, and differentiate between magnification and resolution. Section: 03.02

Topic: Microscopy

64.

dyes have a negative charge on the chromophore and are repelled by bacterial cells.


Acidic ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if possible, phase contrast). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.10 Define dyes and describe the basic chemistry behind the process of staining. Section: 03.03

Topic: Preparing Microscopy Specimens

65.

has the same optical qualities as glass and thus prevents refractive loss of light as it passes from the slide to the objective lens. Immersion oil ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if possible, phase contrast). ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.04 Explain how the images are formed, along with the role of light and the different powers of lenses. Learning Outcome: 03.05 Indicate how the resolving power is determined and how resolution affects image visibility. Section: 03.02

Topic: Microscopy

66.

Compare and contrast the reagents and functions of negative staining versus positive staining. ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if possible, phase contrast). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 03: Apply Learning Outcome: 03.11 Differentiate between negative and positive staining, giving examples. Section: 03.03

Topic: Preparing Microscopy Specimens

67.

Explain the difference and significance between a contaminated culture and a mixed culture. ASM Objective: 08.02 Use pure culture and selective techniques to enrich for and isolate microorganisms. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 03: Apply Learning Outcome: 03.17 Differentiate between a pure culture, subculture, mixed culture, and contaminated culture. Define contaminant. Section: 03.04

Topic: Culturing Microorganisms

68.

A contaminated food sample contains several different species of bacteria. A food microbiologist is interested in studying just one of these species. DescN ribe thIe seTqBu.e e of procedures that the microbiologist must URS NG CnOcM perform in order to obtain a pure culture of the bacterial species of interest from this food sample. Detail all the necessary media and equipment.

ASM Objective: 07.01b Ability to apply the process of science: Analyze and interpret results from a variety of microbiological methods and apply these methods to analogous situations. ASM Objective: 08.02 Use pure culture and selective techniques to enrich for and isolate microorganisms. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 07 Scientific Thinking ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 04. Analyze Learning Outcome: 03.02 Briefly outline the processes and purposes of the six types of procedures that are used in handling, maintaining, and studying microorganisms. Learning Outcome: 03.14 Define inoculation, media, and culture, and describe sampling methods and instruments, and what events must be controlled. Learning Outcome: 03.15 Describe three basic techniques for isolation, including tools, media, incubation, and outcome. Learning Outcome: 03.19 Describe some of the processes involved in identifying microbes from samples. Learning Outcome: 03.25 Identify the qualities of enriched, selective, and differential media; use examples to explain their content and purposes. Section: 03.01 Section: 03.04 Section: 03.05

Topic: Culturing Microorganisms Topic: Identifying Microorganisms

69.

Explain how and why immersion oil increases resolution but not magnification when using the 100X objective. ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 03: Apply Learning Outcome: 03.04 Explain how the images are formed, along with the role of light and the different powers of lenses. Learning Outcome: 03.05 Indicate how the resolving power is determined and how resolution affects image visibility. Section: 03.02

Topic: Microscopy

70.

Which of the following reagents reacts with crystal violet as the mordant?


A. crystal violet B. Gram’s iodine C. 95% ethyl alcohol D. safranin ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if possible, phase contrast). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.13 Describe the process of Gram staining and how its results can aid the identification process. Section: 03.03

Topic: Preparing Microscopy Specimens

71.

How will E. coli appear if the mordant is not applied? A. gram-positive B. gram-negative C. gram-variable D. colorless

ASM Objective: 07.01b Ability to apply the process of science: Analyze and interpret results from a variety of microbiological methods and apply these methods to analogous situations. ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if possible, phase contrast). ASM Topic: Module 07 Scientific Thinking ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 04. Analyze Learning Outcome: 03.13 Describe the process of Gram staining and how its results can aid the identification process. Section: 03.03

Topic: Preparing Microscopy Specimens

72.

Observing and characterizing colonial growth for size, shape, edge, elevation, color, odor, and texture is part of . A. specimen collection B. inoculation C. incubation D. isolation E. inspection

ASM Objective: 07.01b Ability to apply the process of science: Analyze and interpret results from a variety of microbiological methods and apply these methods to analogous situations. NURSINGTB.COM ASM Objective: 08.02 Use pure culture and selective techniques to enrich for and isolate microorganisms. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 07 Scientific Thinking ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 03: Apply Learning Outcome: 03.18 What kinds of data are collected during information gathering? Learning Outcome: 03.19 Describe some of the processes involved in identifying microbes from samples.

Learning Outcome: 03.20 Explain the importance of media for culturing microbes in the laboratory. Section: 03.04 Topic: Culturing Microorganisms Topic: Identifying Microorganisms

73.

In lab, Tom was given a mixed culture. His objective is to isolate single colonies. What should be used to accomplish this goal? A. sterile swab, loop dilution, TSB B. hockey stick, spread plate technique, and 4 degree Celsius incubation temperature C. loop dilution, TSA, hockey stick, 37 degree Celsius incubator D. inoculating loop, incinerator, streak plate method, 37 degree Celsius incubator E. sterile swab, streak plate method, 37 degree Celsius incubator ASM Objective: 08.02 Use pure culture and selective techniques to enrich for and isolate microorganisms. ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 03: Apply Learning Outcome: 03.15 Describe three basic techniques for isolation, including tools, media, incubation, and outcome. Section: 03.04 Topic: Culturing Microorganisms

74.

Sally had a throat sample taken at a satellite lab within her health care provider’s office. What kind of media would be best suited for maintaining the quality of this specimen prior to its arrival in the clinical laboratory?

A. TSA plate B. TSB tube C. transport media


D. selective agar E. differential agar ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 03: Apply Learning Outcome: 03.24 Describe functional media; list several different categories, and explain what characterizes each type of functional media. Section: 03.05

Topic: Culturing Microorganisms

75.

Identification relies entirely on biochemical test results. FALSE ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.18 What kinds of data are collected during information gathering? Learning Outcome: 03.19 Describe some of the processes involved in identifying microbes from samples. Section: 03.04

Topic: Identifying Microorganisms

76.

Using the numbers 1–4, label the correct chronological sequence of events for the Gram staining procedure. 2 Apply iodine for 1 minute to the smear and rinse. 1 Add crystal violet for 60 seconds and rinse. 3 Add 95% ethanol for 10–20 seconds and rinse. 4 Apply safranin for 60 seconds and rinse.

ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if possible, phase contrast). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.13 Describe the process of Gram staining and how its results can aid the identification process. Section: 03.03

77.

Topic: Preparing Microscopy Specimens

You are doing research on a bacterial specNieUsR, StrIyNinGgTtB o.C deOtM ermine the nature and structure of a number of intracellular inclusions. Which type of microscopy would provide the best view of these intracellular structures? A. scanning electron microscopy B. transmission electron microscopy C. bright-field microscopy D. dark-Field microscopy

78.

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 03: Apply Learning Outcome: 03.08 Differentiate between transmission and scanning electron microscopes in image formation and appearance. Section: 03.02 Topic: Microscopy

You are doing research on a bacterial species, trying to determine the shape, distribution, and arrangement of a number of filamentous structures that protrude from the cell surface. Which type of microscopy would best enable you to do this? A. scanning electron microscopy B. transmission electron microscopy C. bright-field microscopy D. dark-field microscopy

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 03: Apply Learning Outcome: 03.08 Differentiate between transmission and scanning electron microscopes in image formation and appearance. Section: 03.02 Topic: Microscopy

79.

Each of the following are characteristics of microorganisms that pose unique challenges to their study EXCEPT


A. the fact that they must be viewed through a microscope rather than the unaided eye. B. the fact that many do not have membrane-enclosed nucleus or other organelles. C. the fact that they often exist in complex communities and individual species may be difficult to isolate from others. D. the fact that they usually must be grown and studied under somewhat artificial conditions in vitro rather than in their natural habit. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 05.02 Most bacteria in nature live in biofilm communities. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.01 Explain what unique characteristics of microorganisms make them challenging subjects for study. Section: 03.01

Topic: Culturing Microorganisms Topic: Microscopy

80.

Microbes can be challenging to study because they often grow in complex communities and it may be difficult to separate the various species from one another to study individually. Which of the following laboratory "tools" or techniques may be of the the most help with separating out different species from complex mixtures? A. use of transmission electron microscopy B. use of enriched agar for culture C. use of selective agars for culture D. use of light microscopy ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems.

ASM Objective: 08.02 Use pure culture and selective techniques to enrich for and isolate microorganisms. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 03: Apply Learning Outcome: 03.01 Explain what unique characteristics of microorganisms make them challenging subjects for study. Learning Outcome: 03.25 Identify the qualities of enriched, selective, and differential media; use examples to explain their content and purposes. Section: 03.01 Section: 03.05

NURSINGTB.COM

81.

Topic: Culturing Microorganisms Topic: Identifying Microorganisms

A student was given a stained smear to observe. Upon observation, the student noted rod-shaped bacteria that were clear and unstained against a darker background. What sort of stain was performed on this slide? A. Gram stain B. acid-fast stain C. simple stain D. negative stain ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if possible, phase contrast). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 03: Apply Learning Outcome: 03.11 Differentiate between negative and positive staining, giving examples. Section: 03.03 Topic: Microscopy Topic: Preparing Microscopy Specimens

82.

A bacterial cell that is deposited on the surface of an appropriate solid growth media will divide repeatedly until it forms a visible accumulation of bacterial growth. This is known as a bacterial A. colony. B. community. C. biofilm. D. smear. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 08.02 Use pure culture and selective techniques to enrich for and isolate microorganisms. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.16 Explain what an isolated colony is and indicate how it forms.

Section: 03.04 Topic: Culturing Microorganisms


83.

All of the following are criteria that are used to classify different types of microbiological growth media EXCEPT A. physical state or consistency. B. purpose or function. C. chemical composition. D. sensory characteristics (color, smell). ASM Objective: 08.02 Use pure culture and selective techniques to enrich for and isolate microorganisms. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.21 Name the three general categories of media, based on their inherent properties and uses. Section: 03.05 Topic: Culturing Microorganisms

84.

To prepare large volumes of influenza virus for use in the flu vaccines each year, the virus is grown in embryonated hen eggs. This is an example of the use of A. enriched media. B. selective media. C. live media. D. complex media. ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 03: Apply Learning Outcome: 03.27 Describe live media and the circumstances that require it. Section: 03.05

Topic: Culturing Microorganisms

85.

Viruses, Rickettsia, and Chlamydia are described as obligate intracellular parasites because they can only be propagated inside living host cells. Which of the following would be appropriate for their cultivation? NURSINGTB.COM A. enriched media B. cell or tissue cultures C. media that contains sheep red blood cells D. differential media ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways

ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 03: Apply Learning Outcome: 03.27 Describe live media and the circumstances that require it. Section: 03.05 Topic: Culturing Microorganisms


Chapter 03 Testbank Summary Category

# of Questions

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (in cluding bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron).

18

ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different.

1

ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes.

1

ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determi ned by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations).

4

ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metaboli c characteristics.

15

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biologic al means.

9

ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems.

1

ASM Objective: 05.02 Most bacteria in nature live in biofilm communities.

1

ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

2

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in benefi cial, neutral or detrimental ways.

1

ASM Objective: 07.01b Ability to apply the process of science: Analyze and interpret results from a variety of microbi ological methods and apply these methods to analogous situations.

8

ASM Objective: 07.02 Ability to use quantitative reasoning: Use mathematical reasoning and graphing skills to solve problems in microbiology.

1

ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if po ssible, phase contrast).

16

ASM Objective: 08.02 Use pure culture and selective techniques to enrich for and isolate microorganisms.

22

ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (mediabased, molecular and serological).

15

ASM Objective: 08.04 Estimate the number of microorganisms in a sample (using, for example, direct count, viable pl ate count, and spectrophotometric methods). UR ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological aN nd mS oIleNcG ulT aB r l.aCbOeM quipment and methods.

2 35

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function

20

ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways

20

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems

4

ASM Topic: Module 07 Scientific Thinking

9

ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills

77

Bloom's Level: 01. Remember

16

Bloom's Level: 02. Understand

48

Bloom's Level: 03: Apply

17

Bloom's Level: 04. Analyze

4

Learning Outcome: 03.01 Explain what unique characteristics of microorganisms make them challenging subjects for study.

2

Learning Outcome: 03.02 Briefly outline the processes and purposes of the six types of procedures that are used in h andling, maintaining, and studying microorganisms.

5

Learning Outcome: 03.03 Describe the basic plan of an optical microscope, and differentiate between magnification a nd resolution.

3

Learning Outcome: 03.04 Explain how the images are formed, along with the role of light and the different powers of l enses.

5

Learning Outcome: 03.05 Indicate how the resolving power is determined and how resolution affects image visibility.

6

Learning Outcome: 03.06 Differentiate between the major types of optical microscopes, their illumination sources, im age appearance, and uses.

4

Learning Outcome: 03.07 Describe the operating features of electron microscopes and how they differ from optical mi croscopes in illumination source, magnification, resolution, and image appearance.

3

Learning Outcome: 03.08 Differentiate between transmission and scanning electron microscopes in image formation and appearance.

3

Learning Outcome: 03.09 Explain the basic differences between fresh and fixed preparations for microscopy and how they are used.

3


Learning Outcome: 03.10 Define dyes and describe the basic chemistry behind the process of staining. Learning Outcome: 03.11 Differentiate between negative and positive staining, giving examples.

3 2

Learning Outcome: 03.12 Distinguish between simple, differential, and structural stains, including their applications. Learning Outcome: 03.13 Describe the process of Gram staining and how its results can aid the identification proces s. Learning Outcome: 03.14 Define inoculation, media, and culture, and describe sampling methods and instruments, a nd what events must be controlled. Learning Outcome: 03.15 Describe three basic techniques for isolation, including tools, media, incubation, and outco me.

3 5

Learning Outcome: 03.16 Explain what an isolated colony is and indicate how it forms. Learning Outcome: 03.17 Differentiate between a pure culture, subculture, mixed culture, and contaminated culture. Define contaminant.

2 5

Learning Outcome: 03.18 What kinds of data are collected during information gathering?

2

Learning Outcome: 03.19 Describe some of the processes involved in identifying microbes from samples.

3

Learning Outcome: 03.20 Explain the importance of media for culturing microbes in the laboratory.

4

Learning Outcome: 03.21 Name the three general categories of media, based on their inherent properties and uses.

2

Learning Outcome: 03.22 Compare and contrast liquid, solid, and semisolid media, giving examples. Learning Outcome: 03.23 Analyze chemically defined and complex media, describing their basic differences and cont ent. Learning Outcome: 03.24 Describe functional media; list several different categories, and explain what characterizes each type of functional media. Learning Outcome: 03.25 Identify the qualities of enriched, selective, and differential media; use examples to explain their content and purposes.

7 3 13

Learning Outcome: 03.26 Explain what it means to say that microorganisms are not culturable.

2

Learning Outcome: 03.27 Describe live media and the circumstances that require it.

2

Section: 03.01

7

Section: 03.02

21

Section: 03.03 Section: 03.04

14 18

Section: 03.05 Topic: Culturing Microorganisms

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5 4

12

32 48

Topic: Identifying Microorganisms

7

Topic: Microscopy Topic: Preparing Microscopy Specimens

23 14


Chapter 04 Testbank Student:

1.

The difference in cell wall structure of Mycobacterium and Nocardia compared to the typical gram-positive bacterial cell wall structure is A. the presence of more peptidoglycan. B. the predominance of unique, waxy lipids. C. the rapid decolorization during staining. D. the presence of lipopolysaccharide. E. All of these choices are correct.

2.

Bacterial cells could have any of the following appendages, except A. flagella. B. cilia. C. fimbriae. D. periplasmic flagella (axial filaments). E. sex pili.

3.

Spirochetes have a twisting and flexing locomotion due to appendages called A. flagella. B. cilia. C. fimbriae. D. periplasmic flagella (axial filaments). E. sex pili.

4.

The short, numerous appendages used by some bacterial cells for adhering to surfaces are called A. flagella. B. cilia. C. fimbriae. D. periplasmic flagella (axial filaments). E. sex pili.

5.

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The transfer of genes during bacterial conjugation involves rigid, tubular appendages called A. flagella. B. cilia. C. fimbriae. D. periplasmic flagella (axial filaments). E. sex pili.

6.

All bacterial cells have A. a chromosome. B. fimbriae. C. endospores. D. capsules. E. flagella.

7.

The term that refers to the presence of flagella all over the cell surface is A. amphitrichous. B. atrichous. C. lophotrichous. D. monotrichous. E. peritrichous.

8.

The outcome of the Gram stain is based on differences in the cell's


A. ribosomes. B. inclusions. C. cell wall. D. cell membrane. E. flagella. 9.

The most immediate result of destruction of a cell's ribosomes would be A. material would not be able to cross the cell membrane. B. protein synthesis would stop. C. destruction of the cell's DNA. D. formation of glycogen inclusions. E. loss of capsule.

10. A bacterial cell exhibiting chemotaxis probably has A. fimbriae. B. capsules. C. mesosomes. D. flagella. E. metachromatic granules. 11. If bacteria living in salty seawater were displaced to a freshwater environment, the cell structure that would prevent the cells from rupturing is A. endospore. B. cell wall. C. cell membrane. D. capsule. E. slime layer. 12. Which structure protects bacteria from being phagocytized? A. slime layer B. fimbriae C. cell membrane D. capsule E. All of these choices are correct.

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13. Peptidoglycan is a unique macromolecule found in bacterial A. cell walls. B. cell membranes. C. capsules. D. slime layers. E. inclusions.

14. All of the following structures contribute to the ability of pathogenic bacteria to cause disease, except A. inclusions. B. fimbriae. C. capsule. D. slime layer. E. outer membrane of gram-negative cell walls. 15. A prokaryotic cell wall that has primarily peptidoglycan with small amounts of teichoic acid and lipoteichoic acid is A. gram-negative. B. gram-positive. C. archaea. D. a spheroplast. E. acid fast.


16. A bacterial genus that has waxy mycolic acid in the cell walls is

A. Mycobacterium. B. Mycoplasma. C. Streptococcus. D. Corynebacterium. E. Salmonella. 17. All of the following pertain to endotoxins, except they A. are specific bacterial cell wall lipids. B. can stimulate fever in the human body. C. can cause shock in the human body. D. are involved in typhoid fever and some meningitis cases. E. are found in acid-fast bacterial cell walls. 18. Lipopolysaccharide is an important cell wall component of A. gram-negative bacteria. B. gram-positive bacteria. C. acid-fast bacteria. D. mycoplasmas. E. protoplasts. 19. The periplasmic space is A. larger in gram-positive bacteria. B. made up of lipopolysaccharides and phospholipids. C. an important reaction site for substances entering and leaving the cell. D. just external to the LPS layer of the outer membrane. E. absent in gram-negative bacteria. 20. Which of the following, pertaining to prokaryotic cell membranes, is mismatched? NURSINGTB.COM A. internal folds - mesosomes B. sterols present - mycoplasmas C. form a bilayer - phospholipids D. unique hydrocarbon present - cyanobacteria E. function - regulates transport of nutrients and wastes 21. The site/s for most ATP synthesis in prokaryotic cells is/are the A. ribosomes. B. mitochondria. C. cell wall. D. inclusions. E. cell membrane. 22. The bacterial chromosome A. is located in the cell membrane. B. contains all the cell's plasmids. C. is part of the nucleoid. D. forms a single linear strand of DNA. E. All of these choices are correct. 23. Which is mismatched? A. ribosomes - protein synthesis B. inclusions - excess cell nutrients and materials C. plasmids - genes essential for growth and metabolism D. nucleoid - hereditary material E. cytoplasm - dense, gelatinous solution


24. Magnetosomes are A. infoldings of the cell membrane. B. termed metachromatic granules. C. responsible for the heat resistance of endospores. D. composed of magnetic iron oxide particles. E. found in all bacteria. 25. The function of bacterial endospores is A. to convert gaseous nitrogen to a usable form for plants. B. for reproduction and growth. C. for protection of genetic material during harsh conditions. D. the storage of excess cell materials. E. to have sites for photosynthesis. 26. Chemical analysis of a bacterial cell structure detects calcium dipicolinic acid. What is the identity of this structure? A. cell wall B. capsule C. slime layer D. nucleoid E. endospore 27. Endospores are A. metabolically inactive. B. resistant to heat and chemical destruction. C. resistant to destruction by radiation. D. living structures. E. All of these choices are correct. 28. Bacterial endospores are not produced by

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A. Staphylococcus. B. Sporosarcina. C. Bacillus. D. Clostridium. E. All of these choices are correct. 29. Which term is not used to describe bacterial cell shapes? A. coccus B. tetrad C. vibrio D. rod E. spirochete 30. Which statement is not a characteristic of biofilms? A. They can be involved with human disease. B. They involve bacteria only. C. They evolve and adapt to their surroundings. D. They are very difficult to eliminate with antimicrobials. E. They can accumulate on living and nonliving surfaces. 31. An important indicator of evolutionary relatedness is the A. size of the periplasmic space. B. similarities of cell membrane proteins. C. size of the bacterial chromosome. D. nitrogen base sequence of rRNA. E. size of the ribosomes.


32. Which phylum is mismatched? A. Gracilicutes - gram-negative cell walls B. Firmicutes - gram-positive cell walls C. Actinobacteria - waxy acid-fast cell walls D. Proteobacteria - archaea cell walls 33. Which is mismatched? A. Chlamydias - lack ability to independently complete growth and metabolism B. green sulfur bacteria - photosynthetic anaerobes that use sulfur in metabolism C. Cyanobacteria - filamentous, gliding thermophilic bacteria D. Myxobacteria - gliding, fruiting slime bacteria 34. The presence of thylakoids, phycocyanin, gas inclusions, and cysts would be associated with A. green sulfur bacteria. B. cyanobacteria. C. purple sulfur bacteria. D. archaea. E. spirochetes. 35. When a rod-shaped bacteria is short and plump, it is called a A. spirochete. B. pleomorphism. C. vibrio. D. coccobacillus. E. spirillum. 36. Sarcinae refers to A. cocci in pairs. B. a cuboidal packet of cells. C. groups of endopsores. D. coffee-bean-shaped rods in pairs. E. vibrios in threes.

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37. What is the correct sequence for a Gram stain? A. Gram's iodine, Crystal Violet, Alcohol, Safranin B. crystal Violet, Safranin, Alcohol, Gram's iodine C. crystal Violet, Gram's iodine, Alcohol, Safranin D. safranin, Crystal Violet, Gram's iodine, Alcohol E. alcohol, Crystal Violet, Safranin, Gram's iodine

38. All of the following are correct about biofilms, except A. they are cooperative associations among several microbial groups. B. they play an important role in recycling elements in the Earth. C. they can colonize medical devices. D. an example could be the scum that builds up in toilet bowls. E. they are harmless aggregations of microbes. 39. Bacteria with small bunches of flagella emerging from the same site are said to be A. lophotrichous. B. peritrichous. C. monotrichous. D. amphitrichous. E. spirilla.

40. All of the following are correct about a slime layer, except


016_QC_CS-54137 A. it is a type of glycocalyx. B. it can be easily washed off the cell. C. it protects the cell from loss of water and nutrients. D. it enables movement of cells. E. it allows cells to participate in biofilms. 41. Lysozyme, an enzyme found in tears, provides a natural defense against bacteria by A. hydrolyzing peptidoglycan in cell walls. B. inhibiting protein synthesis. C. removing flagella. D. dissolving the cell membrane. E. removing the capsule from outside the cell. 42. In the Gram stain, the mordant is A. crystal violet. B. safranin. C. alcohol. D. water. E. iodine. 43. Which cell structure is an important component in modern genetic engineering techniques? A. ribosomes B. capsules C. plasmids D. inclusions E. mesosomes 44. A microoganism has been described to you as living in hot acidic habitats in the waste piles of coal mines that ° regularly sustain a pH of 1 and a temperature of nearly 60 C. Which type of organism do you immediately assume it is? NURSINGTB.COM A. Gracillucates B. Firmicutes C. Actinobacteria D. Archaea E. Spirochaetes 45. Which of the following is mismatched? A. Rickettsia rickettsii: Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever B. Rickettsia typhi: endemic typhus C. Chlamydia trachomatis: blindness D. Coxiella burnetti: cowpox E. All of these choices are correct. 46. Which of the following characteristics is not a property of cells or living things? A. cell boundary B. ability to replicate C. nucleus D. responds to stimulus E. All of the choices are not fundamental characteristics of living things. 47. Archaea do not have the typical peptidoglycan structure found in bacterial cell walls. True False 48. Bacteria in the genus Mycoplasma and bacteria called L-forms lack cell walls. True False


49. Gram-negative bacteria do not have peptidoglycan in their cell walls. True False 50. Hot carbol fuchsin is the primary dye in the acid-fast stain. True False 51. The region between the bacterial cell membrane and the cell wall is called the outer membrane. True False 52. The prokaryotic cell membrane is a site for many enzymes and metabolic reactions. True False 53. If during the Gram stain procedure, the bacterial cells were viewed immediately after crystal violet was applied, gram-positive cells would be purple but gram-negative cells would be colorless. True False 54. Endospores of certain bacterial species can enter tissues in the human body, germinate, and cause an infectious disease. True False 55. Iodine is the decolorizer in the Gram stain. True False 56. If you observe rod-shaped, pink cells on a slide that had just been Gram stained, you can assume that their cell walls contain endotoxin. True False NURSINGTB.COM 57. The term diplococci refers to an irregular cluster of spherical bacterial cells. True False 58. Which of the following makes possible the differentiation of members of the genus Mycobacterium and the genus Nocardia from other bacteria? A. the Gram stain B. the presence of flagella C. the acid-fast stain D. an endospore stain E. the capsule stain 59. The prokaryotic flagellum has three parts: the

, the hook, and the basal body.

60. Movement of a cell toward a chemical stimulus is termed 61. The cell 62.

.

is composed of three layers: the glycocalyx, the cell wall, and the cell membrane.

is a macromolecule containing alternating N-acetylglucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid cross-linked by short peptide fragments.

63. During the Gram stain, gram

cells decolorize when the alcohol is applied.


64. The enzyme , that is found in tears and saliva, can hydrolyze the bonds in the glycan chains of certain bacterial cell walls. 65. The chemical components of ribosomes are proteins and

.

66. A prokaryotic ribosome has a 70 S size composed of two smaller subunits of which the smaller subunit is S size and the larger one is S size.-

67. Cells form a side by side. 68.

arrangement when cells in a chain snap back upon each other forming a row of cells oriented

Manual of Systematic Bacteriology is a manual of bacterial descriptions and classifications.

69. Compare and contrast the cyanobacteria to the green and purple sulfur bacteria with regard to: a) habitat, b) photosynthesis properties, c) cell properties, and d) impact and importance to the environment. 70. Discuss biofilms with regard to their formation, unique properties, and significance to the environment and the human body. Explain how a biofilm differs from a typical bacterial colony growing on a nutrient agar medium. 71. Discuss the difference between Bacillus and bacilli, and the difference between Streptococcus and streptococci. 72. Compare the following: bacterial species, bacterial strain, and bacterial type. Explain the relationship and development of strains and types to a species. 73. Which of the following characteristics of living things is/are not found among viruses? NURSINGTB.COM A. heredity B. cellular structure C. ability to evolve D. presence of nucleic acid E. All of these characteristics are lacking in viruses. 74. The process of endospore formation is vegetative cell is .

, while the process of an endospore growing into a

A. germination; sporulation B. reproduction; sporulation C. germination; reproduction D. sporulation; germination 75. In bacteria such as members of the Bacillus and Clostridium genera, nutrient depletion is likely to result in A. germination. B. sporulation. C. binary fission. D. plasmolysis. E. starvation. 76. Which of the following represents size relationships from smallest to largest? A. rhinovirus, Ebola virus, Staphylococcus cell, yeast cell, red blood cell, squamous epithelial cell B. Ebola virus, Rhinovirus, yeast cell, Staphylococcus cell, red blood cell, squamous epithelial cell C. Ebola virus, yeast cell, Rhinovirus, red blood cell, Staphylococcus cell, squamous epithelial cell D. rhinovirus, Ebola virus, Staphylococcus cell, red blood cell, yeast cell, squamous epithelial cell 77. What unit of measure is most appropriate for expressing the size of bacteria?


A. micrometer B. nanometer C. milimeter D. picometer 78. According to current thought regarding the domains of life, which two domains are believed to be the most closely related? A. Bacteria and Eukarya B. Archaea and Bacteria C. Archaea and Eukarya

79. Classification and taxonomy provide information and contribute to each of the following endeavors, except A. identification of unknown species. B. the study of evolutionary relationships. C. tracing the origins of bacteria. D. selection of appropriate antibiotics. E. enabling communication among scientists regarding the same and different species of microbes. 80. Which of the three domains includes organisms that would be most likely to survive the environmental conditions that existed on Earth nearly 4 billion years ago? A. Eukarya B. Archaea C. Bacteria 81. Bacteria and Archaea can be differentiated from one another by the A. presence or absence of membranous organelles. B. size of individual cells. C. presence of a novel nucleic acid in the Archaea D. chemical makeup of the cell wall. E. All of these can be used to differentiate theNtw dIoNmGaTinBs..COM UoRS 82. A newly described unicellular organism was isolated from a salt mine. This organism has no membranous organelles and its cell wall lacks peptidoglycan. Attempts to culture it in a medium with less than 25% salt were unsuccessful, but it was able to grow well on 25% salt supplemented agar. This organism would best be described as a and is most likely in the domain . A. halophile; Bacteria. B. thermophile; Bacteria. C. thermophile; Eukarya. D. halophile; Archaea. E. thermophile; Archaea. 83. All of the following terms describe environmental adaptations found among the members of the domain Archaea, except A. thermophilic. B. psychrophilic. C. acidophilic. D. halophilic. E. barophilic. F. There are no exceptions here. Each of these adaptations is seen among different members of the domain Archaea. 84. A halophile would A. undergo plasmolysis B. undergo osmotic lysis C. become crenated D. thrive E. form endospores

in a high salt environment.


Chapter 04 Testbank Key 1.

The difference in cell wall structure of Mycobacterium and Nocardia compared to the typical gram-positive bacterial cell wall structure is A. the presence of more peptidoglycan. B. the predominance of unique, waxy lipids. C. the rapid decolorization during staining. D. the presence of lipopolysaccharide. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.13 Relate the characteristics of other types of cell walls and wall-free cells. Section: 04.03

2.

Bacterial cells could have any of the following appendages, except

Topic: External Bacterial Structures

A. flagella. B. cilia. C. fimbriae. D. periplasmic flagella (axial filaments). E. sex pili. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.04 Distinguish among the types of external cell appendages. Section: 04.02 Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology Topic: External Bacterial Structures

3.

Spirochetes have a twisting and flexing locomotion due to appendages called A. flagella. B. cilia. C. fimbriae. D. periplasmic flagella (axial filaments). E. sex pili.

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.04 Distinguish among the types of external cell appendages.

Learning Outcome: 04.06 Explain how flagella influence motility and motile behavior. Section: 04.02

Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology Topic: External Bacterial Structures

4.

The short, numerous appendages used by some bacterial cells for adhering to surfaces are called A. flagella. B. cilia. C. fimbriae. D. periplasmic flagella (axial filaments). E. sex pili. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.07 Discuss the structure and functions of pili and fimbriae. Section: 04.02

Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology Topic: External Bacterial Structures


5.

The transfer of genes during bacterial conjugation involves rigid, tubular appendages called A. flagella. B. cilia. C. fimbriae. D. periplasmic flagella (axial filaments). E. sex pili. ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.07 Discuss the structure and functions of pili and fimbriae. Section: 04.02

Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology Topic: External Bacterial Structures

6.

All bacterial cells have A. a chromosome. B. fimbriae. C. endospores. D. capsules. E. flagella. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.01 Describe the fundamental characteristics of cells.

Learning Outcome: 04.03 Describe the generalized anatomy of bacterial cells. Learning Outcome: 04.15 List the contents of the cell cytoplasm. Section: 04.01 Section: 04.04

Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology Topic: Internal Bacterial Structure

7.

The term that refers to the presence of flagella all over the cell surface is A. amphitrichous. B. atrichous. C. lophotrichous. D. monotrichous. E. peritrichous.

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 04.05 Describe the structure and position of bacterial flagella and axial filaments, and their attachment patterns. Section: 04.02

Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology Topic: External Bacterial Structures

8.

The outcome of the Gram stain is based on differences in the cell's A. ribosomes. B. inclusions. C. cell wall. D. cell membrane. E. flagella. ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage infection. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.11 Contrast the major structure of gram-positive and gram-negative cell walls. Learning Outcome: 04.12 Summarize how gram-positive and gram-negative cells differ in their reactions. Section: 04.03

Topic: External Bacterial Structures


9.

The most immediate result of destruction of a cell's ribosomes would be A. material would not be able to cross the cell membrane. B. protein synthesis would stop. C. destruction of the cell's DNA. D. formation of glycogen inclusions. E. loss of capsule. ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom's: Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 04.17 Characterize the bacterial ribosomes and cytoskeleton. Section: 04.04

Topic: Internal Bacterial Structure

10.

A bacterial cell exhibiting chemotaxis probably has A. fimbriae. B. capsules. C. mesosomes. D. flagella. E. metachromatic granules. ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 04.05 Describe the structure and position of bacterial flagella and axial filaments, and their attachment patterns.

Learning Outcome: 04.06 Explain how flagella influence motility and motile behavior. Section: 04.02

Topic: External Bacterial Structures

11.

If bacteria living in salty seawater were displaced to a freshwater environment, the cell structure that would prevent the cells from rupturing is A. endospore. B. cell wall. C. cell membrane. D. capsule. E. slime layer.

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 04.10 Outline the structure and functions of cell walls, and explain the role of peptidoglycan. Section: 04.03

Topic: External Bacterial Structures

12.

Which structure protects bacteria from being phagocytized? A. slime layer B. fimbriae C. cell membrane D. capsule E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.08 Define glycocalyx, and describe its different forms and functions. Learning Outcome: 04.09 Explain the concept of the cell envelope, and describe its structure. Section: 04.02

Topic: External Bacterial Structures

13.

Peptidoglycan is a unique macromolecule found in bacterial A. cell walls. B. cell membranes. C. capsules. D. slime layers. E. inclusions. ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities.


ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 04.10 Outline the structure and functions of cell walls, and explain the role of peptidoglycan. Section: 04.03

Topic: External Bacterial Structures

14.

All of the following structures contribute to the ability of pathogenic bacteria to cause disease, except A. inclusions. B. fimbriae. C. capsule. D. slime layer. E. outer membrane of gram-negative cell walls. ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 04.07 Discuss the structure and functions of pili and fimbriae.

Learning Outcome: 04.08 Define glycocalyx, and describe its different forms and functions. Learning Outcome: 04.09 Explain the concept of the cell envelope, and describe its structure. Learning Outcome: 04.15 List the contents of the cell cytoplasm. Section: 04.02 Section: 04.03 Section: 04.04 Topic: External Bacterial Structures

15.

A prokaryotic cell wall that has primarily peptidoglycan with small amounts of teichoic acid and lipoteichoic acid is A. gram-negative. B. gram-positive. C. archaea. D. a spheroplast. E. acid fast. ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 03. Apply LearningNOU utR coSm e: G 04T.1B1.C CoO nM trast the major structure of gram-positive and gram-negative cell walls. IN Section: 04.03

Topic: External Bacterial Structures

16.

A bacterial genus that has waxy mycolic acid in the cell walls is A. Mycobacterium. B. Mycoplasma. C. Streptococcus. D. Corynebacterium. E. Salmonella. ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 04.13 Relate the characteristics of other types of cell walls and wall-free cells. Section: 04.03

Topic: External Bacterial Structures

17.

All of the following pertain to endotoxins, except they A. are specific bacterial cell wall lipids. B. can stimulate fever in the human body. C. can cause shock in the human body. D. are involved in typhoid fever and some meningitis cases. E. are found in acid-fast bacterial cell walls. ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 04.11 Contrast the major structure of gram-positive and gram-negative cell walls.

Learning Outcome: 04.13 Relate the characteristics of other types of cell walls and wall-free cells. Section: 04.03

Topic: External Bacterial Structures

18.

Lipopolysaccharide is an important cell wall component of


A. gram-negative bacteria. B. gram-positive bacteria. C. acid-fast bacteria. D. mycoplasmas. E. protoplasts. ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 04.10 Outline the structure and functions of cell walls, and explain the role of peptidoglycan. Learning Outcome: 04.11 Contrast the major structure of gram-positive and gram-negative cell walls. Section: 04.03

Topic: External Bacterial Structures

19.

The periplasmic space is A. larger in gram-positive bacteria. B. made up of lipopolysaccharides and phospholipids. C. an important reaction site for substances entering and leaving the cell. D. just external to the LPS layer of the outer membrane. E. absent in gram-negative bacteria. ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.11 Contrast the major structure of gram-positive and gram-negative cell walls. Section: 04.03

Topic: External Bacterial Structures

20.

Which of the following, pertaining to prokaryotic cell membranes, is mismatched? A. internal folds - mesosomes B. sterols present - mycoplasmas C. form a bilayer - phospholipids D. unique hydrocarbon present - cyanobacteria E. function - regulates transport of nutrients and wastes ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 03. Apply NURSINGTB.COM Learning Outcome: 04.14 Describe the structure of the cell membrane, and explain several of its major roles in bacterial cells. Section: 04.03

Topic: Cellular Organization Topic: External Bacterial Structures

21.

The site/s for most ATP synthesis in prokaryotic cells is/are the A. ribosomes. B. mitochondria. C. cell wall. D. inclusions. E. cell membrane. ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.14 Describe the structure of the cell membrane, and explain several of its major roles in bacterial cells. Section: 04.03

Topic: Cellular Organization Topic: External Bacterial Structures

22.

The bacterial chromosome A. is located in the cell membrane. B. contains all the cell's plasmids. C. is part of the nucleoid. D. forms a single linear strand of DNA. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.16 Describe features of the bacterial chromosome and plasmids. Section: 04.04

Topic: Cellular Organization Topic: Internal Bacterial Structure


23.

Which is mismatched? A. ribosomes - protein synthesis B. inclusions - excess cell nutrients and materials C. plasmids - genes essential for growth and metabolism D. nucleoid - hereditary material E. cytoplasm - dense, gelatinous solution ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.15 List the contents of the cell cytoplasm. Learning Outcome: 04.16 Describe features of the bacterial chromosome and plasmids. Learning Outcome: 04.17 Characterize the bacterial ribosomes and cytoskeleton.

Learning Outcome: 04.18 Describe inclusion bodies and granules, and explain their importance to cells. Section: 04.04 Topic: Cellular Organization Topic: Internal Bacterial Structure

24.

Magnetosomes are A. infoldings of the cell membrane. B. termed metachromatic granules. C. responsible for the heat resistance of endospores. D. composed of magnetic iron oxide particles. E. found in all bacteria. ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.18 Describe inclusion bodies and granules, and explain their importance to cells. Section: 04.04

Topic: Internal Bacterial Structure

25.

The function of bacterial endospores is A. to convert gaseous nitrogen to a usable form for plants. B. for reproduction and growth. C. for protection of genetic material during harsh conditions. D. the storage of excess cell materials. NURSINGTB.COM E. to have sites for photosynthesis. ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.20 Discuss the resistance and significance of endospores. Section: 04.04

Topic: Internal Bacterial Structure

26.

Chemical analysis of a bacterial cell structure detects calcium dipicolinic acid. What is the identity of this structure? A. cell wall B. capsule C. slime layer D. nucleoid E. endospore ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 04.20 Discuss the resistance and significance of endospores. Section: 04.04

Topic: Internal Bacterial Structure

27.

Endospores are A. metabolically inactive. B. resistant to heat and chemical destruction. C. resistant to destruction by radiation. D. living structures. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function


Bloom's: Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.20 Discuss the resistance and significance of endospores. Section: 04.04

Topic: Internal Bacterial Structure

28.

Bacterial endospores are not produced by A. Staphylococcus. B. Sporosarcina. C. Bacillus. D. Clostridium. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 04.20 Discuss the resistance and significance of endospores. Section: 04.04

Topic: Internal Bacterial Structure

29.

Which term is not used to describe bacterial cell shapes? A. coccus B. tetrad C. vibrio D. rod E. spirochete ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 04.21 Describe the shapes of bacteria and their possible variants.

Learning Outcome: 04.22 Identify several arrangements of bacteria and how they are formed. Section: 04.05

Topic: Cellular Organization

30.

Which statement is not a characteristic of biofilms? A. They can be involved with human disease. NURSINGTB.COM B. They involve bacteria only. C. They evolve and adapt to their surroundings. D. They are very difficult to eliminate with antimicrobials. E. They can accumulate on living and nonliving surfaces. ASM Objective: 05.02 Most bacteria in nature live in biofilm communities.

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's: Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.08 Define glycocalyx, and describe its different forms and functions. Section: 04.02 Topic: Cellular Organization Topic: External Bacterial Structures

31.

An important indicator of evolutionary relatedness is the A. size of the periplasmic space. B. similarities of cell membrane proteins. C. size of the bacterial chromosome. D. nitrogen base sequence of rRNA. E. size of the ribosomes. ASM Objective: 01.05 The evolutionary relatedness of organisms is best reflected in phylogenetic trees. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution Bloom's: Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.25 Overview characteristics used to classify bacteria.

Learning Outcome: 04.26 Outline a basic system of bacterial taxonomy. Section: 04.06 Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms

32.

Which phylum is mismatched? A. Gracilicutes - gram-negative cell walls B. Firmicutes - gram-positive cell walls C. Actinobacteria - waxy acid-fast cell walls D. Proteobacteria - archaea cell walls


ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 04.25 Overview characteristics used to classify bacteria. Learning Outcome: 04.26 Outline a basic system of bacterial taxonomy. Section: 04.06

33.

Topic: External Bacterial Structures

Which is mismatched? A. Chlamydias - lack ability to independently complete growth and metabolism B. green sulfur bacteria - photosynthetic anaerobes that use sulfur in metabolism C. Cyanobacteria - filamentous, gliding thermophilic bacteria D. Myxobacteria - gliding, fruiting slime bacteria

ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fixation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis). ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's: Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 04.25 Overview characteristics used to classify bacteria.

Learning Outcome: 04.28 Differentiate various groups of photosynthetic bacteria. Learning Outcome: 04.29 Characterize the types of obligate intracellular bacteria. Section: 04.07

Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms

34.

The presence of thylakoids, phycocyanin, gas inclusions, and cysts would be associated with A. green sulfur bacteria. B. cyanobacteria. C. purple sulfur bacteria. D. archaea. E. spirochetes. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialiN zeU dR stS ruIcNtuG reTsB(e.C .gO ., M flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.15 List the contents of the cell cytoplasm. Learning Outcome: 04.28 Differentiate various groups of photosynthetic bacteria. Section: 04.07 Topic: Internal Bacterial Structure Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms

35.

When a rod-shaped bacteria is short and plump, it is called a A. spirochete. B. pleomorphism. C. vibrio. D. coccobacillus. E. spirillum.

36.

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 04.21 Describe the shapes of bacteria and their possible variants. Section: 04.05 Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology

Sarcinae refers to

A. cocci in pairs. B. a cuboidal packet of cells. C. groups of endopsores. D. coffee-bean-shaped rods in pairs. E. vibrios in threes. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function


Bloom's: Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 04.22 Identify several arrangements of bacteria and how they are formed. Section: 04.05 Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology

37.

What is the correct sequence for a Gram stain? A. Gram's iodine, Crystal Violet, Alcohol, Safranin B. crystal Violet, Safranin, Alcohol, Gram's iodine C. crystal Violet, Gram's iodine, Alcohol, Safranin D. safranin, Crystal Violet, Gram's iodine, Alcohol E. alcohol, Crystal Violet, Safranin, Gram's iodine ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if possible, phase contrast). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's: Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 04.12 Summarize how gram-positive and gram-negative cells differ in their reactions. Section: 04.03

38.

Topic: External Bacterial Structures

All of the following are correct about biofilms, except A. they are cooperative associations among several microbial groups. B. they play an important role in recycling elements in the Earth. C. they can colonize medical devices. D. an example could be the scum that builds up in toilet bowls. E. they are harmless aggregations of microbes. ASM Objective: 05.02 Most bacteria in nature live in biofilm communities.

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's: Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.07 Discuss the structure and functions of pili and fimbriae.

Learning Outcome: 04.08 Define glycocalyx, and describe its different forms and functions. Section: 04.02 Topic: External Bacterial Structures

39.

Bacteria with small bunches of flagella emerging from the same site are said to be A. lophotrichous. B. peritrichous. C. monotrichous. D. amphitrichous. E. spirilla.

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 04.05 Describe the structure and position of bacterial flagella and axial filaments, and their attachment patterns. Section: 04.02

Topic: External Bacterial Structures

40.

All of the following are correct about a slime layer, except6_21_2016_QC_CS-54137 A. it is a type of glycocalyx. B. it can be easily washed off the cell. C. it protects the cell from loss of water and nutrients. D. it enables movement of cells. E. it allows cells to participate in biofilms. ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.08 Define glycocalyx, and describe its different forms and functions. Section: 04.02

Topic: External Bacterial Structures

41.

Lysozyme, an enzyme found in tears, provides a natural defense against bacteria by A. hydrolyzing peptidoglycan in cell walls. B. inhibiting protein synthesis. C. removing flagella. D. dissolving the cell membrane. E. removing the capsule from outside the cell.


ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage infection.

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's: Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.10 Outline the structure and functions of cell walls, and explain the role of peptidoglycan. Section: 04.03

Topic: External Bacterial Structures

42.

In the Gram stain, the mordant is A. crystal violet. B. safranin. C. alcohol. D. water. E. iodine. ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if possible, phase contrast). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's: Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 04.12 Summarize how gram-positive and gram-negative cells differ in their reactions. Section: 04.03

Topic: External Bacterial Structures

43.

Which cell structure is an important component in modern genetic engineering techniques? A. ribosomes B. capsules C. plasmids D. inclusions E. mesosomes

44.

ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom's: Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.16 Describe features of the bacterial chromosome and plasmids. Section: 04.04 Topic: Internal Bacterial Structure

A microoganism has been described to youNU asRlSivIN inG g TinBh ta cidic habitats in the waste piles of coal mines that .CoO °M regularly sustain a pH of 1 and a temperature of nearly 60 C. Which type of organism do you immediately assume it is? A. Gracillucates B. Firmicutes C. Actinobacteria D. Archaea E. Spirochaetes

ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems.

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's: Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 04.30 Summarize the basic characteristics of archaea. Learning Outcome: 04.32 Explain archaeal adaptations that place them in the category of extremophiles.

Section: 04.07 Topic: Archaea

45.

Which of the following is mismatched? A. Rickettsia rickettsii: Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever B. Rickettsia typhi: endemic typhus C. Chlamydia trachomatis: blindness D. Coxiella burnetti: cowpox E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's: Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 04.29 Characterize the types of obligate intracellular bacteria. Section: 04.07

Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms

46.

Which of the following characteristics is not a property of cells or living things? A. cell boundary


B. ability to replicate C. nucleus D. responds to stimulus E. All of the choices are not fundamental characteristics of living things. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.01 Describe the fundamental characteristics of cells. Learning Outcome: 04.02 Identify the primary properties that define life and living things.

47.

Section: 04.01 Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology Topic: External Bacterial Structures Topic: Internal Bacterial Structure

Archaea do not have the typical peptidoglycan structure found in bacterial cell walls. TRUE

ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 04.13 Relate the characteristics of other types of cell walls and wall-free cells. Learning Outcome: 04.30 Summarize the basic characteristics of archaea. Section: 04.07

48.

Topic: Archaea

Bacteria in the genus Mycoplasma and bacteria called L-forms lack cell walls. TRUE

ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 04.13 Relate the characteristics of other types of cell walls and wall-free cells. Section: 04.03

Topic: External Bacterial Structures

49.

Gram-negative bacteria do not have peptidoglycan in their cell walls. FALSE

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.11 Contrast the major structure of gram-positive and gram-negative cell walls. Section: 04.03

Topic: External Bacterial Structures

50.

Hot carbol fuchsin is the primary dye in the acid-fast stain. TRUE ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if possible, phase contrast). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's: Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 04.13 Relate the characteristics of other types of cell walls and wall-free cells. Section: 04.03

Topic: External Bacterial Structures

51.

The region between the bacterial cell membrane and the cell wall is called the outer membrane. FALSE ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.03 Describe the generalized anatomy of bacterial cells. Learning Outcome: 04.09 Explain the concept of the cell envelope, and describe its structure. Section: 04.03

Topic: External Bacterial Structures

52.

The prokaryotic cell membrane is a site for many enzymes and metabolic reactions. TRUE ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function


Bloom's: Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.03 Describe the generalized anatomy of bacterial cells. Learning Outcome: 04.14 Describe the structure of the cell membrane, and explain several of its major roles in bacterial cells. Section: 04.03

Topic: External Bacterial Structures

53.

If during the Gram stain procedure, the bacterial cells were viewed immediately after crystal violet was applied, gram-positive cells would be purple but gram-negative cells would be colorless. FALSE ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if possible, phase contrast). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's: Level: 04. Analyze Learning Outcome: 04.12 Summarize how gram-positive and gram-negative cells differ in their reactions. Section: 04.03

Topic: External Bacterial Structures

54.

Endospores of certain bacterial species can enter tissues in the human body, germinate, and cause an infectious disease. TRUE ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's: Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.19 Describe the life cycle of endospore-forming bacteria, including the formation and germination of endospores. Learning Outcome: 04.20 Discuss the resistance and significance of endospores. Section: 04.04

Topic: Internal Bacterial Structure

55.

Iodine is the decolorizer in the Gram stain. FALSE ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if possible, phase contrast). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's: Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 04.12 Summarize how gram-positive and gram-negative cells differ in their reactions. Section: 04.03

56.

Topic: External Bacterial Structures NURSINGTB.COM If you observe rod-shaped, pink cells on a slide that had just been Gram stained, you can assume that their cell walls contain endotoxin.

TRUE ASM Objective: 07.01b Ability to apply the process of science: Analyze and interpret results from a variety of microbiological methods and apply these methods to analogous situations. ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if possible, phase contrast). ASM Topic: Module 07 Scientific Thinking ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's: Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 04.12 Summarize how gram-positive and gram-negative cells differ in their reactions. Section: 04.03

Topic: External Bacterial Structures

57.

The term diplococci refers to an irregular cluster of spherical bacterial cells. FALSE ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 04.21 Describe the shapes of bacteria and their possible variants.

Learning Outcome: 04.22 Identify several arrangements of bacteria and how they are formed. Section: 04.05

Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology

58.

Which of the following makes possible the differentiation of members of the genus Mycobacterium and the genus Nocardia from other bacteria? A. the Gram stain B. the presence of flagella C. the acid-fast stain D. an endospore stain


E. the capsule stain ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if possible, phase contrast). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's: Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 04.10 Outline the structure and functions of cell walls, and explain the role of peptidoglycan. Learning Outcome: 04.13 Relate the characteristics of other types of cell walls and wall-free cells. Learning Outcome: 04.25 Overview characteristics used to classify bacteria. Section: 04.03 Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology Topic: External Bacterial Structures

59.

The prokaryotic flagellum has three parts: the

, the hook, and the basal body.

filament ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 04.05 Describe the structure and position of bacterial flagella and axial filaments, and their attachment patterns.

Learning Outcome: 04.06 Explain how flagella influence motility and motile behavior. Section: 04.02

Topic: External Bacterial Structures

60.

Movement of a cell toward a chemical stimulus is termed

.

chemotaxis ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 04.06 Explain how flagella influence motility and motile behavior. Section: 04.02

Topic: External Bacterial Structures

61.

The cell

is composed of three layers: the glycocalyx, the cell wall, and the cell membrane.

envelope NURSINGTB.COM ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.09 Explain the concept of the cell envelope, and describe its structure. Section: 04.03

Topic: External Bacterial Structures

62.

is a macromolecule containing alternating N-acetylglucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid cross-linked by short peptide fragments. Peptidoglycan ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage infection. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 04.10 Outline the structure and functions of cell walls, and explain the role of peptidoglycan. Section: 04.03

Topic: External Bacterial Structures

63.

During the Gram stain, gram

cells decolorize when the alcohol is applied.

-negative ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if possible, phase contrast). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's: Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.12 Summarize how gram-positive and gram-negative cells differ in their reactions. Section: 04.03

Topic: External Bacterial Structures

64.

The enzyme , that is found in tears and saliva, can hydrolyze the bonds in the glycan chains of certain bacterial cell walls. lysozyme ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage infection. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function


Bloom's: Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 04.10 Outline the structure and functions of cell walls, and explain the role of peptidoglycan. Section: 04.03

Topic: External Bacterial Structures

65.

The chemical components of ribosomes are proteins and

.

ribosomal RNA; rRNA; r RNA ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 04.17 Characterize the bacterial ribosomes and cytoskeleton. Section: 04.04

Topic: Internal Bacterial Structure

66.

A prokaryotic ribosome has a 70 S size composed of two smaller subunits of which the smaller subunit is 30 S size and the larger one is 50 S size.-16-2013

ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage infection. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 04.17 Characterize the bacterial ribosomes and cytoskeleton. Section: 04.04

Topic: Internal Bacterial Structure

67.

Cells form a arrangement when cells in a chain snap back upon each other forming a row of cells oriented side by side. palisade; palisading ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's: Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.21 Describe the shapes of bacteria and their possible variants.

Learning Outcome: 04.22 Identify several arrangements of bacteria and how they are formed. Section: 04.05

68.

Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology

Manual of Systematic Bacteriology is a manual of bacterial descriptions and classifications. NURSINGTB.COM Bergey's

ASM Objective: 01.04 The traditional concept of species is not readily applicable to microbes due to asexual reproduction and the frequent occurrence of horizontal gene transfer. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution Bloom's: Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 04.25 Overview characteristics used to classify bacteria. Learning Outcome: 04.26 Outline a basic system of bacterial taxonomy. Learning Outcome: 04.27 Explain the species and subspecies levels for bacteria. Section: 04.06 Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms

69.

Compare and contrast the cyanobacteria to the green and purple sulfur bacteria with regard to: a) habitat, b) photosynthesis properties, c) cell properties, and d) impact and importance to the environment. ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fixation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis). ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's: Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 04.28 Differentiate various groups of photosynthetic bacteria. Section: 04.07 Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms

70.

Discuss biofilms with regard to their formation, unique properties, and significance to the environment and the human body. Explain how a biofilm differs from a typical bacterial colony growing on a nutrient agar medium.

ASM Objective: 05.02 Most bacteria in nature live in biofilm communities. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's: Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 04.07 Discuss the structure and functions of pili and fimbriae.

Learning Outcome: 04.08 Define glycocalyx, and describe its different forms and functions. Section: 04.02

Topic: External Bacterial Structures


71.

Discuss the difference between Bacillus and bacilli, and the difference between Streptococcus and streptococci. ASM Objective: 07.03a Ability to communicate and collaborate with other disciplines: Effectively communicate fundamental concepts of microbiology in written and oral format. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 07 Scientific Thinking Bloom's: Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 04.21 Describe the shapes of bacteria and their possible variants.

Learning Outcome: 04.22 Identify several arrangements of bacteria and how they are formed. Learning Outcome: 04.26 Outline a basic system of bacterial taxonomy. Section: 04.05 Section: 04.06

Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology

72.

Compare the following: bacterial species, bacterial strain, and bacterial type. Explain the relationship and development of strains and types to a species. ASM Objective: 01.04 The traditional concept of species is not readily applicable to microbes due to asexual reproduction and the frequent occurrence of horizontal gene transfer. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution Bloom's: Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 04.24 Describe the purposes of classification and taxonomy in the study of prokaryotes. Learning Outcome: 04.26 Outline a basic system of bacterial taxonomy. Learning Outcome: 04.27 Explain the species and subspecies levels for bacteria. Section: 04.06 Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology

73.

Which of the following characteristics of living things is/are not found among viruses? A. heredity B. cellular structure C. ability to evolve D. presence of nucleic acid E. All of these characteristics are lacking in viruses. ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells. ASM Objective: 06.02 Microorganisms provide essential models that give us fundamental knowledge about life processes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function NURSINGTB.COM ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom's: Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.02 Identify the primary properties that define life and living things. Section: 04.01

Topic: Cellular Organization

74.

The process of endospore formation is vegetative cell is .

, while the process of an endospore growing into a

A. germination; sporulation B. reproduction; sporulation C. germination; reproduction D. sporulation; germination ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 04.19 Describe the life cycle of endospore-forming bacteria, including the formation and germination of endospores. Section: 04.04

Topic: Internal Bacterial Structure

75.

In bacteria such as members of the Bacillus and Clostridium genera, nutrient depletion is likely to result in A. germination. B. sporulation. C. binary fission. D. plasmolysis. E. starvation. ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 04.19 Describe the life cycle of endospore-forming bacteria, including the formation and germination of endospores. Learning Outcome: 04.20 Discuss the resistance and significance of endospores.


Section: 04.04

Topic: Internal Bacterial Structure

76.

Which of the following represents size relationships from smallest to largest? A. rhinovirus, Ebola virus, Staphylococcus cell, yeast cell, red blood cell, squamous epithelial cell B. Ebola virus, Rhinovirus, yeast cell, Staphylococcus cell, red blood cell, squamous epithelial cell C. Ebola virus, yeast cell, Rhinovirus, red blood cell, Staphylococcus cell, squamous epithelial cell D. rhinovirus, Ebola virus, Staphylococcus cell, red blood cell, yeast cell, squamous epithelial cell ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 04.23 Outline the size ranges among bacteria and in comparison to other organisms. Section: 04.05 Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology

77.

What unit of measure is most appropriate for expressing the size of bacteria? A. micrometer B. nanometer C. milimeter D. picometer ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.23 Outline the size ranges among bacteria and in comparison to other organisms. Section: 04.05 Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology

78.

According to current thought regarding the domains of life, which two domains are believed to be the most closely related? A. Bacteria and Eukarya B. Archaea and Bacteria C. Archaea and Eukarya NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 01.05 The evolutionary relatedness of organisms is best reflected in phylogenetic trees. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution Bloom's: Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.31 Compare Domain Archaea with Domains Bacteria and Eukarya.

79.

Section: 04.07 Topic: Archaea Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms

Classification and taxonomy provide information and contribute to each of the following endeavors, except A. identification of unknown species. B. the study of evolutionary relationships. C. tracing the origins of bacteria. D. selection of appropriate antibiotics. E. enabling communication among scientists regarding the same and different species of microbes. ASM Objective: 01.04 The traditional concept of species is not readily applicable to microbes due to asexual reproduction and the frequent occurrence of horizontal gene transfer. ASM Objective: 01.05 The evolutionary relatedness of organisms is best reflected in phylogenetic trees. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution Bloom's: Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.24 Describe the purposes of classification and taxonomy in the study of prokaryotes. Section: 04.06

Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms

80.

Which of the three domains includes organisms that would be most likely to survive the environmental conditions that existed on Earth nearly 4 billion years ago? A. Eukarya B. Archaea C. Bacteria ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fixation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis). ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations).


ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. Bloom's: Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 04.31 Compare Domain Archaea with Domains Bacteria and Eukarya. Section: 04.07

Topic: Archaea Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms

81.

Bacteria and Archaea can be differentiated from one another by the A. presence or absence of membranous organelles. B. size of individual cells. C. presence of a novel nucleic acid in the Archaea D. chemical makeup of the cell wall. E. All of these can be used to differentiate the two domains. ASM Objective: 01.05 The evolutionary relatedness of organisms is best reflected in phylogenetic trees. ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage infection.

ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's: Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.31 Compare Domain Archaea with Domains Bacteria and Eukarya. Section: 04.07

Topic: Archaea Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms

82.

A newly described unicellular organism was isolated from a salt mine. This organism has no membranous organelles and its cell wall lacks peptidoglycan. Attempts to culture it in a medium with less than 25% salt were unsuccessful, but it was able to grow well on 25% salt supplemented agar. This organism would best be described as a and is most likely in the domain . A. halophile; Bacteria. B. thermophile; Bacteria. C. thermophile; Eukarya. D. halophile; Archaea. E. thermophile; Archaea. ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fixation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis). NURSINGTB.COM ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's: Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 04.31 Compare Domain Archaea with Domains Bacteria and Eukarya. Learning Outcome: 04.32 Explain archaeal adaptations that place them in the category of extremophiles. Section: 04.07

83.

Topic: Archaea

All of the following terms describe environmental adaptations found among the members of the domain Archaea, except A. thermophilic. B. psychrophilic. C. acidophilic. D. halophilic. E. barophilic. F. There are no exceptions here. Each of these adaptations is seen among different members of the domain Archaea. ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fixation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis). ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's: Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.32 Explain archaeal adaptations that place them in the category of extremophiles. Section: 04.07 Topic: Archaea

84.

A halophile would A. undergo plasmolysis B. undergo osmotic lysis C. become crenated D. thrive E. form endospores

in a high salt environment.


ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fixation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's: Level: 04. Analyze Learning Outcome: 04.32 Explain archaeal adaptations that place them in the category of extremophiles. Section: 04.07

Topic: Archaea

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Chapter 04 Testbank Summary Category

# of Questions

ASM Objective: 01.04 The traditional concept of species is not readily applicable to microbes due to asexual reprodu ction and the frequent occurrence of horizontal gene transfer.

3

ASM Objective: 01.05 The evolutionary relatedness of organisms is best reflected in phylogenetic trees.

4

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (in cluding bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron).

16

ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage inf ection.

6

ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that ofte n confer critical capabilities.

41

ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes.

1

ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fix ation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis).

6

ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determi ned by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations).

2

ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metaboli c characteristics.

1

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biologic al means.

1

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes.

1

ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells.

1

ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems.

2

ASM Objective: 05.02 Most bacteria in nature live in biofilm communities.

3

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in benefi cial, neutral or detrimental ways.

3

ASM Objective: 06.02 Microorganisms provide essential models that give us fundamental knowledge about life proce sses. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microNoU rgRaS nIisNmGsTaBn.dCtO heM ir products.

1

ASM Objective: 07.01b Ability to apply the process of science: Analyze and interpret results from a variety of microbi ological methods and apply these methods to analogous situations.

1

ASM Objective: 07.03a Ability to communicate and collaborate with other disciplines: Effectively communicate funda mental concepts of microbiology in written and oral format.

1

ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if po ssible, phase contrast).

8

1

ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution

6

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function

60

ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways

6

ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow

2

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems

7

ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms

2

ASM Topic: Module 07 Scientific Thinking

2

ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills

9

Bloom's: Level: 01. Remember

26

Bloom's: Level: 02. Understand

36

Bloom's: Level: 03. Apply

20

Bloom's: Level: 04. Analyze

2

Learning Outcome: 04.01 Describe the fundamental characteristics of cells.

2

Learning Outcome: 04.02 Identify the primary properties that define life and living things.

2

Learning Outcome: 04.03 Describe the generalized anatomy of bacterial cells.

3

Learning Outcome: 04.04 Distinguish among the types of external cell appendages.

2

Learning Outcome: 04.05 Describe the structure and position of bacterial flagella and axial filaments, and their attach ment patterns.

4

Learning Outcome: 04.06 Explain how flagella influence motility and motile behavior.

4


Learning Outcome: 04.07 Discuss the structure and functions of pili and fimbriae. Learning Outcome: 04.08 Define glycocalyx, and describe its different forms and functions.

5 6

Learning Outcome: 04.09 Explain the concept of the cell envelope, and describe its structure.

4

Learning Outcome: 04.10 Outline the structure and functions of cell walls, and explain the role of peptidoglycan.

7

Learning Outcome: 04.11 Contrast the major structure of gram-positive and gram-negative cell walls.

6

Learning Outcome: 04.12 Summarize how gram-positive and gram-negative cells differ in their reactions.

7

Learning Outcome: 04.13 Relate the characteristics of other types of cell walls and wall-free cells.

7

Learning Outcome: 04.14 Describe the structure of the cell membrane, and explain several of its major roles in bacter ial cells.

3

Learning Outcome: 04.15 List the contents of the cell cytoplasm.

4

Learning Outcome: 04.16 Describe features of the bacterial chromosome and plasmids.

3

Learning Outcome: 04.17 Characterize the bacterial ribosomes and cytoskeleton.

4

Learning Outcome: 04.18 Describe inclusion bodies and granules, and explain their importance to cells.

2

Learning Outcome: 04.19 Describe the life cycle of endosporeforming bacteria, including the formation and germination of endospores.

3

Learning Outcome: 04.20 Discuss the resistance and significance of endospores.

6

Learning Outcome: 04.21 Describe the shapes of bacteria and their possible variants.

5

Learning Outcome: 04.22 Identify several arrangements of bacteria and how they are formed.

5

Learning Outcome: 04.23 Outline the size ranges among bacteria and in comparison to other organisms.

2

Learning Outcome: 04.24 Describe the purposes of classification and taxonomy in the study of prokaryotes.

2

Learning Outcome: 04.25 Overview characteristics used to classify bacteria.

5

Learning Outcome: 04.26 Outline a basic system of bacterial taxonomy.

5

Learning Outcome: 04.27 Explain the species and subspecies levels for bacteria.

2

Learning Outcome: 04.28 Differentiate various groups of photosynthetic bacteria.

3

Learning Outcome: 04.29 Characterize the types of obligate intracellular bacteria.

2

Learning Outcome: 04.30 Summarize the basic characteristics of archaea.

2

Learning Outcome: 04.31 Compare Domain Archaea with Domains Bacteria and Eukarya.

4

Learning Outcome: 04.32 Explain archaeal adaptations that place them in the category of extremophiles.

4

Section: 04.01

NURSINGTB.COM

3

Section: 04.02

15

Section: 04.03

28

Section: 04.04

16

Section: 04.05

8

Section: 04.06

6

Section: 04.07

12

Topic: Archaea

8

Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology

17

Topic: Cellular Organization

7

Topic: External Bacterial Structures

44

Topic: Internal Bacterial Structure Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms

17 10


Chapter 05 Testbank Student:

1.

Protists include A. yeasts and molds. B. algae and protozoa. C. helminths. D. All of these choices are correct.

2.

The eukaryotic cell organelle that most resembles a bacterial cell is the A. nucleus. B. Golgi apparatus. C. mitochondria. D. lysosome. E. ribosome.

3.

Eukaryotic flagella differ from prokaryotic flagella because only eukaryotic flagella A. are used for cell motility. B. facilitate chemotaxis. C. facilitate phototaxis. D. are long whip-like structures. E. contain microtubules.

4.

Cilia are found in certain A. protozoa. B. algae. C. fungi. D. bacteria. E. All of these choices are correct.

5.

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Chitin is a chemical component of the cell walls of A. protozoa. B. algae. C. fungi. D. bacteria. E. All of these choices are correct.

6.

Cell walls are not found on typical cells of A. protozoa. B. algae. C. fungi. D. bacteria. E. All of these choices are correct.

7.

The site for ribosomal RNA synthesis in eukaryotes is the A. ribosome. B. nucleolus. C. nucleus. D. Golgi apparatus. E. lysosome.

8.

When a eukaryotic cell is not undergoing mitosis, the DNA and its associated proteins appear as a visible threadlike mass called the A. nuclear envelope. B. nucleosome.


C. nucleolus. D. nucleoplasm. E. chromatin. 9.

Histones are A. found in polyribosomes. B. enzymes found in lysosomes. C. proteins of the cytoskeleton. D. proteins associated with DNA in the nucleus. E. on the surface of rough endoplasmic reticulum.

10. The eukaryotic cell's glycocalyx is A. mostly polysaccharide. B. the site where many metabolic reactions occur. C. also called the cell wall. D. composed of many diverse proteins. E. protection against osmotic lysis. 11. Which of the following is found in eukaryotic cells but not in prokaryotic cells? A. nucleus B. mitochondria C. endoplasmic reticulum D. lysosomes E. All of these choices are correct. 12. The endosymbiotic theory says that precursor eukaryotic cells acquired mitochondria by endosymbiosis with a ancestor, and others gained photosynthetic ability from endosymbiosis with a ancestor. A. protozoan, algae B. archaea, cyanobacteria C. rickettsial, cyanobacteria D. helminth, algae E. None of the choices are correct.

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13. The cell's series of tunnel-like membranes functioning in transport and storage are the A. mitochondria. B. lysosomes. C. Golgi apparatus. D. chloroplasts. E. endoplasmic reticulum. 14. An organelle that is a stack of flattened, membranous sacs and functions to receive, modify, and package proteins for cell secretion is the A. mitochondria. B. lysosomes. C. Golgi apparatus. D. chloroplasts. E. endoplasmic reticulum. 15. Which organelle contains cristae where enzymes and electron carriers for aerobic respiration are found? A. mitochondria B. lysosomes C. Golgi apparatus D. chloroplasts E. endoplasmic reticulum 16. Organelles found in algae but not found in protozoa or fungi are the


A. mitochondria. B. lysosomes. C. Golgi apparatus. D. chloroplasts. E. endoplasmic reticulum. 17. Protists with contractile vacuoles A. are algae. B. use them to expel excess water from the cell. C. typically live in salty seawater. D. use them for motility. E. All of these choices are correct. 18. The cytoskeleton A. anchors organelles. B. provides support. C. functions in movements of the cytoplasm. D. helps maintain cell shape. E. All of these choices are correct. 19. The size of a eukaryotic cell ribosome is A. 30S. B. 40S. C. 50S. D. 70S. E. 80S. 20. Filamentous fungi are called A. pseudohyphae. B. septa. C. molds. D. dimorphic. E. mycelium.

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21. When buds remain attached, they form a chain of yeast cells called A. pseudohyphae. B. septa. C. molds. D. dimorphic. E. mycelium. 22. Fungi that grow as yeast at one temperature but will grow as mold at another temperature are called A. dimorphic. B. saprobes. C. pseudohyphae. D. spores. E. Fungi Imperfecti (Deuteromycota). 23. Fungal spores A. are only produced under harmful environmental conditions. B. are only asexually produced. C. cannot be seen in a light microscope. D. are produced by molds but not by yeasts. E. are used to identify fungi. 24. Which of the following spores are produced within a sac?


A. chlamydospores B. sporangiospores C. blastospores D. arthrospores E. zygospores 25. Which of the following spores are sexually produced? A. chlamydospores B. sporangiospores C. blastospores D. arthrospores E. zygospores 26. A mold is observed to have asexual conidia, sexual spores within a sac, and septate hyphae. It is most likely classified in the A. Zygomycota. B. Ascomycota. C. Basidiomycota. D. Deuteromycota. E. Fungi Imperfecti. 27. What do zygospores, ascospores, and basidiospores have in common? A. They are enclosed in a sac. B. They are types of conidia. C. They are sexual spores. D. They are found only in molds. E. All of these choices are correct. 28. Which is not a characteristic of fungi? A. Fungal cells have cell walls. NURSINGTB.COM B. Fungi are photosynthetic. C. Fungi include single-celled and filamentous forms. D. Fungi are heterotrophs. E. Fungi can use a wide variety of nutrients.

29. Blooms of certain dinoflagellates are associated with all of the following except A. paralytic shellfish poisoning. B. red tides. C. ciguatera. D. Pfiesteria piscicida. E. euglenids. 30. Which is mismatched? A. Pyrrophyta - euglenids B. Chrysophyta - diatoms C. Phaeophyta - brown algae D. Rhodophyta - red seaweed E. Chlorophyta - green algae

31. All of the following are found in some or all protozoa except A. motility. B. ectoplasm and endoplasm. C. heterotrophic nutrition. D. formation of a cyst stage. E. cell wall. 32. The motile feeding stage of protozoa is called the


A. trophozoite. B. cyst. C. sporozoite. D. oocyst. E. food vacuole. 33. The group of protozoa that have flagella are the A. Sarcodina. B. Ciliophora. C. Mastigophora. D. Apicomplexa. 34. Which is mismatched? A. Giardia - transmitted by feces in drinking water B. Histoplasma - causes Ohio Valley fever C. Trichomonas - sexually transmitted D. Plasmodium - causes Chaga's disease E. Saccharomyces - yeast in making bread and beer

35. All of the following are helminths except A. pinworms. B. flukes. C. trypanosomes. D. roundworms. E. tapeworms. 36. Which of the following does not pertain to helminths? A. in kingdom Protista B. parasitic worms C. eggs and sperm for reproduction NURSINGTB.COM D. often alternate hosts in complex life cycles E. have various organ systems 37. Larvae and eggs are developmental forms of A. protozoa. B. algae. C. helminths. D. fungi. 38. Both fish and humans develop neurological symptoms and bloody skin lesions due to a sudden "bloom" of this algae.6-2013

A. Prototheca B. Pfiesteria piscicida C. diatoms D. Phaeophyta E. All of these choices are correct. 39. The stacks of thylakoids in a chloroplast are called A. grana. B. stroma. C. mesosomes. D. cristae. E. packages. 40. In order to reproduce sexually, diploid cells must produce A. diploid; mitosis

gametes through

.


B. diploid; meiosis C. haploid; mitosis D. haploid; meiosis E. triploid; mitosis 41. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum functions in synthesis of

.

A. glycogen B. proteins C. glucose D. nucleic acids E. lipids 42. Which of the following are present in viruses? A. Mitochondria B. Cytoskeleton C. Pigments D. Endoplasmic reticulum E. None of these choices are correct. 43. On what basis are fungi classified as Fungi Imperfecti, or Deuteromycota? A. based on their ability to cause diseases in animals B. based on whether they have a cap containing gills C. based on if the fungus lacks a sexual state D. based on if they have a special fungal sac E. based on if they can grow in acidic soil 44. Which of the following is the cause of malaria?

A. Toxoplasma gondii B. Plasmodium C. Giardia D. Leishmania E. Trypanosoma

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45. Sources for human infection with worms are all of the following except A. infected animals. B. contaminated food. C. contaminated water. D. contaminated soil. E. contaminated air.

46. All of the following are correct about helminths except A. they generally make only a few eggs per day. B. they are not all parasites, although some are. C. as parasites, their reproductive organs are their most developed organs. D. their eggs and larvae are vulnerable to heat. E. tapeworms and pinworms are two examples. 47. The organelle involved in intracellular digestion of food particles is the A. Golgi apparatus. B. lysosome. C. mitochondria. D. transitional vesicle. E. smooth endoplasmic reticulum. 48. Which of the following is in the correct order? A. cytokinesis, metaphase, anaphase, telophase


B. metaphase, anaphase, cytokinesis, telophase C. prophase, cytokinesis, telophase, anaphase D. interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase E. All of these choices are correct. 49. Chromosomes are not visible in the nucleus unless the cell is undergoing nuclear division. True False 50. Eukaryotic mitochondria have their own 70S ribosomes and circular DNA. True False 51. The eukaryotic cell membrane is a bilayer of sterols. True False 52. Infections caused by fungi are called mycoses. True False 53. The only division of Fungi that contains human pathogens is the Deuteromycota. True False 54. All fungi have hyphae. True False 55. All algae have chloroplasts. True False 56. Algae are classified into divisions based principally on their type of motility. NURSINGTB.COM True False 57. Plankton are floating communities of helminths. True False 58. Fungi are autotrophic. True False 59. Biologists have found evidence that eukaryotic cells evolved from prokaryotic organisms by a process of intracellular . 60. There are nine peripheral pairs and one central pair of

found inside eukaryotic flagella and cilia.

61. The passageways in the nuclear envelope for movement of substances to and from the nucleus and cytoplasm are called nuclear . 62. Proteins associated with DNA in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells are called

.

63. A originates from the Golgi apparatus as one type of vesicle that contains a variety of enzymes for intracellular digestion. 64. Chloroplasts are composed of membranous sacs called ground substance called the .

that carry chlorophyll. Surrounding these sacs is a


65. In eukaryotic cells, ribosomes have two locations: scattered free in the . 66. The long, thread-like branching cells of molds are called

, and bound on the surface of the

.

67. During unfavorable growth conditions, many protozoa can convert to a resistant, dormant stage called a . 68. Discuss in detail, at least four reasons why fungi belong in their own kingdom instead of the kingdoms Plantae or Protista. 69. Compare and contrast the yeasts and molds with regard to: a) microscopic cellular morphology, b) macroscopic colony morphology, and c) reproduction. 70. Compare and contrast protozoan cysts, fungal spores, and bacterial endospores with regard to: a) the factors that stimulate their formation, b) their structure, and c) their function. 71. Discuss the role of specific algal and fungal toxins in human disease. 71. Compare and contrast the morphology of cestodes, trematodes, and nematodes. 73. Compare and contrast the physical characteristics of protozoans, yeasts, and algae. 74. To provide motility, prokaryotic flagella whip back and forth while eukaryotic flagella rotate. True False 75. In eukaryotic cells, the structure primarily responsible for the adherence of cells to surfaces in the environment and the formation of biofilms is the A. glycocalyx. B. cell wall. C. cell membrane. D. cilia. E. flagella.

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76. A protein being synthesized by a cell for export would follow which pathway in the cell? A. ribosome to cell membrane B. ribosome to endoplasmic reticulum to Golgi apparatus to cell membrane C. ribosome to Golgi apparatus to endoplasmic reticulum to cell membrane D. ribosome to lysosome to endoplasmic reticulum to Golgi apparatus to cell membrane 77. The major structural elements of a eukaryotic cytoskeleton include A. microfilaments. B. microtubules. C. collagen fibers. D. fimbriae. E. calcium carbonate. 78. Eukaryotic taxonomy includes the study of A. protists. B. plants. C. animals. D. viruses. E. fungi. F. bacteria.


79. Which organism(s) would be classified as protists? A. an endospore-forming bacterial cell B. a fungus growing on the peel of an orange C. algae in a pond D. seaweed growing in the ocean E. a parasitic amoeba that can cause meningitis. 80. Which group of protozoans are generally nonmotile? A. Sarcodina B. Ciliophora C. Mastigophora D. Apicomplexa 81. The sexually mature life cycle stage of helminths occurs in the A. transport host. B. secondary host. C. intermediate host. D. definitive host. 82. The overwhelming majority of helminth infections occur in the developing world, with only a few dozen cases a year occurring in the United States. True False

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Chapter 05 Testbank Key 1.

Protists include A. yeasts and molds. B. algae and protozoa. C. helminths. D. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.03 List the eukaryotic groups and their body plans. Learning Outcome: 05.19 Outline the basics of eukaryotic taxonomy. Learning Outcome: 05.27 Discuss the major characteristics of algae, and explain how they are classified. Learning Outcome: 05.29 Summarize the main characteristics of protozoan form, nutrition, and locomotion. Section: 05.06 Section: 05.08 Topic: Algae Topic: Fungi Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms

2.

The eukaryotic cell organelle that most resembles a bacterial cell is the A. nucleus. B. Golgi apparatus. C. mitochondria. D. lysosome. E. ribosome. ASM Objective: 01.01 Cells, organelles (e.g., mitochondria and chloroplasts) and all major metabolic pathways evolved from early prokaryotic cells. ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function

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Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.02 Provide a substantial theory regarding how eukaryotic cells originated and how multicellularity came to be. Learning Outcome: 05.14 Describe the structure of mitochondrion, and explain its importance and functions. Section: 05.01

Topic: Eukaryotic Structure/Function

3.

Eukaryotic flagella differ from prokaryotic flagella because only eukaryotic flagella A. are used for cell motility. B. facilitate chemotaxis. C. facilitate phototaxis. D. are long whip-like structures. E. contain microtubules.

4.

ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.05 Describe the types of eukaryotic locomotor appendages. Section: 05.02 Topic: Eukaryotic Structure/Function

Cilia are found in certain

A. protozoa. B. algae. C. fungi. D. bacteria. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function


Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.04 Describe the plan of a basic eukaryotic cell and organelles, and indicate the structures all cells possess and those found only in some groups. Learning Outcome: 05.06 Differentiate the structure and functions of flagella and cilia, and the types of cells that possess them. Section: 05.02 Topic: Eukaryotic Structure/Function

5.

Chitin is a chemical component of the cell walls of A. protozoa. B. algae. C. fungi. D. bacteria. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.04 Describe the plan of a basic eukaryotic cell and organelles, and indicate the structures all cells possess and those found only in some groups. Learning Outcome: 05.08 Characterize the cell wall and membrane of eukaryotic cells. Learning Outcome: 05.21 Describe the basic characteristics of the Kingdom Fungi in terms of general types of cells and organisms, structure, and nutrition. Section: 05.02 Section: 05.05 Topic: Eukaryotic Structure/Function Topic: Fungi

6.

Cell walls are not found on typical cells of A. protozoa. B. algae. C. fungi. D. bacteria. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, NURSINGTB.COM many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.04 Describe the plan of a basic eukaryotic cell and organelles, and indicate the structures all cells possess and those found only in some groups. Learning Outcome: 05.08 Characterize the cell wall and membrane of eukaryotic cells. Learning Outcome: 05.29 Summarize the main characteristics of protozoan form, nutrition, and locomotion. Section: 05.07 Topic: Eukaryotic Structure/Function Topic: Protozoans

7.

The site for ribosomal RNA synthesis in eukaryotes is the A. ribosome. B. nucleolus. C. nucleus. D. Golgi apparatus. E. lysosome. ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.09 Describe the structure of the nucleus and its outstanding features. Section: 05.03 Topic: Cellular Organization Topic: Eukaryotic Structure/Function

8.

When a eukaryotic cell is not undergoing mitosis, the DNA and its associated proteins appear as a visible thread-like mass called the A. nuclear envelope. B. nucleosome. C. nucleolus. D. nucleoplasm. E. chromatin.


ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.10 Outline the stages in cell division and mitosis. Section: 05.03 Topic: Eukaryotic Structure/Function

9.

Histones are A. found in polyribosomes. B. enzymes found in lysosomes. C. proteins of the cytoskeleton. D. proteins associated with DNA in the nucleus. E. on the surface of rough endoplasmic reticulum. ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.09 Describe the structure of the nucleus and its outstanding features. Section: 05.03 Topic: Eukaryotic Structure/Function

10.

The eukaryotic cell's glycocalyx is A. mostly polysaccharide. B. the site where many metabolic reactions occur. C. also called the cell wall. D. composed of many diverse proteins. E. protection against osmotic lysis. ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.07 Define the glycocalyx for eukaryotic cells and list its basic functions. NURSINGTB.COM Section: 05.02 Topic: Eukaryotic Structure/Function

11.

Which of the following is found in eukaryotic cells but not in prokaryotic cells? A. nucleus B. mitochondria C. endoplasmic reticulum D. lysosomes E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.18 Compare and contrast prokaryotic cells, eukaryotic cells, and viruses. Section: 05.04 Topic: Eukaryotic Structure/Function

12.

The endosymbiotic theory says that precursor eukaryotic cells acquired mitochondria by endosymbiosis with a ancestor, and others gained photosynthetic ability from endosymbiosis with a ancestor. A. protozoan, algae B. archaea, cyanobacteria C. rickettsial, cyanobacteria D. helminth, algae E. None of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 01.01 Cells, organelles (e.g., mitochondria and chloroplasts) and all major metabolic pathways evolved from early prokaryotic cells. ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function

Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.01 Describe the evolutionary history of eukaryotic cells.


Section: 05.01 Topic: Eukaryotic Structure/Function

13.

The cell's series of tunnel-like membranes functioning in transport and storage are the A. mitochondria. B. lysosomes. C. Golgi apparatus. D. chloroplasts. E. endoplasmic reticulum. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.11 Describe the structure of the two types of endoplasmic reticulum and their functions. Section: 05.03 Topic: Eukaryotic Structure/Function

14.

An organelle that is a stack of flattened, membranous sacs and functions to receive, modify, and package proteins for cell secretion is the A. mitochondria. B. lysosomes. C. Golgi apparatus. D. chloroplasts. E. endoplasmic reticulum. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.12 Identify the parts of the Golgi apparatus, and explain its basic actions and uses in the cell. Section: 05.03 Topic: Eukaryotic Structure/Function

15.

Which organelle contains cristae where enN zyUmReSsINaG ndTB e.le on carriers for aerobic respiration are found? CcOtrM A. mitochondria B. lysosomes C. Golgi apparatus D. chloroplasts E. endoplasmic reticulum ASM Objective: 01.01 Cells, organelles (e.g., mitochondria and chloroplasts) and all major metabolic pathways evolved from early prokaryotic cells. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.14 Describe the structure of mitochondrion, and explain its importance and functions. Section: 05.03 Topic: Eukaryotic Structure/Function

16.

Organelles found in algae but not found in protozoa or fungi are the A. mitochondria. B. lysosomes. C. Golgi apparatus. D. chloroplasts. E. endoplasmic reticulum. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.04 Describe the plan of a basic eukaryotic cell and organelles, and indicate the structures all cells possess and those found only in some groups.


Learning Outcome: 05.15 Describe the structure of chloroplasts, and explain their importance and functions. Learning Outcome: 05.27 Discuss the major characteristics of algae, and explain how they are classified. Section: 05.03

Topic: Algae

17.

Protists with contractile vacuoles A. are algae. B. use them to expel excess water from the cell. C. typically live in salty seawater. D. use them for motility. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.04 Describe the plan of a basic eukaryotic cell and organelles, and indicate the structures all cells possess and those found only in some groups. Section: 05.03 Topic: Protozoans

18.

The cytoskeleton A. anchors organelles. B. provides support. C. functions in movements of the cytoplasm. D. helps maintain cell shape. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.04 Describe the plan of a basic eukaryotic cell and organelles, and indicate the structures all cells possess and those found only in some groups. NURSINGTB.COM Learning Outcome: 05.17 Indicate the basic structure of the cytoskeleton, and explain its main features and functions. Section: 05.03 Topic: Eukaryotic Structure/Function

19.

The size of a eukaryotic cell ribosome is A. 30S. B. 40S. C. 50S. D. 70S. E. 80S. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.16 Discuss features of eukaryotic ribosomes. Section: 05.05 Topic: Eukaryotic Structure/Function

20.

Filamentous fungi are called A. pseudohyphae. B. septa. C. molds. D. dimorphic. E. mycelium. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 01. Remember


Learning Outcome: 05.22 Differentiate between characteristics of yeasts and of molds, and define fungal spores. Section: 05.05 Topic: Fungi

21.

When buds remain attached, they form a chain of yeast cells called A. pseudohyphae. B. septa. C. molds. D. dimorphic. E. mycelium. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.21 Describe the basic characteristics of the Kingdom Fungi in terms of general types of cells and organisms, structure, and nutrition. Learning Outcome: 05.22 Differentiate between characteristics of yeasts and of molds, and define fungal spores. Learning Outcome: 05.25 Explain how fungi are identified. Section: 05.05

Topic: Fungi

22.

Fungi that grow as yeast at one temperature but will grow as mold at another temperature are called A. dimorphic. B. saprobes. C. pseudohyphae. D. spores. E. Fungi Imperfecti (Deuteromycota). ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.25 Explain how fungi are identified.

NURSINGTB.COM

Section: 05.05

Topic: Fungi

23.

Fungal spores A. are only produced under harmful environmental conditions. B. are only asexually produced. C. cannot be seen in a light microscope. D. are produced by molds but not by yeasts. E. are used to identify fungi. ASM Objective: 01.01 Cells, organelles (e.g., mitochondria and chloroplasts) and all major metabolic pathways evolved from early prokaryotic cells. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function

Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Copy of Learning Outcome: 05.22 Differentiate between characteristics of yeasts and molds, and define fungal spores. Learning Outcome: 05.22 Differentiate between characteristics of yeasts and of molds, and define fungal spores. Learning Outcome: 05.23 Classify types of fungal spores and explain their functions. Learning Outcome: 05.31 Explain how protozoans are identified and classified. Section: 05.05

Topic: Fungi

24.

Which of the following spores are produced within a sac? A. chlamydospores B. sporangiospores C. blastospores D. arthrospores E. zygospores ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.23 Classify types of fungal spores and explain their functions.


Section: 05.05 Topic: Fungi

25.

Which of the following spores are sexually produced? A. chlamydospores B. sporangiospores C. blastospores D. arthrospores E. zygospores ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.23 Classify types of fungal spores and explain their functions.

Learning Outcome: 05.24 Discuss the main features of fungal classification and representative examples of each group. Section: 05.05 Topic: Fungi

26.

A mold is observed to have asexual conidia, sexual spores within a sac, and septate hyphae. It is most likely classified in the A. Zygomycota. B. Ascomycota. C. Basidiomycota. D. Deuteromycota. E. Fungi Imperfecti. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 05.24 Discuss the main features of fungal classification and representative examples of each group. Learning Outcome: 05.25 Explain how fungi are identified.

NURSINGTB.COM 27.

Section: 05.05

Topic: Fungi

What do zygospores, ascospores, and basidiospores have in common? A. They are enclosed in a sac. B. They are types of conidia. C. They are sexual spores. D. They are found only in molds. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 05.23 Classify types of fungal spores and explain their functions. Section: 05.05 Topic: Fungi

28.

Which is not a characteristic of fungi? A. Fungal cells have cell walls. B. Fungi are photosynthetic. C. Fungi include single-celled and filamentous forms. D. Fungi are heterotrophs. E. Fungi can use a wide variety of nutrients. ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.21 Describe the basic characteristics of the Kingdom Fungi in terms of general types of cells and organisms, structure, and nutrition. Section: 05.05 Topic: Fungi


29.

Blooms of certain dinoflagellates are associated with all of the following except A. paralytic shellfish poisoning. B. red tides. C. ciguatera. D. Pfiesteria piscicida. E. euglenids. ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 05.28 Describe several ways that algae are important microorganisms. Section: 05.06

Topic: Algae

30.

Which is mismatched? A. Pyrrophyta - euglenids B. Chrysophyta - diatoms C. Phaeophyta - brown algae D. Rhodophyta - red seaweed E. Chlorophyta - green algae

31.

ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.27 Discuss the major characteristics of algae, and explain how they are classified. Section: 05.06 Topic: Algae

All of the following are found in some or all protozoa except A. motility. B. ectoplasm and endoplasm. C. heterotrophic nutrition. D. formation of a cyst stage. E. cell wall.

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.29 Summarize the main characteristics of protozoan form, nutrition, and locomotion. Section: 05.07 Topic: Protozoans

32.

The motile feeding stage of protozoa is called the A. trophozoite. B. cyst. C. sporozoite. D. oocyst. E. food vacuole. ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.29 Summarize the main characteristics of protozoan form, nutrition, and locomotion. Section: 05.07 Topic: Protozoans

33.

The group of protozoa that have flagella are the A. Sarcodina. B. Ciliophora. C. Mastigophora. D. Apicomplexa.


ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.31 Explain how protozoans are identified and classified.

Learning Outcome: 05.32 Outline a classification scheme for protozoans, and provide examples of important members of each group. Section: 05.07 Topic: Protozoans

34.

Which is mismatched? A. Giardia - transmitted by feces in drinking water B. Histoplasma - causes Ohio Valley fever C. Trichomonas - sexually transmitted D. Plasmodium - causes Chaga's disease E. Saccharomyces - yeast in making bread and beer

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.26 Discuss the importance of fungi in ecology, agriculture, commerce, and medicine.

35.

Learning Outcome: 05.33 Explain some biological properties of parasites, and list some common protozoan pathogens. Section: 05.05 Section: 05.07 Topic: Fungi Topic: Protozoans

All of the following are helminths except A. pinworms. B. flukes. C. trypanosomes. D. roundworms. E. tapeworms. ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. NURSINGTB.COM ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.34 Describe the major groups of helminths and their basic morphology and classification. Section: 05.08 Topic: Helminths

36.

Which of the following does not pertain to helminths? A. in kingdom Protista B. parasitic worms C. eggs and sperm for reproduction D. often alternate hosts in complex life cycles E. have various organ systems

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.34 Describe the major groups of helminths and their basic morphology and classification.

Learning Outcome: 05.35 Explain the elements of helminth biology, life cycles, and reproduction. Section: 05.08

Topic: Helminths

37.

Larvae and eggs are developmental forms of A. protozoa. B. algae. C. helminths. D. fungi. ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different.


ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.34 Describe the major groups of helminths and their basic morphology and classification. Learning Outcome: 05.35 Explain the elements of helminth biology, life cycles, and reproduction. Section: 05.08

Topic: Helminths

38.

Both fish and humans develop neurological symptoms and bloody skin lesions due to a sudden "bloom" of this algae.2013

A. Prototheca B. Pfiesteria piscicida C. diatoms D. Phaeophyta E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.28 Describe several ways that algae are important microorganisms. Section: 05.06

Topic: Algae

39.

The stacks of thylakoids in a chloroplast are called A. grana. B. stroma. C. mesosomes. D. cristae. E. packages.

ASM Objective: 01.01 Cells, organelles (e.g., mitochondria and chloroplasts) and all major metabolic pathways evolved from early prokaryotic cells. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function

Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.15 Describe the structure of chloroplasts, and explain their importance and functions. NURSINGTB.COM Section: 05.03 Topic: Eukaryotic Structure/Function

40.

In order to reproduce sexually, diploid cells must produce

gametes through

.

A. diploid; mitosis B. diploid; meiosis C. haploid; mitosis D. haploid; meiosis E. triploid; mitosis ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.10 Outline the stages in cell division and mitosis. Section: 05.03 Topic: Eukaryotic Structure/Function

41.

The smooth endoplasmic reticulum functions in synthesis of

.

A. glycogen B. proteins C. glucose D. nucleic acids E. lipids ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.11 Describe the structure of the two types of endoplasmic reticulum and their functions. Section: 05.03 Topic: Eukaryotic Structure/Function

42.

Which of the following are present in viruses?


A. Mitochondria B. Cytoskeleton C. Pigments D. Endoplasmic reticulum E. None of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.18 Compare and contrast prokaryotic cells, eukaryotic cells, and viruses. Section: 05.04 Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms

43.

On what basis are fungi classified as Fungi Imperfecti, or Deuteromycota? A. based on their ability to cause diseases in animals B. based on whether they have a cap containing gills C. based on if the fungus lacks a sexual state D. based on if they have a special fungal sac E. based on if they can grow in acidic soil ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.24 Discuss the main features of fungal classification and representative examples of each group. Section: 05.05 Topic: Fungi

44.

Which of the following is the cause of malaria?

A. Toxoplasma gondii B. Plasmodium C. Giardia D. Leishmania E. Trypanosoma NURSINGTB.COM ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.33 Explain some biological properties of parasites, and list some common protozoan pathogens. Section: 05.07

45.

Topic: Protozoans

Sources for human infection with worms are all of the following except A. infected animals. B. contaminated food. C. contaminated water. D. contaminated soil. E. contaminated air.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.35 Explain the elements of helminth biology, life cycles, and reproduction. Section: 05.08

46.

Topic: Helminths

All of the following are correct about helminths except A. they generally make only a few eggs per day. B. they are not all parasites, although some are. C. as parasites, their reproductive organs are their most developed organs. D. their eggs and larvae are vulnerable to heat. E. tapeworms and pinworms are two examples.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.35 Explain the elements of helminth biology, life cycles, and reproduction.


Section: 05.08

Topic: Helminths

47.

The organelle involved in intracellular digestion of food particles is the A. Golgi apparatus. B. lysosome. C. mitochondria. D. transitional vesicle. E. smooth endoplasmic reticulum. ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.04 Describe the plan of a basic eukaryotic cell and organelles, and indicate the structures all cells possess and those found only in some groups. Section: 05.03

Topic: Eukaryotic Structure/Function

48.

Which of the following is in the correct order? A. cytokinesis, metaphase, anaphase, telophase B. metaphase, anaphase, cytokinesis, telophase C. prophase, cytokinesis, telophase, anaphase D. interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.10 Outline the stages in cell division and mitosis. Section: 05.03 Topic: Eukaryotic Structure/Function

49.

Chromosomes are not visible in the nucleus unless the cell is undergoing nuclear division. TRUE .Cs O ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function N ofU mR icS roIoNrgG aT niB sm haM ve been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.09 Describe the structure of the nucleus and its outstanding features. Learning Outcome: 05.10 Outline the stages in cell division and mitosis. Section: 05.03

Topic: Eukaryotic Structure/Function

50.

Eukaryotic mitochondria have their own 70S ribosomes and circular DNA. TRUE ASM Objective: 01.01 Cells, organelles (e.g., mitochondria and chloroplasts) and all major metabolic pathways evolved from early prokaryotic cells. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.14 Describe the structure of mitochondrion, and explain its importance and functions. Section: 05.03 Topic: Eukaryotic Structure/Function

51.

The eukaryotic cell membrane is a bilayer of sterols. FALSE ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.08 Characterize the cell wall and membrane of eukaryotic cells. Section: 05.02 Topic: Eukaryotic Structure/Function

52.

Infections caused by fungi are called mycoses.


TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.26 Discuss the importance of fungi in ecology, agriculture, commerce, and medicine. Section: 05.05

Topic: Fungi

53.

The only division of Fungi that contains human pathogens is the Deuteromycota. FALSE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.26 Discuss the importance of fungi in ecology, agriculture, commerce, and medicine. Section: 05.05

Topic: Fungi

54.

All fungi have hyphae. FALSE ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Copy of Learning Outcome: 05.22 Differentiate between characteristics of yeasts and molds, and define fungal spores. Learning Outcome: 05.22 Differentiate between characteristics of yeasts and of molds, and define fungal spores. Section: 05.05

Topic: Fungi

55.

All algae have chloroplasts. TRUE ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function N ofU mR icS roIoNrgG aT niB sm haM ve been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, .Cs O phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.15 Describe the structure of chloroplasts, and explain their importance and functions. Learning Outcome: 05.27 Discuss the major characteristics of algae, and explain how they are classified. Section: 05.06

Topic: Algae

56.

Algae are classified into divisions based principally on their type of motility. FALSE ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.27 Discuss the major characteristics of algae, and explain how they are classified. Section: 05.06 Topic: Algae

57.

Plankton are floating communities of helminths. FALSE ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.27 Discuss the major characteristics of algae, and explain how they are classified. Learning Outcome: 05.35 Explain the elements of helminth biology, life cycles, and reproduction. Section: 05.06 Section: 05.08 Topic: Algae Topic: Helminths


58.

Fungi are autotrophic. FALSE ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.21 Describe the basic characteristics of the Kingdom Fungi in terms of general types of cells and organisms, structure, and nutrition. Learning Outcome: 05.26 Discuss the importance of fungi in ecology, agriculture, commerce, and medicine. Section: 05.05 Topic: Fungi

59.

Biologists have found evidence that eukaryotic cells evolved from prokaryotic organisms by a process of intracellular . symbiosis ASM Objective: 01.01 Cells, organelles (e.g., mitochondria and chloroplasts) and all major metabolic pathways evolved from early prokaryotic cells. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.01 Describe the evolutionary history of eukaryotic cells. Learning Outcome: 05.02 Provide a substantial theory regarding how eukaryotic cells originated and how multicellularity came to be. Section: 05.01

Topic: Cellular Organization

60.

There are nine peripheral pairs and one central pair of cilia.

found inside eukaryotic flagella and

microtubules

61.

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.06 Differentiate the structure and functions of flagella and cilia, and the types of cells that possess them. Section: 05.02 Topic: Eukaryotic Structure/Function NURSINGTB.COM

The passageways in the nuclear envelope for movement of substances to and from the nucleus and cytoplasm are called nuclear . pores

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.09 Describe the structure of the nucleus and its outstanding features. Section: 05.03 Topic: Eukaryotic Structure/Function

62.

Proteins associated with DNA in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells are called

.

histones ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.09 Describe the structure of the nucleus and its outstanding features. Section: 05.03 Topic: Eukaryotic Structure/Function

63.

A originates from the Golgi apparatus as one type of vesicle that contains a variety of enzymes for intracellular digestion. lysosome ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 02. Understand


Learning Outcome: 05.12 Identify the parts of the Golgi apparatus, and explain its basic actions and uses in the cell. Learning Outcome: 05.13 Summarize the stages in processing by the nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum, and Golgi apparatus involved in synthesis, packaging, and export. Section: 05.03 Topic: Eukaryotic Structure/Function

64.

Chloroplasts are composed of membranous sacs called a ground substance called the .

that carry chlorophyll. Surrounding these sacs is

thylakoids; stroma ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.15 Describe the structure of chloroplasts, and explain their importance and functions. Section: 05.03 Topic: Eukaryotic Structure/Function

65.

In eukaryotic cells, ribosomes have two locations: scattered free in the .

, and bound on the surface of the

cytoplasm; rough endoplasmic reticulum ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.16 Discuss features of eukaryotic ribosomes. Section: 05.03 Topic: Eukaryotic Structure/Function

66.

The long, thread-like branching cells of molds are called

.

hyphae ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). NURSINGTB.COM ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Copy of Learning Outcome: 05.22 Differentiate between characteristics of yeasts and molds, and define fungal spores. Learning Outcome: 05.21 Describe the basic characteristics of the Kingdom Fungi in terms of general types of cells and organisms, structure, and nutrition. Learning Outcome: 05.22 Differentiate between characteristics of yeasts and of molds, and define fungal spores. Section: 05.05 Topic: Fungi

67.

During unfavorable growth conditions, many protozoa can convert to a resistant, dormant stage called a . cyst ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.29 Summarize the main characteristics of protozoan form, nutrition, and locomotion. Learning Outcome: 05.30 Describe the general life cycle and mode of reproduction in protozoans. Section: 05.07

Topic: Protozoans

68.

Discuss in detail, at least four reasons why fungi belong in their own kingdom instead of the kingdoms Plantae or Protista. ASM Objective: 01.05 The evolutionary relatedness of organisms is best reflected in phylogenetic trees. ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 05.01 Describe the evolutionary history of eukaryotic cells.


Learning Outcome: 05.03 List the eukaryotic groups and their body plans. Learning Outcome: 05.21 Describe the basic characteristics of the Kingdom Fungi in terms of general types of cells and organisms, structure, and nutrition. Section: 05.05 Topic: Fungi

69.

Compare and contrast the yeasts and molds with regard to: a) microscopic cellular morphology, b) macroscopic colony morphology, and c) reproduction. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 03. Apply Copy of Learning Outcome: 05.22 Differentiate between characteristics of yeasts and molds, and define fungal spores. Learning Outcome: 05.22 Differentiate between characteristics of yeasts and of molds, and define fungal spores. Learning Outcome: 05.24 Discuss the main features of fungal classification and representative examples of each group. Learning Outcome: 05.25 Explain how fungi are identified. Section: 05.05

Topic: Fungi

70.

Compare and contrast protozoan cysts, fungal spores, and bacterial endospores with regard to: a) the factors that stimulate their formation, b) their structure, and c) their function. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 04. Analyze Learning Outcome: 05.23 Classify types of fungal spores and explain their functions. Learning Outcome: 05.30 Describe the general life cycle and mode of reproduction in protozoans.

Section: 05.07 Topic: Fungi Topic: Protozoans

71.

Discuss the role of specific algal and fungal toxins in human disease.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 03. Apply

Learning OutcoN mU e:R 05S.I2N 6G DisTcB us.C s tO heM importance of fungi in ecology, agriculture, commerce, and medicine. Learning Outcome: 05.28 Describe several ways that algae are important microorganisms.

Section: 05.05 Section: 05.06 Topic: Algae Topic: Fungi

72.

Compare and contrast the morphology of cestodes, trematodes, and nematodes. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 05.34 Describe the major groups of helminths and their basic morphology and classification. Learning Outcome: 05.35 Explain the elements of helminth biology, life cycles, and reproduction. Section: 05.08

Topic: Helminths

73.

Compare and contrast the physical characteristics of protozoans, yeasts, and algae. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 05.03 List the eukaryotic groups and their body plans.

Learning Outcome: 05.21 Describe the basic characteristics of the Kingdom Fungi in terms of general types of cells and organisms, structure, and nutrition. Learning Outcome: 05.27 Discuss the major characteristics of algae, and explain how they are classified. Learning Outcome: 05.29 Summarize the main characteristics of protozoan form, nutrition, and locomotion. Topic: Algae Topic: Fungi Topic: Protozoans

74.

To provide motility, prokaryotic flagella whip back and forth while eukaryotic flagella rotate. FALSE


ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.05 Describe the types of eukaryotic locomotor appendages. Section: 05.02 Topic: Eukaryotic Structure/Function

75.

In eukaryotic cells, the structure primarily responsible for the adherence of cells to surfaces in the environment and the formation of biofilms is the A. glycocalyx. B. cell wall. C. cell membrane. D. cilia. E. flagella. ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.07 Define the glycocalyx for eukaryotic cells and list its basic functions. Section: 05.02 Topic: Eukaryotic Structure/Function

76.

A protein being synthesized by a cell for export would follow which pathway in the cell? A. ribosome to cell membrane B. ribosome to endoplasmic reticulum to Golgi apparatus to cell membrane C. ribosome to Golgi apparatus to endoplasmic reticulum to cell membrane D. ribosome to lysosome to endoplasmic reticulum to Golgi apparatus to cell membrane ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function NURSINGTB.COM Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.13 Summarize the stages in processing by the nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum, and Golgi apparatus involved in synthesis, packaging, and export. Section: 05.03 Topic: Eukaryotic Structure/Function

77.

The major structural elements of a eukaryotic cytoskeleton include A. microfilaments. B. microtubules. C. collagen fibers. D. fimbriae. E. calcium carbonate. ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.04 Describe the plan of a basic eukaryotic cell and organelles, and indicate the structures all cells possess and those found only in some groups. Learning Outcome: 05.17 Indicate the basic structure of the cytoskeleton, and explain its main features and functions. Section: 05.03 Topic: Cellular Organization Topic: Eukaryotic Structure/Function

78.

Eukaryotic taxonomy includes the study of A. protists. B. plants. C. animals. D. viruses. E. fungi. F. bacteria. ASM Objective: 01.05 The evolutionary relatedness of organisms is best reflected in phylogenetic trees. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution Bloom's Level: 02. Understand


Learning Outcome: 05.19 Outline the basics of eukaryotic taxonomy. Learning Outcome: 05.20 Explain what is meant by the term protist, and outline the types of organisms belonging to this designation. Section: 05.04

Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms

79.

Which organism(s) would be classified as protists? A. B. C. D. E.

an endospore-forming bacterial cell a fungus growing on the peel of an orange algae in a pond seaweed growing in the ocean a parasitic amoeba that can cause meningitis. ASM Objective: 01.05 The evolutionary relatedness of organisms is best reflected in phylogenetic trees. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution Bloom's Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 05.20 Explain what is meant by the term protist, and outline the types of organisms belonging to this designation. Section: 05.04

Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms

80.

Which group of protozoans are generally nonmotile? A. Sarcodina B. Ciliophora C. Mastigophora D. Apicomplexa ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.32 Outline a classification scheme for protozoans, and provide examples of important members of each group. Section: 05.07 Topic: Protozoans

81.

The sexually mature life cycle stage of helminths occurs in the A. transport host. B. secondary host. C. intermediate host. D. definitive host.

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.36 Discuss the importance of the helminth parasites. Section: 05.08

Topic: Helminths

82.

The overwhelming majority of helminth infections occur in the developing world, with only a few dozen cases a year occurring in the United States. FALSE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.36 Discuss the importance of the helminth parasites. Section: 05.08

Topic: Helminths


Chapter 05 Testbank Summary Category

# of Questions

ASM Objective: 01.01 Cells, organelles (e.g., mitochondria and chloroplasts) and all major metabolic pathways evolv ed from early prokaryotic cells.

7

ASM Objective: 01.05 The evolutionary relatedness of organisms is best reflected in phylogenetic trees. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (in cluding bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that ofte n confer critical capabilities. ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biologic al means.

3 39

ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in benefi cial, neutral or detrimental ways.

4 11

ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution

12

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function

69

1 60 1 1

ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways

1

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems

16

Bloom's Level: 01. Remember

40

Bloom's Level: 02. Understand

32

Bloom's Level: 03. Apply

9

Bloom's Level: 04. Analyze

1

Copy of Learning Outcome: 05.22 Differentiate between characteristics of yeasts and molds, and define fungal spore NURSINGTB.COM s.

4

Learning Outcome: 05.01 Describe the evolutionary history of eukaryotic cells. Learning Outcome: 05.02 Provide a substantial theory regarding how eukaryotic cells originated and how multicellula rity came to be.

3 2

Learning Outcome: 05.03 List the eukaryotic groups and their body plans. Learning Outcome: 05.04 Describe the plan of a basic eukaryotic cell and organelles, and indicate the structures all c ells possess and those found only in some groups.

3 8

Learning Outcome: 05.05 Describe the types of eukaryotic locomotor appendages. Learning Outcome: 05.06 Differentiate the structure and functions of flagella and cilia, and the types of cells that poss ess them.

2 2

Learning Outcome: 05.07 Define the glycocalyx for eukaryotic cells and list its basic functions.

2

Learning Outcome: 05.08 Characterize the cell wall and membrane of eukaryotic cells.

3

Learning Outcome: 05.09 Describe the structure of the nucleus and its outstanding features.

5

Learning Outcome: 05.10 Outline the stages in cell division and mitosis.

4

Learning Outcome: 05.11 Describe the structure of the two types of endoplasmic reticulum and their functions.

2

Learning Outcome: 05.12 Identify the parts of the Golgi apparatus, and explain its basic actions and uses in the cell. Learning Outcome: 05.13 Summarize the stages in processing by the nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum, and Golgi app aratus involved in synthesis, packaging, and export.

2 2

Learning Outcome: 05.14 Describe the structure of mitochondrion, and explain its importance and functions.

3

Learning Outcome: 05.15 Describe the structure of chloroplasts, and explain their importance and functions.

4

Learning Outcome: 05.16 Discuss features of eukaryotic ribosomes. Learning Outcome: 05.17 Indicate the basic structure of the cytoskeleton, and explain its main features and functions .

2 2

Learning Outcome: 05.18 Compare and contrast prokaryotic cells, eukaryotic cells, and viruses.

2

Learning Outcome: 05.19 Outline the basics of eukaryotic taxonomy. Learning Outcome: 05.20 Explain what is meant by the term protist, and outline the types of organisms belonging to t his designation. Learning Outcome: 05.21 Describe the basic characteristics of the Kingdom Fungi in terms of general types of cells a nd organisms, structure, and nutrition.

2 2 7


Learning Outcome: 05.22 Differentiate between characteristics of yeasts and of molds, and define fungal spores.

NURSINGTB.COM

6


Learning Outcome: 05.23 Classify types of fungal spores and explain their functions.

5

Learning Outcome: 05.24 Discuss the main features of fungal classification and representative examples of each gro up.

4

Learning Outcome: 05.25 Explain how fungi are identified.

4

Learning Outcome: 05.26 Discuss the importance of fungi in ecology, agriculture, commerce, and medicine.

5

Learning Outcome: 05.27 Discuss the major characteristics of algae, and explain how they are classified.

7

Learning Outcome: 05.28 Describe several ways that algae are important microorganisms.

3

Learning Outcome: 05.29 Summarize the main characteristics of protozoan form, nutrition, and locomotion.

6

Learning Outcome: 05.30 Describe the general life cycle and mode of reproduction in protozoans.

2

Learning Outcome: 05.31 Explain how protozoans are identified and classified. Learning Outcome: 05.32 Outline a classification scheme for protozoans, and provide examples of important member s of each group. Learning Outcome: 05.33 Explain some biological properties of parasites, and list some common protozoan pathoge ns.

2 2

Learning Outcome: 05.34 Describe the major groups of helminths and their basic morphology and classification.

4

Learning Outcome: 05.35 Explain the elements of helminth biology, life cycles, and reproduction.

6

Learning Outcome: 05.36 Discuss the importance of the helminth parasites.

2

Section: 05.01

3

Section: 05.02

8

Section: 05.03

23

Section: 05.04

4

Section: 05.05

21

Section: 05.06

8

2

Section: 05.07

9

Section: 05.08

10

Topic: Algae

10

Topic: Cellular Organization Topic: Eukaryotic Structure/Function

3 34

Topic: Fungi

NURSINGTB.COM

23

Topic: Helminths

9

Topic: Protozoans Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms

11 4


Chapter 06 Testbank Student:

1.

All of the following are characteristics of viruses except A. definite shape. B. metabolism. C. genes. D. ability to infect host cells. E. ultramicroscopic size.

2.

When used in a description of viruses, the term replication includes A. the production of multiple copies of a virus by a host cell. B. the copying of the viral DNA in a DNA virus. C. the copying of the genomic RNA in an RNA virus. D. All of these choices are correct.

3.

All of the following pertain to virus envelopes except they A. are gained as a virus leaves the host cell membrane. B. are found primarily on animal viruses. C. contain special virus proteins. D. help the virus particle attach to host cells. E. are located between the capsid and nucleic acid.

4.

Host cells of viruses include A. human and other animals. B. plants and fungi. C. bacteria. D. protozoa and algae. E. All of these choices are correct.

5.

NURSINGTB.COM

The core of every virus particle always contains A. DNA. B. capsomers. C. enzymes. D. DNA and RNA. E. either DNA or RNA.

6.

Which of the following represents a virus family name? A. Herpes simplex virus B. Herpesviridae C. Picornavirus D. Enterovirus E. Hepatitis B virus

7.

Classification of viruses into families involves determining all the following characteristics except A. type of nucleic acid. B. type of capsid. C. presence of an envelope. D. biochemical reactions. E. nucleic acid strand number.

8.

Helical and icosahedral are terms used to describe the shapes of a virus A. spike. B. capsomere. C. envelope.


D. capsid. E. core. 9.

Viral capsids are made from subunits called A. envelopes. B. spikes. C. capsomers. D. prophages. E. peplomers.

10. Which of the following is correct about viruses? A. Most viruses cannot be seen with a light microscope. B. Viruses are prokaryotic. C. Viruses contain 70S ribosomes. D. Viruses undergo binary fission. E. Viruses can be grown on nutrient agar. 11. Which of the following is not associated with every virus? A. envelope B. capsomers C. capsid D. nucleic acid E. Genome 12. Which of these structures are used by bacteriophages to attach to host cell receptors? A. sheath B. tail fibers C. nucleic acid D. capsid head 13. Which is incorrect about prophages?

NURSINGTB.COM

A. present when the virus is in lysogeny B. formed when viral DNA enters the bacterial chromosome C. replicated with host DNA and passed on to progeny D. always lyse the host cells E. occur when temperate phages enter host cells 14. T-even phages A. include the poxviruses. B. infect Escherichia coli cells. C. enter host cells by engulfment. D. have helical capsids. E. All of these choices are correct. 15. The correct sequence of events in viral multiplication is A. penetration, replication, maturation, adsorption, assembly, release. B. replication, penetration, maturation, assembly, absorption, release. C. adsorption, penetration, replication, maturation, assembly, release. D. assembly, maturation, replication, release, penetration, adsorption. E. adsorption, release, maturation, replication, assembly, penetration. 16. The event that occurs in bacteriophage multiplication that does not occur in animal virus replication is A. adsorption to the host cells. B. injection of the viral nucleic acid into the host cell. C. host cell synthesis of viral enzymes and capsid proteins. D. assembly of nucleocapsids. E. replication of viral nucleic acid.


17. Viruses acquire envelopes around their nucleocapsids during A. replication. B. assembly. C. adsorption. D. release. E. penetration. 18. Which of the following will not support viral cultivation? A. live lab animals B. embryonated bird eggs C. primary cell cultures D. continuous cell cultures E. blood agar 19. In general, most DNA viruses multiply in the host cell's cell's .

, while most RNA viruses multiply in the host

A. nucleus; cytoplasm B. cytoplasm; cell membrane C. cell membrane; cytoplasm D. cytoplasm; nucleus E. nucleus; endoplasmic reticulum 20. Host range is limited by the A. type of nucleic acid in the virus. B. age of the host cell. C. type of host cell receptors on cell membrane. D. size of the host cell. E. All of these choices are correct. 21. The virus-induced, specific damage to the hosN t cUeRllStIhNaG t cTaBn.CbO eM seen in a light microscope is called A. lysogeny. B. budding. C. plaques. D. cytopathic effect. E. pocks. 22. Visible, clear, well-defined patches in a monolayer of virus-infected cells in a culture are called A. lysogeny. B. budding. C. plaques. D. pocks. 23. Viral growth in bird embryos can cause discrete, opaque spots in the embryonic membranes called A. lysogeny. B. budding. C. plaques. D. cytopathic effects. E. pocks. 24. Viruses that cause infection resulting in alternating periods of activity with symptoms and inactivity without symptoms are called A. latent B. oncogenic. C. prions. D. viroids.


E. delta agents.

FOUNDATIONS IN MICROBIOLOGY 10TH EDITION TALARO TEST BANK

25. Oncogenic viruses include all the following except A. Hepatitis B virus. B. Measles virus. C. Papillomavirus. D. HTLVI and HTLVII viruses. E. Epstein-Barr virus. 26. Which of the following is a type of cytopathic effect? A. inclusions in the nucleus B. multinucleated giant cells C. inclusions in the cytoplasm D. rounding of cells E. All of these choices are correct. 27. Uncoating of viral nucleic acid A. does not occur in bacteriophage multiplication. B. involves enzymatic destruction of the capsid. C. occurs during penetration in the multiplication cycle. D. occurs before replication. E. All of these choices are correct. 28. Infectious protein particles are called A. viroids. B. phages. C. prions. D. oncogenic viruses. E. spikes. 29. Infectious naked strands of RNA are called

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A. viroids. B. phages. C. prions. D. oncogenic viruses. E. spikes. 30. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is A. caused by a chronic latent virus. B. initiated by an oncogenic virus. C. caused by a viroid. D. a spongiform encephalopathy of humans. E. also called "Mad Cow disease". 31. Satellite viruses are A. also called viroids. B. dependent on other viruses for replication. C. the cause of spongiform encephalopathies. D. significant pathogens of plants. E. All of these choices are correct.

32. All of the following are correct about treating viral diseases except A. viruses are killed by the same antibiotics that kill bacteria. B. many antiviral drugs block viral replication. C. many antiviral drugs cause severe side effects. D. interferons show potential for treating and preventing viral infections. E. All of these choices are correct.


33. The capsomers are made of A. DNA. B. RNA. C. lipids. D. protein. E. carbohydrate. 34. Viruses that consist of only a nucleocapsid are considered A. simple viruses. B. complex viruses. C. naked viruses. D. viroids. E. incomplete viruses. 35. The nucleocapsid consists of A. the capsomers assembled into the capsid. B. the nucleic acid of the virus only. C. the nucleic acid along with the capsid. D. the envelope and capsid. E. the envelope, nucleic acid, and capsid. 36. Which of the following viruses did D. Ivanowski and M. Beijerinck work with? A. Rabies B. Smallpox C. Tobacco Mosaic Virus D. Herpes E. Epstein-Barr virus 37. Which of the following parts of a virus is/are not always present? NURSINGTB.COM A. envelope B. nucleic acid C. capsid D. capsomers E. None of these choices are optional parts of a virus. 38. Viruses belong to which of the following Kingdoms? A. Protists B. Fungi C. Archaea D. Bacteria E. None of the choices are correct. 39. Which body system is mainly affected by Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease? A. digestive system B. genitourinary system C. nervous system D. circulatory system E. respiratory system 40. When a virus enters a lysogenic phase, it means A. the virus is integrated into the DNA of the host cell and is latent. B. the virus is bursting through the host cell membrane. C. the virus is starting biosynthesis of its nucleic acid. D. the virus will remain in circulation and not continue infecting its host. E. the number of viruses in the host is decreasing as the immune system becomes effective.


41. All of the following are characteristics of viruses except A. they can be crystallized. B. they often have a geometric capsid. C. they have a viscous fluid inside their capsids. D. they can cause fatal diseases. E. they can cause mild diseases. 42. How do enveloped animal viruses exit their host? A. budding or exocytosis B. bursting the host cell C. rupturing the virus D. endocytosis 43. Clostridium botulinum is made virulent by incorporated prophage genes encoding the botulinum toxin. What term describes this process? A. lytic phase B. budding C. adsorption D. lysogenic conversion E. latent phase 44. Viruses are ultramicroscopic because they range in size from 2 mm to 450 mm. True False 45. Spikes are glycoproteins of the virus capsid. True False 46. Prophages can be activated into viral replication and enter the lytic cycle. True False

NURSINGTB.COM 47. Viral infections are easier to treat with drugs than bacterial infections. True False 48. The International Committee on Taxonomy of Viruses has determined that there are only three orders of viruses. True False 49. Bacteriophages do not undergo adsorption to specific host cell receptors prior to penetration. True False 50. When a virus enters a host cell, the viral genes redirect the genetic and metabolic activities of the host cell. True False 51. Viral spikes are inserted into the host cell membrane before budding or exocytosis occurs. True False 52. No cases of variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob syndrome linked to eating infected cows have occurred in the United States. True False 53. The Adeno-Associated Virus (AAV) and the Delta Agent are prions. True False


54. A(n)

is the protein shell around the nucleic acid core of a virus.

55. Diagnosis of viral infections sometimes involves analyzing the patient's blood for specific immune system produced against the virus. 56. Viruses that infect bacteria are specifically called

that the

.

57. Two noncellular agents, smaller than viruses, are the infectious proteins called infectious RNA strands called .

, and the

58. Viruses with sense RNA contain the correct message for translation, while viruses with sense RNA must first be converted into a correct message. 59. Freshly isolated animal tissue that is placed in a growth medium and allowed to produce a cell monolayer is referred to as a cell culture. 60. One of the principal capsid shapes is a 20-sided figure with 12 evenly spaced corners referred to as a(n) capsid. 61. A naked virus does not have a(n) _

.

62. During lysogeny, an inactive prophage state occurs when the viral DNA is inserted into the 63. A common method for cultivating viruses in the lab is to use in vitro systems called NURSINGTB.COM

.

cultures.

64. Discuss at least six characteristics that are unique to viruses compared to other microorganisms. 65. Discuss the criteria used for classifying viruses into families and genera. 66. Compare and contrast the steps of viral multiplication cycles in bacteriophages and animal viruses. 67. Explain what is meant by host range, what governs host range, and what is meant by tissue tropism. 68. Discuss why it is difficult to trace the origins of viruses and why they are important. 69. Compare and contrast viruses, prions, and viroids. 70. What tool or technique used by Ivanowski and Beijerinck while studying diseased tobacco plants enabled them to determine that the disease was caused by an agent significantly smaller than bacteria? A. scanning electron microscopy that enabled them to view the virus the tobacco mosaic virus B. transmission electron microscopy that allowed them to view the tobacco mosaic virus C. porcelain filters that trapped bacteria but allowed passage of the virus D. cell culture that enabled cultivation of the virus 71. Select the FALSE statement about viruses. A. Cellular life-forms most likely preceded the origin of viruses since viruses need host cells in which to develop and reproduce. B. Viruses are the most numerous microbes on Earth. C. Viruses have impacted the evolution of all other cellular life-forms including bacteria, achaeans, and eukaryotes.


D. When viruses are treated in a way that prevents them from entering host cells and reproducing, they are said to be dead. 72. Which of the following viral types enter animal cells via fusion with the animal cell membrane? A. enveloped viruses B. non enveloped viruses C. naked viruses D. All of these choices are correct. 73. Noneveloped viruses enter their animal host cell via an active process that requires the participation of the animal cell. True False 74. Which type of virus is most likely to cause the immediate damage and destruction of an infected animal cell when it is released? A. enveloped virus B. RNA virus C. nonenveloped virus D. DNA virus 75. Viral replication can involve the copying of RNA in an RNA virus. True False 76. While of the following techniques or tools has provided information regarding the nature of viruses, which one had to be developed before the genetics, biochemistry, and life cycles of viruses could be thoroughly studied? A. scanning electron microscopy B. viral cultivation techniques C. transmission electron microscopy D. serological techniques

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77. Viral cultivation is used for A. diagnosis of viral infections. B. preparation of vaccines. C. producing adequate numbers of viruses for research purposes. D. studying the viral life cycle within host cells. E. observing the effects of viral infection on host cells. F. All of these choices are correct. 78. Discuss theories regarding the origins of viruses and make a case for whether viruses originated before cellular life-forms or after cellular life-forms. 79. The three basic groups of viruses based on morphology include A. enveloped viruses, non enveloped viruses, and complex viruses. B. enveloped viruses, DNA viruses, and non enveloped viruses. C. helical viruses, round viruses, and enveloped viruses. D. non enveloped viruses, RNA viruses, and bacteriophages. 80. The descriptive groupings of virus into categories such as icosahedral and helical are based on

A. the type of nucleic acid. B. the shape of the nucleocapsid. C. the presence or absence of an envelope. D. the mechanism of entry into host cells.

.


Chapter 06 Testbank Key 1.

All of the following are characteristics of viruses except A. definite shape. B. metabolism. C. genes. D. ability to infect host cells. E. ultramicroscopic size. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.02 Describe the unique characteristics of viruses. Section: 06.01 Topic: General Viral Properties

2.

When used in a description of viruses, the term replication includes A. the production of multiple copies of a virus by a host cell. B. the copying of the viral DNA in a DNA virus. C. the copying of the genomic RNA in an RNA virus. D. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom's Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 06.14 Define replication as it relates to viruses. Section: 06.04

3.

All of the following pertain to virus envelopes except they NURSINGTB.COM A. are gained as a virus leaves the host cell membrane. B. are found primarily on animal viruses. C. contain special virus proteins. D. help the virus particle attach to host cells. E. are located between the capsid and nucleic acid.

Topic: Viral Replication

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.06 Describe envelopes and spikes, and discuss their origins. Learning Outcome: 06.07 Explain the functions of capsids, nucleocapsids, envelopes, and spikes. Section: 06.02

Topic: Viral Structure

4.

Host cells of viruses include A. human and other animals. B. plants and fungi. C. bacteria. D. protozoa and algae. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.11 Describe the virus-host relationship. Section: 06.04

Topic: General Viral Properties

5.

The core of every virus particle always contains A. DNA. B. capsomers.


C. enzymes. D. DNA and RNA. E. either DNA or RNA. ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.04 Describe the general structure and size range of viruses. Section: 06.02

Topic: Viral Structure

6.

Which of the following represents a virus family name? A. Herpes simplex virus B. Herpesviridae C. Picornavirus D. Enterovirus E. Hepatitis B virus ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.09 Explain the classification scheme used for viruses. Learning Outcome: 06.10 Indicate the characteristics used in identifying and naming viruses. Section: 06.03

7.

Topic: Viral Classification

Classification of viruses into families involves determining all the following characteristics except A. type of nucleic acid. B. type of capsid. C. presence of an envelope. D. biochemical reactions. E. nucleic acid strand number.

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ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.09 Explain the classification scheme used for viruses. Learning Outcome: 06.10 Indicate the characteristics used in identifying and naming viruses. Section: 06.03

Topic: Viral Classification

8.

Helical and icosahedral are terms used to describe the shapes of a virus A. spike. B. capsomere. C. envelope. D. capsid. E. core. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.05 Distinguish among types of capsids and nucleocapsids. Section: 06.02 Topic: Viral Structure

9.

Viral capsids are made from subunits called A. envelopes. B. spikes. C. capsomers. D. prophages. E. peplomers. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron).


ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.05 Distinguish among types of capsids and nucleocapsids. Section: 06.02 Topic: Viral Structure

10.

Which of the following is correct about viruses? A. Most viruses cannot be seen with a light microscope. B. Viruses are prokaryotic. C. Viruses contain 70S ribosomes. D. Viruses undergo binary fission. E. Viruses can be grown on nutrient agar. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.02 Describe the unique characteristics of viruses. Learning Outcome: 06.04 Describe the general structure and size range of viruses.

Section: 06.01 Section: 06.02 Topic: Viral Structure

11.

Which of the following is not associated with every virus? A. envelope B. capsomers C. capsid D. nucleic acid E. Genome ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.04 Describe the general structure and size range of viruses.

12.

Learning Outcome: 06.06 Describe envelopes and spikes, and discuss their origins. Learning ON utU coR mSeI: N 06G.0T7BE.xCpO laM in the functions of capsids, nucleocapsids, envelopes, and spikes. Section: 06.02 Topic: Viral Structure

Which of these structures are used by bacteriophages to attach to host cell receptors? A. sheath B. tail fibers C. nucleic acid D. capsid head

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.11 Describe the virus-host relationship. Learning Outcome: 06.17 Describe the stages in the multiplication cycle of bacteriophages. Section: 06.05 Topic: Bacteriophage Cycles Topic: Viral Structure

13.

Which is incorrect about prophages? A. present when the virus is in lysogeny B. formed when viral DNA enters the bacterial chromosome C. replicated with host DNA and passed on to progeny D. always lyse the host cells E. occur when temperate phages enter host cells

ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.17 Describe the stages in the multiplication cycle of bacteriophages.


Learning Outcome: 06.18 Explain what is meant by lysogeny, prophage, and lysogenic induction and conversion. Section: 06.05

Topic: Bacteriophage Cycles

14.

T-even phages A. include the poxviruses. B. infect Escherichia coli cells. C. enter host cells by engulfment. D. have helical capsids. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.17 Describe the stages in the multiplication cycle of bacteriophages. Section: 06.05

Topic: Bacteriophage Cycles

15.

The correct sequence of events in viral multiplication is A. penetration, replication, maturation, adsorption, assembly, release. B. replication, penetration, maturation, assembly, absorption, release. C. adsorption, penetration, replication, maturation, assembly, release. D. assembly, maturation, replication, release, penetration, adsorption. E. adsorption, release, maturation, replication, assembly, penetration.

ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.12 Relate the stages in the multiplication cycle of animal viruses, and summarize what is happening in each stage. Learning Outcome: 06.19 Compare the major stages in multiplication of animal viruses and bacteriophage.

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Section: 06.04

Topic: Viral Replication

16.

The event that occurs in bacteriophage multiplication that does not occur in animal virus replication is A. adsorption to the host cells. B. injection of the viral nucleic acid into the host cell. C. host cell synthesis of viral enzymes and capsid proteins. D. assembly of nucleocapsids. E. replication of viral nucleic acid.

ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 06.13 Describe three ways in which animal viruses enter into a host cell. Learning Outcome: 06.19 Compare the major stages in multiplication of animal viruses and bacteriophage. Section: 06.04 Section: 06.05 Topic: Bacteriophage Cycles Topic: Viral Replication

17.

Viruses acquire envelopes around their nucleocapsids during A. replication. B. assembly. C. adsorption. D. release. E. penetration.

ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 02. Understand


Learning Outcome: 06.06 Describe envelopes and spikes, and discuss their origins. Learning Outcome: 06.12 Relate the stages in the multiplication cycle of animal viruses, and summarize what is happening in each stage. Learning Outcome: 06.15 Explain two ways in which animal viruses are released by a host cell.

Section: 06.02 Section: 06.04 Topic: Viral Replication

18.

Which of the following will not support viral cultivation? A. live lab animals B. embryonated bird eggs C. primary cell cultures D. continuous cell cultures E. blood agar

ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.11 Describe the virus-host relationship. Learning Outcome: 06.21 Compare the methods and uses of cell culture, bird embryos, and live animals in growing viruses. Section: 06.08

Topic: General Viral Properties Topic: Viral Replication

19.

In general, most DNA viruses multiply in the host cell's .

, while most RNA viruses multiply in the host cell's

A. nucleus; cytoplasm B. cytoplasm; cell membrane C. cell membrane; cytoplasm D. cytoplasm; nucleus E. nucleus; endoplasmic reticulum ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function NURSINGTB.COM ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.11 Describe the virus-host relationship. Learning Outcome: 06.12 Relate the stages in the multiplication cycle of animal viruses, and summarize what is happening in each stage. Section: 06.04

Topic: Viral Replication

20.

Host range is limited by the A. type of nucleic acid in the virus. B. age of the host cell. C. type of host cell receptors on cell membrane. D. size of the host cell. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.11 Describe the virus-host relationship. Learning Outcome: 06.13 Describe three ways in which animal viruses enter into a host cell. Section: 06.04

Topic: General Viral Properties

21.

The virus-induced, specific damage to the host cell that can be seen in a light microscope is called A. lysogeny. B. budding. C. plaques. D. cytopathic effect. E. pocks.

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function


Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.16 Describe cytopathic effects of viruses and the possible results of persistent viral infections. Section: 06.04

Topic: General Viral Properties

22.

Visible, clear, well-defined patches in a monolayer of virus-infected cells in a culture are called A. lysogeny. B. budding. C. plaques. D. pocks.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.21 Compare the methods and uses of cell culture, bird embryos, and live animals in growing viruses. Section: 06.06

Topic: Viral Replication

23.

Viral growth in bird embryos can cause discrete, opaque spots in the embryonic membranes called A. lysogeny. B. budding. C. plaques. D. cytopathic effects. E. pocks.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.11 Describe the virus-host relationship. Learning Outcome: 06.21 Compare the methods and uses of cell culture, bird embryos, and live animals in growing viruses. Section: 06.06

Topic: Viral Replication

24.

Viruses that cause infection resulting in alternating periods of activity with symptoms and inactivity without symptoms are called A. latent B. oncogenic. C. prions. D. viroids. E. delta agents.

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ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.11 Describe the virus-host relationship. Learning Outcome: 06.22 Discuss the medical impact and importance of viruses. Section: 06.07

25.

Oncogenic viruses include all the following except

Topic: General Viral Properties

A. Hepatitis B virus. B. Measles virus. C. Papillomavirus. D. HTLVI and HTLVII viruses. E. Epstein-Barr virus. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.22 Discuss the medical impact and importance of viruses. Section: 06.07

Topic: General Viral Properties

26.

Which of the following is a type of cytopathic effect? A. inclusions in the nucleus B. multinucleated giant cells C. inclusions in the cytoplasm D. rounding of cells E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.


Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.16 Describe cytopathic effects of viruses and the possible results of persistent viral infections. Learning Outcome: 06.21 Compare the methods and uses of cell culture, bird embryos, and live animals in growing viruses. Section: 06.04 Section: 06.06 Topic: General Viral Properties Topic: Viral Replication

27.

Uncoating of viral nucleic acid A. does not occur in bacteriophage multiplication. B. involves enzymatic destruction of the capsid. C. occurs during penetration in the multiplication cycle. D. occurs before replication. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 06.12 Relate the stages in the multiplication cycle of animal viruses, and summarize what is happening in each stage. Learning Outcome: 06.19 Compare the major stages in multiplication of animal viruses and bacteriophage. Section: 06.04 Section: 06.05 Topic: Viral Replication

28.

Infectious protein particles are called A. viroids. B. phages. C. prions. D. oncogenic viruses. E. spikes.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.24 Describe the properties of nonviral infectious particles.

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Section: 06.08

Topic: Prions

29.

Infectious naked strands of RNA are called A. viroids. B. phages. C. prions. D. oncogenic viruses. E. spikes.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.24 Describe the properties of nonviral infectious particles. Section: 06.08

Topic: General Viral Properties

30.

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is A. caused by a chronic latent virus. B. initiated by an oncogenic virus. C. caused by a viroid. D. a spongiform encephalopathy of humans. E. also called "Mad Cow disease".

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.25 Discuss the importance of prions and viroids and the diseases they cause. Section: 06.08

Topic: Prions

31.

Satellite viruses are A. also called viroids. B. dependent on other viruses for replication. C. the cause of spongiform encephalopathies.


D. significant pathogens of plants. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.02 Describe the unique characteristics of viruses. Learning Outcome: 06.11 Describe the virus-host relationship. Section: 06.01 Section: 06.04 Topic: General Viral Properties Topic: Viral Replication

32.

All of the following are correct about treating viral diseases except A. viruses are killed by the same antibiotics that kill bacteria. B. many antiviral drugs block viral replication. C. many antiviral drugs cause severe side effects. D. interferons show potential for treating and preventing viral infections. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.22 Discuss the medical impact and importance of viruses. Learning Outcome: 06.23 Explain how animal viral infections are treated and detected. Section: 06.07

Topic: General Viral Properties

33.

The capsomers are made of A. DNA. B. RNA. C. lipids. D. protein. E. carbohydrate.

34.

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function N ofU mR icS roIoNrgG aT niB sm haM ve been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, .Cs O phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.05 Distinguish among types of capsids and nucleocapsids. Section: 06.02 Topic: Viral Structure

Viruses that consist of only a nucleocapsid are considered A. simple viruses. B. complex viruses. C. naked viruses. D. viroids. E. incomplete viruses.

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.05 Distinguish among types of capsids and nucleocapsids. Learning Outcome: 06.08 Summarize the different viral groups based on their basic structure. Section: 06.02

Topic: Viral Structure

35.

The nucleocapsid consists of A. the capsomers assembled into the capsid. B. the nucleic acid of the virus only. C. the nucleic acid along with the capsid. D. the envelope and capsid. E. the envelope, nucleic acid, and capsid. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron).


ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.04 Describe the general structure and size range of viruses. Learning Outcome: 06.05 Distinguish among types of capsids and nucleocapsids. Section: 06.02

Topic: Viral Structure

36.

Which of the following viruses did D. Ivanowski and M. Beijerinck work with? A. Rabies B. Smallpox C. Tobacco Mosaic Virus D. Herpes E. Epstein-Barr virus

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.01 Indicate how viruses were discovered and characterized. Section: 06.01 Topic: General Viral Properties

Topic: History of Microbiology

37.

Which of the following parts of a virus is/are not always present? A. envelope B. nucleic acid C. capsid D. capsomers E. None of these choices are optional parts of a virus. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.04 Describe the general structure and size range of viruses.

Learning Outcome: 06.06 Describe envelopes and spikes, and discuss their origins. Section: 06.02

Topic: Viral Structure

38.

Viruses belong to which of the following Kin s?GTB.COM NgUdRoSmIN A. Protists B. Fungi C. Archaea D. Bacteria E. None of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 01.05 The evolutionary relatedness of organisms is best reflected in phylogenetic trees. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.09 Explain the classification scheme used for viruses. Section: 06.03 Topic: Viral Classification

39.

Which body system is mainly affected by Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease? A. digestive system B. genitourinary system C. nervous system D. circulatory system E. respiratory system

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.25 Discuss the importance of prions and viroids and the diseases they cause. Section: 06.08

Topic: Prions

40.

When a virus enters a lysogenic phase, it means A. the virus is integrated into the DNA of the host cell and is latent. B. the virus is bursting through the host cell membrane. C. the virus is starting biosynthesis of its nucleic acid. D. the virus will remain in circulation and not continue infecting its host. E. the number of viruses in the host is decreasing as the immune system becomes effective.


ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.18 Explain what is meant by lysogeny, prophage, and lysogenic induction and conversion. Section: 06.05

41.

Topic: Bacteriophage Cycles Topic: Viral Replication

All of the following are characteristics of viruses except A. they can be crystallized. B. they often have a geometric capsid. C. they have a viscous fluid inside their capsids. D. they can cause fatal diseases. E. they can cause mild diseases.

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.02 Describe the unique characteristics of viruses. Learning Outcome: 06.04 Describe the general structure and size range of viruses.

Section: 06.01 Section: 06.02 Topic: General Viral Properties

Topic: Viral Structure

42.

How do enveloped animal viruses exit their host? A. budding or exocytosis B. bursting the host cell C. rupturing the virus D. endocytosis

OrM ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic N anUdRlySsIoN geG nT icB ) d.C iffe among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.15 Explain two ways in which animal viruses are released by a host cell. Section: 06.04

Topic: Viral Replication

43.

Clostridium botulinum is made virulent by incorporated prophage genes encoding the botulinum toxin. What term describes this process? A. lytic phase B. budding C. adsorption D. lysogenic conversion E. latent phase

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 06.18 Explain what is meant by lysogeny, prophage, and lysogenic induction and conversion. Section: 06.05

Topic: Bacteriophage Cycles

44.

Viruses are ultramicroscopic because they range in size from 2 mm to 450 mm. FALSE ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.04 Describe the general structure and size range of viruses. Section: 06.02 Topic: General Viral Properties

Topic: Viral Structure


45.

Spikes are glycoproteins of the virus capsid. FALSE ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.06 Describe envelopes and spikes, and discuss their origins. Learning Outcome: 06.07 Explain the functions of capsids, nucleocapsids, envelopes, and spikes. Section: 06.02

Topic: Viral Structure

46.

Prophages can be activated into viral replication and enter the lytic cycle. TRUE

ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.17 Describe the stages in the multiplication cycle of bacteriophages. Learning Outcome: 06.18 Explain what is meant by lysogeny, prophage, and lysogenic induction and conversion. Section: 06.05

Topic: Bacteriophage Cycles

47.

Viral infections are easier to treat with drugs than bacterial infections. FALSE

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.23 Explain how animal viral infections are treated and detected. Section: 06.07

48.

Topic: General Viral Properties

The International Committee on TaxonomyNoUf RVSirIuNsG eT s Bh.aCsOdM etermined that there are only three orders of viruses. FALSE

ASM Objective: 01.05 The evolutionary relatedness of organisms is best reflected in phylogenetic trees. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.09 Explain the classification scheme used for viruses. Section: 06.03 Topic: Viral Classification

49.

Bacteriophages do not undergo adsorption to specific host cell receptors prior to penetration. FALSE

ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.17 Describe the stages in the multiplication cycle of bacteriophages. Section: 06.05

Topic: Bacteriophage Cycles

50.

When a virus enters a host cell, the viral genes redirect the genetic and metabolic activities of the host cell. TRUE

ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 02. Understand


Learning Outcome: 06.11 Describe the virus-host relationship. Learning Outcome: 06.12 Relate the stages in the multiplication cycle of animal viruses, and summarize what is happening in each stage. Section: 06.04

Topic: General Viral Properties Topic: Viral Replication

51.

Viral spikes are inserted into the host cell membrane before budding or exocytosis occurs. TRUE

ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.06 Describe envelopes and spikes, and discuss their origins. Learning Outcome: 06.15 Explain two ways in which animal viruses are released by a host cell.

Section: 06.02 Section: 06.04 Topic: Viral Replication Topic: Viral Structure

52.

No cases of variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob syndrome linked to eating infected cows have occurred in the United States. FALSE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.25 Discuss the importance of prions and viroids and the diseases they cause. Section: 06.08

Topic: Prions

53.

The Adeno-Associated Virus (AAV) and the Delta Agent are prions. FALSE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 02. Understand NURSINGTB.COM Learning Outcome: 06.24 Describe the properties of nonviral infectious particles. Learning Outcome: 06.25 Discuss the importance of prions and viroids and the diseases they cause. Section: 06.08

Topic: Prions

54.

A(n)

is the protein shell around the nucleic acid core of a virus.

capsid ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.04 Describe the general structure and size range of viruses. Learning Outcome: 06.05 Distinguish among types of capsids and nucleocapsids. Section: 06.02

Topic: Viral Structure

55.

Diagnosis of viral infections sometimes involves analyzing the patient's blood for specific the immune system produced against the virus.

that

antibodies ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.22 Discuss the medical impact and importance of viruses. Learning Outcome: 06.23 Explain how animal viral infections are treated and detected. Section: 06.07

Topic: General Viral Properties

56.

Viruses that infect bacteria are specifically called bacteriophages

.


ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.11 Describe the virus-host relationship. Learning Outcome: 06.17 Describe the stages in the multiplication cycle of bacteriophages. Section: 06.05

Topic: Bacteriophage Cycles

57.

Two noncellular agents, smaller than viruses, are the infectious proteins called strands called .

, and the infectious RNA

prions; viroids ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.24 Describe the properties of nonviral infectious particles. Section: 06.08

Topic: Prions

58.

Viruses with sense RNA contain the correct message for translation, while viruses with sense RNA must first be converted into a correct message. positive; negative

ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.12 Relate the stages in the multiplication cycle of animal viruses, and summarize what is happening in each stage. Section: 06.04

Topic: Viral Replication

59.

Freshly isolated animal tissue that is placed in a growth medium and allowed to produce a cell monolayer is referred to as a cell culture. primary NURSINGTB.COM ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.21 Compare the methods and uses of cell culture, bird embryos, and live animals in growing viruses. Learning Outcome: 06.23 Explain how animal viral infections are treated and detected. Section: 06.06 Section: 06.07 Topic: Viral Replication

60.

One of the principal capsid shapes is a 20-sided figure with 12 evenly spaced corners referred to as a(n) capsid. icosahedral ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.04 Describe the general structure and size range of viruses. Learning Outcome: 06.05 Distinguish among types of capsids and nucleocapsids. Section: 06.02

Topic: Viral Structure

61.

A naked virus does not have a(n) _

.

envelope ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.04 Describe the general structure and size range of viruses.

Learning Outcome: 06.06 Describe envelopes and spikes, and discuss their origins. Section: 06.02

Topic: Viral Structure

62.

During lysogeny, an inactive prophage state occurs when the viral DNA is inserted into the

.


bacterial chromosome ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.18 Explain what is meant by lysogeny, prophage, and lysogenic induction and conversion. Section: 06.05

Topic: Bacteriophage Cycles

63.

A common method for cultivating viruses in the lab is to use in vitro systems called

cultures.

cell ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.21 Compare the methods and uses of cell culture, bird embryos, and live animals in growing viruses. Section: 06.06

Topic: Viral Replication

64.

Discuss at least six characteristics that are unique to viruses compared to other microorganisms. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom's Level: 04. Analyze Learning Outcome: 06.02 Describe the unique characteristics of viruses. Learning Outcome: 06.11 Describe the virus-host relationship. Section: 06.01

Topic: General Viral Properties

65.

Discuss the criteria used for classifying viruses into families and genera. ASM Objective: 01.04 The traditional concept of speN ciU esRisSInN otG reTaB di.lyCaOpM plicable to microbes due to asexual reproduction and the frequent occurrence of horizontal gene transfer. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution Bloom's Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 06.09 Explain the classification scheme used for viruses. Learning Outcome: 06.10 Indicate the characteristics used in identifying and naming viruses. Section: 06.03

Topic: Viral Classification

66.

Compare and contrast the steps of viral multiplication cycles in bacteriophages and animal viruses.

ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 06.12 Relate the stages in the multiplication cycle of animal viruses, and summarize what is happening in each stage. Learning Outcome: 06.17 Describe the stages in the multiplication cycle of bacteriophages. Learning Outcome: 06.19 Compare the major stages in multiplication of animal viruses and bacteriophage. Section: 06.04 Section: 06.05

Topic: Bacteriophage Cycles Topic: Viral Replication

67.

Explain what is meant by host range, what governs host range, and what is meant by tissue tropism.

ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 06.02 Describe the unique characteristics of viruses. Learning Outcome: 06.11 Describe the virus-host relationship.


Section: 06.01 Section: 06.04 Topic: General Viral Properties Topic: Viral Replication

68.

Discuss why it is difficult to trace the origins of viruses and why they are important.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 06.02 Microorganisms provide essential models that give us fundamental knowledge about life processes. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom's Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 06.03 Discuss the origin and importance of viruses. Section: 06.01 Topic: General Viral Properties

69.

Compare and contrast viruses, prions, and viroids. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom's Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 06.02 Describe the unique characteristics of viruses. Learning Outcome: 06.24 Describe the properties of nonviral infectious particles. Learning Outcome: 06.25 Discuss the importance of prions and viroids and the diseases they cause. Section: 06.01 Section: 06.08 Topic: General Viral Properties

Topic: Prions

70.

What tool or technique used by Ivanowski and Beijerinck while studying diseased tobacco plants enabled them to determine that the disease was caused by an agent significantly smaller than bacteria? A. scanning electron microscopy that enabled them to view the virus the tobacco mosaic virus B. transmission electron microscopy that allowed them to view the tobacco mosaic virus C. porcelain filters that trapped bacteria but allowed passage of the virus D. cell culture that enabled cultivation of the virus

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. NURSINGTB.COM ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.01 Indicate how viruses were discovered and characterized. Section: 06.01 Topic: General Viral Properties

Topic: History of Microbiology

71.

Select the FALSE statement about viruses. A. Cellular life-forms most likely preceded the origin of viruses since viruses need host cells in which to develop and reproduce. B. Viruses are the most numerous microbes on Earth. C. Viruses have impacted the evolution of all other cellular life-forms including bacteria, achaeans, and eukaryotes. D. When viruses are treated in a way that prevents them from entering host cells and reproducing, they are said to be dead.

ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.03 Discuss the origin and importance of viruses. Section: 06.01

Topic: General Viral Properties

72.

Which of the following viral types enter animal cells via fusion with the animal cell membrane? A. enveloped viruses B. non enveloped viruses


C. naked viruses D. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.13 Describe three ways in which animal viruses enter into a host cell. Section: 06.04

Topic: Viral Replication Topic: Viral Structure

73.

Noneveloped viruses enter their animal host cell via an active process that requires the participation of the animal cell. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 06.13 Describe three ways in which animal viruses enter into a host cell. Section: 06.04

Topic: Viral Replication

74.

Which type of virus is most likely to cause the immediate damage and destruction of an infected animal cell when it is released? A. enveloped virus B. RNA virus C. nonenveloped virus D. DNA virus

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 06.15 Explain two ways in which animal viruses are released by a host cell. Section: 06.04

Topic: Viral Replication

75.

Viral replication can involve the copying of RNA in an RNA virus. TRUE

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom's Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 06.14 Define replication as it relates to viruses. Section: 06.04

Topic: Viral Replication

76.

While of the following techniques or tools has provided information regarding the nature of viruses, which one had to be developed before the genetics, biochemistry, and life cycles of viruses could be thoroughly studied? A. scanning electron microscopy B. viral cultivation techniques C. transmission electron microscopy D. serological techniques ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 06.20 Describe the general purposes of cultivating viruses. Section: 06.06 Topic: General Viral Properties

77.

Viral cultivation is used for A. diagnosis of viral infections. B. preparation of vaccines. C. producing adequate numbers of viruses for research purposes. D. studying the viral life cycle within host cells. E. observing the effects of viral infection on host cells. F. All of these choices are correct.


ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.20 Describe the general purposes of cultivating viruses. Section: 06.06 Topic: General Viral Properties

78.

Discuss theories regarding the origins of viruses and make a case for whether viruses originated before cellular life-forms or after cellular life-forms. ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells. ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems.

ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 06.03 Discuss the origin and importance of viruses. Section: 06.01 Topic: General Viral Properties

79.

The three basic groups of viruses based on morphology include A. enveloped viruses, non enveloped viruses, and complex viruses. B. enveloped viruses, DNA viruses, and non enveloped viruses. C. helical viruses, round viruses, and enveloped viruses. D. non enveloped viruses, RNA viruses, and bacteriophages. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.08 Summarize the different viral groups based on their basic structure. Section: 06.02 Topic: Viral Structure

80.

The descriptive groupings of virus into categories such as icosahedral and helical are based on A. the type of nucleic acid. B. the shape of the nucleocapsid. C. the presence or absence of an envelope. D. the mechanism of entry into host cells. NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.08 Summarize the different viral groups based on their basic structure. Section: 06.02 Topic: Viral Structure


Chapter 06 Testbank Summary Category

# of Questions

ASM Objective: 01.04 The traditional concept of species is not readily applicable to microbes due to asexual reprodu ction and the frequent occurrence of horizontal gene transfer.

1

ASM Objective: 01.05 The evolutionary relatedness of organisms is best reflected in phylogenetic trees.

2

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (in cluding bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron).

24

ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes.

31

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biologic al means.

4

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes.

2

ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells.

12

ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems.

1

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in benefi cial, neutral or detrimental ways.

48

ASM Objective: 06.02 Microorganisms provide essential models that give us fundamental knowledge about life proce sses.

1

ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (mediabased, molecular and serological).

3

ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods.

1

ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution

3

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function

46

ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways

4

ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow

13

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems

48

ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms

1

ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 01. Remember

3

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22

Bloom's Level: 02. Understand

43

Bloom's Level: 03. Apply

14

Bloom's Level: 04. Analyze

1

Learning Outcome: 06.01 Indicate how viruses were discovered and characterized.

2

Learning Outcome: 06.02 Describe the unique characteristics of viruses.

7

Learning Outcome: 06.03 Discuss the origin and importance of viruses.

3

Learning Outcome: 06.04 Describe the general structure and size range of viruses.

10

Learning Outcome: 06.05 Distinguish among types of capsids and nucleocapsids.

7

Learning Outcome: 06.06 Describe envelopes and spikes, and discuss their origins.

7

Learning Outcome: 06.07 Explain the functions of capsids, nucleocapsids, envelopes, and spikes.

3

Learning Outcome: 06.08 Summarize the different viral groups based on their basic structure.

3

Learning Outcome: 06.09 Explain the classification scheme used for viruses.

5

Learning Outcome: 06.10 Indicate the characteristics used in identifying and naming viruses.

3

Learning Outcome: 06.11 Describe the virus-host relationship.

12

Learning Outcome: 06.12 Relate the stages in the multiplication cycle of animal viruses, and summarize what is happ ening in each stage.

7

Learning Outcome: 06.13 Describe three ways in which animal viruses enter into a host cell.

4

Learning Outcome: 06.14 Define replication as it relates to viruses.

2

Learning Outcome: 06.15 Explain two ways in which animal viruses are released by a host cell.

4

Learning Outcome: 06.16 Describe cytopathic effects of viruses and the possible results of persistent viral infections.

2

Learning Outcome: 06.17 Describe the stages in the multiplication cycle of bacteriophages.

7

Learning Outcome: 06.18 Explain what is meant by lysogeny, prophage, and lysogenic induction and conversion.

5

Learning Outcome: 06.19 Compare the major stages in multiplication of animal viruses and bacteriophage. Learning Outcome: 06.20 Describe the general purposes of cultivating viruses.

4 2


Learning Outcome: 06.21 Compare the methods and uses of cell culture, bird embryos, and live animals in growing vi ruses. Learning Outcome: 06.22 Discuss the medical impact and importance of viruses.

6 4

Learning Outcome: 06.23 Explain how animal viral infections are treated and detected.

4

Learning Outcome: 06.24 Describe the properties of nonviral infectious particles.

5

Learning Outcome: 06.25 Discuss the importance of prions and viroids and the diseases they cause.

5

Section: 06.01

12

Section: 06.02

20

Section: 06.03

5

Section: 06.04

21

Section: 06.05

12

Section: 06.06

7

Section: 06.07

6

Section: 06.08

9

Topic: Bacteriophage Cycles

11

Topic: General Viral Properties

26

Topic: History of Microbiology

2

Topic: Prions

7

Topic: Viral Classification

5

Topic: Viral Replication Topic: Viral Structure

24 21

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Chapter 07 Test Bank Multiple Choice Questions 1.

Why do bacterial cells require calcium? A. It stabilizes the cell wall. B. It stabilizes the ribosomes. C. It stabilizes the nucleoid. D. It maintains cellular pH. E. It makes strong bones.

2.

Which term refers to a nutrient that is required by a microorganism in large quantities for use in cell structure and metabolism? A. element B. macronutrient C. growth factor D. trace element

3.

Aerobic respiration is an example of A. photosynthesis. B. methanoheterotrophy. C. photoheterotrophy. D. chemoheterotrophy. E. photoautotrophy.

4.

What compound has the highest concentration in a cell? A. CO2 B. CH4 C. H2O D. glucose E. NH3

5.

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Which of the following is the largest component of the dry weight of a cell? A. inorganic compounds B. minerals C. water D. organic compounds E. salts

6.

Which of the following is not a major element of a microbial cell? A. copper B. carbon C. hydrogen D. nitrogen E. oxygen

7.

An organic nutrient that cannot be synthesized by the organism and must be provided is called a/an A. element. B. macronutrient. C. water. D. growth factor. E. trace element.

8.

Which of the following is an important mineral ion of the cytochrome pigments used in cellular respiration?


A. iron B. zinc C. calcium D. magnesium E. potassium 9.

Which of the following is an important mineral ion that is a component of chloroplasts and stabilizer of membranes and ribosomes? A. iron B. zinc C. calcium D. magnesium E. potassium

10. The term heterotroph refers to an organism that A. uses CO2 for its carbon source.

B. must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs. C. gets energy from sunlight. D. gets energy by oxidizing inorganic compounds. E. does not need a carbon source. 11. The term autotroph refers to an organism that A. uses CO2 for its carbon source.

B. must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs. C. gets energy from sunlight. D. gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds. E. does not need a carbon source. 12. Growth factors A. are inorganic. B. are synthesized by the organism. C. contain elemental oxygen. D. cannot be synthesized by the organism. E. All of these choices are correct.

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13. An organism that uses CO2 for its carbon needs and sunlight for its energy needs would be called a/an A. heterotroph. B. photoautotroph. C. chemoheterotroph. D. saprobe. E. halotroph. 14. The term chemotroph refers to an organism that A. uses CO2 for its carbon source.

B. must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs. C. gets energy from sunlight. D. gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds. E. does not need a carbon source. 15. The term phototroph refers to an organism that A. uses CO2 for its carbon source.

B. must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs. C. gets energy from sunlight. D. gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds. E. does not need a carbon source. 16. The methanogens, producers of methane gas, require environments that


A. have sunlight. B. are very acidic. C. have abundant oxygen and CO2. D. are extremely cold. E. are anaerobic with hydrogen gas and CO2. 17. Organisms that feed on dead organisms for nutrients are called A. saprobes. B. parasites. C. autotrophs. D. lithoautotrophs. E. phototrophs. 18. The type of photosynthesis that does not produce oxygen A. occurs in cyanobacteria. B. does not require CO2 as a reactant. C. occurs in purple and green sulfur bacteria. D. does not require sunlight. E. occurs in algae and plants. 19. Microorganisms require small quantities of this nutrient for enzyme function and maintenance of protein structure. A. element B. macronutrient C. water D. growth factors E. trace element 20. Archaea as a group are not pathogens. This is because NURSINGTB.COM A. they evolved without mammals. B. mammals evolved special defenses against them. C. mammalian hosts do not meet their environmental requirements. D. they are out-competed by natural flora. 21. Microorganisms that live in severe habitats, such as very hot, acidic or salty environments, are called A. thermophiles. B. halophiles. C. psychrophiles. D. extremophiles. E. barophiles. 22. Which of the following terms refers to microorganisms that live in or on the body and cause harm? A. mesophiles B. thermophiles C. commensals D. pathogens E. halophiles 23. The term facultative refers to A. the ability to exist in a wide range of conditions. B. existing in a very narrow niche. C. using chemicals for energy production. D. using light for energy production. E. using oxygen for metabolism. 24. The term obligate refers to


A. the ability to exist in a wide range of conditions. B. existing in a very narrow niche. C. using chemicals for energy production. D. using light for energy production. E. using oxygen for metabolism. 25. The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration is called

A. facilitated diffusion. B. diffusion. C. active transport. D. osmosis. E. endocytosis. 26. Which term refers to the diffusion of water through a semipermeable membrane? A. facilitated diffusion B. diffusion C. active transport D. osmosis E. endocytosis 27. The movement of substances from higher to lower concentration across a semipermeable membrane that must have a specific protein carrier but no energy expenditure is called A. facilitated diffusion. B. diffusion. C. active transport. D. osmosis. E. endocytosis. 28. The movement of substances from lower to higher concentration across a semipermeable membrane that must have a specific protein carrier and cell expendN ituUre nT erBg.yCO isM called RSoIfNeG A. facilitated diffusion. B. diffusion. C. active transport. D. osmosis. E. endocytosis. 29. The use of energy by a cell to enclose a substance in its membrane by forming a vacuole and engulfing it is called A. facilitated diffusion. B. diffusion. C. active transport. D. osmosis. E. endocytosis. 30. Bacteria living in a freshwater stream that are moved to salty seawater would A. now be in a hypotonic solution. B. gain water as a result of the move. C. now be in a isotonic solution. D. shrivel as a result of the move. 31. Which of the following microorganisms would find hypotonic conditions most detrimental? A. bacteria B. protozoa C. fungi D. algae E. cyanobacteria


32. Which of the following require the cell to use ATP? A. facilitated diffusion B. diffusion C. endocytosis D. osmosis 33. Nutrient absorption is mediated by the A. cell wall. B. peptidoglycan layer. C. proteins in the periplasmic space. D. cell membrane. E. nuclear membrane. 34. Contractile vacuoles are A. used to expel excess water from cells. B. found in bacterial cells. C. important to certain organisms in hypertonic environments. D. protein carriers in cell membranes. E. used to bring solutes into a cell. 35. Facilitated diffusion is limited by A. ATP concentration. B. the number of carrier proteins in the membrane. C. size of the pores in the membrane. D. osmotic pressure. E. the size of the cell. 36. When whole cells or large molecules in solution are engulfed by a cell, this endocytosis is specifically termed A. pinocytosis. B. phagocytosis. C. facilitated transport. D. facilitated diffusion. E. exocytosis.

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37. Cultures of a bacterial species were incubated on the shelf of a refrigerator, out on a lab bench top, on the shelf of a 37°C incubator and on the shelf of a 50°C incubator. After incubation, there was no growth at 37°C and 50°C, slight growth out on the bench top and abundant growth at refrigeration. What term could be used for this species? A. Halophile B. Mesophile C. Anaerobe D. Psychrophile E. Capnophile 38. Cultures of a bacterial species were incubated out on the incubator shelf, in an anaerobic jar and in a candle jar. After incubation there was moderate growth of cultures in the candle and anaerobic jars, but heavy growth of the culture on the incubator shelf. This species is a/an A. aerobe. B. anaerobe. C. facultative anaerobe. D. microaerophile. E. capnophile. 39. In

conditions, the cell wall will help prevent the cell from bursting.

A. hypertonic


B. hypotonic C. isotonic D. mesotonic E. All of these choices are correct. 40. A microorganism that has an optimum growth temperature of 37°C, but can survive short exposure to high temperatures is called A. an extremophile. B. a thermophile. C. a psychrophile. D. a facultative psychrophile. E. thermoduric. 41. An organism that grows slowly in the cold but has an optimum growth temperature of 32°C is called A. an extremophile. B. a thermophile. C. a psychrophile. D. a facultative psychrophile. E. thermoduric. 42. An organism with a temperature growth range of 45°C to 60°C would be called A. an extremophile. B. a thermophile. C. a psychrophile. D. a facultative psychrophile. E. thermoduric. 43. Which term describes human pathogens? A. psychrophiles B. thermophiles C. halophiles D. mesophiles E. acidophiles

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44. A microorganism that does not have catalase or superoxide dismutase would find it difficult to live in an environment with A. carbon dioxide. B. oxygen. C. high salt. D. temperatures above 37°C. E. high acidity. 45. All of the following could find a location in or on body tissues suitable for growth except A. psychrophiles. B. anaerobes. C. facultative anaerobes. D. mesophiles. E. capnophiles. 46. A microaerophile A. grows best in an anaerobic jar. B. grows with or without oxygen. C. needs normal atmospheric levels of oxygen. D. requires a small amount of oxygen but won't grow at normal atmospheric levels. 47. Which two enzymes catalyze the steps converting the toxic superoxide ion to less harmful oxygen gas?


A. catalase and hydrogen peroxidases B. superoxide dismutase and hydrogen peroxidase C. superoxide dismutase and catalase D. catalase and oxidase E. superoxide dismutase and oxidase 48. An organism that can use gaseous oxygen in metabolism and has the enzymes to process toxic oxygen products is a(n) A. aerobe. B. obligate aerobe. C. facultative anaerobe. D. microaerophile. E. obligate anaerobe. 49. An organism that can exist in both oxygen and oxygen-free environments is a(n) A. aerobe. B. obligate aerobe. C. facultative anaerobe. D. microaerophile. E. obligate anaerobe. 50. An organism that cannot tolerate any oxygen gas in its environment is a(n) A. aerobe. B. obligate aerobe. C. facultative anaerobe. D. microaerophile. E. obligate anaerobe. 51. An organism that cannot grow without oxygen is a(n) A. aerobe. B. obligate aerobe. C. facultative anaerobe. D. microaerophile. E. obligate anaerobe.

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52. Which location would best support the growth of a barophile? A. acid pools B. deep oceans C. hot geyser springs D. arid desert soil E. salt lakes 53. Which location would best support the growth of a halophile? A. acid pools B. freshwater ponds C. hot geyser springs D. arid desert soil E. salt lakes 54. What type of media is used to demonstrate oxygen requirements of microbes? A. blood agar B. thioglycollate C. sulfite polymyxin sulfadiazine D. sodium chloride 55. The production of antibiotics is a form of amensalism called


A. symbiosis. B. satellitism. C. antibiosis. D. mutualism. E. synergism. 56. The E. coli that normally live in the human large intestines and produce vitamin K that the body uses would be best termed a relationship. A. parasitic B. saprobic C. commensal D. mutualistic 57. When microbes share a habitat, with each providing a necessary nutrient for the other, the relationship is called A. syntrophy. B. satellitism. C. antibiosis. D. antagonism. E. autotrophy. 58. When microbes in close nutritional relationship and one benefits but the other is not harmed, it is called A. symbiosis. B. satellitism. C. commensalism. D. mutualism. E. synergism. 59. A change in one partner in a close relationship that leads to a change in the other partner is A. symbiosis. B. coevolution. C. antibiosis. D. mutualism. E. synergism.

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60. The time interval from parent cell to two new daughter cells is called the A. binary fission. B. growth curve. C. generation time. D. death phase. E. culture time. 61. The phase of the bacterial growth curve during which microbial growth slows and the rate of multiplication equals the rate of cell death is the A. lag phase. B. log phase. C. stationary phase. D. death phase. E. telophase. 62. The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which newly inoculated cells are adjusting to their new environment, metabolizing but not growing is the A. lag phase. B. log phase. C. stationary phase. D. death phase. E. prophase.


63. The phase of the bacterial growth curve that shows the maximum rate of cell division is the A. lag phase. B. log phase. C. stationary phase. D. death phase. E. prophase. 64. In the viable plate count method, a measured sample of a culture is evenly spread across an agar surface and incubated. Each on the agar surface represents one from the sample. A. cell; cell B. cell; colony C. colony; cell D. species; colony E. generation; cell 65. When it is important to count the number of cells, determine cell size and differentiate between dead and live cells a is used. A. Coulter counter B. flow cytometer C. SEM D. methylene dye indicator E. plate count

True / False Questions 66. Phosphorus is one of the major elements needed in larger quantities by microorganisms. True False 67. Most microorganisms on Earth can only live anNdUsRuSrvIN ivG eTinB.hCaObM itats that are similar to human body conditions. True False 68. Inorganic nitrogen must be converted to ammonia to be used by a cell. True False 69. Whether an organism is an autotroph or heterotroph depends on its source of nitrogen. True False 70. Whether an organism is a phototroph or a chemotroph depends on its source of energy. True False 71. Obligate saprobes can adapt to a living host. True False 72. A saprobe with a cell wall will utilize extracellular digestion. True False 73. Saprobes do not need a carbon source for growth and metabolism. True False 74. Lithoautotrophs use inorganic nutrients for carbon and energy sources. True False


75. Facilitated diffusion and active transport require a carrier protein to mediate the movement across the plasma membrane. True False 76. In a commensal relationship, the commensal benefits but the cohabitant is neither harmed nor benefited. True False 77. Anaerobes can be cultured in a CO2 rich environment, as long as O2 gas is excluded. True False 78. The majority of microbes live and grow in habitats between pH 7 and 9. True False 79. Bacteria have an average generation time of 24 hours. True False 80. The time that it takes for a freshly inoculated agar culture to develop visible colonies is principally governed by that species'generation time. True False 81. Transverse binary fission results in 4 daughter cells from 1 parent cell. True False 82. After binary fission, daughter cells will differ genetically. True False NURSINGTB.COM 83. A closed culture system is used to determine a population growth curve. True False 84. The degree of turbidity in a broth culture correlates to the amount of cell growth. True False 85. A Coulter counter can count viable cells as well as determine the size. True False 86. Bacterial biofilms stimulate the immune system differently than planktonic bacteria. True False 87. Planktonic bacteria are more susceptible to antibiotics as compared to biofilm microorganisms. True False 88. The direct cell count, using a flow cytometer, can determine both viable cell numbers and number of dead cells in the sample. True False


Multiple Choice Questions 89. Bacterial endosymbionts have lost much of their genome and are dependent upon their aphid hosts for survival. Similarly, the aphids depend on the endosymbiotic bacteria for the supply of amino acids that they provide. This interdependence is the result of A. coevolution. B. syntrophy. C. amensalism. D. microbial antagonism. 90. Cyanobacteria live in aquatic environments and are photosynthetic. The aquatic environment is their and their role as a primary producer is their . A. habitat; purpose B. habitat; niche C. niche; habitat D. host; function

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Chapter 07 Test Bank Key Multiple Choice Questions 1.

Why do bacterial cells require calcium? A. It stabilizes the cell wall. B. It stabilizes the ribosomes. C. It stabilizes the nucleoid. D. It maintains cellular pH. E. It makes strong bones. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.02 Define nutrition and nutrients and their subcategories based on need and quantity. Section: 07.01

Topic: Microbial Nutrition

2.

Which term refers to a nutrient that is required by a microorganism in large quantities for use in cell structure and metabolism? A. element B. macronutrient C. growth factor D. trace element ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level 02. Understand

NeU Learning Outcom : 0R7S .0I2NDG efT inB e .nC uO tritM ion and nutrients and their subcategories based on need and quantity. Section: 07.01 Topic: Microbial Nutrition

3.

Aerobic respiration is an example of A. photosynthesis. B. methanoheterotrophy. C. photoheterotrophy. D. chemoheterotrophy. E. photoautotrophy. ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fixation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis). ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 07.07 Distinguish different types of heterotrophs and their energy sources. Section: 07.02 Topic: Microbial Nutrition

4.

What compound has the highest concentration in a cell? A. CO2 B. CH4 C. H2O D. glucose E. NH3 ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.02 Define nutrition and nutrients and their subcategories based on need and quantity. Section: 07.01

Topic: Microbial Nutrition


5.

Which of the following is the largest component of the dry weight of a cell? A. inorganic compounds B. minerals C. water D. organic compounds E. salts ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 07.02 Define nutrition and nutrients and their subcategories based on need and quantity.

Learning Outcome: 07.03 Differentiate between organic and inorganic nutrients. Section: 07.01

Topic: Microbial Nutrition

6.

Which of the following is not a major element of a microbial cell? A. copper B. carbon C. hydrogen D. nitrogen E. oxygen ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.02 Define nutrition and nutrients and their subcategories based on need and quantity. Learning Outcome: 07.04 Discuss the origins, types, and functions of bioelements and nutrients. Section: 07.01

Topic: Microbial Nutrition

7.

An organic nutrient that cannot be synthesized by the organism and must be provided is called a/an A. element. B. macronutrient. C. water. D. growth factor. E. trace element.

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ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.02 Define nutrition and nutrients and their subcategories based on need and quantity. Learning Outcome: 07.04 Discuss the origins, types, and functions of bioelements and nutrients. Section: 07.01

Topic: Microbial Nutrition

8.

Which of the following is an important mineral ion of the cytochrome pigments used in cellular respiration? A. iron B. zinc C. calcium D. magnesium E. potassium ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fixation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis). ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.02 Define nutrition and nutrients and their subcategories based on need and quantity. Learning Outcome: 07.04 Discuss the origins, types, and functions of bioelements and nutrients. Section: 07.01

Topic: Microbial Nutrition

9.

Which of the following is an important mineral ion that is a component of chloroplasts and stabilizer of membranes and ribosomes? A. iron B. zinc C. calcium D. magnesium


E. potassium ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fixation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis). ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.02 Define nutrition and nutrients and their subcategories based on need and quantity. Learning Outcome: 07.04 Discuss the origins, types, and functions of bioelements and nutrients. Section: 07.01

Topic: Microbial Nutrition

10.

The term heterotroph refers to an organism that A. uses CO2 for its carbon source.

B. must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs. C. gets energy from sunlight. D. gets energy by oxidizing inorganic compounds. E. does not need a carbon source. ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fixation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis). ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.05 Describe the main categories of nutritional types among organisms.

11.

Learning Outcome: 07.07 Distinguish different types of heterotrophs and their energy sources. Section: 07.02 Topic: Microbial Nutrition

The term autotroph refers to an organism that A. uses CO2 for its carbon source.

B. must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs. C. gets energy from sunlight. D. gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds. E. does not need a carbon source. ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fixation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis). ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic biG litiT esB(.eC.gO.,M quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). NURSIaN ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.05 Describe the main categories of nutritional types among organisms. Learning Outcome: 07.06 Distinguish different types of autotrophs and their energy sources. Section: 07.02

Topic: Microbial Nutrition

12.

Growth factors A. are inorganic. B. are synthesized by the organism. C. contain elemental oxygen. D. cannot be synthesized by the organism. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.02 Define nutrition and nutrients and their subcategories based on need and quantity. Section: 07.01

Topic: Microbial Nutrition

13.

An organism that uses CO2 for its carbon needs and sunlight for its energy needs would be called a/an

A. heterotroph. B. photoautotroph. C. chemoheterotroph. D. saprobe. E. halotroph. ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora).


ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom's Level 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.06 Distinguish different types of autotrophs and their energy sources. Section: 07.02 Topic: Microbial Nutrition

14.

The term chemotroph refers to an organism that A. uses CO2 for its carbon source.

B. must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs. C. gets energy from sunlight. D. gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds. E. does not need a carbon source. ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.05 Describe the main categories of nutritional types among organisms. Section: 07.02 Topic: Microbial Nutrition

15.

The term phototroph refers to an organism that A. uses CO2 for its carbon source.

B. must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs. C. gets energy from sunlight. D. gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds. E. does not need a carbon source. ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). IN Min a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth N ofU aR nySm icG roT orB ga.C niO sm ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.06 Distinguish different types of autotrophs and their energy sources. Section: 07.02 Topic: Microbial Nutrition

16.

The methanogens, producers of methane gas, require environments that A. have sunlight. B. are very acidic. C. have abundant oxygen and CO2. D. are extremely cold. E. are anaerobic with hydrogen gas and CO2. ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fixation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis). ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.05 Describe the main categories of nutritional types among organisms.

Learning Outcome: 07.15 List the major gases and describe microbial requirements for these gases. Section: 07.02 Topic: Environmental Influences Topic: Microbial Nutrition


17.

Organisms that feed on dead organisms for nutrients are called A. saprobes. B. parasites. C. autotrophs. D. lithoautotrophs. E. phototrophs. ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.05 Describe the main categories of nutritional types among organisms.

18.

Learning Outcome: 07.07 Distinguish different types of heterotrophs and their energy sources. Section: 07.02 Topic: Microbial Ecology Topic: Microbial Nutrition

The type of photosynthesis that does not produce oxygen A. occurs in cyanobacteria. B. does not require CO2 as a reactant. C. occurs in purple and green sulfur bacteria. D. does not require sunlight. E. occurs in algae and plants.

ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fixation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis). ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.06 Distinguish different types of autotrophs and their energy sources.

NURSINGTB.COM

Section: 07.02

Topic: Microbial Nutrition

19.

Microorganisms require small quantities of this nutrient for enzyme function and maintenance of protein structure. A. element B. macronutrient C. water D. growth factors E. trace element ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.02 Define nutrition and nutrients and their subcategories based on need and quantity. Learning Outcome: 07.04 Discuss the origins, types, and functions of bioelements and nutrients. Section: 07.01

Topic: Microbial Nutrition

20.

Archaea as a group are not pathogens. This is because A. they evolved without mammals. B. mammals evolved special defenses against them. C. mammalian hosts do not meet their environmental requirements. D. they are out-competed by natural flora. ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 07.01 Descibe the major environmental factors to which microbes must adapt for survival. Section: 07.01


Topic: Environmental Influences

21.

Microorganisms that live in severe habitats, such as very hot, acidic or salty environments, are called A. thermophiles. B. halophiles. C. psychrophiles. D. extremophiles. E. barophiles. ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fixation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis). ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.14 Explain the adaptive temperature groups, with examples of microbes that exist in them. Learning Outcome: 07.16 Outline the adaptations of microbial groups to variations in pH. Learning Outcome: 07.17 Identify microbial adaptations to osmotic pressure. Section: 07.04 Topic: Environmental Influences

22.

Which of the following terms refers to microorganisms that live in or on the body and cause harm? A. mesophiles B. thermophiles C. commensals D. pathogens E. halophiles

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.22 Describe interactions between humans and their microbiota. Section: 07.05

Topic: Microbial Ecology

23.

The term facultative refers to A. the ability to exist in a wide range of conditions. B. existing in a very narrow niche. C. using chemicals for energy production.NURSINGTB.COM D. using light for energy production. E. using oxygen for metabolism. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.05 Describe the main categories of nutritional types among organisms. Section: 07.01 Section: 07.02

Topic: Environmental Influences

24.

The term obligate refers to A. the ability to exist in a wide range of conditions. B. existing in a very narrow niche. C. using chemicals for energy production. D. using light for energy production. E. using oxygen for metabolism. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.05 Describe the main categories of nutritional types among organisms. Section: 07.02

Topic: Environmental Influences

25.

The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration is called A. facilitated diffusion. B. diffusion. C. active transport. D. osmosis. E. endocytosis. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics.


ASM Objective: 06.02 Microorganisms provide essential models that give us fundamental knowledge about life processes. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.08 Describe the basic factors in diffusion and passive transport systems. Section: 07.03 Topic: Cellular Transport

26.

Which term refers to the diffusion of water through a semipermeable membrane? A. facilitated diffusion B. diffusion C. active transport D. osmosis E. endocytosis ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 06.02 Microorganisms provide essential models that give us fundamental knowledge about life processes. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.09 Define osmosis and describe varying osmotic conditions. Section: 07.03 Topic: Cellular Transport

27.

The movement of substances from higher to lower concentration across a semipermeable membrane that must have a specific protein carrier but no energy expenditure is called A. facilitated diffusion. B. diffusion. C. active transport. D. osmosis. E. endocytosis. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 06.02 Microorganisms provide essential models that give us fundamental knowledge about life processes. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.08 Describe the basic factors in diffusion and passive transport systems. Section: 07.03 NURSINGTB.COM Topic: Cellular Transport

28.

The movement of substances from lower to higher concentration across a semipermeable membrane that must have a specific protein carrier and cell expenditure of energy is called A. facilitated diffusion. B. diffusion. C. active transport. D. osmosis. E. endocytosis. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 06.02 Microorganisms provide essential models that give us fundamental knowledge about life processes. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.11 Describe the features of active transport and differentiate among its mechanisms. Section: 07.03 Topic: Cellular Transport

29.

The use of energy by a cell to enclose a substance in its membrane by forming a vacuole and engulfing it is called A. facilitated diffusion. B. diffusion. C. active transport. D. osmosis. E. endocytosis. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 06.02 Microorganisms provide essential models that give us fundamental knowledge about life processes. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.11 Describe the features of active transport and differentiate among its mechanisms.


Section: 07.03 Topic: Cellular Transport

30.

Bacteria living in a freshwater stream that are moved to salty seawater would A. now be in a hypotonic solution. B. gain water as a result of the move. C. now be in a isotonic solution. D. shrivel as a result of the move. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 07.09 Define osmosis and describe varying osmotic conditions. Learning Outcome: 07.10 Analyze adaptations microbes make in response to osmosis.

Section: 07.03 Topic: Cellular Transport

31.

Which of the following microorganisms would find hypotonic conditions most detrimental? A. bacteria B. protozoa C. fungi D. algae E. cyanobacteria ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 04. Analyze Learning Outcome: 07.09 Define osmosis and describe varying osmotic conditions. Learning Outcome: 07.10 Analyze adaptations microbes make in response to osmosis. Section: 07.03

Topic: Cellular Transport

32.

Which of the following require the cell to use ATP? A. facilitated diffusion B. diffusion C. endocytosis D. osmosis

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 07.11 Describe the features of active transport and differentiate among its mechanisms. Section: 07.03

Topic: Cellular Transport

33.

Nutrient absorption is mediated by the A. cell wall. B. peptidoglycan layer. C. proteins in the periplasmic space. D. cell membrane. E. nuclear membrane. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.08 Describe the basic factors in diffusion and passive transport systems. Learning Outcome: 07.11 Describe the features of active transport and differentiate among its mechanisms. Section: 07.03

Topic: Cellular Transport


34.

Contractile vacuoles are A. used to expel excess water from cells. B. found in bacterial cells. C. important to certain organisms in hypertonic environments. D. protein carriers in cell membranes. E. used to bring solutes into a cell. ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.09 Define osmosis and describe varying osmotic conditions. Learning Outcome: 07.10 Analyze adaptations microbes make in response to osmosis. Section: 07.03

Topic: Cellular Transport

35.

Facilitated diffusion is limited by A. ATP concentration. B. the number of carrier proteins in the membrane. C. size of the pores in the membrane. D. osmotic pressure. E. the size of the cell. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.08 Describe the basic factors in diffusion and passive transport systems. Section: 07.03 Topic: Cellular Transport

36.

When whole cells or large molecules in solution are engulfed by a cell, this endocytosis is specifically termed A. pinocytosis. B. phagocytosis. C. facilitated transport. D. facilitated diffusion. E. exocytosis.

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.11 Describe the features of active transport and differentiate among its mechanisms. Section: 07.03

Topic: Cellular Transport

37.

Cultures of a bacterial species were incubated on the shelf of a refrigerator, out on a lab bench top, on the shelf of a 37°C incubator and on the shelf of a 50°C incubator. After incubation, there was no growth at 37°C and 50°C, slight growth out on the bench top and abundant growth at refrigeration. What term could be used for this species? A. Halophile B. Mesophile C. Anaerobe D. Psychrophile E. Capnophile ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 04. Analyze Learning Outcome: 07.13 Describe the range of temperatures a microbe can function within. Learning Outcome: 07.14 Explain the adaptive temperature groups, with examples of microbes that exist in them. Section: 07.04 Topic: Environmental Influences


38.

Cultures of a bacterial species were incubated out on the incubator shelf, in an anaerobic jar and in a candle jar. After incubation there was moderate growth of cultures in the candle and anaerobic jars, but heavy growth of the culture on the incubator shelf. This species is a/an A. aerobe. B. anaerobe. C. facultative anaerobe. D. microaerophile. E. capnophile. ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fixation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis). ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 04. Analyze Learning Outcome: 07.15 List the major gases and describe microbial requirements for these gases. Section: 07.04

Topic: Environmental Influences

39.

In

conditions, the cell wall will help prevent the cell from bursting.

A. hypertonic B. hypotonic C. isotonic D. mesotonic E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 07.10 Analyze adaptations microbes make in response to osmosis. Section: 07.03

Topic: Cellular Transport

40.

A microorganism that has an optimum growth temperature of 37°C, but can survive short exposure to high temperatures is called A. an extremophile. B. a thermophile. C. a psychrophile. D. a facultative psychrophile. E. thermoduric.

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.14 Explain the adaptive temperature groups, with examples of microbes that exist in them. Section: 07.04

Topic: Environmental Influences

41.

An organism that grows slowly in the cold but has an optimum growth temperature of 32°C is called A. an extremophile. B. a thermophile. C. a psychrophile. D. a facultative psychrophile. E. thermoduric. ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fixation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis). ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.13 Describe the range of temperatures a microbe can function within. Learning Outcome: 07.14 Explain the adaptive temperature groups, with examples of microbes that exist in them. Section: 07.04


Topic: Environmental Influences

42.

An organism with a temperature growth range of 45°C to 60°C would be called A. an extremophile. B. a thermophile. C. a psychrophile. D. a facultative psychrophile. E. thermoduric. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fixation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis). ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.13 Describe the range of temperatures a microbe can function within. Learning Outcome: 07.14 Explain the adaptive temperature groups, with examples of microbes that exist in them. Section: 07.04

Topic: Environmental Influences

43.

Which term describes human pathogens? A. psychrophiles B. thermophiles C. halophiles D. mesophiles E. acidophiles

ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fixation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis). ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 07.14 Explain the adaptive temperature groups, with examples of microbes that exist in them. Section: 07.04

Topic: Environmental Influences

44.

A microorganism that does not have catalaN se oS r IsNuG peTrBo.xCidOeMdismutase would find it difficult to live in an UR environment with A. carbon dioxide. B. oxygen. C. high salt. D. temperatures above 37°C. E. high acidity. ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 07.15 List the major gases and describe microbial requirements for these gases. Section: 07.04

Topic: Environmental Influences

45.

All of the following could find a location in or on body tissues suitable for growth except A. psychrophiles. B. anaerobes. C. facultative anaerobes. D. mesophiles. E. capnophiles.

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 07.14 Explain the adaptive temperature groups, with examples of microbes that exist in them. Section: 07.04

Topic: Environmental Influences


46.

A microaerophile A. grows best in an anaerobic jar. B. grows with or without oxygen. C. needs normal atmospheric levels of oxygen. D. requires a small amount of oxygen but won't grow at normal atmospheric levels. ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.15 List the major gases and describe microbial requirements for these gases. Section: 07.04

Topic: Environmental Influences

47.

Which two enzymes catalyze the steps converting the toxic superoxide ion to less harmful oxygen gas? A. catalase and hydrogen peroxidases B. superoxide dismutase and hydrogen peroxidase C. superoxide dismutase and catalase D. catalase and oxidase E. superoxide dismutase and oxidase ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.15 List the major gases and describe microbial requirements for these gases. Section: 07.04

Topic: Environmental Influences

48.

An organism that can use gaseous oxygen in metabolism and has the enzymes to process toxic oxygen products is a(n) A. aerobe. B. obligate aerobe. C. facultative anaerobe. D. microaerophile. E. obligate anaerobe.

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.15 List the major gases and describe microbial requirements for these gases. Section: 07.04

Topic: Environmental Influences

49.

An organism that can exist in both oxygen and oxygen-free environments is a(n) A. aerobe. B. obligate aerobe. C. facultative anaerobe. D. microaerophile. E. obligate anaerobe. ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.15 List the major gases and describe microbial requirements for these gases. Section: 07.04

Topic: Environmental Influences

50.

An organism that cannot tolerate any oxygen gas in its environment is a(n) A. aerobe. B. obligate aerobe. C. facultative anaerobe. D. microaerophile. E. obligate anaerobe.


ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.15 List the major gases and describe microbial requirements for these gases. Section: 07.04

Topic: Environmental Influences

51.

An organism that cannot grow without oxygen is a(n) A. aerobe. B. obligate aerobe. C. facultative anaerobe. D. microaerophile. E. obligate anaerobe. ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.15 List the major gases and describe microbial requirements for these gases. Section: 07.04

Topic: Environmental Influences

52.

Which location would best support the growth of a barophile? A. acid pools B. deep oceans C. hot geyser springs D. arid desert soil E. salt lakes ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 07.01 Descibe the major environmental factors to which microbes must adapt for survival. Section: 07.04

53.

NURSINGTB.COM Which location would best support the growth of a halophile?

Topic: Environmental Influences

A. acid pools B. freshwater ponds C. hot geyser springs D. arid desert soil E. salt lakes ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 07.10 Analyze adaptations microbes make in response to osmosis. Learning Outcome: 07.17 Identify microbial adaptations to osmotic pressure. Section: 07.04

Topic: Cellular Transport

54.

What type of media is used to demonstrate oxygen requirements of microbes? A. blood agar B. thioglycollate C. sulfite polymyxin sulfadiazine D. sodium chloride ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.15 List the major gases and describe microbial requirements for these gases. Section: 07.04

Topic: Environmental Influences


55.

The production of antibiotics is a form of amensalism called A. symbiosis. B. satellitism. C. antibiosis. D. mutualism. E. synergism.

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Objective: 08.07 Document and report on experimental protocols, results and conclusions. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.21 Explain syntrophy and amensalism, using examples. Section: 07.05 Topic: Microbial Ecology

56.

The E. coli that normally live in the human large intestines and produce vitamin K that the body uses would be best termed a relationship. A. parasitic B. saprobic C. commensal D. mutualistic ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.

ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom's Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 07.20 Differentiate among mutual, commensal, and parasitic associations, providing examples. Learning Outcome: 07.22 Describe interactions between humans and their microbiota. Section: 07.05

57.

Topic: Microbial Ecology NURSINGTB.COM When microbes share a habitat, with each providing a necessary nutrient for the other, the relationship is called

A. syntrophy. B. satellitism. C. antibiosis. D. antagonism. E. autotrophy. ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.18 Outline the types of associations among microorganisms and describe their basic differences. Learning Outcome: 07.21 Explain syntrophy and amensalism, using examples. Section: 07.05

Topic: Microbial Ecology

58.

When microbes in close nutritional relationship and one benefits but the other is not harmed, it is called A. symbiosis. B. satellitism. C. commensalism. D. mutualism. E. synergism. ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.18 Outline the types of associations among microorganisms and describe their basic differences.


Learning Outcome: 07.20 Differentiate among mutual, commensal, and parasitic associations, providing examples. Section: 07.05

Topic: Microbial Ecology

59.

A change in one partner in a close relationship that leads to a change in the other partner is A. symbiosis. B. coevolution. C. antibiosis. D. mutualism. E. synergism. ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.19 Explain what occurs in symbiosis and coevolution. Section: 07.05

Topic: Microbial Ecology

60.

The time interval from parent cell to two new daughter cells is called the A. binary fission. B. growth curve. C. generation time. D. death phase. E. culture time. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.23 Define growth and explain the process of binary fission. Section: 07.06

Topic: Microbial Growth

61.

The phase of the bacterial growth curve during which microbial growth slows and the rate of multiplication equals the rate of cell death is the A. lag phase. B. log phase. C. stationary phase. D. death phase. E. telophase.

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.25 Explain the stages in the population growth curve and its practical importance. Section: 07.06

Topic: Microbial Growth

62.

The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which newly inoculated cells are adjusting to their new environment, metabolizing but not growing is the A. lag phase. B. log phase. C. stationary phase. D. death phase. E. prophase. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.25 Explain the stages in the population growth curve and its practical importance. Section: 07.06

Topic: Microbial Growth

63.

The phase of the bacterial growth curve that shows the maximum rate of cell division is the A. lag phase. B. log phase. C. stationary phase. D. death phase.


E. prophase. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.25 Explain the stages in the population growth curve and its practical importance. Section: 07.06

Topic: Microbial Growth

64.

In the viable plate count method, a measured sample of a culture is evenly spread across an agar surface and incubated. Each on the agar surface represents one from the sample. A. cell; cell B. cell; colony C. colony; cell D. species; colony E. generation; cell ASM Objective: 08.04 Estimate the number of microorganisms in a sample (using, for example, direct count, viable plate count, and spectrophotometric methods). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.24 Describe the process of population growth and how it is measured. Section: 07.06 Topic: Microbial Growth

65.

When it is important to count the number of cells, determine cell size and differentiate between dead and live cells a is used. A. Coulter counter B. flow cytometer C. SEM D. methylene dye indicator E. plate count ASM Objective: 08.04 Estimate the number of microorganisms in a sample (using, for example, direct count, viable plate count, and spectrophotometric methods). ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills NURSINGTB.COM Bloom's Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 07.24 Describe the process of population growth and how it is measured. Section: 07.06

Topic: Microbial Growth

True / False Questions 66.

Phosphorus is one of the major elements needed in larger quantities by microorganisms. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.02 Define nutrition and nutrients and their subcategories based on need and quantity. Section: 07.01 Topic: Microbial Nutrition

67.

Most microorganisms on Earth can only live and survive in habitats that are similar to human body conditions. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.01 Descibe the major environmental factors to which microbes must adapt for survival. Learning Outcome: 07.12 Differentiate between habitat and niche. Section: 07.01 Section: 07.04


Topic: Environmental Influences

68.

Inorganic nitrogen must be converted to ammonia to be used by a cell. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fixation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis). ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.03 Differentiate between organic and inorganic nutrients. Learning Outcome: 07.04 Discuss the origins, types, and functions of bioelements and nutrients. Section: 07.01

Topic: Microbial Nutrition

69.

Whether an organism is an autotroph or heterotroph depends on its source of nitrogen. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fixation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis). ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.05 Describe the main categories of nutritional types among organisms. Section: 07.02

Topic: Microbial Nutrition

70.

Whether an organism is a phototroph or a chemotroph depends on its source of energy. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.06 Distinguish different types of autotrophs and their energy sources. Learning Outcome: 07.07 Distinguish different types of heterotrophs and their energy sources.

Section: 07.02

71.

NURSINGTB.COM Obligate saprobes can adapt to a living host.

Topic: Microbial Nutrition

FALSE ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.05 Describe the main categories of nutritional types among organisms.

Section: 07.02 Topic: Microbial Nutrition

72.

A saprobe with a cell wall will utilize extracellular digestion. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 07.05 Describe the main categories of nutritional types among organisms. Section: 07.02

Topic: Microbial Nutrition

73.

Saprobes do not need a carbon source for growth and metabolism. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level 02. Understand


Learning Outcome: 07.05 Describe the main categories of nutritional types among organisms. Section: 07.02

Topic: Microbial Nutrition

74.

Lithoautotrophs use inorganic nutrients for carbon and energy sources. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fixation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.04 Discuss the origins, types, and functions of bioelements and nutrients. Learning Outcome: 07.05 Describe the main categories of nutritional types among organisms. Section: 07.02

Topic: Microbial Nutrition

75.

Facilitated diffusion and active transport require a carrier protein to mediate the movement across the plasma membrane. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.08 Describe the basic factors in diffusion and passive transport systems. Section: 07.03

Topic: Cellular Transport

76.

In a commensal relationship, the commensal benefits but the cohabitant is neither harmed nor benefited. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.20 Differentiate among mutual, commensal, and parasitic associations, providing examples. Section: 07.05

77.

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Topic: Microbial Ecology

Anaerobes can be cultured in a CO2 rich environment, as long as O2 gas is excluded.

TRUE ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.08 Describe the basic factors in diffusion and passive transport systems. Learning Outcome: 07.15 List the major gases and describe microbial requirements for these gases. Section: 07.04

Topic: Environmental Influences

78.

The majority of microbes live and grow in habitats between pH 7 and 9. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.16 Outline the adaptations of microbial groups to variations in pH. Section: 07.04

Topic: Environmental Influences

79.

Bacteria have an average generation time of 24 hours. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.23 Define growth and explain the process of binary fission. Section: 07.06

Topic: Microbial Growth


80.

The time that it takes for a freshly inoculated agar culture to develop visible colonies is principally governed by that species'generation time. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 07.23 Define growth and explain the process of binary fission. Section: 07.06

Topic: Microbial Growth

81.

Transverse binary fission results in 4 daughter cells from 1 parent cell. FALSE ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.23 Define growth and explain the process of binary fission. Section: 07.06 Topic: Microbial Growth

82.

After binary fission, daughter cells will differ genetically. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.23 Define growth and explain the process of binary fission. Section: 07.06

Topic: Microbial Growth

83.

A closed culture system is used to determine a population growth curve. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 08.04 Estimate the number of microorganisms in a sample (using, for example, direct count, viable NURSINGTB.COM plate count, and spectrophotometric methods). ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways

ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.26 Relate the techniques and tools used to detect and count cells in culture. Section: 07.06 Topic: Microbial Growth

84.

The degree of turbidity in a broth culture correlates to the amount of cell growth. TRUE ASM Objective: 08.04 Estimate the number of microorganisms in a sample (using, for example, direct count, viable plate count, and spectrophotometric methods). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.26 Relate the techniques and tools used to detect and count cells in culture. Section: 07.06 Topic: Microbial Growth

85.

A Coulter counter can count viable cells as well as determine the size. FALSE ASM Objective: 08.04 Estimate the number of microorganisms in a sample (using, for example, direct count, viable plate count, and spectrophotometric methods). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.26 Relate the techniques and tools used to detect and count cells in culture. Section: 07.06 Topic: Microbial Growth

86.

Bacterial biofilms stimulate the immune system differently than planktonic bacteria. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.02 Most bacteria in nature live in biofilm communities. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.


ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.22 Describe interactions between humans and their microbiota. Section: 07.05

Topic: Microbial Ecology

87.

Planktonic bacteria are more susceptible to antibiotics as compared to biofilm microorganisms. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.02 Most bacteria in nature live in biofilm communities. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.18 Outline the types of associations among microorganisms and describe their basic differences. Section: 07.05 Topic: Microbial Ecology

88.

The direct cell count, using a flow cytometer, can determine both viable cell numbers and number of dead cells in the sample. TRUE ASM Objective: 08.04 Estimate the number of microorganisms in a sample (using, for example, direct count, viable plate count, and spectrophotometric methods). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom's Level 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.26 Relate the techniques and tools used to detect and count cells in culture. Section: 07.06 Topic: Microbial Growth

Multiple Choice Questions 89.

Bacterial endosymbionts have lost much of their genome and are dependent upon their aphid hosts for survival. Similarly, the aphids depend on the endosymbiotic bacteria for the supply of amino acids that they provide. This interdependence is the result of A. coevolution. B. syntrophy. C. amensalism. D. microbial antagonism.

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ASM Objective: 01.02 Mutations and horizontal gene transfer, with the immense variety of microenvironments, have selected for a huge diversity of microorganisms. ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.19 Explain what occurs in symbiosis and coevolution. Section: 07.05

Topic: Microbial Ecology

90.

Cyanobacteria live in aquatic environments and are photosynthetic. The aquatic environment is their and their role as a primary producer is their . A. habitat; purpose B. habitat; niche C. niche; habitat D. host; function ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom's Level: 03. Apply


Learning Outcome: 07.12 Differentiate between habitat and niche. Section: 07.04 Topic: Microbial Ecology

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Chapter 07 Test Bank Summary Category

# of Questions

ASM Objective: 01.02 Mutations and horizontal gene transfer, with the immense variety of microenvironments, have selected for a huge diversity of microorganisms.

1

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (in cluding bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron).

2

ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that ofte n confer critical capabilities.

2

ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different.

4

ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes.

1

ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fix ation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis).

15

ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determi ned by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations).

28

ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metaboli c characteristics.

43

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biologic al means.

13

ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems.

7

ASM Objective: 05.02 Most bacteria in nature live in biofilm communities.

2

ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

21

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in benefi cial, neutral or detrimental ways.

10

ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeo chemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora).

7

ASM Objective: 06.02 Microorganisms provide essential models that give us fundamental knowledge about life proce sses.

5

ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microNoU rgRaS nIisNmGsTaBn.dCtO heM ir products.

2

ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (mediabased, molecular and serological).

2

ASM Objective: 08.04 Estimate the number of microorganisms in a sample (using, for example, direct count, viable pl ate count, and spectrophotometric methods).

6

ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods.

1

ASM Objective: 08.07 Document and report on experimental protocols, results and conclusions.

1

ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution

1

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function

10

ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways

66

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems

33

ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms

13

ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills

7

Bloom's Level 02. Understand

39

Bloom's Level: 01. Remember

32

Bloom's Level: 03. Apply

16

Bloom's Level: 04. Analyze

3

Learning Outcome: 07.01 Descibe the major environmental factors to which microbes must adapt for survival.

3

Learning Outcome: 07.02 Define nutrition and nutrients and their subcategories based on need and quantity.

11

Learning Outcome: 07.03 Differentiate between organic and inorganic nutrients.

2

Learning Outcome: 07.04 Discuss the origins, types, and functions of bioelements and nutrients.

7

Learning Outcome: 07.05 Describe the main categories of nutritional types among organisms.

12

Learning Outcome: 07.06 Distinguish different types of autotrophs and their energy sources.

5

Learning Outcome: 07.07 Distinguish different types of heterotrophs and their energy sources.

4

Learning Outcome: 07.08 Describe the basic factors in diffusion and passive transport systems.

6

Learning Outcome: 07.09 Define osmosis and describe varying osmotic conditions. Learning Outcome: 07.10 Analyze adaptations microbes make in response to osmosis.

4 5


Learning Outcome: 07.11 Describe the features of active transport and differentiate among its mechanisms.

5

Learning Outcome: 07.12 Differentiate between habitat and niche.

2

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Learning Outcome: 07.13 Describe the range of temperatures a microbe can function within.

3

Learning Outcome: 07.14 Explain the adaptive temperature groups, with examples of microbes that exist in them.

7

Learning Outcome: 07.15 List the major gases and describe microbial requirements for these gases.

11

Learning Outcome: 07.16 Outline the adaptations of microbial groups to variations in pH.

2

Learning Outcome: 07.17 Identify microbial adaptations to osmotic pressure.

2

Learning Outcome: 07.18 Outline the types of associations among microorganisms and describe their basic differenc es.

3

Learning Outcome: 07.19 Explain what occurs in symbiosis and coevolution.

2

Learning Outcome: 07.20 Differentiate among mutual, commensal, and parasitic associations, providing examples.

3

Learning Outcome: 07.21 Explain syntrophy and amensalism, using examples.

2

Learning Outcome: 07.22 Describe interactions between humans and their microbiota.

3

Learning Outcome: 07.23 Define growth and explain the process of binary fission.

5

Learning Outcome: 07.24 Describe the process of population growth and how it is measured.

2

Learning Outcome: 07.25 Explain the stages in the population growth curve and its practical importance.

3

Learning Outcome: 07.26 Relate the techniques and tools used to detect and count cells in culture.

4

Section: 07.01

15

Section: 07.02

17

Section: 07.03

14

Section: 07.04

22

Section: 07.05

10

Section: 07.06

14

Topic: Cellular Transport

15

Topic: Environmental Influences

24

Topic: Microbial Ecology

12

Topic: Microbial Growth Topic: Microbial Nutrition

14 27

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Chapter 08 Test Bank Multiple Choice Questions 1.

Reactants are converted to products by A. enzymes releasing energy. B. breaking and forming bonds. C. enzymes binding to reactants. D. reactants releasing energy.

2.

Which term refers to all of the chemical reactions of the cell? A. catabolism B. redox reactions C. phosphorylation D. metabolism E. cellular respiration

3.

Enzymes are A. broken down in reactions that require energy input. B. proteins that function as catalysts. C. used up in chemical reactions. D. not needed for catabolic reactions. E. All of these choices are correct.

4.

Formation of peptide bonds between amino acids to build a polypeptide would be called A. anabolism. B. phosphorylation. C. fermentation. D. exergonic. E. glycolysis.

5.

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Each of the following are true of enzymes except A. they can be used over and over. B. they may or may not require cofactors. C. their active site is specific to the substrate. D. they increase the activation energy of a reaction. E. All of the choices are true of enzymes.

6.

An apoenzyme A. is part of a simple enzyme. B. is also called a coenzyme. C. is the protein part of a holoenzyme. D. is often an inorganic metal ion. E. is an RNA molecule.

7.

A holoenzyme is a combination of a protein and one or more substances called A. substrates. B. apoenzymes. C. catalysts. D. cofactors.

8.

The cell's metabolic reactions involve the participation of initiation of a reaction. A. cofactors

that lower the activation energy needed for the


B. vitamins C. enzymes D. ATP E. Coenzymes 9.

A type of cofactor would be A. vitamins. B. metallic ions. C. active sites. D. substrates. E. ribozymes.

10. Important components of coenzymes are A. vitamins. B. metallic ions. C. active sites. D. substrates. E. ribozymes. 11. Enzymes that are only produced when substrate is present are termed A. exoenzymes. B. endoenzymes. C. constitutive enzymes. D. induced enzymes. E. conjugated enzymes. 12. Ribozymes are A. ribosomes which catalyze reactions. B. unique to prokaryotes. C. unique to eukaryotes. D. catalysts for RNA editing. E. catalysts for DNA splicing.

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13. Enzymes that catalyze removing electrons from one substrate and adding electrons to another are called

A. phosphotransferases. B. oxidoreductases. C. decarboxylases. D. aminotransferases. E. ligases. 14. Enzymes that catalyze moving a phosphate from one substrate to another are called A. phosphotransferases. B. oxidoreductases. C. decarboxylases. D. aminotransferases. E. ligases. 15. Enzymes that catalyze removal of carbon dioxide from a substrate are called A. phosphotransferases. B. oxidoreductases. C. decarboxylases. D. aminotransferases. E. ligases. 16. The most likely place where an exoenzyme participates in a chemical reaction is A. mitochondria.


B. within the cell membrane. C. lysosomes. D. cytoplasm. E. outside of the cell. 17. Which of these enzymes is NOT an exoenzyme? A. ATP synthase B. streptokinase C. penicillinase D. collagenase E. elastase 18. What is the final electron acceptor during aerobic respiration? A. pyruvic acid B. oxygen C. nitrate D. Cytochrome c E. FAD 19.

reactions are anabolic reactions involving ligases for synthesis and the release of one water molecule for each bond formed. A. Reduction B. Condensation C. Oxidation D. Transfer

20. Enzymes that are secreted by a cell to catalyze hydrolysis reactions are A. apoenzymes. B. exoenzymes. C. constitutive enzymes. D. regulated enzymes. E. endoenzymes.

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21. Enzymes that function inside a cell are A. apoenzymes. B. exoenzymes. C. constitutive enzymes. D. regulated enzymes. E. endoenzymes. 22. Enzymes that are always present, regardless of the amount of substrate are A. apoenzymes. B. axoenzymes. C. constitutive enzymes. D. regulated enzymes. E. endoenzymes. 23. When enzyme action stops due to a buildup of end product, this control is called A. competitive inhibition. B. enzyme induction. C. enzyme repression. D. feedback inhibition. 24. Feedback inhibition is best described as A. substrate binding to DNA, blocking enzyme transcription. B. product binding to DNA, blocking enzyme transcription.


C. substrate binding to enzyme in noncompetitive site. D. product binding to enzyme in noncompetitive site. 25. Each of the following are denaturing agents except A. high temperature. B. low temperature. C. high pH. D. low pH. E. All of the choices are correct. 26. Metabolic pathways that regenerate their starting point are called

pathways.

A. linear B. bidirectional C. convergent D. cyclic E. divergent 27. When the product of reaction A becomes the reactant of reaction B, the metabolic pathway is A. linear. B. bidirectional. C. convergent. D. cyclic. E. divergent. 28. Most electron carriers are A. coenzymes. B. enzymes. C. hydrogens. D. inorganic phosphate. E. All of these choices are correct.

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29. Exergonic reactions A. include synthesis of large carbohydrates. B. only occur in heterotrophs. C. occur during aerobic cellular respiration. D. do not occur in anaerobic cellular respiration. E. occur when ADP binds to inorganic phosphate to form ATP. 30. In the cell, energy released by electrons is often used to phosphorylate A. ATP. B. ADP. C. pyruvic acid. D. oxygen. E. NAD. 31. In addition to electrons, which of the following is also involved in electron transfer? A. ADP B. glucose C. carbon D. hydrogen E. carbon dioxide 32. Each of the following are electron carriers except A. NAD. B. FAD. C. NADP.


D. FADP. E. Coenzyme A. 33. The step involving ATP, hexokinase and the phosphorylation of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate is

A. the final step of the Krebs cycle. B. the first redox reaction of the electron transport system. C. an example of oxidative phosphorylation. D. an example of substrate-level phosphorylation. E. an example of photophosphorylation. 34. FAD, NADP, and NAD are all

carriers.

A. hydrogen B. electron C. ATP D. both hydrogen and electron 35. Which of the following is not a process that regenerates ATP? A. oxidative phosphorylation B. reductive phosphorylation C. substrate-level phosphorylation D. photophosphorylation

36. All of the following pertain to glycolysis EXCEPT A. occurs without oxygen. B. ends with formation of pyruvic acid. C. occurs during fermentation. D. degrades glucose to CO2 and H2O. E. involves reduction of NAD. 37. Glycolysis NURSINGTB.COM v: 05_22_2015_QC_CS-15257 A. uses 2 ATP, produces 2 ATP and requires oxygen. B. uses 2 ATP, produces 4 ATP and requires oxygen. C. uses 2 ATP, produces 4 ATP, does not require oxygen. D. uses 2 ATP, produces 2 ATP, does not require oxygen. 38. The formation of citric acid from oxaloacetic acid and an acetyl group begins A. glycolysis. B. the electron transport system. C. the Krebs cycle. D. fermentation. E. oxidative phosphorylation. 39. Which of the following is not involved in the step that occurs between glycolysis and the Krebs cycle? A. reduction of NAD B. decarboxylation of pyruvic acid C. Coenzyme A attaches to an acetyl group D. dehydrogenation of pyruvic acid E. pyruvic acid accepts electrons from NADH 40. Substrate-level phosphorylation occurs in A. glycolysis and electron transport chain. B. photosynthesis and glycolysis. C. glycolysis and Krebs cycle. D. Krebs cycle and electron transport chain. E. All of these choices are correct.


41. The majority of reduced NAD is produced in A. glycolysis. B. Krebs cycle. C. the electron transport chain. D. photosynthesis. 42. In bacterial cells, the electron transport system is located in the A. cell membrane. B. mitochondria. C. chloroplasts. D. ribosomes. E. cytoplasm. 43. Each NADH that enters the electron transport system gives rise to A. 2 B. 3 C. 24 D. 36 E. 38

ATP.

44. As the electron transport carriers shuttle electrons, they actively pump into the outer membrane compartment setting up a concentration gradient called the proton motive force. A. ATP B. phosphate C. hydrogen ions D. oxygen E. NADH 45. The redox carriers of the electron transport chain that have a tightly bound metal atom responsible for accepting and donating electrons are A. NAD molecules. B. FAD molecules. C. NADP molecules. D. the cytochromes. E. the flavoproteins.

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46. Each FADH2 from the Krebs cycle enters the electron transport system and gives rise to A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 47. In which pathway is the most NADH generated? A. electron transport system B. Krebs cycle C. glycolysis D. alcoholic fermentation E. mixed acid fermentation 48. During which of the phases of cellular respiration is the majority of ATP formed? A. electron transport B. Krebs cycle C. glycolysis D. processing of pyruvic acid for the Krebs cycle E. All phases produce the same number of ATP molecules.

ATPs.


49. In bacterial cells, when glucose is completely oxidized by all the pathways of aerobic cellular respiration, what is the maximum number of ATP generated? A. 2 ATP B. 3 ATP C. 24 ATP D. 36 ATP E. 38 ATP 50. In which stage of aerobic respiration is water produced? A. glycolysis B. Krebs cycle C. electron transport system 51. How many carbon dioxide molecules are produced by the complete aerobic breakdown of one glucose molecule? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 E. 6 52. An oxidase detection test can be used to identify certain bacteria because they lack A. Cytochrome c oxidase. B. NAD. C. mitochondria. D. ATP synthase. E. Coenzyme Q. 53. What chemical causes death in many eukaryotes because it blocks Cytochrome c oxidase? A. copper B. iron C. cyanide D. oxygen E. carbon monoxide

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54. Which of the following is not true of anaerobic respiration?2_2015_QC_CS-15256 A. involves glycolysis B. generates some ATP C. utilizes an electron transport system D. uses the same final electron acceptors as aerobic respiration 55. Reduction of nitrogen-oxygen ions and compounds by some bacteria is called A. aerobic respiration. B. denitrification. C. nitrification. D. fermentation. E. deamination. 56. The reactions of fermentation function to regenerate

molecules for use in glycolysis.

A. pyruvic acid B. ATP C. NAD D. NADH E. glucose 57. When glucose is broken down by glycolysis during bacterial fermentation, what is the net production of ATP?


A. 2 ATP B. 3 ATP C. 24 ATP D. 36 ATP E. 38 ATP 58. Mixed acid fermentation A. produces butyric acid. B. occurs in all bacteria. C. produces several different acids plus CO2 and H2 gases. D. is seen in Streptococcus and Lactobacillus. E. also produces ethanol. 59. Fermentation A. requires an organic electron acceptor. B. requires oxygen. C. only occurs in aerobic organisms. D. is equivalent to aerobic respiration in ATP production. 60. Which of the following are not photosynthetic pigments? A. carotenoids B. leukophylls C. phycobilins D. chlorophylls E. All of these choices are correct. 61. Which of the following is not true of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis? A. They occur in the thylakoid membranes. B. They generates NADPH. NURSINGTB.COM C. They generate glucose from CO2 and H2O. D. Photons cause magnesium to release electrons. E. ATP is generated by a chemiosmotic mechanism. 62. Amination is the addition of a(n)

group to a carbon skeleton.

A. carboxyl B. amino C. phosphate D. hydroxyl 63. The process in which organisms integrate catabolic and anabolic pathways to improve cell efficiency is called A. metabolism. B. amphibolism. C. anabolism. D. catabolism. E. biosynthesis. 64. The principle sites of amphibolic interaction occur during A. glycolysis and photosynthesis. B. Krebs cycle and electron transport system. C. glycolysis and Krebs cycle. D. fermentation and Krebs cycle. E. fermentation and glycolysis. 65. Intermediates from the Krebs cycle can be converted to amino acids by the process of A. amination.


B. deamination. C. phosphorylation. D. beta oxidation. E. gluconeogenesis. 66. Which of the following are characteristics of the Calvin cycle? A. The Calvin cycle requires light. B. Nitrogen is fixed into an organic form during the Calvin cycle. C. The Calvin cycle produces glucose as an end product. D. The Calvin cycle produces carbon dioxide and water. E. All of these choices are correct.

True / False Questions 67. ATP molecules are catalysts that lower the activation energy needed to initiate a reaction. True False 68. Building block molecules for biosynthetic pathways come from the cell's catabolic pathways and from the environment. True False 69. Hydrolysis reactions are catabolic reactions that use water to split the reactant into smaller subunits. True False 70. Many exoenzymes from pathogens are virulence factors. True False 71. The best way to control a metabolic pathway is to control the fastest enzyme in the series. NURSINGTB.COM True False 72. Denaturing an apoenzyme will destroy the three-dimensional shape of the protein, making it nonfunctional. True False 73. ATP is composed of deoxyribose, adenine, and 3 phosphate groups. True False 74. Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate is an intermediary of glycolysis that can also be utilized in biosynthetic pathways. True False 75. ATP synthase is a complex enzyme needed for oxidative phosphorylation. True False 76. All aerobic bacterial species have identical electron acceptors in their electron transport systems. True False 77. Only yeast produces alcohol as a fermentation product. True False 78. Microbes can utilize only carbohydrates for energy production. True False


79. Photosynthesis occurs in chloroplasts of prokaryotes. True False 80. All organisms that are photosynthetic are oxygenic. True False

Multiple Choice Questions 81. Which form of energy fuels cellular energetics in chemoheterotrophs? A. light energy from the Sun B. chemical energy in organic compounds C. electrical energy D. thermal energy 82. The energy released by for reactions.

reactions is used to regenerate

which can then provide energy

A. anabolic, ATP, catabolic B. anabolic, NADH, catabolic C. catabolic, ATP, anabolic D. catabolic, glucose, anabolic

True / False Questions 83. In most instances, anabolic pathways are nearly the exact reverse of catbolic pathways. True False

Multiple Choice Questions

NURSINGTB.COM

84. The process of forming glucose from various metabolic intermediates is called A. glycolysis. B. amphibolism. C. phosphorylation. D. amination. E. gluconeogenesis. 85. Which of the following represents the path of electrons during aerobic respiration? A. glucose - NADH - electron transport chain - oxygen B. glucose - pyruvate - citric acid - oxygen C. NADH - ATP - electron transport chain- oxygen D. glucose - NADH - citric acid - ATP 86. Which of the following would produce the most ATP? A. E. coli growing in a sealed glucose broth for 48 hours B. E. coli growing in a well-aerated glucose broth for 48 hours C. Both cultures would produce the same amount of ATP. D. This prediction cannot be made from the information provided. 87. All of the following occur during the light-independent reactions EXCEPT A. carbon fixation. B. reduction of intermediates by NADPH. C. phosphorylation of ADP to form ATP. D. regeneration or RuBP.


88. During a fermentation experiment in lab, two different samples of grape juice have been inoculated with yeast. Air has been evacuated from sample I, but not from sample II. In which sample would you predict to the greater alcohol production? A. sample I B. sample II C. Similar alcohol production is expected in both samples. D. This cannot be predicted based on the information provided.

NURSINGTB.COM


Chapter 08 Test Bank Key Multiple Choice Questions 1.

Reactants are converted to products by A. enzymes releasing energy. B. breaking and forming bonds. C. enzymes binding to reactants. D. reactants releasing energy. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.01 Define metabolism and differentiate its two types. Section: 08.01

Topic: Principles of Metabolism

2.

Which term refers to all of the chemical reactions of the cell? A. catabolism B. redox reactions C. phosphorylation D. metabolism E. cellular respiration ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.01 Define metabolism and differentiate its two types. Section: 08.01

Topic: Principles of Metabolism

3.

Enzymes are NURSINGTB.COM A. broken down in reactions that require energy input. B. proteins that function as catalysts. C. used up in chemical reactions. D. not needed for catabolic reactions. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.02 Describe the basic functions of enzymes in cells. Learning Outcome: 08.03 Outline the prominent characteristics of enzymes. Section: 08.01

Topic: Enzymes

4.

Formation of peptide bonds between amino acids to build a polypeptide would be called A. anabolism. B. phosphorylation. C. fermentation. D. exergonic. E. glycolysis. ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 08.01 Define metabolism and differentiate its two types. Section: 08.01

Topic: Principles of Metabolism

5.

Each of the following are true of enzymes except A. they can be used over and over. B. they may or may not require cofactors.


C. their activeFO INthM siU teNisDsApTeIcOifN icSto eIsCuRbOstBraIO teL. OGY 10TH EDITION TALARO TEST BANK D. they increase the activation energy of a reaction. E. All of the choices are true of enzymes. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.03 Outline the prominent characteristics of enzymes. Learning Outcome: 08.04 Explain how enzymes lower the energy required for a reaction to occur. Section: 08.01

Topic: Enzymes

6.

An apoenzyme A. is part of a simple enzyme. B. is also called a coenzyme. C. is the protein part of a holoenzyme. D. is often an inorganic metal ion. E. is an RNA molecule. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.03 Outline the prominent characteristics of enzymes. Section: 08.01

Topic: Enzymes

7.

A holoenzyme is a combination of a protein and one or more substances called A. substrates. B. apoenzymes. C. catalysts. D. cofactors. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.03 Outline the prominent characteristics of enzymes. Learning Outcome: 08.05 Discuss enzyme structure, and interactions between enzymes and substrates. Section: 08.01

Topic: Enzymes

8.

The cell's metabolic reactions involve the pNaU rtiRcS ipIaNtG ioT nBo.fCOM the initiation of a reaction.

that lower the activation energy needed for

A. cofactors B. vitamins C. enzymes D. ATP E. Coenzymes ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.02 Describe the basic functions of enzymes in cells. Learning Outcome: 08.04 Explain how enzymes lower the energy required for a reaction to occur. Section: 08.01

Topic: Enzymes

9.

A type of cofactor would be A. vitamins. B. metallic ions. C. active sites. D. substrates. E. ribozymes. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.03 Outline the prominent characteristics of enzymes. Section: 08.01 Topic: Enzymes


10.

Important components of coenzymes are A. vitamins. B. metallic ions. C. active sites. D. substrates. E. ribozymes. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.03 Outline the prominent characteristics of enzymes. Section: 08.01

Topic: Enzymes

11.

Enzymes that are only produced when substrate is present are termed A. exoenzymes. B. endoenzymes. C. constitutive enzymes. D. induced enzymes. E. conjugated enzymes. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.07 Summarize key features of enzyme regulation. Section: 08.01

Topic: Enzymes

12.

Ribozymes are A. ribosomes which catalyze reactions. B. unique to prokaryotes. C. unique to eukaryotes. D. catalysts for RNA editing. E. catalysts for DNA splicing. UicRroSoIrNgaGnTisB ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of anyNm m.C inO aM given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.02 Describe the basic functions of enzymes in cells. Section: 08.01

Topic: Enzymes

13.

Enzymes that catalyze removing electrons from one substrate and adding electrons to another are called A. phosphotransferases. B. oxidoreductases. C. decarboxylases. D. aminotransferases. E. ligases. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.02 Describe the basic functions of enzymes in cells. Learning Outcome: 08.06 Describe the types of enzyme functions and methods of naming them. Section: 08.01

Topic: Enzymes

14.

Enzymes that catalyze moving a phosphate from one substrate to another are called A. phosphotransferases. B. oxidoreductases. C. decarboxylases. D. aminotransferases. E. ligases. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways


Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.02 Describe the basic functions of enzymes in cells. Learning Outcome: 08.06 Describe the types of enzyme functions and methods of naming them. Section: 08.01

Topic: Enzymes

15.

Enzymes that catalyze removal of carbon dioxide from a substrate are called A. phosphotransferases. B. oxidoreductases. C. decarboxylases. D. aminotransferases. E. ligases. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.02 Describe the basic functions of enzymes in cells. Learning Outcome: 08.06 Describe the types of enzyme functions and methods of naming them. Section: 08.01

Topic: Enzymes

16.

The most likely place where an exoenzyme participates in a chemical reaction is A. mitochondria. B. within the cell membrane. C. lysosomes. D. cytoplasm. E. outside of the cell. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.02 Describe the basic functions of enzymes in cells. Learning Outcome: 08.06 Describe the types of enzyme functions and methods of naming them. Section: 08.01

Topic: Enzymes

17.

Which of these enzymes is NOT an exoenzyme? A. ATP synthase B. streptokinase C. penicillinase D. collagenase E. elastase

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 08.02 Describe the basic functions of enzymes in cells. Learning Outcome: 08.06 Describe the types of enzyme functions and methods of naming them. Section: 08.01

Topic: Enzymes

18.

What is the final electron acceptor during aerobic respiration? A. pyruvic acid B. oxygen C. nitrate D. Cytochrome c E. FAD

ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.16 Explain the chemiosmotic mechanism of ATP formation, its relationship to electron transport, and the final step in electron transfer. Learning Outcome: 08.17 Summarize the results of aerobic respiration. Section: 08.03 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration

19.

reactions are anabolic reactions involving ligases for synthesis and the release of one water molecule for each bond formed. A. Reduction B. Condensation


C. Oxidation D. Transfer ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.02 Describe the basic functions of enzymes in cells. Learning Outcome: 08.23 Briefly describe several mechanisms in biosynthesis of macromolecules. Section: 08.01

Topic: Biosynthesis

20.

Enzymes that are secreted by a cell to catalyze hydrolysis reactions are A. apoenzymes. B. exoenzymes. C. constitutive enzymes. D. regulated enzymes. E. endoenzymes. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.06 Describe the types of enzyme functions and methods of naming them. Section: 08.01

Topic: Enzymes

21.

Enzymes that function inside a cell are A. apoenzymes. B. exoenzymes. C. constitutive enzymes. D. regulated enzymes. E. endoenzymes. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.06 Describe the types of enzyme functions and methods of naming them. Section: 08.01

22.

NURSINGTB.COM Enzymes that are always present, regardless of the amount of substrate are

Topic: Enzymes

A. apoenzymes. B. axoenzymes. C. constitutive enzymes. D. regulated enzymes. E. endoenzymes. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.07 Summarize key features of enzyme regulation. Section: 08.01

Topic: Enzymes

23.

When enzyme action stops due to a buildup of end product, this control is called A. competitive inhibition. B. enzyme induction. C. enzyme repression. D. feedback inhibition. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.07 Summarize key features of enzyme regulation. Section: 08.01

Topic: Enzymes

24.

Feedback inhibition is best described as A. substrate binding to DNA, blocking enzyme transcription. B. product binding to DNA, blocking enzyme transcription. C. substrate binding to enzyme in noncompetitive site.


D. product binding to enzyme in noncompetitive site. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.07 Summarize key features of enzyme regulation. Section: 08.01

Topic: Enzymes

25.

Each of the following are denaturing agents except A. high temperature. B. low temperature. C. high pH. D. low pH. E. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.03 Outline the prominent characteristics of enzymes. Learning Outcome: 08.07 Summarize key features of enzyme regulation. Section: 08.01

Topic: Enzymes

26.

Metabolic pathways that regenerate their starting point are called

pathways.

A. linear B. bidirectional C. convergent D. cyclic E. divergent ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.05 Discuss enzyme structure, and interactions between enzymes and substrates. Section: 08.01

Topic: Principles of Metabolism

27.

When the product of reaction A becomes thNeUrReSaIcNtaGnTt Bo.fCrO eaMction B, the metabolic pathway is A. linear. B. bidirectional. C. convergent. D. cyclic. E. divergent. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.07 Summarize key features of enzyme regulation. Section: 08.01 Topic: Enzymes Topic: Principles of Metabolism

28.

Most electron carriers are A. coenzymes. B. enzymes. C. hydrogens. D. inorganic phosphate. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.09 Describe biological oxidation-reduction and energy transfer.

Learning Outcome: 08.15 Describe the components of the respiratory chain and their functions. Section: 08.02 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration Topic: Principles of Metabolism

29.

Exergonic reactions A. include synthesis of large carbohydrates.


B. only occur in heterotrophs. C. occur during aerobic cellular respiration. D. do not occur in anaerobic cellular respiration. E. occur when ADP binds to inorganic phosphate to form ATP. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 08.01 Define metabolism and differentiate its two types. Learning Outcome: 08.12 Describe the main catabolic pathways and where they occur in aerobic respiration. Learning Outcome: 08.17 Summarize the results of aerobic respiration. Section: 08.02

Topic: Principles of Metabolism

30.

In the cell, energy released by electrons is often used to phosphorylate A. ATP. B. ADP. C. pyruvic acid. D. oxygen. E. NAD.

ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.10 Discuss the structure, basic formation, and roles of ATP in cells. Learning Outcome: 08.15 Describe the components of the respiratory chain and their functions. Learning Outcome: 08.16 Explain the chemiosmotic mechanism of ATP formation, its relationship to electron transport, and the final step in electron transfer. Section: 08.02 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration Topic: Principles of Metabolism

31.

In addition to electrons, which of the following is also involved in electron transfer? A. ADP B. glucose C. carbon D. hydrogen E. carbon dioxide

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.09 Describe biological oxidation-reduction and energy transfer.

Learning Outcome: 08.15 Describe the components of the respiratory chain and their functions. Learning Outcome: 08.16 Explain the chemiosmotic mechanism of ATP formation, its relationship to electron transport, and the final step in electron transfer. Section: 08.02 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration

32.

Each of the following are electron carriers except A. NAD. B. FAD. C. NADP. D. FADP. E. Coenzyme A. ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fixation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis). ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.09 Describe biological oxidation-reduction and energy transfer. Section: 08.02 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration Topic: Principles of Metabolism

33.

The step involving ATP, hexokinase and the phosphorylation of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate is A. the final step of the Krebs cycle. B. the first redox reaction of the electron transport system. C. an example of oxidative phosphorylation. D. an example of substrate-level phosphorylation. E. an example of photophosphorylation.


ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.11 Relate the main points of bioenergetics and energy strategies in microorganisms.

Learning Outcome: 08.13 Define glycolysis and explain its input and output, its basic steps, and how it is linked to the Krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation. Section: 08.03 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration

34.

FAD, NADP, and NAD are all

carriers.

A. hydrogen B. electron C. ATP D. both hydrogen and electron ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.09 Describe biological oxidation-reduction and energy transfer. Section: 08.02

Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration Topic: Principles of Metabolism

35.

Which of the following is not a process that regenerates ATP? A. oxidative phosphorylation B. reductive phosphorylation C. substrate-level phosphorylation D. photophosphorylation

ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.10 Discuss the structure, basic formation, and roles of ATP in cells. Learning Outcome: 08.16 Explain the chemiosmotic mechanism of ATP formation, its relationship to electron transport, and the final step in electron transfer. Section: 08.02 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration Topic: Principles of Metabolism

36.

All of the following pertain to glycolysis EXC NE UP RT SINGTB.COM A. occurs without oxygen. B. ends with formation of pyruvic acid. C. occurs during fermentation. D. degrades glucose to CO2 and H2O. E. involves reduction of NAD. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 08.12 Describe the main catabolic pathways and where they occur in aerobic respiration.

Learning Outcome: 08.13 Define glycolysis and explain its input and output, its basic steps, and how it is linked to the Krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation. Section: 08.03 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration

37.

Glycolysis A. uses 2 ATP, produces 2 ATP and requires oxygen. B. uses 2 ATP, produces 4 ATP and requires oxygen. C. uses 2 ATP, produces 4 ATP, does not require oxygen. D. uses 2 ATP, produces 2 ATP, does not require oxygen.

ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.12 Describe the main catabolic pathways and where they occur in aerobic respiration.

Learning Outcome: 08.13 Define glycolysis and explain its input and output, its basic steps, and how it is linked to the Krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation. Section: 08.03 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration

38.

The formation of citric acid from oxaloacetic acid and an acetyl group begins


A. glycolysis. B. the electron transport system. C. the Krebs cycle. D. fermentation. E. oxidative phosphorylation. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.14 Explain the basic steps in the Krebs cycle, its input and output, and how it is linked to oxidative phosphorylation. Section: 08.03

Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration

39.

Which of the following is not involved in the step that occurs between glycolysis and the Krebs cycle? A. reduction of NAD B. decarboxylation of pyruvic acid C. Coenzyme A attaches to an acetyl group D. dehydrogenation of pyruvic acid E. pyruvic acid accepts electrons from NADH ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 08.13 Define glycolysis and explain its input and output, its basic steps, and how it is linked to the Krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation. Section: 08.03 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration

40.

Substrate-level phosphorylation occurs in A. glycolysis and electron transport chain. B. photosynthesis and glycolysis. C. glycolysis and Krebs cycle. D. Krebs cycle and electron transport chain. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways NURSINGTB.COM Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.10 Discuss the structure, basic formation, and roles of ATP in cells. Learning Outcome: 08.13 Define glycolysis and explain its input and output, its basic steps, and how it is linked to the Krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation. Learning Outcome: 08.14 Explain the basic steps in the Krebs cycle, its input and output, and how it is linked to oxidative phosphorylation. Section: 08.03 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration

41.

The majority of reduced NAD is produced in A. glycolysis. B. Krebs cycle. C. the electron transport chain. D. photosynthesis. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 08.14 Explain the basic steps in the Krebs cycle, its input and output, and how it is linked to oxidative phosphorylation. Section: 08.03

Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration

42.

In bacterial cells, the electron transport system is located in the A. cell membrane. B. mitochondria. C. chloroplasts. D. ribosomes. E. cytoplasm. ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage infection. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics.

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.15 Describe the components of the respiratory chain and their functions.


Learning Outcome: 08.16 Explain the chemiosmotic mechanism of ATP formation, its relationship to electron transport, and the final step in electron transfer. Section: 08.03 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration

43.

Each NADH that enters the electron transport system gives rise to

ATP.

A. 2 B. 3 C. 24 D. 36 E. 38 ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.15 Describe the components of the respiratory chain and their functions. Learning Outcome: 08.16 Explain the chemiosmotic mechanism of ATP formation, its relationship to electron transport, and the final step in electron transfer. Section: 08.03

Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration

44.

As the electron transport carriers shuttle electrons, they actively pump into the outer membrane compartment setting up a concentration gradient called the proton motive force. A. ATP B. phosphate C. hydrogen ions D. oxygen E. NADH

ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fixation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis). ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.15 Describe the components of the respiratory chain and their functions. Learning Outcome: 08.16 Explain the chemiosmotic mechanism of ATP formation, its relationship to electron transport, and the final step in electron transfer. Section: 08.03 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration NURSINGTB.COM

45.

The redox carriers of the electron transport chain that have a tightly bound metal atom responsible for accepting and donating electrons are A. NAD molecules. B. FAD molecules. C. NADP molecules. D. the cytochromes. E. the flavoproteins.

ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.09 Describe biological oxidation-reduction and energy transfer.

Learning Outcome: 08.15 Describe the components of the respiratory chain and their functions. Learning Outcome: 08.16 Explain the chemiosmotic mechanism of ATP formation, its relationship to electron transport, and the final step in electron transfer. Section: 08.03

Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration

46.

Each FADH2 from the Krebs cycle enters the electron transport system and gives rise to

ATPs.

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.15 Describe the components of the respiratory chain and their functions. Learning Outcome: 08.16 Explain the chemiosmotic mechanism of ATP formation, its relationship to electron transport, and the final step in electron transfer. Section: 08.03


Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration

47.

In which pathway is the most NADH generated? A. electron transport system B. Krebs cycle C. glycolysis D. alcoholic fermentation E. mixed acid fermentation ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.12 Describe the main catabolic pathways and where they occur in aerobic respiration. Learning Outcome: 08.14 Explain the basic steps in the Krebs cycle, its input and output, and how it is linked to oxidative phosphorylation.

Learning Outcome: 08.20 Describe some of the processes of fermentation and the products that result. Section: 08.03 Section: 08.04 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration

48.

During which of the phases of cellular respiration is the majority of ATP formed? A. electron transport B. Krebs cycle C. glycolysis D. processing of pyruvic acid for the Krebs cycle E. All phases produce the same number of ATP molecules. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.12 Describe the main catabolic pathways and where they occur in aerobic respiration.

Learning Outcome: 08.16 Explain the chemiosmotic mechanism of ATP formation, its relationship to electron transport, and the final step in electron transfer. Learning Outcome: 08.17 Summarize the results of aerobic respiration. Section: 08.03 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration

49.

In bacterial cells, when glucose is completely oxidized by all the pathways of aerobic cellular respiration, what is the maximum number of ATP generated? NURSINGTB.COM A. 2 ATP B. 3 ATP C. 24 ATP D. 36 ATP E. 38 ATP ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.17 Summarize the results of aerobic respiration. Section: 08.03

Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration

50.

In which stage of aerobic respiration is water produced? A. glycolysis B. Krebs cycle C. electron transport system ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.15 Describe the components of the respiratory chain and their functions. Learning Outcome: 08.17 Summarize the results of aerobic respiration. Section: 08.03

Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration

51.

How many carbon dioxide molecules are produced by the complete aerobic breakdown of one glucose molecule? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5


E. 6 ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.14 Explain the basic steps in the Krebs cycle, its input and output, and how it is linked to oxidative phosphorylation. Learning Outcome: 08.17 Summarize the results of aerobic respiration. Section: 08.03

Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration

52.

An oxidase detection test can be used to identify certain bacteria because they lack A. Cytochrome c oxidase. B. NAD. C. mitochondria. D. ATP synthase. E. Coenzyme Q. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways

ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.15 Describe the components of the respiratory chain and their functions. Section: 08.03 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration

Topic: Enzymes

53.

What chemical causes death in many eukaryotes because it blocks Cytochrome c oxidase? A. copper B. iron C. cyanide D. oxygen E. carbon monoxide

ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways NURSINGTB.COM Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.15 Describe the components of the respiratory chain and their functions. Learning Outcome: 08.16 Explain the chemiosmotic mechanism of ATP formation, its relationship to electron transport, and the final step in electron transfer. Section: 08.03 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration

54.

Which of the following is not true of anaerobic respiration? v: 05_22_2015_QC_CS-15256 A. involves glycolysis B. generates some ATP C. utilizes an electron transport system D. uses the same final electron acceptors as aerobic respiration ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.15 Describe the components of the respiratory chain and their functions. Learning Outcome: 08.18 Define and describe some reactions of anaerobic respiration. Section: 08.03

Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration

55.

Reduction of nitrogen-oxygen ions and compounds by some bacteria is called A. aerobic respiration. B. denitrification. C. nitrification. D. fermentation. E. deamination. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.18 Define and describe some reactions of anaerobic respiration. Section: 08.03

Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration


56.

The reactions of fermentation function to regenerate

molecules for use in glycolysis.

A. pyruvic acid B. ATP C. NAD D. NADH E. glucose ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.19 Explain what is meant by the term fermentation and how it is used by natural biological systems and biotechnology. Section: 08.04

Topic: Fermentation

57.

When glucose is broken down by glycolysis during bacterial fermentation, what is the net production of ATP? A. 2 ATP B. 3 ATP C. 24 ATP D. 36 ATP E. 38 ATP ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.10 Discuss the structure, basic formation, and roles of ATP in cells. Learning Outcome: 08.19 Explain what is meant by the term fermentation and how it is used by natural biological systems and biotechnology.

Learning Outcome: 08.20 Describe some of the processes of fermentation and the products that result. Section: 08.04

Topic: Fermentation

58.

Mixed acid fermentation A. produces butyric acid. B. occurs in all bacteria. C. produces several different acids plus CO2 and H2 gases. D. is seen in Streptococcus and Lactobacillus. NURSINGTB.COM E. also produces ethanol. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.20 Describe some of the processes of fermentation and the products that result. Section: 08.04

Topic: Fermentation

59.

Fermentation A. requires an organic electron acceptor. B. requires oxygen. C. only occurs in aerobic organisms. D. is equivalent to aerobic respiration in ATP production. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.19 Explain what is meant by the term fermentation and how it is used by natural biological systems and biotechnology.

Learning Outcome: 08.20 Describe some of the processes of fermentation and the products that result. Section: 08.04

Topic: Fermentation

60.

Which of the following are not photosynthetic pigments? A. carotenoids B. leukophylls C. phycobilins D. chlorophylls E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.25 Describe the pigment systems and how they functions.


Section: 08.06

Topic: Photosynthesis

61.

Which of the following is not true of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis? A. They occur in the thylakoid membranes. B. They generates NADPH. C. They generate glucose from CO2 and H2O. D. Photons cause magnesium to release electrons. E. ATP is generated by a chemiosmotic mechanism. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.26 Describe the main events in the light-dependent reactions and the products that result. Section: 08.06

Topic: Photosynthesis

62.

Amination is the addition of a(n)

group to a carbon skeleton.

A. carboxyl B. amino C. phosphate D. hydroxyl ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.21 Explain how cells perform anabolic functions and what is involved in amphibolism. Section: 08.05

Topic: Biosynthesis

63.

The process in which organisms integrate catabolic and anabolic pathways to improve cell efficiency is called A. metabolism. B. amphibolism. C. anabolism. D. catabolism. E. biosynthesis.

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.21 Explain how cells perform anabolic functions and what is involved in amphibolism. Learning Outcome: 08.22 Identify several pathways where molecules can be redirected or converted into useful cell products.

Section: 08.05 Topic: Biosynthesis Topic: Principles of Metabolism

64.

The principle sites of amphibolic interaction occur during A. glycolysis and photosynthesis. B. Krebs cycle and electron transport system. C. glycolysis and Krebs cycle. D. fermentation and Krebs cycle. E. fermentation and glycolysis. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.21 Explain how cells perform anabolic functions and what is involved in amphibolism. Learning Outcome: 08.22 Identify several pathways where molecules can be redirected or converted into useful cell products.

Learning Outcome: 08.23 Briefly describe several mechanisms in biosynthesis of macromolecules. Section: 08.05 Topic: Biosynthesis Topic: Principles of Metabolism

65.

Intermediates from the Krebs cycle can be converted to amino acids by the process of A. amination. B. deamination. C. phosphorylation. D. beta oxidation. E. gluconeogenesis.


ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 08.21 Explain how cells perform anabolic functions and what is involved in amphibolism. Learning Outcome: 08.22 Identify several pathways where molecules can be redirected or converted into useful cell products.

Learning Outcome: 08.23 Briefly describe several mechanisms in biosynthesis of macromolecules. Section: 08.05 Topic: Biosynthesis Topic: Principles of Metabolism

66.

Which of the following are characteristics of the Calvin cycle? A. The Calvin cycle requires light. B. Nitrogen is fixed into an organic form during the Calvin cycle. C. The Calvin cycle produces glucose as an end product. D. The Calvin cycle produces carbon dioxide and water. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.27 Describe the main events in the light-independent reactions and the products that result. Section: 08.06 Topic: Photosynthesis

True / False Questions 67.

ATP molecules are catalysts that lower the activation energy needed to initiate a reaction. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.10 Discuss the structure, basic formation, and roles of ATP in cells. Section: 08.02

Topic: Principles of Metabolism

68.

Building block molecules for biosynthetic pathways come from the cell's catabolic pathways and from the environment. NURSINGTB.COM TRUE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.21 Explain how cells perform anabolic functions and what is involved in amphibolism.

Learning Outcome: 08.23 Briefly describe several mechanisms in biosynthesis of macromolecules. Section: 08.05

Topic: Biosynthesis

69.

Hydrolysis reactions are catabolic reactions that use water to split the reactant into smaller subunits. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.06 Describe the types of enzyme functions and methods of naming them. Section: 08.01

Topic: Principles of Metabolism

70.

Many exoenzymes from pathogens are virulence factors. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.05 Discuss enzyme structure, and interactions between enzymes and substrates. Learning Outcome: 08.06 Describe the types of enzyme functions and methods of naming them. Section: 08.01

Topic: Enzymes

71.

The best way to control a metabolic pathway is to control the fastest enzyme in the series.


FALSE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 08.07 Summarize key features of enzyme regulation. Section: 08.01

Topic: Enzymes

72.

Denaturing an apoenzyme will destroy the three-dimensional shape of the protein, making it nonfunctional. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.03 Outline the prominent characteristics of enzymes. Section: 08.01 Topic: Enzymes

73.

ATP is composed of deoxyribose, adenine, and 3 phosphate groups. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.10 Discuss the structure, basic formation, and roles of ATP in cells. Section: 08.02

Topic: Principles of Metabolism

74.

Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate is an intermediary of glycolysis that can also be utilized in biosynthetic pathways. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.13 Define glycolysis and explain its input and output, its basic steps, and how it is linked to the Krebs cycle and oxidative NURSINGTB.COM phosphorylation. Learning Outcome: 08.21 Explain how cells perform anabolic functions and what is involved in amphibolism. Learning Outcome: 08.22 Identify several pathways where molecules can be redirected or converted into useful cell products. Section: 08.05

Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration

75.

ATP synthase is a complex enzyme needed for oxidative phosphorylation. TRUE

ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.16 Explain the chemiosmotic mechanism of ATP formation, its relationship to electron transport, and the final step in electron transfer. Section: 08.03 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration

76.

All aerobic bacterial species have identical electron acceptors in their electron transport systems. FALSE ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.15 Describe the components of the respiratory chain and their functions. Section: 08.03 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration

77.

Only yeast produces alcohol as a fermentation product. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.20 Describe some of the processes of fermentation and the products that result. Section: 08.04

Topic: Fermentation


78.

Microbes can utilize only carbohydrates for energy production. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.12 Describe the main catabolic pathways and where they occur in aerobic respiration. Learning Outcome: 08.22 Identify several pathways where molecules can be redirected or converted into useful cell products. Section: 08.03

Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration

79.

Photosynthesis occurs in chloroplasts of prokaryotes. FALSE ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.24 Outline the general reactions of photosynthesis and the importance it holds for the energetics of life.

Learning Outcome: 08.25 Describe the pigment systems and how they functions. Section: 08.06

Topic: Photosynthesis

80.

All organisms that are photosynthetic are oxygenic. FALSE ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.24 Outline the general reactions of photosynthesis and the importance it holds for the energetics of life. Learning Outcome: 08.26 Describe the main events in the light-dependent reactions and the products that result. Section: 08.06

Topic: Photosynthesis

Multiple Choice Questions 81.

NURSINGTB.COM

Which form of energy fuels cellular energetics in chemoheterotrophs? A. light energy from the Sun B. chemical energy in organic compounds C. electrical energy D. thermal energy ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fixation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.08 Relate the diverse sources of energy and the cellular management of energy. Section: 08.02

Topic: Principles of Metabolism

82.

The energy released by reactions.

reactions is used to regenerate

which can then provide energy for

A. anabolic, ATP, catabolic B. anabolic, NADH, catabolic C. catabolic, ATP, anabolic D. catabolic, glucose, anabolic ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 08.01 Define metabolism and differentiate its two types. Learning Outcome: 08.08 Relate the diverse sources of energy and the cellular management of energy. Section: 08.02

Topic: Principles of Metabolism


True / False Questions 83.

In most instances, anabolic pathways are nearly the exact reverse of catbolic pathways. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 08.11 Relate the main points of bioenergetics and energy strategies in microorganisms. Learning Outcome: 08.21 Explain how cells perform anabolic functions and what is involved in amphibolism. Section: 08.05

Topic: Principles of Metabolism

Multiple Choice Questions 84.

The process of forming glucose from various metabolic intermediates is called A. glycolysis. B. amphibolism. C. phosphorylation. D. amination. E. gluconeogenesis. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.22 Identify several pathways where molecules can be redirected or converted into useful cell products.

Learning Outcome: 08.23 Briefly describe several mechanisms in biosynthesis of macromolecules. Section: 08.05

Topic: Biosynthesis Topic: Principles of Metabolism

85.

Which of the following represents the path of electrons during aerobic respiration? aiU nR- SoIxNyG ge A. glucose - NADH - electron transport chN TnB.COM B. glucose - pyruvate - citric acid - oxygen C. NADH - ATP - electron transport chain- oxygen D. glucose - NADH - citric acid - ATP ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 08.17 Summarize the results of aerobic respiration. Section: 08.03

Topic: Principles of Metabolism

86.

Which of the following would produce the most ATP? A. E. coli growing in a sealed glucose broth for 48 hours B. E. coli growing in a well-aerated glucose broth for 48 hours C. Both cultures would produce the same amount of ATP. D. This prediction cannot be made from the information provided. ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze Learning Outcome: 08.08 Relate the diverse sources of energy and the cellular management of energy. Learning Outcome: 08.17 Summarize the results of aerobic respiration.

Learning Outcome: 08.20 Describe some of the processes of fermentation and the products that result. Section: 08.03 Section: 08.04 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration

Topic: Fermentation

87.

All of the following occur during the light-independent reactions EXCEPT A. carbon fixation.


B. reduction of intermediates by NADPH. C. phosphorylation of ADP to form ATP. D. regeneration or RuBP. ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.27 Describe the main events in the light-independent reactions and the products that result. Section: 08.06

Topic: Photosynthesis

88.

During a fermentation experiment in lab, two different samples of grape juice have been inoculated with yeast. Air has been evacuated from sample I, but not from sample II. In which sample would you predict to the greater alcohol production? A. sample I B. sample II C. Similar alcohol production is expected in both samples. D. This cannot be predicted based on the information provided. ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze Learning Outcome: 08.20 Describe some of the processes of fermentation and the products that result. Section: 08.04

Topic: Fermentation

NURSINGTB.COM


Chapter 08 Test Bank Summary Category

# of Questions

ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage inf ection. ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fix ation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis). ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determi ned by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metaboli c characteristics. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biologic al means. ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in benefi cial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (mediabased, molecular and serological).

1 3 3 8 82 2 1 1 1

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function

5

ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways

88

ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow

1

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems

1

ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills

1

Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

32

Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply

43 11

Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze

NURSINGTB.COM

2

Learning Outcome: 08.01 Define metabolism and differentiate its two types.

5

Learning Outcome: 08.02 Describe the basic functions of enzymes in cells.

9

Learning Outcome: 08.03 Outline the prominent characteristics of enzymes.

8

Learning Outcome: 08.04 Explain how enzymes lower the energy required for a reaction to occur.

2

Learning Outcome: 08.05 Discuss enzyme structure, and interactions between enzymes and substrates.

3

Learning Outcome: 08.06 Describe the types of enzyme functions and methods of naming them.

9

Learning Outcome: 08.07 Summarize key features of enzyme regulation.

7

Learning Outcome: 08.08 Relate the diverse sources of energy and the cellular management of energy.

3

Learning Outcome: 08.09 Describe biological oxidation-reduction and energy transfer.

5

Learning Outcome: 08.10 Discuss the structure, basic formation, and roles of ATP in cells.

6

Learning Outcome: 08.11 Relate the main points of bioenergetics and energy strategies in microorganisms.

2

Learning Outcome: 08.12 Describe the main catabolic pathways and where they occur in aerobic respiration. Learning Outcome: 08.13 Define glycolysis and explain its input and output, its basic steps, and how it is linked to the Krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation. Learning Outcome: 08.14 Explain the basic steps in the Krebs cycle, its input and output, and how it is linked to oxida tive phosphorylation.

6 6

Learning Outcome: 08.15 Describe the components of the respiratory chain and their functions. Learning Outcome: 08.16 Explain the chemiosmotic mechanism of ATP formation, its relationship to electron transpo rt, and the final step in electron transfer.

13 12

Learning Outcome: 08.17 Summarize the results of aerobic respiration.

8

Learning Outcome: 08.18 Define and describe some reactions of anaerobic respiration. Learning Outcome: 08.19 Explain what is meant by the term fermentation and how it is used by natural biological syst ems and biotechnology.

2 3

Learning Outcome: 08.20 Describe some of the processes of fermentation and the products that result.

7

Learning Outcome: 08.21 Explain how cells perform anabolic functions and what is involved in amphibolism. Learning Outcome: 08.22 Identify several pathways where molecules can be redirected or converted into useful cell p roducts.

7 6

5


Learning Outcome: 08.23 Briefly describe several mechanisms in biosynthesis of macromolecules.

5

Learning Outcome: 08.24 Outline the general reactions of photosynthesis and the importance it holds for the energeti

2

NURSINGTB.COM


cs of life. Learning Outcome: 08.25 Describe the pigment systems and how they functions.

2

Learning Outcome: 08.26 Describe the main events in the light-dependent reactions and the products that result.

2

Learning Outcome: 08.27 Describe the main events in the light-independent reactions and the products that result.

2

Section: 08.01

30

Section: 08.02

11

Section: 08.03

27

Section: 08.04

8

Section: 08.05

8

Section: 08.06

6

Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration

33

Topic: Biosynthesis

7

Topic: Enzymes

25

Topic: Fermentation

7

Topic: Photosynthesis Topic: Principles of Metabolism

6 22

NURSINGTB.COM


Chapter 09 Test Bank Multiple Choice Questions 1.

Among the microorganisms, various genomes can include A. chromosomes. B. plasmids. C. mitochondrial DNA. D. chloroplast DNA. E. All of these choices are correct.

2.

Which of the following is not true of an organism's genotype? A. The genotype is inherited. B. The genotype is made up of structural genes coding for proteins. C. The genotype includes genes coding for RNA. D. The genotype includes regulatory genes controlling gene expression. E. The genotype includes the expressed traits governed by the genes.

3.

Eukaryotic chromosomes differ from prokaryotic chromosomes because only eukaryotes have A. histone proteins. B. chromosomes in a nucleus. C. several to many chromosomes. D. elongated linear, not circular, chromosomes. E. All of these choices are correct.

4.

The

is all of the genetic material of a cell.

A. chromosome B. plasmid C. prophage D. genome E. proteome 5.

NURSINGTB.COM

A nucleosome is a linear chromosome wound around the A. nuclear membrane. B. rRNA. C. mRNA. D. histone. E. nucleolus.

6.

Each

is a specific segment of the DNA with the code for production of one functional product.

A. intron B. exon C. gene D. operator E. triplet 7.

The expression of genetic traits is the A. genome. B. genotype. C. proteome. D. phenotype. E. proteotype.

8.

The DNA of microorganisms is made up of subunits called


A. histones. B. amino acids. C. nucleotides. D. mRNA. E. polymerases. 9.

Which is incorrect about purines? A. Purines are only found in DNA, not in RNA. B. Purines are nitrogenous bases. C. Purines are always paired with a specific pyrimidine. D. Purines include adenine and guanine. E. Purines are found within nucleotides.

10. The antiparallel arrangement within DNA molecules refers to A. each base bonding at the 1'position of the sugar. B. a purine always bonding to a pyrimidine. C. one helix strand that runs from the 5'to 3'direction and the other strand runs from the 3'to 5'direction. D. an original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule. 11. All of the following pertain to nitrogenous bases except A. they form pairs by hydrogen bonding. B. guanine pairs with uracil. C. adenine pairs with thymine. D. cytosine and thymine are pyrimidines. E. they allow variation from one nucleotide to another which creates the encoded information. 12. Each nucleotide is composed of A. one phosphate, one nitrogenous base, one sugar. B. one phosphate, one nitrogenous base, twoNsU ugRaSrIsN. GTB.COM C. two phosphates, one nitrogenous base, one sugar. D. two phosphates, one nitrogenous base, two sugars. E. one phosphate, two nitrogenous bases, one sugar. 13. Base pairs in DNA are held together by

bonds.

A. peptide B. nonpolar covalent C. polar covalent D. hydrogen E. sulfhydryl 14. The duplication of a cell's DNA is called A. mitosis. B. replication. C. transcription. D. translation. E. mutation. 15. Structural genes code for A. ribosomal RNA molecules. B. transfer RNA molecules. C. cellular proteins. D. gene expression elements. E. All of these choices are correct. 16. During replication, each parent DNA strand serves as a

for synthesis of new DNA strands.


A. copy point B. template C. comparison molecule D. scaffold E. reservoir 17. Semiconservative replication refers to A. each base bonding at the 1'position of the sugar. B. a purine always bonding to a pyrimidine. C. one helix strand that runs from the 5'to 3'direction and the other strand runs from the 3'to 5'direction. D. an original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule. 18. DNA polymerase III A. is needed for adding nucleotides during mRNA synthesis. B. synthesizes new DNA only in the 5'to 3'direction. C. cannot add nucleotides to the lagging strand. D. synthesizes an RNA primer. E. All of these choices are correct. 19. The enzyme that helps pack DNA into the cell by coiling the DNA into a tight bundle is A. DNA ligase. B. DNA polymerase. C. DNA helicase. D. DNA gyrase. E. primase. 20. Okazaki fragments are attached to the growing end of the lagging strand by A. DNA ligase. B. DNA polymerase. C. DNA helicase. D. DNA gyrase. E. primase.

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21. The enzyme that can proofreads replicating DNA, detects incorrect bases, excises them, and correctly replaces them is A. DNA ligase. B. DNA polymerase. C. DNA helicase. D. DNA gyrase. E. primase. 22. The site where the old DNA strands separate and new DNA strands will be synthesized is called the A. primer. B. Okazaki fragment. C. template. D. rolling circle. E. replication fork. 23. DNA gyrase A. unwinds DNA. B. supercoils DNA. C. cleaves DNA. D. joins free DNA ends. 24. Helicase A. unwinds DNA.


B.

supercoils DNA. C. unwinds RNA. D. winds RNA.

25.

DNA polymerase I A. removes primers. B. adds bases to new DNA chain. C. seals DNA gaps. D. proofreads DNA chain. E. All of these choices are correct,

26. A permanent, inheritable change in the genetic information is called a(n) A. translation. B. transcription. C. mutation. D. alteration. E. regeneration. 27. DNA polymerase III A. synthesizes primer. B. removes primer. C. joins Okazaki fragments. D. unzips the DNA helix. E. proofreads new DNA. 28. Replication of DNA begins at a(n) A. guanine-cytosine rich area. B. uracil-adenine rich area. C. adenine-thymine rich area. D. adenine-cytosine rich area. E. guanine-adenine rich area. 29. A primer of

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is needed at the origin of nucleotide addition.

A. polymerase III B. polymerase I C. helicase D. RNA E. DNA 30. Groups of three consecutive bases along the DNA of a gene have the code for one A. protein. B. nucleotide. C. amino acid. D. purine. 31. The three-base sequence on DNA that codes for an amino acid is called a(n) A. codon. B. exon. C. anticodon. D. intron. E. triplet. 32. The nontranscribed region of DNA to which RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription is called the A. promoter. B. operator. C. operon.


D. exon. E. intron. 33. The RNA molecules that carry amino acids to the ribosomes during protein synthesis are called A. ribosomal RNA. B. messenger RNA. C. transfer RNA. D. primer RNA. E. ribozymes. 34. RNA molecules differ from DNA molecules because only RNA A. has ribose. B. has uracil. C. is typically one strand of nucleotides. D. does not have thymine. E. All of these choices are correct. 35. All of the following pertain to transcription except A. occurs on a ribosome in the cytoplasm. B. occurs before translation. C. requires RNA polymerase. D. requires a template DNA strand. E. is a process of protein synthesis. 36. What molecule is synthesized as a copy of a gene from the DNA template strand? A. ribosomal RNA B. messenger RNA C. transfer RNA D. primer RNA E. ribozymes

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37. RNA polymerase binds to the A. start codon. B. termination sequence. C. regulation sequence. D. promoter sequence. 38. Which of the following is incorrect about transfer RNA? A. has a bottom hairpin loop with an anticodon B. An anticodon is complementary to a codon. C. contains a binding site for an amino acid D. The initiator tRNA that binds to the P site has the anticodon UAC. E. Initiator tRNA in bacteria carries tryptophan. 39. If a codon for alanine is GCA. What is the anticodon? A. GCA B. CGT C. ACG D. CGU E. UGC 40. The following pertain to ribosomes during protein synthesis except A. they contain codons within their rRNA molecules. B. ribosomes participate only in translation. C. ribosomes bind to the 5'end of mRNA by their small subunit. D. ribosomes use their large subunit to supply enzymes for peptide bonding.


E. ribosomes shift toward the 3'end of the mRNA strand from one codon to the next. 41. Which of the following is incorrect about termination codons? A. They are also called nonsense codons. B. They occur where the bond between the final tRNA and the growing polypeptide is broken. C. Termination codons include AUG. D. Termination codons include UAA, UAG, UGA. E. Termination codons do not have corresponding tRNA. 42. Which of the following is not true of the prokaryotic ribosome? A. Prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S. B. A prokaryotic ribosome has a peptide (P) site. C. A prokaryotic ribosome has an exit (E) site. D. The small subunit provides the enzymes for making peptide bonds. E. The prokaryotic ribosome has an amino acyl (A) site. 43. A sequence of bases within a gene that will be transcribed, but removed from the transcript prior to translation is a/ an A. promoter. B. operator. C. operon. D. exon. E. intron. 44. Which is incorrect about inducible operons? A. have genes turned off by a buildup of end product B. often encode enzymes for catabolic pathways C. are normally turned off D. are turned on by the substrate of the enzyme E. include the lac operon NURSINGTB.COM 45. Split genes A. are common in prokaryotes and eukaryotes. B. only have exons initially transcribed to mRNA. C. have introns located only at the beginning and end of a coding region. D. require spliceosomes to excise introns and then join exons. E. All of these choices are correct. 46. The gene of an operon that codes for a protein repressor is called the A. operator. B. structural locus. C. regulator. D. promoter. 47. Synthesis of an inducible enzyme requires A. repressor alone bound to operator. B. substrate bound to repressor. C. substrate bound to promoter. D. corepressor and repressor binding to operator. 48. Synthesis of a repressible enzyme is inhibited by A. repressor alone bound to operator. B. substrate bound to repressor. C. substrate bound to promoter. D. corepressor and repressor binding to operator.


49. Full induction of the lactose operon requires A. that lactose be present. B. that lactose and glucose both be present. C. that lactose be present without glucose. D. that lactose and arabinose both be present. E. All of these choices induce the lactose operon. 50. Gene regulation can involve a protein repressor that blocks

from initiating transcription.

A. DNA polymerase I B. DNA polymerase III C. RNA polymerase D. mRNA E. rRNA 51. The lactose repressor A. is transcribed with the structural lac genes. B. is activated by binding lactose. C. is inactivated by binding lactose. D. requires lactose for its transcription. 52. A mutation that changes a normal codon to a stop codon is called a A. point mutation. B. silent mutation. C. back mutation. D. missense mutation. E. nonsense mutation. 53. Repressible operons require that

bind to the repressor protein before it can bind to the operator.

A. the product B. a cofactor C. a coenzyme D. the substrate E. the reactant

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54. The most damaging type of mutation is a A. point mutation. B. silent mutation. C. frameshift mutation. D. back mutation. E. All the choices are equally damaging. 55. If the wild type DNA sequence reads THE CAT ATE THE BIG RAT, what type of mutation would change the sequence to THE CAT ATA ETH EBI GRA T? A. missense B. nonsense C. insertion D. deletion E. silent 56. If the wild type DNA sequence reads THE CAT ATE THE BIG RAT, what type of mutation would change the sequence to THE CAT ATE THE BAG RAT? A. missense B. nonsense C. insertion D. deletion E. silent


57. If the wild type DNA sequence reads THE CAT ATE THE BIG RAT, what type of mutation would change the sequence to THE CAT ATE (stop)? A. Missense B. Nonsense C. Insertion D. Deletion E. Silent 58. A frameshift is caused by

mutations?

A. missense and insertion B. missense and nonsense C. nonsense and deletion D. deletion and insertion E. insertion and nonsense 59. What type of mutation alters the base, but not the amino acid being coded for? A. silent B. back C. point D. nonsense E. missense 60. A screening system called the

test is used for detecting chemicals with carcinogenic potential.

A. Koch B. Ames C. mutation D. cancer E. Iowa NURSINGTB.COM 61. The process in which mutations are removed and replaced with the correct bases is called A. transduction. B. excision repair. C. frameshift. D. back mutation. E. transformation. 62. Bacterial conjugation involves A. bacteriophage carrying donor DNA to the recipient cell. B. a donor cell that transfers a copy of a plasmid to a recipient cell through a pilus. C. the take-up of naked DNA fragments from a lysed donor cell by a recipient cell. D. new progeny cells with genes from two parent bacterial cells. 63. Which cell can transfer the most DNA? A. F+cell B. F-cell C. Hfr cell D. R cell E. B cell 64. Which of the following is not a type of bacterial DNA recombination? A. transformation B. conjugation C. mitosis D. transduction 65. Which of the following is not true of conjugation?


A. involves direct contact between cells B. transfers genes for drug resistance C. transfers genes for enzymes and adherence molecules D. transfers genes for a polysaccharide capsule E. The donor retains a copy of the transferred genes. 66. Hfr transfer involves all of the following except A. gene integration into the bacterial chromosome. B. plasmid gene transfer. + C. F factor is part of the F donor chromosome. D. high frequency transfer. + E. a pilus connection between F and F- cells. 67. The transfer of DNA fragments from a dead cell to a live, competent recipient cell that results in a changed recipient cell is A. transduction. B. conjugation. C. transformation. D. transmission. E. mitosis. 68. The development of virulent, toxin-producing bacterial strains due to the presence of a temperate phage can occur in A. bacterial conjugation. B. transformation. C. generalized transduction. D. specialized transduction. E. All of these choices are correct. 69. A bacteriophage transfers DNA of the previous h ost to the current host. This is an example of NURSINGTB.COM A. conjugation. B. generalized transduction. C. specialized transduction. D. creation of an Hfr cell. 70. Genes that jump from one location to another in the genome are A. repressors. B. transposons. C. transformers. D. plasmids. E. operons. 71. Which of the following is not true of transposons? A. can change pigmentation B. can replace damaged DNA C. can transfer drug resistance D. can change the genome E. are always part of plasmids 72. Which of the following additions have been made to principles of the central dogma of biology? A. DNA information cannot be converted into RNA information. B. Protein information can be converted into DNA information. C. RNA can be used to regulate gene function. D. DNA codes for proteins. E. All of these choices are correct.


73. In Griffith's experiments with Streptococcus pneumoniae, rough nonencapsulated Streptococci were converted into smooth encapsulated Streptococci in the presence of the heat-killed smooth encapsulated Streptococci. What is the term that describes this process? A. transduction B. conjugation C. transformation D. cloning 74. Of the following list, which antibiotics affect protein synthesis? A. penicillin B. tetracycline C. chloramphenicol D. ciprofloxacin E. Both tetracycline and chloramphenicol are correct.

True / False Questions 75. The smallest unit of heredity is a chromosome. True False 76. DNA polymerase can only add new nucleotides to the old 3'DNA end. True False 77. DNA replication proceeds in one direction around the bacterial chromosome. True False 78. Transcription occurs in the nucleus or at the nucleoid. True False

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79. In bacteria, initiator tRNA carries formyl methionine. True False 80. Introns have no detectable functions. True False 81. Excised introns form structures called lariats. True False 82. Lactose is a corepressor in the lac operon. True False 83. Repressible operons are normally turned on in the cell. True False 84. Induced mutations result from errors in DNA replication. True False 85. DNA photolyase, in the presence of visible light, can repair DNA damage due to ultraviolet radiation. True False 86. All mutations are harmful to the cell.


True False

Multiple Choice Questions 87. Folding of the 5'end of a mRNA, such that binding to the ribosome is altered, is most likely to affect A. replication. B. transcription. C. translation. D. transformation. 88. Riboswitches exert effects on .

whereas repressors and inducers exert effects on

A. replication; translation B. translation; transcription C. replication; translation D. translation; transcription 89. Short interfering RNAs affect gene expression in eukaryotes by A. blocking replication of certain genes. B. blocking transcription of certain genes. C. binding to mRNAs and preventing translation. D. binding to ribosomes, preventing the two subunits from joining. 90. The analysis of the nitrogenous bases of the nucleic acid of a newly discovered virus showed 20% adenine, 40% guanine, 10% thymine, and 30% cytosine. The viral nucleic acid is most likely A. double-stranded DNA. B. double-stranded RNA. C. single-stranded RNA. D. single-stranded DNA. NURSINGTB.COM 91. The different types of nucleic acids found in viruses include all of the following except A. double-stranded DNA. B. single-stranded DNA. C. double-stranded RNA. D. single-stranded RNA. E. There are no exceptions here. Each of these types may be found in viruses.

True / False Questions 92. Some RNA viruses direct the synthesis of double-stranded DNA at some point in their life cycle. True False

Multiple Choice Questions 93. While studying the infection process and life cycle of a newly discovered virus, it was determined that the virus never entered the nucleus of the host cell. This virus may have any of the following genomes except A. DNA. B. double-stranded RNA. C. single (+) strand RNA. D. single (-) strand RNA.


Chapter 09 Test Bank Key Multiple Choice Questions 1.

Among the microorganisms, various genomes can include A. chromosomes. B. plasmids. C. mitochondrial DNA. D. chloroplast DNA. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 01.01 Cells, organelles (e.g., mitochondria and chloroplasts) and all major metabolic pathways evolved from early prokaryotic cells.

ASM Objective: 01.02 Mutations and horizontal gene transfer, with the immense variety of microenvironments, have selected for a huge diversity of microorganisms. ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.01 Define heredity, genetics, genome, gene, phenotype, and genotype.

Learning Outcome: 09.02 Compare the basic nature of genetic material in eukaryotes, prokaryotes, and viruses. Section: 09.01 Topic: Gene Regulation Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function

2.

Which of the following is not true of an organism's genotype? A. The genotype is inherited. B. The genotype is made up of structural genes coding for proteins. C. The genotype includes genes coding for RNA. D. The genotype includes regulatory genes controlling gene expression. E. The genotype includes the expressed tN raUitR s SgIoNvG erTnBe.dCO byMthe genes. ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.02 Compare the basic nature of genetic material in eukaryotes, prokaryotes, and viruses. Section: 09.01 Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function

3.

Eukaryotic chromosomes differ from prokaryotic chromosomes because only eukaryotes have A. histone proteins. B. chromosomes in a nucleus. C. several to many chromosomes. D. elongated linear, not circular, chromosomes. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.02 Compare the basic nature of genetic material in eukaryotes, prokaryotes, and viruses. Learning Outcome: 09.03 Explain how DNA is organized and packaged. Section: 09.01

Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function

4.

The

is all of the genetic material of a cell.

A. chromosome B. plasmid C. prophage D. genome


E. proteome ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.01 Define heredity, genetics, genome, gene, phenotype, and genotype. Learning Outcome: 09.21 Compare beneficial and detrimental effects of mutations. Section: 09.01

Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function

5.

A nucleosome is a linear chromosome wound around the A. nuclear membrane. B. rRNA. C. mRNA. D. histone. E. nucleolus. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.03 Explain how DNA is organized and packaged. Section: 09.01 Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function

6.

Each

is a specific segment of the DNA with the code for production of one functional product.

A. intron B. exon C. gene D. operator E. triplet ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universalN inUaR ll S ceIN llsG , tT heBp.C roO ceM sses of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.07 Present an overview of the main aspects of the flow of genetic information in cells. Learning Outcome: 09.08 Explain the relationship between the structure of DNA and the structure of proteins. Section: 09.02

Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function

7.

The expression of genetic traits is the A. genome. B. genotype. C. proteome. D. phenotype. E. proteotype. ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.01 Define heredity, genetics, genome, gene, phenotype, and genotype. Section: 09.01 Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function

8.

The DNA of microorganisms is made up of subunits called A. histones. B. amino acids. C. nucleotides. D. mRNA. E. polymerases. ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function


ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.04 Describe the chemical structure of DNA and its significance. Learning Outcome: 09.05 List the nitrogen bases and explain their bonding patterns. Section: 09.01

Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function

9.

Which is incorrect about purines? A. Purines are only found in DNA, not in RNA. B. Purines are nitrogenous bases. C. Purines are always paired with a specific pyrimidine. D. Purines include adenine and guanine. E. Purines are found within nucleotides. ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.04 Describe the chemical structure of DNA and its significance. Learning Outcome: 09.05 List the nitrogen bases and explain their bonding patterns. Section: 09.01

Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function

10.

The antiparallel arrangement within DNA molecules refers to A. each base bonding at the 1'position of the sugar. B. a purine always bonding to a pyrimidine. C. one helix strand that runs from the 5'to 3'direction and the other strand runs from the 3'to 5'direction. D. an original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule.

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.04 Describe the chemical structure of DNA and its significance.

NURSINGTB.COM

Section: 09.01

Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function

11.

All of the following pertain to nitrogenous bases except A. they form pairs by hydrogen bonding. B. guanine pairs with uracil. C. adenine pairs with thymine. D. cytosine and thymine are pyrimidines. E. they allow variation from one nucleotide to another which creates the encoded information.

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.05 List the nitrogen bases and explain their bonding patterns. Section: 09.01

Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function

12.

Each nucleotide is composed of A. one phosphate, one nitrogenous base, one sugar. B. one phosphate, one nitrogenous base, two sugars. C. two phosphates, one nitrogenous base, one sugar. D. two phosphates, one nitrogenous base, two sugars. E. one phosphate, two nitrogenous bases, one sugar.

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.05 List the nitrogen bases and explain their bonding patterns. Section: 09.01

Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function


13.

Base pairs in DNA are held together by

bonds.

A. peptide B. nonpolar covalent C. polar covalent D. hydrogen E. sulfhydryl ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.04 Describe the chemical structure of DNA and its significance. Learning Outcome: 09.05 List the nitrogen bases and explain their bonding patterns. Section: 09.01

Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function

14.

The duplication of a cell's DNA is called A. mitosis. B. replication. C. transcription. D. translation. E. mutation.

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.06 Describe the process of DNA replication as it occurs in prokaryotic cells. Section: 09.01 Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function

15.

Structural genes code for A. ribosomal RNA molecules. B. transfer RNA molecules. C. cellular proteins. D. gene expression elements. E. All of these choices are correct.

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.07 Present an overview of the main aspects of the flow of genetic information in cells. Learning Outcome: 09.08 Explain the relationship between the structure of DNA and the structure of proteins. Section: 09.02

Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function

16.

During replication, each parent DNA strand serves as a

for synthesis of new DNA strands.

A. copy point B. template C. comparison molecule D. scaffold E. reservoir ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.04 Describe the chemical structure of DNA and its significance. Learning Outcome: 09.06 Describe the process of DNA replication as it occurs in prokaryotic cells. Section: 09.01

Topic: DNA Replication

17.

Semiconservative replication refers to A. each base bonding at the 1'position of the sugar. B. a purine always bonding to a pyrimidine.


C. one helix strand that runs from the 5'to 3'direction and the other strand runs from the 3'to 5'direction. D. an original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule. ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.06 Describe the process of DNA replication as it occurs in prokaryotic cells. Section: 09.01 Topic: DNA Replication

18.

DNA polymerase III A. is needed for adding nucleotides during mRNA synthesis. B. synthesizes new DNA only in the 5'to 3'direction. C. cannot add nucleotides to the lagging strand. D. synthesizes an RNA primer. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.06 Describe the process of DNA replication as it occurs in prokaryotic cells. Section: 09.01 Topic: DNA Replication

19.

The enzyme that helps pack DNA into the cell by coiling the DNA into a tight bundle is A. DNA ligase. B. DNA polymerase. C. DNA helicase. D. DNA gyrase. E. primase.

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. NURSINGTB.COM ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.03 Explain how DNA is organized and packaged. Section: 09.01 Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function

20.

Okazaki fragments are attached to the growing end of the lagging strand by A. DNA ligase. B. DNA polymerase. C. DNA helicase. D. DNA gyrase. E. primase.

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.06 Describe the process of DNA replication as it occurs in prokaryotic cells. Section: 09.01 Topic: DNA Replication

21.

The enzyme that can proofreads replicating DNA, detects incorrect bases, excises them, and correctly replaces them is A. DNA ligase. B. DNA polymerase. C. DNA helicase. D. DNA gyrase. E. primase.

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.06 Describe the process of DNA replication as it occurs in prokaryotic cells.


Section: 09.01 Topic: DNA Replication

22.

The site where the old DNA strands separate and new DNA strands will be synthesized is called the A. primer. B. Okazaki fragment. C. template. D. rolling circle. E. replication fork.

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.06 Describe the process of DNA replication as it occurs in prokaryotic cells. Section: 09.01 Topic: DNA Replication

23.

DNA gyrase A. unwinds DNA. B. supercoils DNA. C. cleaves DNA. D. joins free DNA ends.

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.03 Explain how DNA is organized and packaged. Learning Outcome: 09.04 Describe the chemical structure of DNA and its significance. Section: 09.01

Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function

24.

Helicase A. unwinds DNA. B. supercoils DNA. C. unwinds RNA. D. winds RNA.

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.06 Describe the process of DNA replication as it occurs in prokaryotic cells. Section: 09.01

Topic: DNA Replication Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function

25.

DNA polymerase I A. removes primers. B. adds bases to new DNA chain. C. seals DNA gaps. D. proofreads DNA chain. E. All of these choices are correct,

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.06 Describe the process of DNA replication as it occurs in prokaryotic cells. Section: 09.01 Topic: DNA Replication

26.

A permanent, inheritable change in the genetic information is called a(n) A. translation. B. transcription. C. mutation.


D. alteration. E. regeneration. ASM Objective: 01.02 Mutations and horizontal gene transfer, with the immense variety of microenvironments, have selected for a huge diversity of microorganisms. ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.18 Define a mutation and explain how mutant forms are identified. Section: 09.04

Topic: Mutations

27.

DNA polymerase III A. synthesizes primer. B. removes primer. C. joins Okazaki fragments. D. unzips the DNA helix. E. proofreads new DNA.

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.06 Describe the process of DNA replication as it occurs in prokaryotic cells. Section: 09.01 Topic: DNA Replication

28.

Replication of DNA begins at a(n) A. guanine-cytosine rich area. B. uracil-adenine rich area. C. adenine-thymine rich area. D. adenine-cytosine rich area. E. guanine-adenine rich area.

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universalN inUaR ll S ceIN llsG , tT heBp.C roO ceM sses of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.06 Describe the process of DNA replication as it occurs in prokaryotic cells. Section: 09.01

Topic: DNA Replication

29.

A primer of

is needed at the origin of nucleotide addition.

A. polymerase III B. polymerase I C. helicase D. RNA E. DNA ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.06 Describe the process of DNA replication as it occurs in prokaryotic cells. Section: 09.01 Topic: DNA Replication

30.

Groups of three consecutive bases along the DNA of a gene have the code for one A. protein. B. nucleotide. C. amino acid. D. purine.

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand


Learning Outcome: 09.07 Present an overview of the main aspects of the flow of genetic information in cells. Learning Outcome: 09.08 Explain the relationship between the structure of DNA and the structure of proteins. Section: 09.02 Topic: DNA Replication Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function

31.

The three-base sequence on DNA that codes for an amino acid is called a(n) A. codon. B. exon. C. anticodon. D. intron. E. triplet.

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.07 Present an overview of the main aspects of the flow of genetic information in cells. Learning Outcome: 09.11 Describe the genetic code, codons, and anticodons, and how they relate to one another. Section: 09.02

Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function

32.

The nontranscribed region of DNA to which RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription is called the A. promoter. B. operator. C. operon. D. exon. E. intron.

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.10 Explain what happens during transcription. Section: 09.02 Topic: Protein Synthesis NURSINGTB.COM

33.

The RNA molecules that carry amino acids to the ribosomes during protein synthesis are called A. ribosomal RNA. B. messenger RNA. C. transfer RNA. D. primer RNA. E. ribozymes.

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.09 Describe the different types of RNA and their basic functions in genetic expression. Section: 09.02

Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function Topic: Protein Synthesis

34.

RNA molecules differ from DNA molecules because only RNA A. has ribose. B. has uracil. C. is typically one strand of nucleotides. D. does not have thymine. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand


Learning Outcome: 09.07 Present an overview of the main aspects of the flow of genetic information in cells. Learning Outcome: 09.09 Describe the different types of RNA and their basic functions in genetic expression. Section: 09.02

Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function

35.

All of the following pertain to transcription except A. occurs on a ribosome in the cytoplasm. B. occurs before translation. C. requires RNA polymerase. D. requires a template DNA strand. E. is a process of protein synthesis.

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.10 Explain what happens during transcription. Section: 09.02 Topic: Protein Synthesis

36.

What molecule is synthesized as a copy of a gene from the DNA template strand? A. ribosomal RNA B. messenger RNA C. transfer RNA D. primer RNA E. ribozymes

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.09 Describe the different types of RNA and their basic functions in genetic expression. Learning Outcome: 09.10 Explain what happens during transcription. Section: 09.02 Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function Topic: Protein Synthesis NURSINGTB.COM

37.

RNA polymerase binds to the A. start codon. B. termination sequence. C. regulation sequence. D. promoter sequence.

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.10 Explain what happens during transcription. Section: 09.02 Topic: Protein Synthesis

38.

Which of the following is incorrect about transfer RNA? A. has a bottom hairpin loop with an anticodon B. An anticodon is complementary to a codon. C. contains a binding site for an amino acid D. The initiator tRNA that binds to the P site has the anticodon UAC. E. Initiator tRNA in bacteria carries tryptophan.

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.09 Describe the different types of RNA and their basic functions in genetic expression. Learning Outcome: 09.12 Recount the participants and steps in translation (protein synthesis). Section: 09.02

Topic: Protein Synthesis

39.

If a codon for alanine is GCA. What is the anticodon? A. GCA


B. CGT C. ACG D. CGU E. UGC ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 09.11 Describe the genetic code, codons, and anticodons, and how they relate to one another. Section: 09.02 Topic: Protein Synthesis

40.

The following pertain to ribosomes during protein synthesis except A. they contain codons within their rRNA molecules. B. ribosomes participate only in translation. C. ribosomes bind to the 5'end of mRNA by their small subunit. D. ribosomes use their large subunit to supply enzymes for peptide bonding. E. ribosomes shift toward the 3'end of the mRNA strand from one codon to the next.

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.12 Recount the participants and steps in translation (protein synthesis). Section: 09.02

Topic: Protein Synthesis

41.

Which of the following is incorrect about termination codons? A. They are also called nonsense codons. B. They occur where the bond between the final tRNA and the growing polypeptide is broken. C. Termination codons include AUG. D. Termination codons include UAA, UAGN ,U UR GSAI.NGTB.COM E. Termination codons do not have corresponding tRNA.

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 09.11 Describe the genetic code, codons, and anticodons, and how they relate to one another. Learning Outcome: 09.12 Recount the participants and steps in translation (protein synthesis). Section: 09.02

Topic: Protein Synthesis

42.

Which of the following is not true of the prokaryotic ribosome? A. Prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S. B. A prokaryotic ribosome has a peptide (P) site. C. A prokaryotic ribosome has an exit (E) site. D. The small subunit provides the enzymes for making peptide bonds. E. The prokaryotic ribosome has an amino acyl (A) site.

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.12 Recount the participants and steps in translation (protein synthesis). Section: 09.02

Topic: Protein Synthesis

43.

A sequence of bases within a gene that will be transcribed, but removed from the transcript prior to translation is a/an A. promoter. B. operator.


C. operon. D. exon. E. intron. ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.08 Explain the relationship between the structure of DNA and the structure of proteins. Learning Outcome: 09.13 Distinguish major points of difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic transcription and translation. Section: 09.02

Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function Topic: Protein Synthesis

44.

Which is incorrect about inducible operons? A. have genes turned off by a buildup of end product B. often encode enzymes for catabolic pathways C. are normally turned off D. are turned on by the substrate of the enzyme E. include the lac operon ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 04.03 The regulation of gene expression is influenced by external and internal molecular cues and/or signals. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.14 Explain the functions of operons in bacterial genetic control. Learning Outcome: 09.15 Describe the main features of the lactose operon and inducible operons. Section: 09.03

Topic: Gene Regulation

45.

Split genes A. are common in prokaryotes and eukaryotes. B. only have exons initially transcribed to m RR NSAI.NGTB.COM NU C. have introns located only at the beginning and end of a coding region. D. require spliceosomes to excise introns and then join exons. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.08 Explain the relationship between the structure of DNA and the structure of proteins. Learning Outcome: 09.13 Distinguish major points of difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic transcription and translation. Section: 09.03

Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function Topic: Protein Synthesis

46.

The gene of an operon that codes for a protein repressor is called the A. operator. B. structural locus. C. regulator. D. promoter. ASM Objective: 04.03 The regulation of gene expression is influenced by external and internal molecular cues and/or signals. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.14 Explain the functions of operons in bacterial genetic control. Section: 09.03

Topic: Gene Regulation

47.

Synthesis of an inducible enzyme requires A. repressor alone bound to operator. B. substrate bound to repressor.


C. substrate bound to promoter. D. corepressor and repressor binding to operator. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 04.03 The regulation of gene expression is influenced by external and internal molecular cues and/or signals. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 09.14 Explain the functions of operons in bacterial genetic control. Learning Outcome: 09.15 Describe the main features of the lactose operon and inducible operons. Section: 09.03

Topic: Gene Regulation

48.

Synthesis of a repressible enzyme is inhibited by A. repressor alone bound to operator. B. substrate bound to repressor. C. substrate bound to promoter. D. corepressor and repressor binding to operator. ASM Objective: 04.03 The regulation of gene expression is influenced by external and internal molecular cues and/or signals. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.14 Explain the functions of operons in bacterial genetic control. Learning Outcome: 09.16 Describe the main features of repressible operons. Section: 09.03

Topic: Gene Regulation

49.

Full induction of the lactose operon requires A. that lactose be present. B. that lactose and glucose both be present. C. that lactose be present without glucose. D. that lactose and arabinose both be present. E. All of these choices induce the lactose operon. ASM Objective: 04.03 The regulation of gene expression is influenced by external and internal molecular cues and/or signals. ASMN OU bjR ecS tivIe N: G 05T .0B 3.M CiO cro M organisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods.

ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.14 Explain the functions of operons in bacterial genetic control. Learning Outcome: 09.15 Describe the main features of the lactose operon and inducible operons. Section: 09.03

Topic: Gene Regulation

50.

Gene regulation can involve a protein repressor that blocks

from initiating transcription.

A. DNA polymerase I B. DNA polymerase III C. RNA polymerase D. mRNA E. rRNA ASM Objective: 04.03 The regulation of gene expression is influenced by external and internal molecular cues and/or signals. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.14 Explain the functions of operons in bacterial genetic control. Section: 09.03

Topic: Gene Regulation

51.

The lactose repressor A. is transcribed with the structural lac genes. B. is activated by binding lactose. C. is inactivated by binding lactose. D. requires lactose for its transcription. ASM Objective: 04.03 The regulation of gene expression is influenced by external and internal molecular cues and/or signals. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems


Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.14 Explain the functions of operons in bacterial genetic control. Learning Outcome: 09.15 Describe the main features of the lactose operon and inducible operons. Section: 09.03

Topic: Gene Regulation

52.

A mutation that changes a normal codon to a stop codon is called a A. point mutation. B. silent mutation. C. back mutation. D. missense mutation. E. nonsense mutation. ASM Objective: 01.02 Mutations and horizontal gene transfer, with the immense variety of microenvironments, have selected for a huge diversity of microorganisms. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.19 Explain the causes and types of mutations and their effects. Section: 09.04

Topic: Mutations

53.

Repressible operons require that

bind to the repressor protein before it can bind to the operator.

A. the product B. a cofactor C. a coenzyme D. the substrate E. the reactant ASM Objective: 04.03 The regulation of gene expression is influenced by external and internal molecular cues and/or signals. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.14 Explain the functions of operons in bacterial genetic control. Learning Outcome: 09.16 Describe the main features of repressible operons. Section: 09.03

54.

The most damaging type of mutation is a

NURSINGTB.COM

Topic: Gene Regulation

A. point mutation. B. silent mutation. C. frameshift mutation. D. back mutation. E. All the choices are equally damaging. ASM Objective: 01.02 Mutations and horizontal gene transfer, with the immense variety of microenvironments, have selected for a huge diversity of microorganisms. ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 09.19 Explain the causes and types of mutations and their effects. Learning Outcome: 09.21 Compare beneficial and detrimental effects of mutations. Section: 09.04

Topic: Mutations

55.

If the wild type DNA sequence reads THE CAT ATE THE BIG RAT, what type of mutation would change the sequence to THE CAT ATA ETH EBI GRA T? A. missense B. nonsense C. insertion D. deletion E. silent

ASM Objective: 01.02 Mutations and horizontal gene transfer, with the immense variety of microenvironments, have selected for a huge diversity of microorganisms. ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution


ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 09.19 Explain the causes and types of mutations and their effects. Section: 09.04

Topic: Mutations

56.

If the wild type DNA sequence reads THE CAT ATE THE BIG RAT, what type of mutation would change the sequence to THE CAT ATE THE BAG RAT? A. missense B. nonsense C. insertion D. deletion E. silent

ASM Objective: 01.02 Mutations and horizontal gene transfer, with the immense variety of microenvironments, have selected for a huge diversity of microorganisms. ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 09.19 Explain the causes and types of mutations and their effects. Section: 09.04

Topic: Mutations

57.

If the wild type DNA sequence reads THE CAT ATE THE BIG RAT, what type of mutation would change the sequence to THE CAT ATE (stop)? A. Missense B. Nonsense C. Insertion D. Deletion E. Silent

ASM Objective: 01.02 Mutations and horizontal gene transfer, with the immense variety of microenvironments, have selected for a huge diversity of microorganisms. ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universalN inUaR ll S ceIN llsG , tT heBp.C roO ceM sses of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 09.19 Explain the causes and types of mutations and their effects. Section: 09.04

Topic: Mutations

58.

A frameshift is caused by

mutations?

A. missense and insertion B. missense and nonsense C. nonsense and deletion D. deletion and insertion E. insertion and nonsense ASM Objective: 01.02 Mutations and horizontal gene transfer, with the immense variety of microenvironments, have selected for a huge diversity of microorganisms. ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.04 Describe the chemical structure of DNA and its significance. Learning Outcome: 09.18 Define a mutation and explain how mutant forms are identified. Learning Outcome: 09.19 Explain the causes and types of mutations and their effects. Section: 09.04 Topic: Mutations

59.

What type of mutation alters the base, but not the amino acid being coded for? A. silent B. back C. point D. nonsense


E. missense ASM Objective: 01.02 Mutations and horizontal gene transfer, with the immense variety of microenvironments, have selected for a huge diversity of microorganisms. ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.18 Define a mutation and explain how mutant forms are identified. Learning Outcome: 09.19 Explain the causes and types of mutations and their effects. Section: 09.04

Topic: Mutations

60.

A screening system called the

test is used for detecting chemicals with carcinogenic potential.

A. Koch B. Ames C. mutation D. cancer E. Iowa ASM Objective: 01.02 Mutations and horizontal gene transfer, with the immense variety of microenvironments, have selected for a huge diversity of microorganisms. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

Learning Outcome: 09.18 Define a mutation and explain how mutant forms are identified. Section: 09.04 Topic: Mutations

61.

The process in which mutations are removed and replaced with the correct bases is called A. transduction. B. excision repair. C. frameshift. D. back mutation. E. transformation.

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 01.02 Mutations and horizontal gene transfer, with the immense variety of microenvironments, have selected for a huge diversity of microorganisms. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.20 Describe some mutation repair mechanisms. Section: 09.04

Topic: Mutations

62.

Bacterial conjugation involves A. bacteriophage carrying donor DNA to the recipient cell. B. a donor cell that transfers a copy of a plasmid to a recipient cell through a pilus. C. the take-up of naked DNA fragments from a lysed donor cell by a recipient cell. D. new progeny cells with genes from two parent bacterial cells. ASM Objective: 01.02 Mutations and horizontal gene transfer, with the immense variety of microenvironments, have selected for a huge diversity of microorganisms. ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.22 Explain recombination in bacteria and what it involves. Learning Outcome: 09.23 Describe the main features of conjugation and its outcomes. Section: 09.05

Topic: Genetic Recombination in Bacteria

63.

Which cell can transfer the most DNA?


+

A. F cell -

B. F cell

C. Hfr cell D. R cell E. B cell ASM Objective: 01.02 Mutations and horizontal gene transfer, with the immense variety of microenvironments, have selected for a huge diversity of microorganisms. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.22 Explain recombination in bacteria and what it involves. Learning Outcome: 09.23 Describe the main features of conjugation and its outcomes. Section: 09.05

Topic: Genetic Recombination in Bacteria

64.

Which of the following is not a type of bacterial DNA recombination? A. transformation B. conjugation C. mitosis D. transduction

ASM Objective: 01.02 Mutations and horizontal gene transfer, with the immense variety of microenvironments, have selected for a huge diversity of microorganisms. ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.22 Explain recombination in bacteria and what it involves. Section: 09.05

Topic: Genetic Recombination in Bacteria

65.

Which of the following is not true of conjugation? A. involves direct contact between cells NURSINGTB.COM B. transfers genes for drug resistance C. transfers genes for enzymes and adherence molecules D. transfers genes for a polysaccharide capsule E. The donor retains a copy of the transferred genes. ASM Objective: 01.02 Mutations and horizontal gene transfer, with the immense variety of microenvironments, have selected for a huge diversity of microorganisms. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.23 Describe the main features of conjugation and its outcomes. Section: 09.05

Topic: Genetic Recombination in Bacteria

66.

Hfr transfer involves all of the following except A. gene integration into the bacterial chromosome. B. plasmid gene transfer. + C. F factor is part of the F donor chromosome. D. high frequency transfer.

+

-

E. a pilus connection between F and F cells. ASM Objective: 01.02 Mutations and horizontal gene transfer, with the immense variety of microenvironments, have selected for a huge diversity of microorganisms. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.22 Explain recombination in bacteria and what it involves. Learning Outcome: 09.23 Describe the main features of conjugation and its outcomes. Section: 09.05

Topic: Genetic Recombination in Bacteria

67.

The transfer of DNA fragments from a dead cell to a live, competent recipient cell that results in a changed recipient cell is A. transduction.


B. conjugation. C. transformation. D. transmission. E. mitosis. ASM Objective: 01.02 Mutations and horizontal gene transfer, with the immense variety of microenvironments, have selected for a huge diversity of microorganisms. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.24 Discuss what is required for bacterial transformation and its outcomes. Section: 09.05

Topic: Genetic Recombination in Bacteria

68.

The development of virulent, toxin-producing bacterial strains due to the presence of a temperate phage can occur in A. bacterial conjugation. B. transformation. C. generalized transduction. D. specialized transduction. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 01.02 Mutations and horizontal gene transfer, with the immense variety of microenvironments, have selected for a huge diversity of microorganisms. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.25 Identify the basic processes involved in transduction and the end results. Section: 09.05

Topic: Genetic Recombination in Bacteria

69.

A bacteriophage transfers DNA of the previous host to the current host. This is an example of A. conjugation. B. generalized transduction. C. specialized transduction. D. creation of an Hfr cell.

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 01.02 Mutations and horizontal gene transfer, with the immense variety of microenvironments, have selected for a huge diversity of microorganisms. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.25 Identify the basic processes involved in transduction and the end results. Section: 09.05

Topic: Genetic Recombination in Bacteria

70.

Genes that jump from one location to another in the genome are A. repressors. B. transposons. C. transformers. D. plasmids. E. operons. ASM Objective: 01.02 Mutations and horizontal gene transfer, with the immense variety of microenvironments, have selected for a huge diversity of microorganisms. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.26 Discuss transposons and their importance to microorganisms. Section: 09.05

Topic: Genetic Recombination in Bacteria

71.

Which of the following is not true of transposons? A. can change pigmentation B. can replace damaged DNA C. can transfer drug resistance D. can change the genome E. are always part of plasmids


ASM Objective: 01.02 Mutations and horizontal gene transfer, with the immense variety of microenvironments, have selected for a huge diversity of microorganisms. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.26 Discuss transposons and their importance to microorganisms. Section: 09.05

Topic: Genetic Recombination in Bacteria

72.

Which of the following additions have been made to principles of the central dogma of biology? A. DNA information cannot be converted into RNA information. B. Protein information can be converted into DNA information. C. RNA can be used to regulate gene function. D. DNA codes for proteins. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Objective: 04.03 The regulation of gene expression is influenced by external and internal molecular cues and/or signals. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.08 Explain the relationship between the structure of DNA and the structure of proteins. Learning Outcome: 09.09 Describe the different types of RNA and their basic functions in genetic expression.

Learning Outcome: 09.17 Summarize some aspects of genetic control by RNA. Section: 09.02 Section: 09.03 Topic: Gene Regulation Topic: Protein Synthesis

73.

In Griffith's experiments with Streptococcus pneumoniae, rough nonencapsulated Streptococci were converted into smooth encapsulated Streptococci in the presence of the heat-killed smooth encapsulated Streptococci. What is the term that describes this process? A. transduction B. conjugation C. transformation D. cloning

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ASM Objective: 01.02 Mutations and horizontal gene transfer, with the immense variety of microenvironments, have selected for a huge diversity of microorganisms. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.24 Discuss what is required for bacterial transformation and its outcomes. Section: 09.05 Topic: Genetic Recombination in Bacteria

74.

Of the following list, which antibiotics affect protein synthesis? A. penicillin B. tetracycline C. chloramphenicol D. ciprofloxacin E. Both tetracycline and chloramphenicol are correct. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.13 Distinguish major points of difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic transcription and translation. Section: 09.02

Topic: Protein Synthesis

True / False Questions 75.

The smallest unit of heredity is a chromosome. FALSE

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow


Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.01 Define heredity, genetics, genome, gene, phenotype, and genotype. Section: 09.01 Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function

76.

DNA polymerase can only add new nucleotides to the old 3'DNA end. TRUE

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.06 Describe the process of DNA replication as it occurs in prokaryotic cells. Section: 09.01 Topic: DNA Replication

77.

DNA replication proceeds in one direction around the bacterial chromosome. FALSE

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.06 Describe the process of DNA replication as it occurs in prokaryotic cells. Section: 09.01

Topic: DNA Replication

78.

Transcription occurs in the nucleus or at the nucleoid. TRUE

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow NURSINGTB.COM Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.10 Explain what happens during transcription. Section: 09.02

Topic: Protein Synthesis

79.

In bacteria, initiator tRNA carries formyl methionine. TRUE

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.12 Recount the participants and steps in translation (protein synthesis). Section: 09.02 Topic: Protein Synthesis

80.

Introns have no detectable functions. FALSE

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.08 Explain the relationship between the structure of DNA and the structure of proteins. Learning Outcome: 09.13 Distinguish major points of difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic transcription and translation. Section: 09.02 Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function Topic: Protein Synthesis

81.

Excised introns form structures called lariats. TRUE ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron).


ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.08 Explain the relationship between the structure of DNA and the structure of proteins. Learning Outcome: 09.13 Distinguish major points of difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic transcription and translation. Section: 09.02

Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function Topic: Protein Synthesis

82.

Lactose is a corepressor in the lac operon. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 04.03 The regulation of gene expression is influenced by external and internal molecular cues and/or signals. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.14 Explain the functions of operons in bacterial genetic control. Learning Outcome: 09.15 Describe the main features of the lactose operon and inducible operons. Section: 09.03

Topic: Gene Regulation

83.

Repressible operons are normally turned on in the cell. TRUE ASM Objective: 04.03 The regulation of gene expression is influenced by external and internal molecular cues and/or signals. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.14 Explain the functions of operons in bacterial genetic control. Learning Outcome: 09.16 Describe the main features of repressible operons. Section: 09.03

Topic: Gene Regulation

84.

Induced mutations result from errors in DNA replication. FALSE

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ASM Objective: 01.02 Mutations and horizontal gene transfer, with the immense variety of microenvironments, have selected for a huge diversity of microorganisms. ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.18 Define a mutation and explain how mutant forms are identified. Learning Outcome: 09.19 Explain the causes and types of mutations and their effects. Section: 09.04

Topic: Mutations

85.

DNA photolyase, in the presence of visible light, can repair DNA damage due to ultraviolet radiation. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.20 Describe some mutation repair mechanisms. Section: 09.04

Topic: Mutations

86.

All mutations are harmful to the cell. FALSE ASM Objective: 01.02 Mutations and horizontal gene transfer, with the immense variety of microenvironments, have selected for a huge diversity of microorganisms. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.21 Compare beneficial and detrimental effects of mutations. Section: 09.04


Topic: Mutations

Multiple Choice Questions 87.

Folding of the 5'end of a mRNA, such that binding to the ribosome is altered, is most likely to affect A. replication. B. transcription. C. translation. D. transformation.

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Objective: 04.03 The regulation of gene expression is influenced by external and internal molecular cues and/or signals. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 09.17 Summarize some aspects of genetic control by RNA. Section: 09.02 Section: 09.03

Topic: Gene Regulation

88.

Riboswitches exert effects on .

whereas repressors and inducers exert effects on

A. replication; translation B. translation; transcription C. replication; translation D. translation; transcription ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Objective: 04.03 The regulation of gene expression is influenced by external and internal molecular cues and/or signals. ASM Objective: 07.04 Ability to understand the relationship between science and society: Identify and discuss ethical issues in microbiology. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow NURSINGTB.COM Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 09.16 Describe the main features of repressible operons. Learning Outcome: 09.17 Summarize some aspects of genetic control by RNA. Section: 09.03

Topic: Gene Regulation

89.

Short interfering RNAs affect gene expression in eukaryotes by A. blocking replication of certain genes. B. blocking transcription of certain genes. C. binding to mRNAs and preventing translation. D. binding to ribosomes, preventing the two subunits from joining.

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Objective: 04.03 The regulation of gene expression is influenced by external and internal molecular cues and/or signals. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.17 Summarize some aspects of genetic control by RNA. Section: 09.03

Topic: Gene Regulation

90.

The analysis of the nitrogenous bases of the nucleic acid of a newly discovered virus showed 20% adenine, 40% guanine, 10% thymine, and 30% cytosine. The viral nucleic acid is most likely A. double-stranded DNA. B. double-stranded RNA. C. single-stranded RNA. D. single-stranded DNA. ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze Learning Outcome: 09.27 Explain the major elements of viral genetics.

Section: 09.06 Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function


91.

The different types of nucleic acids found in viruses include all of the following except A. double-stranded DNA. B. single-stranded DNA. C. double-stranded RNA. D. single-stranded RNA. E. There are no exceptions here. Each of these types may be found in viruses. ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.27 Explain the major elements of viral genetics. Section: 09.06

Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function

True / False Questions 92.

Some RNA viruses direct the synthesis of double-stranded DNA at some point in their life cycle. TRUE ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.28 Compare aspects of the genetics of DNA and RNA viruses, using examples. Section: 09.06 Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function

Multiple Choice Questions 93.

While studying the infection process and lifN eUcR ycSlIeNoGf TaBn.C ew y discovered virus, it was determined that the virus OlM never entered the nucleus of the host cell. This virus may have any of the following genomes except A. DNA. B. double-stranded RNA. C. single (+) strand RNA. D. single (-) strand RNA. ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 09.28 Compare aspects of the genetics of DNA and RNA viruses, using examples. Section: 09.06

Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function


Chapter 09 Test Bank Summary Category

# of Questions

ASM Objective: 01.01 Cells, organelles (e.g., mitochondria and chloroplasts) and all major metabolic pathways evolv ed from early prokaryotic cells.

1

ASM Objective: 01.02 Mutations and horizontal gene transfer, with the immense variety of microenvironments, have selected for a huge diversity of microorganisms.

24

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (in cluding bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron).

5

ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that ofte n confer critical capabilities.

1

ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different.

4

ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes.

2

ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determi ned by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations).

2

ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metaboli c characteristics.

1

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biologic al means.

5

ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance).

1

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes.

59

ASM Objective: 04.03 The regulation of gene expression is influenced by external and internal molecular cues and/ or signals.

14

ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells.

4

ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function.

1

ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

3

ASM Objective: 07.04 Ability to understand the relationship between science and society: Identify and discuss ethical issues in microbiology.

1

ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (mediabased, molecular and serological).

1

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ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods.

1

ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution

23

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function

23

ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways

6

ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow

90

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems

3

ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills

1

Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

32

Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand

50

Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply

10

Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze

1

Learning Outcome: 09.01 Define heredity, genetics, genome, gene, phenotype, and genotype.

4

Learning Outcome: 09.02 Compare the basic nature of genetic material in eukaryotes, prokaryotes, and viruses.

3

Learning Outcome: 09.03 Explain how DNA is organized and packaged.

4

Learning Outcome: 09.04 Describe the chemical structure of DNA and its significance.

7

Learning Outcome: 09.05 List the nitrogen bases and explain their bonding patterns.

5

Learning Outcome: 09.06 Describe the process of DNA replication as it occurs in prokaryotic cells.

14

Learning Outcome: 09.07 Present an overview of the main aspects of the flow of genetic information in cells.

5

Learning Outcome: 09.08 Explain the relationship between the structure of DNA and the structure of proteins.

8

Learning Outcome: 09.09 Describe the different types of RNA and their basic functions in genetic expression.

5

Learning Outcome: 09.10 Explain what happens during transcription.

5

Learning Outcome: 09.11 Describe the genetic code, codons, and anticodons, and how they relate to one another.

3

Learning Outcome: 09.12 Recount the participants and steps in translation (protein synthesis).

5


Learning Outcome: 09.13 Distinguish major points of difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic transcription and translation. Learning Outcome: 09.14 Explain the functions of operons in bacterial genetic control.

5 10

Learning Outcome: 09.15 Describe the main features of the lactose operon and inducible operons.

5

Learning Outcome: 09.16 Describe the main features of repressible operons.

4

Learning Outcome: 09.17 Summarize some aspects of genetic control by RNA.

4

Learning Outcome: 09.18 Define a mutation and explain how mutant forms are identified.

5

Learning Outcome: 09.19 Explain the causes and types of mutations and their effects.

8

Learning Outcome: 09.20 Describe some mutation repair mechanisms.

2

Learning Outcome: 09.21 Compare beneficial and detrimental effects of mutations.

3

Learning Outcome: 09.22 Explain recombination in bacteria and what it involves.

4

Learning Outcome: 09.23 Describe the main features of conjugation and its outcomes.

4

Learning Outcome: 09.24 Discuss what is required for bacterial transformation and its outcomes.

2

Learning Outcome: 09.25 Identify the basic processes involved in transduction and the end results.

2

Learning Outcome: 09.26 Discuss transposons and their importance to microorganisms.

2

Learning Outcome: 09.27 Explain the major elements of viral genetics.

2

Learning Outcome: 09.28 Compare aspects of the genetics of DNA and RNA viruses, using examples.

2

Section: 09.01

29

Section: 09.02

23

Section: 09.03

15

Section: 09.04

13

Section: 09.05

11

Section: 09.06

4

Topic: DNA Replication

14

Topic: Gene Regulation

15

Topic: Genetic Recombination in Bacteria

11

Topic: Mutations

13

Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function Topic: Protein Synthesis

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32 18


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.


Chapter 10 Testbank Student:

1.

The use of an organism's biochemical processes to create a product is A. bioremediation. B. biotechnology. C. recombinant DNA. D. gel electrophoresis. E. gene probes.

2.

The various techniques by which scientists manipulate DNA in the lab are called A. genetic engineering. B. biotechnology. C. recombinant DNA. D. gel electrophoresis. E. gene probes.

3.

The deliberate removal of genetic material from one organism and combining it with the genetic material of another organism is a specific technique called A. genetic engineering. B. biotechnology. C. recombinant DNA technology. D. gel electrophoresis. E. gene probes.

4.

Labeled, known, short stretches of DNA used to detect a specific sequence of nucleotides in a mixture are A. genetic engineering. B. biotechnology. C. recombinant DNA. D. gel electrophoresis. E. gene probes.

5.

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A technique that separates a readable pattern of DNA fragments is A. genetic engineering. B. biotechnology. C. recombinant DNA. D. gel electrophoresis. E. gene probes.

6.

DNA strands can be clipped crosswise at selected positions by using enzymes called A. palindromes. B. reverse transcriptases. C. restriction endonucleases. D. ligases. E. DNA polymerases.

7.

Geneticists can make complimentary DNA copies of messenger, transfer, and ribosomal RNA by using A. palindromes. B. reverse transcriptases. C. restriction endonucleases. D. ligases. E. DNA polymerases.

8.

EcoRI and HindIII are


A. palindromes. B. reverse transcriptases. C. restriction endonucleases. D. ligases. E. DNA polymerases. 9.

Sequences of DNA that are identical when read from the 5'to 3'direction on one strand and the 3'to 5'direction on the other strand are A. palindromes. B. reverse transcriptases. C. restriction endonucleases. D. ligases. E. DNA polymerases.

10. Which of the following is true of the analysis of DNA fragments using gel electrophoresis? A. Larger DNA fragments move slowly and remain closer to the wells. B. DNA has an overall negative charge and moves to the positive pole. C. DNA fragments are stained to visualize them. D. An electric current through the gel causes DNA fragments to migrate. E. All of these choices are correct. 11. Gene probes can be labeled for detection with A. enzymes. B. fluorescent dyes. C. radioisotopes. D. All of these choices are correct. 12. Amplification of DNA is accomplished by A. polymerase chain reaction. B. DNA sequencing. C. gene probes. D. Southern blot. E. All of these choices are correct.

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13. DNA polymerases used in PCR A. use an RNA template to make complementary DNA. B. must remain active at very cold temperatures. C. include Taq polymerases and Vent polymerase. D. are labeled with fluorescent dyes. E. All of these choices are correct. 14. Which PCR step causes the denaturation of double-stranded DNA? A. Add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72°C. B. Cool DNA to between 50°C and 65°C. C. Add primers. D. Heat target DNA to 94°C. E. Repeat the cycle of heating and cooling. 15. Which PCR step synthesizes complementary DNA strands? A. Add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72°C. B. Cool DNA to between 50°C and 65°C. C. Add primers. D. Heat target DNA to 94°C. E. Repeat the cycle of heating and cooling. 16. The function of the dideoxy (dd) nucleotides that are used in the Sanger method of DNA sequencing is to


A. denature DNA into single strands. B. serve as primers. C. be a fluorescent tag. D. incorporate into newly replicated DNA strands and stop elongation. 17. The Western Blot technique detects A. DNA. B. RNA. C. proteins. D. recombinant DNA. E. specific genetic marker sequence on genes. 18. The fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) probes are applied to intact cells and observed microscopically for the presence and location of A. DNA. B. RNA. C. proteins. D. recombinant DNA. E. specific genetic marker sequence on genes. 19. Thermococcus litoralis and Thermus aquaticus are thermophilic bacteria that are A. used as cloning vectors. B. sources of heat stable DNA polymerases. C. genetically engineered bacteria. D. principal sources of restriction endonucleases. 20. The primers in PCR are A. synthetic DNA oligonucleotides. B. bacterial enzymes. C. short RNA strands. D. DNA polymerases. E. reverse transcriptases.

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21. In order to ensure compatibility between the target DNA and the plasmid DNA, A. target DNA is removed from cells and isolated. B. cloning host is treated with calcium chloride and receives plasmid. C. target DNA and plasmid are treated with the same restriction endonuclease. D. desired protein is produced by cloning host. E. gene is amplified by multiplication of cloning host. 22. Which step involves transformation? A. Target DNA is removed from cells and isolated. B. The cloning host takes up a plasmid. C. Target DNA and plasmid are treated with the same restriction endonuclease. D. The desired protein is produced by the cloning host. E. The gene is amplified by multiplication of the cloning host. 23. Which of the following is a serious concern when performing PCR? A. The high temperature needed may denature the DNA. B. Restriction enzymes are difficult to obtain in adequate quantities. C. Contaminating DNA may be introduced and amplified. D. Lab personnel may be exposed to radiation. E. PCR is a very time-consuming process. 24. The commercial product Frostban contains a genetically engineered strain of

A. Escherichia coli.


B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae. C. Thermus aquaticus. D. Pseudomonas syringae. E. Pseudomonas fluorescens. 25. Recombinant strains of this organism are released to colonize plant roots to produce an insecticide to destroy invading insects.

A. Escherichia coli B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae C. Thermus aquaticus D. Pseudomonas syringae E. Pseudomonas fluorescens 26. Transgenic animals A. can be engineered to become factories for manufacturing proteins. B. are often obtained from germ line engineering. C. will pass the genes on to their offspring. D. commonly include mice. E. All of these choices are correct. 27. When patient tissues are transfected with viruses carrying a needed, normal human gene, the technique is called A. cloning. B. gene therapy. C. antisense therapeutic. D. DNA fingerprinting. 28. Both DNA sequencing and polymerase chain reactions require special new DNA molecule. A. RNA promoters B. fluorescent nucleotides C. primers D. thermophilic polymerases E. endonucleases

to initiate synthesis of a

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29. Which of the following is often used in forensic science to distinguish one sequence of DNA from another by comparing the sequence of the strands at specific loci? A. cloning B. gene therapy C. antisense therapeutic D. DNA fingerprinting 30. Which of the following drugs is/are produced by genetic engineering and approved for human use? A. Human growth hormone B. Factor VIII C. insulin D. tissue plasminogen activator E. All of these choices are correct.

31. All of the following are desirable features in a microbial cloning host, except A. the host can be grown in large quantities. B. the host has a slow growth rate. C. the host is capable of accepting plasmid vectors. D. the host will secrete a high yield of proteins from expressed foreign genes. E. the host has a well-delineated genome.


32. Which of the following is less subject to degradation than is chromosomal DNA and is used as an evolutionary time clock? A. mitochondrial DNA B. chloroplast DNA C. rRNA D. mRNA E. tRNA 33. Which technique will hopefully be used to identify and devise treatments for diseases based on the genetic profile of the disease? A. PCR B. genetic engineering C. antisense technology D. microarray analysis E. DNA sequencing 34. Which of the following methods determines which genes are actively transcribed in a cell under a variety of conditions? A. DNA fingerprinting B. microarray analysis C. gene mapping D. Western blot E. antisense therapy 35. The Southern Blot technique enables detection of specific sequences A. in DNA. B. in RNA. C. of amino acids in proteins. D. of sugars in polysaccharides. NURSINGTB.COM

36. All of the following are characteristics that make plasmids good cloning vectors, except A. they are small. B. they are well characterized. C. they can be transferred into appropriate host cells. D. they can carry genetic markers, such as antibiotic resistance genes. E. they can accept a relatively large amount of foreign DNA.

37. The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) has been used in all of the following fields, except A. forensics. B. evolutionary studies. C. gene mapping. D. medicine. E. None of the choices; it is useful for all these fields. 38. When DNA is heated to just below boiling (90°C–95°C), A. the sugar phosphate backbone of the DNA strands breaks. B. the sugar, phosphate, and base come apart in each nucleotide. C. the helix unwinds but hydrogen bonds between the bases remain intact. D. the two DNA strands separate completely.

o

E. nothing happens until the boiling point is reached (100 C).

39. All of the following are correct about DNA fingerprinting, except A. it displays the unique pattern of an individual's DNA fragments. B. it can be used to analyze evidence when only minute amounts of DNA are found. C. it cannot be used on specimens older than five years. D. it is routine to use it as trial evidence in the U.S.


E. it can be used on hair and saliva. 40. The enzyme replicated.

adds nucleotides of DNA in the

direction when DNA is being semi-conservatively

A. DNA polymerase III,3’→ 5’ B. DNA polymerase I, 3’→ 5’ C. DNA polymerase III,5’→ 3’ D. DNA polymerase I, 5’→ 3’ 41. When determining the sequence of nucleotides in an unknown sample of DNA, which method is used to sequence the DNA? A. PCR B. Cloning C. The Sanger Method D. Southern blot hybridization E. Microarray analysis 42. Restriction endonucleases are obtained from various species of bacteria. True False 43. Some genes in bacteria are repressed by antisense RNA that binds to them. True False 44. After 3 replication cycles in PCR, there will be a total of 4 double-stranded DNA molecules. True False

45. An example of gene therapy is the insertion of the gene for human growth hormone into E. coli cells. NURSINGTB.COM

True False

46. Reverse transcriptase is used to make cDNA from an RNA template. True False 47. Transformation and transfection are methods used to introduce DNA into host cells. True False 48. Sequencing a gene automatically identifies which gene it is. True False 49. The process of introducing a needed normal gene into human cells is called DNA mapping. True False 50. Vectors often contain a gene conferring drug resistance to their cloning host, in order to detect cells harboring the plasmid. True False 51. VNTRs and microsatellite polymorphisms are genetic markers seen in DNA fingerprinting. True False 52. The

blot method analyzes DNA, while the

53. The size of DNA is often given in the number of

method analyzes RNA. that it contains.


54. Restriction endonucleases recognize and clip at DNA base sequences called

.

55. The two common vectors used to transfer a piece of DNA into a cloning host are 56. In recombinant DNA technique, an enzyme called or chromosomes. 57. Two different nucleic acids can 58. Genomic

and

.

is needed to seal the sticky ends of genes into plasmids

by uniting at their complementary sites.

are collections of isolated genes maintained in a cloning host.

59. Transgenic animals are

modified organisms.

60. One of the first uses of DNA fingerprinting was in

medicine.

61. Draw and label the specific sequence of procedures, reagents, and materials needed to obtain a human protein from E. coli cells growing in a lab culture. 62. Compare and contrast recombinant DNA and gene therapy. 63. Describe what is meant by a DNA fingerprint and how it is used in forensic science. 64. When DNA is heated, the two strands will separate. True False NURSINGTB.COM 65. The human gene for a protein hormone has been isolated. Scientists want to introduce this gene into a bacterial host, modifying the bacteria so that it can be used to produce this hormone. After successfully introducing the gene on a plasmid, the bacteria produced the protein hormone, but the protein was defective, longer than normal, with intervening stretches of amino acids not found in the native protein. What is the most likely explanation? A. The bacteria can’t transcribe the human gene. B. The gene that was introduced contained introns. C. Bacterial cells cannot translate mRNAs transcribed from human genes. D. Bacterial ribosomes make errors when transcribing human mRNAs. 66. Which of the following regions of DNA would be of most value for forensic analysis? A. DNA sequences that are typically identical for all humans B. DNA sequences that differ among humans, with a maximum of two different alleles C. DNA sequences that are quite variable with multiple different alleles D. Most DNA sequences are equally valuable for forensic analysis. 67. The human gene for a protein hormone has been isolated. Scientists want to introduce this gene into a bacterial host, modifying the bacteria so that it can be used to produce this hormone. After successfully introducing the gene on a plasmid, the bacteria produced the protein hormone, but the protein was defective, longer than normal, with intervening stretches of amino acids not found in the native protein. Which solution would be most likely to resolve this problem? A. Treat the defective protein with enzymes. B. Introduce human ribosomes into the bacteria. C. Start over, introducing a complementary DNA (cDNA) copy of the gene into the bacterial host. D. Introduce human mRNAs into the bacterial host. 68. Which of the following would be of LEAST value in DNA profiling?


A. mitotyping B. STR (short tandem repeat) analysis C. sequencing blood group alleles D. analysis of SNPs (single nucleotide polymorphisms) 69. To be of value, DNA sequences targeted for analysis for DNA profiling need to be located in coding regions of the genome. True False 70. When trying to locate a mutation responsible for a disease, exome sequencing would provide an effective shortcut because A. it targets just protein-encoding sequences. B. it targets the sequencing or rRNA and tRNA encoding sequences of DNA. C. it provides the entire genome sequence. D. it targets the sequencing of mitochondrial DNA. 71. Which of the following provides the specificity of the CRISPR/Cas gene editing system? A. the amino acids at the amino terminus of the Cas nuclease B. the guide RNA (crRNA) carried by the Cas nuclease C. the amino acids at the carboxyl terminus of the Cas nuclease D. an antibody-like region of the Cas nuclease 72. Which type of DNA analysis is likely to be most effective when analyzing the ancient remains of a mummified body? A. whole genome sequencing B. analysis of short tandem repeats C. analysis of cDNA D. analysis of mitochondrial DNA 73. Although originally discovered in bacteria as aNdU efReSnIsNeGaTgBa.iC nsOtM bacteriophage infection, the CRISPR/Cas gene editing system can be used to edit the genome of any cell, whether microbial, plant, fungal, or animal. True False


Chapter 10 Testbank Key 1.

The use of an organism's biochemical processes to create a product is A. bioremediation. B. biotechnology. C. recombinant DNA. D. gel electrophoresis. E. gene probes. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

Learning Outcome: 10.01 Define genetic engineering, and describe some of its subcategories and aims. Section: 10.01 Topic: Basics of Genetic Engineering

2.

The various techniques by which scientists manipulate DNA in the lab are called A. genetic engineering. B. biotechnology. C. recombinant DNA. D. gel electrophoresis. E. gene probes. ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.01 Define genetic engineering, and describe some of its subcategories and aims. Learning Outcome: 10.04 Describe the technology behind identifying, sequencing, synthesizing, and amplifying DNA. Section: 10.01

Topic: Basics of Genetic Engineering

3.

The deliberate removal of genetic material from one organism and combining it with the genetic material of another organism is a specific technique called NURSINGTB.COM A. genetic engineering. B. biotechnology. C. recombinant DNA technology. D. gel electrophoresis. E. gene probes. ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.05 Explain what is involved in recombinant DNA technology.

Section: 10.02 Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology

4.

Labeled, known, short stretches of DNA used to detect a specific sequence of nucleotides in a mixture are A. genetic engineering. B. biotechnology. C. recombinant DNA. D. gel electrophoresis. E. gene probes. ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.04 Describe the technology behind identifying, sequencing, synthesizing, and amplifying DNA. Section: 10.01 Topic: Basics of Genetic Engineering


5.

A technique that separates a readable pattern of DNA fragments is A. genetic engineering. B. biotechnology. C. recombinant DNA. D. gel electrophoresis. E. gene probes. ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods.

ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.02 Explain the properties of DNA that lend it to manipulation in the laboratory.

Learning Outcome: 10.03 Summarize the major methods of analyzing DNA and their results. Section: 10.01 Topic: Genetic Analyses

6.

DNA strands can be clipped crosswise at selected positions by using enzymes called A. palindromes. B. reverse transcriptases. C. restriction endonucleases. D. ligases. E. DNA polymerases. ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.03 Summarize the major methods of analyzing DNA and their results. Learning Outcome: 10.04 Describe the technology behind identifying, sequencing, synthesizing, and amplifying DNA. Section: 10.01

Topic: Genetic Analyses

7.

Geneticists can make complimentary DNA copies of messenger, transfer, and ribosomal RNA by using A. palindromes. B. reverse transcriptases. C. restriction endonucleases. D. ligases. E. DNA polymerases.

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.04 Describe the technology behind identifying, sequencing, synthesizing, and amplifying DNA. Section: 10.01

Topic: Genetic Analyses

8.

EcoRI and HindIII are A. palindromes. B. reverse transcriptases. C. restriction endonucleases. D. ligases. E. DNA polymerases. ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.03 Summarize the major methods of analyzing DNA and their results. Learning Outcome: 10.04 Describe the technology behind identifying, sequencing, synthesizing, and amplifying DNA. Section: 10.01

Topic: Genetic Analyses

9.

Sequences of DNA that are identical when read from the 5'to 3'direction on one strand and the 3'to 5' direction on the other strand are A. palindromes. B. reverse transcriptases.


C. restriction endonucleases. D. ligases. E. DNA polymerases. ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.02 Explain the properties of DNA that lend it to manipulation in the laboratory.

Section: 10.01 Topic: Genetic Analyses

10.

Which of the following is true of the analysis of DNA fragments using gel electrophoresis? A. Larger DNA fragments move slowly and remain closer to the wells. B. DNA has an overall negative charge and moves to the positive pole. C. DNA fragments are stained to visualize them. D. An electric current through the gel causes DNA fragments to migrate. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.03 Summarize the major methods of analyzing DNA and their results. Learning Outcome: 10.04 Describe the technology behind identifying, sequencing, synthesizing, and amplifying DNA. Section: 10.01

Topic: Genetic Analyses

11.

Gene probes can be labeled for detection with A. enzymes. B. fluorescent dyes. C. radioisotopes. D. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.03 Summarize the major methods of analyzing DNA and their results.

Learning Outcome: 10.04 Describe the technology behind identifying, sequencing, synthesizing, and amplifying DNA. NURSINGTB.COM Section: 10.01

Topic: Genetic Analyses

12.

Amplification of DNA is accomplished by A. polymerase chain reaction. B. DNA sequencing. C. gene probes. D. Southern blot. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.03 Summarize the major methods of analyzing DNA and their results. Learning Outcome: 10.04 Describe the technology behind identifying, sequencing, synthesizing, and amplifying DNA. Section: 10.01

Topic: Genetic Analyses

13.

DNA polymerases used in PCR A. use an RNA template to make complementary DNA. B. must remain active at very cold temperatures. C. include Taq polymerases and Vent polymerase. D. are labeled with fluorescent dyes. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.03 Summarize the major methods of analyzing DNA and their results. Learning Outcome: 10.04 Describe the technology behind identifying, sequencing, synthesizing, and amplifying DNA. Section: 10.01

Topic: Genetic Analyses

14.

Which PCR step causes the denaturation of double-stranded DNA?


A. Add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72°C. B. Cool DNA to between 50°C and 65°C. C. Add primers. D. Heat target DNA to 94°C. E. Repeat the cycle of heating and cooling. ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 10.03 Summarize the major methods of analyzing DNA and their results. Learning Outcome: 10.04 Describe the technology behind identifying, sequencing, synthesizing, and amplifying DNA. Section: 10.01

Topic: Genetic Analyses

15.

Which PCR step synthesizes complementary DNA strands? A. Add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72°C. B. Cool DNA to between 50°C and 65°C. C. Add primers. D. Heat target DNA to 94°C. E. Repeat the cycle of heating and cooling. ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 10.03 Summarize the major methods of analyzing DNA and their results. Learning Outcome: 10.04 Describe the technology behind identifying, sequencing, synthesizing, and amplifying DNA. Section: 10.01

Topic: Genetic Analyses

16.

The function of the dideoxy (dd) nucleotides that are used in the Sanger method of DNA sequencing is to A. denature DNA into single strands. B. serve as primers. C. be a fluorescent tag. D. incorporate into newly replicated DNA strands and stop elongation. ASM ObjecN tivU e:R0S 8.I0N 5G UT seBa.C ppO roM priate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.03 Summarize the major methods of analyzing DNA and their results. Learning Outcome: 10.04 Describe the technology behind identifying, sequencing, synthesizing, and amplifying DNA. Section: 10.01

Topic: Genetic Analyses

17.

The Western Blot technique detects A. DNA. B. RNA. C. proteins. D. recombinant DNA. E. specific genetic marker sequence on genes. ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.03 Summarize the major methods of analyzing DNA and their results. Learning Outcome: 10.04 Describe the technology behind identifying, sequencing, synthesizing, and amplifying DNA. Section: 10.01

Topic: Genetic Analyses

18.

The fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) probes are applied to intact cells and observed microscopically for the presence and location of A. DNA. B. RNA. C. proteins. D. recombinant DNA. E. specific genetic marker sequence on genes. ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand


Learning Outcome: 10.03 Summarize the major methods of analyzing DNA and their results. Learning Outcome: 10.04 Describe the technology behind identifying, sequencing, synthesizing, and amplifying DNA. Section: 10.01

Topic: Genetic Analyses

19.

Thermococcus litoralis and Thermus aquaticus are thermophilic bacteria that are A. used as cloning vectors. B. sources of heat stable DNA polymerases. C. genetically engineered bacteria. D. principal sources of restriction endonucleases. ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fixation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis). ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.03 Summarize the major methods of analyzing DNA and their results. Learning Outcome: 10.04 Describe the technology behind identifying, sequencing, synthesizing, and amplifying DNA. Section: 10.01

Topic: Genetic Analyses

20.

The primers in PCR are A. synthetic DNA oligonucleotides. B. bacterial enzymes. C. short RNA strands. D. DNA polymerases. E. reverse transcriptases. ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.03 Summarize the major methods of analyzing DNA and their results. Learning Outcome: 10.04 Describe the technology behind identifying, sequencing, synthesizing, and amplifying DNA. Section: 10.01

Topic: Genetic Analyses

21.

In order to ensure compatibility between the target DNA and the plasmid DNA, A. target DNA is removed from cells and isNoUlaRte . GTB.COM Sd IN B. cloning host is treated with calcium chloride and receives plasmid. C. target DNA and plasmid are treated with the same restriction endonuclease. D. desired protein is produced by cloning host. E. gene is amplified by multiplication of cloning host. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods.

ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.05 Explain what is involved in recombinant DNA technology.

Section: 10.02 Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology

22.

Which step involves transformation? A. Target DNA is removed from cells and isolated. B. The cloning host takes up a plasmid. C. Target DNA and plasmid are treated with the same restriction endonuclease. D. The desired protein is produced by the cloning host. E. The gene is amplified by multiplication of the cloning host. ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.05 Explain what is involved in recombinant DNA technology. Section: 10.02

Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology

23.

Which of the following is a serious concern when performing PCR? A. The high temperature needed may denature the DNA.


B. Restriction enzymes are difficult to obtain in adequate quantities. C. Contaminating DNA may be introduced and amplified. D. Lab personnel may be exposed to radiation. E. PCR is a very time-consuming process. ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 10.03 Summarize the major methods of analyzing DNA and their results. Learning Outcome: 10.04 Describe the technology behind identifying, sequencing, synthesizing, and amplifying DNA. Section: 10.01

Topic: Genetic Analyses

24.

The commercial product Frostban contains a genetically engineered strain of

A. Escherichia coli. B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae. C. Thermus aquaticus. D. Pseudomonas syringae. E. Pseudomonas fluorescens. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

Learning Outcome: 10.03 Summarize the major methods of analyzing DNA and their results. Learning Outcome: 10.07 List and discuss some protein products of recombinant DNA and their applications.

25.

Learning Outcome: 10.09 Describe the uses of genetically modified bacteria and viruses. Section: 10.03 Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology

Recombinant strains of this organism are released to colonize plant roots to produce an insecticide to destroy invading insects.

A. Escherichia coli B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae C. Thermus aquaticus D. Pseudomonas syringae E. Pseudomonas fluorescens NURSINGTB.COM ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

Learning Outcome: 10.09 Describe the uses of genetically modified bacteria and viruses. Section: 10.03 Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology

26.

Transgenic animals A. can be engineered to become factories for manufacturing proteins. B. are often obtained from germ line engineering. C. will pass the genes on to their offspring. D. commonly include mice. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.08 Define what is meant by the term transgenic or genetically modified organisms. Learning Outcome: 10.10 Discuss genetic modifications in plants and animals, explaining how they are carried out and giving examples of applications. Section: 10.03

Topic: Basics of Genetic Engineering

27.

When patient tissues are transfected with viruses carrying a needed, normal human gene, the technique is called A. cloning. B. gene therapy. C. antisense therapeutic. D. DNA fingerprinting. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand


Learning Outcome: 10.11 Explain how DNA technology can be used to treat genetic diseases. Section: 10.03 Topic: Genetic Medicine

28.

Both DNA sequencing and polymerase chain reactions require special a new DNA molecule.

to initiate synthesis of

A. RNA promoters B. fluorescent nucleotides C. primers D. thermophilic polymerases E. endonucleases ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.04 Describe the technology behind identifying, sequencing, synthesizing, and amplifying DNA. Section: 10.01

Topic: Genetic Analyses

29.

Which of the following is often used in forensic science to distinguish one sequence of DNA from another by comparing the sequence of the strands at specific loci? A. cloning B. gene therapy C. antisense therapeutic D. DNA fingerprinting ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.13 Describe two methods in performing a DNA analysis, its possible applications, and how it can be so precise.

Learning Outcome: 10.14 Describe several applications of DNA fingerprinting and microarray analysis. Section: 10.04

Topic: Genetic Analyses

30.

Which of the following drugs is/are produced by genetic engineering and approved for human use? A. Human growth hormone B. Factor VIII C. insulin D. tissue plasminogen activator E. All of these choices are correct.

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.07 List and discuss some protein products of recombinant DNA and their applications.

31.

Section: 10.03 Topic: Basics of Genetic Engineering Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology

All of the following are desirable features in a microbial cloning host, except A. the host can be grown in large quantities. B. the host has a slow growth rate. C. the host is capable of accepting plasmid vectors. D. the host will secrete a high yield of proteins from expressed foreign genes. E. the host has a well-delineated genome. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 10.06 Characterize the events in cloning, using an example.

Section: 10.02 Topic: Basics of Genetic Engineering

32.

Which of the following is less subject to degradation than is chromosomal DNA and is used as an evolutionary time clock? A. mitochondrial DNA B. chloroplast DNA C. rRNA


D. mRNA E. tRNA ASM Objective: 01.01 Cells, organelles (e.g., mitochondria and chloroplasts) and all major metabolic pathways evolved from early prokaryotic cells. ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.02 Explain the properties of DNA that lend it to manipulation in the laboratory. Learning Outcome: 10.13 Describe two methods in performing a DNA analysis, its possible applications, and how it can be so precise. Section: 10.01 Section: 10.04

Topic: Genetic Analyses

33.

Which technique will hopefully be used to identify and devise treatments for diseases based on the genetic profile of the disease? A. PCR B. genetic engineering C. antisense technology D. microarray analysis E. DNA sequencing ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.14 Describe several applications of DNA fingerprinting and microarray analysis. Section: 10.04

Topic: Genetic Analyses

34.

Which of the following methods determines which genes are actively transcribed in a cell under a variety of conditions? A. DNA fingerprinting B. microarray analysis C. gene mapping D. Western blot E. antisense therapy NURSINGTB.COM ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods.

ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.14 Describe several applications of DNA fingerprinting and microarray analysis. Section: 10.04 Topic: Genetic Analyses

35.

The Southern Blot technique enables detection of specific sequences A. in DNA. B. in RNA. C. of amino acids in proteins. D. of sugars in polysaccharides. ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.03 Summarize the major methods of analyzing DNA and their results. Learning Outcome: 10.04 Describe the technology behind identifying, sequencing, synthesizing, and amplifying DNA. Learning Outcome: 10.13 Describe two methods in performing a DNA analysis, its possible applications, and how it can be so precise. Section: 10.01

36.

Topic: Basics of Genetic Engineering

All of the following are characteristics that make plasmids good cloning vectors, except A. they are small. B. they are well characterized. C. they can be transferred into appropriate host cells. D. they can carry genetic markers, such as antibiotic resistance genes. E. they can accept a relatively large amount of foreign DNA. ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms


Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.05 Explain what is involved in recombinant DNA technology. Learning Outcome: 10.06 Characterize the events in cloning, using an example.

37.

Section: 10.02 Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology

The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) has been used in all of the following fields, except A. forensics. B. evolutionary studies. C. gene mapping. D. medicine. E. None of the choices; it is useful for all these fields. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods.

ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.04 Describe the technology behind identifying, sequencing, synthesizing, and amplifying DNA. Section: 10.01

Topic: Genetic Analyses

38.

When DNA is heated to just below boiling (90°C–95°C), A. the sugar phosphate backbone of the DNA strands breaks. B. the sugar, phosphate, and base come apart in each nucleotide. C. the helix unwinds but hydrogen bonds between the bases remain intact. D. the two DNA strands separate completely.

o

E. nothing happens until the boiling point is reached (100 C). ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods.

ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.02 Explain the properties of DNA that lend it to manipulation in the laboratory.

39.

Section: 10.01 Topic: Genetic Analyses

All of the following are correct about DNA fingerprinting, except A. it displays the unique pattern of an indivNid UuRaSl'IsND GN TA B.fCraOgM ments. B. it can be used to analyze evidence when only minute amounts of DNA are found. C. it cannot be used on specimens older than five years. D. it is routine to use it as trial evidence in the U.S. E. it can be used on hair and saliva. ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods.

ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.14 Describe several applications of DNA fingerprinting and microarray analysis. Section: 10.04 Topic: Genetic Analyses

40.

The enzyme replicated.

adds nucleotides of DNA in the

direction when DNA is being semi-conservatively

A. DNA polymerase III, 3’→ 5’ B. DNA polymerase I, 3’→ 5’ C. DNA polymerase III, 5’ 3’ D. DNA polymerase I, 5’→ 3’ ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.01 Define genetic engineering, and describe some of its subcategories and aims. Learning Outcome: 10.02 Explain the properties of DNA that lend it to manipulation in the laboratory. Section: 10.01

Topic: Genetic Analyses

41.

When determining the sequence of nucleotides in an unknown sample of DNA, which method is used to sequence the DNA? A. PCR B. Cloning


C. The Sanger Method D. Southern blot hybridization E. Microarray analysis ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.04 Describe the technology behind identifying, sequencing, synthesizing, and amplifying DNA. Section: 10.01

Topic: Genetic Analyses

42.

Restriction endonucleases are obtained from various species of bacteria. TRUE ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

Learning Outcome: 10.03 Summarize the major methods of analyzing DNA and their results. Section: 10.01 Topic: Basics of Genetic Engineering

43.

Some genes in bacteria are repressed by antisense RNA that binds to them. TRUE

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.09 Describe the uses of genetically modified bacteria and viruses. Section: 10.03

Topic: Genetic Medicine

44.

After 3 replication cycles in PCR, there will be a total of 4 double-stranded DNA molecules. FALSE ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. NURSINGTB.COM ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 10.04 Describe the technology behind identifying, sequencing, synthesizing, and amplifying DNA. Section: 10.01

Topic: Genetic Analyses

45.

An example of gene therapy is the insertion of the gene for human growth hormone into E. coli cells. FALSE ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.11 Explain how DNA technology can be used to treat genetic diseases. Section: 10.03 Topic: Genetic Medicine

46.

Reverse transcriptase is used to make cDNA from an RNA template. TRUE ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.03 Summarize the major methods of analyzing DNA and their results. Learning Outcome: 10.04 Describe the technology behind identifying, sequencing, synthesizing, and amplifying DNA. Section: 10.01

Topic: Genetic Analyses

47.

Transformation and transfection are methods used to introduce DNA into host cells. TRUE ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods.


ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.06 Characterize the events in cloning, using an example.

Section: 10.03 Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology

48.

Sequencing a gene automatically identifies which gene it is. FALSE ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.04 Describe the technology behind identifying, sequencing, synthesizing, and amplifying DNA. Section: 10.01

Topic: Genetic Analyses

49.

The process of introducing a needed normal gene into human cells is called DNA mapping. FALSE ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.11 Explain how DNA technology can be used to treat genetic diseases. Section: 10.03

Topic: Genetic Medicine

50.

Vectors often contain a gene conferring drug resistance to their cloning host, in order to detect cells harboring the plasmid. TRUE ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.05 Explain what is involved in recombinant DNA technology. Learning Outcome: 10.06 Characterize the events in cloning, using an example.

NURSINGTB.COM 51.

Section: 10.02 Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology

VNTRs and microsatellite polymorphisms are genetic markers seen in DNA fingerprinting. TRUE ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods.

ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.14 Describe several applications of DNA fingerprinting and microarray analysis. Section: 10.04 Topic: Genetic Analyses

52.

The

blot method analyzes DNA, while the

method analyzes RNA.

Southern; Northern ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.03 Summarize the major methods of analyzing DNA and their results. Learning Outcome: 10.04 Describe the technology behind identifying, sequencing, synthesizing, and amplifying DNA. Section: 10.01 Topic: Basics of Genetic Engineering

Topic: Genetic Analyses

53.

The size of DNA is often given in the number of

that it contains.

base pairs; nucleotides ASM Objective: 07.03a Ability to communicate and collaborate with other disciplines: Effectively communicate fundamental concepts of microbiology in written and oral format. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 07 Scientific Thinking Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember


Learning Outcome: 10.02 Explain the properties of DNA that lend it to manipulation in the laboratory. Section: 10.01

Topic: Genetic Analyses

54.

Restriction endonucleases recognize and clip at DNA base sequences called

.

palindromes ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.04 Describe the technology behind identifying, sequencing, synthesizing, and amplifying DNA. Section: 10.01

Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology

55.

The two common vectors used to transfer a piece of DNA into a cloning host are

and

.

plasmids; viruses ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.06 Characterize the events in cloning, using an example.

Section: 10.02 Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology

56.

In recombinant DNA technique, an enzyme called plasmids or chromosomes.

is needed to seal the sticky ends of genes into

ligase ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.05 Explain what is involved in recombinant DNA technology.

Section: 10.02 Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology

57.

Two different nucleic acids can

by uniting at their complementary sites. NURSINGTB.COM

hybridize

ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.02 Explain the properties of DNA that lend it to manipulation in the laboratory. Learning Outcome: 10.04 Describe the technology behind identifying, sequencing, synthesizing, and amplifying DNA. Section: 10.01

Topic: Genetic Analyses

58.

Genomic

are collections of isolated genes maintained in a cloning host.

libraries ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.06 Characterize the events in cloning, using an example.

Section: 10.02 Topic: Basics of Genetic Engineering

59.

Transgenic animals are

modified organisms.

genetically ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

Learning Outcome: 10.08 Define what is meant by the term transgenic or genetically modified organisms. Section: 10.03 Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology

60.

One of the first uses of DNA fingerprinting was in

medicine.

forensic ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

Learning Outcome: 10.14 Describe several applications of DNA fingerprinting and microarray analysis.


Section: 10.04 Topic: Genetic Analyses

61.

Draw and label the specific sequence of procedures, reagents, and materials needed to obtain a human protein from E. coli cells growing in a lab culture. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods.

ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 10.05 Explain what is involved in recombinant DNA technology. Learning Outcome: 10.06 Characterize the events in cloning, using an example. Learning Outcome: 10.07 List and discuss some protein products of recombinant DNA and their applications.

Section: 10.02 Topic: Basics of Genetic Engineering Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology

62.

Compare and contrast recombinant DNA and gene therapy. ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 10.05 Explain what is involved in recombinant DNA technology.

Learning Outcome: 10.11 Explain how DNA technology can be used to treat genetic diseases. Section: 10.03 Topic: Genetic Medicine

63.

Describe what is meant by a DNA fingerprint and how it is used in forensic science. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.14 Describe several applications of DNA fingerprinting and microarray analysis. Section: 10.04 Topic: Genetic Analyses

64.

When DNA is heated, the two strands will separate. TRUE

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. NURSINGTB.COM ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.02 Explain the properties of DNA that lend it to manipulation in the laboratory. Learning Outcome: 10.04 Describe the technology behind identifying, sequencing, synthesizing, and amplifying DNA. Section: 10.01

Topic: Genetic Analyses

65.

The human gene for a protein hormone has been isolated. Scientists want to introduce this gene into a bacterial host, modifying the bacteria so that it can be used to produce this hormone. After successfully introducing the gene on a plasmid, the bacteria produced the protein hormone, but the protein was defective, longer than normal, with intervening stretches of amino acids not found in the native protein. What is the most likely explanation? A. The bacteria can’t transcribe the human gene. B. The gene that was introduced contained introns. C. Bacterial cells cannot translate mRNAs transcribed from human genes. D. Bacterial ribosomes make errors when transcribing human mRNAs.

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze Learning Outcome: 10.09 Describe the uses of genetically modified bacteria and viruses. Section: 10.03

Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology

66.

Which of the following regions of DNA would be of most value for forensic analysis? A. DNA sequences that are typically identical for all humans B. DNA sequences that differ among humans, with a maximum of two different alleles C. DNA sequences that are quite variable with multiple different alleles D. Most DNA sequences are equally valuable for forensic analysis.


ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 10.12 Discuss the concept of the use of DNA in genome identification. Section: 10.04 Topic: Genetic Analyses

67.

The human gene for a protein hormone has been isolated. Scientists want to introduce this gene into a bacterial host, modifying the bacteria so that it can be used to produce this hormone. After successfully introducing the gene on a plasmid, the bacteria produced the protein hormone, but the protein was defective, longer than normal, with intervening stretches of amino acids not found in the native protein. Which solution would be most likely to resolve this problem? A. Treat the defective protein with enzymes. B. Introduce human ribosomes into the bacteria. C. Start over, introducing a complementary DNA (cDNA) copy of the gene into the bacterial host. D. Introduce human mRNAs into the bacterial host.

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Objective: 04.03 The regulation of gene expression is influenced by external and internal molecular cues and/or signals. ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 10.05 Explain what is involved in recombinant DNA technology. Learning Outcome: 10.06 Characterize the events in cloning, using an example. Learning Outcome: 10.07 List and discuss some protein products of recombinant DNA and their applications. Section: 10.03 Topic: Basics of Genetic Engineering

68.

Which of the following would be of LEAST value in DNA profiling? A. mitotyping B. STR (short tandem repeat) analysis C. sequencing blood group alleles D. analysis of SNPs (single nucleotide polymorphisms)

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow NURSINGTB.COM Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 10.12 Discuss the concept of the use of DNA in genome identification. Learning Outcome: 10.13 Describe two methods in performing a DNA analysis, its possible applications, and how it can be so precise. Section: 10.04 Topic: Genetic Analyses

69.

To be of value, DNA sequences targeted for analysis for DNA profiling need to be located in coding regions of the genome. FALSE

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 10.12 Discuss the concept of the use of DNA in genome identification. Section: 10.04 Topic: Genetic Analyses

70.

When trying to locate a mutation responsible for a disease, exome sequencing would provide an effective shortcut because A. it targets just protein-encoding sequences. B. it targets the sequencing or rRNA and tRNA encoding sequences of DNA. C. it provides the entire genome sequence. D. it targets the sequencing of mitochondrial DNA.

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 10.12 Discuss the concept of the use of DNA in genome identification. Learning Outcome: 10.13 Describe two methods in performing a DNA analysis, its possible applications, and how it can be so precise. Section: 10.04 Topic: Genetic Analyses

71.

Which of the following provides the specificity of the CRISPR/Cas gene editing system?


A. the amino acids at the amino terminus of the Cas nuclease B. the guide RNA (crRNA) carried by the Cas nuclease C. the amino acids at the carboxyl terminus of the Cas nuclease D. an antibody-like region of the Cas nuclease ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Objective: 04.03 The regulation of gene expression is influenced by external and internal molecular cues and/or signals. ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 10.09 Describe the uses of genetically modified bacteria and viruses. Learning Outcome: 10.10 Discuss genetic modifications in plants and animals, explaining how they are carried out and giving examples of applications. Section: 10.03 Topic: Basics of Genetic Engineering

72.

Which type of DNA analysis is likely to be most effective when analyzing the ancient remains of a mummified body? A. whole genome sequencing B. analysis of short tandem repeats C. analysis of cDNA D. analysis of mitochondrial DNA

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 10.12 Discuss the concept of the use of DNA in genome identification. Learning Outcome: 10.13 Describe two methods in performing a DNA analysis, its possible applications, and how it can be so precise. Section: 10.04 Topic: Genetic Analyses

73.

Although originally discovered in bacteria as a defense against bacteriophage infection, the CRISPR/Cas gene editing system can be used to edit the genome of any cell, whether microbial, plant, fungal, or animal. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorgan ngTtB he.C mO seM lves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic NisUmRs SaImNoG abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 04.03 The regulation of gene expression is influenced by external and internal molecular cues and/or signals. ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.08 Define what is meant by the term transgenic or genetically modified organisms. Learning Outcome: 10.10 Discuss genetic modifications in plants and animals, explaining how they are carried out and giving examples of applications. Section: 10.03 Topic: Basics of Genetic Engineering


Chapter 10 Testbank Summary Category

# of Questions

ASM Objective: 01.01 Cells, organelles (e.g., mitochondria and chloroplasts) and all major metabolic pathways evolv ed from early prokaryotic cells.

1

ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different.

2

ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fix ation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis).

1

ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determi ned by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations).

1

ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes.

13

ASM Objective: 04.03 The regulation of gene expression is influenced by external and internal molecular cues and/ or signals.

3

ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function.

20

ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products.

20

ASM Objective: 07.03a Ability to communicate and collaborate with other disciplines: Effectively communicate funda mental concepts of microbiology in written and oral format.

1

ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (mediabased, molecular and serological).

2

ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods.

29

ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution

1

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function

2

ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways

1

ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow

45

ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms

20

ASM Topic: Module 07 Scientific Thinking ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills

NURSINGTB.COM

1 29

Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

25

Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand

34

Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply

14

Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze

1

Learning Outcome: 10.01 Define genetic engineering, and describe some of its subcategories and aims.

3

Learning Outcome: 10.02 Explain the properties of DNA that lend it to manipulation in the laboratory.

8

Learning Outcome: 10.03 Summarize the major methods of analyzing DNA and their results.

20

Learning Outcome: 10.04 Describe the technology behind identifying, sequencing, synthesizing, and amplifying DNA.

28

Learning Outcome: 10.05 Explain what is involved in recombinant DNA technology.

9

Learning Outcome: 10.06 Characterize the events in cloning, using an example.

8

Learning Outcome: 10.07 List and discuss some protein products of recombinant DNA and their applications.

4

Learning Outcome: 10.08 Define what is meant by the term transgenic or genetically modified organisms.

3

Learning Outcome: 10.09 Describe the uses of genetically modified bacteria and viruses.

5

Learning Outcome: 10.10 Discuss genetic modifications in plants and animals, explaining how they are carried out an d giving examples of applications.

3

Learning Outcome: 10.11 Explain how DNA technology can be used to treat genetic diseases.

4

Learning Outcome: 10.12 Discuss the concept of the use of DNA in genome identification.

5

Learning Outcome: 10.13 Describe two methods in performing a DNA analysis, its possible applications, and how it c an be so precise.

6

Learning Outcome: 10.14 Describe several applications of DNA fingerprinting and microarray analysis.

7

Section: 10.01

36

Section: 10.02

10

Section: 10.03

15

Section: 10.04

13

Topic: Basics of Genetic Engineering

14

Topic: Genetic Analyses

42


Topic: Genetic Medicine

5

Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology

15

NURSINGTB.COM


Chapter 11 Testbank Student:

1.

Microbiological contaminants are best described as A. unwanted microbes present on or in a substance. B. any and all microbes present on or in a substance. C. pathogenic microbes present on or in a substance. D. vegetative microbes present on or in a substance.

2.

All of the following are major categories of microbial control methods except A. physical agents. B. chemical agents. C. mechanical removal methods. D. genetic methods.

3.

Which of the following types of control agents would be most likely to achieve sterility? A. virucide B. bactericide C. germicide D. sporicide E. fungicide

4.

Physical agents for controlling microbial growth include all of the following, except A. ultraviolet radiation. B. boiling water. C. HEPA filters. D. pasteurization. E. hydrogen peroxide.

5.

NURSINGTB.COM

The process that destroys or removes all microorganisms and microbial forms including bacterial endospores is A. disinfection. B. sterilization. C. antisepsis. D. sanitization. E. degermation.

6.

Which of the following microbial forms have the highest resistance to physical and chemical controls? A. naked viruses B. protozoan cysts C. fungal spores D. bacterial endospores E. yeast

7.

The process of using a cleansing technique to mechanically remove and reduce microorganisms and debris to safe levels is A. disinfection. B. sterilization. C. antisepsis. D. sanitization. E. degermation.

8.

The use of a physical or chemical process to destroy vegetative pathogens on inanimate objects is A. disinfection. B. sterilization.


C. antisepsis. D. sanitization. E. degermation. 9.

The use of chemical agents directly on exposed body surfaces to destroy or inhibit vegetative pathogens is A. disinfection. B. sterilization. C. antisepsis. D. sanitization. E. degermation.

10. Scrubbing or immersing the skin in chemicals to reduce the numbers of microbes on the skin is A. disinfection. B. sterilization. C. sanitization. D. degermation. 11. Which is correct regarding the rate of microbial death? A. Cells die at increasingly greater rates. B. Only older cells die in a culture. C. Cells in a culture die at a constant rate. D. Upon contact with the control agent, all cells die at one time. E. Cells become metabolically inactive but are never killed. 12. Sterilization is achieved by A. flash pasteurization. B. hot water. C. boiling water. D. steam autoclave. E. All of these choices are correct.

NURSINGTB.COM

13. Dry heat A. is less efficient than moist heat. B. cannot sterilize. C. includes tyndallization. D. is used in devices called autoclaves. E. will sterilize at 121°C for 15 minutes. 14. Endospores can be killed by A. dry heat at 170°C for 2 hours. B. incineration. C. glutaldehyde for 8 or more hours. D. ethylene oxide for 3 or more hours. E. All of these choices are correct. 15. The minimum sterilizing conditions in a steam autoclave are A. 121°C at 15 psi for 15 minutes. B. 63°C for 30 minutes. C. 160°C for 2 hours. D. 71.6°C for 15 seconds. E. 100°C for 30 minutes. 16. The shortest time required to kill all the microbes in a sample at a specified temperature is called the A. thermal death point (TDP). B. thermal death time (TDT). C. sporicidal time.


D. death phase point. 17. Disinfection of beverages, such as apple juice, milk, and wine, is optimally achieved by A. pasteurization. B. chlorination. C. moist heat autoclave. D. filtration. E. boiling water. 18. Electrons are ejected from atoms in cells when organisms are exposed to A. dessication. B. ultraviolet light. C. ethyl alcohol. D. hydrogen peroxide. E. gamma rays and X-rays. 19. Which of the following items are typically irradiated in order to kill microbes? A. ground beef and other meat and poultry B. human tissues such as heart valves and skin C. operating room air D. surgical gloves E. All of these choices are correct. 20. HEPA filters are used to remove microbes from A. air. B. liquids. C. human tissues. D. medical instruments. E. All of these choices are correct. NURSINGTB.COM 21. Which of the following does not contain a heavy metal? A. tincture of iodine B. merthiolate C. silver nitrate solutions D. zinc E. mercurochrome

22. All of the following are phenols or phenolics, except A. lysol. B. hexachlorophene. C. triclosan. D. cresols. E. chloramines. 23. The easiest microbial forms to kill or inhibit are A. naked viruses. B. vegetative bacteria and fungi. C. endospores. D. protozoan cysts. E. Mycobacterium and Staphylococcus. 24. Which control method would not be a suitable choice for killing Mycobacteria in a capped culture tube?

A. ultraviolet (germicidal) light B. gamma rays C. 121°C at 15 psi for 15 minutes D. 160°C for 2 hours


E. All of these choices are correct.

25. All of the following pertain to hypochlorites, except A. they release hypochlorous acid in solution. B. they cause denaturation of enzymes. C. they are found in iodophors. D. they are used to disinfect dairy, restaurant, and medical equipment. E. they are found in common household bleach. 26. Iodophors include A. chloramines. B. povidone iodine. C. tincture of iodine. D. alcohols. E. chlorhexidine. 27. Which of the following is not used as an antiseptic? A. iodophor B. chlorhexidine C. 3% hydrogen peroxide D. ethyl alcohol E. aqueous glutaraldehyde 28. The compound that is an organic base containing chlorine and two phenolic rings and is used increasingly for hand scrubbing, neonatal washes, wound degerming, and prepping surgical skin sites is A. carbolic acid. B. chlorhexidine. C. triclosan. D. formalin. E. quarternary ammonium compounds. 29. Alcohols

NURSINGTB.COM

A. denature proteins when in a 50–95% solution. B. are used to disinfect items by soaking. C. are skin degerming agents. D. at 50% or higher concentrations dissolve cell membrane lipids. E. All of these choices are correct. 30. Which is mismatched? A. sodium hypochlorite–chlorine B. iodophor–iodine C. benzalkoniumchloride–quaternary ammonium compound D. chlorhexidine–alcohol E. formalin–formaldehyde

31. All of the following are correct about iodophors, except A. they are complexes of iodine and a neutral polymer. B. this formulation allows a quick release of free iodine. C. this formulation increases its penetration. D. it is less prone to staining or irritating tissue. E. a common iodophor is Betadine. 32. The sterilizing gas used in a special chamber is A. ethylene oxide. B. iodophor. C. glutaraldehyde. D. formaldehyde.


E. chlorine dioxide. 33. The chemical agent(s) that produces highly reactive hydroxyl-free radicals and also decomposes to O2 gas is/ are A. Cidex. B. cationic detergents. C. hydrogen peroxide. D. chlorhexidine. E. iodophors.

34. All the following are correct about detergents, except A. they are polar molecules that act as surfactants. B. the most effective ones are positively charged. C. in low concentrations they are bacteriostatic. D. they are ineffective against the tuberculosis bacteria. E. they are active in the presence of organic matter. 35. Ethylene oxide is A. sporicidal. B. only effective with high heat. C. the active agent in household bleach. D. used as an antiseptic against anaerobes. E. a halogen. 36. Which of the following is being used to replace hypochlorites in treating water because of the possibility of cancercausing substances being produced? A. hydrogen peroxide B. chloramines C. fluorine D. quaternary ammonium compounds E. sodium iodide

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37. Which of the following is officially accepted as a sterilant and high-level disinfectant? A. benzalkonium chloride B. silver nitrate C. glutaraldehyde D. triclosan E. cresol 38. Which of the following chemicals is a disinfectant for soft contact lenses? A. hydrogen peroxide B. alcohol C. hexachlorophene D. glutaraldehyde E. hypochorites

39. All of the following are correct about food irradiation, except A. food is not made radioactive by the process. B. the World Health Organization does not endorse this process. C. it is approved in the U.S. for beef, chicken, and pork. D. it can lead to a longer shelf life for the irradiated food. E. no irradiated food can be sold without clear labeling.

40. All of the following are benefits of food irradiation, except A. it can kill bacterial pathogens on the food. B. it can kill insects on the food.


C. it can inhibit the sprouting of white potatoes. D. it can reduce the number of food-borne deaths each year. E. it makes the food less nutritious.

41. All of the following are methods of disinfection or sterilization, except A. gamma radiation. B. dry oven. C. lyophilization. D. triclosan. E. ethanol. 42. Historically, which of the following was instilled into the eyes of newborn infants to prevent gonococcal infections? A. triclosan B. formaldehyde C. phenol D. silver nitrate E. mercurochrome 43. Which common hospital pathogen is able to grow abundantly in soap dishes?

A. Escherichia coli B. Pseudomonas C. Hemophilus influenzae D. Mycobacteria tuberculosis E. Salmonella 44. All of the following are correct about the autoclave, except A. it is important not to overload the chamber. B. it is effective for sterilizing powders, oils, and waxy substances. C. the duration of the process depends on how fuRllSth eGcThB am r is. NU IN .CbOeM D. it is the temperature that kills the microbes, not the pressure by itself. E. sterilization is achieved when steam condenses against the objects in the chamber and raises their temperatures. 45. Using toilet bowl cleaner and nonionizing radiation on inanimate surfaces only removes or kills vegetative bacteria. The term that best describes this action is A. sterilization. B. disinfection. C. antisepsis. D. degermation. 46. Which of the following types of agents targets protein conformation? A. detergents B. ultraviolet light C. alcohol D. hydrogen peroxide E. crystal violet 47. Which of these metals have antimicrobial properties associated with them? A. Silver B. Gold C. Tin D. Aluminum E. both silver and gold 48. Bacteriocidal agents are sterilants.


True False 49. Commercial products containing which types of chemicals are more effective at killing microorganisms? A. bacteriostatic B. bacteriocidal C. carbohydrate D. lead 50. Bacteriostatic agents kill bacterial cells. True False 51. The presence of organic matter such as saliva and pus can interfere with the actions of disinfectants. True False 52. When a control agent targets the metabolic processes of microbial cells, active younger cells typically die more rapidly than older cells. True False 53. A microorganism that is not motile and has stopped metabolizing could be considered dead. True False 54. Most microbial contaminants of food are killed at freezing temperatures. True False 55. Filtration is an effective method to remove microbes from air and liquids. True False OcM 56. Chlorine compounds remain stable and effectiN veUiR nStIhNeGpTreBs.C en e of excess organic matter. True False 57. Aniline dyes like crystal violet have antimicrobial activity particularly against gram-positive bacteria and some fungi. True False 58. Alcohols are more effective at inactivating enveloped viruses than naked viruses. True False 59. Isopropyl alcohol wiped across a skin site can sterilize it. True False 60. Chlorine dioxide and ethylene oxide are gaseous sterilants. True False 61.

heat is more rapidly effective and efficient compared to

heat.

62. Vials of microorganisms that undergo the freeze-drying process called years. 63. A method for sterilizing milk, called

will remain preserved and viable for

temperature treatment, uses 134°C for 1 to 2 seconds.


64.

radiation excites atoms to a higher energy state within molecules such as DNA that then leads to the formation of pyrimidine dimers.

65. Some microbial control agents are able to cell proteins by breaking bonds that maintain the native state, three-dimensional configuration of the proteins. 66.

filters are widely used to provide a flow of sterile air to hospital rooms.

67.

is a halogen used in gaseous and liquid form for large scale disinfection of drinking water and sewage.

68.

or steam sterilization is the process by which steam is heated under pressure to sterilize objects.

69. Compare and contrast antisepsis, disinfection, sanitization, and sterilization with regard to techniques used and level of microbial control achieved. 70. Discuss the purpose and level of control achieved by pasteurization. Compare the flash and batch methods. 71. Explain why boiling water is considered disinfection, not a sterilization method. List three materials commonly disinfected by boiling water. 72. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of irradiating food. Include examples of foods that are irradiated. 73. Discuss the technique of filtration as a microbial control method, why it's utilized, and specific materials that are filtered. 74. For each item listed below, select a sterilant that you feel is the most suitable and effective for that item. Discuss why you selected each sterilant. NURSINGTB.COM A) plastic Petri dishes to be used for nutrient media B) glass tubes of bacterial cultures to be discarded C) sterile milk D) dozens of reusable glass pipets E) bone tissue for grafting F) room air G) hospital mattresses H) biopsy tissue for histology analysis I) plastic respiratory therapy equipment and arthroscopes J) vaccines 75. Physical methods of microbial control will typically sterilize, whereas chemical methods will only disinfect. True False 76. Moist heat damages microorganisms by A. oxidation of cellular components. B. damaging the phospholipid bilayer. C. damaging the cells nucleic acids. D. denaturing and coagulating cellular proteins. 77. Which method of microbial control destroys microorganisms by oxidation of cells? A. steam autoclave B. use of glutaraldehyde C. use of UV radiation D. incineration


78. Moist heat is more efficient at killing microbes and is effective at lower temperatures or shorter exposure times than dry heat. True False 79. The thermal death time for E. coli at 63°C was determined to be 20 minutes. Predict the affect on thermal death time if the temperature is increased to 67°C. A. The thermal death time will be longer. B. The thermal death time will be shorter. C. There will be no change in thermal death time. D. There is not enough information to make this prediction. 80. The thermal death point of a strain of Stapylcococcus aureus was determined to be 63°C. How would the the thermal death point of Bacillus subtilis compare?

A. The thermal death point of Bacillus subtilis would be just slightly higher than that of Staphylococcus aureus. B. The thermal death point of Bacillus subtilis would be significantly higher than that of Staphylococcus aureus. C. The thermal death point of Bacillus subtilis would be the same as that of Staphylococcus aureus. D. The thermal death point of Bacillus subtilis would be lower that of Staphylococcus aureus. 81. Which of the following sequences of DNA would most likely be damaged by UV radiation? A. AGTACGCAT B. AGTTCGCTT C. AGAGCGCAT D. ATAGAGCGC

82. Triclosan, a common ingredient in antimicrobial hand soaps available to consumers, has recently been banned by the FDA (Food and Drug Administration). All of the following are concerns regarding the use of triclosan, except A. Scientific evidence does not demonstrate thNaU t tRriScIlo -s.C upOpM lemented soaps are any more effective than NsGaTnB plain soap and water for hand hygiene. B. There are concerns that triclosan may be a hormone disruptor. C. Wide spread use of triclosan may favor the survival and growth and of highly resistant bacteria. D. Wide spread regular use of triclosan could interfere with the maintenance of healthy normal microbiota. E. These are all concerns that have been expressed about triclosan use. There are no exceptions here.


Chapter 11 Testbank Key 1.

Microbiological contaminants are best described as A. unwanted microbes present on or in a substance. B. any and all microbes present on or in a substance. C. pathogenic microbes present on or in a substance. D. vegetative microbes present on or in a substance. ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems.

ASM Objective: 08.02 Use pure culture and selective techniques to enrich for and isolate microorganisms. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.03 Define and differentiate among the major terms for microbial control, citing examples of each. Section: 11.01

Topic: Basics of Microbial Control

2.

All of the following are major categories of microbial control methods except A. physical agents. B. chemical agents. C. mechanical removal methods. D. genetic methods. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.01 Summarize the major categories of microbial control and its purposes. Section: 11.01

Topic: Basics of Microbial Control Topic: Chemical Control Methods Topic: Physical Control Methods

3.

Which of the following types of control agents would be most likely to achieve sterility? A. virucide B. bactericide C. germicide D. sporicide E. fungicide ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.03 Define and differentiate among the major terms for microbial control, citing examples of each.

Learning Outcome: 11.06 Identify the targets of antimicrobial control agents, and explain what effects these agents have. Section: 11.01

Topic: Basics of Microbial Control

4.

Physical agents for controlling microbial growth include all of the following, except A. ultraviolet radiation. B. boiling water. C. HEPA filters. D. pasteurization. E. hydrogen peroxide. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 08.02 Use pure culture and selective techniques to enrich for and isolate microorganisms. ASM Objective: 08.06 Practice safe microbiology, using appropriate protective and emergency procedures. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.01 Summarize the major categories of microbial control and its purposes.

Learning Outcome: 11.07 List the major types of physical agents used in controlling microbes. Section: 11.02

Topic: Physical Control Methods


5.

The process that destroys or removes all microorganisms and microbial forms including bacterial endospores is A. disinfection. B. sterilization. C. antisepsis. D. sanitization. E. degermation. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.03 Define and differentiate among the major terms for microbial control, citing examples of each. Section: 11.01

Topic: Basics of Microbial Control

6.

Which of the following microbial forms have the highest resistance to physical and chemical controls? A. naked viruses B. protozoan cysts C. fungal spores D. bacterial endospores E. yeast ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.02 Evaluate the relative resistance of different groups of infectious agents. Section: 11.01

Topic: Basics of Microbial Control

7.

The process of using a cleansing technique to mechanically remove and reduce microorganisms and debris to safe levels is A. disinfection. B. sterilization. C. antisepsis. D. sanitization. E. degermation. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.03 Define and differentiate among the major terms for microbial control, citing examples of each. Section: 11.01

Topic: Basics of Microbial Control

8.

The use of a physical or chemical process to destroy vegetative pathogens on inanimate objects is A. disinfection. B. sterilization. C. antisepsis. D. sanitization. E. degermation. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.03 Define and differentiate among the major terms for microbial control, citing examples of each. Section: 11.01

Topic: Basics of Microbial Control

9.

The use of chemical agents directly on exposed body surfaces to destroy or inhibit vegetative pathogens is A. disinfection. B. sterilization. C. antisepsis. D. sanitization. E. degermation. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means.


ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.03 Define and differentiate among the major terms for microbial control, citing examples of each. Section: 11.01

Topic: Basics of Microbial Control

10.

Scrubbing or immersing the skin in chemicals to reduce the numbers of microbes on the skin is A. disinfection. B. sterilization. C. sanitization. D. degermation. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.03 Define and differentiate among the major terms for microbial control, citing examples of each. Section: 11.01

Topic: Basics of Microbial Control

11.

Which is correct regarding the rate of microbial death? A. Cells die at increasingly greater rates. B. Only older cells die in a culture. C. Cells in a culture die at a constant rate. D. Upon contact with the control agent, all cells die at one time. E. Cells become metabolically inactive but are never killed. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.04 Characterize the parameters of microbial death, and describe several factors that influence the rate of death. Section: 11.01 Topic: Basics of Microbial Control

12.

Sterilization is achieved by A. flash pasteurization. B. hot water. C. boiling water. D. steam autoclave. E. All of these choices are correct.

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.11 Describe several moist heat methods and their chief applications for sterilization and disinfection. Section: 11.02

Topic: Physical Control Methods

13.

Dry heat A. is less efficient than moist heat. B. cannot sterilize. C. includes tyndallization. D. is used in devices called autoclaves. E. will sterilize at 121°C for 15 minutes. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.09 Define moist and dry heat, and explain their modes of action and relative efectiveness.

Learning Outcome: 11.12 Describe some methods using dry heat and its chief applications. Section: 11.02

Topic: Physical Control Methods

14.

Endospores can be killed by A. dry heat at 170°C for 2 hours. B. incineration. C. glutaldehyde for 8 or more hours. D. ethylene oxide for 3 or more hours. E. All of these choices are correct.


ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.09 Define moist and dry heat, and explain their modes of action and relative efectiveness.

Learning Outcome: 11.11 Describe several moist heat methods and their chief applications for sterilization and disinfection. Learning Outcome: 11.12 Describe some methods using dry heat and its chief applications. Learning Outcome: 11.22 Describe the characteristics of oxidizing agents and aldehydes, and summarize their main applications. Learning Outcome: 11.23 Differentiate among the sterilizing gases and aerosols, and describe how they are used. Section: 11.02 Section: 11.04 Topic: Basics of Microbial Control Topic: Chemical Control Methods Topic: Physical Control Methods

15.

The minimum sterilizing conditions in a steam autoclave are A. 121°C at 15 psi for 15 minutes. B. 63°C for 30 minutes. C. 160°C for 2 hours. D. 71.6°C for 15 seconds. E. 100°C for 30 minutes. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.11 Describe several moist heat methods and their chief applications for sterilization and disinfection. Section: 11.02

Topic: Physical Control Methods

16.

The shortest time required to kill all the microbes in a sample at a specified temperature is called the A. thermal death point (TDP). B. thermal death time (TDT). C. sporicidal time. D. death phase point. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways NURSINGTB.COM Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.10 Differentiate between thermal death point and thermal death time, and provide examples of their uses. Section: 11.02

Topic: Physical Control Methods

17.

Disinfection of beverages, such as apple juice, milk, and wine, is optimally achieved by A. pasteurization. B. chlorination. C. moist heat autoclave. D. filtration. E. boiling water. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.11 Describe several moist heat methods and their chief applications for sterilization and disinfection. Section: 11.02

Topic: Physical Control Methods

18.

Electrons are ejected from atoms in cells when organisms are exposed to A. dessication. B. ultraviolet light. C. ethyl alcohol. D. hydrogen peroxide. E. gamma rays and X-rays. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.14 Define radiation and assess the use of irradiation as a method of microbial control. Learning Outcome: 11.15 Differentiate between ionizing and nonionizing radiation in their modes of action. Section: 11.03

Topic: Physical Control Methods

19.

Which of the following items are typically irradiated in order to kill microbes?


A. ground beef and other meat and poultry B. human tissues such as heart valves and skin C. operating room air D. surgical gloves E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 11.16 Summarize the primary uses of ionizing and nonionizing radiation in sterilization and disinfection. Section: 11.03

Topic: Physical Control Methods

20.

HEPA filters are used to remove microbes from A. air. B. liquids. C. human tissues. D. medical instruments. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.07 List the major types of physical agents used in controlling microbes. Learning Outcome: 11.17 Describe the concept behind sterilization by filtration, including examples of applications. Section: 11.03

Topic: Physical Control Methods

21.

Which of the following does not contain a heavy metal? A. tincture of iodine B. merthiolate C. silver nitrate solutions D. zinc E. mercurochrome

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of micN roU orR gaSnIiN sm GsTcB an.CbO eM controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.24 Explain how detergents, soaps, and heavy metals can be employed in clinical, commercial, and household microbial control. Section: 11.04 Topic: Chemical Control Methods

22.

All of the following are phenols or phenolics, except A. lysol. B. hexachlorophene. C. triclosan. D. cresols. E. chloramines. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.21 Identify the characteristics of phenolic compounds and alcohols, explian how they act, and evaluate their primary uses. Section: 11.04

Topic: Chemical Control Methods

23.

The easiest microbial forms to kill or inhibit are A. naked viruses. B. vegetative bacteria and fungi. C. endospores. D. protozoan cysts. E. Mycobacterium and Staphylococcus. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.02 Evaluate the relative resistance of different groups of infectious agents. Section: 11.01

Topic: Basics of Microbial Control


24.

Which control method would not be a suitable choice for killing Mycobacteria in a capped culture tube? A. ultraviolet (germicidal) light B. gamma rays C. 121°C at 15 psi for 15 minutes D. 160°C for 2 hours E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 11.09 Define moist and dry heat, and explain their modes of action and relative efectiveness.

Learning Outcome: 11.15 Differentiate between ionizing and nonionizing radiation in their modes of action. Learning Outcome: 11.16 Summarize the primary uses of ionizing and nonionizing radiation in sterilization and disinfection. Section: 11.02 Section: 11.03

25.

All of the following pertain to hypochlorites, except

Topic: Physical Control Methods

A. they release hypochlorous acid in solution. B. they cause denaturation of enzymes. C. they are found in iodophors. D. they are used to disinfect dairy, restaurant, and medical equipment. E. they are found in common household bleach. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.20 Describe the types of halogens, their modes of action, and their clinical and commercial applications. Section: 11.04

Topic: Chemical Control Methods

26.

Iodophors include A. chloramines. B. povidone iodine. C. tincture of iodine. D. alcohols. E. chlorhexidine. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.19 Explain the desirable features of antimicrobial chemicals and what factors influence their effectiveness. Learning Outcome: 11.20 Describe the types of halogens, their modes of action, and their clinical and commercial applications. Section: 11.04

Topic: Chemical Control Methods

27.

Which of the following is not used as an antiseptic? A. iodophor B. chlorhexidine C. 3% hydrogen peroxide D. ethyl alcohol E. aqueous glutaraldehyde ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.19 Explain the desirable features of antimicrobial chemicals and what factors influence their effectiveness. Learning Outcome: 11.22 Describe the characteristics of oxidizing agents and aldehydes, and summarize their main applications. Section: 11.04

Topic: Chemical Control Methods

28.

The compound that is an organic base containing chlorine and two phenolic rings and is used increasingly for hand scrubbing, neonatal washes, wound degerming, and prepping surgical skin sites is A. carbolic acid. B. chlorhexidine. C. triclosan. D. formalin. E. quarternary ammonium compounds.


ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.20 Describe the types of halogens, their modes of action, and their clinical and commercial applications.

Learning Outcome: 11.21 Identify the characteristics of phenolic compounds and alcohols, explian how they act, and evaluate their primary uses. Section: 11.04

Topic: Chemical Control Methods

29.

Alcohols A. denature proteins when in a 50–95% solution. B. are used to disinfect items by soaking. C. are skin degerming agents. D. at 50% or higher concentrations dissolve cell membrane lipids. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.21 Identify the characteristics of phenolic compounds and alcohols, explian how they act, and evaluate their primary uses. Section: 11.04

Topic: Chemical Control Methods

30.

Which is mismatched? A. sodium hypochlorite–chlorine B. iodophor–iodine C. benzalkoniumchloride–quaternary ammonium compound D. chlorhexidine–alcohol E. formalin–formaldehyde ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.20 Describe the types of halogens, their modes of action, and their clinical and commercial applications.

Learning Outcome: 11.22 Describe the characteristics of oxidizing agents and aldehydes, and summarize their main applications. Learning Outcome: 11.24 Explain how detergents, soaps, and heavy metals can be employed in clinical, commercial, and household microbial control. Section: 11.04 Topic: Chemical Control Methods

31.

NURSINGTB.COM All of the following are correct about iodophors, except A. they are complexes of iodine and a neutral polymer. B. this formulation allows a quick release of free iodine. C. this formulation increases its penetration. D. it is less prone to staining or irritating tissue. E. a common iodophor is Betadine.

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.20 Describe the types of halogens, their modes of action, and their clinical and commercial applications. Section: 11.04

Topic: Chemical Control Methods

32.

The sterilizing gas used in a special chamber is A. ethylene oxide. B. iodophor. C. glutaraldehyde. D. formaldehyde. E. chlorine dioxide. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.23 Differentiate among the sterilizing gases and aerosols, and describe how they are used. Section: 11.04

Topic: Chemical Control Methods

33.

The chemical agent(s) that produces highly reactive hydroxyl-free radicals and also decomposes to O2 gas is/ are A. Cidex. B. cationic detergents.


C. hydrogen peroxide. D. chlorhexidine. E. iodophors.

34.

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.22 Describe the characteristics of oxidizing agents and aldehydes, and summarize their main applications. Section: 11.04

All the following are correct about detergents, except

A. they are polar molecules that act as surfactants. B. the most effective ones are positively charged. C. in low concentrations they are bacteriostatic. D. they are ineffective against the tuberculosis bacteria. E. they are active in the presence of organic matter. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.24 Explain how detergents, soaps, and heavy metals can be employed in clinical, commercial, and household microbial control. Section: 11.04 Topic: Chemical Control Methods

35.

Ethylene oxide is A. sporicidal. B. only effective with high heat. C. the active agent in household bleach. D. used as an antiseptic against anaerobes. E. a halogen. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.23 Differentiate among the sterilizing gases and aerosols, and describe how they are used.

Section: 11.04

36.

NURSINGTB.COM Topic: Chemical Control Methods Which of the following is being used to replace hypochlorites in treating water because of the possibility of cancer-causing substances being produced? A. hydrogen peroxide B. chloramines C. fluorine D. quaternary ammonium compounds E. sodium iodide ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.20 Describe the types of halogens, their modes of action, and their clinical and commercial applications. Section: 11.04

Topic: Chemical Control Methods

37.

Which of the following is officially accepted as a sterilant and high-level disinfectant? A. benzalkonium chloride B. silver nitrate C. glutaraldehyde D. triclosan E. cresol ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.22 Describe the characteristics of oxidizing agents and aldehydes, and summarize their main applications. Section: 11.04

Topic: Chemical Control Methods

38.

Which of the following chemicals is a disinfectant for soft contact lenses?


A. hydrogen peroxide B. alcohol C. hexachlorophene D. glutaraldehyde E. hypochorites ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.22 Describe the characteristics of oxidizing agents and aldehydes, and summarize their main applications. Section: 11.04

39.

All of the following are correct about food irradiation, except

Topic: Chemical Control Methods

A. food is not made radioactive by the process. B. the World Health Organization does not endorse this process. C. it is approved in the U.S. for beef, chicken, and pork. D. it can lead to a longer shelf life for the irradiated food. E. no irradiated food can be sold without clear labeling. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.14 Define radiation and assess the use of irradiation as a method of microbial control. Learning Outcome: 11.16 Summarize the primary uses of ionizing and nonionizing radiation in sterilization and disinfection. Section: 11.03

40.

Topic: Physical Control Methods

All of the following are benefits of food irradiation, except A. it can kill bacterial pathogens on the food. B. it can kill insects on the food. C. it can inhibit the sprouting of white potatoes. D. it can reduce the number of food-borne deaths each year. E. it makes the food less nutritious. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of micN roU orR gaSnIiN sm GsTcB an.CbO eM controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.14 Define radiation and assess the use of irradiation as a method of microbial control. Learning Outcome: 11.16 Summarize the primary uses of ionizing and nonionizing radiation in sterilization and disinfection. Section: 11.03

41.

Topic: Physical Control Methods

All of the following are methods of disinfection or sterilization, except A. gamma radiation. B. dry oven. C. lyophilization. D. triclosan. E. ethanol. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.13 Explain how cold temperatures and desiccation are used in microbial control. Section: 11.02 Section: 11.03 Section: 11.04

Topic: Physical Control Methods

42.

Historically, which of the following was instilled into the eyes of newborn infants to prevent gonococcal infections? A. triclosan B. formaldehyde C. phenol D. silver nitrate E. mercurochrome ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways


Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.19 Explain the desirable features of antimicrobial chemicals and what factors influence their effectiveness. Learning Outcome: 11.24 Explain how detergents, soaps, and heavy metals can be employed in clinical, commercial, and household microbial control. Section: 11.04 Topic: Chemical Control Methods

43.

Which common hospital pathogen is able to grow abundantly in soap dishes?

A. Escherichia coli B. Pseudomonas C. Hemophilus influenzae D. Mycobacteria tuberculosis E. Salmonella

44.

ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.24 Explain how detergents, soaps, and heavy metals can be employed in clinical, commercial, and household microbial control. Section: 11.04 Topic: Chemical Control Methods

All of the following are correct about the autoclave, except A. it is important not to overload the chamber. B. it is effective for sterilizing powders, oils, and waxy substances. C. the duration of the process depends on how full the chamber is. D. it is the temperature that kills the microbes, not the pressure by itself. E. sterilization is achieved when steam condenses against the objects in the chamber and raises their temperatures. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 08.06 Practice safe microbiology, using appropriate protective and emergency procedures. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways

ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.11 Describe several moist heat methods and their chief applications for sterilization and disinfection. Section: 11.02 NURSINGTB.COM Topic: Physical Control Methods

45.

Using toilet bowl cleaner and nonionizing radiation on inanimate surfaces only removes or kills vegetative bacteria. The term that best describes this action is A. sterilization. B. disinfection. C. antisepsis. D. degermation. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.03 Define and differentiate among the major terms for microbial control, citing examples of each. Section: 11.01

Topic: Basics of Microbial Control

46.

Which of the following types of agents targets protein conformation? A. detergents B. ultraviolet light C. alcohol D. hydrogen peroxide E. crystal violet ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.21 Identify the characteristics of phenolic compounds and alcohols, explian how they act, and evaluate their primary uses. Section: 11.04

Topic: Chemical Control Methods

47.

Which of these metals have antimicrobial properties associated with them? A. Silver B. Gold


C. Tin D. Aluminum E. both silver and gold ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.24 Explain how detergents, soaps, and heavy metals can be employed in clinical, commercial, and household microbial control. Section: 11.04 Topic: Chemical Control Methods

48.

Bacteriocidal agents are sterilants. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.03 Define and differentiate among the major terms for microbial control, citing examples of each. Learning Outcome: 11.18 Define the terms that are used to describe different methods of chemical control of microbes. Section: 11.01

Topic: Chemical Control Methods

49.

Commercial products containing which types of chemicals are more effective at killing microorganisms? A. bacteriostatic B. bacteriocidal C. carbohydrate D. lead ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.03 Define and differentiate among the major terms for microbial control, citing examples of each.

Learning Outcome: 11.19 Explain the desirable features of antimicrobial chemicals and what factors influence their effectiveness. Section: 11.01

Topic: Chemical Control Methods

50.

Bacteriostatic agents kill bacterial cells. FALSE

NURSINGTB.COM ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.03 Define and differentiate among the major terms for microbial control, citing examples of each. Learning Outcome: 11.18 Define the terms that are used to describe different methods of chemical control of microbes. Section: 11.01

Topic: Chemical Control Methods

51.

The presence of organic matter such as saliva and pus can interfere with the actions of disinfectants. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.05 Summarize what practices in microbial control influence the effectiveness of an antimicrobial agent.

Learning Outcome: 11.06 Identify the targets of antimicrobial control agents, and explain what effects these agents have. Section: 11.01

Topic: Basics of Microbial Control

52.

When a control agent targets the metabolic processes of microbial cells, active younger cells typically die more rapidly than older cells. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.04 Characterize the parameters of microbial death, and describe several factors that influence the rate of death.

Learning Outcome: 11.06 Identify the targets of antimicrobial control agents, and explain what effects these agents have. Section: 11.01

Topic: Basics of Microbial Control

53.

A microorganism that is not motile and has stopped metabolizing could be considered dead.


FALSE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.02 Evaluate the relative resistance of different groups of infectious agents. Learning Outcome: 11.04 Characterize the parameters of microbial death, and describe several factors that influence the rate of death. Section: 11.01

Topic: Basics of Microbial Control

54.

Most microbial contaminants of food are killed at freezing temperatures. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.13 Explain how cold temperatures and desiccation are used in microbial control. Section: 11.02

Topic: Physical Control Methods

55.

Filtration is an effective method to remove microbes from air and liquids. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.17 Describe the concept behind sterilization by filtration, including examples of applications. Section: 11.03

Topic: Physical Control Methods

56.

Chlorine compounds remain stable and effective in the presence of excess organic matter. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.05 Summarize what practices in microbial control influence the effectiveness of an antimicrobial agent. Learning Outcome: 11.20 Describe the types of halogens, their modes of action, and their clinical and commercial applications. Section: 11.04 NURSINGTB.COM

Topic: Chemical Control Methods

57.

Aniline dyes like crystal violet have antimicrobial activity particularly against gram-positive bacteria and some fungi. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.19 Explain the desirable features of antimicrobial chemicals and what factors influence their effectiveness. Section: 11.04

Topic: Chemical Control Methods

58.

Alcohols are more effective at inactivating enveloped viruses than naked viruses. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.21 Identify the characteristics of phenolic compounds and alcohols, explian how they act, and evaluate their primary uses. Section: 11.04

Topic: Chemical Control Methods

59.

Isopropyl alcohol wiped across a skin site can sterilize it. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.21 Identify the characteristics of phenolic compounds and alcohols, explian how they act, and evaluate their primary uses. Section: 11.04

Topic: Chemical Control Methods

60.

Chlorine dioxide and ethylene oxide are gaseous sterilants.


TRUE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.23 Differentiate among the sterilizing gases and aerosols, and describe how they are used. Section: 11.04

Topic: Chemical Control Methods

61.

heat is more rapidly effective and efficient compared to

heat.

Moist; Wet; dry ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.09 Define moist and dry heat, and explain their modes of action and relative efectiveness. Section: 11.02

Topic: Physical Control Methods

62.

Vials of microorganisms that undergo the freeze-drying process called for years.

will remain preserved and viable

lypophilization ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.13 Explain how cold temperatures and desiccation are used in microbial control. Section: 11.02

Topic: Physical Control Methods

63.

A method for sterilizing milk, called

temperature treatment, uses 134°C for 1 to 2 seconds.

ultrahigh; UH; UHT ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.09 Define moist and dry heat, and explain their modes of action and relative efectiveness.

Learning Outcome: 11.11 Describe several moist heat methods and their chief applications for sterilization and disinfection.

NURSINGTB.COM

Section: 11.02

Topic: Basics of Microbial Control Topic: Physical Control Methods

64.

radiation excites atoms to a higher energy state within molecules such as DNA that then leads to the formation of pyrimidine dimers. Nonionizing; UV; Ultraviolet ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.15 Differentiate between ionizing and nonionizing radiation in their modes of action. Section: 11.03

Topic: Physical Control Methods

65.

Some microbial control agents are able to cell proteins by breaking bonds that maintain the native state, three-dimensional configuration of the proteins. denature; destroy; damage ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.08 Describe the basic effects of temperature on microbes.

Learning Outcome: 11.21 Identify the characteristics of phenolic compounds and alcohols, explian how they act, and evaluate their primary uses. Section: 11.02 Section: 11.04

Topic: Basics of Microbial Control Topic: Chemical Control Methods

Topic: Physical Control Methods

66.

_ filters are widely used to provide a flow of sterile air to hospital rooms. HEPA ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways


Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.17 Describe the concept behind sterilization by filtration, including examples of applications. Section: 11.03

Topic: Physical Control Methods

67.

is a halogen used in gaseous and liquid form for large scale disinfection of drinking water and sewage. Chlorine; Cl ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.20 Describe the types of halogens, their modes of action, and their clinical and commercial applications. Section: 11.04

Topic: Chemical Control Methods

68.

or steam sterilization is the process by which steam is heated under pressure to sterilize objects. Autoclaving ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.11 Describe several moist heat methods and their chief applications for sterilization and disinfection. Section: 11.02

Topic: Physical Control Methods

69.

Compare and contrast antisepsis, disinfection, sanitization, and sterilization with regard to techniques used and level of microbial control achieved. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 11.03 Define and differentiate among the major terms for microbial control, citing examples of each. Section: 11.01

Topic: Basics of Microbial Control

70.

Discuss the purpose and level of control achieved by pasteurization. Compare the flash and batch methods. GsTcB ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of micN roU orR gaSnIiN sm an.CbO eM controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 11.11 Describe several moist heat methods and their chief applications for sterilization and disinfection. Section: 11.02

Topic: Physical Control Methods

71.

Explain why boiling water is considered disinfection, not a sterilization method. List three materials commonly disinfected by boiling water. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 11.03 Define and differentiate among the major terms for microbial control, citing examples of each.

Learning Outcome: 11.11 Describe several moist heat methods and their chief applications for sterilization and disinfection. Section: 11.02

Topic: Physical Control Methods

72.

Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of irradiating food. Include examples of foods that are irradiated. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 11.14 Define radiation and assess the use of irradiation as a method of microbial control. Section: 11.03

Topic: Physical Control Methods

73.

Discuss the technique of filtration as a microbial control method, why it's utilized, and specific materials that are filtered. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 11.17 Describe the concept behind sterilization by filtration, including examples of applications. Section: 11.03

Topic: Physical Control Methods


74.

For each item listed below, select a sterilant that you feel is the most suitable and effective for that item. Discuss why you selected each sterilant. A) plastic Petri dishes to be used for nutrient media B) glass tubes of bacterial cultures to be discarded C) sterile milk D) dozens of reusable glass pipets E) bone tissue for grafting F) room air G) hospital mattresses H) biopsy tissue for histology analysis I) plastic respiratory therapy equipment and arthroscopes J) vaccines ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 11.07 List the major types of physical agents used in controlling microbes. Learning Outcome: 11.11 Describe several moist heat methods and their chief applications for sterilization and disinfection. Learning Outcome: 11.12 Describe some methods using dry heat and its chief applications. Learning Outcome: 11.16 Summarize the primary uses of ionizing and nonionizing radiation in sterilization and disinfection. Learning Outcome: 11.17 Describe the concept behind sterilization by filtration, including examples of applications.

Learning Outcome: 11.19 Explain the desirable features of antimicrobial chemicals and what factors influence their effectiveness. Section: 11.02 Section: 11.03 Section: 11.04

Topic: Basics of Microbial Control

75.

Physical methods of microbial control will typically sterilize, whereas chemical methods will only disinfect. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.01 Summarize the major categories of microbial control and its purposes. Section: 11.01

Topic: Basics of Microbial Control

NURSINGTB.COM 76.

Topic: Chemical Control Methods

Topic: Physical Control Methods

Moist heat damages microorganisms by A. oxidation of cellular components. B. damaging the phospholipid bilayer. C. damaging the cells nucleic acids. D. denaturing and coagulating cellular proteins. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.08 Describe the basic effects of temperature on microbes. Section: 11.02

Topic: Physical Control Methods

77.

Which method of microbial control destroys microorganisms by oxidation of cells? A. steam autoclave B. use of glutaraldehyde C. use of UV radiation D. incineration ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.08 Describe the basic effects of temperature on microbes. Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical Control Methods

78.

Moist heat is more efficient at killing microbes and is effective at lower temperatures or shorter exposure times than dry heat. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways


Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 11.09 Define moist and dry heat, and explain their modes of action and relative efectiveness. Section: 11.02

Topic: Physical Control Methods

79.

The thermal death time for E. coli at 63°C was determined to be 20 minutes. Predict the affect on thermal death time if the temperature is increased to 67°C. A. The thermal death time will be longer. B. The thermal death time will be shorter. C. There will be no change in thermal death time. D. There is not enough information to make this prediction. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 11.10 Differentiate between thermal death point and thermal death time, and provide examples of their uses. Section: 11.02

Topic: Physical Control Methods

80.

The thermal death point of a strain of Stapylcococcus aureus was determined to be 63°C. How would the the thermal death point of Bacillus subtilis compare?

A. The thermal death point of Bacillus subtilis would be just slightly higher than that of Staphylococcus aureus. B. The thermal death point of Bacillus subtilis would be significantly higher than that of Staphylococcus aureus. C. The thermal death point of Bacillus subtilis would be the same as that of Staphylococcus aureus. D. The thermal death point of Bacillus subtilis would be lower that of Staphylococcus aureus. ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 11.10 Differentiate between thermal death point and thermal death time, and provide examples of their uses. Section: 11.02

Topic: Physical Control Methods

81.

Which of the following sequences of DNA would most likely be damaged by UV radiation? A. AGTACGCAT B. AGTTCGCTT C. AGAGCGCAT D. ATAGAGCGC

82.

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze Learning Outcome: 11.15 Differentiate between ionizing and nonionizing radiation in their modes of action. Section: 11.03 Topic: Physical Control Methods

Triclosan, a common ingredient in antimicrobial hand soaps available to consumers, has recently been banned by the FDA (Food and Drug Administration). All of the following are concerns regarding the use of triclosan, except A. Scientific evidence does not demonstrate that triclosan-supplemented soaps are any more effective than plain soap and water for hand hygiene. B. There are concerns that triclosan may be a hormone disruptor. C. Wide spread use of triclosan may favor the survival and growth and of highly resistant bacteria. D. Wide spread regular use of triclosan could interfere with the maintenance of healthy normal microbiota. E. These are all concerns that have been expressed about triclosan use. There are no exceptions here. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 11.21 Identify the characteristics of phenolic compounds and alcohols, explian how they act, and evaluate their primary uses. Learning Outcome: 11.24 Explain how detergents, soaps, and heavy metals can be employed in clinical, commercial, and household microbial control. Section: 11.04 Topic: Chemical Control Methods


Chapter 11 Testbank Summary Category

# of Questions

ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that ofte n confer critical capabilities. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metaboli c characteristics. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biologic al means.

3 2 81

ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems.

1

ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

1

ASM Objective: 08.02 Use pure culture and selective techniques to enrich for and isolate microorganisms.

2

ASM Objective: 08.06 Practice safe microbiology, using appropriate protective and emergency procedures.

2

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function

3

ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways

79

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems

2

ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills

3

Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

27

Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand

42

Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply

12

Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze

1

Learning Outcome: 11.01 Summarize the major categories of microbial control and its purposes.

3

Learning Outcome: 11.02 Evaluate the relative resistance of different groups of infectious agents. Learning Outcome: 11.03 Define and differentiate among the major terms for microbial control, citing examples of ea ch. Learning Outcome: 11.04 Characterize the parameters of microbial death, and describe several factors that influence the rate of death. Learning Outcome: 11.05 Summarize what practices in N mU icR roSbIia coTnBtr.oCl O inM fluence the effectiveness of an antimicrobi Nl G al agent. Learning Outcome: 11.06 Identify the targets of antimicrobial control agents, and explain what effects these agents h ave.

3 13

Learning Outcome: 11.07 List the major types of physical agents used in controlling microbes.

3

Learning Outcome: 11.08 Describe the basic effects of temperature on microbes.

3

Learning Outcome: 11.09 Define moist and dry heat, and explain their modes of action and relative efectiveness. Learning Outcome: 11.10 Differentiate between thermal death point and thermal death time, and provide examples of their uses. Learning Outcome: 11.11 Describe several moist heat methods and their chief applications for sterilization and disinf ection.

6 3

3 2 3

10

Learning Outcome: 11.12 Describe some methods using dry heat and its chief applications.

3

Learning Outcome: 11.13 Explain how cold temperatures and desiccation are used in microbial control.

3

Learning Outcome: 11.14 Define radiation and assess the use of irradiation as a method of microbial control.

4

Learning Outcome: 11.15 Differentiate between ionizing and nonionizing radiation in their modes of action. Learning Outcome: 11.16 Summarize the primary uses of ionizing and nonionizing radiation in sterilization and disinf ection.

4 5

Learning Outcome: 11.17 Describe the concept behind sterilization by filtration, including examples of applications. Learning Outcome: 11.18 Define the terms that are used to describe different methods of chemical control of microbe s. Learning Outcome: 11.19 Explain the desirable features of antimicrobial chemicals and what factors influence their ef fectiveness. Learning Outcome: 11.20 Describe the types of halogens, their modes of action, and their clinical and commercial ap plications. Learning Outcome: 11.21 Identify the characteristics of phenolic compounds and alcohols, explian how they act, and evaluate their primary uses. Learning Outcome: 11.22 Describe the characteristics of oxidizing agents and aldehydes, and summarize their main applications.

5 2

Learning Outcome: 11.23 Differentiate among the sterilizing gases and aerosols, and describe how they are used. Learning Outcome: 11.24 Explain how detergents, soaps, and heavy metals can be employed in clinical, commercial,

4 7

6 8 8 6


and household microbial control.

NURSINGTB.COM


Section: 11.01

20

Section: 11.02

24

Section: 11.03

14

Section: 11.04

31

Topic: Basics of Microbial Control

21

Topic: Chemical Control Methods Topic: Physical Control Methods

33 36


Chapter 12 Testbank Student:

1.

Which is mismatched? A. Fleming–penicillin B. Domagk–sulfonamide C. Ehrlich–tetracycline D. Florey and Chain–penicillin

2.

Salvarsan was A. discovered in the mid 1900s. B. used to treat syphilis. C. formulated from the red dye prontosil. D. first discovered as a product of Penicillium notatum. E. discovered by Robert Koch.

3.

Substances that are naturally produced by certain microorganisms that can inhibit or destroy other microorganisms are called A. antibiotics. B. narrow-spectrum drugs. C. semisynthetic drugs. D. synthetic drugs. E. broad-spectrum drugs.

4.

Antimicrobics effective against a wide variety of microbial types are termed A. antibiotics. B. narrow-spectrum drugs. C. semisynthetic drugs. D. synthetic drugs. E. broad-spectrum drugs.

5.

NURSINGTB.COM

Important characteristics of antimicrobic drugs include A. readily delivered to the site of infection. B. high toxicity against microbial cells. C. do not cause serious side effects in humans. D. remains active in body tissues and fluids. E. All of these choices are correct.

6.

Antibiotics are derived from all the following except A. Penicillium. B. Bacillus. C. Staphylococcus. D. Streptomyces. E. Cephalosporium.

7.

Broad-spectrum drugs that disrupt the body’s normal flora often cause A. nephrotoxicity. B. superinfections. C. allergic reactions. D. drug toxicity. E. All of these choices are correct.

8.

Penicillins and cephalosporins A. interfere with DNA synthesis. B. are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis.


C. attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis. D. damage cell membranes. E. block the peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules. 9.

Sulfonamides A. interfere with elongation of peptidoglycan. B. are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis. C. attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis. D. damage cell membranes. E. block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules.

10. Aminoglycosides A. interfere with elongation of peptidoglycan. B. are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis. C. attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis. D. damage cell membranes. E. block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules. 11. Ampicillin, amoxicillin, mezlocillin, and penicillin G all have A. a beta-lactam ring. B. resistance to the action of penicillinase. C. a semisynthetic nature. D. an expanded spectrum of activity. E. All of the choices are correct. 12. A chemical that inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes is A. synercid. B. penicillinase. C. aztreonam. D. clavulanic acid. E. imipenem.

NURSINGTB.COM

13. All of the following pertain to cephalosporins except A. they have a beta-lactam ring. B. greater resistance to beta-lactamases. C. newer generations have activity against gram negatives. D. many administered by injection not orally. E. they are synthetic drugs. 14. Which antimicrobic does not inhibit cell wall synthesis? A. gentamicin B. vancomycin C. cephalosporins D. penicllins E. clavamox 15. Gram-negative bacilli are often treated with A. penicillin G. B. vancomycin. C. aminoglycosides. D. synercid. E. isoniazid. 16. Which of these drugs is used to treat cases of tuberculosis? A. penicillin G. B. vancomycin.


C. aminoglycosides. D. synercid. E. isoniazid. 17. Which antimicrobic does not interfere with protein synthesis? A. aminoglycosides B. tetracyclines C. erythromycin D. trimethroprim E. chloramphenicol 18. Which of these drugs is useful in treating infections by methicillin-resistant S. aureus and vancomycinresistant Enterococcus? A. tetracycline B. isoniazid C. linezolid D. aminoglycosides E. cephalosporins

19. All of the following pertain to fluoroquinolones except A. they are broad spectrum. B. they include ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin. C. they are nephrotoxic. D. they are used to treat respiratory, urinary, and sexually-transmitted infections. E. they work by inhibiting bacterial DNA replication. 20. Antimicrobics that are macrolides A. disrupt cell membrane function. B. include tetracyclines. C. include azithromycin, clarithromcyin, and erNyU thR roSm ciT nB . .COM INyG D. are very narrow-spectrum drugs. E. are hepatotoxic. 21. The drug that can cause aplastic anemia, and is used to treat typhoid fever and brain abscesses is A. chloramphenicol. B. clindamycin. C. ciprofloxacin. D. bacitracin. E. gentamicin. 22. The drug used against intestinal anaerobic bacteria, that can also alter normal flora causing antibioticassociated colitis is A. chloramphenicol. B. clindamycin. C. ciprofloxacin. D. bacitracin. E. gentamicin. 23. The most versatile and useful antifungal drug that is used to treat serious systemic fungal infections is A. nystatin. B. griseofulvin. C. amphotericin B. D. sulfa drugs. E. metronidazole. 24. The drug used for several protozoan infections is


A. nystatin. B. griseofulvin. C. amphotericin B. D. sulfa drugs. E. metronidazole. 25. Mebendazole, niclosamide, and ivermectin are drugs used to treat

infections.

A. bacterial B. fungal C. protozoan D. helminthic E. virus 26. Ketoconazole, fluconazole, clotrimazole, and miconazole are broad-spectrum azoles used to treat infections. A. bacterial B. fungal C. protozoan D. helminthic E. virus 27. There are fewer antifungal, antiprotozoan, and antihelminth drugs compared to antibacterial drugs because these organisms A. do not cause many human infections. B. are not affected by antimicrobics. C. are so similar to human cells that selective drug toxicity is difficult to achieve. D. are parasites found inside human cells. E. have fewer target sites compared to bacteria. 28. Which of the following is not a mode of action of an antiviral? A. Block viral entry into a host cell B. Block transcription and translation C. Inhibit DNA synthesis D. Block maturation E. Bond to ergosterol in the cell membrane

NURSINGTB.COM

29. An antiviral that is a guanine analog would have an antiviral mode of action that A. blocks penetration. B. blocks DNA replication. C. inhibits peptidoglycan cross-linking. D. blocks maturation. E. bonds to ergosterol in the cell membrane. 30. Antivirals that target reverse transcriptase would be used to treat A. influenza A virus. B. HIV. C. herpes zoster virus. D. respiratory syncytial virus. E. hepatitis C virus. 31. Acyclovir is used to treat A. influenza A virus. B. HIV. C. shingles, chickenpox, and genital herpes. D. respiratory syncytial virus. E. hepatitis C virus.


32. The cellular basis for bacterial resistance to antimicrobics include A. bacterial chromosomal mutations. B. synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure. C. prevention of drug entry into the cell. D. alteration of drug receptors on cell targets. E. All of these choices are correct. 33. The multidrug resistant pumps in many bacterial cell membranes cause A. bacterial chromosomal mutations. B. synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure. C. removal of drugs from the cell. D. alteration of drug receptors on cell targets. E. All of these choices are correct. 34. Side effects that occur in patient tissues while they are on antimicrobic drugs include all the following except A. development of resistance to the drug. B. hepatotoxicity. C. nephrotoxicity. D. diarrhea. E. deafness. 35. A superinfection results from A. build up of a drug to toxic levels in the patient. B. the wrong drug administered to the patient. C. an immune system reaction to the drug. D. decrease in most normal flora with overgrowth of an unaffected species. E. All of these choices are correct. 36. Drug susceptibility testing NURSINGTB.COM A. determines the patient’s response to various antimicrobics. B. determines the pathogen’s response to various antimicrobics. C. determines if normal flora will be affected by antimicrobics. D. determines if the drug is increasing to toxic levels in a patient. E. determines the pathogen’s identity. 37. A clinical microbiologist makes serial dilutions of several antimicrobics in broth, and then incubates each drug dilution series with a standard amount of a patient’s isolated pathogen. What is this microbiologist setting up? A. Kirby-Bauer test B. antibiogram C. E-test D. minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) E. therapeutic index (TI) 38. A ratio of the dose of the drug that is toxic to humans versus the minimum effective dose for that pathogen is assessed to predict the potential for toxic drug reactions. This is called the A. Kirby-Bauer technique. B. antibiogram. C. E-test. D. minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC). E. therapeutic index (TI). 39. Antimicrobics effective against only gram-positive bacteria would be termed A. antibiotics. B. narrow-spectrum drugs. C. semisynthetic drugs.


D. synthetic drugs. E. broad-spectrum drugs. 40. A “shotgun” approach to antimicrobial therapy involves A. giving a narrow-spectrum drug. B. culturing the pathogen and identifying it. C. performing the disk diffusion assay. D. using a broad-spectrum drug so that the chance of killing the pathogen is greater. E. using antiviral and antibiotic drugs in combination. 41. Which of the following will influence a physician’s decision to prescribe an antimicrobial? A. patient age B. pregnancy C. liver function D. alcohol use E. All of these choices are correct.

42. All of the following could be reasons why antimicrobic treatment fails except A. the inability of the drug to diffuse into the infected body compartment. B. a mixed infection where some of the pathogens are drug resistant. C. not completing the full course of treatment. D. a disk diffusion test showing pathogen sensitivity to the antimicrobic. E. diminished gastrointestinal absorption due to an underlying condition or age.

43. All of the following are correct about allergic reactions to drugs except A. the drug acts as an antigen. B. the greatest number of antimicrobic allergies are to the penicillins. C. hives may be the result after the drug is taken. D. anaphylaxis can occur. E. allergic reactions generally will occur the firN stUtiRmSeINaGpTeBrs.C oO nM takes the drug. 44. Which organ is responsible for metabolizing and detoxifying foreign chemicals in the blood, including drugs? A. liver B. kidneys C. gallbladder D. spleen E. stomach 45. Which of the following antimicrobials is contraindicated for children due to permanent tooth discoloration? A. penicillin G B. tetracycline C. gentamicin D. vancomycin E. erythromycin 46. Why has the United States and Europe banned the use of human drugs in animal feeds? A. Because it makes the animals grow too large. B. Because it causes infections in the cows and poultry fed them. C. Because it raises the price of the meat too high. D. Because it contributes to the growing drug resistance problem. E. All of these choices are correct.

47. All of the following are correct about Tamiflu and Relenza except A. they should be given early in an infection. B. they prevent assembly and release of the virus.


C. they are used to treat infections by influenza A and B. D. they inhibit fusion and uncoating of the virus. E. they are effective prophylactics for influenza. 48.

What is vancomycin most often used to treat?

A. methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus B. Clostridium difficile C. Streptococcus pyogenes D. Escherichia coli E. methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus and Clostridium difficile 49. Which of the following describes the mechanism of action for zidovudine? A. It is a thymine analog that interferes with the synthesis of DNA from the HIV RNA template. B. It directly binds to reverse transcriptase and prevents reverse transcription of HIV RNA. C. It inhibits the assembly of HIV particles. D. It inhibits fusion of the viral envelope and host cell envelope. E. It prevents the viral DNA from integrating in the host chromosome. 50. When a patient’s immune system reacts adversely to a drug, this serious side effect is called a superinfection. True False 51. A semisynthetic antibiotic is a drug which is chemically modified in the laboratory after being isolated from natural sources. True False 52. Species of Bacillus produce bacitracin and the polymyxins. True False 53. Ciprofloxacin is used to treat viral respiratory inNfU ecRtiSoInNsG . TB.COM True False 54. Resistance factor plasmids are transferred to other bacterial cells during transformation, transduction, and conjugation. True False 55. The MIC is the smallest concentration of an antimicrobic required to inhibit the growth of the microbe. True False 56. Drugs that are hepatotoxic cause damage to a patient’s kidneys. True False 57. The Kirby-Bauer test uses an agar surface, seeded with the test bacterium, to which small discs containing a specific concentration of several drugs are placed on the surface. True False 58. An antimicrobic with a low therapeutic index is a safer choice compared to a drug with a high therapeutic index. True False 59. Levaquin, a fluoroquinolone, kills viruses. True False


60.

are plasmids that contain genes for resistance to a drug.

61. Sulfonamides are analogs of PABA and, as a result, they inhibit 62. The macrolide, 63.

synthesis.

, is a useful substitute for dealing with penicillin-resistant Streptococci.

are preparations of live microorganisms that are fed to animals and humans to modify the intestinal flora.

64. The major source of naturally-produced penicillin is the mold

.

65. Nutrients that encourage the growth of beneficial microbes in the intestines are called 66. Polyene drugs bind to fungal

.

and cause loss of selective permeability.

67. If pathogen A is more resistant to an erythromycin disc on a Kirby-Bauer plate compared to pathogen B, then pathogen A will have a zone of inhibition compared to pathogen B. 68. Discuss the problems with development of antifungal, antiprotozoan, antihelminth, and antiviral drugs compared to the antibacterial drugs. Discuss at least 3 different modes of action that have been developed for these drugs. 69. Describe how the therapeutic index of a drug is determined and explain its function. 70. Discuss 5 factors that have influenced the increasing development of resistant microbial strains. 71. Janice has just had hip replacement surgery aN ndUR heSrIN pG hyTsBic.C iaO nM has prescribed antibiotics and directed her to take them every time she has a dental appointment. This is an example of antibiotic A. synergy. B. prophylaxis. C. allergy. D. abuse. 72. While trying to start an IV on a patient, Kurt received a needlestick injury and blood exposure involving a patient with AIDS. He was immediately started on three different antiretroviral medications. The advantage of using combined therapy in this circumstance is A. the duration of treatment is much shorter. B. the drugs only work if given together. C. cost savings to the patient. D. this should prevent the emergence of drug-resistant microbes. 73. The development of successful antiviral drugs has been relatively easy because viral structure is so different from the structure of eukaryotic cells. True False 74. One of the greatest challenges in development of antivirals is finding drugs that are A. administered orally. B. absorbed by the GI tract. C. not likely to disrupt the normal microbiota of the patient. D. selectively toxic for viruses. 75. Which of the following is/are true of antibiotic usage and the development of antibiotic resistance?


A. Antibiotics cause mutations (antibiotics are mutagens), thus resulting in increasingly resistant bacterial populations. B. Antibiotics increase the rate of bacterial transformation, conjugation, and transduction, and thus increase the spread of antibiotic resistance. C. Antibiotics cause R-plasmids to form and cause their transfer, spreading antibiotic resistance. D. Antibiotics select for resistant mutants and bacteria possessing R-plasmids, increasing their frequency in the population. E. All of these choices are correct. 76. Which is the best guide for selecting an effective antibiotic? A. results of antimicrobial susceptibility testing B. identification of the microbe causing the infection C. history of prior antibiotics prescribed for the patient D. location of the patient’s infection 77. All of the following information should be considered in managing antimicrobial drugs for a patient, except

A. possible allergies. B. liver and/or kidney disease. C. age of patient. D. other drugs the patient is taking. E. There are no exceptions. All of this information is important. 78. All of the following are problems in the management of antibiotic usage, except A. the selection of antibiotics based on results of appropriate antibiotic susceptibility testing. B. the sale of many antibiotics over-the-counter in foreign countries. C. extensive use of broad-spectrum drugs for minor infections. D. the use of antibiotics for upper respiratory viral infections. E. There are no exceptions here. All of these are challenges in the management of antibiotic usage.

NURSINGTB.COM


Chapter 12 Testbank Key 1.

Which is mismatched? A. Fleming–penicillin B. Domagk–sulfonamide C. Ehrlich–tetracycline D. Florey and Chain–penicillin ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.02 Discuss the origins of antimicrobial drugs.

Section: 12.01 Topic: Antibacterials

2.

Salvarsan was A. discovered in the mid 1900s. B. used to treat syphilis. C. formulated from the red dye prontosil. D. first discovered as a product of Penicillium notatum. E. discovered by Robert Koch. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.02 Discuss the origins of antimicrobial drugs. Section: 12.01

Topic: Antibacterials

3.

Substances that are naturally produced by certain microorganisms that can inhibit or destroy other microorganisms are called A. antibiotics. B. narrow-spectrum drugs. C. semisynthetic drugs. D. synthetic drugs. E. broad-spectrum drugs.

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.02 Discuss the origins of antimicrobial drugs. Learning Outcome: 12.03 Differentiate between antibiotics, synthetic drugs, and semisynthetic drugs. Section: 12.01

Topic: Antibacterials

4.

Antimicrobics effective against a wide variety of microbial types are termed A. antibiotics. B. narrow-spectrum drugs. C. semisynthetic drugs. D. synthetic drugs. E. broad-spectrum drugs.

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.05 Explain what is meant by a drug's spectrum and how narrow- and broad-spectrum drugs differ. Section: 12.01

Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy

5.

Important characteristics of antimicrobic drugs include A. readily delivered to the site of infection. B. high toxicity against microbial cells. C. do not cause serious side effects in humans. D. remains active in body tissues and fluids. E. All of these choices are correct.


ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.01 State the goals of antimicrobial therapy. Section: 12.01

6.

Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy

Antibiotics are derived from all the following except A. Penicillium. B. Bacillus. C. Staphylococcus. D. Streptomyces. E. Cephalosporium. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.02 Discuss the origins of antimicrobial drugs.

Section: 12.01 Topic: Antibacterials

7.

Broad-spectrum drugs that disrupt the body’s normal flora often cause A. nephrotoxicity. B. superinfections. C. allergic reactions. D. drug toxicity. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.05 Explain what is meant by a drug's spectrum and how narrow- and broad-spectrum drugs differ. Section: 12.01

Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy

8.

Penicillins and cephalosporins NURSINGTB.COM A. interfere with DNA synthesis. B. are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis. C. attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis. D. damage cell membranes. E. block the peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.07 Describe the classes of antibacterial drugs that act on the cell wall and membrane, and list some of their applications. Section: 12.02

Topic: Antibacterials

9.

Sulfonamides A. interfere with elongation of peptidoglycan. B. are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis. C. attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis. D. damage cell membranes. E. block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.06 Summarize the five modes of action of antimicrobial drugs, with specific examples of their effects. Section: 12.02

Topic: Antibacterials

10.

Aminoglycosides A. interfere with elongation of peptidoglycan. B. are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis. C. attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis. D. damage cell membranes. E. block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules.


ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.09 Indicate which types of antibacterial drugs block protein synthesis, and explain how they are used. Section: 12.02

Topic: Antibacterials

11.

Ampicillin, amoxicillin, mezlocillin, and penicillin G all have A. a beta-lactam ring. B. resistance to the action of penicillinase. C. a semisynthetic nature. D. an expanded spectrum of activity. E. All of the choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.07 Describe the classes of antibacterial drugs that act on the cell wall and membrane, and list some of their applications. Section: 12.02

Topic: Antibacterials

12.

A chemical that inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes is A. synercid. B. penicillinase. C. aztreonam. D. clavulanic acid. E. imipenem.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.07 Describe the classes of antibacterial drugs that act on the cell wall and membrane, and list some of their applications. Section: 12.02

13.

Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy

All of the following pertain to cephalosporins except NURSINGTB.COM A. they have a beta-lactam ring. B. greater resistance to beta-lactamases. C. newer generations have activity against gram negatives. D. many administered by injection not orally. E. they are synthetic drugs.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.07 Describe the classes of antibacterial drugs that act on the cell wall and membrane, and list some of their applications. Section: 12.02

Topic: Antibacterials

14.

Which antimicrobic does not inhibit cell wall synthesis? A. gentamicin B. vancomycin C. cephalosporins D. penicllins E. clavamox

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.07 Describe the classes of antibacterial drugs that act on the cell wall and membrane, and list some of their applications. Section: 12.02

Topic: Antibacterials

15.

Gram-negative bacilli are often treated with A. penicillin G. B. vancomycin. C. aminoglycosides.


D. synercid. E. isoniazid. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.09 Indicate which types of antibacterial drugs block protein synthesis, and explain how they are used. Section: 12.02

Topic: Antibacterials

16.

Which of these drugs is used to treat cases of tuberculosis? A. penicillin G. B. vancomycin. C. aminoglycosides. D. synercid. E. isoniazid.

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.07 Describe the classes of antibacterial drugs that act on the cell wall and membrane, and list some of their applications. Section: 12.02

Topic: Antibacterials

17.

Which antimicrobic does not interfere with protein synthesis? A. aminoglycosides B. tetracyclines C. erythromycin D. trimethroprim E. chloramphenicol

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems NURSINGTB.COM Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.08 Describe the classes of antibacterial drugs that act on DNA or RNA, and characterize their uses. Learning Outcome: 12.09 Indicate which types of antibacterial drugs block protein synthesis, and explain how they are used. Section: 12.02

Topic: Antibacterials

18.

Which of these drugs is useful in treating infections by methicillin-resistant S. aureus and vancomycinresistant Enterococcus? A. tetracycline B. isoniazid C. linezolid D. aminoglycosides E. cephalosporins

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.09 Indicate which types of antibacterial drugs block protein synthesis, and explain how they are used. Learning Outcome: 12.10 Describe some new classes of antibacterial drugs and their applications. Section: 12.02

19.

Topic: Antibacterials

All of the following pertain to fluoroquinolones except A. they are broad spectrum. B. they include ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin. C. they are nephrotoxic. D. they are used to treat respiratory, urinary, and sexually-transmitted infections. E. they work by inhibiting bacterial DNA replication.

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.


ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.08 Describe the classes of antibacterial drugs that act on DNA or RNA, and characterize their uses. Section: 12.02

Topic: Antibacterials

20.

Antimicrobics that are macrolides A. disrupt cell membrane function. B. include tetracyclines. C. include azithromycin, clarithromcyin, and erythromycin. D. are very narrow-spectrum drugs. E. are hepatotoxic.

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.09 Indicate which types of antibacterial drugs block protein synthesis, and explain how they are used. Section: 12.02

Topic: Antibacterials

21.

The drug that can cause aplastic anemia, and is used to treat typhoid fever and brain abscesses is A. chloramphenicol. B. clindamycin. C. ciprofloxacin. D. bacitracin. E. gentamicin.

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.09 Indicate which types of antibacterial drugs block protein synthesis, and explain how they are used.

Learning Outcome: 12.20 Describe some of the toxic effects of drugs on organs and tissues. Section: 12.02

22.

NURSINGTB.COM Topic: Antibacterials The drug used against intestinal anaerobic bacteria, that can also alter normal flora causing antibioticassociated colitis is A. chloramphenicol. B. clindamycin. C. ciprofloxacin. D. bacitracin. E. gentamicin.

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.19 Summarize the adverse effects of drugs on the human body. Learning Outcome: 12.22 Explain the ways that drugs alter the normal microbiota and the results. Section: 12.02

Topic: Antibacterials

23.

The most versatile and useful antifungal drug that is used to treat serious systemic fungal infections is A. nystatin. B. griseofulvin. C. amphotericin B. D. sulfa drugs. E. metronidazole.

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.11 Categorize antimicrobial drugs that are effective against fungi, and describe how they are used. Section: 12.03


Topic: Antimicrobials for Eukaryotic Infections

24.

The drug used for several protozoan infections is A. nystatin. B. griseofulvin. C. amphotericin B. D. sulfa drugs. E. metronidazole.

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.12 Discuss the categories of drugs used to treat parasite infections, and describe their applications. Section: 12.03

Topic: Antimicrobials for Eukaryotic Infections

25.

Mebendazole, niclosamide, and ivermectin are drugs used to treat

infections.

A. bacterial B. fungal C. protozoan D. helminthic E. virus ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.12 Discuss the categories of drugs used to treat parasite infections, and describe their applications. Section: 12.03

Topic: Antimicrobials for Eukaryotic Infections

26.

Ketoconazole, fluconazole, clotrimazole, and miconazole are broad-spectrum azoles used to treat infections. A. bacterial B. fungal C. protozoan D. helminthic E. virus

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.11 Categorize antimicrobial drugs that are effective against fungi, and describe how they are used. Section: 12.03

Topic: Antimicrobials for Eukaryotic Infections

27.

There are fewer antifungal, antiprotozoan, and antihelminth drugs compared to antibacterial drugs because these organisms A. do not cause many human infections. B. are not affected by antimicrobics. C. are so similar to human cells that selective drug toxicity is difficult to achieve. D. are parasites found inside human cells. E. have fewer target sites compared to bacteria.

ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.23 Outline some important factors to consider in drug therapy. Section: 12.03

Topic: Antimicrobials for Eukaryotic Infections


28.

Which of the following is not a mode of action of an antiviral? A. Block viral entry into a host cell B. Block transcription and translation C. Inhibit DNA synthesis D. Block maturation E. Bond to ergosterol in the cell membrane

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.14 Identify several categories of antiviral drugs, and explain how they are used. Section: 12.03

Topic: Antivirals

29.

An antiviral that is a guanine analog would have an antiviral mode of action that A. blocks penetration. B. blocks DNA replication. C. inhibits peptidoglycan cross-linking. D. blocks maturation. E. bonds to ergosterol in the cell membrane.

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 12.14 Identify several categories of antiviral drugs, and explain how they are used. Section: 12.03

Topic: Antivirals

30.

Antivirals that target reverse transcriptase would be used to treat A. influenza A virus. B. HIV. C. herpes zoster virus. D. respiratory syncytial virus. E. hepatitis C virus.

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.14 Identify several categories of antiviral drugs, and explain how they are used. Section: 12.03

Topic: Antivirals

31.

Acyclovir is used to treat A. influenza A virus. B. HIV. C. shingles, chickenpox, and genital herpes. D. respiratory syncytial virus. E. hepatitis C virus.

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.14 Identify several categories of antiviral drugs, and explain how they are used. Section: 12.03

Topic: Antivirals


32.

The cellular basis for bacterial resistance to antimicrobics include A. bacterial chromosomal mutations. B. synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure. C. prevention of drug entry into the cell. D. alteration of drug receptors on cell targets. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.15 Describe the development of drug resistance, and explain how it is acquired. Learning Outcome: 12.16 Explain the major mechanisms by which microbes become resistant to drugs. Section: 12.04

Topic: Drug Resistance

33.

The multidrug resistant pumps in many bacterial cell membranes cause A. bacterial chromosomal mutations. B. synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure. C. removal of drugs from the cell. D. alteration of drug receptors on cell targets. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.16 Explain the major mechanisms by which microbes become resistant to drugs. Section: 12.04

34.

Topic: Drug Resistance

Side effects that occur in patient tissues while they are on antimicrobic drugs include all the following except A. development of resistance to the drug. NURSINGTB.COM B. hepatotoxicity. C. nephrotoxicity. D. diarrhea. E. deafness.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.19 Summarize the adverse effects of drugs on the human body. Learning Outcome: 12.20 Describe some of the toxic effects of drugs on organs and tissues. Section: 12.05

Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy

35.

A superinfection results from A. build up of a drug to toxic levels in the patient. B. the wrong drug administered to the patient. C. an immune system reaction to the drug. D. decrease in most normal flora with overgrowth of an unaffected species. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.19 Summarize the adverse effects of drugs on the human body. Learning Outcome: 12.22 Explain the ways that drugs alter the normal microbiota and the results. Section: 12.05

Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy


36.

Drug susceptibility testing A. determines the patient’s response to various antimicrobics. B. determines the pathogen’s response to various antimicrobics. C. determines if normal flora will be affected by antimicrobics. D. determines if the drug is increasing to toxic levels in a patient. E. determines the pathogen’s identity. ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage infection. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics.

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.23 Outline some important factors to consider in drug therapy. Learning Outcome: 12.24 Describe the principles behind sensitivity testing for infectious agents. Section: 12.06 Topic: Drug Resistance Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy

37.

A clinical microbiologist makes serial dilutions of several antimicrobics in broth, and then incubates each drug dilution series with a standard amount of a patient’s isolated pathogen. What is this microbiologist setting up? A. Kirby-Bauer test B. antibiogram C. E-test D. minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) E. therapeutic index (TI) ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways

ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.24 Describe the principles behind sensitivity testing for infectious agents. Learning Outcome: 12.25 Explain the uses of the minimum inhibitory concentration and the therapeutic index in drug selection. Section: 12.06 Topic: Drug Resistance

Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy

38.

A ratio of the dose of the drug that is toxic tNoUhRuSmIN anGsTvBe.C rsO uM s the minimum effective dose for that pathogen is assessed to predict the potential for toxic drug reactions. This is called the A. Kirby-Bauer technique. B. antibiogram. C. E-test. D. minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC). E. therapeutic index (TI). ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.23 Outline some important factors to consider in drug therapy. Learning Outcome: 12.25 Explain the uses of the minimum inhibitory concentration and the therapeutic index in drug selection. Section: 12.06 Topic: Drug Resistance

Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy

39.

Antimicrobics effective against only gram-positive bacteria would be termed A. antibiotics. B. narrow-spectrum drugs. C. semisynthetic drugs. D. synthetic drugs. E. broad-spectrum drugs. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.05 Explain what is meant by a drug's spectrum and how narrow- and broad-spectrum drugs differ. Section: 12.01

Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy


40.

A “shotgun” approach to antimicrobial therapy involves A. giving a narrow-spectrum drug. B. culturing the pathogen and identifying it. C. performing the disk diffusion assay. D. using a broad-spectrum drug so that the chance of killing the pathogen is greater. E. using antiviral and antibiotic drugs in combination. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.05 Explain what is meant by a drug's spectrum and how narrow- and broad-spectrum drugs differ. Section: 12.01

Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy

41.

Which of the following will influence a physician’s decision to prescribe an antimicrobial? A. patient age B. pregnancy C. liver function D. alcohol use E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.23 Outline some important factors to consider in drug therapy. Learning Outcome: 12.26 Discuss medical considerations in final drug selection. Section: 12.06

42.

All of the following could be reasons why antimicrobic treatment fails except

Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy

A. the inability of the drug to diffuse into the infected body compartment. B. a mixed infection where some of the pathogens are drug resistant. C. not completing the full course of treatment. D. a disk diffusion test showing pathogen N seUnRsSitIivNitG y TtoB.tC he antimicrobic. OM E. diminished gastrointestinal absorption due to an underlying condition or age. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 12.27 Summarize the problems in managing antimicrobial drugs. Section: 12.06

43.

Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy

All of the following are correct about allergic reactions to drugs except A. the drug acts as an antigen. B. the greatest number of antimicrobic allergies are to the penicillins. C. hives may be the result after the drug is taken. D. anaphylaxis can occur. E. allergic reactions generally will occur the first time a person takes the drug.

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.21 Discuss how drugs can cause damaging immune responses. Section: 12.05

Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy

44.

Which organ is responsible for metabolizing and detoxifying foreign chemicals in the blood, including drugs? A. liver B. kidneys C. gallbladder D. spleen


E. stomach ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.20 Describe some of the toxic effects of drugs on organs and tissues. Section: 12.05

Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy

45.

Which of the following antimicrobials is contraindicated for children due to permanent tooth discoloration? A. penicillin G B. tetracycline C. gentamicin D. vancomycin E. erythromycin

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.19 Summarize the adverse effects of drugs on the human body. Learning Outcome: 12.23 Outline some important factors to consider in drug therapy. Section: 12.05

46.

Why has the United States and Europe banned the use of human drugs in animal feeds? A. Because it makes the animals grow too large. B. Because it causes infections in the cows and poultry fed them. C. Because it raises the price of the meat too high. D. Because it contributes to the growing drug resistance problem. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.17 Discuss some of the ways for reducing levels of drug resistance. Section: 12.04

47.

NURSINGTB.COM All of the following are correct about Tamiflu and Relenza except

Topic: Drug Resistance

A. they should be given early in an infection. B. they prevent assembly and release of the virus. C. they are used to treat infections by influenza A and B. D. they inhibit fusion and uncoating of the virus. E. they are effective prophylactics for influenza. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.14 Identify several categories of antiviral drugs, and explain how they are used. Section: 12.03

Topic: Antivirals

48.

What is vancomycin most often used to treat?

A. methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus B. Clostridium difficile C. Streptococcus pyogenes D. Escherichia coli E. methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus and Clostridium difficile ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.10 Describe some new classes of antibacterial drugs and their applications. Section: 12.02

Topic: Antibacterials

49.

Which of the following describes the mechanism of action for zidovudine?


A. It is a thymine analog that interferes with the synthesis of DNA from the HIV RNA template. B. It directly binds to reverse transcriptase and prevents reverse transcription of HIV RNA. C. It inhibits the assembly of HIV particles. D. It inhibits fusion of the viral envelope and host cell envelope. E. It prevents the viral DNA from integrating in the host chromosome. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.14 Identify several categories of antiviral drugs, and explain how they are used. Section: 12.03

Topic: Antivirals

50.

When a patient’s immune system reacts adversely to a drug, this serious side effect is called a superinfection. FALSE ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.19 Summarize the adverse effects of drugs on the human body. Learning Outcome: 12.21 Discuss how drugs can cause damaging immune responses. Section: 12.05

Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy

51.

A semisynthetic antibiotic is a drug which is chemically modified in the laboratory after being isolated from natural sources. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.03 Differentiate between antibiotics, synthetic drugs, and semisynthetic drugs. Section: 12.01

NURSINGTB.COM

52.

Topic: Antibacterials

Species of Bacillus produce bacitracin and the polymyxins. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.02 Discuss the origins of antimicrobial drugs. Section: 12.01

Topic: Antibacterials

53.

Ciprofloxacin is used to treat viral respiratory infections. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.08 Describe the classes of antibacterial drugs that act on DNA or RNA, and characterize their uses. Section: 12.02

Topic: Antibacterials

54.

Resistance factor plasmids are transferred to other bacterial cells during transformation, transduction, and conjugation. TRUE ASM Objective: 01.02 Mutations and horizontal gene transfer, with the immense variety of microenvironments, have selected for a huge diversity of microorganisms. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.18 Discuss how drug resistance spreads through a population of microbes and the long-term effects of this.


Section: 12.04 Topic: Drug Resistance

55.

The MIC is the smallest concentration of an antimicrobic required to inhibit the growth of the microbe. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.24 Describe the principles behind sensitivity testing for infectious agents. Learning Outcome: 12.25 Explain the uses of the minimum inhibitory concentration and the therapeutic index in drug selection. Section: 12.06 Topic: Drug Resistance

Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy

56.

Drugs that are hepatotoxic cause damage to a patient’s kidneys. FALSE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.20 Describe some of the toxic effects of drugs on organs and tissues. Section: 12.05

Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy

57.

The Kirby-Bauer test uses an agar surface, seeded with the test bacterium, to which small discs containing a specific concentration of several drugs are placed on the surface. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways

ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.24 Describe the principles behind sensitivity testing for infectious agents. Section: 12.06 Topic: Drug Resistance

Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy

58.

An antimicrobic with a low therapeutic indeN x UisRaSIsNaG feTr Bc.hCoOicM e compared to a drug with a high therapeutic index. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.01 State the goals of antimicrobial therapy. Learning Outcome: 12.25 Explain the uses of the minimum inhibitory concentration and the therapeutic index in drug selection.

Learning Outcome: 12.26 Discuss medical considerations in final drug selection. Section: 12.06 Topic: Drug Resistance Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy

59.

Levaquin, a fluoroquinolone, kills viruses. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.10 Describe some new classes of antibacterial drugs and their applications. Section: 12.02

Topic: Antibacterials

60.

are plasmids that contain genes for resistance to a drug. R factors ASM Objective: 01.02 Mutations and horizontal gene transfer, with the immense variety of microenvironments, have selected for a huge diversity of microorganisms. ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.18 Discuss how drug resistance spreads through a population of microbes and the long-term effects of this.


Section: 12.04 Topic: Drug Resistance

61.

Sulfonamides are analogs of PABA and, as a result, they inhibit

synthesis.

folic acid ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.06 Summarize the five modes of action of antimicrobial drugs, with specific examples of their effects. Section: 12.01 Section: 12.02

Topic: Antibacterials

62.

The macrolide,

, is a useful substitute for dealing with penicillin-resistant Streptococci.

erythromycin ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.09 Indicate which types of antibacterial drugs block protein synthesis, and explain how they are used. Section: 12.02 Topic: Antibacterials

63.

are preparations of live microorganisms that are fed to animals and humans to modify the intestinal flora. Probiotics ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.22 Explain the ways that drugs alter the normal microbiota and the results. Section: 12.05 Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy NURSINGTB.COM

64.

The major source of naturally-produced penicillin is the mold

.

Penicillium chrysogenum ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.02 Discuss the origins of antimicrobial drugs. Section: 12.01 Topic: Antibacterials

65.

Nutrients that encourage the growth of beneficial microbes in the intestines are called

.

prebiotics ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.22 Explain the ways that drugs alter the normal microbiota and the results.

Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy

66.

Polyene drugs bind to fungal

and cause loss of selective permeability.

cell membranes; plasma membranes ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.11 Categorize antimicrobial drugs that are effective against fungi, and describe how they are used. Section: 12.03

Topic: Antimicrobials for Eukaryotic Infections

67.

If pathogen A is more resistant to an erythromycin disc on a Kirby-Bauer plate compared to pathogen B, then pathogen A will have a zone of inhibition compared to pathogen B.


smaller ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways

ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze Learning Outcome: 12.24 Describe the principles behind sensitivity testing for infectious agents. Section: 12.06 Topic: Drug Resistance

Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy

68.

Discuss the problems with development of antifungal, antiprotozoan, antihelminth, and antiviral drugs compared to the antibacterial drugs. Discuss at least 3 different modes of action that have been developed for these drugs. ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 12.06 Summarize the five modes of action of antimicrobial drugs, with specific examples of their effects. Learning Outcome: 12.11 Categorize antimicrobial drugs that are effective against fungi, and describe how they are used. Learning Outcome: 12.12 Discuss the categories of drugs used to treat parasite infections, and describe their applications.

Learning Outcome: 12.14 Identify several categories of antiviral drugs, and explain how they are used. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antibacterials Topic: Antimicrobials for Eukaryotic Infections Topic: Antivirals Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy

69.

Describe how the therapeutic index of a drug is determined and explain its function.

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 12.25 Explain the uses of the minimum inhibitory concentration and the therapeutic index in drug selection. Section: 12.06 NURSINGTB.COM Topic: Drug Resistance

Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy

70.

Discuss 5 factors that have influenced the increasing development of resistant microbial strains. ASM Objective: 01.02 Mutations and horizontal gene transfer, with the immense variety of microenvironments, have selected for a huge diversity of microorganisms. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 12.15 Describe the development of drug resistance, and explain how it is acquired. Learning Outcome: 12.16 Explain the major mechanisms by which microbes become resistant to drugs. Learning Outcome: 12.17 Discuss some of the ways for reducing levels of drug resistance.

Learning Outcome: 12.18 Discuss how drug resistance spreads through a population of microbes and the long-term effects of this. Learning Outcome: 12.23 Outline some important factors to consider in drug therapy. Section: 12.04

Topic: Drug Resistance

71.

Janice has just had hip replacement surgery and her physician has prescribed antibiotics and directed her to take them every time she has a dental appointment. This is an example of antibiotic A. synergy. B. prophylaxis. C. allergy. D. abuse.

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 12.04 Describe some of the special strategies of antimicrobial therapy.

Learning Outcome: 12.26 Discuss medical considerations in final drug selection. Section: 12.01

Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy


72.

While trying to start an IV on a patient, Kurt received a needlestick injury and blood exposure involving a patient with AIDS. He was immediately started on three different antiretroviral medications. The advantage of using combined therapy in this circumstance is A. the duration of treatment is much shorter. B. the drugs only work if given together. C. cost savings to the patient. D. this should prevent the emergence of drug-resistant microbes.

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 12.04 Describe some of the special strategies of antimicrobial therapy. Section: 12.01

Topic: Antivirals

73.

The development of successful antiviral drugs has been relatively easy because viral structure is so different from the structure of eukaryotic cells. FALSE

ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.13 Discuss some of the difficulties in giving antiviral drug treatments. Section: 12.03

Topic: Antivirals

74.

One of the greatest challenges in development of antivirals is finding drugs that are A. administered orally. B. absorbed by the GI tract. C. not likely to disrupt the normal microbioNtaUoRfStIhNeGpTaBti.eCnOt.M D. selectively toxic for viruses.

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 12.13 Discuss some of the difficulties in giving antiviral drug treatments. Section: 12.03

Topic: Antivirals

75.

Which of the following is/are true of antibiotic usage and the development of antibiotic resistance? A. Antibiotics cause mutations (antibiotics are mutagens), thus resulting in increasingly resistant bacterial populations. B. Antibiotics increase the rate of bacterial transformation, conjugation, and transduction, and thus increase the spread of antibiotic resistance. C. Antibiotics cause R-plasmids to form and cause their transfer, spreading antibiotic resistance. D. Antibiotics select for resistant mutants and bacteria possessing R-plasmids, increasing their frequency in the population. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 01.02 Mutations and horizontal gene transfer, with the immense variety of microenvironments, have selected for a huge diversity of microorganisms. ASM Objective: 01.03 Human impact on the environment influences the evolution of microorganisms (e.g., emerging diseases and the selection of antibiotic resistance). ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze Learning Outcome: 12.16 Explain the major mechanisms by which microbes become resistant to drugs. Learning Outcome: 12.18 Discuss how drug resistance spreads through a population of microbes and the long-term effects of this. Section: 12.04

Topic: Drug Resistance


76.

Which is the best guide for selecting an effective antibiotic? A. results of antimicrobial susceptibility testing B. identification of the microbe causing the infection C. history of prior antibiotics prescribed for the patient D. location of the patient’s infection ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 12.26 Discuss medical considerations in final drug selection. Section: 12.06

Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy

77.

All of the following information should be considered in managing antimicrobial drugs for a patient, except A. possible allergies. B. liver and/or kidney disease. C. age of patient. D. other drugs the patient is taking. E. There are no exceptions. All of this information is important.

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.26 Discuss medical considerations in final drug selection. Learning Outcome: 12.27 Summarize the problems in managing antimicrobial drugs. Section: 12.06

Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy

78.

All of the following are problems in the management of antibiotic usage, except A. the selection of antibiotics based on results of appropriate antibiotic susceptibility testing. B. the sale of many antibiotics over-the-counter in foreign countries. C. extensive use of broad-spectrum drugs for minor infections. D. the use of antibiotics for upper respiratory viral infections. eRaSreINcG hT aB lle.C ng s in the management of antibiotic usage. E. There are no exceptions here. All of theNsU OeM

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.27 Summarize the problems in managing antimicrobial drugs. Section: 12.06

Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy


Chapter 12 Testbank Summary Category

# of Questions

ASM Objective: 01.02 Mutations and horizontal gene transfer, with the immense variety of microenvironments, have selected for a huge diversity of microorganisms. ASM Objective: 01.03 Human impact on the environment influences the evolution of microorganisms (e.g., emerging diseases and the selection of antibiotic resistance). ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage inf ection. ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that ofte n confer critical capabilities. ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determi ned by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metaboli c characteristics. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biologic al means.

4 1 1 1 2 1 2 10 51

ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in benefi cial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeo chemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora).

3 50

ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products.

2

ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods.

3

ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function

4 6

ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms

1

58 52 3

ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills

3

Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

34

Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand

33

Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply

9

Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze

2

Learning Outcome: 12.01 State the goals of antimicrobial therapy.

2

Learning Outcome: 12.02 Discuss the origins of antimicrobial drugs.

6

Learning Outcome: 12.03 Differentiate between antibiotics, synthetic drugs, and semisynthetic drugs.

2

Learning Outcome: 12.04 Describe some of the special strategies of antimicrobial therapy. Learning Outcome: 12.05 Explain what is meant by a drug's spectrum and how narrow- and broadspectrum drugs differ. Learning Outcome: 12.06 Summarize the five modes of action of antimicrobial drugs, with specific examples of their effects. Learning Outcome: 12.07 Describe the classes of antibacterial drugs that act on the cell wall and membrane, and list some of their applications. Learning Outcome: 12.08 Describe the classes of antibacterial drugs that act on DNA or RNA, and characterize their uses. Learning Outcome: 12.09 Indicate which types of antibacterial drugs block protein synthesis, and explain how they ar e used.

2 4

Learning Outcome: 12.10 Describe some new classes of antibacterial drugs and their applications. Learning Outcome: 12.11 Categorize antimicrobial drugs that are effective against fungi, and describe how they are u sed. Learning Outcome: 12.12 Discuss the categories of drugs used to treat parasite infections, and describe their applica tions. Learning Outcome: 12.13 Discuss some of the difficulties in giving antiviral drug treatments.

3 4

3 6 3 7

3 2


Learning Outcome: 12.14 Identify several categories of antiviral drugs, and explain how they are used. Learning Outcome: 12.15 Describe the development of drug resistance, and explain how it is acquired.

7 2

Learning Outcome: 12.16 Explain the major mechanisms by which microbes become resistant to drugs.

4

Learning Outcome: 12.17 Discuss some of the ways for reducing levels of drug resistance.

2

Learning Outcome: 12.18 Discuss how drug resistance spreads through a population of microbes and the longterm effects of this.

4

Learning Outcome: 12.19 Summarize the adverse effects of drugs on the human body.

5

Learning Outcome: 12.20 Describe some of the toxic effects of drugs on organs and tissues.

4

Learning Outcome: 12.21 Discuss how drugs can cause damaging immune responses.

2

Learning Outcome: 12.22 Explain the ways that drugs alter the normal microbiota and the results.

4

Learning Outcome: 12.23 Outline some important factors to consider in drug therapy.

6

Learning Outcome: 12.24 Describe the principles behind sensitivity testing for infectious agents.

5

Learning Outcome: 12.25 Explain the uses of the minimum inhibitory concentration and the therapeutic index in drug selection.

5

Learning Outcome: 12.26 Discuss medical considerations in final drug selection.

5

Learning Outcome: 12.27 Summarize the problems in managing antimicrobial drugs.

3

Section: 12.01

15

Section: 12.02

20

Section: 12.03

15

Section: 12.04

7

Section: 12.05

8

Section: 12.06

13

Topic: Antibacterials

27

Topic: Antimicrobials for Eukaryotic Infections

7

Topic: Antivirals

10

Topic: Drug Resistance Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy

15 29

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Chapter 13 Testbank Student:

1.

Infection occurs when A. contaminants are present on the skin. B. a person swallows microbes in/on food. C. a person inhales microbes in the air. D. pathogens enter and multiply in body tissues. E. All of these choices are correct.

2.

All infectious diseases A. are contagious. B. only occur in humans. C. are caused by microorganisms or their products. D. are caused by vectors. E. involve viruses as the pathogen.

3.

Which is not the terminology used for resident flora? A. Pathogenic flora

B. Normal flora C. Indigenous flora D. Normal microflora E. all of these choices are correct. 4.

Endogenous infectious agents arise from microbes that are A. in food. B. the patient's own normal flora. C. on fomites. D. in the air. E. transmitted from one person to another.

5.

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The human body typically begins to be colonized by its normal flora A. before birth, in utero. B. during, and immediately after birth. C. when a child first goes to school. D. when an infant gets its first infectious disease. E. during puberty.

6.

Resident microbiota are found in/on the A. skin. B. mouth. C. nasal passages. D. large intestine. E. All of these choices are correct.

7.

All of the following genera are considered resident microbiota of skin sites, except A. Escherichia. B. Staphylococcus. C. Corynebacterium. D. Micrococcus. E. Mycobacterium.

8.

Resident flora of the intestines include A. Streptococcus.


B. Bacteroides. C. Staphylococcus. D. Haemophilus. E. All of these choices are correct. 9.

Which genus is resident flora of the mouth, large intestine, and, from puberty to menopause, the vagina?

A. Lactobacillus B. Streptococcus C. Haemophilus D. Escherichia E. Mycobacterium 10. Which genus is the most common resident flora of mouth surfaces?

A. Lactobacillus B. Streptococcus C. Haemophilus D. Escherichia E. Mycobacterium 11. The body site with resident flora that produces beneficial body products, including vitamin K and several other vitamins is the A. skin. B. mouth. C. large intestine. D. vagina. E. nasal passages.

12. Virulence factors include all the following, except A. capsules. B. ribosomes. C. exoenzymes. D. endotoxin. E. exotoxin.

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13. STORCH is an acronym that represents the most common A. genera of resident flora. B. sexually-transmitted diseases. C. portals of entry. D. vectors. E. infections of the fetus and neonate. 14. Microbial hyaluronidase, coagulase, and streptokinase are examples of A. adhesive factors. B. exotoxins. C. hemolysins. D. antiphagocytic factors. E. exoenzymes. 15. Exotoxins are A. proteins. B. only released after a cell is damaged or lysed. C. antiphagocytic factors. D. secretions that always target nervous tissue. E. lipopolysaccharides. 16. Enterotoxins are


A. virulence factors. B. toxins that target the intestines. C. proteins. D. exotoxins. E. All of these choices are correct. 17. Which is mismatched? A. fimbriae - adherence to substrate B. capsules - antiphagocytic factor C. coagulase - dissolve fibrin clots D. leukocidins - damage white blood cells E. hemolysins - damage red blood cells 18. The stage of an infectious disease when specific signs and symptoms are seen and the pathogen is at peak activity is A. prodromal stage. B. convalescent stage. C. incubation period. D. period of invasion. E. All of these choices are correct. 19. The time from when pathogen first enters the body and begins to multiply, until symptoms first appear is the A. prodromal stage. B. convalescent stage. C. incubation period. D. period of invasion. E. All of these choices are correct. 20. The initial, brief period of early, general symptoms such as fatigue and muscle aches, is the NURSINGTB.COM A. prodromal stage. B. convalescent stage. C. incubation period. D. period of invasion. E. All of these choices are correct. 21. Which is mismatched? A. secondary infection - infection spreads to several tissue sites B. mixed infection - several agents established at infection site C. acute infection - rapid onset of severe, short-lived symptoms D. local infection - pathogen remains at or near entry site E. toxemia - pathogen's toxins carried by the blood to target tissues 22. The subjective evidence of disease sensed by the patient is termed A. syndrome. B. symptom. C. sign. D. pathology. E. inflammation. 23. The objective, measurable evidence of disease evaluated by an observer is termed A. syndrome. B. symptom. C. sign. D. pathology. E. inflammation.


24. Local edema, swollen lymph nodes, fever, soreness, and abscesses are indications of A. toxemia. B. inflammation. C. sequelae. D. a syndrome. E. latency. 25. The study of the frequency and distribution of a disease in a defined population is A. pathology. B. clinical microbiology. C. medicine. D. immunology. E. epidemiology. 26. The principal government agency responsible for tracking infectious diseases in the United States is the A. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. B. World Health Organization. C. National Institutes of Health. D. United States Department of Agriculture. E. Infection Control Committee. 27. The number of new cases of a disease in a population over a specific period of time compared with the healthy population is the A. mortality rate. B. morbidity rate. C. incidence rate. D. prevalence rate. E. epidemic rate. 28. A disease that has a steady frequency over time in a population is NURSINGTB.COM A. epidemic. B. endemic. C. pandemic. D. sporadic. E. chronic. 29. The primary, natural habitat of a pathogen where it continues to exist is called the A. fomite. B. carrier. C. vector. D. reservoir. E. source. 30. Someone who inconspicuously harbors a pathogen and spreads it to others is a A. fomite. B. carrier. C. vector. D. reservoir. E. source. 31. An animal, such as an arthropod, that transmits a pathogen from one host to another is a A. fomite. B. carrier. C. vector. D. reservoir. E. source.


32. An inanimate object that harbors and transmits a pathogen is a A. fomite. B. carrier. C. vector. D. reservoir. E. source. 33. Which of the following is an example of vertical transmission? A. drinking contaminated water B. a sneeze transmitting a cold C. oral-fecal transmission involving a diaper D. a mosquito bite E. a mother transmitting syphilis to her fetus 34. Reservoirs include A. humans. B. animals. C. soil. D. water. E. All of these choices are correct. 35. A laboratory technologist splashed a blood specimen onto his face, eyes, nose, and mouth. This specimen was from an HIV positive patient. If this blood exposure leads to HIV infection in the technologist, the transmission route is A. direct. B. fomite. C. vehicle. D. droplet nuclei. E. aerosol.

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36. The dried residues of fine droplets from mucus or saliva that harbor and transmit pathogen are A. fomites. B. aerosols. C. mechanical vectors. D. droplet nuclei. E. biological vectors. 37. Animals that participate in the life cycles of pathogens and transmit pathogens from host to host are A. fomites. B. aerosols. C. mechanical vectors. D. droplet nuclei. E. biological vectors.

38. Health-care-associated infections involve all the following, except A. they are only transmitted by medical personnel. B. they often involve the patient's urinary tract and surgical incisions. C. the patient's resident flora can be the infectious agent. D. Escherichia coli and Staphylococci are common infectious agents. E. medical and surgical asepsis help lower their occurrence. 39. When would Koch's Postulates be utilized? A. to determine the cause of a patient's illness in a hospital microbiology lab B. to develop a new antibiotic in a pharmaceutical lab


C. to determine the cause of a new disease in a microbiology research lab D. to formulate a vaccine against a new pathogen in a genetic engineering lab E. whenever the scientific method is used to investigate a microbiological problem

40. All of the following are correct about mechanical vectors, except A. cockroaches are an example. B. the vector can carry the pathogen on its feet and mouthparts. C. the vector is important to the life cycle of the infectious agent. D. they can spread viral, bacterial, protozoan, and worm infections. E. some, like flies feed on garbage and feces. 41. Which portal of entry is the most commonly used by pathogens? A. urogenital B. gastrointestinal C. respiratory D. skin E. They are all equally used as portals. 42. If the ID for gonorrhea is 1,000 cells and the ID for tuberculosis is 10 cells, which organism is more virulent?

A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis C. They are equally virulent. D. It is impossible to determine. 43. A person with which occupation is most at risk for a zoonotic disease? A. accountant B. teacher C. nurse D. dental hygienist E. forest ranger

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44. All of the following are signs of infectious diseases, except A. fever. B. leucopenia. C. swollen lymph nodes. D. antibodies in serum. E. nausea. 45. When a disease occurs occasionally at irregular intervals and random locales, it is referred to as A. sporadic. B. pandemic. C. endemic. D. epidemic. E. chronic. 46. Joe contracted Hepatitis A by eating contaminated doughnuts from a local bakery. The source of the disease is and the reservoir is . A. Joe; the doughnut B. the doughnut; humans C. humans; flour D. flour; Joe E. humans; Joe 47. Marion is going to the hospital for a triple bypass operation. She will have general anesthesia, intravenous catheter, surgical wounds, and a urinary catheter. Which health-care-associated infection is she at greatest risk for contracting?


A. respiratory B. septicemia C. urinary tract D. surgical site E. meningitis 48. Some diseases can be vertically transmitted. This is understood to mean the disease is transmitted A. from parent to offspring via milk, ovum, sperm, or placenta. B. from parent to offspring via respiratory route. C. by contact between siblings. D. between people living or working in the same building. E. between higher and lower animals. 49. A veterinary hospital had an outbreak of Salmonella infantis. Within the facility, how can Salmonella be spread? A. unwashed hands B. feces C. contaminated objects D. multiple animals using the same stalls without proper cleaning E. All of these choices are correct. 50. A student has their teeth cleaned. The hygienist nicks their gum tissue. The student develops endocarditis due to Streptococcus. What kind of pattern of infection is this? A. localized B. mixed infection C. focal D. systemic E. All of these choices are correct. 51. Most of the skin's resident flora is found in the uppermost, superficial layers of the epidermis. True False

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52. Under certain circumstances, a person's resident flora can be opportunistic pathogens. True False 53. The virulence factors of a pathogen are established by how strong or weak a patient's body defenses are at the time of infection. True False 54. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention assigns the most virulent microbes known to cause human disease to Biosafety Level 4. True False 55. A fetus can get an infection when a pathogen in the mother's blood is capable of crossing the placenta to the fetal circulation and tissues. True False 56. When an infected person is in the incubation period, that person cannot transmit the pathogen to others. True False 57. Septicemia means that a pathogen is present and multiplying in the blood. True False 58. Sentinel animals are monitored for specific diseases in order to determine the potential for human exposure to a disease.


True False 59. Fomites, food, and air serve as indirect transmission routes of pathogens. True False 60. Leukopenia is the

61. A

in the level of white blood cells in a patient.

is an infection indigenous to animals that can, on occasion, be transmitted to humans.

62.

carriers are shedding and transmitting pathogens while they are recovering from an infectious disease.

63.

is the presence of small numbers of bacteria in the blood.

64.

are toxins that are the lipopolysaccharide of the outer membrane of gram-negative cell walls.

65.

are various bacterial enzymes that dissolve fibrin clots.

66. The total number of deaths in a population due to a disease is the 67.

rate.

are a set of criteria used to identify and link a specific microorganism as the etiologic agent of a new infectious disease.

68. Discuss 5 specific contributing factors in the occurrence of health-care-associated infections, and then discuss 3 actions that can help decrease their rate at health care facilities. NURSINGTB.COM 69. Compare and contrast exotoxins and endotoxins with regard to their: a) chemical nature, b) source, c) effects on human body cells and resulting symptoms, and d) examples. 70. Select 5 specific virulence factors and explain how each factor increases a pathogen's virulence. 71. Describe the criteria that make up Koch's Postulates and discuss their importance in modern epidemiology. 72. Write about some ways to prevent any contamination in lab while making sub-cultures. 73. The collection of genetic material from all of the normal microbiota that reside on the human body is known as the A. human biome. B. human microbiome. C. human microcommunity. D. human genome. 74. Of the sites listed below, which is most likely to be free of any normal microbiota? A. large intestine B. uterus C. nasopharynx D. vagina 75. A microbe such as Ebola virus that sickens most everyone that is infected would be characterized as a/an A. opportunistic pathogen. B. obligate pathogen.


C. facultative pathogen. D. true pathogen. 76. Adhesive pili, exotoxins, and capsules are all microbial factors that help them establish infection. These are examples of A. virulence factors. B. infectivity factors. C. pathogenicity factors, D. exogenous factors. 77. Experiments have been done to determine the infective dose of a specific pathogen in animals with normal microbiota and gnotobiotic animals. Predict how the infective dose for gnotobiotic animals is expected to compare to the infective dose of animals with normal microbiota. A. The infective dose would be the same for both groups of animals. B. The infective dose would be lower for the gnotobiotic animals. C. The infective does would be higher for the gnotobiotic animals. 78. Rabid animals typically salivate excessively in the late stages of the disease. This excess salivation A. helps reduce and control the fever. B. is the result of hydrophobia. C. provides a portal of exit for the virus. D. indicates that the salivary glands are the portal of entry. 79. All of the following are communicable diseases, except A. measles. B. botulism. C. influenza. D. pertussis (whooping cough).

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80. Select the noncommunicable disease from the list below. A. tuberculosis B. appendicitis C. chicken pox E. syphilis 81. Universal precautions is designed to protect A. patients. B. health care providers. C. the general public. D. All of these choices are correct. 82. The implementation of universal blood and body fluid precautions assumes that any and all patient specimens may harbor infectious agents and must be handled with the same degree of care. True False


Chapter 13 Testbank Key 1.

Infection occurs when A. contaminants are present on the skin. B. a person swallows microbes in/on food. C. a person inhales microbes in the air. D. pathogens enter and multiply in body tissues. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.01 Describe some of the major interactions between humans and the microbes that share our habitats.

Learning Outcome: 13.02 Identify and define the terms associated with infectious diseases. Section: 13.01 Topic: Development of an Infection Topic: Infectious Disease Terminology

2.

All infectious diseases A. are contagious. B. only occur in humans. C. are caused by microorganisms or their products. D. are caused by vectors. E. involve viruses as the pathogen. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.02 Identify and define the terms associated with infectious diseases. Section: 13.01

Topic: Development of an Infection Topic: Infectious Disease Terminology

3.

Which is not the terminology used for resident flora? NURSINGTB.COM A. Pathogenic flora

B. Normal flora C. Indigenous flora D. Normal microflora E. all of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.02 Identify and define the terms associated with infectious diseases. Learning Outcome: 13.03 Discuss the characteristics of the normal microbiota and the types of functions they serve. Section: 13.01

Topic: Resident Microbiota

4.

Endogenous infectious agents arise from microbes that are A. in food. B. the patient's own normal flora. C. on fomites. D. in the air. E. transmitted from one person to another. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.01 Describe some of the major interactions between humans and the microbes that share our habitats. Learning Outcome: 13.03 Discuss the characteristics of the normal microbiota and the types of functions they serve. Section: 13.01

Topic: Resident Microbiota


5.

The human body typically begins to be colonized by its normal flora A. before birth, in utero. B. during, and immediately after birth. C. when a child first goes to school. D. when an infant gets its first infectious disease. E. during puberty. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.03 Discuss the characteristics of the normal microbiota and the types of functions they serve.

Learning Outcome: 13.04 Briefly relate the sources and conditions that influence the development of microbiota in the major body systems. Section: 13.01

Topic: Resident Microbiota

6.

Resident microbiota are found in/on the A. skin. B. mouth. C. nasal passages. D. large intestine. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.03 Discuss the characteristics of the normal microbiota and the types of functions they serve.

Learning Outcome: 13.04 Briefly relate the sources and conditions that influence the development of microbiota in the major body systems. Section: 13.01

7.

All of the following genera are considered resident microbiota of skin sites, except A. Escherichia. B. Staphylococcus. C. Corynebacterium. D. Micrococcus. E. Mycobacterium.

Topic: Resident Microbiota

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.03 Discuss the characteristics of the normal microbiota and the types of functions they serve.

Learning Outcome: 13.04 Briefly relate the sources and conditions that influence the development of microbiota in the major body systems. Section: 13.01 Topic: Resident Microbiota

8.

Resident flora of the intestines include A. Streptococcus. B. Bacteroides. C. Staphylococcus. D. Haemophilus. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 01.05 The evolutionary relatedness of organisms is best reflected in phylogenetic trees. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.03 Discuss the characteristics of the normal microbiota and the types of functions they serve. Section: 13.01

Topic: Resident Microbiota


9.

Which genus is resident flora of the mouth, large intestine, and, from puberty to menopause, the vagina? A. Lactobacillus B. Streptococcus C. Haemophilus D. Escherichia E. Mycobacterium

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.03 Discuss the characteristics of the normal microbiota and the types of functions they serve.

Learning Outcome: 13.04 Briefly relate the sources and conditions that influence the development of microbiota in the major body systems. Section: 13.01

Topic: Resident Microbiota

10.

Which genus is the most common resident flora of mouth surfaces?

A. Lactobacillus B. Streptococcus C. Haemophilus D. Escherichia E. Mycobacterium ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.03 Discuss the characteristics of the normal microbiota and the types of functions they serve. Section: 13.01

Topic: Resident Microbiota

11.

The body site with resident flora that produces beneficial body products, including vitamin K and several other vitamins is the A. skin. B. mouth. C. large intestine. D. vagina. E. nasal passages.

NURSINGTB.COM ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.03 Discuss the characteristics of the normal microbiota and the types of functions they serve.

Learning Outcome: 13.04 Briefly relate the sources and conditions that influence the development of microbiota in the major body systems. Section: 13.01

12.

Topic: Resident Microbiota

Virulence factors include all the following, except A. capsules. B. ribosomes. C. exoenzymes. D. endotoxin. E. exotoxin. ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.12 Identify and discuss invasive factors and virulence factors. Section: 13.02

Topic: Virulence/Host Damage


13.

STORCH is an acronym that represents the most common A. genera of resident flora. B. sexually-transmitted diseases. C. portals of entry. D. vectors. E. infections of the fetus and neonate.

ASM Objective: 01.02 Mutations and horizontal gene transfer, with the immense variety of microenvironments, have selected for a huge diversity of microorganisms. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.09 Describe the differences among the portals of entry and give examples of pathogens that invade by these means. Learning Outcome: 13.11 Describe the process of adhesion and various mechanisms by which microbes use it to gain entry. Learning Outcome: 13.23 Characterize the patterns of transmission for communicable diseases. Section: 13.02 Topic: Transmission of Infections

14.

Microbial hyaluronidase, coagulase, and streptokinase are examples of A. adhesive factors. B. exotoxins. C. hemolysins. D. antiphagocytic factors. E. exoenzymes. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.12 Identify and discuss invasive factors and virulence factors. Section: 13.02

Topic: Virulence/Host Damage

15.

Exotoxins are A. proteins. B. only released after a cell is damaged or lysed. NURSINGTB.COM C. antiphagocytic factors. D. secretions that always target nervous tissue. E. lipopolysaccharides.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.13 Compare and contrast the major characteristics of exotoxins and endotoxins. Section: 13.02

Topic: Virulence/Host Damage

16.

Enterotoxins are A. virulence factors. B. toxins that target the intestines. C. proteins. D. exotoxins. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.12 Identify and discuss invasive factors and virulence factors. Learning Outcome: 13.13 Compare and contrast the major characteristics of exotoxins and endotoxins. Section: 13.02

17.

Which is mismatched? A. fimbriae - adherence to substrate B. capsules - antiphagocytic factor C. coagulase - dissolve fibrin clots D. leukocidins - damage white blood cells E. hemolysins - damage red blood cells

Topic: Virulence/Host Damage


ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.11 Describe the process of adhesion and various mechanisms by which microbes use it to gain entry. Learning Outcome: 13.12 Identify and discuss invasive factors and virulence factors. Section: 13.02

Topic: Virulence/Host Damage

18.

The stage of an infectious disease when specific signs and symptoms are seen and the pathogen is at peak activity is A. prodromal stage. B. convalescent stage. C. incubation period. D. period of invasion. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.07 Review the main stages in the development of an infection. Learning Outcome: 13.14 Describe the clinical stages of infection. Section: 13.03 Topic: Development of an Infection Topic: Infectious Disease Terminology

19.

The time from when pathogen first enters the body and begins to multiply, until symptoms first appear is the A. prodromal stage. B. convalescent stage. C. incubation period. D. period of invasion. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems NURSINGTB.COM Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.07 Review the main stages in the development of an infection. Learning Outcome: 13.14 Describe the clinical stages of infection. Section: 13.03 Topic: Development of an Infection Topic: Infectious Disease Terminology

20.

The initial, brief period of early, general symptoms such as fatigue and muscle aches, is the A. prodromal stage. B. convalescent stage. C. incubation period. D. period of invasion. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.07 Review the main stages in the development of an infection. Learning Outcome: 13.14 Describe the clinical stages of infection. Section: 13.03 Topic: Development of an Infection Topic: Infectious Disease Terminology

21.

Which is mismatched? A. secondary infection - infection spreads to several tissue sites B. mixed infection - several agents established at infection site C. acute infection - rapid onset of severe, short-lived symptoms D. local infection - pathogen remains at or near entry site E. toxemia - pathogen's toxins carried by the blood to target tissues

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.15 Use key terms to describe different patterns of infection.


Section: 13.03

Topic: Development of an Infection Topic: Infectious Disease Terminology

22.

The subjective evidence of disease sensed by the patient is termed A. syndrome. B. symptom. C. sign. D. pathology. E. inflammation.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.16 Use correct terminology to explain the manifestations of infections and inflammation. Section: 13.03

Topic: Infectious Disease Terminology

23.

The objective, measurable evidence of disease evaluated by an observer is termed A. syndrome. B. symptom. C. sign. D. pathology. E. inflammation.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.02 Identify and define the terms associated with infectious diseases. Learning Outcome: 13.16 Use correct terminology to explain the manifestations of infections and inflammation. Section: 13.03

Topic: Infectious Disease Terminology

24.

Local edema, swollen lymph nodes, fever, soreness, and abscesses are indications of A. toxemia. B. inflammation. C. sequelae. D. a syndrome. E. latency.

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.07 Review the main stages in the development of an infection. Learning Outcome: 13.16 Use correct terminology to explain the manifestations of infections and inflammation. Section: 13.03

Topic: Infectious Disease Terminology Topic: Virulence/Host Damage

25.

The study of the frequency and distribution of a disease in a defined population is A. pathology. B. clinical microbiology. C. medicine. D. immunology. E. epidemiology.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.18 Define epidemiology, and summarize the major goals of its studies. Section: 13.04

Topic: Epidemiology

26.

The principal government agency responsible for tracking infectious diseases in the United States is the A. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. B. World Health Organization. C. National Institutes of Health. D. United States Department of Agriculture. E. Infection Control Committee.


ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.18 Define epidemiology, and summarize the major goals of its studies. Learning Outcome: 13.24 Explain the primary methods of tracking infections and diseases in a population. Section: 13.05

Topic: Epidemiology

27.

The number of new cases of a disease in a population over a specific period of time compared with the healthy population is the A. mortality rate. B. morbidity rate. C. incidence rate. D. prevalence rate. E. epidemic rate.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.24 Explain the primary methods of tracking infections and diseases in a population. Learning Outcome: 13.25 Differentiate among the patterns of disease outbreaks according to frequency, number, and location. Section: 13.05

Topic: Epidemiology

28.

A disease that has a steady frequency over time in a population is A. epidemic. B. endemic. C. pandemic. D. sporadic. E. chronic.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.02 Identify and define the terms associated with infectious diseases. Learning Outcome: 13.25 Differentiate among the patterns of disease outbreaks according to frequency, number, and location. Section: 13.05 NURSINGTB.COM Topic: Epidemiology Topic: Infectious Disease Terminology

29.

The primary, natural habitat of a pathogen where it continues to exist is called the A. fomite. B. carrier. C. vector. D. reservoir. E. source.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.02 Identify and define the terms associated with infectious diseases. Learning Outcome: 13.19 Relate the significant factors involved in the transmission of infectious diseases. Section: 13.04 Topic: Epidemiology

Topic: Infectious Disease Terminology

30.

Someone who inconspicuously harbors a pathogen and spreads it to others is a A. fomite. B. carrier. C. vector. D. reservoir. E. source.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.02 Identify and define the terms associated with infectious diseases. Learning Outcome: 13.19 Relate the significant factors involved in the transmission of infectious diseases. Learning Outcome: 13.20 Explain the concept of carriers and describe several types. Section: 13.04


Topic: Transmission of Infections

31.

An animal, such as an arthropod, that transmits a pathogen from one host to another is a A. fomite. B. carrier. C. vector. D. reservoir. E. source.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.19 Relate the significant factors involved in the transmission of infectious diseases. Learning Outcome: 13.20 Explain the concept of carriers and describe several types. Learning Outcome: 13.21 Use examples to distinguish between the types of vectors, and discuss the importance of zoonoses. Section: 13.04 Topic: Transmission of Infections

32.

An inanimate object that harbors and transmits a pathogen is a A. fomite. B. carrier. C. vector. D. reservoir. E. source.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.02 Identify and define the terms associated with infectious diseases. Learning Outcome: 13.19 Relate the significant factors involved in the transmission of infectious diseases. Learning Outcome: 13.23 Characterize the patterns of transmission for communicable diseases. Section: 13.04 Topic: Transmission of Infections

33.

Which of the following is an example of vertical transmission? A. drinking contaminated water B. a sneeze transmitting a cold NURSINGTB.COM C. oral-fecal transmission involving a diaper D. a mosquito bite E. a mother transmitting syphilis to her fetus

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.23 Characterize the patterns of transmission for communicable diseases. Section: 13.04

Topic: Transmission of Infections

34.

Reservoirs include A. humans. B. animals. C. soil. D. water. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 13.02 Identify and define the terms associated with infectious diseases. Learning Outcome: 13.19 Relate the significant factors involved in the transmission of infectious diseases. Section: 13.04

Topic: Transmission of Infections

35.

A laboratory technologist splashed a blood specimen onto his face, eyes, nose, and mouth. This specimen was from an HIV positive patient. If this blood exposure leads to HIV infection in the technologist, the transmission route is A. direct. B. fomite. C. vehicle. D. droplet nuclei.


E. aerosol. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 13.09 Describe the differences among the portals of entry and give examples of pathogens that invade by these means. Learning Outcome: 13.23 Characterize the patterns of transmission for communicable diseases. Section: 13.04

Topic: Transmission of Infections

36.

The dried residues of fine droplets from mucus or saliva that harbor and transmit pathogen are A. fomites. B. aerosols. C. mechanical vectors. D. droplet nuclei. E. biological vectors.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 13.09 Describe the differences among the portals of entry and give examples of pathogens that invade by these means. Learning Outcome: 13.23 Characterize the patterns of transmission for communicable diseases. Section: 13.04

Topic: Transmission of Infections

37.

Animals that participate in the life cycles of pathogens and transmit pathogens from host to host are A. fomites. B. aerosols. C. mechanical vectors. D. droplet nuclei. E. biological vectors.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.21 Use examples to distinguish between the types of vectors, and discuss the importance of zoonoses. Learning Outcome: 13.23 Characterize the patterns of transmission for communicable diseases. Section: 13.04

NURSINGTB.COM

38.

Topic: Transmission of Infections

Health-care-associated infections involve all the following, except A. they are only transmitted by medical personnel. B. they often involve the patient's urinary tract and surgical incisions. C. the patient's resident flora can be the infectious agent. D. Escherichia coli and Staphylococci are common infectious agents. E. medical and surgical asepsis help lower their occurrence.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.23 Characterize the patterns of transmission for communicable diseases. Learning Outcome: 13.27 Discuss important aspects of health-care-associated infections and their impact on patients in clinical settings. Section: 13.04

Topic: Transmission of Infections

39.

When would Koch's Postulates be utilized? A. to determine the cause of a patient's illness in a hospital microbiology lab B. to develop a new antibiotic in a pharmaceutical lab C. to determine the cause of a new disease in a microbiology research lab D. to formulate a vaccine against a new pathogen in a genetic engineering lab E. whenever the scientific method is used to investigate a microbiological problem

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.26 Summarize the steps in Koch's postulates, and explain their importance to microbiologists. Section: 13.05

40.

Topic: Infectious Disease Terminology

All of the following are correct about mechanical vectors, except A. cockroaches are an example.


B. the vector can carry the pathogen on its feet and mouthparts. C. the vector is important to the life cycle of the infectious agent. D. they can spread viral, bacterial, protozoan, and worm infections. E. some, like flies feed on garbage and feces. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.21 Use examples to distinguish between the types of vectors, and discuss the importance of zoonoses. Section: 13.04

Topic: Transmission of Infections

41.

Which portal of entry is the most commonly used by pathogens? A. urogenital B. gastrointestinal C. respiratory D. skin E. They are all equally used as portals.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.09 Describe the differences among the portals of entry and give examples of pathogens that invade by these means. Section: 13.02

Topic: Transmission of Infections

42.

If the ID for gonorrhea is 1,000 cells and the ID for tuberculosis is 10 cells, which organism is more virulent?

A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis C. They are equally virulent. D. It is impossible to determine. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 13.10 Explain what is meant by the infectious dose, using examples. NURSINGTB.COM Section: 13.01

Topic: Infectious Disease Terminology Topic: Transmission of Infections

43.

A person with which occupation is most at risk for a zoonotic disease? A. accountant B. teacher C. nurse D. dental hygienist E. forest ranger

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 13.02 Identify and define the terms associated with infectious diseases. Learning Outcome: 13.19 Relate the significant factors involved in the transmission of infectious diseases. Section: 13.04

44.

Topic: Transmission of Infections

All of the following are signs of infectious diseases, except A. fever. B. leucopenia. C. swollen lymph nodes. D. antibodies in serum. E. nausea.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.02 Identify and define the terms associated with infectious diseases. Learning Outcome: 13.16 Use correct terminology to explain the manifestations of infections and inflammation. Section: 13.03

Topic: Development of an Infection Topic: Infectious Disease Terminology


45.

When a disease occurs occasionally at irregular intervals and random locales, it is referred to as A. sporadic. B. pandemic. C. endemic. D. epidemic. E. chronic.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.02 Identify and define the terms associated with infectious diseases. Learning Outcome: 13.25 Differentiate among the patterns of disease outbreaks according to frequency, number, and location. Section: 13.05 Topic: Epidemiology Topic: Infectious Disease Terminology

46.

Joe contracted Hepatitis A by eating contaminated doughnuts from a local bakery. The source of the disease is and the reservoir is . A. Joe; the doughnut B. the doughnut; humans C. humans; flour D. flour; Joe E. humans; Joe

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 13.19 Relate the significant factors involved in the transmission of infectious diseases. Learning Outcome: 13.23 Characterize the patterns of transmission for communicable diseases. Section: 13.04 Topic: Infectious Disease Terminology Topic: Transmission of Infections

47.

Marion is going to the hospital for a triple bypass operation. She will have general anesthesia, intravenous catheter, surgical wounds, and a urinary catheter. Which health-care-associated infection is she at greatest risk for contracting? NURSINGTB.COM A. respiratory B. septicemia C. urinary tract D. surgical site E. meningitis

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 13.23 Characterize the patterns of transmission for communicable diseases. Learning Outcome: 13.27 Discuss important aspects of health-care-associated infections and their impact on patients in clinical settings. Section: 13.04 Section: 13.05 Topic: Epidemiology Topic: Transmission of Infections

48.

Some diseases can be vertically transmitted. This is understood to mean the disease is transmitted A. from parent to offspring via milk, ovum, sperm, or placenta. B. from parent to offspring via respiratory route. C. by contact between siblings. D. between people living or working in the same building. E. between higher and lower animals.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.19 Relate the significant factors involved in the transmission of infectious diseases. Learning Outcome: 13.23 Characterize the patterns of transmission for communicable diseases. Section: 13.04

Topic: Transmission of Infections

49.

A veterinary hospital had an outbreak of Salmonella infantis. Within the facility, how can Salmonella be spread?


A. unwashed hands B. feces C. contaminated objects D. multiple animals using the same stalls without proper cleaning E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 13.19 Relate the significant factors involved in the transmission of infectious diseases. Learning Outcome: 13.23 Characterize the patterns of transmission for communicable diseases. Section: 13.04

Topic: Transmission of Infections

50.

A student has their teeth cleaned. The hygienist nicks their gum tissue. The student develops endocarditis due to Streptococcus. What kind of pattern of infection is this? A. localized B. mixed infection C. focal D. systemic E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 13.05 Identify which bodily sites remain free of living organisms, and explain why this is necessary. Learning Outcome: 13.15 Use key terms to describe different patterns of infection. Section: 13.03 Topic: Infectious Disease Terminology Topic: Resident Microbiota Topic: Transmission of Infections

51.

Most of the skin's resident flora is found in the uppermost, superficial layers of the epidermis. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.0N 3U DR iscSuIsN sG the eristics of the normal microbiota and the types of functions they serve. TcBh.aCraOctM Section: 13.01

Topic: Resident Microbiota

52.

Under certain circumstances, a person's resident flora can be opportunistic pathogens. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.01 Describe some of the major interactions between humans and the microbes that share our habitats. Learning Outcome: 13.03 Discuss the characteristics of the normal microbiota and the types of functions they serve. Learning Outcome: 13.12 Identify and discuss invasive factors and virulence factors. Section: 13.01 Topic: Resident Microbiota Topic: Virulence/Host Damage

53.

The virulence factors of a pathogen are established by how strong or weak a patient's body defenses are at the time of infection. FALSE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.11 Describe the process of adhesion and various mechanisms by which microbes use it to gain entry. Learning Outcome: 13.12 Identify and discuss invasive factors and virulence factors. Section: 13.02

Topic: Virulence/Host Damage

54.

The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention assigns the most virulent microbes known to cause human disease to Biosafety Level 4. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember


Learning Outcome: 13.12 Identify and discuss invasive factors and virulence factors. Section: 13.02

Topic: Virulence/Host Damage

55.

A fetus can get an infection when a pathogen in the mother's blood is capable of crossing the placenta to the fetal circulation and tissues. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.19 Relate the significant factors involved in the transmission of infectious diseases. Learning Outcome: 13.23 Characterize the patterns of transmission for communicable diseases. Section: 13.04

Topic: Transmission of Infections

56.

When an infected person is in the incubation period, that person cannot transmit the pathogen to others. FALSE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.14 Describe the clinical stages of infection. Section: 13.03

Topic: Infectious Disease Terminology Topic: Transmission of Infections

57.

Septicemia means that a pathogen is present and multiplying in the blood. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.02 Identify and define the terms associated with infectious diseases. Learning Outcome: 13.15 Use key terms to describe different patterns of infection. Section: 13.03

Topic: Infectious Disease Terminology

58.

Sentinel animals are monitored for specific diseases in order to determine the potential for human exposure to a disease. NURSINGTB.COM TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.21 Use examples to distinguish between the types of vectors, and discuss the importance of zoonoses. Learning Outcome: 13.23 Characterize the patterns of transmission for communicable diseases. Section: 13.04

Topic: Epidemiology

59.

Fomites, food, and air serve as indirect transmission routes of pathogens. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.19 Relate the significant factors involved in the transmission of infectious diseases. Section: 13.04

Topic: Transmission of Infections

60.

Leukopenia is the

in the level of white blood cells in a patient.

decrease ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.16 Use correct terminology to explain the manifestations of infections and inflammation. Section: 13.03

Topic: Development of an Infection Topic: Infectious Disease Terminology

61.

A

is an infection indigenous to animals that can, on occasion, be transmitted to humans.

zoonosis


ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.02 Identify and define the terms associated with infectious diseases. Section: 13.01

Topic: Infectious Disease Terminology Topic: Transmission of Infections

62.

carriers are shedding and transmitting pathogens while they are recovering from an infectious disease. Convalescent

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.02 Identify and define the terms associated with infectious diseases. Learning Outcome: 13.14 Describe the clinical stages of infection. Learning Outcome: 13.20 Explain the concept of carriers and describe several types. Section: 13.04 Topic: Transmission of Infections

63.

is the presence of small numbers of bacteria in the blood. Bacteremia

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.15 Use key terms to describe different patterns of infection.

Learning Outcome: 13.16 Use correct terminology to explain the manifestations of infections and inflammation. Section: 13.03

Topic: Infectious Disease Terminology

64.

are toxins that are the lipopolysaccharide of the outer membrane of gram-negative cell walls. Endotoxins

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember NURSINGTB.COM Learning Outcome: 13.13 Compare and contrast the major characteristics of exotoxins and endotoxins. Section: 13.02

Topic: Virulence/Host Damage

65.

are various bacterial enzymes that dissolve fibrin clots. Kinases

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.12 Identify and discuss invasive factors and virulence factors. Section: 13.02

Topic: Virulence/Host Damage

66.

The total number of deaths in a population due to a disease is the

rate.

mortality ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.02 Identify and define the terms associated with infectious diseases. Learning Outcome: 13.25 Differentiate among the patterns of disease outbreaks according to frequency, number, and location. Section: 13.05 Topic: Epidemiology Topic: Infectious Disease Terminology

67.

are a set of criteria used to identify and link a specific microorganism as the etiologic agent of a new infectious disease. Koch's Postulates

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.26 Summarize the steps in Koch's postulates, and explain their importance to microbiologists. Section: 13.05


Topic: Epidemiology Topic: Transmission of Infections

68.

Discuss 5 specific contributing factors in the occurrence of health-care-associated infections, and then discuss 3 actions that can help decrease their rate at health care facilities.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze Learning Outcome: 13.06 Explain the germ-free condition and how it is important to microbiologists. Learning Outcome: 13.23 Characterize the patterns of transmission for communicable diseases. Learning Outcome: 13.27 Discuss important aspects of health-care-associated infections and their impact on patients in clinical settings. Section: 13.05 Topic: Transmission of Infections

69.

Compare and contrast exotoxins and endotoxins with regard to their: a) chemical nature, b) source, c) effects on human body cells and resulting symptoms, and d) examples.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 13.12 Identify and discuss invasive factors and virulence factors. Learning Outcome: 13.13 Compare and contrast the major characteristics of exotoxins and endotoxins. Section: 13.02

Topic: Virulence/Host Damage

70.

Select 5 specific virulence factors and explain how each factor increases a pathogen's virulence.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 13.12 Identify and discuss invasive factors and virulence factors. Section: 13.02

Topic: Virulence/Host Damage

71.

Describe the criteria that make up Koch's Postulates and discuss their importance in modern epidemiology.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 13.26 Summarize the steps in Koch's postulates, and explain their importance to microbiologists. Section: 13.05 Topic: Epidemiology Topic: Transmission of Infections NURSINGTB.COM

72.

Write about some ways to prevent any contamination in lab while making sub-cultures.

ASM Objective: 08.02 Use pure culture and selective techniques to enrich for and isolate microorganisms. ASM Objective: 08.06 Practice safe microbiology, using appropriate protective and emergency procedures.

ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 13.06 Explain the germ-free condition and how it is important to microbiologists. Section: 13.01 Topic: Transmission of Infections

73.

The collection of genetic material from all of the normal microbiota that reside on the human body is known as the A. human biome. B. human microbiome. C. human microcommunity. D. human genome. ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.03 Discuss the characteristics of the normal microbiota and the types of functions they serve. Section: 13.01

Topic: Resident Microbiota

74.

Of the sites listed below, which is most likely to be free of any normal microbiota? A. large intestine B. uterus C. nasopharynx D. vagina ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.


ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.05 Identify which bodily sites remain free of living organisms, and explain why this is necessary. Section: 13.01

Topic: Resident Microbiota

75.

A microbe such as Ebola virus that sickens most everyone that is infected would be characterized as a/an A. opportunistic pathogen. B. obligate pathogen. C. facultative pathogen. D. true pathogen.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 13.08 Categorize the different types and degrees of pathogens and differentiate pathogenicity and virulence. Section: 13.02

Topic: Virulence/Host Damage

76.

Adhesive pili, exotoxins, and capsules are all microbial factors that help them establish infection. These are examples of A. virulence factors. B. infectivity factors. C. pathogenicity factors, D. exogenous factors. ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 13.08 Categorize the different types and degrees of pathogens and differentiate pathogenicity and virulence. Section: 13.02

Topic: Infectious Disease Terminology Topic: Virulence/Host Damage

77.

Experiments have been done to determine the infective dose of a specific pathogen in animals with normal microbiota and gnotobiotic animals. Predict how the infective dose for gnotobioN ticUa is.C eO xpM ected to compare to the infective dose of animals RnSiIm NaGlsTB with normal microbiota. A. The infective dose would be the same for both groups of animals. B. The infective dose would be lower for the gnotobiotic animals. C. The infective does would be higher for the gnotobiotic animals.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze Learning Outcome: 13.10 Explain what is meant by the infectious dose, using examples. Section: 13.02

Topic: Development of an Infection Topic: Resident Microbiota

78.

Rabid animals typically salivate excessively in the late stages of the disease. This excess salivation A. helps reduce and control the fever. B. is the result of hydrophobia. C. provides a portal of exit for the virus. D. indicates that the salivary glands are the portal of entry.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 13.17 Discuss the major portals of exit and how they influence the end stages of infection and disease. Section: 13.03

Topic: Transmission of Infections

79.

All of the following are communicable diseases, except A. measles. B. botulism. C. influenza. D. pertussis (whooping cough).


ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.22 Differentiate between communicable and noncommunicable infectious diseases. Section: 13.04

Topic: Transmission of Infections

80.

Select the noncommunicable disease from the list below. A. tuberculosis B. appendicitis C. chicken pox D. syphilis

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.22 Differentiate between communicable and noncommunicable infectious diseases. Section: 13.04

Topic: Transmission of Infections

81.

Universal precautions is designed to protect A. patients. B. health care providers. C. the general public. D. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.28 Explain what is meant by universal precautions, and discuss how they are implemented. Section: 13.05 Topic: Epidemiology Topic: Transmission of Infections

82.

The implementation of universal blood and body fluid precautions assumes that any and all patient specimens may harbor infectious agents and must be handled with the same degree of care. NURSINGTB.COM TRUE

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.28 Explain what is meant by universal precautions, and discuss how they are implemented. Section: 13.05 Topic: Epidemiology Topic: Transmission of Infections


Chapter 13 Testbank Summary Category

# of Questions

ASM Objective: 01.02 Mutations and horizontal gene transfer, with the immense variety of microenvironments, have selected for a huge diversity of microorganisms.

1

ASM Objective: 01.05 The evolutionary relatedness of organisms is best reflected in phylogenetic trees.

1

ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that ofte n confer critical capabilities.

2

ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metaboli c characteristics.

1

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biologic al means.

2

ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems.

1

ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

13

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in benefi cial, neutral or detrimental ways.

81

ASM Objective: 08.02 Use pure culture and selective techniques to enrich for and isolate microorganisms.

1

ASM Objective: 08.06 Practice safe microbiology, using appropriate protective and emergency procedures.

1

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function

2

ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways

3

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems

77

ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills

1

Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

28

Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand

36

Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply

16

Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze

2

Learning Outcome: 13.01 Describe some of the major interactions between humans and the microbes that share our habitats.

3

Learning Outcome: 13.02 Identify and define the terms associated with infectious diseases.

16

NG Learning Outcome: 13.03 Discuss the characteristics of N thU eRnS oIrm alTmBic.C roO bM iota and the types of functions they serve.

12

Learning Outcome: 13.04 Briefly relate the sources and conditions that influence the development of microbiota in th e major body systems.

5

Learning Outcome: 13.05 Identify which bodily sites remain free of living organisms, and explain why this is necessar y.

2

Learning Outcome: 13.06 Explain the germ-free condition and how it is important to microbiologists.

2

Learning Outcome: 13.07 Review the main stages in the development of an infection.

4

Learning Outcome: 13.08 Categorize the different types and degrees of pathogens and differentiate pathogenicity an d virulence.

2

Learning Outcome: 13.09 Describe the differences among the portals of entry and give examples of pathogens that invade by these means.

4

Learning Outcome: 13.10 Explain what is meant by the infectious dose, using examples.

2

Learning Outcome: 13.11 Describe the process of adhesion and various mechanisms by which microbes use it to gai n entry.

3

Learning Outcome: 13.12 Identify and discuss invasive factors and virulence factors.

10

Learning Outcome: 13.13 Compare and contrast the major characteristics of exotoxins and endotoxins.

4

Learning Outcome: 13.14 Describe the clinical stages of infection.

5

Learning Outcome: 13.15 Use key terms to describe different patterns of infection.

4

Learning Outcome: 13.16 Use correct terminology to explain the manifestations of infections and inflammation.

6

Learning Outcome: 13.17 Discuss the major portals of exit and how they influence the end stages of infection and dis ease.

1

Learning Outcome: 13.18 Define epidemiology, and summarize the major goals of its studies.

2

Learning Outcome: 13.19 Relate the significant factors involved in the transmission of infectious diseases.

11

Learning Outcome: 13.20 Explain the concept of carriers and describe several types.

3

Learning Outcome: 13.21 Use examples to distinguish between the types of vectors, and discuss the importance of z oonoses.

4

Learning Outcome: 13.22 Differentiate between communicable and noncommunicable infectious diseases.

2


Learning Outcome: 13.23 Characterize the patterns of transmission for communicable diseases. Learning Outcome: 13.24 Explain the primary methods of tracking infections and diseases in a population. Learning Outcome: 13.25 Differentiate among the patterns of disease outbreaks according to frequency, number, an d location.

14 2 4

Learning Outcome: 13.26 Summarize the steps in Koch's postulates, and explain their importance to microbiologists.

3

Learning Outcome: 13.27 Discuss important aspects of health-careassociated infections and their impact on patients in clinical settings.

3

Learning Outcome: 13.28 Explain what is meant by universal precautions, and discuss how they are implemented.

2

Section: 13.01

18

Section: 13.02

16

Section: 13.03

14

Section: 13.04

23

Section: 13.05

12

Topic: Development of an Infection

9

Topic: Epidemiology

13

Topic: Infectious Disease Terminology

24

Topic: Resident Microbiota

15

Topic: Transmission of Infections Topic: Virulence/Host Damage

33 15


Chapter 14 Testbank Student:

1.

Components of the first line of defense include all the following, except A. the tough cell sheet of the upper epidermis of the skin. B. nasal hairs. C. flushing action of tears and blinking. D. flushing action of urine. E. phagocytic white blood cells.

2.

Nonspecific chemical defenses include A. lysozyme. B. lactic acid and electrolytes of sweat. C. skin's acidic pH and fatty acids. D. stomach hydrochloric acid. E. All of these choices are correct.

3.

The chemical found in tears and saliva that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan in certain bacterial cell walls is A. lactic acid. B. hydrochloric acid. C. lysozyme. D. histamine. E. bile.

4.

The body region where a ciliary escalator helps to sweep microbes trapped in mucus away from that body site is the A. skin. B. respiratory tract. C. digestive tract. D. urinary tract. E. eyes.

5.

NURSINGTB.COM

Which body region is protected by fatty acids, acidic pH, lactic acid, and a tough cell barrier with its own normal flora? A. skin B. respiratory tract C. digestive tract D. urinary tract E. eyes

6.

Plasma A. is the liquid portion of blood in which blood cells are suspended. B. is mostly water. C. contains albumin and globulins. D. contains fibrinogen. E. All of these choices are correct.

7.

Which of the following is an example of GALT? A. appendix B. lymph nodes C. spleen D. tonsils E. thymus gland

8.

The blood cells that particularly target parasitic worms and fungi are


A. basophils. B. eosinophils. C. neutrophils. D. monocytes. E. lymphocytes. 9.

The clearance of pus, cellular debris, dead neutrophils, and damaged tissue after inflammation is performed by A. basophils. B. eosinophils. C. neutrophils. D. macrophages. E. lymphocytes.

10. Which is incorrect regarding fever? A. It is present in all vertebrates. B. It stimulates the activity of T-cells. C. It is associated exclusively with bacterial infections. D. When rising, a person feels cold. E. It inhibits the multiplication of temperature-sensitive microorganisms. 11. The most numerous WBCs, that have multilobed nuclei and are very phagocytic are A. basophils. B. eosinophils. C. neutrophils. D. monocytes. E. lymphocytes. 12. Which cell type is phagocytic and can migrate out into body tissues to differentiate into macrophages? A. basophils B. eosinophils C. neutrophils D. monocytes E. lymphocytes

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13. All of the following pertain to platelets, except A. they contain hemoglobin to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide. B. they are also called thrombocytes. C. they originate from cells called megakaryocytes. D. they function in blood clotting and inflammation. E. they are not whole cells but are pieces of cells. 14. Hemopoiesis is the A. loss of blood due to hemorrhaging. B. production of only red blood cells. C. production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets. D. plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding. E. migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues. 15. Diapedesis is the A. loss of blood due to hemorrhaging. B. production of only red blood cells. C. production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets. D. plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding. E. migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues. 16. Plasma cells


A. function in cell-mediated immunity. B. are derived from T-lymphocytes. C. function in blood clotting. D. produce and secrete antibodies. E. All of these choices are correct. 17. The reticuloendothelial system A. is a support network of connective tissue fibers. B. originates in the cellular basal lamina. C. provides a passageway within and between tissues and organs. D. is heavily populated with macrophages. E. All of these choices are correct. 18. Which of the following lymphoid organs has the immunological function of filtering pathogens from the blood? A. lymph nodes B. thymus C. spleen D. galt E. tonsils 19. Which structures are found along lymphatic vessels but are heavily clustered in the armpit, groin, and neck? A. lymph nodes B. thymus C. spleen D. galt E. tonsils 20. Which gland shrinks in size during adulthood, and has hormones that function in maturation of T-lymphocytes? A. lymph nodes B. thymus C. spleen D. galt E. tonsils

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21. The lymphoid tissues of the intestinal tract are collectively referred to as A. lymph nodes. B. thymus. C. spleen. D. GALT. E. tonsils.

22. The four classic signs and symptoms of inflammation include all the following, except A. redness. B. warmth. C. swelling. D. pain. E. chills.

23. All the following are events of early inflammation, except A. macrophages appear first and begin phagocytosis. B. chemical mediators and cytokines are released. C. brief vasoconstriction is followed by vasodilation. D. exudate and pus can accumulate. E. capillaries become more permeable resulting in edema. 24. Which is incorrect about inflammation?


A. It can last hours to years. B. Pyrogens cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability. C. Serotonin causes smooth muscle contraction. D. Fever could be beneficial to inhibiting the pathogen. E. Basophils and mast cells release histamine. 25. Which is mismatched? A. interferon alpha and beta - inhibits viral replication B. interleukin-2 - stimulates T-cell mitosis and B-cell antibody production C. serotonin - causes smooth muscle contraction D. prostaglandins - activate eosinophils and B-cells E. tumor necrosis factor - increases chemotaxis and phagocytosis 26. Histamine, serotonin, and bradykinin are all A. vasoactive mediators. B. mediators of B-cell activity. C. mediators of T-cell activity. D. mediators that increase chemotaxis. E. fever inducers. 27. Which white blood cells are particularly attracted to sites of parasitic infections? A. monocytes B. eosinophils C. basophils D. neutrophils E. lymphocytes

28. All of the following can be recognized by toll-like receptors, except A. single-stranded viral RNA. B. flagellin. C. host cell membrane proteins. D. lipoteichoic acid. E. lipopolysaccharide.

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29. Elimination and destruction systems present in the phagolysosome include all the following, except A. bromine. B. hydroxyl free radical. C. nitric oxide. D. lactic acid. E. lysozyme. 30. The circulating substances that affect the hypothalamus and initiate fever are A. complements. B. interferons. C. leukotrienes. D. pyrogens. E. lysozymes. 31. Which is incorrect about complement? A. Complement is composed of at least 26 blood proteins. B. Complement proteins only appear in the blood during a response to a pathogen. C. The complement system acts in a cascade reaction. D. Activation of complement can involve a classical pathway. E. Activation of complement can involve an alternate pathway. 32. The membrane attack stage of the complement cascade involves


A. initiation of the cascade. B. production of inflammatory cytokines. C. the assembly of a ring-shaped protein that forms holes in bacterial cell membranes and virus envelopes. D. cleaving of C3 to yield C3a and C3b. E. C1q binds to surface receptors on a membrane. 33. Specificity and memory are associated with which body defense mechanism? A. Inflammatory response B. Phagocytosis by macrophages and neutrophils C. Interferon D. T-cell and B-cell responses E. Anatomical barriers in the body 34. All of the following are types of granulocytes because they have prominent cytoplasmic granules when stained, except A. eosinophils. B. monocytes. C. neutrophils. D. basophils. E. They are all granulocytes.

35. All of the following are types of agranulocytes because they do not have prominent granules in their cytoplasm when stained, except A. T-cells. B. B-cells. C. monocytes. D. lymphocytes. E. basophils. 36. Due to the way the lymph drains from lymph nodes, cell and products of immunity continually A. enter the cardivascular system. B. enter the liver. C. enter the gastrointestinal tract. D. enter the gallbladder. E. enter the thymus gland.

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37. Joe cut his finger on a sharp twig and now is experiencing dolor. This means A. redness. B. pain. C. loss of function. D. warmth. E. swelling. 38. Maria was scratched on her arm by her cat and the site is experiencing rubor. This means A. redness. B. pain. C. loss of function. D. warmth. E. swelling. 39. The key phagocytic cells of the body are the A. neutrophils and macrophages. B. basophils and neutrophils. C. eosinophils and macrophages. D. macrophages and monocytes. E. natural killer cells.


40. Juan has influenza and has aches, pains, and a fever. His mother, a physician, tells him to take an antipyretic. What is she telling him to take? A. an antibiotic, like erythromycin B. an antiviral drug, like tamiflu C. an antihistamine D. acetaminophen, like tylenol E. herbal tea with honey 41. Joan's inflamed and painful joints are likely due to which of the following chemicals? A. gamma interferon B. interleukin-5 C. prostaglandins D. histamine E. platelet-activating factor

42. All of the following are correct about lymph, except A. its composition is similar to plasma. B. it travels in vessels similar to blood vessels. C. it is made mostly of water. D. it transports numerous white blood cells. E. it is transported through the body by the same pump as blood, i.e., the heart. 43. The contribution of B-cells is mainly in A. inflammation. B. humoral immunity. C. complement activity. D. cell-mediated immunity. E. phagocytosis. 44. Which of the following nonspecific mediators inNhUibRitSsIN viG ruTsBr.eCpOlicMation and cellular division while increasing some lymphocyte action? A. TNF B. IL-1 C. IL-6 D. IFN E. chemokines 45. During what process are hypochlorite and hydrogen peroxide produced to destroy bacteria and inhibit viral replication? A. inflammation B. phagocytosis C. interferon production D. complement production E. lysozyme production 46. When macrophages migrate to the skin and remain there, they are called

cells.

A. alveolar B. Langerhans C. GALT D. Kupffer E. dendritic 47. Genetic differences among species, and within a species, can convey genetic immunity to certain diseases. True False


48. Plasma is also called lymph. True False 49. B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes mature in the thymus gland. True False 50. PAMPs are molecules shared by many microorganisms but not present in mammals. True False 51. Dermacidin is an antimicrobic peptide secreted by skin cells, which breaks down bacterial membranes and causes them to lyse. True False 52. Complement proteins are produced by the spleen. True False 53. Certain complement components stimulate inflammation and phagocytosis. True False 54. Inflammatory responses are orchestrated by the immune system and are part of the body's third line of defense. True False 55. Endotoxin is an exogenous pyrogen. True False CsOtM 56. During phagocytosis, intracellular digestion beN giU nsRSaIsNsGoToB n .a he phagosome is formed. True False 57. Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are called because they have prominent cytoplasmic granules that, in a stained blood smear, appear with identifying, characteristic colors. 58.

lymphocytes function in humoral immunity, while

59. The

lymphocytes function in cell-mediated immunity.

region of a lymph node has germinal centers packed with T and B-lymphocytes.

60. When monocytes migrate from the blood out to the tissues, they are transformed by inflammatory mediators to develop into . 61. A person will typically experience the sensation of 62. The term 63. The

when fever is starting to occur in the body.

is given to any foreign substance that stimulates a specific immune system response. system of blood proteins act to lyse foreign cells.

64. Children with DiGeorge Syndrome are born without a thymus. Discuss, in detail, the repercussions to body defense mechanisms caused by this disease.


65. Describe the physical or anatomical barriers at the following body sites, and explain how they accomplish body defense: a) eyes, b) skin, c) gastrointestinal tract, d) respiratory tract, and e) urinary tract. 66. Describe the cell morphology, colors, and percentage of the total white blood cell count for each type of white blood cell that would be distinguished by a hematologist analyzing a stained blood smear. 67. If a splinter of wood were to enter the skin and introduce microorganisms to that site, what specific early and late events of inflammation would respond to that newly infected tissue? Describe the sequence of signs and symptoms, vascular and tissue events, and cells and mediators involved. 68. An individual has been born with Kartagener’s syndrome, a disorder of microtubules that impairs the motion of cilia and flagella. What type of infections would you predict would be most common in this individual? A. respiratory B. oral C. gastric D. uterine 69. Which of the following would be a likely outcome if an individual had neutrophils that were incapable of diapedesis? A. inadequate production of antibodies B. reduced numbers of circulating neutrophils C. repeated bacterial infections D. poor blood clotting E. numerous allergies 70. There is an inherited disorder that decreases the ability of neutrophils to produce a respiratory burst. What aspect of phagocytosis will be affected by this defect? A. attachment B. chemotaxis C. destruction of microbes D. phagolysosome formation E. ingestion

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71. All of the following are the results of complement activation, except A. opsonization which enhances phagocytosis. B. enhanced inflammation. C. lysis of bacterial cells. D. increased antibody production. 72. Each of the following will enhance and promote phagocytosis, except A. deposition of complement fragments on bacterial cells. B. interaction of TLRs and PAMPs. C. tumor necrosis factor (TNF) and other cytokines. D. deposition of interferon on bacterial cells.


Chapter 14 Testbank Key 1.

Components of the first line of defense include all the following, except A. the tough cell sheet of the upper epidermis of the skin. B. nasal hairs. C. flushing action of tears and blinking. D. flushing action of urine. E. phagocytic white blood cells.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 07 Scientific Thinking Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.01 Summarize the characteristics of basic host defenses. Learning Outcome: 14.02 Differentiate between the three lines of defense, describing examples of each. Learning Outcome: 14.03 Explain the nature of the different types of innate, nonspecific defenses. Section: 14.01

Topic: First Line of Defense

2.

Nonspecific chemical defenses include A. lysozyme. B. lactic acid and electrolytes of sweat. C. skin's acidic pH and fatty acids. D. stomach hydrochloric acid. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.02 Differentiate between the three lines of defense, describing examples of each. Learning Outcome: 14.03 Explain the nature of the different types of innate, nonspecific defenses. Section: 14.01 Topic: Basic Host Defenses

Topic: First Line of Defense

3.

The chemical found in tears and saliva thaN t hUyRdSroIN lyG zeTsBt.hCeOpMeptidoglycan in certain bacterial cell walls is A. lactic acid. B. hydrochloric acid. C. lysozyme. D. histamine. E. bile.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.03 Explain the nature of the different types of innate, nonspecific defenses. Section: 14.01 Topic: Basic Host Defenses

Topic: First Line of Defense

4.

The body region where a ciliary escalator helps to sweep microbes trapped in mucus away from that body site is the A. skin. B. respiratory tract. C. digestive tract. D. urinary tract. E. eyes.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.02 Differentiate between the three lines of defense, describing examples of each. Learning Outcome: 14.03 Explain the nature of the different types of innate, nonspecific defenses. Section: 14.01

Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense Topic: First Line of Defense


5.

Which body region is protected by fatty acids, acidic pH, lactic acid, and a tough cell barrier with its own normal flora? A. skin B. respiratory tract C. digestive tract D. urinary tract E. eyes

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.03 Explain the nature of the different types of innate, nonspecific defenses. Section: 14.01

Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense Topic: First Line of Defense

6.

Plasma A. is the liquid portion of blood in which blood cells are suspended. B. is mostly water. C. contains albumin and globulins. D. contains fibrinogen. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.05 Describe several features of the recognition system of host defenses. Learning Outcome: 14.08 Outline the anatomy and functions of the reticuloendothelial system. Learning Outcome: 14.09 Outline the origin and composiiton of the blood, and characterize the types of blood cells and their functions. Learning Outcome: 14.19 Characterize the complement system, its origins, and basic functions. Section: 14.02 Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

7.

Which of the following is an example of GALT? A. appendix B. lymph nodes C. spleen D. tonsils E. thymus gland

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.04 Describe the primary functions and organs of the immune system. Section: 14.02

Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense

8.

The blood cells that particularly target parasitic worms and fungi are A. basophils. B. eosinophils. C. neutrophils. D. monocytes. E. lymphocytes.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.09 Outline the origin and composiiton of the blood, and characterize the types of blood cells and their functions. Learning Outcome: 14.10 Explain the behavior of white blood cells with regard to the blood circulation and tissues. Section: 14.02

Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses


9.

The clearance of pus, cellular debris, dead neutrophils, and damaged tissue after inflammation is performed by A. basophils. B. eosinophils. C. neutrophils. D. macrophages. E. lymphocytes.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.03 Explain the nature of the different types of innate, nonspecific defenses.

Learning Outcome: 14.15 Define phagocytosis and identify which cells serve this function. Section: 14.04

Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

10.

Which is incorrect regarding fever? A. It is present in all vertebrates. B. It stimulates the activity of T-cells. C. It is associated exclusively with bacterial infections. D. When rising, a person feels cold. E. It inhibits the multiplication of temperature-sensitive microorganisms.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.14 Describe the mechanism behind fever, and explain its beneficial and harmful effects. Section: 14.03

Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

11.

The most numerous WBCs, that have multilobed nuclei and are very phagocytic are A. basophils. B. eosinophils. C. neutrophils. D. monocytes. E. lymphocytes.

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.09 Outline the origin and composiiton of the blood, and characterize the types of blood cells and their functions. Learning Outcome: 14.10 Explain the behavior of white blood cells with regard to the blood circulation and tissues. Learning Outcome: 14.15 Define phagocytosis and identify which cells serve this function. Section: 14.02 Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

12.

Which cell type is phagocytic and can migrate out into body tissues to differentiate into macrophages? A. basophils B. eosinophils C. neutrophils D. monocytes E. lymphocytes

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.10 Explain the behavior of white blood cells with regard to the blood circulation and tissues. Learning Outcome: 14.15 Define phagocytosis and identify which cells serve this function. Section: 14.02

13.

Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

All of the following pertain to platelets, except A. they contain hemoglobin to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide. B. they are also called thrombocytes. C. they originate from cells called megakaryocytes. D. they function in blood clotting and inflammation. E. they are not whole cells but are pieces of cells.


ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.09 Outline the origin and composiiton of the blood, and characterize the types of blood cells and their functions. Section: 14.02

Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense

14.

Hemopoiesis is the A. loss of blood due to hemorrhaging. B. production of only red blood cells. C. production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets. D. plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding. E. migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.08 Outline the anatomy and functions of the reticuloendothelial system. Learning Outcome: 14.09 Outline the origin and composiiton of the blood, and characterize the types of blood cells and their functions. Section: 14.02 Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense

15.

Diapedesis is the A. loss of blood due to hemorrhaging. B. production of only red blood cells. C. production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets. D. plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding. E. migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.10 Explain the behavior of white blood cells with regard to the blood circulation and tissues. Learning Outcome: 14.13 Summarize the functions of cytokines, chemokines, and other inflammatory mediators. Section: 14.03

Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

16.

Plasma cells

NURSINGTB.COM

A. function in cell-mediated immunity. B. are derived from T-lymphocytes. C. function in blood clotting. D. produce and secrete antibodies. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.09 Outline the origin and composiiton of the blood, and characterize the types of blood cells and their functions. Learning Outcome: 14.10 Explain the behavior of white blood cells with regard to the blood circulation and tissues. Learning Outcome: 14.11 Describe the characteristics and functions of the lymphatic system. Section: 14.02 Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense Topic: Basic Host Defenses

17.

The reticuloendothelial system A. is a support network of connective tissue fibers. B. originates in the cellular basal lamina. C. provides a passageway within and between tissues and organs. D. is heavily populated with macrophages. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.07 Describe the microscopic anatomy of body compartments and how they interconnect.

Learning Outcome: 14.08 Outline the anatomy and functions of the reticuloendothelial system. Section: 14.02 Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense

18.

Which of the following lymphoid organs has the immunological function of filtering pathogens from the blood? A. lymph nodes B. thymus C. spleen


D. galt E. tonsils ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.04 Describe the primary functions and organs of the immune system. Section: 14.02

Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense

19.

Which structures are found along lymphatic vessels but are heavily clustered in the armpit, groin, and neck? A. lymph nodes B. thymus C. spleen D. galt E. tonsils ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.04 Describe the primary functions and organs of the immune system. Section: 14.02 Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense

20.

Which gland shrinks in size during adulthood, and has hormones that function in maturation of Tlymphocytes? A. lymph nodes B. thymus C. spleen D. galt E. tonsils

21.

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.04 Describe the primary functions and organs of the immune system. Section: 14.02 Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense NURSINGTB.COM

The lymphoid tissues of the intestinal tract are collectively referred to as A. lymph nodes. B. thymus. C. spleen. D. GALT. E. tonsils.

22.

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.04 Describe the primary functions and organs of the immune system. Section: 14.02 Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense

The four classic signs and symptoms of inflammation include all the following, except A. redness. B. warmth. C. swelling. D. pain. E. chills.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.12 Describe the main events in the inflammatory reaction, and explain what is occurring in each. Section: 14.03

23.

All the following are events of early inflammation, except A. macrophages appear first and begin phagocytosis. B. chemical mediators and cytokines are released. C. brief vasoconstriction is followed by vasodilation. D. exudate and pus can accumulate. E. capillaries become more permeable resulting in edema.

Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses


ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.12 Describe the main events in the inflammatory reaction, and explain what is occurring in each. Learning Outcome: 14.13 Summarize the functions of cytokines, chemokines, and other inflammatory mediators. Section: 14.03

Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

24.

Which is incorrect about inflammation? A. It can last hours to years. B. Pyrogens cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability. C. Serotonin causes smooth muscle contraction. D. Fever could be beneficial to inhibiting the pathogen. E. Basophils and mast cells release histamine.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.12 Describe the main events in the inflammatory reaction, and explain what is occurring in each. Learning Outcome: 14.13 Summarize the functions of cytokines, chemokines, and other inflammatory mediators. Section: 14.03

Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

25.

Which is mismatched? A. interferon alpha and beta - inhibits viral replication B. interleukin-2 - stimulates T-cell mitosis and B-cell antibody production C. serotonin - causes smooth muscle contraction D. prostaglandins - activate eosinophils and B-cells E. tumor necrosis factor - increases chemotaxis and phagocytosis

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.13 Summarize the functions of cytokines, chemokines, and other inflammatory mediators. Section: 14.03

26.

NURSINGTB.COM Histamine, serotonin, and bradykinin are all

Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

A. vasoactive mediators. B. mediators of B-cell activity. C. mediators of T-cell activity. D. mediators that increase chemotaxis. E. fever inducers. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.13 Summarize the functions of cytokines, chemokines, and other inflammatory mediators.

Section: 14.03 Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

27.

Which white blood cells are particularly attracted to sites of parasitic infections? A. monocytes B. eosinophils C. basophils D. neutrophils E. lymphocytes

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.09 Outline the origin and composiiton of the blood, and characterize the types of blood cells and their functions. Section: 14.02

28.

Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

All of the following can be recognized by toll-like receptors, except A. single-stranded viral RNA. B. flagellin. C. host cell membrane proteins. D. lipoteichoic acid.


E. lipopolysaccharide. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.06 Characterize pattern recognition receptors and pathogen-associated molecular patterns. Section: 14.02 Topic: Basic Host Defenses

29.

Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

Elimination and destruction systems present in the phagolysosome include all the following, except A. bromine. B. hydroxyl free radical. C. nitric oxide. D. lactic acid. E. lysozyme.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.16 Indicate the major stages of phagocytosis, and describe what is happening at each stage. Learning Outcome: 14.17 Explain how phagocytes kill pathogens. Section: 14.04

Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

30.

The circulating substances that affect the hypothalamus and initiate fever are A. complements. B. interferons. C. leukotrienes. D. pyrogens. E. lysozymes. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.14 Describe the mechanism behind fever, and explain its beneficial and harmful effects. Section: 14.03 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

31.

Which is incorrect about complement?

NURSINGTB.COM

A. Complement is composed of at least 26 blood proteins. B. Complement proteins only appear in the blood during a response to a pathogen. C. The complement system acts in a cascade reaction. D. Activation of complement can involve a classical pathway. E. Activation of complement can involve an alternate pathway. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.19 Characterize the complement system, its origins, and basic functions. Section: 14.04 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

32.

The membrane attack stage of the complement cascade involves A. initiation of the cascade. B. production of inflammatory cytokines. C. the assembly of a ring-shaped protein that forms holes in bacterial cell membranes and virus envelopes. D. cleaving of C3 to yield C3a and C3b. E. C1q binds to surface receptors on a membrane.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.19 Characterize the complement system, its origins, and basic functions. Section: 14.04

Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

33.

Specificity and memory are associated with which body defense mechanism? A. Inflammatory response B. Phagocytosis by macrophages and neutrophils C. Interferon D. T-cell and B-cell responses E. Anatomical barriers in the body


ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.01 Summarize the characteristics of basic host defenses. Learning Outcome: 14.02 Differentiate between the three lines of defense, describing examples of each. Learning Outcome: 14.09 Outline the origin and composiiton of the blood, and characterize the types of blood cells and their functions. Section: 14.01 Section: 14.02

Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense Topic: Basic Host Defenses

34.

All of the following are types of granulocytes because they have prominent cytoplasmic granules when stained, except A. eosinophils. B. monocytes. C. neutrophils. D. basophils. E. They are all granulocytes.

35.

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.09 Outline the origin and composiiton of the blood, and characterize the types of blood cells and their functions. Section: 14.02 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

All of the following are types of agranulocytes because they do not have prominent granules in their cytoplasm when stained, except A. T-cells. B. B-cells. C. monocytes. D. lymphocytes. E. basophils. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.09 Outline the origin and composiiton of the blood, and characterize the types of blood cells and their functions. Section: 14.02 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

36.

Due to the way the lymph drains from lympNhUnRoSdIeNsG , cTeBll.C aO ndMproducts of immunity continually A. enter the cardivascular system. B. enter the liver. C. enter the gastrointestinal tract. D. enter the gallbladder. E. enter the thymus gland. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.07 Describe the microscopic anatomy of body compartments and how they interconnect.

Learning Outcome: 14.11 Describe the characteristics and functions of the lymphatic system. Section: 14.02 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

37.

Joe cut his finger on a sharp twig and now is experiencing dolor. This means A. redness. B. pain. C. loss of function. D. warmth. E. swelling. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.12 Describe the main events in the inflammatory reaction, and explain what is occurring in each. Section: 14.03 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

38.

Maria was scratched on her arm by her cat and the site is experiencing rubor. This means A. redness. B. pain. C. loss of function. D. warmth. E. swelling.


ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.12 Describe the main events in the inflammatory reaction, and explain what is occurring in each. Section: 14.03 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

39.

The key phagocytic cells of the body are the A. neutrophils and macrophages. B. basophils and neutrophils. C. eosinophils and macrophages. D. macrophages and monocytes. E. natural killer cells. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.15 Define phagocytosis and identify which cells serve this function. Section: 14.04 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

40.

Juan has influenza and has aches, pains, and a fever. His mother, a physician, tells him to take an antipyretic. What is she telling him to take? A. an antibiotic, like erythromycin B. an antiviral drug, like tamiflu C. an antihistamine D. acetaminophen, like tylenol E. herbal tea with honey ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.14 Describe the mechanism behind fever, and explain its beneficial and harmful effects. Section: 14.03 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

41.

Joan's inflamed and painful joints are likely due to which of the following chemicals? A. gamma interferon B. interleukin-5 C. prostaglandins D. histamine E. platelet-activating factor

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.13 Summarize the functions of cytokines, chemokines, and other inflammatory mediators.

42.

Section: 14.03 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

All of the following are correct about lymph, except A. its composition is similar to plasma. B. it travels in vessels similar to blood vessels. C. it is made mostly of water. D. it transports numerous white blood cells. E. it is transported through the body by the same pump as blood, i.e., the heart. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.11 Describe the characteristics and functions of the lymphatic system. Section: 14.02 Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

43.

The contribution of B-cells is mainly in A. inflammation. B. humoral immunity. C. complement activity. D. cell-mediated immunity. E. phagocytosis. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.02 Differentiate between the three lines of defense, describing examples of each. Learning Outcome: 14.09 Outline the origin and composiiton of the blood, and characterize the types of blood cells and their functions. Learning Outcome: 14.10 Explain the behavior of white blood cells with regard to the blood circulation and tissues.


Section: 14.01 Section: 14.02 Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense

44.

Which of the following nonspecific mediators inhibits virus replication and cellular division while increasing some lymphocyte action? A. TNF B. IL-1 C. IL-6 D. IFN E. chemokines ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.18 Describe the origin of interferon, and explain its role in controlling viruses and other immune functions. Section: 14.04 Topic: Basic Host Defenses

Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

45.

During what process are hypochlorite and hydrogen peroxide produced to destroy bacteria and inhibit viral replication? A. inflammation B. phagocytosis C. interferon production D. complement production E. lysozyme production

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.16 Indicate the major stages of phagocytosis, and describe what is happening at each stage. Learning Outcome: 14.17 Explain how phagocytes kill pathogens.

Section: 14.04 Topic: Basic Host Defenses Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

46.

When macrophages migrate to the skin and remain there, they are called A. alveolar B. Langerhans C. GALT D. Kupffer E. dendritic

cells.

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.09 Outline the origin and composiiton of the blood, and characterize the types of blood cells and their functions. Learning Outcome: 14.15 Define phagocytosis and identify which cells serve this function. Section: 14.04

Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

47.

Genetic differences among species, and within a species, can convey genetic immunity to certain diseases. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.01 Summarize the characteristics of basic host defenses. Section: 14.01

Topic: Basic Host Defenses

48.

Plasma is also called lymph. FALSE ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.07 Describe the microscopic anatomy of body compartments and how they interconnect. Learning Outcome: 14.09 Outline the origin and composiiton of the blood, and characterize the types of blood cells and their functions. Learning Outcome: 14.11 Describe the characteristics and functions of the lymphatic system. Section: 14.02 Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

49.

B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes mature in the thymus gland.


FALSE ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.09 Outline the origin and composiiton of the blood, and characterize the types of blood cells and their functions. Section: 14.02 Topic: Basic Host Defenses

Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

50.

PAMPs are molecules shared by many microorganisms but not present in mammals. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.06 Characterize pattern recognition receptors and pathogen-associated molecular patterns. Section: 14.02 Topic: Basic Host Defenses

Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

51.

Dermacidin is an antimicrobic peptide secreted by skin cells, which breaks down bacterial membranes and causes them to lyse. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.03 Explain the nature of the different types of innate, nonspecific defenses. Section: 14.01 Topic: Basic Host Defenses

Topic: First Line of Defense

52.

Complement proteins are produced by the spleen. FALSE ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember IN T.B LearningN OU utR coSm e:G 14 19.C CO haM racterize the complement system, its origins, and basic functions. Section: 14.04 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

53.

Certain complement components stimulate inflammation and phagocytosis. TRUE ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.03 Explain the nature of the different types of innate, nonspecific defenses.

Learning Outcome: 14.19 Characterize the complement system, its origins, and basic functions. Section: 14.04 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

54.

Inflammatory responses are orchestrated by the immune system and are part of the body's third line of defense. FALSE ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.02 Differentiate between the three lines of defense, describing examples of each. Learning Outcome: 14.11 Describe the characteristics and functions of the lymphatic system. Learning Outcome: 14.12 Describe the main events in the inflammatory reaction, and explain what is occurring in each. Section: 14.01 Section: 14.03

Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

55.

Endotoxin is an exogenous pyrogen. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.13 Summarize the functions of cytokines, chemokines, and other inflammatory mediators. Section: 14.03 Topic: Basic Host Defenses

Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses


56.

During phagocytosis, intracellular digestion begins as soon as the phagosome is formed. FALSE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.16 Indicate the major stages of phagocytosis, and describe what is happening at each stage. Learning Outcome: 14.17 Explain how phagocytes kill pathogens. Section: 14.04

Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

57.

Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are called because they have prominent cytoplasmic granules that, in a stained blood smear, appear with identifying, characteristic colors. granulocytes ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.09 Outline the origin and composiiton of the blood, and characterize the types of blood cells and their functions. Section: 14.02 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

58.

lymphocytes function in humoral immunity, while mediated immunity.

lymphocytes function in cell-

B; T ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.09 Outline the origin and composiiton of the blood, and characterize the types of blood cells and their functions. Section: 14.02 Topic: Basic Host Defenses

59.

The

region of a lymph node has germinal centers packed with T and B-lymphocytes.

cortex ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember LearnN inU gR OS utIcN om 14.C .0O 4M Describe the primary functions and organs of the immune system. GeT: B Section: 14.02 Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

60.

When monocytes migrate from the blood out to the tissues, they are transformed by inflammatory mediators to develop into . macrophages ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.09 Outline the origin and composiiton of the blood, and characterize the types of blood cells and their functions. Learning Outcome: 14.15 Define phagocytosis and identify which cells serve this function. Section: 14.02 Section: 14.04 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

61.

A person will typically experience the sensation of

when fever is starting to occur in the body.

chills ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.14 Describe the mechanism behind fever, and explain its beneficial and harmful effects. Section: 14.03 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

62.

The term response.

is given to any foreign substance that stimulates a specific immune system

antigen ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.05 Describe several features of the recognition system of host defenses. Section: 14.02 Topic: Basic Host Defenses


63.

The

system of blood proteins act to lyse foreign cells.

complement ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.19 Characterize the complement system, its origins, and basic functions. Section: 14.04

Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

64.

Children with DiGeorge Syndrome are born without a thymus. Discuss, in detail, the repercussions to body defense mechanisms caused by this disease. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 14.04 Describe the primary functions and organs of the immune system. Section: 14.02 Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense Topic: Basic Host Defenses

65.

Describe the physical or anatomical barriers at the following body sites, and explain how they accomplish body defense: a) eyes, b) skin, c) gastrointestinal tract, d) respiratory tract, and e) urinary tract. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 14.01 Summarize the characteristics of basic host defenses. Learning Outcome: 14.02 Differentiate between the three lines of defense, describing examples of each. Learning Outcome: 14.03 Explain the nature of the different types of innate, nonspecific defenses.

Section: 14.01 Topic: Basic Host Defenses Topic: First Line of Defense

66.

Describe the cell morphology, colors, and percentage of the total white blood cell count for each type of white blood cell that would be distinguished by a hematologist analyzing a stained blood smear. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 14.09 Outline the origin and composiiton of the blood, and characterize the types of blood cells and their functions. Learning Outcome: 14.10 Explain the behavior of white blood cells with regard to the blood circulation and tissues. Section: 14.02

Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

67.

NURSINGTB.COM If a splinter of wood were to enter the skin and introduce microorganisms to that site, what specific early and late events of inflammation would respond to that newly infected tissue? Describe the sequence of signs and symptoms, vascular and tissue events, and cells and mediators involved.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 14.12 Describe the main events in the inflammatory reaction, and explain what is occurring in each. Learning Outcome: 14.13 Summarize the functions of cytokines, chemokines, and other inflammatory mediators. Section: 14.03

Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

68.

An individual has been born with Kartagener’s syndrome, a disorder of microtubules that impairs the motion of cilia and flagella. What type of infections would you predict would be most common in this individual? A. respiratory B. oral C. gastric D. uterine

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 14.03 Explain the nature of the different types of innate, nonspecific defenses. Section: 14.01

Topic: First Line of Defense

69.

Which of the following would be a likely outcome if an individual had neutrophils that were incapable of diapedesis? A. inadequate production of antibodies B. reduced numbers of circulating neutrophils C. repeated bacterial infections D. poor blood clotting


E. numerous allergies ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze Learning Outcome: 14.12 Describe the main events in the inflammatory reaction, and explain what is occurring in each. Section: 14.03

Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

70.

There is an inherited disorder that decreases the ability of neutrophils to produce a respiratory burst. What aspect of phagocytosis will be affected by this defect? A. attachment B. chemotaxis C. destruction of microbes D. phagolysosome formation E. ingestion

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze Learning Outcome: 14.16 Indicate the major stages of phagocytosis, and describe what is happening at each stage. Learning Outcome: 14.17 Explain how phagocytes kill pathogens. Section: 14.04

Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

71.

All of the following are the results of complement activation, except A. opsonization which enhances phagocytosis. B. enhanced inflammation. C. lysis of bacterial cells. D. increased antibody production.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 14.19 Characterize the complement system, its origins, and basic functions.

NURSINGTB.COM

Section: 14.04 Topic: Basic Host Defenses

Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

72.

Each of the following will enhance and promote phagocytosis, except A. deposition of complement fragments on bacterial cells. B. interaction of TLRs and PAMPs. C. tumor necrosis factor (TNF) and other cytokines. D. deposition of interferon on bacterial cells.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 14.15 Define phagocytosis and identify which cells serve this function. Learning Outcome: 14.16 Indicate the major stages of phagocytosis, and describe what is happening at each stage. Section: 14.04

Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses


Chapter 14 Testbank Summary Category

# of Questions

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in benefi cial, neutral or detrimental ways.

36

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems

72

ASM Topic: Module 07 Scientific Thinking

1

Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand

33

Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply

7

Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze

2

Bloom's Level: 01. Remember

30

Learning Outcome: 14.01 Summarize the characteristics of basic host defenses.

4

Learning Outcome: 14.02 Differentiate between the three lines of defense, describing examples of each.

7

Learning Outcome: 14.03 Explain the nature of the different types of innate, nonspecific defenses.

10

Learning Outcome: 14.04 Describe the primary functions and organs of the immune system.

7

Learning Outcome: 14.05 Describe several features of the recognition system of host defenses.

2

Learning Outcome: 14.06 Characterize pattern recognition receptors and pathogen-associated molecular patterns.

2

Learning Outcome: 14.07 Describe the microscopic anatomy of body compartments and how they interconnect.

3

Learning Outcome: 14.08 Outline the anatomy and functions of the reticuloendothelial system.

3

Learning Outcome: 14.09 Outline the origin and composiiton of the blood, and characterize the types of blood cells a nd their functions.

18

Learning Outcome: 14.10 Explain the behavior of white blood cells with regard to the blood circulation and tissues.

7

Learning Outcome: 14.11 Describe the characteristics and functions of the lymphatic system.

5

Learning Outcome: 14.12 Describe the main events in the inflammatory reaction, and explain what is occurring in eac h. Learning Outcome: 14.13 Summarize the functions of cytokines, chemokines, and other inflammatory mediators.

8

Learning Outcome: 14.14 Describe the mechanism behind fever, and explain its beneficial and harmful effects. Learning Outcome: 14.15 Define phagocytosis and identify which cells serve this function.

4 7

Learning Outcome: 14.16 Indicate the major stages of phagocytosis, and describe what is happening at each stage.

5

Learning Outcome: 14.17 Explain how phagocytes kill pathogens.

4

Learning Outcome: 14.18 Describe the origin of interferon, and explain its role in controlling viruses and other immun e functions.

1

Learning Outcome: 14.19 Characterize the complement system, its origins, and basic functions.

7

Section: 14.01

12

Section: 14.02

31

Section: 14.03

17

Section: 14.04

16

Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense

28

Topic: Basic Host Defenses

17

NURSINGTB.COM

8

Topic: First Line of Defense

8

Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses

49


Chapter 15 Testbank Student:

1.

The bone marrow is where A. immune responses to antigen occur. B. blood stem cells give rise to immature lymphocytes. C. antigen is filtered from the blood. D. antigen is filtered from tissue fluid. E. T-lymphocytes complete maturation.

2.

The progeny cells of a B-cell clone are called A. antibodies. B. sensitized T-cells. C. activated macrophages. D. plasma cells. E. Bursa cells.

3.

Helper T-cells A. secrete antibodies. B. function in allergic reactions. C. directly destroy target cells. D. suppress immune reactions. E. activate B-cells and other T-cells.

4.

Plasma cells A. secrete antibodies. B. function in allergic reactions. C. directly destroy target cells. D. suppress immune reactions. E. activate B-cells and other T-cells.

5.

NURSINGTB.COM

Cell surface markers involved in immune reactions A. are the result of genetic expression. B. function in recognition of self molecules. C. participate in communication with other cells of the system. D. aid in cellular development. E. All of these choices are correct.

6.

The major histocompatability complex is A. a group of blood vessels that protects the nervous system. B. a set of genes that code for MHC cell receptors. C. also known as the complement system. D. located in the thymus gland. E. All of these choices are correct.

7.

Class II MHC genes code for A. certain secreted complement components. B. self receptors recognized by natural killer cells. C. all HLA antigens. D. receptors located primarily on macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells. E. All of these choices are correct.

8.

Class I MHC genes code for A. certain secreted complement components.


B. markers that display unique characteristics of self. C. all HLA antigens. D. receptors located primarily on macrophages and B cells. E. All of these choices are correct. 9.

Lymphocytes A. possess MHC antigens for recognizing self. B. have membrane receptors that recognize foreign antigens. C. gain tolerance to self by destruction of lymphocytes that could react against self. D. develop into clones of B and T-cells with extreme variations of specificity. E. All of these choices are correct.

10. The monomer subunit of immunoglobulin molecules has all the following, except A. two identical heavy polypeptide chains. B. two identical light polypeptide chains. C. disulfide bonds between polypeptide chains. D. four antigen binding sites. E. a variable and constant region on each polypeptide chain. 11. The region of each antibody molecule where amino acid composition is very different from one clone of B lymphocytes to another is the A. variable region. B. joining region. C. constant region. D. light region. E. hinge region. 12. Lymphocyte maturation involves A. hormonal signals that initiate development.NURSINGTB.COM B. B-cells maturing in bone marrow sites. C. T-cells maturing in the thymus. D. release of mature lymphocytes to begin migration to various lymphoid organs. E. All of these choices are correct.

13. Properties of effective antigens include all the following, except A. foreign to the immune system. B. molecular complexity. C. large molecules with a minimum molecular weight of 1,000. D. large polymers made up of identical repeating subunits. E. cells or large, complex molecules. 14. The molecular fragment on an antigen molecule that a lymphocyte recognizes and responds to is called a/an A. epitope. B. hapten. C. antigen binding site. D. variable region. 15. Small foreign molecules that are too small by themselves to elicit an immune response are termed A. antigenic determinants. B. haptens. C. antigen binding sites. D. variable regions. 16. Superantigens are A. body tissues that the immune system mistakes as foreign.


B. cell markers found in some member of a species but not in other members. C. bacterial toxins that activate T-cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens. D. those that evoke allergic reactions. 17. Antigen presenting cells A. include dendritic cells. B. include macrophages. C. engulf and modify antigen to be more immunogenic. D. hold and present processed antigen on their cell membrane surface. E. All of these choices are correct. 18. T-cell response to T-cell-dependent antigens requires A. typically a protein antigen. B. binding of T-cell to a Class II MHC receptor on an antigen-presenting cell. C. binding of T-cell to a site on the antigen. D. interleukin-1 activating the T helper cell. E. All of these choices are correct. 19. Which is incorrect about the Fc region of an immunoglobulin? A. It determines the antibody's distribution in the body. B. It forms the antigen binding sites. C. It contains an effector molecule that can bind to cells such as macrophages and mast cells. D. It contains an effector molecule that can fix complement. E. It determines the class to which the immunoglobulin belongs. 20. Which process involves antibodies covering surface receptors on a virus or toxin molecule thereby disrupting their activity? A. neutralization B. opsonization C. complement fixation D. agglutination E. anamnestic response

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21. Which process involves antibodies cross-linking cells or particles into large aggregates? A. neutralization B. opsonization C. complement fixation D. agglutination E. anamnestic response 22. Which process involves antibodies coating microorganisms in order to facilitate phagocytosis? A. neutralization B. opsonization C. complement fixation D. agglutination E. anamnestic response 23. Which process involves a more rapid synthesis and greatly increased titer of antibody when the immune system is subsequently exposed to the same antigen? A. neutralization B. opsonization C. complement fixation D. agglutination E. anamnestic response 24. The immunoglobulin class that has a dimer form found in mucus, saliva, colostrum, and other body secretions is


A. IgA. B. IgD. C. IgE. D. IgG. E. IgM. 25. The immunoglobulin class that is the only one capable of crossing the placenta is A. IgA. B. IgD. C. IgE. D. IgG. E. IgM. 26. The immunoglobulin class that has an Fc region that binds to receptors on basophils and mast cells is A. IgA. B. IgD. C. IgE. D. IgG E. IgM.

27. All of the following are characteristics of IgM, except A. it has 10 antigen binding sites. B. it contains a central J chain. C. it is the first class synthesized by a plasma cell. D. it can fix complement. E. it is a dimer. 28. Which immunoglobulin class/es can fix complement? A. IgM only B. IgG only C. IgD only D. IgM and IgG E. IgE and IgA

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29. The immunoglobulin/s found on the surface of B-cells is/are A. IgM only. B. IgG only. C. IgD only. D. IgM and IgG. E. IgE and IgA. 30. When antiserum is subjected to electrophoresis, the gamma globulin band contains mostly A. IgM. B. IgA. C. IgD. D. IgE. E. IgG. 31. The most significant cells in graft rejection are A. helper T-cells. B. suppressor T-cells. C. cytotoxic T-cells. D. B-cells. E. natural killer (NK) cells. 32. Which are the first to attack cancer cells and virus-infected cells?


A. helper T-cells B. suppressor T-cells C. cytotoxic T-cells D. delayed hypersensitivity T-cells E. natural killer (NK) cells 33. Monoclonal antibodies A. originate from a single B-cell clone. B. have a single specificity for antigen. C. are secreted by hybridomas. D. are used in immunology lab tests and cancer therapy. E. All of these choices are correct. 34. Cytotoxic T-cells A. stimulate B-cell proliferation. B. lack specificity for a target cell. C. secrete granzymes and perforins that damage target cells. D. secrete interleukin-2 to stimulate B and T-cells. E. All of these choices are correct. 35. An example of artificial passive immunity would be A. chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity. B. chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox. C. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease. D. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta. 36. An example of natural passive immunity would be A. chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity. B. chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immuNnUitR y StoINcG hT icBke pM ox. .CnO C. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease. D. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta. 37. An example of artificial active immunity would be A. chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity. B. chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox. C. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease. D. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta. 38. Which type of cell is severely depressed in AIDS patients? A. cytotoxic T-cells B. helper T-cells C. B-cells D. plasma cells E. suppressor T-cells 39. In the primary response to an antigen, the first class of antibody to be secreted is A. IgD. B. IgE. C. IgG. D. IgM. E. IgA. 40. In the secondary response to an antigen, the predominant antibody is A. IgD. B. IgE.


C. IgG. D. IgM. E. IgA.

41. All of the following characterize the secondary response to an antigen except A. a higher titer of antibody is produced than the primary response. B. a longer persistence of antibody than with the primary response. C. a quicker rate of antibody synthesis than the primary response. D. it is mostly IgM antibodies that are produced. E. it is also known as the anamnestic response. 42. Which antibody confers the most important specific local immunity to enteric, respiratory, and genitourinary pathogens? A. IgD B. IgE C. IgG D. IgM E. IgA 43. The process of clonal deletion is designed to A. destroy clones of lymphocytes able to react to self molecules. B. slow down the primary immune response to an antigen. C. slow down the secondary immune response to an antigen. D. limit the number of lymphocyte clones an individual has in order to make the system more efficient. E. slow down the immune system in the elderly. 44. Herceptin is an example of a monoclonal antibody-based drug for A. asthma. B. crohn's disease. C. breast cancer. D. respiratory syncytial virus. E. All of these choices are correct.

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45. Immune sera is produced in horses for all the following except A. diphtheria. B. botulism. C. snake bites. D. chickenpox. E. spider bites. 46. Sam works in construction and stepped on a sharp nail. He can't remember the last time he had a tetanus shot. What type of immunity is the most important for him to receive? A. natural active immunity B. artificial passive immunity C. natural passive immunity D. artificial active immunity 47. Cody is 4 months old and is given a DTaP injection by his pediatrician as part of the routine immunization schedule. What type of immunity will develop as a result of this? A. natural active immunity B. artificial passive immunity C. natural passive immunity D. artificial active immunity 48. Edward Jenner's work involved A. inoculation of dried pus from smallpox pustules into a person to stimulate immunity.


B. development of passive immunotherapy. C. development of an immunization to protect people against cowpox. D. immunization using a related, less pathogenic organism to give protection against a more pathogenic one. E. All of these choices are correct. 49. Immunotherapy is the A. use of antitoxins. B. use of immune serum globulin. C. conferring of passive immunity. D. administering of preformed antibodies. E. All of these choices are correct. 50. High titers of specific antibodies are components of A. specific immune globulin (SIG). B. gamma globulin. C. immune serum globulin (ISG). D. attenuated vaccines. E. toxoids. 51. Killed or inactivated vaccines are prepared by A. removal of virulence genes from the microbe. B. treatment with formalin, heat, or radiation. C. passage of the pathogen through unnatural hosts or tissue culture. D. long-term subculturing of the microbe. E. All of these choices are correct. 52. Live, attenuated vaccines A. include the Sabin polio vaccine. B. include the measles, mumps, rubella vaccine (MMR). C. contain viable microbes that can multiply in the person. NURSINGTB.COM D. require smaller doses and fewer boosters compared to inactivated vaccines. E. All of these choices are correct. 53. Acellular vaccines and subunit vaccines A. contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules. B. are always genetically engineered. C. contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses. D. confer passive immunity. E. All of these choices are correct. 54. Toxoids A. contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules. B. are always genetically engineered. C. contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses. D. confer passive immunity. E. All of these choices are correct. 55. Vaccinia virus is often used in the technique to make A. adjuvant. B. booster. C. antibodies to toxin. D. gamma globulin. E. "Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine.


56. Which of the following is a special binding substance that enhances immugenicity and prolongs antigen retention at the injection site? A. adjuvant B. booster C. antibodies to toxin D. gamma globulin E. "Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine 57. Variolation involved using A. dried, ground smallpox scabs. B. a recombinant carrier with genetic material of the smallpox virus. C. preparations of human cowpox lesions. D. antibodies to the smallpox virus. 58. Antitoxins A. contain antibodies to neutralize specific toxin. B. use vaccinia virus with genetic material of bacterial toxins. C. contain purified, chemically denatured bacterial exotoxin. D. include capsule material against the pneumococcus and meningococcus. E. contain attenuated organisms. 59. The DTaP immunization A. contains diphtheria toxoid. B. is administered in childhood. C. contains tetanus toxoid. D. contains a pertussis vaccine with acellular capsule material. E. All of these choices are correct. 60. Which of the immunizations would carry the greatest risk for immunocompromised patients? A. killed, inactivated vaccines B. attenuated vaccines C. toxoids D. immune serums E. subunit vaccines

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61. Which of the following conditions have been conclusively proven to be linked to childhood vaccinations? A. autism B. diabetes C. asthma D. All of these choices are correct.

62. Reliable vaccines exist for all of the following diseases except A. malaria. B. botulism. C. cholera. D. yellow fever. E. rabies.

63. All of the following are advantages of attenuated vaccines over inactivated vaccines except A. they require smaller doses. B. they require fewer boosters. C. they confer longer lasting protection. D. they can be transmitted to other people. E. they produce infection but not disease.

64. All of the following are advantages of attenuated vaccines over inactivated vaccines except


A. they confer longer lasting protection. B. they produce infection but not disease. C. they can mutate back to a virulent strain. D. they require fewer boosters. E. they require smaller doses.

65. All of the following are characteristics of an effective vaccine except A. it should have a relatively long shelf life. B. it should stimulate only the antibody (B-cell) response. C. it should protect against wild forms of the pathogen. D. it should not require numerous boosters. E. it should be easy to administer. 66. Which cells'direct involvement are required for cell-mediated immunity? A. T-cells B. B-cells C. bacterial cells D. viral components E. neutrophils 67. Which sequence of events is correct for a specific immune response? A. lymphocyte development, presentation of antigens, antibody production, challenge of B-cells B. lymphocyte development, challenge of B-cells, antibody production, presentation of antigens C. lymphocyte development, presentation of antigens, B-cell challenge, antibody production D. antibody production, lymphocyte production, B-cell challenge, presentation of antigens E. presentation of antigens, B-cell challenge, antibody production, lymphocyte development 68. Which kind of T-cell synthesizes perforins and granzymes to destroy viral infected cells, and cancer cells? A. TC

B. TH C. CD4 D. MHC

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69. Antibody molecules circulate in lymph, blood, and tissue fluids. True False 70. Scientists are currently developing bananas that synthesize proteins from pathogens, as a delivery system to vaccinate populations that otherwise would not have access to them. True False 71. Human B lymphocytes mature in an intestinal region called the bursa. True False 72. Alloantigens are the basis for an individual's blood group and MHC profile. True False 73. Activation of B-cells occurs when antigen bonds to B-cell surface immunoglobulin receptors. True False 74. After secreting antibodies during an immune response, plasma cells then differentiate into memory cells. True False 75. A disadvantage of using an attenuated live microbe in a vaccine is that it can conceivably mutate back to a virulent strain.


True False 76. Autoantigens are types of self-antigens that initiate an autoimmune response that can cause damage to host tissue. True False 77. The differences in the classes of immunoglobulins are due primarily to variations in the Fc fragment. True False 78. The albumin fraction of serum separated by electrophoresis will contain most of the antibodies. True False 79. Antibody molecules can act as enzyme to directly destroy an antigen. True False 80. Gamma globulin can be given as immunotherapy to confer artificial passive immunity. True False 81. Each genetically distinct group of lymphocytes that possesses the same specificity is called a 82. Certain body sites contain sequestered molecules, called immune tolerance and are mistaken as foreign. 83. Antigens that elicit allergic reactions are called 84.

.

that escaped assessment during development of

.

is the most abundant class of antibodies in serum.

NURSINGTB.COM 85. A hybridoma results from the fusion of a myeloma cell with a normal

cell.

86. During presentation of APC-bound antigen, macrophages secrete a cytokine that activates T helper cells. What is the name of this cytokine? A. the major histocompatibility complex B. interleukin-2 C. IgM D. interleukin-1 87. Which part of an antibody molecule contains the variable regions of a heavy and light chain that fold into a groove that will interact directly with and bind to a specific antigen? A. Fc end B. Fab ends C. heavy chains D. light chains E. disulfide bonds 88. Discuss, in detail, all the genetic and cellular events encompassed in the clonal selection theory of lymphocyte development. 89. Describe the characteristics that distinguish the following: a) antigen, b) hapten, c) antigenic determinant, d) alloantigen, e) heterophilic antigen, and f) autoantigen. 90. Discuss the various ways by which antibodies interact with antigen and facilitate antigen inhibition or destruction.


91. Describe the major histocompatability complex with regard to its: a) location, b) composition, c) relationship to specific cell markers, and d) role in regulation of immune reactions. 92. In in

immunity, an individual makes their own antibodies in response to antigen exposure, whereas immunity, an individual receives antibodies made by another individual(s).

A. artificial; active B. active; passive C. passive; active D. natural; artificial E. natural; active 93. Primary and secondary antibody response differ in all the following ways, except A. IgG production predominates in secondary responses. B. the lag period between antigen stimulation and antibody response is shorter in the secondary response. C. the rate of antibody production is faster in primary responses than in secondary responses. D. primary responses are active whereas secondary responses are passive. 94. Which of the following is a distinct advantage of active immunity over passive immunity? A. Active immunity is always natural whereas passive immunity is frequently artificial. B. Active immunity provides IgG whereas passive immunity provides IgM. C. Active immunity enables the development of immunologic memory, whereas no memory develops with passive immunity. D. Active immunity develops very quickly whereas passive immunity may take months to develop. 95. Post-exposure prophylaxis for rabies includes shots of HRIG (human rabies immune globulin) and rabies vaccine. The HRIG provides whereas the vaccine promotes the development of . A. artificial passive immunity; natural active immunity B. artificial passive immunity; artificial active immunity C. natural passive immunity; artificial passive im ityGTB.COM NUmRuSnIN D. artificial active immunity; artificial passive immunity E. artificial active immunity; natural active immunity 96. All of the following may be targeted by TC cells, except A. viral-infected host cells. B. cancer cells. C. invading bacterial cells. D. cells in transplanted tissue from an imperfectly matched donor. E. All of these cells could be targeted by Tc cells. 97. Natural killer (NK) cells recognize and identify their targets in an immunologically nonspecific way, but then kill their targets in a manner very similar to that of TC cells. True False


Chapter 15 Testbank Key 1.

The bone marrow is where A. immune responses to antigen occur. B. blood stem cells give rise to immature lymphocytes. C. antigen is filtered from the blood. D. antigen is filtered from tissue fluid. E. T-lymphocytes complete maturation.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.01 Summarize the general features of adaptive, acquired immunity.

Learning Outcome: 15.07 Discuss the events in B-cell and T-cell maturation and how they differ. Section: 15.01

Topic: Lymphocyte Development and Maturation

2.

The progeny cells of a B-cell clone are called A. antibodies. B. sensitized T-cells. C. activated macrophages. D. plasma cells. E. Bursa cells. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.07 Discuss the events in B-cell and T-cell maturation and how they differ. Learning Outcome: 15.16 List and analyze the stages in activation of B lymphocytes, clonal expansion, and antibody formation. Section: 15.01 Section: 15.04

Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response)

3.

Helper T-cells A. secrete antibodies. B. function in allergic reactions. C. directly destroy target cells. D. suppress immune reactions. E. activate B-cells and other T-cells.

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ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.12 Outline the main activities of cell-mediated immunities.

Section: 15.03 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Cell-Mediated Response

4.

Plasma cells A. secrete antibodies. B. function in allergic reactions. C. directly destroy target cells. D. suppress immune reactions. E. activate B-cells and other T-cells. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.16 List and analyze the stages in activation of B lymphocytes, clonal expansion, and antibody formation. Section: 15.04

Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Antigens and Antibodies Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response)


5.

Cell surface markers involved in immune reactions A. are the result of genetic expression. B. function in recognition of self molecules. C. participate in communication with other cells of the system. D. aid in cellular development. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.04 Explain the functions and types of immune receptors, including where and how they develop. Learning Outcome: 15.06 Describe the development of antigen receptors on lymphocytes. Section: 15.01 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Lymphocyte Development and Maturation

6.

The major histocompatability complex is A. a group of blood vessels that protects the nervous system. B. a set of genes that code for MHC cell receptors. C. also known as the complement system. D. located in the thymus gland. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.04 Explain the functions and types of immune receptors, including where and how they develop. Learning Outcome: 15.10 Describe the cooperative interactions between antigen-presenting cells, T cells, and B cells. Section: 15.01 Section: 15.03 Topic: Cell-Mediated Response

7.

Class II MHC genes code for A. certain secreted complement components. B. self receptors recognized by natural killer cells. C. all HLA antigens. D. receptors located primarily on macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells. E. All of these choices are correct. NURSINGTB.COM ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.04 Explain the functions and types of immune receptors, including where and how they develop. Section: 15.01 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Cell-Mediated Response Topic: Lymphocyte Development and Maturation

8.

Class I MHC genes code for A. certain secreted complement components. B. markers that display unique characteristics of self. C. all HLA antigens. D. receptors located primarily on macrophages and B cells. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.04 Explain the functions and types of immune receptors, including where and how they develop. Section: 15.01 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense

9.

Lymphocytes A. possess MHC antigens for recognizing self. B. have membrane receptors that recognize foreign antigens. C. gain tolerance to self by destruction of lymphocytes that could react against self. D. develop into clones of B and T-cells with extreme variations of specificity. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different.


10.

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.05 Describe the major events in the origin of diversity in the immune system and features of the clonal selection theory. Learning Outcome: 15.07 Discuss the events in B-cell and T-cell maturation and how they differ. Section: 15.01 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Lymphocyte Development and Maturation

The monomer subunit of immunoglobulin molecules has all the following, except A. two identical heavy polypeptide chains. B. two identical light polypeptide chains. C. disulfide bonds between polypeptide chains. D. four antigen binding sites. E. a variable and constant region on each polypeptide chain. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 15.17 Describe the structure and basic functions of the five major types of immunoglobulins.

Section: 15.04 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Antigens and Antibodies Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response)

11.

The region of each antibody molecule where amino acid composition is very different from one clone of B lymphocytes to another is the A. variable region. B. joining region. C. constant region. D. light region. E. hinge region. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.17 Describe the structure and basic functions of the five major types of immunoglobulins.

Section: 15.04 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Antigens and Antibodies Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response)

12.

Lymphocyte maturation involves

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A. hormonal signals that initiate development. B. B-cells maturing in bone marrow sites. C. T-cells maturing in the thymus. D. release of mature lymphocytes to begin migration to various lymphoid organs. E. All of these choices are correct.

13.

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.07 Discuss the events in B-cell and T-cell maturation and how they differ. Section: 15.01 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Lymphocyte Development and Maturation

Properties of effective antigens include all the following, except A. foreign to the immune system. B. molecular complexity. C. large molecules with a minimum molecular weight of 1,000. D. large polymers made up of identical repeating subunits. E. cells or large, complex molecules. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.08 Explain the characteristics of antigens, the property of antigenicity, and epitopes. Section: 15.02 Topic: Antigens and Antibodies

14.

The molecular fragment on an antigen molecule that a lymphocyte recognizes and responds to is called a/ an A. epitope. B. hapten. C. antigen binding site.


D. variable region. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

Learning Outcome: 15.08 Explain the characteristics of antigens, the property of antigenicity, and epitopes. Section: 15.02 Topic: Antigens and Antibodies

15.

Small foreign molecules that are too small by themselves to elicit an immune response are termed A. antigenic determinants. B. haptens. C. antigen binding sites. D. variable regions. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

Learning Outcome: 15.08 Explain the characteristics of antigens, the property of antigenicity, and epitopes. Section: 15.02 Topic: Antigens and Antibodies

16.

Superantigens are A. body tissues that the immune system mistakes as foreign. B. cell markers found in some member of a species but not in other members. C. bacterial toxins that activate T-cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens. D. those that evoke allergic reactions. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.09 Discuss the main categories of antigens, based on function. Learning Outcome: 15.15 Explain the concepts of natural killer cells and superantigens.

Section: 15.02 Section: 15.03 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Cell-Mediated Response

17.

Antigen presenting cells A. include dendritic cells. B. include macrophages. C. engulf and modify antigen to be more im NU mR uS nIoNgG enTiB c..COM D. hold and present processed antigen on their cell membrane surface. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.03 Outline the overall phases in a specific immune response. Learning Outcome: 15.10 Describe the cooperative interactions between antigen-presenting cells, T cells, and B cells. Section: 15.03 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Antigens and Antibodies

18.

T-cell response to T-cell-dependent antigens requires A. typically a protein antigen. B. binding of T-cell to a Class II MHC receptor on an antigen-presenting cell. C. binding of T-cell to a site on the antigen. D. interleukin-1 activating the T helper cell. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.03 Outline the overall phases in a specific immune response. Learning Outcome: 15.11 Discuss the actions of interleukins in the early reactions of recognition and activation. Learning Outcome: 15.13 Analyze the relationships between the types of T cells and their receptors, and how they are activated. Section: 15.03

Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Cell-Mediated Response

19.

Which is incorrect about the Fc region of an immunoglobulin? A. It determines the antibody's distribution in the body. B. It forms the antigen binding sites. C. It contains an effector molecule that can bind to cells such as macrophages and mast cells.


D. It contains an effector molecule that can fix complement. E. It determines the class to which the immunoglobulin belongs. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.13 Analyze the relationships between the types of T cells and their receptors, and how they are activated. Learning Outcome: 15.17 Describe the structure and basic functions of the five major types of immunoglobulins. Section: 15.04 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Antigens and Antibodies Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response)

20.

Which process involves antibodies covering surface receptors on a virus or toxin molecule thereby disrupting their activity? A. neutralization B. opsonization C. complement fixation D. agglutination E. anamnestic response

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.18 Explain the actions of antibodies in protective immune reactions. Section: 15.04

Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Antigens and Antibodies Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response)

21.

Which process involves antibodies cross-linking cells or particles into large aggregates? A. neutralization B. opsonization C. complement fixation D. agglutination E. anamnestic response

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function NURSINGTB.COM ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.13 Analyze the relationships between the types of T cells and their receptors, and how they are activated.

Learning Outcome: 15.18 Explain the actions of antibodies in protective immune reactions. Section: 15.04 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Antigens and Antibodies Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response)

22.

Which process involves antibodies coating microorganisms in order to facilitate phagocytosis? A. neutralization B. opsonization C. complement fixation D. agglutination E. anamnestic response

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.18 Explain the actions of antibodies in protective immune reactions. Section: 15.04

Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Antigens and Antibodies Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response)

23.

Which process involves a more rapid synthesis and greatly increased titer of antibody when the immune system is subsequently exposed to the same antigen? A. neutralization B. opsonization C. complement fixation D. agglutination E. anamnestic response


ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.19 Analyze the primary and secondary responses to antigens and immunogens, including the importance of the anamnestic response and boosters. Section: 15.04 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response)

24.

The immunoglobulin class that has a dimer form found in mucus, saliva, colostrum, and other body secretions is A. IgA. B. IgD. C. IgE. D. IgG. E. IgM.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.17 Describe the structure and basic functions of the five major types of immunoglobulins. Section: 15.04

Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Antigens and Antibodies Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response)

25.

The immunoglobulin class that is the only one capable of crossing the placenta is A. IgA. B. IgD. C. IgE. D. IgG. E. IgM. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.17 Describe the structure and basic functions of the five major types of immunoglobulins.

NURSINGTB.COM 26.

Section: 15.04 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Antigens and Antibodies Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response)

The immunoglobulin class that has an Fc region that binds to receptors on basophils and mast cells is A. IgA. B. IgD. C. IgE. D. IgG E. IgM. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.17 Describe the structure and basic functions of the five major types of immunoglobulins.

27.

Section: 15.04 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Antigens and Antibodies Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response)

All of the following are characteristics of IgM, except A. it has 10 antigen binding sites. B. it contains a central J chain. C. it is the first class synthesized by a plasma cell. D. it can fix complement. E. it is a dimer. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.17 Describe the structure and basic functions of the five major types of immunoglobulins.

Section: 15.04 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Antigens and Antibodies Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response)

28.

Which immunoglobulin class/es can fix complement?


A. IgM only B. IgG only C. IgD only D. IgM and IgG E. IgE and IgA ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.17 Describe the structure and basic functions of the five major types of immunoglobulins.

Section: 15.04 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Antigens and Antibodies Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response)

29.

The immunoglobulin/s found on the surface of B-cells is/are A. IgM only. B. IgG only. C. IgD only. D. IgM and IgG. E. IgE and IgA. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.17 Describe the structure and basic functions of the five major types of immunoglobulins.

Section: 15.04 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Antigens and Antibodies Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response)

30.

When antiserum is subjected to electrophoresis, the gamma globulin band contains mostly A. IgM. B. IgA. C. IgD. D. IgE. E. IgG. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand

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Learning Outcome: 15.17 Describe the structure and basic functions of the five major types of immunoglobulins.

Section: 15.04 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Antigens and Antibodies Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response)

31.

The most significant cells in graft rejection are A. helper T-cells. B. suppressor T-cells. C. cytotoxic T-cells. D. B-cells. E. natural killer (NK) cells. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.13 Analyze the relationships between the types of T cells and their receptors, and how they are activated.

Learning Outcome: 15.14 Describe the primary functions of helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells. Learning Outcome: 15.15 Explain the concepts of natural killer cells and superantigens. Section: 15.03 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Cell-Mediated Response

32.

Which are the first to attack cancer cells and virus-infected cells? A. helper T-cells B. suppressor T-cells C. cytotoxic T-cells D. delayed hypersensitivity T-cells E. natural killer (NK) cells ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.12 Outline the main activities of cell-mediated immunities.


Section: 15.03 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Cell-Mediated Response

33.

Monoclonal antibodies A. originate from a single B-cell clone. B. have a single specificity for antigen. C. are secreted by hybridomas. D. are used in immunology lab tests and cancer therapy. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.16 List and analyze the stages in activation of B lymphocytes, clonal expansion, and antibody formation. Section: 15.04

Topic: Antigens and Antibodies

34.

Cytotoxic T-cells A. stimulate B-cell proliferation. B. lack specificity for a target cell. C. secrete granzymes and perforins that damage target cells. D. secrete interleukin-2 to stimulate B and T-cells. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.12 Outline the main activities of cell-mediated immunities. Learning Outcome: 15.13 Analyze the relationships between the types of T cells and their receptors, and how they are activated. Learning Outcome: 15.14 Describe the primary functions of helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells. Section: 15.03

Topic: Cell-Mediated Response

35.

An example of artificial passive immunity would be A. chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity. B. chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox. C. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease. D. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chNicUkReSnIpNoG x TvB iru.CsOaM cross the placenta. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 15.21 Differentiate between natural and artifical immunities and between active and passive immunities. Learning Outcome: 15.22 Expand on the four combinations of the defining categories, using examples. Section: 15.05 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Classification of Acquired Immunities

36.

An example of natural passive immunity would be A. chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity. B. chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox. C. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease. D. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 15.21 Differentiate between natural and artifical immunities and between active and passive immunities. Learning Outcome: 15.22 Expand on the four combinations of the defining categories, using examples. Section: 15.05 Topic: Antigens and Antibodies Topic: Classification of Acquired Immunities

37.

An example of artificial active immunity would be A. chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity. B. chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox. C. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease. D. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 15.21 Differentiate between natural and artifical immunities and between active and passive immunities. Learning Outcome: 15.22 Expand on the four combinations of the defining categories, using examples.


Learning Outcome: 15.24 Describe the sources and uses of artificial passive immunization and artificial immunization or vaccination. Section: 15.05 Topic: Classification of Acquired Immunities Topic: Immunization

38.

Which type of cell is severely depressed in AIDS patients? A. cytotoxic T-cells B. helper T-cells C. B-cells D. plasma cells E. suppressor T-cells

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.01 Summarize the general features of adaptive, acquired immunity.

Learning Outcome: 15.14 Describe the primary functions of helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells. Section: 15.03

Topic: Cell-Mediated Response

39.

In the primary response to an antigen, the first class of antibody to be secreted is A. IgD. B. IgE. C. IgG. D. IgM. E. IgA. ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.03 Outline the overall phases in a specific immune response.

Learning Outcome: 15.17 Describe the structure and basic functions of the five major types of immunoglobulins. Section: 15.04 Topic: Antigens and Antibodies

Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response)

40.

In the secondary response to an antigen, the predominant antibody is A. IgD. B. IgE. C. IgG. D. IgM. E. IgA.

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ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.02 Define immunocompetence, antigens, specificity, and memory as they relate to the immune system. Learning Outcome: 15.03 Outline the overall phases in a specific immune response. Learning Outcome: 15.17 Describe the structure and basic functions of the five major types of immunoglobulins. Section: 15.04 Topic: Antigens and Antibodies

41.

Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response)

All of the following characterize the secondary response to an antigen except A. a higher titer of antibody is produced than the primary response. B. a longer persistence of antibody than with the primary response. C. a quicker rate of antibody synthesis than the primary response. D. it is mostly IgM antibodies that are produced. E. it is also known as the anamnestic response. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.19 Analyze the primary and secondary responses to antigens and immunogens, including the importance of the anamnestic response and boosters. Section: 15.04 Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response)

42.

Which antibody confers the most important specific local immunity to enteric, respiratory, and genitourinary pathogens? A. IgD B. IgE C. IgG


D. IgM E. IgA ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.17 Describe the structure and basic functions of the five major types of immunoglobulins.

Learning Outcome: 15.18 Explain the actions of antibodies in protective immune reactions. Section: 15.04 Topic: Antigens and Antibodies Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response)

43.

The process of clonal deletion is designed to A. destroy clones of lymphocytes able to react to self molecules. B. slow down the primary immune response to an antigen. C. slow down the secondary immune response to an antigen. D. limit the number of lymphocyte clones an individual has in order to make the system more efficient. E. slow down the immune system in the elderly. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.05 Describe the major events in the origin of diversity in the immune system and features of the clonal selection theory. Section: 15.01 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Lymphocyte Development and Maturation

44.

Herceptin is an example of a monoclonal antibody-based drug for A. asthma. B. crohn's disease. C. breast cancer. D. respiratory syncytial virus. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.22 Expand on the four combinations of the defining categories, using examples. Section: 15.05

Topic: Antigens and Antibodies

45.

Immune sera is produced in horses for all tN hU eR foSllIoNwGinTgB.eCxO ce Mpt A. diphtheria. B. botulism. C. snake bites. D. chickenpox. E. spider bites. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.23 Explain the purposes of immunotherapy and immunization. Learning Outcome: 15.24 Describe the sources and uses of artificial passive immunization and artificial immunization or vaccination. Section: 15.06

Topic: Immunization

46.

Sam works in construction and stepped on a sharp nail. He can't remember the last time he had a tetanus shot. What type of immunity is the most important for him to receive? A. natural active immunity B. artificial passive immunity C. natural passive immunity D. artificial active immunity ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 15.20 Outline the major categories of adaptive immunity. Learning Outcome: 15.21 Differentiate between natural and artifical immunities and between active and passive immunities.

Learning Outcome: 15.23 Explain the purposes of immunotherapy and immunization. Section: 15.05 Section: 15.06 Topic: Classification of Acquired Immunities Topic: Immunization


47.

Cody is 4 months old and is given a DTaP injection by his pediatrician as part of the routine immunization schedule. What type of immunity will develop as a result of this? A. natural active immunity B. artificial passive immunity C. natural passive immunity D. artificial active immunity ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 15.20 Outline the major categories of adaptive immunity. Learning Outcome: 15.21 Differentiate between natural and artifical immunities and between active and passive immunities. Learning Outcome: 15.22 Expand on the four combinations of the defining categories, using examples. Learning Outcome: 15.23 Explain the purposes of immunotherapy and immunization. Section: 15.05 Section: 15.06

Topic: Classification of Acquired Immunities Topic: Immunization

48.

Edward Jenner's work involved A. inoculation of dried pus from smallpox pustules into a person to stimulate immunity. B. development of passive immunotherapy. C. development of an immunization to protect people against cowpox. D. immunization using a related, less pathogenic organism to give protection against a more pathogenic one. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.25 Discuss which factors are involved in vaccine development and new strategies for developing vaccines. Section: 15.06

Topic: Immunization

49.

Immunotherapy is the A. use of antitoxins. B. use of immune serum globulin. C. conferring of passive immunity. D. administering of preformed antibodies. NURSINGTB.COM E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.23 Explain the purposes of immunotherapy and immunization. Section: 15.06

Topic: Immunization

50.

High titers of specific antibodies are components of A. specific immune globulin (SIG). B. gamma globulin. C. immune serum globulin (ISG). D. attenuated vaccines. E. toxoids. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.24 Describe the sources and uses of artificial passive immunization and artificial immunization or vaccination. Section: 15.06

Topic: Immunization

51.

Killed or inactivated vaccines are prepared by A. removal of virulence genes from the microbe. B. treatment with formalin, heat, or radiation. C. passage of the pathogen through unnatural hosts or tissue culture. D. long-term subculturing of the microbe. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand


Learning Outcome: 15.25 Discuss which factors are involved in vaccine development and new strategies for developing vaccines.

Learning Outcome: 15.26 Identify the major categories of vaccine antigens, citing examples. Section: 15.06

Topic: Immunization

52.

Live, attenuated vaccines A. include the Sabin polio vaccine. B. include the measles, mumps, rubella vaccine (MMR). C. contain viable microbes that can multiply in the person. D. require smaller doses and fewer boosters compared to inactivated vaccines. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.25 Discuss which factors are involved in vaccine development and new strategies for developing vaccines.

Learning Outcome: 15.26 Identify the major categories of vaccine antigens, citing examples. Section: 15.06

Topic: Immunization

53.

Acellular vaccines and subunit vaccines A. contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules. B. are always genetically engineered. C. contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses. D. confer passive immunity. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.25 Discuss which factors are involved in vaccine development and new strategies for developing vaccines.

Learning Outcome: 15.26 Identify the major categories of vaccine antigens, citing examples. Section: 15.06

Topic: Immunization

54.

Toxoids A. contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules. B. are always genetically engineered. IN C. contain select antigenic components ofNaUpRaSth oG geTnBr.C atO hM er than whole cells or viruses. D. confer passive immunity. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.25 Discuss which factors are involved in vaccine development and new strategies for developing vaccines.

Learning Outcome: 15.26 Identify the major categories of vaccine antigens, citing examples. Section: 15.06

Topic: Immunization

55.

Vaccinia virus is often used in the technique to make A. adjuvant. B. booster. C. antibodies to toxin. D. gamma globulin. E. "Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.25 Discuss which factors are involved in vaccine development and new strategies for developing vaccines. Learning Outcome: 15.26 Identify the major categories of vaccine antigens, citing examples. Section: 15.06

Topic: Immunization

56.

Which of the following is a special binding substance that enhances immugenicity and prolongs antigen retention at the injection site? A. adjuvant B. booster C. antibodies to toxin


D. gamma globulin E. "Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.25 Discuss which factors are involved in vaccine development and new strategies for developing vaccines. Learning Outcome: 15.26 Identify the major categories of vaccine antigens, citing examples. Section: 15.06

Topic: Immunization

57.

Variolation involved using A. dried, ground smallpox scabs. B. a recombinant carrier with genetic material of the smallpox virus. C. preparations of human cowpox lesions. D. antibodies to the smallpox virus. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.25 Discuss which factors are involved in vaccine development and new strategies for developing vaccines. Section: 15.06 Topic: Immunization

58.

Antitoxins A. contain antibodies to neutralize specific toxin. B. use vaccinia virus with genetic material of bacterial toxins. C. contain purified, chemically denatured bacterial exotoxin. D. include capsule material against the pneumococcus and meningococcus. E. contain attenuated organisms. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.23 Explain the purposes of immunotherapy and immunization. Section: 15.06 Topic: Antigens and Antibodies Topic: Immunization

59.

The DTaP immunization A. contains diphtheria toxoid. NURSINGTB.COM B. is administered in childhood. C. contains tetanus toxoid. D. contains a pertussis vaccine with acellular capsule material. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.26 Identify the major categories of vaccine antigens, citing examples. Section: 15.06

Topic: Immunization

60.

Which of the immunizations would carry the greatest risk for immunocompromised patients? A. killed, inactivated vaccines B. attenuated vaccines C. toxoids D. immune serums E. subunit vaccines

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 15.26 Identify the major categories of vaccine antigens, citing examples. Learning Outcome: 15.27 Describe the medical guidelines for vaccination, its side effects, and how it relates to herd immunity. Section: 15.06

Topic: Immunization

61.

Which of the following conditions have been conclusively proven to be linked to childhood vaccinations? A. autism B. diabetes C. asthma


D. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.27 Describe the medical guidelines for vaccination, its side effects, and how it relates to herd immunity. Section: 15.06

62.

Topic: Immunization

Reliable vaccines exist for all of the following diseases except A. malaria. B. botulism. C. cholera. D. yellow fever. E. rabies. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.25 Discuss which factors are involved in vaccine development and new strategies for developing vaccines.

Learning Outcome: 15.26 Identify the major categories of vaccine antigens, citing examples. Section: 15.06

63.

All of the following are advantages of attenuated vaccines over inactivated vaccines except

Topic: Immunization

A. they require smaller doses. B. they require fewer boosters. C. they confer longer lasting protection. D. they can be transmitted to other people. E. they produce infection but not disease. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.26 Identify the major categories of vaccine antigens, citing examples. Learning Outcome: 15.27 Describe the medical guidelines for vaccination, its side effects, and how it relates to herd immunity. Section: 15.06

64.

NURSINGTB.COM All of the following are advantages of attenuated vaccines over inactivated vaccines except

Topic: Immunization

A. they confer longer lasting protection. B. they produce infection but not disease. C. they can mutate back to a virulent strain. D. they require fewer boosters. E. they require smaller doses. ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.26 Identify the major categories of vaccine antigens, citing examples. Learning Outcome: 15.27 Describe the medical guidelines for vaccination, its side effects, and how it relates to herd immunity. Section: 15.06 Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response)

65.

Topic: Immunization

All of the following are characteristics of an effective vaccine except A. it should have a relatively long shelf life. B. it should stimulate only the antibody (B-cell) response. C. it should protect against wild forms of the pathogen. D. it should not require numerous boosters. E. it should be easy to administer. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.26 Identify the major categories of vaccine antigens, citing examples.


Learning Outcome: 15.27 Describe the medical guidelines for vaccination, its side effects, and how it relates to herd immunity. Section: 15.06 Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response)

Topic: Immunization

66.

Which cells'direct involvement are required for cell-mediated immunity? A. T-cells B. B-cells C. bacterial cells D. viral components E. neutrophils ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.12 Outline the main activities of cell-mediated immunities.

Section: 15.03 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Cell-Mediated Response

67.

Which sequence of events is correct for a specific immune response? A. lymphocyte development, presentation of antigens, antibody production, challenge of B-cells B. lymphocyte development, challenge of B-cells, antibody production, presentation of antigens C. lymphocyte development, presentation of antigens, B-cell challenge, antibody production D. antibody production, lymphocyte production, B-cell challenge, presentation of antigens E. presentation of antigens, B-cell challenge, antibody production, lymphocyte development ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 15.03 Outline the overall phases in a specific immune response.

Learning Outcome: 15.07 Discuss the events in B-cell and T-cell maturation and how they differ. Learning Outcome: 15.16 List and analyze the stages in activation of B lymphocytes, clonal expansion, and antibody formation. Section: 15.04

Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response)

Topic: Lymphocyte Development and Maturation

68.

Which kind of T-cell synthesizes perforins and granzymes to destroy viral infected cells, and cancer cells? A. TC B. TH C. CD4 D. MHC

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ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.12 Outline the main activities of cell-mediated immunities.

Learning Outcome: 15.13 Analyze the relationships between the types of T cells and their receptors, and how they are activated. Learning Outcome: 15.14 Describe the primary functions of helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells. Section: 15.03

69.

Antibody molecules circulate in lymph, blood, and tissue fluids.

Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Cell-Mediated Response

TRUE ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.17 Describe the structure and basic functions of the five major types of immunoglobulins.

Learning Outcome: 15.18 Explain the actions of antibodies in protective immune reactions. Section: 15.04 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Antigens and Antibodies Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response)

70.

Scientists are currently developing bananas that synthesize proteins from pathogens, as a delivery system to vaccinate populations that otherwise would not have access to them. TRUE ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.25 Discuss which factors are involved in vaccine development and new strategies for developing vaccines. Section: 15.06

Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense


Topic: Immunization

71.

Human B lymphocytes mature in an intestinal region called the bursa. FALSE ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.05 Describe the major events in the origin of diversity in the immune system and features of the clonal selection theory. Learning Outcome: 15.07 Discuss the events in B-cell and T-cell maturation and how they differ. Section: 15.01 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Lymphocyte Development and Maturation

72.

Alloantigens are the basis for an individual's blood group and MHC profile. TRUE ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

Learning Outcome: 15.09 Discuss the main categories of antigens, based on function. Section: 15.02 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Antigens and Antibodies

73.

Activation of B-cells occurs when antigen bonds to B-cell surface immunoglobulin receptors. TRUE ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.03 Outline the overall phases in a specific immune response. Learning Outcome: 15.16 List and analyze the stages in activation of B lymphocytes, clonal expansion, and antibody formation. Section: 15.04

Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Antigens and Antibodies Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response)

Topic: Lymphocyte Development and Maturation

74.

After secreting antibodies during an immune response, plasma cells then differentiate into memory cells. FALSE ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.07 Discuss the events in B-cell and T-cell maturation and how they differ. Learning Outcome: 15.16 List and analyze the stages in activation of B lymphocytes, clonal expansion, and antibody formation.

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Section: 15.04

Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response)

Topic: Lymphocyte Development and Maturation

75.

A disadvantage of using an attenuated live microbe in a vaccine is that it can conceivably mutate back to a virulent strain. TRUE

ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.26 Identify the major categories of vaccine antigens, citing examples. Learning Outcome: 15.27 Describe the medical guidelines for vaccination, its side effects, and how it relates to herd immunity. Section: 15.06

Topic: Immunization

76.

Autoantigens are types of self-antigens that initiate an autoimmune response that can cause damage to host tissue. TRUE ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

Learning Outcome: 15.09 Discuss the main categories of antigens, based on function. Section: 15.02 Topic: Antigens and Antibodies

77.

The differences in the classes of immunoglobulins are due primarily to variations in the Fc fragment. TRUE


ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.17 Describe the structure and basic functions of the five major types of immunoglobulins.

Section: 15.04 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Antigens and Antibodies Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response)

78.

The albumin fraction of serum separated by electrophoresis will contain most of the antibodies. FALSE ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.13 Analyze the relationships between the types of T cells and their receptors, and how they are activated.

Learning Outcome: 15.18 Explain the actions of antibodies in protective immune reactions. Section: 15.04 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Antigens and Antibodies Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response)

79.

Antibody molecules can act as enzyme to directly destroy an antigen. FALSE ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.18 Explain the actions of antibodies in protective immune reactions. Section: 15.04 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Antigens and Antibodies Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response)

80.

Gamma globulin can be given as immunotherapy to confer artificial passive immunity. TRUE ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

81.

Learning Outcome: 15.18 Explain the actions of antibodies in protective immune reactions. Learning Outcome: 15.23 Explain the purposes of immunotherapy and immunization. NURSINGTB.COM Section: 15.06 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Antigens and Antibodies Topic: Classification of Acquired Immunities Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response)

Each genetically distinct group of lymphocytes that possesses the same specificity is called a clone

.

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.01 Summarize the general features of adaptive, acquired immunity. Learning Outcome: 15.05 Describe the major events in the origin of diversity in the immune system and features of the clonal selection theory. Section: 15.01 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Lymphocyte Development and Maturation

82.

Certain body sites contain sequestered molecules, called of immune tolerance and are mistaken as foreign.

that escaped assessment during development

autoantigens ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

83.

Learning Outcome: 15.08 Explain the characteristics of antigens, the property of antigenicity, and epitopes. Learning Outcome: 15.09 Discuss the main categories of antigens, based on function. Section: 15.02 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Antigens and Antibodies

Antigens that elicit allergic reactions are called

.

allergens ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

Learning Outcome: 15.09 Discuss the main categories of antigens, based on function. Section: 15.02


Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Antigens and Antibodies Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response)

84.

is the most abundant class of antibodies in serum. IgG; Immunoglobulin G ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.17 Describe the structure and basic functions of the five major types of immunoglobulins.

Section: 15.04 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Antigens and Antibodies Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response)

85.

A hybridoma results from the fusion of a myeloma cell with a normal

cell.

plasma ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.20 Outline the major categories of adaptive immunity.

Learning Outcome: 15.23 Explain the purposes of immunotherapy and immunization. Section: 15.05 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Antigens and Antibodies Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response)

86.

During presentation of APC-bound antigen, macrophages secrete a cytokine that activates T helper cells. What is the name of this cytokine? A. the major histocompatibility complex B. interleukin-2 C. IgM D. interleukin-1

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.10 Describe the cooperative interactions between antigen-presenting cells, T cells, and B cells. Learning Outcome: 15.11 Discuss the actions of interleukins in the early reactions of recognition and activation.

NURSINGTB.COM 87.

Section: 15.03 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Cell-Mediated Response

Which part of an antibody molecule contains the variable regions of a heavy and light chain that fold into a groove that will interact directly with and bind to a specific antigen? A. Fc end B. Fab ends C. heavy chains D. light chains E. disulfide bonds

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.17 Describe the structure and basic functions of the five major types of immunoglobulins. Section: 15.04 Topic: Antigens and Antibodies

Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response)

88.

Discuss, in detail, all the genetic and cellular events encompassed in the clonal selection theory of lymphocyte development. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 15.05 Describe the major events in the origin of diversity in the immune system and features of the clonal selection theory. Learning Outcome: 15.06 Describe the development of antigen receptors on lymphocytes. Section: 15.01 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Lymphocyte Development and Maturation

89.

Describe the characteristics that distinguish the following: a) antigen, b) hapten, c) antigenic determinant, d) alloantigen, e) heterophilic antigen, and f) autoantigen. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply


Learning Outcome: 15.02 Define immunocompetence, antigens, specificity, and memory as they relate to the immune system. Learning Outcome: 15.09 Discuss the main categories of antigens, based on function. Section: 15.02

Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Antigens and Antibodies

90.

Discuss the various ways by which antibodies interact with antigen and facilitate antigen inhibition or destruction. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 15.18 Explain the actions of antibodies in protective immune reactions. Section: 15.04 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Antigens and Antibodies Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response)

91.

Describe the major histocompatability complex with regard to its: a) location, b) composition, c) relationship to specific cell markers, and d) role in regulation of immune reactions. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 15.05 Describe the major events in the origin of diversity in the immune system and features of the clonal selection theory. Learning Outcome: 15.06 Describe the development of antigen receptors on lymphocytes. Learning Outcome: 15.09 Discuss the main categories of antigens, based on function. Section: 15.01 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Antigens and Antibodies

92.

In whereas in

immunity, an individual makes their own antibodies in response to antigen exposure, immunity, an individual receives antibodies made by another individual(s).

A. artificial; active B. active; passive C. passive; active D. natural; artificial E. natural; active ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 15.20 Outline the major categories of adaptive immunity. Learning Outcome: 15.21 Differentiate between natural and artifical immunities and between active and passive immunities. NURSINGTB.COM Section: 15.05

Topic: Classification of Acquired Immunities

93.

Primary and secondary antibody response differ in all the following ways, except A. IgG production predominates in secondary responses. B. the lag period between antigen stimulation and antibody response is shorter in the secondary response. C. the rate of antibody production is faster in primary responses than in secondary responses. D. primary responses are active whereas secondary responses are passive. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze Learning Outcome: 15.19 Analyze the primary and secondary responses to antigens and immunogens, including the importance of the anamnestic response and boosters. Section: 15.04 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response)

94.

Which of the following is a distinct advantage of active immunity over passive immunity? A. Active immunity is always natural whereas passive immunity is frequently artificial. B. Active immunity provides IgG whereas passive immunity provides IgM. C. Active immunity enables the development of immunologic memory, whereas no memory develops with passive immunity. D. Active immunity develops very quickly whereas passive immunity may take months to develop. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze Learning Outcome: 15.20 Outline the major categories of adaptive immunity.

Learning Outcome: 15.21 Differentiate between natural and artifical immunities and between active and passive immunities. Section: 15.05 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response)

95.

Post-exposure prophylaxis for rabies includes shots of HRIG (human rabies immune globulin) and rabies vaccine. The HRIG provides whereas the vaccine promotes the development of


. A. artificial passive immunity; natural active immunity B. artificial passive immunity; artificial active immunity C. natural passive immunity; artificial passive immunity D. artificial active immunity; artificial passive immunity E. artificial active immunity; natural active immunity ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 15.20 Outline the major categories of adaptive immunity. Learning Outcome: 15.21 Differentiate between natural and artifical immunities and between active and passive immunities. Learning Outcome: 15.24 Describe the sources and uses of artificial passive immunization and artificial immunization or vaccination.

Section: 15.05 Section: 15.06 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Immunization

96.

All of the following may be targeted by TC cells, except

A. viral-infected host cells. B. cancer cells. C. invading bacterial cells. D. cells in transplanted tissue from an imperfectly matched donor. E. All of these cells could be targeted by Tc cells. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 15.12 Outline the main activities of cell-mediated immunities.

97.

Learning Outcome: 15.14 Describe the primary functions of helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells. Section: 15.03

Natural killer (NK) cells recognize and identify their targets in an immunologically nonspecific way, but then kill their targets in a manner very similar to that of TC cells. TRUE NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply

Learning Outcome: 15.15 Explain the concepts of natural killer cells and superantigens.

Section: 15.03 Topic: Cell-Mediated Response


Chapter 15 Testbank Summary Category

# of Questions

ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determi ned by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biologic al means. ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance).

4 1 15 2

ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function.

1

ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in benefi cial, neutral or detrimental ways.

1 17

ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products.

2

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function

18

ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways

14

ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow

3

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems

77

ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms

2

Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

31

Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand

48

Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply

16

Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze

2

Learning Outcome: 15.01 Summarize the general features of adaptive, acquired immunity.

3

Learning Outcome: 15.02 Define immunocompetence, an ge peTcBifi.cCitO y,M and memory as they relate to the immun e NtiU RnSsI,NsG system.

2

Learning Outcome: 15.03 Outline the overall phases in a specific immune response. Learning Outcome: 15.04 Explain the functions and types of immune receptors, including where and how they develo p. Learning Outcome: 15.05 Describe the major events in the origin of diversity in the immune system and features of th e clonal selection theory.

6 4

Learning Outcome: 15.06 Describe the development of antigen receptors on lymphocytes.

3

Learning Outcome: 15.07 Discuss the events in B-cell and T-cell maturation and how they differ.

7

Learning Outcome: 15.08 Explain the characteristics of antigens, the property of antigenicity, and epitopes.

4

Learning Outcome: 15.09 Discuss the main categories of antigens, based on function. Learning Outcome: 15.10 Describe the cooperative interactions between antigenpresenting cells, T cells, and B cells.

7 3

Learning Outcome: 15.11 Discuss the actions of interleukins in the early reactions of recognition and activation.

2

Learning Outcome: 15.12 Outline the main activities of cell-mediated immunities. Learning Outcome: 15.13 Analyze the relationships between the types of T cells and their receptors, and how they ar e activated.

6 7

Learning Outcome: 15.14 Describe the primary functions of helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells.

5

Learning Outcome: 15.15 Explain the concepts of natural killer cells and superantigens. Learning Outcome: 15.16 List and analyze the stages in activation of B lymphocytes, clonal expansion, and antibody formation.

3 6

Learning Outcome: 15.17 Describe the structure and basic functions of the five major types of immunoglobulins.

17

Learning Outcome: 15.18 Explain the actions of antibodies in protective immune reactions. Learning Outcome: 15.19 Analyze the primary and secondary responses to antigens and immunogens, including the importance of the anamnestic response and boosters.

9 3

Learning Outcome: 15.20 Outline the major categories of adaptive immunity. Learning Outcome: 15.21 Differentiate between natural and artifical immunities and between active and passive imm unities.

6 8

6


Learning Outcome: 15.22 Expand on the four combinations of the defining categories, using examples.

5

Learning Outcome: 15.23 Explain the purposes of immunotherapy and immunization.

7

Learning Outcome: 15.24 Describe the sources and uses of artificial passive immunization and artificial immunization or vaccination. Learning Outcome: 15.25 Discuss which factors are involved in vaccine development and new strategies for developi ng vaccines.

4 10

Learning Outcome: 15.26 Identify the major categories of vaccine antigens, citing examples.

13

Learning Outcome: 15.27 Describe the medical guidelines for vaccination, its side effects, and how it relates to herd i mmunity.

6

Section: 15.01

13

Section: 15.02

9

Section: 15.03

14

Section: 15.04

32

Section: 15.05

10

Section: 15.06

25

Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense

55

Topic: Antigens and Antibodies

41

Topic: Cell-Mediated Response

13

Topic: Classification of Acquired Immunities

7

Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response)

37

Topic: Immunization

25

Topic: Lymphocyte Development and Maturation

12

NURSINGTB.COM


Chapter 16 Testbank Student:

1.

The major categories of hypersensitivities that typically involve a B-cell immunoglobulin response is/are A. Type 1 only. B. Type 1 and Type 4. C. Type 4 only. D. Type 1, Type 2, Type 3. E. Type 1, Type 2, Type 3, and Type 4.

2.

Atopy and anaphylaxis are hypersensitivities in the category A. Type 1 only. B. Type 1 and Type 4. C. Type 4 only. D. Type 1, Type 2, Type 3. E. Type 1, Type 2, Type 3, and Type 4.

3.

All of the following are involved in Type 2 hypersensitivity, except A. IgM. B. IgG. C. IgE. D. complement. E. foreign cells.

4.

Human blood types involve all the following, except A. MHC genes. B. ABO antigen markers. C. inheritance of two of three possible alleles.NURSINGTB.COM D. genetically determined glycoprotein markers. E. genes that code for an enzyme that adds a terminal carbohydrate to RBC receptors.

5.

The serum of a person with blood type A, Rh- will have which of the following antibodies? A. anti-A, anti-Rh B. anti-B, anti-Rh C. anti-A D. anti-B E. anti-A, anti-B, anti-Rh

6.

A person with O type blood A. lacks antibodies to A and B blood types. B. lacks A and B antigens. C. could not have the Rh factor. D. is called a universal recipient. E. All of these choices are correct.

7.

A person who has anti-A and anti-B serum antibodies will have blood Type A. A. B. B. C. AB. D. O. E. Rh.

8.

Transfusion of the wrong blood type can cause A. recipient antibody activating the complement cascade to attack the RBCs.


B. fever and anemia. C. systemic shock and kidney failure. D. massive hemolysis of the donor RBCs. E. All of these choices are correct. 9.

+

A female who is Rh

A. inherited two recessive genes. B. is in the majority of the population with regard to Rh status. C. is at risk for a pregnancy resulting in hemolytic disease of the newborn. D. can only have an Rh positive baby. E. All of these choices are correct. 10. The potential for hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when A. maternal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- fetus. B. fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- mother. C. maternal Rh- cells enter an Rh+ fetus. D. fetal Rh- cells enter an Rh+ mother. E. fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh+ mother. 11. Erythroblastosis fetalis can be prevented by A. injecting the mother with antibodies against the Rh factor late in the pregnancy and after giving birth.

B. treating the fetus with immune globulin. C. birth by cesarean section. D. treating the mother with RhoGAM early in the pregnancy. 12. Bee sting venom is considered to be which type of allergen? A. ingestant B. inhalant C. injectant D. contactant

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13. Mold spores and animal dander are considered to be which type of allergen? A. ingestant B. inhalant C. injectant D. contactant 14. The initial encounter with an allergen is called the A. sensitizing dose. B. provocative dose. C. allergic dose. D. hypersensitivity dose. E. desensitizing dose. 15. What will be the immediate action of allergen when it enters the body for a second time? A. degranulation B. bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils C. binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils D. Histamine acts on smooth muscle. E. Prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability. 16. Which event releases the chemical mediators? A. degranulation B. binding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils C. binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils D. Histamine acts on smooth muscle.


E. Prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability. 17. Which of the following is incorrect about the role of mast cells and basophils in allergies? A. They degranulate when triggered by a specific allergen through the IgE bound to them. B. They carry high numbers of cell receptors that bind to IgE antibodies. C. Their cytoplasmic secretory vesicles contain physiologically active cytokines. D. They are found mainly in the lymph nodes. 18. Which of the following is not a possible symptom of Type 1 hypersensitivity? A. Rhinitis B. Rashes C. Sneezing D. Diarrhea E. Contact dermatitis 19. Which is mismatched? A. food allergy - Type 1 hypersensitivity B. poison ivy dermatitis - Type 4 hypersensitivity C. serum sickness - Type 3 hypersensitivity D. transfusion reaction - Type 2 hypersensitivity E. hay fever - Type 4 hypersensitivity 20. Any heightened or inappropriate immune response resulting in tissue damage is called a/an A. autoimmune disease. B. immunodeficiency. C. hypersensitivity. D. transfusion reaction. E. desensitization.

21. Histamine causes all the following, except

NURSINGTB.COM

A. increased sensitivity to light. B. constriction of smooth muscle of bronchi and the intestine. C. relaxes vascular smooth muscle. D. wheal and flare reaction in skin. E. pruritis and headache. 22. The chemical mediator that causes prolonged bronchospasm, vascular permeability, and mucus secretion of asthmatic patients is A. prostaglandin. B. histamine. C. leukotriene. D. serotonin. E. platelet-activating factor.

_

23. All of the following are associated with IgE and mast cell-mediated allergy, except A. drug allergy. B. eczema. C. anaphylaxis. D. allergic asthma. E. systemic lupus erythematosus. 24. Epinephrine A. is an antihistamine. B. reverses constriction of airways. C. causes desensitization. D. inhibits the activity of lymphocytes.


E. All of these choices are correct. 25. Treatment for agammaglobulinemia is +

A. frequent transfusions of Rh blood.

B. passive immunotherapy and continuous antibiotic therapy. C. bone marrow transplant. D. allografts of skin. E. continuous immunosuppressive therapy. 26. Allergic patients receiving small, controlled injections of specific allergens are undergoing A. desensitization. B. sensitization. C. tissue matching. D. degranulation. 27. Large quantities of antibodies that react to the second entry of antigen and lead to formation of antigen-antibody complexes that deposit in basement membranes occur in A. serum sickness. B. delayed hypersensitivity. C. anaphylaxis. D. hemolytic disease of the newborn. E. All of these choices are correct.

28. Autoantibodies cause tissue injury in all the following diseases, except A. rheumatoid arthritis. B. myasthenia gravis. C. Graves'disease. D. tuberculin reaction. E. multiple sclerosis. 29. Contact dermatitis involves

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A. a sensitizing and provocative dose. B. allergen entering the skin. C. T-lymphocytes secrete inflammatory cytokines. D. itchy papules and blisters. E. All of these choices are correct. 30. Which of the following is a risk of a bone marrow transplant that is not typically a risk of a kidney or heart transplant? A. host rejection of graft B. graft versus host disease C. formation of autoantibodies D. hypogammaglobulinemia 31. Which of the following can be a consequence of a genetic deficiency in B cell survival and maturity? A. host rejection of graft B. graft versus host disease C. formation of autoantibodies D. hypogammaglobulinemia 32. The DiGeorge syndrome is the result of A. autoantibodies. B. delayed hypersensitivity. C. congenital absence or immaturity of the thymus gland. D. failure of B cell development and maturity. E. a genetic defect in the development of both T-cells and B cells.


33. Severe combined immunodeficiencies (SCIDs) are due to A. autoantibodies. B. delayed hypersensitivity. C. congenital absence or immaturity of the thymus gland. D. failure of B cell development and maturity. E. a genetic defect in the development of both T-cells and B cells. 34. A secondary acquired immunodeficiency is A. AIDS. B. adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency. C. DiGeorge syndrome. D. agammaglobulinemia. E. type I diabetes.

35. All of the following operate in surveillance and destruction of tumor cells, except A. macrophages. B. B cells. C. natural killer cells. D. cytotoxic T cells. 36. Which of the following can cause secondary acquired immunodeficiencies in T-cells and B cells? A. radiation B. chemotherapy C. organic disease D. infection E. All of these choices are correct. 37. Which is incorrect about DiGeorge syndrome? NURSINGTB.COM A. It is a severe deficiency of T-cells. B. Sometimes it is associated with a deletion in chromosome 22. C. Common childhood diseases can be fatal in affected children. D. The major therapy is a bone marrow transplant. E. Symptoms include reduced growth and unusual facial characteristics. 38. Jose needs a kidney due to his diabetes. His sister is a close match and is willing to give him one of hers. What type of transplant is this? A. allograft B. xenograft C. autograft D. heterograft 39. A xenograft is a tissue exchange A. between identical twins. B. between siblings. C. from one site on the body to another site. D. between individuals of different species. 40. What is the Arthus reaction? A. an autoimmune disorder B. an acute response to a second injection of vaccines at the same site C. a positive tuberculosis skin test D. the lysis of RBC due to complement during an incorrect blood transfusion E. the name given to skin wheals that occur during an allergy skin test 41. Which of the following is mismatched?


A. ingestant - nuts B. inhalant - bee sting C. injectant - vaccine D. contactant - rubber E. ingestant - food additive 42. Which cells play the greatest role in allergic symptoms? A. T-cells B. monocytes C. plasma cells D. mast cells E. eosinophils

43. All of the following are correct about Type O blood, except A. persons with this type of blood are considered universal donors. B. persons with this type of blood carry an O antigen on their RBC. C. persons with this type of blood have anti-A and anti-B antibodies in their plasma. D. this is the most common blood type among all racial groups in the U.S.

44. All of the following are examples of autoimmune diseases, except A. multiple sclerosis. B. Grave's disease. C. Hashimoto thyroiditis. D. myasthenia gravis. E. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome. 45. The heart of a baboon transplanted to a human would be a/an A. xenograft. B. autograft. C. allograft. D. heterograft. E. homograft.

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46. All of the following cells participate in immune surveillance, except A. macrophages. B. natural killer cells. C. cytotoxic T-cells. D. plasma cells. E. All of the choices participate. 47. Which of the following does not belong with transformed cancer cells? A. oncogenic viruses B. increased rate of growth C. chromosomal alterations D. capacity for limited division E. changed surface molecules 48. The tuberculin reaction develops within 30 minutes of the skin test in people with prior sensitization due to tuberculosis infection. True False 49. During graft rejection, cytotoxic T-cells of the recipient recognize and respond to foreign Class I MHC receptors on the grafted cells. True False


50. The allergen in poison ivy plants is oil called urushiol. True False 51. The most common immunoglobulin deficiency is an IgG deficiency. True False 52. After a bone marrow transplant, the recipient's blood type may change to the blood type of the donor. True False 53. The practice of delaying the introduction of solid foods may help prevent the development of food allergies, but doesn't provide complete protection. True False 54. In an isograft, tissue from an identical twin is used. True False 55. Systemic anaphylaxis can quickly result in airway blockage, shock, and death. True False 56. Eczema is an autoimmune disorder. True False 57. Food allergies include gastrointestinal symptoms as well as skin and respiratory symptoms. True False 58. A person who is Rh negative will have anti-Rh antibodies in their serum from early infancy. NURSINGTB.COM True False 59. Cancer cells can not displace normal blood cells and bone marrow. True False 60. The antigens to which allergic individuals are sensitive are termed

.

61. Allergic reactions to penicillin are an example of a A. Type 1 hypersensitivity. B. Type 2 hypersensitivity. C. Type 3 hypersensitivity. D. Type 4 hypersensitivity. 62. Allergic

is a seasonal reaction to inhaled pollen or molds.

63. Tissue transplanted from one body site on a patient to a different body site on that patient is called an 64. An

is any chronic local allergy.

65. The

dose of an allergen results in signs and symptoms of the allergy.

66. Type tissues.

hypersensitivities involve soluble antigen with IgM or IgG forming complexes that can deposit in

.


A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 67. Compare and contrast local atopies and systemic anaphylaxis with regard to: a) events of the hypersensitivity, b) chemical mediators and their effects, c) patient tissues involved, and d) two specific examples of each. 68. Discuss the proposed theories that attempt to explain the origin of autoimmunity. 69. Compare and contrast local atopies and contact dermatitis with regard to: a) components and events of the immune response, b) tissue damaging mediators, and c) two examples of each. 70. Write a definition for immunopathology and discuss the four major categories of immune system responses with specific examples for each. 71. Which of the following is most directly responsible for cell lysis in Type 2 hypersensitivity reactions? A. IgG antibodies B. IgM antibodies C. complement activation D. IgE antibodies E. NK cells F. TC cells 72. At birth, a neonate with blood Type O will have circulating anti-A and anti-B antibodies. True False 73. Indicate which of the following are participants in Type 2 hypersensitivity reactions. Check all that apply. A. B. C. D. E. F. G.

IgG and IgM antibodies NURSINGTB.COM IgE antibodies complement proteins Cells expressing foreign antigens or autoantigens. bacterial cells TC cells NK cells

74. All of the following are involved in the development of a Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction, except A. antigen. B. TH cells. C. IgE. D. cytokines. E. TC cells. F. dendritic cells. G. macrophages. 75. Which of the items below accurately describe characteristics of Type 4 hypersensitivity reactions. Check all that apply. A. B. C. D. E. F.

Reactions occur within minutes of antigen exposure (provocative dose). Reactions are generated by components of the cell-mediated immune response. IgE, basophils, and mast cells are typically involved. Histamine is a major mediator of symptoms. Reactions are delayed for 24— 48 hours after provocative antigen exposure. The tuberculin skin test and the rash caused by poison ivy and poison oak are examples.

76. One theory regarding immune tolerance and the development of autoimmunity states that during embryonic growth, some tissues are hidden behind anatomical barriers and cannot be surveyed by the developing immune system. Later in life, some of these tissues may be exposed to the immune system as a result of trauma or


infection and the immune system responds by developing an immune reaction against these tissues as if they were foreign. This theory is the A. theory of molecular mimmicry. B. theory of immune deficiency. C. forbidden clone theory. D. sequestered antigen theory. 77. Which of the following methods is/are used for determining the most appropriate donor tissue for a particular recipient? A. tissue typing B. mixed lymphocyte reaction C. ABO blood typing D. All of these choices are correct.

NURSINGTB.COM


Chapter 16 Testbank Key 1.

The major categories of hypersensitivities that typically involve a B-cell immunoglobulin response is/are A. Type 1 only. B. Type 1 and Type 4. C. Type 4 only. D. Type 1, Type 2, Type 3. E. Type 1, Type 2, Type 3, and Type 4. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.01 Summarize the main categories of immunopathology and their medical consequences. Learning Outcome: 16.02 Discuss the factors involved in allergies and hypersensitivities. Section: 16.01

Topic: Hypersensitivities

2.

Atopy and anaphylaxis are hypersensitivities in the category A. Type 1 only. B. Type 1 and Type 4. C. Type 4 only. D. Type 1, Type 2, Type 3. E. Type 1, Type 2, Type 3, and Type 4.

3.

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.01 Summarize the main categories of immunopathology and their medical consequences. Learning Outcome: 16.02 Discuss the factors involved in allergies and hypersensitivities. Learning Outcome: 16.07 Define the types of atopic allergies and describe their major features. Learning Outcome: 16.08 Explain the process of anaphylaxis and its outcome. Section: 16.01 Section: 16.02 Topic: Hypersensitivities

All of the following are involved in Type 2 hNyU peRrSsIeNnG siT tivBi.tC y,OeM xcept A. IgM. B. IgG. C. IgE. D. complement. E. foreign cells. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.01 Summarize the main categories of immunopathology and their medical consequences. Learning Outcome: 16.10 Explain the requirements for developing a type II hypersensitivity. Section: 16.03

4.

Topic: Hypersensitivities

Human blood types involve all the following, except A. MHC genes. B. ABO antigen markers. C. inheritance of two of three possible alleles. D. genetically determined glycoprotein markers. E. genes that code for an enzyme that adds a terminal carbohydrate to RBC receptors. ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.11 Define what is meant by blood groups, explain how they are inherited and expressed, and relate the primary medical concerns of blood transfusions. Learning Outcome: 16.12 Discuss how blood is typed and notated. Section: 16.03 Topic: Hypersensitivities


5.

The serum of a person with blood type A, Rh- will have which of the following antibodies? A. anti-A, anti-Rh B. anti-B, anti-Rh C. anti-A D. anti-B E. anti-A, anti-B, anti-Rh ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 16.11 Define what is meant by blood groups, explain how they are inherited and expressed, and relate the primary medical concerns of blood transfusions. Learning Outcome: 16.12 Discuss how blood is typed and notated. Learning Outcome: 16.13 Explain the special concerns about the Rh factor, the causes of hemolytic disease of the newborn, and how to prevent it. Section: 16.05 Topic: Hypersensitivities

6.

A person with O type blood A. lacks antibodies to A and B blood types. B. lacks A and B antigens. C. could not have the Rh factor. D. is called a universal recipient. E. All of these choices are correct.

7.

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.11 Define what is meant by blood groups, explain how they are inherited and expressed, and relate the primary medical concerns of blood transfusions. Learning Outcome: 16.12 Discuss how blood is typed and notated. Section: 16.03 Topic: Hypersensitivities

A person who has anti-A and anti-B serum antibodies will have blood Type A. A. B. B. C. AB. D. O. E. Rh.

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ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.11 Define what is meant by blood groups, explain how they are inherited and expressed, and relate the primary medical concerns of blood transfusions. Learning Outcome: 16.12 Discuss how blood is typed and notated. Section: 16.03 Topic: Hypersensitivities

8.

Transfusion of the wrong blood type can cause A. recipient antibody activating the complement cascade to attack the RBCs. B. fever and anemia. C. systemic shock and kidney failure. D. massive hemolysis of the donor RBCs. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.11 Define what is meant by blood groups, explain how they are inherited and expressed, and relate the primary medical concerns of blood transfusions. Section: 16.03 Topic: Hypersensitivities

9.

+

A female who is Rh

A. inherited two recessive genes. B. is in the majority of the population with regard to Rh status. C. is at risk for a pregnancy resulting in hemolytic disease of the newborn. D. can only have an Rh positive baby. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems


Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 16.13 Explain the special concerns about the Rh factor, the causes of hemolytic disease of the newborn, and how to prevent it. Section: 16.03 Topic: Hypersensitivities

10.

The potential for hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when A. maternal Rh+ cells enter an Rh− fetus. B. fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh− mother. C. maternal Rh− cells enter an Rh+ fetus. D. fetal Rh− cells enter an Rh+ mother. E. fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh+ mother. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.13 Explain the special concerns about the Rh factor, the causes of hemolytic disease of the newborn, and how to prevent it. Section: 16.03 Topic: Hypersensitivities

11.

Erythroblastosis fetalis can be prevented by A. injecting the mother with antibodies against the Rh factor late in the pregnancy and after giving birth. B. treating the fetus with immune globulin. C. birth by cesarean section. D. treating the mother with RhoGAM early in the pregnancy. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.13 Explain the special concerns about the Rh factor, the causes of hemolytic disease of the newborn, and how to prevent it. Section: 16.03 Topic: Hypersensitivities

12.

Bee sting venom is considered to be which type of allergen? A. ingestant B. inhalant C. injectant D. contactant ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand LeT arB ni.nCgO OM utcome: 16.04 Outline the major allergen categories, giving examples. NURSING

Section: 16.02 Topic: Hypersensitivities

13.

Mold spores and animal dander are considered to be which type of allergen? A. ingestant B. inhalant C. injectant D. contactant ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.04 Outline the major allergen categories, giving examples.

Section: 16.02 Topic: Hypersensitivities

14.

The initial encounter with an allergen is called the A. sensitizing dose. B. provocative dose. C. allergic dose. D. hypersensitivity dose. E. desensitizing dose. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.05 Explain the mechanism of immediate allergies, including the concepts of IgE, mast cells, sensitization, and provocation. Section: 16.02 Topic: Hypersensitivities

15.

What will be the immediate action of allergen when it enters the body for a second time? A. degranulation B. bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils C. binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils


D. Histamine acts on smooth muscle. E. Prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 16.05 Explain the mechanism of immediate allergies, including the concepts of IgE, mast cells, sensitization, and provocation. Section: 16.02 Topic: Hypersensitivities

16.

Which event releases the chemical mediators? A. degranulation B. binding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils C. binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils D. Histamine acts on smooth muscle. E. Prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.05 Explain the mechanism of immediate allergies, including the concepts of IgE, mast cells, sensitization, and provocation. Learning Outcome: 16.06 Summarize the physiological effects of allergies that lead to symptoms. Section: 16.02

Topic: Hypersensitivities

17.

Which of the following is incorrect about the role of mast cells and basophils in allergies? A. They degranulate when triggered by a specific allergen through the IgE bound to them. B. They carry high numbers of cell receptors that bind to IgE antibodies. C. Their cytoplasmic secretory vesicles contain physiologically active cytokines. D. They are found mainly in the lymph nodes. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.05 Explain the mechanism of immediate allergies, including the concepts of IgE, mast cells, sensitization, and provocation. Learning Outcome: 16.06 Summarize the physiological effects of allergies that lead to symptoms. Section: 16.02

Topic: Hypersensitivities

18.

Which of the following is not a possible symptom of Type 1 hypersensitivity? A. Rhinitis B. Rashes C. Sneezing D. Diarrhea E. Contact dermatitis

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ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.06 Summarize the physiological effects of allergies that lead to symptoms. Section: 16.02 Topic: Hypersensitivities

19.

Which is mismatched? A. food allergy - Type 1 hypersensitivity B. poison ivy dermatitis - Type 4 hypersensitivity C. serum sickness - Type 3 hypersensitivity D. transfusion reaction - Type 2 hypersensitivity E. hay fever - Type 4 hypersensitivity ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 16.01 Summarize the main categories of immunopathology and their medical consequences. Learning Outcome: 16.02 Discuss the factors involved in allergies and hypersensitivities. Learning Outcome: 16.04 Outline the major allergen categories, giving examples. Learning Outcome: 16.10 Explain the requirements for developing a type II hypersensitivity.

Learning Outcome: 16.15 Differentiate the major types of immune complex diseases, and discuss their physiological effects. Learning Outcome: 16.17 Describe the development of allergies to infectious agents and contact dermatitis. Section: 16.02 Section: 16.03 Section: 16.04 Section: 16.05 Topic: Hypersensitivities

20.

Any heightened or inappropriate immune response resulting in tissue damage is called a/an


A. autoimmune disease. B. immunodeficiency. C. hypersensitivity. D. transfusion reaction. E. desensitization. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.01 Summarize the main categories of immunopathology and their medical consequences. Learning Outcome: 16.02 Discuss the factors involved in allergies and hypersensitivities. Section: 16.01

21.

Topic: Hypersensitivities

Histamine causes all the following, except A. increased sensitivity to light. B. constriction of smooth muscle of bronchi and the intestine. C. relaxes vascular smooth muscle. D. wheal and flare reaction in skin. E. pruritis and headache. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.03 Describe general characteristics allergic reactions. Learning Outcome: 16.06 Summarize the physiological effects of allergies that lead to symptoms. Section: 16.02 Topic: Hypersensitivities

22.

The chemical mediator that causes prolonged bronchospasm, vascular permeability, and mucus secretion of asthmatic patients is A. prostaglandin. B. histamine. C. leukotriene. D. serotonin. E. platelet-activating factor. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.05 Explain the mechanism of immediate allergies, including the concepts of IgE, mast cells, sensitization, and provocation. Learning Outcome: 16.06 Summarize the physiological effects of allergies that lead to symptoms.

NURSINGTB.COM

Section: 16.02

23.

_

Topic: Hypersensitivities

All of the following are associated with IgE and mast cell-mediated allergy, except A. drug allergy. B. eczema. C. anaphylaxis. D. allergic asthma. E. systemic lupus erythematosus. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.05 Explain the mechanism of immediate allergies, including the concepts of IgE, mast cells, sensitization, and provocation. Learning Outcome: 16.06 Summarize the physiological effects of allergies that lead to symptoms. Learning Outcome: 16.21 Outline the pathology of autoimmune diseases. Section: 16.02 Topic: Hypersensitivities

24.

Epinephrine A. is an antihistamine. B. reverses constriction of airways. C. causes desensitization. D. inhibits the activity of lymphocytes. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

Learning Outcome: 16.06 Summarize the physiological effects of allergies that lead to symptoms. Learning Outcome: 16.09 Relate the primary methods of diagnosing, treating, and preventing allergies.

Section: 16.02 Topic: Hypersensitivities


25.

Treatment for agammaglobulinemia is + A. frequent transfusions of Rh blood. B. passive immunotherapy and continuous antibiotic therapy. C. bone marrow transplant. D. allografts of skin. E. continuous immunosuppressive therapy. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.01 Summarize the main categories of immunopathology and their medical consequences. Learning Outcome: 16.24 Outline the categories of immunodeficiency diseases. Section: 16.07

Topic: Immunodeficiency

26.

Allergic patients receiving small, controlled injections of specific allergens are undergoing A. desensitization. B. sensitization. C. tissue matching. D. degranulation. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.09 Relate the primary methods of diagnosing, treating, and preventing allergies.

Section: 16.02 Topic: Hypersensitivities

27.

Large quantities of antibodies that react to the second entry of antigen and lead to formation of antigenantibody complexes that deposit in basement membranes occur in A. serum sickness. B. delayed hypersensitivity. C. anaphylaxis. D. hemolytic disease of the newborn. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.14 Describe the background features of immune complex reactions. Learning Outcome: 16.15 Differentiate the major types of immune complex diseases, and discuss their physiological effects. Section: 16.04 Topic: Hypersensitivities

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28.

Autoantibodies cause tissue injury in all the following diseases, except A. rheumatoid arthritis. B. myasthenia gravis. C. Graves'disease. D. tuberculin reaction. E. multiple sclerosis. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.23 Review the major types of autoimmune diseases and the adverse medical effects they have. Section: 16.06 Topic: Autoimmunity

29.

Contact dermatitis involves A. a sensitizing and provocative dose. B. allergen entering the skin. C. T-lymphocytes secrete inflammatory cytokines. D. itchy papules and blisters. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.17 Describe the development of allergies to infectious agents and contact dermatitis.

Learning Outcome: 16.18 Outline the primary mechanisms in contact dermatitis. Section: 16.05 Topic: Hypersensitivities


30.

Which of the following is a risk of a bone marrow transplant that is not typically a risk of a kidney or heart transplant? A. host rejection of graft B. graft versus host disease C. formation of autoantibodies D. hypogammaglobulinemia ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.19 Discuss the involvement of T cells in organ transplantation and the different ways that grafted tissues may be rejected. Learning Outcome: 16.20 Describe the categories of grafts and how rejection is prevented. Section: 16.05

Topic: Hypersensitivities

31.

Which of the following can be a consequence of a genetic deficiency in B cell survival and maturity? A. host rejection of graft B. graft versus host disease C. formation of autoantibodies D. hypogammaglobulinemia ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.24 Outline the categories of immunodeficiency diseases. Learning Outcome: 16.25 Describe the origins and effects of primary immune dieseases caused by B-cell, T-cell, or combined defects. Section: 16.07 Topic: Immunodeficiency

32.

The DiGeorge syndrome is the result of A. autoantibodies. B. delayed hypersensitivity. C. congenital absence or immaturity of the thymus gland. D. failure of B cell development and maturity. E. a genetic defect in the development of both T-cells and B cells. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.25 Describe the origins and effects of primary immune dieseases caused by B-cell, T-cell, or combined defects. Section: 16.07 Topic: Immunodeficiency

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33.

Severe combined immunodeficiencies (SCIDs) are due to A. autoantibodies. B. delayed hypersensitivity. C. congenital absence or immaturity of the thymus gland. D. failure of B cell development and maturity. E. a genetic defect in the development of both T-cells and B cells. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.25 Describe the origins and effects of primary immune dieseases caused by B-cell, T-cell, or combined defects. Section: 16.07 Topic: Immunodeficiency

34.

A secondary acquired immunodeficiency is A. AIDS. B. adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency. C. DiGeorge syndrome. D. agammaglobulinemia. E. type I diabetes.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.24 Outline the categories of immunodeficiency diseases. Learning Outcome: 16.26 Relate examples of secondary immunodeficiencies. Section: 16.07

35.

Topic: Immunodeficiency

All of the following operate in surveillance and destruction of tumor cells, except


A. macrophages. B. B cells. C. natural killer cells. D. cytotoxic T cells. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.28 Explain how immune function relates to the development of cancer. Section: 16.07 Topic: Immunodeficiency

36.

Which of the following can cause secondary acquired immunodeficiencies in T-cells and B cells? A. radiation B. chemotherapy C. organic disease D. infection E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

Learning Outcome: 16.26 Relate examples of secondary immunodeficiencies. Section: 16.07 Topic: Immunodeficiency

37.

Which is incorrect about DiGeorge syndrome? A. It is a severe deficiency of T-cells. B. Sometimes it is associated with a deletion in chromosome 22. C. Common childhood diseases can be fatal in affected children. D. The major therapy is a bone marrow transplant. E. Symptoms include reduced growth and unusual facial characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.25 Describe the origins and effects of primary immune dieseases caused by B-cell, T-cell, or combined defects. Section: 16.07 Topic: Immunodeficiency

38.

Jose needs a kidney due to his diabetes. HNisUsRisStIeNrGisTa e match and is willing to give him one of hers. B.cCloOsM What type of transplant is this? A. allograft B. xenograft C. autograft D. heterograft ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.20 Describe the categories of grafts and how rejection is prevented. Section: 16.05 Topic: Hypersensitivities

39.

A xenograft is a tissue exchange A. between identical twins. B. between siblings. C. from one site on the body to another site. D. between individuals of different species. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.19 Discuss the involvement of T cells in organ transplantation and the different ways that grafted tissues may be rejected. Learning Outcome: 16.20 Describe the categories of grafts and how rejection is prevented. Section: 16.05

Topic: Hypersensitivities

40.

What is the Arthus reaction? A. an autoimmune disorder B. an acute response to a second injection of vaccines at the same site C. a positive tuberculosis skin test D. the lysis of RBC due to complement during an incorrect blood transfusion E. the name given to skin wheals that occur during an allergy skin test


ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.14 Describe the background features of immune complex reactions.

Learning Outcome: 16.15 Differentiate the major types of immune complex diseases, and discuss their physiological effects. Section: 16.04 Topic: Hypersensitivities

41.

Which of the following is mismatched? A. ingestant - nuts B. inhalant - bee sting C. injectant - vaccine D. contactant - rubber E. ingestant - food additive ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.04 Outline the major allergen categories, giving examples.

Section: 16.02 Topic: Hypersensitivities

42.

Which cells play the greatest role in allergic symptoms? A. T-cells B. monocytes C. plasma cells D. mast cells E. eosinophils

43.

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.05 Explain the mechanism of immediate allergies, including the concepts of IgE, mast cells, sensitization, and provocation. Section: 16.02 Topic: Hypersensitivities

All of the following are correct about Type O blood, except A. persons with this type of blood are considered universal donors. B. persons with this type of blood carry an O antigen on their RBC. NURSINGTB.COM C. persons with this typenti-A of blood have aanti bodies in their plasma. and anti-B D. this is the most common blood type among all racial groups in the U.S.

44.

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.11 Define what is meant by blood groups, explain how they are inherited and expressed, and relate the primary medical concerns of blood transfusions. Learning Outcome: 16.12 Discuss how blood is typed and notated. Section: 16.03 Topic: Hypersensitivities

All of the following are examples of autoimmune diseases, except A. multiple sclerosis. B. Grave's disease. C. Hashimoto thyroiditis. D. myasthenia gravis. E. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome.

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.23 Review the major types of autoimmune diseases and the adverse medical effects they have. Learning Outcome: 16.24 Outline the categories of immunodeficiency diseases. Section: 16.06

Topic: Autoimmunity

45.

The heart of a baboon transplanted to a human would be a/an A. xenograft. B. autograft. C. allograft. D. heterograft. E. homograft. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems


46.

Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 16.20 Describe the categories of grafts and how rejection is prevented. Section: 16.05 Topic: Hypersensitivities

All of the following cells participate in immune surveillance, except A. macrophages. B. natural killer cells. C. cytotoxic T-cells. D. plasma cells. E. All of the choices participate. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

Learning Outcome: 16.28 Explain how immune function relates to the development of cancer. Section: 16.07 Topic: Hypersensitivities

47.

Which of the following does not belong with transformed cancer cells? A. oncogenic viruses B. increased rate of growth C. chromosomal alterations D. capacity for limited division E. changed surface molecules ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.27 Describe the characteristics of cancer, and explain the mechanism of transformation.

Section: 16.07 Topic: Immunodeficiency

48.

The tuberculin reaction develops within 30 minutes of the skin test in people with prior sensitization due to tuberculosis infection. FALSE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems NURSINGTB.COM Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.16 Define what is meant by type IV hypersensitivities. Learning Outcome: 16.17 Describe the development of allergies to infectious agents and contact dermatitis. Section: 16.05

Topic: Hypersensitivities

49.

During graft rejection, cytotoxic T-cells of the recipient recognize and respond to foreign Class I MHC receptors on the grafted cells. TRUE ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.19 Discuss the involvement of T cells in organ transplantation and the different ways that grafted tissues may be rejected. Section: 16.05 Topic: Hypersensitivities

50.

The allergen in poison ivy plants is oil called urushiol. TRUE ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

Learning Outcome: 16.18 Outline the primary mechanisms in contact dermatitis. Section: 16.05 Topic: Hypersensitivities

51.

The most common immunoglobulin deficiency is an IgG deficiency. FALSE ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.01 Summarize the main categories of immunopathology and their medical consequences. Learning Outcome: 16.24 Outline the categories of immunodeficiency diseases. Section: 16.07

Topic: Immunodeficiency


52.

After a bone marrow transplant, the recipient's blood type may change to the blood type of the donor. TRUE ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 16.11 Define what is meant by blood groups, explain how they are inherited and expressed, and relate the primary medical concerns of blood transfusions. Section: 16.05 Topic: Hypersensitivities

53.

The practice of delaying the introduction of solid foods may help prevent the development of food allergies, but doesn't provide complete protection. TRUE ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.09 Relate the primary methods of diagnosing, treating, and preventing allergies.

Section: 16.02 Topic: Hypersensitivities

54.

In an isograft, tissue from an identical twin is used. TRUE ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

Learning Outcome: 16.20 Describe the categories of grafts and how rejection is prevented. Section: 16.05 Topic: Hypersensitivities

55.

Systemic anaphylaxis can quickly result in airway blockage, shock, and death. TRUE ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

Learning Outcome: 16.08 Explain the process of anaphylaxis and its outcome. Section: 16.02 Topic: Hypersensitivities

56.

Eczema is an autoimmune disorder.

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FALSE ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.07 Define the types of atopic allergies and describe their major features.

Section: 16.02 Topic: Hypersensitivities

57.

Food allergies include gastrointestinal symptoms as well as skin and respiratory symptoms. TRUE ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.02 Discuss the factors involved in allergies and hypersensitivities.

Learning Outcome: 16.03 Describe general characteristics allergic reactions. Learning Outcome: 16.06 Summarize the physiological effects of allergies that lead to symptoms. Section: 16.02 Topic: Hypersensitivities

58.

A person who is Rh negative will have anti-Rh antibodies in their serum from early infancy. FALSE ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.11 Define what is meant by blood groups, explain how they are inherited and expressed, and relate the primary medical concerns of blood transfusions. Learning Outcome: 16.13 Explain the special concerns about the Rh factor, the causes of hemolytic disease of the newborn, and how to prevent it. Section: 16.03 Topic: Hypersensitivities

59.

Cancer cells can not displace normal blood cells and bone marrow. FALSE


ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.27 Describe the characteristics of cancer, and explain the mechanism of transformation.

Section: 16.07 Topic: Immunodeficiency

60.

The antigens to which allergic individuals are sensitive are termed

.

allergens ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.02 Discuss the factors involved in allergies and hypersensitivities. Learning Outcome: 16.04 Outline the major allergen categories, giving examples.

Section: 16.02 Topic: Hypersensitivities

61.

Allergic reactions to penicillin are an example of a A. Type 1 hypersensitivity. B. Type 2 hypersensitivity. C. Type 3 hypersensitivity. D. Type 4 hypersensitivity. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

Learning Outcome: 16.03 Describe general characteristics allergic reactions. Learning Outcome: 16.04 Outline the major allergen categories, giving examples.

Section: 16.02 Topic: Hypersensitivities

62.

Allergic

is a seasonal reaction to inhaled pollen or molds.

rhinitis ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

Learning Outcome: 16.03 Describe general characteristics allergic reactions. Learning Outcome: 16.04 Outline the major allergen categories, giving examples.

Learning Outcome: 16.06 Summarize the physiological effects of allergies that lead to symptoms. NURSINGTB.COM Section: 16.02 Topic: Hypersensitivities

63.

Tissue transplanted from one body site on a patient to a different body site on that patient is called an . autograft ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

Learning Outcome: 16.20 Describe the categories of grafts and how rejection is prevented. Section: 16.05 Topic: Hypersensitivities

64.

An

is any chronic local allergy.

atopy; atopic allergy ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.07 Define the types of atopic allergies and describe their major features.

Section: 16.02 Topic: Hypersensitivities

65.

The

dose of an allergen results in signs and symptoms of the allergy.

provocative ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.05 Explain the mechanism of immediate allergies, including the concepts of IgE, mast cells, sensitization, and provocation. Section: 16.02 Topic: Hypersensitivities

66.

Type tissues. A. 1

hypersensitivities involve soluble antigen with IgM or IgG forming complexes that can deposit in


B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.14 Describe the background features of immune complex reactions. Learning Outcome: 16.15 Differentiate the major types of immune complex diseases, and discuss their physiological effects. Section: 16.04 Topic: Hypersensitivities

67.

Compare and contrast local atopies and systemic anaphylaxis with regard to: a) events of the hypersensitivity, b) chemical mediators and their effects, c) patient tissues involved, and d) two specific examples of each. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 16.05 Explain the mechanism of immediate allergies, including the concepts of IgE, mast cells, sensitization, and provocation. Learning Outcome: 16.06 Summarize the physiological effects of allergies that lead to symptoms. Learning Outcome: 16.07 Define the types of atopic allergies and describe their major features. Learning Outcome: 16.08 Explain the process of anaphylaxis and its outcome. Section: 16.02

Topic: Hypersensitivities

68.

Discuss the proposed theories that attempt to explain the origin of autoimmunity. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 16.21 Outline the pathology of autoimmune diseases.

Learning Outcome: 16.22 Explain the origins of autoimmunity and which persons are most often targeted by it. Section: 16.06 Topic: Autoimmunity

69.

Compare and contrast local atopies and contact dermatitis with regard to: a) components and events of the immune response, b) tissue damaging mediators, and c) two examples of each. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 16.05 Explain the mechanism of immediate allergies, including the concepts of IgE, mast cells, sensitization, and provocation. Learning Outcome: 16.07 Define the types of atopic allergies and describe their major features. Learning Outcome: 16.17 Describe the development of allergies to infectious agents and contact dermatitis. Learning Outcome: 16.18 Outline the primary mechanisms in contact dermatitis. Section: 16.02

70.

NURSINGTB.COM Topic: Hypersensitivities Write a definition for immunopathology and discuss the four major categories of immune system responses with specific examples for each. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 16.01 Summarize the main categories of immunopathology and their medical consequences. Learning Outcome: 16.05 Explain the mechanism of immediate allergies, including the concepts of IgE, mast cells, sensitization, and provocation. Learning Outcome: 16.10 Explain the requirements for developing a type II hypersensitivity. Learning Outcome: 16.14 Describe the background features of immune complex reactions. Learning Outcome: 16.16 Define what is meant by type IV hypersensitivities. Section: 16.01 Section: 16.02 Section: 16.03 Section: 16.04 Section: 16.05

Topic: Autoimmunity Topic: Hypersensitivities

Topic: Immunodeficiency

71.

Which of the following is most directly responsible for cell lysis in Type 2 hypersensitivity reactions? A. IgG antibodies B. IgM antibodies C. complement activation D. IgE antibodies E. NK cells F. TC cells ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 16.10 Explain the requirements for developing a type II hypersensitivity.

Section: 16.03 Topic: Hypersensitivities

72.

At birth, a neonate with blood Type O will have circulating anti-A and anti-B antibodies.


FALSE ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze Learning Outcome: 16.10 Explain the requirements for developing a type II hypersensitivity.

Learning Outcome: 16.11 Define what is meant by blood groups, explain how they are inherited and expressed, and relate the primary medical concerns of blood transfusions. Section: 16.03 Topic: Hypersensitivities

73.

Indicate which of the following are participants in Type 2 hypersensitivity reactions. Check all that apply. A. B. C. D. E. F. G.

IgG and IgM antibodies IgE antibodies complement proteins Cells expressing foreign antigens or autoantigens. bacterial cells TC cells NK cells ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 16.10 Explain the requirements for developing a type II hypersensitivity.

Section: 16.03 Topic: Hypersensitivities

74.

All of the following are involved in the development of a Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction, except A. antigen. B. TH cells. C. IgE. D. cytokines. E. TC cells. F. dendritic cells. G. macrophages. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply ng Outcome: 16.16 Define what is meant by type IV hypersensitivities. NURSINGTBL.eCarOniM

Learning Outcome: 16.18 Outline the primary mechanisms in contact dermatitis. Section: 16.05 Topic: Hypersensitivities

75.

Which of the items below accurately describe characteristics of Type 4 hypersensitivity reactions. Check all that apply. A. B. C. D. E. F.

Reactions occur within minutes of antigen exposure (provocative dose). Reactions are generated by components of the cell-mediated immune response. IgE, basophils, and mast cells are typically involved. Histamine is a major mediator of symptoms. Reactions are delayed for 24— 48 hours after provocative antigen exposure. The tuberculin skin test and the rash caused by poison ivy and poison oak are examples. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 16.16 Define what is meant by type IV hypersensitivities.

Learning Outcome: 16.18 Outline the primary mechanisms in contact dermatitis. Section: 16.05 Topic: Hypersensitivities


76.

One theory regarding immune tolerance and the development of autoimmunity states that during embryonic growth, some tissues are hidden behind anatomical barriers and cannot be surveyed by the developing immune system. Later in life, some of these tissues may be exposed to the immune system as a result of trauma or infection and the immune system responds by developing an immune reaction against these tissues as if they were foreign. This theory is the A. theory of molecular mimmicry. B. theory of immune deficiency. C. forbidden clone theory. D. sequestered antigen theory. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.22 Explain the origins of autoimmunity and which persons are most often targeted by it. Section: 16.06 Topic: Autoimmunity

77.

Which of the following methods is/are used for determining the most appropriate donor tissue for a particular recipient? A. tissue typing B. mixed lymphocyte reaction C. ABO blood typing D. All of these choices are correct. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.20 Describe the categories of grafts and how rejection is prevented. Section: 16.05 Topic: Hypersensitivities

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Chapter 16 Testbank Summary Category

# of Questions

ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in benefi cial, neutral or detrimental ways.

1 2

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function

1

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems

77

Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

27

Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand

35

Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply

14

Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze

1

Learning Outcome: 16.01 Summarize the main categories of immunopathology and their medical consequences.

8

Learning Outcome: 16.02 Discuss the factors involved in allergies and hypersensitivities.

6

Learning Outcome: 16.03 Describe general characteristics allergic reactions.

4

Learning Outcome: 16.04 Outline the major allergen categories, giving examples. Learning Outcome: 16.05 Explain the mechanism of immediate allergies, including the concepts of IgE, mast cells, se nsitization, and provocation.

7 11

Learning Outcome: 16.06 Summarize the physiological effects of allergies that lead to symptoms.

10

Learning Outcome: 16.07 Define the types of atopic allergies and describe their major features.

5

Learning Outcome: 16.08 Explain the process of anaphylaxis and its outcome.

3

Learning Outcome: 16.09 Relate the primary methods of diagnosing, treating, and preventing allergies.

3

Learning Outcome: 16.10 Explain the requirements for developing a type II hypersensitivity. Learning Outcome: 16.11 Define what is meant by blood groups, explain how they are inherited and expressed, and r elate the primary medical concerns of blood transfusions. StIeNdG Learning Outcome: 16.12 Discuss how blood is typed anN dU noRta . TB.COM

6 9

Learning Outcome: 16.13 Explain the special concerns about the Rh factor, the causes of hemolytic disease of the n ewborn, and how to prevent it.

5 5

Learning Outcome: 16.14 Describe the background features of immune complex reactions. Learning Outcome: 16.15 Differentiate the major types of immune complex diseases, and discuss their physiological effects.

4 4

Learning Outcome: 16.16 Define what is meant by type IV hypersensitivities.

4

Learning Outcome: 16.17 Describe the development of allergies to infectious agents and contact dermatitis.

4

Learning Outcome: 16.18 Outline the primary mechanisms in contact dermatitis. Learning Outcome: 16.19 Discuss the involvement of T cells in organ transplantation and the different ways that graft ed tissues may be rejected.

5 3

Learning Outcome: 16.20 Describe the categories of grafts and how rejection is prevented.

7

Learning Outcome: 16.21 Outline the pathology of autoimmune diseases.

2

Learning Outcome: 16.22 Explain the origins of autoimmunity and which persons are most often targeted by it. Learning Outcome: 16.23 Review the major types of autoimmune diseases and the adverse medical effects they hav e.

2 2

Learning Outcome: 16.24 Outline the categories of immunodeficiency diseases. Learning Outcome: 16.25 Describe the origins and effects of primary immune dieseases caused by B-cell, Tcell, or combined defects.

5 4

Learning Outcome: 16.26 Relate examples of secondary immunodeficiencies.

2

Learning Outcome: 16.27 Describe the characteristics of cancer, and explain the mechanism of transformation.

2

Learning Outcome: 16.28 Explain how immune function relates to the development of cancer.

2

Section: 16.01

4

Section: 16.02

28

Section: 16.03

15

Section: 16.04 Section: 16.05

5 17


Section: 16.06

4

Section: 16.07

12

Topic: Autoimmunity Topic: Hypersensitivities Topic: Immunodeficiency

5 62 12

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Chapter 17 Testbank Student:

1. In lab, a student observes some dull, wrinkled brown colonies growing on their agar. They Gram stain the sample and observe single bacilli. Their blood agar does not reveal any hemolysis while their MSA has growth and fermentation. Using the following table and the given observations, determine which microorganism this would most likely be.

Bacilli

B. cereus

B. subtilis

Colony morphology

Dull, frosted colonies

Dull, wrinkled colonies cream to brown colors

Microscopic arrangement

Chains

Single bacilli

Catalase

+

+

Blood agar

Beta

Gamma

Mannitol salt agar

-

+ growth and + fermentation

Pseudomonas

aeruginosa NURSINGTB.CP O.M

Catalase

+

Oxidase

+

Motile

+

Blood agar

Beta

Glucose fermentation

+

Escherichia

E. coli

Lactose fermentation

+

Motile

+

Citrate fermentation

-


Urease

-

Catalase

+

A. E. coli B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. B. subtilis D. B. cereus 2.

All of the following are methods to diagnose viral infections, except A. detection of viral nucleic acid using specific probes. B. Western Blot. C. cells taken from patient are examined for evidence of viral infection. D. signs and symptoms. E. the light microscope.

3.

Which of the following is involved in the in vitro diagnostic testing of serum? A. mycology B. hematology C. serology D. histology E. virology

4.

The property of a test to detect even small amounts of antibodies or antigens that are test targets is A. cross-reactions. B. agglutination. C. precipitation. D. specificity. E. sensitivity.

5.

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The property of a test to detect only a certain antibody or antigen, and not to react with any others, is

A. cross-reactions. B. agglutination. C. precipitation. D. specificity. E. sensitivity. 6.

Whole antigens are detected in which type of test? A. cross-reactions B. agglutination C. precipitation D. specificity E. sensitivity

7.

Soluble antigens are detected in which type of test? A. cross-reactions B. agglutination C. precipitation D. specificity E. sensitivity

8.

Affixing antigen to an inert particle such as a latex bead is sometimes used in which type of test? A. cross-reactions B. agglutination


C. precipitation D. specificity E. sensitivity 9.

A serum titer involves A. serially diluting a serum sample. B. determining the lowest dilution of serum that produces a visible reaction. C. determining the highest dilution of antigen that produces a visible reaction. D. the Western Blot method.

10. Precipitation tests involve all of the following, except A. they rely on formation of visible clumps for detection. B. they include the VDRL test for syphilis. C. they are often performed in agar gels. D. they can be done in a test tube by carefully adding antiserum over antigen solution. E. a cloudy or opaque zone developing where antigen and antibody react. 11. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the complement fixation test? A. First antigen and antibody are allowed to react. B. Purified complement proteins are added to the antigen-antibody tube. C. Sheep red blood cells are added to the antigen-antibody-complement mixture. D. Hemolysis of the sheep red blood cells occurs in a positive test result. 12. When serum proteins are separated by electrophoresis and then antibodies specific for the serum proteins are placed in a parallel trough in order to form reaction arcs for each protein, the test is called A. Ouchterlony double diffusion. B. Western Blot. C. immunelectrophoresis. D. radioimmunoassay (RIA). E. the Quellung test. NURSINGTB.COM 13. Which test uses radioactive isotopes to label antibodies or antigens in order to detect minute amounts of corresponding antigen or antibody? A. Ouchterlony double diffusion B. Western Blot C. immunelectrophoresis D. radioimmunoassay (RIA) E. the Quellung test 14. Which test is the confirming test for people who initially tested antibody-positive in the screening ELISA test? A. Ouchterlony double diffusion B. Western Blot C. immunelectrophoresis D. radioimmunoassay (RIA) E. the Quellung test 15. Serotyping of the pneumococcus based on capsular polysaccharide is performed in A. Ouchterlony double diffusion. B. Western Blot. C. immunelectrophoresis. D. radioimmunoassay (RIA). E. the Quellung test. 16. Which of the following is not a biochemical test used to identify a pathogen? A. acid-fast reaction B. hydrolysis of gelatin C. coagulase production


D. indole production E. carbohydrate fermentation 17. Which of the following choices are true about the dyes fluorescein and rhodamine? A. They can be used to label antibodies in immunofluorescence tests. B. They emit visible light in response to ultraviolet radiation. C. They are observed in the fluorescent microscope. D. They are used to identify pathogens of chlamydiosis, Legionnaires'disease, and others. E. All of these choices are correct. 18. Which technique used to diagnose a disease is also called the double diffusion method? A. Ouchterlony test B. VDRL test C. immunoelectrophoresis D. Western Blot E. ELISA 19. A physician orders an antistreptolysin O (ASO) titer test to check for rheumatic fever. A patient serum sample is exposed to known suspensions of streptolysin and then allowed to incubate with RBCs. If the patient does have rheumatic fever, what will happen? A. Not enough information is provided to speculate. B. The red blood cells will lyse. C. The red blood cells will agglutinate only. D. The red blood cells will not lyse. E. The red blood cells will fluoresce. 20. Which of the following methods is categorized as a direct test in order to analyze a specimen? A. catalase test B. Gram stain C. phage typing D. antimicrobic sensitivity E. production of gas

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21. All of the following are routine biochemical tests to aid in identifying a species, except A. motility. B. carbohydrate fermentation. C. catalase test. D. oxidase test. E. coagulase test. 22. Maggie was told she has a positive titer to measles. Which of the following could explain this? A. She was vaccinated against measles. B. She had measles sometime in her life. C. She has measles now. D. The test was a false positive. E. All of these choices are correct. 23. Mary had an accidental needlestick one night during her shift as an emergency medical technician. Initially, she tested positive for HIV by the ELISA test. Which test would be done next to confirm an HIV infection? A. immunoelectrophoresis B. Ouchterlony C. complement fixation D. Western Blot E. radioimmunoassay 24. The more a sample can be diluted and yet still react with antigen, the that sample and the is its titer.

the concentration of antibodies in


A. lower; lower B. higher; lower C. lower; higher D. higher; higher 25. Sputum is obtained by A. swabbing the mouth to sample saliva. B. a clean catch urine sample. C. the patient coughing up mucus from the lower respiratory system. D. a spinal tap above the chest. E. a throat swab. 26. Test systems involving which of the following has greatly improved the specificity of immunological tests? A. Monoclonal antibodies B. Electronics C. Enzymes D. Radioactivity E. All of these choices are correct. 27. A rising antibody titer a few days apart indicates A. the patient had a past case of the disease. B. the patient has a current infection. C. nothing, people always have antibodies in their serum. D. All of these choices are correct. 28. In direct antigen testing, the reaction is generally seen with the A. electron microscope. B. naked eye. C. light microscope. D. API 20E miniature identification system. E. PCR reaction.

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29. Which test is used to measure the IgE present in allergic patients? A. fluorescent antibody tests B. Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) test C. Weil-Felix reaction D. RIST E. ELISA 30. The indirect ELISA test detects

in a patient's blood.

A. antigen B. antibody C. microorganisms D. IgE only E. complement

31. All of the following are correct about the indirect ELISA, except A. it can detect antibodies in a serum sample. B. it is the common screening test for antibodies to Helicobacter. C. color development indicates that antibody was not present in the patient's serum. D. it is the common screening test for antibodies to Hepatitis A. E. a known antigen is adsorbed to the surface of a well. 32. The Widal test is used for diagnosing salmonellosis. True False


33. When antibodies or other substances in serum cross-react with the test reagents, a false positive result can occur. True False 34. Serological testing always involves reactions between specific antibody and antigen. True False 35. ELISA tests use a fluorescent dye as a label to trace antigen-antibody reactions. True False 36. Serological tests should have low sensitivity and specificity. True False 37. The tuberculin test is an example of an in vivo serological test. True False 38. Some diseases are diagnosed without the need to identify microbes from a patient specimen. True False 39. Broad general characteristics of bacteria on flowcharts can be misleading for a diagnosis of disease. True False 40. An antibody

provides a measure of the quantity of antibodies in the serum.

41. In indirect fluorescent testing, fluorescent antibody.

are used to react with the Fc region of another, specific, serum NURSINGTB.COM

42. Horseradish peroxidase and alkaline phosphatase are enzymes used in

tests.

43. In tests, antibody cross-links whole-cell antigens, forming complexes that settle out and form visible clumps in the test chamber. 44. When collecting 45. In a

, a "clean catch" method is often used. , antigens or antibodies are labeled with radioactive isotopes and traced.

46. Describe the indirect ELISA test that is used as a screening test for HIV (AIDS) and include the following: a) sequence of procedures, b) reagents used, and c) detection and interpretation of a positive test. 47. Compare and contrast agglutination and precipitation reactions, and include a description of one test for each type of reaction. 48. Describe three possible sampling sites and methods of collection for clinical laboratories. 49. Why do many physicians feel that stool cultures are not necessary, except in certain circumstances when diagnosing GI tract infections? 50. Identify, describe, and discuss the objectives of the three main categories of identifying infectious agents using specific examples.


51. Culture of patient specimens to detect pathogens is usually done on blood agar plates only. True False 52. Biochemical testing used for identification of pathogens involves each of the following, except A. inoculation of additional media, incubation, and observation for a color change. B. quick tests that take just a few seconds. C. examining organisms through the microscope. 53. If trying to isolate a specific pathogen from amongst a variety of normal microbiota, which type of media would be most helpful? A. nutrient agar B. differential media C. blood agar D. selective and differential agar 54. Allergy testing, which is accomplished by injecting tiny amounts of allergen into the skin and examining the injection site for a reaction, is an example of an in vitro test. True False 55. Tests that take place in the lab, such as in a test tube or Petri-dish, outside of a living host, are referred to as whereas tests that take place in a living host, such as in a patient, are described as .

A. In loco; In vitro B. In vitro; In loco C. In vitro; In vivo D. In loco; In vivo 56. Which of the following can be used for the cultivation of viruses? A. Enriched broth media B. Viral host cells grown in vitro C. Enriched agar media D. All of these choices.

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57. Select the methods below that can be used for identifying the causative agent of a viral infection. Check all that apply. A. cultivation of the virus from patient samples in cell/tissue cultures B. detection of antibodies to the virus in a patient's serum C. observation of the patient's symptoms D. gram stain of patient specimens E. amplification and detection of viral nucleic acid in patient specimens F. culture of virus from patient specimens in enriched agar and broth media G. direct observation of viral-infected cells using fluorescent-antibody staining 58. Pulsed-field gel electrophoresis (PFGE) is often used to determine whether bacterial isolates from different cases of food-borne illness are the same and can be traced to the same source. This is an example of A. an immunologic technique. B. a genetic method. C. a phenotypic method. D. a microscopic technique. 59. Minute amounts of a pathogen in a patient sample can be rapidly detected by specifically amplifying and identifying its nucleic acid using PCR. This is an example of A. an immunologic method. B. a microscopic method. C. a phenotypic method. D. a genetic method.


Chapter 17 Testbank Key 1. In lab, a student observes some dull, wrinkled brown colonies growing on their agar. They Gram stain the sample and observe single bacilli. Their blood agar does not reveal any hemolysis while their MSA has growth and fermentation. Using the following table and the given observations, determine which microorganism this would most likely be.

Bacilli

B. cereus

B. subtilis

Colony morphology

Dull, frosted colonies

Dull, wrinkled colonies cream to brown colors

Microscopic arrangement

Chains

Single bacilli

Catalase

+

+

Blood agar

Beta

Gamma

Mannitol salt agar

-

+ growth and + fermentation

Pseudomonas

P. aeruginosa

NURSINGTB.COM Catalase

+

Oxidase

+

Motile

+

Blood agar

Beta

Glucose fermentation

+

Escherichia

E. coli

Lactose fermentation

+

Motile

+

Citrate fermentation

-

Urease

-


Catalase

+

A. E. coli B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. B. subtilis D. B. cereus ASM Objective: 07.01b Ability to apply the process of science: Analyze and interpret results from a variety of microbiological methods and apply these methods to analogous situations. ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze Learning Outcome: 17.06 Explain the basis of biochemical and other methods of testing.

Learning Outcome: 17.07 Describe how flowcharts and comparison tables are used in identification of bacterial pathogens. Section: 17.02

2.

Topic: Identifying Microorganisms

All of the following are methods to diagnose viral infections, except A. detection of viral nucleic acid using specific probes. B. Western Blot. C. cells taken from patient are examined for evidence of viral infection. D. signs and symptoms. E. the light microscope.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.01 Describe what is involved in the main categories of laboratory identification of infectious agents.

Learning Outcome: 17.04 Describe some direct methods of testing a specimen. Learning Outcome: 17.08 Explain the different variations on genetic testing and how they can be used in identification and diagnosis. Learning Outcome: 17.16 Summarize the protocols in identifying the causative agent in a viral infection. Section: 17.03 Section: 17.06 Topic: Identifying Microorganisms NURSINGTB.COM Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification Topic: Phenotypic Methods for Identification

3.

Which of the following is involved in the in vitro diagnostic testing of serum? A. mycology B. hematology C. serology D. histology E. virology ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.01 Describe what is involved in the main categories of laboratory identification of infectious agents.

Learning Outcome: 17.09 Describe the background aims of immunologic testing. Section: 17.01 Section: 17.04 Section: 17.05 Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification

4.

The property of a test to detect even small amounts of antibodies or antigens that are test targets is A. cross-reactions. B. agglutination. C. precipitation. D. specificity. E. sensitivity. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.01 Describe what is involved in the main categories of laboratory identification of infectious agents.

Learning Outcome: 17.09 Describe the background aims of immunologic testing.


Learning Outcome: 17.10 Identify how antigen-antibody reactions are detected and quantified. Section: 17.04 Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification

5.

The property of a test to detect only a certain antibody or antigen, and not to react with any others, is A. cross-reactions. B. agglutination. C. precipitation. D. specificity. E. sensitivity. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.09 Describe the background aims of immunologic testing. Learning Outcome: 17.10 Identify how antigen-antibody reactions are detected and quantified. Topic: Identifying Microorganisms

Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification

6.

Whole antigens are detected in which type of test? A. cross-reactions B. agglutination C. precipitation D. specificity E. sensitivity ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.10 Identify how antigen-antibody reactions are detected and quantified. Learning Outcome: 17.11 Differentiate between agglutination and precipitation, and describe how they are used in diagnosis. Section: 17.04

Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification

7.

Soluble antigens are detected in which type of test? A. cross-reactions B. agglutination C. precipitation D. specificity E. sensitivity

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.10 Identify how antigen-antibody reactions are detected and quantified. Learning Outcome: 17.11 Differentiate between agglutination and precipitation, and describe how they are used in diagnosis. Section: 17.04

Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification

8.

Affixing antigen to an inert particle such as a latex bead is sometimes used in which type of test? A. cross-reactions B. agglutination C. precipitation D. specificity E. sensitivity ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.10 Identify how antigen-antibody reactions are detected and quantified. Learning Outcome: 17.11 Differentiate between agglutination and precipitation, and describe how they are used in diagnosis. Section: 17.04

Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification

9.

A serum titer involves A. serially diluting a serum sample. B. determining the lowest dilution of serum that produces a visible reaction.


C. determining the highest dilution of antigen that produces a visible reaction. D. the Western Blot method. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.09 Describe the background aims of immunologic testing. Learning Outcome: 17.14 Describe the concepts behind the main types of immunoassays, and discuss their uses in diagnosis. Section: 17.04 Section: 17.05

Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification

10.

Precipitation tests involve all of the following, except A. they rely on formation of visible clumps for detection. B. they include the VDRL test for syphilis. C. they are often performed in agar gels. D. they can be done in a test tube by carefully adding antiserum over antigen solution. E. a cloudy or opaque zone developing where antigen and antibody react. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.10 Identify how antigen-antibody reactions are detected and quantified. Learning Outcome: 17.11 Differentiate between agglutination and precipitation, and describe how they are used in diagnosis. Section: 17.04

Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification

11.

Which of the following is incorrect regarding the complement fixation test? A. First antigen and antibody are allowed to react. B. Purified complement proteins are added to the antigen-antibody tube. C. Sheep red blood cells are added to the antigen-antibody-complement mixture. D. Hemolysis of the sheep red blood cells occurs in a positive test result. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills NURSINGTB.COM Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.12 Explain how the Western blot and complement fixation tests are performed. Section: 17.04

Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification

12.

When serum proteins are separated by electrophoresis and then antibodies specific for the serum proteins are placed in a parallel trough in order to form reaction arcs for each protein, the test is called A. Ouchterlony double diffusion. B. Western Blot. C. immunelectrophoresis. D. radioimmunoassay (RIA). E. the Quellung test. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.09 Describe the background aims of immunologic testing. Learning Outcome: 17.12 Explain how the Western blot and complement fixation tests are performed. Section: 17.04

Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification

13.

Which test uses radioactive isotopes to label antibodies or antigens in order to detect minute amounts of corresponding antigen or antibody? A. Ouchterlony double diffusion B. Western Blot C. immunelectrophoresis D. radioimmunoassay (RIA) E. the Quellung test ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills


Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.09 Describe the background aims of immunologic testing. Learning Outcome: 17.14 Describe the concepts behind the main types of immunoassays, and discuss their uses in diagnosis. Section: 17.05

Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification

14.

Which test is the confirming test for people who initially tested antibody-positive in the screening ELISA test? A. Ouchterlony double diffusion B. Western Blot C. immunelectrophoresis D. radioimmunoassay (RIA) E. the Quellung test ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.09 Describe the background aims of immunologic testing. Learning Outcome: 17.12 Explain how the Western blot and complement fixation tests are performed. Section: 17.04

Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification

15.

Serotyping of the pneumococcus based on capsular polysaccharide is performed in A. Ouchterlony double diffusion. B. Western Blot. C. immunelectrophoresis. D. radioimmunoassay (RIA). E. the Quellung test. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.10 Identify how antigen-antibody reactions are detected and quantified. Section: 17.04

Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification

16.

Which of the following is not a biochemical test used to identify a pathogen? NURSINGTB.COM A. acid-fast reaction B. hydrolysis of gelatin C. coagulase production D. indole production E. carbohydrate fermentation ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.06 Explain the basis of biochemical and other methods of testing. Section: 17.02 Topic: Identifying Microorganisms

Topic: Phenotypic Methods for Identification

17.

Which of the following choices are true about the dyes fluorescein and rhodamine? A. They can be used to label antibodies in immunofluorescence tests. B. They emit visible light in response to ultraviolet radiation. C. They are observed in the fluorescent microscope. D. They are used to identify pathogens of chlamydiosis, Legionnaires'disease, and others. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if possible, phase contrast). ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.04 Describe some direct methods of testing a specimen. Learning Outcome: 17.13 Interpret the outcome of direct and indirect immunofluorescent antibody testing. Section: 17.02 Section: 17.04 Topic: Identifying Microorganisms

Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification


18.

Which technique used to diagnose a disease is also called the double diffusion method? A. Ouchterlony test B. VDRL test C. immunoelectrophoresis D. Western Blot E. ELISA ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.10 Identify how antigen-antibody reactions are detected and quantified. Learning Outcome: 17.11 Differentiate between agglutination and precipitation, and describe how they are used in diagnosis. Section: 17.04

Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification

19.

A physician orders an antistreptolysin O (ASO) titer test to check for rheumatic fever. A patient serum sample is exposed to known suspensions of streptolysin and then allowed to incubate with RBCs. If the patient does have rheumatic fever, what will happen? A. Not enough information is provided to speculate. B. The red blood cells will lyse. C. The red blood cells will agglutinate only. D. The red blood cells will not lyse. E. The red blood cells will fluoresce. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze Learning Outcome: 17.09 Describe the background aims of immunologic testing. Learning Outcome: 17.10 Identify how antigen-antibody reactions are detected and quantified. Section: 17.04

Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification

20.

Which of the following methods is categorized as a direct test in order to analyze a specimen? A. catalase test B. Gram stain C. phage typing D. antimicrobic sensitivity E. production of gas

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if possible, phase contrast). ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.04 Describe some direct methods of testing a specimen. Section: 17.02 Topic: Identifying Microorganisms

21.

Topic: Phenotypic Methods for Identification

All of the following are routine biochemical tests to aid in identifying a species, except A. motility. B. carbohydrate fermentation. C. catalase test. D. oxidase test. E. coagulase test. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.06 Explain the basis of biochemical and other methods of testing. Section: 17.02 Topic: Identifying Microorganisms

Topic: Phenotypic Methods for Identification


22.

Maggie was told she has a positive titer to measles. Which of the following could explain this? A. She was vaccinated against measles. B. She had measles sometime in her life. C. She has measles now. D. The test was a false positive. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 17.09 Describe the background aims of immunologic testing. Section: 17.04

Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification

23.

Mary had an accidental needlestick one night during her shift as an emergency medical technician. Initially, she tested positive for HIV by the ELISA test. Which test would be done next to confirm an HIV infection? A. immunoelectrophoresis B. Ouchterlony C. complement fixation D. Western Blot E. radioimmunoassay

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.09 Describe the background aims of immunologic testing. Learning Outcome: 17.10 Identify how antigen-antibody reactions are detected and quantified. Learning Outcome: 17.12 Explain how the Western blot and complement fixation tests are performed. Section: 17.04 Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification

24.

The more a sample can be diluted and yet still react with antigen, the in that sample and the is its titer. NURSINGTB.COM A. lower; lower B. higher; lower C. lower; higher D. higher; higher

the concentration of antibodies

ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 17.10 Identify how antigen-antibody reactions are detected and quantified. Section: 17.04

Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification

25.

Sputum is obtained by A. swabbing the mouth to sample saliva. B. a clean catch urine sample. C. the patient coughing up mucus from the lower respiratory system. D. a spinal tap above the chest. E. a throat swab. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.02 Explain several techniques in specimen collection and the concerns in acquiring good cultures. Section: 17.01

Topic: Culturing Microorganisms


26.

Test systems involving which of the following has greatly improved the specificity of immunological tests? A. Monoclonal antibodies B. Electronics C. Enzymes D. Radioactivity E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.09 Describe the background aims of immunologic testing. Learning Outcome: 17.10 Identify how antigen-antibody reactions are detected and quantified. Section: 17.04 Section: 17.05 Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification

27.

A rising antibody titer a few days apart indicates A. the patient had a past case of the disease. B. the patient has a current infection. C. nothing, people always have antibodies in their serum. D. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.10 Identify how antigen-antibody reactions are detected and quantified. Section: 17.04

Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification

28.

In direct antigen testing, the reaction is generally seen with the A. electron microscope. B. naked eye. C. light microscope. D. API 20E miniature identification system. E. PCR reaction. NURSINGTB.COM ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.04 Describe some direct methods of testing a specimen. Learning Outcome: 17.10 Identify how antigen-antibody reactions are detected and quantified. Section: 17.04

Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification

29.

Which test is used to measure the IgE present in allergic patients? A. fluorescent antibody tests B. Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) test C. Weil-Felix reaction D. RIST E. ELISA ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.14 Describe the concepts behind the main types of immunoassays, and discuss their uses in diagnosis. Section: 17.05

Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification

30.

The indirect ELISA test detects

in a patient's blood.

A. antigen B. antibody C. microorganisms D. IgE only E. complement ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological).


ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.10 Identify how antigen-antibody reactions are detected and quantified. Learning Outcome: 17.14 Describe the concepts behind the main types of immunoassays, and discuss their uses in diagnosis. Section: 17.05

31.

Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification

All of the following are correct about the indirect ELISA, except A. it can detect antibodies in a serum sample. B. it is the common screening test for antibodies to Helicobacter. C. color development indicates that antibody was not present in the patient's serum. D. it is the common screening test for antibodies to Hepatitis A. E. a known antigen is adsorbed to the surface of a well. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.10 Identify how antigen-antibody reactions are detected and quantified. Learning Outcome: 17.14 Describe the concepts behind the main types of immunoassays, and discuss their uses in diagnosis. Section: 17.05

Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification

32.

The Widal test is used for diagnosing salmonellosis. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.10 Identify how antigen-antibody reactions are detected and quantified. Section: 17.04

Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification

33.

When antibodies or other substances in serum cross-react with the test reagents, a false positive result can occur. TRUE NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.10 Identify how antigen-antibody reactions are detected and quantified. Section: 17.04

Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification

34.

Serological testing always involves reactions between specific antibody and antigen. TRUE ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.10 Identify how antigen-antibody reactions are detected and quantified. Section: 17.04

Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification

35.

ELISA tests use a fluorescent dye as a label to trace antigen-antibody reactions. FALSE ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.10 Identify how antigen-antibody reactions are detected and quantified. Learning Outcome: 17.14 Describe the concepts behind the main types of immunoassays, and discuss their uses in diagnosis. Section: 17.05

Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification

36.

Serological tests should have low sensitivity and specificity. FALSE ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand


Learning Outcome: 17.10 Identify how antigen-antibody reactions are detected and quantified. Section: 17.04

37.

The tuberculin test is an example of an in vivo serological test. TRUE

Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.15 Explain how in vivo testing differs from in vitro testing. Section: 17.05

Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification

38.

Some diseases are diagnosed without the need to identify microbes from a patient specimen. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.01 Describe what is involved in the main categories of laboratory identification of infectious agents.

Learning Outcome: 17.09 Describe the background aims of immunologic testing. Section: 17.01

Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification Topic: Phenotypic Methods for Identification

39.

Broad general characteristics of bacteria on flowcharts can be misleading for a diagnosis of disease. TRUE ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.07 Describe how flowcharts and comparison tables are used in identification of bacterial pathogens. Section: 17.02

Topic: Identifying Microorganisms

40.

An antibody

provides a measure of the quantity of antibodies in the serum.

titer NURSINGTB.COM ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods.

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.10 Identify how antigen-antibody reactions are detected and quantified. Section: 17.04 Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification

41.

In indirect fluorescent testing, fluorescent antibody.

are used to react with the Fc region of another, specific, serum

antibody ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods.

ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.13 Interpret the outcome of direct and indirect immunofluorescent antibody testing.

Section: 17.05 Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification

42.

Horseradish peroxidase and alkaline phosphatase are enzymes used in

tests.

ELISA ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.10 Identify how antigen-antibody reactions are detected and quantified. Learning Outcome: 17.14 Describe the concepts behind the main types of immunoassays, and discuss their uses in diagnosis. Section: 17.05

Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification

43.

In tests, antibody cross-links whole-cell antigens, forming complexes that settle out and form visible clumps in the test chamber. agglutination


ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.11 Differentiate between agglutination and precipitation, and describe how they are used in diagnosis. Section: 17.04

Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification

44.

When collecting

, a "clean catch" method is often used.

urine ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if possible, phase contrast). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.02 Explain several techniques in specimen collection and the concerns in acquiring good cultures. Section: 17.01

Topic: Culturing Microorganisms

45.

In a

, antigens or antibodies are labeled with radioactive isotopes and traced.

radioimmunoassay ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.14 Describe the concepts behind the main types of immunoassays, and discuss their uses in diagnosis. Section: 17.05

Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification

46.

Describe the indirect ELISA test that is used as a screening test for HIV (AIDS) and include the following: a) sequence of procedures, b) reagents used, and c) detection and interpretation of a positive test. ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 17.10 Identify how antigen-antibody reactions are detected and quantified. Learning Outcome: 17.14 Describe the concepts behind the main types of immunoassays, and discuss their uses in diagnosis. Section: 17.05

Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification

47.

Compare and contrast agglutination and prNeU ciR piStaIN tioGnTrBe.aCcOtiM ons, and include a description of one test for each type of reaction. ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 17.11 Differentiate between agglutination and precipitation, and describe how they are used in diagnosis. Section: 17.04

Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification

48.

Describe three possible sampling sites and methods of collection for clinical laboratories. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 17.01 Describe what is involved in the main categories of laboratory identification of infectious agents. Learning Outcome: 17.02 Explain several techniques in specimen collection and the concerns in acquiring good cultures. Section: 17.01

Topic: Culturing Microorganisms

49.

Why do many physicians feel that stool cultures are not necessary, except in certain circumstances when diagnosing GI tract infections?

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze Learning Outcome: 17.02 Explain several techniques in specimen collection and the concerns in acquiring good cultures. Section: 17.01 Section: 17.02

Topic: Culturing Microorganisms

50.

Identify, describe, and discuss the objectives of the three main categories of identifying infectious agents using specific examples. ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 17.01 Describe what is involved in the main categories of laboratory identification of infectious agents.


Learning Outcome: 17.06 Explain the basis of biochemical and other methods of testing.

Learning Outcome: 17.08 Explain the different variations on genetic testing and how they can be used in identification and diagnosis. Learning Outcome: 17.09 Describe the background aims of immunologic testing. Section: 17.01 Section: 17.02 Section: 17.03 Section: 17.04 Topic: Identifying Microorganisms

51.

Culture of patient specimens to detect pathogens is usually done on blood agar plates only. FALSE ASM Objective: 08.02 Use pure culture and selective techniques to enrich for and isolate microorganisms. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 17.03 Summarize the main procedures in isolation, cultivation, and identification of pathogens.

Learning Outcome: 17.05 Summarize the aims in selection of culture techniques and media. Section: 17.01

Topic: Culturing Microorganisms

52.

Biochemical testing used for identification of pathogens involves each of the following, except A. inoculation of additional media, incubation, and observation for a color change. B. quick tests that take just a few seconds. C. examining organisms through the microscope. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.03 Summarize the main procedures in isolation, cultivation, and identification of pathogens. Learning Outcome: 17.06 Explain the basis of biochemical and other methods of testing. Section: 17.02

Topic: Identifying Microorganisms

53.

If trying to isolate a specific pathogen from amongst a variety of normal microbiota, which type of media would be most helpful? A. nutrient agar B. differential media C. blood agar D. selective and differential agar

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ASM Objective: 01.02 Mutations and horizontal gene transfer, with the immense variety of microenvironments, have selected for a huge diversity of microorganisms. ASM Objective: 08.02 Use pure culture and selective techniques to enrich for and isolate microorganisms. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 17.05 Summarize the aims in selection of culture techniques and media. Section: 17.02

Topic: Culturing Microorganisms Topic: Identifying Microorganisms

54.

Allergy testing, which is accomplished by injecting tiny amounts of allergen into the skin and examining the injection site for a reaction, is an example of an in vitro test. FALSE ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 17.15 Explain how in vivo testing differs from in vitro testing. Section: 17.05

Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification

55.

Tests that take place in the lab, such as in a test tube or Petri-dish, outside of a living host, are referred to as whereas tests that take place in a living host, such as in a patient, are described as .

A. In loco; In vitro B. In vitro; In loco C. In vitro; In vivo D. In loco; In vivo ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 07 Scientific Thinking Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand


Learning Outcome: 17.15 Explain how in vivo testing differs from in vitro testing.

Section: 17.05 Topic: Identifying Microorganisms

56.

Which of the following can be used for the cultivation of viruses? A. Enriched broth media B. Viral host cells grown in vitro C. Enriched agar media D. All of these choices. ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 17.16 Summarize the protocols in identifying the causative agent in a viral infection. Section: 17.06

Topic: Culturing Microorganisms

57.

Select the methods below that can be used for identifying the causative agent of a viral infection. Check all that apply. A. cultivation of the virus from patient samples in cell/tissue cultures B. detection of antibodies to the virus in a patient's serum C. observation of the patient's symptoms D. gram stain of patient specimens E. amplification and detection of viral nucleic acid in patient specimens F. culture of virus from patient specimens in enriched agar and broth media G. direct observation of viral-infected cells using fluorescent-antibody staining ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 17.16 Summarize the protocols in identifying the causative agent in a viral infection. Section: 17.06 Topic: Identifying Microorganisms

58.

Pulsed-field gel electrophoresis (PFGE) is often used to determine whether bacterial isolates from different UR cases of food-borne illness are the same aN nd caSnINbGeTtB ra.C ceOdMto the same source. This is an example of A. an immunologic technique. B. a genetic method. C. a phenotypic method. D. a microscopic technique. ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.08 Explain the different variations on genetic testing and how they can be used in identification and diagnosis. Section: 17.03

Topic: Genetic Analyses

59.

Minute amounts of a pathogen in a patient sample can be rapidly detected by specifically amplifying and identifying its nucleic acid using PCR. This is an example of A. an immunologic method. B. a microscopic method. C. a phenotypic method. D. a genetic method. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.08 Explain the different variations on genetic testing and how they can be used in identification and diagnosis. Section: 17.03 Topic: Genetic Analyses

Topic: Identifying Microorganisms


Chapter 17 Testbank Summary Category

# of Questions

ASM Objective: 01.02 Mutations and horizontal gene transfer, with the immense variety of microenvironments, have selected for a huge diversity of microorganisms.

1

ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells.

1

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in benefi cial, neutral or detrimental ways.

8

ASM Objective: 07.01b Ability to apply the process of science: Analyze and interpret results from a variety of microbi ological methods and apply these methods to analogous situations.

1

ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if po ssible, phase contrast).

3

ASM Objective: 08.02 Use pure culture and selective techniques to enrich for and isolate microorganisms.

2

ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (mediabased, molecular and serological).

44

ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods.

13

ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow

1

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems

33

ASM Topic: Module 07 Scientific Thinking

1

ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills

54

Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

14

Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand

31

Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply

11

Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze

3

Learning Outcome: 17.01 Describe what is involved in the main categories of laboratory identification of infectious ag ents. Learning Outcome: 17.02 Explain several techniques in sNpU ecRim le.cCtiO onMand the concerns in acquiring good cultu SIeNnGcoTlB res. Learning Outcome: 17.03 Summarize the main procedures in isolation, cultivation, and identification of pathogens.

6

Learning Outcome: 17.04 Describe some direct methods of testing a specimen.

4

Learning Outcome: 17.05 Summarize the aims in selection of culture techniques and media.

2

Learning Outcome: 17.06 Explain the basis of biochemical and other methods of testing.

5

Learning Outcome: 17.07 Describe how flowcharts and comparison tables are used in identification of bacterial patho gens.

2

Learning Outcome: 17.08 Explain the different variations on genetic testing and how they can be used in identificatio n and diagnosis.

4

Learning Outcome: 17.09 Describe the background aims of immunologic testing.

13

Learning Outcome: 17.10 Identify how antigen-antibody reactions are detected and quantified.

24

Learning Outcome: 17.11 Differentiate between agglutination and precipitation, and describe how they are used in di agnosis.

7

Learning Outcome: 17.12 Explain how the Western blot and complement fixation tests are performed.

4

Learning Outcome: 17.13 Interpret the outcome of direct and indirect immunofluorescent antibody testing.

2

Learning Outcome: 17.14 Describe the concepts behind the main types of immunoassays, and discuss their uses in diagnosis.

9

Learning Outcome: 17.15 Explain how in vivo testing differs from in vitro testing.

3

Learning Outcome: 17.16 Summarize the protocols in identifying the causative agent in a viral infection.

3

4 2

Section: 17.01

8

Section: 17.02

10

Section: 17.03

4

Section: 17.04

28

Section: 17.05

15

Section: 17.06

3

Topic: Culturing Microorganisms

7


Topic: Genetic Analyses

2

Topic: Identifying Microorganisms

14

Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification Topic: Phenotypic Methods for Identification

41 5


Chapter 18 Testbank Student:

1.

A common food intoxication is caused by enterotoxin-producing strains of A. Staphylococcus aureus. B. Staphylococcus epidermidis. C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus. D. Streptococcus pyogenes. E. Streptococcus agalactiae.

2.

All species of Staphylococcus A. produce catalase. B. are motile. C. have endospores. D. produce coagulase. E. All of these choices are correct.

3.

The enzyme that coagulates plasma is A. catalase. B. coagulase. C. hyaluronidase. D. staphylokinase. E. Dnase.

4.

The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus strains that causes blisters and desquamation of skin in scalded skin syndrome is A. enterotoxin. B. hemolysin. C. toxic shock syndrome toxin. D. exfoliative toxin. E. erythrogenic toxin.

5.

NURSINGTB.COM

The bright red rash and fever of scarlet fever is due to A. enterotoxins. B. hemolysins. C. toxic shock syndrome toxin. D. exfoliative toxin. E. erythrogenic toxin.

6.

Scarlet fever is caused by strains of A. Staphylococcus aureus. B. Staphylococcus epidermidis. C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus. D. Streptococcus pyogenes. E. Streptococcus agalactiae.

7.

Which pathogen is the most common cause of neonatal pneumonia, sepsis, and meningitis in the United States?

A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Staphylococcus epidermidis C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus D. Streptococcus pyogenes E. Streptococcus agalactiae 8.

Which organism is associated with commonly causing urinary tract infections in sexually active young adult and adolescent females?


A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Staphylococcus epidermidis C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus D. Streptococcus pyogenes E. Streptococcus agalactiae 9.

Which pathogen has drug-resistant strains called MRSA?

A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Staphylococcus epidermidis C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus D. Streptococcus pyogenes E. Streptococcus agalactiae 10. The most common site where carriers of Staphylococcus aureus carry this pathogen is A. all over the skin. B. under the fingernails. C. anterior nares (nostrils). D. mouth. E. intestines.

11. Infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus include all of the following, except A. folliculitis. B. furuncles and carbuncles. C. sore throat. D. osteomyelitis. E. pneumonia. 12. Which is incorrect about Staphylococcus aureus food intoxication? A. Food becomes contaminated by a human cNaU rrR ieSr.INGTB.COM B. Common associated foods include custards, ham, cream pastries, processed meats. C. After contamination, food must be left unrefrigerated for a few hours. D. Ingestion of the pathogen allows it to multiply and damage the GI tract lining. E. Symptoms come on quickly, and include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea.

13. All the following pertain to Staphylococcus epidermidis infections, except A. they often develop from an endogenous source. B. they typically occur after insertion of shunts and prosthetic devices. C. catheterization can introduce the organism and lead to urinary tract infection. D. the organism is coagulase negative. E. the organism produces a large number of tissue damaging enzymes and toxins.

14. Symptoms of Toxic Shock Syndrome include all the following, except A. fever and muscle pain. B. appearance of flesh being "eaten" down to the muscle. C. nausea, vomiting and diarrhea. D. sunburn-like rash. E. kidney and liver failure. 15. Staphylococci can be differentiated from streptococci by the A. Gram stain. B. coagulase test. C. catalase test. D. fermentation of mannitol. 16. Rebecca Lancefield differentiated streptococci on the basis of differences in their


A. cell wall carbohydrates in a serological test. B. patterns of hemolysis on blood agar. C. ability to produce catalase. D. Gram stain appearance. E. All of these choices are correct.

17. The M protein of Streptococcus pyogenes A. is the basis for the organism belonging to Lancefield Group A. B. gives rise to a zone of beta hemolysis on blood agar. C. protects against phagocytosis and enhances adherence. D. is also called streptokinase. E. protects against lysozyme damage.

18. Streptococcus pyogenes causes all the following, except A. necrotizing fasciitis. B. erysipelas. C. impetigo. D. scarlet fever. E. scalded skin syndrome.

19. Streptococcal pharyngitis involves all the following, except A. a purulent exudate over the tonsils. B. can lead to scarlet fever if it is an erythrogenic toxin-producing strain. C. can lead to serious sequelae. D. is usually caused by the viridans streptococci. E. causes redness, difficulty in swallowing, and fever. 20. Scarlet fever involves A. high fever. B. bright red rash on face, trunk, inner arms an eS gIsN ,G anTdBt.C onOgM ue. NdUlR C. eventual desquamation of epidermis. D. septicemia as a complication. E. All of these choices are correct. 21. Necrotizing fasciitis is A. also called impetigo. B. possibly caused by antibodies to Group A streptococci that cross-react with body tissues. C. associated with strains of Streptococcus pyogenes producing destructive enzymes and toxins. D. typically a sequelae of streptococcal pharyngitis. E. not treatable with antimicrobic drugs. 22. The Group A streptococcal infection that has symptoms of fever, edema of skin near portal of entry, and an elevated red, hot vesicular lesion is A. erysipelas. B. impetigo. C. necrotizing fasciitis. D. scarlet fever.

23. Long-term sequelae of Group A streptococcal infections include all the following, except A. risk decreased with prompt treatment of skin infections and pharyngitis. B. development of rheumatic fever. C. appearance of sequelae within a few weeks after an initial infection. D. transmission of sequelae via respiratory secretions from a patient with streptococcal sore throat. E. development of acute glomerulonephritis.

24. All of the following pertain to Enterococcus faecalis, except


A. normal flora of the human large intestine. B. increasingly resistant to many antimicrobics. C. cause nosocomial wound infections, urinary tract infections, and septicemias. D. can cause endocarditis. E. belong to Lancefield Group B streptococci. 25. The viridans streptococci are A. not entirely groupable by Lancefield serology. B. the most numerous residents of the oral cavity. C. opportunists that can cause subacute endocarditis. D. introduced to deeper body tissues by dental or surgical procedures. E. All of these choices are correct.

26. All of the following are associated with subacute endocarditis, except A. it occurs in patients that have prior heart damage. B. it is caused by immune system autoantibodies that attack heart and valve tissue. C. oral bacteria get introduced by dental procedures to the blood. D. bacteria colonize previously damaged heart tissue resulting in vegetation. E. signs and symptoms include fever, heart murmur, and possible emboli. 27. Streptococcus pneumoniae is A. called the meningococcus. B. in the viridans group. C. a gram-positive diplococcus with a capsule. D. a pathogen with endotoxin. E. All of these choices are correct. 28. Disease/s caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae include A. otitis media. B. meningitis. C. lobar pneumonia. D. bronchial pneumonia. E. All of these choices are correct.

NURSINGTB.COM

29. People at greatest risk for pneumococcal infections include all the following, except A. elderly. B. those with underlying lung disease and viral infections. C. patients without a spleen. D. adolescents and young adults. E. young infants. 30. Meningococcemia is A. common during gonorrhea. B. associated with vascular hemorrhage and petechiae. C. frequently seen in elderly. D. caused by a gram-positive diplococcus. E. All of these choices are correct. 31. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is A. the cause of ophthalmia neonatorum. B. the cause of gonorrhea. C. called the gonococcus. D. virulent due to fimbriae and a protease that inactivates IgA. E. All of these choices are correct.

32. All of the following pertain to gonorrhea, except


A. a chancre-type lesion develops at the portal of entry. B. it is a reportable infectious disease. C. pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) and infertility are complications. D. female infections are frequently asymptomatic. E. symptoms include painful urination and discharge.

33. All of the following pertain to Neisseria meningitidis, except A. virulence factors include a capsule, pili, endotoxin, and IgA protease. B. it causes serious meningitis. C. the reservoir is the nasopharynx of human carriers. D. it is more easily transmitted in day-care facilities, dorms, and military barracks. E. it is a common cause of bacterial pneumonia. 34. The instillation of antibiotics in newborn's eyes will prevent ophthalmia neonatorum in newborns. This disease is caused by A. Neisseria meningitidis. B. Staphylococcus aureus. C. Streptococcus pyogenes. D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae. E. Branhamella (Moraxella) catarrhalis. 35. A positive Quellung reaction, or capsular swelling, is confirmatory for A. Neisseria meningitidis. B. Staphylococcus aureus. C. Streptococcus pyogenes. D. Branhamella (Moraxella) catarrhalis. E. Streptococcus pneumoniae. 36. Most cases of otitis media in children are due to infection with A. Streptococcus pneumoniae. B. Streptococcus pyogenes. C. Branhamella (Moraxella) catarrhalis. D. Streptococcus agalactiae. E. Staphylococcus saprophyticus.

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37. Which chemical produced by S. aureus is also known as "spreading factor"? A. coagulase B. penicillinase C. hemolysin D. hyaluronidase E. toxic shock syndrome toxin 38. Which chemical, produced by S. aureus, digests blood clots? A. coagulase B. penicillinase C. staphylokinase D. hyaluronidase E. toxic shock syndrome toxin 39. A patient has a suspicious skin infection and a culture is taken. Which media would be appropriate to select for staphylococci? A. Nutrient agar B. Blood agar C. Chocolate agar D. macConkey agar E. Mannitol salt agar


40. A pregnant woman is told she has a positive CAMP test and should be treated with a course of antibiotics. This test is indicative of A. Group A streptococci. B. Group B streptococci. C. S. saprophyticus. D. S. epidermidis. E. S. aureus. 41. All of the following are correct about Streptococcus pyogenes, except A. humans are the only significant reservoir. B. some of the streptococcal toxins act as superantigens. C. most strains do not have a capsule. D. it can cause impetigo and erysipelas. E. infection is generally through direct contact. 42. All of the following are correct about Staphylococcus aureus, except A. it is the coagulase-positive species. B. the body's most powerful defense against it lies in the T-cell response. C. carriers may be treated with antibiotics to clear them of the bacteria. D. most strains are resistant to penicillin and ampicillin. E. it causes furuncles, carbuncles, and abscesses. 43. Sue brought her daughter Amy to the pediatrician complaining of a sore throat. The physician examines Amy and observes that her throat is bright red and there are white pus-filled nodules on her tonsils. Which of the following conclusions should be made? A. She has a strep throat and should begin antibiotics. B. She should have a rapid strep test performed before a diagnosis is made. C. She should go home and rest because most sore throats are viral in origin. D. She should go home and come back in two days for a strep test since it may take that long to show up. E. She has a staphylococcal sore throat and sN hU ouRld tibMiotics immediately. SIbNeGgTinBa.CnO 44. If left untreated, an infection with

can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease and infertility.

A. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. Neisseria meningitidis C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae D. Streptococcus pyogenes E. Staphylococcus aureus 45. Which of the following antibiotics specifically disrupt protein synthesis of streptococci? A. β-lactams B. macrolides C. cephalosporins D. ansamycin plural E. aminoglycosides 46. Local Staphylococcus aureus infections often involve formation of an abscess. True False 47. Streptokinase causes the symptoms of scarlet fever. True False 48. It is theorized that rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis could be the result of antibodies to Group A streptococci that cross-react with patient tissues. True False


49. Most strains of Streptococcus pyogenes produce penicillinase. True False 50. Pneumovax is a vaccine for prevention of disease caused by strains of Neisseria meningitidis. True False 51. Impetigo involves itching papules that break and form a very contagious yellow crust. True False 52. Neisseria meningitidis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae are fastidious, gram-negative cocci that produce oxidase. True False 53. An individual with asymptomatic N. gonorrhoeae may not spread the disease. True False 54. All staphylococci can be differentiated from all streptococci because only staphylococci produce the enzyme that is easily detected in the lab. 55. The two important hemolysins of Group A streptococci are

and

56. The viridans group of streptococci and the pneumococcus produce 57. The production of the enzyme other species of Staphylococcus.

. hemolysis on blood agar.

by Staphylococcus aureus is a key characteristic used to identify it from NU_ RSINGTB.COM

58. Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, and Neisseria tend to stimulate pus production and are collectively referred to as cocci. 59. Streptococcus agalactiae is known as Group

streptococci.

60. List three enzymes and four toxins produced by Staphylococcus aureus. For each enzyme and toxin, discuss its effect on patient tissues and how it contributes to virulence of this pathogen. 61. Discuss how normal flora Staphylococcus epidermidis can cause disease in the body, and describe the diseases that it causes. 62. Discuss in detail why strep sore throat must be diagnosed and treated rapidly. 63. Explain what is meant by MRSA, why it is a particular concern to hospitals, and what action hospitals are taking to prevent MRSA spread. 64. Describe the transmission of the meningococcus, and discuss the pathogenesis of meningococcal disease in the body including associated signs and symptoms. 65. In which of the following situations would Staphylococcus epidermidis be the most likely etiologic agent? A. otitis media B. food intoxication C. urinary bladder infection D. infected IV catheter site E. conjunctivitis


66. A 48-year old man has had nasal surgery and absorbent material has been inserted into his nasal cavity to control bleeding. Several hours ago he began to complain of a headache and has since developed a red rash over much of his body and is experiencing muscle cramps and diarrhea. His blood pressure has dropped to 75/50 mg Hg. This patient’s illness is most likely caused by A. Staphylococcus aureus —exfoliative toxin B. Streptococcus pyogenes —streptolysin O C. Staphylococcus aureus —toxic shock syndrome toxin D. Streptococcus pyogenes — erythrogenic toxin 67. Having received no prenatal care, a young woman arrives at a hospital after many hours of labor and delivers a baby girl. Three days later the baby girl is listless, nursing poorly, and is running a fever. Blood cultures are done, and after 24 hours, they are Gram stained and show the presence of gram-positive cocci in pairs and short chains. Upon subculture, these form colonies that are beta hemolytic on blood agar. Further tests demonstrate that the isolate is catalase negative, resistant to bacitracin, and is CAMP test positive. What is the identification of this organism?

A. Streptococcus pyogenes B. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Streptococcus agalactiae D. Staphylococcus aureus E. Neisseria meningitidis 68. Which of the following organisms would look most similar to Neisseria meningitidis on a Gram stained smear?

A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Branhamella catarrhalis C. Streptococcus agalactiae D. Streptococcus pneumoniae

NURSINGTB.COM 69. Acinetobacter baumanii has become a high-profile opportunistic pathogen, causing wound infections, urinary tract infections, pneumonia and septicemia. What is the reason for its high-profile nature? A. A. baumanii has a very low infective dose and nearly everyone that contacts it gets a very serious infection. B. A. baumanii produces an exotoxin that causes servere diarrhea. C. A. baumanii is very fastidious and is difficult to culture in the laboratory. D. Many strains of A. baumanii are highly resistant to antibiotics. 70. An 8-month old infant has been brought to the ER with a high fever. Her parents indicate that she has not been eating or drinking well and has been very irritable until the last few hours during which she has been only minimally responsive. Suspecting meningitis, a spinal tap is done and the CSF sample is sent to the lab for analysis. The white blood cell count on the sample is profoundly elevated, the protein content is elevated, and the glucose level is depressed. The Gram stained smear shows gram-positive cocci in pairs. Cultures are done and after overnight incubation, alpha hemolytic colonies are observed on the blood plate. These colonies contain gram-positive cocci, which are catalase negative. An optochin susceptibility test is done and there is a large zone of inhibition around the disk. What is the identification of this isolate?

A. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. viridans Streptococci C. Enterococcus faecalis D. Neisseria meningitidis E. Streptococcus agalactiae


Chapter 18 Testbank Key 1.

A common food intoxication is caused by enterotoxin-producing strains of A. Staphylococcus aureus. B. Staphylococcus epidermidis. C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus. D. Streptococcus pyogenes. E. Streptococcus agalactiae.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.03 Name the enzymes and toxins found in S. aureus, and explain their role in increasing the virulence of the species. Learning Outcome: 18.04 Summarize the cutaneous, systemic, and toxigenic diseases caused by infection with S. aureus, along with how the body defends against infection. Section: 18.01 Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Gram-Positive Staphylococci

2.

All species of Staphylococcus A. produce catalase. B. are motile. C. have endospores. D. produce coagulase. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways NURSINGTB.COM ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.05 Differentiate between staphylococcal species in the laboratory through the examination of physiological and biochemical traits. Section: 18.01 Topic: Gram-Positive Staphylococci

Topic: Identifying Microorganisms

3.

The enzyme that coagulates plasma is A. catalase. B. coagulase. C. hyaluronidase. D. staphylokinase. E. Dnase.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.03 Name the enzymes and toxins found in S. aureus, and explain their role in increasing the virulence of the species. Section: 18.01 Topic: Gram-Positive Staphylococci

Topic: Identifying Microorganisms

4.

The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus strains that causes blisters and desquamation of skin in scalded skin syndrome is A. enterotoxin. B. hemolysin. C. toxic shock syndrome toxin. D. exfoliative toxin. E. erythrogenic toxin.


ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.03 Name the enzymes and toxins found in S. aureus, and explain their role in increasing the virulence of the species. Learning Outcome: 18.04 Summarize the cutaneous, systemic, and toxigenic diseases caused by infection with S. aureus, along with how the body defends against infection. Section: 18.01 Topic: Gram-Positive Staphylococci Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections

5.

The bright red rash and fever of scarlet fever is due to A. enterotoxins. B. hemolysins. C. toxic shock syndrome toxin. D. exfoliative toxin. E. erythrogenic toxin.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.08 Summarize the virulence factors of S. pyogenes, as well as the diseases and long-term complications associated with S.

pyogenes infection. Section: 18.02

Topic: Gram-Positive Streptococci Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections

6.

Scarlet fever is caused by strains of A. Staphylococcus aureus. B. Staphylococcus epidermidis. C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus. D. Streptococcus pyogenes. E. Streptococcus agalactiae.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.08 Summarize the virulence factors of S. pyogenes, as well as the diseases and long-term complications associated with S.

NURSINGTB.COM 7.

pyogenes infection. Section: 18.02 Topic: Gram-Positive Streptococci Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections

Which pathogen is the most common cause of neonatal pneumonia, sepsis, and meningitis in the United States?

A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Staphylococcus epidermidis C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus D. Streptococcus pyogenes E. Streptococcus agalactiae ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.07 Name the most important human pathogens in the genus Streptococcus. Learning Outcome: 18.09 Recall the epidemiology and pathogenesis of the streptococcal species most often associated with human disease and how these groups are separated in the laboratory. Section: 18.02 Topic: Gram-Positive Streptococci Topic: Nervous System Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

8.

Which organism is associated with commonly causing urinary tract infections in sexually active young adult and adolescent females?

A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Staphylococcus epidermidis C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus D. Streptococcus pyogenes E. Streptococcus agalactiae ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems


Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.01 Name the five most important human pathogens in the genus Staphylococcus. Section: 18.01 Topic: Gram-Positive Staphylococci

Topic: Urogenital System Infections

9.

Which pathogen has drug-resistant strains called MRSA? A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Staphylococcus epidermidis C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus D. Streptococcus pyogenes E. Streptococcus agalactiae

ASM Objective: 01.03 Human impact on the environment influences the evolution of microorganisms (e.g., emerging diseases and the selection of antibiotic resistance). ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.06 Explain strategies used to prevent and treat staphylococcal infections, and how infection with drug-resistant strains of Staphylococcus affects these strategies. Section: 18.01 Topic: Gram-Positive Staphylococci

10.

The most common site where carriers of Staphylococcus aureus carry this pathogen is A. all over the skin. B. under the fingernails. C. anterior nares (nostrils). D. mouth. E. intestines.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.02 Describe the ability of S. aureus to withstand extremes of salt, pH, temperature, and desiccation, and how these abilities contribute to pathogenicity. Learning Outcome: 18.04 Summarize the cutaneous, systemic, and toxigenic diseases caused by infection with S. aureus, along with how the body defends against infection. Section: 18.01 NURSINGTB.COM Topic: Gram-Positive Staphylococci

11.

Infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus include all of the following, except A. folliculitis. B. furuncles and carbuncles. C. sore throat. D. osteomyelitis. E. pneumonia.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.04 Summarize the cutaneous, systemic, and toxigenic diseases caused by infection with S. aureus, along with how the body defends against infection. Section: 18.01

Topic: Gram-Positive Staphylococci

12.

Which is incorrect about Staphylococcus aureus food intoxication? A. Food becomes contaminated by a human carrier. B. Common associated foods include custards, ham, cream pastries, processed meats. C. After contamination, food must be left unrefrigerated for a few hours. D. Ingestion of the pathogen allows it to multiply and damage the GI tract lining. E. Symptoms come on quickly, and include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.04 Summarize the cutaneous, systemic, and toxigenic diseases caused by infection with S. aureus, along with how the body defends against infection. Section: 18.01 Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Gram-Positive Staphylococci

13.

All the following pertain to Staphylococcus epidermidis infections, except


A. they often develop from an endogenous source. B. they typically occur after insertion of shunts and prosthetic devices. C. catheterization can introduce the organism and lead to urinary tract infection. D. the organism is coagulase negative. E. the organism produces a large number of tissue damaging enzymes and toxins. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.01 Name the five most important human pathogens in the genus Staphylococcus. Section: 18.01

14.

Topic: Gram-Positive Staphylococci

Symptoms of Toxic Shock Syndrome include all the following, except A. fever and muscle pain. B. appearance of flesh being "eaten" down to the muscle. C. nausea, vomiting and diarrhea. D. sunburn-like rash. E. kidney and liver failure.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.03 Name the enzymes and toxins found in S. aureus, and explain their role in increasing the virulence of the species. Learning Outcome: 18.04 Summarize the cutaneous, systemic, and toxigenic diseases caused by infection with S. aureus, along with how the body defends against infection. Section: 18.01 Topic: Gram-Positive Staphylococci

Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

15.

Staphylococci can be differentiated from streptococci by the A. Gram stain. B. coagulase test. C. catalase test. D. fermentation of mannitol. NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.05 Differentiate between staphylococcal species in the laboratory through the examination of physiological and biochemical traits. Learning Outcome: 18.07 Name the most important human pathogens in the genus Streptococcus. Section: 18.01 Section: 18.02

Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Gram-Positive Staphylococci Topic: Gram-Positive Streptococci Topic: Phenotypic Methods for Identification

16.

Rebecca Lancefield differentiated streptococci on the basis of differences in their A. cell wall carbohydrates in a serological test. B. patterns of hemolysis on blood agar. C. ability to produce catalase. D. Gram stain appearance. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage infection. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.07 Name the most important human pathogens in the genus Streptococcus. Learning Outcome: 18.09 Recall the epidemiology and pathogenesis of the streptococcal species most often associated with human disease and how these groups are separated in the laboratory. Section: 18.02 Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Gram-Positive Streptococci Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification Topic: Phenotypic Methods for Identification

17.

The M protein of Streptococcus pyogenes


A. is the basis for the organism belonging to Lancefield Group A. B. gives rise to a zone of beta hemolysis on blood agar. C. protects against phagocytosis and enhances adherence. D. is also called streptokinase. E. protects against lysozyme damage. ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage infection.

ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.08 Summarize the virulence factors of S. pyogenes, as well as the diseases and long-term complications associated with S.

pyogenes infection. Section: 18.02

18.

Topic: Gram-Positive Streptococci

Streptococcus pyogenes causes all the following, except A. necrotizing fasciitis. B. erysipelas. C. impetigo. D. scarlet fever. E. scalded skin syndrome.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.08 Summarize the virulence factors of S. pyogenes, as well as the diseases and long-term complications associated with S.

pyogenes infection. Section: 18.02

19.

Topic: Gram-Positive Streptococci Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

Streptococcal pharyngitis involves all the following, except A. a purulent exudate over the tonsils. CrO B. can lead to scarlet fever if it is an erythrNoU geRnSiIcNtG oxTiB n -.p oM ducing strain. C. can lead to serious sequelae. D. is usually caused by the viridans streptococci. E. causes redness, difficulty in swallowing, and fever.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.07 Name the most important human pathogens in the genus Streptococcus. Learning Outcome: 18.08 Summarize the virulence factors of S. pyogenes, as well as the diseases and long-term complications associated with S.

pyogenes infection. Learning Outcome: 18.09 Recall the epidemiology and pathogenesis of the streptococcal species most often associated with human disease and how these groups are separated in the laboratory. Section: 18.02 Topic: Gram-Positive Streptococci Topic: Respiratory System Infections

20.

Scarlet fever involves A. high fever. B. bright red rash on face, trunk, inner arms and legs, and tongue. C. eventual desquamation of epidermis. D. septicemia as a complication. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.08 Summarize the virulence factors of S. pyogenes, as well as the diseases and long-term complications associated with S.

pyogenes infection. Learning Outcome: 18.09 Recall the epidemiology and pathogenesis of the streptococcal species most often associated with human disease and how these groups are separated in the laboratory. Section: 18.02 Topic: Gram-Positive Streptococci Topic: Respiratory System Infections Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections


Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

21.

Necrotizing fasciitis is A. also called impetigo. B. possibly caused by antibodies to Group A streptococci that cross-react with body tissues. C. associated with strains of Streptococcus pyogenes producing destructive enzymes and toxins. D. typically a sequelae of streptococcal pharyngitis. E. not treatable with antimicrobic drugs.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.08 Summarize the virulence factors of S. pyogenes, as well as the diseases and long-term complications associated with S.

pyogenes infection. Learning Outcome: 18.09 Recall the epidemiology and pathogenesis of the streptococcal species most often associated with human disease and how these groups are separated in the laboratory. Section: 18.02 Topic: Gram-Positive Streptococci Topic: Muscular System Infections Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections

22.

The Group A streptococcal infection that has symptoms of fever, edema of skin near portal of entry, and an elevated red, hot vesicular lesion is A. erysipelas. B. impetigo. C. necrotizing fasciitis. D. scarlet fever.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.08 Summarize the virulence factors of S. pyogenes, as well as the diseases and long-term complications associated with S.

pyogenes infection. Learning Outcome: 18.09 Recall the epidemiology and pathogenesis of the streptococcal species most often associated with human disease and how these groups are separated in the laboratory. Section: 18.02 Topic: Gram-Positive Streptococci Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections NURSINGTB.COM

23.

Long-term sequelae of Group A streptococcal infections include all the following, except

A. risk decreased with prompt treatment of skin infections and pharyngitis. B. development of rheumatic fever. C. appearance of sequelae within a few weeks after an initial infection. D. transmission of sequelae via respiratory secretions from a patient with streptococcal sore throat. E. development of acute glomerulonephritis. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.08 Summarize the virulence factors of S. pyogenes, as well as the diseases and long-term complications associated with S.

24.

pyogenes infection. Learning Outcome: 18.09 Recall the epidemiology and pathogenesis of the streptococcal species most often associated with human disease and how these groups are separated in the laboratory. Section: 18.02 Topic: Gram-Positive Streptococci Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Urogenital System Infections

All of the following pertain to Enterococcus faecalis, except

A. normal flora of the human large intestine. B. increasingly resistant to many antimicrobics. C. cause nosocomial wound infections, urinary tract infections, and septicemias. D. can cause endocarditis. E. belong to Lancefield Group B streptococci. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.09 Recall the epidemiology and pathogenesis of the streptococcal species most often associated with human disease and how these groups are separated in the laboratory. Section: 18.02 Topic: Clinical Microbiology


Topic: Gram-Positive Streptococci Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Urogenital System Infections

25.

The viridans streptococci are A. not entirely groupable by Lancefield serology. B. the most numerous residents of the oral cavity. C. opportunists that can cause subacute endocarditis. D. introduced to deeper body tissues by dental or surgical procedures. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.07 Name the most important human pathogens in the genus Streptococcus. Section: 18.02

26.

Topic: Gram-Positive Streptococci Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

All of the following are associated with subacute endocarditis, except

A. it occurs in patients that have prior heart damage. B. it is caused by immune system autoantibodies that attack heart and valve tissue. C. oral bacteria get introduced by dental procedures to the blood. D. bacteria colonize previously damaged heart tissue resulting in vegetation. E. signs and symptoms include fever, heart murmur, and possible emboli. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.09 Recall the epidemiology and pathogenesis of the streptococcal species most often associated with human disease and how these groups are separated in the laboratory. Section: 18.02 Topic: Gram-Positive Streptococci Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

27.

Streptococcus pneumoniae is A. called the meningococcus. NURSINGTB.COM B. in the viridans group. C. a gram-positive diplococcus with a capsule. D. a pathogen with endotoxin. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage infection.

ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.11 Relate the pathogenesis and epidemiology of S. pneumoniae. Section: 18.02

Topic: Gram-Positive Streptococci Topic: Nervous System Infections Topic: Respiratory System Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

28.

Disease/s caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae include A. otitis media. B. meningitis. C. lobar pneumonia. D. bronchial pneumonia. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.11 Relate the pathogenesis and epidemiology of S. pneumoniae. Section: 18.02

29.

Topic: Gram-Positive Streptococci Topic: Nervous System Infections Topic: Respiratory System Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

People at greatest risk for pneumococcal infections include all the following, except


A. elderly. B. those with underlying lung disease and viral infections. C. patients without a spleen. D. adolescents and young adults. E. young infants. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.11 Relate the pathogenesis and epidemiology of S. pneumoniae. Section: 18.02

Topic: Gram-Positive Streptococci Topic: Nervous System Infections Topic: Respiratory System Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

30.

Meningococcemia is A. common during gonorrhea. B. associated with vascular hemorrhage and petechiae. C. frequently seen in elderly. D. caused by a gram-positive diplococcus. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.12 Name the most important human pathogens in the genus Neisseria, along with the body systems affected by each.

Learning Outcome: 18.14 Summarize the pathogenesis and epidemiology of N. meningitidis. Section: 18.03

Topic: Gram-Negative Cocci Topic: Nervous System Infections

Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

31.

Neisseria gonorrhoeae is A. the cause of ophthalmia neonatorum. B. the cause of gonorrhea. NURSINGTB.COM C. called the gonococcus. D. virulent due to fimbriae and a protease that inactivates IgA. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.12 Name the most important human pathogens in the genus Neisseria, along with the body systems affected by each. Learning Outcome: 18.13 Compare the differences in pathologies of N. gonorrhoeae infection in men, women, and children.

32.

Section: 18.03 Topic: Gram-Negative Cocci Topic: Urogenital System Infections

All of the following pertain to gonorrhea, except A. a chancre-type lesion develops at the portal of entry. B. it is a reportable infectious disease. C. pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) and infertility are complications. D. female infections are frequently asymptomatic. E. symptoms include painful urination and discharge.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.12 Name the most important human pathogens in the genus Neisseria, along with the body systems affected by each. Learning Outcome: 18.13 Compare the differences in pathologies of N. gonorrhoeae infection in men, women, and children.

33.

All of the following pertain to Neisseria meningitidis, except A. virulence factors include a capsule, pili, endotoxin, and IgA protease.

Section: 18.03 Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Gram-Negative Cocci Topic: Urogenital System Infections


B. it causes serious meningitis. C. the reservoir is the nasopharynx of human carriers. D. it is more easily transmitted in day-care facilities, dorms, and military barracks. E. it is a common cause of bacterial pneumonia. ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage infection.

ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.12 Name the most important human pathogens in the genus Neisseria, along with the body systems affected by each.

Learning Outcome: 18.14 Summarize the pathogenesis and epidemiology of N. meningitidis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Gram-Negative Cocci Topic: Nervous System Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

34.

The instillation of antibiotics in newborn's eyes will prevent ophthalmia neonatorum in newborns. This disease is caused by A. Neisseria meningitidis. B. Staphylococcus aureus. C. Streptococcus pyogenes. D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae. E. Branhamella (Moraxella) catarrhalis.

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.12 Name the most important human pathogens in the genus Neisseria, along with the body systems affected by each. Learning Outcome: 18.13 Compare the differences in pathologies of N. gonorrhoeae infection in men, women, and children. Section: 18.03

Topic: Gram-Negative Cocci

35.

A positive Quellung reaction, or capsular swelling, is confirmatory for A. Neisseria meningitidis. B. Staphylococcus aureus. C. Streptococcus pyogenes. D. Branhamella (Moraxella) catarrhalis. E. Streptococcus pneumoniae.

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage infection.

ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.11 Relate the pathogenesis and epidemiology of S. pneumoniae. Section: 18.02

Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Gram-Positive Streptococci Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification

36.

Most cases of otitis media in children are due to infection with A. Streptococcus pneumoniae. B. Streptococcus pyogenes. C. Branhamella (Moraxella) catarrhalis. D. Streptococcus agalactiae. E. Staphylococcus saprophyticus.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.11 Relate the pathogenesis and epidemiology of S. pneumoniae. Section: 18.02

Topic: Gram-Positive Streptococci

37.

Which chemical produced by S. aureus is also known as "spreading factor"? A. coagulase B. penicillinase C. hemolysin


D. hyaluronidase E. toxic shock syndrome toxin ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.03 Name the enzymes and toxins found in S. aureus, and explain their role in increasing the virulence of the species. Section: 18.01

Topic: Gram-Positive Staphylococci

38.

Which chemical, produced by S. aureus, digests blood clots? A. coagulase B. penicillinase C. staphylokinase D. hyaluronidase E. toxic shock syndrome toxin

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.03 Name the enzymes and toxins found in S. aureus, and explain their role in increasing the virulence of the species. Section: 18.01

Topic: Gram-Positive Staphylococci

39.

A patient has a suspicious skin infection and a culture is taken. Which media would be appropriate to select for staphylococci? A. Nutrient agar B. Blood agar C. Chocolate agar D. macConkey agar E. Mannitol salt agar ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.05 Differentiate between staphylococcal species in the laboratory through the examination of physiological and biochemical traits. NURSINGTB.COM Section: 18.01 Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Culturing Microorganisms Topic: Gram-Positive Staphylococci

40.

A pregnant woman is told she has a positive CAMP test and should be treated with a course of antibiotics. This test is indicative of A. Group A streptococci. B. Group B streptococci. C. S. saprophyticus. D. S. epidermidis. E. S. aureus.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 18.07 Name the most important human pathogens in the genus Streptococcus. Learning Outcome: 18.09 Recall the epidemiology and pathogenesis of the streptococcal species most often associated with human disease and how these groups are separated in the laboratory. Learning Outcome: 18.10 Explain strategies used to prevent and treat streptococcal infections. Section: 18.02 Topic: Gram-Positive Streptococci Topic: Urogenital System Infections

41.

All of the following are correct about Streptococcus pyogenes, except A. humans are the only significant reservoir. B. some of the streptococcal toxins act as superantigens. C. most strains do not have a capsule. D. it can cause impetigo and erysipelas. E. infection is generally through direct contact.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.


ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.07 Name the most important human pathogens in the genus Streptococcus. Learning Outcome: 18.08 Summarize the virulence factors of S. pyogenes, as well as the diseases and long-term complications associated with S.

pyogenes infection. Learning Outcome: 18.09 Recall the epidemiology and pathogenesis of the streptococcal species most often associated with human disease and how these groups are separated in the laboratory. Section: 18.02

Topic: Gram-Positive Streptococci

42.

All of the following are correct about Staphylococcus aureus, except A. it is the coagulase-positive species. B. the body's most powerful defense against it lies in the T-cell response. C. carriers may be treated with antibiotics to clear them of the bacteria. D. most strains are resistant to penicillin and ampicillin. E. it causes furuncles, carbuncles, and abscesses.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.02 Describe the ability of S. aureus to withstand extremes of salt, pH, temperature, and desiccation, and how these abilities contribute to pathogenicity. Learning Outcome: 18.03 Name the enzymes and toxins found in S. aureus, and explain their role in increasing the virulence of the species. Learning Outcome: 18.04 Summarize the cutaneous, systemic, and toxigenic diseases caused by infection with S. aureus, along with how the body defends against infection. Learning Outcome: 18.05 Differentiate between staphylococcal species in the laboratory through the examination of physiological and biochemical traits. Section: 18.01 Topic: Gram-Positive Staphylococci Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections

43.

Sue brought her daughter Amy to the pediatrician complaining of a sore throat. The physician examines Amy and observes that her throat is bright red and there are white pus-filled nodules on her tonsils. Which of the following conclusions should be made? A. She has a strep throat and should begin antibiotics. B. She should have a rapid strep test performed before a diagnosis is made. C. She should go home and rest because most sore throats are viral in origin. D. She should go home and come back in two days for a strep test since it may take that long to show up. NURSINGTB.COM E. She has a staphylococcal sore throat tibiotics immediately. and should begin an

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 18.09 Recall the epidemiology and pathogenesis of the streptococcal species most often associated with human disease and how these groups are separated in the laboratory. Learning Outcome: 18.10 Explain strategies used to prevent and treat streptococcal infections. Section: 18.02 Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Gram-Positive Streptococci Topic: Respiratory System Infections

44.

If left untreated, an infection with

can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease and infertility.

A. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. Neisseria meningitidis C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae D. Streptococcus pyogenes E. Staphylococcus aureus ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.13 Compare the differences in pathologies of N. gonorrhoeae infection in men, women, and children. Section: 18.03

Topic: Gram-Negative Cocci Topic: Urogenital System Infections

45.

Which of the following antibiotics specifically disrupt protein synthesis of streptococci? A. β-lactams B. macrolides C. cephalosporins


D. ansamycin plural E. aminoglycosides ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage infection.

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.10 Explain strategies used to prevent and treat streptococcal infections. Section: 18.02

46.

Local Staphylococcus aureus infections often involve formation of an abscess.

Topic: Gram-Positive Streptococci

TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.04 Summarize the cutaneous, systemic, and toxigenic diseases caused by infection with S. aureus, along with how the body defends against infection. Section: 18.01 Topic: Gram-Positive Staphylococci Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections

47.

Streptokinase causes the symptoms of scarlet fever. FALSE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.08 Summarize the virulence factors of S. pyogenes, as well as the diseases and long-term complications associated with S.

pyogenes infection. Learning Outcome: 18.09 Recall the epidemiology and pathogenesis of the streptococcal species most often associated with human disease and how these groups are separated in the laboratory. Section: 18.02 Topic: Gram-Positive Streptococci Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections

48.

It is theorized that rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis could be the result of antibodies to Group A NURSINGTB.COM streptococci that cross-react with patient tissues. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.08 Summarize the virulence factors of S. pyogenes, as well as the diseases and long-term complications associated with S.

pyogenes infection. Learning Outcome: 18.09 Recall the epidemiology and pathogenesis of the streptococcal species most often associated with human disease and how these groups are separated in the laboratory. Section: 18.02 Topic: Gram-Positive Streptococci Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

49.

Most strains of Streptococcus pyogenes produce penicillinase. FALSE

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.10 Explain strategies used to prevent and treat streptococcal infections. Section: 18.02

Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Gram-Positive Streptococci

50.

Pneumovax is a vaccine for prevention of disease caused by strains of Neisseria meningitidis. FALSE

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems


Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.11 Relate the pathogenesis and epidemiology of S. pneumoniae. Learning Outcome: 18.14 Summarize the pathogenesis and epidemiology of N. meningitidis. Section: 18.02 Section: 18.03 Topic: Gram-Negative Cocci Topic: Gram-Positive Streptococci

51.

Impetigo involves itching papules that break and form a very contagious yellow crust. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.04 Summarize the cutaneous, systemic, and toxigenic diseases caused by infection with S. aureus, along with how the body defends against infection. Learning Outcome: 18.09 Recall the epidemiology and pathogenesis of the streptococcal species most often associated with human disease and how these groups are separated in the laboratory. Section: 18.01 Section: 18.02 Topic: Gram-Positive Staphylococci Topic: Gram-Positive Streptococci Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections

52.

Neisseria meningitidis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae are fastidious, gram-negative cocci that produce oxidase. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.12 Name the most important human pathogens in the genus Neisseria, along with the body systems affected by each. Section: 18.03

Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Culturing Microorganisms Topic: Gram-Negative Cocci

53.

An individual with asymptomatic N. gonorrhoeae may not spread the disease. FALSE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can inN teU raR ctSwIiN thGbT otB h .hCuO mM an and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.13 Compare the differences in pathologies of N. gonorrhoeae infection in men, women, and children. Section: 18.03

Topic: Gram-Negative Cocci Topic: Urogenital System Infections

54.

All staphylococci can be differentiated from all streptococci because only staphylococci produce the enzyme that is easily detected in the lab. catalase ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.05 Differentiate between staphylococcal species in the laboratory through the examination of physiological and biochemical traits. Section: 18.01 Section: 18.02 Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Gram-Positive Staphylococci

Topic: Gram-Positive Streptococci

55.

The two important hemolysins of Group A streptococci are

and

.

streptolysin O; streptolysin S ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.08 Summarize the virulence factors of S. pyogenes, as well as the diseases and long-term complications associated with S.


pyogenes infection. Section: 18.02

Topic: Gram-Positive Streptococci

56.

The viridans group of streptococci and the pneumococcus produce

hemolysis on blood agar.

alpha ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.07 Name the most important human pathogens in the genus Streptococcus. Learning Outcome: 18.09 Recall the epidemiology and pathogenesis of the streptococcal species most often associated with human disease and how these groups are separated in the laboratory. Section: 18.02 Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Gram-Positive Streptococci

57.

The production of the enzyme by Staphylococcus aureus is a key characteristic used to identify it from other species of Staphylococcus. coagulase ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.03 Name the enzymes and toxins found in S. aureus, and explain their role in increasing the virulence of the species. Section: 18.01

Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Gram-Positive Staphylococci

58.

Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, and Neisseria tend to stimulate pus production and are collectively referred to as cocci. pyogenic

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.03 Name the enzymes and toxins found in S. aureus, and explain their role in increasing the virulence of the species. Learning Outcome: 18.08 Summarize the virulence factors of S. pyogenes, as well as the diseases and long-term complications associated with S. pyogenes infection. Learning Outcome: 18.12 Name the most important human pathogens in the genus Neisseria, along with the body systems affected by each. Section: 18.01 Section: 18.02 Section: 18.03

Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Gram-Negative Cocci Topic: Gram-Positive Staphylococci

Topic: Gram-Positive Streptococci

59.

Streptococcus agalactiae is known as Group

streptococci.

B ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage infection. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.09 Recall the epidemiology and pathogenesis of the streptococcal species most often associated with human disease and how these groups are separated in the laboratory. Section: 18.02

Topic: Gram-Positive Streptococci

60.

List three enzymes and four toxins produced by Staphylococcus aureus. For each enzyme and toxin, discuss its effect on patient tissues and how it contributes to virulence of this pathogen. ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply


Learning Outcome: 18.03 Name the enzymes and toxins found in S. aureus, and explain their role in increasing the virulence of the species. Section: 18.01

Topic: Gram-Positive Staphylococci

61.

Discuss how normal flora Staphylococcus epidermidis can cause disease in the body, and describe the diseases that it causes.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 18.01 Name the five most important human pathogens in the genus Staphylococcus. Learning Outcome: 18.03 Name the enzymes and toxins found in S. aureus, and explain their role in increasing the virulence of the species. Learning Outcome: 18.05 Differentiate between staphylococcal species in the laboratory through the examination of physiological and biochemical traits. Section: 18.01 Topic: Gram-Positive Staphylococci

62.

Discuss in detail why strep sore throat must be diagnosed and treated rapidly.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 18.08 Summarize the virulence factors of S. pyogenes, as well as the diseases and long-term complications associated with S.

pyogenes infection. Learning Outcome: 18.10 Explain strategies used to prevent and treat streptococcal infections. Section: 18.02 Topic: Gram-Positive Streptococci

63.

Explain what is meant by MRSA, why it is a particular concern to hospitals, and what action hospitals are taking to prevent MRSA spread.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 18.06 Explain strategies used to prevent and treat staphylococcal infections, and how infection with drug-resistant strains of Staphylococcus affects these strategies. Section: 18.01 Topic: Gram-Positive Staphylococci

64.

Describe the transmission of the meningococcus, and discuss the pathogenesis of meningococcal disease in the body including associated signs and symptoms.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems NURSINGTB.COM Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 18.14 Summarize the pathogenesis and epidemiology of N. meningitidis. Section: 18.03

Topic: Gram-Negative Cocci Topic: Nervous System Infections

Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

65.

In which of the following situations would Staphylococcus epidermidis be the most likely etiologic agent? A. otitis media B. food intoxication C. urinary bladder infection D. infected IV catheter site E. conjunctivitis

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 18.01 Name the five most important human pathogens in the genus Staphylococcus. Section: 18.01

Topic: Gram-Positive Staphylococci Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections

66.

A 48-year old man has had nasal surgery and absorbent material has been inserted into his nasal cavity to control bleeding. Several hours ago he began to complain of a headache and has since developed a red rash over much of his body and is experiencing muscle cramps and diarrhea. His blood pressure has dropped to 75/50 mg Hg. This patient’s illness is most likely caused by A. Staphylococcus aureus — exfoliative toxin B. Streptococcus pyogenes — streptolysin O C. Staphylococcus aureus — toxic shock syndrome toxin D. Streptococcus pyogenes — erythrogenic toxin

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems


Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze Learning Outcome: 18.03 Name the enzymes and toxins found in S. aureus, and explain their role in increasing the virulence of the species. Learning Outcome: 18.08 Summarize the virulence factors of S. pyogenes, as well as the diseases and long-term complications associated with S. pyogenes infection. Section: 18.01 Topic: Gram-Positive Staphylococci

Topic: Gram-Positive Streptococci

67.

Having received no prenatal care, a young woman arrives at a hospital after many hours of labor and delivers a baby girl. Three days later the baby girl is listless, nursing poorly, and is running a fever. Blood cultures are done, and after 24 hours, they are Gram stained and show the presence of gram-positive cocci in pairs and short chains. Upon subculture, these form colonies that are beta hemolytic on blood agar. Further tests demonstrate that the isolate is catalase negative, resistant to bacitracin, and is CAMP test positive. What is the identification of this organism?

A. Streptococcus pyogenes B. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Streptococcus agalactiae D. Staphylococcus aureus E. Neisseria meningitidis ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze Learning Outcome: 18.09 Recall the epidemiology and pathogenesis of the streptococcal species most often associated with human disease and how these groups are separated in the laboratory. Section: 18.02 Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Gram-Positive Streptococci Topic: Identifying Microorganisms

68.

Which of the following organisms would look most similar to Neisseria meningitidis on a Gram stained smear?

A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Branhamella catarrhalis C. Streptococcus agalactiae D. Streptococcus pneumoniae

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ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if possible, phase contrast). ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.15 Recall the medically important genera, besides Neisseria, that contain gram-negative cocci and coccobacilli. Section: 18.03

Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Gram-Negative Cocci

69.

Acinetobacter baumanii has become a high-profile opportunistic pathogen, causing wound infections, urinary tract infections, pneumonia and septicemia. What is the reason for its high-profile nature? A. A. baumanii has a very low infective dose and nearly everyone that contacts it gets a very serious infection. B. A. baumanii produces an exotoxin that causes servere diarrhea. C. A. baumanii is very fastidious and is difficult to culture in the laboratory. D. Many strains of A. baumanii are highly resistant to antibiotics.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.15 Recall the medically important genera, besides Neisseria, that contain gram-negative cocci and coccobacilli. Section: 18.03

Topic: Gram-Negative Cocci Topic: Identifying Microorganisms

70.

An 8-month old infant has been brought to the ER with a high fever. Her parents indicate that she has not been eating or drinking well and has been very irritable until the last few hours during which she has been only minimally responsive. Suspecting meningitis, a spinal tap is done and the CSF sample is sent to the lab for analysis. The white blood cell count on the sample is profoundly elevated, the protein content is elevated, and the glucose level is depressed. The Gram stained smear shows gram-positive cocci in pairs. Cultures are done and after overnight incubation, alpha hemolytic colonies are observed on the blood plate. These colonies


contain gram-positive cocci, which are catalase negative. An optochin susceptibility test is done and there is a large zone of inhibition around the disk. What is the identification of this isolate? A. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. viridans Streptococci C. Enterococcus faecalis D. Neisseria meningitidis E. Streptococcus agalactiae ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze Learning Outcome: 18.11 Relate the pathogenesis and epidemiology of S. pneumoniae. Section: 18.02

Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Culturing Microorganisms Topic: Gram-Positive Streptococci

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Chapter 18 Testbank Summary Category

# of Questions

ASM Objective: 01.03 Human impact on the environment influences the evolution of microorganisms (e.g., emerging diseases and the selection of antibiotic resistance). ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (in cluding bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage inf ection. ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that ofte n confer critical capabilities. ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determi ned by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metaboli c characteristics. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biologic al means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in benefi cial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if po ssible, phase contrast). ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (mediabased, molecular and serological).

1 2 7 5 6 3 4 60 1 10

ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods.

1

ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution

1

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function

10

ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways

12

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills

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60 11

Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

34

Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand

25

Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply

8

Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze

3

Learning Outcome: 18.01 Name the five most important human pathogens in the genus Staphylococcus. Learning Outcome: 18.02 Describe the ability of S. aureus to withstand extremes of salt, pH, temperature, and desicc ation, and how these abilities contribute to pathogenicity. Learning Outcome: 18.03 Name the enzymes and toxins found in S. aureus, and explain their role in increasing the vi rulence of the species. Learning Outcome: 18.04 Summarize the cutaneous, systemic, and toxigenic diseases caused by infection with S. au reus, along with how the body defends against infection. Learning Outcome: 18.05 Differentiate between staphylococcal species in the laboratory through the examination of physiological and biochemical traits. Learning Outcome: 18.06 Explain strategies used to prevent and treat staphylococcal infections, and how infection wi th drug-resistant strains of Staphylococcus affects these strategies.

4 2 12 9 6 2

Learning Outcome: 18.07 Name the most important human pathogens in the genus Streptococcus. Learning Outcome: 18.08 Summarize the virulence factors of S. pyogenes, as well as the diseases and longterm complications associated with S. pyogenes infection. Learning Outcome: 18.09 Recall the epidemiology and pathogenesis of the streptococcal species most often associat ed with human disease and how these groups are separated in the laboratory.

8 16

Learning Outcome: 18.10 Explain strategies used to prevent and treat streptococcal infections.

5

Learning Outcome: 18.11 Relate the pathogenesis and epidemiology of S. pneumoniae. Learning Outcome: 18.12 Name the most important human pathogens in the genus Neisseria, along with the body sy stems affected by each. Learning Outcome: 18.13 Compare the differences in pathologies of N. gonorrhoeae infection in men, women, and c hildren.

7 7

18

5


Learning Outcome: 18.14 Summarize the pathogenesis and epidemiology of N. meningitidis.

4

Learning Outcome: 18.15 Recall the medically important genera, besides Neisseria, that contain gramnegative cocci and coccobacilli. Section: 18.01 Section: 18.02

2 26 37

Section: 18.03

13

Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology

2

Topic: Clinical Microbiology

16

Topic: Culturing Microorganisms

3

Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections

2

Topic: Gram-Negative Cocci

13

Topic: Gram-Positive Staphylococci

26

Topic: Gram-Positive Streptococci

38

Topic: Identifying Microorganisms

4

Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification

2

Topic: Muscular System Infections

1

Topic: Nervous System Infections

7

Topic: Phenotypic Methods for Identification

2

Topic: Respiratory System Infections

6

Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections

13

Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Urogenital System Infections

15 8

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Chapter 19 Testbank Student:

1.

Anthrax is A. a zoonosis. B. transmitted by contact, inhalation, and ingestion. C. a disease that, in humans, can cause a rapidly fatal toxemia and septicemia. D. only seen sporadically in the United States. E. All of these choices are correct.

2.

Characteristics of Bacillus anthracis include all the following, except A. capsule and exotoxins are virulence factors. B. anaerobic. C. reservoir includes infected grazing animals and contaminated soil. D. gram-positive bacillus. E. spore-former.

3.

Which form of anthrax involves a black eschar on the skin? A. pulmonary B. gastrointestinal C. cutaneous D. All of these choices are correct.

4.

Which type of anthrax is called "woolsorter's disease?" A. pulmonary B. gastrointestinal C. cutaneous D. All of these choices are correct.

5.

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Treatment and control of anthrax includes A. use of antimicrobics, such as ciprofloxacin for active cases. B. vaccination of livestock. C. toxoid for military and those with occupational exposure. D. proper disposal of animals that have died from anthrax. E. All of these choices are correct.

6.

Which is not correct about Bacillus cereus? A. present in soil B. produce enterotoxins C. causes food-borne intoxication D. causes a zoonosis E. associated with cooked rice, potato, and meat dishes that are stored at room temperature

7.

The food-borne disease that involves neurotoxin is A. gastrointestinal anthrax. B. Bacillus cereus intoxication. C. botulism. D. Clostridium perfringens gastroenteritis. E. All of these choices are correct.

8.

Production of enterotoxin is a characteristic of A. Clostridium botulinum. B. Clostridium perfringens. C. Clostridium difficile.


D. Clostridium tetani. E. All of these choices are correct. 9.

Production of a neurotoxin that binds to target sites on spinal cord neurons responsible for inhibiting skeletal muscle contraction is a characteristic of A. Clostridium botulinum. B. Clostridium perfringens. C. Clostridium difficile. D. Clostridium tetani. E. All of these choices are correct.

10. Production of a neurotoxin that prevents acetylcholine release from motor neurons at neuromuscular junctions is a characteristic of A. Clostridium botulinum. B. Clostridium perfringens. C. Clostridium difficile. D. Clostridium tetani. E. All of these choices are correct. 11. Which organism can infect deeper wound sites and produce exotoxins, enzymes, and gas that cause tissue and muscle necrosis?

A. Clostridium botulinum B. Clostridium perfringens C. Clostridium difficile D. Clostridium tetani E. All of these choices are correct. 12. Botulin, the toxin of botulism is A. not as virulent as tetanospasmin. B. detected and diagnosed by analyzing a patN ieU ntR'sSIbNloGoTdB . .COM C. the cause of rigid paralysis. D. only produced under anaerobic conditions. E. produced when spores germinate in the intestines of adults after ingesting contaminated food.

13. All of the following pertain to infant botulism, except A. symptoms include "floppy baby" appearance. B. neurotoxin is not involved in the disease process. C. ingested spores can germinate in the immature intestines of the neonate. D. symptoms include flaccid paralysis and respiratory complications. E. it is the most common type of botulism in the United States. 14. Which of the following pertains to both tetanus and food-borne botulism? A. It can be treated with antibiotics. B. It is caused by enterotoxins of the pathogen. C. Exotoxin blocks acetylcholine release. D. Nausea and diarrhea are symptoms. E. Treatment involves antitoxin therapy.

15. All of the following pertain to Clostridium difficile infection, except A. it is due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies. B. it is a colitis that is a superinfection. C. it often has an endogenous source. D. it may be on the rise due to increased use of gastric acid inhibitors. E. it is major cause of diarrhea in hospitals.

16. All of the following pertain to Listeria monocytogenes, except


A. it is gram-positive. B. it produces endospores. C. it frequently contaminates dairy products, meats, poultry. D. it causes food-borne listeriosis. E. bacterial cells multiply within the cytoplasm of a host cell.

17. All of the following pertain to listeriosis, except A. it causes symptoms of fever, diarrhea, and sore throat. B. it causes a serious septicemia and meningitis in the elderly, immunocompromised, and infants. C. intrauterine infection usually results in fetal death. D. adequate pasteurization and thorough cooking of food can improve prevention. E. enterotoxin of the organism causes symptoms. 18. Erysipeloid is transmitted by A. inhalation of spores from hides and wool of animals. B. ingestion of improperly cooked hot dogs. C. an abrasion on skin coming in contact with infected swine or other animals. D. contaminated soil entering deep puncture wounds. E. respiratory secretions. 19. Formation of a pseudomembrane in the back of the throat is seen in A. diphtheria. B. listeriosis. C. tuberculosis. D. erysipeloid. E. botulism. 20. Which of the following pertains to diphtheria? A. It results in meningitis. B. Symptoms include vomiting and diarrhea. C. It can be transmitted from mother's birth caN naUl RtoSInNeG oT na Bt.eC.OM D. It is prevented by the DTaP immunization. E. All of these choices are correct. 21. The major virulence factor of Corynebacterium diphtheriae that causes serious systemic effects is A. the capsule. B. the metachromatic granules. C. its exotoxin. D. the endospores. E. its endotoxin. 22. Which is not correct about Mycobacterium species? A. All species are human pathogens. B. Mycobacterial cell walls have waxy lipids. C. Mycobateria are acid-fast. D. Many mycobacterial species have a slow growth rate. E. Mycobacterial cells are long, slender rods.

23. Mycobacterium tuberculosis A. produces several virulence factor enzymes and an exotoxin. B. has a cord factor that can prevent destruction by lysosomes and macrophages. C. is a spore-former. D. has a capsule. E. lives in the soil.

24. All of the following pertain to tuberculosis, except A. live bacilli can remain dormant in the lungs and reactivate later in life.


B. symptoms of active TB include low-grade fever, coughing, fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats.

C. lung infection can disseminate to many other organs in extrapulmonary TB. D. the BCG vaccine is used in other countries. E. antimicrobials cannot treat and cure tuberculosis. 25. Tuberculin skin testing A. injects PPD intradermally. B. uses a purified protein filtrate of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. C. will be positive if person has had previous exposure. D. will be positive in active TB. E. All of these choices are correct. 26. A diagnosis of tuberculosis involves A. chest X-ray. B. acid-fast stain of sputum. C. sputum culture. D. tuberculin skin test. E. All of these choices are correct. 27. Leprosy is a disease A. of lung tissue. B. that has been eradicated around the world. C. caused by a pathogen that cannot be cultured in the lab. D. can be diagnosed by the Mantoux test. E. caused by a spore-forming, gram-positive bacillus. 28. Tuberculoid leprosy A. causes asymmetrical, shallow skin lesions with loss of pain sensation. B. is the most disfiguring. C. is characterized by a large number of acid fN aU stRbSaIcNilG li TinBt.h nfected tissues (multibacillary). CeOiM D. may have complications including secondary infections, kidney, or respiratory failure. E. All of these choices are correct. 29. Fish tank granuloma is caused by A. Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC). B. Mycobacterium kansasii. C. Mycobacterium scrofulaceum. D. Mycobacterium fortuitum complex. E. Mycobacterium marinum. 30. The common soil mycobacteria that frequently cause systemic infection and death in AIDS patients is A. Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC). B. Mycobacterium kansasii. C. Mycobacterium scrofulaceum. D. Mycobacterium fortuitum complex. E. Mycobacterium marinum. 31. Which of the following causes a non-communicable pulmonary infection that resembles tuberculosis? A. Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) B. Mycobacterium kansasii C. Mycobacterium scrofulaceum D. Mycobacterium fortuitum complex E. Mycobacterium marinum

32. Actinomyces israelii A. can be transmitted by respiratory droplets.


B. can cause pneumonia with symptoms similar to tuberculosis. C. are filamentous rods that grow in clusters called sulfur granules in infected tissue. D. lives in the soil. E. causes most cases in the immunocompromised. 33. Which is not a characteristic of Nocardia? A. It can be transmitted by respiratory droplets. B. It can cause pneumonia with symptoms similar to tuberculosis. C. They are filamentous rods that grow in clusters called sulfur granules in infected tissue. D. It lives in the soil. E. It causes most cases in the immunocompromised. 34. For which of the following diseases does the "feather test" provide evidence of early infection? A. tuberculosis B. botulism C. tetanus D. leprosy E. anthrax 35. Which of the following is/are characteristic of lepromatous leprosy? A. Granulomatous thickenings and folds of the skin may develop. B. Lepromatous leprosy is the most disfiguring form of the disease. C. The pathogen grows extensively in cooler body areas, such as nose, ears, testes. D. Complications include secondary infections, kidney, or respiratory failure. E. All of these choices are correct. 36. Which of the following is not true about leprosy? A. It is caused by Hansen's bacillus in honor of its discoverer. B. Mycobacterium leprae is highly virulent, causing disease in most individuals that are exposed. C. Armadillos harbor a genetically identical M.NleUpRraSe . GTB.COM IN D. Early signs appear as small, spotty lesions colored differently than the surrounding skin. E. The number of new cases in the U.S. each year is about 50 to 100, mostly associated with recent immigrants. 37. Which of the following is not true about diphtheria? A. It is a zoonosis. B. Humans can be healthy carriers. C. It is prevented with the DTaP vaccine. D. It is an upper respiratory infection. E. A pseudomembrane may form in the back of the throat.

38. All of the following are true about diphtheria toxin, except A. it inhibits cellular protein synthesis. B. it must be neutralized with antitoxin. C. it primarily targets the heart and nerves. D. it is an exotoxin. E. antitoxin (DAT) comes from immunized human plasma donors. 39. The individuals most at risk for botulism are those that A. eat meat. B. are vegetarians. C. have a weakened immune system. D. consume home-preserved foods. E. eat often in restaurants. 40. Generally, what must healthy adults consume in order to contract botulism?

A. endospores of C. botulinum


B. vegetative cells of C. botulinum C. botulism toxin in contaminated food D. botulism toxoid in contaminated food E. botulism antitoxin in contaminated food 41. What is the usual cause of pseudomembranous colitis? A. improperly home-preserved foods containing botulin toxin B. consuming unpasteurized dairy products containing Listeria monocytogenes C. handling infected animals contaminated with E. rhusiopathiae D. therapy with broad-spectrum antibiotics leading to superinfection by C. difficile E. living in close contact with someone infected with C. perfringens 42. Which of the following may be recommended for treating gangrene? A. debridement of the wound B. hyperbaric chamber C. amputation of affected limb D. rigorous cleansing of deep wounds E. All of these choices are correct. 43. Mild, uncomplicated cases of pseudomembranous colitis may be treated by A. debridement. B. wound cleansing. C. vancomycin for several weeks. D. withdrawal of antibiotics and replacement of lost fluids and electrolytes. E. All of these choices are correct.

44. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of Actinomyces israelii? A. non-motile B. may live in human oral cavity or intestine C. Colonies may display mycelium-like growth. D. endospore former NURSINGTB.COM E. Discharge from infections may contain sulfur granules. 45. Tetanus can be prevented with the DTaP childhood immunization and boosters of the tetanus toxoid. True False 46. Debridement of diseased tissue is important in the care of patients with gas gangrene. True False 47. Botulism is often referred to as lockjaw. True False 48. In both botulism and tetanus, respiratory muscles cannot facilitate breathing and, if untreated, respiratory collapse leads to death. True False 49. Listeria monocytogenes does not grow in refrigerated foods. True False 50. Botox injections contain botulinum toxin. True False 51. A black eschar develops on the hand or arm of a patient with erysipeloid. True False


52. Propionibacterium acnes is normal flora of sebaceous glands of the skin. True False 53. People who have received the BCG immunization will generally have a negative tuberculin skin test. True False 54. The fermentation by-products of Clostridium perfringens can destroy muscle structure in myonecrosis. True False 55. All of the following body sites may be affected by diptheria, except A. the pharynx. B. the heart. C. the peripheral and cranial nerves. D. the skin. E. All of these choices are correct. 56. Hyperbaric chamber treatment involves putting patients with myonecrosis in a chamber that has a higher amount of

. 57. The granulomas that develop in the lung tissue during tuberculosis are termed

58. The 59.

.

test injects 0.1 mL of Purified Protein Derviative intradermally into the forearm. is a chronic progressive disease of the skin and nerves caused by Mycobacterium leprae.

60. In addition to antimicrobics, patients with diphtN heUrR iaSaIN reGtTreBa.C teO dM with 61. When the centers of tubercles break down into replaces normal lung tissue. 62. Mycobacterium bovis is attenuated and used in the

.

lesions, they gradually heal by calcification that

vaccine.

63. Discuss the types of foods and food preparation associated with food-borne botulism, and explain how neurotoxins gain entry to the foods. 64. Compare and contrast botulism and tetanus with regard to: a) transmission, b) virulence factors, c) location of target tissue and effect on the tissue, d) symptoms, e) treatment, and f) prevention. 65. Compare and contrast primary tuberculosis, secondary tuberculosis, and extrapulmonary tuberculosis. 66. Using specific examples, discuss how gram-positive bacilli are divided into major genera. At the very least include the oxygen requirements, sporulation characteristics, and acid-fast test results. 67. What do the bacteria that cause botulism, tetanus, and diphtheria have in common? A. Each of these diseases is caused by an endospore-forming bacterial species. B. Each of these diseases is caused by obligately anaerobic bacteria. C. Vaccines are widely used to prevent each of these diseases. D. Each of these bacteria make an exotoxin that is responsible for the disease. 68. A specimen was collected from a deep wound. A smear was prepared and Gram stained and samples were inoculated onto two blood agar plates. Both blood agar plates were incubated for 48 hours at 35°C, but one blood


agar plate was incubated aerobically and the other was incubated in an anaerobe jar. The Gram stain of the original specimen showed large gram-positive bacilli. After incubation, there was no growth on the blood agar plate that was incubated aerobically, but the plate incubated in the anaerobe jar grew beta hemolytic colonies. A Gram stain of these colonies showed large gram positive bacilli, some with unstained inclusions, suggestive of endospores. What is the most likely genus of bacteria observed?

A. Bacillus B. Mycobacterium C. Listeria D. Clostridium E. Corynebacterium 69. Which of the following would be a significant risk factor for the development of listeriosis? A. consumption of meat, poultry, eggs, and dairy products. B. being a vegan. C. receiving immunosuppressive drugs for treatment of an autoimmne disease D. consuming home-canned foods. 70. Vegans are not at risk for infection caused by Listeria monocytogenes because they don't consume animal products. True False 71. Janice had been experiencing mild flu-like symptoms before going into premature labor at seven months. The premature baby boy developed complications immediately after birth, running a fever and demonstrating neurologic abnormalities. A cerebrospinal fluid specimen was collected and a gram stain of the specimen showed short Gram-positive bacilli. The CSF culture grew small beta hemolytic colonies that were catalase positive. A CAMP test was positive on this isolate. The same organism grew from blood cultures done on the baby. What is the most likely identification?

A. Bacillus anthracis B. Listeria monocytogenes C. Streptococcus agalactiae D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

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72. All of the following are typical of nocardiosis, except

A. it may be caused by Nocardia brasiliensis, Nocardia asteroides, or Nocardia caviae. B. infections may involve the lungs, the skin, or subcutaneous sites. C. nocardiosis usually develops in individuals with a healthy immune response. D. symptoms of pulmonary nocardiosis may resemble the symptoms of tuberculosis. 73. Which of the following is the most likely method if transmission of nocardiosis? A. consuming contaminated home-preserved foods B. consuming unpasteurized milk C. inhaling dust containing cells of Nocardia D. touching an individual who has nocardiosis with an ungloved hand 74. A seasonal farmworker has been brought into the emergency room showing early symptoms of tetanus, including spastic contractions of face and neck muscles. His coworkers indicated that he had received a puncture wound in his hand a week prior to the onset of symptoms. His tetanus vaccination status is uncertain. Which of the following should be administered to the patient first, as soon as possible? A. tetanus toxoid B. tetanus immune globulin C. antibiotics D. hyperbaric oxygen chamber therapy E. a tetanus titer 75. An 85-year-old man has been experiencing weight loss, night sweats, and a dry cough for several months and just recently he has begun coughing up sputum with tinges of blood in it. Following a chest X-ray showing some white spots on his lungs, an AFB (Mycobacterial) stain and culture were ordered and both were positive for the presence


of mycobacteria. He has been PPD positive since his 20’s. Which of the following most accurately describes his current situation? A. latent tubercular infection B. primary tubercular infection C. systemic tuberculosis D. primary tubercular disease E. reactivation tuberculosis

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Chapter 19 Testbank Key 1.

Anthrax is A. a zoonosis. B. transmitted by contact, inhalation, and ingestion. C. a disease that, in humans, can cause a rapidly fatal toxemia and septicemia. D. only seen sporadically in the United States. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.02 Recall the general characteristics of the genus Bacillus. Section: 19.02

2.

Topic: Gram-Positive Spore-Forming Bacilli Topic: Respiratory System Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

Characteristics of Bacillus anthracis include all the following, except A. capsule and exotoxins are virulence factors. B. anaerobic. C. reservoir includes infected grazing animals and contaminated soil. D. gram-positive bacillus. E. spore-former. ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.01 Describe how cellular characteristics are used to categorize gram-positive bacilli into major groups.

Learning Outcome: 19.02 Recall the general characteristics of the genus Bacillus. Section: 19.01 Section: 19.02 Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Gram-Positive Spore-Forming Bacilli NURSINGTB.COM Topic: Respiratory System Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

3.

Which form of anthrax involves a black eschar on the skin? A. pulmonary B. gastrointestinal C. cutaneous D. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.03 Distinguish between cutaneous and pulmonary anthrax, and describe how anthrax is controlled. Section: 19.02 Topic: Gram-Positive Spore-Forming Bacilli

Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections

4.

Which type of anthrax is called "woolsorter's disease?" A. pulmonary B. gastrointestinal C. cutaneous D. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.03 Distinguish between cutaneous and pulmonary anthrax, and describe how anthrax is controlled. Section: 19.02

Topic: Gram-Positive Spore-Forming Bacilli Topic: Respiratory System Infections


5.

Treatment and control of anthrax includes A. use of antimicrobics, such as ciprofloxacin for active cases. B. vaccination of livestock. C. toxoid for military and those with occupational exposure. D. proper disposal of animals that have died from anthrax. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.03 Distinguish between cutaneous and pulmonary anthrax, and describe how anthrax is controlled. Section: 19.02

Topic: Gram-Positive Spore-Forming Bacilli Topic: Respiratory System Infections Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

6.

Which is not correct about Bacillus cereus? A. present in soil B. produce enterotoxins C. causes food-borne intoxication D. causes a zoonosis E. associated with cooked rice, potato, and meat dishes that are stored at room temperature

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.02 Recall the general characteristics of the genus Bacillus. Learning Outcome: 19.09 Compare food intoxication caused by Bacillus cereus with that caused by Clostridium perfringens. Section: 19.02

Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Gram-Positive Spore-Forming Bacilli

7.

The food-borne disease that involves neurotoxin is A. gastrointestinal anthrax. B. Bacillus cereus intoxication. NURSINGTB.COM C. botulism. D. Clostridium perfringens gastroenteritis. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.07 Compare the course of botulism infection and disease with that of tetanus. Learning Outcome: 19.08 Contrast common botulism with infant botulism, and relate prevention and treatment strategies for both. Section: 19.02 Topic: Gram-Positive Spore-Forming Bacilli

Topic: Nervous System Infections

8.

Production of enterotoxin is a characteristic of A. Clostridium botulinum. B. Clostridium perfringens. C. Clostridium difficile. D. Clostridium tetani. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.04 State the general characteristics of the genus Clostridium, and distinguish between Bacillus and Clostridium.

Learning Outcome: 19.09 Compare food intoxication caused by Bacillus cereus with that caused by Clostridium perfringens. Section: 19.02 Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Gram-Positive Spore-Forming Bacilli


9.

Production of a neurotoxin that binds to target sites on spinal cord neurons responsible for inhibiting skeletal muscle contraction is a characteristic of A. Clostridium botulinum. B. Clostridium perfringens. C. Clostridium difficile. D. Clostridium tetani. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.07 Compare the course of botulism infection and disease with that of tetanus. Section: 19.02 Topic: Gram-Positive Spore-Forming Bacilli

Topic: Nervous System Infections

10.

Production of a neurotoxin that prevents acetylcholine release from motor neurons at neuromuscular junctions is a characteristic of A. Clostridium botulinum. B. Clostridium perfringens. C. Clostridium difficile. D. Clostridium tetani. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.07 Compare the course of botulism infection and disease with that of tetanus. Learning Outcome: 19.08 Contrast common botulism with infant botulism, and relate prevention and treatment strategies for both. Section: 19.02 Topic: Gram-Positive Spore-Forming Bacilli

Topic: Nervous System Infections

11.

Which organism can infect deeper wound sites and produce exotoxins, enzymes, and gas that cause tissue and muscle necrosis?

A. Clostridium botulinum

NURSINGTB.COM

B. Clostridium perfringens C. Clostridium difficile D. Clostridium tetani E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.05 Recall the organisms responsible for myonecrosis and what is required for infection and disease to progress. Section: 19.02

Topic: Gram-Positive Spore-Forming Bacilli Topic: Muscular System Infections

12.

Botulin, the toxin of botulism is A. not as virulent as tetanospasmin. B. detected and diagnosed by analyzing a patient's blood. C. the cause of rigid paralysis. D. only produced under anaerobic conditions. E. produced when spores germinate in the intestines of adults after ingesting contaminated food. ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.07 Compare the course of botulism infection and disease with that of tetanus. Learning Outcome: 19.08 Contrast common botulism with infant botulism, and relate prevention and treatment strategies for both. Section: 19.02 Topic: Gram-Positive Spore-Forming Bacilli

Topic: Nervous System Infections


13.

All of the following pertain to infant botulism, except A. symptoms include "floppy baby" appearance. B. neurotoxin is not involved in the disease process. C. ingested spores can germinate in the immature intestines of the neonate. D. symptoms include flaccid paralysis and respiratory complications. E. it is the most common type of botulism in the United States. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.08 Contrast common botulism with infant botulism, and relate prevention and treatment strategies for both. Section: 19.02

Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Gram-Positive Spore-Forming Bacilli

14.

Which of the following pertains to both tetanus and food-borne botulism? A. It can be treated with antibiotics. B. It is caused by enterotoxins of the pathogen. C. Exotoxin blocks acetylcholine release. D. Nausea and diarrhea are symptoms. E. Treatment involves antitoxin therapy.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.07 Compare the course of botulism infection and disease with that of tetanus. Learning Outcome: 19.08 Contrast common botulism with infant botulism, and relate prevention and treatment strategies for both. Section: 19.02 Topic: Gram-Positive Spore-Forming Bacilli

15.

Topic: Nervous System Infections

All of the following pertain to Clostridium difficile infection, except A. it is due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies. B. it is a colitis that is a superinfection. NURSINGTB.COM C. it often has an endogenous source. D. it may be on the rise due to increased use of gastric acid inhibitors. E. it is major cause of diarrhea in hospitals.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.06 Clarify why Clostridium difficile-associated disease is associated with the use of antibiotics. Section: 19.02

16.

Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Gram-Positive Spore-Forming Bacilli

All of the following pertain to Listeria monocytogenes, except A. it is gram-positive. B. it produces endospores. C. it frequently contaminates dairy products, meats, poultry. D. it causes food-borne listeriosis. E. bacterial cells multiply within the cytoplasm of a host cell.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.01 Describe how cellular characteristics are used to categorize gram-positive bacilli into major groups. Section: 19.01 Section: 19.03

17.

Topic: Gram-Positive Non-Spore-Forming Bacilli Topic: Nervous System Infections

All of the following pertain to listeriosis, except A. it causes symptoms of fever, diarrhea, and sore throat. B. it causes a serious septicemia and meningitis in the elderly, immunocompromised, and infants. C. intrauterine infection usually results in fetal death. D. adequate pasteurization and thorough cooking of food can improve prevention. E. enterotoxin of the organism causes symptoms.


ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.10 Relate the severity of listeriosis with the immunocompetency of its host. Section: 19.03

Topic: Gram-Positive Non-Spore-Forming Bacilli Topic: Nervous System Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

18.

Erysipeloid is transmitted by A. inhalation of spores from hides and wool of animals. B. ingestion of improperly cooked hot dogs. C. an abrasion on skin coming in contact with infected swine or other animals. D. contaminated soil entering deep puncture wounds. E. respiratory secretions.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.11 Explain why people in certain occupations are at increased risk of becoming infected with Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae. Section: 19.03

Topic: Gram-Positive Non-Spore-Forming Bacilli

19.

Formation of a pseudomembrane in the back of the throat is seen in A. diphtheria. B. listeriosis. C. tuberculosis. D. erysipeloid. E. botulism.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.12 Relate the stages of diphtherial disease to infection and metabolism of its infectious agent. Section: 19.04

20.

NURSINGTB.COM Which of the following pertains to diphtheria?

Topic: Gram-Positive Non-Spore-Forming Bacilli Topic: Respiratory System Infections

A. It results in meningitis. B. Symptoms include vomiting and diarrhea. C. It can be transmitted from mother's birth canal to neonate. D. It is prevented by the DTaP immunization. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.13 Outline methods for the detection, prevention, and treatment of diphtheria. Section: 19.04

Topic: Gram-Positive Non-Spore-Forming Bacilli Topic: Respiratory System Infections

21.

The major virulence factor of Corynebacterium diphtheriae that causes serious systemic effects is A. the capsule. B. the metachromatic granules. C. its exotoxin. D. the endospores. E. its endotoxin.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.12 Relate the stages of diphtherial disease to infection and metabolism of its infectious agent. Section: 19.04

Topic: Gram-Positive Non-Spore-Forming Bacilli Topic: Respiratory System Infections

22.

Which is not correct about Mycobacterium species? A. All species are human pathogens.


B. Mycobacterial cell walls have waxy lipids. C. Mycobateria are acid-fast. D. Many mycobacterial species have a slow growth rate. E. Mycobacterial cells are long, slender rods. ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.01 Describe how cellular characteristics are used to categorize gram-positive bacilli into major groups. Section: 19.01 Section: 19.05

23.

Topic: Mycobacteria

Mycobacterium tuberculosis A. produces several virulence factor enzymes and an exotoxin. B. has a cord factor that can prevent destruction by lysosomes and macrophages. C. is a spore-former. D. has a capsule. E. lives in the soil. ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.01 Describe how cellular characteristics are used to categorize gram-positive bacilli into major groups. Section: 19.01 Section: 19.05

24.

Topic: Mycobacteria

All of the following pertain to tuberculosis, except A. live bacilli can remain dormant in the lungs and reactivate later in life. B. symptoms of active TB include low-graN deUfReSvIeNr,GcToBu.gChOinM g, fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats. C. lung infection can disseminate to many other organs in extrapulmonary TB. D. the BCG vaccine is used in other countries. E. antimicrobials cannot treat and cure tuberculosis.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.14 Compare the clinical manifestations of tuberculosis at different stages of the diease. Learning Outcome: 19.15 Understand how tuberculosis is detected and treated. Section: 19.05

Topic: Mycobacteria Topic: Respiratory System Infections

25.

Tuberculin skin testing A. injects PPD intradermally. B. uses a purified protein filtrate of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. C. will be positive if person has had previous exposure. D. will be positive in active TB. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.15 Understand how tuberculosis is detected and treated. Section: 19.05 Topic: Mycobacteria Topic: Respiratory System Infections


26.

A diagnosis of tuberculosis involves A. chest X-ray. B. acid-fast stain of sputum. C. sputum culture. D. tuberculin skin test. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.15 Understand how tuberculosis is detected and treated. Section: 19.05 Topic: Mycobacteria Topic: Respiratory System Infections

27.

Leprosy is a disease A. of lung tissue. B. that has been eradicated around the world. C. caused by a pathogen that cannot be cultured in the lab. D. can be diagnosed by the Mantoux test. E. caused by a spore-forming, gram-positive bacillus.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.01 Describe how cellular characteristics are used to categorize gram-positive bacilli into major groups.

Learning Outcome: 19.17 Relate the effect of M. leprae to the physical manifestation of the disease. Learning Outcome: 19.18 Explain the significance of nontuberculous mycobacterial diseases. Section: 19.01 Section: 19.05

Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Mycobacteria Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections

28.

Tuberculoid leprosy A. causes asymmetrical, shallow skin lesions with loss of pain sensation. NURSINGTB.COM B. is the most disfiguring. C. is characterized by a large number of acid fast bacilli in the infected tissues (multibacillary). D. may have complications including secondary infections, kidney, or respiratory failure. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.16 Contrast the two forms of leprosy.

Learning Outcome: 19.17 Relate the effect of M. leprae to the physical manifestation of the disease. Section: 19.05

Topic: Mycobacteria

29.

Fish tank granuloma is caused by A. Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC). B. Mycobacterium kansasii. C. Mycobacterium scrofulaceum. D. Mycobacterium fortuitum complex. E. Mycobacterium marinum.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.18 Explain the significance of nontuberculous mycobacterial diseases. Section: 19.05 Topic: Mycobacteria Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections

30.

The common soil mycobacteria that frequently cause systemic infection and death in AIDS patients is A. Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC). B. Mycobacterium kansasii. C. Mycobacterium scrofulaceum. D. Mycobacterium fortuitum complex.


E. Mycobacterium marinum. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.18 Explain the significance of nontuberculous mycobacterial diseases. Section: 19.05

Topic: Mycobacteria

31.

Which of the following causes a non-communicable pulmonary infection that resembles tuberculosis? A. Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) B. Mycobacterium kansasii C. Mycobacterium scrofulaceum D. Mycobacterium fortuitum complex E. Mycobacterium marinum

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.18 Explain the significance of nontuberculous mycobacterial diseases. Section: 19.05

32.

Topic: Mycobacteria

Actinomyces israelii A. can be transmitted by respiratory droplets. B. can cause pneumonia with symptoms similar to tuberculosis. C. are filamentous rods that grow in clusters called sulfur granules in infected tissue. D. lives in the soil. E. causes most cases in the immunocompromised.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.01 Describe how cellular characteristics are used to categorize gram-positive bacilli into major groups.

33.

Which is not a characteristic of Nocardia?

Learning Outcome: 19.19 Identify and describe the pathogenic actinomycetes. Section: 19.01 Section: 19.06 Topic: Actinomycetes NURSINGTB.COM

A. It can be transmitted by respiratory droplets. B. It can cause pneumonia with symptoms similar to tuberculosis. C. They are filamentous rods that grow in clusters called sulfur granules in infected tissue. D. It lives in the soil. E. It causes most cases in the immunocompromised. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.01 Describe how cellular characteristics are used to categorize gram-positive bacilli into major groups. Learning Outcome: 19.20 Describe the types of infections attributable to bacteria in the genus Nocardia.

Section: 19.01 Section: 19.06 Topic: Gram-Positive Non-Spore-Forming Bacilli

34.

For which of the following diseases does the "feather test" provide evidence of early infection? A. tuberculosis B. botulism C. tetanus D. leprosy E. anthrax

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.16 Contrast the two forms of leprosy.

Learning Outcome: 19.17 Relate the effect of M. leprae to the physical manifestation of the disease. Section: 19.05

Topic: Mycobacteria


35.

Which of the following is/are characteristic of lepromatous leprosy? A. Granulomatous thickenings and folds of the skin may develop. B. Lepromatous leprosy is the most disfiguring form of the disease. C. The pathogen grows extensively in cooler body areas, such as nose, ears, testes. D. Complications include secondary infections, kidney, or respiratory failure. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.16 Contrast the two forms of leprosy.

Learning Outcome: 19.17 Relate the effect of M. leprae to the physical manifestation of the disease. Section: 19.05

Topic: Mycobacteria

36.

Which of the following is not true about leprosy? A. It is caused by Hansen's bacillus in honor of its discoverer. B. Mycobacterium leprae is highly virulent, causing disease in most individuals that are exposed. C. Armadillos harbor a genetically identical M. leprae. D. Early signs appear as small, spotty lesions colored differently than the surrounding skin. E. The number of new cases in the U.S. each year is about 50 to 100, mostly associated with recent immigrants.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.16 Contrast the two forms of leprosy.

Learning Outcome: 19.17 Relate the effect of M. leprae to the physical manifestation of the disease. Section: 19.05

Topic: Mycobacteria

37.

Which of the following is not true about diphtheria? A. It is a zoonosis. B. Humans can be healthy carriers. C. It is prevented with the DTaP vaccine. NURSINGTB.COM D. It is an upper respiratory infection. E. A pseudomembrane may form in the back of the throat.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.12 Relate the stages of diphtherial disease to infection and metabolism of its infectious agent. Learning Outcome: 19.13 Outline methods for the detection, prevention, and treatment of diphtheria. Section: 19.04

38.

Topic: Gram-Positive Non-Spore-Forming Bacilli

All of the following are true about diphtheria toxin, except A. it inhibits cellular protein synthesis. B. it must be neutralized with antitoxin. C. it primarily targets the heart and nerves. D. it is an exotoxin. E. antitoxin (DAT) comes from immunized human plasma donors.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.13 Outline methods for the detection, prevention, and treatment of diphtheria. Section: 19.04

Topic: Gram-Positive Non-Spore-Forming Bacilli

39.

The individuals most at risk for botulism are those that A. eat meat. B. are vegetarians. C. have a weakened immune system. D. consume home-preserved foods. E. eat often in restaurants.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems


Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.07 Compare the course of botulism infection and disease with that of tetanus. Learning Outcome: 19.08 Contrast common botulism with infant botulism, and relate prevention and treatment strategies for both. Section: 19.02

Topic: Gram-Positive Spore-Forming Bacilli

40.

Generally, what must healthy adults consume in order to contract botulism?

A. endospores of C. botulinum B. vegetative cells of C. botulinum C. botulism toxin in contaminated food D. botulism toxoid in contaminated food E. botulism antitoxin in contaminated food ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.08 Contrast common botulism with infant botulism, and relate prevention and treatment strategies for both. Section: 19.02

Topic: Gram-Positive Spore-Forming Bacilli

41.

What is the usual cause of pseudomembranous colitis? A. improperly home-preserved foods containing botulin toxin B. consuming unpasteurized dairy products containing Listeria monocytogenes C. handling infected animals contaminated with E. rhusiopathiae D. therapy with broad-spectrum antibiotics leading to superinfection by C. difficile E. living in close contact with someone infected with C. perfringens

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.06 Clarify why Clostridium difficile-associated disease is associated with the use of antibiotics. Section: 19.02

Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Gram-Positive Spore-Forming Bacilli

42.

Which of the following may be recommended for treating gangrene? A. debridement of the wound B. hyperbaric chamber C. amputation of affected limb D. rigorous cleansing of deep wounds E. All of these choices are correct.

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.05 Recall the organisms responsible for myonecrosis and what is required for infection and disease to progress. Section: 19.02

Topic: Gram-Positive Spore-Forming Bacilli

43.

Mild, uncomplicated cases of pseudomembranous colitis may be treated by A. debridement. B. wound cleansing. C. vancomycin for several weeks. D. withdrawal of antibiotics and replacement of lost fluids and electrolytes. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.06 Clarify why Clostridium difficile-associated disease is associated with the use of antibiotics. Section: 19.02

44.

Topic: Gram-Positive Spore-Forming Bacilli

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of Actinomyces israelii? A. non-motile B. may live in human oral cavity or intestine C. Colonies may display mycelium-like growth. D. endospore former E. Discharge from infections may contain sulfur granules.


ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.19 Identify and describe the pathogenic actinomycetes. Section: 19.06

Topic: Actinomycetes

45.

Tetanus can be prevented with the DTaP childhood immunization and boosters of the tetanus toxoid. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.07 Compare the course of botulism infection and disease with that of tetanus. Section: 19.02 Topic: Gram-Positive Spore-Forming Bacilli

Topic: Nervous System Infections

46.

Debridement of diseased tissue is important in the care of patients with gas gangrene. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.05 Recall the organisms responsible for myonecrosis and what is required for infection and disease to progress. Section: 19.02

Topic: Gram-Positive Spore-Forming Bacilli Topic: Muscular System Infections

47.

Botulism is often referred to as lockjaw. FALSE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.07 Compare the course of botulism infection and disease with that of tetanus. Section: 19.02 Topic: Gram-Positive Spore-Forming Bacilli

48.

Topic: Nervous System Infections NURSINGTB.COM In both botulism and tetanus, respiratory muscles cannot facilitate breathing and, if untreated, respiratory collapse leads to death.

TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.07 Compare the course of botulism infection and disease with that of tetanus. Section: 19.02 Topic: Gram-Positive Spore-Forming Bacilli

Topic: Nervous System Infections

49.

Listeria monocytogenes does not grow in refrigerated foods. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.10 Relate the severity of listeriosis with the immunocompetency of its host. Section: 19.03

Topic: Gram-Positive Non-Spore-Forming Bacilli

50.

Botox injections contain botulinum toxin. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.07 Compare the course of botulism infection and disease with that of tetanus. Section: 19.02

Topic: Gram-Positive Spore-Forming Bacilli

51.

A black eschar develops on the hand or arm of a patient with erysipeloid.


FALSE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.03 Distinguish between cutaneous and pulmonary anthrax, and describe how anthrax is controlled. Learning Outcome: 19.11 Explain why people in certain occupations are at increased risk of becoming infected with Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae. Section: 19.02 Section: 19.03

Topic: Gram-Positive Non-Spore-Forming Bacilli

52.

Propionibacterium acnes is normal flora of sebaceous glands of the skin. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Section: 19.04 Topic: Gram-Positive Non-Spore-Forming Bacilli Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections

53.

People who have received the BCG immunization will generally have a negative tuberculin skin test. FALSE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.15 Understand how tuberculosis is detected and treated. Section: 19.05

Topic: Mycobacteria

54.

The fermentation by-products of Clostridium perfringens can destroy muscle structure in myonecrosis. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.05 Recall the organisms responsible for myonecrosis and what is required for infection and disease to progress.

NURSINGTB.COM 55.

Section: 19.02

Topic: Gram-Positive Spore-Forming Bacilli Topic: Muscular System Infections

All of the following body sites may be affected by diptheria, except A. the pharynx. B. the heart. C. the peripheral and cranial nerves. D. the skin. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.12 Relate the stages of diphtherial disease to infection and metabolism of its infectious agent. Section: 19.04

Topic: Gram-Positive Non-Spore-Forming Bacilli Topic: Respiratory System Infections

56.

Hyperbaric chamber treatment involves putting patients with myonecrosis in a chamber that has a higher amount of . oxygen; O2

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.05 Recall the organisms responsible for myonecrosis and what is required for infection and disease to progress. Section: 19.02

Topic: Gram-Positive Spore-Forming Bacilli

57.

The granulomas that develop in the lung tissue during tuberculosis are termed

.

tubercles ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.


ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.14 Compare the clinical manifestations of tuberculosis at different stages of the diease. Section: 19.05 Topic: Mycobacteria Topic: Respiratory System Infections

58.

The

test injects 0.1 mL of Purified Protein Derviative intradermally into the forearm.

Mantoux; PPD; tuberculin ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.15 Understand how tuberculosis is detected and treated. Section: 19.05 Topic: Mycobacteria Topic: Respiratory System Infections

59.

is a chronic progressive disease of the skin and nerves caused by Mycobacterium leprae. Leprosy

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.17 Relate the effect of M. leprae to the physical manifestation of the disease. Section: 19.05 Topic: Mycobacteria Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections

60.

In addition to antimicrobics, patients with diphtheria are treated with

.

antitoxin ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.13 Outline methods for the detection, prevention, and treatment of diphtheria. Section: 19.04

Topic: Gram-Positive Non-Spore-Forming Bacilli Topic: Respiratory System Infections

61.

NURSINGTB.COM When the centers of tubercles break down into lesions, they gradually heal by calcification that replaces normal lung tissue. caseous

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.14 Compare the clinical manifestations of tuberculosis at different stages of the diease. Section: 19.05 Topic: Mycobacteria Topic: Respiratory System Infections

62.

Mycobacterium bovis is attenuated and used in the

vaccine.

BCG ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.15 Understand how tuberculosis is detected and treated. Learning Outcome: 19.18 Explain the significance of nontuberculous mycobacterial diseases. Section: 19.05 Topic: Mycobacteria Topic: Respiratory System Infections

63.

Discuss the types of foods and food preparation associated with food-borne botulism, and explain how neurotoxins gain entry to the foods. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 19.07 Compare the course of botulism infection and disease with that of tetanus. Section: 19.02

Topic: Gram-Positive Spore-Forming Bacilli


64.

Compare and contrast botulism and tetanus with regard to: a) transmission, b) virulence factors, c) location of target tissue and effect on the tissue, d) symptoms, e) treatment, and f) prevention.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 19.07 Compare the course of botulism infection and disease with that of tetanus. Section: 19.02

Topic: Gram-Positive Spore-Forming Bacilli

65.

Compare and contrast primary tuberculosis, secondary tuberculosis, and extrapulmonary tuberculosis.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 19.14 Compare the clinical manifestations of tuberculosis at different stages of the diease. Learning Outcome: 19.18 Explain the significance of nontuberculous mycobacterial diseases. Section: 19.05 Topic: Mycobacteria Topic: Respiratory System Infections

66.

Using specific examples, discuss how gram-positive bacilli are divided into major genera. At the very least include the oxygen requirements, sporulation characteristics, and acid-fast test results. ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage infection.

ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 19.01 Describe how cellular characteristics are used to categorize gram-positive bacilli into major groups.

Learning Outcome: 19.09 Compare food intoxication caused by Bacillus cereus with that caused by Clostridium perfringens. Section: 19.01

Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Identifying Microorganisms

Topic: Phenotypic Methods for Identification

67.

What do the bacteria that cause botulism, tetanus, and diphtheria have in common? A. Each of these diseases is caused by an endospore-forming bacterial species. B. Each of these diseases is caused by obligately anaerobic bacteria. C. Vaccines are widely used to prevent eaNcU h RoSf ItN heGsTeBd.C isO eaMses. D. Each of these bacteria make an exotoxin that is responsible for the disease.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 19.04 State the general characteristics of the genus Clostridium, and distinguish between Bacillus and Clostridium.

Learning Outcome: 19.07 Compare the course of botulism infection and disease with that of tetanus. Learning Outcome: 19.12 Relate the stages of diphtherial disease to infection and metabolism of its infectious agent. Section: 19.02 Section: 19.04

Topic: Gram-Positive Non-Spore-Forming Bacilli Topic: Gram-Positive Spore-Forming Bacilli

68.

A specimen was collected from a deep wound. A smear was prepared and Gram stained and samples were inoculated onto two blood agar plates. Both blood agar plates were incubated for 48 hours at 35°C, but one blood agar plate was incubated aerobically and the other was incubated in an anaerobe jar. The Gram stain of the original specimen showed large gram-positive bacilli. After incubation, there was no growth on the blood agar plate that was incubated aerobically, but the plate incubated in the anaerobe jar grew beta hemolytic colonies. A Gram stain of these colonies showed large gram positive bacilli, some with unstained inclusions, suggestive of endospores. What is the most likely genus of bacteria observed?

A. Bacillus B. Mycobacterium C. Listeria D. Clostridium E. Corynebacterium ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.

ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways


ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze Learning Outcome: 19.01 Describe how cellular characteristics are used to categorize gram-positive bacilli into major groups. Learning Outcome: 19.04 State the general characteristics of the genus Clostridium, and distinguish between Bacillus and Clostridium.

Section: 19.01 Section: 19.02 Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Culturing Microorganisms Topic: Gram-Positive Spore-Forming Bacilli

69.

Which of the following would be a significant risk factor for the development of listeriosis? A. consumption of meat, poultry, eggs, and dairy products. B. being a vegan. C. receiving immunosuppressive drugs for treatment of an autoimmne disease D. consuming home-canned foods.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.10 Relate the severity of listeriosis with the immunocompetency of its host. Section: 19.03

Topic: Gram-Positive Non-Spore-Forming Bacilli

70.

Vegans are not at risk for infection caused by Listeria monocytogenes because they don't consume animal products. FALSE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.10 Relate the severity of listeriosis with the immunocompetency of its host. Section: 19.03

Topic: Gram-Positive Non-Spore-Forming Bacilli Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

71.

Janice had been experiencing mild flu-like symptoms before going into premature labor at seven months. The premature baby boy developed complications immediately after birth, running a fever and demonstrating neurologic abnormalities. A cerebrospinal fluid specimen was collected and a gram stain of the specimen showed short Gram-positive NbU acRilSliI.NTG hT e BC.C SO FM culture grew small beta hemolytic colonies that were catalase positive. A CAMP test was positive on this isolate. The same organism grew from blood cultures done on the baby. What is the most likely identification?

A. Bacillus anthracis B. Listeria monocytogenes C. Streptococcus agalactiae D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if possible, phase contrast). ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze Learning Outcome: 19.01 Describe how cellular characteristics are used to categorize gram-positive bacilli into major groups. Learning Outcome: 19.10 Relate the severity of listeriosis with the immunocompetency of its host.

Section: 19.01 Section: 19.03 Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Culturing Microorganisms Topic: Gram-Positive Non-Spore-Forming Bacilli Topic: Nervous System Infections

72.

All of the following are typical of nocardiosis, except

A. it may be caused by Nocardia brasiliensis, Nocardia asteroides, or Nocardia caviae. B. infections may involve the lungs, the skin, or subcutaneous sites. C. nocardiosis usually develops in individuals with a healthy immune response. D. symptoms of pulmonary nocardiosis may resemble the symptoms of tuberculosis. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand


Learning Outcome: 19.20 Describe the types of infections attributable to bacteria in the genus Nocardia. Section: 19.06 Topic: Actinomycetes

Topic: Gram-Positive Non-Spore-Forming Bacilli Topic: Respiratory System Infections

73.

Which of the following is the most likely method if transmission of nocardiosis? A. consuming contaminated home-preserved foods B. consuming unpasteurized milk C. inhaling dust containing cells of Nocardia D. touching an individual who has nocardiosis with an ungloved hand

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 19.20 Describe the types of infections attributable to bacteria in the genus Nocardia. Section: 19.06 Topic: Actinomycetes

Topic: Gram-Positive Non-Spore-Forming Bacilli

74.

A seasonal farmworker has been brought into the emergency room showing early symptoms of tetanus, including spastic contractions of face and neck muscles. His coworkers indicated that he had received a puncture wound in his hand a week prior to the onset of symptoms. His tetanus vaccination status is uncertain. Which of the following should be administered to the patient first, as soon as possible?

A. tetanus toxoid B. tetanus immune globulin C. antibiotics D. hyperbaric oxygen chamber therapy E. a tetanus titer ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze Learning Outcome: 19.07 Compare the course of botulism infection and disease with that of tetanus. Section: 19.02 Topic: Gram-Positive Spore-Forming Bacilli

Topic: Nervous System Infections

75.

An 85-year-old man has been experiencingNw UeRig Sh IN tG loT ssB,.C nO igM ht sweats, and a dry cough for several months and just recently he has begun coughing up sputum with tinges of blood in it. Following a chest X-ray showing some white spots on his lungs, an AFB (Mycobacterial) stain and culture were ordered and both were positive for the presence of mycobacteria. He has been PPD positive since his 20’s. Which of the following most accurately describes his current situation? A. latent tubercular infection B. primary tubercular infection C. systemic tuberculosis D. primary tubercular disease E. reactivation tuberculosis

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze Learning Outcome: 19.14 Compare the clinical manifestations of tuberculosis at different stages of the diease. Section: 19.05 Topic: Mycobacteria Topic: Respiratory System Infections


Chapter 19 Testbank Summary Category

# of Questions

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (in cluding bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron).

1

ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage inf ection.

1

ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that ofte n confer critical capabilities.

6

ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determi ned by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations).

2

ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metaboli c characteristics.

4

ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

2

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in benefi cial, neutral or detrimental ways.

73

ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products.

1

ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if po ssible, phase contrast).

1

ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (mediabased, molecular and serological).

2

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function

5

ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways

5

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems

73

ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms

1

ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills

1

Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

24 41

Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand

NURSINGTB.COM

Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply

6

Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze

4

Learning Outcome: 19.01 Describe how cellular characteristics are used to categorize grampositive bacilli into major groups.

10

Learning Outcome: 19.02 Recall the general characteristics of the genus Bacillus.

3

Learning Outcome: 19.03 Distinguish between cutaneous and pulmonary anthrax, and describe how anthrax is contr olled.

4

Learning Outcome: 19.04 State the general characteristics of the genus Clostridium, and distinguish between Bacillu s and Clostridium.

3

Learning Outcome: 19.05 Recall the organisms responsible for myonecrosis and what is required for infection and dis ease to progress.

5

Learning Outcome: 19.06 Clarify why Clostridium difficile-associated disease is associated with the use of antibiotics.

3

Learning Outcome: 19.07 Compare the course of botulism infection and disease with that of tetanus.

14

Learning Outcome: 19.08 Contrast common botulism with infant botulism, and relate prevention and treatment strate gies for both.

7

Learning Outcome: 19.09 Compare food intoxication caused by Bacillus cereus with that caused by Clostridium perfri ngens.

3

Learning Outcome: 19.10 Relate the severity of listeriosis with the immunocompetency of its host.

5

Learning Outcome: 19.11 Explain why people in certain occupations are at increased risk of becoming infected with Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae.

2

Learning Outcome: 19.12 Relate the stages of diphtherial disease to infection and metabolism of its infectious agent.

5

Learning Outcome: 19.13 Outline methods for the detection, prevention, and treatment of diphtheria.

4

Learning Outcome: 19.14 Compare the clinical manifestations of tuberculosis at different stages of the diease.

5

Learning Outcome: 19.15 Understand how tuberculosis is detected and treated.

6

Learning Outcome: 19.16 Contrast the two forms of leprosy.

4

Learning Outcome: 19.17 Relate the effect of M. leprae to the physical manifestation of the disease.

6


Learning Outcome: 19.18 Explain the significance of nontuberculous mycobacterial diseases.

6

Learning Outcome: 19.19 Identify and describe the pathogenic actinomycetes.

2

Learning Outcome: 19.20 Describe the types of infections attributable to bacteria in the genus Nocardia. Section: 19.01 Section: 19.02

3 10 33

Section: 19.03

8

Section: 19.04

9

Section: 19.05

21

Section: 19.06

5

Topic: Actinomycetes

4

Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology

3

Topic: Clinical Microbiology

5

Topic: Culturing Microorganisms

2

Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections

5

Topic: Gram-Positive Non-Spore-Forming Bacilli

20

Topic: Gram-Positive Spore-Forming Bacilli

32

Topic: Identifying Microorganisms

1

Topic: Muscular System Infections

3

Topic: Mycobacteria

21

Topic: Nervous System Infections

12

Topic: Phenotypic Methods for Identification

1

Topic: Respiratory System Infections

19

Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

6 5

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.


Chapter 20 Testbank Student:

1.

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is A. found in soil and water. B. an opportunist that produces many diverse enzymes. C. highly chemical resistant. D. motile. E. All of these choices are correct.

2.

Pseudomonas aeruginosa causes all the following, except A. severe nosocomial infection in burn patients. B. skin rashes from contaminated hot tubs and bath sponges. C. diarrheal illness. D. external ear infection. E. serious infection in lung tissue of cystic fibrosis patients.

3.

Which color pigment is produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa? A. lemon yellow B. red-orange C. golden D. blue-green E. pale orange

4.

Brucellosis is A. a zoonosis. B. seen in the patient as a fluctuating fever, with headache, muscle pain, and weakness. C. associated with pathogen in the blood. NURSINGTB.COM D. an occupational illness of people that work with animals. E. All of these choices are correct.

5.

Which is not associated with tularemia? A. The causative agent is a pathogen of concern on the lists of bioterrorism agents. B. Tularemia is transmitted by arthropod vectors. C. The reservoir can be rabbits and squirrels. D. Symptoms include fever, swollen lymph nodes, ulcerative lesions, conjunctivitis, and pneumonia. E. In animals, tularemia infects the placenta and fetus.

6.

Pasteurization of milk helps to prevent A. tularemia. B. pertussis. C. legionellosis. D. brucellosis. E. shigellosis.

7.

Rabbits and rodents are the reservoirs of the causative agent of A. tularemia. B. pertussis. C. legionellosis. D. brucellosis. E. shigellosis.

8.

Pertussis has the following characteristics, except A. the pathogen has virulence factors to destroy the action of respiratory cilia.


B. the catarrhal stage has persistent, hacking coughs with "whoops". C. an early stage resembles a cold with nasal discharge and sneezing. D. DTaP immunization will prevent it. E. transmission is by respiratory droplets.

9.

Legionella pneumophila A. requires special lab growth media. B. often lives in close associations with amoebas. C. causes fever, cough, and diarrhea. D. causes a severe pneumonia. E. All of these choices are correct.

10. Characteristics of all the members of the family Enterobacteriaceae include A. lactose fermentation. B. their role as normal flora of human intestines. C. production of enterotoxins. D. glucose fermentation. E. All of these choices are correct. 11. Which disease involves transmission by aerosolized water from whirlpool spas, air conditioners, cooling towers, and supermarket vegetable misters? A. legionellosis B. pertussis C. brucellosis D. plague E. traveler's diarrhea 12. Genes for which of the following may be transferred between fecal bacteria? A. toxin production B. capsules C. fimbriae D. hemolysins E. All of these choices are correct.

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13. Escherichia coli infections A. are often transmitted by fecal contaminated water and food. B. include urinary tract infections from normal flora strains. C. involve enterotoxin in traveler's diarrhea. D. can cause an inflammatory disease similar to Shigella dysentery. E. All of these choices are correct. 14. Which is mismatched? A. H antigen - fimbriae B. K antigen - capsule C. O antigen - cell wall, somatic D. All of these choices are correct.

15. E. coli 0157:H7 characteristics include all the following, except A. it only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals. B. it is transmitted by ingestion of contaminated, undercooked food, especially hamburger. C. it causes a bloody diarrhea. D. its reservoir is cattle intestines. E. some cases go on to hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) with possible kidney failure. 16. Salmonella are A. coliforms.


B. motile. C. gram-positive rods. D. lactose fermenters. E. All of these choices are correct.

17. All of the following are coliforms that cause opportunistic and nosocomial infections, except A. Enterobacter. B. Citrobacter. C. Shigella. D. Klebsiella. E. Serratia.

18. Typhoid fever has the following characteristics, except A. it is spread by handling reptiles. B. it is transmitted by ingesting fecally contaminated food and water. C. chronic carriers harbor the pathogens in their gallbladder. D. it can infect the small intestine with fever, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. E. it can become a septicemia, spread to lymph nodes and spleen, and cause liver abscesses. 19. Salmonelloses are A. not caused by Salmonella typhi. B. associated with undercooked poultry and eggs, and reptile and rodent feces. C. gastroenteritis with vomiting and diarrhea. D. enteric fevers that often include septicemia. E. All of these choices are correct. 20. Which is incorrect about shigellosis? A. Outbreaks have occurred in day-care centers. B. It is characterized by watery diarrhea with bloody, mucoid stools, and abdominal cramps. C. It frequently involves septicemia. NURSINGTB.COM D. Human carriers cause fecal transmission. E. It is also called bacillary dysentery.

21. Shigella species have the following characteristics, except A. they are non-motile. B. they release endotoxin. C. they belong to Enterobacteriaceae. D. they infect the small intestine. E. they produce enterotoxin.

22. Salmonella typhi A. multiplies within phagocytes. B. is not a coliform. C. can be treated with antimicrobics. D. causes invasive infection of the small intestine. E. All of these choices are correct.

23. Yersinia pestis A. was virulent in the Middle Ages but is no longer virulent. B. has humans as an endemic reservoir. C. does not respond to antimicrobic drugs. D. is usually transmitted by a flea vector. E. All of these choices are correct.

24. All of the following are associated with bubonic plague, except A. it is transmitted by human feces.


B. it is caused by Yersinia pestis. C. the patient often has enlarged inguinal lymph nodes. D. the patient has fever, headache, nausea, weakness. E. it can progress to a septicemia. 25. Which of the following are true about plague? A. There is a septicemic form called the Black Death. B. There is a bubonic form, during which buboes develop. C. There is a pneumonic form, in which the sputum is highly contagious. D. The disease can be controlled by controlling the rodent population. E. All of these choices are correct. 26. The gram-negative bacillus associated with abscesses from dog and cat bites or scratches is A. Salmonella typhimurium. B. Yersinia enterocolitica. C. Pasteurella multocida. D. Brucella suis. E. Francisella tularensis. 27. Which is incorrect about Yersinia pestis? A. It exhibits bipolar staining. B. It is a gram-negative rod. C. It produces coagulase enzyme. D. It has a capsule. E. It produces enterotoxin. 28. Which of the following is not caused by Haemophilus influenzae? A. bacterial meningitis B. influenza (flu) C. otitis media D. bronchitis E. epiglottitis

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29. Which of the following is an agent of the sexually-transmitted disease chancroid?

A. Haemophilus aegyptius B. Haemophilus influenzae C. Haemophilus parainfluenzae D. Haemophilus ducreyi E. Haemophilus aphrophilus 30. The vaccine for immunity to Haemophilus influenzae serotype b is A. DtaP. B. Pneumovax. C. MMR. D. Hib. 31. Although Burkholderia cepacia could be very useful in bioremediation programs, it is not feasible to use it. Why? A. Because it can cause opportunistic infections in the respiratory tract. B. Because it cannot be cultured in the lab to necessary numbers. C. Because it is too expensive at this time to grow it. D. It encourages the overgrowth of fungus in the environment, which is not desirable. E. It produces a foul odor making it a poor choice for most situations. 32. Which of the following is normal oral and nasopharyngeal flora but is involved in infective endocarditis in adults who have underlying congenital or rheumatic heart disease?


A. Haemophilus influenzae B. Haemophilus aphrophilus C. Haemophilus aegyptius D. Haemophilus ducreyi E. All of these choices are correct. 33. A cause of epiglottitis in children and young adults is A. Haemophilus influenzae. B. Haemophilus ducreyi. C. Haemophilus aegyptius. D. Haemophilus parainfluenzae. E. Haemophilus aphrophilus. 34. Chancroid is characterized by A. sexually transmission. B. geographical distribution in the tropics and subtropics. C. lesions which develop at the portal of entry. D. bubo-like swelling of the lymph nodes. E. All of these choices are correct.

35. All of the following are correct about salmonelloses except A. non-typhoidal strains of salmonella are zoonotic in origin. B. foods contaminated by rodent feces may cause outbreaks. C. outbreaks have been caused by eggs. D. drug resistance of salmonella is on the rise. E. strains are normal flora in dogs and cats. 36. Nationwide, over 100,000 patients a year die from septic shock. This is due to A. the presence of lipopolysaccharide in the outer membrane of bacteria. B. lipoteichoic acid in the cell wall of bacteria. NURSINGTB.COM C. a cytotoxin similar to the diphtheria toxin. D. coagulase. E. a neurotoxin similar to botulin. 37. Which of the following are symptoms of septic shock? A. tachycardia B. reduced blood flow to vital organs C. respiratory failure D. weak pulse E. All of these choices are correct. 38. What is incorrect about pertussis? A. A virulence factor of B. pertussis is toxins that destroy cilia cells is produced. B. The source of infection is direct contact with inhaled droplets. C. The paroxysmal stage is characterized by persistent coughing. D. The number of cases is steadily decreasing since 1976. E. It can cause severe, life-threatening complications in babies. 39. The buildup of mucus and blockage of airways in pertussis is due to A. endotoxin. B. lipopolysaccharide. C. toxins that destroy the ciliated cells of the respiratory tract. D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. E. the presence of a capsule. 40. Which of the following species was once considered so benign that microbiologists used it to trace movements of air currents in hospitals and over cities?


A. Morganella B. Providencia C. Citrobacter D. Serratia E. Legionella 41. Up to 70% of travel-associated gastrointestinal diseases are caused by A. enterotoxigenic strains of E. coli. B. Salmonella. C. Shigella dysenteriae. D. E. coli 0157:H7. E. enteroinvasive E. coli. 42. Which bacteria could be responsible for hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)?

A. eterotoxigeic strains of E. coli B. Salmonella C. Shigella dysenteriae D. E. coli 0157:H7 E. eteroinvasive E. coli 43. Which of the following is not correct concerning Legionnaires'disease? A. L. pneumophila lives in close associations with free-living amoebas. B. The disease is communicable from person to person. C. Symptoms include cough, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. D. It is more common in males over 50 years of age. E. Cases have been traced to the fallout from the Mount Saint Helen's volcano. 44. Which of the following is not correct concerning the plague? A. Mice, voles, and other rodents are primary N loU ng rm erOvM oirs. R-SteIN GTreBs.C B. It is transmitted by flea vectors. C. Less than 10 cases per year occur in the U.S. D. The etiological agent is Yersinia pestis. E. Strains of the plague bacillus are less virulent today compared to strains prevalent in the Middle Ages. 45. Although this bacteria is typically found in soil and water, burn wound patients are susceptible to

infection.

A. Yersinia pestis B. Bordetella pertussis C. Pseudomonas D. E. coli 0157:H7 E. Shigella 46. Whooping cough is transmitted via respiratory droplets. The is characterized by severe coughing.

stage lasts 1–2 weeks, while the

stage

stage lasts 1–2 weeks, while the

stage

A. primary; secondary B. catarrhal; paroxysmal C. incubation; convalescent D. low T-cell; high macrophage E. incubation; invasion 47. Whooping cough is transmitted via respiratory droplets. The is characterized by severe coughing. A. primary; secondary B. catarrhal; paroxysmal C. incubation; convalescent D. low T-cell; high macrophage E. incubation; invasion


48. Whooping cough is transmitted via respiratory droplets. The is characterized by severe coughing.

stage lasts 1–2 weeks, while the

stage

A. primary; secondary B. catarrhal; paroxysmal C. incubation; convalescent D. low T-cell; high macrophage E. incubation; invasion 49. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is resistant to many antimicrobics. True False 50. Proteus species often cause urinary tract infections. True False 51. Legionellosis is a zoonosis. True False 52. The Enterobacteriaceae do not produce oxidase compared to the pseudomonads that do produce oxidase. True False 53. The pathogen that causes Legionnaires'pneumonia also causes a milder infection called Pontiac fever. True False 54. Pseudomonas is an enteric gram-negative rod. True False 55. Plague is a quarantinable disease.

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True False 56. A paroxysmal cough is associated with Legionnaires'disease. True False 57. The IMViC series of biochemical tests are used to identify the Enterobacteriaceae. True False 58. Shigellosis is typically acquired via the respiratory route. True False 59. The virulence factor associated with the events of gram-negative sepsis and septic shock is 60. Fever, vomiting, stiff neck, and neurological impairment are symptoms associated with 61. Inflammation of the lining of the stomach and intestines is called

. .

.

62. Exotoxins that target and bind to surface receptors of the intestinal lining are specifically termed 63. The two true pathogenic enteric genera of the Enterobacteriaceae are

and

.

.


64. The member of the Enterobacteriaceae that has enteroinvasive, enterotoxigenic, enteropathogenic, and enterohemorrhagic strains is . 65. Klebsiella has a large

that contributes to its ability to cause chronic lung infections.

66. Discuss the patients at greatest risk for Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections and describe the type of infections that they acquire. 67. Describe the characteristics of the Enterobacteriaceae and discuss the difference between the coliforms and noncoliforms in the family. 68. Compare and contrast typhoid fever and salmonellosis.

69. Discuss Legionella pneumophila with regard to: a) reservoir, b) virulence, c) transmission, d) types of diseases, and e) prevention. 70. Compare and contrast the three forms of plague with regard to: a) pathogenesis, b) transmission, c) symptoms, and d) prevention. 71. Distinguish the four different pathogenic strains of E. coli with regard to: a) names of the strains, b) virulence factors, and c) symptoms. 72. Compare and contrast shigellosis and salmonellosis. 73. Antibiotics generally reduce the severity of septic shock by lysing the target bacteria. True False 74. E. coli O157:H7 and E. coli O111:H7 differ in their A. Gram reaction. B. capsular antigen. C. flagellar antigen. D. cell wall antigen.

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75. Which are considered true enteric pathogens?

A. Shigella B. Enterobacter C. Proteus D. Klebsiella E. Salmonella 76. The designation CRE refers to A. a group of bacteria that are resistant to many classes of antibiotics. B. an antibiotic that is effective against most gram-negative organisms. C. a number of gram-negative bacteria which frequently cause infections in childhood. D. a common methodology used in hospital inspections to enumerate and destroy bacteria on surfaces— count, record, eliminate. 77. Patients with legionellosis should be placed in isolation when hospitalized due to the contagious nature of the pathogen. True False 78. Occasionally when doing serologic testing to identify strains of Salmonella isolates, the test for different O antigens is negative. What is the most likely explanation? A. The H antigens are masking the O antigens. B. The K antigens are masking the O antigens.


C. The K antigens are maskng the H antigens. D. There is no O antigen present. 79. Species of Shigella are characteristically non-motile. Based on this information you ca predict that members of the Shigella genus A. have K antigens. B. do not have H antigens. C. will not grow on MacConkey agar. D. will not have O antigens. 80. Carbapenem-resistant Enterobacteriaceae (CRE) are typically resistant to carbapenem but sensitive to most other antibiotics. True False 81. The bacteria classified as carbepenem-resistant Enterobacteriaceae (CRE) primarily are species within the genera

A. Salmonella. B. Escherichia. C. Enterobacter. D. Proteus. E. Klebsiella. 82. Which of the following bacterial genera contain members that are very similar physiologically to Pseudomonas and cause a similar spectrum of opportunistic infections? A. Hemophilus B. Stenotrophomonas C. Burkholderia D. Legionella E. both Burkholderia and Stenotrophomonas F. All of these choices are correct. NURSINGTB.COM


Chapter 20 Testbank Key 1.

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is A. found in soil and water. B. an opportunist that produces many diverse enzymes. C. highly chemical resistant. D. motile. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 20.02 Identify those people most at risk of developing a Pseudomonas infection. Section: 20.01

2.

Topic: Aerobic Gram-Negative Bacilli

Pseudomonas aeruginosa causes all the following, except A. severe nosocomial infection in burn patients. B. skin rashes from contaminated hot tubs and bath sponges. C. diarrheal illness. D. external ear infection. E. serious infection in lung tissue of cystic fibrosis patients.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 20.02 Identify those people most at risk of developing a Pseudomonas infection. Section: 20.01

3.

NURSINGTB.COM Which color pigment is produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

Topic: Aerobic Gram-Negative Bacilli Topic: Respiratory System Infections Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections

A. lemon yellow B. red-orange C. golden D. blue-green E. pale orange ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fixation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis). ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 20.02 Identify those people most at risk of developing a Pseudomonas infection. Section: 20.01 Topic: Aerobic Gram-Negative Bacilli

4.

Brucellosis is A. a zoonosis. B. seen in the patient as a fluctuating fever, with headache, muscle pain, and weakness. C. associated with pathogen in the blood. D. an occupational illness of people that work with animals. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 20.04 Recall the pathology and epidemiology of Brucella. Section: 20.02

Topic: Aerobic Gram-Negative Bacilli Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections


5.

Which is not associated with tularemia? A. The causative agent is a pathogen of concern on the lists of bioterrorism agents. B. Tularemia is transmitted by arthropod vectors. C. The reservoir can be rabbits and squirrels. D. Symptoms include fever, swollen lymph nodes, ulcerative lesions, conjunctivitis, and pneumonia. E. In animals, tularemia infects the placenta and fetus.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.05 Explain the epidemiology of Francisella tularensis and the pathology of infection with the bacterium. Section: 20.02

Topic: Aerobic Gram-Negative Bacilli Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

6.

Pasteurization of milk helps to prevent A. tularemia. B. pertussis. C. legionellosis. D. brucellosis. E. shigellosis. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.04 Recall the pathology and epidemiology of Brucella. Section: 20.02

Topic: Aerobic Gram-Negative Bacilli Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

7.

Rabbits and rodents are the reservoirs of the causative agent of A. tularemia. B. pertussis. C. legionellosis. D. brucellosis. E. shigellosis.

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ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 20.05 Explain the epidemiology of Francisella tularensis and the pathology of infection with the bacterium. Section: 20.02

8.

Topic: Aerobic Gram-Negative Bacilli Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

Pertussis has the following characteristics, except A. the pathogen has virulence factors to destroy the action of respiratory cilia. B. the catarrhal stage has persistent, hacking coughs with "whoops". C. an early stage resembles a cold with nasal discharge and sneezing. D. DTaP immunization will prevent it. E. transmission is by respiratory droplets.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.06 Recall the epidemiology of pertussis. Section: 20.02

9.

Topic: Aerobic Gram-Negative Bacilli Topic: Respiratory System Infections

Legionella pneumophila A. requires special lab growth media. B. often lives in close associations with amoebas. C. causes fever, cough, and diarrhea. D. causes a severe pneumonia. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.


ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.08 Identify the bacterium responsible for legionellosis and the environmental conditions that promote its growth. Section: 20.02

Topic: Aerobic Gram-Negative Bacilli Topic: Respiratory System Infections

10.

Characteristics of all the members of the family Enterobacteriaceae include A. lactose fermentation. B. their role as normal flora of human intestines. C. production of enterotoxins. D. glucose fermentation. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways

ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.09 Recall the medically important members of the Enterobacteriaceae and the characteristics they have in common. Learning Outcome: 20.10 Name the biochemical tests commonly used to differentiate common opportunistic enterics. Section: 20.03

Topic: Characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Identifying Microorganisms

11.

Which disease involves transmission by aerosolized water from whirlpool spas, air conditioners, cooling towers, and supermarket vegetable misters? A. legionellosis B. pertussis C. brucellosis D. plague E. traveler's diarrhea ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can inN teU raR ctSwIiN thGbT otB h .hCuO mM an and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 20.08 Identify the bacterium responsible for legionellosis and the environmental conditions that promote its growth. Section: 20.02

Topic: Aerobic Gram-Negative Bacilli Topic: Respiratory System Infections

12.

Genes for which of the following may be transferred between fecal bacteria? A. toxin production B. capsules C. fimbriae D. hemolysins E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.09 Recall the medically important members of the Enterobacteriaceae and the characteristics they have in common.

13.

Escherichia coli infections

Topic: Characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae

A. are often transmitted by fecal contaminated water and food. B. include urinary tract infections from normal flora strains. C. involve enterotoxin in traveler's diarrhea. D. can cause an inflammatory disease similar to Shigella dysentery. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.12 Differentiate among the major enteric pathologies seen among various strains of E. coli.


Learning Outcome: 20.13 Explain the role of E. coli in infantile and traveler's diarrhea. Section: 20.04

Topic: Characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae Topic: Coliform Organisms Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Urogenital System Infections

14.

Which is mismatched? A. H antigen - fimbriae B. K antigen - capsule C. O antigen - cell wall, somatic D. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.11 Explain the importance of the three major surface antigens seen in gram-negative enteric rods. Section: 20.03

Topic: Characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Identifying Microorganisms

15.

Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification

E. coli 0157:H7 characteristics include all the following, except A. it only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals. B. it is transmitted by ingestion of contaminated, undercooked food, especially hamburger. C. it causes a bloody diarrhea. D. its reservoir is cattle intestines. E. some cases go on to hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) with possible kidney failure.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.12 Differentiate among the major enteric pathologies seen among various strains of E. coli. Learning Outcome: 20.14 State the significance of E. coli O157:H7. Section: 20.04

NURSINGTB.COM 16.

Topic: Characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae Topic: Coliform Organisms Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections

Salmonella are A. coliforms. B. motile. C. gram-positive rods. D. lactose fermenters. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 20.16 Differentiate between true noncoliform enteric pathogens and opportunistic genera.

Learning Outcome: 20.17 Distinguish the pathologies of typhoidal and nontyphoidal salmonellosis. Section: 20.05

17.

Topic: Characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections

All of the following are coliforms that cause opportunistic and nosocomial infections, except A. Enterobacter. B. Citrobacter. C. Shigella. D. Klebsiella. E. Serratia.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 20.16 Differentiate between true noncoliform enteric pathogens and opportunistic genera. Section: 20.04

Topic: Characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae


18.

Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Coliform Organisms Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections

Typhoid fever has the following characteristics, except A. it is spread by handling reptiles. B. it is transmitted by ingesting fecally contaminated food and water. C. chronic carriers harbor the pathogens in their gallbladder. D. it can infect the small intestine with fever, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. E. it can become a septicemia, spread to lymph nodes and spleen, and cause liver abscesses.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.17 Distinguish the pathologies of typhoidal and nontyphoidal salmonellosis. Section: 20.05

Topic: Characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Noncoliform Gram-Negative Bacilli

Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

19.

Salmonelloses are A. not caused by Salmonella typhi. B. associated with undercooked poultry and eggs, and reptile and rodent feces. C. gastroenteritis with vomiting and diarrhea. D. enteric fevers that often include septicemia. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.16 Differentiate between true noncoliform enteric pathogens and opportunistic genera.

Learning Outcome: 20.17 Distinguish the pathologies of typhoidal and nontyphoidal salmonellosis. Section: 20.05 Topic: Characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Noncoliform Gram-Negative Bacilli

20.

Which is incorrect about shigellosis?

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A. Outbreaks have occurred in day-care centers. B. It is characterized by watery diarrhea with bloody, mucoid stools, and abdominal cramps. C. It frequently involves septicemia. D. Human carriers cause fecal transmission. E. It is also called bacillary dysentery. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.16 Differentiate between true noncoliform enteric pathogens and opportunistic genera. Learning Outcome: 20.18 Identify the possible sources of Shigella infection.

21.

Section: 20.05 Topic: Characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Noncoliform Gram-Negative Bacilli

Shigella species have the following characteristics, except A. they are non-motile. B. they release endotoxin. C. they belong to Enterobacteriaceae. D. they infect the small intestine. E. they produce enterotoxin.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.16 Differentiate between true noncoliform enteric pathogens and opportunistic genera. Learning Outcome: 20.18 Identify the possible sources of Shigella infection.

Section: 20.05 Topic: Characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Noncoliform Gram-Negative Bacilli


22.

Salmonella typhi A. multiplies within phagocytes. B. is not a coliform. C. can be treated with antimicrobics. D. causes invasive infection of the small intestine. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.17 Distinguish the pathologies of typhoidal and nontyphoidal salmonellosis. Section: 20.05

23.

Topic: Characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Noncoliform Gram-Negative Bacilli

Yersinia pestis A. was virulent in the Middle Ages but is no longer virulent. B. has humans as an endemic reservoir. C. does not respond to antimicrobic drugs. D. is usually transmitted by a flea vector. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.19 Recall the etiologic agent of plague, and create a simple diagram of the infection cycle. Section: 20.05

24.

Topic: Characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae Topic: Noncoliform Gram-Negative Bacilli Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

All of the following are associated with bubonic plague, except A. it is transmitted by human feces. B. it is caused by Yersinia pestis. C. the patient often has enlarged inguinal N lyU mRpShIN noGdTeBs..COM D. the patient has fever, headache, nausea, weakness. E. it can progress to a septicemia.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.19 Recall the etiologic agent of plague, and create a simple diagram of the infection cycle. Section: 20.05

Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology Topic: Characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae Topic: Noncoliform Gram-Negative Bacilli Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

25.

Which of the following are true about plague? A. There is a septicemic form called the Black Death. B. There is a bubonic form, during which buboes develop. C. There is a pneumonic form, in which the sputum is highly contagious. D. The disease can be controlled by controlling the rodent population. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.19 Recall the etiologic agent of plague, and create a simple diagram of the infection cycle. Section: 20.05

Topic: Characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae Topic: Noncoliform Gram-Negative Bacilli Topic: Respiratory System Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

26.

The gram-negative bacillus associated with abscesses from dog and cat bites or scratches is A. Salmonella typhimurium. B. Yersinia enterocolitica. C. Pasteurella multocida. D. Brucella suis.


E. Francisella tularensis. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 20.16 Differentiate between true noncoliform enteric pathogens and opportunistic genera. Section: 20.05

Topic: Aerobic Gram-Negative Bacilli Topic: Noncoliform Gram-Negative Bacilli

Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections

27.

Which is incorrect about Yersinia pestis? A. It exhibits bipolar staining. B. It is a gram-negative rod. C. It produces coagulase enzyme. D. It has a capsule. E. It produces enterotoxin.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 20.19 Recall the etiologic agent of plague, and create a simple diagram of the infection cycle. Section: 20.05

Topic: Characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Noncoliform Gram-Negative Bacilli

Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

28.

Which of the following is not caused by Haemophilus influenzae? A. bacterial meningitis B. influenza (flu) C. otitis media D. bronchitis E. epiglottitis

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember NURSINGTB.COM Learning Outcome: 20.20 Recall the diseases attributable to infection with species in the genus Haemophilus, and identify which is most severe. Section: 20.05

Topic: Aerobic Gram-Negative Bacilli Topic: Nervous System Infections Topic: Noncoliform Gram-Negative Bacilli Topic: Respiratory System Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

29.

Which of the following is an agent of the sexually-transmitted disease chancroid?

A. Haemophilus aegyptius B. Haemophilus influenzae C. Haemophilus parainfluenzae D. Haemophilus ducreyi E. Haemophilus aphrophilus ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 20.20 Recall the diseases attributable to infection with species in the genus Haemophilus, and identify which is most severe. Section: 20.05

Topic: Aerobic Gram-Negative Bacilli Topic: Noncoliform Gram-Negative Bacilli Topic: Urogenital System Infections

30.

The vaccine for immunity to Haemophilus influenzae serotype b is A. DtaP. B. Pneumovax. C. MMR. D. Hib.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 20.20 Recall the diseases attributable to infection with species in the genus Haemophilus, and identify which is most severe. Section: 20.05

Topic: Aerobic Gram-Negative Bacilli


Topic: Nervous System Infections

31.

Although Burkholderia cepacia could be very useful in bioremediation programs, it is not feasible to use it. Why? A. Because it can cause opportunistic infections in the respiratory tract. B. Because it cannot be cultured in the lab to necessary numbers. C. Because it is too expensive at this time to grow it. D. It encourages the overgrowth of fungus in the environment, which is not desirable. E. It produces a foul odor making it a poor choice for most situations.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.03 Name the genera of bacteria that are physiologically similar to Pseudomonas and also account for a variety of opportunistic infections. Section: 20.02 Topic: Aerobic Gram-Negative Bacilli

32.

Which of the following is normal oral and nasopharyngeal flora but is involved in infective endocarditis in adults who have underlying congenital or rheumatic heart disease?

A. Haemophilus influenzae B. Haemophilus aphrophilus C. Haemophilus aegyptius D. Haemophilus ducreyi E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 20.20 Recall the diseases attributable to infection with species in the genus Haemophilus, and identify which is most severe. Section: 20.05

Topic: Aerobic Gram-Negative Bacilli Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

33.

A cause of epiglottitis in children and young adults is A. Haemophilus influenzae. B. Haemophilus ducreyi. C. Haemophilus aegyptius. D. Haemophilus parainfluenzae. E. Haemophilus aphrophilus.

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 20.20 Recall the diseases attributable to infection with species in the genus Haemophilus, and identify which is most severe. Section: 20.05

Topic: Aerobic Gram-Negative Bacilli Topic: Noncoliform Gram-Negative Bacilli

Topic: Respiratory System Infections

34.

Chancroid is characterized by A. sexually transmission. B. geographical distribution in the tropics and subtropics. C. lesions which develop at the portal of entry. D. bubo-like swelling of the lymph nodes. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 20.20 Recall the diseases attributable to infection with species in the genus Haemophilus, and identify which is most severe. Section: 20.05

35.

Topic: Noncoliform Gram-Negative Bacilli Topic: Urogenital System Infections

All of the following are correct about salmonelloses except A. non-typhoidal strains of salmonella are zoonotic in origin. B. foods contaminated by rodent feces may cause outbreaks. C. outbreaks have been caused by eggs. D. drug resistance of salmonella is on the rise.


E. strains are normal flora in dogs and cats. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.16 Differentiate between true noncoliform enteric pathogens and opportunistic genera.

Learning Outcome: 20.17 Distinguish the pathologies of typhoidal and nontyphoidal salmonellosis. Section: 20.05

Topic: Characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Noncoliform Gram-Negative Bacilli

36.

Nationwide, over 100,000 patients a year die from septic shock. This is due to A. the presence of lipopolysaccharide in the outer membrane of bacteria. B. lipoteichoic acid in the cell wall of bacteria. C. a cytotoxin similar to the diphtheria toxin. D. coagulase. E. a neurotoxin similar to botulin. ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.01 Explain the effect of the virulence factor common to all gram-negative bacteria. Section: 20.01

Topic: Aerobic Gram-Negative Bacilli Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

37.

Which of the following are symptoms of septic shock? A. tachycardia B. reduced blood flow to vital organs C. respiratory failure D. weak pulse E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can inN teU raR ctSwIiN thGbT otB h .hCuO mM an and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.01 Explain the effect of the virulence factor common to all gram-negative bacteria. Section: 20.01

38.

What is incorrect about pertussis?

Topic: Aerobic Gram-Negative Bacilli Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

A. A virulence factor of B. pertussis is toxins that destroy cilia cells is produced. B. The source of infection is direct contact with inhaled droplets. C. The paroxysmal stage is characterized by persistent coughing. D. The number of cases is steadily decreasing since 1976. E. It can cause severe, life-threatening complications in babies. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.06 Recall the epidemiology of pertussis. Learning Outcome: 20.07 Describe the stages of whooping cough, and identify those persons most likely to experience the disease. Section: 20.02

Topic: Aerobic Gram-Negative Bacilli Topic: Respiratory System Infections

39.

The buildup of mucus and blockage of airways in pertussis is due to A. endotoxin. B. lipopolysaccharide. C. toxins that destroy the ciliated cells of the respiratory tract. D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. E. the presence of a capsule.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.07 Describe the stages of whooping cough, and identify those persons most likely to experience the disease. Section: 20.04


Topic: Aerobic Gram-Negative Bacilli Topic: Respiratory System Infections

40.

Which of the following species was once considered so benign that microbiologists used it to trace movements of air currents in hospitals and over cities?

A. Morganella B. Providencia C. Citrobacter D. Serratia E. Legionella ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fixation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis). ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 20.16 Differentiate between true noncoliform enteric pathogens and opportunistic genera. Section: 20.04 Topic: Characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae Topic: Coliform Organisms Topic: Noncoliform Gram-Negative Bacilli

41.

Up to 70% of travel-associated gastrointestinal diseases are caused by A. enterotoxigenic strains of E. coli. B. Salmonella. C. Shigella dysenteriae. D. E. coli 0157:H7. E. enteroinvasive E. coli.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 20.12 Differentiate among the major enteric pathologies seen among various strains of E. coli. Learning Outcome: 20.13 Explain the role of E. coli in infantile and traveler's diarrhea. Section: 20.04

Topic: Characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae Topic: Coliform Organisms Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections

42.

Which bacteria could be responsible for heN mUoR lyStiIcNuGrT em cO syMndrome (HUS)? B.iC

A. eterotoxigeic strains of E. coli B. Salmonella C. Shigella dysenteriae D. E. coli 0157:H7 E. eteroinvasive E. coli ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 20.14 State the significance of E. coli O157:H7. Section: 20.04

Topic: Characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae Topic: Coliform Organisms Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections

43.

Which of the following is not correct concerning Legionnaires'disease? A. L. pneumophila lives in close associations with free-living amoebas. B. The disease is communicable from person to person. C. Symptoms include cough, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. D. It is more common in males over 50 years of age. E. Cases have been traced to the fallout from the Mount Saint Helen's volcano.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.08 Identify the bacterium responsible for legionellosis and the environmental conditions that promote its growth. Section: 20.02

Topic: Aerobic Gram-Negative Bacilli Topic: Respiratory System Infections

44.

Which of the following is not correct concerning the plague? A. Mice, voles, and other rodents are primary long-term reservoirs. B. It is transmitted by flea vectors. C. Less than 10 cases per year occur in the U.S.


D. The etiological agent is Yersinia pestis. E. Strains of the plague bacillus are less virulent today compared to strains prevalent in the Middle Ages. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.19 Recall the etiologic agent of plague, and create a simple diagram of the infection cycle. Section: 20.05

45.

Topic: Characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae Topic: Noncoliform Gram-Negative Bacilli Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

Although this bacteria is typically found in soil and water, burn wound patients are susceptible to infection.

A. Yersinia pestis B. Bordetella pertussis C. Pseudomonas D. E. coli 0157:H7 E. Shigella ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 20.02 Identify those people most at risk of developing a Pseudomonas infection. Section: 20.01

Topic: Aerobic Gram-Negative Bacilli Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections

46.

Whooping cough is transmitted via respiratory droplets. The stage is characterized by severe coughing.

stage lasts 1–2 weeks, while the

A. primary; secondary B. catarrhal; paroxysmal C. incubation; convalescent D. low T-cell; high macrophage E. incubation; invasion ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. NURSINGTB.COM ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.07 Describe the stages of whooping cough, and identify those persons most likely to experience the disease. Section: 20.02

Topic: Aerobic Gram-Negative Bacilli Topic: Respiratory System Infections

47.

Whooping cough is transmitted via respiratory droplets. The stage is characterized by severe coughing.

stage lasts 1–2 weeks, while the

A. primary; secondary B. catarrhal; paroxysmal C. incubation; convalescent D. low T-cell; high macrophage E. incubation; invasion ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.07 Describe the stages of whooping cough, and identify those persons most likely to experience the disease. Section: 20.02

Topic: Aerobic Gram-Negative Bacilli Topic: Respiratory System Infections

48.

Whooping cough is transmitted via respiratory droplets. The _stage lasts 1–2 weeks, while the stage is characterized by severe coughing. A. primary; secondary B. catarrhal; paroxysmal C. incubation; convalescent D. low T-cell; high macrophage E. incubation; invasion

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.07 Describe the stages of whooping cough, and identify those persons most likely to experience the disease.


Section: 20.02

Topic: Aerobic Gram-Negative Bacilli Topic: Respiratory System Infections

49.

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is resistant to many antimicrobics. TRUE ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 20.02 Identify those people most at risk of developing a Pseudomonas infection. Section: 20.01

Topic: Aerobic Gram-Negative Bacilli

50.

Proteus species often cause urinary tract infections. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 20.16 Differentiate between true noncoliform enteric pathogens and opportunistic genera. Section: 20.05

Topic: Characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae Topic: Noncoliform Gram-Negative Bacilli Topic: Urogenital System Infections

51.

Legionellosis is a zoonosis. FALSE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.08 Identify the bacterium responsible for legionellosis and the environmental conditions that promote its growth. Section: 20.02

Topic: Aerobic Gram-Negative Bacilli Topic: Noncoliform Gram-Negative Bacilli

Topic: Respiratory System Infections

52.

SIcNoGmTpBa.rCeO The Enterobacteriaceae do not produce oxNidUaR se dM to the pseudomonads that do produce oxidase. TRUE

ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fixation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis). ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 20.10 Name the biochemical tests commonly used to differentiate common opportunistic enterics. Section: 20.03 Topic: Aerobic Gram-Negative Bacilli Topic: Characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae Topic: Clinical Microbiology

53.

The pathogen that causes Legionnaires'pneumonia also causes a milder infection called Pontiac fever. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 20.08 Identify the bacterium responsible for legionellosis and the environmental conditions that promote its growth. Section: 20.02

Topic: Aerobic Gram-Negative Bacilli Topic: Noncoliform Gram-Negative Bacilli

Topic: Respiratory System Infections

54.

Pseudomonas is an enteric gram-negative rod. FALSE ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.02 Identify those people most at risk of developing a Pseudomonas infection. Learning Outcome: 20.09 Recall the medically important members of the Enterobacteriaceae and the characteristics they have in common. Section: 20.01 Section: 20.03

Topic: Aerobic Gram-Negative Bacilli

55.

Plague is a quarantinable disease.


TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.19 Recall the etiologic agent of plague, and create a simple diagram of the infection cycle. Section: 20.05

Topic: Characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae Topic: Noncoliform Gram-Negative Bacilli Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

56.

A paroxysmal cough is associated with Legionnaires'disease. FALSE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.07 Describe the stages of whooping cough, and identify those persons most likely to experience the disease. Learning Outcome: 20.08 Identify the bacterium responsible for legionellosis and the environmental conditions that promote its growth. Section: 20.02

Topic: Aerobic Gram-Negative Bacilli Topic: Respiratory System Infections

57.

The IMViC series of biochemical tests are used to identify the Enterobacteriaceae. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fixation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis). ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.09 Recall the medically important members of the Enterobacteriaceae and the characteristics they have in common. Learning Outcome: 20.10 Name the biochemical tests commonly used to differentiate common opportunistic enterics. Section: 20.03

Topic: Characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Identifying Microorganisms

58.

Shigellosis is typically acquired via the respiratory route. NURSINGTB.COM

FALSE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.09 Recall the medically important members of the Enterobacteriaceae and the characteristics they have in common. Learning Outcome: 20.16 Differentiate between true noncoliform enteric pathogens and opportunistic genera.

Learning Outcome: 20.18 Identify the possible sources of Shigella infection. Section: 20.05 Topic: Characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Noncoliform Gram-Negative Bacilli

59.

The virulence factor associated with the events of gram-negative sepsis and septic shock is

.

endotoxin ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.01 Explain the effect of the virulence factor common to all gram-negative bacteria. Section: 20.01

Topic: Aerobic Gram-Negative Bacilli Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

60.

Fever, vomiting, stiff neck, and neurological impairment are symptoms associated with

.

meningitis ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.20 Recall the diseases attributable to infection with species in the genus Haemophilus, and identify which is most severe. Section: 20.05

Topic: Aerobic Gram-Negative Bacilli Topic: Nervous System Infections

61.

Inflammation of the lining of the stomach and intestines is called

.


gastroenteritis ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.12 Differentiate among the major enteric pathologies seen among various strains of E. coli. Learning Outcome: 20.16 Differentiate between true noncoliform enteric pathogens and opportunistic genera. Section: 20.04

Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections

62.

Exotoxins that target and bind to surface receptors of the intestinal lining are specifically termed . enterotoxins

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.12 Differentiate among the major enteric pathologies seen among various strains of E. coli. Section: 20.04

Topic: Characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae Topic: Coliform Organisms Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections

63.

The two true pathogenic enteric genera of the Enterobacteriaceae are

and

.

Shigella; Salmonella ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.09 Recall the medically important members of the Enterobacteriaceae and the characteristics they have in common. Learning Outcome: 20.16 Differentiate between true noncoliform enteric pathogens and opportunistic genera.

Learning Outcome: 20.17 Distinguish the pathologies of typhoidal and nontyphoidal salmonellosis. Learning Outcome: 20.18 Identify the possible sources of Shigella infection. Section: 20.05

64.

Topic: Characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Noncoliform Gram-Negative Bacilli

The member of the Enterobacteriaceae thaNt U has teTrB oi.nCvOaM sive, enterotoxigenic, enteropathogenic, RSIeNnG and enterohemorrhagic strains is . E. coli

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.12 Differentiate among the major enteric pathologies seen among various strains of E. coli. Learning Outcome: 20.14 State the significance of E. coli O157:H7. Section: 20.04

Topic: Characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae Topic: Coliform Organisms Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections

65.

Klebsiella has a large infections.

that contributes to its ability to cause chronic lung

capsule ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.09 Recall the medically important members of the Enterobacteriaceae and the characteristics they have in common. Learning Outcome: 20.15 Explain the importance of carbepenem-resistant Enterobacteriaceae infections and identify the organisms responsible for the majority of these infections. Section: 20.04 Topic: Characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae Topic: Coliform Organisms Topic: Respiratory System Infections

66.

Discuss the patients at greatest risk for Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections and describe the type of infections that they acquire.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 20.02 Identify those people most at risk of developing a Pseudomonas infection.


Section: 20.01

Topic: Aerobic Gram-Negative Bacilli

67.

Describe the characteristics of the Enterobacteriaceae and discuss the difference between the coliforms and noncoliforms in the family. ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fixation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis). ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 20.09 Recall the medically important members of the Enterobacteriaceae and the characteristics they have in common.

Learning Outcome: 20.10 Name the biochemical tests commonly used to differentiate common opportunistic enterics. Learning Outcome: 20.16 Differentiate between true noncoliform enteric pathogens and opportunistic genera. Section: 20.03 Section: 20.04

Topic: Characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Coliform Organisms Topic: Identifying Microorganisms

Topic: Noncoliform Gram-Negative Bacilli

68.

Compare and contrast typhoid fever and salmonellosis.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 20.09 Recall the medically important members of the Enterobacteriaceae and the characteristics they have in common.

Learning Outcome: 20.17 Distinguish the pathologies of typhoidal and nontyphoidal salmonellosis. Section: 20.05

Topic: Characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Noncoliform Gram-Negative Bacilli

69.

Discuss Legionella pneumophila with regard to: a) reservoir, b) virulence, c) transmission, d) types of diseases, and e) prevention.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 20.08 Identify the bacterium responsible for legionellosis and the environmental conditions that promote its growth.

Section: 20.02

NURSINGTB.COM 70.

Topic: Aerobic Gram-Negative Bacilli Topic: Respiratory System Infections

Compare and contrast the three forms of plague with regard to: a) pathogenesis, b) transmission, c) symptoms, and d) prevention.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 20.19 Recall the etiologic agent of plague, and create a simple diagram of the infection cycle. Section: 20.05

Topic: Characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae Topic: Noncoliform Gram-Negative Bacilli Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

71.

Distinguish the four different pathogenic strains of E. coli with regard to: a) names of the strains, b) virulence factors, and c) symptoms.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 20.09 Recall the medically important members of the Enterobacteriaceae and the characteristics they have in common.

Learning Outcome: 20.12 Differentiate among the major enteric pathologies seen among various strains of E. coli. Learning Outcome: 20.13 Explain the role of E. coli in infantile and traveler's diarrhea. Learning Outcome: 20.14 State the significance of E. coli O157:H7. Section: 20.04

Topic: Characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae Topic: Coliform Organisms Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections

72.

Compare and contrast shigellosis and salmonellosis.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 20.09 Recall the medically important members of the Enterobacteriaceae and the characteristics they have in common.

Learning Outcome: 20.17 Distinguish the pathologies of typhoidal and nontyphoidal salmonellosis. Learning Outcome: 20.18 Identify the possible sources of Shigella infection. Section: 20.05 Topic: Characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections


Topic: Noncoliform Gram-Negative Bacilli

73.

Antibiotics generally reduce the severity of septic shock by lysing the target bacteria. FALSE ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage infection.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 20.01 Explain the effect of the virulence factor common to all gram-negative bacteria. Section: 20.01

Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

74.

E. coli O157:H7 and E. coli O111:H7 differ in their A. Gram reaction. B. capsular antigen. C. flagellar antigen. D. cell wall antigen. ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage infection.

ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 20.01 Explain the effect of the virulence factor common to all gram-negative bacteria. Learning Outcome: 20.11 Explain the importance of the three major surface antigens seen in gram-negative enteric rods. Section: 20.03

Topic: Characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification

75.

Which are considered true enteric pathogens? A. Salmonella

B. Klebsiella C. Proteus D. Enterobacter E. Shigella ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can inN teU raR ctSwIiN thGbT otB h .hCuO mM an and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 20.09 Recall the medically important members of the Enterobacteriaceae and the characteristics they have in common. Learning Outcome: 20.16 Differentiate between true noncoliform enteric pathogens and opportunistic genera. Section: 20.05

76.

The designation CRE refers to

Topic: Characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Noncoliform Gram-Negative Bacilli

A. a group of bacteria that are resistant to many classes of antibiotics. B. an antibiotic that is effective against most gram-negative organisms. C. a number of gram-negative bacteria which frequently cause infections in childhood. D. a common methodology used in hospital inspections to enumerate and destroy bacteria on surfaces— count, record, eliminate. ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.15 Explain the importance of carbepenem-resistant Enterobacteriaceae infections and identify the organisms responsible for the majority of these infections. Section: 20.04 Topic: Characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae

77.

Patients with legionellosis should be placed in isolation when hospitalized due to the contagious nature of the pathogen. FALSE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 20.08 Identify the bacterium responsible for legionellosis and the environmental conditions that promote its growth. Section: 20.02

Topic: Aerobic Gram-Negative Bacilli Topic: Respiratory System Infections


78.

Occasionally when doing serologic testing to identify strains of Salmonella isolates, the test for different O antigens is negative. What is the most likely explanation? A. The H antigens are masking the O antigens. B. The K antigens are masking the O antigens. C. The K antigens are maskng the H antigens. D. There is no O antigen present. ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage infection.

ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze Learning Outcome: 20.11 Explain the importance of the three major surface antigens seen in gram-negative enteric rods. Section: 20.03

Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology Topic: Identifying Microorganisms Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification

79.

Species of Shigella are characteristically non-motile. Based on this information you ca predict that members of the Shigella genus A. have K antigens. B. do not have H antigens. C. will not grow on MacConkey agar. D. will not have O antigens. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage infection.

ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze Learning Outcome: 20.11 Explain the importance of the three major surface antigens seen in gram-negative enteric rods. Section: 20.03

NURSINGTB.COM 80.

Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology Topic: Characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae Topic: Identifying Microorganisms Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification Topic: Noncoliform Gram-Negative Bacilli

Carbapenem-resistant Enterobacteriaceae (CRE) are typically resistant to carbapenem but sensitive to most other antibiotics. FALSE ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.15 Explain the importance of carbepenem-resistant Enterobacteriaceae infections and identify the organisms responsible for the majority of these infections.

Section: 20.04

81.

The bacteria classified as carbepenem-resistant Enterobacteriaceae (CRE) primarily are species within the genera

A. Salmonella. B. Escherichia. C. Enterobacter. D. Proteus. E. Klebsiella. ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 20.15 Explain the importance of carbepenem-resistant Enterobacteriaceae infections and identify the organisms responsible for the majority of these infections. Section: 20.04 Topic: Characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae


82.

Which of the following bacterial genera contain members that are very similar physiologically to Pseudomonas and cause a similar spectrum of opportunistic infections? A. Hemophilus B. Stenotrophomonas C. Burkholderia D. Legionella E. both Burkholderia and Stenotrophomonas F. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 20.03 Name the genera of bacteria that are physiologically similar to Pseudomonas and also account for a variety of opportunistic infections. Section: 20.02 Topic: Aerobic Gram-Negative Bacilli

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Chapter 20 Testbank Summary Category

# of Questions

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (in cluding bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron).

2

ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage inf ection.

4

ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that ofte n confer critical capabilities.

10

ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fix ation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis).

5

ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determi ned by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations).

2

ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metaboli c characteristics.

4

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biologic al means.

1

ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance).

4

ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems.

1

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in benefi cial, neutral or detrimental ways.

65

ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products.

1

ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (mediabased, molecular and serological).

2

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function

12

ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways

10 4

ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow

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ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems

69

ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms

1

ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills

2

Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

27

Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand

43

Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply

10

Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze

2

Learning Outcome: 20.01 Explain the effect of the virulence factor common to all gram-negative bacteria.

5

Learning Outcome: 20.02 Identify those people most at risk of developing a Pseudomonas infection.

7

Learning Outcome: 20.03 Name the genera of bacteria that are physiologically similar to Pseudomonas and also acc ount for a variety of opportunistic infections.

2

Learning Outcome: 20.04 Recall the pathology and epidemiology of Brucella.

2

Learning Outcome: 20.05 Explain the epidemiology of Francisella tularensis and the pathology of infection with the b acterium.

2

Learning Outcome: 20.06 Recall the epidemiology of pertussis.

2

Learning Outcome: 20.07 Describe the stages of whooping cough, and identify those persons most likely to experien ce the disease.

6

Learning Outcome: 20.08 Identify the bacterium responsible for legionellosis and the environmental conditions that pr omote its growth.

8

Learning Outcome: 20.09 Recall the medically important members of the Enterobacteriaceae and the characteristics they have in common.

12

Learning Outcome: 20.10 Name the biochemical tests commonly used to differentiate common opportunistic enterics.

4

Learning Outcome: 20.11 Explain the importance of the three major surface antigens seen in gramnegative enteric rods.

4

Learning Outcome: 20.12 Differentiate among the major enteric pathologies seen among various strains of E. coli.

7

Learning Outcome: 20.13 Explain the role of E. coli in infantile and traveler's diarrhea.

3


Learning Outcome: 20.14 State the significance of E. coli O157:H7.

4

Learning Outcome: 20.15 Explain the importance of carbepenemresistant Enterobacteriaceae infections and identify the organisms responsible for the majority of these infections.

4

Learning Outcome: 20.16 Differentiate between true noncoliform enteric pathogens and opportunistic genera. Learning Outcome: 20.17 Distinguish the pathologies of typhoidal and nontyphoidal salmonellosis. Learning Outcome: 20.18 Identify the possible sources of Shigella infection.

14 8 5

Learning Outcome: 20.19 Recall the etiologic agent of plague, and create a simple diagram of the infection cycle.

7

Learning Outcome: 20.20 Recall the diseases attributable to infection with species in the genus Haemophilus, and id entify which is most severe.

7

Section: 20.01

11

Section: 20.02

19

Section: 20.03

9

Section: 20.04

16

Section: 20.05

28

Topic: Aerobic Gram-Negative Bacilli

38

Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology

5

Topic: Characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae

40

Topic: Clinical Microbiology

8

Topic: Coliform Organisms

11

Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections

21

Topic: Identifying Microorganisms

6

Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification

4

Topic: Nervous System Infections

3

Topic: Noncoliform Gram-Negative Bacilli

29

Topic: Respiratory System Infections

19

Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections NURSINGTB.COM Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Urogenital System Infections

3

.

18 4


Chapter 21 Testbank Student:

1.

Which of the following is not transmitted via an arthropod vector? A. leptospirosis B. Lyme disease C. Rocky Mountain spotted fever D. epidemic typhus E. human Ehrlichosis

2.

Which is not a characteristic of spirochetes? A. all are pathogenic B. gram-negative C. helical shape D. always motile E. endoflagella enclosed in periplasmic space

3.

Treponema pallidum subspecies pallidum A. has humans as the reservoir. B. can cross the placenta. C. is the cause of syphilis. D. is transmitted by direct sexual contact. E. All of these choices are correct.

4.

The chancre of syphilis A. occurs due to small hemorrhaging of capillaries. B. is very painful. C. occurs during the tertiary stage. NURSINGTB.COM D. develops into a lesion with firm margins and an ulcerated central crater. E. All of these choices are correct.

5.

The secondary stage of syphilis A. is when the patient is no longer infectious to others. B. occurs within 10 days of the primary stage. C. is a time when the pathogen enters and multiplies in the blood. D. has no symptoms. E. is when gummas develop in tissues.

6.

During which stage of syphilis does fever, lymphadenopathy, and a red to brown rash occur? A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. latent E. All of these choices are correct

7.

Permanent cardiovascular and neurological damage is seen in which stage of syphilis? A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. latent E. All of these choices are correct.

8.

Treponema, Borrelia, and Leptospira are all A. obligate parasites requiring host cells.


B. curved rods. C. transmitted by arthropod vectors. D. spirochetes. E. bacteria without cell walls. 9.

Yaws, pinta, and bejel are all diseases that A. are slow, progressive skin diseases that can spread to deep tissues. B. are sexually transmitted. C. are caused by arthropod vectors. D. are caused by Vibrio species. E. are respiratory tract infections.

10. Infected animals shed Leptospira interrogans in their A. feces. B. blood. C. urine. D. respiratory secretions. E. saliva.

11. Leptospirosis has all the following characteristics except A. it most common in cattle, horses, pigs, and dogs. B. the pathogen is a spirochete. C. it infects kidneys, liver, brain, and eyes. D. humans acquire it by contact with abraded skin or mucous membranes. E. it can be transmitted by animal bites. 12. Relapsing fever involves A. soft-bodied ticks transmitting Borrelia hermsii. B. initial symptoms of fever, headache, fatigue. C. campers and forestry personnel. NURSINGTB.COM D. human body louse transmitting Borrelia recurrentis. E. All of these choices are correct. 13. The causative agent of Lyme disease is A. Ixodes scapularis. B. Borrelia hermsii. C. Borrelia burgdorferi. D. Ixodes pacificus. E. Leptospira interrogans. 14. Erythema migrans, a bull's-eye rash, at the portal of entry is associated with A. syphilis. B. Rocky Mountain spotted fever. C. relapsing fever. D. Lyme disease. E. leptospirosis. 15. The Argyll-Robertson pupil that is fixed and small, and does not react to light but does accommodate for focusing is associated with A. Lyme disease. B. leptospirosis. C. chlamydiosis. D. Rocky Mountain spotted fever. E. tertiary syphilis. 16. The white-footed mouse, deer, and deer ticks are important to maintaining the transmission cycle associated with


A. Lyme disease. B. leptospirosis. C. chlamydiosis. D. Rocky Mountain spotted fever. E. tertiary syphilis. 17. Control of rodent populations is important for preventing A. tick-borne relapsing fever. B. ornithosis. C. epidemic typhus. D. Q fever. E. All of these choices are correct. 18. Lyme disease involves A. early symptoms of fever, headache, stiff neck. B. crippling polyarthritis and cardiovascular and neurological problems. C. people having contact with wooded or forested areas. D. treatment with antimicrobics. E. All of these choices are correct. 19. The RPR, VDRL, MHA-TP, FTA-ABS, and TPI tests are used to diagnose A. chlamydiosis. B. syphilis. C. Lyme disease. D. Rocky Mountain spotted fever. E. Q fever. 20. Cholera symptoms include A. copious watery diarrhea. B. loss of blood volume. C. acidosis, sunken eyes, thirst. D. hypotension, tachycardia, shock. E. All of the choices are correct.

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21. The virulence of Vibrio cholerae is due to its A. capsule. B. neurotoxin. C. invasive enzymes. D. enterotoxin. E. All of these choices are correct. 22. The most immediate and important treatment needed to prevent death in cholera victims is A. water and electrolyte replacement. B. antimicrobics. C. antitoxin. D. surgery. 23. An organism found in coastal waters that causes a food infection and gastroenteritis due to a variety of contaminated raw and undercooked seafood A. Chlamydia trachomatis. B. Vibrio parahaemolyticus. C. Vibrio cholerae. D. Campylobacter jejuni. E. Helicobacter pylori.


24. In patients with diabetes or liver disease, ingestion of raw oysters contaminated with this organism can lead to death.

A. Vibrio vulnificus B. Vibrio parahaemolyticus C. Vibrio cholerae D. Campylobacter jejuni E. Helicobacter pylori 25. Which of the following organisms causes a type of diarrhea with stools described as watery "rice water stools"?

A. Vibrio vulnificus B. Vibrio parahaemolyticus C. Vibrio cholerae D. Campylobacter jejuni E. Helicobacter pylori 26. Helicobacter pylori causes A. gastritis. B. duodenal ulcers. C. stomach ulcers. D. increased risk for stomach cancer. E. All of these choices are correct. 27. Which is not a characteristic of Helicobacter pylori? A. gram-negative B. produces enteroxin that causes diarrhea C. curved rods D. lives in the stomach E. produces urease that buffers stomach acidity

28. All of the following are characteristics of CampNylUoR baScIN teGr TjeBju.C nO i eM xcept A. it is transmitted through ingestion of contaminated chicken, meat, milk, and water.

B. it causes fever and a watery to bloody diarrhea. C. it infects the stomach. D. it produces an enterotoxin called CJT that stimulates diarrhea. E. it has gram-negative curved rods with darting motility. 29. Characteristics of rickettsias include A. obligate parasites requiring host cells for growth. B. arthropods serve as life cycle hosts and vectors. C. gram-negative coccobacilli. D. host cells are required for ATP metabolism. E. All of these choices are correct. 30. The pathogenesis of rickettsial infections often involves infection of A. endothelial lining of blood vessels. B. gastrointestinal lining. C. dermis of the skin. D. stomach mucosa. E. urinary tract. 31. Which is mismatched? A. epidemic typhus - body louse feces B. murine typhus - flea feces C. rickettsial pox - mite bite D. Rocky Mountain spotted fever - tick bite E. human ehrlichiosis - flea bite


32. Rocky Mountain spotted fever A. is seen in highest numbers along the West Coast. B. is transmitted by Ixodes ticks. C. has symptoms that include fever, headache, and rash. D. never has severe complications. E. All of these choices are correct. 33. Which is incorrect regarding Q fever? A. transmitted by lice B. Pathogen produces resistant spores. C. humans infected from unpasteurized milk and airborne spread D. causes fever, muscle aches, rash, and sometimes pneumonia E. is a zoonosis 34. Which is mismatched? A. Rickettsia rickettsii - epidemic typhus B. Coxiella burnetii - Q fever C. Bartonella quintana - trench fever D. Bartonella henselae - cat scratch disease E. Rickettsia typhi - endemic (murine) typhus 35. The following are characteristics of Chlamydias except A. they are gram-negative. B. they are obligate intracellular parasites that need host cells for growth. C. elementary bodies are the infectious form. D. elementary bodies are metabolically active. E. reticulate bodies differentiate into elementary bodies. 36. Chlamydia trachomatis causes

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A. nongonococcal urethritis (NGU) in males. B. cervicitis in females. C. congenital and adult inclusion conjunctivitis. D. ocular trachoma. E. All of these choices are correct. 37. Ornithosis A. is caused by Chlamydophila pneumoniae. B. is a zoonosis of certain types of birds. C. is a mild, upper respiratory tract illness. D. has humans as a reservoir. E. All of these choices are correct.

38. All of the following are correct about primary atypical pneumonia except A. it is mainly caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae. B. it can also be caused by adenoviruses. C. it is transmitted by aerosol droplets. D. it has symptoms similar to pneumococcal pneumonia. E. community resistance is high. 39. Which is incorrect about Mycoplasma pneumoniae? A. Birds are a reservoir. B. It is a common cause of primary atypical pneumonia. C. Early infections are characterized by fever, malaise, sore throat, headache. D. After 2 to 3 weeks, it develops into an unproductive cough and earache. E. Its cells lack a cell wall.


40. Oral flora bacteria on the tooth surface A. develop a biofilm. B. use fimbriae and slime layers to adhere. C. include streptococci that metabolize sucrose, produce sticky glucans, and form plaque. D. include lactobacilli and streptococci that ferment carbohydrates and produce acids that cause caries. E. All of these choices are correct. 41. Gingivitis is A. primarily caused by anaerobic oral flora. B. erosion of tooth enamel causing a lesion. C. caused by Streptococcus mutans. D. also called NUG. 42. Ureaplasma urealyticum is implicated in which of the following? A. nongonococcal urethritis B. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever C. periodontal disease D. Q fever E. endemic typhus

43. All of the following can positively influence the structure of tooth enamel except A. fluoride. B. lysozyme in saliva. C. antibodies in saliva. D. refined sugar. E. genetics. 44. Treponema vincentii, Bacteroides forsythus, and fusobacteria synergistically are involved in which infection? A. gingivitis B. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG) C. ornithosis D. yaws E. nongonococcal urethritis

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45. Which of the following distinguishes syphilis from yaws? A. Syphilis is caused by a spirochete. B. Syphilis has a primary, secondary, and tertiary stage. C. Syphilis is sexually transmitted. D. Syphilis is treated with antibiotics. E. Syphilis is a slow and progressive disease. 46. Hutchinson's teeth are A. a symptom of untreated Lyme disease. B. a symptom of untreated periodontal disease. C. a symptom of ANUG. D. a symptom of congenital syphilis. E. a symptom of congenital Chlamydia trachomatis. 47. The tertiary stage of syphilis A. is when gummas develop in tissues. B. is when the patient is highly infectious to others. C. occurs within 10 days of the primary stage. D. has no symptoms. E. is when a chancre develops.


48. Which is incorrect about Lyme disease? A. It is a new disease that started in Lyme, Connecticut. B. Its reservoirs are mice and deer. C. It is transmitted by ticks. D. It is nonfatal. E. It can slowly progress and mimic rheumatoid conditions. 49. Which of the following diseases could be prevented with proper sewage disposal and water purification? A. Vibrio parahaemolyticus gastroenteritis B. Vibrio vulnificus gastroenteritis C. cholera D. Lyme disease E. leptospirosis 50. Which is incorrect about leptospirosis? A. It can be avoided by not swimming in livestock watering ponds. B. A vaccine is not available. C. Its principle targets are the kidneys, liver, brain, and eyes. D. It is a zoonosis. E. Weil's syndrome occurs during the second phase of the disease. 51. The spirochete of relapsing fever changes cell surface antigens many times in order to avoid destruction by the immune response. True False 52. Humans are the reservoir for Borrelia hermsii. True False 53. Dental caries are the most common human disease. NURSINGTB.COM True False 54. Lyme disease is only seen in people living in Lyme, Connecticut. True False 55. In severe cases of Rocky Mountain spotted fever, the enlarged lesions of the rash can become necrotic and predispose the patient to gangrene of toes and fingertips. True False 56. Chlamydias and rickettsias are unusual bacteria because they do not have cell walls. True False 57. Chlamydia trachomatis is commonly transmitted directly by sexual activity. True False 58. The highest numbers of cases of Rocky Mountain spotted fever occur along the eastern seaboard. True False 59. NGU is a syndrome among males with chlamydial infections of the urethra. True False 60. Chlamydiosis can lead to endometritis, salpingitis, and pelvic inflammatory disease. True False


61. Syphilitic tumors called

develop in the liver, skin, bone, and cartilage during the tertiary stage of syphilis.

62. Which of the following genera include obligate intracellular parasites of the host?

A. Helicobacter B. Treponema C. Chlamydia D. Rickettsia E. Vibrio 63. Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma differ from other bacteria because they naturally lack a

.

64. Bacteria that lose their cell walls due to penicillin or lysozyme and result in persistent wall-deficient bacteria are called . 65. When plaque becomes mineralized with calcium and phosphate crystals, it becomes a hard, porous substance called . 66. Discuss the specific, distinguishing features that are the underlying reason for referring to the respiratory infection caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae as an atypical pneumonia or walking pneumonia. 67. Discuss the role of Ixodes scapularis and Ixodes pacificus in Lyme disease. 68. Select two diseases that involve different arthropod vectors in their epidemiology. Discuss each disease and describe the role of each vector in the life cycle of the pathogen and establishment of the disease. 69. A patient has a serious lung infection. A sputum sample was taken. The lab technician stated that the lab isolated a bacterium that did not have any peptidoglycan. You hypothesize that the identity of this microbe could possibly be NURSINGTB.COM .

A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. Borrelia burgdorferi C. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Mycoplasma pneumoniae E. Haemophilus influenzae 70. Lyme disease is caused by

transmitted by ticks.

A. Proteus vulgaris B. Rickettsia typhi C. Rickettsia rickettsii D. Borrelia burgdorferi E. Leptospira interrogans 71. According to CDC data, who is more likely to acquire a rickettsial disease? A. Tom who traveled to Arizona for the summer B. Sally who went to the beach at Big Sur, CA C. Mike who visited his aunt in Sub-Saharan Africa D. Phil who stayed home and mowed his lawn E. Harry who works in a pet store and hates fleas and ticks 72. After being bitten by a tick on a hiking trip, Amy had chills, headache, muscle pain, nausea, lethargy, and a rash. Before further testing, Amy’s health care provider gave her information about which of the following diseases? A. anaplasmosis B. ehrlichiosis


C. Shigella and dysentery D. Streptococcus pyogenes and strep throat E. Both anaplasmosis and ehrlichiosis are correct. F. All of these choices are correct 73. Which of the following characteristics is NOT true of Treponema pallidum? A. requires mammalian host B. microaerophilic C. causative agent of syphilis D. solely utilizes glycolysis for energy E. grows well on chocolate agar in the laboratory

74. Discuss the activities or professions that would increase the risk of contracting Coxiella burnetii. 75. Characteristics seen in the curviform bacteria include A. short curved rods or spiral-shaped cells. B. gram-positive cell wall. C. peritrichous flagella. D. an axial filament. E. coccus-shaped cells.

76. Chlamydophila pneumonia A. B. C. D.

is a zoonotic pathogen. causes respiratory infections. can be acquired through the consumption of unpasteurized milk. causes only a mild illness in most infected persons.

77. L-forms may arise A. B. C. D.

when bacteria are exposed to lysozyme. when bacteria are exposed to penicillin. NURSINGTB.COM as bacteria shed their cell wall in preparation for cell division. when nutrients are in short supply.

78. Which of the following is usually the most effective and practical treatment for most cases of bacterial diarrhea? A. delivery of intravenous fluids to rehydrate patients B. treatment with antibiotics C. oral rehydration with solutions of electrolytes and water D. over-the-counter antidiarrheal medications 79. Which of the following is most useful for the definitive diagnosis of Lyme disease? A. blood cultures B. culture of the bull's-eye rash on Lyme-selective agar C. Gram stain of blood specimen D. Lyme antibody titers E. All of these choices are correct. 80. Which of the following would provide the strongest evidence that the arthritis afflicting children in Lyme, Connecticut was due to bacterial infection? A. It responded to treatment with antibiotics. B. It was not contagious. C. It was transmitted by ticks. D. It was accompanied by a rash. E. It affected mostly children. 81. A private in the U.S. Army is stationed at Ft. Bragg, North Carolina. He has been admitted to the infirmary with complaints of a severe headache and high fever. Upon questioning, he revealed that he had received a tick bite several


days earlier. Two days after admission, he starts to develop a rash, beginning on his hands and feet and spreading towards his torso. Which of the following should be considered first in the diagnosis?

A. epidemic typhus B. tularemia C. Lyme disease D. anthrax E. Rocky Mountain spotted fever 82. Based on a patient's medical history, a doctor suspects that the patient may have been exposed to syphilis several years prior. Since the patient is currently asymptomatic, the doctor will be testing to see if the patient is in the latent stage of syphilis. Which of the following would be the most effective way to diagnose syphilis during latency? A. dark-field microscopy of scrapings from chancres B. dark-field microscopy of blood specimens C. culture of blood specimens on syphilis selective agar D. serological testing of blood specimens 83. A strain of Vibrio cholerae has mutated and is no longer able to produce cholera toxin. What is the most likely outcome of infection with this strain? A. The disease it produces will be very similar to that produced by toxin-producing strains. B. It will not be able to survive transit through the stomach so no disease will result. C. Without its toxin, it will not cause diarrhea. D. Without its toxin, it will not be able to invade the intestinal epithelial cells and establish disease. 84. Why are penicillin and other beta lactam antibiotics not used for treatment of primary atypical pneumonia? A. Antibiotics will not work against the viruses that cause primary atypical pneumonia. B. The organism that causes primary atypical pneumonia does not have a cell wall, so penicillin and other beta lactam antibiotics will not work. C. The organism that causes primary atypical pneumonia usually makes beta lactamases. D. Penicillin and other beta lactam antibiotics will not penetrate inside of pulmonary cells where the Mycoplasma resides. NURSINGTB.COM


Chapter 21 Testbank Key 1.

Which of the following is not transmitted via an arthropod vector? A. leptospirosis B. Lyme disease C. Rocky Mountain spotted fever D. epidemic typhus E. human Ehrlichosis

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.04 Justify the strategies used to prevent leptospirosis. Learning Outcome: 21.05 Identify the vectors and behaviors associated with Borrelia infection. Learning Outcome: 21.11 Understand the epidemiology and pathology of Rocky Mountain spotted fever.

Learning Outcome: 21.12 Name the human pathogens within the genera Ehrlichia and Anaplasma and the diseases they cause. Section: 21.01 Topic: Arthropod Vectors Topic: Nervous System Infections Topic: Obligate Intracellular Bacteria Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Transmission of Infections

2.

Which is not a characteristic of spirochetes? A. all are pathogenic B. gram-negative C. helical shape D. always motile E. endoflagella enclosed in periplasmic space ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems NURSINGTB.COM Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.06 Relate the physical characteristics seen in the three groups of curviform bacteria. Section: 21.01

3.

Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology Topic: Spirochetes

Treponema pallidum subspecies pallidum A. has humans as the reservoir. B. can cross the placenta. C. is the cause of syphilis. D. is transmitted by direct sexual contact. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.01 Differentiate among the different stages of syphilis.

Learning Outcome: 21.02 Explain the different ways in which syphilis infections may be diagnosed. Section: 21.01 Topic: Epidemiology Topic: Nervous System Infections Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Spirochetes Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Transmission of Infections Topic: Urogenital System Infections

4.

The chancre of syphilis A. occurs due to small hemorrhaging of capillaries. B. is very painful. C. occurs during the tertiary stage. D. develops into a lesion with firm margins and an ulcerated central crater. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems


Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.01 Differentiate among the different stages of syphilis. Section: 21.01 Topic: Spirochetes Topic: Urogenital System Infections

5.

The secondary stage of syphilis A. is when the patient is no longer infectious to others. B. occurs within 10 days of the primary stage. C. is a time when the pathogen enters and multiplies in the blood. D. has no symptoms. E. is when gummas develop in tissues.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.01 Differentiate among the different stages of syphilis. Section: 21.01

Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Spirochetes Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Urogenital System Infections

6.

During which stage of syphilis does fever, lymphadenopathy, and a red to brown rash occur? A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. latent E. All of these choices are correct

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.01 Differentiate among the different stages of syphilis. Learning Outcome: 21.02 Explain the different ways in which syphilis infections may be diagnosed. Section: 21.01

NURSINGTB.COM 7.

Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Spirochetes Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Urogenital System Infections

Permanent cardiovascular and neurological damage is seen in which stage of syphilis? A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. latent E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.01 Differentiate among the different stages of syphilis. Section: 21.01

Topic: Nervous System Infections Topic: Spirochetes Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Urogenital System Infections Topic: Virulence/Host Damage

8.

Treponema, Borrelia, and Leptospira are all A. obligate parasites requiring host cells. B. curved rods. C. transmitted by arthropod vectors. D. spirochetes. E. bacteria without cell walls.

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand


Learning Outcome: 21.03 List the nonsyphilitic treponematoses. Learning Outcome: 21.05 Identify the vectors and behaviors associated with Borrelia infection. Section: 21.01

Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology Topic: Spirochetes

9.

Yaws, pinta, and bejel are all diseases that A. are slow, progressive skin diseases that can spread to deep tissues. B. are sexually transmitted. C. are caused by arthropod vectors. D. are caused by Vibrio species. E. are respiratory tract infections.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.03 List the nonsyphilitic treponematoses. Section: 21.01

Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Spirochetes

10.

Infected animals shed Leptospira interrogans in their A. feces. B. blood. C. urine. D. respiratory secretions. E. saliva. ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.04 Justify the strategies used to prevent leptospirosis. Section: 21.01

11.

NURSINGTB.COM Leptospirosis has all the following characteristics except

Topic: Nervous System Infections Topic: Obligate Intracellular Bacteria Topic: Spirochetes Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Transmission of Infections

A. it most common in cattle, horses, pigs, and dogs. B. the pathogen is a spirochete. C. it infects kidneys, liver, brain, and eyes. D. humans acquire it by contact with abraded skin or mucous membranes. E. it can be transmitted by animal bites. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.04 Justify the strategies used to prevent leptospirosis. Section: 21.01 Topic: Epidemiology Topic: Nervous System Infections Topic: Spirochetes Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Transmission of Infections

12.

Relapsing fever involves A. soft-bodied ticks transmitting Borrelia hermsii. B. initial symptoms of fever, headache, fatigue. C. campers and forestry personnel. D. human body louse transmitting Borrelia recurrentis. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.05 Identify the vectors and behaviors associated with Borrelia infection. Section: 21.01

Topic: Arthropod Vectors Topic: Epidemiology Topic: Nervous System Infections Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections


Topic: Spirochetes Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Transmission of Infections

13.

The causative agent of Lyme disease is A. Ixodes scapularis. B. Borrelia hermsii. C. Borrelia burgdorferi. D. Ixodes pacificus. E. Leptospira interrogans.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.05 Identify the vectors and behaviors associated with Borrelia infection. Section: 21.01

14.

Topic: Nervous System Infections Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Spirochetes Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Transmission of Infections

Erythema migrans, a bull's-eye rash, at the portal of entry is associated with A. syphilis. B. Rocky Mountain spotted fever. C. relapsing fever. D. Lyme disease. E. leptospirosis.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.05 Identify the vectors and behaviors associated with Borrelia infection. Section: 21.01

Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Spirochetes

15.

The Argyll-Robertson pupil that is fixed and small, and does not react to light but does accommodate for focusing is associated with NURSINGTB.COM A. Lyme disease. B. leptospirosis. C. chlamydiosis. D. Rocky Mountain spotted fever. E. tertiary syphilis.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 08.06 Practice safe microbiology, using appropriate protective and emergency procedures. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.01 Differentiate among the different stages of syphilis. Section: 21.01 Topic: Nervous System Infections

Topic: Spirochetes

16.

The white-footed mouse, deer, and deer ticks are important to maintaining the transmission cycle associated with A. Lyme disease. B. leptospirosis. C. chlamydiosis. D. Rocky Mountain spotted fever. E. tertiary syphilis. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.05 Identify the vectors and behaviors associated with Borrelia infection. Section: 21.01

Topic: Nervous System Infections Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Spirochetes Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Transmission of Infections


17.

Control of rodent populations is important for preventing A. tick-borne relapsing fever. B. ornithosis. C. epidemic typhus. D. Q fever. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.05 Identify the vectors and behaviors associated with Borrelia infection. Section: 21.01 Topic: Epidemiology Topic: Spirochetes Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Transmission of Infections

18.

Lyme disease involves A. early symptoms of fever, headache, stiff neck. B. crippling polyarthritis and cardiovascular and neurological problems. C. people having contact with wooded or forested areas. D. treatment with antimicrobics. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 01.03 Human impact on the environment influences the evolution of microorganisms (e.g., emerging diseases and the selection of antibiotic resistance). ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.05 Identify the vectors and behaviors associated with Borrelia infection. Section: 21.01 Topic: Epidemiology NURSINGTB.COM Topic: Nervous System Infections Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Spirochetes Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Transmission of Infections

19.

The RPR, VDRL, MHA-TP, FTA-ABS, and TPI tests are used to diagnose A. chlamydiosis. B. syphilis. C. Lyme disease. D. Rocky Mountain spotted fever. E. Q fever. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.02 Explain the different ways in which syphilis infections may be diagnosed. Section: 21.01

Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification Topic: Spirochetes Topic: Urogenital System Infections

20.

Cholera symptoms include A. copious watery diarrhea. B. loss of blood volume. C. acidosis, sunken eyes, thirst. D. hypotension, tachycardia, shock. E. All of the choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.07 Understand the pathogenesis of cholera. Section: 21.02

Topic: Curviform Gram-Negative Bacteria


Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Virulence/Host Damage

21.

The virulence of Vibrio cholerae is due to its A. capsule. B. neurotoxin. C. invasive enzymes. D. enterotoxin. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.07 Understand the pathogenesis of cholera. Section: 21.02

Topic: Curviform Gram-Negative Bacteria Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Virulence/Host Damage

22.

The most immediate and important treatment needed to prevent death in cholera victims is A. water and electrolyte replacement. B. antimicrobics. C. antitoxin. D. surgery.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.07 Understand the pathogenesis of cholera. Section: 21.02

Topic: Curviform Gram-Negative Bacteria Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Virulence/Host Damage

23.

An organism found in coastal waters that causes a food infection and gastroenteritis due to a variety of contaminated raw and undercooked seafood NURSINGTB.COM A. Chlamydia trachomatis. B. Vibrio parahaemolyticus. C. Vibrio cholerae. D. Campylobacter jejuni. E. Helicobacter pylori. ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.08 Name the usual source of infection for each genus of commonly acquired curviform bacteria. Section: 21.02

Topic: Curviform Gram-Negative Bacteria Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Transmission of Infections

24.

In patients with diabetes or liver disease, ingestion of raw oysters contaminated with this organism can lead to death. A. Vibrio vulnificus B. Vibrio parahaemolyticus C. Vibrio cholerae D. Campylobacter jejuni E. Helicobacter pylori

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.08 Name the usual source of infection for each genus of commonly acquired curviform bacteria. Section: 21.02

Topic: Curviform Gram-Negative Bacteria Topic: Epidemiology Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Transmission of Infections

25.

Which of the following organisms causes a type of diarrhea with stools described as watery "rice water stools"?


A. Vibrio vulnificus B. Vibrio parahaemolyticus C. Vibrio cholerae D. Campylobacter jejuni E. Helicobacter pylori ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.07 Understand the pathogenesis of cholera. Section: 21.02

Topic: Curviform Gram-Negative Bacteria Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Virulence/Host Damage

26.

Helicobacter pylori causes A. gastritis. B. duodenal ulcers. C. stomach ulcers. D. increased risk for stomach cancer. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.09 Explain the adaptations present in Helicobacter that help the pathogen survive in the stomach. Section: 21.02

Topic: Curviform Gram-Negative Bacteria Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections

27.

Which is not a characteristic of Helicobacter pylori? A. gram-negative B. produces enteroxin that causes diarrhea C. curved rods D. lives in the stomach E. produces urease that buffers stomach a NcUidRitSyINGTB.COM ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.09 Explain the adaptations present in Helicobacter that help the pathogen survive in the stomach. Section: 21.02

28.

Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology Topic: Curviform Gram-Negative Bacteria Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections

All of the following are characteristics of Campylobacter jejuni except A. it is transmitted through ingestion of contaminated chicken, meat, milk, and water. B. it causes fever and a watery to bloody diarrhea. C. it infects the stomach. D. it produces an enterotoxin called CJT that stimulates diarrhea. E. it has gram-negative curved rods with darting motility. ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.08 Name the usual source of infection for each genus of commonly acquired curviform bacteria. Section: 21.02

Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology Topic: Curviform Gram-Negative Bacteria Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Transmission of Infections Topic: Virulence/Host Damage

29.

Characteristics of rickettsias include A. obligate parasites requiring host cells for growth.


B. arthropods serve as life cycle hosts and vectors. C. gram-negative coccobacilli. D. host cells are required for ATP metabolism. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.10 Recall the characteristics seen in the Rickettsia that make them unique. Section: 21.03

Topic: Arthropod Vectors Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology Topic: Nervous System Infections Topic: Obligate Intracellular Bacteria Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Transmission of Infections

30.

The pathogenesis of rickettsial infections often involves infection of A. endothelial lining of blood vessels. B. gastrointestinal lining. C. dermis of the skin. D. stomach mucosa. E. urinary tract.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.10 Recall the characteristics seen in the Rickettsia that make them unique. Learning Outcome: 21.11 Understand the epidemiology and pathology of Rocky Mountain spotted fever.

Section: 21.03 Topic: Obligate Intracellular Bacteria Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Virulence/Host Damage

31.

Which is mismatched?

NURSINGTB.COM

A. epidemic typhus - body louse feces B. murine typhus - flea feces C. rickettsial pox - mite bite D. Rocky Mountain spotted fever - tick bite E. human ehrlichiosis - flea bite ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.10 Recall the characteristics seen in the Rickettsia that make them unique. Learning Outcome: 21.11 Understand the epidemiology and pathology of Rocky Mountain spotted fever.

Section: 21.03 Topic: Arthropod Vectors Topic: Obligate Intracellular Bacteria Topic: Transmission of Infections

32.

Rocky Mountain spotted fever A. is seen in highest numbers along the West Coast. B. is transmitted by Ixodes ticks. C. has symptoms that include fever, headache, and rash. D. never has severe complications. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.10 Recall the characteristics seen in the Rickettsia that make them unique. Learning Outcome: 21.11 Understand the epidemiology and pathology of Rocky Mountain spotted fever.

Section: 21.03 Topic: Obligate Intracellular Bacteria Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections


33.

Which is incorrect regarding Q fever? A. transmitted by lice B. Pathogen produces resistant spores. C. humans infected from unpasteurized milk and airborne spread D. causes fever, muscle aches, rash, and sometimes pneumonia E. is a zoonosis

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.13 Recognize behaviors or activities that would increase the risk of contracting Q fever. Section: 21.03

Topic: Obligate Intracellular Bacteria Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Transmission of Infections

34.

Which is mismatched? A. Rickettsia rickettsii - epidemic typhus B. Coxiella burnetii - Q fever C. Bartonella quintana - trench fever D. Bartonella henselae - cat scratch disease E. Rickettsia typhi - endemic (murine) typhus

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.11 Understand the epidemiology and pathology of Rocky Mountain spotted fever. Learning Outcome: 21.12 Name the human pathogens within the genera Ehrlichia and Anaplasma and the diseases they cause.

Learning Outcome: 21.13 Recognize behaviors or activities that would increase the risk of contracting Q fever. Section: 21.03 Topic: Nervous System Infections Topic: Obligate Intracellular Bacteria Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

35.

The following are characteristics of Chlamydias except A. they are gram-negative. NURSINGTB.COM B. they are obligate intracellular parasites that need host cells for growth. C. elementary bodies are the infectious form. D. elementary bodies are metabolically active. E. reticulate bodies differentiate into elementary bodies. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.14 Recall the body systems commonly affected by species in the genus Chlamydia. Section: 21.03

Topic: Obligate Intracellular Bacteria

36.

Chlamydia trachomatis causes A. nongonococcal urethritis (NGU) in males. B. cervicitis in females. C. congenital and adult inclusion conjunctivitis. D. ocular trachoma. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.14 Recall the body systems commonly affected by species in the genus Chlamydia. Section: 21.03

Topic: Obligate Intracellular Bacteria Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Urogenital System Infections

37.

Ornithosis A. is caused by Chlamydophila pneumoniae. B. is a zoonosis of certain types of birds. C. is a mild, upper respiratory tract illness. D. has humans as a reservoir. E. All of these choices are correct.


ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.15 Recall the names and characteristics of diseases attributable to infection with Chlamydophila species. Section: 21.03

38.

Topic: Obligate Intracellular Bacteria Topic: Respiratory System Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Transmission of Infections

All of the following are correct about primary atypical pneumonia except A. it is mainly caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae. B. it can also be caused by adenoviruses. C. it is transmitted by aerosol droplets. D. it has symptoms similar to pneumococcal pneumonia. E. community resistance is high.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.16 Describe the characteristics and diseases of mycoplasmas. Section: 21.04 Topic: Mycoplasmas Topic: Respiratory System Infections

39.

Which is incorrect about Mycoplasma pneumoniae? A. Birds are a reservoir. B. It is a common cause of primary atypical pneumonia. C. Early infections are characterized by fever, malaise, sore throat, headache. D. After 2 to 3 weeks, it develops into an unproductive cough and earache. E. Its cells lack a cell wall.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.16 Describe the characteristics and diseases of mycoplasmas. Section: 21.04

NURSINGTB.COM

Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology Topic: Mycoplasmas Topic: Respiratory System Infections

Topic: Transmission of Infections

40.

Oral flora bacteria on the tooth surface A. develop a biofilm. B. use fimbriae and slime layers to adhere. C. include streptococci that metabolize sucrose, produce sticky glucans, and form plaque. D. include lactobacilli and streptococci that ferment carbohydrates and produce acids that cause caries. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. ASM Objective: 05.02 Most bacteria in nature live in biofilm communities. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.18 Discuss the formation of plaque on tooth surfaces. Section: 21.05

Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections

41.

Gingivitis is A. primarily caused by anaerobic oral flora. B. erosion of tooth enamel causing a lesion. C. caused by Streptococcus mutans. D. also called NUG.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.19 Relate the formation of plaque to periodontitis. Section: 21.05

Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections


42.

Ureaplasma urealyticum is implicated in which of the following? A. nongonococcal urethritis B. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever C. periodontal disease D. Q fever E. endemic typhus

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.16 Describe the characteristics and diseases of mycoplasmas. Section: 21.04 Topic: Mycoplasmas Topic: Urogenital System Infections

43.

All of the following can positively influence the structure of tooth enamel except A. fluoride. B. lysozyme in saliva. C. antibodies in saliva. D. refined sugar. E. genetics.

ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.18 Discuss the formation of plaque on tooth surfaces. Section: 21.05

Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections

44.

Treponema vincentii, Bacteroides forsythus, and fusobacteria synergistically are involved in which infection? A. gingivitis B. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG) C. ornithosis NURSINGTB.COM D. yaws E. nongonococcal urethritis

ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.19 Relate the formation of plaque to periodontitis. Section: 21.05

Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections

45.

Which of the following distinguishes syphilis from yaws? A. Syphilis is caused by a spirochete. B. Syphilis has a primary, secondary, and tertiary stage. C. Syphilis is sexually transmitted. D. Syphilis is treated with antibiotics. E. Syphilis is a slow and progressive disease.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.01 Differentiate among the different stages of syphilis.

Learning Outcome: 21.03 List the nonsyphilitic treponematoses. Section: 21.01 Topic: Spirochetes

Topic: Transmission of Infections

46.

Hutchinson's teeth are A. a symptom of untreated Lyme disease. B. a symptom of untreated periodontal disease. C. a symptom of ANUG.


D. a symptom of congenital syphilis. E. a symptom of congenital Chlamydia trachomatis. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.01 Differentiate among the different stages of syphilis. Section: 21.01

Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Spirochetes Topic: Virulence/Host Damage

47.

The tertiary stage of syphilis A. is when gummas develop in tissues. B. is when the patient is highly infectious to others. C. occurs within 10 days of the primary stage. D. has no symptoms. E. is when a chancre develops.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.01 Differentiate among the different stages of syphilis. Section: 21.01

Topic: Nervous System Infections Topic: Spirochetes Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Urogenital System Infections

48.

Which is incorrect about Lyme disease? A. It is a new disease that started in Lyme, Connecticut. B. Its reservoirs are mice and deer. C. It is transmitted by ticks. D. It is nonfatal. E. It can slowly progress and mimic rheumatoid conditions.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can inN teU raR ctSwIiN thGbT otB h .hCuO mM an and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.05 Identify the vectors and behaviors associated with Borrelia infection. Section: 21.01

Topic: Arthropod Vectors Topic: Epidemiology Topic: Spirochetes Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Transmission of Infections

49.

Which of the following diseases could be prevented with proper sewage disposal and water purification? A. Vibrio parahaemolyticus gastroenteritis B. Vibrio vulnificus gastroenteritis C. cholera D. Lyme disease E. leptospirosis

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.07 Understand the pathogenesis of cholera. Section: 21.02

Topic: Curviform Gram-Negative Bacteria Topic: Epidemiology Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Transmission of Infections

50.

Which is incorrect about leptospirosis? A. It can be avoided by not swimming in livestock watering ponds. B. A vaccine is not available. C. Its principle targets are the kidneys, liver, brain, and eyes.


D. It is a zoonosis. E. Weil's syndrome occurs during the second phase of the disease. ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.04 Justify the strategies used to prevent leptospirosis. Section: 21.01 Topic: Spirochetes Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Transmission of Infections

51.

The spirochete of relapsing fever changes cell surface antigens many times in order to avoid destruction by the immune response. TRUE ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage infection.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.05 Identify the vectors and behaviors associated with Borrelia infection. Section: 21.01 Topic: Spirochetes Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Virulence/Host Damage

52.

Humans are the reservoir for Borrelia hermsii. FALSE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.05 Identify the vectors and behaviors associated with Borrelia infection. Section: 21.01 Topic: Epidemiology Topic: Spirochetes

53.

Dental caries are the most common human disease. NURSINGTB.COM TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.19 Relate the formation of plaque to periodontitis. Section: 21.05

Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections

54.

Lyme disease is only seen in people living in Lyme, Connecticut. FALSE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 08.06 Practice safe microbiology, using appropriate protective and emergency procedures. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.05 Identify the vectors and behaviors associated with Borrelia infection. Section: 21.01 Topic: Epidemiology Topic: Spirochetes Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

55.

In severe cases of Rocky Mountain spotted fever, the enlarged lesions of the rash can become necrotic and predispose the patient to gangrene of toes and fingertips. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.11 Understand the epidemiology and pathology of Rocky Mountain spotted fever. Section: 21.03

Topic: Obligate Intracellular Bacteria Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Virulence/Host Damage


56.

Chlamydias and rickettsias are unusual bacteria because they do not have cell walls. FALSE ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.10 Recall the characteristics seen in the Rickettsia that make them unique. Section: 21.03 Topic: Obligate Intracellular Bacteria

57.

Chlamydia trachomatis is commonly transmitted directly by sexual activity. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.14 Recall the body systems commonly affected by species in the genus Chlamydia. Section: 21.03

Topic: Obligate Intracellular Bacteria Topic: Transmission of Infections Topic: Urogenital System Infections

58.

The highest numbers of cases of Rocky Mountain spotted fever occur along the eastern seaboard. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.11 Understand the epidemiology and pathology of Rocky Mountain spotted fever. Section: 21.03 Topic: Epidemiology Topic: Obligate Intracellular Bacteria Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Transmission of Infections

59.

NGU is a syndrome among males with chlamydial infections of the urethra. NURSINGTB.COM TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.14 Recall the body systems commonly affected by species in the genus Chlamydia. Section: 21.03

Topic: Obligate Intracellular Bacteria Topic: Transmission of Infections Topic: Urogenital System Infections

60.

Chlamydiosis can lead to endometritis, salpingitis, and pelvic inflammatory disease. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.14 Recall the body systems commonly affected by species in the genus Chlamydia. Section: 21.03

Topic: Obligate Intracellular Bacteria Topic: Urogenital System Infections Topic: Virulence/Host Damage

61.

Syphilitic tumors called of syphilis.

develop in the liver, skin, bone, and cartilage during the tertiary stage

gummas ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.01 Differentiate among the different stages of syphilis. Section: 21.01

Topic: Nervous System Infections Topic: Spirochetes Topic: Virulence/Host Damage


62.

Which of the fF oO lloUwNinDgAgTeInOeNraS iInNclM udIe oO blB igIaOte ac1e0lT luH larEp raIsOitNesTA ofLtA heRO hoTsE t?ST BANK CR LOinGtrY DaIT

A. Vibrio B. Rickettsia C. Chlamydia D. Treponema E. Helicobacter ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.10 Recall the characteristics seen in the Rickettsia that make them unique. Learning Outcome: 21.14 Recall the body systems commonly affected by species in the genus Chlamydia. Section: 21.03

Topic: Obligate Intracellular Bacteria

63.

Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma differ from other bacteria because they naturally lack a . cell wall ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.16 Describe the characteristics and diseases of mycoplasmas. Section: 21.04

Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology Topic: Mycoplasmas Topic: Urogenital System Infections

64.

Bacteria that lose their cell walls due to penicillin or lysozyme and result in persistent wall-deficient bacteria are called . L-forms ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage infection.

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function NURSINGTB.COM ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.17 Describe how L forms may arise.

Section: 21.04

65.

When plaque becomes mineralized with calcium and phosphate crystals, it becomes a hard, porous substance called . calculus

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.18 Discuss the formation of plaque on tooth surfaces. Section: 21.05

Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections

66.

Discuss the specific, distinguishing features that are the underlying reason for referring to the respiratory infection caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae as an atypical pneumonia or walking pneumonia.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 21.16 Describe the characteristics and diseases of mycoplasmas. Section: 21.04 Topic: Mycoplasmas Topic: Respiratory System Infections

67.

Discuss the role of Ixodes scapularis and Ixodes pacificus in Lyme disease. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.05 Identify the vectors and behaviors associated with Borrelia infection. Section: 21.01

Topic: Arthropod Vectors Topic: Epidemiology Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Transmission of Infections


68.

Select two diseases that involve different arthropod vectors in their epidemiology. Discuss each disease and describe the role of each vector in the life cycle of the pathogen and establishment of the disease. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 21.10 Recall the characteristics seen in the Rickettsia that make them unique. Learning Outcome: 21.11 Understand the epidemiology and pathology of Rocky Mountain spotted fever.

Learning Outcome: 21.13 Recognize behaviors or activities that would increase the risk of contracting Q fever. Section: 21.03 Topic: Arthropod Vectors Topic: Epidemiology Topic: Obligate Intracellular Bacteria Topic: Transmission of Infections

69.

A patient has a serious lung infection. A sputum sample was taken. The lab technician stated that the lab isolated a bacterium that did not have any peptidoglycan. You hypothesize that the identity of this microbe could possibly be .

A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. Borrelia burgdorferi C. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Mycoplasma pneumoniae E. Haemophilus influenzae ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage infection. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 21.16 Describe the characteristics and diseases of mycoplasmas. Section: 21.04

Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Mycoplasmas Topic: Respiratory System Infections

70.

Lyme disease is caused by

A. Proteus vulgaris B. Rickettsia typhi C. Rickettsia rickettsii

transmitted by ticks.

NURSINGTB.COM

D. Borrelia burgdorferi E. Leptospira interrogans ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.05 Identify the vectors and behaviors associated with Borrelia infection. Section: 21.01

Topic: Arthropod Vectors Topic: Spirochetes Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Transmission of Infections

71.

According to CDC data, who is more likely to acquire a rickettsial disease? A. Tom who traveled to Arizona for the summer B. Sally who went to the beach at Big Sur, CA C. Mike who visited his aunt in Sub-Saharan Africa D. Phil who stayed home and mowed his lawn E. Harry who works in a pet store and hates fleas and ticks ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 21.10 Recall the characteristics seen in the Rickettsia that make them unique. Section: 21.03

Topic: Arthropod Vectors Topic: Epidemiology Topic: Obligate Intracellular Bacteria

72.

After being bitten by a tick on a hiking trip, Amy had chills, headache, muscle pain, nausea, lethargy, and a rash. Before further testing, Amy’s health care provider gave her information about which of the following diseases? A. anaplasmosis


B. ehrlichiosis C. Shigella and dysentery D. Streptococcus pyogenes and strep throat E. Both anaplasmosis and ehrlichiosis are correct. F. All of these choices are correct ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 21.12 Name the human pathogens within the genera Ehrlichia and Anaplasma and the diseases they cause. Section: 21.03

Topic: Arthropod Vectors Topic: Obligate Intracellular Bacteria Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Transmission of Infections

73.

Which of the following characteristics is NOT true of Treponema pallidum? A. requires mammalian host B. microaerophilic C. causative agent of syphilis D. solely utilizes glycolysis for energy E. grows well on chocolate agar in the laboratory ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fixation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.02 Explain the different ways in which syphilis infections may be diagnosed. Section: 21.01

74.

Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Spirochetes

Discuss the activities or professions that would increase the risk of contracting Coxiella burnetii.

ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. NURSINGTB.COM ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.13 Recognize behaviors or activities that would increase the risk of contracting Q fever. Section: 21.03 Topic: Epidemiology Topic: Obligate Intracellular Bacteria Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Transmission of Infections

75.

Characteristics seen in the curviform bacteria include A. short curved rods or spiral-shaped cells. B. gram-positive cell wall. C. peritrichous flagella. D. an axial filament. E. coccus-shaped cells.

76.

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.06 Relate the physical characteristics seen in the three groups of curviform bacteria. Section: 21.02 Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology Topic: Curviform Gram-Negative Bacteria

Chlamydophila pneumonia A. is a zoonotic pathogen. B. causes respiratory infections. C. can be acquired through the consumption of unpasteurized milk. D. causes only a mild illness in most infected persons.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.15 Recall the names and characteristics of diseases attributable to infection with Chlamydophila species. Topic: Obligate Intracellular Bacteria


Topic: Respiratory System Infections

77.

L-forms may arise A. B. C. D.

when bacteria are exposed to lysozyme. when bacteria are exposed to penicillin. as bacteria shed their cell wall in preparation for cell division. when nutrients are in short supply. ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage infection.

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways

Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.17 Describe how L forms may arise. Section: 21.04

Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology

NURSINGTB.COM


78.

Which of the following is usually the most effective and practical treatment for most cases of bacterial diarrhea? A. delivery of intravenous fluids to rehydrate patients B. treatment with antibiotics C. oral rehydration with solutions of electrolytes and water D. over-the-counter antidiarrheal medications

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 21.07 Understand the pathogenesis of cholera. Section: 21.02

Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections

79.

Which of the following is most useful for the definitive diagnosis of Lyme disease? A. blood cultures B. culture of the bull's-eye rash on Lyme-selective agar C. Gram stain of blood specimen D. Lyme antibody titers E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 21.05 Identify the vectors and behaviors associated with Borrelia infection. Section: 21.01

Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification Topic: Spirochetes

80.

Which of the following would provide the strongest evidence that the arthritis afflicting children in Lyme, Connecticut was due to bacterial infection? NURSINGTB.COM A. It responded to treatment with antibiotics. B. It was not contagious. C. It was transmitted by ticks. D. It was accompanied by a rash. E. It affected mostly children.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 21.05 Identify the vectors and behaviors associated with Borrelia infection. Section: 21.01

Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Spirochetes Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

81.

A private in the U.S. Army is stationed at Ft. Bragg, North Carolina. He has been admitted to the infirmary with complaints of a severe headache and high fever. Upon questioning, he revealed that he had received a tick bite several days earlier. Two days after admission, he starts to develop a rash, beginning on his hands and feet and spreading towards his torso. Which of the following should be considered first in the diagnosis?

A. epidemic typhus B. tularemia C. Lyme disease D. anthrax E. Rocky Mountain spotted fever ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 21.11 Understand the epidemiology and pathology of Rocky Mountain spotted fever. Section: 21.03 Topic: Epidemiology Topic: Obligate Intracellular Bacteria Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections


82.

Based on a patient's medical history, a doctor suspects that the patient may have been exposed to syphilis several years prior. Since the patient is currently asymptomatic, the doctor will be testing to see if the patient is in the latent stage of syphilis. Which of the following would be the most effective way to diagnose syphilis during latency? A. dark-field microscopy of scrapings from chancres B. dark-field microscopy of blood specimens C. culture of blood specimens on syphilis selective agar D. serological testing of blood specimens

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 21.01 Differentiate among the different stages of syphilis. Learning Outcome: 21.02 Explain the different ways in which syphilis infections may be diagnosed. Section: 21.01

Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification Topic: Spirochetes Topic: Urogenital System Infections

83.

A strain of Vibrio cholerae has mutated and is no longer able to produce cholera toxin. What is the most likely outcome of infection with this strain? A. The disease it produces will be very similar to that produced by toxin-producing strains. B. It will not be able to survive transit through the stomach so no disease will result. C. Without its toxin, it will not cause diarrhea. D. Without its toxin, it will not be able to invade the intestinal epithelial cells and establish disease.

ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 21.07 Understand the pathogenesis of cholera. Section: 21.02

Topic: Curviform Gram-Negative Bacteria Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections

84.

Mfor treatment of primary atypical pneumonia? Why are penicillin and other beta lactam anNtU ibR ioStiIcNsGnToB t .uCsO ed A. Antibiotics will not work against the viruses that cause primary atypical pneumonia. B. The organism that causes primary atypical pneumonia does not have a cell wall, so penicillin and other beta lactam antibiotics will not work. C. The organism that causes primary atypical pneumonia usually makes beta lactamases. D. Penicillin and other beta lactam antibiotics will not penetrate inside of pulmonary cells where the Mycoplasma resides. ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage infection.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 21.16 Describe the characteristics and diseases of mycoplasmas. Section: 21.04

Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology Topic: Mycoplasmas Topic: Respiratory System Infections

21-30 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.


Chapter 21 Testbank Summary Category

# of Questions

ASM Objective: 01.03 Human impact on the environment influences the evolution of microorganisms (e.g., emerging diseases and the selection of antibiotic resistance).

1

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (in cluding bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron).

5

ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage inf ection.

5

ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that ofte n confer critical capabilities.

5

ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fix ation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis).

1

ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determi ned by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations).

2

ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metaboli c characteristics.

6

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biologic al means.

5

ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance).

1

ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems.

6

ASM Objective: 05.02 Most bacteria in nature live in biofilm communities.

1

ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

9

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in benefi cial, neutral or detrimental ways.

76

ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (mediabased, molecular and serological).

1

ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Objective: 08.06 Practice safe microbiology, using appropriate protective and emergency procedures.

1 2

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution

1

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function

13

ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways

10

ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow

1

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems

76

ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills

2

Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

30

Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand

42

Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply

12

Learning Outcome: 21.01 Differentiate among the different stages of syphilis.

11

Learning Outcome: 21.02 Explain the different ways in which syphilis infections may be diagnosed.

5

Learning Outcome: 21.03 List the nonsyphilitic treponematoses.

3

Learning Outcome: 21.04 Justify the strategies used to prevent leptospirosis.

4

Learning Outcome: 21.05 Identify the vectors and behaviors associated with Borrelia infection.

16

Learning Outcome: 21.06 Relate the physical characteristics seen in the three groups of curviform bacteria.

2

Learning Outcome: 21.07 Understand the pathogenesis of cholera.

7

Learning Outcome: 21.08 Name the usual source of infection for each genus of commonly acquired curviform bacteri a.

3

Learning Outcome: 21.09 Explain the adaptations present in Helicobacter that help the pathogen survive in the stoma ch.

2

Learning Outcome: 21.10 Recall the characteristics seen in the Rickettsia that make them unique.

8

Learning Outcome: 21.11 Understand the epidemiology and pathology of Rocky Mountain spotted fever.

9

Learning Outcome: 21.12 Name the human pathogens within the genera Ehrlichia and Anaplasma and the diseases t hey cause.

3


Learning Outcome: 21.13 Recognize behaviors or activities that would increase the risk of contracting Q fever.

4

Learning Outcome: 21.14 Recall the body systems commonly affected by species in the genus Chlamydia. Learning Outcome: 21.15 Recall the names and characteristics of diseases attributable to infection with Chlamydophi la species. Learning Outcome: 21.16 Describe the characteristics and diseases of mycoplasmas.

6 2 7

Learning Outcome: 21.17 Describe how L forms may arise.

2

Learning Outcome: 21.18 Discuss the formation of plaque on tooth surfaces.

3

Learning Outcome: 21.19 Relate the formation of plaque to periodontitis.

3

Section: 21.01

34

Section: 21.02

13

Section: 21.03

21

Section: 21.04

9

Section: 21.05

6

Topic: Arthropod Vectors

10

Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology

12

Topic: Clinical Microbiology

5

Topic: Curviform Gram-Negative Bacteria

12

Topic: Epidemiology

16

Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections

18

Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification

3

Topic: Mycoplasmas

7

Topic: Nervous System Infections

14

Topic: Obligate Intracellular Bacteria

24

Topic: Respiratory System Infections

7

Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Spirochetes

19

NURSINGTB.COM

32

Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

30

Topic: Transmission of Infections

29

Topic: Urogenital System Infections Topic: Virulence/Host Damage

14 12

.


Chapter 22 Testbank Student:

1.

The ability of a fungus to grow as a yeast or a mold depending on its environmental temperature is called A. fungal virulence. B. parasitism. C. dimorphism. D. dermatophytes. E. opportunistic fungi.

2.

The routes of entry for most fungi into the body are A. urinary and reproductive. B. digestive and respiratory. C. blood and wounds. D. respiratory and cutaneous.

3.

Amphotericin B, nystatin, and the imidazoles are all A. mycotoxins. B. fungal enzymes. C. antifungal drugs. D. culture media supplements for fungi.

4.

All of the following are dimorphic, true fungal pathogens except A. Candida. B. Histoplasma. C. Blastomyces. D. Coccidioides. E. Paracoccidioides.

5.

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The terms used for the four general types of fungal infection include the following, except A. cutaneous. B. blood-borne. C. systemic. D. subcutaneous. E. superficial.

6.

Characteristics of Histoplasma capsulatum include A. it grows in moist soil, rich in nitrogen from bird and bat guano. B. it is a yeast with a capsule. C. it is a dermatophyte. D. it grows in dry, arid soil.

7.

The highest incidence of histoplasmosis in the United States occurs in the A. Southeast. B. Southwest. C. East and Midwest. D. Northeast. E. Rocky Mountains.

8.

Which is incorrect about histoplasmosis? A. The pathogen grows inside macrophages. B. It is transmitted by inhalation of spores. C. Respiratory infections range from mild to severe. D. Chronic cases have symptoms similar to tuberculosis.


E. Histoplasmosis never spreads to sites outside the respiratory tract. 9.

All of the following pertain to coccidioidomycosis, except A. the pathogen grows best in soil with bird and bat guano. B. fungomas occur in the lungs of those infected. C. it is transmitted by inhalation of arthrospores. D. it often has symptoms of fever, chest pain, cough, headache, malaise. E. it is also called valley fever.

10. Blastomyces dermatitidis A. causes Gilchrist's disease and Chicago's disease. B. is transmitted by skin contact with fomites. C. is a dermatophyte. D. usually enters through the gastrointestinal tract E. All of these choices are correct. 11. Paracoccidioides is A. a superficial mycosis. B. endemic to regions of Central and South America. C. only seen in immunocompromised patients. D. also known as valley fever. E. All of these choices are correct. 12. Which is incorrect about Sporothrix schenckii? A. It is dimorphic. B. It lives in the soil. C. It is often transmitted by soil-contaminated thorns. D. It causes a superficial cutaneous infection. E. It causes nodules along regional lymphatic channels. 13. Chromoblastomycosis

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A. is caused by saprobes with dark-pigmented mycelia and spores.

B. is caused by dimorphic fungi. C. is a systemic infection. D. is a serious respiratory tract infection. E. has a peak incidence in Alaska. 14. Mycetoma is A. a subcutaneous infection that looks like a tumor. B. also called athlete's foot. C. caused by dermatophytes. D. only seen in the Midwest. E. All of these choices are correct. 15. Dermatophytoses are A. fungal infections of the skin, hair, and nails. B. also called ringworm. C. also called tineas. D. often time-consuming to eradicate completely. E. All of these choices are correct.

16. Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton A. produce tissue-damaging mycotoxins. B. all cause athlete's foot. C. have reservoirs that include humans, animals, and soils. D. frequently cause septicemia.


E.

are dimorphic fungi.

17.

Which is mismatched? A. Tinea capitis - ringworm of the beard B. Tinea pedis - ringworm of the foot C. Tinea cruis - ringworm of the groin D. Tinea corporis - ringworm of the body E. Tinea unguium - ringworm of the nails

18. Transmission of tineas include A. human to human. B. animal to human. C. soil to human. D. fomites to human. E. All of these choices are correct. 19. Which is incorrect about tinea versicolor? A. It is a superficial mycosis. B. It is often transmitted by fomites. C. It is caused by the yeast Malassezia furfur. D. It causes disruption of skin pigmentation resulting in a mottled appearance. E. It occasionally causes systemic infections in compromised patients.

20. All of the following pertain to Candida albicans, except A. it is an opportunistic yeast. B. small numbers found in the mouth, intestines, genitalia, and skin. C. it has a large capsule. D. infections often arise from an endogenous source. E. persistent moist skin influences infection. 21. Candidiasis includes

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A. intertriginous infection of skin sites. B. vulvovaginal infection. C. oral cavity and esophageal infections. D. skin and nail infections. E. All of these choices are correct.

22. Cryptococcus neoformans has the following characteristics, except A. it is commonly found in the human mouth, intestines, and genitalia. B. it is an encapsulated yeast. C. it can be found in high numbers in soil containing pigeon droppings. D. it usually enters body by inhalation. E. it primarily infects patients with AIDS, cancer, and diabetes. 23. Cryptococcosis can include A. pulmonary infection. B. septicemia. C. meningitis. D. bone infection. E. All of these choices are correct. 24. Oral thrush is caused by A. Cryptococcus neoformans. B. Candida albicans. C. Malassezia furfur. D. Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci.


25. This opportunist is the most frequent cause of life-threatening pneumonia in AIDS patients.

A. Cryptococcus neoformans B. Candida albicans C. Malassezia furfur D. Pneumocystis jirovecii. 26. Aspergillosis includes all the following, except A. there are no effective drugs to treat the infection. B. noninvasive infections of the eyelids, sinuses, conjunctiva, and ear canals. C. a pneumonia that disseminates to the brain. D. most cases are due to A. fumigatus. E. life-threatening infections in AIDS, leukemia, and transplant patients.

27. Serious mycoses treated with amphotericin B include all the following, except A. zygomycosis. B. invasive aspergillosis. C. Pneumocystis pneumonia. D. coccidioidomycosis. E. histoplasmosis. 28. Decaying vegetation, such as piles of leaves and compost matter, allows growth and transmission of A. Cryptococcus. B. Aspergillus. C. Candida. D. Dermatophytes. E. Pneumocystis. 29. This organism commonly contaminates grains, corn, and peanuts and produces a potent mycotoxin called aflatoxin? NURSINGTB.COM

A. Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci B. Fusarium species C. Rhizopus species D. Geotrichum candidum E. Aspergillus flavus

30. Pneumocystis jirovecii A. has protozoan and fungal characteristics. B. lacks ergosterol in its plasma membrane. C. is an obligate parasite. D. causes serious infection in elderly, premature infants, and AIDS patients. E. All of these choices are correct.

31. All of the following areas are subject to intertriginous infections, except A. between folds of the groin. B. under breasts. C. in the armpit. D. behind the knees. E. chest. 32. Which of the following is a rare mycosis caused by a mold commonly found in soil, in dairy products, and on the human body? A. bark stripper's disease B. valley fever C. sporotrichosis D. geotrichosis


E. pneumocystis pneumonia

33. All of the following are fungal allergies, except A. bark stripper's disease. B. farmer's lung. C. teapicker's lung. D. thrush. E. All of these choices are correct. 34. Which of the following is incorrect about sporotrichosis? A. It is also known as valley fever. B. Humans and other mammals are susceptible. C. Heat packs applied to skin lesions can resolve some infections. D. A prick of a thorn is the classic mode of infection. E. The sporotrichin skin test can be used to determine prior infection. 35. The primary portal of entry for fungal infections is A. the urinary tract. B. through skin. C. the respiratory tract. D. the nervous system. E. the digestive system. 36. Which antifungal drug inhibits cell division of the fungus? A. ketoconazole (Nizoral) B. fluconazole C. terbinafine (Lamisil) D. amphotericin B E. griseofulvin NURSINGTB.COM 37. Which of the following are likely to predispose pat ients to fungal infections? A. cancer B. AIDS C. tuberculosis D. malnutrition E. All of these choices are correct. 38. Alternative names for Blastomyces dermatitidis include A. Gilchrist's disease. B. valley fever. C. rose Gardener's disease. D. teapicker's lung. E. farmer's lung. 39. Which is incorrect about chromoblastomycosis? A. It is characterized by highly visible verrucous lesions. B. Treatment is with pentamidine. C. Its etiological agent are soil saprobes with dark-pigmented mycelia and spores. D. Sclerotic cells are produced. E. It is frequently confused with yaws, cancer, and syphilis. 40. Sabouraud's dextrose agar is a lab medium for supporting growth of fungi. True False 41. Most mycoses are not communicable. True False


42. Thermal dimorphism is associated with opportunistic fungi and never seen in true fungal pathogens. True False 43. The most common route of transmission for true pathogenic fungi is ingestion of spores. True False 44. Blastomycosis begins as a respiratory infection that can spread to the skin. True False 45. Sporotrichosis is associated with soil high in pigeon droppings that is introduced into subcutaneous tissue. True False 46. Amphotericin B is an over-the-counter drug to treat athlete's foot. True False 47. Trichophyton species infect hair, skin, and nails, whereas Microsporum species infect hair and skin but not nails. True False 48. Skin testing with antigen is used to diagnose ringworm. True False 49. Dermatophyte spores can survive for years on fomites. True False 50. Tough, warty verrucous lesions are seen in patients with tinea versicolor. NURSINGTB.COM True False 51. Fungal spores are common allergens that cause hypersensitivities. True False 52. Patient's with madura foot develop swollen, ulcerative, tumor-like skin lesions called mycetomas. True False 53. All fungi are heterotrophic and can break their substrates down by secreting enzymes. True False 54. Fungi cannot be found growing in nutritionally poor and adverse conditions. True False 55. Adding salt and sugar can control the growth of certain bacteria but not fungi. True False 56. Diseases caused by fungi are termed

.

57. Fungi that exhibit thermal dimorphism grow as 58.

at 30°C and as

at 37°C.

are superficial mycoses that cause white masses or dark masses to develop on the hair shaft.


59. Dermatophytes digest the protein

, found in the skin, hair, and nails.

60. The typical transmission of dimorphic fungi is inhalation of

.

61. The nodular, tumor-like fungal growths seen in certain chronic lung infections are called 62. Rhizopus, Absidia, and Mucor are mold genera that cause the disease called

.

.

63. Explain why Pneumocystis jirovecii has been difficult to classify, and why traditional antifungal drugs are not effective against this microbe. 64. Discuss why the use of broad-spectrum oral antimicrobics often lead to oral thrush and vulvovaginal candidiasis superinfections. 65. Compare and contrast Histoplasmosis, Coccidioidomycosis, and Blastomycosis with regard to: a) causative agent, b) reservoir, c) transmission, and d) disease, including complications. 66. Discuss at least 5 factors that predispose certain individuals to opportunistic fungal infections. 67. Which of the following is/are true of cryptococcal meningitis? A. B. C. D.

The pathogen usually enters the body via the respiratory route. It is usually a mild form of meningitis that is self-limiting. It is most often seen in patients with AIDS. The pathogen can be detected in CSF specimens by negative staining. E. It is most often caused by Cryptococcus gattii. 68. Which of the following appears to play the least significant role in antifungal defenses in humans? A. phagocytosis B. IgG antibodies C. cell-mediated immunity D. inflammatory response

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69. The cell-mediated immune response appears to play a more significant role in antifungal defenses than does the antibody-mediated immune response. True False 70. Which of the following provides information about the nature and potential cause of a fungal infection the most quickly? A. culture on Sabouraud's dextrose agar B. testing for temperature dimorphism C. direct examination of fresh specimens (wet mounts, KOH preps, brighteners) D. culture on selective and differential media 71. During a visit to her doctor, a woman pointed out a red rash that occurred just under her breasts. The doctor collected a scraping of the affected area, suspended the scrapings in potassium hydroxide, and then examined it microscopically. Upon viewing, she detected budding yeast cells and pseudohyphae. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. yeast infection - candidiasis B. dermatophyte infection C. subcutaneous mycosis D. yeast infection - cryptococcosis 72. A 42-year-old male construction worker in southern Arizona developed a cold-like illness, experiencing a chronic cough, chest pain, headaches, and general fatigue. When the symptoms did not abate after several weeks, he


visited his physician who ordered microscopic examination and culture of his sputum specimen. Direct microscopic exam demonstrated the presence of large spherule structures full of endsospores. The specimen was cultured at both 25°C and 37°C. The plate incubated at 25°C grew tan colonies with a fluffy white center. Examination of these colonies microscopically showed branching septate hyphae. As the culture matured, the hyphae fragmented into arthrospores. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. candidiasis B. coccidioidomycosis C. blastomycosis D. histoplasmosis E. sporotrichosis 73. Ben, a 17-year-old wrestler, developed a lesion on his upper back. The lesion was relatively round and consisted of a pink scaly rough center and raised edge. While it wasn’t painful, the itching was bothersome to the young man. His coach advised him to see his doctor about the lesion. Upon visiting his physician, a scraping of the affected area was collected and placed in a drop of KOH, then examined under the microscope, revealing slender fungal hyphae. A culture was inoculated, which grew a spreading flat fuzzy colony after 10 days of incubation at 30°C. Microscopic examination of the culture demonstrated the presence of both macroconidia and microconidia. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. candidiasis B. sporotrichosis C. tinea versicolor D. dermatophytosis E. cutaneous blastomycosis

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Chapter 22 Testbank Key 1.

The ability of a fungus to grow as a yeast or a mold depending on its environmental temperature is called A. fungal virulence. B. parasitism. C. dimorphism. D. dermatophytes. E. opportunistic fungi. ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.01 Distinguish between the characteristics indicative of true versus opportunistic fungal pathogens. Section: 22.01

2.

The routes of entry for most fungi into the body are

Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Culturing Microorganisms Topic: Respiratory System Infections Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

A. urinary and reproductive. B. digestive and respiratory. C. blood and wounds. D. respiratory and cutaneous. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.06N SU um eT thB e .aC sO peM cts of systemic mycotic infection common to all fungal pathogens. RmSaIrNizG Learning Outcome: 22.08 Summarize the pathology of each of the four fungal pathogens. Section: 22.01 Topic: Respiratory System Infections Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

3.

Amphotericin B, nystatin, and the imidazoles are all A. mycotoxins. B. fungal enzymes. C. antifungal drugs. D. culture media supplements for fungi. ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 22.19 Relate the options available for treatment of common fungal opportunists. Section: 22.01 Section: 22.06

4.

All of the following are dimorphic, true fungal pathogens except

Topic: Opportunistic Fungal Pathogens Topic: Respiratory System Infections Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: True Fungal Pathogens Topic:Antimicrobials for Eukaryotic Infections

A. Candida. B. Histoplasma. C. Blastomyces. D. Coccidioides. E. Paracoccidioides. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand


5.

Learning Outcome: 22.01 Distinguish between the characteristics indicative of true versus opportunistic fungal pathogens. Learning Outcome: 22.08 Summarize the pathology of each of the four fungal pathogens. Section: 22.01 Topic: Opportunistic Fungal Pathogens Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

The terms used for the four general types of fungal infection include the following, except A. cutaneous. B. blood-borne. C. systemic. D. subcutaneous. E. superficial.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.08 Summarize the pathology of each of the four fungal pathogens. Section: 22.02

Topic: Opportunistic Fungal Pathogens Topic: Respiratory System Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

6.

Characteristics of Histoplasma capsulatum include A. it grows in moist soil, rich in nitrogen from bird and bat guano. B. it is a yeast with a capsule. C. it is a dermatophyte. D. it grows in dry, arid soil. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.03 Explain the geographical limits associated with fungal pathogens.

Learning Outcome: 22.07 Recall the habitat, geographic distribution, and diseases associated with Histoplasma capsulatum, Coccidiodes immitis, Blastomyces dermatitidis, and Paracoccidioides brasilensis. NURSINGTB.COM Section: 22.01 Section: 22.02 Topic: Respiratory System Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

7.

The highest incidence of histoplasmosis in the United States occurs in the A. Southeast. B. Southwest. C. East and Midwest. D. Northeast. E. Rocky Mountains.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 22.03 Explain the geographical limits associated with fungal pathogens. Learning Outcome: 22.07 Recall the habitat, geographic distribution, and diseases associated with Histoplasma capsulatum, Coccidiodes immitis, Blastomyces dermatitidis, and Paracoccidioides brasilensis.

8.

Which is incorrect about histoplasmosis?

Section: 22.01 Section: 22.02 Topic: Respiratory System Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

A. The pathogen grows inside macrophages. B. It is transmitted by inhalation of spores. C. Respiratory infections range from mild to severe. D. Chronic cases have symptoms similar to tuberculosis. E. Histoplasmosis never spreads to sites outside the respiratory tract. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.07 Recall the habitat, geographic distribution, and diseases associated with Histoplasma capsulatum, Coccidiodes immitis,


Blastomyces dermatitidis, and Paracoccidioides brasilensis. Learning Outcome: 22.08 Summarize the pathology of each of the four fungal pathogens. Learning Outcome: 22.09 Understand the means by which infection with Histoplasma capsulatum, Coccidioides immitis, Blastomyces dermatitidis, and Paracoccidioides brasilensis is diagnosed in the laboratory. Section: 22.02 Topic: Respiratory System Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

9.

All of the following pertain to coccidioidomycosis, except A. the pathogen grows best in soil with bird and bat guano. B. fungomas occur in the lungs of those infected. C. it is transmitted by inhalation of arthrospores. D. it often has symptoms of fever, chest pain, cough, headache, malaise. E. it is also called valley fever.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.07 Recall the habitat, geographic distribution, and diseases associated with Histoplasma capsulatum, Coccidiodes immitis, Blastomyces dermatitidis, and Paracoccidioides brasilensis. Learning Outcome: 22.08 Summarize the pathology of each of the four fungal pathogens. Learning Outcome: 22.09 Understand the means by which infection with Histoplasma capsulatum, Coccidioides immitis, Blastomyces dermatitidis, and Paracoccidioides brasilensis is diagnosed in the laboratory. Section: 22.02 Topic: Respiratory System Infections Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

10.

Blastomyces dermatitidis A. causes Gilchrist's disease and Chicago's disease. B. is transmitted by skin contact with fomites. C. is a dermatophyte. D. usually enters through the gastrointestinal tract E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember NURSINGTB.COM Learning Outcome: 22.07 Recall the habitat, geographic distribution, and diseases associated with Histoplasma capsulatum, Coccidiodes immitis, Blastomyces dermatitidis, and Paracoccidioides brasilensis. Learning Outcome: 22.08 Summarize the pathology of each of the four fungal pathogens. Learning Outcome: 22.09 Understand the means by which infection with Histoplasma capsulatum, Coccidioides immitis, Blastomyces dermatitidis, and Paracoccidioides brasilensis is diagnosed in the laboratory. Section: 22.02 Topic: Respiratory System Infections Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

11.

Paracoccidioides is A. a superficial mycosis. B. endemic to regions of Central and South America. C. only seen in immunocompromised patients. D. also known as valley fever. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 22.03 Explain the geographical limits associated with fungal pathogens.

Learning Outcome: 22.07 Recall the habitat, geographic distribution, and diseases associated with Histoplasma capsulatum, Coccidiodes immitis, Blastomyces dermatitidis, and Paracoccidioides brasilensis. Learning Outcome: 22.08 Summarize the pathology of each of the four fungal pathogens. Section: 22.01 Section: 22.02

Topic: Respiratory System Infections Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

12.

Which is incorrect about Sporothrix schenckii? A. It is dimorphic. B. It lives in the soil. C. It is often transmitted by soil-contaminated thorns. D. It causes a superficial cutaneous infection. E. It causes nodules along regional lymphatic channels.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.


ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.10 Describe the progression of a typical subcutaneous mycosis.

Learning Outcome: 22.11 Summarize the major characteristics of Sporothrix schenckii. Section: 22.03

Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

13.

Chromoblastomycosis A. is caused by saprobes with dark-pigmented mycelia and spores. B. is caused by dimorphic fungi. C. is a systemic infection. D. is a serious respiratory tract infection. E. has a peak incidence in Alaska.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.12 Recall the characteristics of chromoblastomycosis and phaeohyphomycosis.

Learning Outcome: 22.13 Describe the progression of events leading to mycetoma and chromoblastomycosis, as well as the prognosis of each disease. Section: 22.03 Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

14.

Mycetoma is A. a subcutaneous infection that looks like a tumor. B. also called athlete's foot. C. caused by dermatophytes. D. only seen in the Midwest. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.12 Recall the characteristics of chromoblastomycosis and phaeohyphomycosis.

Learning Outcome: 22.13 Describe the progression of events leading to mycetoma and chromoblastomycosis, as well as the prognosis of each disease. NURSINGTB.COM Section: 22.03 Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

15.

Dermatophytoses are A. fungal infections of the skin, hair, and nails. B. also called ringworm. C. also called tineas. D. often time-consuming to eradicate completely. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.14 Name the three dermatophytic genera and the diseases they cause.

Learning Outcome: 22.15 Understand the pathology, epidemiology, and treatment of ringworm. Section: 22.04

16.

Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton A. produce tissue-damaging mycotoxins. B. all cause athlete's foot. C. have reservoirs that include humans, animals, and soils. D. frequently cause septicemia. E. are dimorphic fungi.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 22.14 Name the three dermatophytic genera and the diseases they cause.

Learning Outcome: 22.15 Understand the pathology, epidemiology, and treatment of ringworm. Section: 22.04 Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

17.

Which is mismatched?


A. Tinea capitis - ringworm of the beard B. Tinea pedis - ringworm of the foot C. Tinea cruis - ringworm of the groin D. Tinea corporis - ringworm of the body E. Tinea unguium - ringworm of the nails ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 22.14 Name the three dermatophytic genera and the diseases they cause.

Learning Outcome: 22.15 Understand the pathology, epidemiology, and treatment of ringworm. Section: 22.04

Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

18.

Transmission of tineas include A. human to human. B. animal to human. C. soil to human. D. fomites to human. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.15 Understand the pathology, epidemiology, and treatment of ringworm. Section: 22.04

Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

19.

Which is incorrect about tinea versicolor? A. It is a superficial mycosis. B. It is often transmitted by fomites. C. It is caused by the yeast Malassezia furfur. D. It causes disruption of skin pigmentation resulting in a mottled appearance. E. It occasionally causes systemic infectioNnU sR inScIN om prBo.m isM ed patients. GT CO

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.16 Explain the significance of superficial mycoses. Section: 22.05

20.

Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

All of the following pertain to Candida albicans, except A. it is an opportunistic yeast. B. small numbers found in the mouth, intestines, genitalia, and skin. C. it has a large capsule. D. infections often arise from an endogenous source. E. persistent moist skin influences infection.

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.17 Name the most common opportunistic fungal pathogens. Learning Outcome: 22.18 Explain the epidemiology of candidiasis.

Section: 22.06 Topic: Opportunistic Fungal Pathogens Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Urogenital System Infections

21.

Candidiasis includes A. intertriginous infection of skin sites. B. vulvovaginal infection. C. oral cavity and esophageal infections. D. skin and nail infections. E. All of these choices are correct.


ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.17 Name the most common opportunistic fungal pathogens. Learning Outcome: 22.18 Explain the epidemiology of candidiasis. Section: 22.06

22.

Topic: Opportunistic Fungal Pathogens Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Urogenital System Infections

Cryptococcus neoformans has the following characteristics, except A. it is commonly found in the human mouth, intestines, and genitalia. B. it is an encapsulated yeast. C. it can be found in high numbers in soil containing pigeon droppings. D. it usually enters body by inhalation. E. it primarily infects patients with AIDS, cancer, and diabetes.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.17 Name the most common opportunistic fungal pathogens. Section: 22.06

Topic: Nervous System Infections Topic: Opportunistic Fungal Pathogens Topic: Respiratory System Infections

23.

Cryptococcosis can include A. pulmonary infection. B. septicemia. C. meningitis. D. bone infection. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 22.17 Name the most common opportunistic fungal pathogens. Section: 22.06 Topic: Nervous System Infections Topic: Opportunistic Fungal Pathogens

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Topic: Respiratory System Infections

24.

Oral thrush is caused by A. Cryptococcus neoformans. B. Candida albicans. C. Malassezia furfur. D. Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 22.17 Name the most common opportunistic fungal pathogens. Learning Outcome: 22.18 Explain the epidemiology of candidiasis. Section: 22.06

Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Opportunistic Fungal Pathogens

25.

This opportunist is the most frequent cause of life-threatening pneumonia in AIDS patients. A. Cryptococcus neoformans B. Candida albicans C. Malassezia furfur D. Pneumocystis jirovecii.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 22.02 Relate opportunistic fungal infections to those conditions that predispose patients to infection. Learning Outcome: 22.17 Name the most common opportunistic fungal pathogens.

26.

Section: 22.01 Section: 22.06 Topic: Opportunistic Fungal Pathogens Topic: Respiratory System Infections

Aspergillosis includes all the following, except


A. there are no effective drugs to treat the infection. B. noninvasive infections of the eyelids, sinuses, conjunctiva, and ear canals. C. a pneumonia that disseminates to the brain. D. most cases are due to A. fumigatus. E. life-threatening infections in AIDS, leukemia, and transplant patients. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.02 Relate opportunistic fungal infections to those conditions that predispose patients to infection. Learning Outcome: 22.17 Name the most common opportunistic fungal pathogens.

Section: 22.01 Section: 22.06 Topic: Opportunistic Fungal Pathogens

27.

Topic: Respiratory System Infections

Serious mycoses treated with amphotericin B include all the following, except A. zygomycosis. B. invasive aspergillosis. C. Pneumocystis pneumonia. D. coccidioidomycosis. E. histoplasmosis.

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 22.19 Relate the options available for treatment of common fungal opportunists. Section: 22.06

Topic: Opportunistic Fungal Pathogens Topic: True Fungal Pathogens Topic:Antimicrobials for Eukaryotic Infections

28.

Decaying vegetation, such as piles of leaves and compost matter, allows growth and transmission of A. Cryptococcus. B. Aspergillus. C. Candida. D. Dermatophytes. E. Pneumocystis.

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 22.17 Name the most common opportunistic fungal pathogens. Section: 22.06

Topic: Opportunistic Fungal Pathogens

29.

This organism commonly contaminates grains, corn, and peanuts and produces a potent mycotoxin called aflatoxin?

A. Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci B. Fusarium species C. Rhizopus species D. Geotrichum candidum E. Aspergillus flavus ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.20 Distinguish between fungal infections, fungal allergies, and fungal intoxications. Section: 22.07 Topic: Opportunistic Fungal Pathogens

30.

Topic: Respiratory System Infections

Pneumocystis jirovecii A. has protozoan and fungal characteristics. B. lacks ergosterol in its plasma membrane. C. is an obligate parasite. D. causes serious infection in elderly, premature infants, and AIDS patients.


E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.02 Relate opportunistic fungal infections to those conditions that predispose patients to infection. Learning Outcome: 22.17 Name the most common opportunistic fungal pathogens.

Section: 22.01 Section: 22.06 Topic: Opportunistic Fungal Pathogens

31.

Topic: Respiratory System Infections

All of the following areas are subject to intertriginous infections, except A. between folds of the groin. B. under breasts. C. in the armpit. D. behind the knees. E. chest.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.02 Relate opportunistic fungal infections to those conditions that predispose patients to infection. Learning Outcome: 22.17 Name the most common opportunistic fungal pathogens.

Section: 22.01 Section: 22.06 Topic: Opportunistic Fungal Pathogens Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections

32.

Which of the following is a rare mycosis caused by a mold commonly found in soil, in dairy products, and on the human body? A. bark stripper's disease B. valley fever C. sporotrichosis D. geotrichosis E. pneumocystis pneumonia

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can inN teU raR ctSwIiN thGbT otB h .hCuO mM an and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 22.02 Relate opportunistic fungal infections to those conditions that predispose patients to infection. Learning Outcome: 22.17 Name the most common opportunistic fungal pathogens.

33.

Section: 22.01 Section: 22.06 Topic: Opportunistic Fungal Pathogens Topic: Respiratory System Infections

All of the following are fungal allergies, except A. bark stripper's disease. B. farmer's lung. C. teapicker's lung. D. thrush. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.20 Distinguish between fungal infections, fungal allergies, and fungal intoxications. Section: 22.07

Topic: Respiratory System Infections

34.

Which of the following is incorrect about sporotrichosis? A. It is also known as valley fever. B. Humans and other mammals are susceptible. C. Heat packs applied to skin lesions can resolve some infections. D. A prick of a thorn is the classic mode of infection. E. The sporotrichin skin test can be used to determine prior infection.

ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.


ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.11 Summarize the major characteristics of Sporothrix schenckii. Section: 22.03

Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

35.

The primary portal of entry for fungal infections is A. the urinary tract. B. through skin. C. the respiratory tract. D. the nervous system. E. the digestive system.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.06 Summarize the aspects of systemic mycotic infection common to all fungal pathogens. Learning Outcome: 22.07 Recall the habitat, geographic distribution, and diseases associated with Histoplasma capsulatum, Coccidiodes immitis, Blastomyces dermatitidis, and Paracoccidioides brasilensis. Learning Outcome: 22.17 Name the most common opportunistic fungal pathogens. Section: 22.02 Section: 22.06

Topic: Opportunistic Fungal Pathogens Topic: Respiratory System Infections Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

36.

Which antifungal drug inhibits cell division of the fungus? A. ketoconazole (Nizoral) B. fluconazole C. terbinafine (Lamisil) D. amphotericin B E. griseofulvin ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 22.19 Relate the options available for treatment of common fungal opportunists.

NURSINGTB.COM

Section: 22.01

Topic:Antimicrobials for Eukaryotic Infections

37.

Which of the following are likely to predispose patients to fungal infections? A. cancer B. AIDS C. tuberculosis D. malnutrition E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.02 Relate opportunistic fungal infections to those conditions that predispose patients to infection. Section: 22.01 Section: 22.06

Topic: Opportunistic Fungal Pathogens Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

38.

Alternative names for Blastomyces dermatitidis include A. Gilchrist's disease. B. valley fever. C. rose Gardener's disease. D. teapicker's lung. E. farmer's lung.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 22.06 Summarize the aspects of systemic mycotic infection common to all fungal pathogens. Learning Outcome: 22.07 Recall the habitat, geographic distribution, and diseases associated with Histoplasma capsulatum, Coccidiodes immitis, Blastomyces dermatitidis, and Paracoccidioides brasilensis. Section: 22.02 Topic: Respiratory System Infections Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections


Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

39.

Which is incorrect about chromoblastomycosis? A. It is characterized by highly visible verrucous lesions. B. Treatment is with pentamidine. C. Its etiological agent are soil saprobes with dark-pigmented mycelia and spores. D. Sclerotic cells are produced. E. It is frequently confused with yaws, cancer, and syphilis.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.10 Describe the progression of a typical subcutaneous mycosis. Learning Outcome: 22.12 Recall the characteristics of chromoblastomycosis and phaeohyphomycosis.

Learning Outcome: 22.13 Describe the progression of events leading to mycetoma and chromoblastomycosis, as well as the prognosis of each disease. Section: 22.03 Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

40.

Sabouraud's dextrose agar is a lab medium for supporting growth of fungi. TRUE ASM Objective: 08.02 Use pure culture and selective techniques to enrich for and isolate microorganisms. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 22.05 Understand why direct examination of patient samples is often part of the diagnostic process. Section: 22.01 Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Culturing Microorganisms Topic: Identifying Microorganisms

41.

Most mycoses are not communicable. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems

NURSINGTB.COM Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.01 Distinguish between the characteristics indicative of true versus opportunistic fungal pathogens. Learning Outcome: 22.02 Relate opportunistic fungal infections to those conditions that predispose patients to infection. Learning Outcome: 22.06 Summarize the aspects of systemic mycotic infection common to all fungal pathogens. Section: 22.01 Topic: Opportunistic Fungal Pathogens Topic: True Fungal Pathogens 42.

Thermal dimorphism is associated with opportunistic fungi and never seen in true fungal pathogens. FALSE

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.07 Recall the habitat, geographic distribution, and diseases associated with Histoplasma capsulatum, Coccidiodes immitis, Blastomyces dermatitidis, and Paracoccidioides brasilensis.

Learning Outcome: 22.09 Understand the means by which infection with Histoplasma capsulatum, Coccidioides immitis, Blastomyces dermatitidis, and Paracoccidioides brasilensis is diagnosed in the laboratory. Section: 22.01 Section: 22.02 Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Culturing Microorganisms Topic: Opportunistic Fungal Pathogens Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

43.

The most common route of transmission for true pathogenic fungi is ingestion of spores. FALSE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.06 Summarize the aspects of systemic mycotic infection common to all fungal pathogens. Learning Outcome: 22.07 Recall the habitat, geographic distribution, and diseases associated with Histoplasma capsulatum, Coccidiodes immitis, Blastomyces dermatitidis, and Paracoccidioides brasilensis. Learning Outcome: 22.08 Summarize the pathology of each of the four fungal pathogens.


Learning Outcome: 22.10 Describe the progression of a typical subcutaneous mycosis. Section: 22.01 Section: 22.02 Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

44.

Blastomycosis begins as a respiratory infection that can spread to the skin. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.07 Recall the habitat, geographic distribution, and diseases associated with Histoplasma capsulatum, Coccidiodes immitis, Blastomyces dermatitidis, and Paracoccidioides brasilensis. Learning Outcome: 22.08 Summarize the pathology of each of the four fungal pathogens. Section: 22.02 Topic: Respiratory System Infections Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

45.

Sporotrichosis is associated with soil high in pigeon droppings that is introduced into subcutaneous tissue. FALSE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.10 Describe the progression of a typical subcutaneous mycosis.

Learning Outcome: 22.11 Summarize the major characteristics of Sporothrix schenckii. Section: 22.03

Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

46.

Amphotericin B is an over-the-counter drug to treat athlete's foot. FALSE

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand NURSINGTB.COM Learning Outcome: 22.15 Understand the pathology, epidemiology, and treatment of ringworm. Learning Outcome: 22.19 Relate the options available for treatment of common fungal opportunists.

Section: 22.01 Section: 22.04 Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: True Fungal Pathogens Topic:Antimicrobials for Eukaryotic Infections

47.

Trichophyton species infect hair, skin, and nails, whereas Microsporum species infect hair and skin but not nails. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.14 Name the three dermatophytic genera and the diseases they cause.

Learning Outcome: 22.15 Understand the pathology, epidemiology, and treatment of ringworm. Section: 22.04

Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

48.

Skin testing with antigen is used to diagnose ringworm. FALSE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.14 Name the three dermatophytic genera and the diseases they cause.

Learning Outcome: 22.15 Understand the pathology, epidemiology, and treatment of ringworm. Section: 22.04

Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

49.

Dermatophyte spores can survive for years on fomites. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.


ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.15 Understand the pathology, epidemiology, and treatment of ringworm. Section: 22.04

Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

50.

Tough, warty verrucous lesions are seen in patients with tinea versicolor. FALSE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.16 Explain the significance of superficial mycoses. Section: 22.05

Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

51.

Fungal spores are common allergens that cause hypersensitivities. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.20 Distinguish between fungal infections, fungal allergies, and fungal intoxications. Section: 22.07

Topic: Opportunistic Fungal Pathogens

52.

Patient's with madura foot develop swollen, ulcerative, tumor-like skin lesions called mycetomas. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 22.12 Recall the characteristics of chromoblastomycosis and phaeohyphomycosis.

Learning Outcome: 22.13 Describe the progression of events leading to mycetoma and chromoblastomycosis, as well as the prognosis of each disease. Section: 22.03 NURSINGTB.COM Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

53.

All fungi are heterotrophic and can break their substrates down by secreting enzymes. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Section: 22.01 Topic: Culturing Microorganisms Topic: Microbial Nutrition

54.

Fungi cannot be found growing in nutritionally poor and adverse conditions. FALSE ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.01 Distinguish between the characteristics indicative of true versus opportunistic fungal pathogens. Learning Outcome: 22.02 Relate opportunistic fungal infections to those conditions that predispose patients to infection. Section: 22.01 Topic: Culturing Microorganisms Topic: Microbial Nutrition Topic: Opportunistic Fungal Pathogens Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

55.

Adding salt and sugar can control the growth of certain bacteria but not fungi. TRUE ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different.


ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.01 Distinguish between the characteristics indicative of true versus opportunistic fungal pathogens. Section: 22.01

Topic: Culturing Microorganisms Topic: Microbial Nutrition Topic: Opportunistic Fungal Pathogens Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

56.

Diseases caused by fungi are termed

.

mycoses ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 22.01 Distinguish between the characteristics indicative of true versus opportunistic fungal pathogens. Section: 22.01

Topic: Opportunistic Fungal Pathogens Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

57.

Fungi that exhibit thermal dimorphism grow as

at 30°C and as

at 37°C.

molds; hyphae, yeast ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.01 Distinguish between the characteristics indicative of true versus opportunistic fungal pathogens. Section: 22.01

Topic: Culturing Microorganisms Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

58.

NURSINGTB.COM are superficial mycoses that cause white masses or dark masses to develop on the hair shaft. Piedras

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 22.16 Explain the significance of superficial mycoses. Section: 22.05

Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

59.

Dermatophytes digest the protein

, found in the skin, hair, and nails.

keratin ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 22.15 Understand the pathology, epidemiology, and treatment of ringworm. Section: 22.04 Topic: Microbial Nutrition

Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

60.

The typical transmission of dimorphic fungi is inhalation of

.

spores ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.06 Summarize the aspects of systemic mycotic infection common to all fungal pathogens. Learning Outcome: 22.07 Recall the habitat, geographic distribution, and diseases associated with Histoplasma capsulatum, Coccidiodes immitis, Blastomyces dermatitidis, and Paracoccidioides brasilensis.

Learning Outcome: 22.08 Summarize the pathology of each of the four fungal pathogens. Section: 22.01 Section: 22.02

Topic: Respiratory System Infections


Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

61.

The nodular, tumor-like fungal growths seen in certain chronic lung infections are called

.

fungomas ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 22.07 Recall the habitat, geographic distribution, and diseases associated with Histoplasma capsulatum, Coccidiodes immitis, Blastomyces dermatitidis, and Paracoccidioides brasilensis.

Learning Outcome: 22.08 Summarize the pathology of each of the four fungal pathogens. Section: 22.02 Topic: Respiratory System Infections Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

62.

Rhizopus, Absidia, and Mucor are mold genera that cause the disease called

.

zygomycosis ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 22.02 Relate opportunistic fungal infections to those conditions that predispose patients to infection. Learning Outcome: 22.17 Name the most common opportunistic fungal pathogens. Section: 22.06 Topic: Opportunistic Fungal Pathogens

Topic: Respiratory System Infections

63.

Explain why Pneumocystis jirovecii has been difficult to classify, and why traditional antifungal drugs are not effective against this microbe.

ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 22.02 Relate opportunistic fungal infections to those conditions that predispose patients to infection. Learning Outcome: 22.17 Name the most common opportunistic fungal pathogens.

Learning Outcome: 22.19 Relate the options available for treatment of common fungal opportunists. Section: 22.06

NURSINGTB.COM

Topic: Opportunistic Fungal Pathogens

Topic: Respiratory System Infections

64.

Discuss why the use of broad-spectrum oral antimicrobics often lead to oral thrush and vulvovaginal candidiasis superinfections. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 22.02 Relate opportunistic fungal infections to those conditions that predispose patients to infection. Learning Outcome: 22.18 Explain the epidemiology of candidiasis. Section: 22.06

Topic: Opportunistic Fungal Pathogens

65.

Compare and contrast Histoplasmosis, Coccidioidomycosis, and Blastomycosis with regard to: a) causative agent, b) reservoir, c) transmission, and d) disease, including complications.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 22.06 Summarize the aspects of systemic mycotic infection common to all fungal pathogens. Learning Outcome: 22.07 Recall the habitat, geographic distribution, and diseases associated with Histoplasma capsulatum, Coccidiodes immitis, Blastomyces dermatitidis, and Paracoccidioides brasilensis.

Learning Outcome: 22.08 Summarize the pathology of each of the four fungal pathogens. Section: 22.02 Topic: Respiratory System Infections Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

66.

Discuss at least 5 factors that predispose certain individuals to opportunistic fungal infections.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 22.02 Relate opportunistic fungal infections to those conditions that predispose patients to infection. Learning Outcome: 22.17 Name the most common opportunistic fungal pathogens.

Section: 22.01 Section: 22.06 Topic: Opportunistic Fungal Pathogens


67.

Which of the following is/are true of cryptococcal meningitis?

A. It is most often caused by Cryptococcus gattii.

B. The pathogen usually enters the body via the respiratory route. C. It is usually a mild form of meningitis that is self-limiting. D. It is most often seen in patients with AIDS. E. The pathogen can be detected in CSF specimens by negative staining. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 22.17 Name the most common opportunistic fungal pathogens. Section: 22.06 Topic: Nervous System Infections

Topic: Opportunistic Fungal Pathogens

68.

Which of the following appears to play the least significant role in antifungal defenses in humans? A. phagocytosis B. IgG antibodies C. cell-mediated immunity D. inflammatory response

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 22.04 List the most important antifungal defenses found in humans. Section: 22.01

Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

69.

The cell-mediated immune response appears to play a more significant role in antifungal defenses than does the antibody-mediated immune response. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 22.04 List the most important antifungal defenses found in humans.

NURSINGTB.COM

Section: 22.01

Topic: Opportunistic Fungal Pathogens Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

70.

Which of the following provides information about the nature and potential cause of a fungal infection the most quickly? A. culture on Sabouraud's dextrose agar B. testing for temperature dimorphism C. direct examination of fresh specimens (wet mounts, KOH preps, brighteners) D. culture on selective and differential media ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if possible, phase contrast). ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 22.05 Understand why direct examination of patient samples is often part of the diagnostic process. Section: 22.01 Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Identifying Microorganisms

71.

During a visit to her doctor, a woman pointed out a red rash that occurred just under her breasts. The doctor collected a scraping of the affected area, suspended the scrapings in potassium hydroxide, and then examined it microscopically. Upon viewing, she detected budding yeast cells and pseudohyphae. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. yeast infection - candidiasis B. dermatophyte infection C. subcutaneous mycosis D. yeast infection - cryptococcosis

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if possible, phase contrast). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 22.15 Understand the pathology, epidemiology, and treatment of ringworm. Learning Outcome: 22.18 Explain the epidemiology of candidiasis.


FOUNDATIONS IN MICROBIOLOGY 10TH EDITION TALARO TEST BANK Section: 22.06 Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections

72.

A 42-year-old male construction worker in southern Arizona developed a cold-like illness, experiencing a chronic cough, chest pain, headaches, and general fatigue. When the symptoms did not abate after several weeks, he visited his physician who ordered microscopic examination and culture of his sputum specimen. Direct microscopic exam demonstrated the presence of large spherule structures full of endsospores. The specimen was cultured at both 25°C and 37°C. The plate incubated at 25°C grew tan colonies with a fluffy white center. Examination of these colonies microscopically showed branching septate hyphae. As the culture matured, the hyphae fragmented into arthrospores. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. candidiasis B. coccidioidomycosis C. blastomycosis D. histoplasmosis E. sporotrichosis

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if possible, phase contrast). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze Learning Outcome: 22.07 Recall the habitat, geographic distribution, and diseases associated with Histoplasma capsulatum, Coccidiodes immitis, Blastomyces dermatitidis, and Paracoccidioides brasilensis.

Learning Outcome: 22.08 Summarize the pathology of each of the four fungal pathogens. Learning Outcome: 22.09 Understand the means by which infection with Histoplasma capsulatum, Coccidioides immitis, Blastomyces dermatitidis, and Paracoccidioides brasilensis is diagnosed in the laboratory. Section: 22.02 Topic: Culturing Microorganisms Topic: Identifying Microorganisms Topic: Respiratory System Infections Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

73.

Ben, a 17-year-old wrestler, developed a lesion on his upper back. The lesion was relatively round and consisted of a pink scaly rough center and raised edge. While it wasn’t painful, the itching was bothersome to the young man. His coach advised him to sNeU e RhSisIN dG ocTtB or.CaO bo Mut the lesion. Upon visiting his physician, a scraping of the affected area was collected and placed in a drop of KOH, then examined under the microscope, revealing slender fungal hyphae. A culture was inoculated, which grew a spreading flat fuzzy colony after 10 days of incubation at 30°C. Microscopic examination of the culture demonstrated the presence of both macroconidia and microconidia. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. candidiasis B. sporotrichosis C. tinea versicolor D. dermatophytosis E. cutaneous blastomycosis

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if possible, phase contrast). ASM Objective: 08.02 Use pure culture and selective techniques to enrich for and isolate microorganisms. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze Learning Outcome: 22.15 Understand the pathology, epidemiology, and treatment of ringworm. Learning Outcome: 22.16 Explain the significance of superficial mycoses.

Section: 22.04 Section: 22.05 Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Culturing Microorganisms Topic: Identifying Microorganisms Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

22-24 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

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Chapter 22 Testbank Summary Category

# of Questions

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (in cluding bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron).

5

ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different.

8

ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determi ned by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations).

4

ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metaboli c characteristics.

5

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biologic al means.

6

ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems.

1

ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

3

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in benefi cial, neutral or detrimental ways.

64

ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if po ssible, phase contrast).

4

ASM Objective: 08.02 Use pure culture and selective techniques to enrich for and isolate microorganisms.

2

ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (mediabased, molecular and serological).

2

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function

8

ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways

12

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems

64

ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills

5

Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

21 41

Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand

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Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply

9

Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze

2

Learning Outcome: 22.01 Distinguish between the characteristics indicative of true versus opportunistic fungal patho gens.

7

Learning Outcome: 22.02 Relate opportunistic fungal infections to those conditions that predispose patients to infecti on.

12

Learning Outcome: 22.03 Explain the geographical limits associated with fungal pathogens.

3

Learning Outcome: 22.04 List the most important antifungal defenses found in humans.

2

Learning Outcome: 22.05 Understand why direct examination of patient samples is often part of the diagnostic proce ss.

2

Learning Outcome: 22.06 Summarize the aspects of systemic mycotic infection common to all fungal pathogens.

7

Learning Outcome: 22.07 Recall the habitat, geographic distribution, and diseases associated with Histoplasma caps ulatum, Coccidiodes immitis, Blastomyces dermatitidis, and Paracoccidioides brasilensis.

15

Learning Outcome: 22.08 Summarize the pathology of each of the four fungal pathogens.

13

Learning Outcome: 22.09 Understand the means by which infection with Histoplasma capsulatum, Coccidioides immi tis, Blastomyces dermatitidis, and Paracoccidioides brasilensis is diagnosed in the laboratory.

5

Learning Outcome: 22.10 Describe the progression of a typical subcutaneous mycosis.

4

Learning Outcome: 22.11 Summarize the major characteristics of Sporothrix schenckii.

3

Learning Outcome: 22.12 Recall the characteristics of chromoblastomycosis and phaeohyphomycosis.

4

Learning Outcome: 22.13 Describe the progression of events leading to mycetoma and chromoblastomycosis, as wel l as the prognosis of each disease.

4

Learning Outcome: 22.14 Name the three dermatophytic genera and the diseases they cause.

5

Learning Outcome: 22.15 Understand the pathology, epidemiology, and treatment of ringworm.

11

Learning Outcome: 22.16 Explain the significance of superficial mycoses.

4

Learning Outcome: 22.17 Name the most common opportunistic fungal pathogens.

16

Learning Outcome: 22.18 Explain the epidemiology of candidiasis.

5


Learning Outcome: 22.19 Relate the options available for treatment of common fungal opportunists.

5

Learning Outcome: 22.20 Distinguish between fungal infections, fungal allergies, and fungal intoxications.

3

Section: 22.01 Section: 22.02 Section: 22.03

29 16 7

Section: 22.04

10

Section: 22.05

4

Section: 22.06

21

Section: 22.07

3

Topic: Clinical Microbiology

6

Topic: Culturing Microorganisms

9

Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections

1

Topic: Identifying Microorganisms

4

Topic: Microbial Nutrition

4

Topic: Nervous System Infections

3

Topic: Opportunistic Fungal Pathogens

30

Topic: Respiratory System Infections

27

Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections

28

Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

7

Topic: True Fungal Pathogens

49

Topic: Urogenital System Infections Topic:Antimicrobials for Eukaryotic Infections

2 4

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Chapter 23 Testbank Student:

1.

Parasitic helminths have the following characteristics, except A. they are multicellular animals. B. they have a definitive host where the adult form lives. C. they have developmental forms that include cysts. D. they include roundworms. E. they include tapeworms.

2.

Acanthamoeba differs from Naegleria fowleri in that only Acanthamoeba A. is a free-living ameba of freshwaters. B. enters typically through broken skin or the conjunctiva. C. is the cause of primary amebic meningoencephalitis. D. enters through the nasal mucosa. E. is acquired by swimming in contaminated water.

3.

Entamoeba histolytica is acquired by A. ingestion of cysts of the pathogen. B. contaminated food. C. contaminated water. D. sexual contact. E. All of these choices are correct.

4.

Amebiasis is a disease of the A. conjunctiva of the eye. B. brain and meninges. C. intestines and often the liver. D. lung tissue. E. skin.

5.

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Human asymptomatic carriers are common in A. balantidiasis. B. amebiasis and trichomoniasis. C. elephantiasis. D. trypanosomiasis and leishmaniasis. E. cryptosporidiosis and malaria.

6.

Diseases transmitted by vectors include A. balantidiasis. B. amebiasis and trichomoniasis. C. amebic meningoencephalitis. D. trypanosomiasis and leishmaniasis. E. cryptosporidiosis and cyclosporiasis.

7.

The large intestines of pigs are the primary reservoir of the pathogen that causes A. balantidiasis. B. amebiasis and trichomoniasis. C. amebic meningoencephalitis. D. trypanosomiasis leishmaniasis. E. cryptosporidiosis and cyclosporiasis.

8.

Which of the following is acquired when amoebas are forced into human nasal passages during swimming?

A. Naegleria fowleri


B. Toxoplasma gondii C. Balantidium coli D. Giardia lamblia E. Entamoeba histolytica 9.

Which of the following has four pairs of flagella?

A. Naegleria fowleri B. Toxoplasma gondii C. Balantidium coli D. Giardia lamblia E. Entamoeba histolytica 10. Which of the following is an apicomplexan parasite?

A. Naegleria fowleri B. Toxoplasma gondii C. Balantidium coli D. Giardia lamblia E. Entamoeba histolytica 11. Which of the following is a sexually-transmitted disease? A. toxoplasmosis B. trichomoniasis C. giardiasis D. malaria E. balantidiasis 12. Which of the following causes serious congenital disease from transplacental transmission? A. toxoplasmosis B. trichomoniasis C. giardiasis D. malaria E. balantidiasis

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13. All of the following can be transmitted by drinking contaminated water, except A. cryptosporidiosis. B. cyclosporiasis. C. babesiosis. D. balantidiasis. E. giardiasis. 14. Amebiasis symptoms include A. bloody, mucus-filled stools, fever, diarrhea, and weight loss. B. fever, swollen lymph nodes, and joint pain. C. urinary frequency and pain, and vaginal discharge. D. chills, fever, and sweating. E. sore throat, low-grade fever, and swollen lymph nodes. 15. The symptoms that occur in cyclic 48 to 72 hour episodes in a malaria patient are A. bloody, mucus-filled stools, fever, diarrhea, and weight loss. B. fever, swollen lymph nodes, and joint pain. C. urinary frequency and pain, and vaginal discharge. D. chills, fever, and sweating. E. sore throat, low-grade fever, and swollen lymph nodes. 16. Most patients with toxoplasmosis that are not immunocompromised experience A. bloody, mucus-filled stools, fever, diarrhea, and weight loss.


B. fever, swollen lymph nodes, and joint pain. C. urinary frequency and pain, and vaginal discharge. D. chills, fever, and sweating. E. sore throat, low-grade fever, and swollen lymph nodes. 17. Trichomonas vaginalis A. does not produce cysts. B. causes urethritis in males. C. causes vaginitis with a foul-smelling discharge in females. D. has four flagella and an undulating membrane. E. All of these choices are correct. 18. Giardiasis involves A. a protozoan that does not form cysts. B. infection of the large intestine. C. symptoms of abdominal pain, flatulence, and diarrhea. D. vector transmission. E. All of these choices are correct. 19. African sleeping sickness is caused by A. Trypanosoma cruzi. B. Trypanosoma brucei. C. Leishmania brasiliensis. D. Isospora belli. E. Plasmodium falciparum. 20. Chagas'disease involves transmission of the pathogen by the A. reduviid, "kissing," bug. B. tsetse fly. C. Anopheles mosquito. D. phlebotomine (sand) fly. E. hard-bodied tick.

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21. Transmission of the pathogen of leishmaniasis is by the A. reduviid, "kissing," bug. B. tsetse fly. C. Anopheles mosquito. D. phlebotomine (sand) fly. E. hard-bodied tick. 22. The vector involved in African sleeping sickness is the A. reduviid, "kissing," bug. B. tsetse fly. C. Anopheles mosquito. D. phlebotomine (sand) fly. E. hard-bodied tick. 23. The large, fully formed developmental stage of a hemoflagellate is called the A. epimastigote. B. amastigote. C. trypomastigote. D. promastigote. 24. Which is incorrect about malaria? A. Merozoites enter and multiply in liver cells. B. Trophozoites develop in RBCs.


C. The mosquito inoculates human blood with sporozoites. D. Gametocytes enter the mosquito as she draws a blood meal from a human.

25. Strongyloides stercoralis A. is a tapeworm. B. is ingested with food and does not migrate out of the intestine. C. rarely causes chronic infection. D. can cause a fatal disseminated disease in immunosuppressed patients. E. All of these choices are correct. 26. The parasitic disease, caused by an apicomplexan that involves infected cats in its life cycle is A. cryptosporidiosis. B. cyclosporiasis. C. babesiosis. D. toxoplasmosis. 27. Which was the first disease found to be due to a protozoan that is introduced to humans by the bite of a hard body tick? A. cryptosporidiosis B. babesiosis C. toxoplasmosis 28. Which apicomplexan has caused outbreaks, associated with fecal-contaminated imported raspberries, and also fresh greens and drinking water? A. cryptosporidiosis B. cyclosporiasis C. babesiosis D. toxoplasmosis 29. Toxoplasmosis includes all the following, except NURSINGTB.COM A. ingesting pseudocysts from contaminated raw or undercooked meat. B. ingesting or inhaling oocysts from infected cats or cat feces. C. tachyzoites can cross the placenta. D. immunocompromised patients often develop a fatal, disseminated infection. E. intrauterine infectious are generally mild with very little damage to fetal tissues. 30. Symptoms of cryptosporidiosis include A. headache, sweating, vomiting, severe abdominal cramps, and diarrhea. B. a circular rash that appears on the trunk and spreads to the extremities. C. loss of hair. D. a red skin papule that spreads to a large ulcer. 31. Which is mismatched? A. whipworm - trematode B. pinworm - nematode C. threadworm - nematode D. fluke - trematode E. tapeworm - cestode

32. Ascaris lumbricoides A. is an intestinal roundworm. B. spreads to humans by ingestion of Ascaris eggs in food. C. larvae penetrate into lymphatics and capillaries around intestines. D. larvae migrate to the pharynx, get swallowed, and return to intestines to mature. E. All of these choices are correct.


33. Enterobius vermicularis is A. a whipworm. B. common only to the tropics and subtropics. C. an intestinal worm that easily contaminates fingers and fomites. D. often fatal in heavy infestations. E. All of these choices are correct. 34. Hookworms

A. include Necator americanus. B. include Ancylostoma duodenale. C. have filariform larvae in soil that invade by penetrating bare feet. D. have oral cutting plates by which they anchor to the intestines. E. All of these choices are correct.

35. Elephantiasis includes all the following, except A. it is caused by filarial nematodes. B. the parasitic helminth is transmitted by black fly vectors. C. larval infestation causes blockage of main lymphatic channels. D. severe edema occurs in the extremities and scrotum. E. microfilariae are in the blood. 36. River blindness is A. caused by Wuchereria bancrofti. B. a disease in which worms can invade the eyes. C. caused by a blood fluke. D. transmitted by mosquito vector. E. All of these choices are correct.

37. Trichinellosis includes all the following, except NURSINGTB.COM A. humans are infected byted ingesting larvae.encys B. infection is associated with ingestion of undercooked pork or bear meat. C. the larvae migrate from intestines to blood and various body tissues. D. the first symptoms are diarrhea, nausea, fever, and pain. E. All of these choices are correct. 38. Schistosomiasis involves A. a blood fluke. B. a life cycle stage which continues when eggs from humans enter water and develop into miracidia. C. snails which enable development of the parasite into cercaria. D. cercariae which penetrate hair follicles and pass to the blood and then the liver. E. All of these choices are correct. 39. Fasciola hepatica is a A. lung fluke. B. blood fluke. C. liver fluke. D. roundworm. E. filarial worm. 40. All of the following pertain to tapeworms, except the A. scolex is the attachment organ. B. strobila is made up of proglottids. C. proglottids are reproductive segments. D. cysticerci are young infective larvae ingested in undercooked meat. E. one proglottid segment will have either female or male reproductive organs.


41. Which is mismatched? A. Diphyllobothrium latum - fish B. Taenia solium - pork C. Taenia saginata - beef D. Echinococcus granulosus - poultry E. Anisakis - fish 42. The form lacking a free flagellum in the developmental stage of a hemoflagellate is called the A. epimastigote. B. amastigote. C. trypomastigote. D. promastigote.

43. All of the following will kill Giardia, except A. boiling. B. ozone. C. filtration through a 1 micron filter. D. chlorine in typical drinking water. E. All of these choices are correct. 44. Which of the following is not an effective way to minimize human contact with parasitic helminths? A. freezing foods B. thoroughly cooking foods C. proper sewage disposal D. avoiding human feces as fertilizer E. All of these choices are correct. 45. Which is not correct about trichinellosis? A. It can be transmitted by eating undercooked pork. NURSINGTB.COM B. It can be transmitted by eating bear meat. C. Numerous cases occur each year in the United States. D. The first symptoms mimic influenza. E. A cure is not available once the larvae have encysted in muscles. 46. Which parasite is carried by Cyclops, an arthropod commonly found in still water?

A. Schistosoma mansoni B. Dracunculus medinesis C. Fasciola hepatica D. Taenia saginata E. Toxoplasma gondii 47. Pregnant women should never change cat litter due to the risk of contracting A. toxoplasmosis. B. malaria. C. trypanosomiasis. D. amebic dysentery. E. Chagas'disease. 48. Which is not correct about kala azar? A. It is fatal in untreated cases. B. Chemotherapy with chloroquine is usually effective. C. Death is partly due to anemia, destruction of blood-forming tissues, and secondary infections. D. It is transmitted by the sand fly. E. It is a form of leishmaniasis.


49. The larval forms of certain Taenia species, which typically infest muscles of mammalian intermediate hosts are also called A. proglottids. B. merozoites. C. cysticerci. D. amastigotes. E. eggs. 50. Trichinella spiralis is a/an

that invades the

.

A. roundworm; intestine and muscle B. ameba; intestine C. flagellate; large intestine D. flatworm; heart E. tapeworm; lungs 51. Which of the following relationships is mismatched? A. T. brucei gambiense and Gambian sleeping sickness B. T.brucei rhodesiense and West African sleeping sickness C. tsetse fly and African sleeping sickness D. Taenia solium and swine E. black flies and Onchocera volvulus 52. Only feces from humans that contaminates food and water can be involved in transmission of amebiasis. True False 53. Chagas'disease is treated with chloroquine. True False 54. A person carrying one gene for sickle-cell hemoglobin will be resistant to Plasmodium infection. NURSINGTB.COM True False 55. Boiling will not kill Giardia lamblia cysts in contaminated water. True False 56. Plasmodium species are hemoflagellates. True False 57. In temperate zones, pinworms are the most common helminth infection. True False 58. Hookworms and threadworms usually enter the body by penetrating into the skin. True False 59. Loa Loa is an intestinal roundworm transmitted by contaminated food. True False 60. Hermaphroditic helminth species have separate male and female worms. True False 61. Many protozoan species can form a

that can survive for periods outside a host.


62. An amoeba trophozoite with visible ingested RBCs that is seen in a microscopic examination of a fecal smear would likely be the pathogen . 63. Trypanosoma and Leishmania are called

because they often live in the blood and tissues of their hosts.

64. The most deadly form of systemic leishmaniasis is called 65. Control of

.

revolves around mosquito control and methods to prevent human-mosquito contact.

66. Eggs and larva are developmental forms of various parasites called 67. The active, feeding form of a protozoan is called the

.

.

68. Describe the life cycle of Plasmodium and malaria epidemiology including: a) developmental forms and respective hosts/host cells, b) transmission, c) human disease and symptoms, d) treatment, and e) prevention. 69. Compare and contrast giardiasis and amebiasis with regard to: a) causative agent, b) transmission, c) infection site in body, d) signs and symptoms, e) prevention, and f) treatment. 70. Discuss the life cycle of one of the roundworms including: a) developmental forms and corresponding hosts, b) transmission, c) human disease and symptoms, d) treatment, and e) prevention. 71. Write a brief definition of a parasite and parasitology giving specific examples of a fungus, protozoan, and helminth. 72. While on a backpacking trip in Maine, Julie and her friends obtained their drinking water from several different pristine streams, adding one or two drops of bleach to ensure its safety. Several days later Julie began experiencing abdominal distress, specifically cramping, fatty diarrhea, and flatulence. When it didn’t clear up within several days, Julie visited her doctor. Which of the following would be the most likely cause of Julie’s symptoms?

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A. Entamoeba histolytica B. Giardia intestinalis C. E. coli O157:H7 D. Schistosoma mansoni E. Toxoplasma gondii 73. Anna recently learned that she is pregnant and is visiting her doctor for her first prenatal visit. Among the many pieces of advice offered to ensure a safe pregnancy, the doctor specifically told Anna to avoid eating any rare meats, including steaks and roast beef, and to avoid changing her cat’s litter box. These words of caution were primarily directed at avoiding contact with A. E. coli O157:H7. B. Taenia saginata. C. Cryptosporidium. D. Toxoplasma gondii. 74. What specific challenge does Trypanosoma brucei present to the immune system? A. It frequently changes its antigens, staying one step ahead of the host's antibody response. B. It specifically attacks B-lymphocytes preventing activation and antibody production. C. It specifically attacks T-lymphocytes preventing their activation and crippling the cell-mediated immune response. D. Its antigens are not recognized by B and T-lymphocytes so these host defense cells don’t respond to the infection. 75. Adam, a once active normal three-year old boy, was experiencing increasing bouts of lethargy and began to regress developmentally. His mother scheduled an appointment with his pediatrician, who ordered a number of different blood tests. The most notable blood test result that piqued the physician’s interest was a pronounced eosinophilia. Which of the following would be most likely to cause this abnormality?


A. infection with Giardia intestinalis B. infection with a parasitic helminth C. malaria D. infection with Cryptosporidium spp. E. viral infection 76. Which of the following parasites must be swallowed twice by the human host, first as an egg and later as a larva?

A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Necatur americanus C. Taenia saginata D. Enterobius vermicularis E. Schistosoma mansoni 77. Diseases such as malaria, dengue fever, and Chagas'disease may be spread by any blood-sucking arthropod. True False 78. Recent strategies for control and containing the spread of river blindness include A. antiprotozoan drugs such as metronidazole. B. insecticides to decrease the blackfly population. C. filtering water through nylon sieves to remove Cyclops. D. antihelmintic drugs such as ivermectin to destroy the larval worms. E. antibiotics to inhibit bacterial endosymbionts within Onchocerca volvulus. 79.

Which animals serve as intermediate hosts for human schistosomes? A. mosquitoes B. fish C. reduviid bugs D. snails E. humans

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Chapter 23 Testbank Key 1.

Parasitic helminths have the following characteristics, except A. they are multicellular animals. B. they have a definitive host where the adult form lives. C. they have developmental forms that include cysts. D. they include roundworms. E. they include tapeworms.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.21 Distinguish between intermediate hosts and definitive hosts. Section: 23.05

2.

Topic: Flatworm Infections Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Parasitology Topic: Roundworm Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

Acanthamoeba differs from Naegleria fowleri in that only Acanthamoeba A. is a free-living ameba of freshwaters. B. enters typically through broken skin or the conjunctiva. C. is the cause of primary amebic meningoencephalitis. D. enters through the nasal mucosa. E. is acquired by swimming in contaminated water.

ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.03 Identify the amoebas generally seen as human pathogens and the portals of entry for each. Learning Outcome: 23.05 Contrast the pathogenesis, treatments, and common outcomes of Entamoeba, Naegleria, and Acanthoamoeba infections. NURSINGTB.COM Section: 23.02

Topic: Amoeba Infections Topic: Nervous System Infections

Topic: Parasitology

3.

Entamoeba histolytica is acquired by A. ingestion of cysts of the pathogen. B. contaminated food. C. contaminated water. D. sexual contact. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.03 Identify the amoebas generally seen as human pathogens and the portals of entry for each. Learning Outcome: 23.04 Depict the life cycle seen in Entamoeba histolytica infection.

Section: 23.02 Topic: Amoeba Infections Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Parasitology

4.

Amebiasis is a disease of the A. conjunctiva of the eye. B. brain and meninges. C. intestines and often the liver. D. lung tissue. E. skin.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember


Learning Outcome: 23.03 Identify the amoebas generally seen as human pathogens and the portals of entry for each. Learning Outcome: 23.04 Depict the life cycle seen in Entamoeba histolytica infection.

Learning Outcome: 23.05 Contrast the pathogenesis, treatments, and common outcomes of Entamoeba, Naegleria, and Acanthoamoeba infections. Section: 23.02 Topic: Amoeba Infections Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Parasitology

5.

Human asymptomatic carriers are common in A. balantidiasis. B. amebiasis and trichomoniasis. C. elephantiasis. D. trypanosomiasis and leishmaniasis. E. cryptosporidiosis and malaria.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.01 Describe the changing epidemiology of parasitic disease. Learning Outcome: 23.05 Contrast the pathogenesis, treatments, and common outcomes of Entamoeba, Naegleria, and Acanthoamoeba infections. Learning Outcome: 23.07 Describe the important characteristics of Trichomonas vaginalis and the pathology of infection.

Section: 23.01 Section: 23.02 Section: 23.03 Topic: Amoeba Infections Topic: Flagellate Infections Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Parasitology Topic: Urogenital System Infections

6.

Diseases transmitted by vectors include A. balantidiasis. B. amebiasis and trichomoniasis. C. amebic meningoencephalitis. D. trypanosomiasis and leishmaniasis. E. cryptosporidiosis and cyclosporiasis.

ASM Objective: 04.03 The regulation of gene expression is influenced by external and internal molecular cues and/or signals. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can inN teU raR ctSwIiN thGbT otB h .hCuO mM an and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.10 Compare the vectors involved in sleeping sickness, Chagas disease, and leishmaniasis. Learning Outcome: 23.11 Compare the pathologies of sleeping sickness, Chagas disease, and leishmaniasis. Learning Outcome: 23.34 Differentiate among the arthropod vectors of disease. Section: 23.03 Topic: Arthropod Vectors Topic: Flagellate Infections Topic: Parasitology Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

7.

The large intestines of pigs are the primary reservoir of the pathogen that causes A. balantidiasis. B. amebiasis and trichomoniasis. C. amebic meningoencephalitis. D. trypanosomiasis leishmaniasis. E. cryptosporidiosis and cyclosporiasis.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.06 Classify and describe the important characteristics of Balantidium coli. Section: 23.02

Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Parasitology

8.

Which of the following is acquired when amoebas are forced into human nasal passages during swimming? A. Naegleria fowleri B. Toxoplasma gondii C. Balantidium coli D. Giardia lamblia E. Entamoeba histolytica


ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.03 Identify the amoebas generally seen as human pathogens and the portals of entry for each. Learning Outcome: 23.05 Contrast the pathogenesis, treatments, and common outcomes of Entamoeba, Naegleria, and Acanthoamoeba infections. Section: 23.02

Topic: Amoeba Infections Topic: Nervous System Infections Topic: Parasitology Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms

9.

Which of the following has four pairs of flagella?

A. Naegleria fowleri B. Toxoplasma gondii C. Balantidium coli D. Giardia lamblia E. Entamoeba histolytica ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.08 Understand the importance of cysts to the transmission of Giardia. Section: 23.03

Topic: Flagellate Infections Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Parasitology

10.

Which of the following is an apicomplexan parasite?

A. Naegleria fowleri B. Toxoplasma gondii C. Balantidium coli D. Giardia lamblia E. Entamoeba histolytica

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ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.02 Recall the identifying attributes of the four commonly recognized groups of protozoa. Learning Outcome: 23.12 Recall the most important apicomplexan parasites. Learning Outcome: 23.17 Describe the life cycle of Toxoplasma gondii. Section: 23.04 Topic: Apicomplexan Infections Topic: Nervous System Infections

Topic: Parasitology

11.

Which of the following is a sexually-transmitted disease? A. toxoplasmosis B. trichomoniasis C. giardiasis D. malaria E. balantidiasis

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.07 Describe the important characteristics of Trichomonas vaginalis and the pathology of infection. Section: 23.03

Topic: Flagellate Infections Topic: Parasitology Topic: Urogenital System Infections

12.

Which of the following causes serious congenital disease from transplacental transmission? A. toxoplasmosis B. trichomoniasis C. giardiasis D. malaria E. balantidiasis


ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.17 Describe the life cycle of Toxoplasma gondii. Section: 23.04

13.

Topic: Apicomplexan Infections Topic: Parasitology Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms

All of the following can be transmitted by drinking contaminated water, except A. cryptosporidiosis. B. cyclosporiasis. C. babesiosis. D. balantidiasis. E. giardiasis.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.06 Classify and describe the important characteristics of Balantidium coli.

Learning Outcome: 23.08 Understand the importance of cysts to the transmission of Giardia. Learning Outcome: 23.18 Explain the occasional presence of Cryptosporidium in domestic water sources. Learning Outcome: 23.19 Relate Sarcocystis, Cystoisospora, Cyclospora, and Babesia to their specific route of infection. Section: 23.04

Topic: Apicomplexan Infections Topic: Flagellate Infections Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Parasitology

14.

Amebiasis symptoms include A. bloody, mucus-filled stools, fever, diarrhea, and weight loss. B. fever, swollen lymph nodes, and joint pain. C. urinary frequency and pain, and vaginal discharge. D. chills, fever, and sweating. E. sore throat, low-grade fever, and swollen lymph nodes. NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.03 Identify the amoebas generally seen as human pathogens and the portals of entry for each. Learning Outcome: 23.04 Depict the life cycle seen in Entamoeba histolytica infection.

Learning Outcome: 23.05 Contrast the pathogenesis, treatments, and common outcomes of Entamoeba, Naegleria, and Acanthoamoeba infections. Section: 23.02 Topic: Amoeba Infections Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Parasitology

15.

The symptoms that occur in cyclic 48 to 72 hour episodes in a malaria patient are A. bloody, mucus-filled stools, fever, diarrhea, and weight loss. B. fever, swollen lymph nodes, and joint pain. C. urinary frequency and pain, and vaginal discharge. D. chills, fever, and sweating. E. sore throat, low-grade fever, and swollen lymph nodes.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.12 Recall the most important apicomplexan parasites. Learning Outcome: 23.14 Diagram the life cycle of Plasmodium.

Learning Outcome: 23.15 Describe the pathogenesis of malaria. Section: 23.04 Topic: Apicomplexan Infections Topic: Parasitology Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

16.

Most patients with toxoplasmosis that are not immunocompromised experience A. bloody, mucus-filled stools, fever, diarrhea, and weight loss. B. fever, swollen lymph nodes, and joint pain. C. urinary frequency and pain, and vaginal discharge. D. chills, fever, and sweating.


E. sore throat, low-grade fever, and swollen lymph nodes. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.05 Contrast the pathogenesis, treatments, and common outcomes of Entamoeba, Naegleria, and Acanthoamoeba infections.

Learning Outcome: 23.17 Describe the life cycle of Toxoplasma gondii. Section: 23.04 Topic: Apicomplexan Infections Topic: Parasitology Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

17.

Trichomonas vaginalis A. does not produce cysts. B. causes urethritis in males. C. causes vaginitis with a foul-smelling discharge in females. D. has four flagella and an undulating membrane. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.07 Describe the important characteristics of Trichomonas vaginalis and the pathology of infection. Section: 23.03

Topic: Flagellate Infections Topic: Parasitology Topic: Urogenital System Infections

18.

Giardiasis involves A. a protozoan that does not form cysts. B. infection of the large intestine. C. symptoms of abdominal pain, flatulence, and diarrhea. D. vector transmission. E. All of these choices are correct. NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.08 Understand the importance of cysts to the transmission of Giardia. Section: 23.03

Topic: Flagellate Infections Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Parasitology

19.

African sleeping sickness is caused by A. Trypanosoma cruzi. B. Trypanosoma brucei. C. Leishmania brasiliensis. D. Isospora belli. E. Plasmodium falciparum.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.10 Compare the vectors involved in sleeping sickness, Chagas disease, and leishmaniasis. Learning Outcome: 23.11 Compare the pathologies of sleeping sickness, Chagas disease, and leishmaniasis. Section: 23.03 Topic: Flagellate Infections Topic: Parasitology Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

20.

Chagas'disease involves transmission of the pathogen by the A. reduviid, "kissing," bug. B. tsetse fly. C. Anopheles mosquito. D. phlebotomine (sand) fly. E. hard-bodied tick.


ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.09 Describe the four developmental stages of hemoflagellates, and identify those stages that are infectious.

Learning Outcome: 23.10 Compare the vectors involved in sleeping sickness, Chagas disease, and leishmaniasis. Learning Outcome: 23.11 Compare the pathologies of sleeping sickness, Chagas disease, and leishmaniasis. Section: 23.03 Topic: Arthropod Vectors Topic: Flagellate Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

21.

Transmission of the pathogen of leishmaniasis is by the A. reduviid, "kissing," bug. B. tsetse fly. C. Anopheles mosquito. D. phlebotomine (sand) fly. E. hard-bodied tick.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.09 Describe the four developmental stages of hemoflagellates, and identify those stages that are infectious.

Learning Outcome: 23.10 Compare the vectors involved in sleeping sickness, Chagas disease, and leishmaniasis. Learning Outcome: 23.11 Compare the pathologies of sleeping sickness, Chagas disease, and leishmaniasis. Section: 23.03 Topic: Arthropod Vectors Topic: Flagellate Infections Topic: Parasitology Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

22.

The vector involved in African sleeping sickness is the A. reduviid, "kissing," bug. B. tsetse fly. C. Anopheles mosquito. D. phlebotomine (sand) fly. E. hard-bodied tick.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.

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ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

Learning Outcome: 23.09 Describe the four developmental stages of hemoflagellates, and identify those stages that are infectious.

Learning Outcome: 23.10 Compare the vectors involved in sleeping sickness, Chagas disease, and leishmaniasis. Learning Outcome: 23.11 Compare the pathologies of sleeping sickness, Chagas disease, and leishmaniasis. Section: 23.03 Topic: Arthropod Vectors Topic: Flagellate Infections

Topic: Nervous System Infections Topic: Parasitology Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

23.

The large, fully formed developmental stage of a hemoflagellate is called the A. epimastigote. B. amastigote. C. trypomastigote. D. promastigote.

ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.09 Describe the four developmental stages of hemoflagellates, and identify those stages that are infectious. Section: 23.03

24.

Which is incorrect about malaria? A. Merozoites enter and multiply in liver cells. B. Trophozoites develop in RBCs. C. The mosquito inoculates human blood with sporozoites.

Topic: Flagellate Infections Topic: Parasitology Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections


D. Gametocytes enter the mosquito as she draws a blood meal from a human. ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.14 Diagram the life cycle of Plasmodium.

Learning Outcome: 23.15 Describe the pathogenesis of malaria. Section: 23.04

25.

Topic: Apicomplexan Infections Topic: Arthropod Vectors Topic: Parasitology Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

Strongyloides stercoralis A. is a tapeworm. B. is ingested with food and does not migrate out of the intestine. C. rarely causes chronic infection. D. can cause a fatal disseminated disease in immunosuppressed patients. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.22 Describe the four basic helminth transmission cycles. Learning Outcome: 23.24 Identify the transmission cycle of each of the most common intestinal nematodes. Learning Outcome: 23.25 Summarize the mode of infestation and pathology of Necator, Strongyloides, and Trichinella.

Section: 23.05 Section: 23.06 Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Parasitology Topic: Roundworm Infections

26.

The parasitic disease, caused by an apicomplexan that involves infected cats in its life cycle is A. cryptosporidiosis. B. cyclosporiasis. C. babesiosis. D. toxoplasmosis.

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ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.17 Describe the life cycle of Toxoplasma gondii. Learning Outcome: 23.18 Explain the occasional presence of Cryptosporidium in domestic water sources. Learning Outcome: 23.19 Relate Sarcocystis, Cystoisospora, Cyclospora, and Babesia to their specific route of infection. Section: 23.04 Topic: Apicomplexan Infections Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Parasitology Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

27.

Which was the first disease found to be due to a protozoan that is introduced to humans by the bite of a hard body tick? A. cryptosporidiosis B. babesiosis C. toxoplasmosis

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.19 Relate Sarcocystis, Cystoisospora, Cyclospora, and Babesia to their specific route of infection. Section: 23.04

Topic: Apicomplexan Infections Topic: Arthropod Vectors Topic: Parasitology Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

28.

Which apicomplexan has caused outbreaks, associated with fecal-contaminated imported raspberries, and also fresh greens and drinking water? A. cryptosporidiosis B. cyclosporiasis


C. babesiosis D. toxoplasmosis ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.19 Relate Sarcocystis, Cystoisospora, Cyclospora, and Babesia to their specific route of infection. Section: 23.04

29.

Topic: Apicomplexan Infections Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Parasitology

Toxoplasmosis includes all the following, except A. ingesting pseudocysts from contaminated raw or undercooked meat. B. ingesting or inhaling oocysts from infected cats or cat feces. C. tachyzoites can cross the placenta. D. immunocompromised patients often develop a fatal, disseminated infection. E. intrauterine infectious are generally mild with very little damage to fetal tissues.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.17 Describe the life cycle of Toxoplasma gondii. Section: 23.04

Topic: Apicomplexan Infections Topic: Parasitology Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

30.

Symptoms of cryptosporidiosis include A. headache, sweating, vomiting, severe abdominal cramps, and diarrhea. B. a circular rash that appears on the trunk and spreads to the extremities. C. loss of hair. D. a red skin papule that spreads to a large ulcer.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome:N2U 3.R 18SE xpG laT inBth.C eO ocM casional presence of Cryptosporidium in domestic water sources. IN

Section: 23.04

Topic: Apicomplexan Infections Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Parasitology

31.

Which is mismatched? A. whipworm - trematode B. pinworm - nematode C. threadworm - nematode D. fluke - trematode E. tapeworm - cestode

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.20 Recall the categories of parasitic helminths. Section: 23.05

32.

Topic: Flatworm Infections Topic: Parasitology Topic: Roundworm Infections

Ascaris lumbricoides A. is an intestinal roundworm. B. spreads to humans by ingestion of Ascaris eggs in food. C. larvae penetrate into lymphatics and capillaries around intestines. D. larvae migrate to the pharynx, get swallowed, and return to intestines to mature. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.22 Describe the four basic helminth transmission cycles. Learning Outcome: 23.24 Identify the transmission cycle of each of the most common intestinal nematodes.


Section: 23.06

Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Parasitology Topic: Roundworm Infections

33.

Enterobius vermicularis is A. a whipworm. B. common only to the tropics and subtropics. C. an intestinal worm that easily contaminates fingers and fomites. D. often fatal in heavy infestations. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.22 Describe the four basic helminth transmission cycles. Learning Outcome: 23.24 Identify the transmission cycle of each of the most common intestinal nematodes. Section: 23.05 Section: 23.06

Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Parasitology Topic: Roundworm Infections

34.

Hookworms

A. include Necator americanus. B. include Ancylostoma duodenale. C. have filariform larvae in soil that invade by penetrating bare feet. D. have oral cutting plates by which they anchor to the intestines. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.24 Identify the transmission cycle of each of the most common intestinal nematodes. Learning Outcome: 23.25 Summarize the mode of infestation and pathology of Necator, Strongyloides, and Trichinella.

35.

NURSINGTB.COM Elephantiasis includes all the following, except

Section: 23.06 Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Parasitology Topic: Roundworm Infections

A. it is caused by filarial nematodes. B. the parasitic helminth is transmitted by black fly vectors. C. larval infestation causes blockage of main lymphatic channels. D. severe edema occurs in the extremities and scrotum. E. microfilariae are in the blood. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.27 Differentiate between tissue nematodes and intestinal nematodes. Learning Outcome: 23.28 List the vectors associated with each of the common filarial worms.

Learning Outcome: 23.29 Describe the signs and symptoms associated with the most common tissue nematodes. Learning Outcome: 23.34 Differentiate among the arthropod vectors of disease. Section: 23.06

Topic: Arthropod Vectors Topic: Parasitology Topic: Roundworm Infections

36.

River blindness is A. caused by Wuchereria bancrofti. B. a disease in which worms can invade the eyes. C. caused by a blood fluke. D. transmitted by mosquito vector. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.27 Differentiate between tissue nematodes and intestinal nematodes. Learning Outcome: 23.28 List the vectors associated with each of the common filarial worms.

Learning Outcome: 23.29 Describe the signs and symptoms associated with the most common tissue nematodes.


37.

Learning Outcome: 23.34 Differentiate among the arthropod vectors of disease. Section: 23.06 Topic: Arthropod Vectors Topic: Parasitology Topic: Roundworm Infections

Trichinellosis includes all the following, except A. humans are infected by ingesting encysted larvae. B. infection is associated with ingestion of undercooked pork or bear meat. C. the larvae migrate from intestines to blood and various body tissues. D. the first symptoms are diarrhea, nausea, fever, and pain. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.22 Describe the four basic helminth transmission cycles. Learning Outcome: 23.25 Summarize the mode of infestation and pathology of Necator, Strongyloides, and Trichinella. Learning Outcome: 23.26 Identify risk factors for contracting trichinellosis, and list several preventative measures.

Section: 23.06 Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Muscular System Infections Topic: Parasitology Topic: Roundworm Infections

38.

Schistosomiasis involves A. a blood fluke. B. a life cycle stage which continues when eggs from humans enter water and develop into miracidia. C. snails which enable development of the parasite into cercaria. D. cercariae which penetrate hair follicles and pass to the blood and then the liver. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.30 Identify the intermediate and definitive hosts in trematode infestation. Learning Outcome: 23.31 Recall the stages of the Schistosoma life cycle.

NURSINGTB.COM 39.

Section: 23.07 Topic: Flatworm Infections Topic: Parasitology Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

Fasciola hepatica is a A. lung fluke. B. blood fluke. C. liver fluke. D. roundworm. E. filarial worm.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.30 Identify the intermediate and definitive hosts in trematode infestation. Section: 23.07

Topic: Flatworm Infections Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Parasitology

40.

All of the following pertain to tapeworms, except the A. scolex is the attachment organ. B. strobila is made up of proglottids. C. proglottids are reproductive segments. D. cysticerci are young infective larvae ingested in undercooked meat. E. one proglottid segment will have either female or male reproductive organs.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.32 Discuss the anatomical adaptation of tapeworms to their intestinal habitat. Learning Outcome: 23.33 Descibe the major characteristics of Taenia saginata and Taenia solium.

Section: 23.07 Topic: Flatworm Infections Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections


Topic: Parasitology

41.

Which is mismatched? A. Diphyllobothrium latum - fish B. Taenia solium - pork C. Taenia saginata - beef D. Echinococcus granulosus - poultry E. Anisakis - fish

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.32 Discuss the anatomical adaptation of tapeworms to their intestinal habitat. Learning Outcome: 23.33 Descibe the major characteristics of Taenia saginata and Taenia solium.

Section: 23.07 Topic: Flatworm Infections Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Parasitology

42.

The form lacking a free flagellum in the developmental stage of a hemoflagellate is called the A. epimastigote. B. amastigote. C. trypomastigote. D. promastigote.

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.09 Describe the four developmental stages of hemoflagellates, and identify those stages that are infectious. Section: 23.03

43.

All of the following will kill Giardia, except

Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology Topic: Flagellate Infections Topic: Parasitology Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

NURSINGTB.COM

A. boiling. B. ozone. C. filtration through a 1 micron filter. D. chlorine in typical drinking water. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.08 Understand the importance of cysts to the transmission of Giardia. Section: 23.03

Topic: Flagellate Infections Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Parasitology

44.

Which of the following is not an effective way to minimize human contact with parasitic helminths? A. freezing foods B. thoroughly cooking foods C. proper sewage disposal D. avoiding human feces as fertilizer E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.23 Describe the strategies used to diagnose and control helminth infection. Learning Outcome: 23.26 Identify risk factors for contracting trichinellosis, and list several preventative measures.

Section: 23.05 Topic: Flatworm Infections Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Parasitology


Topic: Roundworm Infections

45.

Which is not correct about trichinellosis? A. It can be transmitted by eating undercooked pork. B. It can be transmitted by eating bear meat. C. Numerous cases occur each year in the United States. D. The first symptoms mimic influenza. E. A cure is not available once the larvae have encysted in muscles.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.25 Summarize the mode of infestation and pathology of Necator, Strongyloides, and Trichinella. Learning Outcome: 23.26 Identify risk factors for contracting trichinellosis, and list several preventative measures.

Learning Outcome: 23.29 Describe the signs and symptoms associated with the most common tissue nematodes. Section: 23.06 Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Muscular System Infections Topic: Parasitology Topic: Roundworm Infections

46.

Which parasite is carried by Cyclops, an arthropod commonly found in still water?

A. Schistosoma mansoni B. Dracunculus medinesis C. Fasciola hepatica D. Taenia saginata E. Toxoplasma gondii ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.21 Distinguish between intermediate hosts and definitive hosts. Learning Outcome: 23.27 Differentiate between tissue nematodes and intestinal nematodes. Learning Outcome: 23.29 Describe the signs and symptoms associated with the most common tissue nematodes. Section: 23.06 Topic: Parasitology Topic: Roundworm Infections

47.

Pregnant women should never change catNliU tteRrSdIN ueGtToBt.hCeOrM isk of contracting A. toxoplasmosis. B. malaria. C. trypanosomiasis. D. amebic dysentery. E. Chagas'disease.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.17 Describe the life cycle of Toxoplasma gondii. Section: 23.04

48.

Which is not correct about kala azar?

Topic: Apicomplexan Infections Topic: Parasitology Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

A. It is fatal in untreated cases. B. Chemotherapy with chloroquine is usually effective. C. Death is partly due to anemia, destruction of blood-forming tissues, and secondary infections. D. It is transmitted by the sand fly. E. It is a form of leishmaniasis. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.10 Compare the vectors involved in sleeping sickness, Chagas disease, and leishmaniasis. Learning Outcome: 23.11 Compare the pathologies of sleeping sickness, Chagas disease, and leishmaniasis. Learning Outcome: 23.34 Differentiate among the arthropod vectors of disease. Section: 23.03 Topic: Arthropod Vectors Topic: Flagellate Infections Topic: Parasitology Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections


49.

The larval forms of certain Taenia species, which typically infest muscles of mammalian intermediate hosts are also called A. proglottids. B. merozoites. C. cysticerci. D. amastigotes. E. eggs.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.21 Distinguish between intermediate hosts and definitive hosts. Learning Outcome: 23.32 Discuss the anatomical adaptation of tapeworms to their intestinal habitat. Learning Outcome: 23.33 Descibe the major characteristics of Taenia saginata and Taenia solium. Section: 23.07 Topic: Flatworm Infections Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Parasitology

50.

Trichinella spiralis is a/an

that invades the

.

A. roundworm; intestine and muscle B. ameba; intestine C. flagellate; large intestine D. flatworm; heart E. tapeworm; lungs ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.25 Summarize the mode of infestation and pathology of Necator, Strongyloides, and Trichinella. Learning Outcome: 23.26 Identify risk factors for contracting trichinellosis, and list several preventative measures.

51.

NURSINGTB.COM Which of the following relationships is mismatched?

Section: 23.06 Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Muscular System Infections Topic: Parasitology Topic: Roundworm Infections

A. T. brucei gambiense and Gambian sleeping sickness B. T.brucei rhodesiense and West African sleeping sickness C. tsetse fly and African sleeping sickness D. Taenia solium and swine E. black flies and Onchocera volvulus ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.10 Compare the vectors involved in sleeping sickness, Chagas disease, and leishmaniasis. Learning Outcome: 23.11 Compare the pathologies of sleeping sickness, Chagas disease, and leishmaniasis. Learning Outcome: 23.34 Differentiate among the arthropod vectors of disease. Section: 23.03 Topic: Arthropod Vectors Topic: Flagellate Infections Topic: Parasitology Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

52.

Only feces from humans that contaminates food and water can be involved in transmission of amebiasis. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.04 Depict the life cycle seen in Entamoeba histolytica infection. Section: 23.02

Topic: Amoeba Infections Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Parasitology

53.

Chagas'disease is treated with chloroquine.


FALSE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.10 Compare the vectors involved in sleeping sickness, Chagas disease, and leishmaniasis. Learning Outcome: 23.11 Compare the pathologies of sleeping sickness, Chagas disease, and leishmaniasis. Section: 23.03

Topic: Arthropod Vectors Topic: Flagellate Infections

Topic: Parasitology

54.

A person carrying one gene for sickle-cell hemoglobin will be resistant to Plasmodium infection. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.09 Describe the four developmental stages of hemoflagellates, and identify those stages that are infectious.

Learning Outcome: 23.13 Explain the endemic occurrence of malaria. Section: 23.04

Topic: Apicomplexan Infections Topic: Parasitology Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

55.

Boiling will not kill Giardia lamblia cysts in contaminated water. FALSE

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.08 Understand the importance of cysts to the transmission of Giardia. Section: 23.03

Topic: Flagellate Infections Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Parasitology

NURSINGTB.COM 56.

Plasmodium species are hemoflagellates. FALSE

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.12 Recall the most important apicomplexan parasites. Learning Outcome: 23.14 Diagram the life cycle of Plasmodium.

Learning Outcome: 23.15 Describe the pathogenesis of malaria. Section: 23.04 Topic: Apicomplexan Infections Topic: Parasitology Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

57.

In temperate zones, pinworms are the most common helminth infection. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.24 Identify the transmission cycle of each of the most common intestinal nematodes. Section: 23.06

Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Parasitology Topic: Roundworm Infections

58.

Hookworms and threadworms usually enter the body by penetrating into the skin. TRUE


ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.22 Describe the four basic helminth transmission cycles. Learning Outcome: 23.24 Identify the transmission cycle of each of the most common intestinal nematodes. Learning Outcome: 23.25 Summarize the mode of infestation and pathology of Necator, Strongyloides, and Trichinella. Section: 23.06

Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Parasitology Topic: Roundworm Infections

59.

Loa Loa is an intestinal roundworm transmitted by contaminated food. FALSE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.27 Differentiate between tissue nematodes and intestinal nematodes. Learning Outcome: 23.29 Describe the signs and symptoms associated with the most common tissue nematodes. Learning Outcome: 23.34 Differentiate among the arthropod vectors of disease. Section: 23.06

Topic: Arthropod Vectors Topic: Parasitology Topic: Roundworm Infections Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections

60.

Hermaphroditic helminth species have separate male and female worms. FALSE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.22 Describe the four basic helminth transmission cycles. Section: 23.05

61.

Many protozoan species can form a

haRtScIaNnGsTuBrv.CivOeM for periods outside a host. NtU

Topic: Flatworm Infections Topic: Parasitology Topic: Roundworm Infections

cyst ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.02 Recall the identifying attributes of the four commonly recognized groups of protozoa. Learning Outcome: 23.04 Depict the life cycle seen in Entamoeba histolytica infection.

Learning Outcome: 23.08 Understand the importance of cysts to the transmission of Giardia. Section: 23.02 Section: 23.03

Topic: Amoeba Infections Topic: Flagellate Infections Topic: Parasitology

62.

An amoeba trophozoite with visible ingested RBCs that is seen in a microscopic examination of a fecal smear would likely be the pathogen . Entamoeba histolytica

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.04 Depict the life cycle seen in Entamoeba histolytica infection. Learning Outcome: 23.05 Contrast the pathogenesis, treatments, and common outcomes of Entamoeba, Naegleria, and Acanthoamoeba infections. Section: 23.02

Topic: Amoeba Infections Topic: Clinical Microbiology


Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Parasitology

63.

Trypanosoma and Leishmania are called hosts.

because they often live in the blood and tissues of their

hemoflagellates ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.09 Describe the four developmental stages of hemoflagellates, and identify those stages that are infectious.

Learning Outcome: 23.11 Compare the pathologies of sleeping sickness, Chagas disease, and leishmaniasis. Section: 23.03

Topic: Flagellate Infections Topic: Parasitology Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

64.

The most deadly form of systemic leishmaniasis is called

.

Kala Azar ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.11 Compare the pathologies of sleeping sickness, Chagas disease, and leishmaniasis. Section: 23.03

Topic: Flagellate Infections Topic: Parasitology Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

65.

Control of

revolves around mosquito control and methods to prevent human-mosquito contact.

malaria ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.14 Diagram the life cycle of Plasmodium.

Learning Outcome: 23.16 Explain the strategies used to combat malaria.

NURSINGTB.COM Learning Outcome: 23.34 Differentiate among the arthropod vectors of disease. Learning Outcome: 23.35 Describe the relationship between arthropod vectors and the parasites they carry. Section: 23.04 Topic: Apicomplexan Infections Topic: Arthropod Vectors Topic: Parasitology Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

66.

Eggs and larva are developmental forms of various parasites called

.

helminths ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.22 Describe the four basic helminth transmission cycles. Learning Outcome: 23.23 Describe the strategies used to diagnose and control helminth infection.

Section: 23.05 Topic: Flatworm Infections Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Parasitology Topic: Roundworm Infections

67.

The active, feeding form of a protozoan is called the

.

trophozoite ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.02 Recall the identifying attributes of the four commonly recognized groups of protozoa. Learning Outcome: 23.04 Depict the life cycle seen in Entamoeba histolytica infection.

Section: 23.02 Topic: Amoeba Infections Topic: Flagellate Infections Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Parasitology


68.

Describe the life cycle of Plasmodium and malaria epidemiology including: a) developmental forms and respective hosts/host cells, b) transmission, c) human disease and symptoms, d) treatment, and e) prevention.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 23.13 Explain the endemic occurrence of malaria. Learning Outcome: 23.14 Diagram the life cycle of Plasmodium.

Learning Outcome: 23.15 Describe the pathogenesis of malaria. Learning Outcome: 23.16 Explain the strategies used to combat malaria. Section: 23.04 Topic: Apicomplexan Infections Topic: Arthropod Vectors Topic: Parasitology Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

69.

Compare and contrast giardiasis and amebiasis with regard to: a) causative agent, b) transmission, c) infection site in body, d) signs and symptoms, e) prevention, and f) treatment.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 23.02 Recall the identifying attributes of the four commonly recognized groups of protozoa. Learning Outcome: 23.04 Depict the life cycle seen in Entamoeba histolytica infection.

Learning Outcome: 23.08 Understand the importance of cysts to the transmission of Giardia. Section: 23.02 Section: 23.03

Topic: Amoeba Infections Topic: Flagellate Infections Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Parasitology

70.

Discuss the life cycle of one of the roundworms including: a) developmental forms and corresponding hosts, b) transmission, c) human disease and symptoms, d) treatment, and e) prevention.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 23.24 Identify the transmission cycle of each of the most common intestinal nematodes. Learning Outcome: 23.25 Summarize the mode of infestation and pathology of Necator, Strongyloides, and Trichinella.

LearnN ing om 23..C 2O 7D UO RuStIcN GeT: B Mifferentiate between tissue nematodes and intestinal nematodes.

Learning Outcome: 23.28 List the vectors associated with each of the common filarial worms.

Learning Outcome: 23.29 Describe the signs and symptoms associated with the most common tissue nematodes. Section: 23.05 Section: 23.06

Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Parasitology Topic: Roundworm Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

71.

Write a brief definition of a parasite and parasitology giving specific examples of a fungus, protozoan, and helminth.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 23.01 Describe the changing epidemiology of parasitic disease.

Learning Outcome: 23.02 Recall the identifying attributes of the four commonly recognized groups of protozoa. Learning Outcome: 23.20 Recall the categories of parasitic helminths. Section: 23.01 Topic: Amoeba Infections Topic: Apicomplexan Infections Topic: Flagellate Infections Topic: Flatworm Infections Topic: Parasitology Topic: Roundworm Infections

72.

While on a backpacking trip in Maine, Julie and her friends obtained their drinking water from several different pristine streams, adding one or two drops of bleach to ensure its safety. Several days later Julie began experiencing abdominal distress, specifically cramping, fatty diarrhea, and flatulence. When it didn’t clear up within several days, Julie visited her doctor. Which of the following would be the most likely cause of Julie’s symptoms?

A. Entamoeba histolytica B. Giardia intestinalis C. E. coli O157:H7 D. Schistosoma mansoni


E. Toxoplasma gondii ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze Learning Outcome: 23.03 Identify the amoebas generally seen as human pathogens and the portals of entry for each. Learning Outcome: 23.08 Understand the importance of cysts to the transmission of Giardia. Learning Outcome: 23.17 Describe the life cycle of Toxoplasma gondii. Section: 23.03 Topic: Amoeba Infections Topic: Apicomplexan Infections Topic: Flagellate Infections Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Parasitology

73.

Anna recently learned that she is pregnant and is visiting her doctor for her first prenatal visit. Among the many pieces of advice offered to ensure a safe pregnancy, the doctor specifically told Anna to avoid eating any rare meats, including steaks and roast beef, and to avoid changing her cat’s litter box. These words of caution were primarily directed at avoiding contact with A. E. coli O157:H7. B. Taenia saginata. C. Cryptosporidium. D. Toxoplasma gondii.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 23.12 Recall the most important apicomplexan parasites. Learning Outcome: 23.17 Describe the life cycle of Toxoplasma gondii. Section: 23.04 Topic: Apicomplexan Infections Topic: Parasitology Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

74.

What specific challenge does Trypanosoma brucei present to the immune system? A. It frequently changes its antigens, staying one step ahead of the host's antibody response. B. It specifically attacks B-lymphocytes preventing activation and antibody production. C. It specifically attacks T-lymphocytes preventing their activation and crippling the cell-mediated immune response. NURSINGTB.COM D. Its antigens are not recognized by B and T-lymphocytes so these host defense cells don’t respond to the infection.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 23.11 Compare the pathologies of sleeping sickness, Chagas disease, and leishmaniasis. Section: 23.03

Topic: Flagellate Infections Topic: Parasitology Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

75.

Adam, a once active normal three-year old boy, was experiencing increasing bouts of lethargy and began to regress developmentally. His mother scheduled an appointment with his pediatrician, who ordered a number of different blood tests. The most notable blood test result that piqued the physician’s interest was a pronounced eosinophilia. Which of the following would be most likely to cause this abnormality?

A. infection with Giardia intestinalis B. infection with a parasitic helminth C. malaria D. infection with Cryptosporidium spp. E. viral infection ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 23.23 Describe the strategies used to diagnose and control helminth infection. Section: 23.05

76.

Topic: Flatworm Infections Topic: Parasitology Topic: Roundworm Infections

Which of the following parasites must be swallowed twice by the human host, first as an egg and later as a larva?


A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Necatur americanus C. Taenia saginata D. Enterobius vermicularis E. Schistosoma mansoni ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 23.24 Identify the transmission cycle of each of the most common intestinal nematodes. Section: 23.05 Section: 23.06

Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Parasitology Topic: Roundworm Infections

77.

Diseases such as malaria, dengue fever, and Chagas'disease may be spread by any blood-sucking arthropod. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.35 Describe the relationship between arthropod vectors and the parasites they carry. Section: 23.08

Topic: Arthropod Vectors Topic: Parasitology

78.

Recent strategies for control and containing the spread of river blindness include

A. antibiotics to inhibit bacterial endosymbionts within Onchocerca volvulus. B. antihelmintic drugs such as ivermectin to destroy the larval worms. C. antiprotozoan drugs such as metronidazole. D. insecticides to decrease the blackfly population. E. filtering water through nylon sieves to remove Cyclops. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of micN roU orR gaSnIiN sm an.CbO e cM ontrolled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. GsTcB ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 23.23 Describe the strategies used to diagnose and control helminth infection.

Learning Outcome: 23.29 Describe the signs and symptoms associated with the most common tissue nematodes. Section: 23.06

Topic: Arthropod Vectors Topic: Parasitology Topic: Roundworm Infections

79.

Which animals serve as intermediate hosts for human schistosomes? A. mosquitoes B. fish C. reduviid bugs D. snails E. humans

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.31 Recall the stages of the Schistosoma life cycle. Section: 23.07 Topic: Flatworm Infections

Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections


Chapter 23 Testbank Summary Category

# of Questions

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (in cluding bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron).

5

ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different.

8

ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metaboli c characteristics.

1

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biologic al means.

5

ASM Objective: 04.03 The regulation of gene expression is influenced by external and internal molecular cues and/ or signals.

1

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in benefi cial, neutral or detrimental ways.

79

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function

12

ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways

6

ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow

1

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems

76

Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

30

Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand

39

Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply

9

Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze

1

Learning Outcome: 23.01 Describe the changing epidemiology of parasitic disease.

2

Learning Outcome: 23.02 Recall the identifying attributes of the four commonly recognized groups of protozoa.

5

Learning Outcome: 23.03 Identify the amoebas generally seen as human pathogens and the portals of entry for each .

6

Learning Outcome: 23.04 Depict the life cycle seen in Entamoeba histolytica infection. Learning Outcome: 23.05 Contrast the pathogenesis, treatments, and common outcomes of Entamoeba, Naegleria, and Acanthoamoeba infections.

8 7

Learning Outcome: 23.06 Classify and describe the important characteristics of Balantidium coli.

2

Learning Outcome: 23.07 Describe the important characteristics of Trichomonas vaginalis and the pathology of infecti on.

3

Learning Outcome: 23.08 Understand the importance of cysts to the transmission of Giardia.

8

Learning Outcome: 23.09 Describe the four developmental stages of hemoflagellates, and identify those stages that are infectious.

7

Learning Outcome: 23.10 Compare the vectors involved in sleeping sickness, Chagas disease, and leishmaniasis.

8

Learning Outcome: 23.11 Compare the pathologies of sleeping sickness, Chagas disease, and leishmaniasis.

11

Learning Outcome: 23.12 Recall the most important apicomplexan parasites.

4

Learning Outcome: 23.13 Explain the endemic occurrence of malaria.

2

Learning Outcome: 23.14 Diagram the life cycle of Plasmodium.

5

Learning Outcome: 23.15 Describe the pathogenesis of malaria.

4

Learning Outcome: 23.16 Explain the strategies used to combat malaria.

2

Learning Outcome: 23.17 Describe the life cycle of Toxoplasma gondii.

8

Learning Outcome: 23.18 Explain the occasional presence of Cryptosporidium in domestic water sources.

3

Learning Outcome: 23.19 Relate Sarcocystis, Cystoisospora, Cyclospora, and Babesia to their specific route of infect ion.

4

Learning Outcome: 23.20 Recall the categories of parasitic helminths.

2

Learning Outcome: 23.21 Distinguish between intermediate hosts and definitive hosts.

3

Learning Outcome: 23.22 Describe the four basic helminth transmission cycles.

7

Learning Outcome: 23.23 Describe the strategies used to diagnose and control helminth infection.

4

Learning Outcome: 23.24 Identify the transmission cycle of each of the most common intestinal nematodes.

8

Learning Outcome: 23.25 Summarize the mode of infestation and pathology of Necator, Strongyloides, and Trichinell

7

NURSINGTB.COM


a. Learning Outcome: 23.26 Identify risk factors for contracting trichinellosis, and list several preventative measures.

4

Learning Outcome: 23.27 Differentiate between tissue nematodes and intestinal nematodes. Learning Outcome: 23.28 List the vectors associated with each of the common filarial worms. Learning Outcome: 23.29 Describe the signs and symptoms associated with the most common tissue nematodes.

5 3 7

Learning Outcome: 23.30 Identify the intermediate and definitive hosts in trematode infestation.

2

Learning Outcome: 23.31 Recall the stages of the Schistosoma life cycle.

2

Learning Outcome: 23.32 Discuss the anatomical adaptation of tapeworms to their intestinal habitat.

3

Learning Outcome: 23.33 Descibe the major characteristics of Taenia saginata and Taenia solium.

3

Learning Outcome: 23.34 Differentiate among the arthropod vectors of disease.

7

Learning Outcome: 23.35 Describe the relationship between arthropod vectors and the parasites they carry.

2

Section: 23.01

2

Section: 23.02

12

Section: 23.03

23

Section: 23.04

17

Section: 23.05

10

Section: 23.06

16

Section: 23.07

6

Section: 23.08

1

Topic: Amoeba Infections

13

Topic: Apicomplexan Infections

19

Topic: Arthropod Vectors

16

Topic: Bacterial Cellular Morphology

1

Topic: Clinical Microbiology

1

Topic: Flagellate Infections Topic: Flatworm Infections

26

NURSINGTB.COM

13

Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections

36

Topic: Muscular System Infections

3

Topic: Nervous System Infections

4

Topic: Parasitology

77

Topic: Roundworm Infections

23

Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections

1

Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

29

Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms Topic: Urogenital System Infections

2 3


Chapter 24 Testbank Student:

1.

All of the following belong to the Herpesviridae, except A. varicella-zoster virus. B. cytomegalovirus. C. variola virus. D. herpes simplex viruses. E. Epstein-Barr virus.

2.

Viruses with single-stranded DNA are the A. herpesviruses. B. poxviruses. C. adenoviruses. D. papovaviruses. E. parvoviruses.

3.

Smallpox is a disease in which A. fever, malaise, rash, possible toxemia and shock occurs. B. virus becomes latent in ganglia of sensory neurons. C. recurrent episodes are called shingles. D. transmission occurs only by direct skin contact with skin crusts. E. All of these choices are correct.

4.

All of the following pertain to monkeypox, except NURSINGTB.COM A. symptoms include skin pocks, fever, and swollen lymph nodes. B. outbreaks have occurred in Africa. C. transmission is typically by contact with monkeys, squirrels, and rats. D. a recent U.S. outbreak involved pet prairie dogs infected by an African rat. E. the virus has shown a trend in becoming less virulent, with fewer outbreaks in humans.

5.

All of the following pertain to herpes simplex-1 (HSV-1), except A. it causes gingivostomatitis. B. it causes cold sores and herpes keratitis. C. it is latent in the lumbosacral spinal nerve ganglia. D. it is transmitted by mucous membrane contact with lesions. E. it causes herpetic whitlow in health care workers.

6.

Herpes simplex-2 (HSV-2) causes A. genital lesions. B. intensely sensitive vesicles on or near the genitals. C. symptoms that include urethritis, cervicitis, and itching. D. infection in neonates that have contact with lesions in the birth canal. E. All of these choices are correct.

7.

An occasional serious complication of herpes simplex-1 is A. shingles. B. paralysis. C. encephalitis. D. myocarditis. E. kidney failure.

8.

Which of the following antivirals is not used for treatment of HSV-1 and HSV-2?


A. interferon B. valacyclovir C. acyclovir D. famciclovir E. All of these choices are correct. 9.

Chickenpox A. is transmitted by inhalation of respiratory secretions. B. is transmitted by skin lesion contact or airborne spread of lesion material. C. has an incubation of 10 to 20 days. D. has fever, and vesicular rash that occurs in successive crops. E. All of these choices are correct.

10. Herpes whitlow is a deep-set herpes simplex virus infection of the A. nasal mucosa. B. finger. C. oral mucosa and tongue. D. eye. E. newborn. 11. Varicella-zoster virus A. uses the respiratory epithelium as its portal of entry. B. becomes latent in dorsal root ganglia that serve specific dermatomes. C. has humans as its reservoir. D. causes chickenpox and shingles. E. All of these choices are correct. NURSINGTB.COM 12. If a person who has never been infected with the varicella-zoster virus comes in contact with a person who has shingles, they will come down with A. herpes labialis. B. shingles. C. chickenpox. D. infectious mononucleosis. E. herpes keratitis. 13. Symptoms of infectious mononucleosis include A. vesicular lesions in oral mucosa. B. fever, and pocks on skin. C. sore throat, fever, cervical lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly. D. fever, severe diarrhea, pneumonitis, hepatitis, and retinitis.

14. Epstein-Barr virus has the following characteristics, except A. it infects the respiratory epithelium. B. it is transmitted by direct oral contact and saliva. C. it multiplies and is latent in the parotid gland. D. it has a 30–50 day incubation. E. it can be transmitted by contaminated blood transfusions and organ transplants. 15. Cytomegalovirus mononucleosis typically has fever and lymphocytosis, but in severely immunocompromised patients symptoms include A. vesicular lesions in oral mucosa. B. pocks on skin. C. sore throat, fever, and tinnitus.


D. severe diarrhea, pneumonitis, hepatitis, and retinitis.

16. The patients at greatest risk for severe cytomegalovirus infection include all the following, except A. individuals with hypertension. B. organ transplant patients. C. infants infected in utero. D. AIDS patients. E. bone marrow transplant patients. 17. Cytomegalovirus A. is among the most common of human infections. B. is transmitted by saliva, respiratory mucus, milk, urine, semen, and cervical secretions. C. can be sexually transmitted. D. is commonly carried in the latent state. E. All of these choices are correct.

18. Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6) has the following characteristics, except A. it replicates in T-lymphocytes, macrophages, and salivary gland tissue. B. it causes roseola in infants. C. it appears as a mononucleosis-like illness in adults. D. it causes Kaposi's sarcoma. E. it is transmitted by saliva. 19. The hepadnaviruses A. include the adenoviruses. B. show tropism for the liver. C. are transmitted by respiratory secrNeU tioRnSsI.NGTB.COM D. are nonenveloped, double-stranded DNA viruses. E. All of these choices are correct. 20. Inflammation of the liver with necrosis of the hepatocytes and swelling due to a mononuclear response is a disease called A. hepatitis. B. jaundice. C. liver cancer. D. mononucleosis. 21. Hepatitis B virus A. is principally transmitted by blood. B. transmission risks include shared needles, anal intercourse, and heterosexual intercourse. C. is transmitted to the newborn from chronic carrier mothers. D. has many chronic carriers. E. All of these choices are correct. 22. Hepatitis B infection A. has an incubation of 1 to 3 weeks. B. can be transmitted by the fecal-oral route. C. increases risk for hepatocellular cancer. D. is due to a flavivirus. E. All of these choices are correct. 23. Adenoviruses are A. nonenveloped, double-stranded, DNA viruses. B. transmitted by respiratory and ocular secretions. C. causes of conjunctivitis, common cold, and an acute hemorrhagic cystitis in children.


D. causes of outbreaks among military recruits. E. All of these choices are correct. 24. Which is incorrect about warts? A. They are caused by human papillomaviruses (HPV). B. They can be transmitted by direct contact or fomites. C. They include deep plantar warts of soles of the feet. D. They are usually cancerous. E. Freezing and laser surgery can be used for removal.

25. All of the following pertain to genital warts, except A. the are not common in the United States. B. they are sexually transmitted. C. they often occur on the penis, vagina, and cervix. D. they include large cauliflower-like masses called condylomata acuminata. E. certain strains strongly predispose a person to cancer of the cervix or penis. 26. Polyomaviruses A. cause common asymptomatic to mild infections. B. cause progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy. C. cause problems in renal transplant patients. D. include the JC virus and BK virus. E. All of these choices are correct. 27. Which is incorrect about parvoviruses? TnBd.CoOthMer mammals. A. They cause several diseases in doNgUsR , cSaIN tsG ,a B. They are single-stranded DNA viruses. C. They cannot be transmissible to the fetus. D. They cause a disease known as fifth disease. E. Parvovirus B19 causes erythema infectiosum. 28. Fifth'disease A. is caused by Parvovirus B19. B. is a childhood febrile disease with a bright red rash on the cheeks. C. involves pathogen capable of crossing the placenta. D. in immunodeficient children, destroys red blood cell stem cells. E. All of these choices are correct. 29. Which of the following viruses is an RNA virus that causes many cases of transfusion hepatitis? A. Hepatitis C virus (HCV) B. Hepatitis B virus (HBV) C. adenovirus D. Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) E. cytomegalovirus (CMV) 30. When bilirubin accumulates in the blood and tissues, it causes A. shock. B. hypotension. C. swelling of the legs. D. jaundice. E. gangrene.

31. All of the following are similarities between HAV, HBV, and HCV, except A. they all cause hepatitis.


B. they are all endemic in the United States. C. they all can have an incubation period of one month. D. there are diagnostic tests available to distinguish between them. E. they are all RNA viruses. 32. Which of the following are ways to control or treat Hepatitis B? A. recombinant interferon B. heptavax vaccine C. Hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) D. recombivax vaccine E. All of these choices are correct. 33. Which virus may play a role in multiple sclerosis? A. Epstein-Barr Virus B. human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6) C. cytomegalovirus (CMV) D. herpes simplex virus-2 E. smallpox 34. Which of the following may cause reactivation of varicella-zoster virus as shingles? A. developing malignancy B. X-ray treatments C. iimmunosuppressive conditions D. surgery E. All of these choices are correct. 35. Which infection are you likely looking at if you view a direct smear of a cervical scraping and see NdUiR .Cr O enlarged (multinucleate giant) cells an nS trIaNnG ucTlB ea inM clusions? A. HCV B. EBV C. HSV-2 D. VZV E. HPV 36. Which is not correct about genital warts? A. The etiological agent is the human polyoma virus JC. B. They are strongly associated with cancer of the penis. C. Treatment can involve laser surgery. D. It is the most common STD in the United States. E. They are strongly associated with cancer of the cervix. 37. Which is incorrect about smallpox? A. There is an effective vaccine. B. Transmission is by ingesting contaminated water or food. C. The vaccine is effective even if given in the first few days after exposure. D. The poxvirus called variola is the etiological agent. E. The last case was seen in 1977. 38. Which is incorrect about viral diseases? A. Some DNA viruses can become permanent residents of host cells. B. Viral diseases can be zoonoses. C. Most DNA viruses multiply in and are released from the cytoplasm. D. Some viruses are teratogenic. E. Diagnosis of some diseases involves antigen detection with monoclonal antibodies.


39. As of 2000, according to the International Committee on the Taxonomy of Viruses, how are viruses classified? A. genetic information only B. structure only C. chemical composition and structure D. genetic information, structure, and chemical composition E. genetic information, structure, host, and diseases caused 40. Molluscum contagiosum is transmitted by direct contact with skin lesions, fomites, and sexual activity. True False 41. Chickenpox is caused by a poxvirus. True False 42. Herpes keratitis is an infection of the eye. True False 43. Varicella and herpes zoster are caused by the same virus. True False 44. Virtually, everyone becomes infected with the herpesviruses at some time in their lives. True False NURSINGTB.COM 45. Zoster immune globulin (ZIG) and varicella-zoster immune globulin (VZIG) are attenuated vaccines for childhood vaccination. True False 46. Burkitt's lymphoma is a B-cell malignancy, usually of the jaw, associated with Epstein-Barr infection or coinfection with other diseases. True False 47. Carriers of Hepatitis B virus are not common. True False 48. All warts caused by human papillomaviruses are linked to cancers. True False 49. Parvovirus B19 causes a fatal anemia in the fetus. True False 50. There are vaccines that cause the development of immunity to the Hepatitis B virus. True False 51. The only body fluid that can transmit Hepatitis B virus is blood. True False 52. Poxviruses are the largest and most complex of all animal viruses.


True False 53. Variola major and variola minor are the two principal forms of smallpox disease. True False 54. The antivirals used for herpes simplex infections have the ability to completely destroy the virus and permanently cure the latent infection. True False 55. Herpes simplex-1 (HSV-1) enters the

cranial nerve where it becomes latent.

56. The smallpox vaccine uses the

virus.

57. The oral cavity infection called tongue, cheeks, and lips.

occurs when herpetic vesicles cover the oral mucosa,

58. A virus that causes congenital defects and developmental problems is known as

.

59. Liver disease, such as hepatitis, can lead to bilirubin accumulation that causes a yellow tinge to skin and eyes called . 60. Viruses called viruses become permanent residents in host cells and alternate between inactive periods and recurrent infectioNnU s.RSINGTB.COM 61. Passive artificial immunity to the Hepatitis B virus is provided by immunization with 62. Adenoviruses cause an inflammation of the conjunctiva and cornea called

.

63. Describe viral latency and oncogenicity, and discuss two examples of latent DNA viruses and two examples of oncogenic DNA viruses. 64. Compare and contrast Hepatitis B virus, Hepatitis A virus, and Hepatitis C virus with regard to: a) virus characteristics, b) reservoir, c) transmission, d) incubation, e) symptoms, f) complications, and g) immunization. 65. Compare and contrast chickenpox and shingles, and explain the underlying reasons for their differences in pathogenesis. 66. Using at least three examples, summarize how HPV can be prevented. 67. Which structure is found only in poxviruses? A. nucleosome B. DNA genome C. envelope D. capsid 68. Infection with human polyomaviruses is most often asymptomatic in a healthy person. True False 69. Parvoviruses

.


A. cause diseases in cats, dogs, and humans. B. have a genome of double-stranded DNA. C. are the cause of erythema infectiosum. D. have a nucleocapsid surrounded by an envelope. 70. Molly, a 3-year-old active preschool girl, spent the morning playing with the other children at the day-care center. Shortly after lunch, she began to appear very flushed with bright red cheeks, and a check of her temperature revealed a low-grade fever of 99.5. She seemed to feel normal and showed no other signs of illness. Which of the following would be the most likely cause of her fever and bright red cheeks? A. herpes simplex virus B. human Parvovirus B19 C. varicella-zoster virus D. roseola virus (Human herpesvirus 6) E. cytomegalovirus 71. Pox viruses consist of a linear double-stranded DNA genome enclosed in a protein capsid, surrounded by an envelope. True False 72. Which of the following are found in pox viruses? A. B. C. D. E. F. G.

envelope RNA DNA capsid surface tubules outer membrane core membrane

NURSINGTB.COM

73. Select the following statements that apply to human polyomavirses. A. Recipients of renal transplants are at risk for complications caused by BK virus. B. Most infections with BK and JC virus are asymptomatic. C. BK and JC virus infections are believed to be common. D. JC virus may cause a demyelinating disease affecting the cerebrum in immunocompromised patients. E. Polyomaviruses are well-recognized oncogenic agents in humans. 74. Which of the following preventative measures is used to protect renal transplant patients from BK virus infection? A. vaccination B. injections of pooled human gamma globulin C. prophylactic treatment with human leukocyte interferon D. prophylactic treatment with amantadine 75. Human polyomaviruses are well-known for their oncogenic potential, most often associated with chronic lymphocytic leukemia in humans. True

False

76. All of the following are true of human parvovirus B19, except A. this virus can also cause severe disease in puppies. B. its genome consists of single-stranded DNA. C. this is one of the smallest human viruses. D. it causes a disease known as fifth's disease in young children.


Chapter 24 Testbank Key 1.

All of the following belong to the Herpesviridae, except A. varicella-zoster virus. B. cytomegalovirus. C. variola virus. D. herpes simplex viruses. E. Epstein-Barr virus.

ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 24.07 Characterize the herpesviruses that commonly infect humans. Section: 24.03

Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Viral Classification

2.

Viruses with single-stranded DNA are the A. herpesviruses. B. poxviruses. C. adenoviruses. D. papovaviruses. E. parvoviruses.

ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 24.03: Explain how viral structure is related to viral classification.

Learning Outcome: 24.20 Recall the characteristics of parvovirus that make it unique. Section: 24.05 NURSINGTB.COM Topic: Nonenveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Viral Classification Topic: Viral Infections Topic: Viral Structure

3.

Smallpox is a disease in which A. fever, malaise, rash, possible toxemia and shock occurs. B. virus becomes latent in ganglia of sensory neurons. C. recurrent episodes are called shingles. D. transmission occurs only by direct skin contact with skin crusts. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.06 Recall the poxviruses that can infect humans and the diseases they cause. Section: 24.02

4.

All of the following pertain to monkeypox, except

Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Viral Infections

A. symptoms include skin pocks, fever, and swollen lymph nodes. B. outbreaks have occurred in Africa. C. transmission is typically by contact with monkeys, squirrels, and rats. D. a recent U.S. outbreak involved pet prairie dogs infected by an African rat. E. the virus has shown a trend in becoming less virulent, with fewer outbreaks in humans. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.06 Recall the poxviruses that can infect humans and the diseases they cause. Section: 24.02

Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses


5.

Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Viral Infections

All of the following pertain to herpes simplex-1 (HSV-1), except A. it causes gingivostomatitis. B. it causes cold sores and herpes keratitis. C. it is latent in the lumbosacral spinal nerve ganglia. D. it is transmitted by mucous membrane contact with lesions. E. it causes herpetic whitlow in health care workers.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.07 Characterize the herpesviruses that commonly infect humans. Learning Outcome: 24.08 Describe the range of pathologies associated with herpes simplex virus infection. Section: 24.03 Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Nervous System Infections Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Viral Infections

6.

Herpes simplex-2 (HSV-2) causes A. genital lesions. B. intensely sensitive vesicles on or near the genitals. C. symptoms that include urethritis, cervicitis, and itching. D. infection in neonates that have contact with lesions in the birth canal. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.07 Characterize the herpesviruses that commonly infect humans. Learning Outcome: 24.08 Describe the range of pathologies associated with herpes simplex virus infection. Learning Outcome: 24.09 Summarize the means by which herpes simplex infection is diagnosed, treated, and controlled. Section: 24.03 Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Nervous System Infections Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections NURSINGTB.COM Topic: Urogenital System Infections Topic: Viral Infections

7.

An occasional serious complication of herpes simplex-1 is A. shingles. B. paralysis. C. encephalitis. D. myocarditis. E. kidney failure.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.07 Characterize the herpesviruses that commonly infect humans. Learning Outcome: 24.08 Describe the range of pathologies associated with herpes simplex virus infection. Learning Outcome: 24.09 Summarize the means by which herpes simplex infection is diagnosed, treated, and controlled. Section: 24.03 Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Nervous System Infections

8.

Which of the following antivirals is not used for treatment of HSV-1 and HSV-2?

Topic: Viral Infections

A. interferon B. valacyclovir C. acyclovir D. famciclovir E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.09 Summarize the means by which herpes simplex infection is diagnosed, treated, and controlled.


Section: 24.03

Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Nervous System Infections Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Urogenital System Infections Topic: Viral Infections

9.

Chickenpox A. is transmitted by inhalation of respiratory secretions. B. is transmitted by skin lesion contact or airborne spread of lesion material. C. has an incubation of 10 to 20 days. D. has fever, and vesicular rash that occurs in successive crops. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.11 Understand the etiological agent, epidemiology, diagnosis, and control of varicella-zoster virus, cytomegalovirus, and Epstein-Barr virus. Section: 24.03 Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Viral Infections

10.

Herpes whitlow is a deep-set herpes simplex virus infection of the A. nasal mucosa. B. finger. C. oral mucosa and tongue. D. eye. E. newborn.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 24.08 Describe the range of pathologies associated with herpes simplex virus infection. Section: 24.03

NURSINGTB.COM 11.

Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Viral Infections

Varicella-zoster virus A. uses the respiratory epithelium as its portal of entry. B. becomes latent in dorsal root ganglia that serve specific dermatomes. C. has humans as its reservoir. D. causes chickenpox and shingles. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.07 Characterize the herpesviruses that commonly infect humans. Learning Outcome: 24.10 Understand the relationship between varicella and herpes zoster. Learning Outcome: 24.11 Understand the etiological agent, epidemiology, diagnosis, and control of varicella-zoster virus, cytomegalovirus, and Epstein-Barr virus. Section: 24.03 Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Nervous System Infections Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Viral Infections

12.

If a person who has never been infected with the varicella-zoster virus comes in contact with a person who has shingles, they will come down with A. herpes labialis. B. shingles. C. chickenpox. D. infectious mononucleosis. E. herpes keratitis.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems


Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 24.07 Characterize the herpesviruses that commonly infect humans. Learning Outcome: 24.10 Understand the relationship between varicella and herpes zoster. Learning Outcome: 24.11 Understand the etiological agent, epidemiology, diagnosis, and control of varicella-zoster virus, cytomegalovirus, and Epstein-Barr virus. Section: 24.03 Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Viral Infections

13.

Symptoms of infectious mononucleosis include A. vesicular lesions in oral mucosa. B. fever, and pocks on skin. C. sore throat, fever, cervical lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly. D. fever, severe diarrhea, pneumonitis, hepatitis, and retinitis.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 24.07 Characterize the herpesviruses that commonly infect humans. Learning Outcome: 24.11 Understand the etiological agent, epidemiology, diagnosis, and control of varicella-zoster virus, cytomegalovirus, and Epstein-Barr virus. Learning Outcome: 24.12 Recall the complications associated with EBV infection. Section: 24.03 Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Viral Infections

14.

Epstein-Barr virus has the following characteristics, except A. it infects the respiratory epithelium. B. it is transmitted by direct oral contact and saliva. C. it multiplies and is latent in the parotid gland. D. it has a 30–50 day incubation. E. it can be transmitted by contaminated blood transfusions and organ transplants.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand NaU NuG Be.C Le rnR inS gIO tcT om : 2O4M .07 Characterize the herpesviruses that commonly infect humans. Learning Outcome: 24.11 Understand the etiological agent, epidemiology, diagnosis, and control of varicella-zoster virus, cytomegalovirus, and Epstein-Barr virus. Section: 24.03 Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Viral Infections

15.

Cytomegalovirus mononucleosis typically has fever and lymphocytosis, but in severely immunocompromised patients symptoms include A. vesicular lesions in oral mucosa. B. pocks on skin. C. sore throat, fever, and tinnitus. D. severe diarrhea, pneumonitis, hepatitis, and retinitis.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.07 Characterize the herpesviruses that commonly infect humans. Learning Outcome: 24.11 Understand the etiological agent, epidemiology, diagnosis, and control of varicella-zoster virus, cytomegalovirus, and Epstein-Barr virus. Section: 24.03 Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Viral Infections

16.

The patients at greatest risk for severe cytomegalovirus infection include all the following, except A. individuals with hypertension. B. organ transplant patients. C. infants infected in utero. D. AIDS patients. E. bone marrow transplant patients.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.


ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.07 Characterize the herpesviruses that commonly infect humans. Learning Outcome: 24.11 Understand the etiological agent, epidemiology, diagnosis, and control of varicella-zoster virus, cytomegalovirus, and Epstein-Barr virus. Section: 24.03 Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Viral Infections

17.

Cytomegalovirus A. is among the most common of human infections. B. is transmitted by saliva, respiratory mucus, milk, urine, semen, and cervical secretions. C. can be sexually transmitted. D. is commonly carried in the latent state. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.07 Characterize the herpesviruses that commonly infect humans. Learning Outcome: 24.11 Understand the etiological agent, epidemiology, diagnosis, and control of varicella-zoster virus, cytomegalovirus, and Epstein-Barr virus. Section: 24.03 Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Viral Infections

18.

Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6) has the following characteristics, except A. it replicates in T-lymphocytes, macrophages, and salivary gland tissue. B. it causes roseola in infants. C. it appears as a mononucleosis-like illness in adults. D. it causes Kaposi's sarcoma. E. it is transmitted by saliva.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand NURSINGTB.COM Learning Outcome: 24.07 Characterize the herpesviruses that commonly infect humans. Learning Outcome: 24.13 Relate human herpesviruses 6, 7, and 8 to the diseases they cause. Section: 24.03 Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Viral Infections

19.

The hepadnaviruses A. include the adenoviruses. B. show tropism for the liver. C. are transmitted by respiratory secretions. D. are nonenveloped, double-stranded DNA viruses. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 24.14 Contrast the major characteristics of the three most common agents of viral hepatitis. Learning Outcome: 24.15 Understand the epidemiology, diagnosis, pathology, and management of hepatitis B.

Section: 24.04 Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Viral Infections

20.

Inflammation of the liver with necrosis of the hepatocytes and swelling due to a mononuclear response is a disease called A. hepatitis. B. jaundice. C. liver cancer. D. mononucleosis.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems


Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 24.15 Understand the epidemiology, diagnosis, pathology, and management of hepatitis B. Section: 24.04

Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Viral Infections

21.

Hepatitis B virus A. is principally transmitted by blood. B. transmission risks include shared needles, anal intercourse, and heterosexual intercourse. C. is transmitted to the newborn from chronic carrier mothers. D. has many chronic carriers. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.15 Understand the epidemiology, diagnosis, pathology, and management of hepatitis B. Section: 24.04

Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Viral Infections

22.

Hepatitis B infection A. has an incubation of 1 to 3 weeks. B. can be transmitted by the fecal-oral route. C. increases risk for hepatocellular cancer. D. is due to a flavivirus. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.15 Understand the epidemiology, diagnosis, pathology, and management of hepatitis B. Section: 24.04

NURSINGTB.COM 23.

Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Viral Infections

Adenoviruses are A. nonenveloped, double-stranded, DNA viruses. B. transmitted by respiratory and ocular secretions. C. causes of conjunctivitis, common cold, and an acute hemorrhagic cystitis in children. D. causes of outbreaks among military recruits. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.16 Recall the structure, epidemiology, and disease caused by adenovirus. Section: 24.05

Topic: Nonenveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Respiratory System Infections Topic: Viral Infections

24.

Which is incorrect about warts? A. They are caused by human papillomaviruses (HPV). B. They can be transmitted by direct contact or fomites. C. They include deep plantar warts of soles of the feet. D. They are usually cancerous. E. Freezing and laser surgery can be used for removal.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.17 Describe the epidemiology and pathology of papillomaviruses. Section: 24.05

Topic: Nonenveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Urogenital System Infections


25.

Topic: Viral Infections

All of the following pertain to genital warts, except A. the are not common in the United States. B. they are sexually transmitted. C. they often occur on the penis, vagina, and cervix. D. they include large cauliflower-like masses called condylomata acuminata. E. certain strains strongly predispose a person to cancer of the cervix or penis.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.17 Describe the epidemiology and pathology of papillomaviruses. Section: 24.05

Topic: Nonenveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Urogenital System Infections Topic: Viral Infections

26.

Polyomaviruses A. cause common asymptomatic to mild infections. B. cause progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy. C. cause problems in renal transplant patients. D. include the JC virus and BK virus. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.19 Understand epidemiology and pathology of the human polyomaviruses. Section: 24.05

Topic: Nonenveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Viral Infections

27.

Which is incorrect about parvoviruses? A. They cause several diseases in dogs, cats, and other mammals. B. They are single-stranded DNA viruses.NURSINGTB.COM C. They cannot be transmissible to the fetus. D. They cause a disease known as fifth disease. E. Parvovirus B19 causes erythema infectiosum.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.20 Recall the characteristics of parvovirus that make it unique. Learning Outcome: 24.21 Identify the most important human parvovirus and the disease it causes.

Section: 24.05 Topic: Nonenveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Viral Infections

28.

Fifth'disease A. is caused by Parvovirus B19. B. is a childhood febrile disease with a bright red rash on the cheeks. C. involves pathogen capable of crossing the placenta. D. in immunodeficient children, destroys red blood cell stem cells. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.21 Identify the most important human parvovirus and the disease it causes. Section: 24.05

Topic: Nonenveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Viral Infections


29.

Which of the following viruses is an RNA virus that causes many cases of transfusion hepatitis? A. Hepatitis C virus (HCV) B. Hepatitis B virus (HBV) C. adenovirus D. Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) E. cytomegalovirus (CMV)

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 24.14 Contrast the major characteristics of the three most common agents of viral hepatitis. Section: 24.04

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Viral Infections

30.

When bilirubin accumulates in the blood and tissues, it causes A. shock. B. hypotension. C. swelling of the legs. D. jaundice. E. gangrene. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.14 Contrast the major characteristics of the three most common agents of viral hepatitis. Learning Outcome: 24.15 Understand the epidemiology, diagnosis, pathology, and management of hepatitis B.

31.

Section: 24.04 Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Nonenveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Viral Infections

All of the following are similarities between HAV, HBV, and HCV, except NURSINGTB.COM A. they all cause hepatitis. B. they are all endemic in the United States. C. they all can have an incubation period of one month. D. there are diagnostic tests available to distinguish between them. E. they are all RNA viruses.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 24.14 Contrast the major characteristics of the three most common agents of viral hepatitis. Learning Outcome: 24.15 Understand the epidemiology, diagnosis, pathology, and management of hepatitis B.

Section: 24.04 Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Nonenveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Viral Infections

32.

Which of the following are ways to control or treat Hepatitis B? A. recombinant interferon B. heptavax vaccine C. Hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) D. recombivax vaccine E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.15 Understand the epidemiology, diagnosis, pathology, and management of hepatitis B. Section: 24.04

Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections


Topic: Viral Infections

33.

Which virus may play a role in multiple sclerosis? A. Epstein-Barr Virus B. human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6) C. cytomegalovirus (CMV) D. herpes simplex virus-2 E. smallpox

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 24.07 Characterize the herpesviruses that commonly infect humans. Learning Outcome: 24.13 Relate human herpesviruses 6, 7, and 8 to the diseases they cause. Section: 24.03 Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Viral Infections

34.

Which of the following may cause reactivation of varicella-zoster virus as shingles? A. developing malignancy B. X-ray treatments C. iimmunosuppressive conditions D. surgery E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.10 Understand the relationship between varicella and herpes zoster. Learning Outcome: 24.11 Understand the etiological agent, epidemiology, diagnosis, and control of varicella-zoster virus, cytomegalovirus, and Epstein-Barr virus. Section: 24.03 Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Nervous System Infections Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Viral Infections NURSINGTB.COM

35.

Which infection are you likely looking at if you view a direct smear of a cervical scraping and see enlarged (multinucleate giant) cells and intranuclear inclusions? A. HCV B. EBV C. HSV-2 D. VZV E. HPV

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 24.07 Characterize the herpesviruses that commonly infect humans. Learning Outcome: 24.08 Describe the range of pathologies associated with herpes simplex virus infection. Learning Outcome: 24.09 Summarize the means by which herpes simplex infection is diagnosed, treated, and controlled. Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Urogenital System Infections Topic: Viral Infections

36.

Which is not correct about genital warts? A. The etiological agent is the human polyoma virus JC. B. They are strongly associated with cancer of the penis. C. Treatment can involve laser surgery. D. It is the most common STD in the United States. E. They are strongly associated with cancer of the cervix.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.17 Describe the epidemiology and pathology of papillomaviruses. Section: 24.05

Topic: Nonenveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Urogenital System Infections Topic: Viral Infections


37.

Which is incorrect about smallpox? A. There is an effective vaccine. B. Transmission is by ingesting contaminated water or food. C. The vaccine is effective even if given in the first few days after exposure. D. The poxvirus called variola is the etiological agent. E. The last case was seen in 1977.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.05 Understand why vaccination against smallpox has been curtailed. Learning Outcome: 24.06 Recall the poxviruses that can infect humans and the diseases they cause.

Section: 24.02 Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Viral Infections

38.

Which is incorrect about viral diseases? A. Some DNA viruses can become permanent residents of host cells. B. Viral diseases can be zoonoses. C. Most DNA viruses multiply in and are released from the cytoplasm. D. Some viruses are teratogenic. E. Diagnosis of some diseases involves antigen detection with monoclonal antibodies.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.01 Recall the general characteristics of viruses. Learning Outcome: 24.02 Understand the progression and scope of viral infection.

Section: 24.01 Topic: General Viral Properties Topic: Viral Infections Topic: Viral Replication

39.

As of 2000, according to the International Committee on the Taxonomy of Viruses, how are viruses classified? NURSINGTB.COM A. genetic information only B. structure only C. chemical composition and structure D. genetic information, structure, and chemical composition E. genetic information, structure, host, and diseases caused

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.01 Recall the general characteristics of viruses. Learning Outcome: 24.03: Explain how viral structure is related to viral classification.

Section: 24.01 Topic: Viral Classification Topic: Viral Structure

40.

Molluscum contagiosum is transmitted by direct contact with skin lesions, fomites, and sexual activity. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.18 Explain how HPV infection can be prevented. Section: 24.02

Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Viral Infections

41.

Chickenpox is caused by a poxvirus. FALSE


ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.10 Understand the relationship between varicella and herpes zoster. Learning Outcome: 24.11 Understand the etiological agent, epidemiology, diagnosis, and control of varicella-zoster virus, cytomegalovirus, and Epstein-Barr virus. Section: 24.03 Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Viral Classification Topic: Viral Infections

42.

Herpes keratitis is an infection of the eye. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.08 Describe the range of pathologies associated with herpes simplex virus infection. Learning Outcome: 24.09 Summarize the means by which herpes simplex infection is diagnosed, treated, and controlled.

Section: 24.03 Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Nervous System Infections Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Viral Infections

43.

Varicella and herpes zoster are caused by the same virus. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.10 Understand the relationship between varicella and herpes zoster. Learning Outcome: 24.11 Understand the etiological agent, epidemiology, diagnosis, and control of varicella-zoster virus, cytomegalovirus, and Epstein-Barr virus. Section: 24.03 Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Nervous System Infections Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Viral Infections

44.

NURSINGTB.COM Virtually, everyone becomes infected with the herpesviruses at some time in their lives. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.07 Characterize the herpesviruses that commonly infect humans. Section: 24.03

Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Viral Infections

45.

Zoster immune globulin (ZIG) and varicella-zoster immune globulin (VZIG) are attenuated vaccines for childhood vaccination. FALSE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.11 Understand the etiological agent, epidemiology, diagnosis, and control of varicella-zoster virus, cytomegalovirus, and Epstein-Barr virus. Section: 24.03 Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Nervous System Infections Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Viral Infections

46.

Burkitt's lymphoma is a B-cell malignancy, usually of the jaw, associated with Epstein-Barr infection or coinfection with other diseases. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand


Learning Outcome: 24.11 Understand the etiological agent, epidemiology, diagnosis, and control of varicella-zoster virus, cytomegalovirus, and Epstein-Barr virus. Learning Outcome: 24.12 Recall the complications associated with EBV infection. Section: 24.03 Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Viral Infections

47.

Carriers of Hepatitis B virus are not common. FALSE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.15 Understand the epidemiology, diagnosis, pathology, and management of hepatitis B. Section: 24.04

Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Viral Infections

48.

All warts caused by human papillomaviruses are linked to cancers. FALSE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.17 Describe the epidemiology and pathology of papillomaviruses. Section: 24.05

Topic: Nonenveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Urogenital System Infections Topic: Viral Infections

49.

Parvovirus B19 causes a fatal anemia in the fetus. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand

Learning Outcome: 24.21 Identify the most important human parvovirus and the disease it causes. Section: 24.05

Topic: Nonenveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Viral Infections

50.

There are vaccines that cause the development of immunity to the Hepatitis B virus. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 24.15 Understand the epidemiology, diagnosis, pathology, and management of hepatitis B. Section: 24.04

Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Viral Infections

51.

The only body fluid that can transmit Hepatitis B virus is blood. FALSE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.15 Understand the epidemiology, diagnosis, pathology, and management of hepatitis B. Section: 24.04

Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Viral Infections

52.

Poxviruses are the largest and most complex of all animal viruses.


TRUE ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.03: Explain how viral structure is related to viral classification.

Learning Outcome: 24.04 Recall the structures seen in poxviruses that make them unique. Section: 24.02 Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: General Viral Properties Topic: Viral Infections Topic: Viral Structure

53.

Variola major and variola minor are the two principal forms of smallpox disease. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.06 Recall the poxviruses that can infect humans and the diseases they cause. Section: 24.02

Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Viral Infections

54.

The antivirals used for herpes simplex infections have the ability to completely destroy the virus and permanently cure the latent infection. FALSE

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.09 Summarize the means by which herpes simplex infection is diagnosed, treated, and controlled. Section: 24.03 NURSINGTB.COM

Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Viral Infections

55.

Herpes simplex-1 (HSV-1) enters the

cranial nerve where it becomes latent.

trigeminal ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 24.08 Describe the range of pathologies associated with herpes simplex virus infection. Section: 24.03

Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Nervous System Infections Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Viral Infections

56.

The smallpox vaccine uses the

virus.

vaccinia ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 24.05 Understand why vaccination against smallpox has been curtailed. Learning Outcome: 24.06 Recall the poxviruses that can infect humans and the diseases they cause. Section: 24.02

Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Viral Infections

57.

The oral cavity infection called and lips.

occurs when herpetic vesicles cover the oral mucosa, tongue, cheeks,

gingivostomatitis ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems


Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 24.08 Describe the range of pathologies associated with herpes simplex virus infection. Learning Outcome: 24.09 Summarize the means by which herpes simplex infection is diagnosed, treated, and controlled.

Section: 24.02 Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Viral Infections

58.

A virus that causes congenital defects and developmental problems is known as

.

teratogenic ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 24.02 Understand the progression and scope of viral infection. Section: 24.01

Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Viral Infections

59.

Liver disease, such as hepatitis, can lead to bilirubin accumulation that causes a yellow tinge to skin and eyes called . jaundice

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 24.15 Understand the epidemiology, diagnosis, pathology, and management of hepatitis B. Section: 24.04

Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Nonenveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Viral Infections

60.

Viruses called viruses become permanent residents in host cells and alternate between inactive periods and recurrent infections. latent

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can inN teU raR ctSwIiN thGbT otB h .hCuO mM an and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.01 Recall the general characteristics of viruses. Learning Outcome: 24.02 Understand the progression and scope of viral infection.

Learning Outcome: 24.07 Characterize the herpesviruses that commonly infect humans. Section: 24.01 Section: 24.03

61.

Passive artificial immunity to the Hepatitis B virus is provided by immunization with

Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: General Viral Properties Topic: Viral Infections

.

Hepatitis B immune globulin ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 24.15 Understand the epidemiology, diagnosis, pathology, and management of hepatitis B. Section: 24.04

Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Viral Infections

62.

Adenoviruses cause an inflammation of the conjunctiva and cornea called

.

keratoconjunctivitis ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 24.16 Recall the structure, epidemiology, and disease caused by adenovirus. Section: 24.05

Topic: Nonenveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Viral Infections


63.

Describe viral latency and oncogenicity, and discuss two examples of latent DNA viruses and two examples of oncogenic DNA viruses.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 24.01 Recall the general characteristics of viruses. Learning Outcome: 24.02 Understand the progression and scope of viral infection.

Learning Outcome: 24.14 Contrast the major characteristics of the three most common agents of viral hepatitis. Section: 24.01 Topic: General Viral Properties Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Urogenital System Infections Topic: Viral Infections

64.

Compare and contrast Hepatitis B virus, Hepatitis A virus, and Hepatitis C virus with regard to: a) virus characteristics, b) reservoir, c) transmission, d) incubation, e) symptoms, f) complications, and g) immunization.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 24.14 Contrast the major characteristics of the three most common agents of viral hepatitis. Learning Outcome: 24.15 Understand the epidemiology, diagnosis, pathology, and management of hepatitis B.

Section: 24.04 Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Nonenveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Viral Infections

65.

Compare and contrast chickenpox and shingles, and explain the underlying reasons for their differences in pathogenesis.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 24.10 Understand the relationship between varicella and herpes zoster. Learning Outcome: 24.11 Understand the etiological agent, epidemiology, diagnosis, and control of varicella-zoster virus, cytomegalovirus, and Epstein-Barr virus. NURSINGTB.COM Section: 24.03 Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Nervous System Infections Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Viral Infections

66.

Using at least three examples, summarize how HPV can be prevented.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 24.18 Explain how HPV infection can be prevented. Topic: Nonenveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Urogenital System Infections Topic: Viral Infections

67.

Which structure is found only in poxviruses? A. nucleosome B. DNA genome C. envelope D. capsid

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.04 Recall the structures seen in poxviruses that make them unique. Section: 24.02

68.

Infection with human polyomaviruses is most often asymptomatic in a healthy person. TRUE

Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Viral Infections Topic: Viral Structure


ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.19 Understand epidemiology and pathology of the human polyomaviruses. Section: 24.05

Topic: Nonenveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Viral Infections

69.

Parvoviruses A. cause diseases in cats, dogs, and humans. B. have a genome of double-stranded DNA. C. are the cause of erythema infectiosum. D. have a nucleocapsid surrounded by an envelope.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 24.20 Recall the characteristics of parvovirus that make it unique. Section: 24.05

Topic: Nonenveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Viral Structure

70.

Molly, a 3-year-old active preschool girl, spent the morning playing with the other children at the day-care center. Shortly after lunch, she began to appear very flushed with bright red cheeks, and a check of her temperature revealed a low-grade fever of 99.5. She seemed to feel normal and showed no other signs of illness. Which of the following would be the most likely cause of her fever and bright red cheeks? A. herpes simplex virus B. human Parvovirus B19 C. varicella-zoster virus D. roseola virus (Human herpesvirus 6) E. cytomegalovirus

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze

RuStcIoNmG LearnN ingUO e:T2B 4..2C 1O IdM entify the most important human parvovirus and the disease it causes. Section: 24.05 Topic: Nonenveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Viral Infections

71.

Pox viruses consist of a linear double-stranded DNA genome enclosed in a protein capsid, surrounded by an envelope. FALSE ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 24.04 Recall the structures seen in poxviruses that make them unique. Section: 24.02 Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Viral Structure

72.

Which of the following are found in pox viruses? A. envelope B. RNA C. DNA D. capsid E. surface tubules F. outer membrane G. core membrane ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 24.04 Recall the structures seen in poxviruses that make them unique.


Section: 24.02 Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses Topic: General Viral Properties Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Viral Infections Topic: Viral Structure

73.

Select the following statements that apply to human polyomavirses. A. Most infections with BK and JC virus are asymptomatic. B. BK and JC virus infections are believed to be common. C. JC virus may cause a demyelinating disease affecting the cerebrum in immunocompromised patients. D. Polyomaviruses are well-recognized oncogenic agents in humans. E. Recipients of renal transplants are at risk for complications caused by BK virus.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 24.19 Understand epidemiology and pathology of the human polyomaviruses. Section: 24.05

Topic: Nervous System Infections Topic: Nonenveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Urogenital System Infections

74.

Which of the following preventative measures is used to protect renal transplant patients from BK virus infection? A. vaccination B. injections of pooled human gamma globulin C. prophylactic treatment with human leukocyte interferon D. prophylactic treatment with amantadine

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.19 Understand epidemiology and pathology of the human polyomaviruses. Section: 24.05

NURSINGTB.COM 75.

Topic: Nonenveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Urogenital System Infections Topic: Viral Infections

Human polyomaviruses are well-known for their oncogenic potential, most often associated with chronic lymphocytic leukemia in humans. FALSE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.19 Understand epidemiology and pathology of the human polyomaviruses. Section: 24.05

Topic: Nonenveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Viral Infections

76.

All of the following are true of human parvovirus B19, except A. this virus can also cause severe disease in puppies. B. its genome consists of single-stranded DNA. C. this is one of the smallest human viruses. D. it causes a disease known as fifth's disease in young children. E. it may cross the placenta and cause severe damage to the fetus.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 24.20 Recall the characteristics of parvovirus that make it unique. Learning Outcome: 24.21 Identify the most important human parvovirus and the disease it causes. Section: 24.05

Topic: Nonenveloped DNA Viruses Topic: Viral Infections


Chapter 24 Testbank Summary Category

# of Questions

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (in cluding bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron).

5

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biologic al means.

2

ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells.

3

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in benefi cial, neutral or detrimental ways.

73

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function

6

ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways

2

ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow

3

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems

73

Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

17

Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand

47

Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply

11

Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze

1

Learning Outcome: 24.01 Recall the general characteristics of viruses.

4

Learning Outcome: 24.02 Understand the progression and scope of viral infection.

4

Learning Outcome: 24.03: Explain how viral structure is related to viral classification.

3

Learning Outcome: 24.04 Recall the structures seen in poxviruses that make them unique.

4

Learning Outcome: 24.05 Understand why vaccination against smallpox has been curtailed.

2

Learning Outcome: 24.06 Recall the poxviruses that can infect humans and the diseases they cause.

5

Learning Outcome: 24.07 Characterize the herpesviruses that commonly infect humans. Learning Outcome: 24.08 Describe the range of pathologies associated with herpes simplex virus infection.

16 8

Learning Outcome: 24.09 Summarize the means by which herpes simplex infection is diagnosed, treated, and control led.

7

Learning Outcome: 24.10 Understand the relationship between varicella and herpes zoster.

6

Learning Outcome: 24.11 Understand the etiological agent, epidemiology, diagnosis, and control of varicellazoster virus, cytomegalovirus, and Epstein-Barr virus.

14

Learning Outcome: 24.12 Recall the complications associated with EBV infection.

2

Learning Outcome: 24.13 Relate human herpesviruses 6, 7, and 8 to the diseases they cause.

2

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Learning Outcome: 24.14 Contrast the major characteristics of the three most common agents of viral hepatitis.

6

Learning Outcome: 24.15 Understand the epidemiology, diagnosis, pathology, and management of hepatitis B.

13

Learning Outcome: 24.16 Recall the structure, epidemiology, and disease caused by adenovirus.

2

Learning Outcome: 24.17 Describe the epidemiology and pathology of papillomaviruses.

4

Learning Outcome: 24.18 Explain how HPV infection can be prevented.

2

Learning Outcome: 24.19 Understand epidemiology and pathology of the human polyomaviruses.

5

Learning Outcome: 24.20 Recall the characteristics of parvovirus that make it unique.

4

Learning Outcome: 24.21 Identify the most important human parvovirus and the disease it causes.

5

Section: 24.01

5

Section: 24.02

11

Section: 24.03

27

Section: 24.04

14

Section: 24.05

18

Topic: Enveloped DNA Viruses

53

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses

5

Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections

16

Topic: General Viral Properties

5

Topic: Nervous System Infections

12

Topic: Nonenveloped DNA Viruses

19


Topic: Nonenveloped RNA Viruses

4

Topic: Respiratory System Infections

1

Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Urogenital System Infections

29 30 11

Topic: Viral Classification

4

Topic: Viral Infections

71

Topic: Viral Replication Topic: Viral Structure

1 7

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Chapter 25 Testbank Student:

1.

Characteristics of the Orthomyxoviruses include all of the following, except A. they have an envelope. B. they include paramyxoviruses. C. they have hemagglutinin spikes. D. their genome is RNA. E. they have neuraminidase spikes.

2.

The enzyme associated with the influenza virus that hydrolyzes the protective mucous coating of the respiratory tract is A. catalase. B. reverse transcriptase. C. hyaluronidase. D. neuraminidase. E. kinase.

3.

Inhalation of respiratory secretions is involved in the transmission of the following, except A. influenza. B. rubella. C. dengue fever. D. mumps. E. SARS.

4.

Symptoms of influenza include A. nasal discharge, mild fever, and absence of cough. B. fever, diarrhea, vomiting. NURSINGTB.COM C. fever, myalgia, sore throat, cough, nasal discharge. D. fever, sore throat, rash, cough. E. fever and pneumonia.

5.

Reye's syndrome involves A. aspirin use. B. a febrile viral illness such as influenza or chickenpox. C. fatty degeneration of liver, brain, kidney. D. children, adolescents, and young adults. E. All of these choices are correct.

6.

Influenza vaccines include all the following, except A. inactivated intramuscular vaccine. B. usually incorporates three different strains. C. attenuated, nasal drops vaccine. D. provides lifelong immunity. E. Guillain-Barré syndrome is a postvaccination neurological complication.

7.

Influenza infection can be treated with A. amantadine. B. rimantadine. C. zanamivir. D. oseltamivir. E. All of these choices are correct.

8.

Which is not a disease caused by arenaviruses?


A. lymphocytic choriomeningitis B. Lassa fever C. Hantaviruses D. Bolivian hemorrhagic fever E. Argentine hemorrhagic fever

9.

Sin Nombre hantavirus has all the following characteristics, except A. its reservoir is human carriers. B. it is a zoonosis. C. the symptoms are abrupt fever, lung edema, respiratory distress, and hypotension. D. it is transmitted by aerosol transmission from rodent excreta. E. the first U.S. outbreak occurred in 1993 in the Southwest.

10. Parainfluenza virus A. usually infects the elderly. B. is in the Orthomyxovirus family. C. causes influenza. D. causes croup, bronchitis, and bronchopneumonia. E. All of these choices are correct. 11. Orchitis and epididymitis is seen in young adult males as a complication of A. croup. B. mumps. C. influenza. D. measles (rubeola). E. rubella. 12. Oral lesions called Koplik's spots are seen in patients with A. croup. B. mumps. C. influenza. D. measles (rubeola). E. rubella.

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13. Which infection is marked by labored, noisy breathing, and a hoarse cough? A. croup B. mumps C. influenza D. measles (rubeola) E. rubella 14. Which febrile disease with a rash has a pathogen that can cross the placenta and cause serious fetal damage? A. croup B. mumps C. influenza D. measles (rubeola) E. rubella 15. Which is incorrect about the MMR immunization? A. It contains attenuated viruses. B. It contains toxoids. C. It is given in early childhood. D. It provides protection against three different viral diseases.

16. All the following pertain to measles (rubeola), except


A. it is transmitted by direct contact with the rash. B. humans are the only reservoir for the pathogen. C. secondary bacterial otitis media and sinusitis occur. D. it may involve a fatal complication called subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE). E. symptoms include dry cough, sore throat, fever, and conjunctivitis. 17. Respiratory syncytial virus (Pneumovirus) A. causes serious disease in infants 6-months-old or younger. B. uses the nasopharynx as its main replication site. C. can be treated with the antiviral aerosol ribavirin. D. is the most common cause of respiratory infections in babies. E. All of these choices are correct. 18. Which is incorrect about rabies? A. It is a zoonotic disease. B. Wild populations of bats, skunks, raccoons, cats, and canines are primary reservoirs. C. Transmission can involve bites, scratches, and inhalation. D. The average incubation in humans is one week. E. Symptoms include anxiety, agitation, muscle spasms, convulsions, and paralysis. 19. Treatment of an animal bite for possible rabies includes A. debridement. B. washing bite with soap or detergent. C. infusion of the wound with human rabies immune globulin (HRIG). D. post-exposure vaccination with HDCV. E. All of these choices are correct. 20. Coronaviruses cause A. fever, rash, and nasal discharge. B. meningitis. C. measles. D. croup. E. common cold and SARS.

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21. Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS) A. can cause high fever, pneumonia, respiratory distress. B. began with an initial outbreak in the United States and then spread to Canada and China. C. is caused by the respiratory syncytial virus. D. is not highly transmissible. E. All of these choices are correct. 22. Rubella is A. caused by the measles virus (Morbillivirus). B. a zoonosis. C. associated with congenital transmission causing miscarriage, deafness, and cardiac and mental defects. D. characterized by high fever, severe sore throat, severe cough, and myalgia. E. All of these choices are correct. 23. All arboviruses involve A. congenital infection. B. arthropod vectors. C. diarrhea. D. birds as the primary reservoir. E. All of these choices are correct. 24. Encephalitis caused by arboviruses involves


A. fever, headache, and rash. B. coma, convulsions, and paralysis in severe cases. C. myalgia and orbital pain. D. muscle aches and joint stiffness. E. All of these choices are correct. 25. Which of the following is a hemorrhagic fever? A. yellow fever B. Western equine encephalitis C. Eastern equine encephalitis D. Colorado tick fever E. St. Louis encephalitis

26. West Nile virus has the following characteristics, except A. it causes a hemorrhagic fever. B. it is an arbovirus. C. it is transmitted by a mosquito vector. D. it is typically a flu-like illness. E. it causes a severe encephalitis in less than 1% of infected persons. 27. Yellow fever and Dengue fever are A. caused by arboviruses. B. caused by viruses that disrupt capillaries and blood clotting. C. zoonoses. D. transmitted by a mosquito vector. E. All of these choices are correct.

28. Retroviruses have the following characteristics, except A. glycoprotein spikes. B. DNA genome. C. envelope. NURSINGTB.COM D. reverse transcriptase. E. viral genes that integrate into the host genome.

29. All of the following pertain to patients with AIDS, except A. they have a profound immunodeficiency. 3 B. that have CD4 T-cell counts below 200 cells/mm of blood. C. they get repeated, life-threatening opportunistic infections. D. they can get unusual cancers and neurological disorders. E. the highest number of cases worldwide is in the United States. 30. Documented transmission of HIV involves A. mosquitoes. B. unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products. C. respiratory droplets. D. contaminated food. E. All of these choices are correct.

31. All of the following pertain to HIV, except A. it attaches primarily to host cells with CD4 receptors. B. the viral DNA integrates into the host nucleus. C. it has reverse transcriptase. D. it causes Kaposi'sarcoma. E. it can enter into nervous tissues and cause abnormalities. 32. Which drug/s interfere with the action of an HIV enzyme needed for final assembly and maturation of the virus? A. reverse transcriptase inhibitors


B. protease inhibitors C. fusion inhibitors D. integrase inhibitors E. All of these choices are correct. 33. Which class of drugs interferes with the virus inserting itself into host DNA? A. reverse transcriptase inhibitors B. protease inhibitors C. fusion inhibitors D. integrase inhibitors E. All of these choices are correct. 34. A frequent cancer that is seen in AIDS patients is A. leukemia. B. Hodgkin's lymphoma. C. Kaposi's sarcoma. D. melanoma. E. colon cancer. 35. Hydrophobia, the dumb phase, and Negri bodies in nervous tissue are all part of which disease? A. rabies B. dengue fever C. Norwalk virus D. subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) E. Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease 36. All of the following pertain to poliomyelitis, except A. summer outbreaks in the United States have been recently increasing. B. it is transmitted primarily by fecal contaminated water. C. it can be asymptomatic or mild with headacNhU e,RsSoIrNeGth , fM ever, and nausea. TrBo.aCtO D. if virus enters the central nervous system, motor neurons can be infected and destroyed. E. there are effective vaccines to prevent polio. 37. The major agents responsible for the common cold are A. coxsackie viruses. B. rhinoviruses. C. influenza viruses. D. Caliciviruses. E. rotavirus. 38. The worldwide, primary viral cause of morbidity and mortality from diarrhea is A. coxsackie viruses. B. rhinoviruses. C. influenza viruses. D. Caliciviruses. E. rotavirus. 39. Norwalk agent is A. a Calicivirus. B. transmitted oral-fecally. C. sometimes acquired from contaminated water and shellfish. D. a common enteric virus of gastroenteritis. E. All of these choices are correct. 40. Which is incorrect about Hepatitis A infection? A. It is transmitted by the oral-fecal route. B. It has flu-like symptoms with discomfort near the liver and darkened urine.


C. It predisposes a person for liver cancer. D. Immune globulin therapy helps decrease the severity. E. HAVRIX is an inactivated vaccine for prevention. 41. Spongiform encephalopathies are A. associated with abnormal, transmissible, protein in the brain. B. chronic, fatal infections of the nervous system. C. caused by prions. D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, kuru, and Gerstmann-Straüssler-Scheinker syndrome. E. All of these choices are correct. 42. The main route for transmission of HIV in most parts of the world is through A. intravenous drug use. B. homosexual sex. C. blood transfusion. D. heterosexual sex. E. blood products. 43. Which area has the largest number of people living with HIV/AIDS? A. North America B. Sub-Saharan Africa C. Southeast Asia D. Carribbean E. Western Europe 44. Which of the following is incorrect regarding Coronaviruses? A. One type can cause the common cold. B. One type can cause SARS. C. They are common animal viruses in pigs, dogs, cats, and poultry. D. There are no tests to confirm diagnosis. NURSINGTB.COM E. There is no specific treatment other than supportive care. 45. Which is incorrect about measles? A. Koplik's spots appear before the characteristic rash. B. Humans are the sole reservoir. C. Vaccination is with an attenuated oral vaccine. D. It is also known as rubeola. E. It is one of the most contagious infectious diseases.

46. All of the following are important bunyavirus diseases, except A. Hantavirus. B. Rift Valley fever. C. California encephalitis. D. severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS). E. Korean hemorrhagic fever. 47. Which is correct about influenza? A. Antigenic shift is a minor change in the viral strain. B. The virus is found in swine and cats. C. The virus is grown in poultry eggs for vaccines. D. Influenza A has a mortality rate of close to 35%. E. The virus binds to the intestinal mucosa. 48. Which of the following diseases is not caused by a paramyxovirus? A. severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) B. parainfluenza C. mumps


D. measles E. respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) infections

49. All the following are correct about the polio vaccines, except A. the inactivated polio vaccine (IPV) can occasionally revert to a neurovirulent strain. B. treatment for polio involves mainly alleviating pain and suffering. C. the virus is transmitted through the fecal-oral route. D. most infections do not result in paralysis. E. Dr. Jonas Salk developed the IPV vaccine in 1954. 50. Which of the following is correct about polio? A. The disease is still affecting millions of people worldwide, mainly in Africa and India. B. The disease is spread by the respiratory route. C. The oral polio vaccine (OPV) is not responsible for causing any polio. D. The Sabin vaccine is preferred over the Salk vaccine in the United States today. E. The virus multiplies in the mucosa of the intestines and is shed in feces. 51. Cocksackieviruses A. are paramyxoviurses. B. are the etiological agents of hairy-cell leukemia. C. can cause hand-foot-mouth disease. D. are retroviruses. E. replicate in helper T-cells. 52. A client displays symptoms of fatigue, diarrhea, weight loss, neurological changes, and enlarged lymph nodes. The client thought they had the flu because they felt ill, then felt better over the last 5 years. However, this cycle of feeling tired has led to fever, fatigue, sore throat, and night sweats with a rash. The patient also has thrush. Which result indicates the causative agent of AIDS? A. high level of CD4 T-cells B. detection of HIV antigen C. presence of Candida albicans NURSINGTB.COM D. isolation of herpes simplex from skin and mucous membrane ulcers E. isolation of Mycobacterium tuberculosis 53. What does AIDS stand for? A. aids induced disease B. aids in disguises C. acquired immunodeficiency syndrome D. human acquired immunodeficiency syndromes 54. The primary transmission route for acquiring agents of the common cold is by contact with hands and fomites contaminated with the nasal discharges of an infected person. True False 55. Influenza is predominantly transmitted by the fecal-oral route. True False 56. The major reservoir for the Sin Nombre hantavirus is the deer mouse. True False 57. Guillain-Barré syndrome involves varying degrees of demyelination of the peripheral nervous system leading to muscle weakness of extremities and possible paralysis. True False 58. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is caused by a prion. True False


59. Respiratory syncytial virus and rotavirus are major causes of global outbreaks in infants 6 months of age, or younger. True False 60. In rabies, spasms of muscles for swallowing leads to a fear of water. True False 61. The most serious teratogenic effects of intrauterine rubella infection occur if it is acquired during the third trimester. True False 62. A vaccine is currently available to prevent HIV infection. True False 63. Aedes mosquitoes are the vector involved in yellow fever, and dengue fever, and Zika virus transmission. True False 64. One positive test for the presence of HIV antibodies dictates the diagnosis as AIDS. True False 65. An antigenic

occurs when genome segments from different influenza strains recombine.

66. An antigenic occurs when there is a minor change in antigenicity caused by small mutations in a single influenza virus strain. 67. The spikes of a paramyxovirus bind and fuse adjacent host cell membranes to produce a NURSINGTB.COM 68. The influenza virus uses

spikes to bind to host cells.

69. The MMR vaccination is for immunity to 70. Intracellular inclusions called 71. Retroviruses have the enzyme

.

,

, and

.

seen in nervous tissue are indicative of rabies. that catalyzes the synthesis of DNA from viral RNA.

72. Discuss the various stages of HIV infection and disease with regard to: a) signs and symptoms, b) corresponding virus activities, and c) diagnostic indicators.

73. Compare and contrast Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) variant CJD, and kuru with regard to: a) causative agent, b) transmission, c) reservoir, d) pathogenesis and symptoms, and e) methods for prevention.

74. Which two hepatitis viruses are generally acquired in a similar manner? A. HBA and HBV B. HBA and HBC C. HBV and HBC


75. Why were blood transfusions prior to 1985 more likely to be associated with Hepatitis C transmission than blood transfusions done since 1985? A. Since 1985, the incidence of Hepatitis C infection in the general population has been significantly lower than it was prior to 1985. B. Since 1985, donor blood is tested for the human immunodeficiency virus. C. Since 1985, the processing and storage of donor blood destroys any Hepatitis C virus in the blood. D. Since 1985, donor blood has been tested for either nonA, nonB Hepatitis virus or specifically for Hepatitis C virus. 76. Which part of HIV facilitates attachment of HIV to TH cells? A. integrase B. GP-120 C. fusion promoter D. protease E. capsid proteins 77. Which of the following presents the greatest challenge to the development of a vaccine against HIV? A. HIV doesn't provoke the production of antibodies. B. Antibodies against HIV don't provide any protection from infection. C. Surface antigens on HIV change readily due to frequent mutations. D. Individuals are unwilling to participate in vaccine trials out of fear of developing AIDS. 78. The most effective HIV treatment includes A. several different drugs designed to inhibit reverse transcriptase. B. several different drugs each directed at different enzymes (reverse transcriptase, integrase, fusion, and protease). C. several different protease inhibitors. D. several different fusion inhibitors and reverse transcriptase inhibitors. 79. Which of the following viruses is associated wiN thUaRdSuIlN tT e.llClO euMkemia? G-TcB A. HIV B. HTLV-1 C. Hepatitis C virus D. HTLV-2 E. reovirus 80. HTLV-1 is a retrovirus associated wth acute lymphocytic leukemia. True

False

81. Following several days of nausea and fatigue, Jackie has become jaundiced and her urine is very dark-colored. Tests ordered by her physician have confirmed that she has Hepatitis A. Which of the following is most likely to shorten the duration and lessen the severity of her symptoms? A. treatment with acyclovir B. administration of the HAVRIX vaccine C. administration of pooled human immune serum globulin D. interferon therapy 82. Each of the following viruses or diseases are transmitted via the oral-fecal route, except A. Hepatitis A virus. B. poliovirus. C. rotavirus. D. Hepatitis C virus. E. norovirus. 83. Why do rhinoviruses infect the upper respiratory tract, particularly the nose, but not the lower respiratory tract? A. They are unable to attach to receptors on the pulmonary cells in the lower respiratory tract.


B. They replicate most effectively at the cooler temperatures of the upper respiratory tract. C. The prevalence of alveolar macrophages in the lower respiratory tract prevents them from becoming established there. D. IgA antibodies in lower respiratory tract secretions prevent them from becoming established in the lower respiratory tract. 84. Which of the following could block the attachment of HIV to TH cells? A. integrase inhibitors B. antibodies against GP-120 C. antibodies against co-receptors on TH cells D. fusion inhibitors E. antibodies against the HIV capsid 85. Combination therapy for HIV is based on the assumption that it highly unlikely for multiple simultaneous mutations to cause resistance to each of the drugs used. True False 86. All of the following are true of prions and prion diseases, except A. prions are not readily destroyed by routine sterilization methods. B. prion diseases are diagnosed by an indirect ELISA test that detects antibody to prions. C. there are no medications that can halt the progression of prion diseases. D. prion diseases are all neurodegenerative diseases. E. prions are composed exclusively of protein.

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Chapter 25 Testbank Key 1.

Characteristics of the Orthomyxoviruses include all of the following, except A. they have an envelope. B. they include paramyxoviruses. C. they have hemagglutinin spikes. D. their genome is RNA. E. they have neuraminidase spikes. ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 25.01 Describe the structure of influenza virus and its spikes. Section: 25.01 Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Respiratory System Infections

Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Viral Classification

Topic: Viral Structure

2.

The enzyme associated with the influenza virus that hydrolyzes the protective mucous coating of the respiratory tract is A. catalase. B. reverse transcriptase. C. hyaluronidase. D. neuraminidase. E. kinase.

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. NURSINGTB.COM ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 25.01 Describe the structure of influenza virus and its spikes. Section: 25.01

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: General Viral Properties

3.

Topic: Viral Structure

Inhalation of respiratory secretions is involved in the transmission of the following, except A. influenza. B. rubella. C. dengue fever. D. mumps. E. SARS.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 25.03 Recall the epidemiology and complications associated with influenza.

Learning Outcome: 25.07 Describe the epidemiology, pathology, diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of mumps and measles. Learning Outcome: 25.10 Recall the diseases caused by coronaviruses. Learning Outcome: 25.11 Understand the epidemiology, diagnosis, and prevention of rubella. Learning Outcome: 25.16 Recall the arboviruses and vectors responsible for encephalitides and hemorrhagic fevers. Section: 25.01 Section: 25.02 Section: 25.03 Section: 25.04

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Respiratory System Infections Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections


4.

Symptoms of influenza include A. nasal discharge, mild fever, and absence of cough. B. fever, diarrhea, vomiting. C. fever, myalgia, sore throat, cough, nasal discharge. D. fever, sore throat, rash, cough. E. fever and pneumonia.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 25.03 Recall the epidemiology and complications associated with influenza. Section: 25.01

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Respiratory System Infections

5.

Reye's syndrome involves A. aspirin use. B. a febrile viral illness such as influenza or chickenpox. C. fatty degeneration of liver, brain, kidney. D. children, adolescents, and young adults. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 25.03 Recall the epidemiology and complications associated with influenza. Section: 25.01

6.

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Respiratory System Infections

Influenza vaccines include all the following, except A. inactivated intramuscular vaccine. B. usually incorporates three different strains. C. attenuated, nasal drops vaccine. D. provides lifelong immunity. E. Guillain-Barré syndrome is a postvaccinNaUtiR oS nIn icM al complication. NeGuTroBl.oCgO

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 25.04 Describe the production of influenza vaccine. Section: 25.01

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Respiratory System Infections

Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

7.

Influenza infection can be treated with A. amantadine. B. rimantadine. C. zanamivir. D. oseltamivir. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 25.03 Recall the epidemiology and complications associated with influenza. Section: 25.01

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Respiratory System Infections

Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

8.

Which is not a disease caused by arenaviruses? A. lymphocytic choriomeningitis B. Lassa fever C. Hantaviruses D. Bolivian hemorrhagic fever E. Argentine hemorrhagic fever


ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 25.05 Recall the most important bunyaviruses found in the United States, and explain how infection commonly occurs. Section: 25.01

9.

Sin Nombre hantavirus has all the following characteristics, except

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Respiratory System Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

A. its reservoir is human carriers. B. it is a zoonosis. C. the symptoms are abrupt fever, lung edema, respiratory distress, and hypotension. D. it is transmitted by aerosol transmission from rodent excreta. E. the first U.S. outbreak occurred in 1993 in the Southwest. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 25.05 Recall the most important bunyaviruses found in the United States, and explain how infection commonly occurs. Section: 25.01

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Respiratory System Infections

10.

Parainfluenza virus A. usually infects the elderly. B. is in the Orthomyxovirus family. C. causes influenza. D. causes croup, bronchitis, and bronchopneumonia. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 25.06 Recall the enveloped viruses possessing a nonsegmented RNA genome. Section: 25.02

11.

NURSINGTB.COM Orchitis and epididymitis is seen in young adult males as a complication of

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Respiratory System Infections

A. croup. B. mumps. C. influenza. D. measles (rubeola). E. rubella. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 25.05 Recall the most important bunyaviruses found in the United States, and explain how infection commonly occurs. Learning Outcome: 25.06 Recall the enveloped viruses possessing a nonsegmented RNA genome.

Learning Outcome: 25.07 Describe the epidemiology, pathology, diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of mumps and measles. Section: 25.02 Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Respiratory System Infections

12.

Oral lesions called Koplik's spots are seen in patients with A. croup. B. mumps. C. influenza. D. measles (rubeola). E. rubella.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 25.06 Recall the enveloped viruses possessing a nonsegmented RNA genome.

Learning Outcome: 25.07 Describe the epidemiology, pathology, diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of mumps and measles. Section: 25.02

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses


Topic: Respiratory System Infections Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections

13.

Which infection is marked by labored, noisy breathing, and a hoarse cough? A. croup B. mumps C. influenza D. measles (rubeola) E. rubella

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 25.06 Recall the enveloped viruses possessing a nonsegmented RNA genome. Section: 25.02

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Respiratory System Infections

14.

Which febrile disease with a rash has a pathogen that can cross the placenta and cause serious fetal damage? A. croup B. mumps C. influenza D. measles (rubeola) E. rubella

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 25.06 Recall the enveloped viruses possessing a nonsegmented RNA genome.

Learning Outcome: 25.11 Understand the epidemiology, diagnosis, and prevention of rubella. Learning Outcome: 25.12 Describe the pathology of rubella. Section: 25.03 Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections

15.

Which is incorrect about the MMR immunization? A. It contains attenuated viruses. NURSINGTB.COM B. It contains toxoids. C. It is given in early childhood. D. It provides protection against three different viral diseases.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 25.06 Recall the enveloped viruses possessing a nonsegmented RNA genome.

16.

Learning Outcome: 25.07 Describe the epidemiology, pathology, diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of mumps and measles. Learning Outcome: 25.11 Understand the epidemiology, diagnosis, and prevention of rubella. Section: 25.02 Section: 25.03 Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Respiratory System Infections Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections

All the following pertain to measles (rubeola), except A. it is transmitted by direct contact with the rash. B. humans are the only reservoir for the pathogen. C. secondary bacterial otitis media and sinusitis occur. D. it may involve a fatal complication called subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE). E. symptoms include dry cough, sore throat, fever, and conjunctivitis.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 25.06 Recall the enveloped viruses possessing a nonsegmented RNA genome.

Learning Outcome: 25.07 Describe the epidemiology, pathology, diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of mumps and measles. Section: 25.02

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Respiratory System Infections

Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections

17.

Respiratory syncytial virus (Pneumovirus)


A. causes serious disease in infants 6-months-old or younger. B. uses the nasopharynx as its main replication site. C. can be treated with the antiviral aerosol ribavirin. D. is the most common cause of respiratory infections in babies. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 25.06 Recall the enveloped viruses possessing a nonsegmented RNA genome.

Learning Outcome: 25.08 Identify those most at risk of contracting respiratory syncytial virus. Section: 25.02 Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Respiratory System Infections

18.

Which is incorrect about rabies? A. It is a zoonotic disease. B. Wild populations of bats, skunks, raccoons, cats, and canines are primary reservoirs. C. Transmission can involve bites, scratches, and inhalation. D. The average incubation in humans is one week. E. Symptoms include anxiety, agitation, muscle spasms, convulsions, and paralysis.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 25.06 Recall the enveloped viruses possessing a nonsegmented RNA genome.

Learning Outcome: 25.09 Name the common reservoirs of rabies. Section: 25.02 Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Nervous System Infections

19.

Treatment of an animal bite for possible rabies includes A. debridement. B. washing bite with soap or detergent. C. infusion of the wound with human rabies immune globulin (HRIG). D. post-exposure vaccination with HDCV. E. All of these choices are correct. NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 25.06 Recall the enveloped viruses possessing a nonsegmented RNA genome.

Learning Outcome: 25.09 Name the common reservoirs of rabies. Section: 25.02 Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Nervous System Infections

20.

Coronaviruses cause A. fever, rash, and nasal discharge. B. meningitis. C. measles. D. croup. E. common cold and SARS.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 25.06 Recall the enveloped viruses possessing a nonsegmented RNA genome.

Learning Outcome: 25.10 Recall the diseases caused by coronaviruses. Section: 25.03 Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Respiratory System Infections

21.

Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS) A. can cause high fever, pneumonia, respiratory distress. B. began with an initial outbreak in the United States and then spread to Canada and China. C. is caused by the respiratory syncytial virus. D. is not highly transmissible. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.


ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 25.06 Recall the enveloped viruses possessing a nonsegmented RNA genome.

Learning Outcome: 25.10 Recall the diseases caused by coronaviruses. Section: 25.03 Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Respiratory System Infections

22.

Rubella is A. caused by the measles virus (Morbillivirus). B. a zoonosis. C. associated with congenital transmission causing miscarriage, deafness, and cardiac and mental defects. D. characterized by high fever, severe sore throat, severe cough, and myalgia. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 25.06 Recall the enveloped viruses possessing a nonsegmented RNA genome.

Learning Outcome: 25.11 Understand the epidemiology, diagnosis, and prevention of rubella. Learning Outcome: 25.12 Describe the pathology of rubella. Section: 25.03 Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections

23.

All arboviruses involve A. congenital infection. B. arthropod vectors. C. diarrhea. D. birds as the primary reservoir. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 25.14 Understand the relationship between arthoropod vectors and the spread of arboviruses.

Learning Outcome: 25.16 Recall the arboviruses and vectors responsible for encephalitides and hemorrhagic fevers. Section: 25.04 Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses NURSINGTB.COM Topic: Nervous System Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

24.

Encephalitis caused by arboviruses involves A. fever, headache, and rash. B. coma, convulsions, and paralysis in severe cases. C. myalgia and orbital pain. D. muscle aches and joint stiffness. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 25.15 Describe the pathology of arboviral disease. Section: 25.04

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Nervous System Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

25.

Which of the following is a hemorrhagic fever? A. yellow fever B. Western equine encephalitis C. Eastern equine encephalitis D. Colorado tick fever E. St. Louis encephalitis

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 25.16 Recall the arboviruses and vectors responsible for encephalitides and hemorrhagic fevers. Section: 25.04

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections


26.

West Nile virus has the following characteristics, except A. it causes a hemorrhagic fever. B. it is an arbovirus. C. it is transmitted by a mosquito vector. D. it is typically a flu-like illness. E. it causes a severe encephalitis in less than 1% of infected persons.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 25.14 Understand the relationship between arthoropod vectors and the spread of arboviruses. Learning Outcome: 25.15 Describe the pathology of arboviral disease.

Learning Outcome: 25.16 Recall the arboviruses and vectors responsible for encephalitides and hemorrhagic fevers. Section: 25.04 Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Nervous System Infections

Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

27.

Yellow fever and Dengue fever are A. caused by arboviruses. B. caused by viruses that disrupt capillaries and blood clotting. C. zoonoses. D. transmitted by a mosquito vector. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 25.14 Understand the relationship between arthoropod vectors and the spread of arboviruses. Learning Outcome: 25.15 Describe the pathology of arboviral disease.

Learning Outcome: 25.16 Recall the arboviruses and vectors responsible for encephalitides and hemorrhagic fevers. Section: 25.04 Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Nervous System Infections

28.

Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

Retroviruses have the following characteristics, except NURSINGTB.COM A. glycoprotein spikes. B. DNA genome. C. envelope. D. reverse transcriptase. E. viral genes that integrate into the host genome.

ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 25.17 Describe the main characteristics of retroviruses that make them unique. Section: 25.05

29.

All of the following pertain to patients with AIDS, except

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Retroviruses Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Viral Classification

A. they have a profound immunodeficiency. 3 B. that have CD4 T-cell counts below 200 cells/mm of blood. C. they get repeated, life-threatening opportunistic infections. D. they can get unusual cancers and neurological disorders. E. the highest number of cases worldwide is in the United States. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 25.21 Understand the progression of HIV infection. Learning Outcome: 25.23 Recall how AIDS is defined.


Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

30.

Documented transmission of HIV involves A. mosquitoes. B. unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products. C. respiratory droplets. D. contaminated food. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 25.20 Discuss the routes of HIV transmission. Section: 25.05

31.

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Retroviruses Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

All of the following pertain to HIV, except A. it attaches primarily to host cells with CD4 receptors. B. the viral DNA integrates into the host nucleus. C. it has reverse transcriptase. D. it causes Kaposi'sarcoma. E. it can enter into nervous tissues and cause abnormalities.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 25.19 Describe the structural features of the human immunodeficiency virus and the host cell membrane that are required for infection to occur. Learning Outcome: 25.21 Understand the progression of HIV infection. Section: 25.05 Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Retroviruses Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

32.

Which drug/s interfere with the action of an HIV enzyme needed for final assembly and maturation of the virus? A. reverse transcriptase inhibitors B. protease inhibitors C. fusion inhibitors D. integrase inhibitors E. All of these choices are correct.

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 25.25 Describe the mode of action of each class of retroviral agent used to treat infection with HIV. Section: 25.05

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Retroviruses Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Viral Replication

33.

Which class of drugs interferes with the virus inserting itself into host DNA? A. reverse transcriptase inhibitors B. protease inhibitors C. fusion inhibitors D. integrase inhibitors E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 25.25 Describe the mode of action of each class of retroviral agent used to treat infection with HIV.


Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Viral Replication

34.

A frequent cancer that is seen in AIDS patients is A. leukemia. B. Hodgkin's lymphoma. C. Kaposi's sarcoma. D. melanoma. E. colon cancer.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 25.21 Understand the progression of HIV infection. Section: 25.05

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Retroviruses Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

35.

Hydrophobia, the dumb phase, and Negri bodies in nervous tissue are all part of which disease? A. rabies B. dengue fever C. Norwalk virus D. subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) E. Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 25.09 Name the common reservoirs of rabies. Section: 25.02

36.

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Nervous System Infections

All of the following pertain to poliomyelitis, except A. summer outbreaks in the United States have been recently increasing. B. it is transmitted primarily by fecal contaminated water. C. it can be asymptomatic or mild with heaNdUaR chSeIN , sGoTrB e .tChO roM at, fever, and nausea. D. if virus enters the central nervous system, motor neurons can be infected and destroyed. E. there are effective vaccines to prevent polio.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 25.28 Identify the characteristics of poliovirus that enhance its transmission. Learning Outcome: 25.29 Describe the range of pathologies seen in poliovirus infection. Learning Outcome: 25.30 Recall how polio is diagnosed, treated, and prevented. Section: 25.06 Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Nervous System Infections Topic: Nonenveloped RNA Viruses

37.

The major agents responsible for the common cold are A. coxsackie viruses. B. rhinoviruses. C. influenza viruses. D. Caliciviruses. E. rotavirus.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 25.32 Understand why rhinovirus infections are typically limited to the upper respiratory tract.

Learning Outcome: 25.33 Describe the epidemiology and pathology of rhinovirus and calicivirus infections. Section: 25.05

Topic: Nonenveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Respiratory System Infections

38.

The worldwide, primary viral cause of morbidity and mortality from diarrhea is A. coxsackie viruses. B. rhinoviruses.


C. influenza viruses. D. Caliciviruses. E. rotavirus. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 25.34 Describe the unique characteristic of reoviruses and recall the diseases they cause. Section: 25.06

Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Nonenveloped RNA Viruses

39.

Norwalk agent is A. a Calicivirus. B. transmitted oral-fecally. C. sometimes acquired from contaminated water and shellfish. D. a common enteric virus of gastroenteritis. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 25.33 Describe the epidemiology and pathology of rhinovirus and calicivirus infections. Section: 25.06

Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Nonenveloped RNA Viruses

40.

Which is incorrect about Hepatitis A infection? A. It is transmitted by the oral-fecal route. B. It has flu-like symptoms with discomfort near the liver and darkened urine. C. It predisposes a person for liver cancer. D. Immune globulin therapy helps decrease the severity. E. HAVRIX is an inactivated vaccine for prevention.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outco 1T UB nd.e nd the epidemiology, diagnosis, and prevention of infectious hepatitis. NUmRe:S2I5N.3G CrsOtaM Section: 25.06

Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Nonenveloped RNA Viruses

41.

Spongiform encephalopathies are A. associated with abnormal, transmissible, protein in the brain. B. chronic, fatal infections of the nervous system. C. caused by prions. D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, kuru, and Gerstmann-Straüssler-Scheinker syndrome. E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 25.35 Recall the structure of prions and the diseases they cause. Learning Outcome: 25.36 Explain the pathogenesis, transmission, and epidemiology of prion disease. Section: 25.07

Topic: Nervous System Infections

42.

The main route for transmission of HIV in most parts of the world is through A. intravenous drug use. B. homosexual sex. C. blood transfusion. D. heterosexual sex. E. blood products.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 25.20 Discuss the routes of HIV transmission. Section: 25.05

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Retroviruses


Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

43.

Which area has the largest number of people living with HIV/AIDS? A. North America B. Sub-Saharan Africa C. Southeast Asia D. Carribbean E. Western Europe

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 25.20 Discuss the routes of HIV transmission. Section: 25.05

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Retroviruses Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

44.

Which of the following is incorrect regarding Coronaviruses? A. One type can cause the common cold. B. One type can cause SARS. C. They are common animal viruses in pigs, dogs, cats, and poultry. D. There are no tests to confirm diagnosis. E. There is no specific treatment other than supportive care.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 25.10 Recall the diseases caused by coronaviruses. Section: 25.03 Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Respiratory System Infections

45.

Which is incorrect about measles? A. Koplik's spots appear before the characteristic rash. B. Humans are the sole reservoir. C. Vaccination is with an attenuated oral vaccine. D. It is also known as rubeola. NURSINGTB.COM E. It is one of the most contagious infectious diseases.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 25.07 Describe the epidemiology, pathology, diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of mumps and measles. Section: 25.02

46.

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Respiratory System Infections Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections

All of the following are important bunyavirus diseases, except A. Hantavirus. B. Rift Valley fever. C. California encephalitis. D. severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS). E. Korean hemorrhagic fever.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 25.05 Recall the most important bunyaviruses found in the United States, and explain how infection commonly occurs. Section: 25.01

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Respiratory System Infections

Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

47.

Which is correct about influenza? A. Antigenic shift is a minor change in the viral strain. B. The virus is found in swine and cats. C. The virus is grown in poultry eggs for vaccines. D. Influenza A has a mortality rate of close to 35%. E. The virus binds to the intestinal mucosa.


ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 25.03 Recall the epidemiology and complications associated with influenza.

48.

Learning Outcome: 25.04 Describe the production of influenza vaccine. Section: 25.01 Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Respiratory System Infections

Which of the following diseases is not caused by a paramyxovirus? A. severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) B. parainfluenza C. mumps D. measles E. respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) infections

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 25.06 Recall the enveloped viruses possessing a nonsegmented RNA genome.

49.

Learning Outcome: 25.07 Describe the epidemiology, pathology, diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of mumps and measles. Learning Outcome: 25.08 Identify those most at risk of contracting respiratory syncytial virus. Section: 25.02 Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Respiratory System Infections Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections

All the following are correct about the polio vaccines, except

A. the inactivated polio vaccine (IPV) can occasionally revert to a neurovirulent strain. B. treatment for polio involves mainly alleviating pain and suffering. C. the virus is transmitted through the fecal-oral route. D. most infections do not result in paralysis. E. Dr. Jonas Salk developed the IPV vaccine in 1954. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand LearningN OU utR coSmIN e:G 25T.2 enM tify the characteristics of poliovirus that enhance its transmission. B8.CIdO Learning Outcome: 25.29 Describe the range of pathologies seen in poliovirus infection. Learning Outcome: 25.30 Recall how polio is diagnosed, treated, and prevented. Section: 25.06 Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Nervous System Infections Topic: Nonenveloped RNA Viruses

50.

Which of the following is correct about polio?

A. The disease is still affecting millions of people worldwide, mainly in Africa and India. B. The disease is spread by the respiratory route. C. The oral polio vaccine (OPV) is not responsible for causing any polio. D. The Sabin vaccine is preferred over the Salk vaccine in the United States today. E. The virus multiplies in the mucosa of the intestines and is shed in feces. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 25.28 Identify the characteristics of poliovirus that enhance its transmission. Learning Outcome: 25.29 Describe the range of pathologies seen in poliovirus infection. Learning Outcome: 25.30 Recall how polio is diagnosed, treated, and prevented. Section: 25.06 Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Nonenveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Respiratory System Infections

51.

Cocksackieviruses A. are paramyxoviurses. B. are the etiological agents of hairy-cell leukemia. C. can cause hand-foot-mouth disease. D. are retroviruses. E. replicate in helper T-cells.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.


ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Section: 25.06 Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Nonenveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections

52.

A client displays symptoms of fatigue, diarrhea, weight loss, neurological changes, and enlarged lymph nodes. The client thought they had the flu because they felt ill, then felt better over the last 5 years. However, this cycle of feeling tired has led to fever, fatigue, sore throat, and night sweats with a rash. The patient also has thrush. Which result indicates the causative agent of AIDS? A. high level of CD4 T-cells B. detection of HIV antigen C. presence of Candida albicans D. isolation of herpes simplex from skin and mucous membrane ulcers E. isolation of Mycobacterium tuberculosis

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 25.18 Identify the causative agent of acquired immune deficiency syndrome. Learning Outcome: 25.21 Understand the progression of HIV infection. Learning Outcome: 25.22 Describe how testing for HIV infection is accomplished. Section: 25.05 Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Retroviruses Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

53.

What does AIDS stand for? A. aids induced disease B. aids in disguises C. acquired immunodeficiency syndrome D. human acquired immunodeficiency syndromes

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 25.23 Recall how AIDS is defined. Section: 25.05

NURSINGTB.COM

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Retroviruses Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

54.

The primary transmission route for acquiring agents of the common cold is by contact with hands and fomites contaminated with the nasal discharges of an infected person. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 25.10 Recall the diseases caused by coronaviruses. Learning Outcome: 25.33 Describe the epidemiology and pathology of rhinovirus and calicivirus infections. Section: 25.06

Topic: Nonenveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Respiratory System Infections

55.

Influenza is predominantly transmitted by the fecal-oral route. FALSE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 25.03 Recall the epidemiology and complications associated with influenza. Section: 25.01

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Respiratory System Infections

56.

The major reservoir for the Sin Nombre hantavirus is the deer mouse. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember


Learning Outcome: 25.05 Recall the most important bunyaviruses found in the United States, and explain how infection commonly occurs. Section: 25.01

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Respiratory System Infections

57.

Guillain-Barré syndrome involves varying degrees of demyelination of the peripheral nervous system leading to muscle weakness of extremities and possible paralysis. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 25.03 Recall the epidemiology and complications associated with influenza. Section: 25.01

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Respiratory System Infections

58.

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is caused by a prion. FALSE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 25.07 Describe the epidemiology, pathology, diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of mumps and measles. Learning Outcome: 25.35 Recall the structure of prions and the diseases they cause.

Section: 25.02 Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Nervous System Infections

59.

Respiratory syncytial virus and rotavirus are major causes of global outbreaks in infants 6 months of age, or younger. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 25.08 Identify those most at risk of contracting respiratory syncytial virus. Learning Outcome: 25.34 Describe the unique characteristic of reoviruses and recall the diseases they cause.

NURSINGTB.COM

60.

Section: 25.02 Section: 25.06 Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Nonenveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Respiratory System Infections

In rabies, spasms of muscles for swallowing leads to a fear of water. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 25.09 Name the common reservoirs of rabies. Section: 25.02

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Nervous System Infections

61.

The most serious teratogenic effects of intrauterine rubella infection occur if it is acquired during the third trimester. FALSE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 25.11 Understand the epidemiology, diagnosis, and prevention of rubella. Learning Outcome: 25.12 Describe the pathology of rubella. Section: 25.03 Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

62.

A vaccine is currently available to prevent HIV infection. FALSE


ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 25.24 Understand why an HIV vaccine has not been developed. Section: 25.05

63.

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Retroviruses Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

Aedes mosquitoes are the vector involved in yellow fever, and dengue fever, and Zika virus transmission. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 25.14 Understand the relationship between arthoropod vectors and the spread of arboviruses.

Learning Outcome: 25.16 Recall the arboviruses and vectors responsible for encephalitides and hemorrhagic fevers. Section: 25.04 Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

64.

One positive test for the presence of HIV antibodies dictates the diagnosis as AIDS. FALSE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 25.22 Describe how testing for HIV infection is accomplished. Section: 25.05

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Retroviruses Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

65.

An antigenic

occurs when genome segments from different influenza strains recombine.

shift ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 25.02 Understand what is meant by antigenic shift and antigenic drift.

NURSINGTB.COM 66.

Section: 25.01

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Respiratory System Infections Topic: Viral Structure

An antigenic occurs when there is a minor change in antigenicity caused by small mutations in a single influenza virus strain. drift

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 25.02 Understand what is meant by antigenic shift and antigenic drift. Section: 25.01

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Respiratory System Infections

Topic: Viral Structure

67.

The spikes of a paramyxovirus bind and fuse adjacent host cell membranes to produce a

.

syncytium ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 25.06 Recall the enveloped viruses possessing a nonsegmented RNA genome.

Learning Outcome: 25.07 Describe the epidemiology, pathology, diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of mumps and measles. Learning Outcome: 25.08 Identify those most at risk of contracting respiratory syncytial virus. Section: 25.02

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Viral Structure

68.

The influenza virus uses hemagglutinin

spikes to bind to host cells.


ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 25.01 Describe the structure of influenza virus and its spikes. Section: 25.01

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Respiratory System Infections

Topic: Viral Structure

69.

The MMR vaccination is for immunity to

,

, and

.

measles, mumps, rubella ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 25.07 Describe the epidemiology, pathology, diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of mumps and measles. Learning Outcome: 25.11 Understand the epidemiology, diagnosis, and prevention of rubella. Section: 25.02 Section: 25.03 Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Respiratory System Infections Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections

70.

Intracellular inclusions called

seen in nervous tissue are indicative of rabies.

Negri bodies ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 25.09 Name the common reservoirs of rabies. Section: 25.02

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Nervous System Infections

71.

Retroviruses have the enzyme

that catalyzes the synthesis of DNA from viral RNA.

reverse transcriptase ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow NURSINGTB.COM ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 25.17 Describe the main characteristics of retroviruses that make them unique. Section: 25.05

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Retroviruses Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

72.

Discuss the various stages of HIV infection and disease with regard to: a) signs and symptoms, b) corresponding virus activities, and c) diagnostic indicators.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 25.18 Identify the causative agent of acquired immune deficiency syndrome. Learning Outcome: 25.19 Describe the structural features of the human immunodeficiency virus and the host cell membrane that are required for infection to occur. Learning Outcome: 25.20 Discuss the routes of HIV transmission. Learning Outcome: 25.21 Understand the progression of HIV infection. Learning Outcome: 25.22 Describe how testing for HIV infection is accomplished. Learning Outcome: 25.23 Recall how AIDS is defined. Learning Outcome: 25.25 Describe the mode of action of each class of retroviral agent used to treat infection with HIV. Learning Outcome: 25.26 Understand the purpose of using combination therapy to treat HIV infection. Section: 25.05

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Retroviruses Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

73.

Compare and contrast Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) variant CJD, and kuru with regard to: a) causative agent, b) transmission, c) reservoir, d) pathogenesis and symptoms, and e) methods for prevention.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 25.35 Recall the structure of prions and the diseases they cause. Learning Outcome: 25.36 Explain the pathogenesis, transmission, and epidemiology of prion disease. Learning Outcome: 25.37 Understand how prion infection is diagnosed, treated, and prevented.

Section: 25.07


74.

Which two hepatitis viruses are generally acquired in a similar manner? A. HBA and HBV B. HBA and HBC C. HBV and HBC

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 25.13 Summarize the transmission and pathology of the hepatitis C virus. Section: 25.03

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses

75.

Why were blood transfusions prior to 1985 more likely to be associated with Hepatitis C transmission than blood transfusions done since 1985? A. Since 1985, the incidence of Hepatitis C infection in the general population has been significantly lower than it was prior to 1985. B. Since 1985, donor blood is tested for the human immunodeficiency virus. C. Since 1985, the processing and storage of donor blood destroys any Hepatitis C virus in the blood. D. Since 1985, donor blood has been tested for either nonA, nonB Hepatitis virus or specifically for Hepatitis C virus.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 25.13 Summarize the transmission and pathology of the hepatitis C virus. Section: 25.03

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

76.

Which part of HIV facilitates attachment of HIV to TH cells? A. integrase B. GP-120 C. fusion promoter D. protease E. capsid proteins

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 25.19 Describe the structural features of the human immunodeficiency virus and the host cell membrane that are required for infection to occur. Section: 25.05 Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Retroviruses Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Viral Structure

77.

Which of the following presents the greatest challenge to the development of a vaccine against HIV? A. HIV doesn't provoke the production of antibodies. B. Antibodies against HIV don't provide any protection from infection. C. Surface antigens on HIV change readily due to frequent mutations. D. Individuals are unwilling to participate in vaccine trials out of fear of developing AIDS.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 25.24 Understand why an HIV vaccine has not been developed. Section: 25.05

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Retroviruses Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

78.

The most effective HIV treatment includes A. several different drugs designed to inhibit reverse transcriptase. B. several different drugs each directed at different enzymes (reverse transcriptase, integrase, fusion, and protease).


C. several different protease inhibitors. D. several different fusion inhibitors and reverse transcriptase inhibitors. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 25.26 Understand the purpose of using combination therapy to treat HIV infection. Section: 25.05

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections Topic: Viral Replication

79.

Which of the following viruses is associated with adult T-cell leukemia? A. HIV B. HTLV-1 C. Hepatitis C virus D. HTLV-2 E. reovirus

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 25.27 Describe the diseases associated with HTLV-I. Section: 25.05

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Retroviruses Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

80.

HTLV-1 is a retrovirus associated wth acute lymphocytic leukemia. FALSE

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 25.27 Describe the diseases associated with HTLV-I. Section: 25.05

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Retroviruses Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

81.

NURSINGTB.COM Following several days of nausea and fatigue, Jackie has become jaundiced and her urine is very darkcolored. Tests ordered by her physician have confirmed that she has Hepatitis A. Which of the following is most likely to shorten the duration and lessen the severity of her symptoms? A. treatment with acyclovir B. administration of the HAVRIX vaccine C. administration of pooled human immune serum globulin D. interferon therapy

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 25.31 Understand the epidemiology, diagnosis, and prevention of infectious hepatitis. Section: 25.06

82.

Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Nonenveloped RNA Viruses

Each of the following viruses or diseases are transmitted via the oral-fecal route, except A. Hepatitis A virus. B. poliovirus. C. rotavirus. D. Hepatitis C virus. E. norovirus.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 25.28 Identify the characteristics of poliovirus that enhance its transmission. Learning Outcome: 25.31 Understand the epidemiology, diagnosis, and prevention of infectious hepatitis.

Learning Outcome: 25.34 Describe the unique characteristic of reoviruses and recall the diseases they cause. Section: 25.06


Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections Topic: Nonenveloped RNA Viruses

83.

Why do rhinoviruses infect the upper respiratory tract, particularly the nose, but not the lower respiratory tract? A. They are unable to attach to receptors on the pulmonary cells in the lower respiratory tract. B. They replicate most effectively at the cooler temperatures of the upper respiratory tract. C. The prevalence of alveolar macrophages in the lower respiratory tract prevents them from becoming established there. D. IgA antibodies in lower respiratory tract secretions prevent them from becoming established in the lower respiratory tract.

ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 25.32 Understand why rhinovirus infections are typically limited to the upper respiratory tract. Section: 25.06

Topic: Nonenveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Respiratory System Infections

Topic: Viral Replication

84.

Which of the following could block the attachment of HIV to TH cells? A. integrase inhibitors B. antibodies against GP-120 C. antibodies against co-receptors on TH cells D. fusion inhibitors E. antibodies against the HIV capsid

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze Learning Outcome: 25.19 Describe the structural features of the human immunodeficiency virus and the host cell membrane that are required for infection to occur. Section: 25.05 Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses NURSINGTB.COM Topic: Retroviruses Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

85.

Combination therapy for HIV is based on the assumption that it highly unlikely for multiple simultaneous mutations to cause resistance to each of the drugs used. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 25.26 Understand the purpose of using combination therapy to treat HIV infection. Section: 25.05

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses Topic: Retroviruses Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

86.

All of the following are true of prions and prion diseases, except A. prions are not readily destroyed by routine sterilization methods. B. prion diseases are diagnosed by an indirect ELISA test that detects antibody to prions. C. there are no medications that can halt the progression of prion diseases. D. prion diseases are all neurodegenerative diseases. E. prions are composed exclusively of protein.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 25.37 Understand how prion infection is diagnosed, treated, and prevented.

Section: 25.07


Chapter 25 Testbank Summary Category

# of Questions

ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (in cluding bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron).

3

ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes.

1

ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metaboli c characteristics.

1

ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biologic al means.

7

ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells.

1

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in benefi cial, neutral or detrimental ways.

82

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function

4

ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways

7

ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow

1

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems

81

ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills

1

Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

26

Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand

48

Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply

11

Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze

1

Learning Outcome: 25.01 Describe the structure of influenza virus and its spikes.

3

Learning Outcome: 25.02 Understand what is meant by antigenic shift and antigenic drift.

2

Learning Outcome: 25.03 Recall the epidemiology and complications associated with influenza.

7

Learning Outcome: 25.04 Describe the production of influNeU nzRaSvIN acGciTnB e..COM

2

Learning Outcome: 25.05 Recall the most important bunyaviruses found in the United States, and explain how infecti on commonly occurs.

5

Learning Outcome: 25.06 Recall the enveloped viruses possessing a nonsegmented RNA genome.

15

Learning Outcome: 25.07 Describe the epidemiology, pathology, diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of mumps and measles.

10

Learning Outcome: 25.08 Identify those most at risk of contracting respiratory syncytial virus.

4

Learning Outcome: 25.09 Name the common reservoirs of rabies.

5

Learning Outcome: 25.10 Recall the diseases caused by coronaviruses.

5

Learning Outcome: 25.11 Understand the epidemiology, diagnosis, and prevention of rubella.

6

Learning Outcome: 25.12 Describe the pathology of rubella.

3

Learning Outcome: 25.13 Summarize the transmission and pathology of the hepatitis C virus.

2

Learning Outcome: 25.14 Understand the relationship between arthoropod vectors and the spread of arboviruses.

4

Learning Outcome: 25.15 Describe the pathology of arboviral disease.

3

Learning Outcome: 25.16 Recall the arboviruses and vectors responsible for encephalitides and hemorrhagic fevers.

6

Learning Outcome: 25.17 Describe the main characteristics of retroviruses that make them unique.

2

Learning Outcome: 25.18 Identify the causative agent of acquired immune deficiency syndrome.

2

Learning Outcome: 25.19 Describe the structural features of the human immunodeficiency virus and the host cell me mbrane that are required for infection to occur.

4

Learning Outcome: 25.20 Discuss the routes of HIV transmission.

4

Learning Outcome: 25.21 Understand the progression of HIV infection.

5

Learning Outcome: 25.22 Describe how testing for HIV infection is accomplished.

3

Learning Outcome: 25.23 Recall how AIDS is defined.

3

Learning Outcome: 25.24 Understand why an HIV vaccine has not been developed.

2

Learning Outcome: 25.25 Describe the mode of action of each class of retroviral agent used to treat infection with HI V.

3

Learning Outcome: 25.26 Understand the purpose of using combination therapy to treat HIV infection.

3


Learning Outcome: 25.27 Describe the diseases associated with HTLV-I.

2

Learning Outcome: 25.28 Identify the characteristics of poliovirus that enhance its transmission.

4

Learning Outcome: 25.29 Describe the range of pathologies seen in poliovirus infection. Learning Outcome: 25.30 Recall how polio is diagnosed, treated, and prevented. Learning Outcome: 25.31 Understand the epidemiology, diagnosis, and prevention of infectious hepatitis.

3 3 3

Learning Outcome: 25.32 Understand why rhinovirus infections are typically limited to the upper respiratory tract.

2

Learning Outcome: 25.33 Describe the epidemiology and pathology of rhinovirus and calicivirus infections.

3

Learning Outcome: 25.34 Describe the unique characteristic of reoviruses and recall the diseases they cause.

3

Learning Outcome: 25.35 Recall the structure of prions and the diseases they cause.

3

Learning Outcome: 25.36 Explain the pathogenesis, transmission, and epidemiology of prion disease.

2

Learning Outcome: 25.37 Understand how prion infection is diagnosed, treated, and prevented.

2

Section: 25.01

17

Section: 25.02

19

Section: 25.03

11

Section: 25.04

7

Section: 25.05

23

Section: 25.06

12

Section: 25.07

3

Topic: Enveloped RNA Viruses

71

Topic: Gastrointestinal System Infections

14

Topic: General Viral Properties

1

Topic: Nervous System Infections

13

Topic: Nonenveloped RNA Viruses

13

Topic: Respiratory System Infections

34

Topic: Retroviruses Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections

21

NURSINGTB.COM

11

Topic: Systemic (Cardiovascular/Lymphatic) Infections

36

Topic: Viral Classification

2

Topic: Viral Replication Topic: Viral Structure

4 7


Chapter 26 Testbank Student:

1.

The overall role that a species serves in a community is its A. niche. B. habitat. C. population. D. community. E. biome.

2.

The physical location in the environment to which an organism has adapted is called a A. niche. B. habitat. C. population. D. community. E. biome.

3.

The thin envelope of life that surrounds the Earth's surface is called the A. atmosphere. B. biosphere. C. lithosphere. D. hydrosphere. E. ecosystem.

4.

The terrestrial realm of the biosphere is distributed into particular climatic regions called A. niches. B. habitats. C. populations. D. communities. E. biomes.

5.

NURSINGTB.COM

A group of organisms of the same species within a community is called a A. niche. B. habitat. C. population. D. community. E. biome.

6.

All of the following are abiotic factors, except A. atmospheric gases. B. an animal carcass. C. minerals. D. water. E. light.

7.

Which trophic level forms the base of a food chain? A. primary consumers B. quarternary consumers C. secondary consumers D. primary producers E. tertiary consumers

8.

Which is mismatched? A. parasitism - one organism benefits and the other receives no benefit


B. competition - one organism gives off substances that inhibit or kill other organisms C. predator - seeks out and ingests live prey D. scavengers - feed on live to dead cells and wastes E. omnivores - feed on plants and flesh 9.

Carbon dioxide (CO2) is A. removed from the atmosphere during photosynthesis. B. a source of carbon. C. returned to the atmosphere during respiration and fermentation. D. used by marine organisms to make limestone for their hard shells. E. All of these choices are correct.

10. The energy of photons is converted into chemical energy during A. ammonification. B. nitrogen fixation. C. photosynthesis. D. nitrification. E. denitrification. +

11. The conversion of gaseous nitrogen (N2) to the ammonium ion (NH 4 ) occurs during

A. ammonification. B. nitrogen fixation. C. photosynthesis. D. nitrification. E. denitrification.

+

12. The oxidation of ammonia (NH4 ) to nitrate (NO3 ) is called A. ammonification. B. nitrogen fixation. C. photosynthesis. D. nitrification. E. denitrification.

NURSINGTB.COM

13. The conversion of nitrate (NO3 ) to nitrogen gas (N2) is called A. ammonification. B. nitrogen fixation. C. photosynthesis. D. nitrification. E. denitrification. 14. Which of the following is not correct about nitrogen fixation? A. Some nitrogen-fixing bacteria live free. B. Some nitrogen-fixing bacteria live in a symbiotic relationship with plants. C. Nitrogen fixation is an aerobic process. + D. The primary product of nitrogen fixation is ammonium ion, NH 4 . E. Legumes are plants that are able to fix nitrogen. 15. Which of the following is a nitrifying microbe?

A. Nitrosospira B. Nitrosobacter C. Nitrosococcus D. Nitrosomonas E. All of these choices are correct. 16. Which of the following can carry out denitrification to completion?

A. Rhizobium B. Nitrobacter


C. Pseudomonas D. Nostoc E. Azotobacter 17. Which organism is a nitrogen-fixing symbiont of legumes?

A. Rhizobium B. Nitrobacter C. Pseudomonas D. Nostoc E. Azotobacter 18. Thiobacillus thiooxidans is found in an environmental sample. Which of the following should then apply to this sample? A. The sample contains lithotrophs. B. The sample is very acidic. C. The sample contains microbes that oxidize sulfur to sulfates. D. All of these choices are correct. 19. Life would not be possible without A. autotrophs. B. primary consumers. C. secondary consumers. D. heterotrophs. E. chemoheterotrophs. 20. Using microbes to break down or remove toxic wastes in water and soil is called A. decomposition. B. synergism. C. mineralization. D. bioremediation. E. recycling.

NURSINGTB.COM

21. The sediment in a lake, composed of organic debris and mud, is termed the A. photic zone. B. benthic zone. C. profundal zone. D. littoral zone. E. limnetic zone.

22. All of the following pertain to red tides, except A. due to overgrowth of red and brown algae in water. B. due to overgrowth of toxin-producing dinoflagellates. C. cause paralytic shellfish poisoning. D. involve toxin concentrating in shellfish. E. humans can become ill from eating the shellfish. 23. Eutrophication A. encourages heavy surface algal blooms. B. can block the O2 supply to the lake. C. occurs when there are excess nutrients in aquatic ecosystems. D. causes massive die-off of fish and invertebrates. E. All of these choices are correct. 24. Potable water is A. contaminated. B. polluted.


C. safe to drink. D. foul testing. 25. Indicator bacteria are A. coliforms. B. gram-negative rods. C. evidence of fecal contamination. D. used in water quality tests. E. All of these choices are correct. 26. Analysis of a water sample by a series of presumptive, confirmatory, and completed tests that help establish an estimate of coliform numbers in the water is called A. membrane filter method. B. most probable number (MPN) procedure. C. standard plate count. D. coliform determination test. 27. An example of a primary consumer would be a A. dog. B. cow. C. tiger. D. mushroom. 28. As energy is transferred to the next trophic level, how much of it is generally lost as heat? A. None B. 5% C. 10% D. 50% E. 90% NURSINGTB.COM 29. Which of the following cannot be photoautrophs? A. bacteria B. fungi C. plants D. algae E. All of these choices are correct. 30. What is the source of CO2 released into the atmosphere? A. respiration B. anaerobic microbial activity C. fuel combustion D. volcanic activity E. All of these choices are correct. 31. The Gaia Theory says that A. the biosphere contains a diversity of habitats and niches favorable to life because living things have made it that way. B. the complementary actions of respiration and photosynthesis have maintained a relatively stable atmospheric pool of carbon dioxide and oxygen. C. all living things must obtain nutrients and energy from their environment. D. all elements have their origin in a nonliving, long-term reservoir. E. ecosystems are open with regard to energy because the sun is constantly renewing them with a renewable source. 32. Which of the following is incorrect about water? A. When a water quality test is negative for coliforms, it is considered fit for human consumption.


B. There is no acceptable level for fecal coliforms, enterococci, viruses, or pathogenic protozoans in drinking water. C. The (most probable number) MPN specifically detects fecal coliforms. D. The membrane filter method is a widely used rapid method to test large quantities of water for quality. E. Finding coliforms in high numbers indicates fecal contamination of the water. 33. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas? A. carbon dioxide (CO2) B. sulfur dioxide (SO2) C. methane (CH4) D. ammonia (NH4+) E. All of these choices are correct. 34. When describing the horizontal zonation of a body of water, which term refers to the shoreline area? A. littoral zone B. limnetic zone C. photic zone D. benthic zone E. estuary zone 35. Which of the following water-borne pathogens are protozoans?

A. Vibrio B. Hepatitis A C. Giardia D. Shigella E. Norwalk virus 36. How does methyl mercury affect living things? A. It interferes with translation of mRNA. B. It interferes with DNA replication. C. It inhibits transcription. D. It precipitates proteins. NURSINGTB.COM E. It inhibits the electron transport chain during cellular respiration.

37. The niche of an organism includes all of the following, except A. nutritional intake. B. position in the community structure. C. rate of population growth. D. number of offspring it produces. E. All of these choices are correct. 38. Bacteria can function in all the following roles in an ecosystem, except as a A. primary producer. B. consumer. C. decomposer. D. parasite. E. All of these choices are correct. 39. In a large body of standing water, which area exists between the hypolimnion and the epilimnion? A. thermocline B. photic C. limnetic D. littoral E. profundal 40. Which of the following are sources of greenhouse gases? A. gastrointestinal tract of ruminants B. combustion of fossil fuels


C. burning forests to clear agricultural land D. decaying vegetation in swamps E. All of these choices are correct. 41. What was needed by the microorganisms to facilitate the speed of the bioremediation process after the Exxon Valdez oil spill? A. more bacteria B. more oil C. more phosphate D. All of these choices are correct. 42. Living or dead organisms that occupy an organism's habitat are called biotic factors. True False 43. The primary role of producers is to recycle nutrients in an ecosystem. True False 44. The combustion of fossil fuels, such as coal, oil, and gas, have contributed to the steady increase in atmosphere CO2 gas over the last 25 years. True False 45. The main decomposers are the fungi and bacteria. True False 46. Mycorrhizae are the mutualistic partnership between fungi and the roots of certain plants. True False 47. A food web is generally simpler to visualize than a food chain. NURSINGTB.COM True False 48. Some bacteria, such as Desulfovibrio, are able to reduce sulfates to hydrogen sulfide as the final step in the electron transport chain. True False 49. The lithosphere is an area that is without living microorganisms. True False 50. The total amount of water in the hydrologic cycle has decreased over millions of years. True False 51. In a synergistic relationship, the action of one microbe favorably affects another, but the first microbe receives no benefit. True False 52. A

is a form of consumer that actively seeks out and ingests live prey.

53. The science called microbial interactions affect the Earth.

studies interactions between microbes and their environment and how those

54. Organisms that inhabit soil or water and break down and absorb the organic matter of dead organisms are called

.


55. Carbon dioxide, sulfur dioxide, methane, and nitrous oxide are believed to be temperature balance of the Earth.

gases that could disrupt the

56. The slowly decaying organic litter from plant and animal tissues that is found in the soil is called 57. An

is the term for a deep groundwater source.

58. An

is a region where the river meets the sea.

59.

.

is a floating, surface microbial community that drifts with the currents and waves.

60. Nutrient deficient ecosystems are called _ 61. Finding

.

in water is a good indication that it has been fecally contaminated.

62. Discuss the specific effects caused by the runoff of organic industrial waste into a freshwater stream.

63. Discuss and give several examples of the use of microbes in bioremediation.

64. Differentiate between the following terms and provide an example for each: mutualism, communalism, synergism, parasitism. NURSINGTB.COM 65. Describe the carbon cycle from the atmosphere to the primary producers and back again.

66. What is "nitrogen fixation" and how do legumes play a role in this important cycle?

67. Draw an energy pyramid and provide specific examples of each level.

68. Consider a pond on your college campus. All of the organisms that live in the pond, including bacteria, protozoa, algae, plants and animals, represent a/an A. ecosystem. B. population. C. niche. D. community. E. habitat. 69. Lichens grow in a variety of habitats including rocks and tree trunks, and exist as a symbiotic association of algae or cyanobacteria and a fungus. The fungus provides anchoring, moisture, and minerals for the algae, and the algae performs photosynthesis providing sugars to sustain the fungus. The relationship between the fungus and algae is an example of A. commensalism. B. mututalism. C. parasitism.


D. microbial antagonism. E. a predator-prey relationship. 70. Most of the zooplankton and phyoplankton in a lake will be located in the A. benthic zone. B. photic zone. C. produndal zone. D. littoral zone. E. Plankton will be distributed among each of these zones. 71. Which of the following are roles played by microbes in aquatic ecosystems? A. producers B. primary consumers C. decomposers D. mineralizers E. All of these choices are correct.

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Chapter 26 Testbank Key 1.

The overall role that a species serves in a community is its A. niche. B. habitat. C. population. D. community. E. biome.

ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 26.03 Differentiate between habitat and niche, using examples. Section: 26.01 Topic: Microbial Ecology

2.

The physical location in the environment to which an organism has adapted is called a A. niche. B. habitat. C. population. D. community. E. biome. ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways NURSINGTB.COM ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 26.03 Differentiate between habitat and niche, using examples. Section: 26.01

Topic: Microbial Ecology

3.

The thin envelope of life that surrounds the Earth's surface is called the A. atmosphere. B. biosphere. C. lithosphere. D. hydrosphere. E. ecosystem. ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems.

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 26.02 Characterize the organization of ecosystems, from the highest to the lowest levels.

Section: 26.01 Topic: Microbial Ecology

4.

The terrestrial realm of the biosphere is distributed into particular climatic regions called A. niches. B. habitats. C. populations. D. communities. E. biomes. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 26.02 Characterize the organization of ecosystems, from the highest to the lowest levels.

Section: 26.01 Topic: Microbial Ecology

5.

A group of organisms of the same species within a community is called a


A. niche. B. habitat. C. population. D. community. E. biome. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 26.02 Characterize the organization of ecosystems, from the highest to the lowest levels.

6.

Section: 26.01 Topic: Microbial Ecology

All of the following are abiotic factors, except A. atmospheric gases. B. an animal carcass. C. minerals. D. water. E. light. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 26.02 Characterize the organization of ecosystems, from the highest to the lowest levels. Section: 26.01 Topic: Microbial Ecology

7.

Which trophic level forms the base of a food chain? A. primary consumers B. quarternary consumers C. secondary consumers D. primary producers E. tertiary consumers

NURSINGTB.COM ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.

ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 26.04 Describe the flow of energy through an ecosystem. Learning Outcome: 26.05 Analyze trophic structures and nutritional relationships of a community. Section: 26.02 Topic: Microbial Ecology

8.

Which is mismatched? A. parasitism - one organism benefits and the other receives no benefit B. competition - one organism gives off substances that inhibit or kill other organisms C. predator - seeks out and ingests live prey D. scavengers - feed on live to dead cells and wastes E. omnivores - feed on plants and flesh ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.

ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 26.06 Outline several types of ecological associations with examples. Section: 26.02 Topic: Microbial Ecology

9.

Carbon dioxide (CO2) is A. removed from the atmosphere during photosynthesis. B. a source of carbon. C. returned to the atmosphere during respiration and fermentation.


D. used by marine organisms to make limestone for their hard shells. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 26.07 Summarize the main concepts pertaining to biogeochemical cycles. Learning Outcome: 26.08 Discuss the primary participants in and activities of the carbon cycle. Section: 26.03

Topic: Microbial Ecology

10.

The energy of photons is converted into chemical energy during A. ammonification. B. nitrogen fixation. C. photosynthesis. D. nitrification. E. denitrification. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

Learning Outcome: 26.04 Describe the flow of energy through an ecosystem. Learning Outcome: 26.08 Discuss the primary participants in and activities of the carbon cycle.

11.

+

Section: 26.02 Section: 26.03 Topic: Microbial Ecology

The conversion of gaseous nitrogen (N2) to the ammonium ion (NH4 ) occurs during A. ammonification. B. nitrogen fixation. C. photosynthesis. D. nitrification. E. denitrification. ASMN OU bjec 05T .0B 3.M cro organisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. RStivIeN: G CiO M

ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 26.07 Summarize the main concepts pertaining to biogeochemical cycles. Learning Outcome: 26.09 Describe the forms in which nitrogen is found and the contributions of microbes to the nitrogen cycle. Section: 26.03 Topic: Microbial Ecology

12.

+

The oxidation of ammonia (NH4 ) to nitrate (NO3 ) is called A. ammonification. B. nitrogen fixation. C. photosynthesis. D. nitrification. E. denitrification. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 26.07 Summarize the main concepts pertaining to biogeochemical cycles. Learning Outcome: 26.09 Describe the forms in which nitrogen is found and the contributions of microbes to the nitrogen cycle. Section: 26.03 Topic: Microbial Ecology Topic: Soil Microbiology

13.

The conversion of nitrate (NO3 ) to nitrogen gas (N2) is called A. ammonification. B. nitrogen fixation. C. photosynthesis. D. nitrification.


E. denitrification. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 26.07 Summarize the main concepts pertaining to biogeochemical cycles. Learning Outcome: 26.09 Describe the forms in which nitrogen is found and the contributions of microbes to the nitrogen cycle. Section: 26.03 Topic: Microbial Ecology Topic: Soil Microbiology

14.

Which of the following is not correct about nitrogen fixation? A. Some nitrogen-fixing bacteria live free. B. Some nitrogen-fixing bacteria live in a symbiotic relationship with plants. C. Nitrogen fixation is an aerobic process. + D. The primary product of nitrogen fixation is ammonium ion, NH4 . E. Legumes are plants that are able to fix nitrogen. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 26.09 Describe the forms in which nitrogen is found and the contributions of microbes to the nitrogen cycle. Section: 26.03 Topic: Microbial Ecology Topic: Soil Microbiology Topic: Water Microbiology

15.

Which of the following is a nitrifying microbe?

A. Nitrosospira B. Nitrosobacter C. Nitrosococcus D. Nitrosomonas E. All of these choices are correct.

NURSINGTB.COM ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 26.09 Describe the forms in which nitrogen is found and the contributions of microbes to the nitrogen cycle. Section: 26.03 Topic: Microbial Ecology Topic: Soil Microbiology Topic: Water Microbiology

16.

Which of the following can carry out denitrification to completion?

A. Rhizobium B. Nitrobacter C. Pseudomonas D. Nostoc E. Azotobacter ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 26.09 Describe the forms in which nitrogen is found and the contributions of microbes to the nitrogen cycle. Section: 26.03 Topic: Microbial Ecology Topic: Soil Microbiology Topic: Water Microbiology

17.

Which organism is a nitrogen-fixing symbiont of legumes? A. Rhizobium


B. Nitrobacter C. Pseudomonas D. Nostoc E. Azotobacter ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.

ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 26.09 Describe the forms in which nitrogen is found and the contributions of microbes to the nitrogen cycle. Section: 26.03 Topic: Microbial Ecology Topic: Soil Microbiology

18.

Thiobacillus thiooxidans is found in an environmental sample. Which of the following should then apply to this sample? A. The sample contains lithotrophs. B. The sample is very acidic. C. The sample contains microbes that oxidize sulfur to sulfates. D. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 26.07 Summarize the main concepts pertaining to biogeochemical cycles. Learning Outcome: 26.10 Indicate the main components of the sulfur and phosphorus cycles. Section: 26.03 Topic: Microbial Ecology Topic: Soil Microbiology

19.

Life would not be possible without A. autotrophs. B. primary consumers. C. secondary consumers. D. heterotrophs. E. chemoheterotrophs.

NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 26.05 Analyze trophic structures and nutritional relationships of a community. Learning Outcome: 26.08 Discuss the primary participants in and activities of the carbon cycle. Section: 26.02 Section: 26.03 Topic: Microbial Ecology

20.

Using microbes to break down or remove toxic wastes in water and soil is called A. decomposition. B. synergism. C. mineralization. D. bioremediation. E. recycling. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 26.13 Explain how bioremediation relates to soil and water.

Section: 26.04 Topic: Microbial Ecology Topic: Soil Microbiology Topic: Water Microbiology


21.

The sediment in a lake, composed of organic debris and mud, is termed the A. photic zone. B. benthic zone. C. profundal zone. D. littoral zone. E. limnetic zone. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 26.15 Describe the structure of aquatic ecosystems. Section: 26.05 Topic: Microbial Ecology Topic: Water Microbiology

22.

All of the following pertain to red tides, except

A. due to overgrowth of red and brown algae in water. B. due to overgrowth of toxin-producing dinoflagellates. C. cause paralytic shellfish poisoning. D. involve toxin concentrating in shellfish. E. humans can become ill from eating the shellfish. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 26.15 Describe the structure of aquatic ecosystems. Learning Outcome: 26.16 Explain how aquatic environments vary in nutrient content. Section: 26.05

Topic: Water Microbiology

23.

Eutrophication A. encourages heavy surface algal blooms. NURSINGTB.COM B. can block the O2 supply to the lake. C. occurs when there are excess nutrients in aquatic ecosystems. D. causes massive die-off of fish and invertebrates. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 26.15 Describe the structure of aquatic ecosystems. Learning Outcome: 26.16 Explain how aquatic environments vary in nutrient content. Section: 26.05

Topic: Water Microbiology

24.

Potable water is A. contaminated. B. polluted. C. safe to drink. D. foul testing. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 26.18 Summarize the primary methods of assessing the microbiological quality of water. Section: 26.05

Topic: Water Microbiology

25.

Indicator bacteria are A. coliforms. B. gram-negative rods. C. evidence of fecal contamination.


D. used in water quality tests. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 26.17 Relate the principles involved in water monitoring. Learning Outcome: 26.18 Summarize the primary methods of assessing the microbiological quality of water. Section: 26.05

Topic: Water Microbiology

26.

Analysis of a water sample by a series of presumptive, confirmatory, and completed tests that help establish an estimate of coliform numbers in the water is called A. membrane filter method. B. most probable number (MPN) procedure. C. standard plate count. D. coliform determination test. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

Learning Outcome: 26.17 Relate the principles involved in water monitoring. Learning Outcome: 26.18 Summarize the primary methods of assessing the microbiological quality of water. Section: 26.05 Topic: Water Microbiology

27.

An example of a primary consumer would be a A. dog. B. cow. C. tiger. D. mushroom. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 26.04 Describe the flow of energy through an ecosystem. Learning Outcome: 26.05 Analyze trophic structures and nutritional relationships of a community. Section: 26.02 NURSINGTB.COM Topic: Microbial Ecology

28.

As energy is transferred to the next trophic level, how much of it is generally lost as heat? A. None B. 5% C. 10% D. 50% E. 90% ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 26.04 Describe the flow of energy through an ecosystem. Section: 26.02 Topic: Microbial Ecology

29.

Which of the following cannot be photoautrophs? A. bacteria B. fungi C. plants D. algae E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems.

ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 26.04 Describe the flow of energy through an ecosystem. Section: 26.02 Topic: Microbial Ecology

30.

What is the source of CO2 released into the atmosphere?


A. respiration B. anaerobic microbial activity C. fuel combustion D. volcanic activity E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 26.07 Summarize the main concepts pertaining to biogeochemical cycles. Learning Outcome: 26.08 Discuss the primary participants in and activities of the carbon cycle.

Section: 26.03 Topic: Microbial Ecology

31.

The Gaia Theory says that A. the biosphere contains a diversity of habitats and niches favorable to life because living things have made it that way. B. the complementary actions of respiration and photosynthesis have maintained a relatively stable atmospheric pool of carbon dioxide and oxygen. C. all living things must obtain nutrients and energy from their environment. D. all elements have their origin in a nonliving, long-term reservoir. E. ecosystems are open with regard to energy because the sun is constantly renewing them with a renewable source.

ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 26.07 Summarize the main concepts pertaining to biogeochemical cycles. Section: 26.03 Topic: Microbial Ecology

32.

Which of the following is incorrect about water? GsT,Bit.CisOcM A. When a water quality test is negative foNr U coRlSifIoN rm onsidered fit for human consumption. B. There is no acceptable level for fecal coliforms, enterococci, viruses, or pathogenic protozoans in drinking water. C. The (most probable number) MPN specifically detects fecal coliforms. D. The membrane filter method is a widely used rapid method to test large quantities of water for quality. E. Finding coliforms in high numbers indicates fecal contamination of the water. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 26.17 Relate the principles involved in water monitoring. Learning Outcome: 26.18 Summarize the primary methods of assessing the microbiological quality of water. Section: 26.05 Topic: Water Microbiology

33.

Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas? A. carbon dioxide (CO2) B. sulfur dioxide (SO2) C. methane (CH4) D. ammonia (NH4+) E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

Learning Outcome: 26.07 Summarize the main concepts pertaining to biogeochemical cycles. Section: 26.03 Topic: Microbial Ecology

34.

When describing the horizontal zonation of a body of water, which term refers to the shoreline area? A. littoral zone B. limnetic zone C. photic zone D. benthic zone


E. estuary zone ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems.

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 26.15 Describe the structure of aquatic ecosystems. Learning Outcome: 26.16 Explain how aquatic environments vary in nutrient content.

Section: 26.05 Topic: Water Microbiology

35.

Which of the following water-borne pathogens are protozoans?

A. Vibrio B. Hepatitis A C. Giardia D. Shigella E. Norwalk virus ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 26.17 Relate the principles involved in water monitoring. Section: 26.05

Topic: Water Microbiology

36.

How does methyl mercury affect living things? A. It interferes with translation of mRNA. B. It interferes with DNA replication. C. It inhibits transcription. D. It precipitates proteins. E. It inhibits the electron transport chain during cellular respiration. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems

NURSINGTB.COM

37.

Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

Learning Outcome: 26.07 Summarize the main concepts pertaining to biogeochemical cycles. Section: 26.03 Topic: Microbial Ecology

The niche of an organism includes all of the following, except A. nutritional intake. B. position in the community structure. C. rate of population growth. D. number of offspring it produces. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.

ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 26.03 Differentiate between habitat and niche, using examples. Section: 26.01 Topic: Microbial Ecology

38.

Bacteria can function in all the following roles in an ecosystem, except as a A. primary producer. B. consumer. C. decomposer. D. parasite. E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.


ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 26.01 Define microbial ecology and describe what it entails. Learning Outcome: 26.04 Describe the flow of energy through an ecosystem. Learning Outcome: 26.05 Analyze trophic structures and nutritional relationships of a community. Section: 26.02 Topic: Microbial Ecology

39.

In a large body of standing water, which area exists between the hypolimnion and the epilimnion? A. thermocline B. photic C. limnetic D. littoral E. profundal ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems.

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 26.15 Describe the structure of aquatic ecosystems.

Section: 26.05 Topic: Water Microbiology

40.

Which of the following are sources of greenhouse gases? A. gastrointestinal tract of ruminants B. combustion of fossil fuels C. burning forests to clear agricultural land D. decaying vegetation in swamps E. All of these choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

41.

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 26.07 Summarize the main concepts pertaining to biogeochemical cycles. Section: 26.03 Topic: Microbial Ecology NURSINGTB.COM

What was needed by the microorganisms to facilitate the speed of the bioremediation process after the Exxon Valdez oil spill? A. more bacteria B. more oil C. more phosphate D. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 26.13 Explain how bioremediation relates to soil and water. Section: 26.04 Topic: Soil Microbiology Topic: Water Microbiology

42.

Living or dead organisms that occupy an organism's habitat are called biotic factors. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 26.03 Differentiate between habitat and niche, using examples. Section: 26.01 Topic: Microbial Ecology

43.

The primary role of producers is to recycle nutrients in an ecosystem.


FALSE ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 26.04 Describe the flow of energy through an ecosystem. Learning Outcome: 26.05 Analyze trophic structures and nutritional relationships of a community. Section: 26.02 Topic: Microbial Ecology

44.

The combustion of fossil fuels, such as coal, oil, and gas, have contributed to the steady increase in atmosphere CO2 gas over the last 25 years. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 26.07 Summarize the main concepts pertaining to biogeochemical cycles. Learning Outcome: 26.08 Discuss the primary participants in and activities of the carbon cycle.

Section: 26.03 Topic: Microbial Ecology

45.

The main decomposers are the fungi and bacteria. TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 26.04 Describe the flow of energy through an ecosystem. Learning Outcome: 26.05 Analyze trophic structures and nutritional relationships of a community. Section: 26.02 Topic: Microbial Ecology

46.

Mycorrhizae are the mutualistic partnershipNb nTfu gO i aM nd the roots of certain plants. UeRtw SIeNeG Bn.C TRUE

ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.

ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 26.06 Outline several types of ecological associations with examples. Learning Outcome: 26.12 Discuss the activities of microbes in the rhizosphere. Section: 26.04 Topic: Microbial Ecology Topic: Soil Microbiology

47.

A food web is generally simpler to visualize than a food chain. FALSE ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 26.04 Describe the flow of energy through an ecosystem. Learning Outcome: 26.05 Analyze trophic structures and nutritional relationships of a community. Section: 26.02 Topic: Microbial Ecology

48.

Some bacteria, such as Desulfovibrio, are able to reduce sulfates to hydrogen sulfide as the final step in the electron transport chain. TRUE


ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 26.07 Summarize the main concepts pertaining to biogeochemical cycles. Learning Outcome: 26.10 Indicate the main components of the sulfur and phosphorus cycles. Section: 26.03 Topic: Microbial Ecology

49.

The lithosphere is an area that is without living microorganisms. FALSE ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 26.11 Describe the structure of soil and how it varies in content. Learning Outcome: 26.12 Discuss the activities of microbes in the rhizosphere.

Section: 26.04 Topic: Microbial Ecology Topic: Soil Microbiology

50.

The total amount of water in the hydrologic cycle has decreased over millions of years. FALSE ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 26.14 Recall the main aspects of the hydrologic cycle.

Section: 26.05 Topic: Microbial Ecology Topic: Water Microbiology

51.

In a synergistic relationship, the action of one microbe favorably affects another, but the first microbe receives no benefit. FALSE NURSINGTB.COM

ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.

ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 26.06 Outline several types of ecological associations with examples. Section: 26.02 Topic: Microbial Ecology

52.

A

is a form of consumer that actively seeks out and ingests live prey.

predator ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 26.05 Analyze trophic structures and nutritional relationships of a community. Section: 26.02

Topic: Microbial Ecology

53.

The science called microbial _ studies interactions between microbes and their environment and how those interactions affect the Earth. ecology ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

Learning Outcome: 26.01 Define microbial ecology and describe what it entails. Section: 26.01 Topic: Microbial Ecology

54.

Organisms that inhabit soil or water and break down and absorb the organic matter of dead organisms are called .


decomposers ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 26.04 Describe the flow of energy through an ecosystem. Learning Outcome: 26.05 Analyze trophic structures and nutritional relationships of a community. Section: 26.02

Topic: Microbial Ecology

55.

Carbon dioxide, sulfur dioxide, methane, and nitrous oxide are believed to be disrupt the temperature balance of the Earth.

gases that could

greenhouse ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 26.07 Summarize the main concepts pertaining to biogeochemical cycles. Section: 26.03 Topic: Microbial Ecology

56.

The slowly decaying organic litter from plant and animal tissues that is found in the soil is called

.

humus ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 26.11 Describe the structure of soil and how it varies in content. Learning Outcome: 26.12 Discuss the activities of microbes in the rhizosphere. Section: 26.04

Topic: Soil Microbiology

57.

An

is the term for a deep groundwater source. NURSINGTB.COM

aquifer

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 26.14 Recall the main aspects of the hydrologic cycle.

Section: 26.05 Topic: Water Microbiology

58.

An

is a region where the river meets the sea.

estuary ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems.

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 26.15 Describe the structure of aquatic ecosystems.

59.

is a floating, surface microbial community that drifts with the currents and waves.

Section: 26.05 Topic: Water Microbiology

Plankton ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 26.15 Describe the structure of aquatic ecosystems. Section: 26.05

Topic: Water Microbiology

60.

Nutrient deficient ecosystems are called oligotrophic

.


ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems.

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 26.16 Explain how aquatic environments vary in nutrient content.

Section: 26.05 Topic: Water Microbiology

61.

Finding

in water is a good indication that it has been fecally contaminated.

coliforms ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 26.17 Relate the principles involved in water monitoring. Learning Outcome: 26.18 Summarize the primary methods of assessing the microbiological quality of water. Section: 26.05

Topic: Water Microbiology

62.

Discuss the specific effects caused by the runoff of organic industrial waste into a freshwater stream.

ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 26.15 Describe the structure of aquatic ecosystems. Learning Outcome: 26.16 Explain how aquatic environments vary in nutrient content. Section: 26.05

Topic: Water Microbiology

63.

Discuss and give several examples of the use of microbes in bioremediation. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply NURSILNeaGrnTinBg.C OO utM come: 26.13 Explain how bioremediation relates to soil and water. Section: 26.04 Topic: Microbial Ecology Topic: Soil Microbiology Topic: Water Microbiology

64.

Differentiate between the following terms and provide an example for each: mutualism, communalism, synergism, parasitism. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways.

ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 26.06 Outline several types of ecological associations with examples. Section: 26.02 Topic: Microbial Ecology

65.

Describe the carbon cycle from the atmosphere to the primary producers and back again. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 26.07 Summarize the main concepts pertaining to biogeochemical cycles. Learning Outcome: 26.08 Discuss the primary participants in and activities of the carbon cycle. Section: 26.03

Topic: Microbial Ecology

66.

What is "nitrogen fixation" and how do legumes play a role in this important cycle? ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora).


ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 26.07 Summarize the main concepts pertaining to biogeochemical cycles. Learning Outcome: 26.09 Describe the forms in which nitrogen is found and the contributions of microbes to the nitrogen cycle. Section: 26.03 Topic: Microbial Ecology Topic: Soil Microbiology

67.

Draw an energy pyramid and provide specific examples of each level. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 26.04 Describe the flow of energy through an ecosystem. Learning Outcome: 26.05 Analyze trophic structures and nutritional relationships of a community. Section: 26.02 Topic: Microbial Ecology

68.

Consider a pond on your college campus. All of the organisms that live in the pond, including bacteria, protozoa, algae, plants and animals, represent a/an A. ecosystem. B. population. C. niche. D. community. E. habitat. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.

ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 26.02 Characterize the organization of ecosystems, from the highest to the lowest levels. Section: 26.01

Topic: Microbial Ecology

69. Lichens grow in a variety of habitats including rocks and tree trunks, and exist as a symbiotic association of algae or cyanobacteria and a fungus. The fungus provides anchoring, moisture, and minerals for the algae, and the algae performs photosynthesis providinNgUsRuSgIaNrsGT toBs.C uO stM ain the fungus. The relationship between the fungus and algae is an example of A. commensalism. B. mututalism. C. parasitism. D. microbial antagonism. E. a predator-prey relationship. ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 26.05 Analyze trophic structures and nutritional relationships of a community. Section: 26.02

Topic: Microbial Ecology

70.

Most of the zooplankton and phyoplankton in a lake will be located in the A. benthic zone. B. photic zone. C. produndal zone. D. littoral zone. E. Plankton will be distributed among each of these zones. ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways


Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 26.15 Describe the structure of aquatic ecosystems. Learning Outcome: 26.16 Explain how aquatic environments vary in nutrient content. Section: 26.05

Topic: Water Microbiology

71.

Which of the following are roles played by microbes in aquatic ecosystems? A. producers B. primary consumers C. decomposers D. mineralizers E. All of these choices are correct.

ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fixation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis). ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 26.15 Describe the structure of aquatic ecosystems. Section: 26.05 Topic: Microbial Ecology Topic: Water Microbiology

NURSINGTB.COM


Chapter 26 Testbank Summary Category

# of Questions

ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fix ation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis). ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determi ned by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metaboli c characteristics.

1

ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems.

17

ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in benefi cial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeo chemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora).

58 17

ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products.

3

ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function

1

ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways

5

ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems

71

ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms

38

Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember

30

Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand

28

Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply

13

Learning Outcome: 26.01 Define microbial ecology and describe what it entails. Learning Outcome: 26.02 Characterize the organization N ofUeR coSsIyNsG teT mBs.,CfrO om M the highest to the lowest levels.

2

Learning Outcome: 26.03 Differentiate between habitat and niche, using examples.

4

Learning Outcome: 26.04 Describe the flow of energy through an ecosystem.

11

Learning Outcome: 26.05 Analyze trophic structures and nutritional relationships of a community.

11

1 5 3

37

5

Learning Outcome: 26.06 Outline several types of ecological associations with examples.

4

Learning Outcome: 26.07 Summarize the main concepts pertaining to biogeochemical cycles.

15

Learning Outcome: 26.08 Discuss the primary participants in and activities of the carbon cycle. Learning Outcome: 26.09 Describe the forms in which nitrogen is found and the contributions of microbes to the nitro gen cycle.

6 8

Learning Outcome: 26.10 Indicate the main components of the sulfur and phosphorus cycles.

2

Learning Outcome: 26.11 Describe the structure of soil and how it varies in content.

2

Learning Outcome: 26.12 Discuss the activities of microbes in the rhizosphere.

3

Learning Outcome: 26.13 Explain how bioremediation relates to soil and water.

3

Learning Outcome: 26.14 Recall the main aspects of the hydrologic cycle.

2

Learning Outcome: 26.15 Describe the structure of aquatic ecosystems.

10

Learning Outcome: 26.16 Explain how aquatic environments vary in nutrient content.

6

Learning Outcome: 26.17 Relate the principles involved in water monitoring.

5

Learning Outcome: 26.18 Summarize the primary methods of assessing the microbiological quality of water.

5

Section: 26.01

10

Section: 26.02

17

Section: 26.03

21

Section: 26.04

6

Section: 26.05

19

Topic: Microbial Ecology

53

Topic: Soil Microbiology Topic: Water Microbiology

14 25



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