Table of Contents Chapter 1. An Introduction to the Human Body Chapter 2. The Chemical Level of Organization Chapter 3. The Cellular Level of Organization Chapter 4. The Tissue Level of Organization Chapter 5. Integumentary System Chapter 6. Bone Tissue and the Skeletal System Chapter 7. Axial Skeleton Chapter 8. The Appendicular Skeleton Chapter 9. Joints Chapter 10. Muscle Tissue Chapter 11. The Muscular System Chapter 12. The Nervous System and Nervous Tissue Chapter 13. Anatomy of the Nervous System Chapter 14. The Somatic Nervous System Chapter 15. The Autonomic Nervous System Chapter 16. The Neurological Exam Chapter 17. The Endocrine System Chapter 18. The Cardiovascular System: Blood Chapter 19. The Cardiovascular System: The Heart Chapter 20. The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels and Circulation Chapter 21. The Lymphatic and Immune System Chapter 22. The Respiratory System Chapter 23. The Digestive System Chapter 24. Metabolism and Nutrition Chapter 25. The Urinary System Chapter 26. Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance Chapter 27. The Reproductive System Chapter 28. Development and Inheritance
1. An Introduction to the Human Body 1. is the study of the larger structures of the body, those visible without the aid of magnification
(A) Gross anatomy (B) Microscopic anatomy (C) Macroscopic anatomy (D) Physical anatomy Ans A
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2. The word “anatomy” comes from a Greek root that means “ ............... ’’
(A) To cut apart (B) To fix with (C) To view inside (D) To study exterior Ans A 3.
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Dissection is still used in …………. (A) Medical schools (B) Pathology labs (C) Anatomy courses (D) All of above Ans D
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4. Microscopic anatomy includes ………….
(A) Histology (B) Cytology (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans C
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5 ................ is the study of the structures that make up a discrete body system—that is, a group of structures that work together to perform a unique body function. (A) Regional anatomy (B) Systematic anatomy
(C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans C
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6. Human physiology is the scientific study of the................ of the structures of the body and the ways in which they work together to support the functions of life. (A) Chemistry (B) Physic (C) Both Above (D) None of Above Ans C
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7. Homeostasis is the state of steady --------- maintained by living things. (A) Internal Condition (B) External conditions (C) Both Above (D) None of Above Ans A
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8. An organ is an anatomically distinct structure of the body composed of------------- tissue types. (A) One (B) Two (C) Two or more (D) None of above Ans C
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9. In ----------- organisms, including humans, all cells, tissues, organs, and organ systems of the body work together to maintain the life and health of the organism. (A) Unicellular (B) Bicellular (C) Multicellular (D) None of above
Ans C
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10. The different organ systems each have different functions and therefore -------------roles to perform in physiology. (A) Unique (B) Different (C) Both Above (D) None of Above Ans C
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11. A human body consists of trillions of cells organized in a way that maintains distinct ……….. . (A) Internal compartments (B) External compartments (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans A
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12. The organism level is the ................level of organization (A) Lowest (B) Highest (C) Medium (D) Extreme Ans A
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13. Which of the following mechanism is involved in releasing energy? (A) Catabolism (B) Anabolism (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans C
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14. Every cell in your body makes use of a chemical compound, adenosine triphosphate (ATP), to ………. . (A) Store energy (B) Release energy
(C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans C
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15 ..............is the ability of an organism to adjust to changes in its internal and external environments (A) Responsiveness (B) Movement (C) Locomotion (D) All of above Ans A
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16. Anatomic structures and physiological processes allow runners to coordinate the action of muscle groups and sweat in response to rising internal ……….. . (A) Body temperature (B) Blood pressure (C) Hormone level (D) All of above Ans A
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17 ..............is all of the changes the body goes through in life. (A) Development (B) Growth (C) Reproduction (D) All of above Ans A
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18. Development includes the process of ………. . (A) Differentiation (B) Growth (C) Repair (D) All of above Ans D
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19. Humans have been adapting to life on Earth for at least the past …………. .
(A) 100000 years (B) 200000 years (C) 300000 years (D) 400000 years Ans B
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20. Atmospheric air is only about ................ percent oxygen, but that oxygen is a key component of the chemical reactions that keep the body alive, including the reactions that produce ATP (A) 20 (B) 30 (C) 40 (D) 60 Ans A
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21. Controlled hypothermia often is used, for example, during open-heart surgery because it ................ the metabolic needs of the brain, heart, and other organs, reducing the risk of damage to them. (A) Decreases (B) Increases (C) Remains constant (D) None of above Ans A
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22. In the emergency department, the physician induces coma and lowers the patient’s body temperature to approximately 91 degrees. This condition, which is maintained for 24 hours. the patient’s metabolic rate (A) Slows (B) Enhances (C) Neutralizes (D) None of above Ans A
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23. The pressure of the nitrogen gas in your blood would be much .............. than the pressure of nitrogen in the space surrounding your body (A) Higher
(B) Lower (C) Equal (D) None of above Ans A
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24. Decompression sickness (DCS) is a condition in which gases dissolved in the blood or in other body tissues are no longer dissolved following a reduction in pressure on the body. This condition affects ………. (A) Underwater divers (B) Pilots (C) Mountaineers (D) All of above Ans D
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25. The most common symptom of DCS is ………….. . (A) Pain in the joints (B) Headache (C) Vision disturbances (D) All of above Ans D
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26. The brain triggers the thyroid gland in the endocrine system to release thyroid hormone, which ……… metabolic activity and heat production in cells throughout the body. (A) Increases (B) Decreases (C) Remains constant (D) None of above Ans A
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27. Childbirth and the body’s response to blood loss are two examples of ........................ Loops that are normal but are activated only when needed. (A) Positive feedback (B) Negative feedback (C) Both of above
(D) None of above Ans A
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28 ............ position describes a position in a limb that is nearer to the point of attachment or the trunk of the body (A) Proximal (B) Distal (C) Medial (D) Lateral Ans A
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29. A plane is ...................... surface that passes through the body. (A) Two dimensional (B) Three dimensional (C) Imaginary two dimensional (D) Imaginary three dimensional Ans C
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30. The ............ is the largest cavity in the body (A) Abdominopelvic cavity (B) Thoracic cavity (C) Cranial cavity (D) Spinal cavity Ans A
2. The Chemical Level of Organization
1. Human chemistry includes …….. . (A) Organic molecules (B) Elements (C) Biochemical (D) All of above
Ans D
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2. In glucose, there are always six carbon and six oxygen units for every .............hydrogen units. (A) Three (B) Six (C) Twelve (D) Eighteen Ans C
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3. The percentage of potassium in human body is …………. (A) 0.2 (B) 0.3 (C) 0.4 (D) 0.5 Ans C
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4. Uranium (U), is referred to as a heavy metal and it contains .............. neutrons (A) 238 (B) 92 (C) 146 (D) 240 Ans C
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5. The number of protons and neutrons …………. (A) May be equal for some elements (B) Are equal for all elements (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans A
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6. An isotope is one of the different forms of an element, distinguished from one another by different numbers of …………. . (A) Electrons (B) Protons
(C) Neutrons (D) All of above Ans C
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7. Excessive exposure to radioactive isotopes can cause ………….. . (A) Damage of human cells (B) Birth defects (C) Cancer (D) All of above Ans D
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8. If you take a look at the periodic table of the elements, you will notice that hydrogen and helium are placed alone on either sides of the top row; they are the only elements that have ……….. . (A) One electron shells (B) Two electron shells (C) Three electron shells (D) Four electron shells Ans A
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9. The most common example of.................. in the natural world occurs between molecules of water (A) Ionic bonding (B) Covalent bonding (C) Hydrogen bonding (D) All of above Ans C
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10 ................ is the energy of position, or the energy matter possesses because of the positioning or structure of its components. (A) Kinetic energy (B) Chemical energy (C) Potential energy (D) None of above Ans C
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11. The full spectrum of................. is referred to as the electromagnetic spectrum. (A) Radiant energy (B) Electrical energy (C) Mechanical energy (D) None of above Ans A
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12. An exchange reaction is a chemical reaction in which both synthesis and decomposition occur, chemical bonds are both formed and broken, and chemical energy is ……….. . (A) Absorbed (B) Stored (C) Released (D) All of above Ans D
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13. The most important catalysts in the human body are ……….. . (A) Enzymes (B) Proteins (C) Lipids (D) Carbohydrates Ans A
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14. An inorganic compound is a substance that does not contain …………. (A) Carbon (B) Hydrogen (C) Both of above (D) None of the above Ans C
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15. In the bloodstream of humans, glucose concentration is usually measured in milligram (mg) per deciliter (dL), and in a healthy adult averages about ……… (A) 10 mg/dL (B) 100 mg/d
(C) 1000 mg/dL (D) None of above Ans B
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16. A buffer is a solution of a …………………. (A) Weak acid and its conjugate base (B) Strong acid and its conjugate base (C) Weak base and its conjugate acid (D) Strong base and its conjugate acid Ans A
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16. Which of the following can cause respiratory alkalosis? (A) Lung disease (B) Aspirin overdose (C) Shock (D) All of above Ans D
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17. Which of the following functional groups is involved in dehydration synthesis and hydrolysis reactions? (A) Carboxylic group (B) Hydroxyl group (C) Methyl group (D) Phosphate group Ans B
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18. A triglyceride is one of the most common dietary................. , and the type found most abundantly in body tissues (A) Lipid groups (B) Carbohydrate groups (C) Carbohydrate groups (D) All of above Ans A
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19 ............. are compounds in which the hydrophobic triglycerides are packaged in protein envelopes for transport in body fluids. (A) Glycolipids (B) Fatty acids (C) Lipoproteins (D) All of above Ans C
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20. One reason that the omega-3 fatty acids found in fish are beneficial is that they stimulate the production of certain ......... that help regulate aspects of blood pressure and inflammation, and thereby reduce the risk for heart disease (A) Prostaglandins (B) Sterols (C) Phospholipids (D) All of above Ans A
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21. Proteins include the keratin in the epidermis of skin that protects ……………. (A) Collagen (B) Underlying tissues (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans C
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22. If a particular essential amino acid is not available in sufficient quantities in the amino acid pool, however, synthesis of proteins containing it can ………… . (A) Slow (B) Cease (C) Increase (D) A and B Ans D
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23. In protein shapes, the most common secondary structure is a spiral called ………. (A) An alpha-helix
(B) Beta-pelated sheet (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans C
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24. A nucleotide is one of a class of organic compounds composed of …………. (A) One or more phosphate groups (B) A pentose sugar (C) A nitrogen containing base (D) All of above Ans D
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25. A .............is a nitrogen-containing molecule with a double ring structure, which accommodates several nitrogen atoms. (A) Purine (B) Pyrimidine (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans A
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26. Humans have almost ............... genes in their DNA, locked up in the 46 chromosomes inside the nucleus of each cell (except red blood cells which lose their nuclei during development). (A) 10000 (B) 12000 (C) 20000 (D) 22000 Ans D
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27. The nucleotide adenosine triphosphate (ATP), is composed of ……….. . (A) Ribose sugar (B) An adenine base (C) Three phosphate groups (D) All of above
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Ans D
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28. ATP is classified as a ………………. (A) High energy compound (B) Low energy compound (C) Medium energy compound (D) None of above Ans A
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29. Which of the following bases is found in RNA only? (A) Cytosine (B) Thymine (C) Uracil (D) All of above Ans C
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30. Any given enzyme catalyzes ……………. . (A) One type of reaction (B) Two types of reactions (C) Three types of reactions (D) Multiple type reactions Ans A
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3. The Cellular Level of Organization
1. Primary responsibility of each cell is to contribute to ………. . (A) Homeostasis (B) Reproduction (C) Sustainability (D) Protection Ans A
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2. An amphipathic molecule is one that contains ……….. . (A) Hydrophilic region (B) Hydrophobic region (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans C
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3. The phospholipid bilayer consists of two adjacent sheets of phospholipids, arranged ………. (A) Tail to tail (B) Head to tail (C) Head to head (D) Head to tail Ans A
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4is the movement of substances across the membrane without the expenditure of cellular
energy. (A) Passive transport (B) Active transport (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans A
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5is the movement of particles from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower
concentration (A) Active transport (B) Passive transport (C) Diffusion (D) Concentration gradient Ans C
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6. Facilitated diffusion of substances crossing the cell (plasma) membrane takes place with the help of ……………. . (A) Channel proteins (B) Carrier proteins
(C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans C
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7 ................ brings fluid containing dissolved substances into a cell through membrane vesicles. (A) Endocytosis (B) Phagocytosis (C) Pinocytosis (D) All of above Ans C
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8. Cells of the stomach and pancreas produce and secrete digestive enzymes through ……….. . (A) Endocytosis (B) Exocytosis (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans B
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9. Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a genetic disease well known for its damage to the …….. . (A) Lungs (B) Liver (C) Pancreas (D) All of above Ans D
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10. Which of the following is organelle of the endomembrane system? (A) Endoplasmic reticulum (B) Golgi apparatus (C) Vesicles (D) All of above Ans D
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11. One of the main functions of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum is in the synthesis of ……….. . (A) Lipids
(B) Proteins (C) Carbohydrates (D) All of above Ans A
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12. Which of the following organelles is the “energy transformer” of the cell. (A) Cell membrane (B) Mitochondria (C) Nucleus (D) Endoplasmic reticulum Ans B
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13. Peroxisomes perform a function of ………………. (A) Lipid metabolism (B) Chemical detoxification (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans C
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14. Due to their ........................................ , ROS can set off chain reactions where they remove electrons from other molecules, which then become oxidized and reactive, and do the same to other molecules, causing a chain reaction (A) Characteristic paired electrons (B) Characteristics unpaired electrons (C) Characteristic free radicals (D) All of above Ans A
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15. Which of the following versions of free radical theory is more widely accepted? (A) Aging process itself is a result of oxidative damage (B) Oxidative damage causes age related diseases (C) Both of above (D) None of above
Ans B
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16. The cytoskeleton consists of …………. . (A) Microtubules (B) Microfilaments (C) Intermediate filaments (D) All of above Ans D
17. The .......... is a region of the nucleus that is responsible for manufacturing the RNA necessary for construction of ribosomes. (A) Nucleolus (B) Nuclear envelop (C) Nuclei (D) None of above Ans A
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18. In the step of ............. Of DNA replication, each strand becomes a template along which a new complementary strand is built. (A) Initiation (B) Elongation (C) Termination (D) All of above Ans B
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19. One of the most important classes of proteins is ............... , which help speed up necessary biochemical reactions that take place inside the cell (A) Enzymes (B) Lipoproteins (C) Lysozyme (D) Oligosaccharides Ans A 20.
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Gene expression begins with the process called …………. (A) Transcription
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(B) Initiation (C) Elongation (D) Termination Ans A
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21 is a type of RNA that, together with proteins, composes the structure of the ribosome
(A) rRNA (B) mRNA (C) tRNA (D) all of above Ans A
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22 is the period of the cell cycle during which the cell is not dividing
(A) Interphase (B) Mitosis (C) Cytokinesis (D) None of above Ans A
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23. A ........... is a point in the cell cycle at which the cycle can be signaled to move forward or stopped (A) Checkpoint (B) Cyclin (C) Cyclindependent kinase (D) None of above Ans A
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24. The process of cellular differentiation leads cells to assume their final …………. . (A) Morphology (B) Physiology (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans C
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25. A pluripotent stem cell is one that has the potential to differentiate into any type of human tissue but cannot support the full development of an organism (A) Pluripotent (B) Oligopotent (C) Unipotent (D) None of above Ans A
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26. Breakdown of cells by their own enzymatic action is called ………. . (A) Autolysis (B) Cell cycle (C) Anticodon (D) Autophagy Ans A
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27 ........... is one of the coding regions of an mRNA molecule that remain after splicing (A) Codon (B) Exon (C) Anticodon (D) Chromatin Ans B
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28. G2 phase is the .............. phase of the cell cycle, after the DNA synthesis phase (A) First (B) Second (C) Third (D) Fourth Ans C
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29 is the fluid in the small spaces between cells not contained within blood vessels
(A) Interstitial fluid (B) Intracellular fluid (C) Intron
(D) None of above Ans A
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30 is the diffusion of water molecules down their concentration gradient across a selectively
permeable membrane. (A) Osmosis (B) Mitosis (C) Pinocytosis (D) Phagocytosis Ans A
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4. The Tissue Level of Organization
1. The body contains at least .............. distinct cell types (A) 100 (B) 200 (C) 300 (D) 400 Ans B
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2 ............. , refers to the sheets of cells that cover exterior surfaces of the body, lines internal cavities and passageways, and forms certain glands (A) Epithelial tissues (B) Connective tissues (C) Nervous tissues (D) All of above Ans A
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3. Synovial membranes surround the joints of the ………. (A) Shoulder (B) Elbow (C) Knee
(D) All of above Ans D
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4. Epithelial tissues provide the body’s first line of protection from ................... wear and tear (A) Physical (B) Chemical (C) Biological (D) All of above Ans D
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5. Epithelial tissues are classified according to the ……….. . (A) Shape of the cells (B) Number of the cells (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans C
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6. Squamous cell nuclei tend to be …………. . (A) Flat (B) Horizontal (C) Elliptical (D) All of above Ans D
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7 ............... is a type of epithelium that appears to be stratified but instead consists of a single layer of irregularly shaped and differently sized columnar cells (A) Pseudo stratified epithelium (B) Simple columnar epithelium (C) Goblet cells epithelium (D) None of above Ans A
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8. Which of the following is examples of endocrine glands? (A) Anterior pituitary
(B) Thymus (C) Adrenal cortex (D) All of above Ans D
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9. Breast milk is an example of ………. (A) Endocrine glands (B) Exocrine glands (C) Glandular structures (D) None of above Ans B
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10. Exocrine glands can be classified by their ……….. . (A) Mode of secretion (B) Nature of substances released (C) Structure of the glands (D) All of above Ans D
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11. The process of ................... involves the rupture and destruction of the entire gland cell. (A) Holocrine secretion (B) Apocrine secretion (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans A
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12. Bone and cartilage are examples of .............. that provide structure and strength to the body (A) Dense connective tissues (B) Loose connective tissues (C) Supportive connective tissues (D) None of above Ans C
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13 ............. are fixed cells, which means they remain within the connective tissue
(A) Fibrocytes (B) Adipocytes (C) Mesenchymal cells (D) All of above Ans D
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14. The brown adipocytes store lipids as many droplets, and have ................metabolic activity (A) High (B) Low (C) Moderate (D) None of above Ans A
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15 contains the protein elastin along with lesser amounts of other proteins and glycoproteins
(A) Elastic fiber (B) Collagen fiber (C) Reticular fiber (D) All of above Ans A
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16 is most abundant and it can appear yellow and owes its color to carotene and related
pigments from plant food (A) White adipose tissue (B) Brown adipose tissue (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans A
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17. The dermis of the skin is an example of ……………. (A) Dense irregular connective tissues (B) Dense regular connective tissues (C) Loose irregular connective tissues (D) Loose regular connective tissues
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Ans A
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18. Persons whose jobs and hobbies involve performing the same movements over and over again are often at the greatest risk of …………. (A) Tendinitis (B) Rickets (C) Arthritis (D) All of above Ans A
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19. , is the most common type of cartilage in the body, consists of short and dispersed collagen fibers and contains large amounts of proteoglycans (A) Hyaline cartilage (B) Fibrocartilage (C) Elastic cartilage (D) None of above Ans A
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20. Menisci in the knee joint and the intervertebral discs are examples of ……….. (A) Fibrocartilage (B) Hyaline cartilage (C) Elastic cartilage (D) None of above Ans A
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21. Bone is the ………….. . (A) Hardest connective tissue (B) Highly vascularized tissue (C) Short recovering tissues (D) All of above Ans D
22 ............, are responsible for defending against potentially harmful microorganisms or molecules. (A) Erythrocytes
(B) Leukocytes (C) Platelets (D) All of above Ans D
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23. Which of the following is fluid connective tissues? (A) Blood (B) Lymph (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans C
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24. The contraction of your pupil in bright Light is an example of.................. movement (A) Voluntary (B) Involuntary (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans B
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25 ............... tissue contraction is responsible for involuntary movements in the internal organs (A) Skeletal muscle (B) Smooth muscle (C) Cardiac muscle (D) All of above Ans B
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26. The cell body of a neuron, also called the soma, contains the …………. . (A) Nucleus (B) Mitochondria (C) Golgi bodies (D) A and B Ans D
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27 ............... produce myelin in the central nervous system (brain and spinal cord)
(A) Oligodendrocyte cells (B) Schwann cells (C) Astrocytes (D) All of above Ans A
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28. is programmed cell death, a normal step-by-step process that destroys cells no longer needed
by the body? (A) Inflammation (B) Apoptosis (C) Necrosis (D) None of above Ans B
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29. Which of the following is hallmark of cancer?
(A) Uncontrolled growth (B) Colonization of other organs (C) Invasion into adjacent tissues (D) All of above Ans D
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30 ............. is a star-shaped cell in the central nervous system that regulates ions and uptake and/or breakdown of some neurotransmitters and contributes to the formation of the blood-brain barrier (A) Astrocyte (B) Apical (C) Atrophy (D) Areolar Ans A
5. The Integumentary System
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1. In the adult human body, the skin makes up about .................. of body weight (A) 6 % (B) 16 % (C) 26% (D) 36 % Ans B
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2. Dermal papillae .......... the strength of the connection between the epidermis and dermis (A) Increases (B) Decreases (C) Neutralizes (D) None of above Ans A
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3. The stratum lucidum is a smooth, seemingly translucent layer of the epidermis (A) Stratum lucidum (B) Stratum granulosum (C) Stratum coneum (D) None of above Ans A
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4. The ................... is a layer directly below the dermis and serves to connect the skin to the underlying fascia (fibrous tissue) of the bones and muscles (A) Hypodermis (B) Reticular layer (C) Papillary layer (D) None of above Ans A
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5. Eumelanin exists as...................., whereas pheomelanin provides a red color (A) Black (B) Brown (C) Green
(D) A and B Ans D
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6. Albinism is a genetic disorder that affects (completely or partially) the coloring of ……….. . (A) Skin (B) Hair (C) Eyes (D) All of above Ans D
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7. Which of the following is not accessory structure of the skin? (A) Hair (B) Nails (C) Sweat glands (D) None of above Ans D
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8. The medulla forms the central core of the hair, which is surrounded by the ………. (A) Cortex (B) Cuticle (C) Follicle (D) None of above Ans A
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9. The hair follicle is made of multiple layers of cells that form from basal cells in the …………. (A) Hair matrix (B) Hair root (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans C
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10. The catagen phase of hair growth lasts only ............... , and marks a transition from the hair follicle’s active growth (A) 1 to 2 weeks
(B) 2 to 3 weeks (C) 3 to 4 weeks (D) 4 to 5 weeks Ans B
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11. The nail fold that meets the proximal end of the nail body forms the ..................., also called the eponychium. (A) Nail body (B) Nail tip (C) Nail bed (D) Nail cuticle Ans D
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12 is type of gland that produces a hypotonic sweat for thermoregulation
(A) Eccrine glands (B) Sweat glands (C) Sudoriferous glands (D) None of above Ans A
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13 are a primary component of thermoregulation in humAns And thus help to maintain
homeostasis. (A) Eccrine glands (B) Sweat glands (C) Sudoriferous glands (D) None of above Ans A
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14. A .............is a type of oil gland that is found all over the body and helps to lubricate and waterproof the skin and hair (A) Sebaceous gland (B) Eccrine gland (C) Sweat gland (D) Sudoferous gland
Ans A
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15. The fatty acids of sebum also have antibacterial properties, and prevent water loss from the skin in …………… environments (A) Low humidity (B) High humidity (C) Moderate humidity (D) All of above Ans A
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16. Which of the following danger is associated with tattoo or body piercing? (A) Allergic reactions (B) Skin infections (C) Blood borne diseases (D) All of above Ans D
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17. A person with tattoos should be cautious when having a ……………. (A) MRI (B) CT Scan (C) ECG (D) All of above Ans A
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18. The skin acts as a sense organ because the.................... contain specialized sensory nerve structures that detect touch, surface temperature, and pain (A) Dermis (B) Hypodermis (C) Epidermis (D) All of above Ans D
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19. During strenuous physical activities, such as skiing or running, the dermal blood vessels ................. and sweat secretion increases (A) Dilate
(B) Contract (C) Enlarge (D) None of above Ans A
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20. The epidermal layer of human skin synthesizes .............. when exposed to UV radiation (A) Vitamin B (B) Vitamin C (C) Vitamin D (D) All of above Ans C
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21. The absence of sun exposure can lead to a lack of vitamin D in the body, leading to a condition called ……………. , a painful condition in children where the bones are misshapen due to a lack of calcium, causing bowleggedness (A) Rickets (B) Osteomalacia (C) Hypercalcimia (D) Hypocalcaemia Ans A
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22. In addition to its essential role in bone health, vitamin D is essential for general immunity against ……………. Infections (A) Bacterial (B) Viral (C) Fungal (D) All of above Ans D
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23 ................. Involves the clogging of pores, which can lead to infection and inflammation, and is often seen in adolescents (A) Eczema (B) Acne (C) Impetigo
(D) Scabies Ans B
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24 ............. may be accompanied by swelling of the skin, flaking, and in severe cases, bleeding (A) Eczema (B) Acne (C) Impetigo (D) Scabies Ans A
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25. The sebum, when oxidized by exposure to air, turns …………. (A) Black (B) Red (C) White (D) Blue Ans A
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26. Acne is a result of over-productive sebaceous glands, which leads to ……………. (A) Formation of blackheads (B) Inflammation of skin (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans C
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27. Which of the followings is a popular among patients, hoping to reduce the appearance of skin aging? (A) Botox injection (B) Laser treatment (C) Filler injections (D) All of above Ans D
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28. A burn results when the skin is damaged by ………. . (A) Intense heat (B) Radiation
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(C) Electricity (D) All of above Ans D
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29. A ............ goes deeper and affects both the epidermis and a portion of the dermis (A) A first degree burn (B) A second degree burn (C) A third degree burn (D) A fourth degree burn Ans B
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30. When you wear shoes that do not fit well and are a constant source of abrasion on your toes, you tend to form a ......... at the point of contact (A) Stretch mark (B) Corn (C) Callus (D) All of above Ans D
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6. Bone Tissue and the Skeletal System
1. A well-preserved fossil skeleton can give us a good sense of the .................. of an organism (A) Size (B) Shape (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans C
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2. Which of the following critical function is not related to skeletal system for the human body? (A) Supports the body (B) Facilitates movement (C) Protects external organs
(D) Produces blood cells Ans C
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3 .............. often appear in preteens as the result of poor posture, abnormal growth, or indeterminate causes (A) Spinal curvatures (B) Lateral curvatures (C) Axial curvatures (D) All of above Ans D
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4. Red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets are all produced in the red marrow (A) Red marrow (B) Yellow marrow (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans C
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5. The ............ are found in the carpals of the wrists and the tarsals of the ankles of human skeleton. (A) Short bones (B) Long bones (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans C
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6. A short bone is one that is.............. in shape, being approximately equal in length, width, and thickness. (A) Cubical (B) Hexagonal (C) Rhombohedra (D) None of above Ans D
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7. Which of the following is not an example of flat bones? (A) Cranial
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(B) Scapula (C) Sternum (D) Patellae Ans D
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8. Many facial bones, particularly the ones containing sinuses, are classified as ……………. (A) Sesamoid bones (B) Irregular bones (C) Flat bones (D) None of above Ans D
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9. The ..........is the tubular shaft that runs between the proximal and distal ends of the bone (A) Diaphysis (B) Epiphysis (C) Medullary cavity (D) Compact bone Ans A
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10. The .................. contains blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatic vessels that nourish compact bone (A) Endosteum (B) Periosteum (C) Metaphysis (D) Epiphyseal plate Ans B
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11 ..................... is the attachment points for tendons and ligaments (A) Articulation (B) Projection (C) Hole (D) None of above Ans B
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12. The surface features of bones depend on their …………….
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(A) Function (B) Location (C) Attachment of ligaments and tendons (D) All of above Ans D
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13 ............... maintain the mineral concentration of the matrix via the secretion of enzymes. (A) Osteocytes (B) Osteoblast (C) Lacuna (D) Canaliculus Ans A
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14. Compact bone is dense so that it can withstand .................... , while spongy (cancellous) bone has open spaces and supports shifts in weight distribution. (A) Tensile forces (B) Compressive forces (C) Shear forces (D) All of above Ans B
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15. Paget’s disease usually occurs in adults over age …………. (A) 20 (B) 30 (C) 40 (D) 50 Ans C
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16. Bisphosphonates, drugs that ................ the activity of osteoclasts, are often used in the treatment of Paget’s disease. However, in a (A) Decrease (B) Increase
(C) Maintain (D) None of above Ans A
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17. During fetal development, a framework is laid down that determines where bones will form, which is a flexible, semi-solid matrix produced by chondroblasts and consists of ………. (A) Hydrochloric acid (B) Chondroitin sulphate (C) Collagen fibers (D) All of above Ans D
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18. The reserve zone is the region closest to the epiphyseal end of the plate and contains small chondrocytes within the matrix (A) Reserve zone (B) Reverse zone (C) Central zone (D) Peripheral zone Ans A
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19. The process in which matrix is resorbed on one surface of a bone and deposited on another is known as ……………. . (A) Bone modeling (B) Bone remodeling (C) Bone fracture (D) Bone repair Ans A
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20. Frequent and multiple fractures typically lead to …………. . (A) Bone deformities (B) long stature (C) Bowing of long bones (D) Curvature of the spine Ans A
21 ............. requires surgery to expose the fracture and reset the bone (A) Open reduction (B) Closed reduction (C) Open fracture (D) Closed fracture Ans A
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22. Fractures are classified by their ……………. . (A) Complexity (B) Location (C) Other features (D) All of above Ans D
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23. The disruption of blood flow to the bone results in the ................ of bone cells around the fracture. (A) Injury (B) Death (C) Distortion (D) All of above Ans D
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24. During long space missions, astronauts can lose approximately........................ of their bone mass per month (A) 1 to 2 % (B) 2 to 3 % (C) 4 to 5 % (D) 5 to 6 % Ans A
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25. Numerous, controlled studies have demonstrated that people who exercise regularly have ………. bone density than those who are more sedentary (A) Greater (B) Smaller
(C) Equal (D) None of above Ans A
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26. Which of the following is not a sources of calcium? (A) Nuts (B) Beans (C) Seeds (D) None of above Ans D
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27. Green leafy vegetables are a good source of ……….. . (A) Vitamin C (B) Vitamin D (C) Vitamin K (D) None of above Ans C
28. Calcitriol, the active form of vitamin D, is produced by the kidneys and stimulates the absorption of ……………… from the digestive tract (A) Calcium (B) Phosphate (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans C
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29. The normal level of calcium in the blood is about ………. . (A) 10 mg/dL (B) 15 mg/dL (C) 20 mg/dL (D) 25 mg/dL Ans A
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30. Cells of the parathyroid gland have plasma membrane receptors for ………. .
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(A) Calcium (B) Potassium (C) Phosphorus (D) Nitrogen Ans A
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7. Axial Skeleton
1. The-------- forms the vertical, central axis of the body and includes all bones of the head, neck, chest, and back. (A) Axial skeleton (B) The Appendicular Skeleton (C) Both above (D) None of above Ans A
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2. The------------ includes all bones of the upper and lower limbs, plus the bones that attach each limb to the axial skeleton. (A) Axial skeleton (B) Appendicular skeleton (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans B
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3. There are ----bones in the appendicular skeleton of an adult. (A) 130 (B) 135 (C) 126 (D) 120 Ans C
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4. In the adult, the skull consists of ------- individual bones.
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(A) 25 (B) 27 (C) 20 (D) 22 Ans A
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5. The interior space that is almost completely occupied by the brain is called the ---------- --. (A) Cranial cavity (B) Nasal cavity (C) Facial cavity (D) None of above Ans A
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6. The -------- forms most of the upper lateral side of the skull. (A) Temporal bone (B) Parietal bone (C) Both above (D) None of above Ans B
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7. The -------- forms the lower lateral side of the skull. (A) Parietal bone (B) Temporal bone (C) Both above (D) None of above Ans B
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8. The--------- is a zigzag shaped tunnel that provides passage through the base of the skull for one of the major arteries that supplies the brain. (A) Carotid canal (B) Stylomastoid foramen (C) Mandibular fossa (D) Styli process
Ans A
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9. The--------- is the single bone that forms the forehead. (A) Frontal bone (B) Back bone (C) Side bone (D) None of above Ans A
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10. The occipital bone is the single bone that forms the posterior skull and posterior base of the ------- --. (A) Cranial cavity. (B) Nasal cavity (C) Facial cavity (D) None of above Ans A
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11. The sphenoid bone is a single, complex bone of the central skull. (A) Back (B) Front (C) Side (D) central Ans D
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12. The ethmoid bone is a single, midline bone that forms the roof and lateral walls of the upper ------. (A) Cranial cavity (B) Nasal cavity (C) Facial cavity (D) None of above Ans B
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13. A suture is -------- joint between adjacent bones of the skull. (A) Immobile (B) Mobile
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(C) Both above (D) None of above Ans A
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14. The suture lines seen on the top of the skull are the --------- --. (A) Coronal (B) Sagittal (C) Both above (D) None of above Ans C
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15. Each tooth is anchored into a deep socket called an ------ --. (A) Alveolus (B) Maxilla (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans A
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16. The-------- bone is one of a pair of irregularly shaped bones that contribute small areas to the lateral walls of the nasal cavity and the medial wall of each orbit. (A) Facial (B) Nasal (C) Palatine (D) None of above Ans C
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17. The------- bone is also known as the cheekbone. (A) Lacrimal Bone (B) Nasal bone (C) Zygomatic (D) Mover bone Ans C
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18. The-------- forms the lower jaw and is the only moveable bone of the skull.
(A) Mandible (B) Zygomatic (C) Nasal (D) Gomer Ans A
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19. The nasal septum consists of ---------------- --. (A) Bone (B) Cartilage (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans C
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20. Cranial Fossae consist of--------------- --. (A) Anterior Cranial Fossa (B) Middle Cranial Fossa (C) Posterior Cranial Fossa (D) All of above Ans D
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21. The vertebral arch forms the--------- portion of each vertebra. (A) Interior (B) Posterior (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans B
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22. . A superior articular process extends or faces ----- --. (A) Downward (B) Upward (C) Backward (D) All of above Ans B
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23. The cervical vertebrae are ------- than lumbar vertebrae due to differences in the proportion of body weight that each supports. (A) Smaller (B) Larger (C) Medium (D) None of above Ans A
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24. The bodies of the thoracic vertebrae are larger than--------- --. (A) Lumbar Vertebrae (B) Cervical vertebrae (C) Sacrum (D) Coccyx Ans B
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25. Adjacent vertebrae are united by ............ that run the length of the vertebral column along both its posterior and anterior aspects. (A) Ligaments (B) Fibrous (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans A
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26. The posterior end of a typical rib is called the.............. of the rib. (A) Tail (B) Neck (C) Head (D) None of above Ans C
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27. The bones of the skull arise from mesenchyme during embryonic development in two different ways (A) Three (B) Four
(C) Five (D) Two Ans D
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28. The ribs are classified into three groups based on their relationship to the sternum. (A) Two (B) Four (C) Five (D) Three Ans D
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29. The short two ribs that do not attach to the sternum at all are called ------(A) True ribs (B) False ribs (C) Floating ribs (D) None of above Ans C
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30. During the third week of embryonic development, a rod-like structure called the ----------- develops dorsally along the length of the embryo. (A) Notochord (B) Sclerotize (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans A
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8. The Appendicular Skeleton
1. The scapula (shoulder blade) lies on the posterior aspect of the -------- --. (A) Shoulder (B) Leg (C) Chest
(D) Hip Ans A
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2. The clavicle has ------- regions. (A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five Ans B 3.
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The------- is also part of the pectoral girdle and thus plays an important role in anchoring the upper limb to the body. (A) Scapula (B) Clavicle (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans A
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4. The scapula has------- depressions, each of which is called a fossa (A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five Ans B
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5. The upper limb is divided into---------- regions. (A) Three (B) Four (C) Five (D) Six Ans A
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6. The ------- is the single bone of the upper arm region. (A) Humerus
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(B) Scapula (C) Clavicle (D) None of above Ans A
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7. This ridge forms the interosseous--------------- which, like the similar border of the ulna, is the line of attachment for the interosseous membrane that unites the two forearm bones. (A) Border of the radius (B) Neck of the radius (C) Shaft of the radius (D) None of above Ans 7
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8. The wrist and base of the hand are formed by a series of----------- small carpal bones. (A) Six (B) Seven (C) Eight (D) Nine Ans C
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9. The palm of the hand contains five elongated------------- bones. (A) Metacarpal (B) Ulna (C) Radius (D) Carpal Ans A
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10. The pelvic girdle (hip girdle) is formed by ---------- bone. (A) Double (B) (B)Single (C) (C) Triple (D) None of above
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Ans B
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11. The pubis forms the anterior portion of the ---------bone. (A) Arm (B) Leg (C) Hip (D) Hand Ans C
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12. The ---- forms the posterolateral portion of the hip bone. (A) Ischium (B) Ilium (C) Ulna (D) Radius Ans A
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13. The pelvis consists of ------- bones. (A) Three (B) Four (C) Five (D) Six Ans B
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14. The ---- or thigh bone, is the single bone of the thigh region. (A) Femur (B) Ilium (C) Radius (D) Ulna Ans A
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15. The ---- is largest sesamoid bone of the body. (A) Patella (B) Ulna (C) Femur
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(D) Ilium Ans A
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16. The tibia is the main weight-bearing bone of the lower-------- and the second longest bone of the body, after the femur. (A) Leg (B) Arm (C) Hand (D) Foot Ans A
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17. The fibula is the slender bone located on the lateral side of the ------ --. (A) Leg (B) Arm (C) Hand (D) Hip Ans A
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18. The posterior half of the foot is formed by seven --------- bones. (A) Fibula (B) Tiba (C) Ilium (D) Tarsal Ans D
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19. The toes contain a total of -------- phalanx bones (phalanges), arranged in a similar manner as the phalanges of the fingers. (A) 15 (B) 16 (C) 18 (D) 14 Ans D
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20. A joint between adjacent phalanx bones is called an ----------- joint.
(A) Phalangeal (B) Interphalangeal (C) Both above (D) None of above 21. The longitudinal arches run down the length of the-----. (A) Hand (B) Foot (C) Arm (D) Leg Ans B
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22. Development of the limbs begins near the end of ------------ , with the upper limbs appearing first. (A) Ist embryonic Week (B) 2nd embryonic Week (C) 3rd embryonic week (D) 4th embryonic Week Ans D
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23. During the ------ week of development, the distal ends of the upper and lower limb buds expand and flatten into a paddle shape. (A) Second (B) Third (C) Forth (D) Sixth Ans D
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24. The ectoderm at the end of the limb bud thickens to form a narrow crest called the -----. (A) Apical ectodermal ridge (B) Endo ectodermal ridge (C) Both of above (D) None of above
Ans A
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25. Large bones, such as the----------- , will develop several secondary ossification centers, with an epiphyseal plate associated with each secondary center. (A) Ilum (B) Ulna (C) Femur (D) Fibula Ans C
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26. Each upper limb is divided into three regions and contains a total of-------- bones. (A) 40 (B) 20 (C) 30 (D) 50 Ans C
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27. The base of the hand is formed by -------- carpal bones. (A) Seven (B) Six (C) Five (D) Eight Ans D
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28. The lower limb is divided into three regions. (A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five Ans B
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29. The ---- contains the large tibia on the medial side and the slender fibula on the lateral side. (A) Arm
(B) Leg (C) Hand (D) Foot Ans B
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30. Intramembranous Ossification within the clavicle begins during the fifth week of development and continues until 25 years of age. (A) Fourth (B) Fifth (C) Sixth (D) Third Ans B
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9. Joints
1. A ------ is where the adjacent bones are united by fibrous connective tissue. (A) Fibrous joint (B) synovial joint (C) Ball and socket joint (D) None of above Ans A
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2. All ------- joints are functionally classified as a diarthrosis joints. (A) Fibrous (B) Synovial (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans B
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3. An immobile or ---------- joint is called a synarthrosis. (A) Nearly immobile (B) Nearly mobile
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(C) Hardly mobile (D) None of above Ans A
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4. An amphiarthrosis is a joint that has ............. mobility (A) Limited (B) Un limited (C) Zero (D) None of above Ans A
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5. discs are made of fibrocartilage and thereby structurally form a symphysis type of cartilaginous joint. (A) Intervertebral (B) Vertebral (C) Non vertebral (D) None of above Ans A
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6. A ----- mobile joint is classified as a diarthrosis. (A) Freely (B) Fixed (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans A
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7. A biaxial joint allows for motions within --------- planes. (A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five Ans A 8.
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A joint that allows for the several directions of movement is called a ---------- joint.
(A) Multiaxial (B) Axial (C) Both above (D) None of above Ans A
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9. There are …… types of fibrous joints. (A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five Ans B
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10. All the bones of the skull, except for the mandible, are joined to each other by a fibrous joint called a -- --. (A) Suture (B) Fibrous (C) Axial (D) None of above Ans A
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11. During birth, the fontanelles provide --------- to the skull, allowing the bones to push closer together or to overlap slightly. (A) Flexibility (B) Fixed (C) Both above (D) None of above Ans A
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12. Due to the ---------- of a gomphosis, this type of joint is functionally classified as a synarthrosis. (A) Immobility (B) Mobility (C) Non Mobility
(D) Tranquility Ans A
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13. A synchondrosis is a cartilaginous joint where the bones are ------------ by hyaline cartilage. (A) Joined (B) Broken (C) Exchanged (D) None of above Ans A
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14. The pubic portions of the--------------- hip bones of the pelvis are joined together by fibrocartilage, forming the pubic symphysis. (A) Right and left (B) Above and down (C) Top and below (D) None of above Ans A
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15. Growing layers of cartilage also form synchondroses that join together the --------- , ischium, and pubic portions of the hip bone during childhood and adolescence. (A) Ilium (B) Rectum (C) Languid (D) None of above Ans A
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16. A ------ joint where the bones are joined by fibrocartilage is called a symphysis (A) Cartilaginous (B) Synovial (C) Both above (D) None of above Ans A
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17. Outside of their articulating surfaces, the bones are connected together by------------ which are strong bands of fibrous connective tissue.
(A) Ligaments (B) Fluids (C) Bones (D) Muscles Ans A
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18. An extrinsic ligament is located ----------- of the articular capsule. (A) Outside (B) Inside (C) Below (D) Above Ans A
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19. A ------ bursa is located between the skin and an underlying bone. (A) Subcutaneous (B) Muscular (C) Intervenes (D) None of above Ans A
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20. A tendon sheath is ---------- in structure to a bursa, but smaller. (A) Similar (B) Differ (C) Longer (D) Shorter Ans A
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21. In a ------- the convex end of one bone articulates with the concave end of the adjoining bone. (A) Hinge joint (B) Condyloid joint (C) Saddle joint (D) None of above 22. The joint with the greatest range of motion is called the ---------- --.
(A) Ball and socket joint (B) Hinge joint (C) Saddle joint (D) Condyloid joint Ans A
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23. Lateral flexion is the --------- of the neck or body toward the right or left side. (A) Blending (B) Fixing (C) Connecting (D) None of above Ans A
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24. is the movement of a body region in a circular manner, in which one end of the body region being moved stays relatively stationary while the other end describes a circle. (A) Friction (B) Abduction and adduction (C) Supination (D) Circumduction Ans D
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25. are complex movements that involve the multiple plane joints among the tarsal bones of the posterior foot (intertarsal joints) and thus are not motions that take place at the ankle joint. (A) Dorsiflexion and Plantar Flexion (B) Protraction and Retraction (C) Depression and Elevation (D) Inversion and Eversion Ans D
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26. The ........... is the joint that allows for opening (mandibular depression) and closing of the mouth. (A) Temporomandibular Joint (B) Glen humeral joint (C) Both above
(D) None of above Ans A
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27. The glenohumeral (shoulder) joint is a ------------------- --. (A) saddle joint (B) Candyloid joint (C) Hinge joint (D) Ball- and –socket joint Ans D
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28. The elbow joint is a uniaxial-------------. (A) Candyloid joint (B) Saddle joint (C) Ball and socket joint (D) Hinge joint Ans A
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29. The hip joint is a multiaxial ------------(A) Ball and socket joint (B) Saddle joint (C) Hinge joint (D) Candyloid joint Ans A
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30. The knee joint is the ---------- of the body. (A) Largest joint (B) Smallest joint (C) Medium joint (D) None of above. Ans A
10. Muscle Tissue
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1. A muscle can return to its original length when relaxed due to a quality of muscle tissue called ………. . (A) Elasticity (B) Plasticity (C) Contractility (D) None of above Ans A
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2 ............ fibers each have one to two nuclei and are physically and electrically connected to each other so that the entire heart contracts as one unit (A) Cardiac muscle (B) Skeletal muscle (C) Smooth muscle (D) None of above Ans A
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3. Skeletal muscles allow functions of................. , to be under voluntary control (A) Swallowing (B) Urination (C) Defecation (D) All of above Ans D
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4. Inside each skeletal muscle, muscle fibers are organized into individual bundles, each called a fascicle, by a middle layer of connective tissue called the ………. (A) Perimysium (B) Endomysium (C) Mysia (D) None of above Ans A
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5. Skeletal muscle fibers can be quite large for human cells, with diameters up to 100 μm and lengths up to ………. . (A) 30 cm (B) 40 cm
(C) 50 cm (D) 60 cm Ans A
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6. The plasma membrane of muscle fibers is called the ……….. . (A) Sarcolemma (B) Sarcoplasm (C) Sarcoplasmic reticulum (D) None of above Ans A
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7. The striated appearance of skeletal muscle fibers is due to the arrangement of the myofilaments of …………… in sequential order from one end of the muscle fiber to the other (A) Actin (B) Myosin (C) Troponin (D) A and B Ans D
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8. The motor neurons that tell the skeletal muscle fibers to contract originate in the spinal cord, with a smaller number located in the brainstem for activation of skeletal muscles of the ……….. . (A) Face (B) Head (C) Neck (D) All of above Ans D
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9. Muscle contraction usually stops when signaling from the motor neuron .................. , which repolarizes the sarcolemma and T tubules, and closes the voltage-gated calcium channels in the SR (A) Initiates (B) Ends (C) Maintains (D) none of above Ans B
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10. Glycolysis is an ................. that breaks down glucose (sugar) to produce ATP (A) Anaerobic process (B) Aerobic process (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans A
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11 .................. is the breakdown of glucose or other nutrients in the presence of oxygen (O2) to produce carbon dioxide, water, and ATP (A) Aerobic respiration (B) Anaerobic respiration (C) Glycolysis (D) Assimilation Ans A
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12. Muscle fatigue occurs when a muscle can no longer ................in response to signals from the nervous system (A) Contract (B) Relax (C) Elongate (D) Shorten Ans A
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13. The inputs for aerobic respiration include …………….. . (A) Glucose circulating in the bloodstream (B) Pyruvic acid (C) Fatty acids (D) All of above Ans D
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14. DMD is an inherited disorder caused by an abnormal …………. (A) X chromosome (B) Y chromosome
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(C) X and Y chromosome (D) None of above Ans A
Diff Medium
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15. A ................. Involves the muscle shortening to move a load. (A) Concentric contraction (B) Eccentric contraction (C) Isometric contraction (D) All of above Ans D
Diff Easy
Page 421
16. Neural control regulates ............................Contractions (A) Concentric (B) Isometric (C) Eccentric (D) All of above Ans D
Diff Medium
Page 422
17. The ideal length of a sarcomere to produce maximal tension occurs at.................... of its resting length, with 100 percent being the state where the medial edges of the thin filaments are just at the mostmedial myosin heads of the thick filaments (A) 80 to 120 % (B) 90 to 110 % (C) 100 to 120 % (D) 120 to 140 % Ans A
Diff Medium
Page 423
18. The rate at which a motor neuron fires action potentials affects the tension produced in the skeletal muscle. (A) Skeletal muscles (B) Nerve muscles (C) Smooth muscles (D) None of above Ans A
Diff Hard
Page 425
19. The absence of the low-level contractions that lead to muscle tone is referred to as ………. (A) Hypotonia (B) Hypertonia (C) Antonia (D) None of above Ans A
Diff Medium
Page 426
20. Glycolytic fibers primarily create ATP through anaerobic glycolysis, which produces ................ ATP per cycle (A) Less (B) More (C) Equal (D) Abundant Ans A
Diff Easy
P age 427
21. Structural proteins are added to muscle fibers in a process called ………. (A) Hypertrophy (B) Atrophy (C) Sarcopenia (D) None of above Ans A
Diff Medium
Page 428
22. Long-distance runners have a ............. number of SO fibers (A) Large (B) Small (C) Few (D) More Ans A
Diff Medium
Page 428
23. Cellular damage to muscle fibers that occurs after intense exercise includes damage to the ………. . (A) Sarcolemma (B) Myofibrils (C) Both of above
(D) None of above Ans C
Diff Hard
Page 429
Diff Medium
Page 430
24. Anabolic steroid use has been linked to ………. (A) Infertility (B) Aggressive behavior (C) Brain cancer (D) All of above Ans D
25. Smooth muscle (so-named because the cells do not have striations) is present in the walls of ………. . (A) Bladder (B) Uterus (C) Stomach (D) All of above Ans D
Diff Hard
Page 432
26. A dense body is analogous to the Z-discs of ...................... and is fastened to the sarcolemma. (A) Skeletal muscle fibers (B) Cardiac muscle fibers (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans C
Diff Medium
Page 434
27. Smooth muscle tissue can regenerate from a type of stem cell called a pericyte, which is found in some ............ blood vessels. (A) Small (B) Large (C) Wavy (D) Irregular Ans A
Diff Easy
Page 436
28 means to reduce the voltage difference between the inside and outside of a cell ’s plasma
membrane (the sarcolemma for a muscle fiber), making the inside less negative than at rest
(A) Depolarize (B) Demagnetize (C) Devolatilize (D) None of above Ans A
Diff Medium
Page 437
29 is the cytoplasm of muscle cell
(A) Sarcolemma (B) Sarcoplasm (C) Sarcopenia (D) Sarcomere Ans C
Diff Hard
Page 439
Diff Medium
Page 440
30 is the fusion of contractions to produce a continuous contraction
(A) Tetanus (B) Rickets (C) Muscle tone (D) Muscle fatigue Ans A
11. The Muscular System
1. The muscular system allows us to................ our body. (A) Move (B) Flex (C) Contort (D) All of above Ans D
Diff Easy
Page 445
2. The moveable end of the muscle that attaches to the bone being pulled is called the muscle’s …….. . (A) Insertion (B) Origin
(C) Flexion (D) All of above Ans D
Diff Easy
Page 446
3. Although a number of muscles may be involved in an action, the principal muscle involved is called the …………. (A) Prime mover (B) Agonist (C) Antagonist (D) A and B Ans D
Diff Easy
Page 446
4. A muscle with the opposite action of the prime mover is called ………. . (A) Agonist (B) Antagonist (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans B
Diff Easy
Page 446
5. There also are skeletal muscles in the ................that allow for voluntary regulation of urination and defecation, respectively. (A) Tongue (B) External urinary (C) Sphincters (D) All of above Ans D
Diff Medium
Page 447
6. A pulled tendon, regardless of location, results in ………. (A) Pain (B) Swelling (C) Diminished function (D) All of above Ans D
Diff Medium
Page 447
7. Synovial fluid is a ................ film with the consistency of egg whites (A) Thin and viscous (B) Thick and viscous (C) Thin and non-viscous (D) Think and non-viscous (E) A
Diff Medium
Page 447
8. Parallel muscles have fascicles that are arranged in the .............. direction as the long axis of the muscle (A) Same (B) Different (C) Unique (D) None of above Ans A
Diff Medium
Page 448
9. The deltoid is a large, triangular-shaped muscle that covers the …………. (A) Shoulder (B) Neck (C) Mouth (D) Elbow Ans A
Diff Medium
Page 448
10. The large muscle on the chest, the pectoralis major, is an example of a ............... muscle (A) Convergent (B) Divergent (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans A
Diff Medium
Page 448
11 ............. is the study of how the root of a particular word entered a language and how the use of the word evolved over time (A) Etymology (B) Glossary (C) Bibliography
(D) Nomenclature Ans A
Diff Medium
Page 450
12. Flexor muscles ...... the angle at the joint (A) Increase (B) Decrease (C) Increase and decrease (D) Neither increase nor decrease Ans B
Diff Medium
Page 453
13. The physicians originally studying human anatomy thought the skull looked like ………. (A) Apple (B) Pomegranate (C) Banana (D) Orange Ans A
Diff Easy
Page 454
14. The .............originates on the mandible and allows the tongue to move downward and forward (A) Genioglossus (B) Styloglossus (C) Palatoglossus (D) None of above Ans A
Diff Medium
Page 459
15. The suprahyoid muscles raise the.................. during deglutition (A) Hyoid bone (B) Floor of the mouth (C) Larynx (D) All of above Ans D
Diff Medium
Page 460
16. The head, attached to the top of the vertebral column, is ...............by the neck muscles (A) Balanced (B) Moved
(C) Rotated (D) All of above Ans D
Diff Easy
Page 461
17. Place your fingers on both sides of the neck and turn your head to the left and to the right. You will feel the movement originates there. This muscle divides the neck into ……. triangles when viewed from the side (A) Anterior (B) Posterior (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans C
Diff Medium
Page 461
18. The muscles of the .................extend, flex, and stabilize different parts of the body’s trunk (A) Vertebral column (B) Thorax (C) Abdominal wall (D) All of above Ans D
Diff Easy
Page 464
19. If you injured your shoulder while you were kayaking, the first thing a physical therapist would do during your first visit is to assess the functionality of the ………. . (A) Joint (B) Bones (C) Muscles (D) All of above Ans A
Diff Hard
Page 467
20. When you inhale, your chest rises because the cavity …….. . (A) Increases in size (B) Decreases in size (C) Remains still (D) Moves a little Ans A
Diff Hard
Page 467
21. The principal role of the intercostal muscles is to assist in ............... by changing the dimensions of the rib cage (A) Breathing (B) Coughing (C) Sitting (D) Exercising Ans A
Diff Hard
Page 468
22. The ....... is the diamond-shaped space between the pubic symphysis (anteriorly), the coccyx (posteriorly), and the ischial tuberosities (laterally), lying just inferior to the pelvic diaphragm (A) Perineum (B) Lavatory (C) Coccyges (D) All of above Ans A
Diff Hard
Page 470
23. The forearm flexors include the ………. (A) Bicep brachii (B) Brachialis (C) Brachioradialis (D) All of the above Ans D
Diff Medium
Page 475
24. The ..........is the origin of the intrinsic muscles of the hand. (A) Palm (B) Forearm (C) Wrist (D) Fingers Ans A
Diff Medium
Page 478
25. The large and powerful muscles of the hip that move the femur generally originate on the …………. . (A) Pelvic girdle (B) Femur
(C) Bones of knee joint (D) All of above Ans A
Diff Hard
Page 483
26. The most superficial and visible muscle of the calf is the …………. (A) Gastrocnemius (B) Plantaris (C) Soleus (D) None of above Ans A
Diff Hard
Page 489
27. The movement of the eyeball is under the control of the extrinsic eye muscles, which originate ………… the eye (A) Outside (B) Inside (C) Middle (D) None of above Ans A
Diff Medium
Page 455
28. In anatomical terminology, chewing is called ………. . (A) Mastication (B) Masseter (C) Swallowing (D) All of above Ans A
Diff Medium
Page 457
Diff Easy
Page 458
29. Tongue is important for ………. . (A) Mastication (B) Deglutition (C) Speech (D) All of above Ans D
30. The superficial and deep muscles of the neck are responsible for …….. .
(A) Moving the head (B) Cervical vertebrae (C) Scapulas (D) All of above Ans D
Diff Medium
12. The Nervous System and Nervous Tissue
1.
The extension of nervous tissue towards the vertebral column:
(A) Brain (B) Spinal cord (C) Vertebrae (D) Hypothalamus
Ans B
Diff Easy Page 504
2. The fiber that connects the neuron with its target.
(A) Soma (B) Dendrite (C) Axon (D) White matter
Ans C
3.
Diff Medium
Page 505
A cluster of neuron cell bodies is referred to:
(A) Ganglion
Page 461
(B) Nerve (C) Tract (D) Nucleus
Ans A
Diff Medium
Page 506
4. Bundle of axons in PNS is called tract.
(A) True (B) False
Ans B Diff Hard
Page 508
5. Integration is :
(A) Receiving of the information from the environment to gain input (B) Response produced on the basis of received stimuli (C) Stimuli that are received by sensory structures are communicated to the nervous system where that information is processed (D) None of them
Ans C Diff Hard
Page 508
6. Withdrawing a hand from hot stove is an example of:
(A) Response (B) Stimulus (C) Integration (D) Chemical stimuli
Ans A Diff Medium
Page 508
7. Voluntary motor responses are taken controlled by:
(A) Enteric nervous system (B) Somatic nervous system (C) Both a & b (D) Autonomic nervous system
Ans B Diff Medium
Page 509
8. Sensory stimuli is processed by:
(A) Nerves (B) Spinal cord (C) Ganglia (D) Brain
Ans D
9.
Diff Hard
Page 509
The function of neurons:
(A) Regulation of oxygen to brain (B) Regulation of hemostatic mechanism (C) Computation and communication (D) Blood supply to brain
Ans C
Diff Medium
Page 512
10. The gap in the myelin that covers axon is termed as:
(A) Axon segment (B) Axon terminal (C) Nodes of Ranvier (D) Initial segment
Ans C
Diff Medium
Page 513
11. Axon terminal is:
(A) Axon terminal (B) Synaptic end bulb (C) Initial segment (D) Axoplasm
Ans A
Diff Easy
Page 513
12. The cell bodies of unipolar neurons are always found in:
(A) Retina (B) Olfactory epithelium (C) Ganglia (D) All of them
Ans C
Diff Hard
Page 514
13. The function of Schwann cell include:
(A) Support (B) Insulation (C) Creating CSF (D) Phagocytosis
Ans B
Diff Medium
Page 515
14. Which statement is correct about blood brain barrier?
(A) A physiological barrier that keeps many substances that circulate in the rest of the body from getting into the central nervous system (B) A physiological membrane that allow substances that to pass towards the central nervous system (C) Glucose can’t pass through blood brain barrier (D) Amino acids can’t pass through blood brain barrier
Ans A Diff Hard
Page 516
15. The ependymal cell is a glial cell that filters blood to make:
(A) Ventricles (B) Microglia (C) CSF (D) Choroid plexus
Ans C
Diff Medium
Page 516
16. The cell that insulate axon with myelin in the periphery:
(A) Glial cell of the PNS (B) Schwann cells (C) Satellite cell (D) Both a & b
Ans D Diff Hard
Page 517
17. Myelin contains a large amount of:
(A) Carbohydrates (B) Lipids (C) Proteins (D) Minerals
Ans B Diff Easy
Page 517
18. The diameter of axon:
(A) 1-10 micrometers (B) 1-15 micrometers (C) 1-20 micrometers (D) 1-25 micrometers
Ans C Diff Medium
Page 519
19. The travelling of the action potential from axon hillock to axon terminal:
(A) Graded potential (B) Propagation (C) Threshold (D) Neurotransmission
Ans B
Diff Medium
Page 521
20. The neurotransmitter diffuses across the short distance of the synapse and binds to a receptor protein of the target neuron.
(A) True (B) False
Ans A Diff Medium
Page 522
21. The neuron causing muscle fibers to contract:
(A) Upper motor neuron (B) Lower motor neuron (C) Both a & b (D) None of them
Ans B Diff Easy
Page 522
22. Cell membrane is charged by:
(A) Ions (B) Charged particles (C) Both a & b
(D) None of them
Ans C
Diff Easy
Page 523
23. The sodium-potassium pump requires energy in the form of:
(A) ATP (B) ADP (C) FAD (D) FADH
Ans A Diff Medium
Page 524
24. Channels for cations will have negatively charged side chains in the pore whereas channels for anions will have positively charged side chains in the pore.
(A) Size exclusion (B) Electrochemical exclusion (C) Both a & b (D) Ligand gated channels
Ans B
Diff Medium
Page 524
25. A mechanically gated channel opens because of the:
(A) Changes in electrical membrane (B) Physical distortion of the cell membrane (C) Signaling molecule (D) Randomly gated
Ans B
Diff Hard
Page 525
26. The channel which opens and closes at random.
(A) Mechanically gated channel (B) Voltage gated channel (C) Ligand gated channel (D) Leakage channel
Ans D Diff Medium
Page 526
27. The potential distribution of charge across the cell membrane is measured by:
(A) Ampere (B) Volts (C) Mili volts (D) Megavolts
Ans C
Diff Easy
Page 526
28. The voltage gated channel are specific for:
(A) Potassium (B) Sodium (C) Both a & b (D) Non-specific
Ans A
Diff Medium
Page 528
29. Re-polarization is:
(A) Membrane potential begins to move towards motive forces (B) Sodium cation entering the cell decreasing negative charges (C) Both a & b (D) Membrane potential begins to move back towards its resting potential
Ans D
Diff Easy Page 528
30. A direct connection between two cells so that ion passes directly from one cell to another.
(A) Electrical synapse (B) Chemical synapse (C) Both a & b (D) None of them
Ans A
Diff Medium
Page 534
31. Nicotine will bind to:
(A) Muscarinic receptor (B) Chlorgenic receptor (C) Nicotinic receptor (D) None of them
Ans C
Diff Easy Page 535
32. The number of amino acids in beta endorphin:
(A) 30 (B) 31 (C) 32 (D) 33
Ans B Diff Easy
Page 535
13. ANATOMY OF THE NERVOUS SYSTEM
1. A visible line along the dorsal surface of the embryo.
(A) Neural plate (B) Neural groove (C) Neural fold (D) Neural tube
Ans B Diff Easy Page 550
2. Clusters of cells which runs lateral to the neural tube:
(A) Neural crest (B) Neural tube (C) Neural fold (D) Neural groove
Ans A
Diff Easy
Page 550
3. The structures that come from the mesencephalon and rhombencephalon except for the cerebellum are collectively considered the:
(A) Primary vesicles (B) Secondary vesicles (C) Brain stem (D) Metancephalon
Ans C
Diff Hard
Page 551
4. While the brain is developing from the anterior neural tube, spinal cord is developing via same route.
(A) True (B) False
Ans B
Diff Medium
Page 552
5. The curve between brain stem and forebrain is called:
(A) Neural flex (B) Cephalic flex (C) Cephalic flexure (D) Neural flexure
Ans C
Diff Easy
6. The brain stem include:
Page 553
(A) Mid brain (B) Pons (C) Medulla (D) All of them
Ans D Diff Medium Page 553
7. The wrinkled portion of the brain:
(A) Cerebral cortex (B) Cerebrum (C) Cerebral hemisphere (D) Corpus coliseum
Ans B
Diff Hard
Page 557
8. The separation between two sides of cerebrum:
(A) Longitudinal fissure (B) Cerebral hemisphere (C) Cerebral cortex (D) Corpus coliseum
Ans A Diff Medium
Page 557
9. Which of the following is involved in structure, behavior and emotion:
(A) Basal forebrain (B) Basal nuclei
(C) Limbic cortex (D) Limbic system
Ans D
Diff Hard
Page 557
10. The groove between two gyri:
(A) Gyros (B) Sulcus (C) Both a & b (D) None of them
Ans B
Diff Easy
Page 558
11. Occipital lobe is the:
(A) Separating temporal lobe from other regions (B) Separating lobe from central sulcus (C) Anterior region of the cortex (D) Posterior region of the cortex
Ans D Diff Medium
Page 558
12. The area that is responsible for thinking of movements:
(A) Pre motor area (B) Prefrontal lobe (C) Boca’s area (D) Frontal eye fields
Ans A Diff Hard
Page 559
13. The area that is responsible for production of language:
(A) Pre-motor area (B) Frontal eye field (C) Boca’s area (D) Prefrontal lobe
Ans C Diff Hard
Page 559
14. The structure of the basal nuclei that control movements:
(A) Caudate (B) Putamen (C) Globus pallidus (D) All of them
Ans D Diff Easy Page 559
15. The direct pathway is the projection of axons from the striatum to the globus pallidus internal segment and the substantia nigra pars reticulate.
(A) True (B) False
Ans A Diff Medium
Page 560
16. The region of the adult brain that retains its name from embryologic development:
(A) Epithalamus (B) Subthalamus (C) Thalamus (D) Diencephalon
Ans D Diff Medium Page 562
17. The sensation which is not translated by thalamus:
(A) Hearing (B) Smell (C) Touch (D) Taste
Ans B
Diff Easy
Page 563
18. The main connection with cerebellum:
(A) Pons (B) Medulla (C) Cerebrum (D) None of them
Ans A Diff Medium
Page 563
19. The white matter attached to the cerebellum:
(A) Hypothalamus (B) Pons (C) Medulla (D) Tectum
Ans B Diff Medium
Page 563
20. The cerebellum accounts of the brain mass:
(A) 10% (B) 20% (C) 30% (D) 40%
Ans A Diff Easy Page 565
21. The anterior horn is responsible for:
(A) Sensory processing (B) Found in thoracic, upper lumbar (C) Send out motor signal to skeletal muscle (D) Sound out sensory signal to skeletal muscle
Ans C Diff Medium Page 566
22. Motor demands of the brain are carried by:
(A) Ascending tracts (B) Descending tract
(C) Anterior column (D) Posterior column
Ans B Diff Easy
Page 567
23. The orthostatic reflex is a reaction to this change in body position so that blood pressure is maintained against the increasing effect of gravity.
(A) True (B) False
Ans A Diff Easy Page 569
24. A confluence of arteries that can maintain perfusion of the brain even if narrowing or a blockage limits flow through one part.
(A) Foramen magnum (B) Anterior spinal artery (C) Basilar artery (D) Circles of willis`
Ans D Diff Medium
Page 570
25. The sinus that runs in grooves of the longitudinal fissure where it absorbs CSF from the meninges:
(A) Dural sinuses (B) Superior sagittal sinus (C) Sigmoid sinuses
(D) Jugular veins
Ans B Diff Moderate
Page 571
26. Which of the following is correct about dura matter?
(A) thick fibrous layer and a strong protective sheath over the entire brain and spinal cord (B) a membrane of thin fibrous tissue that forms a loose sac around the CNS (C) a thin fibrous membrane that follows the convolutions of gyri and sulci in the cerebral cortex and fits into other groove and intentions (D) All of them
Ans A
Diff Hard
Page 572
27. The subarachnoid space is filled with stationary CSF.
(A) True (B) False
Ans B Diff Medium
Page 572
28. The open surface within the brain where CSF circulates:
(A) Pia mater (B) Arachnoid mater (C) Dura mater (D) Ventricles
Ans D
Diff Medium
Page 573
29. The space bounded by medial walls of hypothalamus and thalamus:
(A) First ventricle (B) Second ventricle (C) Third ventricle (D) Fourth ventricle
Ans C Diff Medium
Page 574
30. The extensive network of axons and neurons present in the wall of small intestine.
(A) Enteric plexus (B) Esophageal plexus (C) Gastric plexus (D) Choroid plexus
Ans A
Diff Medium
Page 579
31. The nerve contributing to the homeostatic control of the organ:
(A) Optic nerve (B) Olfactory nerve (C) Facial nerve (D) Vagus nerve
Ans D
Diff Hard
Page 582
14. The Somatic Nervous System
1. The cells in the retina that respond to light stimuli are an example of a chemoreceptor.
(A) True (B) False
Ans B Diff Easy
Page 601
2. Somato-sensory receptors are located to the:
(A) Organ and tissues (B) Skin (C) Moving parts of the body (D) All of them
Ans B Diff Easy Page 601
3. The receptors that respond to the solute concentration of the body fluids.
(A) Chemoreceptors (B) Mechanoreceptors (C) Nociceptor (D) Osmoreceptors
Ans D Diff Medium Page 601
4. The receptors that can be a possible example of general sense:
(A) Mechanoreceptors
(B) Chemoreceptors (C) Nociceptors (D) Osmoreceptors
Ans A Diff Easy Page 602
5. Gustation is:
(A) Sense of smell (B) Sense of taste (C) Sense of hearing (D) All of them
Ans B Diff Easy Page 602
6. Sour taste is the perception of:
(A) Sodium (B) Chloride (C) Nitrogen (D) Hydrogen
Ans D Diff Medium
Page 603
7. Which of the following food item is a source of alkaloid?
(A) Coffee (B) Hops (C) Tea
(D) All of them
Ans D Diff Medium
Page 604
8. The sensory modality that does not synapse in thalamus before connecting to cerebral cortex.
(A) Taste (B) Smell (C) Hearing (D) All of them
Ans B
Diff Hard
Page 605
9. The large fleshy structure on lateral aspect of the head:
(A) Tympanic membrane (B) Incus (C) Auricle (D) Stapes
Ans C Diff Medium Page 606
10. Sound is transduced into neural signals within the cochlear region of the inner ear which contains the sensory neurons of the:
(A) Vestibule (B) Scala tympani (C) Round window (D) Spiral ganglia
Ans D
Diff Hard
Page 607
11. Scala vestibule:
(A) the central cavity of the cochlea that contains the sound transducing neurons (B) a membrane that contains the fluid within the scala (C) oval window located at the beginning of a fluid filled tube within the cochlea (D) both b & c
Ans C Diff Medium
Page 607
12. Choose the correct statement:
(A) Organs of Corti tranduce the wave motion of the two scala into neural signals (B) The organs of Corti lie on top of the basilar membrane (C) Higher frequency waves move the region of the basilar membrane that is close to the base of the cochlea (D) All of them
Ans D
Diff Hard
Page 608
13. The range of the human sound:
(A) 10-10000hz (B) 20-20000hz (C) 30-30000hz (D) 40-40000hz
Ans B Diff Medium
Page 610
14. The position of head is sensed by:
(A) Macula (B) Uricle (C) Sacule (D) Both b & c
Ans D Diff Medium Page 612
15. The active molecule in hot peppers:
(A) Capsaicin (B) Papain (C) Malic acid (D) Sucarse
Ans A
Diff Hard
Page 613
16. The thin membrane in the inner surface of the lid:
(A) Palpebral conjunctiva (B) Lacrimal gland (C) Lacrimal duct (D) Lacteral rectus
Ans A Diff Moderate
Page 615
17. The muscle that originate at posterior orbit near the origin of four rectus muscle
(A) Superior rectus (B) Medial rectus (C) Superior oblique (D) Inferior oblique
Ans C Diff Medium Page 615
18. The no of layers of tissues in eyes:
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
Ans B Diff Easy Page 616
19. The watery fluid that fills the anterior cavity of the eye:
(A) Aqueous humor (B) Vitreous humor (C) Vascular tunic (D) All of them
Ans A Diff Easy Page 616
20. A bright blue light has a wavelength of:
(A) 400nm (B) 450nm (C) 500nm (D) 550nm
Ans B Diff Easy Page 620
21. The nucleus gracilis is:
(A) the target of fibers in the fasciculus gracilis (B) the target of fibers in the fasciculus cuneatus (C) neurons in a dorsal root ganglion (D)
none of them
Ans A Diff Hard
Page 622
22. The information of Pain and sensation is received by:
(A) Solitary nucleus (B) Ventral posterior nucleus (C) Chief sensory nucleus (D) Spinal trigeminal nucleus
Ans D Diff Medium
Page 623
23. The axons of the visual system are referred to as the optic tract.
(A) True (B) False
Ans A Diff Easy Page 627
24. The stream that locates objects in space and helps in guiding movements of the body in response to visual inputs
(A) Ventral stream (B) Dorsal stream (C) Both a & b (D) None of them
Ans B Diff Medium
Page 633
25. Muscles of the body is controlled by:
(A) Lumbar system (B) Cervical systems (C)
Posterior corticospinal tract (D) Anterior corticospinal tract
Ans D Diff Moderate Page 639
26. The tract that connects the brainstem nuclei of the vestibular system with the spinal cord:
(A) Tectospinal tract (B) Reticulospinal tract (C) Vestibulospinal tract (D) All of them
Ans C
Diff Medium
Page 639
27. When the cornea is stimulated by a tactile stimulus, or even by bright light in a related reflex blinking is initiated. This is:
(A) Corneal reflex (B) Stretch reflex (C) Both a & b (D) None of them
Ans A Diff Easy Page 641
28. The reticulospinal tract connects the reticular system in the brain stem with the spinal cord.
(A) True (B) False
Ans A Diff Medium
Page 539
29. Upon entering the medulla the tracts make up the large white matter tract referred to:
(A) Axon (B) Dendrites (C) Pyramids (D) Capsules
Ans C
Diff Medium
30. The red nucleus is named with:
Page 637
(A) Emerald (B) Ruby (C) Sapphire (D) Gemstone
Ans B
Diff Easy Page 640
15. The Autonomic Nervous System
1. A central neuron in the lateral horn of any of these spinal regions projects to ganglia adjacent to the vertebral column through the ventral spinal roots
(A) True (B) False
Ans A Diff Easy
Page 657
2 -------------------------- are situated anterior to the vertebral column and receive inputs from splanchnic nerves as well as central sympathetic neurons
(A) Celiac ganglion (B) Inferior mesenteric ganglion (C) Superior mesenteric ganglion (D) Collateral ganglion
Ans D Diff Medium
Page 659
3. Chromaffin cells are present in:
(A) Pituitary gland (B) Adrenal medulla (C) Adrenal cortex (D) Thyroid glands
Ans B Diff Medium
4.
Page 661
In adrenergic synapses:
(A) Acetylcholine is released (B)
Choline is released (C) Epinephrine is released (D) Nor-epinephrine is released
Ans D Diff Moderate
Page 663
5. The cholinergic system include class of receptor:
(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four
Ans B Diff Easy Page 663
6. In sympathetic system, acetylcholine is:
(A) Murasinic receptor (B) Adrenergic receptors (C) Cholinergic receptors (D) Nicotinic receptors
Ans D
Diff Medium
Page 663
7. The receptors in the walls of the aorta and carotid sinuses that senses the stretch of organs when blood volume or pressure increases
(A) Mechanoreceptor (B) Baroreceptor (C) Chemoreceptor (D) Both a & b
Ans D Diff Easy Page 666
8. The reflex that is peripheral and involves local integration of sensory input with motor output
(A) Long reflex (B) Short reflex (C) Reflexes are not peripheral (D) None of them
Ans B Diff Easy
Page 668
9. In somatic reflexes, somatic reflexes may be ignored
(A) True
(B) False
Ans B Diff Medium Page 669
10. When light hits the retina the receptors which are activated:
(A) Chemoreceptors (B) Mechanoreceptors (C) Photoreceptors (D) All of them
Ans C
Diff Easy
Page 670
11. The amount of light that hits and enters the retina is controlled by:
(A) Autonomic system (B) Sympathetic system (C) Parasympathetic system (D) None of them
Ans A Diff Hard
Page 671
12. A group of nuclei in the medial region of the temporal lobe that is part of the limbic lobe
(A) Hypothalamus (B) Amygdala (C) hippocampus (D) thalamus
Ans B Diff Medium Page 676
13. Cardiovascular center is located in:
(A) Hypothalamus (B) Amygdale (C) Medulla (D) Hippocampus
Ans C Diff Hard
Page 676
14. Phenylephrine is known as a β 1-adrenergic agonist meaning that it binds to a specific adrenergic receptor stimulating a response
(A) True (B) False
Ans B Diff Medium Page 679
15. The sympathetic effect of the beta blockers include:
(A) Effect on sweat glands (B) Decrease adrenergic signals (C) Mimic acetylcholine (D) No effect
Ans B Diff Hard
Page 682
16. A nonspecific muscarinic agonist commonly used to treat disorders of the eye by reversing mydriases
(A) Atropine (B) Pilocarpine (C) Carpine (D) None of them
Ans B Diff Moderate
Page 681
17. Bellodonna is used for:
(A) Dilating the pupil cosmetically (B) Dilating the pupil as a medical surgery (C) Constricting the pupil (D)
None of them
Ans A Diff Easy Page 681
18. Parasympathomimetic drug has a function of:
(A) Enhancing adrenergic activity (B) Enhancing cholinergic effect (C) Decreasing cholinergic effects (D) All of them
Ans B Diff Easy Page 681
19. The drugs that block the beta receptors associated with vasoconstriction.
(A) Atropine
(B) Pilocarpine (C) Beta blockers (D) Clonidine
Ans C Diff Hard Page 680
20. The drug used to treat anxiety among beta blockers:
(A) Atropine (B) Pilocarpine (C) Beta blockers (D) Clonidine
Ans D Diff Medium
Page 680
21. Sympatholytic drug:
(A) Enhances adrenergic effect (B) Interrupts adrenergic effects (C) Both a & b (D) None of them
Ans B Diff Easy
Page 679
22. The ganglionic neurons in autonomic system is activated by:
(A) Choline (B) Acetylcholine (C) Phospholipids
(D) None of them
Ans B Diff Medium Page 678
23. The preganglionic sympathetic fibers that are responsible for increasing heart rate are referred to as:
(A) Cardiac accelerator nerves (B) Vasomotor nerves (C) Vagus nerves (D) None of them
Ans A
Diff Hard Page 676
24. For each organ system there may be more of a sympathetic or parasympathetic tendency to the resting state which is known as the autonomic tone of the system
(A) True (B) False
Ans A Diff Easy Page 672
25. Enteric refers to:
(A) Respiratory organs (B) Circulatory organs (C) Digestive organs (D) None of them
Ans C
Diff Easy Page 669
26. The Afferent branch of the visceral reflex arc begins with the projection from the central neuron along the preganglionic fiber:
(A) True (B) False
Ans B Diff Medium
Page 668
27. The murasinic receptor for parasympathetic nervous system:
(A) Acetylcholine (B) Alpha adrenergic receptor (C) Beta adrenergic receptor (D) Choline
Ans A Diff Hard
Page 663
28. Neurotransmitters are released as:
(A) Bloodstream (B) Synapses (C) Both a & b (D) None of them
Ans B Diff Medium Page 664
29. The substances made in the human body is described by:
(A) Endogenous (B) Exogenous (C) Central ganglion (D) Central neuron
Ans A Diff Easy Page 604
30. The fibers that cause the heart rate to increase when CVD in the medulla initiates a signal:
(A) CVD center (B) Cardiac accelerator nerves (C) Superior cervical ganglion (D) Superior mesenteric ganglion
Ans B Diff Medium Page 684
16. The Neurological Exam
1. A man arrives at hospital feeling faint and complaining of pins and needles feeling all along one side of his body. The most likely explanation is that he has suffered a stroke which causes a loss of------------- to a particular part of central nervous system. (A) Oxygen (B) Calcium (C) Phosphorus (D) All of them Ans A
Diff Easy
Page 692
2. How many types of cells are present in nervous tissues? (A) One (B) Two
(C) Three (D) Four Ans B
Diff Easy
Page 692
3. The neurological exam is a clinical assessment tool used to determine what specific parts of the respiratory system are affected by damage or disease. (A) True (B) False Ans B
Diff Medium Page 692
4. The mental status exam assesses: (A) Function of the nerves (B) Sensory and motor functions (C) Language (D) Motor function of walking Ans C
Diff Hard
Page 692
5. The gait exam assesses: (A) Function of the nerves (B) Sensory and motor functions (C) Language (D) Motor function of walking Ans D
Diff Moderate
Page 692
6. In the majority of the individuals, language function is localized to the ………. (A) Right hemisphere (B) Left hemisphere (C) Posterior frontal lobe (D) Superior temporal lobe Ans B
Diff Hard
Page 693
7. The motor and sensory exams are associated with the spinal cord and its connections through the spinal nerves. (A) True
(B) False Ans A
Diff Moderate
Page 693
8. Cognitive testing of neurological exam can be completed in ……….. . (A) Two minutes (B) Three minutes (C) four minutes (D) Less than five minutes Ans D
Diff Easy
Page 693
9. Neurons are very sensitive to oxygen deprivation and will start to deteriorate within 1-2 minutes and permanent damage (cell death) could result in …….. . (A) 5-10 minutes (B) 20- 30 minutes (C) Few minutes to few hours (D) Few hours Ans D
Diff Easy
REF Page 694
10. The bleeding into the brain because of damaged blood vessel: (A) Hypovolemia (B) Ischemic stroke (C) Hemorrhagic stroke (D) Transient ischemic attack Ans C
Diff Medium
Page 694
11. In diseases like Alzheimer’s, Parkinson’s, or ALS, --------- die and in diseases like MS, -------------- is affected. (A) Nerve cells, myelin (B) Liver tissue, nerve cells (C) Neurons, myelin (D) None of them Ans C
Diff Hard
Page 695
12. Stroke is an acute event.
(A) True (B) False Ans A
Diff Medium
Page 695
13. Which one of the following is not a function performed by cerebrum? (A) Learning (B) Memory (C) Walking (D) Perception Ans D
Diff Easy
Page 696
14. Areas where sensory information is initially received from the thalamus: (A) Primary areas (B) Secondary areas (C) Tertiary areas (D) None of them Ans A
Diff Easy
Page 697
15. Which one of the following is a part of prefrontal cortex? (A) Primary motor cortex (B) Boca’s area (C) Primary visual cortex (D) Auditory association areas Ans B
Diff Hard
Page 698
16. Processing regions of the cerebral cortex include ………. . (A) Primary (B) Association (C) Integration (D) All of them Ans D
Diff Easy
Page 698
17. Three word recall test is used to assess: (A) Memory
(B) Language (C) Time (D) None of them Ans A
Diff Easy
Page 698
18. The prefrontal cortex can also be tested for the ability to organize information. In one subtest of the mental status exam called set generation, the patient is asked to generate a list of words that all start with the same letter, but not to include proper nouns or names. The expectation is that a person can generate such a list of at least 10 words within minute. (A) Ten (B) Twenty (C) One (D) Two Ans C
Diff Hard
Page 699
19. Partial loss of earlier memories is called as: (A) Anterograde amnesia (B) Retrograde amnesia (C) Episodic memory (D) Short-term memory Ans B
Diff Moderate
Page 699
20. Loss of speech and language is called ………. (A) Aphasia (B) Expressive aphasia (C) Receptive aphasia (D) None of them Ans A
Diff Moderate
Page 700
21. Conduction aphasia associated with damage to this connection refers to the problem of connecting the understanding of language to the production of speech. This is a very rare condition, but is likely to present as an inability to faithfully repeat spoken language. (A) True (B) False
Ans A
Diff Easy
Page 700
22. Certain aphasias can be characterized by a deficit of verbs or nouns, known as V impairment or N impairment, or may be classified as V–N -------- --. (A) Disintegration (B) Dissociation (C) Association (D) None of them Ans B
Diff Moderate
Page 701
23 ------------ sensation is relayed to the brain stem through fibers of the facial and glossopharyngeal nerves. (A) Taste (B) Smell (C) Vision (D) Hearing Ans A
Diff Easy
Page 703
24. Anosmia means that food will not seem to have the same aroma, though the gustatory sense is intact, and food will often be described as being bland. A) True (B) False Ans B Diff Moderate
Page 704
25. The hearing that relies on vibrations: (A) Conducive hearing (B) Sensorineural hearing (C) Conductive hearing (D) None of them Ans C
Diff Easy
Page 705
26. The rapid movement of the eyes used to locate and direct the fovea onto visual stimuli is called -----. (A) PPRF (B) Saccade
(C) Conjugate gaze (D) MLF Ans B
Diff Hard
Page 706
27. The change in focal power of the eye lid referred to as: (A) Accommodation (B) Convergence (C) Both a & b (D) None of them Ans A
Diff Easy
Page 707
28. The vagus nerve directly stimulates the contraction of skeletal muscles in the pharynx and larynx to contribute to the swallowing and speech functions. (A) True (B) False Ans A
Diff Easy
Page 708
29. In Romberg test, the patient is asked to: (A) Stand straight with feet apart (B) Stand straight with feet together (C) Bent (D) Lay down Ans B
Diff Medium
Page 714
30. A ---------------------is elicited through gentle stimulation of the skin and causes contraction of the associated muscles. (A) Pronator drift (B) Superficial reflex (C) Deep tendon reflex (D) None of them Ans B
Diff Hard
Page 715
31. The superior cerebellar peduncle (SCP) is the connection of the cerebellum to the ……. . (A) Mid brain
(B) Forebrain (C) Both a & b (D) Medulla Ans C
Diff Moderate
Page 718
32. Ataxia can be caused by ………. . (A) Mercury (B) Lead (C) Aluminum (D) all of them Ans A
Diff Easy
Page 720
17. The Endocrine System
1. The system involve in communication: (A) Nervous system (B) Endocrine system (C) Both A & B (D None of them Ans C
1.
Diff Easy
Page 732
The targeted environment of endocrine system is:
(A) Internal (B) External (C) Internal and external (D) None of them Ans A Diff Easy
Page 733
2. Which of the following system is ductless?
(A) Exocrine (B) Autocuing (C) Paracrine (D) Endocrine Ans D
Diff Medium
Page 734
3. The function of prolactin is: (A) Promotes growth of body tissue (B) Promotes milk production (C) Stimulates thyroid hormone release (D) Stimulates gamete production Ans B
Diff Hard Page 735
4. Calcitonin:
(A) Reduces blood calcium levels (B) Increases blood calcium levels (C) Increase blood sodium levels (D) Decreases blood sodium levels
Ans A Diff Hard
Page 736
5. Which one of the following is a component of protein hormone?
(A) Amino acid with modified groups (B) Short chain of linked amino acids (C) Long chain of linked amino acids (D) Derived from lipid cholesterol
Ans C Diff Moderate
Page 737
6. Epinephrine and nor-epinephrine are secreted by the adrenal medulla and play a role in the fight-orflight response, whereas dopamine is secreted by the hypothalamus and inhibits the release of certain anterior pituitary hormones.
(A) True (B) False
Ans A
7.
Diff Medium
Page 738
Steroid hormones are derived from the:
(A) Carbohydrates (B) Proteins (C) Lipid (D) Minerals
Ans C
8.
Diff Medium
Page 738
Which of the following hormone plays its role in metabolism?
(A) Aldosterone (B) Cortisol (C) Testosterone (D) All of them
Ans B Diff Easy
9.
Page 738
The cyclic messenger used by most hormones is called………. .
(A) cAMP (B) G protein (C) Protein kinase (D) Adenyl cyclize
Ans A
Diff Hard
Page 739
10. Phosphorylation cascade affects which one of the following parameters of the hormonal response?
(A) Efficiency (B) Speed (C) Specificity (D) All of them
Ans D
Diff Easy
Page 740
11. Number of receptors are increased by:
(A) Up-regulation (B) Down- regulation (C) Both a & b (D) None of them
Ans A
Diff Easy Page 741
12. The release of oxytocin during childbirth is a negative feedback loop.
(A) True (B) False
Ans B
Diff Moderate
Page 741
13. ADH is produced when:
(A) Blood is not diluted (B) Blood is diluted (C) Blood glucose increases (D) Blood glucose decreases
Ans A
Diff Hard
Page 742
14. The pituitary gland consists of lobes:
(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four
Ans B
Diff Easy
Page 744
15. Which of the following hormone is associated by posterior pituitary lobe?
(A) Growth hormone (B) Prolactin (C) FSH (D) Oxytocin
Ans D
Diff Hard
Page 744
16. The oxytocin receptors increases:
(A) Beginning of the pregnancy (B) Mid of the gestation period (C) End of the pregnancy (D) Oxytocin is not produced during pregnancy
Ans C
Diff Medium
Page 745
17. Osmoreceptors are sensitive to the concentration of:
(A) Sodium (B) Potassium (C) Fluorine (D) Chlorine
Ans A
Diff Moderate
Page 746
18. The anterior pituitary produces hormones:
(A) Four (B) Five (C) Six (D) Seven
Ans D Diff Easy Page 747
19. Which one of the following is a growth hormone?
(A) Somatotrophin (B) Leuteinizing hormone (C) Thyroid stimulating hormone (D) Beta endorphin
Ans A
Diff Moderate
Page 747
20. Which one of the following is not a function of growth hormone?
(A) Initiation of di-betogenic effect (B) Produces IGF (C) Stimulates lipolysis (D) Produces lipids
Ans D
Diff Hard
Page 748
21. Which of the following triggers ovulation in women?
(A) FSH (B) LH (C) NH (D) TSH
Ans B
Diff Medium
Page 750
22. The production of colloid is dependent on:
(A) Fluorine (B) Chlorine (C) Iodine (D) Bromine
Ans C
Diff Medium
Page 751
23. In the colloid, iodine is linked to tyrosine with the help of:
(A) Oxidases (B) Peroxidases (C) Ligases (D) Hydrolases
Ans B Diff Easy
Page 753
24. In the bloodstream, less than one percent of the circulating T3 (tri-iodothyronine) and T4 (thyroxin) remains bound.
(A) True (B) False
Ans B
Diff Hard
Page 753
25. When blood calcium level is increased, the hormone is secreted:
(A) Calcitonin (B) Estrogen
(C) Thyroxin (D) Tri-iodothyronine
Ans A
Diff Moderate
Page 756
26. Pick the correct statement:
(A) Abnormally high activity of the parathyroid gland can cause hypo-parathyroidism (B) Abnormally low blood calcium levels may be caused by parathyroid hormone deficiency called hyper-parathyroidism (C) The adrenal glands have a low blood supply and experience one of the lowest rates of blood flow in the body (D) During the stage of exhaustion, individuals may begin to suffer depression, the suppression of their immune response, severe fatigue, or even a fatal heart attack
Ans D
Diff Hard
Page 760
27. Aldosterone is important in regulation of:
(A) Sodium (B) Potassium (C) Iodine (D) Both a & b
Ans D
Diff Medium
Page 760
28. Which of the following belongs to the chemical class of amine?
(A) Aldosterone (B) Epinephrine
(C) Cortisol (D) Cortisone
Ans B
Diff Hard
Page 762
29. The secretion of melatonin varies with the amount of:
(A) Heat (B) Moisture (C) Light (D) None of them
Ans C
Diff Easy
Page 762
30. A peptide hormone that inhibits the secretion of FSH:
(A) LH (B) Inhibit (C) Estrogens (D) Progesterone
Ans B
Diff Easy
Page 763
31. The pancreas is a long, slender organ, most of which is located posterior to the bottom half of the stomach
(A) True (B) False
Ans A
Diff Easy Page 764
32. The cell which produces the hormone glucagon and makes approx. 20% of each islet.
(A) PP cell (B) Delta cell (C) Beta cell (D) Alpha cell
Ans D
Diff Medium
Page 765
33. The primary targets of insulin:
(A) Adipose tissue (B) Skeletal muscle cell (C) Both a & b (D) None of them
Ans C
Diff Medium
Page 768
34. The skeleton produces hormones:
(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four
Ans B
Diff Easy
Page 771
35. Which of the following is involved in production of vitamin D3?
(A) Adipose tissue (B) Skin (C) Thymus (D) Liver
Ans B
Diff Moderate
Page 771
36. The function of hepcidin:
(A) Increase in platelets (B) Reduces insulin resistance (C) Modified to form vitamin D (D) Block release of iron into body fluids Ans D
Diff Hard
Page 772
18. The Cardiovascular System: Blood
1. Which one of the following is a function of blood? (A)Deliver oxygen and nutrients (B) Remove wastes from body cells (C) Defense
(D)All of them Ans D Diff Easy Page 784 2. In normal blood, about ------------ of a sample is erythrocytes. (A) 45 (B) 55 (C) 65
(D) 75 Ans A
Diff Easy
Page 785
3. Blood has a viscosity approximately five times greater than water. (A) True (B) False Ans A Diff Moderate
Page 785
4. Females have typically average ------------- liters of blood. (A) 5-6 liters (B) 4-5 liters (C) 3-4 liters (D) 2-5 liters Ans B Diff Hard
Page 786
5. The globulins are proteins involved in immunity and are better known as an antibodies or immunoglobulin. (A) Alpha (B) Beta (C) Gamma (D) None of them Ans C
Diff Medium
Page 786
6. Which one of the following is not produced by the liver? (A) Albumin (B) Fibrinogen (C) Alpha globulin (D) Gamma globulin Ans D
Diff Hard
Page 787
7. Site of production for erythrocytes is: (A) Intestines (B) Liver (C) Red bone marrow
(D) White bone marrow Ans C
Diff Hard
Page 787
8. The stem cell that develops only into types of connective tissue, including fibrous connective tissue, bone, cartilage, and blood, but not epithelium, muscle, and nervous tissue. (A) Mesenchymal stem cell (B) Pluripotent stem cell (C) Totipotent stem cell (D) Hemopoietic stem cell Ans A
Diff Medium
Page 789
9. Which one of the following is used as a performance enhancing drug? (A) Erythropoietin (B) Thrombopoietin (C) Cytokines (D) None of them Ans A Diff Medium
Page 790
10. Which pathway is adopted to insert donor’s bone marrow? (A) Intramuscular (B) Intraperitoneal (C) Intravenously (D) Dermal Ans C
Diff Easy
Page 791
11. Which one of the following is a function of red blood cells? (A) All functions in body defenses (B) Effective against bacteria (C) Promotes inflammation (D) Transport oxygen and carbon dioxide between tissues and lungs Ans D Diff Hard 12. Hemoglobin is made up of: (A) Proteins and iron
Page 792
(B) Lipids and iron (C) Carbohydrates and iron (D) None of them Ans A
Diff Easy
Page 793
13. The bright red oxygenated hemoglobin: (A) Carbaminohemoglobin (B) Oxyhemoglobin (C) Deoxyhemoglobin (D) None of them Ans B
Diff Moderate Page 794
14. The life of erythrocytes in circulation is …….. . (A) 100 days (B) 120 days (C) 150 days (D) 200 days Ans B
Diff Easy Page 795
15. The trace mineral that functions as a co-enzyme and facilitates the synthesis of heam portion of hemoglobin is …….. . (A) Zinc (B) Copper (C) Iron (D) Iodine Ans A
Diff Moderate
Page 795
16. Which one of the following condition may cause anemia? (A) Blood loss (B) Faulty and decreased RBCs (C) Destruction of RBCs (D) All of them Ans D Diff Easy
Page 797
17. Sickle cell anemia occurs at: (A) Low oxygen concentration (B) High oxygen concentration (C) Low hydrogen ion concentration (D) High hydrogen ion concentration Ans A
Diff Moderate
Page 797
18. The common deficiency occurring in all types of anemia is deficiency of: (A) Iron (B) Folate (C) Vitamin B12 (D) Copper Ans C
Diff Moderate
Page 798
19. The most severe form of thalassemia is called: (A) Pernicious anemia (B) Iron deficiency anemia (C) Megaloblastic anemia (D) Cooley’s anemia Ans D Diff Easy Page 798 20. Which one of the following are a granular leukocytes? (A) Neutrophils (B) Eosinophil (C) Lymphocytes (D) Basophils Ans C
Diff Moderate
Page 801
21. The granules of basophils stain best with acidic stains. (A) True (B) False Ans B
Diff Hard
Page 801
22. The cells that are capable of recognizing cells that do not express self-proteins on their plasma membrane or that contain foreign or abnormal markers are: (A) Natural killer (B) B cells (C) T cells (D) Memory cells Ans A
Diff Medium
Page 802
23. A condition in which only few leukocytes are produced: (A) Leukocytosis (A) Leucopenia (B) Leukemia (C) Lymphoma Ans B
Diff Medium
Page 802
24. The diameter of megakaryocytes ranges from: (A) 50-100mm (B) 50-100nm (C) 50-100µm (D) All of them Ans C Diff Medium
Page 803
25. Which one of the following is secreted by platelets? (A) ATP (B) ADP (C) FAD (D) NAD Ans B Diff Hard
Page 805
26. Vitamin required by liver to produce clotting factors: (A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin D (C) Vitamin E
(D) Vitamin K Ans D
Diff Medium
Page 807
27. Which one of the following is not a plasma protein? (A) Fibrinogen (B) Calcium ions (C) Hageman factor (D) Fibrin stabilizing factor Ans B
Diff Medium
Page 807
28. An anticoagulant is any substance that promotes coagulation. (A) True (B) False Ans B Diff Easy
Page 808
29. The aggregation of platelets, erythrocytes and WBCs in a mass of fibrin strands is known as: (A) Hemophilia (B) Thrombosis (C) Thrombus (D) Embolus Ans C
Diff Moderate
Page 809
30. Hemolysis is a degradation of: (A) WBCs (B) RBCs (C) Erythrocytes (D) Platelets Ans C
Diff Easy
Page 810
31. The patient is called universal donor if his blood group is: (A) B+ (B) O+ (C) O(D) AB+
Ans C
Diff Moderate
Page 813
19. The Cardiovascular System: The Heart
1. Human heart contracts ----------- times per minute. (A) 70 (B) 75 (C) 80 (D) 85 Ans B
Diff Easy
Page 824
2. The system that transports blood to and from the lungs where it picks up oxygen and delivers carbon dioxide for exhalation is: (A) Pulmonary circuit (B) Systemic circuit (C) Pulmonary capillaries (D) None of them Ans A Diff Moderate Page 827 3. Which of the following is incorrect for the fibrous pericardium? (A) Tough connective tissues (B) Dense connective tissues (C) Maintains position in heart (D) Maintains position in thorax Ans C Diff Hard
Page 828
4. The lubricating serous fluid that fills the pericardial cavity and reduces friction as heart contracts is secreted by: (A) Pericardium (B) Epicedium (C) Both a & b (D) Mesothelium
Ans D Diff Medium
Page 829
5. The location of major coronary blood vessels is: (A) Auricle (B) Sulcus (C) Myocardium (D) Pericardium Ans B
Diff Medium
Page 830
6. The middle and thickest layer is the myocardium, made largely of cardiac muscle cells. (A) True (B) False Ans A Diff Easy
Page 830
7. Although the ventricles on the right and left sides pump the same amount of blood per contraction, the muscle of the left ventricle is much thicker and better developed than that of the right ventricle. In order to overcome the high resistance required to pump blood into the long systemic circuit: (A) Right ventricle generate great amount of pressure (B) Left ventricle generate great amount of pressure (C) Both ventricles generate equal amount of pressure (D) Pressure has nothing to do with the resistance Ans B
Diff Hard
Page 831
8. The interatrial septum of an adult heart bears an oval-shaped depression known as the: (A) Fossa ovalis (B) Foramen ovale (C) Septum primum (D) Valve Ans A
Diff Medium
Page 832
9. Number of chambers of the heart are ………. (A) One (B) Two (C) Three
(D) Four Ans D
Diff Easy
Page 833
10. The vein that drains the heart myocardium empty into the right atrium: (A) Superior vanae cavae (B) Inferior vana cavae (C) Coronary sinus (D) None of them Ans C
Diff Medium
Page 835
11. The major pumping channel for systemic circuit: (A) Left ventricle (B) Right ventricle (C) Right aorta (D) Left aorta Ans A Diff Medium
Page 836
12. The valve that consists of two cusps: (A) Mitral valve (B) Bicuspid valve (C) Tricuspid valve (D) Both A & B Ans D Diff Easy
Page 837
13. The cup of tricuspid and bicuspid valve closes when: (A) Ventricles begin to contract (B) Ventricles relax (C) Pressure between ventricles decreases (D) Blood flows towards the area of highest pressure Ans A Diff Hard
Page 839
13. The doctor having specialization in treatment of diseases of heart: (A) Toxicologist (B) Cardiologist
(C) Pharmacologist (D) All of them Ans B
Diff Easy
Page 841
14. A person suffering sudden pain beneath the sternum radiating down the left arm in males: (A) Acute myocardial infarction (B) Chronic myocardial infarction (C) Sub-acute myocardial infarction (D) Sub-chronic myocardial infarction Ans A
Diff Hard
Page 844
15. The ------------------- parallels the right coronary artery and drains the blood from the posterior surfaces of the right atrium and ventricle. (A) Great cardiac vein (B) Posterior cardiac vein (C) Middle cardiac vein (D) Small cardiac vein Ans D
Diff Moderate
Page 844
16. The component which supports the synchronized contraction of muscle: (A) Myocardial conducting cells (B) Myocardial contractile cells (C) Intercalated disc (D) None of them Ans C
Diff Medium
Page 847
17. The atrioventricular (AV) node is a second clump of specialized myocardial conductive cells located in the inferior portion of the right atrium within the atrioventricular septum. (A) True (B) False Ans B
Diff Easy
Page 849
18. Which one of the following cells doesn’t have a stable resting potential? (A) Skeleton muscles
(B) Neurons (C) Cardiac conducive cells (D) All of them Ans C
Diff Medium
Page 850
19. The rapid depolarization period typically lasts: (A) 2-4ms (B) 3-5ms (C) 5-7ms (D) 3-6ms Ans B
Diff Easy
Page 851
20. The concentration of calcium required for contraction during plateau phase: (A) 20% (B) 30% (C) 40% (D) 50% Ans A Diff Moderate
Page 852
21. The number of electrodes used by 12- lead electrocardiogram: (A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 15 (D) 20 Ans B Diff Easy
Page 853
22. The depolarization of atria is represented by: (A) P waves (B) T waves (C) QRS complex (D) None of them Ans A Diff Medium
Page 855
23. Cardiac muscle metabolism is:
(A) Facultative (B) Anaerobic (C) Aerobic (D) None of them Ans C
Diff Medium
Page 860
24. Which of the following is not an event of ventricular systole? (A) Pressure rises in the ventricles (B) Blood is pumped into pulmonary trunk from right ventricle (C) Blood is pumped into aorta from the left ventricle (D) Blood is pumped into aorta from right ventricle Ans D Diff Hard
Page 861
25. The QRS complex represents: (A) Ventricular systole (B) Atrial systole (C) Atrial diastole (D) Ventricular diastole Ans A Diff Medium
Page 862
26. The ventricular diastole is represented by: (A) P waves (B) T waves (C) QRS complex (D) All of them Ans B Diff Medium
Page 862
27. S1 is the sound created by the closing of the atrioventricular valves during ventricular contraction and is normally described as a “lub,” or second heart sound. (A) True (B) False Ans B Diff Easy
Page 863
28. The most severe form of unusual sounds from heart is graded as:
(A) 1 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6 Ans D
Diff Medium
Page 864
29. Normal range for SV: (A) 55-100 mL (B) 100-150 mL (C) 150-200 mL (D) None of them Ans A
Diff Easy Page 866
30. The cardiac centers monitor baroreceptor firing to maintain cardiac homeostasis, a mechanism called the: (A) Cardiac reflexes (B) Baroreceptor reflex (C)
Atrial reflex (D) Bainbridge reflex Ans B Diff Easy
Page 869
31. Limbic system increases heart rate and contractions by: (A) Increasing t3 and t4 in blood (B) Increase calcium ions in blood (C) Increase sodium ions in blood (D) Anticipation of physical exercise Ans D Diff Hard
Page 871
32. Preload refers to the tension that the ventricles must develop to pump blood effectively against the resistance in the vascular system. (A) True (B) False Ans B
Diff Medium Page 874
33. The lumen formed after the development of cardiogenic cords is termed as: (A) Mesoderm (B) Endocardia tubes (C) Primitive heart tube (D) Truces Ans B
Diff Hard
Page 876
20. The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels and Circulation
1. The walls of arteries and veins are composed of: (A) Collagenous fibers (B) Elastic fibers (C) Both a & b (D) None of them Ans C
Diff Easy
Page 890
2. The pressure withstand by veins are much lower than arteries of the blood that flows from them (A)True (B)False Ans A Diff Medium Page 890 3. Pick the incorrect statement for tunica intima: (A)The thickest layer in arteries (B) Smooth muscle cell and elastic fiber dominates (C) External elastic membrane present in large vessels
(D)Internal elastic membrane present in large vessels Ans D Diff Hard Page 891 4. Vasoconstriction decreases blood flow as: (A) Smooth muscle in the wall of tunica media contracts (B) Smooth muscle in the wall of tunica media relaxes (C) Smooth muscle is not related to vasoconstriction for the increase or decrease of blood flow
(D) None of them Ans A
Diff Hard
Page 892
5. Artery conducts blood in direction: (A) Towards the heart (B) Away from the heart (C)Both A & B (D)None of them
Ans B
Diff Easy
Page 892
6. The diameter of muscular artery typically ranges from: (A) 1-10mm (B) 2-10mm (C) 0.1-10mm (D) 0.1-10nm Ans C Diff Hard Page 893 7. A channel that supplies blood to tissues: (A) Artery (B) Arterioles (C) Veins (D) Capillary Ans D Diff Medium Page 893 8. Which of the following can’t pass between the cells (A) Glucose (B) RBCs (C) Leukocytes (D) Gases Ans B
Diff Medium Page 894
9. The capillary having pores in addition to tight junctions in the endothelial lining (A) Fenestrated capillary
(B) Sinusoid capillary (C) Continuous capillary (D) None of them Ans A Diff Easy
Page 894
10. The factors affecting vasomotion does not include: (A) Oxygen (B) Carbon dioxide (C) Carbon ion (D) Hydrogen ion Ans C
Diff Medium
Page 895
11. Venules as well as capillaries are the primary sites of emigration or diapedesis, in which the ----------------- adhere to the endothelial lining of the vessels and then squeeze through adjacent cells to enter the tissue fluid. (A) Red blood cells (B) White blood cells (C) Both a & b (D) Lactic acid Ans B
Diff Hard
Page 895
12. Pick the correct statement: (A) Arteries are thick as compared to veins (B) Pressure in arteries is low (C) Arteries are irregular (D) Veins are rounded Ans A
Diff Hard
Page 896
13. The blood volume of systemic veins at any time: (A) 60% (B) 62% (C) 63% (D) 64%
Ans D
Diff Easy
Page 898
14. The force exerted by blood upon the walls of the blood vessels or chambers of the heart: (A) Blood pressure (B) Blood flow (C) Resistance (D) All of them Ans A
Diff Medium
Page 900
15. Pulse pressure is: (A) Ratio of systolic pressure over diastolic pressure (B) Difference between systolic and diastolic pressure (C) Average pressure of blood in arteries (D) Sum of systolic and diastolic pressure Ans B Diff Moderate
Page 901
16. Pulse can be found in: (A) Temporal arteries (B) Facial arteries (C) Brachial arteries (D) All of them Ans D
Diff Moderate
Page 902
17. Which one of the following is an incorrect step of procedure for measuring blood pressure? (A) The clinician wraps an inflatable cuff tightly around the patient’s arm at about the level of the heart (B) The clinician squeezes a rubber pump to inject air into the cuff, raising pressure around the artery and temporarily cutting off blood flow into the patient’s arm (C) The clinician squeezes a rubber pump to take out air into the cuff, decreasing pressure around the artery and temporarily cutting off blood flow into the patient’s arm (D) The clinician places the stethoscope on the patient’s antecubital region and, while gradually allowing air within the cuff to escape, listens for the Korotkoff sounds Ans C
Diff Hard
Page 903
18. Blood moves from higher pressure to lower pressure.
(A) True (B) False Ans A Diff Easy
Page 903
19. Cardiac output is measured in: (A) Liters per hour (B) Liters per minute (C)
Milliliters per minutes (D) Milliliters per hour Ans B
Diff Moderate
Page 904
20. In Poiseuille’s equation π is: (A) Difference in pressure (B) Viscosity of blood (C) Length of blood vessel (D) Mathematical constant Ans D
Diff Easy
Page 904
21. Hypervolemia is caused by: (A) Bleeding (B) Retention of water and sodium (C) Vomiting (D) Dehydration Ans B
Diff Moderate
Page 905
22. The determinants of the blood viscosity: (A) Plasma proteins (B) Formed elements (C) Vascular tone (D) Both a & b Ans D Diff Easy
Page 905
23. Which of the following is incorrect statement about of inhalation? (A) The volume of thorax increases
(B) The volume of thorax decreases (C) Diaphragm contracts (D) Abdominal cavity compresses Ans B
Diff Medium
Page 909
24. The force exerted by the blood confined within blood vessels or heart chambers: (A) Interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure (B) Capillary hydrostatic pressure (C) Blood hydrostatic pressure (D) None of them Ans C
Diff Medium
Page 910
25. The interaction of the hydrostatic and osmotic pressure is given by: (A) Interstitial fluid colloidal osmotic pressure (B) Blood colloidal osmotic pressure (C) Capillary hydrostatic pressure (D) Net filtration pressure Ans D
Diff Hard
Page 911
26. Cardiac function is slowed down by: (A) Cardio accelerator (B) Cardio inhibitor (C) Vasomotor (D) None of them Ans B Diff Easy
Page 915
27. When blood pressure drops too low: (A) Baroreceptor firing decrease (B) Baroreceptor firing increases (C) Baroreceptor has no relation with low blood pressure (D) None of the above Ans A Diff Moderate
Page 915
28. Pick the incorrect statement about ADH.
(A) It is also called vasopressin (B) It is secreted by adrenal medulla (C) It is secreted by hypothalamus (D) It is stored in posterior pituitary Ans B Diff Hard
Page 917
29. The myogenic response is a reaction to the: (A) Bending of smooth muscles in the walls of arterioles (B) Stretching of smooth muscles in the walls of arterioles (C) Contraction of smooth muscles in the walls of arterioles (D) Stretching of tissues in the walls of arterioles Ans B Diff Moderate
Page 918
30. The loss of blood that can’t be controlled by hemostatic mechanisms. (A) Hemorrhage (B) Hypotension (C) Hypertension (D) Pneumonia Ans A
Diff Easy
Page 920
31. A severe allergic response that cause widespread release of histamine triggering vasodilation throughout the body. (A) Septic shock (B) Neurogenic shock (C) Obstructive shock (D) Anaphylactic shock Ans D Diff Medium
Page 922
32. The function performed by digestive system: (A) Delivers hormones (B) Carries clotting factors (C) Absorb nutrients and water (D) Produces CSF
Ans C Diff Medium
Page 923
33. The aorta superior to the diaphragm is called: (A) Ascending aorta (B) Thoracic aorta (C) Abdominal aorta (D) Descending aorta Ans B
Diff Hard
Page 927
34. The artery that supplies blood to arms and chest is: (A) Vertebral artery (B) Common carotid artery (C) Subclavian artery (D) Thyrocervical artery Ans C
Diff Medium
Page 928
35. The artery that supplies blood to superior surface of diaphragm: (A) Pericardial artery (B) Parietal branches (C) Intercostal artery (D) Superior phrenic artery Ans D Diff Medium
Page 931
36. The posterior tibial artery is located between the tibia and fibula and supplies blood to the muscles and integument of the anterior tibial region. (A) True (B) False Ans B
Diff Hard
Page 939
37. Blood supply from thorax drains into vein: (A) Esophageal vein (B) Bronchial vein (C) Azygos vein (D) Internal thoracic vein
Ans C
Diff Moderate
Page 945
38. The vein that drains the digits and lead to the palmar arches of the hand and dorsal vein arch the foot: (A) Digital veins (B) Ulnar vein (C) Brachial vein (D) Radial vein
Ans A
Diff Moderate Page 951
39. The temporary blood vessel that branches from the umbilical vein allowing much of the freshly oxygenated blood from the placenta to bypass the fetal liver and go directly to the fetal heart. (A) Foramen ovale (B) Ductus arteriosus (C) Ductus venosus (D) Umbilical arteries Ans C
Diff Easy
Page 959
21. The Lymphatic and Immune System
1. The amount of plasma released into interstitial space each day due to filtration is: (A) 17 liters (B) 20 liters (C) 30 liters (D) 40 liters
Ans B
Diff Easy Page 977
2. The chyle is formed when lipids and proteins are combined with:
(A) Monoglycerides (B) Diglycerides (C) Triglycerides (D) Free fatty acids of all types
Ans C
Diff Moderate
Page 979
3. Pathogens are ingested by:
(A) Lymphocytes (B) Phagocytic cells (C) Cytoplasmic granules (D) None of them
Ans B Diff Easy Page 980
4. Which one of the following contain cytotoxic granules?
(A) B cells (B) T cells (C) Plasma cells (D)
Natural killer
Ans D
Diff Moderate
5. The site of energy storage:
(A) Red bone marrow (B) White bone marrow
Page 982
(C) Yellow bone marrow (D) None of them
Ans C Diff Moderate
Page 982
6. The sites of differentiating B Lymphocytes:
(A) High endothelial venules (B) Germinal centers (C) Reticular fibers (D) Lymphoid follicles
Ans B Diff Easy Page 985
7. Which of the following is called the filter of the blood?
(A) Spleen (B) Kidney (C) Intestines (D) Heart
Ans A Diff Moderate Page 986
8. Tonsils are often removed in those children who have recurring throat infections, especially those involving the palatine tonsils on either side of the throat, whose swelling may interfere with their breathing and swallowing.
(A) True (B) False
Ans A
Diff Moderate
Page 987
9. Stomach is protected because of:
(A) Neutralizing epithelial cells (B) Lysozymes (C) Low pH (D) Washing action
Ans C Diff Hard
Page 991
10. A phagocytic cell that is attracted via chemo taxis from bloodstream to infected tissues.
(A) Macrophage (B) Neutrophil (C) Monocytes (D) None of them
Ans B Diff Moderate
Page 991
11. A protein that forms pores in membrane of infected cell:
(A) Perforin (B) Fas ligand (C) Granzyme (D) None of them
Ans A
Diff Easy
Page 992
12. A signaling molecule that allows cells to communicate with each other over short distance.
(A) Cytokine (B) Chemokine (C) Interferon (D) Complement
Ans A Diff Easy Page 993
13. A short term inflammatory response to an insult to a body.
(A) Chronic inflammation (B) Sub chronic inflammation (C) acute inflammation (D) sub-acute inflammation
Ans C
Diff Easy
Page 995
14. Which of the response helps to prevent getting common disease again?
(A) Primary adaptive response (B) Secondary adaptive response (C) Tertiary adaptive response (D) Quaternary adaptive response
Ans B Diff Moderate Page 996
15. Variable region domain is named on the basis of:
(A) Sequence of sugars (B) Sequence of bases (C) Sequence of triglycerides (D) Sequence of amino acid
Ans D Diff Hard Page 997
16. In negative selection, the T cells that bind to self- antigens are killed by:
(A) Phagocytosis (B) Hydrolysis (C) Apoptosis (D) Mutation
Ans C Diff Moderate
Page 1001
17. The process of antigen binding only to those T cells that have receptors specific to that antigen.
(A) Clonal selection (B) Clonal expansion (C) Monoclonal response (D) Polyclonal response
Ans A Diff Easy Page 1002
18. The cells sharing common mode of killing as that of natural killers:
(A) Th1 cell
(B) Th2 cell (C) Cytotoxic cells (D) Regulatory T cell
Ans C Diff Moderate
Page 1004
19. The destruction or inactivation of B cells that recognize self-antigens in the bone marrow is called:
(A) Clonal tolerance (B) Clonal deletion (C) Peripheral tolerance (D) Central tolerance
Ans D Diff Moderate
Page 1005
20. The largest antibody molecule:
(A) IgG (B) IgM (C) IgA (D) IgE Ans B
Diff Easy
Page 1006
21. The antibody associated with allergy and anaphylaxis.
(A) IgM (B) IgG (C) IgA (D) IgE
Ans D Diff Moderate Page 1007
22. Which of the antibody is obtained from milk?
(A) IgM (B) IgG (C) IgA (D) IgE
Ans C Diff Hard Page 1009
23. Pick the correct statement.
(A) Each antibody on the B cell surface has three binding sites and the repeated nature of T cell independent antigen leads to cross linking of the surface antibodies on the B cell (B) Each antibody on the B cell surface has two binding sites and the repeated nature of T cell independent antigen leads to cross linking of the surface antibodies on the B cell (C) Each antibody on the B cell surface has four binding sites and the repeated nature of T cell independent antigen leads to cross linking of the surface antibodies on the B cell (D) Each antibody on the B cell surface has five binding sites and the repeated nature of T cell independent antigen leads to cross linking of the surface antibodies on the B cell
Ans B
Diff Hard
Page 1010
24. Leprosy is caused by:
(A) Aspergillus (B) Candida (C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
(D) Mycobacterium leprae
Ans D Diff Moderate
Page 1013
25. The bacteria found in minor skin infections:
(A) S. aureus (B) S. pneumonae (C) M.tuberculosis (D) M.leprae
Ans A Diff Moderate
Page 1014
26. Which of the following is more effective against viral infections?
(A) Natural killers (B) Cytotoxic cells (C) B cells (D) T cells
Ans B
Diff Hard
Page 1014
27. The type of hypersensitivity which involve IgG mediated lysis of cells by complement proteins:
(A) Type 1 hypersensitivity (B) Type 2 hypersensitivity (C) Type 3 hypersensitivity (D) Type 4 hypersensitivity
Ans B Diff Moderate
Page 1016
28. The symptoms of celiac diseases include:
(A) Damage to small intestine (B) Damage to large intestine (C) Low insulin production (D) Chronic inflammation of joints
Ans A Diff Hard Page 1018
29. If the mother has a second Rh-positive kid the secondary response's IgG antibodies against Rh positive blood penetrate the placenta and target the fetal blood causing:
(A) Goiter (B) Anemia (C) Respiratory disorders (D) None of them
Ans B Diff Moderate Page 1019
30. The stages in the immune response to cancer include:
(A) Elimination (B) Equilibrium (C) Escape (D) All of them
Ans: D
Diff Easy Page 1021
22. The Respiratory System
1. The reactant in oxidative phosphorylation is:
(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Carbon (C) Oxygen (D) Hydrogen
Ans C
Diff Easy Page 1034
2. The part of nose that connects root to the rest of nose: (A) Bridge (B) Apex (C) Dorsum nasi (D) Nares Ans A
Diff Moderate
Page 1035
3. The soft palate of nasal cavity consists of:
(A) Bone (B) Muscle tissue (C) Cells (D) Organelles Ans B Diff Easy Page 1036
4. The part of larynx that continues the route for ingested material and air until its inferior end where the digestive and respiratory systems diverge
(A) Nasopharynx (B) Oropharynx (C) laryngopharynx (D) all of above Ans C Diff Hard Page 1038
5. The largest piece of the cartilage that makes up the larynx:
(A) Thyroid cartilage (B) Cricoids cartilage (C) Tracheal cartilage (D) Cricotracheal cartilage
Ans A
Diff Moderate
Page 1038
6. The number of hyaline cartilage in trachea ranges from:
(A) 10-20 (B) 12-20 (C) 16-20 (D) 20-25
Ans C Diff Moderate
Page 1040
7. Bronchioles perform the function of:
(A) Gaseous exchange (B) Filters toxin (C) Temperature maintenance
(D) None of them
Ans A
Diff Moderate Page 1041
8. An -----------is a cluster of many individual alveoli that are responsible for gas exchange.
(A) Alveolar duct (B) Alveolar sac (C) Alveolar pores (D) Alveolus
Ans B Diff Easy Page 1042
9. The costal surface of the lung borders the ribs.
(A) True (B) False
Ans A
Diff Moderate
Page 1045
10. The amount of air person can move into and out of his lungs and is the sum of all volumes except residual volume
(A) Functional residual capacity (B) Inspiratory capacity (C) Vital capacity (D) None of them
Ans C Diff Easy Page 1053
11. Which of the following is measured by blood gas analyzer?
(A) Total lung capacity (B) Arterial blood gases (C) Residual volume (D) Forced vital capacity
Ans B Diff Moderate Page 1053
12. The air that never participates in gaseous exchange:
(A) Alveolar dead space (B) Anatomical dead space (C) Total dead space (D) None of them
Ans B Diff Moderate Page 1053
13. The basic rhythm of breathing is set by:
(A) Ventral respiratory group (B) Aortic body (C) Carotid body (D) Medullary respiratory renter
Ans D Diff Hard Page 1054
14. The cluster of cell bodies that controls deep breathing:
(A) Dorsal respiratory group (B) Ventral respiratory group (C) Amnestic center (D) Pneumotaxic center
Ans C Diff Moderate
Page 1055
15. Higher carbon dioxide levels can lead to increased H+ levels as well as other metabolic processes such lactic acid buildup after severe activity.
(A) True (B) False
Ans A Diff Moderate
Page 1056
16. The percent of nitrogen in atmosphere is:
(A) 20.9 (B) 78.6 (C) 0.4 (D) 0.06
Ans B Diff Easy Page 1058
17. The regulation of perfusion is done by:
(A) Diameter of blood vessels (B) Diameter of airways
(C) Diameter of bronchioles (D) None of them
Ans A
Diff Hard Page 1059
18. Carbon dioxide is released in the opposite direction of oxygen from the:
(A) Alveoli to lungs (B) Lungs to heart (C) Blood to alveoli (D) Blood to bronchioles
Ans C Diff Hard
Page 1060
19. The partial pressure of oxygen in blood is:
(A) 40 mmHg (B) 64mm Hg (C) 45 mmHg (D) 100mmHg
Ans D Diff Moderate
Page 1060
20. Each hemoglobin is capable of carrying ----------------- molecules of oxygen.
(A) Two (B) Four (C) Six (D) Eight
Ans B Diff Moderate
Page 1063
21. Hemoglobin saturation is 100 percent if every heme unit in all of the erythrocytes of the body is bound to:
(A) Oxygen (B) Carbon (C) Nitrogen (D) Hydrogen
Ans A
Diff Easy
Page 1064
22. Carbonic acid dissociates into:
(A) Carbonate and oxygen (B) Bicarbonate and oxygen (C) Bicarbonate and hydrogen (D) Carbonate and hydrogen
Ans C
Diff Hard
Page 1068
23. The pH of blood in hyperventilation:
(A) High (B) Neutral (C) Low (D) pH remain unchanged
Ans A
Diff Moderate
Page 1069
24. ASM occurs typically at:
(A) 4000ft (B) 8000ft (C) 2400 meters (D) Both b & c
Ans D
Diff Easy
Page 1070
25. The pair of structure that will eventually become the bronchi and all other lower respiratory structures:
(A) Olfactory pit (B) Bronchial bud (C) Foregut (D) Laryngotracheal bud
Ans B
Diff Moderate Page 1071
26. The development of respiratory system begins:
(A) Week 2 of gestation (B) Week 3 of gestation (C) Week 4 of gestation (D) Week 5 of gestation
Ans C
Diff Easy Page 1071
27. During week 7-16 of gestation:
(A) Bronchial buds continue to branch as development progresses until all of the segmental bronchi have been formed (B) Once the respiratory bronchioles form further development includes extensive vascularization (C) More alveolar precursors develop and larger amounts of pulmonary surfactant are produced (D) Ectodermal tissue from the anterior head region invaginate posteriorly to form olfactory pits
Ans A
Diff Hard
Page 1072
28. Major growth and maturation of respiratory system occurs at:
(A) Week 7-16 (B) Week 16-20 (C) Week 16-23 (D) Week 24
Ans D
Diff Moderate
Page 1072
29. Fetal breathing movements cause inhalation and exhalation of:
(A) Amniotic fluid (B) Carbon dioxide (C) Oxygen (D) None of them
Ans A
Diff Easy
Page 1072
30. The time after that first inhalation occurs:
(A) Within 1 minute (B) Within 30 seconds (C) Within 20 seconds (D) Within 10 seconds
Ans D
Diff Easy
Page 1073
23. The Digestive System
1. The absorption of nutrients occurs in:
(A) Respiratory system (B) Digestive system (C) Circulatory system (D) Nervous system
Ans B Diff Easy
Page 1086
2. The nervous system benefit digestive system in a way:
(A) Protecting digestive organs (B) Vitamin D conversion (C) Regulate secretions and muscle contraction (D) Synthesize vitamin D
Ans C Diff Hard
Page 1088
3. Mechanical digestion of the food is performed by:
(A) Teeth (B) Tongue (C) Salivary glands (D) Both a & b
Ans D
Diff Moderate Page 1088
4. The tiny layer of smooth muscle is always tense, causing the stomach and small intestine mucosa to fold into undulating folds.
(A) Muscularis mucosa (B) Lamina propria (C) Epithelium (D) Sub mucosa
Ans A Diff Medium Page 1089
5. Which of the following regulates digestive secretions and reacts to the presence of food?
(A) Myenteric plexus (B) Submucosal plexus (C) Both a & b (D) None of them
Ans B Diff Medium Page 1090
6. The peritoneal fold that attaches two portions of the large intestine to the posterior abdominal wall:
(A) Lesser momentum (B) Mesentery (C) Mesocolon (D) Calceiform ligament
Ans C Diff Hard Page 1092
7. Bile salts are produced by:
(A) Gallbladder (B) Pancreas (C) Liver (D) Large intestine
Ans C Diff Easy
Page 1094
8. The entry of the food into the alimentary canal through the mouth:
(A) Inhalation (B) Ingestion (C) Propulsion (D) Peristalsis
Ans B Diff Medium Page 1094
9. The removal of undigested material from the body:
(A) Segmentation (B) Absorption (C) Defecation (D) None of them
Ans C
Diff Easy Page 1095
10. The osmotic stimuli is detected by:
(A) Osmoreceptors (B)
Mechanoreceptors (C) Chemoreceptors (D) All of them
Ans A Diff Easy Page 1096
11. The secretion of bicarbonate from the pancreas is stimulated by:
(A) Gastrin (B) Secretin (C) CCK (D) Gastric inhibitory peptides
Ans B Diff Hard
Page 1097
12. The opening between oral cavity and mouth is:
(A) Labia (B) Oral vestibule
(C) Fauces (D) Soft palate
Ans C Diff Medium
Page 1097
13. The muscle which raises the tongue:
(A) Mylohyoid (B) Hyoglossus (C) Styloglossus (D) Genioglossus
Ans A
Diff Hard
Page 1099
14. Position food for optimal chewing is performed by:
(A) Mylohyoid (B) Hyoglossus (C) Styloglossus (D) All of them
Ans D Diff Moderate
Page 1099
15. The pH of saliva is maintained by:
(A) Carbonates and phosphates (B) Bicarbonates and phosphates (C) Bicarbonates and sodium (D) Carbonates and sodium
Ans B
Diff Medium
Page 1100
16. The stimulator of the salivation is not:
(A) Sight of food (B) Smell of food (C) Taste of food (D) Temperature of food
Ans D Diff Easy Page 1101
17. The most posterior and the largest teeth:
(A) Incisors (B) Cuspids (C) Premolars (D) Molars
Ans D Diff Easy Page 1101
18. Crown is the portion:
(A) Embedded within maxilla and mandible (B) Projecting above the gum line (C) Sockets of the connective tissue (D) Bone like tissues
Ans B Diff Hard Page 1102
19. The structure in mouth that break down triglycerides into fatty acids and di-glycerides
(A) Taste buds (B) Salivary glands (C) Lingual glands (D) Teeth
Ans C
Diff Hard Page 1103
20. Pharynx is connected to stomach by:
(A) Esophagus (B) Oropharynx (C) Laryngopharynx (D) None of them
Ans A Diff Medium Page 1104
21. The bolus is transferred to stomach via action of:
(A) Secretion of amylase (B) Saliva (C) Both a & b (D) Rhythmic waves of peristalsis
Ans D Diff Medium
Page 1105
22. The muscular layer is smooth muscle in middle third of the esophagus.
(A) True (B) False
Ans B Diff Hard Page 1105
23. We can control when we swallow food. This is a phase of deglutition:
(A) Voluntary phase (B) Pharyngeal phase (C) Esophageal phase (D) None of them
Ans A Diff Medium
Page 1107
24. Pick the correct statement:
(A) There are two regions of the stomach (B) Body is above the fundus (C) Pylorus connects the stomach to the duodenum (D) Raga controls stomach emptying
Ans C Diff Hard Page 1108
25. The stomach contents is acidic because of the presence of the:
(A) Hydrochloric acid (B) Hydrofluoric acid (C) Nitric acid
(D) Sulfuric acid
Ans A Diff Easy Page 1109
26. The production site of histamine:
(A) G cells of pyloric antrum (B) Stomach mucosa (C) Duodenum (D) Ileum
Ans B Diff Medium
Page 1110
27. Gastric secretion is inhibited by:
(A) Presence of chyme in duodenum (B) Presence of bolus in duodenum (C) Presence of chyme in ileum (D) Presence of bolus in ileum
Ans A
Moderate Page 1113
28. Nutrient rich blood from small intestine is transferred to liver via:
(A) Mesentery (B) Vagus nerves (C) Mesenteric vein (D) Hepatic portal vein
Ans D Diff Hard Page 1114
29. Intestinal gastrin is secreted by:
(A) G cells (B) I cells (C) K cells (D) M cells
Ans A Diff Medium
Page 1116
30. Peristalsis is secreted by:
(A) Gastrin (B) Motilin (C) ADH (D) Secretin
Ans B
Diff Hard
Page 1117
31. The cecum blend seamlessly with the:
(A) Appendix (B) Rectum (C) Colon (D) Anal canal
Ans C
Diff Easy Page 1119
32. The bacteria that cause no harm as long as they stay in lumen gut.
(A) Commensal (B) Parasitic (C) Symbiotic (D) None of them
Ans A Diff Moderate
Page 1121
33. Which one is incorrect for the hepatic sinusoid?
(A) Open (B) Porous (C) Oxygen deficit (D) Nutrient rich
Ans C Diff Medium Page 1125
34. The recycled breakdown products in liver:
(A) Carbohydrates and iodine (B) Iron and protein (C) Iodine and fats (D) None of them
Ans B
Diff Easy Page 1126
35. The working action of sodium bicarbonate for alkalinity of pancreatic juice includes:
(A) Buffers the acidic gastric juice in bolus (B) Inactivates pepsin from stomach (C) Buffers the acidic gastric juice in chyme (D) None of them
Ans C Diff Medium Page 1127
36. Sucrose splits sucrose into:
(A) Maltose and maltotriose (B) Glucose and galactose (C) Glucose and dextrose (D) Glucose and fructose
Ans D Diff Easy Page 1131
37. The source of nitrogenous bases:
(A) Proteins (B) Nucleic acids (C) Triglycerides (D) All of them
Ans B Diff Medium Page 1134
38. Vitamin A in intestine is absorbed by:
(A) Effusion (B) Osmosis (C) Diffusion (D) Facilitated diffusion
Ans C Diff Moderate Page 1138
24. METABOLISM AND NUTRITION
1. The breakdown of large molecules to smaller one:
(A) Anabolism (B) Catabolism (C) Metabolism (D) All of these
Ans B Diff Easy Page 1150
2.40% of energy in catabolism is given to:
(A) ADP (B) ATP (C) FAD (D) NAD
Ans B Diff Medium Page 1150
3. During catabolic reactions, proteins are broken down into:
(A) Amino acids (B) Monosaccharide (C) Fatty acids (D) Polysaccharides
Ans A Diff Easy Page 1152
4. The most common source of energy to fuel the body:
(A) Proteins (B) Carbohydrates (C) Lipids (D) Minerals
Ans B Diff Easy Page 1152
5. The hormone that stimulates the breakdown of glycogen in the liver to increase blood glucose levels:
(A) Cortisol (B) Insulin (C) Estrogen (D) Glucagon
Ans D Diff Hard Page 1153
6. Oxidation is:
(A) Loss of electron (B) Gain of electron (C) Small amount of energy is released (D) Both a & c
Ans D Diff Medium Page 1154
7. The component which is present in the form of chitin:
(A) Monosaccharide (B) Disaccharide (C) Oligosaccharide (D) Polysaccharide
Ans D Diff Medium
Page 1155
8. The final product of glycolysis:
(A) Glucose (B) pyruvate (C) Dihydroxy acetone (D) Fructose
Ans B Diff Easy
Page 1156
9. Enzyme that adds a phosphate molecule to a substrate:
(A) Aldolase (B) Hydrolases
(C) Isomerases (D) Kinases
Ans D Diff Medium Page 1159
10. In absence of oxygen, pyruvate is converted to:
(A) Lactic acid (B) Glucose (C) Citric acid (D) All of them
Ans A Diff Medium Page 1160
11. In TCA cycle, α-ketoglutrate is converted to:
(A) Fumarate (B) Isocitrate (C) Succinyl CoA (D) Succinate
Ans C Diff Hard Page 1162
12. The components used by electron transport chain for ATP generation:
(A) NADH (B) FADH (C) FADH2 (D) Both a & c
Ans D
Diff Medium Page 1163
13. Oxygen is mandatory for electron transport chain.
(A) True (B) False
Ans A Diff Easy Page 1163
14. In gluconeogenesis, PEP is converted to:
(A) Oxaloacetate (B) 2-phosphoglycerate (C) 3-phosphoglycerate (D) Glucose-6-phosphate
Ans B Diff Medium
Page 1166
15. The function performed by pancreatic lipases:
(A) Begin the lipid metabolism (B) Break triglycerides to smaller free fatty acids (C) Break down of fats without emulsification (D) Breakdown of fats after emulsification
Ans D Diff Hard
Page 1169
16. The site of occurrence of lipolysis:
(A) Mitochondria (B) Cytosol (C) Cytoplasm (D) Nucleus
Ans C
Diff Easy Page 1170
17. If citric acid cycle is overloaded, acetyl CoA diverts to:
(A) Ketone bodies (B) Aldehyde bodies (C) Acetone bodies (D) None of them
Ans A Diff Medium Page 1172
18. When β-hydroxybutyrate is oxidized to acetoacetate, energy is released in form of:
(A) ATP (B) NADH2 (C) NAD (D) NADH
Ans D Diff Hard
19. During lipogenesis:
Page 1172
(A) Oxaloacetate is directly converted to pyruvate (B) Oxaloacetate is converted to fumarate then to pyruvate (C) Oxaloacetate is converted to malate and then to puruvate (D) Acetate is converted to malate then pyruvate
Ans C Diff Hard Page 1173
20. Protein digestion begins in:
(A) Oral cavity (B) Stomach (C) Small intestine (D) Large intestine
Ans B Diff Easy Page 1175
21. Trypsin and chymotrypsin break down large proteins into smaller peptides, a process called chemolysis.
(A) True (B) False
Ans B Diff Easy Page 1175
22. Urea is formed by combination of:
(A) Ammonia and carbon dioxide (B) Ammonia and water (C) Ammonia and hydrogen
(D)
Ammonium and carbon dioxide
Ans A Diff Medium Page 1176
23. The source of energy during starvation:
(A) Carbohydrates (B) Fats (C) Proteins (D) Minerals
Ans C Diff Moderate Page 1178
24. The absorptive state is an indication of:
(A) Anabolism exceeding catabolism (B) Catabolism exceeding anabolism (C) Equilibrium metabolism (D) None of them
Ans A Diff Moderate
Page 1180
25. During less energy sources:
(A) Glycolysis proceed faster to produce more energy (B) Lipolysis stops (C) Breakdown of protein begins (D) Fatty acids are converted to get ATP
Ans D Diff Medium
Page 1185
26. The transfer of heat to the air surrounding the skin:
(A) Conduction (B) Convection (C) Radiation (D) Evaporation
Ans B Diff Easy Page 1187
27. The highest portion of My Plate is compose of:
(A) Fruits (B) Vegetables (C) Dairy (D) Grains
Ans B Diff Medium Page 1188
28. The vitamin that functions for blood clotting:
(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin D (C) Vitamin E (D) Vitamin K
Ans D Diff Medium
Page 1190
29. The vitamin that will move more easily in body fluids:
(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin C (C) Vitamin D (D) Vitamin K
Ans B Diff Easy Page 1189
30. Among trace minerals, transport of oxygen in blood is done by:
(A) Zinc (B) Copper (C) Iodine (D) Iron
Ans D Diff Hard Page 1193
25. The Urinary System
1. The percent of EPO produced to stimulate red blood cells production in the kidneys. (A) 75% (B) 85% (C) 95% (D) 100% Ans B
Diff Easy
2. The pH of normal urine: (A) 4.5-8.0 (B) 2.0-4.5
Page 1202
(C) 4.5-7.0 (D) 4.5-6.0 Ans A
Diff Medium
Page 1203
3. The oliguria is caused by: (A) Diabetes mellitus (B) Dehydration (C) Kidney failure (D) Obstruction Ans B
Diff Hard Page 1204
4. The by-product of fat metabolism: (A) Ketones (B) Aldehydes (C) Both a & b (D) None of them Ans A Diff Easy
Page 1205
5. Incontinence is sensed at: (A) 150ml (B) 200ml (C) 250ml (D) 300 ml Ans D Diff Medium Page 1207 6. The nerve that is not involved in control of urination: (A) Hypogastria (B) Vagus (C) Pelvic (D) Pudenda Ans B Diff Hard Page 1208 7. The length of the ureters: (A) 30cm
(B) 40cm (C) 50cm (D) 60 Ans A Diff Easy Page 1208 8. The renal fat pad is made up of: (A) Muscle tissue (B)
Layers of triglycerides (C) Adipose tissues (D) Proteins embedded with triglycerides Ans C Diff Moderate Page 1210
9. The inner region of the kidney: (A) Medulla (B) Cortex (C) Renal columns (D) Renal pyramids Ans A Diff Easy Page 1211 10. The function of the papillae involves: (A) Supportive framework for vessels (B) Storage of urine (C) Both a & b (D) Transport of urine Ans D Diff Moderate
Page 1211
11. The nephrons are responsible for: (A) Blood collection from major organs of the body (B) Blood cleansing (C) Filtration of blood based on particle size (D) All of them Ans B Diff Hard Page 1212 12. Calcium absorption is done by nephrons with help of:
(A) Rennin (B) EPO (C) Conversion of Calcitriol into calcidiol (D) Conversion of calcidiol into Calcitriol Ans D
Diff Medium Page 1214
13. The rate of filtration of glomerulus is aided by: (A) Fenestrations (B) Meningeal cells (C) Macula dense (D) Distal convoluted tubule Ans B Diff Hard Page 1215 14. Which one of the following stimulates the release of aldosterone? (A) Angiotensin 1 (B) Angiotensin 2 (C) Both a & b (D) Active rennin Ans B
Diff Medium Page 1216
15. The microvilli of proximal convoluted tubule increase the absorption of solutes such as:
(A) Glucose (B) Fructose (C) Calcium (D) Fluoride Ans A Diff Easy Page 1217 16. The majority of aquaporins are found in: (A) Liver (B) Kidney (C) Pancreas (D) None of them
Ans B Diff Medium Page 1218 17. Choose the correct option: (A) Hydrostatic pressure is the pressure produced by a fluid against a surface (B) GFR is influenced by the hydrostatic pressure only on either side of the capillary membrane of the glomerulus (C) The sum of both osmotic and hydrostatic results in a net filtration pressure (NFP) of about 20 mm Hg (D) NFP determines filtration rates through the liver Ans A Diff Hard Page 1220 18. The amount of water that is reabsorbed in proximal convoluted tubule: (A) 55% (B) 65% (C) 67% (D) 85% Ans C Diff Medium Page 1223 19. Simple diffusion needs a specific amount of energy to move a substance from higher to lower gradient. (A) 10 kJ (B) 20 kJ (C) 10 Kcal (D) None of them Ans D Diff Hard Page 1224 20. In obligatory water re absorption water follows: (A) Sodium (B) Potassium (C) Chloride (D) Glucose Ans A
Diff Easy Page 1225
22. The solute responsible for maintaining acid-base balance: (A) Sodium
(B) Carbonates (C) Carbonic anhydrase (D) Bicarbonates Ans D Diff Moderate
Page 1226
23. The Na+/K + ATPase pumps in the basal membrane create an electrochemical gradient allowing reabsorption of sodium by Na+ /Cl symporters in the apical membrane. (A) True (B) False Ans B Diff Medium
Page 1227
24. The by-product of the protein metabolism: (A) Ammonia (B) Ammonium (C) Amides (D) All of them Ans A
Diff Medium Page 1228
25. The absorbance of acid is done by: (A) Principal cell (B) Intercalated cell (C) Both a & b (D) None of them Ans B Diff Easy Page 1229 26. The regulation of the blood flow in kidney when dependent on smooth muscles: (A) Auto regulation (B) Tubuloglomerular feedback (C) Myogenic mechanism (D) Auto regulation Ans C Diff Moderate
Page 1231
27. Which one of the following is the salt retaining hormone? (A) ADH
(B) Cortisol (C) Aldosterone (D) Endothein Ans C
Diff Medium
Page 1232
29. Circulating calcium levels are decreased by: (A) Aldosterone (B) Parathyroid hormone (C) Natriuretic hormone (D) Endothelia Ans B
Diff Moderate Page 1233
30. Urine volume is increased by: (A) ANH (B) ADH (C) Aldosterone (D) Diuretics Ans D
Diff Easy Page 1234
31. The ion that aids in digestion: (A) Sodium (B) potassium (C) chlorine (D) fluorine Ans C
Diff Easy Page 1235
32. Osteomalacia may occur due to deficiency of: (A) Vitamin D (B) Calcium (C) Hydrogen (D) Both a & b Ans D
Diff Moderate
Page 1236
26. Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
1. The water content is lowest in: (A) Teeth (B) Heart (C) Bones (D) Kidney Ans A
Diff Easy Page 1249
2. The fluid that is not present in blood: (A) Intracellular fluid (B) Extracellular fluid (C) Interstitial fluid (D) Plasma Ans C
Diff Medium
Page 1249
3. The sodium potassium pumps works with the help of: (A) ATP (B) ADP (C) FAD (D) NAD Ans A Diff Hard Page 1252 4. The hydrostatic pressure is important for governing the movement of water in nephrons of the kidney because: (A) It ensure filtration of solutes (B) It ensure filtration of blood (C) Both a & b (D) It ensure maintenance of pH Ans B
Diff Medium Page 1253
5. The molecules that do not slip across the cell membrane: (A) Gases (B) Lipids (C) Water (D) Glucose Ans D
Diff Medium Page 1254
6. Plasma osmolality is the ratio of: (A) Solutes to water in liver (A) Solutes to water in platelets (B) Solutes to water in blood plasma (C) None of them Ans C
Diff Easy Page 1256
7. Insufficient water in body: (A) Increases blood volume (B) Increases blood osmolality (C) Increases blood pressure (D) Decrease angiotensin 2 Ans B Diff Hard Page 1257 8. A normal urine is reestablished after about: (A) 3 hours (A) 30 minutes (B) 1 hour (C) 45 minutes Ans A Diff Easy Page 1258 9. Which of the following act as diuretics? (A) Probiotics (B) Salts (C) Sugars (D) Alcohols
Ans D Diff Medium
Page 1259
10. Hypernatremia is: (A) Abnormal increase in blood calcium (B) Abnormal increase in blood sodium (C) Abnormal increase in blood glucose (D) Abnormal increase in potassium Ans B Diff Easy Page 1260 11. The recommendation of potassium is: (A) 2000mg (B) 2500mg (C) 4500mg (D) 4700mg Ans D Diff Moderate Page 1261 12. Partial depolarization of plasma membrane from skeletal muscles results from: (A) Low potassium level (B) High potassium level (C) Low chlorine level (D) High chlorine levels Ans B Diff Hard Page 1261 13. The causes of hyperchloremia include: (A) Dehydration (B) Excess intake of NaCl (C) Cystic fibrosis (D) All of these Ans D Diff Easy Page 1261 14. Carbon dioxide when combine with in cytoplasm of red blood cells forms: (A) Salts of carbonates (B) Hydrogen carbonate (C) Bicarbonates
(D) Hydrocarbons Ans C
Diff Hard Page 1261
15. Calcium is absorbed in intestine under the influence of: (A) Vitamin A (A) Vitamin D (B) Vitamin E (C) Vitamin K Ans B Diff Medium
Page 1262
16. Aldosterone is released from adrenal cortex when: (A) Blood potassium level rises (B) Blood sodium level falls (C) Blood sodium rises (D) Both a & b Ans D
Diff Medium
Page 1263
17. Angiotensin II causes vasodilation and an increase in systemic blood pressure. (A) True (B) False Ans B Diff Hard Page 1263 18. The baking soda has pH: (A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 10 Ans C Diff Easy Page 1265 19. Hydrogen ions liberated during bicarbonate formation is buffered by: (A) HCl present in stomach (B) Sodium salt present in body fluids (C) Glucose levels (D) Hemoglobin
Ans D Diff Moderate
Page 1266
20. Which of the following is incorrect about acidosis? (A) More respiration rate (B) Less blood CO2 (C) pH is increased (D) More blood H2CO3 Ans D Diff Hard Page 1267 21. Symptoms of alkalosis include: (A) Cognitive impairment (B) Lethargy (C) Headache (D) Confusion Ans A Diff Hard Page 1269 22. The metabolite involve in cause of uremia: (A) Bicarbonate (B) Increased ketones (C) Lactic acid (D) Propionic acid Ans C Diff Medium
Page 1270
23. Respiratory acidosis may be cause by: (A) Excess water (B) Excess oxygen (C) Both a & b (D) Excess carbon dioxide Ans D Diff Easy
Page 1271
24. Respiratory alkalosis occurs: (A) Excess of carbon dioxide (B) Deficiency of carbon dioxide (C) Excess of water
(D) None of them Ans B Diff Easy Page 1271 25. The metabolite that may cause diarrhea: (A) Phosphoric acid (B) Sulfuric acid (C) Lactic acid (D) None of above Ans A
Diff Medium
Page 1270
26. pH is increased in: (A) Metabolic acidosis (B) Respiratory acidosis (C) Metabolic alkalosis (D) Both a & b Ans C Diff Hard Page 1272 27. Total bicarbonates are decreased in metabolic acidosis. (A) True (B) False Ans A
Diff Medium
Page 1272
28. Respiratory compensation for metabolic acidosis increases the respiratory rate to drive off CO 2 and readjust the bicarbonate to carbonic acid ratio to: (A) 1:20 (B) 20:1 (C) 10:1 (D) 1:15 Ans B
Diff Easy
Page 1271
29. Decreased levels of potassium in blood is termed as: (A) Hypokalemia (B) Hypochloremia (C) Hypernatremia
(D) Hypophosphatemia Ans A Diff Medium Page 1273 30. In cases of respiratory alkalosis the kidneys decrease the production of bicarbonate and reabsorb---------- from the tubular fluid.
(A) Calcium (B) Hydrogen (C) Oxygen (D) None of them Ans B Diff Easy Page 1272
27. The Reproductive System
1. The number of chromosome carried by gametes:
(A) 23 (B) 24 (C) 25 (D) 26
Ans A Diff Easy Page 1280
2. The sperm production is effective when temperature of testes is:
(A) 1-5 (B) 2-5 (C) 2-4
(D) 4-10
Ans C Diff Medium
Page 1281
3. The structures formed by septa:
(A) Tubules (B) Lobules (C) Gonads (D) None of them
Ans B Diff Easy Page 1282
4. The signals to promote sperm production are given by:
(A) Seminiferous tubules (B) Lobules (C) Sertoli cells (D) Septa
Ans C Diff Medium Page 1283
5. How many days are required to form sperm from spermatogenia?
(A) 40 days (B) 50 days (C) 54 days (D) 64 days
Ans D Diff Easy Page 1284
6. The chromosome pairs separate during:
(A) Mitosis (B) Meiosis 1 (C) Meiosis 2 (D) None of them
Ans B Diff Medium Page 1284
7. Female gamete has more volume than male sperm.
(A) True (B) False
Ans A Diff Easy
Page 1285
8. The mid piece of the sperm is filled by:
(A) Loose mitochondria (B) Tight mitochondria (C) Acrosomes (D) Mesosome
Ans B Diff Medium Page 1285
9. The accessory gland responsible for semen production:
(A) Seminal vesicle (B) Pituitary gland (C) Thyroid gland (D) Parathyroid gland
Ans A Diff Hard
Page 1286
10. The shaft of the penis surrounds the:
(A) Uterus (B) Ureters (C) Urethra (D) None of them
Ans C Diff Easy Page 1288
11. The part of penis that has a dense concentration of nerve endings that influence the likelihood of ejaculation:
(A) glans penis (B) corpus cavernosum (C) prepuce (D) none of them
Ans A Diff Medium
Page 1288
12. The amount of testosterone produced by cells per day:
(A) 5-6mg
(B) 6-7mg (C) 7-9mg (D) 10-11
Ans B
Diff Medium
Page 1289
13. When GnRH binds to its receptors posterior pituitary secretes:
(A) LH (B) FSH (C) Estrogen (D) Both a &b
Ans D Diff Hard
Page 1290
14. The gamete produce by female is termed as:
(A) Sperm (B) Semen (C) Ovary (D) Oocyte
Ans D Diff Easy Page 1291
15. The fat that is located over the pubic bone:
(A) Mons pubis (B) Labia majora (C) Clitoris
(D) Hymen
Ans A Diff Medium
Page 1292
16. The membrane that covers the entrance of vagina:
(A) Mons pubis (B) Clitoris (C) Hymen (D) Labia majora
Ans C
Diff Easy
Page 1292
17. The entrance of the reproductive tract is of length:
(A) 9 cm (B) 10cm (C) 11cm (D) 12cm
Ans B Diff Medium
18. pH of vagina is maintained by:
(A) citric acid (B) acetic acid (C) lactic acid (D) nitric acid
Page 1293
Ans C Diff Easy
Page 1293
19. The release of an oocyte from the ovary:
(A) Oogonia (B) Oogenesis (C) Ovulation (D) None of them
Ans C
Diff Easy
Page 1294
20. Nutrients to zygote is supplied by:
(a) Cytosol (b) Nucleus (c) Golgi apparatus (d) Cytoplasm
Ans D Diff Medium Page 1295
21. The development of ovarian follicles is termed as:
(A) Gametogenesis (B) Folliculogenesis (C) Oogeneis (D) None of them
Ans B Diff Easy Page 1295
22. In leutinization the collapsed follicle is changed in to:
(A) Corpus albicans (B) Ampulla (C) Corpus luteum (D) Fimbriae
Ans C Diff Hard
Page 1300
23. The inferior of the uterus that projects into the vagina:
(A) Cervix (B) Fundus (C) Uterus (D) Body of uterus
Ans A Diff Medium
Page 1301
24. The exterior portion of the uterus is covered by:
(A) Myometrium (B) Endometrium (C) Permetrium (D) None of them
Ans C Diff Easy Page 1302
25. The menses phase occurs when:
(A) LH levels are high (B) LH levels are low (C) FSH levels are high (D) Progesterones are high
Ans B
Diff Medium
Page 1302
26. After the cessation of menses the phase that begins:
(A) Proliferative phase (B) Secretory phase (C) Dormant phase (D) None of them
Ans A Diff Easy
Page 1304
27. There are ----------------- lactiferous duct that open on a surface of the nipple:
(A) 10-20 (B) 15-20 (C) 20-30 (D) 30-40
Ans B Diff Medium Page 1306
28. Skipping of the birth control pill decrease the production of FSH and LH.
(A) True (B) False
Ans B Diff Hard
Page 1307
29. The production of LH become detectable at the age of:
(A) 5-6 (B) 7-8 (C) 8-9 (D) 10-12
Ans C Diff Medium
Page 1310
30. The signs of the development of secondary sex characters in males does not include:
(A) Increased muscular development (B) Deepening of voice (C) Deposition of fat (D) Pubic hair
Ans C Diff Medium
Page 1311
31. In males, the first fertile ejaculation occurs at the age of:
(A) 12 (B) 13 (C) 14 (D) 15
Ans D Diff Easy Page 1312
28. Development and Inheritance
1. Fertilization occurs: (A) Fusion of cytoplasm (B) Fusion of nuclei (C) Fusion of cytosol (D) None of them Ans B
Diff Easy
Page 1320
2. The life of a sperm in uterine tube: (A) 30 minutes to 2 hours (B) 24 hours (C) 3-5 days (D) 5-10 days Ans C
Diff Medium
Page 1320
3. The splitting of zygote occurs at: (A) Meiosis (B) Mitosis (C) Both a & b (D) Blastocyte stage Ans D Diff Moderate Page 1322 5. Typical IVF begin with: (A) Egg collection (B) Administering a course of gonadotrophins (C) Sperm washing (D) Sperm counting Ans A Diff Easy
Page 1323
6. The daughter cell produced by cleavage is termed as: (A) Blastocyst
(B) Blastocoel (C) Blastomere (D) Placenta Ans C 7.
Diff Medium
Page 1325
The blastocyst that fails to implant: (A) Retained in the body
(B)
Shed alone with menses (C) Both a & b (D) Shed with the endometrium during menses Ans D
Diff Medium Page 1326
8. The function of human chronic gonadotropin: (A) Inhibit the production of progesterone (B) Inhibit the production of estrogen (C) Enable corpus luteum to survive (D) Shortens the corpus luteum Ans C Diff Hard
Page 1327
9. A primitive excretory duct of the embryo that will become part of urinary bladder: (A) Yolk (B) Allantois (C) Chorion (D)Hypoblast Ans B Diff Moderate
Page 1330
10. A sheet of the cells that displaces the hypoblast and lies adjacent to the yolk sac is termed as: (A) Endoderm (B) Mesoderm (C) Ectoderm (D) All of above Ans A Diff Medium
Page 1330
11. The cells that are less organized and are loosely connected
(A) Endodermal cells (B) Mesodermal cells (C) Endodermal cells (D) None of them
Ans B
Diff Easy
Page 1331
12. Oxygenated blood and wastes are carried from the fetus through two umbilical arteries. (A) True (B) False Ans B
Diff Hard
Page 1332
13. Placentation is completed by: (A) 10-14 weeks (B) 12-15 weeks (C) 14-16 weeks (D) 16-20 weeks Ans C Diff Medium
Page 1333
14. The FASD include: (A) Organ malformations (B) Facial malformations (C) Behavioral disorders (D)
All of them Ans D
Diff Easy
Page 1333
15. The endocrine functions of placenta include: (A) Diffusion of maternal glucose (B) Stores nutrients during pregnancy (C) Mediates the transmission of maternal hormones (D) Excretes the filters Ans C Diff Hard
Page 1334
16. The neuroectodermal tissue thickens in to:
(A) Neural plate (B) Neural fold (C) Notochord (D) None of them Ans A Diff Easy Page 1334
17. The component that is important to the heath of neural tube: (A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin D (C) Folate (D) Vitamin K Ans C
Diff Medium
Page 1334
18. The primitive gut is lined by: (A) Endoderm (B) Ectoderm (C) Mesoderm (D) None of them Ans A Diff Easy
Page 1335
19. The uncontrolled fetal limb movements begin to occur: (A) Sixth week (B) Seventh week (C) Eight week (D) Ninth week Ans A
Diff Medium
Page 1336
20. Wollfian ducts degenerate during: (A) Male fetal development (B) Female fetal development (C) Do not degenerate in any case (D) None of them
Ans B
Diff Medium
Page 1337
21. A surgical diversion that allows blood flow to bypass immature organs such as lungs and liver (A): (A) Cardiovascular shortcuts (B) Circulatory shortcuts (C) Shunts (D) None of above Ans C Diff Easy
Page 1338
22. A shunt that directly connects the right and left atria and avoids the pulmonary trunk altogether
(A) Foreman ovale (B)Ductus venosus (C)Ductuc arteriosus (D)All of them Ans A
Diff Hard
Page 1339
23. Sensory organ development occurs in: (A) 19-12 (B) 13-16 (C) 16-20 (D) 20-24 Ans B
Diff Medium
Page 1340
24. The silky hairs that covers the fetus and sheds when fetus grow: (A) Meconium (B) Vernix caseosa (C) Lanugo (D) None of them Ans C Diff Medium
Page 1340
25. The average length of the fetus at birth: (A) 40cm (B) 45cm
(C) 50cm (D) 51 cm Ans D
Diff Easy
Page 1340
26. The period from conception to birth: (A) 200 days (B) 270 days (C) 150 days (D) 160 days Ans B Diff Easy
Page 1341
27. Involution is: (A) Returning of uterus to its pre-pregnancy size (B) Vaginal discharge (C)
Stretching of vaginal canal (D) Detachment of placenta Ans A Diff Hard
Page 1347
28. Brown adipose tissues are located in: (A) Chest (B) Shoulders (C) Back (D) All of them Ans D Diff Easy Page 1349 29. The montegomantary glands functions: (A) Maintenance of the breast milk supply (B)
Oil secretion for cleansing (C) Prevent chapping during breast feeding (D) Both b & c Ans D
Diff Medium
Page 1351
30. The milk delivered towards the end of the feeding:
(A) Foremilk (B) Hindmilk (C) Colostrums (D) None of them Ans B Diff Easy Page 1353 31. The offspring express a heterozygous phenotype that is intermediate between one parent homozygous dominant trait and the other parent homozygous recessive trait. (A) Incomplete dominance (B) Complete dominance (C) Co-dominance (D) None of them Ans A Diff Moderate
Page 1361