Implantology mcqs final (3)

MCQ QUESTION BANK 2012 IV BDS – IMPLANTOLOGY BD4J Multiple choice questions 30x1= 30 marks

1. Density of available bone in an edentulous site has a primary influence on: a. Healing time b. Surgical approach c. Implant design d. All the above

(d)

2. Requirement necessary for initial rigid fixation in implant. a. Absence of movement at the interface during healing b. Atraumatic bone preparation c. Close approximation of living bone to the biocompatible implant surface d. All the above

(d)

3. Who listed four bone qualities found in the anterior region of jaw bone? a. Branemark b. Lekholm and Zarb c. Hounfield d. Misch

(b)

4. According to Misch, region that considered in anterior maxilla as one type of bone density: a. Canine to canine b. 1st premolar to 1st premolar c. 2nd premolar to 2nd premolar d. Lateral incisor to lateral incisor

(c)

5. Lekholm and Zarb listed bone quality according to which region? a. Anterior and posterior region of maxilla and mandible b. Anterior region of maxilla and mandible c. Posterior region of maxilla and mandible d. Anterior of maxilla and posterior of mandible

(b)

6. Bone density MOST precisely determined before surgery by _________________. a. Periapical radiograph b. Lateral cephalometric image c. Computed tomography d. OPG

(c)

7. What can be determined during implant osteotomy? a. Density of trabecular bone b. Presence of a crestal cortical bone c. Thickness of crestal cortical bone d. All the above

(d)

8. Presence of cortical bone is true , except a. Increase overall strength b. Increase modulus of elasticity c. Decrease resorption d. D4 has little or no cortical bone

(c)

9. Strength of the bone from strong to weak. a. D2, D4, D1, D3 b. D1, D2, D3, D4 c. D4, D3, D2, D1 d. D3, D1, D4, D2

(b)

10. Histological composition of D1 bone: a. Dense lamellar bone b. Complete haversian system c. Highly mineralized d. All the above

(d)

11. Method of preventing overheating during osteotomy, except a. 50ml/min of sterile physiologic saline b. Intravenous dextrose solution( D W) c. Intermittent pressure on drill d. Distilled water

12. Factors related to heat generated during implant osteotomy, except a. Amount of bone being prepared b. Amount of bleeding c. Drill speed

(d)

d. Variation in cortical thicknes

(b)

13. Reason of using bone tap in D1 bone a. Allow passive implant fit b. Removes drill remnants c. Short of full osteotomy depth d. All the above

(d)

14. How much higher the temperature from normal (40°C) can caused necrosis of the bone? a. 1°C b. 3°C c. 4°C d. 5°C

(b)

15. Following colour of bone shaving is true, except a. Yellowish indicates healthy bone b. Beige colouration indicates excessive heat being generated c. Brownish indicates bone cell death d. Reddish indicates vital bone

16. Bone tap should used with a _______________ in D1 bone a. Handpiece b. Surgical mallet and irrigation

(a)

c. Hand ratchet and irrigation d. Hand wrench and irrigation

(c)

17. Ideal implant length for D1 bone using 4mm diameter implant a. 8mm b. 10mm c. 12mm d. 13mm

(c)

18. Blood supply for D1 bone is from ____________ a. Blood vessels b. Bone marrow c. Periosteum d. Lymphatic

(c)

19. Advantages of D2 bone, except a. Provides excellent implant interface healing b. Copious cooled sterile is not needed c. Allow more bleeding d. Provides initial rigid interface

20. Duration for healing of D2 bone

(b)

a. 1 month b. 4 months c. 6 months d. 12 months

(b)

21. Duration of time required for bone healing from short to long duration: a. D4, D3, D2, D1 b. D1, D2, D3, D4 c. D2, D3, D4, D1 d. D1, D4, D3, D2

(a)

22. Higher risk to lower risk of overheating during osteotomy preparation: a. D4, D3, D2, D1 b. D1, D2, D3, D4 c. D2, D3, D4, D1 d. D1, D4, D3, D2

(b)

23. Disadvantages of D3 bone a. Anterior maxilla often is narrow b. Oversize by mistake c. One time implant placement d. All the above

24. Final size drills, number and speed for D3 bone

(d)

a. Increase number in sequence Increase speed 2500 rpm b. Manufacturer’s protocol 1500-2500rpm c. Decrease final size, decrease number 2500 rpm d. Minimum number, decrease final size, Osteotome

(c)

25. Time frame for atraumatic healing for D3 bone: a. 2 months and more b. 3 months and more c. 4 months and more d. 5 months and more

(d)

26. Disadvantage of D4 bone, except, a. implant need coating b. one time implant placed c. increased find width and length d. additional implant indicated

(c)

27. For D4, ___________ are used after the initial pilot drill to prepare the osteotomy. a. Bone compaction b. Bone tap

c. Handpiece d. Surgical mallet

(a)

28. Reason that caused more time for healing of D4 bone, except a. Amount of osteoblast is less b. Allow bone to remodel at the surface c. To intensify its trabecular pattern d. Advanced bone mineralization and increased strength

(a)

29. Implant choice I the wide posterior maxilla with D4 bone, except a. Greater diameter b. Smaller diameter c. Rougher surface d. H-A coated threaded

30.ADVANTAGES OF IMPLANT SUPPORTED OVERDENTURES ARE: a.

MINIMUM BONE LOSS

b.

DECREASED OCCLUSAL EFFICIENCY

c.

INCREASED PROSTHESIS SIZE

d.

LESS SUPPORT

ANS: A 31) A PROSTHESIS WITH HINGE AND APICAL MOVEMENT IS: a.

PM-1

b.

PM-2

c.

PM-3

(b)

d.

PM -4

ANS: C 32) A PM-4 IS RARELY CREATED WITH AN OVERDENTURE SYSTEM BECAUSE OF: a.

RANGE OF MOTION

b.

RESTORATION MAY BE REMOVED

c.

EXPENSIVE

d.

BOTH a. AND b.

ANS: D 33) ANTERIOR MANDIBLE IS THE PREFERRED SITE BECAUSE OF: a.

RETENTION

b.

GREATEST AVAILABLE HEIGHT

c.

OPTIMUM DENSITY OF BONE

d.

ALL OF THE ABOVE

ANS: D 34) THE TYPE OF ATTACHMENT USED IN OD- 1 IS a.

O- RING DESIGN

b.

DOLDER BAR

c.

HADER BAR

d.

CLIP ATTACHMENT

ANS: A 35) PATIENT SELECTION CRITERIA FOR OD-1 IS: a.

TAPERED ARCH FORM

b.

COST

c.

IMPROVED HYGIENE

d.

ADDITIONAL IMPLANTS TO BE INSERTED IN 3YRS TIME

e.

ALL THE ABOVE

ANS: E 36) DISADVANTAGE OF THE OD-1 COMPARED TO OTHERS: a.

SUPPORT AND STABILITY

b.

EASY MAINTENANCE

c.

BONE LOSS

d.

NONE OF THE ABOVE

ANS: A

37 ) PROSTHESIS MIGHT NOT ENGAGE ONE IMPLANT PROPERLY BECAUSE OF: a.

IMPROPER ANGULATION

b.

EQUAL DISTANCE

c.

IMPROPER HEIGHT

d.

NONE OF THE ABOVE

ANS: A 38) FOR IDEAL INSERTION AND FUNCTION THE TWO IMPLANTS SHOULD BE: a.

PARALLEL

b.

PERPENDICULAR TO THE OCCLUSAL PLANE

C.

EQUAL DISTANCE OFF THE MIDLINE

D.

ALL THE ABOVE

ANS: d 39) ADVANTAGE OF OD-1 OVER OD-2 IS:

ANS: C

a.

DECREASED COST

b.

ATTACHMENT OF CANTILEVER BAR

c.

REDUCED LOADING FORCES

d.

INCREASED RESORPTION

40) THE ADVANTAGE OF PLACING CLIPS NEAR THE IMPLANT IS: a.

PREVENTS THE ROTATION OF THE PROSTHESIS

b.

RETENTION

c.

BETTER ATTACHMENT ON A CURVED BAR

d.

NONE OF THE ABOVE

ANS: A

41)

THE DISTANCE BETWEEN A & E IMPLANT REPRESENTS A SPAN OF: a.

4 TEETH

b.

7 TEETH

c.

6 TEETH

d.

8 TEETH

ANS: C 42)

INCREASE IN SUPERSTRUCTURE MOVEMENT MAY RESULT IN: a.

POOR RETENTION

b.

FLEXIBILITY

c.

ROTATION

d.

LOOSENING OF THE COPING SCREWS

ANS: D 43)

THE FLEXURE OF SUPERSTRUCTURE IS

ANS: C

a.

7 times

b.

6 times

c.

5 times

d.

2 times

GREATER THAN B&D LOCATIONS

44)

THE ADVANTAGE OF IMPLANTS AT A&E OVER B&D ARE: a.

GREATER POTENTIAL LOAD PER SURFACE AREA

b.

MORE LATERAL STABILITY

c.

INCREASED BITE FORCE POSTERIORLY

d.

ALL THE ABOVE

ANS: D 45)

USE OF ADDITIONAL IMPLANT CAUSES: a.

INCREASED COST

b.

BONE RESORPTION

c.

DECREASE IMPLANT and PROSTHETIC RISKS

d.

LESS MOVEMENTS

ANS: C 46)

RISK FACTORS IN TREATMENT OPTION: a.

LENGTH OF EDENTULOUS SPAN

b.

POSITION OF CONNECTING BAR

c.

FORCES ON ABUTMENTS

d.

FLEXURE OF METAL SPAN

e.

ALL OF THE ABOVE

ANS: E 47) IN OVERDENTURE OPTION-3 THREE ROOT FORM IMPLANTS ARE PLACED AT:

ANS: C

a.

B , D &E POSITIONS

b.

C, D& E POSITIONS

c.

A, C & E POSITIONS

d.

A, D & E POSITIONS

48) ADVANTAGES OF 3 ROOT IMPLANTS OVER B&D ARE: a.

LESS SCREW LOOSENING

b.

SIXFOLD REDUCTION IN SUPERSTRUCTURE FLEXURE

c.

INCREASED FORCES

d.

BOTH a & b

ANS: D 49)

THE TREATMENT OPTION FOR PATIENTS WITH RETENTION & STABILITY AS PRIMARY CONCERN IS: a.

OD-1

b.

OD- 2

c.

OD- 3

d.

OD- 4

ANS: C 50)

IF THE POSTERIOR RIDGE FORM IS POOR , THE BEST PLACE FOR IMPLANT POSITIONS ARE: a.

ABC POSITION

b.

BCD POSITION

c.

CDE POSITION

d.

BCE POSITION

ANS: B 51)

OD-4 PROVIDESSUFFICIENT SUPPORT TO INCLUDE A DISTAL CANTILEVER UPTO a.

5mm ON EACH SIDE

b.

5mm ON ONE SIDE AND 6mm ON THE OTHER SIDE

c.

10mm ON EACH SIDE

d.

12mm ON EACH SIDE

ANS: C 52)

THE ONLY FACTOR TO DETERMINE THE LENGTH OF THE CANTILEVER IS: a.

RIDGE EXTENSION

b.

NUMBER OF IMPLANTS

c.

QUALITY OF THE RIDGE

d.

A-P SPREAD

ANS: D 53) FOR OD-4 THE CANTILEVER MAY BE a.

3 TIMES

b.

1.5 TIMES

c.

2 TIMES

d.

NONE OF THE ABOVE

TIMES THE A-P SPREAD:

ANS: B 54)

THE TREATMENT OPTION FOR CONTINUED BONE LOSS AND DEMANDING PATIENT WILL BE a.

OD- 3

b.

OD- 4

c.

OD- 5

d.

NONE OF THE ABOVE

ANS: C

55. Following are the patients factors affecting the stress environment of implant, except:A)crown-height space B)arch position C)shape of arch D)nature of opposing arch Ans-c 56. Parafunctional forces are due to

a) Functional tooth contact b) No tooth contact c) Non functional tooth contact d) None Ans-c 57. The clinical signs of bruxism includes:a)increase in size of temporal and masseter muscle b) deviation of lower jaw on opening c) scalloped border of tongue d) a and b ans- d 58. The most common complication of implant prosthesis restored along “pathway of distruction� in a bruxism patient are:a) Crestal bone loss b) Periodontal problem c) Alveolar bone fracture d) None Ans a 59. Fatigue fractures of implant prosthesis along the fatigue curve are common in:a. Severe attrition b. Opposing restorations c. Parafunctional habits d. None Ans- c

60. The most commonest clinical sign of parafunctional habit are:a) Vertical fracture of root b)

Vertical fracture of crown

c)

Horizontal cervical abfraction lines

d)

Horizontal fracture of crown

Ans- c 61. The commonest cause of implant failure in a soft tissue supported prosthesis are:a) Skeletal discrepancies b) Poor oral hygiene c) Parafunction d) Occlusal anomalies Ans- c 62. The ideal crown height space required for a fixed implant prosthesis ranger from:a) 6-10 mm b) 8-12mm c) 3-4 mm d) 4-6 mm Ans- b 63. Crown height space in implant dentistry is measured from:a) From occlusal table to subgingival margins b) From occlusal plane to crest of the bone c) From cusp tip to subgingival margin d) From cusp tip to crest of bone Ans- b

64. Excessive crown height space, a) Cause excessive stress on crestal bone leading to implant failure b) Increase mechanical complications in fixed prosthesis c)

Results from excessive vertical loss of alveolar bone

d) All of the above Ans- d 65. Surgical treatment of excessive crown height:a) Bone augmentation b) Distraction osteogenesis c) Bone graft d) All the above Ans- d 66. Maximum bite forces are greater in:a) Anterior region of region of jaw b) Posterior region of jaw c) Both are equal Ans-b 67. Masticatory muscle dynamics depends on a) Age b) Sex c) Diet d) All the above Ans- d 68. The ideal arch position for an implant placement

a) Posterior maxilla b) Anterior maxilla c) Posterior mandible d) Anterior mandible Ans – d 69. The arch position which is at risk for failure of an implant (least favourable) a) Posterior maxilla b) Posterior mandible c) Anterior maxilla d) Anterior mandible Ans – a 70. The best method to reduce the risk of biomechanical overload on implant is to a) Increase the tissue support area b) Increase the number of implant c) Increase the surface area of implant d) Decrease in the diameter of the implant Ans – b 71. The muscle that is more often over used by a bruxing or clenching patient a) Masseter b) Temporalis c) Lateral pterygoid d) Medial pterygoid Ans – c 72. Common cause of implant failure during healing

a) Infection b) Suppuration c) Parafunction d) Poor oral hygiene Ans – c 73. Creep (deformation of material) is seen mainly in a) Bruxism b) Clenching c) Tongue thrusting d) All the above Ans – b 74. Stresses during clenching episodes can be reduced by a) Surgical covering of implants with soft tissue during healing b) Using night guard with acrylic shell and soft resilient liner c) Relieving the high stress area d) None Ans – b 75. Nonfunctional wear facets on incisal edges may occur in a) Clenching b) Tongue thrusting c) Bruxism d) All the above Ans – a 76. Bruxism patient is at greater risk of fatigue fracture because

a) The magnitude of forces increases over time as muscles become stronger b) The number of cycles increases on prosthetic component c) Both a and b d) None Ans – c 77. Implant treatment plan when inserted in posterior region in a bruxism patient a) Additional implants that are wider in diameter b) Additional implants that are shorter in diameter c) By avoiding posterior interferences during excursions d) Both a and c e) Both b and c Ans – d 78. Benefits of eliminating posterior lateral occlusal contacts during excursive movements in bruxism patient are a) Because lateral forces increases stress at implant bone interfaces b) Elimination diminishes the negative effect of angle forces during bruxism c) All muscle fibers during excursions contract and place higher forces on anterior implants d) All the above Ans – d 79. Force magnifiers includes a) Screw b) Pulley c) Inclined plane d) Lever

e) All the above Ans – e 80. Bite force acting on each tooth a) 20 – 30 psi b) 30 – 40 psi c) 50 – 55 psi d) 60 – 70 psi Ans – a 81. Patient factors that are absolute contraindication for an implant prosthesis a) Bruxism b) Clenching c) Tongue thrusting d) None Ans – d 82. Indicated fixed prosthesis for an excessive crown – height space a) FP 1 b) FP2 c) FP3 d) All of the above Ans – c

83. Perioral forces of tongue and circum load musculature may generate low but frequent ______ on implant abutment.

a. Harizontal load

b. Virtual load c. Occlusal load d. All the above Ans: a 84.

Dominant clinical loading axis exist in implant dentistry is

a. Mesiodistal b. Faciolingual c. Occlusoapial d. All the above Ans: d 85.

The Process by which 3 dimensional forces are broken down into their component parts is

referred to

a. Lateral loading b. Vector resolution c. Implant failure d. None of the above Ans: b

86.

Shear forces on implant causes

a. Pushing b. Tension c. Pulling d. Sliding Ans: d

87.

Offset loading on single tooth or multiple abutment restoration results in

a. bone loss

b. Shear forces c. Implant failure d. Bending load Ans: d

88.

Magnitude of stress depends on

a. Force b. Cross sectional area over force is dissipated c. Both a &b d. Implant placement Ans: c

89.

Magnitude of the force may be decreased by reducing

a. Cantilever length b. Offset loads c. Crown height d. All the above Ans: d

90.

A functional cross – sectional area is defined as that surface that participates significantly in load

bearing of stress dissipation may be optimized by

a. Increasing the number of implants for a given edentulous site b. Decreasing the circumference areas c. Decreasing the implant height d. None of the above Ans: a

91.

Load applied to a dental implant may induce

a. Displacement b. Mobility c. Deformation d. Pain Ans: c

92.

Poisson’s ratio (u) for tensile loading is

a. Lateral Strain / Axial Strain b. Axial Strain / Lateral Strain c. Axial Strain / Tenside Strain d. Tensile Strain / Axial Strain Ans: a

93.

Excessively long cantilever bridge or bar sections may result in

a. Bone resorption b. Prosthetic screw loosening c. Bridge or bar fracture d. All the above Ans: d

94.

Which arch form has the longest cantilever design?\

a. Square arch b. Tapered arch c. Rectangular arch d. Square & Tapered arch

Ans: b

95.

The stress level below which and implant biomaterial can be loaded indefinitely is referred to

a. Stress limit b. Fatigue limit c. Endurance limit d. None of the above Ans: c

96

Magnitude of loads on dental implants can be reduced by careful consideration of

a. Size of implant b. Length of implant c. Bone density d. Arch position Ans: d

97.

-------- tend to maintain the integrity of a bone implant interface

a. Compressive force b. tensile force c. Shear force d. All the above Ans: a

98.

Corticol bone is weakest in

a. Tensile force b. Compressive force

c. Shear force d. None of the above Ans: c

99.

The manner in which a force is distributed over a surface is referred to as

a. Strain b. Mechanical stress c. Occlusal load d. All the above Ans: b

100.

Peak Stressor occur when the stress element is positioned in a particular orientation in which all

shear stress components are

a. Above 90o b. Below 90o c. Zero d. Above 45o Ans: c

101.

Elongation of biomaterials used for surgical dental implants ranger from

a. 0 – 55 b. 10 – 20 c. 15 – 40 d. 60 – 72 Ans: a

102..

Titanium is less flexible than

a. Alveolar bone b. Surrounding tissue c. Cortical bone d. All the above Ans : c

103.

When stress magnitude increases, the relative stiffness difference between bone & titanium

a. Increases b. Decreases c. Equal d. None of the above Ans: a

104.

Factors influencing fatigue failure in implant dentistry

a. Bio material b. Macrogeometry c. Force magnitude d. All the above Ans: d

105.

Decreasing stress in soft bone because

a. Softer bone exhibits lower ultimate strength b. Softer bone exhibits higher ultimate strength c. There will be loss of alveolar bone d. None of the above

Ans: a

106) Establishment of a soft tissue seal around the ____of the implant can enhance its success

a) Surface b) Transmucosal portion c) None of the above d) Both a and b

Ans: (d)

107) Clinical findings of failing implants include

a) Inflammation b) Pockets c) Progrssive bone loss d) All of the above

108) A history of ___ has a greater impact on the Success / failure of implants

a) Traumatic extraction

Ans: (d)

b) Pre-prosthetic surgery c) Periodontitis d) Dental caries

109) Specific pathogens in implant pockets, greater

Ans: (c)

than 6mm include

a) P. intermedia b) Bacteroides c) T.forsythia d) None of the above

Ans: (a)

110) Which of the following statements are true?

a) Natural dentition with implants are at a lesser risk for implant infections completely edentulous patients b) Early colonizers are- gram positive cocci c) Current chemotherapeutics cannot penetrate thick biofilm d) Both ‘b’ and’c’ are true

Ans: (d)

111) Recommendations for maintenance of titanium implants include:

a) Use of sonic and ultrasonic scalers b) Use of non-metallic, plastic and Teflon coated instruments c) Use of stainless steel tipped instruments d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’

Ans: (d)

compared with

112) A thorough review of ____ is essential before commencing any maintenance procedures

a) Patient’s oral hygiene b) Age c) Mucoepithelial attachment d) All of the above

113) Removal of ____ with the use of a tooth brush composition of sub-gingival microbiota

Ans: (c)

can significantly reduce the amount and

a) Food debris b) Supra gingival plaque c) Sub gingival plaque d) None of the above

Ans: (b)

114) When choosing and recommending implements for Oral hygiene, the clinician should take into Consideration, all except:

a) Patient’s habits b) Manual dexterity of the patient c) Location, length and angulation of abutments d) None of the above 115) Plaque biofilm of failing implants consists largely of? a) Gram positive rods b) Gram negative rods

Ans: (d)

c) Gram positive cocci d) Gram negative cocci

Ans: (b)

116) The following are the features of peri- implantitis a) Associated with plaque biofilm b) reversible c) loss of bone d) none of the above

Ans : (c)

117) Vertical bone loss should be less then ___ for the success of an implant a) 0.2mm b) 0.4mm c) 0.6mm d) 0.8mm

Ans: (a)

118) All are ideal clinical conditions for natural teeth except a) Absence of pain b) Less than 0.65mm of secondary mobility c) Less than 0.5mm of initial horizontal mobility d) Both ‘b’ and ‘c’

Ans: (d)

119) The implant quality scale based on clinical evaluation was agreed upon by Congress of Implantologists in a) 2005 b) 2006 c) 2007 d) 2008

Ans: (c)

120) Clinical resolution of peri-implant mucositis can be achieved by a) Antibiotic therapy b) Mechanical therapy alone

the International

c) Mechanical therapy with chlorhexidine d) Both ‘b’ and ‘c’

Ans: (d)

121) Progression of periodontitis with major loss of alveolar bone support increased tooth mobility, furcation involvement in multi-rooted teeth is

usually accompanied by

a) Gingivitis b) Moderate periodontitis c) Advanced periodontitis d) Refractory progressive periodontitis

Ans: (d)

122) In slight periodontitis, periodontal probing depth is a) 1-2mm b) 2-3mm c) 3-4mm d) None of the above

Ans: (b)

123) Which of the following is a criteria to suggest compromised health of the implant a) Probing depth >5mm b) Radiographic bone loss >4mm c) Presence of mobility d) Both ‘b’ and ‘c’

124) Gingivoplasty can be used for management of a) Satisfactory health b) Compromised health c) Clinical or absolute failure

Ans: (d)

implants with

d) None of the above

Ans: (a)

125) No history of exudates is seen in implants with a) Optimum health b) Satisfactory health c) Compromised health d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’

Ans: (d)

126) Mobility of the implant is seen in a) Clinical/ absolute failure b) Compromised health c) Both ‘b’ and ‘c’ d) Optimum health

Ans: (b)

127) In the implant quality scale, arrange the following groups in order A. Failure B. Satisfactory health C. Compromised health D. Success

a) A,B,C,D b) D,C,B,A c) D,B,C,A d) C,B,D,A 128) Management of compromised health of the implant involves

Ans: (c)

a) Reduction of stresses b) Drug therapy c) Change in prosthesis d) All of the above

Ans: (d)

129) In case of failure, the conditions in which the implant should be removed are a) Pain on palpation b) Mobility >0.5mm c) None of the above d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’

Ans: (d)

130) In case of rapid bone changes a) Add additional implants b) Switch to removable prosthesis c) Occlusal splint therapy d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’

Ans: (d)

131) Treatment in presence of exudates involves a) Removal of implant b) Topical and systemic antibiotics c) Culture and sensitivity if symptoms do not subside d) Both ‘b’ and ‘c’

Ans: (d)

132) Following treatment of an active infection with radiographically visible bone loss, the repaired implant should be left uncovered and out of function for

a) 5-6 wks b) 7-8 wks c) 9-10 wks d) 10-12 wks

Ans: (d)

133) If the defect cannot be closed by primary intention healing with soft tissue, the following should be used a) Resorbable membrane b) 3- poly tetrafluoroethyl membrane c) Both ‘b’ and ‘c’ d) None of the above

Ans: (b)

134) The intact HA surface should be detoxified using a) Tetracycline b) 30% citric acid c) 40% citric acid d) Any of the above

Ans: (C)

135) Citric acid should not be left on the HA surface for a) >1min b) >2min c) >3min d) >4min

Ans: (a)

136. Following are true about the labial cortical plate in the anterior except:

a) Labial cortical plate over the natural teeth is much thinner than the lingual part. b) Dehiscence of the labial plate may occur as a consequence of tooth eruption,

orthodontic therapy. c) Labial plate is the last to remodel or resorb after tooth extraction, disease. d) Periodontal disease creates infrabony defects on the lingual aspect of the supporting bone but often causes complete loss of the labial alveolar process.

ANS: C 137. Keys to bone grafting:

a) Absence of infection. b) Soft tissue infection. c) Regional acceleratory phenomenon. d) All of the above.

ANS: D 138. Following are true about antibiotics used in bone grafting except:

a) Tetracycline used in PDL bone grafting to improve collagen formation. b) Tetracycline chelates calcium and arrests bone formation process. c) Parenteral penicillin, cephalosporin or clindamycin mixed into graft material, which affects the bone regeneration process. d) Both A and B ANS: C 139. Soft tissue flap design:

a) Should have the margins of the wound over host bone rather than on the bone graft. b) Margins distal to the elevated flap should have maximal reflection. c) Palatal flap and facial tissue distal to the reflected flap should not be elevated from the palatal bone. d) Both A and C are correct.

ANS: D 140 . Sub mucosal space technique:

a) Very effective to achieve tension free closure over large graft sites. b) Does not have side effects. c) Soft tissue grafts or vestibuloplasties is not required after bone grafting when within the esthetic zone. d) Sharp dissection technique is used to create tunnel apical to the vestibule and above unreflected periosteum.

ANS: A 141. Suture material used after bone grafting:

a) Silk. b) Chromic gut. c) Polyglycolic acid. d) All of the above.

ANS: C 142. Horizontal mattress suture is used:

a) In mandible when the floor of the mouth in proximity to the lingual flap and the tissue is thin. b) Facial flap with strong muscle pull on soft tissue. c) In combination with continuous suture to close large soft tissue spans. d) All of the above.

ANS: D 143. Following are true about space maintenance except:

a) Space refers to anatomical size and contour of desired augmentation. b) Maintenance refers to space must exist enough for bone to bone to fill desired region. c) Tent screw, titanium reinforced membranes and graft material beneath membrane is not advocated to maintain the desired space during augmentation process. d) ‘Barrier by bulk’ concept is best when larger graft volumes, still allow primary soft tissue

closure.

ANS: C 144. In regional acceleratory phenomenon, host silk during a bone graft procedure should be decorticated by drilling holes in the cortical bone. These holes provide access for trabecular bone blood vessels to graft site, expeditive revascularization:

a) Both the statements are false. b) Both the statements are true. c) First statement is true and the second is false. d) First statement is false and the second is true.

ANS: B 145. in regional acceleratory phenomenon, host bone decortications is done using a bone drill:

a) 20:1 lower speed hand piece at 2500rpm. b) 20:1 high speed hand piece at 5000rpm. c) 5:1 lower speed hand piece at 2500rpm. d) 5:1 high speed hand piece at 5000rpm.

ANS: A 146. Regional acceleratory phenomenon is either delayed or not initiated in following conditions except:

a) Rheumatoid phenomenon. b) Secondary osteoporosis. c) Excessive heat d) Non-infectious inflammatory injuries.

ANS: D 147. Bone growth factors:

a) Enhances formation and mineralization of bone. b) Binds to specific receptors on the surface of target cells.

c) Priming present in bone matrix and releases during remodeling or after trauma. d) All of the above.

ANS: D 148. Which of the following is not true about host bone blood vessels?

a) Host cortical bone contains very few arterioles, whereas cancellous bone has intensely vascular network. b) For blood vessels to penetrate into the autologous bone graft site the cortical plate has to be perforated. c) Blood vessels from the soft tissue populate the graft site with osteoblast. d) Tooth extraction socket fills with bone because the blood vessels form bone granulation tissue in the site and prevent epithelial cells from migrating into the site.

ANS: C 149. Prolonged healing time is seen in following conditions except:

a) Less autogenous bone in the graft. b) More number of bony walls surrounding the site. c) Diabetes. d) Paget’s disease.

ANS: B 150. Bone graft material-collagen:

a) Type V collagen first product synthesized by body when bone formation occurs. b) Source of collagen is bovine collagen from ‘Achilles’ tendon in the leg. c) Does not have chemotectic and haemostatic properties. d) Decreases healing over an extraction site.

ANS: B 151. Autologous bone graft:

a) Only graft material that directly forms bone from transplanted trabecullar cells.

b) Contributes to bone graft with several growth factors that are released into the environment during in cooperation of the graft and form bone through induction. c) Should be used immediately or stored in sterile saline. d) All of the above are correct.

ANS: D 152. Osteogenesis:

a) Growth of bone from viable cells transferred within the graft. b) Bone growth by apposition from surrounding bone. c) New bone formation from progenitor cells derived from primitive mesenchymal cells under the influence of inducing agents emanating from bone matrix. d) Allogenous is the only graft material available with osteogenic property.

ANS: A 153. Autologous graft is stored in:

a) Blood. b) Distilled water. c) Lactated Ringer’s solution. d) Both A and B are correct.

ANS: C 154. Distilled water is contraindicated as a storage media for autologous graft, as the hypotonicity results in cell lysis.

a) Both the statements are false. b) Both the statements are true. c) First statement is true and the second statement is false. d) First statement is false and the second statement is true.

ANS: B 155. Following are true about the mechanism of autogenous bone graft except:

a) Phase I: osteogenesis. b) Phase II: osteoinduction. c) Phase I is related to number of cells transplanted initially dictates the amount of new bone formation that will directly form beyond the original dimensions. d) Phase IV: osteoconduction.

ANS: D 156. Phase II bone formation:

a) It’s an osteoinductive process. b) Less cellular, more mineralized and organized. c) Begins after approximately 6 weeks and lasts as long as 6 months. d) All of the above are correct.

ANS: D 157. Most commonly used allograft:

a) Freeze dried bone graft. b) Frozen bone graft. c) Calcium phosphate. d) Calcium sulphate.

ANS: A 158. Freeze dried bone graft acts primarily through an osteoconductive process because inductive proteins are slowly released after resorption of the mineral and often found only in minute quantities:

a) Both the statements are false. b) Both the statements are true. c) First statement is true and the second statement is false. d) First is false and the second is true.

ANS: B

159. Allograft:

a) Osseous transplanted tissue from the same species as the recipient bit of different genotype. b) Are fabricated from inorganic portion of the bone from animals other than human. c) Exclusively synthetic, biocompatible product developed to cover a broad range of indications. d) There is no risk of rejection and disease transmission.

ANS: A 160. Bone morphogenic protein:

a) Distinct from growth factors in that they may be found in extracellular bone matrix and can induce mesenchymal cell differentiation into chondroblasts or osteoblasts. b) Have antigenic properties. c) First identified BMP’s and showed their role in inducing ectopic bone formation with DFDB. d) Both A and C are correct.

ANS: D

161. Bioinert ceramics:

a) Exhibits direct bonding with the host bone and are mechanically in contact to bone. b) Example is calcium phosphate. c) Example is aluminium oxide. d) Both A and C are correct.

ANS: D 162. Bioactive ceramic material:

a) Synthetic hydroxyapetite. b) Tricalcium phosphate

c) Calcium carbonate. d) All of the above.

ANS: D 163. Following are true about Dense HA except:

a) Nonresorbable. b) In presence of direct bone – HA interface is observed. c) Organic substance. d) Used for placement on the facial or crestal aspect of a ridge around implants to improve soft tissue contour.

ANS: C

164. Natural barrier material:

a) Thick cortical plate on the graft. b) Prevent infiltration of epithelium and connective tissue into the graft site. c) Phase IV of bone grafting. d) All of the above are correct.

ANS: D

165.The frontal section of an adult skull shows the bilateral symmetry of bone morphology and functional loading, because of a.)tension loaded on the cranium by amniotic fluid. b.)human genome. c.)equal distribution of osteocytes. d.)all the above.

(b)

166.The maxilla has relatively thin cortices and are interconnected by a network of trabeculae . The maxilla is structurally similar to the body of vertebra. a.)both the statements are true b.)first statement is true and the second statement is false. c.) both the statements are false. d.)first statement is false and second

statement is true.

(a)

167.After the subcondylar fracture the condylar head is pulled medially by the superior pterygoid muscle and resorbs , then the favarable treatement is a.)bone graft followed by reduction. b.)new condyle forms if interocclusal relationship is maintained c.) bone graft followed by calcium supplement. d.)all the above.

(b)

168.The orientation of collagen fibres in bone matrix is assessed accurately by, a.)gross examination by staining. b.)rosaniline dyes like methke methyl violet. c.)periodic acid Schiff. d.)birefringence of polarized light.

(d)

169.Orthodontic tooth movement involves a.)cytokine mediated bone adaptation. b.)movement assessed by periodontal ligament. c.)bone modelling and remodelling by cytokine. d.)all the above.

170.Woven bone serves a crucial role in wound healing by all ,except

(a)

a.)rapidly filling osseous defect. b.)providing initial continuity for fractures osteotomy segment and endosseous implant. c.)strengthening the bone weakened by surgery or trauma. d.)intrusion of calcium for wound healing.

(d)

171)The one which does not come under the classification of bone tissue is, a.)composite bone. b.)bundle bone. c.)complex bone. d.)lamellor bone.

(c)

172) First generation blade implants,were thought to form a ligamentous attachement to bone , which was deemed a.)periodontium. b.)periodontal collagen fibre. c.)pseudoperiodontium. d.)periodontal ligament fibres.

(c)

173) Osteoblast, osteoclast and possibly their precursors are thought to communicate by chemical messengers known as, a.)integrins. b.)cadherin. c.)intercellular adhesion molecule. d.)coupling factors.

174) According to enlow,the overall pattern of growth of bone occurs by,

(d)

a.) external bone remodelling. b.) external bone remodelling and internal resorption. c.)only by internal resorption. d.)bone remodelling and resorption externally.

(d)

175.)Three most stable osseous landmark for superimposition of cephalomeric radiographs are all except, a.)anterior curuvature of sella turcica. b.)cribriform plate. c.)petrous part of temporal bone. d.)internal curuvature of the frontal bone.

(c)

176.)According to noorda s study, a.)remodelling is the maturation of collagen fibres. b.)remodelling is the deposition of bone. c.)remodelling is the time dependent maturation of primary cortical bone. d.) remodelling is the deposition and resorption of bone

(c)

177.)All the following are the controlling factors for bone modelling, except a.)mechanicl factors. b.)endocrine factors. c.)paracrine and autocrine factors. d.)neural factors.

178.)The rate of bone turn over is made by a.)testosterone.

(d)

b.)estrogen. c.)parathyroid hormone. d.)both (a)&(b).

(d)

179.)The primary metabolic calcium reserves of the body found in trabecular bone and in the endosteal half of the cortices.so the stiffness of the bone is directly related. a.)both the statements are true b.)first statement is true and the second statement is false. c.) both the statements are false. d.)first statement is false and second

statement is true. to the cross section area.

(d

180.)When a relatively rigid material such as bone or wire is doubled in diameter , the stiffness increases by, a.)6 times. b.)16 times. c.)4 times. d.)14 times.

(b)

181.)Implantology is a a.)bone remodelling theraphy. b.) bone manipulative theraphy. c.)both (a)&(b). d.)none of the above.

182.)Calcium homeostasis is supported by all the mechanisms, except

(b)

a.)rapid flux of calcium from bone fluid. b.)long term control of bone turnover. c.)short term response by osteoclast and osteoblast. d.)long term response by osteoclast and osteoblast.

(d)

183.)Pick out the uncorrect statement a.)formation of bone requires PTH,1,25-DHCC and calcitonin. b.)parathyroid hormone is the primary regulator of the frequency of remodelling. c.)PTH-mediated activation frequency determines mean age of bone. d.)non calcific hormones does not have any influence on bone modelling.

(d)

184.)The ideal metabolic state for maintaining skeletal mass is a.)positive calcium balance. b.)negative calcium balance. c.)zero calcium balance. d.)neutral state of calcium balance with positive calcium balance when required.

(c)

185.Dietary calcium recommended for adultosents and young adults with mean age of 11- 24 years is, a.)1000-1400 mg/day. b.)1200-1500 mg/day. c.) 1200-1500 g/day. d.) 1000-1400 g/day.

186.Most commonly calcium deficiency seen in patients with

(b)

a.)intolerance to lactose. b.)old adults>65 yrs. c.)post menopausal women. d.)obesity patients.

(a)

187.)Dentist should be aware of treating patients(implant fixation treatement) with all the following except, a.)smoking. b.)low skeletal mass. c.)osteopenia with corrective medical theraphy started. d.)metabolic bone disease.

(c)

188)Risk factors for osteoporosis / metabolic bone disease are all except, a.)smoking. b.)liver disease. c.)lack of or little physical activity. d.)excessive loading and excessive strain to the bones(less than 200µ€)

(d)

189.)Increase in modelling and concamitent decrease in remodelling takes place when, a.)less than 200µ€ is loaded. b.)200-2500 µ€ is loaded. c.)2500 µ€ is loaded. d.)4000 µ€ is loaded.

(c)

190)When flexture (strain) exceeds the normal physiologic range,bones compensate by adding new bone tissue at the,

a.)sub periosteal surface. b.)periosteal surface. c.)supra periosteal surface. d.)no mineralization occurs.

(b)

191.)Occlusal prematurities or parafunction may lead to compromise of periodontal bone support and leads to localized fatigue failure and this is a factor in all except, a.)periodontal clefting. b.)alveolar recession. c.)attrition on the occlusal surface. d.)TMJ arthrosis.

(c)

192.)The important mediators of skeletal adaptation to craniofacial growth and biochemical theraphy is, a.)cytokines. b.)facial sutures. c.)cartilaginous growth. d.)hormonal factors.

(b)

193.)The widened periodontal ligament in adjacent central incisor resulted in direct ostogenic induction of new bone , which results in , a.)expanded adjacent suture with experienced haemorrhage and necrosis. b.)neutrophil infiltration into the expanded suture. c.)expansion with haemorrhage without necrosis. d.)invasion of blood clot merely seen in the expanded suture.

(a)

194)Bone modelling and remodelling reactions occurs not only adjacent to the suture but also throughout

the nasal bones by, a.)increased turnover rate. b.)calcium intrusion. c.)injection of multiple flrochrome labels. d.)none of the above.

(c)

195)Osseointegrated implants are exceIlent abutments for sutural expansion mediated by loads as large as, a.)2N. b.)3N. c.)4N. d.) 5N .

(b)

196)For rigid orthodontic and orthopaedic anchorage, a.)tranosseous implant used. b.)rigid endosseous implant used. c.)subperisteal implant used. d.)any of the above can be used.

(b)

197.)Direct bone apposition at the endosseous interface results in, a.)rigid fixation. b.)osseintegration. c.)both (a)&(b). d.)none of the above.

198.)For internal abutment mechanism,

(c)

a.)0.019 Ă— 0.025 inch titanium molebdenum alloy anchorage wire is used. b.) titanium molebdenum alloy of any size is used. c.) 0.19 Ă— 0.25 inch titanium molebdenum alloy anchorage wire is used. d.) 0.19 Ă— 0.25 inch stainless steel wire is used.

(a)

199.)Internal abutment approach has number of advantages that includes all except, a.)minimal surgery. b.)poor oral hygine. c.)immediate loading. d.)more versatile intrusive force.

(b)

200.)Miniature screws and plates anchorage-Introduced by kanomi.effective anchorage is achieved with this. a.)both the statements are true b.)first statement is true and the second statement is false. c.) both the statements are false. d.)first statement is false and second

statement is true.

(a)

201. Which of the following is found in the premaxilla region?

A) Thin porous cortical bone B) Dense cortical bone C) Fine trabecular bone D) None of the above

(c)

202. If a patient desires a fixed restoration, implants are required in the following combinations: A) The first premolar, canine and lateral incisor B) The canine ,lateral incisor and central incisor C) The canine, first premolar and second premolar D) All of the above combinations

(D)

203. An ovoid dentate arch form has implants in the canine and an additional implant in the premaxilla. When posterior teeth are missing , additional posterior implants splinted to the anterior component are necessary.

A) Both statements are true B) Both statements are false C) Only the first statement is true D) Only the second statement is true

(A)

204. Which of the following dental arch form is subjected to the greatest anterior movement forces?

A) Tapered dentate arch B) Ovoid dentate arch C) Square dentate arch D) All of the above

(A)

205. Which of the following is true?

Dentate arch form

Number of implants

A) Square

2

B) Ovoid

3

C) Tapered

4

D) All of the above

(A)

206. Which dental arch form has the largest interimplant distance?

A) Square dentate arch B) Ovoid dentate arch C) Tapered dentate arch D) None of the above

(d)

207. The usual range of interimplant papillary height is: A) 2 â&#x20AC;&#x201C; 4 mm B) 4 â&#x20AC;&#x201C; 6 mm C) < 2 mm D) > 6mm

(c)

208. Minimum interimplant distance: A) 1mm B) 2mm C) 3mm D) 4mm

209. Which has the lowest implant survival rate?

A) Edentulous maxilla B) Edentulous mandible C) Partially dentulous mandible

(a)

D) Partially dentulous maxilla

(c)

210. The maxillary lip should be 1 to 2mm in front of the lower mandibular lip. The chin should be 2mm behind the lower lip position.

A)

Both statements are true

B)

Both statements are false

C)

Only the first statement is true

D)

Only the second statement is true

(a) Â

211. Which of the following is used for lip support?

A) Accelular tissue graft (AlloDerm) B) Dense hydroxyapatite (HA) C) Bone graft D) All of the above

(a)

212. Characteristics of an ideal anterior bone (Division A maxillary region) for the successful placement of a standard diameter endosteal implant: A) 6mm in width B) 12mm in height C) Crown : residual bone height is < 1 D) All of the above

213. A surgical template is placed to : A) To guide the position and angulation of the implant

(d)

B) To identify the incisal edges and the mesiodistal tooth positon in the final prosthesis C) Both A and B D) None of the above

(d)

214. The incisive foramen often expands laterally within the palatal bone and the central incisor implant osteotomy may encroach on this structure, resulting in fibrous tissue at the interface. This is prevented by : A) Placing the implant distally B) Placing the implant mesially C) Placing the implant labially D) Placing the implant palatally

(c)

215. Which of the following is true of the stop on the direction indicator?

A) 4mm in diameter B) Used to evaluate the final implant position C) Used to evaluate the bone volume around the final implant site D) All of the above

(a)

216. Which of the following is true?

A) FP 1 prosthesis à requires abundant bone 3mm below the future implant crown and abundant soft tissue B) FP 2 and FP 3 prosthesis à level of the soft tissue and bone is not relevant C) Both A and B D) None of the above

(d)

217. Subtraction soft tissue technique is used for : A) Recontours tissue B) Creates an emergence profile C) Increases the height of the bone D) A and B

(c)

218. Who developed the idea of bone spreading?

A) Higuchi B) Dahlin C) Nkenke D) Tatum

(d)

219. The softer the trabecular bone, the lower the elastic modulus and the greater the viscoelastic nature of the ridge. Therefore, the less dense the bone, the easier the bone expansion.

A) Both statements are true B) Both statements are false C) Only the first statement is true D) Only the second statement is true

220. Which division of bone is ideal for bone spreading?

A) Division A B) Division B C) Both A and B

(d)

D) None of the above

(a)

221. In a c-h premaxilla, the nasal floor can be elevated : A) 0 – 4 mm in the central or lateral incisor B) 4mm in the canine region C) 5mm in the canine region D) Both A and B

(a)

222. The nasal floor is : A) 1 – 3 mm below the inferior turbinate B) 4 – 5 mm below the inferior turbinate C) 5 – 9 mm below the inferior turbinate D) 9 – 12 mm below the inferior turbinate

(d)

223. Which of the following is true about the Kiesselbach’s plexus?

A) Common region for nose bleeds B) Extends to the lower and central part of the cartilaginous septum C) Subnasal graft is positioned anterior to this region D) All of the above

224. Which cranial nerve innervates the region of the subnasal graft?

A) Olfactory B) Trochlear C) Trigeminal

(c)

D) Facial

(d)

225. Complications of nasal elevations include : A) Implant extending into nasal proper B) Tearing of the nasal mucosa C) Infections D) All of the above

(c)

226. Length of the incisive canal is : A) 1 – 2mm B) 10 – 20mm C) 4 – 26mm D) 20 – 30mm

(d)

227. Size of an incisive foramen implant : A) > 5mm B) Greater than the diameter of the foramen C) A and B D) None of the above

(c)

228. Complications of incisive foramen implant include : A) Implant may be pushed through the incisive canal into the nasal proper B) Bleeding from the incisive foramen C) Enucleation of the soft tissue from the foramen

D) All of the above

(c)

229. Management of bleeding from the incisive canal include the following : A) A blunt bone tap is placed into the canal and a bone mallet is used to crush bone over the artery B) Insertion of the implant C) Both A and B D) None of the above

(d)

230. Contraindication for dental implant treatment includes a. Diabetic patients b. Osteoporosis c. Patients undergoing radiation therapy d. Smokers Ans: (c)

231. An absolute contraindication for implant treatment is a. Atrophic maxilla b. Current infection c. Periodontal disease d. None of the above Ans: (d)

232. Reason why patient undergoing radiation therapy is contraindicated for implant

treatment a. Osteoporosis b. Osteoradionecrosis c. Osteomalacia d. Both (a) and (c) Ans: (b)

233. Osteoradionecrosis is a. Exposure and infection of bone following soft tissue dehiscence b. Exposure and infection of bone without soft tissue necrosis c. Formation of multiple small cavitations inside the bone d. None of the above Ans: (a)

234. Surgeries in patients undergoing radiation therapy can alleviate risk of osteoradionecrosis by the use of a. Nascent oxygen b. Hyperbaric oxygen c. Both (a) and (b) d. None of the above Ans: (b)

235. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication of dental implant therapy? a. Psychological and mental conditions

b. Substance abuse c. Both (a) and (b) d. None of the above Ans: (c)

236. The parafunctional habit that must be carefully evaluated prior to implant treatment is a. Thumb sucking b. Tongue thrusting c. Bruxism d. Lip/Cheek biting Ans: (c)

237. Type I primary osteoporosis is caused by a. Age-related changes b. Malnutrition c. Menopausal changes d. Idiopathic causes Ans: (c)

238. The fundamental problem in all types of osteoporosis is a. Decreased bone mineral density b. Macroscopic porosities inside bone c. Exposure and infection of bone

d. All of the above Ans: (a)

239. Smoking and tobacco use can lead to failure of implant because a. Smoking is a known risk for osteoporosis b. Poor healing capacity c. Infection due to impaired organ function d. All of the above Ans: (d)

240. It is very important to evaluate this anatomical structure before placement of an implant in the posterior maxilla a. Posterior palatal seal area b. Maxillary tuberosity c. Maxillary sinus d. Both (a) and (c) Ans: (c)

241. Anatomical structures of maxilla pertinent to treatment planning of an implant patient a. Maxillary sinus and canine fossa b. Incisive papilla, labial and buccal frenum c. Canine fossa and incisive foramen d. Both (a) and (c) e. Both (a) and (b)

Ans: (d)

242. Anatomical structures of mandible pertinent to treatment planning of an implant patient a. Mandibular canal and submandibular fossa b. Mental foramen and lingual inclination of alveolar ridge c. Mental foramen and retromolar pad area d. Both (a) and (c) e. Both (a) and (b) Ans: (e)

243. Which of the following is recommended in a pre-implant surgery? a. Alloplast b. Autograft c. Allograft d. Xenograft Ans: (b)

244. Most common site for autograft a. Chin and ramus b. Ileac crest c. Tibia and fibula d. All of the above

Ans: (d)

245. Small bone dehiscence defects can be corrected by a. Bone graft followed by guided tissue regeneration membrane placement b. Induce bleeding from healthy bone and place guided tissue regeneration membrane c. Bone graft followed by guided bone regeneration membrane placement d. Induce bleeding from healthy bone and place guided bone regeneration membrane Ans: (a)

246. Pneumatisation is a. Reduction in bone volume due to downward growth of maxillary sinus b. Scalloping of maxillary sinus along root tips of maxillary posterior teeth c. Decrease in bone volume due to Lateral growth of maxillary sinus d. All of the above Ans: (a)

247. Contraindication for maxillary sinus elevation and bone augmentation is a. Tumor of maxillary sinus b. Allergic rhinitis/sinusitis c. Chronic topical steroid use d. Both (a) and (b) e. All of the above Ans: (e)

248. Maxillary sinus is lined by a. Motile cilia b. Specialised respiratory membrane c. Schneidarian membrane d. All of the above Ans: (d)

249. Sinus elevation by osteotome technique is used when amount of available bone is a. Less than 10mm but greater than 7mm b. Less than 7mm but greater than 4mm c. Less than 4mm but greater than 2mm d. Less than 10mm but greater than 6mm Ans: (a)

250. Bone augmentation procedure with higher success rate a. Vertical bone augmentation b. Horizontal bone augmentation c. Vertical=Horizontal d. Distraction osteogenesis Ans: (b)

251. Formation of bone by osteoblasts from the margins of the defect on the bone graft material is

a. Osteoconduction b. Osteoinduction c. Osteogenesis d. Osteoprogenesis Ans: (a)

252. Osteoinduction is a. Formation of bone by osteoblasts from the margins of the defect on the bone graft material b. Formation of bone by stimulation of osteoprogenitors from the defect c. Formation of bone through living osteoblasts from bone graft material d. Formation of bone by stimulation of osteoprogenitors from the graft Ans: (b)

253. Formation of bone through living osteoblasts from bone graft material is a. Osteoinduction b. Osteoprogenesis c. Osteoconduction d. Osteogenesis Ans: (d)

254. Complication of localized ridge augmentation a. Exposure of bone transplants b. Growth of keratinized tissues into bone space

c. Decubital ulcers d. All of the above e. Only (a) and (b) And: (d)

255. Revascularisation is better in a. Particulate bone graft b. Monocortical block graft c. Decalcified freeze dried bone d. Sectional block graft Ans: (a)

256. Primary indication to determine pre-implantation procedure evaluation a. Occlusal radiographs b. Lateral cephalometric c. Panoramic radiograph d. CT scan Ans: (d)

257. The kind of force that accelerate bone loss a. Torquing force b. Vertical force c. Lateral force d. All the above

Ans: (a)

258. Greater moment of force is formed when a. Crown:root ratio is increased b. Crown:root ratio is decreased c. Crown:root ratio is equal d. Is not affected by crown:root ratio Ans: (a)

Bone response to mechanical load

259. Mechanotransduction is a process that includes

A)mechanocoupling and biochemical B)mechanocoupling,biochemical,and effector cell response c)biochemical,mechanocoupling,effector cell response,signal transfer d)biochemical effector cell response

(d)

260. Bone response to __________ regulation A)biochemical b) physical c)biomechanical and hormonal d)hormonal

(c)

261. Osteocytes have __________ sensitivity to mechanical stimulation than osteoblasts a) higher b)lower c)no d)none of the above

(a)

262. turner et al and turner summerized the rules of bone governing bone adaptation as a)dynamic loading drives bone adaptation b)short term loading has an anabolic effect,whereas increased duration degrades bone adaptation c)abnormal strains evoke bone adaptation,whereas bone becomes accustomed to routine strain and remodelling ceases d)all of the above

(d)

263. alternate axial compression and distraction is called a)anisotropy b)dynamization c)orthrotropy d)deformation

(b)

264. in general, cell surface receptors relay information by activating a chain of events that alters the concentration of one or more smaller intercellular signalling molecule often referred to as__________ a)primary messengers b)second messengers c)tertiary messengers

d)none of the above

(b)

265. most commonly used intercellular mediators a)cyclic amp b)ca2+ c)cyclic gmp d)all of the above

(d)

266. osteoblasts forms bone by secreting____________a) type 1 collagen b) osteopontin c) osteoclastin d) all of the above

(d)

267. __________ used as a marker for bone metabolism A) Osteopontin B) Osteoclastin C) Osteocalcin D) Osteonectin

(b)

268. The term matrix protein refers to A) Collagenous protein B) Non-collagenous protein C) Collagenous and non-collagenous protein

D) None of the above

(c)

269. The most abundant protein in oraganic matrix of bone A) Type II collagen B) Type I collagen C) Type III collagen D) Type IV collagen

(b)

270. The degree to which the mechanical properties of cortical bone are dependant on its structure is reffered to as a) Anisotropy b) Isotropy c) Orthrotropy d) None of the above

(a)

271. A material is said to be orthropic if it exhibits a) Same property in all three direction b) Different properties in all three direction c) Same properties in two direction d) Different properties in two direction

(b)

272. Transversely isotropic describe a material in which _____________ exhibits the same mechanical properties a)one of the three direction

b) two of the direction c)all three direction d)none of the above

273.

(b)

isotropic exhibits____________ properties in all three direction

a)different b)same c)two same and one different d) none of the above

(b)

274. __________ is a new method used to measure the material property of bone at microstructural level a)nanoindentation b) dynamization c)indentation d)none of the above

(a)

275. A material is said to be ________if its mechanical behaviour dependant on th rate of load application a) Stiff b) Viscoelastic c) Elastic d) Deformed

(b)

276. ____________ refers to the phenomenon whereby a material continues to exhibit increasing deformation as a function of time when subjected to a constant load

A) Stress B) Strength C) Creep D) Strain

(c)

277. Fatigue strength of a material refers to a) Ultimate strength below which the material maybe repetitively subjected for an infinite number of cycles without failure b) Material continues to exhibit increasing deformation as a function of time when subjected to a constant load c) The chemical behaviour is dependant on the rate of load application d) None of the above

(a)

278. In edentulous mandible trabecular bone is continuous with the inner surface of the ______ A) Cortical plate B) Cortical shell C) Alveolar bone D) None of the above

(b)

279. In dentate mandible trabecular bone is surrounded by a A) Dense alveolar bone B) Thick cortical shell C) Both D) None of the above 280. Trabecular bone is a) Porous

(c)

b) Dense c) Porous, structurally anisotropic and inhomogenous material d) All of the above

(c)

281. Misch defined two types of trabecular bone in his clinical classification scheme for maxilla and mandible I)coarse (division 2) in anterior mandible II) fine trabecular bone in posterior mandible III) fine in anterior mandible IV) coarse trabecular bone a) I and II b) II and III c) III and Iv d) All of the above

(a)

282. Which hormone plays a vital role in bone adaptation to mechanical stimuli A) Growth hormone B) Parathyroid hormone C) Thyroid stimulating hormone D) None of the above

(b)

283. Intergrins are composed of glycoprotein subunits called A) Alpha B) Beta C) Alpha and beta D) None of the above

(b)

284. Rapid increase in c-fos mrna expression is indicative of increase proliferation and rapid __________ of mrna levels and coding bone matrix protein

a) Increase b) Decline c) Static d) None of the above

(b)

285. Osteocalcin is a) Collagenous protein b) Non collagenous c) Matrix protein d) None of the above

(b)

286. Chondrogenesis at the periosteum of the long bone possesses a) Osteogenic b) Chondrogenic c) Both d) None of the above

(c)

287. ___________ paracines that are released by osteoblast in response to mechanical strain A) Prostacyclin B) Osteocyclin C) Byglycan D) Decorin

(a)

288. Non linearity of trabecular bone measured as percent reduction in Tangent modulus

strain

A)0.4%

o.6%

b)0.2%

0.4%

c)o.1%

0.6%

d)0.5%

0.8%

(b)

289. In which division of bone loss in the maxilla, the infraorbital foramen is in close relation to the crest of alveolar ridge?

A] Division A

C] Division C

B] Division B

D] Division D

(d)

290. Maxillary nerve leaves the middle cranial fossa by passing through the foramen__________.

A] Ovale

C] Rotundum

B] Spinosum

D] Magnum

(c)

291. The muscle which is rarely of concern to implant surgeon is A] Levator anguli oris

C] Levator labii superioris

B] Incisivus labi superioris

D] Buccinator

(c)

292. WITCHâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;S CHIN is caused due to complete reflection of ______ Muscle for extension of subperiosteal implant A] Medial pterygoid

C] Mentalis

B] Lateral pterygoid

D] Masseter

(c)

293. Circulation of blood within long bones in young a individual is____ A] Centripetal

C] Central

B] Centrifugal

D] Both A&B

(b)

294. Abnormal circulation existing in the maxilla or mandible is ______ circulation.

A] Centripetal

C] Reverse

B] Centrifugal

D] Abnormal

(a)

295. Circulation of blood within the bone in older patients_____ A] Centripetal

C] Reverse

B] Centrifugal

D] Abnormal

(a)

296. Osteonal bone is the major type of bone found in_____ of Jaws A] Cortical bone

C] Cortical & Trabecular

B] Trabecular bone

D] Fibrous

(a)

297. Bone bleeding is controlled by the use of A] cotton and gauze

C] bone wax

B] bone grafting

D] Both A&C

(c)

298. Connective tissue that surrounds the nerve is called A] Epineurium

C] Ectoneurium

B] Perineurium

D] Supraneurium

(a)

299.Mucoperiosteal flap reflection for subperiosteal implant usually exposes_____ of body of mandible A] 50%

B] 66%

C] 75%

D] 90%

(c)

300. Infraorbital foramen is located between Levator labii superioris muscle and_______ A] Orbicularis occuli

C] Levator anguli oris

B] Orbicularis oris

D] Incisivus labii superioris

(c)

301. Which is not a mandibular portion of maxillary artery A] Tympanic

C] Deep auricular

B] Masseteric

D] Middle meningeal

(b)

302. Which is not a Pterygoid portion of maxillary artery A] Masseteric

C] Medial pterygoid

B] deep auricular

D] deep temporal

(b)

303. Which is not a Pterygopalatine portion of maxillary artery A] Posterior superior alveolar

C] Sphenopalatine

B] Middle superior alveolar

D] Descending palatine

(b)

304. During Orthognathic surgery the surgeon cuts the _______artery Without compromising blood supply to maxilla A] Anterior superior alveolar

C] Posterior superior alveolar

B] Middle superior alveolar

D] All the above

(d)

305. Detaching the _____& medial pterygoid muscles without reattaching it could result in necrosis of the ramus of the mandible A] Masseter

B] Temporalis

C] Buccinator D] Lateral pterygoid

(a)

305. Buccal mucoperiosteum of the maxilla is supplied by A] Anterior superior alveolar artery

C] Buccal artery

B] Posterior superior alveolar artery

D] All the above

(d)

306. Nerve fibres of PNS show _______ capacity for regeneration to the nerves of CNS A] Greater B] Lesser

C] Equal D] both A&C

(a)

307. The main muscle of the floor of the mouth A] Hyoglossus B] Mylohyoid

C] Geniohyoid D] Genioglossus

(b)

308. Which is not a Infraorbital portion of maxillary artery A] anterior superior alveolar

C] posterior superior alveolar

B] middle superior alveolar

D] Labial

(c)

309. Muscle rarely used in implant surgery A] Masseter

C] Medial pterygoid

B] Temporalis

D] Lateral pterygoid

310. The powerful elevator and retractor is

(d)

A] Masseter

C] Medial pterygoid

B] Temporalis

D] Lateral pterygoid

(b)

311. Caninus muscle is also called A] Levator anguli oris B] Levator labii superioris

C] Incisive labii superioris D] orbicularis oris

(a)

312. Maxillary sinus opens into A] Medial wall

C] Superior meatus

B] Lateral wall

D] Middle meatus

(d)

313. Mandibular nerve passes through A] Foramen Ovale

C] Foramen Rotundum

B] Foramen Spinosum

C] Foramen Magnum

(a)

314. Main artery supplying the mandible A] Mandibular artery B] Jugular artery

C] Inferior alveolar artery D] Trigeminal artery

(c)

315. Posterior superior alveolar artery & Infra orbital artery is a branch of A] Maxillary artery

C] Mandibular artery

B] Ophthalmic artery

D] Inferior alveolar artery

(a)

316. Intraoral part of maxilla is limited by the mucobuccal fold &_____ A] Orbicularis oris

C] Levator anguli oris

B] Buccinator

D] Levator labii superioris

(a)

317. Medial wall of maxilla provides attachment to______ A] Superior nasal concha

C] Anterior nasal concha

B] Inferior nasal concha

D]Posterior nasal concha

(b)

318.Extraoral donor site of autogenous bone in implant include, A. Iliac crest B. Tibia C. tuberosity D. All the above Ans : d

319. Jaw construction in autogenous bone alone has been characterized by rapid and advance bone resorption during the ___________ years after the procedure A. 1 to 5 B. 2 to 5 C. 3 to 7 D. 3 to 5 Ans : d

320. When any discrepancy of hard tissues exist that cannot render predictable implant prosthesis treatment, the dentist can, A. Select traditional rehabilitation B. Modify patients mind by lowering expectation C. Improve available bone to the amount and form needed D. All the above Ans : d

321.

Autogenous bone graft are autogenous and able to form bone in a

A. Osteoinduction

B. Osteoconduction C. Barrier membrane approach D. All the above Ans : d

322.

Advantage of trabecular graft is _________, except,

A. Solid block form B. Permits contouring and adaptation to the recipient bone anatomy C. Maintain greater volume of bone D. Cortical bone of the outside of the graft does not act as a barrier membrane Ans : d

323.

The fibrous tissue is prevented from invading the graft site because

A. Provides additional time for angiogenesis B. Provides additional time for new bone formation below the cortical layer C. Both A and B D. None of the above Ans : c

324.

Quality of the bone formed around of implant is greater except,

A. Increase in strength B. Increase in BIC C. Decrease in modulus of elasticity D. All the above

Ans : c

325.

Advantage of iliac crest graft is, its

A. Small volume of bone B. Outer cortical bone with abundant trabecular bone beneath C. Does not fill larger bony voids D. Permits shaping of entire mandible and maxilla Ans : b

326. Major disadvantage of iliac crest graft is 30 to 90 % of rapid bone resorption, other treatment of option which often been considered is , A. Zygomatic implant in maxilla B. Pterygoid implant in maxilla C. 7 to 9mm implant in anterior mandible D. All the above Ans : d

327.

Advantage of delayed implant placement is, except,

A. Gives more strength to the prosthesis B. Graft maturation C. Possibility to address eventual post operative complication D. Precise placement of implants for intended prosthesis Ans: a

328.

Causes of implant losses include,

A. Poor implant placement at the time grafting B. Parafunctional and trauma form the overlying removal prosthesis

C. Advance uncontrolled bone lost D. All the above Ans : d

329. In iliac crest grafting, the 1st 5 to 10 months, events which occurs are, except, A. Consolidation B. Remodelling C. Revascularization D. Modelling of new bone Ans : c

330.

In maxillary bone graft, poor implant position are due to, except

A. Maxilla resorps to the distal and mandible resorps to the lingual B. Implant are placed to lingual n the maxilla C. Implant are placed to facial in the mandible D. Maxilla resorps to the mesial and manbile resorps to the facial Ans : a

331.

The subcrestal window technique has been described by,

A. Carl E.Misch B. Lymann and Miles C. Behairy and Al-Sebai D. Francine and Miles Ans : c

332.

Harvest of the iliac crest tricorticol block is used because, except

A. Prevent cortical deformities B. Limits hematoma formation C. Minimum to moderate ridge of cortical bone D. Limits the herniation of abdominal content Ans : c

333.

The best harvest site of ileum is,

A. Anterior crest B. Mid crest C. Inferior crest D. Posterior crest Ans : a

334.

Width of the division â&#x20AC;&#x201C; C bone

A. 0 to 1 mm B. 0 to 0.5 mm C. 0 to 2 mm D. 0 to 2.5 mm Ans : d

335.

Height of the division â&#x20AC;&#x201C; C bone

A. > 12mm B. < 12mm C. > 17mm

D. < 17mm Ans : b

336.

Division â&#x20AC;&#x201C; D bone are, except

A. < 20mm crown height B. Severe atrophy C. Basal bone lost D. Flattened bone Ans : a

337.

Division â&#x20AC;&#x201C; B bone height is

A. > 12mm B. < 12mm C. > 17mm D. < 17mm Ans : a

338.

Post operative analgesic in iliac crest bone grafting is,

A. Bupivacaine B. Articaine C. Cocaine D. Lidocaine Ans : a

339. Iliac crest post operative analgesic is administered through a catheter every ________ hours as needed for relieve of pain.

A. 2 to 3

B. 4 to 6 C. 8 to 10 D. 6 to 12 Ans : d

340.

Iliac crest bone graft complication includes,

A. Pain B. Herniation of abdominal content C. Fracture D. Neuralgia E. All the above Ans : e

341. Improper incision at harvesting site may cause neurologic problems with injury to A. IANB ( inferior alveolar nerve block ) B. LFCN ( lateral fumerol cutaneous nerve ) C. Facial nerve D. All the above Ans : b

342. To avoid injury to LFCN during incision at the harvesting site, incisions can be made, A. Medial to the crest B. Lateral to the crest

C. A and B D. None of the above Ans : c

343.

The donor site of tibial bone grafting is approximately

A. 5 to 10mm and 2mm thick in diameter B. 2mm diameter and 5 to 10mm thick C. 2 to 10mm diameter and 5mm thick D. 10 to 15mm diameter and 2mm thick Ans: a

344. Tibial bone graft is contraindicated in __________ because possible distruption of epiphyseal growth center A. Adult B. Children C. Adolescent D. Both B and C Ans : d

345.

Division E can be due to

A. Trauma B. Disease or pathologic causes C. Surgery D. Genetics E. All the above Ans : e

346.

Vascularised bone grafts are most common indicated when

A. Blood supply is severely compromised to the graft site B. When recipient bed is scarred C. Division E bone anatomy D. All the above Ans : d

347.

Distraction osteogenesis referres to,

A. Formation of new fibrous tissues between the vascular bone surfaces B. Formation of new bone between the vascular bone surfaces created by osteotomy C. Formation of new bone between the vascular bone surfaces created by trauma D. None of the above Ans : b

348.

What are the mesiodistal length for the division A bone

A. > 7mm B. < 7mm C. > 6mm D. < 6mm Ans : a

349.

Angulations of the occlusal load for division A bone

A. < 20 degrees B. > 20 degrees

C. < 25 degrees D. < 30 degrees Ans : c

350.

Division A abundant bone often forms__________ after the extraction

A. 1 to 3 years B. Soon after extraction C. 3 to 5 years D. None of the above Ans : b

351. Which prosthesis is most often the option selected in the anterior division A bone A. FP1 B. FP2 C. FP3 D. All the above Ans : c

352.

In division A bone, the largest diameter implant lead to

A. Fracture B. Less likely to fracture C. No fracture D. Better strength Ans : b

353.

In division bone A, one piece implants require an

A. One stage approach restoration B. Submerged restoration C. Immediate restoration D. All the above Ans : c

354.

In division bone A the emergence profile angle of the crown is related to

A. Implant diameter B. Crown height space C. Implant height D. Implant mesiodistal width Ans : a

355.

What are the mesiodistal length for the division b bone

A. > 7mm B. < 7mm C. > 6mm D. < 6mm Ans : c

356.

Angulation of occlusal load for division b bone

A. < 20 degree B. < 30 degree C. < 25 degree

D. < 30 degree Ans : a

357.

What are B minus width ( b-w) in division B bone

A. 2.5 to 4mm B. 4 to 8mm C. 1.5 to 3mm D. None of the above Ans : a

358.

Treatment options are available for the division b edentulous ridge are

A. Modify the existing division b ridge to another division by osteoplasty B. Insert a narrow division b root form implant C. Modify the existing into division A by augmentation D. All the above Ans : d

359.

In division B root form less overall space means that

A. Vertical load B. Lateral loads C. Horizontal load D. All the above Ans : b

360. In division B , the distinction between B and B-W is especially important when A. Osteoplasty

B. Augmentation C. Either a and b D. None of the above Ans : c

361.

In division b, crown emergence profile is least aesthetic except for

A. Maxillary lateral or mandibular incisors B. Maxillary canine or mandibular canine C. Maxillary central incisors D. Mandibular central incisors Ans : a

362.

An alternative for the augmentation approach for division b bone

A. grafting B. bone spreading C. either A and B D. none of the above Ans : b

363. The treatment option maybe influenced by the region to be restored.

Example, A. In the partially edentulous anterior maxilla, augmentation is most often selected B. Edentulous anterior mandible osteoplasty is common C. Premolar region of the posterior mandible, division B root form implant are often preferred D. All the above

Ans : d

364.

The division C ridge is deficient in

A. Width and height B. Angulations C. Length D. All the above Ans : d

365.

Angulations for occlusal load for division C bone

A. < 20 degrees B. > 20 degrees C. > 15 degrees D. < 15 degrees Ans : b

366.

Treatment option for division C bone are

A. Osteoplasty B. Root form implant C. Supraperiosteal implant D. Disc design implant E. All the above Ans : e

367.

Crown height space in division c bone are

A. > 15mm B. < 15mm C. < 20mm D. > 20mm Ans : a

368.

Width of the division C bone

A. 0 to 1mm B. 0 to 0.5 mm C. 0 to 2 mm D. 0.25 mm Ans : d

369.

Height of division C bone is

A. > 12mm B. < 12mm C. > 17mm D. < 17mm Ans : b

370. Sinus grafting is often prescribed _____________ implants in the C-H posterior maxilla A. After B. Before

placing endosteal

C. At D. None of the above Ans : b

371.

Shorter endosteal implants are the common option in the

A. Division A bone B. Division B bone C. Division C bone D. Division D bone Ans : c

372.

RP4 overdenture prosthesis is contraindicated with

A. Posterior root form in square arch form B. Anterior root forms in square arch forms C. Anterior root forms in U arch forms D. Posterior root form in U arch form Ans : b

373.

Division D bone are__________, except

A. < 20mm crown height B. Severe atrophy C. Basal bone lost D. Flattened bone Ans : a

374.

Severe atrophy can be seen in

A. Division C bone B. Division D bone C. Division E bone D. All the above Ans : b

375.

The best harvest site of the ileum is

A. Anterior crest B. Mid crest C. Posterior crest D. Inferior crest Ans : a

376. In iliac crest grafting in division D, the 1st % to 10 months events which occurs are, except A. Consolidation B. Revascularization C. Remodeling D. Modeling of the new bone Ans : b

377.

Division E can be due to,

A. Trauma B. Surgery

C. Disease D. All the above Ans : d

378.

Types of Failures of an Implant includes

a. Osseous healing fracture b. Surgical c. Early loading d. All the above d

379.

Early loading failure is

a. The period from abutment placement to the first year b. High pressure applied to the abutment c. Acts as a prosthetic abutment d. Both a and c d

380. What is the management of the implant which became prematurely exposed during the first 6 weeks after the placement? a. Soft tissue will be surgically repositioned to recover the implant once again b. Removal of implant c. Wait for another 6 weeks followed by surgical procedure d. None of the above a

381. Primary reason(s) to have the implant covered with soft tissue for 3 to 6 months a. Reduce risk of infection and apical migration of the tissues b. Reduce risk of loading or movement during initial healing c. Both a and b d. Either a or b c

382.

Stage II surgery permits

a. Indirect evaluation of bone condition b. Direct evaluation of bone condition c. Direct evaluation of hard and soft tissues d. None of the above c

383.

Early exposure of an implant causes

a. The bone becomes weak b. Cells exhibit Hyperparakeratosis and acanthosis c. Implant becomes flexible d. Spontaneous bleeding b

384. Organisms which has higher incidence to occur around the exposed implant.. a. Prevotella intermedia b. Streptococcus mutans c. Streptococcus beta hemolysin d. Both a and c

e. All the above d

385.

Procedures involved in Uncovery:

a. Soft tissue incision b. Bone-to-implant interface evaluation c. Ridge augmentation d. Both a and b e. All the above d

386.

Osteoplasty is done when there is

a. Vertical bony defect of >3mm b. Horizontal bony defect of <3mm c. Vertical bony defect of <3mm d. Horizontal bony defect of >3mm c

387. Treatment option(s) available for the management of horizontal bony defect which is more than half of implant height. a. Position the soft tissue apically; graft autogenous bone b. Osteoplasty c. Remove the implant d. Convert into vertical defect by levelling off bone c

388.

Causes of bone loss at Stage II uncovery

a. Premature implant exposure

b. Excess torque during implant insertion c. Crestal bone trauma at surgery d. All the above d

389.

A second method(s) to correct a vertical defect less than 3mm

a. Curette the defect and fill the region with an autograft b. Expose the implant with permucosal extension c. Cover the implant by a membrane with addition of the desired thickness of soft tissues d. All the above d

390.

An useful test to determine implant micromovements.

a. Mobility test b. Periotest c. Compressive test d. Vertical force (lateral) test b

391.

Indications for implant removal.

a. Prosthesis converted from a fixed restoration to a removable restoration b. For placement of an additional implant c. A larger diameter implant inserted simultaneously at different angulation d. All the above d

392.

Advantages of Reverse Torque Testing at Stage II Surgery?

a. Biomechanical measure of initial stability b. Definitive verification of initial osteointegration c. Either a or b d. Both a and b d

393. Healing abutment wider than the implant crest module may be selected when a. Implant is not countersunk below the bone b. Implant is countersunk below the bone c. Implant is not countersunk above the bone d.

Implant is countersunk above the bone

a

394.

Advantage(s) of using a wider healing abutment than crest module

a. Perimucosal tissue heals with a larger diameter than the final abutment b. Reduce risk of implant micromovement during healing c. Wider space remains around the abutment for less than 30minutes d. Both a and c d

395. The Probing depth that provide an environment that is conducive primarily to aerobic bacteria.. a. 1.5 â&#x20AC;&#x201C; 4mm b. 2 â&#x20AC;&#x201C; 2.5mm c. 1.5mm d. None of the above

a

396. When the maxillary lip or pontic position requires a greater support, dense hydroxyapatite is added to the.... a. Palatal bone surface of the fixed prosthesis b. Labial bone surface of the fixed prosthesis c. Labial bone surface of the removable prosthesis d. Both a and b b

397.

The natural tooth with the least amount of keratinized tissue.

a. Mandibular first premolar b. Mandibular central incisor c. Maxillary canine d. Maxillary lateral a

398.

Two main tissues that surrounds the natural teeth.

a. Attached, keratinized b. Unattached, keratinized c. Unattached, non-keratinized d. Both a and c d

399.

Types of oral mucosa found around an implant.

a. Non-keratinized, non-mobile tissue b. Non-keratinized, mobile tissue c. Keratinized, mobile tissue

d. All the above d

400.

Mothod(s) of increasing the zone of keratinized tissue.

a. Place dense hydroxyapatite around permucosal extension b. Place acellular tissue grafts over the implant c. Place an indirect coping d. Both a and b d

401.

The surrounding gingival may be recontoured by

a. Gingivoplasty b. Irreversible hydrocolloid c. Permucosal extension d. Both a and b a

402. Gingivoplasty is done with _____ bur to shape the interdental papilla around the implant abutment for FP-1 prosthesis. a. Trephine bur b. Diamond bur c. 169L bur d. Both a and b b

403.

Criteria for evaluation of a successful implants at stage II Uncovery:

a. Absence of crestal bone loss b. Adequate zone of keratinized gingival

c. Sulcus depth of 4mm d. All the above d

404.

Bone removal over or adjacent to the crestle module can be achieved by

a. Bone profile in a low-speed handpiece b. Gingivoplasty c. Bone profile in a high-speed handpiece d. None of the above

405.

a

Long term failure, describes

a. Failures between 5-10 years b. Failures between stage I and II surgery c. Failures after 10 years d. Failures during surgery c

406.

A second option to increase zone of keratinized tissue at stage II surgery.

a. Split-thickness excision at time of uncovery b. Gingivoplasty c. Split thickness incision at time of uncovery d. None of the above c

407.

An implant has a greater risk of an anaerobic environment, when

a. Flushing the region with Clorhexidine 0.12% b. Permucosal extension is done

c. Both a and b d. None of the above

d

408)Who gave the specific instructions for extracting teeth using a dental elavator? a)Chauliac b)Albukasim

c)Pierre Fauchard d)None of the above (Answer:-C)

409)Indications for atraumatic tooth extraction. a)Orthodontic Failure

c)Prosthetic Related

b)Peridontal Problem

d)All of the above (Answer:-D)

410)Connective tissue fibers surrounds the tooth indifferent places.of which,how many of them are directly inserted into the cementum of the tooth above the bone? a)9

c)6

b)13

d)4 (Answer:-C)

411)A period of 10 to 30 seconds is allowed to elapse while the extracting instrument is in place.Why is it so? a)To allow proper positioning of the instrument b)To allow wedging effect to take over c)To allow biomechanical creep to occur d)None of the above (Answer:-C) 412)The dental extractor uses which class lever mechanics? a)First Class

b)Second Class

c)Third Class

d)All of the above

(Answer:-A) 413)The socket with five bony walls are regenerates bone by a)Primary Intention

c)A and B

b)Secondary Intention

d)None of the above (Answer:-B)

414)Healing sequence in a hard tissue. a)Epithelialization,Fibroplasia,Inflammation and Remodeling b)Fibroplasia,Remodeling,Inflammation and Epithelialization c)Epithelialization,Inflammation,Fibroplasia and Remodeling d)Inflammation,Epithelialization,Fibroplasia and Remodeling (Answer:-D) 415)The new bone formation stage begins as early as a)Third day after extraction

c)Third week after extraction

b)First week after extraction

d)Sixth day after extraction (Answer:-C)

416)The complete process of a healthy socket healing takes a)4-6 months

c)2-3 weeks

b)2-3 months

d)None of the above (Answer:-A)

417)Socket Grafting can be done using these materials except a)Alloplast

b)FDB

c)Allograft

d)None of the above (Answer:-D)

418)Graft material used for five wall bony defect a)Alloplast

c)FDB

b)PDGF

d)None of the above (Answer:-D)

419)Which of these landmarks acts as a donor site for maxillary sinus grafting? a)Posterior Palatal Slopes of Residual Alveolar Ridge b)Maxillary Tuberosity c)Buccal Shelf Area d)Hamular Notch (Answer:-B) 420)Primary category of absorbable BM for GDP a)Collagen Membrane b)Polyactic/Polyglycolic Acid Membrane c)Acellular Dermal Matrix d)All of the above (Answer:-D) 421)Increased levels of IL-2 are found during a)loss of attachment within the scope of peri-implantitis b)proinflammatory cellular response in the peri-implantitis soft tissue c)microvascular permeability and angiogenesis d)All of the above (Answer:-A) 422)Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor(VEGF) found in significantly higher concentrations in a)Proinflammatory cellular response b)Peri-implantitis c)Inflammatory gingival tissue d)None of the above

(Answer:-C) 423)Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor(VGEF) is excreted during every wound healing by a)Prosthaglandins

c)Macrophages

b)Keratinocytes

d)Cytokines (Answer:-B)

424)The most predictable topography for a barrier membrane bone graft is for a)Division B bone volume b)An extraction socket missing one wall of bone c)An implant insertion missing one wall of the bone d)All of the above (Answer:-D) 425)The tent screws are fixation screws inserted into the host site which has the primary function of a)Visual indication of autograft that should be harvested b)Maintain space under the barrier membrane during the bone formation c)A and B d)None of the above (Answer:-C) 426)The barrier membrane should be placed ____________ from the sulcus of the tooth. a)1-2 mm

c)2-3 mm

b)3-4 mm

d)1-1.5 mm (Answer:-C)

427)How much of bone should be less in the facial side,if 0.5mm of bone is grown on the lingual aspect for adequate bone width for an implant? a)0.5 mm

c)0.25 mm

b) 1 mm

d)0.75 mm (Answer:-A)

428)IL-1 is produces by a)Macrophages and Prosthaglandins b)Cytokines and Interleukins c)Monocytes and Macrophages d)Monocytes and Cytokines (Answer:-C) 429)The main stimulus of extracellular matrix catabolism production of collagenase and proteinase and degranulation of neutrophil granulocytes is a)Interleukin 1 b)Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor c)Transforming Growth Factor-B d)All of the above (Answer:-A) 430)The disadvantage of acellular dermal matrix a)10-20 minute preparation time b)The dermal matrix swells in thickness and size c)Disintegration d)A and B (Answer:-A) 431)Materials used to seal fresh extraction socket a)Connective tissue and Trabecular bone b)Connective tissue,Periosteum and Trabecular bone c)Periosteum and Lamellae bone d)Trabecular bone,Periosteum and Lamellae bone (Answer:-B) 432)The most common site for the intraoral bone graft harvest is

a)Buccal Shelf Area

c)Hamular Notch

b)Maxillary Tuberosity

d)Alveolar Ridge (Answer:-B)

433)When does the oroantral opening closes on its own? a)Within 3 months

b)Within 2 weeks

c)Within 3 weeks

d)Within 1 month (Answer:-D)

434)The bone growth stage starts a)4 to 5 weeks after extraction b)3 to 5 weeks after extraction c)2-3 weeks after extraction d)None of the above (Answer:-A) 435)The inflammatory stage of healing is initiated by a)Extraction trauma

b)Infection

c)Bone Grafting

d)All of the above (Answer:-A)

436)Advantage of absorbable membrane are a)Second stage surgery is not required b)Fewer incision line opening complications c)A and B d)None of the above (Answer:-C) 437)The extraction of the natural tooth starts with a)observe the crown and root anatomy

b)incision within the sulcus

c)A and B

d)None of the above (Answer:-B)

438) Death in dental practice has been related to a) Air emboli b) Spread of infection c) Air emboli and spread of infection d) None of the above (c) 439) Stages in the development of infection in head and neck region a) Development b) Extension c) Complication stages d) All of the above

(d)

440) Developmental stage permits a) Periosteal abscess b) Sub-periosteal abscess c) Dentoalveolar abscess d) Alveolar abscess

(b)

441) Before sub periosteal abscess develops a) Pus b) Purulent exudates c) Exudates d) All of the above

(b)

442) Implant placed in an infected immediate extraction site may become involved by a) Infection b) Retro grade infection c) Cancer d) None of the above

(b)

443) Extension stage of the development of infection occurs when the sub periosteal abscess penetrates the periosteum and extends to the facial spaces producing a) Cellulitis b) Peri apical cyst c) Peri apical abscess d) Pulpitis

(a)

444) Extension stage has been observed in a) Sub lingual region b) Sub mental region c) Sub mandibular region d) None of the above

(b)

445) Infection may spread to the walls of the veins and cause a) Blood loss b) Thrombophlebitis c) Vessel damage d) All of the above 446) Sub periosteal implants often extend beyond a) Muscle attachments b) Fascial planes

(b)

c) Muscle attachments and fascial planes d) All of the above

(c)

447) Acute supprative peri apical abscess in the maxilla may penetrate a) Mucosa b)

Alveolar bone

c) Blood vessel d) Periosteum

(b)

448) If the abscess penetrates the periosteum above the attachment of the buccinators a) Peri apical abscess b) Peri apical cyst c) Buccal abscess d) Dento alveolar abscess

(c)

449) If the abscess continues to spread it may involve the a) Skin b) Mucosa c) Bone d) Periosteum

(a)

450) If abscess spreads and involves skin forming a a) Sinus b) Cutaneous abscess c) Fistula d) Sebaceous cyst 451) If infection progress superiorly in maxilla it involves A) Zygomatic region

(b)

B) Temporal region C) Infra orbital region D) Frontal region

(b)

452) If infection is extending downwards it may involve a) Sub mandibular space b) Sub lingual space c) Sub mental space d) All of the above

(a)

453) Dental abscess that erode and perforate the fascial alveolar compact bone involves a) Upper lip and ala of the nose b) Cheek and ala of the nose c) Upper lip and cheek d) Ala of the nose

(c)

454) Maxillary dental infection involves a) One region b) Two regions c) Three regions d) Four regions

(d)

455) Four regions that involve in maxillary dental infection a) Canine fossa b) Buccal space c) Upper lip and infratemporal space d) All of the above 456) Treatment of lip infection is

(d)

a) Excision b) Incision c) Resection d) Incision and drainage

(d)

457) Infection of the canine fossa is commonly caused by spread of infection from the a) Maxillary lateral incisors b) Maxillary canine c) Maxillary premolars d) Maxillary canines and premolars

(d)

458) Abscess of the second and third maxillary molars above the attachment of the buccinators frequently involve a) Mental space b) Buccal space c) Lingual space d) Masseteric space

(b)

459) Infection of the maxillary teeth or endosteal implants exending above the attachment of the buccinator muscle can spread into the a) Temporal space b) Infra temporal space c) Infra orbital space d) Buccal space 460) Infra temporal space infection may involve the a) Infra orbital nerve b) Temporal branch of facial nerve c) Pterygoid plexus of veins

(b)

d) Maxillary nerve

(c)

461) Temporal fossa which is almost completely filled by, covered by a) Temporalis muscle, temporal fascia b) Temporal fascia c) Temporal fascia, temporal muscle d) Temporal muscle

(a)

462) Incision and drainage is usually by a) Intraoral approach b) Extraoral approach c) Temporal approach d) All of the above

(a)

463) Which infection involves four regions a) Maxillary dental b) Mandibular dental c) TMJ d) None of the above

(a)

464) Which is termed as supra clavicular lymphnode a) Deep cervical lymph nodes b) Upper cervical lymph nodes c) Preauricular lymph nodes d) Submental lymph nodes 465) Deep cervical lymph node is also known as a) Sub mandibualr lymph nodes b) Sub mental lymph nodes

(a)

c) Supra clavicular lymph nodes d) Pre auricular lymph nodes.

(c)

466) Godacre et al compiled a review which stated that – (a) Restorations associated with the edentulous maxilla have the highest early implant failure rate (b) Restorations associated with the edentulous mandible have the highest early implant failure rate (c) Restorations associated with the edentulous maxilla and the mandible have equal early implant failure rate (d) None of the above

ans:a

467) Overdentures in maxillary arch averaged – (a) 10% (b) 19% (c) 39% (d) 29%

ans:b

468) Fixed prostheses in the edentulous maxilla had an early implant failure of – (a) 10% (b) 19% (c) 39% (d) 29%

ans:a

469) Mandibular overdentures or fixed restorations demonstrated – (a) 10% (b) 7% (c) 5% (d) 3%

ans:d

470) Anterior ridge loses – (a) 25% of its width within the first year after tooth loss and 40%-50% over 1 year (b) 20% of its width within the first year after tooth loss and 40%-50% over 1 year (c) 25% of its width within the first year after tooth loss and 30%-40% over 1 year (d) None of the above

ans:a

471) As the bone resorbs in the anterior edentulous mandible, the cross section of the residual ridge is – (a) Semi-circular (b) Knife-edged (c) Triangular (d) None of the above

ans:b

472) Bone augmentation is – (a) Required more in the posterior maxilla compared with the anterior mandible (b) Required more in the anterior maxilla compared with the posterior mandible (c) Required more in the anterior maxilla compared with the anterior mandible (d) None of the above

ans:b

473) The trabecular bone of D3 is – (a) 45%-55% weaker than the trabecular bone of D2 (b) 45%-65% weaker than the trabecular bone of D2 (c) 45%-65% stronger than the trabecular bone of D2 (d) 45%-65% weaker than the trabecular bone of D3

ans:c

474) The farther forward the maxillary anterior teeth are positioned from the implants, (a) The lesser the moment force leverage on the bone-implant interface

(b) The greater the moment force leverage on the bone-implant interface (c) The greater the amount of torque on the bone-implant interface (d) None of the above

ans:c

475) Contraindications to fixed partial denture include – (a) Long edentulous spans (b) Poor abutment support (c) Inadequate edentulous bone for proper prosthetic contour (d) All of the above

ans:b

476) The facial surfaces of the central incisors are – (a) 12.5 mm from the most anterior aspect of the incisive papilla (b) 11.5 mm from the most posterior aspect of the incisive papilla (c) 12.5 mm from the most posterior aspect of the incisive papilla (d) None of the above

ans:b

477) The farther forward the labial flange and teeth position, (a) The higher the resting position of the lip (b) The greater the incisal edge exposure (c) Neither (a) nor (b) (d) Both (a) and (b)

ans:a

478) The maxillary anterior region with multiple teeth missing is restored with – (a) FP-1 (b) FP-2 (c) FP-3 (d) RP-4

ans:c

479) Implants are required when the following adjacent teeth are missing –

(a) The first premolar, canine and lateral incisor (b) The canine, lateral incisor and central incisor (c) The canine, first premolar and second premolar (d) All of the above

ans:d

480) The bite force in the first molar natural tooth surface region increases to – (a) 150 lb (b) 200 lb (c) 250 lb (d) 300lb

ans:c

481) Degidi and Misch have found that – (a) The vertical defect width may be 0.5-1 mm (b) The vertical defect width may be 0.5 mm (c) The vertical defect height may be 0.5 mm (d) The vertical defect width may be 1 mm

ans:d

482) When two implants are used to replace two adjacent central incisors, the implant diameter should be – (a) The implant diameter should be 3.8 mm (b) The implant diameter should be 3-4 mm (c) The implant diameter should be 3.5 mm (d) None of the above

ans:b

483) The minimum implant number for a completely edentulous maxillary fixed or RP-4 prosthesis is – (a) Seven in the ovoid arch form (b) Eleven in the ovoid arch form (c) Seven in the square arch form

(d) Eleven in the square arch form

ans:b

484) Adjacent implants should have ____ mm minimum distance between them – (a) 2 mm (b) 2.5 mm (c) 3 mm (d) 3.5 mm

ans:c

485) The modulus of elasticity for an implant of size greater than 6 mm is too great and causes – (a) Stress shielding (b) Unfavourable forces (c) Bone loss (d) Both (a) and (c)

ans:a

486) An excessive crown height may cause greater prosthesis failure through – (a) Vertical cantilever (b) Metal and porcelain shrinkage after casting (c) Increases the weight and the cost of the prosthesis (d) All of the above

ans:c

487) Jemt and Lekholm reported the survival rates of implants in – (a) Mandibular was 95.4% and maxillary was 72.4% (b) Maxillary was 94.5% and mandibular was 72.4% (c) Mandibular was 94.5% and maxillary was 72.4% (d) Mandibular was 94.5% and maxillary was 74.2% 488) Misch’s study on RP-4 and implants revealed – (a) 97% implant survival

ans:d

(b) 95% implant survival (c) 100% prosthesis survival (d) Both (a) and (c)

ans:d

489) The minimum number of implants for an RP-5 maxillary overdenture should be – (a) Three (b) Four (c) Five (d) Six

ans:c

490) The benefits of an RP-5 maxillary overdenture are – (a) Retention and stability (b) Stability and support (c) Retention and support (d) None of the above

ans:d

491) The occlusal scheme for RP-4 restoration is – (a) Centric occlusion around the arch (b) Only anterior contact during mandibular excursions (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)

ans:b

492) The model is scored ___ mm wide and ___ mm deep with a round bur – (a) 1.5, 1 (b) 1, 1.5 (c) 1, 1 (d) 0.5, 1 493) The anterior implants, connection bar and attachments should be –

ans:a

(a) Lingual to the position of the anterior teeth (b) Labial to the position of the anterior teeth (c) Either (a) or (b) (d) None of the above

494. The most common complication for single tooth implant failure is: a)abutment screw loosening b)prosthesis loosening c)implant fracture d)infection ans:a 495)Success rate of a single tooth implant as reported by Misch ef al is? a)99% b)75% c)55% d)67% ans:a 496)Technique done to reduce the risk of screw loosening is... a)Use of nobel metal as screw b)use of higher torque in tightening the screw c)less friction between screw and implant d)flexible screw ans:b 497 )Ideal diameter of a single toothed implant depends on the: a)type of implant

ans:c

b)length of implant c)screw design d)mesiodistal dimension of the missing teeth ans:d 498)Diameter of natural premolar tooth root is? a)7.5 mm b)6.5 mm c)4.2 mm d)7.7 mm ans:c 499)The molar mesiodistal diameter usually ranges from? a)7 to 31 mm b)10 to 11 mm c)8 to 12 mm d)12 to 15 mm ans:c 500)surgical approach of posterior single tooth implant surgery are? a)two stage surgery b)one stage surgery c)direct(flapless)one stage surgery d)all of the above ans:d 501)Advantages of 2 staged surgery are? a)direct observation of crestal bone volume before osteotomy b)direct observation during osteotomy

c)ability to graft the time of implant placement d)all of the above ans:d 502)Element placed in conclusion of a implant surgery (one stage) a)periradicular element b)permucosal healing element c)soft tissue element d)all of the above ans:b 503)Advantages of 1 stage surgery are: a)permits the restoration to be fabricated with complete assessment of the soft tissue profile b)second surgical procedure not needed c)less appointment d)all of the above ans:d 504)Disadvantages of direct(flapless) one stage surgery: a)inability to assess the volume of bone before surgery b)access blood loss during surgery c)discomfort,tenderness and swelling maximum d)all of the above ans:a 505)Advantage of direct(flapless one stage technique a)less soft tissue trauma b)less appointments c)minimal discomfort,tenderness,and swelling

d)all of the above ans:d 506)Drills used in osteotomy during implant placement: a)straight fissure bur b)pilot drill c)flame shaped drill d)ball shaped drill ans:b 507)Drills used in osteotomy except: a)twist drill b)pilot drill c)sequential drill d)flame shaped drill ans:d 508 )Angulation of the maxillary canine root distally: a)32 degree b)33 degree c)11 degree d)34 degree ans:c 509)The first premolar implant should be placed ________ to the root of the canine. a)110 b)90 c)190 d)122

ans:b 510)Advantage of one stage surgery compared with direct one stage approach is: a)Stronger then the direct approach b)less failure rate c)the attached keratinized tissue can be repositioned d)all of the above ans:c 511)Ideal implant size from the adjacent tooth is: a)2 to 5 mm b)1.5 to 2 mm c)2 to 3 mm d)3 to 3.5 mm ans:b 512)Advantage of threaded implant over cylinder a)more thickness then cylinder b)less torque c)greater functional surface area d)all of the above ans:c 513)Mesiodistal dimension of the missing tooth determines the: a)type of implant b)ideal diameter of a implant c)screw design d)length of the screw ans:b

514)Permucosal healing element is used in a)one stage b)two stage c)direct(flapless)one stage d)all of the above ans:b 515)Drill used in the initial osteotomy depth establishment a)pilot drill b)twist drill c)sequential drill d)periosteal drill ans:a 516)Distance between the implant and neurovascular canal a)>2mm b)<2mm c)>11mm d)<11mm ans:a 517)Implant thread design is shallow in what type of bone: a)thick b)porous c)soft d)all of the above ans:c

25)Which of the statement is true: a)The lingual border of osteotomy is often higher then facial b)distance between osteotomy is 5mm c)the less prepared osteotomy the better retention d)all of the above ans:a 518)Post operative instruction after impant surgery: a)use of periodic ice in the region for 3days b)use of mouth wash after surgery c)normal diet can be continued d)all of the above ans:a 519)Direct one stage surgery is only done in bone with: a)>8 mm b)<8mm c)>10mm d)<10 mm ans:a 520)The drill is not used when the bone density is a)D3 b)D4 c)D1 d)a and b ans:d

521.

The goals of implant dentistry are to replace a patientâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s missing teeth to

a) Normal contour b) Comfort and function c) Esthetics and speech d) All the above Ans:d 522.

Following is not true for the advantage of removable implant supported prosthesis in the completely edentulous patient a) Long treatment if no bone augmentation is required b) Fewer implant may be required c) Less bone augmentation may be necessary before implant insertion d) Long term treatment of complication is facilitated Ans: a 523.

FP1 definition ?

a) Replace the crown and portion of the root b) Replaces only the crown c) Replaces the missing crown and portion of edentulous site d) Both a and c Ans: b 524.

Following is not true for the advantage of fixed restoration in the partially edentulous patient a) Psychological b) Fewer implant may be required c) Less food entrapment

d) All the above Ans:b

525.

RP4 definition?

a) Replaces only the crown b) Replaces the crown and portion of root c) Overdenture supported completely by implant d) Both a and b Ans ; c

526.

The chance of food entrapment under a removable overdenture is

a) Often greater than for a fixed restoration b) Less than for a fixed restoration c) None d) Both a and b Ans: a 527.

Who proposed five prosthetic option for implant dentistry

a) Devan b) Cummer c) Misch d) Kennedy Ans:c 528.

Following is not true for FP1

a) Replaces the crown b) Must be minimal loss of hard and soft tissue

c) Most often desired in maxillary anterior region d) None Ans; d

529.

Cervical diameter of maxillary central incisor is

a) 6.5mm b) 7.5mm c) 7.0mm d) 10mm Ans: a 530.

Implant abutment is _________in diameter(FP1)

a) 4mm b) 3mm c) 5mm d) 6mm Ans: a 531.

Material of choice for FP1 prosthesis ___

a) Porcelain to noble metal alloy b) Porcelain c) Metal alloy to porcelain d) Both b and c Ans: a 532.

FP2?

a) Replaces the crown

b) Restore the anatomical crown and portion of root c) Portion of the edentulous site d) Both a and c Ans: b 533.

Material of choice for an FP2 prosthesis

a) Metal to porcelain b) Metal alloy c) Porcelain d) Porcelain to noble metal alloy Ans ; d

534.

Following is not true for FP2 prosthesis

a) Replaces the crown and position of roof b) Material of choice porcelain c) It should be placed in the correct facial lingual position d) Both a and c Ans - b 535.

A multiple unit FP2 restoration does not require as specific an implant position a) In mesial or distal position b) Labial and lingual c) Only labial position d) Both a and c Ans â&#x20AC;&#x201C; a 536.

FP3 replace

a) The teeth crown and portion of roof b) Crown c) Portion of soft tissue d) Both b and c Ans – d 537.

Approaches for an FP3 prosthesis

a) Hybrid restoration of denture teeth and acrylic and metal subs true b) A porcelain metal restoration c) A porcelain to noble metal alloy restoration d) Both a and b Ans – d 538.

Porcelain thickness will not be greater than _____ thickness

a) 3mm b) 6mm c) 1mm d) 2mm Ans – d 539.

The completely edentulous mandibular over denture may have

a) Two Ant implants independent of each other b) Splinted implant in the canine c) 3 splinted implant in premolar and central incisor d) All of the above Ans – d 540.

RP5

a) Replaces the crown and roof b) Only the crown c) Portion of edentulous site d) Over denture supported by both soft tissue and implant Ans – d 541.

Following are true for FP1 except

a) Minimal loss of hard and soft tissue b) Desired in the maxillary and ant region c) Replaces only the anatomical crown d) Material of choice metal to porcelain Ans – d 542.

Following are true for FP2 except

a) Replaces the portion of edentulous site b) Replaces the crown and root c) Material of choice metal to porcelain d) All the above Ans – a 543.

Following are true for RP4 except

a) Completely supported by the implants , teeth or both b) Restoration is rigid when inserted c) Usually 5 or 6 six- implant in the mandible d) 6 to 11 implants in the maxilla required Ans – d 544.

Following are true for FP3 except

a) Pink colored restorative material b) To replace a portion of soft tissue c) Replace the edentulous site d) Rarely has the patient’s inter dental papilla and soft tissue around the emergence of crown Ans – c 545.

Relines and occlusal adjustments every few are common maintenance requirements of an a) RP5 b) RP4 c) FP3 d) Both a and c Ans – a 546.

Labial contour of removable restoration can replace

a) Lost bone width and height b) Support the labial soft tissue without hygiene c) Anatomical crown d) Both a and b Ans – d

547.

Fixed implant restoration may be indicated for

a) Completely edentulous patient b) Partially edentulous patient c) Both Ans – c

548.

Completely implant supported over denture requires the

a) Less number of implant as a fixed implant restoration b) More number of implant as a fixed implant restoration c) Same number of implant d) None Ans â&#x20AC;&#x201C; c 549.

Chance of food entrapment under a removable over denture is

a) Often greater than for a fixed restoration b) Less than for fixed restoration c) None Ans â&#x20AC;&#x201C; a 550.

Misch proposed five prosthetic options for implant. When ?

a) 1988 b) 1989 c) 1991 d) 1979 Ans â&#x20AC;&#x201C; b 551.

Ideal treatment plan for a partially edentulous patient includes

a. b. c. d.

Teeth supported fixed prosthetic restoration Independent implant restoration Treatment partial denture+ None of the above

Ans b

552.

complications of Teeth supported fixed prosthetic restoration is :

a. Delay on the tooth spliced in a fixed partial denture b. Endodontic related c. Risk of uncertain restoration d. All the above Ans d 553.

Increase in number of abutment

a. Increase the risk of uncertain restoration b. Decrease the risk of uncertain restoration c. No effect on restoration d. None Ans b

554.

Key positions when adjacent teeth are missing

a. Ist molar & Ist premolar site b. Focusers & premolar site c. Canine & Ist molar site d. All the above.

Ans c

555.

According to Misch,Arch is divided in to

a. 4 segments b. 5 segments c. 2 segment d. 0 segment Ans b 556.

When a 25 lb fore is applied on a 10mm continence, the moment fore on the abutment.

a. b. c. d. ans b

same as 25 lb increase to 250 lb reduce to zero none of the above

557.

Which abutment receives maximum forces in cantilever positions?

a. b. c. d.

Ans a

closest abutment to the continence farthest abutment to the continence both a & b None of the above.

558 .. The length of the continence (effort arm) divided by resistance arm represents The a) Mechanical advantage b) Biological advantage c) Both a & b d) None of the above Ans b

559. The ideal key implant position when 2 adjacent teeth are missing

a)one implant b) one implant per tooth c)both a & b e)None of the above.

Ans b

560. Cantilevers is the most prudent option for

a) edentulous mandible available Bone in the posterior regions b) single missing tooth c) edentulous site supported by 2 abutments d) None of the above.

Ans a 561. The greater the span between the abutments.

a) b) c) d) Ans d

greater the load greater the flexure swear the tensile loads on the abutment All the above.

562. Arch may be divided in to 5 segments

a) (2 central incisors, 2 lateral incisors) 1 segment canines( independent segment) premolar & molar one each side( 2 segment) b) 2 CI – 1 segment, 2 LIS canine – 2 segment pre molar & molar – 2 segment. c) CI,LI,canine – 1 segment premolar(both side ) 2 segment, molar (both side - 2 segments. d) None of the above.

Ans a

563. when multiple adjacent missing tooth extend beyond one of the open pentagon

a) b) c) d) Ans a

key implant portion needs to be with each segment 2 in each segment One on either side of the arch Both b & c

564. which is best in a 12 unit fixed prosthesis

a) b) c) d) Ans b

4 key implant portion 8 key implant potion 2 key implant portion Non of the above

565. A male patient who bruxes severely requires

a) One imp lent for each missing tooth b) One imp lent for each missing root

segments

c) No imp lent at all d) None of the above.

Ans b 566. Cantilevers in the mandible should be projected

a) b) c) d) Ans a

one on one posterior quadrant on both posterior quadrant not place in mandible none of the above

567. The primary advantage of restoring implants as independent units . a) b) c) d) Ans a

Inter proximal hygiene Cost factor Both a & b None of the above.

568. increased risk of porcelain fracture is present in

a) b) c) d) Ans a

independent units splinted units both a& b none of the above

569.Endodontic risk are increased

a) in independent unit b) splinted teeth c) both a & b d) none of the above.

Ans b

570. Advantage of splinting implants together

a) increases functional surface area of support

b) c) d) e) Ans e

increased Ap distance increases cement retention decreases risk of abutment screw loosing all of the above.

571. The highest prosthetic complication with single tooth implant is

a) b) c) d) Ans a

abutment screw loosing marginal bone loss implant fracture none of the above.

572.

Ideal implant size should be based on:

a) Esthetic b) Physiologic c) Biomechanics d) Both A & C Ans: (d) 573

Average Mesiodistal dimension for central incisor in male is

a) 8.1mm b) 8.9 mm c) 7.6 mm d) 8.6 mm Ans: (d) 574

Surgeon would select longer implant in anterior region of mouth & shorter one in posterior

because:s-

a) Limit of Mandibular canal & Nasal sinus b) Extension of Mandibular Canal & Maxillary sinus c) Limit of floor of nasal septum & Mandibular canal d) Limit of Mandibular Canal & Maxillary sinus Ans:- (d) 575.

Dental Implant function to:-

a) Preserve tissue b) Transfer loads to surrounding biological tissues c) Preservation of bone &tissues d) Both b & c Ans:- (b) 576.

Average bite force range from:-

a) 100 to 2501b b) 50 to 3001b c)

10 to 10001b

d) 10 to 3501b

Ans:- (d) 577.

Magnitude of force is least in:-

a) Anterior incisor b) Anterior lateral c) Ant canine d) Lower canine

Ans:- (a)

578.

After substained periods of edentulism, bone foundation often becomes

a) More dense b) More compact c) Less dense d) Both b & c Ans: (c) 579.

Boneâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s ultimate strength is highly dependent on

a) Density b) Force c) Surrounding structure d) All above Ans:- (a) 580.

Implant body width is directly related to:-

a) Magnitude of implant b) Forces taken by implant c) Strength of implant d) All above

Ans:- (c)

581.

Bone is stronger when loaded in

a) Tension b) Compression c) Shear d) Force

Ans:- (b)

582.

Forces to an implant body are typically greatest at

a) Crestal bone interfere b) Crestal tissue interfere c) Both d) None

Ans:- (a) 583.

To decrease the effect of an applied load on implant body:-

a) Decrease in diameter b) Increase in diameter c) Increase in size d) Both a & c Ans: (b) 584.

Most important factor to decrease stress to implant bone interface is usually

a) Increase in implant diameter b) Increase in Implant number c) Increase in implant bulk d) All above

Ans:- (b)

585.

Implants are _____ mm are usually are considered ideal for most situation

a) 10 â&#x20AC;&#x201C; 15 mm b) 8 â&#x20AC;&#x201C; 20 mm

c) 12 â&#x20AC;&#x201C; 15 mm d) 12 â&#x20AC;&#x201C; 18 mm Ans:- (c) 586.

Which bone is primarily present in posterior region of jaw:-

a) D3 b) D2 c) D4 d) Both a & c Ans:- (d) 587.

Posterior short implant may have a higher failure rate after loading compared with longer

implants:-

a) Higher bite forces b) Bone density in region c) Increase crown height d) All above Ans:- (d) 588.

Advantage of short implants:

a) No surgical risk of sinus perforation b) No surgical risk of paresthesia c) More strength d) A &B Ans:- (d)

589.

st

Implant body diameter of 3.75 mm was 1 introduced by:-

a) Carl E. Misch b) Jent c) Branemark d) Htimmlova

Ans:- (c)

590.

Surgical advantage of wide â&#x20AC;&#x201C; diameter implant

a) Surgical rescue implant b) Failed implant c) Tooth erection d) All above Ans:- (d) 591.

Loading Advantage of wide diameter implants

a) Compensate for bone density b) Enhance surface for longer implants c) Both d) Maximize cantilever for angled implant Ans:- (a) 592.

Based on force factors, in implant placed in nursing ------------- should be longer in diameters:

a) Old b) Young Female c) Young Male d) None Ans:- (c)

593.

All are the disadvantage of wide diameter implants:-

a) Bone from drill sequence b) Improves emergence profile c) Stress shielding d) Too close to adjacent tooth Ans: (b) 594.

Which has largest diameter & surface area:-

a) Maxillary molar b) Maxillary premolar c) Mandibular PM d) Mandibular Molar Ans:- (a) 595.

Bone level of natural teeth is ---------------- below the CEJ

a) 1 mm b) 1.5 mm c) 3 mm d) 2 mm Ans:- (d) 596.

Implant size collection criteria in posterior moseilla

a) 1.5 mm from adjacent tooth b) 3 mm from adjacent implant c) 4 mm from adjacent implant d) Both a & b

Ans:- (d)

597.

Narrowest implant is found in:-

a) Anterior moseilla b) Posterior mandible c) Anterior mandible d) Posterior moseilla

Ans:- (c)

598.

The trabeculae bone is used to:

a) Equalize force b) Dissipate force c) Stress – equalization d) All

Ans: (b) 599.

What is the indication for classification of partially edentulous arches? a)

To formulate a good treatment plan

b)

Allows the profession to visualize and communicate the relationship of hard

and soft structure c)

To anticipate the difficulties’ commonly to occur for that particular design

d)

All the above Ans:- (d)

600.

Who originally proposed the theory of partially indentions arches? a)

Neurohs

b)

Godfrey’s classification

c)

Mauk’s d)

Cummu, Kennedy, Bailyn Ans:- (d)

601.

Keney classified the partially idenlulow arches into:a)

Two classes

c)

Four Classes

d)

Three Classes

d)

Both a & b

ans; c

602.

The …………… rules helps to classify the system a)

Applegates

b)

Neurohs

c)

Cummer

d)

Both b & c

ans ; a

603.

604.

Applegate’s rules are divided into ………….. principles in implant dentistry a)

Three

b)

Eight

c)_

Five

d)

Four

Ans:- (b)

What is the first principle in Applegate’s rules a)

If should follow rather than precede extractions that might after the

classification b)

Most posterior edentulous area always determines the classification

c)

Edentulous area, other than those determining the classification are referred to

as modifications. d)

Both a & b

605.

The second principle in Applegate’s rule is:a)

It should follow rather than precede extractions that might after the

classifications b)

Most posterior identifulow area always determine the classification

c)

Identiflow area other than those determining the classification are referred to

as modification.

e) None Ans: (b) 606.

The implant dentistry bone volume classification developed by: a)

Misch & Judy in 1985

b)

Kenedy in 1980

c)

Cummu 1970

d)

None

607.

Class I for partially edentulous arches:a)

Partially edentulous arch with bilateral edentulous area

b)

Partially edentulous arch with unilateral edentitours area with natural

remaining anterooms &posterior c)

Partially edentulous are unilateral edentulous area posterior to remaining

d)

None

teeth

608.

609.

610.

Ans (a)

Division a for class I is a)

Edentulous area have abundant bone width (>6 mm)

b)

Bone width (2.5 to 6 mm)

c)

Inadequate available bone

d)

Reversely reserved ridges

Ans(a)

Crown height <15 mm come in a)

Class II

b)

Class I div B

c)

Class I div D

d)

Class III

Ans:- (b)

indication for root form implant a)

Class I

c)

Class I div B

b)

Class I div A

d)

Class II Ans:- (b)

611.

612.

Class I surgical options is indicated for a)

Div A

c)

Div B & Div D

b)

Div B

d)

Div A &Div B

Root forms with augmentation and / or nerve repositioning is indication for a)

Div A class I

c)

Class I Div C

b)

Class I Div B

d)

Class I Div D Ans:- (c)

613.

Augmentation procedure is required for

a)

to improve posterior bone volume

b)

to increase implant surface areas

c)

to permit the fabrications of an independent implant restoration

d)

All the above Ans (a)

614.

615

An independent implant supported fixed prosthesis is usually indicated in a)

Class I div A

c)

Class I Div C

b)

Class I div B

d)

Class I Div D

Completely edentulous classification include the classification of a)

Lekholm & Zarb

c)

Misch Judy

b)

Kenty & Loursiana dental school d)

None Ans:- (a)

616.

What is Type 1 div A (Edentulous) a)

Ridge with abundant bone in all three directions, as many root forms as needed

may be inserted. b)

Ridge present adequate bone in all three erections in which to place narrow

diameter root form implant.

c)

Both a & b d)

None Ans: Type I (a)

617.

In Kenedy Applegateâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s class I medications I patient with anterior missing teeth are often

resorted with a)

Anterior FPD & Post RPD

c)

Anterior FPD

b)

Anterior RPD & Post FPD

d)

None Ans: (a)

618.

In Kenedy Applegate class I Modification I patient restored with Anterior FPD and post RPD

will prevent

619. .

a)

Rocking of prosthesis

c)

b)

Decreases the forces transmitted to abutment

d)

Both a & b

Prevent rotation of prosthesis

Ans: d)

If no canine implant is inserted, then lack of anterior support can cause

a)

Rotation of the prosthesis

c)

Both a &b

b)

Accelerate posterior implant Loss

d)

Rocking Prosthesis Ans (c )

620.

Following are the most common antimicrobials used in implant dentistry

a) Antifungal and antimicrobial rinses b) Antibiotic and antimicrobial rinses c) Only antimicrobial rinses d) Both a and b Ans – b 621.

the use of prophylactic antibodies in dentistry

a) prevent rheumatic fever b) prevent oral microbial disease c) prevent development of infectious endocarditis d) a and c ans – c 622.

The disadvantages with use of antibiotics include

a) Infectious endocarditis b) Development of resistant bacteria c) Adverse reactions d) Both b and c Ans – d 623.

According to ESPOSITO and HARISCH, main cause of implant failure is

a) Para functional habits

b) Poor oral hygiene c) Bacterial contamination d) All the above Ans – c 624.

Which of the following are systemic factors associated with increased risk of infection for implant procedure a) Diabetes b) Smoking c) Hypothyroidism d) All the above

Ans – d 625.

Elective dental implant surgery falls under which class of surgical wound classification with associated infection rates a) Class III b) Class IV c) Class I d) Class II Ans – d 626.

Local factors associated with increased risk of infection in implant procedures are a) Periodontal disease b) Type of grafting material c) Odontogenic infections d) All the above

Ans – d 627.

Surgical factors associated with increased risk of infection in implant procedure a) Poor aseptic technique b) Increased duration of surgery c) Skill of surgeon d) All the above

Ans – d 628.

The antibiotic used for surgical procedure must be ideally

a) Bacteriostatic b) Bactericidal c) Both a and b Ans – b 629.

Advantages of bactericidal over bacteriostatic medications are

a) Results are faster b) Greater flexibility with dosage intervals c) Bacteria destroyed by the antibiotic alone d) All the above Ans – d 630.

The complications of antibiotic prophylaxis are

a) Allergic reactions b) Gastrointestinal complications c) Respiratory complications

d) Only a and b e) All the above Ans: d 631.

An unusual but increasing complication of antibiotic prophylaxis in general population is a) Gastrointestinal complication b) Cross reactions c) Pseudomembranous colitis d) Allergic reactions Ans: c 632.

Pseudomembranous colitis is caused due to intestinal flora being altered and colonized by a) Clostridium tetani b) Clostridium difficile c) E.coli d) Both a and b Ans: b 633.

The most common beta-lactam antibodies used in dentistry are

a) Penicillinâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s b) Capholosporin c) Both a and b d) None Ans: c 634.

To counteract the activity of beta-lactamase distruction of penicillin by resistant bacteria, which antibiotic was sysnthesized

a) Amoxicillin b) Cephalosporin c) Augmentin d) None Ans: c 635.

Which combination of antibiotics was synthesized to form augmentin

a) Amoxicillin and cephalosporin b) Amoxicillin and clavulonic acid c) Amoxicillin and erythromycin d) None Ans: 636.

Which of the following statements are true

1. Combination of amoxicillin and clavulonic acid is augmentin 2. This combination has an affinity for penicillinase producing bacteria and functions as suicide molecule that inactivates resistant bacteria a) Both 1 and 2 are false b) 1 is true, 2 is false c) Both 1 and 2 are true d) 1is false, 2 is true Ans: c 637.

Which of the following is the most common macrolide used in dentistry

a) Amoxicillin b) Erythromycin c) Clindamycin

d) None Ans: b 638.

Acute postoperative infections are shown to occur _____________days after surgery a) 1 â&#x20AC;&#x201C; 2 days b) 3 - 4 days c) One week d) 2 - 3 days Ans: b 639.

Uses of chlorhexidine in oral implantology are

a) Patient presurgical rinse b) Postsurgical rinse c) Peri-implant maintenance on daily basis d) All the above

Ans: e 640.

NSAIDâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s reduce inflammation by

a) inhibiting the synthesis of prostaglandis from arachidonic acid b) by altering the connective tissue response to injury c) causing lysis by binding to bacterial cell membrane d) all the above Ans: a 641.

Adrenal suppression occurs after ____days of steroid administration

a) 2-3 days

b) 4-5 days c) 1-2 days d) 7-10 days Ans: d

642.

The use of synthetic steroids should be based on the____________

a) Hg% b) Production of hydrocortisone in body c) Production of RBCs in body d) None Ans: b 643.

The opiod analgesics among the following are

a) NSAIDâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s b) Codeine c) Glucocorticoids d) Meperidin e) Both b and d Ans: e 644.

The non-opioid analgesics used in dentistry are

a) Acetaminophen b) Hydrocodone c) Glucocorticoids d) Codiene Ans: a

645.

The following side effects occur due to use of NSAIDâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s except

a) Dyspepsia b) Ulcerations c) Cardiac affects d) Respiratory depression Ans: d 646.

The main advantage of COX-2 inhibitors is

a) Lack of gastrointestinal side effects b) Lack of rinal side effects c) Lack of cardiac effects d) All the above Ans: a

647.

In addition to relieving pain, morphine may cause the following except

a) Euphoria b) Respiratory depression c) Constipation d) Diarrhea Ans: d 648.

Signs and symptoms of local anesthetic toxicity are

a) Talkativeness b) Lethargy c) Lack of muscle tone d) Only b and c e) All the above Ans: e

649.

The U or V shaped transosteal around an implant is called a. Ditching b. Saucerisation ans-d c. Neither d. Both a and b

650.

Primary failure of an implant to integrate initially with bone is due to a. Operator inefficiency or inexperience b. Bone pathology ans-c c. Excessive heat during osteotomy and pressure at implant-bone Interface d. Micro movement of implant

651.

Which of the following is not a biomechanical failure of implant a. Early loading failure b. Micro movement

ans-c

c. Healing failure d. Engineering failure 652.

In early loading failure of implant the time period within which it fails is a. 6 to 18 months b. 3 to 6 months c. Within the first year d. The next day

653.

Which of the following is false about screw loosening a. Greater stress to prosthesis, greater risk of screw loosening

ans-a

b. Height of the implant body does not affect the amount of force ans-b c. Cantilevers increase risk of screw loosening d. Height of the crown affects the amount of force applied 654.

Which of the following are the effects of crestal bone loss a. Early implant failure b. Prosthetic screw loosening

ans-d

c. Abutment screw loosening d. All of the above 655.

Periosteal reflection leads to a. Vertical bone loss of reflected residual ridge b. Horizontal bone loss of reflected residual ridge ans-b c. Ditching d. Both a and c

656.

Primary cause of bone loss around natural teeth is a. Due to bacteria alone b. Due to occlusal trauma alone c. Due to both trauma and occlusal trauma d. Neither

657.

Exudate around an implant is more likely to be present when a. Probing depth is greater than 5 mm b. Aerobic environment exists around the implant ans-c c. Both a and b

ans-c

d. None of the above 658.

Which of the following is false about biological width of natural teeth a. Width is actually a height dimension b. Biological width does not allow gingival fibres to make contact with natural teeth c. Average biological is 2.04 mm ans-b d. Greater dimension in posterior than in anterior

659.

The crevice between the implant and the abutment connection is called a. Microgap b. Macrogap

ans-a

c. Nanogap d. Both a and c 660.

The amount of strain in a material is a. Directly proportional to the stress applied

ans-d

b. Inversely proportional to the stress applied c. Measured in percentages d. Both a and c 661.

Which of the following are true about modulus of elasticity a. It is the relationship between stress and strain b. Represents stiffness of a material

ans-d

c. Conveys the amount of dimensional change in a material for a given stress level d. All of the above 662.

A decrease in bone remodelling can lead to

a. Increase in bone loss b. Decrease in bone loss ans-b c. No bone loss d. Could be all of the above 663.

An increase in bone density is related a. Bone strength b. Elastic modulus ans-d c. Bone remodelling d. All of the above

664.

Which of the following refers to the bone resorption that occurs around both cemented and uncemented orthopaedic implant a. Osseodisintegration b. Osseoradionecrosis

ans-c

c. Osteolysis d. None of the above 665.

Rate of bone loss ______ after the first year of loading a. Increases b. Rapidly increases

ans-c

c. Decreases d. Rapidly decreases 666.

Which of the following statements are true a. Woven bone is unorganized and weaker than lamellar bone ans-d b. Lamellar bone develops after woven bone has replaced devitalized bone

c. Fine trabecullar bone is less dense than coarse trabecullar bone d. All of the above 667.

Marginal bone loss is a. Less in the mandible compared to the maxilla b. Less in the maxilla compared to the mandible ans-a c. Equal in both maxilla and mandible d. Differs in different individuals

668.

Bone is strongest under a. Tensile forces b. Compressive forces

ans-b

c. Shear forces d. Gravitational forces 669.

The stress treatment theorem states that treatment related to the science of implant dentistry should be centered around a. Biological aspects of stress b. Prosthetic aspects of stress

ans-c

c. Biomechanical aspects of stress d. All of the above 670. is

Of the factors that influence the amount of patient stress the most significant

a. Bruxism b. Clenching c. Tongue thrusting d. Crown height

ans-a

671.

In a 3-4 unit restoration the most important abutments are a. Intermediate abutments b. Terminal abutments

ans-b

c. Neither d. Both 672.

Most effective way to increase the surface are of implant support is a. Decreasing the number of implants used to support the prosthesis b. Increasing the number of implants used to support the prosthesis ans-d c. Reducing the number of pontics d. Both b and c

673.

A threaded implant with 10 threads for 10 mm has_____ surface area than one with 5 threads a. Less b. More

ans-b

c. The same d. None of the above 674.

If biomechanical stress is not dealt with, it will lead to a. Psychological stress b. Implant failure

ans-c

c. Both a and b d. Neither 675.

With improper biochemical management _____implants may have higher failure rates a. Longer b. Shorter

ans-b c. Both a and b d. Neither 676.

The overall stress to the implant system may be reduced by _____the area over which the force is applied a. Decreasing then increasing b. Increasing then decreasing

ans-d

c. Decreasing d. Increasing 677.

Dense cortical bone is ___ times stronger than fine trabecullar bone a. 100 times b. 20 times

ans-c

c. 10 times d. 5 times 678.

Stress treatment theorem sequence for treatment planning includes a. Prosthesis design b. Patient force factors c. Bone density in implant sites d. All of the above

679.

Available bone greatly influences the following factors: a. Soft tissue drape b. Implant size c. Implant position

ans-d

d. Final esthetic outcome e. All of the above Answer is: E

680.

A traditional two piece implant should be at least _____ away from the adjacent tooth. a. 1.5mm b. 3.0mm c. 5.0mm d. 7.0mm Answer is: A

681.

The bone level on natural teeth is ______ below the cemento-enamel junction. a. 1mm b. 2mm c. 4mm d. 8mm Answer is: B

682.

The faciopalatal position of an implant is dictated by the available bone on either side. Implants are placed 1mm or more palatally to provide of lack of facial bone. a. First statement is true b. Second statement is true c. Both the statements are true d. Both the statements are false Answer is: C

683.

Three faciopalatal angulations of implant body are suggested.

a. Facial angulation so emergence of final crown is similar to adjacent teeth b. Under incisal edge of final restoration c. Within cingulum position of implant crown d. All of the above.

Answer is: D

684.

If the implant is placed too facially the crown appears too long and facial.

After insertion soft tissue grafts and bone augmentation cannot improve the condition of poor placement. a. First statement is true b. Second statement is true c. Both the statements are true d. Both the statements are false Answer is: C

685.

Soft tissue contouring consists of one or more of the following: a. Soft tissue graft before bone augmentation b. Soft tissue graft in conjunction with bone graft before implant surgery c. Nonresorbable hydroxyapatite graft d. All of the above

Answer is: D

686.

Interproximal soft tissue in implant site may be classified as except one of the following: a. Acceptable height in edentulous area b. Less than acceptable height c. One papilla is acceptable and other is depressed

d. Excess papilla is seen in both Answer is: D

687.

When papilla are depressed in edentulous site, vertical-release incisions are made at adjacent teeth. When papilla have acceptable height, â&#x20AC;&#x153;papilla-savingâ&#x20AC;? incisions are made adjacent to teeth. a. First statement is true b. Second statement is true c. Both the statements are true d. Both the statements are false Answer is: C

688.

The first drill to enter the bone is termed the _____ a. Twist drill b. Penetration drill c. Misch drill d. Pilot drill

Answer is: D

689.

After final osteotomy diameter and depth are prepared, a bone tap is used with the following speed and torque: a. 30rpm and 70N-cm b. 500rpm and 30N-cm c. 10,000rpm and 100-Ncm d. 250,000rpm and 50N-cm Answer is: A

690.

The function of a bone tap is to produce:

a. Final implant depth b. ‘Tap’ the implant into the bone c. Produce threads within the bone d. Distribute stress by reducing sides of bone Answer is: C

691.

The threaded implant may be placed by: a. Using a handpiece at 30rpm b. Using a hand wrench c. Using the surgeon’s fingers d. All of the above

Answer is: D

692.

The surgeon may utilized the following when less than 1.5mm facial bone is present a. Particulate graft b. Particulate graft and resorbable membrane c. Autograft collected from osteotomy d. All of the above e. B and C only Answer is: E

693.

The following options may be utilized as a transitional prosthesis: a. Resin-bonded fixed restoration b. Essix appliance

c. Cantilevered transitional FPD d. Denture tooth with attached brackets if requiring orthodontics e. All of the above Answer is: E

694.

Five diagnostic keys given by ______ regarding immediate implant insertion after extraction: a. Mark Davidson b. Bandhu c. Kois d. G. George Answer is: C

695.

Advantages for delayed implant placement in extraction site include: a. Increased surgical control, position and angulation b. Increased hard tissue quality c. Increased success d. All of the above

Answer is: D

696.

Advantages of immediate implant placement in extraction site include: a. Increased surgery b. Decreased time c. Increased maintenance of soft tissue d. All of the above e. B and C only

Answer is: E

697.

Examples of Class I lever forceps in tooth removal include: a. Physics forceps b. Dentagone forceps c. Instaout forceps d. All of the above

Answer is: A

698.

Soft tissue procedures in Stage II surgery may be classified as: a. Subtractive b. Addition c. Combination of Each d. All of the above

Answer is: D

699.

The split-finger technique may be described as: a. Incisions looping the adjacent teeth and splitting the palatal to form four interlacing fingers. b. Using the index finger divided by two as a measure of appropriate width c. Holding the facial flap with a finger and tearing the palatal mucosa d. None of the above.

Answer is: A

700.

Four surgical time sequences exist to address interproximal height except one of the following a. Before bone graft with connective tissue graft b. In conjunction with bone graft

c. At implant insertion d. 6 months post implant uncover Answer is: D

701.

The following treatment options exist for replacement of anterior single missing tooth: a.

Removable partial denture

b. Resin-bonded prosthesis c. Implant prosthesis d. All of the above Answer is: D

702.

Prosthetic options for soft tissue contouring and emergence profile include: a. Wide healing abutment b. Temporary contouring through provisional restoration c. Anatomical abutment d. Pink porcelain on abutment e. All of the above

Answer is: E

703.

The crest module of an implant measures 3.5mm therefore the mesiodistal width of available bone should be at least: a. 3.5mm b. 4.5mm c. 6.5mm d. 10mm Answer is: C

704. of:

Local contraindications for anterior single-implant include with the exception

a. Inadequate bone height of less than 9mm b. Inadequate crown height c. Mobility of 2 to 4 adjacent teeth d. Inadequate faciopalatal bone width of less than 10mm Answer is: D

705.

A cantilever fixed partial denture is indicated when the lateral incisor is missing. The canine is the only source for abutment support for a cantilever fixed partial denture. a. First statement is true b. Second statement is true c. Both the statements are true d. Both the statements are false Answer is: C

706.

The following features limit the most common complication in single tooth; abutment screw loosening except: a. Lack of anti-rotational feature b. Accuracy of component fit c. Abutment screw design d. Number of threads Answer is: A

707.

If the interproximal bone is higher than the normal position of 2mm below the CEJ of adjacent teeth, it should be scaplloped ______ more incisal than midcrestal portion. a. 2mm b. 3mm

c. 5mm d. 7mm Answer is: B 708 .BONE DENSITY QUALITY OF BONE IS OFTEN DEPENDENT ON A.WIDTH OF ARCH B.ARCH POSITION C.HEIGHT OF ARCH D.QUALITY OF ARCH

ans: b

709 .MANDILBLE AS AN INDEPENDENT STRUCTURE IS A. FORCE DISTIBUTION UNIT B.FORCE ABSORBTION UNIT C.FORCE REPULSIVE UNIT D.BOTH A AND B

ans: b

710 .MAXILLA IS A A. B. C. D.

FORCE FORCE FORCE BOTH A

DISTIBUTION ABSORBTION REPULSIVE AND B

UNIT UNIT UNIT ans: a

711 . BONE DENSITY CHANGE IS GREATER AFTER TOOTH LOSS A. B. C. D.

ANTERIOR MANDIBLE ANTERIOR MAXILLA POSTERR MANDIBLE POSTERIOR MAXILLA

ans: d

712 .REMODILLS IS A PROCESS OF A.RESORPTION B. FORMATION C. PHASE OF BONE RENEWAL D.BOTH A AND B

ans: d

713 .THE GREAT THE MAGNITUDE OF STRESS A.THE LESSER THE STRAIN B.THE GREATER THE STRAIN C.STRAIN IS UNAFFECTED D,NONE OF THE ABOVE

ans: b

714 .SAFETY RANGE FOR BONE STRENGTH IS A,INCREASED during REPAIR B. REDUCED DURING REPAIR C.UNAFFACTED DURING REPAIR D.SAFETY RANGE BECCOME NIL WHILE REPAIR

ans:b

715 .PATHOLOGIC OVERLOAD ZONE ARE REACHED WHEN A,GREATER THAN 5000 UNIT B.GREATE THAN 4000 UNIT C.LESS THAN 3000 UNIT D. GREATER THAN 3000 UNIT

ans: d

716 .CLASS ONE BONE STRUCTURE IS A.EVENLY SPACED TRABECULEA WITH SMALL CONCELLED SPACE B.EVENLY SPACED TRABEULEA WITH LARGER CONCELLED SPACE C.LESS UNIFORM OF OSSEOUS PATTERN D.LARGE MARROW FILLED SPACE ans: a 717. CLASS 2 BONE STRUCTURE IS A.EVENTS SPACED TRABULAR WITH SMALL CONCELLED SPACE B.LARGER CANCELLATED SPACE WITH LESS UNIFORMITY C.EVENTLY SPACED TRABULA WITH LARGE CONCELLED SPACE D. LARGE NARROW FILLED SPACE ans: b 718 . CLASS 3 BONE STRUCTURE IS A.EVENTLY SPACED TRABULAR WITH SMALL CONCELLED SPACE B.LARGER CONCELLATED SPACE WITH LENSE UNIFORM C. EVENTLY SPACED TRABULA WITH LARGE CONCELLED SPACE D. LARGE NARROW FILLED SPACE ans: d 719 . MOST IDEAL FOUNDATION FOR IMPLANT ARE A,CLASS 3 B.CLASS 2 C,CLASS 1 D.BOTH CLASS 3 AND 2 720, STATES THE FOUR QUALITY OF BONE IN 1985 A,LEKHLOM B.LINKNOW C.ZARB D.LEKHLOM AND ZORB

ans: c

ans :d

721 .QUALITY 1 IS IMPOSED OF A.HOMOGENOUS COMPACT BONE B.COMPACT BONE SURROUNDED BY DENSE TRABULAR BONE C. THIN LAYER OF CORTICAL BONE SURROUNDED BY DENSE TRABULAR BONE D.THIN LAYER OF CORTICAL BONE SURROUNDED BY LOW TRABULAR BONE Ans: a 722 .QUALITY 2 IS A.HOMOGENOUS COMPACT BONE B.COMPACT BONE SURROUNDED BY DENSE TRABECULAR BONE C.THIN LAYER OF CONFICAL BONE SURROUNDED BY DENSE TRABULAR BONE D.THIN LAYER OF CONFICIAL BONE SURROUNDED BY LOW DENSE TRABULAR BONE Ans: b

723 .QUALITY 3 IS A.HOMOGENOUS COMPACT BONE B.COMPACT BONE SURROUNDED BY DENSE TRABULAR BONE C.THIN LAYER OF CORTICAL BONE SURROUNDED BY DENSE TRABECULAR BONE D. THIN LAYER OF CORTICAL BONE SURROUNDED BY LOW DENSE TRABECULAR BONE Ans: c 724 .QUALITY 4 IS A. HOMOGENOUS COMPACT BONE B.COMPACT BONE SURROUNDED BY DENSE TRABULAR BONE C.THIN LAYER CORTICAL BONE SURROUNDED BY DENSE TRABECULAR BONE D.THIN LAYER OF CORTICIAL BONE SURROUNDED BY LOW DENSE TRABECULAR BONE Ans: d 725 .D1 IS A. DENSE CORTICAL B.POROUS CORTICIAL & COARSE TRABECULA C.POORUS CORTICAL & FINE TRABECULA D.FINE TRABECULA

ans: a

726 .D2 IS A.DENSE CORTICAL B.POROUS CORTICAL OF COARSE TRABECULA C.POROUS CORTICAL OF FINE TRABULA D.FINE TRABULA

ans: b

727 .D3 IS A,DENSE CORTICAL B. POROUS CORTICAL OF COARSE TRABECULA C.POROUS CONFICAL OF FINE TRABECULA D.FINE TRABCULA 728 .D4 IS A.DENSE CORTICAL B.POROUS CORTICAL OF CORSE TRABECULA C. POROUS CORTICAL OF FINE TRABECULA D.FINE TRABECULA

ans: c

ans: d

729 .A VERY SOFT BONE WILL IN COMPLEX MINERAL AND LARGE INTERTRABULA SPACE A.D1 B.D3 C.D4 D.D5 ans: d 730 .D3 IS VERY COMMON IN A.MANDIBLE B. MAXILLA C.ANTERIOR REGION OF MAXILLA D.POSTERIOR REGION OF MAXILLA

ans: c

731 .VERY SOFT BONE OBSERVED AFTER SOME IMMEDIATE BONE GRAFTS MAY BE A,80 TO 100 UNITS B.50 TO 200 UNITS C.100 TO 200 UNITS D.50 TO 150 UNITS ans: b 732 .D2 EXHIBITED GROWTH COMPRESSIVE STRENGTH OF WITH D3 A.47 TO 57% B.48 TO 63% C.47 TO 68% D,54 TO 67% 733 .APPAERENT DENSITY OF BONE IS -------------A.DIRECT PROPORTION TO ELASTIC MODULUS B.INVERSLY PROPORTION TO ELASTIC MODULUS C.DOUBLE THE ELASTIC MODULE D.TRIPLE THE ELASTIC MODULE

734 . SURFACE IS SUGGESTED IN SOFT BONE A.SMOOTH B.ROUGH C.NONE OF THE ABOVE D .BOTH A AND B

ans: c

ans: a

ans :b

BIO MATERIALS FOR DENTAL IMPLANTS

735 .THE MOST CRITICAL ASPECT OF BIOCOMPATIBILITY IS DEPENDENT ON THE BASIC BULK AND OF THE BIO MATERIAL A.CHEMICAL PROPERTIES B.MECHANICAL PROPERTIES C. SURFACE PROPERTIES D.PHYSICAL PROPERTIES

ans: c

736 .COMPRESIVE STRENGTH OF IMPLANT MATERIALS ARE GREATER THAN A.SHEAR STRENGTH B.TENSILE STRENGTH C.BOTH SHEAR AND TENSILE STRENTH D.NONE OF THE ABOVE

ans: c

737 . ------------------- CAN BE GREATLY TERMINATED TO LONGEVITY BECAUSE OF MECHANICAL PROPERTIES SUCH AS MAXIMUM YIELD STRENGTH DUCILITY ETC

A.PARAFUNCTION B.FUTIGUE C.COLLISION D.CREEP 738 .

ans: a

OF IMPLANTS HAVE NO LONGER LIMIT IN TERMS OF ENDURANCE FATIGUE STRENGTH

A.METALLIC STRENGTH B.POLYMERIC SYSTEM C.CERAMIC SYSTEM D.ALL OF THE ABOVE

ans: b

739 .HIGH MECHANICAL STRESS PLUS EXPOSURE TO CORROSIVE ENVIRONMENT RESULT IN CRACKING NEITHER CONDITION ALONE WOULD CAUSE THE FAILURE A.BOTH STATMEMTS ARE TRUE B.THE FIRST STATEMENT IS TRUE THE SECOND STATEMENT IS FALSE C.THE SECOND STATEMENT IS TRUE THE FIRST STATEMENT IS FALSE D.BOTH THE STATEMENTS ARE FALSE

ans: a

740 .THE TRANSFORMATION OF PRIMARY PRODUCTS IS ON THE LEVEL OF A.MELTING POINT B.SOLIBILITY C.SATURATION CAPACITY D.SOLUBILITY OF TRANSFER

ans: d

741 . ---------------- ALLOYS ARE MOST OFTEN USED IN AN AS CAST OF ANNEALED METALLURGY A.-IRON - NICKEL -CHROMIUM BASED ALLOYS B.-COBALT-CHROMIUM-MOLYBEDENUM BASED ALLOYS C.-TITANIUM ALLOYS D.-OTHERS Ans: b

742 . SECONDARY PHASES PROVIDE STRENGTH THAT IS A.1*THAT OF COMPACT BONE B.2*THAT OF COMPACT BONE C.3*THAT OF COMPACT BONE D.4*THAT OF COMPACT BONE

ans: d

743 . -------------------- ALLOY IS USED MOST OFTEN IN A WROUGHT AND HEAT TREATED METALLIC CONDITION WHICH RESULTS IN HIGH STRENGTH AND HIGH DUCTILITY ALLOY A. -IRON - CHROMIUM-NICKEL BASED B.-COBALT-CHROMIUM-NICKEL BASED C.-TITANIUM ALLOY BASED D.-OTHERS ALLOYS

ans : a

744 .OXIDE CERAMIC WERE INTRODUCED FOR SURGICAL IMPLANT DEVICES BECAUSE OF THEIR A.INERTNESS TO BIODEGRADATION B.HIGH STRENGTH C.MINIMAL CONDUCTIVITY D. ALL OF THE ABOVE

ans: d

745 . -----------------HAS RESULTED IN LIMITATION OF CERAMICS A.COLOUR B. THICKNESS C.INHERRENT BRITTLENESS D. ALL THE ABOVE

ans: c

746 . -------------STERILIZATON IS RECOMMENDED FOR MOST CERAMICS A.COLD B.AUTOENCLAVE C,CHEMICAL D,DRY HEAT

ans: d

747 .STEAM AUTOCLAVING CAN SIGNIFICANTLY CHANGE THE BASIC STRUCTURE AND PROPERTIES OF CPC THIS MAY RESULT IN AN UNKNOWN BIMATERIAL CONDITION AT THE TIME OF IMPLANTATION A.BOTH STATMEMTS ARE FALSE B.THE FIRST STATEMENT IS TRUE THE SECOND STATEMENT IS FALSE C.THE SECOND STATEMENT IS TRUE THE FIRST STATEMENT IS FALSE D.BOTH THE STATEMENTS ARE TRUE 748 .CERAMICS ARE BRITTLE MATERIAL AND EXHIBIT HIGH ---------------------- STRENGTH

ans: d

STRENGTH COMPARED WITH--

A.TESILE,COMPRESSIVE B.SHEAR.TENSILE C.ENSILE, SHEAR D.COMPRESSIVE, TENSILE

ans: d

749. IN GENERAL SOLUBILITY IS GREATER FOR TCP THEN FOR HYDROXYAPPATITE SMALLER THE PARTICLE SIZE LONGER THE MATERIAL WILL REMAIN AT A AUGUMENTED SITE A.BOTH STATMEMTS ARE TRUE B.THE FIRST STATEMENT IS TRUE THE SECOND STATEMENT IS FALSE C.THE SECOND STATEMENT IS TRUE THE FIRST STATEMENT IS FALSE D.BOTH THE STATEMENTS ARE FALSE

ans: b

750 . CARBON COMPONENT ARE CLASSIFIED AS CERAMICS BECAUSE OF THEIR AND ABSENCE OF A. CHEMICAL INERTNESS,DUCTILITY B.COLOUR,DURABILITY C.THICKNESS, DURABILITY D.NONE OF THE ABOVE

ans: a

751 .IN GENERAL THE POLYMERS HAVE A.LOW STRENGTH AND ELASTIC MODULUS B.HIGH SRENGTH AND ELASTIC MODULUS C. LOW STRENGTH AND EXPANSION D.NONE OF THE ABOVE

ans: a

752 .POLYMERS ARE RESISTANT TO A.CORROSION B.BIODEGRADATION C.ERROSION D.ABRASION

ans: b

753 .OXIDES ON IMPLANTS ARE PRIMARLY AMORPHOUS IN ATOMIC STRUCTURE OXIDES ARE USUALLY THIN AND ADHERE A.BOTH STATMEMTS ARE TRUE B.THE FIRST STATEMENT IS TRUE THE SECOND STATEMENT IS FALSE C.THE SECOND STATEMENT IS TRUE THE FIRST STATEMENT IS FALSE D.BOTH THE STATEMENTS ARE FALSE

ans: b

754 . ___________SHOWED THAT FLUORIDE GELS LEAD TO DEGRADATION OF TITANIUM OXIDE LAYER A.LEMORS,MARSHALL B.MARSHALL,ROSTOKER C.ROSTOKER,PRETZELL D,COHEN,BURDAIRON

ans: d

755 .SURFACE QUALITY CAN BE RELATED TO ________AND_________ A.TISSUE INTEGRATION,CLINICAL LONGEVITY B.SHINE AND SMOTHNESS C.ALL THE ABOVE D.NONE OF THE ABOVE

ans: a

756 . ___________SUTURES HAVE BEEN FABRICATED BY PLASMA SPRAYING A POWDER OF MOLTEN DROPLETS AT HIGH TEMPARETURE A.SMOOTH AND UNIFORM B. ROUGH AND POROUS

C.ROUGH AND UNIFORM D,. NONE OF THE ABOVE

ans: b

757 .HYDROXYAPATIPE COATING BY PLASMA SPRAYING WAS INTRODUCED BY

A.KAY ET AL B.LEMORS C.DE GROOT D.BLOCK ET AL

SCIENTIFIC RATIONALE OF DENTAL IMPLANT

ans: a

758 .The presence of fibrous tissue a. Decrease long term survival of root form implant b. increase long term survival of root form implant c. Both A and B d.None of the above ans.A 759 .Excessive loads on osseointegrated implant can cause a.Mobility of supporting device b. Mobility of Implant body c.Both A and B d. None of the above ans.A 760 . Bite force can range from a. 50 to 1000 N b.42 to 1245 N c. 60 to 800 N

d. 100 to 500 N ans.B 761. Magnitude of FORCE is greater in a. Canine region b. Anterior region c. Molar region d. None of the above ans.C 762 . Titanium â&#x20AC;&#x201C;aluminium-vanadium alloy exhibit a. Mechanical properties b. Physical properties c. Corrosion resistance d. All the above ans.D 763 . Bone is strongest when loaded in a. Compression c. Shear

b. Tension d. None of the above

ans.A 764 . Implant to bone interface cause a. Microscopic retention

b. Macroscopic retention

c. both A and B

d. None of the above

ans.A 765 . Reduction in shear load at thread to bone interface a. Decrease overload

b. Increase overload

b. Inadequate load

d. None of the above

ans.A

766.

As the load increases the stresses around the implant a. Decrease

b. Increase

c. Both A and B

d. None of the above

ans.B 767 . implant failure occur more in a. D1

b. D2

c. D3

d. D4

ans.D 768 . Initial stability of implant provides a. Functional surface area b. Total surface area c. Passive area d. None of the above ans.A 769 . Functional surface area is also called as a. Active surface area

b.Passive surface area

c. Both A and B

d. None of the above

ans.A 770 . Total surface area is also called a. Active surface area c. None of the above

b.Passive surface area d. osseo surface area

ans.B 771. Functional surface area is a. per unit length of implant b. per unit width of implant c. surface area of implant

d. None of the above ans.A 772. Total surface area reduce a. Mechanical stress b. Compressive stress c. Tensile stress d. All the above ans.A 773 .Larger the taper a. greater the compressive load b. lesser the compressive load c. greater the tensile load d. lesser the tensile load ans.A 774 . Tapered thread implant has a. less thread

b. deep thread

c. more thread

d. Both a and b

ans.B 775 .Functional surface area per unit length of implant modified a. thread pitch

b. thread depth

c. thread shape

d. All the above

ans.D 776. which is stongest and deepest bone A. D2 Ans.B

b. D1

C. D3

d. D4

778 . primary cause of implant failure is a. bone over heating

b. over instrumentation

c. soft tissue impingement

d. none of the above

ans.A 779.crest module is characterized by a. decrease conncentartion of tensile stress b. increase concentration of mechanical stress c. both a and b d. none of the above ans.B 780 . who described microstain a.frost

b. branemark

c. Robert et el d. Davidson

ans.A 781. advantage of TPS a.increase the surface area b. less corrosion of metal c. increase roughness for initial stability d. Both A and C ans.D 782 . advantage of hydroxyapatite a.faster healing bone interface b. stronger interface than TPS c. less corrosion of metal d. All the above ans.D 783. disadvantage of coating cause

a. flaking

b. cracking c. scaling d.all the above

ans.D 784 . who investigated implant supported prosthesis a. barbier

b. schepies

c. barbier and schepies

d. frost

ans.C

785.According to Misch,Arch is divided in to a) 4 segments b) 5 segments c) 2 segment d) 0 segment Ans b 786.Increase in number of abutment e) Increase the risk of uncertain restoration f) Decrease the risk of uncertain restoration g) No effect on restoration h) None Ans;a 787.Cantilever in prosthesis is least preferred in a.Central Incisor b.Lateral Incisor c. Molar d. both a and B

ans; B

788.when the span of the edentulous area increases a. No of replaced teeth increses b. no of replaced tooth reduces c. same as the missing tooth d. none of the above

ans ; a

789. Diagnostic casts helps in analysing the following except:

a) arch relationships. b) curve of wilson & curve of spee. c) opposing dentition. d) balanced occlusion Ans;d 790. The distance from the hinge axis to the central incisor range from: a) 10-­‐20mm b)60-­‐80mm c)87-­‐120mm d)127-­‐200mm Ans;c 791. A unique facebow transfer, that corresponds to the facial midline and horizontal plane, to the 100mm distance of conditional hinge position was developed by: a) misch b)snow c)Bennett

d)kois Ans;d 792. The underlying bone volume can be estimated using: a) radiographic surveys b) diagnostic casts c) neither of a & b d) both a & b d 793. In a case,where there is bone loss and where in grafting is not possible and change in the angulation of the implant is preffered in which area of bone? a) mandibular first molar area b) maxillary first molar area c)maxillary anterior area d) mandibular anterior area a 794. The ideal requirements of a surgical template includes: a) size b) surgical asepsis c) both a & b d) none of the above c 795. An implant placed adjacent to a natural tooth should remain_______away from the inter proximal cement enamel junction. a)2-­‐4mm b)1.5-­‐2mm c)0-­‐1mm

d)1-­‐1.5mm Ans;b 796. Modification of a radiographic guide to a surgical guide allows for a precision of less than______at the implant apex for a good control of angulation. a) 1mm b) 2mm c) 3mm d) 4mm Ans;a 797. Advanced surgical guides requires the following as a prerequisite for analysis. a) MRI scanning b) CT scanning c) ultra sound d) PET Ans;b 798. Software rendering that includes CT data and implant planning that can be exported later to_______ software

a) CAA b) CAP c) CAD d) CAT Ans;c

790. The first category of surgical guidance includes the use of a) navigation techniques b) virtual planning of implant positions c) computer aiding manufacturing of guides d) both b & c Ans;d 791. Temporary implants must be inserted for _______type of patients to obtain a stable reference guide. a) dentulous b)edentulous c) partially edentulousd)all the above Ans;b 792. Which of the following systems offers a real time 3D capture of the arch via ultra sound probe. a) stereoscope system b) virtual scope system c) both a & b d) none of the above Ans;b 793. Computer-­‐aided manufacturing process is called as: a) tomography b) photolithography c) cryptography d) stereolithography Ans;d 794. Which of the following system features an advanced registration method allowing for elimination of positioning markers during CT scanning. a) stereoscope system b) radioscopic system c) virtual scope system d) all the above Ans;c 795. In the image guided implantology,based on the system reported by wanschitz et.al. the handpiece mandible are positions using______ a) LCD’s b) LED’s c) both a & b d) none of the above Ans;b 796. IGI stands for: a) implant guided image b) implant guided imagiology c) image guided implant d) image guided implantology Ans;d 797. CAD/CAM stands for: a)computer assisted disk/computer assisted machine. b)computer aided display/computer aided machine.c)computer aided design/computer aided manufacturing. d)computer aided design/computer aided machine.

Ans; c 798. A) Diagnostic cast evaluation for the prosthodontics crieteria is done only in the presence of the patient.

B) Diagnostic casts permits an open discuission of treatment with other practioners and laboratory technicians for consultation. a) both a&b are true b) a is true b is false c) a is false b is true d) both a&b are false Ans;c 799. The following things can be analysed using a diagnostic cast. a) inter arch space b) arch form & symmetry c)both a & b d) none of the above Ans;c 800. Modification of preston’s clear splint is an easy method to fabricate a) crown’s b) surgical splint’s c) surgical guide d) denture base Ans;c

801. Modification of preston’s clear splint is used for the diagnosis of a) tooth contours b) tooth position c) occlusal form d) all the above Ans;d 802. Which of the following designs require the most ideal implant placement. a) Fp1 b) Fp2 c) Fp3 d) both a & b ans; d

803. The distance between the pilot hole and a natural tooth would be a) 2mm b) 3mm c) 4mm d) 0.5mm Ans;c 804. To place a 4.1 mm diameter implant,the distance between the pilot hole and the natural tooth should be a) 2mm b) 4.1mm c) 4mm d) 8.2mm Ans;c 805. The distal inclination of the canine root on an average is a) 5 degrees b) 8 degrees c) 10 degrees d) 11 degrees Ans;d 806. Assertion(A): The premolar implant is angled to follow the root of the canine.

Reason(R): The premolar implant is angled to prevent contact with/perforation of natural root.

a) Both (A) & (R) are true but (R) does not explain (A) b) Both (A) & (R) are true and (R) explains (A) c) (A) is true (R) is false d) Both (A) and (R) are false Ans;b

807. Assertion(A): Advanced surgical guides require CT scanning as a prerequisite for analysis.

Reason(R): Computer tomography (CT) provides superior precision when compared to all other radiographic techniques.

a) Both (A) & (R) are true but (R) does not explain (A) b) Both (A) & (R) are true and (R) explains (A) c) (A) is true (R) is false d) Both (A) and (R) are false Ans;b 808. Surgical plans can be created by using the following softwares. a) sim plant b) CSI-­‐Materialise c) Leuven d) all the above Ans;d 809. The surgical template offers the following except: a) support for repetitive forces of occlusion b) esthetics c) hygine requirements d) occlusal centric relation position Ans;d

810.Panoramic radiographs / computed tomography (CT) scan imaging is evaluated for all except a) b) c) d)

Potential pathology Bone volume Anatomical landmarks all the above

Ans: D

811.What are the benefits of using a long-acting anesthetic : a) b) c) d)

Added volume of anesthetic increases success of the mandibular block Repeated injections at the end of the surgery are less indicated.

Reduces postoperative pain.

All of the above Ans: D

812 Advantages of Akinosi Nerve Block are true except: a. b. c. d.

813

Ans: D

Intraoral & extraoral scrubbing should be done with : a. b. c. d.

High success rate Reduced incidence of trismus , paresthesia Reduced pain No additional injections of anesthesia is needed

Povidone-iodine ( Betadine) 0.12% chlorhexidine gluconate A and B None of the above

Ans: C

814.

If less than 3mm of attached gingival exists on the ridge, full thickness incision is placed so that at least ....... of attached tissue is to the facial aspect of the incision line. a. b. c. d.

815

816.

817.

Achieve hemostasis To keep lingual flap out of surgical site To aid in proper healing None of the above

Ans: B

The advantages of lingual flap a. b. c. d.

Ans: B

Retraction ( tieback) sutures with 2-0 silk are used to : a. b. c. d.

1.0 mm 1.5 mm 2.0 mm 2.3mm

Improves visibility Negates repeated surgical retraction efforts during the procedure Reduces trauma to the thin lingual periosteal tissues Allof the above Ans: D

Overzealous reflection causes a.

Increases soft tissue trauma

b. c. d.

818.

Ans: D

At least ........ of mesiodistal bone are required for each 4mm diameter implant a. b. c. d.

Delay bone callus formation Impair crestal bone healing All of the above

5mm 6mm 7mm •

8mm

Ans: C

819 Which instrument can be used to determine the presence of an anterior loop to the mandibular canal. a. b. c. d.

820.

b. c. d.

821

822

823.

Bone rongeur High torque handpiece with surgical 703 bur Crestal reduction bur under copious cooled saline irrigation All of the above Ans:D

What is the primary criteria in implant site preparation: a. b. c. d.

Eliminates fibrous osseous tissue on the crest & ensures adequate width for implant placement Removes unwanted bony prominences Ensure proper positioning of implants To ensure success in placement of implant Ans:A

Osteoplasty can be accomplished with: a. b. c. d.

Ans: D

Purpose of osteoplasty procedure: a.

Periodontal probe Straight probe Explorer Naber’s 2N Probe

Ensures proper hemostasis is achieved Limit soft tissue trauma Limit thermal / mechanical trauma to the surrounding hard tissue Ensure proper incisons are made Ans:C

Factors critical to minimal heat during osteotomy preparation a. b. c.

Cooling fluid Bone quality Depth

d.

824

Ans:D

Depth of initial pilot drill a. b. c. d.

All of the above

3mm 4mm 5mm 6mm

Ans:C

825

a. b. c. d.

826

827

828

Ans: B

Posterior mandible Middle lingual of mandible Anterior lingual of mandible All of the above

Ans:D

Treatment of hemorrhage of implant site a. b. c. d.

Round bur End cutting bur Straight fissure bur Tapered flat-ended bur

Bleeding site during implant osteotomy can occur from a. b. c. d.

Lateral perforations can be prevented using

Finger pressure at the site Compression ,cautery or ligation Bone graft All of the above

Ans: D

Treatment of bleeding occurring from invading the mandibular canal a. b. c. d.

Finger pressure Surgical ligation of facial & lingual arteries Cautery Bone graft

Ans:D

829 If bone drill becomes locked in the bone during preparation, the handpiece should not be wiggled back & forth to disengage the drill because : a. b. c. d.

May increase site of the bone preparation Cause injury & necrosis to the bone Seperate the drill above or below the bone All of the above

Ans:D

830

Bone tap is used at less than ....... with a high torque hand piece or hand ratchet a. b. c. d.

20 rpm 30 rpm 40 rpm 50 rpm

Ans: B

831

a. b. c. d.

832

833

25

834

Peripheral radiograph CT scan Panoramic radiograph MRI

Ans: C

> 15mm >10mm >20mm >9mm

Ans:A

Numerous unpleasant sensations may be described by the patient as a. b. c. d.

Ans:D

There is obviously enough bone height over the canal & foramen when it is measured as a. b. c. d.

Microfractures Compromise entire thread-to-bone profile Compromise interface development Bone resorption

Initial method to determine height of the bone available over the mandibular canal a. b. c. d.

Excessive tightening of implant causes all except

Numbness Sharp & constant / periodic pain Crawling feeling All of the above

Ans: D

Types of sensory testing includes all except a. b. c. d.

Sharp needle test Pulp testing teeth Blunt cotton swab test Anesthetic testing

Ans:D

835

Treatment of neuropraxia a. b. c. d.

Corticosteroids NSAIDs A and B None of the above

Ans:C

836

Neuropraxia can be caused by a. b. c. d.

837

Pressure from retractor Traumatic soft tissue reflection Hydraulic pressure All of the above

Ans: D

Neurotmesis is suspected when anesthesia is present / hypesthesia has lasted for more

than a. b. c. d.

838.

1 month 2 months 3 months 4 months

Ans:C

Advantages of removable restoration for multiple missing tooth loss include: a) b) c) d) e)

Ease of daily care of adjacent teeth Ability to have soft tissue replacement around the tooth Maxillary lip support in gross defects Minimal preparation of abutment teeth All of the above

Answer is: E 839.

Two primary reasons for the patient to consent for removable prosthesis in posterior teeth

are; a) b) c) d) e)

Esthetics Fear of teeth shifting Functionality A and B only All of the above

Answer is: D 840.

Resin-bonded fixed partial denture offers the following advantages except: a) Minimal preparation of adjacent teeth b) Reduced cost

c) Long span dentition can be corrected d) Good for young patients Answer is: C

841 Poor abutment teeth support is a contraindication for use of FPD. Young patients with large pulp horns are indicated for FPD. a) b) c) d)

First statement is true Second statement is true Both the statements are true Both the statements are false

Answer is: A 842

Of the 5 treatment options; which exhibits the highest survival rates: a) b) c) d) e)

Removable partial denture Resin-bonded prosthesis Space maintainer Implant prosthesis Fixed partial denture

Answer is: D 843

Additional space in posterior implant placement may be obtained by the following: a) b) c) d)

Enameloplasty of the adjacent teeth’s proximal surface Orthodontics to upright tilted 2nd molars One implant placed buccally and the other on a diagonal toward the lingual.

All of the above

Answer is: D

844

Causes of maxillary anterior single tooth loss may be attributed to: a) b) c) d)

Agenesia Trauma Endodontic Failure All of the above

Answer is: D 845

Maxillary anterior single tooth replacement options include except: a) b) c) d)

Traditional fixed prosthetic devices Cantilever FPD Removable prosthetic devices Space maintainers

Answer is: D 846 A cantilever fixed partial denture is indicated when the lateral incisor is missing. The canine is the only source for abutment support for a cantilever fixed partial denture. a) b) c) d)

First statement is true Second statement is true Both the statements are true Both the statements are false

Answer is: C 847

Contraindications for resin-retained fixed partial dentures include with the exception of: a) b) c) d)

Thin enamel on abutment teeth Mobile abutment Vertical Overlap Favorable occlusal relationships

Answer is: D 848

Local contraindications for anterior single-implant include with the exception of: a) b) c) d)

Inadequate bone height of less than 9mm Inadequate crown height Mobility of 2 to 4 adjacent teeth Inadequate faciopalatal bone width of less than 10mm

Answer is: D

849 A transitional prosthesis is often removable; lacking stability and retention. A transitional prosthesis has also been termed flipper. a) b) c) d)

First statement is true Second statement is true Both the statements are true Both the statements are false

Answer is: C 850 Endodontic therapy is often warranted for internal root resorption. However if structural failure occurs or is likely; the choice of treatment is orthodontic extraction. a) b) c) d)

First statement is true Second statement is true Both the statements are true Both the statements are false

Answer is: C 851.

When the missing tooth is a central incisor the following options may be carried out in relation to tooth symmetry:

a) b) c) d) e)

Orthodontic correction if less space available is less than the adjacent tooth width Extraction of the adjacent tooth and replacement with two identical implants Veneer modification of adjacent tooth All of the above A and C only

Answer is: E 852

Types of maxillary anterior tooth shape include: a) b) c) d) e) f)

Square Ovoid Triangular Rectangular All of the above All except D

Answer is: F 853

The height of the maxillary lip when smiling is known as: a) b) c) d)

High lip line Low lip line Misch-Anderson lip line Norland’s variable process

Answer is: A

854

Common complications of anterior tooth implant replacement are: a) b) c) d) e)

Abutment screw loosening Crestal bone loss Maxillary sinus penetration All of the above A and B only

Answer is: E 855

Factors which influence the size of the implant include with the exception of: a) b) c) d)

Mesiodistal dimension of the missing tooth Distance from adjacent tooth root Height of interseptal bone none of the above

Answer is: D 856 Papilla height is affected as a result of lack of interpromixal contact with missing tooth.

The use of a soft tissue removable prosthesis does not accelerate the collapse of soft tissue. a) b) c) d) Answer is:A

First statement is true Second statement is true Both the statements are true Both the statements are false

857

The growth of the maxilla occurs in three distinct planes with the exception of: a) b) c) d)

Transverse Sagital Vertical Diagonal

Answer is: D

858 Anterior diastema can be corrected with resin-retained FPD. Bruxism is a contraindication for resin-retained FPD. a) b) c) d)

First statement is true Second statement is true Both the statements are true Both the statements are false

Answer is: B 859 The following features limit the most common complication in single tooth; abutment screw loosening except: a) b) c) d)

Lack of anti-rotational feature Accuracy of component fit Abutment screw design Number of threads

Answer is: A 860

Advantages of Single-tooth implants include: a) b) c) d) e)

Less risk of caries Psychological needs addressed Improved hygiene conditions Decreased cold or contact sensitivity All of the above

Answer is: E 861 Two implants are used to restore a single posterior tooth. A distance of 14mm is required between the two adjacent teeth. a) b) c) d)

First statement is true Second statement is true Both the statements are true Both the statements are false

Answer is: C 862 It is often disadvantageous to replace the mandibular second molar. Extrusion and loss of maxillary second molar is the most appropriate reason for not replacing. a) b) c) d)

First statement is true Second statement is true Both the statements are true Both the statements are false

Answer is: C

863 .Maxillaryimplant supported removable prosthesis may provide advantage over full arch restorations such as _____ and easy maintenance of removable prosthesis. a.aesthetic b.upper lip support for aesthetic c.lower lip support for aesthetic d.all of the above

Answer: B

864.Dentures are border moulded to the muscle attachment level to allow the floor of the mouth to raise during ____. a.swallowing b.food accumulation c.deglutation d.none of the above

Answer: A

865.The mandible flexes towards the midline on opening or during protrusive movement as a result of the ____ to the ramus. a.internal pterygoid muscle b.external pterygoid muscle c.lateral pterygoid muscle

d.none of the bove

Answer: C

866 .The most common number of implants between the mental foramen for Branemark approach a.one b.three c.two d.five

Answer: D

867.What is the implant survival for 5 years after 1 year of loading in Branemark approach a.70-80% b.20-30% c.30-40% d.80-90%

Answer: D

868.Treatment plan option 4 for fixed full arches prosthesis also may include ____ implants as long they are not splinted together in the prosthesis a.bilateral posterior b.unilateral posterior c.bilateral anterior d.unilateral anterior

Answer: A

869.In treatent option 4, implants are placed in ____ of the mandible. a.one segment b.two segment c.three segment d.five segment

Answer: C

870.Treatment option 5 the anterior region of the mandible may have ____ implants. a.3-4 b.4-5 c.1-2 d.5-6

Answer: B

871.A slight variation of the ad modum Branemark protocol is to be placed additional implants above the ____. a.submental b.mental foramina c.foramen ovale d.none of te above

Answer: B

872.The distance from the centre of the most anterior implant to the line joining the distal aspect of the most distal implant on each side is called ____. a.A-P distance b.A-P width c.A-P length d.none of the above

Answer: A

873.The most common scenario for option 5 is when the posterior mandible is _____ volume and a circumferential subperiosteal (or) design and implant is used as the 2nd premolar & 1st molar implant abutment support. a.c-h bone b.b-c bone c.D-h bone d.A-c bone

Answer: A

874.Mandibular overdentures may be removed at night to decrease the risk of the _____. a.noctural parafunction overload b.parafunction load c.noctural d.overload

Answer: A

875.The amplitude of the mandibular body flexure towards the midline has been measured to be as much as _____ micro metre in the 1st molar to the first molar region. a.700 micro metre b.800 micro metre c.900 micro metre d.1000 micro metre

Answer: B

876.In a study by _____ on deformation of the mandible in subjects with fixed dental implants prosthesis, medial convergence up to 41 micro metre waz observed. a.Hobkirk b.Torsion c.Force factors d.none of the above

Answer: A

877.In a complete mandibular subperiosteal implants, pain upon opening was noted in 25% of the patients at the suture removal appointment when a rigid bar connected _____ region. a.premolar - premolar b.canine to canine c.molar to molar d.all of the above

Answer: C

878.A minimum recommended implant height of ____ mm and a greater diameter or an enhanced surface area design are recommended to compensate for the reduced length. a.7 mm b.9 mm c.8 mm d.both a. and c.

Answer: B

879.When the patient has natural tooth and implants in maxilla, more implants usually indicated for the ____ prosthesis to reduce the risk of occlusal overload. a.maxillary fixed b.mandibular fixed c.both a. and c. d.none of the above

Answer: B

880.____ and ____ noted that there were 3 times more maintenance and adjustments for removable prosthesis compared with fixed restorations. a.Walton & Mc Entee b. Torsion and medial movement c.Force and Torsion d.both b. and c.

Answer: A

881.Although porcelain fracture with a fixed restoration may be costly to repair over a lifetime, the implant

supported removable prosthesis may be ____. a.more expensive b.less expensive c.none of the above d.both a. and b.

Answer: A

882.The increased torsion may stimulate the posterior mandibular body to increase in size as reported by ____ and ____. a.Wright and Reddy b.Reddy and Hobkirk c.Reddy and Wright d.none of the above

Answer: C

883. What is the preoperative threshold of Hemoglobin used as a baseline for surgery ? a. 12g/dl b. 11g/dl c. 10g/dl or d. 9g/dl Ans: C 884. Dental Implants are contraindicated in area of………………………………………… a. Active bony Lesions b. Passive bony Lesions c. No bony lesions d. Periradicular Lesions Ans : A 885. The Most Significant risk associated with placing Implant into irradiated bone is………… a. Osteoporisis b. Osteopetrosis c. Osteitis d. osteradionecrosis ANS : D

886. Hyperbaric oxygen Therapy is used to treat ………………………………………………. a. Osteroradionecrosis b. Osteroporosis c. Osteitisdeformans d. Osteomyelitis Ans: A 887. What Type of Implants is the best suited for patients with Endocarditis? a. Transosteal b. Periosteal c. Endosteal d. Intramoucosal Ans : C 889. Normal creatinine Level a. 0.7 to 1.5mg/dL b. 0.5 to 2.5mg/dl c.3.5 to 4.5mg/dL d. 2.5 to 3.5mg/dL Ans: A 890. The Standardised test for bleeding time is ……………………………………………….. a. Lance Method b. Ivy Method c. Ricky`sMethod d. Gracey`s Method Ans: B

891. Heart pumps about -­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐ gallons of blood per day to others organs a. 1000 b. 2000 c. 3000 d. 4000 Ans : B 892. Glycosylated Hemoglobin is known as ……………………………….. a. HbAlc b. HbA2d c. HbBld d. HbA3b Ans: A 893. The Anticoagulant is usually prescribed for renal dialysis is……… a.Warfarin b. Dysparin c. Coumarin d. Heparin Ans: D 894. Treatment forosteomalacia is………………………………………… a. Vitamin C b. Vitamin D c. Vitamin B d. Vitamin A Ans: B

895. Types of Nitrogen containing bisphophonates are………………….. a. Etidronate b. Clodronate c. Tiludronate d. Alendronate Ans: D 896. Types of Non -­‐ Nitrogen containing bishonates are…………………. a. Alendronate b .Etidronate c. Zoledronate d. Risendronate Ans: B 897. Patients with renal calculi should avoid a. phosphorous supplements b.Zinc Supplements c. Tin Supplements d. Calcium Supplements Ans: D

898. Most Common intraoral feature off EctodernalLysplisia is-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐ a. Hypodontia b. hyperdontia c. Oligodontia d. Exodontia Ans : A 899. Butterfly rash is seen in -­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐ a. H I V b. Scleroderma c. S L E d. Sjogren`s Syndrome Ans: C 900. What type of Prosthesis is recommended for Scleroderma a. Removable b. Fixed c. Partially Fixed d. Loose fit Ans : B 901. If C T X Value(pg/ml) is 300 -­‐ 600 risk for ostenecrosis-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐ a. None b. None to minimal c. Moderate d. High Ans: A 902. Cummulative radiation effect is calculated by…. a. Total Time of TX x ( Dose per TX) x ( no of TXs ) -­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐

903.( no of TXS ) a. b. c.

Total Time of TX x ( Dose per TX ) x ( no of TXs) x 10 Total Time of TX x (Dose per TX ) x 5 Total time of TX x (D0se per TX ) x ( no of TX ) x 7

Ans : A

904

Advantages of non-submerged implant procedure or one stage surgery a) b) c) d)

Eliminates second stage implant unrecovery surgery Eliminates tissue discomfort and healing associated from second stage surgery Eliminates surgical time for unrecovery and suture removal All of the above

Ans: D 905

Define immediate occlusal loading protocol a)

An implant supported temporary or definitive restoration in occlusal contact within 2 weeks of implant insertion b) An implant supported restoration in occlusion between 2 weeks and 3 months after implant placement and may use the time period in parentheses c) An implant prosthesis with an occlusal load after more than 3 months after implant insertion d) An implant prosthesis with no direct occlusal load within 2 weeks of implant insertion and is considered in partially edentulous patients Ans: A 906

What is the advantage of splinting implants together in the immediate occlusal loading protocol? a) Decreases the stress on all the developing interfaces b) Decreases risk of overload c) Increases retention, strength and stability of the transitional prosthesis during the initial healing phase d) All of the above Ans: D

907

Among the following which is the rationale for implant immediate loading a) b) c) d) Ans: C

Surgical trauma Bone loading trauma Both A and B None of the above

908

What does the surgical process of the implant osteotomy preparation cause? a) b) c) d)

Regional bone repair around the implant interface Bone resorption around the implant interface Inflammation around the implant interface All of the above

Ans: A 909 insertion?

910

Which part of the complex is the weakest and at most risk of overload after surgical

a) b) c) d) Ans: C

Bone in the preparation site Newly placed implant Implant bone interface All of the above

•

Why is the implant-bone interface the weakest after surgical insertion? a) b) c) d)

Because none remodelling happens at the interface that is least mineralized and organized Because of presence of mineralized bone Because of presence of organized lamellar bone All of the above

Ans: A 911

•

What are the causes of surgical trauma? a) b) c) d)

Thermal injury and microfracture of bone Mechanical insult Inefficiency of clinician All of the above

Ans: A 912

•

What are the effects of surgical trauma and thermal injury? a) b) c) d)

Osteonecrosis Fibrous encapsulation around implant Devital zone of bone for 1mm of more around the implant All of the above

Ans: D 913

•

Eriksson and Albrektson have reported bone cell death at temperatures as low as a) b) c) d)

30˚ 40˚ 50˚ 60˚

Ans: B 914

•

What is the method to decrease the risk of immediate occlusal overload? a)

Decrease the surgical trauma and the amount of initial bone remodelling at implant placement b) To prepare less amount of bone c) To use a self tapping implant d) To use a sharp drill Ans: A 915

•

Which of the following is not a feature of lamellar bone?

a) b) c) d)

Highly mineralized Strongest bone type Low modulus of elasticity Organized

Ans: C 916

•

Why is lamellar bone preferred over woven bone in immediate loading? a) Lamellar bone can sustain occlusal load b) Lamellar bone is much stronger than woven bone c) Lamellar bone has high modulus of elasticity d) All of the above Ans: D

917

•

What is the rate of lamellar and woven bone formation per day?

LAMELLAR BONE (µ/day) a. b. c. d.

• • • •

WOVEN BONE (µ/day) 0-1 1-5 6-10 15-20

50 60 70 80

Ans: B 918

•

Fibrous tissue formation at an implant interface may result a) b) c) d)

Clinical mobility Rigid fixation Microdamage at interface All of the above

Ans: A 919

•

Which of the following are factors that decrease risk of immediate occlusal loading? a) b) c) d)

Bone microstain Increased surface area Mechanical properties of bone All of the above

Ans: D 920

•

Where are non-functional immediate teeth (N-FIT) contraindicated? a) b) c) d)

Ans: C 921

•

Partially edentulous patients with centric occlusion contacts D1, D2, D3 bone regions in implant Patients with parafunctional habits Screw shaped implant bodies

What are the advantages of non-functional immediate teeth?

a) b) c) d)

Patient has a fixed tooth replacement after stage I surgery No stage II surgery No parafunctional forces from occlusion are possible All of the above

Ans: D 922

•

What are the disadvantages of non-functional immediate teeth? a) b) c) d)

Micromovement of implant can cause crestal bone loss Parafunction from tongue and foreign habits may cause trauma and crestal bone loss Impression material may become trapped under tissue or between implant and crestal bone All of the above

Ans: D 923

•

Option of the transitional restoration for a single tooth immediate implant restoration is a) b) c) d)

Acrylic crown Metal crown Ceramic crown All of the above

Ans: A 924

•

The single tooth implant is considered for immediate restoration when

a) b) c) d) Ans: D

The natural tooth is in esthetic zone The soft tissue drape in its current form is ideal The natural tooth requires extraction and is still present in the mouth All of the above

925 • loading?

How does increased number of implants help in decreasing risk of immediate occlusal

a) b) c) d)

Increases retention of restoration Decrease in pontics Increase in functional surface area All of the above

Ans: D 926

•

Disadvantages of tapered implant design include the following except a)

Implant does not engage the bone physically until the implant is seated almost completely in the bone site b) Less overall surface area compared with a parallel walled threaded implant c) More thread depth near the apical portion of implant d) Less likely to engage lateral cortical bone in the apical half of the implant Ans: C

927

Fatigue strength of an implant is affected by

• a) b) c) d)

Ans: D

Diameter of implant Implant material Amount of force applied to the system All of the above

928

•

How many grades of titanium are used for implants? a) b) c) d)

4 5 6 7

Ans: B 929 • Which grade implant material should be used when small diameter implants are used to permanently replace a natural tooth? a) b) c) d)

Grade 2 Grade 3 Grade 4 Grade 5

Ans: D 930

•

Advantages of one piece small diameter implants includes a) b) c) d)

Eliminates risk of abutment screw loosening No microgap exists between abutment and implant Amount of crestal bone loss is reduced All of the above

Ans: D 931

932

•

Disadvantages of immediate loading

a) b) c) d) Ans: D

Risk of implant failure Greater crestal bone loss Requirement of bone graft as bone width does not regenerate All of the above

•

Post surgical instructions after stage 1 surgery are as following except a) b) c) d)

Patient instructed to eat soft food (Eg: fish, pasta, cooked meat) No raw vegetables or hard bread until final prosthesis delivery When possible patient should practice chewing food in implant region No oral habits permitted

Ans: C

933.A hole in the medial wall of the maxillary sinus due to sinus infection may cause the following a.loss of graft materials through the nares b.expansion of the sinus c.heamorrhage due to internal pressure d.all of the above

Answer: A

934.The lateral wall of the maxillary sinus gives acess for the _____ . a.expansion of the maxillary sinus b.Tatum sinus elevation c.subantral augmentation procedure d. answer b & c

Answer: D 935.The medial sinus of the maxillary sinus drains through the ____. a.sphenopalatine vein b.internal jugular vein c.cavernous sinus d.none of the above Answer: A

936.The infundibulum is a narrow passage which represents the ____. a.supero medial axtension of the ostium b.lateral expansion of the maxillary sinus c.drainage of the maxillary antrum d.none of the above

Answer: A

937.Which of the following is the better prognosis observed after sinus elevation and bone graft procedures in edentulous patients.

a.improved blood circulation b.improved sinus drainage c.less infection occurance d.lighter skull weight

Answer: B

938.Patients with a history of sinusitis may have undergone irreversible mucousal changes such as a.mucousal fibrosis b.polypoid growth c.loss of cilia d.all of the above

Answer: D

939.The lining of the maxillary sinus is paler suggesting _____. a.fewer blood vessels present b.presence of cilia c.larger air filled sacs in maxillary ssinus d.none of the above

Answer: A

940.Vascularization and innervation of the maxillary sinus is shared with which of the following tooth a.maxillary tooth

b.mandibular tooth c.maxillary and mandibular tooth d.none of the above

Answer: A

941.With the loos of teeth in the maxilla, the maxillary antrum expands and ____________. a.sinus floor become consistent with the crest of the residual alveolar ridge b.floor becomes more prone to infection c.sinus expands and allows more loss of tooth in the maxilla d.all of the above

Answer: A

Thread Geometry.

942.Implant thread designs are meant to a) Maximize initial contact. b) Enhance surface area c) Facilitate dissipation of stress d) All the above. Ans: d 943 Stress of implant retention after initial healing is determined by: a) Major & Minor b) Thread pitch c) Length. d) All the above. Ans:d 944 Major diameter of the implant fixture is characterized as a) Crest b) Root c) Pitch d) Height ans:a 945 Minor diameter of the implant fixture is characterized as a) Crest b) Root

c) Pitch d) Base ans: a 946 Angulation between 2 crests or major diameters is 0 a) 60 0 b) 50 0 c) 45 0 ans” c d) 90

947 In which region of the mandible is it advisable to insert an implant fixture with shallow threads? a) Anterior b) Parasymphysial arc c) Posterior d) Full mandibular arc Ans: b

948 The greater the thread depth a) Greater the surface area of the implant b) More prone for fracture c) Surgically easier to place d) All the above.

Ans: a 949 Longer implants are not recommended in the DI bone area of mandible as: a) Encroachment of neurovascular canal b) Bicortical stabilization c) Bone overheating during surgery d) All the above Ans :d 950 Shorter implants are less successful compared to long implants as: a) Less stability under lateral loading conditions. b) Less functional stress area. c) Need of grafting or surgical augmentation of bone. d) A & b Ans: d 951 Square shape thread produces better results compared to V-­‐shaped & reverse buttress shape threads because a) Less stress in compressive & shear forces. b) Higher reverse torque after initial healing. c) Less prone for fracture. d) A &B Ans: a

952 Advantage of titanium plasma spray coated implant is: a) Increase the tensile strength of the bone to implant interface. b) Resist shear force c) Improves local transfer. d) All the above.

Ans: d 953 Porous surface area produced by TPS is a) 150-­‐400µm b) 400-­‐600µm c) 600-­‐750µm d) 750-­‐900µm Ans : a

954 Hydroxyapatite crystals are more preferred than TPS because a) Similar roughness & functional surface cue. b) Better bone bond c) Increase strength of hydroxyapatite to bone interface d) B & C Ans:c 955 Advantages of TPS & Hydroxypaptite coatings a) Increased surface cue. b) Increased roughness of initial stability. c) Stronger bone to implant interface. d) All the above mentioned.

Ans: d 956 Advantages of Hydroxyapatite over TPS. a) Faster healing bone interface. b) Stronger interface than TPS c) Less corrosion of metal d) All the above.

Ans: d 957 The most biological coating a) TPS b) Hydroxyapatite c) No coating d) TPS + Hydroxyapatite.

Ans:b 958 Disadvantage of hydroxyapatite a) Delamination b) Technique sensitive c) Fragile d) All the above Ans:a 959 Problem associated with surface coating a) Break of continuity during placement.

b) Poor bonding. c) Fracture of implant d) No disadvantage.

Ans: a

960 Which acid etchant is more beneficial to bone development a) HCl b) HF c) H2SO4 d) H3PO4 Ans: b 961 Which acid etchant causes scoliosis of bone a) HCl b) HF c) H2PO4 d) H3PO4 ans:b 962 Titanium plasma spray is pure titanium heated at: 0 a) 1500 C 0 b) 1800 C 0 c) 1600 C 0 d) 1900 C Ans: a 963 Common material for surface characterization a) Aluminum grit b) Titanium grit c) Zirconia grit d) A & B. Ans: a 964 Most grit material to bone a) Alumina b) Titanium c) Zirconia

d) All the above

Ans: a

965 Why is surface characterization of implant surface indicated a) Better adaptation b) Osseousintegration

c) Better healing d) All the above.

Ans: b

IMPLANT; NOT A TOOTH 966 Orbital success of implant are determined by: a) An individual unattached implant is immovable when tested clinically b) Radiograph does not demonstrate any evidence of per implant radiolucency. c) Ventral bone loss is less than 0.2mm annually after the first year of service of the implant. d) All the above.

Ans: c 967 Longevity of implant is determined by: a) Post operative evaluation. b) Pre & post prosthetic placement evaluation c) Case evaluation d) All the above.

Ans: d 968 Pain is usually caused or illicited when ; a) Entrapment of soft tissues in the abutment to implant connection. b) Pain on pressure due to healing in the proximity of a nerve. c) Parafunctional activities causing lateral distention of force. d) A & B Ans: d 969 Percussion is a test to indicate a) Sensitive to function b) Progression to abscess. c) Periimplantitis d) All the above.

Ans: d 970 Bone at the interface at 2mm of base & 16mm of bone implant interface sounds a) Almost identical b) Dull c) Sharp d) Hollow Ans: a 971 Marginal bone loss after the first year of function is a) 0-­‐0.2mm b) 0-­‐0.3mm c) 0-­‐0.4mm d) 0-­‐1mm Ans: a 972 If parafunctional activity on the transitional prosthesis a) Night guards

b) Occlusal reduction c) Increased healing time d) All the above.

Ans: a 973 Minimum requirement of keratinized gingival a) 2mm b) 3mm c) 4mm d) 6mm Ans: a 974 Minimum requirement of attached gingival a) 1mm b) 2mm c) 3mm d) 4mm Ans:a

975 A bleeding index is an indicator of a) Sulcularhealth b) Gingival health c) Osseous health d) Implant health Ans:a 976 Primary cause of bleeding when probing represents inflammation from a) Plaque b) Calculus c) Tartar d) Implant Ans: a 977 Most common bleeding gingival index used for implants is a) Loe&Silness b) Branemark c) Banner d) Parker ans:a 978 Gingivitis is always associated with plaque and can be classified as a) Acute necrotizing b) Ulcerative c) Hormonal d) All of the above.

Ans:d 979 Loss of bone around an implant is a) Stress induced

b) Bacteria induced c) Combination of both d) All the above Ans:d 980 Short term antibiotic treatment for peri implantitis a) Aggressive topical application of chlorohexidine b) Topical application of local antibiotics c) Soft tissue therapy d) A & B ans: d: 981 After prosthesis delivery , early crestal bone loss avoid an implant is not caused by a) Bacteria b) Stress c) Surgery d) Prosthesis Ans: a 982 When the sulcus depth is less than 5mm & the bleeding index increases, use of a) Chlorhexidine b) Oral prophylaxis c) Surgery d) Removal Ans: a 983 Scratching the implant with a probe, a plaque _________ is formed a) Highway b) Pathway c) Route d) Road Ans:a 984 Early bone loss may occur on the ________ aspect a) Facial aspect b) Lingual aspect c) Mesial aspect d) Distal aspect Ans: a 985 _______ collagen tissue is present between gingival & implant a) Type III b) Type IV c) Type V d) Type VII

Ans: a

986 A per implant radiolucency indicates the presence of surrounding soft tissue & is a a) Sign of Fracture

b) Inflammation c) Infection d) Granulation tissue Ans: a

987 Crestal bone loss is evaluated best with ___________ radiograph a) Ventral bitewing b) Peri apical radiographs c) CT scan d) A & B

Ans: d

988 Implant fixture is adapted to a) Bone b) Periodontal ligament c) Gingiva d) All the above Ans: a 989 Probing the implant site may lead to a) Periimplantitis b) Abscess c) Plaque accumulation d) Only A Ans: a 990 Force/Pressure required to percuss implant a) 500g b) 600g c) 700g d) 800g Ans: a 991 Healthy implant moves less than a) 73µm b) 80µm c) 90µm d) 99µm Ans: a

` 992. Perioral forces exerted on teeth are:-­‐ a) Horizontal b) Maximum on swallowing c) Maximum on smiling d) All the above

Ans-­‐d 993. The anterior biting force is increased a) In the presence of centric occlusion b) In eccentric occlusion c) In absence of posterior tooth contact d) In presence of posterior tooth contact Ans – c 994. Implant depth position of lesser than 4 mm is _____ a. Too Deep b. Too Shallow c. Ideal Depth. d. None of the above Ans ; B 995. Which is not a Infraorbital portion of maxillary artery A] anterior superior alveolar C] posterior superior alveolar B] middle superior alveolar D] Labial ans;c 996. . Muscle rarely used in implant surgery A] Masseter C] Medial pterygoid B] Temporalis D] Lateral pterygoid

ans ; b

997.

Passive mechanical loads applied to dental implants during healing stage due to a.

Occlusal forces

b.

Mandibular flexure

c.

Implant surgery

d.

None of the above

Ans:-­‐ b 998.

999.

Only way to control the strain experienced by the tissues is a.

Change the density of bone

b.

Increase in diameter of implant

c.

Use of threaded implant

d.

None of the above ans: c

Loss of crestal bone due to moment loads develop where there is a a.

Decrease in occlusal height

b.

Increase in occlusal height(abutment)

c.

No change in occlusal height

d.

None of the above

Ans: b 1000.

cortical bone is strongest in a.

Tensile force

b.

Shear force

c.

Compressive force

d.

All the above

Ans: c 1001.

1 Sq.ft is a.

10.764 Sq.m2

b.

0.093 m2

c.

6.542 x 10 m2

d.

10.128 x 10 m2

-­‐4

-­‐6

Ans: b 1002.

Treaded or finned dental implant impart a combination of all three forces types at the interface

conversion is controlled by?

a.

Occlusal height

b.

Implant geometry

c.

Resultant force

d.

All the above

Ans: b 1003.Implant prosthesis opposing a natural teeth require: a. b. c. d.

Ans: (a)

Implant protected occlusion No occlusion Balanced occlusion None of the above

1004.) PROBLEMS OF THE IMPLANTS NOT PLACED IN PARALLEL POSTIONS: a. b. c. d.

MEDIAL IMPLANT-­‐ WEARS OFF DISTAL RECIEVES MORE OCCLUSAL LOAD BOTH A & B INCREASED BONE RESORPTION

ANS: C 1005. Crestal bone loss can be appreciated in a. IOPA showing interproximal crestal bone b. IOPA showing buccal and lingual crestal bone c. Occlusal Radiographs d. All the above

ans: A 1006. Implant treatment plan incorporated to decrease the most common complication related to a. Compression of prosthesis b. Shear stress c. Remodeling d. None of the above

ans:b

1007. Speed of electric motor for osteotomy is ; a. depends on bone quality b. it does not depend on bone quality c. it depends on the electric motor d. none of the above

ans; a

1008. Safe torque in a threaded implant is a. 35 N-­‐cm b.29 N – cm c. 90 N – cm d. 23 N – cm 1008. ANTERIOR MANDIBLE IS THE PREFERRED SITE BECAUSE OF: e. RETENTION f. GREATEST AVAILABLE HEIGHT g. OPTIMUM DENSITY OF BONE h. ALL OF THE ABOVE ANS: D 1009. PRIMARY CONCERN IN DESIGNING AN OVERDENTURE IS: a. STABILITY b. RETENTION c. PROSTHESIS MOVEMENT d. ALL OF THE ABOVE 1010. THE DISTAL BAR OF THE MOST POSTERIOR IMPLANT ON EACH SIDE REPRESENT a. IDEAL DISTANCE

b. c. d.

A – P SPREAD 14-­‐ 15mm P – A spread

ANS: B 1011.) THE IDEAL DISTANCE BETWEEN TWO IMPLANTS IS a. b. c. d.

1 mm 2 mm 3 mm 4 mm

ANS: c 1012).which of the following are true about maxillary sinus? a.reaches the full size at about fourth month of featal life b.formed by the alveolar process which forms the apex c.largest paranasal sinus d.all of the above

Answer: C

1013).The following are true about maxillary sinus except: a.largest paranasal sinus b.its nasal wall presents a large irregular aperture communicating with nasal cavity c.it is a triangular cavity at the body of the maxilla d.alveolar process forms the floor

Answer: C

1014.Which of the following canal projects into maxillary sinus as a well marked ridge extending from the roof to the anterior wall? a.nasal canal b.infraorbital canal

c.maxillary canal d.mandibular canal

Answer: B

1015.Which of the following communicates with the anterosuperior part of the maxillary sinus? a.lower part of hiatus semilunaris b.eusthacian orrifice c.nasolacrimal duct d.all of the above

Answer: A

1016.Which of the following is the nerve supply through the maxillary sinus a.inferior alveolar nerve b.superior alveolar nerve c.mandibular nerve d.middle laryngeal nerve

Answer: B

1017.Which of the following lines the maxillary sinus a.parakeratinised squamous epithelium b.keratinised squamous epithelium c.pseudo ciliated columnar epithelium d.none of the above

Answer: C

1018.Which of the following is the venous drainage of the maxillary sinus a.facial and pterygoid plexus of vein b.internal jugular vein c.all of the above d.none of the above

Answer: A

1019.Maxillary sinus is also known as a.intranasal cavity b.antrum of Highmore c.sinus mandibularis d.antrum of Hunter

Answer: B

1020.Which of the following bounds inferiorly to hiatus semilunaris a.eusthacian orrifice b.sharp concave margin of uncinate process of ethmoid bone c.maxillary bone d.none of the above

Answer: B

1021.Who described the relation between dental pathology and spread of the infection a.Mark Euchian b.Highmore c.John Keating d.John Hunter

Answer: D

1022.Which of the following allows filtration of bacteria and other particles a.septum b.nasal cavity c.cilia d.all of the above

Answer: C

1023.Which of the following the size of the maxilary sinus a.transverse breadth = 3.75 cm b.anteroposterior depth = 8 cm c.transverse breadth = 15 cm d.vertical height opposite first molar = 8 cm

Answer: A

1024.Which of the following are true about maxillary sinus

a.anteroposterior depth i 15 cm b.largest paranasal sinus c.maxillary sinus also known as antrum of Hunter d.all of the above

Answer: B

1025.Which of the following tooth roots approximate with the maxillary sinus a.2nd molars b.canines c.lateral incisors d.central incisors

Answer: A

1026.Which of the following might cause oroantral fistula a.acute sinusitis b.periapical infection of the tooth c.extraction of 3rd molars d.none of the following

Answer: B

1027.Tenderness to pressure over the infraorbital foramen may indicate the following to maxillary antrum. a.expansion of the maxillary sinus b.inflammation of the sinus membrane from infection or trauma

c.heammorhage in the surrounding tissues d.none of the above

Answer: B

1028.The infraorbital neurovascular structures may be less than ____ from the crest of severe atropic anterior maxilla. a.20 mm b.5 cm c.4 cm d.10 mm

Answer: D

1029.Dehiscence in the maxillary sinus results in direct contact between ____ and the sinus mucousa. a.infraorbital structures b.mandibular nerve c.nasal structures d.ethmoid arteries

Answer: A

1030.The posterior wall of the maxillary sinus corresponds to the ____ . a.infraorbital foramen b.maxillary artery c.pterygomaxillary region d.nasal concha

Answer: C

1031.Which of the following is the main opening through which maxillary sinus drains itz secretion into the nasal cavity. a.maxillary antrum b.infraorbital foramen c.maxillary ostium d.nasal fossa

Answer: C

1032. The success criteria established by the conference in the end of 5 years is; a. 70 years b.75 years c.80 years a. 85 years ans ; b 1033.Instrument used to evaluate the mobility of the implant is; a. implantest b. abutmentest c. periotest d. implant mobility scale ans; c 1034.Pain during percussion of the implant is usually a. Infection b.no significance finding

c. Lack of gingival attachment d. trauma from occlusion ans;c 1035. Maximum mobility of a healthy implant is a.500 microns b.1000 microns c.75 microns d. 750 microns ans;c 1036.Implant mobility scale of 3 denotes a. slight movement b.severe horizontal movement greater than 0.5mm c.visible moderate to severe horizontal and visible vertical movement d.moderate visible mobility upto 0.5mm ans;b 1037. Periotest values of healthy tooth is a. 5-­‐9 b.10-­‐15 c.0-­‐5 d.15-­‐20 ans;a 1038. Periotest of implant ranges from a. -­‐8 b. +8 c.+18

d.+28 ans;a 1039. Any amount of bone loss after first year of implant is a. 0.05 mm b. 0.1mm c.0.5mm d. 1 mm ans;a 1040 . Amount of reduction in bone density required for a defect to be visible in a radiograph is a.40% b.80% c.60% d.40% ans;d 1041. According to misch bone loss around the implant is called a. resorption b.resolution c. periimplantitis d.periodontitis ans; c 1042. Optimum depth of implant gingival sulcus is a.2 mm b. 4mm c. 6mm d. 8mm

ans;b 1043. The following condition can always lead to bone loss around the implant a.bleeding on probing’ b. plaque and calculus + bleeding on probing c. exudate d. pain on percussion ans;c 1044. Vertical movement on application of 400 grams of force indicates a.implant success b. compromised implant success c. implant failure d. all the above ans;c 1045. Implant infection begins from the a) b) c) d)

Permucosal region Mucosal region Apical region Permucosal region and spreads in an apical direction

Ans; d 1046.Sub periosteal implants often extend beyond e) f) g) h)

Muscle attachments Fascial planes Muscle attachments and fascial planes All of the above

Ans;c

1047. The primary cause for failure of the crown is all of the following except a. Endontic therapy

b. Porcelain or tooth fracture c. Uncemented restoration d. Physiological breakdown Answer is: D

1048.The following treatment options exist for replacement of posterior single missing tooth: a. b. c. d.

Removable partial denture Resin-­‐bonded prosthesis Space Regainer Implant prosthesis

1049.Disadvantages of Replacing a Mandibular Second Molar include except: e. f. g. h.

Not in esthetic zone Less than 5% chewing efficiency 10% bite force increase Zero occlusal disturbances

Answer is: D 1050.All of the following are true of unfavourable outcomes of FPD with the exception of: i. j. k. l.

Answer is: B

Loss of abutment tooth Decreased plaque retention at pontic Mean span of 10 to 15 years Esthetics in anterior regions