Cis 430 all quizes latest 2017 november by Amandaeose

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CIS 430 All Quizes-latest 2017 November

Question CIS430 Unit 2 Quiz C2 latest 2017 november Question 1 Which of the following is false? A reference file stores data that are used as standards for processing transactions. A master file generally contains account data. An archive file contains records of past transactions that are retained for future reference. A transaction file is a temporary file of transaction records used to change or update data in a master file. All of the above are true. Question 2 Which of the following is true of the relationship between subsidiary ledgers and general ledger accounts? The relationship between the two provides an audit trail from the financial statements to the source documents. The two contain different and unrelated data. All general ledger accounts have subsidiaries. The total of subsidiary ledger accounts usually exceeds the total in the related general ledger account. Question 3 Which of the following statements is NOT true? Sorting records that are coded alphabetically tends to be more difficult for users than sorting numeric sequences. Mnemonic coding requires the user to memorize codes. Sequential codes carry no information content beyond their order in the sequence. Mnemonic codes are limited in their ability to represent items within a class. Question 4

Which statement is NOT true? Business activities begin with the acquisition of materials, property, and labor in exchange for cash. The conversion cycle includes the task of determining raw materials requirements. Manufacturing firms have a conversion cycle but retail firms do not. A payroll check is an example of a product document of the payroll system. Question 5 Which statement is NOT correct? Indexed random files use disk storage space efficiently. Indexed random files are dispersed throughout the storage device without regard for physical proximity with related records. Indexed random files are efficient when processing a large portion of a file at one time. Indexed random files are easy to maintain in terms of adding records. Question 6 A coding scheme in the form of acronyms and other combinations that convey meaning is sequential code. block code. alphabetic code. mnemonic code. Question 7 Which statement is NOT correct? Records in an indexed random file are dispersed throughout a disk without regard to their physical disks. In a sequential structure the application starts at the geginning of the file and process each record in sequence. Sequential file systems are not efficient when the user is is interested in locating only one record in the file. The sequential access method allows accessing a record directly. Question 8 2 out of 2 points Which statement is NOT correct? Legacy systems may process financially significant transactions. Legacy systems tend to use mainframe computers and be batch oriented. The flat file approach is often associated with legacy systems. All the above are true.

Question 9 2 out of 2 points The expenditure, conversion and revenue cycles exist in all types of businesses to include both for profit and not for profit. True False Question 10 2 out of 2 points An advantage of a physical address pointer is that it points directly to the actual disk storage location. it points directly to the actual disk storage location. it is easily recovered if it is inadvertently lost. it remains unchanged when disks are reorganized. all of the above are advantages of the physical address pointer.

CIS430 Unit 2 Quiz C3 latest 2017 november Question 1 Which of the following is not a major factor that contributes to small business fraud? Inadequate employee prescreening Too much trust Limited controls Excessive cash on hand Question 2 A shell company fraud involves: stealing cash from an organization before it is recorded stealing cash from an organization after it has been recorded setting up a fake company and manufacturing false purchase orders, receiving reports, and invoices A clerk pays a vendor twice for the same products and cashes the reimbursement check issued by the vendor

Question 3 When duties cannot be segregated, the most important internal control procedure is supervision independent verification accounting records access controls Question 4 To conceal the theft of a check from customers in payment of their accounts, which of the following journal entries should the bookkeeper make? Debit Miscellaneous Expense; Credit Cash Debit Petty; Credit Cash Debit Cash; Credit Accounts Receivable Debit Sales Returns; Credit Accounts Receivable None of the above Question 5 Cash larceny involves stealing cash from an organization before it is recorded on the organizationâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s books and records. True t False Question 6 When certain customers made cash payments to reduce their accounts receivable, the bookkeeper embezzled the cash and wrote off the accounts as uncollectible. Which control procedure would most likely prevent this irregularity? Correct segregation of duties maintaining a general ledger insuring debits equal credits in the accounting system access controls Question 7 2 out of 2 points Correct Which of the following indicates a strong internal control environment? the internal audit group reports to the audit committee of the board of directors there is no segregation of duties between organization functions there are questions about the integrity of management

adverse business conditions exist in the industry Question 8 Which of the following is not a limitation of the internal control system? errors are made due to employee fatigue fraud occurs because of collusion between two employees the industry is inherently risky management instructs the bookkeeper to make fraudulent journal entries Question 9 The external auditor is responsible for establishing and maintaining the internal control system. True False Question 10 Which of the following is NOT an element of the fraud triangle? rationalization (ethics) justifiable reliance pressure (motive) opportunity

CIS430 Unit 3 Quiz C4 latest 2017 november Question 1 Which type of control is considered a compensating control? segregation of duties access control supervision accounting records Question 2 In regard to the bill of lading which of the following is false? The shipping clerk normally prepares the bill of lading. It is a formal contract between the seller and the shipping company.

It establishes legal ownership and responsibility for assets in transit. It is completed before the packing slip and shipping notice. Question 3 The bill of lading is prepared by the sales clerk warehouse clerk shipping clerk billing clerk Question 4 Good internal controls in the revenue cycle should ensure all of the following except all sales are profitable all sales are recorded credit is authorized inventory to be shipped is not stolen Question 5 Which of following functions should be segregated? opening the mail and recording cash receipts in the journal authorizing credit and determining reorder quantities shipping goods and preparing the bill of lading providing information on inventory levels and reconciling the bank statement Question 6 Which situation indicates a weak internal control structure? the AR clerk authorizes the write off of bad debts the record- keeping clerk maintains both AR and AP subsidiary ledgers the inventory control clerk authorizes inventory purchases the AR clerk prepares customer statements every month Question 7 When will a credit check approval most likely require specific authorization by the credit department? when verifying that the current transaction does not exceed the customerâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s credit limit when verifying that the current transaction is with a valid customer when a valid customer places a materially large order when a valid customer returns goods

Question 8 Which of the following is not one of the three rules that govern segregation of duties? All transactions should be independently verified to verify the completeness and accuracy of the transaction. Transaction authorization should be separate from transaction processing. Asset custody should be separate from the task of asset record keeping. The organization should be structured so that the perpetration of a fraud requires collusion between two or more individuals. Question 9 Which situation indicates a weak internal control structure? the mailroom clerk authorizes credit memos the record keeping clerk maintains both accounts receivable and accounts payable subsidiary ledgers the warehouse clerk obtains a signature before releasing goods for shipment the accounts receivable clerk prepares customer statements every month Question 10 The credit department prepares credit memos when goods are returned approves credits to accounts receivable when payments are received authorizes the granting of credit to customers none of the above

CIS430 Unit 4 Quiz C5 latest 2017 november Question 1 The documents in a voucher packet include all of the following except a check a purchase order an invoice a receiving report Question 2

The greatest advantage of the automated inventory system over its manual counterpart is improved ability to manager inventory needs. True False Question 3 Vendors approved by an organization are maintained in a valid vendor file. Insuring that vendors used are in the valid vendor file will insure the most competitive price will be obtained. False True Question 4 Which document helps to ensure that the receiving clerks actually count the number of goods received? packing list blind copy of purchase order shipping notice invoice Question 5 Which document typically triggers the process of recording a liability? purchase requisition purchase order receiving report supplierâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s invoice Question 6 Which of the following tasks should the cash disbursement clerk NOT perform? review the supporting documents for completeness and accuracy prepare checks approve the liability mark the supporting documents paid Question 7 The Which of the following is not a major risk exposures associated with the receiving department? goods are accepted without a physical count there is no inspection for goods damaged in shipment inventories are not secured on the receiving dock

the audit trail is destroyed Question 8 Which statement is NOT correct for a cash disbursement system with proper internal controls? The bank reconcilement should be an independent verification (ie: by Controller). The accounts payable function authorizes the cash disbursement via the cash disbursement voucher. The accounts payable function prepares the cash disbursement check. Separate the accounts payable, cash disbursements and general ledger functions. Question 9 Goods received are inspected and counted to determine that the goods are in good condition determine the quantity of goods received preclude payment for goods not received or received in poor condition all of the above Question 10 Close supervision in the receiving department reduces the risks of both theft of assets and failure to properly inspect assets. True False

CIS430 Unit 5 Quiz C8 latest 2017 november Question 1 Which statement below best describes an investment center? The authority to make decisions affecting the major determinants of profit, including the power to choose its markets and sources of supply, and significant control over the amount of invested capital. The authority to make decisions over the most significant costs of operations, including the power to choose the sources of supply. The authority to provide specialized support to other units within the organization. The responsibility for developing markets for and selling of the output of the organization. Question 2 A profit center manager has responsibility for both cost control and revenue generation.

True False Question 3 The core benefits of XBRL adoption include all of the following except: Improved information quality Cost reduction through tagging of each item with information so that data is easy to identify Cost reduction through the ability to use data just once. Cost reduction through enhancing comparability of information because XBRL lays out a common set of definitions by which all organizations will tag their data. Question 4 An audit trail should: Provide the ability to answer inquiries from customers or vendors. Be able to reconstruct files if they are destroyed. Provide historical data required by auditors. Fulfill government requirements. Provide a means for preventing, detecting and correcting errors. All of the above. Question 5 XBRL is an application of XML to business information reporting, that uses tags or structure, that will make data dramatically easier to create, aggregate, distribute and analyze. will improving the quality of the information used by companies, analysts and investors to make decisions. enables the creation of “interactive, intelligent” data that allows information to be automatically processed and analyzed and vastly improves transparency. is an acronym for eXtensible Business Reporting Language (XBRL). Question 6 At what level of management is the long range planning function most important? at top management levels at middle management levels at lower management levels for staff functions e. for line functions Question 7 The General ledger System (GLS) may be characterized as a hub in the center that is connected to other systems of the firm through spokes of information.

True False Question 8 Which of the following is NOT a potential exposure of the FRS? defective audit trail general ledger accounts that are out of balance with subsidiary accounts unauthorized access to the check register unauthorized access to the general ledger Question 9 The Ozment Corporation uses a performance reporting system that shows online the data for each subordinate who reports to a supervisor. The data presented show the actual costs incurred during the period, the budgeted costs, and all variances from budget for that subordinateâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s department. The name of this system of reporting is responsibility accounting. flexible budgeting. program budgeting. cost benefit accounting.

CIS430 Unit 5 Quiz C11 latest 2017 november Question 1 In regard to ERP which of the following is false? There is no need to be concerned about segregation of duties because ERP systems possess strong computer controls. Managers in an ERP environment must be concerned about granting access to too many employees. ERP systems are often installed because they tend to eliminate the need for contingency disaster planning. Access security is critical in an ERP environment and must be maintained to establish data confidentiality, integrity and availability. Question 2 In regard to an enterprise resource system (ERP) which of the following is false? An organization may need to change the way it conducts business to take full advantage of the ERP. ERP systems are custom packages designed for specific organizations.

The ERP system integrates key processes of the organization so a single computer system can serve the needs of each functional area. ERP systems utilize a single database to facilitate the sharing of information and to improve communications across the organization. Question 3 There are a number of risks that may be associated with ERP implementation. Which of the following was NOT stated as a risk in the chapter? A drop in firm performance after implementation because the firm looks and works differently than it did while using a legacy system. Implementing companies have found that staff members, employed by ERP consulting firms, do not have sufficient experience in implementing new systems. Implementing firms fail to select systems that properly support their business activities. ERPs are too large, complex, and generic for them to be well integrated in to most company cultures.

CIS430 Unit 6 Quiz C12 latest 2017 november Question 1 Which of the following statements is true? Cookies were originally intended to facilitate advertising on the Web Cookies always contain encrypted data. encrypted data. Cookies contain the URLs of sites the user visits. Web browsers cannot function without cookies. Question 2 Which of the following security risks associated with electronic commerce is false? A firewall is a system used to insulate an organizationâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s intranet from the internet. A common firewall configuration employs two firewalls â&#x20AC;&#x201C; a network level firewall and an application level firewall. A digital certificate is an electronic authentication technique that can be used to authenticate the identity of the sender of a message.

In a public key management system a certification authority will issue and revoke digital certificates. Encryption can resolve all security concerns. Question 3 Per the article The Information Security Control Environment, which of the following is considered a “least” commonly implemented control? Protect equipment from unauthorized access. Maintain network security. Enforce a secure logon process when providing access to information services. Keep antivirus software updated. Authenticate remote users accessing the network. Question 4 Which of the following statements is correct? TCP/ IP is the basic protocol that permits communication between Internet sites. TCP/ IP controls Web browsers that access the Web. TCP/ IP is the document format used to pro-duce Web pages. TCP/ IP is used to transfer text files, programs, spreadsheets, and databases across the Internet. TCP/ IP is a low- level encryption scheme used to secure transmissions in higher- level ( HTTP) format. Question 5 Which of the following statements associated with the internet and/or intranet is false? Discharged employees raise particular concerns because of trade secrets, operations data, accounting data and other confidential information to which they had access. Many organizations are reluctant to prosecute those that commit an internet/intranet crime. Privacy is normally not one of the reasons why individuals avoid internet commerce. A denial of service attack is defined as an assault on a web server to prevent it from servicing its legitimate users. One form of internet fraud involves establishing a website to steal a visitor’s password. Question 6 A digital signature is the encrypted mathematical value of the message sender’s name. is derived from the digest of a document that has been encrypted with the sender’s private key. is derived from the digest of a document that has been encrypted with the sender’s public key.

is the computed digest of the senderâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s digital certificate. Question 7 Which of the following best describes a system of computers that connects the internal users of an organization distributed over a wide geographic area? LAN Internet decentralized network multidrop network

CIS430 Unit 6 Quiz C13 latest 2017 november Question 1 Which of the following is least likely to be an accountantâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s role in the SDLC? user consultant auditor programmer all of these are likely roles Question 2 Which of the following steps is NOT considered to be part of this systems survey? Interviews are conducted with operating people and managers. The complete documentation of the system is obtained and reviewed. Measures of processing volume are obtained for each operation. Equipment sold by various computer manufacturers is reviewed in terms of capability, cost, and availability. Question 3 In the context of the TELOS acronym, technical feasibility refers to whether a proposed system is attainable, given the existing technology. the systems manager can coordinate and control the activities of the systems department. an adequate computer site exists for the pro-posed system. the proposed system will produce economic benefits exceeding its costs.

the system will be used effectively within the operating environment of an organization. Question 4 2 out of 2 points All of the following individuals would likely be SDLC participants EXCEPT accountants. shareholders. management. programmers. Question 5 Which of the following represents the correct order in problem resolution? Recognize the problem, define the problem, perform feasibility studies, specify system objectives, and prepare a project proposal. Define the problem, recognize the problem, specify system objectives, perform feasibility studies, and prepare a project proposal. Question 6 The last step in the cost- benefit analysis is to compare the costs and benefits identified in the first two steps. The two most common methods used for evaluating information systems are net present value and payback. Which of the following statements are true? Both are true. Under the net present value method, the present value of the costs is deducted from the present value of the benefits over the life of the system. Projects with a positive net present value are economically feasible. The payback method is a variation of break- even analysis. The break-even point is reached when total costs equal total benefits. This is when the project breaks even, or pays for itself. Both are true. Both are false. Question 7 Which of the following is the most important factor in planning for a system change? Having an auditor as a member of the design team. Using state- of- the- art techniques. Concentrating on software rather than hardware. Involving top management and people who use the system. Question 8 One time costs of system development include all of the following EXCEPT hardware maintenance. programming.

hardware acquisition. data conversion. Question 9 Which of the following aspects of a cost- benefit study would have the greatest uncertainty as to its precise value? the tangible costs the intangible costs the intangible benefits none of the above because they are equally precise Question 10 A feasibility study for a new computer system should consider costs, savings, controls, profit improvement, and other benefits analyzed by application area. provide the preliminary plan for converting existing manual systems and clerical operations. provide management with assurance from qualified, independent consultants that the use of a computer system appeared justified. include a report by the internal audit department that evaluated internal control features for each planned application. Question 11 The TELOS acronym is often used for determining the need for system changes. Which of the following types of feasibility studies are elements of TELOS? legal, environmental, and economic environmental, operational, and economic technical, economic, legal, and practical practical, technical, and operational technical, operational, and economic

CIS430 Unit 7 Quiz C15 latest 2017 november Question 1 Which of the following is not a disaster recovery techniques? empty shell Recovery Operations Center (ROC)

internally provided backup All of the above are disaster recovery techniques. Question 2 2 out of 2 points Which of the following is NOT a control implication of distributed data processing? redundancy user satisfaction incompatibility lack of standards Question 3 When management outsources IT they also are able to outsource their management responsibility under SOX for ensuring adequate IT controls. True False Question 4 Which of the following is NOT a potential threat to computer hardware and peripherals? low humidity high humidity carbon dioxide fire extinguishers water sprinkler fire extinguishers Question 5 The Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) should provide details regarding the use of a duplicate data processing facility. True False Question 6 Computer accounting control procedures are referred to as general or application controls. The primary objective of application controls in a computer environment is to ensure that the computer system operates efficiently. ensure the validity, completeness, and accuracy of financial transactions. provide controls over the electronic functioning of the hardware. plan for the protection of the facilities and backup for the systems. Question 7 If properly documented, the Disaster Recovery Plan need not be tested.

True False

CIS430 Unit 7 Quiz C16 latest 2017 november Question 1 In regard to data base backup the auditor's objective is to verify that the database controls are adequate to facilitate the recovery of lost, destroyed or corrupted data. True False Question 2 A userâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s application may consist of several modules stored in separate memory locations, each with its own data.One module must not be allowed to destroy or corrupt another module. This is an objective of operating system controls. data resource controls. computer center and security controls. application controls. Question 3 Audit trails can be used to support system security by: Detecting unauthorized access to the system. Facilitating the reconstruction of events. Promoting personal accountability. All of the above. Question 4 A program whose sole purpose is to capture IDs and passwords from unsuspected users is called: virus. worm. Trojan horse. logic bomb. Question 5

Reviewing database authority tables is a(n) access control. organizational structure control. data resource control. operating resource control. Question 6 In regard to controlling access privileges which of the following is false? The systems administrator or the owner of the resource (system) normally assigns the access privilege. User access privileges are assigned to indivuduals or to entire user workgroups. User access privileges determine what files can be accessed and what can be done to those files. Because of the nature of computerized systems, management need not be concerned with assigning access privileges that are incompatible with assigned duties. Question 7 In reference to Electronic Data Interchanges (EDI) which of the following is false? Both the customer and the supplier must establish that the transaction being processed is to (or from) a valid trading partner and is authorized. EDI trading partners must permit a degree of access to private files that would be forbidden in the traditional environment. The EDI process makes use of periodic human intervention to insure adequate internal control. Screening. Question 8 Which of the following techniques is not normally considered a way to reduce malicious and destructive computer programs. Purchase software only from reputable vendors. Have an organization wide policy prohibiting the use of unauthorized software. Prevent illegal access through a password system. Examine all vendor software upgrades and public domain software for viruses before installing.

CIS430 Unit 8 Quiz C17 latest 2017 november Question 1

A control designed to validate a transaction at the point of data entry is a. recalculation of a record count. a check digit. checkpoints. recalculation of hash total. Question 2 Which of the following statements is true? The black box approach to testing application controls is essentially auditing around the computer. The white box approach audits through the computer and tests the application logic directly. Both are true. Both are false. Question 3 In an automated payroll processing environment, a department manager substituted the time card for a terminated employee with a time card for a fictitious employee. The fictitious employee had the same pay rate and hours worked as the terminated employee. The best control technique to detect this action using employee identification numbers would be a record count. True False Question 4 Users need to be actively involved in the system development process. True False Question 5 An electronic walk- through of the applicationâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s internal logic is called a salami logic test. an integrated test. tracing. a logic bomb test. Question 6 SOX legislation calls for sound internal control practices over financial reporting and requires SEC- registered corporations to maintain systems of internal control that meet SOX standards. An integral part of internal control is the appropriate use of preventive controls. Which of the following is not an essential element of preventive control? separation of responsibilities for the recording, custodial, and authorization functions

sound personnel practices documentation of policies and procedures implementation of state of the art software and hardware physical protection of assets Question 7 In regard to Generalized Audit Software (GAS) which of the following is false? Generalized Audit Software is an off-the-shelf package that can provide a means to gain access to and interrogate data maintained on computer storage media. Generalized Audit Software is utilized by auditors to obtain evidence directly on the quality of the records produced and maintained by application systems. ACL and IDEA are two widely used Generalized Audit Software products. Generalized audit software is the clientâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s software that is borrowed by the auditor. Question 8 Input controls should test validity, accuracy and completeness. True False Question 9 When using the test data method: Involves an audit module designed into the application with dummy or test records integrated among legitimate records. Performs an electronic walk through of the applicationâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s internal logic. Involves an audit module designed into the application with dummy or test records integrated among legitimate records. Creating a program that does what the application program does. Transactions are reprocessed and the parallel simulation results are compared to the actual application results. Involves a module embedded into the application program that selects transactions for further testing. Question 10 An employee in the receiving department keyed in a shipment from a remote terminal and inadvertently omitted the purchase order number. The best systems control to detect this error would be a reasonableness test. True False Question 11 In regard to program changes which of the following is false?

Normally there is no audit trail for program changes. All program changes should be supported by a change authorization in the program permanent file. The program maintenance change authorization should be approved by both the computer services management and the user department management. Every program change should be thoroughly tested before being implemented.