Gate Architecture Previous Year Question Papers 2019-1992

GATE 2012 Online Examination AR : ARCHITECTURE AND PLANNING Duration: Three Hours

Maximum Marks: 100

Read the following instructions carefully.

1. The computer allotted to you at the examination center runs a specialized software that permits only one answer to be selected for multiple choice questions using a mouse. Your answers shall be updated and saved on a server periodically and at the end of the examination.

2. To login, enter your Registration Number and password provided in the envelope. Go through the symbols used in the test and understand the meaning before you start the examination. You can view all questions by clicking on the View All Questions button in the screen after the start of the examination.

3. To answer a question, select the question using the selection panel on the screen and choose the correct answer by clicking on the radio button next to the answer. To change the answer, just click on another option. If you wish to leave a previously answered question unanswered, click on the button next to the selected option.

4. The examination will automatically stop at the end of 3 hours.

5. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. Except questions Q.26 – Q.30, all the other questions are of multiple choice type with only one correct answer. Questions Q.26 - Q.30 require a numerical answer, and a number should be entered using the virtual keyboard on the monitor.

6. Questions Q.1 – Q.25 carry 1 mark each. Questions Q.26 – Q.55 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.

7. Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks.

Questions Q.56 – Q.60 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.61 – Q.65 carry 2 marks each.

8. Unattempted questions will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE marks.

There is no negative marking for questions of numerical answer type, i.e., for Q.26 – Q.30. For all 1 mark questions, ⅓ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions, ⅔ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks for wrong answer to the second question.

9. Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall. Do the rough work in the Scribble Pad provided.

10. You must sign this sheet and leave it with the invigilators at the end of the examination. ________________________________________________________________________________________ DECLARATION: I hereby declare that I have read and followed all the instructions given in this sheet.

Registration Number

AR

Name Signature Verified that the above entries are correct.

Invigilator’s signature:

2012

Q.12

ARCHITECTURE & PLANNING – AR

Which one of the following mode is NOT categorized as a public transit?

(A) Bus

Q.13

(B) Ferry

(B) Leather (D) Aluminum foil

The volume of surface runoff is least influenced by (A) existing storm water drainage system (C) site slope

Q.16

(B) Steel column (D) Steel truss

Among the following, the urban open space known for its human scale is (A) Piazza del Campo, Sienna (C) St. Peter’s Square, Rome

Q.19

(B) Casia Fistula (D) Jasminum Augustifolium

Load from a slab to beam is primarily transferred through (A) axial force

Q.21

(B) Piazza del Popolo, Rome (D) Place de la Concorde, Paris

The most appropriate tree for designing a smell sensory pathway is (A) Delonix Regia (C) Bougainvillea

Q.20

(B) under the sidewalk (D) under the open space along sidewalk

Ponding is associated with (A) RC column (C) RC slab

Q.18

(B) amount of rainfall (D) size of watershed

The best location for laying the main sewer line on a flat land is (A) under the road (C) under the central verge

Q.17

(B) Land cover data (D) Landuse data

Which one of the following is biodegradable?

(A) Detergent (C) Recycled plastic

Q.15

(D) Tram

Aerial photography is a useful tool to obtain (A) Land contour data (C) Land ownership data

Q.14

(C) Taxi

(B) bending moment

(C) shearing force

(D) torsion

Geographic Information System (GIS) combines maps with (A) computer automation, statistics and topology (B) computer graphics, databases and analytical tools (C) computer graphics, informatics and quantitative tools (D) computer informatics, databases and qualitative tools

Q.22

‘ Glazing stop’ is used (A) as a bearing support for glass (B) to seal the glass against water and air infiltration (C) to provide lateral support to glass (D) to provide a cushion between the glass and the glazing pocket

Q.23

Which one of the following is NOT a basic principle of designing people-friendly urban built environment?

(A) Diversity

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(B) Monotony

(C) Adaptability

(D) Legibility 3/14

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Q.24

ARCHITECTURE & PLANNING – AR

SWOT analysis is used for examining a situation’s inherent (A) Strength, Wastefulness, Opportunity and Tactfulness (B) Sanction, Weakness, Ownership and Threat (C) Strength, Weakness, Opportunity and Threat (D) Support, Wastefulness, Ownership and Transparency

Q.25

The deflection of a two way slab is primarily a function (A) of the long span (B) of the short span (C) mostly of the long span, sometimes short span (D) independent of the long or short span

Q. 26 to Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26

A painting in a living room needs to be lighted at 250 lux. If the light is incident normally on the painting from a distance of 6 m, then the intensity of light source required (in candela) is (A) 1500

Q.27

(C) 1500

(D) 1700

(C) 50.0

(D) 100.0

A classroom of 12m x 25m x 4m requires 3 air changes per hour. At an air velocity of 2 m/s, the necessary duct cross section (in m2) is (B) 0.75

(C) 1.00

(D) 1.25

If the original cost of a building is Rs. 25,00,000/- and its scrap value after 55 years is Rs.25,000/-, then its annual depreciation (in Rs.) using straight line method is (A) 25,000

Q.31

(B) 1300

(B) 25.0

(A) 0.50 Q.30

(D) 9000

A 6m long beam is fixed at its left end and is free at its right end. If a concentrated load of 25kN acts downwards at 4m from the left end, then the bending moment (in kNm) at the left end is (A) 0.0

Q.29

(C) 6000

Total land area for a plotted housing development project is 50.0 hectare, of which, area under community facilities, common open spaces and roads are 9%, 10 %, and 16 % respectively.

Total number of saleable plots of 250 m2 each will be (A) 1100

Q.28

(B) 3000

(B) 35,000

(C) 45,000

(D) 55,000

For a pin jointed steel truss system, which of the following statements is TRUE? (A) Bending moment resisting capacity at any section is zero as members carry axial forces only.

(B) Forces in members at any section align in appropriate combination of tension and compression to develop moment resisting capacity.

(C) Forces in members at any section align in such a manner as to develop zero moment resisting capacity.

(D) Shear resisting capacity at any section is zero as members carry axial forces only

Q.32

Match the books in Group I with their authors in Group II P. Q. R. S.

Group I Space, Time and Architecture Form, Space and Order The Death and Life of Great American Cities The Image of the City

(A) P-5, Q-4, R-3, S-2 (C) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 AR

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Group II Jane Jacob Kevin Lynch Ian McHarg Francis D K Ching Gideon S

(B) P-5, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (D) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-5 4/14

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Q.33

ARCHITECTURE & PLANNING – AR

Match the schemes in Group I with their specific targets in Group II P. Q. R. S.

Group I JNNURM IAY PURA NREGA

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Group II Urban Amenities for Rural Areas Infrastructure and Slum Upgradation Rural Employment Land Acquisition Housing for BPL families

(A) P-2, Q-5, R-1, S-3 (C) P-5, Q-2, R-3, S-4 Q.34

(B) P-5, Q-2, R-1, S-3 (D) P-2, Q-5, R-3, S-4

Match the concepts in Group I with the personalities in Group II P. Q. R. S.

Group I Linear City Radiant City Garden City Arcology

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Group II Le Corbusier Paolo Soleri Louis Kahn Soria Y Mata Ebenezer Howard

(A) P-4, Q-3, R-5, S-1 (C) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2 Q.35

(B) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 (D) P-1, Q-5, R-2, S-4

Match the plan drawings in Group I with their respective scales in Group II P. Q. R. S.

Group I Site Plan Perspective Plan Master Plan Zonal Plan

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Group II 1: 4000 1: 1000000 1: 500 1: 20000 1: 2000

(A) P-5, Q-1, R-4, S-2 (C) P-1, Q-4, R-5, S-3 Q.36

(B) P-3, Q-2, R-5, S-4 (D) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1

Match the terminologies of Group I with their corresponding meanings in Group II Group I P. Q. R. S.

Antarala Mandapa Gopuram Prasada

(A) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-5 (C) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2

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Group II 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Antechamber Palace hall Womb chamber Gateway Pillared sanctuary (B) P-1, Q-5, R-4, S-2 (D) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-5

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Q.37

ARCHITECTURE & PLANNING – AR

Match the standard safety colour codes of Group I with their corresponding usage in Group II Group I P. Q. R. S.

Blue Green Red Yellow

Group II 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

(A) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4 (C) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-5

Q.38

Biodegradable waste Fire protection equipment Recyclable waste Stumbling against hazards Radiation standards (B) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-1 (D) P-1, Q-5, R-2, S-4

Match the alignment of the rotating prisms in wall sections in Group I with their corresponding acoustic function in Group II P.

Group I 1.

Group II Moderate diffusion

Q.

2.

Moderate absorption

R.

3.

Specular diffusion

S.

4.

Specular reflection

(A) P – 4, Q – 1, R – 2, S - 3 (C) P – 2, Q – 3, R – 4, S - 1 Q.39

(B) P – 4, Q – 3, R – 1, S - 2 (D) P – 2, Q – 1, R – 3, S - 4

Match the projects in Group I with their architects in Group II Group I P. Q. R. S.

Milwaukee Art Museum, Wisconsin Kimbell Art Museum, Fortworth Getty Center, Los Angeles Freedom Tower, New York

(A) P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-3 (C) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

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Group II 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Bernard Tschumi Richard Meier Daniel Libeskind Tadao Ando Santiago Calatrava

(B) P-5, Q-1, R-2, S-4 (D) P-2, Q-5, R-4, S-3

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Q.44

ARCHITECTURE & PLANNING – AR

Match the locations in Group I with the corresponding traps in Group II Group I Inspection chamber Wash basin Bathing space European water closet

P. Q. R. S.

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

(A) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-2 (C) P-2, Q-4, R-5, S-3 Q.45

(B) P-4, Q-5, R-2, S-3 (D) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

Match the building construction components in Group I with their application areas in Group II P. Q. R. S.

Group I Bracket Plate Kick Plate Pressure Plate Base Plate

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

(A) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (C) P-2, Q-5, R-3, S-1 Q.46

Group I Pantheon, Rome St. Paul’s Cathedral, London St. Peter’s Basilica, Rome Notre Dame, Paris

(A) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4 (C) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-5

(B) P-2, Q-5, R-1, S-4 (D) P-3, Q-5, R-2, S-1

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Group II Baroque Roman Romanesque Renaissance Gothic (B) P-2, Q-5, R-3, S-1 (D) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

Corrected Effective Temperature is an index which combines the effect of P. Q. R. S. T. U.

Climatic zone Temperature Wind velocity Vegetation Humidity Solar radiation

(A) P, Q, R, S (C) Q, S, T, U

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Group II Steel Column Curtain Wall Rolling Shutter Stone Wall Toilet Door

Match the historical buildings in Group I with their styles in Group II P. Q. R. S.

Q.47

Group II P-Trap Gully Trap S-Trap Bottle Trap Floor Trap

(B) Q, R, T, U (D) Q, R, U, P

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Common Data Questions Common data for Questions 48 and 49: An aircraft flying at an altitude of 5000 m above mean sea level takes aerial photographs of a flat terrain having an average elevation of 1000m above mean sea level. The scale of photographs is 1:20000.

Q.48 The focal length of the camera (in cm) is (A) 15 Q.49

(B) 20

(C) 25

(D) 30

The area covered on ground (in hectare) by each photo format of 18 cm x 18 cm is (A) 1266

(B) 1276

(C) 1286

(D) 1296

Common data for Questions 50 and 51: 2 ton of cement is used to make 10 ton of hardened concrete having a water cement ratio of 0.45.

One cubic meter of this concrete has a mass of 2.5 ton.

Q.50 Q.51

Quantity of water used (in kg) is (A) 90 (B) 450

(C) 900

(D) 945

The area of 200 mm thick slab (in sq. m) that can be cast using the entire 10 ton of concrete will be (A) 10 (B) 15 (C) 20 (D) 25

Linked Answer Questions Statement for Linked Answer Questions 52 and 53: A group housing project spread over 20 hectares with FAR 1.5 has to accommodate different housing units in the following manner:` Category

Percentage distribution

P Q R S Q.52

10 20 40 30

Built up area per unit in sq. m (including common areas) 120 80 60 45

Average household size 4.0 4.6 5.5 6.0

The respective number of housing units to be built for each category are (A) P – 25, Q – 75, R – 200, S - 200 (B) P – 75, Q – 25, R – 200, S - 200 (C) P – 25, Q – 25, R – 75, S - 200 (D) P – 25, Q – 75, R – 200, S - 75

Q.53

The gross density of the above housing complex (in persons per hectare) is (A) 125 - 130

(B) 130 - 135

(C) 135 - 140

(D) 140 - 145

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 54 and 55: An unplastered brickwork has a resistivity of 0.83 m degC/W. For a 230 mm thick brick wall, the inside and outside surface resistances are 0.123 and 0.1 m2 degC/W respectively.

Q.54 Q.55

The R-value of the given wall section (in m2 degC/W) is (A) 0.41 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.67

The brick wall has an overall dimension of 6m x 3m with a 1m x 2m window assembly (U-value = 2.5 W/m2 degC) and a 1m x 2.1m door assembly (U-value = 1.25 W/m2 degC). The overall U-value of the wall (UO) (in W/m2 degC) is (A) 1.8

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(D) 1.05

(B) 2.3

(C) 2.6

(D) 3.7

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GENERAL APTITUDE - GA_FN_Online

General Aptitude (GA) Questions Q. 56 – Q. 60 carry one mark each.

Q.56

Which one of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word given below?

Pacify (A) Excite

Q.57

(B) Soothe

(C) Deplete

(D) Tire

Choose the most appropriate pair of words from the options given below to complete the following sentence: The high level of ___ of the questions in the test was ___ by an increase in the period of time allotted for answering them.

(A) difficulty, compensated (C) aptitude, decreased

Q.58

(B) exactitude, magnified (D) attitude, mitigated

Choose the grammatically CORRECT sentence: (A) He laid in bed till 8 o’clock in the morning.

(B) He layed in bed till 8 o’clock in the morning.

(C) He lain in bed till 8 o’clock in the morning.

(D) He lay in bed till 8 o’clock in the morning.

Q.59

Which one of the parts (A, B, C, D) in the sentence contains an ERROR? No sooner had the doctor seen the results of the blood test, than he suggested the patient to see the specialist.

(A) no sooner had (B) results of the blood test (C) suggested the patient (D) see the specialist

Q.60

Ten teams participate in a tournament. Every team plays each of the other teams twice. The total number of matches to be played is (A) 20

(B) 45

(C) 60

(D) 90

Q. 61 - Q. 65 carry two marks each.

Q.61

A value of x that satisfies the equation log x + log (x – 7) = log (x + 11) + log 2 is (A) 1

Q.62

(B) 2

(C) 7

(D) 11

Let f(x) = x – [x], where x ≥ 0 and [x] is the greatest integer not larger than x. Then f(x) is a (A) monotonically increasing function (B) monotonically decreasing function (C) linearly increasing function between two integers (D) linearly decreasing function between two integers

Q.63

Ravi is taller than Arun but shorter than Iqbal. Sam is shorter than Ravi. Mohan is shorter than Arun. Balu is taller than Mohan and Sam. The tallest person can be (A) Mohan

GA_FN_Online

(B) Ravi

(C) Balu

(D) Arun 1/2

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Q.64

GENERAL APTITUDE - GA_FN_Online

A smuggler has 10 capsules in which five are filled with narcotic drugs and the rest contain the original medicine. All the 10 capsules are mixed in a single box, from which the customs officials picked two capsules at random and tested for the presence of narcotic drugs. The probability that the smuggler will be caught is (A) 0.50

Q.65

(B) 0.67

(C) 0.78

(D) 0.82

The documents expose the cynicism of the government officials – and yet as the media website reflects, not a single newspaper has reported on their existence.

Which one of the following inferences may be drawn with the greatest accuracy from the above passage?

(A) Nobody other than the government officials knew about the existence of the documents.

(B) Newspapers did report about the documents but nobody cared.

(C) Media reports did not show the existence of the documents.

(D) The documents reveal the attitude of the government officials.

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

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ARCHITECTURE & PLANNING – AR

AR:ARCHITECTURE AND PLANNING Duration: Three Hours

Maximum Marks:100

Please read the following instructions carefully: General Instructions: 1. Total duration of examination is 180 minutes (3 hours).

2. The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer in the top right corner of screen will display the remaining time available for you to complete the examination. When the timer reaches zero, the examination will end by itself. You will not be required to end or submit your examination.

3. The Question Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of each question using one of the following symbols:

You have not visited the question yet.

You have not answered the question.

You have answered the question.

You have NOT answered the question, but have marked the question for review.

You have answered the question, but marked it for review.

The Marked for Review status for a question simply indicates that you would like to look at that question again. If a question is answered and Marked for Review, your answer for that question will be considered in the evaluation.

Navigating to a Question 4. To answer a question, do the following: a. Click on the question number in the Question Palette to go to that question directly. b. Select an answer for a multiple choice type question. Use the virtual numeric keypad to enter a number as answer for a numerical type question. c. Click on Save and Next to save your answer for the current question and then go to the next question. d. Click on Mark for Review and Next to save your answer for the current question, mark it for review, and then go to the next question. e. Caution: Note that your answer for the current question will not be saved, if you navigate to another question directly by clicking on its question number.

5. You can view all the questions by clicking on the Question Paper button. Note that the options for multiple choice type questions will not be shown.

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ARCHITECTURE & PLANNING – AR

Answering a Question 6. Procedure for answering a multiple choice type question: a. To select your answer, click on the button of one of the options b. To deselect your chosen answer, click on the button of the chosen option again or click on the Clear Response button c. To change your chosen answer, click on the button of another option d. To save your answer, you MUST click on the Save and Next button e. To mark the question for review, click on the Mark for Review and Nextbutton. If an answer is selected for a question that is Marked for Review, that answer will be considered in the evaluation.

7. Procedure for answering a numerical answer type question: a. To enter a number as your answer, use the virtual numerical keypad b. A fraction (eg.,-0.3 or -.3) can be entered as an answer with or without ‘0’ before the decimal point c. To clear your answer, click on the Clear Response button d. To save your answer, you MUST click on the Save and Nextbutton e. To mark the question for review, click on the Mark for Review and Nextbutton. If an answer is entered for a question that is Marked for Review, that answer will be considered in the evaluation.

8. To change your answer to a question that has already been answered, first select that question for answering and then follow the procedure for answering that type of question.

9. Note that ONLY Questions for which answers are saved or marked for review after answering will be considered for evaluation.

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Paper specific instructions:

1. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.Questions are of multiple choice type or numerical answer type. A multiple choice type question will have four choices for the answer with only one correct choice. For numerical answer type questions, the answer is a number and no choices will be given. A number as the answer should be entered using the virtual keyboard on the monitor.

2. Questions Q.1 – Q.25 carry 1mark each. Questions Q.26 – Q.55 carry 2marks each. The 2marks questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is not attempted, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.

3. Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks.

Questions Q.56 – Q.60 carry 1mark each, and questions Q.61 – Q.65 carry 2marks each.

4. Questions not attempted will result in zero mark. Wrong answers for multiple choice type questions will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions, ⅓ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions, ⅔ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks for wrong answer to the second question. There is no negative marking for questions of numerical answer type.

5. Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall.

6. Do the rough work in the Scribble Pad provided.

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Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1

In case of residential apartments, the effective floor area available for use within an apartment, is known as (A) Carpet Area (C) Plinth Area

Q.2

(B) Built-up Area (D) Super Built-up Area

Star Rating of an Air Conditioner is determined by its (A) Power Consumption (C) Cooling Capacity

Q.3

(B) Energy Efficiency Ratio (D) Power of Compressor

V7 concept given by Le Corbusier refers to (A) Neighbourhood Planning (C) Architecture Design Principle

Q.4

In AUTOCAD, a line of infinite length in the direction defined by starting point and through point, is known as (A) RAY

Q.5

(B) LINE

(B) 10.5

(B) Swastika

(B) Arcade

(B) Floor Plans

(B) Entropy

(B) Rural Employment Generation (D) Rural Road Development

(C) Architrave

(D) Arbour

(C) Title Deed

(D) Land Cost

(C) Succession

(D) Evolution

Gantt Chart DOES NOT provide information about (A) List of Jobs (C) Interdependency of Jobs

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(D) Sarvotabhadra

The tendency of an ecosystem to maintain its balance by regulatory mechanisms when disrupted, is known as (A) Homeostasis

Q.12

(C) Nandyavarta

The information that is NOT essential to be submitted for sanction of any building plan is (A) Site Plan

Q.11

(D) 12.5

Beam or lowest division of the entablature which extends from column to column, is known as (A) Arabesque

Q.10

(C) 11.5

PMGSY, a programme of Government of India, deals with (A) Urban Employment Generation (C) Rural Electrification

Q.9

(B) Anish Kapoor & Cecil Balmond (D) Richard Rogers & Renzo Piano

The urban form of Srirangam town in Tamil Nadu refers to (A) Dandaka

Q.8

(D) XLINE

As per National Building Code 2005, the minimum size of a habitable room in m2 is (A) 9.5

Q.7

(C) PLINE

Orbit Tower built at the London Olympic Park has been designed by (A) Foster & Partners (C) Zaha Hadid & Antony Gormley

Q.6

(B) Housing Typologies (D) Hierarchy of Roads

(B) Duration of Jobs (D) Progress of Work 4/12

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Q.13

ARCHITECTURE & PLANNING – AR

If threshold of hearing has a sound level of zero decibels and the sound level in a broadcasting studio is 100 times the threshold of hearing, its value in decibels would be (A) 0

Q.14

(B) 4:9

(B) Spirit of Times

(B) Clarification (D) Infiltration

(B) CASBEE

(B) Sweeping

(C) Filleting

(D) Extruding

(B) Demographic Survey (D) Origin & Destination Survey

In GIS, the set of entities representing vector data type is (B) Pixel, Voxel (D) Coordinates, Elevation, Slope

A common flowering shrub is (A) Tectona grandis

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(D) BREEAM

Travel behavior characteristics of an urban area can be derived from

(A) Point, Line, Polygon, TIN (C) DEM, DSM, DTM Q.25

(C) ENERGY BUILD

In 3DS Max, smooth 3D surfaces, by blending a series of selected shape curves, can be created by

(A) Parking Survey (C) Socio Economic Survey Q.24

(B) Charles Correa (D) I. M. Pei

Identify which is NOT a green building rating system

(A) Lofting Q.23

(B) Mudejar Architecture (D) Tudor Architecture

Physiochemical process of removing micro-organisms, colour and turbidity from sullage and sewage is known as

(A) LEED Q.22

(D) Semantic Associations

National Ceremonial Plaza at Thimpu in Bhutan has been designed by

(A) Putrefaction (C) Liquefaction Q.21

(C) Kinesthetics

(B) Satellite Town (D) Vertical Neighborhood

(A) Christopher Charles Benninger (C) Karan Grover Q.20

(B) Isosceles Triangle (D) Pentagon

Wythenshawe and Becontree are examples of (A) Factory Town (C) Garden City

Q.19

(D) 1.618:1

Alhambra, a UNESCO world heritage site, is classified as an example of (A) Moorish Architecture (C) Mozarabic Architecture

Q.18

(C) 1:1.618

The term ‘Zeitgist’, used in contemporary architecture, refers to (A) Iconicity

Q.17

(D) 100

The face of an Icosahedron is (A) Equilateral Triangle (C) Square

Q.16

(C) 20

The width to height ratio of the front facade of Parthenon (without the pediment) is (A) 9:4

Q.15

(B) 10

(B) Mimusops elengi

(C) Dalbergia sisso

(D) Ixora coccinea

5/12

2013

ARCHITECTURE & PLANNING – AR

Q. 26 to Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26

The correct arrangement of the height of towers given below in descending order is P. Burj Khalifa, Dubai Q. Petronas Tower, Kuala Lumpur R. Taipei 101, Taiwan S. Bank of China Tower, Hong Kong (A) P, Q, R, S (C) P, R, S, Q

Q.27

(B) P, Q, S, R (D) P, R, Q, S

Match the buildings in Group I with their corresponding architects in Group II Group I Khalsa Heritage Complex, Anandpur Sahib Lisbon Ismaili Centre, Lisbon Neuroscience Centre, Cambridge, USA National Centre for Performing Arts, Mumbai

P. Q. R. S.

(A) P-2, Q-5, R-1, S-4 (C) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3 Q.28

(B) P-5, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (D) P-5, Q-2, R-1, S-4

The term ‘Working head’ in context of water supply system means (A) (B) (C) (D)

Height of a body of water falling freely under the force of gravity to acquire a certain velocity Rate of increase of velocity with respect to distance normal to the direction of flow Total head with deduction for velocity head or losses Difference between supply and delivery water levels

In a theoretical traffic flow relationship, as shown in the figure given below, the slope of line OF joining point F on the curve and the origin O represents Traffic Flow (vehicles / hr)

Q.29

Group II Philip Johnson Charles Correa Raj Rewal B. V. Doshi Moshe Safdie

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

F

O Traffic density (vehicles / km)

(A) Corresponding space mean speed (C) Travel time at corresponding density Q.30

Match the CAD terms in Group I with their corresponding functions in Group II P. Q. R. S.

Group I Tiled viewport UCS DXF Extrude

(A) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (C) P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-2

AR

(B) Speed at maximum flow (D) Average headway at corresponding flow

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Group II Boolean operator Solid model Coordinate system Drawing interchange format Model space

(B) P-2, Q-5, R-2, S-1 (D) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-2

6/12

2012

Q.33

ARCHITECTURE & PLANNING – AR

Match the schemes in Group I with their specific targets in Group II P. Q. R. S.

Group I JNNURM IAY PURA NREGA

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Group II Urban Amenities for Rural Areas Infrastructure and Slum Upgradation Rural Employment Land Acquisition Housing for BPL families

(A) P-2, Q-5, R-1, S-3 (C) P-5, Q-2, R-3, S-4 Q.34

(B) P-5, Q-2, R-1, S-3 (D) P-2, Q-5, R-3, S-4

Match the concepts in Group I with the personalities in Group II P. Q. R. S.

Group I Linear City Radiant City Garden City Arcology

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Group II Le Corbusier Paolo Soleri Louis Kahn Soria Y Mata Ebenezer Howard

(A) P-4, Q-3, R-5, S-1 (C) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2 Q.35

(B) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 (D) P-1, Q-5, R-2, S-4

Match the plan drawings in Group I with their respective scales in Group II P. Q. R. S.

Group I Site Plan Perspective Plan Master Plan Zonal Plan

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Group II 1: 4000 1: 1000000 1: 500 1: 20000 1: 2000

(A) P-5, Q-1, R-4, S-2 (C) P-1, Q-4, R-5, S-3 Q.36

(B) P-3, Q-2, R-5, S-4 (D) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1

Match the terminologies of Group I with their corresponding meanings in Group II Group I P. Q. R. S.

Antarala Mandapa Gopuram Prasada

(A) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-5 (C) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2

AR

Group II 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Antechamber Palace hall Womb chamber Gateway Pillared sanctuary (B) P-1, Q-5, R-4, S-2 (D) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-5

5/14

2013

Q.36

ARCHITECTURE & PLANNING – AR

Match the buildings in Group I with their corresponding structural feature in Group II P. Q. R. S.

Group I Yokohama Port Terminal, Yokohama Stanstead Airport, London TWA Terminal, New York Montreal Biosphere, Montreal

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

(A) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (C) P-4, Q-3, R-5, S-2 Q.37

Group I First Five Year Plan Fourth Five Year Plan Seventh Five Year Plan Tenth Five Year Plan

(A) P-5,Q-2,R-4,S-3 (C) P-4,Q-1, R-2, S-5

Group I Lancelot ‘Capability’ Brown Andre Le Notre Joseph Paxton Frederick Law Olmstead

(A) P-3,Q-1, R-4, S-2 (C) P-3,Q-1, R-2, S-5

Group I Autotroph Heterotroph Chemotroph Saprophyte

(A) P-5, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (C) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-5

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Group II The Well-tempered Garden Kew Garden Versailles Garden Crystal Palace Central Park

(B) P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-2 (D) P-2,Q-3, R-4, S-5

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Group II Nitrifying Bacteria Grasshopper Grass Vulture Fungus

(B) P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-4 (D) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-5

Match the concepts in Group I with their corresponding authors in Group II P. Q. R. S.

Group I Proxemics Theory Serial Vision Urban Imageability Defensible Space

(A) P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-3 (C) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2 AR

(B) P-2,Q-1,R-4,S-3 (D) P-1,Q-2,R-3,S-5

Match the organism type from Group I with the appropriate example from Group II P. Q. R. S.

Q.40

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Group II Formation of HUDCO Establishment of TCPO Introduction of JNNURM Announcement of National Housing Policy Passing of Urban Land Ceiling and Regulation Act

Match the landscape designers listed under Group I with their appropriate contribution from Group II P. Q. R. S.

Q.39

(B) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4 (D) P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-2

Match the Five Year Plans listed under Group I with their corresponding feature from Group II P. Q. R. S.

Q.38

Group II Geodesic Dome Shell Structure Space Frame Folded Steel Plate Structure Pneumatic Structure

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Group II Gordon Cullen Edward T. Hall Oscar Newman Paul Zucker Kevin Lynch

(B) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4 (D) P-3, Q-5, R-2, S-1 8/12

2013

ARCHITECTURE & PLANNING – AR

Q.41

If the area coverage of one sprinkler is 20 m2, with a maximum and minimum spacing of 4.6 m and 1.8 m respectively, the minimum number of sprinklers required to be arranged in a regular orthogonal grid to cover the area of a 15 m x 20 m room would be _______.

Q.42

If the slope of a hipped roof is 60 degrees and height of the roof is 3 m, span of the room, in m, would be _______.

Q.43

Volume of coarse aggregate in m3 present in 1.0 m3 of 1 : 1.5 : 3 concrete mix made by volume batching is _______.

Q.44

A tank of internal dimension 3 m x 5 m x 4 m (Length x Breadth x Height) has 200 mm thick brick wall on all sides. Volume of brickwork in m3 would be _______.

Q.45

Flux emitted from a 1cd light source in all directions, in lumens, would be _______.

Q.46

50 Hectare of residential sector has 65% buildable area. The FAR of the buildable area is 1.5.

Within the residential sector, 60% of dwelling units are of area 100 m2 each and 40% of the dwelling units are of area 80 m2 each.

The gross residential density, in dwelling units per Hectare, would be _______.

Q.47

In the given project network diagram, the total slack for job A in days would be _______.

Common Data Questions Common Data for Questions 48 and 49: The scale of a contour map is 1:10,000 and the contour interval is 5 m. Distance between two given points on the map is 2 cm and the elevation difference between the two given points is 10 m.

Q.48

The actual distance between the two given points in m would be (A) 2

Q.49

(C) 200

(D) 2000

The slope between two given points in percentage is (A) 5

AR

(B) 20

(B) 10

(C) 15

(D) 20

9/12

2013

ARCHITECTURE & PLANNING – AR

Common Data for Questions 50 and 51: A point load of 3kN acts at mid-span of a 4 m long cantilever beam as shown in figure below.

Q.50

Shearing force at free end in kN is (A) 0

Q.51

(B) 3

(C) 6

(D) 12

(C) 4

(D) 6

Bending moment at mid-span in kNm is (A) 0

(B) 2

Linked Answer Questions Statement for Linked Answer Questions 52 and 53: Cost of a new building is Rs 10,00,000 and its scrap value after 50 years is Rs. 1,00,000.

Using straight line method Q.52

The annual depreciation of the building in Rs. would be (A) 10,000

Q.53

(B) 15,000

(C) 18,000

(D) 20,000

(C) 6,00,000

(D) 8,20,000

The book value after 10 years in Rs. would be (A) 1,80,000

(B) 3,60,000

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 54 and 55: A room of size 100 m2 is illuminated by 10 lamps of 40 W having a luminous efficacy of 50 lm/W. Q.54

Total flux emitted by the lamps in lumens would be (A) 2,000

Q.55

(B) 5,000

(C) 10,000

(D) 20,000

If utilization factor is 0.5, at a working height of 90 cm above the floor level, the illumination in lux would be (A) 100

(B) 200

(C) 500

(D) 1000

General Aptitude (GA) Questions Q. 56 – Q. 60 carry one mark each.

Q.56

A number is as much greater than 75 as it is smaller than 117. The number is: (A) 91

AR

(B) 93

(C) 89

(D) 96

10/12

2013

Q.57

ARCHITECTURE & PLANNING – AR

The professor ordered to the students to go out of the class.

I II III IV Which of the above underlined parts of the sentence is grammatically incorrect?

(A) I

Q.58

(B) II

(C) III

(D) IV

Which of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word given below: Primeval (A) Modern (C) Primitive

Q.59

(B) Historic (D) Antique

Friendship, no matter how _________it is, has its limitations.

(A) cordial (B) intimate (C) secret (D) pleasant

Q.60

Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the pair: Medicine: Health (A) Science: Experiment (C) Education: Knowledge

(B) Wealth: Peace (D) Money: Happiness

Q. 61 to Q. 65 carry two marks each.

Q.61

X and Y are two positive real numbers such that 2 , 3 following values of , the function

6 and 2 8. For which of the 6 will give maximum value?

(A) (4/3, 10/3) (B) (8/3, 20/3) (C) (8/3, 10/3) (D) (4/3, 20/3)

Q.62

If |4

7|

(A) 2, 1/3

AR

5 then the values of 2 | | (B) 1/2, 3

|

| is: (C) 3/2, 9

(D) 2/3, 9

11/12

2012

Q.40

ARCHITECTURE & PLANNING – AR

Match the AutoCAD commands in Group I with their corresponding program in Group II Group I

Group II

P.

Cone

1.

Q.

Cylinder

2.

R.

Sphere

3.

S.

Torus

4.

5.

Specify centre point of base or [3P/2P/Ttr/Elliptical]: Specify base radius or [Diameter] < > : Specify height or [2Point/Axis endpoint] < >: Specify centre point or [3P/2P/Ttr]: Specify radius or [Diameter] < > : Specify tube radius or [2Point/Diameter] < > : Specify centre point of base or [3P/2P/Ttr/Elliptical]: Specify base radius or [Diameter] < > : Specify height or [2Point/Axis endpoint/Top radius]: Specify centre point of base or [3P/2P/Ttr/Elliptical]: Specify radius or [Diameter] < > : Specify tube radius or [2Point/Diameter] < > : Specify centre point or [3P/2P/Ttr]: Specify radius or [Diameter] < > :

(A) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-5 (C) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-5 Q.41

(B) P-3, Q-1, R-5, S-2 (D) P-3, Q-5, R-1, S-2

Identify the hierarchy, from highest to lowest, of the number of potential conflict points at the unmanaged traffic intersections given below.

P

Q

R

(A) P, Q, R, S (C) R, S, Q, P Q.42

(B) R, Q, S, P (D) P, R, S, Q

Match the architects in Group I with the terms in Group II Group I P. Q. R. S.

Group II

Kisho Kurokawa Ken Yeang Shigeru Ban Mies van der Rohe

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

(A) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-5 (C) P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-3 Q.43

Paper Tubes Deconstructivism Metabolism Eco Skyscrapers Minimalism (B) P-3, Q-5, R-1, S-4 (D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-5

Match the terms in Group I with their meanings in Group II P. Q. R. S.

Group I Mimbar Qibla Liwan Baradari

(A) P-5, Q-1, R-4, S-2 (C) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-5 AR

S

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Group II Pillared assembly hall Covered passage around central court Pulpit Parapet between wall openings Direction of Mecca (B) P-3, Q-5, R-1, S-2 (D) P-4, Q-5, R-2, S-1 7/14

GATE 2014: General Instructions during Examination 1. Total duration of the GATE examination is 180 minutes.

2. The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer at the top right corner of screen will display the remaining time available for you to complete the examination.

When the timer reaches zero, the examination will end by itself. You need not terminate the examination or submit your paper.

3. Any useful data required for your paper can be viewed by clicking on the Useful Common Data button that appears on the screen.

4. Use the scribble pad provided to you for any rough work. Submit the scribble pad at the end of the examination.

5. You are allowed to use a non-programmable type calculator, however, sharing of calculators is not allowed.

6. The Question Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of each question using one of the following symbols:

The Marked for Review status for a question simply indicates that you would like to look at that question again. If a question is answered, but marked for review, then the answer will be considered for evaluation unless the status is modified by the candidate.

Navigating to a Question : 7. To answer a question, do the following: a. Click on the question number in the Question Palette to go to that question directly. b. Select an answer for a multiple choice type question by clicking on the bubble placed before the 4 choices, namely A, B, C and D. Use the virtual numeric keypad to enter a number as answer for a numerical type question. c. Click on Save & Next to save your answer for the current question and then go to the next question. d. Click on Mark for Review & Next to save your answer for the current question and also mark it for review, and then go to the next question.

Caution: Note that your answer for the current question will not be saved, if you navigate to another question directly by clicking on a question number without saving the answer to the previous question.

You can view all the questions by clicking on the Question Paper button. This feature is provided, so that if you want you can just see the entire question paper at a glance.

Answering a Question : 8. Procedure for answering a multiple choice (MCQ) type question: a. Choose one answer from the 4 options (A,B,C,D) given below the question, click on the bubble placed before the chosen option. b. To deselect your chosen answer, click on the bubble of the chosen option again or click on the Clear Response button. c. To change your chosen answer, click on the bubble of another option. d. To save your answer, you MUST click on the Save & Next button.

9. Procedure for answering a numerical answer type question: a. To enter a number as your answer, use the virtual numerical keypad. b. A fraction (e.g. -0.3 or -.3) can be entered as an answer with or without '0' before the decimal point. As many as four decimal points, e.g. 12.5435 or 0.003 or -932.6711 or 12.82 can be entered. c. To clear your answer, click on the Clear Response button. d. To save your answer, you MUST click on the Save & Next button 10. To mark a question for review, click on the Mark for Review & Next button. If an answer is selected (for MCQ) or entered (for numerical answer type) for a question that is Marked for Review, that answer will be considered in the evaluation unless the status is modified by the candidate.

11. To change your answer to a question that has already been answered, first select that question for answering and then follow the procedure for answering that type of question.

12. Note that ONLY Questions for which answers are saved or marked for review after answering will be considered for evaluation.

Choosing a Section : 13. Sections in this question paper are displayed on the top bar of the screen. Questions in a Section can be viewed by clicking on the name of that Section. The Section you are currently viewing will be highlighted.

14. A checkbox is displayed for every optional Section, if any, in the Question Paper. To select the optional Section for answering, click on the checkbox for that Section.

15. If the checkbox for an optional Section is not selected, the Save & Next button and the Mark for Review & Next button will NOT be enabled for that Section. You will

2012

ARCHITECTURE & PLANNING – AR

Common Data Questions Common data for Questions 48 and 49: An aircraft flying at an altitude of 5000 m above mean sea level takes aerial photographs of a flat terrain having an average elevation of 1000m above mean sea level. The scale of photographs is 1:20000.

Q.48 The focal length of the camera (in cm) is (A) 15 Q.49

(B) 20

(C) 25

(D) 30

The area covered on ground (in hectare) by each photo format of 18 cm x 18 cm is (A) 1266

(B) 1276

(C) 1286

(D) 1296

Common data for Questions 50 and 51: 2 ton of cement is used to make 10 ton of hardened concrete having a water cement ratio of 0.45.

One cubic meter of this concrete has a mass of 2.5 ton.

Q.50 Q.51

Quantity of water used (in kg) is (A) 90 (B) 450

(C) 900

(D) 945

The area of 200 mm thick slab (in sq. m) that can be cast using the entire 10 ton of concrete will be (A) 10 (B) 15 (C) 20 (D) 25

Linked Answer Questions Statement for Linked Answer Questions 52 and 53: A group housing project spread over 20 hectares with FAR 1.5 has to accommodate different housing units in the following manner:` Category

Percentage distribution

P Q R S Q.52

10 20 40 30

Built up area per unit in sq. m (including common areas) 120 80 60 45

Average household size 4.0 4.6 5.5 6.0

The respective number of housing units to be built for each category are (A) P – 25, Q – 75, R – 200, S - 200 (B) P – 75, Q – 25, R – 200, S - 200 (C) P – 25, Q – 25, R – 75, S - 200 (D) P – 25, Q – 75, R – 200, S - 75

Q.53

The gross density of the above housing complex (in persons per hectare) is (A) 125 - 130

(B) 130 - 135

(C) 135 - 140

(D) 140 - 145

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 54 and 55: An unplastered brickwork has a resistivity of 0.83 m degC/W. For a 230 mm thick brick wall, the inside and outside surface resistances are 0.123 and 0.1 m2 degC/W respectively.

Q.54 Q.55

The R-value of the given wall section (in m2 degC/W) is (A) 0.41 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.67

The brick wall has an overall dimension of 6m x 3m with a 1m x 2m window assembly (U-value = 2.5 W/m2 degC) and a 1m x 2.1m door assembly (U-value = 1.25 W/m2 degC). The overall U-value of the wall (UO) (in W/m2 degC) is (A) 1.8

AR

(D) 1.05

(B) 2.3

(C) 2.6

(D) 3.7

9/14

GATE 2014 Examination AR: Architecture & Planning Duration: 180 minutes

Maximum Marks: 100

Read the following instructions carefully.

1. To login, enter your Registration Number and password provided to you. Kindly go through the various symbols used in the test and understand their meaning before you start the examination.

2. Once you login and after the start of the examination, you can view all the questions in the question paper, by clicking on the View All Questions button in the screen.

3. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject specific GATE paper for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory.

The GA section consists of 10 questions. Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 6 to 10 are of 2-mark each.

The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of which question numbers 1 to 25 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 26 to 55 are of 2-mark each.

4. Depending upon the GATE paper, there may be useful common data that may be required for answering the questions. If the paper has such useful data, the same can be viewed by clicking on the Useful Common Data button that appears at the top, right hand side of the screen.

5. The computer allotted to you at the examination center runs specialized software that permits only one answer to be selected for multiple-choice questions using a mouse and to enter a suitable number for the numerical answer type questions using the virtual keyboard and mouse.

6. Your answers shall be updated and saved on a server periodically and also at the end of the examination. The examination will stop automatically at the end of 180 minutes.

7. In each paper a candidate can answer a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.

8. The question paper may consist of questions of multiple choice type (MCQ) and numerical answer type.

9. Multiple choice type questions will have four choices against A, B, C, D, out of which only ONE is the correct answer. The candidate has to choose the correct answer by clicking on the bubble (⃝) placed before the choice.

10. For numerical answer type questions, each question will have a numerical answer and there will not be any choices. For these questions, the answer should be enteredby using the virtual keyboard that appears on the monitor and the mouse.

11. All questions that are not attempted will result in zero marks. However, wrong answers for multiple choice type questions (MCQ) will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all MCQ questions a wrong answer will result in deduction of⅓ marks for a 1-mark question and ⅔ marks for a 2-mark question.

12. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE. 13. Non-programmable type Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets, and mathematical tables are NOT allowed in the Examination Hall. You must use the Scribble pad provided to you at the examination centre for all your rough work. The Scribble Pad has to be returned at the end of the examination.

Declaration by the candidate: “I have read and understood all the above instructions. I have also read and understood clearly the instructions given on the admit card and shall follow the same. I also understand that in case I am found to violate any of these instructions, my candidature is liable to be cancelled. I also confirm that at the start of the examination all the computer hardware allotted to me are in proper working condition”.

2012

Q.64

GENERAL APTITUDE - GA_FN_Online

A smuggler has 10 capsules in which five are filled with narcotic drugs and the rest contain the original medicine. All the 10 capsules are mixed in a single box, from which the customs officials picked two capsules at random and tested for the presence of narcotic drugs. The probability that the smuggler will be caught is (A) 0.50

Q.65

(B) 0.67

(C) 0.78

(D) 0.82

The documents expose the cynicism of the government officials â&#x20AC;&#x201C; and yet as the media website reflects, not a single newspaper has reported on their existence.

Which one of the following inferences may be drawn with the greatest accuracy from the above passage?

(A) Nobody other than the government officials knew about the existence of the documents.

(B) Newspapers did report about the documents but nobody cared.

(C) Media reports did not show the existence of the documents.

(D) The documents reveal the attitude of the government officials.

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

GA_FN_Online

2/2

GATE 2014

SET- 1

General Aptitude -GA

Q.8

The smallest angle of a triangle is equal to two thirds of the smallest angle of a quadrilateral. The ratio between the angles of the quadrilateral is 3:4:5:6. The largest angle of the triangle is twice its smallest angle. What is the sum, in degrees, of the second largest angle of the triangle and the largest angle of the quadrilateral?

Q.9

One percent of the people of country X are taller than 6 ft. Two percent of the people of country Y are taller than 6 ft. There are thrice as many people in country X as in country Y. Taking both countries together, what is the percentage of people taller than 6 ft?

(A) 3.0

(C) 1.5

(D) 1.25

The monthly rainfall chart based on 50 years of rainfall in Agra is shown in the following figure.

Which of the following are true? (k percentile is the value such that k percent of the data fall below that value)

AT E

20 14

Q.10

(B) 2.5

(i) On average, it rains more in July than in December (ii) Every year, the amount of rainfall in August is more than that in January (iii) July rainfall can be estimated with better confidence than February rainfall (iv) In August, there is at least 500 mm of rainfall

G

(A) (i) and (ii) (C) (ii) and (iii)

GA

(B) (i) and (iii) (D) (iii) and (iv)

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

2/2

2013

ARCHITECTURE & PLANNING – AR

Answering a Question 6. Procedure for answering a multiple choice type question: a. To select your answer, click on the button of one of the options b. To deselect your chosen answer, click on the button of the chosen option again or click on the Clear Response button c. To change your chosen answer, click on the button of another option d. To save your answer, you MUST click on the Save and Next button e. To mark the question for review, click on the Mark for Review and Nextbutton. If an answer is selected for a question that is Marked for Review, that answer will be considered in the evaluation.

7. Procedure for answering a numerical answer type question: a. To enter a number as your answer, use the virtual numerical keypad b. A fraction (eg.,-0.3 or -.3) can be entered as an answer with or without ‘0’ before the decimal point c. To clear your answer, click on the Clear Response button d. To save your answer, you MUST click on the Save and Nextbutton e. To mark the question for review, click on the Mark for Review and Nextbutton. If an answer is entered for a question that is Marked for Review, that answer will be considered in the evaluation.

8. To change your answer to a question that has already been answered, first select that question for answering and then follow the procedure for answering that type of question.

9. Note that ONLY Questions for which answers are saved or marked for review after answering will be considered for evaluation.

AR

2/12

GATE 2014

Q.11

ARCHITECTURE & PLANNING - AR

BEES is an acronym for (A) Building for Environmental and Economic Sustainability (B) Built Environment and Ecological Society (C) Building for Energy and Environment Sustainability (D) Built Environment and Engineering Services

Q.12

In a single-stack system of plumbing (A) All the appliances and traps are fully ventilated (C) Anti-siphonage pipes are omitted

20 14 )

(B) Only WC branches are connected with anti-siphonage pipes (D) Only the stack is vented above the branch connection at each floor level

The maximum bending moment (kNm) in a simply supported beam of 8 m span subjected to a uniformly distributed load of 20 kN/m (inclusive of its self-weight) over the entire span is (A) 40

Q.14

(B) 160

Q.19

AR

AT

(D) 40 - 50

(G

(B) 1.5

(C) 2.0

(D) 2.5

(A) Land Use Zoning

(B) Accommodation Reservation

(C) Town Planning Scheme

(D) Transfer of Development Right

The Grand Gallery in Egyptian Architecture is provided only at

(A) Great Pyramid

Q.18

(C) 30 - 40

Among the following, the one that is NOT a land assembly technique is

AR Q.17

(B) 20 - 30

As per the National Building Code, the minimum width (in m) of a staircase flight in an educational building above 24 m height should be (A) 1.0

Q.16

(D) 380

Criteria for background noise (in NC) in hospitals and apartments is (A) 10 - 20

Q.15

(C) 240

E

Q.13

(B) Temple

(C) Mastaba

(D) Bent Pyramid

In the Taipei 101 building, the steel sphere as TMD (Tuned Mass Damper) is suspended to reduce horizontal sway due to

(A) Settlement & Wind Load

(B) Wind & Geothermal Load

(C) Seismic & Geothermal Load

(D) Seismic & Wind Load

â&#x20AC;&#x2DC;Finger Planâ&#x20AC;&#x2122; concept of urban planning was initially adopted in (A) Canberra

(B) Paris

(C) Copenhagen

(D) Tokyo

2/9

2013

ARCHITECTURE & PLANNING – AR

Paper specific instructions:

1. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.Questions are of multiple choice type or numerical answer type. A multiple choice type question will have four choices for the answer with only one correct choice. For numerical answer type questions, the answer is a number and no choices will be given. A number as the answer should be entered using the virtual keyboard on the monitor.

2. Questions Q.1 – Q.25 carry 1mark each. Questions Q.26 – Q.55 carry 2marks each. The 2marks questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is not attempted, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.

3. Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks.

Questions Q.56 – Q.60 carry 1mark each, and questions Q.61 – Q.65 carry 2marks each.

4. Questions not attempted will result in zero mark. Wrong answers for multiple choice type questions will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions, ⅓ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions, ⅔ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks for wrong answer to the second question. There is no negative marking for questions of numerical answer type.

5. Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall.

6. Do the rough work in the Scribble Pad provided.

AR

3/12

GATE 2014

ARCHITECTURE & PLANNING - AR

Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26

A housing project is proposed to be designed in a plot of 2 hectare. Maximum permissible FAR is 2. The share of the numbers of dwelling units (DU) for MIG, LIG and EWS is 1:2:3 having sizes of 55, 35 and 25 sq.m respectively. The maximum number of DU which can be accommodated in the plot is _______________

Q.27

Arrange the following in ascending order of width P. Collector Street R. Local Street S. Sub-Arterial Road (A) P, Q, S, R

Q.28

(B) R, P, S, Q

(C) Q, S, R, P

(D) Q, S, P, R

Out of the following, the maximum points in the LEED (New construction) rating system can be earned through (A) Sustainable Sites

(B) Water Efficiency

(D) Energy and Atmosphere

E

(C) Materials and Resources

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of bond resistance in reinforced concrete?

AT

Q.29

20 14 )

Q. Arterial Road

(A) Chemical adhesion

(B) Friction

(C) Mechanical interlock

(D) Aggregate interlock

A neighborhood has 250 units of 80 sq.m each and 200 units of 100 sq.m each. If the mandatory parking requirement is one per 100 sq.m of built space then, the total area(sq.m) required for parking considering 30 percent additional area for circulation is ________________

Q.31

A brick wall 19 cm thick has a thermal conductivity 0.811 W/m °C. The outside and inside surface conductance of the wall are 16 W/m2 °C and 8 W/m2 °C respectively, then the U-value of the wall in W/m2 °C is ____________

AR

(G

Q.30

Q.32

Match the contemporary buildings in Group I with their architects in Group II Group I

AR

Group II

P.

Vitra Design Museum, Basel

1.

Adrian Smith

Q.

Turning Torso, Malmö

2.

Jean Nouvel

R.

Burj Khalifa, Dubai

3.

Herzog de Meuron

S.

Tate Modern, London

4.

Santiago Calatrava

5.

Frank O Gehry

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-5

(B) P-5, Q-4, R-1, S-3

(C) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(D) P-5, Q-3, R-2, S-1 4/9

GATE 2014

Q.33

ARCHITECTURE & PLANNING - AR

From the following cost components of a building construction project which is not a direct cost combination?

P. Labour cost Q. Equipment cost R. Material cost S. Establishment cost T. Supervision cost (B) Q and R

(C) P and R

(D) S and T

20 14 )

(A) P and Q

Q.34

A house located in Delhi has 111 m2 of flat terrace area (runoff coefficient = 0.85) and 55 m2 of ground area covered with grass (runoff coefficient = 0.15). If annual average rainfall is 611.8 mm, then rain water harvesting potential (L/year) from runoff will be ______________

Q.35

Match the elements in Group I with the structures in Group II Group I

Group II

Harmika

1.

Dilwara Temple, Mount Abu

Q.

Sixteen Vidyadevis

2.

Sun Temple, Modhera

R.

Lat pillar

3.

Stupa of Sanchi

S.

Urushringa

4.

Lauriya, Nandangarh

5.

Great Kailash Temple, Ellora

AT

E

P.

(B) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3

(C) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-2

(D) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

(G

(A) P-5, Q-1, R-4, S-3

At a site, based on percolation test, the allowable rate of treated sewage application was determined as 65 L/m2/day. The effective depth (m) of a soak pit with a diameter of 2.5 m for the disposal of 1020 L/day of septic tank effluent is ______________

Q.37

Match the AutoCAD command in Group I with their functions in Group II

AR

Q.36

Group I

AR

Group II

P.

OOPS

1.

Creates solid lines

Q.

RAY

2.

Restores an erased drawing

R.

TRACE

3.

Manages customized user interface elements

S.

CUI

4.

Creates semi-infinite line

5.

Creates a five sided 3D solid with a sloped face tapering along the X axis

(A) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-5

(B) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3

(C) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4

(D) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4

5/9

GATE 2014

Q.38

ARCHITECTURE & PLANNING - AR

Match the bridges in Group I with their structure type in Group II Group I P.

Harbour Bridge, Sydney

1.

Simply Supported

Q.

Golden Gate Bridge, San Francisco

2.

Cable Stayed

R.

Howrah Bridge, Kolkata

3.

Arch

S.

Millau Viaduct, Millau

4.

Suspension

5.

Cantilever

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-2

(B) P-5, Q-1, R-4, S-3

(C) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-5

(D) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4

20 14 )

Q.39

Group II

The arithmetic average value of the sound absorption coefficient for a specific material and particular mounting condition for four frequencies is (A) Transmission coefficient (C) Absorption coefficient

(B) Noise reduction coefficient (D) Reflection coefficient

A single span simply supported reinforced concrete beam (250 mm wide and 480 mm effective depth) is subjected to a concentrated load of 120 kN at its mid-span. Neglecting self-weight of the beam, the nominal shear stress (MPa) at the support section is ______________

Q.41

The optimistic time, the pessimistic time and the most likely time of a job are 6, 13 and 8 days respectively. The variance for this job is _______________

Q.42

A refuse collection system consisting of two chutes is to be provided in a 20 storied residential building with 2 flats/floor (average family size = 5) and with each chute serving one flat on each floor. Average quantity of refuse and its density are 880 g/person/day and 240 kg/m3 respectively. If the cleaning interval is two days, then the minimum size of the refuse container (litre) at the bottom of each chute is _______________

AR

(G

AT

E

Q.40

Q.43

Match the features in Group I with their architectural periods in Group II Group I

AR

Group II

P.

Caryatids

1.

Roman

Q.

Hypocaust

2.

Gothic

R.

Pylons

3.

Greek

S.

Lofty Pinnacles

4.

Egyptian

5.

Romanesque

(A) P-1, Q-5, R-4, S-2

(B) P-5, Q-1, R-3, S-2

(C) P-3, Q-2, R-5, S-4

(D) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

6/9

GATE 2014

Match the following terminologies in Group I with their descriptions in Group II Group I

Group II

P.

Pruning

1.

Useful in reproducing plants that would not breed true if propagated by seed

Q.

Topiary

2.

A live bud from a desired plant inserted into a host plant

R.

Grafting

3.

Cutting of evergreen shrubs into abstract or geometric shapes

S.

Budding

4.

Trimming and cutting of lawns

5.

Selective cutting of plant branches for better growth

(A) P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-2 (C) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

20 14 )

Q.44

ARCHITECTURE & PLANNING - AR

(B) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-5

(D) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2

In a dance hall the indoor and outdoor temperatures are 28°C and 18°C respectively. There is an internal heat gain of 5 kW and the specific heat of air (on volume basis) is 1300 J/m3 °C, then the necessary cross sectional area (m2) of a duct with an air velocity of 2 m/s required for cooling by ventilation is ____________

Q.46

Assuming full compaction, strength of concrete is inversely proportional to (A) Water - cement ratio

Q.47

Q. R.

1.

Boardwalk, Atlantic City

Universal design

2.

Minneapolis, USA

Promenading

3.

Broadway Theatre District, New York

Skyway system

4.

Pruitt Igoe Housing, St. Louis, Missouri

5.

Curitiba, Brazil

AR

S.

Group II

Incentive zoning

(G

P.

AR

(D) Water - plasticiser ratio

Match the terms in Group I with their examples in Group II Group I

Q.48

(B) Water - sand ratio

AT

(C) Water - coarse aggregate ratio

E

Q.45

(A) P-5, Q-3, R-2, S-1

(B) P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-3

(C) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-2

(D) P-3, Q-5, R-1, S-2

If yield stress of steel is 415 MPa, then strain in tensile reinforcement at the limit state of collapse shall be at least _____________. For steel, the Young’s Modulus, E = 2 X 105 MPa.

7/9

2013

ARCHITECTURE & PLANNING â&#x20AC;&#x201C; AR

Q. 1 â&#x20AC;&#x201C; Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1

In case of residential apartments, the effective floor area available for use within an apartment, is known as (A) Carpet Area (C) Plinth Area

Q.2

(B) Built-up Area (D) Super Built-up Area

Star Rating of an Air Conditioner is determined by its (A) Power Consumption (C) Cooling Capacity

Q.3

(B) Energy Efficiency Ratio (D) Power of Compressor

V7 concept given by Le Corbusier refers to (A) Neighbourhood Planning (C) Architecture Design Principle

Q.4

In AUTOCAD, a line of infinite length in the direction defined by starting point and through point, is known as (A) RAY

Q.5

(B) LINE

(B) 10.5

(B) Swastika

(B) Arcade

(B) Floor Plans

(B) Entropy

(B) Rural Employment Generation (D) Rural Road Development

(C) Architrave

(D) Arbour

(C) Title Deed

(D) Land Cost

(C) Succession

(D) Evolution

Gantt Chart DOES NOT provide information about (A) List of Jobs (C) Interdependency of Jobs

AR

(D) Sarvotabhadra

The tendency of an ecosystem to maintain its balance by regulatory mechanisms when disrupted, is known as (A) Homeostasis

Q.12

(C) Nandyavarta

The information that is NOT essential to be submitted for sanction of any building plan is (A) Site Plan

Q.11

(D) 12.5

Beam or lowest division of the entablature which extends from column to column, is known as (A) Arabesque

Q.10

(C) 11.5

PMGSY, a programme of Government of India, deals with (A) Urban Employment Generation (C) Rural Electrification

Q.9

(B) Anish Kapoor & Cecil Balmond (D) Richard Rogers & Renzo Piano

The urban form of Srirangam town in Tamil Nadu refers to (A) Dandaka

Q.8

(D) XLINE

As per National Building Code 2005, the minimum size of a habitable room in m2 is (A) 9.5

Q.7

(C) PLINE

Orbit Tower built at the London Olympic Park has been designed by (A) Foster & Partners (C) Zaha Hadid & Antony Gormley

Q.6

(B) Housing Typologies (D) Hierarchy of Roads

(B) Duration of Jobs (D) Progress of Work 4/12

GATE 2014

ARCHITECTURE & PLANNING - AR

Q.54

The capacity of a hall is 600 persons and its volume is 3000 cu.m. If an optimum reverberation time of 1.0 second is to be achieved then the required total absorption (m2sabine) is _____________

Q.55

A solid straight steel rod of diameter 100 mm is bent in single curvature into a circular arc by a moment of 50 kNm applied at its ends. If elastic modulus, E, for steel is 2 x 105 MPa, the radius of curvature (mm) of the arc assuming Ď&#x20AC;=3.14 is _____________

AR

(G

AT

E

20 14 )

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

AR

9/9

GATE 2015

ARCHITECTURE- AR

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1

A Housing Finance Institution in the private sector is (A) HUDCO

Q.2

(B) SBI

(C) PNB

(D) HDFC

Which of the following statements regarding PERT is NOT true?

(A) Each activity of PERT network has three different time estimates (B) Expected activity time is estimated based on β-distribution (C) PERT is a deterministic model (D) PERT network may have more than one critical path

Q.3

Damage of foundation due to ‘Soil Liquefaction’ is related to (A) Cyclones

Q.4

(B) Hot-humid

(B) 1:15

(D) Cold

(C) 1:10

(D) 1:5

(B) Highest Bidder (D) Second Highest Bidder

Bulking of sand is highest in (A) Coarse sand (C) Fine sand

Q.8

(C) Temperate

A ‘Demolition Contract’ for a building is awarded to the (A) Lowest Bidder (C) Second Lowest Bidder

Q.7

(D) Earthquakes

The ratio of town area to agricultural land area as suggested by Sir Ebenezer Howard in ‘Garden City’ concept is (A) 1:20

Q.6

(C) Floods

Walls with high thermal inertia are suitable in which type of climate?

(A) Hot-dry

Q.5

(B) Landslides

(B) Medium sand (D) Sand saturated with water

The Venice Charter (1964) led to the establishment of (A) International Centre for the Study of the Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property (ICCROM) (B) International Council on Monuments and Sites (ICOMOS) (C) Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage (INTACH) (D) Archaeological Survey of India (ASI)

Q.9

The ratio between illumination at a working point indoor to total light available simultaneously outdoor is known as (A) Daylight Factor (C) Internally Reflected Component

Q.10

Which of the following vehicular traffic intersections converts all crossing into merging and diverging sequences?

(A) Rotary (C) Grade Separation

AR

(B) Sky Component (D) Externally Reflected Component

(B) Manual Signaling (D) Automatic Signaling

1/9

2013

ARCHITECTURE & PLANNING â&#x20AC;&#x201C; AR

Q.31 Match the historic periods in Group I with their corresponding examples of towns in Group II P. Q. R. S.

Group I Egyptian Greek Medieval Renaissance

(A) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4 (C) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2 Q.32

Group I Public / Semipublic Industry Transportation Commercial

(A) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-5 (C) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-2

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-5 (C) P-4, Q-3, R-5, S-2

(A) P-2, Q-3, R-5, S-1 (C) P-3, Q-5, R-2, S-1

(B) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4 (D) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Group II Amos Rapoport Leo Jacobson and Ved Prakash Edmond Bacon Christopher Alexander Andreas Faludi

(B) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-5 (D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Group II Vijaynagara Chalukya Chola Pandya Pallava

(B) P-5, Q-1, R-4, S-3 (D) P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-3

Match the theories in Group I with their corresponding propagators in Group II P. Q. R. S.

Group I Choice theory of planning Connurbation Classical theory of land use Central place theory

(A) P-2, Q-3, R-5, S-1 (C) P-4, Q-3, R-5, S-2

AR

Group II Violet Grey Red Blue Yellow

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Match the temples in Group I with their corresponding historical periods in Group II Group I P. Vaikuntha Perumal Temple, Kancheepuram Q. Meenakshi Temple, Madurai R. Durga Temple, Aihole S. Brihadeshwara Temple, Thanjavur

Q.35

(B) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-5 (D) P-5, Q-1, R-3, S-2

Match the books in Group I with their corresponding authors in Group II Group I P. Design of Cities Q. On the Cultural Origin of Settlements R. Urbanization and National Development S. Planning Theory

Q.34

Group II Miletus Montpazier Kahun Versailles Timgad

Match the components of an Indian urban land use map in Group I with their corresponding colour codes as per UDPFI guidelines in Group II P. Q. R. S.

Q.33

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Group II Paul Davidoff and T.A. Reiner Patrick Geddes Homer Hoyt Richard L. Meier Walter Christaller

(B) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-5 (D) P-5, Q-4, R-3, S-2

7/12

GATE 2015

Q.19

ARCHITECTURE- AR

The Saturation level of a colour represents (A) distribution

Q.20

(B) brilliance

(D) warmth

Invert level of a pipe at a given cross section refers to the (A) highest point of the internal surface (C) highest point of the external surface

Q.21

(C) darkness

(B) lowest point of the internal surface (D) lowest point of the external surface

The command DVIEW in AutoCAD permits to view (A) a selected portion of the drawing in detail (B) the entire screen on the monitor (C) a perspective of the drawing (D) a damaged part of the drawing

Q.22

Match the Land use categories of Group – I with their respective Colour codes in Group – II as per practice in India Group – I P Q R S

Residential Commercial Industrial Public / Semi-public

(A) P – 5, Q – 3 , R – 4 , S – 1 (C) P – 1, Q – 2 , R – 4 , S – 5

Group – II 1 2 3 4 5

Red Grey Blue Violet Yellow

(B) P – 5, Q – 4 , R – 2 , S – 1 (D) P – 1, Q – 3 , R – 2 , S – 4

Q.23

A rectangular beam section of size 300 mm (width) X 500 mm (depth) is loaded with a shear force of 600 kN. The maximum shear stress on the section in N/mm2 is ____________________

Q.24

In a 50 meter section of a waste water pipe, if the gradient is 1 in 80, then the fall in millimeter is _____________

Q.25

A 15 meter long and 3 meter wide driveway needs to be paved with 300 mm X 300 mm square tiles. If each packet contains 30 numbers of tiles, then the number of packets to be procured to pave the whole area is ________________

Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26

Match the Monuments in Group-I with their Features in Group-II Group-I P Q R S

Panch Mahal, Fathepur Sikri Meenakshi Temple, Madurai Jor-Bangla Temple, Bishnupur Sun Temple, Konark

(A) P – 2 , Q – 1 , R – 4 , S – 3 (C) P – 2 , Q – 4 , R – 1 , S – 3

AR

Group-II 1 2 3 4 5

Painted Stone Figures Intricate Red Sand Stone Carvings Granite Statues Khondalite Stone Work Terracotta Carvings

(B) P – 2 , Q – 1 , R – 5 , S – 4 (D) P – 1 , Q – 5 , R – 5 , S – 4

3/9

GATE 2015

Q.27

ARCHITECTURE- AR

Match the Monuments in Group-I with their Style of Architecture in Group-II Group-I P Q R S

Group-II

Pisa Cathedral, Italy St. Hagia Sophia, Istanbul Great Temple of Aman, Karnak Cathedral of Notre Dame, Paris

(A) P – 5 , Q – 1 , R – 3 , S – 2 (C) P – 4 , Q – 2 , R – 5 , S – 1 Q.28

1 2 3 4 5

(B) P – 2 , Q – 4 , R – 3 , S – 5 (D) P – 5 , Q – 4 , R – 3 , S – 1

Match the Buildings in Group-I with their Style of Architecture in Group-II Group-I P Q R S

Group-II

Rashtrapati Bhawan, New Delhi German Pavilion for World Exhibition, Barcelona Guggenheim Museum, Bilbao Crystal Palace, London

(A) P – 5 , Q – 3 , R – 2 , S – 1 (C) P – 1 , Q – 5 , R – 4 , S – 3 Q.29

1 2

Industrial Architecture Deconstruction

3 4 5

Radical Eclecticism International Style Neo Classical

(B) P – 5 , Q – 4 , R – 2 , S – 1 (D) P – 3 , Q – 4 , R – 1 , S – 5

Match the Terms in Group – I with their Definitions in Group – II Group-I P Q R S

Kinesthesia Anthropometry Ergonomics Biomimicry

Group-II 1 2 3 4 5

(A) P – 5 , Q – 3 , R – 4 , S – 1 (C) P – 4 , Q – 1 , R – 2 , S – 5

AR

Gothic Moorish Egyptian Byzantine Romanesque

Measurement and study of size and proportions of human body Study of man – machine interaction Study of past and present of the human race Study of human sensory experience during movement Imitation of models, systems and elements of nature (B) P – 5 , Q – 2 , R – 4 , S – 3 (D) P – 4 , Q – 1 , R – 2 , S – 3

4/9

GATE 2015

Q.30

ARCHITECTURE- AR

Match the following Urban Spaces in Group-I with their Names in Group-II P

Group-I 1

Group-II Piazza del Campo, Sienna

Q

2

Forum, Rome

R

3

Trafalgar Square, London

S

4

Agora, Athens

5

St. Peter’s Square, Rome

(A) P – 4 , Q – 1 , R – 2 , S – 3 (C) P – 4 , Q – 3 , R – 1 , S – 5 Q.31

(B) P – 2 , Q – 3 , R – 1 , S – 5 (D) P – 2 , Q – 1 , R – 4 , S – 3

Match the Terms in Group – I with the appropriate Items in Group – II Group-I P Q R S

Toposheet Satellite Image Wavelength Scan Line

(A) P – 5 , Q – 4 , R – 2 , S – 1 (C) P – 2 , Q – 1 , R – 4 , S – 5

AR

Group-II 1 2 3 4 5

Path/Row Contour Focal Length Spectral Signature Bits/inch

(B) P – 5 , Q – 1 , R – 4 , S – 3 (D) P – 2 , Q – 4 , R – 1 , S – 5

5/9

GATE 2015

Q.32

ARCHITECTURE- AR

Match the Concepts in Group – I with their appropriate Explanation in Group – II Group-I

Group-II

P

Planned Unit Development

1

Q

Infill Development

2

R

Transit Oriented Development

3

S

Mixed Use Development

4 5

(A) P – 3 , Q – 2 , R – 5 , S – 4 (C) P – 2 , Q – 1 , R – 4 , S – 5 Q.33

(B) P – 3 , Q – 1 , R – 5 , S – 4 (D) P – 2 , Q – 4 , R – 1 , S – 5

Particles of soil in descending order of grain size is (A) Gravel – Sand – Silt – Clay (C) Sand – Gravel – Clay – Silt

Q.34

Development occurring on vacant or underused lots in otherwise built up areas Development providing a fair and equitable way to integrate peri-urban areas Developing a large area as a single entity merging zoning and subdivision control Development with compatible land uses integrating varied activities at different times of the day Development located within walking distance from mass transit stations along the corridor

(B) Gravel – Sand – Clay – Silt (D) Clay – Gravel – Sand – Silt

Match the Units in Group – I with their Definitions in Group – II Group-I P Q R S

Hertz Lux Joule Newton

(A) P – 5 , Q – 4 , R – 2 , S – 1 (C) P – 2 , Q – 3 , R – 1 , S – 4 Q.35

Group-II 1 2 3 4 5

(B) P – 3 , Q – 1 , R – 5 , S – 4 (D) P – 2 , Q – 3 , R – 1 , S – 5

Match the Energy Efficient Building Elements in Group-I with their associated Working Principles in Group-II Group-I P Q R S

Solar Chimney Earth Air Tunnel Trombe Wall Chilled Slab

(A) P – 3 , Q – 2 , R – 4 , S – 5 (C) P – 3 , Q – 5 , R – 1 , S – 2

AR

Newton - meter Cycles / second Lumen / m2 Watt / ampere kg - meter / sec2

Group-II 1 2 3 4 5

Thermal Storage Radiant Cooling Stack Effect Cross Ventilation Geothermal Energy

(B) P – 5 , Q – 2 , R – 4 , S – 3 (D) P – 4 , Q – 5 , R – 1 , S – 2

6/9

GATE 2015

Q.36

ARCHITECTURE- AR

Match the Vibrator Types in Group-I with their related Areas of Application in Group-II Group-I P Q R S

Group-II

Needle Vibrator Shutter Vibrator Surface Vibrator Table Vibrator

1 2 3 4 5

(A) P – 1 , Q – 5 , R – 4 , S – 3 (C) P – 1 , Q – 4 , R – 2 , S – 5

Q.37

(B) P – 3 , Q – 4 , R – 1 , S – 2 (D) P – 3 , Q – 5 , R – 1 , S – 2

Match the type of Temporary Structures in Group – I with their corresponding Functions in Group – II Group-I

Group-II

P Q

Scaffolding Formwork

1 2

R S

Shoring Underpinning

3 4 5

(A) P – 2 , Q – 4 , R – 1 , S – 5 (C) P – 3 , Q – 4 , R – 5 , S – 2 Q.38

To support unsafe structure To support platforms for workmen and materials height during construction Removal of water from pits Mould for RCC Structure Strengthening the existing foundation

at raised

(B) P – 3 , Q – 5 , R – 1 , S – 2 (D) P – 2 , Q – 3 , R – 4 , S – 5

Match following Scientific Names in Group – I with their common Indian Names in Group – II Group-I P Q R S

Lagerstroemia speciosa Cassia fistula Azadarachta indica Acacia auriculiformis

(A) P – 2 , Q – 4 , R – 3 , S – 5 (C) P – 3 , Q – 1 , R – 4 , S – 2 Q.39

Concrete Pavement Pre-cast Concrete Unit Beam-Column Junction Retaining Wall Slip Forming

Group-II 1 2 3 4 5

Amaltas Neem Jarul Babul Peepal

(B) P – 5 , Q – 3 , R – 2 , S – 4 (D) P – 3 , Q – 1 , R – 2 , S – 4

A man starts from his residence and uses the following modes in sequence to reach his office cycle rickshaw to railway station, then train to destination station, followed by auto-rickshaw to nearby bus stand and finally a bus to his office. Which of the following describes his sequence of transit usage?

(A) Non Motorised Transit – Paratransit – Mass Transit – Public Transit (B) Paratransit – Public Transit – Non Motorised Transit – Mass Transit (C) Private Transit – Public Transit – Non Motorised Transit – Mass Transit (D) Non Motorised Transit – Mass Transit – Paratransit – Public Transit

Q.40

PMGSY and JNNURM are two Indian Government programmes which deal with (A) rural road development and urban basic service improvement respectively (B) rural sanitation services and under-developed road maintenance respectively (C) peri-urban basic services and urban basic service improvement respectively (D) rural road development and urban transport development respectively

AR

7/9

GATE 2015

Q.41

ARCHITECTURE- AR

Match the Planning Terms in Group – I with their Descriptions in Group – II. Group-I P Q

Gentrification Urban core revitalization

1 2

R

Urban sprawl

3

S

Satellite town

4 5

(A) P – 4 , Q – 3 , R – 5 , S – 2 (C) P – 1 , Q – 5 , R – 2 , S – 3 Q.42

Group-II Haphazard and low density outward growth of urban area Primarily dormitory settlement with functional dependency on parent city Replacement of low income residents with high income population Physical and socio-economic revival of the inner-city Restricted development in an environmentally sensitive zone (B) P – 3 , Q – 4 , R – 1 , S – 5 (D) P – 3 , Q – 4 , R – 1 , S – 2

Match the Planning Concepts in Group – I with their Corresponding Proponents in Group – II Group-I P Q R S

Broadacre city Radiant city Industrial town Arcosanti

(A) P – 1 , Q – 4 , R – 3 , S – 5 (C) P – 2 , Q – 1 , R – 3 , S – 5

Group-II 1 Le Corbusier 2 F. L. Wright 3 Robert Owen 4 Henry Wright 5 Paolo Soleri (B) P – 1 , Q – 3 , R – 5 , S – 2 (D) P – 2 , Q – 1 , R – 5 , S – 4

Q.43

The housing stock of a town has total number of 9090 dwelling units. Present population of the town is 45,450. Assuming an average household size of 4.5, the housing shortage in percentage is _____________

Q.44

A hall is 15 m long and 12 m wide. If the sum of areas of the floor and ceiling is equal to the sum of the area of its four walls, then the volume of the hall in cubic meter is ____________________

Q.45

The actual roof area of a building is 3,60,000 sqm, which on a site plan measures 25 sqcm. The scale of the site plan is 1 : __________________

Q.46

If the annual net income from a commercial property is Rs 22,000/- and the interest rate is 8%, then the capitalized value in rupees of the property in perpetuity is ________________

Q.47

A five storied building is constructed on a 100 m x 50 m plot having ground coverage of 60% (option 1). Alternatively, a four storied building is constructed on the same plot with a 50% ground coverage (option 2). The ratio of FARs between options 1 and 2 is ________________

Q.48

If a roof is treated with a layer of thermal insulation material, the internal heat gain is reduced by 60%. The U-value of the roof slab (without thermal insulation) is 3 W m2 / °C. Assuming a constant temperature difference between indoor and outdoor, the U-value of the thermal insulation layer in W m2 / °C is ________________

Q.49

A simply supported beam having effective span of 5 meter is carrying a centrally concentrated load of 16 kN. The maximum bending moment in the beam in kN-m is ________

AR

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GATE 2015

ARCHITECTURE- AR

Q.50

A landscaped garden with irregular profile and minor undulations, measuring 35,000 sqm, has a total surface area covered with 20% brick paving, 15% cement concrete paving, and rest with grass.

The peak intensity of rainfall in that region is 70 mm/hr. The coefficient of runoff for brick paving, cement concrete paving and grass is 0.8, 0.9 and 0.5 respectively. The estimated quantity of runoff in cubic meter/hr for the entire garden area is _________________

Q.51

The number of standard cement bags required to prepare 1400 kg of concrete in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 4 (mixed by weight batching) is_________________

Q.52

A class room measuring 10 m (L) x 8 m (B) x 2.7 m (H) requires an illumination level of 500 lux on the desk level using 40 W fluorescent lamps with rated output of 5000 lumens each. Assuming utilization factor of 0.5 and maintenance factor of 0.8, the number of lamps required is ____________

Q.53

Area of tensile steel per meter width of a reinforced concrete slab is 335 sq mm. If 8 mm rods are used as reinforcement, then centre to centre spacing of the reinforcement in mm is ________

Q.54

The population of a town as per Census 2011 was 22,730 and the population as per census 2001 was 15,770. Considering arithmetic projection of growth, the projected population in 2016 will be _________________

Q.55

Two concrete mixers of capacity 200 liters each are used in a construction site to produce 20 cubic meter of concrete. Ingredient charging, mixing and discharge times are 3 minutes, 7 minutes and 1 minute respectively. Assuming a time loss of 5 minutes per hour of operation, the total time in hours for the mixers to produce the required amount of concrete will be ___________

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

AR

9/9

GATE 2016

General Aptitude - GA Set-4

Q. 1 â&#x20AC;&#x201C; Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1

An apple costs Rs. 10. An onion costs Rs. 8.

Select the most suitable sentence with respect to grammar and usage.

(A) The price of an apple is greater than an onion.

(B) The price of an apple is more than onion.

(C) The price of an apple is greater than that of an onion.

(D) Apples are more costlier than onions.

Q.2

The Buddha said, â&#x20AC;&#x153;Holding on to anger is like grasping a hot coal with the intent of throwing it at someone else; you are the one who gets burnt.â&#x20AC;?

Select the word below which is closest in meaning to the word underlined above.

(A) burning

Q.3

Q.4

(C) clutching

(D) flinging

M has a son Q and a daughter R. He has no other children. E is the mother of P and daughter-inlaw of M. How is P related to M? (A) P is the son-in-law of M.

(B) P is the grandchild of M.

(C) P is the daughter-in law of M.

(D) P is the grandfather of M.

The number that least fits this set: (324, 441, 97 and 64) is ________.

(A) 324

Q.5

(B) igniting

(B) 441

(C) 97

(D) 64

It takes 10 s and 15 s, respectively, for two trains travelling at different constant speeds to completely pass a telegraph post. The length of the first train is 120 m and that of the second train is 150 m. The magnitude of the difference in the speeds of the two trains (in m/s) is ____________.

(A) 2.0

(B) 10.0

(C) 12.0

(D) 22.0

1/3

GATE 2016

General Ap ptitude - GA Set-44

Q. 6 â&#x20AC;&#x201C; Q. 10 carry tw wo marks each.

Q.6

Thee velocity V of a vehiclle along a sttraight line is i measured in m/s and plotted as shown s with resppect to timee in seconds. At the endd of the 7 seconds, s how w much willl the odomeeter reading incrrease by (in m)?

(A)) 0 Q.7

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 5

Thee overwhelm ming numberr of people innfected with h rabies in Inndia has beenn flagged by y the World Heaalth Organizzation as a soource of conncern. It is esstimated thatt inoculatingg 70% of petts and stray doggs against rabbies can leadd to a significcant reductio on in the num mber of peoplle infected with w rabies.

Whhich of the foollowing can be logicallyy inferred from m the above sentences?

(A)) The numbber of people in India infeected with raabies is high.

(B)) The number of people in other partts of the world who are innfected with rabies is low w.

(C)) Rabies cann be eradicated in India by b vaccinatin ng 70% of strray dogs. r worldw wide.

(D)) Stray dogss are the main source of rabies

Q.8

A flat f is shared by four firstt year underggraduate stud dents. They agreed a to alloow the oldestt of them to enjoy some exttra space in the flat. Maanu is two months m olderr than Sravann, who is th hree months youunger than Trrideep. Pavaan is one monnth older than n Sravan. Who W should occcupy the ex xtra space in the flat?

(A)) Manu

Q.9

(B) Sravan

(C) Trideep

(D) Pavan

Finnd the area boounded by thhe lines 3x+22y=14, 2x-3y y=5 in the firrst quadrant.

(A)) 14.95

(B) 15.25

(C) 15.70

(D) 20.35 2/33

GATE 2016

Q.10

General Aptitude - GA Set-4

A straight line is fit to a data set (ln x, y). This line intercepts the abscissa at ln x = 0.1 and has a slope of −0.02. What is the value of y at x = 5 from the fit?

(A) −0.030

(B) −0.014

(C) 0.014

(D) 0.030

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

3/3

GATE 2016

ARCHITECTURE AND PLANNING

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1

‘Dharahara’ refers to (A) Concept of Vastu Shastra (B) Elevation feature of a Hindu Temple (C) Heritage tower at Kathmandu (D) Construction method of Buddhist Architecture

Q.2

‘Mushroom Column’ is a typical feature of (A) Pantheon, Rome (C) Chrysler Building, New York

Q.3

(B) Parthenon, Athens (D) Johnson Wax Building, Racine

‘AMRUT’, the new scheme launched by Government of India, stands for (A) Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (B) Atal Mission for Renewal of Urban Transportation (C) Atal Mission for Redevelopment of Urban Transportation (D) Atal Mission for Renewal and Urban Transformation

Q.4

The concept of ‘Dry Garden’ is associated with (A) Japanese Garden

Q.5

(B) Chinese Garden

(C) Mughal Garden

(D) Egyptian Garden

The concept of Transit Oriented Development (TOD) refers to (A) Transit oriented planning in institutional campuses (B) High density development along a mass transit corridor (C) Orienting residential blocks towards the transit in a gated community (D) Spatial design for persons with disabilities along a mass transit corridor

Q.6

The components measuring Human Development Index (HDI) of a nation are (A) Life expectancy, Education and Per Capita Income (B) Life expectancy, Economy and Housing (C) Health, Development and Per Capita Income (D) Housing, Health and Hygiene

Q.7

As per the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 2010, the extent of ‘prohibited area’ beyond the ‘demarcated protected area’ in meters is (A) 50

Q.8

(B) Black

(C) Blue

(D) Green

(B) Disaster management (D) Water management

In a flat slab, the load is transferred through (A) Beam action (C) Plate action

AR

(D) 500

‘Segregation at source’ is a concept associated with (A) Solid waste management (C) Traffic management

Q.10

(C) 200

In CMYK colour model, ‘K’ represents the colour (A) White

Q.9

(B) 100

(B) Membrane action (D) Vector action

1/8

GATE 2016

Q.11

ARCHITECTURE AND PLANNING

Map is an (A) Isometric projection (C) Axonometric projection

Q.12

‘Indore Slum Networking Programme’ has been planned by (A) B. V. Doshi (C) Anil Laul

Q.13

(B) Dulal Mukherjee (D) Himanshu Parikh

‘Volume Zero’ is a film based on the architectural works of (A) Peter Eisenman (C) Daniel Libeskind

Q.14

(B) Charles Correa (D) Roger Angers

The unit of Thermal Conductivity of a material is (B) W/(m2 K) (D) m2 K/W

(A) W/(m K) (C) m K/W Q.15

A semicircular niche in the wall of a mosque, towards the direction of Mecca is known as (A) Sahn

Q.16

(B) Minbar

(B) 1200

(D) Mihrab

(C) 1500

(D) 1800

‘Summit Curve’ is a term associated with the design of (A) Roads and flyovers (C) Tensile fabric structures

Q.18

(C) Qibla

As per CPWD Guidelines and Space Standards for Barrier Free Built Environment, the minimum turning radius for a wheelchair in mm is (A) 900

Q.17

(B) Orthographic projection (D) Oblique projection

(B) Escalators and elevators (D) Geodesic domes

As per Census of India 2011, Nagar Panchayat refers to (A) Rural area surrounded by a growing city (B) Urban area within a panchayat (C) Rural area adjacent to a nagar (D) Urban area with a statutory local government

Q.19

Statutory setback of a building depends on (A) Building height (C) Width of access road

Q.20

(B) Property boundary (D) Ground coverage

Super plasticizer is added in a concrete mix to (A) Reduce the water-cement ratio for a given workability (B) Increase the water-cement ratio for a given workability (C) Reduce the flow (D) Reduce the content of coarse aggregate

Q.21

Shodhan House, Ahmedabad was designed by (A) Anant Raje (C) Louis I. Kahn

AR

(B) Le Corbusier (D) B. V. Doshi

2/8

GATE 2016

Q.22

ARCHITECTURE AND PLANNING

Low-emissivity coating on a glazing unit (A) Increases the SHGC (C) Reduces the SHGC

Q.23

(B) Increases the VLT (D) Increases the VLT and SHGC

Spatial connectedness in GIS refers to (A) Tomography

(B) Topography

(C) Topiary

(D) Topology

Q.24

In a residential neighbourhood, the net area of residential plots is 50 percent of the total area. If the population is 8000, the ratio of net density to gross density of the neighbourhood is ________

Q.25

A hemispherical earth mound of 3 meter diameter is proposed to be constructed in a children’s park. If the proportion of soil and sand for the construction is 3:2, the estimated volume of soil in cubic meters is ________

Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26

Match the ancient cities in Group –I with their characteristic features in Group-II Group-I P Q R S

Mohen-jo-daro Babylon Kahun Athens

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-5 (C) P-3, Q-5, R-2, S-1 Q.27

Group-II 1 2 3 4 5

(B) P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-2 (D) P-4, Q-5, R-2, S-3

Match the water purification stages in Group-I with the corresponding items in Group-II Group-I P Q R S

Coagulation Filtration Disinfection Softening

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-5 (C) P-2, Q-3, R-5, S-4 Q.28

Group-II 1 2 3 4 5

Ammonium hydroxide Sodium Zeolite Alum Sand Chlorine

(B) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2 (D) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-2

Match the software tools in Group-I with their field of application in Group-II Group-I P Q R S

Radiance Odeon Rayman Primavera

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-1 (C) P-5, Q-4, R-1, S-2

AR

Agora Enclosed Court Grid Iron Street Pattern Forum Hanging Garden

Group-II 1 2 3 4 5

Outdoor thermal environment Construction management Air-flow analysis Acoustical design Lighting analysis

(B) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (D) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-5

3/8

GATE 2016

Q.29

ARCHITECTURE AND PLANNING

Match the street layouts of ancient Indian settlements in Group – I with their corresponding types in Group – II Group-I

P

1

Nandyavarta

Q

2

Swastika

R

3

Padmaka

S

4

Chaturmukha

5

Karmukha

(A) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-5 (C) P-4, Q-3, R-5, S-1 Q.30

Group-II

(B) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-5 (D) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

Associate the terms in Group-I with the building hardware in Group-II Group-I P Q R S

Parliamentary Aldrop Panic Mortise

(A) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4 (C) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 Q.31

1 2 3 4

Bar Lock Hinge Bolt

(B) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3 (D) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

Hoop and meridional forces are associated with (A) Dome (C) Folded Plate

AR

Group-II

(B) Truss (D) Space Frame

4/8

GATE 2016

Q.32

ARCHITECTURE AND PLANNING

Match the Olympic stadia in Group-I with their Architects in Group-II Group-I P Q R S

Palazzetto dello Sport, Rome Olympic Arena, Tokyo Bird’s Nest, Beijing Olympia Stadion, Munich

(A) P-5, Q-2, R-1, S-4 (C) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-5 Q.33

Group-II 1 2 3 4 5

(B) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (D) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3

Match the terms in Group-I with the related terms in Group-II Group-I P Q R S

Acquisition Planning permission Building plan sanction Mutation

(A) P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (C) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-1 Q.34

Group-II 1 2 3 4 5

Associate the structural systems of Group-I with buildings in Group-II

P Q R S

Diagrid Outrigger truss Suspended floor Cable stayed

(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-5 (C) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1

Group-II 1 2 3 4 5

Associate the systems in Group-I with their applications in Group-II

P Q R S

Nisargruna Vortex-DEWAT Swale BIPV

(A) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-3 (C) P-3, Q-5, R-2, S-1

Group-II 1 2 3 4 5

Renewable energy generation Ground water recharge Solid waste management Desalination Waste water treatment

(B) P-1, Q-2, R-5, S-4 (D) P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-1

Match the Houses in Group-I with their Architects in Group-II Group-I P Q R S

Villa Müller, Prague Farnsworth House, Illinois Schröder House, Utrecht Dancing House, Prague

(A) P-5, Q-2, R-4, S-1 (C) P-3, Q-2, R-5, S-4 AR

Millennium Dome, London HSBC, Hong Kong Taipei 101, Taipei Hearst Tower, New York Sears Tower, Chicago

(B) P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (D) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

Group-I

Q.36

Ownership Construction Land cover Land use Land

(B) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (D) P-5, Q-3, R-2, S-4

Group-I

Q.35

Herzog & de Meuron Frei Otto Kenzo Tange Roger Taillibert P. L. Nervi

Group-II 1 2 3 4 5

Frank Gehry Frank Lloyd Wright Adolf Loos Mies van der Rohe Gerrit Rietveld

(B) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-1 (D) P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-3 5/8

GATE 2016

Q.37

ARCHITECTURE AND PLANNING

Match the Books in Group-I with their Authors in Group-II Group-I P Q R S

Space, Time and Architecture The Social Logic of Space Timeless Way of Building Form, Space and Order

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-5 (C) P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-3 Q.38

Group-II 1 2 3 4 5

Bill Hillier Christopher Alexander Rob Krier Sigfried Gideon Francis D. K. Ching

(B) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (D) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-5

Associate the green rating system in Group-I with the respective country in Group-II Group-I P Q R S

CASBEE Green Mark GRIHA Estidama

(A) P-2, Q-4, R-5, S-1 (C) P-3, Q-5, R-1, S-2 Q.39

Group-II 1 2 3 4 5

UAE China Japan Singapore India

(B) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2 (D) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-1

Match the instruments in Group-I with the corresponding usage in Group-II Group-I P Q R S

Pyranometer Heliodon Total Station Anemometer

(A) P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-3 (C) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-3

Group-II 1 2 3 4 5

Shadow analysis Seismic intensity Wind velocity Solar radiation Land survey

(B) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (D) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3

Q.40

As per URDPFI guidelines, the number of Equivalent Car Space (ECS) required to accommodate ten cars, sixteen scooters and forty bicycles will be______________

Q.41

A steel I-beam section is subjected to a bending moment of 96 kN-m. The moment of inertia of the beam section is 24,000 cm4. The bending stress at 100 mm above the neutral axis of the beam in MPa will be ____________

Q.42

A room is mechanically ventilated through four air-conditioning ducts. The opening area of each duct is 0.35 sqm. The air velocity in the duct is 0.5 m/s. The temperature difference between the ambient air and supply air is 10 °C. Volumetric specific heat of air is 1250 J/m3 °C. Assuming one Ton of refrigeration (TR) equals 3.5 kW, the cooling load of the room in TR will be _____________

AR

6/8

GATE 2016

ARCHITECTURE AND PLANNING

Q.43

A CPM network of a construction project is given in the figure below. The activity durations are mentioned in weeks. The project completion time in weeks will be _____________

Q.44

For a room with dimensions 4m × 3m × 3m (L×B×H), the details of indoor acoustical treatment are as follows.

Component Wall Ceiling Floor Percentage area 30 70 40 60 100 Absorption coefficient at 1000 Hz 0.4 0.1 0.6 0.1 0.1 The reverberation time in seconds at 1000 Hz is _______

Q.45

In 2001, the population and work force participation rate of a town were 30,000 and 30 percent respectively. The work force participation rate in the year 2011 increased to 34 percent. If the decadal population growth rate was 6 percent, the increase in the number of working people in the town in 2011 was __________

Q.46

In a 20 storey building with 3m floor to floor height, a passenger lift is hoisted by a steel rope.

Weight of the lift car is 750 kg and ultimate load the steel rope can carry is 39,000 kg. Assuming a factor of safety of 20 for the steel rope and an average passenger weight of 75 kg, the passenger capacity of the lift is ____________

Q.47

One litre of acrylic paint can cover 16 sqm of wall area for the first coat and 24 sqm for the second coat. The walls of a lecture hall measuring 12m × 8m × 4m (L × B × H) need to be painted with two coats of this paint. The hall has total glazed fenestration area of 12 sqm. The number of 4 litre paint containers required will be __________

Q.48

A 250 mm × 250 mm RCC column is reinforced with one percent steel. The permissible compressive stress of concrete and steel are 8 N/mm2 and 150 N/mm2 respectively. The axial load carrying capacity of the column in kN is _____________

Q.49

A solar photo-voltaic system is proposed to be installed at the roof top of a hostel. The cost of installation and the annual maintenance are INR 2,40,000 and INR 6000 respectively. It is expected to generate 600 kWh of electricity per month. Assume unit price of electricity as INR 5. Ignoring the discount rate, the payback period of the investment in years is____________

Q.50

A pump is installed in an apartment building to lift water from ground level to the roof top water tank with the capacity of 10,000 litres. Total head of lift is 18 m and pumping time is 30 minutes to fill the tank completely. Assuming acceleration due to gravity (g) as 10 m/sec2 and efficiency of the pump as 80 percent, the power requirement of the pump in kW will be __________

AR

7/8

GATE 2016

ARCHITECTURE AND PLANNING

Q.51

In a housing project, the number of LIG, MIG and HIG units are in the ratio of 1:1:2. The ratio of areas of the units is 3:5:8. Assume unit cost of construction is same for all the three types. For a no profit no loss situation, if 10% discount is offered to LIG and MIG units on sale price, extra charge in percentage payable per HIG unit will be ____________

Q.52

The estimated number of bricks (unit size: 250 mm Ă&#x2014; 125 mm Ă&#x2014; 75 mm) for laying one course of a 250 mm thick brick wall using rat-trap bond for a running length of 3.9 meter will be ___________

Q.53

The difference in invert levels between two pits separated by a distance of 30 meter is one meter.

An intermediate pit is required to be constructed at a distance of 18 meter from the pit at higher level. Maintaining the same slope, the difference in invert levels of the new pit and the pit at lower level in mm will be _________

Q.54

A four-storey building with equal areas in each floor is required to be designed on a plot with FAR of 2.0. If the FAR is increased to 2.2, the percentage increase in ground coverage utilizing full FAR in both cases will be ___________

Q.55

A lamp source of 3200 candela is mounted on a wall at a height of 2 meter from the work-plane. It subtends an angle of incidence of 60o with the center of the work plane. The illumination at the centre of the work plane in Lux is __________

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

AR

8/8

Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering 2017

Question Paper Name: Subject Name: Duration: Total Marks:

Architecture and Planning 4th Feb 2017 180 100

Question Numb er : 1

Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 2

Correct : 1 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 3

Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 4

Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 5

Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 6

Correct : 1 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 7

Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 8

Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 9

Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 10

Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 11

Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 12

Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 13

Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 14

Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 15

Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 16

Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 17

Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 18

Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 19

Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 20

Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 21

Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 22

Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 23

Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 24

Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 25

Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 26

Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 27

Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 28

Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 29

Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 30

Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 31

Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 32

Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 33

Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 34

Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 35

Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 36

Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 37

Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 38

Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 39

Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 40

Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 41

Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 42

Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 43

Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 44

Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 45

Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 46

Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 47

Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 48

Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 49

Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 50

Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 51

Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 52

Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 53

Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 54

Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 55

Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 56

Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 57

Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 58

Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 59

Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 60

Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 61

Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 62

Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 63

Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 64

Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

GATE 2016

Q.29

ARCHITECTURE AND PLANNING

Match the street layouts of ancient Indian settlements in Group – I with their corresponding types in Group – II Group-I

P

1

Nandyavarta

Q

2

Swastika

R

3

Padmaka

S

4

Chaturmukha

5

Karmukha

(A) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-5 (C) P-4, Q-3, R-5, S-1 Q.30

Group-II

(B) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-5 (D) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

Associate the terms in Group-I with the building hardware in Group-II Group-I P Q R S

Parliamentary Aldrop Panic Mortise

(A) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4 (C) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 Q.31

1 2 3 4

Bar Lock Hinge Bolt

(B) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3 (D) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

Hoop and meridional forces are associated with (A) Dome (C) Folded Plate

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Group-II

(B) Truss (D) Space Frame

4/8

GATE 2018

General Aptitude (GA) Set-4

Q. 1 â&#x20AC;&#x201C; Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1

â&#x20AC;&#x153;When she fell down the _______, she received many _______ but little help.â&#x20AC;?

The words that best fill the blanks in the above sentence are (A) stairs, stares (C) stares, stairs

Q.2

(B) stairs, stairs (D) stares, stares

â&#x20AC;&#x153;In spite of being warned repeatedly, he failed to correct his _________ behaviour.â&#x20AC;?

The word that best fills the blank in the above sentence is (A) rational

Q.3

đ?&#x153;&#x2039;

(D) good

đ?&#x153;&#x2039;

(B) ( 2 , đ?&#x153;&#x2039;)

(C) (đ?&#x153;&#x2039;,

3đ?&#x153;&#x2039; 2

)

3đ?&#x153;&#x2039;

(D) ( 2 , 2đ?&#x153;&#x2039;)

The area of an equilateral triangle is â&#x2C6;&#x161;3. What is the perimeter of the triangle?

(A) 2

Q.5

(C) errant

For 0 â&#x2030;¤ đ?&#x2018;Ľ â&#x2030;¤ 2đ?&#x153;&#x2039;, sin đ?&#x2018;Ľ and cos đ?&#x2018;Ľ are both decreasing functions in the interval ________.

(A) (0, 2 )

Q.4

(B) reasonable

(B) 4

(C) 6

(D) 8

Arrange the following three-dimensional objects in the descending order of their volumes: (i) A cuboid with dimensions 10 cm, 8 cm and 6 cm (ii) A cube of side 8 cm (iii) A cylinder with base radius 7 cm and height 7 cm (iv) A sphere of radius 7 cm (A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (B) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii) (C) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv) (D) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)

Q. 6 â&#x20AC;&#x201C; Q. 10 carry two marks each.

Q.6

An automobile travels from city A to city B and returns to city A by the same route. The speed of the vehicle during the onward and return journeys were constant at 60 km/h and 90 km/h, respectively. What is the average speed in km/h for the entire journey?

(A) 72

GA

(B) 73

(C) 74

(D) 75

1/2

GATE 2018 General Aptitude (GA) Set-4 Q.7 A set of 4 parallel lines intersect with another set of 5 parallel lines. How many parallelograms are formed?

(A) 20

Q.8

(C) 60

(D) 72

To pass a test, a candidate needs to answer at least 2 out of 3 questions correctly. A total of 6,30,000 candidates appeared for the test. Question A was correctly answered by 3,30,000 candidates. Question B was answered correctly by 2,50,000 candidates. Question C was answered correctly by 2,60,000 candidates. Both questions A and B were answered correctly by 1,00,000 candidates. Both questions B and C were answered correctly by 90,000 candidates. Both questions A and C were answered correctly by 80,000 candidates.

If the number of students answering all questions correctly is the same as the number answering none, how many candidates failed to clear the test?

(A) 30,000

Q.9

(B) 48

(B) 2,70,000

(C) 3,90,000

If đ?&#x2018;Ľ 2 + đ?&#x2018;Ľ â&#x2C6;&#x2019; 1 = 0 what is the value of đ?&#x2018;Ľ 4 + (A) 1

(B) 5

1 đ?&#x2018;Ľ4

(D) 4,20,000

?

(C) 7

(D) 9

Q.10 In a detailed study of annual crow births in India, it was found that there was relatively no growth during the period 2002 to 2004 and a sudden spike from 2004 to 2005. In another unrelated study, it was found that the revenue from cracker sales in India which remained fairly flat from 2002 to 2004, saw a sudden spike in 2005 before declining again in 2006.

The solid line in the graph below refers to annual sale of crackers and the dashed line refers to the annual crow births in India. Choose the most appropriate inference from the above data.

(A) There is a strong correlation between crow birth and cracker sales.

(B) Cracker usage increases crow birth rate.

(C) If cracker sale declines, crow birth will decline.

(D) Increased birth rate of crows will cause an increase in the sale of crackers.

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER GA

2/2

GATE 2018

Architecture and Planning

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1

In a Colour Wheel, Red and Blue colours are (A) Tertiary

Q.2

(B) 2

(B) 25 N/sqmm

(C) 3

(D) 6

(C) 250 N/sqmm

(D) 2.5 N/sqmm

In Critical Path Method (CPM) for time scheduling, ‘forward pass calculation’ is carried out for determining (A) Late start and early finish time (C) Late start and late finish time

Q.5

(D) Primary

The compressive strength of M-25 concrete is (A) 25 kg/sqm

Q.4

(C) Secondary

In a bird’s eye perspective view of a cuboid, the maximum number of vanishing points is (A) 1

Q.3

(B) Complementary

(B) Early start and early finish time (D) Early start and late finish time

Collapse of the World Trade Center (WTC), New York, in 2001, was due to (A) Wind load failure (B) Foundation failure (C) Thermal performance failure of reinforcement steel in RCC (D) Thermal performance failure of structural steel

Q.6

During the construction of tall buildings, the equipment used for hoisting building materials to the upper floors is a (A) Goods lift (C) Gantry crane

Q.7

(B) Capsule lift (D) Tower crane

A Rock-cut style of architecture is represented by (A) Shyama Rama Temple, Bishnupur (B) Kailasa Temple, Ellora (C) Kandariya Mahadeva Temple, Khajuraho (D) Sanchi Stupa, Sanchi

Q.8

‘Area based development’ and ‘Pan city development’ are part of (A) Smart City Mission (C) Swachh Bharat Mission

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(B) Digital India Mission (D) Atal Innovation Mission

1/11

GATE 2016

ARCHITECTURE AND PLANNING

Q.51

In a housing project, the number of LIG, MIG and HIG units are in the ratio of 1:1:2. The ratio of areas of the units is 3:5:8. Assume unit cost of construction is same for all the three types. For a no profit no loss situation, if 10% discount is offered to LIG and MIG units on sale price, extra charge in percentage payable per HIG unit will be ____________

Q.52

The estimated number of bricks (unit size: 250 mm Ă&#x2014; 125 mm Ă&#x2014; 75 mm) for laying one course of a 250 mm thick brick wall using rat-trap bond for a running length of 3.9 meter will be ___________

Q.53

The difference in invert levels between two pits separated by a distance of 30 meter is one meter.

An intermediate pit is required to be constructed at a distance of 18 meter from the pit at higher level. Maintaining the same slope, the difference in invert levels of the new pit and the pit at lower level in mm will be _________

Q.54

A four-storey building with equal areas in each floor is required to be designed on a plot with FAR of 2.0. If the FAR is increased to 2.2, the percentage increase in ground coverage utilizing full FAR in both cases will be ___________

Q.55

A lamp source of 3200 candela is mounted on a wall at a height of 2 meter from the work-plane. It subtends an angle of incidence of 60o with the center of the work plane. The illumination at the centre of the work plane in Lux is __________

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

AR

8/8

Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering 2017

Question Paper Name: Subject Name: Duration: Total Marks:

Architecture and Planning 4th Feb 2017 180 100

GATE 2018

Architecture and Planning

Q. 26 â&#x20AC;&#x201C; Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26 Match the planning documents in Group-I with their respective government schemes in Group-II Group-I P Q R S

Group-II

Integrated Cluster Action Plan Service Level Improvement Plan Housing for All Plan of Action City Livelihood Centre Development Plan

(A) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2 (C) P-5, Q-1, R-4, S-3

1 2 3 4 5

NULM Make in India RuRBAN mission PMAY AMRUT

(B) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-2 (D) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-1

Q.27 Associate the fire safety requirements for high rise buildings in Group-I with corresponding standards of the National Building Code of India 2016 in Group-II Group-I P Q R S

Minimum Refuge area Maximum Travel distance Maximum Occupant load Minimum Stair case width

(A) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2 (C) P-3, Q-5, R-1, S-2

Group-II 1 2 3 4 5

12.5 sqm/person 2.0 m 0.3 sqm/person 12.0 ton 30.0 m

(B) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-1 (D) P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-3

Q.28 Match the photometric quantities in Group-I with their respective units in Group-II Group-I P Q R S

Illuminance Luminous Intensity Luminance Luminous Efficacy

(A) P-3, Q-2, R-5, S-4 (C) P-5, Q-1, R-2, S-3

AR

Group-II 1 2 3 4 5

Candela Candela/sqm Lumens/sqm Lumens/watt Lumens

(B) P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (D) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

4/11

GATE 2018

Architecture and Planning

Q.29 Associate the symbols in Group I with their meanings in Group II Group-I

P

1

Hearing impaired

Q

2

Emergency lamp

R

3

Electrical and Electronic waste disposal

S

4

Biohazard

5

Speech impaired

(A) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (C) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-5

AR

Group-II

(B) P-1, Q-5, R-3, S-4 (D) P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-2

5/11

GATE 2018

Architecture and Planning

Q.30 Match the elements in Group-I with the building components in Group-II Group-I P Q R S

King post Grade beam Metal decking Jamb

(A) P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (C) P-2, Q-4, R-5, S-3

Group-II 1 2 3 4 5

Curtain glazing Door Plinth Intermediate floor Truss

(B) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1 (D) P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-2

Q.31 Match the iconic architectural examples in Group-I with their predominant structural systems in Group-II Group-I P Q R S

Group-II

S. Maria del Fiore Cathedral, Florence Notre Dame Cathedral, Paris Olympic Arena, Tokyo BahĂĄâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;i Temple, Delhi

(A) P-1, Q-3, R-5, S-4 (C) P-4, Q-5, R-2, S-1

1 2 3 4 5

Shell Suspended roof Space frame Double-walled dome Flying buttress

(B) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3 (D) P-5, Q-4, R-3, S-2

Q.32 Match the building materials in Group-I with their distinctive properties in Group-II Group-I P Q R S

Cement Steel Wood Glass

(A) P-5, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (C) P-1, Q-4, R-5, S-2

AR

Group-II 1 2 3 4 5

Charring Brittle Evaporation Tensile strength Setting Time

(B) P-5, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (D) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-5

6/11

GATE 2018

Architecture and Planning

Q.33 Match the built forms in Group-I with their descriptions in Group-II Group-I

Group-II

P

Agora

1

Custodial precincts

Q

Ziggurat

2

Place of Jewish worship

R

Mastaba

3

S

Synagogue

4

Built in diminishing stages of masonry with buttressed wall Market place or public square

5

Tomb made of mud bricks

(A) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2 (C) P-4, Q-3, R-5, S-2

(B) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-5 (D) P-3, Q-1, R-5, S-2

Q.34 Match the building configuration characteristics in Group-I with their seismic consequences in Group-II Group-I P Q R S

Group-II

Re-entrant corner Floating column Irregular storey stiffness Gap between adjacent buildings

(A) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4 (C) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-5

1 2 3 4 5

Soft storey Stress concentration at corner Load path discontinuity Vertical asymmetry Pounding

(B) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-5 (D) P-3, Q-5, R-2, S-1

Q.35 Match the landscaping terms in Group-I with their descriptions in Group-II Group-I P Q R S

Xeriscaping Drip line Swale Turf block paver

(A) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-4 (C) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-5

AR

Group-II 1 2 3 4 5

Wide vegetated drain Tree rings Outermost circumference of a tree canopy Solution to topsoil erosion and water permeability A little or no irrigation (B) P-3, Q-5, R-1, S-4 (D) P-5, Q-2, R-4, S-1

7/11

GATE 2018

Architecture and Planning

Q.36 Match the planning principles in Group-I with their descriptions in Group-II Group-I P

Group-II 1

Four stage model of regional development

Q

Transit oriented development Core periphery theory

2

Compact and walkable mixed use development

R

Bid rent theory

3

S

Cluster theory

4

Geographic concentration of inter-connected institutions Change of land price with relative distance from the CBD Interactive and participatory planning process

5 (A) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 (C) P-4, Q-2, R-5, S-3

(B) P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-3 (D) P-2, Q-3, R-5, S-4

Q.37 Match the cities in Group-I with their planners in Group-II Group-I P Q R S

Islamabad Tel Aviv Bhubaneswar Brasilia

(A) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3 (C) P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-3

Group-II 1 2 3 4 5

Patrick Geddess C.A. Doxiadis Lucio Costa B. V. Doshi O. Koenigsberger

(B) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2 (D) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-5

Q.38 Match the Temples in Group-I with their Dynastic period in Group-II Group-I P Q R S

Brihadeshvara Temple Kailasanatha Temple Bhitragaon Temple Lad Khan Temple

(A) P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-2 (C) P-2, Q-5, R-1, S-3

AR

Group-II 1 2 3 4 5

Gupta Chalukya Lodhi Chola Pallava

(B) P-5, Q-1, R-2, S-3 (D) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-5

8/11

GATE 2018

Architecture and Planning

Q.39 Match the Buildings in Group-I with their Architects in Group-II Group-I P Q R S

Group-II

Guggenheim Museum, Bilbao The Shard, London Commerz Bank, Frankfurt Heydar Aliyev Centre, Baku

1 2 3 4 5

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-5 (C) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-5

Richard Rogers Norman Foster Frank Gehry Renzo Piano Zaha Hadid

(B) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (D) P-2, Q-5, R-4, S-3

Q.40 Match the following urban conservation themes in Group-I with their respective descriptions in Group-II Group-I P Q R S

Restoration Reconstitution Reconstruction Replication

(A) P-2, Q-5, R-4, S-3 (C) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4

Group-II 1 2 3 4 5

Piece by piece re-assembly Returning to previous stage Physical addition Re-creation of vanished elements Reproduction of an exact copy (B) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-5 (D) P-3, Q-1, R-3, S-5

Q.41 A Single Phase Neutral (SPN) electrical circuit has a power consumption of 330W. Considering a voltage of 110V and power factor of 0.8, the electrical current drawn is ___________ Amp (up to one decimal place).

Q.42 A building with 100 sqm roof area is connected to a 72 cum rainwater collection tank. If the rainfall is 60 mm per hour and the loss during water storage is 20%, then the time taken to fill the tank completely is_______ hours.

Q.43 The planning norms for provision of schools in a given town is shown in the table below Schools Elementary School Primary School Secondary School

Population norm One per 2500 persons One per 5000 persons One per 12500 persons

Land requirement per school 0.4 hectare 1.0 hectare 2.0 hectare

Total land area required for providing all types of schools for a population of 200,000 is ___________ hectares.

AR

9/11

GATE 2018

Architecture and Planning

Q.44 In a mixed use development on a 2.0 hectare site with 2.0 FAR, the ratio of residential to commercial floor area is 3:2. The minimum parking (in ECS) needed per 100 sqm of residential and commercial floor area is 1.0 and 1.25 respectively. Considering full FAR utilization, the total parking requirement is ____________ ECS.

Q.45 A plotted housing scheme on a site of 12 hectare has 60% saleable area. The average unit cost of land development is INR 300 million per hectare. If the profit margin is 20%, then the selling price of land per hectare is __________ million INR.

Q.46 An isolated enclosure shown in the Figure has inlet P and outlet Q of 2 sqm each, on the opposite walls. The outdoor wind speed is 5 m/sec. If the coefficient of effectiveness is 0.6, the rate of natural ventilation in the enclosure due to wind action is _________ cum/hr.

Q.47 A 5m × 5m × 3m room has four 230 mm thick external brick walls. Total wall fenestration is 10 sqm. The temperature difference between indoor and outdoor is 2 degC. The air to air transmittance values for 230 mm thick brick wall and 200 mm thick aerated concrete block wall are 2.4 and 1.7 W/sqm degC respectively. If the brick walls are replaced with the aerated concrete block walls, then the change in conductive heat flow through the walls is _________W.

Q.48 For an activity, ‘optimistic time duration’ is 4 days, ‘pessimistic time duration’ is 11 days and ‘most-likely time duration’ is 8 days. The PERT value of time duration is______ days (up to one decimal place).

Q.49 In the Figure, the negative bending moment at point A of the cantilever is ________ kNm.

AR

10/11

GATE 2018

Architecture and Planning

Q.50 The water consumption of a high rise apartment building with 60 dwelling units having an average household size of 5 persons is 135 lpcd. Assuming 80% of the total use is met with recycled water supply, the daily domestic demand for the building is _________ litres.

Q.51 In India, for 1.0 cum of M-20 grade concrete, the number of cement bags required is ________ (up to two decimal places).

Q.52 The sound power level of an outdoor non-directional point source is 90 dB. Considering an atmospheric impedance of 400 rayls, the sound pressure level at 10 m distance from the source is _______ dB.

Q.53 The live load and dead load in a three storeyed residential building, transferred through a single column, is 12 tons and 18 tons respectively. If the soil bearing capacity is 10 ton/sqm and the factor of safety is 1.5, the area of column footing is _____________ sqm (up to one decimal place).

Q.54 The indoor illumination requirement for a building is 350 Lux. If the daylight factor is 2.7 and the design sky illuminance is 9000 Lux, then the required supplementary artificial lighting is ____________ Lux.

Q.55 Two design options of a business building on a 10.0 hectare site are being compared for built up area. Floor to floor height of Option A is 3.6 m and that of Option B is 4.5 m. If the maximum allowable building height is 45 m with same ground coverage for both options, the additional built up area achievable in Option A over Option B is______percent.

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

AR

11/11

GATE 2019 General Aptitude (GA) Set-8

Q. 1 â&#x20AC;&#x201C; Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1

The fishermen, _______ the flood victims owed their lives, were rewarded by the government.

(A) whom

Q.2

(B) to which

(C) to whom

(D) that

Some students were not involved in the strike.

If the above statement is true, which of the following conclusions is/are logically necessary?

1.

2.

3.

4.

Some who were involved in the strike were students.

No student was involved in the strike.

At least one student was involved in the strike.

Some who were not involved in the strike were students.

(A) 1 and 2

Q.3

(C) 4

(D) 2 and 3

The radius as well as the height of a circular cone increases by 10%. The percentage increase in its volume is ______.

(A) 17.1

Q.4

(B) 3

(B) 21.0

(C) 33.1

(D) 72.8

Five numbers 10, 7, 5, 4 and 2 are to be arranged in a sequence from left to right following the directions given below: 1. No two odd or even numbers are next to each other.

2. The second number from the left is exactly half of the left-most number.

3. The middle number is exactly twice the right-most number.

Which is the second number from the right?

(A) 2

Q.5

(C) 7

(D) 10

Until Iran came along, India had never been ________________ in kabaddi.

(A) defeated

GA

(B) 4

(B) defeating

(C) defeat

(D) defeatist

1/3

Question Number : 7

Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 8

Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 9

Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 10

Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 11

Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

GATE 2019 General Aptitude (GA) Set-8

Q.10 â&#x20AC;&#x153;I read somewhere that in ancient times the prestige of a kingdom depended upon the number of taxes that it was able to levy on its people. It was very much like the prestige of a head-hunter in his own community.â&#x20AC;?

Based on the paragraph above, the prestige of a head-hunter depended upon ___________ (A) the prestige of the kingdom (B) the prestige of the heads (C) the number of taxes he could levy (D) the number of heads he could gather

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

GA

3/3

GATE 2019

Architecture and Planning

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1

Which of the following commands in AUTOCAD is used to create 3D solid between various cross sections?

(A) LOFT

Q.2

Q.3

Q.4

Q.5

(B) MESH

(C) XEDGES

(D) PFACE

Name the architect who criticized ornament in useful objects in his essay ‘Ornament and Crime’.

(A) John Ruskin

(B) H P Berlage

(C) Adolf Loos

(D) Walter Gropius

A sanitary landfill is provided with High Density Poly Ethylene (HDPE) lining along the ground surface. This is provided primarily to prevent (A) Bleaching

(B) Leaching

(C) Rodents

(D) Plant growth

Super-elevation of a road with pre-determined radius of curvature is primarily dependent on (A) Altitude

(B) Soil bearing capacity

(C) Traffic volume

(D) Design traffic speed

In a mono-centric urban model, land rent is expected to (A) diminish as one moves towards the center (B) diminish as one moves away from the center (C) remain constant across the whole urban area (D) be unrelated with distance from center

AR

1/16

GATE 2019

Q.6

Architecture and Planning

Fineness modulus of sand measures its

(A) Compressive strength (B) Grading according to particle size (C) Bulking of sand (D) Ratio of coarse and fine sand

Q.7

The spherical surface of the geodesic dome comprises of

(A) Equilateral triangles of various sizes (B) Isosceles triangles of various sizes (C) Equilateral triangles of uniform size (D) Isosceles triangles of uniform size

Q.8

Q.9

The abrupt change or junction between two ecological zones is termed as

(A) Ecological niche

(B) Ecosystem

(C) Ecotype

(D) Ecotone

Complementary colours in a Munsell pigment colour wheel refers to (A) Colours in alternate positions

(B) Colours opposite to one another

(C) Colours adjacent to each other

(D) A pair of secondary colours

Q.10 The closing syntax, for an executable command line in C or C++ program, is (A) :

AR

(B) ,

(C) ;

(D) .

2/16

GATE 2019

Architecture and Planning

Q.11 The term ‘Necropolis’ refers to

(A) Organically growing settlement

(B) Origin of a settlement

(C) A dead settlement

(D) Merging of two settlements

Q.12 Which of the following projection types is adopted in the Universal Transverse Mercator (UTM)?

(A) Spherical

(B) Conical

(C) Planar

(D) Cylindrical

Q.13 The ingredient to be added to produce Aerated Cement Concrete, is

(A) Aluminum

(B) Calcium chloride

(C) Gypsum

(D) Sulphur

Q.14 The cause of short column effect, during seismic occurrence, is due to

(A) Centralized rupture of the column

(B) Tearing of reinforcement bars

(C) Buckling of column

(D) Stress concentration

Q.15 The solar protection system consisting of fixed slats or grids, outside a building façade in front of openings, is known as

AR

(A) Brise–soleil

(B) Solarium

(C) Malqaf

(D) Trombe wall

3/16

GATE 2019

Architecture and Planning

Q.16 The Indian property inscribed by UNESCO on the World Heritage List in the year 2018 is

(A) Mattanchery Palace, Ernakulam (B) The Victorian Gothic and Art Deco Ensembles of Mumbai (C) Ancient Buddhist Site, Sarnath (D) Mughal Gardens in Kashmir

Q.17 Typical features of Buddhist architecture are

(A) Mandapa, Chattri, Amalaka, Torana

(B) Stambha, Torana, Vimana , Harmika

(C) Vedika, Chattri, Torana, Harmika

(D) Vedika , Stupa, Chaitya, Vimana

Q.18 Identify the Queen closure (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.19 Identify the role of Vermiculate in vertical landscapes

AR

(A) Fertilizer

(B) Holding material

(C) Binding material

(D) Water retention element

4/16

GATE 2019

Architecture and Planning

Q.20 Which of the following parameters is essential to estimate the Envelope Performance Factor (EPF) of a building as per the Energy Conservation Building Code (ECBC), 2011?

(A) Building Type

(B) Maximum humidity

(C) Maximum and minimum monthly temperature

(D) Building occupancy duration

Q.21 The illumination level of a room is 300 lux and the efficacy of the lamps is 60. The Light Power Density (LPD) of the room in Watt/m2 is ______.

Q.22 The load on a RCC column is 150 kN. The soil bearing capacity is 80 kN/m 2. Assuming a factor of safety of 1.2, the side of the square column footing is _______ meter (rounded off to one decimal place).

Q.23 A room is separated by a partition wall. The average intensities of sound in the source and receiving sides across the partition are 10-4 W/m2 and 10-7 W/m2 respectively. The transmission loss (TL) of the partition wall is _________ dB.

Q.24 If the purchase price of 2BHK flat rises by 10 percent, the demand for such flats is observed to decrease by 8 percent. The price elasticity of the housing demand for 2BHK flats is _________ (rounded off to one decimal place).

Q.25 â&#x20AC;&#x2DC;Threshold of enclosureâ&#x20AC;&#x2122; created by vertical surfaces or series of vertical elements in an urban plaza, represented by the ratio of height and distance, is given by an angle of ________ degrees (rounded off to one decimal place).

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5/16

GATE 2019

Architecture and Planning

Q. 26 â&#x20AC;&#x201C; Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26 Match the instruments in Column - I with the various types of surveying in Column - II and select the appropriate option.

P Q R S

Column - I Cross staff Alidade Sextant Distomat

1 2 3 4 5

Column - II Indoor wall to wall measurement Traversing Chain survey Plane table survey Contour survey

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-5

(B) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-5

(C) P-5, Q-3, R-2, S-1

(D) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

Q.27 Match the characteristics of settlement systems in Column - I with their corresponding theory/rules in Column - II and select the appropriate option.

Column - I P Primacy of settlements Q Settlement size and location R Random component in location of settlements S Interaction between settlements

AR

1 2 3

Column - II Central place theory Gravity model Rank size rule

4 5

Entropy of settlements Core periphery model

(A) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-5

(B) P-2, Q-5, R-3, S-1

(C) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-2

(D) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

6/16

GATE 2019

Architecture and Planning

Q.28 Match the architectural projects in Column - I with the architect in Column - II, and select the appropriate option.

P Q R S

Column - I India Habitat Centre, New Delhi United World Colleges (UWC), Mahindra College, Pune Brain & Cognitive Science Centre â&#x20AC;&#x201C; MIT, Cambridge Habitat 67, Montreal

1 2

Column - II Christopher Charles Benninger Charles Correa

3

Joseph Allen Stein

4 5

Norman Foster Moshe Safdi

(A) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-5

(B) P-1, Q-2, R-5, S-3

(C) P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-4

(D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-5

Q.29 Match the Name of the book provided in Column - I with the corresponding author in Column - II and select the appropriate option.

P Q R S

AR

Column - I Earthscape Synthesis of Form Design with Nature The City of Tomorrow and its Planning

1 2 3 4

Column - II Ian McHarg John O Simonds Christopher Alexander Lewis Mumford

5

Le Corbusier

(A) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-5

(B) P-5, Q-2, R-3, S-4

(C) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-4

(D) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-5

7/16

GATE 2019

Architecture and Planning

Q.30 Match the thermal properties in the Column - I and their respective units in Column - II and select the appropriate option.

P Q R S

Column - I Thermal Resistance Thermal Transmittance Specific Heat Thermal Conductivity

Column - II J kg-1 ยบC-1 W m-1 ยบC-1 W m-2 ยบC-1 m2 ยบC W-1 J m-3 ยบC-1

1 2 3 4 5

(A) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2

(B) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(C) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-4

(D) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

Q.31 Match the application in the field of construction in the Column - I and the respective items in Column - II and select the appropriate option.

P Q

R S

AR

Column - I Polytetrafluoroethylene (PTFE) membrane Isolated compression component inside a network of continuous tensile member Cable used for pre-stressed concreting Reinforcement bar used in RCC construction

1

Column - II Tendon

2

TMT

3

Tensegrity

4

TMD

5

Teflon

(A) P-5, Q-1, R-4, S-3

(B) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-5

(C) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(D) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

8/16

GATE 2019

Architecture and Planning

Q.32 Match the following types of masonry joints in Column - I with their corresponding description in Column - II, and select the appropriate option.

Column - I

Column - II

P

1

Struck

Q

2

Weathered

R

3

Raked

S

4

Beaded

5

Concave

(A) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4

(B) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-5

(C) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-2

(D) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-5

Q.33 Match the following in Column - I with their suitable description in Column - II, and select the appropriate option.

P Q R S

AR

Column - I Tolerance Precast concrete rings for wells M Weather joints

1 2 3 4 5

Column - II 100 mm Non modular dimension Acceptable variation 3D- prefabricate Resilient sealants

(A) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3

(B) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-5

(C) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4

(D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-5

9/16

GATE 2019

Architecture and Planning

Q.34 Match the units provided in Column - I with their corresponding items in Column - II, and select the appropriate option.

Column - I P Q R S

dB Phon W/m2 Sabine

Column - II Sound Intensity Absorption of sound Frequency of sound Loudness Sound pressure level

1 2 3 4 5

(A) P-5, Q-1, R-4, S-3

(B) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-5

(C) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4

(D) P-5, Q-4, R-1, S-2

Q.35 Match the scientific names of the trees provided in Column - I with the corresponding color of their bloom in Column - II, and select the appropriate option.

P Q R S

Column - I Cassia fistula Lagerstroemia flos-reginae Cordia sebastena Plumeria alba

Column - II White Red Blue Yellow Mauve

1 2 3 4 5

(A) P-4, Q-5, R-4, S-1

(B) P-1, Q-5, R-2, S-3

(C) P-5, Q-4, R-1, S-3

(D) P-4, Q-5, R-2, S-1

Q.36 Match the items in Column - I and their respective location in building/site in Column - II, and select the appropriate option.

AR

P

Column - I Nahani Trap

Q R S

Gully Trap Bottle Trap Intercepting Trap

1 2 3 4 5

Column - II Between waste water pipe and main house drain Between septic tank and soak pit Junction of house drain and sewer Bathroom and kitchen floor Below the wash basin

(A) P-4, Q-5, R-2, S-3

(B) P-5, Q-1, R-3, S-2

(C) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-3

(D) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-2

10/16

GATE 2019

Architecture and Planning

Q.37 As per the Handbook on Barrier Free and Accessibility, CPWD - 2014, match the design guidelines in Column - I with their appropriate standards in Column - II and select the appropriate option.

P Q R S

Column - I Minimum clear width of ramp Maximum height of wash basin (rim) above finished floor level Minimum length of grab rail Minimum clear width for maneuvering space (wheelchair)

Column - II 1 2

600 mm 1500 mm

3 4

750 mm 900 mm

5

1800 mm

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-5

(B) P-5, Q-3, R-2, S-4

(C) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(D) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-1

Q.38 Match the contemporary Urban Design Movements listed in Column - I with the corresponding principles listed in Column - II and select the appropriate option.

P

Column - I Park Movement

1

Q

New Urbanism

2

R

City Beautiful Movement

3

S

Garden City and New Town Movement

4

5

AR

Column - II Self-contained, self-sufficient community surrounded by green belts Revival of the relationship between man and nature Relationship between work and living, environmental sustainability Unity, cohesion and balanced relationship between urban components and elements Technical and socio economic processes resulting in growth, energy production and waste elimination

(A) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

(B) P-1, Q-5, R-3, S-2

(C) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(D) P-2, Q-5, R-4, S-1

11/16

GATE 2019

Architecture and Planning

Q.39 Match the figures of vaults in Column - I with their corresponding types in Column - II and select the appropriate option.

Column - I

AR

Column - II

P

1

Ribbed

Q

2

Fan

R

3

Barrel

S

4

Groin

5

Nubian

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

(B) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-5

(C) P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-3

(D) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-5

12/16

GATE 2019

Architecture and Planning

Q.40 A colony of 50 people is served by a septic tank. The rate of water supply is 90 lpcd in the colony and 40% of it is going to the septic tank. The retention period of the tank is 24 hours.

The length of the septic tank is________ meter (rounded off to two decimal places).

Assume, storage capacity/person = 0.085m3 (3 years) Space for digestion = 0.0425 m3/person Depth of tank = 1.4 m Length: Width = 2:1

Q.41 A cone, with a base of 10 cm diameter and axis of 12 cm, is lying on Horizontal Plane (HP) along its generator. The internal angle which the base of the cone makes with the HP is _____ degrees.

Q.42 A public utility building of 5000 m2 was constructed 5 years before, on a site of 1 hectare.

The present value of open land in that location is Rs. 100/m2 and present construction cost of such building is Rs. 2500/m2. If the value of the building is assumed to be depreciating at a constant rate of 6 percent per annum, then the present value of the property using â&#x20AC;&#x2DC;Valuation

by Cost Methodâ&#x20AC;&#x2122; is ________ (in Rs. lakhs) (rounded off to one decimal place).

Q.43 A residential area of 20 hectares is planned for three different types of plots of 500 m2, 300 m2 and 200 m2 with numbers of plot in each category are 100, 120 and 150 respectively.

The rest of the area is allocated for roads and facilities such as schools, shops and parks.

Each plot has one dwelling unit and the average household size is 5 persons.

The net residential density of the area in persons per hectare is _________.

Q.44 In a single lane road, traffic volume of 1000 vehicle/h moving at 20 km/h, comes to a halt due to an accident. If jam density is 150 vehicle/km, the velocity of the shock wave generated (in absolute value) is ________ km/h.

Q.45 In a site map, a rectangular residential plot measures 150 mm Ă&#x2014; 40 mm, and the width of the front road in the map measures 16 mm. Actual width of the road is 4 m. If the permissible F.A.R. is 1.2, the maximum built-up area for the residential building will be __________ m2.

AR

13/16

GATE 2019

Architecture and Planning

Q.46 The internal dimension of a room is 10m Ă&#x2014; 10m Ă&#x2014; 4m (height). The total area of the doors and windows are 16 m2. Keeping the doors and windows closed, the reverberation time of the room becomes 1.2 second. Assume all the interior surfaces including doors and windows have same sound absorption coefficient. If all the doors and windows of the room are kept fully open, the reverberation time will be ________ second (rounded off to two decimal places).

Q.47 A depressed portion of a land is identified by three closed contours, as shown in the figure below. The area bounded by three contour lines are 6 m2, 24 m2 and 96 m2 respectively.

Area: 96 m2 Area: 24 m2

Area: 6 m2

The contour interval is 1 m. Using prismoidal method, the volume of the earth needed to fill the land depression is ______________ m3.

Q.48 Solar panels are proposed to be installed on a building roof top to generate electricity. The size of each solar panel is 2 m2. The efficiency of each panel is 75%. The orientations of the solar panel and related solar data are given in the table below.

Orientation South West

No. of Panel 10 5

Average daily solar Average solar hours radiation in W/m2 per day 400 4 300 2

As per the above proposal _______________ kWh solar power will be generated daily. (rounded off to one decimal place)

Q.49 A power shovel is having 1.8 m3 excavation output per batch of operation. The average cycle time of the batch operation is 45 seconds. The lost time per hour of the excavation activity is 10 minutes. Assume six working hours of operation per day. The amount of soil excavated by the power shovel per day is ___________ m3 (rounded off to two decimal places).

AR

14/16

Question Number : 27

Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 28

Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 29

Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 30

Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 31

Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 32

Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 36

Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 37

Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 38

Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 39

Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 40

Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 41

Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 42

Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 43

Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 44

Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 45

Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 46

Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 47

Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 48

Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 49

Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 50

Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 51

Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 52

Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 53

Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 54

Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 55

Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 56

Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 57

Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 58

Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 59

Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 60

Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 61

Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 62

Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 63

Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 64

Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

GATE 2018 General Aptitude (GA) Set-4 Q.7 A set of 4 parallel lines intersect with another set of 5 parallel lines. How many parallelograms are formed?

(A) 20

Q.8

(C) 60

(D) 72

To pass a test, a candidate needs to answer at least 2 out of 3 questions correctly. A total of 6,30,000 candidates appeared for the test. Question A was correctly answered by 3,30,000 candidates. Question B was answered correctly by 2,50,000 candidates. Question C was answered correctly by 2,60,000 candidates. Both questions A and B were answered correctly by 1,00,000 candidates. Both questions B and C were answered correctly by 90,000 candidates. Both questions A and C were answered correctly by 80,000 candidates.

If the number of students answering all questions correctly is the same as the number answering none, how many candidates failed to clear the test?

(A) 30,000

Q.9

(B) 48

(B) 2,70,000

(C) 3,90,000

If đ?&#x2018;Ľ 2 + đ?&#x2018;Ľ â&#x2C6;&#x2019; 1 = 0 what is the value of đ?&#x2018;Ľ 4 + (A) 1

(B) 5

1 đ?&#x2018;Ľ4

(D) 4,20,000

?

(C) 7

(D) 9

Q.10 In a detailed study of annual crow births in India, it was found that there was relatively no growth during the period 2002 to 2004 and a sudden spike from 2004 to 2005. In another unrelated study, it was found that the revenue from cracker sales in India which remained fairly flat from 2002 to 2004, saw a sudden spike in 2005 before declining again in 2006.

The solid line in the graph below refers to annual sale of crackers and the dashed line refers to the annual crow births in India. Choose the most appropriate inference from the above data.

(A) There is a strong correlation between crow birth and cracker sales.

(B) Cracker usage increases crow birth rate.

(C) If cracker sale declines, crow birth will decline.

(D) Increased birth rate of crows will cause an increase in the sale of crackers.

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER GA

2/2

GATE 2019 General Aptitude (GA) Set-8

Q. 1 â&#x20AC;&#x201C; Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1

The fishermen, _______ the flood victims owed their lives, were rewarded by the government.

(A) whom

Q.2

(B) to which

(C) to whom

(D) that

Some students were not involved in the strike.

If the above statement is true, which of the following conclusions is/are logically necessary?

1.

2.

3.

4.

Some who were involved in the strike were students.

No student was involved in the strike.

At least one student was involved in the strike.

Some who were not involved in the strike were students.

(A) 1 and 2

Q.3

(C) 4

(D) 2 and 3

The radius as well as the height of a circular cone increases by 10%. The percentage increase in its volume is ______.

(A) 17.1

Q.4

(B) 3

(B) 21.0

(C) 33.1

(D) 72.8

Five numbers 10, 7, 5, 4 and 2 are to be arranged in a sequence from left to right following the directions given below: 1. No two odd or even numbers are next to each other.

2. The second number from the left is exactly half of the left-most number.

3. The middle number is exactly twice the right-most number.

Which is the second number from the right?

(A) 2

Q.5

(C) 7

(D) 10

Until Iran came along, India had never been ________________ in kabaddi.

(A) defeated

GA

(B) 4

(B) defeating

(C) defeat

(D) defeatist

1/3

GATE 2019 General Aptitude (GA) Set-8

Q.10 â&#x20AC;&#x153;I read somewhere that in ancient times the prestige of a kingdom depended upon the number of taxes that it was able to levy on its people. It was very much like the prestige of a head-hunter in his own community.â&#x20AC;?

Based on the paragraph above, the prestige of a head-hunter depended upon ___________ (A) the prestige of the kingdom (B) the prestige of the heads (C) the number of taxes he could levy (D) the number of heads he could gather

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

GA

3/3

GATE 2019

Architecture and Planning

Q.20 Which of the following parameters is essential to estimate the Envelope Performance Factor (EPF) of a building as per the Energy Conservation Building Code (ECBC), 2011?

(A) Building Type

(B) Maximum humidity

(C) Maximum and minimum monthly temperature

(D) Building occupancy duration

Q.21 The illumination level of a room is 300 lux and the efficacy of the lamps is 60. The Light Power Density (LPD) of the room in Watt/m2 is ______.

Q.22 The load on a RCC column is 150 kN. The soil bearing capacity is 80 kN/m 2. Assuming a factor of safety of 1.2, the side of the square column footing is _______ meter (rounded off to one decimal place).

Q.23 A room is separated by a partition wall. The average intensities of sound in the source and receiving sides across the partition are 10-4 W/m2 and 10-7 W/m2 respectively. The transmission loss (TL) of the partition wall is _________ dB.

Q.24 If the purchase price of 2BHK flat rises by 10 percent, the demand for such flats is observed to decrease by 8 percent. The price elasticity of the housing demand for 2BHK flats is _________ (rounded off to one decimal place).

Q.25 â&#x20AC;&#x2DC;Threshold of enclosureâ&#x20AC;&#x2122; created by vertical surfaces or series of vertical elements in an urban plaza, represented by the ratio of height and distance, is given by an angle of ________ degrees (rounded off to one decimal place).

AR

5/16

GATE 2019

Architecture and Planning

Q.28 Match the architectural projects in Column - I with the architect in Column - II, and select the appropriate option.

P Q R S

Column - I India Habitat Centre, New Delhi United World Colleges (UWC), Mahindra College, Pune Brain & Cognitive Science Centre â&#x20AC;&#x201C; MIT, Cambridge Habitat 67, Montreal

1 2

Column - II Christopher Charles Benninger Charles Correa

3

Joseph Allen Stein

4 5

Norman Foster Moshe Safdi

(A) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-5

(B) P-1, Q-2, R-5, S-3

(C) P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-4

(D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-5

Q.29 Match the Name of the book provided in Column - I with the corresponding author in Column - II and select the appropriate option.

P Q R S

AR

Column - I Earthscape Synthesis of Form Design with Nature The City of Tomorrow and its Planning

1 2 3 4

Column - II Ian McHarg John O Simonds Christopher Alexander Lewis Mumford

5

Le Corbusier

(A) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-5

(B) P-5, Q-2, R-3, S-4

(C) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-4

(D) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-5

7/16

GATE 2019

Architecture and Planning

Q.32 Match the following types of masonry joints in Column - I with their corresponding description in Column - II, and select the appropriate option.

Column - I

Column - II

P

1

Struck

Q

2

Weathered

R

3

Raked

S

4

Beaded

5

Concave

(A) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4

(B) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-5

(C) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-2

(D) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-5

Q.33 Match the following in Column - I with their suitable description in Column - II, and select the appropriate option.

P Q R S

AR

Column - I Tolerance Precast concrete rings for wells M Weather joints

1 2 3 4 5

Column - II 100 mm Non modular dimension Acceptable variation 3D- prefabricate Resilient sealants

(A) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3

(B) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-5

(C) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4

(D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-5

9/16

GATE 2019

Architecture and Planning

Q.37 As per the Handbook on Barrier Free and Accessibility, CPWD - 2014, match the design guidelines in Column - I with their appropriate standards in Column - II and select the appropriate option.

P Q R S

Column - I Minimum clear width of ramp Maximum height of wash basin (rim) above finished floor level Minimum length of grab rail Minimum clear width for maneuvering space (wheelchair)

Column - II 1 2

600 mm 1500 mm

3 4

750 mm 900 mm

5

1800 mm

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-5

(B) P-5, Q-3, R-2, S-4

(C) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(D) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-1

Q.38 Match the contemporary Urban Design Movements listed in Column - I with the corresponding principles listed in Column - II and select the appropriate option.

P

Column - I Park Movement

1

Q

New Urbanism

2

R

City Beautiful Movement

3

S

Garden City and New Town Movement

4

5

AR

Column - II Self-contained, self-sufficient community surrounded by green belts Revival of the relationship between man and nature Relationship between work and living, environmental sustainability Unity, cohesion and balanced relationship between urban components and elements Technical and socio economic processes resulting in growth, energy production and waste elimination

(A) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

(B) P-1, Q-5, R-3, S-2

(C) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(D) P-2, Q-5, R-4, S-1

11/16

GATE 2019

Architecture and Planning

Q.40 A colony of 50 people is served by a septic tank. The rate of water supply is 90 lpcd in the colony and 40% of it is going to the septic tank. The retention period of the tank is 24 hours.

The length of the septic tank is________ meter (rounded off to two decimal places).

Assume, storage capacity/person = 0.085m3 (3 years) Space for digestion = 0.0425 m3/person Depth of tank = 1.4 m Length: Width = 2:1

Q.41 A cone, with a base of 10 cm diameter and axis of 12 cm, is lying on Horizontal Plane (HP) along its generator. The internal angle which the base of the cone makes with the HP is _____ degrees.

Q.42 A public utility building of 5000 m2 was constructed 5 years before, on a site of 1 hectare.

The present value of open land in that location is Rs. 100/m2 and present construction cost of such building is Rs. 2500/m2. If the value of the building is assumed to be depreciating at a constant rate of 6 percent per annum, then the present value of the property using â&#x20AC;&#x2DC;Valuation

by Cost Methodâ&#x20AC;&#x2122; is ________ (in Rs. lakhs) (rounded off to one decimal place).

Q.43 A residential area of 20 hectares is planned for three different types of plots of 500 m2, 300 m2 and 200 m2 with numbers of plot in each category are 100, 120 and 150 respectively.

The rest of the area is allocated for roads and facilities such as schools, shops and parks.

Each plot has one dwelling unit and the average household size is 5 persons.

The net residential density of the area in persons per hectare is _________.

Q.44 In a single lane road, traffic volume of 1000 vehicle/h moving at 20 km/h, comes to a halt due to an accident. If jam density is 150 vehicle/km, the velocity of the shock wave generated (in absolute value) is ________ km/h.

Q.45 In a site map, a rectangular residential plot measures 150 mm Ă&#x2014; 40 mm, and the width of the front road in the map measures 16 mm. Actual width of the road is 4 m. If the permissible F.A.R. is 1.2, the maximum built-up area for the residential building will be __________ m2.

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GATE 2019

Architecture and Planning

Q.50 A room having dimension 12 m × 10 m × 3.5 m is required to be mechanically ventilated by air-conditioner. The temperature difference between outdoor ambient air and the supply air is 12 °C. Consider three air exchanges per hour. The volumetric specific heat of the air is 1250 J/m3 °C. Assume one ton of refrigeration (TR) is equal to 3.5 kW. The capacity of the air-conditioner for the room in TR will be _________.

Q.51 A simply supported beam AB has a clear span of 7 meter. The bending moment diagram (BMD) of the beam due to a single concentrated load is shown in the figure below.

36 kN-m

A

B 4m

3m

The magnitude of the concentrated load in kN is _____________.

Q.52 For a symmetrical trapezoidal open drain in a landscape with grass and loose rock surface, the velocity of flow of water is _____ m/sec, (rounded off to two decimal places), given the following data.

Water edge width at the top Water edge width at the bottom Water depth Manning’s coefficient of roughness Slope along the drain

= = = = =

750 mm 450 mm 600 mm 0.05 1 in 250

Q.53 The stack pressure is created by 10 m height of stack and 15°C temperature difference. The motive force due to the stack pressure over a cross section area of 2.5 m2 is ______ N.

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GATE 2019

Architecture and Planning

Q.54 An industrial building contains 3000 kg of combustible materials, in dry state, distributed over three rooms of area 100 m2, 500 m2 and 300 m2 each, in a proportion of 30%, 50% and 20% of the contents, respectively. Calorific value of the material is 4400 kCal/kg.

The Total Fire Load of the rooms is equal to ________ kCal/ m2.

Q.55 A simple truss is shown in the figure below. The truss is loaded with horizontal and vertical force 15 kN and 25 kN, respectively. The force in the member AB will be ___________ kN.

25 kN KN 15 KN

L B A L

L

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

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