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Test Information Guide: College-Level Examination ProgramÂŽ 2011-12 Social Sciences and History
Š 2011 The College Board. All rights reserved. College Board, College-Level Examination Program, CLEP, and the acorn logo are registered trademarks of the College Board.
CLEP TEST INFORMATION GUIDE FOR SOCIAL SCIENCES AND HISTORY
worldwide through computer-based testing programs and also — in forward-deployed areas — through paper-based testing. Approximately one-third of all CLEP candidates are military service members.
History of CLEP
2010-11 National CLEP Candidates by Age*
Since 1967, the College-Level Examination Program (CLEP®) has provided over six million people with the opportunity to reach their educational goals. CLEP participants have received college credit for knowledge and expertise they have gained through prior course work, independent study or work and life experience.
Under 18 9% 30 years and older 30%
18-22 years 39%
23-29 years 22%
Over the years, the CLEP examinations have evolved to keep pace with changing curricula and pedagogy. Typically, the examinations represent material taught in introductory college-level courses from all areas of the college curriculum. Students may choose from 33 different subject areas in which to demonstrate their mastery of college-level material.
* These data are based on 100% of CLEP test-takers who responded to this survey question during their examinations.
2010-11 National CLEP Candidates by Gender
Today, more than 2,900 colleges and universities recognize and grant credit for CLEP.
41%
Philosophy of CLEP Promoting access to higher education is CLEP’s foundation. CLEP offers students an opportunity to demonstrate and receive validation of their college-level skills and knowledge. Students who achieve an appropriate score on a CLEP exam can enrich their college experience with higher-level courses in their major field of study, expand their horizons by taking a wider array of electives and avoid repetition of material that they already know.
58%
Computer-Based CLEP Testing The computer-based format of CLEP exams allows for a number of key features. These include: • a variety of question formats that ensure effective assessment • real-time score reporting that gives students and colleges the ability to make immediate creditgranting decisions (except College Composition, which requires faculty scoring of essays twice a month) • a uniform recommended credit-granting score of 50 for all exams • “rights-only” scoring, which awards one point per correct answer • pretest questions that are not scored but provide current candidate population data and allow for rapid expansion of question pools
CLEP Participants CLEP’s test-taking population includes people of all ages and walks of life. Traditional 18- to 22-year-old students, adults just entering or returning to school, homeschoolers and international students who need to quantify their knowledge have all been assisted by CLEP in earning their college degrees. Currently, 58 percent of CLEP’s test-takers are women and 52 percent are 23 years of age or older. For over 30 years, the College Board has worked to provide government-funded credit-by-exam opportunities to the military through CLEP. Military service members are fully funded for their CLEP exam fees. Exams are administered at military installations
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CLEP Exam Development
The Committee
Content development for each of the CLEP exams is directed by a test development committee. Each committee is composed of faculty from a wide variety of institutions who are currently teaching the relevant college undergraduate courses. The committee members establish the test specifications based on feedback from a national curriculum survey; recommend credit-granting scores and standards; develop and select test questions; review statistical data and prepare descriptive material for use by faculty (Test Information Guides) and students planning to take the tests (CLEP Official Study Guide).
The College Board appoints standing committees of college faculty for each test title in the CLEP battery. Committee members usually serve a term of up to four years. Each committee works with content specialists at Educational Testing Service to establish test specifications and develop the tests. Listed below are the current committee members and their institutional affiliations.
College faculty also participate in CLEP in other ways: they convene periodically as part of standard-setting panels to determine the recommended level of student competency for the granting of college credit; they are called upon to write exam questions and to review forms and they help to ensure the continuing relevance of the CLEP examinations through the curriculum surveys.
Gary Elbow, Chair
Texas Tech University
Scott Ditloff
University of the Incarnate Word
Juliet Elu
Morehouse College
Thomas Zoumaras
Truman State University
The primary objective of the committee is to produce tests with good content validity. CLEP tests must be rigorous and relevant to the discipline and the appropriate courses. While the consensus of the committee members is that this test has high content validity for a typical introductory Social Sciences and History course or curriculum, the validity of the content for a specific course or curriculum is best determined locally through careful review and comparison of test content, with instructional content covered in a particular course or curriculum.
The Curriculum Survey The first step in the construction of a CLEP exam is a curriculum survey. Its main purpose is to obtain information needed to develop test-content specifications that reflect the current college curriculum and to recognize anticipated changes in the field. The surveys of college faculty are conducted in each subject every three to five years depending on the discipline. Specifically, the survey gathers information on: • the major content and skill areas covered in the equivalent course and the proportion of the course devoted to each area • specific topics taught and the emphasis given to each topic • specific skills students are expected to acquire and the relative emphasis given to them • recent and anticipated changes in course content, skills and topics • the primary textbooks and supplementary learning resources used • titles and lengths of college courses that correspond to the CLEP exam
The Committee Meeting The exam is developed from a pool of questions written by committee members and outside question writers. All questions that will be scored on a CLEP exam have been pretested; those that pass a rigorous statistical analysis for content relevance, difficulty, fairness and correlation with assessment criteria are added to the pool. These questions are compiled by test development specialists according to the test specifications, and are presented to all the committee members for a final review. Before convening at a two- or three-day committee meeting, the members have a chance to review the test specifications and the pool of questions available for possible inclusion in the exam.
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At the meeting, the committee determines whether the questions are appropriate for the test and, if not, whether they need to be reworked and pretested again to ensure that they are accurate and unambiguous. Finally, draft forms of the exam are reviewed to ensure comparable levels of difficulty and content specifications on the various test forms. The committee is also responsible for writing and developing pretest questions. These questions are administered to candidates who take the examination and provide valuable statistical feedback on student performance under operational conditions.
developing, administering and scoring the exams. Effective July 2001, ACE recommended a uniform credit-granting score of 50 across all subjects, with the exception of four-semester language exams, which represents the performance of students who earn a grade of C in the corresponding college course. The American Council on Education, the major coordinating body for all the nation’s higher education institutions, seeks to provide leadership and a unifying voice on key higher education issues and to influence public policy through advocacy, research and program initiatives. For more information, visit the ACE CREDIT website at www.acenet.edu/acecredit.
Once the questions are developed and pretested, tests are assembled in one of two ways. In some cases, test forms are assembled in their entirety. These forms are of comparable difficulty and are therefore interchangeable. More commonly, questions are assembled into smaller, content-specific units called testlets, which can then be combined in different ways to create multiple test forms. This method allows many different forms to be assembled from a pool of questions.
CLEP Credit Granting CLEP uses a common recommended credit-granting score of 50 for all CLEP exams. This common credit-granting score does not mean, however, that the standards for all CLEP exams are the same. When a new or revised version of a test is introduced, the program conducts a standard setting to determine the recommended credit-granting score (“cut score”).
Test Specifications Test content specifications are determined primarily through the curriculum survey, the expertise of the committee and test development specialists, the recommendations of appropriate councils and conferences, textbook reviews and other appropriate sources of information. Content specifications take into account: • the purpose of the test • the intended test-taker population • the titles and descriptions of courses the test is designed to reflect • the specific subject matter and abilities to be tested • the length of the test, types of questions and instructions to be used
A standard-setting panel, consisting of 15–20 faculty members from colleges and universities across the country who are currently teaching the course, is appointed to give its expert judgment on the level of student performance that would be necessary to receive college credit in the course. The panel reviews the test and test specifications and defines the capabilities of the typical A student, as well as those of the typical B, C and D students.* Expected individual student performance is rated by each panelist on each question. The combined average of the ratings is used to determine a recommended number of examination questions that must be answered correctly to mirror classroom performance of typical B and C students in the related course. The panel’s findings are given to members of the test development committee who, with the help of Educational Testing Service and College Board psychometric specialists, make a final determination on which raw scores are equivalent to B and C levels of performance.
Recommendation of the American Council on Education (ACE) The American Council on Education’s College Credit Recommendation Service (ACE CREDIT) has evaluated CLEP processes and procedures for
*Student performance for the language exams (French, German and Spanish) is defined only at the B and C levels.
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Social Sciences and History Description of the Examination
40%
History Requires general knowledge and understanding of time- and place-specific human experiences. Topics covered include political, diplomatic, social, economic, intellectual and cultural material.
The Social Sciences and History examination covers a wide range of topics from the social sciences and history disciplines. While the exam is based on no specific course, its content is drawn from introductory college courses that cover United States history, Western civilization, world history, government/ political science, geography, sociology, economics, psychology and anthropology.
17% United States History Covers the colonial period, the American Revolution, the early republic, the Civil War and Reconstruction, industrialization, the Progressive Era, the First World War, the 1920s, the Great Depression and the New Deal, the Second World War, the 1950s, the Cold War, social conflict — the 1960s and 1970s, the late twentieth century
The primary objective of the exam is to give candidates the opportunity to demonstrate that they possess the level of knowledge and understanding expected of college students who meet a distribution or general education requirement in the social sciences/history areas. The Social Sciences and History examination contains approximately 120 questions to be answered in 90 minutes. Some of them are pretest questions that will not be scored. Any time candidates spend on tutorials and providing personal information is in addition to the actual testing time.
15% Western Civilization Covers ancient Western Asia, Egypt, Greece and Rome as well as medieval Europe and modern Europe, including its expansion and outposts in other parts of the world
Note: This examination uses the chronological designations B.C.E. (before the common era) and C.E. (common era). These labels correspond to B.C. (before Christ) and A.D. (anno Domini), which are used in some textbooks.
8% World History Covers Africa, Asia, Australia, Europe, North America and South America from prehistory to the present, including global themes and interactions
Knowledge and Skills Required The Social Sciences and History examination requires candidates to demonstrate one or more of the following abilities. 13%
• Familiarity with terminology, facts, conventions, methodology, concepts, principles, generalizations and theories • Ability to understand, interpret and analyze graphic, pictorial and written material • Ability to apply abstractions to particulars and to apply hypotheses, concepts, theories and principles to given data The content of the exam is drawn from the following disciplines. The percentages next to the main disciplines indicate the approximate percentage of exam questions on that topic.
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Government/Political Science, including Comparative politics International relations Methods United States institutions Voting and political behavior
S O C I A L
S C I E N C E S
11%
Geography, including Cartographic methods Cultural geography Physical geography Population Regional geography Spatial interaction
10%
Economics, including Economic measurements International trade Major theorists and schools Monetary and fiscal policy Product markets Resource markets Scarcity, choice and cost
10%
Psychology, including Aggression Biopsychology Conformity Group process Major theorists and schools Methods Performance Personality Socialization
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H I S T O R Y
10%
Sociology, including Demography Deviance Family Interaction Major theorists and schools Methods Social change Social organization Social stratification Social theory
6%
Anthropology, including Cultural anthropology Ethnography Major theorists and schools Methods Paleoanthropology
S O C I A L
S C I E N C E S
Sample Test Questions
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3. An individual who believes that “government is best which governs not at all� favors
The following sample questions do not appear on an actual CLEP examination. They are intended to give potential test-takers an indication of the format and difficulty level of the examination and to provide content for practice and review. Knowing the correct answers to all of the sample questions is not a guarantee of satisfactory performance on the exam.
(A) anarchy (B) tyranny (C) monarchy (D) oligarchy (E) democracy
Directions: Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is followed by five suggested answers or completions. Select the one that is best in each case.
4. Which of the following statements concerning the process of socialization is true? (A) In the upbringing of a child, the agencies of socialization tend to function together harmoniously. (B) In a modern society, the individual is subjected to many diverse socializing influences. (C) In a modern society, the media have little impact on the socialization of children. (D) In a traditional society, there are no socializing agencies. (E) In a traditional society, socializing influences are likely to be in conflict.
1. Prior to the campaign of 1828, most candidates for president of the United States were nominated by (A) state legislatures (B) the electoral college (C) national party conventions (D) state primary elections (E) party leaders in Congress 2. Which of the following best describes the impact of Spanish colonization on the indigenous peoples of Central and South America in the sixteenth and early seventeenth centuries? (A) Their economic well-being was improved by the wealth they produced at the direction of the Spanish ruler. (B) They kept their own political system and culture, which coexisted with that of the Spanish colonial system. (C) They migrated in large numbers to Spain. (D) Their system of religious beliefs and practices was unaffected. (E) Their populations decreased dramatically as a result of contact with the Spanish.
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5. As depicted above, the Kurds could be described as which of the following?
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7. A traveler going from point 1 to point 2 on the map above would experience a climatic change from
(A) Nation-state (B) Perforated state (C) Multinational state (D) Stateless nation (E) Fragmented state
(A) humid continental to desert (B) humid subtropical to Mediterranean (C) desert to tropical rain forest (D) tropical wet to Mediterranean (E) Mediterranean to humid continental
6. Which of the following statements about the concept of charisma is correct?
8. In general, cultures in which a belief in ancestral spirits exists regard such beings as
(A) It is possible only in the absence of legitimate authority. (B) It involves a basically political appeal. (C) It rests on the devotion of followers to an individual with exceptional qualities. (D) It is an inherited personality trait. (E) It is a prerequisite for high office in traditional societies.
(A) residing in heaven (B) responsible for natural disasters (C) unable to communicate directly with the living (D) beyond the spiritual reach of the living (E) retaining an active membership in the society
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9. “To industry and frugality I owe the early easiness of my circumstances and the acquisition of my fortune with all that knowledge that has enabled me to be a useful citizen.”
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GOOD A X•
The statement above is most characteristic of which of the following?
O
(A) Benjamin Franklin (B) Ralph Waldo Emerson (C) Henry David Thoreau (D) Samuel Gompers (E) Thomas Jefferson
GOOD B
13. For the economy described by the production possibilities curve above, which of the following is true? (A) Intended investment is greater than intended saving at point X. (B) The economy cannot produce at point X using currently available resources and technology. (C) The economy is more efficient in producing good A than good B. (D) To produce additional units of good B, the economy must forgo fewer and fewer units of good A. (E) Income is unequally distributed to the factors of production.
10. One of the fundamental changes that took place in the twentieth century was a gradual (A) increase in manufacturing, as opposed to services, in developed nations (B) increase in economic interdependence (C) decrease in the pressure of world population on economic resources (D) decline in world trade (E) decline in nationalistic feelings among peoples of the Eastern Hemisphere
14. Which of the following statements about the control group in a well-designed experiment is correct?
11. A person who lived in the 1790s in the United States and who believed in a strong central government, broad construction of the Constitution, and funding of the public debt would most probably have been
(A) It differs from the experimental group in the way in which participants are sampled. (B) It is like the experimental group and receives the same experimental treatment. (C) It is like the experimental group except for differences in exposure to the dependent variable. (D) It is like the experimental group except for differences in exposure to the independent variable. (E) It must contain exactly the same number of individuals as does the experimental group.
(A) a socialist (B) an Anti-Federalist (C) a Federalist (D) a believer in monarchy (E) a Jeffersonian Republican 12. Public opinion polls in the United States commonly make use of (A) sampling theory (B) case studies (C) intelligence tests (D) Rorschach tests (E) clinical interviews
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15. The area of the African continent is approximately
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18. “We know so little about how to live in this life that there is no point in worrying about what may happen to us after death. First let us learn to live in the right way with other people and then let whatever happens next take care of itself.”
(A) half the area of western Europe (B) the same as the area of the United States east of the Mississippi River (C) two times the area of California (D) four times the area of the continental United States (E) five times the area of South America
The quotation above best expresses the philosophy of (A) Jesus (B) Muhammad (C) Confucius (D) Karl Marx (E) Thomas Aquinas
16. Chinese culture and influence were most significant in shaping the institutions of which of the following countries? (A) Bangladesh, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka (B) India, Japan, and Korea (C) Indonesia, the Philippines, and Thailand (D) Japan, Korea, and Vietnam (E) Korea, Nepal, and the Philippines
19. Major political revolutions in the twentieth century most often occurred in countries with (A) comparatively low unemployment (B) high levels of industrialization (C) small industrial and large agricultural sectors (D) representative governments (E) small populations
17. The most immediate consequence of abolitionism in the United States in the 1830s and 1840s was
20. The tendency for an individual’s rank on one dimension of status to be positively correlated with that individual’s rank on other dimensions of status is called
(A) widespread support for the abolition of slavery (B) intensified slaveholders’ resentment toward the movement (C) better treatment of freed African Americans in the North (D) greater sympathy for popular sovereignty (E) increased interest in African colonization
(A) structural balance (B) rank ordering (C) status polarization (D) status congruence (E) status stability
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25. Which of the following prompted African Americans to move to cities in the North during the first quarter of the twentieth century?
21. To reduce inflationary pressure in the economy of the United States, the Federal Reserve would most likely (A) sell government securities on the open market (B) reduce margin requirements (C) lower legal reserve requirements (D) decrease the discount rate (E) encourage member banks to increase their loans
I. The impact of the boll weevil II. The availability of industrial jobs in the North III. The impact of segregation legislation in the South (A) II only (B) I and II only (C) I and III only (D) II and III only (E) I, II, and III
22. Participant satisfaction increases in those groups that (A) have competing subgroup interaction (B) are low in cohesion among group members (C) identify clear goals and supportive roles (D) have incompatible directions (E) fail to coordinate member interaction
26. Abolition of the transatlantic slave trade was difficult to achieve in the early 1800s because (A) the British were strongly in favor of slavery (B) slave labor was needed in Europe (C) profits from the slave trade were high (D) most countries in Europe had extensive African colonies (E) slavery was widespread in all parts of the Americas
23. Construction of the Panama Canal shortened the sailing time between New York and (A) London (B) Port-au-Prince (C) Rio de Janeiro (D) New Orleans (E) San Francisco
27. Among the several social science methods of research, the one used for conducting public opinion polls can best be described as (A) laboratory experimentation (B) participant observation (C) field experimentation (D) survey research (E) computer simulation
24. Of the following, which is the earliest human innovation? (A) Development of urban centers (B) Use of written language (C) Use and control of fire (D) Dependence on agriculture as the major source of food (E) Domestication of animals
28. An aging population necessarily has (A) a population pyramid with a large base (B) more males than females (C) a decreasing death rate (D) an increasing median age (E) an increasing birth rate
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Supply1
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(A) Algeria (B) China (C) Egypt (D) India (E) Indonesia
Supply2
E1
10 5 Demand 1
32. Which of the following is true of the First Amendment to the United States Constitution?
Demand 2 0
50
75
100
QUANTITY
(A) It established presidential control over the budget. (B) It created the Supreme Court. (C) It declared all people to be equal. (D) It established the foundations for churchstate relations. (E) It guaranteed citizens the right to bear arms.
29. The United States market for apples is in equilibrium at E1, where 75 units are sold at a price of $15 per unit. If consumers’ per capita disposable income decreases, the equilibrium price and quantity of apples sold can be which of the following? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
Unit Price
Quantity
$15 $10 $10 $ 5 $ 5
75 50 100 75 100
H I S T O R Y
31. In the late twentieth century, Islamic fundamentalism had the least influence in which of the following countries?
UNITED STATES MARKET FOR APPLES PRICE $/UNIT
A N D
33. The Peloponnesian Wars were primarily the result of (A) Athenian imperialism (B) Spartan militarism (C) the invasion of Greece by Rome (D) the conquests of Alexander the Great (E) the spread of Athenian democracy
30. In psychology, the biosocial approach seeks to explain behavior in terms of (A) environmental influences (B) genetic factors (C) unconscious motivations (D) an integration of cultural and biological factors (E) genetic drifts within population groups
34. Which of the following economic policies is likely to result in the greatest reduction in aggregate demand? (A) A $5 billion increase in personal income taxes only (B) A $5 billion decrease in government transfer payments only (C) A $5 billion decrease in government purchases of goods and services only (D) A $5 billion decrease in government purchases accompanied by a $5 billion increase in personal income taxes (E) A $5 billion decrease in government purchases accompanied by a $5 billion decrease in personal income taxes
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A N D
H I S T O R Y
38. On the basis of empirical evidence gathered during the Second World War, which of the following was most successful in motivating United States soldiers to perform well under overseas combat conditions?
35. Which of the following philosophers asserted that all human beings possess the natural rights to life, liberty, and property? (A) Thomas Hobbes (B) John Locke (C) Augustine of Hippo (D) Aristotle (E) Socrates
(A) Emphasizing to them that the civilian population was dependent on them (B) Developing their dedication to dominant political and ethical values (C) Instilling in the soldiers a loyalty to national leaders (D) Developing in the soldiers a satisfactory self-image of their individual abilities (E) Emphasizing positive relationships among members of small combat units
36. Which of the following is NOT compatible with the traditional conception of bureaucracy? (A) Salaried remuneration (B) Recruitment of personnel by examination (C) A hierarchical structure (D) Decentralization of authority (E) Formal allocation of obligation and duties
39. Of the following, which group was the first to establish trade links with both East Africa and the upper Niger Valley? (A) The Portuguese (B) The English (C) The Arabs (D) The Spanish (E) The French 40. John Steinbeck’s novel The Grapes of Wrath depicts the period of United States history known as the (A) Gilded Age (B) Roaring Twenties (C) Great Depression (D) Cold War (E) Vietnam era
37. According to the map above, which of the following land formations would most likely be found near City X? (A) A plateau (B) A volcano (C) A delta (D) A peninsula (E) A mountain
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45. Which of the following areas of the brain is involved in control of aggression and fear?
41. The Green Revolution of the twentieth century refers to (A) the unparalleled strength of the United States dollar (B) increased agricultural productivity due to the introduction of new crops and technologies (C) the rise of a social and political movement expressing strong environmental concerns (D) the destruction of Brazilian rain forests (E) the political development of tropical countries previously under colonial rule
(A) Hypothalamus (B) Cerebellum (C) Amygdala (D) Cortex (E) Pituitary 46. The cartoonist for Harper’s Weekly who played a major role in turning public sentiment against New York City’s Boss Tweed was (A) Grant Wood (B) Winslow Homer (C) Matt Morgan (D) Thomas Nast (E) Norman Rockwell
42. Which of the following is the most significant effect of mass media on national elections in the United States? (A) Helping shape the agenda for political debate (B) Improving the exposure of little-known candidates (C) Defining party platforms (D) Reducing the influence of money in politics (E) Decreasing the accountability of incumbent officials
47. Which of the following cultures provided a link between ancient Greece and medieval western Europe, designed methods for making steel and leather, and contributed to scientific knowledge of mathematics? (A) Celtic (B) Carolingian (C) Gothic (D) Islamic (E) Norman
43. Which of the following methods of data collection provides the most comprehensive information? (A) Face-to-face interviews (B) Telephone surveys (C) Mail surveys (D) Interest inventories (E) Opinion polls
48. After their defeat by the Chinese Communists in 1949, Chiang Kai-shek and many supporters of his Nationalist government chose to (A) emigrate to the United States (B) ally with the Soviet Union (C) flee to Tibet (D) accept Chinese Communist rule (E) flee to the island of Taiwan (Formosa)
44. Which of the following would increase the demand for workers in the short run? (A) A decrease in the demand for machinery (B) An increase in the cost of production (C) An increase in the price of the product (D) A decrease in the demand for the product (E) A decrease in available natural resources
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49. In sociology and anthropology, a cultural lag occurs when
A N D
H I S T O R Y
52. The Dawes Severalty Act, which was passed by the United States Congress in 1887, did which of the following?
(A) cultural norms have not adapted to new material conditions (B) wealth and income are distributed unequally (C) individuals who are labeled deviate fail to live up to their potential (D) people from one culture are immersed in a wholly different culture (E) the younger generation of a society rejects the ideas of the older generation
(A) Stopped all homesteading west of the Mississippi River. (B) Extended voting rights to Native Americans. (C) Resulted in the notorious Trail of Tears. (D) Divided tribally held lands among individual Native Americans. (E) Extended welfare assistance to Native Americans.
50. According to international relations (IR) theory, nation-states that join international organizations are usually motivated by (A) the desire to move toward world government (B) respect for legal norms (C) popular pressure to join such organizations (D) self-interest (E) religious belief 51. The Russo-Japanese War (1904 –1905) resulted in (A) expanded export trade for Russia (B) predominance of the Russian navy in East Asia (C) Japan’s acquisition of Taiwan (D) the opening of Japanese ports to foreign trade (E) a significant weakening of the tsarist government
53. European imperialism in Africa in the last quarter of the nineteenth century differed from European imperialism in Africa of earlier periods in which of the following ways? (A) It encouraged the African colonization movement in the United States. (B) It promoted the integration of indigenous peoples into all sectors of colonial society. (C) It combined commerce with extensive territorial acquisitions. (D) Its aim was to prepare colonies for independence and democracy. (E) Its central goal was the abolition of the slave trade. 54. For African Americans, the reduction of European immigration during the First World War resulted in which of the following? (A) Government encouragement of African immigration to the United States (B) The endorsement of the racial policies of Woodrow Wilson by the National Association for the Advancement of Colored People (NAACP) (C) The rise of African Americans to positions of power in Southern politics (D) The establishment of Marcus Garvey’s Back to Africa movement (E) The opening of industrial jobs to African American workers
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55. Which of the following would be an example of the Columbian Exchange? (A) The exchange rate between the Colombian peso and the United States dollar (B) The introduction of horses and cattle into the Western Hemisphere (C) The expansion of cocoa bean production to South America (D) The introduction of rice to Europe (E) The introduction of coffee to Europe
A N D
H I S T O R Y
59. Which of the following Latin American countries was one of the original members of the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)? (A) Mexico (B) Brazil (C) Venezuela (D) Colombia (E) Peru 60. Which of the following has been a sacred site for both Christians and Muslims?
56. Puerto Rico became part of the territorial holdings of the United States as a result of the
(A) The Kabah in Mecca (B) Taj Mahal in Agra (C) Hagia Sophia in Istanbul (D) Pyramids in Egypt (E) Angkor Wat in Cambodia
(A) Monroe Doctrine (B) Gadsden Purchase (C) Treaty of Guadalupe Hidalgo (D) Spanish-American War (E) Adams-OnĂs Treaty
61. In the United States and European countries, mobilization for the Second World War differed from mobilization for the First World War for which of the following reasons?
57. Which of the following is an example of a tertiary economic activity? (A) Cultivation of wheat in the Midwest (B) Manufacture of automobiles in Detroit (C) Offshore oil drilling in the Gulf of Mexico (D) Development of ecotourism in Costa Rica (E) Clothing assembly in Malaysia
(A) During the First World War, governments rationed supplies. (B) During the First World War, governments banned immigration. (C) During the First World War, governments banned labor unions. (D) During the Second World War, governments recruited women to work in weapons industries. (E) During the Second World War, governments established agencies to regulate industrial production.
58. An isogloss delineates a region of common (A) temperature (B) barometric pressure (C) altitude (D) dialect (E) religion
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62. The United States Immigration Act of 1965 was significant because it
A N D
H I S T O R Y
65. A map 2 feet by 3 feet at a scale of 1:100,000 would display the appropriate amount of detail for doing which of the following?
(A) led to increased immigration of scientists from Western Europe (B) led to increased immigration of professionals from Asia (C) led to increased immigration of agricultural laborers from Mexico (D) prohibited immigration from Communist countries (E) prohibited immigration of unskilled laborers
(A) Providing block-level directions from a residence to a local elementary school (B) Displaying national weather patterns (C) Determining the best location for a new shopping center (D) Planning a cross-country road trip (E) Identifying highway directions to a city 25 miles away
63. Phillis Wheatley, a slave during the revolutionary era in the United States, was
66. The United States Constitution denies some powers to both national and state governments in order to
(A) a seamstress who bought her freedom from slavery (B) a domestic servant who shielded patriots (C) a published author who wrote poetry (D) an artist who painted revolutionary scenes (E) a spy who provided information on British troop movements
(A) prevent the deployment of the National Guard (B) allow citizens to hold federal officers accountable (C) safeguard individual rights (D) deny unfair welfare practices (E) provide protection of labor rights
64. Which of the following would shift the supply curve for gasoline rightward?
67. The greatest crisis of the United States federal system occurred during the
(A) An increase in the demand for sport-utility vehicles, which use more gas (B) A situation where the quantity demanded exceeds the quantity supplied (C) A decrease in the price of a resource used to produce gasoline, such as crude oil (D) An increase in the price of gasoline (E) An increase in the price of a resource used to produce gasoline, such as crude oil
(A) American Revolution (B) Civil War (C) First World War (D) Cold War (E) Vietnam War
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71. The only state in the United States that has an Asian majority population is
68. To maximize total utility, a consumer will consume a product at the point where
(A) Alaska (B) California (C) Hawaii (D) Washington (E) Oregon
(A) marginal utility per dollar spent on each good is equal (B) total utility per dollar spent on each good is equal (C) total utility from each good is equal to zero (D) marginal utility from each good is equal to zero (E) marginal utility is equal to zero
72. Which of the following is associated with increasing air pollution? (A) Convective turbulence (B) Normal lapse rate (C) Low pressure (D) Temperature inversion (E) The Coriolis effect 73. The purpose of the Constitutional Convention of 1787 was to
69. According to von Thßnen’s model, shown above, key factors in determining the relative locations of agricultural activities near a city include which of the following? I. Distance to market for perishable goods II. Land costs versus land needs for different forms of agriculture III. Population size of the market area IV. Modes of transportation
(A) nominate George Washington as the first president (B) rectify the perceived weaknesses of the Articles of Confederation (C) develop a plan for the compensation of Revolutionary War soldiers (D) strengthen the powers of the individual states (E) declare independence from Great Britain 74. All of the following were federal agencies established in the New Deal EXCEPT the
(A) I only (B) I and II only (C) II and III only (D) II, III, and IV only (E) I, II, III, and IV
(A) National Recovery Administration (B) Social Security Administration (C) Envionmental Protection Agency (D) Agricultural Adjustment Administration (E) Civilian Conservation Corps
70. The ancient Greeks derived their greatest sense of cultural unity through (A) participation in athletic games (B) use of a common currency (C) worship of the goddess Athena (D) preparation of similar foods (E) creation of the same types of civic architecture
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Study Resources
Answer Key
Most of the textbooks used in college-level social sciences and history courses cover the topics in the outline given earlier, but the approaches to certain topics and the emphases given to them may differ. To prepare for the Social Sciences and History exam, it is advisable to study one or more college textbooks for United States and world history, sociology, Western civilization and other related courses, which can be found in most college bookstores. When selecting a textbook, check the table of contents against the knowledge and skills required for this test. The materials suggested for preparing for other CLEP exams may also be helpful. Study resources for the American Government, History of the United States I and II, Principles of Macroeconomics and Principles of Microeconomics, Introductory Psychology, Introductory Sociology, and Western Civilization I and II exams are particularly relevant and can be found in the Study Resources section of the Official Study Guide for these exams. Visit www.collegeboard.org/clepprep for additional social sciences and history resources. You can also find suggestions for exam preparation in Chapter IV of the Official Study Guide. In addition, many college faculty post their course materials on their schools’ websites.
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1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37.
E E A B D C A E A B C A B D D D B C C D A C E C E C D D B D B D A D B D C
38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74.
E C C B A A C C D D E A D E D C E B D D D C C D B C C E C B A B A C D B C
S O C I A L
S C I E N C E S
Test Measurement Overview Format There are multiple forms of the computer-based test, each containing a predetermined set of scored questions. The examinations are not adaptive. There may be some overlap between different forms of a test: any of the forms may have a few questions, many questions, or no questions in common. Some overlap may be necessary for statistical reasons. In the computer-based test, not all questions contribute to the candidate’s score. Some of the questions presented to the candidate are being pretested for use in future editions of the tests and will not count toward his or her score.
Scoring Information CLEP examinations are scored without a penalty for incorrect guessing. The candidate’s raw score is simply the number of questions answered correctly. However, this raw score is not reported; the raw scores are translated into a scaled score by a process that adjusts for differences in the difficulty of the questions on the various forms of the test.
Scaled Scores The scaled scores are reported on a scale of 20–80. Because the different forms of the tests are not always exactly equal in difficulty, raw-to-scale conversions may in some cases differ from form to form. The easier a form is judged to be, the higher the raw score required to attain a given scaled score. Table 1 indicates the relationship between number correct (raw score) and scaled score across all forms.
The Recommended Credit-Granting Score Table 1 also indicates the recommended credit-granting score, which represents the performance of students earning a grade of C in the corresponding course. The recommended B-level score represents B-level performance in equivalent course work. These scores were established as the result of a Standard Setting Study, the most recent having been conducted in 2004. The recommended credit-granting scores are based upon the judgments of a panel of experts currently teaching equivalent courses at various colleges and universities. These experts evaluate each question in order to determine the raw scores that would correspond to B and C
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levels of performance. Their judgments are then reviewed by a test development committee, which, in consultation with test content and psychometric specialists, makes a final determination. The standard-setting study is described more fully in the earlier section entitled “CLEP Credit Granting” on page 4. Panel members participating in the most recent study were: William Alexander Michelle Behr
Norfolk State University Western New Mexico University Richard Bieker Delaware State University Lolene Blake Weber State University Edward Bond Alabama A&M University Michelle Calvarese California State University, Fresno E. Steve Cassells Laramie County Community College Donna Dahlgren Indiana University Southeast Keith Edgerton Montana State University — Billings Carol Engelhardt Wright State University Randy Hanson Colby-Sawyer College Woodrow Hughes, Jr. Converse College Aubrey Jewett University of Central Florida Carlos Juarez Hawaii Pacific University Kevin Leicht University of Iowa Maureen McCarthy Austin Peay State University Donald Melton Arapahoe Community College Mark Moberg University of South Alabama Rusty Monhollon Hood College Kathleen Moyer Holy Family University David O’Donnell Vermillion Community College James Riddlesperger Texas Christian University Lydia Savage University of Southern Maine Richard Seefeldt University of Wisconsin — River Falls John Wade Eastern Kentucky University Sally West Truman State University Pingchao Zhu University of Idaho To establish the exact correspondences between raw and scaled scores, a scaled score of 50 is assigned to the raw score that corresponds to the recommended credit-granting score for C-level performance. Then a high (but in some cases, possibly less than perfect) raw score will be selected and assigned a scaled score of 80. These two points — 50 and 80 — determine a linear raw-to-scale conversion for the test.
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Table 1: Social Sciences and History Interpretive Score Data American Council on Education (ACE) Recommended Number of Semester Hours of Credit: 6 Course Grade
B
C
Scaled Score
Number Correct
80 79 78 77 76 75 74 73 72 71 70 69 68 67 66 65 64 63 62 61 60 59 58 57 56 55 54 53 52 51 50* 49 48 47 46 45 44 43 42 41 40 39 38 37 36 35 34 33 32 31 30 29 28 27 26 25 24 23 22 21 20
100 99 97-98 96 95 93-94 92-93 91 89-90 88-89 87-88 85-86 84-85 83-84 81-82 80-81 78-80 77-78 76-77 74-76 73-74 72-73 70-71 69-70 67-69 66-67 65-66 63-64 62-63 61-62 59-60 58-59 57 55-56 54-55 52-53 51-52 50 48-49 47-48 45-46 44-45 43-44 41-42 40-41 38-40 37-38 36-37 34-36 33-34 31-33 30-32 29-30 27-29 26-28 25-26 23-25 22-24 21-22 19-21 0-20
*Credit-granting score recommended by ACE. Note: The number-correct scores for each scaled score on different forms may vary depending on form difficulty.
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Validity
Reliability
Validity is a characteristic of a particular use of the test scores of a group of examinees. If the scores are used to make inferences about the examinees’ knowledge of a particular subject, the validity of the scores for that purpose is the extent to which those inferences can be trusted to be accurate.
The reliability of the test scores of a group of examinees is commonly described by two statistics: the reliability coefficient and the standard error of measurement (SEM). The reliability coefficient is the correlation between the scores those examinees get (or would get) on two independent replications of the measurement process. The reliability coefficient is intended to indicate the stability/consistency of the candidates’ test scores, and is often expressed as a number ranging from .00 to 1.00. A value of .00 indicates total lack of stability, while a value of 1.00 indicates perfect stability. The reliability coefficient can be interpreted as the correlation between the scores examinees would earn on two forms of the test that had no questions in common.
One type of evidence for the validity of test scores is called content-related evidence of validity. It is usually based upon the judgments of a set of experts who evaluate the extent to which the content of the test is appropriate for the inferences to be made about the examinees’ knowledge. The committee that developed the CLEP Social Sciences and History examination selected the content of the test to reflect the content of Social Sciences and History courses at most colleges, as determined by a curriculum survey. Since colleges differ somewhat in the content of the courses they offer, faculty members should, and are urged to, review the content outline and the sample questions to ensure that the test covers core content appropriate to the courses at their college. Another type of evidence for test-score validity is called criterion-related evidence of validity. It consists of statistical evidence that examinees who score high on the test also do well on other measures of the knowledge or skills the test is being used to measure. Criterion-related evidence for the validity of CLEP scores can be obtained by studies comparing students’ CLEP scores with the grades they received in corresponding classes, or other measures of achievement or ability. CLEP and the College Board conduct these studies, called Admitted Class Evaluation Service or ACES, for individual colleges that meet certain criteria at the college’s request. Please contact CLEP for more information.
Statisticians use an internal-consistency measure to calculate the reliability coefficients for the CLEP exam. This involves looking at the statistical relationships among responses to individual multiple-choice questions to estimate the reliability of the total test score. The formula used is known as Kuder-Richardson 20, or KR-20, which is equivalent to a more general formula called coefficient alpha. The SEM is an index of the extent to which students’ obtained scores tend to vary from their true scores.1 It is expressed in score units of the test. Intervals extending one standard error above and below the true score (see below) for a test-taker will include 68 percent of that test-taker’s obtained scores. Similarly, intervals extending two standard errors above and below the true score will include 95 percent of the test-taker’s obtained scores. The standard error of measurement is inversely related to the reliability coefficient. If the reliability of the test were 1.00 (if it perfectly measured the candidate’s knowledge), the standard error of measurement would be zero. Scores on the CLEP examination in Social Sciences and History are estimated to have a reliability coefficient of 0.91. The standard error of measurement is 3.13 scaled-score points. 1
True score is a hypothetical concept indicating what an individual’s score on a test would be if there were no errors introduced by the measuring process. It is thought of as the hypothetical average of an infinite number of obtained scores for a test-taker with the effect of practice removed.
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