Western Civ I CLEP PDF by Student IC

Test Information Guide: College-Level Examination ProgramÂŽ 2011-12 Western Civilization I

CLEP TEST INFORMATION GUIDE FOR WESTERN CIVILIZATION I

worldwide through computer-based testing programs and also — in forward-deployed areas — through paper-based testing. Approximately one-third of all CLEP candidates are military service members.

History of CLEP Since 1967, the College-Level Examination Program (CLEP®) has provided over six million people with the opportunity to reach their educational goals. CLEP participants have received college credit for knowledge and expertise they have gained through prior course work, independent study or work and life experience.

2010-11 National CLEP Candidates by Age* Under 18 9% 30 years and older 30%

Over the years, the CLEP examinations have evolved to keep pace with changing curricula and pedagogy. Typically, the examinations represent material taught in introductory college-level courses from all areas of the college curriculum. Students may choose from 33 different subject areas in which to demonstrate their mastery of college-level material.

18-22 years 39%

23-29 years 22%

* These data are based on 100% of CLEP test-takers who responded to this survey question during their examinations.

2010-11 National CLEP Candidates by Gender

Today, more than 2,900 colleges and universities recognize and grant credit for CLEP. 41%

Philosophy of CLEP Promoting access to higher education is CLEP’s foundation. CLEP offers students an opportunity to demonstrate and receive validation of their college-level skills and knowledge. Students who achieve an appropriate score on a CLEP exam can enrich their college experience with higher-level courses in their major field of study, expand their horizons by taking a wider array of electives and avoid repetition of material that they already know.

58%

Computer-Based CLEP Testing The computer-based format of CLEP exams allows for a number of key features. These include: • a variety of question formats that ensure effective assessment • real-time score reporting that gives students and colleges the ability to make immediate creditgranting decisions (except College Composition, which requires faculty scoring of essays twice a month) • a uniform recommended credit-granting score of 50 for all exams • “rights-only” scoring, which awards one point per correct answer • pretest questions that are not scored but provide current candidate population data and allow for rapid expansion of question pools

CLEP Participants CLEP’s test-taking population includes people of all ages and walks of life. Traditional 18- to 22-year-old students, adults just entering or returning to school, homeschoolers and international students who need to quantify their knowledge have all been assisted by CLEP in earning their college degrees. Currently, 58 percent of CLEP’s test-takers are women and 52 percent are 23 years of age or older. For over 30 years, the College Board has worked to provide government-funded credit-by-exam opportunities to the military through CLEP. Military service members are fully funded for their CLEP exam fees. Exams are administered at military installations

CLEP Exam Development

The Committee

Content development for each of the CLEP exams is directed by a test development committee. Each committee is composed of faculty from a wide variety of institutions who are currently teaching the relevant college undergraduate courses. The committee members establish the test specifications based on feedback from a national curriculum survey; recommend credit-granting scores and standards; develop and select test questions; review statistical data and prepare descriptive material for use by faculty (Test Information Guides) and students planning to take the tests (CLEP Official Study Guide).

The College Board appoints standing committees of college faculty for each test title in the CLEP battery. Committee members usually serve a term of up to four years. Each committee works with content specialists at Educational Testing Service to establish test specifications and develop the tests. Listed below are the current committee members and their institutional affiliations. David Longfellow, Chair

Baylor University

William H. Alexander Norfolk State University

College faculty also participate in CLEP in other ways: they convene periodically as part of standard-setting panels to determine the recommended level of student competency for the granting of college credit; they are called upon to write exam questions and to review forms and they help to ensure the continuing relevance of the CLEP examinations through the curriculum surveys.

Sally West

Truman State University

Margaretta S. Handke

Minnesota State University, Mankato

The primary objective of the committee is to produce tests with good content validity. CLEP tests must be rigorous and relevant to the discipline and the appropriate courses. While the consensus of the committee members is that this test has high content validity for a typical introductory Western Civilization I course or curriculum, the validity of the content for a specific course or curriculum is best determined locally through careful review and comparison of test content, with instructional content covered in a particular course or curriculum.

The Curriculum Survey The first step in the construction of a CLEP exam is a curriculum survey. Its main purpose is to obtain information needed to develop test-content specifications that reflect the current college curriculum and to recognize anticipated changes in the field. The surveys of college faculty are conducted in each subject every three to five years depending on the discipline. Specifically, the survey gathers information on: • the major content and skill areas covered in the equivalent course and the proportion of the course devoted to each area • specific topics taught and the emphasis given to each topic • specific skills students are expected to acquire and the relative emphasis given to them • recent and anticipated changes in course content, skills and topics • the primary textbooks and supplementary learning resources used • titles and lengths of college courses that correspond to the CLEP exam

The Committee Meeting The exam is developed from a pool of questions written by committee members and outside question writers. All questions that will be scored on a CLEP exam have been pretested; those that pass a rigorous statistical analysis for content relevance, difficulty, fairness and correlation with assessment criteria are added to the pool. These questions are compiled by test development specialists according to the test specifications, and are presented to all the committee members for a final review. Before convening at a two- or three-day committee meeting, the members have a chance to review the test specifications and the pool of questions available for possible inclusion in the exam.

At the meeting, the committee determines whether the questions are appropriate for the test and, if not, whether they need to be reworked and pretested again to ensure that they are accurate and unambiguous. Finally, draft forms of the exam are reviewed to ensure comparable levels of difficulty and content specifications on the various test forms. The committee is also responsible for writing and developing pretest questions. These questions are administered to candidates who take the examination and provide valuable statistical feedback on student performance under operational conditions.

developing, administering and scoring the exams. Effective July 2001, ACE recommended a uniform credit-granting score of 50 across all subjects, with the exception of four-semester language exams, which represents the performance of students who earn a grade of C in the corresponding college course. The American Council on Education, the major coordinating body for all the nation’s higher education institutions, seeks to provide leadership and a unifying voice on key higher education issues and to influence public policy through advocacy, research and program initiatives. For more information, visit the ACE CREDIT website at www.acenet.edu/acecredit.

Once the questions are developed and pretested, tests are assembled in one of two ways. In some cases, test forms are assembled in their entirety. These forms are of comparable difficulty and are therefore interchangeable. More commonly, questions are assembled into smaller, content-specific units called testlets, which can then be combined in different ways to create multiple test forms. This method allows many different forms to be assembled from a pool of questions.

CLEP Credit Granting CLEP uses a common recommended credit-granting score of 50 for all CLEP exams. This common credit-granting score does not mean, however, that the standards for all CLEP exams are the same. When a new or revised version of a test is introduced, the program conducts a standard setting to determine the recommended credit-granting score (“cut score”).

Test Specifications Test content specifications are determined primarily through the curriculum survey, the expertise of the committee and test development specialists, the recommendations of appropriate councils and conferences, textbook reviews and other appropriate sources of information. Content specifications take into account: • the purpose of the test • the intended test-taker population • the titles and descriptions of courses the test is designed to reflect • the specific subject matter and abilities to be tested • the length of the test, types of questions and instructions to be used

A standard-setting panel, consisting of 15–20 faculty members from colleges and universities across the country who are currently teaching the course, is appointed to give its expert judgment on the level of student performance that would be necessary to receive college credit in the course. The panel reviews the test and test specifications and defines the capabilities of the typical A student, as well as those of the typical B, C and D students.* Expected individual student performance is rated by each panelist on each question. The combined average of the ratings is used to determine a recommended number of examination questions that must be answered correctly to mirror classroom performance of typical B and C students in the related course. The panel’s findings are given to members of the test development committee who, with the help of Educational Testing Service and College Board psychometric specialists, make a final determination on which raw scores are equivalent to B and C levels of performance.

Recommendation of the American Council on Education (ACE) The American Council on Education’s College Credit Recommendation Service (ACE CREDIT) has evaluated CLEP processes and procedures for

*Student performance for the language exams (French, German and Spanish) is defined only at the B and C levels.

Western Civilization I Description of the Examination The Western Civilization I: Ancient Near East to 1648 examination covers material that is usually taught in the first semester of a two-semester course in Western Civilization. Questions deal with the civilizations of Ancient Greece, Rome and the Near East; the Middle Ages; the Renaissance and Reformation; and early modern Europe. Candidates may be asked to choose the correct definition of a historical term, select the historical figure whose viewpoint is described, identify the correct relationship between two historical factors, or detect the inaccurate pairing of an individual with a historical event. Groups of questions may require candidates to interpret, evaluate or relate the contents of a passage, a map or a picture to other information, or to analyze and utilize the data contained in a graph or table. The examination contains approximately 120 questions to be answered in 90 minutes. Some of these are pretest questions that will not be scored. Any time candidates spend on tutorials and providing personal information is in addition to the actual testing time. This examination uses the chronological designations B.C.E. (before the common era) and C.E. (common era). These labels correspond to B.C. (before Christ) and A.D. (anno Domini), which are used in some textbooks.

Knowledge and Skills Required Questions on the Western Civilization I examination require candidates to demonstrate one or more of the following abilities. • Ability to understand important factual knowledge of developments in Western Civilization • Ability to identify the causes and effects of major historical events • Ability to analyze, interpret, and evaluate textual and graphic historical materials • Ability to distinguish the relevant from the irrelevant • Ability to reach conclusions on the basis of facts The subject matter of the Western Civilization I examination is drawn from the following topics. The percentages next to the main topics indicate the approximate percentage of exam questions on that topic.

8%–10% Ancient Near East Political evolution Religion, culture and technical developments in and near the Fertile Crescent 15%–17% Ancient Greece and Hellenistic Civilization Political evolution to Periclean Athens Periclean Athens through the Peloponnesian Wars Culture, religion and thought of Ancient Greece The Hellenistic political structure The culture, religion and thought of Hellenistic Greece 15%–17% Ancient Rome Political evolution of the Republic and of the Empire (economic and geographical context) Roman thought and culture Early Christianity The Germanic invasions The late empire 23%–27% Medieval History Byzantium and Islam Early medieval politics and culture through Charlemagne Feudal and manorial institutions The medieval Church Medieval thought and culture Rise of the towns and changing economic forms Feudal monarchies The late medieval church 13%–17% Renaissance and Reformation The Renaissance in Italy The Renaissance outside Italy The New Monarchies Protestantism and Catholicism reformed and reorganized 10%–15% Early Modern Europe, 1560–1648 The opening of the Atlantic The Commercial Revolution Dynastic and religious conflicts Thought and culture 5

Sample Test Questions

3. The great wealth of the palaces and the widespread prosperity of the land were due to the profits of trade, protected or exploited by naval vessels equipped with rams. The palaces and towns were unfortified, and peaceful scenes predominated in the frescoes, which revealed a love of dancing, boxing, and a sport in which boys and girls somersaulted over the backs of charging bulls.

The following sample questions do not appear on an actual CLEP examination. They are intended to give potential test-takers an indication of the format and difficulty level of the examination and to provide content for practice and review. Knowing the correct answers to all of the sample questions is not a guarantee of satisfactory performance on the exam.

The culture described above was that of the ancient

Directions: Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is followed by five suggested answers or completions. Select the one that is best in each case.

(A) Minoans (B) Hittites (C) Macedonians (D) Assyrians (E) Persians

1. The earliest urban settlements usually arose in which of the following types of areas? (A) Coastal plains (B) Inland deforested plains (C) Desert oases (D) Fertile river valleys (E) Narrow valleys well protected by mountains

4. These people maintained their skill as seafarers, traders, and artists. They planted Carthage and other colonies in the western Mediterranean. They developed a new script in which a separate sign stood not for a syllable, but for a consonant or vowel sound. The people described above were the (A) Phoenicians (B) Hittites (C) Assyrians (D) Mycenaeans (E) Philistines 5. Pharaoh Akhenaton of Egypt (c. 1353â&#x20AC;&#x201C;1336 B.C.E.) is best known today for

ÂŠ Bettman/CORBIS

(A) building the largest pyramid in the Valley of the Kings (B) conquering large expanses of territory outside of the Nile Valley (C) developing a monotheistic religion (D) uniting upper and lower Egypt under a single administrative system (E) writing down the first code of Egyptian law

2. The panel above from ancient Ur supports which of the following conclusions about Mesopotamian society? (A) It was primarily composed of hunter-gatherers. (B) It had distinct class divisions. (C) Religion pervaded daily life. (D) Soldiers were drawn primarily from the nobility. (E) Most commoners were slaves.

6. Among the ancient Hebrews, a prophet was

9. All of the following were emphasized by the early Christian church EXCEPT a

(A) a teacher who expounded the Scriptures (B) a king with hereditary but limited powers (C) a judge who administered traditional law (D) a priest with exclusive rights to perform functions at the temple (E) an individual who was inspired by God to speak to the people

(A) ritual fellowship meal in memory of Christ (B) toleration of other religious sects (C) belief in the value of the souls of women and slaves as well as those of free men (D) belief in life after death for all believers in Christ (E) belief in the value of martyrdom, defined as dying for the faith

7. The outstanding achievement of King Hammurabi of Mesopotamia was that he

10. The Roman emperor whose policies rescued Rome from its crisis in the third century C.E. was

(A) issued a more comprehensive law code than had any known predecessor (B) conquered and established dominion over all of Egypt (C) built the Hanging Gardens of Babylon (D) established the first democratic government (E) successfully defended his kingdom against the Assyrians

(A) Augustus (B) Marcus Aurelius (C) Constantine (D) Diocletian (E) Theodosius 11. Which of the following established Christianity as a legal religion in the Roman Empire?

8. Of the following, which helps explain why the Roman Republic gave way to dictatorship during the first century B.C.E.?

(A) The defeat of the Huns, 451 C.E. (B) The accession of Justinian I (C) The Council of Nicaea (D) The accession of Diocletian (E) The Edict of Milan

(A) The government that was suitable for a small city-state failed to meet the needs of an empire. (B) A strong leader was needed because the upper classes feared a rebellion on the part of the slave population. (C) Outside pressures on boundaries could not be resisted by republican armies. (D) Romeâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s period of expansion was over. (E) The Roman senatorial class was declining in number.

12. All of the following invaded the Roman Empire EXCEPT the (A) Vikings (B) Ostrogoths (C) Visigoths (D) Vandals (E) Huns

13. The craft guilds of the Middle Ages had as their primary purpose the

16. All of the following factors played a part in bringing about the Hundred Yearsâ&#x20AC;&#x2122; War EXCEPT

(A) promotion of trade and the protection of merchants (B) control of town government (C) regulation of production and quality (D) guardianship of the social and financial affairs of their members (E) accumulation of capital and the lending of money

(A) The English king had lands in Gascony. (B) A French princess was the mother of an English king. (C) Flemish towns were dependent on England for raw wool. (D) The Holy Roman Emperor wanted to bring pressure on the Swiss cantons. (E) The Capetian dynasty had come to an end.

14. Between the ninth and the thirteenth centuries, all of the following technological elements contributed to improved agricultural production in Europe EXCEPT the

17. Civil peace and personal security were enjoyed to a greater degree in Norman England than in continental Europe principally because the Norman kings

(A) heavy plow (B) horse collar (C) horseshoe (D) water mill (E) seed drill

(A) maintained a large standing army (B) claimed the direct allegiance of the mass of the peasantry (C) avoided conflicts with the Church (D) kept their vassals occupied with continental conflicts (E) developed a centralized and efficient type of feudalism

15. The orders of Franciscan and Dominican friars founded in the thirteenth century differed from earlier monastic orders principally in that the friars

18. Which of the following could have been made immediately available to the reading public in large quantities as soon as it was written?

(A) took vows of poverty, chastity, and obedience (B) broke away from the control of the pope (C) introduced the ideas of Plato and other early Greek philosophers into their teaching (D) devoted themselves mainly to copying ancient manuscripts (E) traveled among the people instead of living in monasteries

(A) On Christian Liberty, Martin Luther (B) Travels, Marco Polo (C) The Divine Comedy, Dante Alighieri (D) Canterbury Tales, Geoffrey Chaucer (E) English translation of the Bible, John Wycliffe 19. A central feature of the Catholic Reformation was the (A) Roman Catholic churchâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s inability to correct abuses (B) establishment of new religious orders such as the Jesuits (C) transfer of authority from Rome to the bishoprics (D) rejection of Baroque art (E) toleration of Protestants in Roman Catholic countries

23. On which of the following issues did Luther and Calvin DISAGREE? (A) The toleration for minority viewpoints (B) The relationship of the church to civil authority (C) The authority of the Scriptures (D) The existence of the Trinity (E) The retention of the sacrament of baptism 24. The principle that the religion of the ruler of a state determines the established church in that state was first adopted at the © Bettman/CORBIS

(A) Peace of Augsburg (B) Peace of the Pyrenees (C) Congress of Vienna (D) Edict of Restitution (E) Peace of Westphalia

20. The building in Córdoba, Spain, shown above, illustrates the influence of (A) Islam (B) Buddhism (C) Hinduism (D) Shinto (E) Animism

25. Between 1629 and 1639, Charles I of England tried to obtain revenues by all of the following means EXCEPT

21. The major consequence of the rise of towns in the eleventh and twelfth centuries was

(A) the levying of ship money (B) income from crown lands (C) forced loans (D) the sale of monopolies (E) grants from Parliament

(A) a lessening of the distinction among social classes (B) the practice of caring for the indigent (C) the decline of royal authority (D) the decline in the social status of the lesser clergy (E) a new social class enriched by manufacturing and trade

26. All of the following are associated with the commercial revolution in early modern Europe EXCEPT (A) an increase in the number of entrepreneurial capitalists (B) the appearance of state-run trading companies (C) a large influx of precious metals into Europe (D) an expansion of the guild system (E) a ‘‘golden age” for the Netherlands

22. In The Prince, Machiavelli asserted that (A) historical examples are useless for understanding political behavior (B) the intelligent prince should keep his state neutral in the event of war (C) people are not trustworthy and cannot be relied on in time of need (D) the prince should be guided by the ethical principles of Christianity (E) luck is of no consequence in the success or failure of princes

27. Castiglioneâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s Book of the Courtier (1528) was intended as

30. The theory concerning the solar system that was published by Copernicus in 1543 REJECTED the popular belief that

(A) a collection of entertaining travel stories (B) a guide to the military affairs of the Italian peninsula (C) a collection of meditations and spiritual reflections (D) a guide to refined behavior and etiquette (E) an allegory of courtly love

(A) Earth revolves around the Sun (B) Earth revolves around the Moon (C) Earth is the center of the universe (D) the Sun is the center of the universe (E) the stars revolve around the Sun 31. During their next war with the Persians following the battle of Marathon, the Athenians won a decisive victory through their use of

28. Which of the following resulted from the defeat of the Spanish Armada in 1588?

(A) horse-drawn chariots (B) new kinds of iron weapons (C) mounted archers (D) incendiary weapons (E) sea power

(A) Spanish domination of the Mediterranean was ended. (B) The invasion of England was prevented. (C) Dutch sympathies for the Spanish cause increased. (D) War broke out between England and France. (E) There was a series of uprisings in the Spanish colonies of Central and South America.

32. Almost every kind of human activity was accepted as worthy of offering to the godsâ&#x20AC;&#x201D; athletic contests, poetry reading, song, dance, drama, prayer, giftbearing . . . There were no elaborate priesthoods; fathers conducted rituals in the household and elected officials served as priests in the civic ceremonies. The religion described above is probably that of the ancient (A) Egyptians (B) Sumerians (C) Greeks (D) Hebrews (E) Persians

29. In the mid-seventeenth century, the area shaded black on the map above belonged to

33. All of the following peoples settled Roman lands bordering on the Mediterranean EXCEPT the

(A) Russia (B) Poland (C) Sweden (D) Austria (E) Brandenburg-Prussia

(A) Lombards (B) Visigoths (C) Jutes (D) Ostrogoths (E) Vandals

34. “I found Rome a city of brick and left it a city of marble.”

37. Which of the following was a primary goal of Cardinal Richelieu’s foreign policy? (A) The weakening of the Hapsburgs diplomatically and militarily (B) The reestablishment of religious unity in Europe (C) The consolidation of French holdings in North America (D) The strengthening of papal influence within the French government (E) The founding of commercial companies on the Anglo-Dutch model

The claim above was made by (A) Pompey (B) Julius Caesar (C) Augustus (D) Tiberius (E) Hadrian 35. Which of the following did St. Francis of Assisi and Dante Alighieri have in common? (A) They were heretics. (B) They were university teachers. (C) They were religious mystics. (D) They were products of commercial towns. (E) They favored the supremacy of the state over the Church.

38. Which of the following was the most effective leader of the Protestant forces in the Thirty Years’ War? (A) Albrecht von Wallenstein (B) Emperor Ferdinand II (C) The Elector Palatine Frederick V (D) Gustavus Adolphus of Sweden (E) Christian IV of Denmark

36. Henry II (1133–1189) increased royal authority in England chiefly by (A) confiscating Church lands (B) usurping the legislative authority of Parliament (C) proclaiming the divine right of kings (D) forming an alliance with the papacy (E) enlarging the jurisdiction and powers of royal courts

39. The reluctance of Elizabeth I of England to open “windows into men’s souls” was an indication of her (A) atheism (B) withdrawal from public pageantry (C) reluctance to inquire closely into personal religious views (D) reluctance to prosecute political opponents (E) insistence on personal rule

The Metropolitan Museum of Art, Rogers Fund, 1930 (30.4.44) Image ÂŠ The Metropolitan Museum of Art

40. The wall painting shown above depicts which of the following?

41. Which of the following was a major innovation of the Renaissance period?

(A) The division of labor by gender in rural Etruscan society (B) The poor treatment of slaves in ancient Greece (C) Activities of children in Sumerian society (D) Men and women working in the fields in ancient Egypt (E) Roman soldiers celebrating a victory

(A) The use of linear perspective in painting (B) The use of marble as a medium for statuary (C) The dome (D) The portico (E) Fresco painting

42. The Normans gained control of England at the battle of

46. Which of the following was the site of a tenth-century monastery that became the center of an important monastic reform movement?

(A) Naseby (B) Agincourt (C) Stamford Bridge (D) Bayeux (E) Hastings

(A) Aachen (B) Avignon (C) Canossa (D) Chartres (E) Cluny

43. Which of the following describes Luther’s reaction to the Peasants’ Revolt of 1525? (A) He first sought what he considered a balanced solution and then strongly supported the lords. (B) He abandoned his initial support of the lords in favor of the peasants. (C) He sought throughout to act as a mediator between the lords and peasants. (D) He declined to act on the grounds that his ministry did not concern itself with politics. (E) He called on the Holy Roman Emperor to intervene. 44. The height of the medieval papacy came with his pontificate . . . In the year before his death he called the greatest church council since antiquity, attended by five hundred bishops and even by the patriarchs of Constantinople and Jerusalem.

47. Which of the following contributed to Portugal’s lead in overseas expansion in the fifteenth century? I. The creation of accurate maps II. The development of better navigational instruments III. Improvement in the design of ships IV. Availability of large numbers of galley slaves (A) I only (B) II and III only (C) I, II, and III only (D) I, II, and IV only (E) II, III, and IV only 48. Which of the following best characterizes medieval town charters?

The pope referred to in the passage above is

(A) They provided townspeople with legal and political freedoms that were not available to peasants and serfs. (B) They were always granted by the reigning secular ruler. (C) They permitted townspeople to spend all tax revenue they collected on the needs of their town. (D) They let peasants migrate freely to the towns. (E) They always provided for popularly elected assemblies that made the towns’ laws.

(A) Julius II (B) Urban II (C) Innocent III (D) Nicholas V (E) Pius II 45. Which of the following was true of medieval universities? (A) They taught only philosophy. (B) They were open only to men of noble birth. (C) They were considered subversive of the feudal system by many kings. (D) They were corporations of teachers and students. (E) They emphasized instruction in the vernacular.

51. You must realize this: that a prince, and especially a new prince, cannot observe all those things which give men a reputation for virtue, because in order to maintain his state he is often forced to act in defiance of good faith, of charity, of kindness, of religion. The quote above addresses which of the following in Renaissance Italy? (A) The transitory nature of political power (B) The threat of papal power (C) The dangers of political liberty (D) The threat of French Invasion (E) The bad reputation of certain Renaissance artists 52. The Treaty of Westphalia, which ended the Thirty Yearsâ&#x20AC;&#x2122; War in 1648, resulted in (A) a defeat for Swedish imperialism in northern Europe (B) the consolidation of Bourbon control over Germany (C) ratification of the territorial fragmentation of Germany (D) a step toward restoring religious unity in Europe (E) the restoration of an independent kingdom of Bohemia

The Metropolitan Museum of Art, Bequest of Walter C. Baker, 1971 (1972.118.95) Image ÂŠ The Metropolitan Museum of Art.

49. The picture above shows a bronze statue created in which of the following cultures? (A) Mycenaean (B) Etruscan (C) Hellenistic (D) Egyptian (E) Byzantine

53. Which of the following did ancient Greek Homeric society value most?

50. In the fifteenth and sixteenth centuries, recruits for the elite Janissary corps of the Ottoman Empire were drawn primarily from which of the following groups?

(A) Education for all children (B) An aristocratic warrior class (C) A patron-client relationship (D) Peace and pacifism (E) Women as entrepreneurs

(A) Well-to-do Christian merchants (B) Sufi religious preachers (C) Noble Muslim landowners (D) Children of Christian peasants (E) Muslim prisoners of war

54. Which of the following statements best illustrates the status of women in the High Middle Ages?

57. Which of the following is the most important factor that enabled the First Crusade to succeed? (A) Participation of women (B) Superior firepower of the papal armies (C) Neutrality maintained by the papacy (D) Disunity of the Muslim world (E) Desire for a Jewish state

(A) Courtly literature portrayed women as objects of devotion. (B) Formal education was available to middle-class women. (C) Religious orders offered a protective haven for abused women. (D) Only propertied widows were allowed to remarry. (E) Women artisans often joined guilds.

58. Which of the following rightfully could be called the Empire of the Steppe? (A) The Ottoman Empire (B) The Mongol Empire (C) The Parthian Empire (D) The Byzantine Empire (E) The T’ang Empire

55. Which of the following was a major feature of the Hebrew religion? (A) It promoted the feeling that the Hebrews were God’s chosen people. (B) It allowed the worship of different gods and goddesses. (C) It owed much of its theology to ancient Mesopotamian religious cults. (D) It did not apply to the social, political, or economic areas of life. (E) It made its greatest impact in the arts and architecture.

59. Russia’s Time of Troubles (1598–1613) ended with which of the following? (A) Expulsion of a Polish occupying army and election of a new ruling family (B) Ejection of the Mongol/Tatar occupiers from Russia (C) A successful war against the Turks (D) Annexation of Ukraine (E) Massive serf revolts

56. A major effect of the flying buttress used in the construction of Gothic buildings was to (A) eliminate the use of mortar (B) reduce the size of the clerestory (C) allow more light into the buildings (D) reduce the construction costs of religious buildings (E) create the optical illusion that cathedrals were wider at their bases

60. Which of the following individuals did the most to spread Greek culture? (A) Aristotle (B) Xerxes (C) Ptolemy (D) Euclid (E) Alexander the Great

64. Augustine (354–430) asserted in his City of God, written between 413 and 426, that

61. The Reformation in Germany and the Reformation in England had which of the following in common?

(A) laws and government are unnecessary in a Christian society (B) humans must strive for spiritual purity, not earthly pleasures (C) sexual abstinence is unnatural (D) God rarely intervenes in the events of human history (E) Jesus Christ is not divine

(A) The King of England and the Holy Roman Emperor led the Reformation. (B) Both permitted believers to freely choose among doctrines. (C) Both preserved monastic orders. (D) They modified Roman Catholic teaching on divorce. (E) They spread their doctrines by military conquest.

65. The Age of Pericles was characterized by all of the following EXCEPT

62. Which of the following most accurately defines feudalism?

(A) the political domination of Greece by Macedon (B) the historical writings of Herodotus (C) an ambitious building program (D) the expansion of the Delian League (E) reforms of Athenian democracy

(A) A system of strong central government (B) A system of centralized economic distribution (C) An agreement to substitute money payments for military service (D) A system based on land grants given in exchange for military service (E) A religious movement

66. Which ancient culture produced the “Epic of Gilgamesh”? (A) Egyptian (B) Hittite (C) Assyrian (D) Hebrew (E) Sumerian

63. The bubonic plague led to improvements in which of the following? (A) Workers’ wages (B) Church administration (C) Prison conditions (D) Transportation (E) Bookbinding

67. An important contribution of Thomas Aquinas was his effort to (A) reconcile reason and the teachings of Aristotle with Christian faith (B) reestablish the supremacy of the Pope (C) defeat the Franks (D) win northern Africa back from Islam (E) halt the progress of the Reformation in Spain

68. Which of the following is a true statement regarding John Calvin?

72. Which of the following was a unifying factor in Old Kingdom Egypt?

(A) He agreed with both Luther and Zwingli on the Eucharist. (B) He opposed the doctrine of predestination. (C) He emphasized the omnipotence and omnipresence of God. (D) He believed in the separation of church and state. (E) He practiced religious tolerance when he governed Geneva.

(A) Monotheism (B) The Nile River (C) The enslavement of the Numidians in the Nile Delta (D) The discovery of iron (E) Protection afforded by the Mesopotamians 73. The Greek city-state of Sparta is best defined as a

69. The Investiture Controversy pitted Pope Gregory VII against which of the following?

(A) tribal state based upon kinship (B) participatory democracy (C) conservative military oligarchy (D) highly artistic and cultural state (E) state in which women had no role in public society

(A) Henry III (B) Henry IV (C) Frederick Barbarossa (D) Maximilian (E) Charles V

74. Which of the following is a characteristic of Minoan civilization on the island of Crete?

70. The constitution of the Roman Republic was comparable to the constitution of England in that it was

(A) Massive palace complexes (B) Use of a written language related to Egyptian hieroglyphics (C) A relatively egalitarian social structure (D) Monotheism (E) Elites who lacked interest in luxury goods

(A) appended with a bill of rights (B) written in Latin (C) never a written document (D) intended to provide limits on the ruler and the nobility (E) designed primarily to protect the rights of the lower classes

75. Magna Carta, signed by King John of England in 1215, did which of the following? (A) It established a written constitution for England. (B) It determined that education should be controlled by monastic houses. (C) It ensured that all landowners possessed the right to vote. (D) It regulated social and legal relations between the king and the great lords of England. (E) It established the supremacy of the English Parliament.

71. The controversies that occurred within the Christian church between the third and fifth centuries C.E. were principally concerned with the (A) divinity of Jesusâ&#x20AC;&#x2122; mother (B) Eucharist (communion) as a central component of Christian religious ritual (C) nature of Jesus Christ and the doctrine of the Trinity (D) proper role of missionaries in spreading Christianity throughout the Roman Empire (E) role of monastic orders in governing the Christian church

76. Which of the following best summarizes the lasting impact of the reign of Henry VII (Henry Tudor) on England?

79. The dominance of Mediterranean trade by Italian city-states can be traced to the

(A) It produced the first major confrontation between king and Parliament over budgetary issues. (B) It led to the establishment of a national legal system based on trial by jury. (C) It resulted in the return to England of all territories lost in the Hundred Years’ War. (D) It marked the beginnings of English colonization of North America. (E) It ended the Wars of the Roses and led to greater political centralization. 77. The execution of Mary Queen of Scots was the catalyst for which of the following? (A) The Dutch revolt against Spain (B) The political union of Scotland and England (C) Puritan opposition to Elizabeth I (D) The sailing of the Spanish Armada (E) An alliance between Scotland and France 78. Male Spartans were able to dedicate their lives to full-time military training and service because (A) Sparta supported itself with treasure and tribute from foreign conquests (B) Sparta’s foreign colonies provided financial support for the army (C) Sparta had extensive silver mines (D) non-Spartan slaves (helots) provided the labor for the Spartan economy (E) non-Spartan merchants paid taxes based on foreign trade

(A) Crusades (B) Ciompi Revolt (C) plague (D) rise of the Médicis (E) defeat of France 80. The schism in Islam between Shi’ites and Sunnis occurred primarily over which of the following? (A) The marriage of Muhammad (B) Regional rivalries (C) Tribal disputes over territory (D) Disputes between Umayyad caliphs over political authority (E) The question of succession to the caliphate

Study Resources

Answer Key

Most textbooks used in college-level Western civilization courses cover the topics in the outline given earlier, but the approaches to certain topics and the emphases given to them may differ. To prepare for the Western Civilization I exam, it is advisable to study one or more college textbooks, which can be found in most college bookstores. When selecting a textbook, check the table of contents against the knowledge and skills required for this test.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.

You may also find it helpful to supplement your reading with books listed in the bibliographies found in most history textbooks. In addition, contemporary historical novels, plays and films provide rich sources of information. Actual works of art in museums can bring to life not only the reproductions found in books but history itself. Visit www.collegeboard.org/clepprep for additional Western civilization resources. You can also find suggestions for exam preparation in Chapter IV of the Official Study Guide. In addition, many college faculty post their course materials on their schoolsâ&#x20AC;&#x2122; websites.

D B A A C E A A B D E A C E E D E A B A E C B A E D D B E C E C C C D E A D C D

41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80.

A E A C D E C A C D A C B A A C D B A E D D A B A E A C B C C B C A D E D D A E

Test Measurement Overview Format There are multiple forms of the computer-based test, each containing a predetermined set of scored questions. The examinations are not adaptive. There may be some overlap between different forms of a test: any of the forms may have a few questions, many questions, or no questions in common. Some overlap may be necessary for statistical reasons. In the computer-based test, not all questions contribute to the candidate’s score. Some of the questions presented to the candidate are being pretested for use in future editions of the tests and will not count toward his or her score.

Scoring Information CLEP examinations are scored without a penalty for incorrect guessing. The candidate’s raw score is simply the number of questions answered correctly. However, this raw score is not reported; the raw scores are translated into a scaled score by a process that adjusts for differences in the difficulty of the questions on the various forms of the test.

Scaled Scores The scaled scores are reported on a scale of 20–80. Because the different forms of the tests are not always exactly equal in difficulty, raw-to-scale conversions may in some cases differ from form to form. The easier a form is judged to be, the higher the raw score required to attain a given scaled score. Table 1 indicates the relationship between number correct (raw score) and scaled score across all forms.

The Recommended Credit-Granting Score Table 1 also indicates the recommended credit-granting score, which represents the performance of students earning a grade of C in the corresponding course. The recommended B-level score represents B-level performance in equivalent course work. These scores were established as the result of a Standard Setting Study, the most recent having been conducted in 2010. The recommended

credit-granting scores are based upon the judgments of a panel of experts currently teaching equivalent courses at various colleges and universities. These experts evaluate each question in order to determine the raw scores that would correspond to B and C levels of performance. Their judgments are then reviewed by a test development committee, which, in consultation with test content and psychometric specialists, makes a final determination. The standard-setting study is described more fully in the earlier section entitled “CLEP Credit Granting” on page 4. Panel members participating in the most recent study were: Andrew Barnes Lolene Blake April Brooks Paul Buckingham Elizabeth Clark Marcia Frey David Frye Kim Klimek Oscar Lansen Wenxi Liu Deena McKinney Jennifer McNabb Martin Menke Michael Nagle Aaron Palmer Jotham Parsons Michael Polley Travis Ricketts

Arizona State University Salt Lake Community College South Dakota State University Morrisville State College West Texas A&M University Kansas State University Eastern Connecticut State University Metropolitan State College of Denver University of North Carolina at Charlotte Miami University East Georgia College Western Illinois University Rivier College West Shore Community College Wisconsin Lutheran College Duquesne University Columbia College Bryan College

To establish the exact correspondences between raw and scaled scores, a scaled score of 50 is assigned to the raw score that corresponds to the recommended credit-granting score for C-level performance. Then a high (but in some cases, possibly less than perfect) raw score will be selected and assigned a scaled score of 80. These two points — 50 and 80 — determine a function that generates a raw-to-scale conversion for the test.

Table 1: Western Civilization I Interpretive Score Data American Council on Education (ACE) Recommended Number of Semester Hours of Credit: 3 Course Grade

Scaled Score

Number Correct

80 79 78 77 76 75 74 73 72 71 70 69 68 67 66 65 64 63 62 61 60 59 58 57 56 55 54 53 52 51 50* 49 48 47 46 45 44 43 42 41 40 39 38 37 36 35 34 33 32 31 30 29 28 27 26 25 24 23 22 21 20

88-90 87 86 86 85 85 84 83 82-83 81-82 80-81 79-80 78-79 77-78 75-76 73-75 72-73 70-71 68-70 66-68 63-66 61-63 59-61 56-59 53-56 51-53 48-51 45-48 42-45 40-42 37-40 34-37 32-34 29-32 27-29 25-27 23-25 21-22 19-20 17-18 15-17 14-15 13 11-12 10-11 9-10 8 7-8 7 6 5 5 4 3 0-2

*Credit-granting score recommended by ACE. Note: The number-correct scores for each scaled score on different forms may vary depending on form difficulty.

Validity

Reliability

Validity is a characteristic of a particular use of the test scores of a group of examinees. If the scores are used to make inferences about the examinees’ knowledge of a particular subject, the validity of the scores for that purpose is the extent to which those inferences can be trusted to be accurate.

The reliability of the test scores of a group of examinees is commonly described by two statistics: the reliability coefficient and the standard error of measurement (SEM). The reliability coefficient is the correlation between the scores those examinees get (or would get) on two independent replications of the measurement process. The reliability coefficient is intended to indicate the stability/consistency of the candidates’ test scores, and is often expressed as a number ranging from .00 to 1.00. A value of .00 indicates total lack of stability, while a value of 1.00 indicates perfect stability. The reliability coefficient can be interpreted as the correlation between the scores examinees would earn on two forms of the test that had no questions in common.

One type of evidence for the validity of test scores is called content-related evidence of validity. It is usually based upon the judgments of a set of experts who evaluate the extent to which the content of the test is appropriate for the inferences to be made about the examinees’ knowledge. The committee that developed the CLEP Western Civilization I examination selected the content of the test to reflect the content of Western Civilization I courses at most colleges, as determined by a curriculum survey. Since colleges differ somewhat in the content of the courses they offer, faculty members should, and are urged to, review the content outline and the sample questions to ensure that the test covers core content appropriate to the courses at their college. Another type of evidence for test-score validity is called criterion-related evidence of validity. It consists of statistical evidence that examinees who score high on the test also do well on other measures of the knowledge or skills the test is being used to measure. Criterion-related evidence for the validity of CLEP scores can be obtained by studies comparing students’ CLEP scores with the grades they received in corresponding classes, or other measures of achievement or ability. CLEP and the College Board conduct these studies, called Admitted Class Evaluation Service or ACES, for individual colleges that meet certain criteria at the college’s request. Please contact CLEP for more information.

Statisticians use an internal-consistency measure to calculate the reliability coefficients for the CLEP exam. This involves looking at the statistical relationships among responses to individual multiple-choice questions to estimate the reliability of the total test score. The formula used is known as Kuder-Richardson 20, or KR-20, which is equivalent to a more general formula called coefficient alpha. The SEM is an index of the extent to which students’ obtained scores tend to vary from their true scores.1 It is expressed in score units of the test. Intervals extending one standard error above and below the true score (see below) for a test-taker will include 68 percent of that test-taker’s obtained scores. Similarly, intervals extending two standard errors above and below the true score will include 95 percent of the test-taker’s obtained scores. The standard error of measurement is inversely related to the reliability coefficient. If the reliability of the test were 1.00 (if it perfectly measured the candidate’s knowledge), the standard error of measurement would be zero. Scores on the CLEP examination in Western Civilization I are estimated to have a reliability coefficient of 0.92. The standard error of measurement is 2.80 scaled-score points. 1

True score is a hypothetical concept indicating what an individual’s score on a test would be if there were no errors introduced by the measuring process. It is thought of as the hypothetical average of an infinite number of obtained scores for a test-taker with the effect of practice removed.

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