BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QG CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC - 35 ĐỀ THI THỬ 9+ MÔN TIẾNG ANH 2021 - DƯƠNG HƯƠNG (BẢN HỌC SINH)

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA MÔN TIẾNG ANH

vectorstock.com/10212099

Ths Nguyễn Thanh Tú eBook Collection DẠY KÈM QUY NHƠN EBOOK PHÁT TRIỂN NỘI DUNG

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC - 35 ĐỀ THI THỬ 9+ MÔN TIẾNG ANH 2021 DƯƠNG HƯƠNG (BẢN HỌC SINH) WORD VERSION | 2021 EDITION ORDER NOW / CHUYỂN GIAO QUA EMAIL TAILIEUCHUANTHAMKHAO@GMAIL.COM

Tài liệu chuẩn tham khảo Phát triển kênh bởi Ths Nguyễn Thanh Tú Đơn vị tài trợ / phát hành / chia sẻ học thuật : Nguyen Thanh Tu Group Hỗ trợ trực tuyến Fb www.facebook.com/DayKemQuyNhon Mobi/Zalo 0905779594

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC

ĐỀ SỐ 1

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO Môn: Tiếng Anh Số câu hỏi: 50 câu - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. complexion B. examination C. exaggerate D. exhibit Question 2. A. student B. statue C. situation D. actually Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. associate B. dioxide C. dedicate D. cosmetic Question 4. A. misfortune B. illegal C. indifference D. discotheque Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. She must _______ in the garage when we came. That’s why she didn’t hear the bell.

A. have been working B. be working C. have worked D. work Question 6. It’s a serious operation for a woman as old as my grandmother. She’s very frail. I hope she _______.

A. gets on B. comes round C. pulls through D. stands up Question 7. _______ from Tim, all the students said they would go camping.

A. Except B. Only C. Apart D. Separate Question 8. He has _______ a valuable contribution to the life of the school.

A. done B. created C. caused D. made Question 9. No matter how much pressure you put on your husband, he won’t budge a(n) _______.

A. inch B. mile C. foot D. metre Question 10. The test was not very difficult, but it was _______ long.

A. too much B. so much C. much too D. very much Question 11. Policemen are sometimes on _______ at night.

A. force B. alert C. cover D. patrol Question 12. He thinks that I was too friendly _______ the applicants.

A. with B. at C. on D. across Question 13. How can the boss act _______ nothing had happened?

A. therefore B. so C. if D. as though Question 14. If you run _______ Tom, give him my best wishes.

A. over B. up C. into D. to Question 15. I gave the waiter a $100 note and waited for my _______.

A. change B. supply C. cash D. cost Question 16. _______ she phoned me did I remember the appoinment.

A. No sooner B. Only C. Not until D. Just before Question 17. I think he is up _______ the job.

A. to B. with C. for D. over Question 18. The manager will reply to all the letters _______ are sent to him.

A. that B. where C. when D. who Question 19. My mother thought that his action was rather out of _______.

A. personality B. character C. being D. role

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. Some ethnic groups have strange customs such as walking on fire to prevent natural disasters.

A. methods for doing something B. accepted ways of doing something C. skills of doing something D. ideas about doing something Question 21. During the war, the shipping lanes proved vulnerable to be attacked.

A. susceptible B. dangerous C. futile D. feasible Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. My brother tends to look on the bright side in any circumstance.

A. be optimistic B. be pessimistic C. be confident D. be smart Question 23. He was so insubordinate that he lost his job within a week.

A. arrogant B. disobedient C. obedient D. understanding Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24. Marry is talking to Linda over the phone.

Mary: "Thank you for helping me prepare for the party.”

Linda:" _______ " A. My pleasure B. The meal was out of this world C. Never mention me D. Of course not Question 25. Linh is going to hold her birthday party at home this Sunday, so she wants to invite some of her friends to attend the party.

Linh: "I would like to invite you to my party this Sunday evening.”

Huy: " _______."

A. Thank you for your offer, but I think it is unnecessary.

B. I would love to come but I have prior commitments. I’m sorry.

C. I am sorry. Can you come to my place?

D. How about going to the cinema?

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

There are many aspects that are involved in taking care of elderly or aged people. Those (26) _______ have the responsibility of taking care of the aged need to be (27) _______ of the various needs and requirements that the elderly have. Elderly individuals who live on their own, without the support of anyone, may have a certain amount of financial needs. Such people need to fend (28) _______ themselves for everything, including food, groceries, medicines etc. Pensioners have the benefit of a steady source of monthly income. Those who do not have any (29) _______ or other source of income would have to live entirely on their savings or through special senior citizens’ government financial schemes or (30) _______ from charitable organisations.

(Adapted from http://www.englishdaily626.com) Question 26. A. who B. whom C. which D. when Question 27. A. know B. understand C. aware D. learn Question 28. A. of B. for C. with D. to Question 29. A. finance B. fees C. expense D. pension Question 30. A. benefits B. management C. donations D. interference Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

For recent graduates, internships may become a stepping stone to full-time, paid employment.

Before accepting an offer to work as an intern you should get some information about the company’s reputation of procuring their interns and decide accordingly. If they usually hire one

intern but have tens of employees working day and night, it is better to look for other companies.

The best place to have an internship position is an organization that gives you an opportunity to gain real work experience and develop your skills instead of using you as a cheap worker.

Another thing that should be considered is the size of the company. Sometimes bigger and more established organizations are better as they have a clear hierarchy and therefore it gives you a clear idea of your position and the job description and most importantly, it will be easier to get a mentor. Startups with only five employees are usually more flexible in terms of job responsibilities and therefore it makes it harder to define your position and get mentors.

After you choose a company, do a little research on the company including the people who work there. You can do a Google search and comb social media such as LinkedIn, Facebook and Twitter to dig deep about the company’s hiring managers and what they expect from a new employee.

Social media is also very useful to keep in touch with as many people as you can and build your network. Do not hesitate to maintain any personal connection you have because those connections could be the first ones who inform you about a new job opening or any vacant positions you can apply for.

If you aim for a dream job, do not overlook an entry-level position just because it offers mediocre salary. Entry-level employees are more likely to be given room to grow and learn from their mistakes. They will also be able to figure out the job routines and get used to them when they actually get the position they have been dreaming about.

As your first few jobs might be very demanding yet less rewarding, remember to have fun and enjoy your life. Working overtime may not always be a good idea to accelerate your career, especially if you have to be more stressed than your seniors who earn bigger salaries. Setting the time for exercise and social life will make your life more balanced and stress free.

Question 31. What should a fresh graduate take into account when finding an internship?

A. Company’s recruitment procedure.

B. Company’s reputation of hiring interns.

C. Company’s worker union.

D. Internship salary.

Question 32. Why is a more established organization a better place to work as an intern?

A. It has flexible work hours.

B. It offers higher salary.

C. It has clear job descriptions.

D. It offers full-time position.

Question 33. What are the recommended media for doing research on the company?

A. Google search, Facebook, LinkedIn B. Google search, Twitter, Yahoo C. Google search, Twitter, Gmail D. Google scholar, LinkedIn, Twitter Question 34. Why is networking important for recent graduates?

A. To get information about job openings.

B. To get information about job security.

C. To keep in touch with an ex-employer.

D. To maintain good relationship with fellow interns.

Question 35. What is the advantage of taking an entry-level position?

A. Getting mediocre salary.

B. Getting promotion.

C. Understanding company’s policy.

D. Understanding job routines.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

There’s no place in the world quite as famous for its culture as the island kingdom of Great Britain. With over two thousand years of culture from which to draw, the nation and its people celebrate weddings with a uniquely elegant sense of poise and class.

A bride’s wedding day is often touted as "the happiest day of her life”, but in all honesty it’s often a very stressful experience as there are lots of conventions surrounding the whole thing and

you can get caught up in family rows, and trying to please everyone. Still it’s a good test of a couple’s courage.

When the guests arrive for a wedding the ushers’ duty is to hand out the correct books, flowers and the order of service, and ensure the guests are seated in the correct places. Traditionally, the side on which people sit depends on whether they are friends or family of the bride or of the groom.

The front rows are generally reserved for close family or friends, with the very first seats reserved for the bridal party. However, in many ceremonies the bridal party will remain standing at the altar during the ceremony along with the bride and groom.

During the ceremony the bride and groom make their marriage vows. Marriage vows are promises a couple makes to each other during a wedding ceremony. In Western culture, these promises have traditionally included the notions of affection, faithfulness, unconditionality, and permanence.

Most wedding vows are taken from traditional religious ceremonies, but nowadays in the UK many couples choose touching love poems or lyrics from a love song revised as wedding vows and some couples even choose to write their own vows, rather than relying on standard ones spoken by the celebrant.

After the vows have been spoken the couple exchange rings. The wedding ring is placed on the third finger of the left hand, also called the “ring" finger. The wedding ring is usually a plain gold ring. After the wedding ceremony, the bride, groom, officiant, and two witnesses generally go off to a side room to sign the wedding register. Without this the marriage is not legal and a wedding certificate cannot be issued.

Question 36. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The bride’s and groom’s vows in the United Kingdom.

B. Traditional wedding ceremony in the United Kingdom.

C. The happiest day in the United Kingdom.

D. Typical features of British cultures Question 37. According paragraph 2, the couple can get stressed on their wedding day _______.

A. as there are lots of conventions between the bride and the groom.

B. due to traditional customs during and after the wedding ceremony.

C. because the newly-wedded couple have to take a test of courage.

D. since the surroundings discourage the couple.

Question 38. The word "they" in paragraph 3 refers to _______.

A. ushers B. guests C. books D. married couples Question 39. The word "vows" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to A. promises B. agreements C. compromises D. arguments Question 40. In a British traditional wedding, the places where the guests sit _______.

A. are conditional on their relationship to the couple B. are seated by the couple C. depend on whether their friends or family are standing D. at the altar during the ceremony along with the bride and groom.

Question 41. According the passage, nowadays what can be replaced traditional wedding vows EXCEPT? A. touching love poems B. love song lyrics C. the couple’s own wows D. the celebrant’s wows Question 42. The wedding certificate will be issued _______.

A. until the bride and groom go off to a side room B. as soon as the couple legalize their wedding register.

C. after the bride and groom exchange their wedding rings.

D. right after the signs of marriage are not legal.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. Viet Nam Airlines regrets (A) informing passengers (B) that flight VN 541 to Ho Chi Minh City is (C) postponed (D) due to bad weather.

Question 44. Mrs. Brown, who (A) was so proud of her new car, (B) drove to work when the accident (C) happened and (D) damaged her car.

Question 45. Snapping turtles are (A) easily recognized (B) because of the large head, the long tail and the shell that seems (C) insufficiently (D) to protect the body.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. ‘Tm sorry. I didn’t do my homework." Huyen said to her teacher.

A. Huyen said to her teacher she is sorry because she doesn’t do her homework.

B. Huyen forgets to do her homework and she says sorry to her teacher.

C. Huyen apologized to the teacher for not doing her homework.

D. Huyen feels sorry for not doing my homework.

Question 47. However hard Tim tried to win the contest, he didn’t succeed.

A. No matter how hard Tim tried to win the contest, he didn’t succeed.

B. Tim tried to win the contest and succeeded.

C. Although Tim tried hard to win the contest but he didn’t succeed.

D. It was hard for Tim to win the contest because he never succeeded.

Question 48. You needn’t have bought too much food.

A. It is not necessary for you to buy too much food.

B. You bought too much food, which was not necessary.

C. You have bought too much food that I don’t need.

D. There is no need for you to buy too much food.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. I went to the supermarket. I wanted to buy food for the whole week.

A. The food for the whole week was not enough so I went to the supermarket.

B. In order to go to the supermarket, I wanted to buy food for the whole week.

C. I went to the supermarket to buy food for the whole week.

D. For the food to be bought for the whole week, I went to the supermarket.

Question 50. Drinking wine is a very bad habit. You had better get rid of it immediately.

A. You should get rid of the habit of drinking wine immediately and you will see how bad it is.

B. Because drinking wine is a very bad habit, you should get rid of it immediately.

C. Stop drinking wine and it will soon become your bad habit.

D. If you stop drinking wine immediately, it will have a bad effect on your health.

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC

ĐỀ SỐ 2

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO Môn: Tiếng Anh Số câu hỏi: 50 câu - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. orchestra B. chasm C. chemical D. orchard Question 2. A. confine B. conceal C. convention D. concentrate Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. individual B. expenditure C. communicate D. necessity Question 4. A. popularity B. laboratory C. politician D. documentary Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. No matter how angry she was, she would never _______ to violence.

A. resolve B. recourse C. exert D. resort Question 6. She refuses to even listen to anyone else’s point of view. She is very _______.

A. open-minded B. kind-hearted C. narrow-minded D. absent-minded Question 7. I am inclined _______ his complicity in the big fraud.

A. about believing B. in believing C. for believing D. to believe Question 8. Do you know the woman _______ next to our teacher?

A. standing B. stood C. stand D. to stand Question 9. Not only _______ to speak to him, but she also vowed never to see him again.

A. she refused B. did she refuse C. she did refuse D. when she refused Question 10. In my small house there are two rooms, _______ is used as the living-room.

A. the large one B. the largest one C. the largest of which D. the larger of which Question 11. Luckily, by the time we got there, the painting _______.

A. didn’t sell B. hadn’t sold C. wasn’t sold D. hadn’t been sold Question 12. She applied for paid leave but her boss rejected her application _______.

A. in hand B. on hand C. at hand D. out of hand Question 13. What is this? It is _______ a horrible smell.

A. giving down B. giving off C. giving up D. giving out Question 14. We have had the roof of our house _______.

A. to replace B. replace C. been replaced D. replaced Question 15. They are going to have _______ trip to Ha Long Bay next month.

A. a two-day B. two-days C. two days’ D. a two-day’s Question 16. It’s not so much her looks I don’t like _______ her inability to listen.

A. as B. more C. than D. for Question 17. She is _______ to leave as soon as possible.

A. cautious B. anxious C. worried D. nervous Question 18. Despite being a very good student, she didn’t fulfill her _______ later in life.

A. making B. potential C. capacity D. aptitude Question 19. He was not aware that he had been under _______ since his arrival.

A. review B. consideration C. discussion D. surveillance Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. He didn’t bat an eye when he realized he failed the exam again.

A. didn’t show surprise B. didn’t want to see C. didn’t care D. wasn’t happy Question 21. Your room is so cluttered. You should tidy it up immediately.

A. messy B. clean C. confined D. unique Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. At first, no one believed he was a pilot, but his documents lent colour to his statements.

A. provided evidence for B. got information from C. borrowed colour from D. gave no proof of Question 23. I’m sorry I can’t come to your birthday party this weekend - I’m up to my ears in work.

A. very busy B. very bored C. very scared D. very idle Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24. Jenifer: "Would you mind if I use your computer for an hour?" - Tim:" _______ ".

A. Not at all. I’ve finished my job.

B. Yes, you can use it.

C. Of course not. I still need it now.

D. Yes, It’s all right.

Question 25. "Have you been able to reach Tom?” - " _______” A. There’s no approval.

B. It’s much too high.

C. Yes. I’ve known him for years.

D. No. The line is busy.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

Love is one of the most profound emotions known to human beings. There are many kinds of love, but many people seek its expression in a romantic relationship with a compatible partner (or partners).

For many people, romantic relationships comprise one of the most meaningful aspects of life, providing a source of deep fulfillment. The need for human connection appears to be (26) _______ - but the ability to form healthy, loving relationships is learned.

Some evidence suggests that the ability to form a stable relationship starts to form in infancy, in a child’s earliest experiences with a caregiver who reliably meet the infant’s needs for food, care, warmth, protection, stimulation, and social contact. Such relationships are not destiny, but they are theorized to establish deeply ingrained patterns of relating to others.

Failed relationships happen for many reasons, and the failure of a relationship is often a source of great psychological anguish. Most people have to work consciously to master the skills necessary to make relationships endure and flourish.

Finding a partner with whom to share a life is a wonderful - yet sometimes difficult - process.

(27) _______ it’s conducted online or in-person, the search will likely push an individual into unfamiliar settings to encounter potential partners. In order to be successful, it is often necessary to go outside one’s comfort zone.

Dating is a process by which people spend time with others in order to gradually determine whether a particular person is suitable (28) _______ a potential mate. Determining whether a connection reflects (29) _______ infatuation or true love can sometimes be challenging, but research suggests that there are revealing clues in behavior.

One possibly counterintuitive indicator of a potential match is one’s sense of self. Someone who would make a good partner may push an individual to discover new activities or beliefs that expand their self-concept. Another early signifier may be stress: repeatedly interacting with someone (30) _______ impression matters deeply to someone can fuel anxiety.

Other indicators include being highly motivated to see the person and investing a significant amount of time, emotion, and energy into the budding relationship.

(Adapted from: https://medium.eom/@souravraj.kumar19) Question 26. A. innate B. difficult C. strong D. lost Question 27. A. When B. Where C. Whether D. If Question 28. A. with B. like C. since D. as Question 29. A. popular B. temporary C. accessible D. available Question 30. A. which B. that C. whose D. what Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

Going to college or university in the United States is very expensive. A year at a prominent four-year university can cost almost $50,000, and this does not include the extra costs of housing, transportation, and other living expenses. There are, of course, less expensive options at colleges that also offer an excellent education. Most four-year colleges cost at least $10,000 per year, and many more are in the $20,000 to $30,000 range. For families in the United States, paying for the education of their children has become a major expense. Many families begin saving money from the time their children are born, and some states offer incentive plans for savings programs.

As expensive as the tuition is, it should be noted that this hardly covers all the cost of providing an education. Buildings, equipment, and salary costs are increasingly expensive, with advanced technology adding tremendous costs for laboratories and other specialized facilities. Universities and colleges constantly seek support from foundations, corporations, and industry, as well as from local, state, or federal government.

In addition to family funds and savings, there are two main types of funding for college: loans and grants. Loans are borrowed money that must be paid back, with interest, although the interest rates for student loans are lower than for some other types of loans. The early years of many workers’ careers are spent trying to pay back student loans. Grants, including scholarships, are gifts of money that do not have to be paid back, but students often must fulfill certain obligations, such as maintaining a certain grade point average or demonstrating family need, in order to qualify.

Scholarships are funds that are earned or competed for, and they may be based on the student’s academic, athletic, or civic performance or on some other condition that has been met by the student or family. Identifying and accessing these funds can be confusing, and even disheartening, for families when they encounter the application forms. Colleges, secondary schools, and other organizations have offices to help students learn about funding resources.

Tuition is only the beginning of the financial investment required for a U.S. education. Costs include educational fees - some are paid by everyone each term, others are related to the courses being taken. Students must also pay for housing; books; other materials; meals; health insurance and health care; local day-to-day transportation, including parking; and transportation to and from home; telephone and Internet use; and any other expenses. Normally, international students pay the higher out-of-state tuition rate at public institutions.

Question 31. Which of the following is the best title of the passage?

A. The cost of college in the United States B. The advantages of going to college or university in the United States C. Types of funding for college in the United States D. Financial support from corporations or federal government for education in the United States Question 32. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?

A. Students at a prominent university spend about $50,000 per year on their study and living expenses.

B. Few four-year colleges cost at least $10,000 per year.

C. Students studying at colleges which also offer a good education pay much more money than those studying at others.

D. Attending university in the United States is costly.

Question 33. Students must _______.

A. repay student loans before graduation.

B. have excellent academic performances or meet other requirements to win scholarships.

C. pay very high interest on their loans.

D. fulfill certain obligations such as getting high grades to borrow money for college.

Question 34. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?

A. Student loans are money that is borrowed must be paid back.

B. Most students in the United States don’t have to borrow money for their study because they are rich.

C. Students must compete for scholarships.

D. Students must also pay for housing, transportation or other living expenses.

Question 35. The word "disheartening" is closest in meaning to _______.

A. dishonest B. irritating C. discouraging D. embarrassing Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Matching the influx of foreign immigrants into the larger cities of the United States during the late nineteenth century was a domestic migration, from towns and farms to cities, within the United States. The country had been overwhelmingly rural at the beginning of the century, with less than 5 percent of Americans living in large towns or cities. The proportion of urban population began to grow remarkably after 1840, increasing from 11 percent that year to 28 percent by 1880 and to 46 percent by 1900. A country with only 6 cities boasting a population of more than 8,000 in 1800 had become one with 545 such cities in 1900. Of these, 26 had a population of more than 100,000 including 3 that held more than a million people. Much of the migration producing an urban society came from smaller towns within the United States, but the combination of new immigrants and old American "settlers" on America’s "urban frontier" in the late nineteenth century proved extraordinary.

The growth of cities and the process of industrialization fed on each other. The agricultural revolution stimulated many in the countryside to seek a new life in the city and made it possible for fewer farmers to feed the large concentrations of people needed to provide a workforce for growing numbers of factories. Cities also provided ready and convenient markets for the products of industry, and huge contracts in transportation and construction - as well as the expanded market in consumer goods - allowed continued growth of the urban sector of the overall economy of the United States.

Technological developments further stimulated the process of urbanization. One example is the Bessemer converter (an industrial process for manufacturing steel), which provided steel girders for the construction of skyscrapers. The refining of crude oil into kerosene, and later the development of electric lighting as well as of the telephone, brought additional comforts to urban areas that were unavailable to rural Americans and helped attract many of them from the farms into the cities. In every era the lure of the city included a major psychological element for country people: the bustle and social interaction of urban life seemed particularly intriguing to those raised in rural isolation.

Question 36. What aspects of the United States in the nineteenth century does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Technological developments B. The impact of foreign immigrants on cities C. Standards of living D. The relationship between industrialization and urbanization Question 37. The paragraph preceding the passage most probably discuss _______.

A. foreign immigration B. rural life C. the agricultural revolution D. famous cities of the twentieth century Question 38. What proportion of population of the United States was urban in 1900?

A. Five percent B. Eleven percent C. Twenty-eight percent D. Forty-six percent

Question 39. The word "stimulated" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.

A. forced B. prepared C. limited D. motivated Question 40. Why does the author mention "electric lighting” and "the telephone” the last paragraph?

A. They contributed to the agricultural revolution B. They are examples of the conveniences of city life C. They were developed by the same individual.

D. They were products of the Bessemer converter.

Question 41. The word "them" in the last paragraph refers to _______.

A. urban areas B. rural Americans C. farms D. cities Question 42. The word "intriguing" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.

A. profitable B. comfortable C. attractive D. challenging Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. (A) Many of the population (B) in our country (C) is composed (D) of farmers.

Question 44. (A) The more the relative humidity reading (B) rises, (C) the worst the heat (D) affects us.

Question 45. It is (A) disappointing that (B) almost tourists who (C) come to the country only visit the (D) same few overcrowded places.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. "Don’t be so disappointed Mary. You can take the driving test again," said Mark.

A. Mark told Mary to be disappointed and take the driving test again.

B. Mark asked Mary not to be disappointed and offered her another driving test.

C. Mark warned Mary not to be disappointed in order to take the driving test again.

D. Mark encouraged Mary to take the driving test again.

Question 47. It is open to question as to whether my sister, Linda, will get the job.

A. My sister, Linda, is being interviewed for the job.

B. It is not certain that my sister, Linda, will get the job.

C. The question is whether my sister, Linda, will get the job or not.

D. If my sister, Linda, could answer the question, she would get the job.

Question 48. My father likes nothing better than playing football in his free time.

A. My father doesn’t like playing football in his free time.

B. My father prefers playing football with his friends after work.

C. Playing football is my father’s favourite enjoyment in his free time.

D. My father not only likes football but also other sports in his free time.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. The boy was very bright. He could solve all the math problems quickly.

A. He was such bright boy that he could solve all the math problems quickly.

B. The boy was very bright that he could solve all the math problems quickly.

C. He was so bright a boy that he could solve all the math problems quickly.

D. Such bright was the boy that he could solve all the math problems quickly.

Question 50. He didn’t go to his friend’s wedding party. She felt so sad.

A. He was sad because his friend didn’t go to his wedding party.

B. He didn’t go to his friend’s wedding party, which made her feel sad.

C. He didn’t go to his friend’s wedding party because she was sad.

D. She didn’t care about whether he came to her wedding party or not.

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC

ĐỀ SỐ 3

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO Môn: Tiếng Anh Số câu hỏi: 50 câu - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. epidemic B. illegal C. education D. competitor Question 2. A. panicked B. ragged C. wretched D. supposedly Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. obligatory B. geographical C. international D. undergraduate Question 4. A. difficulty B. simplicity C. discovery D. commodity Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. When you ________ your destination, your tour guide will meet you at the airport.

A. arrive B. get C. reach D. achieve Question 6. The teacher turned up after we ________ for him for over 30 minutes.

A. waited B. was waiting C. have waited D had been waiting Question 7. Mary is bound to notice that broken vase. She has eyes like a________!

A. goose B. hawk C. dog D. fox Question 8. It’s ________ house.

A. an ancient black stone-built B. a black ancient stone-built C. an ancient stone-built grey D. a stone-built black ancient Question 9. Let’s put ________ as many suggestions as possible.

A. forward B. out C. towards D. up Question 10. It came as no surprise to me that Mai sail ________ the final exam.

A. to B. through C. with D. in Question 11. She ________ live with her grandparents in a small house when she was a child.

A. must B. would C. use to D. should Question 12. The boy and the animals ________ she drew were very beautiful.

A. which B. who C. whom D. that Question 13. English and Math interests me almost ________.

A. equally B. the same C. similarly D. alike Question 14. These personal problems seem to be ________ her from her work.

A. disrupting B. disturbing C. distracting D. dispersing Question 15. He ceiling fans were on, but unfortunately they only ________ the hot, humid air.

A. stirred up B. poured through C. turned into D. cut back Question 16. There is no ________ in persuading him to go out.

A. value B. point C. worth D. profit Question 17. My team lost the final five years in ________.

A. success B. continuation C. succession D. repetition Question 18. I know that she has tried hard; ________ that as it may, her work is just not good enough.

A. come B. must C. should D. be Question 19. No matter what happens Susan never shows her emotions. She always keeps a stiff upper ________.

A. mouth B. eye C. head D. lip Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. The whole city was wiped out in the bombing raids.

A. changed completely B. cleaned well C. destroyed completely D. removed quickly Question 21. Few companies are flourishing during difficult times.

A. taking off B. setting up C. growing well D. closing down Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. It seems that the contract was made behind closed doors as no one had any information about it.

A. secretly B. daily C transparently D. privately Question 23. He performed all his duties conscientiously. He gave enough care to his work.

A. insensitively B. irresponsibly C. liberally D. responsibly Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24. Nam: "I have an idea. Let’s go for a swim on Saturday afternoon”.

- Hung: " ________ " A. OK, what time?

B. You’re kidding.

C. I know.

D. I’m sure.

Question 25. Peter: "Why did Tom leave the party so early?" - Daisy:" ________” A. You don’t say.

B. Why not?

C. Beats me.

D. You left with him very early.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

Becoming independent is an essential part of a child’s journey to adulthood. To make this journey successful, children need freedom to try new things. But they still need your guidance and support too.

Your love and support are essential for your child’s self-esteem. Young people who feel good about themselves often have more (26) _______ to discover who they are and what they want to do with their lives.

Try to (27) _______ in to your child’s feelings. It might help to remember that your child could be confused and upset by the physical, social and emotional changes of adolescence. Your child needs your emotional guidance and stability during this time.

Clear family rules about behaviour, communication and socialising will help your child understand where the limits are and what you expect. Rules will also help you be consistent (28) _______ how you treat your child. Once the rules are in place, apply them consistently.

Your family rules are likely to change as your child develops. As children get more mature, they can make a bigger contribution to the rules and the consequences for breaking them. Involving your child in developing rules helps him to understand the principles behind them. Every family has different rules. You can talk with your child about this and explain that his friends might have different rules, or a different number of rules.

(29) _______ you set the limits too strictly, your child might not have enough room to grow and try new experiences. This period is a learning curve for both of you. Be prepared for some trial and error.

Younger teenagers might think they’re ready to make their own decisions, but they often haven’t developed the (30) _______ skills they need to handle significant responsibilities without your help. It can be a good idea to explain to your younger child why younger and older children are given different responsibilities.

(Adapted from: https://raisingchildren.net.au)

Question 26. A. time B. confidence C. efforts D. money Question 27. A. tune B. understand C. consider D. make Question 28. A. on B. of C. in D. for Question 29. A. Unless B. Although C. Because D. If Question 30. A. making-decision B. decision-making C. decisions-making D. making-decisions Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

Thousands of books have been written on the conflict between parents and teenagers.

Psychologists and sociologists have spent years trying to understand the reasons for the tension and endless arguments between these two groups.

A close look at these arguments often reveals that the reasons are so trivial that we may wonder what the tears and shouts have all been about. Most arguments are not about major issues like the nuclear bomb or the ecological problems of the universe. The fights are usually about simple matters such as food, clothes, the weekly allowance or the telephone.

Let’s take an ordinary day and examine what happens. Problems start around 7 a.m. It is then that parents expect their children to get up, get dressed, eat and go to school. Parents and alarm clocks seem like the enemies of mankind at that early hour. Some parents even expect the "poor" youngsters to tidy up their room and put everything in its place before leaving for school - a ridiculous demand - in the eyes of the "victims". In the afternoon, parents want them to do homework and study hard. They resent their children’s endless conversations on the phone. In the evening, they complain about the clothes and jewelry the teenagers wear and preach for hours about the dangers on the road and the need to be home by midnight at the latest, like Cinderella.

Youngsters expect parents to be more flexible; not to preach and lecture but to advise and explain. They would like them to be tolerant of different views, listen to their problems and respect their privacy. However, even if they don’t admit it, youngsters need the guidance and support of their parents, their approval or disapproval and even their firm opposition on crucial subjects such as drugs or alcohol. They need limits. They need loving but firm authority. In short, youngsters should be more patient and sensitive to their parents’ feelings and parents must understand that they cannot prevent their children from making mistakes. Trial and error is, after all, a very important part of the process of growing up.

Question 31. Most arguments between parents and teenagers are about ________.

A. complicated matters B. dating relationships C. money D. simple matters Question 32. The word "trivial" is closest in meaning to ________.

A. unimportant B. serious C. necessary D. complex Question 33. Parents don’t want youngsters ________.

A. get up early B. hang out with their friends C. wear jewelry D. talk a lot on the phone Question 34. The word "victims" in paragraph 3 refers to ________.

A. all the parents B. all the youngsters C. youngsters suffering from severe abuse D. youngsters required to clean up their room Question 35. Which of the following is TRUE according to paragraph 4?

A. Teenagers don’t want to talk or explain anything to their parents.

B. Parents need to stop their children from making mistakes.

C. Making mistakes plays an important role in helping teenagers to be mature.

D. Parents should let their children have freedom to do anything that they like.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

By the turn of the century, the middle-class home in North American had been transformed.

"The flow of industry has passed and left idle the loom in the attic, the soap kettle in the shed".

Ellen Richards wrote in 1908. The urban middle class was now able to buy a wide array of food products and clothing - baked goods, canned goods, suits, shirts, shoes, and dresses. Not only had household production waned, but technological improvements were rapidly changing the rest of domestic work. Middle-class homes had indoor running water and furnaces, run on oil, coal, or gas, that produced hot water. Stoves were fueled by gas, and delivery services provided ice for refrigerators. Electric power was available for lamps, sewing machines, irons, and even vacuum cleaners. No domestic task was unaffected. Commercial laundries, for instance, had been doing the wash for urban families for decades; by the early 1900’s the first electric washing machines were on the market.

One impact of the new household technology was to draw sharp dividing lines between women of different classes and regions. Technological advances always affected the homes of the wealthy first, filtering downward into the urban middle class. But women who lived on farms were not yet affected by household improvements. Throughout the nineteenth century and well into the twentieth, rural homes lacked running water and electric power. Farm women had to haul large quantities of water into the house from wells or pumps for every purpose. Doing the family laundry, in large vats heated over stoves, continued to be a full day’s work, just as canning and preserving continued to be seasonal necessities. Heat was provided by wood or coal stoves. In addition, rural women continued to produce most of their families’ clothing. The urban poor, similarly, reaped few benefits from household improvements. Urban slums such as Chicago’s nineteenth ward often had no sewers, garbage collection, or gas or electric lines; and tenements lacked both running water and central heating. At the turn of the century, variations in the nature of women’s domestic work were probably more marked than at any time before.

Question 36. What is the main topic of the passage?

A. The creation of the urban middle class B. Domestic work at the turn of the century C. The spread of electrical power in the United States D. Overcrowding in American cities Question 37. According to the passage, what kind of fuel was used in a stove in a typical middleclass household?

A. oil B. coal C. gas D. wood Question 38. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a household convenience in the passage?

A. The electric fan B. The refrigerator C. The electric light D. The washing machine Question 39. According to the passage, who were the first beneficiaries of technological advances?

A. Farm women B. The urban poor C. The urban middle class D. The wealthy Question 40. The word "reaped" in the passage is closest in meaning to ________.

A. gained B. affected C. wanted D. accepted Question 41. Which of the following best characterizes the passage’s organization ________.

A. analysis of a quotation B. chronological narrative C. extended definition D. comparison Question 42. Where in the passage does the author discuss conditions in poor urban neighborhoods?

A. The urban middle... dresses B. Middle-class homes ... water C. Electric power... unaffected D. The urban poor... heating

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. (A) There are few areas (B) of human experience that (C) have not been (D) writing about.

Question 44. David (A) was a (8) bravery man to go (C) on this adventure by (D) himself.

Question 45. (A) Found in 1209, the University of Cambridge (B) ranks (C) among the world’s (D) oldest universities.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. David broke his leg and couldn’t play in the final.

A. David couldn’t play in the final due to his broken leg.

B. If David hadn’t broken his leg, he could play in the final now.

C. If David didn’t break his leg, he could play in the final.

D. But for his broken leg, David couldn’t have played in the final.

Question 47. It doesn’t make any difference if it rain because they will still go to the cinema.

A. So long as it doesn’t rain, they will go to the cinema.

B. But for the rain, they would have gone to the cinema.

C. There is a difference between going to the cinema and staying at home.

D. Whether it rains or not, they will still go to the cinema.

Question 48. I had only just put the phone down when the boss rang back.

A. I put the phone down when the boss rang back.

B. Hardly had I put the phone down when the boss rang back.

C. No sooner had I put the phone down when the boss rang back.

D. Scarcely had I put the phone down than the boss rang back.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. The test we did yesterday was very long. It was difficult, too.

A. Not only was the test we did yesterday very long but also very difficult.

B. Not only was very long the test we did yesterday but it was also very difficult.

C. The test we did yesterday was not only very long, it was also very difficult.

D. Not only the test we did yesterday was very long but also very difficult.

Question 50. He was suspected to have stolen two cars. The police have investigated him for days.

A. He has been investigated for days, suspected to have stolen two cars.

B. Suspecting to have stolen two cars, he has been investigated for days.

C. Having suspected to have stolen two cars, he has been investigated for days.

D. Suspected to have stolen two cars, he has been investigated for days.

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC

ĐỀ SỐ 4

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO Môn: Tiếng Anh Số câu hỏi: 50 câu - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. tortoise B. opinion C. focus D. purpose Question 2. A. nourish B. flourish C. courageous D. southern Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. competition B. repetition C. equivalent D. disappointment Question 4. A. ambitious B. assemble C. equivalent D. vacancy Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. Our company has to ________ ways of reducing costs.

A. take in B. think over C. work out D. look out Question 6. Remember that when doing something, you should ________.

A. weigh up the pros and cons B. turn over a new leaf C. go down well with D. get through to Question 7. She is playing music at ________ volume and disturbing all her neighbors.

A. utter B. supreme C. total D. full Question 8. She is always flying ________ the handle about the slightest things.

A. off B. over C. around D. through Question 9. ________ surprised everybody.

A. That she passed the exam B. Because she passed the exam C. Which she passed the exam D. She passed the exam Question 10. You shouldn’t make a(n) _______ decision. Think about it first.

A. snap B. abrupt C. spontaneous D. careless Question 11. People over eighteen are ________ for membership in this club.

A. legal B. capable C. eligible D. permissible Question 12. The girl was ________ from hospital this morning only a week after her operation.

A. ejected B. expelled C. evicted D. discharged Question 13. His contract ________ in three months, so he’s looking for another job.

A. runs down B. runs out C. goes out D. goes away Question 14. The little girl can’t even sit up yet, ________ stand and walk.

A. but for B. let alone C. all but D. rather than Question 15. I’ve yet ________ a person as David.

A. to meet as interesting B. to have met such interesting C. been meeting as interesting D. been meeting such interesting Question 16. The economic crisis has brought about a slump ________ the world trade.

A. in B. on C. up D. for Question 17. That film was so sad that we all were reduced ________ tears at the end.

A. with B onto C. to D. into Question 18. Thanks a lot of lending me your raincoat; it really came in ________.

A. used B. handy C. handful D. needy Question 19. Ben was ________ something under his breath, but his son didn’t catch what he said.

A. whispering B. muttering C. growling D. swallowing Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. Earthquakes are regarded as one of the most devastating forces known to man.

A. terrifying B. destructive C. fascinating D. mysterious Question 21. That stunning beach was overrun with tourists so I decided to go back another day.

A. having no tourists B. not having enough tourists C. crowded with tourists D. having tourists running Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. A chronic lack of sleep may make us irritable and reduces our motivation to work.

A. uncomfortable B. responsive C. calm D. miserable Question 23. It was apparent from her face that she was really upset.

A. obvious B. indistinct C. transparent D. evident Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24. John is talking to Daisy about the final exam.

John: "I didn’t do well in the final exam’’.

Daisy:" ________."

A. That’s a shame!

B. Don’t mention it.

C. What a drag D. That will be the day!

Question 25. Hoa: “Tm sorry. I left my laptop home.” - Nam:” ________ “ A. Well. You do? I’m sorry.

B. Oh. What a pity for that.

C. Never mind. I’ve got another one.

D. No way. It’s up to you.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

Quan Ho is a Vietnamese style of folk music that is often performed in spring festivals in the north of Vietnam. Bac Ninh province is (26) _______ to the traditional music which was first recorded in the 13th century and officially recognized as the (27) _______ Cultural Heritage by UNESCO in 2009. It is characterized by its meaningful lyrics, folk beauty of music and the way it is performed.

There are a large number of Quan Ho melodies. A pair of female singers sing a ‘challenge phrase’ (cau ra) and a pair of male singers sing ‘a matching phrase’ (cau doi), which repeats the melody phrase. Most of lyrics focus on topics related to love and sentimental desire of young adults.

Hardly any form of cultural activities place men and women (28) _______ an equal basis like Quan Ho; young adults are free to communicate and (29) _______ their feelings with each other and more importantly, lyrics convey their high emphasis on genuine feelings rather than money or social status in a romantic relationship.

Quan Ho seems to be a game instead of a folk music as teams of singers compete with each other through the match of lyrics and of melodies to bring wonderful performance to audiences. The melodies as well as the lyrics are so beautiful and rich in poetry that the appearance of instruments sometimes seems to be abundant; the musical message is sufficient by (30) _______ .

Question 26. A. house B. place C. home D. environment Question 27. A. Intangible B. Physical C. Mental D. Tangible Question 28. A. in B. with C. of D. on Question 29. A. talk B. demonstrate C. express D. infer Question 30. A. it B. them C. itself D. themselves Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

In the modern word, people are always looking for more ways of keeping fit and staying healthy. The following are some ways to help you become healthy.

Running is excellent exercise. Before you begin running you should warm up first by using slow movements that make all your muscles work. But be careful! If you stretch when your muscles are cold, you might hurt yourself. Always wear comfortable clothing and make sure your trainers are in good shape. If you wear shoes that support your whole foot well, you will put less pressure on your knees. You should start exercising slowly, at a pace you can keep up for about 15 minutes. Try to exercise on soft ground, as this will protect your knees and hips from too much stress.

It’s OK if you sometimes go to bed late but if you usually cut down on your sleep, it will soon have a negative effect on your skin. If you get a good night’s rest, it will do you the world of good.

Lack of sleep can cause acne or dry skin. Make sure that you get a good night’s sleep by going to bed and getting up at regular times: don’t burn the candle at both ends. During the day, keep active: if you don’t get enough exercise during the day, you may end up sleepless all night.

Most of us live in big polluted cities. If you got more fresh air, you would look healthier and more attractive. A brisk walk is one of the best things you can do for circulation and appearance.

Walking slowly is useful but a quick pace gets more oxygen into your lungs. So don’t just go for a pleasant stroll, try and find an area that doesn’t have much pollution, and get moving!

Many young people feel guilty about eating too much chocolate, and some even say that they are addicted to it, though there is no evidence to support this. Nevertheless, if your diet is balanced, you needn’t feel guilty: eating chocolate in moderation is fine - but don’t eat it instead of a proper meal!

Question 31. The writer says that you should ________.

A. start running as quickly as possible B. run before start doing exercise C. run before you warm up D. warm up before running Question 32. Running on soft ground is good because ________.

A. it makes your hips weaker B. you will feel more relaxed C. it is better for your knees D. it protects your trainers Question 33. The writer says that going to bed late ________.

A. has no negative effects on your health B. does harm to your skin C. will make you feel comfortable D. is OK if you get up early Question 34. The best way to get more oxygen is ________.

A. walking slowly B. walking quickly along the busy street C. walking quickly in a place where there is no or little pollution D. going for a pleasant stroll Question 35. It is OK to eat chocolate ________, A. if you have a balanced diet B. if it doesn’t a lot of fat C. if it gives you pleasure D. if you eat it regularly Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Railroads reshaped the North American environment and reoriented North American behavior.

"In a quarter of a century", claimed the Omaha Daily Republican in 1883, "they have made the people of the United States homogeneous, breaking through the peculiarities and provincialisms which marked separate and unmingling sections.”

The railroad simultaneously stripped the landscape of the natural resources, made velocity of transport and economy of scale necessary parts of industrial production, and carried consumer goods to households; it dispatched immigrants to unsettled places, drew emigrants away from farms and villages to cities, and sent men and guns to battle. It standardized time and travel, seeking to annihilate distance and space by allowing movement at any time and in any season or type of weather. In its grand and impressive terminals and stations, architects recreated historic Roman temples and public baths, French chateaus and Italian bell towers - edifices that people used as

stages for many of everyday life’s high emotions: meeting and parting, waiting and worrying, planning new starts or coming home.

Passenger terminals, like the luxury express trains that hurled people over spots, spotlight the romance of railroading. (The twentieth-Century Limited sped between Chicago and New York in twenty hours by 1915). Equally important to everyday life were the slow freight transport chugging through industrial zones, the morning and evening commuter locals shuttling back urban terminals, and the incessant comings and goings that occurred in the classifications, or switching, yards.

Moreover, in addition to its being a transportation pathway equipped with a mammoth physical plant of tracks signals, crossings, bridges, and junctions, plus telegraph and telephone lines the railroad nurtured factory complexes, warehouses, and generating stations, forming along its rightof-way what has aptly been called "the metropolitan corridor" of the American landscape.

Question 36. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The influence of ancient architecture on the design of railroad terminals.

B. The importance of natural resources in the development of railroads.

C. The railroad’s impact on daily life in the United States in the nineteenth century.

D. Technological improvements in the area of communication in the nineteenth century.

Question 37. It can be inferred from the quote from the Omaha Daily Republican in the first paragraph that railroads ________.

A. made all sections of the nation much wealthier B. brought more unity to what had been a fragmented nation C. reduced dependence on natural resources D. had no effect on the environment of the United States Question 38. The word "it” in paragraph 2 refers to ________.

A. transport B. scale C. production D. railroad Question 39. The word "annihilate" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.

A. conquer B. utilize C. separate D. mechanize Question 40. All of the following were true of impressive passenger terminals EXCEPT ________.

A. their architecture was influenced by the architecture of Europe B. luxury express trains traveled between them C. they were usually located in small towns D. they were important to many commuters Question 41. According to the passage, which type of development lined the area along the metropolitan corridor ________.

A. stores and shopping areas B. recreational areas C. industrial D. agricultural Question 42. The author mentions the Twentieth-Century Limited as an example of ________.

A. a luxury train B. a commuter train C. a freight train D. an underground train Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. (A) According to a research, (B) many traumatic experiences (C) has been traced to events (D) during childhood.

Question 44. These dams were (A) used to control flooding, provide water for (B) irrigation, and (C) generating electricity (D) for the local area.

Question 45. When you talk (A) to the old woman, please remember (B) to speak out (C) as she’s (D) hard of hearing.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. We bought two motorbikes. Neither of them worked well.

A. We bought two motorbikes, of which neither worked well.

B. We bought two motorbikes which neither of worked well.

C. We bought two motorbikes, neither of whom worked well.

D. We bought two motorbikes, neither of which worked well.

Question 47. Michael said, "You’d better not lend them any money, Jane.”

A. Michael asked Jane if she had lent them any money.

B. Michael commanded Jane not to lend them any money.

C. Michael advised Jane not to lend them any money.

D. Michael ordered Jane not to lend them any money.

Question 48.They haven’t heard any news from her so far.

A. No news has been heard from her so far.

B. No news is heard from her so far.

C. No news have been heard from her so far.

D. Any news has been heard from her so far.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. Nam cannot lend me the book now. He has not finished reading it yet.

A. As long as Nam cannot finish reading the book, he will lend it to me.

B. Having finished reading the book, Nam cannot lend it to me.

C. Nam cannot lend me the book until he has finished reading it.

D. Not having finished reading the book, Nam will lend it to me.

Question 50. My friend is an efficient engineer. It is hard for him to get a job.

A. It is hard for my friend to get a job because he is an efficient engineer B. That my friend is an efficient engineer makes it hard for him to get a job.

C. Despite the fact that my friend is an efficient engineer, he finds it hard to get a job.

D. If my friend wouldn’t be an efficient engineer, he would get a job.

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC

ĐỀ SỐ 5

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO Môn: Tiếng Anh Số câu hỏi: 50 câu - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. vision B. equation C. decision D. competition Question 2. A. appreciate B. efficient C. suspicious D. apprentice Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. majority B. ceremony C. astronomy D. investiture Question 4. A. appliance B. ancestor C. ancestry D. absolute Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. At that time, I was at a _______ to know what to say.

A. blank B. pain C. loss D. crisis Question 6. It never _______ my mind that she might lose.

A. passed B. filled C. crossed D. occurred Question 7. If he _______ hard for the exam last month, he a first-year student now.

A. studied - would be B. had studied - would have been C. studied - would have been D. had studied - would be Question 8. He can always bank _______ his sister to give him useful advice.

A. of B. for C. at D. on Question 9. She saw _______ of tiny, multi-coloured fish.

A. shoals B. flocks C. teams D. swamps Question 10. We will have to _______ the decision until Tom gets back from his holiday.

A. confer B. defer C. refer D. infer Question 11. I don’t think that TV viewers like that film, _______?

A. don’t I B. do I C. don’t they D. do they Question 12. My mother decided to give up her job for the _______ of her children.

A. sake B. care C. advantage D. concern Question 13. My grandmother’s savings were considerable as she had _______ some money every week.

A. put by B. put in C. put apart D. put down Question 14. When I went into dining room later, the _______ of the dinner were still on the table.

A. remains B. results C. remnants D. relics Question 15. When his alarm went off, he shut it off and slept for _______ 15 minutes.

A. other B. others C another D. the others Question 16. You look rather _______. Are you worried about something?

A. occupant B. preoccupying C. occupied D. preoccupied Question 17. He was _______ disappointed at the result of the exam.

A. bitterly B. strongly C. heavily D. seriously Question 18. I can’t stand my cousin. She’s always blowing her own _______ and telling everyone that she knows everything.

A. balloon B. breath C. mind D. trumpet Question 19. Lan’s illness made her _______ of concentration.

A. incompetent B. unable C. incapable D. powerless Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. People who drive their cars so fast really get up my nose.

A. frighten me B. please me C. annoy me D. worry me Question 21. She was like a cat on a hot tin roof before her driving test.

A. very nervous B. very busy C. very tired D. very relaxed Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. I don’t like my new neighbor. She is a cold fish.

A. displeased B. friendly C. unsympathetic D. enthusiastic Question 23. Emissions from the factory are widely suspected of having a detrimental effect on health.

A. considerable B. harmful C. enormous D. beneficial Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24. Customer: "Can I try this shirt on?"

Salesgirl: " _______."

A. No, the shop is closed in an hour.

B. Sorry, only cash is accepted here.

C. Yes, it is quite cheap. It costs fifty dollars. D. Sure, the changing rooms are over there.

Question 25. David is in Ha Noi City and is asking for directions to the post office.

David: "Can you show me the way to the nearest post office, please?" - Passer-by:" _______ " A. No way.

B. Just round the corner over there.

C. Look it up in a dictionary!

D. There’s no traffic near here.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

A certain relationship cannot exist without communication. A healthy relationship does not exist without effective communication. (26) _______ effective communication we create the characteristics of healthy relationships, such as trust, openness, and intimacy. We need effective communication to resolve conflicts, solve problems, and make decisions that contribute to the strength of a relationship. While patterns of communication may vary according to our personal style and family and cultural background, being able to (27) _______ our values, opinions, feelings, and dreams is important in any meaningful relationship. Everything we know about ourselves and others can only be processed through some form of communication. Effective communication is a shared responsibility that involves both sending and receiving messages. Strategies for effective communication involve verbal skills, active listening, and the ability to resolve problems or issues.

Communication in relationships is one of the most (28) _______ and strategic activities of human beings. It often takes place at an emotional level as we disclose our likes and dislikes, our opinions and suggestions, and our wants and needs. This intimate form of communication is best done face to face when each person is able to use the full range of verbal and non- verbal nuances of communication (29) _______ a message is delivered clearly and received without misunderstandings. We traditionally establish our communication skills by observing and imitating others around us. It is, therefore, important to (30) _______ students with many opportunities to practise effective communication strategies.

Question 26. A. Because B. Through C. For D. If Question 27. A. talk B. express C. impress D. declare Question 28. A. expensive B. boring C. complex D. simple Question 29. A. if B. that C. which D. so that Question 30. A. provide B. maintain C. have D. give

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

Saving energy means saving money and conserving our natural resources. Homeowners and renters know this basic fact, but they often don’t know what kinds of adjustments they can make in their homes and apartments that will result in savings.

For those willing to spend some time and money to reap long-term energy savings, an energy audit is the way to go. An energy auditor will come into your home and assess its energy efficiency.

The auditor will pinpoint areas of your home that use the most energy and offer solutions to lower your energy use and costs. Trained energy auditors know what to look for and can locate a variety of flaws that may be resulting in energy inefficiency, including inadequate insulation, construction flaws, and uneven heat distribution.

There are quicker and less costly measures that can be taken as well. One way to save money is to replace incandescent lights with fluorescents. This can result in a savings of more than 50% on your monthly lighting costs.

When it’s time to replace old appliances, it’s wise to spend a bit more for an energy-efficient model, and be sure that you are taking advantage of energy-saving settings already on your current refrigerator, dishwasher, washing machine, or dryer.

Windows provide another opportunity to cut your energy costs. Caulk old windows that might be leaky to prevent drafts, and choose double-paned windows if you’re building an addition or replacing old windows.

Most areas of your home or apartment offer opportunities to save energy and money. The results are significant and are well worth the effort.

Question 31. Which two main organizational schemes can be identified in this passage?

A. Hierarchical order and order by topic.

B. Order by topic and cause and effect.

C. Hierarchical order and chronological order.

D. Chronological order and compare and contrast.

Question 32. Which of the following ideas is NOT included in this passage?

A. You can reduce your $130 monthly lighting costs to $65 by using fluorescent bulbs instead of incandescent.

B. Double-paned windows can cut energy costs.

C. Your local energy company will send an energy auditor at your request.

D. Some appliances have energy-saving settings.

Question 33. Which of the following best expresses the main idea of this passage?

A. There are many things a homeowner or renter can do to save energy and money.

B. Hiring an energy auditor will save energy and money.

C. Homeowners and renters don’t know what they can do to save energy and money.

D. Replacing windows and light bulbs are well worth the effort and cost.

Question 34. According to the passage, which of the following would an energy auditor NOT do?

A. Check for construction flaws.

B. Look for problems with heat distribution.

C. Offer solutions to lower your energy costs.

D. Locate a variety of flaws that may result in energy inefficiency and fix them.

Question 35. According the passage, double-paned windows _______.

A. are energy efficient.

B. should only be used as replacement windows.

C. should only be used in new additions to homes.

D. will lower your heating costs by 50%.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Fungi, of which there are over 100,000 species, including yeasts and other single-celled organisms as well as the common molds and mushrooms, were formerly classified as members of the plant kingdom. However, in reality they are very different from plants and today they are placed in a separate group altogether. The principal reason for this is that none of them possesses chlorophyll, and since they cannot synthesize their own carbohydrates, they obtain their supplies either from the breakdown of dead organic matter or from other living organisms. Furthermore the walls of fungal cells are not made of cellulose, as those of plants are, but of another complex sugar like polymer called chitin, the material from which the hard outer skeletons of shrimps, spiders, and insects are made. The difference between the chemical composition of the cell walls of fungi and those of plants is of enormous importance because it enables the tips of the growing hyphae, the threadlike cells of the fungus, to secrete enzymes that break down the walls of plant cells without having any effect on those of the fungus itself. It is these cellulose-destroying enzymes that enable fungi to attack anything made from wood, wood pulp, cotton, flax, or other plant material.

The destructive power of fungi is impressive. They are a major cause of structural damage to building timbers, a cause of disease in animals and humans, and one of the greatest causes of agricultural losses. Entire crops can be wiped out by fungal attacks both before and after harvesting.

Some fungi can grow at +50°C, while others can grow at -5°C, so even food in cold storage may not be completely safe from them. On the other hand, fungi bring about the decomposition of dead organic matter, thus enriching the soil and returning carbon dioxide to the atmosphere. They also enter into a number of mutually beneficial relationships with plants and other organisms. In addition, fungi are the source of many of the most potent antibiotics used in clinical medicine, including penicillin.

Question 36. What does paragraph 1 mainly discuss?

A. Differences between simple and complex fungi.

B. Functions of chlorophyll in plants.

C. Functions of sugar in the walls of fungal cells.

D. Differences between fungi and plants.

Question 37. The word "principal" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. true B. main C. logical D obvious Question 38. According to the passage, how do fungi obtain carbohydrates?

A. The absorb carbohydrates from their own cell walls.

B. They synthesize chlorophyll to produce carbohydrates.

C. They produce carbohydrates by breaking down chitin.

D. They acquire carbohydrates from other organic matter, both living and dead.

Question 39. The passage mentions shrimps, spiders, and insects because their skeletons _______.

A. can be destroyed by fungi B. have unusual chemical compositions C. contain a material found in the walls of fungal cells D. secrete the same enzymes as the walls of fungal cells do Question 40. The word "those" in line 13 refers to _______.

A. tips B. hyphae C. enzymes D. walls Question 41. The passage describes the negative effects of fungi on all the following EXCEPT _______.

A. buildings B. animals C. food D. soil Question 42. The passage mentions "penicillin" as an example of _______.

A. a medicine derived from plants B. a beneficial use of fungi C. a product of the relationship between plants and fungi D. a type of fungi that grows at extreme temperatures.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. Animals and human beings use (A) the energy (B) finding in food (C) to operate their (D) body.

Question 44. The oxygen in (A) the air we (B) breathe has no (C) tasted, smell, (D) or color.

Question 45. Some psychologists believe that (A) those who are encouraged to be independent, (B) responsible and competent in (C) childhood are (D) likely more than others to become motivated to achieve success.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. “True, stop playing with the knife, or else you will get a cut.” said the father.

A. The father asked True to play with the knife.

B. The father ordered True to get a cut.

C. The father warned True not to play with the knife.

D. The father accused True of getting a cut.

Question 47. I thought he was the right person for the position, yet it turned out that he was quite useless.

A. Because I was expecting him to be incompetent, I was shocked to see him perform rather well.

B. I was mistaken about his suitability for the position since he proved rather incompetent.

C. Contrary to my initial impression, he was not totally unsuitable for the position.

D. I was right in thinking that he was totally useless for the job.

Question 48. Susan finds it hard to get on well with her new neighbors.

A. Susan cannot live in harmony with her new neighbors.

B. Susan’s new neighbors are so hard on her.

C. It is impossible for Susan to fall out with her new neighbors.

D. Because of her new neighbors, Susan cannot get on well with everyone.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. Calling Mary is pointless. Her phone runs out.

A. It is useless calling Mary because her phone runs out.

B. It’s no use to call Mary because her phone runs out.

C. You need to call Mary because her phone runs out.

D. It’s worth calling Mary because her phone runs out.

Question 50. His living conditions were difficult. However, he studied very well.

A. Although he lived in difficult conditions, but he studied very well.

B. He studied very well thanks to the fact that he lived in difficult conditions.

C. Difficult as his living conditions, he studied very well.

D. He studied very well despite his difficult living conditions.

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC

ĐỀ SỐ 6

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO Môn: Tiếng Anh Số câu hỏi: 50 câu - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. hatred B. sacred C. warned D. crooked Question 2. A. suggestion B. meditation C. position D. section Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. independence B. illiterate C. exhibition D. understanding Question 4. A. offensive B. delicious C. dangerous D. religious Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. I’ve been ________ advised not to say anything.

A. seriously B. greatly C. strongly D. significantly Question 6. On ________ she had won the first prize, she jumped for joy.

A. telling B. she was told C. being told D. having told Question 7. The building ________ last year.

A. destroyed B. has destroyed C. was destroyed D. has been destroyed Question 8. My grandmother was a lovely person who ________ pleasure from helping others.

A. gathered B. derived C. deduced D. collected r Question 9. ________ of all the staff, I would like to wish you a happy retirement.

A. Instead B. In place C. On behalf D. On account Question 10. I can’t imagine ________ anywhere except here.

A. studying B. to study C. study D. that I study Question 11. She is completely deaf. You should ________ allowance for her.

A. bring B. take C. make D. find Question 12. Thanh is a friendly girl who ________ everyone she meets.

A. gets up B. gets on with C. gets over D. gets out of Question 13. It’s a secret. You ________ let anyone know about it.

A. mustn’t B. needn’t C. mightn’t D. may not Question 14. By the year 2050, many people currently employed ________ their jobs.

A. have lost B. will be losing C. will have lost D. are losing Question 15. He blamed ________ me ________ not explaining the lesson ________ the students carefully.

A. on/ for/ to B. Ø/ about/ for C. for/ on/ for D. Ø/ for/ to Question 16. You can ask him anything about computers. He actually has quite a good ________ for programming.

A. head B. understanding C. knowledge D. ability Question 17. The situation is getting out of ________ We should do something before it turns into a bitter row.

A. capacity B. charge C. hand D. discipline Question 18. Nothing ________ the ordinary ever happens here.

A. about B. out of C. from D. within Question 19. I was glad when he said that his car was ________.

A. for me use B. at my use C. for my use D. at my disposal Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. Soccer is my father’s favourite sport. He is infatuated with it.

A. besotted with B. responsible for C. obsessed with D. compatible with Question 21. Many immigrants were compelled to assimilate into the dominant culture.

A. forced B. encouraged C. stimulated D. inspired Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. I threw his jacket back in his face, got back in my car, and drove home like a bat out of hell, screaming the whole way.

A. very fast B. very slowly C. very carefully D. very emotionally Question 23. None of his novels lends itself to being made into a film; they just simply lack a coherent storyline.

A. inconvenient B. untamable C. inconceivable D. unsuitable for Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24. Tim is talking to Tom about their friends’ marriage.

Tim: "They got divorced.” - Tom:" ________ " A. I have no idea. Can you give a clue?

B. Right, be careful with them.

C. Congratulations!

D. You don’t say!

Question 25. Hoa: "Mommy, I’ve passed the final exam with flying colours." Mom:" ________” A. Sorry to hear that.

B. Congratulations!

C. That’s right.

D. How many colours?

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

The result of Mary’s first term exams came out and when her mother went to collect it, she was (26) _______ to see Mary’s poor result. On reaching home, she called Mary, scolded her and in the end gave her some advice regarding her studies. She told Mary to work hard, (27) _______ very carefully to the teacher and stop wasting her time in useless activities. But Mary turned a deaf ear to her mother’s advice. Soon she realised that she had lost her (28) _______ in the class. The teachers didn’t think so well of her now due to her poor marks and some of her good friends, who were also good in studies, preferred to sit in the class and spend time with those who were good in studies.

She realised that life was not about having fun only; it is about doing something (29) _______ in order to achieve something. She then started to work hard. Her grades eventually (30) _______ and her teachers were satisfied with her. Her mother was glad that she had accepted her advice. Mary continued to work hard and she did very well in her final exams. If she had not accepted her mother’s advice she would not have been successful.

Question 26. A. disappointing B. upset C. challenging D. agnostic Question 27. A. taunt B. belittle C. avoid D. listen Question 28. A. stamina B. failure C. love D. position Question 29. A. constructive B. disastrous C. cowardly D. innovation Question 30. A. severe B. significant C. improved D. motivate Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

The first jazz musicians played in New Orleans during the early 1900’s. After 1917, many of the New Orleans musicians moved to the south side of Chicago, where they continued to play their style of jazz. Soon Chicago was the new-center for jazz.

Several outstanding musicians emerged as leading jazz artists in Chicago. Daniel Lotus "Satchmo" Armstrong, born in New Orleans in 1900, was one. Another leading musician was

Joseph King Oliver, who is also credited with having discovered Armstrong, when they were both in New Orleans. While in Chicago, Oliver asked Armstrong, who was in New Orleans, to join his band. In 1923 King Oliver’s Creole Jazz Band made the first important set of recordings by a Hot Five and Hot Seven bands under Louis Armstrong also made recordings of special note.

Although Chicago’s South Side was the main jazz center, some musicians in New York were also demanding attention in jazz circles. In 1923 Fletcher Henderson already had a ten - piece band that played jazz. During the early 1930’s, the number of players grew to sixteen. Henderson’s band was considered a leader in what some people have called the Big Band Era. By the 1930’s, big dance bands were the rage. Large numbers of people went to ballrooms to dance to jazz music played by big bands.

One of the most popular and also a very famous jazz band was the Duke Ellington band.

Edward "Duke” Ellington was born in Washington, D.C., in 1899 and died in New York City in 1974. He studied the piano as a young boy and later began writing original musical compositions.

The first of Ellington’s European tours came in 1933. He soon received international fame for his talent as a band leader, composer and arranger. Ten years later, Ellington began giving annual concerts at Carnegie Hall in New York City. People began to listen to jazz in the same way, that they had always listened to classical music.

Question 31. It can be inferred from the passage that Louis Armstrong went to Chicago for which of the following reasons?

A To form his own band.

B. To learn to play Chicago - style jazz.

C. To play in Joseph Oliver’s band.

D. To make recordings with the Hot Five.

Question 32. According to the passage, which of the following Black bands was the first to make a significant set of jazz recordings?

A. The Hot Seven band B. Fletcher Henderson’s band C. The Red Hot Peppers band D King Oliver’s Creole jazz Band Question 33. The nickname "Duke" belonged to which of the following bandleaders?

A Louis Armstrong B. Joseph Oliver C. Edward Ellington D. Fletcher Henderson Question 34. The passage supports which of the following conclusions?

A. By the 1930’s jazz was appreciated by a wide audience.

B Classical music had a great impact on jazz.

C. Jazz originated in New Orleans in the early nineteenth century.

D. Jazz band were better known in, Europe than in the United States.

Question 35. Which of the following cities is NOT mentioned in the passage as a center of jazz?

A. New York B. Washington, D.C C. Chicago D. New Orleans Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Any rock that has cooled and solidified from a molten state is an igneous rock. Therefore, if the Earth began as a superheated sphere in space, all the rocks making up its crust may well have been igneous and thus the ancestors of all other rocks. Even today, approximately 95 percent of the entire crust is igneous. Periodically, molten material wells out of the Earth’s interior to invade the surface layers or to flow onto the surface itself. This material cools into a wide variety of igneous rocks. In the molten state, it is called magma as it pushes into the crust and lava when it runs out onto the surface.

All magma consists basically of a variety of silicate minerals (high in silicon-oxygen compounds), but the chemical composition of any given flow may differ radically from that of any other. The resulting igneous rocks will reflect these differences. Igneous rocks also vary in texture as well as chemistry. Granite, for instance, is a coarse-grained igneous rock whose individual mineral crystals have formed to a size easily seen by the naked eye. A slow rate of cooling has allowed the crystals to reach this size. Normally, slow cooling occurs when the crust is invaded by magma that remains buried well below the surface. Granite may be found on the surface of the

contemporary landscape, but from its coarse texture we know that it must have formed through slow cooling at a great depth and later been laid bare by erosion. Igneous rocks with this coarsegrained texture that formed at depth are called plutonic.

On the other hand, if the same magma flows onto the surface and is quickly cooled by the atmosphere, the resulting rock will be fine-grained and appear quite different from granite, although the chemical composition will be identical. This kind of rock is called rhyolite. The most finely grained igneous rock is volcanic glass or obsidian, which has no crystals. Some researchers believe this is because of rapid cooling; others believe it is because of a lack of water vapor and other gases in the lava. The black obsidian cliffs of Yellowstone National Park are the result of a lava flow of basalt running head on into a glacier. Some of the glacier melted on contact, but suddenly there also appeared a huge black mass of glassy stone.

Question 36. In the first paragraph, the author mentions that ________.

A. the Earth began as a molten mass B. a thin layer of magma flows beneath the Earth’s crust C. the minerals found in igneous rock are very common D. igneous rock is continually being formed Question 37. The word "contemporary" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.

A. vast B. natural C. existing D. uneven Question 38. The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to ________.

A. granite B. surface C. landscape D. texture Question 39. Granite that has been found above ground has been ________.

A. pushed up from below the crust by magma B. produced during a volcanic explosion C. gradually exposed due to erosion D. pushed up by the natural shifting of the Earth Question 40. Which of the following is produced when magma cools rapidly?

A. Granite B. Plutonic rock C. Rhyolite D. Mineral crystals Question 41. The word "finely" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.

A. minutely B. loosely C. sensitively D. purely Question 42. Which of the following is another name for volcanic glass?

A. Plutonic rock B. Obsidian C. Lava D. Crystal Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. Cool temperatures, shade, (A) moist, and the presence of (B) dead organic material (C) provide the ideal living (D) conditions for mushrooms.

Question 44. (A) What we know about these diseases (B) are still not sufficient to prevent them (C) from spreading easily (D) among the population.

Question 45. The human (A) body (B) relies on (C) certainly nutrients for its (D) survival.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. I have never seen such a horrible film before.

A. I don’t enjoy seeing horror films.

B. That is one of the most horrible films I have seen before.

C. This is the worst film that I have ever seen.

D. Such a horrible film that I have never seen before.

Question 47. Daisy cooked so many dishes for lunch, but it wasn’t necessary.

A. Daisy needn’t have cooked so many dishes for lunch B. Daisy couldn’t have cooked so many dishes for lunch.

C. Daisy must have cooked so many good dishes.

D. Daisy might not have cooked so many dishes for lunch.

Question 48. This party is ‘evening dress’ only.

A. You have to dress up for the party this evening.

B. I dress up only for this evening party.

C. You’re not allowed to dress casually for this party.

D. This party is only for those who dress up in the evening.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. If only I had taken part in the Singing contest. I didn’t do that.

A. I regret not taking part in the Singing contest.

B. I regret to take part in the Singing contest.

C. I wish I took part in the Singing contest.

D. I don’t take part in the Singing contest Question 50. You usually drive fast. You use more petrol than usual.

A. The faster you drive, the more you use petrol.

B. The more you drive fast, the more you use petrol.

C. The faster you drive, the more petrol you use.

D. The more fast you drive, the more petrol you use.

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC

ĐỀ SỐ 7

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO Môn: Tiếng Anh Số câu hỏi: 50 câu - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. eternal B. energy C. eradicate D. eliminate Question 2. A. bury B. cleanliness C. plenty D. dean Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. obligatory B. geographical C. international D. undergraduate Question 4. A difficulty B. simplicity C. discovery D. commodity Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. I suggest the room ________ before Tet holiday.

A. be decorated B. is decorated C. were decorated D. should decorate Question 6. We are up to our ________ in paperwork and don’t have a bit of free time for entertainment these days.

A. neck B. forehead C. chest D. shoulders Question 7. When I heard that joke, I burst into loud ________.

A. smile B. laughter C. amusement D. enjoyment Question 8. Tom is ________ student that he can get a scholarship A. so B. so good C. so good a D. such Question 9. I think I must have this watch repaired as it ________ over 15 minutes a day.

A. accelerates B. increases C. progresses D. gains Question 10. ________ was the coffee that we couldn’t drink it.

A. Such strong B. So strong C. Hardly ever D. How strong Question 11. These chemicals are ________ a horrible smell.

A. giving down B. giving off C. giving up D. giving out Question 12. The school was closed for a month because of the ________ of coronavirus pandemic.

A. outcome B. outburst C. outset D. outbreak Question 13. My father has left his book at home; he’s always so ________.

A. forgetful B. forgettable C. forgotten D. forgetting Question 14. My brother lives a(n) _______ throw from the airport.

A. stone’s B. stick’s C. arrow’s D. apple’s Question 15. When Jenifer ran out of money, she ________ her mother for help.

A. fell back on B. fell upon C. fell behind D. fell in with Question 16. I object ________ to the beach in this cold weather.

A. to going B. going C. about going D. of going Question 17. If you need to ________ the teacher’s attention, please raise your hand.

A. pull B. attract C. capture D. influence Question 18. No, I didn’t know her phone number, ________ I would have called her.

A. because B. otherwise C. consequently D. therefore Question 19. In seeking independence, they do not sacrifice their human ________.

A. mood B. situation C. dignity D. personification

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. When you cross the street, be careful and be on the alert for the bus.

A. look for B. watch out C. search for D. turn up Question 21. Many think social networking can be addictive and time-consuming if users spend most of their day on useless microblogging or become obsessed with the private lives of other people.

A. taking or needing a lot of time B. having a lot of time C. saving a lot of time D. giving a lot of time Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. Kurzweil believes that there could be tiny robots called nanobots implanted into our brains to improve our memory.

A. inserted in B. fixed in C. removed from D. replaced with Question 23. He had never experienced such discourtesy towards the guests as it occurred at the annual meeting last month.

A. politeness B. rudeness C. encouragement D. measurement Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24. Lien: "Is it all right if I use your motorbike?" - Hoang:" ________ " A. Oh, forget it.

B. I accept it.

C. Sure, go ahead.

D. I don’t care.

Question 25. Hoa: "Can I try this new camera?" - Seller:" ________ " A. Sure. But please be careful with it.

B. I’m sorry I can’t. Let’s go now.

C. I’m sorry. I’m home late.

D. Sure. Thanks a lot.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

Books are essential to learning as they (26) _______ unlimited information to the readers. If you want to know about dogs, you can easily learn about dog behavior, breeds, caring, and various topics about our canine friends by reading books. You don’t have to go to school just to gather quick information about a subject. (27) _______ you need to do is grab a book, read, and absorb the contents.

People who are in need of data can acquire them from books. It is not necessary to attend school in order to get information. A quick scan on books will give you the details, facts, and data that you need about a topic.

Books are actually one of the best sources of information. One of the main reasons why they are (28) _______ as top sources of knowledge is because they provide unlimited facts to the readers. If you do a research, you can definitely find (29) _______ you are looking for from books.

This is why we often turn to books or any reading materials whenever we have a research about a project. Whether you are a student or a professional, you will definitely gain something new whenever you open a page of a book.

Before the invention of laptops and iPads, books were known as the ultimate source of information. Unlike the internet, you can bring any book you want with you anywhere you go. (30) _______ they don’t take up much space in your bag. You can easily carry them when you go out on a trip or while traveling to school.

Question 26. A. attract B. offer C. help D. create Question 27. A. All B. Which C. What D. Most Question 28. A. decided B. taken C. considered D. thought Question 29. A. that B. what C. when D. where Question 30. A. However B. Therefore C. Whereas D. Additionally

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

The walnut tree produces wood that is used for countless purposes, and is considered the finest wood in the world. The wood is easy to work with, yet it is very hard and durable and when it is polished, it produces a rich, dark luster. It also shrinks and swells less than any other wood, which makes it especially desirable for fine furniture, flooring, and even gun stocks.

In fact, just about every part of the walnut is unusually hard and strong. The nut of the tree is encased inside a very hard shell, which itself is enclosed in a leathery outer covering called a husk.

It requires real effort to break through those layers to get at the tasty meat inside.

Yet every part of the walnut is useful to people. The outer husk produces a dark reddish stain that is hard to remove from the hands of the person who opens the nut, and this pigment is widely used in dyes and wood stains. The inner shell is used as an abrasive substance to clean jet engines.

And the meat of the nut is extensively used in cooking, ice cream, flavorings-and just eaten raw.

Walnut trees exude a chemical into the soil near their roots which can be poisonous to some trees and shrubs. Fruit trees, for example, will not survive if planted too close to a walnut. Many other plants, such as maple trees or ivy, are not affected by the walnut’s presence, and are wellsuited to grow in its vicinity.

Question 31. What is the topic of this passage?

A. The use of walnut wood in furniture.

B. Walnut trees.

C. Where to plant walnuts.

D. Trees of North America.

Question 32. What is the main idea of the passage?

A. Trees are used for many things.

B. Maple trees grow well with walnuts.

C. Walnuts can kill other trees.

D. Walnut trees are valuable when planted correctly.

Question 33. As used in the passage, the underlined word "abrasive" most nearly means _______.

A. rough B. disagreeable C. soft D. fragrant Question 34. The author of the passage probably believes that ________.

A. walnut trees are endangered B. people should recycle more C. people should grow walnut trees if possible D. maple trees are not good for furniture making Question 35. As used in the passage, the underlined word "exude" most nearly means ________.

A. give off B. naked C. smell bad D. leave the area.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

For a century and a half the piano has been one of the most popular solo instruments for Western music. Unlike string and wind instruments, the piano is completely self- sufficient, as it is able to play both the melody and its accompanying harmony at the same time. For this reason, it became the favorite household instrument of the nineteenth century.

The ancestry of the piano can be traced to the early keyboard instruments of the fifteenth and sixteenth centuries-the spinet, the dulcimer, and the virginal. In the seventeenth century the organ, the clavichord, and the harpsichord became the chief instruments of the keyboard group, a supremacy they maintained until the piano supplanted them at the end of the eighteenth century.

The clavichord’s tone was never powerful, nevertheless, because of the variety of tone possible to it many composers found the clavichord a sympathetic instrument for intimate chamber music. The harpsichord with its bright, vigorous tone was the favorite instrument for supporting the bass of the small orchestra of the period and for concert use but the character of the tone could not be varied save by mechanical or structural devices.

The piano was perfected in the early eighteenth century by a harpsichord maker in Italy (though musicologists point out several previous instances of the instrument). This instrument was called a

piano e forte (soft Mid loud), to indicate its dynamic versatility; its strings were struck by a recoiling hammer with a felt-padded head. The wires were much heavier in. the earlier instruments.

A series of mechanical improvements continuing well into the nineteenth century, including the introduction of pedals to sustain tone or to soften it, the perfection of a metal frame, and steel wire of the finest quality, finally produced an instrument capable of myriad tonal effects from the most delicate harmonies to an almost orchestral fullness of sound, from a liquid, singing tone to sharp, percussive brilliance.

Question 36. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The historical development of the piano B. The quality of tone produced by various keyboard instruments C. The uses of keyboard instruments in various types of compositions D. The popularity of the piano with composers Question 37. Which of the following instruments was widely used before the seventeenth century?

A. The harpsichord B. The spinet C. The clavichord D. The organ Question 38. The word "supplanted" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.

A. supported B. promoted C. replaced D. dominated Question 39. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to the ________.

A. variety B. music C. harpsichord D. clavichord Question 40. According to the passage, what deficiency did the harpsichord have?

A. It was fragile B. It lacked variety in tone C. It sounded metallic D. It could not produce a strong sound Question 41. According to the information in the last paragraph, which of the following improvements made it possible to lengthen the tone produced by the piano?

A. The introduction of pedals B. The use of heavy wires C. The use of felt-padded hammerheads D. The metal frame construction Question 42. The word "myriad" in line 22 is closest in meaning to ________.

A. noticeable B. many C. loud D. unusual Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. Many (A) flowering plants benefits (B) of pollination by (C) adult butterflies (D) and moths.

Question 44. (A) Ripe fruit is often stored in a place (B) what contains (C) much carbon dioxide so that the fruit will not decay too (D) rapidly.

Question 45. Weather and (A) geography conditions may (B) determine the type (C) of (D) transportation used in a region.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. “It is you that stole my handbag.” Ms. Hoa said to the young boy.

A. Ms. Hoa accused the young boy of stealing her handbag.

B. Ms. Hoa asked the young boy to steal her handbag.

C. Ms. Hoa told the young boy that it was you that stole her handbag.

D. Ms. Hoa denied the young boy of stealing her handbag.

Question 47. I’m sure Hoa was very happy when she passed the final exam with high marks.

A. Hoa must be very happy when she passed the final exam with high marks.

B. Hoa must have been very happy when she passed the final exam with high marks.

C. Hoa may be very happy when she passed the final exam with high marks.

D. Hoa could have been very happy when she passed the final exam with high marks.

Question 48. I don’t find it difficult to get up early in the morning.

A. It’s difficult for me to get up early in the morning.

B. I’m used to getting up early in the morning.

C. I hate getting up early in the morning.

D. I used to get up early in the morning.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. They had overslept, they missed the bus.

A. Having overslept so they couldn’t catch the bus.

B. Though they had overslept, they didn’t miss the bus.

C. As a result of having overslept, they couldn’t catch the bus.

D. If they hadn’t overslept last night, they would catch the bus now.

Question 50. Tim is studying hard. He doesn’t want to fail the next exam.

A. Tim is studying hard in order that he not fail the next exam.

B. Tim is studying hard in order not to fail the next exam.

C. Tim is studying hard in order to not to fail the next exam.

D. Tim is studying hard so as to fail the next exam.

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC

ĐỀ SỐ 8

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO Môn: Tiếng Anh Số câu hỏi: 50 câu - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. slaughter B. draught C. naughty D. plaudit Question 2. A. inadequate B. navigate C. necessitate D. debate Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. profitable B. reliable C. dependable D. forgettable Question 4. A. immediate B. sympathetic C. competitive D. mysterious Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. My mother made me ________ him next week.

A. promise calling B. to promise calling C. to promise to call D. promise to call Question 6.They had invited over one hundred guests, ________.

A. not any of whom I knew B. I did not know any of whom C. I knew none of whom D. none of whom I knew Question 7. It must be true. She heard it straight from the ________ mouth.

A. dog’s B. camel’s C. horse’s D. cat’s Question 8. Finally, she ________ a new idea for increasing sales figures.

A. came up with B. thought over C. got round to D. looked into Question 9. All members of his family are ________ aware of the need to obey the family rules.

A. well B. much C. greatly D. far Question 10. Although he received intensive treatment, there was no ________ improvement in his condition.

A. decipherable B. legible C. discernible D. intelligible Question 11. More than 80,000 people ________ coronavirus in China in late 2019.

A. captured B. contracted C. caused D. spent Question 12. Don’t forget to buy me a dictionary,________?

A. do you B. will you C. shall you D. don’t you Question 13. Tim and I will never get along. We’re ________.

A. cats and dogs B. chalk and cheese C. salt and pepper D. turn a deaf ear Question 14. You should study hard to ________ your classmates.

A. catch sight of B. feel like C. get in touch with D. keep pace with Question 15. Several people were hurt in the accident but only one ________ to hospital.

A. was taken B. was taking C. has taken D. has been taking Question 16. We are ________ no obligation to change goods which were not purchased here.

A. to B. with C. at D. under Question 17. We are going to build a house with a view ________ it.

A. to selling B. sell C. to sell D. selling Question 18. I usually buy my clothes ________. It’s cheaper than going to the dress maker.

A. on the house B. off the peg C. in public D. on the shelf Question 19. Lisa went ________ the competition and won the first prize.

A. on B. in for C. away D. through

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. We are tearing down these old houses to build a new office block.

A. demolishing B. knocking C. renovating D. decorating Question 21. It’s no use getting in a stew about it because we cannot do anything now.

A. feeling relaxed B. going crazy C. becoming anxious D. being miserable Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. Her father was arrested for his illicit drug trade in the police raid yesterday.

A. legal B. irregular C. elicited D. secret Question 23. The book is not worth reading. The plot is too dull.

A. simple B. interesting C. complicated D. slow Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24. "Well, I hope you enjoyed your meal." - " ________” A. Oh, absolutely delicious.

B. No problem.

C. Yes, that’s very interesting.

D. Yeah, that’s right.

Question 25. Lisa: “It was very kind of you to help me out, Mark” Mark:" ________ " A. You can say that again.

B. That’s was the least I could do.

C. I’m glad you like it.

D. Thanks a lot.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

Around the world, rights related to information technology that are already legally recognized are daily being violated, (26) _______ in the name of economic advancement, political stability or for personal greed and interests. Violations of these rights have (27) _______ new problems in human social systems, such as the digital divide, cybercrime, digital security and privacy concerns, all of which have affected people’s lives either directly or indirectly. It is important that countries come up with guidelines for action to (28) _______ the incidences of malicious attacks on the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of electronic data and systems, computer-related crimes, content related offences and violations of intellectual property rights. (29) _______ , threats to critical infrastructure and national interests arising from the use of the internet for criminal and terrorist activities are a growing (30) _______ .

Question 26. A. scarcely B. whether C. and D. for Question 27. A. created B. ceased C. arisen D. forego Question 28. A. accord B. struggle C. commend D. combat Question 29. A. More B. Further C. Addition D. Beside Question 30. A. concern B. apathy C. pattern D. insouciance Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

Book clubs are a great way to meet new friends or keep in touch with old ones, while keeping up on your reading and participating in lively and intellectually stimulating discussions. If you’re interested in starting a book club, you should consider the following options and recommendations.

The first thing you’ll need are members. Before recruiting, think carefully about how many people you want to participate and also what the club’s focus will be. For example, some book clubs focus exclusively on fiction, others read nonfiction. Some are even more specific, focusing only on a particular genre such as mysteries, science fiction, or romance. Others have a more flexible and open focus. All of these possibilities can make for a great club, but it is important to decide on a focus at the outset so the guidelines will be clear to the group and prospective member.

After setting the basic parameters, recruitment can begin. Notify friends and family, advertise in the local newspaper, and hang flyers on bulletin boards in local stores, colleges, libraries, and bookstores. When enough people express interest, schedule a kick-off meeting during which decisions will be made about specific guidelines that will ensure the club runs smoothly. This meeting will need to establish where the group will meet (rotating homes or a public venue such as a library or coffee shop); how often the group will meet, and on what day of the week and at what time; how long the meetings will be; how books will be chosen and by whom; who will lead the group (if anyone); and whether refreshments will be served and if so, who will supply them. By the end of this meeting, these guidelines should be set and a book selection and date for the first official meeting should be finalized.

Planning and running a book club is not without challenges, but when a book club is run effectively, the experience can be extremely rewarding for everyone involved.

Question 31. According to the passage, when starting a book club, the first thing a person should do is ________.

A. Hang flyers in local establishments.

B. Put an ad in a local newspaper.

C. Decide on the focus and size of the club.

D. Decide when and where the group will meet.

Question 32. Which of the following would NOT be covered during the book club’s kick-off meeting?

A. Deciding on whether refreshments will be served.

B. Discussing and/or appointing a leader.

C. Choosing the club’s first selection.

D. Identifying what kinds of books or genre will be the club’s focus.

Question 33. A good title for this passage would be ________.

A. Book Clubs: A Great Way to Make New Friends B. Starting a Successful Book Club: A Guide C. Five Easy Steps to Starting a Successful Book Club D. Reading in Groups: Sharing Knowledge, Nurturing Friendships Question 34. Which of the following is NOT something that successful book clubs should do?

A. Focus exclusively on one genre.

B. Have guidelines about where and when to meet.

C. Have a focus.

D. Decide how to choose and who will choose book selections.

Question 35. Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the passage?

A. Smaller groups are better for a variety of reasons.

B. The social aspect of book clubs is more important than the intellectual.

C. Starting your own book club is better than joining an existing one.

D. When starting and running a book club, a casual approach is risky Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Molting is one of the most involved processes of a bird’s annual life cycle. Notwithstanding preening and constant care, the marvelously intricate structure of a bird’s feather inevitably wears out. All adult birds molt their feathers at least once a year, and upon close observation, one can recognize the frayed, ragged appearance of feathers that are nearing the end of their useful life. Two distinct processes are involved in molting.

The first step is when the old, worn feather is dropped, or shed. The second is when a new feather grows in its place. When each feather has been shed and replaced, then the molt can be said to be complete. This, however, is an abstraction that often does not happen: incomplete, overlapping, and arrested molts are quite common.

Molt requires that a bird find and process enough protein to rebuild approximately one- third of its body weight. It is not surprising that a bird in heavy molt often seems listless and unwell. But far from being random, molt is controlled by strong evolutionary forces that have established an optimal time and duration. Generally, molt occurs at the time of least stress on the bird. Many songbirds, for instance, molt in late summer, when the hard work of breeding is done but the weather is still warm and food still plentiful. This is why the woods in late summer often seem so quiet, when compared with the exuberant choruses of spring.

Molt of the flight feathers is the most highly organized part of the process. Some species, for example, begin by dropping the outermost primary feathers on each side (to retain balance in the air) and wait until the replacement feathers are about one-third grown before shedding the next outermost, and so on. Others always start with the innermost primary feathers and work outward.

Yet other species begin in the middle and work outward on both weeks while the replacement feathers grow.

Question 36. The passage mainly discusses how ________.

A. birds prepare for breeding B. bird feathers differ from species C. birds shed and replace their feathers D. birds are affected by seasonal changes Question 37. The word "Notwithstanding" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________.

A. despite B. because of C. instead of D. regarding Question 38. The word "intricate" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________.

A. regular B complex C. interesting D. important Question 39. The word "optimal" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.

A. slow B. frequent C. best D. early Question 40. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason that songbirds molt in the late summer?

A. Fewer predators are in the woods.

B. The weathers is still warm.

C. The songbirds have finished breeding.

D. Food is still available.

Question 41. Some birds that are molting maintain balance during flight by ________.

A. constantly preening and caring for their remaining feathers B. dropping flight feathers on both sides at the same time C. adjusting the angle of their flight to compensate for lost feathers D. only losing one-third of their feathers Question 42.The word "Others" in the last paragraph refers to ________.

A. primary feathers B. sides C. species D flight feathers Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. In order to (A) do a profit, (B) the new amusement centre needs (C) at least 3000 visitors (D) a month.

Question 44. Mumps (A) are a very (B) common disease (C) which (D) usually affects children.

Question 45. (A) The lion has (B) long been (C) a symbol of strength, power, and (D) it is very cruel.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. Did you mean to push her or did it happen by accident?

A. Did you push her on purpose or was it an accident?

B. Do you know that you pushed her accidentally?

C. I wondered if you mean to make her injured.

D. Was it an accident when you pushed her?

Question 47. On finding the lost girl, he phoned the police.

A. As soon as he found the lost girl, he phoned the police.

B. Hardly was the lost girl found than he phoned the police.

C. No sooner had he phoned the police than he found the lost girl.

D. Scarcely he found the lost girl did he phone the police.

Question 48. I am not certain, but there may be about ten applicants for the job.

A. Ten people have applied for the job.

B. At a guess, there are about ten applicants for the job.

C. I guess that there are ten applicants for the job.

D. I am not sure about who will be chosen because there are about ten applicants for the job.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. The trains began to pull out. Most of them were full of passengers.

A. The passengers, most of them were full of, began to pull out the trains.

B. The trains, most of which were full of passengers, began to pull out.

C. The trains, most of whom were full of the buses, began to pull out.

D. The trains, most of them were full of passengers, began to pull out.

Question 50. The new coffee shop looks nice. However, it seems to have few customers.

A. In order to get more business, the new coffee shop should improve its appearance.

B. The new coffee shop would have more customers if it looked better.

C. If it had a few more customers, the new coffee shop would look better.

D. In spite of its appearance, the new coffee shop does not appear to attract much business.

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC

ĐỀ SỐ 9

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO Môn: Tiếng Anh Số câu hỏi: 50 câu - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. beard B. rehearse C. hearsay D. endearment Question 2. A. confusion B. television C. dimension D. precision Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. mechanical B. confidence C. biography D. eradicate Question 4. A. competent B. implicate C. advertise D. reconstruct Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. If the business was bad, we would have to _______ some of our staff.

A. put down B. lay off C. take on D. hang up Question 6. The government have tried to _______ the price of petro, but they failed.

A. bringdown B. bring on C. put in D. get over Question 7. She came _______ a photo of her husband and a strange woman when she was cleaning the house.

A. across B. by C. with D. in Question 8. Students can _______ a lot of information just by attending class and taking good notes of the lectures.

A. absorb B. provide C. read D. transmit Question 9. _______ flowers are usually made of plastic or silk.

A. Unreal B. False C. Artificial D. Untrue Question 10. Let’s go swimming, _______?

A. shall we B. shall I C. will you D. don’t you Question 11. I’ll give you another hour to _______ up your mind.

A. give B. go C. make D. take Question 12. The film was so _______ that many viewers cried.

A. moody B. touching C. touchy D. moved Question 13. _______ the company, I’d like to thank you for your help.

A. According to B. On behalf of C. In addition to D. Thanks to Question 14. _______ at the party, we saw Jenifer standing alone.

A. Arriving B. We arrived C. Arrived D. We were arriving Question 15. Her talent and experience _______ her to the respect of her colleagues.

A. permitted B. qualified C. deserved D. entitled Question 16. They were working overtime to cope with a sudden _______ in demand.

A. surge B. boost C. impetus D. thrust Question 17. It can be difficult to teach young children because of their short attention _______.

A. limit B. span C. duration D. time Question 18. He objected to _______.

A. his mistakes being laughed at B. laughing his mistakes at C. his mistakes laughing at D. his mistakes at laughing Question 19. _______ summer I spent in _______ USA was one of _______ best in my life.

A. At/ a/ the B. The/ the/ a C. The/ Ø/ the D. The/ the/ the Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. She drives me to the edge because she never stops talking in class.

A. worries me B. irritates me C. pleases me D. frightens me Question 21. Because the jury had reached a deadlock, the judge called for a retrial.

A. reduction B. disagreement C. impasse D. verdict Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. Sarah’s predominant features, what you first noticed about her, were her stunning black hair and big, dark eyes.

A. inadequate B. unnoticeable C. universal D. evident Question 23. The shop assistant have to break off the conversation to serve a customer.

A. interrupt B. continue C. hurry D. begin Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24. Hoa and Nam are talking about their next exams.

Hoa: "Our final exams will start next Friday. Are you ready?" - Nam:" _______ " A. I’m half ready.

B. God save you.

C. Thank you so much. D. Don’t mention it!

Question 25. Minh: “Can I bring a friend to your birthday party?" - Hoa:" _______."

A. It’s my pleasure to help you.

B. Let’s do it then.

C. The more the merrier.

D. You’re right.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

An important part of building independence is allowing your teenagers to do things for themselves, (26) _______ their own decisions, and make mistakes. These are natural processes in life and people are wired to desire autonomy early in life. This need for early independence is designed to prepare individuals for adulthood. Allowing your children to become independent earlier in life can (27) _______ rebellion during the later stages of the teenage years. All teenagers have a need to express their individuality. Teenagers (28) _______ are not allowed to express their individuality are more likely to revolt. (29) _______ , practicing self-reliance via independence will help eliminate public shyness and teach your kids to stand up for themselves when needed, including peer (30) _______ . Early choice will also add confidence and prepare them for decisionmaking in adulthood.

Question 26. A. take B. do C. get D. make Question 27. A. minimize B. increase C. interfere D. maximize Question 28. A. whom B. which C. where D. that Question 29. A. However B. In addition C. But D. In contrast Question 30. A. stress B. help C. pressure D. advice Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

The term "virus" is derived from the Latin word for poison or slime. It was originally applied to the noxious stench emanating from swamps that was thought to cause a variety of diseases in the centuries before microbes were discovered and specifically linked to illness. But it was not until almost the end of the nineteenth century that a true virus was proven to be the cause of a disease.

The nature of viruses made them impossible to detect for many years even after bacteria had been discovered and studied. Not only are viruses too small to be seen with a light microscope, they also cannot be detected through their biological activity, except as it occurs in conjunction with other organisms. In fact, viruses show no traces of biological activity by themselves. Unlike bacteria, they are not living agents in the strictest sense. Viruses are very simple pieces of organic

material composed only of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA, enclosed in a coat of protein made up of simple structural units. (Some viruses also contain carbohydrates and lipids.) They are parasites, requiring human, animal, or plant cells to live. The virus replicates by attaching to a cell and injecting its nucleic acid.’ once inside the cell, the DNA or RNA that contains the virus’ genetic information takes over the cell’s biological machinery, and the cell begins to manufacture viral proteins rather than its own.

Question 31. Before microbes were discovered it was believed that some diseases were caused by _______.

A. germ-carrying insects B. certain strains of bacteria C. foul odors released from swamps D. slimy creatures living near swamps Question 32. The word "proven" in the passage is closest meaning to _______.

A. shown B feared C. imagined D. considered Question 33. The word "nature" in the passage is closest in meaning to _______.

A. self-sufficiency B. shapes C. characteristics D. speed Question 34. The author implies that bacteria were investigated earlier than viruses because _______.

A. bacteria are easier to detect B. bacteria are harder to eradicate C. viruses are extremely poisonous D. viruses are found only in hot climates Question 35. All of the following may be components of a virus EXCEPT _______.

A. RNA B. plant cells C. carbohydrates D. a coat of protein Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

The Native Americans of northern California were very good at basketry, using the reeds, grasses, barks, and roots they found around them to fashion articles of all sorts and sizes - not only trays, containers, and cooking pots, but hats, boats, fish traps, baby carriers, and ceremonial objects.

Of all these experts, none excelled the Pomo - a group who lived on or near the coast during the 1800’s, and whose descendants continue to live in parts of the same region to this day. They made baskets three feet in diameter and others no bigger than a thimble. The Pomo people were masters of decoration. Some of their baskets were completely covered with shell pendants; others with feathers that made the baskets’ surfaces as soft as the breasts of birds. Moreover, the Pomo people made use of more weaving techniques than did their neighbors. Most groups made all their basketwork by twining - the twisting of a flexible horizontal material, called a weft, around stiffer vertical strands of material, the warp. Others depended primarily on coiling - a process in which a continuous coil of stiff material is held in the desired shape with tight wrapping of flexible strands.

Only the Pomo people used both processes with equal ease and frequency. In addition, they made use of four distinct variations on the basic twining process, often employing more than one of them in a single article.

Although a wide variety of materials was available, the Pomo people used only a few. The warp was always made of willow, and the most commonly used weft was sedge root, a woody fiber that could easily be separated into strands no thicker than a thread. For color, the Pomo people used the bark of redbud for their twined work and dyed bulrush root for black in coiled work. Though other materials were sometimes used, these four were the staples in their finest basketry.

If the basketry materials used by the Pomo people were limited, the designs were amazingly varied. Every Pomo basketmaker knew how to produce from fifteen to twenty distinct patterns that could be combined in a number of different ways.

Question 36. The word "fashion" in line 2 is closest in meaning to _______.

A maintain B. organize C. trade D. create Question 37. The Pomo people used each of the following materials to decorate baskets EXCEPT _______.

A. shells B. feathers C. leaves D. bark Question 38. What is the author’s main point in the second paragraph?

A. The neighbors of the Pomo people tried to improve on the Pomo basket weaving techniques.

B. The Pomo people were the most skilled basket weavers in their region.

C. The Pomo people learned their basket weaving techniques from other Native Americans.

D. The Pomo baskets have been handed down for generations.

Question 39. According to the passage, a weft is a _______.

A. tool for separating sedge root B. process used for coloring baskets C. pliable material woven around the warp D. pattern used to decorate baskets Question 40. According to the passage, what did the Pomo people use as the warp in their baskets?

A. bulrush B willow C sedge D. redbud Question 41. The word "staples" in line 21 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. combinations B. limitations C accessories D basic elements Question 42. Which of the following statements about Pomo baskets can be best inferred from the passage?

A. Baskets produced by other Native Americans were less varied in design than those of the Pomo people.

B. Baskets produced by Pomo weavers were primarily for ceremonial purposes.

C. There were a very limited number of basket-making materials available to the Pomo people.

D. The basket-making production of the Pomo people has increased over the years.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. The (A) discovery of penicillin in 1928 (B) has not produced antibiotics (C) useful for the treatment of (D) infectious diseases until 1940.

Question 44. The Mississippi, the (A) longest river in the USA, begins (B) as small (C) clear stream in (D) northwestern Minnesota.

Question 45. (A) Before the invention of (B) the printing press, books (C) have been all printed (D) by hand.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. It was so hot on the bus Lucy thought she was going to faint.

A. The bus was so hot that Lucy felt fainted.

B. Lucy thought she was on the point of fainting because it was so hot on the bus.

C. Lucy nearly fainted because of the heating of the bus.

D. As soon as the bus got hot, Lucy fainted.

Question 47. The boss completely deceived him.

A. He was given a full conception by the boss.

B. He was completely taken in by the boss.

C. The boss had full conception of him.

D. He was criticized by the boss.

Question 48. It is regretful that they destroyed the oldest building.

A. They wouldn’t have destroyed the oldest building.

B. They shouldn’t have destroyed the oldest building.

C. They couldn’t have destroyed the oldest building.

D. They can’t have destroyed the oldest building.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. He was able to finish his book. It was because his wife helped him.

A. If only he had been able to finish his book.

B. Without his wife’s help, he couldn’t have finished his book.

C. If it weren’t for his wife’s help, he couldn’t have finished his book.

D. But for his wife’s help, he couldn’t finish his book.

Question 50. "You got an A in English. Congratulations!" Peter said to his classmate.

A. Peter encouraged his classmate to get an A in English.

B. Peter persuaded his classmate to get an A in English.

C. Peter insisted on getting an A in English for his classmate.

D. Peter congratulated his classmate on getting an A in English.

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC

ĐỀ SỐ 10

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO Môn: Tiếng Anh Số câu hỏi: 50 câu - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. courage B. honour C. favour D. labour Question 2. A incense B. emperor C. cutlery D. speciality Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. discovery B. contaminant C. education D. experience Question 4. A. rhinoceros B. curriculum C. kindergarten D. discriminate Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. I read the contract again and again ________ avoiding making spelling mistakes.

A. with a view to B. on account of C. by means of D. in terms of Question 6. The life ________ of individuals in developed countries has increased dramatically.

A expectation B. exception C. exertion D. expectancy Question 7. After a lot of difficulty, he ________ to open the door.

A. managed B. succeeded C. obtained D. realized Question 8. When she ________, everyone ________.

A. arrived - has left B. had arrived - left C. arrived - had left D. would arrive - leave Question 9. He attempted to ________ the painting from the gallery but he was caught.

A. rob B. steal C. thief D. kidnap Question 10. I’m not keen on ________ control of the project to a newcomer.

A. undertaking B. charging C. entrusting D. move Question 11. ________ his injury, he couldn’t play football.

A. Despite B. Because of C. Although D. Because Question 12. His comments ________ little or no relation to the facts and the figures of the case.

A. reflect B. bear C. give D. possess Question 13. I would sooner you ________ the office phone for personal purpose.

A. not using B. shouldn’t use C. not to use D. didn’t use Question 14. As the drug took ________, the patient became quieter.

A. effect B. force C. influence D. action Question 15. I’ve got a very high opinion ________ your brother.

A. on B. to C. for D. of Question 16. He went ________ a bad cold just before Christmas.

A. in for B. over C. through D. down with Question 17. I enjoyed seeing that film. It was rather sad, ________.

A. also B. though C. but D. so Question 18. There are courts for tennis and badminton and the ________.

A. like B. same C. similar D. such Question 19. It’s high time you let your ________ down and had some fun!

A. hair B. heads C. hearts D. souls

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. You have to be on your toes if you want to win the contest.

A. pay all your attention to what you are doing B. make every efforts every day C. listen to some useful advice D. comply with orders Question 21. Lisa is thinking of leaving her present job because her manager is always getting at her.

A. supporting B. protecting C. defending D. criticizing Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. My father’s really out of shape, so he starts exercising.

A. physically fit B. out of work C. always joyful D. worried and stressed Question 23. In remote areas, it’s important to replenish stocks before the winter sets in.

A. remake B. empty C. refill D. repeat Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24. - "I think we should use public transport to protect the environment."

- “______________” A. I can’t agree with you more.

B. Thanks so much!

C. Poor you!

D. You shouldn’t do that!

Question 25. Son: "Your shirt is terrific. The colour quite suits you." - Huong:" ________ " A. Really? I won’t believe in you anymore. You are a bad man.

B. Why do you make a quick decision? Tell me the reason.

C. Oh my god. What are you saying?

D. I’m glad you say so.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

Is organic food safer and more (26) _______ ? This is an important part of the debate.

Many farmers and consumers believe it is. They think agricultural chemicals can cause serious illnesses like cancer, but there isn’t much evidence proving this is true. However, recent studies have shown that eating organically-grown produce (27) _______ your chances of developing heart disease. Many doctors think it’s more important to stop dangerous bacteria from contaminating foods. These bacteria can contaminate both organic and non-organic fruit and vegetables, and doctors recommend washing them carefully before eating them. Meat, fish and chicken can also become contaminated, so washing your hands before handling these foods is also very important.

Many doctors also believe we should reduce the amount of sugar in our diets, and there is a lot of evidence to support this idea. They recommend carefully checking the list of ingredients on processed food and drinks for all the words that really mean sugar, like glucose, sucrose and fructose. And they remind us that the aim of most big food companies is (28) _______ lots of money, even if they damage our health while doing so. This means processed foods that are called "organic" can also be very (29) _______ if they contain lots of sugar.

Most people agree that naturally grown food tastes better. Is tastier food worth the extra money? That’s a matter of opinion. Whether organic food is healthier or not is still not clear, (30) _______ more research is needed. However, consumers of organic food often say "better safe than sorry" when it comes to what we eat.

Question 26. A. nutrients B. nutrition C. nutritious D. nutritionist Question 27. A. increases B. helps C. changes D. reduces

Question 28. A. making B. make C. makes D. to make Question 29. A. unhealthy B. delicious C. good D. valuable Question 30. A. but B. so C. since D. as Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

We’re always being urged to stay safe online. But in an era where the internet is part of our everyday lives - for work, fun, study, shopping, even managing finances - it’s not always easy to spot the dangers. Web safety expert, Amanda Knox, explores some of the issues lurking in cyberspace.

Her first piece of advice is to install software and a firewall to protect your computer from viruses, hackers and criminals who want to steal your data or financial information. "Think of these as your first line of defense," says Amanda.

So much for protecting yourself against intruders, but what about other problems? Say you’ve accidentally deleted an important file or you’ve been at the mercy of a natural disaster. Katy Marsh runs an online photography business from home and when a fire destroyed part of her house it could easily have spelled ruin for her business too. "Luckily I keep a regular back-up of my data so it wasn’t a catastrophe."

Whilst most of us are aware of the need to protect our computers, it seems we’re more lax when it comes to looking out for ourselves, at least according to a recent web awareness survey.

Web safety specialists say better personal awareness is needed and this is due in part to the rise of ‘Social Networking’ sites like ‘Bebo’, ‘MySpace’ and ‘Facebook’, which allow us to connect with people around the world with similar interests and professional backgrounds.

This brings us to other potential pitfalls. Are the people you meet online who they really claim to be? Can you be sure the person you’re chatting with is in fact a 22-year-old Maths undergraduate from London and not someone merely masquerading as a student to win your trust?

When networking and joining online communities it’s better to be cautious about the amount of personal information you share. For example, it isn’t always necessary to use your real name as a username when registering for a service. You could instead use a pseudonym, or a name that doesn’t give away your real identity to other users. And is it really important to tell the world details about your school, college or any local clubs you’re a member of?

If you do experience problems from another user be prepared to report them for misusing the service. You’ll be doing other users a favour too. And if all else fails, check to see if it is easy to delete your account and leave the service if you choose to and that you have the option to delete all your details.

A general rule of thumb is not to post any information about yourself that you would not be happy for the world to know - not just now but in years to come. This includes photographs of yourself, particularly embarrassing shots of you at that party which you may later regret! It’s not always easy to remove information after it’s been posted so you - not to mention your future employer - may have an unpleasant surprise a few years down the line.

Question 31. The effect of the fire was ________.

A. worse for Katy’s business than her home.

B. to ruin Katy’s business.

C. not as serious for Katy’s business as it could have been.

D. to make Katy start to back up her data.

Question 32. According to the web awareness survey, our attitude to our personal safety is rather ________.

A. relaxed.

B. concerned.

C. positive.

D. uncertain.

Question 33. What tip does the writer give for joining an online community?

A. Always use a false name.

B. Make sure you are properly registered.

C. Limit the information you give to others. D. Tell other users where you’re studying.

Question 34. The writer says that you should report troublesome users ________.

A. because other people will benefit.

B. so you can stop using the service.

C. only if nothing else works.

D. if you want to delete your own details.

Question 35. In the final paragraph, the writer advises people ________ not to put photos online.

A. to apply for a job online B. not to have any personal information online C. to consider what may cause problems in the future D. not to put photos online Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

TV has transformed politics in the USA by changing the way in which information is disseminated, by altering political campaigns, and by changing citizen’s patterns of response to politics. By giving citizens independent access to the candidates, television diminished the role of the political party in the selection of the major party candidates. By centering politics on the person of the candidate, television accelerated the citizen’s focus on character rather than issues.

TV has altered the forms of political communication as well. The messages on which most of us rely are briefer than they once were. The stump speech, a political speech given by traveling politicians and lasting 3/2 to 2 hours, which characterized nineteenth-century political discourse, has given way to the 30-second advertisement and the 10 second "sound bite" in broadcast news.

Increasingly the audience for speeches is not that standing in front of the politician but rather the viewing audience who will hear and see a snippet of the speech on the news.

In these abbreviated forms, much of what constituted the traditional political discourse of earlier ages has been lost. In 15 or 30 seconds, a speaker cannot establish the historical context that shaped the issue in question, cannot detail the probable causes of the problem, and cannot examine alternative proposals to argue that one is preferable to others. In snippets, politicians assert but do not argue.

Because television is an intimate medium, speaking through it require a changed political style that was more conversational, personal, and visual than that of the old-style stump speech. Reliance on television means that increasingly our political world contains memorable pictures rather than memorable words. Schools teach us to analyze words and print. However, in a word in which politics is increasingly visual, informed citizenship requires a new set of skills.

Recognizing the power of television’s pictures, politicians craft televisual, staged events, called pseudo-event, designed to attract media coverage. Much of the political activity we see on television news has been crafted by politicians, their speechwriters, and their public relations advisers for televised consumption. Sound bites in news and answers to questions in debates increasingly sound like advertisements.

Question 36. What is the main point of the passage?

A. Citizens in the United States are now more informed about political issues because of television coverage.

B. Citizens in the United States prefer to see politicians on television instead of in person.

C. Politics in the United States has become substantially more controversial since the introduction of television.

D. Politics in the United States has been significantly changed by television.

Question 37. The word "disseminated" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________.

A. analyzed B. discussed C. spread D. stored Question 38. It can be inferred that before the introduction of television, political parties ________.

A. had more influence over the selection of political candidates B. spent more money to promote their political candidates C. attracted more members D. received more money Question 39. The author mentions the "stump speech" in paragraph 2 as an example of ________.

A. an event created by politicians to attract media attention

B. an interactive discussion between two politicians C. a kind of political presentation typical of the nineteenth century D. a style of speech common to televised political events Question 40. The word "that" in paragraph 2 refers to ________.

A. audience B. broadcast news C. politician D. advertisement Question 41. According to the passage, as compared with televised speeches, traditional political discourse was more successful at ________.

A. allowing news coverage of political candidates B. placing political issues within a historical context C. making politics seem more intimate to citizens D. providing detailed information about a candidates private behavior Question 42. According to paragraph 5, staged political events are created so that politicians can .

A. create more time to discuss political issues B. obtain more television coverage for themselves C. spend more time talking to citizens in person D. engages in debates with their opponents Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. (A) Research in the USA on acupuncture (B) has focused on (C) their use in (D) pain relief and anesthesia.

Question 44. A food (A) additive is (B) any chemical that food manufactures (C) intentional add to their (D) products.

Question 45. Chocolate is prepared by a (A) complexity process of cleaning, (B) blending and roasting cocoa beans, which (C) must be ground and (D) mixed with sugar.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. "Don’t forget to do your homework", the teacher told us.

A. The teacher told us do not forget to do our homework.

B. The teacher told us to not forget to do our homework.

C. The teacher reminded us to do our homework.

D. The teacher reminded us not to forget to do your homework.

Question 47. Because he came to class late, the teacher punished him.

A. The teacher would have punished him if he had come to class late.

B. He came to class late, but the teacher punished him.

C. The teacher threatened to punish him if he came to class late.

D. The teacher wouldn’t have punished him if he had come to class on time.

Question 48. There is no doubt that Hoa is the best candidate for the job.

A. Hoa is by all means the best candidate for the job.

B. Without question, Hoa is the best candidate for the job.

C. In all likelihood, Hoa is the best candidate for the job.

D. Quite by chance, Hoa is the best candidate for the job.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. They found the weather inconvenient. They chose to stay in a hotel for the night.

A. In spite of the inconvenient weather, they chose to stay in a hotel for the night.

B. They found the weather inconvenient, yet they chose to stay in a hotel for the night.

C. Seeing that the weather was inconvenient, they chose to stay in a hotel for the night.

D. They found the weather inconvenient so as to not choose to stay in a hotel for the night.

Question 50. The president failed to explain the cause of the economic crisis. He did not offer any solutions.

A. Although the president explained the cause of the economic crisis, he failed to offer any solutions.

B. Not only did the president explain the cause of the economic crisis, but he also offered solutions.

C. The president offered some solutions based on the explanation of the cause of the economic crisis.

D. The president didn’t explain the cause of the economic crisis, nor did he offer any solutions.

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC

ĐỀ SỐ 11

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO Môn: Tiếng Anh Số câu hỏi: 50 câu - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. divisible B. design C. disease D. excursion Question 2. A. confine B. conceal C. convention D. concentrate Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. candidate B. adventurous C. relevant D. applicant Question 4. A. proverbial B. advantageous C. magnificent D. photography Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. ________ furniture needs supplying for the schools in the whole country will slow down the process of the reform of education.

A. Few B. A few C. Little D. That little Question 6. I must go to the dentist and ________.

A. get my two teeth to fill B. fill my two teeth C. my two teeth be filled D. get my two teeth filled Question 7. He ________ the accusation. He felt innocent.

A. accepted B. admitted C. denied D. reported Question 8. I regret to tell you that a rise in salary is ________ just now.

A. out of work B. out of control C. out of date D. out of the question Question 9. A useful way to ________ your vocabulary is to read as much as possible.

A. amass B. increase C. collect D. gather Question 10. If you don’t give up smoking, you’ll ________ the risk of damaging your health.

A. bear B. suffer C. make D. run Question 11. The number of vehicles on the roads ________ increasing, so we need to build more roads.

A. is B. were C. was D. are Question 12. We live in a very ________ populated area of Thailand.

A. sparsely B. scarcely C. hardly D. barely Question 13. The fire caused ________ damage that that building had to be destroyed.

A. so much B. too much C. such much D. very much Question 14. I can’t tell my daughter what to do; it’s water off ________ with her.

A. a duck’s head B. a dripping tap C. an umbrella D. a duck’s back Question 15. We decide to go to the beach ________ we should be disturbed by the noise of the city.

A. in order that B. so that C. for D. lest Question 16. The organization underwent ________ reforms.

A. far-reaching B. far-gone C. far-off D. far-flung Question 17. When the first child was born, they ________ for three years.

A. have been married B. had been married C. will been married D. will have been married Question 18. The teacher likes her essay because it’s very ________.

A. imagination B. imaginable C. imaginative D. imaginary Question 19. The Beauty Contest is ________ start at 8:00 a.m our time next Monday.

A. due to B. bound to C. about to D. on the point of Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. The kidnapper gave himself up to the police.

A. confided himself B. surrendered C. accommodated himself D. went up Question 21. I’ll back up your ideas if they don’t believe you.

A. support B. rebel C. admire D. protect Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. They conducted a campaign to promote people’s awareness of environmental problems.

A. encourage B. publicize C. hinder D. strengthen Question 23. Sally has just won a full scholarship to one of the most prestigious universities in the world; she must be on cloud nine now.

A. extremely panicked B. obviously delighted C. incredibly optimistic D. desperately sad Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24. Mai: "Would you mind lending me your bike?" - Lan:" ________ " A. Yes. Here it is.

B. Yes, let’s.

C. Great.

D. No, not at all.

Question 25. Kelly: "It’s was very kind of you to give me a lift home". - Mark:" ________."

A. As a matter of fact, you’re pretty nice.

B. Oh, don’t do that. I was coming past your house any way.

C. I’m not pleased.

D. Oh, don’t mention it. I was coming past your house any way.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

The (26) _______ American watches television for more than four hours a day. A recent study found that children 6 months to 6 years old spend on average 2 hours a day watching television, using a computer or playing a video game. That is three times as long as they spend reading or being read to. Television makes children violent and aggressive. (27) _______ to the National Institute of Mental Health, there is a consensus developing among members of the research community that violence on television does (28) _______ to aggressive behaviour by children and teenagers who watch the programs.

Television discourages face-to-face interaction among children or families. Sitting (29) _______ in front of the television leads to weight gain, increasing the chances of diabetes in children and heart disease in adults. Television programs model undesirable behaviour such as drug and alcohol use or (30) _______ relationships. Research indicates that students may be less able to engage in formal descriptions of events or objects than their peers in the past.

Question 26. A standard B. average C. balanced D. moderate Question 27. A. According B. Due C. Close D. Used Question 28. A. guide B. take C. cause D. lead Question 29. A. emotionless B. resigned C. still D. passively Question 30. A. poorly B. unhealthily C. unhealthy D. sickly Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

Jacques-Yves Cousteau was an explorer, ecologist, filmmaker, inventor and conservationist. He was a man, who spent nearly his whole life underwater exploring the hidden depths of the ocean and who did more to educate the world about the mysteries of the deep sea than any other scientist before or since. He was born in June, 1910 in the village of Saint-André-de- Cubzac, in south western France. Jacques was a sickly boy and spent much of his time in bed, reading books and dreaming about a life at sea. In 1920, Jacques’ family moved to New York and he was encouraged to start swimming to build up his strength. This was the beginning of his fascination with water and the more he learnt through his own experiences, the more passionate he became about "looking through nature’s keyhole”. Nevertheless, his career in underwater exploration came about by accident. After entering France’s naval academy and travelling around the world, he was involved in an almost fatal car accident that left him seriously injured with two broken arms. He began swimming in the Mediterranean Sea to strengthen his arm muscles as part of his recovery process and rediscovered his love of the ocean. Cousteau developed a pair of underwater breathing apparatus to allow him to stay underwater for long periods of time. His experiments led to the development of the first Aqua- Lung which was a great commercial success. During World War II, he worked for the French Resistance and experimented with underwater photographic equipment.

He helped to get rid of German mines and was awarded the Legion D’Honneur and the Croix de Guerre medals for his bravery. In 1942, he filmed his first underwater film Sixty Feet Down. It was 18 minutes long and was entered in the Cannes Film Festival.

Question 31. What is the writer trying to do in the passage?

A. Teach readers how to make films B. Explain how Jacques-Yves Cousteau has made a lot of money C. Introduce readers to the filmmaker Jacques-Yves Cousteau D. Describe particular films directed by Jacques Cousteau Question 32. Being a child, Cousteau had ________.

A. strong will B. bright mind C. heart attacks D. delicate health Question 33. In a car accident he ________.

A. burnt both of his arm B. broke his extremities C. injured his leg D. hurt his eyes Question 34. Cousteau developed underwater breathing equipment, ________.

A. to extend his underwater investigations B. to gain fame C. to achieve commercial success D. having no certain goals Question 35. During World War II Cousteau collaborated with ________.

A. Polish resistance movement B. German antifascists C. American troops D. underground resistance fighters in France Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

The geology of the Earth’s surface is dominated by the particular properties of water. Present on Earth in solid, liquid, and gaseous states, water is exceptionally reactive. It dissolves, transports, and precipitates many chemical compounds and is constantly modifying the face of the Earth.

Evaporated from the oceans, water vapor forms clouds, some of which are transported by wind over the continents. Condensation from the clouds provides the essential agent of continental erosion: rain. Precipitated onto the ground, the water trickles down to form brooks, streams, and rivers, constituting what are called the hydrographic network. This immense polarized network channels the water toward a single receptacle: an ocean. Gravity dominates this entire step in the cycle because water tends to minimize its potential energy by running from high altitudes toward the reference point, that is, sea level.

The rate at which a molecule of water passes though the cycle is not random but is a measure of the relative size of the various reservoirs. If we define residence time as the average time for a water molecule to pass through one of the three reservoirs - atmosphere, continent, and ocean - we see that the times are very different. A water molecule stays, on average, eleven days in the atmosphere,

one hundred years on a continent and forty thousand years in the ocean. This last figure shows the importance of the ocean as the principal reservoir of the hydrosphere but also the rapidity of water transport on the continents.

A vast chemical separation process takes places during the flow of water over the continents.

Soluble ions such as calcium, sodium, potassium, and some magnesium are dissolved and transported. Insoluble ions such as aluminum, iron, and silicon stay where they are and form the thin, fertile skin of soil on which vegetation can grow. Sometimes soils are destroyed and transported mechanically during flooding. The erosion of the continents thus results from two closely linked and interdependent processes, chemical erosion and mechanical erosion. Their respective interactions and efficiency depend on different factors.

Question 36. The word "which" in paragraph 2 refers to ________.

A. clouds B. oceans C. continents D. compounds Question 37.According to the passage, clouds are primarily formed by water ________.

A. precipitating onto the ground B. changing from a solid to a liquid state C. evaporating from the oceans D. being carried by wind Question 38. The passage suggests that the purpose of the "hydrographic network" is to ______.

A. determine the size of molecules of water B. prevent soil erosion caused by flooding C. move water from the Earth’s surface to the oceans D. regulate the rate of water flow from streams and rivers Question 39. What determines the rate at which a molecule of water moves through the cycle, as discussed in the third paragraph?

A. The potential energy contained in water B. The effects of atmospheric pressure on chemical compounds C. The amounts of rainfall that fall on the continents D. The relative size of the water storage areas Question 40. The word "rapidity" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.

A. significance B. method C. swiftness D. reliability Question 41. The word "they" in the last paragraph refers to ________.

A. insoluble ions B. soluble ions C. soils D. continents Question 42. All of the following are example of soluble ions EXCEPT ________.

A. magnesium B iron C. potassium D. calcium Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. (A) Intelligence, education, (B) and experience all (C) helps shape (D) management style.

Question 44. He was (A) too exhausted (B) that he (C) couldn’t even stand on (D) his feet.

Question 45. I didn’t mean (A) offending him, but he (B) took my comments (C) amiss and now will not talk (D) to me.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. Our chances of success are very small.

A. There is possibility that we will achieve success.

B. It’s not very likely that we will succeed.

C. We will certainly be very successful.

D. We have no chances, so we are not successful.

Question 47. I had no sooner got to know my neighbors than they moved away.

A. Soon after I got to know my new neighbors, I stopped having contact with them.

B. If my new neighbors had stayed longer, I would have got to know them better.

C. Once I had got used to my new neighbors, they moved somewhere else.

D. Hardly had I become acguainted with my new neighbors when they went somewhere else to live.

Question 48. He didn’t eat anything but small pieces of bread and butter.

A. He ate small pieces of bread and butter but didn’t like them.

B. He only ate some small pieces of bread and butter.

C. He didn’t eat anything, not even the bread and butter.

D. He didn’t touch the bread and butter, but he ate other things.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. The storm was so great. Many families had to be evacuated to safer parts of the city.

A. Although the storm was not great, many families had to be evacuated to safer parts of the city.

B. So great was the storm that many families had to be evacuated to safer parts of the city.

C Many families had to be evacuated to safer parts of the city in spite of the great storm.

D. It was so a great storm that many families had to be evacuated to safer parts of the city.

Question 50. She behaved in a very strange way. That surprised me a lot.

A. Her behaviour was a very strange thing, that surprised me most.

B. She behaved very strangely, which surprised me very much.

C. What almost surprised me was the strange way she behaved.

D. I was almost not surprised by her strange behaviour.

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC

ĐỀ SỐ 12

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO Môn: Tiếng Anh Số câu hỏi: 50 câu - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the fetter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. rough B. touchy C. southern D. coup Question 2. A. honour B. heritage C. vehicle D. heiress Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. innocent B. criminal C. reaction D. specialist Question 4. A. definition B. politician C. situation D. production Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. Mr. Nam knows Hanoi City like the back of his ________. He used to be a taxi driver there for 10 years.

A. head B. mind C. hand D. life Question 6. They were extremely tired at the end of the journey because they ________ for more than 24 hours.

A. have travelled B. have been travelling C. had travelled D. had been travelling Question 7. ________ people are those who share the same interests, or points of view.

A. Light-hearted B. Like-minded C. Even-handed D. Open-minded Question 8. I thought the party ________ really well.

A. came off B. came up C. came about D. came across Question 9. The ________ of new technology transformed our lives.

A. interaction B. advent C. emergency D. identity Question 10. Lan was ________ of the two sisters.

A. the clever B. as clever as C. the cleverer D. the cleverest Question 11. The film ________ in 1997 is about the wild animals.

A. made B. which made C. making D. to make Question 12. The house ________ the earthquake but then ________ by a fire.

A. survived - was destroyed B. was survived - destroyed C. survived - destroyed D. was survived - was destroyed Question 13. The boy quickly ________ the old woman’s telephone number to memory.

A. devoted B. added C. committed D. admitted Question 14. The film would have been perfect ________ the ending.

A. had it not been for B. it had not been for C. it hadn’t been for D. hadn’t it been for Question 15. Ann’s very modest, always ________ her success.

A. playing down B. turning around C. keeping down D. pushing back Question 16. It is not until December 25 ________ the exam results will be announced.

A. which B. what C. that D. when Question 17. Suppose she ________ you stealing, what would you do?

A. has caught B. catches C. had caught D. caught Question 18. The teacher recommended that Linda ________ her essay as soon as possible.

A. finish writing B. finished writing

C. should finish to write D. finishes writing Question 19. The last of these reasons is ________ the most important.

A. so B. very C. far D. by far Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. I don’t like him. There is a sneaky look on his face.

A. furious B. humorous C. dishonest D. guilty Question 21. It is such a prestigious university that only good students are entitled to a full scholarship each year.

A. have the right to refuse B. are given the right to C. are refused the right to D. have the obligation to Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. Tom was too wet behind the ears to be in charge of such a difficult task.

A. full of experience B. lack of responsibility C. without money D. full of sincerity Question 23. Lan’s replies were inconsistent with her previous testimony.

A. contradicted B. compatible C. enhanced D. incorporated Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24. Mr David is having dinner with his friend in a restaurant.

Mr David: "Could you bring me some water?" - Waiter:" ________” A. No, thanks.

B. Of course you can. C. I’m afraid not.

D. Certainly, sir.

Question 25. Huy was asking Mai, his classmate, for her opinion about the book he had lent her.

Huy: "What do you think about the book?" - Mai:" ________ " A. Yes, let’s read it together.

B. The best I’ve ever read!

C. I can’t agree with you more.

D. I wish I could buy one.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

Most people are born with the natural ability to tell stories, but only a rare few have the determination to become professional authors, and even fewer have the joy of seeing their novels top the (26) _______ of bestselling books. Some of the world’s famous crime writers have achieved the greatest success of all. Who can deny the appeal of famous detectives like Sherlock Holmes, Miss Marple or Hercule Poirot? Even if you haven’t read the (27) _______ books you will have seen them in films or on the TV. If you have an ambition to become the next Agatha Christie what should you do? The best starting point is to read lots of examples of crime fiction written by good authors. You will need a notebook to carry around with you or, even better, some loose sheets of paper that you can (28) _______ notes on and then file into a folder. After all, the most everyday situation - for example, watching a woman get (29) _______ a train - may be the inspiration for your first bestseller.

Like any good recipe you have to know the main (30) _______ of a successful novel. These are: an original story, strong characters and a memorable setting.

Question 26. A. queue B. row C. line D. list Question 27. A. first B. initial C. early D. original Question 28. A. complete B. fill C. make D. do Question 29. A. off B. down C. out D. from Question 30. A. sections B. pieces C. ingredients D. parts Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

Notting Hill Carnival takes place in London every August Bank Holiday, and is the most colourful and largest street event in the UK. The festival celebrates the traditions of the AfroCaribbean community, who emigrated to England from the West Indies in the 1950s. They brought with them the Caribbean idea of the carnival, with colourful costumes, processions, steel bands and street dancing. Preparations for the carnival start many months in advance. Costumes need to be made, and floats built, ready for the carnival street procession. Steel bands practise traditional Caribbean music on instruments built from used oil barrels. Just before the festival, the streets are decorated with yellow, green and red streamers, and amplifying devices are set in place, to carry the rhythmic sounds over the roar of the London traffic. The carnival is celebrated over three days, and is full of music and colour. Processions of steel and brass bands, floats, and dancers in colourful costumes make their way through the narrow London streets, watched by tens of thousands of people. The streets are lined with stalls selling tropical fruits, such as fresh mangoes, watermelons and pineapple. Everyone dances - young and old, black and white - and even the policemen on duty take part in the fun. For these three days in August, a little Caribbean magic touches the streets of London.

Question 31. What is the writer’s main aim in writing the passage?

A. To encourage people to celebrate the traditions of black people B. To talk about problems with Afro-Caribbean community C. To recommend people spend more time outdoors D. To understand and describe the Notting Hill Carnival Question 32. According to the passage, Notting Hill Carnival ________.

A. takes place every Bank Holiday B. is held annually in August C. is organized by the Bank of England D. is held at the beginning of August Question 33. During the Notting Hill Carnival, ________.

A. the participants in the carnival decorate the streets with colourful streamers B. preparations start early in the morning C. music and colour fill the streets of London D. traffic is banned from the main shopping streets Question 34. The writer claims that ________.

A. this carnival has been organized since at least the 1950s B. tens of thousands of people take part in the preparations for the carnival C. dancers in the carnival wear special clothes D. the dancers in the carnival are from the black community Question 35. Although the carnival is a celebration of the traditions of black British, ________.

A. everyone seems to participate in it B. only Caribbean people take part in it C. it is gaining in popularity among the white in recent years D. people from all over the world come to watch it Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

The work of the railroad pioneers in America became the basis for a great surge of railroad building halfway through the nineteenth century that linked the nation together as never before.

Railroads eventually became the nation’s number one transportation system and remained so until the construction of the interstate highway system halfway through the twentieth century. They were of crucial importance in stimulating economic expansion, but their influence reached beyond the economy and was pervasive in American society at large.

By 1804, English, as well as American inventors, had experimented with steam engines for moving land vehicles. In 1920, John Stevens ran a locomotive and cars around in a circular track on

his New Jersey estate, which the public saw as an amusing toy. And in 1825, after opening a short length of a track, the Stockton to Darlington Railroad in England became the first line to carry general traffic. American business people, especially those in the Atlantic coastal region who looked for better communication with the West, quickly became interested in the English experiment. The first company in America to begin actual operations was the Baltimore and Ohio, which opened a thirteen mile length of track in 1830. It used a team of horses to pull a train of passenger carriages and freight wagons along the track. Steam locomotive power didn’t come into regular service until two years later.

However, for the first decade or more, there was not yet a true railroad system. Even the longest of the lines were relatively short in the 1830’s, and most of them served simply to connect water routes to each other, not to link one railroad to another. Even when two lines did connect, the tracks often differed in width, so cars from one line couldn’t fit onto tracks of the next line.

Schedules were unreliable and wrecks were frequent. Significantly, however, some important developments during the 1830’s and 1840’s included the introduction of heavier iron rails, more flexible and powerful locomotives, and passenger cars were redesigned to become more stable, comfortable, and larger. By the end of 1830 only 23 miles of track had been laid in the country. But by 1936, more than 1,000 miles of track had been laid in eleven States, and within the decade, almost 3,000 miles had been constructed. By that early age, the United States had already surpassed Great Britain in railroad construction, and particularly from the mid-1860’s, the late nineteenth century belonged to the railroads.

Question 36. The word "their" in paragraph 1 refers to ________.

A. railroad pioneers B. railroads C. the interstate highway system D. American society Question 37. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A. The United States regarded Great Britain as a competitor in developing the most efficient railroad system B. Steam locomotive power was first used in 1832 C. American businessmen saw railroads as a threat to established businesses D. Steam locomotives replaced horses because of the distances across the country Question 38. The author concludes that for the first decade or more, there was not yet a true railroad system because ________.

A. passenger cars were not stable, comfortable or large B. locomotives were not powerful enough C. schedules were unreliable and wrecks were frequent D. lines were relatively short and not usually linked Question 39. Which of the following is NOT true about the 1830’s and 1840’s?

A. passenger cars became larger B. schedules were reliable C. locomotives became more powerful D. tracks were heavier Question 40. The word "stable" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.

A. fixed B. supportive C. unreliable D. sound Question 41. By what time had almost 3,000 miles of track been laid?

A. 1830 B. 1836 C. 1840 D. mid-1860s Question 42. The word "surpassed" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.

A. exceeded B. beaten C. overtaken D. equaled Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. The (A) average salt (B) content of seawater is (C) more than three (D) percents.

Question 44. For many years, people (A) have used some (B) kind of refrigerator (C) cooling beverages and preserve (D) edibles.

Question 45. My husband is an ambitious person (A) who (B) is committed to (C) improve his status (D) at work.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. Friendly though she may seem, she’s not to be trusted.

A. However friendly she seems, she’s not to be trusted, B. She’s too friendly to be trusted.

C. However she seems friendly, she’s not to be trusted, D. She may have friends, but she’s not to be trusted.

Question 47. "I will come back early. I really will!". She said.

A. She promised to come back early.

B. She reminded me to come back early.

C. She refused to come back early.

D. She offered to come back early.

Question 48. The last time I saw David was when I ran into him at the station on my way to New York.

A. I haven’t seen David since a chance meeting with him at the station when I was setting off for New York.

B. When I last went to New York, I happened to meet David at the station.

C. When I last saw David at the station in New York, I ran after him.

D. I finally saw David at the station when I was on my way to New York.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. She did not study hard. She failed the exam.

A. Even though she failed the exam, she didn’t study hard.

B. Unless she had studied hard, she would have failed the exam.

C. If she had studied hard, she would have passed the exam.

D. However hard she studied, she failed the exam.

Question 50. He raised his hand high. He wanted to attract his teacher’s attention.

A. Because his teacher attracted him, he raised his hand high.

B. To attract his teacher’s attention, he raised his hand high.

C. Though he raised his hand high, he could not attract his teacher’s attention.

D. He had such a high raising of hand that he failed to attract his teacher’s attention.

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC

ĐỀ SỐ 13

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO Môn: Tiếng Anh Số câu hỏi: 50 câu - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. practise B. amuse C. advertise D. arise Question 2. A. epidemic B. illegal C. education D. competitor Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. reservation B. communicate C. dictation D. occasion Question 4. A. economic B. optimistic C. capability D. conquerable Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. Prices are increasing dramatically in big cities. The _______ seems to go up every day.

A. standard of living B. quality of life C. annual income D. cost of living Question 6. Many parents tend to push their children because they believe that good education will enable them to _______in the future.

A. turn up B. get on C. get out D. turn down Question 7. Whenever I visited her, my grandmother _______my favorite cake for me.

A. would make B. use to make C. would have made D. have made Question 8. Nobody wants to help him, _______?

A. does he B. doesn’t he C. do they D. don’t they Question 9. He was injured after jumping _______the wall yesterday.

A. over B. under C. across D. through Question 10. Action movies may have a negative _______on children.

A. opinion B. influence C. dependence D. decision Question 11. She left her husband after a _______row.

A. burning B. heavy C. crashing D. blazing Question 12. After she had had a couple of glasses of champagne _______she started to feel _______.

A. narrow - minded B. light - headed C. light - footed D. light - hearted Question 13. She is a(n) _______ . She finds it difficult to socialize with other students in the class.

A. industrious B. dynamic C. reserved D. sociable Question 14. I had all the information at my _______before attending the meeting.

A. fingertips B. thumbs C. hands D. fingers Question 15. Rather than _______about how tired she was, she got on with her job.

A. to complain B. complained C. she complained D. complain Question 16. They will be staying here for _______few weeks.

A. other B. another C. others D. the others Question 17. I locked the door of my room all day yesterday to avoid _______.

A. disturbing B. being disturbed C. to disturb D. to be disturbed Question 18. I think I put my _______in it when I asked Lisa about her ex-husband.

A. thought B. elbow C. foot D. nose Question 19. Clothing made of plastic fibers has some certain advantages over _______made of natural fibers.

A. that B. which C. the one D. what Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. I think Michael hit the nail on the head when he said that what is lacking in this company is the feeling of confidence.

A. interpreted something indirectly B. described something unconsciously C. said something correctly D. misunderstood something seriously Question 21. Deforestation may seriously jeopardize the habitat of many species.

A. do harm to B. set fire to C. give rise to D. make way for Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. You have got a high score in the final exam. You should put yourself on the back.

A. criticize yourself B. wear a backpack C. praise yourself D. check up your back Question 23. Her physical condition was not an impediment to her career as a singer. She has won a lot of prizes.

A. advantage B. obstacle C. barrier D. disadvantage Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24. Hoa: "Would you mind closing the door?" - Hung:" _______."

A. Yes, of course. Are you tired?

B. No, not at all. I’ll do it now.

C. Yes, I do. You can close it.

D. Don’t worry. Go ahead!

Question 25. Waitress: "Hi, may I take your order, madam?" - Mrs. Brown:" _______."

A. I don’t want to do anything. I’ve really had enough.

B. OK, here is my bill.

C. Yes, I’d like some fish and chips.

D. Sure, it’s delicious.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

Tourism is one of the world’s largest industries, and it is the fastest growing. It contributes over £50 billion to the economy annually, over £12 billion of it from overseas visitors. About 25 million overseas visitors come to Britain each year. Tourism is one of the biggest employment (26) _______ in the UK, too - it employs over 1.7 million people, which is more than in the construction or health service industries.

Around 20% of all new (27) _______ are in this industry. These figures are very impressive, but how do they translate into job possibilities for you? There is room in this industry for all sorts of people, with different educational (28) _______ , personal attributes, interests and career aims. A tourist is really a traveller - someone who (29) _______ a journey, usually for recreation, like a holiday or sightseeing. (30) _______ , tourism at its very simplest refers to the industry that provides travel and entertainment facilities for people away from their own homes.

Question 26. A. zones B. sectors C. sections D. districts Question 27. A. employments B. vocations C. works D. jobs Question 28. A. backgrounds B. settings C. traditions D. surroundings Question 29. A. does B. performs C. makes D. breaks Question 30. A. Therefore B. Because C. Despite D. Although Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

Most people have heard of Albert Einstein, but a person who became a friend of his may be less well-known, but she is also a famous scientist. Her name is Marie Curie, who is most known for her work in radiation. She was born in Warsaw, Poland on November 7,1867 where she grew up with her parents and four other children in the family. Marie was also the youngest child. Because

both her parents were teachers, Marie learned how to read and write at a very young age. She was intelligent, had an outstanding memory, and worked very hard in school.

As Marie grew older there were tough times for her and the family, but she was able to attend a university after graduating from high school, even though it was not something women did during those times. However, she attended a famous university in Paris, France called the Sorbonne where women were permitted to attend. After just three years at the school she earned a degree in Physics.

She loved to learn and had always known she wanted to be a scientist.

In 1894, she married Pierre Curie, also a scientist, and a year later they had their first child, a daughter named Irene. Marriage and motherhood did not stop Marie from her work and research as a scientist. She became interested in x-rays which had been recently discovered. Marie decided to do some experiments with the element uranium, which is given off by the rays.

Her husband, Pierre, joined Marie in her experiments. One day she was examining a material called pitchblende and had expected just a few rays to be given off. Instead, there were many extra rays and Marie realized there must have been an undiscovered element in pitchblende. She and her husband spent many more hours in the lab doing investigations with the new element. They ended up discovering there were two new elements which they discovered, adding them to the periodic table.

Maria named one of the elements polonium after her home country, Poland, and the other she named it radium because it gave off so many strong rays. Marie and Pierre Curie came up with the new term ‘radioactivity’ too, as well to describe elements that emit strong rays.

In 1903, the Nobel Prize in Physics was awarded to both scientists for their work in radiation, and Marie was also the first woman in history to be awarded the Nobel Prize. She did not stop there though, because in 1911, Marie won another Nobel Prize, this time in chemistry, for discovering the two elements, polonium and radium. Not only was she the first woman, but also the first person ever to be awarded two Nobel Prizes. This made her very famous and scientists all over the world wanted to study radioactivity with Marie. Later, doctors found that radiology could help cure cancer.

Unfortunately, Marie Curie died in 1934 due to overexposure to radiation from the experiments and from the work she did with x-ray machines. Currently, there are many safety precautions that are used preventing scientists from being overexposed to radiation.

In summary, Marie Curie is a famous physicist known for her work with radiation, and also as the first woman to receive a Nobel Prize and to win two Nobel Prizes in her lifetime.

Question 31. What degree did Marie Curie first earn in college?

A. Physics B. Chemistry C. Biology D. Physiology Question 32. What did Marie Curie first become interested in which lead to her experiments?

A. Research B. X-rays C. Injured soldiers D. Pitchblende Question 33. Which fields of science did Marie Curie win her Nobel Prizes?

A. Chemistry B. Physics C. Biology D. Both A and B Question 34. Marie Curie discovered two new elements for the periodic table, radium and _______.

A. polonium B. solonium C. radon D. curium Question 35. Which of the following was the cause of Marie Curie’s death?

A. Overexposure to polonium B. Overexposure to radiation C. Overexposure to cancer D. Overexposure to the sun Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Annie Oakley, an intriguing figure in American entertainment, was a markswoman who starred in Buffalo Bill’s Wild West Show, where she was often called "Little Sure Shot". She was born in 1860 in Darke County, Ohio, and her original name was Phoebe Ann Moses. As a child, she hunted game with such success that, according to legend, by selling it in Cincinnati, Ohio, she was able to pay off the mortgage on the family farm. When she was 15 she won a shooting match in Cincinnati with Frank E. Butler, a vaudeville marksman, and they were married a year later.

For the next ten years they toured the country and performed in theaters and circuses as "Butler and Oakley." In April 1885, Annie Oakley, now under her husband’s management, joined "Buffalo Bill" Cody’s Wild West Show. Billed as "Miss Annie Oakley, the Peerless Lady Wing- Shot," she was one of the show’s star attractions for sixteen years.

Oakley never failed to delight her audiences, and her feats of marksmanship were truly incredible. At 30 paces she could split a playing card held edge-on, and she hit dimes tossed into the air. She shot cigarettes from her husband’s lips, and, when he threw a playing card into the air, she would shoot it full of holes before it touched the ground. She was a great success on the Wild West Show’s European trips.

In 1887, she was presented to Queen Victoria, and later in Berlin she performed her cigarette trick with, at his insistence, Crown Prince Wilhelm (later Kaiser Wilhelm II) holding the cigarette.

A train wreck in 1901 left her partially paralyzed for a time, but she recovered and returned to the stage to amaze audiences for many more years.

Question 36. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word "intriguing" in the passage?

A. frightening B. fascinating C. fabulous D. funny Question 37. What does the word "it" as used in the phrase "by selling it" refer to?

A. child B. game C. legend D. mortgage Question 38. The passage implies that Oakley and Butler were married in _______.

A. 1873 B. 1874 C. 1875 D. 1876 Question 39. According to the passage, Frank E. Butler was all of the following EXCEPT _______.

A. Annie Oakley’s assistant in her act B. Annie Oakley’s husband C. Annie Oakley’s teacher D. Annie Oakley’s manager Question 40. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word "feats" in the passage?

A. jokes B. accomplishments C. displays D. mistakes Question 41. According to the passage, who performed the cigarette trick with her in Europe?

A. Queen Victoria B. Crown Prince Wilhelm C. Buffalo Bill Cody D. Princess Anne Question 42. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A. Annie Oakley was a talented and popular entertainer.

B. Frank E. Butler was jealous of his wife’s talent and popularity.

C. Queen Victoria was brave when she held a cigarette for Annie Oakley.

D. Buffalo Bill Cody was not as good a marksman as Annie Oakley.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. The doctor (A) advised him to avoid (B) eating fatty foods, (C) having more fresh vegetables and drink (D) much water.

Question 44. (A) On the table (B) is (C) hundreds of books written (D) in English.

Question 45. When I (A) came back I (B) realized that (C) my camera (D) had been disappeared.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. If I hadn’t had so much work to do I would have gone to the movies.

A. Because I had to do so much work I couldn’t go to the movies.

B. I would go to the movies when I had done so much work.

C. A lot of work couldn’t prevent me from going to the movies.

D. I never go to the movies if I have work to do.

Question 47. "No, no, you really must stay with us!" said the children.

A. The children denied my staying with them.

B. The children refused to let me stay with them.

C. The children didn’t agree to let me stay with them.

D. The children insisted on my staying with them.

Question 48. She shouldn’t have forgotten that yesterday was her daughter’s birthday.

A. She had a birthday which her daughter forgot.

B. Yesterday, she remembered when her daughter’s birthday was.

C. She failed to remember the date of her daughter’s birthday.

D. Her daughter forgot her own birthday.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. Smoking is an extremely harmful habit. You should give it up immediately.

A. As smoking is an extremely harmful habit, you should give it up immediately.

B. When you give up smoking immediately, your health will be affected with this harmful habit.

C. Stop your smoking immediately so it will become one of your extremely harmful habits.

D. You should give up smoking immediately and you will fall into an extremely harmful habit.

Question 50. She applied for the job abroad. She wanted to develop herself and earn more money.

A. She applied for the job abroad in order to develop herself and earn more money.

B. So as to earn more money for development, she applied for the job abroad.

C. She applied for the job abroad, so she developed herself and earn more money.

D. To earn more money was the reason why she applied for the job abroad.

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC

ĐỀ SỐ 14

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO Môn: Tiếng Anh Số câu hỏi: 50 câu - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. massage B. carriage C. voyage D. dosage Question 2. A. challenge B. chameleon C. chew D. chapter Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. particular B. environment C. prosperity D. circumstance Question 4. A. investigate B. important C. convenient D. supervisor Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. Although she is my sister, I find it hard to ________ her selfishness.

A. put up with B. catch up with C. keep up with D. come down with Question 6. This girl doesn’t reveal much about herself, and is ________ fascinating for it.

A. as B. the same C. all the more D. the more Question 7. I didn’t ________ to see my aunt when I was in Paris.

A. take B. make C. get D. meet Question 8. Mr. Huy received a warning for speeding. He ________ so fast.

A. shouldn’t have driven C. should have B. would have driven D. might have driven Question 9. Tom never stays in one place for long. He always gets ________ feet and sets off on his travels again.

A. chilly B. itchy C. dusty D. shaky Question 10. He ________ his uncle for his father’s death.

A. accused B. caused C. confessed D. blamed Question 11. Our new classmate, John is a bit of a rough ________ but I think I’m going to like him once I get used to him.

A. stone B. rock C. diamond D. pearl Question 12. This watch is only made of plastic so it’s quite ________.

A. valuable B. worthless C. priceless D. invaluable Question 13. David does not have ________ Peter does.

A. money more than B. as many money as C. more money as D. as much money as Question 14. After a long working day, she felt ________.

A. broken down B. worn out C. knocked out D. turned down Question 15. Tim was disappointed because he ________ for the train for two hours.

A. was waiting B. waited C. has been waiting D. had been waiting Question 16. There were many politicians at the meeting, several of ________ were very young.

A. that B. whom C. who D. which Question 17. The judge ________ murderer to a lifetime imprisonment.

A. prosecuted B. sentenced C. convicted D. accused Question 18. He lost his job because he was ________. He made so many mistakes.

A. rash B. incautious C. inefficient D. impulsive Question 19. ________ me to your mother when you are in New York.

A. Tell B. Remind C. Remember D. Greet Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. The sales clerk was totally bewildered by the customer’s behavior.

A. disgusted B. puzzled C. angry D. upset Question 21. Thousands of people flocked to the beach this weekend.

A. came without knowing what they will see B. came in large numbers C. came out of boredom D. came by plane Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. I think you will be home and dry in the interview because you have many years of teaching experience and good academic qualifications.

A. be successful B. be unsuccessful C. be satisfied D. be unsatisfied Question 23. It’s very difficult to tell her to give in because she is so big-headed.

A. wise B. generous C. modest D. arrogant Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24. Ken and Laura are saying goodbye to each other after going to LOTTE Center. And they are going to have a date with each other later.

Laura: "Well, it’s getting late. Maybe we could get together sometime." - Ken:" ________ " A. Nice to see back you.

B. Take it easy.

C. Sounds good. I’ll give you a call.

D. Yes, I’ve enjoyed it.

Question 25. Hung: "How about listening to pop music?” - Hoa:" ________ " A. Good idea.

B. I’m afraid I do.

C. No, it’s interesting, isn’t it?

D. Sorry, I don’t like to work.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

Horses and donkeys were (26) _______ comparatively late compared with other animals, probably around 4000 BC in Western Asia. By that time, people in many parts of the world were no longer (27) _______ on hunting and gathering their food, but had become nomadic stockbreeders or settled farmers, raising livestock such as cattle, sheep and goats and, in the static communities, growing and harvesting food plants.

They still hunted wild game, but could now do so with the (28) _______ of domestic dogs, the close animal companions who also helped them to protect and control their flocks and herds. Their needs for meat, milk, skins and wool were being met, and it may not have been immediately obvious to them that the horse had anything more to offer than the occasional (29) _______ of the chase and a different type of meat. The horse did have something more to offer. It had the potential to bring about nothing less than a revolution (30) _______ power and transport, a dramatic development that transformed the ability of humans to wage war.

Question 26. A. trained B. domesticated C. educated D. accustomed Question 27. A. reliant B. liable C. subject D. sustained Question 28. A. aim B. assistance C. compliments D. intention Question 29. A. inspiration B. kick C. thrill D. emotion Question 30. A. in B. at C. for D. on Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

Psychologists tell us that there are four basic stages that human beings pass through when they enter and live in a new culture. This process, which helps us to deal with culture shock, is the way our brain and our personality reacts to the strange new things we encounter when we move from one culture to another. If our culture involves bowing when we greet someone, we may feel very

uncomfortable in a culture that does not involve bowing. If the language we use when talking to someone in our own culture is influenced by levels of formality based on the other person’s age and status, it may be difficult for us to feel comfortable communicating with people in the new culture.

Culture begins with the "honeymoon stage". This is the period of time when we first arrive in which everything about the new culture is strange and exciting.

We may be suffering from "jet lag� but we are thrilled to be in the new environment, seeing new sights, hearing new sounds and language, eating new kinds of food. This honeymoon stage can last for quite a long time because we feel we are involved in some kind of great adventure.

Unfortunately, the second stage of culture shock can be more difficult. After we have settled down into our new life, working or studying, buying groceries, doing laundry, or living with a home-stay family, we can become very tired and begin to miss our homeland and our family, girlfriend/ boyfriend, pets. All the little problems that everybody in life has seem to be much bigger and more disturbing when you face them in a foreign culture. This period of cultural adjustment can be very difficult and lead to the new arrival rejecting or pulling away from the new culture. This "rejection stage" can be quite dangerous because the visitor may develop unhealthy habits (smoking and drinking too much, being too concerned over food or contact with people from the new culture).

This can, unfortunately lead to the person getting sick or developing skin infections or rashes which then makes the person feel even more scared and confused and helpless. This stage is considered a crisis in the process of cultural adjustment and many people choose to go back to their homeland or spend all their time with people from their own culture speaking their native language.

The third stage of culture shock is called the "adjustment stage". This is when you begin to realize that things are not so bad in the host culture. Your sense of humour usually becomes stronger and you realize that you are becoming stronger by learning to take care of yourself in the new place. Things are still difficult, but you are now a survivor! The fourth stage can be called "at ease at last". Now you feel quite comfortable in your new surroundings. You can cope with most problems that occur. You may still have problems with the language, but you know you are strong enough to deal with them. If you meet someone from your country who has just arrived, you can be the expert on life in the new culture and help them to deal with their culture shock.

(From: http://gzyy. cooco.net. cn) Question 31. When does culture shock happen?

A. When you reach your teens B. When you move to a big city C. When you meet foreign people for the first time D. When you go to live in a foreign culture Question 32. How do you feel during the first stage of culture shock?

A. Lonely and depressed B. Bored and homesick C. Happy and excited D. Angry and frustrated Question 33. How do you feel during the second stage?

A. Homesick and afraid B. Interested and amused C. Stressed, but positive D. You have no particular feelings Question 34. How could the third stage be described?

A. Adjustment B. Rejection C. Enthusiasm D. Anger Question 35. How do you feel during the fourth stage of culture shock?

A. Tense, but positive B. Relaxed C. Negative and stressed D. Afraid Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Earthquakes are the most lethal of all natural disasters. What causes them? Geologists explain them in terms of a theory known as plate tectonics. Continents are floating apart from each other; this is referred to as the continental drift. About sixty miles below the surface of the sea, there is a semi-molten bed of rock over which plates, or slabs, carry continents and sea floors at a rate of

several inches a year. As the plates separate from each other, a new sea floor is formed by the molten matter that was formerly beneath. Volcanic islands and large mountain ranges are created by this type of movement. The collision of plates causes geological instability such as that in California called the San Andreas Fault, located between the Pacific and North American plates. The plates there are constantly pushing and pulling adjacent plates, thereby creating constant tremors and a potential for earthquakes in the area.

Geologists would like to be able to predict earthquakes accurately. Using laser beams, seismographs, gravity-measuring devices, and radio telescopes, they are presently studying the San Andreas Fault to determine the rate of strain and the amount of ground slippage. Calculations indicate that sometime in the future, California will be struck by a major earthquake. In spite of the geologists’ theory of plate tectonics, there are still gaps in man’s understanding and knowledge of the causes of earthquakes. Powerful earthquakes have occurred in places where plate boundaries are hundreds of miles away. In the 1800s New Madrid, Missouri, and Charleston, South Carolina, were shaken by earthquakes that no one had foreseen.

Certain areas of the world are quake prone. Italy, Yugoslavia, and Algeria have experienced many quakes. In November 1980, Naples was struck by an especially devastating quake. China and Japan have also been hit by horrendous quakes. In 1923, Tokyo and Yokohama were reduced to rubble by gigantic tremors that were followed by fires, tornadoes, and finally a thirty-four-foot tsunami, or tidal wave, which was caused by the earth’s drop into the waters of Tokyo Bay. What effects have geologists’ predictions of earthquakes had? The Chinese in Haicheng in 1974 were warned that an earthquake might occur within the next year or two. With the help of amateur seismologists’ observations of animal behavior and the rise and fall of water in wells and measurements of quantities of radioactive gas in water, professional geologists were able, in January 1975, to predict an earthquake within the next six months. On February 4, Haicheng was destroyed, but because its residents had been evacuated, very few people were killed. In California, where earthquake is an ever-present menace, building codes now require quakeproof structures, and Civil Defense units have intensified their training in how to deal with disaster should it strike or, perhaps more accurately, when it strikes.

Question 36. Continental drift is the concept that ________.

A. continents are drawing nearer to each other B. continents are separating C. continents are 60 miles apart from each other D. new continents are developing beneath the sea Question 37. Geologists are using modern technology to ________.

A. help predict earthquakes B. enhance their reputations C. measure the accuracy of earthquakes D. control ground slippage Question 38. The Chinese predicted an earthquake by ________.

A. employing amateur seismologists B. observing professional geologists C. watching animals, wells, and radioactive gas D. evacuating the population Question 39. Californians are preparing for an earthquake by ________.

A. saving their property B. building stronger houses and practicing techniques to handle emergencies C. ignoring the San Andreas Fault D. moving to another state Question 40. No one had foreseen earthquakes in Missouri because ________.

A. the area is not quake prone B. geologists do not understand the area C. there are gaps in the area D. the theory of plate tectonics is incorrect Question 41. Geologists have been able to predict an earthquake ________.

A. with unerring accuracy B. within months

C. by measuring tremors D. by knowing about continental drift Question 42. Volcanic islands are formed by ________.

A. the separation of plates and the consequent uncovering of the molten sea floor beneath them B. the constant pushing and pulling of adjacent plates C. constant tremors D. huge mountain ranges Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. Tim works (A) as a doctor and he (B) earns (C) twice (D) as much than his brother.

Question 44. You (A) shouldn’t criticize (B) him in front of his friends. (C) It was (D) insensitive of you.

Question 45. (A) Alike other forms of energy, natural gas (B) may be used to (C) heat homes, cook food, and even (D) run automobiles.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. Due to the fact that the demand for tea was very high in the 19th century, its price was astronomical.

A. It was not until the 19th century that the demand for tea started to increase.

B. The demand for tea was so high in the 19th century that its price was enormous.

C. In the 19th century the price for tea didn’t increase despite the demand.

D. In the 19th century, even though the demand for tea was enormous its price remained cheap.

Question 47. Tom no longer smokes a lot.

A. Tom now smokes a lot.

B. Tom used to smoke a lot.

C. Tom didn’t use to smoke a lot.

D. Tom rarely smoked a lot.

Question 48. No one has sent me that letter.

A. I haven’t been sent that letter.

B. I wasn’t sent that letter.

C. That letter hasn’t been sent me.

D. That letter has sent to me by no one.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. Mr. Hung is a professor. His car was stolen yesterday.

A. His car was stolen yesterday, Mr Hung is a professor.

B. Mr. Hung, who his car was stolen yesterday, is a professor.

C. Mr. Hung, who is a professor, his car was stolen yesterday.

D. Mr. Hung, whose car was stolen yesterday, is a professor.

Question 50. Mary was not here yesterday. Perhaps she was ill.

A. Mary needn’t be here yesterday because she was ill.

B. Because of her illness, Mary shouldn’t have been here yesterday.

C. Mary might have been ill yesterday, so she was not here.

D. Mary must have been ill yesterday, so she was not here.

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC

ĐỀ SỐ 15

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO Môn: Tiếng Anh Số câu hỏi: 50 câu - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. debt B. climb C. timber D. lamb Question 2. A. garage B. shortage C. courage D. luggage Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. information B. applicable C. entertainment D. conversation Question 4. A. opportunity B. civilization C. intellectually D. psychological Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. Nowadays, many serious childhood diseases ________ by early immunization.

A. prevent B. can prevent C. can be prevented D. are preventing Question 6. I should leave here. I don’t want to ________ my welcome.

A. give up B. go off C. run down D. wear out Question 7. They are always on good ________ with their next-door neighbors.

A. will B. friendship C. terms D. relations Question 8. ________ we have!

A. What awful weather B. How awful is the weather C. How awful the weather D. What an awful weather Question 9. ________, he received a big applause.

A. Finishing his presentation B. Hi presentation has been finished C. After he finishes his presentation D. When finished his speech Question 10. You look sad. Have you and Lisa ________ again?

A. gone out B. gone down with C. fallen out D. let off Question 11. Over the years, he gradually became impervious ________ his wife’s comments about his chosen profession and in the end she stopped complaining.

A. about B. for C. of D. to Question 12. Yesterday, I a serious accident while I ________ on the beach.

A. see-am walking B. saw-was walking C. was seeing - walked D. have seen - were walking Question 13. ________ had I left my house when they arrived.

A. Just B. As soon as C. Hardly D. After Question 14. Making mistakes is all ________ of growing up.

A. bits and bobs B. chalk and cheese C. part and parcel D. from top to bottom Question 15. ________ no taxi, they had to walk home.

A. There was B. There being C. Because there being D. There is Question 16. Her car needs ________.

A. be fixed B. fixing C. to fix D. fixed Question 17. I’ve broken her favorite vase. I’m ________.

A. taken for B. made for C. called for D. done for Question 18. Tim was ________ to the court for jury duty, but took a doctor’s sick note with him and was excused.

A. pulled B. assembled C. summoned D. requested Question 19. - Did you remember to give Linda the money you owed her?

- Yes, I gave it to her ________ I saw her.

A. while B. the moment C. suddenly D. once Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. I knew she was only flattering me because she wanted to borrow some money.

A. teasing B. threatening C. praising D. helping Question 21. Emissions from factories and exhaust fumes from vehicles can have detrimental effects on our health.

A. beneficial B. neutral C. needy D. harmful Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. Sorry, I can’t come to your birthday party. I am snowed under with work now.

A. relaxed about B. busy with C. interested in D. free from Question 23. Tom may get into hot water when driving at full speed after drinking wine.

A. get into trouble B. stay safe C. fall into disuse D. keep calm Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24. Mai: “Don’t forget to send your parents my regards.” - Nga: “________” A. It’s my pleasure B. Good idea, thanks C. Never mind D. Thanks, I will Question 25. - Mai: I’m terribly sorry. I forgot to call you last night.

- Nam: ________.

A. I’ll miss you very much if you leave here. B. It’s alright. We can talk about it today.

C. You’re welcome!

D. Can you say it again? I can’t think it is true.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

The Giant Panda The giant panda is a beloved animal in China. It is regarded as a national (26) _______ . It is found mostly in southwestern China in Sichuan, Shaanxi and Gansu provinces. The giant panda is part of the bear family. It has a white coat with black trimmings around its eyes and on its ears, arms, and legs. Adult pandas can be 5 feet (1.5 meters) long and weigh (27) _______ to 330 pounds (150 kilograms). The giant panda leads a (28) _______ life, except during the mating season.

It lives in bamboo forests in the mountains. It can climb trees but lives mainly on the ground.

(29) _______ most bears, the panda does not hibernate. It moves to low-lying areas during the winter in search of warmer temperatures. The giant panda has a mainly (30) _______ diet, eating mostly bamboo shoots and leaves. It also eats insects and small rodents. Giant panda breeding groups are small and isolated from one another.

Question 26. A. fortune B. value C. treasure D. prize Question 27. A. down B. on C. up D. off Question 28. A. solidarity B. alone C. friendless D. unsociable Question 29. A. Unlike B. But C. Owing D. Unlikely Question 30. A. vegetable B. vegetate C. vegetarian D. vegetation Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

Everybody likes to feel that she or he is special. Sadly, many of us grow up believing that we’re not special at all. We wish that we could be more attractive or better at sports. We wish we had more money or nicer clothes. Like the Tin Man, the Scarecrow, or the Cowardly Lion from The Wizard of Oz, we think we’re not good enough just as we are. In the film, The Tin Man wishes he had a heart. The Scarecrow wishes that he had a brain, and the Lion wants courage. Eventually,

each of them realizes that he already has what he wants. Nearly all parents want us to be the best we can be. They occasionally attempt to encourage us to do better by comparing us to others. They mean well, but the message we usually get is that we’re not good enough. We start to believe that the only way we can be special is by being better than somebody else, but we are frequently disappointed. There will always be somebody out there that is better than we are at something.

There are a lot of people around who may not be as intelligent as we are but who are better at sports. Or they may not be as handsome, but they have more money. It is unthinkable for us to be better than everybody else all the time. Like the Tin Man, the Scarecrow, and the Cowardly Lion, we all need what we believe will make us better people. What we don’t understand is that often we already have inside us the very things that we look for. Our parents often forget to tell us that we are special, that we are good enough just as we are. Perhaps no one told them when they were growing up, or maybe they just forgot. Either way, it’s up to us to remind them sometimes that each of us, in our own way, is special.

Question 31. What is the writer’s main purpose in writing the essay?

A. To talk about your family problems B. To explain the importance of being yourself C. To describe how intelligent we are D. To suggest how people can change their way of life Question 32. This essay was most likely written by ________.

A. a young person B. a coach C. a teacher D. a parent Question 33. What does the writer say about our parents?

A. They always tell us that we are good enough B. They never forget to tell us that we are special C. They always tell us that we are special D. They frequently forget to tell us that we are special Question 34. The author of this essay believes that ________.

A. we are all good enough just the way we are B. the richer you are, the better you are C. intelligent people are more special than others D. not everyone can be special Question 35. Which of the following would be the best title for this essay?

A. What Makes You Laugh?

B. What Makes You Happy?

C. What Makes You Special?

D. What Makes You Stronger?

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Pittsburgh, Pennsylvania, is located where the Allegheny and Monongahela rivers unite to form the Ohio River. Its fascinating history began in 1758 when General John Forbes and his British and colonial army captured Fort Duquesne from the French and renamed it Fort Pitt, for the British statesman William Pitt the Elder. After an agreement between the Native American tribes and William Penn’s family, settlers began arriving. Pittsburgh was laid out (1764) by John Campbell in the area around the fort.

Following the American Revolution, the town became an outfitting point for settlers traveling westward down the Ohio River. Pittsburgh’s strategic location and wealth of natural resources spurred its commercial and industrial growth in the nineteenth century. A blast furnace, erected by George Anschutz about 1792, was the forerunner of the iron and steel industry that for more than a century was the city’s economic power. By 1850, it was known as the "Iron City". The Pennsylvania Canal and the Portage Railroad, both completed in 1834, opened vital markets for trade and shipping.

After the American Civil War, great numbers of European immigrants swelled Pittsburgh’s population, and industrial magnates such as Andrew Carnegie, Henry Clay Frick, and Thomas Mellon built their steel empires there. The city became the focus of historic friction between labor

and management, and the American Federation of Labor was organized there in 1881. By 1900, the city’s population had reached 321,616. Growth continued nearly unabated through World War II, and during the war years, Pittsburgh was a boom town.

During this period of economic and population growth, Pittsburgh became a grimy, polluted industrial city. After the war, however, the city undertook an extensive redevelopment program, with emphasis on smoke-pollution control, flood prevention, and sewage disposal.

In 1957, it became the first American city to generate electricity by nuclear power. By the late 1970s and early 80s, the steel industry had virtually disappeared, but Pittsburgh successfully diversified its economy through more emphasis on light industries and on such high-technology industries as computer software, industrial automation (robotic), and biomedical and environmental technologies.

Question 36. In the mid-eighteenth century, what two countries wanted to control the area now known as Pittsburgh?

A. England and the United States B. England and France C. England and Germany D. England and Pennsylvania Question 37. When did settlers begin arriving in Pittsburgh?

A. After an agreement between the Indians and the Penn family B. After the Allegheny and Monongahela rivers united C. After the British captured Fort Pitt D. After the American Revolution Question 38. What became the most important industry in Pittsburgh following the American Revolution?

A. The shipping industry B. The iron and steel industry C. The outfitting industry D. The computer software industry Question 39. According to the passage, who moved to Pittsburgh in great numbers after the Civil War? A. Native American tribes B. British soldiers C. Confederate veterans D. European immigrants Question 40. Which of the following phrases is closest in meaning to the phrase "focus of historic friction" in the passage?

A. center of an important conflict B. Museum for historical photographs C. Famous furniture factory D. City of many professional sports Question 41. According to the passage, what can be inferred about Pittsburgh’s population during the World War II? A. It did not grow B. It declined C. It grew enormously D. It stayed the same Question 42. Between the Civil War and World War II, all of the following happened in Pittsburgh EXCEPT ________.

A. Automobile factories produced most of the transportation for Americans B. Carnegie, Frick, and Mellon created their steel empires C. The American Federation of Labor was organized D. The air became seriously polluted, and the buildings were dirty Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. (A) While highly prized (B) for symbolizing good luck, (C) the four-leaf clover is (D) rarity found in nature.

Question 44. The president, (A) with his wife and children, (B) are at home watching the (C) news (D) on television.

Question 45. Students should (A) be encouraged to discuss critically (B) about the information (C) that they (D) are given.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. Kelly ran into her former teacher on the way to the cinema yesterday.

A. Kelly caused an accident to her teacher while she was going to the cinema.

B. Kelly’s car ran over her teacher on the way to the cinema.

C. Kelly happened to meet her teacher while she was going to the cinema.

D. Kelly’s teacher got run over whole she was going to the cinema.

Question 47. "If I were you, I’d buy that house," Ms. Hoa said to Ms. Lan. A. Ms. Hoa promised Ms. Lan that she would buy that house.

B. Ms. Hoa advised Ms. Lan to buy that house.

C. Ms. Hoa suggested Ms. Lan to buy that house.

D. Ms. Hoa forced Ms. Lan to buy that house.

Question 48. You should have persuaded him to change his mind.

A. You should persuade him to change his mind.

B. You didn’t persuade him to change because of his mind.

C. It was essential to persuade him to change his mind but you didn’t.

D. You persuaded him to change his mind but he didn’t listen Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. He didn’t take his father’s advice. That’s why he is out of work.

A. If he had taken his father’s advice, he would not have been out of work.

B If he took his father’s advice, he would not be out of work.

C. If he had taken his father’s advice, he would not be out of work.

D. If he takes his father’s advice, he will not be out of work.

Question 50. My brother attended the meeting. His friend attended the meeting, too.

A. My brother attended the meeting, and so did his friend.

B. My brother attended the meeting, but his friend didn’t.

C. Neither my brother nor his friend attended the meeting.

D. Either my brother or his friend attended the meeting.

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC

ĐỀ SỐ 16

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO Môn: Tiếng Anh Số câu hỏi: 50 câu - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. culture B. picture C. purpose D. nature Question 2. A. general B. luggage C. bargain D. fragile Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. physical B. marvellous C. suspicious D. argument Question 4. A. preservative B. congratulate C. preferential D. development Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. My mother has _______ for a bargain.

A. a sharp ear B. a strong head C. a keen eye D. a keen ear Question 6. He expects that the new trend will soon _______ here.

A. take up B. catch up C. catch on D. identify with Question 7. Can you tell me who is responsible _______ luggage?

A. to check B. checking C. for checking D. about checking Question 8. My wife was good enough to _______ my mistake.

A. oversee B. overtake C. overdo D. overlook Question 9. On my birthday, my mother gave me a _______.

A. new blue German car C. new German blue car B. blue German new car D. German new blue car Question 10. How well people remember things _______ on many different factors.

A. depends B. depended C. depending D. depend Question 11. Such a doctor _______ retire from his job before the retirement age.

A. as well as B. may as well C. so as to D. as much as Question 12. An endangered species is a species _______ population is so small that it is in danger of becoming extinct.

A. whose B. which C. what D. who Question 13. Never in my life _______ such an intelligent boy.

A. I have met B. I haven’t met C. have I met D. haven’t I met Question 14. Tim told Daisy that he _______ the film three times.

A. had seen B. saw C. have seen D. sees Question 15. I walked away as calmly as I could. _______, they would have thought I was a thief.

A. If so B. Or else C. In case D. Owing to Question 16. Rarely have I visited _______ Bangkok, the capital of Thailand.

A. as a beautiful city as B. as beautiful a city as C. as beautiful as the city D. as a city as beautiful as Question 17. Governments should _______ some international laws against terrorism.

A. bring up B. bring about C. bring in D. bring back Question 18. Many ambulances took _______ injured to a nearby hospital.

A. an B. a C. the D. Ø Question 19. She used to work here as a nurse, _______ she?

A. did B. didn’t C. wouldn’t D. use Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. Relaxation therapy teaches us not to fret over small problems in life.

A. get involved in B. worry about C. look for D. get angry about Question 21. My husband has lost his job, so we’ll have to tighten our belt to avoid getting into debt.

A. earn money B. spend money C. sit still D economize Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. If she passes the exam, her parents will be walking on air.

A. disgusted B. promising C. upset D. hopeful Question 23. We should husband our resources to make sure we can make it through these hard times.

A. spend B. manage C. use up D. marry Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24. Tim: “Wow! You look terrific in that new dress!” - Lisa: “_______” A. Oh, what a pity!

B. I’m afraid so!

C. Thank you. I’m glad you think so.

D. Why dare you say so?

Question 25. Hoa: "Well, I hope you enjoyed your meal."

Mai:" _______ " A. Oh, absolutely delicious.

B. No problem.

C. Yes, that’s very interesting.

D. Yeah, that’s right.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

Instant messaging enables you to get (26) _______ touch with somebody immediately and talk in real time to that person in a (27) _______ artificial while seemingly urgent way. Instant messaging discourages self-censoring, voice clues, or reality-based feedback loop. If you’re angry with one another (or even if you’re not), you may end (28) _______ typing something that you might not have said if you had a little longer to think it through. Although you do get an instant response, it’s not the same as a conversation, so things like tone, (29) _______ of humour, body language, and irony really do get (30) _______ in typing.

No matter how you cut it, communicating through the Internet really is simply typing. Chat rooms are another part of the fantasy world of the Internet. They’ve been known to be very disruptive to relationships even when they’re not suggestive or pornographic, and when they are.

Question 26. A. to B. in C. at D. of Question 27. A. complete B. partially C. completely D. inadequately Question 28. A. out B. off C. up D. on Question 29. A. spirit B. sense C. taste D. feel Question 30. A. smart B. hold C. down D. lost Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

Banking and banks are very important for the functioning of the modern world. Without banks the way we use money would not work. Banks enable people to save money, borrow money and to pay for things with ease and security.

Each country in the world has its own well known banks that have branches in nearly every city so that they are convenient for people to use. People often have to visit the local branch of the bank when they want certain services. There are also some very big multinational banks that have branches in most countries in the world.

As well as the local branches that are in most cities, each bank will also have a head office.

This is where all central tasks are performed that let the local branches function. The people that work in the branches will be the bank manager, the person in charge, and various tellers who work behind the bank counter and help the customers. There will also likely be security guards to protect the money, workers and customers.

Most customers will just need to see the tellers when they go to the bank if they are paying money into their account as either cash or a check. However, they might need to see the bank manager if they want to open an account or if they have become overdraw, when they have spent more money than there was in the account. Also if they want to borrow money and get a loan the person will need to see the bank manager who will have to approve it.

As well as being able to use cash or checks to pay for things, banks also offer their customers the more convenient methods of using either a debit card or credit card. These methods are very convenient as you just need to carry a small plastic card to be able to pay for anything. When paying with plastic you will need to either sign a receipt or enter a PIN number to conform the purchase and that you are authorized to use the card.

Question 31. What happens when a bank customer spends more money than they have in their account?

A. They will need to see the security guard.

B. They will have to have a meeting with the bank manager.

C. They will have to borrow money from the bank.

D. They will have to go to the police station.

Question 32. Which of the following methods is more convenient when paying for something than using a check?

A. With an exchange of products B. Using cash C. Using a plastic card D. There is not a more convenient method.

Question 33. What is the purpose of the head office of a bank?

A. To support the local branches to work properly B. To offer services to local customers.

C. To work with other banks.

D. To look impressive.

Question 34. What do bank tellers do?

A. They are in charge of the bank branch B. They help the customers C. They arrange loans for customers D. They protect the money Question 35. According to the passage, what do banks enable people to do?

A. Buy products B. Get money now that they have to pay back later C. Save money for the future D. All of the above Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Jonas Salk is the American physician and medical researcher who developed the first safe and effective vaccine for poliomyelitis. Salk received his M.D. in 1939 from New York University College of Medicine, where he worked with Thomas Francis Jr., who was studying how to develop vaccines from killed viruses. Salk joined Francis in 1942 at the University of Michigan School of Public Health and became part of a group that was working to develop a vaccine against influenza.

In 1947, Salk became associate professor of bacteriology and head of the Virus Research Laboratory at the University of Pittsburgh School of Medicine, where he began research on poliomyelitis. Working with scientists from other universities in a program to classify the various strains of the polio virus, Salk corroborated other studies in identifying three separate strains. He then demonstrated that killed virus of each of the three, although incapable of producing the disease, could induce antibody formation in monkeys.

In 1952, he conducted field tests of his killed-virus vaccine, first on children who had recovered from polio and then on subjects who had not had the disease. The results of both tests showed that the children’s antibody levels rose significantly and no subjects contracted polio from the vaccine. His findings were published the following year in the Journal of the American Medical Association. In 1954, a mass field trial was held, and the vaccine, injected by needle, was found to safely reduce the incidence of polio. On April 12,1955, the vaccine was released for use in the United States. Salk served successively as professor of bacteriology, preventive medicine, and experimental medicine at Pittsburgh, and in 1963, he became fellow and director of the Institute for Biological Studies in San Diego, California, later called the Salk Institute. Among many other honors, he was awarded the Presidential Medal of Freedom in 1977.

Question 36. What is the main idea of the passage?

A. How Jonas Salk trained to be a physician and medical researcher B. How the medical research of Jonas Salk led to the development of the polio vaccine C. How Salk and his colleagues learned to kill viruses D. How Salk was promoted to important positions at the University of Pennsylvania Question 37. In the first paragraph, what was Thomas Francis Jr. studying?

A. How to prevent the spread of influenza in Michigan B. How to work with physicians from Manhattan C. How to develop vaccines from killed viruses D. How to get a degree in medicine from New York University Question 38. Which sentence in the second paragraph describes Salk’s first work at the University of Pittsburgh?

A. The first sentence B. The second sentence C. The third sentence D. None of the above.

Question 39. Which word is closest in meaning to the word "corroborated" as used in line 10 of the passage?

A. Rejected B. Published C. Examined D. Confirmed Question 40. All of the following statements about the killed virus vaccine are true EXCEPT _______.

A. it did not induce antibody formation in monkeys B. it had three strains that scientists worked with C. it was incapable of producing the disease D. it helped monkeys form antibodies Question 41. Which of the following words or phrases from the previous sentence does the word "findings" refer to?

A. Results B. Antibody levels C. Vaccine D. Polio Question 42. From the passage, it can be inferred that the experimental polio vaccine was given to people by _______.

A. pill B. injection C. surgery D. liquid Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. (A) It’s thirty years (B) since this (C) fifty-storeys building (D) was built.

Question 44. The (A) economy of this country is based (B) to a great extent (C) in its forests, which cover 80 (D) percent of its surface area.

Question 45. The (A) better you (B) are at English, (C) more chance you have to get (D) a job with international organizations.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. You needn’t hurry because there is a delay of about two hours.

A. There is a delay of about two hours and therefore you mustn’t hurry.

B. It is not possible for you to hurry because there is a delay of about two hours.

C. It is not necessary for you to hurry because there is a delay of about two hours.

D. You mustn’t hurry because there is a delay of about two hours.

Question 47. Bill’s English is much better than it was.

A. Bill speaks English better now than he did before.

B. Bill has started to learn English but doesn’t speak it well C. Bill has always spoken good English.

D. Bill’s English was much better than it is now.

Question 48. She said, "Tim, I’ll show you round my city."

A. She organized a trip round her city for Tim. B. She threatened to show Tim round her city.

C. She made a trip round her city with Tim. D. She promised to show Tim round her city.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. You’d better take the keys. It’s possible I’ll come home late.

A. You’d better take the keys as I possibly come home late.

B. You’d better take the keys in case I come home late.

C. I’ll probably come home late so that you’d better take the keys.

D. If I come home late, you’d better take the keys.

Question 50. He wasn’t wearing a seat-belt. He was injured.

A. If he hadn’t been wearing a seat-belt, he wouldn’t have been injured.

B. If he had been wearing a seat-belt, he would have been injured.

C. If he had been wearing a seat-belt, he wouldn’t be injured.

D. If he had been wearing a seat-belt, he wouldn’t have been injured.

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC

ĐỀ SỐ 17

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO Môn: Tiếng Anh Số câu hỏi: 50 câu - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. compose B. opponent C. wholesale D. colony Question 2. A. odour B. honour C. pour D. vapour Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. capacity B. conversation C. disappearance D. sympathetic Question 4. A. furniture B. reference C. confidence D. dependence Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. I hope you won’t take it ________ if I suggest an alternative remedy.

A. offence B. amiss C. upset D. most Question 6. Mary and I had both bought exactly the same kind of school bag without knowing it. It was a complete ________.

A. luck B. chance C. fortune D. coincidence Question 7. There was nothing special about his clothes ________ from his flowery tie.

A. but B. except C. other D. apart Question 8. ________ you’re late?

A. Why B. What makes C. How come D. How Question 9. His illness made him ________ of concentration.

A. incompetent B. unable C. incapable D. powerless Question 10. If you are ________ with your goods, contact us within a week of receipt, and we will refund your money in full.

A. not completely satisfied C. not completely satisfactory B. not completely satisfying D. not satisfied completely Question 11. Don’t worry about trying to catch last bus home, as we can easily ________ you up for the night.

A. keep B. put C. take D. set Question 12. Don’t touch that wire or you’ll get an electric ________.

A. current B. shock C. charge D. fire Question 13. The total cost to renovate the building was $20 million, ________ double the original estimate.

A. mostly B. most all C. the most D. almost Question 14. I think the ________ thing would be to catch a bus home. I’m tired of walking.

A. sensitive B sensational C. sensible D. senseless Question 15. We have a party tonight and Mary is worried about ________.

A. what to wear B. which wearing C. these wearing D. that she wearing Question 16. My grandfather is getting old and forgetful. ________, he is experienced.

A. Be that as it may B. Regardless C. Inasmuch as it is D. Consequently Question 17. He behaved ________ nothing had happened.

A. therefore B. so C. if D. as though Question 18. After the flood, all the drains were overflowing ________ storm water.

A. with B. by C. from D. for Question 19. He suffered from depression ________ by overwork and ill-health.

A. brought on B. coming about C. taken up D. pull through Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. They decided to tie the knot after they had loved each other for 10 years.

A. get divorced B. get married C. break up D. fall out Question 21. These customers grumbled about the food. They didn’t seem to be pleased.

A. talked B. complained C. thought D. bargained Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. Inadequate supply of oxygen to the blood can cause death within minutes.

A. Sufficient B. Nonexistent C. Rich D. Useful Question 23. There are several different kinds of faults in reading which are usually more exaggerated with foreign learners.

A. overestimated B. understated C. overemphasized D. undertaken Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24. David: “________” - John: “Thanks. I’m glad to hear that”.

A. Where did you buy your bike?

B. Your bike is new, isn’t it?

C. What a nice bike you have!

D. My bike is very expensive.

Question 25. Tim: "Do you need any help? - Jenifer: " ________ " A. How can I help you?

B. No, thanks. I’m fine.

C. Let me help you.

D. I’m sorry.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

Sailing tourism (26) _______ to any holiday where the main purpose of the trip is to sail or learn how to sail. Sailing tourism has two broad (27) _______ , which are defined by the type of boat used: a yacht (which is also used as overnight accommodation) or a dinghy (a smaller boat without berths - therefore overnight accommodation is (28) _______ land).

Yacht sailing holidays tend to be either bareboat charters, where the boat is hired - without crew - and can be sailed to any chosen destination, or flotilla, where all boats in the flotilla follow a pre-planned route. Dinghy sailing holidays are most (29) _______ to be combined (30) _______ a sailing course. As with most niche markets, there are scant data available regarding the sailing tourism sector. However, it is estimated that around 10 million sailing holidays are taken each year.

Question 26. A. denotes B. means C. indicates D. refers Question 27. A. categories B. ranks C. levels D. orders Question 28. A. under B. in C. at D. on Question 29. A. unlike B. unlikely C. likely D. like Question 30. A. with B. from C. to D. by Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

I did a business administration degree at Bristol University and then worked for a credit card company for eight years. During this time, I was assistant marketing manager. I gained a lot of useful experience doing this job, but in 1997,1 decided that I needed a change. I moved to Thomson Holidays where I have worked as a manager ever since. My main job is to think up new and interesting ideas for holidays.

When I’m working from my office in the UK, I arrive at 9 a.m. First I answer my emails, then plan the day. My role is to investigate new projects for Thomson Holidays in our Mediterranean resorts. I am responsible for coming up with ideas, developing them and evaluating their success.

We have lots of meetings in the office which involve the marketing department, holiday reps and people that we bring in from outside such as entertainment organizers. The aim is to develop an exciting idea into a realistic and workable project.

Once a month I spend a few days overseas checking possible resorts, meeting with reps to develop their roles and working out how events should be sold to the customer. I work with resort supervisors, use their local knowledge of bars and clubs for venues, talk through new ideas and find out how existing ones are working. I also meet holidaymakers.

I have to be very open-minded because ideas come from anywhere. I love my job because I get to travel and I am working on a project that everyone loves.

Question 31. What is the writer’s main purpose in writing the text?

A. To explain the best way to choose a holiday.

B. To advise people on holiday resorts.

C. To explain what her job involves.

D. To show how stressful her job is.

Question 32. What do we learn about the writer in the first paragraph?

A. She learned a lot from her first job.

B. She disliked her first job.

C. She lost her first job.

D. She worked in the administration department of Bristol University.

Question 33. The writer has to ________.

A. send emails all day B. find out if new ideas could actually work C. entertain the holiday reps D. spend all of her time having meetings in the office Question 34. What does she say about her job?

A. She never knows where or how a new idea might come to her.

B. It makes her very popular with lots of people.

C. She spends too much time in bars and clubs.

D. She has a few problems with local people at the resorts.

Question 35. Which of the following is the best description of the writer?

A. A working woman.

B. The travel agent who is trying to get a promotion.

C. A woman who spends a lot of time on holiday and has an easy life.

D. A woman who makes a lot of money by going to clubs and bars.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Newspaper publishers in the United States have long been enthusiastic users and distributors of weather maps. Although some newspapers that had carried the United States Weather Bureau’s national weather map in 1912 dropped it once the novelty had passed, many continued to print the daily weather chart provided by their local forecasting office. In the 1930’s, when interest in aviation and progress in air-mass analysis made weather patterns more newsworthy, additional newspapers started or resumed the daily weather map. In 1935, The Associated Press (AP) news service inaugurated its WirePhoto network and offered subscribing newspapers morning and afternoon weather maps redrafted by the AP’s Washington, B.C., office from charts provided by the government agency. Another news service, United Press International (UPI), developed a competing photowire network and also provided timely weather maps for both morning and afternoon newspapers. After the United States government launched a series of weather satellites in 1966, both the AP and UPI offered cloud-cover photos obtained from the Weather Bureau.

In the late 1970’s and early 1980’s, the weather map became an essential ingredient in the redesign of the American newspaper. News publishers, threatened by increased competition from

television for readers’ attention, sought to package the news more conveniently and attractively. In 1982, many publishers felt threatened by the new USA Today, a national daily newspaper that used a page-wide full-color weather map as its key design element. That the weather map in USA today did not include information about weather fronts and pressures attests to the largely symbolic role it played. Nonetheless, competing local and metropolitan newspapers responded in a variety of ways. Most substituted full-color temperature maps for the standard weather maps, while others dropped the comparatively drab satellite photos or added regional forecast maps with pictorial symbols to indicate rainy, snowy, cloudy, or clear conditions. A few newspapers, notably The New York Times, adopted a highly informative yet less visually prominent weather map that was specially designed to explain an important recent or imminent weather event. Ironically, a newspaper’s richest, most instructive weather maps often are comparatively small and inconspicuous.

Question 36. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The differences between government and newspaper weather forecasting in the United States B. The history of publishing weather maps in United States newspapers C. A comparison of regional and national weather reporting in the United States D. Information that forms the basis for weather forecasting in the United States Question 37. The word "resumed" in the passage is closest in meaning to________.

A. began again B. held back C. thought over D. referred to Question 38. According to the passage, one important reason why newspapers printed daily weather maps during the first half of the twentieth century was ________.

A. the progress in printing technology B. a growing interest in air transportation C. a change in atmospheric conditions D. the improvement of weather forecasting techniques Question 39. The phrase "attests to" in the passage is closest in meaning to ________.

A. makes up for B. combines with C. interferes with D. gives evidence of Question 40. The word "others" in the passage refers to ________.

A. newspapers B. ways C. temperature maps D. weather maps Question 41. In contrast to the weather maps of USA Today, weather maps in The New York Times tended to be ________.

A. printed in foil color B. included for symbolic reasons C. easily understood by the readers D. filled with detailed information Question 42. The author uses the term "Ironically" in the passage to indicate that a weather map’s appearance ________.

A. is not important to newspaper publishers B. does not always indicate how much information it provides C. reflects how informative a newspaper can be D. often can improve newspaper sales Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. You (A) are (B) quite so thin that you (C) can slip (D) between the bars.

Question 44. (A) Hardly he had arrived (B) at the airport when he (C) realized that he (D) had forgotten his wallet.

Question 45. (A) To everyone’s (B) surprise, it wasn’t in Ha Noi (C) which he (D) made his fortune, although that’s where he was born.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. I can’t go with you now.

A. I wish I can go with you now.

B. I wish I could go with you now.

C. I wish I had gone with you now.

D. I wish I has gone with you now.

Question 47. "Would you like to attend the party with me, Mary?", said John.

A. John asked Mary if you would like to attend the party with me.

B. John said to Mary that he would like to attend the party with her.

C. John told Mary to attend the party.

D. John invited Mary to attend the party with him.

Question 48. This is the most interesting film I have ever seen.

A. I have ever seen a more interesting film than this before.

B. I have never seen a more interesting film than this before.

C. This is the first time I have ever seen an interesting film.

D. I have seen this interesting film before.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. She didn’t take her father’s advice. That’s why she is out of work.

A. If she had taken her father’s advice, she would not have been out of work.

B. If she took her father’s advice, she would not be out of work.

C. If she had taken her father’s advice, she would not be out of work.

D. If she takes her father’s advice, she will not be out of work.

Question 50. We chose to find a place for the night. We found the bad weather very inconvenient.

A. Bad weather was approaching, so we started to look for a place to stay.

B. The bad weather prevented us from driving any further.

C. Seeing that the bad weather had set in, we decided to find somewhere to spend the night.

D. Because the climate was so severe, we were worried about what we’d do at night.

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC

ĐỀ SỐ 18

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO Môn: Tiếng Anh Số câu hỏi: 50 câu - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. extinction B. exhibit C. exhaustion D. exist Question 2. A. education B. discriminate C. federal D. mandate Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. untrustworthy B. diversity C. encouraging D. inattentive Question 4. A. beautifully B. differently C. dedicated D. acceptable Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. If you’re too ________, other people will take advantage of you.

A. trusting B. trustworthy C. trusted D. untrustworthy Question 6. I think jeans will not go ________ of style soon.

A. down B. away C. out D. off Question 7. The whole building collapsed, but fortunately there were no ________.

A. victims B. wounded C. hurt D. casualties Question 8. Students can ________ lots of information by attending lectures regularly.

A. absorb B. provide C. read D. transmit Question 9. My decision to leave university after two years is one I now ________ regret.

A. harshly B. painfully C. keenly D. heavily Question 10. He was the last person ________ the meeting room.

A. who leave B. to leave C. leaving D. left Question 11. After two years of ________ the country’s economy is finally looking a lot healthier.

A. let-down B. demise C. overdraft D. recession Question 12. Many animal species are now on the ________ of extinction.

A. danger B. border C. verge D. margin Question 13. I’ve been ________ with my friends for a couple of years.

A. out of reach B. out of the condition C. out of touch D. out of the question Question 14. I think that married couples should be financially independent ________ their parents.

A. to B. of C. with D. on Question 15. In the end, he lost his ________ and started gabbling incoherently.

A. head B mind C. brain D. intelligence Question 16. She was ill for six weeks and ________ with her schoolwork.

A. picked up B. told off C. turned out D. fell behind Question 17. When my teacher was away on holiday, Mr. Nam had to ________ her.

A. go in for B. stand in for C. get round to D. catch up with Question 18. Genetically, the chimpanzee is more similar to humans ________ A. are than any other animal B. than is any other animal C. any other animal is D. and any other animal is Question 19. Hoa hoped ________ to join the club. She could make friends with many people here.

A. being invited B. to invite C. to be invited D. inviting

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. You must answer the police’s questions truthfully; otherwise, you will get into trouble.

A. as trustingly as you can B. with a negative attitude C. in a harmful way D. exactly as things really happen Question 21. When our rent increased from $100 to $200 a month, we protested against such a tremendous increase.

A light B. huge C. tiring D. difficult Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. I’d love to come but I’m snowed under with work at the moment.

A. busy with B. free from C. relaxed about D. interested in Question 23. Nam wants to buy a new motorbike, so he starts setting aside a small part of his monthly earnings.

A. making B. using up C. accumulating D. saving up Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24. Nam: “Should we go by motorbike or by car?” - Hung: “________” A. I think it’s quite far from here, so take a taxi is faster.

B. No, we shouldn’t.

C. We should leave here early.

D. I agree with you that many young people now like going by motorbike.

Question 25. Porter: "Shall I help you carry these things?" - Ms. Huong: “________” A. I think you are right.

B. That’s very kind of you.

C. I can’t agree more. We should do that earlier.

D. What a pity!

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

Every year in spring millions of people all over the world suffer from asthma. Asthma is an illness (26) _______ narrows the breathing passages. As a result, not enough air can enter and leave your lungs. According to WHO, over 230 million people around the world are suffering from asthma. Among children it is the most chronic disease. While asthma occurs in almost all countries, asthma-related deaths happen mainly in the poorer countries of the Third World.

In America over 25 million people and 7 million children develop asthma every year. The disease is more common among African Americans. The death (27) _______ among this group is five times as high as among whites.

WHO warns that asthma rates are increasing (28) _______ 50% every ten years. Asthma also causes a loss of business and does damage to the economy because many people stay at home when they are ill.

Doctors are not sure what causes asthma. Some argue that environmental influences are the main factors; (29) _______ , some doctors claim that genes are also responsible for asthma. Almost half of the parents who suffer from asthma will also (30) _______ it on to their children. 70% of all people who have asthma also suffer from allergies, when the body reacts in an unusual way towards mostly harmless substances.

Question 26. A. when B. what C. that D. where Question 27. A. number B. level C. percentage D. rate Question 28. A. by B. in C. with D. for Question 29. A. therefore B. however C. thus D. moreover

Question 30. A. give B. send C. pass D. transmit Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

Along with jogging and swimming, cycling is one of the best all-round forms of exercise. It can help to increase your strength and energy, giving you more efficient muscles and a stronger heart.

But increasing your strength is not the only advantage of cycling. Because you’re not carrying the weight of your body on your feet, it’s a good form of exercise for people with painful feet or backs.

However, with all forms of exercise it’s important to start slowly and build up gently. Doing too much too quickly can damage muscles that aren’t used to working. If you have any doubts about taking up cycling for health reasons, talk to your doctor and ask for his/her advice.

Ideally you should be cycling at least two or three times a week. For the exercise to be doing you good, you should get a little out of breath. Don’t worry that if you begin to lose your breath, it could be dangerous and there must be something wrong with your heart. This is simply not true; shortness of breath shows that the exercise is having the right effect. However, if you find you are in pain then you should stop and take a rest.

Question 31. People with back problems might go cycling because ________.

A. it enables them to carry the weight of their body on their feet B. it does not make them carry the weight of their body on their feet C. it helps to make their backs become stronger D. it makes them reduce their strength Question 32. All forms of exercise must be started ________.

A. gradually B. quickly C. strenuously D. violently Question 33. According to the writer, it is best to go cycling ________.

A. once a week B. at least two or three times a week C. at least two or three times a day D. every day Question 34. You should not worry about the shortness of breath because ________.

A. it shows that there is something wrong with your heart B. it shows that you should stop and take a rest C. it is a sign of exercise having the right effect D. it is a sign of your getting rid of your heart problem Question 35. Which of the following is NOT included in the advantages of cycling?

A. Giving you a stronger heart B. Increasing you strength and energy C. Giving you better muscles D. Making you look younger Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

The Native American peoples of the north Pacific Coast created a highly complex maritime culture as they invented modes of production unique to their special environment. In addition to their sophisticated technical culture, they also attained one of the most complex social organizations of any nonagricultural people in the world.

In a division of labor similar to that of the hunting peoples in the interior and among foraging peoples throughout the world, the men did most of the fishing, and the women processed the catch.

Women also specialized in the gathering of the abundant shellfish that lived closer to shore. They collected oysters, crabs, sea urchins, abalone, and clams, which they could gather while remaining close to their children. The maritime life harvested by the women not only provided food, but also supplied more of the raw materials for making tools than did fish gathered by the men. Of particular importance for the native tool than did the fish gathered by the men. Of particular made from the larger mussel shells, and a variety of cutting edges that could be made from other marine shells.

The women used their tools to process all of the fish and marine mammals brought in by the men. They cleaned the fish, and dried vast quantities of them for the winter. They sun-dried fish when practical, but in the rainy climate of the coastal area they also used smokehouses to preserve tons of fish and other seafood annually. Each product had its own peculiar characteristics that

demanded a particular way of cutting or drying the meat, and each task required its own cutting blades and other utensils.

After drying the fish, the women pounded some of them into fish meal, which was an easily transported food used in soups, stews, or other dishes to provide protein and thickening in the absence of fresh fish or while on long trips. The women also made a cheese-like substance from a mixture of fish and roe by aging it in storehouses or by burying it in wooden boxes or pits lined with rocks and tree leaves.

Question 36. Which aspect of the lives of the Native Americans of the north Pacific Coast does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Methods of food preservation B. How diet was restricted by the environment C. The contributions of women to the food supply D. Difficulties in establishing successful farms Question 37. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that the social organization of many agricultural peoples is ________.

A. more complex than that of hunters and foragers B. less efficient than that of hunters and foragers C. more widespread than that of hunters and foragers D. better documented than that of hunters and foragers Question 38. According to the passage, what is true of the "division of labor" mentioned in paragraph 2?

A. It was first developed by Native Americans of the north Pacific Coast.

B. It rarely existed among hunting.

C. It was a structure that the Native Americans of the north Pacific Coast shared with many other peoples.

D. It provided a form of social organization that was found mainly among coastal peoples.

Question 39. All of the following are true of the north Pacific coast women EXCEPT that they ________.

A. were more likely to catch shellfish than other kinds of fish B. contributed more materials for tool making than the men did C. sometimes searched for food far inland from the coast D. prepared and preserved the fish Question 40. The word "They" in paragraph 3 refers to ________.

A. women B. tools C. mammals D. men Question 41. The Native Americans of the north Pacific Coast used smokehouses in order to ________.

A. store utensils used in food preparation B. prevent fish and shellfish from spoiling C. have a place to store fish and shellfish D. prepare elaborate meals Question 42. All of following are true of the cheese-like substance mentioned in paragraph 4 EXCEPT that it was ________.

A. made from fish B. not actually cheese C. useful on long journeys D. made in a short period of time Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. (A) There was (B) a very interesting news (C) on the radio this morning (D) about the earthquake in Mexico.

Question 44. I saw (A) the men, the women and (B) the cattle (C) which (D) went to the field.

Question 45. (A) Almost of trees in (B) this garden had (C) to be cut down and burned (D) as a result of the storm.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. ‘Tm sorry for being late again." said Mai. A. I felt sorry for Mai as she was late again. B. Mai was sorry for my being late again.

C. Mai excused for my being late again.

D. Mai apologized for being late again.

Question 47. His dog was so fierce that nobody would visit him.

A. He had a such fierce dog that nobody would visit him.

B. He had so fierce a dog that nobody would visit him.

C. He had a so fierce dog that nobody would visit him.

D. His dog was too fierce to visit.

Question 48. I don’t have enough money; otherwise, I would buy that bag.

A. If I didn’t have money, I would buy that bag.

B. If I had much money, I wouldn’t buy that bag.

C. If I had enough money, I would buy that bag.

D. If I didn’t have money, I won’t buy that house.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. These students may be excellent. They will not get used to dealing with practical situations.

A. Excellent as may be these students, they will get used to dealing with practical situations.

B. These students may be too excellent to get used to dealing with practical situations.

C. These students will get used to dealing with practical situations although they are excellent.

D. Excellent as they may be, these students will not get used to dealing with practical situations.

Question 50. He was very tired. He agreed to help me with my homework.

A. He agreed to help me with my homework although he was very tired.

B. He agreed to help me with my homework because he was very tired.

C. Despite being very tired, but he agreed to help me with my homework.

D. He was very tired, so he agreed to help me with my homework.

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC

ĐỀ SỐ 19

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO Môn: Tiếng Anh Số câu hỏi: 50 câu - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. marinate B. shallot C. inaccessible D. manual Question 2. A. dialect B. bilingual C. paradise D. simmer Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. habitable B. astronomy C. meteorite D. stimulating Question 4. A. picturesque B. exotic C. attractive D. delighted Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. It’s been five months ________ I last went fishing.

A. since B. that C. while D. which Question 6. He was ________ of himself for having stolen money from his mother.

A. shy B. ashamed C. timid D. embarrassed Question 7. Nothing can ________ the loss of the child.

A. make up with B. make up for C. do with D. come up with Question 8. Not only ________ the exam but she also got a scholarship.

A. did she pass B. she passed C. she has passed D. does she pass Question 9. It was ________ we couldn’t stop laughing.

A. such a funny story that B. so a funny story that C. a very funny story that D. so a laughing story that Question 10. My brother and I will never get along. We’re ________.

A. cats and dogs B. chalk and cheese C. salt and pepper D. turn a deaf ear Question 11. Despite all the interruptions, she ________ with her work.

A. pressed on B. held on C. stuck at D. hung out Question 12. I redecorated the house ________ selling it.

A. in terms of B. by means of C. with a view to D. in view of Question 13. The girl proposed that their group leader ________ a camping trip.

A. organized B. organize C. organizes D. organizing Question 14. ________ calculations have shown that the earth’s resources may run out before the end of the next century.

A. Crude B. Blunt C. Rude D. Raw Question 15. No matter ________, he was an accomplished composer while still a child.

A. how it seems remarkable B. how remarkable it seems C. it seems remarkable how D. how seems it remarkable Question 16. The judge ________ the pedestrian for the accident.

A. accused B. charged C. sued D. blamed Question 17. ________ his good work and manners, he didn’t get a promotion.

A. Because of B. In spite of C. Even though D. As a result of Question 18. To ________ should I write if I want to make a complaint?

A. which B. what C. who D. whom Question 19. There has been little rain in this region for several months, ________?

A. has it B. has there C. hasn’t it D. hasn’t there Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. All the students were all ears when the teacher started talking about the changes in the next exam.

A. attentive B. restless C. silent D. smiling Question 21. Talking about your feeling can help you get clear about what you feel.

A. control B. banish C. figure out D. get rid of Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. She doesn’t know what they are going to ask in the job interview. She will just play it by ear.

A. plan well in advance B. be careful about it C. listen to others saying D. do not plan beforehand Question 23. Nothing could console him when his wife died.

A. satisfy B. encourage C. please D. discomfort Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24. Ms. Hoa is talking on the phone.

Ms. Hoa: "Sorry, the director is not here." - Lan:" ________ " A. I have known him for many years.

B. But I can do this work by myself.

C. Would you like to leave a message?

D. Can I leave a message?

Question 25. Mr. Nam: "Would you mind turning down your radio?" - Mr. Hung:" ________."

A. I’m really sorry! I didn’t help you yesterday.

B. Oh! I’m sorry! I didn’t realize that.

C. No, I don’t.

D. Yes, I wouldn’t.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

The Great Wall of China is the biggest object ever made by humans. It (26) _______ across mountains, deserts and grasslands for over 6,000 kilometres. The ancient Chinese built the wall to keep invaders from the west (27) _______ of their country. Today tourists from all over the world come and see it. The Great Wall began as a series of many smaller walls that were not (28) _______ with each other. The first sections of the wall were built as early as 600 B.C. As time went on Chinese emperors connected them together to keep Huns, Mongols and other (29) _______ away.

Thousands of soldiers, criminals and peasants worked on building the wall. It was finally completed during the Ming dynasty in the 17th century. The Chinese wall is (30) _______ of dirt, mud, stone and brick. It is between 5 and 9 metres tall and up to 8 metres wide. A small road runs on the top of the wall. Towers every few hundred metres were built to store military supplies.

Question 26. A. stretches B. enlarges C prolongs D. covers Question 27. A. for B. down C. up D. out Question 28. A. stocked B. connected C. married D. related Question 29. A. races B. sects C. crowds D. tribes Question 30. A. produced B. prepared C. made D. created Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

What’s the problem with British teenagers? Many British newspapers and TV programmes are asking this question at the moment. A lot of people are saying that there are problems with teenagers at school, on the streets and in their homes. Why? What, or who, is responsible for these problems? A recent BBC television series explores these questions. It’s called ‘The world’s strictest

parents’. Is that because British parents are very strict? Just the opposite, it seems. The director of the programme, Andrea Wiseman, explains why they are making it. She thinks that in the United Kingdom teenagers pay no attention to adults. They don’t want to do well at school. They think they can do what they like and they are only interested in new fashions and Hollywood celebrities.

Why are British teenagers like this? Wiseman says it’s because their parents give their children everything they can. But they give their children no limits, no rules, no discipline because they want their children to be ‘free’. They don’t tell their children to work hard because they don’t want their kids to have any stress. The problem with this is that parents give their sons and daughters no cultural values. When a teenager does something bad and their parents say something, the teenagers immediately say ‘My parents are really strict’ or ‘My parents aren’t fair’. So what happens in the TV programme? Some problematic British teenagers go and live with parents in different parts of the world. They live with families that believe in traditional discipline and cultural values. In Ghana, Jamaica, Botswana and the southern US state of Alabama, the teenagers have the experience of living with parents who want and expect good behaviour and hard work. The results are interesting. In the end, the British teenagers seem to prefer having strict parents!

Question 31. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about British teenagers according to Wiseman?

A. They think that they have freedom to do anything they like.

B. They show their interest in new fashions.

C. They pay much attention to their parents.

D. They don’t want to do well at school.

Question 32. The word "explores" in the passage is closest in meaning to ________.

A. invents B. investigates C. looks D. gives Question 33. In Wiseman’s opinion, British parents ________.

A. are very strict B. always ask their children to work hard C. try to teach their children cultural values D. don’t give their kids discipline and rules Question 34. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?

A. An experiment on TV shows that British teenagers seem to dislike having strict parents.

B. Andrea Wiseman is one of the British teenagers participating in the program called ‘The world’s strictest parents’.

C. It seems that British parents don’t like being strict because they want their sons and daughters to have freedom.

D. British teenagers think that their parents are very strict, so they always try to do everything as well as possible.

Question 35. The word "celebrities" in the passage is closest in meaning to ________.

A. famous people B. talented people C. rich people D. good people Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

It may seem as if the art of music by its nature would not lend itself to the exploration and expression of reality characteristic of Romanticism, but that is not so. True, music does not tell stories or paint pictures, but it stirs feelings and evokes moods, through both of which various kinds of reality can be suggested or expressed. It was in the rationalist 18th century that musicians rather mechanically attempted to reproduce stories and subjects in sound. These literal renderings naturally failed, and the Romanticists profited from the error. Their discovery of new realms of experience proved communicable in the first place because they were in touch with the spirit of renovation, particularly through poetry. What Goethe meant to Beethoven and Berlioz and what German folk tales and contemporary lyricists meant to Weber, Schumann, and Schubert are familiar to all who are acquainted with the music of these men.

There is, of course, no way to demonstrate that Beethoven’s Egmont music or, indeed, its overture alone corresponds to Goethe’s drama and thereby enlarges the hearer’s consciousness of it; but it cannot be an accident or an aberration that the greatest composers of the period employed the resources of their art for the creation of works expressly related to such lyrical and dramatic subjects. Similarly, the love of nature stirred Beethoven, Weber, and Berlioz, and here too the correspondence is felt and persuades the fit listener that his own experience is being expanded. The words of-the creators themselves record this new comprehensiveness. Beethoven referred to his activity of mingled contemplation and composition as dichten, making a poem; and Berlioz tells in his Memoires of the impetus given to his genius by the music of Beethoven and Weber, by the poetry of Goethe and Shakespeare, and not least by the spectacle of nature. Nor did the public that ultimately understood their works gainsay their claims.

It must be added that the Romantic musicians including Chopin, Mendelssohn, Glinka, and Liszt-had at their disposal greatly improved instruments. The beginning of the 19th century produced the modern piano, of greater range and dynamics than ever before, and made all wind instruments more exact and powerful by the use of keys and valves. The modern full orchestra was the result. Berlioz, whose classic treatise on instrumentation and orchestration helped to give it definitive form, was also the first to exploit its resources to the full, in the Symphonic fantastique of 1830. This work, besides its technical significance just mentioned, can also be regarded as uniting the characteristics of Romanticism in music, it is both lyrical and dramatic, and, although it makes use of a “story,’’ that use is not to describe the scenes but to connect them; its slow movement is a "nature poem” in the Beethovenian manner; the second, fourth, and fifth movements include "realistic" detail of the most vivid kind; and the opening one is an introspective reverie.

Question 36. The word "error" in paragraph 1 refers to ________.

A. the feelings and moods of the Romanticist musicians B. the exploration and expression of reality of Romanticism C. the works of the Romanticist musicians in the 18th century D. musicians’ mechanical reproduction of stories and subjects Question 37. It is stated in the passage that the Romanticists were influenced by ________.

A. the works of the rationalist musicians in the 18th century B. Goethe, German folk tales and contemporary lyricists C. the thoughts of Beethoven, Weber, and Berlioz D. the art of music by the rationalist musicians Question 38. The passage indicates that the Romanticist composers were inspired not only by lyrical and dramatic subjects but also by ________.

A. the rationalists B. the creation of works C. the love of nature D. the poetry of Goethe Question 39. The Romantic musicians also made use of modern technologies such as ________.

A. improved wind instruments B. powerful keys and valves C. greater range and dynamics D. instrumenation and orchestration Question 40. Romanticism in music is characterized as being ________.

A. exact and powerful B. realistic and vivid C. great and dynamic D. lyrical and dramatic Question 41. All of the following are true about the Symphonic fantastique EXCEPT ________.

A. It is both lyrical and dramatic.

B. It was composed by Beethoven.

C. It was issued in 1830.

D. It unites the characteristics of Romanticism.

Question 42. According to the passage, Romanticism in music extended over ________.

B. the late 18th century A. the 18th and 19th centuries C. the early 19th century D. the beginning of the 20th century

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. Of the most important machines (A) invented in the late nineteenth century, no machine (B) had a (C) great impact (D) on the USA’s economy than the automobile.

Question 44. (A) Several people have (B) apparent tried to change the man’s (C) mind, but he refuses (D) to listen.

Question 45. Tuan (A) has not completed the (B) assignment (C) yet, and Huy (D) hasn’t neither.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. This is the first time she has seen this movie.

A. She saw this movie at first.

B. She last saw this movie a long time ago.

C. She has never seen this movie before.

D. She saw this movie before.

Question 47. "If I were you, I would marry him", she said to me.

A. She said to me that if I were you, I would marry him.

B. She said to me that she will marry him if she is me.

C. She suggested to marry him if she were me.

D. She advised me to marry him.

Question 48. You feel unhealthy because you don’t take any exercise.

A. If you don’t take any exercise, you will feel unhealthy.

B. If you were healthier, you would take more exercise.

C. If you take more exercise, you will feel healthier.

D. If you took more exercise, you would feel healthier.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. Hung dropped out of university after his first year. Now he regrets it.

A. Hung regretted having dropped out of university after his first year.

B. Hung wishes he didn’t drop out of university after his first year.

C. Hung regrets having dropped out of university after his first year.

D. If only Hung had dropped out of university after his first year.

Question 50. My father does a lot of exercise. He’s still very fat.

A. Despite the fact that doing a lot of exercise, my father is still very fat.

B. My father does a lot of exercise, so he’s very fat.

C. Even though my father does a lot of exercise, he’s very fat.

D. My father is very fat, but he does a lot of exercise.

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC

ĐỀ SỐ 20

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO Môn: Tiếng Anh Số câu hỏi: 50 câu - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. administrative B. astounding C. annoyed D. accent Question 2. A. contestant B. conduct C. concentrate D. compartment Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. evacuate B. originate C. sanitary D. certificate Question 4. A. attractive B. cultural C. perception D. expensive Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. If your invitations are met with repeated ________ you should just leave him alone.

A. hypotheses B. negatives C. blunts D. rebuffs Question 6. He denied ________ the window of the classroom.

A. to break B. break C. to breaking D. breaking Question 7. All applicants must ________ a full CV with their job application before October 1st.

A. permit B. omit C. submit D. admit Question 8. The government is aiming ________ a 40% reduction ________ unemployment.

A. to - of B. at - in C. on - in D. for - of Question 9. We should make full ________ of renewable sources of energy such as wind and solar power in the world.

A. effort B. use C. need D. limit Question 10. Due to lacking ________, they couldn’t open a new shop as scheduled.

A. interest rates B. expenses C. shares D. funds Question 11. When the weather was very hot in summer, sales of bottles of water went ________ the roof.

A. through B. to C. above D. over Question 12. What made Mark ________ his family and his job? Where did he go and why?

A. walk away on B. leave out at C. go off on D. walk out on Question 13. Everyone ________ taken to hospital last night, ________?

A. was - weren’t they B. were - weren’t they C. was - wasn’t he D. were - were they Question 14. We put his success ________ his efforts.

A. up to B. down to C. off at D. up with Question 15. All ________ we had been told turned out to be untrue.

A. that B. which C. what D. where Question 16. The book says that the revolution was ________ off by the assassination of the president.

A. launched B. cropped C. triggered D. prompted Question 17. She ________ New York in 2015 before she moved there in 2018.

A. would visit B. were visiting C. had visited D. visited Question 18. No matter how angry he was, he would never ________ to violence.

A. resolve B. resource C. exert D. resort Question 19. After leaving high school, my brother decided to ________ in the army.

A. enlist B. enroll C. register D. sign Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. She was reluctant to admit she was wrong.

A. fortunate B. frustrated C. unhappy D. unwilling Question 21. My two children were full of beans today, looking forward to their trip.

A. disappointed B. hyperactive C. melancholy D. lively and in high spirits Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. In remote areas, it’s very important to replenish stocks before the winter comes.

A. remake B. refill C. repeat D. empty Question 23. Show enthusiasm in an interview if you want to get the job offer.

A. responsibility B. interest C. indifference D. attention Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24. Daisy: “Would you mind if I used your computer?” - Lisa: “__________” A. Please go ahead.

B. No, thank you.

C. No, I can’t.

D. Yes, I don’t mind.

Question 25. Minh: “Let’s use it to make cakes.” - Huong: “________” A. Don’t!

B. Of course, not!

C. How about paying by cash?

D. Let’s not!

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

(26) _______ friends is one of the most difficult and worthwhile experiences of human life because it requires time and effort and patience and understanding and acceptance and honesty.

Many people (27) _______ friendship with acquaintances and they’re not the same at all.

Acquaintances are people you (28) _______ with; they’re convenient but interchangeable.

Friends are people you actively seek out, people with whom you have something in (29) _______ , and the link is deeper and stronger. It is very possible for one to become the other, and everyone who becomes a friend had to be an acquaintance first. (Friendship can be downgraded, for example, when two people move apart geographically or emotionally or situationally - changing jobs, (30) _______ status, and so on). If you’ve taken yourself off house arrest, you’ve begun making acquaintances. The question then is how to turn an acquaintance into a friend.

Question 26. A. Making B. Building C. Producing D. Doing Question 27. A. confuse B. mix C. argue D. blend Question 28. A. hang up B. hang out C. hang back D. hang on Question 29. A. touch B. regards C. common D. advance Question 30. A. martial B. marry C. marital D. marriage Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

In the 1960s it took pop and rock groups one or two days to record their songs. Nowadays, it can take months and months. Many rock groups begin by recording only one instrument, for example, the voice. Then they record other instruments- electric piano, synthesizer, guitars and drums.

Next, they might use a computer to add special effects. Finally, they ‘mix’ all the instruments until they get the sound that they want. This means that a CD or cassette will always sound very different from a live concert.

Music engineers have developed a new computer program that will change the future of music.

A computer can analyze a singer’s voice. Then if you give the computer the lyrics and music of a song, the computer can ‘sing’ it in that voice. This means that a singer only needs to record one

song and the computer can then sing other songs in the singer’s own voice. Singers can sing new songs many years after they have died.

Most of us listen to music for pleasure, but for the record companies, music is a product, the same as soap powder. When a record company finds a new group (or "band"), they first try to develop the band’s ‘profile’. They will try to create an ‘image’ for the band that they think will attract young people. Instead of allowing the band’s full artistic freedom, they will often tell the band what they should wear, what they should say and how they should sing and play.

In recent year, many rock groups have started their own record companies because they say that the big companies are too commercial.

Question 31. Today, to record songs, it takes ________.

A. longer than it used to do B. shorter than it used to do C. only one or two days D. the same amount of time as the 1960s Question 32. Many rock groups use a computer ________.

A. to add special effects B. record one instrument C. to record many instruments D. develop a computer program Question 33. Which of the following is NOT true about the new computer program?

A. It is predicted to change the music future.

B. It can imitate singers’ voice.

C. It can sing only one recorded song of the singer.

D. The singer does not necessarily present to really sing.

Question 34. Record companies don’t always ________.

A. suggest the outfits of the band B. tell the band what to say C. give the band freedom to do things D. decide the songs the band will play Question 35. The word "that" in the passage refers to ________.

A. soap powder B. an image C. the band D. a company Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

In the North American colonies, red ware, a simple pottery fired at low temperatures, and stone ware, a strong, impervious grey pottery fired at high temperatures, were produced from two different native clays. These kinds of pottery were produced to supplement imported European pottery. When the American Revolution (1775-1783) interrupted the flow of the superior European ware, there was incentive for American potters to replace the imports with comparable domestic goods. Stoneware, which had been simple utilitarian kitchenware, grew increasingly ornate throughout the nineteenth century, and in addition to the earlier scratched and drawn designs, threedimensional molded relief decoration became popular. Representational motifs largely replaced the earlier abstract decorations. Birds and flowers were particularly evident, but other subjects - lions, flags, and clipper ships - are found. Some figurines, mainly of dogs and lions, were made in this medium. Sometimes a name, usually that of the potter, was die-stamped onto a piece.

As more and more large kilns were built to create the high-fired stoneware, experiments revealed that the same clay used to produce low-fired red ware could produce a stronger, paler pottery if fired at a hotter temperature. The result was yellow ware, used largely for serviceable items; but a further development was Rockingham ware - one of the most important American ceramics of the nineteenth century. (The name of the ware was probably derived from its resemblance to English brown-glazed earthenware made in South Yorkshire.) It was created by adding a brown glaze to the fired clay, usually giving the finished product a mottled appearance.

Various methods of spattering or sponging the glaze onto the ware account for the extremely wide variations in color and add to the interest of collecting Rockingham. An advanced form of Rockingham was flint enamel, created by dusting metallic powders onto the Rockingham glaze to produce brilliant varicolored streaks.

Articles for nearly every household activity and ornament could be bought in Rockingham ware: dishes and bowls, of course; also bedpans, foot warmers, cuspidors, lamp bases, doorknobs,

molds, picture frames, even curtain tiebacks. All these items are highly collectible today and are eagerly sought. A few Rockingham specialties command particular affection among collectors and correspondingly high prices.

Question 36. The word "ornate" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________.

A. elaborate B. puzzling C. durable D. common Question 37. The passage suggests that the earliest stoneware ________.

A. was decorated with simple, abstract designs B. used three-dimensional decorations C. was valued for its fancy decorations D. had no decoration Question 38. How did yellow ware achieve its distinctive color?

A. By sponging on a glaze.

B. By dusting on metallic powders.

C. By brown-glazing.

D. By firing at a high temperature.

Question 39. The phrase "derived from" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.

A. ruined by B. warned against C. based on D. sold by Question 40. The word “It” in paragraph 2 refers to ________.

A. red ware B. yellow ware C. Rockingham ware D. English brown-glazed earthenware Question 41. What was special about flint enamel?

A. Its even metallic shine.

B. Its mottled appearance.

C. Its spattered effect.

D. Its varicolored streaks.

Question 42. Which of the following kinds of Rockingham ware were probably produced in the greatest quantity?

A. Picture frames B. Dishes and bowls C. Curtain tiebacks D. Doorknobs Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. It is reported that (A) during any 24 - (B) hour period, a (C) minimal of three hundred women in this area (D) start their own businesses.

Question 44. A hospital (A) is organized to treat and cure people who are ill, so its goals, (B) structures, and functions (C) depend on the (D) currently state of medical science.

Question 45. (A) Although this plant (8) lack flowers, they (C) do have leaves, stems, and (D) root.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. Wind a scarf around your neck, or you will get cold.

A. You will not get cold unless you wind a scarf around your neck.

B. Wind a scarf around your neck, otherwise you will get cold.

C. If you wind a scarf around your neck, you will get cold.

D. You not only wind a scarf around your neck but also get cold.

Question 47. They know that the famous doctor treated him.

A. It was known that the famous doctor treated him.

B. The famous doctor is known to have treated him.

C. The famous doctor is known to treat him.

D. It is known that he is treated by the famous doctor.

Question 48. “Why don’t you complain to the shop, Tim?" said Mary.

A. Mary asked Tim why he doesn’t complain to the shop.

B. Mary advised Tim complaining to the shop.

C. Mary suggested Tim to complain to the shop.

D. Mary suggested that Tim should complain to the shop.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. Bob was very thirsty. He refused the glass of water I brought him.

A. Bob was not very thirsty; therefore, he did not refuse the glass of water I brought him.

B. Bob was very thirsty; however, he refused the glass of water I brought him.

C. Bob refused the glass of water I brought him because he was not very thirsty.

D. Bob did not refuse the glass of water I brought him though he was very thirsty.

Question 50. Nam spoke to her. He realized her mistake.

A. Were Nam to speak to her, he would realize her mistake.

B. Only after Nam had spoken to her did he realize her mistake.

C. Had Nam spoken to her, he wouldn’t have realized her mistake.

D. Not until Nam realized her mistake he spoke to her.

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC

ĐỀ SỐ 21

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO Môn: Tiếng Anh Số câu hỏi: 50 câu - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. sew B. few C. stew D. steward Question 2. A. medical B. unemployment C. experience D. encourage Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. acquaintance B. symbolize C. etiquette D. socialize Question 4. A. geography B. impersonal C. important D. instrumental Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. I feel very tired because I didn’t sleep ________ last night.

A. a jot B. a wink C. an inch D. an eye Question 6. He joined the English club, ________ were over 50 years old.

A. most of its members B. most of which C. most of whom D. most of whose members Question 7. Mr. John, a Finance Manager, is considered a big ________ in my company.

A. bread B. cheese C. sandwich D. egg Question 8. Unfortunately, my trip to France ________ because I couldn’t save enough money.

A. fell through B. tried out C. took over D. turned up Question 9. ________ second thoughts, I’d rather not go to the movies tonight.

A. With B. In C. On D. Under Question 10. ________ Thanh by phone, Hung decided to email her.

A. Having failed to contact B. Having failed contacting C. He failed to contact D. That he failed contacting Question 11. We spent nearly 2 hours waiting outside the airport, then out ________ .

A. the star came B. did the star come C. came the star D. be the star coming Question 12. ________ my personal qualities, I have experience of working in a multi-national company for three years.

A. Beside B. In addition C. Instead of D. Apart from Question 13. He had spent ________ time writing an essay about how to save energy.

A. a few B. a large number of C. a great deal of D. many Question 14. There was a long queue at the ________ and some of them were getting impatient.

A. stop-over B. take-off C. departure lounge D. check-out Question 15. You usually ________ onions. It means that you cut them into many small pieces.

A. chop B. whisk C. grate D. roast Question 16. He left the country ________ arrest if he returned.

A. in fear of B. under threat of C. with fear of D. with threat of Question 17. It is not easy for many civil servants to ________ on their salaries as the inflation rate is very high.

A. get by B. turn up C. wear out D. run over Question 18. Can you make yourself ________ in French?

A. understood B. understand C. to understand D. understanding

Question 19. He did not share his secrets with other people but he ________ in her.

A. confessed B. concealed C. confided D. consented Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. The woman was motionless as a statue. She made everyone frightened.

A. still B. tired C. asleep D. unconscious Question 21. Some operations many have to be halted unless more blood donors come forward to help.

A. offer B. claim C. attempt D. refuse Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. People have eliminated poverty and hunger in many parts of the world.

A. created B. eradicated C. gave up D. wiped out Question 23. We should not allow any kind of discrimination against women and girls.

A. inequality B. hatred C. unbiased feeling D. intolerance Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24. Mary: “Why are there generally so few women in top positions?”

Peter: “ ________ ” A. Top positions are the highest in the career ladder.

B. Top positions are high to climb to.

C. I guess men tend to make better leaders.

D. Women also want to climb to top positions.

Question 25. Patient: “Can I make an appointment to see Mr. John, please?”

Receptionist: “ ________ ” A. Not now. We’ll find a solution to this problem later.

B. OK, you will need to check my appointment calendar.

C. OK, let me just check the appointment calendar.

D. Have a seat and have lunch.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

Interpersonal communication is the process of exchange of information, ideas, feelings and meaning between two or more people (26) ________ verbal and/or non-verbal methods.

It often includes face-to-face exchange of messages, (27) ________ may take form of a certain tone of voice, facial expressions, body language and gestures. The level of one’s interpersonal communication skills (28) ________ through the effectiveness of meaning transferred through the message.

(29) ________ used interpersonal communication within a business organization (30) ________ client meetings, employee performance reviews and project discussions. But, of course, online conversation is a large part of people’s interpersonal experience today.

Question 26. A. from B. in C. through D. by Question 27. A. which B. who C. what D. whom Question 28. A. is measured B. measure C. measures D. are measured Question 29. A. Large B. Wide C. Popular D. Commonly Question 30. A. have B. include C. possess D. connect Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

One of the most difficult things young people have to face when they want to travel is the lack of funds. During the summer holiday and possibly at weekends, they are able to take on part-time jobs,

but the money make is just a drop in the bucket of what they need to travel far away. For example, travelling to Australia from Vietnam can be quite expensive just for an airline ticket, and to a lot of students want to travel, it can seem out of reach.

For students want to travel Australia and New Zealand in particular, however, they are in luck.

Although many countries offer working holidays, these two countries are well-known for offering them. When a young person signs up to get a working holiday visa, he only pays for the round-trip airfare to get to either place and only needs to carry some extra cash for incidentals. Once he is there, a job awaits where he can earn some money.

Many of the jobs require little or no experience such as picking fruit or working in a busy pub out in the countryside. Some of the jobs require more experience that most people or unlikely to have, such as being certified welder to work for eight weeks on a farm. That shouldn’t discourage you, though, there is always something to be found if you search hard enough.

There are many websites that advertise working holidays in Australia and New Zealand. If you have the courage and are looking for a way to make a little money and see the world, it might be just the ticket you were looking for.

Question 31. Where can people find working holidays advertised?

A. On the Internet B. In magazines C. On the radio D. In travel guidebooks Question 32. What can seem out of reach for young people?

A. Being able to get time off from school.

B. Being able to earn money.

C. Being able to find a part-time job.

D. Being able to travel.

Question 33. Why would a student NOT want to take a working holiday?

A. To see how fearful he is.

B. To earn money.

C. To see the world.

D. To visit a new place.

Question 34. Which students are in luck according to the passage?

A. The one who have airline tickets.

B. The ones who are on holiday.

C. The ones who want to go to Australia and New Zealand.

D. The ones who want have a part-time job.

Question 35. According to the passage, which statement is TRUE? A. People on working holidays must be from Australia and New Zealand.

B. A young person needs a special visa to go on working holiday.

C. Some working holiday are not paid.

D. Picking fruit is the only job available for young people on working holidays.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Some animal behaviorists argue that certain animals can remember past events, anticipate future ones, make plans and choices, and coordinate activities within a group. These scientists, however, are cautious about the extent to which animals can be credited with conscious processing.

Explanations of animal behavior that leave out any sort of consciousness at all and ascribe actions entirely to instinct leave many questions unanswered. One example of such unexplained behavior: Honeybees communicate the sources of nectar to one another by doing a dance in a figure-eight pattern. The orientation of the dance conveys the position of the food relative to the sun’s position in the sky, and the speed of the dance tells how far the food source is from the hive.

Most researchers assume that the ability to perform and encode the dance is innate and shows no special intelligence. But in one study, when experimenters kept changing the site of the food source, each time moving the food 25 percent farther from the previous site, foraging honeybees began to anticipate where the food source would appear next. When the researchers arrived at the new location, they would find the bees circling the spot, waiting for their food. No one has yet explained how bees, whose brains weigh four ten-thousandths of an ounce, could have inferred the location of the new site.

Other behaviors that may indicate some cognition include tool use. Many animals, like the otter who uses a stone to crack mussel shells, are capable of using objects in the natural environment as rudimentary tools. One researcher has found that mother chimpanzees occasionally show their young how to use tools to open hard nuts. In one study, chimpanzees compared two pairs of food wells containing chocolate chips. Allowed to choose which pair they wanted, the chimpanzees almost always chose the one with the higher total, showing some sort of summing ability. Other chimpanzees have learned to use numerals to label quantities of items and do simple sums.

Question 36. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The role of instinct in animal behavior.

B. Observations that suggest consciousness in animal behavior.

C. The use of food in studies of animal behavior.

D. Differences between the behavior of animals in their natural environments and in laboratory experiments.

Question 37. Which of the following is NOT discussed as an ability animals are thought to have?

A. Selecting among choices.

B. Anticipating events to come.

C. Remembering past experiences.

D. Communicating emotions.

Question 38. What is the purpose of the honeybee dance?

A. To determine the quantity of food at a site.

B. To communicate the location of food.

C. To increase the speed of travel to food sources.

D. To identify the type of nectar that is available.

Question 39. The word “yet” in line 15 is closest in meaning to ________ .

A. however B. since C. generally D. so far Question 40. It can be inferred from the passage that brain size is assumed to ________ .

A. be an indicator of cognitive ability B. vary among individuals within a species C. be related to food consumption D. correspond to levels of activity Question 41. Why are otters and mussel shells included in the discussion in paragraph 3?

A. To provide that certain species demonstrate greater ability in tool use than other species.

B. To provide an example of tool use among animals.

C. To show that animals are very good at using objects in their habitat.

D. To provide an example of the use of weapons among animals.

Question 42. The phrase “the one” in paragraph 3 refers to the ________ .

A. study B. pair C. chimpanzee D. ability Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. Mr. John congratulated me (A) to my (B) excellent results (C) although we didn’t know (D) each other very well.

Question 44. (A) It’s worth (B) talk to your (C) English teacher before (D) making your final decision.

Question 45. Some manufacturers are not only (A) raising their prices (B) but also (C) decreasing the production of their products (D) as well.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. He started learning English six years ago.

A. He hasn’t learned English for six years.

B. He has been learning English for six years.

C. He used to learn English for six years.

D. Six years was a long time for him to lean English.

Question 47. The film bears little resemblance to the original novel.

A. The film and the original novel resemble in many ways.

B. The film is very similar to the original novel.

C. The film and the original novel differ in some ways.

D. The film is completely different from the original novel.

Question 48. My friend, David, finds it difficult to pick up food with chopsticks.

A. My friend, David, doesn’t feel like picking up food with chopsticks.

B. My friend, David, can’t find chopsticks to pick up food.

C. My friend, David, didn’t used to pick up food with chopsticks.

D. My friend, David, is not used to picking up food with chopsticks.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. The weather was very hot. The children continued playing football in the schoolyard.

A. Because of the weather was hot, the children continued playing football in the schoolyard.

B. Because the hot weather, the children continued playing football in the schoolyard.

C. In spite of the hot weather, the children continued playing football in the schoolyard.

D. Despite the weather was hot, the children continued playing football in the schoolyard.

Question 50. Ms. Minh is very happy. Her daughter won the first prize of the dancing contest.

A. Ms. Minh is very happy, that is her daughter won the first prize of the dancing contest.

B. Ms. Minh with her daughter won the first prize of the dancing contest, who is very happy.

C. Ms. Minh, whose daughter won the first prize of the dancing contest, is very happy.

D. Ms. Minh’s daughter, who won the first prize of the dancing contest, is very happy.

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC

ĐỀ SỐ 22

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO Môn: Tiếng Anh Số câu hỏi: 50 câu - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. eternal B. energy C. eradicate D. eliminate Question 2. A. smoothly B. southern C. breath D. airworthy Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. artifact B. fabulous C. forbidden D. confident Question 4. A. luxurious B. conservative C. necessary D. dependant Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. Like everyone else, Sue has her ________ of course but on the whole, she’s quite satisfied with life.

A. ups and downs B. ins and outs C. safe and sound D. odds and ends Question 6. He came when I ________ the film “Man from the star”.

A. has watched B. watched C. was watching D. am watching Question 7. After the tourists ________ two hours in the supermarket, they ________ to a traditional craft village.

B. has spent - travelled A. had spent - travelled C. had spent - were travelling D. spent - had travelled Question 8. She will have to ________ if she wants to pass the final exam.

A. pull up her socks B. work miracles C. take the trouble D. keep her hand in Question 9. It is raining heavily with rolls of thunder. We ________ such a terrible thunderstorm.

A. would never see B. had never seen C. have never seen D. never see Question 10. He suggested ________ money for charity.

A. to raise B. raised C. raising D. raise Question 11. Most guests ________ the party by the time we came.

A. leave B. left C. leaves D. had left Question 12. There is ________ water in the well, not enough for everyone in the village.

A. few B. a few C. little D. a little Question 13. This car is so expensive that my father can’t afford ________ it.

A. buy B. buying C. to buy D. to buying Question 14. The artisans in my village can ________ basket weaving. They earn enough money from it.

A. deal with B. come back C. live on D. pass down Question 15. Please turn off ________ light when you leave ________ room.

A. the - the B. a - a C. the - a D. a - the Question 16. She ________ me a very charming compliment on my painting.

A. showed B. paid C. made D. took Question 17. Tet is the most important festival ________ occurs in late January or early February.

A. whom B. when C. where D. which Question 18. When he retires at sixty, he’ll get a very good ________ .

A. pay B. salary C. wage D. pension

Question 19. Smoking cigarettes is harmful ________ your health.

A. to B. for C. with D. of Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. It is a great place for us to enjoy the stunning landscape.

A. unattractive B. unpleasant C. beautiful D. bad Question 21. It really gets on my nerves when people talk loudly on the phone in public.

A. annoys me B. satisfies me C. makes me sad D. makes me happy Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. Things in my village have changed dramatically in the last decade.

A. significantly B. considerably C. rapidly D. slightly Question 23. People in this village seem to be inhospitable to strangers whom they don’t know well.

A. unwelcoming B. friendly C. unkind D. impolite Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24. The waiter: What would you like to drink?

Mr. David: “ ________ .”

A. I don’t like coffee.

B. I prefer tea to coffee.

C. Coffee, please.

D. I’m very thirsty.

Question 25. Lisa: “Have you heard that Tim and Daisy have just got engaged?” Susan: “ ________ ” A. Really? That’s fantastic!

B. Congratulations!

C. Let’s go out!

D. Good luck!

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

Stress is one of the most common causes of health problems in modern life. Too much stress results (26) ________ physical, and mental health problems.

There are numerous physical (27) ________ of stress. Stress can affect the heart. It can increase the pulse rate, make the heart miss beats, and can cause high blood pressure. Stress can affect the (28) ________ system. It can lead to asthma. It can cause a person to breathe too fast, leading to a loss of important carbon dioxide. Stress can affect the stomach. It can cause stomachache and problems of digesting food. These are only (29) ________ examples of the wide range of illnesses and symptoms resulting from stress.

Long-term stress can lead to a variety of serious mental illnesses. Depression, an extreme feeling of sadness and hopelessness, can be the result of continued and increasing stress. Alcoholism and other addictions often develop as a result of overuse of alcohol or drugs to try to relieve stress.

Eating disorders, such as anorexia, are sometimes caused by stress and are often made worse by stress. If stress is allowed to continue, then one’s mental health is put (30) ________ risk.

Question 26. A. from B. on C. at D. in Question 27. A. affects B. causes C. effects D. actions Question 28. A. respiratory B. digestive C. circulatory D. nervous Question 29. A. a little B. many C. much D. a few Question 30. A. in B. at C. of D. from Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

Getting recipes and cooking tips was a complicated process in the past. A person had to go to the store and buy a cook book, or get recipes from friends. Fortunately, the internet has changed all

that. Today, if you want to find a recipe for lasagna or cob salad, you just search online. It couldn’t be simpler.

Cooking blogs are a great source of information because they are free and there are so many of them. They are also nice because they give all different kinds of ideas. The problems with blogs is that because we don’t know who is writing them, we need to use with caution. When you are looking at a new blog, you don’t know if the writer knows what he or she is talking about.

We’d like to introduce two popular cooking blogs. The first is called Smitten Kitchen. This website is run by a family living in New York City. It focuses on food that doesn’t require many ingredients. If you want to make food that is simple but wonderful, then this is the site for you. It offers hundreds and hundreds of recipes, divided into categories. You will be amazed at how many there are.

Wednesday Chef is another great cooking blog. It is run by a writer who lives in Berlin. This blog also offers many recipes, along with recommendations for great restaurants in Berlin, and advice for people who want to start their own blogs. Wednesday Chef has great pictures of its food, as well as interesting pictures of Berlin. The blog got its name because in the past, newspapers published their food articles on Wednesdays.

There are a lot of cooking blogs on the internet, and most of them are pretty good. Go online and check some of them out. You might be surprised at how much they can help you improve your cooking.

Question 31. How did Wednesday Chef get its name?

A. The writer posts recipes on Wednesdays.

B. The writer only cooks on Wednesdays.

C. The writer was born on Wednesdays.

D. Newspapers used to publish food articles on Wednesdays.

Question 32. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of cooking blogs?

A. There are many of them.

B. Everyone who writes them is an expert.

C. They are free.

D. They give a lot of different ideas.

Question 33. Who runs the blog Smitten Kitchen?

A. A family in New York B. A woman in New York C. A family in Berlin D. A woman in Berlin Question 34. What does the passage say about Smitten Kitchen?

A. It only gives recipes on Italian food.

B. It focuses on simple recipes.

C. It only offers a few recipes.

D. Most of the food on that blog is hard to make.

Question 35. Why should we be careful when we are looking at new blogs?

A. We don’t know who the writers are.

B. Most new blogs are terrible.

C. The recipes on new blogs are usually hard to make.

D. They charge you some fees to get the recipes.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Course numbers are an indication of which courses are to various categories of students at the University. Undergraduate courses with the numbers 100 or 200 are generally introductory courses appropriate for freshmen or sophomores, whereas courses with the numbers 300 or 400 often have prerequisites and are often to juniors and seniors only. Courses with the numbers 800 or above are open only to graduate students. Certain graduate courses, generally those devoted to introductory material, are numbered 400 for undergraduate students who qualify to take them and 600 for

graduate students. Courses designed for students seeking a professional degree carry a 500 number for undergraduate students and a 700 number for graduate students. Courses numbered 99 or below are special interest courses that do not carry academic credit. If students elect to take a special interest course, it will not count toward the number of hours needed to complete graduation requirements.

Full-time undergraduate student is expected to take courses that total twelve to eighteen credit hours. A full-time graduate student is expected to take courses that total ten to sixteen credit hours.

Student holding assistantships are expected to enroll for proportionately fewer hours. A part-time graduate may register for minimum of three credit hours. An overload, that is, more than the maximum number of hours, may be taken with the approval of an academic advisor. To register for an overload, students must submit the appropriate approval form when registering. Overloads above 24 hours will not be approved under any circumstances.

(From: Practice Exercises for the TOEFL iBT, by Pamela J. Sharpe, Ph.D) Question 36. Where would the passage most likely be found?

A. In a graduate course B. In an undergraduate course C. In a college catalog D. In a syllabus Question 37. The word “categories” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________ .

A. teachers B. courses C. jobs D. groups Question 38. The word “those” in paragraph 1 refers to ________ .

A. graduate courses B. course numbers C. introductory courses D. graduate students Question 39. Which classification of students would be eligible to enroll in Mechanical Engineering 850?

A. A part- time student B. An undergraduate student C. A full- time student D. A graduate student Question 40. If an undergraduate student uses the number 520 to register a accounting course, what number would a graduate student probably use to register for the same course?

A. Accounting 620 B. Accounting 820 C. Accounting 520 D. Accounting 720 Question 41. How is a student who registers for eight credit hours classified?

A. Full-time student B. Graduate student C. Part-time student D. Non-degree student Question 42. Which of the following courses would NOT be included in the list of courses for graduation?

A. English 90 B. English 100 C. English 300 D. English 400 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. Food prices have (A) raised (B) so rapidly in the past few months (C) that some families have been (D) forced to alter their eating habits.

Question 44. (A) Poverty in this country is (B) noticeable different (C) from that in other (D) countries.

Question 45. (A) The more paper we (B) save, (C) the less trees we use (D) for making it.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. I used to go swimming with my friends in the afternoons.

A. I usually went swimming with my friends in the afternoons.

B. I got used to go swimming with my friends in the afternoons.

C. I didn’t go swimming with my friends in the afternoons.

D. I usually go swimming with my friends in the afternoons.

Question 47. They are not allowed to go out by their parents.

A. Their parents do not want to go out.

B. Their parents don’t let them go out.

C. Going out is permitted by their parents.

D. Although their parents do not allow, they still go out.

Question 48. Her car is more expensive than mine.

A. My car is as expensive as hers.

B. My car isn’t as expensive as hers.

C. My car isn’t as expensive as hers car.

D. My car is more expensive than hers.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. Anne jogs every morning. It is very good for her health.

A. Anne jogs every morning and is very good for her health.

B. Anne jogs every morning, which is very good for her health.

C. Anne jogs every morning and then it is very good for her health.

D. Anne jogs every morning that it is very good for her health.

Question 50. We didn‘t want to spend a lot of money. We stayed in a cheap hotel.

A. Rather than spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel.

B. In spite of spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel.

C. We stayed in a cheap hotel, but we had to spend a lot of money.

D. We didn‘t stay in a cheap hotel as we had a lot of money to spend.

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC

ĐỀ SỐ 23

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO Môn: Tiếng Anh Số câu hỏi: 50 câu - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. competitive B. entrepreneur C. apprenticeship D. conscientious Question 2. A. computer B. communication C. command D. complicated Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. unemployment B. economics C. manufacture D. responsible Question 4. A. employable B. facilitate C. interaction D. initiative Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. One member of the project group ________ the boss and was fired immediately.

A. came up against B. came up with C. talked back to D. put up with Question 6. For many people job ________ is more important than a high salary.

A. satisfaction B. expectation C. achievement D. acceptance Question 7. Many people would jump ________ the chance of working for a successful travel company.

A. off B. in C. at D. over Question 8. We complained ________ the manager ________ the poor service we received at the restaurant.

A. on - about B. at - for C. with - of D. to - about Question 9. I am writing in ________ to your advertisement on vietnamework.com for the post of a personal assistant.

A. connection B. association C. relation D. response Question 10. The company’s announced it’s ________ off over 1,000 workers.

A. leaving B. laying C. setting D. giving Question 11. If you had listened to my advice, you ________ into trouble now.

A. wouldn’t be B. wouldn’t have been C. won’t be D. hadn’t be Question 12. Sally disagreed with the board of directors’ decision so she ________ and went to work for another company.

A. retired B. fired C. sacked D. resigned Question 13. Unfortunately there is still a lot of ________ against older people in the workplace.

A. distraction B. discrimination C. discretion D. distortion Question 14. Online courses offer a great degree of ________ in terms of learning time, place, pace and style.

A. flexibility B. responsibility C. opportunity D. accessibility Question 15. By the time you come back next year, they ________ their house.

A. finish B. will finish C. will have finish D. will have finished Question 16. I’m not sure I’m doing it right, but I’ll try to ________ ahead with it anyway.

A. drive B. bang C. touch D. press Question 17. Some species like dinosaurs are classified as EX, meaning extinct, on the ________ status scale.

A. conserving B. conserve C. conservation D. conservative Question 18. You should keep the milk in the refrigerator ________ it wouldn’t go bad.

A. so that B. since C. if D. when Question 19. Lisa ________ at 8 o’clock next week. She’ll be on holiday!

A. won’t be working B. won’t work C. won’t have worked D. hasn’t worked Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. Employers usually look for candidates who have qualifications and relevant experience.

A. excellent B. rich C. appropriate D. extensive Question 21. The working environment was so bad that Hoa eventually decided to hand in his notice.

A. notify the boss B. apply for another job C. give up his job D. be given a better job Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. I’d go mad if I had to do a dead-end job.

A. boring B. monotonous C. fascinating D. demanding Question 23. To become a librarian, you need to be really well-organized.

A. in order B. neat and tidy C. compassionate D. messy Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24. Hoa: “Do you know how this machine works?” - Nam: “ ________ ” A. It’s very expensive.

B. Will you call the mechanic tomorrow?

C. Plug it in and push the green button.

D. I think it’s quite heavy.

Question 25. Peter: “Sarah doesn’t seem very happy at the moment. Does she find the course difficult?” - Mary: “ ________ “ A. No, the course is difficult.

B. No, she’s going to drop out.

C. Yes, she’s happy.

D. Yes, I think she’s going to drop out and get a job.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

Online dating is a good way for (26) ________ shy people to make contact. Once you get comfortable with a stranger on a virtual basis, you may be encouraged to meet them in person. If you are on the right dating site, you are more likely to find people looking for the same things as you and it increases your chances of stumbling (27) ________ the right partner. Internet dating is an effective way of helping you meet new people and have a chance to decide (28) ________ you want to have a date in person.

(29) ________ internet dating is very convenient, it can also be misleading. When you are not personally meeting a person, the risk of being (30) ________ is higher as people often augment their profile just to attract your attention. If you are not careful, you may end up wasting many hours of your time with no real results.

Question 26. A. social B. sociable C. socially D. society Question 27. A. on B. with C. for D. of Question 28. A. what B. how C. whether D. who Question 29. A. However B. When C. Because D. While Question 30. A. robbed B. deceived C. exposed D. defeated

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

ALTERNATIVE ENERGY SOURCES A lot of different energy sources are used every day. Burning of fossil fuel is a main energy source. Sources other than this fossil fuel are known as alternative energy sources and there are several of them being used every day.

First of all, it is water. Water energy can be harnessed to perform work by using waterwheels. In a hydroelectric plant the running or falling water spins a generator to create electricity.

Not only does water spin a wheel, but wind can do so as well. Windmills work in the same manner as a waterwheel. Windmills are used as wind turbines that can generate electricity.

The internal heat of the earth is another energy source. It is called geothermal energy.

Geothermal energy can be used to heat homes and produce electricity.

Solar energy is often thought to be sunlight. Sunlight is full of energy. People are finding new ways to harness the power of sunlight. One major way is to trap or concentrate sunlight with the use of solar panels. This trapped sunlight can be used to heat homes and water. Also, solar cells are devices that convert sunlight into electricity.

Question 31. Sources of energy other than fossil fuel are called which of the following?

A. Alternative sources of energy B. Geothermal energy C. Solar energy D. Water energy Question 32. Water energy can be harnessed by using which of the following tools?

A. Windmills B. Waterwheels C. Aqua cells D. Hydroelectric wheels Question 33. Which of the following is a tool used to trap or concentrate sunlight to be used for energy?

A. Solar cells B. Solar panels C. Solar devices D. Solar censors Question 34. Which of the following is NOT an alternative source of energy?

A. Water B. Wind C. Sun D. Plants Question 35. Which of the following is a device that converts sunlight into electricity?

A. Solar cells B. Solar panels C. Converters D. Hydro panels Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

The concept of urban agriculture may conjure up images of rooftop, backyard or community gardens scattered among downtown city streets and surrounding neighborhoods. But in the Seattle area, and within and beyond the Puget Sound region, it means a great deal more. “Urban agriculture doesn’t necessarily equate to production that occurs only in a metropolitan urban area", says Jason Niebler, who directs the Sustainable Agriculture Education (SAgE) Initiative at Seattle Central Community College. “It means we are providing for growing population food needs from surrounding rural landscapes, as well as from the core urban landscape.”

Picture a series of concentric circles, with an urban core that produces some food at varying capacities, surrounded by a series of outlying rings of small farms that become increasingly more rural with distance. The hope is that such land use planning, from the inner core to the outer rings, will encourage local ecologically sound sustainable food production. This, in turn, will create local jobs and decrease reliance on distant food products that originate from petroleum-intensive large scale farms.

That’s the idea behind SAgE, believed to be the nation’s first metropolitan-based community college sustainable agriculture program that emphasizes farming practices across diverse landscape types from urban centers to surrounding rural environs. “It’s small scale agriculture with an urban focus,” Niebler says. “Any urban population, large or small, can practice sustainable agriculture, improve food security and protect the environment, which ultimately results in resilient food systems and communities.”

SAgE is a part of National Science Foundation’s Advanced Technological Education (ATE) Program, which is providing the project with $157,375 over two years. ATE’s goal is to support projects that strengthen the skills of technicians who work in industries regarded as vital to the national’s prosperity and security. The support largely goes to community colleges that work in partnership with universities, secondary schools, businesses and industries, as well as government agencies, which design and implement model workforce initiatives.

The SAgE project focuses on the environmental, socioeconomic, political and cultural issues related to sustainable food systems, within Puget Sound watersheds through student and community education and research, and technological innovation. The curriculum offers courses that cover such issues as agricultural ecology, urban food systems, food politics and ethics, soil science, sustainable food production and technology, the integration of food and forests, and career opportunities.

“We’ve created a curriculum that is fundamental in nature, addressing the principles of sustainable agriculture and what a food system is – how it functions both locally and globally,” Niebler says. “These courses are challenging, robust and inspirational. One of the really wonderful things about them is that we offer service learning opportunities, where students volunteer a portion of their time to working with local partner organizations. They can do a research project, or a service learning option. The ideal would be to prompt students into careers that involve sustainable practices in an urban agriculture setting.”

(Adapted from “Promoting Sustainable Agriculture” by Mariene Cimons) Question 36. It is stated in the passage that Jason Niebler ________ .

A. preserves the core urban landscape B. provides food for Seattle’s population C. studies at Seattle Central Community College D. directs the SAgE Initiative Question 37. It can be inferred from the passage that the conventional idea of urban agriculture ________ .

A. focuses mainly on agriculture within and beyond the Puget Sound region B. aims at food production and consumption in both rural and urban regions C. is associated with production only in metropolitan urban areas.

D. concerns with food production in any city’s surrounding areas Question 38. Which of the following is supposed to be an outcome of the SAgE’s new land use planning?

A. Dependence on distant food products.

B. Increased food production in large scale farms C. Employment opportunities for local residents D. Modernized farming practices in rural environs Question 39. The curriculum of SAgE at Seattle Central Community College offers courses covering the following EXCEPT ________ .

A. agricultural ecology B. career opportunities.

C. urban system development D. integration of food and forests Question 40. In Niebler’s opinion, the courses offered by the SAgE project are ________ .

A. functional but impractical B. robust but unpromising C. challenging and costly D. hard but encouraging Question 41. The word “them” in paragraph 6 refer to ________ .

A. courses B. opportunities C. principles D. students Question 42. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?

A. The curriculum that the SAgE project designs is fundamental in nature.

B. The SAgE project alone will offer student sufficient jobs in urban agriculture.

C. ATE helps to improve the skill of technicians in the nation major industries.

D. Resilient food systems can be attributed to sustainable agricultural practices.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. My friend (A) offered (B) finding more information (C) about the company that I was applying (D) to.

Question 44. Many animal (A) species are becoming (B) endangered or even (C) extinction due to (D) habitat destruction.

Question 45. When students (A) do not know (B) what they want to do after (C) leave school, they could (D) consider some other options.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. “How beautiful the dress you have just bought is!� Peter said to Mary.

A. Peter promised to buy Mary a beautiful dress.

B. Peter said thanks to Mary for her beautiful dress.

C. Peter complimented Mary on her beautiful dress.

D. Peter asked Mary how she had just bought her beautiful dress.

Question 47. Thanks to her high grades at university, Linh is offered the position.

A. If she got high grades at university, Linh would be offered the position.

B. It was her high grades at university which offer Linh the position.

C. If she hadn’t got high grades at university, Linh would not have been offered the position.

D. If she had not got high grades at university, Linh would not be offered the position.

Question 48. He played volleyball with his friends, then he went home.

A. After he had played volleyball with his friends, he went home.

B. He went home before he played volleyball with his friends.

C. Before he had gone home, he played volleyball with his friends.

D. After he had gone home, he played volleyball with his friends.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. I did not turn on the television. I was afraid of waking the baby up.

A. I did not turn on the television for fear of waking the baby up.

B. I decided not to turn on the television in order to wake the baby up.

C. I decided to turn the television volume down to avoid waking the baby up.

D. Waking up the baby, I could not continue watching the television.

Question 50. Fossil fuels come from dead plants and animals. These plants and animals died millions of years ago.

A. Plants and animals that died millions of years ago become fossil fuels.

B. Fossil fuels come from plants and animals that died millions of years ago.

C. Fossil fuels were made from plants and animals that died.

D. Plants and animals died millions of years ago to become fossil fuels today.

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC

ĐỀ SỐ 24

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO Môn: Tiếng Anh Số câu hỏi: 50 câu - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. dispose B. soot C. lifestyle D. conserve Question 2. A. expand B. centralise C. densely D. energy Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. initiative B. necessary C. discriminate D. authority Question 4. A. preservation B. sustainable C. environment D. facility Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. I ________ a new alarm clock the other day when I actually ________ somebody shoplifting.

A. have bought - saw B. was buying - saw C. will buy - see D. had bought - was seeing Question 6. We admitted her ________ to the cause of humanity.

A. achievement B. dedication C. awareness D. concentration Question 7. Whoever ________ up with the new idea will win the prize.

A. came B. caught C. kept D. put Question 8. In less developed countries, ________ slums form both on the edges and within the largest cities.

A. heavily populous B. densely populated C. thinly populated D. most populous Question 9. The more carefully humans mind their daily activities, _______ on the environment.

A. the less harmful impact have they B. the less harmful impact they have C. the less impact harmful they have D. the less harmful they have impact Question 10. Students are made ________ with the rules of the school.

A. complying B. complied C. to comply D. comply Question 11. By the end of this year, the Wildlife Conservation Network ________ $50 thousand dollars.

A. will raise B. will be raised C. will be raising D. will have raised Question 12. Please cut my hair ________ the style in this magazine.

A. the same length like B. the same length as C. the same long like D. the same long as Question 13. He is credited for helping numerous endangered species recover _______ certain extinction.

A. from B. off C. out of D. away from Question 14. Although she was experienced, she was not ________ .

A. mistaken B. flawed C. erroneous D. infallible Question 15. I’d rather not ________ about it in such an unfavorable circumstance.

A. talked B. talking C. talk D. to talk Question 16. The government is trying not to ________ the money they are spending on vocational training.

A. drop out of B. drop in on C. get on with D. cut down on Question 17. I’m the only person here who went to state school, ________ ?

A. am I? B. aren’t I C. do I D. didn’t I? Question 18. The sky was grey and cloudy. ________ , we went to the beach.

A. However B. In spite of C. Even though D. Consequently Question 19. The teacher ________ her to improve her listening skills.

A. persisted B. insisted C. encouraged D. made Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. All techniques help medical doctors to discover subtle interactions between medications that put patients in jeopardy because of their serious side effect.

A. at risk B. in reality C. under control D. under pressure Question 21. Finally, Linda decided to quit her job as she couldn’t stand doing the same things days in days out. It’s so monotonous!

A. easy B. low-paid C. tedious D. secure Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. Although many of his policies are still considered controversial, they helped Singapore to overcome many obstacles and become one of the most admired international business and financial centres around the world.

A. advantages B. benefits C. disadvantages D. difficulties Question 23. Smart robots have replaced humans in stressful and hazardous jobs and in assembly lines.

A. dangerous B. risky C. safe D. perilous Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24. Tim: “My life’s got stuck these days. I am so depressed and unable to think of anything.” - Henry: “ ________ .”

A. You will be tired.

B. Don’t do that.

C. Stay calm. Everything will be alright.

D. No, thanks.

Question 25. Hoa: “Mom, I’ve got the first rank in class this semester!” - Mom: “ ________ ” A. Well done!

B. Thank you!

C. Never mind!

D. Let’s go!

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

Nowadays, everybody knows Apples and almost everybody knows that the company was founded by Steve Jobs, an American inventor and entrepreneur. He is (26) _______ recognized as a pioneer in the field of microcomputer revolution. He helped design the first Macintosh computer, (27) _______ a small computer graphics company into Pixar, the company behind Toy Story and The Monster Inc. His countercultural lifestyle and philosophy was a product of the time and place of his (28) ________ . Jobs was adopted and raised in San Francisco Bay Area during the 1960s. In 1972, Jobs attended Reed College from which he dropped out in next to no time. Jobs co-founded Apple in 1976 in order to sell Apple I personal computer. At that moment, he might hardly imagine that only a year later the company tasted impressive victory with Apple II, one of the first highly successful (29) _______ personal computers. Unfortunately, in 1985, following a long power struggle, Jobs was forced out of Apple. After leaving Apple, Jobs took a few of its members with him to found NeXT, a computer development company which was then bought by Apple. The purchase (30) _______ Jobs to become the company’s CEO once again.

Question 26. A. widely B. hardly C. legally D. nationally Question 27. A. translated B. transferred C. transformed D. transited Question 28. A. increase B. upbringing C. rising D. grow

Question 29. A. massly-produced B. mass-produced C. massive-produced D. mass-producing Question 30. A. made B. did C. allowed D. let Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

Super skyscrapers, underwater cities, 3D-printed homes, and holidays in space will all be a reality in 100 years’ time, according to the SmartThings Future Living Report. The report presented findings from a survey conducted by Samsung’s SmartThings company with a group of experts on space, architecture, and urban planners. Several futurologists and adults of different occupations also took part in the survey.

The experts suggest that in a century’s time humans will be able to live in ‘Earth-scrapers’, which will go up to 25 storeys underground. They also believe that ‘bubble cities’ will be created underwater making the depths habitable for humans. They say the way we live, work and play will be totally different to how we do these things today. The authors of the report say that 25 years ago, people could not imagine how the Internet and smartphones would change our lives. They have revolutionised the way we communicate, learn and do daily things. So, it is understandable that the changes in the next century would be even more unbelievable.

Researchers also questioned 2,000 adults about the predictions they thought were most likely to happen in the future. Respondents predict that in the future, few people will go to an office but will work from home and have virtual work meetings instead. People will have advanced 3D printers that will let us download a design for furniture or a food recipe and then ‘print’ the sofa, table or pizza at home. There will also be less need for visits to the doctor. We will all have a home health capsule which will tell us what the problem is and give us treatment. We will also go into space for holidays and to get resources that we have used up on Earth. A prediction that was missing was about the popularity of English – whether people would still need to study English or not.

Question 31. What is the passage mainly about?

A. The development of Smart Things B. A survey with students C. The future of English learning D. Life in the next century Question 32. The word “Earth-scrapers” in paragraph 2 means ________ .

A. earthen buildings B. super sky cities C. underground buildings D. cities in the water Question 33. The word “habitable” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________ .

A. eligible B. enjoyable C. livable D. responsible Question 34. All of the following are mentioned in the passage EXCEPT that ________ .

A. people will be able to live in ‘Earth-scrapers’, which will go up to 25 storeys underground B. ‘bubble cities’ will be created underwater making the depths habitable for humans C. people will all use a global social networking and be able to contact anywhere D. the way we live, work and play will be totally different to how we do these things today Question 35. According to the paragraph, what is TRUE about future life?

A. No one will work from home and have virtual work meetings.

B. People will be able to teleshop at home thanks to an advanced 3D printers.

C. Earth citizens will all have a home health capsule which will be capable of giving treatment to any disease.

D. English will become more popular as it will be the only means of communication.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Carnegie Hall, which is a famous concert hall in New York City, has again undergone a restoration. While this is not the first, it is certainly the most extensive in the building’s history. As a result of this new restoration, Carnegie Hall once again has the quality of sound that it had when it was first built.

Carnegie Hall owes its existence to Andrew Carnegie, the wealthy owner of a steel company in the late 1800s. The hall was finished in 1891 and quickly gained a reputation as an excellent performing arts hall where accomplished musicians gained fame. Despite its reputation, the concert hall suffered from several detrimental renovations over the years. During the Great Depression, when fewer people could afford to attend performances, the directors sold part of the building to commercial businesses. As a result, a coffee shop was opened in one corner of the building, for which the builders replaced the brick and terra cotta walls with windowpanes. A renovation in 1946 seriously damaged the acoustical quality of the hall when the makers of the film Carnegie Hall cut a gaping hole in the dome of the ceiling to allow for lights and air vents. The hole was later covered with short curtains and a fake ceiling, but the hall never sounded the same afterwards.

In 1960, the violinist Isaac Stern became involved in restoring the hall after a group of real estate developers unveiled plans to demolish Carnegie Hall and build a high-rise office building on the site. This threat spurred Stern to rally public support for Carnegie Hall and encourage the City of New York to buy the property. The movement was successful, and the concert hall is now owned by the city. In the current restoration, builders tested each new material for its sound qualities, and they replaced the hole in the ceiling with a dome. The builders also restored the outer walls to their original appearance and closed the coffee shop. Carnegie has never sounded better, and its prospects for the future have never looked more promising.

Question 36. What is this passage mainly about?

A. Changes to Carnegie Hall B. The appearance of Carnegie Hall C. Carnegie Hall’s history during the Great Depression D. Damage to the ceiling in Carnegie Hall Question 37. In the second paragraph, what is the meaning of the word “detrimental”?

A. Dangerous B. Significant C. Extreme D. Harmful Question 38. What major change happened to the hall in 1946?

A. The acoustic dome was damaged.

B. Space in the building was sold to commercial businesses.

C. The walls were damaged in an earthquake.

D. The stage was renovated.

Question 39. Who was Andrew Carnegie?

A. A violinist B. An architect C. A steel mill owner D. The mayor of New York City Question 40. What was Isaac Stern’s relationship to Carnegie Hall?

A. He made the movie “Carnegie Hall” in 1946.

B. He performed on opening night in 1891.

C. He tried to save the hall, beginning in 1960.

D. He opened a coffee shop in Carnegie Hall during the Depression.

Question 41. What was probably the most important aspect of the recent renovation?

A. Restoring the outer wall.

B. Expanding the lobby.

C. Restoring the plaster trim.

D. Repairing the ceiling.

Question 42. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “unveiled” in the last paragraph?

A. Announced B. Restricted C. Overshadowed D. Located Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. The world’s first (A) electronic computer was (B) building by the (C) university of Pennsyvania in (D) 1946.

Question 44. In this throw-away society, (A) instead of having an old (B) electronics device (C) fixed, people (D) tend to toss it away and buy a new one.

Question 45. Before the invention of e-mail and the Internet in 1972, (A) it took people (B) at least one day to (C) cause hand-written letters sent to the (D) recipients’ homes.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. Unless you come on time, we will go without you.

A. Come on time or we will go without you.

B. Come on time, so we will go without you.

C. Because of your punctuality, we will go without you.

D. Without your coming on time, we will go.

Question 47. No matter how hard I tried, I couldn’t open the door.

A. Although I tried very hard, I couldn’t open the door.

B. Although I tried very hard, I could open the door.

C. In spite of I tried very hard, I couldn’t open the door.

D. I couldn’t open the door even though trying very hard.

Question 48. “You shouldn’t have told the truth, Kelly!” said Tom. A. Tom suspected that Kelly had told the truth.

B. Tom criticized Kelly for having told the truth.

C. Tom accused Kelly of having told the truth.

D. Tom blamed Kelly for having told the truth.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. Many industries today use highly automated vehicles. They can drive with almost no human intervention.

A. Although many industries today use many automated vehicles, they can drive without human intervention.

B. Many industries today use highly automated vehicles which can drive with almost no human intervention.

C. With almost no human intervention, many industries today can run highly automated vehicles.

D. When vehicles are highly automated in many industries, humans do not have to intervene in their operation.

Question 50. Many elephants are poached. Their tusks are used to make valuable ivory objects.

A. As many elephants are poached, their tusks are used to make valuable ivory objects.

B. Unless many elephants are poached, their tusks are used to make valuable ivory objects.

C. Many elephants are poached because their tusks are used to make valuable ivory objects.

D. Many elephants are poached, so their tusks are used to make valuable ivory objects.

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC

ĐỀ SỐ 25

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO Môn: Tiếng Anh Số câu hỏi: 50 câu - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. laughed B. wicked C. ragged D. naked Question 2. A. nomadic B. procession C. socialize D. hostess Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. mysterious B. generous C. extensive D. pollution Question 4. A. competitive B. intelligent C. avoidable D. interactive Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. His father used to be a ________ professor at the university. Many students respected him.

A. distinct B. distinctive C. distinguishing D. distinguished Question 6. Migrants may lose their cultural identity as they become ________ into the new community.

A. assimilated B. maintained C. understood D. worshiped Question 7. The government said that they didn’t have enough funds to deal with _______ medical care.

A. low-cost B. high-cost C. cost-high D. cost-effective Question 8. We should ________ waste paper ________ cut down any trees.

A. either - or B. either - nor C. neither - nor D. neither - or Question 9. A cell phone may take risk going ________ due to unexpected incidents.

A. of B. on C. off D. for Question 10. If you don’t ________ this opportunity, you might not get another one.

A. grab B. grasp C. maintain D. capture Question 11. How long ________ in your old house before you moved in this flat?

A. did you live B. do you lives C. have you lived D. had you lived Question 12. The hotel prides itself on ________ high standards.

A. protecting B. reducing C. containing D. maintaining Question 13. Many young people travel all over the world and do all kinds of jobs before they ________ .

A. lie down B. put down C. touch down D. settle down Question 14. He has the ________ face and skin of an old traveller.

A. thought-provoking B. year-round C. overloaded D. weather-beaten Question 15. ________ number of boys were swimming in the lake, but I didn’t know _______ exact number of them.

A. A - the B. The - an C. The - the D. A - an Question 16. It is imperative that this letter ________ immediately.

A. is sent B. sends C. was sent D. be sent Question 17. Only after food has been dried or canned ________ .

A. that it should be stored for future use.

B. it should be stored for future use.

C. should it be stored for future use.

D. should it store for future

Question 18. Using renewable resources is the best option for preventing the ________ of fossilbased resources.

A. disposal B. poisoning C. depletion D. production Question 19. We use compact florescent light bulbs, ________ last 10 times longer than incandescent bulbs.

A. what B. that C. which D. they Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. A.I. algorithms can also help to detect faces and other features in photos sent to social networking sites.

A. categorize B. connect C. recognize D. remind Question 21. Although the first printed books had appeared long before in China, the term ‘mass media’ we use today was coined with the creation of print media, which started in Europe in the Middle Ages.

A. invented B. used C. borrowed D. developed Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. The development of new technologies helped to diversify mass media and make them an inseparable parts of our lives.

A. develop B. increase C. narrow down D. decrease Question 23. Millions of teenagers around the world are addicted to computer and video game.

A. very interested in B. very fond of C. aware of D. neglectful Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24. Hoa: “I apologize to you for being late for class.” Ms. Huong. “ ________ ” A. That’s out of question.

B. Your apology is accepted.

C. I am grateful to that.

D. It was very kind of you to help me.

Question 25. Waiter: “How do you like your beef done?” Customer: “ ________ ” A. Well done, please.

B. I don’t like it much.

C. I like it.

D. Not very well.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

In spring 2008, the polar bear was placed on the endangered species list. According to the USA’s Endangered Species Act, an endangered species is an animal, plant or any other kind of wildlife that is likely to face extinction in its natural (26) ________ . Polar bears had already been categorized (27) ________ a “threatened” species which the ESA defines as one that is likely to become “endangered” in the foreseeable future.

The polar bear’s habitat is more (28) ________ to global warming than many other species.

Polar bears live mainly on the sea ice in the Arctic. This is where they hunt for fish and build up fat reserves. When the ice melts many polar bears move to land and live off their stored fat. In the Arctic, global warming is causing the ice to melt slightly earlier and form slightly later. This (29) ________ a shorter feeding season for the polar bear. Some risk their lives to find ice. If they have to swim too far they will drown from exhaustion and hunger. The World Wildlife Fund (30) ________ that over 25% of Arctic sea ice has disappeared in the past 30 years.

Question 26. A. habitat B. forest C. home D. life Question 27. A. like B. with C. as D. by Question 28. A. adaptable B. vulnerable C. dangerous D. convenient Question 29. A. results from B. leads in C. come from D. results in Question 30. A. establishes B. estimates C. ensures D. encourages

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

American cities are similar to other cities around the world. In every country, cities reflect the values of the culture. Cities contain the very best aspects of a society: opportunity for education, employment and entertainment. They also contain the very worst parts of a society: Violent crime, racial conflict and poverty. American cities are changing, just as American society is changing.

After World War II city resident have become wealthier and more prosperous. They have more children. They need more space. They move out of their apartments in the city to buy their own homes. They buy houses in the suburbs, areas near a city where people can live in a peaceful atmosphere and where there are areas without many offices or factories. During the 1950’s, the American “dream” was to have a house in the suburbs. Now things are changing. The children of the people who left the cities in 1950’s are now adults. Unlike their parents, they want to live in the cities. Many young professionals, doctors, lawyers and executives are moving back into the city.

Many are single, others are married, but often without children. They prefer the city to the suburb because their jobs are there; they are afraid of the fuel shortage or they just enjoy the excitement and opportunities which the city offers. A new class is moving into the city - a wealthier and more mobile class. Only a few years ago, people thought the older American cities were dying. Some city residents now see a bright, new future. Others see only problems and conflicts. One thing is sure: many dying cities are alive again.

Question 31. The paragraph from “American cities are similar to…” to “just as American society is changing” ________ .

A. explains why American cities are changing B. is a description of cities C. shows that American cities have many problems D. says American cities contain the very best aspect of a society Question 32. In the 1950’s, the American “dream” was __________.

A. to have a colour T.V set B. to have a big car C. to buy an apartment in the city D. to buy a new house in the suburb Question 33. In “Now things ... mobile class”, the author mentions _________ reasons why people want to live in cities.

A. two B. three C. four D. five Question 34. According to the passage, cities are ________ .

A. sick B. alive again C. living D. dying Question 35. The movement of people to and from the city can explain ________ .

A. social changes B. violent C. racial conflict D. the best aspects of a society Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

The main difference between urban growth in Europe and in the American colonies was the slow evolution of cities in the former and their rapid growth in the latter. In Europe they grew over a period of centuries from town economies to their present urban structure. In North America, they started as wilderness communities and developed to mature urbanism’s in little more than a century.

In the early colonial day in North America, small cities sprang up along the Atlantic Coastline, mostly in what are now New America, small cities sprang up along the Atlantic United States and in the lower Saint Lawrence valley in Canada. This was natural because these areas were nearest England and France, particularly England, from which most capital goods (assets such as equipment) and many consumer goods were imported Merchandising establishments were, accordingly, advantageously located in port cities from which goods could be readily distributed to interior settlements. Here, too, were the favored locations for processing raw materials prior to export. Boston, Philadelphia, New York, Montreal, and other cities flourished, and, as the colonies grew, these cities increased in importance.

This was less true in the colonial South, where life centered around large farms, known as plantations, rather than around towns, as was the case in the areas further north along the Atlantic coastline. The local isolation and the economic self-sufficiency of the plantations were antagonistic to the development of the towns. The plantations maintained their independence because they were located on navigable streams and each had a wharf accessible to the small shipping of that day. In fact, one of the strongest factors in the selection of plantation land was the desire to have it front on a water highway.

When the United States became an independent nation in 1776, it did not have a single city as large as 50,000 inhabitants, but by 1820 it had a city of more than 10,000 people, and by 1880 it had recorded a city of over one million. It was not until after 1823, after the mechanization of the spinning and weaving industries, that cities started drawing young people away from farms. Such migration was particularly rapid following the Civil War (1861- 1865).

Question 36. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Factors that slowed the growth of cities in Europe.

B. The evolution of cities in America.

C. Trade between North American and European cities.

D. The effects of the United Sates’ independence on urban growth in New England.

Question 37. The word “they” in paragraph 1 refers to ________ .

A. North American colonies B. cities C. centuries D. town economies Question 38. According to the passage, early colonial cities were established along the Atlantic coastline of North America due to ________ .

A. an abundance of natural resources B. financial support from colonial governments C. proximity to parts of Europe D. a favorable climate Question 39. Which of the following did the Atlantic coastline cities prepare for shipment to Europe during colonial times?

A. Manufacturing equipment B. Capital goods C. Consumer goods D. Raw materials Question 40. According to the passage, all of the following aspects of the plantation system influenced the growth of southern cities EXCEPT the ________ .

A. location of the plantations B. access of plantation owners to shipping C. relationships between plantation residents and city residents D. economic self-sufficiency of the plantation Question 41. It can be inferred from the passage that, in comparison with northern, cities, most southern cities were ________ .

A. more prosperous B. smaller C. less self-sufficient D. stronger Question 42. The word “drawing” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ________ .

A. attracting B. employing C. instructing D. representing Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. She (A) was walking to (B) the library to borrow (C) some books when she (D) was seeing a robbery.

Question 44. I (A) feel a (B) certain apprehension (C) with my interview (D) tomorrow.

Question 45. It (A) is time the government (B) helped (C) the unemployment to find (D) some jobs.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. “Don’t forget to submit your assignments by Friday,” said the teacher to the students.

A. The teacher reminded the students to submit their assignments by Friday.

B. The teacher allowed the students to submit their assignments by Friday.

C. The teacher ordered the students to submit their assignments by Friday.

D. The teacher encouraged the students to submit their assignments by Friday.

Question 47. There were so many people on the bus that Sally couldn’t get a seat.

A. The bus was too crowded for Sally not to get a seat.

B. The bus was so crowded that there was nowhere for Sally to sit.

C. So crowded the bus was that Sally couldn’t get a seat.

D. The crowded bus did not prevent Sally from getting a seat.

Question 48. You should take regular exercises instead of sitting in front of the computer screen all day.

A. Taking regular exercises is better than sitting in front of the computer screen all day.

B. Sitting in front of the computer screen all day helps you take regular exercises.

C. Sitting in front of the computer screen all day and taking exercises are advisable.

D. Don’t take regular exercises, and sit in front of the computer screen all day.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. She’s just so flexible. She’ll adapt to any situation.

A. Flexible as she is, she cannot adapt to any situation.

B. She’s too flexible that she will adapt to any situation.

C. She’s enough flexible to adapt to any situation.

D. She’s so flexible that she’ll adapt to any situation.

Question 50. I didn’t understand his explanation. I asked him to repeat what he had said.

A. I didn’t understand his explanation because I asked him to repeat what he had said.

B. I didn’t understand his explanation, and I asked him to repeat what he had said.

C. I didn’t understand his explanation, for I asked him to repeat what he had said.

D. I didn’t understand his explanation, so I asked him to repeat what he had said.

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC

ĐỀ SỐ 26

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO Môn: Tiếng Anh Số câu hỏi: 50 câu - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. depressed B. respect C. regret D. reconcile Question 2. A. dispose B. soot C. lifestyle D. conserve Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. sympathetic B. relationship C. conservative D. respectable Question 4. A. management B. loneliness C. impairment D. delicate Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. We ________ while we were on holiday.

A. had our car stolen B. had stolen our car C. got stolen our car D. are stolen our car Question 6. A.I. robots are ________ of having human emotions.

A. able B. capable C. efficient D. fond Question 7. People have always depended on animals and plants for food, clothing, medicine, shelter and many other ________ .

A. needs B. demand C. supply D. provision Question 8. By the time you finish cooking, they ________ their homework.

A. are doing B. have been doing C. have done D. will have done Question 9. After working at the same company for thirty years, my grandfather was looking forward to his ________ .

A. wage B. pension C. charity D. allowance Question 10. Jane didn't check she had enough petrol before she left, ________ was careless of her.

A. what B. it C. that D. which Question 11. Last month the doctor ________ that he ________ .

A. had suggested - should not smoke B. suggested - should have not smoked C. suggested - did not smoke D. suggested - not smoke Question 12. The more you talk about the problem, ________ .

A. the more badly it seems B. the badlier it seems C. the worse it seems D. the worse does it seem Question 13. The continued ________ of our ozone may cause terrible destruction to our planet.

A. redundancy B. removal C. change D. depletion Question 14. He is not ________ and finds it difficult to pay for daily necessities.

A. well-paid B. well-equipped C. well-done D. well-dressed Question 15. You can always count ________ Peter because he is such a reliable person.

A. up B. on C. with D. for Question 16. We managed to finish the exercises on time and passed the exam. ________ , it was very difficult.

A. Although B. However C. So D. Therefore Question 17. He is ________ - influenced by his father and grandfather. His behaviors and decisions are exactly the same.

A. mightily B. strongly C. terribly D. weakly

Question 18. Many ethnic groups find it difficult to ________ their own language or preserve their culture.

A. change B. integrate C. maintain D. learn Question 19. Vietnam, the Philippines, India, Indonesia and other Asian countries are making substantial commitments to ________ their natural resources.

A. conserve B. conservation C. conserving D. be conserved Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. My new neighbor plays music at mid night and it’s getting on my nerves.

A. to make someone feel nervous B. to make someone feel sad C. to be annoying someone more and more D. to avoid someone you don’t like much Question 21. The director tried to depict the lives of the poor in his movie.

A. laugh at B. destroy C. name D. show Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. Both universities speak highly of the development of the strategic partnership in all fields.

A. express disapproval of B. voice opinion on C. resolve a conflict over D. find favor with Question 23. Doctors and nurses around the world have been working round the clock to help those contracting coronavirus.

A. permanently B. interruptedly C. continuously D. accurately Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24. Hoa: " ________ ". - Lan: "This one, please."

A. Do you like these books?

B. Are these books interesting?

C. Which of these books do you want?

D. You like these books, don’t you?

Question 25. Tim: “Why don’t we use solar energy to protect the environment?”

Sarah: “ ________ ” A. No thanks.

B. You don’t think so, do you?

C. Yes. I’ll go.

D. That’s a good idea.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

(26) ________ pollution has existed for centuries but only started to be significant following the industrial revolution in the 19th century. Pollution occurs when the natural environment cannot destroy an element without creating harm or damage to (27) ________ . The elements involved are not produced by nature, and the destroying process can vary from a few days to thousands of years (that is, for instance, the case for radioactive pollutants). In other words, pollution take place when nature does not know how to decompose an element that has been brought to it in an unnatural way.

Pollution must (28) ________ seriously, as it has a negative effect (29) ________ natural elements that are an absolute need for life to exist on earth, such as water and air. Indeed, without them, or (30) ________ they were present on different quantities, animals – including humans – and plants could not survive. We can identify several types of pollution on Earth: air pollution, water pollution and soil pollution.

(Adapted from https://www.conserve-energy-future.com) Question 26. A. Environmental B. Environmentally C. Environment D. Environmentalist Question 27. A. himself B. themselves C. itself D. herself Question 28. A. take B. have taken C. be taken D. be taking Question 29. A. to B. in C. for D. on Question 30. A. unless B. if C. although D. because

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

People who experience allergies might joke that their immune systems have let them down or are seriously lacking. Truthfully though, people who experience allergic reactions or allergy symptoms during certain times of the year have heightened immune systems that are “better” than those of people who have good health but less militant immune systems.

Still, when people have an allergic reaction, they are having an adverse reaction to a substance that is considered normal to most people. Mild allergic reactions usually have symptoms like itching, runny nose, red eyes, or bumps or discoloration of the skin. More serious allergic reactions, such as those to animal and insect poisons or certain foods, may result in the closing of the throat, swelling of the eyes, low blood pressure, an inability to breathe, and can even be fatal.

Different treatments help different allergies, and which one a person uses depends on the nature and severity of the allergy. It is recommended to patients with severe allergies to take extra precautions, such as carrying an EpiPen, which treats anaphylactic shock and may prevent death, always in order for the remedy to be readily available and more effective. When an allergy is not so severe, treatments may be used just to relieve uncomfortable symptoms of a person. Over the counter allergy medicines treat milder symptoms, and can be bought at any grocery store and used in moderation to help people with allergies live normally.

There are many tests available to assess whether a person has allergies or what they may be allergic to, and advances in these tests and the medicine used to treat patients continues to improve.

Despite this fact, allergies still affect many people throughout the year or even every day.

Medicines used to treat allergies have side effects of their own, and it is difficult to bring the body into balance with the use of medicine. Regardless, many of those who live with allergies are grateful for what is available and find it useful in maintaining their lifestyles.

Question 31. The word “adverse” in the passage is closest in meaning to ________ .

A. great B. enormous C. negative D. harmless Question 32. The author says that “medicines used to treat allergies have side effects of their own” to ________ .

A. point out that doctors aren’t very good at diagnosing and treating allergies B. argue that because of the large number of people with allergies, a cure will never be found C. explain that allergy medicines aren’t cures and some compromise must be made D. argues that more wholesome remedies should be researched and medicines banned Question 33. It can be inferred that ________ recommend that some people with allergies carry medicine with them.

A. the author B. doctors C. the makers of EpiPen D. people with allergies Question 34. The author has written this passage to ________ .

A. inform readers on symptoms of allergies so people with allergies can get help B. persuade readers to be proud of having allergies C. inform readers on different remedies so people with allergies receive the right help D. describe different types of allergies, their symptoms, and their remedies Question 35. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?

A. People who experience a mild allergic reaction can have an uncomfortable feeling on their skin that makes them want to scratch.

B. There is no effective way to help patients with allergies.

C. Severe allergies may cause death.

D. Medicine allergies have their side effects.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

The Missouri River is the longest tributary of the Mississippi River, and it begins its trip to join the Mississippi in the Rocky Mountains in Montana. The Missouri flows eastward to central North Dakota, where it turns southward across South Dakota, Nebraska, and Iowa. When it reaches Missouri, it turns eastward at Kansas city and meanders across central Missouri to join the Mississippi River, about 10 miles north of St. Louis, after traveling 2,315 miles.

Its drainage basin occupies about 529, 400 square miles of the Great Plains. Elevations within its basin are extreme: from 14,000 feet above sea level in the Rockies near the Continental Divide to 400 feet where it joins the Mississippi. The flow of the Missouri changes frequently from 4,200 cubic feet per second to 900,000 cubic feet per second.

Its mouth was discovered in 1673 by the French explorers Jacques Marquette and Louis Joliet while they were canoeing down the Mississippi River. In the early 1700s, French fur traders began to navigate upstream. The first exploration of the river from its mouth to its headwaters was made in 1804-1805 by Meriwether Lewis and William Clark. For many years, the river was, except for fur traders, little used by the earliest American settlers moving west. The American Fur Company began to use steamers on the river in 1830 but began to decline in the following year with the completion of the Hannibal and St. Joseph Railway to St. Joseph, Missouri.

For the first 150 years after settlement along the river, the Missouri was not developed as a useful waterway or as a source of irrigation and power. In 1940, a comprehensive program was started for flood control and water-resource development in the Missouri River basin.

The Fort Peck Dam is one of the largest earth fill dams in the world. The entire system of dams and reservoirs has greatly reduced flooding on the Missouri and provides water to irrigate millions of acres of farmland. Electricity for many communities is generated along the river’s upper course.

Question 36. In which state does the Missouri begin its trip to the Mississippi?

A. Iowa B. South Dakota C. North Dakota D. Montana Question 37. The passage implies that the elevation of the Missouri River’s drainage basin ________ .

A. remains level throughout the trip from Montana through Missouri B. rises almost 2,315 feet C. changes frequently D. drops more than 13,000 feet between the Rocky Mountains and its mouth on the Mississippi Question 38. Which of the following is the closest in meaning to the word “mouth” as it is used in the passage?

A. Entrance to a harbor, valley, or cave B. The opening of a container C. Part of a river that flows into a lake or an ocean D. Oral cavity Question 39. Who discovered the mouth of the Missouri River?

A. Meriwether Lewis and William Clark B. French fur traders C. Jacques Marquette and Louis Joliet D. American fur traders Question 40. Where were steamers first used on the Missouri River?

A. 1673 B. 1700 C. 1804 D. 1830 Question 41. When was a flood control program for the Missouri River begun?

A. 1940 B. 1840 C. 1740 D. 1640 Question 42. In the passage, all of the following topics are briefly discusses EXCEPT ________ .

A. the geography of the Missouri River B. the history of the Missouri River C. tourism and recreation on the Missouri River

D. twentieth-century development of the Missouri River Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. (A) The more you (B) practise speaking in your class, (C) the more better you are (D) at public speaking.

Question 44. Many countries around the world (A) protect endangered species (B) by forbidding hunting, (C) to restrict land development (D) and creating preserves.

Question 45. I (A) think (B) a good health is important, and so is (C) education while (D) money, to some extent, is not.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. My cousin quickly adapted to his new job in this big company.

A. My cousin was used to adapting to his new job in this big company.

B. My cousin’s new job in this big company was easy for him to adapt to.

C. My cousin quickly got used to his new job in this big company.

D. My cousin was able to do his new job in this big company easily.

Question 47. No one in the team can play better than Tim. A. Tim plays well but the others play better.

B. Tim is the best player in the team.

C. Tim as well as other players in the team plays very well.

D. Everyone in the team, but Tim, plays very well.

Question 48. I’m sure Lucy was very disappointed when she failed the exam.

A. Lucy must be very disappointed when she failed the exam.

B. Lucy must have been very disappointed when she failed the exam.

C. Lucy may be very disappointed when she failed the exam.

D. Lucy could have been very disappointed when she failed the exam.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. I arrived at work. The secretary knocked at the door.

A. I had to arrive at work as the secretary knocked at the door.

B. Had the secretary knocked at the door, I would have arrived at work.

C. No sooner had I arrived at work than the secretary knocked at the door.

D. I hardly knew the secretary knocked at the door as I just arrived at work.

Question 50. He finished the report. Then he submitted it to the boss.

A. Having finished the report, he submitted it to the boss.

B. Finishing the report, it was submitted to the boss.

C. Having finished the report, it was submitted to the boss.

D. Having finished the report, he submitted to the boss.

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC

ĐỀ SỐ 27

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO Môn: Tiếng Anh Số câu hỏi: 50 câu - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. discrimination B. disability C. scholarship D. describe Question 2. A. pleased B. closed C. raised D. embarrassed Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. volunteer B. physical C. integrate D. cognitive Question 4. A. diversity B. economy C. protective D. difficulty Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. Many materials have been used for ________ teeth, including wood.

A. unnatural B. false C. hand-made D. natural Question 6. My daughter is planning to spend a year before university working in New York, ________ seems to me to be a sensible idea.

A. that B. which C. what D. where Question 7. The first wave of urban ________ took place in more developed countries, especially in Europe and North America.

A. migration B. emigration C. immigration D. evacuation Question 8. It was a good idea that everyone ________ early to arrive on time.

A. sets off B. set off C. to set off D. setting off Question 9. She could ________ in the garage when we arrived. That might be why she didn’t hear the bell.

A. work B. be worked C. have been working D. be working Question 10. Our country is now enjoying a period of relative ________ and prosperity.

A. stability B. regularity C. principle D. strength Question 11. Parents shouldn’t put too much pressure ________ their children.

A. of B. in C. at D. on Question 12. My best friend ________ my trust.

A. betrayed B. believed C. judged D. opposed Question 13. The government is expected to ________ steps against to the unemployment.

A. take B. make C. apply D. use Question 14. ________ want to get this job have to have good qualifications and experience.

A. Those which B. Those who C. Those whom D. Who Question 15. They were quite impressed by the ________ students who came up with the answer to their question immediately.

A. absent-minded B. big-headed C. quick-witted D. bad-tempered Question 16. Mr. Nam has just bought a ________ table for his living room.

A. wooden brown beautiful B. beautiful wooden brown C. beautiful brown wooden D. brown wooden beautiful Question 17. The land around the village is being polluted ________ the factory keeps releasing harmful chemicals into the soil.

A. so B. since C. and D. but Question 18. As soon as the film ________ , Lan realised she ________ it before.

A. started - saw B. had started - saw C. had started - had seen D. started - had seen Question 19. ________ one of the most beautiful forms of performance art, ballet is a combination of dance and mime performed to music.

A. Being considering B. Considering C. Considered D. To consider Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. I take my hat off to all those people who worked hard to get the contract.

A. admire B. discourage C. detest D. recruit Question 21. An endangered species is a population of an organism which is at risk of becoming extinct.

A. still alive B. threatened C. died out D. existed Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. Though I persuaded my manager to solve a very serious problem, she just made light of it.

A. completely ignored B. treated as important B. disagreed with D. discovered by chance Question 23. Thousands of people are going starving because of the failure of this year’s harvest.

A. hungry B. rich C. poor D. full Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24. Lisa: “See you again and have a nice weekend.”

- Tim: “ ________ ” A. It’s my pleasure.

B. You’re welcome. C. The same to you. D. I don’t think so.

Question 25. Nam: “Do you know where the match between our team with Thailand will be held?”

- Hung: “ ________ ” A. It is not very far, so I think you should take a bus.

B. I agree with you totally.

C. The match will be exciting.

D. At My Dinh national stadium.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

Most of us have looked up at the sky and seen what is commonly called a falling, or shooting, star. These momentary streaks occur when meteors, object generally (26) ________ from the size of dust (27) ________ to fist-size masses, enter the earth’s atmosphere at speeds up to 44 miles per second and ionized (or heated) to incandescence 50 to 75 miles above the earth. Few of these objects survive their encounter (28) ________ our atmosphere.

What we see here on earth, mostly at night, is a streak of light that lasts about a half a second on the (29) ________ . Generally speaking, the larger the material that enters the earth’s atmosphere, the brighter the meteor. Brighter meteors will occasionally leave a smoke trail behind in their path lasting a few seconds; trails produced by very bright meteors, (30) ________ to as fireballs, may last minutes. Fireballs that appear to break up or produce sound are called bolides, from the Greek word bolis meaning missile.

Question 26. A. ranging B. fluctuating C. ranking D. classifying Question 27. A. participants B. participles C. particulars D. particles Question 28. A. on B. into C. with D. to Question 29. A. move B. contrary C. average D. fly Question 30. A. related B. concerned C. directed D. referred

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

In 1969, three people in a tiny spaceship made history with a trip the world will never forget.

The three men were Michael Collins, Edwin “Buzz” Aldrin, and Neil Armstrong. The first manned lunar landing mission was called Apollo 11 and their destination was the moon. Tens thousands of people worked on the Apollo project to send those men to the moon. The project, also known as Apollo program, took 10 years of preparation. The first manned Apollo flight was a disaster because the spacecraft caught fire on the ground. But NASA continued with the Apollo program.

During future space missions, the astronauts practised flying their space crafts. They also performed the tasks they needed to know so they were able to fly to the moon and land on it. On the Apollo 8 mission, the astronauts flew around the Moon ten times. They were almost ready for the first moon landing. The rocket that carried the spacecraft and the astronauts into orbit around the moon was called the Saturn 5. It blasted through space at a speed of at least 25,000 miles an hour. Even at that speed, it took 3 days, 3 hours and 49 minutes to reach the moon. The Apollo 11 mission used a special lunar module designed only for landing on the Moon. It was called the “Eagle”. On July 20, 1969, the Eagle landed on the Moon’s desolate surface. Only two astronauts actually stepped on the moon that day. Neil Armstrong became the first person to walk on the moon. Edwin “Buzz” Aldrin followed about twenty minutes later. The astronauts set up a TV camera, and the whole world watched the landing on TV. Michael Collins waited for them in the spacecraft and orbited the moon. It was his job to take care of the spacecraft that would take them all home. He had to make certain nothing happened to it!

Question 31. What is the writer’s main purpose in writing the text?

A. To talk about Edwin "Buzz" Aldrin B. To talk about the first trip to the moon C. To explain that the first Apollo mission was a disaster D. To explain how difficult it is to travel in space Question 32. Which Apollo mission took the first astronauts to land on the Moon?

A. Apollo 11 B. Apollo 1 C. Apollo 8 D. Apollo 6 Question 33. How did the “Eagle” arrive at the moon?

A. It was sent there by satellite.

B. It flew there on its own C. Neil Armstrong sent it there D. It was carried by the Saturn 5 rocket Question 34. How many astronauts walked on the moon on July 20, 1969?

A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four Question 35. What can a reader find out from the text?

A. Why the Apollo program was so successful B. How much did the Apollo program cost C. When did humans first visit the Moon D. Who was the commander of Apollo 11 Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

The Nobel Peace Prize is awarded annually and the first woman to win this prize was Baroness Bertha Felicie Sophie von Suttner in 1905. In fact, her work inspired the creation of the Prize. The first American woman to win this prize was Jane Addams, in 1931. However, Addams is best known as the founder of Hull House.

Jane Addams was born in 1860, in a wealthy family. She was one of a small number of women in her generation to graduate from college. Her commitment to improving the lives of those around her led her to work for social reform and world peace. In the 1880s Jane Addams travelled to Europe. While she was in London, she visited a ‘settlement house’ called Toynbee Hall. Inspired by Toynbee Hall, Addams and her friend, Ellen Gates Starr, opened Hull House in a neighborhood of

slums in Chicago in 1899. Hull House provided a day care center for children of working mothers, a community kitchen, and visiting nurses. Addams and her staff gave classes in English literacy, art, and other subjects. Hull House also became a meeting place for clubs and labor unions. Most of the people who worked with Addams in Hull House were well educated, middle-class women. Hull House gave them an opportunity to use their education and it provided a training ground for careers in social work.

Before World War I, Addams was probably the most beloved woman in America. In a newspaper poll that asked, “Who among our contemporaries are of the most value to the community?”, Jane Addams was rated second, after Thomas Edison. When she opposed America’s involvement in World War I, however, newspaper editors called her a traitor and a fool, but she never changed her mind. Jane Addams was a strong champion of several other causes. Until 1920, American women could not vote. Addams joined in the movement for women’s suffrage and was a vice president of the National American Woman Suffrage Association. She was a founding member of the National Association for the Advancement of Colored People (NAACP), and was president of the Women’s International League for Peace and Freedom. . Her reputation was gradually restored during the last years of her life. She died of cancer in 1935.

Question 36. With which of the following subjects is the passage mainly concerned?

A. The first award of the Nobel Peace Prize to an American woman B. A woman’s work for social reform and world peace C. The early development of Social Work in America D. Contributions of educated women to American society Question 37. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A. The work of Baroness Bertha Felicie Sophie von Suttner was an inspiration to Jane Addams B. Jane Addams is most famous for her opening of Hull House C. Those who lived near Hull House had very poor literacy skills D. Jane Addams considered herself as a citizen of the world rather than of one particular country Question 38. The word “commitment” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ________ .

A. involvement B. obligation C. dedication D. enthusiasm Question 39. Jane Addams was inspired to open Hull House because ________ .

A. it gave educated women an opportunity to use their education and develop careers in social work B. she traveled to Europe in the 1880s C. she visited Toynbee Hall D. she was invited by a ‘settlement house’ in Chicago Question 40. The word “their” in the second paragraph refers to ________ .

A. children of working mothers B. middle-class women C. visiting nurses D. labor union members Question 41. The word “contemporaries” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ________ .

A. people of the same time B. famous people still alive C. elected officials D. people old enough to vote Question 42. According to the passage, Jane Addams’ reputation was damaged when she _______ .

A. allowed Hull House to become a meeting place for clubs and labor unions B. joined in the movement for women’s suffrage C. became a founding member of the NAACP D. opposed America’s involvement in World War I Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. (A) I’d like to (B) see him in my office (C) the moment he (D) will arrive.

Question 44. Some stickers (A) are very funny and make us (B) laugh, (C) yet (D) another can make us angry because of their ridiculousness.

Question 45. (A) Because oak trees are highly (B) resistant of (C) storm damage, they usually (D) live a long time.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. People think that university is the best way to get a well-paid job.

A. It is thought that university to be the best way to get a well-paid job.

B. It is thought that university has been the best way to get a well-paid job.

C. University is thought to be the best way to get a well-paid job.

D. University is thought to have been the best way to get a well-paid job.

Question 47. I don’t have enough money, so I can’t have my bike repaired.

A. I wish I had had enough money to have my bike repaired.

B. I wish I had enough money to have my bike repaired.

C. If only I have enough money, so I can have my bike repaired.

D. If only I had had enough money to have my bike repaired.

Question 48. This is the first time he has attended such an enjoyable party.

A. The first party he attended was enjoyable.

B. He had the first enjoyable party.

C. His attendance at the first party was enjoyable.

D. He has never attended such an enjoyable party before.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. I did not see Nam off at the airport. I feel bad about it now.

A. I wish I would see Nam off at the airport.

B. If only I had seen Nam off at the airport.

C. I regret having seen Nam off at the airport.

D. That I did not see Nam off at the airport makes me happy now.

Question 50. The dish is not cheap. The dish is not delicious.

A. The dish is not cheap but delicious.

B. The dish is either cheap or delicious.

C. The dish is both cheap and delicious.

D. The dish is neither cheap nor delicious.

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC

ĐỀ SỐ 28

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO Môn: Tiếng Anh Số câu hỏi: 50 câu - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. addition B. adventure C. advertise D. advantage Question 2. A. mammal B. manuscript C. manage D. material Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. evacuate B. originate C. sanitary D. certificate Question 4. A. delicate B. promotion C. volcanic D. resources Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. Your son was a bit out of control at the party, to ________ mildly.

A. put it B. say C. take it D. tell Question 6. It seemed ________ tired.

A. like the children are B. if the children were C. as the children were D. as if the children were Question 7. I don’t suppose he will come here, ________ .

A. will he B. won’t he C. do I D. don’t I Question 8. The boss said to us that a pay rise is ________ now.

A. out of work B. out of the question C. out of date D. out of control Question 9. I’d rather you ________ anybody this secret.

A. don’t tell B. won’t tell C. didn’t tell D. not to tell Question 10. Yesterday I ________ in bed listening to music.

A. laid B. lay C. lied D. lain Question 11. There was a huge ________ between rich and poor in my village.

A. distance B. space C. gap D. interval Question 12. He was ________ of stealing a car.

A. blamed B. admitted C. accused D. criticized Question 13. I think they are ________ fault for not warning us.

A. under B. at C. with D. for Question 14. You don’t know the truth, so don’t ________ to conclusions.

A. run B. dash C. leap D. fly Question 15. When they arrived, the bus ________ .

A. has already left B. had already left C. already left D. has been already leaving Question 16. ________ , he felt so unhappy and lonely.

A. In spite of his being wealth B. Rich as was he C. Rich as he was D. Despite his wealthy Question 17. Better public transport can help reduce traffic ________ .

A. condensation B. accumulation C. concentration D. congestion Question 18. He’s really shy ________ girls.

A. by B. at C. for D. with Question 19. He went ________ a bad cold just before Christmas.

A. down with B. in for C. over D. through

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. Bob seems like a dog with two tails now. His wife gave birth to a healthy baby girl this morning.

A. extremely happy B. extremely disappointed C. exhausted D. very proud Question 21. She didn’t bat an eyelid when I told her their bad news.

A. didn’t show surprise B. didn’t want to see C. didn’t talk to me D. wasn’t happy Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. Because Tom defaulted on his loan, the bank took him to court.

A. failed to pay B. paid in full C. had a bad personality D. was paid much money Question 23. Her extravagant ideas were never brought to fruition.

A. practical B. exaggerated C. impressive D. unacceptable Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24. Mary is making a call for Mr. Mark but she isn’t on the phone.

Mary: "Hello, I’d like to speak with Mr. Mark." - Sarah: “ ________ ” A. Who are you? Why are you talking to me like that?

B. Hang on, please, I will put you through.

C. Sure. I will meet him.

D. Of course, you can do what you want, but be careful.

Question 25. Hoa: “In my opinion, romantic films are more interesting.” – Lan: “ ________ .”

A. There’s no doubt about it.

C. You shouldn’t have said that.

B. Yes, congratulations.

D. What an opinion!

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

Robots are already a part of our lives. Industrial robots widely used in manufacturing. Military and police organizations use robots to (26) ________ in dangerous situations. Robots can also be found from vacuuming the floors in your home to exploring the surface of Mars.

Within a few more years a whole host of robotic adaptations will be running many aspects’ of our lives. “I think in the next thirty years, we are going to see a (27) ________ between the industrial sorts of robots to personal robots", says Brooks from Brooks’ company, I Robot, markets floor cleaning robots for homes.

“The advances in robotics make it clear that many household (28) ________ will be easily handled by a robot in the near future,” says Bob Christopher, who works for a robotic technology company that is marketing a toy robot called PLEO. “We have only one child but I could easily (29) ________ five or six robots in the home as well.”

Within the next 10 years one will be able to (30) ________ , to lease or purchase a domestic robot that not only does the household cleaning and prepare and serve his meals, but also can carry him to the bathtub if he cannot walk.

Question 26. A. assist B. increase C. make D. create Question 27. A. transform B. transforming C. transformed D. transformation Question 28. A. aspects B. chores C. works D. jobs Question 29. A. hope B. think C. imagine D. look Question 30. A. attain B. offer C. afford D. affect

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

The modern age is an age of electricity. People are so used to electric lights, radio, televisions, and telephones that it is hard to imagine what life would be like without them. When there is a power failure, people grope about in flickering candlelight, cars hesitate in the streets because there are no traffic lights to guide them, and food spoils in silent refrigerators. Yet, people began to understand how electricity works only a little more than two centuries ago. Nature has apparently been experimenting in this field for millions of years. Scientists are discovering more and more that the living world may hold many interesting secrets of electricity that could benefit humanity.

All living cells send out tiny pulses of electricity. As the heart beats, it sends out pulses of record; they form an electrocardiogram, which a doctor can study to determine how well the heart is working. The brain, too, sends our brain waves of electricity, which can be recorded in an electroencephalogram. The electric currents generated by most living cells are extremely small, often so small that sensitive instruments are needed to record them. But in some animals, certain muscle cells have become as specialized as electrical generators that they do not work as muscle cells at all. When large numbers of these cells are linked together, the effects can be astonishing.

The electric eel is an amazing storage battery. It can send a jolt of as much as eight hundred volts of electricity through the water in which it lives (an electric house current is only one hundred and twenty volts, but two hundred and twenty volts in China). As many as four-fifths of all the cells in the electric eel’s body are specialized for generating electricity, and the strength of the shock it can deliver corresponds roughly to length of its body.

Question 31. What is the primarily concerned of the passage?

A. Electric eels are potentially dangerous B. Biology and electricity appear to be closely related C. People would be at a loss without electricity D. Scientists still have much to discover about electricity Question 32. The author mentions which of the followings as results of a blackout EXCEPT ________ .

A. refrigerated food items may go bad B. traffic lights do not work C. people must rely on candlelight D. elevators and escalators do not function Question 33. Why does the author mention electric eels?

A. To warn the reader to stay away from them B. To compare their voltage to that used in houses C. To give an example of a living electrical generator D. To describe a new source of electrical power Question 34. How many volts of electricity can an electric eel emit?

A. 1,000 B. 800 C. 200 D. 120 Question 35. It can be inferred from the passage that the longer an eel is the _______.

A. more beneficial it will be to science B. more powerful will be its electrical charge C. easier it will be to find D. tougher it will be to eat Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Native Americans from the southeastern part of what is now the United States believed that the universe in which they lived was made up of three separate, but related, worlds, the Upper World, the Lower World, and This World. In the last there lived humans, most animals, and all plants.

This World, a round island resting on the surface of waters, was suspended from the sky by four cords attached to the island at the four cardinal ‘points of the compass. Lines drawn to connect the opposite points of the compass, from north to south and from east to west, intersected This World to divide it into four wedge - shaped segments. Thus a’ symbolic representation of the human world was a cross within a circle, the cross representing the intersecting lines and the circle the shape of This World.

Each segment of This World was identified by its own color. According to Cherokee doctrine, east was associated with the color red because it was the direction of the Sun, the greatest deity of all. Red was also the color of fire, believed to be directly connected with the Sun, with blood, and therefore with life. Finally, red was the color of success. The west was the Moon segment; it provided no warmth and was not life - giving as the Sun was. So its color was black. North was the direction of cold, and so its color was blue (sometimes purple), and it represented trouble and defeat. South was the direction of warmth, its color, white, was associated with peace and happiness.

The southeastern Native Americans universe was one in which opposites were constantly at war with each other, red against black, blue against white. This World hovered somewhere between the perfect order and predictability of the Upper World and the total disorder and instability of the Lower World. The goal was to find some kind of halfway path, or balance, between those other worlds.

Question 36. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?

A. One Civilization’s View of the Universe B. The Changing of the Seasons in the Southeast C. The Painting of Territorial Maps by Southeastern Native Americans D. The War between Two Native American Civilizations Question 37. In line 3, the phrase “the last” refers to _________.

A. all plants B. This World C. the universe D. the Upper World Question 38. The author implies that This World was located ________ .

A. inside the Upper World B. inside the Lower World C. above the Upper World D. between the Upper World and Lower World Question 39. According to the passage, southeastern Native Americans compared This World to ________ .

A. waters B. the sky C. an animal D. an island Question 40. According to the passage, lines divided This World into how many segments?

A. Two B. Three C. Four D. Five Question 41. According to the passage, southeastern Native Americans associated red with all of the following EXCEPT ________ .

A. fire B. trouble C. blood D. success Question 42. According to the passage, which of the following colors represented the west for southeastern Native Americans?

A. Blue B. While C. Black D. Purple Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. Having (A) finished his paper (B) before the deadline, (C) it was delivered to professor (D) before the class.

Question 44. Never (A) in the history of humanity (B) there have been (C) more people (D) living on this relatively small planet.

Question 45. Many teachers objected (A) of (B) them wearing a uniform (C) when they did labor work (D) at school.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. If only I had studied hard enough to pass the final exam.

A. I regret not studying hard enough to pass the final exam.

B. I had studied hard enough and I passed the final exam.

C. I studied too hard to pass the final exam.

D. I studied hard otherwise I would fail the final exam.

Question 47. “I’m terribly sorry, Mary, but I’ve broken your watch”, said Jim. A. Jim apologized to Mary to breaking her watch.

B. Jim apologized to Mary to break her watch.

C. Jim apologized to Mary for breaking her watch.

D. Jim apologized for Mary to break her watch.

Question 48. The doctor spent twenty minutes examining the patient.

A. It took the doctor twenty minutes examining the patient.

B. It took the doctor twenty minutes to examine the patient.

C. It took the doctor twenty minutes examine the patient.

D. It took the doctor twenty minutes to examining the patient.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. She tried hard. She couldn’t open the door.

A. It is difficult for her to open the door.

B. She tried very hard, so she couldn’t open the door.

C. No matter how hard she tried, she couldn’t open the door.

D. She could open the door with difficulty.

Question 50. He behaved in a very strange way. That surprised them a lot.

A. His behavior was a very strange thing, that surprised them most.

B. He behaved very strangely, which surprised them very much.

C. What almost surprised them was the strange way he behaved.

D. They were almost not surprised by his strange behavior.

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC

ĐỀ SỐ 29

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO Môn: Tiếng Anh Số câu hỏi: 50 câu - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. assistance B. pessimistic C. assure D. fossil Question 2. A. teenage B. heritage C. package D. passage Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. meditation B. longevity C. computer D. cholesterol Question 4. A. picturesque B. temperature C. emperor D. dynasty Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. Tim ________ knowledge from many of his life experiences in his work.

A. approved B. applied C. appreciated D. accomplished Question 6. Any student caught ________ was made to stand at the front of the class.

A. misbehave B. misbehaved C. misbehaviour D. misbehaving Question 7. Do you think French is a ________ easy language to learn?

A. comparable B. comparably C. comparative D. comparatively Question 8. He was suspected ________ having received presents from the local companies and ignored their violations of the environmental law.

A. about B. on C. of D. for Question 9. They ________ sacrifices so that their only child could have a good education.

A. made B. did C. provided D. lent Question 10. Although some of the structures are now ________ , most of the significant existing monuments have been partially restored.

A. in danger B. at risk C. in ruins D. at war Question 11. You have never had a girlfriend before, ________ ?

A. haven’t you B. have you C. hasn’t it D. has it Question 12. If you heat water to 100 degrees, it ________ .

A. will boil B. would boil C. boils D. would have boiled Question 13. Several measures have been proposed to ________ the problem of unemployment among university graduates.

A. pose B. admit C. address D. create Question 14. Many people head for the countryside where the flat ________ of fields helps them escape from the hectic city life.

A. extension B. expansion C. extent D. expanse Question 15. I often ________ in my mother whenever I have a problem.

A. confess B. conceal C. confide D. consent Question 16. I’m ________ about her chances of winning the first prize.

A. skeptical B. partial C. adaptable D. incapable Question 17. Please ________ and see us when you have free time. You’re always welcome.

A. come to B. come about C. come round D. come away Question 18. How boring the lecture was! I ________ just in the first half of it.

A. dropped off B. fell out C. called off D. came out

Question 19. “Another cup of tea?” – “No, but thanks ________ .”

A. not at all B. for all C. all the same D. you for all Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. The charges brought against the government official finally hurt nothing but his vanity.

A. family B. prospects C. pride D. image Question 21. Nam is over the moon about his exam result.

A. stressed B. very sad C. very happy D. surprised Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. He is so arrogant that no one wants to work with him.

A. humble B. cunning C. naive D. gentle Question 23. Your nationality determines your cultural identity as you assimilate to the culture of the country you live in.

A. integrate B. adapt C. reject D. imitate Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24. Minh: “How well you are playing in this game!” - Mai: “ ________ ” A. Don’t keep silent. I would like to know your opinions.

B. I am very proud of myself.

C. Thank you too much.

D. Many thanks. That is a nice compliment.

Question 25. Phuong: “Our environment is getting more and more polluted. Do you think so?”

Minh: “ ________ . It’s really worrying.”

A. I’ll think about that B. I don’t agree C. I don’t think so D. I can’t agree with you more Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

Silicon Valley is home to hundreds of technology companies, so it comes as no surprise that San Jose has partnered with tech giant Intel to transform itself into a smart city. San Jose and Intel will work (26) ________ to further the city’s Green Vision initiative - a 15-year plan for economic growth, environmental sustainability, and improved (27) ________ - which it launched in 2007.

Intel expects to help San Jose create 25,000 clean-tech jobs, drive economic growth, and improve the city’s environmental (28) ________ . To achieve this goal, Intel will work with the city to track real-time data on air quality, noise pollution, traffic flow, and other environmental and (29) ________ concerns - which it will then use to encourage (30) ________ to reduce emissions by carpooling or using public transportation or bicycles to get to work or school.

Question 26. A. each other B. together C. one another D. themselves Question 27. A. a love of life B. a good life C. the life of quality D. quality of life Question 28. A. sustain B. sustainable C. sustainably D. sustainability Question 29. A. town B. rural C. urban D. countryside Question 30. A. inhabitants B. residence C. cavemen D. officials Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

In spite of the wealth of examples of urban architecture in older cities, both in Europe and in the United States solutions to current problems of the physical decay of cities in the United States have come slowly. The first reaction after the war was to bulldoze and build bright new towers and efficient roadways, but these solutions did not respond to people. By the close of the 1960’s it became more common to deal gently with the existing urban fabric and to insert new buildings in

such a way as to complement the physical and social environment; in other cases valued buildings have been rehabilitated and returned to economic productivity. A particularly striking example is the rehabilitation of Ghirardelli Square, San Francisco. This, hillside melange of nineteenth-century commercial buildings clustered around a chocolate plant, was purchased in 1962 by William Roth to forestall wholesale development of the waterfront as a district of high-rent apartment towers.

Nearly all of the nineteenth-century buildings were retained and refurbished, and a low arcade was added on the waterside. There are several levels, dotted with kiosks and fountains, which offer varied prospects of San Francisco Bay. Perhaps most telling is the preservation of the huge Ghirardelli sign as an important landmark; it is such improbable, irrational, and cherished idiosyncrasies which give cities identity and character.

Question 31. The author’s main purpose in the passage is to describe ________ .

A. the differences between urban architecture in Europe and in the United States B. the most striking features of San Francisco’s scenic waterfront district C. nineteenth-century buildings in twentieth-century cities D. characteristics of recent solutions to urban architectural problems in the United States Question 32. According to the passage, after the war many of the attempts of urban architects failed because ________ .

A. buildings were not built quickly enough B. new roads required too much space C. the needs of the urban residents were overlooked D. the towering buildings were too tall Question 33. The author discusses Ghirardelli Square in order to illustrate which of the following procedures?

A. The construction of new buildings to conceal older structures B. The selective removal of old buildings to create space for residential units C. The restoration of old buildings to make them commercially useful D. The demolition of apartment towers to make way for more attractive construction Question 34. According to the passage, the Ghirardelli sign was preserved because it ________ .

A. was designed and built by a famous artist B. is included in an advertising contract with the Ghirardelli Chocolate Company C. is suitable as a vantage point from which to view San Francisco Bay D. has long-standing importance as a symbol in the community Question 35. The sentence in lines 14-16 would best keep its meaning if “most telling” were replaced by ________ .

A. most significant B. in greatest demand C. most debatable D. the best publicized Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

There were two widely divergent influences on the early development of statistical methods.

Statistics had a mother who was dedicated to keeping orderly records of governmental units (state and statistics come from the same Latin root status) and a gentlemanly gambling father who relied on mathematics to increase his skill at playing the odds in games of chance. The influence of the mother on the offspring, statistics, is represented by counting, measuring, describing, tabulating, ordering, and the taking of censuses-all of which led to modern descriptive statistics. From the influence of the father came modern inferential statistics, which is based squarely on theories of probability.

Descriptive statistics involves tabulating, depicting, and describing collections of data. These data may be either quantitative, such as measures of height, intelligence, or grade level-159 variables that are characterized by an underlying continuum-or the data may represent qualitative variables, such as sex, college major, or personality type. Large masses of data must generally

undergo a process of summarization or reduction before they are comprehensible. Descriptive statistics is a tool for describing or summarizing or reducing to comprehensible form the properties of an otherwise unwieldy mass of data.

Inferential statistics is a formalized body of methods for solving another class of problems that present great difficulties for the unaided human mind. This general class of problems characteristically involves attempts to make predictions using a sample of observations. For example a school superintendent wishes to determine the proportion of children in a large school system who come to school without breakfast have been vaccinated for flu or whatever. Having a little knowledge of statistics, the superintendent would know that it is unnecessary and inefficient to question each child; the proportion for the entire district could be estimated fairly accurately from a sample of as few as 100 children. Thus, the purpose of inferential statistics is to predict or estimate characteristics of a population from a knowledge of the characteristics of only a sample of the population.

Question 36. With what is the passage mainly concerned?

A. The drawbacks of descriptive and inferential statistics B. Applications of inferential statistics C. The development and use of statistics D. How to use descriptive statistics Question 37. According to the first paragraph, counting and describing are associated with ________ .

A. inferential statistics B. descriptive statistics C. unknown variables D. quantitative changes Question 38. Why does the author mention the “mother” and “father” in the first paragraph?

A. To point out that parents can teach their children statistics B. To introduce inferential statistics C. To explain that there are different kinds of variables D. To present the background of statistics in a humorous and understandable way Question 39. The word “squarely” in the first paragraph could best be replaced by which of the following?

A. solidly B. geometrically C. rectangularly D. haphazardly Question 40. Which of the following is NOT given as an example of a qualitative variable?

A. Gender B. Height C. College major D. Personality type Question 41. Which of the following statements about descriptive statistics is best supported by the passage?

A. It simplifies unwieldy masses of data.

B. It leads to increased variability.

C. It solves all numerical problems.

D. It changes qualitative variables to quantitative variables.

Question 42. According to the passage, what is the purpose of examining a sample of a population?

A. To compare different groups B. To predict characteristics of the entire population C. To consider all the quantitative variables D. To tabulate collections of data Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. The workers are (A) building (B) a new bridge (C) which is 200 meters in (D) high.

Question 44. My friend (A) gave me (B) some useful advices when I met (C) with many difficulties (D) in looking for a job.

Question 45. The lesson (A) that we are learning (B) now is very (C) excited (D) but difficult.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. “Why don’t you ask the teacher for help?” my friend said.

A. My friend advised me to ask the teacher for help.

B. My friend recommended asking the teacher for help.

C. My friend told me not to ask the teacher for help.

D. My friend wants to know why I don’t ask the teacher for help.

Question 47. She was successful in her career thanks to her parents’ support.

A. But for her parents’ support, she wouldn’t have been successful in her career.

B. If her parents hadn’t supported her, she would have been successful in her career.

C. Had it not been for her parents’ support, she wouldn’t be successful in her career.

D. Had her parents supported her, she wouldn’t be successful in her career.

Question 48. I think that no city is more beautiful than New York.

A. I think New York is the most beautiful city in the world.

B. I think New York is as beautiful as other cities in the world.

C. I think New York is less beautiful than other cities in the world.

D. I think New York isn’t more beautiful than other cities in the world.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. The soccer team knew they lost the match. They soon started to blame each other.

A. Not only did the soccer team lose the match but they blamed each other as well.

B. No sooner had the soccer team started to blame each other than they knew they lost the match.

C. As soon as they blamed each other, the soccer team knew they lost the match.

D. Hardly had the soccer team known they lost the match when they started to blame each other.

Question 50. Even though some events were cancelled, thousands of people attended the festival.

A. No matter how many people attended the festival, some events were cancelled.

B. In spite some cancelled events, thousands of people attended the festival.

C. As some events were cancelled, thousands of people attended the festival.

D. Despite the cancellation of some events, thousands of people attended the festival.

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC

ĐỀ SỐ 30

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO Môn: Tiếng Anh Số câu hỏi: 50 câu - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. club B. climb C. comb D. lamb Question 2. A. barrier B. charity C. fracture D. elegant Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. personal B. semester C. eternal D. opponent Question 4. A. developer B. facility C. relaxation D. technology Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. We are very anxious about the ________ of the election.

A. outbreak B. outcome C. output D. outlook Question 6. It is difficult for museums to find funds to protect the nation’s ________ .

A. inheritance B. heritage C. possessions D. legacy Question 7. ________ , he went to bed late.

A. Though tired he was B. Tired as he was C. As he was tired D. As tired he was Question 8. My mother is always willing to lend ________ to me when I have problems in life.

A. an eye B. an ear C. a nose D. a face Question 9. It was in 2010 ________ I graduated from university.

A. whom B. who C. that D. which Question 10. He is ________ student that he is going to win a scholarship.

A. so B. so good C. so good a D. such Question 11. How did he ________ to the news of her scholarship?

A. react B. answer C. confess D. appeal Question 12. ________ will Mr. Huy be able to regain control of the company A. Only with hard work B. Only if he works hardly C. No matter how does he work hardly D. Not until his work hard Question 13. He nearly lost his own life ________ attempting to save the child from drowning.

A. at B. with C. in D. for Question 14. I could hear voices but I couldn’t ________ what they were saying.

A. turn up B. bring about C. make out D. try out Question 15. The car had a(n) ________ tyre, so we had to change the wheel.

A. cracked B. injured C. bent D. flat Question 16. Many wild animals are ________ threat ________ extinction.

A. at - of B. on - with C. under - of D. in - with Question 17. They used to work as astronauts, ________ ?

A. don’t they B. weren’t they C. did they D. didn’t they Question 18. I’m really dissatisfied with the way you have ________ the situation.

A. dealt B. handled C. done D. fingered Question 19. The fire caused ________ damage that the high building had to be demolished.

A. so much B. too much C. such much D. very much

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. There used to be a shop at the end of the street but it went out of business a year ago.

A. closed up B. closed C. closed down D. closed into Question 21. It was inevitable that this smaller company should merge with a larger one.

A. urgent B. unavoidable C. important D. necessary Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. In some Western cultures, people who avoid eye contact in a conversation are regarded as untrustworthy.

A. embarrassed B. quiet C. reliable D. suspicious Question 23. In some societies, language is associated with social class and education. People judge one’s level in society by the kind of language used.

A. not allowed by B. separated from C. dissimilar to D. connected with Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24. Mary: “Thanks a lot for your help.” - John: “ ________ .”

A. My happiness B. My excitement C. My delight D. My pleasure Question 25. Peter: “Do you need a hand with your suitcase, Jane?” - Jane: “ ________ .”

A. Well done B. Not a chance C. That’s very kind of you D. I don’t believe it Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

Since 1991, Viet Nam Assistance for the Handicapped (VNAH), a non-profit organization, (26) ________ with both international and private donors to assist people with disabilities in Viet Nam. Its main aim is to help disabled people to overcome their (27) ________ .

To create job (28) ________ for disable people, VNAH supports vocational skills training, mainstream employment for employment service providers.

To help disadvantaged people, VNAH has (29) ________ the Office of Disabilities Technical Assistance (ODTA) in Hanoi. In addition, VNAH provided technical (30) ________ and other support to the Vietnamese Government and National Assembly partners for development of disability policies.

Currently, VNAH is working to support Vietnamese government agencies and other partners in implementing the U.N. Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (CRPD), the Disability Law and other disability national action plans.

Question 26. A. works B. worked C. had worked D. has worked Question 27. A. disabilities B. abilities C. disabled D. disablement Question 28. A. opportunities B. changes C. skills D. accessibilities Question 29. A. discovered B. established C. invented D. found Question 30. A. economy B. development C. assistance D. food Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

Grandma Moses is among the most famous twentieth-century painters of the United States, yet she did not start painting until she was in her late seventies. As she once said to herself: “I would never sit back in a rocking chair, waiting for someone to help me”. No one could have had a more productive old age.

She was born Anna Mary Robertson on a farm in New York State, one of five boys and five girls. At twelve she left home and was in domestic service until, at twenty-seven, she married Thomas Moses, the hired hand of one of her employers. They farmed most of their lives, first in

Virginia and then in New York State, at Eagle Bridge. She had ten children, of whom five survived; her husband died in 1927.

Grandma Moses painted a little as a child and made embroidery pictures as a hobby, but only changed to oils in old age because her hands had become too stiff to sew and she wanted to keep busy and pass the time. Her pictures were first sold at the local drugstore and at a market and were soon spotted by a dealer who bought everything she painted. Three of the pictures exhibited in the Museum of Modern Art, and in 1940 she had her first exhibition in New York. Between the 1930s and her death, she produced some 2,000 pictures: detailed and lively portrayals of the country life she had known for so long, with a wonderful sense of color and form. “I think really hard till I think of something really pretty, and then I paint it” she said.

Question 31. According to the passage, Grandma Moses began to paint because she wanted to ________ .

A. make herself beautiful B. become famous C. earn more money D. keep active Question 32. Grandma Moses spent most of her life ________ .

A. nursing B. painting C. farming D. embroidering Question 33. The underlined word “spotted” is closest in meaning to ________ .

A. speckled B. featured C. noticed D. damaged Question 34. From Grandma Moses’ description of herself in the first paragraph, it can be inferred that she was ________ .

A. pretty B. timid C. rich D. independent Question 35. Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?

A. The Children of Grandma Moses.

B. Grandma Moses: A biographical sketch C. Grandma Moses: Her Best Exhibition.

D. Grandma Moses and Other Older Artists.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

In 1803 the United States negotiated the purchase of the Louisiana Territory from France for $15 million. With a stroke of a pen America doubled in size, making it one of the largest nations in the world. The sale included over 600 million acres at a cost of less than 3 cents an acre in what today is the better part of 13 states between the Mississippi River and the Rocky Mountains. For President Thomas Jefferson it was a diplomatic and political triumph. In one fell swoop the purchase of Louisiana ended the threat of war with France and opened up the land west of the Mississippi to settlement. By any measure the purchase of Louisiana was the most important action of Jefferson’s two terms as president. Jefferson knew that acquiring the very heart of the American continent would prove to be the key to the future of the United States.

Initially Jefferson sent his minister to France, Robert Livingston, offered Napoleon $2 million for a small tract of land on the lower Mississippi. There, Americans could build their own seaport.

Impatient at the lack of news, Jefferson sent James Monroe to Paris to offer $10 million for New Orleans and West Florida. Almost at the same time, and unknown to Jefferson, France had offered all of Louisiana to Livingston for $15 million. Though the transaction was quickly sealed, there were those who objected to the purchase on the grounds that the Constitution did not provide for purchasing territory. However, Jefferson temporarily set aside his idealism to tell his supporters in Congress that “what is practicable must often control what is pure theory”. The majority agreed.

Jefferson later admitted that he had stretched his power “till it cracked” in order to buy Louisiana, the largest single land purchase in American history.

Question 36. What is the passage mainly about?

A. Jefferson’s most important action during two terms as President B. How America doubled in size overnight, through its largest single land purchase C. Testing the United States Constitution D. Jefferson and his most important action of the Purchase of Louisiana Question 37. How much was paid for each acre of land according to the passage?

A. less than 3 cents B. 8 cents C. 15 million dollars D. over 600 million dollars Question 38. The word “it” in line 5 refers to ________ .

A. ending the threat of war with France B. opening up land west of the Mississippi C. the sale D. doubling the size of America overnight Question 39. The word “acquiring” in the passage is closest in meaning to ________ .

A. going to B. obtaining C. abandoning D. including Question 40. Which of the following, according to the passage, is NOT true?

A. Jefferson acted outside his constitutional powers B. Congress did not fully support Jefferson C. Jefferson sent Robert Livingston to France with an offer for New Orleans and West Florida D. America wanted to build its own seaport Question 41. The word “idealism” in the passage is closest in meaning to ________ .

A. vision B. principles C. realism D. philosophy Question 42. According to the passage, the word “power” in the passage refers to Jefferson using ________ .

A. the negotiations B. constitutional power C. his idealism D. practical power Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. (A) Sleeping all day, (B) to eat too (C) much and (D) never going out is unhealthy.

Question 44. She (A) must lose her way; (B) otherwise, she (C) would have arrived (D) by now.

Question 45. Many (A) non-disabled people still (B) has negative attitudes (C) towards children with (D) cognitive impairments.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. If only you told me the truth about the theft.

A. You should have told me the truth about the theft.

B. I do wish you would tell me the truth about the theft.

C. You must have told me the truth about the theft.

D. It is necessary that you tell me the truth about the theft.

Question 47. Without transportation, our modern society could not exist.

A. Our modern society could not exist if there is no transportation.

B. Our modern society will not exist without having transportation.

C. If there were no transportation, our modern society would not exist.

D. If transportation no longer exists, our modern society will not exist.

Question 48. The black shirt is more expensive than the white one.

A. The white shirt is not as expensive as the black dress.

B. The white shirt is more expensive than the black dress.

C. The black shirt is not as expensive as the white one.

D. The black shirt is as expensive as the white one.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. He could escape from hurt. He was wearing protective clothes.

A. Thanks to his protective clothes, he could escape from hurt.

B. His protective clothes made him hurt.

C. Due to his protective clothes, he was hurt.

D. His being hurt made his unable to wear protective clothes.

Question 50. I didn’t pay attention to the teacher. I failed to understand the lesson.

A. Although I paid attention to the teacher, I failed to understand the lesson.

B. I would have understood the lesson if I had failed to pay attention to the teacher.

C. I would have understood the lesson if I had paid attention to the teacher.

D. Unless I failed to understand the lesson, I would pay attention to the teacher.

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC

ĐỀ SỐ 31

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO Môn: Tiếng Anh Số câu hỏi: 50 câu - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. psychiatrist B. resume C. summer D. cascade Question 2. A. wicked B. watched C. stopped D. cooked Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. significant B. sympathetic C. political D. ability Question 4. A. astonish B. furniture C. terminal D. medicine Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. My younger brother is very keen ________ comics and short stories.

A. for B. on C. at D. in Question 6. You need more exercise - you should ________ jogging.

A. carry out B. hold up C. take up D. try on Question 7. It is necessary that he ________ the school regulations.

A. obey B. obeys C. would obey D. will obey Question 8. He is very happy because he passed his exam with ________ colours.

A. flying B. failing C. imagining D. changing Question 9. Five people were seriously ________ in the road accident yesterday.

A. injured B. broken C. damaged D. pained Question 10. I was late for work this morning because the alarm didn’t ________ as usual.

A. ring off B. get off C. go off D. take off Question 11. My father retired early ________ poor health.

A. on behalf of B. ahead of C. in front of D. on account of Question 12. When her husband died I called her to express my ________ .

A. generosity B. appreciation C. sympathy D. gratitude Question 13. When she spoke over the phone, her voice was so ________ that I could hardly near her.

A. dim B. faint C. dull D. unnoticeable Question 14. This new employee can be put on a ________ period to see if she is suitable for the position.

A. ambition B. compassion C. probation D. administration Question 15. It’s no use getting ________ him. He won’t change his mind.

A. on B. across C. off D. around Question 16. The sky was grey and cloudy. ________ , we went to the beach.

A. However B. In spite of C. even though D. Consequently Question 17. This project ________ by the end of this month.

A. will have been finished B. will be finishing C. will finished D. will have finished Question 18. People have used coal and oil to ________ electricity for a long time.

A. cultivate B. breed C. raise D. generate Question 19. The energy ________ from the sun is renewable and environmentally-friendly.

A. harnessing B. is harnessed C. which harnessed D. harnessed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. To remedy this situation, the Constitution of the United States, approved in 1789, allowed Congress to issue money.

A. resolve B. medicate C. understand D. renew Question 21. Help and supports are rapidly sent to wherever there are victims of catastrophe.

A. sudden great disaster B. warfare C. poverty and famine D. diseases and illnesses Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. The wealthy man stood idly by while the poor people starved.

A. did something to help B. indulged in medicines C. worked hard D. got nervous Question 23. A solution needs to be found as soon as possible, because the epidemic has become more rampant.

A. flagrant B. gentle C. violent D. dramatic Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24. – Minh: “By the time I’m 30, I’ll be a millionaire and married to a supermodel.”

Hoa: “ ________ ” A. Yes, take care!

B. In your dreams!

C. Hands off!

D. Oh, what a shame!

Question 25. The man: “You haven’t lived here long, have you?”

Hoa:” ________ ”.

A. Yes, just a few days B. No, I live here for a long time C. No, only two months D. Yes, I have just moved here Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

Urban development is having a direct impact on the weather in many cities worldwide. It has been noticed that the difference (26) ________ temperature is usually greater at night and the phenomenon occurs in both winter and summer. Experts agree that this is due to urban development, when open green spaces are replaced with asphalt roads and tall brick or concrete buildings. These materials retain heat generated by the Sun and release it through the night. In Atlanta, in the US, this has even led to thunderstorms (27) ________ occur in the morning rather than, as is more common, in the afternoon.

Large cities around the world are adopting strategies to combat this issue (28) ________ it is not uncommon to find plants growing on top of roofs or down walls of large buildings. In Singapore, the government has (29) ________ to transform it into a “city within a garden” and, in 2006, they held an international competition calling for entries to develop a master plan to help bring this about. One outcome was the creation of 18 “Supertrees” – metal constructions resembling very tall trees. Each one is a vertical freestanding garden and is (30) ________ to exotic plants and ferns. They also contain solar panels used to light the trees at night and also containers to collect rainwater, making them truly self-sufficient.

Question 26. A. on B. with C. in D. out Question 27. A. when B. which C. what D. where Question 28. A. or B. for C. and D. but Question 29. A. pledge B. committed C. confessed D. required Question 30. A. home B. house C. land D. place Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

Forces other than damaging winds are also at work inside tornadoes. Sometimes, as the writhing, twisting funnel passes over a house, the walls and ceiling burst apart as if a bomb had gone off inside. This explosion is caused by the low air pressure at the center of a tornado. The pressure at the center of a tornado is usually 13 pounds per square inch. However, inside the house the air pressure is normal, about 15 pounds per square inch. The difference of 2 pounds per square inch between the inside and outside pressure may not seem like much. But suppose a tornado funnel passes over a small building that measures 20 by 10 feet. On each square inch of the building, there is 2 pounds of pressure from the inside that is not balanced by air pressure outside the building. On the ceiling, that adds up to an unbalanced pressure of 57,600 pounds. The pressure on the four walls adds up to 172,800 pounds. If windows are open in the building, some of the inside air will rush out through them. This will balance the pressure inside and outside the building. But if the windows are shut tightly, the enormous inside pressure may cause the building to burst. Unfortunately, heavy rain and hail often occur in thunderstorms that later produce tornadoes. So people frequently shut all windows to protect their property. This may cause far worse damage later. For the same reason, tornado cellars must have an air vent. Otherwise, the cellar door might be blown out when a tornado passes over it.

Question 31. Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?

A. How tornadoes can be prevented B. When tornadoes usually occur C. Where tornadoes are formed D. Why tornadoes cause so much damage Question 32. According to the passage, tornadoes can destroy buildings because the ________ .

A. force of a tornado increases the air pressure in a building B. air pressure at the center of a tornado is over 172,000 pounds C. weight of a tornado can crush a building’s roof when it passes overhead D. air pressure inside a tornado is less than the air pressure inside a building Question 33. According to the passage, what is the difference per square inch between the air pressure inside a building and the air pressure inside a tornado?

A. 2 pounds B. 10 pounds C. 13 pounds D. 15 pounds Question 34. According to the passage, the pressure on a building during a tornado can be relieved by ________ .

A. closing the cellar B. opening the windows C. using a fan for ventilation D. strengthening the roof and walls Question 35. According to the passage, people close their windows to prevent damage caused by ________ .

A. tornadoes B. thunderstorms C. uprooted trees D. bursting structures Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Certainly one of the most intelligent and best educated women of her day, Mercy Otis Warren produced a variety of poetry and prose. Her farce The Group (1776) was the hit of revolutionary Boston, a collection of two plays and poems appeared in 1790, and the three- volume History of the Rise, Progress, and Termination of the American Revolution. Interspersed with Biographical and Moral, Observations appeared in 1805. She wrote other farces, as well as anti-Federalist pamphlet Observations on the New Constitution, and on the Federal and State Conventions (1788). There is no modern edition of her works, but there are two twentieth-century biographies, one facsimile edition of The Group, and a generous discussion of her farces and plays in Arthur Hubson Quinn’s A History of the American Drama From the Beginning to the Civil War. Of her non-dramatic poetry, critics rarely speak Mercy Otis was born into a prominent family in Barnstable,

Massachusetts. In 1754, she married James Warren, a Harvard friend of James Otis and John Adams, comes Warren was to become a member of the Massachusetts legislature just before the war and a financial aide to Washington during the war with the rank of major general. The friendship of the Warrens and Adamses was lifelong and close: Abigail Adams was one of Mercy Warren’s few close friends. Following the war. James Warren reentered politics to oppose the Constitution because he feared that it did not adequately provide for protection of individual rights.

Mercy Warren joined her husband in political battle, out the passage of the Bill of flights marked the end of their long period of political agitation.

In whatever literary form Warren wrote, she had but one theme-liberty. In her farces and history, it was national and political freedom. In her poems, it was intellectual freedom. In her antiFederalist pamphlet, it was individual freedom. Throughout all of these works, moreover, runs the thread of freedom (equal treatment) for women. Not militant, she nevertheless urged men to educate their daughters and to treat their wives as equals.

Question 36. Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?

A. Mercy Otis Warren and other poets of the Revolutionary War period B. The development of Mercy Otis Warren’s writing style C. Mercy Otis Warren’s contributions to American literature and society D. The friends and acquaintances of Mercy Otis Warren Question 37. In what year was Warren’s pamphlet about the Constitution written?

A. 1776 B. 1788 C. 1790 D. 1805 Question 38. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a kind of writing done by Warren?

A. Farces B. Poetry C. Plays D. Advertisements Question 39. The author implies that Mercy Otis Warren felt the Constitution would fail to protect ________ .

A. literary progress B. political parties C. the American economy D. personal freedom Question 40. In the passage, the word “but” could best be replaced by which of the following?

A. only B. yet C. still D. however Question 41. According to the passage, the kind of liberty emphasized in Warren’s poems was ________ .

A. national B. intellectual C. political D. religious Question 42. In the passage, the author refers to Warren as “not militant” to indicate that she ________ .

A. remained politically aloof B. did not continue agitating for a Bill for fights C. did not campaign aggressively for women’s rights D. did not support military conscription Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. (A) Even though the extremely (B) bad weather in the mountains, the (C) climbers decided (D) not to cancel their climb.

Question 44. (A) Ever since the world (B) began, nations (C) have difficulty in (D) keeping peace with their neighbors.

Question 45. (A) His father was (B) quite satisfied (C) about his (D) success.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. My sister was still bad at English although she put much effort into it.

A. My sister was still bad at English despite the fact that she put much effort into it.

B. My sister was still bad at English, so she put much effort into it.

C. My sister was still bad at English so that she put much effort into it.

D. My sister was still bad at English and she put much effort into it.

Question 47. Hoa poured her heart out to me.

A. Hoa told me her secret feelings.

B. Hoa was very angry with me.

C. Hoa and I did some exercises.

D. Hoa and I fell in love with each other.

Question 48. My mother last had her eyes tested ten months ago.

A. My mother had tested her eyes ten months before.

B. My mother had not tested her eyes for ten months then.

C. My mother hasn’t had her eyes tested for ten months.

D. My mother didn’t have any test on her eyes in ten months.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. We arrived at the conference. We realized our reports were still at home.

A. Not until we arrived at the conference did we realize that our reports were still at home.

B. We arrived at the conference and realized that our reports are still at home.

C. Not until had we arrived at the conference, we realized our reports were still at home.

D. It was until we arrived at the conference that we realize our reports were still at home.

Question 50. We planned to visit Ba Na Hills in the afternoon. We could not afford the fee, however.

A. As planned, we could not afford the visit to Ba Na Hills in the afternoon because of the fee.

B. We visited Ba Na Hills in the afternoon though the fee was too high for us.

C. We were going to visit Ba Na Hills in the afternoon, but the fee was too high for us.

D. The fee was, however, high enough for us to plan a visit to Ba Na Hills in the afternoon.

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC

ĐỀ SỐ 32

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO Môn: Tiếng Anh Số câu hỏi: 50 câu - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. bought B. sought C. drought D. fought Question 2. A. misused B. increased C. dissolved D. blamed Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. uncertain B. arrogant C. familiar D. impatient Question 4. A. recently B. attitude C. octopus D. proposal Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. I’m carefully prepared for my interview and I’m confident that I can answer any questions they may care to ________ me.

A. throw at B. drop on C. slide to D. roll to Question 6. The school principal suggested that he ________ a scholarship.

A. was awarded B. would be awarded C. be awarded D. must be awarded Question 7. She asked Tom to ________ the children while she went to the shops.

A. keep an eye on B. keep in touch with C. keep quiet D. bring up Question 8. Everyone can join our club, ________ age and sex.

A. in place of B. regardless of C. in case of D. not mention Question 9. Tim looks so frightened and upset. He ________ something terrible.

A. must experience B. should have experienced C. can have experienced D. must have experienced Question 10. My father-in-law tried to limit himself to ________ 5 cigarettes a day.

A. be smoking B. have smoked C. smoke D. smoking Question 11. No one won the match; the final result was a(n) ________ .

A. draw B. equal C. score D. drawing Question 12. The doctors hope to ________ the source of the infection which has been a mystery for the medical community since its discovery.

A. trend down B. back down C. push down D. track down Question 13. After my husband ________ his work, he went straight home.

A. would finish B. has finished C. had finished D. was finishing Question 14. Pesticide residues in fruit and vegetable can be ________ to health.

A. crucial B. supportive C. receptive D. destructive Question 15. My sister went ________ the competition and won the first prize.

A. on B. in for C. away D. through Question 16. I won’t pass the exam ________ you study hard.

A. unless B. in case C. so D. as Question 17. I truly respected my father and always ________ by his rule.

A. submitted B. obeyed C. complied D. abode Question 18. Peter ________ a book when I saw him.

A. is reading B. has been reading C. read D. was reading Question 19. On hearing that she failed the entrance exam, Hanh couldn’t help _______ into tears.

A. bursting B. burst C. to bursting D. to burst Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. I think this time he is leaving for good.

A. currently B. permanently C. temporarily D. in the end Question 21. Lack of water and nutrients has impeded the growth of these plants.

A. promoted B. assisted C. realized D. prevented Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. My aunt, who is an accomplished guitarist, taught me how to play the guitar.

A. ill-educated B. unskilled C. qualified D. unimpaired Question 23. She was unhappy that she lost contact with a lot of her old friends when she went abroad to study.

A. made room for B. put in charge of C. got in touch with D. lost control of Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24. Mai and Hung are talking about what to do after work.

Mai: “Do you fancy going to a movie this evening?” - Hung:“ ________ ” A. Not at all. Go ahead.

B. I’m sorry. I don’t know about that movie.

C. That would be nice.

D. Not so bad. Do you like that movie?

Question 25. Lisa: “How are things with Sarah?” - Mary: “ ________ ” A. Not so good. They had a new machine.

B. Yes, certainly. She’ll be here in a moment.

C. Of course. We’re going to have a lovely autumn.

D. Pretty well. She’s just come back from Japan.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

One of the best ways to help teenagers (26) ________ their existing skills and build upon their desire (27) ________ independence may be to give them a space away from their parents to grow and develop. The military boarding school environment provides a structured environment to promote autonomy in teens, through the presentation of new opportunities, the need to develop life skills, and the ability to test internal resources required when parents aren’t around.

Many parents struggle to encourage (28) ________ in teenagers, as they instinctively strive to fix problems that emerge within their sons’ lives - (29) ________ them from challenge, which can prevent them from discovering new ways to solve problems. At boarding schools, students have no choice (30) ________ to rely upon their own abilities to deal with issues and overcome hurdles – meaning that they learn to turn to others only after they have attempted to overcome problems themselves.

Question 26. A. recognize B. accept C. learn D. make Question 27. A. on B. in C. of D. for Question 28. A. dependence B. independence C. dependent D. independent Question 29. A. helping B. providing C. protecting D. equipping Question 30. A. but B. and C. so D. or Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

In general, the influence of Anglo patrons has been much less pronounced on Hispanic arts than on American Indian arts. The Hispanic crafts revival was confined to a much shorter period of time,

beginning in the early 1920’s, reaching its peak in the late 1930’s, and dying down by the Second World War, less than 20 years. During this period, in spite of the enthusiasm of the wealthy Anglo patrons in northern New Mexico, Hispanic crafts never “caught on” nationally in the way American Indian crafts did. Interest was fairly well limited to the Southwest and Southern California, the areas in which the adobe hacienda revival was taking place. The major interest in Hispanic crafts was as furnishings for these comfortable Southwestern-style adobe homes. These crafts were not, as were American Indian crafts viewed as valuable art objects in themselves purchased with an eye for speculation. Hispanic arts to, a great degree have been ignored by the speculative Anglo art market. A beneficial consequence of this oversight is that the artisans have been freer to work according to their own standards and within their own traditions. Their work has not been “emptied of previous vital meanings” and become a meaningless revival, as has so much ethnic art of this day. Rather it has remained as an object of cultural pride and identity and not simply the product of the tastes and demands of the art market.

Question 31. According to this passage, during which of the following periods were Hispanic crafts most popular?

A. The early 1920’s.

B. The late 1930’s.

C. In the middle of World War II. D. At the end of World War II. Question 32. What does it mean when the author says that Hispanic crafts never “caught on”?

A. It was difficult to hang the crafts on walls.

B. The crafts failed to become fashionable.

C. The crafts seldom stayed glued together.

D. It was impossible to understand the crafts.

Question 33. What does “it” in the last sentence of the passage refer to?

A. The clay.

B. Ethnic art.

C. Their work.

D. The revival.

Question 34. Which of the following places is NOT mentioned as a place in which Hispanic crafts were popular?

A. New England.

B. The Southwest.

C. Southern California.

D. Northern New Mexico.

Question 35. What does this passage mainly discuss?

A. Evolution of Hispanic arts.

B. Marketing strategies for Hispanic artists.

C. Influence of Hispanic arts on Anglo artists.

D. American Indian influence on Hispanic crafts.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

In the past oysters were raised in much the same way as dirt farmers raised tomatoes – by transplanting them. First, farmers selected the oyster bed, cleared the bottom of old shells and other debris, then scattered clean shells about. Next, they "planted" fertilized oyster eggs, which within two or three weeks hatched into larvae. The larvae drifted until they attached themselves to the clean shells on the bottom. There they remained and in time grew into baby oysters called seed or spat. The spat grew larger by drawing in seawater from which they derived microscopic particles of food. Before long farmers gathered the baby oysters transplanted them in other waters to speed up their growth, then transplanted them once more into another body of water to fatten them up.

Until recently, the supply of wild oysters and those crudely farmed were more than enough to satisfy people’s needs. But today the delectable seafood is no longer available in abundance. The problem has become so serious that some oyster beds have vanished entirely. Fortunately, as far back as the early 1900’s marine biologists realized that if new measures were not taken, oysters would become extinct or at best a luxury food. So they set up well equipped hatcheries and went to work. But they did not have the proper equipment or the skill to handle the eggs. They did not know

when, what, and how to feed the larvae. And they knew little about the predators that attack and eat baby oysters by the millions. They failed, but they doggedly kept at it. Finally, in the 1940’s a significant breakthrough was made.

The marine biologists discovered that by raising the temperature of the water, they could induce oysters to spawn not only in the summer but also in the fall, winter, and spring. Later they developed a technique for feeding the larvae and rearing them to spat. Going still further, they succeeded in breeding new strains that were resistant to diseases, grew faster and larger, and flourished in water of different salinities and temperatures. In addition, the cultivated oysters tasted better.

Question 36. Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?

A. The Threatened Extinction of Marine Life B. The Cultivation of Oysters C. The Discoveries Made by Marine Biologists D. The Varieties of Wild Oysters Question 37. In the first paragraph, the production of oysters is compared to what other industry?

A. Mining B. Fishing C. Banking D. Farming Question 38. In the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a stage of an oyster’s life?

A. Debris B. Egg C. Larvae D. Spa Question 39. When did scientists discover that oysters were in danger?

A. In the early part of the 19th century B. At the beginning of this century C. In the 1940’s D. Just recently Question 40. According to the passage, which of the following words best describes the efforts of the marine biologists working with oysters?

A. Persistent B. Intermittent C. Traditional D. Fruitless Question 41. In the passage, the author mentions that the new strains of oyster are ________ .

A. cheaper B. shaped differently C. better textured D. healthier Question 42. In what paragraph does the author describe successful methods for increasing the oyster population?

A. First B. Second C. Third D. Fourth Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. She decided (A) to have a holiday (B) in a beautiful place in the mountains (C) where there were (D) much streams.

Question 44. She asked me (A) whether I (B) had made money (C) myself (D) or if someone had lent me money.

Question 45. (A) Because the scarcity (B) of fossil fuels, (C) many countries began to use renewable (D) sources of energy.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. "Stop smoking or you'll be ill", the doctor told me.

A. I was ordered not to smoke to recover from illness.

B. The doctor advised me to give up smoking to avoid illness.

C. The doctor suggested smoking to treat illness.

D. I was warned against smoking a lot of cigarettes.

Question 47. People say that he won a lot of money on the Vietlott.

A. He is said to have won a lot of money on the Vietlott.

B. He was said that he won a lot of money on the Vietlott.

C. He is said to win a lot of money on the Vietlott.

D. He won a lot of money on the Vietlott as people said.

Question 48. John no longer drinks a lot.

A. John rarely drank a lot.

B. John used to drink a lot.

C. John didn’t use to drink a lot.

D. John now drinks a lot.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. He didn’t hurry. Therefore, he missed the plane.

A. Had he hurried, he could have caught the plane.

B. Had he hurried, he might catch the plane.

C. If he hurried, he wouldn’t miss the plane.

D. He didn’t miss the plane because he hurried.

Question 50. He is very intelligent. He can solve all the problems in no time.

A. So intelligent a student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.

B. So intelligent is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.

C. An intelligent student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.

D. He is very intelligent that he can solve all the problems in no time.

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC

ĐỀ SỐ 33

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO Môn: Tiếng Anh Số câu hỏi: 50 câu - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. pleasure B. measure C. ensure D. leisure Question 2. A. championship B. scholarship C. mechanic D. chemical Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. convenience B. mechanic C. preference D. official Question 4. A. understand B. recommend C. favourite D. volunteer Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. I was late for my exam because I ________ about it all night and didn’t get much sleep.

A. had been worrying B. worry C. have been worrying D. was worrying Question 6. The young girl sing ________ .

A. amazing good B. amazing well C. amazingly good D. amazingly well Question 7. It was in Ha Noi that I first ________ him.

A. meet B. met C. have met D. had met Question 8. Governments should ________ laws against terrorism.

A. bring up B. bring in C. bring about D. bring back Question 9. I wish I had someone of my own age ________ I could trust.

A. in whom B. in which C. with whom D. which Question 10. A completely new situation will ________ when the examination system comes into existence.

A. arouse B. rise C. raise D. arise Question 11. I have a close friend ________ father is a good doctor.

A. who B. whose C. that D. which Question 12. Until now I ________ more than 1000 stamps.

A. collected B. collect C. am collecting D. have collected Question 13. The impact of increased urbanisation has been harmful ________ the environment and has led to the increase of greenhouse gas emissions.

A. for B. so C. to D. in Question 14. Ms. Hoa is certainly a ________ writer; she has written a lot of books this year.

A. prolific B. fruitful C. fertile D. successful Question 15. I do not think there is a real ________ between men and women at home as well as in our society.

A. attitude B. equality C. value D. measurement Question 16. I didn’t see the red light at the crossroads. Otherwise, I ________ my car.

A. stopped B. had stopped C. would have stopped D. would stop Question 17. The more ________ you look, the better you will feel.

A. confident B. confide C. confidently D. confidence Question 18. The manager ________ his temper with the employees and shouted at them.

A. had B. lost C. took D. kept Question 19. It’s too late; you shouldn’t go. Don’t worry! We can ________ for a night.

A. put you up B. put you through C. put you away D. put you aside Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. A person who suffers from stage fright is easily intimidated by a large audience.

A. improved B. encouraged C. applauded D. frightened Question 21. Technological changes have rendered many traditional skills obsolete.

A. outdated B. impractical C. unappreciated D. undeveloped Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. Research suggests that children are more resilient than adults when it comes to getting over an illness.

A. becoming much stronger B. becoming healthy again C. making a slow recovery D. making a quick recovery Question 23. The emergence of supersonic travel opened new horizons for the military, tourism, and commerce.

A. simplicity B. disappearance C. urgency D. profitability Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24. Bob: “Can I have another cup of coffee?” – Susan: “ _________.”

A. Allow yourself B. Do it yourself C. Help yourself D. Be yourself Question 25. Minh: “Who is going to take you to the museum tomorrow?” - Linh: “ ________ ” A. I’m too tired to drive there.

B. I wonder whether he will arrive or not.

C. My friend, Trung, will be picking me up in the morning at the corner.

D. No. I had my car serviced yesterday.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

Students who have successfully completed an A-level course may go to university to do a three-or four-year course leading to a first degree such as Bachelor of Arts (BA), Bachelor of Science (BSc), etc. They apply to several universities which then (26) ________ an offer of a place specifying the minimum grades the student needs to obtain in the A-level subjects studied. Higher education is not free. In principles, students have to pay a contribution to the cost of teaching (tuition fees) and have also to pay their living costs (maintenance). The government provides (27) ________ to help them pay for university education which have to be paid back from earnings once their income reaches a certain level. In recent years government policy has been to (28) ________ the percentage of 18years olds who go to university, which is now, at 40 % double the 1990 figure, but this growth has been at the (29) ________ of the amount of financial support given to individual students.

Universities receive money from the state for each students and are responsible or employing staff and deciding which courses to offer. The head of a university, who is (30) ________ for its management, is called a vice- chancellor.

B. do C. make D. get Question 26. A. create Question 27. A. loans B. hires C. shares D. rents Question 28. A. rise B. remain C. increase D. decrease Question 29. A. fee B. suspense C. charge D. expense Question 30. A. liable B. responsible C. professional D. chargeable

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

THE MUSCLES IN OUR BODY Our human body is made up of many muscles. All these muscles work together to help you move. They form the muscle system. 650 muscles are wrapped around your bones. They basically cover the bones like a blanket. Muscles are fastened to the bones by tough bands. These bands are called tendons. You can see your tendons when you wiggle your finger. Moving your fingers back and forth makes your tendons move.

These muscles around the bone must be told when to move. They are controlled by your thinking. If you want to walk, talk or smile, you send a message to the brain. Your brain picks up the message. It receives it and processes it. Then it sends out an electrical signal through the nerves.

The nerves make connections until the signal reaches the proper muscle. This signal tells a muscle what it has to do. The muscle simply does exactly what the brain tells it to do. When you jump, hundreds of muscles work to help you do that.

Muscles work all the time. They even work when you are fast asleep. They keep your body firm and strong. Therefore, it is important to be in good shape. You need to stay healthy so that your muscles can remain powerful too. One thing that muscles need is good food. Muscles develop when they have protein. Milk, eggs, red meat, fish and beans are rich in protein. A healthy diet includes these food types. Muscles also need to be exercised to remain firm and toned. Regular exercise makes your muscles bigger, strengthens your heart and lungs and makes you more flexible. Good ways to exercise our walking, swimming, cycling, dancing or playing soccer. These activities improve your stamina. If you have good stamina, you can keep going for a long time without getting tired.

Question 31. What is the topic of paragraph 1?

A. Muscles B. The muscles system C. Bones D. Tendons Question 32. The word “wiggle” in paragraph 1 means ________ .

A. spin B. raise C. move D. cross Question 33. In what order do the following happen?

A. Processed message, nerve connection, electric signal, execution B. Execution, electric signal, nerve connection, processed message C. Execution, nerve connection, electric signal, processed message D. Processed message, electric signal, nerve connection, execution Question 34. What are two things muscles need to stay strong?

A. Protein and walking B. Milk and eggs C. Protein and good exercise D. Sleep and good food Question 35. What does the author think about regular swimming?

A. It makes you stronger and flexible B. It helps you to keep going for a long time without getting tired C. It is better than walking and dancing D. It is not as good as playing soccer.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

During her New York days, Mabel Dodge had preached the gospel of Gertrude Stein and spread the fame of her new style. Like Miss Stein, Mabel Dodge had long planned to “upset” America with fatal disaster to the old older of things.

Gertrude Stein had no interest in anything that was not aggressively modern. She had conceived it as a part of her mission to “kill” the nineteenth century “dead”, and she was convinced that her work was “really the beginning of modern writing.” Her story “Melanctha” in Three Lives, privately printed in 1907, was the “first definite step”, as she wrote later, "into the twentieth century”. There was at least a grain of truth in this.

Just then the movement of modem art, so called for many years, was also beginning in Paris with Matisse and Picasso, and Gertrude Stein and her brother Leo were friends of these protagonists. The Stems had the means to buy their pictures. Gertrude shared, moreover, the point of view of these avant-garde artists, and she endeavored to parallel in words their effects in paint.

Gertrude Stein wrote her “Melanotha” while posing for Picasso’ s portrait of herself. Picasso had just discovered African sculpture, previously interesting only to curio hunters, and this may have set her mind running on the Black girl Melanctha, whose story was the longest and most moving of her Three Lives. It was not difficult to find in these a trace of the influence of African art, with the influence alike of Matisse and Picasso.

Question 36. With what topic is the passage primarily concerned?

A. Gertrude Stein’s most important works B. The avant-garde community in New York C. Gertrude Stein’s contribution to the development of modern literature D. The reactions of various critics to modern art and literature Question 37. In the first paragraph, the author uses the phrase “preached the gospel” in order to emphasize Mable Dodge’s ________ .

A. intense devotion to Gertrude Stein B. wide popularity with religious groups C. competitive feelings toward Gertrude Stein D. deep admiration for nineteenth century literature Question 38. According to the passage, Gertrude Stein was not interested in anything that was not ________ .

A. controversial B. modern C. literary D. aggressive Question 39. According to the passage, Gertrude Stein planned to “kill” the nineteenth century by ________ .

A. ridiculing the writers of that period B. creating a form of writing for the twentieth century C. destroying all the books written during that period D. printing booklets promoting the merits of twentieth-century literature Question 40. The story “Melanctha” first appeared in the ________ .

A. mid-nineteenth century B. late nineteenth century C. early twentieth century D. mid-twentieth century Question 41. Which of the following statements about the relationship between Gertrude Stein and Henri Matisse’s work can be inferred from the passage?

A. Matisse and Stein had very different ways of depicting reality.

B. Matisse’s later paintings were influenced by Stein’s work.

C. Stein preferred Matisse’s work to that of other artists because it was more abstract.

D. Stein tried to recreate in her writing the effects in Matisse’s paintings.

Question 42. Which of the following is mentioned as one of Picasso’s interests?

A. African art B. Classical literature C. American art D. Modern literature Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. The measures (A) have contributed to the effort to preserve biodiversity and (B) put an end to the (C) illegally use and trafficking of wildlife (D) across the country.

Question 44. Species become extinct or (A) endangerment for a number of (B) reasons, but the primary cause is the (C) destruction of habitat (D) by human activities.

Question 45. (A) Having served lunch, the (B) medical staff (C) continued to (D) discuss the problems.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. The head teacher was at a loss to understand the girl’s behavior.

A. The girl’s behavior was nothing but a shock to the head teacher.

B. The head teacher thought that the girl’s behavior was contemptible.

C. The girl’s behavior was incomprehensible to the head teacher.

D. The head teacher treated the girl with suspicion because she didn’t understand her.

Question 47. “Get out of my car or I’ll call the police!”, Ms. Nga shouted to the strange man.

A. Ms. Nga politely told the man she would call the police if he didn’t leave her car.

B. Ms. Nga plainly said that she would call the police.

C. Ms. Nga threatened to call the police if the man didn’t leave her car.

D. Ms. Nga informed the strange man that she would call the police.

Question 48. I have never played golf before.

A. It is the first time I had played golf.

B. This is the first time I have ever played golf.

C. It is the last time I played golf.

D. I used to play golf but I gave it up already.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. She is always talking foolishly when everybody talks about something in a serious way. I can’t bear that.

A. Everybody talks seriously when she talks foolishly.

B. I don’t mind her talking foolishly when everybody talks seriously.

C. I can’t understand what she talks when people talk foolishly.

D. I hate her talking foolishly when people talk seriously.

Question 50. People use pesticides and fertilizers. They want to increase crop production.

A. People want to increase crop production, so they use pesticides and fertilizers.

B. Unless people want to increase crop production, they use pesticides and fertilizers.

C. People want to increase crop production because they use pesticides and fertilizers.

D. People want to increase crop production, for they use pesticides and fertilizers.

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC

ĐỀ SỐ 34

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO Môn: Tiếng Anh Số câu hỏi: 50 câu - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. laughs B. arrives C. slopes D. presidents Question 2. A. blind B. discrimination C. benefit D. visual Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. possible B. medical C. rapidly D. initiate Question 4. A. diploma B. doctorate C. internship D. scholarship Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. There’s a list of repairs as long as ________ .

A. your arm B. a pole C. your head D. a mile Question 6. It’s only a small lamp, so it doesn’t ________ off much light.

A. shed B. cast C. give D. spend Question 7. Many villages were ________ by the floods last year.

A. looked after B. taken out C. come up D. wiped out Question 8. Women no longer have to do hard work nowadays as they used to, ________ ?

A. are they B. aren’t they C. do they D. don’t they Question 9. She was the first woman ________ the classroom.

A. who leave B. to leave C. leaving D. left Question 10. I ________ to see my best friend on my way home.

A. dropped back B. dropped in C. dropped out D. dropped off Question 11. This road is very narrow. It ________ to be widened.

A. might B. needs C. mustn’t D. may Question 12. My boss ordered his son ________ impolitely.

A. didn’t behave B. to behave C. not behave D. not to behave Question 13. It is ________ of businessmen to shake hands in formal meetings.

A. familiar B. ordinary C. common D. typical Question 14. By the end of the 21st century, scientists ________ a cure for the common cold.

A. will find B. will have found C. will be finding D. will have been found Question 15. The students ________ by the teacher yesterday were very rude.

A. punished B. to punish C. punish D. punishing Question 16. Air pollution poses a ________ to both human health and our environment.

A. jeopardy B. threat C. difficulty D. problem Question 17. He doesn’t want to ________ on his parents.

A. determines B. influences C. relies D. manages Question 18. You should let your daughter ________ her final decision.

A. made B. to make C. making D. make Question 19. He ________ for an international company before he became a teacher.

A. has been working B. has worked C. was working D. had worked

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. She was born in a sleepy village in Ha Tinh Province.

A. quiet B. pretty C. wealthy D. poor Question 21. My parent’ warnings didn’t deter me from choosing the job of my dreams.

A. influence B. discourage C. reassure D. inspire Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. Nowadays female engineers are not too thick on the ground.

A. rare B. efficient C. overweight D. enormous Question 23. For most male spiders courtship is a perilous procedure, for they may be eaten by females.

A. complicated B. hazardous C. safe D. peculiar Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24. - Mark: “A car knocked him down.”

- Lisa: “ ________ ” A. How terrific!

B. Poor him!

C. Why do you say so?

D. What a cheap car!

Question 25. John: “Which work areas do you like best?

- Tim: “ ________ .“ A. No, thanks B. I heard it was very good C. Anything to do with marketing D. Anytime after next week Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

Cosmetics are becoming of more importance in daily life; they are used regularly by increasing numbers of people and very large quantities are consumed each year. When were cosmetics first used by people? Even (26) ________ we examine the history of cosmetics, it is extremely difficult to say when cosmetics were first used. Archaeological excavations confirm that they were used in the early stone age and we can safely assume that cosmetics have a very long history.

Why did early societies use cosmetics? If we examine the purpose of cosmetics, the most (27) ________ is protection of the body from the elements of nature, such as heat and sunlight. Early people painted themselves (28) ________ oils or mixtures of oils, clays and plant materials to (29) ________ themselves against dryness from cold, burns from strong sunlight, and irritation from insect bites. Additionally, cosmetics were used for religious purposes. Fragrant woods for example were burnt to produce smoke and incense that would ward (30) ________ evil spirits.

Question 26. A. when B. if C. so D. as Question 27. A. visible B. conclusive C. exposed D. obvious Question 28. A. with B. by C. in D. on Question 29. A. cover B. care C. protect D. look Question 30. A. back B. out C. on D. off Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

Political controversy about the public-land policy of the United States began with the American Revolution. In fact, even before independence from Britain was won, it became clear that resolving the dilemmas surrounding the public domain might prove necessary to preserve the Union itself.

At the peace negotiation with Britain, Americans demanded, and got, a western boundary at the Mississippi River. Thus the new nation secured for its birthright a vast internal empire rich in agricultural and mineral resources. But under their colonial charters, seven states - Massachusetts, Connecticut, New York, Virginia, North Carolina, South Carolina, and Georgia - claimed portions

of the western wilderness. Virginia’s claim was the largest, stretching north and west to encompass the later states of Kentucky, Ohio, Indiana, Illinois, Michigan, and Wisconsin. The language of the charters was vague and their validity questionable, but during the war Virginia reinforced its title by sponsoring Colonel Georgia Rogers Clark’s 1778 Expedition to Vicennes and Kaskaskia, which strengthened America’s trans- Appalachian pretensions at the peace table.

The six states holding no claim to the trans-mountain region doubted whether a confederacy in which territory was so unevenly apportioned would truly prove what it claimed to be, a union of equals. Already New Jersey, Delaware, Rhode Island, and Maryland were among the smallest and least populous of the States. While they levied heavy taxes to repay state war debts, their larger neighbors might retire debts out of land-sale proceeds. Drawn by fresh lands and low taxes, people would desert the small states for the large, leaving the former to fall into bankruptcy and eventually into political subjugation. All the states shared in the war effort, said the New Jersey legislature, how then could half of them “be left no sink under an enormous debt, whilst others are enabled, in a short period, to replace all their expenditures from the hard earnings of the whole confederacy?” As the Revolution was a common endeavor, so ought its fruits, including the western lands, be a common property.

Question 31. With which of the following topics is the passage primarily concerned?

A. A controversial public-land policy.

B. How independence from Britain was won.

C. The land holdings of Massachusetts.

D. How New Jersey developed its western land.

Question 32. According to the passage, the British granted the new American nation a western boundary at ________ .

A. Ohio B. Illinois C. the Mississippi River D. the Appalachian Mountains Question 33. Which state laid claim to the largest land-holdings?

A. North Carolina B. South Carolina C. Virginia D. Georgia Question 34. Why does the author mention Colonel Clark’s expedition?

A. To explain how one state strengthened its land claims B. To criticize an effort to acquire additional agricultural resources C. To show that many explorers searched for new lands D. To question the validity of Virginia’s claims Question 35. According to the passage, the smaller states tried to raise money to pay their war debts by ________ .

A. collecting taxes B. exporting crops C. selling land D. raising cattle Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

The first English attempts to colonize North America were controlled by individuals rather than companies. Sir Humphrey Gilbert was the first Englishman to send colonists to the New World. His initial expedition, which sailed in 1578 with a patent granted by Queen Elizabeth was defeated by the Spanish. A second attempt ended in disaster in 1583, when Gilbert and his ship were lost in a storm. In the following year, Gilbert’s half brother, Sir Water Raleigh, having obtained a renewal of the patent, sponsored an expedition that explored the coast of the region that he named “Virginia”.

Under Raleigh’s direction efforts were then made to establish a colony on Roanoke island in 1585 and 1587. The survivors of the first settlement on Roanoke returned to England in 1586, but the second group of colonists disappeared without leaving a trace. The failure of the Gilbert and Raleigh ventures made it clear that the tasks they had undertaken were too big for any one colonizer. Within a short time the trading company had supplanted the individual promoter of colonization.

Question 36. Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for the passage?

A. The Regulation of Trading Companies B. British - Spanish Rivalry in the New World C. Early Attempts at Colonizing North America D. Royal Patents Issued in the 16th Century Question 37. The passage states which of the following about the first English people to be involved in establishing colonies in North America?

A. They were requested to do so by Queen Elizabeth.

B. They were members of large trading companies.

C. They were immediately successful.

D. They were acting on their own.

Question 38. According to the passage, which of the following statements about Sir Humphrey Gilbert is true?

A. He never settled in North America.

B. His trading company was given a patent by the queen.

C. He fought the Spanish twice.

D. He died in 1587.

Question 39. When did Sir Walter Raleigh’s initial expedition set out for North America?

A. 1577 B. 1579 C. 1582 D. 1584 Question 40. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about members of the first Roanoke settlement?

A. They explored the entire coastal region.

B. Some did not survive.

C. They named the area “Virginia”.

D. Most were not experienced sailors.

Question 41. According to the passage, the first English settlement on Roanoke Island was established in ________ .

A. 1578 B. 1583 C. 1585 D. 1587 Question 42. According to the passage, which of the following statements about the second settlement on Roanoke Island is true?

A. Its settlers all gave up and returned to England.

B. It lasted for several years.

C. The fate of its inhabitants is unknown.

D. It was conquered by the Spanish.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. Hoa is always (A) understanding, patient, and (B) sensitive when (C) helping her friends (D) to their problems.

Question 44. Linda refuse (A) taking the job (B) given to her (C) because the salary (D) was not good.

Question 45. (A) These companies were (B) accused on (C) having released a large amount of carbon dioxide (D) into the atmosphere.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. I last heard this song 10 years ago.

A. It has been 10 years when I have heard this song.

B. It was 10 years since I last heard this song.

C. It is 10 years since I last heard this song.

D. It is 10 years when I have heard this song.

Question 47. My brother and I dressed as quickly as we could, but we missed the school bus and we were late for school.

A. My brother and I could dress quickly but could not be in time for school.

B. My brother and I missed the school bus, so we were late for school.

C. My brother and I dressed quickly but we were late for school because we missed the school bus.

D. My brother and I were late for school because we dressed so quickly.

Question 48. She usually spends one hour riding her motorbike to work every day.

A. She usually gets to work in one hour every day.

B. It usually takes her one hour to get to work by motorbike every day.

C. She usually goes to work by car once a day.

D. It usually takes her one hour riding her motorbike to her office every day.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. People should not throw rubbish in the park. People should not cut down the trees in the park.

A. People should either throw rubbish in the park or cut down the trees in the park.

B. People should neither throw rubbish nor cut down the trees in the park.

C. People should either throw rubbish nor cut down the trees in the park.

D. People should neither throw rubbish or cut down the trees in the park.

Question 50. The old man is working in this factory. I borrowed his bicycle yesterday.

A. The old man whom is working in this factory, I borrowed his bicycle yesterday.

B. The old man whom I borrowed his bicycle yesterday is working in this factory.

C. The old man whose bicycle I borrowed yesterday is working in this factory.

D. The old man is working in this factory which I borrowed his bicycle yesterday.

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC

ĐỀ SỐ 35

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO Môn: Tiếng Anh Số câu hỏi: 50 câu - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. wicked B. hatred C. ragged D. followed Question 2. A. prepare B. preparation C. settle D. effect Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. preference B. obstacle C. practicing D. supporter Question 4. A. humorous B. lubricious C. strenuous D. prosperous Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. He daren’t ________ his boss for a rise just now.

A. asking B. be asking C. to asking D. ask Question 6. The terrible weather may have ________ the small population.

A. backed down B. accounted for C. brought in D. let down Question 7. Only after she had finished the course did she realize she ________ a wrong choice.

A. had made B. has made C. has been making D. was making Question 8. It ________ Susan that you saw last night. She’s abroad with her family.

A. should have been B. must have been C. can’t have been D. needn’t have been Question 9. He is a very intelligent boy; ________ , he sometimes gets bad marks.

A. otherwise B. so C. however D. thus Question 10. They ________ tired now because they ________ in the garden since 7 o’clock.

A. are - worked B. were - were working C. are - have been working D. were - worked Question 11. We should eat ________ and do ________ to reduce the risk of heart disease.

A. less and less fat - the more exercise B. less fat - more exercise C. the less fat - the more exercise D. the least fat - the most exercise Question 12. Let’s take measures to protect the environment, ________ we?

A. needn’t B. must C. shall D. will Question 13. Neither Mary nor her sister ________ to attend the concert.

A. go B. are going C. have gone D. is going Question 14. Many years ago, black children were ________ to discrimination in many schools.

A. subjective B. subject C. subjecting D. to be subjected Question 15. My husband would like to specialize ________ computer programming.

A. of B. to C. in D. at Question 16. The last of these reasons is ________ the most important.

A. so B. very C. far D. by far Question 17. It is not until March 2nd ________ the exam results will be announced.

A. which B. what C. that D. when Question 18. ________ , I realized I should have applied for that job.

A. As I call B. With hindsight C. By and large D. In remembrance Question 19. Our trip to Da Lat didn’t ________ expectations.

A. climb up to B. come up with C. come up to D. rise to Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. This property is owned communally now, so everyone must take care of it.

A. kept by one member B. shared by roommates C. saved one by one D. used by everyone Question 21. My wife was so keen on the picture that she paid through her nose for it.

A. paid nothing B. paid much more than usual C. was offered D. turned a deaf ear Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. Her career ground to a halt when the twins were born.

A. stopped suddenly B. was interrupted C. made her tired D. developed quickly Question 23. If any employee knowingly breaks the terms of this contract, he will be dismissed immediately.

A. coincidentally B. deliberately C. instinctively D. accidentally Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24. - Customer: “Can I have a look at that shirt, please?”

- Salesgirl: “ ________ ” A. Which one? Is it this one?

B. It’s much cheaper.

C. It’s out of stock.

D. Can I help you?

Question 25. Tim: “ ________ ” - Tom: “I won’t say no!”

A. How are things with you?

B. What about playing football this afternoon?

C. Tom, do you know where the ball is?

D. What’s your favourite sport?

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

In the popular imagination, the tropical rain forests consists of giant trees towering (26) ________ a tangle of vines and beautiful orchids below, with colourful birds, tree frogs, and monkeys everywhere abundant. Scientists and visitors quickly realise that this image is not accurate animal life, (27) ________ highly diverse, is not necessarily strikingly abundant, and flowers are often very small and hard to find. But beyond the difference between perception and reality, there are tremendous differences among regions. Biologists working in one area rapidly recognise the special features of the biological community in their area, yet they would find themselves in highly unfamiliar terrain should they move, for example, from their accustomed study site in Borneo to a seemingly similar location in New Guinea.

(28) ________ , even in locations within the same overall zone, such as the Amazon and Central American forests, there can be differences both dramatic and subtle from place to place. There are unique plants and animals in every community, and even those organism common to other regions are part of a distinctive (29) ________ of species that interact in ways readily distinguishable (30) ________ other forests.

Question 26. A. at B. on C. beyond D. above Question 27. A. while B. when C. during D. as Question 28. A. Because B. Despite C. Although D. Indeed Question 29. A. pile B. jumble C. cross D. mixture Question 30. A. between B. from C. than D. to

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

Scientists estimate that about 35,000 other objects, too small to detect with radar but detectable with powerful Earth-based telescopes, are also circling the Earth at an altitude of 200 to 700 miles.

This debris poses little danger to us on the Earth, but since it is traveling at average relative speeds of six miles per second, it can severely damage expensive equipment in a collision. This threat was dramatized by a cavity one-eighth of an inch in diameter created in a window of a United States space shuttle in 1983. The pit was determined to have been caused by a collision with a speck of paint traveling at a speed of about two to four miles per second. The window had to be replaced.

As more and more nations put satellites into space, the risk of collision can only increase.

Measures are already being taken to control the growth of orbital debris. The United States has always required its astronauts to bag their wastes and return them to Earth. The United States Air Force has agreed to conduct low-altitude rather than high-altitude tests of objects it puts into space so debris from tests will reenter the Earth’s atmosphere and burn up. Extra shielding will also reduce the risk of damage. For example, 2,000 pounds of additional shielding is being considered for each of six space-station crew modules. Further, the European Space Agency, an international consortium is also looking into preventive measures.

Question 31. Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?

A. The Problem of Space Debris B. The Space Shuttle of 1983 C. The Work of the European Space Agency D. A Collision in Space Question 32. It can be inferred from the passage that debris was harmful to one of the space shuttles because the debris was ________ .

A. large B. moving very fast C. radioactive D. burning uncontrollably Question 33. What effect did orbital debris have on one of the space shuttles?

A. It removed some of the paint B. It damaged one of the windows C. It caused a loss of altitude D. It led to a collision with a space station Question 34. The word “them� in line 11 refers to which of the following?

A. Astronauts B. Wastes C. Tests D. Crew modules Question 35. Which of the following questions is NOT answered by the information in the passage?

A. How can small objects orbiting the Earth be seen?

B. What is being done to prevent orbital debris from increasing?

C. Why is the risk of damage to space equipment likely to increase?

D. When did the United States Air Force begin making tests in space?

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Philosophy in the second half of the 19th century was based more on biology and history than on mathematics and physics. Revolutionary thought drifted away from metaphysics and epistemology and shifted more towards ideologies in science, politics, and sociology. Pragmatism became the most vigorous school of thought in American philosophy during this time, and it continued the empiricist tradition of grounding knowledge on experience and stressing the inductive procedures of experimental science.

The three most important pragmatists of this period were the American philosophers Charles Peirce (1839-1914), considered to be the first of the American pragmatists, William James (18421910), the first great American psychologist, and John Dewey (1859 - 1952), who further developed

the pragmatic principles of Peirce and James into a comprehensive system of thought that he called “experimental naturalism”, or “instrumentalism”.

Pragmatism was generally critical of traditional western philosophy, especially the notion that there are absolute truths and absolute values. In contrast, Josiah Royce (1855- 1916), was a leading American exponent of idealism at this time, who believed in an absolute truth and held that human thought and the external world were unified. Pragmatism called for ideas and theories to be tested in practice, assessing whether they produced desirable or undesirable results. Although pragmatism was popular for a time in Europe, most agree that it epitomized the American faith in know-how and practicality, and the equally American distrust of abstract theories and ideologies. Pragmatism is best understood in its historical and cultural context. It arose during a period of rapid scientific advancement, industrialization, and material progress; a time when the theory of evolution suggested to many thinkers that humanity and society are in a perpetual state of progress. This period also saw a decline in traditional religious beliefs and values. As a result, it became necessary to rethink fundamental ideas about values, religion, science, community, and individuality.

Pragmatists regarded all theories and institutions as tentative hypotheses and solutions. According to their critics, the pragmatist’s refusal to affirm any absolutes carried negative implications for society, challenging the foundations of society’s institutions.

Question 36. What is the passage primarily about?

A. The evolution of philosophy in the second half of the 19th century B. The three most important American pragmatists of the late 19th century C. The differences between pragmatism and traditional western philosophy D. American pragmatism Question 37. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?

A. Idealism was an important part of the pragmatic approach B. “Pragmatism” was also known as “traditional western philosophy” C. Pragmatism continued the empiricist tradition D. pragmatism is best understood independently of its historical and cultural context Question 38. The phrase “at this time” in the passage refers to ________ .

A. at the time traditional western philosophy was dominant in America B. at the time pragmatism was popular in Europe C. 1916 D. the second half of the 19th century Question 39. According to the passage, pragmatism was more popular in American than Europe ________ .

A. Americans had greater acceptance of the theory of evolution B. it epitomized the American faith in know-how and practicality C. Europe had a more traditional society based on a much longer history D. industrialization and material progress was occurring at a faster pace in America at that time Question 40. The word “abstract” in the passage is closest in meaning to ________ .

A. unclear B. not concrete C. new D. old Question 41. The word “perpetual” in the passage is closest in meaning to ________ .

A. challenging B. continuous C. declining D. secular Question 42. All of the following are true EXCEPT ________ .

A. revolutionary thought shifted more towards ideologies in science, politics and sociology B. pragmatists regarded all theories and institutions as tentative hypotheses and solutions C. Josiah Royce was not a pragmatist D. pragmatism was based on the theory of evolution Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. The student (A) must have her assessment form (B) fill in by the examiner (C) during the (D) oral exam.

Question 44. (A) To everyone’s (B) surprise, it wasn’t in Da Nang City (C) which he (D) made his fortune, although that’s where he was born.

Question 45. The world is becoming more (A) industrialized and the number of animal (B) species that have become (C) extinct (D) have increased.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. They undervalued his new book.

A. They rejected his new book.

B. They were fed up with his new book.

C. They had a low opinion of his new book. D. They turned down his new book.

Question 47. The car was very expensive and she couldn’t afford it.

A. The car was expensive so that she couldn’t buy it.

B. The car was too expensive for her to buy.

C. She was rich enough to buy the car.

D. She was so poor but she bought the car.

Question 48. Immediately, after his arrival, things went wrong.

A. No longer did he arrive, but things still went wrong.

B. When he was arriving, things went wrong.

C. Because he arrived, things still went wrong.

D. No sooner had he arrived than things went wrong.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. I got up late and missed the first class. The alarm clock didn’t go off.

A. If I set the alarm clock well, I would not get up late and miss the first class.

B. Because the alarm clock didn’t working well, I got up late and missed the first class.

C. Because I got up late and missed the first class, the alarm clock didn’t go off.

D. I got up late and missed the first class, so the alarm clock didn’t go off.

Question 50. This is the battle field. The soldiers fought there.

A. This is the battle field which the soldiers fought.

B. This is the battle field that the soldiers fought.

C. This is the battle field where the soldiers fought there.

D. This is the battle field where the soldiers fought.