Bộ đề thi thử THPTQG năm 2018 - Môn Tiếng Anh - 11 ĐỀ + ĐÁP ÁN - GV Nguyễn Phương - Hoc24h

ĐỀ LUYỆN TẬP SỐ 1 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. production

B. propaganda

C. promotion

D. proceed

Question 2:

A. express

B. exciting

C. expensive

D. exhibition

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. geographical

B. economics

C. compulsory

D. education

Question 4:

A. comfortable

B. excellent

C. communicate

D. confident

Mark the letter A, B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions Question 5: New sources of energy have been looking for as the number of fossil fuels continues to decrease.

A. sources of energy

B. been looking

C. number

D. continues

Question 6: For such a demanding job, you will need qualifications, soft skills and having full commitment.

A. such

B. will need

C. qualifications

D.having full commitment

Question 7: Antarctic blue whales can be 100 foot long and weigh more than any dinosaur that ever lived.

A. can be

B. 100 foot long

C. more than

D. any dinosaur

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to each of the following exchanges.

Question 8: “How do you like your steak done?” - “_______.”

A. I don’t like it

B. Very little

C. Well done

D. Very much

Question 9: "Oops! I’m sorry for stepping on your foot" – “______.”

A. Never mind

B. You don't mind

C. You're welcome

D. That's fine

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in each of the following question.

Question 10: Dr. Sales is a person______.

A. in that I don’t have much confidence B. whom I don’t have much confidence in Him. C. in whom I don’t have much confidence D. I don’t have much confidence

Question 11: A quick look would reveal that France has twice______computers.

A. more televisions than

B. many as televisions as

C. as many televisions as

D. as many as televisions

Question 12: The instructor blew his whistle and______.

A. off the runners were running

B. off ran the runners

C. off were running the runners

D. the runners runs off

Question 13: People have used coal and oil to______electricity for a long time.

A. bred

B. raise

C. cultivate

D. generate

Question 14: In the early years of the 20th century, several rebellions______in the northern parts of the country.

A. turned out

B. rose up

C. broke out

D. came up

Question 15: The festival has many attractions. It will include contemporary orchestra music and an opera. ____ , there will be poetry readings and theatrical presentations.

A. Otherwise

B. Furthermore

C. Nevertheless

D. On the other hand

Question 16: When he started that company, he really went______. It might have been a disaster.

A. out on the limb

B. on and off

C. over the odds

D. once too often

Question 17: We regret to tell you that the materials you ordered are______.

A. out of stock

B. out of practice

C. out of reach

D. out of work

C. marrying

D.marriageable

Question 18: My sister is a woman of______age.

A. marriage

B. married

Question 19: The fire______to have started in the furnace under the house.

A. is believed

B. that is believed

C. they believed

D. that they believe

Question 20: This is the latest news from earthquake site. Two- thirds of the city______in a fire.

A. has been destroyed

B. have been destroyed

C. were destroyed

D. was destroyed

Question 21: There are many______in our library.

A. interesting American old history books interesting old American history books

B. old American interesting history books.

C.

D. American interesting old history books

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the under lined word in each of the following questions Question 22: She was brought up in a well-off family. She can’t understand the problems we are facing.

A. poor

B. broke

C. wealthy

D. kind

Question 23: The most important thing is to keep yourself occupied.

A. relaxed

B. comfortable

C. possessive

D. busy

Mark letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: There has been insufficient rainfall over the past two years, and fanners are having trouble.

A. abundant

B. adequate

C. unsatisfactory

D. dominant

Question 25: We strongly believe that he's innocent of the crime. We do not think that he did it.

A. crimeless

B. skillful

C. clean

D. guilty

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to the sentence given in each of the following question.

Question 26: Only with careful environmental planning can we protect the world in which we live.

A. Careful environmental planning protects the world we live in.

B. Planning the environment carefully, we can protect the world in which we live.

C. Protecting the world we live in, we plan the environment carefully.

D. We can protect the world we live in only with careful environmental planning.

Question 27: You should take regular exercises instead of sitting in front of the television all day.

A. Taking regular exercises is better than sitting in front of the television all day.

B. Sitting in front of the television all day helps you take regular exercises.

C. Sitting in front of the television all day and taking exercises are advisable.

D. Don’t take regular exercises, just sit in front of the television all day.

Question 28: It was not until after I got home that I realized I had not set the burglar alarm in the office.

A. On the way home, I suddenly realized that I had forgotten to turn on the burglar alarm in the office.

B. Fortunately, I realized that I hadn't set the burglar alarm just before I left for home; otherwise, I would have had to travel all the way back to the office.

C. I didn’t turn the burglar alarm on before I left the office, but I only became aware of this after I'd arrived home.

D. I wish I had realized before I arrived home that I hadn't turned on the burglar alarm in the office, then it would have been easier to go and set it.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: He did not remember the meeting. He went out for a coffee with his friends then.

A. Not remember the meeting, he went out for a coffee with his friends.

B. Not to remember the meeting, he went out for a coffee with his friends.

C. Not remembered the meeting, he went out for a coffee with his friends.

D. Not remembering the meeting, he went out for a coffee with his friends.

Question 30: They left their home early. They didn’t want to miss the first train.

A. They left their home early so as to not miss the first train.

B. They left their home early for fear that they wouldn’t miss the first train.

C. They left their home early so as not to miss the first train.

D. They left their home early in order that not to miss the first train.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase that bestfits each ofthe numbered blanks from 31 to 35 Left-handers are the odd ones out. Sure, lefties (31) ______up about 10 percent of the population - but, frankly, it seems like society has forgotten about them. Just consider all of the right-handed gadgets, awkwardly designed desks, and cooking tools that fit comfortably only in your right hand. What (32) ______someone to become a lefthand? Scientists aren’t exactly sure, but research points to a complex (33) ______between genes and environment While no exact set of “leftie genes” have been discovered, people who dominantly use their left hands do have more lefthanded family members. And researchers have found different brain wirings in righties vs. lefties.

But no matter (34) ______it is that drives someone to use their antipodal paw, science has also uncovered a particular set of personality traits that left-handed people tend to have. So for all of you lefties, leftie-loving righties, and ambidextrous folks out there - it’s time to brush up on your lefthanded knowledge and help (35) ______an end to leftie discrimination once and for all.

Question 31:

A. consist

B. account

C. hold

D. make

Question 32:

A. causes

B. makes

C. gets

D. does

Question 33:

A. collaborate

B. collaboration

C. collaborating

D. collaborated

Question 34:

A. which

B. who

C. what

D. that

Question 35:

A. put

B. bring

C. make

D. take

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Successful students often do the followings while studying. First, they have an overview before reading. Next, they look for important information and pay greater attention to it (which

often needs jumping forward or backward to process information). They also relate important points to one another. Also, they activate and use their prior knowledge. When they realize that their understanding is not good, they do not wait to change strategies. Last, they can monitor understanding and take action to correct or “fix up” mistakes in comprehension.

Conversely, students with low academic achievement often demonstrate ineffective study skills. They tend to assume a passive role, in learning and rely on others (e.g., teachers, parents) to monitor their studying, for example, low-achieving students often do not monitor their understanding of content; they may not be aware of the purpose of studying; and they show little evidence of looking back, or employing “fix-up” strategies to fix understanding problems. Students who struggle with learning new information seem to be unaware that they must extent effort beyond simply reading the content to understand and remember it. Children with learning disabilities do not plan and judge the quality of their studying. Their studying may be disorganized.

Students with learning problems face challenges with personal organization as well. They often have difficulty keeping track of materials and assignments, following directions, and completing work on time. Unlike good studiers who employ a variety of study skills in a flexible yet purposeful manner, low-achieving students use a restricted range of study skills. They cannot explain why good study strategies are important for learning; and they tend to use the same, often ineffective study approach for all learning tasks, ignoring task content, structure or difficulty.

(Source: Adapted from Study Skills: Managing Your Learning — NUI Galway) Question 36: What is the topic of the passage?

A. Successful and low-academic achieving students B. Successful learners and their learning strategies C. Study skills for high school students D. Effective and ineffective ways of learning Question 37: The word “prior” in the first paragraph is closest meaning to ______?

A. important

B. earlier

C. forward

D. good

Question 38: According to the passage, what can be learnt about passive students?

A. They depend on other people to organize their learning B. They are slow in their studying C. They monitor their understanding D. They know the purpose of studying Question 39: Which of the followings is NOT an evidence of monitoring studying?

A. Being aware of the purpose of studying B. Monitoring their understanding of content

C. Fixing up mistakes in understanding D. Looking at their backs Question 40: According to the passage, to learn new information, low-achieving students do NOT______.

A. just understand it

B. relate it to what they have known

C. simply remember it

D. read it

Question 41: In compared with low-achieving students, successful students use______.

A. aimless study techniques

B. various study skills

C. restricted strategies

D. inflexible study ways

Question 42: The underlined pronoun “They� in the last sentence refers to______.

A. study strategies

B. study skills

C. low-achieving students

D. good studiers

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50 Pollution emitted in industrial areas represents a threat to human health and the surrounding natural resources. We have a tendency to believe that the production processes are the only source of environmental damage, and often forget about the possible long-term effects of harmful production practices. We may think that the closure of these huge industrial areas would improve the quality of the environment. Unfortunately, this ignores the threat of the remaining waste, which is abandoned and poorly stored. It represents an even bigger danger because it stands neglected as it degrades and leaks into the earth without any control at all.

Changes in the water chemistry due to surface water contamination can affect all levels of an ecosystem. It can affect the health of lower food chain organisms and, consequently, the availability of food up through the food chain. It can damage the health of wetlands and damage their ability to support healthy ecosystems, control flooding, and filter pollutants from storm water runoff. The health of animals and humans are affected when they drink or bathe in contaminated water. In addition water-based organisms, like fish and shellfish, can pile up and concentrate contaminants in their bodies. When other animals or humans eat these organisms, they receive a much higher dose of contaminant than they would have if they had been directly exposed to the original contamination.

Contaminated groundwater can badly affect animals, plants and humans if it is removed from the ground by manmade or natural processes. Depending on the study of rocks of the area, groundwater may rise to the surface through springs or seeps, flow sideways into nearby rivers,

streams, or ponds, or sink deeper into the earth. In many parts of fhe world, groundwater is pumped out of the ground to be used for drinking, bathing, other household uses, agriculture, and industry.

Contaminants in the soil can harm plants when they take up the contamination through their roots. Eating, breathing in, or touching contaminated soil, as well as eating plants or animals that have piled up soil contaminants can badly affect the health of humans and animals.

Air pollution can cause breathing-related problems and other bad health effects as contaminants are absorbed from the lungs into other parts of the body. Certain air contaminants can also harm animals and humans when they contact the skin. Plants rely on breathing for their growth and can also be affected by exposure to contaminants moved in the air.

(Source: Adapted from http://www.grid.unep.ch/waste/download/waste1213.pdf) Question 43: What is the topic of the passage?

A. Sources of environmental damage

B. The pollution from the city

C. Bad effects of industrial waste

D. The quality of the environment

Question 44: According to the passage, the industry is likely to be thought as______.

A. a danger to the environment

B. the only source of pollution

C. the utmost harmful activity

D. a threat to human health

Question 45: The word “it” in the first paragraph refers to______.

A. the remaining waste

B. a danger

C. the environment

D. the threat of the remaining waste

Question 46: Which of the followings affect an ecosystem as the whole?

A. Surface water contamination

B. Soil contamination

C. Groundwater contamination

D. Air contamination

Question 47: According to the passage, which of the followings supports healthy ecosystems?

A. Lower food chain organisms

B. Animals

C. Water-based organisms

D. Wetlands

Question 48: Which of the followings is NOT badly affected by contaminated groundwater?

A. Human

B. Plants

C. Rocks

D. Animals

Question 49: Which of the followings is the flow of water from the ground to the surface?

A. Streams

B. Ponds

C. Rivers

D. Springs

Question 50: Which of the followings has the closest meaning to the word “absorbed” in the last paragraph?

A. Consumed

B. Taken in

C. Swallowed

D. Piled up

ĐÁP ÁN 1-B

2-D

3-C

4-C

5-B

6-D

7-B

8-C

9-A

10-C

11-C

12-B

13-D

14-C

15-B

16-D

17-A

18-D

19-A

20-A

21-C

22-C

23-D

24-A

25-D

26-D

27-A

28-C

29-D

30-C

31-D

32-A

33-B

34-C

35-A

36-D

37-B

38-A

39-D

40-B

41-B

42-C

43-C

44-B

45-A

46-A

47-D

48-C

49-D

50-B

ĐỀ LUYỆN TẬP SỐ 2 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 1: I could see the finish line and thought I was home and dry.

A. Unsuccessful

B. hopeful

C. successful

D. hopeless

Question 2: School uniform is compulsory in most of Vietnamese schools.

A. paid

B. required

C.divided.

D. depended

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 3: No one has seen Linda since the day of the party.

A. The party is going on without Linda.

B. No one has seen Linda for ages.

C. Linda has not been seen since the day of the party.

D. Linda is nowhere to be seen at the party.

Question 4: I should have finished my work last night but I was exhausted.

A. I did finished my work last night thought I was exhausted.

B. I was exhausted so I didn’t finish my work yesterday as planned.

C. Last night I was exhausted but I tried to finish my work.

D. My work was finished last night but I was exhausted.

Question 5: Never have people been so well informed as they are now, thanks to TV news programs.

A. Thanks to TV news programs, people are now too well informed.

B. People have been so informative thanks to TV news programs.

C. TV news programs are very informative than before and people are better informed.

D. People are better informed than they have been, thanks to TV news programs.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

There are a number of natural disasters that can strike across the globe. Two that are frequently linked to one another are earthquakes and tsunamis. Both of them can cause a great amount of devastation when they hit. However, tsunamis are the direct result of earthquakes and cannot happen without them.

The Earth has three main parts. They are the crust, the mantle, and the core. The crust is the outer layer of the Earth. It is not a single piece of land. Instead, it is comprised of a number of plates. There are a few enormous plates and many smaller ones. These plates

essentially rest upon the mantle, which is fluid. As a result, the plates are in constant - yet slow - motion. The plates may move away from or towards other plates. In some cases, they collide violently with the plates adjoining them. The movement of the plates causes tension in the rock. Over a long time, this tension may build up. When it is released, an earthquake happens.

Tens of thousands of earthquakes happen every year. The vast majority are so small that only scientific instruments can perceive them. Others are powerful enough that people can feel them, yet they cause little harm or damage. More powerful earthquakes, however, can cause buildings, bridges, and other structures to collapse. They may additionally injure and skill thousands of people and might even cause the land to change it appearance.

Since most of the Earth's surface is water, numerous earthquakes happen beneath the planet's oceans. Underwater earthquakes cause the seafloor to move. This results in the displacement of water in the ocean. When this occurs, a tsunami may form. This is a wave that forms on the surface and moves in all directions from the place where the earthquake happened. A tsunami moves extremely quickly and can travel thousands of kilometres. As it approaches land, the water near the coast gets sucked out to sea. This causes the tsunamis to increase in height. Minutes later, the tsunami arrives. A large tsunami - one more than ten meters in height - can travel far inland. As it does that, it can flood the land, destroy human settlements, and kill large numbers of people.

Question 6: Which of the following statements does paragraph 1 support?

A. Earthquakes cause more destruction than tsunamis.

B. A tsunami happens in tandem with an earthquake.

C. The most severe type of natural disaster is an earthquake.

D. Earthquakes frequently take place after tsunamis do.

Question 7: (ID: 72667) The word "it" in bold in paragraph 2 refers to___________.

A. the Earth

B. the core

C. the crust

D. the mantle

Question 8: What is the passage mainly about?

A. How earthquakes and tsunamis occur.

B. What kind of damage natural disasters can cause.

C. Why tsunamis are deadlier than earthquakes.

D. When earthquakes are the most likely to happen.

Question 9: The word "adjoining" in bold in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to___________.

A. bordering

B. residing

C. approaching

D. appearing

Question 10: The word "perceive" in bold in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to___________.

A. comprehend

B. detect

C. prevent

D. locate

Question 11: Which of the following is true regarding the crust?

A. There many separate pieces that make it up.

B. It is the smallest of the Earth's three layers.

C. It is thicker on land than it is under the water.

D. The mantle beneath it keeps it from moving too much.

Question 12: Based on the passage, what is probably true about tsunamis?

A. They kill more people each year than earthquakes.

B. They are able to move as fast as the speed of sound.

C. They cannot damage ships sailing on the ocean.

D. They can be deadly to people standing near shore.

Question 13: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 3 about earthquakes?

A. How many people they typically kill

B. How often powerful ones take place

C. What kind of damage they can cause

D. How severe the majority of them are

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 14:

A. mended

B. faced

C. objected

D. waited

Question 15:

A. buses

B. charges

C. lorries

D. bushes

Mark the letter A, B ,C ,or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 16: It was suggested that Pedro studies the material more thoroughly before attempting to pass the exam.

A. studies

B. more

C. attempting

D. to pass

Question 17: Excavations in some villages on the east bank of the Euphrates River have revealed an ancient community that had been laying under later reconstructions of the city of Babylon.

A. on the east bank

B. revealed

C. had been laying

D. later

Question 18: The puppy stood up slowly, wagged its tail, blinking its eyes, and barked.

A. slowly

B. its

C. blinking

D. and

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 19: – I have gone to the doctor’s to have a checkup.

- You _______ You just had your check-up last week!

A. don’t need to go.

B. needn’t go.

C. didn’t need to go.

D. needn’t have gone.

Question 20: But for your support, we couldn’t _______ this plan.

A. have been completed

B. be completed

C. have completed

D. complete

Question 21: ______ here for hours and I feel tired.

A. I had been standing

B. I have been standing

C. I have stood

D. I’m standing

Question 22: Many African and Asian nations have set aside land called _____ to protects the habitats of elephants and other wild animals.

A. reserves

B. wildlife

C. species

D. forest

Question 23: Despite many recent _____ advances, there are parts where schools are not equipped with computers A. technologist

B. technologically

C. technological

D. technology

Question 24: I have asked my boss _____ me one day- off to see the doctor.

A. to give

B. that he give

C. giving

D. if could he give

Question 25: Due to severe weather condition, we had to wait long hours _____ the airport.

A. in

B. at

C. from

D. on

Question 26:1/4 of my income _____ to pay for my university debts.

A. has been used

B. were used

C. has used

D. are used

Question 27: The clown was wearing a _____ wig and red nose.

A. red funny plastic

B. red plastic funny

C. funny red nose

D. funny plastic red

Question 28: Benald wanted to know _____.

A. where I have been those days.

B. where I had been those day.

C. where had I been those days.

D. where I had been those days.

Question 29: Not only _____ the exam but she also got a scholarship.

A. has she passed

B. she has passed

C. she passed

D. did she passed

Question 30: _____ long _____ his brother was at the party last night. They were both busy.

A. Neither/ nor

B. Both/ and

C. Either/ or

D. Neither/ or

Mark the letter A ,B ,C ,or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 31: Jack is going to London to study next week.

- Betty: “____________”

- Jack: “Thanks. I will write to you when I come to London.”

A. Better luck next time!

B. Have a go!

C. God bless you!

D. Have a nice trip!

Question 32: After finishing the duty at the company at 6 p.m.

- Anna: “Shall we eat out tonight?”

- Jane: “___________” A. It is very kind of you to invite me.

B. You are very welcome.

C. That’s a great idea. D. That’s understandable.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 33: My friend Albert as decided to buy a motorbike. His car was stolen last week.

A. My friend Albert, whose car was stolen last week, has decided to buy a motorbike.

B. My friend Albert whose car was stolen last week has decided to buy a motorbike.

C. My friend Albert has decided to buy a motorbike which car stolen last week.

D. My friend Albert has decided to buy a motorbike has his car stolen last week.

Question 34: The children ran to the field to see the dragon, but it was no longer there.

A. The dragon went by the time the children ran to the filed.

B. The dragon had gone by the time the children ran to the filed.

C. The dragon had gone after the children ran to the filed.

D. When the children ran to the filed, the dragon went.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 35: Fruit and vegetables grew in abundance on the island. The islanders even exported the surplus.

A. large quantity

B. excess

C. small quantity

D. sufficiency

Question 36: During the five-decade history the Asian Games have been advancing in all aspects.

A. holding back

B. holding at

C. holding by

D. holding to

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

In the 1960s, The Beatles were probably the most famous pop group in the whole world. Since then, there have been a great many groups that have achieved enormous fame, so it is perhaps difficult now to imagine how sensational The Beatles were at that time. They were four boys from the north of England and none of them had any training in music. They

started by performing and recording songs by black Americans and they had some success with these songs. Then they started writing their own songs and that was when they became really popular. The Beatles changed pop music. They were the first pop group to achieve great success from songs they had written themselves. After that it became common for groups and singers to write their own songs. The Beatles did not have a long career. Their first hit record was in 1963 and they split up in 1970. They stopped doing live performances in 1966 because it had become too dangerous for them – their fans were so excited that they surrounded them and tried to take their clothes as souvenirs! However, today some of their songs remain as famous as they were when they first came out. Throughout the world many people can sing part of a Beatles song if you ask them.

Question 37: The passage is mainly about A. Why the Beatles split up after 7 years B. The Beatles’ fame and success C. How the Beatles became more successful than other groups D. Many people’s ability to sing a Beatles song Question 38: The four boys of the Beatles___________ A. Were at the same age B. Came from a town in the north of England C. Came from the same family D. Received good training in music Question 39: The word “sensational” is closest in meaning to A. shocking

B. bad

C. notorious

D. popular

Question 40: The first songs of the Beatles were _____ A. paid a lot of money

B. broadcast on the radio

C. written by themselves

D. written by black Americans

Question 41: What is not true about the Beatles?

A. They became famous when they wrote their own songs.

B. They had a long stable career .

C. The members had no training in music.

D. They were afraid of being hurt by fans Question 42: The Beatles stopped their live performances because A. They spent more time writing their own songs.

B. They did not want to work with each other.

C. They had earned enough money.

D. They were afraid of being hurt by fans.

Question 43: The tone of the passage is that of________ A. neutral

B. criticism

C. admiration

D. sarcasm

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Water is necessary for life. People can live only a few days (44) _____ it. Yet nearly 25 million people die each year because of it. Both industrial nations and less-developed countries are worried about the (45) ______ and quantity of water in the world.

Even though people, animals, agriculture, and industry use a lot of water, there is more than enough on the Earth. Water covers about three-fourths of the Earth's surface.

However, 97.4 percent of it is salt water. Three-fourths of the Earth's fresh water is frozen in glaciers and in the great polar ice caps. Most of the water we use (46) _____ from rivers, lakes, and the atmosphere. Less than one percent of the Earth's water is usable, and we use it over and over again.

One of the (47) ______ about water is distribution. Water is not always distributed where the large (48) ______ centers are. Some regions get enough rain, but it is all in one or two short rainy seasons.

Question 44:

A. in

B. without

C. for

D. with

Question 45:

A. quality

B. condition

C. situation

D. characteristics

Question 46:

A. gets

B. arrives

C. goes

D. comes

Question 47:

A. facts

B. things

C. problems

D. cases

Question 48:

A. population

B. men

C. women

D. people

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 49:

A. employer

B. reunite

C. understand

D. recommend

Question 50:

A. study

B. compare

C. eastward

D. frighten

ฤ รกp รกn 1-C

2-B

3-C

4-B

5-D

6-B

7-C

8-A

9-A

10-B

11-A

12-D

13-C

14-B

15-C

16-A

17-C

18-C

19-D

20-C

21-B

22-A

23-C

24-A

25-B

26-A

27-C

28-D

29-D

30-A

31-D

32-C

33-A

34-B

35-C

36-A

37-B

38-B

39-A

40-D

41-B

42-D

43-C

44-B

45-A

46-D

47-C

48-A

49-A

50-B

ĐỀ LUYỆN TẬP SỐ 03 Choose a word in each line that has different stress pattern Question 1:

A. catastropic

B. preservation

C. fertilizer

D. electronic

Question 2:

A. participant

B. individual

C. publicity

D. competitive

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions Question 3: Vietnam exports a lot of rice is grown mainly in the south of the country.

A. exports

B. is grown

C. in

D. of

Question 4: He passed the exam with high scores, that made his parents happy.

A. passed

B. with

C. that

D. happy

Question 5: To attract someone’s attention, we can use either verbal and non-verbal forms of communication.

A. attract

B. can use

C. and non-verbal

D. communication

Choose the word in each group that has the underlined part pronounced differrently from the rest Question 6:

A. fossil

B. session

C. discuss

D. progress

Question 7:

A. talked

B. naked

C. liked

D. asked

Choose the best answer for each of the following sentences Question 8: ___________, no one was absent from the farewell party last night.

A. Heavily as it rained

B. As it rained heavily

C. Though it rains heavily

D. In spite of heavily rain

Question 9: He had changed so much since the last time we met that I ___________ him.

A. could recognize

B. could hardly recognize

C. wouldn’t have recognized

D. don’t recognize

Question 10: Jane cooks well___________she hates washing up afterwards.

A. however

B. therefore

C. so

D. but

Question 11: ___________his brother, Petter is active and friendly.

A. Alike

B. Unlike

C. Dislike

D. Liking

Question 12: Tom’s eyes were red ___________he had been swimming in a chlorinated pool.

A. so

B. but

C. because

D. in case

Question 13: Lucy was late for school this morning because the alarm didn’t ___________as usual.

A. ring off

B. get off

C. go off

D. take off

Question 14: A sudden idea ___________to the cyclist that he might try the new method.

A. occurred

B. happened

C. took place

D. took part

Question 15: She asked me ___________ I was looking at.

A. when

B. if

C. what

D. why

Question 16: We need to import___________from abroad.

A. a great deal of sports equipment

B. many sports equipments

C. a sports equipment

D. many pieces of sports equipment

Question 17: ___________ these books to the library, as they will soon overdue.

A. Bring

B. Take

C. Fetch

D. Leave

Question 18: Larry was so___________in his novel that he forgot about his dinner cooking in the oven.

A. absorbed

B. attracted

C. drawn

D. obliged

Question 19: “Sorry for being late. I was ___________ in the traffic for more than an hour.”

A. carried on

B. held up

C. put off

D. taken after

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to each of the following questions Question 20: I’m sure Luisa was very disappointed when she failed the exam A. Luisa must be very disappointed when she failed the exam.

B. Luisa must have been very disappointed when she failed the exam.

C. Luisa may be very disappointed when she failed the exam.

D. Luisa could have been very disappointed when she failed the exam.

Question 21: “You had better see a doctor if the sore throat does not clear up.” she said to me.

A. She reminded me of seeing a doctor if the sore throat did not clear up.

B. She ordered me to see a doctor if the sore throat did not clear up.

C. She insisted that I see a doctor unless the sore throat did not clear up.

D. She suggested that I see a doctor if the sore throat did not clear up.

Question 22: Without her teacher’s advice, she would never have written such a good essay A. Her teacher advised him and she didn't write a good essay.

B. Her teacher didn't advise her and she didn't write a good essay.

C. She wrote a good essay as her teacher gave her some advice.

D. If her teacher didn't advise her, she wouldnt write such a good essay.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on you answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 23: She tried very hard to pass the driving test. She could hardly pass it.

A. Although she didn't try hard to pass the driving test, she could pass it.

B. Despite being able to pass the driving test, she didn’t pass it.

C. No matter how hard she tried, she could hardly pass the driving test.

D. She tried very hard, so she passed the driving test satisfactorily.

Question 24: Mary loved her stuffed animal when she was young. She couldn’t sleep without it.

A. When Mary was young, she loved her stuffed animal so much that she couldn’t sleep without it.

B. When Mary was young, she loved her stuffed animal so as not to sleep without it.

C. When Mary was young, she loved her stuffed animal though she couldn’t sleep without it.

D. As Mary couldn’t sleep without her stuffed animal when Mary was young, she loved it.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 25: - "Excuse me. Where’s the parking lot?" - “___________” A. Why do you ask me? I don’t know.

B. Do you get lost? I do too.

C. You missed the turn. It’s back that way D. You are going the wrong way. It’s not here.

Question 26: Mary is talking to a porter in the hotel lobby.

- Porter: "Shall I help you with your suitcase?” - Mary: “___________” A. Not a chance.

B. That’s very kind of you.

C. I can’t agree more.

D. What a pity!

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 27: Students are expected to always adhere to school regulations.

A. question

B. violate

C. disregard

D. follow

Question 28: A number of programs have been initiated to provide food and shelter for the underprivileged in the remote areas of the country.

A. rich citizens

B. active members

C. poor inhabitants

D. enthusiastic people

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 29: Driver are advised to get enough petrol because filling stations are few and far between on the highway.

A. easy to find

B. difficult to access

C. unlikely to happen

D. impossible to reach

Question 30: We managed to get to school in time despite the heavy rain.

A. earlier than a particular moment

B. later than expected

C. early enough to do something

D. as long as expected

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the questions.

Understanding India's Caste System It has been said that life is what we make of it. In other words, if we work hard and focus on our goals, we can have great careers and enjoy high status is society. However, these opportunities don’t exist for everyone. In some places, the family you are born into will decide almost everything about your life. India’s caste system is an example of this.

The caste system is a major part of the Hindu religion that has existed for thousands of years. It is a way of organizing and grouping people based on the occupation of the family.

Castes will determine whom people can socialize with and their place in society. Originally, a person’s caste was supposed to be determined by their personality, but over time it has been linked to their job and family.

There are four classes, also known as varnas, in India’s caste system. The highest one is Brahmin. People in this class have jobs in education and religion. These are seen as extremely important functions for the society as they deal with the knowledge. The second highest level is the Kshatriya, or ruling class. People from this group can be soldiers, landowners, or have jobs in politics. The class beneath this is the Vaishya. These people often work in the commercial sector as merchants. The fourth class level is the Shudra. Shudras typically work as unskilled labourers doing factory or farm work, or they may also be employed as artists.

There is another group, the Harijan, that is at the bottom and considered to be outside of the caste system. For many years, they were known as Untouchables, people from this caste held the most undesirable jobs in society, such as cleaning up garbage. Furthermore, they weren’t allowed to pray at public temples or drink water from the same wells as other classes. If someone from another caste came into contact with an Untouchable, they were considered dirty and would be expected to bathe vigorously to clean themselves.

Although the caste system still exists in India, the government is taking steps to improve the living conditions and decrease unemployment rates for the Shudras and Harijan.

This includes providing better health care, offering literacy programmes, and making sure that people from higher social classes do not exploit them. It seems unlikely that the caste system will disappear any time soon, but the overall conditions for those at the bottom do seem to be improving.

Question 31: Which of the following is not true about India’s caste system?

A. The caste system has been used in India for a long time.

B. The Kshatriya is the second highest class.

C. Hard work helps people move up in the caste system.

D. It is possible that a Shudra would work on a farm.

Question 32: The word “this” in paragraph 1 refers to ________.

A. the fact that your origin will mostly decide your future B. the pleasure of life in India C. the India’s caste system existing for thousands of years D. the major part of the Hindu religion Question 33: What is the caste system mainly based on?

A. What a person believes on

B. When a person starts school

C. Who a person’s parents are

D. Where a person was born

Question 34: What kind of job would a Brahmin likely have?

A. A priest

B. A warrior

C. An inventor

D. A painter

Question 35: What could replace the word “ruling” in paragraph 3?

A. defeating

B. guessing

C. delaying

D. governing

Question 36: All of the following are true about the Harijan EXCEPT that ________.

A. they used to be known as Untouchables B. they had to do undesirable jobs in society C. any contact between someone from another caste with an Untouchable was considered unacceptable D. anyone from another caste coming to contact with an Untouchable is not allowed to pray at temples Question 37: What does the passage suggest about the future of the caste system?

A. One day soon it won’t be used anymore in India.

B. It is probably going to get worse before it gets better.

C. The bottom groups will rise to rule over the top classes.

D. It will likely continue to exist for a long time in India.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the questions.

Throughout the world there are different ways for people to greet each other. In much of the world, a handshake is the (38) __________ form of welcoming and greeting someone.

In many countries around the Mediterranean Sea a (39) ___________ kiss on the cheek is the appropriate way to welcome friends and family. It can be a very (40) __________ surprise if you expect to shake hands and get a kiss or a hug instead.

At times, it is difficult to tell what sort of greeting (41) ___________ is followed.

People may bow, grab another’s arm or even slap the other person on the back. In some places people just smile, look at the other’s face and say nothing.

Most people in the world are tolerant of visitors and don’t mind what travellers do that seems wrong as long as the visitors are (42)__________. A big part of the delightfulness of world travel is experiencing different customs.

Question 38:

A. different

B. unique

C. common

D. same

Question 39:

A. light

B. superficial

C. fast

D. heavy

Question 40:

A. huge

B. large

C. big

D. great

Question 41:

A. habit

B. routine

C. custom

D. tradition

Question 42:

A. sincere

B. truthful

C. faithful

D. hopeful

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the questions Humans have struggled against weeds since the beginnings of agriculture. Marring our gardens is one of the milder effects of weeds – any plants that thrive where they are unwanted. They clog waterways, destroy wildlife habitats, and impede farming. Their spread eliminates grazing areas and accounts for one-third of all crop loss. They compete for sunlight, nutrients, and water with useful plants.

The global need for weed control had been answered mainly by the chemical industry.

Its herbicides are effective and sometimes necessary, but some pose serious problems, particularly if misused. Toxic compounds threaten animal and public health when they accumulate in food plants, groundwater, and drinking water. They also harm workers who apply them.

In recent years, the chemical industry has introduced several herbicides that are more ecologically sound. Yet new chemicals alone cannot solve the world’s weed problems.

Hence, scientists are exploring the innate weed-killing powers of living organisms, primarily insects and microorganisms.

The biological agents now in use are environmentally benign and are harmless to humans. They can be chosen for their ability to attack selected targets and leave crops and other plants untouched. In contrast, some of the most effective chemicals kill virtually all the plants they come in contact with, sparing only those that are naturally resistant or have been genetically modified for resistance. Furthermore, a number of biological agents can be administered only once, after which no added applications are needed. Chemicals typically must be used several times per growing season.

Question 43: With what topic does this passage primarily deal?

A. The dangers of toxic chemicals.

B. A proposal to ban the use of all herbicides.

C. The importance of the chemical industry.

D. Advantages of biological agents over chemical ones.

Question 44: The word ‘marring’ in bold is closest in meaning to A. planting

B. spoiling

C. dividing

D. replacing

Question 45: The word ‘clog’ in bold is closest in meaning to A. drain

B. grow along

C. obstruct

D. float on

Question 46: Which of the following terms does the author define in the first paragraph?

A. grazing area

B. weeds

C. nutrients

D. wildlife habitats

Question 47: Which of the following statements about the use of chemical agents as herbicides would the author most likely agree?

A. It has become more dangerous recently.

B. It is occasionally required.

C. It is safe but inefficient.

D. It should be increased.

Question 48: The word ‘innate’ in bold is closest in meaning to A. effective

B. natural

C. active

D. organic

Question 49: The word ‘applications’ in bold could best be replaced by which of the following?

A. treatments

B. requests

C. special purposes

D. qualifications

Question 50: Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?

A. Two possible causes of a phenomenon are compared.

B. A problem is described and possible solutions are discussed.

C. A general idea is introduced and several specific examples are given.

D. A recommendation is analysed and rejected

ฤ รกp รกn 1-C

2-B

3-B

4-C

5-C

6-B

7-B

8-A

9-B

10-D

11-B

12-C

13-C

14-A

15-C

16-A

17-A

18-A

19-B

20-B

21-D

22-C

23-C

24-A

25-D

26-B

27-D

28-C

29-A

30-B

31-C

32-A

33-C

34-A

35-D

36-D

37-D

38-C

39-A

40-C

41-A

42-A

43-D

44-B

45-C

46-B

47-B

48-B

49-A

50-C

ĐỀ LUYỆN TẬP SỐ 4 Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from others Question 1:

A. machine

B. change

C. chalk

D. chocolate

Question 2:

A. maps

B. laughs

C. calls

D. costs

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to identify the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other words in the same group.

Question 3:

A. manage

B. shortage

C. village

D. encourage

Question 4:

A. provide

B. machine

C. lesson

D. important

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions Question 5: He takes four paracetamol everyday, not knowing that will seriously damage his liver A. four paracetamol

B. everyday

C. not knowing

D. that

Question 6: Caroline has worn her new yellow dress only once since she buys it.

A. has worn

B. yellow

C. once

D. buys

Question 7: Ancient people made a clay pottery because they needed it for their survival.

A. a clay

B. because

C. it

D. their survival

Choose the answer among A, B, C, D to complete each of the sentences below: Question 8: Up to now, the teacher _______ our class five tests.

A. gives

B. is giving

C. has given

D. had given

Question 9: Christine ...... have arrived by now, she _______ have missed the bus.

A. can’t / might

B. must/ can’t

C. may/ should

D. should / must

Question 10: What did you have for ______ breakfast this morning?

A. x

B. a

C. an

D. the

Question 11: Stress and tiredness often lead to lack of _______.

A. concentrate

B. concentration

C. concentrated

D. concentrator

Question 12: Sam’s uncle, ______ is very rich, came to visit our orphanage.

A. that

B. who

C. whom

D. whose

Question 13: Do you know that beautiful lady over there?” - “Yes, that’s Victoria. She’s ____ in her group.”

A. more beautiful than any girl

B. more beautiful than any other girl

C. so beautiful as other girl

D. beautiful more than another girl

Question 14: It was ____ easy for him to learn baseball because he had been a cricket player.

A. purposefully

B. exceedingly

C. relatively

D. normally

Question 15: It was found that he lacked the ________ to pursue a difficult task to the very end.

A. persuasion

B. commitment

C. engagement

D. obligation

Question 16: Could you stand_________ for me and teach my English class tomorrow morning, John?

A. up

B. down

C. out

D. in

Question 17: Where’s that _________ dress that your boyfriend gave you?

A. lovely long pink silk

B. lovely pink long silk

C. long pink silk lovely

D. pink long lovely silk

Question 18: I went to a restaurant last night. I was the ten thousandth customer, so my dinner was on the _________ A. holiday

B. house

C. free

D. decrease

Question 19: I can’t stand the car ____________ Therefore, I hate traveling by car.

A. illness

B. sickness

C. ailment

D. disease

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: - Lisa: “Have you been able to reach Peter?” - Gina: “____________” A. That’s no approval

B. Yes, I’ve known him for years

C. No, the line is busy

D. It’s much too high

Question 21: - “Would you bother if I had a look at your paper?” - “____________” A. You’re welcome

B. Well, actually I’d rather you didn’t

C. That’s a good idea

D. Oh, I didn’t realize that

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: The bank announced that it was to merge with another of the high street banks.

A. associate

B. separate

C. cooperate

D. assemble

Question 23: In remote communities, it's important to replenish stocks before the winter sets in.

A. remake

B. empty

C. refill

D. repeat

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is closest in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 24: His new yacht is certainly an ostentatious display of his wealth.

A. showy

B. expensive

C. large

D. ossified

Question 25: After many year of unsuccessfully endeavoring to form his own orchestra, Glenn Miller finally achieved world fame in 1939 as a big band leader.

A. requesting

B. trying

C. offering

D. deciding

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning Question 26: It started to rain at 2 o’clock and it is still raining.

A. It has been raining at 2 o’clock.

B. It has been raining since 2 o’clock

C. It has been raining for 2 o’clock.

D. It has been raining in 2 o’clock.

Question 27: “I will pay back the money, Gloria.” Said Ivan.

A. Ivan apologized to Gloria for borrowing her money.

B. Ivan offered to pay Gloria the money back.

C. Ivan promised to pay back Gloria’s money.

D. Ivan suggested paying back the money to Gloria.

Question 28: Had she read the reference books, she would have been able to finish the test.

A. If she had read the reference books, she could finish the test.

B. Not having read the reference books, she couldn’t finish the test.

C. Although she didn’t read the reference books, she was able to finish the test.

D. Because she read the reference books, she was able to finish the test.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on you answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: He is very intelligent. He can solve all the problems in no time.

A. So intelligent is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.

B. He is very intelligent that he can solve all the problems in no time.

C. An intelligent student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.

D. So intelligent a student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.

Question 30: We cut down many forests. The Earth becomes hot.

A. The more forests we cut down, the hotter the Earth becomes.

B. The more we cut down forests, the hotter the Earth becomes.

C. The more forests we cut down, the Earth becomes hotter.

D. The more we cut down forests, the Earth becomes hotter.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C ,or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the questions.

Many ants forage across the countryside in large numbers and undertake mass migrations; these activities proceed because one ant lays a trail on the ground for the others to

follow. As a worker ant returns home after finding a source of food, it marks the route by intermittently touching its stinger to the ground and depositing a tiny amount of trail pheromone – a mixture of chemicals that delivers diverse messages as the context changes.

These trails incorporate no directional information and may be followed by other ants in either direction.Unlike some other messages, such as the one arising from a dead ant, a food trail has to be kept secret from members of other species. It is not surprising then that ant species use a wide variety of compounds as trail pheromones. Ants can be extremely sensitive to these signals. Investigators working with the trail pheromone of the leafcutter ant Atta texana calculated that one milligram of this substance would suffice to lead a column of ants three times around Earth.

The vapor of the evaporating pheromone over the trail guides an ant along the way, and the ant detects this signal with receptors in its antennae. A trail pheromone will evaporate to furnish the highest concentration of vapor right over the trail, in what is called a vapor space. In following the trail, the ant moves to the right and left, oscillating from side to side across the line of the trail itself, bringing first one and then the other antenna into the vapor space. As the ant moves to the right, its left antenna arrives in the vapor space. The signal it receives causes it to swing to the left, and the ant then pursues this new course until its right antenna reaches the vapor space. It then swings back to the right, and so weaves back and forth down the trail.

Question 31: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The mass migration of ants B. How ants mark and follow a chemical trail C. Different species of ants around the world D. The information contained in pheromones Question 32: The word “intermittently” in line 4 is closest in meaning to A. periodically

B. incorrectly

C. rapidly

D. roughly

Question 33: The phrase “the one” in line 8 refers to a single A. message

B. dead ant

C. food trail

D. species

Question 34: According to the passage, why do ants use different compounds as trail pheromones?

A. To reduce their sensitivity to some chemicals B. To attract different types of ants C. To protect their trail from other species D. To indicate how far away the food is

Question 35: The author mentions the trail pheromone of the leafcutter ant in line 11 to point out A. how little pheromone is needed to mark a trail B. the different types of pheromones ants can produce C. a type of ant that is common in many parts of the world D. that certain ants can produce up to one milligram of pheromone Question 36: According to the passage, how are ants guided by trail pheromones?

A. They concentrate on the smell of food.

B. They follow an ant who is familiar with the trail C. They avoid the vapor spaces by moving in a straight line.

D. They sense the vapor through their antennae.

Question 37: The word “oscillating“ in line 17 is closest in meaning to A. falling

B. depositing

C. swinging

D. starting

Question 38: According to the passage, the highest amount of pheromone vapor is found A. in the receptors of the ants

B. just above the trail

C. in the source of food

D. under the soil along the trail

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions Martin Luther King, Jf., is well- known for his work in civil rights and for his many famous speeches, among which is his moving “ I have a dream” speech. But fewer people know much about King’s childhood. M.L., as he was called, was born in 1929 in Atlanta, Georgia, at the home of his maternal grandfather. M.L.’s grandfather purchased their home on Auburn Avenue in 1909, twenty years before M.L was born. His grandfather allowed the house to be used as a meeting place for a number of organizations dedicated to the education and social advancement of blacks. M.L. grew up in the atmosphere, with his home being used as a community gathering place, and was no doubt influenced by it.

M.L.’s childhood was not especially eventfully. His father was a minister and his mother was a musician. He was the second of three children, and he attended all black schools in a black neighborhood. The neighborhood was not poor, however. Auburn Avenue was an area of banks, insurance companies, builders, jewelers, tailors, doctors, lawyers, and other businesses and services. Even in the face of Atlanta’s segregation, the district thrived.

Dr. King never forgot the community spirit he had known as a child, nor did he forget the racial prejudice that was a huge barrier keeping black Atlantans from mingling with whites.

Question 39: What is the passage mainly about?

A. The prejudice that existed in Atlanta.

B. M.L.’s grandfather

C. Martin Luther King’s childhood.

D. The neighborhood King grew up in

Question 40: When was M.L. born?

A. in 1909

B. in 1929

C. in 1949

D. 20 years after his parents had met.

Question 41: What is Martin Luthur King well- known for?

A. His publications.

B. His neighborhood.

C. His childhood.

D. His work in civil rights.

Question 42: According to the author, M.L. _______.

A. had a difficult childhood.

B. was a good musician as a child C. loved to listen to his grandfather speak.

D. grew up in a relatively rich area of Atlanta.

Question 43: Which of the following statements is NOT true?

A. Auburn was a commercial areas.

B. M.L.’s grandfather built their home on Auburn Avenue in 1909.

C. M. L. grew up in a rich, black neighborhood.

D. M.L.’s childhood was uneventful.

Question 44: From the passage we can infer that: A. M.L.’s father was a church member.

B. people gathered at M.L.’s to perform religious rituals.

C. M.L.’s father purchased their home on Auburn Avenue.

D. M.L. had a bitter childhood.

Question 45: M.L. was _______ by the atmosphere in which he grew up.

A. not affected at all

B. doubted

C. certainly influenced

D. prejudiced

Read the passage and choose the best option to complete each blank.

Any change in one part of an ecosystem can cause changes in other parts. Droughts, storms and fires can change ecosystems. Some changes ____(46)___ ecosystems. If there is too little rainfall, plants will not have enough water to live. If a kind of plant dies off, the animals____(47)___feed on it may also die or move away. Some changes are good for ecosystems. Some pine forests need fires for the pine trees to reproduce. The seeds are sealed inside pinecones. Heat from a forest fire melts the seal and lets the seeds ____(48)___.

Polluting the air, soil, and water can harm ecosystems. Building dams on rivers for electric

power and irrigation can harm ecosystems ____(49)___ the rivers. Bulldozing wetlands and cutting down forests destroy ecosystems. Ecologists are working with companies and governments to find better ways of ___(50)____ fish, cutting down trees, and building dams.

They are looking for ways to get food, lumber, and other products for people without causing harm to ecosystems.

Question 46:

A. harms

B. harmful

C. harmless

D. harm

Question 47:

A. who

B. where

C. that

D. when

Question 48:

A. out

B. in

C. go

D. fly

Question 49:

A. on

B. around

C. over

D. under

Question 50:

A. catching

B. holding

C. carrying

D. taking

ฤ รกp รกn 1-A

2-C

3-D

4-C

5-B

6-D

7-A

8-C

9-D

10-A

11-B

12-B

13-B

14-C

15-B

16-D

17-A

18-B

19-B

20-C

21-B

22-B

23-B

24-A

25-B

26-B

27-B

28-B

29-A

30-A

31-B

32-A

33-A

34-C

35-A

36-D

37-C

38-B

39-C

40-B

41-D

42-D

43-B

44-B

45-C

46-D

47-C

48-A

49-B

50-A

ĐỀ LUYỆN TẬP SỐ 5 Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

"Did you see that?" Joe said to his friend Bill. "You're a great shooter!"

Bill caught the basketball and bounced it before throwing it again. The ball flew into the net.

"Bill, you never miss!" Joe said admiringly.

"Unless I'm in a real game," Bill complained. "Then I miss all the time."

Joe knew that Bill was right. Bill performed much better when he was having fun with Joe in the school yard than he did when he was playing for the school team in front of a large crowd.

"Maybe you just need to practice more," Joe suggested.

"But I practice all the time with you!" Bill objected. He shook his head. "I just can't play well when people are watching me."

"You play well when I'm watching," Joe pointed out.

"That's because I've known you since we were five years old," Bill said with a smile.

"I'm just not comfortable playing when other people are around."

Joe nodded and understood, but he also had an idea.

The next day Joe and Bill met in the school yard again to practice. After a few minutes, Joe excused himself.

"Practice without me," Joe said to his friend. "I'll be back in a minute."

Joe hurried through the school building, gathering together whomever he could find— two students, a math teacher, two secretaries, and a janitor. When Joe explained why he needed them, everyone was happy to help.

Joe reminded the group to stay quiet as they all went toward the school's basketball court. As Joe had hoped, Bill was still practicing basketball. He made five baskets in a row without noticing the silent people standing behind him.

"Hey, Bill!" Joe called out finally.

Bill turned. A look of surprise came over his face.

"I just wanted to show you that you could play well with people watching you," Joe said. "Now you'll have nothing to worry about for the next game!"

Question 1: At the end of the story, all of the following people watch Bill practice EXCEPT _______ A. the basketball coach B. a math teacher

C. a janitor

D. Joe

Question 2: Bill is upset because _______ A. his team loses too many games.

B. he plays better in practice than he does during games.

C. the school yard is not a good place to practice.

D. Joe watches him too closely when he plays.

Question 3: What does Joe decide to gather a group of people for?

A. To have more people see the next game

B. To show them Bill’s talent

C. To get more players for his team

D. To help Bill feel less nervous

Question 4: What would be the best title for the story?

A. Practice Makes Perfect

B. Joe Joins the Team

C. Bill Wins the Big Game

D. Bill's Basketball Problem

Question 5: In line 6, the word performed is closest in meaning to _______ A. played

B. changed

C. moved

D. acted

Question 6: Why does the group have to be quiet when they go to the basketball court?

A. Because they do not want Bill to know they were there B. Because the group needs to listen to Joe’s instructions C. Because Joe is telling Bill what to do D. Because Bill likes to practice alone Question 7: Why does Bill play well when Joe is watching him?

A. He is comfortable with Joe. B. Joe tells him how to play better.

C. He does not know that Joe is there.

D. He wants to prove to Joe that he is a good player.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: _______, she received a big applause.

A. Finished her lecture

B. Speaking has finished

C. After she finishes speaking

D. When the speaker finished

Question 9: Investors were seriously _______ when the stock market began to crash.

A. worried

B. worry

C. worrying

D. worriedly

Question 10: I have been to Ho Chi Minh City_______ of times.

A. a great deal

B. much

C. a lot

D. little

Question 11: I gave him my e-mail address _______ he could keep in touch with me.

A. in order

B. so as

C. that

D. so that

Question 12: The Spratly Islands and the Paracel Islands _______ Vietnam.

A. stand for

B. name after

C. consist of

D. belong to

Question 13: It was in this house _______ I spent my childhood.

A. when

B. where

C. which

D. that

Question 14: The more you work, _______ you can earn.

A. the less promotion

B. the experience

C. the more money

D. the most tired

Question 15: Sarah: Your pictures are beautiful.

Brendon: We _______ more if we had not run out of film.

A. would have taken

B. would take

C. will have taken

D. had taken

Question 16: Researchers are making enormous progress in understanding _______ A. a tsunami is what and what causes it

B. what a tsunami is and what causes it

C. what is a tsunami and what causes it

D. is what a tsunami and what causes it

Question 17: I can't let you in _______ you me give the password.

A. unless

B. in case

C. if

D. as

Question 18: It was _______ an interesting speech that everyone stayed till the end.

A. too

B. very

C. such

D. so

Question 19: During the flood, army helicopters came and tried to evacuate _______ injured.

A. an

B. a

C. the

D. Ø

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

When another old cave is discovered in the south of France, it is not usually news.

Rather, it is an ordinary event. Such discoveries are so frequent these days that hardly anybody pays heed to them. However, when the Lascaux cave complex was discovered in 1940, the world was amazed. Painted directly on its walls were hundreds of scenes showing how people lived thousands of years ago. The scenes show people hunting animals, such as bison or wild cats. Other images depict birds and, most noticeably, horses, which appear in more than 300 wall images, by far outnumbering all other animals.

Early artists drawing these animals accomplished a monumental and difficult task.

“They” did not limit themselves to the easily accessible walls but carried their painting materials to spaces that required climbing steep walls or crawling into narrow passages in the Lascaux complex.

Unfortunately, the paintings have been exposed to the destructive action of water and temperature changes, which easily wear the images away. Because the Lascaux caves have

many entrances, air movement has also damaged the images inside. Although they are not out in the open air, where natural light would have destroyed them long ago, many of the images have deteriorated and are barely recognizable. To prevent further damage, the site was closed to tourists in 1963, 23 years after it was discovered.

Question 20: In line 12, the word “They� refers to _______ A. Walls

B. Animals

C. Materials

D. Artists

Question 21: Based on the passage, what is probably true about the south of France?

A. It is home to rare animals.

B. It is known for horse-racing events.

C. It has attracted many famous artists.

D. It has a large number of caves.

Question 22: Which title best summarizes the main idea of the passage?

A. Hidden Prehistoric Paintings

B. Determining the Age of French Caves

C. Wild Animals in Art

D. Exploring Caves Respectfully

Question 23: Why was painting inside the Lascaux complex a difficult task?

A. It was completely dark inside.

B. The caves were full of wild animals.

C. Many painting spaces were difficult to reach.

D. Painting materials were hard to find Question 24: In line 3, the words pays heed to are closest in meaning to _______ A. watches

B. discovers

C. notices

D. buys

Question 25: What does the passage say happened at the Lascaux caves in 1963?

A. Another part was discovered.

B. Visitors were prohibited from entering.

C. A new entrance was created.

D. A new lighting system was installed.

Question 26: According to the passage, all of the following have caused damage to the paintings EXCEPT _______ A. water

B. temperature changes

C. air movement

D. light

Question 27: According to the passage, which animals appear most often on the cave walls?

A. Horses

B. Bison

C. Birds

D. Wild cats

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 28:

A. species

B. themes

C. medicines

D. plates

Question 29:

A. explored

B. named

C. travelled

D. separated

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 30: The United States is a major influence in the United Nations A. main

B. real

C. minor

D. true

Question 31: More people are now employed in service industries than in manufacturing.

A. jobless

B. having jobs

C. trained

D. vulnerable

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the corresponding sentence to have the same meaning as the original one provided above in each of the following ones.

Question 32: People think the Samba is the most popular dance in Brazil.

A. The Samba is thought to be the most popular dance in Brazil.

B. It is thought that the Samba was the most popular dance in Brazil.

C. It is thought that the Samba is among the most popular dances in Brazil.

D. In Brazil, the Samba is thought to be one of the most popular dances.

Question 33: Our parents join hands to give us a nice house and a happy home.

A. Our parents give hands to give us a nice house and a happy home.

B. Our parents hold hands to give us a nice house and a happy home.

C. Our parents work together to give us a nice house and a happy home.

D. Our parents shake hands to give us a nice house and a happy home.

Question 34: When she received the exam results, she immediately phoned her mom.

A. She immediately phoned her mom that she would receive the exam results.

B. No sooner had she received the exam results than she phoned her mom.

C. No sooner had she phoned her mom than she received the exam results.

D. She received the exam results immediately after she phoned her mom.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions.

Question 35: The bomb exploded in the garage; fortunately no one hurt.

A. taken off

B. went off

C. put on

D. hold up

Question 36: In times of war, the Red Cross is dedicated to reducing the sufferings of wounded soldiers, civilians, and prisoners of war.

A. initiated

B. appalled

C. devoted

D. mounted

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 37:

A. newspaper

B. dedicate

C. timetable

D. commercial

Question 38:

A. between

B. working

C. teacher

D. lovely

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 39: The weather was very hot. The boys continued playing football in the schoolyard.

A. Because of the weather was hot, the boys continued playing football in the schoolyard.

B. Because the hot weather, the boys continued playing football in the schoolyard.

C. In spite of the hot weather, the boys continued playing football in the schoolyard.

D. Despite the weather was hot, the boys continued playing football in the schoolyard.

Question 40: She helped us a lot with our project. We couldn’t continue without her.

A. Unless we had her contribution, we could continue with the project.

B. But for her contribution, we could have continued with the project.

C. If she hadn’t contributed positively, we couldn’t have continued with the project.

D. Provided her contribution wouldn’t come, we couldn’t continue with the project.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.

Question 41: Much people agree that we should protect the environment.

A. Much

B. agree that

C. protect

D. environment

Question 42: What are the differences between women in old times with women in modern times?

A. What

B. the differences

C. with

D. in

Question 43: He failed the final exam last year because his laziness.

A. failed

B. the final exam

C. because

D. laziness

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase for each of the blanks.

Located in central Africa, Lake Victoria is a very unusual lake. __( 44 )__ of the largest lakes in the world; it is also one of the youngest. Estimated to be about 15,000 years old, it is a relative baby compared with Earth’s other very large lakes, __( 45 )__ more than two million years old. Yet judging by the variety of life in it, Lake Victoria __( 46 )__ a much older body of water. Usually, lakes need a much longer time __( 47 )__ by a diverse array of life-forms. It is common for new lakes to contain only a small number of species.

Lake Victoria, however, is packed with colorful fish, most notably, cichlids. There are __( 48 )__ 500 different species of just this one type of fish.

Question 44:

A. Not only is it

B. One is it only not

C. Is it one not only

D. It not only one is

Question 45:

A. are

B. which can be

C. they are

D. which being

Question 46:

A. views

B. likes

C. portrays

D. resembles

Question 47:

A. they are

B. is populated

C. to become

D. becoming

populated

populated

populated Question 48:

A. as many as

B. as many

C. many

D. too many

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable words to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 49: Thang was asking Huong, his classmate, for her opinion about the novel he had lent her. Select the most suitable response to fill in the blank.

Thang: "What do you think about the novel?"

Huong: "_______" A. I wish I could buy one.

B. I can't agree with you more.

C. Yes, let's read it so many times.

D. The best I've ever read!

Question 50: An old gentleman, who is not sure where to go for the summer holiday, is asking a travel agent for advice. Select the most suitable response to fill in the blank.

Gentleman: “Can you recommend any places for this summer holiday?”

Agent: "_______" A. Yes, please go to other agencies B. A package tour to the Spratly Islands would be perfect, sir C. I don’t think you could afford a tour to Singapore, sir D. No, you cannot recommend any places Đáp án 1-A

2-B

3-D

4-D

5-A

6-A

7-A

8-D

9-A

10-C

11-D

12-D

13-D

14-C

15-A

16-B

17-A

18-C

19-C

20-D

21-D

22-A

23-C

24-C

25-B

26-A

27-A

28-D

29-D

30-C

31-A

32-A

33-C

34-B

35-B

36-C

37-D

38-A

39-C

40-C

41-A

42-C

43-C

44-A

45-B

46-D

47-C

48-A

49-D

50-B

ĐỀ LUYỆN TẬP 6 Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks.

Researchers in communication show that more feelings and intentions are (1) _______ and received nonverbally than verbally. Mehrabian and Wienerfollowing have stated that only 7% (2) _______ message is sent through words, with remaining 93% sent nonverbal (3) _______. Humans use nonverbal communication because: 1. Words have limitations: There are (4) _______ areas where nonverbal communication is more (5) v than verbal, especially when we explain the shape, directions, personalities which are expressed nonverbally.

2. Nonverbal signal are powerful: Nonverbal cues primarily express inner (6) _______ while verbal messages deal basically with outside world.

3. Nonverbal message are likely (7) _______ more genuine: because nonverbal behaviors cannot be controlled as easily as spoken words.

4. Nonverbal signals can express feelings inappropriate to state: Social etiquette limits (8) _______ can be said, but nonverbal cues can communicate thoughts.

5. A separate communication channel is necessary to (9) _______ send complex messages: A speaker can add enormously to the complexity of the verbal message through simple nonverbal (10) _______.

Question 1:

A. mailed

B. posted

C. sent

D. thrown

Question 2:

A. through

B. off

C. in

D. for

Question 3:

A. expressions

B. thoughts

C. gestures

D. postures

Question 4:

A. sum

B. great deal

C. numerous

D. amount

Question 5:

A. effect

B. effectiveness

C. effectively

D. effective

Question 6:

A. words

B. feelings

C. shows

D. sorrows

Question 7:

A. be

B. being

C. been

D. to be

Question 8:

A. why

B. that

C. what

D. when

Question 9:

A. help

B. have

C. make

D. get

Question 10:

A. signs

B. sight

C. signals

D. signatures

Choose the correct sentence which has the same meaning as the given one Question 11: The USA is a country of high youth unemployment.

A. We find high youth unemployment a problem in the USA. B. It is the USE that has a great number of young people.

C. High youth unemployment is found in the USA. D. The USA is a country of young people.

Question 12: My mother is very busy at work but she takes good care of her children.

A. In spite of being busy at work, my mother takes good care of her children.

B. My mother takes good care of her children but she is very busy at work.

C. Though my mother was very busy at work my mother took good care of her children.

D. Although my mother was very busy at work she did not take good care of her children.

Question 13: “You’d better think carefully before applying for that job.” She said to me.

A. She said me to think carefully before applying for that job.

B. She says me to think carefully before applying for that job.

C. She advise me to think carefully before applying for that job.

D. She advised me to think carefully before applying that job.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following.

Question 14: School uniform is compulsory in most of Vietnamese schools.

A. depended

B. required

C. divided

D. paid

Question 15: Whenever problems come up, we discuss them frankly and find solutions quickly.

A. clean

B. encounter

C. arrive

D. happen

Pick out the word that has primary stress different from that of other words Question 16: A. holiday

B. adventure

C. industry

D. certainly

Question 17: A. finish

B. pastime

C. summe

D. begin

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 18: Fill each of the blank below with a suitable word from the reading passage.

A. unimportant

B. irrelevant

C. uninteresting

D. impossible

Question 19: Why did parents oppose to the ideas of sending their children to the special class at first?

A. unlimited

B. everyday

C. normal

D. undefined

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentence in the following questions.

Question 20: The plants may develop differently. The plants live on that island.

A. The plants which live on that island may develop differently.

B. The plants live on that island may develop differently.

C. The plants which lives on that island may develop differently.

D. The plants which live that island may develop differently.

Question 21: Some kinds of fish live in fresh water. Others live in sea water.

A. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, for others live in sea water.

B. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, and others live in sea water.

C. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, or others live in sea water.

D. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, so others live in sea water.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Body postures and movements are frequently indicators of self-confidence, energy, fatigue, or status. Cognitively, gestures operate to clarify, contradict, or replace verbal messages. Gestures also serve an important function with regard to regulating the flow of conversation. For example, if a student is talking about something in front of the class, single nods of the head from the teacher will likely cause that student to continue and perhaps more elaborate. Postures as well as gestures are used to indicate attitudes, status, affective moods, approval, deception, warmth, arid other variables related to conversation interaction.

The saying “A picture is worth a thousand words” well describes the meaning of facial expressions. Facial appearance – including wrinkles, muscle tone, skin coloration, and eye color-offers enduring cues that reveal information about age, sex, race, ethnic origin, and status.

A less permanent second set of facial cues-including length of hair, hairstyle, cleanliness, and facial hairrelate to an individual’s idea of beauty. A third group of facial markers are momentary expressions that signal that cause changes in the forehead, eyebrows, eyelids, cheeks, nose, lips, and chin, such as raising the eyebrows, wrinkling the brow, curling the lip.

Some facial expressions are readily visible, while others are fleeting. Both types can positively or negatively reinforce the spoken words and convey cues concerning emotions and attitudes.

Question 22: Facial expressions __________.

A. cannot convey emotions

B. cannot reinforce spoken words

C. can only express negative attitudes

D. can be either visible or fleeting

Question 23: Gestures __________.

A. can do nothing with a conversation B. can clarify the meaning of verbal messages

C. may interrupt the flow of a conversation D. can end a conversation more quickly than usual Question 24: According to the writer, “A picture is worth a thousand words” means __________.

A. a picture of a face is more valuable than a thousand words B. a picture is more important than a thousand words C. facial gestures can convey a lot of meanings D. he has just bought a picture with a thousand words on it Question 25: How many categories of facial expressions are mentioned?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

Question 26: A nod of the head from the teacher will likely ask his student to __________ what he is saying.

A. go on

B. give up

C. put off

D. throwaway

Question 27: We can _______ not only through words but also through body language.

A. talk

B. transfer

C. interpret

D. communicate

Question 28: Since I wanted to get the bill, I tried to attract waiter’s _______.

A. eye

B. agreement

C. assistant

D. attention

Question 29: Her relatives didn’t do anything to help her, and her friends _______.

A. didn’t neither

B. didn’t too

C. didn’t either

D. did too

Question 30: They are close-knit family and very _______ of one another.

A. supportive

B. support

C. supported

D. supporting

Question 31: You can drive my car _______ you drive carefully.

A. unless

B. because

C. as long as

D. although

Question 32: Primary education is a stage of study _______ children age from 5 to 11 years old.

A. to

B. for

C. in

D. with

Question 33: The school year in Vietnam _______ divided into two terms.

A. was

B. are

C. is

D. is being

Question 34: Neither the students nor the lecturer _______ English in the classroom.

A. use

B. since

C. when

D. after

Question 35: _______ I moved in my new apartment, my neighbors have come to my house twice.

A. because

B. since

C. when

D. after

Question 36: Helen’s parents was very pleased when they read her school _______.

A. report

B. papers

C. diploma

D. account

Question 37: Eating and living in this country is becoming _______ expensive.

A. more and more

B. too

C. less

D. so

Question 38: The wedding day was _______ chosen by the parents of the groom.

A. careless

B. careful

C. carelessly

D. carefully

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 39: While the Brows were away on holiday, their house was broke into.

A. the

B. were

C. away

D. broke into

Question 40: Difference conversation efforts have been made in order to saving endangered species.

A. Difference

B. have been made

C. saving

D. endangered species

Question 41: There have been a report of several bombings by terrorist group.

A. have been

B. several

C. bombings

D. terrorist

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 42: – “Would you like some more tea?” – “_______” A. Yes, please

B. Yes, thanks

C. No, thank

D. No, please

Question 43: “That’s a nice dress you are wearing” – “_______” A. I’m glad you like it

B. That’s alright

C. That’s nice

D. You’re quite right

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

“Where is the university?” is a question many visitors to Cambridge ask, but no one can give them a clear answer, for there is no wall to be found around the university. The university is the city. You can find the classroom buildings, libraries, museums and offices of the university all over the city. And most of its members are the students and teachers or professors of the thirty-one colleges. Cambridge is already a developing town long before the first students and teachers arrived 800 years ago. It grew up by the river Granta, as the Cam was once called. A bridge was built over the river as early as 875.

In the fourteenth and fifteenth centuries, more and more land was used for college buildings. The town grew faster in the nineteenth century after the opening of the railway in 1845. Cambridge became a city in 1951 and now it has the population of over 100000. Many

young students want to study at Cambridge. Thousands of people from all over the world come to visit the university town. It has become a famous place all around the world.

Question 44: Why did people name Cambridge the “city of Cambridge”?

A. Because the river was very well-known.

B. Because there is a bridge over the Cam..

C. Because it was a developing town.

D. Because there is a river named Granta.

Question 45: From what we read we know that now Cambridge is _______.

A. visited by international tourists

B. a city without wall

C. a city of growing population

D. a city that may have a wall around

Question 46: Around what time did the university begin to appear?

A. In the 8th century

B. In the 13th century

C. In the 9th century

D. In the 15th century

Question 47: Why do most visitors come to Cambridge?

A. To see the university B. To study in the colleges in Cambridge C. To find the classroom buildings D. To use the libraries of the university Question 48: After which year did the town really begin developing?

A. 800

B. 875

C. 1845

D. 1951

Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.

Question 49:

A. depends

B. years

C. temples

D. parents

Question 50:

A. filled

B. missed

C. ploughed

D. watched

Đáp án 1-C

2-A

3-A

4-C

5-D

6-B

7-D

8-C

9-A

10-C

11-C

12-A

13-D

14-B

15-D

16-B

17-D

18-B

19-C

20-A

21-B

22-D

23-B

24-C

25-B

26-A

27-D

28-D

29-C

30-A

31-C

32-B

33-C

34-B

35-B

36-A

37-A

38-D

39-D

40-C

41-A

42-A

43-A

44-B

45-A

46-B

47-A

48-C

49-D

50-A

ĐỀ LUYỆN TẬP 7 Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 1 to 8.

Accustomed though we are to speaking of the films made before 1927 as “silent”, the film has never been, in the full sense of the word, silent. From the very beginning, music was regarded as an indispensable accompaniment; when the Lumiere films were shown at the first public film exhibition in the United States in February 1896, they were accompanied by piano improvisations on popular tunes. At first, the music played bore no special relationship to the films; an accompaniment of any kind was sufficient. Within a very short time, however, the incongruity of playing lively music to a solemn film became apparent, and film pianists began to take some care in matching their pieces to the mood of the film.

As movie theaters grew in number and importance, a violinist, and perhaps a cellist, would be added to the pianist in certain cases, and in the larger movie theaters small orchestras were formed. For a number of years the selection of music for each film program rested entirely in the hands of the conductor or leader of the orchestra, and very often the principal qualification for holding such a position was not skill or taste so much as the ownership of a large personal library of musical pieces. Since the conductor seldom saw the films until the night before the y were to be shown (if, indeed, the conductor was lucky enough to see them then), the musical arrangement was normally improvised in the greatest hurry.

To help meet this difficulty, film distributing companies started the practice of publishing suggestions for musical accompaniments. In 1909, for example, the Edison Company began issuing with their films such indications of mood as “pleasant’, “sad”, “lively”. The suggestions became more explicit, and so emerged the musical cue sheet containing indications of mood, the titles of suitable pieces of music, and precise directions to show where one piece led into the next.

Certain films had music especially composed for them. The most famous of these early special scores was that composed and arranged for D. w. Griffith’s film Birth of a Nation, which was released in 1915.

Question 1: It may be inferred from the passage that the first musical cue sheets appeared around _______ .

A. 1896

B. 1909

C. 1915

D. 1927

C. pieces

D. hands

Question 2: The word “them” refers to _______ .

A. films

B. years

Question 3: Which of the following notations is most likely to have been included on a musical cue sheet of the early 1900's?

A. “Key of c major”

B. “Directed by D. w. Griffith”

C. “Calm, peaceful”

D. “Piano, violin”

Question 4: According to the passage, what kind of business was the Edison Company?

A. It published musical arrangements.

B. It made musical instruments.

C. It distributed films.

D. It produced electricity.

Question 5: The passage mainly discusses music that was _______ .

A. performed before the showing of a film B. played during silent films C. specifically composed for certain movie theaters D. recorded during film exhibitions Question 6: The word “composed” is closest in meaning to _______ .

A. selected

B. combined

C. played

D. created

Question 7: The word “scores” most likely mean _______ .

A. successes

B. totals

C. groups of musicians

D. musical compositions

Question 8: It can be inferred that orchestra conductors who worked in movie theaters needed to _______ .

A. be able to compose original music

B. have pleasant voices

C. be able to play many instruments

D. be familiar with a wide variety of music

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 9 to 20 Question 9: My mother always tells me _______ .

A. not to leaves your shoes on the carpet

B. don’t leave my shoes on the carpet

C. not leave my shoes on the carpet

D. not to leave my shoes on the carpet

Question 10: The people who _______ the survey said that they had examined over 1,000 accidents.

A. proceed

B. gave

C. set

D. conducted

Question 11: If you had taken my advice, you _______ _______ in such difficulties now.

A. wouldn't be

B. hadn't been

C. won't be

D. wouldn't have been

Question 12: I think your mother should let you _______ your own mind.

A. to make up

B. make up

C. making up

D. made up

Question 13: She is looking _______ a new place to live because she does not want to depend on her parents anymore.

A. up

B. at

C. for

D. after

Question 14: Ask her to come and see me as soon as she _______ her work.

A. finished

B. finish

C. has finished

D. finishing

Question 15: You are old enough to take _______ for what you have done.

A. irresponsible

B. responsible

C. responsibility

D. responsibly

Question 16: He asked his sister _______ .

A. where she would go the following day

B. where she will go tomorrow

C. where would she go the next day

D. where will she go the next day

Question 17: Families in the Western world _______ very much in the last 100 years.

A. has changed

B. have changed

C. changed

D. had changed

Question 18: By the end of this year, my father _______ in this company for 12 years.

A. has been working

B. will have been working

C. will work

D. has worked

Question 19: Many young people have objected to _______ marriage, which is decided by the parents of the bride and groom.

A. sacrificed

B. contractual

C. agreed

D. shared

Question 20: _______ large number of teachers agree that daily homework is necessary for students.

A. An

B. 0

C. The

D. A

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlinedpart that needs correction in each of the following questions from 21 to 23.

Question 21: According to geological discoveries. 4.6-billion-vears life span of our planet is divided into four time intervals called eras.

A. geological discoveries

B. 4.6-billion-vears

C. is

D. into

Question 22: They are planning on attending the convention _______ next month, and so I am.

A. so I am

B. and

C. planning

D. on attending

Question 23: Air pollution, together with littering, have been causing many problems in our large, industrial cities in the last few years.

A. with

B. in our large

C. many

D. have been

Mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the sentences from 24 to 25 Question 24: That is a well-hehaved boy whose behaviour has nothing to complain about.�

A. behaving nice

B. good behavior

C. behaving improperly

D. behaving cleverly

Question 25: It's not polite to ask Americans questions about their age, marriage or income.

A. unfriendly

B. discourteous

C. unacceptable

D. nice

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions from 26 to 28.

Question 26: The noise next door did not stop until after midnight.

A. It was not until after midnight that the noise next door stopped.

B. Not until after midnight did the noise next door stopped.

C. The noise next door stopped at midnight.

D. It was midnight that the noise next door stopped.

Question 27: This is the first time I have ever gone out for a picnic.

A. I have gone out for a picnic this time.

B. I have ever gone out for a picnic.

C. I have never gone out for a picnic before.

D. I had never gone out for a picnic before.

Question 28: He started working as an engineer 5 years ago.

A. He has worked as an engineer for 5 years.

B. He was working as an engineer 5 years ago.

C. He didn’t work as an engineer any more.

D. He has started working as an engineer since 5 years ago.

Read passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 29 to 33.

We can (29) _______ other people in many different ways. We can talk and write, and we can send messages with our hands and faces. There is also the phone (including the mobile!), the fax, and e-mail. Television, film, painting, and photography can also communicate ideas.

Animals have ways of exchanging information, too. Bees dance and tell other bees where (30) _______ food. Elephants make sounds that humans can’t hear. Whales sing songs.

Monkeys use their faces to show anger and love. But this is nothing (31) _______ to what people can do. We have language - about 6,000 languages, in fact. We can write poetry, tell jokes, make promises, explain, persuade, tell the truth, or tell lies. And we have a sense of past and future, not just present.

Radio, film, and television (32) _______ a huge influence on society in the last hundred years. And now we have the Internet, which is infinite. But what is this doing to this? We can give and get a lot of information very quickly. But there is (33) _______ information that it is difficult to know what is important and what isn’t. Modem media is changing our world every minute of every day.

Question 29:

A. talk to

B. talk with

C. communicate to

D. communicate with

Question 30:

A. finding

B. found

C. to find

D. they find

Question 31:

A. compare

B. comparing

C. is compared

D. compared

Question 32:

A. have

B. have had

C. are having

D. had

Question 33:

A. so much

B. such much

C. so many

D. too much

Mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the sentences from 34 to 35.

Question 34: Sports and festivals form an integral part of every human society.

A. informative

B. delighted

C. important

D. exciting

Question 35: Billy, come and give me a hand with cooking.

A. help

B. prepared

C. attempt

D. be busy

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions from 36 to 37.

Question 36: Anna jogs every morning. It is very good for her health.

A. Anna jogs every morning that is very good for her health.

B. Anna jogs every morning, which is very good for her health C. Anna jogs every morning and then it is good for her health.

D. Anna jogs every morning and is good for her health.

Question 37: Jack took a taxi. However, he still arrived late for class.

A. Although Jack took a taxi, but he still arrived late for class.

B. Taking a taxi, Jack arrived late for class.

C. Because Jack took a taxi, he arrived late for class.

D. In spite of taking a taxi, Jack still arrived late for class.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges from 38 to 39.

Question 38: Tom: I thought your tennis game was a lot better today, Tony.

Johny: _______ ! I thought it was terrible.

A. No, I don’t think so

B. You can say that again

C. Thanks! Same to you

D. You’ve got to be kidding

Question 39: John: “I think that a happy marriage should be based on love.”

- Rachel: “ _______ .”

A. Yes. I completely agree with you

B. Thank you.

C. No, it shouldn’t.

D. You think so?

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 40 to 46.

At the beginning of the nineteenth century, the American educational system was desperately in need of reform. Private schools existed, but only for the very rich. There were very few public schools because of the strong sentiment that children who would grow up to be laborers should not “waste” their time on education but should instead prepare themselves for their life’s work. It was in the face of this public sentiment that educational reformers set about their task. Horace Mann, probably the most famous of the reformers, felt that there was no excuse in a republic for any citizen to be uneducated. As Manager of Education in the state of Massachusetts from 1837 to 1848, he initiated various changes, which were soon matched in other school districts around the country. He extended the school year from five to six months and improved the quality of teachers by instituting teacher education and raising teacher salaries. Although these changes did not bring about a sudden improvement in the educational system, they at least increased public awareness as to the need for a further strengthening of the system.

Question 40: The passage implied that to go to a private school, a student needed _______ .

A. a lot of money

B. a high level of intelligence

C. good grades

D. a strong educational background

Question 41: According to the passage, Horace Mann wanted a better educational system for Americans because _______ .

A. Massachusetts residents needed something to do with their spare time B. there was no excuse in a republic for any citizen to be uneducated C. education at the time was so cheap D. people had nothing else to do except go to school Question 42: The word “reformers” in the passage mostly means _______ .

A. people who really enjoy teaching B. people who believe that education is wasted C. people who work for the government D. people who try to change things for the better Question 43: From 1837 to 1848, Horace Mann _______ .

A. worked as a headmaster in a school in the state of Massachusetts B. funded many projects to improve the educational system for Americans C. managed education in the state of Massachusetts D. raised money for the educational development in Massachusetts Question 44: The word “salaries” is closest in meaning to _______ .

A. money

B. wages

C. school fee

D. cost

Question 45: The word “they” in the passage refers to _______ .

A. these changes

B. sudden improvement

C. educational system

D. public awareness

Question 46: According to the passage, which sentence is NOT TRUE? A. Horace Mann was a famous US educational reformer.

B. Horace Mann brought about changes in many schools in the US. C. Horace Mann began raising teachers’ salaries.

D. Horace Mann suggested schools prepare children for their life’s work.

Mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions from 47 to 48 Question 47: A. bride

B. obliged

C. determine

D. require

Question 48: A. speaks

B. photographs

C. halves

D. bats

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the words that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions from 49 to 50 Question 49: A. possible

B. attention

C. responsible

D. supportive

Question 50: A. household

B. secure

C. arrive

D. attract

Đáp án 1-B

2-A

3-C

4-C

5-B

6-D

7-D

8-D

9-D

10-D

11-A

12-B

13-C

14-C

15-C

16-A

17-B

18-B

19-B

20-D

21-B

22-A

23-D

24-C

25-B

26-A

27-C

28-A

29-D

30-C

31-D

32-B

33-A

34-C

35-A

36-B

37-D

38-A

39-A

40-A

41-B

42-D

43-C

44-B

45-A

46-D

47-C

48-C

49-A

50-A

ĐỀ LUYỆN TẬP 8 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. laughed

B. sacrificed

C. cooked

D. explained

Question 2:

A. airports

B. ways

C. questions

D. pictures

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the followings.

Question 3: It takes me 15 minutes to get ready.

A. to prepare

B. to wake up

C. to go

D. to get

Question 4: Few businesses are flourishing in the present economic climate.

A. taking off

B. setting up

C. growing well

D. closing down

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 5:

A. verbal

B. signal

C. common

D. attract

Question 6:

A. biologist

B. certificate

C. academic

D. curriculum

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the blanks Owning a pet The joys and tribulations of being a pet owner! During our lifetime most of us have some experience of either owning a pet or being in (7) _______ contact with someone who does. Is there such a things as “the ideal pet”? If so what characterizes the ideal pet? Various (8) _______ influence one’s choice of pet, from your reasons for getting a pet to your lifestyle. For example, although quite a few pets are relatively cheap to buy, the cost of upkeep can be considerable. Everything must be (9) _______ into account, from food and bedding, to vaccinations and veterinary bills. You must be prepared to (10) _______ time on your pet, which involves shopping for it, cleaning and feeling it. Pets can be demanding and a big responsibility. Are you prepared to exercise and housetrain an animal or do you prefer a more independent pet? How much spare room do you have? Is it right to lock an energetic animal into a confined space? Do you live near a busy road which may threaten the life of your pet? Pets such as turtles and goldfish can be cheap and convenient, but if you prefer affectionate pets, a friendly cat or dog would be more (11) Question 7:

A. near

B. close

C. narrow

D. tight

Question 8:

A. facets

B. elements

C. factors

D. points

Question 9:

A. considering

B. held

C. taken

D. kept

Question 10:

A. take

B. waste

C. occupy

D. spend

Question 11:

A. suited

B. appropriate

C. likely

D. good

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Because writing has become so important in our culture, we sometimes think of it as more real than speech. A little thought, however, will show why speech is primary and writing secondary to language. Human beings have been writing at least 5,000 years, but they have been talking for much longer, doubtless ever since there have been human beings.

When writing developed, it was derived from and represented speech, although imperfectly.

Even today, there are spoken languages that have no written form. Furthermore, we all learn to talk well before we learn to write; any child who is not severely handicapped physically or mentally will learn to talk: a normal man cannot be prevented from doing so. On the other hand, it takes a special effort to learn to write; in the past, many intelligent and useful members of society did not acquire the skill, and even today many who speak languages with writing systems never learn to read or write while some who learn the rudiments of those skills do so imperfectly.

To affirm the primacy of speech over writing is not to disparage the later. One advantage writing has over speech is that it is more permanent and makes possible the records that any civilization must have. Thus, if speaking makes us human, writing makes us civilized.

Question 12: According to paragraph 1, the author of the passage argues that _______ A. writing has become too important in today's society.

B. speech is more basic to language than writing.

C. everyone who learns to speak must learn to writing.

D. all languages should have a written form.

Question 13: The word “doubtless” in the passage mostly means _______ .

A. “almost uncertainly”

B. “almost certainly”

C. “almost impossibly”

D. “almost doubtly”

Question 14: According to the passage, writing _______ .

A. is imperfect, but less than speech

B. represents speech, but not perfectly

C. developed from imperfect speech

D. is represented perfectly by speech

Question 15: In order to show that learning to write requires effort, the author gives the example of _______ .

A. people who learn the rudiments of speech B. people who speak many languages C. intelligent people who couldn't write D. severely handicapped children Question 16: The word “acquire” in the passage mostly means _______ .

A. “help somebody learn something by giving information about it” B. “gain something by our own efforts or ability” C. “become aware of something by hearing about it” D. “develop a natural ability or quality so that it improves” Question 17: The word “disparage” in the passage mostly means _______ .

A. “think that something is more important” B. “make something seem more important” C. “think about something carefully” D. “suggest that something is not important or valuable” Question 18: In the author's judgment _______ .

A. writing has more advantages than speech B. speech is essential but writing has important benefits C. speech conveys ideas less accurately than writing does D. writing is more real than speech.

Question 19: According to the author, one mark of a civilized society is that if _______ .

A. affirms the primacy of speech over writing B. affirms the primacy of writing over speech C. teaches its children to speak perfectly D. keeps written records Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

After two decades of growing student enrollments and economic prosperity, business schools in the United States have started to face harder times. Only Harvard's MBA School has shown a substantial increase in enrollment in recent years. Both Princeton and Stanford have seen decreases in their enrollments. Since 1990, the number of people receiving Masters in Business Administration (MBA) degrees, has dropped about 3 percent to 75,000, and the trend of lower enrollment rates is expected to continue.

There are two factors causing this decrease in students seeking an MBA degree. The first one is that many graduates of four-year colleges are finding that an MBA degree does

not guarantee a plush job on Wall Street, or in other financial districts of major American cities. Many of the entry-level management jobs are going to students graduating with Master of Arts degrees in English and the humanities as well as those holding MBA degrees.

Students have asked the question, "Is an MBA degree really what I need to be best prepared for getting a good job?" The second major factor has been the cutting of American payrolls and the lower number of entry-level jobs being offered. Business needs are changing, and MBA schools are struggling to meet the new demands.

Question 20: What is the main focus of this passage?

A. jobs on Wall Street B. types of graduate degrees C. changes in enrollment for MBA school D. how schools are changing to reflect the economy Question 21: The phrase "two decades" in line 1 refers to a period of _______.

A. 10 years

B. 20 years

C. 50 years

D. 100 years

Question 22: The word "prosperity" in line 1 could be best replaced by which of the following?

A. success

B. surplus

C. nurturing

D. education

Question 23: Which of the following business schools has NOT shown a decrease in enrollment?

A. Princeton

B. Harvard

C. Stanford

D. Yale

Question 24: As used in paragraph 2, the word "seeking" could best be replaced by which of the following?

A. examining

B. avoiding

C. seizing

D. pursuing

Question 25: According to the passage, what are two causes of declining business school enrollments?

A. lack of necessity for an MBA and an economic recession B. low salary and foreign competition C. fewer MBA schools and fewer entry-level jobs D. declining population and economic prosperity Question 26: Which of the following might be the topic of the next paragraph?

A. MBA schools' efforts to change B. future economic predictions C. a history of the recent economic changes D. descriptions of non-MBA graduate programs

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the followings.

Question 27: We left New York when I was six, so my recollections of it are rather faint.

A. explicable

B. unintelligible

C. clear

D. ambiguous

Question 28: I can’t stand people who treat animals cruelly.

A. gently

B. cleverly

C. reasonably

D. brutally

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 29: Because the highway system was built 40 years ago , most of the roads now need to repair.

A. Because

B. was built

C. most of

D. to repair

Question 30: Pointing in someone is usually considered impolite but it is acceptable when a teacher wants to get someone’s attention in class.

A. Pointing in

B. impolite

C. when

D. to get

Question 31: It is vitally important that she takes this medication night and morning.

A. vitally

B. that

C. takes

D. medication

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the original sentence in each of the following questions.

Question 32: If it hadn’t been for his carelessness, we would have finished the work.

A. He was careless because he hadn’t finished the work.

B. If her were careful, we would finish the work.

C. If he had been more careful, we would have completed the work.

D. Because he wasn’t careless, we didn’t finish the work.

Question 33: Neil always forgets his wife’s birthday.

A. At no time Neil remembers his wife’s birthday.

B. Neil never remembers his wife’s birthday.

C. Neil sometimes remembers his wife’s birthday.

D. Neil remembers his wife’s birthday all the time.

Question 34: “I'll drop you from the team if you don't train harder,” said the captain to John.

A. The captain urged that John should train harder in order not to drop out.

B. The captain threatened to drop John from the team unless he trained harder.

C. John was reminded to train harder so as not to dropping from the team.

D. The captain promised to drop John from the team in case he trains harder.

Question 35: He was exhausted after a long trip. However, he helped me to repair my broken chair.

A. Although he helped me to repair my broken chair, he was exhausted after a long trip.

B. Exhausted after a long trip as he was, he helped me to repair my broken chair.

C. Because he helped me to repair my broken chair after a long trip, he was exhausted.

D. Exhausted after a long trip though he helped me to repair my broken chair.

Question 36: She wasn’t wearing a seat-belt. She was injured.

A. If she hadn’t been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t have been injured.

B. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she would have been injured.

C. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t be injured.

D. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t have been injured.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 37: - Jack: “Excuse me, but could I trouble you for some change?”

- Alex: “ _______ . Will pennies do?”'

A. I know

B. Never mind

C. I am sure

D. Let me see

Question 38: - Waiter: “May I take your order now, sir?”

- Mr. Smith: “ _______ .”'

A. Thanks, I’ve really had enough

B. Ok, here is my bill

C. Yes, I’d like some fish and chips

D. Sure, it’s delicious

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 39: Children who are isolated and lonely seem to have poor language and _______ A. communicate

B. communication

C. communicative

D. communicato

Question 40: He managed to win the race _______ hurting his foot before the race.

A. in spite of

B. despite of

C. although

D. because of

Question 41: Only when you become a real parent _______ the real responsibility.

A. will you understand

B. you will understand

C. you can understand

D. you understand

Question 42: Mrs. Pike was so angry that she made a gesture at the driver.

A. rude

B. rudeness

C. rudely

D. rudest

Question 43: By the end of the 21st century, scientists _______ a cure for the common cold.

A. will find

B. will have found

C. will be finding

D. will have been finding

Question 44: Why are you still here? You _______ been helping Dianne in the yard.

A. must have

B. would have

C. Might have

D. should have

Question 45: More than ten victims _______ missing in the severe storm last week.

A. are reported to be

B. are reported to have been

C. are reporting to have been

D. are reporting to be

Question 46: The greater the demand, _______ the price.

A. the highest

B. the high

C. higher

D. the higher

Question 47: A.lot of different conservation efforts have been made to _______ endangered species A. save

B. kills

C. make

D. do

Question 48: This woman has _______ her whole life to helping others.

A. spent

B. dedicated

C. used

D. contributed

Question 49: He asked me _______.

A. since when I’m waiting

B. how long I have been waiting

C. how long I had been waiting

D. since when I waited

Question 50: _______ ten minutes earlier, you would have got a better seat.

A. Had you arrived

B. If you arrived

C. Were you arrived

D. If you hadn’t arrived Đáp án

1-D

2-A

3-A

4-C

5-D

6-C

7-B

8-C

9-C

10-D

11-B

12-B

13-B

14-B

15-C

16-B

17-D

18-B

19-D

20-C

21-B

22-A

23-B

24-D

25-A

26-A

27-C

28-A

29-D

30-A

31-C

32-C

33-B

34-

35-D

36-D

37-D

38-C

39-B

40-A

41-A

42-A

43-B

44-D

45-B

46-D

47-A

48-B

49-C

50-A

ĐỀ LUYỆN TẬP 9 Mark the letter A,B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 1: It isn't just that the level of education of this school is high. It's that it's also been consistent for years.

A. The standard of education is not high in this school, but at least all the students are at the same level.

B. Not only are the standards of education good in this school, but it has maintained those standards over the years.

C. It isn't fair to deny that this school is successful, as it has had the same high standards for many years now.

D. The level of education in this school, which is usually quite high, shows only slight variations from year to year.

Question 2: She tried very hard to pass the driving test. She could hardly pass it.

A. Despite being able to pass the driving test, she didn’t pass it.

B. No matter how hard she tried, she could hardly pass the driving test.

C. She tried very hard, so she passed the driving test satisfactorily.

D. Although she didn’t try hard to pass the driving test, she could pass it.

Question 3: “You had better see a doctor if the sore throat does not clear up”, she said to me.

A. She ordered me to see a doctor if the sore throat did not clear up.

B. She insisted that I see a doctor unless the sore throat did not clear up.

C. She suggested that I see a doctor if the sore throat did not clear up.

D. She reminded me of seeing a doctor if the sore throat did not clear up.

Question 4: Without her teacher‘s advice, she would never have written such a good essay.

A. Her teacher didn‘t advise her and she didn‘t write a good essay.

B. If her teacher didn‘t advise her, she wouldn‘t write such a good essay.

C. If her teacher didn‘t advise her, she wouldn‘t write such a good essay.

D. Her teacher advised him and she didn‘t write a good essay.

Question 5: He shouldn't have forgotten that yesterday was his wife’s birthday.

A. He had a birthday which his wife forgot.

B. Yesterday, he remembered when his wife's birthday was.

C. He failed to remember the date of his wife's birthday.

D. His wife forgot her own birthday.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 6: It’s a really difficult matter to decide how to solve now. I will need time to think it twice A. to think it over

B. to make it better

C. to make up for it

D. to think out of time

Question 7: He insisted on listening to the entire story.�

A. part

B. funny

C. whole

D. interesting

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 8: The news has been greeted with dismay by local business leaders.

A. disappoinment

B. depression

C. happiness

D. pessimism

C. refill

D. repeat

Question 9: Allow me to fill your glass A. remake

B. empty

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrases that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Most Americans eat three meals (10) ______ the day: breakfast, lunch, and dinner.

Breakfast begins between 7:00 and 8:00am, lunch between 11:00 am and noon, and dinner between 6:00 and 8:00 pm. On Sundays "brunch" is a (11) ______ of breakfast and lunch, typically beginning at 11:00 am. Students often enjoy a "study break" or evening snack around 10:00 or 11:00 pm. Breakfast and lunch tend to be light meals, with only one course.

Dinner is the main meal.

For breakfast Americans will eat cereal with milk which are often mixed (12) ______ in a bowl, a glass of orange juice, and toasted bread or muffin with jam, butter, or margarine.

Another common breakfast meal is scrambled eggs or an omelet with potatoes and breakfast meat (bacon or sausage). People who are on a diet eat just a cup of yogurt.

Lunch and dinner are more (13) ______. When eating at a formal dinner, you may be overwhelmed by the number of utensils. How do you (14) ______ the difference between a salad fork, a butter fork, and a dessert fork? Most Americans do not know the answer. But knowing which fork or spoon to use first is simple: use the outermost utensils first and the utensils closest to the plate last.

Question 10:

A. in

B. for

C. on

D. during

Question 11:

A. addition

B. connection

C. combination

D. attachment

Question 12:

A. each other

B. together

C. one another

D. others

Question 13:

A. vary

B. variety

C. varied

D. various

Question 14:

A. say

B. talk

C. speak

D. tell

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 15:

A. condition

B. option

C. suggestion

D. relation

Question 16:

A. acquaintance

B. acquire

C. admirable

D. arrival

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 17:

A. economics

B. regulation

C. individual

D. inspection

Question 18:

A. evolution

B. comprehend

C. speculation

D. explosive

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 19: Tom looks so frightened and upset. He _________ something terrible.

A. must experience

B.can have experienced

C. should have experienced

D. must have experienced

Question 20: The job requires certain _________ . You have to be good at operating computers and dealing with people.

A. qualificatons

B. knowledge

C. techniques

D. skills

Question 21: Hana and Jenifer are talking about a book they have just read.

- Hana: “The book is really interesting and educational.”

- Jenifer: “_________ .

A. I’d love it

B. That’s nice of you to say so

C. I couldn’t agree with you more

D. Don’t mention it

Question 22: “Excuse me. Where is the _________ office of UNICEF Vietnam located?”

A. leading

B. head

C. summit

D. central

Question 23: He really deserved the award because he performed _________ what was expected of him.

A. much better which

B. the most that

C. much more as

D. much better than

Question 24: If you _________ less last night, you _________ so bad today.

A. had drunk - would not have felt

B. drank - would not felt

C. had drunk - would not feel

D. Don’t mention it

Question 25: After his illness, Robert had to work hard to _________ his classmates A. catch sight of

B. keep pace with

C. get in touch with

D. make allowance for

Question 26: Do you know the woman who is wearing the _________ ?

A. gold watch very old valuable

B. very valuable old gold watch

C. old gold watch very valuable

D. very old gold valuable watch

Question 27: The accident is believed _________ 2 years ago.

A. to be investigated

B. to have investigted

C. to investigate

D. to have been investigated

Question 28: _________ our children may be, we can not go picnic in this weather A. Though excited

B. Excited as

C. Because of excitement

D. Exciting

Question 29: _________ our children may be, we can not go picnic in this weather A. had

B. have

C. has

D. to have

Question 30: We went away on holiday last week , but it rained _________ .

A. every other day

B. every single day

C. every two days

D. every second day

Question 31: I felt over when I was riding and my sister had to _________ a doctor.

A. call on

B. bring

C. take

D. fetch

Question 32: Long lost his job _________ no fault of his own.

A. through

B. by

C. it

D. over

Question 33: _________ that she stormed out of the house.

A. Such was angry girl

B. So angry was she

C. She was angry so

D. Her anger was so

Question 34: _________ over long distances is a fact that everyone knows.

A. That electricity transmitting

B. That electricity can be transmitted

C. That electricity

D. That can be transmitted

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Stars have been significant features in the design of many United States coins and their number has varied from one to forty-eight stars. Most of the coins issued from about 1799 to the early years of the twentieth century bore thirteen stars representing the thirteen original colonies.

Curiously enough, the first American silver coins, issued in 1794, had fifteen stars because by that time Vermont and Kentucky has joined the Union. At that time it was apparently the intention of mint officials to add a star for each new state. Following the admission of Tennessee

in 1796, for example, some varieties of half dimes, dimes, and half-dollars were produced with sixteen starts. As more states were admitted to the Union, however, it quickly became apparent that this scheme would not prove practical and the coins from A798 on were issued with only thirteen stars-one for each ofthe original colonies. Due to an error at the mint, one variety of the A828 half cent was issued with only twelve stars. There is also a variety of the large cent with only A2 stars, but this is the result of a die breakand is not a true error.

Question 35: What is the main topic of the passage?

A. Stars on American coins.

B. The teaching of astronomy in state universities.

C. The star as national symbol of the United States.

D. Colonial stamps and coins.

Question 36: The word “their” in line 1 refers to _______.

A. coins

B. features

C. colonies

D. stars

Question 37: The word “bore” in line 3 is closest in meaning to ________ .

A. carried

B. drilled

C. symbolized

D. cost

Question 38: The expression “Curiously enough” is used because the author finds it strange that_______ A. Silver coins with fifteen stars appeared before coins with thirteen.

B. Vermont and Kentucky joined the Union in 1794.

C. Tennessee was the first state to use half dimes.

D. No silver coins were issued until 1794.

Question 39: Which of the following can be inferred about the order in which Kentucky, Tennessee, and Vermont joined the Union?

A. Vermont joined after Tennessee and Kentucky.

B. Kentucky joined before Tennessee and Vermont.

C. Tennessee joined Vermont and Kentucky.

D. Vermont and Kentucky joined at the same time.

Question 40: Why was a coin produced in 1828 with only twelve stars?

A. There was a change in design policy.

B. There were twelve states at the time.

C. The mint made a mistake.

D. Tennessee had left the Union.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 41: Alike other forms of energy, natural gas may be used to heat homes, cook food, and even run automobiles.

A. Alike

B. may be used

C. heat homes

D. run

Question 42: The federal government recommends that all expectant women will avoid place where other people smoke.

A. recommends that

B. expectant

C. will avoid

D. smoke

Question 43: The United States come top of the list of countries ranked by economic performances.

A. come

B. the list

C. ranked

D. economic

Question 44: The man, of whom the red car is parked in front of our house, is a prominent physician in this town.

A. of whom the

B. is parked

C. of our house

D. is a

Question 45: Almost poetry is more enjoyable when it is read aloud.

A. Almos

B. is more

C. enjoyable

D. it is

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

In the past, both men and women were expected to be married at quite young ages.

Marriages were generally arranged by parents and family, with their children having little chance to say no in the matter. In the past, it was not surprising to find that a bride and groom had only just met on the day of their engagement or marriage. In modern Vietnam, this has changed completely as people choose their own marriage-partners based on love, and in consideration primarily to their own needs and wants. Moreover early marriage is quite illegal.

The traditional Vietnamese wedding is one of the most important of traditional Vietnamese occasions. Regardless of westernization, many of the age-old customs practiced in a traditional Vietnamese wedding continue to be celebrated by both Vietnamese in Vietnam and overseas, often combining both western and eastern elements. Besides the wedding ceremony, there is also an engagement ceremony which takes place usually half a year or so before the wedding. The number of guests in attendance at these banquets is huge, usually in the hundreds.

Several special dishes are served. Guests are expected to bring gifts, often money, which the groom and bride at one point in the banquet will go from table to table collecting.

Question 46: In the past, _________.

A. Vietnamese couples were free to make a decision on the marriage B. Vietnamese marriage was decided by parents and family C. getting married at an early age was not allowed

D. parents had no right to interfere their children's marriage Question 47: In former days, the fact that a bride and groom had only first met just on the day of their engagement or marriage was _________.

A. surprising

B. popular

C. uncommon

D. strange

Question 48: Which sentence is referred Vietnamese modern marriage?

A. Most young people do not have their marriage based on love.

B. All marriages are arranged by parents and family.

C. Marriage is quite westernization.

D. Couples do not get married at quite young ages.

Question 49: According to the passage, __________.

A. Oversea Vietnamese people do not like to organize a traditional wedding B. There is an engagement ceremony which takes place usually half a year or so before the wedding C. Many of the age-old customs practiced in a traditional Vietnamese wedding do not exist nowadays D. Vietnamese people never ask a fortune teller the date and time of the marriage ceremony Question 50: Which does not exist in a Vietnamese wedding party?

A. dishes

B. firecrackers

C. guests

D. gifts

Ä?ĂĄp ĂĄn 1-B

2-B

3-C

4-C

5-C

6-A

7-C

8-C

9-B

10-D

11-C

12-B

13-C

14-D

15-C

16-C

17-D

18-D

19-C

20-D

21-C

22-B

23-D

24-C

25-B

26-B

27-D

28-B

29-B

30-B

31-C

32-A

33-B

34-B

35-A

36-D

37-B

38-A

39-D

40-A

41-C

42-A

43-A

44-A

45-B

46-B

47-D

48-D

49-B

50-B

ĐỀ LUYỆN TẬP 10 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions.

Question 1: Everyone is hoping and praying that lasting peace will eventually come to the area.

A. durable

B. ongoing

C. temporary

D. enduring

Question 2: Before you begin the exam paper, always read the instructions carefully.

A. orders

B. answers

C. rules

D. direction

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 3: Last year, ABBA made a ____ of seberal million crowns.

A. win

B. gain

C. salary

D. profit

Question 4: If you like asking, there's a ski ____ under an hour's driving from Madrid.

A. resort

B. station

C. place

D. port

Question 5: He's very ____ about his private life. He's goy no secrets.

A. trustworthy

B. direct

C. open

D. sincere

Question 6: Even though they don't agree with what's happening, they're too ____ to protest.

A. apathetic

B. subdued

C. quiet

D. outgoing

Question 7: Though I didn't want my son to leave home since he was twenty-one, there was nothing I could do to ____ it.

A. hinder

B. resist

C. prevent

D. cease

Question 8: She noticed ____ away from the house.

A. him to run

B. him running

C. his running

D. him run

Question 9: George has ____; he loves cakes, chocolate, ice- cream- anything which is sweet.

A. a sweet mouth

B. sweet lips

C. a sweet tooth

D. a sweet tongue

Question 10: She's so ____; you really have to watch you say or she'll walk out of the room.

A. high and dry

B. prim and proper

C. rough and ready

D. sick and tired

Question 11: You've all ____ the point. The film itself is not racist – it simply tries to make us question our own often racist attitude.

A. mistaken

B. misunderstood

C. missed

D. lost

Question 12: ____ one or more units of living substance called protoplasm.

A. Although all living things that consist of

B. All living things consisting of

C. All living things consist of

D. In all living things consisting of

Question 13: The production of tin ore in the United States is relatively insignificant, ____ less than one hundred tons annually.

A. amount to

B. in the amount

C. amount to it

D. to the amount of

Question 14: It all happened so quickly, one minute I was making chips and the next the whole kitchen was ____ fire!

A. at

B. on

C. by

D. in

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase for each of the blanks from 15 to 19 About 50 or so kinds modern plastic are made from oil, gas, or coal-non-renewable natural resources. We (15)___ well over three million tons of the stuff in Japan each year and, sooner or later, most of it is thrown away. A high proportion of our animal consumption is in the (16)____ of packaging and this constitutes about seven percent by weight, of our domestic(17) ____ . Almost all of it can be recycled, but very little of it is, though the plastic recycling industry is growing fast. The plastics themselves are extremely energy - rich – they have a higher calorific(18) ____ than coal and one methodn of “recovery” strongly (19)____ by plastic manufacturers if the conversion of waste plastic into a fuel.

Question 15:

A. consign

B. import

C. consume

D. remove

Question 16:

A. form

B. way

C. type

D. kind

Question 17:

A. goods

B. refuse

C. rubble

D. requirements

Question 18:

A. effect

B. degree

C. value

D. demand

Question 19:

A. argued

B. presented

C. desired

D. favored

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 20 to 25.

FIRST TIME IN THE AIR When John Mills was going to fly in an aeroplane for the first time, he was frightened.

He did not like the idea of being thousands of feet up in the air. “ I also didn't like the fact that I wouldn't be in control,” says John.

“I'm a terrible passenger in the car. When somebody else is driving, I tell them what to so. It drives everybody crazy.”

However John couldn't avoid flying any longer. It was the only way he could visit his grandchildren in Canada. “I had made up my mind that I was going to do it, I couldn't let my son, his wife and their three children travel all the way here to visit me. It would be so

expensive for them and I know Tom's business isn't doing so well at the moment – it would also be tiring for the children – it's a nine-hour flight!” he says.

To get ready for the flight John did lots of reading about aeroplanes. When he booked his seat, he was told that he would be flying on a Boeing 747, which is better known as a jumbo jet. “I needed to know as much as possible before getting in that plane. I suppose it was a way of making myself feel better. The Boeing 747 is the largest passenger aircraft in the world at the moment. The first one flew on February 9th 1969 in the USA. It can carry up to 524 passengers and 3.400 pieces of luggage. The fuel for aeroplanes is kept in the wings and the 747 is wings are so big that they can carry enough fuel for an average car to be able to travel 16,000 kilometres a year for 70 years. Isn't that unbelievable? Even though I had discovered all this very interesting information about the jumbo, when I saw it for the first time, just before I was going to travel to Canada, I still couldn't believe that something so enormous was going to get up in the air and fly. I was even more impressed when I saw how big it was inside with hundreds of people!”

The biggest surprise of all for John was the flight itself. “The take-off itself was much smoother than I expected although I was still quite scared until we were in the air. In the end, I managed to relax, enjoy the food and watch one of the movies and the view from the window was spectacular. I even managed to sleep for a while! Of course,” continues John, “the best reward of all was when I arrived in Canada and saw my son and his family, particularly my beautiful grandchildren. Suddenly, I felt so silly about all the years when I couldn't even think of getting on a plane. I had let my fear of living stop me from seeing the people I love most in the world. I can visit my son and family as often as I like now!”

Question 20: Why did John Mills fly in an aeroplane?

A. He wanted to go on holiday

B. He wanted to try it.

C. He wanted to see his family

D. He had to travel on business.

Question 21: Why did John read about aeroplane?

A. He wanted to know how they work.

B. It was his hobby.

C. It made him feel safer.

D. He had found a book on them.

Question 22: What happened when he saw the jumbo jet for the first time?

A. He felt much safer.

B. He liked the shape of it.

C. He couldn’t believe how big it was.

D. He thought the wings were very small.

Question 23: How did John feel when the aeroplane was taking off?

A. excited

B. happy

C. sad

Question 24: What surprised John most about the flight?

D. frightened

A. that he liked the food.

B. that he was able to sleep

C. that there was a movie being shown

D. that the view was good

Question 25: How did John feel about his fears in the end?

A. He thought he had wasted time being afraid.

B. He realized it was okay to be afraid.

C. He hoped his grandchildren weren’t afraid of flying.

D. He realized that being afraid kept him safe.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 26 to 34.

Although noise, commonly defined as unwanted sound, is a widely recognized form of pollution, it is very difficult to measure because the discomfort experienced by different individuals is highly subjective and, therefore, variable. Exposure to lower levels of noise may be slightly irritating, whereas exposure to higher levels may actually cause hearing loss.

Particularly in congested urban areas, the noise produced as a by-product of our advancing technology causes physical and psychological harm, and detracts from the quality of life for those who are exposed to it.

Unlike the eyes, which can be covered by the eyelids against strong light, the ear has no lid, and is, therefore, always open and vulnerable; noise penetrates without protection. Noise causes effects that the hearer cannot control and to which the body never becomes accustomed. Loud noises instinctively signal danger to any organism with a hearing mechanism, including human beings. In response, heartbeat and respiration accelerate, blood vessels constrict, the skin pales, and muscles tense. In fact, there is a general increase in functioning brought about by the flow of adrenaline released in response to fear, and some of these responses persist even longer than the noise, occasionally as long as thirty minutes after the sound has ceased. Because noise is unavoidable in a complex, industrial society, we are constantly responding in the same way that we would respond to danger. Recently, researchers have concluded that noise and our response may be much more than an annoyance. It may be a serious threat to physical and psychological health and well-being, causing damage not only to the ear and brain but also to the heart and stomach. We have long known that hearing loss is America's number one nonfatal health problem, but now we are learning that some of us with heart disease and ulcers may be victims of noise as well.

Fetuses exposed to noise tend to be overactive, they cry easily, and they are more sensitive to gastrointestinal problems after birth. In addition, the psychic effect of noise is very important. Nervousness, irritability, tension, and anxiety increase affecting the quality of rest

during sleep, and the efficiency of activities during waking hours, as well as the way that we interact with each other.

Question 26: Which of the following is the author’s main point?

A. Hearing loss is America's number one nonfatal health problem.

B. Loud noises signal danger.

C. Noise may pose a serious threat to our physical and psychological health.

D. The ear is not like the eye.

Question 27: According to the passage, what is noise?

A. byproduct of technology

B. Physical and psychological harm

C. Congestion.

D. Unwanted sound.

Question 28: Why is noise difficult to measure?

A. All people do not respond to it in the same way B. It causes hearing loss.

C. It is unwanted.

D. People become accustomed to it.

Question 29: The word congested in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by _ A. hazardous

B. crowded

C. polluted

D. rushed

Question 30: The word it in the first paragraph refers to ___.

A. the quality of life

B. advancing technology

C. the noise

D. physical and psychological harm

Question 31: According to the passage, people respond to loud noises in the same way that they respond to ___.

A. annoyance

B. danger

C. damage

D. disease

Question 32: Look at the verb accelerate in paragraph 3. Which of the following is the closest in meaning to _____.

A. decrease

B. alter

C. increase

D. release

Question 33: The phrase as well in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ___.

A. after all

B. instead

C. also

D. regardless

Question 34: It can be inferred from the passage that the eye ___.

A. responds to fear

B. enjoys greater protection than the ear

C. increases functions

D. is damaged by noise

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentences that is closest in meaning to each of the following question.

Question 35: Wouldn't it better to let them know about the alternations to the plan?

A. Why haven't they have been informed about the new development?

B. Shouldn't they have been consulted before the scheme was changed?

C. Don't they think they should be informed about the changes in the plan?

D. We'd better ask them to change the plan, hadn't we?

Question 36: Don't take any notice of all his complaints about his health; there's nothing wrong with him.

A. You can ignore all his talk of being ill; he's actually perfectly healthy.

B. Try to avoid the subject of his health as I am tired of hearing all about his complaints.

C. Don't listen to him talking about his health; it's his favorite subject.

D. If you let him, he would talk only about his ill- health though actually he is quite healthy.

Question 37: We had planned to walk right round the lake, but the heavy rain made this impossible.

A. In spite of the heavy rain we managed to walk half way round the lake as planned.

B. The heavy rain nearly prevented us from walking right round the lake.

C. We would have walked right round the lake even if it had rained heavily.

D. If it hadn’t rained so heavily, we would have walked right round the lake Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 38: The doctor's records must be kept thorough and neatly so as to insure good book – keeping.

A. thorough

B. neatly

C. so as to

D. good

Question 39: Rabbit and hares look much like and are often mistaken for each other.

A. look

B. like

C. mistaken for

D. each other

Question 40: In the United States among 60 percent of the space on the pages of newspapers is reserved for advertising.

A. among

B. of the space

C. is reserved

D. advertising

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 41: The traffic is so heavy. It will take us at least an hour to get there.

A. Unless the traffic is heavy, it will take us at least an hour to get there.

B. As the traffic is so heavy, it will take us at least an hour to get there, C. The traffic was so heavy that it took us an hour to get there.

D. We will spend more than an hour to get there to avoid heavy traffic.

Question 42: There were no poor performance. Moreover, that of the Russian dancers was certainly the best.

A. The best performance was the one of the Russians while some of the others were poor.

B. The Russian dancers were well- worth watching but the others weren’t.

C. All the dancers but the Russian performed poorly.

D. They all danced well, but the Russian did the best.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions Question 43:

A. rhetoric

B. dynamic

C. climatic

D. phonetic

Question 44:

A. medieval

B. malarial

C. mediocre

D. magnificent

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 45:

A. moment

B. monument

C. slogan

D. quotient

Question 46:

A. bother

B. worthy

C. weather

D. wealthy

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable answer to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 47: Anne: “ Fancy a bite to eat?”

Barbara: “_____” A. No thanks, I've just had some.

B. No thanks, I've just had something.

C. No thanks, I'm not neatly very thirsty.

D. No thanks, I'm trying to give up.

Question 48: Receptionist: “ Good morning.”

Chris: “ Good morning. I’ve come to ____ Mrs. Dabria.”

A. see

B. visit

C. do business with

D. hold a talk with

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 49: He is over the moon about his examination result.

A. stressed

B. very sad

C. very happy

D. satisfied

Question 50: The only means of access to the station is through a dark subway.

A. arrival

B. admission

C. outlet

D. output

ฤ รกp รกn 1-D

2-D

3-D

4-A

5-C

6-A

7-C

8-B

9-A

10-B

11-C

12-A

13-D

14-B

15-B

16-A

17-B

18-C

19-D

20-C

21-A

22-C

23-D

24-B

25-A

26-C

27-D

28-A

29-B

30-C

31-B

32-D

33-C

34-B

35-C

36-A

37-D

38-B

39-B

40-A

41-B

42-D

43-A

44-C

45-B

46-D

47-C

48-A

49-B

50-C

ĐỀ LUYỆN TẬP 11 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. stagnant

B. tableland

C. survive

D. swallow

Question 2:

A. quality

B. solution

C. compliment

D. energy

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. coach

B. goat

C. toad

D. broad

Question 4:

A. laughs

B. mouths

C. slopes

D. presidents

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: The architects have made _______ use of glass and transparent plastic.

A. imaginative

B. imagine

C. imagination

D. imaginatively

Question 6: Your brother hardly talks to anyone, _______?

A. does he

B. is he

C. doesn’t he

D. isn’t he

Question 7: Only after she had finished the course did she realize she _____ a wrong choice.

A. had made

B. has made

C. had been making

D. was making

Question 8: You looked exhausted. I think you’ve _______ more than you can handle.

A. turned on

B. taken up

C. turned up

D. taken on

Question 9: You need to make ______ about what course to take at university.

A. a decision

B. a fortune

C. a guess

D. an impression

Question 10: They _________ tired now because they _________ in the garden since 8 o’clock.

A. are / worked

B. were / were working

C. are / have been working

D. were / worked

Question 11: We have bought some _________.

A. German lovely old glasses

B. German old lovely glasses

C. lovely old German glasses

D. old lovely German glasses

c

Question 12: I enjoy _________ busy. I don’t like it when there is nothing _________.

A. being / to do

B. to be / doing

C. to be / to do

D. being / doing

Question 13: He sent his children to the park so that he could have some _________.

A. fresh and quiet

B. quiet and peace

C. peace and quiet

D. fresh and peace

Question 14: He was the last man _________ the ship.

A. who leave

B. to leave

C. leaving

D. left

Question 15: The local were not very friendly towards us, in fact there was a distinctly _________ atmosphere.

A. hostile

B. offensive

C. rude

D. abrupt

Question 16: I _________ to see Chris on my way home.

A. dropped back

B. dropped in

C. dropped out

D. dropped off

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.

Question 17: The way the care-taker treated those little children was deplorable. She must be punished for what she did.

A. respectable

B. unacceptable

C. mischievous

D. satisfactory

Question 18: At times, I look at him and wonder what is going on his mind.

A. Never

B. Always

C. Hardly

D. Sometimes

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 19: At first, no one believed she was a pilot, but her documents lent colour to her statements.

A. provided evidence for

B. got information from

C. borrowed color from

D. gave no proof of

Question 20: The nominating committee always meet behind closed doors, lest its deliberations become known prematurely.

A. privately

B. safely

C. publicly

D. dangerously

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 21: Mike an Joe are talking about transport in the future.

- Mike: “Do you think there will be pilotless planes?”

- Joe: “_____” A. I’m afraid I can’t.

B. What for? There are quite a few around.

C. Why not? There have been cars without drivers.

D. I’m glad you like it.

Question 22: John is in Hanoi and wants to change some money. He asks the local passer-by the way to the bank. Choose the most suitable response to fill in the blank in the following exchange. c

- John: “Can you show me the way to the nearest bank, please?” - Passer-by: “_______.”

A. Not way, sorry

B. Just round the corner over there

C. Look it up in a dictionary!

D. There’s no traffic near here

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.

I had never been to Denmark before, so when I set out to catch the ferry in early May, I little suspected that by the end of the trip I'd have made such lasting friendships. Esjberg is a (23) ________ port for a cyclist's arrival, where tourist information can be obtained and money changed. A cycle track leads (24) ________ town and down to Ribe, where I spent my first night. The only appointment I had to keep was a meeting with a friend who was flying out in June. I wanted to use my time well, so I had planned a route which would include several small islands and various parts of the countryside.

In my (25) ________, a person travelling alone sometimes meets with unexpected hospitality, and this trip was no (26) ________. On only my second day, I got into conversation with a cheerful man who turned out to be the local baker. He insisted that I should join his family for lunch, and, while we were eating, he contacted his daughter in Odense. Within minutes, he had (27) ________ for me to visit her and her family. Then I was sent on my way with a fresh loaf of bread to keep me going and the feeling that this would turn out to be a wonderful holiday.

Question 23:

A. capable

B. ready

C. favorable

D. convenient

Question 24:

A. in to

B. up ward

C. out of

D. upon

Question 25:

A. information

B. experience

C. knowledge

D. observation

Question 26:

A. exception

B. difference

C. change

D. contract

Question 27:

A. fixed

B. ordered

C. settled

D. arranged

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to ndicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Millions of people are using cellphones today. In many places, it is actually considered unusual not to use one. In many countries, cellphones are very popular with young people.

They find that the phones are more than a means of communication - having a mobile phone shows that they are cool and connected.The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professionals worried. Some doctors are concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems from the use of mobile phones. In England, there has been a serious debate about this issue. Mobile phone companies are worried about the negative publicity of such ideas. They say that there is no proof that mobile phones are bad for your health.

On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people who use mobile phones. Signs of change in the tissues of the brain and head can be detected with modern scanning equipment. In one case, a traveling salesman had to retire at young age because of serious memory loss. He couldn't remember even simple tasks. He would often forget the name of his own son. This man used to talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every day of his working week, for a couple of years. His family doctor blamed his mobile phone use, but his employer's doctor didn't agree.

What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High-tech machines can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone companies agree that there is some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to worry about.

As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it's best to use mobile phones less often. Use your regular phone if you want to talk for a long time. Use your mobile phone only when you really need it. Mobile phones can be very useful and convenient, especially in emergencies. In the future, mobile phones may have a warning label that says they are bad for your health. So for now, it's wise not to use your mobile phone too often.

Question 28:The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.

A. doctors

B. ideas

C. professionals

D. companies

Question 29:The phrase “negative publicity” in paragraph 2 most likely means _______.

A. poor ideas about the effects of cellphones B. information on the lethal effects of cellphones C. the negative public use of cellphones D. widespread opinion about bad effect of cellphones Question 30:According to the passage, cellphones are very popular with young people because_______.

A. they make them look more stylish B. they are worrying

C. they are a means of communication D. they are considered unusual Question 31:What could be the most suitable title for the passage?

A. Technological Innovations and Their Price B. The Way Mobile Phones Work C. Mobile Phones: A Must of Our Time D. The Reasons Why Mobile Phones Are Popular Question 32:The word “potentially” in paragraph 4 is closet in meaning to _______.

A. possibly

B. privately

C. obviously

D. certainly

Question 33:According to the passage, people should _______.

A. only use mobile phones in medical emergencies B. never use mobile phones in all cases C. only use mobile phone in urgent cases D. keep off mobile phones regularly Question 34:According to paragraph 3, the salesman _______.

A. couldn’t remember his name

B. blamed his doctor

C. had a problem with memory

D. had to retire because of his age

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

In my experience, freshmen today are different from those I knew when I started as a counselor and professor 25 years ago. College has always been demanding both academically and socially. But students now are less mature and often not ready for the responsibility of being in college. It is really too easy to point the finger at parents who protect their children from life’s obstacle. Parents, who handle every difficulty and every other responsibility for their children writing admission essays to picking college courses, certainly may contribute to their children’s lack of coping strategies. But we can look even more broadly to the social trends of today.

How many people do you know who are on medication to prevent anxiety or depression?

The number of students who arrive at college already medicated for unwanted emotions has increased dramatically in the past 10 years. We, as a society, don’t want to “feel” anything unpleasant and we certainly don’t want our children to “suffer”.

The resulting problem is that by not experiencing negative emotions, one does not learn the necessary skills to tolerate and negotiate adversity. As a psychologist, I am well aware of the

fact that some individuals suffer from depression and anxiety and can benefit from treatment, but I question the growing number of medicated adolescents today.

Our world is more stressful in general because of the current economic and political realities, but I don’t believe that the college experience itself is more intense today than that of the past 10 years. What I do think is that many students are often not prepared to be young “adults” with all the responsibilities of life.

What does this mean for college faculty and staff? We are required to assist in the basic parenting of these students – the student who complains that the professor didn’t remind her of the due date for an assignment that was clearly listed on the syllabus and the student who cheats on an assignment in spite of careful instructions about plagiarism.

As college professors, we have to explain what it means to be an independent college student before we can even begin to teach. As parents and teachers we should expect young people to meet challenges. To encourage them in this direction, we have to step back and let them fail and pick themselves up and move forward. This approach needs to begin at an early age so that college can actually be a passage to independent adulthood.

Question 35:According to the writer, students today are different from those she knew in that they are ____________.

A. too ready for college

B. not as mature

C. not so academic

D. responsible for their work

Question 36:The word “handle” in paragraph 2 mostly means ____________.

A. deal with

B. gain benefits from C. lend a hand to

D. point at

c

Question 37:According to the writer, students’ difficulties to cope with college life are partly due to ____________.

A. the absence of parents’ protection

B. the lack of parental support

C. the over-parenting from parents

D. the lack of financial support

Question 38:The phrase “on medication” in paragraph 3 is similar in meaning to ________.

A. studying medicine at college

B. doing medical research

C. receiving medical treatment

D. suffering anxiety from depression

Question 39:Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage?

A. College faculty and staff are required to help in the parenting of problematic students.

B. The college experience itself is more intense today than that of the past 10 years.

C. Our world is more stressful because of the current economic and political situation.

D. Our society certainly doesn’t want our children to experience unpleasant things.

Question 40: tudents who are not well – prepared to be young “adults” with all the responsibilities of life will need ______.

A. to be assigned more housework from adults B. to be given more social responsibilities C. to be encouraged to meet challenges D daily coaching from their teachers Question 41: Acording to the writer, failure in life and less support from parents will ______.

A. help students to learn to stand on their own feet B. allow students to learn the first lesson in their lives C. defeat students from the very beginning D. discourage students and let them down forever Question 42: What is probably the writer’s attitude in the passage?

A. Praising

B. Indifferent

C. Humorous

D. Critical

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43: Tom’s jokes are inappropriate but we have to put up with it just because he’s the boss.

A. inappropriate

B. it

C. because

D. the

Question 44: We always have believed that honesty is the best policy in personal as well as professional matters.

A. always have believed

B. best policy

C. personal

D. professional

Question 45: Sometimes all it take is a few minutes to help you and your family members feel more in touch with each other.

A. all it take

B. to help

C. feel

D. in touch with

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46: The car was very expensive and he couldn’t afford it.

A. The car was very expensive so that he couldn’t buy it.

B. The car was too expensive for him to buy.

C. He was rich enough to buy the car.

D. He was so poor but he bought the car.

Question 47: “Please send me to a warm climate” Tom said.

A. Tom pleaded with the boss to send him to a warm climate.

B. Tom begged the boss to send him to a warm climate.

C. Tom would rather went to a warm climate.

D. Tom asked his boss to go to a warm climate.

Question 48: He expected us to offer him the job.

A. We were expected to be offered him the job.

B. He expected to be offered the job.

C. He is expected that we should offer him the job.

D. He was offered the job without expectation.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: Julie had a training course in alternative medicine. She was able to help the man out of danger.

A. Much as Julie had a training course in alternative medicine, she was able to help the man out of danger.

B. Having trained in alternative medicine, Julie was able to help the man out of danger.

C. But for a training course in alternative medicine, Julie could have helped the man out of danger.

D. Despite training in alternative medicine, Julie was able to help the man out of danger.

Question 50: The plan may be ingenious. It will never work in practice.

A. Ingenious as it may be, the plan will never work in practice.

B. Ingenious as may the plan, it will never work in practice.

C. The plan may be too ingenious to work in practice.

D. The plan is as impractical as it is genius. Đáp án 1-C

2-B

3-D

4-A

5-A

6-A

7-A

8-B

9-A

10-C

11-C

12-A

13-C

14-B

15-A

16-B

17-B

18-D

19-D

20-C

21-C

22-B

23-D

24-C

25-A

26-A

27-D

28-D

29-B

30-A

31-A

32-A

33-C

34-C

35-B

36-A

37-C

38-C

39-B

40-C

41-A

42-D

43-B

44-A

45-A

46-B

47-B

48-B

49-B

50-A