35 ĐỀ PHÁT TRIỂN THEO CẤU TRÚC ĐỀ MINH HỌA BGD KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2022 MÔN TIẾNG ANH by Dạy Kèm Quy Nhơn Official

ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT MÔN TIẾNG ANH

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35 ĐỀ PHÁT TRIỂN THEO CẤU TRÚC ĐỀ MINH HỌA BGD KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2022 MÔN TIẾNG ANH CÓ LỜI GIẢI CHI TIẾT (Kiến thức - Giải thích - Tạm dịch) (Prod. by Dạy Kèm Quy Nhơn) WORD VERSION | 2022 EDITION ORDER NOW / CHUYỂN GIAO QUA EMAIL TAILIEUCHUANTHAMKHAO@GMAIL.COM Tài liệu chuẩn tham khảo Phát triển kênh bởi Ths Nguyễn Thanh Tú Đơn vị tài trợ / phát hành / chia sẻ học thuật : Nguyen Thanh Tu Group Hỗ trợ trực tuyến Fb www.facebook.com/DayKemQuyNhon Mobi/Zalo 0905779594

KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2022 Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề -------------------------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA 01 (Đề thi có 04 trang)

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Question 1: They offered her the job because she was very _______ on the design front. A. creatively B. creative C. create D. Creation Question 2: She’ll take the flight for the early meeting, ______? A. won’t she B. hasn’t she C. didn’t she D. doesn’t she Question 3: The letters he would write were full of doom and _______. We still do not know what made him so depressed. A. drib B. gloom C. duck D. Tuck Question 4: The restaurant is well-known ________ its friendly atmosphere and excellent service. A. for B. on C. in D. off any progress at all. Question 5: The course was so difficult that I didn’t C. produce

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Question 6: John crashed his truck _________ he was driving too fast.

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A. despite B. although C. because D. because of Question 7: She bought a _________ jacket as a present for her daughter. A. new Italian leather B. new leather Italian C. leather new Italian D. leather Italian new Question 8: Unless we do something now, hundreds of plant and animal species will _______. A. point out B. die out C. cut up D. make up Question 9: While she was taking her exams, she _______ a terrible headache. A. will have B. has C. had D. is having Question 10: I hope these machines will have worked very well ______. A. as soon as you would come back next month B. when you came back next month C. by time you come back next month D. after you were coming back next month Question 11: The popular press often contains a lot more _______ than hard facts. A. tolerance B. influence C. speculation D. Realism Question 12: Researchers have ________ to the conclusion that personality is affected by your genes. A. got B. reached C. arrived D. Come Question 13: The flood victims ________ with food and clean water by the volunteers. A. provided B. were provided C. were providing D. provide . Question 14: _______ the promotion, I began to search for other goals.

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A. Having attained B. To attain C. Being attained D. Attained Question 15: _______ the person is, the more privilege he enjoys. A. The rich B. The richest C. As rich as D. The richer Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 16: Peter is talking to Mary about eating habits. - Peter: “You should eat more fruits and vegetables.” – Mary: “___________” A. Yes, I will, Thanks B. No, thanks C. My pleasure D. You’re welcome Question 17: Mrs Brown and Mr Smith are talking about teaching soft skills at school. - Mrs Brown: “Some soft skills should be taught to children.” - Mr Smith: “______. They are necessary for them.” A. I don’t either B. I agree with you C. You’re quite wrong D. You’re welcome Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 18 A. document B. holiday C. location D. journalist Question 19 A. listen B. agree C. escape D. deny Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 20: A. concerned B. devoted C. renewed D. improved Question 21: A. thrill B. hide C. prize D. crime Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: Please give me some recommendation to buy suitable books for my ten-year-old girl. A. advice B. defense C. interest D. question Question 23: He has been jobless and often has to ask his parents for money A. out of fashion B. out of practice C. out of order D. out of work Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24: Aren’t you putting the cart before the horse by deciding what to wear for the wedding before you’re invited to it? A. knowing the horse cart B. do things in the right order C. doing things in the wrong order D. upsetting the horse cart Question 25: He is writing a letter of acceptance to the employer with the hope to get his favorite position in the company. A. confirmation B. refusal C. agree D. admission Tạm dịch: Anh ấy đang viết một lá thư chấp nhận cho nhà tuyển dụng với hy vọng sẽ có được vị trí yêu thích trong công ty. Chọn B. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 26: The book was interesting. I’ve read it three times. A. Such was the interesting book that I have read it three times. B. So interesting was the book that I have no time to read it.

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C. Only if it is an interesting book have I read it three times. D. Should the book be interesting, I have read it three times. Question 27: She bought an old TV. She has regrets about it now. A. Provided she bought an old TV. She wouldn’t have regrets. B. If she hadn’t bought an old TV. She would have regrets. C. If only she had bought an old TV D. She wishes she hadn’t bought an old TV. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 28: Last night, she stays up so late to study for her exams. A B C D Question 29: She is a confidential and practiced speaker who always impresses her audience. A B C D Question 30: My sister finally got his own favorite piano to practice every day. A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest meaning to each of the following questions. Question 31: Every student is required to write an essay on the topic. A. Every student might write an essay on the topic. B. Every student must write an essay on the topic. C. Every student can’t write an essay on the topic. D. Every student needn’t write an essay on the topic. Question 32: “If I were you, I would rent another room” said my friend. A. My friend threatened me to rent another room. B. My friend was thinking about renting another room. C. My friend insisted on renting another room. D. My friend advised me to rent another room. Question 33: He last cooked for the whole family five months ago. A. He didn’t cook for the whole family five months ago. B. He has cooked for the whole family for five months. C. He hasn’t cooked for the whole family for five months. D. He would cook for the whole family in five months. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 5. A stinky gym bug in your kitchen? Who will be more upset by the smell - the men or the women in your family? (34) _______ scientists suggest that women not only smell, but feel, taste, and hear more accurately than men. Take colors, for example. One study suggests that men are not as good as women at distinguishing between (35) _______ of color, although they focus well on rapidly changing images. As for touch, small fingers have a finer sense of touch, whether male or female. Hearing is possibly one of the most debated areas, when talking about the senses. Evidence shows that boys hear as well as girls at birth, but with age, a man’s hearing may soon deteriorate. (36) _______, environmental factors could play a role in this. Women may also be better at identifying different flavors (37) _______ need both taste and smell to experience, as studies have shown that they have more taste buds on their tongue. Going back to the smelly gym bag - yes, it’s likely that Mom will be the most (38) _______ out by it. But is that because women’s brains have more ‘smell cells’ or because you were too lazy to move it? Question 34: A. Each B. Some C. Another D. Every

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Question 35: A. smells B. senses C. shadows D. shades Question 36: A. Moreover B. Therefore C. However D. Due to Question 37: A. who B. which C. where D. whom Question 38: A. taken B. sprung C. mazed D. freaked Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the questions from 39 to 43. Dogs originally came from wolves. Wolves look a lot like dogs, but they are bigger. They are also quite fierce. At some point, some wolves changed through evolution. Some of them were smaller and gentler. These nicer wolves were the first dogs. No one knows for sure when this happened or why. Some people say it happened naturally over 50,000 years ago. Others say people made it happen between 15 000 and 50 000 years ago. However they came to be, people quickly saw that dogs were useful. Scientists who study humans say the first tame dogs appeared with humans about 13,000 years ago in the Middle East. Not long after there were dogs in Asia, Africa, Europe and eventually, North America. These dogs were probably used mostly for hunting and traveling. They were also good companions. Dogs were an important part of life in ancient Egypt. Egyptian dogs were used not only for hunting but as guards and warriors as well. They believed the god that guarded hell was a dog. Ancient Egyptians also named their pet dogs. Some popular names meant Brave One, Reliable, North-wind, Blacky, and Useless. Dogs were also good ancient Roman warriors. The Roman army used dogs all over Europe. Sometimes the dogs were attack dogs, but other times the dogs were messengers. There are many different kinds of dogs today. How could they all come from wolves? There are many different explanations. Some scientists believe that dogs mixed with other animals from the Canidae family. This includes coyotes, foxes and jackals. Most scientists also believe that evolution and breeding influenced the variation. Later, people found breeds of dogs they liked and combined them to make all new breeds. In this way. people are still helping new breeds to appear today! Question 39: Which of the following best states the main idea of the reading? A. No one knows for sure where dogs first appeared with humans. B. There are two theories about the evolution of dogs. C. Evolution and breeding have made dogs what they are today. D. Human beings used dogs for many jobs, so dogs are the first tame animals. Question 40: The word “they” in the first paragraph refers to _______. A. people B. years C. dogs D. wolves Question 41: According to some scientists, when did the first tame dogs appear with humans? A. About 15,000 years ago B. Between 15,000 and 50,000 years ago C. Over 50.000 years ago D. About 13,000 years ago Question 42: The word “companions” in the second paragraph mostly means ______. A. messengers B. co-workers C. traveling friends D. hunting animals According to the reading, which of the following is TRUE? Question 43: A. Most people like to name their dogs Reliable, Blacky, and Useless. B. The Roman always used dogs as messengers. C. The first tame dogs appeared in ancient Egypt. D. According to some studies, dogs mixed with coyotes and jackals. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the questions from 44 to 50. Many people see large urban cities as a wonder of human imagination and creativity. They represent how far the human population has come in terms of community development. Despite its positive things, there are also negatives from urbanization on the physical health of humans living.

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As it would be expected, developing countries tend to see more negative physical health effects than modern countries in regard to urbanization. One example of a developing country experiencing these problems is China. China is a country that in the past 30-40 years went from being an agrarian based society to a significant industrialized country. This industrialization has in effect caused the need for more centralized cities, centralized meaning having lots of jobs and living spaces within a close proximity. In most recent decades, since China’s change to being more of an industrial based economy, the country has experienced record high numbers of people migrating within its borders. In effect, the number of cities with over 500,000 people has more than doubled. These migrations are typically of people from rural areas of China moving to the new urban areas. Due to this large influx in the urban population, there are many possibilities for health challenges among these people. One very common and fairly obvious negative aspect of highly congested urban areas is air pollution. It could include particulate matter, most commonly attributed to industrial plants and refineries waste, or chemicals like CO2 or Methane. Due to a vast number of people in these urbanized cities, the air pollution is known to be very extreme. These conditions can lead to many different health problems such as: Asthma, cardiovascular problems or disease. When exposed to these conditions for a prolonged period of time, one can experience even more detrimental health effects like: the acceleration of aging, loss of lung capacity and health, being more susceptible to respiratory diseases, and a shortened life span. Another way that urbanization affects the populations’ health is people’s change in diet. For instance, urban cities tend to have lots of accessible, quick, and easy to get food. This food is also more than likely not as high quality as well as contains a large amount of sodium and sugar. Because this food is so accessible, people tend to eat it more. This increase in consumption of low-quality food can then lead to diabetes, hypertension, heart disease, obesity, or many other health conditions. Question 44: Which of the following could be served as the best title for the passage? A. Urban cities - The new opportunity for community development B. Urbanization - Pros and cons C. Urbanization - How people’s health is impacted? D. Developing countries - The fastest urbanization Question 45: The word “agrarian” in paragraph 2 mostly means ________. A. farming B. industry C. city D. modernizing Question 46: The word “congested” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______. A. fresh B. overcrowded C. sparse D. contaminated Question 47: The following are the air pollution sources mentioned in paragraph 3, EXCEPT _______. A. industrial plants B. sewage C. refineries waste D. chemicals Question 48: The word “it” in the last paragraph refers to ________? A. quality B. sugar C. food D. sodium Question 49: Why are urban populations easy to get diseases from food, according to the last paragraph? A. Because of the change in people’s diet. B. Because this food is so delicious that people have a tendency to eat more than normal. C. Because the way people get this food is rather accessible, quick and easy. D. Because of the low quality and the high proportion of sodium and sugar in this food. Question 50: What can be inferred from the passage? A. One of the negative health effects comes from the overpopulation in industrialized countries. B. Living in urban areas for a long time will certainly make the life expectancy of inhabitants shorten. C. People in developed countries suffer less harmful health effects from urbanization than those in developing nations. D. The bad health effects from urbanization are not greater than the benefits it brings to people in urban cities.

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KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2022 Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề --------------------------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA 02 (Đề thi có 04 trang)

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Họ, tên thí sinh……………………………………………………………………… Số báo danh: .................................................................................................................... Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 1. You may find doing this job very__________. Try it! A. relaxing B. relaxed C. relax D. relaxation Question 2. No one on the plane was alive in the accident last night, __________? A. wasn’t he B. weren’t they C. were they D. was he Question 3. We had better keep on our__________ while were walking along the dark portions of this street. A. figures B. nails C. toes D. knees Question 4. He regretted spending too much time__________ computer games. A. to B. for C. in D. on He looks for any excuse he can to blow off his__________ to do housework. Question 5. A commitment B. obligation C. assignment D. responsibility Question 6. __________ what she prepared for the job interview, Megan didn’t pass it. A. Despite of B. In spite of C. Though D. However Question 7. There is __________ table in my bedroom. A. an old square wooden B. a square wooden old C. an old wooden square D. a wooden old square Question 8. The new airport has__________ a lot of changes on this island. A. brought about B. taken to C. counted in D. turned up Question 9. They__________ the bridge by the time you come back. A. will finish B. will have finished C. will be finished D. have finished Question 10. She won’t come home __________. A. as soon as she had finished all the paperwork B. until she has finished all the paperwork C. by the time she finished all the paperwork D. when she was finishing all the paperwork Question 11. The Youth Union in our school has decided to launch a/an__________ to raise funds for local charities. A. activity B. announcement C. campaign D. decision Question 12. Being helpful is good, but don’t allow others to__________ advantage of your generosity. A. get B. take C. use D. make I demand to know how this vase __________, and no one is leaving till I find out. Question 13. A. got broken B. was breaking C. has broken D. is broke Question 14. Although __________ by the bravery of his fellow soldiers, Bloch had harsh words for the army leadership. A. was impressed B. impressed C. having impressed D. impressing Question 15. The more you practice speaking in public, __________. A. the more you become confident B. the more you become confidently C. the greater confidence you become D. the more confident you become Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 16: Tom is inviting Linda to his birthday party. Page 1 | 5

Tom: “Would you like to come to my birthday party next week?" Linda: “ ’’

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A. Why not? B. Yes, I'd love to. C. I don’t think so. D. N 0, I‘d love to. Question 17: Laura is asking Tom for his idea about a vacation at the beach. Laura: “Do you think a vacation at the beach will do me good?” Tom: " " A. Sure. Have a good time there. B. Yes, I think. C. Could you bye me something? D. Yes, it does. Mark the letter A, B, c or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in the following question. Question 18. A. equip B. secure C. vacant D. oblige Question 19. A. encounter B. agency C. influence D. memory Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 20. A. asked B. danced C. cashed D. studied Question 21. A. profile B. stomach C. postpone D. cyclone Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: Such problems as haste and inexperience are a universal feature of youth. A. marked B. shared C. hidden D. separated Question 23: If that was done on a national scale, we would wipe out this infectious disease. A. establish B. retain C. maintain D. eliminate Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24: Fee-paying schools, often called “independent schools”, "private schools" or "public schools" A. college B. primary schools C. secondary schools D. state schools Question 25: Each time you turn it on, with appropriate hardware and software, it is capable of doing almost anything you ask. A. unsuitable B. unimportant C. ill-prepared D. irregular Mark the letter A, B, Cor D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines a pair of sentences in the following question. Question 26. Hans told US about his investing in the company. He did it on his arrival at the meeting. A. Only after investing in the company did Hans inform US of his arrival at the meeting. B. Not until Hans told US that he would invest in the company did he arrive at the meeting. C. Hardly had he informed US about his investing in the company when Hans arrived at the meeting. D. No sooner had Hans arrived at the meeting than he told US about his investing in the company. Question 27. The driver in front stopped so suddenly. Therefore, the accident happened. A. If the driver in front didn’t stop so suddenly, the accident wouldn’t happen. B. If the driver in front hadn’t stopped so suddenly, the accident would have happened. C. If the driver in front hadn’t stopped so suddenly, the accident wouldn’t have happened. D. If the driver in front had stopped so suddenly, the accident would have happened. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 28: What I told him a few days ago is not the solution to most of his problems. A B C D Question 29: Tom’s jokes are inappropriate but we have to put up with it just because he’s the boss. A B C D Modern office buildings have false ﬂoors under which computer and phone wires Question 30: A B C can be lain. D Page 2 | 5

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

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Question 31. It’s possible that she didn’t hear what I said. A. She might not hear what I said. B. She might have not heard what I said. C. She may not hear what I said. D. She may not have heard what I said. Question 32. “Stop smoking or you’ll be ill,” the doctor told me. A. The doctor advised me to give up smoking to avoid illness. B. The doctor suggested smoking to treat illness, C. I was warned against smoking a lot of cigarettes. D. I was ordered not to smoke to recover from illness. Question 33. I haven’t heard from Mike for several months. A. I didn’t hear from Mike several months ago. B. Mike didn’t hear from me several months ago. C. Mike heard from me several months ago. D. I last heard from Mike several months ago. Read the following passage and choose the best option A, B, C or D to be used for each of the blanks to complete the following passage. Water is of vital importance to all living things. Without it, all living things will surely die. We also use a great (34) __________ of water daily in our homes, in factories, and in power stations. Most of this water is fresh water and it comes to US from reservoirs, rivers and lakes. The Earths surface is (35) __________by large areas of water which we call oceans and seas. If you have tasted the water from the sea, you will know that, unlike fresh water, seawater tastes salty. This is due to the (36) __________of sodium chloride which comes from the land. Rivers carry it to the sea. Although neither salt nor fresh water has any color, the sea often looks blue in the sunlight. The reason is (37) __________sunlight is made up of many colors. Some colors disappear quickly in the sea but blue light bounces back or is reflected, to the surface. This makes the sea look blue. (38) __________, a stormy sky will make the sea look grey. Question 34. A. number B. much C. many D. amount Question 35. A. covered B. reserved C. constructed D. included Question 36. A. attraction B. presence C. advantage D. realization Question 37. A. what B. who C. which D. that Question 38. A. Moreover B. Hence C. Although D. However Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Satoru Iwata was made the CEO of Nintendo in 2002. At that time, the video game market was suffering, and Nintendo was having trouble with its sales. Iwata thought that a change in strategy was due. Previously, the strategy in the game industry was to keep making the same kinds of games and consoles but just improve their power and complexity. However, Iwata didn’t just want to attract dedicated gamers. He wanted to bring in new kinds of players to video gaming. How was he going to do that? He decided to change the very concept of video games. Iwata wanted to make video games easier to pick up and more relevant to peoples lives. Out of this idea came the Nintendo DS. People interacted more directly with the game by using a touch screen instead of just a set of buttons. Iwata took this idea to the extreme with the motion-based Wii. Now, just by using natural body movements, players can enjoy playing all sorts of games. The kinds of games produced changed as well. Along with the regular role-playing game (RPG), action, and sport games, new kinds of “games” were designed. Some of these new games, like Brain Age, improved thinking abilities. Others, like Wii Fit, improved fitness. This has brought in a new age of gaming. Everyone from Page 3 | 5

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grandparents to their grandchildren seems to be playing Nintendo products. With all that we have seen so far, we can only wonder what is next for Iwata. Surely it will be something groundbreaking. Question 39. What is the main idea of the passage? A. Satoru Iwata is a man with amazing ideas. B. Gaming is not just for dedicated gamers anymore. C. Satoru Iwata is an important man for dedicated gamers D. The gaming industry is making educational games now. Question 40. What first motivated Iwata to change the strategy of Nintendo? A. He wanted to make useful consoles. B. He wanted to lower sales. C. He wanted to attract more players. D. He wanted a new concept for gaming. Question 41. The word “that” in paragraph 2 refer to . A. Bringing in new kinds of players to video gaming. B. Attracting dedicated gamers C. Making the same kinds of games D. Improving games’ power and complexity. Question 42. Which is TRUE about changes Iwata make about the world of gaming? A. More games for children and girls. B. More dedicated games. C. Created a new style of gaming. D. Less expensive game systems. Question 43. The word “groundbreaking” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to A. innovative B. bad C. beautiful D. natural Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, c, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question. There are many mistakes that people make when writing their resume (CV) or completing a job application. Here are some of the most common and most serious. The biggest problem is perhaps listing the duties for which you were responsible in a past position, all this tells your potential employers is what you were supposed to do. They do not necessarily know the specific skills you used in executing them, nor do they know what results you achieved - both of which are essential. In short, they won’t know if you were the best, the worst or just average in your position. The more concrete information you can include, the better. As far as possible, provide measurements of what you accomplished. If any innovations you introduced saved the organization money, how much did they save? If you found a way of increasing productivity, by what percentage did you increase it? Writing what you are trying to achieve in life - your objective - is a waste of space. It tells the employer what you are interested in. Do you really think that employers care what you want? No, they are interested in what they want! Instead, use that space for a career summary. A good one is brief - three to four sentences long. A good one will make the person reviewing your application want to read further. Many resumes list “hard” job-specific skills, almost to the exclusion of transferable, or “soft”, skills. However, your ability to negotiate effectively, for example, can be just as important as your technical skills. All information you give should be relevant, so carefully consider the job for which you are applying. If you are applying for a job that is somewhat different than your current job, it is up to you to draw a connection for the resume reviewer, so that they will understand how your skills will fit in their organization. The person who reviews your paperwork will not be a mind reader. If you are modest about the skills you can offer, or the results you have achieved, a resume reader may take what you write literally, and be left with a low opinion of your ability, you need to say exactly how good you are. On the other hand, of course, never stretch the truth or lie. Question 44. What topic does the passage mainly discuss? A. The way how to write the resume for job application. B. The mistakes people make when applying for a job. C. The common way to make impression in a job interview. D. The necessary skills for job application. Question 45. The word “executing” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to . A. enumerating B. determining C. completing D. implementing Question 46. The word “concrete” in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by . Page 4 | 5

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A. indeterminate B. specific C. substantial D. important Question 47. What does the word “it” in paragraph 3 refer to ? D. percentage A. organization money B. information C. productivity Question 48. According to the passage, what information should candidates include in their resume? A. specific skills for previous jobs B. the past achievements C. previous positions D. future objective Question 49 According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true? A. The ability to negotiate effectively is as significant as technical skills. B. Candidates must study the job they are applying carefully before writing the CV C. Applicants should not apply for a distinct job from what they are doing. D. The information interviewees present should be related to the job they are applying. Question 50. It can be inferred from the last paragraph that . A. you should write accurately about your ability for the vacant position. B. you should be modest about what you can do. C. a resume reader is good enough to understand what you imply about your ability in the CV. D. you are allowed to exaggerate the truth of your competence if possible.

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA 03 (Đề thi có 04 trang)

Họ, tên thí sinh……………………………………………………………………… Số báo danh: .................................................................................................................... Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 1: His______of the generator is very famous. A. invent B. inventive C. invention D. inventor Question 2: They rarely let her stay out late, _______? A. do they B. don’t they C. does she D. doesn’t she Question 3. The commission estimates that at least seven companies took___________ of the program. B. use

C. benefit

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D. dominance

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Question 4. Both husband and wife should be responsible ________ doing the household chores. A. with B. to C. for D. of Question 5: Mary was clearly nervous; she was sitting right on the______ of his chair. A. outside B. edge C. tip D. border you come back. Question 6: I will stand here and wait for you A. because B. though C. so D. until Question 7. She bought a _________ lunchbox that she could carry lunch to work. A. new red plastic B. red plastic new C. new plastic red D. plastic new red Question 8: The government hopes to______its plans for introducing cable TV. A. turn out B. carry out C. carry on D. keep on Question 9: When she came home from school yesterday, her mother _______in the kitchen. A. cooked B. was cooking C. is cooking D. cooks Question 10: ______, he went straight home. A. While he would finish his work B. When he has finished his work C. After he had finished his work D. Before he has been finishing his work Question 11: The jury______her compliments on her excellent knowledge of the subject. A. paid B. gave C. made D. said Question 12: I took the children to the _______park last weekend. They really enjoyed going on all the rides. A. wildlife B. amusement C. national D. entertainment Question 13. This villa ———————- in 1975 by my grandfather. A. built B. was built C. was build D. has built Question 14. ________ this movie last week, I don’t want to see it again. A. Having seen B. Being seen C. Having been seen D. Seeing Question 15: The richer you are, _______. A. you may become more worried B. you more worried may become C. the more worried you may become D. the more worry you may become become Page 1 of 5

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Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges. Question 16: “How fashionable a pair of trainers you have!” - “______________” A. Do you want to know where I bought them? B. Thanks for your compliment. C. I know it’s fashionable. D. Yes, of course. Question 17: “What can I do for you?” - “_______.” A. No need to help. B. Thank you. C. Thanks, I’m just looking. D. Sorry for not buying anything Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 18: A. admit B. suggest C. remind D. manage Question 19: A. approval B. applicant C. energy D. influence Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 20: A. watched B. cleaned C. stopped D. picked Question 21: A. hole B. home C. come D. hold Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: I will not stand for your bad attitude any longer. A. like B. sit C. tolerate D. care Question 23. The repeated commercials on TV distract many viewers from watching their favorite films. A. advertisements B. contests C. business D. economics Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24: In some countries, so few students are accepted by the universities that admission is almost a guarantee of a good job upon graduation. A. a promise B. an uncertainty C. an assurance D. a pledge Question 25: The burglar crept into the house without making any noise. That's why no one heard anything. A. inaudibly B. boisterously C. shrilly D. hurly-burly Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 26: Seth informed us of his retirement from the company. He did it when arriving at the meeting. A. Only after his retiring from the company did Seth tell us about his arrival at the meeting. B. Not until Seth said to us that he would leave the company did he turn up at the meeting. C. Hardly had Seth notified us of his retiring from the company when he arrived at the meeting. D. No sooner had Seth arrived at the meeting than we were told about his leaving the company Question 27: They were late for the meeting. The heavy was heavy. A. If it snowed heavily, they would be late for the meeting. B. Had it not snowed heavily, they would have been late for the meeting. C. But for the heavy snow, they wouldn't have been late for the meeting. D. If it didn't snow heavily, they wouldn't be late for the meeting. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Page 2 of 5

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Question 28: Mrs. Hoa and her friends from Vietnam plan to attend the festival now A B C D Question 29: Some manufacturers are not only raising their prices but also decreasing the production of its A B C D products. Question 30: The whole matter is farther complicated by the fact that Amanda and Jo refuse to speak to A B C each other. D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 31: A supermarket is more convenient than a shopping centre. A. A shopping centre is not as convenient as a supermarket. B. A shopping centre is more convenient than a supermarket. C. A supermarket is not as convenient as a shopping centre. D. A supermarket is as inconvenient as a shopping centre. Question 32: "It was your fault. You broke my windows, "said the woman to him. A. The woman insisted him on breaking her windows. B. The woman advised him to break her windows. C. The woman told him to break her windows. D. The woman blamed him for having broken her windows. Question 33. It was a mistake for Tony to buy that house. A. Tony couldn’t have bought that house. B. Tony can’t have bought that house. C. Tony needn’t have bought that house. D. Tony shouldn’t have bought that house.

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30. In the past, the process of choosing a career was a much simpler matter than it is today. Aboy often followed in his father’s footsteps. His sister learned the household skills that would prepare her to become (34)______ wife and mother. Nowadays young people grow up in a much freer society (35)______they enjoy almost unlimited career opportunities. In recent years, there (36)______an enormous increase in the kinds of vocations from which it is possible to choose. In addition, many of the barriers to career opportunity that existed only a few decades ago, such as (37)______based on sex or religion or ethnic origins, are (30) disappearing. B. the C. an D. a Question 34: A. many B. when C. why D. whom Question 35: A. where B. has been C. will be D. was Question 36: A. had been B. perception C. devotion D. discrimination Question 37: A. judgement B. incessantly C. categorically D. vigilantly Question 38: A. rapidly Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35. After twenty years of growing student enrollments and economic prosperity, business schools in the United States have started to face harder times. Only Harvard’s MBA School has shown a substantial increase in enrollment in recent years. Both Princeton and Stanford have seen decreases in their enrollments. Since 1990, Page 3 of 5

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the number of people receiving Masters in Business Administration (MBA) degrees, has dropped about 3 percent to 75,000, and the trend of lower enrollment rates is expected to continue. There are two factors causing this decrease in students seeking an MBA degree. The first one is that many graduates of four-year colleges are finding that an MBA degree does not guarantee a plush job on Wall Street, or in other financial districts of major American cities. Many of the entrylevel management jobs are going to students graduating with Master of Arts degrees in English and the humanities as well as those holding MBA degrees. Students have asked the question, “Is an MBA degree really what I need to be best prepared for getting a good job?” The second major factor has been the cutting of American payrolls and the lower number of entrylevel jobs being offered. Business needs are changing, and MBA schools are struggling to meet the new demands. Question 39. What is the main focus of this passage? A. Jobs on Wall Street B. Types of graduate degrees C. Changes in enrollment for MBA schools D. How schools are changing to reflect the economy Question 40. The word “prosperity” in the first paragraph could be best replaced by which of the following? A. success B. surplus C. nurturing D. education Question 41. Which of the following business schools has shown an increase in enrollment? A. Princeton B. Harvard C. Stanford D. Yale Question 42. Which of the following descriptions most likely applies to Wall Street? A. a center for international affairs B. a major financial center C. a shopping district D. a neighborhood in New York Question 42: As used in the second paragraph, the word “struggling” is closest in meaning to_____. A. evolving B. plunging C. starting D. striving

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to resolve issues that threaten to divide the group. As the differences in these two roles suggest, expressive leaders generally receive more personal affection from group members; instrumental leaders, if they are successful in promoting group goals, may enjoy a more distant respect. Question 44. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The problems faced by leaders B. How leadership differs in small and large groups C. How social groups determine who will lead them D. The role of leaders in social groups Question 45. The passage mentions all of the following ways by which people can become leaders EXCEPT_______. A. recruitment B. formal election process C. specific leadership training D. traditional cultural patterns Question 46. In mentioning “natural leaders” in the second paragraph, the author is making the point that _______. A. few people qualify as “natural leaders” B. there is no proof that “natural leaders” exist C. “natural leaders’ are easily accepted by the members of a social group D. “natural leaders” share a similar set of characteristics . Question 47. The passage indicates that ‘instrumental leaders’ generally focus on A. ensuring harmonious relationshipsB. sharing responsibility with group members C. identifying new leaders D. achieving a goal . Question 48. The word “collective” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to A. necessary B. typical C. group D. particular . Question 49. The word “them” in the third paragraph refers to A. expressive leaders B. goals of the group C. group members D. tension and conflict Question 50. A “secondary relationship” mentioned in the last paragraph between a leader and the members of a group could best be characterized as . A. distant B. Enthusiastic C. unreliable D. personal

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THE END

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Họ, tên thí sinh……………………………………………………………………… Số báo danh: .................................................................................................................... Question 1: Every morning, my father usually drinks several cups of tea, has a _____breakfast and then leads the buffalo to the field. A. quick B. quickly C. quickness D. quicker Question 2: There is a party at your home, _____? A. isn’t there B. is there C. isn’t it D. is it _. Question 3: There's a lot more to Willie than one would think: still waters run A. deep B. deeply C. deepness D. depth Question 4: The children are highly excited _______ the coming summer holiday. A. with B. to C. for D. about Question 5: The police have every good________to believe that he is guilty. A. excuse B. cause C. reason D. ground Question 6: Many students work to earn money ____________ their parents are rich A. because of B. despite C. however D. although When I was going to school this morning, I saw a __________ girl. She asked me how to get to Question 7: Hoan Kiem Lake. A. beautiful young blonde Russian B. beautiful young Russian blonde C. blonde young beautiful Russian D. Russian young blonde beautiful Question 8: Our refrigerator _________________ just a month after the guarantee had expired. A. broke off B. broke up C. broke into D. broke down Question 9: When I came to visit her last night, she ________________ a bath. A. is having B. was having C. has had D. had had Question 10. _______, I will give him the report. A. When he will return B. When he returns C. Until he will return D. No sooner he returns During the interview, you should try to a good impression on your interview. Question 11. A. Create B. have C. give D. try Question 12: Don’t criticize me. If you__________yourself in my position, you would behave the same. A. set B. put C. think D. consider Question 13. - “What a beautiful dress you’re wearing!” - “Thank you. It________especially for me by an Italian tailor.” A. was made B. is made C. has made D. makes for 6 hours, they decided to stop to have lunch at 1.00 pm. Question 14:: A. Having been work B. Having worked C. Working D. Worked It is getting hotter and ____ every summer. I guess that is the result of global warming. Question 15: A. less B. more C. colder D. hotter Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges. Question 16: “How was the game show last night?” - “_______.” A. It showed at 8 o'clock. B. Just talking about it. C. I think it wasn't a good game. D. Great. I gained more knowledge about biology. Question 17: “What did the meeting discuss? I didn’t attend it because of traffic jam.” - “______________” A. I didn’t, either. B. That was great. C. You missed the meeting. D. I’m sorry, I can’t. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 18: A. inflation B. maximum C. applicant D. character Question 19: A. bamboo B. forget C. deserve D. channel Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions Question 20: A. missed B. talked C. watched D. cleaned Page 1 | 4

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Question 21: A. find B. think C. drive D. mind Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22.The maintenance of these old castles must cost a lot of money. A. building B. foundation C. destruction D. preservation Question 23. People in the mountainous areas are still in the habit of destroying forests for cultivation. A. planting B. farming C. industry D. wood Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24. School uniform is compulsory in most of Vietnamese school. A. depended B. optional C. obligatory D. required Question 25. Names of people in the book were changed to preserve anonymity. A. cover B. conserve C. presume D. reveal Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions Question 26: She didn’t understand the benefits of volunteering until she joined this club. A. Not until she joined this club did she understand the benefits of volunteering. B. It was not until she joined this club did she understand the benefits of volunteering. C. Not until did she join this club, she understood the benefits of volunteering. D. Not until she joined this club that she understood the benefits of volunteering. Question 27: He didn’t prepare well for his GCSE examination and he regrets i t now. A. Unless he had prepared well for his GCSE examination, he wouldn’t regret it now. B. But for his ill preparation for his GCSE examination, he wouldn’t regret it now. C. If it hadn’t been for his good preparation for his GCSE examination, he wouldn ’t regret it now. D. If he had prepared well for his GCSE examination, he wouldn’t have regretted it now. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions Question 28. If you wanted to be chosen for the job, you’ll have to be experienced in the field. A. in B. experienced C. wanted D. chosen for Question 29. Several people have apparent tried to change the man’s mind, but he refuses to listen. A. Several B. apparent C. mind D. listen Question 30. I’d prefer to do it by herself because other people make me nervous. A. I’d prefer B. on herself C. other D. make Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 31. You should take regular exercises instead of sitting in front of the television all day. A. Taking regular exercises is better than sitting in front of the television all day. B. Sitting in front of the television all day helps you take regular exercises. C. Sitting in front of the television all day and taking exercises are advisable. D. Don’t take regular exercises, just sit in front of the television all day. Question 32. “I’ll call you as soon as I arrive at the airport,” he said to me. A. He objected to calling me as soon as he arrived at the airport. B. He promised to call me as soon as he arrived at the airport. C. He denied calling me as soon as he arrived at the airport. D. He reminded me to call him as soon as he arrived at the airport. Question 33. Harry no longer smokes a lot. A. Harry now smokes a lot. B. Harry used to smoke a lot. C. Harry didn’t use to smoke a lot. D. Harry rarely smoked a lot. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 16 to 20. Page 2 | 4

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Dressing up in costumes and trick-or-treating are popular Halloween activities, but few probably (34) ______ these lighthearted fall traditions with their origins in Samhain, a three-day ancient Celtic pagan festival. For the Celts, who lived during the Iron Age in what is now Ireland, Scotland, the U.K. and (35) ______ parts of Northern Europe, Samhain (meaning literally, in modern Irish, “summer's end”) marked the end of summer and kicked off the Celtic new year. Ushering in a new year signaled a time of both death and rebirth, something that was doubly symbolic because it (36) ______ with the end of a bountiful harvest season and the beginning of a cold and dark winter season that would present plenty of challenges. Eventually, Halloween became more popular in secular culture than All Saints' Day. The pagan-turnedChristian practices of dressing up in costumes, playing pranks and handing out offerings have evolved into popular traditions even for those (37) ______ may not believe in otherworldly spirits or saints. (38) ______, whether Halloween celebrants know it or not, they’re following the legacy of the ancient Celts who, with the festival of Samhain, celebrated the inevitability of death and rebirth. Question 34.A. separate B. estimate C. associate D. celebrate Question 35. A. each B. every C. another D. other Question 36.A. coincided B. originated C. compared D. occurred Question 37. A. which B. whom C. who D. what Moreover However Instead Question 38. A. B. C. D. Therefore Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34. Body language is a vital form of communication. In fact, it is believed that the various forms of body language contribute about 70 percent to our comprehension. It is important to note, however, that body languages varies in different cultures. Take for example, eye movement. In the USA a child is expected to look directly at a parent or teacher who is scolding him/her. In other cultures the opposite is true. Looking directly at a teacher or parent in such a situation is considered a sign of disrespect. Another form of body language that is used differently, depending on the culture, is distance. In North America people don’t generally stand as close to each other as in South America. Two North Americans who don’t know each other well will keep a distance of four feet between them, whereas South Americans in the same situation will stand two to three feet apart. North Americans will stand closer than two feet apart only if they are having a confidential conversation or if there is intimacy between them. Gestures are often used to communicate. We point a finger, raise an eyebrow, wave an arm – or move any other part of the body - to show what we want to say. However, this does not mean that people all over the world use the same gestures to express the same meanings. Very often we find that the same gestures can communicate different meanings, depending on the country. An example of a gesture that could be misinterpreted is sticking out the tongue. In many cultures it is a sign of making a mistake, but in some places it communicates ridicule. The dangers of misunderstanding one another are great. Obviously, it is not enough to learn the language of another culture. You must also learn its non-verbal signals if you want to communicate successfully. (Adapted from “Reading Academic English” by Judy Rapoport, Ronit Broder and Sarah Feingold) Question 39. What is the passage mainly about? A. Misunderstandings in communication. B. Interpretations of gestures in different cultures. C. The significance of non-verbal signals in America. D. Non-verbal communication across cultures. Question 40. According to paragraph 1, when scolded by his/her parent or teacher, and American child is expected to . A. stand close to the person. B. raise his/her eyebrows. C. point a finger at the person. D. look directly at the person. . Question 41. The word “intimacy” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to enjoyment. closeness. strength. agreement. A. B. C. D. . Question 42. The word “misinterpreted” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to A. mispronounced. B. misbehaved. C. misspelled. D. misunderstood. . Question 43. The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to Page 3 | 4

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A. the country B. an example. C. sticking out the tongue D. making a mistake Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions The human desire for companionship may feel boundless, but research suggests that our social capital is finite. Social scientists have used a number of ingenious approaches to gauge the size of people’s social networks; these have returned estimates ranging from about 250 to about 5,500 people. An undergraduate thesis from MIT focusing exclusively on Franklin D. Roosevelt, a friendly guy with an especially social job, suggested that he might have had as many as 22,500 acquaintances. Looking more specifically at friendship, a study using the exchange of Christmas cards as a proxy for closeness put the average person’s friend group at about 121 people. However vast our networks may be, our inner circle tends to be much smaller. The average American trusts only 10 to 20 people. Moreover, that number may be shrinking: From 1985 to 2004, the average number of confidants that people reported having decreased from three to two. This is both sad and consequential, because whoever has strong social relationships tends to live longer than those who don’t. So what should you do if your social life is lacking? Just follow the research. To begin with, don’t dismiss the humble acquaintance. Even interacting with people with whom one has weak social ties has a meaningful influence on well-being. Beyond that, building deeper friendships may be largely a matter of putting in time. A recent study out of the University of Kansas found that it takes about 50 hours of socializing to go from acquaintance to casual friend, an additional 40 hours to become a “real” friend, and a total of 200 hours to become a close friend. If that sounds like too much effort, reviving dormant social ties can be especially rewarding. Reconnected friends can quickly recapture much of the trust they previously built, while offering each other a dash of novelty drawn from whatever they’ve been up to in the meantime. And if all else fails, you could start randomly confiding in people you don’t know that well in hopes of letting the tail wag the relational dog. The academic literature is clear: Longing for closeness and connection is pervasive. Which suggests that most of us are stumbling through the world pining for companionship that could be easily provided by the lonesome stumblers all around us. (source: https://www.theatlantic.com/) Question 44: Which best serves as the title for the passage? A. Why you should prioritize friendship. B. A study characterises our circles of friendships. C. The limitations of friendship. D. How to make friends, according to science. Question 45: According to paragraph 1, what is the purpose for mentioning an MIT thesis as an example? A. To show that human and social bonds do not exist in isolation from each other. B. To highlight a note-worthy case of ceiling limit for an individual’s social output. C. To illustrate that different human relationships involve different degrees of effort. D. To explain the proneness to vulnerability of unnecessarily wide social network. Question 46: The word “those” in paragraph 2 refers to _____. A. networks B. confidants C. relationships D. people The word in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______. Question 47: “dismiss” A. disperse B. disregard C. abandon D. forget Question 48: The word “dormant” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______. A. latent B. inert C. asleep D. frisky Question 49: The following statements are true, EXCEPT _______. A. Social scientists are very creative in their methods to measure a person’s sociability. B. If one has a large number of relationships, it must mean that they are all superficial. C. Most of the studies listed are instructive on socialising methods and recommendations. D. A normal person require a number of 200 hours on average to form a close friendship. Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? A. Individuals’ ability to manage human relationships is limited. B. Social capital turns more complicated as a person grows older. C. Friendship is one of life features that is often taken for granted. D. Every human relationship in life has an expiration date. THE END Page 4 | 4

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA 05 (Đề thi có 05 trang)

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Họ, tên thí sinh……………………………………………………………………… Số báo danh: ................................................................................................................... Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 1: I think mobile phones are_____for people of all ages. A. usage B. use C. usefully D. useful Question 2: I’m getting better at this job,______? A. am I B. am not I C. isn’t I D. aren’t I He used to be a taxi driver there Question 3: Mr Nam knows Hanoi City like the back of his for 10 years. A. head B. mind C. hand D. life Question 4: It was so noisy outside that she couldn’t concentrate______her work. A. in B. at C. with D. on Question 5: A________of $10,000 has been offered for the capture of his murderer. A. prize B. gift C. bounty D. award Question 6: Children are encouraged to read books_______they are a wonderful source of knowledge. A. because of B. in spite of C. because D. although Question 7: Indiana University, one of the largest ones in the nation, is located in a _____ town. A. small beautiful Midwestern B. beautiful Midwestern small C. Midwestern beautiful small D. beautiful small Midwestern Question 8: Mary met her second husband not long after her first marriage _________________. A. broke in B. broke down C. broke up D. broke off Question 9: When I got home I found that water ________________ down the kitchen walls. A. ran B. was running C. has run D. had been running Question 10. _______, I will complete every exercise in my textbook. A. When I master English B. The moment I have mastered English C. As soon as I had mastered English D. Before I have mastered English Question 11. Don't go without _______ goodbye to me, will you? A. talking B. saying C. telling D. speaking a lot of knowledge. Question 12. He has read a lot of books and A. achieved B. won C. acquired D. requested Question 13: Stephen William Hawking ____ on 8th January, 1942 in Oxford, England. A. born B. has born C. is born D. was born Question 14 ________ in this town for a long time, Mary doesn't want to move to another place. A. Living B. To live C. Having lived D. Lived Question 15: The larger the apartment is, the ____________ its price is. A. expensive B. more expensive C. expensively D. most expensive Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges. Question 16: “I've called many times but the plumber hasn’t come yet.” - “______________” A. Wait a minute, please. B. We do apologise for this matter. We’ll fix it soon. C. He's maybe busy now. D. The problem has been fixed already. Question 17: “ Would you like to have a picnic with US on the weekend?” Page 1 | 5

- “______________” A. Yes, I'd love to. B. You’re welcome.

C. Of course not.

D. It’s my pleasure.

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. B. conclude C. deter D. sanction Question 18. A. report Question 19. A. advertise B. definit C. composite D. communicate Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 20. A. borrowed B. conserved C. approached D. complained Question 21: A. fake B. amaze C. framework D. merchant Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: The student service centre will try their best to assist students in finding a suitable part– time job. A. help B. allow C. make D. employ My sister is a very student. She works very hard at every subject. Question 23: diligent A. clever B. practical C. studious D. helpful Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24. He was one of the most outstanding performers at the live show last night. A. easy- looking B. humble C. well- known D. impressive Question 25. Advanced students need to be aware of the importance of collocation. A. of high level B. of great importance C. of low level D. reputation Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions Question 26: He showed himself a good student. He proved himself a good athlete. A. Not only he showed himself a good student but he also proved himself a good athlete. B. He did not show himself a good student but he proved himself a good athlete. C. A good student not only showed him but he also proved himself a good athlete. D. Not only did he show himself a good student but he also proved himself a good athlete. Question 27: The burglar might come back. You’d better change all the locks. A. You’d better change all the locks or the burglar will come back. B. You’d better change all the locks in case the burglar comes back. C. If you don’t change all the locks, the burglar could come back. D. The burglar will come back unless you change all the locks. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 28: Van Cliburn studies piano from 1951 to 1954 and won multiple awards between A B C D 1958 and 1960.

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B. Jessica must be very upset when you left. C. Jessica may be very upset when you left. D. Jessica must have been very upset when you left. Question 32. “What a novel idea for the farewell party” said Nam to the monitor. A. Nam exclaimed with admiration at the novel idea for the farewell party of the monitor. B. Nam admired the novel idea for the farewell party. C. Nam thought over the novel idea of the farewell party. D. Nam said that it was a novel idea of the monitor for the farewell party. Question 33. She last visited her home country ten years ago. A. She hasn't visited her home country for ten years. B. She didn’t visit her home country ten years ago. C. She has visited her home country for ten years. D. She was in her home country for ten years. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30. Spectacular, played today on all kinds of surfaces by tens of millions of people, for fun or in competition, tennis has spread (34) ______ over the world. Designed and codified in England in the 1870s, it is the direct descendant of jeu de paume, invented in France in the 11th century. The developments of this mediaeval (35) ______ , originally practised with bare hands, like the invention of the racket in the 16th century and the special scoring system (15, 30, 40, game), led directly to tennis, (36) ______ its name, from the French word “tenez!” (in the sense of “here it comes!”), which you said to your opponent as you were about to serve. The popularity of tennis in England quickly (37) ______ that of croquet. Indeed, barely three years passed between the publication of A Portable Court of Playing Tennis by Welsh Major Walter Clopton Wingfield in 1874, the defining work in terms of codifying lawn tennis, and the holding of the first Wimbledon tournament in 1877. The decisive element introduced by Wingfield was the use of a rubber ball, (38) ______ could bounce on grass. (Adapted from https://www.olympic.org/) Question 34: A. each B. any C. all D. every Question 35: A. score B. screw C. smoke D. sport Question 36: A. including B. before C. without D. except Question 37: A. pretended B. overtook C. pressured D. guided Question 38: A. which B. that C. what D. where Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43 Being repeatedly late may just be accidental - or could it show a deeply rooted psychological desire to express your own superiority? when I worked in an office, meetings would often start late, usually because of a certain individual. Then they would overrun and the whole day lost its shape. But the individual was high-ranking and self-important: nobody challenged. So, what are the ethics of lateness? There’s a psychotherapist called Irvin Yalom who argues that all behaviour reflects psychology. Just as people who like to be on time are motivated by certain deep-seated beliefs, so those who make others wait are acting out an inner agenda, often based on an acute sense of power. There’s famous footage in which Silvio Berlusconi kept Angela Merkel waiting while he made a call on his mobile. It speaks volumes. But that is when all lateness is in one’s control, what about when your train is cancelled or your flight is delayed or you had to wait longer for the plumber to arrive? In such cases, there’s not a lot of psychology involved. Or is there? Some people will genuinely worry about the impact it will have on those left waiting, while others might secretly enjoy the power of their absence. The essential fact is that lateness means breaking a convention - you can only be late in respect of a time agreed with other people. Regardless of psychology, it has a social value. And when we treat other people’s time as less valuable than our own, we treat them as inferior. (Adapted from https://www.olympic.org/ Question 39. What is the main idea of the passage? A. Lateness indicates superiority of important individuals. B. Social values of individuals are fostered through lateness. Page 3 | 5

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C. Being late can reveal a lot about people’s psychology. D. People with high sense of power have a tendency to be late. Question 40. What is the “speaks volumes” in paragraph 2 closest in meaning to? A. tells a lot B. makes sounds C. holds power D. talks loudly Question 41. Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage? A. The way our minds work is responsible for the way we behave. B. Some people control a situation for their benefit through lateness. C. Lateness can have an impact on other people who are made to wait. D. Most people react the same when lateness is out of their control. Question 42. It can be inferred from the reading passage that___________. A. Berlusconi made Merkel wait as he wanted to show his importance. B. it is fashionable to be late to meetings because nobody challenges. C. the writer’s daily schedule was unaffected by his colleague’s lateness. D. nothing can be said about one’s psychology if lateness is out of control. Question 43. What does the word “it” in paragraph 4 refer to? B. lateness C. convention D. psychology A. fact Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions front 43 to 50. Homeopathy, the alternative therapy created in 1796 by Samuel Hahnemann, and now widely used all over the world, is based on the belief that the body can be stimulated to heal itself. A central principle of the “treatment” is that “like cures like”, meaning a substance that causes certain symptoms can also help to remove those symptoms. Medicines used in homeopathy are created by heavily diluting in water the substance in question and subsequently shaking the liquid vigorously. They can then be made into tablets and pills. Practitioners believe that the more a substance is diluted in this way, the greater its power to treat symptoms. However, in a new study, a working committee of medical experts at Australia’s National Health and Medical Research Council (NHMRC) has claimed that homeopathic medicines are only as effective as placebos at treating illness. Their research, involving the analysis of numerous reports from homeopathy interest groups and the public, concluded that there is no reliable evidence that homeopathy works. Moreover, researchers uncovered no fewer than 68 ailments that homeopathic remedies had failed to treat, including asthma, sleep disturbances, cold and flu, and arthritis. As a result of the findings, the NHMRC is urging health workers to inform their patients to be wary of anecdotal evidence that appears to support the effectiveness of homeopathic medicine. “It isn’t possible to tell whether a health treatment is effective or not simply by considering the experience of one individual or the beliefs of a health practitioner” says the report. Experts believe that most illnesses said to have been cured by homeopathy would be cured by the body on its own without taking the medicine. Apparently, many illnesses are short-lived by their very nature which often leads to people believing that it is the homeopathy that cures them. A more serious matter is highlighted by Professor John Dwyer of the University of New South Wales. As an immunologist, he is concerned about homeopathic vaccinations on offer for diseases such as HIV, tuberculosis, and malaria, none of which he considers effective. According to Professor John Dwyer, the concept that homeopathic vaccinations are just as good as traditional vaccinations is delusion, and those who believe it are failing to protect themselves and their children. (Adapted from https://www.olympic.org/ Question 44. Which could be the best title for the passage? A. “Homeopathy kills” say scientists B. “Avoid homeopathy” say scientists C. Homeopathy worth trying once D. Unknown effects of homeopathy Question 45. According to the reading passage, homeopathic medicines are___________ . A. prepared similarly for different diseases B. made up of a variety of ingredients C. suitable for a wide range of symptoms D. available only in the liquid form Question 46. What does the word “their” in paragraph 2 refer to? A. committee B. NHMRC C. medicines D. placebos Page 4 | 5

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Question 47. The Australian study reveals that homeopathy is___________. A. increasingly popular with the public B. helpful in the case of respiratory infections C. ineffective in treating many diseases D. of great interest to a certain group of people Question 48. What is the word “wary” in paragraph 3 closest in meaning to? A. apprehensive B. reluctant C. cautious D. observant Question 49. People tend to believe in homeopathy because of___________. A. advertisements displayed in health center B. positive feedback from a small number of people C. reliable proof from recent medical reports D. results of research into some alternatives therapies Question 50. What is the word “delusion” in paragraph 4 closest in meaning to? A. legend B. falsehood C. imagination D. hallucination

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA 06 (Đề thi có 05 trang)

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Họ, tên thí sinh……………………………………………………………………… Số báo danh: .................................................................................................................... Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 1: The Botanical Garden was a very _________ place where we made a short tour round the garden and took some pictures of the whole class. A. beautify B. beautifully C. beautiful D. beautification Question 2 : She doesn’t imagine that I have much money, _______? A. does she B. do I C. haven’t I D. doesn’t she for days, Tom finally went to see his doctor. Question 3: After feeling off A. food B. color C. fitness D. balance Question 4: This policewoman is famous ____ her courage and strong will. A. with B. for C. on D. about Question 5: There were 79 killed and 230 ________in a bomb explosion at the embassy. A. injured B. wounded C. hurt D. ached Question 6: ____ many international agreements affirming their human rights, women are still much more likely than men to be poor and illiterate. A. Although B. Despite C. Because D. Since Question 7: Lara goes to a (n) _____________ temple every week. A. great big ancient BuddhistB. Buddhist great big ancient C. ancient great big BuddhistD. big great ancient Buddhist Question 8: The meeting appeared to be going well until Sarah ______________ the issue of holiday pay. A. brought about B. brought up C. brought off D. brought on Question 9: When I came to her house last night, she ________________ dinner. A. is having B. was having C. has had D. had had Question 10. _______, I will give her a gift. A. When he will come B. When she comes here C. Until he will come D. No sooner she cames Question 11: We have been working hard. Let’s a break. A. make B. find C. do D. take Question 12: It is parents' duty and responsibility to ______ hands to take care of their children and give them a happy home. A. give B. hold C. join D. shake Question 13. Harry Potter and the Goblet of Fire ________ by J K Rowling. A. written B. was written C. wrote D. were written ________ his composition, Louie handed it to his teacher. Question 14. A. Having written B. Having been written C. Being written D. Writing Question 15: The faster we walk, ____________ we will get there. A. the soonest B. the soon C. the more soon D. the sooner Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges. Question 16: "Why do you like pop music?” - “_______.” A. Pop music originated in the Western world. B. Because it is soft and beautiful. C. Westlife is a pop band. Page 1 | 5

D. Since the 1950s, pop has had some new elements. Question 17: “What’s your neighbourhood like?” - “_______." A. I live in Ha Noi. B. Sounds good. I like living there. C. It’s good. I love it. D. No, there is no hospital there.

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B. faced B. famine

C. objected C. famous

D. waited D. fabricate

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: Life expectancy for both men and women has improved greatly in the past twenty years. A. Living standard B. Longevity C. Life Skills D. Lifeline Question 23: Young college and university students participate in helping the poor who have suffered badly in wars or natural disasters. A. get involved in B. interfere with C. join hands D. come into Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions Question 24: As a brilliant and mature student Marie harboured the dream of a scientific career which was impossible for a woman at that time. A. kept B. had C. abandoned D. deleted Question 25: After the tragic death of Pierre Curie in 1906, she not only took charge of educating her two children but also took the position which her husband had finally obtained at the Sorbonne. A. brilliant B. lovely C. fascinating D. happy Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 26: It was not until the sun was shining brightly that the little girl woke up. A. No sooner was the sun shining brightly than the little girl woke up. B. Not until the little girl woke up was the sun shining brightly. C. Not until the sun was shining brightly did the little girl wake up. D. As soon as the little girl woke up, the sun hasn’t shone brightly yet. Question 27: You must read the instructions. You won’t know how to use this machine without reading them. A. Unless you read the instructions, you won’t know how to use this machine. B. You will know how to use this machine unless you read the instructions. C. Without reading the instructions, the use of this machine won’t be known. D. Reading the instructions, so you will know how to use this machine. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions Mark the letter A, B, C, orD on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 28. I visit Mexico and the United States last year. A. visit B. Mexico C. United States D. and Question 29: We are having her house painted by a construction company. A B C D Question 30: She is becoming increasingly forgetable. Last night she locked herself out of the house twice. A B C D Page 2 | 5

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions Question 31: It started to rain at 4 o’clock and it is still raining. A. It has been raining at 4 o’clock. B. It has been raining since 4 o’clock C. It has been raining for 4 o’clock. D. It has been raining in 4 o’clock. Question 32: “Mum, please don’t tell Dad my mistake!” the girl said. A. The girl insisted her mother not tell her father his mistake. B. The girl told her mother not to mention her mistake any more. C. The girl asked her mother not to tell her father her mistake. D. The girl wanted her mother to keep her mistake in her heart. Question 33: You are able to go out with your friend this evening A. You musn’t go out with your friend this evening. B. You should go out with your friend this evening. C. You needn’t go out with your friend this evening D. You can go out with your friend this evening. Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B, C,or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. Not (34) _______ recognises the benefits of new developments in communications technology. Indeed, some people fear that text messaging may actually be having a negative effect on young people’s communication and language skills, especially when we hear that primary school children may be at risk of becoming addicted to the habit. So widespread has texting become, however, that even pigeons have started doing it. (35) _____________, in this case, it’s difficult to view the results as anything but positive. Twenty of the birds are about to take to the skies with the task of measuring air pollution, each (36) _____________with sensor equipment and a mobile phone. The readings made by the sensors will be automatically converted into text messages and beamed to the Internet - (37) _____________they will appear on a dedicated ‘pigeon blog’. The birds will also each have a GPS receiver and a camera to capture aerial photos, and researchers are building a tiny ‘pigeon kit’ containing all these gadgets. Each bird will carry these in a miniature backpack, (38) ____________ , that is, from the camera, which will hang around its neck. The data the pigeons text will be displayed in the form of an interactive map, which will provide local residents with upto-the-minute information on their local air quality. Question 34. A. nobody B. others C. every D. all Question 35. A. Therefore B. What’s more C.whereas D. That is Question 36. A. armed B.loaded C. granted D. stocked Question 37. A. when B. which C. where D. what instead except apart Question 38. A. B. C. D. besides Read the following passage and choose A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from In this era of increased global warming and diminishing fossil fuel supplies, we must begin to put a greater priority on harnessing alternative energy sources. Fortunately, there are a number of readily available, renewable resources that are both cost- effective and earth - friendly. Two such resources are solar power and geothermal power. Solar energy, which reaches the earth through sunlight, is so abundant that it could meet the needs of worldwide energy consumption 6,000 times over. And solar energy is easily harnessed through the use of photovoltaic cells that convert sunlight to electricity. In the us alone, more than 100, 000 homes are equipped with solar electric systems in the form of solar panels or solar roof tiles. And in other parts of the world, including many developing countries, the use of solar system is growing steadily. Another alternative energy source, which is abundant in specific geographical areas, is geothermal power, which creates energy by tapping heat from below the surface of the earth. Hot water and steam that are trapped in underground pools are pumped to the surface and used to run a generator, which produces electricity. Geothermal energy is 50,000 times more abundant than the entire known supply of fossil fuel Page 3 | 5

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resources and as with solar power, the technology needed to utilize geothermal energy is fairly simple. A prime example of effective geothermal use in Iceland, a region of high geothermal activity where there are over 80 percent of private homes, are heated by geothermal power. Solar and geothermal energy are just two of promising renewable alternatives to conventional energy sources. The time is long overdue to invest in the development and use of alternative energy on global scale. Question 39. what is the main topic of this passage? A. The benefits of solar and wind power over conventional energy sources. B. Two types of alternative energy sources that should be further utilized. C. How energy resources are tapped from nature. D. Examples of the use of energy sources worldwide. Question 40. which of the following words could best replace the word “abundant”? A. a lot B. scarce C. little D. enough Question 41. The word “it” in the second paragraph refers to_____________ A. solar energy B. the earth C. sunlight D. energy consumption Question 42. According to the passage, how is solar energy production similar to geothermal energy production? A. They both require the use of a generator. B. They both use heat from the earth’s surface. C. They both require fairly simple technology. D. They are both conventional and costly. Question 43. what best describes the author’s purpose in writing the passage? A. To warn people about the hazards of fossil fuel use. B. To convince people of the benefits of developing alternative energy sources. C. To describe the advantages and disadvantages of alternative energy use. D. To outline the problems and solutions connected with global warming. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 43 to 50. According to sociologists, there are several different ways in which a person may become recognized as the leader of a social group in the United States. In the family, traditional cultural patterns confer leadership on one or both of the parents. In other cases, such as friendship groups, one or more persons may gradually emerge as leaders, although there is no formal process of selection. In larger groups, leaders are usually chosen formally through election or recruitment. Although leaders are often thought to be people with unusual personal ability, decades of research have failed to produce consistent evidence that there is any category of “natural leaders.” It seems that there is no set of personal qualities that all leaders have in common; rather, virtually any person may be recognized as a leader if the person has qualities that meet the needs of that particular group. Furthermore, although it is commonly supposed that social groups have a single leader, research suggests that there are typically two different leadership roles that are held by different individuals. Instrumental leadership is leadership that emphasizes the completion of tasks by a social group. Group members look to instrumental leaders to “get things” done. Expressive leadership, on the other hand, is leadership that emphasizes the collective well¬being of a social group’s member. Expressive leader are less concerned with the overall goals of the group than with providing emotional support to group members and attempting to minimize tension and conflict among them. Group members expect expressive leaders to maintain stable relationships within the group and provide support to individual members. Instrumental leaders are likely to have a rather secondary relationship to other group members. They give orders and may discipline group members who inhibit attainment of the groups goals. Expressive leaders cultivate a more personal or primary relationship to others in the group. They offer sympathy when someone experiences difficulties or is subjected to discipline, are quick to lighten a serious moment with humor, and try to resolve issues that threaten to divide the group. As the differences in these two roles suggest, expressive leaders generally receive more personal affection from group members; instrumental leaders, if they are successful in promoting group goals, may enjoy a more distant respect. Question 44. what does the passage mainly discuss? Page 4 | 5

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A. How leadership differs in small and large groups B. The role of leaders in social groups C. The problems faced by leaders D. How social groups determine who will lead them Question 45. The passage mentions all of the following ways by which people can become leaders EXCEPT___________ A. recruitment B. specific leadership training traditional cultural patterns C. D. formal election process Question 46. which of the following statements about leadership can be inferred from paragraph 2? A. person can best learn how to be an effective leader by studying research on leadership. B. Most people desire to be leaders but can produce little evidence of their qualifications. C. A person who is an effective leader of a particular group may not be an effective leader in another group. D. Few people succeed in sharing a leadership role with another person. Question 47. The passage indicates that instrumental leaders generally focus on___________ A. sharing responsibility with group members B. achieving a goal C. ensuring harmonious relationships D. identifying new leaders Question 48. The word “collective” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to___________ A. necessary B. group C. particular D. typical Question 49. It can be understood that___________ A. There is lots of tension and conflict in an election of a leader in the family. B. There is usually an election to choose leaders in a family as well as in larger groups. C. It has been said that there must be a set of personal qualities that all leaders have in common. D. Leaders are sometimes chosen formally or informally. Question 50. The word “resolve” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to___________ A. talk about B. find a solution for avoid repeating C. D. avoid thinking about

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA 07 (Đề thi có 05 trang)

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Họ, tên thí sinh……………………………………………………………………… Số báo danh: .................................................................................................................... Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following Question 1: As a ______ and mature student, Marie Curie earned a Physics degree with flying colors. A. brilliant B. brilliantly C. brilliantness D. brilliance Question 2: How beautiful the queen is, ________? A. isn’t she B. is she C. is it D. isn’t it Question 3. We know that we are at fault for our third consecutive defeat, so there is no need to________salt into the wound. A. spread B. rub C. apply D. put Question 4 .Students are________ less pressure as a result of changes in testing procedures. A. under B. above C. upon D. out of

Question 5: It is reported that the building was completely________by fire. A. spoilt B. ruined C. damaged D. destroyed

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Question 6: ____ ASEAN is becoming more integrated, investors should be aware of local preferences and cultural sensitivities. A. Because B. However C. Despite D. Although Question 7: It is really a (n)_____________ which is suitable for my daughter. A. undergraduate interesting economics course B. economics course interesting undergraduate C. interesting economics undergraduate course D. interesting undergraduate economics course Question 8: A man was arrested for _________________ the White House in November 2017. A. backing down B. breaking into C. bringing off D. bargaining for Question 9: While my father ________________ a film on TV, my mother was cooking dinner. A. watched B. was watching C. had watched D. watches Question 10: Mary will have worked at this school for 25 years ________. A. by the time she retires B. when she retired C. as soon as she had retired D. after she had retired Question 11: After the visit to that special school, we friends with some students with reading disabilities. A. acquainted B. had C. made D. realised Question 12. In a formal interview, it is essential to maintain good eye___________with the interviewers. A. link B. connection C. touch D. contact Question 13. Only half of the exercises ________ so far, but the rest will have been finished by Saturday. A. are being done B. were done C. have been done D. have done Question 14. ____________the homework, he was allowed to go out with his friends. A. Finishing B. Finish C. To finish D. Having finished Question 15. The country is rapidly losing its workers as____________people are emigrating. A. the most and the mostB. the more and the more C. more and more D. most and most Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges. Page 1 | 7

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Question 16. “Good luck with the exam, Minh!” - “_______, Dad.” A. By no means B. I wish so C. Never mind D. Thank you Question 17. “Dad. I’ve passed the English test.” - “_______.” A. Good job! B. Good test! C. Good luck! D. Good way!

B. trophy B. necessity

C. facial C. academic

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Question 18. A. sleepy Question 19. A. authority

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. D. exact D. commercially

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. B. helped C. dismissed D. booked Question 20. A. borrowed Question 21. A. workshop B. worm C. worry D. wordless

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 22. The football final has been postponed until next Sunday due to the heavy snowstorm. A. cancelled B. changed C. delayed D. continued Question 23. The discovery of the new planet was regarded as a major breakthrough in astronomy. A. promised B. doubted C. considered D. refused Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is OPPOSITE in meaning to each of the following questions.

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Question 24. The loss of his journals had caused him even more sorrow than his retirement from the military six years earlier. A. grief B. joy C. comfort D. sympathy Question 25. As a newspaper reporter, she always wanted to get information at first hand A. indirectly B. directly C. easily D. slowly

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Câu 26: I had just come home. Then I heard the phone ringing. A.No sooner had I come home then I heard the phone ringing. B.Scarcely had I come home when I heard the phone ringing. C.I had barely come home than I heard the phone ringing. D.Hardly barely come home did I hear the phone ringing. Question 27: You don’t try to work hard. You will fail in the exam. A.Unless you don’t try to work hard, you will fail in the exam. B.Unless you try to work hard, you won’t fail in the exam. C.Unless you try to work hard, you will fail in the exam. D.Unless do you try to work hard, you will fail in the exam. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the undelined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 28: Exceeding speed limits and fail to wear safety belts are two common causes of automobile death. A. Exceeding B. fail C. safety belts D. causes Question 29: It was suggested that John studies the material more thoroughly before attempting to pass the exam. A. studies B. more C. attempting D. to pass Page 2 | 7

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Question 30: They are the shocking news in newspapers that is what people are talking about this morning. A. They are B. is C. are D. about Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 31. I haven't met my grandparents for five years. A.I often met my grandparents five years ago. B.I last met my grandparents five years ago. C.I have met my grandparents for five years. D.I didn't meet my grandparents five years ago. Question 32. “I will help you with the housework”, Mai said. A. Mai promised to help me with the housework. B. Mai asked me to help her with the housework. C. Mai begged to help me with the housework. D. Mai insisted on helping me with the housework. Question 33. There was no need for him to have left the house in such weather. A.He shouldn’t leave the house in such weather. B.He didn’t have to leave the house in such weather. C.He didn’t need to leave the house in such weather. D.He needn’t have left the house in such weather. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. The first thing that is included in the "living together” (34) ______ is the expected good relations with your family. This also involves sharing equally the housework. (35) _______ of people think that everyone should share the housework equally, but in many homes parents do most of it. To certain minds, many families can't share the housework whereas they should try it. In fact, sharing the housework equally is not very possible because of the families' timetable. So, it is somehow believed that children and parents must do things together. For this they can establish a housework planning. (36)_________, housework's contributions of the teenager make him more responsible. He will think that he has an important role in his family. According to researchers, teenagers should share the housework because (37) ______ will help them when they have to establish their own family in the future. Too many teenagers and young adults leave home without knowing how to cook or clean, but if parents delegate basic housework to teens as they are old enough to do it, they won't be destabilized by doing the housework in their new grown-up life. It can be (38) ________ concluded that many parents don't really prepare their children for future, because they don't stimulate them to learn how to run a house. If parents get them responsible, teens will be more responsible and that will improve family's life. (Source: https://www.sciencedaily.com/releases/2013) Question 34: A. custom B. tradition C. notion D. trend Question 35: A. lots B. few C. little D. a lot of Question 36: A. In addition B. However C. In contrast D. In case Question 37: A. which B. what C. that D. who Question 38: A. likely B. probably C. auspiciously D. possibly

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D, on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. People commonly complain that they never have enough time to accomplish tasks. The hours and minutes seem to slip away before many planned chores get done. According to time management experts, the main reason for this is that most people fail to set priorities about what to do first. They get tied down by trivial, time-consuming matters and never complete the important ones. One simple solution often used by those at the top is to keep lists of tasks to be accomplished daily. These lists order jobs from most essential to least essential and are checked regularly through the day to access progress. Not only is this an effective Way to manage time, but also it serves to give individuals a much- deserved sense of satisfaction over their achievements. People who do not keep lists often face Page 3 | 7

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the end of the work day with uncertainty over the significance of their accomplishments, which over time can contribute to serious problems in mental and physical health (Source: https://www.sciencedaily.com/releases/2013) Question 39: Which of the following is the best title for the passage? A. Common Complaints About Work B. Accomplishing Trivial Matters C. Achieving Job Satisfaction D. Learning to Manage Time Question 40: According to the passage, why do many people never seem to have enough time to accomplish things? A.They do not prioritize tasks. B. They get tied down by one difficult problem C. They fail to deal with trivial matters D. They do not seek the advice of time management experts Question 41: In paragraph 2, the word those refers to . A. daily lists B. trivial matters C. priorities D. people Question 42: The passage states that one solution to time management problems is to . A. consult a time management expert B. accomplish time - consuming matters first C. keep daily lists of priorities and check them regularly D. spend only a short time on each task Question 43. The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses . A. mental and physical health problems B. another solution to time management problems C. ways to achieve a sense of fulfilment D. different types of lists

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D, on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions There are many mistakes that people make when writing their resume (CV) or completing a job application. Here are some of the most common and most serious. The biggest problem is perhaps listing the duties for which you were responsible in a past position: all this tells your potential employers is what you were supposed to do. They do not necessarily know the specific skills you used in executing them, nor do they know what results you achieved - both of which are essential. In short, they won’t know if you were the best, the worst or just average in your position. The more concrete information you can include, the better. As far as possible, provide measurements of what you accomplished. If any innovations you introduced saved the organization money, how much did they save? If you found a way of increasing productivity, by what percentage did you increase it? Writing what you are trying to achieve in life - your objective - is a waste of space. It tells the employer what you are interested in. Do you really think that employers care what you want? No, they are interested in what they want! Instead, use that space for a career summary. A good one is brief three to four sentences long. A good one will make the person reviewing your application want to read further. Many resumes list ‘hard’ job-specific skills, almost to the exclusion of transferable, or ‘soft’, skills. However, your ability to negotiate effectively, for example, can be just as important as your technical skills. All information you give should be relevant, so carefully consider the job for which you are applying. If you are applying for a job that is somewhat different than your current job, it is up to you to draw a connection for the resume reviewer, so that they will understand how your skills will fit in their organization. The person who reviews your paperwork will not be a mind reader. If you are modest about the skills you can offer, or the results you have achieved, a resume reader may take what you write literally, and be left with a low opinion of your ability: you need to say exactly how good you are. On the other hand, of course, never stretch the truth or lie. (Source: www.ielts-mentor.com) Question 44: What topic does the passage mainly discuss? A. The way how to write the resume for job application. Page 4 | 7

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B. The mistakes people make when applying for a job. C. The common way to make impression in a job interview. D. The necessary skills for job application. Question 45: The word “executing” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________________. A. enumerating B. determining C. completing D. implementing Question 46: The word “concrete” in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by ______________. A. indeterminate B. specific C. substantial D. important Question 47: What does the word “it” in paragraph 3 refer to? A. organization money B. information C. productivity D. percentage Question 48: According to the passage, what information should candidates include in their resume? A. specific skills for previous jobs B. the past achievements C. previous positions D. future objective Question 49: Why did the author mention that applicants should write a good brief career summary? A. To make the employers interested in what they want. B. To make the interviewers more curious about you. C. Because the employers do not care for what you want to achieve. D. Because it can provide their specific skills in their positions. Question 50: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true? A. The ability to negotiate effectively is as significant as technical skills. B. Candidates must study the job they are applying carefully before writing the CV. C. Applicants should not apply for a distinct job from what they are doing. D. The information interviewees present should be related to the job they are applying.

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA 08 (Đề thi có 05 trang)

Question 3: Hearing about people who mistreat animals makes me go hot under the

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A. shoes B. collar C. T-shirt D. vest Question 4: The sign warns people ______ the dangers of swimming in this river. A. about B. from C. with D. to Question 5: Can the sales team meet its financial________? A. purposes B. aims C. goals D. objectives Question 6: The residents of the village are living a happy life _______ they lack modern facilities. A. despite B. although C. therefore D. because of Question 7: – “Can I help you, sir?” – “I’m looking for a ___________ desk for my son.” A. wooden round fashionable B. round fashionable wooden C. wooden fashionable round D. fashionable round wooden Question 8: The United States __________ some 150,000 military reservists when the war broke out. A. came about B. caught on C. called up D. carried out Question 9: We______for going home when it began to rain. A. were preparing B. are preparing C. will be preparing D. have prepared _______, he will get ready to go to work. Question 10. A. When he will have breakfast tomorrow B. Until he would have breakfast tomorrow C. After he has breakfast tomorrow D. As soon as he had breakfast tomorrow Question 11: You should ______ more attention to what your teacher explains. A. make B. pay C. get D. set a fool of myself. Question 12: I'm not going to go ice skating! I'd only fall over and______ A. create B. show C.do D. make Question 13. French ________ at their schools as a compulsory lesson for 20 years until last year. A. is being taught B. was being taught C. had been taught D. has been taught Question 14. ________ all the papers already, Sarah put them back in the file. A. To have photocopied B. To photocopy C. Photocopying D. Having photocopied Question 15: The more she practices, _____________ she becomes. A. the greater confidence B. more confidently C. the more confident D. the most confident Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges. Question 16: “Take care! Have a safe trip back!” - “_______.” A. Thanks for coming. B. Sounds good. C. Thanks, bye. D. Good luck next time. Question 17: “What a meaningful thing you've done for your less fortunate friends, my son!” - “_______”

A. from

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A. Thanks for taking care of me, Mom. B. What a wonderful gift you've made for me. C. I don’t really care. I must go now. D. Thank you, Mom. That’s just a bit I can do for them. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position ofprimary stress in each of the following questions Question 18. A. teacher B. lesson C. action D. police Question 19. A. importance B. happiness C. employment D. relation Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. B. planned C. cooked D. lived Question 20. A. played Question 21. A. date B. face C. page D. map Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: Whenever problems come up, they discuss them frankly and find solutions quickly. A. honestly B. constantly C. loyally D. unselfishly Question 23: Unselfishness is the very essence of friendship. A. necessary part B. important part C. difficult part D. interesting part Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24: Peter is the black sleep of the family. He is currently serving 10 years in jail for stealing a car. A.a member of a family who is regarded as a disgrace and an embarrassment. B.a member of a family who supports family by raising sheep. C.a member of a family who confers prestige on his family. D.a breadwinner. Question 25: There must be a mutual trust between friends. A. reliance B. belief C. defendant D. suspicion Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26: He got down to writing the letter as soon as he returned from his walk. A. No sooner had he returned from his walk when he got down to writing the letter. B. Not until he returned from his walk did he get down to writing the letter. C. Only after he had returned from his walk did he get down to writing the letter. D. Hardly had he returned from his walk when he got down to writing the letter. Question 27. I can’t give up smoking but I’d like to. A. I wish I can give up smoking. B. I wish I could give up smoking. C. I wish I would give up smoking. D. I wish I could not give up smoking. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the undelined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 28: The ocean probably distinguishes the earth from other planets of the solar system, for scientists believe that large bodies of water are not existing on the other planets. B. probably

C. for

D. are not existing

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Question 29: The school officials are considering a comprehensive planning to alleviate the problem of overcrowding in the dormitories B.planning A. are C. alleviate D. overcrowding Question 30. The dog stood up slowly, wagged it tail, blinked its eyes, and barked. A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 31: I really believe my letter came as a great surprise to John.

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A.John may be very surprised to receive my letter. B.John might have been very surprised to receive my letter. C.John must be very surprised to receive my letter. D.John must have been very surprised to receive my letter. Question 32: He said: “I haven’t met her since she left school.” A.He said that he hadn’t met her since he had left school. B.He said that he hadn’t met her since he left school. C.He said that he hadn’t met her since she left school. D.He said that he hadn’t met her since she had left school. Question 33. The last time he came back to his hometown was 5 years ago.

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A. It's 5 years since he last lived in his hometown. B. He didn't come back to his hometown 5 years ago. C. He started coming back to his hometown 5 years ago. D. He hasn’t come back to his hometown for 4 years. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each the numbered blanks. Most educational specialists believe that early schooling should provide children with a(n) (34) _______ of their own abilities and the self-confidence to use their abilities. One approach recognized by many (35) _______ as promoting these qualities is the Montessori method, first practised by Maria Montessori of Italy in the early 1900s. Nancy McCormick Rambusch is credited with (37) _______ the method in the United States, (36) _______ today there are over 400 Montessori schools. The method helps children learn for themselves by providing them with instructional materials and tasks that facilitate acts of discovery and manipulation. Through such exploration, children develop their sense of touch and learn how to do everyday tasks without adult assistance. (38) _______ benefits include improvement in language skills, and acquaintance with elements of science, music, and art. Question 34. A. attitude B. awareness C. knowledge D. attention Question 35. A. experts B. researchers C. teachers D. tutors Question 36. A. popularly B. popularity C. popularizing D. popular Question 37. A. which B. where C. x D. that Question 38. A. Other B. Others C. Another D. The others Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions MBirds have evolved many physical attributes that contribute to their flying ability. Wings are important, but adjustable tails, large hearts and light bones play critical roles To fly, birds, like airplanes, move air across their wings. Wings are designed so that air above the wings is forced to move faster than air below the wing. This creates higher pressure under the wings, called lift, which pushes the bird up. Different wing types evolved for different ways of flying. Prolonged flight requires long wings and an ability to soar. Other birds need superior maneuverability. Finches and sparrows have short, broad wings. Faster birds, like hawks have built - in spoilers that reduce turbulence while flying. This allows a steeper angle of attack without stalling. Tails have evolved for specialized use. The tail acts like a rudder helping birds steer. Birds brake by spreading out their tails as they land. This adaptation allows them to make sudden, controlled stops in essential skill, since most birds need to land on individual branches or on prey. Flight takes muscle strength. If body builders had wings, they still could not flap hard enough to leave the ground. Birds have large, specialized hearts that beat much faster than the human heart and provide the necessary oxygen to the muscles. The breast muscle accounts for 15 percent of the bird’s body weight. On pigeons, it accounts for a third of their total body weight. Birds carry no excess baggage, they have hollow feathers and hollow bones with struts inside to maintain strength, like cross beams in a bridge. Birds fly to find a prey, escape predators, and attract mates-in other words, to survive. (Source: https://www.sciencedaily.com/releases

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Question 39. what is the main idea of the passage? A. Wings are the most important physical attribute of birds. B. Different wing styles evolved for different types of flight. C. Birds have many specialized features that aid in their survival. D. Birds fly for many reasons. Question 40. According to the passage, what causes birds to rise when they start flying? B. Higher air pressure below than above the wings A. Long wings with hollow feathers C. Spreading out their tails D. Superior muscle strength Question 41. The phrase “finches and sparrows” refers to___________. A. wings B. maneuvers C. ways of flying D. birds Question 42. According to the passage, what benefit comes from having built-in spoilers? B. a steeper angle of diving for prey A. an ability to fly faster C. prolonged flight D. superior maneuverability when climbing Question 43. What does the author imply about the body builders having wings? A. If they flapped their wings, they could fly a little. B. If they had wings, their muscles would be strong enough for flight. C. If they had wings, their hearts would still not be large for flight. D. Their wings would total 15 percent of their body weight. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50. The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) was signed into law in 1990. This law extends civil rights protection to persons with disabilities in private sector employment, all public services, and in public accommodations, transportation, and telecommunications. A person with disability is defined as someone with a mental or physical impairment that substantially limits him or her in a major life activity, such as walking, talking, working, or self-care. A person with a disability may also be someone with a past record of such an impairment, for example, someone who no longer has heart disease but discriminated against because of that history. The ADA states that employers with fifteen or more employees may not refuse to hire or promote a person because of a disability if that person is qualified to perform the job. Also, the employer must make reasonable accommodations that will allow a person with a disability to perform essential functions of the job. All new vehicles purchased by public transit authorities must be accessible to people with disabilities. All rail stations must be made accessible, and at least one car per train in existing rail systems must be made accessible. It is illegal for public accommodations to exclude or refuse persons with disabilities. Public accommodations are businesses and services such as restaurants, hotels, grocery stores, and parks. All new buildings must be made accessible, and existing facilities must remove barriers if the removal can be accomplished without much difficulty or expense. The ADA also stipulates that companies offering telephone service to the general public must offer relay services to individuals who use telecommunications devices for the deaf, twenty- four hours a day, seven days a week.

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Question 44. what is the main purpose of the passage? A. To describe discrimination against persons with disabilities. B. To explain the provisions of the Americans with Disabilities Act. C. To make suggestions for hiring persons with disabilities. D. To discuss telecommunications devices for the deaf. Question 45. According to the passage, all of the followings are affected by the Americans with Disabilities Act EXCEPT___________. A. someone who has difficulty walking B. a public transit authority C. an employer with fewer than fifteen employees D. a person with a past record of an impairment Question 46. The word “impairment” in bold in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to___________. A. disability B. violation C. aptitude D. danger Question 47. The author mentions grocery stores as an example of___________.

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. D. disabilities

A. public transit B. barriers C. private sector employment D. public accommodation Question 48. The word “facilities” in bold in paragraph 3 refers to___________ A. barriers B. buildings C. rail stations Question 49. The author implies all of the followings EXCEPT___________. A. the ADA requires people with disabilities to pay for special accommodations B. the ADA is designed to protect the civil rights of many people C. public transportation must accommodate the needs of people with disabilities D. the ADA protects the rights of people with mental impairments Question 50. It can be inferred from the passage that___________ . A. restaurants can refuse service to people with disabilities B. every car of a train must be accessible to persons with disabilities C. the ADA is not well-liked by employers D. large companies may not discriminate against workers with disabilities

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA 09 (Đề thi có 05 trang)

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Question 9: When I last saw him, he______in London. A. has lived B. is living C. was living D. has been living Question 10. We will congratulate him on winning the first prize _______.

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A. as soon as Peter gets here B. after Peter had got here C. when Peter was getting here D. until Peter got here Question 11. The food is ready - please could you _______ the table for me? A. make B. take C. lay D. hang Question 12: Food and drinks which strongly the body can cause stress. A. boost B. motivate C. encourage D. stimulate Question 13.The knife ________ at a high place where the children can't reach. A. must be kept B. must keep C. must be keeping D. must not keep Question 14. ________ repairing the car, Pete took it out for a road test. A. Finishing B. To finish C. Having finished D. Finished Question 15: The more you talk about the situation, ____________ it seems A. worse B. the worse C. the worser D. the worst Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges Question 16: - 'I have two days off this week. Let's help at the orphanage then.' - “______________” A. Not really. I have classes on those days. B. That sounds great! I can't wait to go there. C. Oh. I see you have a heart of gold. D. Thanks for suggesting us. Question 27: Phúc: “I am offered the job at Vietravel.” Thomas: “_______.” A. Good Heavens! B. Congratulations! C. Good luck! D. Never mind, better luck next time Page 1|6

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position ofprimary stress in each of the following questions. B. offer C. apply D. persuade Question 18. A. reduce B. physicist C. president D. property Question 19. A. inventor

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from Question 20. A. started B. stopped C. decided D. hated Question 21. A. work B. stork C. force D. form Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: I don't like that man. There is a sneaky look on his face. A. furious B. humorous C. dishonest D. guilty Question 23: Professor Berg was very interested in the diversity of cultures all over the world. A. variety B. changes C. conservation D. number Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24. Mr. Smith’s new neighbors appear to be very friendly.

A. hostile

B. nice

C. aware

D. popular

Question 25. If you are at a loose end this weekend, I will show you round the city.

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A. free B. confident C. occupied D. reluctant Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Exercise 4: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26 The demand was so great that they had to reprint the book immediately. A. So great was the demand that they had to reprint the book immediately. B. So great the demand was that they had to reprint the book immediately. C. Such great was the demand that they had to reprint the book immediately. D. Such was the demand great that they had to reprint the book immediately. B. I wish I had learned to play a musical instrument when I was younger. C. I wish I learn to play a musical instrument when I was younger. D. I wish I had learn to play a musical instrument when I was younger.

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Question 30: Many living organisms depend largely on the environment for the A B satisfaction of its needs. C D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions Question 31. “Leave my house now or I’ll call the police!” shouted the lady to the man. Page 2|6

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A.The lady said she would call the police if the man didn’t leave her house. B.The lady told the man that she would call the police he didn’t leave her house. C.The lady informed the man that she would call the police if he didn’t leave her house. D.The lady threatened to call the police if the man didn’t leave her house. Question 32: He started working as a bank clerk 3 months ago. A. He last worked as a bank clerk 3 months ago. B. He didn't work as a bank clerk 3 months ago. C. He has been working as a bank clerk for 3 months. D. The last time she worked as a bank clerk was 3 months ago. Question 33: You are required to clean the house instead of your brother A. you needn’t clean the house instead of your brother B. You must clean the house instead of your brother C. You don’t have to clean the house instead of your brother D. You might clean the hosue instead of your brother. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. The 1918 influenza pandemic was the most severe pandemic in recent history. It was caused by an H1N1 virus with genes of avian origin. (34) ______ there is not universal consensus regarding where the virus originated, it (35) ______ worldwide during 1918-1919. In the United States, it was first identified in military personnel in spring 1918. It is estimated that about 500 million people or one-third of the world’s population became infected with this virus. The (36) ______ of deaths was estimated to be at least 50 million worldwide with about 675,000 occurring in the United States. Mortality was high in people younger than 5 years old, 20-40 years old, and 65 years and older. The high mortality in healthy people, including those in the 20-40-year age group, was a unique (37) ______ of this pandemic. While the 1918 H1N1 virus has been synthesized and evaluated, the properties that made it so devastating are not well understood. With no vaccine to protect against influenza infection and no antibiotics to treat secondary bacterial infections that can be associated with influenza infections, control efforts worldwide were limited to non-pharmaceutical interventions such as isolation, quarantine, good personal hygiene, use of disinfectants, and limitations of public gatherings, (38) ______ were applied unevenly. (Source: https://www.cdc.gov/) Question 34: A. Because of B. Although C. In spite of D. Because Question 35: A. engage B. attack C. adopt D. spread Question 36: A. number B. amount C. deal D. plenty Question 37: A. project B. evidence C. figure D. feature Question 38: A. when B. where C. which D. that\ Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions A team of Russian scientists has challenged the theory that the woolly mammoths became extinct 10,000 years ago at the end of the Ice Age. The scientists have reported that the beasts may have survived until 2000 B.C. on an island off the coast of Siberia, where researchers uncovered 29 fossilized woolly mammoth teeth ranging in age from 4,000 to 7,000 years. The question to be asked now is, how did these prehistoric pachyderms survive in their island environment? One possibility is that they adapted to their confined surroundings by decreasing their bulk. This theory is based on their smaller tooth size, which has led scientists to believe that they were only 6 feet tall at the shoulder compared with 10 feet of their full-sized counterpart. But would this be enough to enable them to survive thousands of years beyond that of other mammoths? Researchers are still working to uncover the reasons for this isolated group's belated disappearance. (Source: https://www.cdc.gov/) Question 39: With which topic is this passage mainly concerned? Page 3|6

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A.Some scientists have challenged a theory. B.Some small teeth have been discovered. C.Some mammoths lived longer than others. D.Some pachyderms survived on an island. Question 40: According to the passage, some researchers suggest that mammoths became extinct A. about 2,000 years ago B. about 4,000 years ago C. about 7,000 years ago D. about 10,000 years ago Question 41: The word "woolly" as used in line 1 refers to the animal's A. body size B. feet size C. hair D. teeth Question 42: The author uses the word "counterpart" in line 7 to refer to A. mammoths with more feet B. mammoths in an earlier time C. mammoths with smaller teeth D. larger mammoths on the island Question 43: According to the scientists, the woolly mammoths may have managed to survive because they A. shed their hair B. grew smaller teeth C. became herbivores D. decreased in size Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions As heart disease continues to be the number-one killer in the United States, researchers have become increasingly interested in identifying the potential risk factors that trigger heart attacks. High-fat diets and "life in the fast lane" have long been known to contribute to the high incidence of heart failure. But according to new studies, the list of risk factors may be significantly longer and quite surprising. Heart failure, for example, appears to have seasonal and temporal patterns. A higher percentage of heart attacks occur in cold weather, and more people experience heart failure on Monday than on any other day of the week. In addition, people are more susceptible to heart attacks in the first few hours after waking. Cardiologists first observed this morning phenomenon in the mid-1980, and have since discovered a number of possible causes. An early-morning rise in blood pressure, heart rate, and concentration of heart stimulating hormones, plus a reduction of blood flow to the heart, may all contribute to the higher incidence of heart attacks between the hours of 8:00 A.M. and 10:00 A.M. In other studies, both birthdays and bachelorhood have been implicated as risk factors. Statistics reveal that heart attack rates increase significantly for both females and males in the few days immediately preceding and following their birthdays. And unmarried men are more at risk for heart attacks than their married counterparts. Though stress is thought to be linked in some way to all of the aforementioned risk factors, intense research continues in the hope of further comprehending why and how heart failure is triggered. (Source: https://www.cdc.gov/) Question 44: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. risk factors in heart attacks B. seasonal and temporal patterns of heart attacks C. cardiology in the 1980s D. diet and stress as factors in heart attacks Question45: The word "potential" could best be re-placed by which of the following? A. harmful B. primary C. unknown D. possible Question 46: The phrase "susceptible to" in line 6 could best be replaced by A. aware of B. affected by C. accustomed D. prone to Question 47: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT a possible cause of many heart attacks? A. decreased blood flow to the heart B. increased blood pressure C. lower heart rate D. increase in hormones Question 48: Which of the following is NOT cited as a possible risk factor? A. having a birthday B. getting married C. eating fatty foods D. being under stress Question 49: word "trigger" as used in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to which of the following? A. involve B. affect C. cause D. encounter Page 4|6

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Question 50: Which of the following does the passage infer? A.We now fully understand how risk factors trigger heart attacks. B.We recently began to study how risk factors trigger heart attacks. C.We have not identified many risk factors associated with heart attacks. D.We do not fully understand how risk factors trigger heart attacks.

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA 09 (Đề thi có 05 trang)

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Họ, tên thí sinh………………………………………………………………………………………… Số báo danh: ........................................................................................................................................... Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following Question 1: It is not always easy to make a good ________ at the last minute. A. decide B. decision C. decisive D. decisively Question 2. Your sister is cooking in the kitchen,_________? A. isn’t she B. doesn’t she C. won’t she D. is she Question 3: The British and the American share the same language, but in other aspects they are as different as chalk and______. A. dogs B. cheese C. salt D. here Question 4: The two fabrics of Velcro stick together thanks______the hooks on the surface and the loops on the other. A. by B. for C. of D. to Question 5: The players' protests no difference to the referee's decision at all A.did B. made C. caused D. created Question 6: ___________ electric cars were quieter, cleaner, and easier to start, there are not many people using it because they were not able to travel the far distances. A. Even though B. Despite C. Instead D. In fact Question 7: There is a (n) ___________________________basin. A. sugar antique silver B. antique silver sugar C. sugar silver antique D. antique sugar silver Question 8: Linda immigrated with her parents in 1995, and ________________ in New York. A. grew into B. grew up C. grew on D. grew apart Question 9: When Carol called last night, I _______ my favorite show on television. A. was watching B. watched C. have watched D. was watched Question 10. _______, They will be able to leave for the airport. A. After the taxi had arrived B. As soon as the taxi arrives C. Until the taxi will arrive D. When the taxi arrived Question 11. She was brought up in a family. She can’t understand the financial problem we are facing. A. kind B. wealthy C. broke D. poor Question 12. Although she had been told quite sternly to herself together, she simply couldn’t stop the tears from flowing. A. bring. B. force. C. pull. D. push. Question 13. The road to our village . . . . . . . . next year. A. is widened B. will widened C. can widened D. will be widened Question 14.. ________ all his money, Henry couldn't afford a new car. A. Spending B. Having spent C. Having been spent D. To spend Question 15: Sound comes in waves, and the higher the frequency, ________________ the pitch. A. the highest B. highest C. the higher D. high Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges Question 16: Hung and Derek are classmates. They are talking about their sports hobby. Hung: Don't you like watching football? Derek: . A. Yes, I don't B. No, I do. I like it a lot Page 1|5

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C. It's nice D. Yes, I love it Question 17: Marta and Patrice is a couple. They are going to a friend's party. Marta: Do I still have to change my clothes? Patrice: . A.Sure, take your time B.Let's discuss that some time C.Don't change your mind, please D.The party begins at 2 pm Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position ofprimary stress in each of the following questions. Question 18. A. tonight B. reason C. promise D. furnish Question 19. A. interpreter B. internal C. interior D. infinite Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions Question 20: A. wished B. changed C. tipped D. produced Question 21: A. park B. yard C. card D. carry Mark the letter A B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions. Question 22: I used to meet him occasionally on Fifth Avenue. A. in one occasion B. once in a while C. one time D. none is correct Question 23: Dissemination of information is frequently carried out via satellite through local or national TV network. A. compilation B. condensing C. collection D. dispersal Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question24: She wrote me a vicious letter. A. healthy B. helpful C. dangerous D. gentle Question 25: Mr Mickey is a man of affability. A. warm B. caution C. hostility D. passion Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions Question 26: Mary rejected the job offer. She now regrets it. A. Mary regrets not having rejected the job offer. B. If only Mary didn’t reject the job offer. C Mary wishes she hadn’t rejected the job offer. D Mary regrets to reject the job offer. Question 27: He couldn't solve the problem until his father arrived. A. Not until He solved the problem could his father arrive. B. When his father arrived, He solved the problem. C. Until his father arrived, He were able to solve the problem. D. Not until his father arrived could we solve the problem. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 28: Yesterday morning, Jona arrives late for school for the first time. А В C D Question 29: In different parts of the world, elephants are still hunted for its ivory tusks. A B C D Question 30. Food prices have raised so rapidly in the past few months that some families have been forced to A B C D alter their eating habits. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions Question 31: The teacher said to us: “Don’t make so much noise”. Page 2|5

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A. The teacher asked us not to make so much noise. B. The teacher told us that we didn’t make so much noise. C. The teacher said we didn’t make so much noise. D. The teacher ordered us if we didn’t make so much noise. Question 32: It’s possible that we won’t go camping this weekend. A. We will probably go camping this weekend. B. We will not go camping this weekend. C. We may not go camping this weekend. D. We must not go camping this weekend. Question 33. It is a long time since we last met each other. A. We haven't met each other for a long time. B. The last time we met each other is a long time ago. C. We last met each other for a long time. D. We started meeting each other a long time ago. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. TO DO NOW OR PUT IT OFF UNTIL LATER People often find that success eludes them. But how often is this their own fault. One thing that we are all good at doing is procrastinating. Shakespeare’s Hamlet is a prime example of someone (34) _______ failed to act and, in fact, was rendered incapable of action by his need to put things off – in other words, to procrastinate. And because this is such a universal failing, it may be that it is that very quality that (35) _______ him to us all. But it’s not a good thing. We should force ourselves to get over it. Procrastinators are less wealthy and less healthy and regret their inability to make quick decisions. So why so many of you like it? What is it that prevents us from fulfilling our true potential? Are we attempting to become perfectionists, claiming that we need time to polish our work – or even that we can only do our best work under pressure? The latter is untrue, as work done at the last minute contains more mistakes than that done on time. Our procrastinating behaviour (36) _______ others and leaves us feeling flustered and guilty. Social scientists are struggling to understand the causes of this malaise and from that knowledge work out strategies to overcome it. There are various suggestions they have come up with for (37) _______ having trouble getting things done. They say we should consider breaking a task down into manageable chunks so that it seems less daunting and keep on trying to accept why we are delaying in the first place: is it fear, wishing to produce something perfect or boredom with the task? (38) _______ , knowing the reason means we can do with it. As for me, I’m off to have a rest and think about it all! (Adapted from Gold Advanced by Lynda Edwards and Jacky Newbrook) Question 34. A. which B. whom C. who D. they Question 35. A. exerts B. endears C. indulges D. enacts Question 36. A. evades B. eludes C. embarks D. inconveniences Question 37. A. another B. little C. one another D. those Question 38. A. Honestly B. Yet C. Apparently D. Unfortunately Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

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Question 48: People who are buying their first bicycle are advised to . A.buy acheap model to begin with B.get a bicycle which suits their current needs C.buy as big a bicycle as they can afford D.spend as much money on a bicycle as they can Question 49: After you have been cycling for a few months the author suggests that you will . A.want to ride only at weekends B.want to ride further than you first imagined C.find riding to work every day boring D.find cycling in towns less dangerous Question 50: The word "transformation" in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to . A. transition B. amendment C. change D. correction

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA 11 (Đề thi có 05 trang)

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Họ, tên thí sinh………………………………………………………………………………………… Số báo danh: ........................................................................................................................................... Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following Question 1: It’s an extremely __________ cure for a headache. A. effect B. effective C. effectual D. effector Question 2: He needs to do the homework before going out with his friends, ____? A. doesn’t he B. does he C. needn’t he D. need he Question 3: We thought the repairs on the car would cost about $500, but our estimate was way off the it was $4000. A. mark B. point C. spot D. trace Question 4. Vietnam has played_________high spirits and had an impressive 2-0 victory over Yemen. A.at B.in C. on D. with Question 5. All the applicants for the post are thoroughly ________ for their suitability. A. searched B. vetted C. investigated D. scrutinized Question 6. Solar energy is not widely used________it is friendly to the environment. A.sinceB. althoughC. in spite ofD. because of Question 7 : Peter’s wife gave him a (n) _____ bike as a birthday present last week. A. blue Japanese cheap B. cheap Japanese blue C. Japanese cheap blue D. cheap blue Japanese Question 8: You shouldn’t lose heart; success often comes to those who are not _________ by failures. A. left out B. put off C. switched off D. turned on Question 9: The students _______ the topic when the bell rang. A. discuss B. were discussing C. have discussed D. are discussing Question 10: _______, he will go out with his friends. A. When Tony finished his project B. When Tony finishes his project C. When Tony had finished his project D. When Tony was finishing his project Question 11: My mother doesn't eye to eye with my father sometimes. A. see B. glance C. look D. agree Question 12: It is not always easy to_______ a decision at the last minute. A. do B. make C. buy D. marry Question 13. I demand to know how this vase __________, and no one is leaving till I find out. A. got broken B. was breaking C. has broken D. is broke Question 14. ________ hard all day, I was exhausted. A. To work B. Working C. Having worked D. worked Question 15: The older you are, _______________ you may become. A. the more worrrying B. the more worried C. the more worry D. worried

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 16. Cathy and Graham are at a restaurant. Cathy: “Oh, $400. I will pay this bill.” Graham: “_______” A. Do you have any cash? B. I pay by credit, please C. No, it’s on me D. We’d better leave off

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Question 17. Mark and Tim are talking about British literature. Mark: “I immersed myself in the book on British literature we had borrowed from the library.” Tim: “_______” A. Shall we get started now? B. Is it called “The Pickwick Papers”? C. Really? I assumed you’re quite good at it D. I read a book for ages Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 18. A. scholar B. honor C. motto D. fortune Question 19. A. borrowed B. conserved C. approached D. complained Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 20. A. continue B. recognise C. uncover D. remember Question 21. A. leaflet B. model C. export D. cartoon Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22. She is a down-to-earth woman with no pretensions. A. ambitious B. creative C. idealistic D. practical Question 23. For environment safety, we need to find ways to reduce emission of fumes and smoke of factory. A. leak B. release C. poison D. pollutant Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions. Question 24. Poverty in many African countries increases the likelihood that people poach animals to earn their living. A. chance B. prospect C. possibility D. improbability Question 25. I don't believe in anything he says, he is unreliable. A. inaccurate B. unstable C. trustworthy D. irresponsible Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 26: He helped us a lot with the project. We couldn’t continue without him.

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A.Provided his contribution wouldn’t come, we couldn’t continue with the project. B.But for his contribution, we could have continued with the project. C.Unless we had his contribution, we could continue with the project. D.If he hadn’t contributed positively, we couldn’t have continued with the project. Question 27: The storm was so great. Many families had to be evacuated to safer parts of the city.

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A.Although the storm was not great, many families had to be evacuated to safer parts of the city. B.So great was the storm that many families had to be evacuated to safer parts of the city. C.Many families had to be evacuated to safer parts of the city in spite of the great storm. D.It was so a great storm that many families had to be evacuated to safer parts of the city. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 28: We have conducted (A) exhausting research (B)into the effects of smartphones on students’ (C) behaviour and their (D) academic performance. Question 29: (A) On the table (B) is (C) hundreds of books written (D) in English.

Question 30: Tim works (A) as a doctor and he (B) earns (C) twice (D)as much as her brother.

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 31. “You should have finished your work by noon, Fiona” said Mark. A. Mark warned Fiona against having finished her work by noon. B. Mark encouraged Fiona to finish her work by noon. C. Mark reproached Fiona for not having finished her work by noon. D. Mark scolded Fiona for having finished her work by noon.

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Question 32. It is necessary for the local authority to impose social distancing on this infected area. A. The local authority may impose social distancing on this infected area. B. Social distancing needs imposing on this infected area. C. Social distancing should be imposed on that infected area. D. The local authority can impose social distancing on this infected area. Question 33. I haven’t bought any books for 2 years. A. This is the first time I have ever bought books for 2 years. B. I last bought books for 2 years. C. It’s 2 years since I started to buy books. D. The last time I bought books was 2 years ago. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheer to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30. GET READY IN FIVE MINUTES Does this sound like your life? Do you get the feeling that everything is accelerating? Not only are activities getting significantly quicker, but our assumptions are changing, too. Take exercise: we used to think that the longer we spent on, say, a pleasurable walk in the countryside, the more good it did us. Not anymore. The new (34) _______ is for HIIT – short for High-Intensity Interval Training – (35) _______ just twelve minutes of very intense activity is supposed to be every bit as beneficial as conventional exercise. Get on that rowing machine and keep it short and sharp! It’s supposed to get you fitter in a considerably shorter period of time than conventional exercise routines. Advocates of HIIT training claim that it can burn fat up to 50% more effectively than low-intensity exercise. They also maintain that it speeds up metabolism and so makes you burn more calories throughout the day. However, some recent research would appear to (36) ______ these claims. (37) _______ have our personalities changed, too? Smartphones allow us to access information in no time at all. Research demonstrates that 80% of people will not wait more than 30 seconds for a video to load. A recent survey suggests we now walk 10% faster than we did ten years ago. It seems we even start to get annoyed after five seconds waiting for the car in front of us to start moving when the traffic light turns green. Overtime, we come to expect (38) _ to be available infinitely more quickly than in the past. We have far less patience. We’ve forgotten how to slow down. Welcome to modern life. (Adapted from Navigate by Mark Bartram and Kate Pickering) Question 34. A. potential B. leisure C. habit D. fad Question 35. A. which B. whereby C. whereas D. whom Question 36. A. engender B. subscribe C. dispute D. cease Question 37. A. So B. However C. But D. And Question 38. A. each B. everything C. few D. almost Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35 It’s Friday’s night in Singapore and, once again, Madeline Tan (28) doesn’t have a date. Like many women she feels ready to settle down as she approaches thirty. She has experienced more than a little family pressure about still being single at her age. And it is not only her family but also her government who are keen for her to marry and reproduce. Living in one of the world’s most successful economies, Madeline has a good education and the pick of jobs. Her salary as a radio executive means she can drive a luxury car and go shopping. Singapore’s government believes that, to ensure continuous prosperity, future generations must become more intelligent. And it is concerned that female graduates – ideal for breeding this super-race – are staying single and childless. Singapore’s men, on the other hand, are marrying less educated women. So, the government has launched a campaign to encourage the ‘right’ couples to get together. Putting off marriage and parenthood is becoming more common in all industrialized nations. This is partly because high pressure jobs leave little time for socializing and meeting potential partners. In Singapore, the

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problem is made worse by cultural traditions. The sexes are not encouraged to mix during childhood or to date until after university. Research scientists Kee-Chuan Goh (29) has never had a girlfriend. “There’s a first time for everything.”, he says. Like Madeline he has signed up with the SDU (Social Development Unit), the government’s very own dating agency. It is open only to graduates, who sign up for five years, although most members are married within three. Government-sponsored ads on prime-time TV aim to get the message across. In one, a young man sits on a park bench, sighing, “Where is my dream girl?” At the other end, a girl stares into space thinking, “Where is the man of my dreams?” They fail to notice each other and wander off, lonely. A voice-over warns “Why not reality? You could wait a lifetime for a dream.” (Adapted from Clockwise Upper Intermediate by Jon Naunton) Question 39. Which would be the best title for the passage? A. Singapore fixes you up B. The dating life of single Singaporeans C. Singapore’s dating agency D. How to get a partner in Singapore Question 40. The phrase “settle down” in paragraph 1 mostly means _______. A. leave a job B. find a job C. get married D. keep calm Question 41. According to the passage, the main reason why delaying parenthood becomes a norm in developed countries is that _______. A. single individuals focus more on their jobs than on seeking a partner B. they have little time to meet possible partners due to their jobs C. people who have reached the age of 30 are used to being alone D. individuals are not prepared to have a major responsibility Question 42. The word “it” in paragraph 4 refers to _______. A. government B. agency C. Social Development Unit D. graduate Question 43. Which of the following is true, according to the passage? A. The greatest pressure to marry has come from Madeline's parents B. Women graduates make popular wives C. It’s hard for men and women to mix naturally D. Adverts encourage young people to have more realistic expectations Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42 Time has become a scarce commodity. Everyone wants more of it. The refrain 'If only I had more time!' echoes around the offices, kitchens and bedrooms of Britain; 'hurry sickness' is becoming the malaise of the new millennium. All over the world, people are working longer hours, struggling to fit more and more into every day. Symptoms include jabbing the 'door close' button on lift doors to save the two to four seconds required for the door to do it on its own, and an inability to do one thing at a time, so that every journey is a phone call opportunity. Technology is helping to speed up the world: laptops, mobile phones (with a hands- free set so that you can do something else at the same time), pagers, remote controls. We live in an instant, insistent world. Adverts for energy-boosting drinks read: 'Having trouble keeping up with yourself?' We yearn for the lazy afternoons and days of yesteryear - but enthusiastically sign up for email, messaging services, language classes. Even time management courses. The result is parents with a lack of quality time to spend with their children, and surveys showing that working couples see less of each other than ever before and that rows over time spent on domestic labour or childcare top the list of marital discord. The idea of doing nothing has become terrifying, a sure sign of worthlessness. Like any commodity that is scarce, time has become a battleground. In what is supposed to be the world of the consumer, firms steal time from customers. It is now perfectly acceptable to be asked to hold the instant the phone is answered. This saves the company time and money, but costs you time. We are engaged in a constant, subtle war over time. If the politics of class dominated the last century, the politics of time could dominate this one.

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Of course, there is a class dimension to the rush culture. One of the biggest transitions of the past few decades has been to take the previous relationship between time and status - the rich had lots of time, the poor very little - and reverse it. While bankers in the City are now at their desks at 7am, in the good old days 'bankers' hours' meant 10am till 4pm with a decent lunch break. Moreover, to be seen to have time to spare is a sign of low status: arranging lunch, it is never done to be available too soon. Similarly, being late is moving from a sign of rudeness to a sign of status. A two-tier time society is being built, with the money-rich, time-poor on one side, and the money-poor, time-rich on the other. The rich are working longer and longer hours in order to compete with each other. At the same time, they are employing others - cleaners, childminders, fast-food restaurant workers - in order to allow themselves to work all the time. Meanwhile, more and more of us are putting ourselves on the treadmill of constant activity, taking on an increasingly heavy workload, and never stopping for a moment to ask ourselves why. (Adapted from Clockwise Advanced by Jon Naunton) Question 44. Which best serves as the title for the passage? A. The growing disparity between rich and poor B. Seeing valuable time from a crooked angle C. The mad rush to save time D. The slower pace of life: Is it suitable for all? Question 45. The word “malaise” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______. A. uneasiness B. tactic C. morale D. trend Question 46. The consequences of not having enough time for family are mentioned in the passage EXCEPT _______. A. Working couples find themselves in a situation of lacking time for each other B. Children find it impossible to pay a visit to their grandparents C. Time to spend with children becomes scarce D. Parents have quarrels over the amount of time allotted for doing household chores Question 47. The word “this” in paragraph 3 refers to _______. A. answering the phone B. calling someone on the phone C. asking someone to hold the line D. arguing with customers Question 48. The word “treadmill” in paragraph 5 mostly describes something which is _______. A. energizing B. conducive C. alien D. monotonous Question 49. Which of the following is true, according to the passage? A. People who are idle often experience a sense of willingness B. The rich had more time in the past compared to the poor C. People signing up for time management courses wish to have a free afternoon D. Being late is a symbol of status in the past Question 50. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? A. People living in an instant society tend to multitask B. Advertising led to a larger number of people who opt to give up their free time C. There is a strong positive correlation between time and status D. Manual workers are required to work against the clock

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA 12 (Đề thi có 05 trang)

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Họ, tên thí sinh………………………………………………………………………………………… Số báo danh: ........................................................................................................................................... Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following Question 1: The children slept soundly because it was so _________ and quiet in the garden. A. peaceable B. peacefulness C. peaceably D. peaceful Question 2: Donald John Trump is the 45th President of the United States, _______? A. is he B. Is not he C. isn’t it D. isn’t he . He used to be a taxi driver there Question 3: Mr Nam knows Hanoi City like the back of his for 10 years. A. head B. mind C. hand D. life Question 4: Bill Gates gave away $4.6 billion in Microsoft shares ______June to his personal charity, the Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation. A. on B. for C. in D. at Whenever a camera was pointed at her, Marilyn would instantly Question 5: ________herself into a radiant star. A. transmit B. transform C. convert D. transfer Question 6. ________ she was the most prominent candidate, she was not chosen. A. Though B. Because of C. As D. Since bag. Question 7. She has just bought a A. small plastic blue B. blue small plastic C. plastic small blue D. small blue plastic. her selfishness. Question 8: Although she is my sister, I find it hard to A. put up with B. catch up with C. keep up with D. come down with Question 9. When he came, I_______ in the sitting room. A. read B. am reading C. has read D. was reading Question 10. She will call you to confirm _______. A. until she received the parcel B. when she was receiving the parcel C. the moment she receives the parcel D. after she had received the parcel Question 11: I get quite depressed when I think about the damage we are to the environment. A. having B. taking C. making D. causing a fool of myself. Question 12: I'm not going to go ice skating! I'd only fall over and A. create B. show C.do D. make Question 13. A new supermarket ________ in the city cente now. A. is being built B. being built C. are being built D. be built Question 14: _____ a scholarship, she entered one of the most privileged universities of the United Kingdom. A. To award B. Being awarded C. Having awarded D. Having been awarded Question 15: The larger the flat is, the ____________ its price is. A. expensive B. more expensive C. expensively D. most expensive Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 16: Marry is talking to Linda over the phone. Mary: “Thank you for helping me prepare for the party.” Linda: “ ”. A. My pleasure B. The meal was out of this world Never mention me. C. D. Of course not Question 17: Tom is in Ho Chi Minh City and asks a passer-by the way to the railway station. Tom: “Can you show me the way to the railway station, please?” - Passer-by: “ ”

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A. No way. B. Just round the comer over there. C. Look it up in a dictionary! D. There’s no traffic near here. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 18. A. legal B. diverse C. polite D. complete Question 19. A. suspicious B. marvelous C. physical D. argument Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions Question 20. A. Lived B. cooked C. laughed D. watched Question 21. A.educate B. engineer C. acceptable D. department Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: That restaurant tempts many customers because of its affordable price and good food. A. attracts B. frees C. refuses D. offers Question 23: I’ll back up your ideas if they don’t believe you. A. support B. rebel C. admire D. protect Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24: She had never seen such discourtesy towards the director as it happened in the meeting last week. A. politeness B. rudeness C. measurement D. encouragement They conducted a campaign to people’s awareness of environmental problems. Question 25: promote A. encourage B. publicize C. hinder D. strengthen Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26: He got down to writing the letter as soon as he returned from his walk. A. No sooner had he returned from his walk when he got down to writing the letter. B. Not until he returned from his walk did he get down to writing the letter. C. Only after he had returned from his walk did he get down to writing the letter. D. Hardly had he returned from his walk when he got down to writing the letter. Question 27: I invited Rachel to my party, but she couldn’t come. She had arranged to do something else. A. Without having arranged to do something else, Rachel would have come to my party as invited. B. If it hadn’t been for her arrangement for something else, Rachel would come to my party as invited. C. Rachel would have come to my party, unless she hadn’t arranged to so something else. D. If Rachel hadn’t arranged to do something else, she would come to my party as invited. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 28: I don’t think that he has responsed to my email as I have received nothing. A. don’t think B. received C. as D. responsed Question 29: In order to make progress in her speaking skill, you need to practice everyday. A. in order to B. practice C. make progress D. her speaking skill Fifty minutes are the maximum length of time allotted for the exam. Question 30: A. allotted B. are C. length D. for Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions Question 31: It's time for me to start to think about the job I will do in the future. A. I should start to think about the job I will do in the future. B. I may start to think about the job I will do in the future. C. I needn't start to think about the job I will do in the future. D. I must have started to think about the job I will do in the future.

Question 32: “Buy some meat in the shop”, said my mother to me. A. My mother said to me to buy some meat in the shop. B. My mother told to me to buy some meat in the shop. C. My mother told me to buy some meat in the shop.

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Question 33: I haven't met my grandparents for five years. A.I often met my grandparents five years ago. B.I last met my grandparents five years ago. C.I have met my grandparents for five years. D.I didn't meet my grandparents five years ago. Reading the following passage and mark the letter on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word that best fits each of the numbered blank from 34 to 38 Father’s Day was created to complement Mother’s Day. Like Mother’s Day (34) ________ honors mothers and motherhood, Father’s Day celebrates fatherhood and paternal bonds; it highlights the (35) ________ of fathers in society. Many countries celebrate it on the third Sunday of June, but it is also celebrated widely on other days. Historically, Sonora Smart Dodd was the woman behind the celebration of male parenting. Her father, the Civil War veteran William Jackson Smart, was a single parent who (36) ________ his six children there. After hearing a sermon about Jarvis’ Mother’s Day in 1909, she told her pastor that fathers should have a similar holiday honoring them. Although she initially suggested June 5, her father’s birthday, the pastors did not have enough time to prepare their sermons, and the celebration was deferred to the third Sunday of June. The first celebration was in Spokane. Washington at the YMCA (Young Men’s Christian Association) on June 19,1910. Since then it has become a traditional day (37) ________ year. In recognition of what fathers do for their families, on this day people may have a party celebrating male parenting or simply make a phone call or send a greeting card. (38) ________, schools help children prepare handmade gifts for their fathers many days before the celebration. Question 34: A. which B. who C. where D. when Question 35: A. conquest B. effect C. influence D. impact Question 36: A. raised B. realized C. took D. made Question 37: A. any B. another C. other D. every Question 38: A. Besides B. However C. In contrast D. Then

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Some animal behaviorists argue that certain animals can remember past events, anticipate future ones, make plans and choices, and coordinate activities within a group. These scientists, however, are cautious about the extent to which animals can be credited with conscious processing. Explanations of animal behavior that leave out any sort of consciousness at all and ascribe actions entirely to instinct leave many questions unanswered. One example of such unexplained behavior: Honeybees communicate the sources of nectar to one another by doing a dance in a figure-eight pattern. The orientation of the dance conveys the position of the food relative to the sun’s position in the sky, and the speed of the dance tells how far the food source is from the hive. Most researchers assume that the ability to perform and encode the dance is innate and shows no special intelligence. But in one study, when experimenters kept changing the site of the food source, each time moving the food 25 percent farther from the previous site, foraging honeybees began to anticipate where the food source would appear next. When the researchers arrived at the new location, they would find the bees circling the spot, waiting for their food. No one has yet explained how bees, whose brains weigh four ten-thousandths of an ounce, could have inferred the location of the new site. Other behaviors that may indicate some cognition include tool use. Many animals, like the otter who uses a stone to crack mussel shells, are capable of using objects in the natural environment as rudimentary tools. One researcher has found that mother chimpanzees occasionally show their young how to use tools to open hard nuts. In one study, chimpanzees compared two pairs of food wells containing chocolate chips. Allowed to choose which pair they wanted, the chimpanzees almost always chose the one with the higher total, showing some sort of summing ability. Other chimpanzees have learned to use numerals to label quantities of items and do simple sums. Question 39: What does the passage mainly discuss? A.The role of instinct in animal behavior B.Observations that suggest consciousness in animal behavior C.The use of food in studies of animal behavior D.Differences between the behavior of animals in their natural environments and in laboratory experiments. Question 40: Which of the following is NOT discussed as an ability animals are thought to have? A. Selecting among choices B. Anticipating events to come Page 3 | 8

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C. Remembering past experiences D. Communicating emotions Question 41: What is the purpose of the honeybee dance? A.To determine the quantity of food at a site B.To communicate the location of food C.To identify the type of nectar that is available D.To identify the type of nectar that is available Question 42: The word “yet” in line 15 is closest in meaning to A. however B. since C. generally D. so far . Question 43: It can be inferred from the passage that brain size is assumed to A. be an indicator of cognitive ability B. vary among individuals within a species C. be related to food consumption D. correspond to levels of activity Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Industrialization came to the United State after 1790 as North American entrepreneurs increased productivity by reorganizing work and building factories. These innovations in manufacturing boosted output and living standards to an unprecedented extent; the average per capita wealth increased by nearly 1 percent per year - 30 percent over the course of a generation. Goods that had once been luxury items became part of everyday life. The impressive gain in output stemmed primarily from the way in which workers made goods, since the 1790’s, North American entrepreneurs - even without technological improvements - had broadened the scope of the outwork system that made manufacturing more efficient by distributing materials to a succession of workers who each performed a single step of the production process. For example, during the 1820’s and 1830’s the shoe industry greatly expanded the scale of the outwork system. Tens of thousands of rural women, paid according to the amount they produced, fabricated the “uppers” of shoes, which were bound to the soles by wage-earning journeymen shoemakers in dozens of Massachusetts towns, whereas previously journeymen would have made the enduring shoe. This system of production made the employer a powerful “shoe boss” and eroded workers’ control over the pace and conditions of labor. However, it also dramatically increased the output of shoes while cutting their price. For tasks that were not suited to the outwork system, entrepreneurs created an even more important new organization, the modem factory, which used power-driven machines and assemblyline techniques to turn out large quantities of well-made goods. As early as 1782 the prolific Delaware inventor Oliver Evans had built a highly automated, laborsaving flour mill driven by water power. His machinery lifted the grain to the top of the milt, cleaned it as it fell into containers known as hoppers, ground the grain into flour, and then conveyed the flour back to the top of the mill to allow it to cool as it descended into barrels. Subsequently, manufacturers made use of new improved stationary steam engines to power their mills. This new technology enabled them to build factories in the nation’s largest cities, taking advantage of urban concentrations of inexpensive labor, good transportation networks, and eager customers. Question 44. What is the passage mainly about? The difficulties of industrialization in North America A. The influence of changes in manufacturing on the growth of urban centers B. The rapid speed of industrialization in North America C. Improved ways of organizing the manufacturing of goods D. . Question 45. The word “scope” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to A.value B. popularity C. extent D. diversity Question 46. The author mentions the shoe industry in the second paragraph to provide an example of how entrepreneurs increased output by using an extended outwork system A. entrepreneurs used technological improvements to increase output B. rural workers responded to “shoe bosses” C. changes in the outwork system improved the quality of shoes D. . Question 47. All of the following are true of the outwork system EXCEPT It involved stages of production. A. It was more efficient than the systems used before 1790. B. It made many employers less powerful than they had been before. C. It did not necessarily involve any technological improvements. D. . Question 48. The word “prolific” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to A. famous B. productive C. self-employed D. progressive Question 49. According to the passage, how did later mills differ from the mills built by Oliver Evans?

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They were located away from large cities. A. They used new technology to produce power. B. They did not allow flour to cool before it was placed in Barrels. C. They combined technology with the outwork system. D. Question 50 The passage mentions which of the following as a result of improvements in factory machinery? It become easier for factory’ owners to find workers and customers. A. Manufacturers had to employ more highly skilled workers. B. The amount of power required for factories operate was reduced. C. Factories could operate more than one engine at a time. D.

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA 13 (Đề thi có 05 trang)

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Họ, tên thí sinh………………………………………………………………………………………… Số báo danh: ........................................................................................................................................... Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following Question 1: Mr. Lam is a cycle driver in Ho Chi Minh City, who usually has a ________ working day. A. business B. busy C. busily D. busying Question 2: You couldn’t give me a helping hand, _____? A. could you B. do you C. couldn’t you D. don’t you Question 3: The employees have been working______out to get the job finished ahead of the deadline. A. narrow B. big C. flat D. large Question 4: If you get a laptop as a reward, what will you use it ____? A. by B. for C. to D. with Question 5: The bank will insist you produce a driving________or passport as a form of ID. A. diploma B. certificate C. degree D. licence Question 6: ____ the TRUMPET is the smallest brass instrument, it can play the highest notes of all the brass instruments and often plays in marches or fanfares. A. Because B. Although C. However D. Since Question 7: His sister is not only a (n) ______________ singer but also a distinguished painter. A. famous opera Italian B. opera famous Italian C. famous Italian opera D. Italian famous opera Question 8: Mark invented a new game, but it never really _________________ with people. A. called for B. caught on C. cut off D. came across Question 9: He fell down when he______towards the pagoda. A. run B. runs C. was running D. had ru Question 10. She will apply for a job _______. A. when she is graduating from university B. until she graduated from university C. after she had graduated from university D. as soon as she graduates from university Question 11: It ___ without saying that Mrs Ngoc Anh is a very enthusiastic teacher. I love her so much. A. goes B. comes C. appears D. gets Question 12: As soon as Ferlin came to party, he immediately set his _______on Melin. Maybe he was captivated by her. A. eyes B. heart C. decision D. feeling Question 13. English ___________in many countries. A. are spoke B. is spoke C. are spoken D. is spoken Question 14: ___________ all the lights and other electric devices, we left the classroom. A. Having been turned off B. Turning off C. To have turned off D. Having turned off Question 15: ___________ you study for these exams, the better you will do. A. The harder B. The more C. The hardest D. The more hard Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 16. Ben: “You didn’t go to school yesterday, did you?” Jasmine: “ . I saw you, but you were talking to someone” A. No, I didn’t B. Yes, I didn’t C. Let me see D. I went Question 17. Mother: “How come you didn’t tell me that you would quit your job?” Lisa: “ .” A.I’d love to tell you now B.Because I knew that you would make a fuss about it C.I have no idea D.Because I’m so bored with it Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 18: A. attitude B. manager C. invention D. company P a g e 1 | 11

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Question 19: A. carry B. remove C. protect D. consist Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 20: A. finished B. developed C. defeated D. looked Question 21: A. sale B. chalk C. date D. plane Choose the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions Question 22. In the 1980s TV viewers began to hook up videocassette players to their TVs. A. combine B. connect C. fasten D. blend Question 23. The police have not had time to complete their investigations, but they have concluded tentatively that the explosion was caused by a bomb. A. temporally B. intentionally C. certainly D. hesitantly Choose the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24. Humans can use language deceptively by telling lies or half-truths. A. in an honest way B. in a dishonest way C. for a serious purpose D. at the wrong time Question 25. Tired of being a tiny cog in a vast machine, he handed in his resignation. A. an important person B. a large piece of equipment C. a small group of people D. a significant instrument Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26: The only way to eliminate world terrorism is by united opposition. A. Only with united opposition could we eliminate terrorism. B. Only by united opposition can we eliminate terrorism. C. Only in this way can world terrorism be eliminated. D. Only then can we eliminate terrorism. Question 27: Collin is not very good at English. He failed the English exam last week. A. If Collin were good at English, he wouldn’t have failed the English exam last week. B. If Collin were better at English, he would pass the English exam last week. C. Should Collin be good at English, he would not fail the English exam last week. D. Had Collin been better at English, he would’ve passed the English exam last week. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 28: Papyrus (A) was(B)usedful for making not only paper (C) but also sails, baskets, (D) and clothing. Question 29: (A) Because the boy spent (B) too much time (C) surfing the Internet and playing computer games, (D) she didn’t pass the final exam. Question 30: According to (A) most medical experts, massage (B) relieves pain and anxiety, eases depression and (C) speeding up recovery from (D) illnesses. Choose the suitable sentence which has the same meaning with the sentence given. Question 31: It was impossible that she forgot to wear the helmet. A. She should have worn the helmet B. She must have worn the helmet C She might have forgot to wear the helmet D. She needn’t have forgot wearing the helmet Question 32: Cindy said: “I haven’t seen John since last month.” A. Cindy said she hasn’t seen John since the previous month. B. Cindy said she hadn’t seen John since the previous month. C. Cindy said she wasn’t seen John since the previous month. D. Cindy said she doesn’t see John since the previous month. Question 33: He last visited London three years ago. A. He has been in London for three years. B. He hasn't visited London for three years. C. He didn't visit London three years ago. D. He was in London for three years. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase that best fits each other numbered blanks. Wuhan Coronavirus Looks Increasingly Like a Pandemic, Experts Say P a g e 2 | 11

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Rapidly rising caseloads alarm researchers, who fear the virus may make its way across the globe. (34) _________, scientists cannot yet predict how many deaths may result. The Wuhan coronavirus spreading from China is now likely to become a pandemic (35) _________ circles the globe, according to many of the world’s leading infectious disease experts. The prospect is daunting. A pandemic - an ongoing epidemic on two or more continents- may well have global consequences, despite the extraordinary travel restrictions and quarantines now imposed by China and (36) _________ countries, including the United States. Scientists do not yet know how (37) _________ the new coronavirus is, however, so there is uncertainty about how much damage a pandemic might cause. But there is growing consensus that the pathogen is readily transmitted between humans. Many scientists have found that the Wuhan coronavirus is spreading more like influenza, which is highly (38) _________ than its slow-moving viral cousins, SARS and MERS. “It’s very, very transmissible, and it almost certainly is going to be a pandemic,” said Dr. Anthony S. Fauci, director of the National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Disease. (Adapted from https://www.nytimes.com/2020/02/02/health/coronavirus-pandemic-china.html) Question 34. A. So B. However C. Because D. Although Question 35. A. who B. why C. which D. where Question 36. A. other B. more C. another D. others Question 37. A. unhealthy B. lethal C. dead D. wonderful Question 38. A. legal B. important C. necessary D. transmissible Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42. Martin Luther King, Jf, is well- known for his work in civil rights and for his many famous speeches, among which is his moving “I have a dream” speech. But fewer people know much about King’s childhooD. M.L., as he was called, was bom in 1929 in Atlanta, Georgia, at the home of his maternal grandfather. M.L.’s grandfather purchased their home on Auburn Avenue in 1909, twenty years before M.L was bom. His grandfather allowed the house to be used as a meeting place for a number of organizations dedicated to the education and social advancement of blacks. M.L. grew up in the atmosphere, with his home being used as a community gathering place, and was no doubt influenced by it. M.L.’s childhood was not especially eventfully. His father was a minister and his mother was a musician. He was the second of three children, and he attended all black schools in a black neighborhood. The neighborhood was not poor, however. Auburn Avenue was an area of banks, insurance companies, builders, jewelers, tailors, doctors, lawyers, and other businesses and services. Even in the face of Atlanta’s segregation, the district thrived. Dr. King never forgot the community spirit he had known as a child, nor did he forget the racial prejudice that was a huge barrier keeping black Atlantans from mingling with whites. Question 39. What is the passage mainly about? A. The prejudice that existed in Atlanta. B. M.L.’s grandfather C. Martin Luther King’s childhood. D. The neighborhood King grew up in Question 40. When was M.L. bom? A. in 1909 B. in 1929 C. in 1949 D. 20 years after his parents had met. Question 41. What is Martin Luthur King well- known for? A. His publications. B. His neighborhood. C. His childhood. D. His work in civil rights. Question 42. According to the author, M.L. . A. had a difficult childhood. B. was a good musician as a child C. loved to listen to his grandfather speak. D. grew up in a relatively rich area of Atlanta. Question 43. Which of the following statements is NOT true? A. Auburn was a commercial areas. B. M.L.’s grandfather built their home on Auburn Avenue in 1909. C. M. L. grew up in a rich, black neighborhood. D. M.L.’s childhood was uneventful. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50. Carbon dating can be used to estimate the age of any organic natural material; it has been used successfully in archeology to determine the age of ancient artifacts or fossils as well as in a variety of other fields. The principle underlying the use of carbon dating is that carbon is a part of all living things on P a g e 3 | 11

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Earth. Since a radioactive substance such as carbon-14 has a known half-life, the amount of carbon-14 remaining in an object can be used to date that object. Carbon-14 has a half-life of 5,570 years, which means that after that number of years, half of the carbon- 14 atoms have decayed into nitrogen-14. It is the ratio of carbon-14 in that substance that indicates the age of the substance. If, for example, in a particular sample the amount of carbon-14 is roughly equivalent to the amount of nitrogen-14, this indicates that around half of the carbon-14 has decayed into nitrogen-14, and the sample is approximately 5,570 years old. Carbon dating cannot be used effectively in dating objects that are older than 80,000 years. When objects are that old, much of the carbon-14 has already decayed into nitrogen-14, and the miniscule amount that is left doesn’t provide a reliable measurement of age. In the case of older objects, other agedating methods are available, methods which use radioactive atoms with longer half-lives than carbon has. Question 44: This passage is mainly about . A. archeology and the study of ancient artifacts B. one method of dating old objects C. various uses for carbon D. the differences between carbon-14 and nitrogen-14 Question 45: Which of the following is NOT true about carbon-14? A. It and nitrogen always exist in equal amounts in any substance. B. Its half-life is more than 5,000 years. C. It can decay into nitrogen-14. D. It is radioactive. Question 46: The word “it” in paragraph I refers to . A. carbon dating B. the age C. any organic natural material D. archeology Question 47: The word “underlying” in paragraph I could best be replaced by . A. below B. requiring C. serving as a basis for D. being studied through Question 48: The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses . A. what substances are part of all living things B. how carbon-14 decay intonitrogen-14 C. why carbon-14 has such a long half-life D. various other age-dating methods Question 49: It is implied in the passage that . A. carbon dating has no known uses outside of archeology B. fossils cannot be age-dated using carbon-14 C. carbon dating could not be used on an item containing nitrogen D. carbon-14 does not have the longest known half-life Question 50: It can be inferred from the passage that if an item contains more carbon-14 than nitrogen- 14, then the item is . A. not as much as 5,570 years old B. too old to be age-dated with carbon-14 C. too radioactive to be used by archeologists D. more than 5.570 years old

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA 14 (Đề thi có 05 trang)

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A. will checked C. will be checked

B. will has checked D. will been checked

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Question 14. ___________5 months for the fridge to be delivered, I decide to cancel the order. A. Waiting B. Waited C. Having waited D. Had waited Question 15: The faster the time passes, ____________ I feel! The deadline of my thesis is coming, but I have just finished half of it. A. the nervous B. the nervouser C. the most nervous D. the more nervous Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes the following exchanges. Question 16. Mary is talking to her professor in his office. - Mary: "Can you tell me how to find material for my science report, professor ?"

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- Professor: "__________" A. You mean the podcasts from other students. B. You can borrow books from the library. C. Try your best. Mary. D. I like that you understand Question 17. Peter and John, two high school students, are talking about school exams. - Peter: "I think exams should not be the only way to assess students." - John: "__________. There are various others like presentations and projects." A. Not at all B. I share your view C. That's not entirely true D. I totally disagree Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 18: A. endanger B. furniture C. determine D. departure Question 19: A. teacher B. lesson C. action D. police Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 20: A. captain B. table C. lazy D. base Question 21: A. toured B. jumped C. solved D. rained Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions. Question 22. Decent and quality jobs must be available for all people who are able to work. A. Inevitable B. Compulsory C. Suitable D. Unreliable Question 23. In the current financial crisis, the banks must not break with their commitment to society. A. engagement B. movement C. judgement D. achievement Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24. Some companies are making strenuous efforts to increase the proportion of women at all levels of employment. A. decisive B. determined C. continuous D. half-hearted Question 25. Ben's dreams of a university education went by the board when his father died and he was forced to earn a living. A. became possible B. turned into a nightmare C. got rejected D. got prolonged Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions Question 26: Marie didn’t turn up at John’s birthday party. I feel so sorry for that. A. If only Marie turn up at John’s birthday party. B. I wish Marie had turned up at Johns birthday party. C. I wished Marie wouldn’t turn up at John’s birthday party. D. It’s a shame Marie had turned up at John’s birthday party. Question 27: She just had time to put up her umbrella before the rain came down in torrents. A. No sooner had she put up her umbrella than the rain came down in torrents. B. The rain came down in torrents as soon as she just has time to put up her umbrella. C. Only when she had put up her umbrella did the rain come down in torrents. D. If she hadn’t time to put up her umbrella, the rain wouldn’t have come down in torrents. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 28. The actor and singer were singing on the stage when we arrived at the theater. A. arrived B. were singing C. on the stage D. when Question 29. Mine classmates are going on a trip to Cue Phuong National Park this weekend. A. this weekend B. a C. are D. Mine

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Question 30. The phrase "cultural diversity" is also sometimes used to mean the variety of human societies or cultures in a special region. A. human societies B. special region C. cultural diversity D. the variety of Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 31. "What did you do last weekend, Tim?" Alice asked A. Alice asked Tim what had he done the previous weekend B. Alice asked Tim what he had done the previous weekend. C. Alice asked Tim what did he do last weekend. D. Alice asked Tim what he had done last weekend. Question 32. 4. It is a long time since we last met each other. A. We haven't met each other for a long time. B. The last time we met each other is a long time ago. C. We last met each other for a long time. D. We started meeting each other a long time ago. Question 33. Jane cooked so many dishes for lunch. But it wasn't necessary. A. Jane needn't have cooked so many dishes for lunch B. Jane couldn't have cooked so many dishes for lunch C. Jane might not have cooked so many dishes for lunch D. Jane oughtn't to have cooked so many dishes Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase that best fits each other numbered blanks. Sport and sport events provide a significant source of volunteering opportunities for a wide range of individuals. (34) _______ organizers of major Sport events tend to target the youth market to source volunteers due to the apparent high level of interest in sport by this group, not only in terms of young people who watch a particular sport, but also those (35) _______ participate in it. It is therefore suggested that sport may act as a kind of 'nursery' for volunteering and that the experiences (36) _______ to young people in sport may be critical for their future volunteer involvement, not only in sport but the broader society. By developing an interest in volunteering as a young person, it is hoped that these people will continue to volunteer as they become adults. One of the most common approaches by many event organizers is a place an advertisement in the local media which invites readers to contact the organization. (37) _______, it is possible to adopt a more formally structured recruitment programme through schools and universities. The (38) _______ of this approach is to establish a relationship between the governing body of a particular sport and young people from an early age, in the hope that young people who are either spectators or participants in the sport continue from childhood to adulthood. Question 34. A. Much B. Many C. Each D. Every Question 35. A. when B. whom C. who D. which Question 36. A. preferred B. admitted C. afforded D. supported Question 37. A. In contrast B. In addition C. In short D. In conclusion Question 38. A. benefit B. investment C. movement D. decision Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. What makes people give money to charity? One reason is altruism, the unselfish desire to help other people and make the world a better place. For example, religious institutions receive the highest percentage of donations in the United States. Colleges and universities often receive gifts from successful graduates who want to widen educational opportunities for other students or support research on an issue they feel is important. Hospital and medical research organizations are often supported by donors who have been affected by a medical problem, either directly or through the experience of family members or friends. Many donors give to causes that have touched them personally in some way. Charitable gifts can also be made for reasons involving personal interest. Under U.S tax law, an individual does not have to pay income tax on money that is donated to charity. For extremely wealthy individuals, this can mean millions of dollars they do not have to pay in taxes to the government. In addition to tax benefits, donors often receive favorable publicity for making

donations, and they have an opportunity to influence the world around them. For instance, new buildings at colleges and universities are often named after important donors, which means that they will be remembered for their generosity for many years to come.

Adapted from Macmillan Exams, Roy Norris, Ready for First, 3rd Editor

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Question 39. What could be the best title for the passage? A. Charity Activities B. Charitable Giving C. To Be Charitable D. To Be Altruistic Question 40. The word "they" in paragraph 1 refers to ________ . A. colleges and universities B. other students C. successful students D. educational opportunities Question 41. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT TRUE? A. Altruism is the unselfish desire to help other people. B. In the U.S, people donate a lot to religious institutions. C. In the U.S, many charity events are held by the governors. D. Many people give away money to charity for the sake of themselves. Question 42. The word "affected" in paragraph 1 almost means ________ . A. attacked B. killed C. fought D. caught Question 43. According to the passage, what is perhaps THE LEAST supported by the writer about giving a charitable gift? A. People can earn their living by going to charity events. B. U.S people do not have to pay income tax on charitable donations. C. Donors can have their names honored for a long time. D. Donors have a chance to affect the world around them. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. More than 200 reindeer have died of starvation on the Norwegian archipelago of Svalbard, with scientists blaming their deaths on climate change. The wild deer carcasses were found on the Arctic islands this summer by researchers from the Norwegian Polar Institute (NPI), which said it had never logged so many deaths at once in 40 years of monitoring the animals’ population level. “It’s scary to find so many dead animals,” project leader Ashild Onvik Pedersen told state broadcaster NRK. “This is an example of how climate change affects nature. It is just sad.” Svalbard’s capital Longyearbyen, the northernmost town on earth, is thought to be warming quicker than any other settlement on the planet, climate scientists warned earlier this year. The milder temperatures in the region led to unusually heavy rainfall in December, leaving a thick layer of ice when the precipitation froze. This meant the reindeer could not dig through the hardened tundra to reach the vegetation they graze on in their usual pastures, the NPI said. Svalbard’s reindeer have been observed eating seaweed and kelp when food is scarce, but these are less nutritious and cause them stomach problems. A relatively high number of calves born last year increased the death toll, as the youngest and weakest are often the first to die in harsh conditions. “Some of the mortality is natural because there were so many calves last year. But the large number we see now is due to heavy rain, which is due to global warming,” said Ms Onvik Pedersen. A team of three scientists spent 10 weeks investigating population of the Svalbard reindeer earlier this year. Researchers warned the decline of reindeer would cause unwanted plant species, currently kept in check by the animals’ grazing, to spread across Arctic ecosystems in Europe, Asia and North America. Arctic reindeer and caribou populations have declined 56 per cent in the last two decades, a report by the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration said last year. The report said food security was partly to blame for falling herd numbers, while warmer summers could also put the animals at greater risk of diseases spread by flies and parasites. The average temperature in Longyearbyen has risen by 3.7C since 1900, more than three times the global average increase of about 1C. In 2016, the entrance to the town’s “Doomsday” seed vault – which stores specimens of almost all the world’s seeds – was flooded following heavy rainfall. (Adapted from https://www.independent.co.uk/) Question 44. Which could best serve as the title of the passage?

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A. Climate change – The main cause for the death of hundreds of reindeer. B. Global warming – What are the effects on nature? C. Reindeer – The most vulnerable animals on the Arctic islands. D. Climate change – What are the reasons? Question 45. The word “logged” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______________. A. cut down B. damaged C. recorded D. discovered Question 46. The following are true about capital Longyearbyen, EXCEPT ___________. A. It is believed to be the most quickly warming settlement on earth. B. People in Longyearbyen suffered unusually heavy rain at the end of the year. C. It is the northernmost town on our planet. D. The reindeer here couldn’t stand the low temperature when the precipitation froze. Question 47 .The word “scarce” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by __________. A. inappropriate B. insufficient C. abundant D. unlimited Question48. What does the word “these” in paragraph 2 refer to? A. seaweed and kelp B. Svalbard’s reindeer C. their usual pastures D. milder temperatures Question49 .According to Ms. Onvik Pedersen, why is the death rate of reindeer so high this year? A. Because of the high number of calves born. B. Because of heavy rain. C. Because of natural selection. D. Because of the shortage of vegetation. Question 50. Which statement is TRUE according to the last paragraphs? A. After over 2 months investigated, reindeer populations were reported to decrease because of the increase of unwanted plant species. B. Nearly a half of reindeer populations have reduced in the last two decades. C. Beside the scarcity of food, diseases are also the cause of reindeer’s mortality. D. The average temperature of the Earth has increased by 3.7C since 1990.

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA 15 (Đề thi có 05 trang)

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Họ, tên thí sinh………………………………………………………………………………………… Số báo danh: ........................................................................................................................................... Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 1. As Omicron has been designated a Variant of Concern, there are several ________ for countries to undertake. A. act B. actively C. active D. actions Question 2. Squid Game is not appropriate for kids under the age of 17, ________? A. does it B. is it C. isn’t it D. doesn’t it Question 3. If something electricity and heat, it allows electricity or heat to ________ travel along and through it. A. carries B. transfers C. conducts D. exchanges Question 4. Are you a real TikToker? Do you follow “Look to the left” hot trend ________ Tiktok? A. at B. on C. in D. by Question 5. After feeling off ________ for days, Tom finally went to see his doctor. A. food B. color C. fitness D. balance Question 6. The new supermarket is so much cheaper than the one in John Street. ________, they do free home deliveries. A. Moreover B. Consequently C. Nevertheless D. Instead Question 7. I bought my wife a(n) ______________ hat when I went abroad on a business trip. A. beautiful large copper Italian B. beautiful large Italian copper C. beautiful copper large Italian D. Italian beautiful large copper Question 8. When travelling in Europe, we tried to ________ at least an hour in a medieval town to explore it. A. stop off B. stop out C. stop up D. stop in Question 9. Sam ______ to change a light bulb when he slipped and fell. A. was trying B. tried C. had been trying D. has tried Question 10. I will have cleaned the house from top to bottom ________. A. after you had got home B. when you got home C. as soon as you had got home D. by the time you get home Question 11. The local press has been pouring ________ on the mayor for dissolving the council. A. scorn B. blame C. disapproval D. hatred Question 12. After suffering severe wounds in the attack, the secret agent decided to ________ his resignation to the commander. A. give B. apply C. propose D. offer Question 13. The 26th Annual Meeting of the Asia-Pacific Parliamentary Forum (APPF)______in Hanoi from January 18th to 21st, 2018. A. was held B. held C. is held D. holds Question 14. ________ the forests to make way for farming, local people have to suffer severe floods. A. Cut down B. Having cut down C. To cut down D. Being cut down Question 15. The more time parents spend with their children, ________ they might perform at school. A. the best B. the better C. best D. better Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 16. Mary and Tom are talking in the living room. - Mary: I want to record the MTV awards tonight. Could you set the video for me before we go out? - Tom: “________” A. No, I'm not into TV series. C. Yes, of course. Which channel is it on? B. No, I prefer live concerts. D. Yes, let's go to see it tonight. Question 17. Dick is thanking Michelle for giving him the gift on his birthday. - Dick: “Thanks for the nice gift you brought to me!”

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- Michelle: “________” A. Welcome! I’m glad you like it B. Not at all C. Actually speaking, I myself don’t like it D. All right! Do you know how much it costs? Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 18. A. beneﬁt B. pesticide C. cinema D. aquatic Question 19. A. shadow B. lifelong C. worship D. unique Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 20. A. obliged B. graduated C. attended D. decided Question 21. A. final B. revival C. reliable D. liberty Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22. These technological advancements have had both positive and negative effects on Gen Z. A. developments B. aspects C. determinations D. results Question 23. All the condition seemed optimal: the congenial company, the wonderful weather, the historic venue. A. hospitable B. difficult C. advanced D. complex Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24. My colleague looks a little green around the gills at work today. He must have stayed up late to finish the report last night. A. experienced and enthusiastic B. ill and pale C. sick and tired D. well and healthy Question 25. Vietnam will attend the 2023 Women's World Cup for the very first time after a 2-1 victory in the play-off against Chinese Taipei on February 6, 2022. A. triumph B. success C. defeat D. conquest Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 26. Olga was about to say something about the end of the movie. She was stopped by her friends right then. A. Only after Olga had said something about the end of the movie was she stopped by her friends. B. Were it not for Olga’s intension of saying something about the end of the movie, she would not be stopped by her friends. C. Hardly had Olga intended to say something about the end of the movie when she was stopped by her friends. D. Not until was Olga stopped by her friends that she started to say something about the end of the movie. Question 27. Her Internet connection is not stable. She cannot email her assignment. A. If her Internet connection had been stable, she could have emailed her assignment. B. If only her Internet connection is stable, so that she could email her assignment. C. She wishes her Internet connection were stable and she could email her assignment. D. If her Internet connection were not stable, she couldn’t email her assignment. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 28. Yesterday the world witness perhaps the most significant Grand Slam final in history. A. the B. witness C. in D. final Question 29. Those of us who have a family history of heart disease should make yearly appointments with their doctors. A. who B. should make C. yearly D. their Question 30. I would like to facilitate them upon the will they have shown in taking advantage of the opportunity offered. A. facilitate B. will C. advantage D. the Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

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Question 31. It’s possible that Joanna didn’t receive my message. A. Joanna shouldn’t have received my message. B. Joanna needn’t have received my message. C. Joanna mightn’t have received my message. D. Joanna can’t have received my message. Question 32. “It’s a good idea to use Quizlet for vocabulary learning,” he said. A. He denied using Quizlet for vocabulary learning. B. He suggested using Quizlet for vocabulary learning. C. He promised to use Quizlet for vocabulary learning. D. He refused to use Quizlet for vocabulary learning. Question 33. She last checked her Instagram newsfeed two days ago. A. She started checking her Instagram newsfeed two days ago. B. She hasn’t checked her Instagram newsfeed for two days. C. She didn’t check her Instagram newsfeed two days ago. D. She has checked her Instagram newsfeed for two days. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each the numbered blanks. The mobile phone People have been dreaming of having a personal means of communication for a long time. In the late 1960s, the idea seemed so far in the future that it was included in the science fiction series, Star Trek. Since the 1980s, however, mobile have become a part of everyday life. (34) ________ they were initially seen as a status symbol for successful business people, mobile use has spread to include practically everyone in the developed world, old and young alike. The (35) ________ on social life has been enormous. We have got used to the idea of having constantly changed social plans, (36) ________ a quick phone call is all takes to rearrange things. Before this was possible, there were (37) ________ occasions when friends who had arranged to meet completely missed each other because of a slight misunderstanding. People would often have to (38) ________ very careful arrangements to be sure of meeting up. As mobiles have become more popular, so they have become more powerful. The large, unreliable mobile phone of the 1980s has evolved into the small stylish phone of today. (Adapted from “Destination C1&C2” by Malcomn Mann and Steve Taylor-Knowles) Question 34. A. Although B. But C. So D. And Question 35. A. result B. impact C. outcome D. consequence Question 36. A. who B. where C. when D. that Question 37. A. many B. much C. every D. another Question 38. A. induce B. render C. make D. reach Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question. Global sea level has been rising over the past century, and the rate has increased in recent decades. In 2014, global sea level was 2.6 inches above the 1993 average the highest annual average in the satellite record (1993 present). Sea level continues to rise at a rate of about one eighth of an inch per year. Higher sea levels mean that deadly and destructive storm surges push farther inland than they once did, which also means more frequent nuisance flooding. Disruptive and expensive, nuisance flooding is estimated to be from 300 percent to 900 percent more frequent within U.S. coastal communities than it was just 50 years ago. The two major causes of global sea level rise are thermal expansion caused by warming of the ocean since water expands as it warms and increased melting of land based ice, such as glaciers and ice sheets. The oceans are absorbing more than 90 percent of the increased atmospheric heat associated with emissions from human activity. With continued ocean and atmospheric warming, sea levels will likely rise for many centuries at rates higher than those of the current century. In the United States, almost 40 percent of the population lives in relatively high population density coastal areas, where sea level plays a part in flooding, shoreline erosion, and hazards from storms. Globally, eight of the world’s 10 largest cities are near a coast, according to the U.N. Atlas of the Oceans. (Adapted from https://oceanservice.noaa.gov/) Question 39. Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage? A. Sea level within U.S. coastal communities

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B. An increasing rate of sea level rise C. Sea level and its effects on the world’s largest cities D. Sea level and emissions from human activity Question 40. The word “rise” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________. A. decline B. reduce C. increase D. decrease Question 41. The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to ________. A. storm surges B. coastal communities C. sea levels D. floods Question 42. Which of the following statements is TRUE according to the last paragraph? A. Sea levels will likely rise for many centuries at rates of the current century. B. Sea level has no relation to flooding, shoreline erosion, and hazards from storms. C. Nearly 40 percent of the population of the U.S lives in densely populated coastal areas. D. Sea level rise will only affect the world’s largest cities near the coast. Question 43. According to paragraph 3, all of the following are the major causes of global sea level rise EXCEPT ________. A. ice melting B. human activity C. population density D. thermal expansion Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question. Modern technologies have changed the way that people communicate with one another. These technologies provide new and innovative ways for people to communicate -- text messaging, email, chat and social networks. They allow faster and more efficient communication and can help build relationships. However, modern technologies can also have negative effects such as limiting personal contact and straining relationships. The nature of the effect depends in large part on the type of relationship. Modern technologies limit the amount of separation between work and home. With the advent of computers, the Internet and cell phones people can -- and are often expected to -- address work issues from home. This can limit family interactions and cause conflict between family members. The use of Internet and television by children and teenagers also limits the amount time spent with family and can increase conflict between children and their parents. Young people use modern technologies in increasing numbers to communicate with their friends. Text messaging and online chats have become the preferred method of youth communication. A California State University and UCLA study indicates that for young people face-to-face interactions are less desirable than modern modes of communication. This preference could cause an inability to form lasting friendships or difficulty understanding social cues. Others believe that modern technologies increase communication and therefore strengthen friendships. Starting new relationships -- romantic and otherwise -- can be difficult. Modern technologies allow people to make new connections without the fears characteristic of face-to-face contact. The anonymity and low risk are what makes Internet dating and social networks popular ways of meeting people. However, this anonymity can also be dangerous. In April 2011, a woman sued an online dating site after allegedly being raped by a man she met online. Modern technologies allow couples to be in contact with each other more than ever before. This can lead to increased expectations and conflict. With the increasing use of cell phones and email, people often expect an instant reply to communication. A delayed reply -- or none at all -- can lead to suspicion and anger. The use of social networks can also affect relationships. Information that was once private -such as relationship conflicts -- is now part of the public sphere. (Adapted from https://oureverydaylife.com/) Question 44. Which of the following could be the main topic of the passage? A. The advantages and disadvantages of social networks. B. The positive and negative effects of modern technologies on communication. C. The differences between the way people communicate in the past and now. D. How people’s relationships have to change to keep up with the development of modern technologies. Question 45. The word “straining” in the first paragraph mostly means ________. A. connecting B. healing C. breaking down D. experiencing pressure Question 46. According to paragraph 2, why do modern technologies cause conflict between family members?

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A. Because people often take advantage of these technologies to work from home. B. Since parents spend so much time on TV and the Internet that they can’t take care of their children. C. As the pressure of work in modern time is too heavy for parents to solve at the workplace. D. Because people prefer spending time on the Internet to talking with each other. Question 47. What does the phrase “this preference” in paragraph 3 refer to? A. the preference for face-to-face communication B. the preference to young people C. the preference for communicating by modern modes D. the preference for communicating with their friends Question 48. The following are benefits of modern technologies mentioned in the passage, EXCEPT ________. A. People are easier to keep in touch with their friends. B. Singles can have all information about their partners before face-to-face meeting. C. More work is done from home instead of at the workplace. D. People will have a more efficient way to build new relationships. Question 49. The word “instant” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ________. A. exact B. appropriate C. immediate D. gradual Question 50. It can be inferred from the last paragraph that ________. A. people’s personal information now is no longer confidential as people depend too much on social networks. B. people’s relationships become worse and worse with the increasing use of modern technologies. C. couples are likely to separate because of the pressure of keeping in touch on social networks. D. conflicts between people are not difficult to solve with the help of modern technologies. THE END

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA 16 (Đề thi có 05 trang)

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 16: Ann and Peter are doing homework together. – Ann: “Could you lend me that book” – Peter: “____________” Page 1|6

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A. No, I’m busy B. That’s what I think C. Why did you say that? D. Of course, here it is Question 17: Linda is thanking Daniel for his birthday present. Linda: “Thanks for the book. I’ve been looking for it for months.” Daniel: “____________” A. You can say that again. B. Thank you for looking at it C. I like reading books. D. I’m glad you like it.

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 18: A. permission B. suggestion C. refusal D. possible Question 19: A. forest B. succeed C. homeless C. nation Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 20: A. stopped B. wanted C. decided D. visited Question 21: A. head B. please C. heavy C. measure

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions Question 22: They tell us she isn't allowed to leave unless she gets the doctor's permission A. disapproval B. objection C. agreement D. refusal Question 23: Public schools must abide by these rules, so why shouldn't charter schools, too? A. obey B. tolerate C. dislike D. allow

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24: I would love to go back to college, but unfortunately, that ship has sailed. A. it was late B. it was timely C. it was inconvenient D. it was traditional Question 25: A comfortable working environment will increase productivity. A. promote B. raise C. decrease D. go up

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 26: It was not until they had reached Dak Lak that they realized how far they had gone. A. Not until they had reached Dak Lak did they realize how far they had gone. B. Not until had they reached Dak Lak they realized how far they had gone. C. Not until they reached Dak Lak had they realized how far they had gone. D. Not until they realized how far they had gone had they reached Dak Lak Question 27: They had a lot of homework last Monday. A. They wish they had not a lot of homework last Monday B. They wish they didn’t have a lot of homework last Monday C. They wish they had had little homework last Monday D. They wish they wouldn’t have a lot of homework last Monday Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Page 2|6

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Question 28: Let's start by reviewing what we do with those friends last week. A. start B. reviewing C. do D. friend Question 29: Lily and her mother went to hospital last week to check our health. A. her B. went C. last D. our health Question 30: I must complement you on your handling of a very difficult situation. A. must B. complement C. handling D. very

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 31: She advised him to go to the dentist immediately. A. He would go to the dentist immediately B. She should go to the dentist immediately C. He should go to the dentist immediately D. He must go to the dentist immediately Question 32: She said, “ Don’t laugh, Jessica. Be serious.” A. She said not to laugh and be serious. B. She said Jessica not to laugh and be serious. C. She told Jessica not to laugh and asked him to be serious. D. She told Jessica do not laugh and be serious Question 33: The last time I played the piano was 10 years ago. A. I have not played the piano for 10 years ago B. I have not played the piano for 10 years C. I have not played the piano since 10 years D. I did not play the piano since 10 years

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38. Plants and animals will find it difficult to escape from or adjust to the effect of global warming. Scientists have already observed shifts in the life cycles of (34) ________plants and animals, such as flowers (35)______________earlier and birds hatching earlier in the spring. Many species have begun shifting (36)_____________ they live or their annual migration patterns due to warmer temperatures.

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With further warming, animals will tend to migrate toward the poles and up mountain sides toward higher elevations. Plants will also attempt to shift their ranges, seeking new areas as old habitats grow too warm. In many places, however, human development will prevent these shifts. Species that find cities or farmland blocking their way north or south may become extinct. Species living in unique ecosystems, such as those found in polar and mountaintop regions, are especially at risk (37)___________ migration to new habitats is not possible. For example, polar bears and marine mammals in the Arctic are already threatened by(38) ________________ sea ice but have nowhere farther to go. Question 34: A. many B. each C. much C. little Question 35: A. increasing B. blooming C. growing D. swelling Question 36: A. that B. what C. which D. where Question 37: A. because B. but C. and D. although Question 38: A. decreasing B. falling C. deepening D. dwindling Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43. Page 3|6

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You can even see the difference in people’s brain waves. People with both mindsets came into our brainwave lab at Columbia. As they answered hard questions and got feedback, we were curious about when their brain waves would show them to be interested and attentive. People with a fixed mindset were only interested when the feedback reflected on their ability. Their brain waves showed them paying close attention when they were told whether their answers were right or wrong. But when they were presented with information that could help them learn, there was no sign of interest. Even when they’d gotten an answer wrong, they were not interested in learning what the right answer was. Only people with a growth mindset paid close attention to information that could stretch their knowledge. Only for them was learning a priority.

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(Adapted from “Mindset” by Carol Dweck) Question 39: What is the passage mainly about? A. Brain Waves Tell the Story B. People with fixed mindsets C. The feedbacks are important D. People with a growth mindset Question 40: According to paragraph 3, what is the result when people with a fixed mindset were presented with information that could help them learn? A. They paid close attention to B. They were reluctant C. They were angry D. They showed no interest Question 41: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2 and 3 as for people with a fixed mindset? A. They were not interested in new knowledge B. They only paid attention to the the feedbacks C. Learning made them get a headache D. They were inattentive to information that helps them learn Question 42: The word growth in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______. A. decline B. development C. height D. reduction Question 43: The word they in paragraph 1 refers to _______. A. People with both mindsets B. Hard questions C. Brainwaves D. feedback

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50. You know, just about every sport is in some sense a team sport. No one does it alone. Even in individual sports, like tennis or golf, great athletes have a team—coaches, trainers, caddies, managers, mentors. This really hit me when I read about Diana Nyad, the woman who holds the world’s record for open-water swimming. What could be more of a lone sport than swimming? All right, maybe you need a little rowboat to follow you and make sure you’re okay. When Nyad hatched her plan, the open-water swimming record for both men and women was sixty miles. She wanted to swim one hundred. After months of arduous training, she was ready. But with her went a team of guides (for measuring the winds and the current, and watching for obstacles), divers (looking for sharks), NASA experts (for guidance on nutrition and endurance—she needed eleven hundred calories per Page 4|6

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hour and she lost twenty-nine pounds on the trip!), and trainers who talked her through uncontrollable shivers, nausea, hallucinations, and despair. Her new record was 102.5 miles. It was her name in the record books, but it took fifty-one other people to do it.

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(Adapted from “Mindset” by Carol Dweck) Question 44: Which of the following is the best title for the passage? A. The open-water swimming record of Diana Nyad B. Every Sport is a Team Sport C. Swimming is difficult D. The strength of trainers to athletes Question 45: According to paragraph 1, what type of sports has a team? A. individual sports B. team sports C. underwater sports D. both A&B Question 46: The word arduous in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______. A. heavy B. easy C. strenuous D. quick Question 47: The word it in paragraph 1 refers to _______. A. every sport B. tennis C. golf D. a team sport Question 48: The word coaches in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______. A. partners B. instructors C. pupils D. carriages Question 49: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage? A. A team of guides measure the winds and the current, and watch for obstacles B. Divers teach her how to swim properly C. NASA experts guide on nutrition and endurance D. Trainers who talked her through uncontrollable shivers, nausea, hallucinations, and despair Question 50: Which of the following can be referred from the passage? A. Diana Nyad lost so much weight, which led to hallucinations B. A few months of training were not enough for her to be ready C. Diana Nyad’s trainers contributed mostly to her achievements D. Diana Nyad were supported by over 50 people

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA 17 (Đề thi có 05 trang)

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Họ, tên thí sinh………………………………………………………………………………………… Số báo danh: ........................................................................................................................................... Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 1. Children can be encouraged to work together as a team by playing _______ sports. A. compete B. competitively C. competitive D. competition Question 2. Michael rarely returns to his hometown, _______? A. doesn’t he B. hasn’t he C. does he D. has he Question 3. Pesticide residues in fruit and vegetable can be _______ to health. A. crucial B. supportive C. receptive D. destructive Question 4. When you grow up, you must learn how to become independent _______ your parents. A. with B. in C. of D. on Question 5. I don’t feel like buying a _______ in a poke; we’d better check the content. A. pig B. cattle C. buffalo D. ox Question 6. Dang Van Lam was absent from Vietnam’s World Cup qualifiers in June _______ his contact with a Covid-19 case. A. despite B. because C. although D. because of Question 7. I remember she wore a _______ dress to go out with her boyfriend last week. A. cotton white Vietnamese B. Vietnamese white cotton C. white Vietnamese cotton D. white cotton Vietnamese Question 8. She _______ quite often as a guest on popular television shows, as well as in television and bigscreen movies. A. looked up B. looked after C. turned up D. turned on Question 9. The students _______ about their summer vacation when their teacher came in. A. talked B. were talking C. have talked D. talk Question 10. _______, they will have done their homework. A. By the time you finish cooking B. By the time you finished cooking C. When you finish cooking D. While you finish cooking Question 11. Due to the nature of the earthquake, a much larger _______ of the population might be affected. A. density B. totality C. segment D. division Question 12. Volunteers may be required to obtain Red Cross _______ in order to serve through hospitals and healthcare organizations or provide disaster relief. A. diploma B. certification C. license D. degree Question 13. Last night Laura _______ a big diamond ring by her husband-to-be at her birthday party. A. was giving B. gave C. gives D. was given Question 14. ________ the homework, he was allowed to go out with his friends. A. Finishing B. Finish C. To finish D. Having finished Question 15. _______the time passes, _______I feel! The deadline of my thesis is coming, but I have just finished half of it. A. The faster / the nervous B. The more fast / the nervous C. The fast / the more nervous D. The faster / the more nervous Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 16. Tom is in Ho Chi Minh city and asks a passer-by the way to the railway station. - Tom: “Can you show me the way to the railway station, please?” - Passer-by: “_______” A. No way. B. Just round the comer over there. C. Look it up in a dictionary! D. There’s no traffic near here. Question 17. Marry is talking to Linda over the phone. - Mary: “Thank you for helping me prepare for the party.”

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- Linda: “_______” A. My pleasure B. The meal was out of this world C. Never mention me D. Of course not Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 18. A. uncertain B. arrogant C. familiar D. impatient Question 19. A. precede B. offer C. visit D. finish Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 20. A. looked B. laughed C. opened D. stepped Question 21. A. tangle B. dangerous C. battle D. calculate Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22. I knew she was only flattering me because she wanted to borrow some money. A. teasing B. threatening C. praising D. helping Question 23. he student was ecstatic when he found out he received the highest achievable score on the test. A. excited B. worried C. tragic D. disappointed Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24. If you want to be a successful gardener, of course you’ve got to have green fingers. A. lack skills in gardening B. have a good head for gardening C. be better at doing the gardening D. make plants grow well Question 25. 2008 is a memorable year for people around the world because of the global financial recession that hit practically every sector of world economy. A. prosperity B. downturn C. crisis D. depression Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 26. Linda's final exam is important. She realizes little of it A. Under no circumstances does Linda realize how important her final exam is. B. Rarely does Linda realize how important her final exam is. C. Little does Linda realize how important her final exam is. D. Never does Linda realize how important her final exam is. Question 27. I deeply regret having spoken to her so severely yesterday. She was badly hurt. A. If only I could apologize to her for having spoken to her so severely yesterday. B. I wish I hadn’t spoken to her so severely yesterday. C. She must have been badly hurt because I had spoken to her so severely yesterday. D. If I hadn’t spoken to her so severely yesterday, she wouldn’t be badly hurt. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 28. We are going to visit our grandparents when we will finish our final exams. A. are going to B. our C. when D. will finish Question 29. Ozone has his origin in a number of sources, a prime one being the automobile engine. A. his B. prime C. being D. the Question 30. It took the spouses five years to discover that their tastes were diverging and their tempers were incompatible. A. spouses B. tastes C. diverging D. incompatible Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 31. I'm sure Luisa was very disappointed when she failed the exam. A. Luisa must be very disappointed when she failed the exam. B. Luisa must have been very disappointed when she failed the exam. C. Luisa may be very disappointed when she failed the exam. D. Luisa could have been very disappointed when she failed the exam. Question 32. “Would you like to come out to dinner with me tonight, Jenny?” Paul said.

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A. Paul suggested that Jenny go out to dinner with him that night. B. Paul insisted on Jenny going out to dinner with him that night. C. Paul invited Jenny to go out to dinner with him that night. D. Pau offered Jenny to go out to dinner with him that night Question 33. he last time I ate spaghetti was five months ago. A. I didn’t eat spaghetti five months ago. B. I would eat spaghetti in five months. C. I have eaten spaghetti for five months. D. I haven’t eaten spaghetti for five months. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each the numbered blanks. OLYMPIC TORCH RELAY STARTS IN JAPAN The torch relay for the Tokyo Olympics is finally under way. The 2020 Summer Games were postponed due to the coronavirus pandemic but organizers have been determined to (31) _______ they go ahead in July. It began in Fukushima Prefecture, (32) _______ was devastated by the triple disasters of the 2011 earthquake, tsunami and nuclear meltdown. Fukushima was chosen as the start of the relay to show the area has recovered, although (33) _______ people say claims of recovery are a little premature. The head of Japan's Olympic organizing committee, Seiko Hashimoto, said in her opening address: “The flame will embark on a 121-day journey and will carry the hopes of the Japanese people and wishes for peace.” Japanese people are being encouraged to look at live broadcasts of the relay and refrain from travelling to watch it amid fears of a spike in COVID 19 cases. (34) _______ must wear face masks, and are being urged to clap rather than cheer. Japan's Prime Minister Yoshihide Suga reiterated his commitment to stage a “safe and secure” Olympics (35) _______ the pandemic. He said: “We will do our utmost on coronavirus measures”. (Adapted from https://breakingnewsenglish.com/2103/210327-olympic-torch-relay.html) Question 34. A. acclaim B. ensure C. remain D. assure Question 35. A. who B. where C. which D. whom Question 36. A. much B. every C. a lot D. many Question 37. A. Audiences B. Viewers C. Spectators D. Watchers Question 38. A. in spite of B. because of C. due to D. with a view to Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question. Zoo officials say that they are concerned about animals. However, most zoos remain "collections" of interesting "items" rather than protective habitats. Zoos teach people that it is acceptable to keep animals in captivity. However, animals in zoos are bored, limited, lonely, and far from their natural homes. Zoos claim to educate people, but in fact, visitors don't learn anything meaningful about the natural behavior, intelligence, or beauty of animals. Most zoo areas are quite small, and visitors can rarely observe animals’ normal behavior in these unnatural spaces. The animals are kept together in small spaces, with no privacy and little opportunity for mental stimulation or physical exercise. This results in abnormal and self-destructive behavior called zoochosis. A worldwide study of zoos found that zoochosis is common among animals in small spaces or cages. For example, Bears spend 30 percent of their time walking back and forth. These are all signs of distress. Zoos also claim to save animals from extinction. However, zoos that breed endangered animals, such as big cats and Asian elephants, often do not release them to the wild. Ultimately, we will save endangered species only if we save their habitats. We also need to stop people from killing them. Instead of supporting zoos, we should support groups that work to protect animals and preserve their homes in the wild. (Adapted from www.usingenglish.com/forum/threads/zoo) Question 39. What is the passage mainly about? A. The natural homes for zoos’ animals. B. The suffering zoos bring captured animals. C. The things zoo officials concern. D. The comfort for zoo visitors. Question 40. The word “observe” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______. A. watch B. feed C. raise D. touch Question 41. According to the passage, zoochosis is popular among animals in ______. A. the wild B. natural homes C. cages D. large spaces

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Question 42. The word “them” in paragraph 4 refers to ______. A. signs B. their habitats C. endangered animals D. zoos Question 43. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage? A. Zoos educate people by showing them animals’ natural behavior. B. Zoos remain animals’ protective habitats. C. Zoos always release endangered animals to the wild. D. Zoos keep animals in small spaces Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question. Times are tough. The nightly news is filled with stories of people who have lost their jobs due to the economic crisis, or lost their homes in a fire or natural disaster. Have you ever seen people who have just endured an awful situation? Some focus on what they have lost, and this is easy to understand. But other people focus on what they did not lose, and they start thinking about a better future. One good piece of advice to remember is that you cannot always control situations or other people. The only thing you can control is your own personal reaction to bad situations. Sometimes a situation may really be overwhelming. However, in many cases, you really can influence our own moods by the way you think about negative situations. Imagine two families: Both have lost their homes and all their belongings in a devastating storm. One family cannot mask their grief. They feel that everything they hold dear has been destroyed. They cannot imagine how they will ever be able to replace things and start over again. Their normal life seems to have been completely lost. In contrast, a second family is crying with joy. All of the people in their family are unharmed and safe. This family is just happy that everyone has survived. This family is already trying to figure out how they can recover. You can’t really blame the first family for experiencing a very normal reaction to a terrible situation. However, the second family certainly seems to be better off. They are thinking about making progress rather than focusing on the tragic events. Though this scenario is extreme, everyone experiences setbacks that seem just awful at the time. This could be a job loss, illness, or problems with family members. Nobody gets through life without having some bad things happen. In these situations, try to focus on the steps you can take to remedy the situation, instead of how awful the setback is. By doing this, you will be laying the foundation for a better tomorrow. And you will not suffer as much pain today. Actually, controlling how you feel and trying to maintain a positive attitude can help you through many tough situations. The bottom line is, no matter what the problem is, you are more likely to fix it if you can stay positive and work out a plan. Also, never be afraid to seek help when you need it. The advice of a friend, family member, or even a professional may be all it takes to get back on track. It may sound like a cliché. While a positive attitude may not be the answer to every problem, it can certainly give you an advantage in surviving most of life’s minor setbacks. (Adapted from “Select Readings – Upper Intermediate” by Linda Lee and Erik Gundersen) Question 44. Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage? A. Being optimistic is an effective way to get over bad situations. B. Keeping positive or negative thoughts is the own choice of each person. C. Positive thoughts are necessary conditions to be successful. D. There seems to have more pessimists than optimists. Question 45. The word “grief” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______. A. problem B. sorrow C. disappointment D. damage Question 46. What does the word “they” in paragraph 3 refer to? A. tragic events B. all of the people C. the first family D. the second family Question 47. It can be inferred from the third paragraph that _______. A. disappointment and sadness are all people’s common emotions in terrible situations. B. your attitude in terrible situations is more important than how serious the problems are. C. optimists often suffer less terrible situations than pessimists. D. your attitude will decide the way you react to terrible situations. Question 48. The word “scenario” in paragraph 4 mostly means _______. A. trouble B. background C. circumstance D. imagination Question 49. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?

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A. The thing people have to remember is managing their own reaction to bad situations. B. Everyone will suffer some terrible experiences in their life. C. Paying attention to the solutions of the setback is better than focusing on the damage it causes. D. To have a good foundation for the future, you should not undergo bad situations today. Question 50. According to paragraph 5, what is the major thing you should do when you have troubles? A. Be optimistic and make out a plan. B. Ask other people for help when necessary. C. Control your emotions. D. Determine how serious the problem is. THE END

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA 18 (Đề thi có 05 trang)

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Họ, tên thí sinh………………………………………………………………………………………… Số báo danh: ........................................................................................................................................... Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 1: Lan wants to learn English because it is an____________ language. A. internationally B. international C. internationalize D. internationalism Question 2: Let’s go to the cinema to watch “End game”, _______? A. will you B. don’t you C. shall we D. don’t we Question 3. He will apply for a job ________ . A. when he is graduating from university B. until he graduated from university. C. after he had graduated from university D. as soon as he graduates from university. Question 4: Not many people are aware ____ male preference in this company. A. with B. on C. about D. of Question 5: They had to wait ten minutes for the anesthetic to take________ before they stitched up the cut. A. effect B. impact C. influence D. affect Question 6: ____ many international agreements affirming their human rights, women are still much more likely than men to be poor and illiterate. A. Although B. Despite C. Because D. Since Question 7: “What is the groom wearing?” “He dresses in a _______________.” A. light suit summer B. light summer suit C. suit summer light D. summer suit light Question 8: Can you tell me how the problem _________________ in the first place? A. fell through B. brought round C. got out D. came about Question 9: When we went out, the sun _______. A. was shining B. is shining C. shines D. shone Question 10: She will have finished the preparations for the meeting _______. A. by the time her boss arrives B. after her boss had arrived C. as soon as her boss had arrived D. when her boss arrived Question 11: The two people________badminton seemed to be at it quite intensely. A. going B. playing C. doing D. practicing Question 12. She is a kind of woman who does not care much of work but generally ________ meals, movies or late nights at a club with her colleagues. A. supposes B. discusses C. attends D. socializes Question 13: Many people ______ against COVID-19 last year. A. vaccinated B. were vaccinating C. were vaccinated D. vaccinate Question 14: _______ all the exercises, I went out with my best friend. A. To do B. Having done C. Being done D. Had done Question 15: My neighbor is driving me mad! It seems that the later it is at night, __________ he plays his music! A. the more loud B. less C.the more loudly D. the louder Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 16: - Kate: How lovely your cats are! - David: “ ________ ” A. I love them, too B. Thank you, it is nice of you to say so C. Can you say it again D. Really? They are Question 17: -John: “Everyone should learn more about how to treat the environment well." - Jack: “________ ”

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A. That's not true B. I am sure about that. C. I don't think so. D. It's not true Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the world that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 18: A. sacrifice B. understand C. integrate D. recognize Question 19: A. social B. mature C. secure D. polite Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 20: A. coughed B. crooked C. cooked D. laughed Question 21: A. band B. hand C. sand D. bank Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: The guards were ordered to get to the king's room on the double. A. in a larger number B. very quickly C. on the second floor D. every two hours Question 23: We can use either verbal or non-verbal forms of communication. A. using verbs B. using facial expressions C. using speech D. using gesture Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions Question 24: You should put yourself on the back for having achieved such a high score in the graduation exam. A. wear a backpack B. praise yourself C. criticize yourself D. check up your back Question 25: The new policy will help generate more jobs. A. produce B. bring out C. form D. terminate. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 26: She didn’t read the reference books. She wouldn’t be able to finish the test. A. Had she read the reference books, she would have been able to finish the test. B. If she had read the reference books, she could finish the test. C. Although she didn’t read the reference books, she was able to finish the test. D. Not having read the reference books, she couldn’t finish the test. Question 27. She helped us a lot with our project. We couldn’t continue without her. A. Unless we had her contribution, we could continue with the project. B. But for her contribution, we could have continued with the project. C. If she hadn’t contributed positively, we couldn’t have continued with the project. D. Provided her contribution wouldn’t come, we couldn’t continue with the project. Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 28: The wooden fence surrounded the factory is beginning to fall down because of the rain A. wooden B. surrounded C. to fall down D. the rain Question 29: Experts in climatology and other scientists are becoming extreme concerned about the changes to our climate which are taking place. A. in B. extreme C. about D. are Question 30: Her passion for helping people has motivated her to found his own charity organization. A. for B. has C. his D. organization Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions Question 31: I have never read such a good book before. A. This is the first time I read a good book . B. This is the first time I have read a good book. C. This book is the best I have never read.

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D. This book is the best I read . Question 32: “He should to go to bed before 11p: m everyday”, I said to him. A. I advised him to go to bed before 11p: m everyday B. He shouldn’t go to bed before 11p: m everyday C. I prayed him to to go to bed before 11 p: m everyday D. I ordered him you should stay in bed. Question 33: Smoking is not allowed in the museum. A. You mustn’t smoke in the museum. B. You can smoke in the museum C. You don’t have to smoke in the museum D. You may smoke in the museum Read the following passage and choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. Why is it that many teenagers have the energy to play computer games until late at night but can't find the energy to get out of bed in time for school? According to a new report, today's generation of children are in danger of getting so little sleep that they are putting their mental and physical health at (34) ________ . Adults can easily survive on seven to eight hours' sleep a night, (35) ________ teenagers require nine or ten hours. According to medical experts, one in five youngsters gets anything between two and five hours' sleep a night less than their parents did at their age. This raises serious questions about whether lack of sleep is affecting children's ability to concentrate at school. The connection between sleep deprivation and lapses in memory, impaired reaction time and poor concentration is well established. Research has shown that losing as little as half an hour's sleep a night can have profound (36) ________ on how children perform the next day. A good night's sleep is also crucial for teenagers because it is while they are asleep (37) ________ they release a hormone that is essential for their 'growth spurt' (the period during teenage years when the body grows at a rapid rate). It's true that they can, to(38) ________ extent, catch up on sleep at weekends, but that won't help them when they are dropping off to sleep in class on a Friday afternoon. By Tim Falla and Paul A. Davies, Solutions Advanced. OUP Question 34: A. risk B. threat C. danger D. jeopardy Question 35: A. so B. or C. whereas D. because Question 36: A. effective B. effectively C. affect D. effect Question 37: A. that B. which C. when D. where Question 38: A. any B. some C. one D. every Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on you answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Got Climate Anxiety? These People Are Doing Something About It Distress over global warming is increasing, but formal and informal support networks are springing up, too. After Britt Wray married in 2017, she and her husband began discussing whether or not they were going to have children. The conversation quickly turned to climate change and to the planet those children might inherit. She said she became sad and stressed, crying when she read new climate reports or heard activists speak. Jennifer Atkinson, an associate professor of environmental humanities at the University of Washington, Bothell, became depressed after students told her they couldn’t sleep because they feared social collapse or mass extinction. There are different terms for what the two women experienced, including eco-anxiety and climate grief, and Dr. Wray calls it eco-distress. It’s also not unusual. Over the past five years, according to researchers at Yale University and George Mason University, the number of Americans who are "very worried" about climate change has more than doubled, to 26 percent. In 2020, an American Psychiatric Association poll found that more than half of Americans are concerned about climate change’s effect on their mental health. But as the prevalence of climate anxiety has grown, so has the number of people working to alleviate it, both for themselves and those around them. Dr. Wray, for example, who holds a Ph.D. in science communication, began reading everything she could about anxiety and climate change, eventually shifting her own research to focus on it entirely. She shares her findings and coping techniques in a weekly newsletter, Gen

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Dread, with more than 2,000 subscribers. In the spring of 2022, she plans to publish a book on the topic. "My overall goal is to help people feel less alone," Dr. Wray said. "We need to restore ourselves so we don’t burn out and know how to be in this crisis for the long haul that it is." Dr. Atkinson, in hopes of assuaging her feelings and those of her students, designed a seminar on eco-grief and climate anxiety. For many Americans, counseling for climate distress is relatively accessible. In some communities, however, especially in less wealthy countries, it may seem more like a rare privilege. Question 39. What is the objective of the things Dr. Wray has done? A. To make the environment less polluted and to have children from her marriage with her husband. B. To help people feel less lonely and overcome the bad emotions from climate anxiety. C. To describe and demonstrate the different kinds of eco-distress. D. To provide people in some remote areas with the access to the counseling for climate grief. Question 40. What does the word "prevalence" in paragraph 3 mean? A. impact B. appearance C. popularity D. recognition Question 41. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE? A. Jennifer Atkinson couldn't sleep for fear of a mass extinction. B. More and more people are worried about the climate change's effect on their mental health C. The anxiety about climate change is not widespread in less wealthy countries. D. People can easily access the consultancy for climate distress in most parts of the world. Question 42. What is the main idea of the passage? A. Types of eco-distress B. When eco-distress affects human beings C. The risk of an impending mass extinction D. How specialists help address eco-distress Question 43. What does the word "they" in paragraph 1 refer to? A. activists B. children C. humanities D. students Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on you answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. The Urban Gardener Cities are home to skyscrapers and apartment buildings, and it's rare to find wide, open spaces within them. With limited space for parks and gardens, architects and city planners often find it challenging to incorporate greenery into neighbourhoods. One creative solution is to grow plants on unused areas like walls or rooftops. It's a popular idea, and now rooftop gardens and green walls have been spouting up in cities around the world. There are many benefits to having green spaces to the urban landscape. Adding gardens to rooftops or walls can create a pleasant environment - what was once a grey cement wall can become a colourful, blooming garden. The CaxiaForum art gallery in Madrid, Spain, is a famous example - one of its walls is covered with 15,000 plants from over 250 different species. In other cities, green walls are being used more functionally, to cover up construction sites and empty buildings and to prominently decorate the lobbies of office buildings. Using plants to cover walls and rooftops can also keep cities cooler in the summer. Buildings and roads absorb the sun's heat and hold it, causing a building or neighbourhood to stay warmer longer. Plants, on the other hand, provide an enormous amount of shade. There is evidence that growing a roof or wall garden can lower a building's energy costs. Many cities offer tax discounts to businesses with these features. In Ne City, public schools plant rooftop gardens that can reduce heating and cooling costs. In addition to saving the school money, teachers and parents love the gardens because of their educational value - it's a fun and healthy way for their kids to investigate the world around them. “For the children, it's exciting when you grow something edible," said Lauren Fontana, principal of a New York public school. These green spaces are also used to grow food. In recent years, rooftop gardens have slowly been included in the "local food movement". This is based on the concept that locally grown food reduces pollution since it does not have to be transported far. Vegetables are being grown in rooftop gardens by schools, churches, neighbourhoods and even restaurants. Chef Rick Bayless serves “Rooftop S his restaurant in Chicago, USA, using only ingredients grown in his rooftop garden. Rooftop gardens and green walls may require a bit more

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effort to grow and maintain. However, hard work always brings rewards, and with green spaces, the rewards are plentiful. Question 44. What is this passage mainly about? A. gardens in Madrid, New York, and Chicago B. people growing plants on roofs and walls C. private gardens in the city's unused spaces D. how to grow your own food in the city Question 45. According to the passage, people ________ as cities have little space for gardens. A. grow plants in their apartments B. go to the countryside at the weekends C. paint their walls and roofs green D. grow trees and flowers on top of roofs Question 46. Why is the green wall in Madrid mentioned in the passage? A. It is the most expensive green wall in the world. B. It is located on the side of a government building. C. It is a famous example of a green wall. D. It was made to provide jobs for homeless people. Question 47. Which is NOT mentioned as a benefit of a rooftop garden? A. It becomes a park that the community can use. B. Having one might mean paying less taxes. C. Children can use it to learn about the environment. D. Growing plants on a roof keeps buildings cooler. Question 48. Because food can now be grown in cities, ________ . A. the food at expensive restaurants is cheaper B. governments are making many rules about city gardens C. farmers in the countryside are moving to the city D. there's less pollution caused by transporting food Question 49. The word "it" in paragraph 5 refers to ________ . A. a rooftop garden B. the food in general C. locally grown food D. green space Question 50. Why did Chef Bayless name his dish "Rooftop Salsa"? A. He got the idea while cooking on his rooftop. B. He buys the salsa from other rooftop gardeners. C. It is made from food grown in his rooftop garden. D. The money earned from the dish is given to rooftop gardeners. -----------HẾT----------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA 19 (Đề thi có 05 trang)

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Họ, tên thí sinh………………………………………………………………………………………… Số báo danh: ........................................................................................................................................... Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 1. They are going to _______ the pool to 1.8 meter. A. deepen B. depth C. deep D. deeply Question 2. It’s a lovely day__________? A. isn’t it B. was it C. doesn’t it D. did it Question 3: The _____ time was a charm for Korea’s Pyeongchang 2018 Winter Olympic bid committee. A. third B. first C. second D. forth Question 4. Simon Lake drew the inspiration ____ La submarine of undersea travel and exploration from Twenty Thousand Leagues Under the Sea. A. at B. by C. for D. of Question 5. The final winner will be the one who breaks through ______ and survives till the last minutes. A. obstacles B. difficulty C. hindrance D. impediment Question 6: Many students work to earn money ____________ their parents are rich A. because of B. despite C. however D. although Question 7: She is going to marry a _______ man next year and they’ll give birth to two children after getting married. A. tall pretty English B. English tall pretty C. tall English pretty D. pretty tall English Question 8. There are other problems of city life which I don't propose to ____ at the moment. A. go into B. go around C. go for D. go up Question 9: When I last saw him, he________in the living room A. is sitting B. has been sitting C. was sitting D. sitting Question 10. Richard will look for a job __________. A. after he had passed his exams B. before he passed his exams C. while he was passing his exams D. as soon as he passes his exams Question 11: It is always difficult for designer sportswear to _____into the market because there is too much competition from leading brands like Adidas. A. invade B. cut C. break D. interfere Question 12. Though she lost her job last month, she still wanted to save_____ so she said that she had left it willingly. A. mouth B. face C. reputation D. fame Question 13. The story................... by Agatha Christie A. were written B. was written C. was written from D. wrote by Question 14: _________the instruction,she started to do the assignment. A. Read B. Having read C.Being read D.Being done Question 15____ the brushwork is in Stevenson’s landscapes, the more vitality and character the painting seems to possess. A. The loose B. loose C. The loosest D. The looser Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

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Question 16: Joana and David, two lectures, are talking about library skills. - Joana: “ I think we should teach our students how to use the library” - David:”_______’ A. You're absolutely wrong. B. You must be kidding. C. I couldn't agree with you more. D. That's not a good idea. Question 17: A: "Have you ever done any volunteer work?" B: “_______.” A. I'm doing a part-time job to support my student life. B. You see, earning money is difficult these days. C. Sure. When I was a student, I helped in the hospital. D. I have been trying to work with all my heart. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 18.A. approach B. panda C. income D. current Question 19.A. confidence B. celebrate C. effective D. handicapped Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions Question 20. A. absence B. arrive C. absorb D. apologize Question 21. A. dogged B. crooked C. naked D. backed Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22. In the 1960s, the World Health Organization (WHO) began a campaign to get rid of the mosquitoes that transmit the disease malaria. A. minimize B. develop C. eradicate D. appreciate Question 23. A father will be his child's role model. He will be the example for his child of what husbands and fathers are like. A. someone that others admire and follow B. someone that others share interest with C. someone that others love and live with D. someone that others are fond of with Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24. For many couples, money is the source of arguments, frustration. When it comes to finances and relationships, sharing the financial burden is important. A. benefit B. responsibility C. aid D. difficulty Question 25. Aren't you putting the cart before the horse by deciding what to wear for the wedding before you've even been invited to it? A. doing things in the wrong order B. do things in the right order C. knowing the ropes D. upsetting the apple cart Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 26: He helps me every day. I can finish my homework. A. I would not finish my homework if he helped me every day. B. Provided he helped me every day, I would not finish my homework. C. Unless he helps me every day, I will finish my homework. D. But for his daily help, I would not finish my homework. Question 27: He retired. He then thought about having a holiday abroad. A. Having thought about having a holiday abroad, he retired. B. Not until he had retired did he think about having a holiday abroad. C. Had he thought about having a holiday abroad, he wouldn’t retire. D. Only after he thought about having a holiday abroad did he retire. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 28: Books in the home is a wonderful source of knowledge and pleasure. A B C D Question 29: Economical growth is one of the factors that help a country develop. A B C D Page 2|6

Question 30: Mrs. Hoa, along with his friends from Vietnam, is planning to attend the festival. B

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions Question 31: They last went to that cinema 4 months ago. A. They have been to the cinema for 4 months. B. They haven't been to the cinema for 4 months. C. They didn't want to go to the cinema anymore. D. They didn't go to the cinema for 4 months. Question 32: “Don’t forget to submit your assignments by Friday,” said the teacher to the students. A. The teacher reminded the students to submit their assignments by Friday. B. The teacher allowed the students to submit their assignments by Friday. C. The teacher ordered the students to submit their assignments by Friday. D. The teacher encouraged the students to submit their assignments by Friday. Question 33: Cheating is not allowed in the GCSE . A. You may cheat in the GCSE. B. You musn’t cheat in the GCSE C. You don’t have to cheat in the GCSE D. You should cheat in the GCSE

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38. A large majority of Americans believe that social media companies favor some news organizations over others. About eight-in-ten U.S. adults say social media sites treat some news organizations differently than others, about five times the share saying all news organizations are treated the same. Social media companies do have established policies (34) ______ it comes to publishers, including prioritizing certain news sources, banning or limiting others that produce lower-quality content, and using their monetization policies to discourage particular behaviors. Among those U.S. adults (35) ______ say social media companies treat some news organizations differently than others, there is broad agreement that they (36) ______ three types: those that produce attention-grabbing articles, those with a high number of social media followers and those whose coverage has a certain political stance. While large social media companies have announced (37) ______ to favor high-quality news publishers in an effort to improve the news on their sites, (38) ______ who say some news organizations are treated differently believe social media companies favor organizations that are well-established, have high reporting standards or have politically neutral coverage. (Adapted from https://www.journalism.org/) Question 34: A. despite B. when C. during D. since Question 35: A. who B. why C. whom D. when Question 36: A. appear B. obtain C. accept D. favor Question 37: A. intentions B. conclusions C. initiatives D. signatures Question 38: A. fewer B. most C. more D. a lot of Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Page 3|6

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The best explainer videos are realized by great background score. When was the last time you watched a silent movie? Never? Not for a while? A long while? Even if you remember watching one, it would still have had a background score, or you’ve accidentally pressed the mute button! The importance of background music and sound effects for your explainer video, therefore, cannot be overstated. You may not need a full blown orchestra or classy jazz tones to create the mood, but whether going for a subtle effect, a professional demonstration or simply trying to attract customers, music is a must. Explainer videos have the emotional quotient working for them and music is just going to add more to make the viewers relate to the pain points you are highlighting in your video. Imagine if your favorite video game has no background music or sound effects to back the amazing graphics? Would you play it with the same feel and excitement? Nah! Same is the case with your explainer videos. They need to and should have apt sound effects to make them worth your viewer’s time. While the focus of explainer videos production is more on passing the desired information and explaining technical and complex procedures easily, it doesn’t mean you’ll be distracting your viewers with the background music. The sound effects and music is not going to take the message away from your explainer, it’s just going to enhance it and turn it more watchable and share-able. Even if your video doesn’t require a background score, it must include some sound effects or else it would be not so good an experience for those who choose to watch it. (source: https://www.b2w.tv/) Question 39. Which best serves as the title for the passage? A. The importance of background music and sound effects. B. The influence of silence and background music on memory. C. Inside the booming business of background music. D. How to choose the background music for your explainer videos? Question 40. The word “score” in paragraph 1 can be replaced by ______. A. grove B. mark C. instrument D. music Question 41. According to paragraph 2, what is the main purpose for using background music? A. Sound helps build and sustain relationships between films and viewers. B. Background music can control how the audience should react to a scene. C. Background music can influence both everyone’s mood and choices. D. A musical atmosphere can actually motivate people to do risky things. Question 42. The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to _______. A. score B. video C. sound D. background Question 43. According to paragraph 3, what is the fundamental and typical use of explainer videos? A. It is used to distill wide-ranging and complex ideas into a viewer-friendly package. B. Businesses use them to quickly introduce themselves and their importance. C. It is designed as a means to stimulate both auditory and visual senses. D. It helps the customers with their daily life problems with scientific information. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 45: “You’d better apologize for being late,” said my mother. A. My mother suggested apologizing for being late. B. My mother suggested me to apologize for being late. C. My mother advised me to apologize for being late. D. My mother warned me to apologize for being late. Question 46: You are not allowed to throw litter on the streets. A. You may throw litter on the streets. B. You should throw litter on the streets. C. You mustn’t throw litter on the streets. D. You needn’t throw litter on the streets. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. In our connected globalized world, the languages which dominate communications and business, Mandarin, Hindi, English, Spanish and Russian amongst others, are placing small languages spoken in remote places under increasing pressure. Fewer and fewer people speak languages such as Liki, Taushiro and Dumi as their children shift away from the language of their ancestors towards languages which promise education, success and the chance of a better life. While to many parents, this may appear a Page 4|6

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reasonable choice, giving their offspring the opportunity to achieve the sort of prosperity they see on television, the children themselves often lose touch with their roots. However, in many places the more reasonable option of bilingualism, where children learn to speak both a local and a national language, is being promoted. This gives hope that many endangered languages will survive, allowing people to combine their links to local tradition with access to wider world culture. While individuals are free to choose if they wish to speak a minority language, national governments should be under no obligation to provide education in an economically unproductive language, especially in times of budget constraints. It is generally accepted that national languages unite and help to create wealth while minority regional languages divide. Furthermore, governments have a duty to ensure that young people can fulfil their full potential, meaning that state education must provide them with the ability to speak and work in their national language and so equip them to participate responsibly in national affairs. People whose language competence does not extend beyond the use of a regional tongue have limited prospects. This means that while many people may feel a sentimental attachment to their local language, their government’s position should be one of benign neglect, allowing people to speak the language, but not acting to prevent its eventual disappearance. Many PhD students studying minority languages lack the resources to develop their language skills, with the result that they have to rely on interpreters and translators to communicate with speakers of the language they are studying. This has a detrimental effect on the quality of their research. At the same time, they have to struggle against the frequently expressed opinion that minority languages serve no useful purpose and should be allowed to die a natural death. Such a view fails to take into account the fact that a unique body of knowledge and culture, built up over thousands of years, is contained in a language and that language extinction and species extinction are different facets of the same process. They are part of an impending global catastrophe which is beginning to look unavoidable. (Adapted from Complete Advanced by Guy Brook – Hart and Simon Haines) Question 44. Which of the following could best serve as the main topic of the passage? A. The threat to minority languages in different parts of the world. B. The domination of business languages all over the world. C. The shift from regional to national languages in many countries. D. The benefits of national languages in modern world. Question45. According to the first paragraph, why do many parents consider the change towards national languages a reasonable choice? A. Because not many people nowadays are familiar with the language of their ancestors. B. Because children now can learn to speak both a local and a national language. C. Because their children may have a chance to achieve education, success and better living condition. D. Because their children may help to combine their links to local tradition with access to wider world culture. Question 46. What does the word “this” in the first paragraph refer to? A. the more reasonable option B. the place where children can use bilingualism C. the opportunity to achieve prosperity D. the promotion of bilingualism Question 47. The word “constraints” in the second language is closest in meaning to ___________. A. investments B. restrictions C. crises D. depressions Question 48. What is the influence of the shortage of minority language resources on many PhD students mentioned in paragraph 3? A. These students are unable to persuade people to use the language they are learning. B. Their qualified research is unlikely to complete. C. They will have many difficulties in understanding these languages. D. They have to become interpreters and translators of these languages themselves. Question 49. The word “facets” in the last paragraph could be best replaced by _____________. A. aspects B. problems C. procedures D. products Question 50. Which statement is NOT true according to the passage? A. Local languages can’t unite and create as much wealth as national languages. B. State education is obligatory to ensure young people to speak and work in their regional languages. C. Lack of language skills causes a negative effect on the quality of PhD students’ research. D. Each citizen has their right to decide whether they want to speak a minority language or not. Page 5|6

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA 20 (Đề thi có 05 trang)

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Họ, tên thí sinh………………………………………………………………………………………………. Số báo danh: .....................................................................................................................................................

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 1. _______, the Ao dai was frequently worn by both men and women. A. Tradition B. Traditional C. Traditionally D. Traditionalist Question 2. Paul is a good tennis player, _______? A. does he B. doesn’t he C. isn’t he D. is he Question 3. Many people find that physical activity can help to let off _______after a stressful day. A. tension B. steam C. sweat D. cloud Question 4. We should make full use _______the Internet as it is an endless source of information. A. of B. in C. from D. With Question 5. When she asked me his name, my mind went _______. I couldn’t remember it at all. A. empty B. Clear C. blank D. vacant Question 6. _______his father was a King; Cyrus was brought up like the son of a common man. A. Because B. Although C. Because of D. Despite Question 7. He bought a _______suit for his grandpa on his birthday. A. British wonderful woolen B. woolen wonderful British C. British woolen wonderful D. Wonderful British woolen Question 8. After several injuries and failures, things have eventually _______ for Todd when he reached the final round of the tournament. A. looked up B. turned on C. gone on D. taken up Question 9. He _______in Russia when the Revolution started. A. is living B. has lived C. lives D. was living Question 10. _______from university, she will have been far away from home for 4 years. A. By the time my sister graduates B. Until my sister graduated C. When my sister had graduated D. Before my sister will graduate Question 11. He wrote in his letter that he would _______some documents but I couldn’t find anything in the envelope. A. enforce B. endure C. encounter D. enclose Question 12. Bob was going to propose to Alexandra last night, but in the end he _______ and decided to wait a bit longer. A. got cold feet B. was all ears C. broke a leg D. was given the green ligh Question 13. Our boat _______by storm when we were sailing to Corfu. A. damages B. was damaged C. has damaged D. damaged Question 14. _______the forests to make way for farming, local people have to suffer severe floods. A. Cut down B. Having cut down C. To cut down D. Cutting down Question 15. The more I concentrate, _______ my answers are. A. the more accurate B. more accurate C. the accurater D. the most accurate Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 16. Tom is talking to Jane. - Tom: “I’m sorry. I forgot your birthday.” - Jane: “_______.” A. Same to you. B. Good idea. C. Never mind. D. Thanks a lot.

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Question 17. Tim and Peter had a quarrel last week and now Tom is giving Tim advice. - Tom: “I think the best way to solve that problem is to keep silent.” - Tim: “_______. Silence may kill our friendship.” A. That’s not a good idea B. I’m not wrong C. Yes, I think much D. That’s a great idea Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 18. A. solution B. candidate C. memory D. possible Question 19. A. verbal B. provide C. gender D. equal Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 20. A. involved B. walked C. promised D. missed Question 21. A. amount B. count C. mountain D. course Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22. My neighbor is a reckless driver. He has been fined for speeding this month. A. famous B. enormous C. careless D. cautious Question 23. Deforestation may seriously jeopardize the habitat of many species in the local area. A. set fire to B. make way for C. do harm to D. give rise to. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24. Tammy wanted to yell at John for leaving the toilet seat up again, but after their last fight she decided to let sleeping dogs lie. A. leave a person alone B. disturb somebody C. interfere in a situation D. ignore a problem Question 25. Although it's a long day for us, we are all contented with what we do. A. excited B. interested C. pleased D. dissatisfied Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 26. The delivery of gas cylinders will be allowed only if it is contained in an appropriate device. A. Only if gas cylinders are contained in an appropriate device the delivery will be allowed. B. Should gas cylinders be contained in an appropriate device, they will be allowed to deliver in large quantity. C. Only when gas is contained in an appropriate device will the delivery of cylinders be forbidden. D. On no account will the delivery be forbidden if gas cylinders are contained in an appropriate device. Question 27. I lost her phone number. I couldn’t call her. A. If I had her phone number, I could have called her. B. I wish I had her phone number so that I could call her. C. As long as I had had her phone number, I couldn’t call her. D. If only I hadn't lost her phone number and I could have called her. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 28. Yesterday the world witness perhaps the most significant Grand Slam final in history. A. the B. witness C. in D. final Question 29. Before creating the telegraph, Samuel Morse made their living as a painter. A. a B. creating C. their D. as Question 30. The writer has simplified the wording of the text to make it more comprehensive to the average reader. A. wording B. average C. comprehensive D. make Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 31. It isn’t necessary for us to get a visa for Singapore.

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A. We mustn’t get a visa for Singapore. B. We needn’t get a visa for Singapore. C. We shouldn’t get a visa for Singapore. D. We may not get a visa for Singapore. Question 32. “I worked as a waiter before becoming a chef.” he said. A. He said I had worked as a waiter before becoming a chef. B. He said he had worked as a waiter before becoming a chef. C. He said he worked as a waiter before becoming a chef. D. He said I worked as a waiter before becoming a chef Question 33. It is over twenty years since I last got in touch with them. A. I haven't gotten in touch with them for over 20 years. B. I can’t help keeping getting in touch with them for over 20 years. C. I have been getting in touch with them for over 20 years. D. I used to get in touch with them for over 20 years. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. Ways to Cut Down on Holiday Trash The holiday season is a time for celebrating with friends and family. It is often called the “giving season” because during the holidays people give gifts and have celebrations. Unfortunately, this can all lead to a lot of waste. (34) _______, there are ways to reduce the amount of waste you create. Experts recently gave some ideas to the Associated Press. The (35) _______about paper waste have caused many people to look at other choices for wrapping a present. You can use reusable bags for gifts. Vaccariello recommends keeping gift bags and other decorations that you receive. You can reuse them the next time you give a gift. You can buy from companies (36) _______make environmentally-friendly gift wrap. Some companies make recyclable wrapping paper and do not use materials that are not recyclable. You can also wrap gifts in old maps, pages from magazines, and art paper. The person receiving the gift could use the wrapping for something else. Ozawa, editor at Martha Stewart Living, says she likes the Japanese tradition of furoshiki. This is where gifts are wrapped in cloth. The pretty and strong wrapping cloths can be used for (37) _______things, instead of just being thrown away. You could also wrap a gift in a colorful scar for tablecloth. This makes the wrapping cloth part of the gift itself. Instead of decorating a gift with something plastic, you can use something (38) _______such as pine cones, rosemary, or other evergreen. Question 34. A. Moreover B. Therefore C. Although D. However Question 35. A. disregards B. concerns C. interests D. Conditions Question 36. A. whose B. whom C. that D. Who Question 37. A. other B. another C. every D. One Question 38. A. natural B. ordinary C. familiar D. common Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Today, WHO listed the Moderna COVID-19 vaccine (mRNA 1273) for emergency use, making it the fifth vaccine to receive emergency validation from WHO. WHO’s Emergency Use Listing (EUL) assesses the quality, safety and efficacy of COVID-19 vaccines and is a prerequisite for COVAX Facility vaccine supply. It also allows countries to expedite their own regulatory approval to import and administer COVID-19 vaccines. The vaccine has already been reviewed by WHO’s Strategic Advisory Group of Experts on Immunization (SAGE), which makes recommendations for vaccines’ use in populations (i.e. recommended age groups, intervals between shots, advice for specific groups such as pregnant and lactating women). The SAGE recommended the vaccine for all age groups 18 and above in its interim recommendations dated 25 January 2021. The US Food and Drug Administration issued an emergency use authorization for the Moderna vaccine on 18 December 2020 and a marketing authorisation valid throughout the European Union was granted by the European Medicines Agency on 6 January 2021. The WHO’s EUL process can be carried out quickly when vaccine developers submit the full data required by WHO in a timely manner. Once those data are submitted, WHO can rapidly assemble its evaluation team and regulators from around the world to assess the information and, when necessary, carry out inspections of manufacturing sites.

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The Moderna vaccine is an mNRA-based vaccine. It was found by the SAGE to have an efficacy of 94.1%, based on a median follow-up of two months. Although the vaccine is provided as a frozen suspension at -25 ºC to -15 ºC in a multidose vial, vials can be stored refrigerated at 2-8 °C for up to 30 days prior to withdrawal of the first dose, meaning that ultra-cold chain equipment may not always be necessary to deploy the vaccine. Question 39. What could be the best title for the passage? A. The US Food and Drug Administration. B. The Moderna COVID-19 vaccine. C. WHO’s Emergency Use Listing. D. WHO’s Strategic Advisory Group of Experts on Immunization. Question 40. According to paragraph 3, WHO’s SAGE _______. A. has not allowed the use of the Moderna COVID-19 vaccine because of its unsafety B. has never recommended the Moderna COVID-19 vaccine for all age groups 18 and above C. has already reviewed the Moderna COVID-19 vaccine D. has considered the Moderna COVID-19 vaccine the best vaccine of all time. Question 41. The word “efficacy” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________. A. effort B. influence C. effectiveness D. result Question 42. The word “which” in paragraph 3 refers to ________. A. WHO B. the Moderna COVID-19 vaccine C. WHO’s SAGE D. WHO’s EUL Question 43. According to the passage, which of the following information is NOT mentioned? A. The Moderna vaccine is an mNRA-based vaccine. B. The Moderna COVID-19 vaccine is better than the AstraZeneca COVID-19 one. C. The Moderna COVID-19 vaccine is the fifth one to receive emergency validation from WHO. D. An emergency use authorization was issued for the Moderna vaccine by the US Food and Drug Administration Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Human blood comes in four different types, namely A, B, AB and O. In most of the world, most people are ignorant of which blood type they possess, since it is important only if they have to undergo an operation which requires a blood transfusion. In Japan, however, things are different, since a large proportion of the population believes that blood type determines personality and, as a result, over 90% of the population are aware which type they are. This linking of blood type and personality has ramifications across life, but is especially prominent in prospective relationships and employment. For example, in Japan one popular way to meet romantic partners is to go to specialised venues which conduct speed dating. A single man and woman sit alone together at a table for just a few minutes. Then a bell rings, and they go to sit with someone new. Some such venues hold dating sessions which are limited to men or women of a particular blood type. For those who believe in the blood-type theory, this seems to maximise their chance of finding someone special. The current popularity of the idea exploded in the 1970s following the publication of a book by Masahiko Nomi, even though he was a lawyer and broadcaster who had no medical or psychological training. His ideas were largely anecdotal, and many critics thought it mere superstition, but the book nevertheless sparked great interest in the general public. Now his son, Toshitaka, continues to promote the theory, and nowadays it is ubiquitous in Japanese popular culture, featuring on morning TV, women’s magazines and best-selling self-help books. Much like horoscopes in the West, the blood group theory is regularly debunked by scientific experimentation, yet it retains popular appeal. Perhaps one reason for this is that it helps to break the ice in social situations. Japanese people do not always find it easy to express their opinions, so discussing blood types is an indirect way of telling people what you think of them. Question 44. What could be the best title for the passage? A. The blood-type theory B. Blood and its functions C. Different theories about blood type D. Masahiko Nomi, a famous author Question 45. How is the blood-type theory used in speed dating?

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A. People go to tables according to their blood types. B. Dating couples talk about the theory and what it means. C. Some people want to meet only people of a particular blood type. D. People try to guess the blood type of their date. Question 46. What is TRUE about the popularity of the blood-type theory? A. It became popular due to the writings of a father-and-son team. B. It is popular because of a traditional idea in Japanese culture. C. It is not as popular as it was in the 1970s. D. It became popular following experiments conducted by Masahiko Nomi. Question 47. It can be inferred from the passage that in Japan A. people associate blood types solely with personality traits. B. a complicated scientific theory relating blood types to personality has been developed. C. many more people than elsewhere know which type of blood they have. D. blood transfusions are made only for certain types of blood. Question 48. What does the word “they” in the second paragraph refer to? A. prospective relationships B. a single man and woman C. specialised venues D. a few minutes Question 49. The word “sparked” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______. A. spoilt B. improved C. generated D. terminated Question 50. The word “debunked” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______. A. recognised B. increased C. decreased D. undervalued

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA 21 (Đề thi có 05 trang)

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 1: Robert Mugabe has ruled Zimbabwe since the _______ achieved independence in 1980. A. national B. nation C. nationality D. nationally Question 2: It is time to begin, _______? A. isn’t it B. are they C. do I D. is it Question 3: At first, I give a(n) _______ impression that you are too anxious for a settlement. A. wrong B. false C. improper D. incorrect Question 4: Grinder, a 35-year military veteran, was named to the post _______ Thursday, Jan. 13 A. on B. in C. of D. with Question 5: Poteet will receive a $100 cash _______ and $200 for his school to purchase books. A. bonus B. award C. gift D. prize Question 6: Kids without guidance got into trouble _______ there was nothing else to do. A. because B. though C. because of D. despite Question 7: Tonight, Hana wore a _______ dress at the party. A. gorgeous red Chinese B. gorgeous Chinese red C. red Chinese gorgeous D. Chinese red gorgeous Question 8: Don't _______ when he is telling the story. A. stop in B. stop off C. break in D. break into Question 9: My father _______ TV when my friend suddenly came to my house. A. has watched B. watches C. watched D. was watching Question 10: _______, I will give him your regards. A. When I see him B. When I saw him C. When I was seeing him D. When I had seen him Question 11: Could you _______ me a favour and pick up Sam from school today? A. make B. do C. put D. go Question 12: The doctor said that she might never be able to _______ children. A. care B. tolerate C. bear D. feed Question 13: This house _______ in the 18th century. A. is building B. were build C. was built D. is built Question 14: _______ her homework, she watched her favourite movie. A. Having finished B. finish C. being finished D. she finishes Question 15: The sooner JK take your medicine, _______ he will feel. A. better B. the better C. the good D. well Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 16: Ann and Peter are doing homework together. - Ann: “Could you lend me that book” - Peter: “_______” A. No, I’m busy. B. That’s what I think. C. Why did you say that? D. Of course, here it is. Question 17: Linda is thanking Daniel for his birthday present. Page 1|5

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- Linda: “Thanks for the book. I’ve been looking for it for months.” - Daniel: “_______” A. You can say that again. B. Thank you for looking at it. C. I like reading books. D. I’m glad you like it. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 18: A. permission B. suggestion C. refusal D. possible Question 19: A. forest B. succeed C. homeless D. nation Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 20: A. stopped B. wanted C. decided D. visited Question 21: A. head B. please C. heavy D. measure Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions Question 22: They tell us she isn't allowed to leave unless she gets the doctor's permission. A. disapproval B. objection C. agreement D. refusal Question 23: Before the 1950s, urbanization mainly occurred in more economically developed countries (MEDCs). A. happened B. take place C. concentrated D. expanded Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24: I would love to go back to college, but unfortunately, that ship has sailed. A. it was late B. it was timely C. it was inconvenient D. it was traditional Question 25: A comfortable working environment will increase productivity. A. promote B. raise C. decrease D. go up Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 26: It was not until they had reached Dak Lak that they realized how far they had gone. A. Not until they had reached Dak Lak did they realize how far they had gone. B. Not until had they reached Dak Lak, they realized how far they had gone. C. Not until they reached Dak Lak had they realized how far they had gone. D. Not until they realized how far they had gone had they reached Dak Lak. Question 27: They have a lot of homework today. A. They wish they had not a lot of homework today. B. They wish they didn’t have a lot of homework today. C. They wish they had had little homework today. D. They wish they wouldn’t have a lot of homework today. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 28: Let's start by reviewing what we do with those friends last week. A. start B. reviewing C. do D. friends Question 29: Lily and her mother went to hospital last week to check our health. A. her B. went C. last D. our health Question 30: I must complement you on your handling of a very difficult situation. A. must B. complement C. handling D. very Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 31: She advised him to go to the dentist immediately. A. He would go to the dentist immediately. B. She should go to the dentist immediately. Page 2|5

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C. He should go to the dentist immediately. D. He must go to the dentist immediately. Question 32: She said, “Don’t laugh, Jessica. Be serious.” A. She said not to laugh and be serious. B. She said Jessica not to laugh and be serious. C. She told Jessica not to laugh and asked him to be serious. D. She told Jessica do not laugh and be serious. Question 33: The last time I played the piano was 10 years ago. A. I have not played the piano for 10 years ago. B. I have not played the piano for 10 years. C. I have not played the piano since 10 years. D. I did not play the piano since 10 years. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38. Plants and animals will find it difficult to escape from or adjust to the effect of global warming. Scientists have already observed shifts in the life cycles of (34) _______ plants and animals, such as flowers (35) _______ earlier and birds hatching earlier in the spring. Many species have begun shifting (36) _______ they live or their annual migration patterns due to warmer temperatures. With further warming, animals will tend to migrate toward the poles and up mountain sides toward higher elevations. Plants will also attempt to shift their ranges, seeking new areas as old habitats grow too warm. In many places, however, human development will prevent these shifts. Species that find cities or farmland blocking their way north or south may become extinct. Species living in unique ecosystems, such as those found in polar and mountaintop regions, are especially at risk (37) _______ migration to new habitats is not possible. For example, polar bears and marine mammals in the Arctic are already threatened by (38) _______ sea ice but have nowhere farther to go. Question 34: A. many B. each C. much D. little Question 35: A. increasing B. blooming C. growing D. swelling Question 36: A. that B. what C. which D. where Question 37: A. because B. but C. and D. although Question 38: A. decreasing B. falling C. deepening D. dwindling Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43. During the five days of Diwali, every home and temple was decorated, inside and outside, with lovely clay lamps and colourful candles. After dark, the whole neighbourhood glittered with thousands of tiny lights, as though in a fairy tale. Excited children set off firecrackers, and at first, I was frightened by the loud bangs, but the spectacular display was so fascinating that I soon joined in the spirit of the celebration. Last autumn I was in India during Diwali, the "Festival of Lights" which takes place every year to celebrate the victory of good over evil. This festival lasts for five days and is held at the end of October or in the first week of November. Diwali is a deeply moving festival. I am very grateful I had the chance to share in this celebration of peace and harmony. I have fond memories of the experience, and in particular I will never forget how friendly and generous the people were. Preparations began weeks before the event. People cleaned their homes and painted wonderful designs called rangolis on the walls and floors. They bought beautiful new clothes and jewelry to wear during the festival, and women made delicious sweets which were better than any others I have ever tasted. (Adapted from “Reading and Writing Target” by Virginia Evans) Question 39: What is the passage mainly about? A. A New Year’s Eve to remember. B. Preparations before the event. C. Activities during the ceremony. D. A great party. Question 40: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 4 as preparations before the event? A. People decorated their houses. B. People bought new clothes and jewelry. C. Women made tasty candies. D. Women went to pagodas to pray for health. Question 41: According to paragraph 2, which of the following can be true about the "Festival of Lights”? Page 3|5

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A. It takes place annually. B. Its aim is to celebrate the victory of evil over good. C. It lasts for 2 weeks. D. It takes place in the second week of November. Question 42: The word glittered in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _________. A. sparkled B. lighted C. pressed D. rubbed Question 43: The word others in paragraph 4 refers to _________. A. people B. women C. sweets D. clothes Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50. In 1845, a deadly disease struck the farms of Ireland, killing all the Lumper potato plants. In another place or time, the death of a single crop species might not have been so important. But in Ireland, in 1845, people depended almost solely on the potato for food. The death of one species caused a terrible famine. Now, some scientists are worried that such a famine could happen again—but on a much wider scale. Over the centuries, farmers have discovered thousands of different species of food crops. Each species has special qualities. Some can be grown in very hot or cold climates. Others are not affected by certain diseases. However, you won’t find many of these species in your local supermarket. To feed the seven billion people on Earth, most farmers today are growing only species of plants and farming only species of animals that are easy to produce in large numbers. Meanwhile, thousands of other species are becoming extinct. For example, in the Philippines, there were once thousands of varieties of rice; now fewer than 100 are grown there. In China, 90 percent of the wheat varieties grown just a century ago have disappeared. Experts believe that over the past century, we have allowed more than half of the world’s food varieties to disappear. One solution to this problem is to collect and preserve the seeds of as many different plant varieties as we can before they disappear. The idea was first suggested by Russian scientist Nikolay Vavilov. In the 1920s and 1930s, he collected around 400,000 seeds from five continents. More recently, others have continued the work he began. There are now around 1,700 seed banks in countries around the world. The Svalbard Global Seed Vault- which preserves almost one million seed samples – has one of the largest collections. In the U.S. state of Iowa, Diane Ott Whealy and her husband founded Heritage Farm – a place where people can store and trade seeds. Initially, Ott Whealy wanted to preserve historic plant varieties, like the seeds her great‐grandfather brought to the U.S. from Germany more than a hundred years ago. But the people at Heritage Farm don’t just store the seeds; they plant them. By doing this, they are reintroducing foods into the marketplace that haven’t been grown for years. These food species are not just special in terms of appearance or flavor. They also offer farmers food solutions for the future, from the past. Question 44: Which of the following is the best title for the passage? A. The disappearance of food species. B. Food for the Future. C. Ways to increase the number of food species. D. How to increase the food production. Question 45: According to paragraph 1, why does the writer mention Ireland? A. To give an example of why it is dangerous to depend on a single crop species. B. To explain how worldwide interest in crop varieties first developed. C. To describe how Irish researchers are searching for a new crop variety. D. To illustrate how important it is to preserve potato plants. Question 46: The word struck in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _________. A. approached B. touched C. damaged D. reached Question 47: The word them in the final paragraph refers to _________. A. people B. seeds C. foods D. years Question 48: The word flavor in the final paragraph is closest in meaning to _________. A. smell B. taste C. sense D. feeling Question 49. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage? A. Nikolay Vavilov make suggestions of collecting plant seeds. B. In Ireland, in 1845, there was a serious shortage of food. Page 4|5

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C. Nikolay Vavilov has worked in many seed banks around the world. D. Nikolay Vavilov was one of the pioneers to research a new crop. Question 50. Which of the following can be inferred from Daine Ott Whealy’s opinion? A. Historic seeds are usually difficult to reintroduce to the marketplace. B. It’s important to not only store seeds but also plant them. C. Food grown from historic and new seeds generally have a similar taste. D. Storing the seeds is likely to be time-consuming. ----------HẾT----------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA 22 (Đề thi có 05 trang)

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Họ, tên thí sinh……………………………………………………………………………… Số báo danh: ................................................................................................................................................ Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 1. In some ways, financial planning for singles is more ________ than for couples. A. importable B. importance C. important D. importantly Question 2. It is your homework, _______? A. isn’t it B. didn’t you C. don’t you D. do you Question 3. Cuba can't _________ business in America because of a nearly 50-year-old trade embargo. A. set B. do C. stay D. have Question 4. Thai Ngo Hieu’ s brave action has contributed_________beautifying the image of police officers in the people’s hearts. A. with B. to C. at D. for Question 5. I cannot think who had_______ the gaff, but it seems everyone knows that Nicole and I are planning to get married. A. burst B. blown C. split D. banged Question 6. At 84 he's still quite active ______ he walks with the aid of a stick. A. because B. because of C. despite D. although Question 7. When I was young, I used to live in a____________house in the central of Vietnam. A. small wooden simple B. wooden simple small C. simple wooden small D. simple small wooden Question 8. Food is likely to __________ if its wrapping is damaged, since even the tiniest of holes can allow bacteria in. A. keep on B. put off C. leave out D. go off Question 9. I ________a presentation in front of 500 people when the microphone stopped working. A. made B. was making C. had made D. make Question 10. We will go on holiday in Nha Trang ___________. A. as soon as our son finishes the final examination B. before our son finished the final examination C. when our son will finish the final examination D. after our son had finished the final examination Question 11. The closure of the school is a slap in the________to the local community. A. head B. feet C. mouth D. face Question 12. Researchers fear the virus could ________ and become transmissible between humans. A. vanish B. fade C. mutate D. rotate Question 13. Miss Vietnam Do Thi Ha __________ in the list of 13 finalists in the Top Model competition at the Miss World 2021 beauty pageant on December 7. A. was named B. named C. was naming D. names Question 14________ every major tennis title, Alan retired from international competition. A. Having won B. Winning C. When he won D. On winning Question 15. The harder he studies, ______ results he gets. A. the best results he gets B. his results get better C. the better do his results get D. the better Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 16. The hotel receptionist is asking the customer his name. Receptionist: “Could you please say your name again please?” Customer: “__________”

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A. How can you say so? B. Why do I have to? C. No, I don’t remember. D. Sure, that’s Robert. Question 17. Jolie is reading a magazine on famous people, asking her friend. Jolie: “Do you think celebrities today tend to focus more on wealth rather than achievements?” Jolie's friend: “__________________. And this sets bad examples for young people.” A. Not at all B. You can say that again C. I think they focus more on achievements D. It's out of the question Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 18. A. publicity B. chemistry C. attention D. romantic Question 19. A. attract B. discuss C. follow D. confide

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 20. A. accessed B. searched C. recorded D. developed Question 21. A. mouth B. founder C. around D. country

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Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22. Some students only cram for tests when there is little time left, so their results are not satisfactory. A. prepare in a short period B. prepare in a long time C. prepare well D. prepare badly Question 23. Please, you are so nervous, do try to contain your anger. A. hold back B. consult C. consume D. contact

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Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24 The principle of use and disuse states that those parts of organisms' bodies that are used grown larger while those parts that are not tend to wither away. A. split B. swell C. perish D. shrink Question 25. He is from such an unemotional family, he will never learn to unleash his feelings. A. describe B. conceal C. release D. extend

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 26. My eldest sister graduated from university. She soon started working as a freelance journalist. A. Hardly had my eldest started working as a freelance journalist when she graduated from university. B. No sooner had my eldest sister graduated from university than she started working as a freelance journalist. C. No sooner had my eldest sister started working as a freelance journalist than she graduated from university. D. After my eldest sister graduated from university, she had started working as a freelance journalist. Question 27. You didn’t give me a chance to tell you the truth. I regret that. A. If you gave me a chance, I could tell you the truth. B. I wish you had given me a chance to tell you the truth. C. I wish you didn’t give me a chance to tell you the truth. D. If only you hadn’t given me a chance to tell you the truth. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 28. We have a very happy party at Tom’s house last weekend. A. have B. very C. party D. Tom’s Question 29. Everyone has its own ideas about the best way to bring up children.

A. its B. about C. way D. children Question 30. Young people of an impressive age can easily be manipulated. A. Yong B. impressive C. easily D. manipulated

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 31. I am sure he said something terrible to her because of her red eyes. A. He must have said something terrible to her because I could see it from her red eyes B. He could have said something terrible to her because I could see it from her red eyes C. He should have said something terrible to her because I could see it from her red eyes D. He may have said something terrible to her because I could see it from her red eyes Question 32. “What have you done to your hair?” she said to her son. A. She asked her son what to do to his hair. B. She wanted her son to know what he had done to his hair. C. She wanted to know what did her son do to his hair. D. She asked her son what he had done to his hair. Question 33. It’s almost nine months since I last subscribed to that magazine. A. I haven’t subscribed to that magazine for almost nine months. B. I have subscribed to that magazine almost nine months ago. C. I subscribed to that magazine almost for nine months . D. I have subscribed to that magazine for almost nine months, but now I stopped.

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each the numbered blanks. ELEARNING BECOMES AN IMPORTANT SECTOR With the internet now being able to make the impossible possible, learning has shifted to an online medium. Countries all over the world are now beginning to enter the sector of eLearning, (34) ______ people to have a broader access to learning opportunities that weren't otherwise possible in the past. The reason why this industry has become so popular over the last few years is the convenience it offers to those (35) ______ are interested in it. Traditionally, if a person wanted to learn something or that can teach you to get a degree, they would have to go to a university, a college, or any (36) ______ giving you a certification at the end. With online learning, on the other hand, people don't have to wake up every morning just to attend a few lectures. People are now able to learn from the comfort of their own homes, and according to their preferred timings. Not to mention all the retention benefits that eLearning designs offer. No longer are people bound by time and location to learn, but the process has also become a lot easier than what it used to be before eLearning became a thing. (37)_________there are several benefits to developing eLearning sectors in countries, there are still a few nations that are moving relatively backward in this industry. There are, of course, countries that have already gone far ahead of (38)_________, setting up more and more eLearning platforms. These are the countries in which eLearning has already become an important sector. Question 34: A. making B. providing C. allowing D. holding Question 35: A. who B. whom C. when D. why Question 36: A. constitution B. institution C. restitution D. destitution Question 37: A. Because B. However C. Therefore D. Even though Question 38: A. each B. others C. every D. another Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question. The legal limit for driving after drinking alcohol is 80 milligrams of alcohol in 100 milliliters of blood, when tested. But there is no sure way of telling how much you can drink before you reach this limit. It varies with each person depending on your weight, your sex, if you’ve just eaten and what sort of drinks you’ve had. Some people might reach their limit after only about three standard drinks. In fact, your driving ability can be affected by just one or two drinks. Even if you’re below the legal limit, you

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could still be taken to court if a police officer thinks your driving has been affected by alcohol. It takes about an hour for the body to get rid of the alcohol in one standard drink. So, if you have a heavy drinking session in the evening you might find that your driving ability is still affected the next morning, or you could even find that you’re still over the legal limit. In addition, if you’ve had a few drinks at lunchtime, another one or two drinks in the early evening may well put you over the legal limit. In a test with professional drivers, the more alcoholic drinks they had had, the more certain they were that they could drive a test course through a set of moveable posts … and the less able they were to do it! So the only way to be sure you’re safe is not to drink at all. Alcohol is a major cause of road traffic accidents. One in three of the drivers killed in road accidents have levels of alcohol which are over the legal limit, and road accidents after drinking are the biggest cause of death among young men. More half of the people stopped by the police to take a breathalyzer test have a blood alcohol concentrate of more than twice the legal limit. It is important to remember that driving after you’ve been drinking doesn’t just affect you. If you’re involved in an accident it affects a lot of other people as well, not least the person you might kill or injure. Question 39. What could be the best title for the passage? A. legal limit for driving B. driving ability C. drinking and driving D. standard of drinks The word “breathalyzer” in paragraph 5 means ______ . Question 40. A. a device used by the police to measure the amount of alcohol in a driver’s breath. B. a device used to analyse driver’s blood type. C. a person who measures the amount of alcohol in a driver’s breath. D. a person who has to take a breath test Question 41. The word “they” in paragraph 4 refers to ______ . A. professional drivers B. moveable posts C. alcoholic drinks D. tests Question 42. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE about the amount of alcohol a person can drink before reaching the legal limit ? A. 800 milligrams of pure alcohol B. approximately three standard drinks C. exactly proportional to body weight D. different for different people When might you be taken to court by the police for drinking and driving? Question 43. A. When the police think that you have been drinking from the way you are driving. B. When you have driven a vehicle after drinking any alcohol at all. C. Only when tests show that you have 80mg of alcohol in 100 ml of blood. D. When you have drunk at least three drinks before driving.

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question. As health care costs continually rise in most developed countries, many people are looking for alternative forms of health therapy. Two of the most popular forms of alternative therapies in the West today are acupuncture and herbal medicine, both of which have been used for centuries in Asia and are rooted in ancient Chinese medicine. In essence, they attempt to treat the source of the health problem rather than simply get rid of symptoms, which is something that many argue is the flawed crux of western medicinal techniques. Acupuncture is based on ancient Chinese medicine and the importance of ki, a kind of life force that pulsates through every human's body. Ki runs through various pathways in the body and is fundamental in giving human strength and energy as well as bolstering the immune system. But, at times, these pathways might suffer blockage or be disrupted, so ki is unable to flow smoothly through the body. When this occurs, the body becomes vulnerable to illness and pain. This is where acupuncture comes in. Acupuncturists are well versed in the mapping of the ki pathways throughout the body and are able to locate and stimulate certain areas on the surface of the body in order to relieve pressure and allow ki once more to flow freely, eliminating pains and illnesses in the process. One of the most common and successful methods of acupuncture is described as ear acupuncture. This technique is involved solely with the ear and its numerous activation points. The ear is considered a highly sensitive area of the human body because it contains a strong, healthy flow of blood as well as numerous nerve points that connect it with the rest of the human body. Acupuncturists place tiny needles in the surface of the skin at certain points, depending on the desired result. In general, ear acupuncture is considered an excellent

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therapy, especially for treating individuals with psychological or physical dependency issues such as eating disorders and drug or alcohol abuse. A second form of alternative therapy based on Chinese traditional medicine is herbal therapy, in which special herbs are prescribed by the doctor to be taken in a hot liquid form, usually tea. Traditionally, herbal teas are imbibed to boost the immune system and prevent illnesses from being able to enter the body. Herbs also have a more direct influence than acupuncture on the body's physical system, as they can aid in normalizing blood pressure. One excellent example of an herbal remedy is mushroom tea, which is an excellent antioxidant. Other benefits attributed to the use of traditional Chinese herbs are that they build stamina and are good for digestive purposes. Sometimes, herbal medicines are used in conjunction with acupuncture to magnify its effects. (Adapted from How to master skills for the Toefl Actual Test) Question 44. Alternative forms of health care are becoming more popular because _______. A. they have been used for a very long time B. they are able to cure patients much more quickly C. other ways aren't able to get rid of the symptoms as well as them D. medical costs are on the upswing in many developed countries Question 45. The word "crux" in paragraph 1 mostly means _______. A. basis B. relief C. symptom D. application Question 46. The word "solely" in paragraph 3 is CLOSEST in meaning to _______. A. safely B. barely C. intentionally D. exclusively Question 47. It can be inferred from paragraph 3 that the ear _______. A. has a healthy blood supply, which relieves the pain from needles B. contains a small number of the body's special activation points C. is a beneficial acupuncture area because it contains a myriad of nerves D. is the source of dependency issues such as alcoholism and drug use Question 48. The word "it" in paragraph 3 refers to _______. A. the ear B. the activation point C. the nerve point D. the flow of blood Question 49. The author's description of herbal therapy mentions all of the following EXCEPT _______. A. the reaction time is faster for acupuncture than for herbal therapy B. herbs are an excellent way of increasing a person's endurance C. it is used as a preventative form of therapy for healthy people D. it is beneficial to the circulatory system and blood pressure problems Question 50. What is the passage mainly about? A. Acupuncture – the best therapy. B. Using plants for healing the injuries. C. Two forms of alternative therapies in the West. D. Western medical techniques.

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA 24 (Đề thi có 05 trang)

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 1: I suppose he is quite _________ - he sends me flowers on my birthday and tells me I’m looking beautiful and so on. A. romance B. romantic C. romanticize D. romantically Question 2: Lady Gaga is an American singer, songwriter and actress, ______? A. doesn’t B. is she C. isn’t Lady Gaga D. isn’t she Question 3: There has been a hot debate among the scientists relating to the _______of using robotic probes to study distant objects in space. A. problems and solutions B. pros and cons C. solutions and limitations D. causes and effects Question 4: My borther will move to Hai Phong _________ June next month. A. at B. in C. from D. during Question 5: The jury______her compliments on her excellent knowledge of the subject. A. paid B. gave C. made D. said Question 6: My uncle lives a unhappy life _________ his disability to do some simple activites. A. because of B. because C. though D. in spite of Question 7: It's silly of him to spend a lot of money buying table. A. a thick wooden old B. a thick old wooden C. an old wooden thick D. a wooden thick old Question 8: Tom's brother asked him to ________ the music so that he could sleep. A. turn up B. turn on C. turn down D. turn out Question 9: When he came, His girl friend _______ in the living room. A. studied B. is studying C. has studied D. was studying Question 10: ……………., I will give him the report. A. After he will return B. When he returns C. Until he will return D. No sooner he returns Question 11: The sight of his pale face brought ________ to me how ill he really was. A. place B. house C. life D. home Question 12: James had a cosy birthday party at home last Friday in the _______ of his close friends. A. company B. business C. atmosphere D. residence Question 13: The flood victims ________ with food and clean water by the volunteers. A. provided B. were provided C. were providing D. provide Question 14: _________ the report to the manager, she decided to take a rest. A. Having handed in B. Handed in C. To hand in D. Being handed in Question 15: The richer you are, ______________. A. you may become more worried B. you more worried may become C. the more worried you may become D. the more worry you may become pg. 1

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 16: Janet wants to invite Susan to go to the cinema. - Janet: “Do you feel like going to the cinema this evening?” - Susan: “______.” A. I don’t agree, I’m afraid B. You’re welcome C. That would be great D. I feel very bored Question 17: Jack and David are talking about taking a gap year. - Jack: "I think taking a gap year is a waste of time." - David: "__________. It gives gap-year takers a lot of valuable experiences." A. I agree with you B. I don't quite agree C. It's right D. My pleasure Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 18: A. delicate B. promotion C. volcanic D. resources Question 19: A. explain B. happen C. decide D. combine Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 20: A. missed B. worked C. realized D. watched Question 21: A. final B. writer C. ivory D. widow Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: The new air conditioner was installed yesterday. A. inspected thoroughly B. put in position C. well repaired D. delivered to the customer Question 23: Josh's ambition is to become a successful businessman like his father. A. dream B. doubt C. pleasure D. patience Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24: I think we cannot purchase this device this time as it costs an arm and a leg. A. is cheap B. is painful C. is confusing D. is expensive Question 25: Many women prefer to use cosmetics to enhance their beauty and make them look younger. A. improve B. maximize C. worsen D. enrich Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions Question 26: The soccer team knew they lost the match. They soon started to blame each other. A. Not only did the soccer team lose the match but they blamed each other as well. B. No sooner had the soccer team started to blame each other than they knew they lost the match. C. As soon as they blamed each other, the soccer team knew they lost the match. D. Hardly had the soccer team known they lost the match when they started to blame each other. Question 27: You didn’t give me a chance to tell you the truth. I regret that A. I wish you didn’t give me a chance to tell you the truth. B. I wish you gave me a chance to tell you the truth. C. I wish you had given me a chance to tell you the truth. D. I wish you hadn’t given me a chance to tell you the truth. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 28: Yesterday morning, Joe arrives late for school for the first time. А В C D Question 29: A turtle differs from other reptiles in that its body is encased in a protective shell of their own. A B C D Question 30: It is essential to provide high school students with adequate career orientation, so they can make pg. 2

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A B more informative decisions about their future major. C D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 31: It is compulsory for all the students to hand in their assignments on time. A. All the students must hand in their assignments on time. B. All the students can't hand in their assignments on time. C. All the students may hand in their assignments on time. D. All the students needn't hand in their assignments on time. Question 32: His friend said to Peter: “I’m sad. Let me alone.” A. His friend said that I am sad and let me alone. B. His friend said that I was sad and let me alone. C. His friend said that he was sad and told Peter to let him alone. D. His friend said that he was sad and if Peter let him alone. Question 33: They last met her ten years ago. A. They haven't met her for ten years. A. They have met her for ten years. A. They didn’t meet her for ten years. D. They was with her home country for ten years. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks HIGH DAYS AND HOLIDAYS In the UK holidays began as religious festival days or ‘holy days’. The idea of a holiday as a ‘no-work’ day seems to have first (34) ____ around five hundred years ago. In 1871 the Bank Holidays Act established certain days when, by law, banks closed. Bank Holidays soon became public holidays, but by (35) ______, not law. In fact, working people rarely took holidays. For (36)_____ people, paid holidays remained a luxury until the second half of the twentieth century. Instead, people enjoyed outings for the day to nearby places. The growth of the railways made it possible for working people and their families to go further a field on their day trips (37)____ wealthy people had, for many years, taken holidays. As soon as outings became possible for more people, crowds of them travelled to the seaside. Seaside towns started to boom. Piers were built out over the sea, funfairs opened and boat trips were offered by local fishermen. Many of the towns (38)_____ benefited from all these day trippers were near to large cities or were at the end of railway lines. (Adapted from “Richmond FCE practice test- by Diana L. Fried Booth) Question 34: A. appeared B. grown C. came D. arrived Question 35: A. habit B. tradition C. practice D. desire Question 36: A. much B. every C. many D. other Question 37: A. because B. so C. although D. despite Question 38: A. whom B. where C. who D. that Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43. Edward Patrick Eagan was born on April 26th 1897 in Denver, Colorado, and his father died in a railroad accident when Eagan was only one year old. He and his four brothers were raised by his mother, who earned a small income from teaching foreign languages. Inspired by Frank Marriwell, the hero of a series of popular novels for boys, Eagan pursued an education for himself and an interest in boxing. He attended the University of Denver for a year before serving in the U.S. army as an artillery lieutenant during World War I. After the war, he entered Yale University and while studying there, won the US national amateur heavyweight boxing title. He graduated from Yale in 1921, attended Harvard Law School, and received a Rhodes scholarship to the University of Oxford where he received his A.M. in 1928. pg. 3

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While studying at Oxford, Eagan became the first American to win the British amateur boxing championship. Eagan won his first gold medal as a light heavyweight boxer at the 1920 Olympic Games in Antwerp, Belgium. Eagan also fought at the 1924 Olympics in Paris as a heavyweight but failed to get a medal. Though he had taken up the sport just three weeks before the competition, he managed to win a second gold medal as a member of four-man bobsled team at the 1932 Olympics in Lake Placid, New York. Thus, he became the only athlete to win gold medals at both the Summer and Winter Olympics. (Adapted from "Peteson's Master TOEFL Reading Skills) Question 39:What is the main idea of the passage? A. Eagan's life shows that a man can be an athlete and a well-educated person. B. Eagan's life shows that military experiences make athletes great. C. Eagan's life shows how a wealthy student can achieve as much as a poor one. D. Eagan's life shows how easy it is to win two gold medals in different Olympic sports. Question 40: According to the passage, who was Frank Merriwell? A. A teacher at Yale B. A student at Oxford C. A fictional character D. A bobsledder at the Olympics Question 41: The word "Inspired" in paragraph 2 in CLOSEST in meaning to ______. A. stopped B. challenged C. calmed D. stimulated Question 42: According to the passage, Eagan won all of the following EXCEPT ______. A. British amateur boxing championship B. U.S. national amateur heavyweight boxing title C. Heavyweight boxing, Olympic gold medal D. Light heavyweight boxing, Olympic gold medal Question 43: The word "the competition" in paragraph 3 refers to ______. A. sport B. 1932 Olympics C. gold medals D. Summer Olympics Read the following passage and blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from (44-50) Scientists do not yet thoroughly understand just how the body of an individual becomes sensitive to a substance that is harmless or even wholesome for the average person. Milk, wheat, and egg, for example, rank among the most healthful and widely used foods. Yet these foods can cause persons sensitive to them to suffer greatly. At first, the body of the individual is not harmed by coming into contact with the substance. After a varying interval of time, usually longer than a few weeks, the body becomes sensitive to it, and an allergy has begun to develop. Sometimes it's hard to figure out if you have a food allergy, since it can show up so many different ways. Your symptoms could be caused by many other problems. You may have rashes, hives, joint pains mimicking arthritis, headaches, irritability, or depression. The most common food allergies are to milk, eggs, seafood, wheat, nuts, seeds, chocolate, oranges, and tomatoes. Many of these allergies will not develop if these foods are not fed to an infant until her or his intestines mature at around seven months. Breast milk also tends to be protective. Migraines can be set off by foods containing tyramine, phenathylamine, monosodium glutamate, or sodium nitrate. Common foods which contain these are chocolate, aged cheeses, sour cream, red wine, pickled herring, chicken livers, avocados, ripe bananas, cured meats, many Oriental and prepared foods (read the labels!). Some people have been successful in treating their migraines with supplements of B-vitamins, particularly B6 and niacin. Children who are hyperactive may benefit from eliminating food additives, especially colorings, and foods high in salicylates from their diets. A few of these are almonds, green peppers, peaches, tea, grapes. This is the diet made popular by Benjamin Feingold, who has written the book “Why your Child is Hyperactive”. Other researchers have had mixed results when testing whether the diet is effective. Question 44: The topic of this passage is_________________ A. reactions to foods B. food and nutrition C. infants and allergies D. a good diet Question 45: According to the passage, the difficulty in diagnosing allergies to foods is due to A. the vast number of different foods we eat B. lack of a proper treatment plan C. the similarity of symptoms of the allergy to other problems pg. 4

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D. the use of prepared formula to feed babies Question 46: The phrase "set off" in the paragraph second is closest in meaning to A. relieved B. identified C. avoided D. triggered Question 47: The author states that the reason that infants need to avoid certain foods related to allergies has to do with the infant's A. lack of teeth B. poor metabolism C. underdeveloped intestinal tract D. inability to swallow solid foods Question 48: The word "these" in the third paragraph refers to A. food additives B. food colorings C. innutritious foods D. foods high in silicates Question 49: Which of the following was a suggested treatment for migraines in the passage? A. Eating more ripe bananas B. Avoiding all Oriental foods C. Getting plenty of sodium nitrate D. Using Vitamin B in addition to a good diet Question 50: What can be inferred about babies from this passage? A. They can eat almost anything. B. They should have a carefully restricted diet as infants. C. They gain little benefit from being breast fed. D. They may become hyperactive if fed solid food too early. ……..THE END ……..

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA 25 (Đề thi có 05 trang)

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 1: Those who disagreed with the director’s viewpoint were _____ edged out of the company. A. gradually B. gradualism C. gradual D. gradualness Question 2. BTS is a seven-member South Korean boy band,_________? A. are they B. isn’t it C. aren’t they D. is he She may still have a few fans in the World, but she is definitely past her________. Question 3. A. fame B. abilities C. prime D. fortune Question 4. The Russia- Ukraine conflict has begun to have major impact________the World energy markets A. on B. in C. from D. With Question 5. Cultural diversity supports the idea that every person can _________a positive contribution to the larger society because of, rather than in spite of, their differences. A. pay B. lead C. take D. make Question 6. ________ he passed his exam, he was very disappointed with his grade. A. However B. Still C. Despite D. Although Question 7. If I am admitted to Foreign Trade University, my parents will buy me a__________car. A. Japaness luxurious sport B. luxurious Japanese sport sport luxurious Japanese C. D. sport Japanese luxurious Question 8. Scientists ________ a carefully controlled experiment on the mysterious new virus. A. carried over B. measured out C. carried out D. put up Question 9. Isaac Newton___________under an apple tree when he got hit on the head by a falling piece of fruit. A. is sitting B. was sitting C. sat D. sits Question 10. She will take management training course __________. A. as soon as the epidemic was controlled B. right after the epidemic has been controlled C. when the epidemic had been controlled D. until the epidemic will be controlled Question 11. The rise in the value of the dollar has depressed the company's ______ this year. A. profits B. revenues C. proceeds D. earnings Question 12. Our rival company managed to steal a________on us by bringing out their software ahead of ours. A. line B. shine C. march D. kindle Question 13. The theory of relativity________ by Einstein, who was a famous physicist. A. was developed B. developed C. was developing D. developes Question 14. _____________Ann by phone, James decided to email her. A. Having failed to contact B. He fails to contact Having been failed to contact C. D. That he failed contacting Question 15. The sooner we achieve herd immunity, _______ we can go back to doing the things we love. A. the more soon B. the sooner C. the soonest D. the most soon Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

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Question 16. Mai is talking to Hoa, a newcomer, in the school yard. - Mai: “How long does it take you to drive to school?” - Hoa: “_______.” A. About two kilometres B. It’s not far from here. C. About twenty thousand VND D. About fifteen minutes Question 17. Andy is talking to a bank clerk. - Andy: “I'd like to change some money, please.” - Bank clerk “ _________ ” A. Five , please B. Which currency, sir ? C. You haven't signed it. D. What's your account number? Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 18. A. finish B. demand C. obey D. require Question 19. A. invasion B. ordinate C. forestry D. cucumber Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 20. A. proved B. trained C. performed D. impressed Question 21. A. manager B. ambition C. approach D. activate Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22. Efforts by the company to improve its productivity were hampered by lack of funds. A. prevented B. assisted C. encouraged D. endangered Question 23. Though many scientific breakthroughs have resulted from mishaps it has taken brilliant thinkers to recognize their potential. A. accidents B. misunderstandings C. incidentals D. misfortunes Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24. That last comment of yours won the day because nobody could possibly argue with you after that. A. was a success B. was a big hit C. was a break-through D. was a failure Question 25. China rejected the claim that they were responsible for COVID-19 outbreak. A. ignored B. accepted C. disargreed D. denied

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 26. New COVID-19 variant is very dangerous. Ministry of Health urges localities to halt unnecessary services. A. New COVID-19 variant is too dangerous that Ministry of Health urges localities to halt unnecessary services. B. So dangerous is new COVID-19 variant that Ministry of Health urges localities to halt unnecessary services. C. Such dangerous is new COVID-19 variant that Ministry of Health urges localities to halt unnecessary services. D. Such is new COVID-19 variant dangerous that Ministry of Health urges localities to halt unnecessary services. Question 27. He put all his money into Bitcoin. He regrets now. A. He wishes he put all his money into Bitcoin. B. He wishes he could put all his money into Bitcoin. C. He regrets not having put all his money into Bitcoin. D. If only he hadn’t put all his money into Bitcoin. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 28: Each of the members of the group was made to write a report every week.

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A. members B. was C. to write D. week Question 29: Beethoven wrote and performed some of her greatest works while almost totally deaf. A. wrote B. performed C. her greatest D. while almost Question 30: It is not permissive for employers to discriminate on grounds of age, sex and race. A. permissive B. employers C. discriminate D. and race

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 31. It’s obligatory that people wear face marks in puplic these days. A. People need wear face marks in puplic these days. B. People must wear face marks in puplic these days. C. People may wear face marks in puplic these days. D. People would wear face marks in puplic these days. Question 32: I said to him: “I’m very angry with you. Go away.” A. I said that I am very angry with you and go away. B. I said that I was very angry with you and went away. C. I said that I was very angry with him and told him to go away. D. I said that he was very angry with me and told me to go away. Question 33. My mother last read the newspaper two years ago.. A. My mother didn’t read the newspaper two years ago. B. My mother was reading the newspaper for two years. C. My mother has read the newspaper for two years. D. My mother hasn’t read the newspaper for two years.

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. One of the most important (34)_______ of a standardized test is time. You'll only be allowed a certain number of minutes for each section, so it is very important that you use your time wisely. The most important time strategy is pacing yourself. Before you begin, take just (35)_________seconds to survey the test, noting the wisely of questions and the sections that looks easier than the rest. Then, make a rough time schedule based on the amount of time available to you. Mark the halfway point on your test and make a note beside that mark of the time when the testing period is half over. Once you begin the test, continue moving. If you work slowly in an attempt to (36)_______ fewer mistakes, your mind will become bored and begin to wander. You'll end up with far more mistakes if you're not concentrating. If you take too long to answer questions that stump you, you may end up running out of time before you finish. So don't stop for difficult questions. Skip them and move on. You can come back to them later if you have time. A question that takes you five seconds to answer counts as much as one (37)_________takes you several minutes, so pick up the easy points first. (38)_______, answering the easier questions first helps build your confidence and gets you in the testing groove. If you're a little ahead, you know you're on track and may even have a little time left to check your work. If you're a little behind, you have several choices. You can pick up the pace a little, but do this only if you can do it comfortably. Question 34: A. concerns B. issues C. information D. factors Question 35: A. a few B. a little C. lots D. few Question 36: A. pay B. do C. make D. take Question 37: A. who B. that C. when D. whom Question 38: A. However B. Besides C. Hence D. Therefore Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. In Viet Nam festivals often take place during the three months in spring and in autumn when people have a lot of leisure time. In addition, the climate in spring and autumn is especially suitable for holding festivals and for festivals goers to enjoy. Traditional festivals constitute a form of cultural activities, a spiritual product which the

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people have created and developed during the course of history. From generation to generation, the Vietnamese people preserve the fine tradition of “remembering the source while drinking water.” Festivals are events which represent this tradition of the community as well as honour the holy figures named as “gods” -the real persons in national history or legendary persons. The images of gods converge the noble characteristics of mankind. They are national heroes who fought against foreign invaders, reclaimed new lands, treated people, fought against natural calamities, or those legendary characters who affect the earthly life. Accordingly, first and foremost, festivals are events when people pay tribute to divinities that rendered merits to the community and the nation. These are occasions when people come back to either their natural or national roots, which form a sacred part in their mind. Furthermore, festivals represent the strength of the commune or village, the local region or even the whole nation. Worshipping the same god, the people unite in solidarity to overcome difficulties, striving for a happy and wealthy life. Moreover, festivals display the demand for creativity and enjoyment of spiritual and material cultural values of all social strata. They become a form of education under which fine traditional moral values can be handed from one generation to the next in a unique way of combining spiritual characters with competition and entertainment games. Festivals are also the time people can express their sadness and worries in a wish that gods might bestow favour on them to help them strive for a better life. (Adapted from: Overview of Traditional Festivals - Viet Mam, Country and Peoples) Question 39. What is the best title of the passage? A. Social, educational and historical values of Vietnamese festivals B. When, how and why festivals in Vietnam keep their traditions C. Time, formation and meaning of traditional Vietnamese festivals D. Similarities, differences and changes in Vietnamese festivals Question 40. What affects the time to hold festivals in Viet Nam? A. Festival holders’ timetable and festival goers’ preference B. The abundance of fruits and flowers and people’s health C. People’s preference of leisure time and climate D. Weather conditions and people’s working pattern Question 41. Which of the followings best replace the word “course” in the second paragraph? A. Lesson B. Development C. Road D. Creation Question 42. What does the word “they” in the second paragraph refer to? A. Gods B. Images C. Characteristics D. Invaders Question 43. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a value of festivals? A. Showing community’s union B. Remembering national heroes C. Questioning personal bad lucks D. Educating young generations

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. One of the most difficult questions to answer is how much a job is worth. We naturally expect that a doctor’s salary will be higher than a bus conductor’s wage. But the question becomes much more difficult to answer when we compare, say, a miner with an engineer, or an unskilled man working on an oil-rig in the North Sea with a teacher in a secondary school. What the doctor, the engineer and teacher have is many years of training in order to obtain the necessary qualifications for their professions. We feel instinctively that these skills and these years, when they were studying instead of earning money, should be rewarded. At the same time we recognize that the work of the miner and the oil-rig laborer is both hard and dangerous, and that they must be highly paid for the risks they take. Another factor we must take into consideration is how socially useful a man’s work is, regardless of the talents he may bring to it. Most people would agree that looking after the sick or teaching children is more important than, say, selling secondhand cars or improving the taste of toothpaste by adding a red stripe to it. Yet it is almost certain that the used car salesman earns more than the nurse, and that research chemist earns more than the school teacher. Indeed, this whole question of just rewards can be turned on its head. You can argue that a man who does a job which brings him personal satisfaction is already receiving part of his reward in the form of a so-called “psychic

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wage”, and that it is the man with the boring, repetitive job who needs more money to make up for the souldestroying monotony of his work. It is significant that that those jobs which are traditionally regarded as “vocations” - nursing, teaching and the Church, for example - continue to be poorly paid, while others, such as those in the world of sport or entertainment, carry financial rewards out of all proportion to their social worth. Although the amount of money that people earn is in reality largely determined by market forces, this should not prevent us from seeking some way to decide what is the right pay for the job. A starting point for such an investigation would be to try to decide the ratio which ought to exist between the highest and the lowest paid. The picture is made more complicate by two factors: firstly by the “social wage”, i.e, the welfare benefits which every citizen receives; and secondly, by the taxation system, which is often used as an instrument of social justice by taxing high incomes at a very high rate indeed. Allowing for these two things, most countries now regard a ratio of 7:1 as socially acceptable. If it is less, the highly-qualified people carrying heavy responsibilities become disillusioned, and might even end up by emigration (the so-called “brain-drain” is an evidence that this can happen). If it is more, the gap between rich and poor will be so great that it will lead social tensions and ultimately to violence. (Adapted from: Business Insider) Question 44: Which best serves as the title for the passage? A. How much is job worth? B. How to find a well paid job? C. Factors of a good job. D. Benefits of well paid job. Question 45: The word “disillusioned” in paraghaph 4 is closest in meaning to__________. A. disagreeable B. disenchanted C. discreditable D. dishonest Question 46: In Paragraph 2 and 3, the author indicates that__________. A. the talented should do more important work B. unskilled jobs have less social responsibility C. those with more socially useful jobs earn less D. people want to pay more to important services Question 47: The word “instinctively” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______. A. intuitively B. insanely C. apparently D. unnaturally The word in paragraph 1 refers to _______. Question 48: “They” A. miner and engineer B. doctor and bus conductor C. doctor, enginers and teacher D. miner and oil-rig laborer Question 49: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage? A. It’s not difficult to define the social value of a job. B. The market used to decide what the right pay is for a job. C. People should find a proper ratio between high and low pay. D. Those receiving high salary should carry all responsibilities. Question 50: It can be inferred from the passage that a man who does a boring, repetitive job ______. A. receives less money than he deserves B. should receive more money as a compensation for the drudgery of his work C. can only expect more money if his job is a highly-skilled one D. has no interest in his work apart from the money he receives for doing it _____________THE END_____________

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA 26 (Đề thi có 05 trang)

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Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 1. His _______ of the generator is very famous. A. inventively B. invent C. inventive D. invention Question 2. Surely David is not going to drive, _______? A. isn’t he B. will he C. is he D. does he Question 3. People thought that maybe his novel might one day be turned into a ﬁlm and become a Hollywood _________. A. best-seller B. attraction C. blockbuster D. debut Question 4. I don’t like dark. I try to avoid going out ________ night. A. in B. at C. on D. for Question 5. Though she lost her job last month, she still wanted to save _______ so she said that she had left it willingly. A. mouth B. face C. reputation D. fame Question 6. Some countries are still lagging behind the rest of the world in the vaccine race _______ a large number of resources diverted to advertising campaigns. A. although B. because C. due to D. despite Question 7. She has just bought a _______ watch. A. Swiss beautiful brand-new B. Swiss brand-new beautiful C. brand-new beautiful Swiss D. beautiful brand-new Swiss Question 8. The recently retired ballplayer _______ his locker and sadly left the stadium. A. held out B. put off C. cleared out D. made up Question 9. When Linda called last night, I ______ my favourite show on TV. A. watched B. have watched C. was watching D. am watching Question 10. By the time you finish cooking they _______ their homework. A. will have finished B. will finish C. had finished D. have finished Question 11. You'd better _______ a commitment to being a volunteer on a regular basis. A. promise B. do C. make D. pull Question 12. The final winner will be the one who breaks through ______ and survives till the last minutes. A. obstacles B. difficulty C. hindrance D. impediment Question 13. She _______ by the number of people that came to wish him luck on his new endeavour. A. stunned B. was stunned C. stunning D. to stun Question 14. _______ the Nobel Prize, he retired from politics. A. Received B. Having received C. Being received D. Receive Question 15. The more she sleeps, _______ she becomes. A. laziest B. the laziest C. lazier D. the lazier Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 16. Tom and Mary are having lunch in the restaurant. - Tom: “Would you like some more chicken?” - Mary: “______. I’m full”. A. Yes, please. B. No, thanks. C. Yes, I would. D. No, I wouldn’t. Question 17. Laura and Kate are talking at school. - Laura: “Many thanks to you, Kate.” - Kate: “_______.” A. It doesn’t matter B. Don’t say so C. No thanks D. It’s a pleasure Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 18. A. combustion B. achievement C. ambitious D. dominant Question 19. A. effort B. actor C. perform D. area

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 20. A. invited B. played C. existed D. extended Question 21. A. effect B. enter C. restore D. engage Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22. Shopping on the internet can be safe if you follow a few simple rules. A. uncomplicated B. unimportant C. unlucky D. unsociable Question 23. Mary has a strong desire to make independent decisions. A. dependent B. self-confident C. self-confessed D. self-determining Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24. It was obvious that the deal was no longer tenable, so we kicked it into touch. A. measure it B. mention it C. forgot it D. approved it Question 25. Jane found herself in conflict with her parents over her future career. A. disagreement B. harmony C. controversy D. fighting Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 26. She went to live in France. She realized how much she loved England. A. Only when she went to live in France did she realize how much she loved England. B. Not until she had realized how much she loved England did she go to live in France. C. Had she gone to live in France, she would have realized how much she loved England. D. Were she to go to live in France, she would realize how much she loved England. Question 27. My laptop is broken. I need it for my online learning. A. If my laptop is not broken, I could use it for my online learning. B. In case my laptop was not broken, I could use it for my online learning. C. I wish my laptop were not broken so that I could use it for my online learning. D. If only my laptop had not been broken, I could have used it for my online learning. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 28. My brother usually asked me for help when he has difficulty with his homework. A. asked B. when C. has D. homework Question 29. The puppy stood up slowly, wagged their tail, blinked its eyes, and barked. A. slowly B. their C. blinked D. and Question 30. Some families go without medical treatment because of their disability to pay. A. Some B. go without C. treatment D. disability Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 31. You are able to go out with your friend this evening. A. You can go out with your friend this evening. B. You should go out with your friend this evening. C. You needn’t go out with your friend this evening. D. You mustn’t go out with your friend this evening. Question 32. “I’ll help you repair this washing machine, Jenny”, he said. A. He admitted helping Jenny repair that washing machine. B. He denied helping Jenny repair that washing machine. C. He told Jenny that he would help her repair that washing machine. D. He refused to help Jenny repair that washing machine. Question 33. The last time I saw her was three years ago. A. I have not seen her for three years. B. About three years ago, I used to meet her. C. I have often seen her for the last three years. D. I saw her three years ago and will never meet her Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each the numbered blanks. ROBOTS

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Ever since it was first possible to make a real robot, people have been hoping for the invention of a machine (34) _______ would do all the necessary jobs around the house. If boring and repetitive factory work could be (35) _______ by robots, why not boring and repetitive household chores too? For a long time the only people who really gave the problem their attention were amateur inventors. And they came up against a major difficulty. That is, housework is actually very complex. It has never been one job, it has always been many. A factory robot (36) _______ one task endlessly until it is reprogrammed to do something else. It doesn’t run the whole factory. A housework robot, on the other hand, has to do (37) _______ different types of cleaning and carrying jobs and also has to cope with all the different shapes and positions of rooms, furniture, ornaments, cats and dogs. (38) _______, there have been some developments recently. Sensors are available to help the robot locate objects and avoid obstacles. We have the technology to produce the hardware. All that is missing the software- the programs that will operate the machine. Question 34.A. that B. what C. when D. where Question 35. A. succeeded B. managed C. made D. given Question 36. A. carries over B. carries off C. carries out D. carries away Question 37. A. little B. some C. much D. few Question 38. A. However B. Therefore C. Besides D. Moreover Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question. We first learn about loving and caring relationships from our families. Family is defined as a domestic group of people with some degree of kinship - whether through blood, marriage, or adoption. Ideally, each child is nurtured, respected, and grows up to care for others and develop strong and healthy relationships. This does not mean that it is always easy to make and keep friends; it just means that we share the goal of having strong relationships. "Family" includes your siblings and parents, as well as relatives who you may not interact with every day, such as your cousins, aunts, uncles, grandparents, and stepparents. These are probably the people you are closest to and with whom you spend the most time. Having healthy relationships with your family members is both important and difficult. Families in the 21st century come in all shapes and sizes: traditional, single parent, blended (more than one family together in the same house], and gay and lesbian parents -just to name a few. No matter the "type" of family you have, there are going to be highs and lows - good times and bad. Many times, however, families become blocked in their relationships by hurt, anger, mistrust, and confusion. These are natural and normal, and few families do not have at least a few experiences with them. The worst time for most families, is during a divorce. By making a few simple changes in the way we look at the world and deal with other people, it is possible to create happier, more stable relationships. Families need to be units of mutual caring and support; they can be sources of lifelong strength for all individuals. (Adapted from http://www.pamf.org) Question 39. What is the main idea of the passage? A. The importance of sharing housework in a family. B. The importance of having children in a family. C. The role of members in family. D. The healthy relationships among members in family. Question 40. Ideally, each child is nurtured, respected, and grows up________? A. to keep in touch with the people around them. B. to keep a track of the people around them. C. to be familiar with the people around them. D. to be concerned about the people around them. Question 41. Which of the following is closest in meaning to "siblings" in paragraph 2? A. brothers and sisters B. husband and wife C. children D. friends Question 42. What does the word "These" in paragraph 2 refer to_______? A. good and bad times B. feelings C. relationships D. high sand lows Question 43. According to the passage, which example below is probably NOT TRUE about the definition of family? A. wife and husband relationship B. step- father and daughter relationship C. nanny and baby relationship D. god- mother and god-son relationship Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question.

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People are living longer and, in some parts of the world, healthier lives. This represents one of the crowning achievements of the last century, but also a significant challenge. Longer lives must be planned for. Societal aging may affect economic growth and lead to many other issues, including the sustainability of families, the ability of states and communities to provide resources for older citizens, and international relations. The Global Burden of Disease, a study conducted by the World Health Organization, predicts a very large increase in age-related chronic disease in all regions of the world. Dealing with this will be a significant challenge for all countries’ health services. Population aging is driven by declines in fertility and improvements in health and longevity. In more developed countries, falling fertility beginning in the early 1900’s has resulted in current levels being below the population replacement rate of two live births per woman. Perhaps the most surprising demographic development of the past 20 years has been the pace of fertility decline in many less developed countries. In 2006, for example, the total fertility rate was at or below the replacement rate in 44 less developed countries. One central issue for policymakers in regard to pension funds is the relationship between the official retirement age and actual retirement age. Over several decades in the latter part of the 20th century, many of the more developed nations lowered the official age at which people become fully entitled to public pension benefits. This was propelled by general economic conditions, changes in welfare philosophy, and private pension trends. Despite the recent trend toward increased workforce participation at older ages, a significant gap between official and actual ages of retirement persists. This trend is emerging in rapidly aging developing countries as well. Many countries already have taken steps towards much-needed reform of their old-age social insurance programs. One common reform has been to raise the age at which workers are eligible for full public pension benefits. Another strategy for bolstering economic security for older people has been to increase the contributions by workers. Other measures to enhance income for older people include new financial instruments for private savings, tax incentives for individual retirement savings, and supplemental occupational pension plans. As life expectancy increases in most nations, so do the odds of different generations within a family coexisting. In more developed countries, this has manifested itself as the ‘beanpole family,’ a vertical extension of family structure characterized by an increase in the number of living generations within a lineage and a decrease in the number of people within each generation. As mortality rates continue to improve, more people in their 50’s and 60’s will have surviving parents, aunts, and uncles. Consequently, more children will know their grandparents and even their great-grandparents, especially their greatgrandmothers. There is no historical precedent for a majority of middle-aged and older adults having living parents. (Adapted from https://www.ielts-mentor.com) Question 44. Which of the following best describes the main purpose of the author in the passage? A. To present a synopsis of the causes and effects of the aging population. B. To provide an overview of the drawbacks of the world’s aging population. C. To suggest some effective solutions to deal with the rapid increase of the aging population. D. To prove the significant contribution of the aging population to the world economy. Question 45. As mentioned in the first paragraph, the following aspects will be influenced by the aging in the society, EXCEPT ________. A. the stable progress of families B. social welfare C. medical care D. technology achievements Question 46. What does the word “this” in paragraph 3 refer to? A. public pension benefits B. the reduction of the official age entirely pensioned C. the relationship between the official retirement age and actual retirement age D. central issue Question 47. The word “eligible” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________. A. entitled B. unqualified C. mature D. devoted Question 48. According to paragraph 3, which of the following is the measure of old-age social insurance programs? A. The decrease in the age the elderly can receive pension. B. The encouragement the elderly to contribute more in economy. C. Enacting many policies to increase their income before retirement. D. Widening the gap between official and actual ages of retirement. Question 49. The word “manifested” in the last paragraph could be best replaced by ________.

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A. illustrated B. proved C. demonstrated D. recognized Question 50. What is the benefit of aging mentioned in the last paragraph? A. The mortality rates are decreasing. B. People will have the chance to live with their parents longer. C. Children are likely to live in an extended family with more brothers and sisters. D. The life expectancy is being improved. THE END

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA 27 (Đề thi có 05 trang)

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Họ, tên thí sinh………………………………………………………………………………………… Số báo danh: ........................................................................................................................................... Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 1. Both inventors and engineers look for ways to improve things in areas like health, food, safety, transportation, aerospace, electronics, _______, and the environment. A. communication B. communicative C. communicatively D. communicate Question 2. It is impossible for him to be financially independent at such an early age, _______? A. isn't it B. is it C. doesn't he D. does he Question 3. With a good _______ of both Vietnamese and English, Miss Loan was assigned the task of oral interpretation for the visiting American delegation. A. insight B. knowledge C. command D. proficiency Question 4. These facts may be familiar _______ you. A. with B. about C. to D. into Question 5. Indonesia got off to a _______ start with a goal in the first half, but Vietnam still won the match in the end. A. jumping B. flying C. leaping D. kicking Question 6. He managed to win the race _______ hurting his foot before the race. A. in spite of B. despite of C. although D. because of Question 7. I’d give anything to have a look at the _______ wizard world. A. modern British fascinating B. British fascinating modern C. modern fascinating British D. fascinating modern British Question 8. I try to be friendly but it is hard to _______ some of my colleagues. A. get on with B. watch out for C. come up with D. stand in for Question 9. When she came home last night, her children ______ their favourite program on TV. A. were watching B. are watching C. watch D. have watched Question 10. John will look for a job _______. A. when he passed his exams B. when he was passing his exams C. when he passes his exams D. when he had passed his exams Question 11. I'm a patient of Dr. Stephens, please could I _______ an appointment to see her? A. do B. make C. take D. leave Question 12. The _______ prices of property in big cities may deter people on low incomes from owning a house there. A. competitive B. forbidding C. prohibitive D. inflatable Question 13. We can’t go along here because the road _______. A. is repairing B. repaired C. is being repaired D. repairs Question 14. ______ to get in touch my closest friend by phone, I decided to send her a message. A. Having failed B. Failed C. To fail D. Have failed Question 15. The more manufacturers advise, _______ they sell. A. the most products B. the products more C. the more products D. most products Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 16. Jane had difficulty carrying her suitcase upstairs, and Mike, her friend, offered to help. - Mike: “Need a hand with your suitcase, Jane?” - Jane: “_______” A. Not a chance. B. That’s very kind of you. C. Well done! D. I don’t believe it. Question 17. Daisy is welcoming Jane warmly to her housewarming party. - Daisy: “Thanks for coming. What a nice gift you’ve brought us!”

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- Jane: “_______.” A. I’m glad you like it B. Don’t worry C. The same to you D. I don’t think so Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 18. A. obedient B. decision C. mischievous D. important Question 19. A. career B. prospect C. effort D. labour Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 20. A. attained B. resolved C. destroyed D. decreased Question 21. A. dream B. mean C. peace D. steady Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22. The amount spent on defense is in sharp contrast to that spent on housing and health. A. blare B. flask C. stark D. spark Question 23. It is firmly believed that books are a primary means for disseminating knowledge and information. A. inventing B. distributing C. classifying D. adapting Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24. Some doctors are confident that vaccines for COVID-19 will be available down the road, but they also admit that we still have a long way to go. A. the time being B. in the past C. at present D. in the future Question 25. Today, illegal hunting still threatens many species, especially large mammals such as tigers, rhinoceros, bears and even primates. A. allowed by law B. forbidden by law C. introducing a law D. imposing a law Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 26. She had a positive test result for Covid-19. She phoned her doctor to get medical care. A. Only when had she had a positive test result for Covid-19, she phoned her doctor to get medical care. B. No sooner had she had a positive test result for Covid-19 than she phoned her doctor to get medical care. C. Not only did she have a positive test result for Covid-19 but she also phoned her doctor to get medical care. D. Had she had a positive test result for Covid-19, she would have phoned her doctor to get medical care. Question 27. Lan didn't apply for the job in the library and regets it now. A. Lan wishes she had applied for the job in the library. B. Lan wishes she have applied for the job in the library. C. Lan wishes she has applied for the job in the library. D. Lan wishes she applies for the job in the library. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 28. The composer Verdi has written the opera Aida to celebrate the opening of the Suez Canal, but the opera was not performed until 1871. A. has written B. to celebrate C. opening of D. was not performed Question 29. Children should not expect to be rescued by its parents every time they get into financial difficulty. A. its B. get into C. difficulty D. expect Question 30. The field of Artificial Intelligence research was found at a workshop held on the campus of Dartmouth College during the summer of 1956. A. field B. was found C. held on D. the Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 31. I’m sure that they had practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.

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A. They couldn’t have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals B. They must have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals C. They shouldn’t have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals D. They might have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals. Question 32. “My father doesn’t work in the factory any more” Bella told us. A. Bella said that her father no longer worked in the factory. B. Bella wished that her father didn’t work in the factory any more. C. Bella hoped that her father was used to working in the factory D. Bella denied that her father used to work in the factory. Question 33. We started working here three years ago. A. We worked here for three years. B. We have no longer worked here for three years. C. We have worked here for three years. D. We will work here in three years. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each the numbered blanks. Sport and sport events provide a significant source of volunteering opportunities for a wide range of individuals. (34) _______ organizers of major sport events tend to target the youth market to source volunteers due to the apparent high level of interest in sport by this group, not only in terms of young people who watch a particular sport, but also those (35) _______ participate in it. It is therefore suggested that sport may act as a kind of ‘nursery’ for volunteering and that the experiences (36) _______ to young people in sport may be critical for their future volunteer involvement, not only in sport but the broader society. By developing an interest in volunteering as a young person, it is hoped that these people will continue to volunteer as they become adults. One of the most common approaches by many event organizers is to place an advertisement in the local media which invites readers to contact the organization. (37) _______, it is possible to ‘adopt’ a more formally structured recruitment programme through schools and universities. The (38) _______ of this approach is to establish a relationship between the governing body of a particular sport and young people from an early age. (Adapted from https://www.eltexampreparation.com/sites/default/files/IELTS) Question 34. A. Many B. Each C. Much D. Every Question 35. A. which B. when C. whom D. who Question 36. A. supported B. preferred C. admitted D. afforded Question 37. A. In conclusion B. In addition C. In contrast D. In short Question 38. A. decision B. benefit C. investment D. movement Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question. The generation gap that was so in evidence during the 60s has resurfaced, but it is not the disruptive force that it was during the Vietnam era, a 2009 study suggests. The Pew Research Center study found that 79% of Americans see major differences between younger and older adults in the way they look at the world. In 1969, a Gallup Poll found that a smaller percentage, 74%, perceived major differences. Today, however, although more Americans see generational differences, most do not see them as divisive. That is partly because of the areas of difference. The top areas of disagreement between young and old, according to the Pew Research Study, are the use of technology and taste in music. Grandparents are likely to have observed these differences in their grandchildren who are tweens, teens, and young adults. If large differences between the generations exist, why don't they spawn conflict? The answer is twofold. First, the two largest areas of difference—technology and music—are less emotionally charged than political issues. The older generation is likely to be proud of the younger generation's prowess in technology rather than to view it as a problem. As for the musical differences, each generation wants its own style of music, and the older generation generally can relate to that desire. Second, in the other areas of difference, the younger generation tends to regard the older generation as superior to their own generation—clearly a difference from the 1960s with its rallying cry of "Don't trust anyone over thirty." According to the Pew study, all generations regard older Americans as superior in moral values, work ethic and respect for others. (Adapted from www.verywellfamily.com) Question 39. Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?

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A. Generation gap doesn’t cause a big problem in American families. B. Different points of view are the main problem between generations in America. C. The generation gap in the past was different from that in modern time. D. The areas of differences in generation gap have changed over the years. Question 40. The word “divisive” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _______. A. agreeing B. positive C. serious D. discordant Question 41. What are the two reasons why large differences between generations don’t cause disagreement? A. The generosity of the elder generation and the attitude of the younger generation. B. The different styles of music and the knowledge of the elder generation. C. The major aspects of differences between generations and the respect to the elder generation. D. The pride of the elder generation and the obedience of the younger one Question 42. The word “their” in the last paragraph refers to _______. A. the older generation’s B. the younger generation’s C. supervisor’s D. over-thirty people’s Question 43. According to the passage, which is NOT true? A. The majority of Americans agree generations’ viewpoint to be the major differences. B. Technology is one of the two biggest areas creating the gap between the old and the young. C. Grandparents feel uncomfortable with their grandchildren because of their better technology skills. D. The elderly in America are admired in moral values, work ethic and respect for others. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question. The reason women appear to be at greater risk of developing Alzheimer’s disease than men might be due to a number of genetic, anatomical and even social influences, researchers have suggested. Recent figures show about 65% of those with living with dementia in the UK are women, with a similar statistic seen in the US for Alzheimer’s disease, while dementia is the leading cause of death for women in England. Alzheimer’s disease is only one of the types of dementia, but the most common form. While one explanation is that dementia risk increases with age, and women have longer life expectancies than men, new research suggests there might be more to the matter, including that protein tangles found within neurons and linked to Alzheimer’s disease might spread differently in women’s brains than men’s. The study, presented at the Alzheimer’s Association International Conference in Los Angeles by researchers from Vanderbilt University and which has not yet been peer-reviewed, used scans from a method called positron emission tomography. That allowed them to look at the way clumps of a protein called tau were spread in the brains of 123 men and 178 women without cognitive problems, as well as 101 men and 60 women with mild cognitive problems – although not yet diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease. Cognitively normal older people often have small amounts of tau in certain areas of their brain. From the data the team could build maps showing which areas of the brain show similar signals relating to tau in the scans, suggesting they are somehow connected. “Based on that we kind of try to reconstruct the pattern of spread,” Dr Sepideh Shokouhi, who is presenting the research, told the Guardian. “It is kind of like reconstructing a crime scene.” The team says the results suggest these maps look different in women and men, suggesting tau might be able to spread more rapidly across the female brain. Other research presented at the conference – and also not yet peer reviewed – added weight to the idea that there might be differences between men and women that affect dementia risk. Research by scientists at the University of Miami has revealed a handful of genes and genetic variants appear to be linked to Alzheimer’s disease in just one biological sex or the other. While the actual importance of these factors has yet to be unpicked, and the study only looked at white participants, the team says it underscores that there could be a genetic reason for differences in the risk of dementia in men and women, and the way it develops. (Adapted from https://www.theguardian.com) Question 44. Which of the following could be the best title of the passage? A. The differences between male and female brain and the condition for Alzheimer’s. B. Research shines light on why women are more likely to develop Alzheimer’s. C. The method for treating Alzheimer’s in women D. Alzheimer’s – the leading cause of death for women. Question 45. The following are the reasons for Alzheimer’s disease, EXCEPT _______.

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A. gene B. anatomy C. age D. job Question 46. The word “tangles” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______. A. muddles B. orders C. arrangements D. positions Question 47. What does the word “their” in paragraph 3 refer to? A. 123 men’s and 178 women’s without cognitive problems B. 101 men’s and 60 women’s with mild cognitive problems C. cognitively normal older people’s D. people’s with Alzheimer’s disease Question 48. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE? A. The data from the maps may help researchers find out the treatment for dementia. B. The men’s life expectancies are longer than women’s, so they are less suffered from Alzheimer’s. C. All the research at the conference has been peer-reviewed before presented. D. Female brains are likely more convenient for tau to develop than male ones. Question 49. The word “revealed” in the last paragraph could be best replaced by _______. A. discovered B. created C. experimented D. treated Question 50. It can be inferred from the last paragraph that _______. A. researchers are sure that the differences between genders will affect Alzheimer’s risk. B. the influence of a handful of genes and genetic variants on Alzheimer’s has not been scientifically illuminated. C. the research has studied all groups of participants for the risk of dementia. D. the results of all research on Alzheimer’s are different from each other.

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA 28 (Đề thi có 05 trang)

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Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 1. With her__________mind she was able to work out the best way to get everybody to the meeting on time. A. analyse B. analytical C. analysis D. analytically Question 2. Your friends are always late for school,__________? A. are they B. aren’t they C. are you D. aren’t you Question 3. Entering the meeting half an hour late, he tried to _________ an excuse, still the strict chairman of the board told him to leave the room. A. make B. take C. tell D. think Question 4. Vietnam has played_________high spririts and had an impressive 2-0 victory over Yemen. A. at B. in C. on D. with Question 5. You'll never be a good card player if you wear your heart on your___________. Other players can tell if your cards are good or not by watching your reactions when you get them. A. table B. collar C. face D. sleeve Question 6. __________it is in the spring now, the flowers outside aren’t blooming. A. Because B. In spite of C. Although D. Because of Question 7. Her husband bought her a ________necklace when he went on holiday in Singapore last week. A. expensive golden big B. expensive big golden C. golden big expensive D. big expensive golden Question 8. If a machine stops moving or working normally, you can say that it has ___________. A. cut off B. seized up C. gone off D. wiped out Question 9. The little girl_________in the forest when the wolf appeared. A. was walked B. is walking C. walked D. was walking Question 10. _________, the Johnson will have finished painting and decorating the new nursery. A. By the time their babies arrived B. By the time their babies arrives C. Until their babies had arrived D. When their babies will arrive Question 11. I always have so much fun when Katie's around, she's totally a______ of laughs! A. vessel B. basket C. barrel D. case Question 12. Students can _________ a lot of information just by attending class and taking good notes of the lectures. A. absorb B. provide C. transmit D. read Question 13. Solution to the problem of how to dispose of excess rubbish __________. A. must find B. must be finding C. must found D. must be found Question 14. ________ the Polish grandmaster, Le Quang Liem drew against Pentala Harikrishna (India), defeated Eric Hansen (Canada), and lost to Ding Liren (China). A. Having beaten B. Being beaten C. beaten D. To beat Question 15. : The closer our trip to Da Nang is, __________my students become. A. The most excited B. The more excited C. most excited D. more excited Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 16. Mrs. Kate is talking to her students at the end of the lecture. - Mrs. Kate: "I wish you a merry Christmas and a happy new year!" - Students: "___________"

D. So so

C. You're welcome.

B. Have a nice weekend! D. I don’t know what you are going to do.

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A. The same to you! B. Just for fun! Question 17. Nick and Michael are talking after school. - Nick: “I’m really tired. I’m taking next week off.” - Michael: “___________” A. Well, you must be telling a lie! C. That sounds like a good idea. The break will do you go.

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 18. A. movement B. animal C. natural D. endanger Question 19. A. hurry B. complete C. compose D. require Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 20. A. imported B. improved C. permitted D. decided Question 21. A. dear B. wear C. share D. compare Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22. When two people get married, it is with the assumption that their feelings for each other are immutable and will never alter. A. constant B. alterable C. unchangeable D. everlasting Question 23. I just can't beat Paula when we play chess! Every time I make a move that should lead me to victory, she makes a better move that thwarts my plan. A. helps to succeed B. gives a good opportunity C. makes a difference to D. stops from happening Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24 . The young politician was in the news every day for weeks, but now he seems to have fallen off the radar. A. been forgotten B. been written about C. been well-known D. been ignored Question 25. Visitors to the Church of St. Menoux in France believed the fallacy that they could cure their headaches by sticking their heads into a hole in a stone altar. A. actual fact B. false idea C. true belief D. children's story

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 26. You should not send money to us by post. Whatever you do. A. On no account should you not send money to us by post. B. In no way should not you send money to us by post. C. At no time should you not send money to us by post. D. Under no circumstances should you send money to us by post. Question 27. His academic record at high school was poor. He failed to apply to that prestigious institution. A. If only his academic record at high school weren’t poor, he could apply to that prestigious institution. B. If only his academic record at high school had been poor, he could have applied to that prestigious institution. C. He wish his academic record at high school hadn’t been poor, he could have applied to that prestigious institution.. D. He wish his academic record at high school hadn’t been poor, he couldn’t have applied to that prestigious institution.. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

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Question 28. Yesterday, I leave for work late because I had forgot to set my alarm. A. leave B. late C. because D. alarm Question 29. It is necessary and required that dental technicians and others who work with X-rays limit his exposure to these high penetrating rays. A. and required B. and others C. his D. high Question 30. Postponement of their raises and threatened redundancies were the striker’s main griefs. A. Postponement B. raises C. redundancies D. griefs Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 31. She is not allowed to meet her children until the operation has finished. A. She mustn’t meet her children until the operation has finished. B. She may not meet her children until the operation has finished. C. She shouldn’t meet her children until the operation has finished. D. She needn’t meet her children until the operation has finished. Question 32. “I won’t return the book you lent me until tomorrow afternoon,” said Huong. A. Huong told me to return the book she had lent me until the next afternoon B. Huong promised to return the book I had lent her until the next afternoon. C. Huong offered to return the book I had lent her until the next afternoon. D. Huong said that she wouldn’t return the book I had lent her until the next afternoon. Question 33. It is over twenty five years since I last met my boyfriend. A. I have met my boyfriend for over twenty five years. B. I haven’t met my boyfriend for over twenty five years. C. I met my boyfriend for over twenty five years. D. I have met my boyfriend over twenty five years ago . Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each the numbered blanks. A stinky gym bag in your kitchen? Who will be more upset by the smell - the men or the women in your family? (34) _______ scientists suggest that women not only smell, but feel, taste, and hear more accurately than men. Take colors, for example. Ono study suggests that men are not as good as women at distinguishing between (35) _______ of color, although they focus well on rapidly changing images. As for touch, small fingers have a finer sense of touch, whether male or female. Hearing is possibly one of the most debated areas, when talking about the senses. Evidence shows that boys hear as well as girls at birth, but with age, a man's hearing may soon deteriorate. (36) _______, environmental factors could play a role in this. Women may also be better at identifying different flavors (37) _______ need both taste and smell to experience, as studies have shown that they have more taste buds on their tongue. Going back to the smelly gym bag - yes, it's likely that Mom will be the most (38) _______ out by it. But is that because women's brains have more 'smell cells' or because you were too lazy to move it? Question 34. A. Each B. Some C. Another D. Every Question 35. A. smells B. senses C. shadows D. shades Question 36. A. Moreover B. Therefore C. However D. Due to Question 37. A. who B. which C. where D. whom Question 38. A. taken B. sprung C. mazed D. freaked Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question. The increase in international business and in foreign investment has created a need for executives with knowledge of foreign language and skills in cross-cultural communication. Americans, however, have not been well trained in either area and, consequently, have not enjoyed the same level in negotiation in an international arena as have their foreign counterparts. Negotiating is the process of communicating back and forth for the purpose of reaching an agreement. Involves persuasion and compromise, but in order to participate in either one, the negotiators must understand the ways in which people are persuaded and how compromise is reached within the culture of negotiation.

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In many international negotiations business abroad, Americans are perceived as wealthy and impersonal. It often appears to the foreign negotiator that Americans represents a large multimillion–dollar corporation that can afford to pay the price without bargaining further. The American negotiator’s role became that of and impersonal purveyor of information and cash, the image that succeeds only in underming the negotiation. Two traits in particular that cause cross-cultural misunderstanding are directness and impatience on that part of Amarican negotiator Furthermore, American negotiators often insist on realizing short-term goals. Foreign negotiators, on the other hand, may value the relationship established between negotiators and may be willing to invest time in it for long-term benefits. In order to solidify the relationship, they may opt for indirect interactions without regard for the time involved in getting to know the other negotiator. Clearly, perceptions and differences in values affect the outcomes of negotiation and the success of negotiators. For Americans to play a more effective role in international business negotiations, they must put forth more effort to improve cross-cultural understanding. Question 39. What is the main idea of the passage? A. American negotiators need to learn more about other cultures. B. Negotiation is the process of reaching an agreement. C. Foreign perceptions of American negotiators are based on stereotypes. D. Foreign languages are important for international business. Question 40. The word “persuaded” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___________ A. informed B. respected C. convinced D. accused Question 41. The word “that” in paragraph 3 refers to : A. role B. corporation C. price D. bargaining Question 42. According to the passage, how can the businesspersons improve their negotiation skills ? A. By getting to know the negotiators B. By explaining the goals more clearly C. By living in a foreign culture D. By compromising more often Question 43. The American negotiators are described as all of the following EXCEPT : A. known for direct interactions B. interested in short-term goals C. willing to invest time in relationships D. perceived by foreign negotiators as wealthy

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question. Scientists have uncovered the physics behind the process known as conching, which is responsible for creating chocolate's distinctive smooth texture. The findings may hold the key to producing confectionary with lower fat content, and could help make chocolate manufacturing more energy efficient. A team led by the University of Edinburgh studied mixtures resembling liquid chocolate created using the conching process, developed by Swiss confectioner Rodolphe Lindt in 1879. Their analysis, which involved measuring the density of mixtures and how they flow at various stages of the process, suggests conching may alter the physical properties of the microscopic sugar crystals. Until now, the science behind the process was poorly understood. The new research reveals that conching, which involves mixing ingredients for several hours, produces smooth molten chocolate by breaking down lumps of ingredients into finer grains and reducing friction between particles. Before the invention of conching, chocolate had a grainy texture. This is because the ingredients form rough, irregular clumps that do not flow smoothly when mixed with cocoa butter using other methods, the team says. Their insights could also help improve processes used in other sectors such as ceramics manufacturing and cement production, which rely on the mixing of powders and liquids. The study, published in Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences, involved a collaboration with researchers from New York University. The work in Edinburgh was funded by Mars Chocolate UK and the Engineering and Physical Sciences Research Council. Professor Wilson Poon, of the University of Edinburgh's School of Physics and Astronomy, who led the study, said: "We hope our work can help reduce the amount of energy used in the conching process and lead to greener manufacturing of the world's most popular confectionary product. By studying chocolate making, we have been able to gain new insights into the

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fundamental physics of how complex mixtures flow. This is a great example of how physics can build bridges between disciplines and sectors." (Adapted from https://www.sciencedaily.com) Question 44. Which of the following is best serves as a title for the passage? A. What Cement Manufacturers Can Learn From The Process of Making Chocolate. B. Physicists Reveal The Science Behind Great Chocolate C. Which Is The Best Method of Making Chocolate? D. Rodolphe Lindt, The Father of Smooth Chocolate. Question 45. The word “properties” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________. A. personalities B. ingredients C. belongings D. characteristics Question 46. Based on the information in paragraph 3, which of the following is TRUE about the reason why chocolate didn’t have a smooth texture before the invention of conching. A. chocolate makers broke the lumps into grains, resulting in a grainy texture. B. people mixed the ingredients improperly and ruined the smoothness of the mixture. C. clumps are created when ingredients are mixed with cocoa butter in other ways. D. the ingredients were very rough and irregular in the past. Question 47. What can be inferred from the last paragraph? A. The leader of the study thinks that only physics can connect different sectors. B. The amount of energy used in conching was reduced thanks to the study. C. Scientists and employees from Mars Chocolate UK worked together in the study. D. The study’s findings may benefit other areas besides science. Question 48. The word “This” in paragraph 3 refers to ___________. A. friction between particles B. the invention of conching C. producing smooth molten chocolate D. chocolate having grainy texture Question 49. According to paragraph 2, the scientists conducted their research by __________. A. examining mixtures that are similar to and created using the same process as liquid chocolate. B. measuring the density of liquid chocolate compared to other resembling mixtures. C. analysing how mixtures similar to liquid chocolate flow during the initial stages of conching. D. directly altering the physical properties of microscopic sugar crystals in liquid chocolate. Question 50. The word “disciplines” in the second paragraph can be best replaced by ___________. A. rules B. fields C. regulations D. knowledge _______________THE END_______________

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA 29 (Đề thi có 05 trang)

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Họ, tên thí sinh………………………………………………………………………………………… Số báo danh: ........................................................................................................................................... Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 1: The survey will cover various ways of_____the different attitudes toward love and marriage of today's youth. A. determination B. determine C. determined D. determining Question 2: That is your brother who helped you finish your project, _____? A. isn’t it B. isn’t he C. is it D. isn’t she Question 3: Don't let my mother watch any of those sad movies. She cries at the drop of a A. hat B. bag C. cat D. rag Question 4: As an adult, I am independent my parents financially. A. of B. with C. out D. on Question 5: Most of this growth had occurred since 1950 and was known as the population _____ A. growth B. explosion C. surplus D. density Question 6: Monica graduated from nursing school in the Philippines two years ago, but she has not found a job ______ the growing demand both locally and internationally. A. despite B. in spite C. whereas D. because of Question 7: I would like to have ________ sports shoes to run in the park. A. grey medium leather comfortable B. comfortable medium grey leather C. comfortable leather grey medium D. medium leather comfortable grey Question 8: I always ______ before investing in stocks to guarantee success. A. think twice B. think back C. talk big D. talk shop Question 9: When my classmates and I ______ the street at the zebra-crossing, a car sped up and ran toward us. A. crossed B. were crossing C. have crossed D. cross Question 10: ______ , we will have already been in bed. A. By the time you get home B. When you got home C. As soon as you will get home D. After you get home Question 11: Don't expect your investments to ______ fruit immediately - you need patience. A. take B. bear C. fetch D. Bring Question 12: When old Mr. Barnaby died, several people_____their claim to the substantial legacy that he left. A. placed B. drew C. assumed D. laid Question 13: Only one of our gifted students to participate in the final competition. A. was choosing B. chosen C. has been chosen D. have been chosen Question 14: ________ the distance was too far and the time was short, we decided to fly there instead of going there by train. A. To discover B. Discovered C. To have discovered D. Discovering Question 15: _____the time passes, _____I feel ! The deadline of my thesis is coming , but I have just finished half of it. A. The faster / the nervous B. The more fast / the nervous C. The fast / the more nervous D. The faster / the more nervous Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 16: Tom and Mary are planning to see the movie this weekend.

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Tom: Can you recommend the best movie theater in town? Mary: ______ A. I prefer the one in the shopping mall. B. I don’t think you want to watch films. C. American blockbusters are believed to interest you. D. Let’s watch a movie together some time next week. Question 17: Lan is talking to her teacher about her essay. Lan: Excuse me. I haven’t got my essay today. I left it at home. Teacher: Never mind. ______ A. It must have been submitted. B. It always slips your mind. C. Give it to me on Friday. D. Give me a good talking.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 18: A. photography B. diplomacy C. elementary D. biology Question 19: A. apply B. appear C. attend D. angle

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 20: A. measured B. pleased C. distinguished D. managed Question 21: A. slogan B. motor C. total D. proper

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Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: The government ordered the military to design robots to access remote areas that are dangerous to the lives of militants. A. martyrs B. combatants C. soldier D. warriors Question 23: Con Son, the largest of this chain of 15 islands and islets, is ringed with lovely beaches, coral reefs and scenic bays, and remains partially covered in tropical forests. A. circled B. covered C. surrounded D. phoned

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Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24: I take my hat off to one of my colleagues, Justin, who seem to be indefatigable and can work all night without sleeping a wink. A. adulate B. venerate C. praise D. disrespect Question 25: In some countries, employers have no legitimate rights to directly dismiss their employees. A. invalid B. illegal C. improper D. lawful

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 26: The path down the mountain was slippery. It was hard for us to stay on our feet. A. So slippery was the path down the mountain that we couldn’t keep our balance. B. So slippery the path down the mountain was that we had difficulty keeping our balance. C. Such was the slippery of the path down the mountain that it was hard for us to stay on our feet. D. As a result of the slippery path down the mountain, we had to stayed on our feet. Question 27: Julian dropped out of college after his first year. Now he regrets it. A. Julian regretted having dropped out of college after his first year. B. Julian regrets having dropped out of college after his first year. C. Julian wishes he didn’t drop out of college after his first year. D. Only if Julian had dropped out of college after his first year.

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Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 28: Please remain in your seat until the plane will come to a complete stop. A. remain B. your seat C. will come D. complete shop Question 29: Trademarks enable a company to distinguish its products from this of another company. A. enable B. distinguish C. this D. another Question 30: A solar flare is a phenomena which can be seen during an eclipse of the sun. A. solar B. phenomena C. seen D. eclipse

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 31: : I don’t think that man is Tom; Tom is so much taller! A. That man can’t be Tom as Tom is so much taller. B. That man mustn’t be Tom as Tom is so much taller. C. That man shouldn’t be Tom as Tom is so much taller. D. That man needn’t be Tom as Tom is so much taller. Question 32: Tom said, “I’ll give you this book back tomorrow, Mary.” A. Tom told Mary that I would give you that book back the next day. B. Tom told Mary that he would give her that book back the next day. C. Tom told Mary that he wouldn’t give her that book back the next day. D. Tom said to Mary that she would give him that book back the next day. Question 33: She has known how to play the piano for 5 years. A. She didn’t play the piano 5 years ago. B. She started to play the piano 5 years ago. C. She played the piano 5 years ago. D. The last time she played the piano was 5 years ago.

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each the numbered blanks. In recent years, the WTO has also made it a priority to assist developing nations as they come under WTO regulation. (34)_____developing countries and emerging markets lack the experience and technical expertise needed to deal with large and very comprehensive trade agreements. The WTO provides them with critical training and support, (35)_____ensuring that the WTO is inclusive and equitable toward both the wealthiest and the poorest nations in the world. Part of the nondiscrimination mandate of the WTO is most-favored-nation (MFN) status. Most-favorednation status requires that a WTO member must apply the same terms and conditions to (36)____ withany and all other WTO members. Also, you (37)______experienced a version of most-favored-nation status as a child, when an adult told you that if you were going to take gum or candy to class, you had to bring enough for everyone. One of the other key elements to the success of the WTO is its transparency requirement. WTO members are required to publish their trade regulations and follow a system that allows all external parties (38)____ will review and evaluate any administrative decisions and their impact on trade regulations. When a WTO nation changes its trade policies, those changes must be reported to the WTO. (Adaptedfrom https://courses.lumenlearning.com) Question 34: A. many B. another C. much D. one Question 35: A. consequently B. so C. therefore D. thereby Question 36: A. cope B. talk C. trade D. deal Question 37: A. possibly B. probably C. likely D. surely Question 38: A. that B. who C. whom D. which Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question.

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Tsunami is a Japanese word which means harbour wave and is used as the scientific term for seismic sea wave generated by an undersea earthquake or possibly an undersea landside or volcanic eruption, when the ocean floor is tilted or offset during an earthquake, a set of waves is created similar to the concentric waves generated by an object dropped into the water. Most tsunamis originate along the Ring of Fire, a zone of volcanoes and seismic activity, 32,500 km long that encircles the Pacific Ocean. Since 1819, about 40 tsunamis have struck the Hawaiian Islands. A tsunami can have wavelengths, or widths, of 100 to 200 km, and may travel hundreds of kilometers across the deep ocean, reaching speeds of about 725 to 800 kilometres an hour. Upon entering shallow coastal waters, the wave, which may have been only about half a metre high out at sea, suddenly grows rapidly. When the wave reaches the shore, it maybe 15 m high or more. Tsunamis have tremendous energy because of the great volume of water affected. They are capable of obliterating coastal settlements. Tsunamis should not be confused with storm surges, which are domes of water that rise underneath hurricanes or cyclones and cause extensive coastal flooding when the storms reach land. Storm surges are particularly devastating if they occur at high tide. A cyclone and accompanying storm surge skilled an estimated 500,000 people in Bangladesh in 1970. The tsunami which struck south and southeast Asia in late 2004 killed over 200 thousand people. Question 39. What does the word “concentric” in paragraph 1 mean? A. wavy B. having many centres C. having a common centre D. a ring Question 40. what is the greatest speed of tsunami travelling across the deep ocean? A. 200 kilometres an hour B. 700 kilometres an hour C. 800 kilometres an hour D. 150,000 kilometres an hour Question 41. The word “it” in the second paragraph refers to ______ A. coastal water B. the wave C. sea D. the shore Question 42. Which of the following is NOT true? A. Tsunami only occurs in Asia B. A cyclone along with storm surges happened in Asia in 1970. C. Storm surges are domes of water rising underneath hurricanes or cyclones. D. Storm surges cause extensive coastal flooding. Question 43. what is the passage mainly about? A. Where tsunamis originate. B. Damage caused by tsunamis. C. Facts about tsunamis. D. How tremendous the energy of a tsunami is.

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question. Translators and interpreters for tech jobs of the future are expected to be one of the fastest growing occupations in the nation, according to a just released survey by Vietnamworks. Almost all positions for programmers, application developers, database and network administrators, engineers, designers, architects, scientists, technicians, and tech support will require bilingual or multilingual fluency. In just the last two years the demand for tech professionals with foreign language skills has increased more than two and one-half fold, said the survey, and the uptick shows no signs of abating anytime soon. Roughly 400,000 jobs are expected to open for interpreters (who focus on spoken language) and translators (who focus on written language) in the tech segment, between 2017 and 2020, says Tran Anh Tuan. Tuan, who works for the Centre for Forecasting Manpower Needs and Labour Market Information in Ho Chi Minh City doesn't include other industries in his prediction, which are also recruiting ferociously for more people with these same language skills. While that claim might seem a bit overblown (and amounts to little more than a guess by Tuan), it is clear that innovative technologies like robotics, 3D printing, drones, artificial intelligence and virtual reality will create major upheavals in all sorts of labour markets, not just technology over the next few years. In the last month alone, most every job posted on employment websites throughout Vietnam included the word bilingual. Far higher salaries go to people who work in high tech positions and can speak a foreign language such as English in addition to Vietnamese, says Tran Quang Anh from the Posts and Telecommunications Institute of Technology.

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Unfortunately, the surveys show that most graduating Vietnamese students are unable to do more than understand a few basic phrases of foreign languages, and practically none of them can speak any foreign language coherently. The good paying jobs with high salaries and benefits are only available to translators and interpreters who specialize in high tech jobs, says Anh. But it's not just English - graduates are needed with fluency in middle eastern languages like Arabic, Farsi and Pashto (Afghani) as well as German, Japanese and Korean to name just a few. Spanish is also in high demand in Vietnam, primarily because it is the second most common language in the US after English. A recent tech expo in Hanoi sponsored by Vietnamworks and the Navigos Group attracted nearly 4,000 young tech graduates and recruiters from 14 leading companies looking to fill job vacancies with skilled bilingual workers. The job applicants were young and industrious, said the recruiters. However, missing were candidates with the requisite language skills and most lacked basic 'soft skills' such as written and verbal communication abilities to effectively communicate even in their native Vietnamese language. Notably, the recruiters said they considered language abilities and soft skills just as, if not more important, than academic ability. Yet virtually all the prospective academically qualified employees lacked even the most basic of interpersonal communication abilities. (Source: http://english.vov.vn/) Question 44: Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage? A. The most popular jobs in Vietnam's job markets. B. The necessity of foreign languages in most tech jobs. C. The skills needed in tech jobs nowadays. D. Vietnamese students are not aware of the importance of learning foreign languages. Question 45: According to the passage, interpreters and translators are described as the jobs that___. A. are decreasing dramatically in the number of employees. B. there are not enough employees for technology companies to recruit. C. the requirements have risen considerably and steadily. D. are expected to experience a downward trend in the near future. Question 46: The word “upheavals" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to A. upward displacements B. upward disruptions C. downward changes D. downward problems Question 47: Which of the following is TRUE about employment in Vietnam according to Tran Quang Anh from the Posts and Telecommunications Institute of Technology? A. People whose major in foreign languages is high tech often earn high salaries. B. The demand of interpreters and translators in the workforce is not as much as what people believe. C. Not only technology but also other jobs are putting more pressure on language skills. D. Foreign languages in Vietnam are only needed in the posts on websites. Question 48: What does the word "them" in paragraph 4 refer to? A. foreign languages B. a few basic phrases C. Vietnamese students D. the surveys Question 49: The word "requisite" in paragraph 5 could best be replaced by A. shortage B. necessity C. specification D. measurement Question 50: What can be inferred from the passage? A. Academic ability is much more important than foreign languages and soft skills. B. To get a good job nowadays, applicants must know more than a language and be good at other soft skills. C. Written and verbal communication abilities determine the opportunity of applicants to get a desirable job. D. Translators and interpreters are suitable for any position in the work markets.

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA 30 (Đề thi có 05 trang)

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Họ, tên thí sinh………………………………………………………………………………………… Số báo danh: ........................................................................................................................................... Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 1: Hoang found it difficult to be in charge of the household _______. A. financial B. financially C. finances D. financier Question 2. Nobody was harmed in the fire, _____? A. was he B. wasn't he C. were they D. weren't they Question 3: They went out last night and really painted the town_______ - they didn't come home until 5 a.m. A. blue B. red C. white D. green Question 4. Susan is fed ________ with the housework. A. of B. up C. at D. on Question 5 : The media broadcast two different ______ of the news story, which confused the viewers. A. dedications B. concessions C. dictations D. versions Question 6. The player was ejected __________he committed a foul. A. inspite of B. although C. because D. because of Question 7. His brother bought a ____ as a present for his younger brother two weeks ago. A. a modern Janpanese racing car B. a Japanese modern racing car C. a racing Japansese modern car D. a Japansese racing Vietnamese car Question 8: The friends I ______ in my home town are different from my college friends. A. go out with B. get along with C. hang around with D. stand in for Question 9: ______________, I will repair my old house. A. When I had engough money B. After I have had engough money C. Before I had enough money D. As soon as I had enough money Question 10: At this time last night, she ______ and he was reading the newspaper. A. is cooking B. was cooking C. has cooked D. has been cooking Question 11: There is no truth in the ______ that Margaret has lost her job. A. rumour B. news C. coverage D. gossip Question 12: It is imperative that we make a _____________ decisions. A. slow B. quick C. frequent D. graduate Question 13. The house _____________ by professional engineers ten years ago. A.Was designed B. designed C. have designed D. had designed Question 14: ____ the desalination plant, the company could offer an effective solution to the problem of water scarcity. A. Being built B. built C. To build D. Having built Question 15: He spent a year in India and loves spicy food. The hotter the food is, _______ he likes it. A. the more and more B: the more C: The more and more D.the most Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 16: Rachel and Mark are at home. Rachel: “Can I get you something to drink?” Mark: “___________. I’m not thirsty.” A. No, thank you B. Yes please C. You’re welcome D. Thank you Question 17: Molly is talking to her sister about online shopping. - Molly: “Shopping online is super convenient and trouble-free.” - Molly’s sister: “___________. Sometimes a lot of serious problems arise.” A. That’s it B. I take your view C. Absolutely D. That’s not entirely true Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 18. A. arrived B. appeared C. recognized D. devastated Question 19. A. species B. invent C. medicine D. tennis Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 20. A. scenery B. festival C. atmosphere D. location Question 21. A. parent B. seldom C. unique D. over Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22. The promise of jobs and prosperity pulls people to cities. A. education B. employment C. stabilization D. wealth Question 23. Many of the immigrants have intermarried with the island's original inhabitants. A. foreigners B. landlord C. newcomer D. dwellers Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24. I'd like to pay some money into my bank account. A. put some money into B. give some money out C. leave some money aside D. withdraw some money from Question 25: In cities, two of the most pressing problems facing the world today also come together: poverty and environmental degradation. A. destruction B. poisoning C. pollution D. progression Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions Question 26: I didn’t get admitted to Ha Noi Foreign Language University. It would have been fantastic otherwise. A. That I got admitted to Ha Noi Foreign Language University was fantastic. B. If only I gained admission to Ha Noi Foreign Language University. C. I regretted having been admitted to Ha Noi Foreign Language University. D. I wish I had gained admission to Ha Noi Foreign Language University. Question 27: He finally contracted the disease. He was aware of the importance of preventive measures only then. A. But for his awareness of the importance of preventive measures, he could have contracted the disease. B. Hardly had he been aware that preventive measures were essential when he contracted the disease. C. Not until he was aware of the importance of preventive measures did he contract the disease. D. Only after he had contracted the disease was he aware that preventive measures were essential. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 28: Time passed very quickly when you get older. A B C D Question 29 : Upon reaching the destination, a number of personnel are expected to change its A B C

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reservations and proceed to Hawaii. D Question 30: Our principal is that everyone has to join hands to do the housework. A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions Question 31: Children are not allowed to play football in the streets. A. Children may play football in the streets. B. Children mustn’t play football in the streets. C. Children should play football in the streets. D. Children needn’t play football in the streets. Question 32: Tom said, “I’ll give you this book back tomorrow, Mary.” A. Tom told Mary that I would give you that book back the next day. B. Tom told Mary that he would give her that book back the next day. C. Tom told Mary that he wouldn’t give her that book back the next day. D. Tom said to Mary that she would give him that book back the next day. Question 33: Phuong started to study English when he was in secondary school A. Phuong was studying English when he was in secondary school. B. Phuong studied English in secondary school. C. Phuong has never studied English. D. Phuong has studied English since he was in secondary school.

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Question 34: A. concern Question 35: A. what Question 36: A. many Question 37: A. replaced Question 38: A. either

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each the numbered blanks. In the 1980s feminism became less popular in the US and there was less (34) ____ in solving the remaining problems, such as the fact that most women still earn much less than men. But American women have more opportunities than anyone thought possible 40 years ago. One of the biggest discrimination is in How people think. Although there is still discrimination, the principle __(35)________ should not exist is widely accepted. Feminism has brought about many changes in the English language. ____(36)_______ words for job titles that included ‘man’ have been ___(37)_______, for example ‘police officer’ is used instead of policeman’ and ‘chair’ or ‘chairperson’ for ‘chairman’. ‘He’ is now rarely used to refer to a person when the person could be either a man or woman. Instead, he/she, or sometimes (s)he, is preferred. The title Ms is used for women instead of ‘Miss’ or ‘Mrs’, since, like ’Mr, it does not show (38) ____ a person is married or not. B. interest B. which B. few B. appeared B. neither

C. worry C. that C. little C. created C. whether

D. care D. how D. much D. gave D. rather

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Love stories often include people finding partners who seem to have traits that they lack, like a good girl falling for a bad boy. In this way, they appear to complement one another. For example, one spouse might be outgoing and funny while the other is shy and serious. It’s easy to see how both partners could view the other as ideal – one partner’s strengths balancing out the other partner’s weaknesses. The question is whether people actually seek out complementary partners or if that just happens in the movies…There is essentially no research evidence that differences in personality, interests, education, politics, upbringing, religion or other traits lead to greater attraction. For example, in one study researchers found that college students preferred descriptions of mates whose written bios were similar to themselves or their ideal self over those described as complementing themselves.

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Despite the overwhelming evidence, why does the myth of heterogamy endure? There’s evidence that small differences between spouses can become larger over time. In their self-help book “Reconcilable Differences,” psychologists Andrew Christensen, Brian Doss and Neil Jacobson describe how partners move into roles that are complementary over time. For example, if one member of a couple is slightly more humorous than the other, the couple may settle into a pattern in which the slightly-more-funny spouse claims the role of “the funny one” while the slightly-less-funny spouse slots into the role of “the serious one.” In the end, people’s attraction to differences is vastly outweighed by our attraction to similarities. People persist in thinking opposites attract – when in reality, relatively similar partners just become a bit more complementary as time goes by. (Source: https://theconversation.com/) Question 39: Which best serves as the title for the passage? A. The real reason that opposites attract. B. A little tension can sometimes be a good thing. C. Why are we so sure opposites attract? D. Filling in my weak spots with your strengths. Question 40: The word “they” in paragraph 1 refers to _______. A. traits B. people C. stories D. partners Question 41: According to paragraph 2, what is the answer concerning the validity of “opposites attract” A. It turns out to be pure fiction. B. There are many documented cases. C. The possibility cannot be denied. D. It is a scientifically proven fact. Question 42: According to paragraph 3, what is the stated reason for people’s belief in “opposites attract” theory? A. Partners consciously find way to differentiate themselves from each other. B. Partners grow more complementary with each other over time. C. People want to seek for the other half that is more perfect than themselves. D. Human’s tendency to become the better version of themselves. Question 43: The word “persist” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______. A. endure B. patient C. linger D. insist Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Improving girls’ educational levels has been demonstrated to have clear impacts on the health and economic future of young women, which in turn improves the prospects of their entire community. The infant mortality rate of babies whose mothers have received primary education is half that of children whose mothers are illiterate. In the poorest countries of the world, 50% of girls do not attend secondary school. Yet, research shows that every extra year of school for girls increases their lifetime income by 15%. Improving female education, and thus the earning potential of women, improves the standard of living for their own children, as women invest more of their income in their families than men do. Yet, many barriers to education for girls remain. In some African countries, such as Burkina Faso, girls are unlikely to attend school for such basic reasons as a lack of private latrine facilities for girls. Higher attendance rates of high schools and university education among women, particularly in developing countries, have helped them make inroads to professional careers with better-paying salaries and wages. Education increases a woman's (and her partner and the family's) level of health and health awareness. Furthering women's levels of education and advanced training also tends to lead to later ages of initiation of sexual activity and first intercourse, later age at first marriage, and later age at first childbirth, as well as an increased likelihood to remain single, have no children, or have no formal marriage and alternatively, have increasing levels of long-term partnerships. It can lead to higher rates of barrier and chemical contraceptive use (and a lower level of sexually transmitted infections among women and their partners and children), and can increase the level of resources available to women who divorce or are in a situation of domestic violence. It has been shown, in addition, to increase women's communication with their partners and their employers, and to improve rates of civic participation such as voting or the holding of office. Question 44. What can be the best title of the reading passage? A. Education and Women's Empowerment B. Female Education and Social Benefits C. Woman's Rights to Lifelong Education D. Education and Violence Against Women Question 45. Which of the following statements is True according to the first paragraph?

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A. Many children in Asia have died because of their mother's ignorance B. Children whose mother are illiterate are unable to grow healthily C. The higher their education level is, the more money women earn D. It is their husbands who make women improve their education level Question 46. The word "barriers" in the passage is closest in meaning to . A. challenges B. problems C. difficulties D. limits Question 47. The word "It" in the passage refers to . A. furthering women's levels of education and advanced training B. higher attendance rates of high schools and university education C. increasing levels of long-term partnership D. a woman's level of health and health awareness Question 48. The phrase "make inroads into" in the passage can be best replaced with . A. make progress in B. celebrate achievement in C. succeed in taking D. take the chance in Question 49. According to the passage, furthering women's levels of education and advanced training does not result in . A. an increased level of health awareness for the husbands B. an increased likelihood to remain single among women C. higher rates of barrier and chemical contraceptive use D. improved rates of civic participation among women Question 50. It is implied in the first paragraph that . A. the husband in a family takes little responsibility in rearing the children B. the mother in a family makes every effort to raise the children effectively C. the children's standard of living largely depends on their mother's income D. there are numerous reasons for women not to come to class worldwide

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA 31 (Đề thi có 05 trang)

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Họ, tên thí sinh………………………………………………………………………………………… Số báo danh: ........................................................................................................................................... Question 1. Today's weather will be a ______ of yesterday. A. continuity B. continuing C. continuation D. continual Question 2. Nothing is destroyed after the serious flood in this area, _______? A. isn’t it B. is it C. aren’t they D. are they Question 3: When your programme first started I thought it was the best thing since sliced ________ A. cake B. break C. bread D. bead Question 4: She is going to visit Ha Long Bay ___________ Sunday. A. on B. at C. to D. for Question 5: All three TV channels provide extensive __________of sporting events. A. broadcast B. network C. coverage D. vision Question 6: He didn’t manage to win the race_________hurting his foot before the race. A. in spite of B. despite of C. although D. because of Question 7. We like__________policies. A. American recent economic B. economic recent American C. recent American economic D. recent economic American Question 8: When they ___________ for the beach the sun was shining, but by the time they arrived it had clouded over. A. set off B. went through C. carried out D. left out Question 9 ________the letter, please call for me. A. By the time we received B. before we receive C. when we receive D. after we receive Question 10. He fell down when he____________towards the church. A. run B. runs C. was running D. had run Question 11. If we __________ advantage of old things, We will save a lot of money.. A. use B. make C. take D. do Question 12. It is very difficult to _______ the exact meaning of an idiom in a foreign language. A. exchange B. transfer C. convert D. convey Question 13. Many of the beautiful buildings in our cities ______ by exhaust gases from cars and factories. We must do something to stop this. A. were destroyed B. are destroyed C. are being destroyed D. have been destroyed Question 14: to the party, we could hardly refuse to go. A. Having invited B. To have invited C. Having been invited D. To have been invited Question 15. The more you study, ______. A. the more knowledge you gain B. the more knowledge do you gain C. you are the more knowledge D. you will gain more knowledge Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 16. David is talking to his friend, Monica. - David: “_____________.” - Monica: “Good luck to you”. A. I don’t like rock music B. Have a nice day C. I’m taking a test this afternoon D. How do you do? Question 17. – Liz: Thanks for the nice gift you brought to us! - Jennifer:

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A. Alright. Do you know how much it costs? B. Not at all. Don’t mention it. C. Actually speaking, I myself don’t like it. D. Welcome! It’s very nice of you. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from Question 18: A. attacked B. stopped C. decided D. searched Question 19: A. hear B. pear C. clear D. near Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 20. A. suburb B. support C. prefer D. canoe Question 21. A. invention B. obstacle C. discover D. bacteria Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: We can protect many species by keeping them in wildlife reserves.

A. protected land B. saved land C. park Question 23. Her courage not only inspired her followers but moved her rivals as well. A. depressed B. motivated C. overlooked

D. Zoo

D. rejected

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24. This boy is poorly-educated and doesn't know how to behave properly. A. uneducated

B. knowledgeable

C. ignorant

D. rude

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Question 25. The Browns are both unemployed. With their six children they must be in a tight corner these days. A. in disappointment B. in a bad condition C. wealthy D. exhausted Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions Question 26. Linda bought a villa in a small village. she regrets it now. A. Linda wishes he hadn’t bought a villa in a small village. B. If Linda bought a villa in a small village, she would regret it. C. Linda regrets not having bought a villa in a small village. D. If only Linda had bought a villa in a small village. Question 27: We couldn’t have managed our business successfully without my father’s money. A. We could have managed our business successfully with my father’s money. B. If we could manage our business successfully, my father would give us his money. C. Hadn’t it been for my father’s money, we couldn’t have managed our business successfully. D. Had it not been for my father’s money, we couldn’t have managed our business successfully. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 28: How many people know that the Brooklyn Bridge, built in 1883, is the world's first suspension bridge? A B C D Question 29: The table you bought last month was broken their legs. A B C D Question 30: If a species does not have the natural genetic protection against particular diseases, A B an introduced disease can have severable effects on that species. C D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 31: I took a sweater but it was not necessary. A. I needn't have taken a sweater. B. It was too necessary for me to take a sweater. C. I should have taken a sweater. D. I must have taken a sweater.

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Question 32: “I wrote to him last week.” she said to me. A. She said to me that I wrote to him the week before. B. She told me that she wrote to him last week. C. She told me she had written to him last week. D. She told me she had written to him the week before. Question 33: Peter started learning to play the piano two months ago. A. Peter has learned to play the piano for two months. B. Peter is learning to play the piano at the moment. C. Peter stopped learning to play the piano two months ago. D. Peter has never learned to play the piano. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38. A rainbow is an optical display of color that usually appears in the sky when a beam of sunlight refracts through millions of raindrops. ________(34) sepearate color from the spectrum is then sent to your eyes. For this to happen, the angle between the ray of light, the raindrop and the human eye must be between 40 and 42 degrees. After studying rainbows in depth, Sir Isaac Newton was able to explain how they are formed. (35)________, he was color blind, so he had to rely on the eyes of his assistant, who could easily (36)________all the seven colors: red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo and violet. His assistant could also clearly tell the difference between indigo and violet There are two types of rainbows. Primary rainbows are the most common and have the most distinctive colors, with red appearing on the outside of the arc and violet on the inside. Secondary rainbows are unusual because the light is reflected twice within the raindrop before it forms a rainbow, so the colors are in reverse order and not as bright as primary rainbows. There is a popular myth ____(37)________if you reach the end of a rainbow, you will find a pot of gold waiting for you. In fact, it is impossible to do this, because a rainbow has no end - as you go towards the point where the rainbow seems to touch the ground, it moves away from you as quickly as you (38)________. Question 34: A. each B. many C. lots of D. much Question 35: A. so B.However C. therefore D. as a result Question 36: A realize B. discover C. understand D. recognize Question 37: A. who B. whose C. that D. when Question 38: A. Progress B. arrive C. get D. approach. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Norwich is the capital of East Anglia, an area on the east coast of England which is famous for its natural beauty and impressive architecture. Norwich is a wonderful city to explore and is popular with tourists all year round. Norwich is not a city of luxurious hotels, but it has a good selection of reasonably priced places to stay in, both in the city centre and further out. The Beeches Hotel, for example, next to the cathedral, has a beautiful Victorian garden. Comfortable accomodations costs £65 for two nights’ bed and breakfast per person. Norwich is famous for its magnificent cathedral. The cathedral has a summer programme of music and events which is open to the general public. One event, “Fire from heaven” , is a drama and musical performance with fireworks, a laser light show and a carnival with local people dressed in colourful costumes. Norwich is also home to the Sainsbury Centre for Visual Arts, a world-class collection of international art in a building at the University of East Anglia. This is well worth a visit and there is a lovely canteen with an excellent selection of hot and cold snacks. It also specializes in vegetarian food. In addition, the city has a new professional theatre, the Playhouse, on the River Wensum. The city’ annual international arts festival is from 10 to 20 October. Finally, if you fancy a complete break from the stresses of everyday life,you could hire a boat and spend a few days cruising along the river of the famous Norfolk Broads National Park. In our environmentally friendly age, the emphasis has moved forwards the quiet enjoyment of nature and wildlife. You can buy hire a

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boat, big or small, for an hour or two or even up to a week or two. This makes a perfect day out or holiday for people of all ages. (Trích mã đề 412- Đề thi THPTQG 2019) Question 39: Which best serves as the title for the passage? A. Holidays in Norwich B. A Destination Guide to England C. England’s Famous Cities D. Daily Life in Norwich Question 40: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to _____. A. selection B. the Beeches Hotel C. the city centre D. Norwich Question 41: According to paragraph 2, which is NOT part of “Fire from Heaven”? A. fireworks display B. A laser light show C. A campfire D. A carnival Question 42: The word “cruishing” in paragraph 4 mostly means _____. A. travelling by boat B. surfing C. swimming D. moving on land Question 43: According to the passage, where is the Sainsbury Centre for Visual Arts located? A. In a new professional theatre on the River Wensum B. In the Norfolk Broads National Park C. In an intertional art museum D. In a building at the University of East Anglia Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. The United Nations recently outlined the extent of the global water crisis, saying that 2.7 billion people would face severe water shortages by 2025 if consumption continues at current rates. Today, an estimated 1.2 billion people drink unclean water, and about 2.5 billion lack proper toilets or waste disposal systems. More than five million people die each year from diseases related to unclean water. Humans are pumping water out of the ground faster than it can be replenished. In this difficult situation, a water conservatiionist, Neil MacLeod in South Africa, has found innovative ways to improve his local water situation. Neil MacLeod took over as head of Durban Metro Water Services in 1992. The situation he found was a catastrophe. Durban had one million people living in the city and another 1.5 million people who lived in poverty just outside it. The entire city was rife with broken water pipes, leaky toilets, and faulty plumbing whereby 42 percent of the region’s water was simply being wasted. MacLeod’s crews began repairing and replacing water pipes. They put water meters on residences, replaced eight-litter toilets with four-litter models, and changed wasteful showers and water taps. To ensure that the poor would receive a basic supply of water, MacLeod installed tanks in homes and apartments to provide 190 liters of water a day free to each household. Water consumption in Durban is now less than it was in 1996, even as 800,000 more people have received service. Through sensible water use, Durban’s conservation measures paid for themselves within a year. No new reservoirs will be needed in the coming decades, despite the expected addition of about 300,000 inhabitants. MacLeod has also turned to water recycling. At the water recycling plant, wastewater is turned into clean water in just 12 hours. Most people are unable to discern a difference between the usual city drinking water and the treated wastewater, although it is actually intended for industrial purposes. Some people still hope that new technology, such as the desalination of seawater, will solve the world’s water problems. ‘’But the fact is, water conservation is where the big gains are to be made,’’ says Sandra Postel of the Global Water Policy Project. The dedication and resourcefulness of people like Neil MacLeod offer inspiration for implementing timely and lasting solutions to the world’s water concern. (Trích mã đề 412- Đề thi THPTQG 2019)

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Question 44: Which best serves as the title for the passage? A. South Africa to Succesfully Desalinate Seawater B. Drinkable Seawater – A Dream Turning Sour? C. The United Nations to Address Local Water Situations D. Tackling Water Problems: A Story from South Africa Question 45: According to the passage, how many people have to drink unclean water worldwide? A. Around 1.2 billion B. 2.5 billion C. 2.7 billion D. 5 billion

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Question 46: The word ‘’catastrophe’’ in paragraph 2 is mostly a situation which is ____. A. disastrous B. unlikely C. local D. familiar Question 47: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to ____. A. Durban B. service C. household D. water consumption Question 48: The word “discern” in paragraph 4 could be best replaced by ____. A. recognize B. examine C. emphasize D. appreciate Question 49: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage? A. Money saved from seasible water use helped cover the cost of reservoir construction in Durban. B. Provision of desalinated seawater is the ultimate solution to the world’s water problems. C. Over forty percent of Durban’s water was wasted through faulty plumbing, leaks and bursts. D. In Durban, treated waste water is provided free of charge to meet the residents’ daily needs. Question 50: What can be inferred from the passage? A. Water shortages are the most severe in areas with substandard toilet facilities. B. It used to take about half a day to convert wastewater into drinkable water. C. Each Durban household is not allowed to use more than 190 liters of water per day. D. A growth in population normally necessitates a rise in the number of reservoirs.

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA 32 (Đề thi có 05 trang)

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Họ, tên thí sinh………………………………………………………………………………………… Số báo danh: ........................................................................................................................................... Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 1. Her ________ has declined since her return from exile two years ago. A. popularity B. popularly C. popular D. popularize The number of rare animals is decreasing so rapidly, ________? Question 2. A. is it B. isn’t it C. doesn’t it D. does it Question 3. It is widely thought that stress can ________ your immune system. A. reduce B. degrade C. decline D. weaken Question 4. Students are ________ less pressure as a result of changes in testing procedures. A. under B. above C. upon D. out of Question 5. Jane’s parents will certainly go ________ when she buys them a present with her first salary. A. apples B. oranges C. cucumbers D. bananas Question 6. His brother failed the entrance examination ________ he studied really hard. A. despite B. because C. because of D. although Question 7. The report form is available on the two ________ discs in my drawer. A. small green round B. round small green C. green small round D. small round green Question 8. The company manager decided to ________ more workers to meet the production schedule. A. bring in B. go over C. make out D. take on Question 9. The phone suddenly rang while Joanna ________ the gardening. A. is doing B. does C. has done D. was doing Question 10. The river near my community will not begin to swell ________. A. as soon as some rain fell B. until some rain falls C. after some rain had fallen D. once some rain was falling Question 11. I had watched my sister ________ an attempt to try to get out of an arranged marriage. A. make B. try C. do D. Get Question 12. The loan we had received from our parents ________ us to buy a flat in the city centre. A. fulfilled B. enabled C. granted D. assisted Question 13. My close friend ________ a new tablet on her birthday last week. A. has given B. gives C. was given D. was giving Question 14. _________ the new CEO of the company, she spent much time talking to every single employee. A. Become B. Have become C. Have been become D. Having become Question 15. ________ interesting the match was, the more spectators it attracted. A. More B. Most C. The most D. The more Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 16. Janet is asking to borrow Laura’s calculator. - Janet: “Would you mind if I used your calculator?” - Laura: “________” A. Sure, you can’t. B. Congratulations! C. It’s a good one. D. Not at all. Question 17. Two friends Lucy and Sarah are talking in the kitchen. - Lucy: “Thank you very much for helping me do the cooking, Sarah.” - Sarah: “________.” A. The same to you B. Better luck next time C. Well done D. My pleasure Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

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Question 18. A. inhabit B. remedy C. nutrition D. historic Question 19. A. govern B. recruit C. approach D. Apply Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 20. A. followed B. attracted C. arrived D. delayed Question 21. A. head B. health C. death D. dream Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22. The way the team clinched the title in the last three minutes is one of the greatest moments in world football. A. destroyed B. dealt C. won D. robbed Question 23. In order to prevent the spread of Covid-19, it is especially important to ventilate the room. A. remove B. dust C. clean D. air Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24. Jane is trying to get to sleep, so if you wake her up she will fly off the handle. A. continue sleeping B. want to fly C. become angry D. keep calm Question 25. Many people perished in the Kobe earthquake because they were not prepared for it. A. lost their lives B. declined C. survived D. departed Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 26. My cousin was too ill. He couldn't sit for the entrance examination last week. A. So ill was my cousin that he couldn't sit for the entrance examination last week. B. But for my cousin’s illness, he couldn't sit for the entrance examination last week. C. Such ill was my cousin that he couldn't sit for the entrance examination last week. D. Had my cousin been too ill, he couldn't sit for the entrance examination last week. Question 27. She wants to live in Smallville village. She can’t buy a house there. A. If she had bought a house in Smallville village, she would have lived there. B. If she can buy a house in Smallville village, she won’t live there. C. She wishes she could buy a house in Smallville village to live there. D. If only she had bought a house in Smallville village to live there. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 28. Last year, the government launches a program with a view to improving living standard in this city. A. with B. launches C. view D. standard Mark told me that he got very bored with their present job and was looking for a new one. Question 29. A. looking for B. told me C. their D. got Question 30. There used to be widespread doubt about women’s intelligent ability, but it was totally nonsense. A. used B. doubt C. intelligent D. totally Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 31. It is necessary for him to finish his homework by tomorrow. A. He ought not to finish his homework by tomorrow. B. He might finish his homework by tomorrow. C. He mustn’t finish his homework by tomorrow. D. He needs to finish his homework by tomorrow. Question 32. “I don’t want to do this kind of sports anymore,” Cindy said. A. Cindy said she didn’t want to do that kind of sports anymore. B. Cindy said I don’t want to do that kind of sports anymore. C. Cindy said she doesn’t want do this kind of sports anymore.

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D. Cindy said she didn’t want do this kind of sports anymore. Question 33. We last visited Thang Long Royal citadel two months ago. A. We have visited Thang Long Royal citadel for two months. B. We have two months to visit Thang Long Royal citadel. C. We didn’t visit Thang Long Royal citadel for two months. D. We haven’t visited Thang Long Royal citadel for two months. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each the numbered blanks. Many people drink diet sodas as part of their diet. They believe these drinks are healthier than fizzy drinks. (26) ________, according to a new study, "diet" versions of sugary drinks can be as bad for our heart as fizzy drinks that are loaded with sugar. The researchers (27) ________ conducted the study said people should avoid diet sodas and other artificially sweetened beverages if they want to look after their health. Dr Guy Mintz, a heart specialist, said: "The belief that artificial sweeteners are a safe substitute for sugar is fake news. Artificial sweeteners have also been associated with weight gain, insulin (28) ________, and diabetes." Researchers looked at health data from over 100,000 people in France. Participants in the study recorded their diet, activity level, and health status every six months. The researchers said: "Higher intakes of...artificially sweetened beverages were associated with a higher risk of cardiovascular disease, suggesting that artificially sweetened beverages might not be a healthy (29) ________ for sugary drinks. Also, water, water, and more water should be the beverage of choice. Given childhood obesity, (30) ________ sweetened or artificially sweetened beverage should be a staple in children's diets." (Adapted from https://breakingnewsenglish.com/) Question 34. A. Nevertheless B. Therefore C. Moreover D. Consequently Question 35. A. which B. who C. whom D. whose Question 36. A. gain B. loss C. resistance D. increase Question 37. A. option B. substitute C. answer D. change Question 38. A. no B. much C. less D. more Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question. Big Bend National Park in the southwest of Texas is one of the most majestic desert areas in the United States. It is part of the Chihuahua, which is one of the largest deserts in North America and stretches over both America and Mexico. Big Bend Park is home to mountains, rivers, basins, valleys, as well as many plants and animals. It is not as popular of a national park as some others. This may be because it takes an extremely long time to get there. Big Bend National Park is hundreds of miles from the nearest legitimate town or airport. When people go there, they need to make sure that their cars have plenty of gas. There is a large risk of running out. When visitors get to the park, they are usually happy that they drove all the way. The park is 1,252 square miles of desert beauty. There are beautiful cactus blooms as well as glorious sunsets. The hiking trails are magnificent. Visitors can stay in a lodge that is run by the park or camp with their own equipment. However, visitors should be careful. Even though the park is incredibly hot during the day, the lack of moisture in the air makes the heat dissipate at night. The nights at Big Bend are surprisingly cold. It's important to bring a warm sleeping bag. (Adapted from TOEFL Junior Reading) Question 39. Which title best summarizes the main idea of the passage? A. A National Park to Be Visited B. A Place of Desert Flowers C. A Desert That is Cold at Night D. Cactus Blooms at Big Bend Question 40. In paragraph 1, the word “It” refers to ________. A. Chihuahua B. the United States C. Big Bend National Park D. Texas Question 41. Why does Big Bend get cold at night? A. Deserts like Big Bend experience hash winters. B. Precipitation usually comes at night. C. The air is too clear and breathable for warmth. D. It is too arid to hold the heat in the air. Question 42. In paragraph 3, the word “dissipate” is closest in meaning to ________.

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A. disturb B. disappear C. destroy D. discover Question 43. What is NOT TRUE about Big Bend National Park? A. It takes a long time to get there by car. B. It is very far away from a town or an airport. C. Visitors can go hiking there. D. It is the most well-known national park in the US. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the questions. Covering more than 70 percent of our planet, oceans are among the earth’s most valuable natural resources. They govern the weather, clean the air, help feed the world, and provide a living for millions. They also are home to most of the life on earth, from microscopic algae to the blue whale, the largest animal on the planet. Yet we’re bombarding them with pollution. By their very nature, the oceans are the end point for so much of the pollution we produce on land, however far from the coasts we may be. And from dangerous carbon emissions to choking plastic to leaking oil to constant noise, the types of ocean pollution humans generate are vast. As a result, collectively, our impact on the seas is degrading their health at an alarming rate. Here are some ocean pollution facts that everyone on our blue planet ought to know. When we burn fossil fuels, we don’t pollute just the air but the oceans, too. Indeed, today’s seas absorb as much as a quarter of all man-made carbon emissions, which changes the pH of surface waters and leads to acidification. Oceans are now acidifying faster than they have in some 300 million years. It’s estimated that by the end of this century, if we keep pace with our current emissions practices, the surface waters of the ocean could be nearly 150 percent more acidic than they are now. The majority of the garbage that enters the ocean each year is plastic. That’s because unlike other trash, the single-use grocery bags, water bottles, drinking straws, and yogurt containers, among eight million metric tons of the plastic items we toss, won’t biodegrade. Instead, they can persist in the environment for a millennium, polluting our beaches, entangling marine life, and getting ingested by fish and seabirds. Where does all this debris originate? While some is dumped directly into the seas, an estimated 80 percent of marine litter makes its way there gradually from land-based sources via storm drains, sewers, and other routes. Oil from boats, airplanes, cars, trucks, and even lawn mowers is also swimming in ocean waters. Chemical discharges from factories, raw sewage overflow from water treatment systems, and storm water and agricultural runoff add other forms of marine-poisoning pollutants to the toxic brew. The ocean is far from a “silent world.” Sound waves travel farther and faster in the sea’s dark depths than they do in the air, and many marine mammals like whales and dolphins, in addition to fish and other sea creatures, rely on communication by sound to find food, mate, and navigate. But an increasing barrage of human-generated ocean noise pollution is altering the underwater acoustic landscape, harming—and even killing—marine species worldwide. (Adapted from https://www.nrdc.org/) Question 44. Which of the following could best reflect the main idea of the passage? A. Oceans are being contaminated from many different pollution sources. B. Oceans bring myriad benefits to people on the Earth. C. Waste from human’s activities is the cause of ocean pollution. D. People should know what they have done to the oceans. Question 45. What does the word “them” in the first paragraph refer to? A. natural resources B. oceans C. millions D. blue whales Question 46. The word “degrading” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______. A. affecting B. weakening C. remaining D. enhancing Question 47. The word “persist” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______. A. process B. damage C. develop D. endure Question 48. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE? A. The oceans are mainly damaged by the pollution humans produce on the coasts. B. Most garbage we litter in the oceans can be decomposed easily. C. Sea creatures are unlikely to have a normal life because of the increase in ocean noise. D. Water treatment systems always process raw sewage before discharging it into the ocean. Question 49. Which source of ocean pollution is NOT mentioned in the passage? A. trash in the oceans B. acidification C. noise pollution D. soil pollution Question 50. It can be inferred from the passage that _______.

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A. oceans are at risk because of human’s activities. B. people don’t care much about what they have done to the oceans. C. people still can’t find an effective way to protect the oceans. D. tiny creatures are affected by the alteration of the oceans more than big ones. THE END

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA 33 (Đề thi có 05 trang)

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Họ, tên thí sinh………………………………………………………………………………………… Số báo danh: ........................................................................................................................................... Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 1. An unexpected surge in _______ power caused the computer to crash. A. electricity B. electrical C. electrically D. electrify Question 2. His welcoming speech wasn’t good, _______ ? A. wasn’t it B. was he C. was it D. wasn’t he Question 3. Children and parents should be concerned about _______ knowledge of growing vegetables and raising pets. A. bridging B. taking C. acquiring D. voicing Question 4. Regrettably, the popularity of this lake with tourists has contributed _______ its pollution. A. with B. to C. of D. for Question 5. The children had to _______ in the principal’s office after they took part in a fight. A. hit the right notes B. beat around the bush C. play second fiddle D. face the music Question 6. He couldn’t perform well in his recent test _______ his anxiety. A. though B. due to C. because D. in spite of Question 7. Tim sold his _______ bicycle to have enough money for his favourite handheld electronic game. A. German new black B. black new German C. new black German D. German black new Question 8. She hated her father for leaving, for _______ to the disease when he should have fought it. A. putting off B. calling off C. giving in D. cutting in Question 9. When we came in, they _______ the meal for us. A. prepare B. preparing C. prepared D. were preparing Question 10. By the time he finishes his speech, I _______ for over one hour. A. will have slept B. have slept C. am sleeping D. sleep Question 11. The sight of his pale face brought _______ to me how ill he really was. A. place B. house C. life D. home Question 12. The visit to my old school _______ an early memory of my favourite teacher, Mr. Bell. A. honour B. jog C. trigger D. repress Question 13. A lot of young people don’t know how the Internet _______. A. invents B. has invented C. invented D. was invented Question 14. _______ from the disease, she’s more aware of the importance of taking regular exercise. A. Having recovered B. Recover C. To recover D. Being recovered Question 15. The more time you spend on social media, _______ you feel. A. the most isolated B. more isolated C. the more isolated D. as isolated as Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 16. Mr David is having dinner with his friend in a restaurant.

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- Mr David: “Could you bring me some water?” - Waiter: “____________” A. No, thanks. B. Of course you can. C. I’m afraid not. D. Certainly, sir. Question 17. Woodley and Leonard are at the airport. Woodley: “Thank you for giving me a lift to their airport.” - Leonard: “Don’t mention it. _______” A. You’re better now. B. Be confident. C. It’s the least I can do. D. Have you heard their story? Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 18. A. renovate B. recommend C. modernize D. simplify Question 19. A. produce B. market C. urban D. report Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. B. mixed B. hand

C. needed C. bat

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Question 20. A. wicked Question 21. A. plane

D. learned D. lack

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. In 1985, the Coca-Cola Company altered the secret formula of the drink’s ingredients. A. modified B. proposed C. enriched D. restore Question 23. Due to the foot-and-mouth pandemic, the company was forced to reappraise its strategy. A. reapply B. reconsider C. remind D. recall

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 26. She had only just begun to speak when people started interrupting. A. Only when she hardly had begun to speak did people start interrupting. B. Hardly had she begun to speak when people start interrupting. C. Hardly had she begun to speak when people started interrupting. D. No sooner did people start interrupting than she began to speak. Question 27. Joe is not here with us. He will know how to fix this technical issue. A. Provided that Joe is here with us, he won’t know how to fix this technical issue. B. Joe will know how to fix this technical issue even if he is not here with us. C. We wish Joe were here with us and fixed this technical issue. D. If only Joe were here with us help fix this technical issue. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

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Question 28. Last year, my parents earn a modest income and were unable to send me to public school. A. earn B. income C. to send D. public Question 29. Participating in teamwork activities helps students develop our social skills. A. in B. activities C. helps D. our Question 30. He was so exhausted that he felt asleep at his desk. A. so B. exhausted C. felt asleep D. at

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

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Question 31. I’m certain that Johny used his smartphone in the exam as he finished it in just 5 minutes. A. Johny can’t have used his smartphone in the exam as he finished it in just 5 minutes. B. John needn’t have used his smartphone in the exam as he finished it in just 5 minutes. C. Johny might have used his smartphone in the exam as he finished it in just 5 minutes. D. Johny must have used his smartphone in the exam as he finished it in just 5 minutes. Question 32. “I’m sorry I’ve stained your new blouse,” said Olivia. A. Olivia apologized for having stained my new blouse. B. Olivia admitted having stained my new blouse. C. Olivia denied having stained my new blouse. D. Olivia promised to have stained my new blouse. Question 33. I haven’t gone to the cinema for ten years. A. It was ten years ago I went to the cinema. B. The last time I went to the cinema was ten years. C. I last went to the cinema ten years ago. D. It’s ten years I haven’t gone to the cinema.

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each the numbered blanks. The knock-on effect of volunteering on the lives of individuals can be profound. Voluntary work helps foster independence and imparts the ability to deal with different situations, often simultaneously, thus teaching people how to (34) ________ their way through different systems. It therefore brings people into touch with the real world; and, hence, equips them for the future.

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Initially, young adults in their late teens might not seem to have the expertise or knowledge to impart to others that say a teacher or agriculturalist or nurse would have, (35) ________ they do have many skills that can help others. And in the absence of any particular talent, their energy and enthusiasm can be harnessed for the benefit of their fellow human beings, and ultimately themselves. From (36) ________this, the gain to any community no matter how many volunteers are involved is (37) ________.

Question 34. A. give

B. work

C. put

D. take

Question 35. A. so

B. but

C. or

D. for

Question 36. A. all

B. none

C.above

D. both

Question 37. A. unattainable

B. immeasurable

C. undetectable

D. impassible

Question 38. A. which

B. whose

C. who

D. what

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Employers will generally look favorably on people (38) ________ have shown an ability to work as part of a team. It demonstrates a willingness to learn and an independent spirit, which would be desirable qualities in any employee.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question.

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Do you ever speak with your mouth full of food? Do you forget to cover your mouth with your hand when you sneeze? If you are guilty of these ‘crimes’, then perhaps you should enrol on an Etiquete and Social Skills course. This is not just an ordinary course. It’s a course in manners. You will have lessons in good manners and how to behave in social situations. The person who teachers these lessons is Maggie O’Farrill at the Petite Protocol School, and her students are aged between six and twelve years old. She thinks this is the best time to teach kids. “At this age they are very easy”, O’Farrill says. “When they get older, it’s harder for them to break bad habits. Children at this age want to be polite. You can see that they’re trying. Maggie instructs the children to speak properly on the phone and walk correctly, as well as telling them about basic table manners. These classes have become popular because parents want well-behaved children but they are too busy to teach manners at home. So, what do the children actually think of this course? The classes have proven to be popular with most of the children, and the teachers at school have noticed that the youngsters are treating each other with more respect. They also feel the skills they have learnt will be useful to them in the future. Maggie O’Farrill herself believes that such skills can be life-changing. “We’ll have children growing up who value manners. Maybe we’ll see a change in direction for the better in society”. That, however, remains to be seen. Only time will tell.” (Adapted from Upstream Level B1+ by Virginia Evans and Lynda Edwards) Question 39. Which could be the best title for the passage? A. Mind your manners B. Say please and thank you C. Bad habits start from childhood D. Maggie’s dream Question 40. The word “properly” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______ . A. effortlessly B. rightly C. thoroughly D. fascinatingly Question 41. The word “they” in Paragraph 3 refer to _______ . A. the classes B. the teachers C. the students D. the skills Question 42. According to paragraph 2, which of the following is stated regarding the Etiquette and Social Skills Course? A. Pupils at the Petite Protocol School range from toddlers to teenagers. B. The teacher believes the children on the course are at an appropriate age for learning. C. At the school, children learn to keep their elbows of the table when eating. D. Parents don’t view manners as important as other home-skills. Question 43. Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage? A. The course in manners has lead to successful breakthrough’s in society. B. All participants of the course have found it worthwhile. C. The course teaches children how to conduct themselves in everyday situations. D. The teachers have noticed that the children on the course are more confident around their peers. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question.

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It is estimated that by 2050 more than two-thirds of the world's population will live in cities, up from about 54 percent today. While the many benefits of organized and efficient cities are well understood, we need to recognize that this rapid, often unplanned urbanization brings risks of profound social instability, risks to critical infrastructure, potential water crises and the potential for devastating spread of disease. These risks can only be further exacerbated as this unprecedented transition from rural to urban areas continues. How effectively these risks can be addressed will increasingly be determined by how well cities are governed. The increased concentration of people, physical assets, infrastructure and economic activities mean that the risks materializing at the city level will have far greater potential to disrupt society than ever before.

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Urbanization is by no means bad by itself. It brings important benefits for economic, cultural and societal development. Well managed cities are both efficient and effective, enabling economies of scale and network effects while reducing the impact on the climate of transportation. As such, an urban model can make economic activity more environmentally-friendly. Further, the proximity and diversity of people can spark innovation and create employment as exchanging ideas breeds new ideas. But these utopian concepts are threatened by some of the factors driving rapid urbanization. For example, one of the main factors is rural-urban migration, driven by the prospect of greater employment opportunities and the hope of a better life in cities. But rapidly increasing population density can create severe problems, especially if planning efforts are not sufficient to cope with the influx of new inhabitants. The result may, in extreme cases, be widespread poverty. Estimates suggest that 40% of the world's urban expansion is taking place in slums, exacerbating socio-economic disparities and creating unsanitary conditions that facilitate the spread of disease. The Global Risks 2015 Report looks at four areas that face particularly daunting challenges in the face of rapid and unplanned urbanization: infrastructure, health, climate change, and social instability. In each of these areas we find new risks that can best be managed or, in some cases, transferred through the mechanism of insurance. Question 44: The word “that" in paragraph 4 refers to __________. A. urban expansion B. socio-economic disparities C. disease D. unsanitary conditions Question 45: According to paragraph 3, what is one of the advantages of urbanization? A. It minimizes risks for economic, cultural and societal development. B. It makes water supply system both efficient and effective. C. Weather and climate in the city will be much improved. D. People may come up with new ideas for innovation. Question 46: Which statement is TRUE, according to the passage? A. Urbanization brings important benefits for development as well. B. 54% of the world's population will live in cities by 2050. C. Risks cannot be addressed effectively no matter how well cities are governed. D. Rapidly increasing population density can help solve poverty. Question 47: The word "addressed" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________. A. aimed at B. dealt with C. added to D. agreed on Question 48: What can be inferred from the passage? A. Poverty may be a foregone conclusion of unplanned urbanization. B. Diseases are caused by people migrating to cities. C. Urbanization can solve the problem of environmental pollution in cities. D. The increasing number of people in cities can create more employment. Question 49: Which is the most suitable title for the passage? A. The Risks of Rapid Urbanization in Developing Countries B. Infrastructure and Economic Activities in Cities C. The Global Risks 2015 Report on Developing Urban Areas D. Rapid Urbanization Put Cities in Jeopardy Question 50: The word “spark” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___________. A. need B. start C. encourage D. design

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA 34 (Đề thi có 05 trang)

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Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 1: Jet lag causes problems with our _____ clock. A. biological B. biology C. biologist D. Biologically Question 2: They invited him to the party, ______? A. do they B. don’t they C. did they D. didn’t they Question 3: The political candidate knew the issue was a hot_______, so he deferred to his chief of staff, whodirected questions to the committee chairperson. A. tomato B. potato C. pot D. dog Question 4: I agree _______one point with Chris: it will be hard for us to walk 80km. A. in B. of C. on D. For Question 5: Due to lacking ___________, they couldn’t open a new shop as scheduled. A. interest rates B. funds C. shares B. expenses Question 6: The bus was late, ______we missed the last train back to our hometown. A. so B. therefore C. nor D. nevertheless Question 7: Lara goes to a ______ temple every week. A. great big ancient Buddhist B. Buddhist great big ancient C. ancient great big Buddhist D. big great ancient Buddhist Question 8: Because of the heavy rain, we are going to have to ______ the soccer match until next week. A. turn down B. put off C. set off D. set up Question 9: My cousin broke his leg when he _____ football last week. A. was playing B. plays C. has played D. played Question 10: _______, my classmates will have bought the ticket for me. A. By the time I arrive at the cinema B. After I have arrive at the cinema C. When I arrived at the cinema D. As I had arrived at the cinema Question 11: The campaign against drinking and driving has ______ road accidents by 25%. A. avoided B. caused C. witnessed D. reduced Question 12: People who take on a second job inevitably ______ themselves to greater stress. A. offer B. subject C. field D. place Question 13: Millions of bars of chocolate ______ in the world each day. A. consume B. consumed C. are consuming D. are consumed Question 14: _______ the man in front of the bank had strange actions, I immediately reported it to the police. A. Seeing that B. Being seen that C. Have seen that D. To see that Question 15: The sooner you apply for the post, ______ you are accepted. A. the most likely B. the more likely C. more likely D. most likely

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 16: Maggie and Peterson are chatting during the break time. Maggie: “What do you think about the new physics teacher?” Peterson: “___________” A. Mind your own business. C. It’s in the classroom. B. He’s clever, isn’t he? D. Physics is a difficult subject. Question 17: Lan and Bach are visiting an art gallery. Lan: “Look at this picture of an upright piano!” Bach: “__________”

A. You are so irritating. B. Why can’t you?

C. I felt hot. D. Who drew it?

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 18: A. possession B. politics C. revision D. proposal Question 19: A. receive B. proper C. process D. leader

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 20: A. bounced B. closed C. caused D. sneezed Question 21: A. emit B. highlight C. island D. idol

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Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: As a sociable student, Pete likes to spend his free time taking part in many of the school’s clubs. A. mischievous B. outgoing C. caring D. shy Question 23: For some students, mastering English grammar is difficult. A. hard B. easy C. relaxing D. interesting Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24: Getting tons of spam emails from different companies trying to sell you something every day is a real pain in the neck. A. relaxing B. irritating C. healthy D. painless Question 25: Tom was really good at producing elaborate sketches of buildings around the city. A. ugly-looking B. slight C. mild D. simple

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 26: I drank the liquid. Right after that I realized it was not water. A. No sooner I had drunk the liquid than I realized that it was not water. B. Only after I drink the liquid will I realize it is not water. C. Only when I drank the liquid did I realize it was water. D. Hardly had I drunk the liquid than I realized that it was water. Question 27: Jack dropped out of school at the age of 15. He now regrets it. A. If only Jack had dropped out of school when he was 15. B. If Jack dropped out of school when he was 15, he would regret it. C. Jack wishes he hadn’t dropped out of school when he was 15. D. Jack regrets not having dropped out of school when he was 15.

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Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 28: When I got home, Irene was lying in bed thinking about what a wonderful time she has had. A. home B. lying C. wonderful time D. has had Question 29: Elephants are in dangered of extinction because poachers have hunted them for its ivory tusks. A. of B. because C. hunted D. its Question 30: Sometimes it is better not to say the truth if someone is likely to be upset unnecessarily. A. say B. truth C. upset D. unnecessarily Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 31: The lights are on, so I’m sure Dan is at home.

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A. Dan must be at home as the lights are on. B. Dan can’t be at home as the lights are on. C. Dan must have been at home as the lights were on. D. Dan should have been at home to turn on the lights. Question 32: “He is playing volleyball with your brother.” she said to me. A. She told me he was playing volleyball with your brother. B. She told me she was playing volleyball with my brother. C. She told me he was playing volleyball with my brother. D. She told me he was playing volleyball with her brother. Question 33: Peter started learning to play the piano two months ago. A. Peter has learned to play the piano for two months. B. Peter is learning to play the piano at the moment. C. Peter stopped learning to play the piano two months ago. D. Peter has never learned to play the piano.

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each the numbered blanks. EUROPEAN COMPANIES ACT TO WARD OFF CORONAVIRUS For weeks, the coronavirus outbreak in China rattled global supply chains, exacting a toll on major businesses around the world, though often in indirect ways. Now, as it spreads across Europe and Asia, the virus is becoming a more immediate threat to (34)_______ types of businesses. From Milan to Berlin to London, companies in practically every industry are (35)_______ their emergency protocols or sending employees home to try to preven an outbreak. This week, Chevron instructed 300 workers at one of its London offices to work from home (36)_____ an employee returning from Italy developed flu-like (37)_______. The media group OMF has taken the same step in the Fitzrovia district of London, sending home around 1,000 employees after a staff member (38)______ recently passed through Singapore began showing symptoms. Adapted from The New York Times Question 34. A. all B. much C. few D. another Question 35. A. defining B. refining C. containing D. observing Question 36. A. after B. before C. while D. during Question 37. A. cases B. problems C. risks D. symptoms Question 38. A. whom B. which C. who D. whose

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question. As Hurricane Florence zeroes in on the southeastern US, scientists are warning that climate change is exacerbating the effect of tropical storms. The powerful Category 4 Atlantic weather-front is slow moving, an increasingly common phenomenon that poses a different manner of threat to states in its path. In the event that Florence stalls or comes to a halt altogether over land, it has the potential to deposit catastrophic quantities of rainwater, posing a of severe flash flooding. While the high winds and waves generated by faster storms moving inland from the ocean pose a significant danger to human life and property, the effect of heavy rain can be just as devastating, if not more so. When Hurricane Harvey hit in August 2017, it dropped 60 inches of rain over Houston, Texas, flooding the streets, leaving 93 dead and hundreds more having to be rescued by boat, causing millions of dollars-worth of damage. James Kossin of the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration published a study in the journal Nature in June suggesting that slow-moving tropical cyclones, which would include those like Florence and Harvey, have become more common over the last 70 dropping in speed by 10 per cent in that time. According to Mr Kossin, global warming as a result of man-made air pollution is causing the poles to become warmer, which in turn reduces the difference in temperature between the Arctic and Antarctic and the equator, altering atmospheric pressure and slowing down the whipping currents of wind that pass between them and drive hurricanes, (Adapted from https://www.indepenclent.co.uk/environment) Question 39: The best title for this passage could be _______________.

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A. danger of hurricane in US B. climate change and the threat from tropical storms C. climate change and people activities D. storms cause millions of dollars-worth of damage Question 40: Which statement about Hurricane Harvey is probably TRUE according to the passage ? A. It caused the floods in all the streets in US B. It caused a significant danger to people and property. C. It made citizens in Texas suffer from floods and damage. D. It made residents lose millions of dollars. Question 41: The word “which” in paragraph 3 refers to ______. A. tropical cyclones B. a study C. Florence D. Harvey Question 42: in the 3rd paragraph, James Kossin suggests that ______. A. over the last years, human activities have made global warming worse. B. over the last years, people cause the poles to become hotter. C. over the last 70 years, Florence and Harvey are common in Texas. D. over the last 70 years, slow-moving tropical cyclones have become more common. Question 43: The word “altering” in paragraph 3 means _ ______. A. fastening B. changing C. remaining D. keeping

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question. How busy is too busy? For some it means having to miss the occasional long lunch; for others, it means missing lunch altogether. For a few, it is not being able to take a "sickie" once a month. Then there is a group of people for whom working every evening and weekend is normal, and frantic is the tempo of their lives. For most senior executives, workloads swing between extremely busy and frenzied. The vice-president of the management consultancy AT Kearney and its head of telecommunications for the Asia-Pacific region, Neil Plumridge, says his work weeks vary from a “manageable” 45 hours to 80 hours, but average 60 hours. Three warning signs alert Plumridge about his workload: sleep, scheduling and family. He knows he has too much on when he gets less than six hours of sleep for three consecutive nights; when he is constantly having to reschedule appointments; "and the third one is on the family side", says Plumridge, the father of a three-year-old daughter, and expecting a second child in October. "If I happen to miss a birthday or anniversary, I know things are out of control." Being "too busy" is highly subjective. But for any individual, the perception of being too busy over a prolonged period can start showing up as stress: disturbed sleep, and declining mental and physical health. National workers' compensation figures show stress causes the most lost time of any workplace injury. Employees suffering stress are off work an average of 16.6 weeks. The effects of stress are also expensive. Comcare, the Federal Government insurer, reports that in 2003-04, claims for psychological injury accounted for 7% of claims but almost 27% of claim costs. Experts say the key to dealing with stress is not to focus on relief - a game of golf or a massage - but to reassess workloads. Neil Plumridge says he makes it a priority to work out what has to change; that might mean allocating extra resources to a job, allowing more time or changing expectations. The decision may take several days. He also relies on the advice of colleagues, saying his peers coach each other with business problems. "Just a fresh pair of eyes over an issue can help," he says. Executive stress is not confined to big organizations. Vanessa Stoykov has been running her own advertising and public relations business for seven years, specializing in work for financial and professional services firms, Evolution Media has grown so fast that it debuted on the BRW Fast 100 list of fastest-growing small enterprises last year - just after Stoykov had her first child. Stoykov thrives on the mental stimulation of running her own business. "Like everyone, I have the occasional day when I think my head's going to blow off," she says. Because of the growth phase the business is in, Stoykov has to concentrate on short-term stress relief - weekends in the mountains, the occasional "mental health" day -rather than delegating more work, She says: “We're hiring more people, but you need to train them, teach them about the culture and the clients, so it's actually more work rather than less.” (Source: www.ielts-mentor.com) Question 44: Which of the following could be the title of the passage?

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A. The stress of workplace B. The average of working hours of senior executives C. Some major groups of busy people D. The warning signs of workload Question 45: The word "consecutive" in paragraph 2 mostly means ______. A. interrupted B. solitary C. successive D. intermittent Question 46: As mentioned in paragraph 2, the following sentences are true about the work stress, EXCEPT ______. A. Disturbed sleep and reducing mental and physical health are the symptom of being too busy. B. The lost time caused by stress ranks last in comparison with other workplace injuries. C. The cost paid for psychological injury was rather high. D. Relief is not the effective way to cope with stress. Question 47: The word "reassess" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to______. A. re-evaluate B. consider C. reduce D. estimate Question 48: What does the word "he" in paragraph 2 refer to? A. Comcare B. Expert C. Neil Plumridge D. Employee Question 49: According to the last paragraph, what measure does Vanessa Stoykov take to reduce work stress? A. delegating more work B. taking brief vacations on weekends C. hiring more people D. allowing more time or changing expectations Question 50: It can be inferred from the passage that ______. A. stress appears in almost every position in workplace. B. employees working in big organizations will suffer more stress than others. C. the more the business grows, the more stress people get. D. good colleagues can help to reduce stress.

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA 35 (Đề thi có 05 trang)

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Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 1: The statement of the witness didn’t help the police in the investigation, so it proved to be____. A. valuable B. valueless C. valuably D. invaluable Question 2: I’m a bit late, ____? A. am not I B. aren’t you C. are you D. aren’t I Question 3: When confronted with a mass of____tape, many people feel a sense of powerlessness. A. red B. green C. blue D. brown Question 4: When are you leaving____Singapore? This week or next week? A. for B. in C. to D. at Question 5: The ____ for this position starts at thirty thousand euros per year. A. wage B. pension C. salary D. income Question 6: ____the management has decided on the order of events for the training day, a memo will be sent to all staff. A. While B. Once C. Hardly D. Because Question 7: At first sight I met her. I was impressed with her ____eyes. A. big beautiful round black B. beautiful black big round C. beautiful big round black D. beautiful round big black Question 8: John and Miley ____ last month. They weren’t happy in this relationship. A. broke up B. brought up C. got over D. broke off Question 9: Tom burnt his hand when he _____ dinner. A. was cooking B. were cooking C. has cooked D. cooked Question 10: I won’t return these books to the library until I ____ my research project. A. finished B. will finish C. finish D. am going to finish Question 11: Lifelong learning can also help ____ some of the weaknesses of the education system. A. amend B. repair C. mend D. adjust Question 12: If we didn't____any measures to protect whales, they would disappear forever. A. use B. make C. take D. do th Question 13: The 26 Annual Meeting of the Asia-Pacific Parliamentary Forum (APPF) in th st Hanoi, our beautiful and peaceful capital city, from January 18 to 21 , 2018. A. was held B. is held C. is being held D. will be held Question 14: ____a very big breakfast, the kids refused to have anything for lunch. A. Having eaten B. Have eaten C. Being eaten D. Eaten Question 15: The more you practise your English, ____. A. you will learn faster B. the faster you will learn C. faster you will learn D. the faster will you learn

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 16: Nam and Mai are having a party at Nam’s house. - Nam: “Would you like to have some more dessert, Mai?” - Mai: “______. I’m full.” A. That would be great B. Yes, I like your party C. Yes, please D. No, thanks Question 17: Susan accidentally stepped on Denise’s foot. - Susan: “Oops! I’m sorry, Denise.”

- Denise: “ ” A. You shouldn’t do that.

B. It’s alright.

C. You are welcome. D. It’s nonsense

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 18: A. preference B. occurrence C. dependence D. example Question 19: A. enter B. country C. canal D. cover

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 20: A. invited B. attended C. celebrated D. displayed Question 21: A. silent B. equip C. picnic D. ticket

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Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: 75% of the world's population habitually consume caffeine, which up to a point masks the symptoms of sleep deprivation. A. offer B. loss C. supply D. Damage Question 23: I tried to confabulate with my new neighbor outside my apartment, but he doesn’t seem to welcome a stranger. A. familiarize B. chat C. greet D. assimilate

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Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24: My cousin tends to look on the bright side in any circumstance. A. be optimistic B. be pessimistic C. be confident D. be smart Question 25: No downward trend in mortality is apparent in any country before the middle of the eighteenth century. A. death rate B. birth rate C. fertility D. sexuality Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 26: My daughter couldn’t speak a word. She could do that when she was three. A. Not until my daughter was three, she could speak a word. B. It was before my daughter was three that she could speak a word. C. Not until my daughter was three could she speak a word. D. My daughter couldn’t speak a word even after she was three. Question 27: Nam was so rude to them last night. Now he feels regretful. A. Nam regrets to have been so rude to them last night. B. Nam regrets having so rude to them last night. C. Nam wishes he hadn’t been so rude to them last night. D. Nam wishes he weren’t so rude to them last night.

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Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 28: A. What I told her B. is C. to D. most of Question 29: Some manufacturers are not only raising their prices but also decreasing the production of its products. A. raising B. but C. decreasing D. its Question 30: It is essential to provide high school students with adequate career orientation, so they can make more informative decisions about their future major. A. essential B. orientation C. informative D. major

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 31: You are not allowed to take photos in the museum. A. You may take photos in the museum. B. You should take photos in the museum. C. You mustn't take photos in the museum. D. You needn't take photos in the museum. Question 32: Tom said, “I’ll give you this book back tomorrow, Mary.” A. Tom told Mary that I would give you that book back the next day. B. Tom told Mary that he would give her that book back the next day. C. Tom told Mary that he wouldn’t give her that book back the next day. D. Tom said to Mary that she would give him that book back the next day. Question 33: She last visited her home country ten years ago. A. She hasn't visited her home country for ten years. B. She didn't visit her home country ten years ago. C. She has visited her home country for ten years. D. She was in her home country for ten years.

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each the numbered blanks. Here are some hand gestures and what they mean in different countries and cultures; "Thumbs up" widely recognized sign of approval or agreement is actually used as an (34)____in Bangladesh. In certain parts of the Middle East, thumbs-up is definitely a highly offensive thumbs-down. The thumbsup sign has been confusing people for thousands of years! This is used in the United States to ask a person to step forward, but in Asia this gesture isn’t welcome. It should only be used to beckon dogs (35) ____you do it in the Philippines you could be arrested. In USA “the horn fingers" is adopted by rockers and it is a sign of approval, rock on! But in (36) ____ Mediterranean and Latin countries, such as Argentina, Brazil, Colombia, Cuba, Spain, Italy and Portugal, to make this sign at someone is to tell them (37) ____their spouse is cheating on them. Looking at your watch means “I'm in a hurry” or “I've got to be somewhere." In the Middle East, however, a (38) ____should run its natural course, as it would be very rude to look at your watch midconversation. (Source: https://blog.busuu.com/what-hand-gestures-mean-in-different-countries/) Question 34: A. consult B. result C. insult D. assault Question 35: A. as B. unless C. when D. if Question 36: A. many B. few C. much D. another Question 37: A. that B. which C. who D. whom Question 38: A. speech B. conversation C. dialogue D. chat

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question. Japanese Girls' Day-also known as the Doll's Festival-is celebrated on March 3 to pray for the health and happiness of young girls in Japan. Hinamatsuri, the name of the celebration in Japan, is marked by families displaying a set of hina dolls in the house and serving special delicacies that are ceremonially beautiful and delicious. Traditionally, parents or grandparents of a newborn girl buy a set of hina dolls for the baby, unless they have special dolls that are inherited from generation to generation. From the end of February to March 3, hina dolls dressed in Japanese ancient costumes are displayed on tiered platforms that are covered with a red carpet. The costumed dolls represent the imperial court of the Heian period (A.D. 794 to 1185] and feature the emperor, empress, attendants, and musicians dressed in traditional garb. The dolls are displayed hierarchically with the emperor and empress at the top, which are set in front of a gilded screen representing the thrown. The number of dolls and their size vary from home to home, but five to seven platforms are common. It is customary to put the dolls away as soon as the festival is over-there is a superstition that if the dolls are left out, a family will have trouble marrying off their daughters. After the festival, some people release paper dolls into the rivers praying that this will send away sickness and bad fortune.

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(Adapted from https:'/'/ivwiv. thespruceeats.com/) Question 39: Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage? A. Japanese Girls' Day. B. Different types of dolls for baby C. Procedure of Hinamatsuri. D. The way to display the dolls. Question 40: The word "delicacies" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to A. rare flowers B. expensive foods C. traditional cakes D. beverages Question 41: According to the passage, the following are true about Japanese Girls' Day, EXCEPT _____ A. It is organized on March 3 to pray for health and happiness of Japanese girls. B. Some sets of hina dolls are preserved to pass down the younger generation. C. Before the festival, hina dolls in ancient costumes are covered with a red carpet. D. The hina dolls are categorized according to their hierarchy in the imperial court. Question 42: What will be done with the dolls after the festival? A. being thrown away B. being stored C. being sold D. being displayed in the girls' room Question 43: What does the word “this” in the last paragraph refer to? A. marrying off their daughters B. leaving out the hina dolls C. putting the dolls away as soon as possible D. putting paper dolls into the rivers

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question. Astronomers have for the first time definitively ID’d the birth of a specific heavy element during a neutron-star smashup. They found strontium. And it showed up in the wavelengths of light — or spectra — making up this collision’s afterglow. Scientists had assumed that a collision by two super-dense objects, such as neutron stars, would trigger a chain of nuclear reactions. They’re known as the r-process. In such an environment, the nuclei of atoms could rapidly gobble up neutrons. Afterward, those nuclei would become transformed in a process known as radioactive decay. The r-process was seen as a way to transform old, smaller elements into newer, bigger ones. About half of all elements heavier than iron were thought to be made in the rprocess. Finding strontium in the recent collision at last offered the most direct evidence yet that neutron-star collisions really do trigger the r-process. Physicists had long predicted that silver, gold and many other elements more massive than iron formed this way. But scientists weren’t sure where those r-process reactions took place. After all, no one had directly seen the r-process underway in a celestial event. Or they didn’t until the merger of two neutron stars in 2017. Scientists quickly analyzed light given off by that cataclysm. In it, they found evidence of the birth of a hodgepodge of heavy elements. All would seem to have come from the rprocess. The researchers were examining mostly very heavy elements — ones whose complex atomic structures can generate millions of spectral features. And all of those features were not yet fully known, Watson points out. This made it extremely difficult to tease apart which elements were present, he says. Strontium, however, is relatively light compared to other r-process elements. And its simple atomic structure creates a few strong and well-known spectral clues. So Watson and his colleagues expanded their analysis to consider it. In doing so, they turned up the clear "fingerprint" of strontium. It emerged in light collected by the Very Large Telescope in Chile within a few days of the neutron-star collision. Seeing strontium in the afterglow wasn’t all that unexpected, says Brian Metzger. He’s an astrophysicist at Columbia University in New York City and not involved in the new work. Strontium, he notes, “does tell us something interesting” about the elements formed during the neutron-star collision. (Source: https://www.sciencenewsforstudents.org/) Question 44. Which best serves as the title for the passage? A. Gravitational waves linked to neutron star collision. B. A nearby neutron star crash could cause calamity on Earth. C. Neutron-star collision shakes space and time.

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D. Heavy element identified from a neutron-star collision. Question 45. The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to _____. A. collision B. afterglow C. smashup D. strontium Question 46. According to paragraph 2, what is NOT mentioned about the r-process? A. R-process happens before the radioactive decay process. B. R-process reactions are similar to thermonuclear weapon explosions. C. R-process is a set of nuclear reactions initiated by neuron-star collision. D. It is responsible for the creation of approximately half of the atomic nuclei heavier than iron. Question 47. The word “hodgepodge” in paragraph 3 can be replaced by _______. A. selection B. jumble C. assemblage D. medley Question 48. The word “tease” in paragraph 4 can be replaced by _______. A. tell B. tear C. taunt D. move Question 49. According to paragraph 5, why did the researchers extend the reviewed scale of elements for strontium? A. Strontium is similar to Barium and the lanthanides – which have strong spectroscopic feature. B. It had been thought that only the most robust elements would be made in neutron-star collisions. C. Strontium was only discovered after the observation of the crash, thus could not be considered. D. Strontium’s properties are quite different from the original considered set of elements. Câu 50. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? A. Spotted strontium supports the idea that neutron-star mergers create many elements heavier than iron. B. Scientists have detected a new element for the periodic table in the aftermath of a neutron star crash. C. A neutron-rich environment generates lighter r-process elements than a neutron-free one. D. A pair of black holes is more productive than that of neutron stars in creating gold.

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA 36 (Đề thi có 05 trang)

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Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 1. Hanoi has nearly completed all__________for the upcoming 31st Southeast Asian Games ( SEA Games 31). A. prepare B. preparingly C. preparations D. preparatory Question 2. No one on the plane was alive in the accident last night,___________? A. were they B. wasn’t he C. weren’t they D. was he Question 3. They _________ sacrifices so that their only child could have a good education. A. did B. made C. provided D. lent Question 4. This year’s high school graduation exam is set to take place_______July 6, 7 and 8. A. in B. on C. at D. for Question 5. We've made some great improvements over the past three months, but we're still not out of the _______ . A. jungle B. woods C. bush D. dark Question 6. I presume that they're not coming ___________ they haven't replied to the invitation. A. in spite of B. although C. because of D. because Question 7. It is an ________ woman whom I met at the supermarket. A. intelligent English young B. English young intelligent C. young intelligent English D. intelligent young English Question 8. In Viet Nam, you shouldn’t _________ at somebody house on the 1st day of the New Year unless you have been invited by the house owner. A. put up B. go up C. get up D. show up Question 9. I don’t understand why the students didn’t keep silent while the teacher_______the speech. A. made B. was made C. was making D. makes Question 10. I will have been away from home for more than three years___________. A. by the time I return to my country next month. B. as soon as I will return next month C. until I will have returned next month D. once I had returned next month Question 11. Stop being an _____ critic and let me choose the route, as I actually know this town like the back of my hand. A. bench B. chair C. desk D. armchair Question 12. The president agreed to ______ the constitution and allow multi-party elections. A. repair B. mend C. amend D. fix Question 13. The first round of France’s 2022 presidential election_________on 10 April. A. was held B. held C. was holding D. had held Question 14. ________ the former champion in three sets, Nam won the inter-school table tennis championship. A. Having defeated B. Being defeated C. Defeated D. To defeat Question 15. :______ the wind, the heavier the rain. A. stronger B. The strongest C. strongest D. The stronger

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 16. Hoa’s father is asking her about her new job in the bank. Hoa’s father: “Do you enjoy your new job in that bank?” Hoa: “__________” A. Yes, I did. B. Thank you for asking. C. Why not enjoying? D. Not very much. Question 17. Joana and David, two students, are talking about studying abroad. Joana: “I think studying abroad is the only way to get a well-paid.” David: “___________. There’re still many different ways to get it.” A. You’re exactly right B. I don’t think so C. That’s what I think D. There’s no doubt about it Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 18. A. company B. adventure C. instrument D. business Question 19. A. provide B. succeed C. broaden D. pursue Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 20. A. examined B. maintained C. serviced D. delivered Question 21. A. dream B. cream C. scream D. bread Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22. Many Vietnamese teenagers used to idolize Ngo Ba Kha because of his weird dances and negative speeches. A. worship B. detest C. impress D. hate Question 23. The emblem of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations was designed basing on rice – the most important crop for the Southeast Asian people. A. banner B. logo C. motto D. slogan Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24 . We respectfully advise the Culture Secretary not to put her shirt on it. A. be sure about B. be doubtful about C. get rid of D. become interested in Question 25. In 2018 there was a craze for Bitcoin mining in Vietnam due to the belief that it would bring impressive profits. A. inclination B. fever C. indifference D. sorrow Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 26. It is impossible for us to predict the ending of such a mind-blowing movie. A. Rarely will the ending of such a mind-blowing movie be revealed. B. Little can we say about how such a mind-blowing movie will end. C. On no account will we tell you the result of such a mind-blowing movie. D. On no condition can we understand the outcome of such a mind-blowing movie. Question 27. I didn’t go to Sam Son to watch the fireworks on 23 rd April. I regret that. A. If I went to Sam Son, I could watch the fireworks on 23 rd April. B. I wish I had gone to Sam Son to watch the fireworks on 23 rd April. C. I regret having gone to Sam So to watch the fireworks on 23rd April. D. If only I didn’t go to Sam Son to watch the fireworks on 23rd April.

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Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 28. A new school with more than 50 classrooms has been built in our local area last month. A. with B. more than C. has just been D. local area Question 29. Some snakes have hollow teeth called fans that they use to poison its victims. A. Some B. called C. use D. its Question 30. I wouldn’t like to transact business with such an insoluble company. A. wouldn’t like B. transact C. with D. insoluble Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 31. It was unnecessary for Tim to take more clothes on a two-day trip. A. Tim needn't have taken so many clothes on a two-day trip. B. Tim mustn't have taken so many clothes on a two-day trip. C. Tim could have taken so many clothes on a two-day trip. D. Tim can't have taken so many clothes on a two-day trip. Question 32. “Have you taken part in the game show The Road to Mount Olympia? ” she said me. A. She asked me whether had you ever taken part in the game show The Road to Mount Olympia. B. She wanted to know if I have taken part in the game show The Road to Mount Olympia. C. She wanted to know if I took part in the game show The Road to Mount Olympia. . D. She asked me if I had taken part in the game show The Road to Mount Olympia. Question 33. I last ate this kind of food five years ago. A. I haven’t eaten this kind of food for five years. B. I ate this kind of food for five years. C. I didn’t eat this kind of food five years ago. D. I have eaten this kind of food for five years. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each the numbered blanks. Higher education also provides a competitive edge in the career market. We all know that in the economic times we are living in today, finding jobs is not guaranteed. The number of people unemployed is still relatively high, and the (34)________ of new career opportunities isn’t nearly enough to put people in jobs they are seeking. As a job seeker, you’re competing with a high number of experienced workers (35) _______ have been out of the workforce for a while and are also seeking work. (36) _______, when you have a higher education, it generally equips you for better job security. Generally speaking, employers tend to value those who have completed college than those who have only completed high school and are more likely to replace that person who hasn’t (37) ______ a higher education. Furthermore, some companies even go so far as to pay your tuition because they consider an educated (38) ______ to be valuable to their organization. A college education is an investment that doesn’t just provide you with substantial rewards. It benefits the hiring company as well. Question 34. A. amount B. number C. deal D. much Question 35. A. who B. where C. whose D. which Question 36. A. Otherwise B. Moreover C. Therefore D. However Question 37. A. permitted B. received C. refused D. applied Question 38. A. employment B. employer C. employee D. unemployment Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question.

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There are two factors which determine an individual's intelligence. The first is the sort of brain he is born with. Human brains differ considerably, some being more capable than others. But no matter how good a brain he has to begin with, an individual will have a low order of intelligence unless he has opportunities to learn. So the second factor is what happens to the individual–the sort of environment in which he is reared. If an individual is handicapped environmentally, it is likely that his brain will fail to develop and he will never attain the level of intelligence of which he is capable. The importance of environment in determining an individual's intelligence can be demonstrated by the case history of the identical twins, Peter and Mark X. Being identical, the twins had identical brains at birth, and their growth processes were the same. When the twins were three months old, their parents died, and they were placed in separate foster homes. Peter was reared by parents of low intelligence in an isolated community with poor educational opportunities. Mark was reared in the home of well–to–do parents who had been to college. He was read to as a child, sent to good schools, and given every opportunity to be stimulated intellectually. This environmental difference continued until the twins were in their late teens, when they were given tests to measure their intelligence. Mark's I. Q. was 125, twenty–five points higher than the average and fully forty points higher than his identical brother. Given equal opportunities, the twins, having identical brains, would have tested at roughly the same level. Question 39. Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage? A. human brains do not differ considerably right from birth. B. the brain a person is born with is important in determining his intelligence. C. environment is crucial in determining a person's intelligence. D. persons having identical brains will have roughly the same intelligence. Question 40. The word “which” in the first paragraph refers to _________. A. second factor B. sort of environment C. his brain D. level of intelligence Question 41. The case history of the twins appears to support the conclusion that________. A. individual with identical brains seldom test at same level B. an individual's intelligence is determined only by his environment C. lack of opportunity blocks the growth of intelligence D. changes of environment produce changes in the structure of the brain Question 42. The word "well-to-do" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to______. A. caring B. wealthy C. poor D. intelligent Question 43. What could be the best title for the passage? A. Measuring Your Intelligence B. Intelligence and Environment C. The Case of Peter and Mark D. How the Brain Influences Intelligence

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question. Speed reading is not just a parlour trick you can use to impress your friends and family. For many, it's a necessary tool for managing time and information in the fast-paced business world; and for many others, specifically students, it's the only way to get through reading-heavy class loads. The practiced speed reader can pick up a lengthy document or a thick stack of paper and use their skill to get the meat of their subject by skimming for the most important details and information. Without developing the ability to speed read, this time-saving technique is merely flipping through pages fast. Speed reading, or increasing the rate at which you read text, is linked to increasing the rate at which you understand what you’re reading. The key to successful speed reading is increasing your understanding of the text as you increase the rate at which you read the words. This natural step takes training and practice, but don’t be intimidated by the idea of a challenge. Once you've mastered it, it's a skill that will stick with you for the rest

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of your life. With continued practice, common words and sentence structures became more familiar and because your brain was tuned and ready, your eyes started taking in blocks of words at a time. The difference between average readers and speed readers is in the blocks of words their eyes take in at one time. The larger the blocks, the faster your eyes move through the text. Speed reading teaches you how to take your reading and your comprehension to the next level. The techniques used in teaching speed reading focus on your individual abilities, namely where you are right now and what might be keeping you from progressing. For example, if you are a slow reader, factors that hold you back may include, but are not limited to, moving your lips or reading out loud or holding the text too close to your eyes. If you are in the practice of moving your lips, or speaking or whispering while you read, you're slowing yourself down dramatically. Your lips can only move so fast. You should be able to read at least two or three times faster than you can speak. In effect, you’re keeping yourself at that word-by-word stage that children generally grow out of in elementary school. Having the ability to speed read can make a significant difference in your life, especially if reading is a strong component of your work. Implementing some simple techniques can get you reading faster and more efficiently in no lime at all. (From Understanding Speed Reading by Brandon C.Hall) Question 44. What is the passage mainly about? A. The practice of speed reading B. Features of speed reading C. The use of speed reading in studies D. Various roles of speed reading Question 45. The word "meat" is closest in meaning to______. A. core B. nourishment C. understanding D. nutriment Question 46. According to the passage, why is speed reading useful for students? A. They have problems collecting information. B. They can impress their friends. C. They have difficulty managing their time. D. They have a lot of reading to do. Question 47. The word "intimidated " is closest in meaning to______. A. shy B. angry C. frightened D. tired Question 48. The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to _______ . A. speed reading B. training C. idea of challenge D. being intimidated Question 49. According to the passage, what is TRUE about the strategies used in teaching speed reader? A. They focus on slow readers. B. They encourage readers to move lips. C. They centre on readers' personal capabilities. D. They consider the readers’ schooling ages. Question 50. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? A. Slow speaker cannot improve their speaking skill. B. Speed reading plays an important role in student learning. C. Speed reading decreases your understanding of the text because you are skimming. D. You couldn’t read at least twice as fast as you talk.

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA 01 (Đề thi có 04 trang)

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Question 1: They offered her the job ,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,because she was very _______ on the design front. A. creatively B. creative C. create D. Creation 1 (TH) Kiến thức: Từ loại Giải thích: A. creatively (adv): một cách sáng tạo B. creative (adj): sáng tạo C. create (v): tạo ra D. creation (n): sự sáng tạo Sau động từ “was” và trạng từ “very” cần điền tính từ. Dấu hiệu: đuôi –tion thường là danh từ, -ly thường là trạng từ, -ive thường là tính từ. Tạm dịch: Họ đề nghị cô ấy làm việc vì cô ấy rất sáng tạo trong lĩnh vực thiết kế. Chọn B. Question 2: She’ll take the flight for the early meeting, ______? A. won’t she B. hasn’t she C. didn’t she D. doesn’t she 2 (NB) Kiến thức: Câu hỏi đuôi Giải thích: Vế trước câu hỏi đuôi dạng khẳng định => câu hỏi đuôi dạng phủ định Vế trước: She'll take => câu hỏi đuôi: won’t she? Tạm dịch: Cô ấy sẽ đáp chuyến bay cho cuộc họp sớm phải không? Chọn A. Question 3: The letters he would write were full of doom and _______. We still do not know what made him so depressed. A. drib B. gloom C. duck D. Tuck 3 (VDC) Kiến thức: Thành ngữ Giải thích: A. drib (không tồn tại từ này) B. gloom (n): u ám, buồn bã C. duck (n): con vịt D. tuck (n): nếp gấp (ở quần áo) => doom and bloom: cảm giác tuyệt vọng, bi quan Tạm dịch: Những lá thư anh ấy viết chứa đầy cảm giác tuyệt vọng. Chúng tôi vẫn không biết điều gì đã khiến anh ấy chán nản như vậy. Chọn B. Question 4: The restaurant is well-known ________ its friendly atmosphere and excellent service. A. for B. on C. in D. Off

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4(TH) Kiến thức: Giới từ Giải thích: A. for: cho B. on: trên C. in: trong D. off: rời, nghỉ => be well-known for something: nổi tiếng về cái gì Tạm dịch: Nhà hàng nổi tiếng với bầu không khí thân thiện và dịch vụ tuyệt vời. Chọn A. any progress at all. Question 5: The course was so difficult that I didn’t C. produce

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Make progress ~ improve: tiến bộ. Dịch: Khóa học này quá khó đến nỗi tôi không tiến bộ lên được chút nào.

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Chọn B Question 6: John crashed his truck _________ he was driving too fast. A. despite B. although C. because D. because of 6(TH) Kiến thức: Liên từ Giải thích: A. despite + cụm danh từ/ V_ing: mặc dù … B. although + S + V: mặc dù … because + S + V: bởi vì … C. D. because of + cụm danh từ/ V_ing: bởi vì … Sau chỗ trống là một mệnh đề => loại A, D. Tạm dịch: John đã gặp va chạm với xe tải của mình vì anh ta lái xe quá nhanh. Chọn C. Question 7: She bought a _________ jacket as a present for her daughter. A. new Italian leather B. new leather Italian C. leather new Italian D. leather Italian new 7 (TH) Kiến thức: Trật tự tính từ Giải thích: Khi có nhiều tính từ cùng đứng trước 1 danh từ, sắp xếp chúng theo thứ tự: OSASCOMP + N. Trong đó: O – opinion: quan điểm S – size: kích thước A – age: độ tuổi S – shape: hình dạng C – colour: màu sắc O – origin: nguồn gốc M – material: chất liệu P – purpose: mục đích N – noun: danh từ Nếu có số thứ tự => đứng trước tính từ & danh từ => Trật tự tính từ: “new” – chỉ độ tuổi + “Italian” – chỉ nguồn gốc + “leather” – chỉ chất liệu Tạm dịch: Cô ấy đã mua một chiếc áo khoác da mới của Ý để làm quà cho con gái.

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Chọn A. Question 8: Unless we do something now, hundreds of plant and animal species will _______. A. point out B. die out C. cut up D. make up 8 (TH) Kiến thức: Cụm động từ Giải thích: B. die out: chết đi A. point out: chỉ ra C. cut up: cắt nhỏ D. make up: chiếm (phần trăm), bịa (chuyện), … Tạm dịch: Nếu chúng ta không làm điều gì đó ngay bây giờ, hàng trăm loài động thực vật sẽ chết. Chọn B. Question 9: While she was taking her exams, she _______ a terrible headache. A. will have B. has C. had D. is having 9(TH) Kiến thức: Thì quá khứ đơn, phối hợp thì Giải thích: Cấu trúc: While + S + was/ were + V_ing, S + V_ed/ cột 2 (quá khứ đơn) Cách dùng: diễn tả một hành động đang xảy ra trong quá khứ (chia quá khứ tiếp diễn) thì một hành động khác xen vào (chia quá khứ đơn). Tạm dịch: Trong khi cô ấy đang làm bài thi thì cô ấy bị đau đầu kinh khủng. Chọn C. Question 10: I hope these machines will have worked very well ______. A. as soon as you would come back next month B. when you came back next month C. by the time you come back next month D. after you were coming back next month 10 (TH) Kiến thức: Sự kết hợp thì Giải thích: Dấu hiệu: “next month” => chia các thì tương lai Cấu trúc: S + will have P2 + by the time + S + V_(s/es): … vào thời điểm … Động từ trong mệnh đề thời gian chia thì hiện tại, động từ trong mệnh đề chính chia tương lai. => loại A, B, D. Tạm dịch: Tôi hy vọng những chiếc máy này sẽ hoạt động rất tốt vào thời điểm bạn quay lại vào tháng sau. Chọn C. Question 11: The popular press often contains a lot more _______ than hard facts. A. tolerance B. influence C. speculation D. Realism 11 (VD) Kiến thức: Từ vựng Giải thích: A. tolerance (n): khoan dung B. influence (n): ảnh hưởng C. speculation (n): sự đồn đoán, đầu cơ D. realism (n): chủ nghĩa hiện thực Tạm dịch: Báo chí phổ thông thường chứa đựng nhiều thông tin đồn đoán hơn là những sự thật trần trụi. Chọn C. Question 12: Researchers have ________ to the conclusion that personality is affected by your genes. A. got B. reached C. arrived D. Come

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12 (VD) Kiến thức: Từ vựng, sự kết hợp từ Giải thích: A. got (P2): nhận được B. reached (P2): chạm tới, đạt tới C. arrived (P2): đến D. come (P2): tới, về => come to the conclusion: đưa ra kết luận Tạm dịch: Các nhà nghiên cứu đã đưa ra kết luận rằng tính cách bị ảnh hưởng bởi gen của bạn. Chọn D. Question 13: The flood victims ________ with food and clean water by the volunteers. A. provided B. were provided C. were providing D. provide 13 (TH) Kiến thức: Bị động thì quá khứ đơn Giải thích: Chủ ngữ là “The flood victims” – “Những nạn nhân lũ lụt”, động từ “provide” – “cung cấp” => câu mang nghĩa bị động Cấu trúc câu bị động thì quá khứ đơn: S + was/ were + Vp2 (by + O). Tạm dịch: Những nạn nhân lũ lụt được cung cấp đồ ăn và nước sạch bởi những tình nguyện viên. Chọn B Question 14: _______ the promotion, I began to search for other goals. A. Having attained B. To attain C. Being attained D. Attained 14 (VDC) Kiến thức: Rút gọn mệnh đề trạng ngữ Giải thích: Khi mệnh đề trạng ngữ và mệnh đề chính có cùng một chủ ngữ, có thể lược bỏ chủ ngữ ở mệnh đề trạng ngữ và đưa động từ về dạng V_ing khi mệnh đề ở dạng chủ động Để nhấn mạnh hành động ở mệnh đề trạng ngữ xảy ra trước hành động ở mệnh đề chính ta dùng dạng: having + P2. Câu đầy đủ: I had attained the promotion, I began to search for other goals. Câu rút gọn: Having attained the promotion, I began to search for other goals. Tạm dịch: Sau khi đạt được sự thăng tiến, tôi bắt đầu tìm kiếm các mục tiêu khác. Chọn A. Question 15: _______ the person is, the more privilege he enjoys. A. The rich B. The richest C. As rich as D. The richer 15(TH) Kiến thức: So sánh lũy tiến/ so sánh kép Giải thích: Cấu trúc so sánh lũy tiến: The + so sánh hơn + S + V, the + so sánh hơn + S + V Dạng so sánh hơn của tính từ “rich” là “richer”. Tạm dịch: Người càng giàu thì càng được hưởng nhiều đặc quyền. Chọn D. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 16: Peter is talking to Mary about eating habits. - Peter: “You should eat more fruits and vegetables.” – Mary: “___________” A. Yes, I will, Thanks B. No, thanks

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C. My pleasure D. You’re welcome 16 (TH) Kiến thức: Ngôn ngữ giao tiếp Giải thích: Peter đang nói chuyện với Mary về thói quen ăn uống. Peter: “Bạn nên ăn nhiều trái cây và rau quả hơn.” Mary: “ ________ ” A. Ừ, tớ sẽ làm vậy. Cảm ơn nhé. B. Không, cảm ơn. C. Rất hân hạnh. D. Không có chi. Phản hổi A phù hợp với ngữ cảnh nhất. Chọn A. Question 17: Mrs Brown and Mr Smith are talking about teaching soft skills at school. - Mrs Brown: “Some soft skills should be taught to children.” - Mr Smith: “______. They are necessary for them.” A. I don’t either B. I agree with you C. You’re quite wrong D. You’re welcome 17. (TH) Kiến thức: Ngôn ngữ giao tiếp Giải thích: Bà Brown và ông Smith đang nói về việc dạy các kỹ năng mềm ở trường. Bà Brown: “Một số kỹ năng mềm nên được dạy cho trẻ em.” Ông Smith: “ ________ . Chúng cần thiết cho họ.” A. Tôi cũng không B. Tôi đồng ý với bạn C. Bạn khá sai rồi D. Không có chi Phản hổi B phù hợp với ngữ cảnh nhất. Chọn B. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 18 A. document B. holiday C. location D. journalist 18 (NB) Kiến thức: Trọng âm từ có 3 âm tiết Giải thích: B. holiday /ˈhɒlədeɪ/ A. document /ˈdɒkjumənt/ C. location /ləʊˈkeɪʃn/ D. journalist /ˈdʒɜːnəlɪst/ Phương án C có trọng âm rơi vào âm tiết 2, còn lại là âm tiết 1. Chọn C. Question 19 A. listen B. agree C. escape D. deny 19 (NB) Kiến thức: Trọng âm từ có 2 âm tiết Giải thích: B. agree /əˈɡriː/ A. listen /ˈlɪsn/ C. escape /ɪˈskeɪp/ D. deny /dɪˈnaɪ/ Phương án A có trọng âm rơi vào âm tiết 1, còn lại là âm tiết 2. Chọn A.

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Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 20: A. concerned B. devoted C. renewed D. improved 20 (NB) Kiến thức: Cách phát âm đuôi “ed” Giải thích: A. concerned /kənˈsɜːnd/ B. devoted /dɪˈvəʊtɪd/ C. renewed /rɪˈnjuːd/ D. improved /ɪmˈpruːvd/ Quy tắc phát âm động từ đuôi –ed dựa vào chữ cái kết thúc: Những động từ có chữ cái kết thúc tận cùng là: TH 1: t, d => đuôi –ed được phát âm là /id/ TH 2: p, pe; k, ke; ff, ph, gh; ss, ce, se, x; ch; sh => đuôi –ed được phát âm là /t/ TH 3: còn lại => đuôi –ed được phát âm là /d/ Phần gạch chân phương án B được phát âm là /ɪd/, còn lại phát âm là /d/. Chọn B. 21 (NB) Question 21: A. thrill B. hide C. prize D. crime Kiến thức: Cách phát âm “i” Giải thích: thrill /θrɪl/ crime /kraɪm/ A. B. hide /haɪd/ C. prize /praɪz/ D. Phần gạch chân phương án A được phát âm là /ɪ/, còn lại phát âm là /aɪ/. Chọn A. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: Please give me some recommendation to buy suitable books for my ten-year-old girl. A. advice B. defense C. interest D. question 22 (TH) Kiến thức: Từ vựng Giải thích: recommendation (n): sự giới thiệu, tiến cử A. advice (n): lời khuyên B. defense (n): sự che chở, phòng thủ C. interest (n): mối quan tâm D. question (n): câu hỏi => recommendation = advice Tạm dịch: Xin hãy cho tôi một vài giới thiệu để mua những cuốn sách phù hợp cho con gái mười tuổi của tôi. Chọn A. Question 23: He has been jobless and often has to ask his parents for money A. out of fashion B. out of practice C. out of order D. out of work 23 (TH) Kiến thức: Từ đồng nghĩa Giải thích: jobless (adj): không có việc làm, thất nghiệp A. out of fashion: lỗi thời B. out of practice: không rèn luyện C. out of order: bị hỏng (máy móc) D. out of work: thất nghiệp => jobless = out of work Tạm dịch: Anh ấy thất nghiệp và thường xuyên phải xin tiền bố mẹ.

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Chọn D. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24: Aren’t you putting the cart before the horse by deciding what to wear for the wedding before you’re invited to it? A. knowing the horse cart B. do things in the right order C. doing things in the wrong order D. upsetting the horse cart 24 (VDC) Kiến thức: Thành ngữ Giải thích: putting the cart before the horse: làm việc sai trình tự A. knowing the horse cart: biết đến xe ngựa B. do things in the right order: làm mọi việc theo đúng trình tự C. doing things in the wrong order: làm những việc không đúng trình tự D. upsetting the horse cart: làm đổ xe ngựa => putting the cart before the horse >< do things in the right order Tạm dịch: Bạn có đang làm sai trình tự khi quyết định mặc gì cho đám cưới trước khi bạn được mời đến dự không đó?

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Chọn B. Question 25: He is writing a letter of acceptance to the employer with the hope to get his favorite position in the company. A. confirmation B. refusal C. agree D. admission 25 (TH) Kiến thức: Từ vựng Giải thích: acceptance (n): sự chấp nhận A. confirmation (n): sự xác nhận B. refusal (n): sự từ chối C. agree (v): đồng ý D. admission (n): sự thu nạp, kết nạp => acceptance >< refusal Tạm dịch: Anh ấy đang viết một lá thư chấp nhận cho nhà tuyển dụng với hy vọng sẽ có được vị trí yêu thích trong công ty. Chọn B. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 26: The book was interesting. I’ve read it three times. A. Such was the interesting book that I have read it three times. B. So interesting was the book that I have no time to read it. C. Only if it is an interesting book have I read it three times. D. Should the book be interesting, I have read it three times. 26 (VDC) Kiến thức: Đảo ngữ Giải thích: Đảo ngữ với “such … that …”: Such + be + cụm danh từ + that + S + V Đảo ngữ với “so … that …”: So + adj + be + S1 + that + S2 + V2 Đảo ngữ với “only if”: Only if + S1 + V1 + trợ động từ + S2 + V2

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Đảo ngữ câu điều kiện loại 1: Should + S + V_infinitive, S + will/ can/ may + V_infinitive Tạm dịch: Cuốn sách thật thú vị. Tôi đã đọc nó ba lần. A. Đó là cuốn sách thú vị đến mức tôi đã đọc nó ba lần. B. Cuốn sách thú vị đến mức tôi không có thời gian để đọc nó. => sai nghĩa C. Chỉ khi nó là một cuốn sách thú vị, tôi mới đọc nó ba lần. => sai nghĩa D. sai ngữ pháp, sai nghĩa Chọn A. Question 27: She bought an old TV. She has regrets about it now. A. Provided she bought an old TV. She wouldn’t have regrets. B. If she hadn’t bought an old TV. She would have regrets. C. If only she had bought an old TV D. She wishes she hadn’t bought an old TV. 27 (VD) Kiến thức: Câu ước Giải thích: Provided that + S + V_(s/es), S + will/ can/ may + V_infinitive: Miễn là Câu điều kiện hỗn hợp 3 và 2: If + S + had + P2, S + would/ could/ might + V_infinitive Diễn tả 1 điều kiện trái với quá khứ, dẫn đến 1 kết quả trái với hiện tại Cấu trúc: If only + S + had + P2: Giá mà ai đó đã làm gì trong quá khứ (nhưng đã không làm) Câu ước trái với quá khứ: S + wish(es) + S + had + P2 Tạm dịch: Cô ấy đã mua một chiếc TV cũ. Cô ấy hối hận về điều đó bây giờ. A. sai ngữ pháp: “provided” dùng cho câu điều kiện loại 1 B. Nếu cô ấy không mua một chiếc TV cũ, cô ấy sẽ hối tiếc. => sai nghĩa C. Giá mà cô ấy đã mua một chiếc TV cũ. => sai nghĩa D. Cô ấy ước cô ấy đã không mua một chiếc TV cũ. Chọn D. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 28: Last night, she stays up so late to study for her exams. A B C D 28(NB) Kiến thức: Thì quá khứ đơn Giải thích: Dấu hiệu: “Last night” – tối hôm qua => chia thì quá khứ đơn Thì quá khứ đơn: S + V_ed/ cột 2 Diễn tả một hành động đã xảy trong quá khứ có thời điểm xác định Sửa: stays => stayed Tạm dịch: Đêm qua, cô ấy thức rất khuya để học bài cho kỳ thi. Chọn A. Question 29: She is a confidential and practiced speaker who always impresses her audience. A B C D 29(VD) Kiến thức: Từ vựng

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Giải thích: confidential (adj): bí mật, thân tín confident (adj): tự tin Sửa: confidential => confident Tạm dịch: Cô ấy là một diễn giả tự tin và có kinh nghiệm, người luôn gây ấn tượng với khán giả của mình. Chọn A. Question 30: My sister finally got his own favorite piano to practice every day. A B C D 30 (NB) Kiến thức: Tính từ sở hữu Giải thích: Chủ ngữ “My sister” – danh từ chỉ người là phái nữ => dùng tính từ sở hữu “her” Sửa: his => her Tạm dịch: Em gái tôi cuối cùng đã có được cây đàn piano yêu thích của riêng mình để luyện tập mỗi ngày. Chọn B. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest meaning to each of the following questions. Question 31: Every student is required to write an essay on the topic. A. Every student might write an essay on the topic. B. Every student must write an essay on the topic. C. Every student can’t write an essay on the topic. D. Every student needn’t write an essay on the topic. 31 (TH) Kiến thức: Động từ khuyết thiếu Giải thích: be required to: được yêu cầu phải làm gì S + might + V_infinitive: Ai đó có thể làm gì S + must + V_infinitive: Ai đó phải làm gì S + can’t + V_infinitive: Ai đó không thể làm gì S + needn’t + V_infinitive: Ai đó không cần làm gì Tạm dịch: Mỗi học sinh được yêu cầu viết một bài luận về chủ đề này. A. Mỗi học sinh có thể viết một bài luận về chủ đề này. => sai nghĩa B. Mỗi học sinh phải viết một bài luận về chủ đề này. C. Mọi học sinh không thể viết một bài luận về chủ đề này. => sai nghĩa D. Mọi học sinh không cần phải viết một bài luận về chủ đề này. => sai nghĩa Chọn B. Question 32: “If I were you, I would rent another room” said my friend. A. My friend threatened me to rent another room. B. My friend was thinking about renting another room. C. My friend insisted on renting another room. D. My friend advised me to rent another room. 32 (VDC) Kiến thức: Câu tường thuật Giải thích: S + threatened + O + to V_infinitive: Ai đó đe dọa ai làm gì

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S + insisted on + V_ing: Ai đó nài nỉ làm gì S + advised + O + to V_infinitive: Ai đó khuyên ai làm gì Tạm dịch: “Nếu tôi là bạn, tôi sẽ thuê một phòng khác” bạn tôi nói. A. Bạn tôi đe dọa tôi phải thuê phòng khác. => sai nghĩa B. Bạn tôi đã nghĩ đến việc thuê một căn phòng khác. => sai nghĩa C. Bạn tôi đòi thuê phòng khác. => sai nghĩa D. Bạn tôi khuyên tôi nên thuê phòng khác. Chọn D. Question 33: He last cooked for the whole family five months ago. A. He didn’t cook for the whole family five months ago. B. He has cooked for the whole family for five months. C. He hasn’t cooked for the whole family for five months. D. He would cook for the whole family in five months. 33 (TH) Kiến thức: Thì hiện tại hoàn thành Giải thích: Cấu trúc: S + last + V_ed + khoảng thời gian + ago = S + have/ has + (not) + P2 + for + khoảng thời gian Tạm dịch: Lần cuối cùng anh ấy nấu cho cả gia đình là cách đây 5 tháng. A. Anh ấy đã không nấu ăn cho cả gia đình năm tháng trước. => sai nghĩa B. Anh ấy đã nấu ăn cho cả gia đình trong năm tháng. => sai nghĩa C. Anh ấy đã không nấu ăn cho cả gia đình trong năm tháng. D. Anh ấy sẽ nấu ăn cho cả gia đình trong năm tháng. => sai nghĩa Chọn C.

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 5. A stinky gym bug in your kitchen? Who will be more upset by the smell - the men or the women in your family? (34) _______ scientists suggest that women not only smell, but feel, taste, and hear more accurately than men. Take colors, for example. One study suggests that men are not as good as women at distinguishing between (35) _______ of color, although they focus well on rapidly changing images. As for touch, small fingers have a finer sense of touch, whether male or female. Hearing is possibly one of the most debated areas, when talking about the senses. Evidence shows that boys hear as well as girls at birth, but with age, a man’s hearing may soon deteriorate. (36) _______, environmental factors could play a role in this. Women may also be better at identifying different flavors (37) _______ need both taste and smell to experience, as studies have shown that they have more taste buds on their tongue. Going back to the smelly gym bag - yes, it’s likely that Mom will be the most (38) _______ out by it. But is that because women’s brains have more ‘smell cells’ or because you were too lazy to move it? Question 34: A. Each B. Some C. Another D. Every (34)NB) Kiến thức: Lượng từ Giải thích: A. Each + danh từ đếm được dạng số ít: Mỗi … B. Some + danh từ đếm được dạng số nhiều: Một vài … C. Another + danh từ đếm được dạng số ít/ of + danh từ đếm được dạng số nhiều: … khác

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D. Every + danh từ đếm được dạng số ít: Mỗi … Sau chỗ trống là danh từ số nhiều, đếm được => loại A, C, D. (1) Some scientists suggest that women not only smell, but feel, taste, and hear more accurately than men. Tạm dịch: Một vài các nhà khoa học cho rằng phụ nữ không chỉ ngửi được mà còn cảm nhận, nếm và nghe được chính xác hơn nam giới. Chọn B. Question 35: A. smells B. senses C. shadows D. shades 35 (VD) Kiến thức: Từ vựng, sự kết hợp từ Giải thích: B. senses (n): giác quan A. smells (n): mùi C. shadows (n): bóng tối D. shades (n): sắc thái => shades of color: sắc thái màu sắc One study suggests that men are not as good as women at distinguishing between (2) shades of color, although they focus well on rapidly changing images. Tạm dịch: Một nghiên cứu cho thấy rằng đàn ông không giỏi bằng phụ nữ trong việc phân biệt giữa các sắc thái màu sắc, mặc dù họ tập trung tốt vào những hình ảnh thay đổi nhanh chóng. Chọn D. Question 36: A. Moreover B. Therefore C. However D. Due to 36 (TH) Kiến thức: Liên từ Giải thích: A. Moreover + S + V, …: Hơn thế nữa … (thêm ý) B. Therefore, …: do đó … (chỉ kết quả) C. However, …: tuy nhiên … (chỉ ý đối lập) D. Due to + cụm danh từ/ V_ing, …: vì …(chỉ nguyên nhân) Evidence shows that boys hear as well as girls at birth, but with age, a man's hearing may soon deteriorate. (3) However, environmental factors could play a role in this. Tạm dịch: Bằng chứng cho thấy rằng các bé trai nghe tốt như các bé gaí khi mới sinh, nhưng theo tuổi tác, thính lực của đàn ông có thể sớm bị suy giảm. Tuy nhiên, các yếu tố môi trường có thể đóng vai trò trong việc này. Chọn C. Question 37: A. who B. which C. where D. whom 37 (NB) Kiến thức: Đại từ quan hệ Giải thích: A. who + V: người mà … => bổ sung thông tin cho từ chỉ người trước nó B. which + V: cái mà … => bổ sung thông tin cho từ chỉ vật trước nó C. where + S + V: khi mà … => bổ sung thông tin cho từ chỉ địa điểm trước đó D. whom + S + V: người mà … => bổ sung thông tin cho từ chỉ người trước nó “different flavors” – danh từ chỉ vật => loại A, C, D. Women may also be better at identifying different flavors (4) which need both taste and smell to experience, as studies have shown that they have more taste buds on their tongue. Tạm dịch: Phụ nữ cũng có thể giỏi hơn trong việc xác định các hương vị khác nhau những thứ cần cả vị giác và khứu giác để trải nghiệm, vì các nghiên cứu đã chỉ ra rằng họ có nhiều nụ vị giác hơn trên lưỡi. Chọn B.

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Question 38: A. taken

B. sprung

C. mazed

D. freaked

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38 (VD) Kiến thức: Từ vựng Giải thích: A. taken (P2): lấy B. sprung (P2): nhảy ra, bật lên C. mazed (không tồn tại từ này) D. freaked (P2): sốc, sợ hãi, ngạc nhiên => freaked out: sốc, sợ hãi, ngạc nhiên Going back to the smelly gym bag - yes, it's likely that Mom will be the most (5) freaked out by it. Tạm dịch: Quay trở lại với chiếc túi tập thể dục bốc mùi - vâng, có khả năng mẹ sẽ là người sốc nhất với nó. Chọn D. Dịch bài đọc: Nội dung dịch: Một chiếc túi tập thể dục bốc mùi trong nhà bếp của bạn? Ai sẽ khó chịu hơn bởi cái mùi này - đàn ông hay phụ nữ trong gia đình bạn? Một vài các nhà khoa học cho rằng phụ nữ không chỉ ngửi được mà còn cảm nhận, nếm và nghe được chính xác hơn nam giới. Lấy ví dụ về màu sắc. Một nghiên cứu cho thấy rằng đàn ông không giỏi bằng phụ nữ trong việc phân biệt giữa các sắc thái màu sắc, mặc dù họ tập trung tốt vào những hình ảnh thay đổi nhanh chóng. Về xúc giác, các ngón tay nhỏ có cảm giác xúc giác tốt hơn, bất kể là nam hay nữ. Thính giác có lẽ là một trong những lĩnh vực được tranh luận nhiều nhất khi nói về các giác quan. Bằng chứng cho thấy rằng các bé trai nghe tốt như các bé gái khi mới sinh, nhưng theo tuổi tác, thính lực của đàn ông có thể sớm bị suy giảm. Tuy nhiên, các yếu tố môi trường có thể đóng vai trò trong việc này. Phụ nữ cũng có thể giỏi hơn trong việc xác định các hương vị khác nhau những thứ cần cả vị giác và khứu giác để trải nghiệm, vì các nghiên cứu đã chỉ ra rằng họ có nhiều nụ vị giác hơn trên lưỡi. Quay trở lại với chiếc túi tập thể dục bốc mùi - vâng, có khả năng mẹ sẽ là người sốc nhất với nó. Nhưng đó là do bộ não của phụ nữ có nhiều 'tế bào mùi' hơn hay do bạn quá lười biếng để di chuyển nó? Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the questions from 39 to 43. Dogs originally came from wolves. Wolves look a lot like dogs, but they are bigger. They are also quite fierce. At some point, some wolves changed through evolution. Some of them were smaller and gentler. These nicer wolves were the first dogs. No one knows for sure when this happened or why. Some people say it happened naturally over 50,000 years ago. Others say people made it happen between 15 000 and 50 000 years ago. However they came to be, people quickly saw that dogs were useful. Scientists who study humans say the first tame dogs appeared with humans about 13,000 years ago in the Middle East. Not long after there were dogs in Asia, Africa, Europe and eventually, North America. These dogs were probably used mostly for hunting and traveling. They were also good companions. Dogs were an important part of life in ancient Egypt. Egyptian dogs were used not only for hunting but as guards and warriors as well. They believed the god that guarded hell was a dog. Ancient Egyptians also named their pet dogs. Some popular names meant Brave One, Reliable, North-wind, Blacky, and Useless. Dogs were also good ancient Roman warriors. The Roman army used dogs all over Europe. Sometimes the dogs were attack dogs, but other times the dogs were messengers. There are many different kinds of dogs today. How could they all come from wolves? There are many different explanations. Some scientists believe that dogs mixed with other animals from the Canidae family. This includes coyotes, foxes and jackals. Most scientists also believe that evolution and breeding influenced the variation. Later, people found breeds of dogs they liked and combined them to make all new breeds. In this way. people are still helping new breeds to appear today! Question 39: Which of the following best states the main idea of the reading?

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A. No one knows for sure where dogs first appeared with humans. B. There are two theories about the evolution of dogs. C. Evolution and breeding have made dogs what they are today. D. Human beings used dogs for many jobs, so dogs are the first tame animals. 39 (VDC) Kiến thức: Đọc hiểu Giải thích: Câu nào sau đây thể hiện đúng nhất ý chính của bài đọc? A. Không ai biết chắc nơi đầu tiên loài chó xuất hiện cùng với con người. B. Có hai giả thuyết về sự tiến hóa của loài chó. C. Sự tiến hóa và lai tạo đã tạo nên những con chó D. Loài người đã sử dụng chó vào nhiều công việc, vì vậy chó là con vật được thuần hóa đầu tiên. Thông tin: - Dogs originally came from wolves. - At some point, some wolves changed through evolution. Some of them were smaller and gentler. These nicer wolves were the first dogs. - Some scientists believe that dogs mixed with other animals from the Canidae family. This includes coyotes, foxes and jackals. Most scientists also believe that evolution and breeding influenced the variation. Tạm dịch: - Loài chó vốn xuất thân từ chó sói. - Tại một thời điểm nào đó, một vài con sói đã thay đổi qua quá trình tiến hóa. Một vài trong số chúng trở nên nhỏ hơn và hiền lành hơn. Những con sói hiền lành hơn này là những con chó đầu tiên. - Một số nhà khoa học tin rằng những loài chó đã phối ngẫu với các động vật khác từ họ Canidae. Điều này bao gồm sói đồng cỏ, cáo và chó rừng. Hầu hết các nhà khoa học cũng tin rằng quá trình tiến hóa và lai tạo đã ảnh hưởng đến sự biến đổi. Chọn C. Question 40: The word “they” in the first paragraph refers to _______. A. people B. years C. dogs D. wolves 40 (NB) Kiến thức: Đọc hiểu Giải thích: Từ “they” trong đoạn đầu tiên đề cập đến ________ . A. people (n): người B. years (n): năm C. dogs (n): những con chó D. wolves (n): những con chó sói Thông tin: Wolves look a lot like dogs, but they are bigger. Tạm dịch: Chó sói trông rất giống chó, nhưng chó sói lớn hơn. Chọn D. Question 41: According to some scientists, when did the first tame dogs appear with humans? A. About 15,000 years ago B. Between 15,000 and 50,000 years ago C. Over 50.000 years ago D. About 13,000 years ago 41 (NB) Kiến thức: Đọc hiểu Giải thích: Theo một số nhà khoa học, những con chó thuần hóa đầu tiên xuất hiện cùng với con người khi nào? A. Khoảng 15.000 năm trước B. Từ 15.000 đến 50.000 năm trước C. Hơn 50.000 năm trước D. Khoảng 13.000 năm trước

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Thông tin: Scientists who study humans say the first tame dogs appeared with humans about 13,000 years ago in the Middle East. Tạm dịch: Các nhà khoa học nghiên cứu con người cho biết những con chó đầu tiên được thuần hóa đã xuất hiện cùng với loài người vào khoảng 13.000 năm trước ở Trung Đông. Chọn D. Question 42: The word “companions” in the second paragraph mostly means ______. A. messengers B. co-workers C. traveling friends D. hunting animals 42 (TH) Kiến thức: Đọc hiểu Giải thích: Từ “companions” trong đoạn thứ hai chủ yếu có nghĩa là ________ . companions: bạn đồng hành A. messengers (n): sứ giả, người đưa tin B. co-workers (n): đồng nghiệp C. traveling friends (n): bạn cùng đi du lịch D. hunting animals (n): săn bắn động vật => companions = traveling friends Thông tin: They were also good companions. Tạm dịch: Chúng cũng là những người bạn đồng hành tốt. Chọn C. Question 43: According to the reading, which of the following is TRUE? A. Most people like to name their dogs Reliable, Blacky, and Useless. B. The Roman always used dogs as messengers. C. The first tame dogs appeared in ancient Egypt. D. According to some studies, dogs mixed with coyotes and jackals. 43 (TH) Kiến thức: Đọc hiểu Giải thích: Theo bài đọc, điều nào sau đây là ĐÚNG? A. Hầu hết mọi người đều thích đặt tên cho những chú chó của họ là Reliable, Blacky và Useless. B. Người La Mã luôn dùng chó làm người đưa tin. C. Những chú chó được thuần hóa đầu tiên xuất hiện ở Ai Cập cổ đại. D. Theo một số nghiên cứu, chó lai tạp với chó sói đồng cỏ và chó rừng. Thông tin: Some scientists believe that dogs mixed with other animals from the Canidae family. This includes coyotes, foxes and jackals. Tạm dịch: Một số nhà khoa học tin rằng những loài chó đã phối ngẫu với các động vật khác từ họ Canidae. Bao gồm sói đồng cỏ, cáo và chó rừng. Chọn D. Dịch bài đọc: Nội dung dịch: Loài chó vốn xuất thân từ chó sói. Chó sói trông rất giống chó, nhưng chúng lớn hơn. Chúng cũng khá dữ tợn. Tại một thời điểm nào đó, một vài con sói đã thay đổi qua quá trình tiến hóa. Một vài trong số chúng trở nên nhỏ hơn và hiền lành hơn. Những con sói hiền lành hơn này là những con chó đầu tiên. Không ai biết chắc điều này xảy ra khi nào hoặc tại sao. Một số người nói rằng nó đã xảy ra một cách tự nhiên vào khoảng hơn 50.000 năm trước. Những người khác nói rằng chính con người đã khiến điều đó xảy ra trong khoảng từ 15.000 đến 50.000 năm trước.

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Tuy nhiên, mọi người nhanh chóng thấy rằng chó rất hữu ích. Các nhà khoa học nghiên cứu con người cho biết những con chó đầu tiên được thuần hóa đã xuất hiện cùng với loài người vào khoảng 13.000 năm trước ở Trung Đông. Không lâu sau, loài chó xuất hiện ở châu Á, châu Phi, châu Âu và cuối cùng là Bắc Mỹ. Những con chó này có lẽ được sử dụng chủ yếu để săn bắn và du lịch. Chúng cũng là những người bạn đồng hành tốt. Chó cũng là một phần quan trọng trong đời sống ở Ai Cập cổ đại. Chó Ai Cập không chỉ được sử dụng để săn bắn mà còn được sử dụng như lính canh và chiến binh. Họ tin rằng vị thần canh giữ địa ngục là một con chó. Người Ai Cập cổ đại cũng đặt tên cho những con chó cưng của họ. Một số cái tên phổ biến lúc đó là Brave One, Reliable, North-wind, Blacky và Useless. Chó cũng là những chiến binh La Mã cổ đại tinh nhuệ. Quân đội La Mã sử dụng chó trên khắp châu Âu. Đôi khi những con chó được dùng để tấn công, nhưng chủ yếu chúng được dùng như những người đưa tin. Ngày nay có rất nhiều loại chó khác nhau. Làm thế nào mà tất cả bọn chúng lại có thể có tổ tiên là loài sói được? Có rất nhiều cách giải thích khác nhau. Một số nhà khoa học tin rằng những loài chó đã phối ngẫu với các động vật khác từ họ Canidae. Bao gồm sói đồng cỏ, cáo và chó rừng. Hầu hết các nhà khoa học cũng tin rằng quá trình tiến hóa và lai tạo đã ảnh hưởng đến sự biến đổi. Về sau, người ta tìm ra những giống chó mà họ thích và kết hợp chúng lại để tạo thành tất cả các giống chó mới. Bằng cách này, ngày nay con người vẫn đang tạo ra những giống chó mới!

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the questions from 44 to 50. Many people see large urban cities as a wonder of human imagination and creativity. They represent how far the human population has come in terms of community development. Despite its positive things, there are also negatives from urbanization on the physical health of humans living. As it would be expected, developing countries tend to see more negative physical health effects than modern countries in regard to urbanization. One example of a developing country experiencing these problems is China. China is a country that in the past 30-40 years went from being an agrarian based society to a significant industrialized country. This industrialization has in effect caused the need for more centralized cities, centralized meaning having lots of jobs and living spaces within a close proximity. In most recent decades, since China’s change to being more of an industrial based economy, the country has experienced record high numbers of people migrating within its borders. In effect, the number of cities with over 500,000 people has more than doubled. These migrations are typically of people from rural areas of China moving to the new urban areas. Due to this large influx in the urban population, there are many possibilities for health challenges among these people. One very common and fairly obvious negative aspect of highly congested urban areas is air pollution. It could include particulate matter, most commonly attributed to industrial plants and refineries waste, or chemicals like CO2 or Methane. Due to a vast number of people in these urbanized cities, the air pollution is known to be very extreme. These conditions can lead to many different health problems such as: Asthma, cardiovascular problems or disease. When exposed to these conditions for a prolonged period of time, one can experience even more detrimental health effects like: the acceleration of aging, loss of lung capacity and health, being more susceptible to respiratory diseases, and a shortened life span. Another way that urbanization affects the populations’ health is people’s change in diet. For instance, urban cities tend to have lots of accessible, quick, and easy to get food. This food is also more than likely not as high quality as well as contains a large amount of sodium and sugar. Because this food is so accessible, people tend to eat it more. This increase in consumption of low-quality food can then lead to diabetes, hypertension, heart disease, obesity, or many other health conditions. Question 44: Which of the following could be served as the best title for the passage? A. Urban cities - The new opportunity for community development B. Urbanization - Pros and cons C. Urbanization - How people’s health is impacted?

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D. Developing countries - The fastest urbanization 44 (VD) Kiến thức: Đọc hiểu Giải thích: Điều nào sau đây có thể được coi là tiêu đề hay nhất cho đoạn văn? A. Thành phố đô thị - Cơ hội mới để phát triển cộng đồng B. Đô thị hóa - Ưu và nhược điểm C. Đô thị hóa - Sức khỏe của con người bị ảnh hưởng như thế nào? D. Các nước đang phát triển - Đô thị hóa nhanh nhất Thông tin: Despite its positive things, there are also negatives from urbanization on the physical health of humans living. Tạm dịch: Mặc dù có nhiều điều tích cực của việc này, nhưng cũng có những tiêu cực từ việc đô thị hóa đối với sức khỏe thể chất của con người. Chọn C. Question 45: The word “agrarian” in paragraph 2 mostly means ________. A. farming B. industry C. city D. modernizing 45 (VD) Kiến thức: Đọc hiểu Giải thích: Từ “agrarian” trong đoạn 2 chủ yếu có nghĩa là ________ . agrarian (n): nông nghiệp A. farming (n): nông nghiệp B. industry (n): công nghiệp C. city (n): thành phố D. modernizing (n): hiện đại hóa => agrarian = farming Thông tin: China is a country that in the past 30-40 years went from being an agrarian based society to a significant industrialized country. Tạm dịch: Trung Quốc là một quốc gia mà trong vòng 30 - 40 năm qua đã từ một xã hội nông nghiệp trở thành một nước công nghiệp với sự phát triển đáng kể. Chọn A. Question 46: The word “congested” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______. A. fresh B. overcrowded C. sparse D. contaminated 46 (TH) Kiến thức: Đọc hiểu Giải thích: Từ “congested” trong đoạn 3 gần nghĩa nhất với ________ . congested (adj): đông đúc, mật độ giao thông cao A. fresh (adj): tươi B. overcrowded (adj): đông đúc C. sparse (adj): thưa thớt D. contaminated (adj): bị ô nhiễm => congested = overcrowded Thông tin: One very common and fairly obvious negative aspect of highly congested urban areas is air pollution. Tạm dịch: Một khía cạnh tiêu cực khác rất phổ biến và khá rõ ràng của các khu đô thị vô cùng đông đúc là ô nhiễm không khí. Chọn B. Question 47: The following are the air pollution sources mentioned in paragraph 3, EXCEPT _______. A. industrial plants B. sewage C. refineries waste D. chemicals

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47 (TH) Kiến thức: Đọc hiểu Giải thích: Sau đây là các nguồn ô nhiễm không khí được đề cập trong đoạn 3, NGOẠI TRỪ ________ . A. industrial plants: nhà máy công nghiệp B. sewage: nước thải C. refineries waste: chất thải nhà máy lọc dầu D. chemicals: hóa chất Thông tin: It could include particulate matter, most commonly attributed to industrial plants and refineries waste, or chemicals like CO2 or Methane. Tạm dịch: Nó có thể bao gồm các chất dạng hạt thường được cho là do chất thải của các nhà máy công nghiệp và nhà máy lọc dầu, hoặc các chất hóa học như CO2 hoặc Metan. Chọn B. Question 48: The word “it” in the last paragraph refers to ________? A. quality B. sugar C. food D. sodium 48 (NB) Kiến thức: Đọc hiểu Giải thích: Từ “it” trong đoạn cuối đề cập đến ________ . A. quality (n): chất lượng B. sugar (n): đường C. food (n): thực phẩm D. sodium (n): natri Thông tin: Because this food is so accessible, people tend to eat it more. Tạm dịch: Bởi vì thực phẩm này rất dễ tiếp cận, mọi người thường có xu hướng ăn thực phẩm này nhiều hơn. Chọn C. Question 49: Why are urban populations easy to get diseases from food, according to the last paragraph? A. Because of the change in people’s diet. B. Because this food is so delicious that people have a tendency to eat more than normal. C. Because the way people get this food is rather accessible, quick and easy. D. Because of the low quality and the high proportion of sodium and sugar in this food. 49 (TH) Kiến thức: Đọc hiểu Giải thích: Tại sao dân thành thị dễ mắc bệnh từ thức ăn, theo đoạn cuối? A. Do chế độ ăn của con người thay đổi. B. Vì thực phẩm này rất ngon nên mọi người có xu hướng ăn nhiều hơn bình thường. C. Vì cách mọi người có được thực phẩm này khá dễ tiếp cận, nhanh chóng và dễ dàng. D. Vì thực phẩm này có chất lượng thấp và tỷ lệ natri và đường cao. Thông tin: This food is also more than likely not as high quality as well as contains a large amount of sodium and sugar. Tạm dịch: Các loại thực phẩm này nhiều khả năng không có chất lượng cao cũng như chứa một lượng lớn natri và đường. Chọn D. Question 50: What can be inferred from the passage? A. One of the negative health effects comes from the overpopulation in industrialized countries. B. Living in urban areas for a long time will certainly make the life expectancy of inhabitants shorten. C. People in developed countries suffer less harmful health effects from urbanization than those in developing nations.

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D. The bad health effects from urbanization are not greater than the benefits it brings to people in urban cities. 50 (VDC) Kiến thức: Đọc hiểu Giải thích: Điều gì có thể được suy ra từ đoạn văn? A. Một trong những ảnh hưởng tiêu cực đến sức khỏe là do dân số quá đông ở các nước công nghiệp phát triển. B. Sống ở thành thị trong thời gian dài chắc chắn sẽ làm cho tuổi thọ của cư dân bị rút ngắn. C. Người dân ở các nước phát triển ít bị ảnh hưởng sức khỏe do đô thị hóa hơn người dân ở các nước đang phát triển. D. Những ảnh hưởng xấu đến sức khoẻ do đô thị hoá không lớn hơn những lợi ích mà nó mang lại cho người dân ở các thành phố đô thị. Thông tin: As it would be expected, developing countries tend to see more negative physical health effects than modern countries in regard to urbanization. Tạm dịch: Đúng như dự đoán, các nước đang phát triển đều có xu hướng nhận thức được việc xuất hiện nhiều ảnh hưởng tiêu cực đến sức khỏe thể chất con người ‘’hơn là các nước hiện đại liên quan đến quá trình đô thị hóa. Chọn C.

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA 02 (Đề thi có 04 trang)

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Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 1. You may find doing this job very__________. Try it! A. relaxing B. relaxed C. relax D. relaxation Question 1 Kiến thức: Từ loại Giải thích: A. relaxing (a): thoải mái, dễ chịu (tính từ đuôi ing, có yếu tố chủ động, thể hiện bản chất, đặc điểm của sự vật, sự việc, tự thân nó có) B. relaxed (a): thoải mái, dễ chịu (tính từ đuôi ed có yếu tố bị động, nó không tự có tính chất này mà là bên ngoài tác động vào khiến nó có cảm giác như vậy) C. relax (v): thư giãn D. relaxation (n): sự thư giãn, thoải mái Ta có cấu trúc “Find sb/ sth ADJ’: thấy ai/ cái gì/ việc gì như thế nào. Vì thế vị trí chỗ trống ta cần một tính từ. Và tính từ này để nói rõ tính chất của “sb/sth” phía trước nên phải dùng tính từ đuôi ing. Chọn A. Tạm dịch: Có lẽ bạn sẽ thấy công việc này rất thoải mái. Hãy thử nó đi.

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Question 2. No one on the plane was alive in the accident last night, __________? A. wasn’t he B. weren’t they C. were they D. was he Question 2 Kiến thức: Câu hỏi đuôi Giải thích: Chủ ngữ là “No one” thì ở câu hỏi đuôi ta dùng đại từ “they”. Các đại từ bất định chỉ người như “everyone, everybody, someone, somebody, anyone, anybody, no one, nobody” ta dùng “they” cho vế câu hỏi đuôi. Các đại từ bất định chỉ vật như “everything, something, anything, nothing” ta dùng “it” cho vế câu hỏi đuôi. Vế trước chủ ngữ “no one”: không một ai, chứa yếu tố phủ định, nên câu hỏi đuôi sẽ ở thể khẳng định, do đó đáp án phù hợp là “were they”. Chọn C. Tạm dịch: Không ai trên máy bay còn sống trong vụ tai nạn đêm qua, phải không? Question 3. We had better keep on our__________ while were walking along the dark portions of this street. A. figures B. nails C. toes D. knees Question 3 Kiến thức: Idiom Giải thích: Thành ngữ: keep on our toes: thận trọng, đề phòng Chọn C Tạm dịch: Chúng ta nên cảnh giác đề phòng khi chúng ta đi bộ ở những đoạn đường tối ở thành phố này. Question 4. He regretted spending too much time__________ computer games. A. to B. for C. in D. on Question 4 Kiến thức: Giới từ Giải thích: Ta dùng cấu trúc: S + spend time/money on sth: tiêu xài thời gian/ tiền bạc vào cái gì. Chọn D. Ta cũng có: S + spend time/ money on sth: tiêu xài thời gian/ tiền bạc vào cái gì. Chọn D. Ta cũng có: S + spend time/ money Ving: tiêu xài thời gian/ tiền bạc vào việc gì. P a g e 1 | 14

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Tạm dịch: Anh ta thấy hối hận vì đã dùng quá nhiều thời gian chơi điện tử. Question 5. He looks for any excuse he can to blow off his__________ to do housework. A commitment B. obligation C. assignment D. responsibility Question 5. Kiến thức: Từ vựng cùng trường nghĩa Giải thích: A. commitment (n): lời cam kết B. obligation (n): nghĩa vụ C. assignment (n): nhiệm vụ được giao D. responsibility (n): trách nhiệm Ta có cụm thường gặp “blow off the responsibility”: rũ bỏ trách nhiệm. chọn D Tạm dịch: Anh ta tìm mọi lý do có thể để rũ bỏ trách nhiệm phải làm việc nhà Question 6. __________ what she prepared for the job interview, Megan didn’t pass it. A. Despite of B. In spite of C. Though D. However Question 6 Kiến thức: Liên từ Giải thích: Despite/ In spite of + N/ Ving = Though + S + V: mặc dù However S+V: Tuy nhiên Ta có: “What + s + V” là mệnh đề danh từ → Dùng “Despite/ In spite of”. Loại A do despite không theo cùng với of, đồng thời loại C và D vì sau Though là một mệnh đề và However không đứng đầu để nối hai mệnh đề với nghĩa “tuy nhiên” như này, However chỉ nối câu với câu hoặc đoạn với đoạn hoặc đứng ở giữa được ngăn cách bởi dấu chấm phảy và dấu phảy. Tạm dịch: Bất chấp những gì cô ấy chuẩn bị cho buổi phỏng vấn xin việc, Megan đã không vượt qua nó. Question 7. There is __________ table in my bedroom. A. an old square wooden B. a square wooden old C. an old wooden square D. a wooden old square Question 7 Kiến thức: Trật tự tính từ Giải thích: Trật tự tính từ: OSASCOMP 1. Opinion and general description (Ý kiến hoặc miêu tả chung) Ví dụ: nice, awesome, lovely... 2. Size / Weight (Kích cỡ, cân nặng) Ví dụ: big, small, heavy... 3. Age (Tuổi, cũ-mới) Ví dụ: old, new, young, ancient... 4. Shape (Hình dạng) Ví dụ: round, square, oval... 5. Color (Màu sắc) Ví dụ: green, red, blue,... 6. Origin (Xuất xứ) Ví dụ: Swiss, Italian, English.... 7. Material (Chất liệu) Ví dụ: woolly, cotton, plastic... 8. Purpose (Mục đích) Ví dụ: walking (socks), running (shoes).... Ta có sắp xếp đúng: old (cũ) - age → square (hình vuông) - shape → wooden (bằng gỗ) – material Chọn đáp án A Tạm dịch: Có một chiếc bàn gỗ cũ hình vuông trong phòng của tôi. D. turned up

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Question 8. The new airport has__________ a lot of changes on this island. A. brought about B. taken to C. counted in Question 8 Kiến thức: Phrasal verbs Giải thích: A. bring about: mang lại B. take to: bắt đầu thích C. count in: hoạt động cùng ai D. turn up: xuất hiện Tạm dịch: Sân bay mới đã mang lại nhiều thay đổi trên hòn đảo này.

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Question 9. They__________ the bridge by the time you come back. A. will finish B. will have finished C. will be finished D. have finished Question 9 Kiến thức: sự phối hợp thì Giải thích: Thì tương lai hoàn thành dùng để diễn tả một hành động hoặc một sự việc xảy ra và hoàn thành trước một hành động hoặc một thời điểm khác trong tương lai. Công thức: S + will + have + P2 by the time + S + V(s/es). Chú ý: By the time là dấu hiệu để chia thì tương lai hoàn thành nếu sau “by the time” có yếu tố hiện tại hoặc tương lai, còn by the time sẽ là dấu hiệu chia quá khứ hoàn thành nếu sau cụm này có yếu tố của quá khứ. Câu này có yếu tố tương lai nên chọn B. Tạm dịch: Họ sẽ hoàn thành xong cây cầu trước khi anh quay lại.

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Question 10. She won’t come home __________. A. as soon as she had finished all the paperwork B. until she has finished all the paperwork C. by the time she finished all the paperwork D. when she was finishing all the paperwork Question 10 Kiến thức: Mệnh để trạng ngữ Giải thích: Ta sử dụng kiến thức phổi hợp thì và kiến thức về liên từ để giải quyết. Mệnh đề cho trước đang là tương lai đơn nên không thể dùng A (quá khứ hoàn thành); không dùng C (quá khứ đơn), và không dùng D (quá khứ tiếp diễn) do tương lai không kết hợp với quá khứ.

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Question 11. The Youth Union in our school has decided to launch a/an__________ to raise funds for local charities. A. activity B. announcement C. campaign D. decision Question 11 Kiến thức: Từ vựng A. activity: hoạt động B. announcement: thông báo C. campaign: chiến dịch, phong trào D. decision: quyết định Ta có: launch a campaign: phát động một phong trào Tạm dịch: Hội thanh niên trường tôi đã phát động phong trào để gây quỹ cho các tổ chức từ thiện địa phương.

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Question 12. Being helpful is good, but don’t allow others to__________ advantage of your generosity. A. get B. take C. use D. make Question 12 Kiến thức: Cụm từ Giải thích: Ta có: take advantage of: tận dụng/ lợi dụng = make use of: sử dụng/ lợi dụng. Chọn B. Tạm dịch: Có ích thì tốt, nhưng đừng để người khác lợi dụng sự hào phóng của bạn.

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Question 13. I demand to know how this vase __________, and no one is leaving till I find out. A. got broken B. was breaking C. has broken D. is broke Question 13 Kiến thức: Câu bị động. Giải thích: Ngoài cấu trúc bị động quen thuộc là be + P2 thì ta còn có cách diễn đạt bị động khác nữa với cấu trúc: Get + P2. P a g e 3 | 14

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Loại B và C là 2 phương án viết ở chủ động, loại D do cách thể hiện “is broke” sai ngữ pháp. Chọn A. Question 14. Although __________ by the bravery of his fellow soldiers, Bloch had harsh words for the army leadership. A. was impressed B. impressed C. having impressed D. impressing

Question 14 Kiến thức: Giản lược mệnh đề cùng chủ ngữ: Giải thích: Though/ Although + S + V, S + V: Mặc dù ... Nếu chủ ngữ của 2 mệnh đề giống nhau thì ta có thể rút gọn mệnh đề nhượng bộ theo cấu trúc: Although+ ADJ/ P2, S + V. Câu này cùng chủ ngữ là Bloch, có thể lược bỏ chủ ngữ ở mệnh đề đầu tiên và giữ lại phần P2 (vì là câu bị động). Ta chọn B. Tạm dịch: Mặc dù bị ấn tượng bởi lòng dũng cảm của những người lính, Bloch vẫn có những từ ngữ khá khắc nghiệt cho việc lãnh đạo quân đội. Tạm dịch: Tôi yêu cầu được biết làm sao mà cái lọ hoa này lại bị vỡ, và sẽ không ai rời đi cho đến khi nào tôi tìm ra.

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Question 15. The more you practice speaking in public, __________. A. the more you become confident B. the more you become confidently C. the greater confidence you become D. the more confident you become Question 15 Kiến thức: Câu so sánh đồng tiên: Càng... càng Cấu trúc: The ...er/ more... S + V, the...er/ more... S + V. Đáp án D đúng cấu trúc yêu cầu. Các phương án khác sai cấu trúc nên loại. Chọn D. Tạm dịch: Bạn càng chịu khó luyện tập nhiều trước đám đông thì bạn càng trở nên tự tin hơn. Đáp án B sử dụng hiện tại hoàn thành kết hợp hoàn hảo với thì tương lai như câu đã cho. Tạm dịch: Cô ta sẽ không quay trở về nhà cho tới khi nào cô ấy hoàn thành xong tất cả các công việc giấy tờ. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 16: Tom is inviting Linda to his birthday party. Tom: “Would you like to come to my birthday party next week?" Linda: “ ’’

A. Why not? B. Yes, I'd love to. C. I don’t think so. Question 17: Laura is asking Tom for his idea about a vacation at the beach.

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Laura: “Do you think a vacation at the beach will do me good?” Tom: "

D. N 0, I‘d love to. "

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A. Sure. Have a good time there. B. Yes, I think. C. Could you bye me something? D. Yes, it does. Question 16: đáp án B Tình huống giao tiếp Tạm dịch: Tom đang mời Linda tới bữa tiệc sinh nhật của mình. Tom: “cậu có muốn tham gia bữa tiệc sinh nhật vào tuần sau của tớ không?" Linda: " ." A. Tại sao không nhỉ? (đáp lại khi ai đó đưa ra ý kiến) B. Có, tớ rất muốn đi (đáp lại lời mời) C. Tớ không nghĩ vậy đâu D. Không, tớ rất muốn P a g e 4 | 14

B. có. Tớ nghĩ vậy D. có. Nó sẽ như vậy mà.

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A. chắc chắn rồi. Chúc đi vui vẻ nha. C. cậu có thể mua cho tớ vài thứ được không?

Question 17: đáp án A Tình huống giao tiếp Tạm dịch: Laura đang hỏi Tom về ý tưởng của anh ấy cho kì nghỉ ở bãi biển. Laura: "Cậu có nghĩa rằng đi nghỉ ở biển là tốt cho tớ không?" Tom : “ ”

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Mark the letter A, B, c or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in the following question. Question 18. A. equip B. secure C. vacant D. oblige Question 19. A. encounter B. agency C. influence D. memory Question 18 Đáp án C đúng vì đáp án C có trọng âm rơi vào âm thứ nhất. Các phương án còn lại có trọng âm rơi vào âm tiết thứ hai. equip (v) /ɪˈkwɪp/: trang bị secure (adj) /sɪˈkjʊə/: an toàn vacant (adj) /ˈveɪkənt/: còn trống oblige (v) /əˈblaɪʤ/: bắt buộc Question 19 Đáp án A đúng vì đáp án A có trọng âm rơi vào âm thứ hai. Các phương án còn lại có trọng âm rơi vào âm tiết thứ nhất. encounter (v) /ɪnˈkaʊntə/: đương đầu agency (n) /ˈeɪʤənsi/: đơn vị, đại lí influence (v/n) /ˈɪnflʊəns/: ảnh hưởng memory (n) /ˈmɛməri/: kí ức, trí nhớ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 20. A. asked B. danced C. cashed D. studied Question 20_ Kiến thức: Cách phát âm đuôi “ed” Giải thích: - Đuôi “ed” được phát âm là /id/: Khi động từ có phát âm kết thúc là /t/ hay /d/ VD: wanted, needed, invited, decided - Đuôi “ed” được phát âm là /t/: Khi động từ có phát âm kết thúc là: /s/: CE, X, SS; /f/: GH, PH, /p/, /ʃ/:SH, /tʃ/: CH, /k/ VD: danced, fixed, crossed, laughed, photographed, washed, watched, booked,... - Đuôi “ed” được phát âm là /d/ với những trường hợp còn lại. VD: considered, received, stayed,... Đáp án D đúng vì phần gạch chân của đáp án D được đọc là /d/. Các phương án còn lại phẩn gạch chân được đọc là /t/. A. asked /ɑːskt/: hỏi B. danced /dɑːnst/: nhảy, khiêu vũ C. cashed /kæʃt/: đổi tiền mặt D. studied /ˈstʌdɪd/: học Question 21. A. profile B. stomach C. postpone D. cyclone Question 21 Kiến thức: Cách phát âm nguyên âm “o” Giải thích: P a g e 5 | 14

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Đáp án B đúng vì phần gạch chân của đáp án B được đọc là /ʌ/. Các phương án còn lại phần gạch chân được đọc là /əʊ/. profile (n) /ˈprəʊfaɪl/: hồ sơ, sơ yếu lí lịch stomach (n) /ˈstʌmək/: dạ dày, bụng postpone (v) /pəʊstˈpəʊn/: trì hoãn cyclone (n) /ˈsaɪkləʊn/: lốc. gió xoáy

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: Such problems as haste and inexperience are a universal feature of youth. A. marked B. shared C. hidden D. separated Question 23: If that was done on a national scale, we would wipe out this infectious disease. A. establish B. retain C. maintain D. eliminate Question 22. Kiến thức: Từ đồng nghĩa Giải thích: universal (adj): phổ biến, chung shared: được chia sẻ, chung marked (adj): rõ rệt hidden: ẩn, bị giấu đi separated (adj): ly thân => universal = shared Tạm dịch: Những vấn đề như sự vội vàng và thiếu kinh nghiệm là một đặc điểm chung của giới trẻ. Chọn B Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24: Fee-paying schools, often called “independent schools”, "private schools" or "public schools" A. college B. primary schools C. secondary schools D. state schools Câu 24: Đáp án D Từ trái nghĩa A. college /'kɔliddʒ/ (n): trường Đại học, Cao đẳng B. primary school (n): trường Tiểu học C. secondary school (n): trường Trung học phổ thông D. state school (n): trường công lập Tạm dịch: Những trường học phải trả phí thường được gọi là trường dân lập hay là trường tư thục. => independent schools >< state schools Question 25: Each time you turn it on, with appropriate hardware and software, it is capable of doing almost anything you ask. A. unsuitable B. unimportant C. ill-prepared D. irregular Câu 25: Đáp án A Từ trái nghĩa A. unsuitable /ʌn’su:təbl/ (a): không phù hợp, không thích hợp B. unimportant /,ʌnim'pɔ:tənt/ (a): không quan trọng C. ill-prepared (a): thiếu sự chuẩn bị D. irregular /i'regjulə/ (a): không đều, bất quy tắc Tạm dịch: Mỗi khi bạn bật nó lên, với phần cứng và phần mềm phù hợp, nó có thể làm gần như bất cứ thứ gì mà bạn yêu cầu. => appropriate >< unsuitable Mark the letter A, B, Cor D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines a pair of sentences in the following question. Question 26. Hans told US about his investing in the company. He did it on his arrival at the meeting. A. Only after investing in the company did Hans inform US of his arrival at the meeting. P a g e 6 | 14

inappropriate but have to put up with it he’s the boss. A B C D Question 30: Modern office buildings have false ﬂoors under which computer and phone wires A B C can be lain. D Question

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Question 29: Tom’s jokes

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B. Not until Hans told US that he would invest in the company did he arrive at the meeting. C. Hardly had he informed US about his investing in the company when Hans arrived at the meeting. D. No sooner had Hans arrived at the meeting than he told US about his investing in the company. Question 26 Kiến thức: Câu đảo ngữ Câu đê' bài cho: Hans nói với chúng tôi về đầu tư của mình trong công ty. Ông đã làm điều đó ngay khi đến cuộc họp. A. Chỉ sau khi đầu tư vào công ty Hans mới bảo cho chúng tôi khi ông ấy đến cuộc họp. B. Mãi cho đến khi Hans nói với chúng tôi rằng ông sẽ đầu tư vào công ty ông mới đến cuộc họp. C. Ngay khi ông thông báo cho chúng tôi về việc đầu tư của mình trong công ty thì Hans đến cuộc họp. D. Ngay khi Hans đến tại cuộc họp thì ông ấy nói với chúng tôi về đầu tư của mình trong công ty Ta chọn D phù hợp với nghĩa câu đã cho nhất. Question 27. The driver in front stopped so suddenly. Therefore, the accident happened. A. If the driver in front didn’t stop so suddenly, the accident wouldn’t happen. B. If the driver in front hadn’t stopped so suddenly, the accident would have happened. C. If the driver in front hadn’t stopped so suddenly, the accident wouldn’t have happened. D. If the driver in front had stopped so suddenly, the accident would have happened. Question 27 Kiến thức: Câu điều kiện Câu đề bài cho: Người lái xe phía trước đã dừng đột ngột. Vì thế, vụ tai nạn đã xảy ra. Đề bài cho một tình huống đã xảy ra trong quá khứ nên ta nhận định sẽ viết về câu điều kiện loại 3 diễn tả những điều không có thật trong quá khứ với công thức: If S + had P2, S + would have P2. A loại do A viết về câu điều kiện loại 2 diễn tả những điều không có thật ở hiện tại. B loại do sai nghĩa: Nếu người lái xe phía trước không dừng đột ngột thì vụ tai nạn sẽ đã xảy ra. C đúng: Nếu người lái xe phía trước không dừng đột ngột thì vụ tai nạn sẽ đã không xảy ra. D loại do sai nghĩa: Nếu người lái xe phía trước dừng đột ngột thì vụ tai nạn sẽ đã xảy ra. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 28:

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Question 29:Đáp án B ến thức: từ vựng thích: “jokes” là từ ở dạng số nhiều nên phải tân ngữ “them” để thế. it => them Tạm dịch: Những ện cười của Tom không phù hợp nhưng chúng ta phải chịu đựng chúng chỉ vì ông ấy chủ. Question 30: Đáp án D Kiến thức về cặp từ dễ gây nhầm lẫn lay và lie lay - laid - laid : đặt, xếp thứ gì đó nằm ở vị trí tĩnh P a g e 7 | 14

lie – lay - lain: tựa lên, nằm nghỉ trên một vị trí bằng phẳng => Đáp án là D(can be lain => can be laid) Tạm dịch: Những tòa văn phòng hiện đại có những sàn nâng, bên dưới chúng, dây điện máy vi tính và dâ

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Question 31. It’s possible that she didn’t hear what I said. A. She might not hear what I said. B. She might have not heard what I said. C. She may not hear what I said. D. She may not have heard what I said. Question 31 Kiến thức: Modal Verb Câu đề bài cho: Có khả năng là cô ta đã không nghe thấy những gì tôi nói. Khi nói lại các tình huống đã xảy ra trong quá khứ với Modal Verb (động từ khuyết thiếu) mà cụ thể ở đây là việc có lẽ cô ta đã không nghe thấy điều tôi nói, chúng ta phải dùng cấu trúc: S + Modal Verb + HAVE + P2, duy nhất đáp án D làm được điều này nên D đúng. Câu A và C sai do hai câu này đang viết sử dụng công thức S + Modal Verb + V0 nói về một phỏng đoán ở Hiện tại hoặc Tương lai. Câu B sai do: Viết sai cấu trúc, phải là she might not have heard... Chọn D

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Question 32. “Stop smoking or you’ll be ill,” the doctor told me. A. The doctor advised me to give up smoking to avoid illness. B. The doctor suggested smoking to treat illness, C. I was warned against smoking a lot of cigarettes. D. I was ordered not to smoke to recover from illness. Question 32 Kiến thức: Câu chuyển Trực tiếp- Gián tiếp Câu đề bài cho: “Ngừng hút thuốc hoặc anh sẽ bị bệnh”, bác sĩ đã nói với tôi. A. Bác sĩ khuyên tôi nên bỏ hút thuốc để tránh bệnh tật. B. Bác sĩ đề nghị hút thuốc để điểu trị bệnh. C. Tôi đã được cảnh báo không hút nhiều thuốc lá. D. Tôi được lệnh không hút thuốc để khỏi bệnh. Câu B, C, D không phù hợp về nghĩa, câu A sát với nghĩa câu đề bài cho nhất nên chọn A. Question 33. I haven’t heard from Mike for several months. A. I didn’t hear from Mike several months ago. B. Mike didn’t hear from me several months ago. C. Mike heard from me several months ago. D. I last heard from Mike several months ago. Question 33 Kiến thức: Viết lại cấu chuyển đổi Thì của động từ. Câu đề bài cho: Tôi đã không nghe tin tức gì từ Mike vài tháng nay rồi. A. Tôi đã không nghe gì từ Mike vài tháng trước. B. Mike đã không nghe gì từ tôi vài tháng trước. C. Mike đã nghe tin tức từ tôi vài tháng trước. D. Lần cuối cùng tôi nghe tin tức từ Mike là vài tháng trước đây. Câu A, B, C không phù hợp về nghĩa, câu D sát với nghĩa câu đề bài cho nhất nên chọn D. Read the following passage and choose the best option A, B, C or D to be used for each of the blanks to complete the following passage. P a g e 8 | 14

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Water is of vital importance to all living things. Without it, all living things will surely die. We also use a great (34) __________ of water daily in our homes, in factories, and in power stations. Most of this water is fresh water and it comes to US from reservoirs, rivers and lakes. The Earths surface is (35) __________by large areas of water which we call oceans and seas. If you have tasted the water from the sea, you will know that, unlike fresh water, seawater tastes salty. This is due to the (36) __________of sodium chloride which comes from the land. Rivers carry it to the sea. Although neither salt nor fresh water has any color, the sea often looks blue in the sunlight. The reason is (37) __________sunlight is made up of many colors. Some colors disappear quickly in the sea but blue light bounces back or is reflected, to the surface. This makes the sea look blue. (38) __________, a stormy sky will make the sea look grey. Question 34. A. number B. much C. many D. amount Question 34 Kiến thức: Lượng từ Giải thích: “water” là danh từ không đếm được, cho nên ta dùng cụm “a great amount of”. Chọn D. Các phương án còn lại: A. number: số lượng B. much: nhiều (dùng với danh từ không đếm được) C. many: nhiều (dùng với danh từ đếm được số nhiều) Trích bài: We also use a great amount of water daily in our homes, in factories, and in power stations. Most of this water is fresh water and it comes to US from reservoirs, rivers and lakes. Tạm dịch: Chúng ta cũng sử dụng một lượng nước lớn hàng ngày trong nhà, trong các nhà máy và trong các nhà máy điện. Hầu hết nước này là nước ngọt và nó đến với chúng ta từ các hồ chứa, sông hồ. Question 35. A. covered B. reserved C. constructed D. included Question 35 Kiến thức: Từ vựng Giải thích: A. cover (v): bao phủ B. reserve (v): dự trữ, để dành C. construct (v): xây dựng D. include (v): bao gồm Ta có cách dùng: be covered: được/bị bao phủ Trích bài: The Earth’s surface is covered by large areas of water which we call oceans and seas Tạm dịch: Bề mặt Trái đất được bao phủ bởi những vùng nước rộng lớn mà chúng ta gọi là đại dương và biển. Question 36. A. attraction B. presence C. advantage D. realization Kiến thức: Từ vựng Giải thích: A. attraction (n): sự thu hút, sự lôi cuốn B. presence (n): sự hiện diện C. advantage (n): lợi thế, ưu điểm D. realization (n): sự nhận biết Trích bài: If you have tasted the water from the sea, you will know that, unlike fresh water, seawater tastes salty. This is due to the presence of sodium chloride which comes from the land. Tạm dịch: Nếu bạn đã nếm nước từ biển, bạn sẽ biết rằng, không giống như nước ngọt, nước biển có vị mặn. Điều này là do sự hiện diện của natri clorua đến từ đất. Question 37 Giải thích: Câu đã đầy đủ các thành phần: the reason (S) is (V).., và phía sau là một mệnh đề nên ta dùng “that” đứng trước mệnh đề đó. Đây là mệnh đề danh ngữ bắt đầu bằng THAT. Không có yếu tố thay thế cho danh từ đứng trước nên không dùng các phương án còn lại. Trích bài: The reason is that sunlight is made up of many colors. Tạm dịch: Lý do là ánh nắng mặt trời được tạo thành từ nhiều màu sắc. Question 37. A. what B. who C. which D. that Question 38. A. Moreover B. Hence C. Although D. However P a g e 9 | 14

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Question 38 Kiến thức: Liên từ Giải thích: A. Moreover: Hơn nữa B. Hence: do đó, cũng vì lý do đó C. Although: mặc dù D. However: tuy nhiên Ta chọn B theo ý nghĩa của bài. Trích bài: Some colors disappear quickly in the sea but blue light bounces back or is reflected, to the surface. This makes the sea look blue. Hence, a stormy sky will make the sea look grey. Tạm dịch: Một số màu biến mất nhanh chóng trên biển nhưng ánh sáng xanh bị dội ngược lại hoặc bị phản xạ lên bề mặt. Điều này làm cho biển trông xanh. Cũng bởi lý do này, một bầu trời giông bão sẽ làm cho biển trông xám xịt. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Satoru Iwata was made the CEO of Nintendo in 2002. At that time, the video game market was suffering, and Nintendo was having trouble with its sales. Iwata thought that a change in strategy was due. Previously, the strategy in the game industry was to keep making the same kinds of games and consoles but just improve their power and complexity. However, Iwata didn’t just want to attract dedicated gamers. He wanted to bring in new kinds of players to video gaming. How was he going to do that? He decided to change the very concept of video games. Iwata wanted to make video games easier to pick up and more relevant to peoples lives. Out of this idea came the Nintendo DS. People interacted more directly with the game by using a touch screen instead of just a set of buttons. Iwata took this idea to the extreme with the motion-based Wii. Now, just by using natural body movements, players can enjoy playing all sorts of games. The kinds of games produced changed as well. Along with the regular role-playing game (RPG), action, and sport games, new kinds of “games” were designed. Some of these new games, like Brain Age, improved thinking abilities. Others, like Wii Fit, improved fitness. This has brought in a new age of gaming. Everyone from grandparents to their grandchildren seems to be playing Nintendo products. With all that we have seen so far, we can only wonder what is next for Iwata. Surely it will be something groundbreaking. Question 39. What is the main idea of the passage? A. Satoru Iwata is a man with amazing ideas. B. Gaming is not just for dedicated gamers anymore. C. Satoru Iwata is an important man for dedicated gamers D. The gaming industry is making educational games now. Question 40. What first motivated Iwata to change the strategy of Nintendo? A. He wanted to make useful consoles. B. He wanted to lower sales. C. He wanted to attract more players. D. He wanted a new concept for gaming. Question 41. The word “that” in paragraph 2 refer to . A. Bringing in new kinds of players to video gaming. B. Attracting dedicated gamers C. Making the same kinds of games D. Improving games’ power and complexity. Question 42. Which is TRUE about changes Iwata make about the world of gaming? A. More games for children and girls. B. More dedicated games. C. Created a new style of gaming. D. Less expensive game systems. Question 43. The word “groundbreaking” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to A. innovative B. bad C. beautiful D. natural Question 39 Câu hỏi về nội dung chính của bài:Ý chính của bài đọc này là gì? A. Satoru Iwata là một người đàn ông có những ý tưởng đáng ngạc nhiên. B. Việc chơi game không chỉ dành cho đối tượng chơi game chuyên nghiệp nữa. P a g e 10 | 14

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C. Satoru Iwata là một người đàn ông quan trọng cho những người chơi game chuyên nghiệp. D. Nền công nghiệp game đang tạo ra nhiều trò chơi mang tính giáo dục. Xuyên suốt bài đọc chúng ta thấy nói về những sáng kiến và ý tưởng mới của ông Satoru Iwata làm thay đổi ngành công nghiệp game. Đoạn 1: Khi ngành game đang chững lại và những sự cải tiến bị dập khuôn thì “Iwata didn’t just want to attract dedicated gamers. He wanted to bring in new kinds of players to video gaming.” - Iwata không muốn chỉ thu hút những người chơi giỏi. Ông ấy còn muốn thu hút nhiều kiểu loại người chơi mới vào chơi game. Đoạn 2: Iwata muốn trò chơi phù hợp với cuộc sống của mọi người hơn nữa, vì thế ông ta đã tạo ra game mà: “People interacted more directly with the game by using a touch screen instead of just a set of buttons” - Mọi người tương tác trực tiếp hơn với game bằng màn hình cảm ứng thay vì chỉ với mỗi những nút bấm. Đoạn 3: Những thay đổi đi cùng với những game mới do Iwata tạo ra: “Some of these new games, like Brain Age, improved thinking abilities. Others, like Wii Fit, improved fitness. This has brought in a new age of gaming. Everyone from grandparents to their grandchildren seems to be playing Nintendo products.” - Một vài ví dụ cho những game mới này như Brain Age, tăng khả năng suy luận. Những trò khác như Wii Fit tăng sự vận động. Điều này mang đến một thời đại mới cho game. Mọi người từ ông bà tới con cháu dường như đều thích chơi các sản phẩm của Nintendo. Chọn A. Question 40 Điều gì đầu tiên đã thúc đẩy Iwata thay đổi chiến thuật của Nintendo? A. Ông ta muốn tạo ra những máy chơi game hữu ích hơn. B. Ông ta muốn giảm doanh số bán hàng. C. Ông ta muốn thu hút nhiều người chơi game nữa. D. Ông ta muốn có một khái niệm chơi game mới. Thông tin ở đoạn 1: However, Iwata didn’t just want to attract dedicated gamers. He wanted to bring in new kinds of players to video gaming. Tuy nhiên, Iwata không chỉ muốn thu hút những người chơi game chuyên nghiệp. Ông ta còn muốn thu hút nhiêu người chơi game khác nữa. Chọn C. Question 41 Từ “that” trong đoạn 2 liên hệ với____. A. Thu hút nhiều người chơi game mới. B. Thu hút những người vốn đã thích chơi game. C. Sáng tạo ra những loại game tương tự. D. Cải thiện sức mạnh và độ phức tạp của game. Thông tin đoạn 1: He wanted to bring in new kinds of players to video gaming. How was he going to do that? Ông ta còn muốn thu hút nhiều người chơi game khác nữa. Ông ta sẽ định làm điều đó như thế nào? Chọn A. Question 42 Điều gì là đúng về những thay đổi mà Iwata tạo ra về thế giới game? A. Có thêm nhiều trò chơi cho trẻ em và phụ nữ. B. Thu hút thêm nhiều người lúc nào cũng thích chơi game. C. Tạo ra một kiểu chơi game mới. D. Trò chơi ít đắt đỏ hơn. Thông tin: - Iwata wanted to make video games easier to pick up and more relevant to people’s lives. - The kinds of games produced changed as well. - Ông ta mong muốn khiến cho các trò chơi điện tử dễ hiểu và dễ chơi hơn, liên quan, phù hợp nhiều hơn đến cuộc sống của con người. - Loại hình game cũng thay đổi. Chọn C. Question 43 P a g e 11 | 14

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Từ “groundbreaking” ở đoạn cuối gần nghĩa với_____. A. innovative (adj): sáng tạo, cải tiến, đổi mới B. bad (adj): tệ hại C. beautiful (adj): đẹp D. natural (adj): tự nhiên Thông tin: With all that we have seen so far, we can only wonder what is next for Iwata. Surely it will be something groundbreaking. Với tất cả những thứ mà chúng ta nhìn thấy, chúng ta chỉ có thể hỏi là liệu Iwata sẽ làm gì tiếp theo. Chắc chắn đó sẽ là những thứ mang tính đột phá. Chọn A Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, c, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question. There are many mistakes that people make when writing their resume (CV) or completing a job application. Here are some of the most common and most serious. The biggest problem is perhaps listing the duties for which you were responsible in a past position, all this tells your potential employers is what you were supposed to do. They do not necessarily know the specific skills you used in executing them, nor do they know what results you achieved - both of which are essential. In short, they won’t know if you were the best, the worst or just average in your position. The more concrete information you can include, the better. As far as possible, provide measurements of what you accomplished. If any innovations you introduced saved the organization money, how much did they save? If you found a way of increasing productivity, by what percentage did you increase it? Writing what you are trying to achieve in life - your objective - is a waste of space. It tells the employer what you are interested in. Do you really think that employers care what you want? No, they are interested in what they want! Instead, use that space for a career summary. A good one is brief - three to four sentences long. A good one will make the person reviewing your application want to read further. Many resumes list “hard” job-specific skills, almost to the exclusion of transferable, or “soft”, skills. However, your ability to negotiate effectively, for example, can be just as important as your technical skills. All information you give should be relevant, so carefully consider the job for which you are applying. If you are applying for a job that is somewhat different than your current job, it is up to you to draw a connection for the resume reviewer, so that they will understand how your skills will fit in their organization. The person who reviews your paperwork will not be a mind reader. If you are modest about the skills you can offer, or the results you have achieved, a resume reader may take what you write literally, and be left with a low opinion of your ability, you need to say exactly how good you are. On the other hand, of course, never stretch the truth or lie. Question 44. What topic does the passage mainly discuss? A. The way how to write the resume for job application. B. The mistakes people make when applying for a job. C. The common way to make impression in a job interview. D. The necessary skills for job application. Question 45. The word “executing” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to . A. enumerating B. determining C. completing D. implementing Question 46. The word “concrete” in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by . A. indeterminate B. specific C. substantial D. important Question 47. What does the word “it” in paragraph 3 refer to ? A. organization money B. information C. productivity D. percentage Question 48. According to the passage, what information should candidates include in their resume? A. specific skills for previous jobs B. the past achievements C. previous positions D. future objective Question 49 According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true? A. The ability to negotiate effectively is as significant as technical skills. B. Candidates must study the job they are applying carefully before writing the CV C. Applicants should not apply for a distinct job from what they are doing. P a g e 12 | 14

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D. The information interviewees present should be related to the job they are applying. Question 50. It can be inferred from the last paragraph that . A. you should write accurately about your ability for the vacant position. B. you should be modest about what you can do. C. a resume reader is good enough to understand what you imply about your ability in the CV. D. you are allowed to exaggerate the truth of your competence if possible. Question 44 Bài văn chủ yếu thảo luận về chủ đề gì? A. Cách viết bản sơ yếu lý lịch để xin việc. B. Những lỗi mọi người thường gặp phải khi nộp đơn xin việc. C. Cách thông thường để tạo ấn tượng tốt trong một cuộc phỏng vấn xin việc. D. Những kĩ năng cần thiết để xin việc. Đoạn đầu tiên của bài đọc này đóng vai trò như phần mở bài giới thiệu nội dung chính của cả bài, và các đoạn tiếp theo đi làm rõ ý cho đoạn 1. Căn cứ thông tin: “There are many mistakes that people make when writing their resume (CV) or completing a job application. Here are some of the most common and most serious.” Có nhiều lỗi mà mọi người thường gặp khi viết bản sơ yếu lí lịch hay hoàn thành hồ sơ xin việc. Dưới đây là một vài lỗi thường gặp và nghiêm trọng nhất. Question 45 Từ “executing” trong đoạn 2 gần nghĩa nhất với từ______. A. liệt kê B. xác định, tìm ra C. hoàn thành D. thực hiện, thi hành Căn cứ thông tin: “They do not necessarily know the specific skills you used in executing them, nor do they know what results you achieved” - Họ không cần thiết phải biết những kĩ năng cụ thể bạn đã sử dụng để thực hiện các nhiệm vụ đó, họ cũng không cần biết kết quả bạn đã đạt được là gì. Từ đồng nghĩa: executing (thực hiện) = implementing. Chọn D. Question 46 Từ “concrete” trong đoạn 3 được thay thế tốt nhất bởi từ______. A. mơ hồ, không rõ B. cụ thể, rõ ràng C. chủ yếu, thiết yếu D. quan trọng Căn cứ thông tin: “The more concrete information you can include, the better.” - Thông tin bạn cung cấp càng cụ thể càng tốt Từ đồng nghĩa: concrete (cụ thể) = specific. Chọn B. Question 47 Từ “it” trong đoạn 3 đề cập đến từ nào? A. tiền của tổ chức B. thông tin C. năng suất D. tỉ lệ phần trăm Căn cứ thông tin đoạn 3: “If any innovations you introduced saved the organization money, how much did they save? If you found a way of increasing productivity, by what percentage did you increase it?” Nếu bạn đã đưa ra được ỷ tưởng đổi mới nào giúp tiết kiệm được tiền cho tổ chức, thì họ đã tiết kiệm được bao nhiêu tiền? Nếu bạn đề xuất được một cách tăng năng suất, vậy bạn đã làm tăng nó lên bao nhiêu phần trăm? Vậy “it” ở đây thay thế cho “productivity” → Chọn C. Question 48 P a g e 13 | 14

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Theo đoạn văn, thông tin nào những người xin việc nên bao hàm trong bản sơ yếu lí lịch của họ? A. các kĩ năng cụ thể cho các công việc trước đây B. các thành tựu đạt được trong quá khứ C. các chức vụ, vị trí công việc trước đây D. mục tiêu trong tương lai Từ khóa: information/ include in their resume Cản cứ các thông tin trong đoạn văn: “The biggest problem is perhaps listing the duties for which you were responsible in a past position: all this tells your potential employers is what you were supposed to do. They do not necessarily know the specific skills you used in executing them, nor do they know what results you achieved” - Vấn đề lớn nhất có lẽ là liệt kê các công việc mà bạn đã làm trong chức vụ trước đây: tất cả những điều này nói cho nhà tuyển dụng tiềm năng của bạn biết những gì bạn có thể làm được. Họ không cần thiết phải biết những kĩ năng cụ thể bạn đã sử dụng để thực hiện các nhiệm vụ đó. → Loại A ...họ cũng không cần biết kết quả bạn đã đạt được là gì. -→ Loại B “Writing what you are trying to achieve in life - your objective - is a waste of space.” - Viết về những điều bạn đang cố gắng đạt được trong cuộc sống - mục tiêu của bạn - là một sự lãng phí giấy. → Loại D Chọn C: chúng ta liệt kê các chức vụ trước đây đã làm nhưng không nên nhắc các kĩ năng cụ thể và các thành tựu. Question 49 Theo đoạn văn, câu nào sau đây là không đúng? A. Khả năng đàm phán hiệu quả cũng quan trọng như các kĩ năng thực hành. B. Người xin việc cần phải nghiên cứu công việc họ đang nộp đơn xin một cách kĩ càng trước khi viết bản sơ yếu lí lịch. C. Người xin việc không nên nộp đơn xin một công việc khác với công việc mà họ đang làm. D. Những thông tin mà người đi phỏng vấn trình bày nên có liên quan đến công việc mà họ đang xin. Từ khóa: NOT TRUE Cản cứ vào các thông tin trong đoạn văn: “However, your ability to negotiate effectively, for example, can be just as important as your technical skills.” Tuy nhiên, khả năng đàm phán hiệu quả của hạn cũng quan trọng như các kĩ năng thực hành. Loại A. “All information you give should be relevant, so carefully consider the job for which you are applying. If you are applying for a job that is somewhat different than your current job, it is up to you to draw a connection for the resume reviewer, so that they will understand how your skills will fit in their organization.” - Tất cả các thông tin bạn cung cấp nên có mối liên quan với nhau, vì vậy hãy nghiên cứu công việc bạn định xin một cách kĩ càng. Nếu bạn đang xin một công việc, về mặt nào đó, khác với công việc hiện tại của bạn, bạn nên tạo sự liên kết giữa 2 công việc để người đọc bản sơ yếu lý lịch hiểu được các kĩ năng của bạn phù hợp với tổ chức của họ. → Loại B và D. Question 50 Có thể suy ra từ đoạn văn cuối rằng______. A. bạn nên viết một cách chính xác về khả năng của bạn cho vị trí còn trống. B. bạn nên khiêm tốn về những gì bạn có thể làm. C. người đọc bản sơ yếu lý lịch đủ giỏi để hiểu những gì bạn hàm ý về khả năng của bạn trong bản sơ yếu lịch. D. bạn được phép phóng đại sự thật về khả năng của bạn nếu có thể. Căn cứ vào thông tin đoạn cuối: “If you are modest about the skills you can offer, or the results you have achieved, a resume reader may take what you write literally, and be left with a low opinion of your ability: you need to say exactly how good you are. On the other hand, of course, never stretch the truth or lie.” Nếu bạn khiêm tốn vê những kĩ năng bạn có thể làm hay kết quả bạn đã đạt được, người đọc bản sơ yếu lí lịch sẽ hiểu theo đúng nghĩa đen bạn viết, và sẽ có ấn tượng không tốt về khả năng của bạn: bạn cần phải nói chính xác bạn giỏi đến mức nào. Mặc khác, tất nhiên, không bao giờ được phóng đại sự thật hay nói dối. P a g e 14 | 14

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA 03 (Đề thi có 04 trang)

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Họ, tên thí sinh……………………………………………………………………… Số báo danh: .................................................................................................................... Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 1: His______of the generator is very famous. A. invent B. inventive C. invention D. inventor Question 1: Đáp án C Căn cứ bằng tính từ sở hữu "his". Sau tính từ sở hữu + N Trong đó: A. invent (v): phát minh, sáng chế B. inventive (a): có tài sáng chế, đầy sáng tạo C. invention (n): sự phát minh, sự sáng chế D. inventor (n) : người phát minh, người sáng tạo Dịch nghĩa: Phát minh về máy phát điện của ông ấy rất nổi tiếng. Question 2: They rarely let her stay out late, _______? A. do they B. don’t they C. does she D. doesn’t she Question 2Đáp án A Đáp án A - câu hỏi đuôi Câu hỏi đuôi luôn hỏi cho động từ và chủ ngữ ở mệnh đề chính. Trong trường hợp này, chủ ngữ của mệnh đề chính là “they” nên hai đáp án C và D (hỏi cho She) bị loại. Câu khẳng định có câu hỏi đuôi dạng phủ định còn câu phủ định có câu hỏi đuôi dạng khẳng định. Câu đề bài cho có “rarely” là trạng từ phủ định nên nó là câu phủ định. Vì vậy, chọn đáp án A - do they (có phần hỏi đuôi khẳng định). Tạm dịch: Họ không cho cô ấy ra ngoài quá muộn đâu, có đúng không? Question 3. The commission estimates that at least seven companies took___________ of the program. B. use

Question 3: Đáp án A

A. advantage

C. benefit

D. dominance

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Đáp án A - câu hỏi thành ngữ

Thành ngữ “take advantage of sb/sth”: tận dụng/ lợi dụng ai hoặc cái gì đó. Xét 4 đáp án, chỉ chọn được A advantage. A. advantage (n): lợi thế

B. use (n)/ (v): công dụng (n) - thường đi trong “Make use of sth - tận dụng cái gì đó/ sử dụng (v)

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C. benefit (n): lợi ích D. dominance (n): sự thống trị Tạm dịch: Ủy ban này ước tính rằng có ít nhất 7 công ty đã lợi dụng chương trình này Question 4. Both husband and wife should be responsible ________ doing the household chores. A. with B. to C. for D. of

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Question 4: C Kiến thức: Giới từ Giải thích: be responsible for st/doing st: có, chịu trách nhiệm về cái gì/làm gì Tạm dịch: Cả hai vợ chồng đều nên có trách nhiệm làm việc nhà. Chọn C A. outside B. edge C. tip D. border Question 5: Đáp án B Outside: bên ngoài Edge: mép Tip: đầu Border: biên giới Câu này dịch như sau: Mary rõ ràng đang lo lắng; cô ây ấy đang ngồi ngay ở mép ghế. you come back. Question 6: I will stand here and wait for you A. because B. though C. so D. until Question 6. Đáp án D A. Because: bởi vì C. So: vì thế B. Though: mặc dù D. Until: mãi đến khi Dịch nghĩa: Anh sẽ vẫn đứng đây chờ em cho đến khi em quay lại. Question 7. She bought a _________ lunchbox that she could carry lunch to work. A. new red plastic B. red plastic new C. new plastic red D. plastic new red 7 (TH) Kiến thức: Trật tự tính từ Giải thích: Khi có nhiều tính từ cùng đứng trước 1 danh từ, sắp xếp chúng theo thứ tự: OSASCOMP + N. Trong đó: O – opinion: quan điểm S – size: kích thước A – age: độ tuổi S – shape: hình dạng C – colour: màu sắc O – origin: nguồn gốc M – material: chất liệu P – purpose: mục đích N – noun: danh từ Nếu có số thứ tự => đứng trước tính từ & danh từ Tạm dịch: Cô ấy đã mua một hộp cơm bằng nhựa màu đỏ mới để có thể mang đi ăn trưa để đi làm. Question 8: The government hopes to______its plans for introducing cable TV. A. turn out B. carry out C. carry on D. keep on Question 8: Đáp án B + turn out: hoá ra + carry on = keep on = go on = continue: tiếp tục + carry out: tiến hành Dịch nghĩa: Chính phủ hi vọng thực hiện được kế hoạch áp dụng cáp quang ti vi. Question 9: When she came home from school yesterday, her mother _______in the kitchen.

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A. cooked B. was cooking C. is cooking D. cooks Question 9. Đáp án B Kiến thức: Thì trong tiếng Anh. Giải thích: Ta dùng thì quá khứ đơn và thì quá khứ tiếp diễn để diễn tả một hành động đang xảy ra trong quá khứ thì có một hành động khác xen vào. Tạm dịch: Hôm qua khi cô ấy đi học về, mẹ cô đang nấu ăn trong bếp. Question 10: ______, he went straight home. A. While he would finish his work B. When he has finished his work C. After he had finished his work D. Before he has been finishing his work Question 10. Đáp án C Kiến thức: Thì quá khứ hoàn thành. Giải thích: Cấu trúc: After S + had +Ved/ Vp2, S + Ved/ V2 Tạm dịch: Sau khi anh ấy hoàn thành xong công việc, anh ấy đi thẳng về nhà.

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Question 11: The jury______her compliments on her excellent knowledge of the subject. A. paid B. gave C. made D. said Question 11: Đáp án A Câu này dịch như sau: Bồi thẩm đoàn khen ngợi cô ấy kiến thức tuyệt vời về chủ đề này.

Pay compliment /ˈkɒmplɪmənt/ (n) on sth = compliment/ˈkɒmplɪment/ (v) on sth:

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khen ngợi ai về việc gì Question 12: I took the children to the _______park last weekend. They really enjoyed going on all the rides. A. wildlife B. amusement C. national D. entertainment Question 12: Đáp án B Kiến thức: từ vựng Wildlife (n): động vật hoang dã Amusement(n): sự giải trí National (a): thuộc về quốc gia Entertainment(n): sự giải trí Cụm danh từ: amusemnet park [ khu vui chơi giải trí] Câu này dịch như sau: Tôi dẫn lũ trẻ đến khu vui chơi cuối tuần trước. Chúng thật sự thích cả chuyến đi. Question 13.This villa ———————- in 1975 by my grandfather. A. built B. was built C. was build D. has built Question 13: Kiến thức: Câu bị động: Giải chi tiết: Câu bị động thì Quá khứ đơn. Hành động được nhấn mạnh là ngôi nhà được xây dựng, trạng ngữ chỉ thời gian là in 1970. S + động từ tobe + V-ed/V3 Tạm dịch : Căn biệt thự được xây vào năm 1975 bởi ông tôi. Question 14. ________ this movie last week, I don’t want to see it again. A. Having seen B. Being seen C. Having been seen D. Seeing Question 14.

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Kiến thức: Mệnh đề phân tử / Rút gọn mệnh đề đồng ngữ Giải thích: Khi 2 mệnh đề có cùng chủ ngữ (I) thì có thể rút gọn 1 trong 2 mệnh đề về dạng: - V-ing / Having P2: nếu mệnh đề được rút gọn mang nghĩa chủ động - P2 (quá khứ phân từ): nếu mệnh đề được rút gọn mang nghĩa bị động Chủ ngữ “I” có thể làm chủ (tự thực hiện hành động”see” => nghĩa chủ động. hành động đã xảy ra trong quá khứ. Having+V3/ed Tạm dịch: Đã xem phim này tuần trước, tôi không muốn xem lại. Question 15: The richer you are,_______. A. you may become more worried B. you more worried may become C. the more worried you may become D. the more worry you may become become 15.Đáp án C Dịch nghĩa: Bạn càng giàu, bạn càng lo lắng. Xét các đáp án: A. you may become more worried => Sai cấu trúc so sánh kép B. you more worried may become => Sai cấu trúc so sánh kép C. the more worried you may become → Cấu trúc so sánh kép khi nói về 2 người hoặc sựvật: The + so sánh hơn + S + V, the + so sánh hơn + S + V D. the more worry you may become → sau more là adj/adv, không phải động từ Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges. Question 16: “How fashionable a pair of trainers you have!” - “______________” A. Do you want to know where I bought them? B. Thanks for your compliment. C. I know it’s fashionable. D. Yes, of course. Question 17: “What can I do for you?” - “_______.” A. No need to help. B. Thank you. C. Thanks, I’m just looking. D. Sorry for not buying anything 16.Đáp án B Tình huống: “Bạn có đôi giày thể thao thật thời trang!” A. Bạn có muốn biết tôi mua chúng ở đâu không? B. Cảm ơn vì lời khen. C. Tôi biết nó hợp thời trang. D. Đúng rồi, tất nhiên là vậy. => Khi được khen, chúng ta nói cảm ơn 17.Đáp án C “Tôi có thể giúp gì cho bạn?” - “__________” A. Không cần giúp. B. Cảm ơn. C. Cảm ơn, tôi chỉ đang xem thôi. D. Xin lỗi vì đã không mua thứ gì. => Khi được hỏi có cần giúp gì không => chúng ta nói cảm ơn Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 18: A. admit B. suggest C. remind D. manage

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D. influence

Question 19: A. approval B. applicant C. energy Question 18. D Kiến thức: Trọng âm từ có 2 âm tiết Giải thích: A. admit /ədˈmɪt/ B. suggest /səˈdʒest/ C. remind /rɪˈmaɪnd/ D. manage /ˈmænɪdʒ/ Trọng âm đáp án D vào âm tiết thứ nhất, còn lại rơi vào âm tiết thứ hai. Chọn D Question 19. A Kiến thức: Trọng âm từ có 3 âm tiết Giải thích: A. approval /əˈpruːvl/ B. applicant /ˈæplɪkənt/ C. energy /ˈenədʒi/ D. influence /ˈɪnfluəns/ Trọng âm đáp án A vào âm tiết thứ nhất, còn lại vào âm tiết thứ hai. Chọn A

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 20: A. watched B. cleaned C. stopped D. picked Question 20. B Kiến thức: Phát âm “ed” Giải thích: Cách phát âm đuôi “ed”: + Đuôi “ed” được phát âm là /id/ khi động từ có phát âm kết thúc là /t/ hay /d/ + Đuôi “ed” được phát âm là /t/ khi động từ có phát âm kết thúc là /s/,/f/,/p/,/ʃ/,/tʃ/,/k/ + Đuôi “ed” được phát âm là /d/ với các trường hợp còn lại A. watched /wɒtʃt/ B. cleaned /kliːnd/ C. stopped /stɒpt/ D. picked /pɪkt/ Phần gạch chân đáp án B phát âm là /d/, còn lại là /t/. Chọn B Question 21: A. hole B. home C. come D. hold Question 21. C Kiến thức: Phát âm “o” Giải thích: A. hole /həʊl/ B. home /həʊm/ C. come /kʌm/ D. hold /həʊld/ Phần gạch chân đáp án C phát âm là /ʌ/, còn lại là /əʊ/. Chọn C Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: I will not stand for your bad attitude any longer. A. like B. sit C. tolerate D. care Question 22. C Kiến thức: Từ đồng nghĩa

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Giải thích: stand for: chịu đựng A. like (v): thích B. sit (v): ngồi C. tolerate (v): chịu đựng D. care (v): quan tâm => stand for = tolerate Tạm dịch: Tôi sẽ không chịu đựng thái độ xấu của bạn nữa. Chọn C Question Question 23. The repeated commercials on TV distract many viewers from watching their favorite films. A. advertisements B. contests C. business D. economics Question 23. A Tạm dịch: Những quảng cáo lặp đi lặp lại trên ti vi sẽ làm cho người ta bị xao nhãng khỏi việc xem các bộ phim yêu thích của họ. commercials = advertisements: những mẩu quảng cáo Chọn A Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24: In some countries, so few students are accepted by the universities that admission is almost a guarantee of a good job upon graduation. A. a promise B. an uncertainty C. an assurance D. a pledge Đáp án B Từ trái nghĩa - kiến thức về thành ngữ Tạm dịch: Ở một số quốc gia, rất ít sinh viên được các trường đại học chấp nhận mà việc nhập học gần như là một sự đảm bảo cho một công việc tốt khi tốt nghiệp. => guarantee /ˌɡærənˈtiː/ (n): lời cam kết, đảm bảo Xét các đáp án: A. promise (n): lời hứa B. uncertainty /əˈʃʊərəns/ (n): tính không chắc chắn C. assurance /ʌnˈsɜːrtnti/ (n): lời cam kết, hứa hẹn D. pledge /pledʒ/ (n): lời cam kết, lời nguyện => Do đó: a guarantee >< an uncertainty

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Question 25: The burglar crept into the house without making any noise. That's why no one heard anything. A. inaudibly B. boisterously C. shrilly D. hurly-burly Đáp án B Từ trái nghĩa - kiến thức về thành ngữ Tạm dịch: Tên trộm lẻn vào nhà mà không hề tạo ra chút tiếng ồn nào. Đó là lý do không ai nghe thấy gì. => without making any noise: không hề tạo ra chút tiếng ồn nào Xét các đáp án: A. inaudibly /ɪnˈɔːdəbli/ (adv): một cách vô thanh B. boisterously /ˈbɔɪstərəsli/ (adv): một cách ầm ĩ, náo nhiệt (tràn đầy năng lượng) C. shrilly /ˈʃrɪlli/ (adv): một cách the thé, inh tai (gây khó chịu) D. hurly-burly /ˈhɜːrli bɜːrli/ (adv): một hoạt động, tình huống ồn ào, náo nhiệt => Do đó: without making any noise >< boisterously Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 26: Seth informed us of his retirement from the company. He did it when arriving at the meeting. A. Only after his retiring from the company did Seth tell us about his arrival at the meeting.

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B. Not until Seth said to us that he would leave the company did he turn up at the meeting. C. Hardly had Seth notified us of his retiring from the company when he arrived at the meeting. D. No sooner had Seth arrived at the meeting than we were told about his leaving the company Question 26: Đáp án D Kiến thức: Thì quá khứ đơn – quá khứ hoàn thành Giải thích: No sooner + had + S + PP than + S + Ved/ V2: Ngay khi... thì... Tạm dịch: Seth thông báo cho chúng tôi về việc nghỉ hưu từ công ty. Ông đã làm điều đó khi đến cuộc họp. A. Chỉ sau khi anh ấy nghỉ hưu ở công ty, Seth mới nói với chúng tôi về việc anh ấy đến cuộc họp. B. Mãi cho đến khi Seth nói với chúng tôi rằng anh ấy sẽ rời công ty, anh ấy mới đến cuộc họp. C. Seth vừa mới thông báo cho chúng tôi về việc ông nghỉ hưu thì công ty khi ông đến cuộc họp. D. Seth vừa đến cuộc họp thì đã nói về việc anh ấy rời công ty với chúng tôi. Các phương án A, B, C không phù hợp về nghĩa Question 27: They were late for the meeting. The heavy was heavy. A. If it snowed heavily, they would be late for the meeting. B. Had it not snowed heavily, they would have been late for the meeting. C. But for the heavy snow, they wouldn't have been late for the meeting. D. If it didn't snow heavily, they wouldn't be late for the meeting. Question 27: Đáp án C Tạm dịch: Họ đến muộn buổi gặp mặt. Tuyết rơi nhiều. They were late for the meeting. The snow was heavy. (nguyên nhân và kết quả) ( Quá khứ đơn) Tình huống ở quá khứ nên viết lại bằng câu điều kiện loại 3. A. Sai vì là câu điều kiện loại 2 B. Sai vì là câu điều kiện loại 3 nhưng không phù hợp về nghĩa với câu đã cho (Nếu không có tuyết rơi nhiều, họ đã đến muộn buổi gặp mặt) C. Đúng vì phù hợp là câu điều kiện loại 3 (rút gọn) và phù hợp về nghĩa. D. Sai vì là câu điều kiện loại 2 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 28: Mrs. Hoa and her friends from Vietnam plan to attend the festival now A B C D Question 29: Some manufacturers are not only raising their prices but also decreasing the production of its A B C D products. Question 30: The whole matter is farther complicated by the fact that Amanda and Jo refuse to speak to A B C each other. D Question 28: Đáp án C NOTE 14: * Chia thì theo đúng trạng ngữ chỉ thời gian: now Mrs. Hoa and her friends from Vietnam (plan) to attend the festival now. Ta phải chia động từ plan thành thì hiện tại tiếp diễn

FI CI A

Question 28. Đáp án D Kiểm tra kiến thức: Sự hoà hợp giữa chủ ngữ và tính từ sở hữu cách Some manufacturers số nhiều their Dịch: Một số nhà sản xuất không những tăng giá thành mà còn giảm năng suất của các sản phẩm.

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Question 30: Đáp án B Kiến thức về từ vựng Cả “farther” và “further” đều là dạng so sánh hơn của từ “far”. Tuy nhiên, chúng có sự khác nhau như sau: + Farther: xa hơn (về khoảng cách địa lí) + Further: xa hơn, sâu hơn (về mức độ, tính chất) Tạm dịch: Toàn bộ vấn đề phức tạp hơn bởi thực tế là Amanda và Jo từ chối nói chuyện với nhau. => Đáp án là B (farther -further) Cấu trúc khác: Refuse to do st: từ chối làm gì Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 31: A supermarket is more convenient than a shopping centre. A. A shopping centre is not as convenient as a supermarket. B. A shopping centre is more convenient than a supermarket. C. A supermarket is not as convenient as a shopping centre. D. A supermarket is as inconvenient as a shopping centre. Question 32: "It was your fault. You broke my windows, "said the woman to him. A. The woman insisted him on breaking her windows. B. The woman advised him to break her windows. C. The woman told him to break her windows. D. The woman blamed him for having broken her windows. Question 33. It was a mistake for Tony to buy that house. A. Tony couldn’t have bought that house. B. Tony can’t have bought that house. C. Tony needn’t have bought that house. D. Tony shouldn’t have bought that house. Question 31: Đáp án A Kiến thức: diễn đạt câu với Câu so sánh Giải thích: Một siêu thị thuận tiện hơn một trung tâm mua sắm. A. Một trung tâm mua sắm không thuận tiện như siêu thị. B. Một trung tâm mua sắm thuận tiện hơn siêu thị. C. Một siêu thị không thuận tiện như một trung tâm mua sắm. D. Một siêu thị bất tiện như một trung tâm mua sắm. Các phương án B, C, D sai về nghĩa Question 32: Đáp án D Tạm dịch: “ Đó là lỗi của cháu. Cháu đã làm vỡ cửa kính nhà bác” , Người phụ nữ nói với cậu bé.

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A. Người phụ nữ khăng khăng bắt cậu bé làm vỡ của kính nhà bà ta. B. Người phụ nữ khuyên cậu bé làm vỡ của kính nhà bà ta. C. Người phụ nữ bảo cậu bé làm vỡ của kính nhà bà ta. D. Người phụ nữ đổ lỗi cho cậu bé vì đã làm vỡ của kính nhà bà ta. Question 33: Đáp án D Kiến thức: Động từ khuyết thiếu Giải thích: couldn’t have P2: không thể làm gì trong quá khứ can’t have P2: không thể nào needn’t have P2: đáng lẽ ra không cần shouldn’t have P2: đã không nên làm gì Tạm dịch: Đó là lỗi của Tony khi mua căn nhà đó. ⇨ D. Tony đã nên không mua căn nhà đó. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30. In the past, the process of choosing a career was a much simpler matter than it is today. Aboy often followed in his father’s footsteps. His sister learned the household skills that would prepare her to become (34)______ wife and mother. Nowadays young people grow up in a much freer society (35)______they enjoy almost unlimited career opportunities. In recent years, there (36)______an enormous increase in the kinds of vocations from which it is possible to choose. In addition, many of the barriers to career opportunity that existed only a few decades ago, such as (37)______based on sex or religion or ethnic origins, are (30) disappearing. B. the C. an D. a Question 34: A. many B. when C. why D. whom Question 35: A. where B. has been C. will be D. was Question 36: A. had been B. perception C. devotion D. discrimination Question 37: A. judgement B. incessantly C. categorically D. vigilantly Question 38: A. rapidly Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35. After twenty years of growing student enrollments and economic prosperity, business schools in the United States have started to face harder times. Only Harvard’s MBA School has shown a substantial increase in enrollment in recent years. Both Princeton and Stanford have seen decreases in their enrollments. Since 1990, the number of people receiving Masters in Business Administration (MBA) degrees, has dropped about 3 percent to 75,000, and the trend of lower enrollment rates is expected to continue. There are two factors causing this decrease in students seeking an MBA degree. The first one is that many graduates of four-year colleges are finding that an MBA degree does not guarantee a plush job on Wall Street, or in other financial districts of major American cities. Many of the entrylevel management jobs are going to students graduating with Master of Arts degrees in English and the humanities as well as those holding MBA degrees. Students have asked the question, “Is an MBA degree really what I need to be best prepared for getting a good job?” The second major factor has been the cutting of American payrolls and the lower number of entrylevel jobs being offered. Business needs are changing, and MBA schools are struggling to meet the new demands. Question 39. What is the main focus of this passage? A. Jobs on Wall Street B. Types of graduate degrees C. Changes in enrollment for MBA schools D. How schools are changing to reflect the economy Question 40. The word “prosperity” in the first paragraph could be best replaced by which of the following? A. success B. surplus C. nurturing D. education Question 41. Which of the following business schools has shown an increase in enrollment?

A. Princeton B. Harvard C. Stanford D. Yale Question 42. Which of the following descriptions most likely applies to Wall Street? A. a center for international affairs B. a major financial center C. a shopping district D. a neighborhood in New York Question 42: As used in the second paragraph, the word “struggling” is closest in meaning A. evolving B. plunging C. starting D. striving

FI CI A

to_____.

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42. According to sociologists, there are several different ways in which a person may become recognized as the leader of a social group in the United States. In the tamily, traditional cultural patterns confer leadership on one or both of the parents. In other cases, such as friendship groups, one or more persons may gradually emerge as leaders, although there is no formal process of selection. In larger groups, leaders are usually chosen formally through election or recruitment. Although leaders are often thought to be people with unusual personal ubility, decades ot research have failed to produce consistent evidence that there is any category ot “natural leaders”. It seems that there is no set of personal qualities that all leaders have in common; rather, virtually any person may be recognized as a leader if the person has qualities that meet the needs ot that particular group. Furthermore, although it is commonly supposed that social groups have a single leader, research suggests that there are typically two different leadership roles that are held by different individuals. Instrumental leadership is leadership that emphasizes the completion of tasks by a social group. Group members look to instrumental leaders to “get things” done.” Expressive leadership, on the other hand, is leadership that emphasizes the collective well-being of a social group’s member. Expressive leaders are less concerned with the overall goals of the group than with providing emotional support to group members and attempting to minimize tension and conflict among them. Group members expect expressive leaders to maintain stable relationships within the group and provide support to individual members. Instrumental leaders are likely to have a rather secondary relationship to other group members. They give orders and may discipline group members who inhibit attainment of the group’s goals. Expressive leaders cultivate a more personal or primary relationship to others in the group. They offer sympathy when someone experiences difficulties or is subjected to discipline, are quick to lighten a serious moment with humor, and try to resolve issues that threaten to divide the group. As the differences in these two roles suggest, expressive leaders generally receive more personal affection from group members; instrumental leaders, if they are successful in promoting group goals, may enjoy a more distant respect. Question 44. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The problems faced by leaders B. How leadership differs in small and large groups C. How social groups determine who will lead them D. The role of leaders in social groups Question 45. The passage mentions all of the following ways by which people can become leaders EXCEPT_______. A. recruitment B. formal election process C. specific leadership training D. traditional cultural patterns Question 46. In mentioning “natural leaders” in the second paragraph, the author is making the point that _______. A. few people qualify as “natural leaders” B. there is no proof that “natural leaders” exist C. “natural leaders’ are easily accepted by the members of a social group D. “natural leaders” share a similar set of characteristics . Question 47. The passage indicates that ‘instrumental leaders’ generally focus on

FI CI A

A. ensuring harmonious relationshipsB. sharing responsibility with group members C. identifying new leaders D. achieving a goal . Question 48. The word “collective” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to A. necessary B. typical C. group D. particular . Question 49. The word “them” in the third paragraph refers to A. expressive leaders B. goals of the group C. group members D. tension and conflict Question 50. A “secondary relationship” mentioned in the last paragraph between a leader and the members of a group could best be characterized as . A. distant B. enthusiastic C. unreliable D. personal Question 34: Đáp án D Giái thích: vì his sister là số ít nên loại bỏ A; Cụm từ “become” trở thành….không xác định, số ít nên dùng mạo từ “a” “His sister learned the household skills that would prepare her to become a wife and mother.” (Chị gái cậu ấy đã học các kĩ năng nội trợ sẽ chuẩn bị cho tương lai cô ấy trở thành người vợ và người mẹ.)

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Question 35: Đáp án A - where: trạng từ quan hệ, thay thế cho từ/ cụm từ nơi chốn - when: trạng từ quan hệ, thay thế cho từ/ cụm từ chỉ thởi gian - why: trạng từ quan hệ, thay thế cho từ/ cụm từ chỉ lý do - whom: đại từ quan hệ, thay thế cho tân ngữ chỉ người Trong câu này từ cần điền vào là đại từ quan hệ thay thế cho cụm từ nơi chốn “in a society”. “Nowadays young people grow up in a much freer society where they enjoy almost unlimited career opportunities” (Ngày nay, những người trẻ lớn lên trong một xã hội tự do hơn nhiều, nơi mà họ có được hầu như vô số cơ hội nghề nghiệp.) Question 36: Đáp án B - In recent years: trong những năm gần đây => động từ chia ở thì hiện tại hoàn thành “In recent years, there has been an enormous increase in the kinds of vocations from which it is possible to choose” (Trong những năm gần đây, đã có sự tăng mạnh về các loại nghề nghiệp để cho mọi người lựa chọn.)

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Question 37: Đáp án D - judgment (n): sự đánh giá, óc phán đoán - perception (n): sự tiếp nhận, sự nhận thức - devotion (n): sự tận tụy, sự hiến dâng - discrimination (n): sự phân biệt đối xử “In addition, many of the barriers to career opportunity that existed only a few decades ago, such as discrimination based on sex or religion or ethnic origins...” (Thêm vào đó, nhiều rào cản đối với cơ hội nghề nghiệp đã tồn tại một vài thập kỉ trước đây như sự phân biệt đối xử dựa trên giới tính hoặc tôn giáo hoặc nguồn gốc dân tộc...) Question 38: Đáp án A - rapidly (adv): nhanh chóng - incessantly (adv): không ngừng, không dứt - categorically (adv): rõ ràng, minh bạch

FI CI A

- vigilantly (adv): thận trọng, cảnh giác “In addition, many of the barriers to career opportunity that existed only a few decades ago, such as discrimination based on sex or religion or ethnic origins, are rapidly disappearing.” (Thêm vào đó, nhiều rào cản đối với cơ hội nghề nghiệp đã tồn tại chỉ một vài thập kỉ trước đây như sự phân biệt đối xử dựa trên giới tính hoặc tôn giảo hoặc nguồn gốc dân tộc đang nhanh chóng biến mất.)

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Question 39: Đáp án C Trọng tâm chính của bài đọc này là gì? A. Các công việc trên phố Wall B. Các loại bằng tốt nghiệp C. Những thay đổi trong việc tuyển sinh của các trường MBA D. Cách thức các trường đang thay đổi để phản ánh nền kinh tế Dẫn chứng: Đoạn 1: After twenty years of growing student enrollments and economic prosperity, business schools in the United States have started to face harder times... (Sau 20 năm gia tăng số sinh viên đăng kí học và sự phát triển thịnh vượng của nền kinh tế thì các trường kinh doanh ở Mỹ đã bắt đầu phải đối mặt với những khó khăn...) Đoạn 2: There are two factors causing this decrease in students seeking an MBA degree. (Có 2 yếu tố dẫn đến tình trạng giảm số lượng sinh viên theo đuổi bằng MBA.)

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Question 40: Đáp án A - success (n): sự thành công - surplus (n): số dư - nurture (n): sự nuôi dưỡng - education (n): giáo dục “After twenty years of growing student enrollments and economic prosperity, business schools in the United States have started to face harder times... (Sau 20 năm gia tăng số sinh viên đăng kí học và sự phát triển thịnh vượng của nền kinh tế thì các trường kinh doanh ở Mỹ đã bắt đầu phải đối mặt với những khó khăn...)” Do đó: prosperity: ~ success: sự thịnh vượng, sự thành công

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Question 41: Đáp án B Trường kinh doanh nào sau đây cho thấy sự gia tăng trong việc tuyển sinh? A. Princeton B. Harvard C. Stanford D. Yale Dẫn chứng: Only Harvard’s MBA School has shown a substantial increase in enrollment in recent years. Both Princeton and Stanford have seen decreases in their enrollments. (Chỉ có trường kinh doanh MBA ở Harvard đã cho thấy việc tuyển sinh tăng đáng kể trong những năm gần đây. Cả Princeton và Standford đều cho thấy việc tuyển sinh giảm xuống.) Question 42: Đáp án B Miêu tả nào sau đây có thể thích hợp nhất với Phố Wall? A. Một trung tâm ngoại giao B. Một trung tâm tài chính lớn C. Một khu vực mua sắm

FI CI A

D. Một vùng lân cận ở New York Dẫn chứng: The first one is that many graduates of four-year colleges are finding that an MBA degree does not guarantee a plush job on Wall Street, or in other financial districts of major American cities... (Yếu tố đầu tiên là nhiều sinh viên tốt nghiệp đại học 4 năm nhận thấy rằng bằng MBA không đảm bảo công việc tốt ở phố Wall hoặc các khu vực tài chính khác ở các thành phố lớn của nước Mỹ.)

Question 43: Đáp án D - evolving: tiến hóa - plunging: lao xuống, đẩy vào - starting: bắt đầu - striving: cố gắng, đấu tranh Business needs are changing, and MBA schools are struggling to meet the new demands. (Nhu cầu kinh doanh đang thay đổi và các trường MBA đang cố gắng hết sức để đáp ứng các yêu cầu mới.)” Do đó: struggling ~ striving: cố gắng phấn đẩu

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Question 44: Đáp án D Bài đọc chủ yếu thảo luận về điều gì? A. những vấn đề mà các nhà lãnh đạo phải đối mặt B. khả năng lãnh đạo trong các nhóm lớn và nhỏ khác nhau như thế nào C. các nhóm xã hội xác định người lãnh đạo như thế nào D. vai trò của các nhà lãnh đạo trong các nhóm xã hội Dẫn chứng: - ... there are typically two different leadership roles that are held by different individuals... (.. .thường có 2 vai trò lãnh đạo khác nhau được các cá nhân khác nhau nắm giữ...) - Instrumental leadership is leadership that emphasizes the completion of tasks by a social group. (Công việc lãnh đạo là điều hành nhấn mạnh việc hoàn thành nhiệm vụ của một nhóm xã hội) - Expressive leader are less concerned with the overall goals of the group than with providing emotional support to group members and attempting to minimize tension and conflict among them. (Lãnh đạo cảm xúc là cung cấp hỗ trợ tình cảm cho các thành viên nhóm và cố gắng giảm thiểu căng thẳng và xung đột trong nhóm mà ít quan tâm đến mục tiêu tổng thể của nhóm.)

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Question 45: Đáp án C Bài đọc đề cập tất cả những cách sau đây để một người có thể trở thành nhà lãnh đạo NGOẠI TRỪ . A. tuyển dụng B. quy trình bầu cử chính thức C. đào tạo khả năng lãnh đạo D. mô hình văn hóa truyền thống Dẫn chứng: According to sociologists, there are several different ways in which a person may become recognized as the leader of a social group in the United States. In the family, traditional cultural patterns confer leadership on one or both of the parents. In other cases, such as friendship groups one or more persons may gradually emerge as leaders, although there is no formal process of selection. In larger groups, leaders are usually chosen formally through election or recruitment, (đoạn 1) (Theo các nhà xã hội học, có nhiều cách khác nhau trong đó một người có thể được công nhận là người lãnh đạo của một nhóm xã hội ở Hoa Kỳ. Trong gia đình, các mẫu văn hóa truyền thống trao quyền lãnh đạo cho một hoặc cả hai cha mẹ. Trong các trường hợp khác, chẳng hạn như các nhóm hữu nghị, một hoặc nhiều người có thể dần dần nổi lên như các nhà lãnh đạo, mặc dù không có quá trình lựa chọn chính thức. Trong các nhóm lớn hơn, các nhà lãnh đạo thường được chọn chính thức thông qua bầu cử hoặc tuyển dụng.

FI CI A

Question 46: Đáp án B Khi đề cập đến “các nhà lãnh đạo thiên bẩm" trong đoạn 2 thì ý của tác giả là . A. rất ít người có đủ khả năng là “nhà lãnh đạo thiên bẩm“ B. không có bằng chứng về việc “nhà lãnh đạo thiên bẩm" tồn tại C. “nhà lãnh đạo thiên bẩm” dễ dàng được chấp nhận bởi các thành viên trong một nhóm xã hội D. “nhà lãnh đạo thiên bẩm” có chung nhiều đặc điểm Dẫn chứng: Although leaders are often thought to be people with unusual personal ability, decades of research have failed to produce consistent evidence that there is any category .of “natural leaders.”(Mặc dù các nhà lãnh đạo thường được cho là những người có khả năng đặc biệt nhưng các nghiên cứu trong nhiều thập kỉ qua đã không tìm ra bằng chứng phù hợp cho việc có “các nhà lãnh đạo thiên bẩm” hay không.)

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Question 48: Đáp án C Từ “collective” trong đoạn 3 gần nghĩa nhất với A. cần thiết C. nhóm

ƠN

Question 46: Đáp án D Bài đọc chỉ ra rằng “instrumental leaders” thưởng tập trung vào . A. đảm bảo các mối quan hệ được hài hòa B. chia sẻ trách nhiệm với các thành viên trong nhóm C. nhận ra các nhà lãnh đạo mới D. đạt được mục tiêu Dẫn chứng: Instrumental leadership is leadership that emphasizes the completion of tasks by a social group. Group members look to instrumental leaders to “get things” done.”(Lãnh đạo công cụ là lãnh đạo nhấn mạnh việc hoàn thành nhiệm vụ của một nhóm xã hội. Các thành viên trong nhóm tìm đến các nhà lãnh đạo công cụ để "khiến mọi việc được thực hiện")

. B. điển hình D. đặc biệt, riêng biệt

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Question 49: Đáp án C Từ “them” trong đoạn 3 đề cập đến . A. các nhà lãnh đạo giàu cảm xúc B. các mục tiêu của nhóm C. các thành viên trong nhóm D. căng thẳng và xung đột “Expressive leaders are less concerned with the overall goals of the group than with providing emotional support to group members and attempting to minimize tension and conflict among them.” (Những nhà lãnh đạo giàu cảm xúc ít quan tâm đến mục tiêu chung của nhóm hơn so với việc giúp đỡ các thành viên trong nhóm về cảm xúc và nỗ lực giảm tối thiểu căng thẳng và xung đột giữa các thành viên trong nhóm.) Do đó: them = group members Question 50: Đáp án A Một “mối quan hệ phụ” được đề cập trong đoạn cuối giữa nhà lãnh đạo và các thành viên trong nhóm có thể được miêu tả là .

FI CI A

A. xa cách, có khoảng cách B. nhiệt tình C. không đáng tin D. cá nhân Dẫn chứng: “Instrumental leaders are likely to have a rather secondary relationship to other group members. They give orders and may discipline group members who inhibit attainment of the group’s goals. Expressive leaders cultivate a more personal or primary relationship to others in the group” (“Các nhạc trưởng có khả năng kết nối với các thành viên khác trong nhóm. Họ đưa ra mệnh lệnh và trật tự đối các thành viên trong nhóm, họ là những người kiểm soát việc đạt được các mục tiêu của nhóm. Các nhạc trưởng biểu đạt trau dồi một mối quan hệ cá nhân hoặc với những người khác trong nhóm”)

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THE END

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA 04 (Đề thi có 04 trang)

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Dịch nghĩa: “Có một bữa tiệc tại nhà của cậu phải không?” Câu bắt đầu với there is thì thành lập hỏi đuôi sẽ dùng isn’t there. Question 3: There's a lot more to Willie than one would think: still waters run_________ _. A. deep B. deeply C. deepness D. depth Câu 3: Đáp án A Kiến thức về thành ngữ Still waters run deep (idm): Những người kín đáo mới là những người sâu sắc; tẩm ngẩm tầm ngầm mà đấm chết voi. Đáp án còn lại: Không đúng cấu trúc thành ngữ. Tạm dịch: Có rất nhiều điều về Willie hơn người ta nghĩ: tẩm ngẩm tầm ngầm mà đấm chết voi. Question 4: The children are highly excited _______ the coming summer holiday. A. with B. to C. for D. about Đáp án D Xét các đáp án: A. Cấu trúc: excited with: hồi hộp vì. => Không hợp nghĩa. B. Cấu trúc: excited to do sth: cảm thấy vui vẻ, phấn khích (khi làm điều gì đó). => Không hợp nghĩa. D. Cấu trúc: excited about: hào hứng. => Dịch nghĩa: Các bé rất hào hứng với kỳ nghỉ hè sắp tới. => Hợp nghĩa. Question 5: The police have every good________to believe that he is guilty. A. excuse B. cause C. reason D. ground Question 5: Chọn đáp án C Excuse: lí do, lời biện hộ( để giải thích nguyên nhân vì sao ai đó lại bị sai lầm) Cause: nguyên nhân sâu xa nguồn gốc vấn đề Reason: nguyên nhân ( lý do đưa ra để giải thích cho vẫn đề gì đã xảy ra) Ground : nền tảng, cơ sở ( chỗ dựa cho cái gì được hình thành) Cấu trúc” have a very good reason to do st” có mọi lí lẽ để làm gì

P a g e 3 | 18

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Question 6: Many students work to earn money ____________ their parents are rich A. because of B. despite C. however D. although Đáp án D Dịch nghĩa: Nhiều sinh viên làm việc để kiếm tiền mặc dù cha mẹ họ giàu có. Xét các đáp án: A. because of → Liên từ chỉ nguyên nhân, sau because of (bởi vì) là noun/noun phrase (DT/cụm DT), không phải clause (mệnh đề) B. despite → Liên từ chỉ sự đối lập, sau Despite (mặc dù) = In spite of là noun/noun phrase/V_ing (DT/cụm DT/V_ing), không phải clause (mệnh đề) C. however → Liên từ chỉ sự đối lập, sau however (tuy nhiên) là clause (mệnh đề), dịch cả câu: Nhiều sinh viên làm việc để kiếm tiền tuy nhiên cha mẹ họ giàu có. (không hợp lý) D. although → Liên từ chỉ sự đối lập, sau Although (mặc dù) = Even though = Though = In spite that là clause (mệnh đề) Question 7: When I was going to school this morning, I saw a __________ girl. She asked me how to get to Hoan Kiem Lake. A. beautiful young blonde Russian B. beautiful young Russian blonde C. blonde young beautiful Russian D. Russian young blonde beautiful 7.Đáp án A Theo quy tắc của trật tự tính từ: OSASCOMP => Đáp án là A: beautiful - O, young - A, blonde - C, Russian - Origin Tạm dịch: Khi tôi tới trường vào sáng nay, tôi đã nhìn thấy một cô gái Nga trẻ đẹp, tóc vàng hoe. Cô ấy hỏi tôi đường tới hồ Hoàn Kiếm. Question 8: Our refrigerator _________________ just a month after the guarantee had expired. A. broke off B. broke up C. broke into D. broke down Đáp án D A. broke off: bong ra, long ra, chấm dứt quan hệ B. broke up: chia tay C. broke into: đột nhập D. broke down: hỏng hóc, đàm phán thất bại Dịch nghĩa: Tủ lạnh của chúng tôi đã bị hỏng chỉ một tháng sau khi hết hạn bảo hành Question 9: When I came to visit her last night, she ________________ a bath. A. is having B. was having C. has had D. had had 9.Đáp án B – Căn cứ vào đây là mệnh đề trạng ngữ chỉ thời gian: When S + V (quá khứ đơn), S + V (quá khứ tiếp diễn). ( Diễn tả một hành động đang xảy ra thì có hành động khác xen vào). Vế chứa “when” chia thì quá khứ đơn => Vế còn lại chia thì quá khứ tiếp diễn. – Dịch: Khi tôi đến thăm cô ấy tối qua, cô ấy đang tắm. Question 10. _______, I will give him the report. B. When he returns

C. Until he will return

D. No sooner he returns

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A. When he will return

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10. Đáp án B Kiến thức: Mệnh đề chỉ thời gian / Sự hòa hợp thì trong mệnh đề Giải thích: Mệnh đề chính chia thì tương lai => động từ trong mệnh đề chỉ thời gian chia thì hiện tại (hiện tại đơn, hiện tại hoàn thành). When +S+Vo/s/es +…, S+ will + Vo. Loại đáp án A,C, sai thì, và đáp D chưa đúng nghĩa . Tạm dịch : Khi anh ấy về , tôi sẽ đưa cho anh ấy bản báo cáo. Question 11. During the interview, you should try to

a good impression on your interview. P a g e 4 | 18

A. Create

B. have

C. give

D. try

Question 11: A Cụm từ “ create a good impression on sb” tạo ấn tượng tốt với ai đó

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Đáp án A

Tạm dịch: Trong cuộc phỏng vấn, bạn nên cố gắng tạo ấn tượng tốt cho cuộc phỏng vấn của bạn

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Question 12: Don’t criticize me. If you__________yourself in my position, you would behave the same. A. set B. put C. think D. consider 12. Đáp án B A. set /set/ (v): để, đặt B. put /pʊt/ (v): để, đặt C. think /θɪŋk/ (v): nghĩ D. consider /kənˈsɪdər/ (v): cân nhắc, xem xét Cấu trúc: put yourself in somebody’s position: thử đặt mình vào vị trí/hoàn cảnh của người khác Dịch nghĩa: Đừng chỉ trích tôi. Nếu bạn thử đặt mình vào vị trí của tôi, bạn sẽ hành xử tương tự. Question 13. - “What a beautiful dress you’re wearing!” - “Thank you. It________especially for me by an Italian tailor.” A. was made B. is made C. has made D. makes Question 13. Đáp án. A Giải thích: Dựa vào ngữ cảnh thì hành động ở câu sau xảy ra trong quá khứ. Chủ ngữ it (nó - cái váy) là đối tượng của hành động make (làm) nên ta dùng thể bị động. Dịch nghĩa: - Chiếc váy bạn đang mặc thật là đẹp! - Cảm ơn cậu. Nó được một thợ may người Ý làm riêng cho mình đấy. Question 14:: for 6 hours, they decided to stop to have lunch at 1.00 pm.

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A. Having been work B. Having worked C. Working D. Worked Question 15: B Kiến thức về phân từ hoàn thành Phân từ hoàn thành (Having + Vp2) dùng để nhấn mạnh một hành động đã xảy ra xong rồi mới tới hành động khác.

Tạm dịch: Làm được được 6 tiếng, họ quyết định dừng lại để ăn trưa lúc 1h chiều.

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Question 15: It is getting hotter and ____ every summer. I guess that is the result of global warming. A. less B. more C. colder D. hotter 15.Đáp án D HD: Dịch nghĩa: Thời tiết đang trở nên nóng hơn và nóng hơn mỗi mùa hè. Tôi đoán đó là kết quả của sự nóng lên toàn cầu. Xét các đáp án: A. less → Sai cấu trúc so sánh kép B. more → Sai cấu trúc so sánh kép C. colder → Sai cấu trúc so sánh kép (hai từ phải giống nhau, trước là hotter thì sau cũng là hotter) D. hotter → Cấu trúc so sánh kép: adj-er + and + adj-er (càng ngày càng) (dùng với tính từ ngắn)

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges. Question 16: “How was the game show last night?” - “_______.” A. It showed at 8 o'clock. B. Just talking about it. C. I think it wasn't a good game. D. Great. I gained more knowledge about biology. Question 17: “What did the meeting discuss? I didn’t attend it because of traffic jam.” - “______________” A. I didn’t, either. B. That was great. P a g e 5 | 18

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C. You missed the meeting. D. I’m sorry, I can’t. 16 Đáp án D Tạm dịch: “ Chương trình truyền hình tối qua thế nào?” A. Nó được chiếu vào lúc 8 giờ. B. Ta chỉ nói chuyện về nó. C. Tôi nghĩ nó không phải là một trò chơi hay. D. Tuyệt vời. Tôi đã tiếp thu được nhiều kiến thức hơn về sinh học. 17. Đáp án A “ Cuộc họp đã bàn luận về vấn đề gì vậy? Tôi đã không tham dự được vì tắc đường.” “________” A. Tôi cũng vậy. B. Nó rất tuyệt. C. Bạn đã lỡ buổi hội thảo. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 18: A. inflation B. maximum C. applicant D. character Question 19: A. bamboo B. forget C. deserve D. channel 18. Đáp án A A. inflation /ɪnˈfleɪʃn/(n): lạm phát (từ này có tro ̣ng âm rơi vào âm tiế t thứ hai. Vı̀ theo quy tắ c đuôi –ion làm trọng âm rơi vào trước âm đó.) B. maximum /ˈmæksɪməm/(n): tối đa (từ này có tro ̣ng âm rơi vào âm tiế t đầ u. Vì theo quy tắc nếu tất cả các âm mà ngắn hết thì trọng âm rơi vào âm tiết đầu.) C. applicant /ˈæplɪkənt/(n): người nộp đơn Từ này có tro ̣ng âm rơi vào âm tiế t đầ u. Vì theo quy tắc nếu tất cả các âm mà ngắn hết thì trọng âm rơi vào âm tiết đầu. D. character /ˈkærəktə(r)/(n): nhân vật Từ này có tro ̣ng âm rơi vào âm tiế t đầ u. Vì theo quy tắc nếu tất cả các âm mà ngắn hết thì trọng âm rơi vào âm tiết đầu. => Phương án A có trọng âm rơi vào âm tiết thứ hai, các phương án còn lại có trọng âm rơi vào âm tiết thứ nhất.

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Câu 19 Đáp án D A. bamboo /bæmˈbuː/ (n): tre (từ này có tro ̣ng âm rơi vào âm tiế t thứ hai. Vì theo quy tắc, trọng âm ưu tiên rơi vào nguyên âm dài /uː/.) B. forget /fəˈɡet/ (v): quên (từ này có tro ̣ng âm rơi vào âm tiế t thứ hai. Vı̀ theo quy tắ c trọng âm không rơi vào âm /ə/.) C. deserve /dɪˈzɜːv/ (v): xứng đáng (từ này có tro ̣ng âm rơi vào âm tiế t thứ hai. Vì theo quy tắc, trọng âm ưu tiên rơi vào nguyên âm dài /ɜː/.) D. channel /ˈtʃænl/ (n): kênh (từ này có tro ̣ng âm rơi vào âm tiế t đầ u tiên. Vı̀ theo quy tắ c nếu tất cả các âm mà ngắn hết thì trọng âm rơi vào âm tiết đầu.) Đáp án D có trọng âm rơi vào âm tiết thứ nhất, các phương án còn lại có trọng âm rơi vào âm tiết thứ hai.

DẠ

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions Question 20: A. missed B. talked C. watched D. cleaned Question 21: A. find B. think C. drive D. mind Câu 20 Đáp án D A. missed /mɪst/ B. talked /tɔːkt/ C. watched /wɒtʃt/ D. cleaned /kliːnd/ P a g e 6 | 18

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Giải thıć h: Có 3 cách phát âm ed chính: 1. Đuôi /ed/ được phát âm là /t/: Khi động từ có phát âm kết thúc là /s/, /f/, /p/, /ʃ/, /tʃ/, /k/ và những động từ có từ phát âm cuối là “s”. 2. Đuôi /ed/ được phát âm là /id/: Khi động từ có phát âm kết thúc là /t/ hay /d/. 3. Đuôi /ed/ được phát âm là /d/ với những trường hợp còn lại. Câu 21 Đáp án B A. find /faɪnd/ B. think /θɪŋk/ C. drive /draɪv/ D. mind /maɪnd/ => Đáp án B được phát âm là /i/. Các đáp án còn lại là /ai/. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22.The maintenance of these old castles must cost a lot of money. A. building B. foundation C. destruction D. preservation Question 23. People in the mountainous areas are still in the habit of destroying forests for cultivation. A. planting B. farming C. industry D. wood Question 22. D Giải thích: maintenance (n): sự giữ, sự duy trì building (n): sự xây dựng, toà nhà foundation (n): sự thành lập, sự sáng lập destruction (n): sự phá hoại, sự phá huỷ preservation (n): sự giữ, sự bảo tồn => maintenance = preservation Tạm dịch: Việc duy trì những lâu đài cổ này phải tốn rất nhiều tiền. Đáp án: D Question 23. B Giải thích: cultivation (n): sự canh tác, sự trồng trọt planting (n): sự trồng cây farming (n): nông nghiệp, canh tác industry (n): công nghiệp wood (n): gỗ => cultivation = farming Tạm dịch: Người dân vùng núi vẫn có thói quen phá rừng để trồng trọt.

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24. School uniform is compulsory in most of Vietnamese school. A. depended B. optional C. obligatory D. required Question 25. Names of people in the book were changed to preserve anonymity. A. cover B. conserve C. presume D. reveal

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Question 24. B Giải thích: compulsory (a): bắt buộc depended (a): phụ thuộc optional (a): có thể lựa chọn obligatory (a): bắt buộc required (a): được yêu cầu compulsory >< optional Tạm dịch: Đồng phục trường là bắt buộc với hầu hết các trường ở Việt Nam. Đáp án: B Question 25. D P a g e 7 | 18

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Giải thích: preserve (v): giữ, bảo vệ cover (v): bao phủ conserve (v): giữ presume (v): dự đoán reveal (v): tiết lộ preserve >< reveal Tạm dịch: Tên của những người trong cuốn sách đã được thay đổi để bảo vệ sự giấu tên. Đáp án: D Mark letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate sentence that is in meaning to of the Question 26: She didn’t understand the benefits of volunteering until she joined this club. A. Not until she joined this club did she understand the of B. not until she joined this club did she understand the benefits of C. Not until did she join this club, she understood the of volunteering. D. Not until she joined this club that she understood the of Question 27: He didn’t prepare well for his examination he regrets it now. A. Unless he well for his examination, he wouldn’t it now. B. But for his ill for his GCSE examination, he wouldn’t it now. C. it hadn’t been for good preparation for GCSE examination, he wouldn’t it now. D. he had prepared well for his examination, he wouldn’t have it now. Question 26. A Kiến thứ Cấu đảo ngữ ” Giải thích: It is/ was not until + clause/ adv of time + that... + S + V = Not until + clause/ adv of time + auxiliary + S + V : Mãi cho đến khi...thì... Tạm dị ch: Cho đ khi tham gia lạc bộ mới hiểu đ những lợi ích hoạt tình nguy A. Cho đến khi cô tham gia câu lạc bộ thì mới hiểu những lợi ích hoạt tình đúng B. sai ngữ did she understand she understood C. sai ngữ sửa lại giống câu A ngữ pháp: Không dùng “that” D. Chọn A Question 27. B Kiến thứ C điều kiện loại hỗn hợp Giải thích: Câu điều kiện loại hỗn hợp di n tả ả thi ngược với khứ, nhưng t quả thì trái ngược với hiện tại. + Cấu trúc: + S + had + V.p.p, S + +S+ + V.p.p = But for + N = it hadn’t been for + N Tạm dịch: Anh ấy đã không ẩn bị tốt cho kỳ thi tốt ệp và bây ờ anh ấy hối hận. ấy không ẩn bị tốt cho kỳ thi tốt nghiệp thì bây ờ ấy sẽ không hối h nghĩa B. A. ếu Nếu không phải vì sự n bị cho kỳ thi tốt ệp thì bây ờ sẽ không hối h đúng C. Nếu n tốt cho kỳ thi tốt ệp thì bây ờ ấy sẽ không hối h nghĩa D. ngữ không phải vì sự wouldn’t regret pháp: wouldn have Chọn B

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Kiến thức: Câu điều kiện loại 1 Giải thích: Câu điều kiện loại 1 diễn tả giả định có thật ở hiện tại. Cấu trúc: If + S + V(s/es), S + will + V.inf wanted => want Tạm dịch: Nếu bạn muốn được tuyển chọn cho công việc, bạn sẽ phải có kinh nghiệm trong lĩnh vực này. Đáp án: C Question 29. Several people have apparent tried to change the man’s mind, but he refuses to listen.

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A. Several B. apparent C. mind D. listen Question 29. B Kiến thức: Từ vựng Giải thích: Cần 1 trạng từ đứng trước động từ để bổ sung nghĩa cho động từ apparent (a): rõ ràng => apparently (adv): một cách rõ ràng apparent => apparently Tạm dịch: Một vài người cố gắng thực sự để thay đổi suy nghĩ của người đàn ông nhưng ông ta từ chối nghe. Đáp án: B Question 30. I’d prefer to do it by herself because other people make me nervous. A. I’d prefer B. on herself C. other make Question 30. B Kiến thức: Cụm từ Giải thích: By herself => by myself Ta có cụm “by oneself” = “on one’s own”: tự mình, bởi bản thân mình Tạm dịch: Tôi thích tự làm hơn vì người khác khiến tôi lo lắng. Đáp án: B Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 31. You should take regular exercises instead of sitting in front of the television all day. A. Taking regular exercises is better than sitting in front of the television all day. B. Sitting in front of the television all day helps you take regular exercises. C. Sitting in front of the television all day and taking exercises are advisable. D. Don’t take regular exercises, just sit in front of the television all day. Question 31. A Kiến thức: Đưa ra lời khuyên với động từ khuyết thiếu should Giải thích: Tạm dịch: Bạn nên tập thể dục thường xuyên thay vì ngồi trước tivi hàng ngày. A. Tập thể dục đều đặn tốt hơn ngồi trước tivi hàng ngày. => đúng B. Ngồi trước tivi cả ngày giúp bạn tập thể dục thường xuyên. => sai nghĩa C. trước tivi hàng ngày và tập thể dục được khuyến khích. => sai nghĩa Question 32. “I’ll call you as soon as I arrive at the airport,” he said to me. P a g e 9 | 18

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A. He objected to calling me as soon as he arrived at the airport. B. He promised to call me as soon as he arrived at the airport. C. He denied calling me as soon as he arrived at the airport. D. He reminded me to call him as soon as he arrived at the airport. Question 32. B Kiến thức: Câu trường thuật Giải thích: Tạm dịch: “ Tớ sẽ gọi cho cậu khi tớ đến sân bay”, cậu ấy nói với tôi. A. Cậu ta phản đối việc gọi cho tôi khi cậu ta đến sân bay. => sai nghĩa B. Cậu ta hứa gọi cho tôi khi cậu ta đến sân bay. => đúng C. Cậu ta phủ nhận việc gọi cho tôi khi cậu ta đến sân bay. => sai nghĩa D. Cậu ta nhắc nhở tôi gọi cho cậu ấy khi cậu ta đến sân bay. => sai nghĩa Chọn B Question 33. Harry no longer smokes a lot. A. Harry now smokes a lot. B. Harry used to smoke a lot. C. Harry didn’t use to smoke a lot. D. Harry rarely smoked a lot. Question 33. B Kiến thức: diễn đạt câu với cấu trúcCấu trúc “no longer” Giải thích: S + no longer + thì hiện tại đơn = S + used to + V (hiện tại không còn...nữa = đã từng...) Tạm dịch: Harry không hút thuốc nữa. A. Harry bây giờ hút thuốc nhiều. => sai nghĩa B. Harry đã từng hút nhiều thuốc. => đúng C. Harry đã từng không hút nhiều thuốc. => sai nghĩa D. Harry hiếm khi nào hút nhiều thuốc. => sai nghĩa Chọn B D. Không tập thể dục thường xuyên, chỉ ngồi trước tivi suốt ngày. => sai nghĩa Chọn A

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 16 to 20. Dressing up in costumes and trick-or-treating are popular Halloween activities, but few probably (34) ______ these lighthearted fall traditions with their origins in Samhain, a three-day ancient Celtic pagan festival. For the Celts, who lived during the Iron Age in what is now Ireland, Scotland, the U.K. and (35) ______ parts of Northern Europe, Samhain (meaning literally, in modern Irish, “summer's end”) marked the end of summer and kicked off the Celtic new year. Ushering in a new year signaled a time of both death and rebirth, something that was doubly symbolic because it (36) ______ with the end of a bountiful harvest season and the beginning of a cold and dark winter season that would present plenty of challenges. Eventually, Halloween became more popular in secular culture than All Saints' Day. The pagan-turnedChristian practices of dressing up in costumes, playing pranks and handing out offerings have evolved into popular traditions even for those (37) ______ may not believe in otherworldly spirits or saints. (38) ______, whether Halloween celebrants know it or not, they’re following the legacy of the ancient Celts who, with the festival of Samhain, celebrated the inevitability of death and rebirth. Question 34.A. separate B. estimate C. associate D. celebrate Question 35. A. each B. every C. another D. other Question 36.A. coincided B. originated C. compared D. occurred P a g e 10 | 18

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Question 37. A. which B. whom C. who D. what Question 38. A. Moreover B. However C. Instead D. Therefore Câu 34: Đáp án C Phương pháp giải: Kiến thức: Từ vựng Giải chi tiết: A. separate sth into sth (v): phân tách, chia ra B. estimate sth from/at sth (v): ước lượng, ước tính C. associate sb/sth with sb/sth (v): liên kết, kết nối D. celebrate (v): kỷ niệm, tôn vinh Dressing up in costumes and trick-or-treating are popular Halloween activities, but few probably () associate these lighthearted fall traditions with their origins in Samhain, a three-day ancient Celtic pagan festival. Tạm dịch: Hóa trang và chơi trick-or-treat (bị ghẹo hay cho kẹo) là những hoạt động phổ biến trong lễ Halloween, nhưng có lẽ ít người liên kết những truyền thống mùa thu thú vị này với nguồn gốc của chúng từ Samhain, một lễ hội ngoại giáo cổ đại kéo dài ba ngày của người Celt. Câu 35: Đáp án D Phương pháp giải: Kiến thức: Tính từ Giải chi tiết: A. each + N số ít: mỗi … B. every + N số ít: mọi … C. another + N số ít: cái gì … khác D. other + N số nhiều: những … khác Sau chỗ trống là danh từ “parts” ở dạng số nhiều => loại A, B, C For the Celts, who lived during the Iron Age in what is now Ireland, Scotland, the U.K. and () other parts of Northern Europe, Samhain (meaning literally, in modern Irish, “summer's end') marked the end of summer and kicked off the Celtic new year. Tạm dịch: Đối với người Celt, những người sống trong thời kỳ đồ sắt ở nơi mà ngày nay là Ireland, Scotland, Vương quốc Anh và các khu vực khác của Bắc Âu, Samhain (nghĩa đen, trong tiếng Ireland hiện đại, "sự kết thúc của mùa hè") đánh dấu sự kết thúc của mùa hè và bắt đầu Năm mới của Celtic. Câu 36: Đáp án A Phương pháp giải: Kiến thức: Từ vựng Giải chi tiết: A. coincided (v): trùng, xảy ra cùng lúc B. originated (v): bắt đầu, khởi nguồn, bắt nguồn C. compared (v): so sánh D. occurred (v): xảy ra Ushering in a new year signaled a time of both death and rebirth, something that was doubly symbolic because it () coincided with the end of a bountiful harvest season and the beginning of a cold and dark winter season that would present plenty of challenges. Tạm dịch: Năm mới bắt đầu báo hiệu thời điểm của cả cái chết và sự tái sinh, một điều gì đó mang tính biểu tượng gấp đôi bởi vì nó trùng với sự kết thúc của một mùa thu hoạch bội thu và bắt đầu một mùa đông lạnh giá và tăm tối sẽ mang đến nhiều thử thách. Câu 37: Đáp án C Phương pháp giải: Kiến thức: Đại từ quan hệ Giải chi tiết: A. which: cái mà => thay cho từ chỉ vật B. whom: người mà => thay thế cho từ chỉ người, đóng vai trò tân ngữ của mệnh đề quan hệ (sau nó là S + V) C. who: người mà => thay cho từ chỉ người, đóng vai trò chủ ngữ hoặc tân ngữ của mệnh đề quan hệ (sau nó là V hoặc S + V) D. what: cái gì “those” ở đây là đại từ thay thế cho từ chỉ người (vì có động từ “believe” (tin tưởng) ám chỉ hành động của con người) => loại A, D

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The pagan-turned- Christian practices of dressing up in costumes, playing pranks and handing out offerings have evolved into popular traditions even for those () who may not believe in otherworldly spirits or saints. Tạm dịch: Các tập tục biến thành người theo đạo Thiên chúa là hóa trang, chơi khăm và trao đồ cúng đã phát triển thành truyền thống phổ biến ngay cả đối với những người có thể không tin vào các linh hồn hoặc thánh địa ở thế giới khác. Câu 38: Đáp án B Phương pháp giải: Kiến thức: Trạng từ liên kết Giải chi tiết: A. Moreover: hơn nữa, ngoài ra B. However: tuy nhiên C. Instead: thay vào đó D. Therefore: vì vậy The pagan-turned- Christian practices of dressing up in costumes, playing pranks and handing out offerings have evolved into popular traditions even for those who may not believe in otherworldly spirits or saints. However, whether Halloween celebrants know it or not, they’re following the legacy of the ancient Celts who, with the festival of Samhain, celebrated the inevitability of death and rebirth. Tạm dịch: Các tập tục biến thành người theo đạo Thiên chúa là hóa trang, chơi khăm và trao đồ cúng đã phát triển thành truyền thống phổ biến ngay cả đối với những người có thể không tin vào các linh hồn hoặc thánh địa ở thế giới khác. Tuy nhiên, cho dù những người kỷ niệm lễ hội Halloween có biết hay không, họ vẫn đang tiếp nối di sản của người Celt cổ đại, với lễ hội Samhain, tôn vinh sự không thể tránh khỏi của cái chết và sự tái sinh. Chú ý khi giải: Dịch bài đọc: Hóa trang và chơi trick-or-treat (bị ghẹo hay cho kẹo) là những hoạt động phổ biến trong lễ Halloween, nhưng có lẽ ít người liên kết những truyền thống mùa thu thú vị này với nguồn gốc của chúng từ Samhain, một lễ hội ngoại giáo cổ đại kéo dài ba ngày của người Celt. Đối với người Celt, những người sống trong thời kỳ đồ sắt ở nơi mà ngày nay là Ireland, Scotland, Vương quốc Anh và các khu vực khác của Bắc Âu, Samhain (nghĩa đen, trong tiếng Ireland hiện đại, "sự kết thúc của mùa hè") đánh dấu sự kết thúc của mùa hè và bắt đầu Năm mới của Celtic. Năm mới bắt đầu báo hiệu thời điểm của cả cái chết và sự tái sinh, một điều gì đó mang tính biểu tượng gấp đôi bởi vì nó trùng với sự kết thúc của một mùa thu hoạch bội thu và bắt đầu một mùa đông lạnh giá và tăm tối sẽ mang đến nhiều thử thách. Cuối cùng, Halloween trở nên phổ biến hơn trong văn hóa thế tục hơn là Ngày Các Thánh. Các tập tục biến thành người theo đạo Thiên chúa là hóa trang, chơi khăm và trao đồ cúng đã phát triển thành truyền thống phổ biến ngay cả đối với những người có thể không tin vào các linh hồn hoặc thánh địa ở thế giới khác. Tuy nhiên, cho dù những người kỷ niệm lễ hội Halloween có biết hay không, họ vẫn đang tiếp nối di sản của người Celt cổ đại, với lễ hội Samhain, tôn vinh sự không thể tránh khỏi của cái chết và sự tái sinh.

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34. Body language is a vital form of communication. In fact, it is believed that the various forms of body language contribute about 70 percent to our comprehension. It is important to note, however, that body languages varies in different cultures. Take for example, eye movement. In the USA a child is expected to look directly at a parent or teacher who is scolding him/her. In other cultures the opposite is true. Looking directly at a teacher or parent in such a situation is considered a sign of disrespect. Another form of body language that is used differently, depending on the culture, is distance. In North America people don’t generally stand as close to each other as in South America. Two North Americans who don’t know each other well will keep a distance of four feet between them, whereas South Americans in the same situation will stand two to three feet apart. North Americans will stand closer than two feet apart only if they are having a confidential conversation or if there is intimacy between them. Gestures are often used to communicate. We point a finger, raise an eyebrow, wave an arm – or P a g e 12 | 18

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move any other part of the body - to show what we want to say. However, this does not mean that people all over the world use the same gestures to express the same meanings. Very often we find that the same gestures can communicate different meanings, depending on the country. An example of a gesture that could be misinterpreted is sticking out the tongue. In many cultures it is a sign of making a mistake, but in some places it communicates ridicule. The dangers of misunderstanding one another are great. Obviously, it is not enough to learn the language of another culture. You must also learn its non-verbal signals if you want to communicate successfully. (Adapted from “Reading Academic English” by Judy Rapoport, Ronit Broder and Sarah Feingold) Question 39. What is the passage mainly about? A. Misunderstandings in communication. B. Interpretations of gestures in different cultures. C. The significance of non-verbal signals in America. D. Non-verbal communication across cultures. Question 40. According to paragraph 1, when scolded by his/her parent or teacher, and American child is expected to . A. stand close to the person. B. raise his/her eyebrows. C. point a finger at the person. D. look directly at the person. Question 41. The word “intimacy” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to . A. enjoyment. B. closeness. C. strength. D. agreement. Question 42. The word “misinterpreted” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to . A. mispronounced. B. misbehaved. C. misspelled. D. misunderstood. Question 43. The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to . A. the country. B. an example. C. misspelled. D. misunderstood. Question 44. As stated in the passage, in order to communicate successfully with people from another culture, it is advisable for a person . A. to use the body language of the people from that culture. B. to learn both the language and non-verbal signals of that culture. C. to learn only non-verbal signals of that culture. D. to travel to as many countries as possible. Question 45. Which form of body language is NOT mentioned in the passage? A. distance. B. posture. C. gesture. D. eye movement.

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Question 39. Chọn đáp án D What is the passage mainly about?: Nội dung chính của đoạn văn là gì? Misunderstandings in communication: Sự hiểu nhầm trong giao tiếp Interpretations of gestures in different cultures: Sự giải mã ý nghĩa các cử chỉ động tác trong các nền văn hóa khác nhau. The significance of non-verbal signals in America: Tầm quan trọng của các dấu hiệu phi lời ở nước Mỹ D. Non-verbal communication across cultures: Giao tiếp phi lời qua các nền văn hóa Dẫn chứng (đoạn 1): Body language is a vital form of communication. In fact, it is believed that the various forms of body language contribute about 70 percent to our comprehension. It is important to note, however, that body language varies in different cultures: Ngôn ngữ cơ thể là một loại hình giao tiếp quan trọng. Thực tế, người ta tin rằng các hình thức khác nhau của ngôn ngữ cơ thể chiếm khoảng 70% sự lĩnh

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hội của chúng ta. Tuy nhiên cần chú ý rằng ngôn ngữ cơ thể cũng khác nhau ở các nền văn hóa khác nhau. Ta thấy ngay đầu đoạn đầu tiên tác giả đã nhấn mạnh việc ngôn ngữ cơ thể có sự khác nhau ở các nền văn hóa khác nhau. Các đoạn văn tiếp theo làm rõ hơn sự đa dạng này của ngôn ngữ cơ thể cũng như cử chỉ, động tác – các hình thức giao tiếp phi lời. Vậy ở đây phương án phù hợp nhất là D. Question 40. Chọn đáp án D According to paragraph 1, when scolded by his/her parent or teacher, an American child is expected to : Theo đoạn 1, khi bị mắng bởi bố mẹ hay giáo viên của bé ấy, một đứa trẻ Mỹ được cho là phải

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stand close to the person: đứng gần người đó raise his/her eyebrows: nâng mày lên point a finger at the person: chỉ ngón tay vào người đó D. look directly at the person: nhìn thẳng vào người đó Dẫn chứng (đoạn 1): In the USA a child is expected to look directly at a parent or teacher who is scolding him/her: Ở nước Mỹ, một đứa trẻ được cho là phải nhìn thẳng vào bố mẹ hay giáo viên khi họ mắng chúng. Vậy dựa vào dẫn chứng ta chọn đáp án đúng là D. Question 41. Chọn đáp án B The word “intimacy” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to : Từ “intimacy” trong đoạn 2 gần nghĩa nhất với .

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B. closeness (n): sự gần gũi, thân thiết strength (n): sức mạnh, sự mạnh mẽ agreement (n): sự đồng ý, thỏa thuận Ta thấy: intimacy (n) = closeness (n): sự gần gũi, thân thiết Vậy chọn đáp án đúng là B. Question 42. Chọn đáp án D The word “misinterpreted” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to : Từ “misinterpreted” trong đoạn văn 3 có nghĩa gần nhất với A. mispronounced: phát âm sai B. misbehaved: cư xử sai phép tắc C. misspelled: đánh vần sai D. misunderstood: hiểu sai Ta thấy: misinterprete (v): giải nghĩa sai, hiểu sai = misunderstand (v) Vậy ta chọn đáp án đúng là D. Question 43. Chọn đáp án C The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to : Từ “it” trong đoạn 3 ý chỉ A. the country B. an example. C. sticking out the tongue D. making a mistake A. the country: quốc gia B. an example: một ví dụ C. sticking out the tongue: thè lưỡi D. making a mistake: phạm một sai lầm Dẫn chứng (đoạn 3): An example of a gesture that could be is sticking out the tongue. In many cultures it is a sign of making a mistake, but in some places it communicates ridicule: Một ví dụ của động tác (có ý nghĩa khác nhau trong các nền văn hóa khác hau) là việc thè lưỡi. Ở nhiều nền văn hóa, nó là một dấu

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hiệu của việc mắc lỗi sai nhưng ở một số nơi nó biểu thị sự giễu cợt. Như vậy dựa vào dẫn chứng trên ta chọn đáp án đúng là C. Kiến thức cần nhớ

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Đôi khi ta cần mở rộng phạm vi đối chiếu để thấy được một văn cảnh toàn diện hơn, tránh mắc sai lầm.

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions The human desire for companionship may feel boundless, but research suggests that our social capital is finite. Social scientists have used a number of ingenious approaches to gauge the size of people’s social networks; these have returned estimates ranging from about 250 to about 5,500 people. An undergraduate thesis from MIT focusing exclusively on Franklin D. Roosevelt, a friendly guy with an especially social job, suggested that he might have had as many as 22,500 acquaintances. Looking more specifically at friendship, a study using the exchange of Christmas cards as a proxy for closeness put the average person’s friend group at about 121 people. However vast our networks may be, our inner circle tends to be much smaller. The average American trusts only 10 to 20 people. Moreover, that number may be shrinking: From 1985 to 2004, the average number of confidants that people reported having decreased from three to two. This is both sad and consequential, because whoever has strong social relationships tends to live longer than those who don’t. So what should you do if your social life is lacking? Just follow the research. To begin with, don’t dismiss the humble acquaintance. Even interacting with people with whom one has weak social ties has a meaningful influence on well-being. Beyond that, building deeper friendships may be largely a matter of putting in time. A recent study out of the University of Kansas found that it takes about 50 hours of socializing to go from acquaintance to casual friend, an additional 40 hours to become a “real” friend, and a total of 200 hours to become a close friend. If that sounds like too much effort, reviving dormant social ties can be especially rewarding. Reconnected friends can quickly recapture much of the trust they previously built, while offering each other a dash of novelty drawn from whatever they’ve been up to in the meantime. And if all else fails, you could start randomly confiding in people you don’t know that well in hopes of letting the tail wag the relational dog. The academic literature is clear: Longing for closeness and connection is pervasive. Which suggests that most of us are stumbling through the world pining for companionship that could be easily provided by the lonesome stumblers all around us. (source: https://www.theatlantic.com/) Question 44: Which best serves as the title for the passage? A. Why you should prioritize friendship. B. A study characterises our circles of friendships. C. The limitations of friendship. D. How to make friends, according to science. Question 45: According to paragraph 1, what is the purpose for mentioning an MIT thesis as an example? A. To show that human and social bonds do not exist in isolation from each other. B. To highlight a note-worthy case of ceiling limit for an individual’s social output. C. To illustrate that different human relationships involve different degrees of effort. D. To explain the proneness to vulnerability of unnecessarily wide social network. Question 46: The word “those” in paragraph 2 refers to _____. A. networks B. confidants C. relationships D. people Question 47: The word “dismiss” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______. A. disperse B. disregard C. abandon D. forget Question 48: The word “dormant” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______. A. latent B. inert C. asleep D. frisky Question 49: The following statements are true, EXCEPT _______. A. Social scientists are very creative in their methods to measure a person’s sociability. B. If one has a large number of relationships, it must mean that they are all superficial. C. Most of the studies listed are instructive on socialising methods and recommendations. D. A normal person require a number of 200 hours on average to form a close friendship. Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? A. Individuals’ ability to manage human relationships is limited. B. Social capital turns more complicated as a person grows older. C. Friendship is one of life features that is often taken for granted. P a g e 15 | 18

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D. Every human relationship in life has an expiration date. KEY Nghiên cứu cho thấy rằng khát khao tình bạn của con người là vô biên dẫu cuộc sống xã hội là hữu hạn. Các nhà khoa học xã hội đã tiếp cận một cách khéo léo để đánh giá quy mô mạng xã hội của ước tính 250 – 5000 người. Một luận án từ đại học MIT về Franklin D. Roosevelt, một anh chàng thân thiện với một công việc xã hội đặc biệt, đã chỉ ra rằng anh ta có thể có tới 22.500 người quen. Để nhìn nhận cụ thể hơn về tình bạn, một nghiên cứu sử dụng việc trao đổi thiệp Giáng sinh như một minh chứng gần gũi đã cho thấy trung bình có khoảng 121 thành viên trong một nhóm bạn. Tuy số lượng người quen nhiều là thế, con số thực sự bên trong có thể ít hơn. Trung bình một người Mỹ chỉ tin tưởng từ 10 đến 20 người. Con số này có thể thu hẹp lại: Từ năm 1985 đến năm 2004, theo như báo cáo ghi nhận, con số này đã giảm từ 3 về 2. Đây là một điều đáng buồn và tiêu cực bởi bất kì ai có nhiều mối quan hệ xã hội tốt đẹp thường sống lâu hơn những người khác. Vậy, bạn nên làm gì khi thiếu đi các mối quan hệ xã hội? Hãy làm theo nghiên cứu sau đây. Đầu tiên, đừng xem nhẹ các mối quan nhỏ nhặt bởi ngay cả việc tương tác với những người thuộc tầng lớp xã hội thấp kém cũng có thể tác động tích cực đến hạnh phúc của mỗi chúng ta. Ngoài ra, việc xây dựng tình bạn sâu sắc, gắn bó đòi hỏi chúng ta phải dành nhiều thời gian. Một nghiên cứu gần đây của đại học Kansas chỉ ra rằng mất khoảng 50 tiếng để một người xa lạ trở thành người quen, thêm 40 tiếng để thực sự trở thành bạn bè, và tổng cộng gần 200 tiếng để trở thành bạn bè thân thiết. Nếu như điều đó có vẻ cần quá nhiều nỗ lực, hãy thử gây dựng lại các mối quan hệ bạn bè. Kết nối lại với bạn bè có thể nhanh chóng lấy lại phần lớn niềm tin đã xây dựng trước đó, đồng thời mang đến cho nhau nhiều điều mới lạ từ những gì họ đã trải qua cùng nhau. Bạn có thể tâm sự với bất kì ai mà bạn không hề quen biết nếu bạn gặp thất bại trong cuộc sống – ví dụ trên làm rõ ý kiến về tìm người gắn bó và tương tác với nhau đang diễn ta tràn lan. Hầu hết chúng ta đang loay hoay để tìm bạn đồng hành luôn ở bên cạnh chúng ta trên cuộc đời này.

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Question 44: Which best serves as the title for the passage? A. Why you should prioritize friendship. B. A study characterises our circles of friendships. C. The limitations of friendship. D. How to make friends, according to science. Đáp án D Chủ đề chính của đoạn văn là gì? A. Tại sao bạn nên ưu tiên tình bạn. B. Một nghiên cứu đặc trưng cho vòng tròn tình bạn của chúng ta. C. Những hạn chế của tình bạn. D. Cách kết bạn, theo khoa học. Căn cứ vào thông tin: (xuyên suốt các đoạn) The human desire for companionship may feel boundless, but research suggests that our social capital is finite. (Mong muốn đồng hành của con người có thể cảm thấy vô biên, nhưng nghiên cứu cho thấy vốn xã hội của chúng ta là hữu hạn.) & So what should you do if your social life is lacking? Just follow the research. (Vậy bạn nên làm gì nếu cuộc sống xã hội của bạn thiếu thốn? Chỉ cần làm theo nghiên cứu.) & Even interacting with people with whom one as weak social ties has a meaningful influence on well-being. (Ngay cả việc tương tác với những người mà mối quan hệ xã hội yếu kém cũng có ảnh hưởng có ý nghĩa đối với hạnh phúc.) & The academic literature is clear: Longing for closeness and connection is pervasive. (Các tài liệu học thuật là rõ ràng: Mong muốn gần gũi và kết nối là phổ biến.) Giải thích: Xuyên suốt các đoạn là những nghiên cứu để tình bạn, đưa ra tầm quan trọng của tinh bạn (một ý nhỏ) để đưa ra, thúc đẩy người đọc kết bạn. => Đáp án D

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Question 45: According to paragraph 1, what is the purpose for mentioning an MIT thesis as an example? A. To show that human and social bonds do not exist in isolation from each other. B. To highlight a note-worthy case of ceiling limit for an individual’s social output. C. To illustrate that different human relationships involve different degrees of effort. D. To explain the proneness to vulnerability of unnecessarily wide social network. Đáp án B Theo đoạn 1, mục đích để đề cập đến một luận án MIT là một ví dụ là gì? A. Để chỉ ra rằng sự gắn kết giữa con người và xã hội không tồn tại trong sự cô lập với nhau. P a g e 16 | 18

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B. Để làm nổi bật một trường hợp đáng chú ý là giới hạn cho mối quan hệ xã hội của một cá nhân. C. Để minh họa rằng các mối quan hệ khác nhau của con người liên quan đến mức độ nỗ lực khác nhau. D. Để giải thích mức độ dễ bị tổn thương của mạng xã hội rộng không cần thiết. Căn cứ vào thông tin: Social scientists have used a number of ingenious approaches to gauge the size of people’s social networks; these have returned estimates ranging from about 250 to about 5,500 people. An undergraduate thesis from MIT focusing exclusively on Franklin D. Roosevelt, a friendly guy with an especially social job, suggested that he might have had as many as 22,500 acquaintances. (Các nhà khoa học xã hội đã sử dụng một số cách tiếp cận khéo léo để đánh giá quy mô của con người mạng lưới xã hội; những người này đã có được ước tính mối quan hệ từ khoảng 250 đến khoảng 5.500 người. Một luận án đại học từ MIT tập trung hoàn toàn vào Franklin D. Roosevelt, một anh chàng thân thiện với một công việc xã hội đặc biệt, cho rằng anh ta có thể có tới 22.500 người quen.) Giải thích: Franklin D. Roosevelt có một mạng lưới xã hội đáng chú ý và vượt xa hơn so với người binh thường => Đáp án B

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Question 46: The word “those” in paragraph 2 refers to _____. A. networks B. confidants C. relationships D. people Đáp án D Từ “those” trong đoạn 2 đề cập đến _____. A. mạng lưới B. người tâm sự, thân tín C. mối quan hệ D. người Căn cứ vào ngữ cảnh: This is both sad and consequential, because whoever has strong social relationships tends to live longer than those who don’t. (Điều này vừa buồn vừa đem lại kết quả, bởi vì bất cứ ai có mối quan hệ xã hội mạnh mẽ đều có xu hướng sống lâu hơn so với những người không có.) => Đáp án D

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Question 47: The word “dismiss” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______. A. disperse B. disregard C. abandon D. forget Đáp án B Từ “dismiss” trong đoạn 3 có nghĩa gần nhất với _______. A. phân tán B. không cân nhắc, xem xét hoặc phớt lờ đi vì xem nó là không quan trọng, coi thường nó (hoàn toàn là do yếu tố chủ quan chủ tâm làm vậy) C. từ bỏ, ruồng bỏ D. quên, hoàn toàn không nghĩ gì đến ai/cái gì (đơn giản vì không thể nhớ được nó; mang tính khách quan vì không cố ý để quên) Căn cứ vào ngữ cảnh: To begin with, don’t dismiss the humble acquaintance. (Quan trọng nhất là đừng bỏ qua những người quen khiêm tốn.) => Dismiss (v): bỏ qua, lãng quên vì xem họ không quan trọng hoặc không đáng để cân nhắc, xem xét hay nghĩ về ~ disregard *Note: To begin with = first: đầu tiên là; quan trọng nhất là

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Question 48: The word “dormant” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______. A. latent B. inert C. asleep D. frisky Đáp án A Từ “dormant” trong đoạn 4 có nghĩa gần nhất với _______. A. tiềm ẩn, ẩn dật B. trơ C. buồn ngủ D. đáng sợ

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Căn cứ vào thông tin: If that sounds like too much effort, reviving dormant social ties can be especially rewarding. (Nếu điều đó có vẻ như quá nhiều nỗ lực, làm sống lại các mối quan hệ xã hội không hoạt động có thể đặc biệt bổ ích.) latent ~ dormant => Đáp án A

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Question 49: The following statements are true, EXCEPT _______. A. Social scientists are very creative in their methods to measure a person’s sociability. B. If one has a large number of relationships, it must mean that they are all superficial. C. Most of the studies listed are instructive on socialising methods and recommendations. D. A normal person require a number of 200 hours on average to form a close friendship. Đáp án B Các tuyên bố sau đây là đúng, NGOẠI TRỪ _______. A. Các nhà khoa học xã hội rất sáng tạo trong các phương pháp của họ để đo lường tính xã hội của một người. B. Nếu một người có số lượng lớn các mối quan hệ, điều đó có nghĩa là tất cả họ đều hời hợt. C. Hầu hết các nghiên cứu được liệt kê là hướng dẫn về các phương pháp và khuyến nghị xã hội hóa. D. Một người bình thường cần trung bình 200 giờ để hình thành một tình bạn thân thiết. Căn cứ vào thông tin: - Social scientists have used a number of ingenious approaches to gauge the size of people’s social networks. (Các nhà khoa học xã hội đã sử dụng một số cách tiếp cận khéo léo để đánh giá quy mô của con người mạng lưới xã hội) => Loại A - … and a total of 200 hours to become a close friend. (và tổng cộng 200 giờ để trở thành một người bạn thân thiết.) => Loại D - So what should you do if your social life is lacking? Just follow the research. To begin with, don’t dismiss the humble acquaintance…. Beyond that, building deeper friendships may be largely a matter of putting in time. (Vậy bạn nên làm gì nếu cuộc sống xã hội của bạn thiếu thốn? Chỉ cần làm theo nghiên cứu. Để bắt đầu, don lồng bỏ người quen khiêm tốn… Ngoài ra, xây dựng tình bạn sâu sắc hơn có thể phần lớn là vấn đề đặt thời gian.) => Liệt kê cách để xã hội hóa => Loại C - B không có thông tin không bài => Đáp án B Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? A. Individuals’ ability to manage human relationships is limited. B. Social capital turns more complicated as a person grows older. C. Friendship is one of life features that is often taken for granted. D. Every human relationship in life has an expiration date. Đáp án A Điều nào sau đây có thể được suy ra từ đoạn văn? A. Khả năng quản lý các mối quan hệ của con người bị hạn chế. B. Vốn xã hội trở nên phức tạp hơn khi một người già đi. C. Tình bạn là một trong những đặc điểm cuộc sống thường được coi là điều hiển nhiên. D. Mọi mối quan hệ của con người trong cuộc sống đều có ngày hết hạn. Căn cứ vào thông tin: The human desire for companionship may feel boundless, but research suggests that our social capital is finite. (about 250 to about 5,500 people.) (Mong muốn đồng hành của con người có thể cảm thấy vô biên, nhưng nghiên cứu cho thấy vốn xã hội của chúng ta là hữu hạn. (khoảng 250 đến khoảng 5.500 người.)) => Đáp án A

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA 05 (Đề thi có 05 trang)

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Họ, tên thí sinh……………………………………………………………………… Số báo danh: ................................................................................................................... Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 1: I think mobile phones are_____for people of all ages. A. usage B. use C. usefully D. useful Question 2: I’m getting better at this job,______? A. am I B. am not I C. isn’t I D. aren’t I He used to be a taxi driver there Question 3: Mr Nam knows Hanoi City like the back of his for 10 years. A. head B. mind C. hand D. life Question 4: It was so noisy outside that she couldn’t concentrate______her work. A. in B. at C. with D. on Question 5: A________of $10,000 has been offered for the capture of his murderer. A. prize B. gift C. bounty D. award\ Question 6: Children are encouraged to read books_______they are a wonderful source of knowledge. A. because of B. in spite of C. because D. although Question 7: Indiana University, one of the largest ones in the nation, is located in a _____ town. A. small beautiful Midwestern B. beautiful Midwestern small C. Midwestern beautiful small D. beautiful small Midwestern Question 8: Mary met her second husband not long after her first marriage _________________. A. broke in B. broke down C. broke up D. broke off Question 9: When I got home I found that water ________________ down the kitchen walls. A. ran B. was running C. has run D. had been running Question 10. _______, I will complete every exercise in my textbook. A. When I master English B. The moment I have mastered English C. As soon as I had mastered English D. Before I have mastered English Question 11. Don't go without _______ goodbye to me, will you? A. talking B. saying C. telling D. speaking a lot of knowledge. Question 12. He has read a lot of books and A. achieved B. won C. acquired D. requested Question 13: Stephen William Hawking ____ on 8th January, 1942 in Oxford, England. A. born B. has born C. is born D. was born ________ in this town for a long time, Mary doesn't want to move to another place. Question 14 A. Living B. To live C. Having lived D. Lived Question 15: The larger the apartment is, the ____________ its price is. A. expensive B. more expensive C. expensively D. most expensive Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges. Question 16: “I've called many times but the plumber hasn’t come yet.” - “______________” A. Wait a minute, please. B. We do apologise for this matter. We’ll fix it soon. C. He's maybe busy now. D. The problem has been fixed already. Question 17: “ Would you like to have a picnic with US on the weekend?” - “______________”

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A. Yes, I'd love to. B. You’re welcome. C. Of course not. D. It’s my pleasure. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 18. A. report B. conclude C. deter D. sanction Question 19. A. advertise B. definite C. composite D. communicate Question 18: Đáp án D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 20. A. borrowed B. conserved C. approached D. complained Question 21: A. fake B. amaze C. framework D. merchant Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: The student service centre will try their best to assist students in finding a suitable part– time job. A. help B. allow C. make D. employ Question 23: My sister is a very diligent student. She works very hard at every subject. A. clever B. practical C. studious D. helpful Dịch: Chị gái tớ là một sinh viên rất chăm chỉ. Môn nào chị ấy cũng học cực kỳ chăm luôn. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24. He was one of the most outstanding performers at the live show last night. A. easy- looking B. humble C. well- known D. impressive Question 25. Advanced students need to be aware of the importance of collocation. A. of high level B. of great importance C. of low level D. reputation Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions Question 26: He showed himself a good student. He proved himself a good athlete. A. Not only he showed himself a good student but he also proved himself a good athlete. B. He did not show himself a good student but he proved himself a good athlete. C. A good student not only showed him but he also proved himself a good athlete. D. Not only did he show himself a good student but he also proved himself a good athlete. Question 27: The burglar might come back. You’d better change all the locks. A. You’d better change all the locks or the burglar will come back. B. You’d better change all the locks in case the burglar comes back. C. If you don’t change all the locks, the burglar could come back. D. The burglar will come back unless you change all the locks. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 28: Van Cliburn studies piano from 1951 to 1954 and won multiple awards between A B C D 1958 and 1960.

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Question 29: Preventing the soil from erosion, the trees planted by the farmer many years before A B were what stopped the flood from reaching their house. C D Question 30: Hot soup is very comfortable on a cold winter's day. A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 31 I’m sure Jessica was very upset when you left. A. Jessica could have been very upset when you left. B. Jessica must be very upset when you left. C. Jessica may be very upset when you left. D. Jessica must have been very upset when you left. Question 32. “What a novel idea for the farewell party” said Nam to the monitor.

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A. Nam exclaimed with admiration at the novel idea for the farewell party of the monitor. B. Nam admired the novel idea for the farewell party. C. Nam thought over the novel idea of the farewell party. D. Nam said that it was a novel idea of the monitor for the farewell party. 33. She last visited her home country ten years ago. A. She hasn't visited her home country for ten years. B. She didn’t visit her home country ten years ago. C. She has visited her home country for ten years. D. She was in her home country for ten years. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30. Spectacular, played today on all kinds of surfaces by tens of millions of people, for fun or in competition, tennis has spread (34) ______ over the world. Designed and codified in England in the 1870s, it is the direct descendant of jeu de paume, invented in France in the 11th century. The developments of this mediaeval (35) ______ , originally practised with bare hands, like the invention of the racket in the 16th century and the special scoring system (15, 30, 40, game), led directly to tennis, (36) ______ its name, from the French word “tenez!” (in the sense of “here it comes!”), which you said to your opponent as you were about to serve. The popularity of tennis in England quickly (37) ______ that of croquet. Indeed, barely three years passed between the publication of A Portable Court of Playing Tennis by Welsh Major Walter Clopton Wingfield in 1874, the defining work in terms of codifying lawn tennis, and the holding of the first Wimbledon tournament in 1877. The decisive element introduced by Wingfield was the use of a rubber ball, (38) ______ could bounce on grass. (Adapted from https://www.olympic.org/) Question 34: A. each B. any C. all D. every Question 35: A. score B. screw C. smoke D. sport Question 36: A. including B. before C. without D. except Question 37: A. pretended B. overtook C. pressured D. guided Question 38: A. which B. that C. what D. where Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43 Being repeatedly late may just be accidental - or could it show a deeply rooted psychological desire to express your own superiority? when I worked in an office, meetings would often start late, usually because of a certain individual. Then they would overrun and the whole day lost its shape. But the individual was high-ranking and self-important: nobody challenged. So, what are the ethics of lateness? There’s a psychotherapist called Irvin Yalom who argues that all behaviour reflects psychology. Just as people who like to be on time are motivated by certain deep-seated beliefs, so those who make others wait are acting out an inner agenda, often based on an acute sense of power. There’s famous footage in which Silvio Berlusconi kept Angela Merkel waiting while he made a call on his mobile. It speaks volumes. But that is when all lateness is in one’s control, what about when your train is cancelled or your flight is delayed or you had to wait longer for the plumber to arrive? In such cases, there’s not a lot of psychology involved. Or is there? Some people will genuinely worry about the impact it will have on those left waiting, while others might secretly enjoy the power of their absence. The essential fact is that lateness means breaking a convention - you can only be late in respect of a time agreed with other people. Regardless of psychology, it has a social value. And when we treat other people’s time as less valuable than our own, we treat them as inferior. (Adapted from https://www.olympic.org/ Question 39. What is the main idea of the passage? A. Lateness indicates superiority of important individuals. B. Social values of individuals are fostered through lateness. C. Being late can reveal a lot about people’s psychology. D. People with high sense of power have a tendency to be late. Question 40. What is the “speaks volumes” in paragraph 2 closest in meaning to? A. tells a lot B. makes sounds C. holds power D. talks loudly Question 41. Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage? A. The way our minds work is responsible for the way we behave. B. Some people control a situation for their benefit through lateness. C. Lateness can have an impact on other people who are made to wait.

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D. Most people react the same when lateness is out of their control. Question 42. It can be inferred from the reading passage that___________. A. Berlusconi made Merkel wait as he wanted to show his importance. B. it is fashionable to be late to meetings because nobody challenges. C. the writer’s daily schedule was unaffected by his colleague’s lateness. D. nothing can be said about one’s psychology if lateness is out of control. Question 43. What does the word “it” in paragraph 4 refer to? A. fact B. lateness C. convention D. psychology Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions front 43 to 50. Homeopathy, the alternative therapy created in 1796 by Samuel Hahnemann, and now widely used all over the world, is based on the belief that the body can be stimulated to heal itself. A central principle of the “treatment” is that “like cures like”, meaning a substance that causes certain symptoms can also help to remove those symptoms. Medicines used in homeopathy are created by heavily diluting in water the substance in question and subsequently shaking the liquid vigorously. They can then be made into tablets and pills. Practitioners believe that the more a substance is diluted in this way, the greater its power to treat symptoms. However, in a new study, a working committee of medical experts at Australia’s National Health and Medical Research Council (NHMRC) has claimed that homeopathic medicines are only as effective as placebos at treating illness. Their research, involving the analysis of numerous reports from homeopathy interest groups and the public, concluded that there is no reliable evidence that homeopathy works. Moreover, researchers uncovered no fewer than 68 ailments that homeopathic remedies had failed to treat, including asthma, sleep disturbances, cold and flu, and arthritis. As a result of the findings, the NHMRC is urging health workers to inform their patients to be wary of anecdotal evidence that appears to support the effectiveness of homeopathic medicine. “It isn’t possible to tell whether a health treatment is effective or not simply by considering the experience of one individual or the beliefs of a health practitioner” says the report. Experts believe that most illnesses said to have been cured by homeopathy would be cured by the body on its own without taking the medicine. Apparently, many illnesses are short-lived by their very nature which often leads to people believing that it is the homeopathy that cures them. A more serious matter is highlighted by Professor John Dwyer of the University of New South Wales. As an immunologist, he is concerned about homeopathic vaccinations on offer for diseases such as HIV, tuberculosis, and malaria, none of which he considers effective. According to Professor John Dwyer, the concept that homeopathic vaccinations are just as good as traditional vaccinations is delusion, and those who believe it are failing to protect themselves and their children. (Adapted from https://www.olympic.org/ Question 44. Which could be the best title for the passage? A. “Homeopathy kills” say scientists B. “Avoid homeopathy” say scientists C. Homeopathy worth trying once D. Unknown effects of homeopathy Question 45. According to the reading passage, homeopathic medicines are___________ . A. prepared similarly for different diseases B. made up of a variety of ingredients C. suitable for a wide range of symptoms D. available only in the liquid form Question 46. What does the word “their” in paragraph 2 refer to? A. committee B. NHMRC C. medicines D. placebos Question 47. The Australian study reveals that homeopathy is___________. A. increasingly popular with the public B. helpful in the case of respiratory infections C. ineffective in treating many diseases D. of great interest to a certain group of people Question 48. What is the word “wary” in paragraph 3 closest in meaning to? A. apprehensive B. reluctant C. cautious D. observant Question 49. People tend to believe in homeopathy because of___________. A. advertisements displayed in health center B. positive feedback from a small number of people C. reliable proof from recent medical reports D. results of research into some alternatives therapies Question 50. What is the word “delusion” in paragraph 4 closest in meaning to? A. legend B. falsehood C. imagination D. hallucination ……………………………………………………………………………………………..

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KEY CHI TIẾT Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 1: I think mobile phones are_____for people of all ages. A. usage B. use C. usefully D. useful 1.Đáp án D Xét các đáp án: A. usage (n): cách dùng, cách sử dụng B. use (v): sử dụng C. usefully (adv): một cách hữu ích, có ích D. useful (a): hữu ích, hữu dụng => Sau động từ to be, ta điền một tính từ chỉ tính chất Dịch: Tôi nghĩ điện thoại di dộng rất hữu ích đối với mọi người ở mọi lứa tuổi. Question 2: I’m getting better at this job,______? A. am I B. am not I C. isn’t I D. aren’t I Đáp án D Dịch nghĩa: “Tớ đang dần thạo công việc này hơn rồi phải không?” Câu bắt đầu với I’m thì thành lập hỏi đuôi sẽ dùng aren’t I. He used to be a taxi driver there Question 3: Mr Nam knows Hanoi City like the back of his for 10 years. A. head B. mind C. hand D. life Question 3 Chọn đáp án C - head (n): đầu - mind (n): trí óc, tâm trí - hand (n): tay - life (n): cuộc sống + know sb/ sth like the back of one’s hand ~ to be very familiar with somebody/something: hiểu biết rất rõ, biết rõ như lòng bàn tay Dịch: Ông Nam biết thành phổ Hà Nội rõ như lòng bàn tay. Ông ấy từng lái xe taxi ở đó 10 năm. Question 4: It was so noisy outside that she couldn’t concentrate______her work. A. in B. at C. with D. on Đáp án D * Căn cứ vào cấu trúc: - concentrate on sth: tập trung vào cái gì. * Dịch nghĩa: Bên ngoài ồn ào đến nỗi cô không thể tập trung vào công việc được.

Question 5: A________of $10,000 has been offered for the capture of his murderer. A. prize B. gift C. bounty D. award

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5. chọn đáp án c A. prize: Giải thưởng của một cuộc thi, cuộc đua B. gift: quà tặng quà biếu ( thường dc tặng trong các dịp đặc biệt) C. bounty: Tiền thưởng, vật thưởng, phần thưởng (tặng cho những người có công, or giúp đỡ ai, có công trong việc bắt giữ tội phạm...) D. award: phần thưởng ( do quan tòa, hội đồng tổ chức..ban cho vì thành tích…) Tạm dịch: Một phần thưởng trị giá 10,000 đô la đã được ban thưởng cho việc bắt giữ được kẻ sát nhân. Question 6: Children are encouraged to read books_______they are a wonderful source of knowledge. A. because of B. in spite of C. because D. although Đáp án C Dịch nghĩa: Trẻ em được khuyến khích đọc sách vì chúng là nguồn kiến thức tuyệt vời. Xét các đáp án: A. because of + N/Ving: bởi vì B. in spite of + N/Ving: mặc dù C. because = as = since + clause: bởi vì D. although + clause: mặc dù

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=> Sau chỗ trống là một mệnh đề nên loại A, B. Căn cứ vào nghĩa ta loại D. Question 7: Indiana University, one of the largest ones in the nation, is located in a _____ town. A. small beautiful Midwestern B. beautiful Midwestern small C. Midwestern beautiful small D. beautiful small Midwestern 7.Đáp án D *Theo quy tắc trật tự tính từ trong câu: OSASCOMP beautiful - Opinion; small - S; Midwestern - Origin Tạm dịch: Trường Đại học Indiana, một trong những ngôi trường nhất trong nước, nằm ở một thị trấn nhỏ miền Trung Tây xinh đẹp. Question 8: Mary met her second husband not long after her first marriage _________________. A. broke in B. broke down C. broke up D. broke off 8.Đáp án C A. broke in: xông vào, đột nhập B. broke down: hỏng hóc, đàm phán thất bại C. broke up: đổ vỡ, chia tay, kết thúc một mối quan hệ D. broke off: bong ra, long ra Dịch nghĩa: Mary đã gặp người chồng thứ hai của mình không lâu sau khi cuộc hôn nhân đầu tiên của cô ấy tan vỡ. Question 9: When I got home I found that water ________________ down the kitchen walls. A. ran B. was running C. has run D. had been running 9.Đáp án B – Dịch: Khi tôi về nhà tôi thấy nước đang chảy xuống tường nhà bếp. => Ta chọn đáp án B. Diễn tả hành động “nước chảy” diễn ra tại thời điểm nói “lúc mà tôi về nhà”. Ở đây, có thể ngầm hiểu việc nước chảy đã xảy ra từ trước rồi, cụ thể từ lúc nào không rõ nhưng nó đã và đang diễn ra cho đến khi tôi về, và tại thời điểm tôi về đó là hành động “run down” cần chia đang diễn ra, nên ta chia ở quá khứ tiếp diễn. => Đáp án D chưa chính xác. Vì dùng thì quá khứ hoàn thành tiếp diễn để diễn tả một hành động đã xảy ra và kéo dài liên tục đến một hành động hoặc một thời điểm nào đó trong quá khứ và chấm dứt tại thời điểm đó. Tức là nếu chia theo đáp án D, ta hiểu tại thời điểm nói, lúc mà “tôi về”, nước đã không còn chảy nữa, như vậy lại mâu thuẫn với giả thiết là "tôi thấy nước đang chảy’’. -> Vì dùng “I found” cho thấy bản thân họ đã chứng kiến điều gì đó đang diễn ra, nên lúc đó họ mới về thì họ không thể nào “thấy được việc nước chảy liên tục từ trước đó đến lúc họ về” được. *Note: Nếu ngữ cảnh là như ví dụ này, ta sẽ chia quá khứ hoàn thành tiếp diễn cho hành động tương tự: EX: The water had been running down the kitchen walls and I found that they were still wet. Question 10. _______, I will complete every exercise in my textbook. A. When I master English B. The moment I have mastered English C. As soon as I had mastered English D. Before I have mastered English 10. Đáp án A Kiến thức: Mệnh đề chỉ thời gian / Sự hòa hợp thì trong mệnh đề Giải thích: Mệnh đề chính chia thì tương lai => động từ trong mệnh đề chỉ thời gian chia thì hiện tại (hiện tại đơn, hiện tại hoàn thành). When +S+Vo/s/es +…, S+ will + Vo. Loại đáp án B,C, D sai thì Question 11. Don't go without _______ goodbye to me, will you? A. talking B. saying C. telling D. speaking 11. Chọn đáp án B Kiến thức: Về sự kết hợp từ cố định Giải thích Say goodbye: chào tạm biệt Tạm dịch: Bạn đừng đi mà không nói lời tạm biệt với tôi có được không? a lot of knowledge. Question 12. He has read a lot of books and A. achieved B. won C. acquired D. requested 12.: Chọn C. Đáp án đúng là C. Giải thích: Xét 4 lựa chọn ta có:

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achieved: đạt được won: chiến thắng acquired: thu được requested: yêu cầu Xét về nghĩa thì C hợp lý. Dịch: Anh ấy đã đọc rất nhiều sách và thu được rất nhiều kiến thức. Question 13: Stephen William Hawking ____ on 8th January, 1942 in Oxford, England. A. born B. has born C. is born D. was born 13. Đáp án D Tạm dịch: Stephen William Hawking được sinh ra vào ngày 8 tháng 1 năm 1942 tại Oxford, Anh. Giải thích: được sinh ra=> dùng bị động 8th January, 1942 (mốc thời gian trong quá khứ) Question 14 ________ in this town for a long time, Mary doesn't want to move to another place. A. Living B. To live C. Having lived D. Lived 14. Chọn C Kiến thức: Mệnh đề phân tử / Rút gọn mệnh đề đồng ngữ Giải thích: Khi 2 mệnh đề có cùng chủ ngữ (She) thì có thể rút gọn 1 trong 2 mệnh đề về dạng: - V-ing / Having P2: nếu mệnh đề được rút gọn mang nghĩa chủ động - P2 (quá khứ phân từ): nếu mệnh đề được rút gọn mang nghĩa bị động Chủ ngữ “I” có thể làm chủ (tự thực hiện hành động”live” => nghĩa chủ động. hành động đã xảy ra trong quá khứ. Having+V3/ed Tạm dịch: Đã sống ớ thị trấn này trong khoảng thời gian dài, Mary không muốn chuyển đi chỗ khác.

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Đề bài: “ Bạn có muốn đi dã ngoại cùng chúng tôi vào cuối tuần không?” - “_________” A. Có, tôi rất thích điều này. B. Không có gì -> Đáp lại lời cảm ơn C. Tất nhiên là không. D. Đó là vinh hạnh của tôi -> Đáp lại lời cảm ơn

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 18. A. report B. conclude C. deter D. sanction Question 19. A. advertise B. definite C. composite D. communicate Question 18: Đáp án D Đáp án D đúng vì đáp án D có trọng âm rơi vào âm tiết thứ nhất. Các đáp án còn lại có trọng âm rơi vào âm tiết thứ hai. A. report /rɪˈpɔːt/ (v)/ (n): bản báo cáo (n)/ đưa tin (v) B. conclude /kənˈkluːd/ (v): kết luận / conclude from sth that + clause: từ điều gì đó kết luận được rằng... C. deter /dɪˈtɜː(r)/ (v): ngăn cản/ làm nản lòng /deter sb from (doing) sth: ngăn cản ai làm việc gì đó. D. sanction /ˈsæŋkʃn/ (v)/ (n): sự chấp thuận, sự trừng phạt (n)/ chấp thuận, trừng phạt (v) * Mở rộng: Từ hai âm tiết là động từ thì đa phần có trọng âm rơi vào âm tiết thứ hai. Từ kết thúc bằng đuôi -tion/ -sion có trọng âm rơi vào âm tiết trước nó. Question 19: Đáp án D Đáp án D đúng vì đáp án D có trọng âm rơi vào âm tiết thứ hai. Các đáp án còn lại có trọng âm rơi vào âm tiết thứ nhất. A. advertise / 'ædvətaɪz/ (v): quảng cáo B. definite /ˈdefɪnət/ (a): rõ ràng, dứt khoát, chắc chắn. C. composite /ˈkɒmpəzɪt/ (a)/ (n): kết hợp từ nhiều chất (a)/ hợp chất (n). D. communicate /kəˈmjuːnɪkeɪt/ (v): giao tiếp/ truyền đạt Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 20. A. borrowed B. conserved C. approached D. complained Question 20. Đáp án C Đáp án C đúng vì phần gạch chân của đáp án C đọc là âm /t/ còn phần gạch chân của các đáp án còn lại được đọc là âm /d/ A. borrowed /ˈbɒrəʊd/ (v): mượn, vay B. conserved /kənˈsɜːvd/ (v): bảo tồn, giữ gìn C. approached /əˈprəʊtʃt/ (v): tiếp cận, đến gần D. complained /kəmˈpleɪnd/ (v): phàn nàn, than phiền Question 21: A. fake B. amaze C. framework D. merchant Câu 21 Đáp án D A. fake /feɪk/ B. amaze /əˈmeɪz/ C. framework /ˈfreɪmwɜːk/ D. merchant /ˈmɜːtʃənt/ Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: The student service centre will try their best to assist students in finding a suitable part– time job. A. help B. allow C. make D. employ Question 22: Đáp án A A. help (giúp đỡ) B. allow (cho phép) C. make (làm/ khiến…) D. employ (tuyển dụng) Dịch: Trung tâm hỗ trợ công tác sinh viên sẽ cố gắng hết sức để hỗ trợ/ giúp đỡ sinh viên tìm một công việc làm thêm thích hợp Question 23: My sister is a very diligent student. She works very hard at every subject. A. clever B. practical C. studious D. helpful Question 23: Đáp án C A. clever (thông minh) B. practical (thưc tế) C. studious (chăm chỉ) D. helpful (hay giúp người khác)

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Dịch: Chị gái tớ là một sinh viên rất chăm chỉ. Môn nào chị ấy cũng học cực kỳ chăm luôn. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24. He was one of the most outstanding performers at the live show last night. A. easy- looking B. humble C. well- known D. impressive Question 25. Advanced students need to be aware of the importance of collocation. A. of high level B. of great importance C. of low level D. reputation Question 24: B A. easy- looking : ưa nhìn B. humble : khiêm tốn C. well- known : nổi tiếng D. impressive : ấn tượng outstanding : nổi bật >< humble : khiêm tốn Đáp án B Tạm dịch: Anh ấy là một trong những người biểu diễn xuất sắc nhất tại chương trình trực tiếp tối qua. Question 25: C A. of high level : ở trình độ cao B. of great importance : quan trọng C. of low level : trình độ thấp Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions Question 26: He showed himself a good student. He proved himself a good athlete. A. Not only he showed himself a good student but he also proved himself a good athlete. B. He did not show himself a good student but he proved himself a good athlete. C. A good student not only showed him but he also proved himself a good athlete. D. Not only did he show himself a good student but he also proved himself a good athlete. Question 26: C Kiến th ức: Đảo ngữ Giải thích: Not only … but also …: không những … mà còn … Not only + trợ động từ + S + V, but + S + also + V Tạm dị ch: Anh ấ y tự thể hiện mình là học sinh gi ỏi. Anh ấy tự chứng minh mình là vận động viên giỏi. A. sai ngữ pháp: he showed => did he show B. sai ngữ pháp: thiếu “only” C. Một học sinh giỏi không những thể hi ện anh ấ y mà anh ấ y còn tự chứng minh được mình là một vận động viên giỏi. => sai nghĩa D. Không nh ững anh ấ y t ự thể hiện mình là một học sinh giỏi mà còn tự ch ứng minh được mình là một vận động viên giỏi. => đúng Chọn D Question 27: The burglar might come back. You’d better change all the locks. A. You’d better change all the locks or the burglar will come back. B. You’d better change all the locks in case the burglar comes back. C. If you don’t change all the locks, the burglar could come back. D. The burglar will come back unless you change all the locks. Question 27: B Kiến th ức: Câu điều kiệ n loại 1 Giải thích: Câu điều kiện loại 1 diễn tả sự việc có thể x ả y ra ở hiện tại hoặc tương lai. If/ In case + S + thì hiện tại đơn, S + will/ can/ động từ khuyết thiếu + V In case: phòng khi (dùng thay cho if). Tạm dịch: Tên trộm có thể quay lại. Bạn nên thay hết ổ khóa. A. Sẽ tốt hơn nếu bạn thay hết ổ khóa hay tên trộm sẽ quay lại. => sai nghĩa B. Sẽ tốt hơn nếu bạn thay hết ổ khóa phòng khi tên trộm quay lại. => đúng C. Nếu bạn không thay h ết ổ khóa , tên trộm có th ể quay lại. => sai nghĩa D. Tên trộm sẽ quay lại n ếu bạn không thay hết ổ khóa. => sai nghĩa

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FI CI A

Ch ọn B Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 28: Van Cliburn studies piano from 1951 to 1954 and won multiple awards between A B C D 1958 and 1960.

Question 29: Preventing the soil from erosion, the trees planted by the farmer many years before A B were what stopped the flood from reaching their house. C D Question 30: Hot soup is very comfortable on a cold winter's day. A B C D Question 28: A Kiến thức: chia thì Do có thời gian ở quá khứ, nên động từ phải chia ở quá khứ đơn. Sửa: studies studied Dịch nghĩa: Van Cliburn đã học Piano từ năm 1951 đến 1954 và đã giành được

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Question 29: D Kiến thức: Sự hoà hợp giữa chủ ngữ và tính từ sở hữu Giải thích: do chủ ngữ “the farmer” là số ít nên sở hữu cách phải tương ứng Sửa: their his/her Tạm dịch: Ngăn chặn sự xói mòn của đất, những cây được trồng bởi người nông dân nhiều năm trước là thứ đã ngăn được lũ lụt đến nhà ông.

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Question 30: B Kiến thức : từ vựng : từ dễ nhầm lẫn Sửa: comfortable -> comforting Comfortable: Dùng mang nghĩa: cái gì đó thoải mái Comforting: có thể làm dịu, an ủi Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 31 I’m sure Jessica was very upset when you left. A. Jessica could have been very upset when you left. B. Jessica must be very upset when you left. C. Jessica may be very upset when you left. D. Jessica must have been very upset when you left. Question 31. D Kiến th ức: Động từ khuyết thiếu Giải thích: could have done sth: có thể đã làm gì must be: chắc có lẽ là may + do sth: có thể làm gì (ch ỉ kh ả năng xảy ra) must have done sth: ch ắc hẳn đã làm gì (chỉ phán đoán) Tạm dịch: Tôi chắ c rằng Jessica rất buồn khi bạn rời đi. => Jessica chắ c hẳn rất buồn khi bạn rời đi. Question 32. “What a novel idea for the farewell party” said Nam to the monitor. A. Nam exclaimed with admiration at the novel idea for the farewell party of the monitor. B. Nam admired the novel idea for the farewell party. C. Nam thought over the novel idea of the farewell party. D. Nam said that it was a novel idea of the monitor for the farewell party. Question 32. A Kiến th ức: Câu tường thuật

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Giải thích: Phương án D phù hợp về nghĩa. A. score (n.): điểm số B. screw (n.): đinh ốc C. smoke (n.): khói D. sport (n.): môn thể thao Giải thích: Phương án A phù hợp về nghĩa. A. including (prep.): bao gồm B. before (prep.): trước khi C. without (prep.): không có D. except (prep.): ngoại trừ Giải thích: Phương án B phù hợp về nghĩa. A. pretended (v.): giả vờ B. overtook (v.): vượt qua C. pressured (v.): gây áp lực D. guided (v.): dẫn dắt Đại từ quan hệ “which” thay cho “rubber ball” đứng trước dấu phẩy, các phương Giải thích: án khác không có chức năng này.

35. D

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Tạm dịch: “Th ật là một ý tưởng mới lạ cho bữ a tiệc chia tay” Nam nói với lớp trưởng. A. Nam kêu lên với sự ngưỡng mộ về ý tưởng mớ i lạ cho bữa tiệc chia tay của lớp trưởng. => đúng B. Nam ngưỡng mộ ý tưởng mới lạ cho bữ a tiệc chia tay. => sai nghĩa C. Nam nghĩ về ý tưởng mới lạ cho bữa tiệc chia tay. => sai nghĩa D. Nam nói rằng đó là m ột ý tưởng mới lạ của lớp trưởng cho bữa tiệ c chia tay. => sai nghĩa Chọn A 33. She last visited her home country ten years ago. A. She hasn't visited her home country for ten years. B. She didn’t visit her home country ten years ago. C. She has visited her home country for ten years. D. She was in her home country for ten years. 33. (VD) A Kiến thức: Thì hiện tại hoàn thành Giải thích: Cách dùng: diễn tả hành động đã xảy ra trong quá khứ và còn tiếp diễn đến hiện tại Cấu trúc: S + last + V_quá khứ đơn + O + khoảng thời gian + ago. = S + has/have + not + VP2 for + khoảng thời gian. Tạm dịch: Cô ấy đã về thăm nước nhà của mình lần cuối vào 10 năm trước. A. Cô ấy đã không về thăm nước nhà của mình được 10 năm rồi. B. Cô ấy đã không về thăm nước nhà của mình 10 năm trước. => Sai trạng từ chỉ thời gian C. Cô ấy đã về thăm nước nhà của mình được 10 năm. => Sai về nghĩa D. Cô ấy đã ở nước nhà của mình 10 năm. => Sai nghĩa + thì của động từ Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30. Spectacular, played today on all kinds of surfaces by tens of millions of people, for fun or in competition, tennis has spread (34) ______ over the world. Designed and codified in England in the 1870s, it is the direct descendant of jeu de paume, invented in France in the 11th century. The developments of this mediaeval (35) ______ , originally practised with bare hands, like the invention of the racket in the 16th century and the special scoring system (15, 30, 40, game), led directly to tennis, (36) ______ its name, from the French word “tenez!” (in the sense of “here it comes!”), which you said to your opponent as you were about to serve. The popularity of tennis in England quickly (37) ______ that of croquet. Indeed, barely three years passed between the publication of A Portable Court of Playing Tennis by Welsh Major Walter Clopton Wingfield in 1874, the defining work in terms of codifying lawn tennis, and the holding of the first Wimbledon tournament in 1877. The decisive element introduced by Wingfield was the use of a rubber ball, (38) ______ could bounce on grass. (Adapted from https://www.olympic.org/) Question 34: A. each B. any C. all D. every Question 35: A. score B. screw C. smoke D. sport Question 36: A. including B. before C. without D. except Question 37: A. pretended B. overtook C. pressured D. guided Question 38: A. which B. that C. what D. where 34. C Giải thích: all over the world: trên toàn thế giới

38. A

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43 Being repeatedly late may just be accidental - or could it show a deeply rooted psychological desire to express your own superiority? when I worked in an office, meetings would often start late, usually because of a certain individual. Then they would overrun and the whole day lost its shape. But the individual was high-ranking and self-important: nobody challenged. So, what are the ethics of lateness? There’s a psychotherapist called Irvin Yalom who argues that all behaviour reflects psychology. Just as people who like to be on time are motivated by certain deep-seated beliefs, so those who make others wait are acting out an inner agenda, often based on an acute sense of power. There’s famous footage in which Silvio Berlusconi kept Angela Merkel waiting while he made a call on his mobile. It speaks volumes. But that is when all lateness is in one’s control, what about when your train is cancelled or your flight is delayed or you had to wait longer for the plumber to arrive? In such cases, there’s not a lot of psychology involved. Or is there? Some people will genuinely worry about the impact it will have on those left waiting, while others might secretly enjoy the power of their absence. The essential fact is that lateness means breaking a convention - you can only be late in respect of a time agreed with other people. Regardless of psychology, it has a social value. And when we treat other people’s time as less valuable than our own, we treat them as inferior. (Adapted from https://www.olympic.org/ Question 39. What is the main idea of the passage? A. Lateness indicates superiority of important individuals. B. Social values of individuals are fostered through lateness. C. Being late can reveal a lot about people’s psychology. D. People with high sense of power have a tendency to be late. Question 40. What is the “speaks volumes” in paragraph 2 closest in meaning to? A. tells a lot B. makes sounds C. holds power D. talks loudly Question 41. Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage? A. The way our minds work is responsible for the way we behave. B. Some people control a situation for their benefit through lateness. C. Lateness can have an impact on other people who are made to wait. D. Most people react the same when lateness is out of their control. Question 42. It can be inferred from the reading passage that___________. A. Berlusconi made Merkel wait as he wanted to show his importance. B. it is fashionable to be late to meetings because nobody challenges. C. the writer’s daily schedule was unaffected by his colleague’s lateness. D. nothing can be said about one’s psychology if lateness is out of control. Question 43. What does the word “it” in paragraph 4 refer to? A. fact B. lateness C. convention D. psychology Question 39: Đáp án C Dịch đề bài: Ý chính của đoạn văn này là gì? A. Việc đến muộn thể hiện sự thượng đẳng của các cá nhân quan trọng. B. Các giá trị xã hội của những cá nhân được thúc đẩy thông qua việc đi muộn C. Việc đi muộn có thể tiết lộ nhiều điều về tâm lý của một người. D. Những người có nhận thức về quyền lực cao có xu hướng đi muộn. * Hướng dẫn làm bài: Đối với loại câu hỏi tìm ý chính/ tiêu đề của đoạn vãn, việc cần làm là: 1/ Đọc 2-3 câu đẩu tiên của bài vì những câu đó là câu thể hiện chủ đề của bài viết. 2/ Đọc lướt qua nội dung của bài để chắc chắn mình xác định ý chính đúng. Câu đầu tiên của bài này là: “Being repeatedly late may just be accidental - or could it show a deeply rooted psychological desire to express your own superiority?” Tạm dịch: Việc đi muộn liên tục có thể chỉ là tai nạn tình cờ hay liệu nó có cho thấy được những ham muốn tâm lý vùi sâu trong mỗi con người để thể hiện sự thượng đẳng của chính mình? Như vậy, ta thấy ý chính của bài này là những nguyên nhân tâm lý đằng sau việc đi muộn. Ngoài ra, nội dung các đoạn ở dưới đều nói đến mối liên quan giữa tâm lý và việc đi muộn. Vậy nên, đáp án C đúng. Question 40: Đáp án A Dịch để bài: Cụm từ “speaks volumes” ở đoạn hai gần nghĩa với từ nào nhất? A. tiết lộ rất nhiều thứ

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B. tạo ra âm thanh C. nắm giữ quyền lực D. nói chuyện lớn Câu hỏi về từ vựng. “Speaks volumes” (thành ngữ): nói rõ, tiết lộ rõ. Chọn đáp án A - tells a lot: tiết lộ rất nhiều thứ - là gần nghĩa nhất với từ bài cho. Question 41: Đáp án D Dịch đề bài: Đáp án nào dưới đây không đúng theo như bài đọc? A. Cách mà hệ thống thần kinh của chúng ta hoạt động chịu trách nhiệm gây ra cách chúng ta hành xử. B. Một vài người kiểm soát tình huống vì lợi ích của họ thông qua việc đến muộn. C. Việc đến muộn có thể có ảnh hưởng đến những người bị bắt phải đợi chờ. D. Hầu hết mọi người đều phản ứng như nhau khi việc đến muộn họ không kiểm soát được. * Hướng dẫn làm bài: Đối với loại câu hỏi tìm ý sai hoặc tìm ý đúng cần phải đọc hết cả 4 đáp án và tìm thông tin trong bài ủng hộ các đáp án đó. Nếu đáp án nào không có thông tin ủng hộ hoặc ngược lại với thông tin trong bài, thì đó là đáp án sai. Việc tìm thông tin ủng hộ đáp án phải dựa vào từ khóa của đáp án và trên bài đọc. Tuyệt đối không được dùng suy luận từ kiến thức của bản thân để trả lời loại câu hỏi này mà phải dựa hết vào bài đọc. Trích thông tin trong bài: 1/ All behaviour reflects psychology: tất cả các hành vi đều phản ánh tâm lý. → thông tin ủng hộ đáp án A. 2/ those who make others wait are acting out an inner agenda, often based on an acute sense of power: những người khiến người khác phải đợi là đang thể hiện một mục tiêu ngầm, thường là dựa trên một cảm giác rất mạnh về quyền lực bản thân. → thông tin ủng hộ đáp án B. 3/ Some people will genuinely worry about the impact it will have on those left waiting: một vài người rõ ràng sẽ lo lắng về những ảnh hưởng mà việc đi muộn gây ra cho những người bị bắt đợi. → thông tin ủng hộ đáp án C. 4/ Some people will genuinely worry about the impact it will have on those left waiting, while others might secretly enjoy the power of their absence: một vài người rõ ràng sẽ lo lắng về những ảnh hưởng mà việc đi muộn gây ra cho những người bị bắt đợi, trong khi đó những người khác có thể sẽ bí mật tận hưởng sức mạnh của sự vắng mặt của họ. → thông tin không ủng hộ đáp án D vì có hai kiểu phản ứng chứ không phải hầu hết mọi người phản ứng như nhau. Vậy, đáp án D không đúng theo bài → chọn D Question 42: Đáp án A Dịch đề bài: Có thể suy ra từ bài đọc rằng……….. A. Berlusconi khiến cho Merkel phải đợi chờ vì ông ta muốn thể hiện tầm quan trọng của mình. B. Việc đến họp muộn là hợp thời vì không có ai phản đối. C. Lịch trình làm việc hàng ngày của tác giả không bị ảnh hưởng bởi việc đi muộn của đồng nghiệp D. Không gì có thể được rút ra về tâm lý nếu như việc đi muộn là ngoài tâm kiểm soát. * Hướng dẫn làm bài: Đối với loại câu hỏi suy luận, đọc kĩ 4 đáp án và tìm thông tin hỗ trợ trong bài. Chắc chắn chỉ có một đáp án được thông tin trong bài hỗ trợ, các đáp án còn lại đều sai hoặc không có thông tin trong bài. Lưu ý phải tìm thông tin dựa vào từ khóa, và không dùng kiến thức bản thân để trả lời loại câu hỏi này. Trích thông tin trong bài: 1/ those who make others wait are acting out an inner agenda, often based on an acute sense of power. There’s famous footage in which Silvio Berlusconi kept Angela Merkel waiting while he made a call on his mobile: những người khiến người khác phải đợi là đang thể hiện một mục tiêu ngầm, thường là dựa trên một cảm giác rất mạnh về quyền lực bản thân. Có những đoạn phim ngắn nổi tiếng ghi lại cách Silvio Berlusconi bắt Angela Merkel phải đợi trong lúc ông ta nghe điện thoại. → thông tin ủng hộ đáp án A, bởi đoạn trích dẫn có hai câu, câu sau nói về việc Berlusconi bắt Merkel đợi chờ như một ví dụ cho giả thiết ở câu trước: những người bắt người khác đợi thường thể hiện quyền lực mạnh mẽ của mình. 2/ When I worked in an office, meetings would often start late, usually because of a certain individual: khi tôi còn làm việc ở văn phòng, các buổi họp thường bắt đầu trễ hơn, thường là bởi vi một cá nhân cụ thể. → thông tin không ủng hộ đáp án C, vì lịch trình làm việc của tác giả bị ảnh hưởng. 3/ In such cases, there’s not a lot of psychology involved. Or is there? Trong những trường hợp này, không có chút biểu hiện tâm lý nào liên quan. Ồ, nhưng có đấy. → không ủng hộ đáp án D. 4/ Đáp án B không có thông tin trong bài. Vậy, đáp án A được thông tin trong bài ủng hộ, chọn đáp án A. Question 43: Đáp án B Dịch đề bài: Từ “it” ở đoạn 4 nói đến cái gì? A. sự thật B. sự đến muộn C. quy ước D. tâm lý * Hướng dẫn làm bài: Đối với loại câu hỏi này, đọc ngược lại 1-2 câu trước nó để tìm từ mà nó đang thay thế.

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Trích thông tin trong bài: The essential fact is that lateness means breaking a convention -.... Regardless of psychology, it has a social value: Một sự thật thiết yếu chính là việc đi muộn sẽ phá vỡ các quy ước. Khi không nói đến tâm lý, việc đi muộn cũng mang những giá trị xã hội. Vậy, it thay cho lateness → chọn B. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions front 43 to 50. Homeopathy, the alternative therapy created in 1796 by Samuel Hahnemann, and now widely used all over the world, is based on the belief that the body can be stimulated to heal itself. A central principle of the “treatment” is that “like cures like”, meaning a substance that causes certain symptoms can also help to remove those symptoms. Medicines used in homeopathy are created by heavily diluting in water the substance in question and subsequently shaking the liquid vigorously. They can then be made into tablets and pills. Practitioners believe that the more a substance is diluted in this way, the greater its power to treat symptoms. However, in a new study, a working committee of medical experts at Australia’s National Health and Medical Research Council (NHMRC) has claimed that homeopathic medicines are only as effective as placebos at treating illness. Their research, involving the analysis of numerous reports from homeopathy interest groups and the public, concluded that there is no reliable evidence that homeopathy works. Moreover, researchers uncovered no fewer than 68 ailments that homeopathic remedies had failed to treat, including asthma, sleep disturbances, cold and flu, and arthritis. As a result of the findings, the NHMRC is urging health workers to inform their patients to be wary of anecdotal evidence that appears to support the effectiveness of homeopathic medicine. “It isn’t possible to tell whether a health treatment is effective or not simply by considering the experience of one individual or the beliefs of a health practitioner” says the report. Experts believe that most illnesses said to have been cured by homeopathy would be cured by the body on its own without taking the medicine. Apparently, many illnesses are short-lived by their very nature which often leads to people believing that it is the homeopathy that cures them. A more serious matter is highlighted by Professor John Dwyer of the University of New South Wales. As an immunologist, he is concerned about homeopathic vaccinations on offer for diseases such as HIV, tuberculosis, and malaria, none of which he considers effective. According to Professor John Dwyer, the concept that homeopathic vaccinations are just as good as traditional vaccinations is delusion, and those who believe it are failing to protect themselves and their children. (Adapted from https://www.olympic.org/ Question 44. Which could be the best title for the passage? A. “Homeopathy kills” say scientists B. “Avoid homeopathy” say scientists C. Homeopathy worth trying once D. Unknown effects of homeopathy Question 45. According to the reading passage, homeopathic medicines are___________ . A. prepared similarly for different diseases B. made up of a variety of ingredients C. suitable for a wide range of symptoms D. available only in the liquid form Question 46. What does the word “their” in paragraph 2 refer to? A. committee B. NHMRC C. medicines D. placebos Question 47. The Australian study reveals that homeopathy is___________. A. increasingly popular with the public B. helpful in the case of respiratory infections C. ineffective in treating many diseases D. of great interest to a certain group of people Question 48. What is the word “wary” in paragraph 3 closest in meaning to? A. apprehensive B. reluctant C. cautious D. observant Question 49. People tend to believe in homeopathy because of___________. A. advertisements displayed in health center B. positive feedback from a small number of people C. reliable proof from recent medical reports D. results of research into some alternatives therapies Question 50. What is the word “delusion” in paragraph 4 closest in meaning to? A. legend B. falsehood C. imagination D. hallucination KEY Question 44: Đáp án D Dịch đề bài: Đáp án nào dưới đây có thể là tiêu đề tốt nhất cho bài đọc? A. “Vi lượng đồng căn gây chết người” các nhà khoa học cho hay B. “Hãy tránh xa vi lượng đồng căn” các nhà khoa học cho hay

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C. Vi lượng đồng căn đáng trải nghiệm một lần D. Tác dụng chưa rõ ràng của vi lượng đồng căn * Hướng dẫn làm bài: Đối với loại câu hỏi tìm ý chính/ tiêu đề của đoạn văn, việc cần làm là: 1/ Đọc 2-3 câu đầu tiên của bài vì những câu đó là câu thể hiện chủ đề của bài viết. 2/ Đọc lướt qua nội dung của bài để chắc chắn mình xác định ý chính đúng. Câu đầu tiên của bài đọc là: Homeopathy, the alternative therapy created in 1796 by Samuel Hahnemann, and now widely used all over the world, is based on the belief that the body can be stimulated to heal itself. Tạm dịch: Vi lượng đồng căn, một liệu pháp chữa bệnh thay thế được sáng tạo năm 1796 bởi Samuel Hahnemann, và ngày nay được sử dụng rộng rãi trên toàn thế giới, được phát triển dựa trên niềm tin rằng cơ thể có thể được kích thích để tự chữa bệnh cho nó. Như vậy, bài đọc này nói về “Vi lượng đồng căn”. Khi đọc qua nội dung các đoạn dưới, có thể thấy tác giả đưa ra những nghi ngờ về tác dụng của liệu pháp này, và chứng minh rằng nó không có hiệu quả. Ngoài ra còn có những cảnh báo về nguy cơ của việc lạm dụng liệu pháp này khi nó ít hiệu quả. Vì vậy, đáp án D là hợp lý hơn cả. Question 45: Đáp án A Dịch đề bài: Theo như bài đọc, các loại thuốc của phương pháp vi lượng đồng căn thì... A. Được chuẩn bị theo cách tương tự cho các loại bệnh khác nhau B. Được pha chế từ nhiều nguyên liệu C. Thích hợp cho nhiều triệu chứng D. Chỉ có ở dạng lỏng * Hướng dẫn làm bài: Đối với loại bài tìm thông tin, cần chọn ra một vài từ khóa ở đáp án cũng như ở cầu hỏi rồi tìm những từ khóa đó ở trên bài đọc. Khi đã tìm được đoạn chứa từ khóa trên bài đọc, cần đọc kĩ và chọn lọc những thông tin nào ủng hộ đáp án. Sẽ chỉ có một đáp án được thông tin trong bài ủng hộ, và đó là đáp án đúng. Trích thông tin trong bài: Medicines used in homeopathy are created by heavily diluting in water the substance in question and subsequently shaking the liquid vigorously. They can then be made into tablets and pills. Tạm dịch: Các loại thuốc dùng trong phương pháp vi lượng đồng căn đều được tạo ra bằng cách pha loãng thật nhiều loại chất đang bị nghi ngờ đó vào trong nước và sau đó lắc mạnh dung dịch đó. Những thứ thuốc này có thể được chế thành thuốc viên hoặc thuốc con nhộng Từ đây có thể thấy, đáp án A được thông tin trong bài ủng hộ. Đáp án B sai vì mỗi loại thuốc này chỉ được pha từ một chất còn bị nghi ngờ với nước → không nhiều nguyên liệu. Đáp án C không được nhắc đến trong bài. Đáp án D sai vì thuốc có thể ở dạng viên nén Question 46: Đáp án B Dịch câu hỏi: Từ “their” ở đoạn 2 nói đến cái gì? A. ủy ban B. NHMRC C. các loại thuốc D. các loại giả dược * Hướng dẫn làm bài: Đối với loại câu hỏi này, đọc ngược lại 1-2 câu trước nó để tìm từ mà nó đang thay thế. Trích thông tin trong bài: (NHMRC) has claimed that homeopathic medicines are only as effective as placebos at treating illness. Their research, involving the analysis of numerous reports from homeopathy interest groups and the public, concluded that there is no reliable evidence that homeopathy works. Tạm dịch: NHMRC vừa khẳng định rằng các loại thuốc của phương pháp vi lượng đồng căn này chỉ có hiệu quả tương đương với giả dược trong việc chữa bệnh. Nghiên cứu của họ, bao gồm việc phân tích nhiều bản báo cáo từ những nhóm ủng hộ cho phương pháp vi lượng đồng cán và từ cộng đồng, kết luận rằng không hề có bằng chứng đáng tin cậy nào cho rằng phương pháp vi lượng đồng căn thực sự có hiệu quả. Như vậy, “their” được dùng để nói đến NHMRC → chọn đáp án B. Question 47: Đáp án C Dịch đề bài: Nghiên cứu đến từ nước Úc tiết lộ rằng phương pháp vi lượng đồng căn thì... A. càng ngày càng phổ biến đối với cộng đồng B. có ích trong các trường hợp bệnh truyền nhiễm hô hấp C. không có hiệu quả trong việc điều trị nhiều loại bệnh D. thu hút nhiều sự chú ý của một nhóm người nhất định * Hướng dẫn làm bài: Đối với loại bài tìm thông tin, cần chọn ra một vài từ khóa ở đáp án cũng như ở câu hỏi rồi tìm những từ khóa đó ở trên bài đọc. Khi đã tìm được đoạn chứa từ khóa trên bài đọc, cần đọc kĩ và chọn lọc những thông tin nào ủng hộ đáp án. Sẽ chỉ có một đáp án được thông tin trong bài ủng hộ, và đó là đáp án đúng. Trích thông tin trong bài: Their research, involving the analysis of numerous reports from homeopathy interest groups and the public, concluded that there is no reliable evidence that homeopathy works. Moreover, researchers uncovered no fewer

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than 68 ailments that homeopathic remedies had failed to treat, including asthma, sleep disturbances, cold and flu, and arthritis. Tạm dịch: Nghiên cứu của họ, bao gồm việc phân tích nhiều bản báo cáo từ những nhóm ủng hộ cho phương pháp vi lượng đồng căn và từ cộng đồng, kết luận rằng không hề có bằng chứng đáng tin cậy nào cho rằng phương pháp vi lượng đồng căn thực sự có hiệu quả. Hơn thế nữa, các nhà nghiên cứu còn tiết lộ không dưới 68 loại bệnh mà phương pháp vi lượng đồng căn không thể chữa được, bao gồm hen suyễn, rối loạn giấc ngủ, cảm cúm, và thấp khớp. Như vậy, nghiên cứu trên chỉ ra rằng phương pháp vi lượng đồng căn không hiệu quả trong việc chữa trị nhiều loại bệnh → đáp án C phù hợp Question 48: Đáp án C Dịch đề bài: Từ “wary” ở đoạn 3 gần nghĩa nhất với từ nào? A. apprehensive (a): lo sợ/ sợ hãi B. reluctant (a): miễn cưỡng/ chần chừ C. cautious (a): cẩn trọng D. observant (a): tinh ý Câu hỏi về từ vựng. “Wary” (a): cẩn trọng/ cẩn thận. Chọn đáp án C - cautious: cẩn trọng - là gần nghĩa nhất với từ mà bài cho. Question 49: Đáp án B Dịch đề bài: Mọi người thường có xu hướng tin vào phương pháp vi lượng đồng căn vì... A. những quảng cáo trình chiếu ở các trung tâm sức khỏe B. phản hồi tích cực từ một số lượng nhỏ người C. những bằng chứng đáng tin cậy trong những báo cáo y tế gần đây D. kết quả của các nghiên cứu về những phương pháp chữa bệnh thay thế. Trích thông tin trong bài: the NHMRC is urging health workers to inform their patients to be wary of anecdotal evidence that appears to support the effectiveness of homeopathic medicine. “It isn’t possible to tell whether a health treatment is effective or not simply by considering the experience of one individual or the beliefs of a health practitioner Tạm dịch: NHMRC cũng thúc giục các nhân viên chăm sóc sức khỏe thông báo đến bệnh nhân của mình và nhắc họ phải cẩn trọng trước những bằng chứng có truyền miệng mà có vẻ như ủng hộ sự hiệu quả của các loại thuốc vi lượng đồng căn. “Việc cho rằng một phương pháp chữa bệnh có hiệu quả hay không chỉ bằng việc cần nhắc những kinh nghiệm của một cá nhân hoặc các niềm tin của một người thực hành chăm sóc sức khỏe là không khả thi. Từ đây có thể thấy, mọi người tin tưởng vào phương pháp vi lượng đồng căn vì họ nghe những thông tin truyền miệng về những kinh nghiệm của một số ít người. Chọn đáp án B. Question 50: Đáp án B Dịch đề bài: Từ “delusion” ở đoạn 4 gần nghĩa với từ nào nhất? A. legend (n): huyền thoại B. falsehood (n): sự đánh lừa C. imagination (n): sự tưởng tượng D. hallucination (n): ảo giác Câu hỏi từ vựng. “Delusion” (n): sự đánh lừa. Chọn đáp án B - falsehood: sự đánh lừa - là gần nghĩa nhất với từ mà bài cho. ……………………………………………………………………………………………..

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