Bài tập trắc nghiệm Tiếng Anh lớp 10,11,12 chương trình thí điểm (Có đáp án) by Dạy Kèm Quy Nhơn Official

TÀI LIỆU, CHUYÊN ĐỀ MÔN TIẾNG ANH 10-11-12

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Unit 1. FAMILY LIFE Part I. PHONETICS Exercise 1. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 1. A. chore

B. work

C. more

D. divorce

2. A. trashed

B. talked

C. reached

D. loved

3. A. prepare

B. help

C. tennis

D. tell

4. A. husband

B. mum

C. contribute

D. vulnerable

5. A. cleaned

B. shared

C. called

D. visited

6. A. skill

B. split

C. children

D. finance

7. A. breadwinner

B. clean

C. each

D. lead

8. A. balance

B. challenge

C. career

D. happy

9. A. share

B. alike

C. tradition

D. equal

10. A. generation

B. grateful

C. educate

D. grandparents

Part II. VOCABULARY Exercise 2. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 11. Linh can’t go out with us to see a movie now because she’s ____ meal. A. preparing

B. making

C. arranging

D. keeping

12. I’m responsible for cooking dinner as my mother usually works ____. A. lately

B. early

C. later

D. late

13. I usually ____ my younger sisters when my parents are away on business. A. pick up

B. take care of

C. look for

D. take charge of

14. Ms. Mai asked me how she could ____ household chores equally in her family. A. make

B. divide

C. give

D. contribute

15. In my family, my father always takes charge of doing the ____ lifting. A. strong

B. hard

C. heavy

D. huge

16. My mother told me to do the ____ yesterday but I forgot about it since I had much homework to finish. A. wash-up

B. laundry

C. childcare

D. exercises

17. ____ the rubbish in the early morning is a part of my daily routine. A. Taking out

B. Coming out

C. Pulling out

D. Bringing out

18. My wife is going on her business next week so I have to ____ most of the chores around the house.

A. distribute

B. hold

C. take

D. handle

19. Mr. Hoang found it difficult to be in charge of the household ____. A. financial

B. financially

C. finances

D. financier

20. ____ is a person who works at home and takes care of the house and family. A. Breadwinner

B. Homemaker

C. Servant

D. Houseman

21. When his wife gave birth to a baby boy, Mr. Nam became the sole ____. A. housemaid

B. housekeeper

C. father

D. breadwinner

22. My mother and I often go to the supermarket to shop for ____ at weekends. A. cook

B. groceries

C. heavy lifting

D. the chores

23. After eating dinner, I have to do the ____ and then do my homework every day. A. washing-up

B. wash-up

C. washing-ups

D. washings-up

24. Her husband is very kind. He always cares ____ her and never puts all of the housework ____ her. A. about - in

B. for - in

C. about - on

D. with - on

25. To Hoa, her father is the greatest person in the world and he always sets a good ____ for her. A. role

B. behaviour

C. example

D. action

26. We take ____ in doing the washing-up, cleaning the floor and watering the flowers. A. turn

B. out

C. around

D. turns

27. Most people will receive ____ benefits when sharing the housework in their family. A. enormously

B. enormity

C. enormous

D. strong

28. Like his mother, Viet is a ____ child who can talk openly to anyone. A. social

B. sociable

C. generous

D. critical

29. After marriage, Mrs. Hoa always keeps good ____ with her mother-in-law. A. association

B. relation

C. friendship

D. relationship

30. In many countries, divorces ____ to rise because of long-standing conflicts. A. tend

B. have

C. aim

D. encourage

Exercise 3. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 31. We always split the housework equally - my mom cooks, my dad cleans the house and I do the washing-up. A. join

B. break

C. share

D. pick up

32. Parents are recommended to collaborate with teachers in educating children. A. part

B. cooperate

C. separate

D. disagree

33. Newborn infants are more vulnerable to illness than others. A. easily hurt

B. strong

C. safe

D. hard to affect

34. Weâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;re surprised to hear that his musical talent was nurtured by their loving parents when he was a child. A. abandoned

B. limited

C. fostered

D. restricted

35. In spite of poverty, we manage to raise our children properly. A. give up

B. go up

C. make up

D. bring up

36. She decided to find a job to earn money instead of just living at home and being a housekeeper. A. lend

B. make

C. borrow

D. raise

37. It is advisable that everyone in family shares the household duties. A. views

B. ideas

C. jobs

D. chores

38. In the 20th century, most of the traditional attitudes to remarriage are changing. A. conventional

B. contemporary

C.latest

D. new

39. After consideration, teaching is still a career worth pursuing as I prefer to become a teacher like my mother and my father. A. work

B. unemployment

C. occupation

D. professor

40. The government needs to seek a solution to prevent domestic violence as soon as possible. A. recreation

B. remedy

C. keyword

D. technique

Exercise 4. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 41. From my point of view, parental divorce can cause lasting negative consequences for children. A. beginning of a marriage

B. the situation of not marrying

C.single person

D. ending of a marriage

42. It is important to create a daily routine so as to improve your work-life balance today. A. a situation in which two or more things are not treated the same B. a state that things are of equal weight or force C. a state that things are of importance D. a situation that things change frequently in amount 43. In my view, husbands should contribute to the household duties in order to reduce burden on their wives. A. minimise

B. lower

C. decrease

D. increase

44. We try to create an atmosphere of comfort and security for our children. A. safety

B. harmony

C. danger

D. shelter

45. My husband willingly helps me do the chores at weekends so that I can have more time to relax. A. eagerly

B. reluctantly

C. agreeably

D. readily

46. In my family, my mother always does the cooking and shopping, my father has responsibility for mending things, especially electrical devices. A. impairing

B. fixing

C. repairing

D. curing

47. When having days off, he always helps his wife tidy up the house. A. clear up

B. sort out

C.arrange

D. mess up

48. His parents have been highly critical of his recent disobedience. A. disapproving

B. favourable

C. crucial

D. uncomplimentary

49. Ms. Lan taught her children to keep their rooms neat and tidy when they were four. A. ordered and untidy

B. messy and arranged

C. messy and dirty

D. clean and undusted

50. Setting and clearing the table, making bed and taking out the trash are suitable chores for 8- to 10-years-old children. A. inappropriate

B. proper

C. acceptable

D. Reasonable

Part III. GRAMMAR Exercise 5. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 51. Hoang ____ his email four times a week in order not to miss anything important. A. checks

B. will check

C. is checking

D. check

52. Nowadays, people ____ social networks with more and more caution. A. uses

B. are using

C. used

D. use

53. At the moment, my sister ____ her homework, my brother ____ games. A. is making - is playing

B. is doing - is playing

C. does - plays

D. makes - is playing

54. It’s 7.00 p.m. now and we ____ meal together. We usually ____ dinner at that time. A. have - eat

B. have - are eating

C. are having - eat

D. are having - are eating

55. I ____ a bike to school every day but today I ____ to school by bus because it was stolen yesterday. A. rode - went

B. ride - am going

C. ride - go

D. is riding - am going

C. always talks

D. always talking

56. That Hoa ____ in class affects other students around. A. always talk

B. is always talking

57. Hoang and Phong ____ football as they’re having class now. A. don’t play

B. are playing

C. doesn’t play

D. aren’t playing

58. Hoa usually ____ charge of doing the washing-up in her family. A. takes

B. is taking

C. take

D. will take

C.prepares

D. prepare

59. Our friends ____ for the fashion show now. A. is preparing

B. are preparing

60. All staff in this restaurant ____ an urgent meeting right now. A. are attending

B. is attending

C. attends

D. attend

61. After the physics lesson, the children know that water ____ at 100 degrees C. A.will boil

B. is boiling

C. boils

D. boil

62. My mom ____ to the supermarket every Sunday for shopping. A. goes

B. go

C. is going

D. are going

63. Look! Minh ____ on stage. She looks so beautiful. A. sings

B. are singing

C. is singing

D. sang

64. Bich sometimes ____ chicken noodle soup for breakfast. A. are having

B. is having

C. have

D. has

C. play

D. plays

65. Who ____ the guitar in that room, Hoa? A. playing

B. is playing

66. Jenny often ____ jeans and T-shirt at school but she ____ a gorgeous dress today. A. wears - is wearing B. is wearing - wears C. wear - is wearing

D. wears - wears

67. First thing in the morning, I ____ a cup of milk tea. A. has

B. am having

C. have

D. will have

68. Ms. Kim ____ very well when she’s under pressure. A. not work

B. don’t work

C. isn’t working

D. doesn’t work

69. I’m sorry, Lan is busy now. She ____ her document on the second floor. A. are checking

B. check

C. checks

D. is checking

C. wait

D. is waiting

70. Hurry up, Linh. Other friends ____ for us. A. are waiting

B. waits

Exercise 6. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 71. I look for Daniel. He isn’t in the company. A

72. Mommy, someone are calling me from unknown number. I won’t answer it. A

73. My alarm rings at 6 o’clock every morning. Therefore, I always went to school on time. A

74. What are you search for, Lan? You look so nervous. A

75. We can’t play golf. It rains outside. A

76. Bats usually sleep during the day and they play and eating at night. A

77. She suggests that a coffee is tasting good after a meal. A

78. I am not mind if you turn on the air-conditioner. A

79. Quiet, my baby sleeps. Don’t wake her up. A

80. Bach is funny right now. He keep telling me jokes. A

81. How much is she earn a month? - About 100 dollars. A

82. We will hold a party tomorrow. Let’s decorate the room. A

83. The workshop is so interesting that we aren’t wanting to leave now. A

84. I’m going to take part in the night prom next week. It will be the annual event of my school. A

85. Is your friend come to pick you up? - No, he isn’t. A

86. Some people enjoy watching blockbuster films but some people aren’t. A

87. What’s the matter with you? Why are you cry? A

88. Ms. Lien is so kind that she is donating thousands of pounds to charity twice yearly. A

89. He isn’t speaking English very well because he has been learning for 5 months. A

90. Ngoc is always very busy. She is practises violin regularly. A

Part IV. SPEAKING Exercise 7. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges. 91. “How fashionable a pair of trainers you have!” - “_____ A. Do you want to know where I bought them?

B. Thanks for your compliment.

C. I know it’s fashionable.

D. Yes, of course.

92. “What can I do for you?” - “_____” A. No need to help.

B. Thank you.

C. Thanks, I’m just looking.

D. Sorry for not buying anything.

93. “How was the game show last night?” - “____” A. It showed at 8 o'clock. B. Just talking about it. C. I think it wasn't a good game. D. Great. I gained more knowledge about biology. 94. “What did the meeting discuss? I didn’t attend it because of traffic jam.” - “ ____” A. I didn’t, either.

B. That was great.

C. You missed the meeting.

D. I’m sorry, I can’t.

95. “I've called many times but the plumber hasn’t come yet.” - “ ____” A. Wait a minute, please. B. We do apologise for this matter. We’ll fix it soon.

C. He's maybe busy now. D. The problem has been fixed already. 96. “ Would you like to have a picnic with us on the weekend?” - “ ____” A. Yes, I'd love to.

B. You’re welcome.

C. Of course not.

97. “Have a good day, Peter!” - “____” A. Thanks. The same to you.

B. It’s really a good day.

C. The weather is fine.

D. Just a little bit cold.

98. “Which one will you purchase, yellow dress or blue one?” - “____” A. I don't like, either.

B. They’re suitable for you.

C. It’s up to my choice.

D. I prefer the blue.

99. “What’s the deadline of our assignment?” - “____” A. I am not sure.

B. We have to submit it by Friday 12.

C. About 1 hour.

D. We will write about the environment.

100. “Don’t touch the subjects on display, Nam.” - “____” A. Ok, let me touch.

B. That’s right.

C. Sorry, I don’t know.

D. I agree with you, it’s a rule.

101. "Why do you like pop music?” - “____” A. Pop music originated in the Western world. B. Because it is soft and beautiful. C. Westlife is a pop band. D. Since the 1950s, pop has had some new elements. 102. “What’s your neighbourhood like?” - “____" A. I live in Ha Noi.

B. Sounds good. I like living there.

C. It’s good. I love it.

D. No, there is no hospital there.

103. “It’s nearly Tct holiday already.” - “____” A. How time flies!

B. Thanks a million.

C. Don’t make me laugh!

D. No such luck!

104. “You can borrow my book.” - “____” A. There's nothing to it!

B. You can such that again!

C. No way!

D. Thanks tons.

D. It’s my pleasure.

105. “Excuse me. Could you tell me the way to Central Station?” - “____” A. Sure. Just go along this street.

B. Oh no. This way will take us nowhere.

C. There is no way you can do it.

D. That's it! Thanks for your instruction!

Part V. READING Exercise 8. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. A recent study shows that an unequal share of household chores is still the norm in many households, (106) ____ the fact that many more women now have jobs. In a survey of 1,256 people (107) ____ between 18 and 65, men said they contributed an average of 37 per cent of the total housework, while the women (108) ____ their share to be nearly double that, at 70 per cent. This ratio was not affected by (109) ____ the woman was working or not. When they were asked what they thought was a fair division of labour, women with jobs felt that housework should (110) ____ shared equally between male and female partners. Women who did not work outside the home were satisfied to perform 80 per cent - the majority of housework - if their husbands did the (111) ____. Research has shown that if levels increase beyond these percentages, women become unhappy and anxious, and feel they are (112) ____. After marriage, a woman is reported to increase her household workload (113) ____ 14 hours per week, but for men (114) ____ amount is just 90 minutes. So the division of labour becomes unbalanced, (115) ____ the man’s share increases much less than the woman’s. It is the inequality and (116) ____ of respect, not the actual number of hours. which leads to (117) ____ and depression. The research even (118) ____ housework as thankless and unfulfilling. 106. A. in spite

B. despite

C. although

D. even

107. A. aged

B. aging

C. age

D. ages

108. A. guessed

B. judged

C. estimated

D. valued

109. A. what

B. whether

C. which

D. that

110. A. being

B. been

C. to be

D. be

111. A. remaining

B. remain

C. remainder

D. remained

112. A. essential

B. slight

C. worthy

D. unimportant

113. A. by

B. to

C. at

D. in

114. A. a

B. an

C. the

D. some

115. A. as

B. so

C. but

D. then

116. A. waste

B. loss

C. disadvantage

D. death

117. A. anxiety

B. anxious

C. anxiously

D. anxiousness

118. A. draws

B. expresses

C. reports

D. describes

Exercise 9. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Lorna: I might retire early. I don’t know. I'm 55 and my husband retired last year. He spends most of his time in the garden. I’d really like to be there with him though I am not quite fond of the tasks. I'm definitely going to learn a new language. I hale going abroad and speaking English. Cass: I’m only 26, so I’m not going to retire soon! In fact I want to have more chances to earn our living. Jamie and I are going to have a baby next year and we're really excited about that. We want to have a big family and live in a big house. Then, when I retire my children and grandchildren will all be able to stay. Sue: Well, Roger and I don't agree about retiring. I love work and I don't want to retire! I know I won’t have anything to do. Roger: I asked my boss at work recently and I might be able to retire next year. I might buy a house in France and spend the time that my family deserved to have with me long before. I'd love to have my first long-awaited visit to Paris with my wife one day. Linda: I want to retire as soon as possible. I have three sons and now I don’t even have time to play with them. They will become mature very soon and don’t want to spend quality time with me. I can't stand the thought. 119. The reason Lorna looks forward to her retirement is because ____. A. her husband has already retired

B. she likes doing gardening

C. she hates travelling abroad

D. she likes to learn English

120. Which of the following is NOT true about Cass? A. His baby is born the following year.

B. He wants his family to live in a big house.

C. He wants to retire soon.

D. He wants to earn more money.

121. Who does NOT want to retire shortly? A. Linda

B. Sue

C. Roger

D. Lorna

121. Roger ____. A. has spent enough time with his family already

B. will ask his boss for retirement next year

C. has never been to Paris before

D. doesn’t want to go to Paris

122. The word “mature” in the passage is closest in meaning to ____. A. old

B. grown-up

C. childish

D. young

Exercise 10. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Except for a few unfortunate individuals, no law in this world can go against the fact that for most of us our family is an essential part of our lives. The moment you enter this cruel world, where each man is for himself, there are some near and dear ones out there who will do anything to ensure your happiness. We are nothing more than a vulnerable and fragile object, without someone taking care of us on our arrival in this world. Despite all the odds, your family will take care of your well-being, and try their best to provide you the greatest comforts in the world. No one out there, except your family must forgive the endless number of mistakes you may make in your life. Apart from teaching you forgive and forget lessons, they-are always there for you, when you need them the most.

Family is the only place where children study a lot after school. In school, teachers teach children about the subjects which will help them to find a good job in future. But at home, parents teach children about good habits. They are not only the elements which help the children to shape their personalities but they also prepare them a sustainable and bright future. A good family makes a greater society. Father, mother, children have to work in order to build a strong family. If any one of them fail, the whole family may collapse. The good name of the whole family can be ruined by a single member of the family. In order to avoid that unhappy scenario, every family member has to work hard and try their best. As a result, they will set good examples lor the whole society. Families impacts very much on society and societies create countries. 124. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true? A. Family is a vital part of your life. B. Not everyone has a family. C. We will effortlessly be damaged without our family. D. Some laws in the world may oppose the functions ot family. 125. In the writer's opinion, ____. A. it is not the function of the family to make sure we are happy B. your family will be with you regardless of difficulties C. family creates some easily-spoilt creatures D. people can be easily forgiven by people around 126. To children, family plays a role in ____. A. teaching them academic subjects B. developing their personal traits C. helping them to find a good job D. encouraging them to study a lot at school 127. The word "They" in the passage refers to ____. A. children

B. teachers

C. good habits

D. parents

I28. The word "ruinedâ&#x20AC;? in the passage is closest in meaning to ____. A. destroyed

B. saved

C. built

D. constructed

129. According to the passage, which of the following is true about the relation between family and society? A. When a family fails, the w hole society falls down. B. A family member w ill be unhappy to fry his best. C. Hinnly members have responsibilities to set good examples. D. Strong families build a wealthy society.

130. Which of the following is the best title for the passage? A. Educational role ot family

B. The importance of family

C. family and society

D. The birth of fragile object

Part VI. WRITING Exercise 11. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 131. The food price will change at the end of this month. A. The food price will be the same until the end of this month. B. The food price of this month will be equal to the one of next month. C. There will be no same food price from now till next month. D. There will be two different food prices next month. 132. All the other schools in the city are more expensive than my school. A. My school is one of the most expensive schools in the city. B. There are some more expensive schools than mine in the city. C. My school is the least expensive school in the city. D. There are some cheaper schools than my school in the city. 133. Does anyone know what this sculpture is worth today? A. Does anyone know if it is deserving to have this sculpture? B. Does anyone know whether someone should own this sculpture today? C. Does anyone know if today this sculpture is valuable or not? D. Does anyone know how much this sculpture costs today? 134. â&#x20AC;&#x153;Stop treating me that way!â&#x20AC;? she cried out. A. She warned me not to treat her that way. B. She urged me not to treat her that way. C. She begged me not to treat her that way. D. She advised me not to treat her that way. 135. She can do it because she knows the system inside out. A. She can do it because she is from inside the system. B. She can do it because the system is sometimes in and sometimes out. C. She can do it because she understands the system thoroughly. D. The confidential system enables her to do because she knows it.

Exercise 12. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 136. I am the youngest son in the family. I didn’t have to do much housework. A. Being the youngest son in the family, I didn’t have to do much housework. B. If I was the youngest son in the family, I wouldn t have done much housework. C. Although I am the youngest son in the family, I wouldn’t have done much housework. D. Despite the fact that I am the youngest son in the family, I did not have to do much housework. 137. We need to share the tasks. The burden on each member will be more tolerable. A. Although the burden on each member will be more tolerable, we still need to share the tasks. B. We need to share the tasks so the burden on each member will be more tolerable. C. Unless we share the tasks, the burden on each member will be more tolerable. D. It is essential to share the tasks, otherwise, the burden on each member will be more 138. Dan saw all the paintings. He left right after. A. Dan left right after to see all the paintings. B. Dan left all the paintings after seeing them. C. Right after seeing all the paintings, Dan left. D. He left and then saw the paintings right after. 139. I usually like red. I wore black to the party last night. A. Because I usually like red, I wore black to the party last night. B. Although I usually like red. I wore black to the party last night. C. Unless I like red, I wore black to the party last night. D. As a result of my interest in red, I wore black to the party last night. 140. He tried his best. He won the biggest prize. A. If he had tried his best, he could have won the biggest prize. B. Unless he tried his best, he couldn’t win the biggest prize. C. Although he tried his best, he still won the biggest prize. D. If he hadn’t tried his best, he couldn’t have won the biggest prize.

tolerable.

Unit 2. YOUR BODY AND YOU Part I. PHONETICS Exercise 1. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 1. A. allergy

B. digest

C. oxygen

D. sugar

2. A. breath

B. head

C. health

D. heart

3. A. among

B. belong

C. body

D. strong

4. A. approach

B. children

C. chocolate

D. stomach

5. A. intestine

B. mind

C. spine

D. reliable

Exercise 2. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. 6. A. ailment

B. disease

C. pultry

D. nervous

7. A. digestive

B. intestine

C. condition

D. evidence

8. A. internal

B. skeletal

C. therapy

D. willpower

9. A. alternative

B. bacteria

C. respiratory

D. scientific

C. ineffectively

D. vegetarian

10. A. acupuncturist B. circulatory Part II. VOCABULARY

Exercise 3. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 11. The controller of the body is the ____ system. Led by the brain and nerves, it allows us to move, talk and feel emotions. A. circulatory

B. digestive

C. nervous

D. respiratory

12. ____ system of the body lets us break down the food we eat and turn it into energy. A. Circulatory

B. Digestive

C. Nervous

D. Respiratory

13. Skeletal system of the body is made up of our ____. It supports our body and protects our organs. A. bones

B. museles

C. nerves

D. vessels

14. In under a minute, your ____ can pump blood to bring oxygen and nutrients to every cell in your body. A. brain

B. heart

C. lungs

D. vessels

15. The human ____ system is a series of organs responsible for taking in oxygen and expelling carbon dioxide. A. circulatory

B. digestive

C. nervous

D. respiratory

16. A healthy ____ between work and play ensures that everyone has a chance to enjoy their lives. A. balance

B. control

C. equality

D. share

17. He likes to ____ a nap for an hour when he arrives home from work. A. do

B. get

C. make

D. take

18. I’ve been a night owl ____ up late for years, hitting the sheets anytime between 12 and 3 a.m. A. finishing

B. getting

C. staying

D. waking

19. It’s not too late to ____ your bad habits (smoking, drinking, overeating, etc.) and immediately start living a happier, healthier life. A. get rid

B. give on

C. kick

D. remember

20. If people breathe in deeply, their ____ can expand to twice their normal size. A. hearts

B. kidneys

C. lungs

D. stomachs

21. Some foods and spices may ____ your breath for days after a meal. A. damage

B. harm

C. reduce

D. spoil

22. Fish, poultry, beans or nuts ____ half of their dinner plate. A. make of

B. make out

C. make up

D. make up of

C. pump

D. spine

23. It’s another name for the backbone. It is ____. A. brain

B. leg

24. Ailments are caused by a/an ____ of yin and yang. A. abnormal

B. imbalance

C. unequal

D. unfairness

C. strength

D. strong

25. Yoga increases endurance, ____ and flexibility. A. blood

B. powerful

26. Food and drinks which strongly ____ the body can cause stress. A. boost

B. develop

C. encourage

D. stimulate

27. As per the study, handful of nuts daily can cut people’s ____ of coronary heart disease and cancer by nearly 22 per cent. A. chance

B. luck

C. opportunity

D. risk

28. Acupuncture modality relies on sophisticated skills to select appropriate acupoints to ____ needles accurately. A. infuse

B. inject

C. insert

D. install

Exercise 4. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 29. Acupuncture originated in China and has been used as a traditional medicine for thousands of years. A. began

B. created

C. developed

D. introduced

30. There is no evidence at this time that acupuncture can treat cancer itself.

A. clue

B. data

C. proof

D. sign

31. Acupuncture can treat from simple to complicated ailments. A. acupoints

B. diseases

C. points

D. treatments

32. Some people believe that acupuncture can be a cure of cancer. A. allergy

B. practice

C. therapy

D. treatment

33. Acupuncture can ease nausea and vomiting caused by chemotherapy. A. increase

B. prevent

C. reduce

D. spoil

34. Are there any alternatives that might provide better options for gay people? A. choices

B. decisions

C. judgements

D. votes

35. The old blood cells are broken down by the spleen and eliminated from the body. A. cut out

B. exhaled

C. removed

D. held

36. Humans will enjoy longer life expectancy when they are more conscious of what they eat and do. A. aware of

B. capable of

C. responsible for

D. suitable for

37. Together, all of these treatments are supposed to cleanse your body and stimulate your immune system. A. encourage

B. generate

C. increase

D. expand

38. The most common side effects with acupuncture are soreness, slight bleeding and discomfort. A. direct

B. indirect

C. original

D. unwanted

39. Consuming nuts can boost your heart health and lifespan. A. Eating

B. Ingesting

C. Inhaling

D. Swallowing

40. Doing exercise regularly helps prevent diseases like heart disease, stroke and type 2 diabetes. A. avoid

B. cure

C. forbid

D. reduce

41. Tomato juice contains a rich amount of fiber which helps in breaking down LDL or bad cholesterol in the body. A. compounds

B. comprises

C. produces

D. Provides

42. The human body possesses an enormous, astonishing, and persistent capacity to heal itself. A. cure

B. generate

C. Protect

D. remove

Exercise 5. Mark the letter A. B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 43. The human respiratory system is a series of organs responsible for taking in oxygen and expelling carbon dioxide. A. breathing out

B. dismissing

C. exhaling

D. inhaling

44. Turmeric can help in boosting immune system and fight off free radical attacks in the system. A. destroying

B. enhancing

C. weakening

D. stopping

45. Although there are unanswered questions, acupuncture appears to work. A. be incorrect

B. be ineffective

C. be uncertain

D. be unhelpful

46. Apart from being used as an ingredient in cooking, turmeric also promotes many health benefits. A. contributes to

B. discourages

C. stimulates

D. weakens

47. Originally, there were 365 acupoints, but now this has increased to more than 2000 nowadays. A. reduced

B. stabled

C. transferred

D. turned into

48. Acupuncture is considered to be very safe when enough precautions are taken. A. comfortable

B. dangerous

C. Sore

D. unhealthy

49. Compound exercises can increase strength and size far effectively than isolation exercises. A. Light

B. Heavy

C. Mixed

D. Single

50. Care is also needed so that inner body parts (lungs, heart liver, etc.) are not touched by the needles. A. external

B. foreign

C. superficial

D. visible

Part III. GRAMMAR Exercise 6. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 51. Listen! There's someone at the door. I ____ the door for you. A. am going to open B. am opening

C. open

D. will open

52. “Look at those dark clouds!“ - “Yes, it ____ in some minutes.” A. will rain

B. is going to rain

C. are going to rain

D. is raining

53. It‘s very hot. ____ the window. please? A. Are you opening

B. Are you going to open

C. Will you open

D. Won’t you open

54. Although I have taken some aspirin, the headache ________ away. A. isn‘t going

B. isn’t going to

C. not go

D. won’t go

55. On Sunday at 8 o‘clock I ____ my friend. A. meet

B. am going to meet

C. will be meeting

D. will meet

56. Wait! I ____ you to the station. A. am driving

B. drive

C. is going to drive

D. will drive

C. am going to see

D. see

57. I ____ my sister in April as planned. A. have seen

B. will see

58. Perhaps I ____ New York one day. A. am visiting

B. am going to visit

C. visit

D. will visit

C. will you leave

D. would you leave

59. What time ____ tomorrow? A. are you going to leave

B. do you leave

60. Who ____ the next World Cup? A. is going to win

B. is wining

C. will win

D. win

6l. He ____ to the theatre tonight. He has got a free ticket. A. goes

B. is going

C. went

D. will go

62. I ____ my parents at the weekend. I already bought a train ticket. A. visit

B. am going to visit

C. visited

D. will visit

63. Don‘t touch that dog. It ____ you. A. bites

B. is biting

C. is going to bite

D. will bite

64. It ____ that half of your plate should consist of vegetables and fruit. A. is suggested

B. is suggesting

C. suggesting

D. suggests

65. Foods ____ into energy in the digestive system. A. are broke down and converted

B. are broken down and converted

C. break down and convert

D. broken down and converted

66. Stephen William Hawking ____ on 8 January, 1942 in Oxford, England. A. born

B. has born

C. is born

D. was born

67. ____ by your father? A. Did that book write

B. Did that book written

C. Was that book writing

D. Was that book written

68. Acupuncture is part of traditional Chinese medicine(TCM) and ____ in China for thousands of years. A. has been used

B. has using

C. has used

D. has been using

69. Mr. Snow ____ that course since 1985. A. hasn’t taught

B. haven’t taught

C. have been taught

D. taught

70. The acupuncturist decides which and how many needles will ____. A. be use

B. be used

C. Use

D. used

C. punished

D. has been punished

71. The teacher ____ the student for lying. A. was punished

B. is punished

72. As the patient could not walk he ____ home in a wheel chair. A. has carried

B. was carrying

C. was carried

D. has been carried

73. The injured ____ to the hospital in an ambulance. A. have taken

B. was taking

C. were taken

D. were taking

C. is believing

D. was believing

74. It ____ that the painting is a fake. A. believed

B. is believed

75. Most studies ____ that acupuncture does not reduce nausea and vomiting caused by radiation therapy. A. are shown

B. were shown

C. have shown

D. have been shown

76. Acupuncture may not ____ if you have low white blood cell counts or low platelet counts. A. recommend

B. recommended

C. is recommended

D. be recommended

Exercise 7. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 77. Despite of its general safety, acupuncture isnâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;t for everyone. A

78. Look at the dark clouds. Iâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;m sure it will rain soon. A

79. Acupuncture is one of the oldest medical treatment in the world. A

80. Many accidents is caused by careless driving. A

81. She was gave a box full of chocolate. A

C D

82. Measles are an infectious disease that causes fever and small red spots. A

83. Alternative therapies often dismiss by orthodox medicine because they are sometimes administered by A

people with no formal medical training. D 84. The practice of acupuncture is rooted in the idea of promoting harmony among human and the world around A

them. D 85. Human infants born with about 270 bones, some ot which fuse together as their body develops. A

86. More research is needed to find out if acupuncture is helped with other side effects such as pain, anxiety or A

shortness of breath. 87. A man with advanced prostate cancer is believed to cured after doctors shocked his tumour to death with A

huge amounts of testosterone. 88. Norovirus is a common stomach bug. It also called the Winter Vomiting Bug because it is more prevalent in A

winter. 89. You can be put yourself at risk if you don't usually get many physical activities and then all of a sudden do A

vigorous-intensity aerobic activity, like shovelling snow. D 90. Although the research is not yet final, some findings suggest that your risk of endometrial cancer and lung A cancer may be lower if you get regular physical activity is compared to people who are not active. B

Part IV. SPEAKING Exercise 8. Mark the letter A. 8, C. or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges. 91. Doctor: “Good morning. What can I do for you? Patient: “Good morning. ____” A. I am fine. Thank you.

B. I feel very bored.

C. I have got a bad cough.

D. I want to know it, too.

92. "Do you know an apple a day can help you keep fit, build healthy bones and prevent disease like cancer?” “Wow! ____” A. I would love to.

B. It's a good idea.

C. That's incredible.

D. You must like apple.

93. Doctor: “How long has your headache been going on?” Patient: “____” A. After midnight.

B. For a week.

C. Last month.

D. Three times a day.

C. No, thanks.

D. Of course

94. Doctor: “Can 1 listen to your chest?” Patient: “____” A. All up to you.

B. My pleasure.

95. Patient: "Will I get better soon?" Doctor: “____ Take these tablets and it should clear up in a few days.” A. Don’t worry.

B. 1 am sorry.

C. No way.

D. Not at all

96. Patient: "Please tell me how shall 1 take this medicine?” Doctor: “____” A. Take it home with you.

B. Take it back to me.

C. Take it twice per day.

D. Take as much as you can.

97. Patient: “Is the surgery a major one?” Doctor: “____” A. Why not?

B. It’s OK.

C. Yes, it is.

D. I am not sure.

98. Patient: “____” Doctor: "Yes. But don't worry. You’ll be given painkillers.” A. Will I get better soon?

B. Will I be checked for temperature?

C. Will it be painful afterwards?

D. Will there be any side effects?

99. Patient: “How much shall I pay you, doctor?” Doctor: “____” A. Don't mention it.

B. It’s my pleasure.

C. £35.

D. Take your time.

100. “How arc you coming to the dentist tomorrow?” – “____” A. At 8 o'clock.

B. By bus or car.

C. Just in time.

D. Nearly 20 minutes.

C. Well, I hope so.

D. Yes, that’s right.

101. “Do you think you'll get better?” “____” A. I know so.

B. I think not.

102. “I don't think we should exercise late at night.” - “____” A. So do I.

B. I think so, too.

C. Neither do I.

103. “Have you had a flu shot in the past year?” - “No, ____”

D. I don’t, neither.

A. I am too seared to have one.

B. I have one last years.

C. I will have one next year.

D. not in the last few years.

104. Doctor: “When did the pain start?’ Claire: “____” A. About 2 weeks ago.

B. Every morning

C. For a month

D. From me

105. Doctor: “Here is your medical certificate!” Patient: “____” A. Thank you.

B. What's a pity.

C. Congratulation.

D. You’re welcome.

Part V. READING Exercise 9. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. GOOD HEALTH Most people would agree with the definition of good health as being a state (106) ____ you are fiee from sickness. (107) ____ this, there are many different opinions about how a person can actually have good health. People used to only think of their health (108) ____ they were sick. But these days more and more people are taking measures to (109) ____ sure that they don‘t get sick in (l10) ____ place. One of the best things you can do for your body is exercise. But now (111) ____ is enough? Some people think that doing simple things (112) ____ cleaning the house is helpful. Other people do heavy exercise every day, (113) ____ instance, running or swimming. One thing experts do agree on is that (114) ____ kind of exercise is good for you. Along with exercise, having a healthy diet can help promote good health. Foods like vegetables and fruit should (115) ____ several times each day. It is also important to eat foods high in ﬁber such as beans, grains, fruit and vegetables. Fiber helps your body to (116) ____ the food you eat. It also helps your body in (117) ____ ways such as decreasing the chance of getting some cancers, heart disease and diabetes. l06. A. how

B. when

C. where

D. Which

107. A. Although

B. Because

C. Despite

D. Due to

l08. A. even if

B. when

C. whereas

D. while

109. A. get

B. make

C. have

D. take

110. A. ﬁrst

B. once

C. one

D. the ﬁrst

111. A. far

B. many

C. more

D. much

112. A. as

B. like

C. rather

D. such

113. A by

B. for

C. in

D.with

114. A. all

B. any

C. both

D. some

115. A. eat

B. eating

C. been eaten D. be eaten

116. A. consume

B. digest

C. ump

D. spoil

117. A. another

B. each other C. other

D. others

Exercise 10. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Did you know that on average we forget about 80% of the medical information a doctor might give us? This fascinating information came to light as a result of a study carried out by Utrecht University. What is even more interesting is that almost half of what we think we remember is wrong. Why do you think this is? Well, it’s not as complicated as you may think. You see, going to the doctor fills most people with anxiety and when we are really nervous and stressed we are more likely to focus on the diagnosis rather than the treatment. Therefore, we know what is wrong with us but have no idea what to do about it. Here are some good tips to keep in mind when seeing a doctor. Always write down any important information. What would be even better is, if your doctor agreed, to record your consultation. This way, you can replay the advice at home, where you are more likely to absorb it. If you believe the situation is serious or you’re really worried, seek the help of a family member. Just ask them to accompany you to listen in. This way you can be absolutely sure about what the doctor has told you and avoid falling into the same trap that most people do. 118. According to the passage, the information doctors give us ____. A. is about 50% wrong

B. is only 80% correct

C. is mostly forgotten

D. is usually not enough

119. The word “complicated” in the passage is opposite in meaning to ____. A. good

B. quick

C. short

D. simple

120. The author says that when people consult a doctor, ____. A. they always believe that their situation is serious B. they are interested in knowing what they should do C. they only want to know what is wrong with them D. they usually have a family member with them 121. The word “absorb” in the passage is closest in meaning to ____. A. digest

B. inhale

C. swallow

D. take in

122. The author suggests recording the consultant in order to ____. A. play it to your family members to get their opinions B. refer to it later to better understand your condition C. replay it to write down any important information D. use it as evidence against your doctor if necessary Exercise 11. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

My first piece of advice to people who want to start getting fit is: don’t buy an exercise bike. Typically, people who buy them use them for a week or so and then forget about them. They are effective if they are used regularly but you need to be determined. Most people will find it much easier to go for a gentle jog around the park. As well as being easy to do, jogging is also relatively cheap compared to most other sports. You don’t need to buy expensive clothes if you’re just going running around the park or on the beach. The main thing is that they’re comfortable, and that they keep you warm in the winter and cool in the summer. There is one piece of equipment, however, that you will have to spend time and money on, and that’s your running shoes. Remember that you are not looking for a fashion item, but for something that will support your feet and protect you from injury. They can be expensive, but if they are good quality they will last you a long time. It's always best to get expert advice, and the best place for that is a sports shop. As for the actual jogging, the secret is to start gently, and not to do too much at the beginning – especially if you haven’t had any exercise for a long time. Try a mixture of walking and running for ten minutes about three times a week at first. Once you are happy doing that you can then start to increase the amount you do gradually. After a few months you you should hope to be able to run at a reasonable speed for twenty minutes three or four times a week. It's important that you feel comfortable with whatever you do. If you do, you’ll start to enjoy it and will probably keep doing it. If it makes you feel uncomfortable, you’ll probably stop after a short time and return to your bad habits. In any case, training too hard is not very effective. Research has shown that somebody who exercises for twice as long or twice as hard as another person doesn’t automatically become twice as fit. 123. Which of the following would serve as the best title for the passage? A. Exercise bikes

B. Gentle jogging

C. Keeping fit

D. Running shoes

124. What is true about the exercise bikes? A. Exercise bikes do not help you get fit. B. It is more costly than most other sports. C. Many people prefer it to gentle jogging. D. Most people don’t use it for very long. 125. The word "determined” in the passage probably means ____. A. confident

B. decisive

C. flexible

D. positive

126. According to the author, you should ____. A. go jogging around a park or on the beach B. go to sports shop for high quality running shoes C. keep warm at all times when you are jogging D. spend time and money on fashionable items 127. The word "injury" in the passage is closest in meaning to ____. A. bleeding

B. breaking

128. It is stated in the passage that ____.

C. shocking

D. suffering

A. you are advised to start jogging by walking for ten minutes B. you should expect to feel much uncomfortable when jogging C. you should jog three days a week and walk on the other days D. you won't necessarily be a lot fitter by running twice as fast 129. The word “gently" in the passage is opposite in meaning to ____. A. abruptly

B. effectively

C. rapidly

D. smoothly

130. The word “that” in the passage probably refers to ____. A. a mixture of walking and running

B. about three times a week

C. actual jogging at first

D. exercise for a long time

Part VI. WRITING Exercise 12. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 131. This surprises me. A. I am surprised by this.

B. I was surprised by this.

C. I will be surprised by this.

D. I would have been surprised by this.

132. They were interviewing her for the job. A. She has been interviewed for the job.

B. She was being interviewed for the job.

C. She was interviewed for the job.

D. She was interviewing for the job.

133. They may forget the password.

134.

A. The password may be forgot.

B. The password may be forgotten.

C. The password may been forgot.

D. The password may have been forgotten.

The students should have done the assignment. A. The assignment should be done by the students. B. The assignment should had been done by the students. C. The assignment should have been did by the students. D. The assignment should have been done by the students.

135. Everyone understands English. A. English has been understood by everyone. B. English is understood by everyone. C. English was being understood by everyone.

D. English was understood by everyone. 136. The doctor told him not to talk during the meditation. A. He has been told by the doctor not to talk during the meditation. B. He was told by the doctor not to talk during the meditation. C. He was being told by the doctor not to talk during the meditation. D. He is told by the doctor not to talk during the meditation. Exercise 13. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 137. We consume protein in meats and foods. We can stay concentrated and quick-minded. A. Protein in meats and foods which is consumed helps us stay concentrated and quick-minded. B. Protein in meats and foods which we consume helping us stay concentrated and quick-minded. C. We consume protein in meats and foods help us stay concentrated and quick-minded. D. We consume protein in meats and foods which helping us stay concentrated and quick-minded. 138. Everyone can do Pilates. It doesnâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;t matter if you are not fit. A. You can do Pilates as a method to keep fit. B. You can do Pilates no matter how fit you are. C. You cannot do Pilates only when you are not fit. D. You should do Pilates because you are not fit. 139. You drink green tea from twice to three times per day. It will bring you visible results by days. A. Despite you drink green tea from twice to three times per day, visible results will be brought by days. B. Due to you drink green tea from twice to three times per day, visible results will be bring by days. C. Even though you drink green tea from twice to three times per day, visible results will bring by days. D. Since you drink green tea from twice to three times per day, visible results will be brought by days. 140. Fatty acid level is low. It causes a higher risk of memory loss. A. Because of low fatty acid, a higher risk of memory loss is caused. B. In spite of low fatty acid, a higher risk of memory loss is caused. C. Since the low fatty acid, a higher risk of memory loss is caused. D. The result low fatty acid, a higher risk of memory loss is caused.

Unit 3. MUSIC Part I. PHONETICS Exercise 1. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 1. A. banned

B. cleared

C. kissed

D. raised

2. A. recognised

B. stringed

C. conquered

D. watched

3. A. liked

B. backed

C. encouraged

D. reversed

4. A. enjoyed

B. finished

C. suffered

D. agreed

5. A. performed

B. released

C. received

D. adored

6. A. artists

B. singers

C. listeners

D. drums

7. A. poets

B. flutes

C. organs

D. instruments

8. A. melodies

B. festivals

C. guitars

D. contests

9. A. clips

B. recordings

C. views

D. manners

10. A. writers

B. laughs

C. loves

D. awards

Part II. VOCABULARY Exercise 2. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 11. Weâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;re best friends as we have a ____ interest in music. A. passion

B. passionately

C. passionless

D. passionate

12. My teacher assigned us a writing task about ____ of our favorite singers. A. biology

B. biography

C. biodiversity

D. biochemist

13. We find out that beat box has ____ very popular recently. A. came

B. turned

C. become

D. became

14. Lina, the ____ album of the new music band in our city, will be uploaded on the website next week. Iâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;m looking forward to listening to it. A. debut

B. only

C. best-selling

D. individual

15. The ____ cheered loudly when the singers came out on the stage. A. audience

B. spectator

C. public

D. watcher

16. Our performance was ____ to be the best one in this competition last night. A. cheered

B. appeared

C. judged

D. seen

17. The local celebrities joined hands to ____ a fund-raising campaign for charity.

A. solve

B. conserve

C. come up

D. launch

18. He practically ____ a comic style called stand-up comedy in which a comedian performs in front of a live audience. A. realised

B. invented

C. distributed

D. thought

19. No longer did Pokémon Go become the widespread ____ in Viet Nam. A. effect

B. phenomenon

C. invention

D. news

20. That the young talented pianist won the Pulitzer Prizes has attracted ____ attention. A. worldwide

B. scientific

C. undue

D. careful

21. I like the cover ____ of these songs more than the originals. A. songs

B. lyrics

C. rhythm

D. versions

22. Vietnamese ____ music is extremely diverse, including Quan Ho, Dan Ca, Ca Tru, Chau Van and others. A. country

B. folk

C. traditional

D. gospel

23. After many weeks, his solo album ____ a profound influence on the youth all over the country. A. remains

B. maintains

C. becomes

D. persuades

24. They had a global ____ hit with their album concept about “The dark side of the Moon”. A. top

B. song

C. smash

D. popular

25. I passionately love the show “Familiar Faces” and this is the 4th ____ I’ve seen. A. show

B. chapter

C. season

D. episode

26. The “Marching song” was adopted as the national ____ of Viet Nam in 1945. A. anthem

B. song

C. flag

D. identity

27. Chopin was considered to be one of the greatest Romantic piano ____ of the 19th century. A. singers

B. writers

C. composers

D. poets

28. This concert marks nine years since the death of Trinh Cong Son, a prominent ____ of modern Vietnamese music. A. comedian

B. actor

C. contributor

D. figure

29. Our band needs to ____ our nerves to perform in this music competition. A. control

B. conquer

C. calm

D. lose

30. The best singer ____ went to Alan Walker for “Faded”. A. rank

B. prize

C. reward

D. award

Exercise 3. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

31. Becoming a super star performing on stage was my burning desire when I was a teenager. A. well-known painter

B. famous singer

C. good writer

D. famous composer

32. We were surprised to know that over 150000 fans packed into the stadium to support Vietnamese football team. A. people

B. admirers

C. visitors

D. watchers

33. But for your support, our band couldn’t have won the Grand Music competition. A. show

B. quiz

C. contest

D. tour

34. If you want to become a well-known singer, you need to have a unique selling point, a way to differentiate yourself from the crowd. A. genius

B. infamous

C. renowned

D. new

35. He’s planning to release his new solo single album about New Year. A. put out

B. set free

C. imprison

D. come out

36. This game show has attracted many participants since it was aired in 2015. A. breathed

B. impacted

C. introduced

D. broadcasted

37. In the last quarter of this year, our entertainment company had a big success in signing a lot of contracts with celebrities. A. bargains

B. agreements

C. arrangements

D. profits

38. “Cindy”, which originated in North California, is a popular American folk song. A. came from

B. finished

C. made

D. recognized

39. Mozart was a child prodigy that he composed music at the age of four. A. dunce

B. brain

C. genius

D. intelligence

40. We’re seeking for the talented musician to join our entertainment company. A. good

B. famous

C. great

D. gifted

Exercise 4. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 41. It’s incredible that his new song leads the Billboard hot 100 chart only in 3 days. A. beyond belief

B. believable

C. implausible

D. unbelievable

42. She was given a prize for her achievement in classical and traditional music. A. success

B. feat

C. failure

D. accomplishment

43. To have chance to enter the final round, you have to eliminate lots of competitors. A. retain

B. remove

C. restrict

D. reject

44. It is undeniable that instrument innovations hit the right note in 2013 with the 3D-printed guitar, the AT-200 guitar, the seaboard grand and the wheel harp. A. growth

B. modernnisation

C. revolution

D. stagnation

45. Hector Berlioz was one of the most prominent composers of the Romantic period. A. classical

B. unknown

C. prolific

D. modern

46. After a very short time, this kind of music becomes wildly popular among the youth. A. appealing

B. attractive

C. unknown

D. common

47. Luu Huu Phuoc is extremely well-known for his patriotic wartime songs. A. fight time

B. peacetime

C. battle time

D. tranquil time

48. The new star always appears with a lovely affected smile on her lips, but no one realizes it. A. natural

B. artificial

C. dishonest

D. charming

49. We absolutely adore his music because of sweet melodies and meaningful lyrics. A. favour

B. hate

C. love

D. prefer

50. She finds herself more confident after standing on stage many times. A. independent

B. assured

C. brave

D. fearful

Part III. GRAMMAR Exercise 5. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 51. Tom said that he could ____ me with this assignment. A. helped

B. helping

C. to help

D. help

52. John made me ____ a lot with his hilarious jokes. A. laughing

B. to laugh

C. laugh

D. laughed

53. Iâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;d like ____ all of you to enjoy my party on this Friday. A. to invite

B. inviting

C. invite

D. not invite

54. We expect Linh ____ to the airport late as the plane will take off in 15 minutes. A. to come

B. not to come

C. not coming

D. coming

55. Iâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;m happy ____ that youâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;ve passed your driving test. Congratulations! A. not hearing

B. hear

C. hearing

D. to hear

56. My mother said that she would rather ____ to Hoi An than Nha Trang. A. to travel

B. travelling

C. not to travel

D. travel

57. I allow my little daughter ____ with her friends in the flower garden. A. not to play

B. to play

C. playing

D. play

58. You’d better ____ out with your friends as it is very dangerous in the evening. A. went

B. go

C. going

D. to go

59. My parents let my sister ____ camping with her friends in the mountain. A. not go

B. going

C. go

D. to go

60. We intend ____ him the truth for fear that he’ll fly into a fit of madness. A. to tell

B. telling

C. not tell

D. not to tell

61. My family really loves Japanese food, ____ we order it twice a week. A. yet

B. so

C. but

D. nor

62. These games are challenging, ____ it’s not easy to spend little time playing them. A. so

B. and

C. for

D. or

63. Smoking is extremely detrimental to health, ____ many people continue to smoke anyway. A. nor

B. so

C. yet

D. then

64. We were lost in the forest, ____ luckily my friend had a map in his backpack. A. and

B. so

C. for

D. but

65. Would you like a cup of milk tea ____ a cup of hot chocolate after dinner? A. and

B. or

C. yet

D. so

66. Minh had his teeth decayed, ____ he refused to see the dentist. A. and

B. so

C. or

D. but

67. Anna thinks she ought to go to the university, ____ she wants to get qualifications for her dream job. A. and

B. yet

C. for

D. so

68. He invested a lot of money in this business, ____ it went bankrupt in a very short time. A. but

B. and

C. for

D. nor

69. The students didn’t revise for their exams, ____ did they realise how important the exams were. A. nor

B. but

C. so

D. for

70. Peter wonders he should stay home and watch TV, ____ he should go out and have dinner with his friends. A. so

B. or

C. and

D. nor

Exercise 6. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 71. Sue plans study abroad next year according to her parent’s advice. A

72. Don't forget calling me as soon as you arrive here.

73. Lan should seriously consider to become a singer. She’s a great talent. A

74. The teacher doesn’t let her students not use their mobile phones in class. A

75. We hope having a chance to study together at the same university in the future. A

76. This story with tragic ending made me crying. A

77. After a two-hour discussion, we decided to expanding the car market in America. A

78. Everyone in this company would like to promoted to a higher position. A

79. You’d better spend too much money on shopping or you won’t have any left. A

80. I used to learn fixing electrical devices around my house when I was at high school. A

81. The doctors looked at the test result, but they decided to operate on the patient. A

82. Hoa flew to Paris to visit her grandma, so to see Eiffel Tower. A

83. Lan studied hard for the final test, but she passed with flying colours. A

84. She’s counting her calories, so she really wants to eat dessert after meals A

85. There was no food in the fridge, nor they didn’t have money to go to the market. A

86. Dogs are loyal pets, for they will never make you feeling betrayed. A

87. We went to the Korean restaurant, so we found out it was closed early.

88. Don’t forget your passport, and you’ll have trouble checking in. A

89. We also have to do our assignment, and we’ll be punished. A

90. John picked me up at my house, but we went out for a walk. A

Part IV. SPEAKING Exercise 7. Mark the letter A. B, C, or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges. 91. “When will the conference finish?” - “____” A. No, it won't.

B. Maybe 10:00 a.m.

C. It finished at 9:30 a.m.

D. Yes, it’s very interesting.

92. “What was your major at university?” - “____” A. Economics.

B. University of Cambridge.

C. It’s up to my decision.

D. I'll choose Physics.

93. “Pardon me, where can I find the restroom?” - “____” A. I want to find the restroom.

B. Here you are.

C. It has only one.

D. One flight up, to the left of the shoe department.

94. “Excuse me, I would like to book two double rooms.” - “____” A. You need to fill out this application form. B. Thank you for booking. C. Sorry, we only have one double room left. D. The rooms have been cleaned already. 95. “Thank you for your birthday gift, I really like it.” - “____” A. I’m happy you like it.

B. Of course, it's valuable.

C. Not at all.

D. It’s nice of you.

96. “My print machine's run out of paper.’ - “____” A. You used too much. B. Wait a minute. C. I’ll give you a bottle of ink.

D. I’ll go and get some from the office supply store. 97. “Why don’t you go shopping with me this Sunday?” – “____” A. OK. I’ll call you soon.

B. It's none of your business.

C. Sorry, I have to work overtime.

D. Not bad.

98. "You've already finished the project, haven’t you?” – “____” A. Yes, this projeet is mine.

B. Sorry, but I need more time.

C. I'll arrive here in 5 minutes.

D. We've been given a new project.

99. "What a lovely cat you have!” – “____” A. That's a nice cat.

B. Thanks. My mom gave it to me last week.

C. Thanks, it's my pet.

D. It’s very naughty.

100. "How frequently do you go to the supermarket?” – “____” A. At least once a week.

B. Yes, it's important to do it every day.

C. I want to buy some fruits.

D. It takes me 5 minutes.

101. "What are you arguing about?” – “____” A. Nothing.

B. Well, I think she’s right.

C. That doesn't matter.

D. Yes, we are.

102. "Hi, you look happy. What's going on?” – “____” A. Well, I loved running.

B. I have passed the exam.

C. Take yourself at home.

D. Oh yes, I enjoyed it very much.

103. “How have you been?” – “____” A. Take care. Bye bye.

B. Well, talk to you later.

C. Nice talking to you.

D. Pretty good. Thanks.

104. "Would you mind turning down the TV please?” – “____” A. Sure. Here you are.

B. Sorry. I didn’t know I was disturbing you.

C. What! You must be kidding!

D. No, I don’t like it very mueh.

105. "Do you like playing football?” – “____” A. That's interesting.

B. He’s OK.

C. Yes, I love it.

D. Yes, I’d love to.

Part V. READING Exercise 8. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Rock began in the USA in the early 1950s. At that time 'rhythm and blues’ music was very (106) ____ with black Americans. ‘R&B’ was a mixture (107) _____ black religious music and jazz. It had strong rhythms that you could dance to and simple, fast music. (108) ____ the success of R&B music, white musicians started to copy the same style. By the mid 1950s, (109) _____ new while R&B music, called 'rock ‘n’ roll’ had become very popular. Singers like Elvis Presley and Bill Haley (110) ____ millions of teenage fans. Their music was fast and loud. Many older people thought that rock ‘n’ roll was very (111) ____. By the early 1960s, even rock ‘n’ roll had become old-fashioned. Many of the songs had begun to sound the (112) ____. It was at that time that a new eroup from England became popular: The Beatles. The Beatles first started (113 ) ____ singing American style songs, but they soon developed their own style, with more (114) ____ melodies. They also introduced different instruments, (115) ____ as the Indian sitar. Groups like The Beatles had a very important influence (116) ____ the style of popular music. By the (117) ____ 1970s, rock ‘n’ roll had developed into a new form of music. Electronics had (118) ____ the amplified guitars and drums of rock ‘n’ roll. Rock had arrived. 106. A. accepted

B. popular

C. common

D. famous

107. A. to

B. with

C. of

D. by

108. A. Noticing

B. Detecting

C. Warning

D. Perceiving

109. A. those

B. its

C. their

D. this

110. A. attached

B. attacked

C. attracted

D. attained

111. A. dangerous

B. endangered

C. dangerously

D. in danger

112. A. equal

B. same

C. corresponding

D. twin

113. A. to

B. at

C. with

D. by

114. A. complicated

B. complicate

C. complicating

D. complication

115. A. same

B. such

C. like

D. so

116. A. in

B. for

C. to

D. on

117. A. early

B. opening

C. first

D. advance

118. A. switched

B. returned

C. replaced

D. changed

Exercise 9. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Wolfgang Amadeus Mozart’s was the only-surviving son of Leopold and Maria Pertl Mozart. Leopold was a successful composer, violinist, and assistant concert master at the Salzburg court. Wolfgang's mother, a constantly ill housewife, was born to a middle class family of local community leaders. His only sister was Maria Anna. With their father’s encouragement and guidance, they both were introduced to music at an early age. Leopold started Anna on keyboard when she was seven, as three-year old Wolfgang looked on. Mimicking her playing, Wolfgang quickly began to show a strong understanding of chords, tonality, and tempo. Soon, he too was being tutored by his father.

Leopold was a devoted and task-oriented teacher to both his children. He made the lessons fun, but also insisted on a strong work ethic and perfection. Fortunately, both children excelled well in these areas. Recognising their special talents, Leopold devoted much of his time to their education in music as well as other subjects. Wolfgang soon showed signs of excelling beyond his father's teachings with an early composition at age five and demonstrating outstanding ability on harpsichord and the violin. He would soon go on to play the piano, organ and viola. 119. Which of the following is true about Wolfgang Amadeus Mozart? A. He was the only child in his family. B. His father played many roles in music community in Salzburg. C. He started to expose himself to music at the age of seven. D. His mother was a local community leader. 120. W hen looking Anna playing piano, Wolfgang Amadeus Mozart ____. A. composed music

B. imitated her

C. introduced music to her

D. played violin

121. The word “devoted" in the passage is closest in meaning to ____. A. inconstant

B. strict

C. committed

D. only

122. Mozart’s father ____. A. created lessons which were not fun

B. required only perfection

C. did not ask for work morality

D. was his early tutor

123. The word “outstanding" in the passage is closest in meaning to ____. A. ordinary

B. normal

C. average

D. impressive

Exercise 10. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. In the 1960s, it took pop and rock groups one or two days to record other their songs. Nowadays, it can take months and months. Many rock groups begin by recording only one instrument, for example, the voice. Then they record other instruments – electric piano, synthesiser, guitars, drums and so on. Next, they might use a computer to add special effects. Finally, they ‘mix’ all the instruments until they get the sound that they want. This means that a CD or cassette will always sound very different from a live concert. Music engineers have developed a new eomputer programme that will change the future of music. A computer can analyse a singer's voice. Then if you give the computer the lyrics and music of a song, the computer can 'sing' it in that voice. This means that a singer only needs to record one song and the computer can then sing other songs in the singer's own voice. Singers can sing new songs many years after they have died. Most of us listen to music for pleasure, but for the record companies, music is a product, the same as soap powder. When a record company finds a new group (or 'band'), they first try to develop the band's 'profile'. They will try to create an 'image' for the band that they think will attract young people. Instead of allowing the band’s full artistic freedom, they will often tell the band what they should wear, what they should say and how they should sing and play.

In recent year, many rock groups have started their own record companies because they say that the big companies are too commercial. 124. Today, to record songs, it takes ____. A. longer than it used to do

B. shorter than it used to do

C. only one or two days

D. the same amount of time as the 1960s

125. Todayâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s record procedure results in ____. A. different sounds of recorded songs and Iivc-performed songs B. the mixture between CDs and live concert C. some special effects on songs D. differences in voices and instruments played 126. Which of the following is NOT true about the new computer programme? A. It is predicted to change the music future. B. It can imitate singers' voices. C. It can sing only one recorded song of the singer. D. The singer does not necessarily present to really sing. 127. The word "it" in the passage refers to ____. A. music

B. a lyric

C. a singer

D. a song

128. Record companies don't always ____. A. suggest the outfits of the band

B. tell the band what to say

C. give the band freedom to do things

D. decide the songs the band will play

129. The word "thatâ&#x20AC;? in the passage refers to ____. A. soap powder

B. an image

C. the band

D. a eompany

130. The word "commercialâ&#x20AC;? in the passage is closest in meaning to ____. A. famous

B. popular

C. useful

D. money-oriented

Part VI. WRITING Exercise 11. Mark the letter A, B. C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 131. There has never been a more successful entertainment programme than Pop Idol. A. Pop Idol is the most successful entertainment programme ever. B. Pop Idol can be a more successful entertainment programme. C. Pop Idol is one of the most successful entertainment programmes.

D. Pop Idol had never been more successful than it is now. 132.

He couldn't stand being eliminated from the contest. A. Because he stood, he was eliminated from the contest. B. He was eliminated from the contest because he was unable to stand. C. He was unable to accept the failure in the contest. D. He didn't believe that he was thrown out from the contest.

133. A lot of people came to the concert in spite of the rain. A. Because it rained, a lot of people came to the concert. B. Even though it rained, a lot of people came to the concert. C. It rained and then a lot of people came to the concert. D. While being in the concert, it suddenly started to rain. 134. Settling in Paris, he then took up piano as the first instrument ever learnt. A. Before moving to Paris, he took up piano as the first instrument ever learnt. B. Living in Paris encouraged him to take up piano as the first instrument ever learnt. C. He had never learnt any instrument before although he lived in Paris. D. Piano was the first instrument he learnt after moving to Paris. 135. â&#x20AC;&#x153;Why donâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;t you go to the cinema with me?â&#x20AC;? asked Jonnie. A. Jonnie required me to go to the cinema with him. B. Jonnie urged me to go to the cinema with him. C. Jonnie was worried about me going to the cinema with him. D. Jonnie suggested me going to the cinema with him. Exercise 12. Mark the letter A, B. C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 136. I was so busy. I couldn't come to her birthday party. A. I came to her birthday party so I was too busy. B. I was too busy to come to her birthday party. C . I was busy enough to come to her birthday party. D. Her birthday party made me really busy. 137. She intended to study music in New Jersey. Accidentally she left and studied music in New York. A. She left her hometown in New Jersey in order to study music in New York. B. After studying music in New Jersey, she studied music in New York.

C. She left New Jersey with the intention to study music in Newâ&#x20AC;&#x2122; York. D. She was going to study music in New Jersey but then studied in New York. 138. He died in I960. He received the bravery award in 1970. A. After his death, he received the bravery award in 1970. B. Because he died in I960, he received the bravery award in 1970. C. He died in 1960 so he received the bravery award in 1970. D. Before his death, he received the bravery award in 1970. 139. His mother wanted him to be a doctor. He wanted to become a music composer. A. His mother wanted him to be a doctor because he wanted to become a music composer. B. His mother wanted him to be a doctor so he wanted to become a music composer. C. His mother wanted him to be a doctor but he wanted to become a music composer. D. If his mother wanted him to be a doctor, he wanted to become a music composer. 140. He sang very badly. Everyone left the room. A. Everyone left the room so he sang badly. B. He sang very badly so everyone left the room. C. He sang badly as a result of everyone leaving the room. D. He sang so badly but everyone left the room.

Unit 4. FOR A BETTER COMMUNITY Part I. PHONETICS Exercise 1. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 1. A. sick

B. second

C. service

D. sure

2. A. angry

B. needy

C. supply

D. country

3. A. handicapped

B. interested

C. dedicated

D. excited

4. A. hungry

B. community

C. mutual

D. student

5. A. charity

B. school

C. childless

D. teacher

Exercise 2. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. 6. A. dedicate

B. fortunate

C. practical

D. volunteer

7. A. ensuring

B. protecting

C. providing

D. widening

8. A. donate

B. apply

C. provide

D. study

9. A. successful

B. announcement

C. ignorant

D. experience

C. advertisement

D. unfortunate

10. A. disadvantaged B. environment Part II. VOCABULARY

Exercise 3. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 11. Luckily, I got some ____ advice on how to make a presentation on ‘For a better community’ from my class teacher. A. useless

B. useful

C. usefulness

D. uselessness

12. These ____ children encounter many problems and really need our help. A. disadvantaged

B. advantaged

C. disadvantage

D. advantage

13. Fundraising for charity is a ____ thing for everyone to do to help the community. A. meant

B. meaningful

C. meaningless

D. meaning

14. They were so ____ about joining the local volunteer group that they couldn’t sleep last night. A. excite

B. excitement

C. exciting

D. excited

15. It is ____ that all the students in class 1OA choose to do a project on ‘Helping the needy’. A. surprising

B. surprised

C. surprise

D. surprisingly

16. Volunteers become well ____ of the problems facing the world. A. aware

B. concerned

C. helpful

D. interested

17. English teaching is considered a good example of a volunteer job which often turns ____ a career. A. off

B. up

C. on

D. into

18. Mahatma Gandhi fought for the rights of coloured people in general and the Indians ____. A. in time

B. in particular

C. in contrast

D. in fact

19. A/an ____ is a person who needs others to take care of him/her, because of illness that he/she had for a long time. A. patient

B. martyr

C. invalid

D. addict

20. Mr. Chen is more _____ because he has finally agreed to allow his daughter to join an overseas volunteer organisation in Africa. A. single-minded

B. narrow-minded

C. absent-minded

D. open-minded

21. Most of the students in that special school are making good progress, but Michael is a ____ case. A. hopefully

B. hopeless

C. hopeful

D. hopelessly

22. A lot of generous businessmen have ____ valuable contributions to helping needy people. A. done

B. taken

C. made

D. given

23. Poor students cannot ____ an abundance of presents on their birthday. A. look forward to

B. put up with

C. come up w ith

D. cut down on

24. Befriending can offer volunteers the opportunity to provide support and friendship to a person who may be going ____ a difficult period. A. up

B. on

C . off

D. through

25. Volunteer organisations are generally small-staffed, so they need to ____ lots of volunteers for a huge event. A. employ

B. recruit

C. research

D. catch

26. Youâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;d better ____ a commitment to being a volunteer on a regular basis. A. promise

B. do

C. make

D. pull

27. They visit a retirement home and ____ time doing fun activities with the elderly who lack immediate family. A. spend

B. lose

C. waste

D. consume

28. Both community ____ and volunteerism are an investment in our community and the people who live in it. A. life

B. language

C. performance

D. service

29. ____ being the CEO of Microsoft, Bill Gates is also one of the worldâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s greatest philanthropists.

A. Aside from

B. But for

C. Except for

D. In addition

30. Their massive salaries let them afford to give ____ huge amounts to charities. A. off

B. up

C. away

D. hack

31. When you get involved in a volunteer project, you are able to ____ your knowledge into practice. A. take

B. put

C. bring

D. push

32. Volunteers can work with many ____ children who were harmed by Agent Orange in childcare centres. A. parentless

B. disabled

C. poor

D. homeless

33. Both CARE and Oxfam organisations have programmes to help people in underdeveloped countries ____ their lives. A. make

B. risk

C. improve

D. start

34. Many international volunteer organisations are trying to find a ____ to the problem of world hunger. A. way

B. method

C. suggestion

D. solution

35. For a cleaner and greener community, everyone should ____ the amount of trash and take care of our environment. A. increase

B. reduce

C. contribute

D. ignore

36. Thanks to everyone's efforts, we can do ____ to make school a meaningful place for students living in poverty. A. a great many

B. a little

C. a great deal

D. a few

37. On the door of the house where Louis Braille was born are the words â&#x20AC;&#x2DC;He opened the door of ____ to all those who cannot see.â&#x20AC;&#x2122; A. knowledge

B. information

C. news

D. material

38. University students are willing to get involved in helping the old and ____ people. A. childlike

B. childish

C. children

D. childless

39. Contact is ____ connecting students with volunteer organisations abroad. A. in place of

B. in charge of

C. in case of

D. in danger of

40. Football superstar David Beckham has a huge ____ for kids in need. A. head

B. strength

C. memory

D. heart

Exercise 4. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 41. I got the teaching job in the Happy Child Charity Centre just by chance. A. accidentally

B. purposefully

C. easily

D. immediately

42. Every month, the volunteer group go to remote and mountainous areas to help those in need.

A. empty

B. faraway

C. crowded

D. poor

43. Mother Teresa devoted herself to caring for the sick and the poor. A. spent

B. contributed

C. gave up

D. dedicated

44. Our top priority is to clean and protect the environment in our neighbourhood. A. hobby

B. job

C. preference

D. idea

45. Young people are now getting more and more concerned about environmental problems. A. worried

B. nervous

C. hopeless

D. uneasy

Exercise 5. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 46. Many people who do volunteer work think they are more fortunate than others. A. lucky

B. blessed

C. unlucky

D. uncomfortable

47. Public service announcement is a special advertisement for the community, normally about health or safety matters. A. Open

B. Private

C. Secret

D. Popular

48. Economically disadvantaged students often drop out of school, choosing a low- paying job to earn money. A. leave

B. attend

C. accept

D. reject

49. We are looking for camp helpers who are hard-working, energetic, and able to organise activities for young children. A. active

B. dynamic

C. passive

D. reluctant

50. Volunteering also means getting to meet people with a similar passion. A. alike

B. identical

C. common

D. distinct

Part III. GRAMMAR Exercise 6. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 51. Last Sunday, our volunteer team ____ a lot of food packages to homeless people in the flood-hit region. A. were bringing

B. brought

C. have brought

D. had brought

52. I ____ Maria for the first time at the Heart-to-Heart Charity Office. A. saw

B. was seeing

C. was seen

D. has seen

53. We ____ the roof for Mrs. Smith, an elderly childless woman, when it ____ with rain. A. were mending - was pouring

B. mended - poured

C. mended - was pouring

D. were mending - poured

54. When we were on a voluntary tour, we ____ to public places to collect rubbish every day.

A. were going

B. went

C. have gone

D. had gone

55. The phone was engaged when I called. Who ____ to? A. were you talking

B. were you talked

C. did you talk

D. have you talked

56. We ____ in silence when he suddenly ____ me to help him. A. were walking - was asking

B. were walking - asked

C. walked – asked

D. walked - was asking

57. I ____ my report when my boss ____ the hall. A. made - was entering

B. made - entered

C. was making - was entering

D. was making - entered

58. I ____ near the fence when suddenly I ____ the voices. A. stood – heard

B. stood - was hearing

C. was standing – heard

D. was standing - was hearing golf.

59. Jim ____ his leg when he ____ golf. A. broke - was playing

B. broke - played

C. was breaking - was playing

D. was breaking - broke

60. While I ____ for him to call up, he ____ a good time in the bar. A. waited - was having

B. was waiting - was having

C. was waiting – had

D. was waited - was waiting

61. All the kids ____ their homework when the volunteer team ____. A. were doing - arrived

B. did - arrived

C. were doing — were arriving

D. did - were arriving

62. While Lauda ____ round a corner, he suddenly ____ control of his Ferrari. A. went - lost

B. was going - was losing

C. was going - lost

D. went - was losing

63. While the Cambridge boat ____ under a bridge, it ____ another boat. A. went - was hitting

B. went - hit

C. was going - was hitting

D. was going - hit

64. My cousin and I ____ on the computer when there ____ a power cut. A. played - was

B. were playing - was

C. played - were

D. were playing - were

65. When I ____ my best friend, she ____ as a voluntary teacher in Dream Homeless Shelter. A. met - was working

B. was meeting - was working

C. met - worked

D. was meeting - worked

66. Where ____ you ____ when I ____ you on the bus last night? A. did - go - saw

B. were - going - was seeing

C. were - going - saw

D. did - go - was seeing

67. When you ____ yesterday, I ____ in the garden, so I didn’t hear the phone. A. rang - worked

B. were ringing - worked

C. were ringing - was working

D. rang - was working

68. While Tom and I ____, someone ____ at the door. A. were talking - knocked

B. were talking - was knocking

C. talked - knocked

D. talked - was knocking

69. When the robbery ____, the safeguard ____! A. happened - slept

B. was happening ~ was sleeping

C. was happening - slept

D. happened - was sleeping

70. I ____ the accident while I ____ for the bus. A. was seeing - waited

B. saw - was waiting

C. was seeing – was waiting

D. saw – waited

71. We ____ an old box while we ____ in the garden. A. found - dug

B. found - were digging

C. was finding - dug

D. were finding - were digging

72. When I ____ into the room, two boys ____ a picture book together. A. came - were reading

B. were coming - were reading

C. came – read

D. were coming - read

73. While we ____ in the park, Mary ____. A. were running - was falling over

B. ran - fell over

C. were running - fell over

D. were running - was falling over

74. I ____ my pen while I ____ my homework. A. was breaking - was doing

B. was breaking - did

C. broke – did

D. broke - was doing

75. It ____ to rain while we ____ home from school. A. started - were walking

B. was starting - were walking

C. started - walked

D. was starting - walked

76. When I went to get the tickets, 1 realised I ____ any money. A. wasn’t having

B. didn’t have

C. haven’t had

D. hadn’t had

77. While we ____ in the rain, Sally’s mother ____ past. A. stood - drove

B. were standing - drove

C. were standing - was driving

D. stood - was driving

78. My mother ____ old clothes while my father ____ the food packages for the next voluntary trip. A. was classifying - was preparing

B. was classifying - prepared

C. classified - was preparing

D. classified - prepared

79. Richard ____ TV when the phone ____. A. watched - rang

B. watched - was ringing

C. was watching – rang

D. was watching - was ringing

80. While some volunteers ____ the disabled children, others ____ some furniture in the orphanage. A. were teaching - were repairing

B. taught - repaired

C. were teaching – repaired

D. taught - were repairing

Exercise 7. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 81. A group of volunteer students were mowing the lawn in the home for the aged while it started to rain A

heavily. D 82. When he still worked for Oxfam, he was coming up with different ideas to help needy people. A

83. The volunteers went to a nearby school on a Sunday morning, picked up a food package, and delivered A them to an elderly person. D

84. The lives of disadvantaged students are often very different for those of their more wealthy peers. A

85. There are lots of amused ways to volunteer in the arts such as teaching, designing and assisting with A

a variety of arts and crafts. D 86. Mahatma Gandhi fought against the rights of poor people and women in India and became a hero for A

millions of people. D 87. In her lifetime, Audrey Hepburn also paid a visit to Viet Nam to bring awareness of immunisation and A

sets up clean water programmes. C

88. While he and his wile Ali first went to Africa, they worked in a refugee camp for a month. A

89. The famous Irish rock band U2 wrote the song Walk On to honour this amazed woman, who put her country A

before everything. 90. He worked in a big bank in London when suddenly he decided to leave this city to take part in Volunteer A

Bolivia. Part IV. SPEAKING Exercise 8. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges. 91. “Why don’t we visit the Happy Mind Charity Centre this weekend?” – “____” A. Because it is so useful.

B. That’s a good idea!

C. I’ll tell you about this centre.

D. Until next time.

92. “Hello, I’m Minh, the leader of Dream Sky volunteer team.” - “____” A. Nice to meet you. I’m John, from Volunteer Bolivia. B. It's nice of you so say so, I'm John, from Volunteer Bolivia.

C. Fine, see you again soon, Minh. D. Don’t mention it. I'm John, from Volunteer Bolivia. 93. “Thank you very much for helping the disadvantaged children here!” - “____” A. What a pity!

B. It’s our pleasure.

C. Sorry, we don’t know.

D. That's nice of you!

94. “Take care! Have a safe trip back!” - “____” A. Thanks for coming.

B. Sounds good.

C. Thanks, bye.

D. Good luck next time.

95. “Well, I think volunteering will bring some useful experience for our future job.” – “____” A. That’s also what I think.

B. I'm sorry, but I have to agree

C. I don’t think so, either.

D. That’s unbelievable!

96. “Let’s open a small craft store to raise money for the poor villagers!'' - “____” A. That’s a good idea!

B. Thanks, I can manage

C. No problem.

D. That’s the way it is.

97. “What a meaningful thing you've done for your less fortunate friends, my son!” – “____” A. Thanks for taking care of me, Mom. B. What a wonderful gift you've made for me. C . I don’t really care. I must go now. D. Thank you, Mom. That’s just a bit I can do for them. 98. “New Year is coming. I'll repaint the house for Mrs. Poor Old Amanda.” – “____” A. No, not for me.

B. That would be great help.

C. It is very expensive.

D. Not at all.

99. “Who came up with this wonderful idea?" - “____” A. The class monitor did.

B. To protect our environment.

C. Mr. Billy came yesterday.

D. In order to raise some funds.

100. “What can we do for a better community?'' - “____” A. To ensure healthy lifestyles. B. Why not protect public facilities such as kindergartens or parks? C. I hate collecting rubbish in public places. D. Doing charity work is a must for everyone.

101. “Haven't you done any volunteer work before, Jen?" - “____” A. No, not now!

B. Yes, I have never done it.

C. Yes, I've done it once.

D. Sure, no problem.

102. “Are you teaching English or Math at Hoa Binh Orphanage?" – “____” A. Yes, I am.

B. No, I'm not.

C. English, of course.

D. I'll choose literature.

103. “Can I join your volunteer group this summer?" - “____” A. Yes, of course.

B. No, not at all.

C. No, I think so.

D. Yes, you are.

104. “Do you mind if I have a look at your project on community development?" – “____” A. No, not at all.

B. Yes, it's a good project.

C. Yes, you're welcome.

D. As quickly as possible.

105. “____” - “If I were you, I would teach them how to read first.” A. What do you think of these street children? B. What can I do for you now? C. What are these street children's lives like? D. What should I do for these street children? Part V. READING Exercise 9. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Orbis is an organisation which helps blind people of everywhere. It has built an eye hospital inside an aeroplane and flown it all over the world with an international medica team. Samantha Graham, a fourteen-year-old schoolgirl from England, went with the plane to Mongolia. Samantha tells the story of the Eukhtuul, a young Mongolian girl. ‘Last year, when Eukhtuul was walking home from school, she was attacked by boys with sticks and her eyes were badly damaged. Dr. Duffey, an Orbis doctor, said that without an operation she would never see again. I thought about all the things I do that she couldn’t, things like reading schoolbooks, watching television, seeing friends, and I realised how lucky I am.’ ‘The Orbis team agreed to operate on Eukhtuul and I was allowed to watch, together with some Mongolian medical students. I prayed the operation would be successful. The next day I waited nervously with Eukhtuul while Dr. Duffey removed her bandages. “In six months your sight will be back to normal,” he said. Eukhtuul smiled, her mother cried, and I had to wipe away some tears, too!’ Now Eukhtuul wants to study hard to become a doctor. Her whole future has changed thanks to a simple operation. We should all think more about how much our sight means to us.’ 106. What information can be learned from this passage?

A. the best way of studying medicine

B. the international work of some eye doctors

C. the difficulties for blind travellers

D. the life of schoolchildren in Mongolia

107. The word "she" in the passage refers to ____. A. the writer

B. the nurse

C. Eukhtuul

D. the medical studen

108. After meeting Eukhtuul, Samantha felt ____. A. angry about Eukhtuul’s experience

B. grateful for her own sight

C. proud of the doctor’s skill

D. surprise by Eukhtuul’s ability

109. W hat is the result of Eukhtuul's operation? A. After some time she will see as well as before. B. Before she recovers, she needs another operation. C. She can see better but can never have normal eyes. D. She can't see perfectly again. 110. What is the writer's main purpose in writing this passage? A. to describe a dangerous trip

B. to explain how sight can be lost

C. to report a patient's cure

D. to warn against playing with sticks

Exercise 10. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. I didn’t even notice him. It was a chilly November evening in New York City, and my daughter and I were walking up Broadway. I was thinking, “Milk, dry cleaners, home”. Was I supposed to notice a guy sitting inside a cardboard box next to a newsstand? No, but Nora did. She wasn't even four, but she pulled at my coat sleeve and said. “That man’s cold, Daddy. Can we take him home?" I don't remember my reply - probably something like, “That wouldn't really be helping him”. Maybe I made her feel better by giving her an apple. I don't know. But I do remember a sudden heavy feeling inside me. I had always been delighted at how much my daughter noticed in her world, whether it was birds in flight or children playing. But now she was noticing suffering and poverty. A few days later, I saw an article in the newspaper about volunteers who delivered meals to elderly people. The volunteers went to a nearby school on a Sunday morning, picked up a food package, and delivered it to an elderly person. It was quick and easy. I signed us up. Nora was excited about it. She could understand the importance of food, so she could easily see how valuable our job was. When Sunday came, she was ready, but I had to push myself to leave the house. On the way to the school. I fought an urge to turn back. The Sunday paper and my coffee were waiting at home. Why do this? Still, we picked up the package and phoned the elderly person we'd been assigned. She invited us right over. And that day Nora and I paid a visit to her depressing flat. After saying goodbye, I walked home in tears. Professionals call such a visit a “volunteer opportunity". Indeed, the proverty my daughter and I helped lessen that Sunday afternoon was not the old woman's alone it was in our lives, too. Nora and I regularly serve meals to needy people and collect clothes lor the homeless. Yet, as I've watched her grow over these past four years. I still wonder which of us has benefited more?

111. Which of the following can be the best title of the passage? A. A Lesson in Caring

B. Volunteer Opportunities

C. An International Voluntary Organisation

D. A Beautiful Sunday

112. The phrase “delighted at" in the passage is closet in meaning to ____. A. very bored with

B. very pleased at

C. very disappointed with

D. very surprised at

113. Which of the following is true about Nora, the author’s daughter? A. She was a naughty schoolgirl.

B. She didn't care for anyone around her.

C. She was not interested in doing charity.

D. She is ov er four years old now.

114. After reading the newspaper article about volunteers who helped the elderly, the writer ____. .A. paid no attention

B. went to work

C . signed him and his daughter up

D. took his daughter to school

115. The word “us" in the passage refers to ____. A. the writer and his daughter

B. the writer and the elderly person

C. the volunteers

D. the writer, his daughter and the elderly person

116. The word “depressing" in the passage is closest in meaning to ____. A. in poor condition

B. good condition

C. big

D. small

117. How did the writer feel after the visit to the elderly woman that Sunday? A. He felt relaxed.

B. He felt sorry for her.

C. He felt happy.

D. He felt disappointed.

118. What do the writer and his daughter often do now? A. They serve meals to needy people, but do not collect clothes for the homeless. B. They collect clothes for the homeless but don't serve meals to needy people. C. They both serve meals to needy people and collect clothes for the homeless. D. They neither serve meals to needy people nor collect clothes for the homeless. Exercise 11. Read the following passage and mark the letter A. B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. A YEAR WITH OVERSEAS VOLUNTEERS I was with Overseas Volunteers (OV) for a year after leaving university, and I was sent to an isolated village in Chad, about 500 kilometres from the capital N'Djamena. Coming from a (119) ____ country, I got quite a shock, as conditions were much harder than I had expected. But after a lew days I got used to (120) ____ there.

The people were always very friendly and helpful, and I soon began to appreciate how beautiful the countiyside was. One of my jobs was to supply the village (121) ____ water. The well was a long walk away, and the women used to spend a long time every day (122) ____ heavy pots backwards and forwards. So I contacted the organisation and arranged to have some pipes delivered. (123) ____ these pipes were not really perfect, they still made a great difference to the villagers. All in all, I think my time with OV was a good experience. Although it was not paid, it was well worth doing and I would recommend it to anyone (124) ____ was considering working for a charity. 119. A. rich

B. comfortable

C. well-paid

D. luxurious

120. A. lived

B. living

C. lived

D. lively

121. A. for

B. on

C. with

D. from

122. A. carrying

B. wearing

C. holding

D. drinking

123. A. If

B. Because

C. When

D. Although

124. A. which

B. when

C. where

D. who

Exercise 12. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. MOTHER TERESA “Do not wait for leaders; do it alone, person to person.” - Mother Teresa Mother Teresa was the founder of the Order of the Missionaries of Charity, a Roman Catholic congregation of women dedicated to (125) ____ the poor. Considered one of the greatest humanitarians of the 20th century, she was officially recognised as Saint Teresa of Calcutta in 2016. Born in 1910, in Skopje, Macedonia, Mother Teresa taught in India (126) ____ 17 years before in 1946 she experienced her “call within a call" to (127) ____ herself to caring for the sick and poor. (128) ____ Teresa enjoyed teaching at the school, she was increasingly upset by the poverty surrounding her in Calcutta: the Bengal famine of 1943 and the outbreak of Hindu/Muslim violence in August 1946. Her order established a nursing home; centres for (129) ____ blind, aged, and disabled; and a leper colony. In 1979 she (130) ____ the Nobel Peace Prize for her humanitarian work. She died in September 1997 and was beatified in October 2003. 125. A. help

B. helped

C. helping

D. helpful

126. A. for

B. since

C. after

D. from

127. A. allow

B. devote

C. encourage

D. spend

128. A. After

B. Until

C. Although

D. Because

129. A. a

B. the

C. these

D. those

130. A. received

B. recognized

C. awarded

D. presented

Part VI. WRITING

Exercise 13. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 131. Volunteerism is on the rise in the United States, especially among retired persons. A. More and more American people, especially the retired, do volunteer work. B. The number of volunteers in the United States is increasing faster and faster. C. More retired people in the United States start doing charity work. D. More American people, especially the retired, refuse to be voluntary. 132. It is meaningful to save some pocket money for charity work. A. Nobody thinks it is meaningless to loose money for charity work. B. Saving some pocket money for charity work is a meaningful thing to do. C. It means that we have to save some pocket money for charity work. D. We mean to save some pocket money for charity work. 133. Our children are interested in giving away their old books to needy people. A. Our children find it interesting to give away their old books to needy people. B. For our children, it is interesting for needy people to give away their old books. C. One of the most interesting things that our children do is to give away old books to needy people. D. Giving away old books to needy people is one of our childrenâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s hobbies. 134. Mary is disappointed with the volunteer work in this charity organisation. A. The volunteer work in this charity organisation is disappointed at Mary. B. Mary found the volunteer work in this charity organisation disappointing. C. The volunteer work in this charity organisation makes Mary disappointing. D. Mary found it disappointed to do volunteer work in this charity organisation. 135. My daughter and I were walking along the street when we noticed a homeless boy sleeping in a cardboard. A. While my daughter and I were walking along the street, we noticed a homeless boy sleeping in a cardboard. B. My daughter and I were walking along the street while we were noticing a homeless boy sleeping in a cardboard. C. My daughter and I walked along the street and noticed a homeless boy sleeping in a cardboard. D. My daughter and I were walking along the street and noticing a homeless boy sleeping in a cardboard. Exercise 14. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

136. Angelina Jolie began taking an interest in charity work. She was filming in Cambodia then. A. After Angelina Jolie began taking an interest in charity work, she was filming in Cambodia. B. Angelina Jolie began taking an interest in charity work while she was filming in Cambodia. C. Before Angelina Jolie was filming in Cambodia, she began to take an interest in charity work. D. As soon as Angelina Jolie began taking an interest in charity work, she was filming in Cambodia then. 137. They were busy with their schoolwork. They spent time helping the elderly in the retirement home. A. They were busy with their schoolwork, but they still spent time helping the elderly in the retirement home. B. They spent time helping the elderly in the retirement home, so they were busy with their schoolwork. C. They were busy with their schoolwork, and they spent time helping the elderly in the retirement home. D. They spent time helping the elderly in the retirement home, or they were busy with their schoolwork. 138. Some students took part in directing the traffic. Others took care of the war invalids. A. Some students took part in directing the traffic, so some others took care of the war invalids. B. Some students took part in directing the traffic, for some others took care of the to war invalids. C. Some students took part in directing the traffic, and some others took care of the war invalids. D. Some students took part in directing the traffic, but some others took care of the war invalids. 139. The boy was only 10 years old. He established an athletic programme for children with special needs. A. Despite his young age, the boy established an athletic programme for children with special needs. B. Until the boy was only 10 years old, he established an athletic programme for children with special needs. C. The boy established an athletic programme for children with special needs because he was only 10 years old. D. The boy established an athletic programme for children with special needs in case of his young age. 140. SHARE is a non-profit organisation. It provides thousands of girls in Africa with books and school supplies. A. If SHARE is a non-profit organisation, it will provide thousands of girls in Africa with books and school supplies. B. Although SHARE is a non-profit organisation, it provides thousands of girls in Africa with books and school supplies. C. SHARE is a non-profit organisation until it provides thousands of girls in Africa with books and school supplies.

D. SHARE is a non-profit organisation which provides thousands of girls in Africa with books and school supplies.

Unit 5. INVENTIONS Part I. PHONETICS Exercise 1. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 1. A. costly

B. fastener

C. portable

D. smartphone

2. A. determine

B. profile

C. science

D. versatile

3. A. benefit

B. generous

C. inventor

D. video

4. A. fabric

B. iminate

C. laptop

D. patent

5. A. company

B. compose

C. comprise

D. computer

Exercise 2. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. 6. A. hot tea

B. phone call

C. soft ware

D. tall boy

7. A. bus stop

B. cell phone

C. light bulb

D. white board

8. A. flying car

B. mother tongue

C. online game

D. pencil case

9. A. fire fighter

B. heart attack

C. self interest

D. train station

10. A. credit card

B. football match

C. living room

D. swimming pool

Part II. VOCABULARY Exercise 3. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 11. Smartphone can be a great learning ____ but you need to think of how to use it effectively. A. benefit

B. choice

C. invention

D. tool

12. It is convenient for you to read ____ when you travel. A. e-books

B. laptops

C. online game

D. smartphones

13. Many young people carry a pair of earbuds as they are small, light, and ____. A. chargeable

B. economical

C. portable

D. transferable

14. Washing machine or vacuum cleaner can help you to ____ time while doing housework. A. kill

B. save

C. spend

D. waste

15. Velcro has gradually become a familiar ____ for shoes, jackets, and even spacesuits. A. button

B. fastener

C. locker

D. zipper

16. Most smartphones now ____ flash player as well as voice and video calls. A. display

B. offer

C. provide

D. support

17. Many students prefer ____ assignments on their laptops to writing traditionally.

A. reading

B. searching

C. sending

D. typing

18. Mobile devices such as laptops or digital cameras can be charged by ____. A. solar charges

B. solar-charges

C. solar chargers

D. solar-chargers

19. We can surf the ____ to search for news, watch films, or download music. A. e-book

B. internet

C. laptop

D. smartphone

20. In many classrooms, teachers use chalk to write on the ____. A. blackboards

B. black boards

C. whiteboards

D. white boards

C. smartphone

D. USB

21. You can send and receive e-mails from a ____. A. charger

B. printer

22. The ____,which can travel underwater, is very useful for scientists to learn about the undersea world. A. aeroplane

B. electronic car

C. spaceship

D. submarine

23. Like Vietnamese, Thai people also depend ____ water for their crops. A. against

B. for

C. in

D. on

24. In 1999, the kingâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s Chaipattana Aerator obtained Thai ____ for his rain-making techniques. A. certificates

B. charters

C. licenses

D. patents

25. Paddle-wheel machine helps to clean the wastewater before ____ it for farming. A. rearranging

B. recycling

C. reducing

D. reusing

26. You can get access ____ the Interne, via a range of devices such as desktop or laptop computers, mobile phones, and tablets. A. for

B. in

C. of

D. to

27. Thomas Edison, Benjamin Franklin, James Watt are among of the greatest ____ of all time. A. inventions

B. inventiveness

C. inventors

D. invents

28. _____ noodles are a precooked and usually dried block invented by Japanese. A. Instantaneous

B. Instance

C. Instant

D. Instantly

29. It is definitely true that nature has inspired ____ inventions and technologies. A. numbers

B. numeral

C. numerical

D. numerous

30. Smartphones are used not only for communication but also for information and ____. A. entertain

B. entertainer

C. entertaining

D. entertainment

31. People often use the natural world as inspiration to design and invent new ____. A. producers

B. produces

C. productions

D. products

32. Internet and social networks help us easily interact ____ people all over the world.

A. in

B. of

C. on

D. with

33. Users can look ____ locations as well as directions to different places on Google Maps. A. down

B. for

C. in

D. up

34. The two fabrics of Velcro stick together thanks ____ the hooks on the surface and the loops on the other. A. by

B. for

C. of

D. to

35. If you get a laptop as a reward, what w ill you use it ____? A. by

B. for

C. to

D. with

36. Scientists have invented artificially intelligent computer systems ____ of answering questions posed in natural language. A. able

B. aware

C. capable

D. fond

Exercise 4. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 37. A digital camera is more economical than a film camera since you donâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;t have to buy rolls of films. A. better

B. cheaper

C. safer

D. stronger

38. You can use earbuds to listen to music or your listening everywhere, even in public place, as nobody is disturbed. A. annoyed

B. connected

C. imitated

D. interacted

39. You can use a USB stick to transport files from one computer to another. A. delete

B. display

C. transfer

D. store

40. Smartphones are very versatile, as they can do many things like making phone calls, taking pictures, or listening to music. A. capable

B. flexible

C. helpful

D. interesting

41. Apple iPad has remained the single most popular tablet PC ever since 2010. A. became

B. continued

C. existed

D. stopped

42. A 3-D printer can produce solid objects similar to the originals. A. images

B. models

C. papers

D. pictures

C. road signs

D. transportation

43. There are many traffic jams during rush hour. A. congestion

B. riders

44. When collapsing the wings, a flying car is just a little bit bigger than a normal car. A. dropping

B. fixing

C. folding

D. opening

Exercise 5. Mark the letter A. B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

45. Nutritious snacks provide an important contribution towards your childâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s daily nutritional needs. A. Inexpensive

B. Uncooked

C. Unhealthy

D. Unpacked

46. A smartphone is too costly for him to even have a normal one. A. economical

B. expensive

C. priceless

D. valuable

47. Many people are afraid that computers with superhuman intelligence will destroy humanity. A. awareness

B. perception

C. stupidity

D. wisdom

48. Speakers are too bulky. You cannot put them in your bag or your pocket. A. giant

B. heavy

C. large

D. tiny

49. A digital camera is convenient as it is quick to view and delete as well as easy to transfer photos to a computer. A. harmful

B. inexpensive

C. uninteresting

D. useless

50. Even the best invention may have drawbacks. A laptop, for example, is expensive so many people cannot afford it. A. advantages

B. disadvantages

C. shortcomings

D. weaknesses

Part III. GRAMMAR Exercise 6. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct to each of the following questions. 51. A correction pen is used for ____ your writing mistakes. A. cover

B. covered

C. covering

D. to cover

C. telling

D. to tell

C. not worrying to

D. donâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;t worry

52. It's no good ____ him the truth now. A. not to tell

B. tell

53. It's important ____ too much about your failure. A. not to worry

B. not worry

54. Donâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;t forget ____ your homework before coming to class. A. doing

B. having done

C. to be done

D. to do

55. Did you remember ____ Mr. Green my message? A. be given

B. giving

C. have given

D. to give

56. 3-D printing ____ complex tools and components. A. is used for produce

B. is used to produce

C. uses for producing

D. uses to produce

57. She was old enough ____ up her own mind. A. made

B. make

C. making

D. to make

58. My computer is used for ____ music and video. A. having played

B. play

C. playing

D. to play

C. calculate

D. calculating

C. to communicate

D. to communicating

59. My father uses a calculator to ____. A. be calculated

B. being calculated

60. Facebook is used ____ among the young. A. communicate

B. communicating

61. Mary often watches YouTube videos to study how ____ a dish or make a cake. A. cook

B. cooking

C. to cook

D. to cooking

C. to store

D. to storing

C. was working

D. worked

62. We can use USB ____ information. A. for being store

B. for store

63. He ____ for the Google since 2014. A. has worked

B. is working

64. Her children ____ their homework yet. They arc still working on it. A. hasn’t finished

B. hasn’t finishing

C. haven’t finished

D. haven’t finishing

B. go

C. was

D. went

65. I have never ____ to Paris A. been

66. We ____ a contract two years ago and it is still valid. A. have sign

B. have signed

C. haven't signed

D. signed

C. has stolen

D. have stole

67. I have lost my mobile phone. Someone ____ it. A. has steal

B. has stole

68. Brian ____ to the travel agents and he hasn’t come back. A. has been

B. has been going

C. had gone

D. has gone

C. now

D. yet

C. Have

D. Were

C. visit

D. will visit

C. return

D. returns

69. I am not hungry. I have ____ eaten. A. just

B. ever

70. ____ you ever been to New York? A. Are

B. Do

71. My parents ____ us many times. A. has visited

B. have visited

72. Walter ____ my headphones at last. A. has returned

B. have return

73. I ____ the teacher that I will be absent next week. A. has told

B. have told

C. tell

D. tells

C. is seeing

D. sees

C. have you known

D. are you knowing

74. Sally ____ the movie “Titanic” three times. A. has seen

B. have seen

75. How long ____ your best friend? A. did you know

B. do you know

76. YouTube ____ to become the world most popular video-sharing website since 2005. A. has grown

B. have grown

C. grew

D. grows

77. J.K. Rowling's “Harry Potter" books ____ in many countries. A. has been published

B. have been published

C. was published

D. were published

78. “Would you like a coffee?" - “No thanks. ____ one.” A. I just had

B. I just have

C. I was just having

D. I’ve just had

Exercise 7. Mark the letter A. B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 79. The king's biodiesel oil project was first to introduce in 2001. A

80. The Tesla Coil is used for create extremely powerful electrical fields. A

81. IBM is an artificial intelligence computer system and is used to answering questions posed in natural A

language. 82. Lifc without computers has seemed simply impossible now. A

83. Kodak Company produced many OLED equipped products, which are being used to power the next A

generation of ultra-thin televisions, since 1987. 84. Vaccination has been used for a long time for prevent diseases. A

85. The boat rudder was invented to steer large ships, which enabled the Chinese for building huge ships as A

early as 200 AD. 86. Many young people now use computers for playing games rather than study. A

87. You can use a tablet to listening to music, surfing web or chatting with friends. A

88. Since the Internet was first created in the 1960s, it changed people’s lives a lot. A

89. Scientists have researched since years into ways of curing cancer patients. A

90. Many teenagers now prefer chatting on the computer to meet face to face. A

Part IV. SPEAKING Exercise 8. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges. 91. “Good luck with the exam, Minh!” - “____, Dad.” A. By no means

B. I wish so

C. Never mind

D. Thank you

C. Good luck!

D. Good way!

92. “Dad. I’ve passed the English test.” - “____” A. Good job!

B. Good test!

93. “I think I will choose a new laptop rather than a smartphone.” - “____,Phong!” A. Congratulation

B. I hope so

C. What a pity

D. What a wise choice

94. “Do you know that many inventions were inspired by the natural world?” - “____” A. Of course. You’re right.

B. There is no hope about it.

C. Well, that sounds interesting.

D. Yes, I couldn't agree more.

95. “Do you think new inventions always make people rich?” – “____” A. I agree.

B. I don’t think so.

C. It sounds great.

D. no, not much

C. I so.

D. Me too.

96. “I have never been to America" - “____” A. Me either.

B. Me neither.

97. “Can I take away your dish?" - “Wait a minute. ____” A. I can’t finish.

B. I don’t finish.

C. I have to finish.

98. “Do you need any help, Kate?” - “____” A. I haven’t got a clue.

B. No, thanks, I can manage.

D. I haven’t finished.

C. That’s all for now.

D. That’s fine by me.

99. “It’s very generous of you to offer to pay!” - “____” A. I’m glad you like it.

B. Thanks a million.

C. That was the least I could do.

D. You can say that again.

100. “Has an announcement been made about the eight o’clock flight to Paris ?” – “____” A. I don’t think that. B. Not yet.

C. Sorry I don’t.

D. Yes, it was.

101. “I love studying science as it allows me to answer questions about natural world.” – “____” A. No, I won’t.

B. Neither do I.

C. Yes, I like it.

D. So do I.

102. “I have taken part in the science club for 3 months.” - “____” A. So have I.

B. So have me.

C. I have so.

D. So I have.

103. “What do you think of your new laptop? ” - “____” A. I always keep it.

B. I’d love to.

C. It’s fantastic.

Sounds great.

104. “Can I try your new camera?” - “____” A. I’m sorry, I can’t. Let's go now.

B. I’m sorry. I’m home late.

C. Sure. I’d love to. Sure.

D. But please be careful with it.

105. “Ted's broken his leg, so he won’t be able to come to class today.” – “____” A. How terrific!

B. Poor Ted!

C. What is it now?

D. What’s wrong?

Part V. READING Exercise 9. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. MOBILE PHONES When Scotsman Alexander Graham Bell (106) ____ the telephone in 1876, it was a revolution in communication. (107) ____ the first time, people could talk to each other over great distances almost as clearly as if they were in the same room. Nowadays, though, we (108) ____ usc Bell’s invention for taking photographs, (109) ____ the Internet or watching video clips rather than talking. Over the last two decades a new (110) _____ of spoken communication has emerged: the mobile phone. 106. A. has been invented

B. is invented

C. invented

D. was invented

107. A. As

B. By

C. For

D. Since

108. A. increase

B. increased

C. increasing

D. increasingly

109. A. accessing

B. contacting

C. entering

D. searching

110. A. aids

B. means

C. tools

D. ways

Exercise 10. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

HEALTH DETECTOR Scientist Hayat Sindi's device is the size of a postage stamp, and it costs just a penny. But it could (111) ____ millions of lives. In many parts of the world, doctors and nurses work with no (112) ____ or clean water. They have to send health tests to labs and wait weeks for results. But this little piece of paper could change that. It (113) ____ tiny holes that are filled with chemicals. These chemicals are able (114) ____ health problems. A person places a single (115) ____ of blood on the paper. The chemicals in the paper change (116) ____ the blood and indicate (117) ____ or not the person has an illness. 111. A. build

B. keep

C. start

D. save

112. A. electric

B. electrical

C. electrician

D. electricity

113. A. contains

B. invents

C. provides

D. supports

114. A. detect

B. detecting

C. to detect

D. to detecting

115. A. bit

B. drop

C. piece

D. slice

116. A. although

B. because

C. due to

D. in spite of

117. A. as if

B. either

C. neither

D. whether

Exercise 11. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. THE VANISHING INVENTION In 1998, a Valencian professor made an amazing claim. Professor Antonio Cervilla discovered how to use water as a substitute for petrol. The scientist said that you could drive from Bilbao to Valencia on just half a litre of water. His invention uses a molybdenum compound to break down water into hydrogen and oxygen. Unlike other methods, no electricity is required and the reaction happens at atmospheric temperature. This impressive technology is based on the way plant enzymes break down water. The use of molybdenum is the perfect choice because, although rare, it is cheap and found all around the planet. Since the claims were made, nothing more has been heard about this fabulous technology. There is no explanation for the disappearance anywhere on the internet, apart from a list of similar inventions which have also vanished. An inventor from the Philipines called Daniel Dingel developed a water-fuelled car but was arrested and sentenced to 20 years in prison. If this technology were to become widely available, it would prove disastrous for petrol station owners and would also save the planet from the impending environmental catastrophes being caused by pollution. 118. The word “substitute” in the passage is closest in meaning to ____. A. addition

B. alternative

C. imitation

119. Which of the following is NOT true about Cervilla’s invention? A. It happens at atmospheric temperature. B. It imitates something in nature. C. It requires no electricity. D. It uses enzymes to break down water. 120. The word “it” in the passage refers to ____.

D. solution

A. enzyme

B. molybdenum

C. petrol

D. water

121. The word “vanished” in the passage is opposite in meaning to ____. A. appeared

B. produced

C. introduced

D. invented

122. It is stated in the passage that water-fuelled cars may contribute to ____. A. save energy

B. save environment C. save money

D. save time

Exercise 12. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. THE STORY OF COCA-COLA Coca-Cola was invented in 1886 by John Pemberton, a druggist living in Atlanta. The original drink was a type of syrup, using coca leaves, sugar and cola nuts, plus a few other secret ingredients! Pemberton sold it as a medicine; and with its coca (the source of cocaine), it must have made people feel good! Nevertheless, Pemberton’s medicine was not very successful, so he sold his secret formula to another druggist, Asa Candler. Candler was interested, because he had another idea that Pemberton’s “medicine” would be much better if it was mixed with soda. Candler was thus the man who really invented the drink Coca-Cola. Candler also advertised his new drink, and soon people were going to drugstores just to get a drink of Coca-Cola. Before long, other people became interested in the product, including a couple of businessmen who wanted to sell it in bottles. Candler sold them a licence to bottle the drink, and very quickly the men became millionaires. The famous bottle, with its very distinctive shape, was designed in 1916. And the famous Coca-Cola logo is the most famous logo in the world. Unlike any other famous commercial logos, it has not changed in 100 years! During the First World War, American soldiers in Europe began asking for Coca-Cola, so the Coca-Cola company began to export to Europe. It was so popular with soldiers that they then had to start bottling the drink in Europe. Today, Coca-Cola is made in countries all over the world, including Russia and China; it is the world’s most popular drink. As for the famous formula, it is probably the world’s most valuable secret! The exact ingredients for making Coca-Cola are only known to a handful of people. And as for the “coca” that was in the original drink, that was eliminated in 1903. It was a drug, and too dangerous. Today’s Coca-Cola contains caffeine, but not cocaine! 123. According to the passage, Coca-Cola was first introduced in ____. A. America

B. China

C. Europe

D. Russia

124. According to the passage, the original drink made people feel good because it contained ____. A. coca leaves

B. cola nuts

C. secret ingredients D. sugar

125. It is stated in the passage that Candler was interested in the product because he thought ____. A. he could develop the original formula by adding soda B. he would sell it and quickly became a millionaire C. it was an useful medicine which made people feel good D. Pemberton’s medicine was very famous and successful

126. The word “licence” in the passage is closest in meaning to ____. A. certificate

B. permission

C. charter

D ticket

127. The word “distinctive” in the passage is opposite in meaning to ____. A. normal

B. original

C. ugly

D unique

128. When were the Coca-Cola’s bottle shape and logo designed according to the passage? A. in 1886

B. in 1916

C. in 1930

D. in 1986

129. The word “eliminated” in the passage probably means ____. A. banned

B. destroyed

C. erased

D. excluded

130. According to the passage, what is NOT true about the formula of Coca-Cola ? A. It is probably the world’s most priceless secret. B. It was really invented by the druggist. Asa Candler. C. Its exact ingredients are well known to many people. D. Its ingredient was changed from cocaine to caffeine. Part VI. WRITING Exercise 13. Mark the letter A, B, C. or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 131. This is the first time Tom went abroad. A. Tom ever has gone abroad before.

B. Tom has ever gone abroad before.

C. Tom has never gone abroad before.

D. Tom never has gone abroad before.

132. She started using this washing machine last year. A. She has used this washing machine for a year.

B. She has used this washing machine since a year.

C. She used this washing machine for a year.

D. She used this washing machine since a year.

133. The last time she sent me an email was 5 months ago. A. She has already sent me an email for 5 months. B. She has never sent me an email since 5 months. C. She has not sent me an email for 5 months.

D. She has not yet sent me an email since 5 months.

134. It is a long time since we last met. A. We have already met after a long time.

B. We have ever met for a long time.

C. We have just met for a long time.

D. We have not met for a long time.

135. When did you have a Facebook account? A. How long do you have a Facebook account?

B. How long did you have a Facebook account?

C. How long had you had a Facebook account?

D. How long have you had a Facebook account?

136. I haven’t called her since she left me. A. The last time I call her was when she left me. B. The last time I called her was when she has left me. C. The last time I called her was when she left me. D. The last time I have called her was when she left me. Exercise 14. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 137. Apple MacBook is portable and versatile. I cannot afford it. A. Although Apple MacBook is portable and versatile, 1 cannot afford it. B. Because Apple MacBook is portable and versatile, I cannot afforsd it. C. If Apple MacBook isn’t portable and versatile, I might afford it. D. No matter how portable and versatile Apple MacBook is, I can afford it. 138. William found a science book. It included instructions for building a windmill. A. William found a science book which included instructions for building a windmill. B. What William found is a science book included instructions for building a windmill. C. William found how a science book included instructions for building a windmill. D. Where William found a science book included instructions for building a windmill. 139. They didn’t think Newton could do it. He was confident. A. Because they didn’t think Newton could do it, he was confident. B. They didn’t think Newton could do it because he was confident. C. They didn’t think Newton could do it no matter how confident he was D. If they had thought Newton could do it, he would have been more confident. 140. Bell succeeded with his new invention. People were able to talk to each other over great distances. A. Because Bell’s success with the new invention, people were able to talk to each other over great distances. B. In spite of Bell’s success with the new invention, people were able to talk to each other over great distances. C. Owing to Bell’s success with the new invention, people were able to talk to each other over great distances. D. Since Bell’s success with the new invention, people were able to talk to each other over great distances.

Unit 6. GENDER EQUALITY Part I. PHONETICS Exercise 1. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 1. A. women

B. follow

C. concentrate

D. project

2. A. address

B. allow

C. traffic

D. rural

3. A. minimum

B. influence

C. eliminate

D. bias

4. A. prevent

B. education

C. dependent

D. eliminate

5. A. encourage

B. contribute

C. delicious

D. college

Exercise 2. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. 6. A. career

B. gender

C. equal

D. bias

7. A. enrol

B. rural

C. allow

D. prefer

8. A. abandon

B. dependent

C. preference

D. exhausted

9. A. unequal

B. enrolment

C. encourage

D. minimum

10. A. physically

B. equality

C. remarkably

D. discriminate

Part II. VOCABULARY Exercise 3. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 11. This year, more girls enrolled on courses in art and design. A. avoided

B. inserted

C. erased

D. enlisted

12. In some rural areas, women and girls are forced to do most of the housework. A. invited

B. encouraged

C. made

D. contributed

13. Our government has done a lot to eliminate gender inequality. A. cause

B. remove

C. add

D. allow

14. We never allow any kind of discrimination against girls at school. A. approve

B. deny

C. refuse

D. debate

15. Women do not yet have equal rights in the family in this area. A. variable

B. similar

C. different

D. the same

C. fairness

D. similarity

16. It's time we banned discrimination at work. A. bias

B. equity

17. Both male and female students in my class perform very well. A. assign

B. work

C. communicate

D. entertain

18. Many people in our country still think married women shouldnâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;t pursue a career. A. attempt

B. attach

C. achieve

D. want

19. Most employers prefer male workers to female ones. A. want

B. compliment

C. care about

D. favour

C. didnâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;t succeed

D. satisfied

20. She failed to get into medical university. A. passed

B. qualified

21. In order to be successful, we should never give up hope. A. fight

B. abandon

C. continue

D. suspect

22. Gender discrimination has become a hot subject of conversations among school students. A. topic

B. study

C. fact

D. case

23. The government took big steps to prevent gender inequality. A. increase

B. avoid

C. promote

D. cause

24. Those people who have enough courage and will are likely to be successful. A. energy

B. motivation

C. bravery

D. desire

25. Nowadays, many women are aware of gender preferences in favour of boys. A. fail

B. ignore

C. deny

D. acknowledge

26. With great effort, she passed the driving test at the first attempt. A. succeeded in

B. failed

C. enrolled

D. deferred

27. Female firefighters are sometimes the targets of laughter and anger from the coworkers and local people. A. reasons

B. sources

C. directions

D. victims

28. Many women had to pay a heavy price to win equality. A. achieve

B. lose

C. attempt

D. respect

29. Traditional women are often passive and dependent on their husbands. A. free

B. reliant

C. adhered

D. strong

30. Women will be exhausted if they have to cover both jobs at work and at home. A. very relaxed

B. very pleased

C. very tired

D. very happy

31. Men should share household chores with women in their families. A. cover

B. finish

C. take

D. split

32. The Government has raised the national minimum wage. A. bonus

B. expense

C. waste

D. pay

33. They were qualified for the job, but they were not recruited. A. competitive

B. selected

C. competent

D. applied

C. encourages

D. affords

34. Wage discrimination affects women negatively. A. motivates

B. influences

35. How are governments addressing the problem of inequality in wages? A. focusing on

B. raising

C. creating

D. ignoring

36. Many countries now allow and encourage women to join the army and the police forces. A. permit

B. force

C. make

D. prevent

37. We should encourage women to join more social activities. A. prevent

B. stimulate

C. permit

D. forbid

38. Working mothers contribute to household income. A. reduce

B. take

C. add

D. double

39. Family values are likely to pass down from generation to generation. A. put down

B. cut down

C. go down

D. hand down

40. Women's salaries are becoming important to their household budgets. A. funds

B. costs

C. expenses

D. fees

41. Experiences at work help women to widen their knowledge. A. eliminate

B. broaden

C. restrict

D. spoil

42. If women have to do too much housework, they cannot concentrate or work effectively. A. learn

B. distract

C. focus

D. ignore

Exercise 4. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 43. The gender gap in primary education has been eliminated. A. variety

B. inconsistency

C. difference

D. similarity

44. The United Kingdom has made a remarkable progress in gender equality. A. insignificant

B. impressive

C. notable

D. famous

C. achieve

D. Obtain

45. Men and women equally gain first class degrees. A. acquire

B. lose

46. The United Kingdom still faces challenges in gender equality.

A. fairness

B. inequality

C. evenness

D. equilibrium

47. Much has to be done to achieve gender equality in employment opportunities. A. attain

B. obtain

C. reach

D. abandon

48. People have eliminated poverty and hunger in many parts of the world. A. created

B. eradicated

C. phased out

D. wiped out

49. Both genders should be provided with equal rights to education, employment and healthcare. A. deprived of

B. furnished with

C. equipped with

D. supplied with

50. We should not allow any kind of discrimination against women and girls. A. inequality

B. hatred

C. unbiased feeling

D. intolerance

Part III. GRAMMAR Exercise 5. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 51. A lot of people think that marriage women shouldnâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;t pursue a career. A

52. We must stop discrimination on people coming from the rural area. A

53. My brother is good with cooking and he can cook very delicious food. A

54. I guess they may be kept home doing housework and look after their children. A

55. Women in rural areas might be forced to work both at home but on the fields. A

56. Some people think that girls shouldnâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;t be allowed to going to university. A

57. Gender discrimination should be eliminated for create equal opportunities in education for everyone. A

58. More girls should being chosen to represent us in the School Youth Union. A

59. Both women and men should be given equal rights for education and employment. A

60. This discrimination against women and girls must be abolishing. A

61. Efforts should be make to offer all children equal access to education. A

62. It is clear that gender differences cannot prevent a person to pursue a job. A

63. Traditional women were mainly responsible to doing housework and looking after their husbands and A

children. 64. Doing housework every day is really boring and tired. A

65. In the past, women was often passive and dependent on their husbands. A

66. Women usually get less pay as men for doing the same job. A

Exercise 6. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 67. It is important that men should share household tasks ____ their wives. A. to

B. with

C. for

D. against

68. Women are more hard-working than men although they are physically ____ weaker. A. more

B. as

C. so

D. Ă&#x2DC;

69. Women are likely to become trouble-makers ____ they are too talkative. A. in order

B. so

C. because

D. thus

70. Some people tend to wrongly believe that men are not as good ____ children as women. A. with

B. as

C. at

D. on

71. Not many people are aware ____ male preference in this company. A. for

B. on

C. about

D of

72. I don't think mothers should be discouraged ____ outside the home. A. to work

B. from working

C. to working

D. Working

73. More and more girls apply ____ malesâ&#x20AC;&#x2122; jobs these days. A. by

B.for

C. about

D. to

74. Working mothers can inspire their kids ____ their hard work and devotion. A. with

B. about

C. at

D. for

75. Now I wish I could ____ a medical career to become a doctor. A. pursuing

B. be pursuing

C. be pursued

D. pursue

76. Educated women are becoming less dependent ____ their husbandsâ&#x20AC;&#x2122; decisions. A. about

B.of

C.on

D. for

77. This policewoman is famous ____ her courage and strong will. A. with

B. for

C. on

D. about

78. I am thinking ____ becoming a childcare worker because I love children. A. of

B. with

C. for

D. on

79. A lot of things need to be done ____ gender equality in education, employment and healthcare. A. promoting

B. in promoting

C. for promoting

D. to promote

80. Nowadays, a number of parents still have preference for boys ____ girls. A. rather

B. than

C. over

D. instead

81. Womenâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s salaries are getting more important ____ their household income. A. at

B. to

C. in

D. within

82. I think everybody should be provided ____ equal access to health services. A. with

B. on

C. for

D. to

83. Gender discrimination must ____ in order to create a better society. A. eliminate

B. be eliminating

C. be eliminated

D. eliminated

84. This company can ____ for wage discrimination among workers of different genders. A. be sued

B. be suing

C. sue

D. sued

85. Poor women in disadvantaged areas should ____ more help by governments. A. offer

B. be offered

C. be offering

D. offered

86. Married women should be encouraged ____ a career of their preference. A. pursued

B. pursue

C. to pursue

D. from pursuing

87. Domestic violence ____ women and girls must be wiped out at any cost. A. on

B.at

C.for

D. against

88. Having good education enables women ____ equality. A. to achieve

B. achieve

C. to achieving

D. Achteved

89. We all need to cooperate to fight ____ racism and gender discrimination. A. for

B. against

C. in

D. about

90. The women in this company have been demanding equal pay____ equal work. A. against

B. on

C. for

D. with

Part IV. SPEAKING Exercise 7. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges. Two friends Nam and Lan are talking about the topic of gender equality. 91. Nam: “Do you think that there are any jobs which only men or only women can or should do?” Lan: “____” A. Men are better at certain jobs than women. B. I agree. This really depends on their physical strengths and preferences. C. Women and men should cooperate with each other. D. Men are often favoured in certain jobs. 92. Lan: “Would you rather work for a male or female boss?” Nam: “____” A. I’ve been self-employed for five years.

B. I don’t like working under time pressure.

C. I prefer a male boss.

D. I can’t stand the women gossips.

93. Nam: “Would you rather have a male or a female secretary?” Lan: “____” A. I want to have a female one. B. The number of female secretaries is increasing. C. The number of female secretaries is staying the same. D. Female secretaries outnumber male ones. 94. Lan: “How do the roles of men and women differ in your family?” Nam: “____” A. Most of men don’t want to stay at home. B. Women are changing their roles. C. Most men are very bossy and arrogant. D. Men are breadwinners and women are caregivers. 95. Nam: “Which gender, do you think, works harder: male or female?

Lan: “____” A. I think it depends on individuals rather than gender. B. Males like high position jobs more than females. C. Females prefer to have a stable job. D. Both males and females are responsible for childcare. 96. Nam: “Which gender spends most of the time shopping?” Lan: “____” A. Shopping has always been my hobby. B. More and more people are shopping online these days. C. Both genders like shopping. D. It depends on who keeps the money. 97. Nam: “Which gender is most likely to ask strangers for directions?” Lan: “____” A. Men sometimes ask strangers for directions as well. B. Women are because their sense of space and directions is worse. C. Both men and women can use GPS these days. D. GPS is very useful to help car drivers. 98. Nam: “Why are there generally so few women in top positions?” Lan: “____” A. Top positions are the highest in career ladder.

B. Top positions are hard to climb to.

C. I guess men tend to make better leaders.

D. Women also want to climb to top positions.

99. Nam: “Which gender tends to live longer?” Lan: “____” A. Women tend to live 5 years longer than men.

B. Women like a peaceful and quiet life.

C. Men want to live an active life.

D. Both men and women tend to live longer.

100. Nam: “As women live longer than men, should they retire later?” Lan: “____” A. When women are retired, they want to enjoy life. B. When men are retired, they still want to continue working. C. The government is still discussing the retirement age.

D. I don't think so. Physically, they are weaker and they need to retire earlie 101. Lan: “What behaviours are only seen as appropriate for women? Nam: “____” A. Women are getting more and more independent. B. In some places, women still suffer gender discrimination. C. I don’t really know. Maybe gossiping and crying in public places. D. Gender discrimination should be abolished. 102. Lan: “What behaviours are only seen as appropriate for men?” Nam: “____” A. What are men’s appropriate behaviours? B. There are many, such as offering to pay for meals or drinks. C. Men, in general, don’t have appropriate behaviours. D. Men don’t want other people to criticize them. 103. Lan: “What clothing is appropriate for women but not for men?” Nam: “____” A. They are long dresses and skirts.

B. Men are also changing their fashion styles.

C. Many clothes now are uni-sex.

D. Men should never wear women’s clothes.

104. Nam: “Which gender is better at team sports?” Lan: “____” A. Women are better at individual sports.

B. Both men and women can do sports.

C. Physically, men are stronger than women.

D. Certainly, men are better.

105. Lan: “Which gender do you think studies most?” Nam: “____” A. Studying is quite long lasting. B. This depends more on individuals rather than genders. C. Gender discrimination in education is a hot debate. D. Female students should also be allowed to further their studies. Part V. READING Exercise 8. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered bla THE SUFFRAGETTES

England has had a democracy for a long time. Until 1918, however, women were not allowed (106) ____ in it. The right to vote is called ‘suffrage’ and the English women who fought (107) ____ and won that right were called “suffragettes”. The suffragette movement was led by Emmiline Pankhurst. In 1903, she (108) ____ an organization called the Women’s Social and Politica Union (WSPU). Members of the WSPU went to the Prime Minister to (109) ____ suffrage, but he told them to “be patient”. The suffragettes were not (110) ____.They wanted change immediately. The fight for the vote for women became (111) ____ and sometimes violent. In 1908, two suffragettes (112) ____ themselves to the fence outside the Prime Minister's front door! They were arrested and spent weeks in jail. In 1912, hundreds of women (113) ____ the streets of London. They broke shop windows and even threw Stones (114) ____ the Prime Minister’s house. Thousands of suffragettes were (115) ____ for this and similar actions over the years. World War I (1914-1918) proved to be an important (116) ____ for the women’s movement. Women contributed so much to the war effort as nurses', factory workers, and at other jobs that more people became convinced of their right to vote. Women were (117) ____ given that right in January, 1918. 106. A. to vote

B. for vote

C. in voting

D. vote

107. A. with

B. for

C. against

D. to

108. A. did

B. made

C. founded

D. found

109. A. demand B. ask

C. want

D. raise

110. A. satisfaction

C. satisfy

D. satisfied

111. A. intensive B. intense

C. intend

D. intention

112. A. trained B.changed

C. chained

D. charged

113. A. took to B. took in

C. took up

D. took over

114. A. onto

B. on

C. over

D. at

115. A. jail

B. jailed

C. jailing

D. on jail

116. A. eventual B. even

C. event

D. eventually

117. A. finally

C. initial

D. initially

B. satisfactory

B. final

Exercise 9. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. For Catherine Lumby, deciding to take on the role of breadwinner in her relationship was not a difficult choice. When she discovered she was pregnant with her first child, she had just been offered a demanding new role as Director of the Media and Communications department at the University of Sydney. But she didn't see this as an obstacle, and was prepared to use childcare when the children were old enough. It came, therefore, as a surprise to Lumby and her husband Derek that, after the birth of their son, they couldn’t actually bear the thought of putting him into childcare tor nine hours a day. As she was the one with the secure job, the role of primary care-giver fell to Derek, who was writing scripts for television. This arrangement continued for the

next four years, w ith Derek working from home and caring for both of their sons. He returned to full-time work earlier this year. Whilst Lumby and her husband are by no means the only Australians making such a role reversal, research suggests that they are in the minority. In a government-funded survey in 2001, only 5.5 percent of couples in the 30-54 year age group saw the women working either part- or full-time while the men were unemployed. The situation is likely to change, according to the CEO of Relationships Australia, Anne Hollonds. She suggests that this is due to several reasons, including the number of highly educated women in the workforce and changing social patterns and expectations. However, she warns that for couples involved in role-switching, there are many potential difficulties to be overcome. For men whose self-esteem is connected to their jobs and the income it provides to the family, a major change of thinking is required. It also requires women to reassess, particularly with regard to domestic or child-rearing decisions, and they may have to learn to deal with the guilt of not always being there at key times for their children. Being aware of these issues can make operating in non-traditional roles a lot easier. 118. What is the main idea of the passage? A. Men being the bread winners

B. Traditional roles of women

C. Women being the home makers

D. Reversed roles between men and women

119. Catherine and her husband decided that Catherine would be the primary earner because ____. A. she had a badly paid job

B. she was not good at childcare

C. she had a reliable job

D. she wanted her husband to stay at home

120. In paragraph 1, the word “him" refers to ____. A. their son

B. her husband

C. Derek

D. her colleague

121. They decided that Derek would look after their son because they ____. A. couldn’t afford to put their child in care for long periods each day B. didn’t want to put their child in care for long periods each day C. thought childcare was not safe enough for their children D. worried about their son’s health problems 122. In paragraph 2, the word “reversal" is closest in meaning to ____. A. stability

B. modification

C. rehearsal

D. switch

123. One reason tor a change in the number of men staying home is ____. A. the stability in the number of highly-educated women who are working B. the fall in the number of highly-educated women who are working C. the rise in the number of highly-educated women who are working D. the fluctuation in the number of highly-educated women who are working Exercise 10. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

In 1812 a young man called James Barry finished his studies in medicine at Edinburgh University. After graduating he moved to London where he studied surgery at Guy’s Hospital. After that the popular young doctor joined the army and over the next forty years had a brilliant career as an army medical officer, working in many far-off countries and fighting successfully for improved conditions in hospitals. It was a remarkable career - made even more remarkable by the discovery upon his death that he was in fact a she, James Barry was a woman. No one was more surprised at this discovery than her many friends and colleagues. It was true that throughout her life people had remarked upon her small size, slight build and smooth pale face. One officer had even objected to her appointment as a medical assistant because he could not believe that Barry was old enough to have graduated in medicine. But no one had ever seriously suggested that Barry was anything other than a man. By all accounts Barry was a pleasant and good-humoured person with high cheekbones, reddish hair, a long nose and large eyes. She was well-liked by her patients and had a reputation for great speed in surgery - an important quality at a time when operations were performed without anaesthetic. She was also quick tempered. When she was working in army hospitals and prisons overseas, the terrible conditions often made her very angry. She fought hard against injustice and cruelty and her temper sometimes got her into trouble with the authority. After a long career overseas, she returned to London where she died in 1865. While the undertaker’s assistant was preparing her body for burial, she discovered that James Barry was a woman. So why did James Barry deceive people for so long? At that time a woman could not study medicine, work as a doctor or join the army. Perhaps Barry had always wante to do these things and pretending to be a man was the only way to make it possible. Perhaps she was going to tell the truth one day, but didn’t because she was enjoying her life as a man too much. Whatever the reason, Barry's deception was successful. By the time it was discovered that she had been the first woman in Britain to qualify as a doctor, it was too late for the authorities to do anything about it. 124. What is the main idea of the passage? A. Gender discrimination among doctors in London B. James Barry pretended to be a man to become a doctor C. James Barry and her career overseas D. Punishment for James Barry’s deception 125. In paragraph 1, the word “remarkable" is closest in meaning to ____. A. noticeable

B. commented

C. rewarding

126. According to the passage, all of the following are true EXCEPT

D. focused .

A. all people were surprised at the discovery B. people remarked upon her small size C. many people suspected that she was a woman D. people noticed her slight build and smooth pale face 127. In paragraph 2, the word “objected" is closest in meaning to ____. A. shared

B. agreed

C. protected

D. protested

128. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE about James Barry?

A. She could control her temper perfectly.

B. She lost her temper easily.

C. She never lost her temper.

D. She was calm and well-behaved.

129. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE about James Barry? A. She performed her operations quickly.

B. She performed her operations slowly.

C. She performed her operations carelessly.

D. Her patients did not like her very much.

130. In paragraph 4, the word “it" refers to ____. A. Barry's choice

B. Barry’s career

C. Barry’s deception D. Barry's reputation

Part VI. WRITING Exercise 11. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 131. The government should create more job opportunities for women in rural areas. A. Women in rural areas should create more jobs for the government. B. More job opportunities should be created for the government by the women in rural areas. C. More job opportunities should be created for women in rural areas by the government. D. Rural areas should be created more job opportunities by women in the government. 132. We all object to wage discrimination. A. We all support wage discrimination.

B. We all protest against wage discrimination.

C. We all struggle for wage discrimination. D. Wage discrimination is what we fight for. 133. Health care insurance should be provided for everyone. A. All people should have access to health care insurance. B. Health care insurance should be free for everyone. C. Everyone should have free access to health care insurance. D. Only a limited number of people can access free health care insurance. 134. In some rural areas, parents still prefer their sons to their daughters. A. Sons are not as favoured as daughters in some rural areas. B. Parents in some rural areas like their daughters more than their sons. C. Parents in some rural areas still favour their sons rather than daughters. D. Daughters are more preferable than sons in some rural areas. 135. Single-sex schools should be abolished by the government. A. Single-sex schools should be controlled by the government. B. Single-sex schools should be allowed to multiply by the government.

C. The government should promote single-sex schools. D. The government should eradicate single-sex schools. Exercise 12. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 136. Gender discrimination in education starts at home. Parents treat boys and girls differently. A. If parents donâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;t treat boys and girls differently, gender discrimination in education starts at home. B. Gender discrimination in education starts at home unless parents treat boys and girls differently. C. Gender discrimination in education starts at home if parents treat boys and girls differently. D. If gender discrimination in education starts at home, patents treat boys and girls the same. 137. Gender differences cannot prevent a person from pursuing a job. Success comes to those who have enough courage and will. A. Unless success comes to those who have enough courage and will, gender differences cannot prevent a person from pursuing a job. B. Gender differences cannot prevent a person from pursuing a job unless success comes to those who have enough courage and will. C. Gender differences can prevent a person from pursuing a job because success comes to those who have enough courage and will. D. Gender differences cannot prevent a person from pursuing a job because success comes to those who have enough courage and will. 138. Men should share household tasks with their wives. This helps to maintain gender equality at home. A. Men should share household tasks with their wives unless this helps to maintain gender equality at home. B. Men should share household tasks with their wives in order to maintain gender equality at home. C. Men should share household tasks with their wives, but this helps to maintain gender equality at home. D. Men shouldn't share household tasks with their wives because this helps to maintain gender equality at home. 139. Women have to do too much work. They will be exhausted. A. If women have to do too much work, they will be exhausted. B. Unless women have to do too much work, they will be exhausted. C. As long as women donâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;t I have to do too much work, they will be exhausted. D. In case women have to do too much work, they wonâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;t be exhausted. 140. Wage discrimination attects women negatively. This should be abolished.

A. Wage discrimination should be abolished, so it affects women negatively. B. Wage discrimination affects women negatively because this should be abolished. C. Wage discrimination affects women negatively, so this should be abolished. D. Wage discrimination should be abolished unless it affect women negatively.

Unit 7. CULTURAL DIVERSITY Part I. PHONETICS Exercise 1. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 1. A. protest

B. wedding

C. reception

D. success

2. A. present

B. decrease

C. increase

D. mouse

3. A. complicated

B. bridegroom

C. originate

D. superstition

4. A. country

B. contrast

C. culture

D. ceremony

5. A. good

B. moon

C. groom

D. food

Exercise 2. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. 6. A. increase

B. engage

C. prepare

D. propose

7. A. happy

B. perfect

C. formal

D. married

8. A. couple

B. promise

C. import

D. wedding

9. A. export

B. decrease

C. present

D. belief

10. A. contrast

B. object

C. rebel

D. support

Part II. VOCABULARY Exercise 3. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 11. In some Asian countries, the groom and bride ____ their wedding rings in front of the altar. A. change

B. exchange

C. give

D. take

12. In Scotland, the brideâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s mother may invite the wedding guests to her house to ____ off all the wedding gifts. A. show

B. turn

C. put

D. get

13. On the wedding day, the best man is expected to help the ____. A. bride

B. groom

C. guest

D. bridesmaid

14. In the past, the ____ and engagement ceremonies took place one or two years before the wedding. A. propose

B. proposing

C. proposal

D. proposed

15. Superstitions ____ an important part in the lives of many people in Viet Nam. A. take

B. act

C. occupy

D. play

16. Viet Nam has kept a variety of superstitious ____ about daily activities. A. believe

B. believing

C. beliefs

D. believable

17. Traditionally, most Vietnamese people never ____ the floor during the first three days of the New Year.

A. sweep

B. paint

C. polish

D. resurface

18. Viet Nam is a country situated in Asia, where many mysteries and legends ____. A. origin

B. originate

C. original

D. originally

19. The British usually pay a lot of ____ to good table manners and are expected to use knives, forks and spoons properly. A. money

B. care

C. attention

D. compliment

20. In the U.S, children can choose their own partners even if their parents object ____ their choice. A. to

B. for

C. against

D. with

21. In the UK, 18-year-olds tend to receive a silver key as a present to ____ their entry into the adult world. A. symbol

B. symbolic

C. symbolize

D. symbolist

22. In Australia, on Mother’s Day, the second Sunday in May, children prepare and ____ their mothers ‘breakfast in bed’. A. cook

B. serve

C. display

D. present

23. People in Mexico ____ Mother's Day on May 10 by giving their mothers handmade gifts, flowers, clothing and household appliances. A. open

B. memorize

C. celebrate

D. perform

24. In Viet Nam, you shouldn’t ____ at somebody’s house on the lst day of the New Year unless you have been invited by the house owner. A. show up

B. get up

C. put up

D. go up

25. The newly-weds will fly to Venice to spend their ____ tomorrow. A. vacation

B. honeymoon

C. holiday

D. marriage

26. After the wedding ceremony at the church, they go to the hotel for the wedding ____. A. cake

B. ring

C. day

D. reception

27. The bride and groom cut the wedding cake and ____ speeches. A. prepared

B. wrote

C. heard

D. made

28. Some Koreans believe that it’s impolite to ____ eye contact with a person who has a high position. A. maintain

B. lose

C. show

D. put

29. Brazilians often ____ each other’s arms, hands or shoulders during a conversation. A. lend

B. shake

C. touch

D. move

30. American people are very informal at home, so they often ____ their hands to eat some kinds of food. A. use

B. lend

C. wash

D. shake

31. Egypt is a traditional country, and it has many customs that are different ____ the U.S.

A. of

B. from

C. to

D. for

32. English people believe that it is unlucky to open an umbrella in the house,which will bring ____ to the person who has opened it. A. loss

B. misfortune

C. success

D. truth

33. Superstition suggests that you'll get seven years of bad luck if you ____ a mirror. A. break

B. buy

C. borrow

D. see

34. In the UK, seven is usually regarded ____ the luckiest number while thirteen is the opposite. A. as

B. like

C. with

D. for

35. Polite behavior in one country, however, may be ____ in another part of the world. A. formal

B. informal

C. impolite

D. appropriate

36. In Germany, it is important to arrive ____ time when you are invited to someone's house. A. in

B. after

C. before

D. on

37. Learning about cultural differences in politeness helps you avoid a lot of ____. A. embarrass

B. embarrassment

C. embarrassed

D. embarrassing

38. On many days of the year, Vietnamese people not only ____ the table for meals, but they also put food on the altar for their ancestors. A. lay

B. lie

C. book

D. clear

C. match-maker

D. fiancĂŠe

39. The woman you are engaged to is your ____. A. fiancĂŠ

B. bridesmaid

40. At the church ceremony, the couple have to make their wedding ____. A. vows

B. invitations

C. flowers

D. cakes

Exercise 4. Mark the letter A. B. C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 41. Mary is planning to tie the knot with her German boyfriend next June. A. get married

B. say goodbye

C. get together

D. fall in love

42. In some Asian countries like Viet Nam or China, money is given to the newly-married couple as a wedding present. A. gift

B. donation

C. souvenir

D. contribution

43. In Viet Nam, it is customary to choose a favourable day for occasions such as wedding, funerals, or housemoving days. A. suitable

B. favourite

C. beautiful

D. whole

44. Americans value freedom and do not like to be dependent on other people.

A. addicted

B. supportive

C. reliant

D. responsible

45. In most American families, parents have less influence on their children than those in other parts of the world. A. power

B. effect

C. attention

D. care

Exercise 5. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 46. Being practical, Americans avoid taking jobs which are beyond their ability. A. out of

B. far from

C. within

D. inside

47. In many countries, it is customary for the bride to throw her bouquet of flowers into a crowd of wellwishers. A. uncommon

B. inadvisable

C. usual

D. normal

48. To an American, success is the result of hard work and self-reliance. A. devotion

B. industry

C. laziness

D. enthusiasm

49. Success has always meant providing their families with a decent standard of living. A. high

B. good

C. acceptable

D. low

50. Stores everywhere compete to sell their distinctive versions of Christmas cake before the holiday. A. different

B. various

C. similar

D special

Part III. GRAMMAR Exercise 6. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 51. These days, in India, there are ____ married couples who live on their own than before. A. more

B. many

C. less

D. little

52. In some countries in the Middle East, people stand ____ to each other than those in North America in a conversation. A. most closely

B. more closely

C. closer

D. closest

53. Wedding ceremonies are ____ now than they used to be in the past. A. less complicated

B. the most complicated

C. as complicated

D. the least complicated

54. It's much ____ to celebrate a small and cozy wedding to save money. A. best

B. better

C. the best

D. the better

55. In some Asian families, parents tend to have far ____ control over their children than those in some American families. A. the most

B. the more

56. This is ____ wedding party Iâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;ve ever attended.

C. more

D. most

A. the more memorable

B. more memorable

C. the most memorable

D. most memorable

57. Chocolates and flowers are by far ____ presents for mothers on Mother's Day in the UK. A. more popular

B. the more popular

C. less popular

D. the most popular

58. Chuseok is one of ____ celebrations in the Korean calendar when Koreans give thanks to nature. A. the most important

B. the more important

C. the less important

D. more important

59. The more polite you appear to be, ____ your partner will be. A. the happiest

B. the happier

C. the most happily

D. the more happily

60. Of the two bridesmaids, Lisa turned out to be ____. A. the most charming

B. the least charming

C. more charming

D the more charming

61. The Korean are ____ than the American in addressing their bosses. A. more formal

B. formal

C. most formal

D. the most formal

62. There are ____ occasions for giving gifts in modern societies than before. A. less

B. more

C. the least

D. the most

63. June has become ____ month for weddings in many countries when the symbolic flowers, roses, usually bloom. A. more popular

B. less popular

C. the most popular

D. the least popular

64. Before doing something important, Vietnamese people always try to choose ____ time for it. A. better

B. less good

C. the least good

D. the best

65. My grandmother feels much ____ whenever I give her a homemade cake on Mother’s Day. A. happier

B. more happily

C. the happiest

D. the most happily

66. People in ____ Western countries are often surprised to learn that ____ Japanese celebrate Christinas. A. Ø - Ø

B. the - the

C. the - Ø

D. Ø - the

67. In Japan, ____ most important holiday of ____ season is New Year’s Day, which comes one week after Christmas. A. the - the

B. Ø – the

C. the – Ø

D. the – a

68. In India, in the old days, ____ girl’s family used to give ____ boy’s family a gift like money or jewellery. A. a – a

B. a – the

C. the – a

D. the – the

69. It is appropriate to bring ____ small gift when visiting ____ home in the U.S. A. the - a

B. a – a

C. a – the

D. the – the

70. Traditionally, ____ bride and groom go on their honeymoon immediately after ____ wedding reception.

A. a - the

B. the – a

C. the – the

D. a – a

71. Whenever I set out for ____ examination, I always try to avoid crossing ____ path of ____ woman. A. an – the - a

B. an – a – the

C. an – the – the

D. the – the – a

72. In a wedding ceremony, ____ best man helps ____ groom ready for every preparation. A. the – a

B. a – the

C. the – the

D. a – a

73. People say that ____ gift lets ____ recipient know how we are thinking of them. A. the - the

B. a – a

C. the – a

D. a – the

74. Wearing a wedding veil which covers ____ head and face is ____ 2,000-years-old tradition. A. a - the

B. the - a

C. the - the

D. a - a

75. In the U.S, while represents goodness and is usually ____ color of ____ bride’s wedding dress. A. a – a

B. a – the

C. the – a

D. the – the

76. Is is acceptable to touch ____ person on ____ shoulder in a conversation? A. a - the

B. the – the

C. the – a

D. a – a

77. ____ man should take off his hat when he goes into ____ house in the UK. A. A – the

B. A – a

C. The – a

D. The – the

78. W hen you stay at ____ friend's house, you should write ____ thank-you note. A. a - a

B. the - a

C. a - the

D. the - the

79. Christmas Eve is ____ best time for Japanese youngsters to go out for ____ special, romantic evening. A. a - a

B. the - a

C. the – the

D. a - the

80. ____ Japanese manage not to ask direct questions in order not to embarrass ____ person who they are speaking with. A. A - the

B. A - a

C. The - the

D. The - a

Exercise 7. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 81. People believe that if they borrow money at a beginning of the year, they will have to be in debt for the rest A

of that year. 82. In traditional Indian families, the parents used to arranging the marriage for their children. A

83. It is common for Japanese to adapt foreign customs and make them their own. A

84. In Viet Nam, at the dinner table, you should serve the adults the first and then the children. A

85. If you make the wish, then blow out all the candles on your birthday cake in one breath, your wish will be A

granted. 86. No one is the happiest than the bride and groom on the day of their wedding. A

87. On first day of the Lunar New Year, Vietnamese people go to the pagoda to pray for the best luck of the A

year. 88. For American people, success means ending their career in the highest and more prosperous position than A

when they began it. D 89. Superstitions exist everywhere on this planet; however, Viet Nam and Asia alike can be A

the more superstitious than other continents. D 90. In Viet Nam, gifts for brides and grooms are usually in pairs; for example, two less expensive blankets are A

more desired than the nicer one. D Part IV. SPEAKING Exercise 8. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges. 91. A: “Have you heard? Martin and Lisa have just got engaged!" B: “____” A. Really? That’s fantastic!

B. Congratulations!

C. Let’s celebrate!

D. Good luck!

92. A: “Well, Brad Pitt and Angelina Jolie have just decided to divorce! Don't you know?" B: “____”

A. I couldn’t agree more.

B. Oh, thanks!

C. Really? Are you kidding?

D. No, not right now.

93. A: “What a beautiful wedding dress you are wearing today, Daisy!" B: “____” A. I'm sorry to hear that.

B. Thanks, it’s nice of you to say so.

C. Don't mention it.

D. Thanks for your gift!

94. A: "Let’s go and cheer for their happiness today!" B: “____” A. No, thanks.

B. Have a go, please.

C. That’s a good idea!

D. It’s too late.

95. A: “Why don’t we make a cake for Mom on Mother’s Day?" B: “____” A. Sure, let’s plan on it.

B. Thanks, I’d love to.

C. To make her happy.

D. Great! I’d like some flowers.

96. A:”What gifts should I bring to a dinner party in Viet Nam?" B: “____” A. I don’t care.

B. You should arrive on time.

C. Dress casually.

D. Just some fruits or cakes.

97. A: “I’m afraid I can't come to your house-warming party next Saturday." B: “____” A. That sounds fun.

B. Oh, what a pity!

C. That’s ridiculous. D. Oh, what a relief!

98. A: "Thank you very much for coming to our wedding!" B: “____” A. Our pleasure! Happy wedding!

B. Our pleasure! Good success!

C. Don’t mention it. Go ahead!

D. Don’t mention it. Just my luck!

99. A: “Thank you very much for the lovely flowers!" B: “____” A. You are welcome.

B. You don't like flowers, do you?

C. Yeah, I didn’t buy those flowers.

D. It was an excellent choice.

100. A: “Peter and I are going to spend our honeymoon in Jeju Island!" B: “____”

A. It's fine for me.

B. Qh, thanks. Good luck!

C. Have you decided yet?

D. Oh, really? Have a nice holiday!

101. A: "I love watching Carnival in Rio de Janeiro. What about you?" B: ”____” A. You're welcome. B. Thanks, I will.

C. Me too.

D. Me either.

102. A: "Guess what? Mary’s getting married next week.” B: “____” A. Is she really? That’s interesting.

B. What a pity!

C. Congratulations!

D. Send my regards to her, will you?

103. A: "Don’t forget to bargain when buying things in an open-air market in Viet Nam!” B: "____” A. I don't agree.

B. Thanks, I will.

C. Why not?

D. No way

104. A: “____” B: "You'd better shake hands firmly.” A. What topics should I talk about when I first meet a Turkish? B. What gifts should I give to a Turkish? C. What should I do when I first meet a Turkish? D. What about asking a Turkish about their age? 105. A: "Would you like to stay with us and spend our traditional Tet holidays together?” B: "____” A. What a nice idea! Thanks. B. Oh, lucky you

C. What a shame, I will.

D. How come?

Part V. READING Exercise 9. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. INTERNATIONAL GIFT-GIVING CUSTOMS The tradition of gift giving is a worldwide practice that is said to have been around since the beginning of human beings. Over time, different cultures have developed their own gift giving customs and traditions. In France, the gift of wine for the hostess of a dinner party is not an appropriate gift as the hostess would prefer to choose the vintage for the night. In Sweden, a bottle of wine or flowers are an appropriate gift for the hostess. In Viet Nam, a gift of whisky is appropriate for the host, and some fruit or small gifts for the hostess, children or elders of the home. Besides, gifts should never be wrapped in black paper because this color is unlucky and associated with funerals in this country. Gifts that symbolize cutting such as scissors, knives and other sharp

objects should be avoided because they mean the cutting of the relationship. Also, in some countries you should not open the gift in front of the giver and in others it would be an insult if you did not open the gift. Beyond the gift itself, give careful consideration to the manner in which it is presented. Different cultures have different customs regarding how a gift should be offered - using only your right hand or using both hands, for example. Others have strong traditions related to the appropriate way to accept a gift. In Singapore, for instance, it is the standard to graciously refuse a gift several times before finally accepting it. The recipient would never unwrap a gift in front of the giver for fear of appearing greedy. Understanding these traditions and customs, as well as taking time to choose an appropriate gift, will help you to avoid any awkwardness or embarrassment as you seek to build a better cross-cultural relationship. 106. When did the tradition of gift-giving become popular all over the world? A. a long time ago

B. thousands of years ago

C. since the beginning of humans

D. since the beginning of industrialization

107. Which of the following is NOT true about gift-giving customs? A. In France, wine is not considered a suitable gift for the hostess of a dinner party. B. In Sweden, it is not customary to bring some wine or flowers when you are invited to a dinner party. C . In Viet Nam, such things as scissors, knives and other sharp objects shouldn't be used as a gift. D. In Singapore, it is unacceptable to open the gift right in front of the giver. 108. The phrase â&#x20AC;&#x153;associated with" is closest in meaning to ____. A. connected with

B. familiar with

C. informed of

D. similar to

C. gift

D. culture

109. The word â&#x20AC;&#x153;it" in paragraph 3 refer to ____. A. consideration

B. manner

110. Which of the following is the main idea of paragraph 3? A. The people who are presented with gifts B. The traditions of giving and receiving gifts C. The occasions of giving and receiving gifts D. The manners of giving and receiving gifts Exercise 10. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Marriage is an ancient religious and legal practice celebrated around the world. However, wedding customs vary from country to country. The Wedding Dress: In many countries, it is customary for the bride to wear a white dress as a symbol of purity. The tradition of wearing a special white dress only for the wedding ceremony started around 150 years ago. Before that, most women could not afford to buy a dress that they would only wear once. Now, bridal dresses can be bought in a variety of styles. In some Asian countries and in the Middle East, colors of joy and happiness like red or orange other than white are worn by the bride or used as part of the wedding ceremony,

The Wedding Rings: In many cultures, couples exchange rings, usually made of golf or silver and worn on the third finger of the left or right hand, during the marriage ceremony. The circular shape of the ring is symbolic of the couple's eternal union. In Brazil, it is traditional to have the rings engraved with the bride's name on the groom’s ring, an vice versa. Flowers: Flowers play an important role in most weddings. Roses are said to be the flowers of love, and because they usually bloom in June, this has become the most popular month for weddings in many countries. After the wedding ceremony, in many countries the bride throws her bouquet into a crowd of well-wishers – usually her single female friends. The person who catches this bouquet will be the next one to marry. Gifts: In Chinese cultures, w edding guests give gifts of money to the newly-weds in small red envelopes. Money is also an appropriate gift at Korean and Japanese wedding. In many Western countries, for example in the U.K, wedding guests give the bride and groom household items that they may need for their new home. In Russia, rather than receiving gifts, the bride and groom provide gifts to their guests instead. With the continued internationalization of the modern world, wedding customs that originated in one part of the world are crossing national boundaries and have been incorporated into marriage ceremonies in other countries. 111. Which of the following is the best title of the passage? A. Wedding ceremonies

B. Wedding customs

C. Wedding day

D. Wedding history

112. The tradition of wearing a special dress only on one’s wedding day is ____. A. about 150 years ago

B. over a century ago

C. less than 100 years ago

D. less than 200 years ago

113. In some cultures, the bride wears a white dress as a traditional symbol of ____. A. modesty

B. secrecy

C. purity

D. security

114. In some Asian and Middle Eastern.countries, which colour is NOT considered to be suitable for a wedding? A. red

B. orange

C. white

D. blue

115. The phrase “eternal union" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ____. A. never-ending relationship

B. lovely relationship

C. temporary relationship

D. healthy relationship

116. The word “this" in paragraph 4 refers to which of the following? A. role

B. love

C. June

D. rose

117. According to the passage, in which country would the wedding guests give the bride and groom money as a present? A. Brazil

B. the U.K

C. China

D. Russia

118. Which of the following information is TRUE according to the passage? A. Nowadays, every bride can afford to buy a wedding dress to wear only once. B. It is believed that any person who catches the bride’s bouquet will be the next to marry.

C . It is customary to write the groom's name on the bride’s wedding ring. D. Thanks to globalization, one country’s wedding customs may be added to other countries’. Exercise 11. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word that best fits each of the numbered blanks. CULTURE SHOCK Many people dream of living in a foreign country. It can be an amazing experience for those (119) ____ are willing to settle down in a new place. (120) ____, there’s one potential problem you should be aware of: culture shock. Culture shock is the feeling we get from living in a place that is so different to where we grew up that we are not sure (121) ____ to deal with it. Societies are (122) ____ in many different ways. Customs and traditions can be very different and that can sometimes make it difficult to get on with local people who might not approve (123) ____ things you do and might object to things you say. You might be banned from doing things in another country that are perfectly legal in your own. For example, in Singapore people can be forced to (124) ____ a large fine just for dropping rubbish. Eventually, though, most people who live abroad fall in love with their adopted country and learn to accept its differences. 119. A. who

B. which

C. what

D. whose

120. A. Therefore B. However

C. Although

D. Moreover

121. A. what

B. when

C. how

D. why

122. A. organize

B. organizing

C. organization

D. organized

123. A. of

B. with

C. on

D. off

124. A. spend

B. waste

C. pay

D. borrow

Exercise 12. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word that best fits each of the numbered blanks. COMMON SUPERSTITIONS There are many strange superstitions in the world. The most common one is related to black cats, (125) ____ are the source of hundreds of unlucky superstitions. It’s a sign of bad luck ( 126) ____ they walk in front of you or you step on their tails. They even bring bad luck into a house if they sneeze inside! This superstition dates (127) ____ to the Middle Ages when they became associated with witches and evil spirits. Another common superstition is about walking under a ladder. A more (128) ____ explanation can be traced back to ancient Egypt. The (129) ____ Egyptians believed that the shape of the Pyramids had a special power. It was considered very bad luck to break the “power” of this shape and that’s exactly what walking under a ladder would do! In addition, in Roman times, people (130) ____ the habit of looking at themselves in pools of water. Some believed that these reflections were in fact “glimpses of the soul”. Any disruption to the water in the pool would bring bad luck to the person looking in it. This superstition lives on with the fear of bad luck from breaking a mirror. 125. A. which

B. who

C. when

D. where

126. A. although

B. because

C. if

D. unless

127. A. on

B. in

C. back

D. for

128. A. mystery

B. mysterious

C. mysteriously

D. mysteries

129. A. late

B. recent

C. past

D. early

130. A. had

B. took

C. raised

D. became

Part VI. WRITING Exercise 13. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 131. The American are less formal in addressing their bosses than the South Korean. A. The South Korean are less formal in addressing their bosses than the American. B. Both the American and the South Korean have the same formality in addressing their bosses. C. The South Korean are more informal in addressing their bosses than the American. D. The South Korean are more formal in addressing their bosses than the American. 132. Nothing is more precious than happiness and health. A. Happiness and health are the most precious things. B. Happiness is more precious than health. C. Health is more precious than happiness. D. Happiness and health are more and more precious. 133. I’ve never seen such a nice bouquet of wedding flowers. A. This bouquet of wedding flowers is the nicest that I’ve ever made. B. This is the nicest bouquet of wedding flowers that I’ve ever seen. C. I ve never seen the nicest bouquet of w edding flowers so far. D. Nothing I’ve seen is nicer than this bouquet of wedding flowers. 134. Ice-hockey is one of the most popular sports in Russia. A. In Russia, ice-hockey is more popular than any other sports. B. In Russia, no sport is more popular than ice-hockey. C. In Russia, no sport is less popular than ice-hockey. D. In Russia, one of the most popular sports is ice-hockey. 135. Tet holiday is the most interesting Vietnamese traditional festival that he’s ever attended. A. Tet holiday is more interesting than the Vietnamese traditional festival that he’s ever attended. B. He has never attended a more interesting Vietnamese traditional festival than Tet holiday. C. He has attended many interesting Vietnamese traditional festival including Tet holiday. D. Tet holiday is one of the most interesting Vietnamese traditional festival he’s ever attended.

136. There are more superstitious beliefs in Eastern countries than in Western ones. A. Western countries don’t have fewer superstitious beliefs than Eastern ones. B. Eastern countries have more superstitious beliefs than Western ones. C. Eastern and Western countries have many more superstitious beliefs. D. More superstitious beliefs exist in Western countries than in Eastern ones. 137. Pho (rice noodles) is believed to be the most typical food in Viet Nam. A. It is believed that Pho (rice noodles) is the most typical food in Viet Nam. B. A more typical food than Pho (rice noodles) is believed in Viet Nam. C. I believe that Viet Nam has the most typical food like Pho (rice noodles). D. No food in Viet Nam is less typical than Pho (rice noodles). 138. I have never read a better book about cultural diversity I have ever read. A. This book is a good book about cultural diversity I have ever read. B. This is the best book about cultural diversity I have ever read. C. This book is as good as the one about cultural diversity I have ever read. D. The book about cultural diversity I have ever read isn’t better than this one. 139. Money is more important than prestige to some Americans. A. Some Americans like prestige more than money. B. Money is of greater importance to some Americans than prestige. C. Money and prestige are of equal importance to some Americans. D. Money is less preferable to some Americans than prestige. 140. There were more guests at my cousin’s wedding than expected. A. We didn’t expect fewer guests to attend my cousin’s wedding. B. We expected to receive more guests at my cousin’s wedding. C. Fewer guests came to my cousin’s wedding than we expected. D. More guests came to my cousin’s wedding than we expected.

Unit 8. NEW WAYS TO LEARN Part I. PHONETICS Exercise 1. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in position the of the primary stress in each of the following questions. 1. A. digital

B. personal

C. excellent

D. electric

2. A. similar

B. symbolic

C. effective

D. eternal

3. A. successful

B. cognitive

C. different

D. wonderful

4. A. efficient

B. exciting

C. distracting

D. portable

5. A. convenient

B. permanent

C. attractive

D. important

6. A. modernize

B. organize

C. indicate

D. continue

7. A. graduate

B. develop

C. consider

D. enable

8. A. concentrate

B. benefit

C. understand

D. mobilize

9. A. introduce

B. stimulate

C. recognize

D. emphasize

10. A. exercise

B. volunteer

C. calculate

D. interview

Part II. VOCABULARY Exercise 2. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 11. Personal ____ devices are useful for learning. A. electric

B. electrical

C. electronic

D. electronical

12. They’re excellent learning ____. You can store information, take notes, write essays and do calculations. A. equipments

B. tools

C. gadgets

D. techniques

13. In English class yesterday, we had a discussion ____ different cultures. A. around

B. about

C. for

D. from

14. Mrs Dawson said that we were ____ our lesson in the library next Monday. A. having

B. making

C. reading

D. going

15. I really don’t ____ the point of taking the exam when you are not ready for it. A. take

B. have

C. mind

D. see

16. If the examiner can’t ____ sense of your writing, you’ll get a low mark.

A. take

B. bring

C. make

D. understand

17. I would prefer to go to university and do a ____ in International Studies, rather than start work. A. certificate

B. result

C. degree

D. qualification

18. My dad wants me to go university, but I’m in ____ minds about it. A. my

B. two

C. some

D. different

19. Most computers have enough ____ to store a vast amount of information. A. database

B. document

C. memory

D. word processor

20. You can’t get into the Internet unless your computer has a(an) ____. A. access

B. terminal

C. web page

D. modem

21. Many people only use their computer as a ____. All they do is to write letters and reports on it. A. word processor

B. template

C. document

D. spreadsheet

22. The World Wide Web is made up of millions of ____ created by anybody from multi-media corporations to ordinary people like you and me. A. newsgroups

B. chatrooms

C. users

D. sites

23. On the web you can read ____ newspapers or magazines; you can watch videos, download music or buy anything. A. virtual

B. online

C. digital

D. offline

24. When I first started learning English ten years ago, I could hardly ____ a word - "hello”, “goodbye”, “thank you” was just about it! A. speak

B. talk

C. say

D. tell

25. I went to classes two evenings a week and I was surprised at how quickly I ____ progress. A. had

B. made

C. did

D. produced

26. I ____ a lot of new language from speaking with my host family and with other students from all over the world. A. picked up

B. took up

C. made up

D. saved up

27. Helen is much more confident with her English now. She can actually ____ a conversation with her teacher in English without difficulty. A. keep

B. do

C. improve

D. hold

28. If you're not sure what something means, ____ in your dictionary or use your electronic dictionary for help. A. check up

B. look up

C. translate

D. interpret

29. Whenever you hear a new word that you think is important, ____ in your notebook. A. keep it down

B. put it down

C. write it down

D. spell it down

30. She had to ____ her First Certificate Exam three times. A. study

B. take

C. make

D. do

C. remembering

D. revising

31. I'm ____ for my English test tomorrow. A. focusing

B. meditating

32. He'll have to ____ and work harder or he'll fail the exam. A. pull his socks up

B. polish his head

C. empty his washing basket

D. stick his neck out

33. Sally always hands in her homework on time and buys the teacher small presents.The other children hate her. She's such a ____. A. teacher's toy

B. teacher's jewel

C. teacher's pet

D. teacher's sweet

34. Electronic devices are bad for your eyes, and ____ from electronics could harm your body and cause permanent damage. A. wave

B. radiation

C. radiator

D. emission

35. Like children elsewhere, children in the US have greatly benefited ____ modern technology. A. of

B. from

C. in

D. with

Exercise 3. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 36. You can download free lessons and put them in your media player or other similar mobile devices. Then you can listen and study anywhere because these devices are portable. A. affordable

B. available

C. feasible

D. carriable

37. Personal electronic devices which distract students from their classwork are banned in most schools. A. forbid

B. prohibit

C. divert

D. neglect

38. Permanent damage to children's body may be caused by frequent contact with electronic devices. A. Immediate

B. Long-lasting

C. Short-term

D. Serious

39. If your smartphone rings in class, it will be very annoying and disruptive. A. interruptive

B. supportive

C. discouraging

D. confusing

40. For very young children, electronic devices may help promote listening and speaking skills. A. advertise

B. popularize

C. discourage

D. improve

41. Students who have access to inappropriate information, videos and pictures may spend many hours reading and watching, and forget about their projects or assignments. A. fascinating

B. tempting

C. unsuitable

D. illegal

42. People whose work involves using a computer for most of the day may suffer from chronic headaches.

A. suggests

B. includes

C. means

D. contains

43. One advantage of learning going digital is that students no longer have to carry the weight of papers and textbooks with them to school. A. online

B. electric

C. computer-based

D. modernized

44. An interactive whiteboard is an electronic device that helps students learn English in a more stimulating way. A. interest-arousing

B. performance-enhancing

C. communication-promoting

D. proficiency-raising

45. This new invention is useful in the classroom because it can engage students and provide them with opportunities to communicate meaningfully. A. pull

B. attract

C. encourage

D. participate

Exercise 4. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 46. In my country, it is compulsory to go to school between the ages of five and sixteen. A. necessary

B. essential

C. optional

D. selective

47. Do you think that you pay enough attention in class? What have I been talking about? A. neglect

B. care

C. notice

D. consideration

48. Electronic dictionaries are now common in English classes. They can be very easily downloaded into your personal electronic devices. A. individual

B. public

C. private

D. possessive

49. Being able to use computers and the Internet can lead to an improved quality of life. A increased

B. enhanced

C. promoted

D. deteriorated

50. It seems unthinkable today not to provide children with a decent education. A. sufficient

B. adequate

C. deficient

D. proper

Part III. GRAMMAR Exercise 5. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 51. “Who's that over there?" - "Oh, it's our new teacher, ____ just started work today." A. that

B. who he

C. which he

D. who

52. "Which CD did you get Marcus in the end?" – "I got him the one ____ said he really wanted to hear." A. that

B. who he

C. whose

D. which he

53. “Who did you send a Valentine's card to?" - "I'm not telling you, but it was someone ____ name begins with “B”.” A. which

B. who her

C. whose

D. whose her

54. "Have you seen Jason Green's latest film?" – "Is that the one in ____ joins the FBI?” A. which he

B. that he

C. whom he

D. which

55. "Why do you like Tania so much?” – “Well, she's one of the few people to ____ I can really talk." A. which

B. whom

C. that

D. who

56. "Why don't we go to Lionel's for dinner tonight?” - “Is that the new restaurant ____ has just opened on the other side of town?" A. which

B. where

C. that it

D. which it

57. "Could you lend me some money?" – "I'd like you to give me one good reason ____ I should." A. that

B. which

C. why

D. who

58. “What do you want to do this summer?” – “I think we should go somewhere ____ has plenty of sun and sand." A. who

B. where

C. when

D. that

59. Smartphones, laptops and tablets are the modern devices ____ have changed the way we think. A. what

B. Ø

C. whose

D. that

60. Students use smartphones to record their phone calls, ____ they later share with the class. A. Ø

B. that

C. which

D. whose

61. A tablet is perfect for people ____ work is to draw and write. A. who

B. Ø

C. which

D. whose

62. You can access the Internet, download programs and information ____ can help you understand the material and widen your knowledge. A. what

B. that

C. Ø

D. who

63. There are sites ____ you can record your own voice and listen to yourself. A. where

B. when

C. that

D. which

64. My teacher, ____ has been teaching for 25 years, finds it hard to make use of electronic devices in her teaching. A. she

B. who she

C. who

D. whose

65. That media player, ____ I often use to practise my English, has some great apps. A. Ø

B. that

C. what

D. which

66. The interactive whiteboard involves students directly in work in front of the board, ____ most of them love. A. that

B. Ø

C. which

D. whose

67. Qualifications are exam results ____ prove you have reached a certain level. A. which

B. Ø

C. that

D. Both A and C

68. In the USA, a public school is a state school, ____ is run by the government and is free to attend. A. that

B. which

C. who

D. Ø

69. This is the book in ____ Foster describes his experience of the war. A. that

B. what

C. where

D. which

70. Isn't that Tim, the boy ____ father owns a huge yacht? A. whose

B. his

C. which

D. that

71. Tina gave her ticket to the concert to John, ____ then sold it to Nick. A. which

B. he

C. who

D. whom

72. “Which cinema did you go to?” – “The one they don't sell any popcorn!" A. which

B. where

C. whom

D. who

C. who’s

D. whom

73. That's the actor ____ autograph I got last year. A. whose

B. who

74. The book ____ she's most famous is Dance of the Dinosaur. A. in that

B. to whom

C. for which

D. that

75. Student social life revolves around the Student Union, ____ is the large yellow building opposite the library. A.Ø

B. which

C. that

D. it

76. Mr Forbes teaches a class for students ____ native language is not English. A. which

B. who

C. whose

D. those who

77. I have just found the book ____. A. you were looking for

B. which you were looking

C. for that you were looking

D. you were looking

78. I don't understand the assignment ____ the professor gave us last Monday. A. which

B. that

C. Ø

D. All are correct

79. Students ____ get below-average exam results do not have the best prospects. A. whose

B. who

C. Ø

D. All are correct

80. I live in a dormitory ____ residents come from many countries. A. where

B. which

C. in where

D. whose

Exercise 6. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 81. Before I came to England, I hadn't had the opportunity to speak to people their native tongue is English. A

82. No one has said anything would persuade me to change my mind. A

83. The woman sitting on the red chair is the person to who you must give this envelope. A

84. There are some teachers in our school try to improve the quality of teaching by making use of hi-tech A

devices. 85. Modern children, who lives have become more and more dependent on electronic devices, find the A

traditional way of teaching very dull and boring. D 86. Smartphones and tablets which can be used as effective learning tools for children. A

87. What is the name of the girl that her mobile phone was stolen? A

88. A tablet is a mobile computer is also useful for language learning. A

89. Those want to improve their English can download free digital lessons from the Internet to study. A

90. Mr Peterson who has worked for the same school all his life, is retiring next month. A

Part IV. SPEAKING Exercise 7. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges. 91. “____ ” _ “It means go very quickly.” A. How can you explain "rush”?

B. How do you spell “rush”?

C. What does "rush” mean?

D. What is the equivalent of “rush”?

92. “____” – “For” answers the question "How long” and “Since” answers the question “When". A. What are the meanings of “for” and “since”? B. What's the difference between “for” and “since”?

C. How to see the difference between “for” and “since”? D. How similar are “for” and “since”? 93. “So, Sven, you've been learning English for ten years. That's a long time.”-“____” A. Yes, so what? I want to keep learning until I can hold a conversation like a native speaker. B. It's none of your business! I want to keep learning until I can hold a conversation like a native speaker. C. I suppose it is, but I want to keep learning until I can hold a conversation like a native speaker. D. Well, look at yourself first. I want to keep learning until I can hold a conversation like a native speaker. 94. “____" - "I think you must have the wrong number. There's no one of that name here." A. Could I speak to Donald, please?

B. Hi, who is that?

C. Hello. Is Martin speaking, please?

D. A and C are correct.

95. “Do you mind if I make a phone call?” –“____” A. Yes, of course. The phone's in the hall. B. No, of course not. The phone's in the hall. C. It's my pleasure. The phone's in the hall. D. Never mind. The phone's in the hall. 96. “Shall I ring you later?" – "____” A. No, you won't. Have you got my mobile number? B. Yes, you will. Have you got my mobile number? C. Yes, but I may be out. Have you got my mobile number? D. No, I won't be home. Have you got my mobile number? 97. “____” - "No, it's all repeats again. Why can't they make some new programs for a change?” A. Is there anything worth watching on the telly tonight? B. What's on TV tonight? C. What's up tonight on TV? D. Is there a program on to watch tonight? 98. “___” – “I like to make notes during the lectures." A. Do you like lectures? B. Which do you prefer: listening to lectures or reading books? C. Is recording the lecture a good idea?

D. How do you prefer to learn from lectures: making notes or recording? 99. “___” - “No, I don't live in an English-speaking country, so it's difficult for me to meet them." A. Is it important to meet English speakers? B. Do you ever have any contact with English speakers? C. Do you like living in an English-speaking country? D. Is it hard for you to meet English speakers? 100. "I don't support the use of smartphones and tablets in the classrooms.” – “____” A. Me, too.

B. I don't, either.

C. Me, neither.

D. B and C are correct.

101.“ ____" - "I hate it, but I have to do it.” A. How do you feel about learning English?

B. How do you learn English?

C. Is English important in your country?

D. Is English easy to learn?

102. "I think electronic devices do wonders for language learners." – “____” A. I couldn't agree more

B. You're absolutely night.

C. Sure, I agree with you.

D. All are correct.

103. “Hi, Sarah. What are you studying?" - "English, We have a test tomorrow” – “____” "Thank you. I'm going to need it!" A. Oh, really?

B. Oh, good luck!

C.Oh, lucky you.

D. Oh, luckily.

104,"____" – “I’m afraid not. Can you explain it again?" A. Does it make sense to you?

B. Do I make myself understood?

C. Do you see what I mean?

D. All are correct.

105. "May I use your tablet for a while, pleaser" – “____” A. No way, It cost a fortune!

B. I'm so sorry, I'm using it mysell.

C. Stay away from it!

D. No, it's busy now.

Part V. READING Exercise 8. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word that best fits each of the numbered blanks. A POWERFUL INFLUENCE There can be no doubt at all that the Internet has made a huge difference to our lives. Parents are worried that children spend too much time playing on the Internet, hardly (106) ____ doing anything else in their spare time. Naturally, parents are curious to find out why the Internet is so attractive, and they want to know if it can be (107) ____ for their children. Should parents be worried if their children are spending that much time (108) ____ their computers?

Obviously, if the children are bent over their computers for hours, (109) ____ in some game, instead of doing their homework, then something is wrong. Parents and children could decide how much use the child should (110) ____ of the Internet, and the child should give his or her (111) ____ that it won't interfere with homework. If the child is not (112) ____ to this arrangement, parents can take more drastic (113) ____. Dealing with a child's use of the Internet is not much different from (114) ____ any other sort of bargain about behavior. Any parent who is seriously alarmed about a child's behavior should make an appointment to (115) ____ the matter with a teacher. Spending time in front of the screen does not (116) ____ affect a child's performance at school. Even if the child is (117) ____ crazy about using the Internet, he or she is probably just going through a phase, and in a few months there will be something else to worry about! 106. A. always

B. rarely

C. never

D. ever

107. A. harming

B. harmful

C. hurting

D. hurtful

108. A. staring at

B. glancing at

C. looking

D. watching

109. A. supposed

B. occupied

C. involved

D. absorbed

110. A. do

B. have

C. make

D. create

111. A. word

B. promise

C. vow

D. claim

112. A. holding

B. sticking

C. following

D. accepting

113. A. rules

B. procedures

C. regulations

D. steps

114. A. dealing

B. negotiating

C. having

D. arranging

115. A. speak

B. discuss

C. talk

D. debate

116. A. possibly

B. necessarily

C. probably

D. consequently

117. A. absolutely

B. more

C. quite

D. a lot

Exercise 9. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. WHAT IS YOUR LEARNING STYLE? If you find yourself learn better by making notes during the lecture, or when the teacher uses a new word, you want to see it written immediately, then you are very likely to be a more visual learner. You prefer to see the written words. You learn by reading and writing. Visual learners often think in pictures. If you find a particular task or text difficult, look for sources that will suit your learning style, e.g. sources with illustrations, charts, tables, or videos. If you prefer recording the lecture and listening again to taking notes, or you memorize something by repeating it aloud instead of writing it out several times, you are probably a more auditory learner. You prefer to learn by listening and speaking. Auditory learners often learn best from lectures, discussions, by reading aloud, and by listening to audio material. However, it is probably that you, like most people, learn through a mixture of styles. Sometimes you may prefer to learn by reading, at other time by listening. Ask yourself which is the best style for the particular task you are doing. 118. Which of the following is probably NOT preferred by a visual learner?

A. reading aloud

B. sources with illustrations

C. sources with videos

D. making notes

119. What does the word "it" in paragraph 1 refer to? A. the lecture

B. the new word

C. the note

D. the written word

120. The word “visual” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ____. A. picturesque

B. written

C. illustrative

D. seeable

121. Which of the following statement is TRUE? A. Auditory learners hate taking notes. B. Auditory learners prefer listening to speaking. C. Most people are auditory learners. D. When learning something by heart, an auditory learner prefers reading it out loud. 122. The word "auditory” in paragraph 2 can be best replaced by ____. A. discussive

B. noisy

C. audible

D. recordable

Exercise 10. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. BECOMING AN EFFECTIVE STUDENT Learning how to study effectively is an essential skill for students in any discipline. There are six areas which are crucial to developing good study habits. Work on these and you will become an effective student. Targets Always set a realistic work target. Don't try to do too much. For example, plan to read one chapter of a book each evening rather than think about reading the whole book over the weekend. This kind of detailed, planned target is more effective than a vague commitment. It is sometimes helpful to tell your friends about your plan. This is a good incentive to keep you on target because they will know if you fail! Rewards Develop a system of small rewards for your work. For example, stop for a cup of coffee or tea, or listen to a favorite piece of music after one hour's study, Rewarding yourself for keeping to your work plan will make you feel good about yourself. Timing Make sure you choose a suitable time to study, i.e. when it is quiet and when you are most'alert. Try to make this a regular, time-tabled part of your day. If you plan to start work at a certain time, say 7 pm, do not find reasons to put off getting started. You can watch a DVD later, and your emails are not urgent! Quantity A large task such as researching a new topic for an essay can be daunting - so daunting, in fact, that it can be difficult to sit down and make a start. Break the larger task down into several smaller ones. For example, make

a list of questions that you will have to deal with in your essay, and then approach each question separately. This makes the work more manageable. Notes and Learning styles The books you are studying won't always present information in a way that suits your learning style. It is, therefore, worthwhile spending time making notes and organizing them in a way that suits you best. It is also a good idea to keep your notebooks neat and well-organized. This will make it much easier to retrieve information later. Revision Don't leave revision until the last moment. When you set your study targets, allow regular revision time. This is much more effective than trying to cram before an exam. 123. How does the writer think you can develop good study habits? A. By setting a realistic work target B. By planning and considering your learning style C. By revising your work on a regular basis D. By taking into account six important areas 124. Why is it a good idea to tell other people about your work plan? A. They can help you develop a detailed target. B. They will be very helpful with your plan. C. They will know if you do not stick to your plan, which motivates you to reach the target. D. They will know how to help you avoid failing. 125. Which of the following words is closest in meaning to the word â&#x20AC;&#x153;vagueâ&#x20AC;? in paragraph 2? A. unrealistic

B. inefficient

C. unclear

126. Timing includes all of the following EXCEPT ____. A. you must be able to think clearly at the chosen time to study B. the best time to study is 7 p.m C. the time to study should be made a routine D. don't delay getting started 127. How can a complicated piece of work be made easier? A. Try to sit down and make a start anyway. B. Make a list of questions beforehand. C. Divide the large task into manageable smaller segments. D. Manage the tasks one by one.

D. impractical

128. The word â&#x20AC;&#x153;dauntingâ&#x20AC;? in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to which of the following? A. frightening

B. demanding

C. challenging

D. discouraging

129. What is NOT the benefit of keeping good class or lecture notes? A. The information is tailored to your learning style. B. It enables you to find information quickly when needed. C. The information is favorably organized to your liking. D. You do not need to spend time on the books you are studying. 130. The most suitable phrase to replace the word "cramâ&#x20AC;? in the last paragraph is ____. A. study hard in a short time

B. stay up late to study

C. revise hastily

D. revise overnight

Part VI. WRITING Exercise 11. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 131. Electronic dictionaries are now common in English classes. They can be very easily downloaded into your personal electronic device. A. Electronic dictionaries which can be very easily downloaded into your personal electronic device are now common in English classes. B. Electronic dictionaries, which can be very easily downloaded into your personal electronic device, are now common in English classes. C. Electronic dictionaries, that can be very easily downloaded into your personal electronic device, are now common in English classes. D. Electronic dictionaries can be very easily downloaded into your personal electronic device are now common in English classes. 132. Electronic devices are bad for your eyes. Their radiation is very harmful. A. Electronic devices that their radiation is very harmful are bad for your eyes. B. Electronic devices which their radiation is very harmful are bad for your eyes. C. Electronic devices, whose radiation is very harmful, are bad for your eyes. D. Electronic devices whose radiation is very harmful are bad for your eyes. 133. Electronic devices distract students from their studies. Students may play games, text, chat, and cheat. A. Electronic devices distract students, who may play games, text, chat, and cheat, from their studies. B. Electronic devices distract students who may play games, text, chat, and cheat from their studies. C. Electronic devices distract students from their studies, who may play games, text, chat, and cheat. D. Electronic devices distract students from their studies who may play games, text, chat, and cheat.

134. They may feel sad and bad about themselves. This might affect their performance at school. A. They may feel sad and bad about themselves, this might affect their performance at school. B. They may feel sad and bad about themselves which might affect their performance at school. C. They may feel sad and bad about themselves, which might affect their performance at school. D. They may feel sad and bad about themselves, that might affect their performance at school. 135. Nearly all speed reading courses have a “pacing element”. This timing device lets the students know how many words a minute they are reading. A. Nearly all speed reading courses have a “pacing element” which is a timing device lets the students know how many words a minute they are reading. B. Nearly all speed reading courses have a "pacing element” which is a timing device that lets the students know how many words a minute they are reading. C. Nearly all speed reading courses have a "pacing element", a timing device that lets the students know how many words a minute they are reading. D. Nearly all speed reading courses have a "pacing element", that is a timing device that lets the students know how many words a minute they are reading. 136. Now go back and read them at what you feel to be your normal w.p.m rate. You can comfortably understand at this rate. A. Now go back and read them at what you feel to be your normal w.p.m rate, the rate which you can comfortably understand. B. Now go back and read them at what you feel to be your normal w.p. m rate the rate at which you can comfortably understand. C. Now go back and read them at what you feel to be your normal w.p.m rate, the rate which you can comfortably understand at. D. B and C are correct. 137. Some students prefer a strict teacher. This teacher tells them exactly what to do. A. Some students prefer a strict teacher, who tells them exactly what to do. B. Some students prefer a strict teacher who tells them exactly what to do. C. Some students prefer a strict teacher, that tells them exactly what to do. D. All are correct. 138. Many devices offer apps. These apps use voice recognition technology A. Many devices offer apps whose use voice recognition technology. B. Many devices offer apps, which use voice recognition technology. C. Many devices offer apps which use voice recognition technology. D. Many devices offer apps in which use voice recognition technology.

139. This is my new tablet. It uses the latest digital technology. A. This is my new tablet that uses the latest digital technology. B. This is my new tablet which uses the latest digital technology. C. This is my new tablet, which uses the latest digital technology. D. This is my new tablet, that uses the latest digital technology. 140. Most children aged 5 to 11 in England go to primary schools. These schools are largely co-educational. A. Most children aged 5 to 11 in England go to primary schools, which are largely co-educational. B. Most children aged 5 to 11 in England go to primary schools which are largely co-educational. C. Most children aged 5 to 11 in England go to primary schools that are largely co educational. D. Most children aged 5 to 11 in England go to primary schools where are largely co-educational.

Unit 9. PRESERVING THE ENVIRONMENT Part I. PHONETICS Exercise 1. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in position the of the primary stress in each of the following questions. 1. A. disposal

B. animal

C. energy

D. poverty

2. A. awareness

B. solution

C. importance

D. happiness

3. A. origin

B. dependence

C. harmony

D. factory

4. A. replacement

B. pollutant

C. resident

D. depletion

5. A. instrument

B. engineer

C. newsletter

D. family

6. A. vehicle

B. musical

C. article

D. reduction

7. A. consumption

B. chemical

C. neighborhood

D. pesticide

8. A. scientist

B. consequence

C. detergent

D. influence

9. A. erosion

B. atmosphere

C. resources

D. confusion

10. A. volunteer

B. charity

C. vegetable

D. injury

Part II. VOCABULARY Exercise 2. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 11. If you ask me, ____ waste is a much bigger problem than ordinary household waste. A. industrial

B. business

C. working

D. manufacturing

C. stands for

D. gets down

12. Do you know what CFC ____? A. sets in

B. does up

13. Thereâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s been a ____ in Germany and a village was completely destroyed. A. flood

B. drizzle

C. shower

D. smog

C. threatened

D. disappeared

14. Dinosaurs have been ____ for millions of years. A. endangered

B. extinct

15. As town grow, they tend to destroy the surrounding ____ areas. A. urban

B. commercial

C. land

D. rural

16. During the last hundred years we have done great ____ to the environment. A. injury

B. pollution

C. damage

D. hurt

17. There are lots of things we can all do to ____ the environment. A. enhance

B. protect

C. make

D. build

18. Environmentalists are furious with the American Government for delaying measures which will reduce greenhouse gas ____. A. exhaust fumes

B. smokes

C. wastes

D. emissions

19. The government is introducing strict new rules on the dumping of ____ by industry. A. pesticides

B. exhaust fumes.

C. toxic waste

D. emissions

20. Farmers contribute to environmental damage by spraying ____ with ____, which stay in the soil for years. A. agriculture – pesticides

B. agriculture - fertilizers

C. crops – fertilizers

D. crops - pesticides

21. The gradual rise in the Earth's temperature is known as ____. A. greenhouse effect

B. global warming

C. ozone layer

D. acid rain

22. The ____ that are produced by factories and cars are allowing more ____ from the sun to reach carth. A. gases – radiation

B. gases - light

C. gas – light

D. gas - radiation

23. As the Earth gets hotter, the Arctic and Antarctic ____ will slowly melt and the level of the oceans will rise. A. snowballs

B. avalanches

C. ice caps

D. icebergs

24. There will be ____, too. Some areas will become wetter while others will become much drier. A. weather changes

B. weather forecasts

C. climatic changes

D. climate changes

25. Thousands of acres of forest are being cut down every year and the ____ of many animals are being destroyed. A. natural resources

B. natural habitats

C. ways of life

D. living surroundings

26. Many of the world's largest cities are ____ and some are permanently covered by a ____. A. heavily polluted - polluted cloud

B. heavy pollution - polluted cloud

C. heavy pollution - cloud of pollution

D. heavily polluted - cloud of pollution

27. Make sure your car runs on unleaded petrol and your home uses sources of ____ energy. A. recycling

B. reused

C. renewable

D. recyclable

28. Scientists have found holes in the ____, particularly over Antarctica. A. ice caps

B. polar ice

C. ozone layer

D. greenhouse

29. Greenpeace is an international group that protests against anything which is a ____ to the environment. A. threat

B. threaten

C. threatening

D. threatener

30. If government don't ____ global warming, more natural disasters will occur. A. achieve

B. promote

C. discourage

D. prevent

31. There's has been a steady rise in the average temperature around the planet over the last hundred years or so, and the majority of scientists put it ____ to human activity. A. down

B. back

C. up

D. across

32. However, some scientists argue that the historical evidence shows that over time the Earth heats ____ and cools ____ naturally. A. up - away

B. away - down

C. up-down

D. down - up

33. It is predicted that over the next few decades many species will die ____ as once fertile areas turn to desert. A. off

B. out

ะก. up

D. down

34. Most of the air pollution results ____ the burning of fossil fuels, motor vehicles, factories, aircraft and rockets. A. in

B. to

C. on

D. from

35. Environmental pollution is becoming an ____ serious problem that needs to be taken care of as soon as possible. A. increasingly

B. increasing

C. increase

D. increased

Exercise 3. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 36. We are facing severe environmental pollution despite the fact that many world organizations are working hard to reduce it. A. heavy

B. destructive

C. harmful

D. serious

37. Water pollution is a result of dumping pollutants such as detergents, pesticides, oil, and other chemicals in rivers, which makes the water unclean. A. substances

B. stuffs

C. contaminants

D. wastes

38. Stop the degradation of the planet's natural environment and build a future in which humans live in harmony with nature. A. coexist peacefully with

B. fall in love with

C. agree with

D. cooperate with

39. WWF was set up in 1961 and had its operations in areas such as the preservation of biological diversity. A. difference

B. abundance

C. variety

D. plenty

40. The seashore was much polluted because of the amount of waste left there. All this rubbish is killing fish and other marine life. A. sea plants

B. sea mammals

C. water life

D. sea creatures

41. In 1986, the organization changed its name to World Wide Fund for Nature. However, it has operated under the original name in the US and Canada. A. old

B. former

C. first

D. ancient

42. Some of WWF's missions are: conserving the world's biological diversity, ensuring the use of renewable natural resources, and promoting the reduction of pollution.

A. jobs

B. careers

C. tasks

D. actions

43. Air pollution is a consequence of fossil fuel burning by motor vehicles, factories, aircraft and rockets. A. product

B. example

C. harm

D. result

44. The natural environment has been seriously influenced and degraded by human activities through many decades. A. worsened

B. damaged

C. destroyed

D. reduced

45. Global warming is the gradual increase of temperature on the Earth's surface due to greenhouse effect. A. steady

B. slow

C. sharp

D. abrupt

Exercise 4. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 46. Fresh water is very important to life because no one can live without it. Yet it is one of the limited and most endangered natural resources on our planet. A. Clean

B. Drinkable

C. Polluted

D. Running

47. One way to protect our environment from pollution is to reduce wasteful consumption. A. costly

B. excessive

C. safe

D. economical

48. If you follow at least one of the tips, you can be proud of taking part in the preservation of water, one of the very important and limited natural resources on earth. A. self-confident

B. self-satisfied

C. discontent

D. unpleasant

49. Soil pollution leads to lack of fertile land to grow enough food for an increasing population. A. arid

B. rich

C. unclean

D. deserted

50. Global warming may lead to many negative changes, including harsher weather conditions. A. more unbearable

B. milder

C. more extreme

D. more scrious

Part III. GRAMMAR Exercise 5. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 51. "I'm a big fan of U23.â&#x20AC;? Derek said. Derek said he ____ a big fan of U23. A. was

B. has been

C. were

D. had been

52. "We're watching TV," said the twins. The twins said they ____ TV. A. watched

B. were watching

C. have been watching

53. â&#x20AC;&#x153;You've been annoying me all day!" my mum said. My mum said I ____ her all day.

D. had watched

A. annoyed

B. was annoying

C. have been annoying

D. had been annoying

54. "The dog ate my homework!” said Ivan. Ivan said the dog his homework. A. was eating

B. has eaten

C.ate

D. had eaten

55. "At one o'clock, I was having lunch," said Molly. Molly said she ____ lunch at one o'clock. A. had been having

B. has had

C. is having

D. has been having

56. "You'll get wet without an umbrella," Dad said. Dad said I ____ wet without an umbrella. A. will be getting

B. got

C. would be getting

D. would get

57. "He can juggle five balls!" said Angie. Angie said he ____ five balls. A. juggled

B. had juggled

C. would juggle

D. could juggle

C. had to

D. must

58. “You must give me your essays," Mrs Vine said. Mrs Vine said we ____ give her our essays. A. were having to

B. would have to

59. “Could you pass me the salt, please?" I asked the man next to me. Tasked the man next to me ____ me the salt. A. pass

B. if he passes

C. to pass

D. if he would pass

60. "Would you mind waiting for a moment?" the shop assistant asked the woman. The shop assistant asked the woman ____ for a moment. A. to wait

B. waiting

C. if she waits

D. if she minds waiting

61. “Please don't leave your dirty football boots in the hall," Mum said to Doug. Mum told Doug ____ dirty football boots in the hall. A. that he doesn't leave his

B. not to leave his

C. not to leave your

D. don't leave his

62. "Could you tell us where you were at six o'clock?" the police officer asked Barry. The police officer asked Barry ____ had been at six o'clock. A. telling him where you

B. where he tells him he

C. to tell him where you

D. to tell him where he

63. "Could I have your e-mail address?" I asked Mariella.

I asked Mariella ____ e -mail address. A. to give me her

B. give me your

C. give me her

D. gave me your

64. "Can I have a new Xbox for my birthday?" I asked my mum. I asked my mum ____ a new Xbox for my birthday. A. that she gets me

B. get me

C. to get me

D. if she could have me

65. "What's your name?" she asked me. She asked me ____. A. what your name is C. what my name is

B. what your name was D. what my name was

66. "Are you a student?" the man asked the boy. The man wanted to know ____. A. if I was a student

B. if the boy was a student

C. if I am a student

D. if the boy is a student

67. "What school are you going to?" he asked me. He wanted to know ____. A. what school am I going to

B. what school you are going to

C. what was the school I go to

D. what school I was going to

68. "I won't be home this evening because I have to work late," Mike said. Mike said that ____. A. I wouldn't be home this evening because I had to work late B. he wouldn't be home this evening because he had to work late C. he won't be home this evening because he has to work late D. he wouldn't be home that evening because he had to work late 69. "You can sit here," the stewardess said. The stewardess said ____. A. you can sit here

B. I could sit here

C. I could sit there

D. you could sit there

70. â&#x20AC;&#x153;Anna left here an hour ago," she said. She told me that ____. A. Anna had left here an hour ago

B. Anna had left there an hour ago

C. Anna had left here an hour before

D. Anna had left there an hour before

71. "I don't want anything to eat now," he said.

He said ____. A. he doesn't want anything to eat now

B. he didn't want anything to eat then

C. I didn't want anything to eat then

D. I didn't want anything to eat now

72. â&#x20AC;&#x153;I've only had this new bicycle since yesterday," Karen said. Karen said that ____. A. I had only had this new bicycle since yesterday B. he had only had that new bicycle since the day before C. I had only had this new bicycle since the day before D. he's only had that new bicycle since the day before 73. "Don't waste water, Mum said to Mary. Mum told Mary____. A. that she doesn't waste water

B. to waste water

C. don't waste water

D. not to waste water

74. "You shouldn't use your cars for short distances, the teacher said. The teacher advised her students ____. A. that you shouldn't use your cars for short distances B. not to use their cars for short distances C. not to use your cars for short distances D. not to use her cars for short distances 75. "I'll finish it by the end of this week," he said. He promised ____. A. he'll finish it by the end of this week

B. he would finish it by the end of this week

C. to finish it by the end of that week

D. to finish it by the end of this week

76. "Don't forget to turn the tap off before you leave. " Grandma said. Grandma reminded me ____. A. to turn the tap off before I left

B. turn the tap off before you left

C. don't forget to turn the tap off before I left

D. to turn the tap off before you left

77. Dorothy asked him _____ Sarah was his sister. A. that

B. if

78. Tom and Henry asked me to go with ____.

C. what

D. who

A. him

B. their

C. them

D. they

79. I asked Martha ____ to join the Green Club. A. whether she is planning

B. if she was planning

C. when was she planning

D. where she was planning

80. Bob wanted to know when ____. A. will the exam be taken

B. the exam will be taken

C. would the exam be taken

D. the exam would be taken

Exercise 6. Mark the letter A, B, C. or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 81. Tim called yesterday and said he needed the report right now. A

82. Sally called from Miami and said that she was swimming here. A

83. They complained that there isn't any fresh water in the local area. A

84. Rosy said that she will come back there on another project the following year. A

85. Tony promised that he would do his homework today. A

86. Clarence said he couldn't have repaired the car the next day. A

87. Mr Jones told his children not to wasting fresh water. A

88. The teacher asked his students to focus on your topic. A

89. Sally suggested to go to school by bicycle in order to save energy. A

90. Harry offered lending a hand with keeping the school environment clean. A

Part IV. SPEAKING Exercise 7. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges.

91. "Why don't we have a look at some websites for more information about the environment?" – “____” A. Yes, thanks.

B. Yes, why not?

C. It's my pleasure.

D. Do we?

92. "____" - "By bus." A. What did you take to get there?

B. Did you get there by motorbike?

C. How long did it take you to get there?

D. How did you get there?

93. "Hi, Jack. ____" - "Not bad. And you?" A. How's everything?

B. What's everything?

C. What do you do?

D. How do you do?

94. " ____" - "That's a good idea." A. What about recycling water for gardening?

B. Sorry, can I say something?

C. Glad to work with you.

D. Excuse me, I want to add something.

95. "Shall I empty the dustbin?" – “____” A. Make yourself at home.

B. Nice to meet you!

C. It's very nice of you to do so.

D. Long time no see.

96. "Can I borrow your notes, please?" – “____” A. Well done!

B. No, thanks.

C. Yes, sure.

D. Yes, I can.

97. "Would you like to join this Green Project with us?" - "____” A. Yes, I would

B. Why not?

C. I'd love to

D. It doesn't matter.

98. "Where should we start with the project?" – “____” A. I never mind.

B. I'm glad to hear that.

C. Oh, that would be great.

D. What about searching the webs?

99. "Hi, John. Congratulations!" – “____” A. I'm sorry.

B. Thank you.

C. My pleasure.

D. You're welcome.

100."Excuse me! Where is the recycling center?" – “____” A. Let me see.

B. I'm not sure.

C. Hold on, please.

D. It's over there.

101. Thanks for doing that." - "____” A. It's my pleasure

B. Don't say that.

C. Not at all.

102. "How long will the meeting last?" – “____” A. Half past ten.

B. Since early morning.

C. Once a week, usually.

D. An hour or so, I expect.

103. "____" - "I'm going to make a table."

D. It's nice of you

A. Why is this recycled wood used?

B. How is this recycled wood used?

C. What's this recycled wood for?

D. Whose is this recycled wood?

104. “____” - "It was very sunny and hot. We had a bit of a heatwave. A. Did you enjoy your holiday?

B. How was the wave?

C. What was the weather like there?

D. How was the beach?

105. "Could you do me a favor, please?" – “____” A. Let me help you.

B. Sure. What can I do for you?

C. No, thanks. I'm fine.

D. Yes, go ahead!

Part V. READING Exercise 8. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or correct word that best fits each of the numbered blanks. GLOBAL WARMING Few people now question the reality of global warming and its effects on the world's climate. Many scientists (106) ____ the blame for recent natural disasters on the increase in the world's temperatures and are convinced that, more than (107) ____ before, the Earth is at (108) ____ from the forces of the wind, rain and sun. (109) ____ to them, global warming is making extreme weather events, such as hurricanes and droughts, even more (110) ____ and causing sea levels all around the world to (111) _____. Environmental groups are putting (112) ____ on governments to take actions to reduce the amount of carbon dioxide which is given (113) ____ by factories and power plants, thus attacking the problems at its source. They are in (114) ____ of more money being spent on research into solar, wind and wave energy devices, which could then replace existing power (115) ____. Some scientists, (116) ____ , believe that even if we stopped releasing carbon dioxide and other gasses into the atmosphere tomorrow, we would have to wait (117) ____ hundred years to notice the results. Global warming, it seems, is here to stay. 106. A. give

B. put

C. take

D. have

107. A. yet

B. never

C. once

D. ever

108. A. threat

B. danger

C. risk

D. harm

109. A. Concerning

B. Regarding

C. Depending

D. According

110. A. strict

B. severe

C. strong

D. heavy

111. A. raise

B. arise

C. rise

D. lift

112. A. force

B. pressure

C. persuasion

D. encouragement

113. A. off

B. away

C. up

D. over

114. A. belief

B. request

C. favor

D. suggestion

115. A. factories

B. generations

C. houses

D. stations

116. A. but

B. although

C. despite

D. however

117. A. several

B. over

C. numerous

D. various

Exercise 9. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. THINK BEFORE YOU TOSS Countries around the world have growing mountains of trash because people are throwing out more trash than ever before. How did we become a throwaway society? First of all, it is now easier to replace an item than to spend time and money to repair it. Thanks to modern manufacturing and technology, companies are able to produce items quickly and inexpensively. Products are plentiful and prices are low, so we would rather buy something new than repair it. Even if we did want to repair something, many items are almost impossible to repair. These products contain many tiny, complicated parts. Some even contain small computer chips. It's easier to throw these items away and buy new ones than to fix them. Another contributing factor is our love of disposable products. As busy people, we are always looking for ways to save time and make our lives easier. Why should we use cloth kitchen towels? It's easier to use paper towel once and toss it out. Companies manufacture thousands of different kinds of disposable items: paper plates, plastic cups, cameras, and razors for shaving, to name a few. The problem is that disposable products also contribute to our trash problem. Our appetite for new products also contributes to the problem. We are addicted to buying things. As consumers, we want the latest clothes, the best TVs, and cellphones with west features. Companies tell us to buy, buy, and buy. Advertisements persuade us wer is better. The result is that we throw away useful possessions to make room for new ones. 118. Which of the following is NOT a reason for people to replace a broken item? A. Products are now mass produced at affordable prices. B. It takes almost no time to fix broken items. C. Many items are too complicated to repair. D. Some products contain tiny, complicated chips. 119. All of the following are disposable products, EXCEPT ____. A. cloth kitchen towels

B. paper plates

C. plastic cups

D. razors for shaving

120. The word â&#x20AC;&#x153;disposable" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ____. A. convenient

B. inexpensive

C. throwaway

121. Why are we hooked on buying new things? A. We throw the old items to make room for the new ones. B. We have more money than ever before. C. We want to own as many things as possible. D. We are made to believe that the new is the better.

D. single-use

122. The word â&#x20AC;&#x153;appetiteâ&#x20AC;? in the last paragraph can be best replaced by ____. A. need

B. demand

C. desire

D. taste

Exercise 10. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. THE BALANCE OF NATURE All the different plants and animals in a natural community are in a state of balance. This balance is achieved by the plants and animals interacting with each other and with their non-living surroundings. An example of a natural community is a woodland, and a woodland is usually dominated by a particular species of plant, such as the oak tree in an oak wood. The oak tree in this example is therefore called the dominant species but there are also many other types of plants, from brambles, bushes, and small trees to mosses, lichens and algae growing on tree trunks and rocks. The plants of a community are the producers: they use carbon dioxide, oxygen, nitrogen to build up their tissues using energy in the form of sunlight. The plant tissues form food for the plant-eating animals (herbivores) which are in turn eaten by flesh-eating animals (carnivores). Thus, plants produce the basic food supply for all the animals of a community. The animals themselves are the consumers, and are either herbivores or carnivores. Examples of herbivores in a woodland community are rabbits, deer, mice and snails, and insects such as aphids and caterpillars. The herbivores are sometimes eaten by the carnivores. Woodland carnivores are of all sizes, from insects such as beetles and lacewings to animals such as owls, shrews and foxes. Some carnivores feed on herbivores, some feed on the smaller carnivores, while some feed on both: a tawny owl will eat beetles and shrews as well as voles and mice. These food relationships between the different members of the community are known as food chains or food webs. All food chains start with plants. The links of the chain are formed by the herbivores that eat the plants and the carnivores that feed on the herbivores. There are more organisms at the base of the food chain than at the top; for example, there are many more green plants than carnivores in a community. Another important section of the community is made up of the decomposers. They include the bacteria and fungi that live in the soil and feed on dead animals and plants. By doing this they break down the tissues of the dead organisms and release mineral salts into the soil. 123. Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. All the plants in a wood are eaten by animals. B. All the animals in a wood depend on plants for their food supply. C. Plants and animals in a natural community do not interact with their non-living surroundings. D. The balance of a natural community means there is no primary species. 124. The best definition for the word â&#x20AC;&#x153;dominant" in paragraph 1 is ____. A. having the most important position

B. covering the majority of the area

C. providing food for others

D. making up the whole community

125. All of the following statements are true, EXCEPT ____. A. some animals eat other animals

B. plants depend on the sun to grow C. plants depend on the gasses in the atmosphere to grow D. not every food chain starts with plants 126. The word "tissues" in paragraph 2 can be best replaced by ____. A. leaves

B. roots

C. cells

D. trunks

127. Which of the following is NOT an example of carnivores? A. shrew

B. lacewings

C. owl

D. aphids

128. What makes the links in a food chain? A. the plants and the herbivores

B. the herbivores and the carnivores

C. the carnivores and the decomposers

D. the plants and the decomposers

129. Which of the following statements is NOT true? A. Some animals eat plant-eating animals and also flesh-eating animals. B. There are more organism at the base of a food chain than at the top. C. Green plants outnumber carnivores in a food chain. D. The consumers are at the base of a food chain. 130. The word â&#x20AC;&#x153;organism" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ____. A. plants

B. animals

C. herbivores

D. living things

Part VI. WRITING Exercise 11. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 131. â&#x20AC;&#x153;We saw a strange man in the garden," they told their son. A. They told their son that we had seen a strange man in the garden. B. They told their son that they had seen a strange man in the garden. C. They told their son that we saw a strange man in the garden. D. They told their son that they saw a strange man in the garden. 132. â&#x20AC;&#x153;We're staying in tonight," said Emily. A. Emily said that we were staying in tonight.

B. Emily said that they were staying in tonight

C. Emily said that we were staying in that night.

D. Emily said that they were staying in that night.

133. "I've bought a ring," he said to his girlfriend. A. He said his girlfriend that he had bought a ring. B. He said his girlfriend that he bought a ring.

C. He told his girlfriend that he had bought a ring. D. He told his girlfriend that he bought a ring. 134. "We went to work yesterday," she said. A. She said that they had been to work the day before. B. She told that they had been to work the day before. C. She said that they had been to work the following day. D. She said that she had been to work the day before. 135. "Don't swim out too far, boys," he said. A. He encouraged the boys not to swim out too far. B. He advised the boys not to swim out too far. C. He warned the boys not to swim out too far. D. He threatened the boys not to swim out too far. 136. "I'm sorry I couldn't come to your birthday party last Friday, Jane," Bod said. A. Bob is sorry for not coming to Jane's birthday party last Friday. B. Bob apologizes for not coming to Jane's birthday party last Friday. C. Bob makes excuses for not coming to Jane's birthday party last Friday. D. Bob wishes to come to Jane's birthday party last Friday. 137. "Let's go for a walk. We've been working all day,â&#x20AC;? said Joanna. A. Joanna suggested going for a walk because they had been working all day. B. Joanna insisted on going for a walk because they had been working all day. C. Joanna suggested going for a walk because they have been working all day. D. Joanna suggested going for a walk because she had been working all day. 138. "You'd better not waste your time, Tommy," Mum said. A. Mum urged Tommy to waste time.

B. Mum advised Tommy not to waste your time.

C. Mum advised Tommy not to waste his time. D. Mum advised Tommy not to waste her time. 139. â&#x20AC;&#x153;I'll take the children to the park," said the husband to his wife. A. The husband asked the wife to take the children to the park. B. The husband offered to take the children to the park. C. The husband insisted on taking the children to the park. D. The husband requested to take the children to the park. 140."You've broken my CD player, Sam," said Jenny.

A. Jenny charged Sam with having broken her CD player. B. Jenny charged Sam with having broken his CD player. C. Jenny blamed Sam for having broken her CD player. D. Jenny blamed Sam for having broken his CD player.

Unit 10. ECOTOURISM Part I. PHONETICS Exercise 1. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 1. A. culture

B. public

C. sustain

D. butterfly

2. A. pollution

B. coral

C. problem

D. ecology

3. A. discount

B. observe

C. safari

D. scuba-diving

4. A. relax

B. departure

C. benefit

D. interest

5. A. nature

B. manage

C. balance

D. campfire

Exercise 2. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. 6. A. suggest

B. involve

C. travel

D. sustain

7. A. natural

B. safari

C. interest

D. benefit

8. A. butterfly

B. departure

C. tradition

D. protection

9. A. environment

B. ecology

C. sustainable

D. beneficial

10. A. ecotourism

B. relaxation

C. preservation

D. disappointed

Part II. VOCABULARY Exercise 3. Mark the letter A. B. C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 11. You can see different kinds of rare animals in this park. A. priceless

B. half-cooked

C. unlimited

D. limited

C. deduction

D. bonus

12. If you book tickets early, you can get a discount. A. award

B. prize

13. A sustainable forest is a forest where trees that are cut are replanted and the wildlife is protected. A. pre-tested

B. preserved

C. reserved

D. protested

14. When you take part in an eco tour, you learn more about the cultural traditions of the local people and the natural habitat of some rare animals. A. participate

B. conduct

C. enjoy

D. depart

15. Cuting down trees or hunting wild animals may upset the ecological balance of an area. A. strengthen

B. motivate

C. comfort

D. disturb

C. bring about

D. bring away

16. Mass tourism may cause numerous problems. A. bring in

B. bring up

17. I am very much interested in learning more about ecotourism and its benefits. A. problems

B. advantages

C. dangers

D. issues

18. Ecotourism means travel to areas of natural or ecological interest to observe wildlife and learn about the environment. A. look at

B. look up

C. look into

D. look down

19. Mass tourism has contributed to the destruction of the environment. A. organization

B. structure

C. construction

D. devastation

20. A lot of waste from hotels and vehicles is also discharged into the water and air. A. discussed

B. collected

C. released

D. treated

21. Tourists enjoy the beauty of wildlife without harming it. A. fostering

B. damaging

C. protecting

D. preserving

22. To entertain tourists, we have to change our usual foods to suit their tastes or adapt dances and traditions to suit their needs. A. satisfy

B. enjoy

C. attract

D. persuade

C. different

D. meaningless

C. wipe out

D. protect

23. Ecotourism can be beneficial to local people. A. bad

B. good

24. To build hotels, people destroy forests. A. re-plant

B. grow

25. Ecotourism helps tourists learn how to protect the environment. A. damage

B. change

C. adapt

D. save

26. Some farmers in the Mekong Delta have attracted hundreds of foreign visitors to their ecological gardens. A. appealed to

B. refused

C. rejected

D. turned down

27. Our country's natural and cultural potential for ecotourism is well known. A. possibility for failure

B. possibility for victory

C. possibility for loss

D. possibility for achievement

28. Eco tours in our country involve mainly travel to natural places. A. primarily

B. basically

C. initially

D. roughly

29. Their activities are not based on the ecotourism principles. A. principals

B. rules

C. criteria

D. points

30. If tourists throw rubbish or break tree branches, they are heavily fined. A. advanced

B. compensated

C. penalized in money

D. awarded in money

31. Some tourist areas have suffered from some environmental damage. A. covered

B. finished

C. taken

D. undergone

32. Ecotourism activities have had some negative impacts on the environment and people in the area. A. influences

B. factors

C. criteria

D. stimuli

C. heavy

D. acceptable

33. The worst impact is the massive loss of land. A. minimal

B. tiny

34. Ecotourism needs to recruit better educated people, so it won't provide more jobs for the local people. A. reduce

B. offer

C. wipe out

D. add

35. If tourists leave litter after the picnic, they may cause pollution. A. drop

B. depart

C. escape

D. disappear

36. Making a campfire requires cutting down trees for firewood. A. demands

B. fosters

C. encourages

D. prevents

37. Campfires may cause forest fires if they are unattended. A. focused

B. neglected

C. looked after

D. watched

C. death

D. survival

38. Hunting animals may lead to their extinction. A. reduction

B. imprisonment

39. Ecotourism is booming and tour operators say this helps nature. A. decreasing

B. declining

C. falling

D. flourishing

40. Ecotourism is making animals bolder and become less cautious about other animals. A. careful

B. careless

C. reckless

D. foolish

41. If animals become less careful about other animals, they are at risk of being attacked by their natural predators. A. helped

B. harmed

C. protected

D. saved

42. Ecotourism is a unique way for travellers to engage in sustainable tourism while vacationing. A. disconnect

B. promise to marry

C. join

D. catch

Exercise 4. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 43. The United Nations has declared the celebration of the International Day of Ecotourism, to promote sustainable practices in this growing industry. A. favour

B. raise

C. boost

D. delay

44. In order for ecotourism to be categorized as successful, it must involve local populations in the program.

A. exclude

B. comprise

C. engage

D. relate

43. Venice has suggested imposing a tax on all visitors to help pay for restoration of the ancient buildings. A. introducing

B. removing

C. levying

D. lessening

46. There are 1.6 billion tourists roaming the world, and the impact of tourism can be devastating. A. disastrous

B. nondestructive

C. ruinous

D. devastative

47. "Green" tourists or "eco-tourists" are upset by the effects of mass tourism. A. tense

B. troubled

C. nervous

D. relaxed

48. How many people can visit the Galapagos Islands off the coast of Ecuador without affecting the ecological balance? A. keeping intact

B. influencing

C. troubling

D. causing disturbance

49. It may become necessary for the United Nations to work out international agreements and strict environmental controls on the tourist industry. A. tight

B. loose

C. exact

D. accurate

50. Researchers believe tourists disrupt animals in their natural habitat. A. disturb

B. confuse

C. organize

D. mix up

Part III. GRAMMAR Exercise 5. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 51. If businesses want to protect the environment, they will aid the local community and educating travellers. A

52. Nowadays, many of us tried to live in a way that will damage the environment as little as possible. A

53. Ecotourism must benefits the local people and involve the local community. A

54. Ecotourism must be sustainable, that is make a profit without destroy natural resources. A

55. Ecotourism must provide an experiences that tourists want to pay for. A

56. In a true ecotourism project, a nature reserve allows a small number of tourists to visiting its rare animals A

and uses the money that is generated to continue with important. C

57. The local people have jobs in the nature reserve as guides and wardens and also has a voice in how the A

project develops. 58. Tourists stay in local houses with local people, not in special built hotels. A

59. Tourists experience the local culture and do not take precious energy and water away from the locally A

population. 60. Tourists travel by foot, by boat, bicycle or elephant so that there is no pollution. A

61. Ecotourism brings tourists a specially experience that they will remember all of their lives. A

62. This type of tourism can only involve small number of people so it can be expensive. A

63. Tourists can apply to the principles of ecotourism wherever they go for their holiday. A

64. Tourists should learn about the place that they going to visit. A

65. Have respect for local culture by wearing clothes that will not offend local people and ask them for A

permission before you take a photograph. D 66. Remember the phrase "Leave nothing behind you except footprints and taking nothing away except A

photographsâ&#x20AC;?. Exercise 6. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 67. If you buy souvenirs made from endangered animals or plants, you ____ contribute to making them become extinct. A. would

B. might

C. could

D. are

68. You ____ help the local people if you buy local products whenever possible and pay a fair price for what you buy. A. could

B. would

C. wouldnâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;t

D. will

69. If you want to help, remember ____ or use other non-polluting forms of transport whenever you can. A. to walk

B. walk

C. walking

D. walked

70. Eco-tourists should be flexible and keep a sense of humour when ____ things wrong. A. went

B. goes

C. go

D. going

71. Don't be afraid ____ the holiday company about what they do that is 'eco'. A. about asking

B. to asking

C. asking

D. to ask

72. â&#x20AC;&#x153;Eco" is very fashionable today and a lot of holidays that ____ as ecotourism are not much better than traditional tourism. A. advertise

B. are advertised

C. are advertising

D. advertising

73. The damage to local communities, customs and crafts that results ____ the arrival of huge groups of tourists. A. to

B. from

C. in

D. for

74. The travel industry should work with local councils and government agencies to agree ____ realistic standards for planning and development in tourist areas. A. upon

B. with

C. at

D. for

75. It may become necessary for the United Nations to work ____ international agreements and strict environmental controls on the tourist industry. A. against

B. on

C. with

D. out

76. Ecotourism is defined as responsible travel ____ natural areas that conserves the environment and sustains the well-being of local people. A. about

B. in

C. to

D. for

77. Ecotourism is a booming business ____ many tour operators cite as being helpful to nature. A. who

B. that

C. whose

D. where

78. Every year, millions of people descend ____ protected and pristine natural areas to observe rare species. A. on

B. at

C. in

D. to

79. A number of reports have cast doubt ____ the value of ecotourism. A. with

B. about

C. in

D. on

80. It's hard to deny that humanity has played a pretty big role in changing nature ____ the worse. A. with

B. to

C. for

D. at

81. There will be some unforeseen consequences to the environment if we ____ ecotourism projects properly.

A. didn't manage

B. don't manage

C. couldn't manage

D. wouldn't manage

82. If tourists win the trust of animals, they ____ put wild creatures in danger by encouraging them to relax with their natural predators. A. will

B. would

C. could

D. had

83. Ecotourism may become popular as people look for ways to get really close ____ exotic wildlife while keeping a clear conscience. A. at

B. in

C. to

D. with

84. Gorillas and penguins are among the species most susceptible ____ ecotourism because they have a strong tendency to relax in the presence of humans. A. to

B. in

C. by

D. with

85. As animals ____ to feeling comfortable with humans, they may become bolder. A. will get used

B. get used

C. got used

D. could get used

86. Professor Blumstein says that ecotourism is similar ____ domesticating or urbanizing the animals. A. with

B. as

C. to

D. like

87. Animals' regular interactions with people may lead ____ a kind of taming. A. up

B. in

C. for

D. to

88. Domesticated animals are less responsive ____ stimulated predatory attacks. A. to

B. with

C. on

D. at

89. Animals will take more time to flee from danger if they ____ in cities and are bolder. A. will

B. live

C. would live

D. could live

90. Ecotourism in distant and remote spots around the planet is getting more popular ____ tourists and tour guides. A. to

B. on

C. with

D. between

Part IV. SPEAKING Exercise 7. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges. Two friends Nam and Lan are talking about the topic of ecotourism. 91. Nam: "How important is tourism to our country?" Lan: â&#x20AC;&#x153;____â&#x20AC;? A. More and more companies are advertising about ecotourism. B. It really helps to create more jobs for a lot of people. C. Tourism is also an industry. D. It is hard to develop without learning about tourism.

92. Lan: "Would you like to work in tourism?" Nam: “____” A. The number of tourists to our country is increasing. B. Everyone wants to be employed. C. It's always been my dream to work as a tour guide. D. Being a tour guide, you can lead an interesting life. 93. Nam: "What do you think tourism will be like in the future?" Lan: “____” A. I guess there will be various forms of tourism. B. I've always interested in tourism industry. C. It's not easy to find a job in tourism these days. D. More females than males work in tourism industry. 94. Lan: "What do you think of the idea of space tourism?" Nam: “____” A. I'm thinking about ecotourism benefits. B. Space exploration has brought numerous changes. C. Rich people tend to spend more money on travelling. D. It might be a profitable industry in the future. 95. Nam: "Do you think ecotourism is a good idea?” Lan: “____” A. Certainly. A lot of people may benefit from this kind of tourism. B. Ecotourism is getting more and more popular. C. Ecotourism is a hot topic these days. D. Business people need a good idea to start up. 96. Nam: “Do you think tourism helps people in the world understand each other?" Lan: “____” A. It is important for people in the world to understand each other. B. Wars may end when people understand each other. C. People need sympathy to understand each other. D. Definitely. Tourism helps people to get to know more about different cultures.

97. Nam: "Is tourism something that only rich people can take part in?" Lan: "____” A. Rich people tend to spend luxurious holidays. B. Not really. So many cheap holidays are being offered these days. C. Cheap holidays give you a chance to travel to more places. D. Places of attractions are always full of visitors. 98. Nam: "What factors affect tourism?" Lan: “____” A. Economic factors are always decisive ones. B. A strong tourism industry brings the country numerous advantages. C. It is influenced by so many things, such as weather, people, and administrative policies. D. People need to be professionally trained to work in tourism industry. 99. Nam: "Do you think tourism is bad for the planet?" Lan: “____” A. To some extent, yes, especially when tourists travel by plane. B. People need to live in a green planet. C. A lot of people want to travel around the planet. D. We should protect our planet from bad tourism. 100. Nam: “What do you think about tourists in our country?" Lan: “____” A. There are tourists coming from other countries as well. B. Our country is a favourite destination for many tourists. C. The numbers of visitors to our country is increasing. D. Well, most of them behave appropriately, but some are still very rude. 101. Lan: “How has tourism changed over the past few decades?” Nam: “____” A. Tourism is also considered as an industry. B. In general, people without skills are at risk of being unemployed. C. There have been new types of tourism, and tourists have become more responsible. D. Ecotourism is not always beneficial to the local people.

102. Lan: “Are you a good ambassador for our country's tourism industry?" Nam: “____” A. Tourism industry really needs good ambassadors. B. I hope so. I've always tried to get more people to know about tourist destinations in our country. C. A number of people have been chosen as tourism ambassadors. D. Tourism ambassadors really need to be good at communication skills. 103. Lan: "Which places in our country do visitors enjoy visiting the most?”. Nam: “____” A. It depends. Foreign visitors often like places such as Sa Pa or Ha Long Bay. B. Our country is famous for many tourist attractions and friendly people. C. Not all visitors are well-informed about places of attraction. D. Tourism industry needs to work harder to boost the tourist destinations. 104. Nam: "What are some of the benefits of going away on holiday?” Lan: “____” A. Going away on holiday is getting more and more popular. B. Ecotourism brings a number of benefits to the local people. C. It is always expensive if people go to a place of tourist attractions. D. We may broaden our horizons and experience new cultures. 105. Lan: "Do you always like to go to the same place for your holiday?” Nam: “____” A. It is strange that some people go to the same place again and again. B. I don't think so. I always like to experience different places. C. Preference for certain places is still common among a number of tourists. D. Different places have different attractions. Part V. READING Exercise 8. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word that best fits each of the numbered blanks. Ecotourism is booming and many tour operators say this is helpful to nature. Every year, millions of people visit protected (106) ____ areas to observe rare species. However, a new report casts doubt (107) ____ this form of tourism. The report, (108) ____ in the journal "Trends in Ecology and Evolution", suggests that ecotourism damages more than (109) ____ nature. Researchers believe tourists disrupt animals in their natural (110) ____. They point to a recent (111) ____ in Costa Rica where turtles had problems laying their eggs because of the many tourists who had gathered (112) ____ the beach to watch them.

The report says that ecotourism is (113) ____ animals bolder. A human presence makes animals tamer and less (114) ____ about other animals. This could put them at (115) ____ of being attacked by their natural predators, so more of them will be killed. The report says that when animals interact with humans, "they may let (116) ____ their guardâ&#x20AC;?. The report also says it is essential, â&#x20AC;&#x153;to develop a more comprehensive understanding of how different species in different situations (117) ____ to human visitation, and under what precise conditions human exposure might put them at risk". 106. A. nature

B. natural

C. naturally

D. naturism

107. A. about

B. for

C. with

D. on

108. A. publicized

B. publicizing

C. published

D. publishing

109. A. helps

B. help

C. helpful

D. helpless

110. A. habitable

B. habitation

C. habit

D. habitat

111. A. even

B. event

C. eventful

D. eventual

112. A. over

B. in

C. on

D. to

113. A. making

B. changing

C. adapting

D. altering

114. A. cautiously

B. cautiousness

C. caution

D. cautious

115. A. chance

B. risk

C. work

D. once

116. A. up

B. in

C. down

D. on

117. A. respond

B. response

C. responsive

D. respondent

Exercise 9. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Tourism will always have an impact on the places visited. Sometimes the impact is good, but often it is negative. For example, if lots of people visit one place, then this can damage the environment. The question is how can we minimize the problems without preventing people from travelling and visiting places? The main aim of ecotourism is to reduce the negative impact that tourism has on the environment and local people. The idea is to encourage tourists to think about what they do when they visit a place. It's great to talk about protecting the environment, but how do you actually do this? There are a number of key points. Tourists shouldn't drop litter, they should stay on the paths, they shouldn't interfere with wildlife and they should respect local customs and traditions. Some people see ecotourism as a contradiction. They say that any tourism needs infrastructure - roads, airports and hotels. The more tourists that visit a place, the more of these are needed and, by building more of these, you can't avoid damaging the environment. But, of course, things aren't so black and white. Living in a place of natural beauty doesn't mean that you shouldn't benefit from things like better roads. As long as the improvements benefit the local people and not just the tourists, and the local communities are consulted on plans and changes, then is there really a problem? In 2002 the United Nations celebrated the "International Year of Ecotourism". Over the past twenty years, more and more people have started taking eco-holidays. In countries such as Ecuador, Nepal, Costa Rica and Kenya, ecotourism represents a significant proportion of the tourist industry.

118. What is the main idea of the passage? A. A brief introduction about ecotourism

B. Some Dos for ecotourists

C. Some Don'ts for ecotourists

D. Benefits and drawbacks of ecotoursim

119. In paragraph 1, the word "it" refers to ____. A. tourism

B. environment

C. impact

D. damage

120. According to the passage, what does the ecotourism aim at? A. stopping ecotourism altogether

B. reducing the tourism problems

C. preventing tourists from travelling

D. finding a new form of tourism

121. According to the passage, which of the following is not mentioned as an activity to protect the environment? A. not littering

B. not interfering with wildlife

C. respecting local customs and traditions

D. not hunting animals for food

122. In paragraph 4, the word "avoid" is closest in meaning to ____. A. present

B. pretend

C. prevent

D. protest

123. Which of the following is TRUE about the author's opinion? A. Building extra infrastructure in ecotourism areas must be prohibited. B. New infrastructure could be accepted as long as it also helps local people. C. Tourists are consulted about the plans to build new infrastructure. D. Governments are consulted about the plans to build new infrastructure, Exercise 10. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Ecotourism is a unique way for travellers to engage in sustainable tourism while vacationing. Throughout the years, specific "Eco" organizations, including Eco-resorts, wurs, and Non-Governmental Organizations, have developed across the globe. This specific type of tourism is now increasingly becoming one of the more popular, with growth rates increasing every year. The United Nations, aware of the fact that tourism could be one of the most detrimental activities if not planned in accordance with the threshold imposed by nature, has declared the celebration of the International Day of Ecotourism, to promote sustainable practices in this growing industry. Recently, The Division for Sustainable Development, Small Island Developing States Unit, decided that in preparation for the International Day of Ecotourism, it would be beneficial to identify successful practices of ecotourism on small islands. In order for ecotourism to be categorized as successful, it must meet the following criteria: it must combine natural and cultural tourism; it must involve local populations in the program, including providing educational resources to the local community; it must identity, manage, and conserve the natural and cultural environment, as well as the resources on the island; it must generate practices that will lead to the future sustainability of the island. If these criteria are followed by an organization, it deserves to be recognized as successful.

In order to locate these certain organizations, the SIDS Unit started a thoughtful internet search for ecotourism organizations. The focus was on four different categories: Eco-resorts and hotels, Eco-tours, NonGovernmental Organizations involved in ecotourism, and Government Codes of Conduct and Guidelines regarding ecotourism for travellers. Once an Internet-site that filled the criteria was located, further contact with the organizations was initiated, enabling us to obtain further information directly from the source. Many of the organizations were delighted to correspond with us and are eager to show all that their organization has achieved. The stories presented come from across the globe and vary in success levels. While all of the organizations engage in practicing ecotourism, some focus in different areas than others. This is due to a various number of reasons, including the size of an organization, length of time the organization has been in existence, amount of funding available, and economic/political situations occurring on the island. However, it is important to recognize that although some ecotourism organizations are more developed than others, the ultimate goal of sustainable development, conservation and education through ecotourism remains consistent. 124. What is the main idea of the passage? A. Ecotourism and its related issues

B. Sustainable development

C. Environment pollution and its causes

D. Job opportunities for local people

125. In paragraph 1, the word "detrimental" is closest in meaning to ____. A. constructive

B. destructive

C. supportive

D. beneficial

126. Why has the United Nations declared the celebration of the International Day of Ecotourism? A. to raise people's awareness about ecotourism B. to encourage more people to experience ecotourism C. to boost sustainable practices in ecotourism D. to stop ecotourism services completely 127. In paragraph 2, the word "categorized" is closest in meaning to ____. A. prioritized

B. typified

C. examined

D. classified

128. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT metioned as a criterion for successful ecotourism? A. combination of natural and cultural tourism B. local populations' involvement in the program C. conservation of the natural and cultural environment D. improvement in the infrastructure for more tourist attraction 129. In paragraph 3, the word â&#x20AC;&#x153;theirâ&#x20AC;? refers to ____. A. organisations'

B. travellers'

C. hotels'

D. guidelines'

130. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason for the differences in organizations' focuses?

A. How big the organization is. B. How long the organization has been in existence C. How much money is available to the organization. D. How much the organization is supported. Part VI. WRITING Exercise 11. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 131. Eco-travellers have to prevent or minimize any negative impacts on the environment. A. Eco-travellers are not required to protect the environment. B. Eco-travellers are encouraged not to have any negative impacts on the environment. C. It is eco-travellers' responsibility to prevent or minimize any negative impacts on the environment. D. Eco-travellers have never had any negative impacts on the environment. 132. Our aim is to provide tourists with the principles of ecotourism throughout their trip. A. Tourists provide us with the principles of ecotourism throughout their trip. B. We aim at providing the principles of ecotourism for tourists throughout their trip. C. We provide ourselves with the principles of ecotourism through our trip. D. We need more information about the principles of ecotourism for our trip. 133. You should choose your travel provider on the basis of their eco principles and practices before you go. A. You are advised to choose your travel provider on the basis of their eco principles and practices before your departure. B. You are obliged to choose your travel provider on the basis of their eco principles and practices before your departure. C. You are required to choose your travel provider on the basis of their eco principles and practices before your departure. D. You have to choose your travel provider on the basis of their eco principles and practices before your departure. 134. It is necessary for you to educate yourself about the destination you are visiting by reading guidebooks and travel articles. A. You don't have to educate yourself about the destination you are visiting by reading guidebooks and travel articles. B. You aren't required to educate yourself about the destination you are visiting by reading guidebooks and travel articles. C. You should educate yourself about the destination you are visiting by reading guidebooks and travel articles.

D. You may object to educating yourself about the destination you are visiting by reading guidebooks and travel articles. 135. It is compulsory for the tourists to learn about the vital eco-systems before arriving. A. Tourists are free to learn about the vital eco-systems before arriving. B. It is optional for tourists to learn about the vital eco-systems before arriving. C. Tourists are not required to learn about the vital eco-systems before arriving. D. Tourists are required to learn about the vital eco-systems before arriving. Exercise 12. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 136. You can't remove any products from the nature. It is illegal. A. You can't remove any products from the nature, so it is illegal. B. Because you can't remove any products from the nature, it is illegal. C. You can't remove any products from the nature because it is illegal. D. You can't remove any products from the nature unless it is illegal. 137. You should try to limit the use of natural resources. They are running out in many tourist destinations. A. You should try to limit the use of natural resources unless they are running out in many tourist destinations. B. Because you try to limit the use of natural resources, they are running out in many tourist destinations. C. You should try to limit the use of natural resources, so they are running out in many tourist destinations. D. Natural resources are running out in many tourist destinations, so you should try to limit their use. 138. We don't allow the local people to hunt endangered species for our consumption. They will become extinct sooner. A. We don't allow the local people to hunt endangered species for our consumption, so they will become extinct sooner. B. If we allowed the local people to hunt endangered species for our consumption, they would become extinct sooner. C. We don't allow the local people to hunt endangered species for our consumption unless they will become extinct sooner. D. They will become extinct sooner if we don't allow the local people to hunt endangered species for our consumption. 139. You stay in locally owned accommodation and buy products from local people. You will support local community.

A. You will support local community if you stay in locally owned accommodation and buy products from local people. B. You will support local community unless you stay in locally owned accommodation and buy products from local people. C. You stay in locally owned accommodation and buy products from local people because you will support local community. D. You stay in locally owned accommodation and buy products from local people only if you will support local community. 140. Living areas are damaged or destroyed. They might not be available to future generations. A. Living areas are damaged or destroyed because they might not be available to future generations. B. Living areas are damaged or destroyed, but they might be available to future destroyed. C. Living areas might not be available to future generations if they are damaged or destroyed. D. Living areas might not be available to future generations unless they are damaged or destroyed.

Unit 1. THE GENERATION GAP Part I. PHONETICS Exercise 1. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. 1. A. access

B. afford

C. brochure

D. casual

2. A. behaviour

B. determined

C. counselor

D. decisive

3. A. donate

B. compare

C. campaign

D. flashy

4. A. experience

B. mobility

C. independent

D. prioritise

5. A. romantic

B. solution

C. protective

D. elegant

6. A. legal

B. obey

C. forbid

D. impose

7. A. constitution

B. disrespectful

C. sympathetic

D. elongated

8. A. generational

B. interpersonal

C. discrimination

D. nationality

9. A. studious

B. unite

C. mature

D. involve

10. A. frustrating

B. charity

C. impairment

D. infectious

Part II. VOCABULARY Exercise 2. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 11. I live in a/an ____ with my parents and my elder sister in the coastal area. A. extended family

B. nuclear family

C. extended house

D. nuclear house

12. One advantage of living in a/an ____ is to strengthen relationship between young children and adults. A. nuclear family

B. nuclear house

C. extended family

D. extended house

13. In my opinion, family members are responsible for ____. A. the housework

B. the chores

C. homework

D. A and B

14. My grandpa is the most conservative person in my family. He never ____ about way of life. A. gives his opinion

B. changes his mind

C. gives his view

D. keeps in mind

15. After graduating from university, I want to ____ my father's footsteps. A. follow in

B. succeed in

C. go after

D. keep up

16. In a nuclear family, both mother and father have responsibility for housekeeping and ____. A. child care

B. homework

C. childcare

D. generation gap

17. Four generations living in the same roof will have different ____ of lifestyle. A. gaps

B. rules

C. manners

D. viewpoints

18. Luckily, my parents are always willing to listen to my new ideas. They're very ____. A. narrow-minded

B. open-minded

C. elegant

D. careful

19. My mother ____ me from going home after 10 p.m. every day. A. forbids

B. allows

C. lets

D. All are correct

20. Anna often dresses ____ when going to the parties in order to attract her friends' attention. A. plainly

B. properly

C. flashily

D. soberly

21. We're surprised by Joe's ____ every Monday. He changes it at least 4 times a month. A. hairstyle

B. lifestyle

C. viewpoint

D. manner

22. I rarely eat ____ and drink ____ because they're not food for health. A. snack/energy drink

B. fast food/juice

C. fruit/alcoholic drink

D. junk food/soft drink

23. Generation ____ is the difference in the thoughts and viewpoints amongst generations living together. A. distance

B. gap

C. space.

D. All are correct

24. I was tired and couldn't ____ on doing my research project properly. A. concentrate

B. look

C. pay attention

D. Both A and C

25. My parents don't let me get married until I graduate from university and they never ____ their mind about that. A. keep

B. impose

C. focus

D. change

26. The ____ arises when Jack and his parents have considerable disagreement on his choice of university. A. discrimination

B. conflict

C. agreement

D. gap

27. I do morning exercise and play volleyball regularly so as to keep ____ and be healthier. A. fit

B. good shape

C. healthy

D. strong

28. Since the family law was implemented, domestic violence has been a rare ____ in this area. A. happen

B. taking place

C. occurrence

D. happenstance

29. My father used to ____ a lot of challenges before establishing his own insurance company. A. provide

B. enjoy

C. give

D. face

30. I wish I could do something to reduce financial ____ on my parents. A. capital

B. burden

C. limit

D. gap

Exercise 3. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 31. Despite being a kid, Tuan always helps his mother do the chores every day. A. homework

B. works

C. housework

D. house duties

32. When I was a child, my mother used to teach me table manners. A. etiquette

B. rule

C. problem

D. norm

33. Many parents find it hard to understand their children when they are teenagers. A. adults

B. elders

C. adolescents

D. kids

34. There're many problems which are unavoidable when living in an extended family. A. profits

B. issues

C. views

D. merits

35. Mary has a strong desire to make independent decisions. A. dependent

B. self-confident

C. self-confessed

D. self-determining

36. My mother mistakenly believes that my fashion style breaks the norm of society. A. routine

B. barrier

C. rule

37. I always look at this matter from a different viewpoint.

D. conflict

A. point of view

B. view from point

C. idea

D. opinion

C. cheaply

D. fashionably

38. We find it unattractive when dress flashily. A. luxuriantly

B. ostentatiously

39. Consuming too much junk food increases the risk of obesity. A. decrease

B. reduce

C. rise

D. raise

40. I feel extremely depressed as conflict occurs frequently amongst generations in my family. A. comes on

B. comes up

C. comes in

D. comes into

Exercise 4. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 41. If you live in an extended family, you'll have great joy and get support of other members. A. close family

B. traditional family

C. nuclear family

D. large family

42. Our mother encourages us to be open-minded about new opinions and experiences A. optimistic

B. elegant

C. close-knit

D. narrow-minded

43. Domestic violence is strictly forbidden all over the world. A. permitted

B. limited

C. restricted

D. prohibited

44. Jane found herself in conflict with her parents over her future career. A. disagreement

B. harmony

C. controversy

D. fighting

45. I can't concentrate on my work because of the noise caused by my children. A. focus

B. abandon

C. neglect

D. allow

46. My grandpa's point of view about marriage remains conservative. A. progressive

B. traditional

C. retrogressive

D. conventional

47. Finally, I decide to follow in my father's footsteps to work in state-owned enterprise. A. private-owned

B. public limited

C. privately-owned

D. government-owned

48. My grandma usually takes care of us when my parents are away on business. A. follows

B. abandons

C. concerns

D. bothers

49. We greatly respect my teacher for all of the best things that she brought to us. A. look up to

B. look forwards

C. look for

D. look down on

50. I regretted not to buy those trendy shoes through lack of money. A. shortage

B. abundance

C. scarcity

D. deficiency

Part III. GRAMMAR Exercise 5. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 51. All students ____ wear uniforms at school because it is a rule. A. should

B. have to

C. ought to

D. must

52. You ____ finish your homework before you go to bed. A. must

B. have to

C. should

D. ought to

53. This drink isn't beneficial for health. You ____ drink it too much. A. should

B. ought to not

C. ought not to

54. This warning sign indicates that you ____ step on the grass.

D. mustn't

A. shouldn't

B. mustn't

C. don't have to

D. ought not to

55. I think you ____ do exercise regularly in order to keep your body in good shape. A. must

B. should

C. ought to

D. Both B and C

56. I will lend you some money, but you ____ pay it back to me next week. A. should

B. have to

C. must

D. mustn't

57. Hoa ____ feed the cats because her mother has done it already. A. has to

B. doesn't have to

C. must

D. Both A and C

58. Those audiences ____ show their tickets before entering the concert hall. A. have to

B. must

C. ought to

D. don't have to

59. The children ____ spend too much time playing computer games. A. mustn't

B. ought to not

C . shouldn't

D. Both B and C

60. In case you're suffered from the injury, you ____ see the doctor today. A. had better

B. must

C. ought

D. have better

61. Water park is free for kids under 6 years old, so you ____ pay money for your son. A. have to

B. mustn't

C. should

D. don't have to

62. You look totally exhausted. You ____ take a rest instead of working overtime. A. should

B. ought

C. must

D. has better

63. Anyone ____ have a passport, even a visa when travelling all around the world. A. ought to

B. must

C. should

D. has to

64. In the peak season, travellers ____ book their accommodation in advance. A. have to

B. must

C. should

D. ought

65. My car broke down yesterday, so I ____ catch a taxi to the office. A. have to

B. had better

C. had to

D. has to

66. We ____ eat as much fruit as possible in order to get enough vitamins for our bodies. A. had better

B. should

C. ought to

D. All are correct

67. You ____ tell anyone what I've revealed to you. It's still a secret. A. mustn't

B. had better not

C. ought not to

D. don't have to

68. If you still want to maintain this relationship, you ____ behave improperly like that. A. ought to not

B. ought not to

C. mustn't

D. don't have to

69. When playing or swimming in the pool, children ____ be accompanied by their parents. A. should

B. must

C. don't have to

D. have to

70. We ____ go to work by car. Sky train is a wise choice during rush hour. A. ought to

B. mustn't

C. shouldn't

D. have to

Exercise 6. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 71. I will leave the party early because I must studying for my exam. A

72. I stayed up late last night because I mustn't go to school on Sunday. A

73. We ought to not play football as it's raining outside. A

74. You mustn't to drive a car if you don't have a driving licence. A

75. If you want some useful advice, you have better talk to your parents about your problem. A

76. I had stay at home 3 days due to snowing heavily. A

77. Because of his poverty, he has to struggling to make ends meet. A

78. According to the rules of this game, you had better not drop the ball. A

79. If you want to get a higher mark in the next test, you have better put more effort into vocabulary. A

80. We shouldn't make an appointment with this doctor. You can see him whenever you want. A

81. Look at the sky, it is going to rain. Thus, you must bring along a raincoat. A

82. I ought to go home now because I don't want to walk in the dark. A

83. As our teacher said yesterday, we ought to not worry about the mid-term test. Take it easy. A

84. This competition is optional, so we not have to take part in it. A

85. Despite having a little chance to win, you should give up your dream of becoming a star. A

86. The professor told me that we should give this assignment in by Thursday at the latest. A

87. What you should do now is to make slides for the presentation tomorrow as we have a little time left. A

88. You have to apply for this position as soon as possible since it has only three vacancies. A

89. Ms. Anna will give a fascinating lecture at 8 a.m., so you should be here at 7.45 to check in. A

90. My advice is you have to consider carefully before making the final decision. A

Part IV. SPEAKING Exercise 7. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges. 91. Would you mind if I opened the windows? It's too stuffy in here. A. Yes, of course.

B. No, please do.

C. I think it is OK.

D. You look so tired.

92. Could you show me how to get to the nearest train station from here? A. I'm not certain but it's maybe at the end of the street. B. I totally agree with you. C. Sorry, I never know you. D. I'm busy. now. 93. From my point of view, all family members should share the chores equally. A. It's a breathtaking view.

B. You lied to me.

C. But you're right.

D. There's no doubt about it.

94. I've been awarded a scholarship to Harvard University. A. Just kidding!

B. It's up to you.

C. Good job!

D. Same to you. Thanks!

95. Don't forget to finish your homework before class. A. I'll do it later.

B. Not much.

C. It's quite difficult.

D. Thank you for reminding me.

96. Thanks a lot for helping me fix the car yesterday. A. I'd love to.

B. You're welcome.

C. Of course not.

D. I like it.

97. I've seen John at the workshop on communication skills. A. I see. I'll call him. B. The workshop was very useful. C. That can't be John because he's in Paris now. D. No, I don't think so. 98. How do I sign up for the psychology course? A. You need to fill in the online application form first. B. It's not yours. C. The course was full. D. Your deadline is May 15. 99. What's about going to the waterpark? A. That's a good idea.

B. That's right.

C. Of course!

D. I'm sorry I can't.

100. Hi, I'd like to buy three tickets for the Lost in Fear. A. How many tickets?

B. I'm sorry. They were sold out.

C. We don't like this film.

D. You should see other interesting films.

101. Do you enjoy buying souvenirs? A. No, I don't.

B. No, thank you!

C. Never mind.

D. No, I am not.

102. Which show would you like to watch, madam? A. Here you are!

B. No, thanks.

103. What did you do on Sunday?

C. I am sorry.

D. Pardon?

A. No way!

B. Not much.

C. It was great.

D. I don't care.

C. I can't do it.

D. I can't wait for it.

104. I love listening to rock n' roll. How about you? A. I can't stand it.

B. I can't help it.

105. What's wrong with the shirt you bought last week? A. Oh! What a beautiful shirt!

B.I wore it last night.

C. The zip has come off.

D. I've the receipt.

Part V. READING Exercise 8. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. Fathers in today families are spending more time with their children than at any point in the past 100 years. (106) ____ the number of hours the average woman spends at home with her children has declined since the early 1900s, as more and more women enter the workforce, there has been a decrease in the number of children per family and an increase in (107) ____ attention to each child. As a result, mothers today in the United States, (108) ____ those who work part- or full-time, spend almost twice as much time with each child as mothers did in the 1920s. People (109) ____ raised children in the 1940s and 1950s typically report that their own adult children and grandchildren communicate far better with their kids and spend more time (110) ____ with homework than they did. America's children are also safer today than they've (111) ____ been. An infant was four times more likely to die in the 1950s than today. A parent then was 27 per cent more likely to lose an older teen (112) ____ death. If we look back over the last millennium, we can see that families have always been diverse. In each period, families have solved one set of problems only to face new (113) ____. What works for a family in one economic and cultural setting doesn't work for a family in another. What's helpful (114) ____ one stage of a family's life may be (115) ____ at the next stage. If there is one lesson to be (116) ____ from the last millennium of family history, it's that families always have to (117) ____ with a changing world. 106. A. Although

B. However

C. Unless

D. Besides

107. A. isolated

B. individual

C. unique

D. single

108. A. adding

B. counting

C. taking

D. including

109. A. whom

B. which

C. who

D. when

110. A. helping

B. to help

C. help

D. on help

111. A. never

B. already

C. ever

D. just

112. A. in

B. for

C. to

D. with

113. A. challanger

B. challenges

C. challenging

D. challenged

114. A. at

B. for

C. in

D. by

115. A. destruction

B. destroying

C. destroyed

D. destructive

116. A. drawing

B. drawn

C. draw

D. drew

117. A. put up

B. live up

C. go up

D. catch up

Exercise 9. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Stella McCartney was born in 1972, the daughter of pop star Sir Paul McCartney. She is the youngest of three sisters. One sister is a potter and the other sister does the same job as their mother used to do - she works as a photographer. Stella's brother, James, is a musician. Stella first hit the newspaper headlines in 1995 when she graduated in fashion design from art college. At her final show, her clothes were modeled by her friends, Naomi Campbell and Kate Moss, both well-known models. Unsurprisingly, the student show became front-page news around the world. Stella hadn't been in the news before as a fashion designer but she had spent time working in the fashion world since she was fifteen. In March 1997, Stella went to work for the fashion house Chloe. People said the famous fashion house had given her the job because of her surname and her famous parents but Stella soon showed how good she was. She designs clothes which she would like to wear herself, although she's not a model, and many famous models and actors choose to wear them. In 2001 Stella started her own fashion house and has since opened stores around the world and won many prizes. A lifelong vegetarian, McCartney does not use any leather or fur in her design. Instead, she uses silk, wool and other animal-derived fabrics. 118. Which of the following is NOT true about Stella's family? A. She has three sisters.

B. One of her sisters is a photographer.

C. She is the youngest.

D. Her father is a famous singer.

119. Stella, Naomi Campbell and Kate Moss ____. A. met for the first time at her fashion show

B. are very famous fashion models

C. had been friends before 1995

D. all performed at the final show in 1995

120. Which of the following is TRUE about the show? A. Everyone was surprised when Stella's show was successful. B. The models performed clothes designed by Stella. C. The show was the last show of Stella. D. There was no one famous appearing in the show. 121. Stella thinks about the kinds of clothes that ____. A. famous people like to wear

B. she likes to wear

C. well-known models perform beautifully

D. bring her prizes

122. The word â&#x20AC;&#x153;lifelongâ&#x20AC;? in the passage is closest in meaning to ____. A. permanent

B. inconstant

C. temporary

D. changing

Exercise 10. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. In American, although most men still do less housework than their wives, that gap has been halved since the 1960s. Today, 41 per cent of couples say they share childcare equally, compared with 25 percent in 1985. Men's greater involvement at home is good for their relationships with their spouses, and also good for their children. Hands-on fathers make better parents than men who let their wives do all the

nurturing and childcare. They raise sons who are more expressive and daughters who are more likely to do well in school - especially in math and science. In 1900, life expectancy in the United States was 47 years, and only four per cent of the population was 65 or older. Today, life expectancy is 76 years, and by 2025, it is estimated about 20 per cent of the U.S. population will be 65 or older. For the first time, a generation of adults must plan for the needs of both their parents and their children. Most Americans are responding with remarkable grace. One in four households gives the equivalent of a full day a week or more in unpaid care to an aging relative, and more than half say they expect to do so in the next 10 years. Older people are less likely to be impoverished or incapacitated by illness than in the past, and have more opportunity to develop a relationship with their grandchildren. Even some of the choices that worry people the most are turning out to be manageable. Divorce rates are likely to remain high, and in many cases marital breakdown causes serious problems for both adults and kids. Yet when parents minimize conflict, family bonds can be maintained. And many families are doing this. More non-custodial parents are staying in touch with their children. Child-support receipts are rising. A lower proportion of children from divorced families are exhibiting problems than in earlier decades. And stepfamilies are learning to maximize children's access to supportive adults rather than cutting them off from one side of the family. 123. Which of the following can be the most suitable heading for paragraph 1? A. Men's involvement at home B. Benefits of men's involvement at home C. Drawbacks of men's involvement at home D. Children studying math and science 124. Nowadays, ____ of men help take care of children. A. 50%

B. 41%

C. 25%

D. 20%

125. According to the writer, old people in the USA ____. A. are experiencing a shorter life expectancy B. receive less care from their children than they used to C. have better relationships with their children and grandchildren D. may live in worst living conditions 126. Which of the following is NOT true about divorce rates in the USA? A. They will still be high. B. They can cause problems for both parents and children. C. More problems are caused by children from divorced families. D. Children are encouraged to meet their separate parents. 127. The word "equivalentâ&#x20AC;? in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ____. A. comparable

B. opposed

C. dissimilar

D . constrasting

128. The word "manageableâ&#x20AC;? in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ____. A. difficult

B. challenging

C. demanding

D. easy

129. The word “this” in the paragraph 3 refers to ____. A. getting divorced

B. minimizing conflict

C. causing problems to kids

D. maintaining bonds

130. According to the writer, the future of American family life can be ____. A. positive

B. negative

C. unchanged

D. unpredictable

Part VI. WRITING Exercise 11. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 131. Nobody in the class is as tall as Mike. A. Everybody in the class is taller than Mike. B. Somebody in the class may be shorter than Mike. C. Mike is the tallest student in the class. D. Mike may be taller than most students in the class. 132. I haven't got enough money to buy a new car. A. I need more money to buy a new car. B. I don't want to spend more money on a new car. C. A new car is not something I really need. D. Money is not the most essential issue to buy a new car. 133. I am really keen on playing sports. A. I am a big fan of sports.

B. Playing sports makes me sick.

C. I am not really into sports.

D. I can't stand sports.

134. “I will come back home soon,” he said. A. He advised to come back home soon. B. He offered to come back home soon. C. He promised to come back home soon. D. He suggested that he should come back home soon. 135. He prevented his close friend from telling the truth. A. He forbade his close friend to tell the truth. B. He allowed his close friend to tell the truth. C. He ordered his close friend to tell the truth. D. He paid his close friend to tell the truth. Exercise 12. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 136. My brother speaks too loud. It is really annoying. A. My brother is speaking too loud. B. My brother likes to speak too loud. C. My brother feels annoyed when he can't speak too loud. D. My brother is always speaking too loud.

137. There is always conflict between parents and children. However, they still should talk and share things with each other. A. Although there is always conflict between parents and children, they still should talk and share things with each other. B. There is always conflict between parents and children, so they still should talk and share things with each other. C. Unless there is always conflict between parents and children, they still should talk and share things with each other. D. Not only there is always conflict between parents and children, but they still should talk and share things with each other. 138. Your parents will help you with the problem. You should tell them the story. A. Because your parents will help you with the problem, you should tell them the story. B. Your parents will help you with the problem since you should tell them the story. C. If your parents will help you with the problem, you should tell them the story. D. Your parents will help you with the problem because you should tell them the story. 139. Unemployment rate is high. This makes many children move back to their parents' house. A. Many children move back to their parents' house, which makes high unemployment rate. B. High unemployment rate forces many children to move back to their parents' house. C. Moving back to their parents' house suggests that the unemployment rate is high. D. It is necessary to move back to your parents' house if unemployment rate is high. 140. She is an honest person. She is also a very friendly one. A. She is an honest but friendly person. B. She is not only an honest but also a very friendly person. C. Though she is a honest person, she is friendly. D. Being honest is necessary to become friendly.

Unit 2. RELATIONSHIP Part I. PHONETICS Exercise 1. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 1. A. amazing

B. charge

C. female

D. taste

2. A. break

B. breath

C. thread

D. tread

3. A. enough

B. plough

C. rough

D. tough

4. A. believes

B. dreams

C. girls

D. parents

5. A. kissed

B. laughed

C. looked

D. loved

Exercise 2. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. 6. A. campaign B. female C. humour D. partner 7. A. advice

B. contact

C. mature

D. maintain

8. A. favourite

B. recommend

C. understand

D. volunteer

9. A. argument

B. counsellor

C. reconcile

D. romantic

10. A. comfortable

B. preservative C. relationship

D. significant

Part II. VOCABULARY Exercise 3. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 11. I was shocked to find out my boyfriend had cheated on me. A. angry

B. pleased

C. upset

D. worried

12. He was furious with himself for letting things get out of control. A. angry

B. confused

C. sad

D. surprised

13. Mary and John have a lot in common. A. live together

B. spend lots of time together

C. share similar ideas

D. share accommodation

14. She felt unsafe and insecure in love. A. anxious

B. calm

C. silly

D. unlucky

15. I am now reconciled with two of my estranged siblings - not just my older brother, but my sister, whom I hadn't spoken to for 17 years. A. contactable B. harmonised C. opposed

D. truthful

16. When couples encounter problems or issues, they may wonder when it is appropriate to visit a marriage counsellor. A. advisor

B. director

C. professor

D. trainer

17. He doesn't completely trust online partners, as they usually hide their real identity. A. argument

B. decision

C. opinion

18. Sometimes, in order to get things done, you have to take the initiative. A. make the last decision

B. make important changes

C. raise the first idea

D. sacrifice for others

19. From the moment they met, he was completely attracted by her.

D. personality

A. accepted

B. fascinated

C. influenced

D. rejected

20. She was so happy when he got down on bended knee and popped the question. A. asked her out

B. asked her to be on a date

C. asked her to give him some money

D. asked her to marry him

21. Gary didn't always see eye to eye with his father, and this is where the honesty shows through. A. agree with

B. be truthful with

C. look up to

D. take after

22. Some parents strongly oppose their children's romantic relationship. A. assist

B. forbid

C. ignore

D. preserve

Exercise 4. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 23. I was really depressed about his winning the election, like a lot of people. A. fed up

B. pessimistic

C. satisfied

D. unhappy

C. energetic

D. sensitive

24. Miss Walker was a mature lady when she married. A. annoyed

B. childish

25. Students are advised to tune out distractions and focus on study. A. avoid

B. forget

C. neglect

D. regard

26. Don't confess your love to your friends unless you know they feel the same way. A. admit

B. conceal

C. declare

D. expose

27. Among friends again, we may be happy to confide our innermost secrets. A. admit

B. conceal

C. hint

D. reveal

28 Most of us, even with every communication option possible, drift apart from friends. A. be independent

B. be associated

C. be isolated

D. be separated

29. Then the strangest thing happens - Will and Marcus strike up an unusual friendship. A. cover up

B. give up

C. make up

D. remain

30. He'll give Joe a red rose and a lovey-dovey poem he wrote. A. lovesick

B. romantic

C. tragic

D. wild

31. Feel free to bring along your significant other to the party. A. dear

B. foe

C. mate

D. spouse

32. I look up to my father for my whole life. A. depend on

B. disapprove

C. disrespect

D. underestimate

33. He's a wonderful example of a kind-hearted person with good judgement. A. inhuman

B. tolerant

C. generous

D. sympathetic

34. The situation seemed hopeless and desperation filled them both with anger. A. pessimistic

B. pointless

C. promising

D. useless

Exercise 5. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 35. I don't know what to say to break the ____ with someone I've just met at the party. A. air

B. ice

C. leg

D. rule

36. Their close friendship ____ a romantic relationship. A. brings about B. puts up

C. takes over

D. turns into

37. It's time I ____ and raised a family. A. carried on

B. grew up

C. settled down

D. worked out

38. They fell ____ because they disagreed on the care of their young son. A. apart

B. away

C. out

D. over

39. All the three boys seem to fall ____ over heels in love with her. A. head

B. heart

C. mind

D. soul

40. She says she has kissed and ____ up with Nigel, and the reunion was a fun night. A. caught

B. done

C. made

D. took

41. Due to financial conflict over years, they decided to get ____. A. divorced

B. engaged

C. married

D. proposed

42. Many husbands and wives can't remember why they ever got ____ in the first place because they no longer have anything in common. A. divorced

B. engaged

C. married

D. proposed

43. We started ____ out together before we realised we were in love. A. asking

B. eating

C. going

D. hanging

44. Parents are always willing to lend a sympathetic ____ to their children when they have problems. A. hand

B. ear

C. eye

D. paw

45. I have a ____ on a classmate who is very near and dear to me. A. crush

B. desire

C. flame

D. passion

46. Jane arranged for me to go on a/an ____ date with a guy from her office. A. blind

B. group

C. online

D. speed

47. ____ dating involves couples going out together. It gives you the chance to see how your date interacts with other people. A. Blind

B. Group

C. Online

D. Speed

48. If you are lucky, it will be love at first ____. A. look

B. see

C. sight

D. site

49. When you start dating somebody regularly, we say that you are ____ somebody. A. knowing

B. looking

C. seeing

D. viewing

C. sweet

D. strawberry

50. His youngest daughter was the ____ of his eye. A. apple

B. honey

Part III. GRAMMAR Exercise 6. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 51. What's the matter? You look ____. A. happily

B. sadly

C. unhappy

D. unhappily

52. I have been very ____ up to this point, but I am going to lose my temper if you don't find my baggage immediately. A. impatiently B. impatient

C. patient

D. patiently

C. relaxing

D. relaxingly

53. You seem more ____ now. A. relaxed

B. relax

54. These watermelons were ____ sweet.

A. excepting

B. exception

C. exceptional D. exceptionally

B. goodly

C. well

D. badly

C. smells

D. tastes

55. The cake tastes ____. A. good

56. That kitten's fur ____ so soft. A. looks

B. sounds

57. The waves crashed on the shore where they ____ cool on my hot feet. A. appeared

B. felt

C. looked

D. sounded

C. best

D. well

58. The milk went ____ within seven days from opening. A. bad

B. badly

59. You can't blame an automaker for wanting to design a car that looks ____, even if it doesn't have what it takes under the hood. A. fast

B. fastly

C. quick

D. quickly

60. My darling, you looked ____ in that dress. A. beauty

B. beautify

C. beautiful

D. beautifully

61. She looked ____ around for a weapon. A. desperate

B. desperating C. desperately

D. desperation

62. Nicole grew ____ from the hours of overtime at work. It became quite ____ that she needed a long vacation. A. tired/obvious

B. tired/obviously

C. tiredly/obvious

D. tiredly/obviously

63. The young girl sing ____. A. amazing good

B. amazing well C. amazingly good

D. amazingly well

64. She said she would become a ____ singer ____. A. famous/quick

B. famous/quickly

C. famously/quick

D. famously/quickly

65. The skies became ____ as the moon moved between the Earth and the Sun. A. surprising dark

B. surprising darkly

C. surprisingly dark

D. surprisingly darkly

66. Although my best friend now lives in Da Nang, we still try to keep in touch ____ each other. A. for

B. on

C. up to

D. with

67. They said it was a great chance to form new friendships and enjoy each other's ____. A. companion

B. companionable

C. companionship

D. company

68. Terry has been carrying a torch for Liz for years, but she seems not ____. A. been noticed

B. notice

C. noticing

D. to notice

69. Many parents are worried that their children will get involved ____ a romantic relationship in their teenage years. A. for

B. in

C. on

D. with

70. Some people are meant to fall in love ____ each other but not meant to be together. A. for

B. in

C. on

D. with

71. Healthy relationships allow both partners to feel supported and connected but still feel ____. A. dependence B. dependent

C. depending

D. independent

72. Warmth, ____, and understanding should cost nothing in any country. A. sympathy

B. sympathetic

C. sympathise

D. sympathising

73. Talking to professional counsellors who are trained to help people to process feelings, can be most ____.

A. beneficial

B. beneficially

C. beneficiary

D. benefit

74. If you have feeling for someone, then you have worked up the ____ to ask them out. A. encourage

B. encouragement

C. courage

D. courageous

Exercise 7. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 75. The chef tasted the meat cautious before carefully serving it to his special guest. A

76. The doctor felt the leg carefully to see if there were any brokenly bones. A

77. After being closed for a long period of time, the house became dirty and smelled awfully. A

78. All the members of the committee felt happily about the ultimate decision. A

79. Sophie has lived in Thailand for several years. She knows the culture very good. A

80. I feel both excited and nervously because I have got a date with Lara tomorrow. A

81. The humid weather made it difficultly to enjoy the tropical beach. A

82. It was a warm and cosy coffee shop in where they had their first date. A

83. Jerry's parents are not pleased because he does not study hardly and seriously enough. A

84. I wonder how you felt when you broke up from your ex-girlfriend. A

85. Most important, I can quickly either start or end an online relationship whenever I want. A

86. The food was good with reasonable price, but the service was slowly. A

87. According to Kate's parents' viewpoint, she is never mature enough to be in love. A

88. It is his dishonesty what I dislike the most. A

89. My students are not so good at Mathematics but they study English good. A

90. They are accustomed to share every sorrow and mirth with each other. A Part IV. SPEAKING

Exercise 8. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges. 91. “Are you ready? The school bus is leaving.” – “Yes, just a minute. ____” A. No longer.

B. I'm coming.

C. I'd be OK.

D. I'm leaving.

92. “Hi, Jenny. Where are you going?” – “Sorry, Mike. I can't stop now. ____” A. Of course not!

B. Oops!

C. See you.

D. Watch out!

C. I was absent.

D. It was boring

93. “Were you in school yesterday?” – “No, ____” A. I was not sure.

B. I was free.

94. “Do you mind if I sit next to you?” – “____” A. Don't mention it.

B. My pleasure. C. No, not at all.

D. Yes, why not?

95. “Your new dress looks fantastic!” – “Thanks, ____” A. I bought it at Daisy's. B. I'd rather not.

C. It's up to you.

D. You can say that again.

96. “Do you feel like going to the prom with me?” – “ ____” A. I feel very bored.

B. That would be great. C. Yes, congratulations. D. You're welcome.

97. "I'm afraid there is no real friendship between boys and girls!” - “____, Mommy. We are just good friends.” A. Don't mention it

B. Don't worry C. I hope so

D. Of course not

98. “I think students must go to single sex schools.” – “No, ____” A. I totally approve.

B. I disagree.

C. How amazing

D. What a pity.

99. “Didn't you feel tired of being alone?” – “____” A. Of course not.

B. No, thanks. C. Sounds boring.

D. No, why not?

100. “What's wrong with you?” – “____” A. Thank you.

B. I'm having a headache.

C. You are welcome.

D. Yes, I was tired yesterday.

101. “You look so sad. ____” – “I couldn't have my parent's permission.” A. Can you help me?

B. How do you deal with it?

C. What's the problem?

D. What should I do?

102. “I can't understand why my parents don't allow me to play with boys.” – “____” A. Me also.

B. Me either.

C. Me neither.

D. Me too

103. “Why don't we talk to Mr Green first? I think he can help.” – “____” A. Good idea.

B. I understand.

C. Yes, thanks.

D. You are wrong.

104. “Hello. ____” – “Hello. Hold on please. I get you through.” A. Can I meet Mr Green?

B. Can I take Mr Green's number?

C. May I speak to Mr Green?

D. Where is Mr Green's room?

105. "Can you help Carol to persuade her parents?” – “____” A. I think so.

B. Not completely.

C. Yes, I'm afraid not.

D. Why not?

Part V. READING Exercise 9. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

In a healthy relationship, both partners respect, trust and embrace (106) ____ differences. Both partners are able to communicate (107) ____ their needs and listen to their partner, and work to resolve conflict in a rational and (108) ____ way. But maintaining a healthy relationship (109) ____ for skills many young people are never taught. A lack of these skills, and (110) ____ up in a society that sometimes celebrates violence or in a community that experiences a high (111) ____ of violence, can lead to unhealthy and even violent relationships among youth. Dating violence (112) ____ psychological or emotional violence, such as controlling behaviours or jealousy; physical violence, such as hitting or punching. More than 20 per cent of all adolescents report having experienced (113) ____ psychological or physical violence from an intimate partner - and underreporting remains a concern. Adolescents, (114) ____ older adolescents, often have romantic relationships, which are long-term, serious, and intimate. Society has a responsibility to provide young people with the resources, skills, and space (115) ____ to safeguard their physical and emotional well being in these relationships. Youth-serving professionals, educators, and parents can help young people in need access services to (116) ____ dating abuse victimisation. Research also has shown that programmes intended to prevent dating violence can be (117) ____. 106. A. another's

B. each another's

C. each other's D. one another's

107. A. effective

B. effectively

C. effectiveness

D. ineffective

108. A. non-violent

B. violently

C. violent

D. violence

109. A. asks

B. calls

C. looks

D. requires

110. A. bringing

B. growing

C. raising

D. taking

111. A. amount

B. number

C. rate

D. scale

12. A. comprises

B. consists

C. contains

D. includes

113. A. both

B. either

C. neither

D. whether

114. A. especial

B. especially

C. special

D. specially

115. A. necessitating

B. necessarily

C. necessary

D. necessity

116. A. address 117. A. succeed

B. confess B. success

C. deny

D. obey C. successful

D. successfully

Exercise 10. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Let's see if you can correctly answer the following question: At what age are Latter-day Saint youth allowed to date? Of course, you probably immediately said, "16". OK, then, how about this one: At what age are you allowed to have a boyfriend or girlfriend? You may be thinking, â&#x20AC;&#x153;Um, 16. Didn't I just answer that?" Well, if that was your answer, then, even though you aced the first question, you missed the second one. Just because you can date when you turn 16 doesn't mean you should immediately start looking for a steady boyfriend or girlfriend. For decades, prophets have preached that youth who are in no position to marry should not pair off exclusively. For instance, President Hinckley (1910-2008) said, "When you are young, do not get involved in steady dating. When you reach an age where you think of marriage, then is the time to become so involved. But you boys who

are in high school don't need this, and neither do the girls”. So what does this counsel really mean, and what are the reasons for it? To begin with, there are two different types of dating: casual dating and steady (or serious) dating. The distinction between the two has to do with exclusivity. With casual dating, there is no exclusivity. The two people aren't “a couple” or “an item”, and they don't refer to each other as a “boyfriend” or “girlfriend”. They don't pair off. People who are casually dating are simply friends. This is the kind of dating the Church encourages you to do after you turn 16. You should put aside a need to find a “one and only”. If you're dating casually, you don't expect a relationship to become a romance. You have fun; you do a variety of things with a variety of people. On the other hand, steady dating means the couple is exclusive with one another. They expect each other not to date anyone else or to be emotionally or physically close with other people. Couples who date seriously consider the future, because there is a real possibility they could stay together. This is the kind of dating the Church encourages young adults (generally, people in their 20s) to progress toward, because that's the age when they should be thinking of marrying. You should avoid becoming exclusive as teenagers, because an exclusive relationship requires a high level of commitment from both partners, and you're not in a position to make that kind of commitment as teens – neither emotionally, physically, nor in terms of your future plans. As President Boyd K. Packer, President of the Quorum of the Twelve Apostles, has said to youth, “Avoid steady dating. Steady dating is courtship, and surely the beginning of courtship ought to be delayed until you have emerged from your teens”. 118. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that ____. A. dating doesn't mean having exclusive boyfriend or girlfriend B. teenagers are supposed to have a steady boyfriend or girlfriend C. teenagers date as many boyfriends or girlfriends as they can D. young people shouldn't be allowed to date at 16 119. The word “aced” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ____. A. gave up

B. misled

C. succeeded in

D. understood

120. According to the passage, what is NOT true about casual dating? A. You can be friend with each other.

B. You don't pair off exclusively.

C. You find your "one and only”.

D. You meet different kinds of people.

121. It is stated in the passage that steady dating ____. A. includes a variety of things with a variety of people B. is courtship that you ought to have in your teens C. requires hardly any commitment D. suits people who are in their 20s 122. Which of the following would serve as the best title for the passage? A. At what age are young people allowed to date? B. Casual dating or steady dating. C. Make your teenage dating by keeping it casual. D. Popular kinds of dating for teenagers.

Exercise 11. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. It has long been seen as a less romantic way of meeting Mr Right. But finding love over the Internet is a good way of meeting a marriage partner, research has showed. It found that one in five of those who have used dating sites to find their perfect partner have gone on to marry someone they met over the web. The study, by consumer group Which?, also revealed that more than half of the 1,504 people questioned had been on a date with someone they met in cyberspace. Sixty-two per cent agreed that it was easier to meet someone on a dating site than in other ways, such as in a pub or club, or through friends. At the same time, the under-35s were more likely to know someone who had been on a date or had a long-term relationship with someone they met through online dating. The survey also found that Match.com and Dating Direct were the most popular dating websites. Jess Ross, editor of which.co.uk, said: “Online dating is revolutionising the way people meet each other. Switching the computer on could be the first step to success.” According to industry surveys, more than 22 million people visited dating websites in 2007, and more than two million Britons are signed up to singles sites. Previous research has shown that couples who get to know each other via emails are more likely to see each other again after their first date. Two years ago, a study by Bath University revealed that those who met on dating websites were 94 per cent more likely to see each other after their first meeting than other couples. The researchers studied relationships formed on online dating website Match.com over a six-month period. They found that consummate love - described as a balance of passion, intimacy and commitment - was evident at around 12 months into a relationship. Of the 147 couples who took part in the study, 61 per cent said their relationships had high levels of these components. The researchers also found that men were more likely to find true love on the Internet than women. Some 67 per cent of men but just 57 per cent of women said they had experienced consummate love with an online partner. Companionate love - a relationship with high levels of intimacy and commitment, but lower levels of passion was the next most frequently experienced form of love, exhibited by 16 per cent of the study group. Dr Jeff Gavin, who led the team, said: “To date, there has been no systematic study of love in the context-of relationships formed via online dating sites. But with the popularity of online dating, it is imperative we understand the factors that influence satisfaction in relationships formed in this way.” Charlotte Harper, of Match.com, said: “We were thrilled to find so many of our former members have found love. It supports our belief that the Internet does in fact encourage old-fashioned courtship.” 123. According to the passage, online dating is seen as ____. A. a modern romantic way of dating

B. an economical way of dating

C. the fastest way to find a soul mate

D. a great change in the way people meet

124. The words “cyberspace” in paragraph 2 probably means ____. A. dating agency

B. group dating

C. online network

D. school club

125. According to the passage, the number of people taking part in a study by Bath University was ____. A. more than 1500

B. more than 750

C. about 150

126. The words “systematic" in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ____. A. efficient

B. fixed

C. flexible

D. insecure

D. about 300

127. Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the passage? A. Consummate love has higher levels of passion than companionate love. B. Less than 20 million people visited dating websites in 2007. C. Many members of match.com have found love. D. Men are more likely to find their ideal partner online than women. 128. The word “imperative” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ____. A. crucial

B. minor

C. optional

D. useless

129. Which of the following statements is TRUE according to the passage? A. Many couples got married within 12 months since their first meeting. B. Men were more likely to visit dating websites than women. C. The number of single people in Britons reduced owing to online dating. D. Many people had a long-term relationship through online dating. 130. Which of the following would serve as the best title for the passage? A. Internet does in fact encourage old-fashioned courtship. B. Online dating - a good way of meeting people. C. Online dating is showed to help you find your perfect partner. D. The revolution of online dating is alarming. Part VI. WRITING Exercise 12. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 131. I have to take the responsibility. A. It's I am that responsible. C. It is me who am responsible.

B. It is I who am responsible. D. It's that me is responsible.

132. It was her story that made me cry. A. I was made crying by her story. C. Her story made me crying.

B. I was made to cry by her story. D. Her story made me to cry.

133. It is unlikely that he will come on time. A. He is unlikely to come early.

B. It is likely that he will not come too late.

C. It looks as if he will come late.

D. It seems that he will come lately.

134. He became successful as a professional writer at the age of 20. A. He did not succeed as a professional writer until he was 20. B. He did not write professionally until he succeeded at the age of 20. C. He succeeded as a professional writer until he was 20. D. He wrote professionally until he became successful at the age of 20. 135. Mai: “Why don't we ask Mr Brown for help?” A. Mai asked why they did not ask Mr Brown for help. B. Mai begged Mr Brown for help to find the reason. C. Mai suggested that they should ask Mr Brown for help. D. Mai wanted to know why Mr Brown did not help.

Exercise 13. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 136. John lied to Linda. She didn't know the reason. A. Linda didn't believe that John lied to her.

B. Linda didn't know how John lied to her.

C. Linda didn't know that John lied to her.

D. Linda didn't know what John lied for.

137. Billy did not find his cat in the garden. He found it in the garage. A. It was the garden and garage that Billy found his cat. B. It wasn't the garden that Billy did not find his cat. C. It wasn't the garden but the garage that Billy found his cat. D. Billy could not find his cat anywhere, even in the garage. 138. She is so attractive. Many boys run after her. A. So attractive is shÄ&#x2122; many boys that run after her. B. So attractive is she that many boys run after her. C. So attractive she is that many boys run after her. D. So that attractive she is many boys run after her. 139. You can feel more at ease by taking part in group dating. It's the only way. A. By taking part in group dating can you only feel more at ease. B. Only by taking part in group dating can you feel more at ease. C. The only way you is by taking part in group dating can feel more at ease. D. The way you can feel more at ease is taking part in only group dating. 140. Mary broke up with her boyfriend. She couldn't stand his complaining. A. Although Mary broke up with her boyfriend, she couldn't stand his complaining. B. Mary broke up with her boyfriend because she couldn't stand his complaining. C. Mary broke up with her boyfriend; however, she couldn't stand his complaining. D. Mary broke up with her boyfriend in case she couldn't stand his complaining.

Unit 3. BECOMING INDEPENDENT

Part I. PHONETICS

Exercise 1. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 1. A. lake

B. bay

C. cane

D. lack

2. A. lurk

B. luck

C. but

D. putt

3. A. stopped

B. expected

C. finished

D. faced

4. A. thoughtful B. threaten 5. A. grease

C. therefore

B. sympathy

D. thin

C. horse

D. rose

Exercise 2. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. 6. A. reliable

B. independent C. responsible

7. A. difficult

B. confident

8. A. permissionB. well-informed

D. decisiveness

C. critical C. activity

D. important D. effective

9. A. routine

B. problem

C. lonely

D. hygiene

10. A. laundry

B. punish

C. depend

D. reason

Part II. VOCABULARY Exercise 3. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 11. When getting into troubles, Jack never ____ on other people for help. He always solves them on his own. A. determines

B. influences

C. relies

D. manages

12. He suffered ____ serious depression after losing his beloved pet. A. in

B. from

C. with

D. for

13. It was essential for him to be financially ____ of his parents, so he decided to find a part-time job. A. dependent

B. independent

C. dependable

D. undependable

14. Thanks to many investors, my dream to set up my own trading company came ____. A. exactly

B. real

C. right

D. true

15. His dedication to the educational charity was truly ____. A. admirable

B. reliable

C. critical

D. disapproving

16. The director informed that no candidates ____ all the criteria for the administrative position. A. completed

B. fulfilled

C. achieved

D. suited

17. ____ time-management skill is a core requirement for this job. A. Solving

B. Adapting

C. Developing

D. Mastering

18. I was encouraged to ____ for the grandest prize in the dancing competition. A. try

B. strive

C. reach

D. achieve

19. We're punished for not submitting our outline on time as the task ____ was too difficult. A. assigned

B. done

C. taken

D. reminded

20. That Tom is ____ of finishing the research project prior to the deadline satisfied our manager. A. able

B. skillful

C. capable

D. talented

21. We've divided the group report into three parts and you're ____ for the conclusion one.

A. responsible B. irresponsible C. response

D. responsive

22. You should make a list of things to do and ____ them if you want to work effectively. A. do

B. arrange

C. prioritise

D. approach

23. Despite my parents' disagreement, I'm ____ to drop out of university and establish my own business. A. determined

B. confident

C. successful

D. All are correct

24. He ____ me about the lecture yesterday. Otherwise, I would have missed it completely. A. demanded

B. approached

C. said

D. reminded

25. The government must take ____ action against environmental pollution. A. important

B. unstable

C. decisive

D. soft

26. When being assigned difficult exercises, Lan always ____ to complete them without any help from her teacher. A. wants

B. manages

C. desires

D. Finds

27. Our enterprise is seeking for candidates who are ____ and hard-working. A. reliant

B. reliance

C. unreliable

D. reliable

28. ____ communication skill plays an important role in career success. A. Personal

B. Individual

C. Interpersonal

D. Interactive

29. In spite of being the new resident in this area, he always tries to ____ with his neighbours. A. catch up

B. go in

C. put up

D. get along well

30. If you choose to study abroad, you have to live ____ from home. A. on

B. away

C. in

D. up

Exercise 4. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 31. I'm totally exhausted after having finished successive assignments in only a week. A. Jobs

B. works

C. exercises

D. problems

32. He is truly a reliable friend. He will always be with me and never let me down. A. mean

B. independent

C. decisive

D. dependable

33. At last, Huong made a determined effort to get a scholarship so that he could have chance to study overseas. A. tenacious

B. serious

C. unresolved

D. necessary

34. In spite of poverty and dreadful conditions, they still manage to keep their self-respect. A. self-reliant

B. self-restraint C. self-esteem

D. self-assured

35. All students are revising carefully, for the final test is approaching soon. A. going fast

B. reaching fast C. coming near

D. getting near

36. John is an admirable person as he isn't influenced by other people's opinions when making decision to do something. A. relied

B. impacted

C. decided

D. assigned

37. The prom is permitted providing that everyone behaves responsibly. A. honestly

B. imperfectly C. sensitively

D. sensibly

38. Don't worry! The answer to this quiz is on the back page. A. treatment

B. method

C. solution

39. It is lazy of him for not doing his homework every day.

D. way

A. idle

B. hard

C. busy

D. diligent

40. The government found it very difficult to cope with the rising unemployment. A. try

B. manage

C. reduce

D. increase

Exercise 5. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 41. Nam is considered to be the best student in our class because he's not only good at learning but also well-informed about everything around the world. A. perfectly-informed

B. badly-informed

C. bad-informed

D. ill-informed

42. Tommy was fired owing to his arrogant manner. A. humble

B. overconfident

C. superior

D. haughty

43. The maintenance of this company is dependent on international investment. A. affective

B. self-reliant

C. self-restricted

D. reliant

44. With his remarkable ability, Lam can deal with this problem effectively. A. uneffectively B. inefficiently C. ineffectively

D. unefficiently

45. The physical therapy helped Jim overcome his fear of height. A. overwhelm

B. control

C. neglect

D. conquer

46. At first, he was reluctant to help us. However, after persuading for a long time, he agreed to play the guitar at our tea-shop. A. hesitate

B. willing

C eager

D. keen

47. Stop being mean to everyone or you'll have no friends. A. unkind

B. cruel

C. miserable

D. kind

48. My parents seemed fully satisfied with the result of my entrance exam. A. pleased

B. contented

C. disappointed

D. joyful

49. After a long time working incessantly, all my efforts ended in failure. A. success

B. collapse

C. breakdown

D. loser

50. This reference book is essential material for us to prepare for the next assignment. A. necessary

B. dispensable

C. vital

D. fundamental

Part III. GRAMMAR Exercise 6. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 51. My parents are glad ____ my success in finding a job after graduation. A. to see

B. seeing

C. see

D. saw

52. It isn't ____ for him to take charge of the financial burden on his family. A. boring

B. expensive

C. easy

D. mind

53. My teacher always gives me advice ____ suitable career in the future. A. choosing

B. to choose

C. choose

D. not to choose

54. We're ____ to announce that you were selected to be our new faculty manager. A. happily

B. unhappy

C. happiness

D. happy

55. It is unnecessary for ____ to do this task. It's not ours. A. we

B. us

C. they

D. our

56. She left a message with a request ____ in the contract. A. not to sign

B. not sign

C. to not sign

D. don't sign

57. I found it truly ____ to hear that Mr. Kim had been appointed to the committee. A. surprise

B. surprised

C. surprising

D. surprisingly

58. Don't be afraid ____ me if you have any further queries. A. not to ask

B. asking

C. to asking

D. to ask

59. It's ____ for us to submit the project on time as it's really difficult. A. possible

B. simple

C. impossible

D. Both B and C

60. It would be unreasonable ____ him ____ you money if you didn't pay it back. A. to expect/lend

B. to expect/to lend

C. expect/to lend

D. expecting/lend

61. His ability ____ mathematics in a short time is wholly admirable. A. not to work out

B. work out

C. to work out

D. working out

62. We're disappointed ____ that our sales have declined sharply in the last 2 months. A. to hear

B. to heard

C. not to hear

D. hearing

63. After failing many times in ____ a new dish, she made a decision ____. A. creating/giving up

B. to create/to give up C. to create/give up

D. creating/to give up

64. My father made a determined effort ____ a new company. A. to setting up B. to set up

C. setting up

D. set up

65. It is ____ for him to enjoy the party because he's fairly busy now. A. unlike

B. likeable

C. likely

D. unlikely

66. I'm sorry ____ that your enterprise has been declared bankrupt. A. to hear

B. for hearing

C. hear

D. All are correct

67. I feel very proud ____ an important part of the English club. A. to be

B. of be

C. being

D. is

68. It is great that you ____ for my organization. I hope you'll gain more experience here. A. to work

B. working

C. can work

D. works

69. We appreciated more opportunities ____ part in the story-telling contest. A. giving/to take

B. to give/taking

C. given/to take D. being given/to take

70. Thank you for your kind offer ____ a dinner at your apartment. It was excellent. A. having

B. to have

C. had

D. have

Exercise 7. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 71. She was amazing to find that no one died in the tragic accident yesterday. A

72. His driving ambition was entering one of the top universities in the city. A

73. It is particularly interested to explore the mystery of the universe. A

74. Your success in learning depends on your willing to acquire new knowledge.

75. We haven't made a plan not to travel overseas yet as I'm very busy with my work. A

76. It was lucky for us that we able to enjoy the concert. A

77. His parents are very sadly to see that Binh doesn't usually do his homework. A

78. The factory was refused permit to expand because of lack of money. A

79. It is imperative finish all the practice tests by next week since our teacher will give marks for them. A

80. He is a real coward because of his anxiety encountering with problems. A B

81. Look at those dark clouds, it is possibly to rain. A

82. In this project, your responsibility is search for information about environmental pollution as much as A

possible. 83.Lan is looking forward to return to her country after finishing four-year university in America. A

84. They were entirely confident that everything will go as planned. A

85. Having goal to crowned champion, they had practiced ceaselessly and they succeeded. A

86. In the peak season, you are advisable booking your accommodation in advance. A

87. It is necessary for you to clean the floor as our mother has done it already. A

88. We only have 5 minutes left, Peter. There's no need dressing up. A

89. Unless you keep a map, you're sure get lost in the city. A

C D

90. This adventure game is not suitable for children not to play because they're too small. A

Part IV. SPEAKING Exercise 8. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges. 91. “What does your younger sister look like?” – “____” A. She likes a secondary student.

B. My sister is a university student.

C. She's very kind and hard working.

D. She's tall and thin with long hair.

92. “Could I leave a message for your manager?” – “____” A. Sure. B. Of course not.

C. He's busy now.

D. He's off work today.

93. “How often do you have your teeth checked?” – “____” A. Two months. B. Not much.

C. Rarely.

D. They're checked carefully.

94. "Many happy returns!” –“____” A. Wish you all the best.B. Thanks.

C. Same to you.

D. Not at all.

95. “How long have you learnt Japanese?” – “____” A. For 2005.

B. I learnt it at my university.

C. Since I was 10.

D. It lasted 3 months.

96. "Is it going to rain tomorrow?” – “____” A. I think not.

B. I bet.

C. Just a moment.

D. I don't hope so.

97. "You look very pretty in this dress." – “____” A. It's so nice of you to say that. C. I see what you mean.

B. Yes, it is fairly expensive. D. Thanks for your wish.

98. “Huy hasn't finished his assignment, has he?" – “____” A. Yes, he has. He hasn't finished it yet.

B. Yes, he hasn't. He's too lazy.

C. No, he has in spite of being a good student.

D. No, he hasn't because of his illness.

99. “When will our factory be expanded?” – “____” A. It was expanded in 1996. C. I didn't hear about it.

B. It depends on our director's decision. D. That's good news.

100. “You're late again, Peter.” – “____” A. It's none of your business.

B. Only 5 minutes left.

C. I'm sorry. My car was broken this morning.

D. I expect not to be fired.

101. “I'm meeting some friends for a meal in town tomorrow. Fancy joining us?” – “____” A. That's fine.

B. What's the time now?

C. I am not sure. What time?

D. Fine. I won't!

102. "Can you give me some information about the city?” – “____” A. Great. Thanks very much. C. I can't help doing it.

B. No. I'm afraid not. D. Certainly.

103. “Excuse me. I have a reservation for tonight.” – “____” A. Just a moment, please, while I check.

B. I liked that one, too.

C. Wonderful! I'd like to hear some of your ideas.

D. What's up?

104. "Don't forget. We are invited out to dinner tonight.” – “____” A. Oh, I almost forgot. C. OK, I'll try it first.

B. It's so unforgettable. D. I remember you.

105. Dr. Jonas can see you next Thursday. Do you prefer morning or afternoon? A. That would be fine.

B. Morning is best for me.

C. I am looking forward to seeing you.

D. Thank you very much.

Part V. READING Exercise 9. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. Would you like to learn to rock climb? Or spend time working at an animal sanctuary? That's (106) ____ Andrea Black and Jenny Smith are doing as part of their Duke of Edinburgh Award programme. The award encourages young people to do (107) ____ cultural, social and adventure activities in their (108) ____ time. The Queen's husband, the Duke of Edinburgh, started the award in 1956. He started it (109) ____ he wanted young people to learn to help themselves and other people. The award is for people aged 14-25, and there are three levels: Bronze, for those aged 14 or over, Silver for over 15s, and Gold for over 16s. You have to complete four activities to (110) ____ the award: – go on an (111) ____ (e.g. hiking, kayaking or climbing) – learn a new practical or social skill (anything from painting to podcasting!) – take (112) ____ a physical challenge (e.g. learn or improve at a sport) – do (113) ____ work helping people or the environment (e.g. work with disabled or elderly people, or (114) money for a charity). Young people usually do the award at a Duke of Edinburgh club at their school or at a local (115) ____ group. They (116) ____ what they are going to do, and write a plan. It usually takes (117) ____ one and three years to finish an award. 106. A. what 107. A. excited

B. why B. exciting

C. which C. excitement

D. when D. excite

108. A. idle

B. journey

C. waiting

D. free

109. A. therefore

B. but

C. because

D. if

110. A. compete

B. accept

C. realize

D. achieve

111. A. expenditure

B. expense

C. expedition

D. expect

112. A. on

B. in

C. away

113. A. volunteer

B. voluntary

C. volunteering D. volunteered

114. A. lift

B. increase

C. raise

115. A. youth

B. young

C. immature

116. A. decide

B. are deciding C. decided

117. A. from

B. in

D. after D. advance D. immaturity

D. had decided C. during

D. between

Exercise 10. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. The skills needed to succeed in college are very different from those required in high school. In addition to study skills that may be new to students, there will also be everyday living skills that students may not have had to use before. Students should: – know how to handle everyday living skills such as doing laundry, paying bills, balancing a checkbook, cooking, getting the oil changed in the car, etc.

– be familiar and compliant with medical needs concerning medication and health problems. If ongoing medical and/or psychological treatment is needed, arrangements should be made in advance to continue that care while the student is away at college. – understand that the environmental, academic, and social structure provided by parents and teachers will not be in place in college. With this lack of structure comes an increased need for responsibility in decision-making and goal-setting. – know how to interact appropriately with instructors, college staff, roommates, and peers. Appropriate social interaction and communication are essential at the college level of education. – be comfortable asking for help when needed. The transition from high school to college can be overwhelming socially and academically. Students should know when they need help and should be able to reach out and ask for that help. 118. According to the writer, if students want to have medical treatment, they should ____. A. be away

B. be familiar with medical needs

C. make arrangements

D. meet their parents

119. The word “ongoing" is closest in meaning to ____. A. continuing

B. short-term

C. brief

D. little

120. College students should be aware that ____. A. everything in college will be different

B. parents and teachers are not in college

C. structures must be provided by parents

D. structures must be provided by teachers

121. Which of the following is NOT true about college life? A. It is essential to have good communication skills. B. Students must be responsible for their own decisions. C. Students should know some living skills. D. Students should not ask for help. 122. The word “overwhelming” is closest in meaning to ____. A. simple

B. confusing

C. manageable

D. easy

Exercise 11. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. ARE TRADITIONAL WAYS OF LEARNING THE BEST? Read about some alternative schools of thought… One school in Hampshire, UK, offers 24-hour teaching. The children can decide when or if they come to school. The school is open from 7 a.m. to 10 p.m., for 364 days a year and provides online teaching throughout the night. The idea is that pupils don't have to come to school and they can decide when they want to study. Cheryl Heron, the head teacher, said “Some students learn better at night. Some students learn better in the morning.” Cheryl believes that if children are bored, they will not come to school. “Why must teaching only be conducted in a classroom? You can teach a child without him ever coming to school.” Steiner schools encourage creativity and free thinking so children can study art, music and gardening as well as science and history. They don’t have to learn to read and write at an early age. At some Steiner schools the teachers can’t use textbooks. They talk to the children, who learn by listening. Every morning the children have

to go to special music and movement classes called “eurhythmy”, which help them learn to concentrate. Very young children learn foreign languages through music and song. Another difference from traditional schools is that at Steiner schools you don't have to do any tests or exams. A child learning music with the Suzuki method has to start as young as possible. Even two-year-old children can learn to play difficult pieces of classical music, often on the violin. They do this by watching and listening. They learn by copying, just like they learn their mother tongue. The child has to join in, but doesn't have to get it right. “They soon learn that they mustn't stop every time they make a mistake. They just carry on,” said one Suzuki trainer. The children have to practise for hours every day and they give performances once a week, so they learn quickly. “The parents must be involved too,” said the trainer, “or it just doesn't work.” 123. Which of the following is NOT true about 24-hour teaching? A. Students can come to school from 7 a.m. to 10 p.m. B. Students can study online at night. C. Students can choose the time to study. D. Some students need to study in the morning and some need to study at night. 124. According to Cheryl Heron, teaching ____. A. should happen throughout the night

B. is not necessarily carried out in class

C. is for children who will not come to school

D. must be around the year

125. Steiner schools don't ____. A. encourage children's creativity and free thinking B. allow teachers to teach things out of textbooks C. teach reading and writing to young children D. teach music to children 126. Which of the following is TRUE about Steiner schools? A. They are different from traditional schools. B. Young children are not taught foreign languages. C. Students must concentrate on music. D. Students have to do exams and tests. 127. Which of the following is the most suitable title for the third paragraph? A. Traditional ways of teaching

B. 24-hour teaching

C. Learn by listening

D. Starting young

128. Students learning music with Suzuki method ____. A. must learn difficult music .

B. like to learn their mother tongue

C. stop when they make mistakes

D. start at an early age

129. The word “this” in paragraph 3 refers to ____. A. starting as young as possible C. playing difficult pieces of music

B. the violin D. learning their mother tongue

130. The word “involved” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ____. A. engaged Part VI. WRITING

B. encouraging

C. accepting

D. rejecting

Exercise 12. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 131. I am looking forward to seeing you. A. I don't have time to see you.

B. I will try to find some time to see you.

C. I should find some time to see you.

D. I am expecting to see you.

132. I haven't got used to Indian food although I have lived here for three months. A. I still find it strange to eat Indian food though I have lived here for three months. B. Eating Indian food is one of the habits when I lived in Indian three months ago. C. Because I still live in India, I find Indian food strange to eat. D. I have to eat Indian food to get used to eat as I have to live in India. 133. â&#x20AC;&#x153;Don't touch the hot cooker," my mother said. A. My mother promised me to touch the hot cooker. B. My mother warned me not to touch the hot cooker. C. My mother suggested me not touching the hot cooker. D. My mother reminded me of touching the hot cooker. 134. Stop giving me a hard time, I could not do anything about it. A. Don't make me feel guilty because I couldn't do anything about it. B. I could not do anything about it because I am going through a hard time. C. Going through a hard time doesn't help me do anything about it. D. I couldn't do anything about it so I would stop. 135. I hope you stay in touch with me even when you are back to the U.S.A. A. I want you to stay with me and not to come back to the U.S.A. B. I hope to meet you in the U.S.A. C. I want us to be connected even if you are in the U.S.A. D. I want to stay close to you so I will come to the U.S.A. Exercise 13. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 136. Tom reviewed the lessons carefully. He could finish the test very well. A. Tom reviewed the lessons carefully whereas he could finish the test very well. B. Tom reviewed the lessons carefully; therefore he could finish the test very well. C. If Tom reviewed the lessons carefully, he could finish the test very well. D. Although Tom reviewed the lessons carefully, he could finish the test very well. 137. There are many things I have to do before going home. Cleaning, packing and saying goodbye to you are some. A. If I can do anything before going home, I will do the cleaning, packing and say goodbye to you. B. Although I want to do many things before going home, I have done cleaning, packing and said goodbye to you. C. There are many things I have to do before going home including cleaning, packing and saying goodbye to you. D. Cleaning, packing and saying goodbye to you are everything I have to do before going home. 138. The room became hotter and hotter. I had to take off my sweater.

A. Unless the room became hotter and hotter, I had to take off my sweater. B. Although the room became hotter and hotter, I had to take off my sweater. C. The room became hotter and hotter but I had to take off my sweater. D. The room became hotter and hotter so I had to take off my sweater. 139. He worked the whole night last night. His eyes are red now. A. If he didn't work the whole night, his eyes wouldn't be red now. B. Unless he worked the whole night last night, his eyes were red now. C. If he hadn't worked the whole night last night, his eyes wouldn't be red now. D. He worked the whole night last night otherwise his eyes were red now. 140. It might be my opinion. My mother is the best cook in the world. A. People said that my mother is the best cook in the world. B. In my opinion, my mother is the best cook in the world. C. My mother is believed to be the best cook in the world. D. I am not so sure about the fact that my mother is the best cook in the world.

Unit 4. CARING FOR THOSE IN NEED

Part I. PHONETICS

Exercise 1. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 1. A. deafening B. frightening

C. happening

D. threatening

2. A. secondary B. complimentary

C. vocabulary

D. supplementary

3. A. idiot

B. idea

C. idol

D. ideal

4. A. police

B. policy

C. polite

D. pollute

5. A. preferable B. preference

C. preferably

D. preferential

Exercise 2. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. 6. A. disrespectful

B. independent C. physically

7. A. donate

B. impair

8. A. campaign B. hearing 9. A. community

D. understanding

C. mental C. slogan

B. energetic

10. A. cognitive B. volunteer

D. support D. talent

C. enthusiast C. medical

D. participate D. physical

Part II. VOCABULARY Exercise 3. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 11. The Braille alphabet has been one of the greatest ____ in human history. A. invention

B. inventions

C. inventors

D. inventive

12. Everyone can help the needy by making a ____ to a charity organisation. A. donate

B. donation

C. donor

D. donating

13. We couldn't hear anything because of the ____ noise of the drums the next-door neighbours were playing. A. deaf

B. deafen

C. deafening

D. deafness

14. ____ believe that some of the happiest people in the world are those who help to bring happiness to others. A. Voluntary

B. Voluntarily

C. Volunteer

D. Volunteers

15. During summer holidays, university students are willing to take part in providing education for children in remote and ____ areas. A. mountain

B. mountainous

C. mountaineer

D. mountaineering

16. People with disabilities always need to be ____ after. A. asked

B. cared

C. looked

D. taken

17. The lottery winner was willing to spend a considerable sum of money to ____ to charity to help those in need. A. give away

B. give in

C. give back

D. give up

18. The volunteer team ____ students with various visual, hearing, physical and cognitive impairments every two months to give them both financial and spiritual support. A. call back

B. call off

C. call on

D. call out

19. If one wants to take part in volunteer organisations such as Green Summer Camp, Green Saturday Movement, Blood Donor..., he/she will have to ____ an application form. A. fill in

B. find out

C. log on

D. send off

20. An organisation for Educational Development co-operated with our school to____ free English classes for the poor in the area. A. put away

B. put off

C. set off

D. set up

21. Children with cognitive impairments may have ____ in learning basic skills like reading, writing, or problem solving. A. ability

B. determination

C. difficulty

D. refusal

22. After the visit to that special school, we ____ friends with some students with reading disabilities. A. acquainted

B. had

C. made

D. realised

23. The Convention for the Rights of Persons with Disabilities came into 3rd May 2008. A. action

B. force

C. truth

D. reality

24. Elderly housebound patients are often those most in ____ of pharmacy services. A. case

B. need

C. time

D. trouble

25. The Youth Union in our school has decided to launch a/an ____ to raise funds for local charities. A. activity

B. announcement

C. campaign

D. decision

26. Many experts believe that noise is the main cause of approximately half of all cases of ____ loss. A. cognitive

B. hearing

C. mental

D. visual

27. Allowing your child to get involved in ____ activities at school is a wise choice to develop team-working skills, people skills, and more. A. academic

B. entertaining C. extracurricular

D. physical

28. ASL (American Sign Language), a language that is expressed through the hands and face and is perceived through the eyes, is every useful for the ____. A. blind

B. mentally disabled

C. dump

D. mentally retarded

29. A hearing aid or deaf aid is a device which is ____ to improve hearing. A. designed

B. designation

C. designing

D. to design

30. The ____ in that country are waiting for food aid from the UN. A. handicapped

B. hungry

C. sick

D. unemployed

31. He has not developed mentally as much as others at the same age. He's ____. A. mentally alert

B. mentally ill

C. mentally retarded

D. mentally restricted

32. One aim of the International Day of Persons with Disabilities is to further ____ awareness of disability issues. A. raise

B. rise

C. increase

D. pull

33. Traditionally, it was family members within the extended family who took ____ for elderly care. A. advantages

B. care

C. responsibility

D. time

34. ____ children get sick four times as often as children in permanent homes and also suffer from anxiety and depression at a higher rate than stably housed children. A. Ill-educated B. Homeless

C. Homely

D. Weak

35. Talented students with a disability should be helped to become independent, ____ in the society and achieve success at school. A. contribute

B. integrate

C. involve

D. socialise

36. Precisely when the first wheeled chairs were invented and used for ____ persons is unknown. A. disabled

B. poor

C. unhappy

D. unemployed

37. Many students with visual impairments in regular schools cannot participate in school activities, thereby being left ____. A. again

B. lonely

C. behind

D. over

38. Many people who took part in the fight ____ illiteracy considered it an honourable job to help others. A. against

B. back

C. for

D. with

39. The aim of the LIVE project is to train students from developing ____. A. nations

B. nationalists

C. nationalities

D. nationalism

40. Every donation, regardless of size, helps to rebuild communities that are hit by ____ natural. A. attacks

B. damages

C. disasters

D. issues

Exercise 4. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 41. Young college and university students participate in helping the poor who have suffered badly in wars or natural disasters. A. get involved in

B. interfere with

C. join hands

D. come into

42. They give care and comfort to the disadvantaged and handicapped children and help them to get over difficulties. A. accept

B. face

C. overcome

D. take

43. At first, there was a lot of opposition from the parents of the disabled children as they were not under the impression that their children could learn anything at all. A. didn't believe

B. didn't report C. didn't declare

D. didn't support

44. Every year, the United Nations set up an activity to call for world-wide support for the rights and well-being of disabled people. A. apply for

B. ask for

C. care for

D. persist in

45. That homeless child would have died if we hadn't been able to find a suitable blood donor. A. giver

B. maker

C. taker

D. sender

Exercise 5. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 46. Sadly, many non-disabled people have negative attitudes toward children with cognitive impairments in developing countries. A. helpless

B. disappointing

C. pessimistic

D. positive

47. Little Mary had a disadvantaged childhood with little education and money. A. difficult

B. poor

C. prosperous

D. starving

48. According to WHO, many disabled people still face challenges, discrimination, poverty, and limited access to education, employment, and healthcare. A. controlled

B. inadequate

C. short

D. unrestricted

49. The theme of the upcoming conference is to remove barriers to create an inclusive and accessible society for all. A. abolish

B. stick to

C. get rid of

D. keep

50. Most of these children come from large and poor families, which prevent them from having proper schooling. A. convenient Part III. GRAMMAR

B. desired

C. inappropriate

D. useful

Exercise 6. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 51. Last Sunday, the Youth Union ____ a campaign to help students with disabilities. A. has launched

B. launched

C. was launched

D. was launching

52. Recently, a gang of enterprising New Zealanders ____ an incredible scheme to raise awareness of depression and mental health issues. A. has introduced

B. had introduced

C. introduced

D. was introduced

53. Last Sunday, Texas-based game-fans The Speed Gamers ____ in a charity activity to donate money to relief organisations. A. have participated

B. participated C. had participated

D. were participating

54. The Real Life Super Hero Project is a gathering of men and women who ____ forces to better their community. A. have joined B. are joining

C. will join

D. are joined

55. The famous physicist Albert Einstein ____ for a $1 to $5 donation before scribbling his name on a piece of parchment, and ____every cent to various charities. A. asked/donated

B. had asked/donated

C. has asked/donated

D. asked/donating

56. Former special education teacher Ashman, 74, involved in fundraising 20 years ago. A. got

B. has got

C. had got

D. has been getting

57. When his mum ____, he ____ that, as well as enjoying doing it, he ____ to give something back to the Dorothy House Hospice Care. A had died decided/has wanted

B. died/has decided/has wanted

C. died/decided/wanted

D. died/decided/had wanted

58. This year, so far, we ____ £ 16,000 and are still counting. A. are raising

B. have been raised

C. have raised

D. raised

59. Hughes, 26, a sports therapist, ____ 53 marathons in 53 days in 53 different UK cities. A. completed

B. had completed

C. would complete

D. was complete

60. My plan ____ to raise awareness, especially for young people, of the importance of keeping fit for the past two months. A. are

B. has been

C. have been

D. was

61. I'm a keen golfer and I ____ three golfing days that ____ £6,000, £8,000 and £5,000 last year. A. organised/raised

B. were organising/raised

C. have organised/raised

D. organised/have raised

62. I ____ to help students at a special school twice since I finished grade 11. A. have volunteered

B. had volunteered

C. was volunteering

D. volunteered

63. It is now over seventy years since Lindbergh ____ across the Atlantic. A. has been flying

B. flew

C. had flown

D. has flown

64. Since every penny of the grant ____ spent on equipment, we started looking for volunteers to do the cleaning. A. had been

B. would have been

C. have been

D. was

65. - When will Mary be able to leave hospital? - Don't be so impatient. We cannot release her before we ____ the last test. A. have completed

B. will have completed C. will complete

D. completed

66. You should try to follow the lecture without asking questions unless you ____ something important. A. would miss B. will miss

C. had missed

D. have missed

67. Although at that time my knowledge of German was very poor, I ____ most of what they said about how to help people with mental disorders. A. understood

B. have understood

C. had understood

D. didn't understand

68. One thing should be made quite clear: there can't be any last-minute changes once the programme ____ approved by all the people involved. A. will be

B. will have been

C. has been

D. had been

69. Although he was on the whole very suspicious of the project, Mr Adams ____ to cooperate. A. didn't promise

B. promised

C. has promised

D. hasn't promised

70. Even though Lady Sarah was totally opposed to the project, she ____ that it would increase job opportunities for the local people. A. had agreed

B. agreed

C. was agreed

D. would agree.

71. When he ____ ten years old. Louis Braille ____ the National Institute for the Blind in Paris. A. was/entered

B. was/was entering

C. was/was entered

D. was/would enter

72. "How many aid packages ____ so far?â&#x20AC;? - "Tenâ&#x20AC;?. A. do you prepare

B. did you prepare

C. have you prepared

D. had you prepared

73. In over ten years, he ____ more than 100 bicycles to needy students in Central Viet Nam. A. gave

B. has given

C. has been given

D. has been giving

74. Tan ____ the idea of giving sweaters and warm clothes to the poor just a couple of weeks ago, shortly after the beginning of the rainy season. A. came up with

B. comes up with

C. has come up with

D. was coming up with

75. In the past, health care in some rural areas of this country ____ by only a small number of doctors and nurses. A. is provided

B. provided

C. provides

D. was provided

76. Never ____ more people ____ in charity work than now. A. do/participate

B. did/participate

C. have/participated

D. had/participated

77. Neither Phillips nor his brothers ____ to school because their father teaches them at home. A. have never been

B. has ever been

C. have ever been

D. ever went

78. Not until we the school for children with disabilities ____ how they overcome difficulties. A. had visited/did we know C. visited/did we know

B. visited/had we known D. have visited/did we know

79. The boy ____ across the narrow canal in ten minutes to find himself out of danger. A. swum

B. was swum

C. swam

D. had swam

80. A group of young Vietnamese in the north-central province of Nghe An ____ a free bread box dedicated to poor blue-collar workers. A. have set up

B. sets up

C. had set up

D. have been setting up

Exercise 7. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 81. The annual increase in the world's population has peaked at about 88 million in the late 1980s.

82. Overpopulation is one of the main factors that leads to poor, illiteracy, and social evils. A

83. The teacher said that about 10 children need special help in reading skills. A

84. Youth Newspaper lately donated book collections to two mountainous schools in northern Viet Nam. A

85. Vina Capital Foundation's Heartbeat Viet Nam has performed 5,000 free heart surgery for kids across the A

country for the last ten years. D 86. A Hoi An-based charity organisation gave free milk to poor, ailing, and disabled children in the central A

province of Quang Nam on last Wednesday. D 87. Although Marie Curie had very little money to live on, but she went to Paris to realise her dream of A

a scientific career. D 88. Albert Einstein, the father of modern physics, could not read until he was eight, but that hasn't stopped him A

from becoming one of the greatest scientists of our time. D 89. In Thomas Edison's early life, he has been thought to have a learning disability and he could not read till he A

was twelve. D 90. Beethoven is the greatest German composer and musician who is deaf in the later part of his life. A

Part IV. SPEAKING Exercise 8. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges. 91. - "Shall we join the Green Summer Camp after the semester finishes?” - “____” A. That's a great idea!

B. They're very good!

C. Not at all!

D. No, let's!

92. “Thanks for your support for our campaign!" – “____” A. I don't bother.

B. That'll be fine for me.

C. It's my pleasure.

93. "Why don't we send them some textbooks, newspapers and picture books?" – “____” A. Great idea! What meaningful gifts! C. We're sorry to hear this.

B. No, they are not available. D. You should agree with us.

D. That's a nuisance.

94. “As far as I know, doing charity work is a really helpful thing for everyone in the society." – “____” A. That sounds great.

B. I couldn't agree with you more.

C. I'll take part in this campaign.

D. That's fine for me.

95 "If I were you, I would collect this waste paper for a charity activity at school." – “____” A. I guess I should.

B. It doesn't matter.

C. I don't agree.

D. It's a waste of money

96. "Guess what? I've been recruited to be a member of Green Dream Volunteer Group." – “____” A. Good luck next time!

B. It doesn't make sense to me.

C. That's the least thing I could do for you.

D. That's great! Congratulations!

97. "Mom, may I go away to Quang Binh at the weekends to help the unlucky people there?" – “____” A. Never mind. Your first priority is to study.

B. No way, you've run out of time.

C. No, of course, I won't.

D. Yes, of course. That's a good thing to do.

98. “____” - “No, that would be fine." A. Are you writing your essay on how to help the disabled? B. Could you allow me to read your essay on how to help the disabled? C. Do you mind if I have a look at your essay on how to help the disabled? D. Would you correct your essay on how to help the disabled? 99. “Oh, this suitcase is really heavy, and my back is killing me!" – “____” A. I sometimes have a backache.

B. Oh, thanks for your help.

C. It's very good of you to do that.

D. Shall I carry it for you?

100. “Let's join hands to help the lonely elderly in our neighbourhood!” – “____” A. By all means, we can't.

B. It's true for now.

C. You're welcome!

D. Yes, let's plan on it.

101. "What a charitable deed you have, Mary!" – “____” A. I don't like your sayings.

B. It's nice of you to say so.

C. You are a liar.

D. Thank you very much, I'm afraid.

102." Can you tell me the way to Hoa Binh Orphanage?" – “____” A. It's about two kilometres.

B. It opens at nine o'clock.

C. Go straight and turn to the first left.

D. You can walk or go there by taxi.

103. "Can students from other schools join “Special Christmas Gifts” campaign, Maria?" - "____” A. Great idea! What a meaningful gift! B. Oh, how can they lend us a hand? C. It is very kind of you to say so. D. Sure, a few other schools have already joined us. 104. "How often do you visit the nursing home for the elderly?" – “____” A. Every two weeks. C. Much often.

B. From that bus stop over there. D. Twice or three times.

105. "Would you mind helping me with the heavy boxes?" – “____” A. My Gosh! Part V. READING

B. Not at all.

C. What a pity!

D. Yes, I would

Exercise 9. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. Humanitarian Dorothea Dix was born in Hampden, Maine, in 1802. At the age of 19, she established a school for girls, the Dix Mansion School, in Boston, but had to close it in 1835 due to her poor health. She wrote and published the first of many books for children in 1824. In 1841, Dix accepted an invitation to teach classes at a prison in East Cambridge, Massachusetts. She was deeply disturbed by the sight of mentally-ill persons thrown in the jail and treated like criminals. For the next eighteen months, she toured Massachusetts institutions where other mental patients were confined and reported the shocking conditions she found to the state legislature. When improvements followed in Massachusetts, she turned her attention to the neighbouring states and then to the West and South. Dix's work was interrupted by the Civil War; she served as superintendent of women hospital nurses for the federal government. Dix saw special hospitals for the mentally-ill built in some fifteen states. Although her plan to obtain public land for her cause failed, she aroused concern for the problem of mental illnesses all over the United States as well as in Canada and Europe. Dix's success was due to her independent and thorough research, her gentle but persistent manner, and her ability to secure the help of powerful and wealthy supporters. 106. In what year was the Dix Mansion School closed? A. 1802

B. 1824

C. 1835

D. 1841

107. Why did Dorothea Dix first go to a prison? A. She was convicted of a crime.

B. She taught classes there.

C. She was sent there by the state legislature.

D. She was doing research for a book.

108. Where was Dorothea Dix first able to bring about reforms in the treatment of the mentally-ill? A. Canada

B. Europe

C. Massachusetts

D. The West and the South

109. The word "confined" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ____. A. restricted

B. treated

C. cared for

D. supported

110. Dorothea Dix was NOT successful in her attempt to ____. A. arouse concern for the mentally-ill C. obtain public lands

B. become superintendent of nurses D. publish books for children

Exercise 10. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. All over the country, young people are entering a world of homelessness and poverty, according to a recent report by the housing group, Shelter. Nearly 150,000 young people aged between sixteen and twenty-five will become homeless this year, says Shelter. Some of the young homeless may sleep out in the open in such places as the "cardboard cityâ&#x20AC;? in London, where people of all ages sleep in the open air in their only homes - cardboard boxes. Others may find accommodation in shelters run by voluntary organisations or get a place in a hostel, which gives them board up to ten weeks.

But who are these people? Those who are seeking a roof over their heads are mostly not runaways but “throwaways" - people who have been thrown out of their homes or forced to leave because of parental divorce, an unsympathetic step-parent or one of many other reasons. Take the case of one sixteen-year-old schoolgirl, Alice. She did not come from a poor home and had just passed her exams with good results. The Shelter team met her in a hostel where she was doing her physics homework. Her parents had thrown her out of her home for no other reason that she wanted to do Science Advanced Level Exams - which her parents refused her permission to do, saying that studying sciences was unladylike! Shelter says that the government's laws do nothing to help these youngsters. Rising rents, the shortage of cheap housing and the cut in benefits for young people under the age of twenty-five are causing a national problem, according to Shelter. The recent changes in the benefit laws mean that someone aged between sixteen and twenty-five gets less than older people and they can only claim state help if they prove that they left home for a good reason. Shelter believes that because of the major cuts in benefits to young people, more and more are being forced to sleep on the streets. Shelter also points out that if you are homeless, you can't get a job because employers will not hire someone without a permanent address; and if you can't get a job, you are homeless because you don't have any money to pay for accommodation. It's an impossible situation. 111. According to a recent report by Shelter, it appears that ____. A. hostels are too full to offer accommodation to homeless young people B. more and more young people all over the world are finding themselves homeless C. nearly 150,000 young people live out in the open D. young homeless people live in places like "cardboard city” 112. The word “Others” in paragraph 2 refers to ____. A. people of all ages C. the young homeless

B.young people D. voluntary organisations

113. Most young people become homeless because ____. A. circumstances make it impossible for them to live at home B. they do not want to live with a divorced parent C. they have run away from home D. they have thrown away any chances of living at home by behaving badly 114. Why was Alice turned out of her home? A. Her parents didn't agree with what she wanted to do. B. She didn't want to study for her Advanced Level Exams. C. She had not obtained high marks in her exams. D. She refused to do her homework in the evening. 115. According to the passage, “benefits" are ____. A. extra wages for part-time workers

B. gifts of food and clothing

C. laws about distributing money

D. subsidies for those in need

116. The changes in the system of benefits mean that ____. A. anyone under twenty-five and not living at home will receive help with food and accommodation

B. the under twenty-fives can claim money only if they have left home C. young people do not receive as much money as those over twenty-five D. young people cannot claim money unless they are under sixteen or over twenty-five 117. According to Shelter, once young people have been forced onto the streets, ____. A. their benefits will be severely cut C. they will never go back home again

B. they will find it difficult to find work D. they will encourage their friends to do the same

118. The word "permanent" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ____. A. flexible

B. obvious

C. stable

D. simple

Exercise 11. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. LUDWIG VAN BEETHOVEN (1770-1827) Beethoven is widely regarded as one of the greatest composers in history. He gave his first public (119) ____ as a pianist when he was only 8 years old. He studied in Vienna (120) ____ the guidance of Mozart. By his midtwenties he (121) ____ a name for himself as a great pianist known for unpredictable and brilliant improvisations. In 1796, Beethoven began losing his hearing. (122) ____ his illness, he involved himself in his work and (123) ____ some of the greatest works of music. Beethoven's finest works are also the finest works of their kind in music history: the 9th Symphony, the 5th Piano Concerto, the Violin Concerto, the Late Quartets, and his Missa Solemnis. And be achieved all these despite being completely (124) ____ for the last 25 he years or so of his life. 119. A. perform

B. performance C. performing

120. A. on

B. for

C. behind

D. under

121. A. had earned

B. earned

C. has earned

D. was earning

122. A. In case of

B. Instead of

C. In order to

D. In spite of

123. A. did

B. created

C. painted

D. learned

124. A. deaf

B. mute

C. blind

D. performer

D. sick

Exercise 12. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. THANKS A MILLION Percy Ross was born in 1916 in Michigan. His parents has come to the USA from Latvia and Russia and the family were poor. But Percy soon showed a talent (125) ____ business and made a fortune in the fur trade and auction business. Then disaster struck and he (126) ____ all his money. But he soon made a fortune again - this time by (127) ____ plastic bags. In 1969, he sold his plastic bag company for millions of dollars. Ross started giving away in 1977: he gave $50,000 to 50 Vietnamese refugees so that they could make a new home in the USA. (128) ____ he held a Christmas party for 1,050 poor children in the American town of Minneapolis. Ross bought a bike for every one of the 1,050 children at the party. After these first experiences of giving money away, Ross decided to do it on a (129) ____ basis. He started a newspaper column called â&#x20AC;&#x2DC;Thanks a Millionâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;. and later a radio show, in order to give away his money. It took years, but Ross finally (130) ____ in giving away his entire fortune. 125. A. for

B. of

C. on

D. with

126. A. threw

B. wasted

C. lost

D. sent

127. A. manufacture

B. manufacturing

C. manufacturer

D. manufactured

128. A. But

B. Then

C. Yet

D. Though

129. A. frequent

B. usual

130. A. interested

B. invested

C. occasional C. succeeded

D. regular D. tried

Part VI. WRITING Exercise 13. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 131. ""We'll give four million glasses of milk to thousands of disadvantaged children this year,â&#x20AC;? a dairy giant in Ha Noi said. A. A dairy giant in Ha Noi wanted to give four million glasses of milk to thousands of disadvantaged children this year. B. A dairy giant in Ha Noi suggested giving four million glasses of milk to thousands of disadvantaged children that year. C. A dairy giant in Ha Noi promised to give four million glasses of milk to thousands of disadvantaged children that year. D. A dairy giant in Ha Noi ordered to give four million glasses of milk to thousands of disadvantaged children that year. 132. Hundreds of students in Can Tho crafted 800 paper lanterns for poor children in the last Mid-Autumn Festival. A. Both the students and poor children in Can Tho crafted 800 paper lanterns in the last Mid-Autumn Festival. B. 800 paper lanterns were crafted for poor children in the last Mid-Autumn Festival by hundreds of students in Can Tho. C.Hundreds of students in Can Tho had 800 paper lanterns made for poor children in the last Mid-Autumn Festival. D. Thanks to hundreds of students in Can Tho, poor children made 800 paper lanterns in the last Mid-Autumn Festival. 133. Both disabled and non-disabled people can contribute to our community by doing voluntary work. A. Doing voluntary work can make contribution to our community by both disabled and non-disabled people. B. Either disabled or non-disabled people can make voluntary contribution to our community. C. Not only disabled people but also non-disabled ones can contribute to our community by doing voluntary work. D. With voluntary work, our community can contribute a lot thanks to both disabled and non-disabled people. 134. Last week, a team of foreign volunteers launched a campaign to help students with disabilities. A. Last week, a team of foreign volunteers set up a campaign for students with disabilities to join in. B. Last week, students with disabilities volunteered to launch a campaign with the help of a team of foreign volunteers. C. Last week, both a team of foreign volunteers and students with disabilities launched a campaign. D. Last week, a campaign was launched to help students with disabilities by a team of foreign volunteers.

135. Two European philanthropists have spent more than a year walking from their continent to Asia to raise funds for needy children in Viet Nam. A. Funds were raised for needy children in Viet Nam by a one-year-walk from their continent to Asia by two European philanthropists. B. In order to raise funds for needy children in Viet Nam, two European philanthropists have spent more than a year walking from their continent to Asia. C. Two European philanthropists have been walking from their continent to Asia for more than a year because of needy children in Viet Nam. D. Two European philanthropists walked from their continent to Asia more than a year ago to raise funds for needy children in Viet Nam. Exercise 14. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 136. The program about the campaign drew the participation of 25 companies and sponsors in the city. It was broadcast live on HTV9 channel last night. A. Although it was broadcast live on HTV9 channel last night, the program about the campaign only drew the participation of 25 companies and sponsors in the city. B. The program about the campaign, which was broadcast live on HTV9 channel last night, drew the participation of 25 companies and sponsors in the city. C. The program about the campaign not only drew the participation of 25 companies and sponsors in the city but it was also broadcast live on HTV9 channel last night. D. The program about the campaign was broadcast live on HTV9 channel last night in order to draw the participation of 25 companies and sponsors in the city. 137. A Vietnamese ex-student of Oxford University has established a foundation. This aims to construct bridges to facilitate travel in isolated communities. A. A Vietnamese ex-student of Oxford University has established a foundation to construct bridges to facilitate travel in isolated communities. B. A Vietnamese ex-student of Oxford University who has established a foundation constructed bridges to facilitate travel in isolated communities. C. Bridges are constructed to facilitate travel in isolated communities by a Vietnamese ex-student of Oxford University who has established a foundation. D. If a Vietnamese ex-student of Oxford University has established a foundation, he will construct bridges to facilitate travel in isolated communities. 138. A man in Quang Nam has launched a solo effort to fundraise for a young girl. Her parents died in a tragic waterway accident. A. A man in Quang Nam whose parents died in a tragic waterway accident has launched a solo effort to fundraise for a young girl. B. A man in Quang Nam has launched a solo effort to fundraise for a young girl whose parents died in a tragic waterway accident.

C. In order to fundraise for a young girl, a man whose parents died in a tragic waterway accident has launched a solo effort. D. When a man in Quang Nam has launched a solo effort to fundraise for a young girl, her parents died in a tragic waterway accident. 139. They wanted to provide clarity and publicity. Therefore, they listed all donors' names along with their amount of contribution and their photos. A. In order to list all donors' names along with their amount of contribution and their photos, they wanted to provide clarity and publicity. B. Only when they provided clarity and publicity did they list all donors' names along with their amount of contribution and their photos. C. They either provided clarity and publicity or listed all donors' names along with their amount of contribution and their photos. D. They provided clarity and publicity by listing all donors' names along with their amount of contribution and their photos. 140. Niggli first visited Viet Nam in 1999. He has been a generous sponsor of underprivileged Vietnamese children since then. A. Before visiting Viet Nam in 1999, Niggli has been a generous sponsor of underprivileged Vietnamese children. B. Niggli has been a generous sponsor of underprivileged Vietnamese children since his first visit to Viet Nam in 1999. C. Niggli first visited Viet Nam in 1999 when he has been a generous sponsor of underprivileged Vietnamese children. D. When he first visited Viet Nam in 1999, Niggli had been a generous sponsor of underprivileged Vietnamese children.

Unit 5. BEING PART OF ASEAN

Part I. PHONETICS

Exercise 1. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 1. A. athlete

B. capital

C. stalk

D. talent

2. A. emblem

B. member

C. regret

D. theme

3. A. August

B. gerund

C. purpose

D. suggest

4. A. dream

B. mean

C. peace

D. steady

5. A. consist

B. disable

C. suggest

D. vision

Exercise 2. Mark the letter A. B. C. or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. 6. A. assistance B. confident

C. dynamic

D. external

7. A. academic B. behaviour

C. participate

D. relationship

8. A. charter

B. depict

C. enter

D. purchase

9. A. athlete

B. continue

C. principle

10. A. competition

B. fundamental C. interference D. stability

D. regional

Part II. VOCABULARY Exercise 3. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 11. The government's interference in the strike has been widely criticised. A. disapproval B. intervention C. limitation

D. postponement

12. The emblem of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations was designed basing on rice - the most important crop for the Southeast Asian people. A. banner

B. logo

C. motto

D. slogan

13. The scholarship is renewed annually and may be stopped if the students have poor academic records or bad behaviours. A every day

B. every month C. every week

D. every year

14. In Thailand, it's against the law to litter on the pavement. If you are caught, you can be fined up to $2000 Baht. A evil

B. illegal

C. immoral

D. wrong

15 The beautiful sights in Sa Pa, Mui Ne and Ha Noi all contribute to the country's magic charm. A. beauty

B. fame

C. image

D. value

16. ASEAN organised different projects and activities to integrate its members. A. combine

B. interest

C. separate

D. upgrade

17. The major shortcoming of ASEAN as an organisation is the inability to go through many declarations, agreements, and instruments that they have proliferated over the years. A. advantage

B. benefit

C. drawback

D. success

18. We have achieved considerable results in the economic field, such as high economic growth, stability and significant poverty alleviation over the past few years. A. achievement B. development

C.prevention

D. reduction

19. After the collapse of the Soviet Union in 1989, the 13th National Congress of the Communist Party of Viet Nam adopted a resolution to have â&#x20AC;&#x2DC;more friends and fewer enemies'. A. breakdown

B. decrease

C. establish

D . increase

20. He had dominated racing this year with six victories in seven starts. A. overexcited B. overreacted C. overwhelmed

D. overshadowed

21. It's often hard to find the right time to approach someone about a delicate issue, as well as being difficult to say the words you need to say. A. sensitive

B. significant

C. unconscious D. unfamiliar

22. The Association of Southeast Asian Nations, or ASEAN, was established on 8 August 1967 in Bangkok, Thailand, with Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore and Thailand, joining hands initially. A. basically

B. firstly

C. lastly

D. officially

Exercise 4. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 23. Our survey also found that 75 per cent of those quizzed knew three or more of their neighbours. A. interviewed B. asked

C. replied

D. examined

24. Viet Nam and Laos will closely cooperate to strengthen the solidarity of ASEAN and enhance the vital role of the group in regional security structure. A. agreement

B. cooperation C. separation

D. fellowship

25. Her graceful performance of this traditional art form in the evening session was a real source of pleasure. A. attractive

B. effortless

C. inelegant

D. sophisticated

26. Viet Nam is famous for World Heritage Sites like Ha Long Bay and Hoi An Ancient Town. A. honoured

B. popular

C. well-known

D. unknown

27. The country's continued prosperity is dependent on the opportunities and achievements of all its residents. A. poverty

B. inflation

C. insecurity

D. Wealth

28. The colour white symbolises a lot of things, and one is that it represents purity and innocence. A. cleanness

B. immorality

C. honesty

D. guiltlessness

29. All countries are obliged to maintain stability and peace in the world, because instability brings undesired effects. A. certain

B. foreseen

C. negative

D. positive

30. Many people afraid that the victory of US president-elect Donald Trump might affect stability in Asia, more specifically in the ASEAN region. A. failure

B. insecurity

C. poverty

D. weakness

31. The 28th and 29th ASEAN Summits opened in Vientiane, Laos, late on Tuesday on the theme of â&#x20AC;&#x153;Turning Vision into Reality for a Dynamic ASEAN Community". A. energetic

B. inactive

C. innovative

D. productive

32. Amanita argued that Indonesia would continue to play a role in maintaining peace and promoting democratisation in ASEAN. A. assisting

B. lessening

C. preserving

D. upholding

33. Southeast Asian regionalism served to enable the member-states to focus primarily on their domestic affairs.

A. external

B. internal

C. local

D. national

34. The Prince William made a brief working visit to Viet Nam from 17th - 18th November 2016, attending the IWT Conference which was hosted in Ha Noi. A. lasting

B. public

C. short

D. secret

Exercise 5 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 35. ASEAN includes ten member states, but may get bigger because other countries have applied to join the ____. A. bloc

B. group

C. gang

D. trĂ´p

36. The ____ is a legal agreement among the ten ASEAN member states. A. charter

B. motto

C. policy

D. principle

37. The Japanese Government ____ 20 scholarships for international students coming from ASEAN member countries to study in Japan. A. affords

B. demands

C. offers

D. provides

38. The 28th and 29th ASEAN Summits will be ____ at the National Convention Centre under the Chairmanship of Lao PDR. A. carried

B. conducted

C. held

D. taken place

39. The ASEAN charter entered into ____ after ten members signed it. A. action

B. force

C. influence

D. order

40. Each deputy should be ____ for one ASEAN community council, supported by a team of competent and able lawyers. A. blamed

B. capable

C. in charge

D. responsible

41. Vietnamese athletes compete regionally and internationally and ____ high ranks in many sports. A. hold

B. keep

C. mark

D. score

42. Not all the winners will receive great prizes, but nobody leaves ____. A. blank-handed

B. clear-handed

C. empty-handed

D. white-handed

B. feel

C. look

D. were

B. involve

C. promise

D. suggest

43. I ____ good about the race's outcome. A. am 44. Do you ____ they will win? A. believe

45. I think the teacher was ____ with my speech. A. appreciated B. involved

C. measured

D. satisfied

46. I still ____ a lot of money on my student loans. A. consist

B. deserve

C. involve

D. owe

47. Lao PDR stands ____ Lao People's Democratic Republic. A. by

B. for

C. on

D. with

48. ASEAN ____ of ten Southeast Asian countries, namely: Brunei. Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, and Viet Nam. A. consists

B. contains

C. includes

D. involves

49. The member states will act in accordance ____ the law to set out in various ASEAN instruments. A. for

B. of

C. to

D. with

50. The 28th and 29th ASEAN Summits will focus ____ efforts to build the ASEAN Community. A. at

B. for

C. in

D. on

Part III. GRAMMAR Exercise 6. Mark the letter A. B. C. or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 51. It is no use ____ a girl that she doesn't need to lose any weight. A. convince

B. convincing

C. to convince

D. to convincing

C. doing

D. to do

52. I have much homework that I ought ____. A. do

B. to doing

53. She did a funny little curtsy which Josh and Silver couldn't help ____ at. A. laugh

B. laughing

C. to laugh

D. to laughing

54. We are looking forward ____ out at the weekend. A. go .

B. going

C. to go

D. to going

55. You should give up ____ your sister. A. being bullied B. bullied

C. bullying

D. to bully

56. She is used ____ to loud music. A. listen

B. listening

C. to listen

D. to listening

57. I'm in a difficult position. What do you advise me ____? A. do

B. doing

C. to do

D. to doing

58. It's a nice day. Does anyone fancy ____ for a walk? A. having gone B. going

C. to go

D. went

59. I wish that dog would stop ____. It's driving me mad. A. bark

B. barking

C. being barked

D. to bark

60. He never says anything that is worth ____ to. A. listen

B. listening

C. to listen

D. to listening

61. Carol's parents always encouraged her ____ hard at school. A. being studied

B. study

C. studying

D. to study

62. They promised ____ me ____ for the party. A. to help prepare

B. to help/preparing

C. helping/preparing

D. helping/to prepare

63. All ____ were asked to list all the members of ASEAN that they could think of in a one-minute period. A. participates B. participations

C. participants

D. participating

64. We will create a stable, prosperous and highly ____ ASEAN Economic community. A. compete compete

B. competition C. competitor

D. competitive

65. Unfortunately, the solution to this problem is neither simple nor ____. A. economy

B. economic

C. economical

D. economicany

66. The members meet once a week to develop and adopt proposals on new ____ and legislation. A. policy

B. politic

C. political

D . politician

67. The children grew up with deep ____ for their parents. A. respect

B. respecting

C. respectful

D. respectability

68. As an ASEAN member, Viet Nam has actively participated in the group's programs and has also created new ____ and cooperation mechanisms. A. initiatives

B. initiates

C. initiations

D. initiators

69. Over the past decade, Viet Nam-ASEAN ____ have been growing fast in all areas, particularly in politics and the economy. A. relates

B. relatives

C. relations

D. relationships

70. With a population of over 237 million people, Indonesia is the world's fourth most ____ country. A. popular

B. popularly

C. populous

D. unpopular

71. She apologised ____ waiting so long. A. for keeping me

B. for me

C. for me keeping

D. to me for

72. Her mother prevented her ____ going out tonight. A. about

B. against

C. at

D. from

C . on

D. of

73. She insisted ____ talking to her lawyer. A. in

B. for

74. He is not good ____ maths. He is incapable ____ calculating. A. at â&#x20AC;&#x201C; of

B. for â&#x20AC;&#x201C; of

C.on - for

D. on - of

Exercise 7. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 75. The ten stalks of padi represent the hope for an ASEAN comprising all the ten countries in Southeast Asia A

bound together in friendly and solidarity. C

76. In the Rio Olympics 2016, Vietnamese sports delegation returned home with two medals both from "hero" A

shooter Hoang Xuan Vinh, ranking the 48th in the final. D 77. Viet Nam was the first Indochinese country joining ASEAN, and its move helped end confrontation A

between the Indochinese party and ASEAN. D 78. ASEAN was found in Bangkok, Thailand on 8 August 1967 when the five founding members signed the A

ASEAN Declaration. 79. Viet Nam has remained committed to ASEAN since it joined in 1995 and the idea of an ASEAN A

Community has increasingly accepted into Viet Nam's political lexicon. D 80. Soon after becoming a member, Viet Nam signed the Treaty on the Southeast Asian Nuclear-Weapon-Free A

Zone and being one of the founding members of the ASEAN Regional Forum. C

81. ASEAN aims at promoting economic growth, regional peace as well as provide opportunities for its A

members. 82. Being influenced by Chinese, European, Indian, and Malay cultures, Indonesia is a wide diverse nation with A

over 300 ethnic groups. D 83. Students from Viet Nam who wish applying for the ASEAN scholarship must be approved by the A

Ministry of Education and Training. D 84. Shaping like an elongated S, Viet Nam covers a surface area of 128,000 square miles, making it roughly the A

size of Italy or, in the U.S., New Mexico. 85. The MPAC is intended allowing the AEC and enhance ASEAN's inner integration with the help of A

improved infrastructure development. D 86. Not everybody prefers study abroad to studying in his or her home country. A

87. Nowadays, more and more people are realising what it means to be a part of ASEAN and why it is A

important to join in the association. D 88. To participate in sport events, people with disabilities also have a chance to find their lifetime partner. A

89. I have been listening to your speech, but I am doubting what you are saying. I don't feel that it is a good A

idea. 90. John is having a clown birthday party. The clown is appearing. He always loves watching the clown. He A

is looking happy. D Part IV. SPEAKING Exercise 8. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges. 91. “It's so stuffy in here." – “____”

A. Do I have to open the window?

B. Must I open the window?

C. Shall I open the window?

D. Would you like to open the window?

92. “Merry Christmas!" – “____” A. Happy Christmas to you!

B. Same for you!

C. The same to you!

D. You are the same!

93. "I will pick you up around 7:30. The movie starts at 8:00." – “____” A. No, you don't

B. OK. See you then.

C. I don't like waiting.

D. Thanks, no big deal.

94. "____ going on a picnic this weekend?" - "That's great!" A. How about

B. Let's

C. Why don't we

D. Would you like

95. "Mr Green had an accident. He's been in hospital for a week.” – “____” A. How terrific B. Oh, is he?

C. Poor it.

D. Poor him.

96. “Do you really think that I should take the job?" – “____ Trust me. Take it. What do you have to lose?” A. I doubt so.

B. I don't think so.

C. I hope so.

D. I know so.

97. "Do you fancy a drink?" _ “____” A. No, everything is OK.

B . Oh! Of course not.

C. Sure, let's go and get one.

D. Wow! I am so excited.

98. "What are you doing here, Tom? Do you want to join us?" – “____ Please continue. I'm just coming to find my stuff.” A. Don't mind me.

B. Don't worry. C. Not at all.

D. Not to mention.

99. "Take the second turning on the left and then go straight ahead until you see the cinema on the right." – “____ Thanks." A. I agree with you.

B. I don't think so.

C. I have got that.

D. It makes sense.

100. “Do you mind if I turn on the volume?” – “____” A. I don't think so.

B. I'm sorry, but you have to.

C. No, please go ahead.

D. Of course, you can't.

101. "Would you mind if I smoked?” – “____” A. Don't mention it.

B. I'd rather you didn't. C. Mind your head!

D. You don't want to.

102. “Let's have a pizza.” – “____” A. It doesn't matter.

B. Not at all.

C. Not really

D. Sure thing!

103. "It's freezing outside! What happened to the weather report? I thought this cold front was supposed to pass.” “Yeah, ____” A. I agreed with you.

B. I thought so too.

C. That's good point.

D. You are right.

104. "Let's play Scrabble! I'm really good at spelling, too!" - "Oh, yeah? ____” A. Does that make sense?

B. I can't believe in that.

C. I worry about it.

D. We'll see about that!

105. "I'm really excited for Aunt Mary's surprise birthday party this afternoon! Aren't you?" – “____” A. Oh! I didn't know she was older. C. Uh-huh! What then? Part V. READING

B. Really? What happened next? D. Yeah! How old is she?

Exercise 9. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. Asia's economic, political and cultural importance is growing (106) ____ a never-before seen rate. Take China, for example: In terms of purchasing power, China is now the largest (107) ____ of the world, having recently (108) ____ over the crown from the long time leader United States. Understanding the fundamental structural changes in the global economy and having studied abroad in Asia is a huge asset on your (109) ____ when competing for jobs. (110) ____ the increasing importance of the continent, many international with experience in companies are expanding to Asia and need (111) ____ with experience in Asian markets and culture. To get a (112) ____ of the action and business ideas flowing from Asia, visit Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation's (APEC) website. One of the most important variables behind the miracle of the speed of growth and recovery in the Asian economies is the (113) ____ of education. The competition for top schools and universities starts from a very early (114) ____ . The point of education in Asia is to equip people to become productive members of their given societies as (115) ____ as equip the students with the skills and mentality to be (116) ____ to successfully compete against the masses of other applicants. Asian students and schools receive continuously top marks in international rankings. This has been directly (117) ____in the success stories of several Asian countries. 106. A. at

B. by

107. A. economic

B. economical C. economically

108. A. came

B. passed

C. kicked

D. taken

109. A. summary

B. profile

C. resume

D. requirement

110. A. Although

B. Because

C. Despite

D. Due to

111. A. employees

B. employers

C. employment D. unemployment

112. A. glance B. glimpse

C. on

D. with D. economy

C. look

D. view

113. A. quality B. qualification C. quantity

D. quantification

114. A. age

B. period

C. semester

D. year

115. A. far

B. long

C. much

D. well

116. A. able

B. capable

C. disable

D. unable

117. A. allowed B. influenced

C. provided

D. reflected

Exercise 10. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. The 22nd Southeast Asian Games were held in Viet Nam from the 5th to 13th December, 2003. Although it was the first time Viet Nam hosted such a big sports event, the Games were a great success. The Games really became a festival that impressed sports enthusiasts with its spirit: solidarity, co-operation for peace and development. Athletes from 11 participating countries competed in 32 sports, and 444 gold medals were won. Some teams such as table tennis, badminton, karate, volleyball, basketball and wrestling were composed of top competitors in the region. Many Games records were close to international levels. Viet Nam won 158 gold medals to finish at the top of the Southeast Asian Games medal standings. Thailand ranked second with 90 golds, and Indonesia was third with only 55 golds. Singapore and Viet Nam were the two nations which had participants who were

presented with the Most Outstanding Athlete titles in the Swimming and Shooting events. The Vietnamese Women's Football team successfully defended the SEA Games title. Viet Nam and Thailand played in the Men's Football Final. The Thai Team won the gold medal. In other sports such as karate, athletics, bodybuilding and wushu, the young and energetic Vietnamese athletes performed excellently and won a lot of gold medals. Viet Nam's first place finish was not surprising. Firstly, to prepare for the 22nd SEA Games, Viet Nam carried out an intensive programme for its athletes, which included training in facilities, both home and abroad. Secondly, with the strong support of their countrymen, the Vietnamese athletes competed in high spirits. The country's success has proved that Viet Nam can organise sporting events on an international level. A plan has been proposed for Viet Nam to host the Asia Sports Games at some point in the future. 118. It can be inferred from the passage that ____. A. Viet Nam can organise sporting events better than other countries B. Viet Nam had already planned for the next Sea Games in the future C. Viet Nam prepared its athletes well for the 22nd SEA Games D. Viet Nam protected its first place in SEA Games competition 119. The word "title" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ____. A. power

B. label

C. headline

D. trophy

120. According to the passage, what is NOT true about the 22nd Southeast Asian Games? A. There were 11 countries participating in. B. Many athletes had broken the world records. C. Indonesia ranked higher than Singapore. D. Vietnamese Women's Football team won gold medal. 121. The word "intensiveâ&#x20AC;? in paragraph 3 has OPPOSITE meaning to ____. A. delicate

B. flexible

C. sensitive

D. vigorous

122. What is the writer's main purpose in writing this passage? A. To explain the reasons why 22nd Sea Games was organised in Viet Nam. B. To express the writer's love and how much he is proud of the country's success. C. To introduce top competitors in the region and their ranking in the Games. D. To show Vietnamese's ability in organising international sporting events. Exercise 11. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. When Malaysia takes the ASEAN chair next year, it will face a huge challenge. Too few of us know enough about this grouping we call the Association of Southeast Asian Nations. We do not know what it means to be a part of ASEAN and why it is important to us. At the same time, pressure is mounting to reinvent ASEAN to make it more people-centric and less government-centric. The Heat speaks to Global Movement of Moderates CEO Saifuddin Abdullah on why ASEAN should mean more to us than just acronyms. ASEAN people do not feel like they are a part of the community of Southeast Asian nations. This statement, backed up by survey findings, is pretty bizarre, and extremely hurtful too, considering that ASEAN is 47 years old today. "Interview 10 persons on the street and you would perhaps get only one of them who knows about ASEAN,â&#x20AC;? says Datuk Saifuddin Abdullah. This CEO of Global Movement of Moderates (GMM) is not running

down ASEAN; he's confronting the truth as it impacts the project he has been entrusted with. Here's more, in 2012, the ASEAN Secretariat conducted a survey that showed only 34% of Malaysians had heard of the ASEAN community. This compares with 96% of Laotians. Malaysia chairs ASEAN next year, and GMM is a member of the national steering committee organising the ASEAN People's Forum (APF), a platform designed to bridge the gap between governments and civil society. Never heard of it? You're forgiven. The APF actually started off life in the 1990s, except it was called the ASEAN People's Assembly (APA). It was held back to back with the ASEAN Summit, which is held twice a year. The APA is the forum where 10 leaders of government engage with 10 leaders of civil society in a half-hour meeting. "It was going well until one year when the chairman decided not to hold the APA, so it was discontinued until 2005 when Malaysia took the chairmanship of ASEAN again and founded the ASEAN People's Forum (APF)," Saifuddin explains. In a perfect world, forums such as the APF or its predecessor APA would have worked perfectly to bridge the gap between government and civil society. However, as Saifuddin points out, Civil Society Organisations (CSOs) often do not see eye to eye with their governments. For instance this year, Myanmar is chair of ASEAN and in the APF, three member nations including Malaysia - decided not to recognise the CSO leaders chosen as representatives so the APF did not take place. “This is where the GMM wants to play a role in ensuring that this situation does not arise again," Saifuddin says. 123. According to the passage, in 1990s, APF was called ____. A. ASEAN People's Assembly

B. ASEAN People's Forum

C. Civil Society Organisations

D. Global Movement of Moderates

124. The word “acronyms” in paragraph 1 probably means ____. A. abbreviations

B. antonyms

C. enlargements

D. synonyms

125. The phrase "backed up" in paragraph 2 has similar meaning to ____. A. concluded

B. introduced

C. proved

D. Supported

126. According to the passage, Datuk Saifuddin Abdullah was CEO of ____. A. APA

B. APF

C. CSOs

D. GMM

127. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the APF according to the passage? A. APF consists of 20 leaders.

B. APF is held every two years.

C. APF is reorganised in 2005.

D. APF lasts for 30 minutes.

128. The phrase "bridge the gap" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ____. A. avoid the conflict

B. break down the wall

C. build a strong relation

D. narrow the difference

129. Which of the following statements is TRUE according to the passage? A. Discontinuing APF led to conflict between government and civil society. B. Laotians show more interest in politics than Malaysians. C. The APA was held twice a year until 2005. D. CSOs do not always agree with their governments. 130. Which of the following would serve as the best title for the passage? A. How important was the ASEAN People's Forum?

B. Who is going to be the ASEAN chair next year? C. What does it mean to be a part of ASEAN? D. Why do GMM play an important role in ASEAN? Part VI. WRITING Exercise 11. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 131. I said that she should see a doctor. A. I advised her seeing a doctor. C. I advised her to see a doctor.

B. I advised her should see a doctor. D. I advised to see a doctor.

132. Ireland doesn't allow people to smoke in bars. A. Ireland doesn't enjoy smoking in bars.

B. Ireland hates smoking in bars.

C. Smoking in bars is banned in Ireland. D. You should not smoke in bars in Ireland. 133. Working on the computer is not what she feels like. A. She doesn't feel like work on the computer. B. She doesn't feel like working on the computer. C. She doesn't feel like to work on the computer. D. She doesn't feel like to working on the computer. 134. California doesn't permit people to fish without a fishing license. A. California can't stand fishing without a fishing license. B. California doesn't allow fishing without a fishing license. C. California doesn't encourage fishing without a fishing license. D. California doesn't mind fishing without a fishing license. 135. â&#x20AC;&#x153;Why don't we go for a walk?" Mary said. A. Mary advised to go for a walk.

B. Mary asked going for a walk.

C. Mary suggested going for a walk.

D. Mary would like going for a walk.

Exercise 12. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 136. Everyone was all so afraid. Nobody dared to speak anything. A. Everyone was too afraid to dare to speak anything B. Everyone was afraid enough to not to speak anything. C. Everyone was such afraid that nobody speak anything. D. Nobody was not afraid enough to dare to speak anything. 137. We cannot create a rule-based ASEAN. We don't have means of drafting, interpreting and enforcing rules. A. Having means of drafting, interpreting and enforcing rules, it is impossible to create a rule-based ASEAN. B. It is impossible to create a rule-based ASEAN community with means of drafting, interpreting and enforcing rules. C. Not having means of drafting, interpreting and enforcing rules, we are unable to create a rule-based ASEAN. D. To have means of drafting, interpreting and enforcing rules, we are able to create a rule-based ASEAN.

138. Indonesia was influenced by Chinese, European, Indian, and Malay cultures. It is a widely diverse nation with over 300 ethnic groups. A. To influence by Chinese, European, Indian, and Malay cultures, Indonesia is a widely diverse nation with over 300 ethnic groups. B. To be influenced by Chinese, European, Indian, and Malay cultures, Indonesia is a widely diverse nation with over 300 ethnic groups. C. Influencing by Chinese, European, Indian, and Malay cultures, Indonesia is a widely diverse nation with over 300 ethnic groups. D. Being influenced by Chinese, European, Indian, and Malay cultures, Indonesia is a widely diverse nation with over 300 ethnic groups. 139. You come to Ha Noi. You are offered a large number of must-see tourist sites. A. Come to Ha Noi, you are offered a large number of must-see tourist sites. B. Coming to Ha Noi, you are offered a large number of must-see tourist sites. C. Having come to Ha Noi, you are offered a large number of must-see tourist sites. D. To come to Ha Noi, you are offered a large number of must-see tourist sites. 140. There isn't a culture of respecting and following the rule. The ASEAN community's present goal cannot be achieved. A. Even though there isn't a culture of respecting and following the rule, the ASEAN community's present goal cannot be achieved. B. Not being a culture of respecting and following the rule, the ASEAN community's present goal cannot be achieved. C. Owing to the a culture of respecting and following the rule, the ASEAN community's present goal cannot be achieved. D. The ASEAN community's present goal cannot be achieved unless there is a culture of respecting and following the rule.

Unit 6. GLOBAL WARMING

Part I. PHONETICS

Exercise 1. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 1. A. genius

B. gorilla

2. A. pollution B. poaching 3. A. warming B. warn

C. global C. physical

C. walk

4. A. floor

B. flood

5. A. increase

B. release

D. gases D. pesticide

D. wasn't C. moorland

D. door

C. please

D. grease

Exercise 2. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. 6. A. campaign B. global 7. A. natural

C. balance

D. carbon

B. endangered C. dangerous

D. habitat

8. A. rainforest B. tropical

C. discover

D. animal

9. A. pollution B. continue

C. enormous

D. disappear

10. A. devastated

B. environment C. diversity

D. ecology

Part II. VOCABULARY Exercise 3. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 11. We need to cut down on the emission of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere. A. intake

B. retake

C. uptake

D. discharge

12. Land erosion is mainly caused by widespread deforestation. A. afforestation

B. reforestation

C. logging

D. lawn mowing

13. In the past, a lot of countries denied having contributed to global warming. A. agreed

B. refuted

C. approved

D. avoided

14. Most people admit that they contribute to global warming. A. be partly responsible for

B. disapprove

C. neglect

D. cause

15. We must admit that people are heavily polluting the environment. A. decline

B. rebut

C. deny

D. accept

16. In the polluted environment, infectious diseases can be passed easily from one person to another. A. fatal

B. safe

C. contagious

D. immune

17. Global warming has severe impact on water supplies. A. very good

B. very bad

C. normal

D. long-lasting

18. Global warming occurs when the greenhouse gases in the atmosphere trap the heat from the sun. A. catch

B. discharge

C. dispose

D. release

19. Such unhygienic conditions encourage the spread of diseases. A. decline

B. stability

C. decrease

D. increase

20. Deforestation is one of the biggest environmental threats to the ecological balance in the world. A. sureties

B. certainties

C. dangers

D. safety

21. As fossil fuel resources are running out, it is important for the government to find some types of alternative energy. A. irreplaceable

B. substitute

C. impossible

D. practical

22. Local people have cut down the forests to make way for farming. A. allow farming to take place

B. lose way in farming

C. have a way of farming

D. give way to farming

23. Because farmers had been informed about the bad effects of chemical fertilisers, they started using them sparingly on their farms. A. carelessly

B. moderately

C. recklessly

D. irresponsibly

24. Global warming is one of the biggest issues facing humans nowadays. A. causes

B. factors

C. concerns

D. agreements

25. The biggest cause of global warming is carbon dioxide emissions from coal burning power plants. A. fauna

B. flora

C. trees

D. factories

26. Global warming effects on people and nature are catastrophic. A. destructive

B. constructive C. evaluative

D. creative

27. Coal burning releases a large amount of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere. A. discourages B. reduces

C. relaxes

D. discharges

28. The demand for cars is increasing rapidly in the modern world. A. need

B. offer

C . reply

D. discovery

29. Forests absorb and capture carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. A. take up

B. take in

C. take over

D. take to

30. The process of forests absorbing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere has been disrupted by the current alarming rate of deforestation. A. discussed

B. discovered

C. disturbed

D. distributed

C. hygiene

D. hunger

31. Flood and drought are two major causes of famine. A. family

B. obesity

32. Water shortages are likely to delay economic growth and damage ecosystems. A. aid

B. advance

C. deter

D. defer

33. It is important to maintain the biological diversity of the rainforests. A. similarity

B. identity

C. variety

D. compatibility

34. We may help if we cut down on energy use by using LED lightbulbs and unplug unused electronic devices. A. reuse

B. reduce

C. recycle

D. reproduce

35. Reusing and recycling glass, plastic, paper and other products help to reduce waste and pollution, and conserve natural resources. A. preserve

B. reserve

C. converse

D. reverse

36. The thick layer of global warming gases keeps more heat from the sun, which leads to the increase in the earth temperature. A. catches

B. releases

C. allows

D. loses

37. Global warming results in climate change and extreme weather patterns. A. results from B. causes

C. originates

D. is due to

38. Our city is going to ban supermarkets from using plastic bags. A. reduce

B. encourage

C. prohibit

D. allow

39. Many species are threatened with extinction due to deforestation and loss of habitat. A. damaged

B. spoilt

C. treated

D. endangered

40. It is important to raise money to help people who have to suffer consequences of global warming. A. collect

B. donate

C. sponsor

D. contribute

41. Everyone should remember to switch off the lights before going out. A. go off

B. turn off

C. take off

D. log off

42. We may help to control global warming by reducing carbon footprints in our homes. A. putting up with

B. getting down to

C. cutting down on

D. going back to

Exercise 4. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 43. Cutting down on energy use is the best way to help reduce global warming. A. Shrinking

B. Declining

C. Decreasing

D. Increasing

44. We should grow more trees so that they can absorb more carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. A. emit

B. take in

C. consume

D . cut off

45. Releasing too much carbon dioxide into the atmosphere can lead to global warming. A. result in

B. result from

C. cause

D. activate

46. Farmers turned to bio-fertilisers after they had been told about the dangers of chemical fertilisers. A. trusted

B. disbelieved

C. counted on

D. depended on

47. The factory owner denied having said that he should take responsibility for the damage that his factory caused to the surrounding environment. A. refuted

B. rejected

C. opposed

D. accepted

48. Some scientists are accused of not having reported the effects of climate change. A. exonerated

B. blamed

C. charged

D. complained

49. They were criticised for having acted irresponsibly towards the environment. A. blamed

B. commended

C. condemned

D. denounced

50. The factory was fined for having dumped a huge amount of rubbish into the river. A. penalised

B. levied

C. compensated

D. punished

Part III. GRAMMAR Exercise 5. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 51. With clear evidence, his company couldn't deny having dump a large quantity of toxins into the sea. A

52. Humans now have to suffer the effects of global warming due to having treat the environment irresponsibly. A

53. Having denied the responsibility for the environmental it caused, the factory was forced to close down. A

54. Having been warn about the relationship between climate change and the spread of infectious diseases, A

everyone should get vaccinated. D 55. These companies were accused on having released a large amount of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere. A

56. Having deciding on the topic of the presentation, he started finding relevant information for it. A

57. Having known about the harmful affects the company had on our neighbourhood, we decided to boycott its A

products. 58. Having signed an agreement to reduce carbon dioxide emissions, we were determined to help reduced A

global warming. 59. Having identified the most urgent environmental problems, they start working out all possible solutions. A

60. Having spent all their saving money, they started do some odd jobs to make ends meet. A

61. Having cutting down many trees in the area, now the people here have to suffer really hot summers. A

62. Having decided to use public transport instead private transport, we were determined to reduce carbon A

footprints. 63. Having cycled to work every day, I become more responsibly for the environmental issues. A

64. Having watched TV programmes about the farmers' careless use of chemical fertilisers on they crops, many A

citizen dwellers decided to grow their own vegetables. D 65. Having suffered water shortage in the past, we are all very economic on using water. A

66. Having change our attitude to nature, we started changing our behaviours as well. A

Exercise 6. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 67. The president of the company officially apologised to the local residents ____ having dumped a large amount of raw sewage in the area. A. about

B. with

C. at

D. for

68. The factory was accused ____ having caused higher level of pollution to the environment. A. about

B. on

C. of

D. for

69. We all admire him ____ having changed both his attitude and behaviours towards the environmental issues. A. about

B. for

C. with

D. at

70. Human activities are also blamed ____ having contributed to global warming. A. for

B. on

C. at

D. with

71. We congratulated him ____ having invented an energy-saving device. A. for

B. at

C. about

D. on

72. He was criticised ____ not having put the elephant poachers in jail. A. at

B. about

C. for

D. on

73. His company was punished ____ not having dumped the rubbish properly. A. by

B. for

C. about

D. because of

74. The city mayor praised all voluntary students ____ having cleaned the playgrounds for the children. A. for

B. because of

C. at

D. due to

75. He thanked us ____ having contributed to cleaning the surrounding environment. A. on

B. to

C. with

D. for

76. He was suspected ____ having received presents from the local companies and ignored their violations of the environmental law. A. about

B. on

C. of

D. for

77. Even when arrested, he denied ____ cut down that tree. A. has

B. having

C. have

D. have had

78. Those farmers admitted ____ having used more chemical fertilisers than needed. A. on

B. about

C. for

D. to

79. He forgot ____ promised to cut down on the carbon dioxide emissions into the atmosphere. A. to promise

B. have

C. having

D. had

80. I remembered having ____ off the lights before leaving home. A. switched

B. switch

C. switching

D. switches

81. He regretted not ____ registered for military service last spring. A. have

B. having

C. having had

D. having done

82. The local residents suspected the authorities ____ having kept the pollution level secret from the local people. A. about

B. on

C. of

D. for

83. He denied having polluted the environment, ____ no one believed him. A. however

B. despite

C. but

D. in spite of

84. Thank you for having ____ the information about global warming. A. shared

B. sharing

C. share

D. shares

85. He regretted ____ killed and eaten several rare species. A. to have

B. having

C. have

D. has

86. His company was fined ____ dumped tons of toxic waste near the residential area. A. to have

B. because of having

C. for having

D. of having

87. These students were rewarded ____ actively taken part in voluntary activities. A. with

B. before

C. on having

D. for having

88. She was praised ____ donated a lot of money to the wildlife protection organisation. A. for having

B. to have

C. because of having

D. due to having

89. I remember ____ advised you to stop hunting endangered animals. A. to have

B. having

C. have

D. had

90. The local authorities were blamed ____ ignored the pollution issues in the area. A. about having

B. on having

C. for having

D. before having

Part IV. SPEAKING Exercise 7. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges. Two friends Nam and Lan are talking about the topic of global warming. 91. Nam: What are the main threats to the environment today? Lan: ____ A. Threats are possible dangers to the environment. B. Probably deforestation and global warming. C. Environmental pollution is a big issue for our planet D. We need a clean environment to live in. 92. Lan: How can ordinary people help protect the environment? Nam: ____ A. What can ordinary people do to help the environment? B. Environment really needs our help. C. We may use environmentally-friendly products. D. Both governments and individuals are to blame on. 93. Nam: Do you do anything to protect the environment? Lan: ____ A. I refuse to use plastic bags and try to recycle as much as possible. B. I use a lot of plastic bags and containers to save the environment. C. I'm not interested in the subject of environment. D. I don't want to change my lifestyle. 94. Lan: What solution to air pollution can you suggest? Nam: ____ A. Air pollution is really serious these days. B. Smoke from factory chimneys pollutes the air. C. Air pollution causes acid rain. D. People should use public means of transport. 95. Nam: What is the biggest environmental problem facing our country? Lan: ____ A. Too much toxic sewage is dumped at sea. B. All countries face environmental problems. C. No one can help protect the environment. D. Our country is facing the biggest environmental problem.

96. Nam: Is global warming a problem in our country? Lan: ____ A. Global warming is getting more and more serious. B. Governments are closely working together to solve environmental problems. C. Global warming causes sea level to rise. D. Probably. The temperatures are getting hotter year by year in the area. 97. Nam: What causes global warming? Lan: ____ A. Changes in weather patterns resulting from global warming. B. Too much carbon dioxide being trapped in the atmosphere. C. Catastrophic consequences of global warming. D. Common global warming consequences. 98. Nam: What are the consequences of global warming? Lan: ____ A. Global warming causes many consequences. B. Consequences of global warming is catastrophic. C. Icebergs melt and low-lying areas are flooded. D. More trees are being cut down. 99. Nam: Why is global warming a problem? Lan: ____ A. People find it difficult to adapt to the changes in the weather patterns. B. Global warming can benefit people in certain areas. C. There's no need to worry about global warming. D. Global warming is a very interesting topic for presentation. 100. Nam: What are global warming gases? Lan: ____ A. Global warming gases are mainly man-made. B. Global warming gases are everywhere. C. The amount of carbon dioxide is increasing. D. Carbon dioxide, nitrous oxide, and methane. 101.Lan: What can government do to punish factories that violate environmental law? Nam: ____ A. So many of them are polluting the environment. B. Yes, I think a big fine would be relevant. C. They may force those factories to close down. D. There are no factories in this region. 102. Lan : Who has to suffer global warming effects the most? Nam: ____ A. What are global warming effects?

B. Maybe poor people in low-lying areas. C. All people suffer from global warming. D. Only few people benefit from global warming. 103. Lan: How can we help to fight deforestation? Nam: ____ A. We may recycle paper and buy recycled paper products. B. We may cut down trees at an alarming rate. C. We should only cut branches of big trees. D. We should set up animal ranches near forests. 104. Nam: What will happen if the low-lying areas are flooded? Lan: ____ A. Low-lying areas are often flooded. B. Flood happens when water level rises. C. Low-lying areas can never be flooded. D. People in these regions will have to face a lot of problems. 105. Lan: What do you do to help the environment? Nam: ____ A. It is the responsibility of the government. B. I try to recycle more and reduce carbon footprint. C. Everyone can protect the environment. D. Environment helps people live comfortably. Part V. READING Exercise 8. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. ENVIRONMENTAL CRIME We are probably all (106) ____ at some point in our lives of not caring for the environment as much as we should. Perhaps we drop litter without thinking, or cause (107) ____ by using our cars when it's not necessary. However, the real environmental (108) ____ are those big businesses which ignore the law. For many years now, (109) ____ have attempted to protect the environment by making businesses responsible for making sure that the chemical they use don't add to the (110) ____ of the environment. The problem for businesses is that the (111) ____ of the environment costs money, and businesses will always try to (112) ____ their costs if they can. Some of them do this by simply putting chemical into rivers when they have finished with them, leading to the (113) ____ of major problems. Although government (114) ____ may try to catch them doing it, it can be very difficult to get (115) ____ that a particular business is responsible for an environmental problem. It really depends (116) ____ not only the government but also businesses and individuals as well. All people need to contribute to (117) ____ the environment. 106. A. guilty 107. A. damage

B. proud B. pollution

C. sorry C. . accidents

D. tired D. trouble

108. A. agents

B. crimes

C. criminals

109. A. politicians

B. politics

110. A. induction

B. construction C. instruction

111. A. production

B. protection

112. A. stabilise

B. raise

D. doers

C. parties

D. residents D. destruction

C. destruction

C. lower

D. deforestation

D. save

113. A. creation

B. creativity

C. creator

D. creature

114. A. suspicion

B. suspect

C. inspection

D. inspectors

115. A. improvement

B. proof

C. waterproof

D. prove

116. A. over

B. at

C. on

D. in

117. A. protecting

B. protect

C. protected

D. protection

Exercise 9. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. The costs and benefits of global warming will vary greatly from area to area. For moderate climate change, the balance can be difficult to assess. But the larger the change in climate, the more negative the consequences will become. Global warming will probably make life harder, not easier, for most people This is mainly because we have already built enormous infrastructure based on the climate we now have. People in some temperate zones may benefit from milder winters, more abundant rainfall, and expanding crop production zones. But people in other areas will suffer from increased heat waves, coastal erosion, rising sea le more erratic rainfall, and droughts. The crops, natural vegetation, and domesticated and wild animals (including seafood) that sustain people in a given area may be unable to adapt to local or regional changes in climate. The ranges of diseases and insect pests that are limited by temperature may expand, if other environmental conditions are also favourable. In its summary report on the impacts of climate change, the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change stated, "Taken as a whole, the range of published evidence indicates that the net damage costs of climate change are likely to be significant and to increase over time.” 118. What is the main idea of the passage? A. Environment pollution is real. C. Solutions to global warming.

B. Reasons why low-lying areas are flooded. D. Reasons why global warming is a problem.

119. Which of the following is TRUE as the result of global warming? A. All people suffer from global warming.

B. All people benefit from global warming.

C. Life is more difficult for the majority of people.

D. Life is easier for most people.

120. In paragraph 1, the word “this” refers to ____. A. harder life as a result of global warming

B. easier life as a result of global warming

C. climate change on global scale

D. flood in low-lying areas

121. In paragraph 2, the word “erratic” is closest in meaning to ____. A. predictable

B. unpredictable

C. changeable

D. unchangeable

122. According to the passage, all of the following are the results of global warming EXCEPT ____. A. higher temperature

B. coastal erosion

C. increasing sea level

D. stable rainfall

123. What may happen to diseases and insect pests as a result of global warming? A. They will become extinct.

B. They will increase in number.

C. They will not harm our planet.

D. They will be under good control.

Exercise 10. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. The Amazon rainforest is home to more than a third of all the world's species of plants, birds and animals. Twenty per cent of all the birds in the world live in the rainforest. Scientists have discovered thousands of types of plants and animals that can only be found there. There are thousands - probably millions more that we haven't discovered yet. There are at least 2.5 million species of insects there. Imagine what would happen if they all lost their home? It couldn't happen, could it? Unfortunately, it's happening right now. Yet, the rainforest is big. But it's getting smaller. The problem is that people are cutting down the trees, mainly to make room for cows. These provide meat and make money for their owners. This process of cutting down trees is called â&#x20AC;&#x2DC;deforestation'. The good news is that it is slowing down. In 2004, for example, more than 27,000 square kilometres were cut down. That's an area bigger than Wales. In 2006, because of all the campaigns to save rainforest, it dropped to just over 13,000 square kilometres. The bad news is that it's not enough. Scientists predict that by 2030, the rainforest will have become smaller by 40%. It's possible that by the end of the 21st century, the rainforest will have completely disappeared. With deforestation, thousands of the animals, birds, fish and plants that live in the Amazon rainforest lose their home, their natural habitat. Some of them move to other areas, but most of them die. Many species have already become extinct, and many more will if deforestation continues. That will change the balance of life in the rainforest and could cause enormous problems to the region's ecosystem. There's another problem too. Trees and plants are a vital source of oxygen. If we cut them down, we lose that oxygen. But it's worse than just that. With deforestation, the trees and plants are burnt. This sends gases into the Earth's atmosphere, which stops some of the Earth's heat escaping. That then leads to the temperature here on the ground going up. This increase in the world's temperature is called 'global warming', and most scientists believe it's a very serious issue. If they stopped deforestation, it might help prevent global warming. 124. Which title best summarises the main idea of the passage? A. Chances for owners of cow ranches

B. Threats to Amazon rainforest

C. Global warming effects

D. Habitat destruction

125. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE? A. A fifth of all the birds in the world live in the rainforest. B. 20% of all the animals in the world live in the rainforest. C. Nearly two million species of insects are found in the Amazon rainforest. D. Nearly half of the world's species of plants grow there. 126. In paragraph 1, the word "roomâ&#x20AC;? is closest in meaning to ____. A. chamber

B. flat

C. area

D. studio

C. rainforest

D. deforestation

127. In paragraph 2, the word "itâ&#x20AC;? refers to ____. A. room

B. process

128. According the passage, which of the following is TRUE about Amazon rainforest?

A. It has become smaller by 40%.

B. The deforestation is decreasing.

C. 25% of animal species are extinct now.

D. The deforestation is under control.

129. In paragraph 2, the word â&#x20AC;&#x153;enormousâ&#x20AC;? is closest in meaning to ____. A. serious

B. important

C. common

D. insignificant

130. What might help to restrain global warming? A. increasing deforestation C. ceasing cutting down trees

B. stabilising deforestation D. clearing more trees for farming

Part VI. WRITING Exercise 11. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 131. Having seen people suffer global warming consequences, we decided to reduce carbon footprints. A. We decided to reduce carbon footprints before seeing people suffer global warming consequences. B. We saw people suffer global warming consequences after we decided to reduce carbon footprints. C. We decided to cut down on carbon footprints after we saw people suffer global warming consequences. D. We decided to cut down on carbon footprints before we saw people suffer global warming consequences. 132. Climate change leads to numerous catastrophic consequences. A. Numerous catastrophic consequences result in climate change. B. Numerous catastrophic consequences result from climate change. C. Climate change results from numerous catastrophic consequences. D. Numerous catastrophic consequences cause climate change. 133. The increase in earth's temperature can cause heat-related illnesses. A. Heat-related illnesses result from the increase in earth's temperature. B. Heat-related illnesses result in the increase in earth's temperature. C. Heat-related illnesses lead to the increase in earth's temperature. D. Heat-related illnesses trigger the increase in earth's temperature. 134. Carbon dioxide is one of the primary greenhouse gases that cause global warming. A. Carbon dioxide is the only greenhouse gas that causes global warming. B. Global warming results in greenhouse gases, including carbon dioxide. C. One of the main greenhouse gases that lead to global warming is carbon dioxide. D. Global warming causes greenhouse gases, including carbon dioxide. 135. Planting trees can contribute to reducing global warming. A. Global warming can't be controlled by planting trees. B. Planting trees is the only way to control global warming. C. Planting trees can accelerate global warming. D. Planting trees can help reduce global warming. Exercise 12. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 136. He said that he would take responsibility for his company's damage to the area. But then he denied that. A. Having denied his company's damage, he took responsibility for it.

B. He denied having damaged to his company's area. C. He denied having taken responsibility for the damage to his company's area. D. He denied having said that he would take responsibility for his company's damage to the area. 137. He donated a lot of money to environmental protection campaigns. He was admired for that. A. Unless he donated a lot of money to environmental protection campaigns, he was admired. B. He was admired for having donated a lot of money to environmental protection campaigns. C. If he had donated a lot of money to environmental protection campaigns, he would have been admired. D. If he donates a lot of money to environmental protection campaigns, he will be admired. 138. They decided to cut down their carbon footprints. They were praised for that. A. They were praised for having decided to decrease their carbon footprints. B. They were not punished for having decided to decrease their carbon footprints. C. Unless they decided to cut down their carbon footprints, they were praised for that. D. If they decided to cut down their carbon footprints, they would be praised for that. 139. We have advised you on how to cut down your energy use. We remember that. A. We can no longer remember having advised you on how to decrease your energy use. B. We remember having advised you on how to maintain your energy use. C. We remember having advised you on how to decrease your energy use. D. We remember to have advised you on how to decrease your energy use. 140. Some scientists have distorted the effects of climate change. They were accused of that. A. Some scientists were accused of having falsify the effects of climate change. B. Some scientists were accused of having been honest about the effects of climate change. C. Although some scientists have distorted the effects of climate change, they were not accused. D. Some scientists were accused of having falsified the effects of climate change.

Unit 7. FURTHER EDUCATION

Part I. PHONETICS

Exercise 1. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 1. A. degree

B. doctorate

C. graduate

D. kindergarten

2. A. bachelor

B. chapter

C. chemistry

D. teacher

3. A. culture

B. student

C. institution

D. university

4. A. appreciate

B. psychology C. programme

5. A. academic B. apply

C. apology

D. respectively D. achieve

Exercise 2. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. 6. A. biology

B. geography

C. education

D. relationship

7. A. broaden

B. provide

C. pursue

D. succeed

8. A. college

B. degree

C. language

D. subject

9. A. analytical B. opportunity C. qualification D. university 10. A. bachelor B. diploma

C. internship

D. scholarship

Part II. VOCABULARY Exercise 3. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 11. It is not easy at all to get a good job without any ____ qualifications. A. academic

B. social

C. great

D. favourite

12. At the ____ level, you can join three-year or four-year colleges. A. primary

B. secondary

C. postgraduate

D. undergraduate

13. Hugh is quite worried because he hasn't ____ for the end-of-term test. A. examined

B. researched

C. studied

D. read

14. Any pupil caught ____ was made to stand at the front of the class. A. misbehave

B. misbehaved

C. misbehaviour

D. misbehaving

15. They ____ sacrifices so that their only child could have a good education. A. made

B. did

C. provided

D. lent

16. A university is an institution of higher education and research, which grants ____ degrees at all levels in a variety of subjects. A. secondary

B. optional

C. academic

D. vocational

17. You have to be highly ____ to do well in these subjects. A. competitive B. competitor

C. competition D. competed

18. I can't cope well ____ all the homework I've got to do! A. on

B. of

C. about

D. with

19. ____ education normally provides undergraduate and postgraduate education, as well as vocational education and training. A. Intermediate

B. Primary

C. Secondary

20. You'll find plenty of books on the ____ of business studies in the library.

D. Tertiary

A. lesson

B. subject

C. curriculum

D. schedule

21. I wonder if you could tell me who was awarded the ____. A. scholar

B. scholastic

C. scholarship

D. scholarly

22. My dad said that I'd better spend more time on my ____. A. student

B. studied

C. studious

D. studies

23. He has got a degree ____ Information Technology from Oxford University. A. in

B. for

C. on

D. of

24. I don't really ____ the point of taking the exam when you are not ready for it. A. annoy

B. have

C. see

D. take

25. If you're not sure what â&#x20AC;&#x153;somethingâ&#x20AC;? means, look it ____ in the dictionary. A. for

B. out

C. at

D. up

26. Mrs Dawson said that we are ____ our lesson in the library next Monday. A. going

B. having

C. making

D. reading

27. My dad wants me to go to university, but I'm in ____ minds about it. A. different

B. my

C. some

D. two

28. Yesterday, we had a discussion ____ different cultures. A. about

B. around

C. for

D. from

29. I still have a lot ____ about the English language. A. for learning B. of learning

C. learning

D. to learn

30. Belinda missed a few months of school because of illness and found it difficult to keep ____ with her classmates. A. on

B. off

C. down

D. up

31. If you need to ____ the teacher's attention, just put up your hand. A. attract

B. pay

C. take

D. pull

C. revision

D. training

32. I did six hours of ____ for the test, but I still failed. A. education

B. survey

33. Please, don't forget ____ your essays during Friday's lesson. A. hand in

B. handing in

C. to hand in

D. to handing in

34. Australians and New Zealanders often have a/an ____ year before going to college or after finishing high school to travel overseas independently. A. gap

B. new

C. busy

D. graduation

35. It's my ____ ceremony next week; I think my parents are looking forward to it more than I am. A. graduation

B. graduate

C. graduating

D. graduates

36. Going to university is expensive because in addition to the tuition ____, there are expenses for accommodation, books, living costs, etc. A. grants

B. fees

C. fares

D. scholarships

37. When I got to 16, some of my friends left school to get a job, but most ____. A. dropped out B. moved back C. got in

D. stayed on

38. The more ____ you have, the more chance you have of finding a better job. A. courses

B. contributions

C. qualifications

D. qualities

39. Next year, I have to decide which area of medicine I want to ____ in. A. come

B. focus

C. hand

D. specialise

40. I got a diploma in business administration, but still sometimes wish I had been able to go to university and get a ____. A. certificate

B. diploma

C. degree

D. scholarship

Exercise 4. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 41. When you sit for the exam tomorrow, try to stay calm and relaxed. A. answer

B. take

C. make

D. write

42. If the examiner can't make sense of what your essay is about, you'll get the low mark. A. declare

B. estimate

C. communicate

D. understand

43. If you want to get a high mark on a test, review the material carefully beforehand. A. performance

B. score

C. figure

D. note

44. Some students only cram for tests when there is little time left, so their results are not satisfactory. A. prepare in a short period

B. prepare in a long time

C. prepare well

D. prepare badly

45. My application for the scholarship has been turned down because the transcript of marks is not satisfactory enough. A. cancelled

B. postponed

C. reduced

D. rejected

Exercise 5. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meanin the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 46. Students also have the opportunity to choose from a wide range of optional courses in the university. A. mandatory

B. selective

C. free

D. limited

47. Tom did miserably on the final test, which caused a shock to everyone in the class. A. took

B. sat for

C. failed

D. passed

48. Schools are more relaxed nowadays as discipline is less tough than before. A. accurate

B. severe

C. strict

D. loose

49. Well, Mrs Baker, you'll be pleased to hear that George has made a dramatic improvement in geography. A. meaningful B. important

C. insignificant

D. steady

50. Most of the students in our country are interested in pursuing higher education to get bachelor's degrees. A. following

B. giving up

C. trying

D. interrupting

Part III. GRAMMAR Exercise 6. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 51. I ____ English for five years. I study it at school. A. have been learning

B. have learnt

C. learnt

D. am learning

C. had read

D. read

52. You can have your book back now. I ____ it. A. have been reading

B. have read

53. You look upset. ____ you ____? A. Are â&#x20AC;&#x201C; crying B. Do - cry

C. Have - been crying

54. How many times ____ you ____ that international conference?

D. Have - cried

A. did â&#x20AC;&#x201C; attend

B. do - attend

C. have - been attending

D. have - attended

55. I ____ for my math textbook all day, but I ____ it yet. A. have been looking/haven't found

B. have looked/haven't found

C. have been looking/haven't been finding

D. have looked/haven't been finding

56. Mum ____ all morning. She ____ lots of Christmas presents. A. has shopped/has bought

B. has been shopping/has bought

C. has been shopping/has been buying

D. has shopped/has been buying

57. Kevin ____ his homework, but he ____ it yet. A. has been doing/hasn't been finishing

B. has done/hasn't finished

C. has been doing/hasn't finished

D. has done/hasn't been finishing

58. Pete ____ at Midfield Secondary School since 2006, but he ____ music in his lessons twice. A. has been teaching/has only played

B. has been teaching/has only been playing

C. has taught/has only been playing

D. has taught/has only played

59. I ____ the biography of Robbie Williams, but I'm on page 50. A. have read

B. have been reading

C. had read

D. was reading

60. Jimmy can go out when he ____ for the exam. A. has been studying

B. has been studied

C. has studied

D. studied

61.I ____ the latest Harry Potter book all day. I'm dying to know what happens in the end! A. am reading

B. have been reading

C. have read

D. had read

62. So far I ____ any of the exams at school. A. haven't been failing B. hadn't failed C. didn't fail

D. haven't failed

63. We ____ our classroom for the upcoming Teachers' Day, but there's still a lot to do. A. are decorating

B. decorated

C. have been decorating

D. have decorated

64. Margaret ____ in the school marathon for charity before. A. has never run

B. never runs

C. never ran

D. has never been running

65. My brother graduated from Hong Kong University of Science and Technology last month and ____ for a job since then. A. has been looking

B. has looked

C. was looking

D. had looked

66. Tim ____ for the scholarship to study abroad in the USA at least twice. A. applied

B. is applying

C. has been applying

D. has applied

67. All the students ____ for their academic transcripts all this week, but they ____ them yet. A. have waited/haven't received C. have waited/haven't been receiving

B. have been waiting/haven't received D. have been waiting/haven't been receiving

68. I ____ for the information about the differences between further education and higher education all this morning. A. had searchedB. have been searched C. have been searching D. have searched 69. It's the first time you ____ an online course, isn't it? A. had ever taken

B. have ever been taking

C. ever took

D. have ever taken

70. The teacher ____ the speaking task on the board, so now the students are discussing it. A. has already been writing

B. has already written

C. already wrote

D. had already written

71. Sandy ____ his sister since she ____ to university in 2014. A. hadn't seen/went

B. hasn't been seeing/went

C. didn't see/has gone

D. hasn't seen/went

72. They ____ to Spain for an educational exchange and won't be back until the end of this month. A. have gone

B. went

C. have been going

D. is going

73. Poor Tracy! She ____ that essay for hours now and she still ____. A. has written/hasn't finished

B. has been writing/didn't finish

C. has been writing/hasn't finished

D. has written/hasn't been finishing

74. Tom and Mary are still discussing the math exercise with each other because they ____ how to do it. A. aren't working out

B. haven't worked out

C. haven't been working out

D. didn't work out

75. I ____ reading a wonderful book about space travel. A. just finish

B. just do finish C. have just finished

D. have just been finishing

76. As a rule, you shouldn't argue with your hosts unless they ____ something openly offensive. A. had said

B. have been saying

C. have said

D. would say

77. Noah Webster an American Dictionary of the English Language in two volumes in 1828, and since then it ____ the recognised authority for usage in the United States. A. published/became

B. has published/has become

C. published/was becoming

D. published/has become

78. She ____ of great help to us because she ____ for such a long time with us. A. has been/had lived

B. has been/has been living

C. has been/lived

D. was/has lived

79. I ____ the book yet so I can't tell you what happens. A. haven't finished

B. haven't been finishing

C. didn't finish

D. hadn't finished

80. Peter has been a junior clerk for three years. Lately he ____ for a better post but so far he ____ anything. A. looks/hasn't found

B. have looked/haven't found

C. has been looking/hasn't found

D. has looked/hasn't found

Exercise 7. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 81. My brother has applied for that scholarship for months, but he has never succeeded yet. A

82. I have been unable to make out what the lecturer was saying because we were right at the back of the hall. A

83. I have found a lot of informations about the history of English language teaching recently. A

84. Although there were a number of significant differences between the two systems, both countries share a A commitment to high quality education. D

85. I have never been understanding why such a lot of people want to study abroad. A

86. It is the first time the Internet has ever applied in English teaching and learning in this remote district. A

87. Due to the geographical barrier, he has been deciding to choose distance education in order to get his A

university degree. 88. Lily couldn't answer any questions in the end-of-term examination this morning, but she thinks she A

has failed. D 89. I have started doing my homework when I got home from school, but I stopped to watch my favourite A

music show. D 90. Prof. Daniel, who has been working in our faculty for almost 15 years, is giving a seminar on further A

education to students on next Friday. D Part IV. SPEAKING Exercise 8. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges. 91. “Could you pass that book over to me, please?” – “____” A. Yes, of course.

B. No, why not?

C. Actually, I'm busy.

D. Yes, go ahead.

92. “If I were you, I would apply for the scholarship to the University of Melbourne.” – “____” A. I'm not afraid so.

B. No way!

C. I guess I should.

D. I hope so.

93. “I hear you've passed your exam. Congratulations!” – “____” A. What a pity! B. You're welcome.

C. I'm alright.

D. Thank you.

94. “Why do you choose French as your second major?” – “____” A. Because it's quite like English.

B. Because they are friendly.

C. I don't really care.

D. It's nice to say so.

95. “Can I have a quick look at your lecture notes?” – “____” A. Of course not today.

B. So far, so good!

C. No, I don't think so.

D. Sorry, I'm using them myself.

96. - "Let's go to the Dr. Millet's seminar on learning styles this afternoon!” - “____” A. I wish I could but I'm busy then.

B. Learning styles are really subjective.

C. Thanks, I won't.

D. I would if I were you.

97. - "Mom, I've received an offer for a summer internship in Singapore!” - “____”

A. Really? Good luck!

B. Oh, that's great! Congratulations!

C. I couldn't agree more.

D. Oh, I'm sorry to hear that.

98. “Sorry, I'm late! May I come in, Miss Millie?” – “____” A. Yes, come in, please! B. Not right now.

C. Let's do it!

D. I guess so.

99. "What an imaginative essay you've written, Matt!” – “____” A. That's the least I could do.

B. Actually, I don't mind.

C. Thanks, it's nice of you to say so.

D. Sorry, just my luck!

100.- “It was very kind of you to help me with the difficult homework!" A. Oh, don't mention it. B. Sorry, I don't know. C. That sounds nice.

D. Thanks a lot.

101. “Do you mind if I use your dictionary for a while?” – “____” A. Yes, I don't mind.

B. No, I don't think so.

C. Yes, go ahead.

D. No, go right ahead.

102. “Work harder or you'll fail the exam!” – “____” A. Oh, that's fine for me!

B. Thanks, I will.C. That sounds great!

D. Sure, go ahead!

103. “I'm sorry, teacher. I've left my exercise book at home today!” – “ A. I'm afraid, you can't.

B. Well, don't do that again next time.

C. No, of course not.

D. I hope you won't.

104. "Shall I lend you a hand with the survey questionnaire?” – “____” A. Yes, I'd love to.

B. That sounds interesting!

C. Sure! That would be great help!

D. How about tomorrow?

105. - “I’ll celebrate my graduation party this weekend. Could you come?" - “____” A. Yes, of course, I will.

B. How can this be?

C. The more, the merrier.

D. Great work! Keep up!

Part V. READING Exercise 9. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. One way of training for your future occupation in Germany is by pursuing a dual vocational training programme. Such programmes offer plenty of opportunity for on-the-job training and work experience. Programmes usually last between two and three and a half years and comprise theoretical as well as practical elements. You will spend one or two days a week, or several weeks at once, at a vocational school where you will acquire the theoretical knowledge that you will need in your future occupation. The rest of the time will be spent at a company. There you get to apply your newly acquired knowledge in practice, for example by learning to operate machinery. You will get to know what your company does, learn how it operates and find out if you can see yourself working there after completing your training. This combination of theory and practice gives you a real head start into your job: by the time you have completed your training, you will not only have the required technical knowledge, but you will also have handson experience in your job. There are around 350 officially recognised training programmes in Germany, so chances are good that one of them will suit your interests and talents. You can find out which one that might be

by visiting one of the jobs and vocational training fairs which are organised in many German cities at different times in the year. Employment prospects for students who have completed a dual vocational training programme are very good. This is one of the reasons why this kind of training is very popular with young Germans: around two thirds of all students leaving school go on to start a vocational training programme. 106. Which of the following is probably the best title of the passage? A. Employment Opportunities and Prospects in Germany B. Higher Education System in Germany C. Dual Vocational Training System in Germany D. Combination of Theory and Practice in Studying in Germany 107. The word "it" in the first paragraph refers to ____. A. company

B. machinery

C. knowledge

D. organisation

108. Which of the following statements best describes the dual vocational training programmes? A. These programmes consist of an intensive theoretical course of two and a half years at a vocational school. B. These programmes require you to have only practical working time at a certain company. C. These programmes offer you some necessary technical skills to do your future job. D. These programmes provide you with both theoretical knowledge and practical working experience. 109. The word "hands-on” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ____. A. theoretical

B. practical

C. technical

D. integral

110. How many German school leavers choose this vocational training programme? A. well over 75%

B. around one out of five

C. less than a third

D. about 70%

Exercise 10. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Do you think education is better now than it was in your grandparents' time? Many older people in the UK believe the opposite. “Schools were better in our day,” they complain. “There isn't enough discipline these days. Kids don't work as hard as we did, either. The syllabus isn't as challenging, so clever students aren't being stretched enough. They need to study things in greater depth. Exams are much, much easier now as well.” Were schools better years ago? Some British teenagers travelled back in time to a 1950s boarding school. They got a big surprise! The first shock came when the teenagers met their new teachers. Dressed in traditional black gowns, they look so frosty and uncaring! They were really authoritarian, too, so anyone caught breaking the rules - talking in classes, mucking about in the playground or playing truant – was in big trouble! Punishments included writing 'lines' or staying after class to do detention. The naughtiest kids were expelled. Things were just as bad after class. At meal times the students had to endure a diet of plain, no-nonsense, healthy food. Homework was obligatory and it took ages! Copying essays off the Internet wasn't an option, as personal computers didn't exist in the 1950s! At the end of 'term' everyone sat 1950s-style exams. The old exams were much longer than their twenty-first century equivalents and involved learning huge amounts of facts by heart. History papers were all dates and

battles. Maths papers were trickier, too; calculators weren't around in the 1950s, so the students had to memorise multiplication tables and master long division. Our candidates found this really difficult. The exam results surprised a lot of people. Students predicted to do well in their real-life, twenty-first century exams often got low grades in the 1950s exams. Does this prove modern exams are too easy? Do twenty-first century kids rely too much on modern technology, like calculators and computers? The TV series of That 'll teach 'em! focused on a 1960s vocational school. UK school-kids study a range of academic subjects these days. But in the 1960s, children judged to be less ‘able' went to vocational schools. These helped them learn job skills. Boys studied subjects like metalwork, woodwork or gardening. In some classes, they even learned how to milk goats! The girls' timetables included secretarial skills. They also learned to cook, clean and sew - probably not much fun for most girls. 111. What criticism is sometimes made about modern education in the first paragraph? A. Teachers aren't strict enough. B. The syllabus is out of date. C. There's too much stress on exams. D. The teaching methods are not good enough. 112. The word "authoritarian” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ____. A. inexperienced

B. impolite

C. unreasonable

D. strict

113. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the food the students ate at school? A. It wasn't cooked properly.

B. It wasn't delicious.

C. It wasn't nutritious.

D. There wasn't much of it.

114. The word "obligatory” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ____. A. compulsory B. difficult

C. long

D. complicated

115. According to the passage, how did exams in the 1950s differ from those in the twenty-first century? A They covered more subjects.

B. It took students less time to do them.

C. There was more to remember.

D. They were less difficult.

116. What was surprising about the students' results after taking the 1950s-style exams? A. All the students found the exams difficult. B. Students didn't do as well as expected. C. Students who were predicted to fail did rather well. D. Students did better than twenty-first century exams. 117. The word “these” in the last paragraph refers to ____. A. school-kids

B. subjects

C. series

D. vocational schools

118. Which of the following statements is TRUE according to the passage? A. Vocational schools provided poorer children with equipment. B. Vocational schools took children who were good at studying. C. Vocational schools prepared students for employment. D. Vocational schools were a complete waste of time. Exercise 11. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

GAP YEAR In the professional or career world, a gap year is a year before going to college or university and after finishing high school or (119) ____ a year off before going into graduate school after completing a bachelor as an undergraduate. (120) ____ this time, students may engage in advanced academic courses, extra-academic courses and non-academic courses, such as yearlong pre-college math courses, language studies, learning a trade, art studies, volunteer work, travel, internships, sports and more. Gap years are sometimes considered a way for students to become independent and learn a great deal of (121) ____ prior to engaging in university life. Australians and New Zealanders have a tradition of travelling overseas independently (122) ____ a young age. In New Zealand, this is known as â&#x20AC;&#x153;doing an OEâ&#x20AC;? (Overseas Experience). Sometimes, an OE is (123) ____ to one year, but often Australians and New Zealanders will remain overseas for three to five years, with many working short-term in service industry jobs to fund their continuing travels. Europe and Asia are popular destinations for doing an OE. In Australia, through exchange programmes and benefits for youth, there are so many opportunities for a young person to broaden their (124) ____ through travel in a gap year. 119. A. calling

B. going

C. taking

D. turning

120. A. During

B. When

C. While

D. By

121. A. responsible

B. responsibility

C. irresponsible D. irresponsibility

122. A. at

B. on

C. in

123. A. distributed

B. used

124. A. head

B. mind

C. spent C. brain

D. for D. limited D. memory

Exercise 12. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. EXAM OR CONTINUOUS ASSESSMENT? How do you feel when you sit an exam? Do you always succeed in getting all your ideas down on paper, or do you sometimes feel that you're (125) ____ a mess of it? (126) ____ from those lucky few who sail through exams, most secondary school pupils find them very stressful. Many teachers are (127) ____ of the problems their students face and use a different method for measuring their progress: continuous. With continuous assessment, students are given (128) ____ tasks to do throughout the year. All their marks are added together to produce a total mark (129) ____ the end of the year. Students have to (130) ____ more responsibility for their education because they can't rely on doing well on just one day. Also, they have more time to think over their work, meaning that they are able to do their best. 125. A. doing

B. having

C. making

D. taking

126. A. Apart

B. According

C. Except

D. But

127. A. aware

B. intelligent

C. recognisable D. knowledgeable

128. A. variety B. various

C. vary

D. variably

129. A. at

B. on

C. in

D. from

130. A. do

B. get

C. make

D. take

Part VI. WRITING Exercise 13. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

131 It's only her second time in an international conference about further education. A. It was the second time she had been in an international conference about further education. B. She has only been in an international conference about further education once before. C. She has never been to any international conference about further education before. D. She has already got used to being in an international conference about further education. 132. I started writing this essay hours ago and it's still not right. A. I have been writing this essay for hours and it's still not right. B. It's hours ago since I last wrote this essay correctly. C. The last time I started writing this essay was hours ago, which is still not right. D. I didn't stop to write this essay hours ago and it's still not right. 133. â&#x20AC;&#x153;You'd better work harder if you don't want to retake the exam!â&#x20AC;? the teacher said to Jimmy. A. The teacher advised Jimmy to work harder if he didn't want to retake the exam. B. The teacher ordered Jimmy to work harder if he didn't want to retake the exam. C. The teacher reminded Jimmy to work harder if he didn't want to retake the exam. D. The teacher warned Jimmy to work harder if he didn't want to retake the exam. 134. Lisa has never studied abroad before. A. It's the first time Lisa has ever studied abroad. B. It's the last time since Lisa studied abroad. C. It was the first time Lisa had ever studied abroad. D. Never before Lisa has studied abroad. 135. The last time my friend wrote a letter to me was in February. A. I haven't never received a letter from my friend since February. B. I last received a letter from my friend in February. C. It was in February since I first received a letter from my friend. D. My friend last wrote a letter to me when in February. Exercise 14. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 136. Marie prepared her homework carefully. She could answer all the questions and got good marks. A. Although she prepared her homework carefully, Marie could not answer all the questions and got good marks. B. Having prepared her homework carefully, Marie could answer all the questions and got good marks. C. If she had prepared her homework carefully, Marie could have answered all the questions and got good marks. D. It was because of her careful preparation for the homework, Marie couldn't answer all the questions and got good marks. 137. We have been trying to learn English for years. We haven't succeeded yet. A. Although we have been trying to learn English for years, we haven't succeeded yet. B. After we've been trying to learn English for years, we have succeeded. C. We haven't succeeded yet since we have been trying to learn English for years.

D. We have been trying to learn English for years, so we haven't succeeded yet. 138. The teacher was giving the lesson. The lights went out. A. The lights went out as soon as the teacher started giving the lesson. B. If the teacher had been giving the lesson, the lights wouldn't have gone out. C. The teacher was giving the lesson, so the lights went out. D. While the teacher was giving the lesson, the lights went out. 139. Our school started building a new canteen in June. They are still building it now. A. Our school have started building a new canteen from June till now. B. Our school have been building a new canteen since June. C. Our school have built a new canteen now since starting in June. D. Our school are building the new canteen which started in June. 140. Henry only started learning English last year. However, he can now speak it like a native. A. If he had started learning English last year, Henry could now speak it like a native. B. After starting learning English last year, Henry can now speak it like a native. C. Although he only started learning English last year, Henry can now speak it like a native. D. Henry, who has only started learning English since last year, can now speak it like a native.

Unit 8. OUR WORLD HERITAGE SITES

Part I. PHONETICS

Exercise 1. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 1. A. scholar

B. technique

C. archaeology D. achievement

2.A. ancient

B. concern

C. associate

D. special

3. A. itinerary

B. abundant

C. elegance

D. landscape

4. A. tomb

B. dome

C. mosaic

D. poetic

5. A. numerous B. luxury

C. perfume

D. mon ment

Exercise 2. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. 6. A. archaeology

B. itinerary

C. unforgettable

7. A. magnificent

B. associate

C. mausoleum D. harmonious

8. A. religious

B. masterpiece C. prestigious

D. abundant

9. A. intact

B. nightlife

D. complex

10. A. cultural B. heritage

C. relic C. memory

D. authenticity

D. represent

Part II. VOCABULARY Exercise 3. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 11. I'd like to book a room with a/an ____ of the sea. A. outlook

B. sight

C. view

D. scenery

12. When I'm on holiday, I enjoy ____. A. getting sunburnt

B. getting sunstroke

C. having a sunbath

D. sunbathing

13. The most popular destinations for ____ holidays are Spain, Italy, and Greece. A. charter

B. package

C. packed

D. packet

14. When you are staying at a popular resort, there are plenty of ____ to go on. A. excursions

B. expeditions C. pilgrimages

D. sightseeing

15. One day when I'm rich and famous, I'm going to go on a round-the-world ____. A. cruise

B. sail

C. self-catering

D. survival

16. You can save money by choosing a ____ holiday. A. do-it-yourself

B. self-catering C. self-study

D. survival

17. My favourite part of England is Cornwall. There's some absolutely beautiful ____ there. A. nature

B. signs

C. scenery

D. views

18. There's a pretty little fishing village ____. A. by the sea

B. on the sand

C. on the beach

D. by the shore

19. There's a path that ____ out of the village to a beautiful 14th-century church. A. follows

B. moves

C. takes

D. leads

20. Costa Rica is one of the most beautiful places I have ever visited. Wherever you go, you can see the ____ of volcanoes, some of which are still alive. A. tops

B. heads

C . mouths

D. ends

21. The beaches were absolutely ____. Sometimes we were the only two people there. A. unspoilt

B. deserted

C. natural

D. romantic

22. Sri Lanka has some fantastic beaches â&#x20AC;&#x201C; miles after miles of golden sand and ____ water. A. crystal clear B. crystal clean C. light blue

D. navy blue

23. The travel agent wasn't to ____ for the overbooking. A. accuse

B. charge

C. blame

D. claim

24. When I worked as a waiter, the hotel manager found ____ with everything I do. A. blame

B. complaint

C. fault

D. criticism

25. It can be quite busy here during the tourist ____. A. period

B. phase

C. stage

D. season

26. I always enjoy our school ____ to France. A. excursion

B. journey

C. trip

D. travel

27. Captain Cook discovered Australia on a ____ to the Pacific. A. voyage

B. cruise

C. travel

D. tour

28. The sunset over Niagara Fall is really a magnificent ____. A. look

B. sign

C. view

D. sight

29. The hotel where we are ____ is quite luxurious. A. staying

B. existing

C. remaining

D. living

30. Passengers requiring a special meal during the flight should inform the airline in ____. A. ahead

B. advance

C. front

D. forward

31. We usually do go by train, even though the car ____ is a lot quicker. A. travel

B. trip

C. voyage

D. journey

32. The area near the palace gates was ____ with tourists. A. full

B. crowded

C. flooded

D. covered

33. From the top of the cathedral tower there are some spectacular ____ of the surrounding countryside. A. sights

B. sites

C. views

D. scenery

34. She didn't enjoy the Mediterranean ____ at all; she was seasick most of the time. A. cruise

B. tour

C. voyage

D. trip

35. Known as 'Ha Long Bay on Land', Trang An Scenic Landscape Complex is famous for its mountains, caves, and archaeological ____. A. excavations B. sites

C. relics

D. heritages

Exercise 4. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s)in each of the following questions. 36. The balance and harmonious blending of various elements contribute to Taj Mahal's unique beauty. A. successful

B. agreeable

C. tasteful

D. fitting

37. My Son Sanctuary is a large complex of religious relics comprising more than 70 architectural works such as towers, temples, and tombs. A. royal

B. precious

C. holy

D. valuable

38. In addition to exploring the caves and grottos, and seeing its flora and fauna, visitors can also enjoy mountain climbing. A. flowers and plants

B. plants and animals

C. plants and vegetation

D. flowers and grass

39. Ha Long Bay has attracted millions of visitors who come to enjoy its breathtaking views and experience other activities. A. unbreathable

B. heartbreaking

C. awe-inspiring

D. unforgettable

40. They can enjoy the -comfort and elegance of five-star hotels and luxury cruise ships. A. style

B. convenience

C. standard

D. grace

41. Most of the Imperial Citadel of Thang Long was demolished in the early 20th century. A. rebuilt

B. pulled down

C. put up

D. pulled up

42. Taj Mahal is a giant mausoleum of white marble in Arga, India. It is considered to be an outstanding work of art. A. noticeable

B. attractive

C. brilliant

D. significant

43. Recognised as a World Heritage Site in 1983, the Taj Mahal Complex, including the tomb, mosque, guest house, and main gate, has preserved the original qualities of the buildings. A. initial

B. ancient

C. unique

D. perfect

44. As visitors explore this magnificent place, there are always new surprises for them. A. interesting

B. strange

C. impressive

D. unusual

45. The mausoleum represents the greatest architectural and artistic achievement of Muslim art. A. contains

B. includes

C. claims

D. embodies

Exercise 5. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 46. Though built almost five hundred years ago, the church remained practically intact. A. in perfection B. in ruins

C. in chaos

D. in completion

47. Tourists can do and see a lot in Ha Long Bay at a reasonable price. A. inexpensive B. affordable

C. cheap

D. exorbitant

48. The major stone sections of the Citadel of the Ho Dynasty remain intact thanks to the unique construction techniques. A. special

B. common

C. excellent

D. ancient

49. The Imperial Citadel of Thang Long was first built during the Ly Dynasty and then expanded by subsequent dynasties. A. following

B. successive

C. preceding

D. next

50. Visitors with more abundant travel budgets can enjoy the comfort of five-star hotels and luxury cruise ships. A. huge

B. plentiful

C. mean

D. tight

Part III. GRAMMAR Exercise 6. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 51. The best way ____ London is by taking a guided tour. A. of which to see

B. to see

C. seeing

D. in which you see

52. With its thousands of rocks and caves ____ out of the water, Ha Long Bay has won international recognition. A. emerge

B. to emerge

C. emerging

D. being emerged

53. Hoi An Ancient Town is a well-preserved example of a Southeast Asian trading port ____ from the 15th to the 19th century. A. to date

B. dated

C. that date

D. dating

54. We can also see the stone dragons of Kinh Thien Palace and relics associated with many Vietnamese royal families, ____ during archaeological excavations. A. discovered

B. being discovered

C. to discover

D. discovering

55. John F. Kennedy was the last US president ____. A. to assassinate

B. assassinated C. assassinating D. to be assassinated

56. The Complex of Hue Monuments was the first site in Viet Nam ____ to the World Heritage List. A. adding

B. to add

C. to be added

D. added

57. The archaeological excavation ____ to the discovery of the ancient city lasted several years. A. led

B. leading

C. to lead

D. being led

58. Though ____ many centuries ago, the palace remains practically intact. A. building

B. to build

C. built

D. people built

59. I picked up some holiday brochures ____ around the table at the travel agency. A. to lie

B. lying

C. to be lying

D. being lying

60. Situated on Cam Khe Hill, Tomb of Minh Mang is one of the most interesting royal tombs ____ in Hue. A. to visit

B. visited

C. visiting

D. being visited

61. You may choose one from the five World Heritage Sites in Viet Nam ____ in this leaflet to visit on your next field trip. A. includes

B. including

C. included

D. to include

62. ____ UNESCO criteria for outstanding universal value to humanity, Trang An Scenic Landscape Complex was added to the World Heritage List in 2014. A. Meeting

B. Met

C. To meet

D. Having met

63. The most magnificent feature of Taj Mahal ____ is the central dome. A. noticed

B. being noticed

C. to notice

D. noticing

64. Scientists ____ on the site found many ancient tools, tombs and pottery, and made some important archaeological discoveries. A. worked

B. working

C. to work

D. to be working

65. ____ with an average of 320 days of sunshine a year, the coastline offers the perfect holiday destination for anyone ____ to switch off and unwind. A. Blessed/wanting

B. Blessing/wanting

C. Blessed/wants

D. Blessing/wanted

66. Southern Spain's Costa del Sol, ____ from Nerja in the east to Manilva in the west, is one of the most fascinating tourist areas in the world. A. stretches

B. stretching

C. stretched

D. being stretched

67. As well as its beautiful sun-soaked beaches and excellent gastronomy, the region boasts no fewer than thirty golf courses, ____ amateurs and professionals alike with year-round golfing opportunities. A. provides

B. provided

C. providing

D. is provas

68. The Saga Rose is a good-looking ship. ____ in 1965, she is highly regarded by marine experts for her elegant lines. A. Launching

B. Was launched

C. To launch

D. Launched

69. I took up salsa, ____ by dance teacher, Thabo, who made us believe we were good enough to perform in front of passengers and crew. A. was inspired B. inspiring

C. inspired

D. was inspiring

70. The electromagnetic fields can also cause responses in the brain, ____ observers into thinking they are seeing even more vivid impressions. A. tricking

B. tricks

C. trick

D. tricked

71. Henry VIII of England was the only king ____ six times. A. to marry

B. married

C. was married

D. marrying

72. Travellers are faced with a lot of destinations ____ from. A. choosing

B. choose

C. to be choosing

D. to choose

73. I think China will be the next country ____ the Olympic Games. A. who host

B. hosting

C. to host

D. hosted

74. At 24, William Pitt was the youngest person ____ Prime Minister. A. becoming

B. to become

C. became

D. was become

75. Tourists ____ the train from London to Stratford have to change at Coventry. A. take

B. taking

C. to take

D. who takes

76. The capital city of Ecuador was the first city in the world ____ a World Heritage Site by UNESCO. A. to declare

B. declared

C. declaring

D. to be declared

77. Trang An Scenic Landscape Complex is the 8th World Heritage in Viet Nam ____ by UNESCO. A. to be recognised

B. to recognise C. recognising

D. recognised

78. The London Tower Bridge, ____ 244 metres long, is a World Heritage Site. A measures

B. measured

C. measuring

D. is measured

79. Scholars believe that there are still relics ____ under the tomb and awaiting to be excavated. A. burying

B. buried

C. are burying

D. are buried

80. ____ the email - supposedly from Boyd's Bank - to be genuine, she was tricked into disclosing her credit card details. A. Believe

B. Being believed

C. To believe

D. Believing

Exercise 7. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 81. Breaking her leg the last time she went, Laura decided not to go on the school trip this year. A

82. Lived here for seven years, my friend volunteers to act as tour guide for us all on our city break. A

83. We found a hotel, we looked for somewhere to have dinner. A

84. â&#x20AC;&#x2DC;Wait a minute,' said Tom, ran through the door. A

85. Amy seems like a bright student. She's always the first to be finished her work. A

86. Annoying by the receptionist's behaviour, they decided not to stay in that hotel.

87. We decided not to travel, having been heard the terrible weather forecast. A

88. Having imported from America, the fruit was expensive. A

89. Barbara has now written a successful biography though know mainly as a novel writer. A

90. The book publishing last week is her first novel about a World Heritage Site in Viet Nam. A

Part IV. SPEAKING Exercise 8. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges. 91. “I'm not hot. I'm absolutely roasting” – “____” A. You lucky thing! I'm sure you'll enjoy it.

B. Let's go and cool down in the sea.

C. You'll get a lovely suntan.

D. Maybe you've got a sun stroke.

92. “Why don't you take your T-shirt off?” – “____” A. That sounds like a good idea.

B. Yes, let's take it off.

C. No, of course not. It's boiling here.

D. Because I don't want to get sunburnt.

93. “____” – “That's a good idea! Then we'll still have a couple of hours left.” A. I'd like to suggest we see the Imperial first. Then we'll have more time for the second attraction. B. Why don't we see the Imperial first? Then we'll have more time for the second attraction. C. What do you think about we see the Imperial first? Then we'll have more time for the second attraction. D. How about see the Imperial first? Then we'll have more time for the second attraction. 94. “____” – “I'd like to see a cultural one.” A. Would you like to visit a natural or a cultural world heritage site? B. Which site is worth visiting in Hue? The Citadel or the Royal Tombs? C. Would you like to go to Tomb of Minh Mang or the Citadel of the Ho Dynasty? D. Do you prefer seeing the Citadel of the Ho Dynasty or Tomb of Minh Mang 95. “Can you recommend a good guest house in this area?” – “____” A. I know. I prefer a B&B round the corner. C. Wow! It's very kind of you to ask me.

B. Yes, there's a nice B&B round the corner. D. Let's stop at the first hotel we find.

96. “____” – “Why don't we thumb a lift?” A Where shall we stay? Can you recommend a good place in town? B. How can we carry all this luggage by ourselves? It's too heavy for us. C. Poor us! We've spent a whole day on the road. D. How are we going to get home? We haven't got enough money for a taxi. 97. “Last year, we went to one of those resorts where everything - food and drink - is free.” – “____” A. Wow! I didn't realise you were such snobs! B. Really? I prefer to go somewhere a bit quieter. C. It sounds great. I've never been on an all-inclusive holiday.

D. If you want all your meals and drinks included, you can stay on an all-inclusive basis. 98. “My back feels sore. Does it look a bit red?” – “____” A. Yes, it does. I think you'll get a lovely suntan. B. Yes, it does. Probably you should go for a swim. C. Yes, it does. It's important to go for a paddle. D. Yes, it does. Perhaps you should keep out of the sun for the rest of the day. 99. “____” – “No, not yet. I might call in at the travel agent's on the way home and pick up a few brochures.” A. Have you decided where you're going on holiday this year? B. Have you booked the flight tickets for your holiday this year? C. Have you discussed whether or not to go on holiday this year? D. All are correct. 100. “I'm really fed up with work at the moment. I need a break.” – “____” A. Why shouldn't you take next Friday off and have a long weekend in Paris or Amsterdam? B. I would advise you to take next Friday off and have a long weekend in Paris or Amsterdam. C. Why don't you take next Friday off and have a long weekend in Paris or Amsterdam? D. You're highly recommended taking next Friday off and have a long weekend in Paris or Amsterdam. 101. “Are you going to Wales again this year?” – “____” A. I'm going somewhere abroad where I can be sure of some sun. B. Not likely! I'm going somewhere abroad where I can be sure of some sun. C. Sure! I'm going somewhere abroad where I can be sure of some sun. D. Actually, I'm going somewhere abroad where I can be sure of some sun. 102. “____” – “Glorious! Warm and sunny every day.” A. What was the beach like?

B. What was the weather like?

C. What was the hotel like?

D. What were the people like?

103. “____” – “Well, most of the citadel was demolished in the early 20th century.” A. Is it still intact or in ruins? C. Is it a significant geological site?

B. Has it been pulled down? D. What has happened to it?

104. “____” – “Let's go to the Citadel.” A. Is the Citadel of the Ho Dynasty a natural or cultural world heritage site? B. Shall we go to the Citadel of the Ho Dynasty or do you want to see another site? C. When is the best time to visit the Citadel of the Ho Dynasty? In spring or summer? D. Why do you recommend the Citadel of the Ho Dynasty? Is there anything special? 105. “Why is Taj Mahal considered to be an outstanding work of art?” – “____” A. Because it was built by order of the Mughal emperor Shah Jahan in memory of his favourite wife. B. Because legend has it that Shah Jahan made a promise to build his wife the most beautiful tomb ever known. C. As acknowledged by UNESCO, it represents the greatest architectural and artistic achievement of Muslim art. D. Because the Taj Mahal Complex, including the tomb, mosque, guest house, and main gate has preserved the original qualities of the buildings. Part V. READING

Exercise 9. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. TOURISM Tourism is a big business. Millions of people around Europe spend their winters planning their destinations for the following summer, and their summers (106) ____ to foreign climes for two weeks in the sun. They are the modern-day descendants of the aristocrats and the wealthy who would (107) ____ months to complete the â&#x20AC;&#x153;Grand Tourâ&#x20AC;? of Europe. But unlike their forefathers, tourists these days get a bad press. They're not (108) ____ in the local culture, we're (109) ____; they're just after the chance to behave a bit more wildly than they do at home. What's more, they damage the local environment and don't respect the locals and their (110) ____ of life. But are tourists really to (111) ____? Or is it the (112) ____ of the tourist industry, which has (113) ____ to provide reasonably-priced alternatives? And if the local resort only offers a succession of bars for the tourists to visit, can we really (114) ____ them for not doing more cultural activities? One holiday company, Far and Away, (115) ____ that tourists are crying out for more cultural holidays and believes that it has (116) ____ to come up with a range of package holidays which are affordable, culturally interesting, and environmentally friendly. Their brochure, which is to be (117) ____ later this month, offers 200 holidays based on cultural themes, including history and architecture, learning the language, meeting the locals. 106. A taking away

B. moving away C. taking off

D. jetting off

107. A. spend

B. make

C. take

D. pass

108. A. devoted

B. eager

C. keen

D. interested

109. A. told

B. informed

C. convinced

D. said

110. A. way

B. manner

C. standard

D. means

111. A. criticise

B. fault

112. A. criticism

C. blame B. fault

D. accuse C. blame

D. accusation

113. A. avoided

B. lost

C. missed

D. failed

114. A. accuse

B. charge

C. criticise

D. arrest

115. A. claims

B. mentions

C. informs

D. persuades

116. A. succeeded

B. managed

C . achieved

D. resulted

117. A. brought up

B. brought out

C. brought off

D. brought around

Exercise 10. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. One of the seven wonders of the ancient world, the Great Pyramid of Giza was a monument of wisdom and prophecy built as a tomb for Pharaoh Cheops in 2720 B.C. Despite its antiquity, certain aspects of its construction make it one of the truly great wonders of the world. The thirteen-acre structure near the Nile River is a solid mass of stone blocks covered with limestone. Inside are a number of hidden passageways and the burial chamber for the Pharaoh. It is the largest single structure in the world. The four sides of the pyramid are aligned almost exactly on true north, south, east, and west â&#x20AC;&#x201C; an incredible engineering feat. The ancient Egyptians were sun worshipers and great astronomers, so computations for the Great Pyramid were based on astronomical observations.

Explorations and detailed examinations of the base of the structure reveal many intersecting lines. Further scientific study indicates that these represent a type of timeline of events – past, present, and future. Many of the events have been interpreted and found to coincide with known facts of the past. Others are prophesied for future generations and are currently under investigation. Many believe that pyramids have supernatural powers, and this one is no exception. Some researchers even associate it with extraterrestrial beings of the ancient past. Was this superstructure made by ordinary beings, or one built by a race far superior to any known today? 118. The word “intersecting” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ____. A. crossing

B. aligning

C. observing

D. cutting

119. What do the intersecting lines in the base symbolise? A. Architects' plans for the hidden passages. B. Pathways of the great solar bodies. C. Astrological computations. D. Dates of important events taking place throughout time. 120. The word "prophesied” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ____. A. affiliated

B. precipitated C. terminated

D. foretold

121. Extraterrestrial beings are ____. A. very strong workers

B. astronomers in the ancient times

C. researchers in Egyptology

D. living beings from other planets

122. What is the best title for the passage? A. Symbolism of the Great Pyramid B. Problems with the Construction of the Great Pyramid C. Wonders of the Great Pyramid of Giza D. Exploration of the Burial Chamber of Cheops Exercise 11. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. MY 25,000 WONDERS OF THE WORLD The coaches at the Uluru Sunset Viewing Area were parked three deep. Guides were putting up tables and setting out wines and snacks. Ten minutes to go. Are we ready? Five minutes, folks. Got your cameras? OK, here it comes ... Whether an American backpacker or a wealthy traveller, Danish, British, French, we all saw that sunset over Uluru, or Ayer Rock, in what seems to be the prescribed tourist manner: mouth full of corn chips, glass full of Château Somewhere, and a loved one posing in a photo's foreground, as the all-time No 1 Australian icon behind us glowed briefly red. Back on the coach, our guide declared our sunset to be 'pretty good', although not the best she'd witnessed in her six years. Behind me, Adam, a student from Manchester, reinserted his iPod earphones: 'Well, that's enough of that rock.' Indeed. Shattered from getting up at five in order to see Uluru at dawn, I felt empty and bored. What was the point? What made this rock the definitive sunset rock event? Why had we come here? Well, I

suppose my sons would remember it always. Except they'd missed the magical moment while they checked out a rival tour group's snack table, which had better crisps. So now I've visited four of the “25 Wonders of the World", as decreed by Rough Guides. And I think this will be the last. While in my heart I can see myself wondering enchanted through China's Forbidden City, in my head I know I would be standing grumpily at the back of a group listening to some Imperial Palace Tour Guide. At the Grand Canyon I would be getting angr with tourists watching it through cameras – eyes are not good enough, since they lack a recording facility. As we become richer and consumer goods are more widely affordable, and satisfy us only briefly before becoming obsolete, we turn to travel to provide us with 'experiences’. These will endure, set us apart from stayat-home people and maybe, fill our lives with happiness and meaning, Books with helpful titles like 1,000 Places to See Before You Die are bestsellers. I'd bet many backpacks on the Machu Picchu Inca Trail are filled with copies, with little tieks penciled in the margins after each must-see sight has been visited. Travel is now the biggest industry on the planet, bigger than armaments or pharmaceuticals. And yet viewing the main sight of any destination is rarely the highlight of a trip. Mostly it sits there on your itinerary like a duty visit to a dull relative. The guilt of not visiting the Sistine Chapel, because we preferred to stay in a bar drinking limoncello, almost spoilt a weekend in Rome. In Queensland, the Great Barrier Reef reproached us. How could we travel 15,000 miles without seeing it? How would we explain back home that we were too lazy, and preferred to stay playing a ball game in our hotel pool? In the end, we went to the reef and it was fine. But it won't rank highly in the things I'll never forget about Australia. Like the fact that the banknotes are made of waterproof plastic: how gloriously Australian is that? Even after a day's surfing, the $50 note you left in your surfing shorts is still OK to buy you beer! And the news item that during a recent tsunami warning, the surfers at Bondi Beach refused to leave the sea: what, and miss the ride of their lives? Or the stern warning at the hand luggage X-ray machine at Alice Springs airport: "No jokes must be made whilst being processed by this facility' - to forestall, no doubt, disrespectful Aussie comments: 'You won't find the bomb, mate. It's in my suitcase.’ The more I travel, the clearer it seems that the truth of a place is in the tiny details of everyday life, not in its most glorious statues or scenery. Put down your camera, throw away your list, the real wonders of the world number indefinitely more than 25. 123. What does the author mean by ‘the prescribed tourist manner’ in paragraph 2? A. They are all backpackers. B. They are all wealthy travellers. C. They are all interested in seeing the wonders of the world. D. They all eat, drink and do the same things at the sites of the world wonders. 124. What did the author think or feel after seeing the sunset over Ayer Rock? A. She thought it was pretty good. B. She felt exhausted, empty, and bored. C. She thought that was enough. D. She thought this rock was the definitive sunset rock event. 125. Why does she think that Uluru is probably the last 'wonder of the world' she will see?

A. She doesn't like wandering around the wonders. B. She doesn't enjoy the Imperial Palace Tour Guide. C. She doesn't like watching the wonder through a camera. D. She doesn't want to explore the sites the way people around her do. 126. What kind of tourists is she criticising when she says 'eyes are not good enough' in paragraph 4? A. those who stand grumpily at the back of the group B. those who wander enchanted through the site C. those who look at the wonders through their cameras D. those who lack a recording facility 127. According to the author, what do a lot of backpackers carry with them nowadays? A. books with helpful titles

B. books that are bestsellers

C. copies of must-see sights

D. little pencils

128. The author compares visiting the main tourist sights to ____. A. armaments

B. Pharmaceuticals

C. a trip highlight

D. a duty visit to a dull relative

129. What does she mean by `the Great Barrier Reef reproached us' in paragraph 6? A. The Great Barrier Reef is worth visiting if you are in Australia. B. It is fine to visit the Great Barrier Reef when you are in Australia. C. It seems wrong not to visit the Great Barrier Reef once you are in Australia. D. The Great Barrier Reef is an unforgettable sight in Australia. 130. All of the following are mentioned in the article as memorable aspects of Australia EXCEPT ____. A. banknotes made of waterproof plastic B. the fine visit to the Great Barrier Reef C. the surfers at Bondi Beach refusing to leave the sea despite tsunami warning D. the stern warning at the hand luggage X-ray machine at Alice Springs airport. Part VI. WRITING Exercise 12. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 131. Visitors come to admire the relics that were excavated from the ancient tombs. A. Visitors come to admire the relics excavating from the ancient tombs. B. Visitors come to admire the relics excavated from the ancient tombs. C. Visitors come to admire the relics being excavated from the ancient tombs. D. Visitors come to admire the relics to be excavated from the ancient tombs. 132. The Citadel of the Ho Dynasty, which is located in Thanh Hoa Province, was added to UNESCO's World Heritage List in 2011. A. Locating in Thanh Hoa Province, the Citadel of the Ho Dynasty was added to UNESCO's World Heritage List in 2011. B. Located in Thanh Hoa Province, the Citadel of the Ho Dynasty was added to UNESCO's World Heritage List in 2011.

C. The Citadel of the Ho Dynasty, that is located in Thanh Hoa Province, was added to UNESCO's World Heritage List in 2011. D. The Citadel of the Ho Dynasty, locating in Thanh Hoa Province, was added to UNESCO's World Heritage List in 2011. 133. The Complex of Hue Monuments, which lies along the Perfume River in Hue City, is a good example of a welldesigned capital city. A. The Complex of Hue Monuments, laying along the Perfume River in Hue City, is a good example of a welldesigned capital city. B. Laying along the Perfume River in Hue City, the Complex of Hue Monuments is a good example of a welldesigned capital city. C. Lying along the Perfume River in Hue City, the Complex of Hue Monuments is a good example of a welldesigned capital city. D. Laid along the Perfume River in Hue City, the Complex of Hue Monuments is a good example of a welldesigned capital city. 134. He has been living with his cousin for two months, but he's looking for a place close to his university. A. Living with his cousin for two months, but he's looking for a place close to his university. B. Being lived with his cousin for two months, but he's looking for a place close to his university. C. Has lived with his cousin for two months, but he's looking for a place close to his university. D. Having been living with his cousin for two months, but he's looking to a place close to his university. 135. After we had chosen a destination for our holiday, we began preparing for the trip. A. Chosen a destination for our holiday, we began preparing for the trip. B. Choosing a destination for our holiday, we began preparing for the trip. C. Having chosen a destination for our holiday, we began preparing for the trip. D. Having prepared for the trip, we chose a destination for our holiday. Exercise 13. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 136. A picture was stolen by art thieves. It was painted by Munch. A. Stolen by art thieves, a picture was painted by Munch. B. Painted by Munch, a picture was stolen by art thieves. C. A picture painted by Munch was stolen by art thieves. D. All are correct. 137. You can see Velazquez in this painting. He is standing in the background. A. Standing in the background, you can see Velazquez in this painting. B. You can see Velazquez, who is standing in the background, in this painting. C. You can see Velazquez standing in the background in this painting. D. Both B and C are correct. 138. The sculpture represents the biblical King David. It was carved in the early 1500s. A. The sculpture carved in the early 1500s represents the biblical King David. B. The sculpture, carved in the early 1500s, represents the biblical King David.

C. Represented the biblical King David, the sculpture was carved in the early 1500s. D. Being represented the biblical King David, the sculpture was carved in the early 1500s. 139. Cats is one of the longest-running musicals in Britain. It was written by Andrew Lloyd Webber. A. Written by Andrew Lloyd Webber, Cats is one of the longest-running musicals in Britain. B. Cats, written by Andrew Lloyd Webber, is one of the longest-running musicals in Britain. C. Cats, one of the longest-running musicals in Britain, was written by Andrew Lloyd Webber. D. All are correct. 140. The Matrix was released in 1999. It stars Keanu Reeves. A. Releasing in 1999, The Matrix stars Keanu Reeves. B. Released in 1999, The Matrix stars Keanu Reeves. C. The Matrix released in 1999 stars Keanu Reeves. D. Both B and C are correct.

Unit 9. CITIES OF THE FUTURE

Part I. PHONETICS

Exercise 1. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 1. A. dweller

B. overcrowded

C. network

D. waste

2. A. commercial

B. electricity

C. advanced

D. processing

3. A. inhabitant B. geography

C. radiation

4. A. upgrade

B. presentation C. description

5. A. disposal

B. optimistic

D. available D. consumption

C. population

D. occupy

Exercise 2. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. 6. A. organiser B. comfortable C. technology

D. populated

7. A. presentation

B. pessimistic

C. residential

D. innovative

8. A. renewable

B. sustainable

C. insfrastructure

D. environment

9. A. familiar

B. generate

C. assignment

D. pollutant

10. A. overcrowded

B. inhabitant

C. geography

D. convenient

Part II. VOCABULARY Exercise 3. Mark the letter A, B, G, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 11. Local authorities should find ways to limit the use of private cars and encourage city ____ to use public transport. A. commuters

B. planners

C. dwellers

D. people

12. To get ready for the presentation, we can start preparing the slides while Jeremy will do the ____. A. speaking

B. telling

C. talking

D. speech

13. Located about 60 km southwest of Seoul, this eco city has been planned around a central park and designed so that every resident can walk to work in the business ____. A. district

B. area

C. location

D. organisation

14. The waste ____ system here is also innovative. There are no rubbish trucks or waste bins in the street. A. dump

B. disposal

C. landfill

D. throwaway

15. London is a/an ____ city. It's a melting pot for people from all parts of the world. A. international

B. national

C. metropolitan

D. cosmopolitan

16. Cities in poorer countries often lack basic ____. Without it, they are unable to function properly as cities. A. structure

B. construction

C. infrastructure

D. condition

17. The ____ of living in some places can be very high. Prices in London are particularly exorbitant. A. value

B. price

C. worth

D . cost

18. Urban ____ is prevalent in most cities. Everywhere you go there are building sites, pedestrian precincts, blocks of flats, and housing estates spreading into the countryside. A. sprawl

B. expansion

C. widening

D. spread

19. This safe, ____ friendly city is like a paradise for its inhabitants who can enjoy the highest quality of life. A. environment B. environmental

C. environmentally

20. ____ waste is putting city dweller's health at a real risk.

D. environmentalist

A. Treatment

B. Untreated

C. Non-treatment

D. Non-treated

21. Every month, scientists invent new gadgets and ____ to help us with our daily lives, and discover ways to make existing technology faster and better. A. experiments B. effects

C. laboratories

D. equipment

22. Unlike the country where the day often ends quite early in the evening, the city offers its people exciting ____. A. activities

B. performances

C. nightlife

D. night clubs

23. The roads are terrible. I'm always getting ____ in traffic. A. stuck

B. lost

C. exhausted

D. late

24. A pedestrian ____ is a specified place on the road where people can cross. A. crossroads

B. crossing

C. junction

D. T-junction

25. Everything's a bit more expensive here and property prices are extremely high. A lot of people have no choice but to live in the ____ and commute in to work. A. outskirt

B. suburbs

C. city

D. urban

26. It's much safer for cyclists to get around these days with cycle ____ everywhere. A. lanes

B. streets

C. roads

D. paths

27. The ____ is where you'll find all the large department stores and banks. A. city heart

B. town hall

C . city centre

D. business district

28. Exhaust ____ from cars are responsible for much of the air pollution in cities. A. fumes

B. smokes

C. gases

D . smog

29. Many factories still allow ____, such as toxic waste, to flow into our rivers A. pollution

B. litters

C. garbage

D. pollutants

30. Many commuters struggling to work through the rush-hour ____ ask 'Is it worth it?' A. congestion

B. vehicles

C. roads

D. accidents

31. It is perhaps, the daily stresses and ____ of the city which make life there a matter of survival rather than of enjoyment. A depresses

B. strains

C. demands

D. challenges

32. Most cars nowadays are fitted with a security ____ of some kind. A. motor

B. gadget

C. tool

D. device

33. The greenhouse ____ takes place when certain gases in the atmosphere trap sun's heat. A emission

B. gas

C. effect

D. affect

34. Pollution and heavy traffic are common problems in ____ cities. A cosmopolitan

B. modern

C. metropolitan

D. overcrowded

35. Millions of people around the world still live in poverty. They are struggling every day simply to ____. A. get up

B. get by

C. get on

D. get round

Exercise 4. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 36. Today Islamabad is a thriving city of about 1 million people. It offers a healthy climate, a pollution-free atmosphere, plenty of water, and many green spaces. A. healthy

B. prosperous

C. modern

D. green

37. Scientists hope that this new drug will be a major breakthrough in the fight against AIDS. A. new cure

B. important therapy

C. sudden remedy

D. dramatic development

38. They design and carry out projects aiming to reduce fossil fuel consumption, find renewable fuels for public transport, and promote other clean air efforts. A. inexhaustibleB. recyclable

C. green

D. environmentally-friendly

39. The urban planners are working for Eco Infrastructure Network, whose main function is to deal with urban environmental problems to make Super Star City greener, cleaner, and more sustainable. A. eye-catching B. developed

C. long-lasting

D. friendly

40. If we have solar panels on our roofs, we'll be able to generate our own electricity. A. afford

B. produce

C. manufacture

D. light

41. I believe the government will use advanced technology to build faster trains and make people's life more comfortable. A. modern

B. expensive

C. public

D. latest

42. Many city dwellers, especially those in developing countries, still live in poverty. A. people

B. migrants

C. immigrants

D. residents

43. These projects have proved to be very effective in dealing with global climate change, which was considered an insoluble problem in the first 30 years of this century. A. hard

B. challenging C. unsolvable

D. unbearable

44. There's a real mix of people in Brighton. It has a very cosmopolitan feel to it. A. busy

B. hectic

C. multi-cultural

D. diversified

45. People who hold optimistic view believe that cities of the future will increase the general well-being of individuals and societies. A. health state

B. quality of life

C. level of development D. growth rate

Exercise 5. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 46. If I take the pessimistic viewpoint, Tokyo won't be a safe place to live in. A. negative

B. optimistic

C. optical

D. neutral

47. To reduce carbon emissions into the atmosphere, ways to limit the use of private cars must be found. A. public

B. personal

C. common

D. shared

48. People who live in towns and cities live in an urban environment. A. remote

B. deserted

C. suburban

D. rural

49. There is pollution not only of the physical environment because the various pressure of urban life causes cities to breed crime. A. social

B. mental

C. moral

D. manual

50. Governments have to join hands to solve the environmental problems on a global scale. A. worldwide

B. nationwide

C. local

D. international

Part III. GRAMMAR Exercise 6. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 51. This is the right DVD, ____?

A. isn't this

B. is this

C. isn't it

D. is it

52. I'm not the only one, ____? A. aren't I

B. am I

C. am not I

D. are not I

53. Let's go out tonight, ____? A. shall we

B. will we

C. could we

D. would we

C. can you

D. will you

C. do they

D. don't they

ะก . haven't they

D. have they

54. Don't forget to write to me soon, ____? A. would you

B. could you

55. Nothing frightens you, ____? A. does it

B. doesn't it

56. Somebody's just called my name, ____? A. hasn't he

B. didn't he

57. I suppose you don't like the course, ____? A. don't I

B. do I

C. don't you

D. do you

C. aren't they

D. are they

58. Everyone's going to be there, ____? A. isn't he

B. is he

59. We never enjoy our city break, ____? A. do we

B. don't we

C. have we

D. haven't we

60. There will be more and more megacities in the world, A. will it

B. won't it

C. will there

D. won't there

C. does he

D. doesn't he

61. No one wants to live in a polluted city, ____? A. do they

B. don't they

62. I think city dwellers can enjoy an exciting nightlife, ____? A. don't you think

B. don't I

C. can't they

D. can they

63. There's hardly anything that can be done to reduce pollution, ____? A. isn't there

B. is there

C. can it

D. can't it

64. You have to wear uniform when going to work, ____? A. haven't you B. have you

C. do you

D. don't you

65. We are supposed to submit the assignment by Friday, ____? A. don't we

B. are we

C. aren't we

D. do we

C. could you

D. all are correct

66. Put these flowers near the window, ____? A. will you

B. would you

67. None of the old people likes living in urban areas, ____? A. do them

B. does he

C. do they

D. don't they

68. Neither of the locations was ideal for a new shopping mall, ____? A. were they

B. was it

C. weren't they

D. wasn't it

C. do I

D. don't I

69. I believe nothing serious happened, ____? A. did it

B. didn't it

70. Sophie has got no major problems living in the new city, ____? A. hasn't she

B. has she

C. does she

D. doesn't she

Exercise 7. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 71. Sarah will be very annoyed if Dave ____ her this evening. A. won't call

B. not call

C. doesn't call

D. will call

72. When you ____ with your computer, can I borrow it? A. have finishedB. will finish

C. will have finished

D. are finishing

73. If you like peace and quiet, ____ move to the town to live. A. you won't

B. you will

C. let's

D. don't

74. If you go by air, it ____ you around two hours to get to Ho Chi Minh City from Ha Noi. A. would take

B. takes

C. took

D. spends

75. ____ he do well in the exam, his parents will buy him an MP3 player. A. If

B. When

C. Should

D. Were

76. You are expected to fasten the seatbelt ____ you are driving. A. when

B. if

C. whenever

B. let's tell

C. let tell

D. all are correct

77. If you need help, ____ me! A. will tell

D. tell

78. If unemployment is rising, people ____ to stay in their current jobs. A. tend

B. will tend

C. have tended

D . would tend

79. If you see Karen, ____ you ask her to call me? A. shall

B. will

C. do

D . would

80. If you bully someone, you ____ them to do things against their will. A. will force

B. forced

C. force

D. would force

Exercise 8. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 81. Won't you be a lot happier if Dad came home this weekend? A

82 Should Jade gets to interview a famous politician, she will ask lots of difficult questions. A

83. If her condition should improve, we inform you immediately. A

84. I don't want a brother or sister, unless it will happens, of course. A

85. If you meet John, will tell him I want to see him. A

86. None of your friends really enjoyed themselves at the party, didn't they? A

87. If you borrow my coat, don't get it dirty, can you? A

88. You never work more than you have to, do you? A

89. You made no effort to make friends with Darren, didn't you? A

90. You sent that letter I gave you, haven't you? A

Part IV. SPEAKING Exercise 9. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges. 91. “____?" – "It's ten minutes' walk from here.” A. How long does it take to get to the town centre? B. Can you show me the way to the town centre? C. How far is it from here to the town centre? D. How can we get to the town centre? 92. “What a boring lecture!" - “____” A. Yes, it was dull, wasn't it?

B. I don't agree. It's dull.

C. It's interesting, wasn't it?

D. I'm sorry not.

93. “I believe people will have a better life in the future.” - “____ Life will be more enjoyable than it is today, won't it?” A. No, I don't think so. B. Not exactly. C. Yes, I agree. D. You can't be right. 94. ” ____” – “That's right. London will be cleaner and more sustainable.” A. This means there'll be no pollution, will there? B. This means there'll be no pollution, won't there? C. This means there won't be no pollution, will there? D. This means there'll be no pollution, doesn't it? 95. "What's the weather forecast?” – “____” A. Don't forget your raincoat, will you? B. Don't forget your raincoat, do you? C. It's going to rain. Don't forget your raincoat, will you? D. It's going to rain. Don't forget your raincoat, do you? 96. “Global warming will continue to be a big threat to life on earth.” – “____” A. We can't afford to ignore its effects any longer. B. Then we can't afford to ignore its effects any longer, can we? C. So don't ignore its effects any longer. D. Please don't ignore its effects any longer. 97. “Oh, I'm sorry! Am I disturbing you?” – “____” A. Sure, you're a real nuisance!

B. You're such a pain in the neck!

C. No, never mind.

D. No, you're OK.

98. “In 2050, London won't be a good place to live in, will it?” – “____” A. Exactly, it will be. C. I'm sorry, it will be.

B. On the contrary, it will be. D. Unfortunately, it will be.

99. “I'm going to the supermarket now. Do you need anything?” – “____” A. Get me some cheese and some oil, may you?

B. Get me some cheese and some oil, can't you? C. Get me some cheese and some oil, could you? D. Get me some cheese and some oil, couldn't you? 100. “I don't have any plans for tonight.” – “____” A. Why not going to the cinema with me?

B. I suggest to go to the cinema.

C. Let's go to the cinema, shall we?

D. What if going to the cinema?

101. “What if I quit more than 3 sessions?” – “____” A. You won't take the final exam.

B. You wouldn't take the final exam.

C. You wouldn't be able to take the final exam.

D. You can't take the final exam.

102. “____” – “Yes, I love it here. Everything I want is only five minutes away.” A. It's convenient to live here, isn't it?

B. It's comfortable to live here, isn't it?

C. It's inconvenient to live here, isn't it?

D. It's uncomfortable to live here, isn't it?

103. “City dwellers are always so busy, aren't they?" – "____” A. No, they aren't. Everybody's rushing about all the time. B. Not really. Everybody's rushing about all the time. C. I'm not sure. Everybody's rushing about all the time. D. Yes, everybody's rushing about all the time. 104. “____” – “London's so big. It took me ages to find my way round.” A. What about London?

B. What was London?

C. How was London?

D. How about London?

105. “Most cities aren't safe places to live, are they?" – "____” A. No, I'm afraid. There are always what they call ‘no-go areas'. B. Yes, they are. There are always what they call ‘no-go areas’. C. Well, the opposite is true. There are always what they call ‘no-go areas’. D. On the contrary. There are always what they call ‘no-go areas'. Part V. READING Exercise 10. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. MARRAKECH Where can you go in January for almost guaranteed sunshine – without travelling for most of the day to get there? The answer is Marrakech in Morocco, a four-hour (106) ____ from Britain, where the average temperature is a pleasant 66°F. Marrakech is a city of (107) ____ beauty, with its pink buildings and green palm trees contrasting with the snowcovered (108) ____ of the Atlas Mountains in the distance. For tourists, there's the added attraction of excellent food at reasonable prices, and high quality accommodation, such as Hotel La Momounia, (109) ____ as one of the top hotels in the world. (110) ____ Marrakech is one of Morocco's busiest and most modern cities, the influence of the Middle Ages is still very evident. (111) ____ can admire the battlements, towers, and mosques, which were built (112) ____

centuries ago. And forget about shopping malls – for perfumes, fabrics, antiques, spices and crafts, (113) ____ the ‘souks’, open-air market places where you'll almost (114) ____ find something to take back home. For those who want to (115) ____ sport Marrakech has plenty to offer. (116) ____ to golf and tennis, there is also skiing on the slopes of the high Atlas Mountains, where the (117) ____ of the surrounding area are quite spectacular. Alternatively, you could just relax by a heated swimming pool and dream of your next visit. 106. A. travel

B. trip

107. A. big

B. great

108. A. peaks

B. hills

109. A. thought

B. regarded

C. flight C. large

D. voyage D. high

C. heads C. believed

D. surfaces D. guessed

110. A. Because

B. However

C. Despite

D. Although

111. A. Spectators

B. Viewers

C. Sightseers

D. Onlookers

112. A. several

B. plenty

C. other

D. all

113. A. work out

B. put up with

C. head for

D. make up for

114. A. likely

B. certainly

C. probably

D. possibly

115. A. do

B. exercise

C. take off

D. go in

116. A. As well

B. Apart

C. In addition

D. Moreover

117. A. visions

B. views

C. aspects

D. appearances

Exercise 11. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. A NEW CAPITAL When the new state of Pakistan was founded in 1947, Karachi acted as the capital city. However, it was difficult for Karachi to remain in this role due to a number of drawbacks such as the climate and the state of the existing buildings. Rather than try to overcome these drawbacks, the government decided to create a new capital city. In 1959, a commission was established to investigate the possible locations of this new city. The advisor appointed to the commission was Dr Doxiadis, a famous architect and city planner. Dr Doxiadis and his colleagues looked at the various locations. They then produced a report suggesting two possible areas: one just outside Karachi and the other to the north of Rawalpindi. Both locations had advantages as well as disadvantages. Which site was it to be? The choice between these two options was made after consideration of many factors, such as transportation, the availabilities of water, economic factors, and factors of national interest. Finally, the site north of Rawalpindi was chosen and on the 24th February 1960, the new capital was given the name of ‘Islamabad’ and a master plan was drawn up. This master plan divided the area into three different sections: Islamabad itself, neighbouring Rawalpindi, and the national park. Each of these three sections had a different role. Islamabad would act as the national's capital and would serve its administrative and cultural needs, whereas Rawalpindi would remain the regional centre with industry and commerce. The third piece of the plan, the national park, was planned to provide space for education, recreation, and agriculture.

Today Islamabad is a thriving city of about 1 million people. It offers a healthy a pollution-free atmosphere, plenty of water, and many green spaces. Guide tree-lined streets, elegant public buildings, and well-organised bazaars and shopping centres. The new capital is a superb example of good urban planning. 118. Why was a commission founded in 1959? A. to overcome the drawbacks of Karachi as a capital city B. to create a new capital city for Pakistan C. to look into possibilities of the locations for a new capital city D. to appoint an advisor for planning the new capital city 119. How many places were suggested for the new capital city in the initial reports? A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

120. Which of the following factors was NOT considered when choosing the location for the new capital city? A. the climate and the state of the existing buildings B. transportation and the availabilities of water C. economic issues D. issues of pational interest 121. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage? A. Islamabad would serve cultural needs. B. Rawalpindi would be the regional centre with industry and commerce. C. The national park would provide space for agriculture. D. Islamabad would play the most important role of all. 122. What does the passage primarily describe? A. The history of the two capital cities of Pakistan. B. The disappearance of the old capital city of Pakistan. C. The reasons why Islamabad became the new capital city of Pakistan. D. The choice and development of Islamabad as the modern capital of Pakistan. Exercise 12. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. LESSONS FROM CURITIBA Urban planning deals with the physical, economic, and social development of cities. Today urban populations are increasing rapidly, and growing cities are putting enormous pressure on the environment. For this reason, the type of urban planning found in Curitiba, in southern Brazil, is more important than ever. Curitiba is a fine example of how urban planning can work. This has not always been the case, however. At one time, Curitiba faced the same problems as many other cities all over the world, namely overcrowding, pollution, and an increased demand for services, transport, and housing. How, then, did Curitiba address these problems? By the 1940s the population of Curitiba had grown to about 150,000 as immigrants from countries such as Japan, Syria, and Lebanon came to work in agriculture and industry. These people needed both housing and transportation. Curitiba's leaders realised that it was not sensible to deal with these problems separately. Consequently, they employed a French planner and architect, Alfred Agache, to find an overall solution.

Agache studied all aspects of the problem. He designed a scheme which gave priority to public services such as sanitation and public transport. At the same time, the scheme included centres which helped both community life and commerce to develop, and reduced traffic congestion. This was the first scheme to address several problems of growing cities at the same time. Unfortunately, some parts of his plan were not completed. The result, as described below, was that his scheme only served Curitiba for another 20 years. By the 1960s, the population of Curitiba had grown to about 430,000 inhabitants, so the city had to rethink its needs. In order to do this, the mayor put together a team of architects and town planners led by Jaime Lerner. This team produced the Curitiba Master Plan. This consisted of taking Agache's original plan and adding wide, high-speed roads which crossed the smaller streets. Their proposals also included plans to minimise urban growth, reduce city centre traffic, and preserve the city's historic district. It is clear that the Curitiba Master Plan was one of the first attempts to integrate all aspects of city planning. This integrated approach to urban design was maintained throughout the 1980s as Curitiba's population grew to almost one million inhabitants. Environmental facilities were added, such as a recycling programme for household waste, and parks and 'green' spaces were protected from development. However, good transportation remained central to the planning. Good transportation still remains a priority, together with the needs for jobs. A growing population needs employment, so business parks and centres have been added to encourage new small businesses. All these changes will continue be the population of Curitiba increases, but its city planners are continually searching for solutions to the problems. 123. What aspect of development does urban planning NOT deal with? A. physical development

B. technical development

C. economic development.

D. social development

124. How many problems are mentioned in the passage as commonly shared by many cities? A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

125. What was the main cause of the increase in Curitiba's population Delore the 1940s? A. immigrants from rural areas C. immigrants from neighbouring countries

B. workers in business park D. immigrants from Japan, Syria, and Lebanon

126. In what ways was Agacheâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s approach different? A. His scheme gave priority to public services. B. His scheme included centres which helped both community life and commerce to develop. C. His scheme reduced traffic congestion. D. His scheme addressed several problems at the same time. 127. What did the Curitiba Master Plan do? A. added better road system

B. reduced urban growth

C. prohibit city-centre traffic

D. all of the above

128. What was new about the approach to the planning in the 1980s? A. It was an integrated approach. B. Environmental facilities were introduced. C. Good transportation was the key.

D. It provided housing for one million inhabitants. 129. The new thing about the current approach to urban planning is ____. A. new small businesses

B. good transport

C. the need for jobs

D. the appearance of business parks

130. Which statement best describes the author's opinion of the Curitiba experience of urban planning? A. It was a complete success. B. The challenges for urban planners in Curitiba were many. C. Other city planners could benefit greatly from this experience. D. It was a once-and-done plan. Part VI. WRITING Exercise 13. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 131. You use your mobile phone a lot, so you have large phone bills. A. If you don't use your mobile phone a lot, you don't have large phone bills. B. If you didn't use your mobile phone a lot, you wouldn't have large phone bills. C. If you don't use your mobile phone a lot, you won't have large phone bills. D. If you won't use your mobile phone a lot, you won't have large phone bills. 132. I think you should tell your parents the truth. A. If I am you, I tell your parents the truth. B. If I am you, I will tell your parents the truth. C. If I were you, I would tell your parents the truth. D. If I were you, I will tell your parents the truth. 133. My computer always crashes when a CD is inserted. A. If I insert a CD, my computer will crash. B. If I insert a CD, my computer crashes. C. If you want my computer to crash, insert a CD. D. Unless you want my computer to crash, insert a CD. 134. Water always boils when you heat it long enough. A. If heated long enough, water boils.

B. If water is heated long enough, it boils.

C. If you heat water long enough, it boils.

D. All are correct.

135. Plants and flowers can't live without water. A. If you water plants and flowers, they can't live. B. If you water plants and flowers, they will live. C. If you don't water plants and flowers, they can't live. D. Unless you water plants and flowers, they live. Exercise 14. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 136. Researchers are developing low-cost devices. These devices can detect water pollutants in rivers and lakes. A. Researchers are developing low-cost devices that can detect water pollutants in rivers and lakes.

B. Researchers are developing low-cost devices to detect water pollutants in rivers and lakes. C. Researchers are developing low-cost devices so that they can detect water pollutants in rivers and lakes. D. Researchers are developing low-cost devices who can detect water pollutants in rivers and lakes. 137. Urban planners carry out projects to develop a city. They look at the needs of local people and the environment when they do this. A. While carrying out projects to develop a city, urban planners look at the needs of local people and the environment when they do this. B. While carrying out projects to develop a city, urban planners look at the needs of local people and the environment. C. If they carry out projects to develop a city, urban planners look at the needs of local people and the environment when they do this. D. As carrying out projects to develop a city, urban planners look at the needs of local people and the environment. 138. Most Superstar City Dwellers are quite happy with their life and work. Barbara and Mark are quite happy, too. A. Not only most Superstar City Dwellers are quite happy with their life and work but also Barbara and Mark are quite happy, too. B. Most Superstar City Dwellers along with Barbara and Mark are quite happy with their life and work. C. Like most Superstar City Dwellers, Barbara and Mark are quite happy with their life and work. D. Barbara and Mark are like most Superstar City Dwellers because they are quite happy with their life and work. 139. Wastewater is treated and turned into drinking water. This is done to ensure there is no shortage of fresh water. A. For there is shortage of fresh water, wastewater is treated and turned into drinking water. B. Wastewater is treated and turned into drinking water because there is shortage of fresh water. C. Wastewater is treated and turned into drinking water though there is no shortage of fresh water. D. To ensure there is no shortage of fresh water, wastewater is treated and turned into drinking water. 140. The infrastructure of our city needs upgrading. It's in an extremely poor condition now. A. The infrastructure of our city needs upgrading, for it's in an extremely poor condition now. B. The infrastructure of our city needs upgrading though it's in an extremely poor condition now. C. While the infrastructure of our city needs upgrading, it's in an extremely poor condition now. D. The infrastructure of our city needs upgrading when it's in an extremely poor condition now.

Unit 10. HEALTHY LIFESTYLE AND LONGEVITY

Part I. PHONETICS

Exercise 1. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 1. A. sugar

B. consume

C. trans-fat

D. obesity

2. A. vitamin

B. mineral

C. diet

D. fitness

3. A medicine. B. remedy

C. exercise

D. obesity

4. A balanced

C. fatty

D. natural

C. sugary

D. longevity

B. yoga

5. A. vegetable B. hygiene

Exercise 2. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. 6. A. prevent

B. injure

C. sugar

7. A. healthy

B. consume

C. diet

D. headache

3. А. уора

B. fatal

C. immune

D. careful

9. A. infectious B. essential 10. A. unhealthy

D. fitness

C. precaution

B. vitamin

D. properly

C. mineral

D. natural

Part II, VOCABULARY Exercise 3, Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 11. Children often get vaccinated in order to be immune to fatal diseases. A. susceptible

B. vulnerable

C. allowed

D. resistant

C. increase

D. maintain

12. This kind of fruit helps to boost the immune system. A. decrease

B. reduce

13. Life expectancy for both men and women has improved greatly in the past twenty years. A. Living standard

B. Longevity

C. Life skills

D. Lifeline

14. Here are some principles for people to stick to if they want to stay healthy. A. rules

B. principals

C. laws

D. duties

15. We should consume healthy food and exercise regularly. A. store

B. purchase

C. buy

D. eat

C. keep fit

D. operate

16. There are several ways to exercise and stay healthy. A. apply

B. exploit

17. We should take prescription medicine only when other methods fail. A. decline

B. not succeed C. break

D. fall

18. If you take this medicine, you will recover quickly. A. get well

B. get on

C. get up

D. get in

19. The doctor warned his patient not to take too much sugar. A. shouted

B. threatened

C. punished

D. cautioned

20. In order to stay healthy, make sure you have a balanced intake of vitamins and minerals. A. take-off

B. take-away

C. consumption

D. digestion

21. Too much fast food consumption can increase the risk of obesity and heart disease. A. being underweight

B. being overweight

C. malnutrition

D. fitness

22. A popular way to relieve stress in today's busy lifestyles is practising meditation. A. reduce

B. relax

C. repeat

D. require

23. People can fight infection more easily if they have an adequate diet. A. injection

B. disease

C. hygiene

D. each other

24. We should drink a lot of water to prevent water loss. A. boost

B. stimulate

C. avoid

D. trigger

25. In order to avoid sunburn, many people wear protecting clothes when they go out. A. continue

B. encourage

C. facilitate

D. block

26. Remember to wash your face twice a day with warm water and mild soap to remove dirt. A. light

B. destructive

C. strong

D . protective

27. Squeezing pimples can lead to swelling, redness, and infection. A. falling

B. declining

C. shrinking

D. becoming bigger

28. Eating a wide variety of fruit and vegetables provides you with vitamins and nutrients. A. broad

B. narrow

C. limited

D. certain

29. She gave us some tips for keeping our skin healthy and preventing common skin problems. A. particular

B. normal

C. infrequent

D. accepted

30. Having healthy skin is especially essential to women to maintain their beauty. A. trivial

B. meaningless

C. vital

D. contributory

31. If you stare at a computer screen for too long, it may damage your eyesight. Đ?. peep

B. look

C. glance

D. gaze

32. The increase in life expectancy can be attributed to health lifestyle, better nutrition, and advances in medical science and technology. A. activities

B. advisers

C. delays

D. breakthroughs

33. Mass media have helped to raise people's awareness of lifestyle choices. A. stabilise

B. reduce

C. lift

D. encourage

34. John Keith has been a fitness instructor for more than ten years. A. practitioner B. trainer

C. learner

D. intern

35. Here are some precautions for us to take when doing different types of physical activities. A. safety measures

B. safety levels C. safety rules

D. safety factors

36. If you do workout outdoors in the hot and sunny weather, your body can overheat and lose a lot of fluid. A. liquid

B. vitamins

C. minerals

D. nutrients

C. originate

D. be due to

37. Losing a lot of fluid can lead to heat stroke. A. result from

B. result in

38. You should drink a glass of water before a workout and then pause regularly to drink more. A. break up

B. break down C. break off

D. break in

39. You should also exercise early in the morning when it's not too hot. A. have a rest

B. do housework

C. do homework

D. work out

40. Make sure you have warmed up your body by stretching or jumping before swimming. A. exercised

B. put on warm clothes C. had a warm bath

D. rested

41. If you are swimming and lightning strikes, you risk serious injury or death. A. trivial

B. bad

C. important

D. minor

42. If yoga is not done properly, it can do more harm than good. A. socially accepted

B. morally accepted

C. correctly

D. easily

Exercise 4. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 43. You need to do some warm-up exercise such as stretching before you start your yoga practice. A. remaining

B. declining

C. developing

D. shrinking

44. Stretching will relax your muscles and prevent any damage to your joints. A. allow

B. avoid

C. limit

D. protest

45. When you walk, don't look at your feet. This will slow you down and cause back pain. A. result in

B. result from

C. lead to

D. activate

46. After hundreds of rejections by the employers, I decided that I need to do something about my obesity. A. denial

B. approval

C. refusal

D. rebuttal

47. I found a website advertising an effective way to lose weight in one month. A. drop

B. waste

C. maintain

D. gain

48. I have followed a special diet and joined a fitness class for overweight people for over six months. A. refused

B. obeyed

C. adhered to

D. carried on

49. My family totally supported me during my fight against obesity. A. aided

B. discouraged

C. assisted

D. promoted

50. I have just received my first job offer after having been unemployed for two years. A. got

B. gained

C. rejected

D. acquired

Part III. GRAMMAR Exercise 5. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 51. We need some cholesterols to help our skin, brain, and other organs grow, but too much of it can cause A

health problems. 52. People who eat lots of red meat are at risk of develop heart diseases. A

53. Your body may not be able to fights infections naturally if your immune system is weakened. A

54. I told him that if I drank coffee before bedtime, I can't sleep. A

55. Dr Lam said that we'd boost our immune system if we have a healthy lifestyle. A

56. Namâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s wife told him that it would be nice if he spends more time with the children.

57. Peter explained to us that if Ann called him back, he'll arrange an appointment for her. A

58. The travel agent explained to us that if we travelled to a foreign country, we need a valid passport. A

59. My grandmother keeps to tell us that if we catch a cold, we should try natural remedies before taking A

any medicine. D 60. John told me that if he were rich, he'd donate money for charity. A

61. Mira's father said that she would recover quickly if she follows the doctor's advice. A

62. Khanh's father promised buying her a pair of Nike shoes if she passed her English test. A

63. Lan's mother reminded her to turn off the lights before leaving a house. A

64. The doctor advise him not to exercise too hard because it was not good for his heart. A

65. Mai invited me spend my summer holidays on her grandparents' farm. A

66. Jack's father advised him not eating fast food every day. A

Exercise 6. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 67. Hoa reminded Lan ____ some groceries on the way home. A. buying

B. to buying

C. buy

D. to buy

68. My friend suggested ____ on a yoga course to lose weight. A. enrolled

B. enroll

C. enrolling

D. to enroll

69. Tom and Ken admitted ____ to submit the assignments the day before. A. to forget

B. to forgetting

C. forget

D. forgot

70. The mother told her two daughters ____ too much fast food. A. not to eat

B. to not eat

C. to eat not

D. not eat

71. The doctor said to Mr Black that if he ate lots of fatty food, he ____ increase his chance of developing heart disease. A. will be

B. will

C. would be

D. would

12. My yoga instructor asked me to close my eyes, breathe slowly and deeply, and ____ about my problems. A. not thinking B. to think not C. not to think D. not think 73. The patient admitted ____ his doctor's advice. A. to not follow B. not to following

C. to follow not D. to following not

74. Le's friend suggested ____ some games to relax because they had studied for three hours.

A. playing

B. play

C. to play

D. played

75. Nam's mother advised ____ some ginger tea if he wants to feel better. A. to him drink B. to drink him C. him drink

D. him to drink

76. Lan said that if I wanted to try natural remedies, I ____ find useful information on the Internet. A. will

B. can

C. could

D. am able to

77. Huong told me that if she ____ strong tea, she usually starts feeling dizzy. A. drank

B. drinks

C. will drink

D. has drunk

78. Lan's doctor advised ____ a yoga class to relieve stress. A. her taking

B. her take

C. to take her

D. her to take

79. Kim's father reminded ____ to his fitness class. A. to him going B. him go

C. him to go

D. he goes

80. Our fitness instructor warned ____ work out more than two hours a day. A. us not to

B. us to not

C. us not

D. not us to

81. Tom's father told him if he goes to bed on an empty stomach, he ____ be able to sleep well. A. doesn't

B. won't

C. wouldn't

D. hasn't

82. My mother warned me that if I work too much and ____ rest, I will weaken my immune system. A. didn't

B. won't

C. don't

D. wouldn't

83. Ann's doctor told her that if she ____ his advice, her health will be much better. A. followed

B. will follow

C. follows

D. would follow

84. My doctor explained that if children ____ enough calcium, they won't grow strong and healthy bones. A. don't get

B. get

C. got

D. will get

85. Anna said that if she ____ a lot of fast food, she could become overweight. A. consumes

B. consumed

C. will consume

D. would consume

C. her to take

D. her taking

86. Lan's father reminded ____ her medicine regularly. A. to take

B. her take

87. Her yoga instructor insisted ____ those relaxation techniques every day to improve her health. A. her practise B. her to practise

C. on her practise

D. on her practising

88. My doctor warned me ____ out if air pollution levels are very high. A. not to go

B. to not go

C. not go

D. go not

89. John apologised ____ his doctor's instructions. A. not for following

B. for not following

C. to follow

D. to not follow

90. The swimming instructor told the children ____ into the pool. A. to not jump B. not jump

C. not to jump D. not jumping

Part IV. SPEAKING Exercise 7. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges. Two friends Nam and Lan are talking about the topic of healthy lifestyle and longevity. 91. Nam: What do you personally do to keep fit? Lan: ____ A. I think keeping fit is necessary for everyone.

B. As far as I know, more and more people exercise to keep fit. C. Fitness centres are mushrooming. D. I just do morning exercise and maintain a balanced diet. 92. Lan: Do you think it's important for young people to keep fit? Nam: ____ A. Why do they need to keep fit? B. It's very important for old-aged people to have a healthy lifestyle. C. I do think so. As the main labour force of the country, they must be strong. D. It doesn't cost much to work out in the gym these days. 93. Nam: Do you do any sports ? Lan: ____ A. More and more people are talking about sports events these days. B. I used to, but now I don't. I'm too busy. C. There are different types of sports. D. Sportsmen should be highly paid. 94. Lan: What do people do to keep fit? Nam: ____ A. Everyone wants to keep fit these days. B. So many people do harm to their health by smoking or drinking. C. They combine exercising and having a balanced diet. D. Not many people can afford to eat healthily. 95. Nam: Do young people you know get enough exercise? Lan: ____ A. Not really. They are a little bit lazy. B. Getting enough exercise is very important. C. They tend to eat too much junk food. D. Fast food is the young people's favourite food. 96. Nam: What could we do to encourage them to exercise more? Lan: ____ A. Exercising in the morning is really encouraging. B. What about forming some sports clubs after school hours? C. Young people tend to exercise less than before. D. Lack of exercise will weaken your body. 97. Nam: Do you think we are healthier today than people were fifty years ago? Lan: ____ A. People always want to live long and stay healthy. B. Life fifty years ago was much harder than nowadays. C. People in the past had to overcome lots of hardship. D. Not really. People nowadays live in a more polluted environment.

98. Nam: What are the main health problems young people face? Lan: ____ A. There are so many health problems these days. B. Young people tend to eat a lot of convenience food. C. Diabetes and obesity are the biggest threats to them. D. It is easy for young people to overcome their health problems. 99. Nam: Do you think all medical care should be free? Lan: ____ A. I think it should be. People's life must be protected. B. Medical equipment is very expensive. C. Public schools are also free in many countries. D. Not all people can get access to free medical care. 100. Nam: What is a healthy diet? Lan: ____ A. All people need to eat healthily. B. Healthy diets are getting more expensive. C. Fast food is not healthy food. D. It must be a balanced, nutritious and healthy diet. 101. Lan: In your opinion, do you have a healthy diet? Nam: ____ A. I prefer to cook my own meals. B. Sometimes I eat out with my family or my friends. C. In general, I do. I have a balanced and healthy diet. D. My friends eat a lot of fast food. 102. Lan: How many hours a day do you spend watching TV? Nam: ____ A. TV programmes are various. There are so many of them. B. Not much. Just about thirty minutes after dinner. C. My mother spends hours watching soap operas. D. Sports channel is my favourite. 103. Lan: Do you ever eat junk food? Nam: ____ A. Sometimes I have a snack for my breakfast. B. Junk food is not nutritious enough. C. Junk food is also addictive. D. We should discourage children from eating junk food. 104. Nam: What exercise do you do? Lan: ____ A. I go jogging in the morning and aerobics in the afternoon.

B. My teachers ask us to do so many exercises. C. I hate doing too much homework. D. Exercising is time-consuming. 105. Lan: What could you do to make your lifestyle healthier? Nam: ____ A. People need a healthy lifestyle.

B. I do need to exercise more.

C. I don't care much about my diet.

D. I prefer to eat out at the weekends.

Part V. READING Exercise 8. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. HEALTHY LIVING Millions of people today are overweight and out of shape. This is due in part (106) ____ their diet, which is often high in sugars and fats. Another (107) ____ is that too many of us spend our evenings gluing (108) ____ the television, instead of doing something to keep (109) ____ fit. Today hectic lifestyles also prevent us (110) ____ spending as much time as we should on staying in shape. Long hours at school and work don't (111) ____ much time for healthy eating. Convenience food, such as (112) ____ meals and canned vegetables, saves time but is often (113) ____. Fast food and takeaways are also (114) ____ for many health problems. In order to enjoy good health, a regular programme of (115) ____ is essential. This can be anything from gentle forms of yoga (116) ____ body building. Doing a little exercise every day so as not to develop (117) ____ problems is something that all of us should consider, young and old. If you don't practise any form of exercise now, it is for you to choose one and start today and get in shape! 106. A. of

B. to

107. A. reason B. effect

C. in C. result

D. at D. consequence

108. A. in

B. on

C. to

D. at

109. A. them

B. themselves

C. us

D. ourselves

110. A. from

B. against

C. about

D. with

111. A. take

B. leave

112. A. freeze

B. freezing

C. frozen

D. unfrozen

113. A. health care

B. healthful

C. healthy

D. unhealthy

114. A. responsive

B. reacted

C. responsible

D. irresponsible

115. A. exercises

B. exercise

C. homework

D. housework

116. A. to

B. but

C. and

D. with

117. A. healthy B. unhealthy

C. spend

C. health care

D. waste

D. health

Exercise 9. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Super Size Me is a 2004 film by Morgan Spurlock, in which he documents his experiment to eat only McDonald's fast food three times a day, every day, for thirty days.

Spurlock made himself a short list of rules for the experiment, including an obligation to eat all of the three meals he ordered. He also had to ‘Super Size’, which means accepting a giant portion every time the option was offered to him. He ended up vomiting after the first Super Size meal he finished, after taking nearly twenty minutes to consume it. After five days Spurlock put on almost 5kg, and he soon found himself feeling depressed, with no energy. The only thing that got rid of his headaches and made him feel better was another McDonald's meal, so his doctors told him he was addicted. More seriously, around day twenty, he started experiencing heart palpitations and one of the doctors detected liver problems. However, in spite of his doctor's advice, Spurlock continued to the end of the month and achieved a total weight gain of 11kg. His body mass index also increased from a healthy 23.2 to an overweight 27. It took Spurlock fifteen months to recover from his experiment and return to his original weight, but the film also had a wider impact. Just after its showing in 2004, McDonald's phased out the Super Size option and healthier options like salads appeared on the menu. Unfortunately, McDonald's denied the connection between the film and the changes, but it is interesting to note how closely they coincided with the release of the film. 118. Which of the following is the best title for the passage? A. An experiment with McDonald's fast food

B. Putting on weight due to eating fast food

C. Connection between fast food and heart diseases

D. How fast food trigger liver damage

119. Which of the following is TRUE about Morgan Spurlock? A. He had to eat Super Size meal once a week. B. He had to eat Super Size meal twice a day. C. He had to eat Super Size meal three times a week. D. He had to consume Super Size for three meals a day. 120. In paragraph 2, the word "giant” is closest in meaning to ____. A. light

B. balanced

C. big

D. healthy

121. Which of the following could get rid of Spurlock's headaches? A. salad

B. a McDonald's meal

C. a pain killer

D. nothing

122. According to the passage, all of the following are the results of the experiment EXCEPT ____. A. Spurlock put on weight

B. the experiment affected his heart

C. the experiment affected his liver

D. he became fairly relaxed and energetic

123. The word “its” in paragraph 4 refers to ____. A. McDonald's B. the experiment

C. the film Super Size Me

D. the menu

Exercise 10. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. In 2002, several obese teenagers in the USA sued McDonald's, claiming that the company was responsible for making them fat. They argued that McDonald's deliberately misled them into thinking that their cheeseburgers and other products were healthy and nutritious food. They claimed that the company had not warned them about the health problems that can result from eating too much salty, high-fat food and drinking too many sugary drinks: diabetes, high blood pressure and obesity. The mother of one of the children, who at the age of

15 weighed more than 180 kilograms, said in her statement: ‘I always believed McDonald's was healthy for my son.' McDonald's rejected the claim that they were responsible for these teenagers’ health problems. ‘People don't go to sleep thin and wake up obese,' said McDonald's lawyer, Brad Lerman. 'The understanding of what hamburgers and French fries do has been with us for a long, long time,’ he added. The judge agreed, and dismissed the case, saying: 'it is not the place of the law to protect people against their own excesses.' In other words, if people choose to eat a lot of unhealthy food, they can't blame the company that sold it to them. Other similar lawsuits against fast food companies in the USA have also failed. In 2005, the US House of Representatives passed a bill which became known as the 'Cheeseburger Bill'. It made it much harder for obese people to take legal action against the food industry. However, the bill has not ended the arguments about responsibility. There is some scientific evidence to suggest that fast food is addictive, and harmful too. So is selling fast food the same, in a way, as drug-dealing? 124. Which of the following is the best title for the passage? A. Obesity - who is to blame?

B. Is fast food addictive?

C. Is fast food really healthy?

D. How to get rid of fast food?

125. According to the obese teenagers in the USA who sued McDonald’s, which of the following health problems was NOT mentioned? A. diabetes

B. hypertension

C. obesity

D. heart disease

126. In paragraph 2, the word “rejected” is closest in meaning to ____. A. accepted

B. denied

C. ignored

D. agreed

127. In paragraph 2, the word “it” refers to ____. A. law

B. healthy food

C. unhealthy food

D. bill

128. What happens if people choose to eat a lot of unhealthy food? A. The company will be responsible for their health problems. B. They may get financial support from the company. C. They will surely succeed in lawsuits. D. They can't force the company to be responsible for them. 129. In paragraph 3, the word “failed” is closest in meaning to ____. A. not famous

B. not important

C. not successful

D. not proud

130. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about fast food? A. salty and high-fat

B. addictive

C. nutritious

D. harmful

Part VI. WRITING Exercise 11. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 131. ‘I'll buy you a new bicycle if you stop eating junk food,' said Lam's mother. A. Lam's mother promised to buy him a new bicycle if he stopped eating junk food. B. Lam's mother promises to buy him a new bicycle if he stops eating junk food. C. Lam's mother will promise to buy him a new bicycle if he stops eating junk food. D. Lam's mother had promised to buy him a new bicycle if he stopped eating junk food.

132. 'You will boost your immune system if you exercise regularly,' said Tam. A. Tam says that we'll boost our immune system if we exercised regularly. B. Tam said that we'd boost our immune system if we exercised regularly. C. Tam said that we'll boost our immune system if we exercised regularly. D. Tam said that we boost our immune system if we exercised regularly. 133. 'Mai will recover quickly if she follows the doctor's advice, said Mai's father. A. Mai's father said she would recover quickly if she follows the doctorâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s advice. B. Mai's father said she will recover quickly if she followed the doctor's advice. C. Mai's father said she would recover quickly if she followed the doctor's advice. D. Mai's father says she would recover quickly if she followed the doctor's advice. 134. 'You should exercise more in order to keep fit,' said Anna. A. Anna urged us to exercise more to keep fit. B. Anna demanded us to exercise more to keep fit. C. Anna forced us to exercise more to keep fit. D. Anna advised us to exercise more to keep fit. 135. â&#x20AC;&#x2DC;You should eat lots of fruit so as not to get colds all the time,' said my doctor. A. My doctor advised me to eat lots of fruit so as not to get colds all the time. B. My doctor advised me not to eat lots of fruit so as to get colds all the time. C. My doctor forced me to eat lots of fruit so as not to get colds all the time. D. My doctor demanded me to eat lots of fruit so as not to get colds all the time. Exercise 12. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 136. I thought I should ask the doctor about going on a diet. I went to the surgery. A. Having been on a diet, I went to the surgery. B. I went to the surgery, so I asked the doctor about going on a diet. C. I asked the doctor about going on a diet, so I went to the surgery. D. I went to the surgery in order to ask about going on a diet. 137. I had to lose some weight. I went on a strict diet. A. I had to lose some weight after I went on a strict diet. B. I went on a strict diet in order to lose some weight. C. I had to lose some weight before I went on a strict diet. D. I had to lose some weight even when I went on a strict diet. 138. People want to keep fit. Many people take up sports. A. Many people take up sports so as to keep fit. B. Many people want to keep fit so as to take up sports. C. Many people want to keep fit in order to take up sports. D. Although people want to keep fit, they take up sports. 139. I want to stay healthy. I try to eat lots of fruit. A. Although I try to eat lots of fruit, I stay healthy.

B. I stay healthy though I eat lots of fruit. C. I try to eat lots of fruit in order to stay healthy. D. I eat lots of fruit, but I stay healthy. 140. I didn't want to catch a cold. I wore a warm coat and a scarf. A. I wore a warm coat and a scarf though I didn't want to catch a cold. B. I wore a warm coat and a scarf, so I didn't want to catch a cold. C. I wore a warm coat and a scarf, but I didn't want to catch a cold. D. I wore a warm coat and a scarf in order not to catch a cold.

Unit 1. LIFE STORIES Part I. PHONETICS Exercise 1. Mark the letter A. B. C or D to indicate the word or phrase which does not contain the same sound as the other three. 1. A. aid

B. aide

C. add

D. ade

2. A. aisle

B. all

C. isle

D. I'll

3. A. they're

B. their

C. there

D. the

4. A. bus

B. by

C. bye

D. buy

5. A. carrot

B. carat

C. carries

D. caret

6. A. sense

B. sent

C. scents

D. cents

7. A. does

B. doze

C. doughs

D. dust

8. A. form

B. four

C. fore

D. for

9. A. praise

B. prays

C. prize

D. preys

10. A. cite

B. site

C. sink

D. sight

Part II. VOCABULARY Exercise 2. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 11. Martin Luther King devoted his life to the ____ of voting right for black people. A. effort

B. realization

C. achievement

D. performance

12. His father used to be a ____ professor at the university. Many students worshipped him.. A. distinct

B. distinctive

C. distinguishing

D. distinguished

13. Mark Zuckerberg's enormous success has taken a lot of hardwork and ____. A. indifference

B. dedication

C. loyalty

D. reputation

14. I can't believe she didn't do anything for the company. I will ____ and be in charge. A. take over

B. take on

C. take up

D. take in

15. During the Medieval period, people were made public ____ of being witches. A. complaint

B. criminal

C. trouble

D. accusation

16. That disable boy's victory in the race set the ____ example to all students in the school. A. finest

B. first-class

C. rarest

D. most convenient

17. A ____ once said â&#x20AC;&#x153;It is a sweet and honourable thing to die for your country.â&#x20AC;? A. patriotism

B. patriotic

C. patriot

D. patrol

18. He is ____-influenced by his father and grandfather. His behaviors and decisions are exactly the same. A. mightily

B. strongly

C. terribly

D. weakly

19. IPhone 7 is the latest ____ in the field of smartphone design of Apple. A. creator

B. create

C. creativity

D. creation

C. a

D. has

20. Einstein ____ a great impact on modern physics. A. feels

B. does

21. It is the underserved ____ that damaged his life and his family. A. reputable

B. repute

C. reputation

D. disrepute

22. At the age of 50, Robby William ____ his career after spending his twenty years playing electric guitar. A. moved

B. changed

C. adjusted

D. stopped

23. She has a wonderful voice but unfortunately, she never gets the ____ to sing in public. A. event

B. occasion

C. ability

D. chance

24. Michael Hart was the ____ of Project Gutenberg, one of the longest-lasting online library projects. A. founder

B. author

C. architect

D. father

25. She is not a very nice girl. She seems to enjoy the ____ of others. A. unfortune

B. misfortune

C. disfortune

D. infortune

26. We ____ the kittens carefully and sold them for a good profit. A. brought up

B. grew up

C . rose

D. aroused

27. The stores will inevitably end up ____ with each other to increase their market shares. A. contesting

B. contending

C. competing

D. completing

28. Bill Gates has made large donations to numerous ____ organizations. A. charitable

B. charitably

C. charity

D. charities

29. Thanks to the help of the teacher, she is _____ encouraging progress in math. A. doing

B. making

C. checking

D. stopping

30. The ____ of the soil reduced the productivity of the farm. A. fertility

B. hardship

C. poverty

D. inadequacy

Exercise 3. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 31. The speaker paused. He hesitated to answer the direct question raised by the audience. A. decided

B. continued

C. determined

D. wavered

32. Her courage not only inspired her followers but moved her rivals as well. A. depressed

B. motivated

C. overlooked

D. rejected

33. The government's plans to cut taxes really stimulated the economy. A. discouraged

B. started

C. weakened

D. improved

34. Chauvet Jeans was a well-known nineteen century painter whose paintings are extraordinarily sophisticated. A. old-fashioned

B. basic

C. primitive

D. complex

35. Some rock stars started off as rebels with strong and broad principles. A. beliefs

B. honour

C. formulas

D. law

36. I used to idolize David Beckham because of his dedication and talent. A. hate

B. impress

C. worship

D. detest

37. Linda is very outgoing, however, her brother is quite reserved. A. open

B. sociable

C. easygoing

D. shy

38. Ideally, I'd like to work at home but there is no way my boss agrees with that. A. Generally

B. Luckily

C. Preferably

D. Fortunately

39. Morgan Freeman began to land big roles and won critical and popular acclaim after years of small parts and limited success.

A. arrive

B. gain

C. deliver

D. Cause

40. Recognizable smaller than most of the kids in his age group, Lionel Messi was diagnosed by doctors as suffering from a hormone deficiency that restricted his growth. A. inadequacy

B. sufficiency

C. abundance

D. strength

Exercise 4. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 41. During the Great Depression, many people suddenly found themselves jobless after a night. A. unemployed

B. redundant

C. unoccupied

D. supplementary

42. I was relieved by the news that they had gone home safe and sound. A. comforted

B. concerned

C. relaxed

D. lightened

43. She comes from an admirable and respectable family. A. good

B. respected

C. unworthy

D. dignified

44. They are going to have to amputate his left leg which was badly injured in the accident. A. remove

B. separate

C. cut off

D. mend

45. Her identity will never be revealed in order to protect her children from being judged. A. uncovered

B. proclaimed

C. leaked

D. hid

46. There are several interesting things emerging from the report. A. fading

B. rising

C. coming up

D. developing

47. This boy is poorly-educated and doesn't know how to behave properly. A. uneducated

B. knowledgeable

C. ignorant

D. rude

48. I prefer reading fictional stories to hearing about real events. A. imaginary

B. unreal

C. existent

D. legendary

49. It is not fair to give such a challenging task to an inexperienced staff like her. A. comprehensible

B. difficult

C. provocative

D. intriguing

50. White blood cells help defend the body against infection. A. fight

B. cover

C. protect

D. abandon

Part III. GRAMMAR Exercise 5. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 51. We ____ to the hospital to visit Mike when he ____ to say that he was fine. A. were driving - was calling

B. drove - called

C. were driving – called

D. drove - was calling

52. What ____ to you on Sunday night? A. happen

B. happened

C. was happening

D. would happen

53. Last night, we ____ for you for ages but you never ____ up. A. waited – showed

B. would wait - showed

C. were waiting - were showing

D. waited – was showing

54. We ____ our quality time when the unexpected guess ____. A. had – came

B. were having - came

C. had been having – came

D. have had – would have come

55. Since they ____ us they ____ to visit us last Sunday, we ____ forward to the day. A. were telling - came - looked

B . would tell – would visit - would look

C. told – would come - were looking

D. tell - are coming - will look

56. I ____ out last night but at the last minute I ____ that I had a quiz this morning. A. was going to go – realized

B. went – realized

C. had gone – would realize

D. would go - have realized

57. She hasn't paid as much attention to her children as she ____ since she ____ working. A. does – starts

B. did - started

C. was doing - was starting

D. has done - would start

58. My brother ____ at the road when he ____ into a hole. A. wasn't looking - was falling

B. didn't look - has fallen

C. wasn't looking – fell

D. won't look - fall

59. Magellan ____ the first European who ____ through the strait. A. was - was sailing

B. was being - was sailing

C. had been – sailed

D. was - sailed

60. The first self-sufficient village in Britain ____ the Norman's idea. They were some strange invaders who ____ to change the country in a better way. A. was – hoped

B. is - have hoped

C. have been - were hoping

D. was being - had hoped

61. Who is ____ girl over there with Jimmy? A. the

B. a

C. an

D. Ø

62. The boss needs an assistant with ____ good knowledge of foreign trade. A. a

B. the

C. any

D. Ø

63. We are having ____ terrible weather which is quite strange. Usually ____ weather in UK is not this bad. A. the – the

B. a – the

C. Ø - the

D. the - a

64. Could you please close ____ window? I don't think it is necessary to open all the four. A. a

B. the

C. some

D. Ø

65. ____ Gordons is a very interesting family. They like to travel around ____ world. A. A – the

B . The - the

C. A – a

D. A-Ø

66. To absorb more oil from spring rolls, we can use materials like ____ newspaper to wrap them after frying. A. the

B. any

C. Ø

D. a

67. After a hard-working day, I went to ____ bed and had ____ most beautiful dream ever. A. the - the

B. a – the

C. a – a

D. Ø - the

68. I have visited ____ Portugal but I have never been to ____ Netherlands. A. the – the

B . Ø - the

C. a – the

D. a - a

69. Every week, his mother goes to ____ university to visit him while my mother has never come to visit me since I went to ____ university.

A. the - Ø

B. the - the

C. Ø - Ø

D. a - the

70. He left on ____10 o'clock train yesterday to see his father who was taken to ____ hospital last week when he broke ____ right leg. A. the - the - the

B. the - a - a

C. a - a - the

D. the - Ø - Ø

Exercise 6. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 71. Last month, while my friend was traveling round England by the car, he crashed the car into a tree. A

72. She was walking to the library to borrow some books when she was seeing a robbery. A

73. He can speak French very well and is studying Latin. A

74. Please turn off television. I also like watching TV but now I am having to study for the exam. A

75. The researchers of Harvard University reported that the tigers are one of the most dangerous species in the A

jungle. 76. I think a good health is important, and so is education while money, to some extent, is not. A

77. He was reading out the data while Sara wrote it down carefully. A

78. He would live in the countryside but now he is living in a big city. A

79. Many people used to think learning English is full of the difficulties. A

80. The biggest problem with eating too much sugar is that it can cause the diabetes. A

81. The most people need healthy eating and enough exercise every day. A

82. The doctor said that she was making a relatively slow progress because she was quite old. A

83. Now J. K. Rowling is a multi-millionaire, but she was not born into the fame and fortune. A

84. Last night, suddenly my mother was deciding to ban me from using the Internet so we ended up having a A

huge row. 85. It was the day like any other and Martin was doing his normal round as a safeguard. A

86. In contrast to my brother is hardworking, I am quite a lazy boy. A

87. I went into the city center today because I need to get my phone repaired. A

88. It was so short-sighted for Mai to leave school. A B

89. The moment I was seeing him, I realized I had met him somewhere before. A

90. I was having a black cat three years ago but now it is no longer with me. A

Part IV. SPEAKING Exercise 7. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges. 91. Have you decided who to talk about? A. I see. I will talk to him.

B. Let's talk about your study.

C. I need to talk to you now.

D. Not yet. I am still considering.

92. What do you think about Steve Jobs? A. That's right!

B. I doubt it. It is not true.

C. Well, he is talented.

D. I agree with you about him.

93. Good luck to you in your exam! A. Thank you! Same to you.

B. Yeah. That's the one.

C. Well, I'll see.

D. Don't worry! I'll be fine.

94. What a wonderful party! A. I am fine. Thank you!

B. I don't know. Let me check.

C. I am happy you like it.

D. Same to you. Thanks!

95. What's new with you? A. Me too.

B. Nothing much.

C. See you later

D. Help yourself.

96. Hello. May I speak to Fred, please? A. Thanks, I'd love to.

B. Good. I'll call you.

C. Just a minute.

D. Fine, I'll be ready

97. What are you doing? A. I see. I will tell Tom about it.

B. I am seeing Tom. Do you have anything to tell him?

C. I am reading the note Tom left to me.

D. I am doing fine.

98. I am so happy. I have just passed my history exam. A. Congratulations!

B. What's the matter?

C. Get well soon!

D. Thanks a lot

99. Would you mind moving your suitcase? A. Yes, please!

B. No, not at all.

C. Of course!

D. Oh, I am sorry to hear.

100. Do you know anything about Mrs. Jackson? A. Yes, that's the way it is.

B. Oh, I know how you feel. C. No, nothing.

101. Would you like some cookies? I have just baked them.

D. Excuse me.

A. Thank you. Yes, I would.

B. Take it easy.

C. Yes, I think so.

D. Here you are.

102. Shall we talk about Larry or Oprah? A. Never mind. There is always something to do.

B. We'd better talk about them both.

C. Wow! They are adorable.

D. Oh, I see what you mean.

103. What kind of books do you like? A. No, I don't have any hobbies.

B. Nothing special.

C. Novels. I believe.

D. I believe novels are boring.

104. I think it is the best movie I have ever seen. A. Me neither.

B. Me too.

C. Not me.

D. Same to you.

105. Did you watch The Voice last night? A. For a while, then I had to study.

B. Not now. I am studying.

C. Yes, sir.

D. Yes, please.

Part V. READING Exercise 8. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. Nowadays, everybody knows Apples and (106) ____ everybody knows that the company was founded by Steve Jobs, an American inventor and entrepreneur. He is (107) ____ recognized as a pioneer in the field of microcomputer revolution. He helped design the first Macintosh computer, (108) ____ a small computer graphics company into Pixar, the company behind Toy Story and The Monster Inc. His countercultural lifestyle and philosophy was a product of the time and place of his (109) ____. Jobs was adopted and raised in San Francisco Bay Area during the 1960s. In 1972, Jobs attended Reed College from which he (110) ____ in next to no time. Jobs co-founded Apple in 1976 in order to sell Apple I personal computer. At that moment, he might (111) ____ imagine that only a year later the company tasted impressive victory with Apple II, one of the first highly successful (112) ____ personal computers. (113) ____, in 1985, following a long power struggle, Jobs was forced out of Apple. After leaving Apple, Jobs took (114) ____ of its members with him to found NeXT, a computer development company which was then bought by Apple. The purchase (115) ____ Jobs to become the company's CEO once again. Steve Jobs died in 2011 after battling with pancreatic cancer (116) ____ nearly a decade. Millions first learned of Job's death on a (117) ____ which had been invented by himself. 106. A. most

B. almost

C. the most

D. mostly

107. A. widely

B. hardly

C. legally

D. nationally

108. A. translated

B. transferred

C. transformed

D. transited

109. A. increase

B. upbringing

C. rising

D. grow

110. A. dropped in

B. dropped up

C. dropped out

D. dropped by

111. A. hardly

B. truly

C. effortlessly

D. frequently

112. A. massly-produced

B. mass-produced

C. massive-produced

D. mass-producing

113. A. Generally

B. Frankly

C. Fortunately

D. Unfortunately

114. A. few

B. a few

C. a little

D. little

115. A. was allowing

B. has allowed

C. allowed

D. had allowed

116. A. for

B. since

C. during

D. of

117. A. devil

B. deviation

C. deviant

D. device

Exercise 9. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Born on June 30, 1985 in Baltimore, Maryland, to Fred and Debbie Phelps, the youngest of three children, Michael Phelps and his sisters grew up in the neighbourhood of Rodger Forge. His father, Fred, a former all-rounded athlete, was a state trooper and his mother Debbie was a middle-school principal. When Phelps's parents divorced in 1994, he and his siblings lived with their mother, with whom Michael grew very close. Even at the age of 7, Phelps was still a little scared to put his head under water, so his instructors allowed him to float around on his back. Not surprisingly, despite the fact that later he is very good at butterfly swimming, the first stroke he mastered was not the easily-practised breaststroke but the backstroke. At the age of 15, Phelps became the youngest American male swimmer to compete at an Olympic Games in 68 years. While he didn't win any medals at the 2000 Summer Olympics in Sydney, Australia, he would soon become a major force in competitive swimming. In the spring of 2001, Phelps set the world record in the 200-meter butterfly, becoming the youngest male swimmer in history at the age of 15 years and 9 months. At the 2001 World Championships in Japan, he then broke his own record with a time of 1:54:58, earning his first international medal. In 2002, Phelps continued to establish several records including the 100-meter butterfly and the 200-meter individual medley. The following year, at the same event, he broke his own world record in the 400meter individual medley with a time of 4:09.09. After the London Olympics in 2012, Phelps announced he was retiring from his sport. However, at the 2016 Olympic Games, he came out of retirement and returned to professional competition. This was also the event which he won one silver and five gold medals, becoming the oldest individual gold medalist in Olympic swimming history, as well as the first swimmer to win four consecutive golds in the same event, the 200-meter individual medley. 118. Phelps's father used to be a comprehensive ____. A. principal

B. trooper

C. athlete

D. instructor

119. The first style of swimming Phelps was good at is ____. A. butterfly

B. freestyle

C. breaststroke

D. backstroke

120. He didn't win any medals at the Olympics of ____ A. 2002

B. 2000

C. 2012

D. 2016

121. At the 2001 World Championships in Japan, he broke the record of ____. A. 200-meter butterfly

B. 100-meter butterfly

C. 200-meter individual

D. 400-meter individual

122. The word consecutive in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ____.

A. stoppable

B. unending

C. uninterrupted

D. unrestricted

Exercise 10. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Theresa May, the second female Britain's prime minister following Margaret Thatcher, revealed in 2013 that she had been given a diagnosis of Type 1 diabetes, a condition that requires daily insulin injections. Asked later how she felt about the diagnosis, she said her approach to it was the same as toward everything in her life: â&#x20AC;&#x153;Just get on and deal with it.â&#x20AC;? That kind of steeliness brought her to center stage in the aftermath of Britain's vote to leave the European Union and the feuding that erupted in the Conservative Party over who would succeed David Cameron. Ms. May, 59 years old, is the country's longest-serving home secretary in half a century, with a reputation for seriousness, hardwork and above all, determination. She is one of a growing number of women in traditionally male-dominated British politics rising to the upper position of leadership. Born in 1956, Ms. May grew up mainly in Oxfordshire, an only child who was first drawn to the Conservative Party at age 12. As a conscientious student, she never rebelled against her religious upbringing and remains a regular churchgoer. Tellingly, her sports hero was Geoffrey Boycott, a solid, stubborn cricketer who specialized in playing the long game. Like many other Britain's prime minister including Tony Blair, Sir Robert Peel and Margaret Thatcher, she won a place at Oxford. But while almost every other political leader got there by way of Eton College and joined Oxford's hedonistic Bullingdon Club, she attended a state secondary school and had a more sedate university career. After unsuccessful attempts to be elected to the House of Commons in 1992 and 1994, she finally became an MP in 1997 general election. May is known for a love of fashion and in particular distinctive shoes. She even wore leopard-print shoes to her final Cabinet meeting as Home Secretary in early 2016. However, she has been quite critical of the media focusing on her fashion instead of her achievement as a politician. May also describes cooking and walking as primary hobbies, and if someone is raising questions about why walking can be classified as a hobby, she elaborates in a column for Balance magazine, in which she wrote of her battle with diabetes. 123. According to the passage, who is the prime minister coming before Theresa May? A. Tony Blair

B. Margaret Thatcher

C. Sir Robert Peel

D. David Cameron

124. The most prominent characteristic of Theresa May is ____. A. stubbornness

B. seriousness

C. determination

D. hard work

125. Which of the following statements is NOT true? A. British political life is conventionally controlled mainly by men. B. The number of women in politics is increasing. C. Conservative Party didn't have to discuss about who would be the next prime minister. D. Theresa May's toughness was one of the reasons for the Party to choose her for the prime minister position. 126. Which of the following facts is TRUE about Theresa May?

A. She graduated from Eton College. B. As a child, she was quite rebellious. C. She didn't work part time as a university student. D. She used not to be a home secretary. 127. She first became a member of parliament in ____. A. 1992

B. 1994

C. 1997

D. 2013

128. Her reason to consider walking as one of her main hobbies is ____. A. she is quite critical

B. it helps her fight diabetes

C. someone asks about it

D. it is written on Balance magazine

129. The word approach in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ____. A. means

B. advance

C. technique

D. trick

130. The word hedonistic in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ____. A. ordinary

B. luxurious

C. economical

D. simple

Part VI. WRITING Exercise 11. Mark the letter A. B. C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 131. Connor is said to be very ambitious and aggressive. A. People regard Connor as an ambitious and aggressive person. B. People talk Connor as an ambitious and aggressive person. C. People believe in Conor as an ambitious and aggressive person. D. People feel Conor as an ambitious and aggressive person. 132. You can always count on me. A. I'll never take you down.

B. I'll never let you down.

C. I'll never hold you down.

D. I'll never make you down.

133. Nobody in my class is as outgoing as I am. A. I am as outgoing as nobody in my class. B. I am the more outgoing than nobody in my class. C. I am the most outgoing person in my class. D. I am not as outgoing as people in my class. 134. It is pointless to ask me about it because I know nothing. A. It's no use asking me about it because I know nothing. B. It's no use to ask me about it because I know nothing. C. It's not use asking me about it because I know nothing. D. It's not use to ask me about it because I know nothing. 135. I have accustomed myself to getting up very early. A. I have used to getting up very early.

B. I have been used to getting up very early.

C. I have put getting up very early to good use.

D. I have made use of getting up very early.

136. I think we should change the topic of our presentation.

A. It's high time that we change the topic of our presentation. B. I'd rather our presentation change the topic. C. It's high time that we changed the topic of our presentation. D. I suggest we to change the topic of our presentation. 137. When I was young, I wasn't allowed to watch much TV. A. When I was young, my parents did not make me watch much TV. B. When I was young, my parents did not let me watch much TV. C. When I was young, my parents did not ask me to watch much TV. D. When I was young, my parents did not take me to watch much TV. 138. I only glimpsed her briefly, but I am sure it was Mary. A. Mary only had a brief glimpse, but I am sure. B. I only had a brief glimpse of her, but I am sure it was Mary. C. I only glimpsed briefly but I am sure it was Mary. D. Mary only glimpsed me briefly but I am sure it was her. Exercise 12. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 139. A car hit the fence of my garden. I was cleaning the swimming pool. A. While a car hit the fence I was cleaning the swimming pool. B. A car hit the fence and I was cleaning the swimming pool. C. I was cleaning the swimming pool when a car hit the fence. D. I was cleaning the swimming pool then a car hit the fence. 140. My daughter asks for money every day. I am really annoyed by it. A. I am really annoyed by my daughter asks for money every day. B. My daughter is asking for money every day. C. I am really annoyed by it, my daughter asks for money every day. D. My daughter is always asking for money every day. 141. She looked up. She saw a big tiger approaching. A. Looking up, a big tiger approached her. B. Looked up, she saw a big tiger approaching. C. Looking up, she saw a big tiger approaching. D. Look up, she saw a big tiger approaching. 142. I have presented about Oprah Winfrey. I hope the story would inspire you all. A. I have presented about Oprah Winfrey to hope the story would inspire you all. B. I have presented about Oprah Winfrey hoping the story would inspire you all. C. I have presented about Oprah Winfrey hope for the story would inspire you all. D. I have presented about Oprah Winfrey hoped the story would inspire you all. 143. Harry's life is rather dull. That's the reason why I don't want to talk about him. A. The reason why I don't want to talk about Harry is that his life is quite dull.

B. Harry's life is rather dull because I don't want to talk about it. C. What I don't like to talk about is Harry's dull life. D. Reasonably, I don't want to talk about Harry's rather dull life. 144. She got so tired of waiting for him. She just got married to another man. A. She got so tired of waiting for him that at the end she got married to another man. B. She got so tired of waiting for him while she got married to another man. C. She got so tired of waiting for him afterwards she got married to another man. D. She got so tired of waiting for him as a result she got married to another man. 145. Why do you take an umbrella? It is not even raining. A. You need not to take an umbrella because it is not even raining. B. You must not take an umbrella because it is not even raining. C. You need not take an umbrella because it is not even raining. D. You cannot take an umbrella because it is not even raining.

Unit 2. URBANISATION Part I. PHONETICS Exercise 1. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 1. A. none

B. phone

C. stone

D. zone

2. A. life

B. like

C. live

D. lively

3. A. beard

B. hear

C. rear

D. swear

4. A. ancient

B. educate

C. stranger

D. transfer

5. A. account

B. astound

C. country

D. mounting

Exercise 2. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. 6. A. emigrate

B. immigrate

C. advocate

D. inhabit

7. A. confide

B. comfort

C. inflate

D. severe

8. A. biology

B. environment

C. geography

D. scientific

9. A. estimate

B. prestigious

C. proportion

D. urbanity

10. A. drawback

B. greenhouse

C. mindset

D. overload

Part II. VOCABULARY Exercise 3. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 11. She's a down-to-earth woman with no pretensions. A. ambitious

B. creative

C. idealistic

D. practical

12. It is crucial that urban people not look down on rural areas. A. evil

B. optional

C. unnecessary

D. vital

13. Polish artist Pawel Kuzinsky creates satirical paintings filled with thought-provoking messages about the world. A. inspirational

B. provocative

C . stimulating

D. universal

14. She was brought up in the slums of Leeds. A. downtown area

B. industrial area

C. poor area

D. rural area

15. The Freephone 24 Hour National Domestic Violence Helpline is a national service for women experiencing domestic violence, their family, friends, colleagues and others calling on their behalf. A. in the same country

B. in the same family

C. in the same office

D. in the same school

16. The promise of jobs and prosperity pulls people to cities. A. education

B. employment

C. stabilization

D. wealth

17. With so many daily design resources, how do you stay up-to-date with technology without spending too much time on it? A. connect to Internet all day

B. update new status

C. get latest information

D. use social network daily

18. Online Business School also offers interest free student loans to UK students. A. no extra fee

B. no limited time

C. no repayment

D. no interest payments

19. Many illnesses in refugee camps are the result of inadequate sanitation. A. cleanliness

B. dirtiness

C. pollution

D. uncleanliness

20. There has been a hot debate among the scientists relating to the pros and cons of using robotic probes to study distant objects in space. A. problems and solutions

B. advantages and disadvantages

C. solutions and limitations

D. causes and effects

21. Her style of dress was conservative. She never wears items that are too tight, short or low-cut. A. high-fashion

B. traditional

C. trendy

D. up to date

22. Many of the immigrants have intermarried with the island's original inhabitants. A. foreigners

B. landlord

C. newcomer

D. dwellers

Exercise 4. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 23. This restaurant was highly recommended for good service, delicious food and kind-hearted boss. A. ambitious and greedy

B. attentive and helpful

C. generous and gracious

D. polite and friendly

24. Since 1979, ULI has honored outstanding development projects in the private, public, and nonprofit sectors with the ULI Global Awards for Excellence program, which today is widely recognized as the development community's most prestigious awards program. A. important

B. notable

C. ordinary

D. respected

25. Many people move to urban areas seeking for job opportunity as well as stable employment. A. durable

B. long-lasting

C. steady

D. temporary

26. In cities, two of the most pressing problems facing the world today also come together: poverty and environmental degradation. A. destruction

B. poisoning

C. pollution

D. progression

27. Unemployment is a massive problem for the government at the moment. A. main

B. major

C. minor

D. primary

28. A cost-effective way to fight crime is that instead of making punishments more severe, the authorities should increase the odds that lawbreakers will be apprehended and punished quickly. A. economical

B. practical

C. profitable

D. worthless

29. I propose that we wait until the budget has been announced before committing ourselves to any expenditure. A. approve

B. recommend

C. reject

D. suggest

30. Until 1986 most companies would not even allow women to take the exams, but such gender discrimination is now disappearing. A. unfairness

B. injustice

C. partiality

D. equality

31. The best hope of' avoiding downmarket tabloid TV future lies in the pressure currently being put on the networks to clean up their act.

A. expensive

B. famous

C. poor quality

D. uncreative

32. Without economie security and amid poor living conditions, crime is inevitable. A. assured

B. compulsory

C. inescapable

D. preventable

33. Increases in motor vehicle usage have resulted in congestion on the roads. A. blockage

B. obstruction

C. opening

D. overcrowding

34. Urbanization is the shift of people from rural to urban areas, and the result is the growth of cities. A. maintenance

B. movement

C. transposition

D. variation

Exercise 5. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 35. Urban development ean magnify the risk of environmental hazards for example flash flooding. A

36. Even if rural areas are winning or losing from increased trade, however, remains uncertain. A

37. Strong city planning will be essential in managing those and others difficulties as the world's urban areas A

well. 38. Because of urbanization continues, not only the infrastructure for health but also other social services in A

cities need improving, D 39. Government should be used national resources in a more efficient way in order to meet the needs of A

growing populations. 40. What problems could it cause and how citizens should prevent these challenges will be covered in my A

essay. 41. Overpopulation is an undesirable condition where the number of existing human population exceeding the A

carrying capacity of Earth. D 42. The loan is interest-free, which means that you will only pay the fee listing on our website, with no extra A

payment in the form of interest. D 43. Food prices have raised so rapidly in the past few months that some families have been forced to alter their A eating habits.

44. Because of severe asthma attacks, the doctor suggested his patient to stop smoking. A

45. Improving the status of women through increasing access to reproductive health care affecting migration A

and urbanization trends. 46. Poor air and water quality, insufficient water available, and high energy consumption are exacerbated by A

demands of urban environments. D 47. Starting with, the foremost problem engendered by overpopulation is traffic congestion. A

48. Between the time of the plague and the 21st century, there were hundreds and thousands of wars, natural A

calamities and hazards man-made. D 49. It is argued that high costs of living and rising transport difficulties being two of the most serious problems A

brought about by overpopulation in cities. D 50. Overpopulation and negative effect of it has been major concerns in cities all around the globe. A

Part III. GRAMMAR Exercise 6. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 51. It is necessary that you ____ able to come with us. A. are

B. be

C. being

D. to be

52. I suggest that Peter ____ the directions carefully before assembling the bicycle. A. read

B. reading

C. reads

D. to read

53. We request that she ____ the window. A. not open

B. not to open

C. not opening

D. to not open

54. The UK is considering the proposal that it ____ compensations for damages of the Indian embassy. A. been paying

B. is paying

C. paid

D. pay

C. going

D. will go

55. Howard prefers that I ____ to his party. A. am going

B. go

56. Mary demanded that the heater____ immediately. Her apartment was freezing. A. repaired

B. be repaired

C. being repaired

D. been repaired

57. The monk insisted that the tourists ____ the temple until they had removed their shoes. A. not enter

B. not entering

C. not to enter

58. The recommendation that she ____ a holiday was carried out.

D. to not enter

A. has taken

B. take

C. taken

D. taking

59. Was it really necessary that I ____ there watching you the entire time you were rehearsing for the play? It was really boring watching you repeat the scenes over and over again. A. am sitting

B. be sitting

C. being sitting

D. sitting

60. I propose that we all ____ together so that nobody gets lost along the way. A. be driving

B. drive

C. driven

D. driving

61. It is impolite that you ____ there when he gets off the plane. A. be not standing

B. been not standing

C. not be standing

D. not been standing

62. It is recommended that the vehicle owner ____ present at the court. A. be

B. be not

ะก . not being

D. not to be

63. Congress has decreed that the gasoline tax ____. A. abolish

B. abolished

C. be abolished

D. been abolished

64. The doctor recommended that she ____ a specialist about the problem. A. be seen

B. seeing

C. should be seen

D. should see

C. should be told

D. should been told

65. It is essential that she ____ the truth. A. told

B. should be tell

66. It has been proposed that we ____ the topic. A. not change

B. not to change

C. to change

D. to not change

67. They hope to ____ a cure for the disease. A. catch up on

B. come up with

C. fill up with

D. go out with

68. Don't worry, we'll try to ____ the problems and find a solution for everyone. A. carry on

B. make up

C. sort out

D. switch off

69. Tony was totally opposed but if you give him some time to think about what you said. I'm sure he will ____ to your point of view. A. come round

B. deal with

C. fit out

D. keep down

70. The rapid rise in the global population is not expected to start ____ until past the middle of this century, by which time it will have reached 9 billion. A. falling off

B. knocking down

C. looking over

D. passing out

71. In order to apply for a credit card, Tom first has to ____ a four-page form at the bank. A. catch on

B. come up with

C. fill in

D. hand out

72. The teacher explained so much stuff in just one lesson that most of the students could ____ only half of it. A. break up

B. get through

C. let out

D. take in

73. The map of top ten most densely ____ countries in the world includes Monaco, Singapore, Bahrain, Malta and Bangladesh. A. populated

B. populating

C. population

D. popular

74. Interactive games could be used in order to keep students ____. A. engage

B. engaged

C. engagement

75. We could mention some solution and government ____ in the conclusion.

D. engaging

A. initiates

B. initiatives

C. initiations

D. initiators

76. Women who ____ due to marriage are not considered to be ____. A. migrate â&#x20AC;&#x201C; migrants

B. migrate â&#x20AC;&#x201C; migrators

C. migrant â&#x20AC;&#x201C; migrators

D. migrant - migrations

77. Each child had to ____ a short speech to the rest of the class. A. do

B. carry out

C . make

D. take

78. Although it was more than an hour late, the superstar finally showed up and ____ the attention of the audience. A. grabbed

B. held

C. paid

D. took

79. Has the interviewer ____ the date? Yes, it's on next Monday. A. amend

B. fixed

C. moved

D. revised

80. Don't worry. We're in good time; there's ____ to hurry. A. impossible

B. no need

C. no purpose

D. unnecessary

81. Overpopulation in urban areas tends to create unfavourable conditions, which may result in ____ of food in developing countries. A. damages

B. failures

C. shortages

D. supplies

82. He wasn't able to ____ with the stresses and strains of the job. A. catch up

B. come down

C. cope

D. handle

83. Urbanization can bring social health and benefit; ____, it also has its drawbacks. A. by the way

B . furthermore

C. however

D. moreover

84. During the lesson, if you have questions or comments, please feel free to ____ them. A. enlarge

B. increase

C. go up

D. raise

85. We have to come to the conclusion. We are ____ out of time. A. driving

B. going

C. running

D. walking

86. Thanks to the development in technology, students have ____ to good resources. A. been accessed

B. access

C. accessing

D. assessed

87. The rate of urbanization is low ____ the rate of urban growth is high. A. but

B. however

C. so

D. therefore

88. The level of urban unemployment and numbers of ____ are high. A. joblessness

B. the jobless

C. the joblessness

D. the jobs

89. A high increase in crime rates is ____ by the majority of the people in urban cities. A. affected

B. gone through

C. influenced

D. suffered

90. Anna organized a few games to ____ the ice when the new students first arrived. A. break

B. crack

C. drill

D. melt

Part IV. SPEAKING Exercise 7. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges. 91-99: Three friends Mark, Anna and Jenny are talking about their up-coming English presentation on urbanization.

91. Mark: "How do you do?" Jenny: “____” A. I'm well. Thank you.

B. How do you do?

C. Not too bad.

D. Yeah, OK.

92. Mark: “____” Jenny: "I think there are various reasons." A. Do you mind if I think about reasons for urbanization? B. I'd like to invite you to think about reasons for urbanization. C. What do you think about reasons for urbanization? D. Would you mind thinking about the reasons for urbanization? 93. Jenny: "I think higher living standard is one of the reasons that many people want to be a city dweller." Mark: “____” A. I couldn't agree more.

B. It's nice of you to say so.

C. That's quite all right.

D. Why not?

94. Anna: "Personally, I love peaceful and quiet life in rural areas." Jenny: “____” A. Neither do I.

B. No, I won't.

C. So do I.

D. Yes, I like it.

95 Anna: "In my opinion, some people should stay in rural areas as well as work on agriculture." Mark: “____” A. I'm not afraid I don't agree.

B. I'm not sure about that.

C. I'm so sorry, but I agree.

D. Not at all, thanks.

96. Jenny: "Do you think we'll finish in time?” Anna: “____” A. I know so.

B. I think not.

C. Well, I hope so.

D. Yes, that's right.

97. Mark: "What about starting the presentation with results of our research? Jenny: “ ____ “ A. Congratulations!

B. Sounds great!

C. Well done!

D. What a pity!

98. Anna: “So do you think we should add some pictures and videos?” Jenny: “____” A. None.

B. Not much.

C. Please do.

D. Sure.

99. Mark: “Let's collect information and then create the PowerPoint slides.” Jenny: "Oh, ____? A. good idea.

B. I don't.

C. I need it.

D. why is that?

100-105: Mark is talking to his classmate Alex after their performance at the first round of the English presentation competition. 100. Mark: “We've passed the first round." Alex: “____” A. Congratulations!

B. Do you?

C. It's nice of you to say so. D. That's a good idea.

101. Alex: "You've got a brilliant performance today!”

Mark: “ ____” A. I do.

B. Okay.

C. Thank you.

D. You, too.

102. Alex: "We've tried hard but we couldn't make it!” Mark: “Oh. ____” A. I'm sorry.

B. What a pity!

C. Thank you.

D. You are welcome.

103. Alex: “____” Mark: “Oh, it's great!” A. How is the English presentation competition like? B. What do you like about the English presentation competition? C. What do you think of the English presentation competition? D. Would you like the English presentation competition? 104. Mark: "In the next round, we are going to present about the pros and cons of urbanization." Alex: “____” A. Good chance.

B. Good day.

C. Good luck.

D. Good time.

105. Alex: "It was nice meeting you. Have a nice weekend”. Mark: "Thanks. ____” A. I hope so, too.

B. The same to you. C. Wish the same to me.

D. Wish you be the same.

Part V. READING Exercise 8. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. Rapid urbanization can (106) ____ long-term economic, social and environmental promise for developing countries (107) ____ investments made now in infrastructure, housing and public services are efficient and sustainable, the World Bank says in a new report. In the next two decades, cities are (108) ____ to expand by another two billion residents, as people move in unprecedented (109) ____ from rural areas to pursue hopes and aspirations in cities. More than 90 (110) ____ of this urban population growth is expected to occur in the developing world, (111) ____ many cities are already struggling to provide basic (112) ____ such as water, electricity, transport, health services and education. Report authors note that (113) ____ new urban growth will not take (114) ____ in the “megacities” of the world e.g. Rio de Janeiro, Jakarta or New Delhi (115) ____ rather in less commonly recognized “secondary” cities - places like Fushun in China, and Surat in India. To help policymakers prepare for and manage growth, the report distills lessons (116) ____ from 12 countries across all geographic regions and stages of urbanization. It then translates these global lessons (117) ____ practical policy advice. 106. A. bring

B. carry

C. hold

D. take

107. A. if

B. unless

C. whether

D. while

108. A. predictable

B. predicted

C. predicting

D. predictions

109. A. amounts

B. numbers

C. ranges

D. sums

110. A. per cent

B. percentage

C. proportion

D. rate

111. A. what

B. where

C. which

D. why

112. A. demands

B. needs

C. orders

D. uses

113. A. almost

B. most

C. mostly

D. nearly

114. A. form

B. hand

C. place

D. time

115. A. but

B. nor

C. or

D. yet

116. A. are learned

B. being learned

C. learned

D. learning

117. A. by

B. into

C. up to

D. up with

Exercise 9. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. The increase in urbanization causes different problems. Air and water pollution are amongst the major issue we have to tackle. In the first place, cars, factories and burning waste emit dangerous gases that change the air quality in our cities and pose threats to our health. Dangerous gases such as carbon dioxide and nitrogen oxides cause respiratory diseases, for instant, bronchitis and asthma. Those are also proved to have long-term effects on the environment. Furthermore, with the increased population, it becomes difficult to manage the waste generated in cities. Most of the waste is discharged or dumped into rivers or onto streets. The waste pollutes water and makes it unfit for human consumption. Subsequently, it becomes more and more difficult for city dwellers to get clean water. Some cities in Africa are unable to provide adequate water supply because most of the water is lost in pipe leakages. In fact, most city dwellers in developing countries are forced to boil their water or to buy bottled water, which is very expensive. There are several actions that could be taken to eradicate the problems described above. Firstly, a simple solution would be joining community efforts to address problems affecting your city. Ask your parents, friends and relatives to join in as well. These efforts might include clean-up campaigns, recycling projects and a signature campaign to ask the government to do something about the situation. A second measure would be encouraging your teacher to talk about these problems and to discuss how young people can help to solve them. Finally, writing to local organizations working on these issues for ideas on how you can contribute to solve them. 118. The word tackle in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ____. A. deal with

B. make up

C. try on

D. turn down

119. The word those in paragraph 2 refers to ____. A. bronchitis and asthma

B. carbon dioxide and nitrogen oxides

C. dangerous gases

D. respiratory diseases

120. According to the passage, in some cities in Africa ____. A. people are allowed to dump waste into rivers and on streets B. people aren't provided enough water due to leaking pipes C. people have found some solutions to the problems

D. people would rather use boiling water and bottled water 121. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage? A. City problems should be taught and be topic for students to discuss at school. B. Children must ask for their parent's permission before joining community efforts. C. Participators might take part in different kinds of projects and campaigns. D. People can contribute in solving the problems by writing to local organizations working on these issues. 122. Which of the following would serve as the best title for the passage? A. Environment degradation: Air and water pollution B. Environmental pollution: Problems and actions C. Increasing urbanization: Causes and effects D. Increasing urbanization: Effects and solutions Exercise 10. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Buying a house is the single largest financial investment an individual makes. Yet, in India this act is fraught with risk and individuals depend on weak laws for justice. Occasionally, deviant promoters are called to account as was the case in the detention of Unitech's promoters. This incident shows up the fallout of an absence of proper regulation to cover contracts between buyers and real estate promoters. A real estate bill, which is presently pending in Rajya Sabha, seeks to fill this gap. It has been debated for over two years and should be passed by Parliament in the budget session. India is in the midst of rapid urbanization and urban population is expected to more than double to about 900 million over the next three decades. Unfortunately, even the current population does not have adequate housing. A government estimate in 2012 put the shortage at nearly 19 million units. If this shortage is to be alleviated quickly, India's messy real estate sector needs reforms. The real estate bill seeks to set standards for contracts between buyers and sellers. Transparency, a rare commodity in real estate, is enforced as promoters have to upload project details on the regulators' website. Importantly, standard definitions of terms mean that buyers will not feel cheated after taking possession of a house. In order to protect buyers who pay upfront, a part of the money collected for a real estate project is ring-fenced in a separate bank account. Also, given the uncertainty, which exists in India on land titles, the real estate bill provides title insurance. This bill has been scrutinized by two parliamentary committees and its passage now brooks no delay. This bill is an important step in cleaning up the real estate market, but the journey should not end with it. State governments play a significant role in real estate and they are often the source of problems. Some estimates suggest that real estate developers have to seek approvals of as many as 40 central and state departments, which lead to delays and an escalation in the cost of houses. Sensibly, NDA government's project to provide universal urban housing forces states to institute reforms to access central funding. Without real estate reforms at the level of states, it will not be possible to meet the ambition of making housing accessible for all urban dwellers.

123. It can be inferred from the passage that ____. A. buying house is not a single largest individual investment B. in India, no one depends on laws for justice C. the real estate bill does not provide title insurance D. urbanization in India has increased rapidly 124. According to the passage, which of the following is the pending in Rajya Sabha? A. NDA government's new scheme

B. Universal rural housing programme

C. Real estate bill

D. Universal urban housing programme

125. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage? A. Current population does not have adequate housing in India. B. India's real estate sector needs reforms. C. Real state bill has been scrutinized by two parliamentary committees. D. Urban population is expected to more than double to about 850 million over the next three decades. 126. According to the passage, what is the source of problem in real estate? A. Buyers and sellers

B. Central governments

C. Market money makers

D. State governments

127. The word alleviated in the second paragraph is OPPOSITE in meaning to ____. A. aggravated

B. deaden

C. diminished

D. relieved

128. The word possession in the third paragraph refers to ____. A. lease

B. need

C. proprietary rights

D. renting

129. The word escalation in the forth paragraph refers to ____. A. decrease

B. growth

C. reduction

D. sustainability

130. It is impossible to meet the ambition of making housing accessible for urban dwellers ____. A. with real estate reforms at state level B. without support of central government C. without passing the bill in Rajya Sabha D. without real estate reforms at the level of states Part VI. WRITING Exercise 11. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 131. There was an upward trend in the demand for labor force. A. The demand for labor force declined. B. The demand for labor force increased. C. The demand for labor force reduced. D. The demand for labor force remained stable. 132. The industrial production plummeted spectacularly from 1990 to 2000. A. The industrial production fell quickly in ten years from 1990 to 2000. B. The industrial production fell steadily in ten years from 1990 to 2000.

C. The industrial production rose sharply in ten years from 1990 to 2000. D. The industrial production rose slightly in ten years from 1990 to 2000. 133. There was a 5% drop in the student enrollment of the university. A. The student enrollment of the university dropped by 5%. B. The student enrollment of the university dropped for 5%. C. The student enrollment of the university dropped in 5%. D. The student enrollment of the university dropped to 5%. 134. There was a 30% rise in the rate of unemployment. A. There was a rise by 30% in the rate of unemployment. B. There was a rise of 30% in the rate of unemployment. C. There was a rise to 30% in the rate of unemployment. D. There was a rise up 30% in the rate of unemployment. 135. Rapid ups and downs in the number of students could be observed in June. A. The number of students changed dramatically in June. B. The number of students did not stay the same in June. C. The number of students fluctuated wildly in June. D. The number of students went up and then fell in June. 136. There was moderate fluctuation in the availability of seasonal produce. A. The availability of seasonal produce experienced a stable period. B. The availability of seasonal produce is recorded leveling off. C. The availability of seasonal produce hardly moved up and down. D. The availability of seasonal produce went through a period of erratic. 137. The rural population grew slowly from 1950 to 1990 and reached its peak in 1992. A. The rural population experienced an upward trend from 1950 to 1992. B. The rural population hit its highest level in 1992 after a slight increase in 40 years. C. The rural population leveled off in 1992 after growing slowly for 40 years. D. The rural population reached its lowest level in 1992 after growing slowly for 40 years. 138. The number of unemployed people doubled between 2005 and 2009. A. Twice as many people were unemployed in 2005 compared to 2009. B. Twice as many people were unemployed in 2009 than in 2005. C. There were twice as many unemployed people in 2005 compared to 2009. D. There were twice as many unemployed people in 2009 as in 2005. Exercise 12. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 139. The share price fluctuated. The trend was slightly upward. A. The share price fluctuated; as the upward trend. B. The share price fluctuated; consequently, the trend was slightly upward. C. The share price fluctuated; due to the upward trend.

D. The share price fluctuated; however, the trend was slightly upward. 140. Asia is home to 50 per cent of the world's urban population. At the same time, Europe is home to 14 per cent of the world's urban population. A. Asia is home to 50 per cent of the world's urban population although Europe is home to 14 per cent of the world's urban population. B. Asia is home to 50 per cent of the world's urban population due to Europe is home to 14 per cent of the world's urban population. C. Asia is home to 50 per cent of the world's urban population, nevertheless, Europe is home to 14 per cent of the world's urban population. D. Asia is home to 50 per cent of the world's urban population whereas Europe is home to 14 per cent of the world's urban population. 141. Increasing urbanization has led to problems. Cities are centers of civilization and culture. A. Although increasing urbanization has led to problems, but cities are centers of civilization and culture. B. Despite increasing urbanization has led to problems, but cities are centers of civilization and culture. C. In spite of increasing urbanization has led to problems, yet cities are centers of civilization and culture. D. Though increasing urbanization has led to problems, cities are centers of civilization and culture. 142. In 1960, the rate of urbanization in Indonesia was about 17%. In 1969, it was about 20%. A. The rate of urbanization in Indonesia increased by 3% in 1969 followed by a slight fall to 17% in 1960. B. The rate of urbanization in Indonesia rose to 20% before falling to 17% in the period of nine years from 1960. C. In 1960, the rate of urbanization in Indonesia was about 17% after falling slightly by 3% in the period of nine years. D. In 1960, the rate of urbanization in Indonesia was about 17% followed by a slight increase of 3% in 1969. 143. The expenditure of the office remained stable. The profit rose by 25%. A. The profit rose by 25% although the stabilization of the office's expenditure. B. The profit rose by 25% as a result of the stabilization of the office's expenditure. C. The profit rose by 25% despite the stabilization of the office's expenditure. D. The profit rose by 25% owing to the stabilization of the office's expenditure. 144. The rapid urbanization led to many serious problems. One of those is the growth of slums. A. The rapid urbanization is the cause of many serious problems such as the growth of slums. B. The rapid urbanization is consequent of many serious problems like the growth of slums. C. The rapid urbanization is created by many serious problems such as the growth of slums. D. The rapid urbanization is resulted by many serious problems like the growth of slums. 145. The price plunged from 300 to 20 in 1995. It plateaued over the next 3 years.

A. The price decreased by 280 in 1995 before stabilizing for the next 3 years. B. The price decreased for 280 in 1995 before leveling off for the next 3 years. C. The price increased by 280 in 1995 before leveling off for the next 3 years. D. The price increased for 280 in 1995 before stabilizing for the next 3 years.

Unit 3. THE GREEN MOVEMENT Part I. PHONETICS Exercise 1. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the phrase which contains the sound that is assimilated differently from the other three. 1. A. mixed bag

B. basket maker

C. direct methode

D. bad pain

2. A. good morning

B. blood bank

C. white paper

D. old man

3. A. food poisoning

B. iron man

C. one pair

D. chicken breast

4. A. garden party

B. credit card

C. sun bath

D. wine box

5. A. fat girl

B. that cake

C. short cut

D. hard copy

6. A. cold cream

B. red carpet

C. golden gate

D. good cook

7. A. tin can

B. nice shoes

C. in camera

D. iron curtain

8. A. cheese shop

B. rose show

C. these sheep

D. both sides

9. A. earth science

B. brown bear

C. foreign minister

D. pen pal

10. A. good man

B. red bag

C. custard powder

D. private part

Part II. VOCABULARY Exercise 2. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 11. The council wants to ____ the character of the city while reconstructing the Old Quarter. A. preserve

B. store

C. defense

D. abandon

12. Heavy traffic ____ us so we came to the meeting rather late. A. promoted

B. arrested

C. canceled

D. delayed

13. It turned out to be a ____ journey when the weather became bad. A. hazard

B. hazardous

C. hazarded

D. hazarding

14. Poaching ____ the greatest threat to many species. A. creates

B. presents

C. poses

D. produces

15. In Africa, people's interference in the rhino's ____ leads to habitat loss. A. sector

B. territory

C. domain

D. country

C. Onto

D. In

C. dying on

D. dying down

16. ____ the wild, giant pandas eat bamboo. A. On

B. Into

17. This species of African elephants is ____. A. dying out

B. dying of

18. ____ is wiping out many kinds of plants and animals. A. Defoliation

B. Deforestation

C. Deformation

D. Degradation

19. The tiger is ____ of extinction. It is difficult to find them in the wild. A. on the wing

B. on the rocks

C. on the verge

D. on the ground

20. Switching to ____ eco light bulb is one way to protect the environment. A. energy-wasting

B. energy-expending

C. energy-lacking

D. energy-saving

21. ____ batteries or solar chargers are some of the solutions to the lack of energy. A. Rechargeable

B. Reversible

C. Repeatable

D. Returnable

22. I never leave any electrical appliances on standby and I think it is a good way to ____ energy in the home. A. take care of

B. use

C. keep

D. conserve

23. Nowadays, people are searching for more ____ materials to build their houses. A. environment-friendly

B. environmentally-friendly

C. environmental-friendly

D. environmental-friend

24. Every ____ piece of equipment was sent to the fire. A. consumable

B. spendable

C. available

D. disposable

25. In the ____ agriculture, farmers try to limit the use of chemicals and fertilizers. A. sustainable

B. conserving

C. preserving

D. supporting

26. In Singapore, people try to ____ 80% of all waste. A. reprocess

B. reclaim

C. recycle

D. reuse

27. A good leader in globalization is not to impose but ____ change. A. facilitate

B. cause

C. show

D. oppose

28. Information technology has ____ our lives. A. evolved

B. reserved

C. assimilated

D. transformed

29. We need to act quickly to ____ to climate change, or it will be a disaster for the whole planet. A. adapt

B. go back

C. reverse

D. transit

30. There is little ____ of things improving soon. A. probability

B. probably

C. probable

D. probabilities

Exercise 3. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 31. For environmental safety, we need to find ways to reduce emission of fumes and smoke of factories. A. leak

B. release

C. poison

D. pollutant

32. Nylon is a man-made fibre, the use of which has helped more people to have cheaper and more colourful clothes to wear. A. natural

B. plastic

C. synthetic

D. artificial

33. The advances of commercial airplanes resulted in a shrinking world. A. decreasing

B. reduced

C. smaller

D. compressing

34. We have to suffer from traffic congestion and pollution every day. A. accident

B. fullness

C. mass

D. crowd

35. Many animals were born in captivity. Resultantly, they do not always breed well. A. imprisonment

B. lock

C. detention

D. freedom

36. The African rhino is an endangered species and needs protecting. A. unstable

B. dangerous

C. insecure

D. indefensible

37. We can protect many species by keeping them in wildlife reserves. A. protected land

B. saved land

C. park

D. Zoo

38. Scientists are trying to find an energy that consumes less fuel. A. waste

B. destroy

C. eat up

D. use

39. Modern buildings are designed to maximize natural light. A. absorb

B. increase

C. let

D. diminish

40. It's wise to use local fresh produce which is in season. A. cars

B. restaurants

C. crops

D. water

Exercise 4. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 41. The new policy will help generate more jobs. A. bring out

B. form

C. produce

D. terminate

42. Her only problem is the limited experience because she is too young. A. narrow

B. considerable

C. insufficient

D . restricted

43. The river is badly polluted with toxic chemicals from that factory. A. poisonous

B. harmful

C. all right

D. deadly

44. I don't believe in anything he says, he is unreliable. A. inaccurate

B. unstable

C. trustworthy

D. irresponsible

45. 'If we continue to deplete our planets natural resources, we will damage the environment significantly. A. use up

B. add to

C. reduce

D. exhaust

46. She stays incredibly focused and is never distracted by others. A. disturbed

B. confused

C. bewildered

D. concentrated

47. Globally, farmers encroach on forest land to grow crops. A. leave

B. invade

C. make road to

D. intrude

48. Poverty in many African countries increases the likelihood that people poach animals to earn their living. A. chance

B. prospect

C . possibility

D. improbability

49. Funds are diverted from conservation to military because of war. A. redirected

B. shifted

C. stayed

D. turned aside

50. The number of rhinos is in steady decline. There are fewer rhinos than ever before. A. occasional

B. constant

C. stable

D. Persistent

Part III. GRAMMAR Exercise 5. Mark the letter A, B or C to indicate the correct sentence type for each of the following questions. 51. The yoga room of this fitness centre smells of rose and lemongrass. A. simple

B. compound

C. complex

52. My mother wants me to take up violin but I don't want to do it. A. simple

B. compound

C . complex

53. The students' interests are in maths and science rather than history and literature. A. simple

B. compound

C. complex

54. My group is being involved in a competition for the best singers. A. simple

B. compound

C. complex

55. Most people in this town like to play sport, but they don't have enough time. A. simple

B. compound

C. complex

56. Because the game is brand new, numerous students are attracted to it. A. simple

B. compound

C. complex

57. My father and my brother are having a big argument over where our family will spend the summer vacation. A. simple

B. compound

C. complex

58. During the disastrous storm, a tree fell down and destroyed our roof top. A. simple

B. compound

C. complex

59. The maple leaf, which is Canada's national emblem, was selected in the eighteenth century. A. simple

B. compound

C. complex

60. He can sing and dance very well, but he has never performed in public. A. simple

B. compound

C. complex

Exercise 6. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 61. ____ he was waiting for Sam outside the cinema, Jim realized that the street was funnily crowded. A. So

B. While

C. Unless

D. Even though

62. I didn't meet him right away ____ he had to talk to his boss first. A. while

B. if

C. because

D. or

63. ____ what has happened, I think she will never return. A. If

B. Unless

C. While

D. After

64. There wasn't a chair for the headmaster, ____ is a big problem. A. what

B. which

C. that

D. where

65. The student wiped the board ____ was full of notes and drawings. A. that

B. while

C. after

D. so

66. True Blood is my favourite TV series, ____ I don't have much time to watch it often. A. although

B. before

C. if

D. yet

67. After the children finished their dinner, they went to bed ____ listened to a bedtime story before falling asleep. A. that

B. and

C. so

D. while

68. The kids show some hatred towards him, ____ he was really nice to them. A. because

B. before

C. unless

D. even though

C. whenever

D. whichever

69. We can leave ____ you are ready. A. whatever

B. whoever

70. I like swimming ____ my sister likes jogging and dancing. A. whereas

B. when

C. whenever

D. so

Exercise 7. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 71. At the end, everybody cleaned up the whole room, that I hadn't expected before. A

72. My mother lives next to me which is really convenient. A

73. He shouted at his girlfriend, that really disappointed me. A

74. He drinks quite a lot, what is why he is so ill. A

75. While wait for the paint to dry, I walked around and talked to the engineers. A

76. My beautiful and intelligent sister turned off TV, sit down and started to cry. A

77. As if the debt is written off, they will have to sell their house. A

78. And they love to sing, they love to dance. A

79. I came to class very early so the teacher was late due to heavy traffic. A

80. The temperature increases significantly, what makes the ice melt faster. A

81. I don't think that he has responsed to my email as I have received nothing. A

82. You are not rich enough to buy all what you like. A

83. He knows New York very well because he has gone to the city many times. A

84. They will not go nowhere special because they don't have enough money. A

85. Neither Lan or her friends care about the coming exam. A

86. Which is good for such an old lady like her is that she is healthy enough to cycle. A

87. Jane talks as if she knows all the story. A

88. I heard everything which he said and I was really upset. A

89. I spent my holiday in a country which is peaceful and picturesque. A

90. The sign is one of the five senses that are vital to anyone. A

Part IV. SPEAKING Exercise 8. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges. 91. Did you have a good weekend? A. Yes, let's keep in touch.

B. Yes, I am a teacher.

C. Yes, it is lovely.

D. Yes, I didn't do much.

92. During the trip, we can visit some wildlife reserves to see lions and giraffes. A. That's great. How does it work?

B. Oh, I see. No problem.

C. Really? I am so excited.

D. That was OK at first.

93. Can I leave a message to Jim? A. I'll ask him to call you.

B. Of course, you can.

C. If you don't mind.

D. Yes, you can take it.

94. You should not leave the light on when you are away. A. OK, let's do it.

B. That's a good idea.

C. Try me!

D. You are right.

95. Excuse me! Can you show me the way to Main Street? A. Um, I am sorry I have no idea.

B. It's easy to do it.

C. Continue.

D. Am I going right?

96. What's the matter? A. No, I don't think so.

B. A few problems.

C. Well, sort of.

D. I am not very well.

97. Would you mind closing the door? A. Yes, I do.

B. No, of course not.

C. Yes, please

D. No, thank you.

98. The shop opens from Monday to Sunday from 9 a.m. to 6 p.m. every day. A. Really? That's wonderful.

B. There's no way I can do it.

C. There's one around the corner.

D. Yes, of course, I will join you.

99. Hi, what are you looking for? A. Yes, I usually look for things.

B. No way I am gonna show you.

C. Oil. Oil that we use for cooking.

D. OK, I'll take it.

100. Hi, Alice. Would you like to go to the movies tonight? A. Fine. I'll be there.

B. Thanks. I love to.

C. I'll be ready in no time.

D. Why? What's the matter?

101. Anything to drink? A. Well-done!

B. Just water please.

C. Yes, I will have soup and beef.

D. Maybe I will go.

102. Excuse me, is this seat taken? A. No, it isn't.

B. No never.

C. No, I am OK.

D. No, I don't want to.

103. Do you know which animal sleeps the most? A. Let me see it.

B. Let me think.

C. Let me try it.

104. Excuse me, could I talk to the manager? A. Yes, I would love to.

B. Yes, I will give it to you.

D. Let me down.

C. Yes, of course.

D. Yes, thank you.

105. Everyone should learn more about how to treat the environment well. A. I am sure about that.

B. That's not sure.

C. I don't think so.

D. It's not true.

Part V. READING Exercise 9. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. Every night, almost one billion people go to bed hungry. How can we feed all these (106) ____ people? Farmers all over the world have to content with weather, insects, and natural disasters, which are capable of (107) ____ crops and ruining years of hard work. And the population is set to rise to nine billion by 2050. Here are four possible solutions. GM crops Proponents of genetically modified crops (GM crops) claim that they will hugely (108) ____ food production. Scientists have developed drought-resistant and disease-resistant crops, more productive crops, and crops with increased vitamins. Anti-GM protesters worry (109) ____ health risks and damage to other plants that grow near the GM crops. Vertical farming Another answer could be to grow food in buildings. (110) ____ of vertical farming are suggesting we construct multistory, climate-controlled farm buildings in the heart of our cities. One indoor hectare of land would be (111) ____ to above five hectares outdoors, so we could grow year-round crops that would easily feed whole cities. Opponents point to the cost, the increased energy used and the effect on farmers. Eat less meat Others say the solution lies not (112) ____ new technologies, but in eating less meat. It takes about seven kilos of corn to produce one kilo of beef. That quality of corn will keep more people (113) ____ than that quality of beef. But this is a message the world doesn't want to hear. Meat consumption is rising steeply. Increase aid Rich countries have far more food than they need and waste vast amount of it - 6.7 million tons a year in the UK (114) ____. We can afford to send surplus food to people (115) ____ need it. We could also simply give more money to developing countries, (116) ____ they can buy food. (117) ____ say that this makes people dependent on rich countries and is only a short-term solution. 106. A. undernourished

B. unhealthy

C . unbelievable

D. undeniable

107. A. wasting

B. destroying

C. killing

D. harvesting

108. A. strengthen

B. rise

C. increase

D. enlarge

109. A. about

B. to

C. with

D. on

110. A. Promoters

B. Advocates

C. Champion

D. Spokesmen

111. A. same

B. parallel

C. alike

D. equivalent

112. A. on

B. to

C. in

D. over

113. A. alive

B. lively

C. vital

D. active

114. A. lonesome

B. lone

C. lonely

D. alone

115. A. whom

B. which

C. who

D. what

116. A. because

B. but

C. so

D. since

117. A. Reviewers

B. Critics

C. Analysts

D. Judges

Exercise 10. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Coral reefs are the most diverse of all marine ecosystems. They are full of life, with perhaps one quarter of all ocean species depending on reefs for food and shelter. This is a remarkable statistic when you consider that reefs cover just a tiny fraction of the earth's surface and less than two per cent of the ocean bottom. Because they are so diverse, coral reefs are often called the rainforests of the ocean. Coral reefs are very important to people. They even provide seventy per cent of the food demands for some marine species, protection of shorelines, jobs based on tourism (nine out of twelve activities for tourists in Nha Trang, for example, involve the coral reefs), and even medicines. Unfortunately, climate change is the greatest global threat to coral reef ecosystems. Scientific evidence now clearly indicates that the Earth's atmosphere and ocean are warming, and that these changes are primarily due to greenhouse gases derived from human activities. As temperatures rise, mass coral bleaching events and infectious disease outbreaks are becoming more frequent. Additionally, carbon dioxide absorbed into the ocean from the atmosphere has already begun to reduce calcification rates in reef-building and reef-associated organisms by altering seawater chemistry through decreases in pH. This process is called ocean acidification. Climate change will affect coral reef ecosystems, through sea level rise, changes to the frequency and intensity of tropical storms, and altered ocean circulation patterns. When combined, all of these impacts dramatically alter ecosystem function, as well as the goods and services coral reef ecosystems provide to people around the globe. There are also many things you can do to ensure that you are environmentally conscious when you visit coral reefs or coastal areas. These include things such as hiring local guides to support the economy, removing all trash from an area, never touching or harassing wildlife in reef areas, and avoiding dropping your boat anchor or chain nearby a coral reef. Finally, stay informed and spread the word! Educate yourself about why healthy coral reefs are valuable to the people, fish, plants, and animals that depend on them. Your excitement will help others get involved. 118. Though the coverage of coral reefs on the sea bed is ____, its vital role is undeniable. A. remarkable

B. small

C. diverse

D. huge

119. ____ of all the ocean species find food and home in the coral reefs. A. Two per cent

B. Seventy per cent

C. Twenty-five per cent

120. Carbon dioxide from the atmosphere directly caused ____. A. infectious disease outbreaks

B. reef-building

C. sea level rise

D. ocean acidification

D. Nine per cent

121. Which of the following statement is NOT true? A. Coral reefs can be compared to rainforests due to its diversity. B. The effects of global warming are only on the ecosystems themselves. C. You can help the coral reefs by educating not only yourself but people around you. D. Human activities which cause greenhouse gases are major reasons for the climate change. 122. The word conscious in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ____. A. knowledgeable

B. curious

C. aware

D. acknowledgeable

Exercise 11. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. The poaching crisis wiping out Africa's elephants is costing the continent's economies millions in lost tourism revenue, according to a new study. Researchers looked at visitor and elephant data across 25 countries, and modeled financial losses from fewer visitors in protected areas due to the illegal wildlife trade, which has caused elephant numbers to plummet by more than 100,000 in the last decade. (A) The study team combined visitor numbers across 164 protected areas in 25 countries in forest and savannah elephants, and elephant population data from 2009 to 2013, to reach a â&#x20AC;&#x153;per elephant" value in terms of tourism income. They concluded that Africa was most likely losing $26m in tourism revenue a year. (B) Around $9m of that is lost from tourists' direct spending, such as staying at hotels and buying crafts, with the rest through indirect value in the economy such as farmers and other suppliers supporting the tourist industry. The study, published in the journal Nature Communications, found that in most cases the revenue losses were higher than paying for stronger anti-poaching measures to keep elephant populations stable. (C) Dr. Robin Naidoo, the paper's lead author and , senior conservation wildlife scientist at WWF and his team found. In the case of central Africa's forest elephants, which are harder for tourists to see and therefore attract fewer visitors, the costs of protecting them exceed the benefits from tourism. Demand from south-east Asia has seen the price of ivory triple since 2009 and it is estimated that one elephant is killed every 15 minutes. (D) Corruption, a lack of resources, and, most importantly, increasingly sophisticated poachers have hamstrung African countries' efforts to stem the trade. Naidoo said that the research was not suggesting economic issues should be the only consideration when protecting elephants, but framing the poaching crisis as a financial one could motivate African governments and communities. â&#x20AC;&#x153;It gives an additional reason for some groups of people, who may not necessarily be motivated by intrinsic reasons for conversation, to engage with biodiversity conservation. It makes it clear to them that it's not just in the best interests of the world to conserve this stuff, but tangible reasons for a whole different group," he said. 123. The overall profit that the continent lost a year can be estimated to ____. A. 25 million USD

B. 100,000 USD

124. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

C. 26 million USD

D. 9 million USD

A. To get to the conclusion, scientists compared the changes in number of tourists and number of elephants in 2009. B. The only reason why illegal poaching is so difficult to stop is corruption. C. Protecting elephants is for the both the practical and immaterial reasons. D. There is an argument over the differences in the balance between the loss and the cost to protect the elephants. 125. Which of the following statements is NOT true? A. Across the continent, the amount of money spent on protecting the elephant is smaller than the loss tourist industry is suffering from. B. The number of tourists reduces because now it is more difficult for them to see the elephants in the wild. C. One reason why elephants are killed in mass volume is from the increasing market of ivory in South East Asia. D. Relating poaching to financial benefits can be considered as one of the solutions to the problem. 126. Which of the positions marked in the passage does the phrase "but the financial argument did not stack up in all areas,â&#x20AC;? best fit? A. (A)

B. (B)

C. (C)

D. (D)

127. The word plummet in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ____. A. fall

B. fluctuate

C. rise

D. Stabilize

128. The word sophisticated in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ____. A. simple

B. outdated

C. advanced

D. basic

129. The word motivate in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ____. A. change

B. design

C. form

D. inspire

130. Which of the following is the best title for the passage? A. Elephant poaching costs African millions in tourism revenue B. Elephant poaching does more good than harm C. Elephant poaching brings an opportunity for Africa to change D. Elephant poaching reduces the number of elephants in Africa Part VI. WRITING Exercise 12. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 131. You must never take the helmet off when you drive. A. Helmets must be worn at all times when driving. B. Helmets must be taken around with you when you drive. C. Wearing helmets is never taken into consideration when driving. D. Helmets are an optional part of you when you drive. 132. People in Australia are so environmentally-friendly that they create the greenest country in the world. A. Australia is the greenest country in the world though the people are environmentally friendly

B. Australia is the greenest country in the world because the people are environmentally friendly. C. Australia is the greenest country in the world while the people are environmentally-friendly. D. Australia is the greenest country in the world if the people are environmentally friendly. 133. We might stop here if you don't change your way of speaking. A. We might stop here unless you don't change your way of speaking. B. We might stop here if you change your way of speaking. C. We might stop here unless you change your way of speaking. D. We might stop here if not you change your way of speaking. 134. When the class was over, the students ran out, screamed and shouted. A. As long as the class finished, the students ran out, screamed and shouted. B. No sooner was the class over, the students ran out, screamed and shouted. C. As soon as the class had finished, the students ran out, screamed and shouted. D. If the class was over, the students would run out, scream and shout. 135. At no time Jane asks me when she uses my bathroom. A. Jane is always using my bathroom without asking! B. It is very unusual for Jane to ask me when she uses my bathroom. C. Jane has no time to ask me when she uses my bathroom. D. Sometimes Jane asks me when she uses my bathroom. 136. He was about to do something when his mother suddenly shouted out. A. He was doing something when his mother suddenly shouted out. B. He refused to do something about his mother suddenly shouting out. C. He was on the point of doing something when his mother suddenly shouted out. D. His mother's sudden shouting out helped him to do something. 137. Merry allows her children to stay up late on Saturday evenings. A. Merry makes her children stay up late on Saturday evenings. B. Merry gets her children to stay up late on Saturday evenings. C. Merry helps her children stay up late on Saturday evenings. D. Merry lets her children stay up late on Saturday evenings. 138. I was under a strong impression that she had not told the truth. A. I believed that she had not told the truth. B. I doubted that she had not told the truth. C. I protested that she had not told the truth. D. I insisted that she had not told the truth. 139. He acts like an innocent man even if the evidence shows the contradiction. A. Even though he acts like an innocent man, the evidence shows the contradiction. B. He acts like an innocent man because the evidence shows the contradiction. C. The evidence shows the contradiction so he acts like an innocent man. D. He acts like an innocent man, as a result, the evidence shows the contradiction.

Exercise 13. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 140. We paid for the meal. We wanted to say sorry for what we had done. A. In order to pay for the meal, we wanted to say sorry for what we had done. B. We paid for the meal in order to say sorry for what we had done. C. We paid for the meal although we wanted to say sorry for what we had done. D. The meal we paid for is what we want to say sorry for what we had done. 141. My sister thinks the film is too frightening. I am not scared at all. A. My sister thinks the film is too frightening because I am not scared at all. B. My sister thinks the film is too frightening so I am not scared at all. C. My sister thinks the film is too frightening whereas I am not scared at all. D. My sister thinks the film is too frightening although I am not scared at all. 142. He bought her flowers and diamond rings. This action made her fall in love with him. A. He bought her flowers and diamond rings, what made her fall in love with him. B. He bought her flowers and diamond rings, that made her fall in love with him. C. He bought her flowers and diamond rings, which made her fall in love with him. D. He bought her flowers and diamond rings which made her fall in love with him. 143. He was so angry with his boss. He quitted his job immediately. A. Angry with his boss, he quitted his job immediately. B. He quitted his job immediately, angry with his boss. C. Angry with his boss he is, he quitted his job immediately. D. He was so angry with his boss although quitting his job immediately. 144. Something hit the door. I heard a slam. A. Something hit the door but I heard a slam. B. Something hit the door when I heard a slam. C. Something hit the door though I heard a slam. D. Something hit the door for I heard a slam. 145. He doesn't like going out. He doesn't invite any friends home. A. He either goes out or invites any friends home. B. He neither goes out nor invites any friends home. C. He not only goes out but also invites any friends home. D. He goes out but not invites any friends home.

Unit 4. THE MASS MEDIA Part I. PHONETICS Exercise 1. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 1. A. distributed

B. used

C. emailed

D. copied

2. A. invented

B. contributed

C. attributed

D. welcomed

3. A. coughed

B. developed

C. introduced

D. downloaded

4. A. wicked

B. reduced

C. influenced

D. expressed

5. A. accessed

B. searched

C. surfed

D. recorded

Exercise 2. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. 6. A. tablet

B. media

C. social

D. subscribe

7. A. newspaper

B. smartphone

C. access

D. device

8. A. computer

B. technology

C. magazine

D. connection

9. A. networking

B. television

C. socialize

D. communication

10. A. digital

B. entertain

C. Internet

D. cyberspace

Part II. VOCABULARY Exercise 3. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 11. The mass media are ____ of communication, such as books, newspapers, recordings, radio, movies, television, mobile phones and the Internet. A. models.

B. means

C. parts

D. types

12. TV companies ____ their programmes across the country or even across the world. A. broadcast

B. refresh

C. connect

D. publish

13. While a sports match has spectators and radio has listeners, television has ____. A. audience

B. witnesses

C. viewers

D. commentators

14. I hate ____ newspapers; they're just full of gossip, scandal and lies! A. online

B. daily

C. tabloid

D. rubbish

15. There's a great ____ show on BBC1 tonight. Contestants have to race through a supermarket as quickly as they can, filling up their trolleys as they go. A. talk

B. game

C. quiz

D. live

16. On some TV channels, a(n) ____ tells you what the next programme is going to be. A. journalist

B. commentator

C. announcer

D. producer

17. The ____ involves TV, radio and even electronic forms of communication such as the Internet. A. media

B. press

C. network

D. telecommunication

18. There's a(n) ____ in the paper about the Reality Television in Viet Nam. A. feature

B. article

C. essay

D. announcement

C. studio

D. station

19. I always get the news from my local radio ____. A. place

B. site

20. Johnny Depp rarely ____ invitations to do interviews. A. agrees

B. accepts

C. denies

D. approves

21. How many means of ____ do you use on a regular basis? A. communication

B. communicating

C. communicator

D. communicative

22. New digital media forms are more personal and social as they allow people to connect each other and ____ their experiences. A. personal

B. persona

C. personalize

D. personify

C. journalist

D. journalistic

23. Are you thinking of a career in ____? A. journal

B. journalism

24. You don't actually get a lot of ____ from a news report on radio or TV. A. informed

B. informations

C. informative

D. information

25. I joined an ____ online course taught by an experienced tutor. A. interactive

B. active

C. interaction

D. interact

26. Students use the library's computers to get access ____ the Internet. A. for

B. to

C. with

D. by

27. Video and computer games have also developed into a ____ media form. A. mess

B. big

C. mass

D. global

28. It is not always easy to ____ the difference between fact and opinion. A. make

B. say

C. do

D. tell

29. In my ____, freedom of the press must be maintained. A. mind

B. sight

C. view

D. thought

30. Media mogul Ronald Morduck has ____ control of another tabloid. A. made

B. given

C. found

D. taken

31. The issue ____ question is more complex than you think. A. in

B. from

C . on

D. at

32. Watch ____ for words like "so-calledâ&#x20AC;? in articles as they express the writer's bias. A. about

B. out

C. around

D. over

33. Most people ____ the mass media as their main source of information. A. rely on

B. try on

C. put on

D. hold on

34. The pie chart shows the preferred forms of communication recorded in a survey ____ in Intel Secondary School in August 2014. A. carried out

B. carried on

C. carried away

D. carried up

35. Her latest bestseller ____ last month. A. came out

B. went out

C. pulled out

D. broke out

36. I saw the interview while I was ____ through a magazine at the hairdresser's. A. clicking

B. picking

C. flicking

D. ticking

37. The tabloids completely ____ that story about Bruce Willis. It's not true at all.

A. stood out

B. filed in

C. made up

D. turned over

38. In the early 21st century, with the ____ of mobile communication technology, the mobile phone has emerged as a new and unique channel. A. explosion

B. explosive

C. exploitation

D. exploration

39. I'm amazed that the tabloids which are full of rubbish have such big ____. A. headlines

B. articles

C. supplements

D. circulations

40. A(n) ____ sends reports from a particular part of the world or on a particular subject. A. editor

B. correspondent

C. columnist

D. proprietor

Exercise 4. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 41. Each form of mass media has an important impact on society. A. influence

B. pressure

C. affection

D. role

42. The programme invited viewers to write in with their ideas. A. people who watch the programme

B. people who sponsor the programme

C. people who produce the programme

D. people who edit the programme

43. Journalists can make mistakes, so don't believe everything you read in the press. A. publications

B. news bulletins

C. reference books

D. newspapers and magazines

44. Face-to-face socializing is not as preferred as virtual socializing among the youth. A. Direct

B. Facial

C. Available

D. Instant

45. She thinks that unfortunately they may not understand the benefits of online information. A. advantages

B. points

C. features

D. amounts

Exercise 5. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 46. The library reduced the number of print newspapers and magazines that they used to subscribe to. A. increased

B. decreased

C. rose

D. fell

47. Using social networks helps you keep in touch with friends and family any time. A. put up with

B. keep track of

C. lose touch with

D. catch up with

48. They had the volume turned down, so I couldn't make out what they were talking about. A. reduced the noise

B. increased the noise

C. limited the noise

D. controlled the noise

49. Teenagers can become addicted to social networking if they can't control they spend online. A. dependent on

B. hooked on

C. indifferent to

D. exhausted by

50. New electronic devices have been developed to cater to users' ever-changing needs. A. changeable

B. unstable

C. constant

D. predictable

Part III. GRAMMAR Exercise 6. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

51. Linda only ____ the film after she ____ the book. A. understood â&#x20AC;&#x201C; read

B. understood - had read

C. had understood â&#x20AC;&#x201C; read

D. understood - was reading

52. ____ you ever ____ on TV before you ____ in this reality show? A. Had ... appeared - took part

B. Have ... appeared - took part

C. Did ... appear - had taken part

D. Would ... appear - took part

53. I wasn't sure how Belinda would react because I ____ her long. A. didn't know

B. wasn't knowing

C. hadn't been knowing

D. hadn't known

54. I wanted to say goodbye to Jerry, but he ____. A. was already left

B. already left

C. had already been leaving

D. had already left

55. When we ____ to the airport, I realized that I ____ my passport at home. A. got - had left

B. got - was left

C. got - left

D. had got - had left

56. He ____ the umbrella in his right hand trying to keep his balance. A. hold

B. held

C. has been holding

D. has held

57. When I met Walters about two years before his death he didn't seem satisfied. He ____ no major book since he settled in Uganda. A. has published

B. could have published

C. published

D. had published

58. Throughout the campaign we ____ our candidate's photographs on the walls of public buildings, hoping to attract women's votes. A. have been hanging

B. hanged

C. hung

D. have hung

59. Many of the people who attended Major Gordon's funeral ____ him for many years. A. didn't see

B. wouldn't see

C. haven't seen

D. hadn't seen

60. Seeing Peter's handwriting on the envelope, she ____ the letter without reading it. She has not mentioned it ever since. A. was tearing

B. tore

C. had torn

D. has torn

61. We were both very excited about the visit, as we ____ each other for ages. A. never saw

B. didn't see

C. hadn't seen

D. haven't seen

62. What made you think he ____ in the Royal Air Force? A. must have to be

B. had been

C. was being

D. had had to be

63. Without turning my head in the direction of the gate I ____ a small object just under the fence. A. spotted

B. had spotted

C. have spotted

D. was spotted

64. With just one exception, the report says, each of the trees that was cut down ____ very expensive treatment for periods of up to ten years. A. had to be under

B. was under

C. has undergone

D. had undergone

65. They ____ married for two years or so when Roy enployed a very attractive Indian secretary in his Glasgow office. A. only have been

B. were only

C. have only been

D. had only been

66. I know too little Dutch to have understood what they were talking about. What I ____ was that their boss would be there the next morning. A. did understand

B. didn't understand

C. have understood

D. could have understood

67. The driver ____ violently and managed to stop the car just inches from the body lying on the road. A. was braking

B. has braked

C. braked

D. had braked

68. A columnist ____ in writing a newspaper or a magazine. A. believes

B. concentrates

C. responds

D. specializes

69. A lot of residents had to ____ from the unexpected hurricane last month. A. protect

B. recover

C. suffer

D. save

70. The society tries to deal ____ young offenders ____ a variety of ways. A. to - by

B. about - to

C. with - in

D. around - from

71. After some debate the Moors have agreed to exclude abstract art ____ their daughter's wedding list. A. out of

B. from

C. off

D. beyond

72. The aircraft, which originally headed ____ Heathrow, had to make an emergency landing at Orly. A. for

B. on

C. at

D. into

73. Her negligence resulted ____ the loss of a major contract ____ the company. A. to - from

B. for- over

C. in – for

D. into - about

74. The windows of the class were covered ____ so much dirt that we couldn't see ____ them. A. in – about

B. with - through

C. of – with

D. up-across

75. ____ such an educated woman, she has very little common sense. Don't you agree ____ me? A. Of - about

B. From - to

C. Through - upon

D. For - with

76. She's longing ____ the day when they can move out ____ the city. A. with-of

B. for- of

C. by – for

D. for- from

77. You can never rely ____ Anna to provide you ____ information. A. of - with

B. for - to

C. on - with

D. on - by

78. I don't need a car; we live ____ easy reach of the shops. A. upon

B. within

C. at

D. towards

79. We couldn't figure ____ why the editor-in-chief had changed his mind about the article. A. out

B. up

C. down

D. through

80. In the hospital, the case was diagnosed as pneumonia. Before that, she had been treated ____ hay fever. A. for

B. on

C. against

D. from

Exercise 7. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 81. The red lights go on outside the studio door to let people know that you are in the air. A

82. The alarm was raised too late because when the emergency crew arrived, no less than 10,000 gallons of oil A

has gusted into the stream. D 83. One of the sad moments of the cruise was saying goodbye to Mel, who had sailed with us since we had set A

sail but whose health problems forced him to leave us at Lagos. D 84. He was in a great hurry and had no time to think it over. Otherwise, he had found another way out. A

85. The lung cancer mortality rate rose six-fold in males when mass media started covering the health risks of A

smoking. 86. Although the first printed books appeared long before in China, the term â&#x20AC;&#x153;mass media" we use today A

was coined with the creation of printed media. C

87. I had also seen most of the episodes, but I still like watching them in class with no subtitles when I was a A

student. 88. The crime rate in this city has increased from ten per cent last year to thirty per cent by the end of 2009 A

due to the influx of the gang element. C

89. The instructor advised the students what the procedures to follow in writing the term paper. A

90. Her father did not want her to make friends with Pete and Sally because they influenced on her badly, to his A

mind. Part IV. SPEAKING Exercise 8. Mark the letter A. B. Cor D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges. 91. A: What are you doing later? B: ____ There's a program on that I really want to watch. A. I'm staying in tonight.

B. I'm going to the cinema with Tom.

C. I'll go out for a drink.

D. I'm going to go to bed early.

92. A: Is there anything worth watching on the telly tonight? B: ____ A. Yes, that's a good idea.

B. No, it's all repeats again.

C. Yes, there's an action film shown at the cinema.

D. No, there's just an article on love stories.

93. A: I really don't like chat shows very much.

B: ____ A. Yes, me too.

B. Yes, so do I.

C. No, nor do I.

D. I do, either.

94. A: Have you seen they've made Oliver Twist into a TV series? B: ____ A. Yes, there's a novel like that.

B. Thanks, I'll see it.

C. No, I don't like watching reality TV.

D. Yes, it's on every Sunday for the next twelve weeks.

95. A: I want to record the MTV awards tonight. Could you set the video for me before we go out? B: ____ A. Yes, of course. Which channel is it on?

B. Yes, let's go to see it tonight.

C. No, I prefer live concerts.

D. No, I'm not into TV series.

96. A: Do you think the match will be on TV later? B: ____ A. I can't agree with you. It's so dull. B. Yes, I'm a big fan of soap operas. C. Yes, of course. It's being shown live on BBC1. D. No, I don't mind watching it. 97. A: Thanks a lot for fixing the computer for me! B: ____ A. You will be welcome!

B. It's my pleasure to help you!

C. Safe and sound!

D. You must say again!

98. A: Your new smartphone looks so nice! B: ____ A. I'm glad you like it.

B. Don't mention it.

C. It doesn't matter.

D. Don't worry about it.

99. A: Would you like to come with me to the newsagent's? B: ____ A. No, I wouldn't.

B. No, sorry. I don't like movies.

C. Yes, I'd love to.

D. I would like it.

100. A: Have you finished the presentation on mass media? B: ____ A. I'll go for it.

B. I'm on my last page.

C. It's going to end.

D. It's very long.

C. As soon as possible.

D. So far, so good!

101. A: How many hours a day do you spend on the net? B: ____ A. Er... Most of my day.

B. Twice a week.

102. A: Do you find it interesting to go to the cinema on your own? B: ____ A. No, not at all.

B. What a pity!

C. Never mind.

D. You're welcome.

103. A: I think people nowadays prefer instant messaging and social networking to emails. B: ____

A. I don't like emails.

B. That's true!

C. I'd prefer text messaging.

D. That's OK!

104. A: Do you like e-books? B: ____ A. No, I prefer them printed.

B. They're expensive.

C. No, e-books are good.

D. I like them both.

105. A: What's your favourite TV programme? B: ____ A. Sports news.

B. It's time-consuming.

C. It's costly.

D. Daily newspapers.

Part V. READING Exercise 9. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Millions of people are using cellphones today. In many places, it is actually considered unusual not to use one. In many countries, cellphones are very popular with young people. They find that the phones are more than a means of communication - having a mobile phone shows that they are cool and connected. The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professional worried. Some doctors are concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems from the use of mobile phones. In England, there has been a serious debate about this issue. Mobile phone companies are worried about the negative publicity of such ideas. They say that there is no proof that mobile phones are bad for your health. On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people who use mobile phones. Signs of change in the tissues of the brain and head can be detected with modern scanning equipment. In one case, a traveling salesman had to retire at young age because of serious memory loss. He couldn't remember even simple tasks. He would often forget the name of his own son. This man used to talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every day of his working week, for a couple of years. His family doctor blamed his mobile phone use, but his employer's doctor didn't agree. What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High-tech machines can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone companies agree that there is some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to worry about. As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it's best to use mobile phones less often. 106. The most suitable title for the passage could be ____. A. Technological Innovations and Their Price B. The Importance of Mobile Phones C. Mobile Phones: A Must of Our Time D. Advantages and Disadvantages of Mobile Phones 107. According to the passage, cellphones are especially popular with the youth because ____. A. they keep the users in alert all the time

B. they are integral in daily communication C. they are the only effective means of communication D. they make them look more stylish 108. According to the passage, the changes possibly caused by the cellphones are mainly concerned with ____. A. the smallest units of the brain

B. the central unit of the brain

C. the structure of the brain

D. the long-term memory

109. The words negative publicity in paragraph 2 most likely means ____. A. information on the lethal effects of cellphones B. the negative public use of cellphones C. widespread opinion about bad effects of cellphones D. constructive ideas about the effects of cellphones 110. The word their in the last paragraph refers to ____. A. mobile phone companies

B. mobile phones

C. high-tech machines

D. radiations

Exercise 10. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. REALITY TELEVISION Reality, television is a genre of television programming which, it is claimed, presents unscripted dramatic or humourous situations, documents actual events and features ordinary people rather than professional actors. It could be described as a form of artificial or "heightened" documentary. Although the genre has existed in some form or another since the early year of television, the current explosion of popularity dates from around 2000. Reality television covers a wide range of television programming formats, from games to quiz shows which resemble the frantic, often demeaning programmes produced in Japan in the 1980s and 1990s (a modern example is Gaki no Tsukai), to surveillance - or voyeurism - focused production such as Big Brother. Critics say that the term "reality televisionâ&#x20AC;? is somewhat of a misnomer and that such shows frequently portray a modified and highly influenced form of reality, with participants put in exotic locations or abnormal situations, sometimes coach to act in certain ways by off-screen handlers, and with events on screen manipulated through editing and other post-production techniques. Part of reality television's appeal is due to its ability to place ordinary people in extraordinary situations. For example, on the ABC show, The Bachelor, an eligible male dates a dozen women simultaneously, travelling on extraordinary dates to scenic locales. Reality television also has the potential to turn its participants into national celebrities, outwardly in talent and performance programs such as Pop Idol, though frequently Survivor and Big Brother participants also reach some degree of celebrity. Some commentators have said that the name "reality television" is an inaccurate description of several styles of program included in the genre. In competition-based programs such as Big Brother and Survivor, and other special-living-environment shows like the Real World, the producers design the format of the show and control the day-to-day activities and the environment, creating a completely

fabricated world in which the competition plays out. Producers specifically select the participants, and use carefully designed scenarios, challenges, events, and settings to encourage particular behaviours and conflicts. Mark Burnett, creator of Survivor and other reality shows, has agreed with this assessment, and avoids the word "reality” to describe his shows; he has said, "I tell good stories. It really is not reality TV. It really is unscripted drama." 111. In the first line, the writer says “it is claimed” because ____. A. he wants to distance himself from the statement B. he totally disagrees with the statement C. everybody except the writer agrees with the statement D. he wants to emphasize that it is his own claim 112. The word demeaning in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ____. A. valueless

B. humiliating

C. despising

D. diminishing

113. According to the passage, Reality TV appeals to some because ____. A. it uses exotic locations B. it shows eligible men dating women C. it can turn ordinary people into celebrities D. it shows average people in exceptional circumstances 114. According to the passage, the program “Pop Idol” ____. A. is more likely to turn its participants into celebrities than Big Brother B. turns all participants into celebrities C. is a dating show D. is less likely to turn participants into celebrities than Big Brother 115. Producers choose the participants ____. A. to make an imaginary world

B. on the ground of talent

C. to create conflict among other things

D. only for special-living-environment shows

116. The term “reality television” is inaccurate ____. A. for talent and performance programs

B. for special-living-environment program

C. for all programs

D. for Big Brother and Survivor

117. The word fabricated in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ____. A. real

B. imaginative

C . imaginary

D. isolated

118. Which of the following in NOT true according to the passage? A. Shows like Survivor have good narratives. B. Mark Burnett thinks the term "reality television” is inaccurate. C. Reality television has been popular since well before 2000. D. Japan has produced demeaning TV shows copied elsewhere. Exercise 11. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. A POWERFUL INFLUENCE

There can be no doubt (119) ____ that the Internet has made a huge difference to our lives. Parents are worried that children spend too much time playing on the Internet, hardly (120) ____ doing anything else in their spare time. Naturally, parents are (121) ____ to find out why the Internet is so attractive, and they want to know if it can be harmful for their children. Should parents worry if their children are spending that much time (122) ____ their computers? Obviously, if children are bent over their computers for hours, (123) ____ in some game, instead of doing their homework, then soothing is wrong. Parents and children could decide how much use the child should (124) ____ of the Internet, and the child should give his or her (125) ____ that it won't interfere with homework. If the child is not (126) ____ to this arrangement, the parents can take more drastic steps. (127) ____ with a child's use of the Internet is not much different from negotiating any other sort of bargain about behavior. Any parent who is seriously alarmed about a child's behavior should make an appointment to discuss the matter with a teacher. Spending time in front of the screen does not (128) ____ affect a child's performance at school. Even if a child is (129) ____ crazy about using the Internet, he or she is probably just (130) ____ through a phase, and in a few months there will be something else to worry about! 119. A. at least

B. at all

C. at length

D. at most

120. A. ever

B. rarely

C. never

D. always

121. A. reluctant

B. concerned

C. curious

D. hopeful

122. A. watching

B. glancing at

C. glimpsing at

D. staring at

123. A. puzzled

B. absorbed

C. interested

D. occupied

124. A. cause

B. take

C. make

D. create

125. A. word

B. promise

C. vow

D. claim

126. A. holding

B. seeing

C. following

D. accepting

127. A. Agreeing

B. Dealing

C. Talking

D. Complaining

128. A. possibly

B. unlikely

C. probably

D. necessarily

129. A. absolutely

B. more

C. enough

D. a lot

130. A. going

B. experiencing

C. travelling

D. walking

Part VI. WRITING Exercise 12. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 131. Stephanie was the last person to hand in the essay on the advantages and disadvantages of social networks. A. The last thing Stephanie handed in was her essay on the advantages and disadvantages of social networks. B. Everyone had submitted the essay on the advantages and disadvantages of social networks before Stephanie did. C. Among the last people who submitted the essay on the advantages and disadvantages of social networks was Stephanie.

D. Everyone had heard about the essay on the advantages and disadvantages of social networks before Stephanie did. 132. My eldest sister started working as a freelance journalist as soon as she graduated from university. A. No sooner had my eldest sister started working as a freelance journalist than she graduated from university. B. Hardly had my eldest started working as a freelance journalist when she graduated from university. C. No sooner had my eldest sister graduated from university than she started working as a freelance journalist. D. After my eldest sister graduated from university, she had started working as a freelance journalist. 133. Nancy failed to understand what the story was about until she saw the film based on it. A. Nancy doesn't understand what the story is about. B. Not until she saw the film based on it did Nancy understand what the story was about. C. It was until she saw the film based on it that Nancy understood what the story was about. D. Nancy went to see the film before she read the story. 134. He was so addicted to social networks that he quitted all other outdoor activities. A. He was not addicted enough to quit all other outdoor activities. B. He was such an addict to social networks that he quitted all other outdoor activities. C. The social networks are too addictive for him to quit all other outdoor activities. D. He had quitted all other outdoor activities before he became addicted to social networks. 135. As long as you stay calm, you have nothing to fear from the talk show. A. You have remained calm for a long time in spite of your fear of the talk show. B. Talk shows are only intimidating for people who are not extremely calm. C. Provided you do not get nervous, the talk show won't go badly for you. D. Even if you are afraid of the talk show, it is important not to express it. 136. Had she read the reference books, she would have been able to finish the test. A. If she had read the reference books, she could finish the test. B. Not having read the reference books, she couldn't finish the test. C. Although she didn't read the reference books, she was able to finish the test. D. Because she read the reference books, she was able to finish the test. 137. â&#x20AC;&#x153;Jim, why don't you open a new account on Facebook or Twitter?â&#x20AC;? said Jane. A. Jane suggested Jim opened a new account on Facebook or Twitter. B. Jane suggested Jim opens a new account on Facebook or Twitter. C. Jane suggested Jim should open a new account on Facebook or Twitter. D. Jane suggested Jim to open a new account on Facebook or Twitter. 138. This music concert wouldn't have been possible without your sponsorship. A. If you didn't sponsor, this music concert wouldn't have been possible. B. Your sponsorship made it possible for this music concert to take place. C. If it had been for your sponsorship, this music concert wouldn't have been possible.

D. It's possible that your sponsorship made this music concert impossible. 139. The New York Times reports that Brad was awarded the first prize. A. It's reported that Brad wins the first prize. B. It's reported that Brad to be awarded the first prize. C. Brad is reported to have been awarded the first prize. D. The first prize is reported to award to Brad. 140. If I had known about their wedding plan earlier, I would have been able to make time to attend the reception party. A. I knew their wedding would be planned earlier so I made some time to attend the reception party. B. I wish I had known their wedding plan sooner so that I could arrange time to attend the reception party. C. I don't know their wedding plan earlier so I can't make time to attend the reception party. D. When I knew their wedding party, it was too late to attend the reception party. 141. The horror film didn't come up to our expectations. A. The horror film fell short of our expectations. B. We expected the horror film to end more abruptly. C. We expected the horror film to be more boring. D. The horror film was as good as we expected. 142. No sooner had I turned on my new PC than there was a strange noise. A. As soon as there was a strange noise, I turned on my new PC. B. Scarcely had I turned on my new PC when there was a strange noise. C. Hardly I had turned on my new PC, there was a strange noise. D. I had hardly turned on my new PC than there was a strange noise. 143. By the time Pete telephoned me, I had already finished updating my social networking profile. A. Pete telephoned me while I was updating my social networking profile. B. Pete telephoned me after I had already finished updating my social networking profile. C. Hardly I had finished updating my social networking profile when Pete telephoned me. D. When Pete telephoned me, I finished updating my social networking profile. 144. It was the first time she had ever seen such a moving documentary, A. She had never seen a moving documentary before. B. She had seen such a moving documentary for a long time. C. She had never seen a more moving documentary than this before. D. The first time she saw such a moving documentary was a long time ago 145. I was not in the mood for taking part in a chatting forum. A. I didn't want to join in a chatting forum. B. I was not in a good mood then to chat to you. C. Having a serious conversation made me moody. D. I was in a bad mood because of taking part in a chatting forum.

Unit 5. CULTURAL IDENTITY Part I. PHONETICS Exercise 1. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 1. A. international

B. nation

C. national

D. nationality

2. A. language

B. massage

C. marriage

D. shortage

3. A. because

B. nurse

C. horse

D. purpose

4. A. cultures

B. customs

C. ideas

D. migrants

5. A. passed

B. realized

C. touched

D. wished

Exercise 2. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. 6. A. anthem

B. appear

C. attire

D. attend

7. A. unify

B. unique

C. uniqueness

D. unite

8. A. assimilate

B. diagnose

C. festival

D. scenery

9. A. diversity

B. endanger

C. geography

D. opposite

10. A. circumstance

B. considerate

C. community

D. identity

Part II. VOCABULARY Exercise 3. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 11. When it comes to diversity, language can be a bridge for building relationships, or a tool for creating and maintaining divisions across differences. A. assimilation

B. distinction

C . uniformity

D. variance

12. The situation got out of hand when the festival organisers couldn't foresee that the mob would get angry because they were stopped from taking the offerings. A. hard to complete

B. difficult to control

C. impossible to find

D. unlikely to happen

13. A number of practices at local festivals have come under strong scrutiny in recent years. A. approval

B. attention

C. disapproval

D. examination

14. Local people believe that the festival is an opportunity to teach younger generations about patriotism and bravery. A. heroism

B.justice

C. loyalty

D. truth

15. A smiling Princess Anne was attired in an aqua-blue hat and matching jacket, with white top. A. caught

B. grabbed

C. revealed

D. shown

16. This is especially important in the age of globalisation, where countries face a daunting challenge to preserve their own cultural identities. A. intimidating

B. delighting

C. encouraging

D. urging

17. The Indigenous experience, like with any form of belonging, is highly fluid and context-specific, meaning there are countless examples of what such cultural pluralities can look like. A. countable

B. uncountable

C. too few to count

D. too many be counted

18. Steve Kootenay-Jobin, Aboriginal housing coordinator at Mount Royal University, notes that many Indigenous students who move to the city for education, encounter culture shock. A. avoid

B. confront

C. overcome

D. wipe out

19. Culture has been described as features that are shared and bind people together into a community. A. divide

B. engage

C. force

D. unite

20. Once you have been accepted as a pupil or student at the school or college, it's against the law for them to discriminate against you because of your religion or belief. A. judge

B. neglect

C. misinterpret

D. expel

21. Changes in attitudes, family values, generational status can occur in both the majority and minority cultures as the two interact; however, typically one culture dominates. A. normally

B. rarely

C. specially

D. uncommonly

22. Integration and assimilation can help reduce feelings of loss and grief as the migrant starts to incorporate aspects of the majority culture. A. disadvantage

B. disapproval

C. discrimination

D. sadness

Exercise 4. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 23. They fear that with the enactment event taken off, the festival may fade away in obscurity. A. darkness

B. dimness

C. fuzziness

D. sharpness

24. Launched by the federations and foundations, Group's brands find local expression through the promotion of social solidarity and culture. A. division

B. identity

C. teamwork

D. unity

25. Many ethnic groups find it hard to maintain their own languages. A. continue

B. discontinue

C. preserve

D. speak

26. The 21st century has witnessed the surprisingly increasing formation of multicultural societies where a varying number of ethnic people stay together. A. continental

B. global

C. universal

D. worldwide

27. The custom of worshiping ancestors is a beautiful, rich, and colorful and joyful tradition in Vietnamese culture. A. blaming

B. praying

C. honoring

D. respecting

28. He said he was only joking, but his comments were so close to the bone. A. annoying

B. offensive

C. personal

D. respectful

29. Hispanics are expected to abandon their heritage to live in the US. A. adopt

B. discard

C. drop out

D. withdraw

30. For this reason, many immigrants flock to this country in search for new beginnings and better lives. A. crowd

B. gather

C. group

D. spread

31. Nothing valuable could come of a revival of the German martial spirit, better to leave it behind or bury it. A. awakening

B. destruction

C. improvement

D. population

32. Kootenay-Jobin says the cultural integration experience can be exacerbated by challenges such as racism and housing. A. increased

B. improved

C. provoked

D. worsen

33. Cultural changes in identity can be stressful and result in problems with self-esteem and mental health. A. anxiety

B. confidence

C. dissatisfaction

D. modesty

34. Post-migration stresses include culture shock and conflict, both of which may lead to a sense of cultural confusion, feelings of alienation and isolation, and depression. A. disconnection

B. loneliness

C. sympathy

D. unfriendliness

Exercise 5. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 35. On a flip side, the world wide adoption of a couple of languages that have a large number of speakers has A

led to the death of several less popular languages. D 36. For conclusion, the death of local languages is an alarming development. A

37. Over fifty thousand English words have been deriving from the Greek language. A

38. It is important to understand the culture religion of the country that you are travelling to and a little research A

before you leave will help tremendous. D 39. Linguists aware that a language becoming extinct does not necessarily mean that the people who spoke it A

have all died. D 40. It is our duty to critically examine the elements, which we must preserve, which will be maintained as our A

specific cultural identities, which we can be proud. D 41. Even today, Breton as well as several other minority language in France, and the rest of the world, are not A

legally protected. D 42. Besides visiting ancient monuments and tombs, coming to Hue, you can also have a chance to bathe and A

lying under the sun on the most wildly beautiful beaches in Viet Nam. C

43. Sometimes people learn the outsiders' language in addition to their own; this has happened in Greenland, A

when Kalaallisut is learned alongside Danish. C

44. By some estimates, 80 per cents of the world's languages may vanish within the next centuries. A

45. Many signed languages, including American Sign Language, have born within the last few centuries. A

46. Minority communities, for instance, Aboriginal peoples, over 80% whose native languages will die with the A

current generation, account for most of the world's languages. D 47. According to linguists, children can learn several languages well, as good as they know when to speak each A

one. 48. According to me, I think if one is from the country with strong and old traditions, it will be rather difficult A

for him to adapt to the new customs and moreover to reject his own. C

49. Individuals define themselves by nationality, ethnic, language, clothing and food. A

50. In forest worshiping, people worship the gods of trees and villagers sacrificed their lives to protect the A

village. Part III. GRAMMAR Exercise 6. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 51. How long ____ Gerry? A. has you been knowing

B. has you know

C. have you been knowing

D. have you known

52. How many times ____ New York? A. has Charles been visiting

B. has Charles visited

C. have Charles been visiting

D. have Charles visited

53. She ____ French words for hours, but she still doesn't remember all of them. A. has been learning

B. has been learnt

C. has learnt

D. have been learning

54. My father ____. A. has never smoked

B. have never smoked

C. has never been smoking

D. have never been smoking

55. Oh dear, the light ____ all night. A. has been burning

B. has burnt

C. has burned

D. have burning

56. We ____ Lisa recently. A. hasn't seen

B. haven't seen

C. haven't been seeing

D. haven't been seen

57. I ____ fifteen phone calls this morning. A. has been making

B. have been making

C. have been made

D. have made

58. ____ anything so strange in your life? A. Have you ever been hearing

B. Have ever you been hearing

C. Have you ever heard

D. Have you ever heared

59. You're red in the face. ____ A. Has you ran?

B. Have you been runned?

C. Have you ran?

D. Have you been running?

60. The sun ____ since this morning. A. has shining

B. has shined

C. has shone

D. has been shining

61. How long ____ the drums? A. have you been playing

B. you have played

C. have you playing

D. have you played

62. The phone bill is enormous. You ____ your boyfriend in Australia, ____? A. have been called - have you

B. have called - haven't you

C. have been calling - haven't you

D. has called - hasn't you 63. He

63. He ____ on his essay all day, but he ____ yet. A. has been writing - has not finished

B. has writing - has not been finishing

C. have been written - have not finished

D. has written - has not been finishing

64. John ____ for the government since he graduated from Harvard University. Until recently, he ____ his work, but now he is talking about retiring. A. has been working - has not enjoyed

B. has writing - has been finishing

C. has worked - has been enjoying

D. has worked - have enjoyed

65. Lately, I ____ about changing my career because I ____ dissatisfied with the conditions at my company. A. have been thinking - have become

B. have been thinking - have been become

C. have thought - have become

D. have thought - have been becoming

66. My job gets ____ every year. A. harder and harder

B. harder and more harder

C. more harder and harder

D. more and more harder

67. She's getting over her operation. She feels ____. A. gooder and gooder

B. better and better

C. more better and better

D. more and more better

68. The market for tablets is becoming ____ all the time. A. competitiver and competitiver

B. more and more competitive

C. more competitiver and competitiver

D. more competitive and competitive

69. My dad's eyesight is getting ____. He can hardly see anything these days. A. more worser and worser

B. more and more worse

C. worse and worse

D. worser and worser

70. It's time you tidied your room. It's getting ____. A. messier and messier

B. more Messier and messier

C. more messy and messy

D. more and more messy

71. Visitors can ____ various types of “ao dai” costumes for free at the Ha Noi Global Cultural Center. A. dress up

B. put on

C. try on

D. wear out

72. Charles Dickens was born in Portsmouth, Hampshire in 1812, but relocated to and ____ in Camden Town in London. A. came back

B. called away

C. grew up

D. left out

C. make

D. take

73. It's easy to ____ your parents for granted. A. get

B. have

74. Every year several languages ____. Some people think that this is not important because life will be easier if there are fewer languages in the world. A. die away

B. die out

C. die off

D. die down

75. In all social systems, there is a minority group which is looked ____ by others in that culture and kept ____ of mainstream society. A. back on – up

B. down on - out

C. out of – down

D. through - back

76. Xoan singing is a vocal art of villages in the ancestral land of Phu Tho. It has been ____ for generations and the oral tradition is still very much alive today. A. handed down

B. landed on

C. passed by

D. taken over

77. Geographical position has given India a chance to develop a ____ culture and this cultural ____ is a big "pull" factor for travelers from different countries. A. unique – unique

B. unique - uniqueness

C. uniqueness – unique

D. uniqueness - uniqueness

78. Most companies show ____ against the obese. A. prejudice

B. prejudicing

C. prejudge

D. prejudging

79. Greek and Latin are the ____ sources of the international scientific vocabulary. A. predominant

B. predominance

C. predominated

D. predominating

80. Viet Nam's Hung Kings worshiping ____ in Phu Tho Province has become part of the world's intangible cultural heritage. A. ritual

B. ritualism

C. ritualistic

D. ritualizing

81. ____, but would you mind helping us on our essay? A. Sorry to bother you

B. Sorry for bothering

C. Sorry for such a bother

D. Sorry for having bothered you

82. Many parents afraid that their children are becoming less familiar ____ their traditions. A. to

B. from

C. for

D. against

83. Since moving to another country, some people decide to follow the customs of the new country, while ____ prefer to keep their own customs.

A. another

B. other

C. others

D. the other

84. The best way to preserve your culture is to keep it ____. A. alive

B. living

C. life

D. lively

85. Culture helps people ____ to the world around them. A. adapt

B. change

C. alter

D. fit

86. A broad definition of ____ is when two separate items, each with different characteristics, come together and blend. A. assimilation

B. diversity

C. preservation

D. urbanization

87. Many new immigrants have not yet assimilated fully ____ the new culture. A. into

B. with

C. in

D. by

88. Some people feel a strong ____ to keep their cultural identities. A. craving

B. pressure

C. urge

D. wish

89. The latest heritage at risk register revealed that 5,831 listed buildings, monuments, archaeological sites, and landscapes in England are at ____ of being lost. A. danger

B. edge

C. ease

D. risk

90. The objective is to promote the role of inhabitants and communities in the development of a modern architecture imbued ____ national identity. A. against

B. by

C. for

D. with

Part IV. SPEAKING Exercise 7. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges. 91. Alex: “Thank you for taking the time to come here in person.” Amy: “____” A. It's my pleasure.

B. I don't know what time that person comes.

C. I'd love to come. What time?

D. Do you have time for some gossip?

92. Alex: “How have you been recently?” Amy: “____” A. By bus, I think.

B. It's too late.

C. Pretty busy, I think.

D. No, I'll not be busy.

93. Jenny: “Thanks for the nice gift you bought to us!” Peter: “____” A. All right. Do you know how much it costs?

B. Not at all, don't mention it.

C. Actually speaking, I myself don't like it.

D. Welcome! it's very nice of you.

94. Jenny: “You must have found reading my essay very tiring.” Peter: “____ I enjoyed it." A. Not in the least.

B. Just in case.

C. At all costs.

D. You are welcome.

95. Jenny: “You are so patient with us.” Mrs. Green: “____” A. I'm fine, thanks.

B. Thanks, that's nice of you to say so.

C. Thanks. Have a nice trip.

D. I know. I have trouble controlling my temper.

96. Tom: “Can I have another cup of tea?” Mrs. Green: “____” A. Be yourself.

B. Do it yourself.

C. Help yourself.

D. Allow yourself.

97. Ken: “Where is your studying group going to meet next weekend?” Mark: “____” A. We are too busy on weekdays.

B. The library could be best.

C. Why don't you look at the atlas?

D. Studying in a group is great fun!

98. John: "Do you think that people should protect their cultural identities in the age of globalization?” Jane: “____” A. Of course not, you bet!

B. Well, that's very surprising.

C. There is no doubt about it.

D. Yes, it's an absorb idea.

99. Kay: "I don't do that if I were you." Amy: "____” A. I'd rather you didn't.

B. It's out of question.

C. Wouldn't you? Why?

D. Would you, really?

100. Jenny: “I think that some languages will no longer be spoken." Anna: “____” A. Don't you think so?

B. I'm afraid so.

C. I agree. It sounds nice.

D. Let's speak up.

101. "It was very kind of you to help me out, Paul?” Paul: “____” A. I'm glad you like it.

B. Thanks a million.

C. That was the least I could do.

D. You can say that again.

102. Amy: "Would you mind sending those flowers to Mrs. Brown?"" Mark: “____” A. He wouldn't mind.

B. I would if I were you.

C. No, I can handle it myself.

D. Sure, I'll do it now.

103. Mary: "I'll never do that again”. Linda: "Me ____.” A. do so

B. too

C. neither

D. either

104. Jackson: "I get impatient when the teacher doesn't tell us the answer.” Rose: “____” A. Yes, it's hard to think of the answer.

B. Yes, I wish she'd hurry up.

C. Yes, she would know the answer.

D. Yes, she speaks too quickly.

105. Jane: "Don't fail to send your parents my regards." Ben: “____” A. You are welcome.

B. Good idea, thanks.

C. Thanks, I'll.

D. It's my pleasure.

Part V. READING Exercise 8. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. Why is culture important and how does it answer the question "(106) ____ is cultural identity?"? Culture is the underlying (107) ____ of traditions and beliefs that help a person (108) ____ to the world around them. It is the basis (109) ____ any superstitions they may have. It is the aversion to (110) ____ types of meat, or which days you can work on. Culture gives us a definite starting point when beginning to (111) ____ for our roots. Knowing (112) ____ a person comes from will help to define how they look at their family obligations as (113) ____ as how they celebrate important milestones in life. As a person has given up their cultural identity, they (114) ____ can identify themselves with the things that were (115) ____ the most important things in their lives. They lose direction. As time (116) ____ by and they continue to forget about their past and their natural traditions, their identity becomes less and less (117) ____. 106. A. How

B. Which

C. Why

D. What

107. A. institution

B. foundation

C. organization

D. principle

108. A. relate

B. relating

C. related

D. to relate

109. A. in

B. for

C. of

D. to

110. A. especial

B. special

C. specific

D. typical

111. A. find

B. look

C. search

D. seek

112. A. by which

B. how

C. when

D. where

113. A. long

B. much

C. soon

D. well

114. A. any longer

B. any more

C. no longer

D. no more

115. A. at once

B. once

C. one time

D. for once

116. A. goes

B. flies

C. passes

D. walks

117. A. pronouncing

B. pronounce

C. pronounced

D. been pronouncing

Exercise 9. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Modern life is characterized not only by the conveniences made possible by technological advances but also by greater mobility in search of still greater opportunities. These major life changes, however, expose individuals to many novelties in a new culture, which are the causes of culture shock. Culture shock is a process through which most people who enter a new culture pass through before they adjust to life in their new environment. Culture shock begins with the honeymoon stageâ&#x20AC;?. This is the period of time when we first arrive in which everything about the new culture is strange and exciting. Unfortunately, the second stage "rejection stage" can be quite dangerous because the visitor may develop unhealthy habits (smoking and drinking). This can lead to the person getting sick or developing skin infections or rashes, which then makes the person feel even more scared and confused and helpless. This stage is considered a crisis in the process of cultural adjustment and many people choose to go back to their homeland or spend all

their time with people from their own culture speaking their native language. The third stage of culture shock is called the "adjustment stage”. This is when you begin to realize that things are not so bad in the host culture. You are becoming stronger by learning to take care of yourself in the new place. The fourth stage can be called “at ease at last”. Now you feel quite comfortable in your new surroundings. You can cope with most problems that occur. You may still have problems with the language, but you know you are strong enough to deal with them. The last stage of culture shock, which many people don't know about, is called "reverse culture shock”. Surprisingly, this occurs when you go back to your native culture and find that you have changed and that things there have changed while you have been away. Now you feel a little uncomfortable back home. Life is a struggle! 118. Which sentence best explains the main idea of paragraph 1? A. Culture shock, experienced by people living in a new culture, consists of five basic stages. B. People immigrate to other countries in search of better opportunities. C. Modern life is characterized by many technological advances and greater mobility. D. These major life changes are the causes of culture shock. 119. It is stated that the "honeymoon stage” ____. A. is involved in developing healthy habits B. is exciting with the new sights, sounds, language and foods C. is the initial period of culture shock D. got its name because everything is new and exciting for the newcomer 120. In paragraph 1, the word novelties probably means ____. A. things which are new or unusual

B. things which are difficult to deal with

C. things which have to do with novels

D. things which are very young or recent in age

121. In paragraph 2, the word host probably means ____. A. the dominant country

B. the largest country

C. the newcomer's native country

D. the receiving country

122. Which of the following is NOT true according the passage? A. At forth stage, newcomers have overcome all problems in the new culture. B. Immigrants may suffer from "reverse culture shock” when going back to native culture. C. New arrivals in the second stage, "reject” the new culture by returning to their country or binding even more with other people from their culture. D. The "rejection stage” is the most difficult stage in the process of cultural adjustment. Exercise 10. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. In the Native American Navajo nation which sprawls across four states in the American south-west, the native language is dying. Most of its speakers are middle-age or elderly. Although many students take classes in Navajo, the schools are run in English. Street sign, supermarket goods and even their own newspaper are all in English. Not surprisingly, linguists doubt that any native speakers of Navajo will remain in a hundred years' time.

Navajo is far from alone. Half the world's 6,800 languages are likely to vanish within two generations that's one language lost every ten days. Never before has the planet's linguistic diversity shrunk at such a pace. Isolation breeds linguistic diversity as a result, the world is peppered with languages spoken by only a few people. Only 250 languages have more than a million speakers, and at least 3,000 have fewer than 2,500. It is not necessarily these small languages that are about to disappear. Navajo is considered endangered despite having 150,000 speakers. What makes a language endangered is not that the number of speakers, but how old they are. If it is spoken by children it is relatively safe. The critically endangered languages are those that are only spoken by the elderly, according to Michael Krauss, director of the Alaska Native Language Center, in Fairbanks. Why do people reject the language of their parent? It begins with a crisis of confidence, when a small community finds itself alongside a larger, wealthier society, says Nicholas Ostler of Britain's Foundation for Endangered Languages, in Bath. “People lose faith in their culture” he says. "When the next generation reaches their teens, they might not want to be induced into the old tradition.” The change is not always voluntary. Quite often, governments try to kill off a minority language by banning its use in public or discouraging its use in school, all to promote national unity. The former US policy of running Indian reservation in English, for example, effectively put languages such as Navajo on the danger list. But Salikoko Mufwene, who chairs the Linguistics Department at the University of Chicago, argues that the deadliest weapon is not government policy but economic globalisation. "Native Americans have not lost pride in their language, but they have had to adapt to socio-economic pressures" he says. “They cannot refuse to speak English if most commercial activity is in English." However, a growing interest in cultural identity may prevent the direct predictions from coming true. ‘The key to fostering diversity is for people to learn their ancestral tongue, as well as the dominant language' says Doug Whalen, founder and president of the Endangered Language Fund in New Haven, Connecticut. “Most of these will ive without a large degree of bilingualism” he says. 123. It is stated in the passage that the number of endangered languages is ____. A. about 3,200

B. about 6,800

C. at least 3,000

D. fewer than 2,500

124. The word peppered in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ____. A. randomly separated

B. slowly attacked

C. sparsely distributed

D. unintentionally controlled

125. According to the passage, endangered languages cannot be saved unless people ____. A. avoid speaking their dominant language

B. grow interest in cultural identities

C. know more than one language

D. write in their mother tongue

126. Who thinks that a change of language may mean a loss of traditional culture? A. Doug Whalen

B. Michael Krauss

C. Nicholas Ostler

D. Salikoko Mufwene

127. The word these in paragraph 5 refers to ____. A. ancestral tongue

B. dominant language

C. growing interest in cultural identity

D. the key to fostering diversity

128. Navajo language is considered being endangered language because ____. A. it currently has too few speakers B. it is spoken by too many elderly and middle-aged speakers C. it was banned in publicity by the former US policy D. many young people refuse to learn to speak it 129. Which statement is NOT supported by the information in the passage? A. A large number of native speakers fail to guarantee the survival of a language. B. National governments could do more to protect endangered languages. C. The loss of linguistic diversity is inevitable. D. Young people often reject the established way of life in their community. 130. What is the main idea of this passage? A. To describe how diverse languages are in the past. B. To explain the importance of persevering endangered languages. C. To explain why more and more languages disappear. D. To point out that many languages being in danger of extinction. Part VI. WRITING Exercise 11 Mark the letter A, B, C. or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 131. It is hard for linguists to draw the line between languages and dialects. A. Linguists find hard to draw the line between languages and dialects. B. Linguists find it hard drawing the line between languages and dialects. C. Linguists find it hard to draw the line between languages and dialects. D. Linguists find it is hard to draw the line between languages and dialects. 132. Cultural changes have never been as accelerated as they are now during the globalization. A. Never before cultural changes have been as accelerated as they are now during the globalization. B. Never before cultural have changes been as accelerated as they are now during the globalization. C. Never before have been cultural changes as accelerated as they are now during the globalization. D. Never before have cultural changes been as accelerated as they are now during the globalization. 133. Many immigrants do not want their children to suffer from not speaking dominant language well, as they did. A. Many immigrants do not want their children to speak dominant language as worse as they did. B. Many immigrants want their children to speak dominant language better than they did. C. Many immigrants want their children to speak dominant language as well as they did. D. Many immigrants want to speak dominant language as well as their children can. 134. I think childhood is the best time to learn languages well. A. According to my opinion, children are the best to learn languages well. B. In my opinion, there is no time that is better than childhood to learn languages well. C. My opinion is that we can learn languages well only in our childhood.

D. To me, there is no time that is as good as childhood to learn languages well. 135. People often mistakenly think that children can learn to speak only one language well. A. Children are often believed to be able to speak only one language well and it's true. B. It is often believed that children cannot learn to speak several languages. C. It is not true that children can learn to speak only one language well. D. It is normal to believe that children can learn to speak only one language well. 136. There are over fifty ethnic groups but we all use Vietnamese as the official language. A. Although there are over fifty ethnic groups, we all use Vietnamese as the official language. B. Despite there are over fifty ethnic groups, we all use Vietnamese as the official language. C. However, there are over fifty ethnic groups, we all use Vietnamese as the official language. D. In spite of using Vietnamese as the official language, there are over fifty ethnic groups. 137. There's no point in preventing people from shifting to a different language. A. It is possible to prevent people from shifting to a different language. B. It's useless to prevent people from shifting to a different language. C. People will be prevented from shifting to a different language though it's hard. D. No one wants to prevent people from shifting to a different language. 138. Languages allow people to experience and share their cultures. A. People are able to experience and share their cultures through languages. B. People are not allowed to experience and share their cultures without languages. C. People must experience and share their cultures by languages. D. People cannot experience and share their cultures without languages. 139. Preserving cultural identities in international world is a matter of great dispute. A. It is a great dispute as cultural identities should be preserved in international. B. No matter how great dispute is, cultural identities should be preserved in international. C. That the dispute of preserving cultural identities in international world is a great matter. D. The fact that cultural identities should be preserved in international world is a matter of great dispute. Exercise 12. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 140. Sacred texts and ceremonies can seem confusing with no one there to guide. Young people find an expert willing to explain their significance. A. Although sacred texts and ceremonies can seem confusing with no one there to guide, young people are forced to find an expert willing to explain their significance. B. Because sacred texts and ceremonies can seem confusing with no one there to guide, so young people are willing to find an expert to explain their significance. C. For sacred texts and ceremonies can seem confusing with no one there to guide, young people might find an expert willing to explain their significance. D. Since sacred texts and ceremonies can seem confusing with no one there to guide, young people are supposed to find an expert willing to explain their significance.

141. Culture, language, facilities or economy level of the family are different. Vocal guidelines and acting in daily activities are the ways of the life experience knowledge transfer. A. Vocal guidelines and acting in daily activities are the ways of the life experience knowledge transfer despite of different culture, language, facilities or economy level of the family. B. Vocal guidelines and acting in daily activities are the ways of the life experience powledge transfer regardless of different culture, language, facilities or economy level of the family. C. Vocal guidelines and acting in daily activities are the ways of the life experience knowledge transfer due to different culture, language, facilities or economy level of the family. D. Vocal guidelines and acting in daily activities are the ways of the life experience knowledge transfer although different culture, language, facilities or economy level of the family. 142. We can't deny the potential influences of global communications on our cultural identity, as it will become even more powerful. A. It can be undeniable that global communications will become even more powerful in potentially influencing our cultural identity. B. It cannot deny that global communications will become even more powerful in potentially influencing our cultural identity. C. It cannot be denied that global communications will become even more powerful in potentially influencing our cultural identity. D. It hardly deny that global communications will become even more powerful in potentially influencing our cultural identity. 143. We accept that changes are unavoidable. We will not allow everything to be wiped out, destroyed or forgotten. A. Accepting that changes are unavoidable does not mean that we will allow everything to be wiped out, destroyed or forgotten. B. Despite accepting that changes are unavoidable, but we will not allow everything to be wiped out, destroyed or forgotten. C. Rather than accepting that changes are unavoidable we will allow everything to be wiped out, destroyed or forgotten. D. We accept that changes are unavoidable, as we will not allow everything to be wiped out, destroyed or forgotten. 144. People have given up their heritage, traditional beliefs and other aspects of their native culture. They begin to lose their sense of self. A. If people have not given up their heritage, traditional beliefs and other aspects of their native culture, they will not lose their sense of self. B. Giving up their heritage, traditional beliefs and other aspects of their native culture means that people totally lose their sense of self. C. Once people have given up their heritage, traditional beliefs and other aspects of their native culture, they are about to lose their sense of self.

D. Whenever people have given up their heritage, traditional beliefs and other aspects of their native culture, they are supposed to lose their sense of self. 145. Thousands of languages are at risk of extinction. You know one of them, then teach it to others. A. As long as you know one of thousands of languages that are at risk of extinction, then teach it to others. B. If you know one of thousands of languages that are at risk of extinction, teach it to others. C. For you know one of thousands of languages that are at risk of extinction, teach it to others. D. Whenever you know one of thousands of languages that are at risk of extinction, then teach it to others.

Unit 6. ENDANGERED SPECIES Part I. PHONETICS Exercise 1. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 1. A. endangered

B. gorilla

C. global

D. dragon

2. A. change

B. poaching

C. chemical

D. achievement

3. A. horn

B. vehicle

C. hippo

D. habitat

4. A. species

B. nest

C. special

D. helpful

5. A. snorkelling

B. sensitive

C. diversity

D. reserve

Exercise 2. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. 6. A. visit

B. extinct

C. survive

D. evolve

7. A. dangerous

B. survivor

C. habitat

D. vulnerable

8. A. convenient

B. endanger

C. critical

D. tradition

9. A. pollution

B. collision

C. protection

D. valuable

10. A. migrate

B. giant

C. panda

D. rhino

Part II. VOCABULARY Exercise 3. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 11. All types of dinosaurs went extinct long time ago. A. thrived

B. boomed

C. survived

D. died out

12. We need to prepare for our biology assignment about endangered plant species. A. harmless

B. dangerous

C. likely to go extinct

D. harmful

13. These animals are quite vulnerable when living near the industrial zone. A. calm

B. easily hurt

C. safe

D. relaxed

14. Every year, in Africa a lot of elephants are poached for tusks. A. illegally hunted

B. gently cooked

C. boiled

D. stewed

15. More complex animals gradually evolved from these very simple creatures. A. resolved

B. involved

C. revolted

D. developed

16. Many species are threatened in the wild due to habitat destruction by man. A. usual behaviour

B. favourite activity

C. place of living

D. rituals

C. thriving

D. developing

17. These animals are now on the verge of extinction. A. natural tendency

B. no longer existing

18. This forest contains many rare specie of plants. A. in small numbers

B. real

C. half-cock

D. not done properly

C. get over

D. continue to live

19. Many birds didn't survive the severe winter. A. have enough food

B. surprise

20. The main threat to the survival of these creatures comes from their loss of habitat.

A. service

B. surprise

C. continuing to exist

D. no longer existing

21. Darwin's theory of evolution incorporates the principle of natural selection. A. radical revolution

B. gradual development

C. radical resolution

D. practical involvement

22. Environmentalists try to persuade the governments to see the need to preserve biological diversity. A. variety

B. direction

C. similarity

D. closeness

23. Through the years they have made significant contributions to species conservation. A. protest

B. protection

C. production

D. induction

24. There are several reasons why we should protect endangered species. A. argue against

B. disapprove

C. guard from harm

D. make known

25. We need to take action to help preserve fish stocks. A. serve

B. prepare

C. reserve

D. conserve

26. At the moment it is difficult to assess the extent of the damage that his company has caused to the environment. A. loss

B. useful benefits

C. advantage

D. nuances

C. expanded

D. devastated

27. The rainforest is being systematically destroyed. A. developed

B. exploited

28. A number of mammal species roamed widely around the northern hemisphere. A. wandered

B. roared

C. explored

D. discovered

29. Komodo dragons are fierce hunters and can eat very large preys. A. sharp

B. aggressive

C. friendly

D. cooperative

30. What was fascinating to me was the way the creatures moved. A. extremely fast

B. completely boring

C. extremely interesting

D. completely motivating

31. Environmentalists dedicate a lot of their time to running campaigns to raise people's awareness about protecting endangered species. A. eliminate

B. save

C. waste

D. devote

32. Malaysia local authorities have made efforts to restore the population of sea turtles. A. pay back

B. realize

C. relax

D. give back

33. Many wildlife reserves have been set up in this country. A. money reserves

B. booking reservations

C. protected areas

D. emergency fund

34. Turtle enclosures save baby turtles from natural predators like birds, crabs, and lizards. A. survivors

B. hunters

C. savers

D. protectors

35. Dinosaurs were unable to survive severe ice age weather conditions. A. harsh

B. separate

C. safe

D. serious

36. We should have better law enforcement to stop poaching. A. implementation

B. enlightenment

C. encouragement

D. endorsement

37. Money spent on protecting endangered species should be used for improving me of the local people. A. improvising

B. enhancing

C. implementing

D. enacting

C. decreasing

D. developing

38. Today, the elephants' population is declining. A. remaining stable

B. going up

39. Fish are still abundant in that lake. A. scarce

B. available

C. decreasing

D. plentiful

40. Elephants play an important role in maintaining biodiversity. A. retaining

B. stopping

C. pausing

D. ending

41. Elephants break up thorny bushes to create grasslands for other animals to inhabit. A. come in

B. live in

C. like

D. prefer

42. Elephants droppings are vital to the environment. A. controversial

B. trivial

C. essential

D. optional

Exercise 4. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 43. The fire will go out unless we put some more wood on. A. go off

B. go in

C. stop burning

D. continue burning

44. Let's clear up this rubbish and put it in the bin. A. mess up

B . clear away

C. tidy

D. clear off

45. The environmental pollution level in this area has built up a lot over recent years. A. increased

B. decreased

C. blocked

D. concentrated

46. All visitors are kept out of the conservation area. A. prevented from entering

B. prevented from destroying

C. allowed to enter

D. allowed to take photos

47. It is predicted that the natural resources will run out by the end of the century. A. come in

B. run short

C. run away

D. remain intact

48. It is urgent that these governments work out a solution to the problem that they are all facing. A. keep secret

B. find

C. share

D. arrive at

49. In order to protect endangered species, it is important that all people join in. A. participate

B. leave

C. take part

D. enjoy

50. Many people decided to give up eating meat and become vegetarians. A. cut up

B. put up

C. continue

D. use up

Part III. GRAMMAR Exercise 5. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 51. As soon as we will arrive, we will unpack the car. A

52. By this time next week, I am lying on a beach on the Bahamas. A

53. When I will see him, I will tell him you want to speak to him. A

54. Take a book with you, in case you will have to wait for a long time. A

55. Do you realize that by this time next week we have been in Paris? A

56. I'm sure you will be glad when we finally will arrive. A

57. By the time we will arrive, everybody will have left. A

58. Looking at the schedule it says the boat will leaves at ten tonight. A

59. I know Jenny calls later and as soon as she does I'm going to tell her what's happened. A

60. The more time you spend on prepare for the test, the higher scores you may get. A

61. The more you practise speaking in your class, the more better you are at public speaking. A

62. The more better I study about endangered species, the more I worry about their extinction. A

63. The warmer the weather get around the world, the faster the polar ice caps will melt. A

64. The more renewable energy sources we use, the more better our living conditions will become. A

65. As people need more land to build houses, they cut down on more forests. A

66. The unemployment rate is getting higher, so that the crime rate is becoming higher as well. A

Exercise 6. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 67. Rare animal extinction is one of the things that could have happened. A. good

B. best

C. worse

D. worst

68. We need to do this ____ than we are at the moment. A. quickly

B. the quickest

C. more quickly

D. most quickly

C. has

D. can

69. Mary speaks English better than her sister ____. A. is

B. Ă&#x2DC;

70. Looking after a kitten is ____ more difficult than I thought it would be. A. far

B. farther

C. further

71. Living in a big city isn't ____ interesting as I thought it would be.

D. father

A. less

B. most

C. more

D. as

72. It has been a really bad journey, but I think the ____ is behind us. A. good

B. better

C. worst

D. worse

73. I'm quite disappointed in you as I know you can do ____. A. bad

B. better

C. worst

D. good

74. He arrived ____ than anyone else, so he had to wait more than an hour. A. earlier

B. more early

C. early

D. earliest

75. It is getting hotter and ____ every summer. I guess that is the result of global warming. A. less

B. more

C. colder

D. hotter

76. The meal was a bit ____ expensive than we expected, but it was very nice. A. least

B. less

C. more

D. most

77. I've never eaten such a strange thing ____ this before. A. similar

B. as

C. same

D. look like

C. will start

D. will have started

78. By the time we get there, the film ____. A. starts

B. started

79. If we don't protect these rare species, they ____ by 2030s. A. die out

B. will die out

C. will have died out

D. have died out

80. Next December, they ____ for twenty years. A. will have been married

B. have been married

C. are married

D. were married

81. By the time you come home, I ____ the decorating. A. have finished

B. will have finished

C. are finishing

D. finished

C. will have replaced

D. have replaced

82. By the year 2050, computers ____ teachers. A. replace

B. will replace

83. Jim and Laura ____ here for four years next June. A. have lived

B. will live

C. will be living

D. will have lived

84. This chess game is going to last ages. They ____ it until midnight. A. won't have finished

B. will finish

C. have finished

D. finish

C. Will you be reading

D. Have you read

85. ____ this book by the time it is due back to the library? A. Will you read

B. Will you have read

86. I hope I ____ before I'm thirty. A. win a lot of prizes

B. will win a lot of prizes

C. will have won a lot of prizes

D. have won a lot of prizes

87. Maybe I ____ famous by the age of thirty-five. A. become

B. have become

C. will become

D. will have become

88. I hope I ____ millions of dollars from my business by the age of forty. A. make

B. will make

C. have made

D. will have made

89. At ten o'clock, I ____ my mathematics homework for three hours. A. will be doing

B. will have been doing

C. have done

D. do

90. We probably ____ by the time you get home. A. don't leave

B. won't leave

C. won't have left

D. haven't left

Part IV. SPEAKING Exercise 7. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges. Two friends Nam and Lan are talking about the topic of endangered species. 91. Nam: Would you like to join my wildlife protection team? Lan: ____ A. Yes, I like working for this organization very much. B. Thank you. I've always wanted to do something to help. C. Where is it located? D. There are so many wildlife protection teams. 92. Lan: Can we meet this Sunday to discuss our plan for the wildlife protection project? Nam: ____ A. Yes, we did that.

B. Sunday is the weekend.

C. Sunday suits me fine.

D. Sunday is a great day.

93. Nam: What do you think about killing animals like dogs and cats for food? Lan: ____ A. It is really cruel.

B. I prefer dogs to cats.

C. Both of them are pets.

D. Dogs are really faithful.

94. Lan: Do you think I should accept an offer to do voluntary work in the zoo? Nam: ____ A. Why did they offer you the job?

B. Zoos have a lot of animals.

C. Voluntary work is meaningful.

D. I definitely think you should say yes.

95. Nam: I'd like to hear your ideas on how to protect vulnerable species. Lan: ____ A. I'd say people's awareness is very important.

B. You're always asking me for advice.

C. I like your ideas so much.

D. These animals are vulnerable.

96. Nam: I'm planning to raise a couple of rabbits at home. Lan: ____ A. Rabbits are very fast.

B. I've never seen rabbits before.

C. I've decided to raise a cat.

D. That's a good idea.

97. Nam: Do you want me to give you a lift home? Lan: ____ A. A lift? No, I'm afraid of height.

B. Thank you. It's very kind of you!

C. I live in a flat on the eighth floor.

D. My house doesn't have a lift.

98. Nam: If you like, I can check the deadline for our assignment. Lan: ____ A. I don't really like this assignment.

B. Assignments are just a waste of time.

C. Thanks, but that won't be necessary.

D. I am scared of deadlines.

99. Nam: Would you mind if sometimes I called at around 10 pm to discuss our assignment? Lan: ____ A. No, of course not.

B. Yes, of course I would.

C. I mind a lot.

D. I like discussions.

100. Nam: Could you find all the information related to Komodo dragons? Lan: ____ A. Komodo dragons are also vulnerable.

B. Are they still living?

C. I've never heard of them. What do they look like?

D. I think that'll be very difficult.

101. Lan: Do you enjoy visiting zoos? Nam: ____ A. Zoos are places where animals are kept.

B. I've visited that zoo twice.

C. Yeah, that's really fun.

D. I like funny animals.

102. Lan: Have you ever visited a botanical garden or a nature park? Nam: ____ A. There is a botanical garden in the area. B. Yes, only once when I was 12. C. There are a lot of trees and flowers in the botanical garden. D. Nature parks are expensive to maintain. 103. Lan: Are you concerned about animals becoming extinct? Nam: ____ A. I'm really worried. Our biodiversity will be broken.

B. When will they become extinct?

C. Which animals are endangered?

D. I love keeping animals as pets.

104. Nam: What animals in our country are endangered? Lan: ____ A. Are they endangered animals?

B. Endangered animals are dangerous.

C. Endangered animals should be protected.

D. Tigers and elephants are nearly extinct.

105. Lan: How can we protect endangered species? Nam: ____ A. It is out of the question. B. Both the governments and individuals need to help them. C. Poachers don't care about endangered animals. D. All endangered animals are extinct. Part V. READING Exercise 8. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word that best fits each of the numbered blanks. Alligators have always been the most dangerous predators of the Florida Everglades, (106) ____ their long-held position is now being challenged by a (107) ____ population of Burmese pythons.

The Burmese python, a giant snake measuring up to 20 feet (108) ____ and weighing up to 200 pounds, is very (109) ____ among exotic pet owners. However, as the (110) ____ snakes grow, they become more difficult to cage and handle. To avoid dealing with the snakes, the owners irresponsibly release them into the wild. Since the Everglades is (111) ____ similar to the python's native environment of Southeast Asia, they survive and (112) ____ without difficulty. The issue with the Burmese pythons is their (113) ____ of meals. They eat alligators and endangered birds, which (114) ____ strain on an already fragile ecosystem. Recently a 13-foot long Burmese python was found with a 5-foot alligator bursting from its stomach. The python died (115) ____ to eat the alligator but a larger one would have easily won the struggle. With over 30,000 Burmese pythons now living (116) ____ the Everglades, a solution to stop this invasive species is necessary. If the pythons are left unchecked, there is a strong possibility they will wipe out a variety of species (117) ____ for the functioning of the Everglades ecosystem. 106. A. but

B. so

C. because

D. since

107. A. grow

B. growing

C. growth

D. grown

108. A. length

B. lengthen

C. long

D. longer

109. A. popular

B. famous

C. typical

D. scarce

110. A. dead

B. died

C. death

D. deadly

111. A. quiet

B. quite

C. quit

D. quietly

112. A. prospect

B. protect

C. prosper

D. protest

113. A. choice

B. choose

C. chose

D. chosen

114. A. makes

B. gives

C. gets

D. creates

115. A. try

B. trying

C. tried

D. trial

116. A. over

B. under

C. in

D. on

117. A. necessary

B. necessity

C. need

D. needed

Exercise 9. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. The Sahara Desert is the world's largest hot desert. The Sahara is in North Africa and is as large as the United States. Many people think that an area like this has no animals or plant life, but they are incorrect. In fact, the Sahara Desert has many different 'ecoregionsâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;. Each ecoregion has different plants and animals living there. The biggest ecoregion is called the 'Sahara Desert ecoregion.' In this area, the climate is extremely dry and extremely hot. The landscape is sandy and dusty with many high dunes. Because the Sahara Desert ecoregion is so hot and dry, there are very few plants and animals. Scientists estimate that there are only 500 species of plants. This is not very much when thinking of how enormous the region is. These plants include acacia trees, palms, spiny shrubs, and grasses. The Sahara is also home to 70 species of mammals. Twenty of these are large mammals. There are about 90 species of birds and around 100 reptiles. The biggest threat to plants and animals in this environment is drying up. Because of this, plants have the ability to recover their health after their leaves have dried out completely. Animals can lose 30-60%

of their body mass and still survive. Most animals do not get their water from drinking like other ecosystems. Instead, they have adapted to get their water through metabolic processes. This is why they can survive in a place like the Sahara Desert ecosystem. 118. What is the text mostly about? A. Location of the Sahara Desert.

B. Hot weather of the Sahara Desert.

C. How animals survive on this Desert.

D. The Sahara Desert and its ecosystem.

119. Which of the following is TRUE? A. The Sahara Desert has no animals or plants.

B. It is the second largest desert.

C. It is in North Africa.

D. It is in the United States.

120. In paragraph 1, the word they refers to ____. A. people

B. plants

C. animals

D. ecoregions

121. In paragraph 2, the word estimate is closest in meaning to ____. A. confirm

B. calculate

C. formulate

D. participate

122. All of the following are true about the Sahara Desert EXCEPT ____. A. there are about five hundred types of plants

B. seventy species of mammals can be found there

C. it is home to about ninety species of birds

D. Fewer than 100 reptiles are found there

123. Why can animals and plants survive in the Sahara Desert? A. They try to reduce the water intake.

B. They get water from the irrigation system.

C. They get water through metabolic process.

D. They don't really need water for a long time.

Exercise 10. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Amphibians are an animal group that includes frogs, toads, salamanders, and newts. These animals live in and out of the water. The number of amphibians on our planet is declining rapidly in both local mass extinctions and population crashes. This is a cause for concern as many scientists believe that humans are responsible. Since the 1980s, scientists have noticed a decline in amphibian populations. Although many animals are affected by humans, amphibians have been hit particularly hard. Some scientists believe this is because of their two-stage life cycle. Unlike most animals, amphibians live their lives in two distinct stages. The first is aquatic and the second is terrestrial. This means amphibians are sensitive to environmental changes in the water and on land. They also have permeable skin, which means that toxins and chemicals can easily get into their bodies. At first, some scientists did not believe that human pollution was the cause for changes in amphibian populations. These scientists believed that every species on Earth goes through natural cycles and changes and that there was not enough long-term data to prove that humans were the problem. In recent years, this has changed. Almost all biologists are concerned about the decline in amphibian populations. They are worried not only because many amphibians may go extinct, but also because these extinctions will affect other plants and animals in ecosystems. They believe that the decline in amphibian populations is a warning to humans to stop polluting and clean up Earth.

124. Which title best summarizes the main idea of the passage? A. Endangered reptiles

B. Endangered amphibians

C. Amphibian life cycle

D. Amphibians and reptiles

125. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE? A. The number of amphibians is decreasing rapidly. B. The number of amphibians is increasing. C. The number of amphibians is going up. D. The number of amphibians staying constant. 126. In paragraph 2, the word noticed is closest in meaning to ____. A. studied

B. analysed

C. become aware of

D. started to work on

C. animals

D. amphibians

127. In paragraph 2, the word they refers to ____. A. scientists

B. humans

128. According the passage, which of the following is TRUE about amphibians? A. First they live on land, then in the water.

B. First they live in the water, then on land.

C. They mainly live in water.

D. They mainly live on land.

129. In paragraph 2, the word toxins is closest in meaning to ____. A. poisonous substances

B. tonic substances

C. essential minerals

D. essential vitamins

130. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? A. Amphibians contribute greatly to biodiversity. B. All amphibians will go extinct in the near future. C. A clean environment may help to protect amphibians from extinction. D. Protecting amphibians is the responsibility of all people on Earth. Part VI. WRITING Exercise 11. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 131. Five islands of Indonesia are home to Komodo dragons. A. Homes are built for Komodo dragons on five islands of Indonesia. B. Komodo dragons are the only living creatures on Indonesia's islands. C. Komodo dragons live on five islands of Indonesia. D. Komodo dragons prefer to live in hot countries like Indonesia. 132. Unless humans stop poaching, many rare animals will go extinct. A. When humans stop poaching, many rare animals will become extinct. B. If people don't stop poaching, a lot of rare animals will become extinct. C. As soon as people stop poaching, a lot of rare animals will become extinct. D. Provided that people stop poaching, many animals will become extinct. 133. People are not allowed to approach animals in safari parks. A. People are prohibited from approaching animals in safari parks. B. People are advised not to approach animals in safari parks.

C. Safari parks don't prohibit people from approaching animals. D. Safari parks allow people to approach animals. 134. The more polluted the environment, the less safe it becomes for the animals. A. If the environment is more polluted, it becomes better for the animals. B. Animals find the more polluted environment safer. C. Animals become less safe with a more polluted environment. D. Animals become safer with a more polluted environment. 135. The saola and the rhino are considered endangered species in Viet Nam. A. The saola and the rhino are dangerous animals in Viet Nam. B. Both the saola and the rhino are considerate animals. C. Viet Nam becomes more dangerous due to the saola and the rhino. D. The saola and the rhino are thought to be endangered species in Viet Nam. 136. The giant panda's natural habitat is shrinking. A. The habitat for the giant panda is getting bigger. B. The habitat for the giant panda is getting smaller. C. The habitat for the giant panda is staying the same. D. The habitat for the giant panda is increasing. 137. Baby sea turtles are the most vulnerable when they leave their nests and make their way to the sea. A. Baby sea turtles are the most unsafe when they leave their nests and make their way to the sea. B. Baby sea turtles are the safest when they leave their nests and make their way to the sea. C. Baby sea turtles are the happiest when they leave their nests and make their way to the sea. D. Baby sea turtles really enjoy when they leave their nests and make their way to the sea. 138. He started donating to rhino conservation organizations five years ago, and now he still continues to donate. A. He donated to rhino conservation organizations for five years. B. He has been donating to rhino conservation organizations for five years. C. He will have donated to rhino conservations for five years by the end of next year. D. He used to donate to rhino conservation organizations, but he stopped last year. 139. Animals become extinct due to both habitat destruction and poaching. A. In addition to habitat destruction, animals become extinct due to poaching. B. Animals become extinct mainly because of habitat destruction. C. Animals become extinct mainly because of poaching D. Neither habitat destruction nor poaching causes animals to go Exercise 12. Mark the letter A, B, C. or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 140. People cut down trees for agricultural land. Wild animals have less natural habitat. A. People cut down trees for agricultural land because wild animals have less natural habitat. B. People cut down trees for agricultural land, for wild animals have less natural habitat.

C. Wild animals have less natural habitat, so people cut down trees for agricultural land. D. Wild animals have less natural habitat because people cut down trees for agricultural land. 141. The government launches anti-poaching campaigns. Lives of many rare animals are saved. A. Unless the government launches anti-poaching campaigns, lives of many rare animals are saved. B. If the government launches anti-poaching campaigns, lives of many rare animals are saved. C. If lives of many rare animals are saved, the government launches anti-poaching campaigns. D. Unless lives of many rare animals are saved, the government launches anti-poaching campaigns. 142. People use pesticides and fertilizers. They want to increase crop production. A. People want to increase crop production, so they use pesticides and fertilizers. B. Unless people want to increase crop production, they use pesticides and fertilizers. C. People want to increase crop production because they use pesticides and fertilizers. D. People want to increase crop production, for they use pesticides and fertilizers. 143. Many elephants are poached. Their tusks are used to make valuable ivory objects. A. As many elephants are poached, their tusks are used to make valuable ivory objects. B. Unless many elephants are poached, their tusks are used to make valuable ivory objects. C. Many elephants are poached because their tusks are used to make valuable ivory objects. D. Many elephants are poached, so their tusks are used to make valuable ivory objects. 144. A Komodo is called a dragon. It looks like a big lizard. A. A Komodo is called a dragon because it looks like a big lizard. B. A Komodo is called a dragon, so it looks like a big lizard. C. A Komodo is called a dragon, for it looks like a big lizard. D. Although a Komodo is called a dragon, it looks like a big lizard. 145. Komodo dragons are not endangered. They are considered vulnerable. A. Komodo dragons are considered vulnerable because they are not endangered. B. Although Komodo dragons are not endangered, they are considered vulnerable. C. Komodo dragons are not endangered, and they are considered vulnerable. D. Not only Komodo dragons are not endangered, they are considered vulnerable.

Unit 7. ARTIFICIAL INTELLIGENCE Part I. PHONETICS Exercise 1. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 1. A. application

B. combustion

C. navigation

D. recognition

2. A. computer

B. communication

C. command

D. complicated

3. A. advanced

B. automated

C. constructed

D. reunited

4. A. arrangement

B. application

C. activate

D. assistance

5. A. potential

B. production

C. promotion

D. psychology

Exercise 2. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. 6. A. machine

B. robot

C. human

D. fiction

7. A. applicable

B. automation

C. artificial

D. evolution

8. A. algorithm

B. exterminate

C. intelligence

D. technology

9. A. capable

B. robotic

C. industry

D. futurist

10. A. assembly

B. interfere

C. reunite

D. resurrect

Part II. VOCABULARY Exercise 3. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 11. High intelligent machines can be automated to operate without human ____. A. intervene

B. intervening

C. intervention

D. interventionist

12. The old astronomer patiently made his ____ and wrote down what he saw. A. observation

B. observatory

C. observe

D. observer

13. One of the popular ____ used in smartphones at present is voice recognition. A. applicant

B. applicable

C. applications

D. apply

14. If there are aliens out there, do you think they are much more ____ advanced than we are? A. technological

B. technologically

C. technology

D. technologies

15. ____ have announced that a major breakthrough has been made. A. Research

B. Researchers

C. Researches

D. Researching

16. I wish you would ____ the TV and go outside and get some exercise. A. call off

B. give off

C. put off

D. turn off

17. Scientists are trying to ____ out the ways to reduce pollution from aircraft. A. break

B. call

C. turn

D. work

18. I'll ____ you ____ you to our research department. Please hold on. A. put - away

B. put - out

C. put - through

D. put - up

19. No wonder the vacuum cleaner isn't working. You haven't ____ it ____. A. brought - in

B. given - in

C.plugged - in

20. Whoever ____ up with that idea should have won the Nobel Prize.

D. pulled - in

A. came

B. caught

C. kept

D. put

21. Ten million text messages are sent on ____ every minute. A. account

B. average

C. common

D. general

22. Astronomers have ____ a new planet outside our galaxy. A. invented

B. unearthed

C. developed

D. discovered

23. ____ is a type of book or film showing space travel of life on other planets, based on imagined scientific discoveries of the future. A. Epic

B. Fiction

C. Non-fiction

D. Science fiction

24. Unluckily, David's dangerous and incredible journey in search of the Blue Fairy is in ____. A. advance

B. danger

C. end

D. vain

25. Most scientists believe that the day when robots become part of our lives will come ____. A. from time to time

B. more or less

C. sooner or later

D. later than never

26. Do you know who ____ the fact that sound travels in waves? A. developed

B. discovered

C. found

D. invented

27. I'm thinking of getting a fax ____. A. engine

B. instrument

C. machine

D. motor

28. The ____ of the outbreak of the disease is still unknown. A. aim

B. cause

C. motive

D. reason

29. GPS systems help a lot of people ____ on land, on the sea, and in the air. A. inform

B . interfere

C. navigate

D. reunite

30. After the power failure last night, the washing machine started to ____, so I had to wash the clothes by hands. A. make noise

B. malfunction

C. operate

D. work

31. FM is a method of ____ signals, especially in radio broadcasting. A. transacting

B. transferring

C. transmitting

D. translating

32. UFO is an acronym for ____ Flying Object. A. Unidentified

B. Unimaginative

C. Unknown

D. Unique

33. The biggest fear is that humans might ____ control over robots. A. gain

B. keep

C. lose

D. take

34. Researchers have ____ to the conclusion that your personality is affected by your genes. A. arrived

B. come

C. got

D. reached

35. The telescope will photograph distant galaxies, ____ attempt to understand their past. A. in

B. for

C. on

D. with

36. It is likely that artificial intelligence might decide to ____ an end to humanity simply because it surpasses human intelligence. A. come

B. make

C. put

D. take

37. A.I. robots are ____ of having human emotions. A. able

B. capable

C. efficient

D. fond

38. I don't think people should be allowed to ____ experiments on animals. A. create

B. make

C. perform

D. produce

39. Many materials have been used for ____ teeth, including wood. A. artificial

B. false

C. hand-made

D. natural

40. Once they've finished the extension to the ____, there'll be room for them to take on a lot more workers. A. factory

B. industry

C. manufacturing

D. trade

Exercise 4. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 41. Internet search engines can help to predict the weather as well as traffic jams in a city. A. announce

B. expect

C. forecast

D. reveal

42. Ray Kurzweil suggests that exponential technological development will lead to the inevitable rise of artificial intelligence. A. inapplicable

B. unavoidable

C. unrecognizable

D. invisible

43. Advanced technologies may make humanity insignificant both in life and work. A. Future

B. Radical

C. Sophisticated

D. Unconventional

44. A.I. techniques help medical doctors to discover subtle interactions between medications that put patience in jeopardy because of their serious side effect. A. at risk

B. in reality

C. under control

D. under pressure

45. A.I. algorithms can also help to detect faces and other features in photo sent to social networking sites and automatically organize them. A. categorize

B. connect

C. recognize

D. remind

Exercise 5. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 46. The critical issue is whether genuine artificial intelligence can ever be truly realized. A. authentic

B. fake

C. unpretentious

D. true

47. Smart robots have replaced humans in stressful and hazardous jobs and in assembly lines. A. dangerous

B. risky

C. safe

D. perilous

48. Professor Stephen Hawking thinks the primitive forms of A.I. which have been developed so far have already proved very useful. A. basic

B. modern

C. original

D. recent

49. Kurzweil believes that there could be tiny robots called nanobots implanted into our brains to improve our memory. A. inserted in

B. fixed in

C. removed from

D. replaced with

50. Do you really think humans will be exterminated when more and more intelligent machines are invented in the future? A. killed

B. restored

C. resurrected

D. wiped out

Part III. GRAMMAR Exercise 6. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

51. Drivers or pilots ____ the best routes to the destination quickly and effectively. A. have the GPS found

B. use the GPS to find

C. get the GPS find

D. get the GPS found

52. My sister ____ her laptop serviced last weekend. A. did

B. got

C. made

D. took

53. You should ____ a professional to check your house for earthquake damage. A. have

B. get

C. make

D. take

C. have

D. have got

54. We ____ a cable TV put in this week. A. are having

B. get

55. The dishwasher isn't working again, so my mother is thinking of having ____. A. it repaired

B. it repairing

C. repaired it

D . repairing it

56. We ____ while we were on holiday. A. had our alarm system stolen

B. had stolen our alarm system

C. got stolen our alarm system

D. were stolen our alarm system

57. The A.I. expert wanted to have his assistant ____ the newly made robot. A. activate

B. activated

C. activating

D. to activate

58. Kelly wanted a live band ____ at her wedding. A. been playing

B. to play

C. played

D. to be played

59. I spoke to Victor last night and he said he ____ while he was on holiday. A. got stolen his phone

B. had his phone stolen

C. had stolen his phone

D. was got his phone stolen

60. Why don't you ____ when you install this new electric gadget? A. get Aaron help

B. have Aaron help

C. have Aaron helped

D. have got Aaron help

61. As soon as Dad ____, we can leave. A. got the car to start B. has got the car started

C. got started the car D. was got starting the car

62. My teeth were little yellow, so I ____ by the dentist. A. had cleaned them B. had them cleaned

C. have them cleaned

D. was cleaned them

63. Can we ____ this summer? A. get installed air-conditioning

B. get air-conditioning to install

C. have air-conditioning installed

D. have installed air-conditioning

64. The car manufacturer ____ two automatic systems this morning. A. has had a robotics company install

B. had a robotic company installed

C. had a robotic company install

D. got a robotic company installed

65. The computer corporation ____ malfunctioning products. A. had their workers eliminate

B. had their workers to eliminate

C. had their workers eliminating

D. had their workers eliminated

66. The robot manufacturer ____ their outdated robots for the next generation robots. A. asked his customers exchange

B. got his customers exchanged

C. had his customers exchanged

D. had his customers exchange

67. Samsung ____ by those who have bought them for technical faults. A. has all Galaxy Note 7 returned

B. has all Galaxy Note 7 to returned

C. made all Galaxy Note 7 return

D. made all Galaxy Note 7 returned

68. Experts believe that in the near future humans ____. A. have robots do the housework

B. have had the housework done by robots

C. will do the housework by robots

D. will have robots do the housework

69. Nowadays, for the sake of human life, the military ____ which contain explosives. A. have A.I. robots explore dangerous environments B. get A.I. robots explore dangerous environments C. have A.I. robots explored dangerous environments D. get A.I. robots explores dangerous environments 70. Thanks to the A. I applications, Internet users ____ into a new language in real time. A. can translate webpages

B. can have webpages translate

C. can have webpages translated

D. can get webpages to translate

71. It's hard to believe that this film ____ completely by computer. A. has been generated

B. has generated

C. was been generating

D. was to generate

72. My sister ____ her ear pierced last weekend. A. did

B. got

C. made

D. took

73. Recently, a new vaccine against measles ____. A. has been developed

B. had been developed

C. had developed

D. was developing

74. You'd better get someone ____ your house. A. redecorate

B. redecorated

C. to be redecorated

D. to redecorate

75. The patient ____ his blood tested to find out the cause of his breakdown. A. asked

B. had

C. ordered

D. took

76. We ____ that my father's new car ____ by Friday. He has promised to give his old one to me and I want to drive to York in it at the weekend. A. expect - will have been delivered

B. are expected - will be delivering

C. have been expecting - is delivering

D. are expecting - will have delivered

77. I wish my father had bought me a new mobile phone instead of having it ____ like that. A. to repair

B. repaired

C. repairing

D. being repaired

78. We are going to ____ next June, or else they will be expired. A. get our passports renewed

B. get to renew our passports

C. have had our passports renewed

D. have our passports to renew

79. Mr. Brown tends to ____ his car serviced twice a year at the garage near his house. A. have

B. let

C. rent

D. give

80. The teacher had the students ____ an essay on the positive and negative effects that modern technology has on children. A. to write

B. to be written

C. write

D. writing

Exercise 7. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 81. Thanks to the first lawn mower which was invented in 1830, we don't have to pay for someone to have our A

grass to be cut any more. D 82. According to the futurist Ray Kurzweil, humans could have tiny computerized machines or nanobots invent A

thanks to future medical advances. D 83. In his Aston Martin DB5 car, Bond can have the photos being printed out along with the information about A

the people in them from a panel in a dashboard. 84. There's a network in computing called 'beta testing', which means you test something seeing if it works A

properly before it comes official. D 85. No longer do housewives have to clean the house every day because they get it done for robotic vacuum A

cleaners. 86. Before the cotton gin had been invented in 1794, American farmers had cheap slaves remove seeds from the A

cotton fiber. 87. Before the invention of email and the Internet in 1972, it took people at least one day to cause hand-written A

letters sent to the recipients' homes. D 88. In communication, we can have the voice recognition systems in smartphones or other electronic devices A

to be identified our speech. D 89. The owners of modern manufacturing plants had workers doing heavy and repetitive tasks replacing, by A

robots. 90. In this throw-away society, instead of having an old electronics device fixed, people tend to toss it away and A buy a new one. Part IV. SPEAKING

Exercise 8. Mark the letter A.B.C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges. 91. A: Hello, is that Liz speaking? B: ____ A. Yes, who's that? I can hardly hear you.

B. Hello, how are you?

C. Hi, there. I'm Juliet.

D. You can leave a message, please.

92. A: Hello, could I speak to Chris, please? B: ____ A. Sorry, he's not in.

B. Yes, you could.

C. Sure, go ahead.

D. Certainly I am.

93. A: Shall I ring you later? B: ____ A. No, you won't.

B. Yes, but I may be out.

C. Sorry, I'm busy now.

D. I couldn't agree more.

94. A: Do you know how this machine works? B: ____ A. It's very expensive.

B. Will you call the mechanic tomorrow?

C. Plug it in and push the green button.

D. I think it's quite heavy.

95. A: ____ B: Oh, the bulb went out when I switched it on. A. Are there anything wrong?

B. What matters to the lamp?

C. Does the machine work properly?

D. What's wrong with the lamp?

96. A: Do you mind if I make a phone call? B: ____ A. Yes, certainly. The phone's in the hall.

B. No, of course not. The phone's in the hall.

C. I don't think so. It's so annoying.

D. Why not? I'm using my mobile phone.

97. A: Would you take this calculator along to the office for me? B: ____ A. Never mind.

B. Yes, with pleasure.

C. Yes, that's right.

D. Not at all.

C. It's quite far from here.

D. No, I really don't

98. A: How often do you check mail? B: ____ A. Almost every day.

B. It's not normal.

99. A: I have bought you a new toy car. Happy birthday to you! B: ____ A. Have a nice day!

B. The same to you! C. What a lovely toy! Thanks.

D. What a pity!

100. A: Guess what? I've been awarded a scholarship to study about information technology in the U.S. B: Uh, really? ____ A. Take care of yourself!

B. Congratulations!

101. A: ____ B: Yes. I'd like to buy a computer.

C. You are always lucky!

D. Lucky as you are!

A. Do you look for something?

B. Good morning. Can I help you?

C. Excuse me. Do you want to buy it?

D. Can you help me buy something?

102. A: Can you help me carry this vacuum cleaner upstairs? B: ____ A. I think that, too.

B. Yes, I'm afraid not.

C. Not completely.

D. Why not?

103. A: I believe that modern robots will be more intelligent and replace humans in many dangerous jobs. B: ____ A. That's just what I think of course.

B. That sounds interesting.

C. That's a good idea.

D. Why not? Believe me!

104. A: Watching television is a waste of time. B: ____ A. I enjoy watching cartoons.

B. I don't think so either.

C. I think so, too.

D. News is not my favorite program.

105. A: Do you like using a desktop computer or laptop?â&#x20AC;? B: ____ A. Yes, I'd love to.

B. I couldn't agree more.

C. No, I have no choice.

D. I prefer something portable.

Part V. READING Exercise 9. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. SCIENCE FLYING IN THE FACE OF GRAVITY It looked just like another aircraft from the outside. The pilot told his young passengers that it was built in 1964, a Boeing KC-135 refuelling tanker, based on the 707. But appearances were deceptive, and the 13 students from Europe and the USA who boarded the aircraft were in for the flight of their lives. Inside, the area that normally had seats had become a long white tunnel. Heavily padded from floor to ceiling; it looked a bit like a lunatic asylum. There were almost no windows, but lights along the padded walls eerily illuminated it. Most of the seats had been taken out apart from a few at the back, where the young scientists quickly took their places with a look of apprehension. From 12 months, science students from across the continents had competed to win a place on the flight at the invitation of the European Space Agency. The challenge had been to suggest imaginative experiments to be conducted in weightless conditions. For the next two hours the Boeing's flight resembled that of an enormous bird which had lost its reason, shooting upwards towards the heavens before hurting towards Earth. The intention was to achieve weightlessness for a few seconds. The aircraft took off smoothly enough, but any feelings that I and the young scientists had that we were on anything like a scheduled passenger service were quickly dismissed when the pilot put the plane into a 45-degree climb which lasted around 20 seconds. Then the engine cut out and we became weightless. Everything became confused, and left or right, up or down no longer had any meaning. After 10 seconds of free-fall descent, the pilot pulled the aircraft out of its nosedive. The return of gravity was less

immediate than its loss, but was still sudden enough to ensure that some students came down with a bump. After two hours of going up and down in the plane doing experiments, the predominant feeling was one of exhilaration rather than nausea. Most of the students thought it was an unforgettable experience and one they would be keen to repeat. 106. What does the writer say about the plane? A. It had no seats.

B. It had no windows.

C. The inside was painted white.

D. The outside was misleading

107. What does the word eerily in paragraph 2 mean? A. badly

B. brightly

C. clearly

D. strangely

108. What did the pilot do with the plane? A. He climbed and made the plane turn over. B. He climbed and made the plane fall slowly. C. He quickly climbed and stopped the engines. D. He took off normally and then cut the engines for 20 seconds. 109. What does the word it in the last paragraph refer to? A. the exhilaration

B. the opportunity

C. the plane

D. the trip

110. Why was this passage written? A. To encourage young people to take up science. B. To describe the outcome of a scientific competition. C. To report on a new scientific technique. D. To show scientists what young people can do. Exercise 10. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. The word â&#x20AC;&#x153;robotâ&#x20AC;? first appeared in a 1921 stage play by Czech writer Karel Capek. In the play, a man makes a machine that can think, which he calls a robot and which ends up killing its owner. In the 1940s, the American science fiction writer, Isaac Asimov, wrote a series of stories about robots and invented the term 'robotics', the science of robots. Meanwhile, in the real world, the first robots were developed by an engineer, Joseph F. Engelberger, and an inventor, George C. Devol. Together they started Unimation, a manufacturing company that produced the first real robot in 1961, called the Unimate. Robots of this type were installed at a General Motors automobile plant and proved to be a success. They worked reliably and saved money for General Motors, so other companies were soon acquiring robots as well. These industrial robots were nothing like the terrifying creatures that can often be seen in science fiction films. In fact, these robots looked and behaved nothing like humans. They were simply pieces of computer-controlled machines, with metal "arms" or "hands". Since they were made of metal, they could perform certain jobs that were difficult or dangerous for humans, particularly jobs that involve high heat. And since robots were tireless and never got hungry, sleepy, or distracted, they were useful

for tasks that would be tiring or boring for humans. Industrial robots have been improved over the years, and today they are used in many factories around the world. Though the use of robots has meant the loss of some jobs, at the same time other jobs have been created in the design, development, and production of the robots. Outside of industry, robots have also been developed and put into use by governments and scientists in situations where humans might be in danger. For example, they can be sent in to investigate an unexploded bomb or an accident at a nuclear power plant. Researchers also use robots to collect samples of hot rocks or gases in active volcanoes. In space exploration, robots have performed many key tasks where humans could not be present, such as on the surface of Mars. In 2004, two robotic Rovers, small six-wheeled computerized cars, were sent to Mars. 111. When did the word robot appear? A. before the 1920s

B. in the early 1920s

C. in the mid-1920s

D. in the late 1920s

112. Which of these statements is TRUE about Karel Capek? A. He is a famous American playwright. B. He was the first to create the word â&#x20AC;&#x153;robotâ&#x20AC;?. C. He invented a machine that can think like humans. D. He made a robot kill a person. 113. What does the word they in paragraph 2 refer to? A. terrifying creatures

B. humans

C. science fiction films

D. industrial robots

114. What are industrial robots like? A. They are computer-controlled machines.

B. They are built with metal arms and legs.

C. They behave like humans.

D. They can think like humans.

115. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a characteristic of robots? A. They never need food to survive.

B. They can survive without any sleep.

C. They are tired like humans.

D. They can do jobs involving intense heat.

116. What can be inferred from the passage about robots? A. Their appearance negatively affects the job market. B. They can stop active volcanoes from erupting. C. They help humans travel to the outer space. D. They take away some jobs but offer some in return. 117. Which of the following best paraphrases the sentence in bold in the first paragraph? A. Because they were reliable and economical to General Motors, other companies started to use robots. B. Other companies started to produce reliable and efficient robots for General Motors. C. Every other company made use of robots because they were time-consuming and safe. D. Robots worked well for General Motors, but caused certain trouble to others. 118. What is the author's attitude towards robots in this passage? A. He appreciates them.

B. He dislikes them.

C. He thinks they are a nuisance.

D. He is crazy about them.

Exercise 11. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. MODERN SCIENCE It seems entirely (119) ____ to us that there are teams of scientists in universities and (120) ____ institutions around the world, attempting to (121) ____ the way the world works. However, it hasn't always been that (122) ____. Although the scientific method is now four or five hundred years old, the ancient Greeks, for example, believed that they could work out the (123) ____ of natural events just by the power of thought. During the 17th century, more and more people began to realize that they could (124) ____ their scientific ideas by designing a relevant (125) ____ and seeing what happened. A lot of (126) ____ was made in this way by individual scientists. These men and women often worked alone, carrying out (127) ____ into many different areas of science, and they often received very little (128) ____ for their hard work. (129) ____ the start of the 20th century, though, it became (130) ____ that science was becoming more complicated and more expensive. This individual scientist disappeared, to be replaced by highly qualified teams of experts. Modern science was born. 119. A. natural

B. physical

C. unreal

D. typical

120. A. another

B. every

C. other

D. whole

121. A. construct

B. create

C. discover

D. invent

122. A. method

B. route

C. technique

D. way

123. A. aims

B. causes

C. purposes

D. reasons

124. A. calculate

B. collect

C. measure

D. test

125. A. analysis

B. attempt

C. experiment

D. event

126. A. development

B. evolution

C. movement

D. progress

127. A. discovery

B. education

C. experiment

D. research

128. A. present

B. gift

C. prize

D. reward

129. A. At

B. In

C. On

D. For

130. A. accurate

B. actual

C. clear

D. true

Part IV. WRITING Exercise 12. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 131. Why don't we get someone to fix our computer? A. Fixing our computer is someone else's duty.

B. Let's have someone to fix our computer.

C. Someone will have our computer fixed.

D. Why don't we have our computer fixed?

132. My car needed servicing, so I took it to a garage. A. I took my car to a garage to have it serviced. B. I took my car, which needed to be servicing, to a garage. C. I had a garage get serviced my car.

D. My car was taken to a garage to have it serviced. 133. Someone stole my dad's mobile phone last night. A. My dad had his mobile phone stolen last night. B. My dad got someone steal his mobile phone last night. C. My dad asked someone to steal his mobile phone last night. D. My dad was robbed of his mobile phone last night. 134. Someone is checking my car tyres for me. A. I'm getting my car tyres checked. B. I'm having my car tyres to be checked by someone. C. I have my car tyres checked regularly. D. My car tyres are being checked by myself. 135. Why don't you get someone to update the new computer program for me? A. I suggest that you update the new computer program for me. B. Shall I have the new computer program updated for you? C. Why don't you ask someone to update the new computer program for me? D. Why don't you have the new computer program updated by yourself? 136. We have decided to employ someone to put in a better lock. A. A better lock has been decided to be put in.

B. We have decided to have a better lock put in.

C. We have decided to put in a better lock.

D. We have decided that we put in a better lock.

137. Jane recommended asking someone to mow the lawn. A. It is recommended by Jane that the lawn was mowed. B. Jane recommended getting the lawn mowed. C. Jane recommended mowing the lawn. D. Someone was recommended to be mowed the lawn. 138. The teacher had his students use their laptops to surf the Net for resources in his class. A. According to the teacher, the students had their resources surfed on their laptops. B. Laptops must be used to surf for resources by the students in the class. C. The teacher asked his students to use their laptops to surf the Net for resources in his class. D. With the laptops, the students could surf the Net for resources in class. 139. We cannot live in outer space without special equipment. A. It is impossible for us to live in outer space without special equipment. B. We are impossible to live outer space without special equipment. C. Without special equipment, we are very likely to live in outer space. D. But for special equipment, we couldn't have lived in outer space. 140. Had he known more about computer programming, my brother would have worked for a computer company. A. A better knowledge of computer programming will help my brother find a job in a computer company.

B. My brother didn't know much about computer programming, so he didn't work for a computer company. C. My brother wishes he had known more about computer programming and could work for a computer company. D. Knowing more about computer programming, my brother would find a job in a computer company. Exercise 13. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 141. We don't have to wash the dishes any more. We have just bought a new dishwasher. A. It is not necessary for us to wash the dishes, even when we have bought a new dishwasher. B. No longer do we have to wash the dishes because we have just bought a new dishwasher. C. The new dishwasher we have just bought needs doing the washing-up. D. With the help of the new dishwasher, we won't have to do the washing-up very often. 142. My piano makes unsatisfactory sound. Someone is going to tune it tomorrow A. I'm going to have my piano tuned tomorrow due to the unsatisfactory sound it makes. B. If my piano makes unsatisfactory sound, someone is going to tune it tomorrow. C. My piano makes unsatisfactory sound, so I am going to tune it tomorrow. D. The piano which makes unsatisfactory sound is going to be tuned tomorrow. 143. Many industries today use highly automated vehicles. They can drive with almost no human intervention. A. Although many industries today use many automated vehicles, they can drive without human intervention. B. Many industries today use highly automated vehicles which can drive with almost no human intervention. C. With almost no human intervention, many industries today can run highly automated vehicles. D. When vehicles are highly automated in many industries, humans do not have to intervene in their operation. 144. I did not dare to turn on the television. I was afraid of waking the baby up. A. I did not dare to turn on the television for fear of waking the baby up. B. I decided not to turn on the television in order to wake the baby up. C. I decided to turn the television volume down to avoid waking the baby up. D. Waking up the baby, I could not continue watching the television. 145. I have narrowed it down to two computer games. I can't make up my mind. A. Although I have narrowed it down to two computer games, I still can't make up my mind. B. Having narrowed it down to two computer games, I can make up my mind. C. I have narrowed it down to two computer games, which helps me make up my mind. D. If I don't narrow it down to two computer games, I won't be able to make up my mind.

Unit 8. THE WORLD OF WORK Part I. PHONETICS Exercise 1. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 1. A. advertisement

B. applicant

C. candidate

D. management

2. A. relevant

B. energetic

C. enthusiastic

D. engineer

3. A. organized

B. prioritize

C. important

D. opportunity

4. A. competitive

B. entrepreneur

C. apprenticeship

D. conscientious

5. A. challenging

B. energetic

C. management

D. organized

Exercise 2. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. 6. A. experience

B. apprenticeship

C. administration

D. prioritize

7. A. advertisement

B. probation

C. competitive

D. relevant

8. A. organization

B. enthusiastic

C. compassionate

D. qualification

9. A. encourage

B. interview

C. graduate

D. organize

10. A. successful

B. significant

C. experienced

D. challenging

Part II. VOCABULARY Exercise 3. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 11. He has all the right ____ for the job. A. certificates

B. degrees

C. diplomas

D. qualifications

12. Before we apply for any jobs, we need to prepare a good CV and a ____ very carefully. A. resume

B.job interview

C. covering letter overing

D. reference

13. Employers always want job ____ to be able to demonstrate their skills and qualities. A. employees

B. workers

C. staff

D. applicants

14. There are usually a lot of job seekers applying for one position. Only a few of them are ____ for an interview. A. shortlisted

B. listed

C. screened

D. tested

15. My application was not successful; there were more than 4,000 applicants and only 20 were selected. I realized that apprenticeship were very ____. A. demanding

B. crowding

C. competitive

D. difficult 104

16. When preparing a CV, university ____ can consider attaching a separate report about official work experience during the course. A. graduates

B. leavers

C. candidates

D. applicants

17. An apprentice is required to do several years' ____. A. coaching

B. education

C. formation

D. training

18. According to everyone in the ____, she's a very good boss. A. apartment

B. compartment

19. She's looking for a better position with another ____.

C. department

D. employment

A. association

B. firm

C. house

D. society

20. It's wise to think about choosing a ____ before leaving school. A. business

B. career

C. living

D. profession

C. trade

D. work

C. ask

D. request

21. A doctor is a member of a respected ____. A. occupation

B. profession

22. If you want a job, you have to ____ for one. A. applicate

B. apply

23. You'll probably have to ____ an application form. A. fill down

B. fill in

C. fill on

D. fill through

24. And you'll need to give the names of two or three ____. A. hostages

B. judges

C. referees

D. umpires

25. All the members of our ____ are expected to work hard. A. personal

B. personnel

C. staff

D. gang

26. Some of my work is interesting, but a lot of it is just ____. A. habit

B. practice

C. tradition

D. routine

27. If you are paid monthly, rather than weekly, you receive ____. A. revenue

B. a reward

C. a salary

D. wages

28. The purpose of running a business is to make a ____. A. service

B. profit

C. money

D. contribution

29. The ____ were delivered to the warehouse by lorry. A. data

B. goods

C. material

D. stuff

30. Many young people travel all over the world and do all kinds of jobs before they ____. A. lie down

B. settle down

C. touch down

D. put down

31. In Britain, people are usually unwilling to tell other people how much they ____. A. earn

B. obtain

C. deserves

D. gain

32. If you're a(n) ____ you have to do what your boss tells you. A. director

B. employee

C. employer

D. manager

33. You can earn more money by working ____. A. extraordinary hours

B. overhours

C. overtime

D. supplementary hours

34. It's difficult these days for a young person to find a well-paid ____ job. A. eternal

B. reliable

C. permanent

D. stable

35. She was ____ after three years with the company. A. advanced

B. raised

C. elevated

D. promoted

Exercise 4. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 36. My work is challenging, of course, because it involves both a sales function and a technique function. A. fascinating

B. rewarding

C. stimulating

D. demanding

37. She's doing well so she was promoted last year. Now she's in charge of a small team of four people.

A. controls

B. supervises

C. takes over

D. rules

38. Somebody looks at the detailed specification for the installation and then another colleague researches the cost of the labor and materials. A. co-worker

B. employee

C. staff

D. supervisor

39. I've been working here for over ten years now and I'm on first-name terms with everyone, even the CEO. A. getting on

B. happy

C. having an informal/friendly relationship

D. satisfied

40. Jane used to be very excellent as a child and now she's the CEO of a big multi-national company. However, her brother is a blue-collar worker in a small local factory. A. mental

B. low-paid

C. manual

D. regular

41. Employers usually look for candidates who have qualifications and relevant experience. A. excellent

B. rich

C. appropriate

D. extensive

42. I registered with some online employment agencies, and they found a vacancy almost immediately. A. work

B. an available job

C. career

D. place

43. Jacob was made redundant last month due to his company's downsizing policy. He's on a short-term contract with a medium-sized company at the moment. A. permanent

B. temporary

C. part-time

D. full-time

44. When applying for a certain job, you'll be at an advantage if you have hands-on experience. A. relevant

B. prior

C. practical

D. considerable

45. When the factory closed, over a hundred people were made redundant. A. fired

B. sacked

C. laid off

D. appointed

Exercise 5. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 46. Should you hire a full-time employee on a permanent contract? A. long-term

B. long-lasting

C. temporary

D. limited

47. If the candidates can perform well and impress the interviewers during the interview, they can be recruited. A. taken on

B. dismissed

C. employed

D. chosen

48. To become a librarian, you need to be really well-organized. A. in order

B. neat and tidy

C. compassionate

D. messy

49. What exactly are white collar workers? They are people who work in offices and administrative positions. A. manual

B. intellectual

C. official

D. desk-job

50. Most, not to say all of the employers want to look for candidates with punctuality, so make sure you make a positive impression on them by showing up on time for the interview. A. good time management

B. ability to meet deadlines

C. being late

D. being in time

Part III. GRAMMAR Exercise 6. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 51. The shop assistant finally agreed ____ a full refund. A. giving me

B. to give me

C. give to me

D. to me to give

52. Bill asked me why ____ to go shopping with me. A. I hadn't invited him

B. hadn't I invited him

C. I hadn't him invited

D. hadn't I him invited

53. "Don't come to the interview late," my mom said. A. My mom told me do not come to the interview late. B. My mom told me did not come to the interview late. C. My mom told me not to come to the interview late. D. My mom told me not coming to the interview late. 54. "I will help you with your CV, Mary," Peter said. A. Peter advised Mary to write the CV.

B. Peter promised to help Mary with her CV.

C. Peter advised Mary not to write her CV.

D. Peter wanted Mary to help with the CV.

55. “____,” the doctor advised his patient. A. You had better stop drinking

B. You had better to drink

C. I would like you to drink

D. Please drink some more

56. The woman said she ____ in this company for over 20 years. A. has been working

B. was working

C. had been working

D. works

57. US scientists claim that they ____ a new vaccine against malaria. A. were developed

B. have developed

C. had developed

D. was developing

58. If you saw a layer, he'd advise you ____ legal action. A. take

B. taking

C. to take

D. for taking

59. The lecturer recommended ____ a number of books before the exam. A. reading

B. to read

C. we reading

D. to have read

60. The boss ____ because he was always behind the deadlines. A. threatened to dismiss him

B. suggested him to dismiss

C. threatened him to dismiss

D. promised him to dismiss

61. “Go ahead. Jump again,” the instructor ____. A. urged

B. promised

C. demanded

D. required

62. “____” Jim offered. A. Can I get you a drink?

B. May I drink?

C. Do you want to drink?

63. “____,” the workers refused. A. We would like to work overtime B. We had better work overtime C. We're afraid that we really don't want to work overtime D. We're willing to work overtime 64. “____,” Paul reminded me. A. Don't forget to tailor your CV to match the job descriptions B. I would tailor your CV if you do not mind C. I remember to tailor the CV

D. Could I drink?

D. I remember tailoring your CV 65. Ellie asked Stan ____ to look at the new catalogue. A. did he want

B. do you want

C. whether he wants

D. if he wanted

C. told

D. claimed

66. Stephen ____ me he'd bought that suit in a sale. A. said

B. spoke

67. “What did the man say when you challenged him?” “He said he ____ pay for the things in his bag, but I didn't believe him!” A. is going to

B. has been going to

C. goes to

D. was going to

68. When I last saw Carrie, she told me she ____ of applying for another job, but now she's changed her mind. A. thought

B. is thinking

C. was thinking

D. has been thinking

69. “What did they say when they realized you weren't a shoplifter?” “They apologized ____ me.” A. to doubt

B. they had doubted

C. for doubting

D. the doubt of

C. for

D. About

70. “What did Maria ask you?” “She asked me ____ I had ever been abroad.” A. that

B. whether

71. It's about time Mrs Richards apologized to me ____ me a gossip in front of everybody. A. to have called

B. from calling

C. that she called

D. for having called

72. She may claim ____ a PhD but nobody's ever actually seen the certificate. A. having

B. to have

C. for having

D. if she has

73. Tammy responded ____ that at least she'd never lied to her parents. A. to say

B. that she said

C. by saying

D. with having said

74. The woman asked ____ get lunch at school. A. can the children

B. if the children can

C. whether the children could

D. could the children

75. They said they had got back ____. A. the following day

B. the day after tomorrow

C. the next day

D. the previous day

76. The accused denied ____ in the vicinity of the murder scene. A. to have ever been

B. have ever been

C. having been ever

D. ever having been

77. We complained ____ the manager ____ the poor service we received at the restaurant. A. on - about

B. at - for

C. with - of

D. to - about

78. Police are advising ____ away from the building. A. people to stay

B. people staying

C. people stay

D. people will stay

79. The old man warned the young boys ____ in the deep river. A. to swim

B. not to swim

C. don't swim

D. against not swimming

80. “You must give me your essays,” Mrs. Vine said. Mrs. Vine said we ____ give her our essays. A. were having to

B. will have to

C. had to

D. would have to

Exercise 7. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 81. He complained with his friends about the terrible working condition at that factory. A

82. She refused to tell me what was the director's salary was because that information was confidential. A

83. You had better learning a foreign language before applying for a job. A

84. The applicant asked the head of the human resources department to tell him what the skills he needed in A

order to get that job. 85. My friend offered finding more information about the company that I was applying to. A

86. She asked me what the most important thing to remember at an interview is. A

87. The shop has volunteered that it will deliver the chairs by the end of the week. A

88. The old man warned the children to not swim in that river because it was very deep and dangerous. A

89. We were disappointed when the receptionist tells that the hotel was fully booked that week. A

90. Before the meeting finished, they arranged when they met next. A

Part IV. SPEAKING Exercise 8. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges. 91. "Hello, may I speak to the manager please?" “____” A. No, you may not.

B. That's OK.

C. Hold on, please

D. You're welcome.

C. No, thanks.

D. I'm terribly sorry.

92. “Hi, Chris. Good day at work?” “ ____” A. Yeah, not bad, thanks.

B. I'm fine, thanks.

93. "Your email was a bit of a shock: Rob trying to sell the coffee shop to Café Pronto. I couldn't believe it!” A. Me, too.

B. So could I.

C. I couldn't, too.

D. Me neither.

94. “Congratulations! You did a great job!” “ ____” A. It's my pleasure.

B. You're welcome.

C. It's nice of you to say so.

D. That's OK.

95. “Could you pick me up before 4 p.m?” “ ____ I'll be still working then." A. I hope so.

B. Yes, I could.

C. I'm afraid I can't.

D. Yes, of course.

96. “What do you usually do on your days off?” “____” A. I usually ride to work.

B. I often do not much.

C. Nothing much. I usually sleep until 10 a.m.

D. Very few.

97. “I'll help you write the CV if you want.” “____” A. I don't want.

B. Really? That's very kind of you.

C. You shouldn't.

D. I really want.

98. “What do you do?” “____” A. What do you do?

B. I work in advertising.

C. I do as an advertiser.

D. I am an advert.

99. “That'new French restaurant does a fixed price menu for only £18.” “____” A. It's very good value for money.

B. l'll save a bit of money.

C. What a waste of money.

D. It costs a fortune.

100. "Can I pay by credit card?" "____” A. Well, there's 10% off if you pay cash.

B. Yes, I think I've got some pound coins.

C. Yes, we take Visa and Master card.

D. Not too bad.

101. "Mandy doesn't seem very happy at the moment. Is she finding the course difficult?" “____” A. No, the course is difficult.

B. No, she's going to drop out.

C. Yes, she's happy.

D. Yes, I think she's going to drop out and get a job.

102. "Hi, Susie, I haven't seen you around much recently." “____” A. No, I've been at home revising most nights.

B. Me neither.

C. Well, me too.

D. I haven't seen you for ages, either.

103. "What gave you the impression that Greg was depressed?" “____” A. Mary told me.

B. Oh, I don't know. He just seemed a bit down.

C. He depressed me.

D. He's really depressing.

104. "What are your weaknesses?" “____” A. I'm not weak.

B. In fact, I'm very strong.

C. Well, I suppose I'm a bit of a perfectionist.

D. I'm perfect

105. "How do you do. Nice to meet you!” “____” A. I'm fine, thank you.

B. How do you do. Nice to meet you, too.

C. Not bad. What about you?

D. It's very kind of you to say so.

Part V. READING Exercise 9. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. A MORE COMMERCIAL TUNE Roger Press, 40, has changed his career. After spending five years (106) ____ a concert pianist he has gone into business, recently (107) ____ up his own company. "After leaving university I decided to (108) ____ myself to a career in music. I loved performing but it was very hard (109) ____. I played at concerts in Europe and America, made recordings and got good (110) ____. But after a while I felt I had gone as (111) ____ as I could. Unless you are one of the world's top pianists, it's difficult to earn a good (112) ____ and I wasn't one of the greatest.

When I (113) ____ up my performing career, people around me were more sad and disappointed than I was. But I felt free and (114) ____ I knew I was getting serious about life. After getting a (115) ____ in business administration I joined the recording company EMI and started their classical video division, producing programs about famous artists. A year ago I left EMI and formed a new company, New Media System, which (116) ____ in multimedia programs. Now that I run my own business I'm in control of my life and I feel proud of my achievements. Although the stress is high and I work (117) ____ hours, the stress involved in piano playing was much worse. It took physical, emotional and mental skills. I prefer the pressures I live with now.' 106. A. like

B. working

C. how

D. as

107. A. giving

B. setting

C. forming

D. bringing

108. A. devote

B. take

C. assign

D. employ

109. A. job

B. effort

C. work

D. career

110. A. reviews

B. critics

C. reports

D. praise

111. A. soon

B. often

C. far

D. much

112. A. life

B. living

C. money

D. payment

113. A. took

B. brought

C. gave

D. put

114. A. lastly

B. at last

C. at the end

D. lately

115. A. qualification B. title

C. graduate

D. grade

116. A. specializes

B. focuses

C. concentrates

D. dedicates

117. A. overtim

B. large

C. long

D. bonus

Exercise 10. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. LINDA GREENLAW: SWORDFISH FISHERMAN Not only does Linda Greenlaw do one of the most dangerous jobs in the world, but also does it extremely well. She has been described as â&#x20AC;&#x2DC;one of the best captains on the entire East Coastâ&#x20AC;&#x2122; and that, in one of the leading countries in the fishing industry, is praise indeed. Linda was born and brought up on Isle au Haut, a tiny island ten kilometers off the coast of Maine, USA. She fell in love with fishing as a child, and she worked on fishing boats during her summer breaks from college. Her first opportunity to go on a deep-sea fishing trip came when she was nineteen. Alden Leeman, a man she'd never met before, hired her for thirty days on his sword-fishing boat. The trip was a success and eventually Alden offered Linda her first boat to captain in 1986, which probably made her the only woman ever to captain a sword-fishing boat. So, why did she take up swordfishing in the first place? Linda says that not only does she like the way she feels on a boat, but she also gets passionate about catching a fish. More than anything, she's proud of being a fisherman, even more so than she is of being a best-selling author. Linda has published four books to date, the first of which, The Hungry Ocean, was top of the New York bestseller list for three months. In it, Linda tells the story of one fishing trip and narrates the adventures

she experienced on board with her five-man crew, including bad weather, sickness, mechanical problems and, of course, the fish. But the world of fish and fishing is a man's world and it's not easy to find a word to describe Linda Greenlaw. In her own words, she says: 'I am a woman. I am a fisherman. I am not a "fisherwoman”, “fisherlady", or "fishergirl”.’ 118. Linda is ____. A. American

B. British

C. Canadian

D. Greek

119. Her first deep-sea fishing trip was ____. A. when she was thirty

B. when she was a child

C. before she was twenty

D. in 1986

120. Linda took up swordfishing because ____. A. she needed to earn some money

B. she wanted to become a best-selling author

C. all her family are fishermen

D. she loves boats and catching fish

121. On the boat described in The Hungry Ocean ____. A. there were five people

B. there were six people

C. there were four people

D. there were three people

122. Linda prefers to be described as ____. A. a fisherwoman

B. a fisherlady

C. a fisherman

D. a fishergirl

Exercise 11. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. A WRITER'S LIFE: G P TAYLOR J. K. Rowling may be responsible for the revival of fantasy fiction. But her contemporary rivals, many of whom have benefited from her success, seem reluctant to give her credit for starting a trend. Philip Pullman, for example, points out that Northern Lights, the first volume in his trilogy His Dark Materials, was published a year before Harry Potter's adventures began. So it comes as a surprise when G P Taylor concedes that he only wrote a novel because of the enormous popularity of Harry Potter. Taylor is the Yorkshire vicar who sold his motorbike to self-publish 2,000 copies of his first novel, Shadowmancer, a book that was subsequently picked up by publishers Faber and got to number one in the New York Times bestseller list. His novels conjure up dark, chilling worlds in which the super natural threatens to take over, yet he describes his life as a writer in flatly functional terms. For example, he is able to name the exact day that he became a novelist: March 21, 2002. 'It was one of those seminal moments in my life. Harry Potter was becoming very popular. And I thought, “This woman's written a book. I might write one." ’ ‘I got a copy of Harry Potter, counted the number of words that were on the page, measured the width of the margin, counted the number of chapters in the book, how many pages were in the book and set my computer screen up so that it would have 468 Words on the page. My chapters were the same length as the Harry Potter chapters; I thought, “This must be how you write the book.” The Harry Potter formula has its faults, of course. Stephen King was once asked what he thought of Rowling's novels. Were they thought-provoking'? King thought not. But did that matter, he wondered,

in a 'fantasy-adventure aimed primarily at children and published in the heart of the summer vacation'? His conclusion was unequivocal: ‘Of course not. What kids on summer vacation want - and probably deserve - is simple, uncomplicated fun.' Shadowmancer is a simple and uncomplicated fantasy - and Taylor, who is his own most effective critic, makes few further claims for the novel. 'It's a great story, but if I'd written it now, it would be a completely different book. In many ways, it's a clumsy classic. There are a lot of things in there that I would get rid of. And yet, I think that's the big attraction. It's because it's an incredible adventure story, written by a non-writer, just a storyteller. Taylor returns to this distinction between writing and storytelling a number of times, distancing himself from grand and lofty ideas of the novelist's purpose. He describes himself as a 'fairly uneducated, council-house kid' who ran away to London as a teenager, ‘a bit of a chancer, with ideas above his station’. He read Dickens, lots of Orwell - 'they were trendy books to read' - and Kerouac. But he is uncomfortable talking at any length about favorite novels or influences beyond Rowling: 'I have not read all that many books. I'm not, you know, a very literate person.' Taylor was a rock-music promoter in his twenties and remains a showman, happiest in front of a crowd. He describes the talks he gives in schools and at book festivals, dressed up as a sea captain or as an 18thcentury highwayman in a long black coat. ‘You're using your face, you're using your body, you're acting out what you're doing.’ The business of putting his thoughts in writing can be problematic in comparison. As a storyteller, in order to demonstrate shock or alarm to an audience he will "pause between sentences and showed a wide-eyed, staring face. But to describe that in English ...’ This impatience with the limitation of language can be a positive asset: in Tersia, Taylor's new fantasy, the speed of the narrative and the scale of the events that overwhelm the characters mean there is no time for the story to get bogged down. That said, it is unusual to hear a writer speak in such a dismissive way of his craft. Shadowmancer has been taken on by Universal Pictures, and Taylor does nothing to hide the fact that he thinks 'the movie's more exciting than the book’. 123. The writer says that many fantasy fiction writers would not agree that ____. A. they have copies their ideas from J. K. Rowling B. J. K. Rowling's success has contributed to their own C. Fantasy fiction will remain fashionable for many years D. J. K. Rowling is a writer of fantasy fiction in the true sense 124. The writer is surprised by ____. A. the success of Taylor's books

B. the short time Taylor has been a writer

C. the number of books Taylor has published

D. Taylor's reasons for writing his first book

125. What aspect of the Harry Potter books does Taylor admit to imitating? A. the writing style

B. the storylines

C. the layout

D. the cover design

126. What does that in paragraph 4 refer to? A. the Harry Potter formula

B. the novels' target audience

C. the timing of the novels' publication

D. the novels' failure to make people think

127. What does Taylor say about Shadowmancer? A. He is aware of its limitations.

B. He did not write all of it himself.

C. He is going to write a revised edition.

D. It does not deserve the praise it receives.

128. What opinion does Taylor have of himself? A. He is very proud of his achievement as a writer. B. He thinks he is a better writer than J. K. Rowling. C. He does not regard himself as a serious novelist. D. He feels he deserves greater recognition. 129. What do we learn about the talks Taylor gives? A. He enjoys them more than being a promoter.

B. He couldn't do them without dressing up.

C. He finds them easier than writing.

D. He likes shocking people.

130. What does the writer mean by there is no time for the story to get bogged down (the last paragraph)? A. The story moves on too quickly. B. The plot is never prevented from developing. C. Emotions are not dealt with in sufficient detail. D. The story is not always as exciting as it could be. Part VI. WRITING Exercise 12. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to choose the best sentence that can be made from the words given. 131. I/ read/ advertisement/ post/ secretary/ company's website. A. I would like to read the advertisement for the post of a secretary on your company's website. B. I enjoy reading the advertisement for the post of a secretary on your company's website. C. I have just read the advertisement for the post of a secretary on your company's website. D. I read the advertisement which is looking for a post of a secretary on your company's website. 132. I think/ I meet your requirements / I write/ apply for/ position. A. I think I must meet your requirements so that I am writing to apply for this position. B. Because I think I can meet your requirements so I am writing to apply for this position. C. As I think I can meet your requirements so I am writing to apply for this position. D. I think I can meet your requirements, therefore, I am writing to apply for this position. 133. My academic background/ BA certificate in Business Administration/ one year's experience/ work as a personal assistant. A. My academic background includes a BA certificate in Business Administration and I have one year's experience of working as a personal assistant. B. My academic background it is a BA certificate in Business Administration as well as I have one year's experience of working as a personal assistant. C. My academic background which has a BA certificate in Business Administration. Furthermore, I have one year's experience of working as a personal assistant. D. My academic background that is a BA certificate in Business Administration. Nonetheless, I have one year's experience of working as a personal assistant.

134. My strengths/ work well under high pressure/ well-organized and punctual. A. My strengths is to work well under high pressure, besides, I am well-organized and punctual. B. My strengths include being able to work well under high pressure, in addition to, I am well-organized and punctual. C. My strengths include working well under high pressure and I am very well-organized and punctual. D. My strengths include working well under high pressure and being very well-organized and punctual. 135. My CV/ enclose/ contact/ me/ every morning/ look forward/ interviewed. A. My CV enclosed and contact me every morning. I look forward to be interviewed. B. My CV is enclosed. You can contact me every morning. I am looking forward to being interviewed. C. My CV which is enclosed, so please contact me every morning. I am looking forward to be interviewed. D. My CV is enclosed. Please contact me every morning. As a result, I look forward to being interviewed. 136. Job interview/ opportunity/show/ employer/ what/ recruited. A. Job interview is your opportunity to show an employer what he or she gets when you will be recruited. B. Job interview is an opportunity for your showing an employer what he or she will get when you are recruited. C. A job interview is an opportunity for you to show an employer what he or she will get if you are recruited. D. Job interview is your opportunity to show an employer what he or she will get unless you are recruited. 137. People/ work/ offices/ have/ five-day week/ often say/ nine-to-five job. A. People who work in offices have a five-day week and are often said to have a nine-to-five job. B. People work in offices that have a five-day week and are often said to have a nine-to-five job. C. People working in offices have a five-day week and often say to have a nine-to-five job. D. People worked in offices which have a five-day week and are often said to have a nine-to-five job. 138. Thanks to/ high grades/ university/ she/ offer/ the position. A. Thanks to her high grades at university so she is offered the position. B. Thanks to her high grades at university, she offered the position. C. Thanks to her high grades at university, she is offered the position. D. Thanks to her high grades at university, so she offers the position. 139. My boss/ have/ assistant/ send/ document/ to him/ while/ away/ on business. A. My boss had his assistant sent the document to him while he was away on business. B. My boss had his assistant send the document to him while he was away on business. C. My boss had his assistant to send the document to him while he was away on business. D. My boss had his assistant sent the document for him while he was away on business. 140. What/ wear/ always important/ it/ create/ first impression/ interviewers.

A. What you wear is always important as it creates the first impression on the interviewers. B. What you wear is always important when it creates the first impression on the interviewers. C. What you wear is always important as it creates the first impression for the interviewers. D. What you wear is always important because of it creates the first impression on the interviewer. Exercise 13. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 141. The secretary said, "Sorry, I will never work on Sunday.” A. The secretary promised not to work on Sunday. B. The secretary refused not to work on Sunday. C. The secretary reminded her boss to work on Sunday. D. The secretary refused to work on Sunday. 142. "Joanna, please come to my office immediately," the boss said. A. The boss invited Joanna to come to his office immediately. B. The boss warned Joanna to come to his office immediately. C. The boss asked Joanna to come to his office immediately. D. The boss told Joanna please come to his office immediately. 143. “Susan, can you remember to photocopy these documents for tomorrow's meeting?" said the line manager. A. The line manager advised Susan to photocopy those documents for the meeting tomorrow. B. The line manager reminded Susan to photocopy those documents for the meeting the following day. C. The line manager invited Susan to photocopy these documents for the meeting the following day. D. The line manager reminded Susan to photocopy these documents for the meeting the following day. 144. "Go on, Mike! Apply for the job," the father said. A. The father encouraged Mike to apply for the job. B. The father denied applying for the job. C. The father invited Mike to apply for the job. D. The father forced Mike to apply for the job. 145. “I would like a cup of coffee, please,” Ms. Smith said to the waitress. A. Ms. Smith ordered the waitress to bring her a cup of coffee. B. Ms. Smith invited the waitress a cup of coffee. C. Ms. Smith advised the waitress to drink a cup of coffee. D. Ms. Smith warned the waitress not to drink coffee.

Unit 9. CHOOSING A CAREER Part I. PHONETICS Exercise 1. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 1. A. tedious

B. secure

C. temporary

D. rewarding

2. A. enthusiastic

B. smooth

C. southern

D. trustworthy

3. A. tertiary

B. trustworthy

C. tempting

D. shortlist

4. A. pension

B. commission

C. passion

D. decision

5. A. shortlist

B. temporary

C. afford

D. accordingly

Exercise 2. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. 6. A. rewarding

B. fascinating

C. tedious

D. challenging

7. A. prospect

B. reference

C. promoted

D. interview

8. A. unemployment B. economics

C. manufacture

D. responsible

9. A. workforce

B. high-flyer

C. handshake

D. headhunt

10. A. commuter

B. commitment

C. employee

D. attendant

Part II. VOCABULARY Exercise 3. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 11. I was only absent ____ the office for a few minutes! A. for

B. from

C. in

D. about

12. She became a full-time member of ____ last year. A. employees

B. employers

C. workers

D. staff

13. The ____ for this position starts at thirty thousand euros per year. A. wage

B. payment

C. salary

D. tip

14. Shelley disagreed with the board's decision so she ____ and went to work for another company. A. retired

B. fired

C. sacked

D. resigned

15. Being a flight attendant is a ____ job. You may have to work long hours on long haul flights and not get enough sleep. A. tedious

B. demanding

C. rewarding

D. fascinating

16. I think that doing medical research would be really ____ because this job would save people's lives. A. challenging

B. tiresome

C. rewarding

D. monotonous

17. I am writing in ____ to your advertisement on Vietnamework.com for the post of a personal assistant. A. connection

B. association

C. relation

D . response

18. Some people ____ to London every day from as far away as Leeds. A. connect

B. commute

C. commence

D. correspond

19. When the factory closed, over a hundred people were ____ redundant. A. made

B. given

C. taken

D. done

20. Most governments tax people on the amount of money they ____ each year.

A. win

B. gain

C. earn

D. benefit

21. After working at the same company for thirty years, my grandfather was looking forward to his ____. A. overtime

B. pension

C. charity

D. allowance

22. Who is responsible ____ dealing with complaints? A. with

B. for

C. in

D. at

C. at

D. on

23. Success in this industry depends a lot ____ luck! A. with

B. from

24. Don't you think you should apply for the job ____ writing? A. with

B. for

C. at

D. in

25. The ____ I 'm a member of is calling for a nationwide strike next week. A. union

B . charity

C. organization

D. company

26. Have you had any news about that ____ you applied for yet? A. work

B. job

C. career

D. vacancy

27. In some professions, you have to ____ when you're 60 or 65 years old. A. resign

B. terminate

C. retire

D. dismiss

28. We began ____ looking round for advertising agencies which have experience of our market. A. to

B. with

C. by

D. at

29. The covering letter wasn't attached ____ the CV. A. to

B. with

C. from

D. by

C. diplomas

D. ambitions

30. Certificates provide proofs of your ____. A. qualifications

B. qualities

31. I'd like to speak to the person in ____ please. A. duty

B. responsibility

C. obligation

D. charge

32. When you ____ the interview, remember to bring some sample of your work. A. apply

B. join

C. attend

D. make

33. I would be grateful for an opportunity to visit your company and discuss my application with you ____. A. in privacy

B. individually

C. privately

D. in person

34. If my application is successful, I will be able to start work from 15th of August when I finish all my exams. I am ____ my CV with this letter. A. sending

B. attaching

C. closing

D. enclosing

35. Like many young people today, I'm thinking about taking a year ____ first, or as people often say, spending a year at "the university of lifeâ&#x20AC;?. A. off

B. away

C. out

D. at

Exercise 4. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 36. As he lived in a small town outside the city, he had to commute every day. A. take a bus to work

B. drive to work

C. take a lift to work

D. travel a long way to and from work

37. The atmosphere at work was so bad that Brian eventually decided to hand in his notice. A. notify the boss

B. apply for another job

C. give up his job

D. be given a better job

38. My boss has a reputation for being such a slave-driver! A. working overtime

B. working excessively hard

C. being slave to work

D. making his staff work too hard

39. There are excellent prospects for promotion, and you'll know you're doing something to benefit society. A. opportunities

B. likelihoods

C. futures

D. potentials

40. We want to recruit the brightest and the best. If you think you fit the bill, fill in an application form today. A. are able to pay the bill

B. are suitable

C. are of the right size

D. are excellent

41. I am available for an interview all afternoons, except on Tuesday because I am doing a computer course to improve my typing skills. A. willing

B. free

C. impatient

D. longing

42. Finally, Amy decided to quit her job as she couldn't stand doing the same things days in days out. It's so monotonous! A. easy

B. low-paid

C. tedious

D. secure

43. Lucy has just finished her A levels and she has got a place at university, but she would really like a break from the academic world. Therefore, she decides to take a gap year and travel around the world! A. a year off

B. a year out

C. a year away

D. a year's trip 122

44. The experience from an adventurous expedition to a rainforest will broaden your horizons and teach you new skills. A. expand your range of interests and knowledge

B. open your views

C. widen your eyes

D. be an eye-opener

45. I consider myself to be trustworthy, responsible and enthusiastic. A. worthwhile

B. talented

C. honest

D. skilled

Exercise 5. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 46. Well, I want to go straight to university, but I'm also thinking of applying for a temporary job in the summer. A. part-time

B. full-time

C. permanent

D. seasonal

47. John was promoted last month for being such a committed worker. A. dishonest

B. irresponsible

C. unenthusiastic

D. unreliable

48. With so many breakthroughs in robotic science and technology, much manual work will soon be taken over by robots. A. intellectual work

B. physical work

C. monotonous work

D. dull work

49. I'd go mad if I had to do a dead-end job like working on a supermarket checkout. A. boring

B. monotonous

C. fascinating

D. demanding

50. He's just so flexible. He'll adapt to any situation. A. adaptable

B. rigid

C. intelligent

D. autonomous

Part III. GRAMMAR Exercise 6. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 51. Helen usually ____ her childhood with great pleasure. A. talks back to

B. thinks back on

C. turns back to

D. falls back on

52. One member of the project group ____ the boss and was fired immediately. A. came up against

B. came up with

C. talked back to

D. put up with

53. The government is trying not to ____ the money they are spending on vocational training. A. drop out of

B. drop in on

C. go on with

D. cut down on

C. drop out of

D. catch up with

54. My grandparents often ____ us without warning. A. drop in on

B. keep up with

55. Linda was about to take a part-time job, but she decided to ____ her studies instead. A. keep up with

B. go on with

C. get on with

D. drop out of

56. Many students ____ school to set up their own businesses and become self-employed. A. move out of

B. cut down on

C. drop out of

D. drop in on

57. I'm searching for websites offering career advice so that I can ____ a plan. A. come up against

B. come up with

C. draw up with

D. come across with

58. I'm so ____ under with work at the moment - it's awful. A. iced

B. rained

C. snowed

D. fogged

59. The company's announced it's ____ off over 1,000 workers. A. leaving

B. laying

C. setting

D. giving

60. They're planning to ____ down their operation in Greece and concentrate on Eastern Europe. A. wind

B. tie

C. roll

D. stretch

61. The job offer was too good for him to ____ down. A. put

B. cut

C. turn

D. shut

62. I'm not sure I'm doing it right, but I'll try to ____ ahead with it anyway. A. drive

B. bang

C. touch

D. press

63. Something's just ____ up, so I'm afraid I won't be able to make it this afternoon. A. shown

B. pulled

C. cropped

D. cut

64. Could you lend me some money to ____ me over to the end of the month? A. hand

B. tie

C. get

D. make

65. I didn't ____ out to be a millionaire - I just wanted to run a successful business. A. set

B. go

C. begin

D. watch

66. Mona's going to leave early this afternoon but she says she'll ____ up the hours tomorrow. A. find

B. make

C. catch

D. bring

67. I was ____ in for the actual manager while she was away on maternity leave. A. heading

B. staying

C. standing

D. sitting

68. Over three hundred workers were made redundant because they had to ____ one factory. A. pull down

B. cut down

C. take down

D. close down

69. I am ____ seeing you at a job interview. A. waiting for

B. looking for

C. looking forward to

D. hoping to

70. The company I'm working for at the moment is planning to expand, so they're ____ new staff. A. taking on

B. bringing in

C. carrying on to

D. pulling in

Exercise 7. Mark the letter A. B. C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 71. It was ____ windy that I couldn't stand up! A. so

B. such

C. enough

D. too

72. They were ____ beautiful shoes that I decided I had to get them. A. enough

B. too

C. so

D. such

73. Emma and Karen used to be ____ good friends that I'm surprised they don't get on now. A. so

B. enough

C. such

D. too

74. Tina had ____ much paper work to do that she didn't know where to begin. A. too

B. so

C. such

D. enough

75. ____ already busy in February, I would gladly accept your invitation. A. Was I not

B. Were I not

C. If I am not

D. Unless I was not

76. He behaved as if nothing ____. A. has happened

B. would happen

C. was happening

D. had happened

77. Do what you like ____ you don't make any noise. A. provided

B. if

C. unless

D. suppose

78. We'd better leave early tomorrow ____ there's a lot of traffic when we get to London. A. unless

B. so long as

C. in case

D. if

79. Why were you acting ____ you hadn't seen the boss? A. the way

B. as though

C. like

D. as

80. He ran ____ he could to catch up with her. A. more quickly than

B. quicker than

C. as quick as

D. as quickly as

Exercise 8. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 81. It would have been better if you wouldn't have taken a year out in the first place. A

82. Suppose you haven't found your USB, what would you have done? A

83. Although her friends tried to persuade her to apply for the job at a local factory, but Christine refused to A

make an application. 84. If Mariana been able to complete her thesis instead of returning to work, she would have graduated a year A ago.

85. A year out provided him with so extensive experience that his university was very impressed. A

86. You can leave early this morning in case you promise to make up this afternoon. A

87. Oil and gas prices have raised so rapidly in the past few months that some commuters have been forced to A

alter their travelling habits. 88. Scarlet could type much faster than anyone else in the office does. A

89. Last year, the company went bankrupt so sudden that everyone was taken by surprise. A

90. We have such a lot of bills to pay we don't have any money for luxuries. A

Part IV. SPEAKING Exercise 9. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges. 91. "Why don't you wear trainers to work?" “____” A. My boss doesn't want to.

B. We aren't allowed to.

C. We aren't let wear.

D. My boss makes me not to.

92. “Would you mind telling me where he works?” “ ____” A. Yes, I would.

B. Never mind.

C. No, of course not.

D. Well, he works in a hospital.

93. "How's your new car?" “____” A. More fast than my old one.

B. As fast as possible.

C. Much faster than my old one.

D. Most fast so far.

94. “What are you going to do after leaving school?“ “____” A. I'd like to take a year out and travel abroad.

B. My dream job is becoming a journalist.

C. Well, I love taking care of kids.

D. I'm going to drop out of school.

95. “What's your dream job?" "____” A. I want to gain work experience first.

B. I've always wanted to be a doctor.

C. I want to be successful.

D. I'd like to go straight into university.

96. “What qualities do you have that make you a suitable candidate for this post?” “____” A. Well, I have a lot of qualifications that match. B. I'm highly qualified for the post. C. I used to work in a similar position for two years. D. I consider myself to be trustworthy, responsible and punctual. 97. “Do you like my jacket? It's made of pure silk." "____” A. You're such a show off!

B. No, not for me.

C. Really? It must have cost you a fortune.

D. Yes, give it to me.

98. “What do you do for a living?” “____” A. I live by working as a secretary.

B. I live a happy life, thank you.

C. I earn enough for a living.

D. I am a secretary.

99. “How much do you earn in your new job?” “____” A. That's a bit nosey of you!

B. You shouldn't ask that.

C. I'm not your slave!

D. You can be so bossy at times!

100. "I think Mark took some money from my bag while we were out.” “____” A. No, he's far too sensible to do a thing like that. B. No, he's much too shy to do a thing like that. C. No, he's far too honest to do a thing like that. D. No, he's much too proud to do a thing like that. 101. “____” “Tall and fair, pretty, cheerful-looking.” A. How is Mandy?

B. What does Mandy look like?

C. How does Mandy like?

D. What is Mandy like?

102. “Would you like some spaghetti?” “____ I'm full.” A. Yes, please.

B. No, thanks.

C. Yes, I would.

D. No, I wouldn't.

103. “How's the new job? Does it pay well?” “____” A. Not too bad. I get £400 a week after tax.

B. I make a lot more.

C. I get a rise.

D. I earn pretty good money.

104. “Who are you working for at the moment?” “ ____” A. I work for my boss.

B. I'm my own boss. C. I'm working in IT.

D. I'm an employer.

105. "It usually costs £150, but I got it for £75 in the sale!" " ____" A. Lucky you.

B. Really? You are so lucky.

C. It's a real bargain!

D. I'm not that lucky.

Part V. READING Exercise 10. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. CRITICISM It can take a long time to become successful in your chosen field, however (106) ____ you are. One thing you have to be (107) ____of is that you will face criticism along the way. The world is full of people who would rather say something negative than positive. If you've made up your (108) ____ to achieve a certain goal, such as writing a novel, don't let the negative criticism of others (109) ____ you from reaching your target, and let constructive criticism have positive (110) ____ on your work. If someone says you're totally (111) ____ in talent, ignore them. That's negative criticism. If, however, someone (112) ____ you to revise your work and gives you good reasons for doing so, you should (113) ____ their suggestions carefully. There are many film stars who were once out of (114) ____. There are many famous novelists who made a complete (115) ____ of their first novel - or who didn't, but had to (116) ____ approaching hundreds of publishers before they could get it published. Being successful

does depend on luck, to a certain extent. But things are more likely to (117) ____ well if you persevere and stay positive. 106. A. talented

B. invested

C. mixed

D. workable

107. A. alert

B. clever

C. intelligent

D. aware

108. A. mind

B. brain

C. thought

D. idea

109. A. cease

B. remove

C. avoid

D. prevent

110. A. outcome

B. result

C. effect

D. consequence

111. A. lacking

B. short

C. missing

D. absent

112. A. suggests

B. advises

C. proposes

D. explains

113. A. think

B. consider

C. look round

D. take

114. A. career

B. business

C. job

D. work

115. A. mess

B. rubbish

C. trash

D. garbage

116. A. put off

B. bank on

C. keep on

D. drop in on

117. A. turn out

B. come into

C. deal with

D. sail through

Exercise 11. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Although I left university with a good degree, I suddenly found that it was actually quite hard to find a job. After being unemployed for a few months, I realized I had to take the first thing that came along or I'd be in serious financial difficulties. And so, for six very long months, I became a market research telephone interviewer. I knew it wasn't the best company in the world when they told me that I'd have to undergo three days of training before starting work, and that I wouldn't get paid for any of it. Still, I knew that the hourly rate when I actually did start full time would be a lot better than unemployment benefit, and I could work up to twelve hours a day, seven days a week if I wanted. So, I thought of the money I'd earn and put up with three days of unpaid training. Whatever those three days taught me - and I can't really remember anything about them today - I wasn't prepared for the way I would be treated by the supervisors. It was worse than being at school. There were about twenty interviewers like myself, each sitting in a small, dark booth with an ancient computer and a dirty telephone. The booths were around the walls of the fifth floor of a concrete office block, and the supervisors sat in the middle of the room, listening in to all of our telephone interviews. We weren't allowed to talk to each other, and if we took more than about two seconds from ending one phone call and starting another, they would shout at us to hurry up and get on with our jobs. We even had to ask for permission to go to the toilet. I was amazed how slowly the day went. Our first break of the day came at eleven o'clock, two hours after we started. I'll always remember that feeling of despair when I would look at my watch thinking, 'It's must be nearly time for the break', only to find that it was quarter to ten and that there was another hour and a quarter to go. My next thought was always, 'I can't believe I'm going to be here until nine o'clock tonight.' The most frightening aspect of the job was that I was actually quite good at it. 'Oh, no!' I thought. â&#x20AC;&#x2DC;Maybe I'm destined to be a market researcher for the rest of my life.' My boss certainly seemed to think

so. One day - during a break, of course - she ordered me into her office. 'Simon,' she said, 'I'm promoting you. From tomorrow, you're off telecoms and onto credit card complaints. I'm sure you can handle it. There's no extra pay, but it is a very responsible position.' Three weeks later, I quit. It was one of the best decisions I've ever made. 118. Why did the writer become a market research telephone interviewer? A. He had completely run out of money.

B. He had the right university degree for the job.

C. It was the first job he was offered.

D. He knew it was only for six months.

119. The writer had doubts about the company when ____. A. they only offered him three days of training B. they told him he wouldn't receive payment for his training C. they told him he had to be trained first D. he was told what the hourly rate would be 120. His workplace could be best described as ____. A. large and noisy

B. silent and dirty

C. untidy and crowded

D. old-fashioned and uncomfortable

121. How did he feel when he realized it wasn't time for the break yet? A. He felt that he would have to go home early. B. He felt that he wouldn't survive to the end of the day. C. He felt that the end of the day seemed so long away. D. He felt that he must have made a mistake. 122. What was unusual about Simon's promotion? A. It showed how good he was at his job.

B. It meant he would be phoning different people.

C. It involved greater responsibility.

D. There was no increase in salary.

Exercise 12. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. THE SECRETARY In olden days, when a glimpse of stocking was looked upon as something far too shocking to distract the serious work of an office, secretaries were men. Then came the First World War and the male secretaries were replaced by women. A man's secretary became his personal servant, charged with remembering his wife's birthday and buying her presents; taking his suits to the dry-cleaners; telling lies on the telephone to keep people he did not wish to speak to at bay; and, of course, typing, filing and taking shorthand. Now all this may be changing again. The microchip and high technology is sweeping the British office, taking with it much of the routine clerical work that secretaries did. "Once office technology takes over generally, the status of the job will rise again because it will involve only the high-powered work - and then men will want to do it again." That was said by one of the executives (male) of one of the biggest secretarial agencies in this country. What he has predicted is already under way in the US. One girl described to me a recent temporary job

placing men in secretarial jobs in San Francisco, she noted that all the men she dealt with appeared to be gay so possibly that is just a new twist to the old story. Over here, though, there are men coming onto the job market as secretaries. Classically, girls have learned shorthand and typing and gone into a company to seek their fortune from the bottom - and that's what happened to John Bowman. Although he joined a national grocery chain as secretary to its first woman senior manager, he has since been promoted to an administrative job. "I filled in the application form and said I could do audio/typing, and in fact I was the only applicant. The girls were reluctant to work for this young, glamorous new woman with all this power in the firm. I did typing at school, and then a commercial course. I just thought it would be useful finding a job. I never got any funny treatment from the girls, though I admit I've never met another male secretary. But then I joined the Post Office as a clerk and fiddled with the typewriter, and wrote letters, and thought that after all secretaries were getting a good ÂŁ 1,000 a year more than clerks like me. There were a shortage at that time, you see. It was simpler working for a woman than for a man. I found she made decisions, she told everybody what she thought, and there was none of that male bitchiness, or that stuff 'ring this number for me dear' which men go in for. Don't forget we were a team - that's how I feel about it - not boss and servant but two people doing different things for the same purpose.â&#x20AC;? One high technology has made the job of secretary less routine, will there be a male takeover? Men should beware of thinking that they can walk right into the better jobs. There are a lot of women secretaries who will do the job as well as them - not just because they can buy negligees for the boss's wife, but because they are as efficient and well-trained to cope with word processors and computers as men. 123. Before 1914 female secretaries were rare because they ____. A. were less efficient than men

B. wore stockings

C. were not as serious as men

D. would have disturbed the other office workers

124. A female secretary has been expected, besides other duties, to ____. A. be her boss's memory

B. do everything her boss asked her to

C. clean her boss's clothes

D. telephone her boss's wife

125. A secretary in the future will ____. A. be better paid

B. have less work to do

C. have higher status

D. have more work to do

126. He was given his first job as a secretary because ____. A. he had the best qualifications

B. he was lucky

C. he wanted to work for a woman

D. no one else applied

127. He did a commercial course because he ____. A. couldn't think of anything else to do

B. thought it would help him to find a job

C. had done typing at school

D. wanted to become a secretary

128. When he was a post office clerk, secretaries were better paid because ____. A. not many were looking for jobs

B. they were better trained

C. they had greater responsibility

D. they worked longer hours

129. He found that working for a female boss was less ____. A. boring

B. easy

C. complicated

D. frustrating

130. The writer believes that before long ____. A. men and women will be secretaries

B. men will take over women's jobs as secretaries

C. men will better with machines

D. women will operate most office machines

Part VI. WRITING Exercise 13. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 131. Thanks to her high grades at university, Barbara is offered the position. A. If she got high grades at university, Barbara would be offered the position. B. It was her high grades at university which offer Barbara the position. C. If she hadn't got high grades at university, Barbara would not have been offered the position. D. If she had not got high grades at university, Barbara would not be offered the position. 132. Unless you come on time, we will go without you. A. Come on time or we will go without you. B. Come on time, we will go without you. C. Because of your punctuality, we will go without you. D. Without your coming on time, we will go. 133. They got success in their job interviews since they took my advice. A. They took my advice, and failed in their job interviews. B. If they did not take my advice, they would not get success in their job interviews. C. But for taking my advice, they would not have got success in their job interviews. D. My advice stopped them from getting success in the job interviews. 134. They waited such a long time that baby Caroline started to cry. A. They waited too long for baby Caroline not to cry. B. They waited so long that baby Caroline started to cry. C. They waited long enough for baby Caroline to start to cry. D. They waited enough long for baby Caroline to start to cry. 135. Although he lacked experience, he was offered the job. A. Despite of his lack experience, he was offered the job. B. Despite of his lack of experience, he was offered the job. C. In spite of his lack experience, he was offered the job. D. In spite of the fact that he lacked experience, he was offered the job. 136. As long as you finish your work, you can leave early. A. You can't leave early until you finish your work.

B. Unless you finish your work, you can leave early. C. Provided that you finish your work, you can leave early. D. If only you finish your work, you can leave early. 137. He pretended not to see his supervisor and went on working. A. He went on working as though he hadn't seen his supervisor. B. He tried not to see his supervisor and went on working. C. He avoided seeing his supervisor and went on working. D. He did not see his supervisor and went on working. 138. I did far better than Chris in the exam. A. Chris didn't do as well as me in the exam.

B. I did farther than Chris in the exam.

C. Chris did much worse than me in the exam.

D. I didn't do worse than Chris.bado

139. Hardly had I left the office when there was a power cut. A. I left the office after there was a power cut. B. I left the office long before there was a power cut. C. No sooner had I left the office than there was a power cut. D. When I was leaving the office, there was a power cut. 140. Dany ate lots of ice cream and now he has a stomachache. A. If Dany didn't eat much ice cream, he wouldn't have a stomachache. B. If Dany hadn't eaten much ice cream, he wouldn't have a stomachache. C. If Dany hadn't eaten much ice cream, he wouldn't have had a stomachache. D. If Dany didn't eat much ice cream, he wouldn't have had a stomachache. Exercise 14. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 141. He's just so flexible. He'll adapt to any situation. A. Flexible as he is, he cannot adapt to any situation. B. He's too flexible to adapt to any situation. C. He's enough flexible to adapt to any situation. D. He's so flexible that he'll adapt to any situation. 142. I find it very challenging. It requires a lot of concentration and determination. A. I find it very challenging, so it requires a lot of concentration and determination. B. I find it very challenging, yet it requires a lot of concentration and determination. C. I find it very challenging, for it requires a lot of concentration and determination D. I find it very challenging, though it requires a lot of concentration and determination. 143. I judge by the car he drives. I'd say he's got a pretty good job. A. Because I judge by the car he drives, I'd say he's got a pretty good job. B. When I judge by the car he drives, I'd say he's got a pretty good job. C. Unless I judge by the car he drives, I'd say he's got a pretty good job D. Judging by the car he drives, I'd say he's got a pretty good job.

144. You gave us timely warning. We were unaware of the danger. A. But for your timely warning, we would have been unaware of the danger. B. Because of your timely warning, we would have been unaware of the danger. C. Despite your timely warning, we would have been unaware of the danger. D. Instead of your timely warning, we would have been unaware of the danger. 145 I didn't understand his instructions. I asked him to repeat what he had said. A. I didn't understand his instructions because I asked him to repeat what he had said. B. I didn't understand his instructions, and I asked him to repeat what he had said. C. I didn't understand his instructions, for I asked him to repeat what he had said. D. I didn't understand his instructions, so I asked him to repeat what he had said.

Unit 10. LIFELONG LEARNING Part I. PHONETICS Exercise 1. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 1. A. graduate

B. mandatory

C. explode

D. persuade

2. A. investigate

B. neglect

C. gaol

D. progress

3. A. chooses

B. clothes

C. encourages

D. boxes

4. A. design

B. persuade

C. pursue

D. increase

5. A. motivation

B. initiative

C. optional

D. restricted

Exercise 2. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. 6. A. authentic

B. ultimate

C. graduate

D. personal

7. A. compulsory

B. voluntary

C. initiative

D. investigate

8. A. optional

B. primary

C. selective

D. national

9. A. unchangeable

B. adjustable

C. emotional

D. privilege

10. A. reluctant

B. different

C. flexible

D. willingly

Part II. VOCABULARY Exercise 3. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 11. Secondary education is now compulsory nationwide. A. optional

B. selective

C. primary

D. mandatory

12. All students are required to attend the course in order to be eligible for a certificate. A. see

B. watch

C. join

D. study

13. The lecture is followed by a 15-minute discussion session. A. length of journey

B. period of time

C. section

D. set

14. It is important for high school students to acquire necessary living skills to live independently. A. gain

B. possess

C. improve

D. practise

15. Students' motivation for language learning really varies. A. sense

B. emotion

C. feeling

D. inspiration

C. methods

D. rituals

16. Different learners have different learning styles. A. steps

B. means

17. Online courses allow learners to study at flexible time. A. fixed

B. adjustable

C. rigid

D. unchangeable

18. No one asked him to donate his money. He did it voluntarily. A. willingly

B. unwillingly

C. reluctantly

D. suspiciously

19. More and more school leavers want to pursue higher education. A. prepare

B. surprise

C. persuade

D. continue

20. In fact, learning is not confined to the classroom environment and school subjects.

A. defined

B. unlimited

C. restricted

D. designed

21. Children learn a great deal in their daily interaction with other peers at school. A. interruption

B. communication

C. action

D. projection

22. Lifelong learners are people who have a strong desire to learn and explore the world. A. investigate

B. invest

C . explode

D. express

23. Nowadays, lifelong learning is facilitated by e-learning platforms. A. insisted

B. assisted

C. assessed

D. accessed

24. Online courses have enabled many people to realize their learning objectives. A. motivated

B. discouraged

C. allowed

D. stopped

25. There are different courses available for students to select. A. consider

B. neglect

C. collect

D. choose

26. The ultimate aim of lifelong learning is to better yourself for personal or professional development. A. utmost

B. secondary

C. trivial

D. minimal

27. She has always showed her genuine interest in lifelong learning. A. artificial

B. fake

C. genius

D. authentic

28. Greater efforts are needed to reach the goal of universal education. A. achieve

B. archive

C. receive

D. risk

29. Having adequate funding is crucial throughout the learning process. A. abundant

B. enough

C. insufficient

D. unsatisfactory

30. Our first priority is to offer free education to all people. A. attention

B. help

C. concern

D. aid

31. It is equal-chance for everyone. No one should be given privilege. A. time

B. money

C. disadvantage

D. advantage

32. I don't think office work is suitable for me. I'd like to work in a more challenging environment. A. rewarding

B. enjoying

C. relaxing

D. demanding

33. She is very good at handling both her work and family life. A. assessing

B. reserving

C. managing

D. changing

C. saver

D. protector

34. I am lucky to have a very supportive supervisor. A. survivor

B. manager

35. Upon the project completion, I was transferred to the sales department. A. moved

B. dismissed

C. retrained

D. translated

36. If you have the right qualifications and are good at English, you are very likely to get promoted. A. elevated

B. enlightened

C. encouraged

D. endorsed

37. What is your barrier to lifelong learning? A. bar

B. obstacle

C. badge

D. motivation

38. A number of people are prevented from lifelong learning due to various reasons. A. preserved

B. invented

C. hindered

39. His life is a rich source of inspiration for many writers and poets.

D. encouraged

A. nuance

B. hindrance

C. discouragement

D. encouragement

40. Lifelong learning can also help amend some of the weaknesses of the education system. A. correct

B. change

C. develop

D. intensify

41. A good lifelong learner can advance both at work and in life. A. process

B. progress

C. precede

D. recede

42. We all welcome the government's initiative to boost lifelong learning. A. intention

B. initial

C. new plan

D. prospect

Exercise 4. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 43. The teacher asked us to get on with the next exercise and he would be back in a while. A. finish doing

B. start doing

C. continue doing

D . stop doing

44. Those students who fail the National High School exams may want to retake them the following year. A. pass

B. fall

C. sit

D. take

45. Thanks to lifelong learning, people's level of awareness has improved significantly. A. has increased

B. has declined

C. has gone up

D. has bettered

46. The teacher is going to a conference next week, so our presentation will be put off. A. delayed

B. deferred

C. carried out

D. cancelled

47. A new school has just been set up for the kids in the area. A. started

B. established

C. built

D. demolished

48. Unnecessary components should be removed from the current program to reduce the workload for school students. A. added

B. taken away

C. taken off

D. abolished

49. The school picnic has been cancelled because of bad weather. A. called off

B. continued

C. destroyed

D. broken off

50. If children are inactive most of the time, it is very easy for them to gain weight. A. put up

B. loose

C. lose

D. put on

Part III. GRAMMAR Exercise 5. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 51. If I hadn't miss the bus, I would have come at least 20 minutes earlier. A

52. If you had phoned me before I left home, I would brought you the textbook. A

53. If we had register earlier, we would have been selected for the job offers. A

54. If you hadn't made that mistake, you will have passed your test. A

55. If I had my mobile yesterday, I could have contacted and informed you about the last-minute cancellation of A

the seminar. 56. If you had studied hard, you wouldn't failed the exam. A

57. If I hadn't been too late for the exam, I might be allowed to enter the examination room. A

58. I would have enroll on an online course if I had had enough money. A

59. We might have gone to the Science Fair if we knew about it happened. A

60. If we had drop school so early, we wouldn't have had enough knowledge of the school subjects. A

61. If you had come to class last week, you might have join in the discussion on air pollution. A

62. If I had listened to my parents, I wouldn't have been in so much trouble now. A

63. I don't know your phone number. If I had known it, I would have called you last night. A

64. If I have studied English earlier, I could have read this book several years ago. A

65. If a meteor hadn't struck the Earth, the dinosaurs didn't become extinct. A

66. If they had win the lottery last summer, they would have bought a new car. A

Exercise 6. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 67. If I hadn't stayed up so late last night, I ____ so tired this morning. A. don't feel

B. felt

C. didn't feel

D. wouldn't have felt

68. ____ in terrible trouble right now if you hadn't helped me. A. am

B. will be

C. would be

D. would have been

69. If I had a computer, I ____ the assignment last night. A. finished

B. have finished

C. would have finished

D. had finished

70. If you ____ harder, you'd have passed the exam. A. had studied

B. have studied

C. studied

D. study

71. If you had lots of money, what ____? A. do you do

B. will you do

C. would you do

D. have you done

72. I'd ____ out with you if I wasn't so tired. A. go

B. went

C. had gone

D. will go

73. I'm sure your parents would have been happier if you ____ harder before that important exam. A. work

B. worked

C. have worked

D. had worked

74. Tom ____ so careless if he'd known what would happen. A. would have been

B. wouldn't have been

C. would be

D. wouldn't be

C. had arrived

D. would arrive

75. If she ____ on time, I would have been surprised. A. arrived

B. have arrived

76. We wouldn't ____ the bus if we'd left home earlier. A. have missed

B. had missed

C. will miss

D. would miss

C. would get

D. would have got

77. If John had studied more, he ____ better marks. A. gets

B. will get

78. If he had tried harder, he might ____. A. succeed

B. have succeeded

C. be success

D. will succeed

79. If you had saved some money, you ____ so hard up now. A. aren't

B. won't

C. wouldn't be

D. wouldn't have been

80. Why didn't you tell me? If you ____ me, I would have helped. A. tell

B. told

C. have told

D. had told

81. If he ____ the money, he wouldn't be in prison now. A. hadn't stolen

B. didn't steal

C. had stolen

D. stole

82. If Tim ____ so fast, his car wouldn't have crashed into a tree. A. didn't drive

B. hadn't driven

C. haven't driven

D. drives

83. What a bad luck! If Nam ____ over, he would have won the race. A. doesn't fall

B. didn't fall

C. hasn't fallen

D. hadn't fallen

84. If you ____ me last week, I would have been able to come. A. invited

B. had invited

C. would invite

D. would have invited

85. I'm sure your letter hasn't arrived yet. If it had come, I'm sure I ____ it. A. will notice

B. noticed

C. would have noticed

D. would notice

86. Why didn't you phone? If I had known you were coming, I ____ you at the airport. A. would have met

B. would meet

C. met

D. had met

87. It's a pity you missed the party. If you ____, you would have met my teacher from Australia. A. came

B. have come

C. come

D. had come

C. had studied

D. would have studied

88. I wouldn't have resat the exam if I ____ harder. A. study

B. studied

89. If Jane ____, I wouldn't have been able to move the table. A. didn't help

B. hadn't helped

C. hasn't helped

90. Unless you ____ me about Sue's hair, I wouldn't have noticed. A. had told Part IV. SPEAKING

B. hadn't told

C. told

D. didn't tell

D. wouldn't help

Exercise 7. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges. Two friends Nam and Lan are talking about the topic of lifelong learning. 91. Nam: Would you like to register for an online course on extensive reading? Lan: ____ A. Online courses are really popular these days. B. Yes, I'd love to. How can I register? C. We should improve our extensive reading. D. Extensive reading courses are available online. 92. Lan: What do you think about lifelong learning? Nam: ____ A. I am thinking about lifelong learning. B. Do you like lifelong learning? C. Lifelong learning helps us to improve our job prospects. D. What is the definition of lifelong learning, do you think? 93. Nam: May I borrow your books on soft skills? Lan: ____ A. Sure. When do you need them?

B. Soft skills are important these days.

C. What do soft skills mean?

D. Who needs books on soft skills?

94. Lan: When will our course on time management start? Nam: ____ A. What is time management?

B. Are you good at time management?

C. Time management is important.

D. I'm not sure. Perhaps next month.

95. Nam: I'd like to hear your ideas on how to maintain lifelong learning. Lan: ____ A. I'd say it really depends on people's attitudes.

B. You're always asking me for advice.

C. I like your ideas so much.

D. I am not interested in lifelong learning.

96. Nam: I'm planning to enroll a cake baking course. Lan: ____ A. Cake baking is really fun.

B. Baking courses are available everywhere.

C. Who wants to bake cakes?

D. That's a good idea. I hope you'll enjoy it.

97. Nam: Do you want me to help with your homework? Lan: ____ A. Homework? I don't like homework.

B. Thank you. It's very kind of you!

C. Why do we need homework?

D. If you like, you can do it every day.

98. Nam: If you like, I will find a piano class for you. Lan: ____ A. I can play the piano very well.

B. Every child wants to play the piano.

C. Thanks, but that won't be necessary.

D. Who can play the piano in our class?

99. Nam: Would you mind if sometimes I borrowed your notebook? I was absent last time. Lan: ____ A. No, of course not.

B. Yes, of course I would.

C. I mind a lot.

D. I like discussions.

100. Nam: Could you find all the information related to the course we registered? Lan: ____ A. All the courses are related to lifelong learning. B. Are they available? C. What do they look like? D. I think that'll be very difficult, but I'll try. 101. Nam: Will you continue your further education after leaving school? Lan: ____ A. Further education is not for everyone. B. Leaving school is an important milestone. C. I haven't decided yet. D. Are you interested in my academic results at school? 102. Nam: Do you think students get too much homework these days? Lan: ____ A. Homework helps students study better.

B. It depends on each school policy.

C. Students always get homework.

D. Homework can never be done in class.

103. Lan: Should students be allowed to leave school when they are 14? Nam: ____ A. I don't think so. I think it is very important to have a good education. B. Who wants to leave school at the age of 14? C. It is a hard decision. D. Students can't have their own choice at the age of 14. 104. Nam: Do you think the school holidays should be longer? Lan: ____ A. School holidays are getting longer. B. The longest school holiday is summer holiday. C. Students really enjoy their summer holiday. D. Sure. Every student would love that. 105. Lan: Do you think your schooldays are the happiest days of your life? Nam: ____ A. I believe schooldays last forever. B. Were you happy during your schooldays? C. I think so. We are worry-free and full of ambitions in the schooldays. D. We didn't have schooldays when we were at school. Part V. READING

Exercise 8. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. LEARNING HOW TO LEARN AND THINK What is the point of the education system? Although this question may seem ridiculous at first (106) ____, it is actually not stupid as it sounds. The reason it is (107) ____ trying to answer is that schools and university clearly (108) ____ academic achievement, passing exams and gaining (109) ____ much more than acquiring skills such as (110) ____ children or car maintenance. But why is it? Why do they neglect to teach (111) ____ skills at school? One answer may be that schools don't (112) ____ to help us gain useful knowledge about the world. At school, what we are (113) ____ learning is how to learn effectively. The idea is that we can then (114) ____ use of that ability later on in life when we come to deal (115) ____ more practical aspects of dayto-day living. However, some people argue that the (116) ____ system is in fact a failure because it doesn't actually teach children how to become good thinkers. Learning how to learn is one thing. Learning how to learn is one thing. Learning how to think is (117) ____ another. 106. A. glance

B. sight

C. look

D. eye

107. A. cost

B. value

C. worth

D. price

108. A. strain

B. stress

C. emphasis

D. emphasise

109. A. qualifications

B. skills

C. qualities

D. personalities

110. A. increasing

B. rising

C. growing

D. raising

111. A. practice

B. practical

C. impractical

D. imperfect

112. A. prospect

B. exit

C. exist

D. insist

113. A. actually

B. factually

C. gradually

D. virtually

114. A. work

B. do

C. take

D. make

115. A. at

B. with

C. on

D. to

116. A. corruptive

B. concurrent

C. current

D. currency

117. A. quite

B. quit

C. quiet

D. quietly

Exercise 9. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. During my last couple of years as a student here at Union High, I have noticed that there is nothing to do during our occasional free periods. Hanging around in the hallways or in the library with friends isn't productive or relaxing. The student body council noticed this as well and brought it to the attention of Mr. Swanson and the rest of the faculty. A meeting to discuss the issue occurred last Friday, February 10th, in the all - school meeting room. The faculty not only agreed that there wasn't much to do during these free periods, but also seemed determined to find a solution. The student body council and the faculty talked about different ideas for a long time. The faculty had noticed that some students don't like using their free periods for studying. Instead, they spend their time disrupting the students who want to study by being noisy in the library.

By the end of the meeting, the faculty had decided to put a pool table and a ping pong table in our student lobby at the start of next semester. I know some people will be concerned about getting their work done with these potential distractions, but I believe this will help us all in enjoying our time at school. I agree that it's important to complete our work but it is just as important to enjoy ourselves and to relax with our friends. School is already such a stressful place. It makes many students feel worried and anxious. We want our school to be a friendly place so that students want to come every day. Students should remember that this change will make the library a lot quieter. Because of this, the students who want to study will be able to do so in peace. To all the students at Union High, I sincerely hope that you enjoy the new additions to our lobby. Hopefully, they will make our free periods a lot more relaxing. If you happen to have one of the same free periods as I do, then please challenge me to a game of pool! 118. What is the text mostly about? A. Another choice for free periods at Union High B. A chance to study in peace at Union High library C. How students at Union High spend their free periods D. A meeting at Union High about its new facilities 119. What is the meeting on February 10th about? A. Students hanging around freely during free periods. B. Ineffective time at the Union High library. C. Finding a solution to spending free periods effectively. D. Maintaining disciplines at Union High school. Bolo 120. In paragraph 2, the word they refers to ____. A. faculty members

B. some students

C. students' parents

D. council members

121. In paragraph 2, the word disrupting is closest in meaning to ____. A. fighting

B. insulting

C. corrupting

D. interrupting

122. According to the author, new facilities ____. A. make the school a stressful place

B. make students worried

C. bring anxiety to students' parents

D. make students relaxed during free periods

123. In paragraph 4, the word they refers to ____. A. free periods

B. our friends

C. new additions

D. all the students

Exercise 10. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Twenty-five students from Walling School are currently living in France. They are there for three months as part of a living-abroad project. The 16- and 17-year-old students are living with French families and attending a French school. Most of the students have taken French language classes for 3 or 4 years and are finally getting an opportunity to use their French.

Not only are students learning a new language, but they are learning about a new culture, too. Students have been particularly surprised about the French attitude towards food. "They won't leave anything on their plate," says Vanessa Athol. “They aren't wasteful at all.” Vanessa has vowed to be more careful with waste when returning to the United States. The group's chaperone, Mrs. Smith, has been pleased with the students' acquisition of language. "Even the most timid are trying their best to speak. The students are learning a lot. I'm very impressed," she said. Mrs. Smith added that she thinks living with a French family makes a difference because students are forced to speak French. “We are all very grateful to the French families who are hosting us.” The French families are happy to have the students, as they are getting to learn about American culture. Both groups will be celebrating the exchange at a large potluck dinner at the end of the stay. There will be a slide show of memories and the students will speak about their experiences. Currently, the American students are periodically posting pictures and student essays on the Walling School website. "Living in France is an experience I'll never forget," writes student Tina Davis. "I know I'll want to eat these croissants and this Camembert for the rest of my life!" 124. Which title would be the most suitable for this article? A. French Families Love America B. Student Tina Davis Lives in France C. Walling School Website Posts Student Essays D. Walling School Students Stay Abroad in France 125. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE? A. Students from Walling School are now staying in the USA. B. These students are immigrants from the USA. C. Walling School students are now staying with French families. D. Walling School students are applying for jobs in France. 126. What can be implied about the culture in France? A. It scares the students.

B. It requires fluency in French.

C. It can be learned from a book.

D. It's different from the culture in America.

127. In paragraph 2, the word vowed is closest in meaning to ____. A. promised

B. saved

C. received

D. changed

128. In paragraph 3, the word acquisition is closest in meaning to ____. A. speaking

B. gaining

C. purchase

D. responsibility

129. Based on the passage, what does Mrs. Smith probably think about the French language? A. It is more beautiful than Spanish. B. It is very important for international communication. C. It's best to learn it from a French family in France. D. It is something each and every student needs to know. 130. According to the passage, how will the students conclude their stay? A. They will take a French exam.

B. They will have a party together.

C. They will visit Paris together.

D. They will stay in hostel together.

Part VI. WRITING Exercise 11. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 131. I didn't have an umbrella with me, so I got wet. A. Since I got wet, I didn't have an umbrella with me. B. My umbrella helped me to get wet. C. I got wet because I didn't have an umbrella with me. D. I got wet, so I didn't have an umbrella. 132. Unless you leave me alone, I'll call the police. A. I'll call the police because you leave me alone.

B. I'll call the police if you don't leave me alone.

C. If you leave me alone, I'll call the police.

D. You leave me alone, so I'll call the police.

133. If it snows, we don't go to school. A. In snowy weather we don't go to school.

B. We go to school despite snowy weather.

C. We only go to school when it snows.

D. Snowy doesn't stop us from going to school.

134. If you hadn't told me about the changes in the timetable, I wouldn't have noticed. A. You hadn't told me about the changes in the time table, so I didn't notice. B. Unless you had told me about the changes in the timetable, I wouldn't have noticed. C. If you had told me about the changes in the timetable, I would have noticed. D. Unless you tell me about the changes in the timetable, I won't notice. 135. I wouldn't accept if you asked me to do the assignment for you. A. If you were to ask me to do the assignment for you, I wouldn't accept. B. If you ask me to do the assignment for you, I will accept. C. If you ask me to do the assignment for you, I won't accept. D. Unless you ask me to do the assignment for you, I won't accept. 136. If I had known the reason why she was absent from class, I would have told you. A. I knew the reason why she was absent from class, but I didn't tell you. B. Unless I knew the reason why she was absent from class, I wouldn't tell you. C. I didn't know the reason why she was absent from class, so I didn't tell. D. Although I knew the reason why she was absent from class, I didn't tell you. 137. If my company hadn't employed me, I couldn't have got such valuable real-world experience from my professional colleagues. A. Unless my company had employed me, I could have got professional real-world experience from my professional colleagues. B. Even my company had employed me, I couldn't have got valuable real-world experience from my professional colleagues. C. I couldn't have got valuable real-world experience from my professional colleagues because my company hadn't employed me.

D. Because my company had employed me, I could have got valuable real-world experience from my professional colleagues. 138. Lisa couldn't continue her university course now if she hadn't received financial support from her uncle last year. A. Lisa hadn't received financial support from her uncle, so she couldnâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;t continue her university course. B. Lisa received financial support from her uncle last year, so she can continue her university course now. C. If Lisa had received financial support from her uncle last year, she could continue her university course now. D. Even Lisa hadn't received financial support from her uncle, she could continue her university course. 139. If my dad hadn't kept educating himself continuously, he wouldn't be a really successful man now. A. My dad has kept educating himself continuously, so he is a really successful man now. B. My dad hasn't kept educating himself continuously, so he isn't really successful. C. My dad is a really successful man now, but he hasn't kept educating himself continuously. D. Although my dad hasn't kept educating himself continuously, he is a really successful man now. Exercise 12. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 140. Mary did not put any effort into learning English. She cannot speak with foreign partners in this project now. A. Even Mary put great effort into learning English, she cannot speak with the foreign partners in this project now. B. Mary did not put any effort into learning English, but she can speak with the foreign partners in this project now. C. Although Mary did not put any effort into learning English, she couldn't speak with the foreign partners in this project. D. If Mary had put her effort into learning English, she could speak with the foreign partners in this project now. 141. My younger sister was so excited to learn new things after work. She is in a cake baking class now. A. My younger sister wasn't so excited to learn new things after work, so she was in a cake baking class now. B. If my younger sister hadn't been so excited to learn new things after work, she would not be in a cake baking class now. C. My younger sister wasn't so excited to learn new things after work, so she wasn't in a cake baking class now. D. My sister wasn't in a cake baking class now because she wasn't excited to learn new things after work. 142. My dad had a wide range of practical life skills. He could solve most problems by himself.

A. If my dad hadn't had a wide range of practical life skills, he couldn't have solved most problems by himself. B. Because my dad hadn't had a wide range of practical life skills, he couldn't have solved most problems by himself. C. Since my dad didn't have a wide range of practical life skills, he couldn't solve most problems by himself. D. If my dad had a wide range of practical life skills, he couldn't solve most problems by himself. 143. The subjects at high school were not really relevant to the real world. I cannot apply that knowledge in my job now. A. If the subjects at high school are more relevant to the real world, I can apply that knowledge in my job now. B. If the subjects at high school were more relevant to the real world, I could apply that knowledge in my job now. C. The subjects at high school were relevant to the real world, so I can apply that knowledge in my job now. D. If the subjects at high school had been more relevant to the real world, I could apply that knowledge in my job now. 144. My sister didn't have enough money for learning after college. She can't get a Bachelor of Science degree now. A. If my sister had enough money for learning after college, she could get a Bachelor of Science degree now. B. If my sister had had enough money for learning after college, she could get a Bachelor of Science degree now. C. If my sister has enough money for learning after college, she can get a Bachelor of Science degree now. D. Although my sister didn't have enough money for learning after college, she could get a Bachelor of Science degree. 145. My elder brother was interested in improving his management skills. He becomes so successful now. A. If my elder brother wasn't interested in improving his management skills, he could not become so successful now. B. If my elder brother isn't interested in improving his management skills, he cannot become so successful now. C. If my elder brother hadn't been interested in improving his management skills, he could not become so successful now. D. Even though my elder brother wasn't interested in improving his management skills, he has become so successful now.