TUYỂN CHỌN VÀ ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ GIAO LƯU HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 6 (CÓ PHẦN NGHE) by DẠY KÈM QUY NHƠN OLYMPIC

ĐỀ GIAO LƯU HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN

vectorstock.com/7952556

Ths Nguyễn Thanh Tú eBook Collection

TUYỂN CHỌN VÀ ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ GIAO LƯU HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 6 (CÓ PHẦN NGHE) prod. by Dạy Kèm Quy Nhơn WORD VERSION | 2021 EDITION ORDER NOW / CHUYỂN GIAO QUA EMAIL TAILIEUCHUANTHAMKHAO@GMAIL.COM

Tài liệu chuẩn tham khảo Phát triển kênh bởi Ths Nguyễn Thanh Tú Đơn vị tài trợ / phát hành / chia sẻ học thuật : Nguyen Thanh Tu Group Hỗ trợ trực tuyến Fb www.facebook.com/DayKemQuyNhon Mobi/Zalo 0905779594

PHÒNG GD&ĐT VĨNH TƯỜNG

ĐỀ KHẢO SÁT HSG NĂM HỌC 2013-2014

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

ƠN

FI CI A

MÔN: Tiếng Anh LỚP: 6 Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút I. Listen to a conversation between Jenny and Sylvia. As you listen, fill in the blanks with ONLY ONE WORD. (All the recordings will be played twice) Jenny: Hello. ……(1)…….. Sylvia: Hi Jenny. It’s Sylvia. Jenny: Oh, hi Sylvia. How are you? Sylvia: Fine, thanks. Listen. Can you play ……(2)……. at the weekend, Jen. Jenny: Well, I ….(3)…… play on …..(4)…….. . I have to go to ….(5)…... . But Sunday’s OK for me. What…(6)….. Sunday …...(7)…… at about ….(8)…. Sylvia: No. Six is no good for me. Can we…(9)….. it ….(10)…..? Jenny: Yes, that’s OK. Seventy thirty’s all right for me. Anyway,how are things….. II. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. 1. A. thank B. month C. with D. theater 2. A .have B. lamp C. stand D. wash 3. A. clothes B. watches C. benches D. classes 4. A. hour B. house C. help D. home 5. A. beach B. seat C. meat D. great III. Choose the best answer from the four options given (marked A, B ,C, D) to complete each sentence. 1. Is ……….hair long? A. she B. her C. she’s D. hers 2. We go to school at ………………… in the morning. A. a quarter past seven B. seven quarter C. seven past a quarter D. a quarter seven 3. My sister listens……………. music after school. A. to B. of C. up D. for 4. Do your children have classes on Sunday?-…………… A. Yes,they have B. Yes, they don’t C. No, they don’t D. No,they not have. 5. Luong ………… literature on Tuesday and Saturday. A. not have B. isn’t have C. don’t has D. doesn’t have 6.My mother is ……….home A. in B. at C. on D. of 7. I hope the ……….. can repair our car quickly. A. mechanic B. reporter C. architect D. dentist 8. Look ………….. that strange man. He is looking ………Nga but she isn’t here. A. for, at B. at, for C. at, at D. at, on 9. Whose book are you reading?- It’s .................... . A. English book B. interesting C. Mary’s D. about Mary 10. ............... homework do you get ? A. How many B. How long C. How much D. How often IV. Complete the following sentences with the new word formed the ones in CAPITAL at the end of each sentence. 1.There are a lot of ………….. mountains in Viet Nam. BEAUTY 2.In the ……… there’s a museum, a factory and a stadium. NEIGHBOUR 3. These children like………. weather. SUN

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

ƠN

FI CI A

4. Lan’s classroom is on the………….. floor TWO 5. Peter ………… a very big car DRIVER V. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions below. Lan’s classes all start at 8:00AM., so she gets up at 7:00. She eats a quick breakfast, and takes the bus to her school. She also has a job at the library. She works from Thursday to Saturday. She usually studies in the evening. She stays up late because of her homework. She usually goes to bed at 11:30, and on Sundays she sleeps until noon. Questions: 1. How does she go to school? 2. Where does she work? 3. How many days a week does she work? 4. Does she go to bed early? 5. Why does she stay up late? VI. Choose the best answer to fill in the blank. My Teacher My teacher, Miss White, is a young lady (1) _____ twenty-six. She is a nice lady. She loves her students (2) _____. She never (3) _____ angry with them. Miss White (4) _____ teaching her students. Sometimes she tells (5) ______ many interesting stories. I like to listen to her stories (6) ______ they all help us to learn some (7) _____ lessons. Sometimes she takes us out (8) ______ a picnic. Whenever she takes us out, she tries to teach us something (9) _______. It is my dream that (10) _______ I grow up, I can become a good teacher like her. 1. A. of B. with C.from D. by 2. A.very many B.very much C. too D. so 3. A.is B. gets C. makes D. comes 4. A.enjoy B. enjoying C. enjoys D. to enjoy 5. A.we B. they C. I D. us 6. A.because B. when C. where D. why 7. A.use B. useful C. using D. to use 8. A.from B. by C. for D. of 9. A.old B. new C. bad D. well 10. A.where B. why C. what D. when VII.Rewrite these sentences sothat it has a similar meaning to the first one. 1. Does your school have twenty-five teachers ? => Are ............................................................ ? 2. Mr Quan usually drives to work . => Mr Quan usually ............................... 3. Nam has a sister, Nga. => Nam………………………………………. …… 4. Tim and Peter often walk to school. => Tim and Peter often………………………….. 5. Jane is the tallest girl in my class . => No girl ............................................................. VIII. Write a passage about 80-100 words about your friend’s day.

Cán bộ coi khảo sát không giải thích gì thêm

PHÒNG GD&ĐT VĨNH TƯỜNG

HD CHẤM KHẢO SÁT HSG NĂM HỌC 2013-2014

1. 84923

2. tennis

3. can’t

4. Saturday

5. London

6. about

7. evening

8. 6.00

9. make

10. 7.30

4.A

5.D

II. 0,5 điểm (Mỗi câu đúng được 0,1 điểm) 1. C

2. D

3. A

KÈ

QU Y

ƠN

III. 1 điểm (Mỗi câu đúng được 0,1 điểm) 1. B 6. B 2. A 7. A 3. A 8. B 4. C 9. C 5. D 10. C IV. 1 điểm (Mỗi câu đúng được 0,2 điểm) 1. beautiful 2. neighbourhood 3. sunny 4. second 5. drives V. 1 điểm (Mỗi câu đúng được 0,2 điểm) 1. She goes to school by bus. 2. She works at the library. 3. She works 3 days a week. 4. No, she doesn’t. 5. Because she has (a lot of) homework. VI. 2 điểm (Mỗi câu đúng được 0,2 điểm) 1. A 2. B 3. B 4.C 5. D 6. A 7. B 8. C 9. B 10. D VII. 1,5 điểm (Mỗi câu đúng được 0,3 điểm) 1. Are there twenty- five teachers in your school? 2. Mr Quan usually goes to work by car. 3. Nam is Nga’s brother. 4. Tim and Peter often go to school on foot. 5. No girl in my class is taller than Jane. VIII. 1,5 điểm. Yêu cầu: viết đúng yêu cầu của đề bài, bố cục rõ ràng, đúng ngữ pháp…

DẠ

I. 1,5 điểm. (Mỗi từ đúng được 0,15)

FI CI A

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH LỚP: 6 Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút

PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO HUYỆN THANH OAI

ĐỀ THI OLYMPIC LỚP 6 Năm học: 2014 - 2015 Môn: Tiếng Anh

FI CI A

Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Chú ý: - Bộ đề thi này gồm có 04 trang, từ trang 01 đến trang 04. - Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào bộ đề thi này. Điểm

Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 1:

- Bằng số:…………….. ………………………………………...

- Bằng chữ:…………… Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 2: ………………………... ………………………………………...

Số phách (Do Chủ tịch hội đồng chấm thi ghi) …………………..

KÈ

QU Y

ƠN

PART ONE: LISTENING: Listen to the tape and fill in the gaps with the words you hear: (15 x 0.2 = 3.0 pts) My Flower Garden My (1)…………………. is Anne. I love (2)………………….. I have a flower garden. My garden is in (3)…………………. of my house. My (4)…………………. has a garden, too. My garden has different types (5)…………………. flowers. I have roses in my garden. (6)…………………. have tulips in my garden. I have petunias (7)…………………. my garden. My garden (8)…………………. different colours. I plant (9)…………………. flowers. I plant orange flowers. I plant (10)…………………. flowers. I plant purple flowers. I (11)…………………. care of my garden. I (12)…………………. my garden every day. I kill (13)…………………. weeds in my garden. I kill insects (14)…………………. eat my flowers. I love my (15)…………………. garden.

DẠ

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts) I. Choose one word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others by circling A, B, C, or D. (5 × 0,2=1,0 pt) 16. A. chair B. school C. couch D. children 17. A. game B. change C. vegetable D. geography 18. A. intersection B. eraser C. bookstore D. history 19. A. tenth B. tooth C. brother D. theater 20. A. boot B. tooth C. food D. flood Write your answers here: 2........................ 3........................... 4........................... 5.................. 1

1……………..

A. forest A. pastimes A. hotel A. dangerous A. visit

C. building C. housework C. repeat C. telephone C. receive

B. desert B. classroom B. remember B. engineer B. unload

D. mountain D. canteen D.classroom D. accident D. correct

21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

FI CI A

II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C or D (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

ƠN

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (25 x 0.2 = 5.0 pts) I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences. (10 x 0.2= 2.0 pts)

KÈ

QU Y

26. How…………. rice does he want? A. many B. much C. any D. about 27. I don’t like coffee but my brother…………. A. do B. likes C. does D. would like 28. Ha ………….goes swimming in the winter because the winter is cold. A. never B. always C. usually D. often 29. I don’t want………….to Ho Chi Minh City because I’m very tired. A. going B. goes C. go D. to go 30. “Does Jane like………….?” – “Yes, She goes Jogging every morning.” A. jog B. to jog C. jogs D. jogging. 31. What……….…going by bike to the pagoda? A. there B. sport C. about D. time 32. Which supermarket………….? A. do you want to go to. B. do you want to go it C. you want to go D. do you want to go. 33. Where’s the chalk? A. It’s hers B. It’s on the table C. It’s of the table D. It’s mine 34. I don’t have………….apples but I have………….oranges. A. any- any B. some- any C. some- some D. any- some 35. Don’t throw trash into the river. It……….…water A. plows B. saves C. damages D. pollutes

DẠ

26. 31.

27. 32.

28. 33.

29. 34.

30. 35.

II. Use the words given in brackets to form a word that fits in the space. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 36. Our school children sometimes go ........................... on the weekend. (CAMP) 2

37. Mount Everest is very high. It is ............................ mountain in the world.

(HIGH) (CHINA)

38. Lee comes from China. He speaks ............................

39. Is the Underground in London ............................ than the Metro in Paris?

40. We must be .............................. when we cross the road.

FI CI A

(GOOD)

(CARE)

III. Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the verb in the brackets. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

ƠN

41. Look! The plane is flying towards the airport. It (land) ……………….…… 42. Ha’s father (drive) ……………….……his car to the garage at the moment. 43. Mr. Tung is a teacher and he (not have).……………….……classes in the afternoon. 44. You mustn’t (eat) ……………….……food in this canteen. 45. Mrs. Thuy is cleaning the windows and doors. Let’s (help) ……………….……her. IV. Fill each gap of the following sentences with a suitable preposition. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

46. Are you interested………… history? 47. Is she good ………… English? 48. I agree ………… you about that. 49. The beef is on the table …….. ……the eggs and the fish.. 50. My father always goes to work ………… car.

QU Y

PART FOUR: READING (25 x 0.2 = 5.0 pts)

DẠ

KÈ

I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following passage. (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts) Dear Hanh, I’m writing to invite you to a party we .............................. (51) at the flat next Friday, December 14th. As you know, .................................(52) Lan’s 13th birthday next week and my birthday next month, ................................ (53) we thought we’d celebrate together and have a joint party. I can’t remember if you know my address or not, but anyway, if you ..............................(54) the direction below, you shouldn’t get lost. Take the Number 15 bus from the station and ........................... (55) at the Star Hotel. Walk down Long Viet Road, past the DanChu Cinema, and then .........................(56) the first turning on the right. That’s LeLoi Road. Turn left ..................... (57) the first junction, then go straight past the church as far as the next crossroads. ......................(58) and our block of flats is the second on the right. Do try and come. Of course you’re ..................... (59) to bring someone with you if you want to. Look forward .............................. (60) you then! 51. A. have B. are having C. going to have D. will has 52. A. it’s B. its C. they’re D. she’s 53. A. too B. but C. because D. so 3

54. 59.

D. follows D. get off D. bring D. on D. Turn right D. to welcome D. to seeing

C. following C. get on C. take C. of C. To turn C. welcoming C. of seeing

FI CI A

54. A. to follow B. follow 55. A. get up B. get by 56. A. have B. get 57. A. in B. at 58. A. Right turn B. To right 59. A. welcomed B. welcome 60. A. to see B. for seeing Answers: 51. 52. 53. 56. 57. 58.

55. 60.

ƠN

II. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word to complete the passage. (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts) I _______(61) in a house near the sea. It is_______ (62) old house, about 100 _______(63) old and it's very small. _______(64) are two bed rooms upstairs but no bathroom. The bathroom is down stairs, next to the kitchen and there _______(65) a living room where there is a lovely old fire place. There is a _______(66) in front of the house. The garden _______(67) down to the beach and in Spring and Summer there are flowers every where. I like alone _______(68) my dog, Rack, but we have a lot of visitors. My city friends often stay with me. I love my house for many _______(69): the garden, the flowers in Summer, the fire in Winter, but the best thing is the view _______ (70) my bedroom window. 61..................... 6 2.................... 65.....................

63.................... 64....................

QU Y

66.................... 67.................... 68.................... 69.................... 70....................

KÈ

III. Read the passage and decide the sentences are True or False (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt): Minh and her friends are going to camp for four days in SAPA.Vui is going to bring a tent and some food. Lan is going to bring a ball to play volleyball. Ly is going to bring her camera to take some photos. Nga and Mai are going to bring some drinks. They take some orange juice. They don’t take iced tea because it’s cold. They also take some food. Their favorite food is chicken, lettuces and tomatoes. Vui’s mother helped them to arrange food and drink for their camping.They are going to stay in a small hotel.They leave their house at 6 o’clock. Statements True False 71. Minh and her friends are going to camp for four days. 72. Lan is going to bring a basket to play volleyball.

73. Nga and Mai don’t take iced tea because it’s cool.

DẠ

74. Vui’s mother helped them to arrange food and drink. 75. They go to SAPA at 6 o’clock.

PART FIVE: WRITING (5.0 pts) I. Circle the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting and then correct it. (5 x 0.2 =1.0 pt) 4

ƠN

FI CI A

76. I like watching TV. There are a good film on TV tonight. A B C D …………………………………………………………………. 77. What is he often do when it’s hot? A B C D …………………………………….. 73. How much rooms are there in the new house? A B C D ………………………………………………… 79. I’m very thirsty. I like any apple juice. A B C D ………………………………………… 80. How many children do your sister have? A B C D …………………………………………… II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, using the word given in brackets. Do not change the words given in any way. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 81/ Our school has forty-two classrooms  There .............................................................. 82/ The bakery is to the left of my house  My house .........................................................

QU Y

83/ Mr Minh has a son, Trung.  Mr Minh .......................................................... 84/ Huyen walks to school every afternoon.  Huyen goes .................................................... 85. He goes to work at seven fifteen.  He goes to work at a .......................................

III. Write a brief description about Viet Nam in about 80-100 words (3,0pts)

NĂM HỌC: 2014 – 2015 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

KÈ

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI OLYMPIC LỚP 6

DẠ

PART ONE: LISTENING: Listen to the tape and fill in the gaps with the words you hear: (15 x 0.2 = 3.0 pts) 1. name

2. flowers

3. front

4. neighbour

5. of

6. I

7. in

8. has

9. red

10. blue

11. take

12. water

13. the

14. that

15. beautiful

FI CI A

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts) I. Choose the word whose underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others by circling A, B, C or D (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 16. B. school 17. A. game 18. B. eraser 19. C. brother 20. D. flood

II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C or D (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 21. C 22. D 23. D 24. B 25. A

ƠN

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (25 x 0.2 = 5.0 pts) I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences. (10 x 0.2= 2.0 pts) 26. B 27. C 28.A 29. D 30. D 31. C. 32. A 33.B 34. D 35. D II. Use the words given in brackets to form a word that fits in the space. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 36. camping 37. the highest 38. Chinese 39. better 40.

Careful

QU Y

III. Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the verb in the brackets. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 41. is going to land 42. is driving 43. doesn’t have 44. eat 45. help IV. Fill each gap of the following sentences with a suitable preposition. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 46.In 47- at 48-with. 49- between 50- by

KÈ

PART FOUR: READING (25 x 0.2 = 5.0 pts) I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following passage. (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 51.B. are having 52. A. it’s 53.D. so 54.B. follow 55.D. get off 56.C. take 57.B. at 58.D.Turn right 59.B. welcome 60.D.to seeing

DẠ

II. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word to complete the passage. (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 61. live 62. an 63. years 64. There 65. is 66. garden 67. goes 68. with 69. reasons 70. from III. Read the passage and decide the sentences are True or False (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt): 71.T 72.F 73F 74.T 75.F

FI CI A

PART FIVE: WRITING (5.0 pts) I. Circle the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting and then correct it. (5 x 0.2 =1.0 pt) 76. B: are → is 77. B: is → are 78. A: much → many 79. D: any → some 80. C: do → does

II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, using the word given in brackets. Do not change the words given in any way. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 81. There are forty-two classrooms in our school . 82. My house is to the right of the bakery. 83. Mr Minh is Trung’s father. 84. Huyen goes to school on foot every afternoon. 85. He goes to work at a quarter past seven .

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

ƠN

III. Write a brief description about Viet Nam in about 80-100 words (3,0pts) - Content: 0,8pts - Length: 0,4pts - Grammar and vocabulary: 0,8pts

ĐỀ KHẢO SÁT HSG NĂM HỌC 2014- 2015 MÔN: Tiếng Anh 6

PHÒNG GD&ĐT VĨNH TƯỜNG

(Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút)

FI CI A

PHẦN A: Phần chung cho mọi sinh LISTENING I. Listen to the Captain's announcement on an airplane twice. Write a number or a word in the blank. 1. This is the captain……………………. 2. The number of Rightwing Flight is …………………… 3. The plane is currently at an airspeed of 400 miles per ………………. 4. The time is …………………..PM . 5. The weather looks……………………. 6. The plane is going to land in London approximately …………………….. minutes PHONETICS

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

ƠN

II.Choose the word that has the underlined parts pronounced differently from the others in each group: 1. A. vegetables B. watches C. benches D. classes 2. A. lemonade B. carrot C. chocolate D. correct 3. A. question B. vacation C. population D. destination 4. A. station B. soda C. supermarket D. sugar 5. A. chair B. school C. couch D. children VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR III. Choose the best answer from the four choices (A or B,C,D) to complete each of the following sentences. 1. Do you like pop music? A. I would B. Yes, a lot C. No, I like it D. Yes, we are 2. The students have ______ news about their exams. A. many B. some C. a D. a few 3. My brother wants a good pair of shoes because he often goes ______ A. jogging B. running C. swimming D. sailing 4. Hoang’s father gets up at 7.00 and eats ……………….…… A. a big breakfast B. the big breakfast C. big breakfast D. a breakfast big 5. “How .................. oranges would you like” - “A dozen. And ................. tea, please.” A. much, some B. many, any C. much, any D. many, some 6. I need a large ………….. of toothpaste. A. bar B. can C. tube D. box 7. Mr & Mrs Brown & their father have ……………… legs. A. four B. six C. eight D. ten 8. ……………..do the buses run ? – Every twenty minutes. A. What time B. How far C. How much D. How often 9. ……………..straight across the road. A. No run B. Not run C. Don’t run D. Can’t run 1

QU Y

ƠN

FI CI A

10. Linda ……… her hair every day. A. washes B. wash C. clean D. cleans IV. Each of the following sentences has a mistake. Find and correct it. Your corrections 1. He is knowing you are wrong. 1. ……………… A B C D 2. In the fall, leaf often fall from trees. 2………………. A B C D 3. This house has three floors. This floor is the two. 3. ……………… A B C D 4. I don’t have some apples but I have some bananas. 4………………. A B C D 5. Mr. Phong rides his bike to work at the moment. 5………………. A B C D V. Give the correct form of the words in CAPITAL to complete the sentences. 1. There is a ……………….……… next to my house. (BAKE) 2. There are a lot of ………………. mountains in Viet Nam (BEAUTY) 3. This coffee is too ………………to drink (HEAT) 4. The teacher calls Hoa ……but she is still talking to her friends. (TWO) 5. I need two ………… for cooking dinner. (KNIFE) 6. In my …………., there is a supermarket , a hotel and a park (NEIGHBOR) 7. Mount Everest is very high. It is the ….. mountain in the world. (HIGH) 8. We must be ………………….when we cross the road (CARE) 9. My aunt has two …………………, one boy and one girl ( CHILD) 10. What does your father do? - He is a …………... (POLICE) READING VI. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word to complete the passage

I don’t usually eat breakfast. I only have a_______(1) of coffee. I don’t eat _______ (2) until about eleven o’clock. Then I have a biscuit and a _______ (3) of milk. For lunch I usually have a salad. That’s _______ (4) about two o’clock. I have _______(5) at half pass six. I’m a vegetarian, so I don’t eat _______(6) or fish. I eat cheese and eggs and things like that. I have a glass of water or fruit _______(7) with my meals.

KÈ

At the weekends, I _______(8) to a restaurant in the evenings. You _______(9) get vegetarian meals in a _______(10)of restaurants now.

DẠ

VII. Read the following passage and choose the best answers. My Teacher My teacher, Miss Nga, is a young lady (1) ……….. twenty-eight. She is a nice lady. She loves her students (2) ………... She never (3)………. angry with them. Miss Nga (4) ………. teaching her students. Sometimes she tells (5) ………. many interesting stories. I like to listen to her stories (6) ………. they all help us to learn some (7) ……….lessons. Sometimes she takes us out (8) ……….a picnic. Whenever she takes us out, she tries to 2

C.from C. too C. makes C. enjoys C. I C. where C. using C. for C. bad C. what

D. by D. so D. comes D. to enjoy D. us D. why D. to use D. of D. well D. when

FI CI A

B. with B. very much B. gets B. enjoying B. they B.when B. useful B. by B. new B. why

1. A. of 2. A. very many 3. A. is 4. A. enjoy 5. A. we 6. A. because 7. A. use 8. A. from 9. A. old 10. A. where

teach us something (9) ……….. It is my dream that (10) ……….I grow up, I can become a good teacher like her.

VIII. Read the passage carefully, then choose the correct option marked A, B, C or D to answer the questions.

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

ƠN

FI CI A

C. He often plays the crossword on the train. D. For Peter, the dinner is a big meal of the day. WRITING IX. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the original one. 1. Lan’s father often drives to work.  Lan’s father often goes………………………………………………… 2.Mrs. Tinh has a daughter, Mai .  Mrs. Tinh is ........................................................................ 3. Let's go out for a walk.  Why .................................................................................................? 4. Does Nga’s school have sixteen classrooms?  Are……………………………………………………………...…? 5 .What is the length of this river?  How..........................................................................................................? X- Write a passage (60 -80 words) about your school. (don’t show your name, your school’s name , your teachers’ names or your village)

KÈ

QU Y

PHẦN B: Phần riêng cho học sinh trường THCS Vĩnh Tường- yêu cầu học sinh làm riêng phần B ra 1 tờ giấy thi; Use the suggested words to write meaningful sentences. You can add or change anything neccessary. 1. Ha / sister / listen / music / room / the moment. 2. He / not have / much time / write / friends. 3. Sister / have / bike / and / cycle / work / everyday. 4 .Ba / usually / play tennis / fall/ but/ sometimes/ sailing. 5 .Mrs. Ngoc/ going/ buy/ some toys/ children? 6. I’d like/ sandwich/ glass/ milk/ please. 7. Long/ tall/ brother/ not 8. We/ stop/ when/ light/ red. 9. There/ rice paddy/ left/ my house. 10. The weather / always/ cold/ winter

DẠ

Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất kỳ loại tài liệu nào, kể cả từ điển

L FI CI A

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM THI GIAO LƯU HSG NĂM HỌC 2014 - 2015 Môn: Tiếng Anh Lớp: 6

PHÒNG GD&ĐT VĨNH TƯỜNG

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

ƠN

PHẦN A: Phần chung cho tất cả các thí sinh (10 điểm) LISTENING (1,5 điểm) I. (1,5 điểm - mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm) 1. speaking 2. 86A./ eighty- six A 3. hour 4. 1.25 / one twenty- five 5. good 6. 15/ fifteen PHONETICS (0,5 điểm) II. (0,5 điểm - mỗi đáp án đúng được0,1 điểm) 1.A 2.C 3.A 4.D 5.B VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (3 điểm) III. (1 điểm - mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,1 điểm) 1.B 2.B 3.A 4.A 5.D 6.C 7.B 8.D 9.C 10.A IV. (1 điểm - mỗi đáp án đúng được0,2 điểm) 1. is knowing knows 2. leaf leaves 3. two second 4. some apples any 5. rides is riding apples V. (1 điểm - mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,1 điểm) 1. bakery 6. neighborhood 2. beautiful 7. highest 3. hot 8. careful 4. twice 9. children 5. knives 10. policeman READING ( 3 điểm) VI. (1 điểm - mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,1 điểm) 1. cup 2. anything 3. glass/ can 4. at 5. dinner 5

10.D.when

FI CI A

6.A.becaus 7.B.useful 8.C.for 9.D. well e VIII. (1 điểm - mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,2 điểm) 1D 2B 3A 4D 5A

5.D. us

6. meat 7. juice 8. go 9. can 10. lot VII. (1 điểm - mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,1 điểm) 1.A.of 2.B.verymuch 3. B. gets 4.C.enjoys

ƠN

WRITING (2 điểm) IX. (0,5 điểm - mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,1 điểm) 1. Lan’s father often goes to work by car. 2. Mrs. Tinh is Mai’s mother 3. Why don't we go out for a walk? 4. Are there sixteen classrooms in Nga’s school. 5. How long is this river ? X- Write a passage (60 -80 words) about your school. (1,5 điểm) The candidate’s paragraph should include the following points: - (3 điểm) Organization: Introduction- body- ending- linking words… - (9 điểm) Content: should be clear, logical and creative with explanations… - (3 điểm) Language skills: should be free of grammatical and spelling errors…

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

PHẦN B: Phần riêng cho học sinh trường THCS Vĩnh Tường (1 điểm - mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,1 điểm) Use the suggested words to write meaningful sentences. You can add or change anything neccessary. 1. Ha’s sister is listening to music in the room at the moment. 2. He doesn’t have much time to write to her friends. 3. My sister has a bike and she cycles to work everyday. 4. Ba usually plays tennis in the fall but sometimes he goes sailing. 5. Is Mrs. Ngoc going to buy somethings for her children? 6. I’d like a sandwich and a glass of milk, please. 7. Long is tall, but his brother isn’t. 8. We must stop when the light is red. 9. There is a rice paddy to the left of my house. 10. The weather is always cold in the winter.

Họ tên, chữ ký giám khảo

Điểm Bằng số:

Bằng chữ:

FI CI A

ĐỀ ĐỀCHÍNH CHÍNHTHỨC THỨC

ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH NĂNG KHIẾU CẤP HUYỆN NĂM HỌC 2016 - 2017 Môn: Tiếng Anh 6 (Hệ 7 năm) Thời gian làm bài 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Đề thi có 06 trang

UBND HUYỆN PHÙ NINH PHÒNG GD & ĐT

Số phách

Chú ý: - Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi. - Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu gì kể cả từ điển.

ƠN

SECTION 1: LISTENING. Phần nghe có 01 bài, được nghe 02 lần (giám thị chỉ mở 01 lần đĩa tự động phát 02 lần)

I. Listen to the Captain's announcement on an airplane twice. Write a number or a word in the blank. (1.0 point) 1. This is the captain…………………….

2. The number of Rightwing Flight is ……………………

3. The plane is currently at an airspeed of 400 miles per ………………. 4. The time is …………………..PM .

QU Y

5. The weather looks……………………. Write your answer here 1 __________

2___________

3___________

4 ___________ 5___________

SECTION 2: PHONETICS. II. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C or D. (2.0 points)

DẠ

KÈ

1. A. teachers 2. A. foot 3. A. teeth 4. A. gymnast 5. A. black 6. A. young 7. A. orange 8. A. watches 9. A. station 10. A. chest

B. thanks B. door B. thin B. vegetable B. work B. house B. cabbage B. brushes B. question B. school

C. pupils C. good C. mother C. dangerous C. knee C. our C. lemonade C. classes C. invitation C. lunch

D. farmers D. book D. math D. geography D. look D. trousers D. sausage D. lives D. intersection D. bench

Write your answer here 1 __________

2___________

3___________

4 ___________ 5___________

6 __________

7___________

8___________

9 ___________ 10___________

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

ƠN

FI CI A

SECTION 3: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR. III. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence, identify your answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D. )(4.0 points) 1, Lan often has …………… big breakfast. Then she goes to work. A. the B. a C. an D. √ 2, The weather today is ……………. better than yesterday. A. more B. much C. very D. so 3, My father is a very good friend of .................... . A. them B. their C. theirs D. themselves 4, Mai is staying …..…….. her uncle and aunt’s house in Ha Noi at the moment. A. with B. on C. in D. at 5, Of all the schools in town, mine is ……………….. . A. large B. larger C. larger than D. the largest 6, John: “How about going to the movies with me on Saturday night?” – Ann: “…………..”. C. It’s my pleasure A. Of course not B. Sure, thanks D. That’s very kind of you 7, Viet Nam is a ……………….. . A. language B. nationality C. country D. capital 8, A bus-stop is a ………….…. . A. bus B. means C. park D. place 9, A: “Would you like some bread?” B: “………….…. .”. A. No, thanks. I’m full B. Ok. I don’t like rice C. All right D. Yes, I would 10, John: “………………..?” Mary: “That’s a great idea.” A. Do you like playing sports B. Can you buy me some apples C. Why don’t we go out for dinner D. May I borrow your pen 11, Ba: “………………..do you visit your uncle?” Nam: “Every other week.” A. Why B. How often C. When D. How long 12, The school cafeteria only opens ………………..lunchtime. A. on B. in C. at D. of 13, There is a good film ………..…… - ………….….. the Thang Long Theater. A. on - in B. in - at C. at - of D. on - at 14. He is one of _______ players in the team. A. better B. the best C. good D. bad 15, Listen! The news on the radio __________very interesting. A. are B. is C. has D. have 16, On ..................... we often go out for dinner. A. nights of Saturday B. Saturday nights C. Saturday’s nights D. none is correct 17, How much is this ..................... of bread? A. bar B. bag C. box D. loaf 18, ..................... book is this, yours or mine? A. What B. Which C. Whose D Who’s 19. Mr Quang: “Who .................that horrible noise?” Mrs Lan: “It’s Ba practicing the violin.” A. makes B. make C. is making D. making 20, This is a/an .................... car. A. American red old B. old red American C. red American old D. old American red

Write your answer here 2

11. _____________ 12. _____________ 13. _____________ 14. _____________ 15. _____________

16. _____________ 17. _____________ 18. _____________ 19. _____________ 20. _____________

6. _____________ 7. _____________ 8. _____________ 9. _____________ 10_____________

FI CI A

1. _____________ 2. _____________ 3. _____________ 4. _____________ 5. _____________

IV. Supply the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets. (1.0 points) 1. There (not be ) _______________any milk in the fridge. 2. Le Tam wants________________ (be) a teacher after he leaves school. 3. There are lots of gray clouds in the sky. It (rain)_____________________. 4. Where is your mom now? - She (grow)_________________vegetables in the garden. 5. Children like (ride) ___________________e-bikes to school ?

Write your answer here 2___________

3___________

4 ___________ 5___________

1 __________

V. Give the correct form of the words in capital to complete the sentences. (2.0 point) 1. What is the __________ of Mount Everest.

(HIGH)

(BEAUTY)

ƠN

2. Is that your____________ house? 3. Nam and Mai are good ___________ 4. Mrs. Nga _________us English.

(FRIENDLY) (TEACHER) (JOG)

6. They have a lot of ........................ in the summer.

(ACT)

5. My mother usually goes _________ in the early morning.

7. This is the ....................... pagoda in Hanoi

(OLD)

8. Don't ride too quickly. It is .........................

(DANGER)

9. My house is .................. than yours.

(BIG) (FRIEND)

QU Y

10. He greets me in a ......................... way.

Write your answer here 1 __________

2___________

3___________

4 ___________ 5___________

6 __________

7___________

8___________

9 ___________ 10___________

KÈ

VI. Circle the letter A,B,C or D before the mistake in each sentence and correct it. (1.0 point) 1. Do you know how much a dictionary cost ? A B C D 2. I go to the library three times every week. A B C D 3. Viet do not get up early and do morning exercises every morning. A B C D

DẠ

4. That’s my father over there. He stands near the window A B C D 5. How do you go to see the dentist? - Once or twice a month. A B C D

Write your answer here → →

1. 2.

→ → →

3. 4. 5.

ƠN

FI CI A

SECTION 4: READING. VII. Read the passage. Then choose one suitable word to fill in the gaps. (2.0 points) Jim Green is a student at May Secondary School. He (1)___________ classes from Monday to Friday. He has many (2)_______________ to do after class in the afternoon. On Monday and Wednesday, he helps his (3)___________ with their English. On Tuesday and Thursday, he takes part in the Informatics Club. On Friday, he goes (4)__________ on the river. He goes to the park or museum (5)_________ his parents and his sister (6)_______________ Saturday. On Sunday, he has a good rest (7)__________ home and (8)___________ his homework. Now it is 8:30 in the morning. Jim (9)________ in the classroom and having a maths class. He is listening to the teacher carefully. His friends David and Tony are looking at the blackboard. Lucy and Lily are thinking. Mary is writing something in her notebook. All of them (10)_________ working hard. 1. A. to have B. has C. have D. having 2. A. school B. lesson C. housework D. things 3. A. books B. friends C. rulers D. notebooks 4. A. to the zoo B. camping C. sailing D. shopping 5. A. with B. to C. by D. of 6. A. at B. in C. on D. to 7. A. in B. at C. on D. of 8. A. makes B. works C. does D. thinks 9. A. are sitting B. sitting C. sit D. is sitting 10. A. is B. are C. x D. be

QU Y

Write your answer here

1......................... 2........................... 3........................... 4..........................

5.......................

6........................ 7........................... 8........................... 9........................... 10......................

KÈ

VIII. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (2.0 points) Of all my relatives, I like my aunt Emily the (1)__________ She’s my (2) _________ youngest sister. She has never married and (3) __________alone in a small village near Bath. She’s fifty years old, (4) __________she’s quite young in spirit. She has a fair complexion, thick brown hair and dark brown eyes. She has a kind face, and when you meet (5) __________, the first thing you notice (6) __________her smile. Her face is a little wrinkled now, but I think she is still rather attractive. She is the sort of person you can always go to if you (7) _________a problem and she’s extremely generous. She likes reading (8) _________gardening, and she still goes (9) __________ long walks over the hills. I hope I’m as active as she is when I’m at her (10) __________ .

DẠ

Write your answer here 1......................... 2........................... 3........................... 4..........................

5.......................

6........................ 7........................... 8........................... 9........................... 10......................

IX. Read the following passage, then answer the questions by circling A, B, C or D. (1.0 pt)

ƠN

FI CI A

My name is Petty and this is my husband, Phil. We both work in offices in London. We have breakfast at half past seven. We usually have bread, coffee and orange juice for breakfast. For lunch we usually have a salad or soup and sandwich. That’s at about 1.30. We usually have dinner at half past seven in the evening. It is a big meal of the day and we have meat or fish with vegetables and potatoes or rice. We have orange juice with milk. On Saturday we often go to a restaurant for dinner at about eight o’clock. 1. Petty and her husband work in ……………. A. offices B. factories C. hospitals D. clinics 2. Petty and Phil have …………. A. a big breakfast B. a light breakfast C. breakfast with meat D. breakfast with eggs 3. What do they have for lunch? A. salad and sandwich B. salad and soup C. fish and soup D. sandwich and fish 4. What do they drink for dinner ? A. iced tea B. iced coffee C. soda D. orange juice 5. Where do they have dinner on Saturday evenings? A. at home B. at a hotel C. at their friend’s house D. at a restaurant Write your answer here 1......................... 2........................... 3........................... 4.......................... 5.......................

SECTION 5: WRITING XI. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the first one. (2.0 points) 1. How many teachers are there in your school?

QU Y

 How many teachers ……………………………………………………? 2. The toy store is to the right of the bakery.  The bakery ………………………………………………………………………… . 3. Do you and your friends walk to school every day?  Do you and your friends go…………………………………………………?

4. We have English class at 7.15.  Our English class………………………………………………………………….

KÈ

5. Let us go to the beach and have a good time there.  How about…………………………………………………………………?. 6. Is there a colorful picture in your room?

 Does ……………………………………………………………………… ?

DẠ

7. How much is a bowl of noodles?  What …………………………………………………...................................?

8. How high is the Mount Everest?  What ...............................................................................................................? 9. I spend two hours a day doing my homework.  It ………………………………………………………………......................

10. No one in my class is as lazy as Tom.

FI CI A

XI. Rearrange these words or phrases to make complete sentences. (1.0 point) 1. is/ I/ because/ like/ very/ winter/ it/ cold/ don’t.

 Tom ……………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………… 2. Christmas/ a/ wine/ doesn’t/ he/ of/ drink/ has/ he/ glass/ wine/ usually/ at/ but

………………………………………………………………………………………………… 3. the/ you/ in/ what/ afternoon/ usually/ do/ finish/ work/ time?

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. your/ using/ the/ moment/ I/ ruler/ it/ can/ you/ borrow/ are/ or/ at/ ?

………………………………………………………………………………………………… 5. is/ on/very/ from/ our/ not/ school/ Dương Nam street/ to/ far/ Nhat Hoa mall,/ so/ there/

ƠN

often/ walk/ It/ on/ we/ Sundays. ………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………

XII. Complete sentences by using the words or phrases below, adding more words if necessary. (1.0 point) 1. Quang / school / three floors / and / classroom / third floor /. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………

QU Y

2. There / three pictures / wall / Tuan’s room /.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………… 3. Lan / sister / listen / music / room / at the moment /. …………………………………………………………………………………………………… 4. Every / afternoon / after school / Ban / housework / and / read / books /.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………… 5. What / you / family/ do / this summer vacation / ?

_____THE END_____

DẠ

KÈ

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH NĂNG KHIẾU CẤP HUYỆN Môn: Tiếng Anh 6

UBND HUYỆN PHÙ NINH PHÒNG GD&ĐT

SECTION 1: LISTENING.

FI CI A

(Hướng dẫn chấm có 3 trang)

I. Listen to the Captain's announcement on an airplane twice. Write a number or a word in the blank. (1 point) 02 x 5 = 1pt 1. speaking ;

2. 86A./ eighty- six A;

4. 1.25 / one twenty- five ;

3. hour

5. good

ƠN

Tape: This is your captain speaking. First I'd like to welcome everyone on Rightwing Flight 86A. We are currently cruising at an altitude of 33,000 feet at an airspeed of 400 miles per hour. The time is 1:25 pm. The weather looks good and with the tailwind on our side we are expecting to land in London approximately fifteen minutes ahead of schedule.

1. B

2. B

3. C

4. D

SECTION 2: PHONETICS. II. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C or D. (2.0 point) 02 x 10 = 2pts

5. C

6. A

7. C

8. D

9.B

10. B

QU Y

SECTION 3: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR. III. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence, identify your answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D. (4.0 points) 02 x 20 = 4pts 1, B 2, B 3, C 4, D 5, D 6, B 7, C 8, D 9, A 10, C 11, B 12, C 13, D 14, B 15, B 16, B 17, D 18, C 19, C 20, B

KÈ

IV. Supply the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets. (1.0 points) 02 x 5 = 1pt 1. isn’t 2. tobe 3. is going to rain 4. is growing 5. Do - riding V. Give the correct form of the words in capital to complete the sentences. (2.0 point)

02 x 10 = 2pts 1. height

6. activities

2. beautiful

3. friends

4. teaches

5. jogging

7. oldest

8. dangerous

9. bigger

10. friendly

DẠ

VI. Find one mistake in each sentence. (1.0 point) 02 x 5 = 1pt 1. D. costs

2. D. a

3. A. doesn’t

4. C. is standing

5. A. How often

SECTION 4: READING. VII. Read the passage. Then choose one suitable word to fill in the gaps. (2.0 point)

02 x 10 = 2pts 7

FI CI A

https://nguyenthienhuongvp77.violet.vn/ 1.B 6.C 2.D 7.B 3.B 8.C 4.C 9.D 5.A 10.B

02 x 10 = 2pts 1. A

2. B

3. A

4. D

VIII. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (2.0 points) 02 x 10 = 2pts 1. best 6. is 2. mother’s 7. have 3 lives 8. and 4. but 9. for 5. her 10. age IX. Read the following passage, then answer the questions by circling A, B, C or D. (1.0 pt) 5. D

QU Y

ƠN

SECTION 5: Writing. X. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the first one. (2.0 points) 02 x 10 = 2pts 1. How many teachers does your school have? 2. The bakery is to the left of the toy store. 3. Do you and your friends go to school on foot every day? 4. Our English class starts at 7.15. 5. How about going to the beach and having a good time there? 6. Does your room have a colorful picture? 7. What is the price of a bowl of noodles? 8. What is the height of the Mount Everest? 9. It takes me two hours a day to do my homework. 10. Tom is the laziest (student/ boy) in my class. XI. Rearrange these words or phrases to make a complete sentence. (1.0 point)

02 x 10 = 2pts

DẠ

KÈ

1. I don’t like winter because it is very cold. 2. He doesn’t drink wine but he usually has a glass of wine at Christmas. 3. What time do you usually finish work in the afternoon? 4. Can I borrow your ruler or are you using it at the moment? 5. It is not very far from our school on Duong Nam street to Nhat Hoa mall, so we often walk there on Sundays. XII. Complete sentences by using the words or phrases below, adding more words if necessary. (1.0 point) 02 x 10 = 2pts (Dùng từ gợi ý để viết thành câu hoàn chỉnh, thêm hoặc thay đổi từ nếu cần thiết) 1. Quang’s school has three floors and his classroom is on the third floor . 2. There are three pictures on the wall in Tuan’s room . 3. Lan’s sister is listening to music in her room at the moment . 4. Every afternoon after school, Ban does the housework and reads books . 5. What are you and your family going to do this summer vacation?

Lưu ý: Nếu học sinh có câu trả lời khác với hướng dẫn chấm mà đúng thì vẫn cho điểm. 8

TOTAL: 20 POINTS (20 ĐIỂM)

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

ƠN

FI CI A

--------THE END---------

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 6 NĂM HỌC: 2016 - 2017 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

FI CI A

Chú ý: - Bộ đề thi này gồm có 09 trang, từ trang 01 đến trang 06. - Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào bộ đề thi này. Điểm Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 1:

aif DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO PHÒNG GIÁO HUYỆN THANH OAI

- Bằng số:…………….. ………………………………………...

…………………..

- Bằng chữ:…………… Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 2: ………………………... ………………………………………...

Số phách (Do Chủ tịch hội đồng chấm thi ghi)

ƠN

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts) Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 × 0.2 = 3.0 pts) Favorite Colours

My (1)……………….. favorite colour is purple. There are not a lot of (2)………………..that are purple, some grapes are purple, sometimes the sky looks purple.

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

My second favorite colour is blue. Some things are blue, the sky is blue, and water is blue. Many people have blue (3)………………... Green is a (4)……………….. common colour in nature. Trees are green in the (5)……………….., some trees are green all year long, grass is green, sometimes (6)……………….. looks green. Many People have green eyes. Many vegetables are green. Broccoli, cabbage, beans, lettuce, peas, and cucumbers are all green. Green (7)……………….. are very good for you. Yellow is a bright colour. The (8)……………….. looks yellow. Bananas are yellow. Some people have yellow (9)………………... Daffodils and dandelions are yellow. White is a common colour, especially in the (10)………………... Snow is white. Clouds are white. Polar bears, some dogs and some (11)……………….. are white. There are white flowers that grow. Some (12)……………….. are red. Roses can be red. Blood is red. Sometimes the sky is red at night or in the morning. Artists use all these colours to (13)……………….. beautiful paintings. Nature used all these colours to make the beautiful earth. We are fortunate to be surrounded by (14)………………... We should do our part to make sure that nature stays beautiful and (15)………………..

-> Your answers: 1..................................

2..................................

3.................................. 1

4..................................

5..................................

6..................................

7..................................

8..................................

9..................................

10..................................

B. yard B. white B. young B. intersection B. changes

C. garden C. behind C. account C. question C. becomes

-> Your answers: 16..................................

17..................................

18..................................

D. warm D. ahead D. sound D. destination D. washes

16. A. market 17. A. hungry 18. A. about 19. A. station 20. A. languages

FI CI A

11.................................. 12.................................. 13.................................. 14.................................. 15.................................. PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts) I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (5 × 0.2=1.0 pt)

19..................................

20..................................

ƠN

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others. (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 21. A. animal B. buffalo C. banana D. minibus 22. A. cabbage B. chicken C. gymnast D. arrive 23. A. dangerous B. bakery C. engineer D. difficult 24. A. afternoon B. restaurant C. accident D. badminton 25. A. shoulder B. matter C. temple D. behind -> Your answers: 22..................................

23..................................

QU Y

21..................................

24..................................

25..................................

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts) I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 × 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 26. I and my brothers don’t like beer but my parents.........................

A. does B. are C. do D. don’t 27. Most of us enjoy ........................ to different places in Viet Nam and in the world.

DẠ

KÈ

A. travel B. traveling C. of traveling D. to traveling 28. Salesgirl: “How ......................... apples would you like?” Thuy: - “A dozen. And ......................... cooking oil, please.” A. much, some B. much, any C. many, any D. many, some 29. Do you and your little sister go to school ......................... foot or ......................... bike? A. in - on B. by - on C. by - on D. on - by 30. Look ........................ that old woman! She is looking ......................... Huy but he isn’t here. A. at - at B. for - at C. at - after D. at - for 31. Remember that you must......................... at any intersection. 2

A. slow down B. speed up C. ride quickly D. go fast 32. We do hope that the ......................... can repair our car quickly.

FI CI A

A. architect B. teacher C. farmer D. mechanic 33. Look! ......................... your classmates are singing and dancing! A. What beautifully B. What beautiful C. How beautiful D. How beautifully 34. Count ......................... one ......................... fifty, please! A. from - to B. on - to C. till - to D. from - on 35. My cousin is not doing ......................... in the garden, just walking with her dog. A. something

B. one thing

C. anything

26..................................

27..................................

28..................................

31..................................

32..................................

33..................................

-> Your answers:

D. nothing

29..................................

30..................................

34..................................

35..................................

ƠN

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences. (10 × 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 36. I’m scared when I sit on Tu’s motorbike because he drives …...................... CARE FRIEND

38. What does your father do? - He is a .....................................

POLICE

39. My birthday is on the ..................................... of January.

TWELVE

40. Are Mr. Quang and Mr. Hung .....................................?

BUSINESS

41. Air .....................................is a big problem in many cities in the world.

POLLUTE

42. Mary likes attending the English ......................... contests.

SPEAK

43. All of us are are very good .....................................

STUDY

44. There are two .....................................in his office.

SECRETARY

QU Y

37. We greet my new friends in a .....................................way.

KÈ

45. There are so many colourful .....................................in this pond.

FISH

-> Your answers:

37 ..................................

38 ..................................

39 ..................................

40 ..................................

41 ..................................

42 ..................................

43 ..................................

44 ..................................

45 ..................................

36 ..................................

DẠ

III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 46. The sun (rise) .................................in the East or in the West, Mom? - In the East, my dear!

47. Look! The plane is flying toward the airport. It (land) ................................. 3

48. My elder brother never closes the door before (leave) .................................the house. 49. Which language(s) your children (speak).................................? - French and English.

50. (not throw) .................................trash on the street!

FI CI A

-> Your answers:

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

ƠN

46. .................................. 47. .................................. 48. .................................. 49. .................................. 50. .................................. PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts) I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10 × 0.2 = 2.0 pts) MY WORKING DAY On week days, I often get up at seven a.m. I don’t like to get up early, (51)......................... I have to, because I have a lot of (52) ........................ to do during the day. I do my morning exercises, (53) ........................ my bed, wash myself, dress and go to the dinning room to have breakfast. My mother usually prepares breakfast, but sometimes I do it myself. I do not like big breakfasts, I (54)........................ a cup of coffee and a sandwich. Then I go to school. It is rather far (55) ......................... my house and I go there by bus. I have classes till half past four. I come home and have dinner at around 6.30. After that I do my homework and do some work in the house. I sweep the floor, dust the (56)......................... and clean the carpets with the vacuum-cleaner. Sometimes, my mother (57)......................... me to go shopping or to help her in the kitchen. After that, I have free time. I go for a walk with my friend, watch TV, read books, or play computer games. Then I have (58) ......................... with my family. I like evenings very much because (59) ......................... of us get together after work, study and have the opportunity to (60) ......................... about our family affairs. I usually go to bed at about eleven o'clock. B. but C. so D. then 51. A. and 52. A. job B. work C. career D. employment 53. A. do B. clean C. make D. wash 54. A. has B. want C. need D. prefer 55. A. from B. with C. to D. of 56. A. cup B. dish C. cooker D. furniture 57. A. asks B. advise C. offers D. waits 58. A. meal B. breakfast C. lunch D. dinner 59. A. every B. each C. all D. one 60. A. speak B. say C. tell D. talk -> Your answers: 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. (10 × 0.2 =2.0 pts) Every year students from many countries (61)………….……….. English. Some of these (62)………….……….. young children. Others are teenagers. Many are adults. Some learn 4

Do you know anything about “Antarcnica”?

...

FI CI A

(63)………….……….. schools, others study (64)………….……….. themselves. A few learn English just by hearing the language in films, (65)………….……….. television, or in the office. Most (66)………….……….. must work hard to learn another language. Many (67)………….……….. and girls learn English at school because it is one of their (68)………….………... They study their own language, Mathematics, and English. In England, America, or Australia many boys and girls study foreign (69)………….……….., perhaps French, German, or Spanish. Many people learn English because they want to read newspapers or magazines (70)………….……….. English. -> Your answers: 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

ƠN

Antarcnica is a snow-covered continent. The average temperature at the South Pole is -50°C. Few plants and animals can live on the land because it is too cold for them. There are a few scientists from different countries who live and work on special bases in Antarctica. On midsummer’s day (On December 22nd), there is daylight for 24 hours and so during this period, only a few tourist ships and planes come to see this strange land. But in the winter there is no daylight for months. It must be a terrible place during the winter. The snow is always there – in the winter and in the summer, but in fact - little snow falls in the year (an average of about 12 -20 cm). People say that it can be a beautiful place. At first, it appears frightening but after a little time, some people fall in love with it.

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

71. What/ weather/ like/ Artarcnica? -> …………………………………………………………………………….……..…… …………………………………………………………………………….……..…… 72. Why/ can/ few plants/ animals/ live/ Artarcnica? -> …………………………………………………………………………….……..…… …………………………………………………………………………….……..…… 73. Where/ scientists/ come/ from? -> …………………………………………………………………………….……..…… …………………………………………………………………………….……..…… 74. How many/ tourist ships/ planes/ come/ see / strange land? -> …………………………………………………………………………….……..…… …………………………………………………………………………….……..…… 75. What/ always/ there/ winter/ summer? -> …………………………………………………………………………….……..…… …………………………………………………………………………….……..…..

PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts) I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Use the words in brackets: 5

ƠN

FI CI A

(5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 76. No one in our school is stronger than my closed friend, Quan. -> ………………………………………………………………………………… (strongest) 77. Our teacher of Math, Mr. Tung, rides his bike very carefully. -> ……………………….…………………………………………………….…… (cyclist) 78. How much does a dozen ballpoint pens cost? -> ……………………….……………………………………………………….…… (price) 79. Whose black shoes are those, Dieu Linh? -> ……………………….…………………………………………………………. (belong) 80. Tom Baker is 45 kilograms in weight. Peter Pike is 50 kilograms in weight. -> ……………………….…………………………………………………………… (than) II. Write complete sentences, using the suggested words. (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

81. Thuy’s brother/ live/ Ho Chi Minh City/ and/ have/ big/ toy store/ there. -> …………………………………………………………………………….……..…… 82. Many plants/ animals/ Viet Nam/ around/ world/ danger/ because /people /destroying /them.

QU Y

-> …………………………………………………………………………….……..…… …………………………………………………………………………….……..…… 83. My father / often / play/ chess/ his friends/ but / sometimes / play/ me. -> …………………………………………………………………………….……..…… 84. The Bakers/ their friends/ travel/ Da Lat/ plane/ moment?

-> …………………………………………………………………………….……..……

KÈ

85. my mother/ not/ need/ rice./ need/ half / kilo/ pork/ and/ dozen/ eggs. -> …………………………………………………………………………….……..……

III. Write an essay (120 words) about what you are going to do this summer: (3.0 pts) (The essay must have the title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion. Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…)

DẠ

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 6 NĂM HỌC: 2016 - 2017 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 6

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts) Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 × 0.2 = 3.0 pts) 2. things

3. eyes

4. very

5. summer

6. water

7. vegetables

8. sun

9. hair

10. winter

11. cats

12. flowers

13. make

14. beauty

FI CI A

1. very

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

15. clean

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (5 × 0.2=1.0 pt) 17. B. white

18. B. young

19. C. question

16. D. warm

20. C. becomes

21. C. banana

22. D. arrive

ƠN

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others. (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 23. C. engineer

24. A. afternoon

25. D. behind

26. C. do 31. A. slow down

28. D. many - some 33. D. How beautifully

QU Y

27. B. traveling 32. D. mechanic

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts) I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 × 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 29. D. on - by 34. A. from - to

30. D. at - for 35. C. anything

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences. (10 × 0.2 =2.0 pts) 36. carelessly

38. policeman

39. twelfth

40. businessmen

42. speaking

43. students

44. secretaries

45. fish

41. pollution

37. friendly

KÈ

III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 46. Does...rise 47. is going to land 48. leaving 49. do…speak 50. Don’t/Do not throw

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts) I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10 × 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 51. B. but 52. B. work 53. C. make 54. D. prefer 55. A. from 57. A. asks

58. D. dinner

DẠ

56. D. furniture

59. C. all

60. D. talk

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. (10 × 0.2 =2.0pts) 61. learn 62. are 63. at 64. by 65. on 7

66. people 67. boys 68. subjects 69. languages 70. in III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

71. What is the weather like in Artarcnica?

FI CI A

The weather (It) is very cold in Artarcnica. 72. Why can few plants and animals live in Artarcnica? Because it is too cold for them. 73. Where do the scientists come from?

The scientists (They) come from different countries who live and work on special bases in Antarctica.

74. How many tourist ships and planes come to see this strange land? Only a few tourist ships and planes come to see this strange land. 75. What is always there in the winter and the summer?

ƠN

The snow is always there in the winter and the summer.

QU Y

PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts) I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Use the words in brackets: (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 76. My closed friend, Quan, is the strongest (one/student) in our school. 77. Our teacher of Math, Mr. Tung, is a very careful cyclist. 78. What is the price of a a dozen ballpoint pens? 79. Who do those black shoes belong to, Dieu Linh? 80. Peter Pike is heavier than Tom Baker. Or: Tom Baker is lighter than Peter Pike. II. Write complete sentences, using the suggested words. (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 81. Thuy’s brother live s in Ho Chi Minh City and he has a big toy store there.

82. Many plants and animals in Viet Nam and around the world are in danger because people are destroying them.

KÈ

83. My father often plays chess with his friends, but sometimes he plays with me. 84. Are the Bakers and their friends traveling to Da Lat by plane at the moment? 85. My mother does not (doesn’t) need rice. She needs half a kilo of pork and a dozen eggs.

DẠ

III. Write an essay (120 words) about what you are going to do this summer: (3.0 pts) - The opening: The essay must write something relating to the topic “The main activities the student is going to do…”. (0.5pt) - The body: Write about at least three reasons explaining where to go; what to do in ganeral and in details…, the sentences must contain connectors and link words... (2,0 pts) 8

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

ƠN

FI CI A

- The conclusion: Write about the writers' ideas. (0.5 pt) * Note: The essay that has 3.0 points must have: - Long enough (At least 200 words or maybe more). - Correct vocabulary and structures. - Don't tell the proper names (The school, the student's/ teacher’s name/ ...).

FI CI A

ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

ĐỀ THI GIAO LƯU HSG LỚP 6 CẤP HUYỆN NĂM HỌC 2016 -2017 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH ( Thời gian làm bài 120 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề)

UBND HUYỆN YÊN LẠC PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

(Đề thi gồm 05 trang – Thí sinh làm bài ra tờ giấy thi)

QU Y

ƠN

SECTION A: LISTENING I. Listen to the conversation twice then write True (T) or False (F) for these sentences. 1. ……………The customers want two tables. 2. ……………There are two customers eating together. 3. ……………The two customers order the same starter. 4. ………….... Both customers order the Thai chicken for their main course. 5. ……………The customers order cold drinks. 6. …………… Both customers order a dessert II. You will listen to the direction twice and look at the map then write name of a place for each direction

DẠ

KÈ

7. The speaker gives directions to the… …………… 8. The speaker gives directions to the ……………… 9. The speaker gives directions to the ………………_ 10. The speaker gives directions to the …….………… SECTION B: PHONETICS I. Choose the word that has the underlined parts pronounced differently from the others in each group: 11. A. northern B. breathe C. their D. truth 12. A. fear B. near C. hear D. bear 13. A. face B. ocean C. space D. rice 14. A. cooked B. improved C. stopped D. visited 15. A. listen B. take C. market D. hi-tech

Page 1 of 8

SECTION C: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY. I. Choose the best answer by circling its corresponding letter A, B, C or D.

QU Y

ƠN

FI CI A

16. She doesn’t have ……………….friends at school. A. a B. some C. much D. many 17. Bill: “Are you John?” John: “………………” A. All right B. Turn right C. That’s right D. You right 18. We mustn’t ………………. when the traffic light is red. A. slow down B. go straight ahead C. stop D. go fast 19. There is a ………………. behind my house. A. big beautiful flower garden B. garden flower big beautiful C. beautiful big flower garden D. big beautiful garden flower 20. How many minutes are there in ………… hour? A. an B. a C. ∅ D. the 21. Mai and Thao often do aerobics in …………. free time. A. they B. them C. theirs D. their 22. Road signs are very ………………. They tell us what we must do. A. useful B. dangerous C. good D. difficult 23. There are ………………. stars in the sky at night. A. is million B. are millions of C. has million D. are million 34. Mary’s father’s mother and father is her ………………. A. grandfather B. grandparents C. grandmother D. uncles 25. There isn’t any water left. I am going to get ……… A. many B. a C. any D. some 26. Washington D.C is ………capital of ………. United States. A.∅, the B. the, ∅ C. the, the D. ∅, ∅ 27. Linda: “Do you live in the country or in the city?” ~ Daisy: “………………….” A. Yes, I do B. I live in the city C. No, I don’t D. I live on the city 28. Which is …………………., London or Tokyo? A. the biggest B. bigger C. bigger than D. the big 29. Tom: “………………………………….”~ Jake: “She is kind.” A. What does your teacher like? B. What would your teacher like? C. What does your teacher look like D. What is your teacher like? 30. On the table, there are vegetables, bread and two large................................ A. bowl of soup B. bowl of soups C. bowls of soups D. bowls of soup

DẠ

KÈ

II. Find out one mistake in each sentence and correct it. 31. The study of languages are very interesting. A B C D 32. Mary as well as her friends are going to a party tonight. A B C D 33. Everybody want to buy a ticket for this live show. A B C D 34.Before to go out, remember to turn off the lights. A B C D 35. Of the two sisters , Linda is the most beautiful. A B C D Page 2 of 8

FI CI A

III. Use the words in capitals to form a word that fits in the space in the same line. 36. They had an ………………… day by the river. (enjoy) 37.They seem to be …………………. We dislike them. (friend) 38.There is an ………… match between Vietnam and Lebanon on VTV3. (nation) 39.The ………………… from Genoa enjoy wearing jeans. (work) 40.Ao Dai is the ………………… dress of Vietnamese women. (tradition) 41.She has one of the biggest …………….. in Britain. (collect) 42.Don’t be afraid of the dog. He’s ………………… (harm) 43.He likes reading ………………… novels. (history) 44.I spent my …………… in the country. (child) 45.Your new dress makes you more ………………… (beauty) IV. Complete the sentences with the correct form of the verb in parenthese.

QU Y

ƠN

46. Trang isn’t in her room at the moment. She (cook)……………… in the kitchen. 47. It often (take) ………………..me twenty minutes to go to school. 48. How long it (take) ………… you to travel to school, Linh? 49. We (rehearse) ………………..a play right now. 50. Where they (spend) …………………their summer vacation next year? 51. Students in the USA usually (not wear) …………….uniform. 52. Our classmates and I (learn )……………English since we were in primary school. 53. “Hung is in hospital”. – “Yes, I know. I (visit) ………………him tomorrow.” 54. My brother (go) ………………to the Youth Club last week . 55. He enjoys (play) …………... sports very much. V. Find out one mistake in each sentence and correct it. Example : 0. What would you like to watch? 0.watch --> watching 56.There is a few water in the glass. 57. There is a few books on the shelf. 58. Everyone often go swimming in the summer. 59. Mai and Nam don’t go to school in Sundays. 60. Mr. Linh usually have dinner at seven o’clock in the evening. 61. We didn’t wanted to go to the park. 62. I can not speak Chinese and neither can’t my brother. 63. When I saw her, I thought she looked happily. 64. Her dress was pink and little white flowers on it. 65. My mother bought for me a nice schoolbag on the occasion of a new school year.

SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION.

DẠ

KÈ

I. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word to complete the passage. Today, people all over the world are moving out of small villages in the country to go and live in big, noisy cities. This means that they are (66)………………. the peaceful hills, mountains, fields, rivers and streams of the countryside for the busy world of streets, buildings, traffic and crowds. This movement from (67)……… areas to urban areas has been going on for over two hundred years. In many(68) …………, the main reason people come to live in towns and cities is work. After one or two large factories have (69)………….. built in or near a town, people come to find work, and soon an industrial area begins to grow. There is usually a residential area nearby, where the factory workers can live. The families of these workers need schools, hospitals and shops. So more people (70)…………….. to live in the area to provide these services - and so a city grows. Page 3 of 8

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

ƠN

FI CI A

II. Read the passage and choose the best answer A, B, C or D. The Asian Games owes its origins to small Asian multi-sport competitions. The Far Eastern Championship Games were created to show unity and cooperation among three nations: Japan, the Philippines and China. The first games were held in Manila, the Philippines in 1931. Other Asian nations participated after it was organized. After World War II, a number of Asian countries became independent. Many of the new independent Asian countries wanted to use a new type of competition where Asian dominance should not be shown by violence and should be strengthened by mutual understanding. In August 1948, during the 14th Olympic Game in London, India representative Guru Dutt Sondhi proposed to sports leaders of the Asian teams the idea of having discussions about holding the Asian Games. They agreed to form the Asian Athletic Federation. A preparatory was set up to draft the charter for the Asian amateur athletic federation. In February, 1949, the Asian athletic federation was formed and used the name Asian Games Federation. It was formed and used the name Asian Games Federation. It was decided to hold the first Asian Games in 1951 in New Delhi the capital of India. They added that the Asian Games would be regularly held once every four years. 71. The text is about ____. A. the origin of the Asian Games B. the Far Eastern Championship Games C. the Games in Manila D. the relationship of Japan, the Philippines, and China 72. The Far Eastern Championship Games ____. A. were held in Manila after World War II B. were held in Japan C. were attended by all countries in Asia D. had the participation of only three nations 73. The 14th Olympic Games took place ____. A. in 1913 B. in August 1948 C. before the World War II D. In February 1949 74. The Asian Games ____. A. were suggested establishing by a Londoner B. were first held in China C. were first held in India D. were held in the same year of the 14th Olympic Games 75. The Asian Games were first held in ____. A. 1931 B. 1941 C. 1948 D. 1951 III. Read the passage and choose the best answer A, B, C or D to fill in the blanks The leaning tower of Pisa is one of the most famous (76)…………….. in the world. It is famous not because of its beauty sight, but (77)……………. it leans dangerously to one side. Each year the tower attracts thousands of (78)…………….. from all around the world. Sometimes the tower leans to the south and also curves towards the north. It is said that the tower has leaned more than 17 feet. Over the past years various proposals have been made to stop the tower from leaning westwards and to prevent its collapse. Some people would like to pull in down and (79) …………… it in stronger foundations. Others have suggested pouring concrete around the base of the tower to stop it from leaning further. If nothing is done, the tower might collapse very soon. But now, it still remains as one of the most fascinating (80)…………. mistakes in the world 76. A. buildings B. cities C. towns D. schools 77. A. nevertheless B. because C. for D. when 78. A. visitors B. visiters C. dollars D. birds 79. A. put B. do C. make D. rebuild Page 4 of 8

FI CI A

80. A. building B. house C. architectural D. tower SECTION E: WRITING .I. Make questions for the underlined parts in the sentences below. 81.Does your class have twenty – five students? Are there …………………………………………………………………? 82.Mr. Minh has a daughter, Lan Lan …………………………………………………………………………… 83.That book belongs to John. That is ……………………………………………………………………………………… 84.He could not find a cheaper computer That was …………………………………………………………………………………… 85.We started learning English three years ago. We have ……………………………………………………………………………………

ƠN

II. Write a short paragraph about the benefits of reading books (100 – 120 words).

___THE END___ (Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm)

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

Họ và tên thí sinh:................................................................... Số báo danh:..................

Page 5 of 8

Tổng điểm toàn bài: 10

6. False

7. Post office

3. False

4. True

5. True

8. Underground

9. cinema

10. bus

station

SECTION B: PHONETICS 12. D

13. B

14. B

station

15. A

ƠN

11. D

SECTION A: LISTENING 1. False 2. True

FI CI A

Từ câu 1 đến câu 85: Mỗi câu đúng học sinh được 0,1 điểm. Tổng số: 8,5 Bài viết luận học sinh được tối đa 1,5 điểm.

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI HSG NĂM HỌC 2016- 2017 MÔN: Tiếng Anh 6

PHÒNG GD&ĐT YÊN LẠC

SECTION C: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY. I. 16.D 17.C 18.D 19.C

20.A

22.A 27. B

23.B 28. B

24.B 29. D

25. D 30.D

II. 31.C. are  is

21.C. are  is

33.A. want  wanted

34.B. to go going

35. D. most beautiful  more beautifull

37.unfriendly 42. harmless

38. international 43. historical

39. workers 44.childhood

40. traditional 45.beautiful

47.takes

48. does….. take

49. are rehearing

50.are…… going to spend

53. am going to visit

54.went

55. playing

KÈ

III. 36. enjoyable 41. collections IV. 46. is cooking

QU Y

21.D 26.C

51. do not wear

52 have learnt/ Have learned

DẠ

V. 56. few  little 57. is  are 58. go  goes 59. in  on 60. have  has 61. wanted  want 62. can’t  can 63. happily  happy

Page 6 of 8

64. and  with 65. for  ∅

SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION.

66. leaving

67.rural

68. countries

69. been

72. D

73. B

74. C

77. B. because

78. A. visitors

79. D. rebuild

III. 76. A. buildings

70. come

75. D

80. C. architectural

ƠN

SECTION E: WRITING

II. 71.A

FI CI A

QU Y

81.Are there twenty – five students in your class? 82.Lan is Mr. Minh ‘s daughter 83.That book belongs to John. That is John’s book 84.He could not find a cheaper computer That was the cheapest computer he could find 85.We started learning English three years ago. We have learnt English for three years.

II. Write a short paragraph about the benefits of reading books (100 – 120 words).

KÈ

Tiêu chí Mô tả chi tiết Nội dung Viết đúng chủ đề (chỉ cần viết đúng câu chủ đề); Viết logic, hợp lí Ngôn ngữ Đúng cấu trúc ngữ pháp; Sử dụng từ vựng phù hợp phong phú Trình bày Viết đủ số từ theo qui định; Mạch lạc, rõ ràng, có ý sáng tạo Tổng

DẠ

listening Transcript: 1 Waiter: Hello. Jamie: Hi. A table for two, please. Waiter: Of course. Over here, please. Here’s the menu. Sally: Thank you. (pause) Waiter: Are you ready to order? Sally: Yes, we are. Waiter: What would you like for your starter? Page 7 of 8

Điểm 0,2; 0,2 0,4; 0,4 0,1; 0,2 1,5 điểm

FI CI A

Jamie: I’d like French onion soup, please. Sally: And I’ll have a tomato salad, please. Waiter: And for your main course? Jamie: Mmm, I’m not sure. I don’t know whether to have the steak or Thai chicken. Sally: Oh, I’d like the Thai chicken and rice please. Jamie: OK, me too. Waiter: So that’s two Thai chicken and rice. What would you like to drink? Jamie: I’ll have a fresh orange juice and ... Sally: I’d like some mineral water, please. Waiter: OK, thank you. Transcript: 2

ƠN

A. Go straight on. Then take the first left on to Green Street. Walk past the library and it’s the building next to the library on the left. B. Go straight on. Go past the traffic lights. You will see a shop on the right. Go past that and it’s on the right next to the shop. C. Go straight on. Go past the traffic lights and go straight on until you get to the roundabout. At the roundabout turn left. Go past the theatre. It’s the building next to the theatre, opposite the hospital. D. Go straight on. Go past the traffic lights and take the second right on to King’s Road. Go past the bookshop. It’s the building next to the bookshop opposite the café.

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

-------------THE END --------------

Page 8 of 8

PHÒNG GD&ĐT TAM DƯƠNG

MÔN : TIẾNG ANH 6

Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Đề thi này gồm 03 trang

ĐỀ GIAO LƯU HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN NĂM HỌC 2017-2018

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

ƠN

FI CI A

PART A. LISTENING Listen to the conversation twice and fill in the missing information. Receptionist: Good evening, sir. Mr. Collins: Good evening. My name is Arthur Collins. I believe you have a (1)_________ reserved for me. Receptionist: Just a moment, Mr. Collins. Let me see…Collins…yes, Mr. Collins. You booked a single room (2)_________ days ago. Is that right? Mr. Collins: Yes, that’s right. Receptionist: Mr. Collins, your room number is (3)_________ on the (4)_________ floor. Would you fill in this form, please? Mr. Collins: Certainly. Receptionist: How long do you intend to stay in the hotel, Mr. Collins? Mr. Collins: Let me see…today is (5)_________ and…probably I’m going to leave on Friday (6)_________. Receptionist: On Friday morning, I see. Mr. Collins: Oh, excuse me. Where shall I put my (7)_________ number? Receptionist: Just at the (8)_________. That’s right. Thank you. Mr. Collins: Oh, would you please wake me up at 7:10 in the morning, please? Receptionist: Ten (9)________ seven, certainly. Porter, please take Mr. Collins’s (10)________ to his room. Mr. Collins, please follow him. Mr. Collins: Thank you. Receptionist: You are welcome. PART B. PHONETICS I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others in each group. Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. 11. A. boot B. school C. choose D. book 12. A. heavy B. leave C. head D. ready 13. A. chemistry B. mechanic C. machine D. chemist 14. A. pens B. hats C. caps D. books 15. A. grow B. bowl C. shower D. elbow II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other words in each group. Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. 16. A. begin B. visit C. invite D. destroy 17. A. activity B. appliance C. adventure D. entertain 18. A. television B. suggestion C. vacation D. attention 19. A. intersection B. lemonade C. engineer D. telephone 20. A. chemistry B. biology C. physics D. history PART C. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR I. Choose the best answer from the four options (A or B, C, D) to complete each of the following sentences. 21. Our family often gets up at six o’clock and eats _________. A. a breakfast big B. the big breakfast C. a big breakfast D. the breakfast big 22. These are Nga’s pens, and those are _________. A. us B. our C. ours D. our’s 23. The movie theater is almost empty. There are _________ people. A. a few B. few C. a little D. little 24. People often go to the _________ to sunbathe. A. beaches B. rivers C. mountains D. deserts 25. Dung is the ___________ of the two students. A. cleverer B. cleverest C. clever D. most clever

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

ƠN

FI CI A

26. Would you mind opening the window? A. No, I wouldn’t B. No, thank you C. Yes, please D. Not at all 27. Ha has _________ friends than Nam. Nam has _________ friends than her. A. fewer/ less B. few/ many C. fewer/ more D. less/ more 28. Sorry to keep you ___________ so long. A. wait B. waiting C. to wait D. waits 29. My brother always helps me ___________ a lot of homework at home. A. doing B. does C. to do D. to doing 30. Mrs. Lan ___________ go to the market with her husband. A. usually does not B. does usually not C. usually not does D. does not usually II. Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets to complete the following sentences. a) My parents (31. save) _________ money now. They (32.buy) _________ a new car next year. b) Tom spends most of his free time (33. listen)_________ to music and (34. read)_________books. c) You should not talk so loudly. My children (35. sleep)___________ in the next room. d) Either Baker or his wife (36. make) ___________ breakfast each morning. e) The dark clouds disappear. I am sure that It (37. not rain) _________ . f) He (38. not go) __________ to see the movies on Sunday nights. g) It is expensive (39. travel)__________ around the world by plane. h) I can’t help (40. laugh) __________ when I see that clown. III. Find out one mistake in each of the following sentences, then correct it. 41. My friend has less books in English than I do. _________ 42. They often go to bed early and never get up lately. _________ 43. Do you know how much does it cost to fly from Ho Chi Minh to Jakarta? _________ 44. I like watching TV. There are a good film on TV tonight. _________ 45. It is a four-hours train journey from Ha Noi to Lao Cai. _________ IV. Use the word given in CAPITAL letters to form a word that fits in the space. 46. We are very _________ of our parents. PRIDE 47. Do you want to become a famous _________ some day, Hoa ? ACT 48. Of the two houses, my house is the _________. OLD 49. Is Tam Duong a _________ district? MOUNTAIN 50. Marry spent her happy _________ in her hometown. CHILD 51. Talking is the most popular _________at recess. ACT 52. The president made a _________ tonight. SPEAK 53. Nam is sometimes punished for his _________. LAZY 54. It’s unpleasant to meet such a/an _________person. FRIEND 55. There are a lot of yellow _________ under this tree. LEAF PART D. READING I. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word to complete the following passage. I have a very close friend. Her name is Lan. She is twelve years (56) _________. She is in grade six. She (57) _________ speak English. She has English (58) _________ Tuesday and Friday. She can also (59) _________ the piano. In her room, (60) _________ is a piano and lots of interesting books. Everyday she gets up at six. She (61) _________ breakfast at 6.30 and goes to school at a (62) _________ to seven. She has her (63) _________ from seven o’clock to eleven thirty. Then she (64) _________ home and has lunch at twelve o’clock. It’s three o’clock in the afternoon now. Lan is in her room. She is (65) _________ the piano. II. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer for each question below. Food is a store of chemical energy. If you look on the side of food packets you will see the food’s energy content. This is usually measured in kilojoules, kJ. If we eat too little food, we will use up our store of fat and become too thin. If we eat too much food, especially food rich in sugar and fat, we will increase our store of fat and become too fat. So it is important to balance the amount of food we eat with who we are and what we do. The amount of energy we need from our food depends on our age, our height and how much exercise we get. For example, a one-year old baby needs 3,850 kJ each day to continue to grow, whereas an adult Olympic swimmer in training needs 15,600 kJ each day. Someone who sits at a desk all day will need less food than their twin who climbs ladders all day to wash windows.

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

ƠN

FI CI A

66. We become fat because _________ . A. we eat too much food B. we eat too little food C. we do exercise much enough D. we don’t sleep well 67. Which food causes fat? A. vegetables B. sugar and fat C. fibre D. water 68. Which of the followings is true according to the passage? A. People can prevent fat from not sleeping. B. People can prevent fat from drinking much wine. C. It is important to balance the amount of food we eat. D. It is not essential to balance the amount of food we eat. 69. The amount of energy we need from our food depends on _________ . A. our age B. our health C. how we sleep D. fat we eat 70. How many kilojoules does a one-year old baby need to continue to grow each day? A. a lot B. 8,350 kJ C. 15,600 kJ D. 3,850 kJ III. Read the following passage then choose the best answer from the four options (marked A, B, C and D) to complete the numbered blanks in the passage. Dear Hanh, I’m writing to invite you to a party we _________ (71) at the flat next Friday, December 14th. As you know, _________ (72) Lan’s 13th birthday next week and my birthday next month, _________ (73) we thought we’d celebrate together and have a joint party. I can’t remember if you know my address or not, but anyway, if you _________ (74) the direction below, you shouldn’t get lost. Take the Number 15 bus from the station and _________ (75) at the Star Hotel. Walk down Long Viet Road, past the Dan Chu Cinema, and then _________ (76) the first turning on the right. That’s Le Loi Road. Turn left _________ (77) the first junction, then go straight past the church as far as the next crossroads. _________ (78) and our block of flats is the second on the right. Do try and come. Of course you’re ________ (79) to bring someone with you if you want to. Look forward _________ (80) you then! 71. A. have B. are having C. going to have D. will has 72. A. it’s B. its C. they’re D. she’s 73. A. too B. that C. because D. so 74. A. to follow B. follow C. following D. follows 75. A. get off B. get by C. get on D. get up 76. A. have B. get C. take D. bring 77. A. in B. at C. of D. on 78. A. Right turn B. To right C. To turn D. Turn right 79. A. welcome B. welcomed C. welcoming D. to welcome 80. A. to see B. for seeing C. of seeing D. to seeing PART E. WRITING: I. Rewrite each of the following sentences, beginning as shown, so that its meaning does not change. 81. How much are these bowls of noodle?  What’s …………………………………………………………………………………………………. 82. Is this the most difficult test you meet?  Do ……………………………………………………………………………..………………………. 83. Does Mrs. Smith often travel to Viet Nam by plane ?  Does ……………………………………………………………………………………...…………… 84. Mai’s younger sister’s hat is more expensive than hers.  Mai’s hat …………………………………………………………………………………..………….. 85. Because Hoa was ill, she couldn’t go to school yesterday.  Because of ………………………………………………………………………………….………… II. Write a paragraph of about 80- 100 words to describe a season you like best and what you often do in that season.

-------------HẾT-----------(Giám thị coi thi không giải thích gì thêm)

Họ tên thí sinh......................................................................SBD:.................phòng thi.............

ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HDC ĐỀ THI GIAO LƯU CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 7 NĂM HỌC 2017-2018 TIẾNG ANH LỚP 7. TỔNG ĐIỂM 100, SAU ĐÓ QUY ĐỔI VỀ THANG ĐIỂM 20 PART A: LISTENING. Mỗi câu đúng HS được 1 điểm 1. Sophia 2. Italian 3. 521 Ashdown 4. 0405492451 5. 30(th) December/December 30(th) 6. DJG120459 7. 15/fifteen 8. one week/1 week 9. $45/$45.00/45 dollars 10. Any one of the following: online; automated telephone; in person; self-service checkout PART B: PHONETICS. Mỗi câu đúng HS được 1 điểm I. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. 1. C 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. C II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from. 1. A 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. A

ƠN

FI CI A

PHÒNG GD&ĐT TAM DƯƠNG

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

PART C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR I. Choose the best opition A, B, C or D to complete the sentences. Mỗi câu đúng HS được 0,5 điểm 1. B 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. C 6. C 7. C 8. A 9. B 10. D II. Complete each sentence with the correct form of the word in capitals. Mỗi câu đúng HS được 1 điểm 1. painting 2. preparation 3. successful 4. violence 5. mixture 6. encourages III. There are 10 mistakes in the following paragraph. Underline the mistake then correct it. Write your answer in the table below. Number (0) is done for you. Mỗi câu đúng (tìm được lỗi và sửa đúng) HS được 1 điểm, tìm được lỗi nhưng sửa sai hoặc không sửa HS được 0,5 điểm. Mistakes Line Correction Mistakes Line Correction 1. have 1 has 2. their 3 our 3. beauty 4 beautiful 4. better 5 best 5. and 6 but 6. healthily 6 healthy 7. on 7 in 8. humorous 8 humor

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

ƠN

FI CI A

9. to laugh 8 laugh 10. friendly 9 friendship IV. Number the following sentences to make a conversation. Mỗi câu đúng HS được 1 điểm 2 7 1 9 6 3 14 12 8 4 13 10 5 11 or 2 7 1 11 6 3 14 10 8 4 13 12 5 9 PART D: READING COMPREHENSION I. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits space .Use only one word in each space. Mỗi câu đúng HS được 1 điểm 1. Founded 2. university 3. from 4. house 5. also 6. including 7. total 8. million II. Read the passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) Mỗi câu đúng HS được 1 điểm 1. A 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. A III. Read the passage below and then circle the correct answer A, B, C or D. Mỗi câu đúng HS được 1 điểm 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. D 1. C 6. A 7. C 8. C 9. C 10. B PART E: WRITING. I. Use the suggested words and phrases to make complete sentence. Mỗi câu đúng HS được 1 điểm 1. He doesn’t speak English as/so fluently as her sister (does) 2. Last month, she learnt/learned (how) to make a dress by herself. 3. It won’t be too difficult (for us/me/them/her/him) to keep in touch. 4. What about having/eating dinner together/going out for dinner together at 6 p.m? 5. My grandparents don’t like the city/ living in the city because it is (so, very) noisy and the roads are busy. II. Use the given words to write the second sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do not change the form of the given words. Mỗi câu đúng HS được 1 điểm 1. Jane wears jeans all the time./ every time 2. During your holiday, I’ll be busy working. (I’ll be busy working during your holiday) 3. They all took part in singing the Christmas carols. 4. My brother likes scuba-diving, (and) so do I. 5. I hope to see you at the airport./ I hope that I’ll see you at the airport. III. Write a composition about 100 words about what you usually do in your free time: (don’t show your name, your school or your village) (15 điểm) 1. Mở bài: Nêu được chủ đề của bài viết.(được 2 điểm) 2. Thân bài: Nêu và trình bày được một số hoạt động mà người viết thường làm khi rảnh rỗi (như tham gia vào các hoạt động vui chơi, giải trí, thể thao, văn hóa, văn nghệ, vv…) (được 10 điểm) 3. Kết luận: Tóm tắt, khẳng định lại tất cả lý do đã trình bày ở hai phần trước. (được 3 điểm)

aif DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO PHÒNG GIÁO HUYỆN THANH OAI

FI CI A

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 6 NĂM HỌC: 2017-2018 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

Chú ý: - Bộ đề thi này gồm có 06 trang, từ trang 01 đến trang 06. - Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào bộ đề thi này. Điểm

Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 1:

- Bằng số:…………….. ………………………………………...

- Bằng chữ:…………… Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 2: ………………………... ………………………………………...

Số phách (Do Chủ tịch hội đồng chấm thi ghi) …………………..

KÈ

QU Y

ƠN

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts) Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 × 0.2 = 3.0 pts) Time Time is (1) ..................................... that you should never waste. Once an (2) ..................................... is gone, it is gone forever. You should make the most of every minute. Time is a funny thing. Some days (3) ..................................... by so slowly. Those are the days that you do things that (4) ..................................... fun. When you are having fun, time just flies by. Time is made up of (5) ..................................... units. (6) ..................................... turn into minutes, minutes turn into hours, hours turn into days, days turn into weeks,weeks turn into months, and months turn into years. We measure our (7) ..................................... by time. We are very concerned with time. Even little children are very conscious (8) ..................................... time. Little children often want to appear older, so if you (9) ..................................... a three-year-old how old he is, he will often say three and a (10) ...................................... Many of our sayings are based on time. "Give me a minute.", "Hold on a second.", "I'm (11) ..................................... out of time.", "Time's up.", "I just want an hour of your time." All of (12) ..................................... are common things that we say, and they're all based on time. We are a society that lives by the clock. We almost all (13) ..................................... watches, and we glance at our watches a lot. Time is something that we can't see, (14) ..................................... it is a big factor in our lives. How many times a day do you look at a watch or a clock? I bet you'd be surprised at just (15) ..................................... many times you do.

DẠ

-> Your answers: 1....................................

2....................................

3....................................

4....................................

5.....................................

6....................................

7....................................

8....................................

9....................................

10..................................

11..................................

12..................................

13..................................

14..................................

15..................................

B. summer

C. orange

D. dozen

17. A. plane

B. paddy

C. math

D. flat

18. A. stereo

B. lemonade

C. eraser

D. desk

19. A. workers

B. students

C. teachers

D. doctors

20. A. washes

B. couches

C. sometimes

D. benches

-> Your answers: 17..................................

18..................................

19..................................

16..................................

FI CI A

16. A. brother

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts) I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (5 × 0.2=1.0 pt)

20..................................

B. collection

23. A. canteen

B. country

24. A. student

B. desert

25. A. accident

B. telephone

-> Your answers: 22..................................

D. lemonade

C. classroom

D. housework

C. housework

D. routine

C. engineer

D. motorbike

23..................................

QU Y

21..................................

C. tomato

22. A. vacation

ƠN

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others. (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 21. A. motorbike B. badminton C. pagoda D. citadel

24..................................

25..................................

DẠ

KÈ

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts) I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 × 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 26. Is there ..................................... else you want, Mrs. Thuy? – No, thanks. That’s enough today. A. a B. an C. some D. anything 27. ..................................... go fishing this weekend? - Good idea! A. What do we B. Are we going C. Would you like D. Why don’t we 28. Listen! Who..................................... to your form teacher over there? – That’s my father. A. is talking B. does talk C. is going to talk D. talks 29. Let’s go to the bakery and buy ten ..................................... of bread! – Yes, let’s. A. loaves B. bars C. bottles D. cans 30. All of these students come to school in time. They’re never late ..................................... school. A. to B. in C. for D. at 31. Mum! Please buy some cooking oil. There ..................................... much cooking oil in the bottle. A. aren’t B. is not C. isn’t D. B & C are correct 32. Is Phanxipang..................................... moutain in the world? - No, just in Viet Nam. A. the higher B. the high C. highest D. the highest 33. Mr. Thang’s grandwoman is ..................................... woman. She is ninety years old. 2

FI CI A

A. a old B. an old C. not young D. not very young 34. Our roads are quite dangerous places. All of us ..................................... A. must be careful B. can be careful C. mustn’t be careless D. Both A&C are correct 35. My father doesn’t want much sugar in coffee. Just ....................................., please. A. few B. a few C. little D. a little -> Your answers: 26..................................

27..................................

28..................................

29..................................

30..................................

31..................................

32..................................

33..................................

34..................................

35..................................

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences. (10 × 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 36. That boy drives so fast. It's very …...................... for the other people. DANGER 37. I like this kind of tree because it has a lot of green…......................

LEAF POLICE

39. There are some …...................... in the garden. They are planting roses.

WOMAN

ƠN

38. Trung’s mother, Mrs. Hanh, is a very kind …......................

40. Of all the structures in the world we know, the Great Wall of China is the LONG

…...................... one.

CARE

42. There are ten …...................... in our school library.

BOOK

QU Y

41. My new friend is very careful. He drives his car…......................

43. Do you know the …...................... of this tree? – I don’t know.

HIGH

44. My birthday is on the …...................... of August.

THIRTY

45. What 's your …......................? - I weigh100 pounds.

WEIGH

37 ..................................

KÈ

36 ..................................

-> Your answers:

41 ..................................

42 ..................................

38 ..................................

39 ..................................

40 ..................................

43 ..................................

44 ..................................

45 ..................................

III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 46. Your sister (do) ……………… the housework every day?

DẠ

47. Don’t make such a noise! Our grandparents (sleep) ……………… in their room nearby. 48. What time your father (go) ……………… to work in the morning? 49. The students (visit) ……………… President Ho Chi Minh’s Mausoleum this weekend. 50. All the students in our school mustn’t (eat) ……………… food in the classes. 3

-> Your answers:

QU Y

ƠN

FI CI A

46. .................................. 47. .................................. 48. .................................. 49. .................................. 50. .................................. PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts) I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10 × 0.2 = 2.0 pts) Mr. Hung is an engineer in (51)……………… very big factory. He lives in a small apartment on the (52)……………… floor of a high building in Ho Chi Minh City. The factory is not near (53) ……………… so he usually goes to work by bus, he rarely goes by motorbike. He (54)……………… home at 6.45 and come to his office at about 7.15 in the morning. (55)……………… is Saturday morning now, and Mr. Hung doesn't go to work, he is (56)……………… home, in bed. On Saturdays, he (57) ……………… at about seven o'clock. Then he sits in the living room and (58) ……………… breakfast with his wife at home. On Saturday afternoon, he usually plays tennis (59)……………… some of his friends or goes swimming in the swimming pool. On Saturday evenings, he (60)……………… at home, he often goes out to play chess with our neighbors. He's a good man and he's very kind to all of us. 51. A. a B. an C. the D. any 52. A. two B. double C. twice D. second 53. A. house B. he’s house C. his house D. him house 54. A. leave B. is leave C. leaving D. leaves 55. A. It B. It’s C. Its D. They 56. A. in B. at C. on D. with 57. A. get up B. gets up C. getting up D. is geting up 58. A. has B. having C. have D. to have 59. A. in B. with C. to D. about 60 A. not stay B. isn’t stay C. doesn’t stay D. no staying

KÈ

-> Your answers: 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. (10 × 0.2 =2.0 pts) New Year is one of the most important festivals in the United States. On New Year’s Eve, most (61)……………… go to the parties. At twelve (62) ………………at night, everyone says “Happy New Year” and they wish their friends (63) ……………… relatives good luck.

New Year’s parties usually last a long (64) ……………… . Many people don’t go

DẠ

(65)……………… until next morning. Another holiday, Halloween, is mainly for children. On this holiday, children dress as witches, ghosts (66) ……………… others. Most children go from house (67) ……………… house asking for candy or fruit. If people at the house

don’t give (68)……………… candy, the children will (69)……………… a trick on them. But this hardly happens. Almost people (70)……………… them candy or fruit.

-> Your answers:

FI CI A

61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) Tom and Jane want to know their friends’ favorite free time activities, so they are asking their friends about what they like to do in their free time. Many of their friends say that usually eat and drink as well as chat with their friends. They like to talk about many things

around them: their teachers, their friends, their families as well as their favorite musicians, singers, soccer players and movie stars. There are some popular activities after lessons at their school such as: skipping rope, reading books and playing sports. At home, many of

ƠN

their friends say they like to watch TV, listen to music or play computer games. They rarely go to the movies. Some of the girls like to go shopping. Very few of their friends like to do English exercises on the Internet. Many of their friends don’t take part in art, music club.

KÈ

QU Y

71. What/ many of/ Tom and Jane's friends/ usually do/ their free time? -> ………………………………..…………………………………………….……..…… …………………………………………………………………………….……..…… 72. What/ their friends/ like/ talk about? -> …………………..………………………………………………………….……..…… …………………………………………………………………………….……..…… 73. many of their friends/ like to watch TV, listen to music/ or play computer games/ home? -> …………………………………………………………………………….……..…… …………………………………………………………………………….……..…… 74. very few/ or many/ their friends/ like to do English exercises/ the Internet? -> …………………………………………………………………………….……..…… ..………………………………………………………………………….……..…… 75. What/ passage/ talk about? (Free time activities/ Tom and Jane's friends/.) -> ……………………….…………………………………………………….……..…… …………………………………………………………………………….……..……

DẠ

PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts) I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Use the words in brackets: (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 76. How much are these notebooks, Hoa? -> .........................................................................................................................? (cost) 5

QU Y

ƠN

FI CI A

77. My bike is cheaper than Ha's bike. ->.................................................................................................................... (expensive) 78. No one in our village is as handsome as Peter. ->........................................................................................................................... (most) 79. How tall is your younger brother, Joko? ->..........................................................................................................................? (age) 80. Does your brother enjoy playing Chinese chess? ->.................................................................................................................? (interested) II. Use the following words and phrases to write complete and meaningful sentences. Make all the necessary changes and additions if necessary. (5 × 0.2=1.0 pt) 81. your friends/ going/ have / picnic/ near/Red River? >............................................................................................................................................... 82. We would/ some oranges/and two/ glass/ milk/ please. >............................................................................................................................................... 83. How much/ rice/ many eggs/ these farmers/ produce/ every year? >............................................................................................................................................... 84. Anh / often/ play/sports/ his free time, but/ sometimes/ go/ camping/ his classmates. >............................................................................................................................................... 85. Phuong's brother/ play/ soccer/ moment./ He/ play/ it/ every afternoon/ after school. >............................................................................................................................................... III. Write an essay (120 words) about your family: (3.0 pts) (The essay must have the title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion. Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…)

KÈ

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………..

DẠ

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 6 NĂM HỌC: 2017 - 2018 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts) Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 × 0.2 = 3.0 pts)

1. something

2. hour

3. go

4. aren't 6

5. different

6. Seconds

7. lives

8. of

9. ask

10. half

11. running

12. these

13. wear

14. but

15. how

16. C. orange

17. A. plane

FI CI A

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts) I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (5 × 0.2=1.0 pt) 18. C. eraser

19. B. students

20. C. sometimes

21. C. pagoda

22. D. lemonade

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others. (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 23. A. canteen

24. D. routine

25. A. engineer

ƠN

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts) I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 × 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 26. D. anything 27. D. Why 28. A. is talking 29. A. loaves 30. C. for don’t we 31. D. 32. D. the 33. B. an old 34. D. Both A & 35. D. a little B & C are correct highest C are correct II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences. (10 × 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 37. leaves

41. carefully

42. bookshelves

38. policewoman

QU Y

36. dangerous

43. height

39. women

40. longest

44. thirtieth

45. weight

III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 46. Does…do

47. are sleeping

48. does…go

49. are going to visit

50. eat

KÈ

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts) I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10 × 0.2 = 2.0 pts) -> Your answers: 51. A. a 52. D. second 53. C. his house 54. D. leaves 55. A. It 56. B. at 57. B. gets up 58. A. has 59. B. with 60. C. doesn’t stay

DẠ

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. (10 × 0.2 =2.0 pts) 61. people 62. o’clock 63. and 64. time 65. home 66. or 67. to 68. them 69. play 70. give III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 71. What do many of Tom and Jane's friends usually do in their free time? 7

FI CI A

-> They usually eat, drink and chat with their friends. 72. What do their friends like to talk about? -> They like to talk about many things around them. 37. Do many of their friends like to watch TV, listen to music or play computer games at home? -> Yes, they do. 74. Do very few or many of their friends like to do English exercises on the Internet? -> Very few of their friends like to do English exercises on the Internet. 75. What does the passage talk about? -> The passage talks about free time activities of Tom and Jane's friends.

ƠN

PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts) I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Use the words in brackets: (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 76. How much do these notebooks cost, Hoa? 77. Ha's bike is more expensive than my bike/ my one/ mine. 78. Peter is the most handsome in our village. 79. What is your younger brother's age, Joko? 80. Is your brother interested in playing Chinese chess?

QU Y

II. Use the following words and phrases to write complete and meaningful sentences. Make all the necessary changes and additions if necessary. (5 × 0.2=1.0 pt) 81. Are your friends going to have a picnic near the Red River? 82. We would like some oranges and two glasses of milk, please. 83. How much rice and how many eggs do these farmers produce every year? 84. Anh often plays sports in his free time, but he sometimes goes camping with his classmates. 85. Phuong's brother is playing soccer at the moment. He/ plays it every afternoon after school.

DẠ

KÈ

III. Write an essay (120 words) about your family: (3.0 pts) (The essay must have the title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion. Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…) - The opening: The essay must write something relating to the topic “How the family is, the number of members…”. (0.5pt) - The body: Write about at least three reasons explaining about what they do in general and in details…, the sentences must contain connectors and link words... (2,0 pts) - The conclusion: Write about the writers' ideas. (0.5 pt) * Note: The essay that has 3.0 points must have: - Long enough (At least 200 words or maybe more). - Correct vocabulary and structures. - Don't tell the proper names (The school, the student's/ teacher’s name/ ...). 8

DẠ M

KÈ QU Y ƠN

FI CI A

ĐỀ THI GIAO LƯU HSG CẤP HUYỆN MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 6 NĂM HỌC 2017-2018 Thời gian làm bài 120 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề

UBND HUYỆN YÊN LẠC PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

ƠN

FI CI A

PART A: LISTENING Part I: Listen to a woman talking to a policeman and choose the best option A, B or C to answer each of the following questions. You will hear the conversation twice. 1. How much money was in the bag? A. £ 20 B. £ 40 C. £ 30 2. What else was in the bag? A. credit card B. driving licence C. gloves 3. The bag was ________ . A. old B. expensive C. big 4. What time did the woman lose the bag? A. 9.30 B. 10.00 C. 10.30 5. The policeman will telephone her in the _______. A. morning B. afternoon C. evening Part II: You will hear a man speaking on the telephone. He wants to speak to Miss Dixon, but she is not there. Listen and complete questions 6-10. You will hear the conversation twice.

Message Miss Dixon

FROM:

6. Mr. __________________

Meeting about:

7. new __________________

On:

Wednesday

QU Y

TO:

Time:

8. _________

In:

9. room _______

Please take:

10. _________

PART B: PHONETICS

DẠ

KÈ

Question I. Pick out the word (A, B, C or D) whose underlined part is pronounced differently from those of the other words 1. A. soul B. about C. account D. sound 2. A. weather B. than C. throat D. feather 3. A. dear B. wear C. nearby D. appear 4. A. changes B. causes C. noises D. articles 5. A. travelled B. produced C. played D. confused PART C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR Question I: Choose the best option (A, B, C, or D) to complete the sentence. 1. – “ ________ do they visit their hometown?” - “ Once every two or three months.” A. How long B. How far C. How often D. How much

ƠN

FI CI A

2. The new instructor at the Sports Club is excellent. She is very ________ with us. A. confident B. patient C. positive D. careful 3. They spent too much time ________ computer games when they were students. A. to play B. play C. played D. playing 4. We sometimes __________ experiments in physics class. A. make B. work C. do D. get 5. My father is fond of sports. He goes to the Sports Club to watch_________ every Saturday. A. racing horses B. race horse C. horse races D. horsing race 6. I’m meeting Tom tonight; It will be the first time I ________ him since Christmas. A. saw B. had seen C. have seen D. see 7. When you are going climbing, you _____ check the weather forecast first. A. could B. should C. may D. can 8. We must be quick. There’s ________ time left. A. few B. little C. much D. more 9. The antique table is very beautiful, but it doesn’t fit in with the rest of the furniture, which is ________. A. old B. expensive C. modern D. recent 10. Lan is wearing a _______. A. short nice B. nice short C. nylon short D. nylon nice nylon skirt nylon skirt nice skirt short skirt

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

Question II: Each sentence has one mistake. Find and correct it. 0. It is a five – minutes walk from my house to the market. Example: five – minutes five – minute 1. If you don’t practice speaking English regularly, you wouldn’t feel confident when talking to a foreigner. 2. Many people say that Da Nang is one of the most beautiful city in the Southeast Asia. 3. They prefer watching TV at home to take part in outdoor activities in their free time. 4. John doesn’t work so hardly as Peter, but he is much more careful than Peter. 5. Tuan is very sporty; he is fond of play badminton with his father after school. 6. Mr. Long and his wife have worked for this company for ten years ago. 7. Although Hoa doesn’t live far from school, but she is always late for school. 8. There are many bookshelf with a lot of different kinds of book in my school’s library. 9. The air in the country is more clean than the air in the city. 10. Mr. Tuan together with his family go to Ha Long Bay every summer holiday. Question III: Complete the following sentences, using the correct form of the words given in parentheses. 1. Tu is very ________. He’s always on the phone, chatting to friends TALK 2. We can trust Huy. He is very _____________. RELY 3. Please listen to the ___________ carefully. INSTRUCT 4. The football fans cheered __________ for their side. LOUD 5. My lives in a small village and its __________ are very beautiful. SURROUND 6. Wearing a tight pair of shoes is very ___________. COMFORT 7. Hoa is one of the __________ students in her class. SHY 8. ___________ in the rain makes me feel pleasant. WALK 9. There are fifty __________ in this music contest. MUSIC 10. My children like joining __________ activities after school. DOOR PART D: READING Question I: Choose the word or phrase that best fits the blank space in the following passage. My Television . My television is an important (1) _____of furniture to me. I can’t get (2) ____ very often, but my TV brings the whole (3) ______to me. From the evening news and the “all-news” channels. I learn about events(4) ______ the outside world: politics, the environment, recent changes in technology and

FI CI A

medicine, and (5) ______on. I like game shows and travel programs, (6) ______. And I love comedies: I think it’s important to be (7) _____to laugh. I can even watch shows (8) _____other languages and “go shopping” by TV. With the major national networks, I have a (9) ______of fifty different programs (10) ___the same time! 1. A. bit B. piece C. slice D. pair 2. A. out B. in C. out of D. in to 3. A. world B. places C. towns D. cities 4. A. on B. in C. out D. over 5. A. such B. this C. that D. so 6. A. too B. so C. either D. neither 7. A. ability B. enable C. able D. inability 8. A. of B. in C. at D. by 9. A. choose B. chose C. choice D. choosing 10.A. in B. at C. on D. of Question II: Read the following passage and choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) for each question.

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

ƠN

Peter usually wakes up at half past six in the morning, but he does not get up until a quarter to seven. He takes a shower and gets dressed. He has breakfast at half past seven. He does not have a big breakfast. He usually has bread, coffee and orange juice. After breakfast, he cleans his teeth. He leaves his house at eight o’clock. He never drives a car to work. He often catches the train to his office in Manchester. On the train, he reads the newspaper or does the crossword. For lunch, he usually has a salad or soup and sandwich at 1.30. He comes home at about half past six in the evening. He has dinner at half past seven. It is a big meal of the day and he has meat or fish with vegetables and potatoes or rice. After dinner, he washes up. Then he usually reads a book. Sometimes he plays chess with his friends. He never watches television because he does not like it. He goes to bed at about 11.30. 1. Every morning, Peter gets up at ________. A. 6.30 B. 6.00 C. 7.15 D. 6.45 2. He usually has ________ in the morning. A. breakfast with meat B. a slight breakfast C. a big breakfast D. breakfast with eggs 3. What does he usually have for lunch? A. sandwich and salad B. soup and fish C. salad and soup D. sandwich and fish 4. What does he usually do after dinner? A. He usually washes up and watches TV. B. He usually reads a book and watches TV. C. He usually washes up, watches TV, reads a book and plays chess. D. He usually washes up, reads a book and plays chess. 5. Which sentence is NOT true in the passage above? A. Sometimes he drives his car to work. B. He often reads the newspaper on the way to his office. Question III: Insert ONE suitable word in each of the blanks to complete the following passage. Along with jogging and swimming, cycling is (1)______ all-round form of exercise. It can help to (2)_________ your strength and energy, giving you (3)________ efficient muscle and a stronger heart. But increasing your strength is (4)___________ the only advantage of cycling. Because you are not carrying the weight of your (5)________ on your feet, it’s a good form of (6)___________ for people with painful feet or backs. However, (7)_______ all forms of exercise, it’s important to start slowly and build up gently. Doing (8)________ much, too quickly can damage muscles that aren’t used to working. If you have (9) _________ doubt about taking up cycling for health reason, talk to your doctor and ask (10)_________ his advice.

ƠN

FI CI A

PART E: WRITING Question I: Rewrite the sentences with the given words (do not change the given word) or beginning in such a way that their meanings remain unchanged 1. The book has two hundred pages book. ->There…………………………………………… 2. How much does this cassette player cost? -> What…………………………………………..? 3. Mai dances marvelously. ->Mai is…………………………………………… 4. They can’t come on Saturday. ->It is……………………………………………… 5. I am not as good at Literature as my sister. ->My sister is……………………………………… 6. I haven’t written to her for two months. ->The last time…………………………………….. 7. The trip to Chicago was cheaper than we expected. ->The trip to …………………………………………. 8. We took a train to Liverpool last Saturday. ->We got………………………………………………… 9. He has more books than me. -> I have……………………………………………….. 10. It’s very important to learn new words. -> Learning…………………………………………… Question II Write a paragraph of about 100-150 words to describe a person that you like most.

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

________ THE END OF THE TEST ________

1. A

2. C

3. B

FI CI A

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM THI GIAO LƯU HỌC SINH GIỎI NĂM HỌC 2017- 2018 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 6 PART A: LISTENING: 1 points (0.1 p/ 1 correct answer) Part I: 1. A 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. A Part II: 6. HYDE 7. Factory 8. 11.30/half past 9. 21/ 10. Photo(s) eleven twenty/photograph(s) one PART B: PHONETICS: 0.5 points (0.1 p/ 1 correct answer) 4. D

5. B

ƠN

PART C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMARL: 3.0 points (0.1 p/ 1 correct answer) Question I: 1. C 6. C 2. B 7. B 3. D 8. B 4. C 9. C 5. C 10. B Question II: 1. wouldn’t => won’t 6. for => since 2. city => cities 7. but => ᴓ 3. take => taking 8. bookshelf => bookshelves 4. hardly => hard 9. more clean => cleaner 5. play => playing 10. go => goes Question III: 1. talkative 2. reliable 3. instruction 4. loudly 5. surroundings 6. uncomfortable 7. shiest 8. walking 9. musicians 10. outdoor

5. D 10. B

2. increase 7. with

Question II: 1D 2B 3A Question III: 1. an 6. exercise

QU Y

PART D: READING: 2.5 points (0.1 p/ 1 correct answer) Question I: 1. B 2.A 3.A 4.B 6.A 7. C 8. B 9. C

3. more 8. too

4. not 9. any

5. body 10. for

DẠ

KÈ

PART E: READING: 3.0 points Question I: 1 point (0.1 p/ 1 correct answer) 1. There are 200 pages in this book. 2. What is the price of this cassette player? 3. Mai is a marvelous dancer. 4. It is impossible for them to come on Saturday. 5. My sister is better at Literature than me. 6. The last time I wrote to her was two / 2 months ago. 7. The trip to Chicago wasn’t as expensive as we expected. 8. We got to Liverpool by train last Saturday. 9. He has fewer books than him / he does. 10. Learning new words is very important. .

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

ƠN

FI CI A

Question II: 2.0 điểm Học sinh viết đúng yêu cầu đề bài, đúng cấu trúc của đoạn văn có “topic sentence” rõ ràng, “supporting ideas” hợp lí, liên kết chặt chẽ: 1 điểm Học sinh biết cách sử dụng từ, cấu trúc đa dạng: 0.5 điểm Học sinh không có lỗi sai chính tả, ngữ pháp: 0.5 điểm

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Đề thi này gồm 04 trang

ĐỀ THI GIAO LƯU HSG CẤP HUYỆN NĂM HỌC 2018 - 2019 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH – LỚP 6 Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

PHÒNG GD&ĐT TAM DƯƠNG

New Street school library Sarah Tanner _________________________ _________________________ _________________________ _________________________ _________________________

0. Full name: 1. Age : 2. Teacher’s name : 3. Favourite books: 4. Hobbies: 5. How many books:

FI CI A

PART A – LISTENING. I. * Listen and write.

ƠN

* Listen and write the answer to correct heading. What did Ben do last week? 0. Monday 0. B A. He bought a book in the village shop and sat on the sand and read it 1. Wednesday 1. …….… B. He went to kind of museum and saw lots of different fish 2. Saturday 2. …….… C. He went to the beach and climbed up to the top of a big rock 3. Tuesday 3. …….… D. He went for a walk in the village, ice creams 4. Friday 4. …….… E. He went fishing in boat 5. Sunday 5. …….… F. He saw a film about a woman climber

QU Y

PART B – PHONETICS. II. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. 1. A. traveled B. surprised C. worked D. climbed 2. A. too B. food C. cook D. pool 3. A. listen B. take C. light D. understand * Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others. 4. A. comment B. symbol C. dirty D. enjoy 5. A. behave B. decorate C. expect D. describe

DẠ

KÈ

PART C – LEXICO AND GRAMMAR. III. Choose the best answer A,B,C or D to complete each of the following sentences. 1. There are flights daily to Ho Chi Minh City……….…Monday. A. besides B. after C. except D. on 2. It’s expensive ……….…to Nha Trang by plane. Would you mind ……….…by train? A. travel / to go B. to travel / going C. to travel / to go D. travel / going 3. Susan has worked for that company……….…4 years. A. since B. during C. for D. over 4. How……….…rice does he want? A. many B. much C. any D. about 5. Superstitions still……….…an important part of life for many people in Vietnam. A. play B. take C. do D. give 6. Educated women are likely to get ……….…jobs and become more important at home. A. well-trained B. well-paid C. well-prepared D. well-educated 7. What about ……….…a cup of coffee? A. having B. have C. you have D. do you have 8. You ……….…pick those flowers. Don’t you see the sign? A. can’t B. don’t need to C. mustn’t D. needn’t 9. How ……….…going by bike to the pagoda? A. there B. sport C. about D. time 10. Sorry, I take the wrong book ……….…mistake. A. by B. of C. with D. in Trang 1/6

11. This ceremony is known under different names. A. clever B. fortunate C. traditional 12. I don’t have……….…apples but I have……….…oranges. A. any / some B. some / any C. some / some 13. Don’t throw trash into the river. It……….…water. A. plows B. saves C. damages 14. You should pay more……….…to the lessons in class. A. part B. care C. attention 15. ……….…she was tired, she watched a film last night. A. Although B. Although of C. Despite

D. numerous

D. any / any

FI CI A

D. pollutes D. notice

D. In spite of

Mistake

Correction

ƠN

IV. Each of the following sentences has a mistake. Find and correct it. Sentences 1. Ba gets up at 6 o’clock and gets dressing. 2. In the morning, Hoa washes her face, brushes her tooth and then has breakfast. 3. How often does Mr. John go to Ha Noi? – Seldom, one a year. 4. In spite of having a lot of money, but he lives unhappily. 5. If you don’t study harder, you would fail the exams. 6. The film I watched yesterday was very interested. 7. The three Rs stand of Reduce – Reuse – Recycle.

QU Y

V. Provide the correct form of the words in CAPITAL LETTERS. 1. Very few people can catch the……….…cheese because it can travel up to 112 km an hour. (ROLL) 2. If more people cycle, there will be……….…air pollution. Right? (LITTLE) 3. There was no ……….…for his absence from class yesterday. (EXPLAIN) 4. Meat is not a(n)……….…food if we know how much to eat. (HEALTH) 5. Walking in the rain gives me……….… (PLEASE) 6. Paris is ……….…for the Eiffel Tower. (FAME) 7. Tomorrow we’re cycling around to……….…the city. (DISCOVERY) 8. During his career he became ……….…around the world as “The King of Football”. (KNOW) 9. Life today is……….…from life 50 years ago. (DIFFER) 10. This is the biggest ……….…in the city. (BUILD)

KÈ

VI. Rearrange the order of the sentences to have a complete conversation. A. By train. B. How long are you going to stay there? C. I’m fine. Where are you going to visit this summer? D. Fine, thanks. And you, Nam? E. How are you going to travel? F. For a week. G. Hello Ba. How are you? H. I’m going to visit my uncle in Nha Trang.

DẠ

PART D – READING VII. Which notice (A-H) says this (1-5)? For questions 1-5, mark the correct letter A-H on the answer sheet.

Trang 2/6

L FI CI A OF ƠN NH

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

VIII. Read the passage and choose the best answer to each question. Nha Trang is one of the most important tourist hubs of Vietnam, thanks to its beautiful beaches with fine and clean sand and the clear ocean water with mild temperature all year round. There are several resorts such as Vinpearl, Diamond Bay and Ana Mandra, amusement and water parks both in the city and on islands off the coast. The possibly most beautiful street of Nha Trang is Tran Phu Street along the seaside, sometimes referred to as the Pacific Coast Highway of Vietnam. Lying off Nha Trang is the Hon Tre Island (Bamboo Island), with a major resort operated by the Vinpearl Group. The Vinpearl Cable Car, a gondola lift system, links the main land to the five-star resort and theme park on Hon Tre Island. 1. Nha Trang is considered as one of the most beautiful tourist hubs in Vietnam because ………… A. it has several resorts such as Vinpearl, Diamond Bay and Ana Mandra. B. it has beautiful coastal villages with mild temperature all year round. C. it has beautiful beaches and clear ocean water with mild temperature all year round. D. the Vinpearl Cable Car links the main land to the five-star resort on Hon Tre Island. 2. According to the text, Diamond Bay is the name of a/an ………… A. resort B. cable car C. beach D. island 3. The Pacific Coast Highway of Vietnam referred to …………in Nha Trang. A. the city B. the islands C. Tran Phu Street D. Vinpearl Group 4. The word “major” in line 6 is closest in meaning to ………… A. modern B. beautiful C. expensive D. main 5. According to the text, which of the following statements is NOT true? A. The Hon Tre Island (Bamboo Island) is not on the main land of Nha Trang. B. Hon Tre Island is one of the most important tourist hubs of Vietnam. C. Tourists can go to Hon Tre Island from the mainland of Nha Trang by cable car. D. Tran Phu Street is possibly the most beautiful street of Nha Trang. Trang 3/6

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

ƠN

FI CI A

IX. Read the passage and choose the correct answer (A or B, C, D) to fill in the gap. Kate has three (1)…………a day: breakfast, lunch and dinner. She usually (2)…………breakfast at home. She has bread, eggs and milk (3)…………breakfast. (4)…………school, Kate and her friends always (5)…………lunch at one o’clock. They often have fish or meat, vegetables for lunch. Kate has dinner (6)…………her parents at home at 7 o’clock. They often have meat or fish, bread, chicken (7)…………vegetables for dinner. After dinner, they eat (8)…………fruits or cakes. Kate (9)………… dinner because it is a big and happy meal of the day. Her family goes out for dinner (10)…………a month. 1. A. breakfast B. lunch C. meals D. cooking 2. A. have B. has C. do D. does 3. A. on B. in C. to D. for 4. A. At B. In C. On D. For 5. A. has B. have C. having D. to have 6. A. to B. for C. with D. and 7. A. and B. or C. to D. in 8. A. a B. an C. any D. some 9. A. like B. likes C. to like D. not like 10. A. one B. one time C. once D. once time X. Fill in each blank with one suitable word to complete the passage. BENEFITS OF PLAYING SPORTS Firstly, playing sports can give you a healthy life and a fit body to you. You will be more active and healthier (1)…………playing sports. To illustrate, you can have a lower chance of getting a serious illness such as (2)…………attack or high blood pressure. In other words, it increases your resistance to illness. In leisure time, you can play sports (3)………… your friends or your relatives, this not only helps you but (4)…………motivates everyone around you to take part in sports and have good (5)………… Furthermore, there are some (6)…………which you can play easily such as table tennis, tennis or football and after that, you feel completely relaxed or (7)…………free from your stress. Moreover, you also need to allow (8)…………encourage children to play sports, especially some outside activities such as football, basketball or volleyball to decrease the time that your children (9)…………sitting in front of computers or watching television. These sports can help them have endurance, quickness and even teach them how to improve team spirit and work in groups. These sports also teach them how to communicate with their teammates, and show them (10)…………. active and creative they are. PART E – WRITING. XI. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence. 1. We visited Quy Nhon last summer.  We paid ………………………………………………………………………………………………….. 2. What was your weight last year?  How ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… 3. Stop talking or you won’t understand the lesson.  If …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 4. He hasn’t eaten in that restaurant since he left the city.  The last time ………………………………………….………………………………………………….. 5. I spent 2 hours doing my homework last night.  It …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. XII. How should you do to help your school greener? Write a paragraph of about 100- 120 words to express your ideas.------------------------------------------------------HẾT--------(Giám thị coi thi không giải thích gì thêm) Họ tên thí sinh......................................................................SBD:.................phòng thi.............

Trang 4/6

ĐÁP ÁN + HDC THI GIAO LƯU HSG CẤP HUYỆN NĂM HỌC 2018 - 2019 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH – LỚP 6 HDC này gồm 02 trang

5. B

ƠN

PART B – PHONETICS. (5 x 0,1 = 0,5 điểm) II. 1. C 2. C 3. A 4. D

FI CI A

Tổng điểm: 20 điểm PART A – LISTENING. (3,5 điểm): I. Listen and write: Mỗi câu đúng HS được 0,4 = 2 điểm 1. 1. 8/ eight 2. (Mrs.) Drummond 3. Animal stories 4. Riding (horses) 5. 5/five * Listen and write the answer to correct heading. What did Ben do last week? Mỗi câu đúng HS được 0,3 = 1,5 điểm 1. C 2. D 3. E 4. F 5. A

PHÒNG GD&ĐT TAM DƯƠNG

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

PART C – LEXICO AND GRAMMAR. (40 x 0,2 = 8 điểm) III. Choose the best answer for each sentence. 1. C 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. B 7. A 8. C 9. C 10. A 11. D 12. A 13. D 14. C 15. A IV. Each of the following sentences has a mistake. Find and correct it. Sentences Mistake Correction 1. Ba gets up at 6 o’clock and gets dressing. dressing dressed 2. In the morning, Hoa washes her face, brushes her tooth and tooth teeth then has breakfast. 3. How often does Mr. John go to Ha Noi? – Seldom, one a year. one once 4. In spite of having a lot of money, but he lives unhappily but ø 5. If you don’t study harder, you would fail the exams. would will 6. The film I watched yesterday was very interested interested interesting 7. The three Rs stand of Reduce – Reuse – Recycle. of for V. Provide the correct form of the words in CAPITAL LETTERS. 1. ROLLING 6. FAMOUS 2. LESS 7. DISCOVER 3. EXPLANATION 8. WELL- KNOWN 4. UNHEALTHY 9. DIFFERENT 5. PLEASURE 10. BUILDING VI. Rearrange the order of the sentences to have a complete conversation. 1G 2D 3C 4H 5B 6F 7E 8A OR 5E 6A 7B 8F PART D – READING (4 điểm) VII. Which notice (A-H) says this (1-5)? For questions 1-5, mark the correct letter A-H on the answer sheet. (5 x 0,2 = 1 điểm) 1. F 2. A 3. G 4. C 5. D Trang 5/6

QU Y

ƠN

FI CI A

VIII. Read the passage and choose the best answer to each question. (5 x 0,2 = 1 điểm) 1. C 2. A 3. C 4. D 5. B IX. Read the passage and choose the correct answer (A or B, C, D) to fill in the gap. (10 x 0,1 = 1 điểm) 1. C 2. B 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. C 7. A 8. D 9. B 10. C X. Fill in each blank with one suitable word to complete the passage. (10 x 0,1 = 1 điểm) 1. by 2. heart 3. with 4. also 5. health 6. sports 7. even 8. and /or 9. spend 10. How PART E – WRITING. (4 ĐIỂM) XI. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence. (5 x 0,2=1 điểm) 1. We paid a visit to Quy Nhon last summer. 2. How heavy were you last year? 3. If you don’t stop talking, you won’t understand the lesson. If you stop talking, you will understand the lesson. 4. The last time he ate in that restaurant was when he left the city. 5. It took me 2 hours to do my homework last night. XII. How should you do to help your school greener? (3 điểm) Write a paragraph of about 100 - 120 words to express your ideas.--1. Content (1,6 points): a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate. 2. Language (0,8 points): a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted lower-secondary school students. 3. Presentation (0,6 points): coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of English language gifted lower-secondary school students.

DẠ

KÈ

---------THE END---------

Trang 6/6

aif GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO PHÒNG HUYỆN THANH OAI

NĂM HỌC: 2018 -2019 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

FI CI A

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 6

Chú ý: - Bộ đề thi này gồm có 06 trang, từ trang 01 đến trang 06. - Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào bộ đề thi này. Điểm

Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 1:

- Bằng số:…………….. ………………………………………...

- Bằng chữ:…………… Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 2: ………………………... ………………………………………...

Số phách

(Do Chủ tịch hội đồng chấm thi ghi)

…………………..

KÈ

QU Y

ƠN

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts) Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 × 0.2 = 3.0 pts) Subjects There are many subjects that you can (1) ..................................... at school. My favorite subject is music. I like to (2) ..................................... and to play the clarinet. I also like art. I am quite good at drawing and (3) ...................................... History is a good subject. I like (4) ..................................... about the past. Geography is very interesting. We look at many (5) ..................................... in geography. We learn where there are (6) ..................................... and mountains. I know the (7) ..................................... of all the continents and all the oceans. Mathematics is my (8) ..................................... favorite subject. I am not very good with numbers. I am good at (9) ..................................... and subtraction, but I am not good at division and multiplication. In my school we learn to speak (10) ...................................... We learn French (11) ..................................... Canada has French and English-speaking citizens. English literature is a good (12) ...................................... I enjoy reading books. I also like to (13) ..................................... compositions and poetry. Science is my brother's favorite subject. He is interested in (14) ....................................., and he likes to do experiments. We also take drama at my school. I (15) ..................................... to act. I got the lead role in the school play.

DẠ

-> Your answers: 1.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

FI CI A

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts) I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 16. A. energy B. pagoda C. programme D. goggles 17. A. charity B. exchange C. character D. peach blossom 18. A. design B. serious C. president D. overseas 19. A. languages B. dresses C. watches D. becomes 20. A. symbol B. robot C. popular D. remote -> Your answers: 20.

22.

23.

21.

ƠN

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others. (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 21. A. about B. common C. weather D. building 22. A. landmark B. creature C. channel D. arround 23. A. terrible B. equipment C. remember D. exhausted 24. A. newsreader B. furniture C. continent D. marathon 25. A. waterfall B. educate C. appearance D. beautiful -> Your answers: 24.

25.

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts) I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 × 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 26. We ............................ the cartoon “Tom and Jerry” many times. A. see B. saw C. are seeing D. have seen 27. My brother likes going to the cinema............................ I like watching TV at home. A. but B. and C. or D. because 28. My sister, Thuy Linh, is the ............................ girl in her school. A. as beautiful B. more beautiful C. beautifullest D. most beautiful 29. What............................ you ............................ yesterday evening? – I stayed at home. A. do - do B. will - do C. did - do D. can - do 30. I like this programme because it is both entertaining ............................ educational. A. or B. and C. so D. but 31. My younger sister ............................ home for school yet. A. didn’t leave B. don’t leave C. hasn’t left D. isn’t leaving 32. ............................ people go to the movies now than ten years ago. A. Few B. Fewer C. Less D. Lesser 33. Which animals are............................, dogs or dolphins? A. intelligence B. intelligent C. more intelligent D. most intelligent 34. People in many countries often wear their............................. clothes on the New Year day. A. ordinary B. summer C. tradition D. traditional 35. The father told her children: “............................ swim in this river. It’s a dangerous place.” A. Do B. Don’t C. Not D. Can’t 2

-> Your answers: 26. 27.

28.

29.

30.

FI CI A

31. 32. 33. 34. 35. II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences. (10 × 0.2 = 2.0 pts) GOOD

37. We held the Mid-Autumn festivals in the ...................................house.

CULTURE

38. Ba had an accident last week because he drove ...................................

CARE

39. Living in a city is ...................................than living in the countryside.

INTERESTING

36. Nobody in our class is...................................at Math than my cousin, Bao.

40. Nam is very................................... He always has a lot of new ideas.

CREATE

41. When you open a newspaper, you’ll find.................................about games. INFORM ELECTRIC

43. I did many sports last week and was...................................

EXSHAUST

ƠN

42. Many cars in the future will run on...................................

44. What is the correct..................................of this word, Lan? - I don’t know. PRONOUCE 0. 45. ...................................is a very big problem in many countries. -> Your answers: 37.

41.

42.

38.

39.

40.

43.

44.

45.

QU Y

36.

POLLUTE

III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 46. Your father (buy) ..........................a ticket for the soccer match last week? 47. My future house will be on the ocean, it’ll (surround).......................... by blue sea.

48. It is not raining now. The sun (shine) ..........................and the sky is blue.

KÈ

49. There are lots of gray clouds in the sky. It (rain) .......................... 50. If I lend you some money, when you (repay) ..........................me? -> Your answers: 46. 47.

48.

49.

50.

DẠ

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts) I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10 × 0.2 = 2.0 pts) These days it is important (51).......................... a newspaper without reading about the damage we are doing to the environment. Our earth is being threatened (52).......................... our future looks bad. (53).......................... can each of us do? 3

51.

52.

56.

57.

ƠN

FI CI A

We cannot (54).......................... up our polluted rivers and seas overnight. Nor can we stop the (55).......................... of plants and animals. But we can stop adding to the problem while scientists look (56) .......................... answers. I think that it may not be easy to change our lifestyle (57).......................... but some steps are easy for us to take: Cut down the amount of driving we do, or use as little plastic as possible. It is also easy to save (58) .........................., which also reduces household bills. We must all make a personal (59).......................... to work for the future of our planet if we want to ensure a better (60).......................... for our grandchildren. 51. A. to open B. opened C. opening D. to open 52. A. so B. however C. and D. moreover 53. A. What B. When C. Why D. Where 54. A. clean B. cleaned C. to clean D. cleaning 55. A. appear B. appearance C. disappear D. disappearance 56. A. for B. up C. after D. with 57. A. complete B. completeness C. completed D. completely 58. A. water B. money C. energy D. health 59. A. decide B. decisive C. deciding D. decision 60. A. city B. country C. continent D. world Your answers: 53.

54.

55.

58.

59.

60.

QU Y

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. (10 × 0.2 = 2.0 pts) comedies rest programmes 7 o’clock news writers national relax game shows educational viewers

DẠ

KÈ

Television is available everywhere now and VTV1 is a (61) …………… television channel in Viet Nam. It attracts millions of (62) …………… because it offers many different interesting programmes. The (63) …………… tells people what is happening in Viet Nam and the (64) …………… of the world. (65) …………… bring a lot of laughter and help people (66) …………… after a hard working day. The most exciting programmes are (67).…………… They can be both entertaining and (68). …………… Many people work hard every day to produce quality (69) …………… for television. Some of them are programme designers, (70) …………… and reporters. -> Your answers: 61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) A lovely house 4

My best friend, Mary, lives in a house near the sea. It is an old house, about over one hundred years old and it is very small. There are two bed rooms upstairs but no bathroom.

The only bathroom is downstairs, next to the kitchen and there is a living room where there

FI CI A

is a lovely old fireplace. There is a garden in front of the house. The garden goes down to the beach and in spring and summer there are a lot of beautiful flowers every where. Mary likes alone with his dog, Rack, but they have a lot of visitors. Their city friends often come and stay with them.

Mary loves her house for many reasons: the beautiful garden, the flowers in summer, the

of a new house in the future with the help of Robots.

fire in winter, but the best thing is the view from her bedroom window. Mary is now thinking

QU Y

ƠN

71. How/ old/ Mary/ house/ ?/ -> ………………………………..…………………………………………….……..…… ………………………………………………………………..………….….……..…… 72. Where/ bathroom/ ?/ -> …………………..………………………………………………………….……..…… ………………………………………………………………..………….….……..…… 73. When/ there/lot/ beautiful/ flowers/ ?/ -> ……………………………………………………………………………..……..…… ……………………………………………………………………………..……..…… 74. Who/ often/ come/stay/them/ ?/ -> ……………………………………………………………………………..……..…… ..………………………………………………………………………..…..….…..…… 75. What/ reasons/ Mary/ love/ house/ for/ ?/ -> ……………………….…………………………………………………….……..…… ………………………………………………………………………..…….……..……

KÈ

PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts) I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Use the given words: (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 76. Learning how to use a computer is quite easy for my eldest brother. ->

It.................................................................................................................................?

DẠ

77. No house in my village is more beautiful than Mr. Hoang’s house. -> Mr. Hoang’s house....................................................................................................

78. Mr. Tung’s children like watching cartoons very much. (Use “interested”) -

>....................................................................................................................................... 5

79. The boys tried their best to play well. They didn’t win the soccer match. -> ……………………….................although………….….…...........…………….…..

80. No planet in the Solar System is as big as Jupiter.

FI CI A

-> Jupiter ………..………………………………………...………………………

QU Y

ƠN

II. Use the following words and phrases to write complete and meaningful sentences. Make all the necessary changes and additions if necessary. (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 81. How often/ you/ practise/ play/ table tennis/ ?/ -> ………………………………………………………………………………………. 82. You/ visit/ your grandparents/ the countryside/ last Sunday/ ?/ -> ………………………………………………………………………………………. 83. There/ might not/meeting/ Friday/ because/ director/ ill/ ./ -> ………………………………………………………………………………………. 84. Little girl/ often/ feel/ unhappy/ when/ get/ bad marks/ . / -> ………………………………………………………………………………………. 85. I/ not/ like/ that programme/ because/ so boring/ ./ -> ………………………………………………………………………………………. III. Write a paragraph (about 120 words) to describe how you and your family preparation for Tet: (3.0 pts) (The essay must have the title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion. Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…) …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..........…………….………………… …..

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..........…………….………………… …..

KÈ

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 6 NĂM HỌC: 2018 - 2019 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts) 4. learning

5. maps

6. deserts

7. names

8. least

9. addition

10. French

11. because

12. subject

13. write

14. plants

15. like

DẠ

Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 × 0.2 = 3.0 pts) 1. take 2. sing 3. painting

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts) I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (5 × 0.2=1.0 pt) 17. C. character

18. B. serious

19. D. becomes

20. C. popular

16. A. energy

21. A. about

22. D. arround

23. A. terrible

FI CI A

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others. (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 24. A. newsreader

25. C. appearance

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts) I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 × 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 26. D. have seen 27. A. but 28. D. most beautiful 29. C. did - do 30. B. and 31. C. hasn’t left 32. B. Fewer 33. C. more intelligent

34. D. traditional 35. B. Don’t

ƠN

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences. (10 × 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 36. better

37. cultural

38. carelessly

39. more interesting 40. creative

41. information

42. electricity

43. exshausted

44. pronunciation

45. pollution

III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 46. Did...buy

47. be surrounded 48. is shining 49. is going to rain 50. will...repay

QU Y

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts) I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10 × 0.2 = 2.0 pts) 51. D. to open

52. C. and

53. A. What

54. A. clean

55. D. disappearance

56. A. for

57. D. completely

58. C. energy

59. D. decision 60. D. world

62. viewers

63. 7 o`clock news

64. rest

65. Comedies

66. relax

67. game shows

68. educational

69. programmes

70. writers

KÈ

61. national

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. (10 × 0.2 =2.0 pts)

DẠ

III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 71. How old is Mary’s house? -> It is about over one hundred years old. 72. Where is the bathroom? -> The bathroom is downstairs, next to the kitchen. 73. When are there a lot of beautiful flowers? -> (There are a lot of beautiful flowers) In spring and summer. 7

FI CI A

74. Who often come and stay with them? -> Their city friends often come and stay with them. 75. What reasons does Mary love her house for? -> Mary loves her house for many reasons: the beautiful garden, the flowers in summer, the fire in winter, but the best thing is the view from her bedroom window.

PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts) I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Use the given words: (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 76. It is quite easy for my eldest brother to learn how to use a computer. 77. Mr. Hoang’s house is the most beautiful house in my village. 78. Mr. Tung’s children are very interested in watching cartoons. 79. The boys didn’t win the soccer match although they tried their best to play well. 80. Jupiter is the biggest planet in the Solar System.

ƠN

II. Use the following words and phrases to write complete and meaningful sentences. Make all the necessary changes and additions if necessary. (5 × 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 81. How often do you practise playing table tennis? 82. Did you visit your grandparents in the countryside last Sunday? 83. There might not be a meeting on Friday because the director is ill. 84. The little girl often feels unhappy when she gets bad marks. 85. I didn’t like that programme because it was so boring.

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

III. Write a paragraph (about 120 words) to describe how you and your family preparation for Tet: (3.0 pts) (The essay must have the title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion. Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…) - The opening: The essay must write something relating to the topic “How the family prepare for Tet.”. (0.5 pt) - The body: Write about at least three reasons explaining about what you and your family do in general and in details before Tet holiday…, the sentences must contain connectors and link words... (2,0 pts) - The conclusion: Write about the writers' ideas. (0.5 pt) * Note: The essay that has 3.0 points must have: - Long enough (At least 200 words or maybe more). - Correct vocabulary and structures. - Don't tell the proper names (The school, the student's/ teacher’s name/ ...).

ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH NĂNG KHIẾU CẤP HUYỆN Môn: Tiếng Anh 6 Thời gian làm bài 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Đề thi có 06 trang

Điểm

IA L

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

Họ tên, chữ ký giám khảo 1.

Bằng chữ:

Bằng số:

Số phách

NH ƠN

OF F

Chú ý: - Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi. - Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu gì kể cả từ điển. SECTION 1: LISTENING. Phần nghe có 02 bài, mỗi bài được nghe 02 lần (giám thị chỉ mở 01 lần đĩa tự động phát 02 lần) Trước phần nghe có một phút để thí sinh đọc đề bài. I. Listen and write. (1.0 point ) BIRTHDAY PARTY Day: (1) ____________________________________ Place: The (2) ____________________________- café Number of children: (3) ____________________________________ Where they sit: Table (4) _______________________________ Food: Cake, (5) ____________________ and ice cream.

QU Y

II. Listen then choose the correct answer (1.0 point) 1. What is the parrot's color? A. red and green B. red and blue C. orange and blue 2. How old is it? A. 16 B. 17 C. 18 3. What is its favorite food? A. apple B. banana C. orange 4. What is its name? A. Skippy B. Poly C. Polly 5. What can it say? A. Good B. Hello C. Hi

D. black and white D. 19 D. cake D. Green D. morning

KÈ

SECTION 2: PHONETICS. III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C or D. (1.0 point) (Chọn từ có cách phát âm khác với các từ còn lại ở phần gạch chân trong mỗi câu sau) 1. A. writes B. makes C. drives D. takes B. tooth

C. clothing

D. thank

3. A. father

B. natural

C. math

D. garage

4. A. couch

B. house

C. soup

D. ground

5. A. home

B. household

C. however

D. hourly

DẠ

2. A. both

IV. Choose the word that has the stress pattern different from that of the other words. Identify your answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D. (1.0 point) 1

(Chọn từ có dấu trọng âm khác với các từ còn lại trong mỗi câu sau) 1. A. animal B. basketball C. danger

D. pollution

B. idea

C. visit

D. potato

3. A. banana

B. traffic

C. finger

D. purple

4. A. television

B. intersection

C. opposite

D. badminton

5. A. lemonade

B. correct

C. behind

D. apartment

IA L

2. A. recycle

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

NH ƠN

OF F

SECTION 3: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR. V. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence, identify your answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D. )(4.0 points) (Chọn đáp án đúng để hoàn thành câu bằng cách khoanh tròn chữ cái A,B,C hay D) 1. Nam______ English on Monday and Friday. A. not have B. isn’t have C. don’t have D. doesn’t have 2. When it becomes hot, people often feel ______ A. hungry B. thirsty C. happy D. worried 3. Do children have math on Monday ? - ______. A. Yes, they have B. No, they don’t C. Yes, they don’t D. No, they not have 4. Mr. Nam gets up at 7.00 and eats ______. A. a big breakfast B. the big breakfast C. big breakfast D. a breakfast big 5. Is her school ______ the park? A. in front of B. next C. in front to D. near to 6. Is this her ______? A. erasers B. books C. an eraser D. eraser 7. Tan likes ______ weather because he can go swimming. A. hot B. cold C. windy D. foggy 8. ______ straight across the road. A. Don’t run B. Not run C. No run D. Can’t run 9. I hope the ______ can repair our car quickly. A. mechanic B. reporter C. architect D. dentist 10. The traffic lights are red, so you ________ stop now. A. can B. must C. mustn’t D. can’t 11. ______ fruit does your father produce? A. How much B. How many C. How long D. How often 12. We go to school at ______ in the morning. A. a quarter to seven B. seven to a quarter C. seven quarter D. a quarter seven to

13. There ______a cupboard, a dishwasher and a table in the kitchen. A. be B. are C. is D. am 14. I’m playing table tennis . _______ you like table tennis? A. Have B. Is C. Are D. Do 2

OF F

IA L

15. There is an English examination ______ Friday, 11th December. A. at B. in C. to D. on 16. What time _____ back? A. is she coming B. comes she C. she does come D. does she comes 17. The students have got ______ news about their exams. A. many B. some C. any D. a 18. The boy looks a little thin, ______ he is strong. A. and B. for C. or D. but 19. ________and _______ would like to join the English Club speaking. A. Marry/me B. I/ Marry C. me/ Marry D. Marry/ I 20. There isn’t _______ milk in the glass. A. a B. an C. any D. some

NH ƠN

VI. Supply the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets. (2.0 points) (Cho dạng đúng của động từ trong ngoặc) a. You (1. wait)_____________ for our teacher? b. Mrs Brown ( 2. not live) _______in town. She ( 3. live) ________ in a house in the country. c. I ( 4. not understand)_________this sentence. What this word ( 5. mean)___________? d. I don’t want (6. cook)__________tonight. Let’s (7. eat)______________out. e. Be quiet! The baby ( 8. sleep)____________. She ( 9. take)____________her afternoon nap. f. We can’t (10. go out) ________________ for a swim because it is raining. 1……………..………………..... 6………………..……………….. 2………………………………..

7………………..………………..

3………………………………..

8…………….…………..……….

4………………………………..

9…………………………………

QU Y

5……………….……………….. 10………………..……………….

DẠ

KÈ

VII. Give the correct form of the words in capital to complete the sentences. (1.0 point) (Cho dạng đúng của từ in hoa) 1. I have a sister. She is a ______________________________________. POLICE 2. The ______________________________is to the right of the drugstor. BAKE 3. Paul turns out to be the _____________________student in our school. GOOD 4. He greets me in a _______________________________________way. FRIEND NATION 5. Do you know what her LEMON _____________________________________is? 6. I MOUNTAIN like drinking fruit juice, especially ____________________________. 7. Is Phu Tho a _______________________________________province? TOOTH 8. His ______________________________________are small and white. NOISE 9. Near my house, there is a market. It is very_______________________. PICNIC 10. Sometimes, they go _________________________ to the countryside. VIII. Circle one mistake in each sentence then correct it. (2.0 points) (Khoanh tron một lỗi sai trong mỗi câu sau rồi sửa lại cho đúng) 1. Mr Nhu doesn't watching TV in the living-room now. ……………………. A B C D 2. How many milk would you like? ……………………. A B C D 3. The Browns are traveling to Ho Chi Minh City in train. ……………………. A B C D 3

……………………. …………………….

IA L

……………………. …………………….

……………………. ……………………. …………………….

OF F

4. Are they many students in your class? A B C D 5. There are two bookshelf in my sister's bedroom. A B C D 6. You must taking off your shoes before entering this room. A B C D 7. How height is the PETRONAS Twin Towers? A B C D 8.Hambledon is the prettier village in England. A B C D 9. My brother often spends a hour playing sports after school. A B C D 10. The cat is among the lamp and the bed. A B C D

A. peas

A. breakfast

A. meat

A. water

B. not

C. am not

D. no

B. a cup

C. a can

D. a bar

B. rice

C. chocolates

D. milk

B. lunch

C. dinner

D. supper

B. rice

C. vegetables

D. noodles

B. soda

C. juice

D. lemonade

QU Y

. A .don’t A. a packet

NH ƠN

SECTION 4: READING. IX. Read the passage. Then choose one suitable word to fill in the gaps. (1.0 point) (Đọc đoạn văn sau đó chọn từ thích hợp bằng cách khoanh tròn chữ cái A,B,C hay D để điền vào chỗ trống) I (0)_____ usually eat breakfast. I only have (1)___ of coffee. I don’t eat anything until about eleven o’clock. Then I have a biscuit and a glass of (2)_____. For lunch I usually have a salad. That’s at about two o’clock. I have (3)_____ at half past six in the afternoon. I’m a vegetarian, so I don’t eat (4)____ or fish. I eat cheese and eggs and things like that. I have a glass of water or fruit (5)____ with my meal. At the weekend I go to a restaurant in the evening. You can get vegetarian meals in a lot of restaurants now.

DẠ

KÈ

X. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (2.0 points) (Điền vào mỗi chỗ trống một từ thích hợp) Jane is twenty- six (1)___________ old. She lives with her family in an (2)_________ in London. There are four (3) __________in her family. Her parents (4) __________ in a hospital. Her brother is a (5) __________ at university. Jane works (6) __________ a travel writer for a magazine. She (7) _________abroad five or six times a year. Now she is traveling in South America. She does not (8) ___________ Spanish very well, but she is studying it at the moment (9)________ she needs to talk to local people. Every evening she writes notes about people (10) __________ places. 1......................... 2........................... 3........................... 4..........................

6........................

5.......................

7........................... 8........................... 9........................... 10...................... 4

NH ƠN

OF F

IA L

XI. Read the following passage, then answer the questions by circling A, B, C or D. (1.0 pt) ( Đọc đoạn văn và chọn đáp án trả lời đúng) The Greens are having breakfast at their house. A traditional English breakfast is a very big meal. There are bread, eggs, butter, bacon, tomatoes on the table. David is eating bread, eggs and bacon. He doesn't like butter but his sister, Mary likes it very much. Sometimes they have honey and marmalade or jam. Marmalade and jam are not the same. Marmalade is made from oranges and jam is made from other fruit. Mrs. Greens asks her husband to have another cup of coffee. Both Mr. and Mrs. Green like coffee very much. They drink four or five cups of coffee every day. David wants to drink some but his mother says that it isn't good for growing children. She says that he and Mary should drink orange juice and milk. 1. What is a traditional English breakfast? A. a quick breakfast B. a light breakfast C. a traditional breakfast D. a very big breakfast 2. What is there a lot in a traditional English breakfast? A. food B. meat C. fish D. drink 3. Does David drink coffee everyday? A. Yes, she does. B. No, doesn’t. C. No, he doesn’t. D. Yes, he does. 4. What should David and Mary drink? A. oranges juice B. milk C. coffee D. both A&B. 5. What is this passage about? A. Breakfast. B. A traditional English breakfast C. The dessert of the Greens D. An England breakfast

QU Y

SECTION 5: WRITING XII. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the first one. (2.0 points) ( Viết lại các câu sau sao cho nghĩa không đổi) 1. That motorbike belongs to Mr Trung. => That is ............................................................................................................................... 2. She likes eating mangoes best.

=> Her…….…………………………………………………..………………..……….…… 3. What is the height of that building?

=> How ………………….………..……….…………………..……………..………….…?

KÈ

4. How many apples would you like? =>How many apples do ………………................................................................................? 5. Let's playing soccer this afternoon? => Why..................................................................................................................................?

6. How much are these shoes?

DẠ

=>How...................................................................................................................................? 7. This box has twelve packets of tea. =>There ……………………………………......................................................................... 8. No lake in the world is deeper than Lake Baikal. 5

=> Lake Baikal……………………………………………………………………………… 9. It is important for you to arrive on time.

IA L

=> You must.......................................................................................................................... 10. I advise you not to eat lots of sweets.

=> You should …………………………………………….…………………………….....

XIII. Rearrange these words or phrases to make complete sentences. (1.0 point) (Sắp xếp các từ hoặc cụm từ sau thành câu có nghĩa.) 1. I/ it/ go/ when/ some/ swimming/ hot/ is/ often/ friends/ of/ with.// 2. small / thin/ sister/ white/ and/ his/ lips/ teeth /has//.

OF F

…………………………………………………………………………...…………………. ……………………………………………………………………………………………… 3. lifter/ heavy/ so/ is/ and/ he/ a/ strong/ weight/ very/ he/ is/.//

…………………………………………………………………………………….............

NH ƠN

4. like/ isn't/ because/ his/ fish/ food/ he/ favorite/ it/ doesn't/.//

……………………………………………………………………………………..……… 5. burn/ should/ and/ the/ not/ cut/ we/ down/ trees/ forest/.//

…………………………………………………………………………….…………...…… _____The end_____

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH NĂNG KHIẾU CẤP HUYỆN Môn: Tiếng Anh 6

QU Y

(Hướng dẫn chấm có 2 trang)

( 0,2 point for each correct answer) SECTION 1: LISTENING. I. Listen and write.(1.0 point ) 2. CARIS

1.Saturday

3.18/eighteen

KÈ

II. Listen then choose the correct answer(1.0 point) 1. A. red and green 2.D. 19/ nineteen 3. B. banana

4. outside

4. C. Powly

5. sandwiches

5.B. Hello

DẠ

SECTION 2: PHONETICS. III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C or D. (1.0 point) 1.C. drives 2. C. clothing B. father 4. C. soup 5. D. hourly IV. Choose the word that has the stress pattern different from that of the other words. Identify your answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D. (1.0 point) 1. D 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. D 6

IA L

SECTION 3: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR. V. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence, identify your answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D. (4.0 points) 1. D. doesn’t have 6. D. eraser 11. A. How much 16. A. is she coming 2. B. thirsty 7. A. hot 12. A. a quarter to seven 17. B. some 3. B. No, they don’t 8. A. Don’t run 13.C. is 18. D. but 4. A. a big breakfast 9. A. mechanic 14. D. Do 19. D. I 5. A. in front of 10. B. must 15. D. on 20. C. any

OF F

VI. Supply the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets. (2.0 points) 1. Are/ waiting 2. doesn’t live 3. lives 4. don’t understand 6. to cook 7. eat 8. is sleeping 9. is taking

5. does/ mean 10. go out

NH ƠN

VII. Give the correct form of the words in capital to complete the sentences. (2.0 points) 1. policewoman 2. bakery 3. best 4. friendly 5. nationality 6.lemonade 7. moutainous 8. teeth 9. noisy 10. picnicking

VIII. Find one mistake in each sentence then correct it. (2.0 points) (Tìm một lỗi sai trong mỗi câu sau rồi sửa lại cho đúng) 1. A. =>is 2. B=>much 3. D=> by 4. A=>there 6. A=>take

7. B=>high

8. C=>prettiest

9. B=>an

5.B=>bookshelves 10.B=>between

QU Y

SECTION D: READING. IX. Read the passage. Then choose one suitable word to fill in the gaps. (1.0 point) 1. B. a cup

2. D.milk

3. C. dinner

X. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (2.0 points) 1. years 2. apartment 3. people 7. goes

8. speak

5. C. juice

4. work

5. student

9. because

10. and

6. as

4. A. meat

KÈ

XI. Read the following passage, then answer the questions by circling A, B, C or D. (1.0 pt) ( Đọc đoạn văn và chọn đáp án trả lời đúng) 1. C 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. B

DẠ

SECTION 5: writing. IX. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the first one. (2.0 points) 1.That is Mr Trung’s motorbike. 2. Her favorite food is mangoes. 3. How high is that building ? 4. How many apples do you like? 5. Why don’t we playing soccer this afternoon? 6. How much do these shoes cost? 7

IA L

7. There are twelve packets of tea in this box. 8. Baikal Lake is the deepest lake in the world. 9. You must arrive on time. 10. You should not eat lots of sweets.

X. Rearrange these words or phrases to make a complete sentence. (1.0 point) 1. When it is hot, I go swimming with some of my friends. 2. His sister has thin lips and small white teeth. 3. He is a weight lifter so he is very heavy and strong. 4. He doesn't like fish because it isn't his favorite food . 5. We should not burn the forest and cut down trees. Total mark = 20 points.

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

NH ƠN

OF F

_____The end_____

ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH NĂNG KHIẾU MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 6 Thời gian: 135 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)

IA L

Họ tên thí sinh: _________________________________ Nam (Nữ): _________ Ngày, tháng, năm sinh:_____________________ Số báo danh:

Trường: _______________________________________________________ Họ tên, chữ ký của giám thị

SỐ PHÁCH

Giám thị số 1: _____________________________

Giám thị số 2: _____________________________

OF F

(Do chủ tịch HĐ chấm thi ghi)

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

NH ƠN

Chú ý: - Thí sinh phải ghi đầy đủ các mục ở phần trên theo sự hướng dẫn của giám thị. - Thí sinh không được ký tên hay dùng bất cứ ký hiệu gì để đánh dấu bài kiểm tra. - Bài thi không được viết bằng 2 thứ mực, mực đỏ, bút chì. - Phần viết hỏng phải dùng thước gạch chéo, không được tẩy xóa bằng bất kỳ cách gì khác (kể cả bút xóa). - Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu gì kể cả từ điển.

Điểm toàn bài thi

Họ tên, chữ ký của giám khảo

Số phách

Bằng số

Bằng chữ

- Giám khảo số 1 : ________________________________

(Do chủ tịch HĐ chấm thi ghi)

IA L

- Giám khảo số 2 : ________________________________

Đề thi gồm 06 trang Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi

Name

Job

Hours per week

Susan

Jane

Phong

48 (hours)

Amount of vacation

NH ƠN

Peter

OF F

SECTION 1: LISTENING Chú ý: - Thời gian cho thí sinh đọc đề bài nghe là 01 phút. - Thí sinh sẽ được nghe 02 lần I. You will hear a woman talking about some other people. Listen and fill in the missing information in the numbered space. (2 points)

three weeks 8. 10.

QU Y

SECTION 2: PHONETICS II. Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from that of the rest by writing your answer A, B, C or D. (1 point) 1. A. woman B. tool C. good D. book 2. A . scales B. poster C. sure D. useful 3. A. lives B. misses C. languages D. watches 4. A. honor B. hour C. honest D. habit 5. A. game B. change C. vegetables D. geography WRITE YOUR ANSWERS HERE 3.___________

4.___________

5.___________

KÈ

1.___________ 2.___________

SECTION 3: LEXICO – GRAMMAR III. Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence by writing your answer A, B, C or D. (7 points) 1. The children always help their parents _______the housework in their free time. A. to B. with C. of D. on

DẠ

2. There _______ of stars in the sky. A. is million B. are million C. has millions D. are millions 3. There is a _______ behind my classroom. A. big flower garden B. flower big garden C. garden big flower D. big garden flower 2

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

NH ƠN

OF F

IA L

4. Lan: Let’s go to the movies this evening. Ba : _______ C. No, we don’t A. That’s a good idea B. Yes, we are D. Yes, we do 5. How _______wine can he drink? B. much C. many D. long A. far 6. We’re going to have an English examination _______ December 11th 2017. A. in B. at C. from D. on 7. Look! Trang _______ in the park with her dog. A. walking B. walk C. walks D. is walking 8. I hope the _______can repair our car quickly. A. mechanic B. architect C. worker D. dentist 9. We want to go _______ his car because he drives very carefully. A. on B. by C. in D. of 10. Would you like _______ oranges? A. much B. many C. some D. any 11. Viet Nam has four main _______ in a year. A. seasons B. months C. weeks D. summers 12. What about _______ to Hue on Sunday? A. to go B. go C. goes D. going 13. Today is Tuesday, so the day after tomorrow is _______. A. Monday B. Wednesday C. Thursday D. Friday 14. _______ many good students, Lan is the best one. A. Between B. Among C. In D. Of 15. My mother always wants me _______ the piano well. A. to play B. playing C. play D. to playing 16. Is your brother good _______ Physics and Math? A. for B. at C. on D. in 17. Linda _______ her hair every day. A. washes B. does C. plays D. cleans 18. How many minutes are there in _______ hour? A. a B. the C. this D. an 19. - What is your favourite food? - _______ A. I favourite chicken B. My favourite food chicken C. Chicken favourite me D. I like chicken best 20. _______ straight across the road. A. Don’t run B. Not run C. No run D. Can’t run 21. A: Lien is in the hospital. B: Yes, I know. I _______ visit her tomorrow. A. am visiting B. am going to visit C. visit D. to visit 22. Look at the _______ Practice at page 98. A. Far B. Farther C. Further D. Furthest 23. Mr. Hung is a driver. He and the farmer are loading his _______ with vegetables. A. taxi B. car C. motorbike D. truck 24. This sign says “No smoking”. You _______ smoke. A. can’t B. must C. can D. mustn’t 25. My brother wants a good pair of shoes because he goes _______ every morning. A. jogging B. running C. swimming D. sailing 26. - What is there _______ breakfast ? - There are noodles and milk. A. in B. at C. for D. on 27. “7.45” is read _______. 3

NH ƠN

OF F

IA L

A. a quarter to eight B. seven to forty five C. seven past forty five D. forty five to seven 28. Do you have any bread? I’d like a large _______. A. bar B. tube C. packet D. loaf 29. We must be _______ when we cross the road. A. care B. careful C. careless D. carefully 30. “Ping pong” is another word for _______. A. tennis B. volleyball C. table tennis D. badminton 31. - Would you like something to drink? - _______. A. Thank you. I’m full. B. No, I don’t like. C. No, thanks. D. Yes, I like. 32. My friend, Linh _______ drinks coke and beer. A. don’t B. never C. doesn’t D. isn’t 33. The _______ in the market near my house is terrible. A. noisy B. noisier C. noisily D. noise 34. PETRONAS Twin Towers in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia is 452 meters _______. A. high B. wide C. tall D. long 35. Her house isn’t very clean. My house is _______. A. clean B. more clean C. cleaner D. the cleanest WRITE YOUR ANSWERS HERE 1.___

2.___

3.___

4.___

5.___

6.___

7.___

8.___

9.___

10.___

11.___ 12.___ 13.___ 14.___ 15.___ 16.___ 17.___ 18.___ 19.___ 20.___ 21.___ 22.___ 23.___ 24.___ 25.___ 26.___ 27.___ 28.___ 29.___ 30.___

KÈ

QU Y

31.___ 32.___ 33.___ 34.___ 35.___ IV. There is one mistake in each of the following sentences. Find the mistake and write your answer A, B, C or D. (1 point) 1. Do you know how many people are there in her family? A B C D 2. It’s ten o’clock. My father unloads the vegetables. A B C D 3. My class has a picnic two a year. A B C D 4. My mother needs to buy a bottle of cooking oil and five hundred gram of beef. A B C D 5. My brother has a lot of homewoks to do this evening. A B C D WRITE YOUR ANSWERS HERE

DẠ

1.___________ 2.___________ 3.___________ 4.___________ 5.___________ SECTION 4: READING V. Read the text and decide which option best fits each numbered blank by writing your answer A, B, C or D. (2 points) Environmental pollution is a term that refers to tell the way by which man pollutes his surroundings. Man dirties the air (1)___ gases and smoke, (2)___ the water with chemicals and other substances, and damages the soil with (3)___ many fertilizers and pesticides. Man also pollutes his surroundings in (4)___ other ways. For example, people run natural beauty by scattering litter on the land and (5)___ the water. They operate machines and motor vehicles that fills the air with disturbing (6)___ pollution. 4

D. in D. poison D. a little D. a few D. with D. noise D. facing D. survives D. feeding D. beautify

C. of C. poisoned C. too C. much C. to C. noised C. faces C. survival C. keeping C. beautifully

OF F

1. A. to B. with 2. A. poisons B. poisonous 3. A. so B. such 4. A. various B. very 5. A. on B. in 6. A. noisy B. noisily 7. A. face B. to face 8. A. survive B. survived 9. A. growing B. raising 10. A. beauty B. beautiful WRITE YOUR ANSWERS HERE

IA L

Environmental pollution is one of the most serious problems (7)___ mankind today. Air, water and soil are necessary to the (8)___ of all living things. Badly, polluted air can cause illness, and even death. Polluted water kills other marine life. Pollution of soil reduces the amount of land for (9)___ food. Environmental pollution also brings ugliness to man’s naturally (10)___ world.

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

NH ƠN

1.___ 2.___ 3.___ 4.___ 5.___ 6.___ 7.___ 8.___ 9.___ 10.___ VI. Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer by writing A, B, C or D. (1 point) LEARNING ENGLISH Every year students in many countries learn English. Some of these students are young people, others are teenagers. Many adults. Some learn at school, others study by themselves. A few learn English just by hearing the language in film, on television, in the office or among their friends. But not many are lucky enough to do that. Most of people must work hard to learn another language. Many boys and girls learn English at school because it is one of their subjects. They study their own language, mathematics and English. In England, or America, or Australia, many boys and girls study their own language, which is English, and mathematics and another language, perhaps French, or German or Spanish. Many adults learn English because it is useful for their work. Teenagers often learn English for their higher studies, because some of their books are in English at the college or university. Other people learn English because they want to read newspapers or magazines in English. 1. According to the writer A. Only adults learn English. B. No children like learning English. C. English is useful only to teenagers. D. English is popular in much of the world. 2. Many people learn English by A. Watching videos only. B. Working hard on their lessons. C. Talking with the film stars. D. Hearing the language in the office. 3. Many boys and girls learn English because A. English can give them a job. B. It is included in their study courses. C. Their parents make them. D. They have to study their own language. 4. In America and Australia, many school children study A. English as a foreign language. B. English and mathematics only. C. Such foreign languages as French, German and Spanish. 5

IA L

D. Their own language and no foreign language. 5. Many adults learn English because A. It helps them in their work. B. They want to go abroad. C. Most of their books are in English. D. Their work is useful. WRITE YOUR ANSWERS HERE

NH ƠN

OF F

1.___________ 2.___________ 3.___________ 4.___________ 5.___________ VII. Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word. (2 points) PETS Many people like to keep pets. Dogs and (1)___ are very popular pets. Some people, however, keep birds or goldfish. They need less space and are easier to look after. If you want to have a pet, you can buy one from a pet (2)___ but you must be careful not to buy a sick animal. It is best if you know something (3)___ the pet you want. This helps you choose a healthy pet. However, if you do not have (4)___ money and know very little about (5)___, you can visit the Royal Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (RSPCA). The first society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals was founded in England (6)___ 1821. It was set up to make sure that all animals are treated with kindness. The RSPCA in Hong Kong carries out this aim. The RSPCA offices collects animals which have no homes and are lelf in the street. They (7)___ after them until they are healthy again. People visit the RSPCA may choose their pets from these animals and you can be sure that you will get a healthy pet. If later your pet becomes ill, you can (8)___ it to the doctors at the RSPCA for treatment. When you have a (9)___ , it is very necessary that you look after it properly. You must remember to feed it at suitable times. You should also give it a clean and comfortable place to rest. Your pet will be happy and (10)___ if you love it and care for it properly. WRITE YOUR ANSWERS HERE 1.___________ 2.___________ 3.___________ 4.___________ 5.___________

QU Y

6.___________ 7.___________ 8.___________ 9.___________ 10.__________ SECTION 5: WRITING XIII. Rewrite the sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one, beginning with the words or phrases given. (2 points) 1. My father often goes to Ho Chi Minh City by plane. " My father ___________________________________________________________

2. The garden is beautiful and large.

KÈ

" It is ________________________________________________________________ 3. Is this Mr.Trung’s motorbike? " Does_______________________________________________________________? 4. Remember to play far from the pool, children.

" Don’t_______________________________________________________________

DẠ

5. There are two hundred stamps in his stamp collection.

" His stamp collection___________________________________________________ 6. How old is your son, Mrs. Mai?

" What is_____________________________________________________________? 7. My older sister has two daughters, Mary and Jane. 6

" Mary and Jane are_____________________________________________________ 8. My mother always goes to work at six fifteen. " My mother always goes to work at a_______________________________________

IA L

9. No one in my soccer team is better than Tuan Anh.

" Tuan Anh is__________________________________________________________ 10. It rains a lot in my country in the summer.

OF F

1. many plants / animals / danger / because / we / destroy / them.

" There is_____________________________________________________________ IX. Complete each of the following sentences, using the words given. (2 points) ____________________________________________________________________ 2. brother / you / walk / ride / school / ?

____________________________________________________________________ 3. Nam / father / policeman / and / have / difficult job.

NH ƠN

____________________________________________________________________ 4. sister/ need/ 10 kilos/ rice/ half / kilo/ pork.

____________________________________________________________________ 5. sign / say / that /cannot / go / this / street.

____________________________________________________________________

QU Y

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH NĂNG KHIẾU MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 6 Tổng điểm bài thi: 20 điểm

SECTION 1: LISTENING I. You will hear a woman talking about some other people. Listen and fill in the missing information in the numbered space. (2 points) 0.2 điểm / 1 câu đúng Name Job Hours per week Amount of vacation

Susan Jane

1. doctor

KÈ

Peter

4. nurse

5. 50

6. shop assistant

7. 35

3. four weeks

8. one week

9. factory worker

10. two weeks

DẠ

Phong

2. 70

SECTION 2: PHONETICS II. Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from that of the rest by writing your answer A, B, C or D. (1 point) 0.2 điểm / 1 câu đúng 7

1.B

2. C

3. A

4. D

5. A

IA L

SECTION 3: LEXICO – GRAMMAR III. Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence by writing your answer A, B, C or D. (7 points) 0.2 điểm / 1 câu đúng 2. D

3. A

4. A

5. B

6. D

7. D

8. A

9. C

10. C

11. A

12. D

13. C

14. B

15. A

16. B

17. A

18. D

19. D

20. A

21. B

22. C

23. D

24. D

25. A

26. C

27. A

28. D

29. B

30. C

31. C

32. B

33. D

34. A

35. C

OF F

1. B

IV. There is one mistake in each of the following sentences. Find the mistake and write your answer A, B, C or D. (1 point) 0.2 điểm / 1 câu đúng 2. C

3. C

4. D

5. C

NH ƠN

1. D

SECTION 4: READING V. Read the text and decide which option best fits each numbered blank by writing your answer A, B, C or D. (2 points) 0.2 điểm / 1 câu đúng

QU Y

1. B 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. B 6. D 7. D 8. C 9. A 10. B VI. Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer by writing A, B, C or D. (1 point) 0.2 điểm / 1 câu đúng 1. D 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. A VII. Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word. (2 points) 0.2 điểm / 1 câu đúng 2. shop

3. about

4. much

5. animals

7. look

8. take

9. pet

10. healthy

1. cats

KÈ

6. in

SECTION 5: WRITING XIII. Rewrite the sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one, beginning with the words or phrases given. (2 points) 0.2 điểm / 1 câu đúng 1. My father often flies to Ho Chi Minh City.

DẠ

2. It is a beautiful large garden. 3. Does this motorbike belong to Mr.Trung? 4. Don’t play near the pool, children. 5. His stamp collection has two hundred stamps. 8

6. What is your son’s age, Mrs. Mai? / What is the age of your son, Mrs. Mai? 7. Mary and Jane are my nieces. 9. Tuan Anh is the best (player/one) in my soccer team .

10. There is a lot of rain in my country in the summer. IX. Complete each of the following sentences, using the words given. (2 points) 0.4 điểm / 1 câu đúng

IA L

8. My mother always goes to work at a quarter past six.

1. Many plants and animals are in danger because we are destroying them. 3. Nam’s father is a policeman and he has a difficult job. 4. My sister needs 10 kilos of rice and half a kilo of pork.

OF F

2. Do your brother and you walk or ride (a bike) to school?

5. The (This/That) sign says that we (you) cannot go into this street.

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

NH ƠN

Lưu ý: Với những bài tập tự luận, nếu thí sinh làm theo cách khác (đáp án khác) mà vẫn đúng thì vẫn cho điểm tối đa.

(Đề thi gồm: 08 trang)

Điểm bài thi Bằng số: …………............ Bằng chữ: ………………..

Họ tên chữ ký Giám khảo 1 Giám khảo 2 ……………… ………………...

OF F

Chú ý: - Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu gì, kể cả từ điển. - Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi này. - Đề thi gồm 08 trang.

Số phách

ĐỀ CHÍNH

IA L

ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH NĂNG KHIẾU LỚP 6 CẤP HUYỆN Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

NH ƠN

SECTION 1. LISTENING I. Listen and choose the correct answer. (1.0 point) 1. Which sentence is TRUE? A. Nam’s thinking about getting married. B. Nam’s thinking about getting a new TV. C. Nam’s thinking about getting a new apartment. 2. Trang _________________ watches television. A. always B. usually C. rarely 3. What is Nam’s favorite TV program? A. Music programs. B. The news. C. The sports. 4. When will they go to the show “Who wants to be a Millionaire?”? A. On Friday night. B. On Saturday night. C. On Sunday night. 5. Why does Trang want to come back home? A. Because she wants to see the game shows. B. Because she wants to do her homework. C. Because she wants to see the final episode of her favorite show. Write your answers here: 1 _________ 2___________ 3___________ 4 _________ 5___________

II. Listen and fill in the missing words. (1.0 point) 1

1. Name of film: ………………………………………………....

IA L

2. For people: ……………………………………………………. 3. Cost: ……………………………………………….………….

4. Video shop in: …………………………………………….….

OF F

5. Opposite: ……………………………………………….…….

QU Y

NH ƠN

SECTION 2. PHONETICS III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. Write your answers in the space provided. (0.6 point) 1. A. closes B. horses C. roses D. houses 2. A. cooked B. hoped C. laughed D. measured 3. A. room B. good C. foot D. looked Write your answers here: 1 __________ 2__________ 3__________ IV. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three of the group. Write your answers in the space provided. (0.4 point) 1. A. uniform B. appointment C. unhappy D. delightful 2. A. compliment B. dishwasher C. anniversary D. calendar Write your answers here: 1 __________ 2__________

DẠ

KÈ

SECTION 3. LEXICO - GRAMMAR V. Choose the correct answer to complete each of the following sentences. Write your answers in the space provided. (7.0 points) 1. I bought this dress at the ________on Hung Vuong street. A. clothes’store B. store of closes C. clothes store D. closing store 2. Isn’t it easy to learn English well? A. No, it is B. No, it does not C. Yes, it is D. Yes. it does 3. There are two churches in the town and________ of them are extremely old. A. each B. all C. both D. most 4. Our neighbors are very ________ on camping holidays. A. interested B. fond C. eager D. keen 5. Mr. Nam ________to work yesterday. A. wasn’t drive B. not drive C. didn’t drove D. didn’t drive 6. The news on TV last night________ very good. A. was B. has C. were D. be 7. Lan did not know this word. Hoa didn’t, ________ . 2

KÈ

QU Y

NH ƠN

OF F

IA L

A. so B. neither C. either D. too 8. My sister will be 16 ________ Sunday ________. A. on - May 25th B. on - May 25 C. in - 25th May D. in - May 25 9. If he eats all that food, he eats ________ A. quite much B. too many C. quite many D. too much 10. Mr. Robinson speaks Vietnamese very________. A. skillfully B. good C. fluently D. best 11. Sunflowers grow ________ in areas where there is much sunlight. A. beautifully B. beautifying C. beauty D. beautiful 12. ________the man gets, ________he becomes. A. The more old/ the more weak C. The older/ the weakest B. The older/ the weaker D. Older/ weaker 13. She gave an interesting book ________ me. A. to B. for C. of D. at 14. The doctor advised Tom to stop ________. A. for smoking B. smoke C. smoking D. to smoke 15. Yesterday, I had a bad day. I got up very late and ________my bicycle was broken. A. lucky B. unlucky C. luckily D. unluckily 16. This river is very ________ for the swimmers. A. danger B. dangerous C. dangerously D. more dangerous 17. We prefer reading ________ playing chess. A. with B. than C. as D. to 18.What would you like ________ to? Pop music. A. to listen B. listen C. listening D. listen 19. The test we did last time was more difficult than this one. A. We did a difficult test last time and a more difficult one this time. B. This test is not as difficult as the one we did last time. C. We had a more difficult time last week than this one. D. The test we have this time is not difficult at all. 20. Jogging is very useful. A. I find it is useless to jog. C. It is very useful to jog. B. Jogging is not good. D. We should not jog. 21. How is Hoa’s new school different________her old school? A. from B. to C. with D. about 22. Tim’s father has________summer vacation. A. three-weeks B. three-week C. a three-week D. a three-weeks

DẠ

23. I’d like some local stamps and some for__________. A. overseas B. over sea C. over seaing D. an oversea 24. How much is it________a local letter in Malaysia. A. mail B. to mail C. mailing D. mails 25. Last night, the dentist__________a cavity in Peter’s tooth. 3

3__________ 8__________ 13__________ 18__________ 23__________ 28__________ 33__________

KÈ

QU Y

Write your answers here: 1 _________ 2__________ 6 _________ 7__________ 11 ________ 12__________ 16 _______ 17__________ 21 ________ 22__________ 26 ________ 27__________ 31 _______ 32__________

NH ƠN

OF F

IA L

A. made B. brushed C. filled D. put 26. My parents want me ________ hard every day. A. study B. to study C. studying D. to studying 27. She added________salt to the dish so it tasted good. A. a little B. many C. a few D. a lot 28. My mother wants a________ apples. A. lot B. lots of C. little D. dozen 29. Don’t spend too much of your time________video games in the arcade. A. play B. to play C. plays D. playing 30. Please________the milk carefully. I don’t want it to boil over. A. see B. watch C. look at D. notice 31. Susan is from Great Britain so she speaks________. A. British B. English C. French D. England 32. Minh likes sports very much. He usually plays ________ after school . A. games and geography B. soccer and literature C. volleyball and soccer D. volleyball and swimming 33. She looked at my teeth and told me ________. A. not worry B. not worrying C. not to worry D. to not worry 34. Children must take ________activities with others. A. after B. off C. into D. part in 35. Computers are very ________in the designing industry. A. important B. importance C. importances D. unimportant

4 _________ 9 _________ 14 ________ 19 ________ 24 ________ 29 ________ 34 ________

5 __________ 10__________ 15__________ 20__________ 25__________ 30__________ 35__________

DẠ

VI. There is one mistake in each sentence. Identify the mistake and write your answer in the space provided. (1.0 point) 1. She bought some souvenirs from the shop and so was I. A B C D 2. Before Hoa moved to here, she lived in a village near Hue. A B C D 3. You should not run or walk careless around the pool edge. A B C D 4

IA L

4. At present, her group is rehearsing a play to the school anniversary celebration. A B C D 5. Next week, she’ll bring me some stamp and we’ll have dinner together. A B C D Write your answers here: 1 _________ 2___________ 3___________ 4 _________ 5___________

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

NH ƠN

OF F

SECTION 4. READING VII. Read the passage and choose the best option to complete the passage. Write your answers in the space provided. (2.0 points) (1)__________food in the US today is not the same (2)___________it was in the past. Fifty years (3)__________, every neighborhood had a little food market. A good selection of meat, vegetables and fruits (4)__________on display on the stalls. Now every neighborhood (5)__________a big market. These are very (6)__________places. The old markets were usually small and friendly. (7)__________from the neighborhood often stop there to hear the news or to talk. But this is not true (8)__________supermarkets. Usually, supermarkets are very large. They are not very friendly. They are not good places for meeting friends or talking (9)___________. People in supermarkets always seem to be tired and in (10)___________hurry. 1. A. Shopping B. Buying C. Looking D. Getting 2. A. as B. like C. when D. while 3. A. last B. later C. next D. ago 4. A. are B. were C. was D. have 5. A. had B. has C. have D. will have 6. A. same B. different C. old D. similar 7. A. Farmers B. Workers C. Students D. People 8. A. at B. on C. in D. for 9. A. too B. neither C. nor D. either 10. A. a B. the C. an D. ø Write your answers here: 1 ________ 2___________ 3___________ 4 _________ 5 ___________ 6 ________ 7___________ 8___________ 9 _________ 10___________ VIII. Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question. Write your answers in the space provided. (1.0 point) Sumo Sumo wrestling is a national sport in Japan. Every year there are six tournaments, and millions of Japanese watch them on television. Sumo is almost as old as the nation of Japan itself. Stories say that there was sumo wrestling over 2,000 years ago. History says that there were national sumo tournaments in the eighth century.

QU Y

NH ƠN

OF F

IA L

Usually athletes are thin and can move very quickly. It is beautiful to watch them play. However, sumo wrestlers weigh from 100 to 160 kilos. One famous wrestler weighed 195 kilos. Sumo wrestlers do not look beautiful, and sumo wrestling is very slow sport. Sumo wrestlers wrestle in a round ring with a sand floor. A wrestler loses the match if he leaves the ring. He is also the loser if any part of the body except his feet touches the floor. Each wrestler tries to push the other down on the floor or out of the ring. People from other countries usually think sumo is very strange, but the Japanese love it. Even young people find this traditional sport exciting. 1. How old is Sumo wrestling? A. over twenty years B. over two hundred years C. over two thousand years D. over two million years 2. Sumo wrestlers are________________ . A. thin B. quick C. small D. fat 3. Sumo wrestling is a very____________ . A. slow sport B. fast sport C. boring sport D. dangerous sport 4. A sumo wrestler loses the match if________________ . A. his feet touch the floor B. he is inside the ring C. he pushes the other down D. he is out of the ring 5. Young Japanese people find Sumo wrestling_______________ . A. quickly B. exciting C. boring D. bad Write your answers here: 1 ________ 2___________ 3___________ 4 __________ 5 __________

DẠ

KÈ

IX. Fill in each numbered blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in the space provided. (2.0 points) Fishing (1)______ my favorite pastime. I often fish for hours (2)_______ catching anything . But this does not worry me. Some fishermen (3)_______ unlucky . Instead of catching (4)______, they catch old boots and rubbish. I am even less lucky. I never catch anything - not even old boots. After having spent whole mornings (5)______ the river. I always (6)________ home with an empty bag . "You must give up fishing! "my friends (7)_________: "It's a waste of (8)____________". But they (9)__________ realize one important thing. I'm (10)__________ interested in fishing . I am only interested in sitting on the boat and doing nothing. Write your answers here: 1 ________ 2___________ 3___________ 4 _________ 5 ___________ 6 _________ 7___________ 8___________ 9 _________ 10___________ SECTION 5. WRITING X. Finish the second sentence in each pair in such a way that it means the same as the sentence before it. (2.0 points) 6

NH ƠN

OF F

IA L

1. What is the width of this river? → How.................................................................................................................... 2. What’s your favorite drink? → What drink…………………………………….……………….....…………. 3. Nobody in my class is fatter than Ha. → Ha…………………………………………………………………………… 4. What is the price of a cake and an orange? → How.................................................................................................................... 5. This school has over one hundred teachers and seven hundred students. →There …………………………………………………………………..……... 6. Does your mother usually drive to work everyday? → Does.................................................................................................................... 7. The photocopy store is to the left of the movie theater. →The movie theater is…….……………………………………………………... 8. Jenifer is more beautiful than her younger sister. → Jenifer isn’t ………………….………..……………...…………..………… 9. Dung is Mrs. Hoa’s granddaughter. → Mrs. Hoa……………………..………………………………………………... 10. Why don’t we come over to my house and have some fun tonight? → What .................................................................................................................. XI. Write a paragraph from 100-120 words to describe a person that you admire most? (2.0 points)

QU Y

Lưu ý: Thí sinh không được viết tên của mình và tên trường trong bài luận./.

…………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………

KÈ

…………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………

DẠ

…………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………… 7

…………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………

IA L

…………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………

OF F

NH ƠN

QU Y

___The end___

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 6 CẤP HUYỆN Môn: Tiếng Anh 6

MỖI ĐÁP ÁN ĐÚNG ĐƯỢC 0,2 ĐIỂM TRỪ BÀI VIẾT LUẬN CÓ THANG ĐIỂM RIÊNG

DẠ

KÈ

SECTION 1. LISTENING I. Listen and choose the correct answer. (1.0 point) 1. B 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. C 1. B. Nam’s thinking about getting a new TV. 2. C. rarely 3. A. Music programs 4. B. On Saturday night 5. C. Because she wants to see the final episode of her favorite show II. Listen and fill in the missing words. (1.0 point) 1. Blue Café 2. twelve or older 3. 5.99 (pounds) 4. Shirley (Street) 5. (the) bank SECTION 2. PHONETICS III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. Write your answers in the space provided. (0.6 point) 8

IA L

1. B 2. D 3. A IV. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three of the group. Write your answers in the space provided. (0.4 point) 1. A 2. C

OF F

SECTION 3. LEXICO - GRAMMAR V. Choose the correct answer to complete each of the following sentences. Write your answers in the space provided. (7.0 points) 1. D 2. C 3. C 4. D 5. D 6. A 7. C 8. A 9. D 10. C 11. A 12. B 13.A 14. C 15. D 16. B 17. D 18. A 19. B 20. C 21. A 22. C 23. A 24. B 25. C 26. B 27. A 28. D 29. D 30. B 31. B 32. C 33. C 34. D 35. A

NH ƠN

VI. There is one mistake in each sentence. Identify the mistake and write your answer in the space provided. (1.0 point) 1. D 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. B

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

SECTION 4. READING VII. Read the passage and choose the best option to complete the passage. Write your answers in the space provided. (2.0 points) 1. B 2. A 3. D 4. C 5. B 6. B 7. D 8. C 9. D 10. A VIII. Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question. Write your answers in the space provided. (1.0 point) 1. C 2. A 3. A 4. D 5. B IX. Fill in each numbered blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in the space provided. (2.0 points) 1. is 2. without 3. are 4. fish 5. on 6. go/ come/ 7. say 8. time 9. don’t/ can’t 10. not return SECTION 5. WRITING X. Finish the second sentence in each pair in such a way that it means the same as the sentence before it. (2.0 point) 1. How wide is this river? 2. What drink do you like (best)? 3. Ha is the fattest (student/ girl/ person) in my class. 4. How much do a cake and an orange cost?/ are a cake and an orange? 5. There’re over one hundred teachers and seven hundred students in this school. 9

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

NH ƠN

OF F

IA L

6. Does your mother usually go/ travel to work by car everyday? 7. The movie theater is to the right of the photocopy store. 8. Jenifer isn’t as/ so beautiful as her younger sister. 9. Mrs. Hoa is Dung’s grandmother. 10. What about coming over to my house and having some fun tonight? XI. Write a paragraph from 100-120 words about topic: Describe a person that you admired? (2.0 points) Marking criteria Point 1. Content 0,8 - Providing all main ideas and details as required. 0,4 - Commmunicating intention sufficently and effectively 0,4 2. Organization and presentation 0,4 - Ideas are well organized and presented with coherence, 0,2 cohesion and clarity. - The easay is well-structured 0,2 3. Language 0,4 - Demonstration of a variety of vocabulary and structures 0,2 appropriate to the level of English language. - Good use and control of grammatical structures 0,2 4. Punctuation and spelling and handwriting 0,4 - Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes 0,2 - Legible handwriting 2.0 ___The end___

ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH NĂNG KHIẾU CẤP HUYỆN Môn: Tiếng Anh 6 (CT Thí điểm - Hệ 10 năm) Thời gian làm bài 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Đề thi có 06 trang Họ tên, chữ ký giám khảo

Bằng số:

Bằng chữ:

Số phách

Điểm

IA L

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

OF F

Chú ý: - Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi. - Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu gì kể cả từ điển.

SECTION 1: LISTENING. Phần nghe có 02 bài, mỗi bài được nghe 02 lần (giám thị chỉ mở 01 lần đĩa tự động phát 02 lần) I. Listen and fill in the missing words. (1.0 point)

NH ƠN

1. The daughter feels …………………………………………………………….………….………..….. 2. She wants some …………………………………………………………………….………………….. 3. She doesn’t like ……………………………………………………………………………….….……. 4. The son is thirsty and……………………………………………………………………………….…. 5. He would like to drink some……………………………………………………………………..…… II. Listen then choose the correct answer. (1.0 point) 1 - Where does Philip do the photography classes? B) City College

QU Y

A) Music College

C) Math College

2 - What time do the photography classes begin? A) 5.15 pm

B) 7.00 pm

C) 6.45 pm

3 - Philip's happy with the course because he's A) learning about famous photographers B) using a new camera

C) getting better at photography A) trees

KÈ

4 - Philip thinks it's easy to take photographs of B) animals

C) children

5 - After the course Philip will A) buy a new camera

B) get a job in photography C) make photography his hobby

DẠ

Write your answer here 1 __________ 2___________ 3___________ 4 ___________ SECTION 2: PHONETICS. III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C or D. (1,2 point) 1 A. plays B. says /sedz/ C. days D. stays 1

B. difficult B. badminton B. chocolate B. receive

C. dangerous C. basketball C. cartoon C. visit

Write your answer here

D. different D. aerobics D. toothpaste D. unload

A. delicious A. activity A. sandwich A. correct

OF F

7 8 9 10

IA L

2 A. what B. who C. where D. when 3 A. sport B. start C. listen D. eat 4 A. game B. geography C. vegetable D. change 5 A. station B. intersection C. question D. invitation 6 A. teacher B. children C. lunch D. chemistry IV. Choose the word with different stress pattern. Write A, B, C or D in the space provided (0.8pt)

1 __________

2___________

3___________

4 _________

5 _________

6 __________

7___________

8___________

9_________

10_________

2. “- ________ a nice T-shirt, Trang!” A. How B. What

NH ƠN

SECTION 3: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR. V. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence, identify your answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D. )(4.0 points) 1. You can watch Harry Potter on TV ________ you can read it. A. so B. and C. but D. or _ “Thank you” C. Which

QU Y

3. “- ________ films have you seen this week?” _ “Only one” A. How many B. What C. Which

D. It D. Who

4. There aren’t ________ good films on TV at the moment. A. some

B. any

C. much

D. a lot

5. If we cut down more trees, there ________ more floods. B. were

C. have been

D. will be

6. That is ________ book I’ve ever read. A. the borest B. the boring

C. the most boring

D. the most bored

7. The opposite of "polluted " is .................... A. fresh B. good

C. dirty

D. safe

KÈ

A. are

8. We should use reusable water bottles ___________ of plastic ones. A. instead B. because C. despite

D. however

DẠ

9. In the future, we won’t go on holiday to the beach but we ________ go on holiday to the moon. A. must B. can’t C. might D. won’t 10. ________ you swim when you were ten? A. Can B. Could

C. Will

D. Might

11. My father likes watching TV____________ he doesn’t like listening to music. A. and B. so C. but D. because 12. We should use _____________pens and pencils to reduce rubbish. 2

A. reliable

B. reusable

C. refillable

D. sociable

13. In the future, we will have ___________to do housework. A. robots B. wireless TV C. smart phone

D. hi-tech fridge

A. building

B. resort

IA L

14. Eiffel Tower is the most attractive ____________in France. C. square

D. landmark

15. We should use _________to save natural resources. B. solar energy

C. coal

D. gas

A. oil

16._______________ means creating new products from used materials. A. Reduce B. Reuse C. Recycle

D. Rebuild

OF F

17. If the ______________ is polluted, we won’t have enough food to eat. A. water B. air C. noise D. soil 18. We should give unused clothes to _____________to help the people in need. A. charity

B. factory

C. market

A. How often

B. How long

~ For a week.

NH ƠN

19. ___________ are you going to stay here?

D. hospital

C. How many

D. How far

20. ______________.happens when water in lakes,rivers and oceans is polluted. A. Air pollution

B. Soil pollution

Write your answer here 2___________

6 __________

7___________

11 __________ 12__________

D. Noise pollution

3___________

4 _________

5 _________

8___________

9_________

10_________

14_________

15_________

QU Y

1 __________

C. Water pollution

13___________

KÈ

16 __________ 17__________ 18___________ 19_________ 20_________ VI. Supply the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets. (2.0 points) 1. How long you ( wait ) __________________ for me? – Just a few minutes. 2. Tony can (speak)_____________ two languages. 3. Every evening, my father (watch)________________ television. 4. His parents (buy)_________________ a new house next month? 5. Le Tam wants________________ (be) a teacher after he leaves school. 6. There are lots of gray clouds in the sky. It (rain)_____________________. 7. Where is your mom now? - She (grow)_________________vegetables in the garden. 8. Children like (ride) ___________________e-bikes to school. 9. How much fruit that farmer (produce) _________________every year? 10. He often says OK when he ( talk )________________with the guests Write your answer here 2___________

3___________

4 _________

5 _________

6 __________

7___________

8___________

9_________

10_________

DẠ

1 __________

2___________

3___________

1 __________

BUSINESS GOOD MUSIC TWO MOUNTAIN SUN WIDE MILLION

IA L

3. Mr. Quang is a ................................................... 4. Is The Underground in London ....................... Than Metro in Paris? 5. That .......................... can play the guitar very well. 6. She plays badminton ........................ a week. 7. Is Phu Ninh a .................................. district? 8. These children like ........................................ weather. 9. What is the ......................... of the Great wall? 10. He would like to be a ................................... one day. Write your answer here 4 _________

5 _________

OF F

6 __________ 7___________ 8___________ 9_________ 10_________ VIII. Circle the letter A,B,C or D before the mistake in each sentence. (1.0 point)

NH ƠN

1. Phuc is the more intelligent student in the class. A B C D 2. If we not pollute the soil, Plants will grow well . A B C D 3. We should reuse and recycling bottles and cans to reduce rubbish. A B C D 4. That’s my father over there. He stands near the window A B C D 5. How do you go to see the dentist? - Once or twice a month. A B C D Write your answer here 1. 2. 3. 4.

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

SECTION 4: READING. IX. Read the passage. Then choose one suitable word to fill in the gaps. (2.0 points) Mr. Thanh is (1)________ engineer in a big factory. He lives in a small apartment (2) ________ the fifth floor of a building in Ho Chi Minh City. The factory is not near (3) ________ so he goes to work by bus. He (4) ________ home at 7 o’clock to arrive to work at 7.45. (5) ________ is Saturday morning now, and Mr. Thanh is (6)________ home, in bed. On Saturdays he (7)_______ at a quarter to seven. Then he sits in the living room and (8)_______ breakfast. On Saturday afternoons he (9)_______ tennis or goes swimming. On Saturday evenings he (10)_______ at home, he usually goes out. 1. A. a B. an C. the D. any 2. A. at B. in C. on D. of 3. A. house B. he’s house C. him house D. his house 4. A. leaves B. is leave C. leaving D. leave 5. A . It B. It’s C. Their D. They 6. A. in B. at C. on D. with 7. A. get up B. to get up C. getting up D. gets up 8. A. have B. having C. has D. to have 9. A. plays B. is play C. play D. is playing 10. A. not stay B. doesn’t stay C. isn’t stay D. no staying Write your answer here 1 __________

2___________

3___________ 4

4 _________

5 _________

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

NH ƠN

OF F

IA L

6 __________ 7___________ 8___________ 9_________ 10_________ X. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (2.0 points) My brother lives in Ho Chi Minh city. He (1)___________ a teacher of math. He goes to work (2)_________Monday to Saturday. The school starts (3) __________7.00 in the morning and (4) __________ at eleven fifty. After work, he comes back (5) __________ and has lunch at a (6) __________ past twelve. In the afternoon, he (7) _________the housework and plays games. In the (8) ___________ he has dinner at 6.00. After dinner he watches T.V or (9)________ books. He goes to bed at half (10) __________ eleven. Write your answer here 1 __________ 2___________ 3___________ 4 _________ 5 _________ 6 __________ 7___________ 8___________ 9_________ 10_________ XI. Read the following passage, then answer the questions by circling A, B, C or D. (1.0 pt) Nhan and Huong want to know their friends’ favorite free time activities, so they are asking their friends about what they like to do in their free time. Many of their friends say that usually eat and drink as well as chat with their friends. They like to talk about many things around them: their teachers, their friends, their families as well as their favorite musicians, singers, soccer players and movie stars. There are some popular activities after lessons at their school such as: skipping rope, reading books and playing sports. At home, many of their friends say they like to watch TV, listen to music or play computer games. They rarely go to the movies. Some of the girls like to go shopping. Very few of their friends like to do English exercises on the Internet. Many of their friends don’t take part in art, music club. 1. What do many of Nhan and Huong’s friends usually do in free time? A. eat, drink and chat. B. go shopping C. go to the movie. D. do English exercises on the Internet. 2. What do their friends like to talk about? A. their teachers, friends and families B. their favorite musician and singers C. their favorite soccer players and D. many things around them movie stars 3. Which of the following activities is NOT popular with their friends at school? A. Skipping rope B. Take part in art, music club C. Reading books D. Playing sports 4. Which of the following activities is NOT popular with their friends at home? A. Watching T.V B. Listening to music C. Do English exercises on the Internet D. Playing computer games 5. What does the passage talk about? A. Nhan and Huong’s friends B. Free time activities of Nhan and Huong’s friends C. Nhan and Huong’s school D. Nhan and Huong’s pastimes Write your answer here 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. SECTION 5: WRITING XII. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the first one. (2.0 points) 1. How many teachers are there in your school?  How many teachers …………………………………………………………………………… 2. The toy store is to the right of the bakery.  The bakery …………………………………………………………………………………… 3. Do you and your friends walk to school every day?  Do you and your friends go…………………………………………………………………… 4. We have English class at 7.15.  Our English class…………………………………………………………………………… 5

OF F

IA L

5. Let us go to the beach and have a good time there.  How about……………………………………………………………………………………. 6. Is there a colorful picture in your room?  Does ………………………………………………………………………………………….. 7. How much is a bowl of noodles?  What …………………………………………………………………………………………… 8. How high is the Mount Everest?  What ...........................................................................................................................? .9. I spend two hours a day doing my homework.  It ………………………………………………………………………………………………. 10. No one in my class is as lazy as Tom.  Tom …………………………………………………………………………………………… XIII. Write a composition (about 80 words) to tell about your mother. (1.0 pt) (Viết một bài (Khoảng 80) từ kể về Mẹ của em bằng Tiếng Anh)_Lưu ý: Thí sinh không được viết Tên của mình và Tên trường trong bài luận./.

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH NĂNG KHIẾU CẤP HUYỆN Môn: Tiếng Anh 6 (Thí Điểm)

QU Y

(Hướng dẫn chấm có 2 trang)

NH ƠN

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION 1: LISTENING. I. Listen and fill in the gaps. (1.0 point ) (0.2 x 5 = 1.0pts) 1. hungry

2. apples

3. noodles

4. tired

5. orange juice

II. Listen then choose the correct answer. (1.0 point) (0.2 x 5 = 1.0pts) _____THE END_____ 1. B

2. C

3. C

4. A

5. C

KÈ

SECTION 2: PHONETICS. III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C or D. (1,2 point) . (0.2 x 6 = 1.2pts)

DẠ

5 B. says 6 B. who 6 C. listen 8 A. game 9 C. question 10 D. chemistry VI. Choose the word with different stress pattern. Write A, B, C or D in the space provided (0.2 x 4 = 0.8pt) 11

A. delicious 6

12 13 14

A. activity C. cartoon C. visit

3. A

4. B

6. C

7 .A

8. A

9 .C

11. B

12.C

13. A

14.D

16 .C

17.D

18 .A

19.B

5. D.

2. B

10. B

15. B. 20 .C

OF F

1. D

IA L

SECTION 3: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR. V. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence, identify your answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D. (4.0 points)(0.2 x 20= 4.0pts)

VI. Supply the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets. (2.0 points) (0.2 x 10 = 2.0pts) 1. have you waited 2. speak 3. watches 4. Are-going to buy 5. to be 6. is going to rain 7. is growing 8. riding 9. does-produce 10. talks

NH ƠN

VII. Give the correct form of the words in capital to complete the sentences. (1.0 point) (0.1x 10= 1.0pts)

1. dangerous 2. longest 3. businessman 4. better 5. musician

6. twice 7. mountainous 8. sunny 9. width 10. nationality

QU Y

VIII. Find one mistake in each sentence. (1.0 point) (0.2 x 5 = 1.0pt) 1. B 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. A SECTION D: READING. IX. Read the passage. Then choose one suitable word to fill in the gaps. (2.0 points) (0.2 x 5 = 1.0pts)

1. is

KÈ

6. quarter

1. B 2. C 3. D 4. A 6. B 7. D 8. C 9. A X. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (2.0 points) (0.2 x 10 = 2.0pts)

5. A 10. B

2. from

3. at

4. finishes/ ends

5. home

7. does

8. evening

9. reads

10. past

XI. Read the following passage, then answer the questions by circling A, B, C or D. (1.0 pt) (0.2 x 5 = 1.0pts)

DẠ

1. A 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. B SECTION 5: writing. XII. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the first one. (2.0 points) (0.2 x 10= 2.0pts) 1. How many teachers does your school have? 2. The bakery is to the left of the toy store. 3. Do you and your friends go to school on foot every day? 4. Our English class starts at 7.15. 5. How about going to the beach and having a good time there? 7

(don’t show your name, your school or your village)

IA L

6. Does your room have a colorful picture? 7. What is the price of a bowl of noodles? 8. What is the height of the Mount Everest? 9. It takes me two hours a day to do my homework. 10. Tom is the laziest (student/ boy) in my class. XIII. Write a composition (about 80 words) to describe about your mother. (1.0 pts)

OF F

The essay must have at least three ideas below. 1. Mở bài: Giới thiệu được về mẹ của em. (được 0,2 điểm) 2. Thân bài: Nêu được hình dáng, tính cách, nghề nghiệp, tuổi tác của mẹ và mẹ thường chăm sóc em như thế nào (được 0,5 điểm). 3. Kết luận: Nói được tình cảm của em với mẹ. (được 0,3 điểm)

Lưu ý: Nếu học sinh có câu trả lời khác với hướng dẫn chấm mà đúng thì vẫn cho điểm. TOTAL: 20 POINTS (20 ĐIỂM)

NH ƠN

--------THE END---------

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

Điểm

IA L

ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN Môn: Tiếng Anh 6 Thời gian làm bài 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Đề thi có 06 trang

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

Họ tên, chữ ký giám khảo 1.

Bằng chữ:

Bằng số:

Số phách

OF F

Chú ý: - Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi. - Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu gì kể cả từ điển. SECTION 1: LISTENING. Phần nghe có 02 bài, mỗi bài được nghe 02 lần (giám thị chỉ mở 01 lần đĩa tự động phát 02 lần) I. Listen and fill in the blanks with missing word. (1.0 point) 1. There are totally………………………….rooms in Nga’s new house.

NH ƠN

2. One of the two bathrooms is …………………………………..the two bedrooms. 2. Nga's house doesn't have a…………………………………………..………..….. 3. Nga's family goes fishing in the……………….………. in front of the house on weekends. 4. Nga's bedroom is big but it doesn’t have much ………….……………………………… .

C. Math College C. 6.45 pm

C. children

KÈ

QU Y

II. Listen then choose the correct answer. (1.0 point) 1. Where does Philip do the photography classes? A. Music College B. City College 2. What time do the photography classes begin? A. 5.15 pm B. 7.00 pm 3. Philip's happy with the course because he's…………… A. learning about famous photographers B. using a new camera C. getting better at photography 4. Philip thinks it's easy to take photographs of…………… A. trees B. animals 5. After the course Philip will…………… A. buy a new camera B. get a job in photography C. make photography his hobby

DẠ

SECTION 2: PHONETICS. III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C or D. (1.0 point) 1. A. garden B. warn C. wardrobe D. warm 2. A. armchair B. sandwich C. chocolate D. school 3. A. television B. visit C. present D. season 4. A. aerobics B. carrot C. lemonade D. correct 5. A. buses B. boxes C. arrives D. couches

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

NH ƠN

OF F

IA L

IV. Choose the word that has the stress pattern different from that of the other words. Identify your answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D. (1.0 point) 1. A. flower B. lettuce C. police D. architect 2. A. dentist B. chocolate C. difficult D. engineer 3. A. never B. unusual C. usually D. after 4. A. hotel B. garlic C. morning D. company 5. A. telephone B. apartment C. shoulder D. market SECTION 3: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR. V. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence, identify your answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D. )(4.0 points) 1. Daisy is not doing ___________ at all, just gazing out of the window. A. something B. nothing C. anything D. one thing 2. Is this book ___________? Yes, it's mine. A. you're B. yours C. you D. your 3. My parents and I ___________ our grandmother next weekend. A. visit B. am going to visit C. am visiting D. are going to visit 4. There are __________stores on the street. A. hundreds of B. hundreds C. hundred of D. of hundreds 5. I don’t want much sugar in coffee. Just ___________, please. A. a little B. little C. few D. a few 6. At an intersection, we must___________. A. ride quickly B. go fast C. slow down D. run out 7. Look ___________ that strange man! He is looking ___________ Lan but she isn’t here. A. for/ at B. at/ for C. at/ after D. at/ on 8. You are too fat. You shouldn’t eat much___________. A. meat B. fruit C. fish D. vegetables 9. ___________ straight across the road. A. Don’t run B. Not run C. No running D. Can’t run 10. When she gets good marks, her parents often feel ___________. A. hungry B. thirsty C. happy D. worried 11. Of the three students, Nga is ___________. A. the best B. good C. better D. well 12. Miss Mai always ___________ her own clothes. A. does B. wants C. cooks D. makes 13. My brother ___________ the answer to the question now. A. know B. knows C. to know D. knowing 14. Where are the ___________ ? On the table A. childrens' books B. children books C. books' D. children's books children 15. They can’t wait___________tomorrow. They must go now. A. after B. before C. until D. on 16. Listen carefully ___________our teacher, please! A. with B. to C. for D. in 17. They often go to Ho Chi Minh City___________air. A. by B. in C. with D. on 18. - ___________ do you visit your hometown? - Once every two or three months. A. How long B. How often C. How much D. How many 19. We don't need ___________ money to buy that book. A. many B. a few C. a lot D. much 20. What time do you often arrive ___________? A. home B. to home C. to the home D. at home 2

IA L

VI. Supply the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets. (2.0 points) 1. There (not be ) _______________any milk in the fridge. 2. Tony can (speak)_____________ two languages. 3. Every evening, my father (watch)________________ television. 4. His parents (buy)_________________ a new house next month? 5. Le Tam wants________________ (be) a teacher after he leaves school. 6. There are lots of gray clouds in the sky. It (rain)_____________________. 7. Where is your mom now? - She (grow)_________________vegetables in the garden. 8. Children like (ride) ___________________e-bikes to school. 9. How much fruit that farmer (produce) _________________every year? 10. Students in your school (do)___________________aerobics at recess?

NH ƠN

OF F

VII. Give the correct form of the words in capital to complete the sentences. (1.0 point) 1. Don't make a fire here. It is very ............................... DANGER 2. The Mekong River is the ……………………. river in Vietnam. LONG 3. Mr. Quang is a ................................................... BUSINESS 4. Is The Underground in London ....................... Than Metro in Paris? GOOD 5. That .......................... can play the guitar very well. MUSIC 6. She plays badminton ........................ a week. TWO 7. Is Thanh Son a .................................. district? MOUNTAIN 8. These children like ........................................ weather. SUN 9. What is the ......................... of the Great wall? WIDE 10. He would like to be a ................................... one day. MILLION

QU Y

VIII. Circle the letter A,B,C or D before the mistake in each sentence. (1.0 point) 1. Do you know how much a dictionary cost ? A B C D 2. I go to the library three times every week. A B C D 3. Viet do not get up early and do morning exercises every morning. A B C D 4. That’s my father over there. He stands near the window A B C D 5. How do you go to see the dentist? - Once or twice a month. A B C D

DẠ

KÈ

SECTION 4: READING. IX. Read the passage. Then choose one suitable word to fill in the gaps. (1.0 point) Mr. Thanh is (1)________ engineer in a big factory. He lives in a small apartment (2) ________ the fifth floor of a building in Ho Chi Minh City. The factory is not near (3) ________ so he goes to work by bus. He (4) ________ home at 7 o’clock to arrive to work at 7.45. (5) ________ is Saturday morning now, and Mr. Thanh is (6)________ home, in bed. On Saturdays he (7)_______ at a quarter to seven. Then he sits in the living room and (8)_______ breakfast. On Saturday afternoons he (9)_______ tennis or goes swimming. On Saturday evenings he (10)_______ at home, he usually goes out. 1. A. a B. an C. the D. any 2. A. at B. in C. on D. of 3. A. house B. he’s house C. him house D. his house 4. A. leaves B. is leave C. leaving D. leave 5. A . It B. It’s C. Their D. They 6. A. in B. at C. on D. with 3

B. to get up B. having B. is play B. doesn’t stay

C. getting up C. has C. play C. isn’t stay

D. gets up D. to have D. is playing D. no staying

IA L

7. A. get up 8. A. have 9. A. plays 10. A. not stay

7........................... 8........................... 9........................... 10......................

NH ƠN

6........................

OF F

X. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (2.0 points) Of all my relatives, I like my aunt Emily the (1)__________ She’s my (2) _________ youngest sister. She has never married and (3) __________alone in a small village near Bath. She’s fifty years old, (4) __________she’s quite young in spirit. She has a fair complexion, thick brown hair and dark brown eyes. She has a kind face, and when you meet (5) __________, the first thing you notice (6) __________her smile. Her face is a little wrinkled now, but I think she is still rather attractive. She is the sort of person you can always go to if you (7) _________a problem and she’s extremely generous. She likes reading (8) _________gardening, and she still goes (9) __________ long walks over the hills. I hope I’m as active as she is when I’m at her (10) __________ Write your answer here 1......................... 2........................... 3........................... 4.......................... 5.......................

KÈ

QU Y

XI. Read the following passage, then answer the questions by circling A, B, C or D. (1.0 pt) My name is Petty and this is my husband, Phil. We both work in offices in London. We have breakfast at half past seven. We don’t have a big breakfast. We usually have bread, coffee and orange juice. For lunch we usually have a salad or soup and sandwich. That’s at about 1.30. We usually have dinner at half past seven in the evening. It is a big meal of the day and we have meat or fish with vegetables and potatoes or rice. We have orange juice with milk. On Saturday we often go to a restaurant for dinner at about eight o’clock. 1. Petty and her husband work in ……………. A. offices B. factories C. hospitals D. clinics 2. Petty and Phil have …………. A. a big breakfast B. a light breakfast C. breakfast with meat D. breakfast with eggs 3. What do they have for lunch? A. salad and sandwich B. salad and soup C. fish and soup D. sandwich and fish 4. What do they drink for dinner ? A. iced tea B. iced coffee C. soda D. orange juice 5. Where do they have dinner on Saturday evenings? A. at home B. at a hotel C. at their friend’s house D. at a restaurant

DẠ

SECTION 5: WRITING XII. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the first one. (2.0 points) 1. How many teachers are there in your school?  How many teachers …………………………………………………………………………… 2. The toy store is to the right of the bakery.

 The bakery …………………………………………………………………………………… 4

3. Do you and your friends walk to school every day?  Do you and your friends go……………………………………………………………………

IA L

4. We have English class at 7.15.  Our English class…………………………………………………………………………… 5. Let us go to the beach and have a good time there.

 How about…………………………………………………………………………………….

6. Is there a colorful picture in your room?

 Does …………………………………………………………………………………………..

OF F

7. How much is a bowl of noodles?

 What …………………………………………………………………………………………… 8. I have a brother and two sisters.

 I have three…………………………………………………………………………………….

NH ƠN

9. I spend two hours a day doing my homework.

 It ………………………………………………………………………………………………. 10. No one in my class is as lazy as Tom.

 Tom …………………………………………………………………………………………… XIII. Rearrange these words or phrases to make complete sentences. (1.0 point) (Sắp xếp từ cho sẵn thành câu) 1. is/ I/ because/ like/ very/ winter/ it/ cold/ don’t. …………………………………………………………………………………………………

QU Y

2. Christmas/ a/ wine/ doesn’t/ he/ of/ drink/ has/ he/ glass/ wine/ usually/ at/ but ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… 3. the/ you/ in/ what/ afternoon/ usually/ do/ finish/ work/ time?

………………………………………………………………………………………………… 4. your/ using/ the/ moment/ I/ ruler/ it/ can/ you/ borrow/ are/ or/ at/ ?

KÈ

………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… 5. is/ on/very/ from/ our/ not/ school/ VANG street/ to/ far/ Aloha mall,/ so/ there/ often/ walk/

It/ on/ we/ Sundays.

DẠ

………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………

IA L

XII. Complete sentences by using the words or phrases below, adding more words if necessary. (1.0 point) (Dùng từ gợi ý để viết thành câu hoàn chỉnh, thêm hoặc thay đổi từ nếu cần thiết) 1. Minh / school / three floors / and / classroom / third floor /. …………….…………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… 2. There / three pictures / wall / Tan’s room /.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………… 3. Hoa / sister / listen / music / room / at the moment /.

OF F

…………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… 4. Every / afternoon / after school / Ba / housework / and / read / books /.

NH ƠN

…………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… 5. What / you / family/ do / this summer vacation / ?

…………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

_____THE END_____

(Hướng dẫn chấm có 2 trang)

IA L

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN Môn: Tiếng Anh 6

SECTION 1: LISTENING. I. Listen and fill in the gaps. (1.0 point ) 1. six/ 6 2. between 3. dining room 4. large pond II. Listen then choose the correct answer. (1.0 point) 1. B 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. C

5. furniture

OF F

NH ƠN

IV. Choose the word that has the stress pattern different from that of the other words. Identify your answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D. (1.0 point) 1. C 2. D 3. B 4. A 5. B SECTION 3: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR. V. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence, identify your answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D. (4.0 points) 1C

11B

12D

13D

14A

15B

10A

16A

17D

18C

19B

20D

QU Y

VI. Supply the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets. (2.0 points) 1. isn’t 2. speak 3. watches 4. Are-going to buy 5. to be 6. is going to rain 7. is growing 8. riding 9. does-produce 10. do-do

KÈ

VII. Give the correct form of the words in capital to complete the sentences. (1.0 point) 1. dangerous 6. twice 2. longest 7. mountainous 3. businessman 8. sunny 4. better 9. width 5. musician 10. nationality VIII. Find one mistake in each sentence. (1.0 point) 1. D 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. A

DẠ

SECTION 4: READING. IX. Read the passage. Then choose one suitable word to fill in the gaps. (1.0 point) 1. B 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. A 6. B 7. D 8. C 9. A 10. B X. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (2.0 points) 1. best 2. mother’s 3 lives 4. but 5. her 6. is 7. have 8. and 9. for 10. age 7

XI. Read the following passage, then answer the questions by circling A, B, C or D. (1.0 pt) 1. A 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. D

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

NH ƠN

OF F

IA L

SECTION 5: writing. XII. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the first one. (2.0 points) 1. How many teachers does your school have? 2. The bakery is to the left of the toy store. 3. Do you and your friends go to school on foot every day? 4. Our English class starts at 7.15. 5. How about going to the beach and having a good time there? 6. Does your room have a colorful picture? 7. What is the price of a bowl of noodles? 8. I have three siblings. 9. It takes me two hours a day to do my homework. 10. Tom is the laziest (student/ boy) in my class. XIII. Rearrange these words or phrases to make a complete sentence. (1.0 point) 1. I don’t like winter because it is very cold. 2. What time do you usually finish work in the afternoon? 3. He doesn’t drink wine but he usually has a glass of wine at Christmas. 4. Can I borrow your ruler or are you using it at the moment? 5. It is not very far from our school on VANG street to Aloha mall, so we often walk there on Sundays. XIV. Complete sentences by using the words or phrases below, adding more words if necessary. (1.0 point) (Dùng từ gợi ý để viết thành câu hoàn chỉnh, thêm hoặc thay đổi từ nếu cần thiết) 1. Minh’s school has three floors and his classroom is on the third floor . 2. There are three pictures on the wall inTan’s room . 3. Hoa’s sister is listening to music in her room at the moment . 4. Every afternoon after school, Ba does the housework and readsbooks . 5. What are you and your family going to do this summer vacation? Total mark = 20 points.

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 6 CẤP HUYỆN

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

(Đề thi có 08 trang) Điểm

IA L

MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH (HỆ 10 NĂM) Thời gian làm bài 120 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề. Họ tên, chữ kí giám khảo

Số phách

Bằng chữ:

OF F

2……………………………….

………………………

Bằng số: ……………………..… 1……………………………….

Chú ý: - Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi. - Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu gì kể cả từ điển. SECTION 1: LISTENING. Part I. Listen and tick

the box. Then write A,B,C or D in the box below (5 points)

QU Y

2. How does he go to work?

NH ƠN

1.Where does her brother work?

KÈ

3. When does he start work?

DẠ

4. What does he do for lunch ?

5. What did he do before he started this job?

3___________

Part II. Listen and write ( 10 points)

4 ___________

Write your answer here 1 __________

NH ƠN

OF F

New Street school library 0. Full name: Sarah Tanner 1. Age : ……………………………… 2. Teacher’s name : ……………………………… 3. Favourite books: ……………………………… 4. Hobbies: ……………………………… 5. How many books: ………………………………

IA L

2___________

Write your answer here 1 __________

2___________

3___________

4 ___________

Part III. Listen and write the answer to correct heading. What did Ben do last week ? (5 points ) 0. B

1. Wednesday 2. Saturday

1. _____ 2. _____

3. Tuesday 4. Friday 5. Sunday

3. _____ 4. _____ 5. _____

A. He bought a book in the village shop and sat on the sand and read it B. He went to kind of museum and saw lots of different fish. C. He went to the beach and climbed up to the top of a big rock D. He went for a walk in the village , ice creams E. He went fishing in boat F. He saw a film about a woman climber

QU Y

0. Monday

2___________

3___________

4 ___________

Write your answer here 1 __________

DẠ

KÈ

SECTION 2: PHONETICS. III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C or D. (10 points) 1.A. though B. thank C. throw D. thin 2. A. how B. rose C. know D. remote 3. A. sofa B. summer C. sugar D. sound 4. A. travelled B. started C. decided D. visited 5. A. dear B. wear C. nearby D. appear Write your answer here

1 __________

2___________

3___________

4 _________

5 _________

Choose the word with different stress pattern. Write A, B, C or D in the space provided (10points) 1. A. adventure B. appliance C. automatic D. activity 2. A. pollution B. television C. vacation D. attention 3. A. popular B. interesting C. difficult D. important 2

IV.

4. A. character 5. A. restaurant

B. entertain B. fantastic

C. documentary C. factory

D. afternoon D. beautiful

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

NH ƠN

OF F

IA L

1 __________ 2___________ 3___________ 4 _________ 5 _________ SECTION 3: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR. V. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence, identify your answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D. )(50 points) 1. Would you like to play tennis, Nam? A. I’d like to, but I can’t B. Yes, I’d like to C. No, thanks D. I’d like to go 2. That’s a…………….. building. A. five- floor B. five- floors C. five- floor’s D. five- floors’ 3. My parents make me……………..for my exam. A. to study B. study C. studying D. studied 4. Can I borrow your fishing rob, Minh? A. No, I can’t B. I’m sorry Nam I’m using C. I’d love to D. Yes, please 5. Traffic police never let you……………..without a ticket A. go B. going C. to go D. gone 6. London is ……………..of England. A. capital B. the capital C. a capital D. one capital 7. ________ do you go shopping? – Every week. A. How far B. What time C. How often D. How 8. The opposite of “dangerous” is . . . . . A. polluted B. safe C. good D. dirty 9. ________ was in. The room was empty. A. Anybody B. Somebody C. Everybody D. Nobody 10. How ........................... homework does Lan have every day? A. much B. many C. old D. often 11. Tom hates watching T.V. ……………..does Peter. A. So B. Too C. Neither D. Either 12. Hoa prefers colorful dances in Thailand…………….. shadow puppet shows in Indonesia. A. to B. than C. as D. for 13. Helen is my aunt’s daughter so she is my________. A. sister B. cousin C. niece D. friend 14. Millions of children around the world enjoy the cartoon because it can both ………………..and …………………..a young audience. A. entertain- education B.entertainment- education C.entertainment- educate D. entertain – educate 15. Uncle Ho was born……………... A. At 1890, in May B. on May, 1890 C. 1890, at May D. in May,1890 16. I drink ………….coffee than you. A. little B. less C. few D. fewer 17. If we …………………cutting down trees, we can’t prevent floods and other natural disasters A. will stop B. don’t stop C. stop D. won’t stop 18.A: Would you like a glass of lemon juice? – B: ……………... I’m very thirsty A. No, I’m not B. Yes, please C. No, thanks D. Yes, I do. 19. ……………..?” - “That’s a great idea.” A. Do you like playing sports B. Can you buy me some apples C. Why don’t we go out for dinner D. May I borrow your pen 20. When . . . . . to San Francisco? - In 2010 A. have you gone B. did you go C. do you go D. will you go 21. - A: “I’ve just received a scholarship.” - B: …………….. 3

IA L

A. Really B. Thank you C. Congratulations D. Well 22. That is . . . . . book I’ve ever read. A. the borest B. the boring C. the most bored D. the most boring 23. It’s getting light. Shall I turn . . . . . the lights to save electricity? A. off B. up C. on D. in 24. In the future, robots will help us to surf the . . . . . A. websites B. Internet C. channels D. TV programmes 25. What does 3Rs stand . . . . . ?. It’s Reduce, Reuse, Recycle. A. at B. for C. on D. By Write your answer here 2___________

3___________

4 _________

5 _________

6 __________

7___________

8___________

9_________

10_________

11 __________ 12__________

13___________

14_________

15_________

16 __________ 17__________

18___________

19_________

20_________

21 __________ 22__________

24___________

24_________

25_________

NH ƠN

OF F

1 __________

QU Y

VI. Supply the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets. (20 points) 1 ............................. you (watch)............................... the tennis match on TV last night? 2. If the weather is good, the plane (leave) .......................... on time. 3. My brother (not/listen) .............................to rock music. He hates it. 4. If you want to lose weight, you should (do) .........................some exercise. 5. They (learn)..............................English since last year. Write your answer here 2___________

3___________

4 _________

5 _________

VII. Give the correct form of the words in capital to complete the sentences. (1.0 point) TWENTY

2. There are five… ….……in the kitchen.

KNIFE

3. There are a lot of interesting… ….……in the summer.

ACT

4. It was the bird’s first …………………. from the nest.

FLY

5. Yesterday we spent a ………………. afternoon by the river.

PEACE

6. They often play sports. They are very……. ……

SPORT

7. She’s a good student but she lacks …………………… .

CONFIDENT

8. Stephen Biko was an ………………..……supporter of the peace movement.

ENERGY

9. In my… …….…, there is a market, a clinic, a post office and a supermarket

NEIGHBOR

10. Air……. ……is a big problem in the big cities.

POLLUTE

DẠ

KÈ

1. Her birthday is on the……….…of September.

Write your answer here 1 __________ 2___________ 6 __________

7___________

3___________

4 _________

5 _________

8___________

9_________

10_________

VIII. Circle the letter A,B,C or D before the mistake in each sentence. (1.0 point) 1. There are much music programmes on TV nowadays.

IA L

2. Her father often listens to radio in the morning. 3. She is the most beautiful of the twin sisters. 4. This is my book and that is your.

5. The Discovery Channel makes education funny for children all over the world.

Mistake

…………….

……………

Correction

……………

…………

……………

NH ƠN

SECTION 4: READING.

OF F

Write your answers here

IX. Read the passage. Then choose one suitable word to fill in the gaps. (20 points)

B. In B. was B. too much B. because B. lead B. however B. work B. taste B. lives B. safe

KÈ

1. A. on 2. A. is 3. A. too many 4. A. but 5. A. get 6. A. so 7. A. exercises 8. A. become 9. A. live 10. A. health

QU Y

(1)_________the United States, many adults and children (2)_________overweight. Some people eat (3)_________food at meals. They also eat snacks between meals. Sometimes people eat healthy snacks like fruit or vegetables (4)_________many Americans eat a lot of junk food such as cookies, candy and potato chips. Eating junk food can (5)_________people gain weight. People also gain weight (6)_________they don’t get enough (7)_________. People need to walk, run, ride bicycles, or walk out in health clubs and gyms .When people exercise, they (8)_________good and have more energy. A good diet and exercise will help you (9)_________a long and (10)_________life. C. At C. were C. few C. although C. urge C. but C. money C. have C. living C. fair

D. from D. are D. plenty D. so that D. make D. because D. energy D. feel D. to living D. healthy

Write your answer here

DẠ

2__________ 1 __________ _ 7__________ 6 __________ _

4 _________ 3___________

5 _________ 9_________

8___________

X. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (20 points) 5

10_________

Lan was right – Hoa soon got used (1) ________the busy city traffic. She could cross the road and she wasn’t scared. Then her uncle bought her a bike. (2) ________began to go out more often in the evening. Usually, she visited her (3) ________. They talked and listened to music or helped each other (4) ________their homework.

IA L

Hoa rarely went to see movies or ate out (5) ________the evening. Everything was far too expensive. She preferred to socialize (6) ________her friends. She enjoyed it and it cost nothing.

Then one day, Lan (7) ________Hoa went to the public library. Hoa liked to read. There wasn’t a library in her village, so she couldn’t (8) ________many books. The public library in the city had thousands of (9) ________, and Hoa began to borrow books regularly. She decided that (10) ________city wasn’t so bad after all. Write your answer here

4 _________ 3___________

OF F

2__________ 1 __________ _ 7__________ 6 __________ _

5 _________

9_________ 8___________

10_________

NH ƠN

XI. Read the following passage, then answer the questions by circling A, B, C or D. (10 pts) Bobbi Brown is a very busy man. He is 60 years old and he has thirteen jobs. He is a postman, a policeman, a fireman, a taxi driver, a school bus driver, a boatman, an ambulance man, an accountant, a petrol attendant, a barman and an undertaker. Also, he and his wife, Margaret, have a shop and a small hotel. Bobbi lives and works on the island of Gigha in the west of Scotland. Only one hundred and twenty people live on Gigha but in summer this number will be doubled because of tourists who come by boat every day.

QU Y

Every day Bobbi gets up at 6.00 and makes breakfast for the hotel guests. At 8.00 he drives the island’s children to school. At 9.00 he collects the post from the boat and delivers it to all the houses on the island. He also delivers the beer to the island’s only pub. Then he helps Margaret in the shop. He says: “Margaret likes being busy, too. We never have holidays and we don’t like watching television. In the evenings Margaret makes supper and I do the accounts. At 10.00 we have a glass of wine and then we go to bed. Perhaps our life isn’t very exciting, but we like it”. 1. Bobbi Brown is a very busy man because____________. A. he is 60 years old

C. he lives and works on the island

B. he has thirteen jobs D. he is a postman

A. 120

KÈ

2. In summer, about ____________tourists come by boat every day. B. 60

C. 240

D. 150

3. He usually takes the island’s children to school by ____________. A. bus

B. taxi

4. What does Bobbi do in the evenings?

C. boat

D. ambulance

~ ____________. B. He watches television

C. He goes to bed early

D. He does the accounts

DẠ

A. He makes supper

5. They don’t watch television in the evenings because ____________. A. They have a glass of wine

B. They never have holidays

C. They don’t like it

D. They are always tired in the evening

Write your answer here 6

1. I won’t be able to do anything unless I have a quiet room.

=> If I don’t have .........................................................................................................

IA L

SECTION 5: WRITING XII. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the first one. (20 points)

OF F

2. Minh likes teaching robots very much.

=> Minh is very interested in .......................................................................................................................................................................... 3. The students started to collect old clothes for their charity programme last week.

NH ƠN

=>The students have .......................................................................................................................................................................... 4. We will probably go to the moon for our summer holiday in 2050. =>We might ..........................................................................................................................................................................

QU Y

5. Nobody in our class is as intelligent as Hoa

=>Hoa is ..........................................................................................................................................................................

6. Living in the city is more expensive than living in the countryside.

KÈ

=>Living in the countryside .......................................................................................................................................................................... 7. There are many interesting films on VTV3 today.

DẠ

=>Today VTV 3 has .......................................................................................................................................................................... 8. My brother plays football very well. =>Minh good

is 7

very

.......................................................................................................................................................................... 9. Could you tell me how to get to the City’s Exhibition, please?

IA L

=>Could you show .......................................................................................................................................................................... ? 10. 99% of households in America have at least one TV.

OF F

=>Nearly all .......................................................................................................................................................................... XIII. Write a paragraph (about 80 – 100 words ) to tell about your close friend. (20 points) (Do not show your name, your school’s name, your village’s name in the paragraph ). ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

NH ƠN

QU Y

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

KÈ

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………..……… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

DẠ

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………

THE END

IA L IC OF F

NH ƠN

(Hướng dẫn chấ m có 3 trang)

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN Môn: Tiếng Anh 6 (HỆ 10 NĂM)

SECTION 1: LISTENING. (20 points) I. Part 1. Listen and tick

1. C

the box. (5 points) 5 x 1 =

2. A

5 points

4. A

3. B

5. C

QU Y

Part II. Listen and write ( 5 points) 5 x 2 = 10 points 1. 8/ eight 2.(Mrs) Drummond 3. Animal stories 4. Riding (horses) 5. 5 / five Part III. Listen and write the answer to correct heading . What did Ben do last week ? ( 5 points ) 5 x 1 = 5 points 4. F 5. A 1. C 2. D 3. E

1. A

KÈ

SECTION 2: PHONETICS. (20 points) III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C or D. (10 point) . (2 x 5 = 10pts)

2. A

3. C

4. A

VI.

5. B

Choose the word with different stress pattern. Write A, B, C or D in the space provided ( 2 x 5 = 10 pt)

DẠ

1.C 2.B 3.D 4.A 5.B SECTION 3: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR. ( 70 points) V. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence, identify your answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D. (50 points) ( 2 x 25= 50 pts) 1. B

2. A

3.B 9

4.B

5.A

7.C

8.B

9.D

10.A

11. A

12.A

13.B

14.D

15.D

16. B

17.B

18.B

19.C

21. C

22. D

23. A

24. B

IA L

6 .B

20.B

25. B

OF F

VI. Supply the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets. ( 5 points) ( 1 x 5 = 5 pt) 5. have learned/ have learnt 1. Did you watch 2. will leave 3. doesn’t listen 4. do VII. Give the correct form of the words in capital to complete the sentences. (10 points) Write your answer here

NH ƠN

(1x 10= 10 pts) 1 . TWENTIETH

2. KNIVES

3. ACTIVITIES

4. FLIGHT

5. PEACEFUL

6 . SPORTY

7. CONFIDENCE

8. ENERGETIC

9. NEIGHBORHOOD

10. POLLUTION

VIII. Find one mistake in each sentence. (5 points ) ( 1 x 5 = 5 pts) 1

much

radio

most

your

funny

Correction

many

the radio

yours

fun

QU Y

Mistake

SECTION D: READING. ( 50 points) IX. Read the passage. Then choose one suitable word to fill in the gaps. (20 points) (2 x 10 = 20 pts)

6.D

2.D

3.B

4.A

7.A

8.D

9.A

1.B

5.D 10.D

KÈ

X. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (20 points) (2 x 10 = 20pts) 1. to 6. with

2. She 7. and

3. friend(s) 8. read

4. with 9. books

5. in 10. the

XI. Read the following passage, then answer the questions by circling A, B, C or D. (10 pts)

DẠ

(2 x 5 = 10pts)

1. B 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. C SECTION 5: WRITING. ( 40 points ) XII. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the first one. (20 points) (2 x 10= 20pts) 10

1. If I don’t have a quiet room, I won’t be able to do everything. 2. Minh is very interested in teaching robots. 4. We might go to the moon for our summer holiday in 2050. 5. Hoa is the most intelligent girl/person/student in our class. 6. Living in the countryside is cheaper than living in the city.

Living in the countryside is not as/so expensive as living in the city.

IA L

3. The students have collected old clothes for their charity programme since last week.

7. Today VTV 3 has many interesting films.

OF F

8. My brother is very good at playing football. 9. Could you show the way to the City’s Exhibition, please? 10. Nearly all households in America have one/a TV.

XIII. Write a paragraph (about 80 to 100 words) to describe about your close friend. (20 pts) Tiêu chí chấm:

NH ƠN

(don’t show your name, your school or your village)

1. Bố cục (có đầy đủ câu mở đầu, phát triển ý và kết luân

2. Ý phát triển logic, có dấu hiệu chuyển ý

3. Từ vựng (đa dạng, chính xác)

4. Ngữ pháp (đúng, đa dạng)

QU Y

- Sai dưới 4 lỗi không trừ điểm. - Sai trên 4 lỗi, hoặc sai những lỗi nặng trừ 0.5 điểm/1 lỗi.

DẠ

KÈ

Lưu ý: - Đáp án+ Hướng dẫn chấm này chỉ là một trong những cách giải. Thí sinh có thể làm theo cách khác, giám khảo căn cứ vào bài làm cụ thể của thí sinh để cho điểm. TOTAL: 200 POINTS (= 20 ĐIỂM) --------THE END--------.

ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH NĂNG KHIẾU CẤP HUYỆN

Môn: Tiếng Anh 6 (ĐỀ CHUNG) Thời gian làm bài 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Đề thi có 07 trang Họ tên, chữ ký giám khảo

Bằng số: _________________

Bằng chữ: ________________

Số phách

OF FI CI

Điểm

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

Chú ý: - Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi. - Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu gì kể cả từ điển. SECTION 1: LISTENING. Part I. Listen to a conversation and decide if the statements are true (T) or false (F). (10 points) T F 1. Sarah is a teacher.

ƠN

2. She usually arrives at work at nine o’clock.

3. Sarah always brings a sandwich from home.

4. She often has work to do in the evening. 5 She never goes out during the week.

Part II. Listen and fill in the gaps in the table. ( 10 points)

Student 2: Name: Manuel Garcia Nationality: (2) ___________ Age: 32 Job: Engineer

Student 1: Name: Celine (0) Poulain Nationality: French Age: 25 Job:(1) ___________

KÈ M

Write your answer here 1 __________ 2___________

3___________

Student 3: Name: Eva (3) ___________ Nationality: Finnish Age: (4) ___________ Job: (5) ___________

4 _________ 5 _________

DẠ

SECTION 2: PHONETICS. III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C or D. (10 points) 1. A. album B. use C. amusement D. united 2. A. minority B. gramophone C. robbery D. monument 3. A. attraction B. battle C. veteran D. character 4. A. invention B. depend C. resort D. defeat 5. A. hoped B. looked C. opened D. washed Write your answer here 1 __________ 2___________ 3___________ 4 _________ 5 _________

OF FI CI

IV. Choose the word with different stress pattern. Write A, B, C or D in the space provided (10points) 1. A. surprise B. sugar C. profession D. success 2. A. advance B. around C. industry D. imperial 3. A. natural B. national C. literature D. suggestion 4. A. charming B. champagne C. children D. charity 5. A. decide B. around C. popular D. enjoy Write your answer here 1. __________ 2.___________ 3. ___________ 4 _________ 5 _________

DẠ

KÈ M

ƠN

SECTION 3: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR. V. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence, identify your answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D. )(50 points) 1. We always need more players. Why don’t you come___________? A. on B. along C. with D. after 2. Will you be home …………..dinner tonight? A. to B. for C. at D. on 3. Giving a book report before the class is an interesting ___________ A. act B. action C. activity D. deed 4. Do you go out ___________? A. in the afternoon on Fridays B. on Fridays in the afternoon C. on afternoons Friday D. on Friday afternoons 5. …………….lives in a very big house A. A Queen of England B. Queen of England C. The Queen of the England D. the Queen of England 6. On Sunday mornings I stay in bed ___________8 o’clock. A. until B. at C. from D. to 7. I often ___________in winter. A. go playing skiing B. go skiing C. play skiing D. go to ski 8. Some young people are working ___________hospital volunteers. A. to be B. such as C. like D. as 9. We shouldn’t cross the street outside the ___________ A. pavement B. foot lane C. sidewalk D. zebra crossing 10. They ___________healthy after the summer vacation. A. looked B. were seeming C. were looking D. were appearing 11. They meet their friends and ___________some fun. A. take B. have C. do D. enjoy 12. You should pay more ___________in class. A. part B. care C. notice D. attention 13. He and his friends usually get ___________and talk about their stamps. A. together B. themselves C. each other D. one another 14. He likes stamps. He is a stamp ___________ A. collect B. collecting C. collector D. collects 15. Some students say they are ___________have no time for pastime. A. hurry B. busy C. full D. hard 16. It’s difficult to cross this street because there is too much ___________ A. crowd B. traffic C. people D. transport 17. There aren’t any good movies ___________at the moment. A. going on B. being on C. performing D. showing 18. Sorry I can’t come but thanks ___________ A. any ways B. any way C. anyway D. in anyway

A. Yes, I do

B. I live in the city

C. No, I don’t

19. Look at ___________.girl over there. A. one B. this C. that D. a 20. Would you like to come to my house for lunch? A. Yes, I do B. I’d love to C. Yes, I like D. OK. I’d like 21. Linda: “Do you live in the country or in the city?” ~ Daisy: “___________”

D. I live on the city

OF FI CI

22. Tom: “___________________”~ Jake: “She is kind.” A. What does your teacher like?

B. What would your teacher like?

C. What does your teacher look like

D. What is your teacher like?

23. Bill: “Are you John?” John: “___________” A. All right

B. Turn right

C. That’s right D. You right

24 . She is studying hard. She is going to be___________ student in my class. A. the best

B. best

C. the better

D. better

6 __________

7___________

11 __________ 12__________ 16 __________ 17__________

4 _________

5 _________

8___________

9_________

10_________

13___________

14_________

15_________

18___________

19_________

20_________

23___________

24_________

25_________

21 __________ 22__________

3___________

Write your answer here 1 __________ 2___________

ƠN

25. Nam can wait hours for his friends without getting angry. He is a ___________boy. A. hard-working B. free C. patient D. active

VI. Supply the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets. (5 points) 1. Tom (1) ( not come ) _______________ here tomorrow 2. Trees (2) ( plant ) _____________ since it (3) ( stop ) ___________ raining 3. My sister always (4)( wear)___________ nice clothes for work. Today she (5) (wear)___________ a blue jacket and shirt.

KÈ M

Write your answer here 1 2 3 4

DẠ

VII. Give the correct form of the words in capital to complete the sentences. (10 points) 1. It is ____________to go hiking in this area.

(DANGER)

2. Ha Long Bay is number one ____________ wonder in Vietnam.

(NATURE)

3. Mary is the ____________ of the English speaking club in my class. (LEAD) 4. Big cities in Vietnam are too busy and ___________

(POLLUTE)

5. Hoi An is a _____city with a lot of old houses, shops and buildings. (HISTORY) (FORGET)

7. There are many ______________ festivals in Vietnam.

(TRADITION)

8. We should eat less fast food or junk food because they are _____

(HEALTH)

9. Visitors come to Hue because there are many tourist __________

(ATTRACT)

6. My trip to Phong Nha Ke Bang is ___________ experience.

6 __________

7___________

8___________

OF FI CI

10. Thousands of people were made ________by the earthquake in Indonesia. (HOME) Write your answer here 1 __________ 2___________ 3___________ 4 _________ 5 _________ 9_________

10_________

VIII. Circle the letter A,B,C or D before the mistake in each sentence. then correct them (5 points)

…………….

Correction

……………

Mistake

ƠN

1. If you are interesting in history, you can visit many ancient monuments. A B C D 2. Sports and games make our body strength, prevent us from getting too fat. A B C D 3. An English friend of me, Mary, usually sends me American stamps. A B C D 4. Does it make a long time to go from Hue to Ha Noi by train? A B C D 5. There are less TV programs for teenagers than there are for adults. A B C D Write your answers here 1 2 3 4 ……………

……………

DẠ

KÈ M

…………… …………… ………… …………… …………… SECTION 4: READING. IX. Read the passage. Then choose one suitable word to fill in the gaps. (20 points) The rockies The rockies Mountain run almost the length (0)______ North American. They start in the NorthWest, but lie only a (1)______ hundred miles from the centre in more southern areas. Although the Rockies are smaller (2)______ the Alps, they are no less wonderful. There are many roads across the Rockies, (3)______ the best way to see them is to (4)______ by train. You start from Vancouver, (5)______ most attractive of Canada’s big cities. Standing with its feet in the water and its head in the mountains, this city (6)______ its residents to ski on slopes just 15 minutes by car from the city (7)______ .Thirty passenger trains a day used to (8)______ off from Vancouver on the cross- continent railway. Now there are just three a week, but the ride is still a great adventure. You sleep on board, (9)______ is fun, but travel through some of the best (10)______ at night. 0 1 2 3

A. in A. many A. from A. but

B. down B. lot B. to B. because

C. of C. few C. as C. unless

D. through D. couple D. than D. since

6 __________

7___________

8___________

OF FI CI

4 A. drive B. travel C. ride D. pass 5 A. a B. one C. the D. Its 6 A. lest B. allows C. offers D. gives 7 A. centre B. circle C. middle D. heart 8 A. leave B. get C. take D. set 9 A. when B. which C. who D. where 10 A. scenery B. view C. site D. beauty Write your answer here 1 __________ 2___________ 3___________ 4 _________ 5 _________ 9_________

10_________

ƠN

X. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (20 points) In the USA, students (1)_____________their secondary education at the age of 11. First they (2)_____________to Middle School for three years. Then they go for High School for four years, from the age 14 to 18. Some students (3)_____________ school when they are 16 and (4)_______________ jobs. But most students (5)_____________at High School still they are 18. Then they (6) _____________ exams and they get “High School Diploma”. There aren’t any national exams. All students at secondary school in the USA (7)_____________English, maths, science, and P.E., but students (8)_______________other subjects, so they don’t all study the same subjects.

3___________ 8___________

Write your answer here 1 __________ 2___________ 6 __________ 7___________

About 90% of (9)___________ in the USA go to state school. About 10% go to (10)______________ schools. Most of the private schools are religious schools. 4 _________ 9_________

5 _________ 10_________

DẠ

KÈ M

XI. Read the following passage, then answer the questions by circling A, B, C or D. (10 pts) CRICKET Cricket is an English game. People from most other countries think it is very, very slow, but the English think it is exciting. There are two teams with eleven players on each team in a cricket match. They play outdoors on a field. They play around two wickets. A wicket is three sticks in the ground with two sticks across them at the top. The wickets are twenty meters apart. One player is a bowler. He stands by one wicket and throws a ball at the other wicket. He tries to hit one of the top sticks and make it fall to the ground. Another player is a batsman. He holds a stick called a bat. He stands behind the second wicket. He tries to hit the ball before it hits the sticks. If he hits the ball, he runs to the other wicket. Sometimes he can run from one wicket to the other several times until a player in the field catches the ball and throws it back to the wickets. An important match can continue for 4 or 5 days. The players make hundreds of runs. Cricket began in England in the 1300s. It became a major sport in the 1700s. Englishmen taught the game to people in their colonies. Today cricket is still popular in most of those countries. 1. __________people play cricket at one time. A. Two B. Six C. Eleven D. Twenty-two 2. A player tries to hit the ball with__________ . A. a bat B. a wicket C. his foot D. his head 3. The bowler tries to__________ . A. hit the bat B. hit the wicket C. run to the wicket D. run into the field 4. If the batsman hits the ball with his bat, he__________.

OF FI CI

A. runs into the field B. runs to the other wicket C. tries to hit the wicket D. tries to hit the bowler 5. Cricket became popular in England in the __________ century. A. eleventh B. fourteenth C. eighteenth D. twentieth Write your answer here 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. SECTION 5: WRITING XII. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the first one. (20 points) 1. Nobody plays this piece of music as beautifully as he does.

→ He plays this………………………………………………… 2. We spent five hours getting to London.

→ It took ........................................................................................ 3. Listening to music gives him pleasure.

→ He enjoys...................................................................................

ƠN

4. She is more beautiful than her younger sister.

→ Her ........................................................................................... 5. They began studying English in 2015. 6. You ought to go to school now.

→ They ......................................................................................... → It’s time .................................................................................... 7. We couldn’t keep on cleaning the streets because of the heavy rain.

→ Because it………………………………………………………………. 8. We can’t afford to buy the car.

→ The car is ................................................................................... 9. People say that he wins the first prize. → He is said to ...............................................................................

KÈ M

10. She bought that house in 1990.

→ She has ...................................................................................... XIII. Use the words and phrases given to write meaningful sentences. You can add or change anything necessary. (10 points) 1. There / good restaurant/ that/ street/so / my friends / I/ eat/ there/./ ..........................................................................................................................................

2. My sister/ enjoy/ go/ the cinema/ her/ friends /./

DẠ

......................................................................................................................................... 3. Which/ activity/ use/ more/ calories/ walking/ or/ riding/ bicycle/?/ .......................................................................................................................................... 4. You/ better / eat /too / candies /because /they / not good /your teeth /./ .......................................................................................................................................................

5. performance/ she/ give/ last night/ marvellous /./ ................................................................................................................................................

DẠ

KÈ M

ƠN

OF FI CI

XIV. Write a paragraph (about 80 – 100 words ) to tell about a person you love or admire (10 points) (Viết một bài (Khoảng 80 - 100 từ) kể về một người em yêu quý hoặc ngưỡng mộ bằng Tiếng Anh) Lưu ý: Thí sinh không được viết Tên của mình và Tên trường trong bài luận./. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………

THE END

(Hướng dẫn chấ m có 3 trang)

IA L

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ̀ ĐÊ THI HỌC SINH NĂNG KHIẾU CẤP HUYỆN Môn: Tiếng Anh 6 (ĐỀ CHUNG)

SECTION 1: LISTENING. (20 points) I. Part I. Listen to a conversation and decide if the statements are true (T) or false (F). 10 points

(10 points) 5 x 2 =

2. A

3. C

4. A

NH ƠN

1. A

OF F

1. T 2F 3. F 4. T 5. F Part II. Listen to a school secretary talking to one of the teachers and fill in the gaps in the table. (10 points) 5 x 2 = 10 points 1. doctor 2. Mexican 3. Lipponen 4. twenty-one / 24 5. Artist SECTION 2: PHONETICS. (20 points) III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C or D. (10 point) . (2 x 5 = 10pts) VI.

5. B

Choose the word with different stress pattern. Write A, B, C or D in the space provided ( 2 x 5 = 10 pt)

1.C 2.B 3.D 4.A 5.C SECTION 3: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR. ( 70 points) V. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence, identify your answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D. (50 points) ( 2 x 25= 50pts) 2. B

3. C

4 .D

5.D

6.A

7. B

8. D

9. D

10.A

11 . B

12. D

13. C

14. C

15.B

16 . B

17. D

18. C

19. D

20. B

QU Y

1 .B

have been planted stopped

KÈ

21 . B 22. D 23. C 24. A 25. C VI. Supply the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets. ( 5 points) ( 1 x 5 = 5 points) 1 Won’t come / isn’t coming

wears

5 is wearing VII. Give the correct form of the words in capital to complete the sentences. (10 points)

(1x 10= 10 points)

DẠ

Write your answer here 1. dangerous 2. natural 3. leader 4. polluted 5. historic 6. unforgettable 7. traditional 8. unhealthy 9. attractions 10. homeless VIII. Find one mistake in each sentence. (5 points ) ( 1 x 5 = 5 points) 1 2 3 4 5 Mistake A B A A 8

B. Correction

(2 x 10 = 20 pts)

1. C 2. D 3. B 4. B 6. B 7. A 8. D 9. B X. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (20 points) (2 x 10 = 20pts)

2. go 7. study

3. leave 8. choose

4. find 9. students

5.C 10. C

5. stay 10. private

1. start 6. take

IA L

interested strong mine take fewer SECTION D: READING. ( 50 points) IX. Read the passage. Then choose one suitable word to fill in the gaps. (20 points)

(2 x 5 = 10pts)

OF F

XI. Read the following passage, then answer the questions by circling A, B, C or D. (1.0 pt) 1. D 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. C SECTION 5: WRITING. ( 40 points ) XII. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the first one. (20 points) (2 x 10= 20pts)

NH ƠN

1. He plays this piece of music most beautifully. 2. It took us five hours to get to London. 3. He enjoys listening to music.

4. Her younger sister isn’t as beautiful as she is.

5. They have studied English since 2004./ They have been studying……… 6. It’s time for you to go to school.

7. Because it rained heavily, we couldn’t keep on cleaning the streets.

QU Y

8. The car is too expensive for us to buy. 9. He is said to win the first prize.

10. She has bought that house since 1990. XIII. Use the words and phrases given to write meaningful sentences. You can add or

change anything necessary. (10 points) (2 x 5= 10pts)

1. There is a good restaurant on that street, so my friends and I often eat there.

KÈ

2. My sister enjoys going to the cinema with her friends. 3. Which activity uses more calories, walking or riding a bicycle? 4. You’d better not eat too much of candies because they aren’t good for your teeth.

5 . The performance she gave last night was marvellous. XIV. Write a paragraph (about 80 – 100 words ) to tell about a person you love or admire (10 points)

DẠ

(Viết một bài (Khoảng 80 - 100 từ) kể về một người em yêu quý hoặc ngưỡng mộ bằng Tiếng Anh)

Tiêu chí chấm: 1. Bố cục (có đầy đủ câu mở đầu, phát triển ý và kết luân 9

0.2

3. Từ vựng (đa dạng, chính xác)

0.2

4. Ngữ pháp (đúng, đa dạng)

0.2

IA L

2. Ý phát triển logic, có dấu hiệu chuyển ý

- Sai dưới 4 lỗi không trừ điểm. - Sai trên 4 lỗi, hoặc sai những lỗi nặng trừ 0.2 điểm/1 lỗi.

NH ƠN

OF F

Tham khảo: Write about a person you love or admire My mother is a person I admire most. She devoted a lot of time and energy to the upbringing of my two brothers and I. Despite working hard, she always made time to teach us many useful things which are necessary and important in our later lives. Moreover, she is a good role model for me to follow. She always tries to get on well with people who live next door and help everyone when they are in difficulties, so most of them respect and love her. I admire and look up to my mother because she not only brings me up well but also stands by me and gives some help if necessary. For example, when I encounter some difficulties, she will give me some precious advice to help me solve those problems. She has a major influence on me and I hope that I will inherit some of her traits.

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH NĂNG KHIẾU CẤP HUYỆN Môn: Tiếng Anh lớp 6 Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

IA L

Đề thi gồm: 09 trang Chú ý: - Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu gì, kể cả từ điển. - Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi này.

SECTION 1. LISTENING Part I. Listen and fill in the missing words. (1,0 point)

OF F

1. The daughter feels ……………………………………………………………… 2. She wants some …………………………………………………………………

3. She doesn’t like ………………………………………………………………… 4. The son is thirsty and…………………………………………………………… 5. He would like to drink some…………………………………………………….

NH ƠN

Part II. Listen then choose the correct answer. (1,0 point) 1 - Where does Philip do the photography classes? A. City College

B. Music College

C. Math College

2 - What time do the photography classes begin? A. 5.15 pm

B. 6.45 pm

C. 7.00 pm

3 - Philip's happy with the course because he's B. using a new camera

QU Y

A. learning about famous photographers C. getting better at photography

4 - Philip thinks it's easy to take photographs of A. trees

B. animals

C. children

5 - After the course Philip will

B. get a job in photography

A. buy a new camera

C. make photography his hobby

Write your answer here

2__________

KÈ

1 __________

3__________

4 __________

5 __________

DẠ

SECTION 2. PHONETICS III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. Write your answers in the space provided. (0,6 points) 1. A. plays B. says C. days D. stays 2. A. sport B. start C. listen D. eat 3. A. A. station B. question C. . intersection D. invitation Write your answers here: 1 __________

2__________

3__________ 1

1 __________

IA L

IV. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three of the group. Write your answers in the space provided. (0,4 points) 1. A. delicious B. difficult C. dangerous D. different 2. A. badminton B. activity C. basketball D. aerobics Write your answers here: 2__________

A. so

B. and

2. “- ________ a nice T-shirt, Trang!” A. How

C. but _ “Thank you”

B. What

OF F

SECTION 3. LEXICO - GRAMMAR V. Choose the correct answer to complete each of the following sentences. THERE CAN BE MORE THAN ONE CORRECT ANSWER TO SOME QUESTIONS. Write your answers in the space provided. (5,0 points) 1. You can watch Harry Potter on TV ________ you can read it.

C. Which

D. or

D. It

A. How many

B. What

NH ƠN

3. “- ________ films have you seen this week?” _ “Only one” C. Which

D. Who

4. There aren’t ________ good films on TV at the moment. A. some

B. any

C. much

D. a lot

5. If we cut down more trees, there ________ more floods. A. are

B. were

C. have been

D. will be

C. the most boring

D. the most bored

C. dirty

D. safe

QU Y

6. That is ________ book I’ve ever read. A. the borest

B. the boring

7. The opposite of "polluted " is .................... A. fresh

B. good

KÈ

A. instead

8. We should use reusable water bottles ___________ of plastic ones. B. because

C. despite

D. however

9. In the future, we won’t go on holiday to the beach but we ________ go on holiday to the moon. A. must

B. can’t

C. might

D. won’t

C. Will

D. Might

10. ________ you swim when you were ten?

DẠ

A. Can

B. Could

11. My father likes watching TV____________ he doesn’t like listening to music. A. and

B. so

C. but

12. We should use _____________pens and pencils to reduce rubbish. 2

D. because

A. reliable

B. reusable

C. refillable

D. sociable

13. In the future, we will have ___________to do housework. B. wireless TV

C. smart phone

D. hi-tech fridge

IA L

A. robots

14. Eiffel Tower is the most attractive ____________in France. A. building

B. resort

C. square

D. landmark

A. oil

B. solar energy

15. We should use _________to save natural resources. C. coal

D. gas

A. Reduce

B. Reuse

OF F

16._______________ means creating new products from used materials. C. Recycle

D. Rebuild

17. If the ______________ is polluted, we won’t have enough food to eat. A. water

B. air

C. noise

D. soil

A. charity

B. factory

NH ƠN

18. We should give unused clothes to _____________to help the people in need. C. market

19. ___________ are you going to stay here? A. How often

B. How long

D. hospital

~ For a week.

C. How many

D. How far

20. ______________happens when water in lakes,rivers and oceans is polluted. B. Soil pollution

A. Air pollution

C. Water pollution

D. Noise pollution

QU Y

21. John: “How about going to the movies with me on Saturday night?” – Ann: “…………..”. A. Of course not

B. Sure, thanks

C. It’s my pleasure

D. That’s very kind of you

C. country

D. capital

C. park

D. place

22. Viet Nam is a ……………….. .

B. nationality

A. language

A. bus

KÈ

23. A bus-stop is a ………….…. . B. means

24. A: “Would you like some bread?”

B. Ok. I don’t like rice

A. No, thanks. I’m full

DẠ

C. All right 25. John: “………………..?”

B: “………….…. .”.

D. Yes, I would Mary: “That’s a great idea.”

A. Do you like playing sports

B. Can you buy me some apples

C. Why don’t we go out for dinner

D. May I borrow your pen

Write your answers here: 3

2__________ 7__________ 12__________ 17__________ 22__________

3__________ 8__________ 13__________ 18__________ 23__________

4 __________ 9 __________ 14 __________ 19 __________ 24 __________

5 __________ 10__________ 15__________ 20__________ 25__________

IA L

1 __________ 6 __________ 11 __________ 16 __________ 21 __________

VI. Give the correct form of the words in capital to complete the sentences.

(2,0 point)

(DANGER)

2. Mai’s sister is a ………………… .

(SING)

OF F

1. Don't ride too quickly. It is .........................

3. It is very ………........... in the city.

(NOISE)

4. Her …………….. are small and white.

(TOOTH)

5. There are two ……………… in his office.

(SECRETERY) (WRITE)

7. This is my favorite chair. It’s so …………….. .

(COMFORT)

8. My father often ………………. his work at 4.30.

(FINISH)

9. My aunt has two …………………, one boy and one girl.

(CHILD)

10. That ……………….can play the guitar very well.

(MUSIC)

NH ƠN

6. Do you know the …………….. of this book?

6 __________

QU Y

Write your answer here 1 __________ 2___________ 7___________

3___________

4 ___________ 5___________

8___________

9 ___________ 10___________

VII. There is one mistake in each sentence. Identify the mistake and write your answer in the space provided. (1,0 points) 1. A lot of my friends play soccer, but not much of them play tennis. A

KÈ

2. Mr. Phong rides his bike to work at the moment. B

3. The Browns are traveling to Ho Chi Minh City in train now. B

DẠ

4. My brother, Quan, is twenty-one year old and he is a student. A

5. There is an England examination on Friday, 11th December. A

D 4

Write your answers here: 1 __________

2___________

3___________

4 ___________ 5___________

A. the

B.a

C.an

A. with

B. for

C. about

A . are

B. has

C. does

A. little

B. some

A. like

B. likes

A. is

B. have

A. need

B. needs

A. to

B.of

A. because

C. any

D. to

D. is D. none

C.have

D. has

C.are

D. do

C. are

D. have

C. with

D. for

B. but

C. so

D. and

B. little

C. much

D. lots of

QU Y

10. A. many

D. to

NH ƠN

OF F

IA L

SECTION 4. READING VIII. Read the passage and choose the best option to complete the passage. Write your answers in the space provided. (2,0 points) It’s Sunday morning . The Browns are sitting in (1)……… living room. They are talking (2)…….. the dinner this evening. David likes beef and Susan does ,too. He says that beef (3)……..good for children. Their father, Mr. Brown , prefers chicken to beef . He asks his wife to buy (4)…….. for him . Helen , their youngest daughter doesn’t want any meat .She would (5)……….. cakes and sweets. Mrs. Brown doesn’t like beef and chicken. She likes fish, vegetables and fruit. She says that fish and vegetables (6)…………. good for old women and everybody (7)………. to eat fruit. At last they decide to go out (8)…….dinner (9)………..Mrs. Brown says that she can’t cook so(10)…………food for every body in the family.

Write your answers here:

2___________

3___________

4 ___________ 5 ___________

6 __________

7___________

8___________

9 ___________ 10___________

1 __________

DẠ

KÈ

IX. Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question. Write your answers in the space provided. (1,0 points) Nhan and Huong want to know their friends’ favorite free time activities, so they are asking their friends about what they like to do in their free time. Many of their friends say that usually eat and drink as well as chat with their friends. They like to talk about many things around them: their teachers, their friends, their families as well as their favorite musicians, singers, soccer players and movie stars. There are some popular activities after lessons at their school such as: skipping rope, reading books and playing sports. At home, many of their friends say they like to watch TV, listen to music or play computer games. They rarely go to the movies. Some of the girls like to go shopping. Very few of their friends like to do English exercises on the Internet. Many of their friends don’t take part in art, music club. 1. What do many of Nhan and Huong’s friends usually do in free time? A. eat, drink and chat.

B. go shopping 5

C. go to the movie.

D. do English exercises on the Internet.

2. What do their friends like to talk about?

C. their favorite soccer players and

IA L

A. their teachers, friends and families B. their favorite musician and singers D. many things around them

movie stars

3. Which of the following activities is NOT popular with their friends at school? B. Take part in art, music club

C. Reading books

D. Playing sports

OF F

A. Skipping rope

4. Which of the following activities is NOT popular with their friends at home? A. Watching T.V

B. Listening to music

5. What does the passage talk about? A. Nhan and Huong’s friends

B. Free time activities of Nhan and Huong’s friends

C. Nhan and Huong’s school

D. Nhan and Huong’s pastimes

Write your answer here 1 __________

2__________

NH ƠN

C. Do English exercises on the Internet D. Playing computer games

3__________

4 __________

5 __________

QU Y

X. Fill in each numbered blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in the space provided. (2,0 points) Vietnam is in the South- East Asia. It has (1) _________ of beautiful mountains, rivers and beaches. (2) _________ are two long (3) __________ in Vietnam: the Red River in the north and the Mekong River in the (4) _________. The Mekong River is the (5) _________river in the South- East Asia and of course it is longer

(6) _________the Red River. The Mekong River starts in Tibet and (7) __________to the Bien Dong. Phanxipang is (8) _________ highest mountain in Vietnam. It’s 3,143 meters (9) ________. Vietnam also (10) ______many nice beaches such as Sam Son, Do Son, Nha Trang, Vung Tau.

KÈ

Write your answers here:

2___________

3___________

4 ___________ 5 ___________

6 __________

7___________

8___________

9 ___________ 10___________

1 __________

DẠ

SECTION 5. WRITING XI. Finish the second sentence in each pair in such a way that it means the same as the sentence before it. (1,0 point)

1. How much is the blue schoolbag?  What is ……………………………………………………...? 6

2. Mr Binh is going to France by plane  Mr Binh …………………………………………………………………..

IA L

3. Does Mai’s house have five rooms ?

 Are there …………………………………………………………………... ?

4. My father rides his motorbike to work everyday.

 My father travels …………………………………………………………….

5. She goes to work at seven fifteen.

6. My room is smaller than your room.

OF F

S he goes to work at …………………………………………………………

Your room ……………………………………………………………….

NH ƠN

7. How much does a box of chocolates cost ?

 What ……………………………………………………………….?

8. This box has twelve packets of tea.

 There ………………………………………………………….

9. No house on the street is older than this house.

 This house ………………………………………………………….

QU Y

10. Mr and Mrs Hung has a son, Kien.

 Mr and Mrs Hung are …………………………………………………… XII. Write a paragraph (from 120 to 150 words) about the seasons in Viet Nam. (2,0 points) ………………………………………………………………………………………...... ………………………………………………………………………………………......

KÈ

………………………………………………………………………………………...... ___The end___ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH NĂNG KHIẾU CẤP HUYỆN Môn: Tiếng Anh 6

DẠ

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

MỖI ĐÁP ÁN ĐÚNG ĐƯỢC 0,2 ĐIỂM TRỪ BÀI VIẾT LUẬN CÓ THANG ĐIỂM RIÊNG

SECTION 1. LISTENING 7

Part I. (1,0 points) (0,2 point for each correct answer) 1. hungry

2. apples

3. noodles

4. tired

5. orange juice

1. A

2. B

3. C

IA L

Part II. (1,0 pointts) (0,2 point for each correct answer) 4. A

SECTION 2. PHONETICS

5. C

1. B

2. C

1. A

2. B

OF F

III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. Write your answers in the space provided. (0,6 points) (0,2 point for each correct answer)

NH ƠN

3. B IV. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three of the group. Write your answers in the space provided. (0,4 points) (0,2 point for each correct answer)

SECTION 3. LEXICO - GRAMMAR V. Choose the correct answer to complete each of the following sentences. THERE CAN BE MORE THAN ONE CORRECT ANSWER TO SOME QUESTIONS. Write your answers in the space provided. (7,0 points) (0,2 point for each correct answer) 1. D 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. D. 7 .A

8. A

9 .C

10. B

11. B

12.C

13. A

14.D

15. B.

16 .C

17.D

18 .A

19.A

20 .C

21.B

22.C

23.D

24.A

25.C

QU Y

6. C

VI. Give the correct form of the words in capital to complete the sentences. (2,0 point)

2.singer

1.dangerous 6.writer

7.comfortable

3.noisy

4.teeth

5.secretaries

8.finishes

9.childen

10.musician

1. C

KÈ

VII. There is one mistake in each sentence. Identify the mistake and write your answer in the space provided. (1,0 points) (0,2 point for each correct answer) 2. B

3. C

4. C

5. B

DẠ

SECTION 4. READING VII. Read the passage and choose the best option to complete the passage. Write your answers in the space provided. (2,0 points) (0,2 point for each correct answer) 1. A 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. A 6. C 7. B 8. D 9. A 10. C

IA L

VIII. Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question. Write your answers in the space provided. (1,0 points) (0,2 point for each correct answer 1. A 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. B

IX. Fill in each numbered blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in the space provided. (2,0 points) (0,2 point for each correct answer) 1. lots 2. There 3. rivers 4. south 5. longest 6. than 7. flows 8. the 9. high 10. has

OF F

SECTION 5. WRITING X. Finish the second sentence in each pair in such a way that it means the same as the sentence before it. (1,0 points) (0,2 point for each correct answer)

1.What is the price of the blue schoolbag? 2. Mr Binh is flying to Paris. 3. Are there five rooms in Mai’s house ?

NH ƠN

4. My father travels to work by (his) motorbike everyday 5. She goes to work at a quarter past seven. 6. Your room is bigger than my room.

7. What is the price of a box of chocolate?

8. There are twelve packets of tea in this box.

QU Y

9. This house is the oldest on the street.

10. Mr and Mrs Hung are Kien’s parents.

DẠ

KÈ

XI. Complete the second sentence, using the word given in bold. Do not change the word given. You must use between three and six words, including the word given. (1,0 points) (0,2 point for each correct answer) 1. Five people took part in the discussion. 2. To everyone’s surprise John left the meeting early. 3. Scientists blame air pollution for the destruction of/ destroying the forests. 4. I took no notice of my teacher’s advice/ what my teacher told me. 5. All the students love the principal because of his kindness XII. Write a paragraph (from 120 to 150 words) about the benefits of having a computer. (2,0 points) Marking criteria Point 1. Content 0,8 - Providing all main ideas and details as required. 0,4 - Commmunicating intention sufficently and effectively 0,4 2. Organization and presentation 0,4 - Ideas are well organized and presented with coherence, 0,2 cohesion and clarity. - The easay is well-structured 0,2 9

3. Language - Demonstration of a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language. - Good use and control of grammatical structures 4. Punctuation and spelling and handwriting - Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes - Legible handwriting

0,4 0,2

IA L

0,2 0,4 0,2 2.0

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

NH ƠN

OF F

___The end___

IA L

ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN LỚP 6 THCS Môn: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề

OF F

HƯỚNG DẪN THÍ SINH LÀM BÀI THI A. CẤU TẠO ĐỀ THI: Đề thi gồm có 5 phần: SECTION 1. NGHE HIỂU (Listening) : 10 câu. SECTION 2. NGỮ ÂM (Phonetics) : 5 câu. SECTION 3. TỪ VỰNG VÀ NGỮ PHÁP (Lexico-grammar) : 30 câu. SECTION 4. ĐỌC HIỂU (Reading): : 25 câu. SECTION 5. VIẾT (Writing): : 10 câu - 5 câu (viết lại câu sao cho nghĩa không đổi so với câu đã cho) - 5 câu ( viết câu hoàn chỉnh, có thể thay đổi từ, cấu trúc cho phù hợp)

NH ƠN

B. HƯỚNG DẪN THÍ SINH LÀM BÀI: ∑ Thí sinh làm toàn bộ bài thi trên đề thi theo yêu cầu của từng phần. Thí sinh phải viết câu trả lời vào phần trả lời được cho sẵn ở mỗi phần. Trái với điều này, phần bài làm của thí sinh sẽ không được chấm điểm. ∑ Đề thi gồm có 6 trang. Thí sinh phải kiểm tra số tờ đề thi trước khi làm bài. ∑ Thí sinh không được ký tên hoặc dùng bất cứ dấu hiệu gì để đánh dấu bài thi ngoài việc làm bài theo yêu cầu của đề ra. Không được viết bằng mực đỏ, bút chì, không viết hai thứ mực trên tờ giấy làm bài. Phần viết hỏng, ngoài cách dùng thước để gạch chéo, không được tẩy xóa bằng bất kỳ cách gì khác (kể cả bút xóa màu trắng). Trái với điều này bài thi sẽ bị loại.

QU Y

∑ Thí sinh nên làm nháp trước rồi ghi chép cẩn thận vào phần bài làm trên đề thi. Giám thị sẽ không phát giấy làm bài thay thế đề và giấy làm bài do thí sinh làm hỏng. ∑ Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm về đề thi. Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu gì kể cả từ điển.

SECTION 1. LISTENING I. Listen to a talk between Mrs Mai and two students about their favourite programmes. Fill each of the gaps with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER. You will listen TWICE. (1,25 points)

KÈ

Write your answers in the blanks from (1) to (5) Programme Name

Channel

Content

Feelings

(1) ______ funny (2) ________

fun and relaxing to watch

Tom

(3) ___________

Discovery

a gigantic shark

(4) _____________

Mrs Mai

Journey to Space

(5) ______________

interesting

DẠ

Kids’ Funs

II. Listen to a teacher giving some tips to keep the air clean. Fill each of the gaps with ONE WORD. You will listen TWICE. (1,25 points)

IA L

Write your answers in the blanks from (1) to (5) The teacher gives (1) ________________________ tips, (2) _____________________ tips, and (3) __________________________ tips.

She tells students to use gas at home instead of (4) ______________________ wood.

She also advises students to avoid (5) ______________________ that smoke.

OF F

SECTION 2: PHONETICS

III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. Write your answers in the space provided. (0,75 points)

B. instead

C. seaside

D. breakfast

2. A. nice 3. A. drops

B. uncle B. looks

C. office C. means

D. distance D. meets

Write your answers here: 1………..

NH ƠN

1. A. healthy

2..................

3.................

IV. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others. (0,5 points) 1. A. geography 2. A. finish

B. literature B. address

Write your answers here:

C. hospital C. picture

2..................

QU Y

1………..

D. bakery D. music

SECTION 3. LEXICO - GRAMMAR

V. Choose the correct answer(s) to complete each of the following sentences. Write your answers in the space provided. There are some questions which has more than ONE correct answer.( 6,25 points)

DẠ

KÈ

1. I usually play football when I have . A. spare time B. good time C. no time D. times 2. In team sports, the two teams _______ against each other in order to get the better score. A. are B. do C. make D. compete 3. draw on the walls and tables, please. A. Do B. Don’t C. Should D. Shouldn’t 4. Nam plays sports very often, so he looks very . A. sport B. sports C. sporty D. sporting 5. How many numbers between 5 and 100 are divisible by 5 ……….. D. 21 A. 18 B. 19 C. 20 6. People in Tokyo are very polite friendly. A. or B. and C. but D. so 7. Do you know drink in Viet Nam? A. popular B. more popular C. more and more popular D. the most popular 8. The robot will of the flowers in the garden. 2

NH ƠN

OF F

IA L

A. take care B. take note C. be careful D.carry 9. I don't know how........... this lesson. A. learn B. learning C. to learning D. to learn 10. A: “Would you like some bread?” B: “__________________”. A. No, thanks. I’m full B. Ok. I don’t like rice C. All right D. Yes, I would 11. John: “________________?” Mary: “That’s a great idea.” A. Do you like playing sports B. Can you buy me some apples C. Why don’t we go out for dinner D. May I borrow your pen Nam: “Every other week.” 12. Ba: “__________ do you visit your uncle?” A. Why B. How often C. When D. How long 13. The school cafeteria only opens __________ lunchtime. A. on B. in C. at D. of 14. On ___________ we often go out for dinner. A. nights of Saturday B. Saturday nights C. Saturday’s nights D. none is correct 15.There are many chairs in the kitchen, there is only one in my bedroom. A. so B. because C.but D.in 16. This is a/an .................... car. A. American red old B. old red American C. red American old D. old American red 17. John: “Hello. Can I speak to Trang, please?” - Trang: “____________” A. Speaking. Who’s that? B. What’s the matter with you? C. Hello, John. How are you? D. How do you do?

KÈ

QU Y

18. Listen! Someone__________at the door. A. knocks B. knock C. is knocking D. are knocking 19. This sign says “Stop!” We ........................... go straight ahead. A. can B. don’t can C. must D. mustn’t 20. Do you __________ your new classmate, or do you two argue?” A. get on well with B. look forward to C. face up to D. keep up with 21. They often go to Ho Chi Minh City ___________air. A. by B. in C. with D. on 22. The tree ________. A. is high one meter B. has one meter C. is one l ong meter D. is one meter high 23. He arrive ______________ at six o’clock. A. home B. at home C. in home D. to home 24. there any furniture your new living room? A. Is - in B. Is - at C. Are - in D. Are – on 25. Children in the poor villages are allowed to go to school without _________ money. A. paying B. to pay C. pays D. to paying Write your answers (A, B, C or D) here 2...................

3....................

4...................

5................

6 ………..

7...................

8....................

9...................

10..............

11 ….…...

12.................

13.................

14.................

15...............

16 …………

17…………...

18……………

19……………

20…………

DẠ

1 ………..

21………… 22…………. 23………… 24………….. 25…………. VI. There is one mistake in each sentence. Identify the mistake and write your answers in the space provided. (1,25 points) 3

1. Our teacher is very beautiful. She has an oval face with a long black hair. A

2. You must taking off your shoes before entering this room. B

IA L

3. He gets up early so he’s never late of school. A

4. A lot of my friends play soccer, but not much of them play tennis. D

Write your answers here: 2……………

SECTION 4. READING

3…………

4……………

5………..

NH ƠN

1……………

OF F

5. Sorry. You can't speak to Jim now. He's have a bath.

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

VII. Read the following passage and choose A, B, C or D to fill in the blank. (2,5 points) Do you want to be fitter and healthier? Would you like to look younger? Do you want to feel (1) relaxed? Then try a few days at a health farm. Health farms are becoming (2) ______ of the most popular places (3) ______a short break. I went to Henley Manor for a weekend. It’s (4) _________ largest health farm in the country but it isn’t the most expensive. After two days of exercise and massage I (5) ten times better. But the best thing for me was the food. It was all very healthy of (6) , but it was expensive too! If you’re looking for something a (7) cheaper, try a winter break. Winter is the darkest and the coldest (8) of the year, and it can also be the (9) ______ time for your body. We all eat too (10) ______ and we don't take enough exercise. A lot of health farms offer lower prices from Monday to Friday from November to March. 1. A. like B. more C. less D. Similar 2. A. once B. first C. one D. none 3. A. with B. of C. to D. for 4. A. the B. an C. a D. x 5. A. feel B. felt C. fell D. fall 6. A. all B. out C. course D. them 7. A. little B. few C. a little D. a few 8. A. period B. moment C. time D. part 9. A. worst B. good C. best D. great 10. A. many B. a lot C. lot of D. much Write your answers here: 1 ……….....

2...................

3....................

4..................

5................

6 ………..... 7................... 8.................... 9.................. 10............... VIII. Read the following passage then choose A,B,C or D to answer the questions below. (10 pts)

Write your answers here: 1 …………

2...................

NH ƠN

OF F

IA L

Every day on radio, on TV, and in the newspaper, we hear, see or read about many problems in the world, for example, pollution problems. Air pollution is the first kind. It mostly comes from fumes released from motorbikes, cars, airplanes, trains and poisonous gases emitted from factories. Also, waste is dumped anywhere, even in the city where many people are living. The second pollution problem is sea pollution. Many people earn their living from fishing in the sea, and the fish they catch feed many people. But the sea has become so polluted from oil spills and factory wastes that the fish are dying. This is not only killing the fish, but is also affecting those people who eat fish. Seldom do you find a place nowadays that is not polluted. This problem is growing more difficult every day. We must find a good solution that makes the world a better place to live. 23. We hear, see and read about problems in the world _________ A. once a week B. every day C. every week D. every year 24. What causes the air pollution? A. fumes from vehicles. B. poisonous gases from factories. C. waste from everywhere D. All are correct 25. The sea has become polluted because of _________ A. oil spills B. factories wastes C. smoke from factories D. A and B are correct 26. In order to make the world a better place to live, we _________ A. should not prevent pollution B. must find a good solution. C. should kill the fish. D. None is correct. 27. The word “This” in the passage refers to _________ A. pollution B. oil C. factory D. sea

3.........................

4........................

5.....................

IX. Fill in each numbered blank with ONE suitable word. (2,5 points)

QU Y

“Do you like sport?” You can hear this (1) very often. Many people answer “Yes, I do”, and (2) think about watching a game of football at a stadium, or (3) TV while sitting in a comfortable armchair. But watching sport events and going in for sport (4) _______ two different things. Let’s hope that you prefer the second.

Sport holds (5) important place in our life. When you listen to the radio early in the morning, you can always (6) sports news. When you open a newspaper, you will always find (7) about some game or other or an article about your favorite kind of sport. Especially interesting stories are (8) famous men or women in the world of sport, how they became champions and about (9) plans for the futures.

KÈ

Television programmes about (10) something interesting practically every day.

are also very popular, and you can watch

Write your answers here: 2...................

3....................

4..................

5................

6 ………..... 7................... SECTION 5. WRITING

8....................

9..................

10...............

DẠ

1 ……….....

X. Rewrite the sentences as suggested keeping its meaning unchanged (1,25points) 1. What is the weight of this suitcase? ‡ How ……………………………………………………………………………? 5

2. Your sister is the most hard- working in my class. ‡ Nobody ...………………………………………………………………………… 3. He spends one hour a day playing with his children.

IA L

‡ It ……….………………………………………………………………………… 4. Let’s have a picnic at Hung King Temple this weekend?

‡ Why don’t …………………………………………………………………………

5. Do you walk to school every day?

OF F

‡ Do you go ………………………………………………………………………… XI. Making full sentences using the words given. Make the changes and additions if necessary. (1,25points) 1. Mr.Nam / not have/ much time/ to write/ friends.

..................................................................................................................................

NH ƠN

2. Hoa's sister/ listen/ music/room/ some/ of/ friends/ the moment. .................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................. 3. Mrs. Hue/ children/ eating/ breakfast/ food stall/ near/ house. .................................................................................................................................. ..................................................................................................................................

QU Y

4. Who/your brother/ play/ volleyball/ yard/ with/ now/?

.................................................................................................................................. 5. Our apartment / have / five rooms /and/ it/ sixth floor/ the building. ...................................................................................................................................

The end

DẠ

KÈ

..................................................................................................................................

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM BÀI THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN LỚP 6 THCS Môn: TIẾNG ANH

SECTION 1. LISTENING 6

I. Listen to a talk between Mrs Mai and two students about their favourite programmes. Fill each of the gaps with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER

1. 17

2. games

3. Shark week

IA L

(5 x 0,25 = 1,25 points) 4.thrilling

5.stars and planet

II. Listen to a teacher giving some tips to keep the air clean. Fill each of the gaps with ONE WORD. You will listen TWICE. (1,25 points) (5 x 0,25 = 1,25 points) 2.garden

3. transportation

SECTION 2: PHONETICS

4. burning

OF F

1. household

5. engines

NH ƠN

III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. Write your answers in the space provided. (3 x 0,25 = 0,75 points) 1.C 2. B 3.C IV. Choose the word that has the stress pattern different from that of the other words. Identify your answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D. (5 x 2 = 0,5 points) 1. A 2.B SECTION 3. LEXICO - GRAMMAR

QU Y

V. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence, identify your answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D. (6,25 points). (25 x 0,25 = 6,25 points) 2. D 7. D 12. B 17. A 22. D

3. B 8. A 13.C 18. C 23. A

4. C 9. D 14. B 19. D 24. A

5. C 10. A 15. C 20. A 25. A

1. A 6. B 11. C 16. B 21. A

KÈ

VI. There is one mistake in each sentence. Identify the mistake and write your answers in the space provided. (1,25 points) (5 x 0,25 = 1,25 points) 2. A

3. D

4. C

5. C

1. D

DẠ

SECTION 4: READING. VII. ChooseA, B, C or D to fill in the blank. (10 x 0,25 = 2,5 points) 1. B

2. C

3. D

4. A

5. B

6. C

7. A

8. C

9. A

10. D

VIII. Read the text and choose the best answer. (5 x 0,25 = 1,25 points) 2. D

3. D

4. B

5. A

IA L

1. B

IX. Fill in each numbered blank with ONE suitable word. (10 x 0,25 = 2,5 points) 3.on

4. are

7. information

8. about

9. their

5. an

6. hear

2. they

10. sport

OF F

1. question

SECTION 5. WRITING

NH ƠN

X. Rewrite the sentences as suggested keeping its meaning unchanged (1,25points) 1. How heavy is this suitcase? 2. Nobody in my class is as hard-working as your sister. Nobody in my class is more hard-working than your sister. 3. It takes him one hour a day to play with his children. 4. Why don’t we have a picnic at Hung King Temple this weekend. 5. Do you go to school on foot everyday? XI. Making full sentences using the words given. Make the changes and additions if necessary. (1,25points) 1. Mr.Nam does not have much time to write to his friends. 2. Hoa's sister is listening to music in the room with some of her friends at the moment.

QU Y

3. Mrs. Hue and her children are eating breakfast at the food stall near her/ their house. 4. Who is your brother playing volleyball in the yard with now? 5. Our apartment has five rooms and it is on the sixth floor of the building. Total mark = 20 points.

DẠ

KÈ

_____The end_____

ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH, LỚP 6 Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

OF F

IA L

NH ƠN

∑ Đề thi gồm có 7 trang. Thí sinh phải kiểm tra số tờ đề thi trước khi làm bài. ∑ Thí sinh không được ký tên hoặc dùng bất cứ dấu hiệu gì để đánh dấu bài thi ngoài việc làm bài theo yêu cầu của đề ra. Không được viết bằng mực đỏ, bút chì, không viết hai thứ mực trên tờ giấy làm bài. Phần viết hỏng, ngoài cách dùng thước để gạch chéo, không được tẩy xóa bằng bất kỳ cách gì khác (kể cả bút xóa màu trắng). Trái với điều này bài thi sẽ bị loại. ∑ Thí sinh nên làm nháp trước rồi ghi chép cẩn thận vào phần bài làm trên đề thi. Giám thị sẽ không phát giấy làm bài thay thế đề và giấy làm bài do thí sinh làm hỏng.

QU Y

∑ Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm về đề thi. Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu gì kể cả từ điển.

SECTION 1. LISTENING I. Listen to the passage about the healthy eating pyramid and decide if these sentences are true or false. Write your T (true) or F (false) in the answer box.You will hear the recording twice. (1,25 points)

KÈ

1. You mustn’t eat sweet and salty food. 2. Dairy products do not contain Calcium . 3. Beans and nuts are not important. 4. Dark bread and brown rice are great sources of whole grains. 5. Fruit and vegetables are low in calories and full of vitamins.

DẠ

Write your answers (T or F) here: 1 ……....

2................

3...............

4...............

5.............

II. Listen to a passage about wild animals, then fill in the gaps with the missing information (ONE word or number) . Write your answers in the answer box You will hear the recording twice. (1,25 points) Name Type of animal

Giant Panda Mammal

Great Green Macaw ..........(2)....... 1

Southern Blufin Tuna Fish

150-180 centimetres long 81-151 kg Hills and ...(1)... in China

Weight Lives

80-90 centimetres long ..........(3)...... kg Rainforests

Up to ...(4)....... centimetres long Up to 910 kg ......(5).....

IA L

Size

Write your answers here: 2 ........................

3 .......................

4 ....................

5 .....................

1 ……………..

SECTION 2: PHONETICS

1. A. honest 2. A. restaurant 3. A. garages

OF F

III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. Write your answers in the space provided. (0,75 points) B. honor B. sentence B. places

C. hour C. festival C. villages

Write your answers here: 2..................

3.................

NH ƠN

1………..

D. hobby D. semester D. nationalities

IV. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others. (0,5 points) 1. A. engineer B. charpenter C. architect D. manager 2. A. nature B. mountain C. wardrobe D. machine Write your answers here:

1………..

2..................

SECTION 3. LEXICO - GRAMMAR

QU Y

V. Choose the correct answer(s) to complete each of the following sentences. Write your answers in the space provided. There are some questions which has more than ONE correct answer.( 6,25 points)

DẠ

KÈ

1. I don’t like brown rice. Don’t you have ................................? A. white ones B. any white C. no white D. a white 2. Would you like .......................... that for you? A. me doing B. that I do C. me do D. me to do 3. Can you see any people in the house? ................................. A. Only a little B. Only few C. Only a few D. Only little 4. It’s very hot. ..................... swimming? A. Why don’t we go B. Let’s go C. What about go D. How to go 5. Lan’s father’s mother is her ..................... . A. grandparents B. grandfather C. grandmother D. aunt 6. Six and three are..................... . A. eighteen B. three C. nine D. two 7. We usually write to each other ...................... . A. every two weeks B. every week twice C. two every week D. none is correct 8. Which is ..................... of the two girls ? A. tallest B. the tallest C. taller D. the taller 9. One of them ..................... an oval face. 2

KÈ

QU Y

NH ƠN

OF F

IA L

A. have B. having C. has D. had. 10. ……is your uncle going to stay here? - ..................... about three days. A. How long - For B. How far – For C. How long - At D. How long - From 11. My French pen pal, Jack can speak four ..................... fluently. A. speeches B. countries C. languages D. nationalities 12. - Would you like something to drink? - ...................... A. Thank you. I’m full. B. No, I don’t like. C. No, thanks. D. Yes, I like. 13. Tom hates watching T.V. .....................does Peter. A. So B. Too C. Neither D. Either 14. I have some home work. I..................... finish it before I play table tennis. A. should to B. need to C. ought D. want 15. Traffic police never let you..................... without a ticket A. go B. going C. to go D. gone 16. .....................is the capital of Great Britain. A. Paris B. London C. New York D. England 17. .....................people go to the movies now than ten years ago. A. Fewer B. Few C. Less D. Lesser 18. Some scientists spend most of their lives ........................ at rocks. A. looking B. look C. to look D. looked 19. People in Asia often drink ..................... . A. some tea B. the tea C. tea D. many tea 20. Why don’t we go to the zoo? - ...................... . A. Because I’m going B. Let’s drive there C. That sounds great. D. That’s a good idea 21. This is my book and ..................... . A. those are your B. that are your C. that are yours D. those are yours 22. Kyoko wants to make .....................with the other students in the class. A. friend B. friends C. friendly D. friendship 23. ..................... care when you bring that dish. It’s hot. A. Be B. Have C. Make D. Take 24. My sister has .....................lamp in her room. A. a beautiful old Indian B . an old beautiful Indian C. a beautiful Indian old D. An Indian old beautiful 25. What’s your birthday, Ann? A. on the thirty-one of July B. on the thirty-first of July C. on July the thirty-one D. in July the thirty-first

1 ………..

2...................

3....................

4...................

5................

6 ………..

7...................

8....................

9...................

10..............

11 ….…...

12.................

13.................

14.................

15...............

16 …………

17…………...

18……………

19……………

20…………

21…………

22………….

23…………

24…………..

25………….

DẠ

Write your answers (A, B, C or D) here

VI. There is one mistake in each sentence. Identify the mistake and write your answers in the space provided. (1,25 points)

OF F

IA L

1. I would like buying a packet of tea and a tube of toothpaste. A B C D 2. My classmates always have a picnic two a year. A B C D 3. Do you know how many teachers does your school have? A B C D 4. These color televisions are too expensive for we to buy at this time. A B C D 5. We like watching TV at night but our parents lovesreading newspapers. A B C D Write your answers here: 2……………

SECTION 4. READING

3…………

4……………

5………..

NH ƠN

1……………

VII. Choose A, B, C or D to fill in the blank. (2,5 points) Dear Hanh,

I’m writing to invite you to a party we ............... (1) at the flat next Friday, December 14th. As you know, ................(2) Lan’s 13th birthday next week and my birthday next month, ............... (3) we thought we’d celebrate together and have a joint party.

QU Y

I can’t remember if you know my address or not, but anyway, if you .............(4) the direction below, you shouldn’t get lost. Take the Number 15 bus from the station and ................... (5) at the Star Hotel. Walk down Long Viet Road, past the DanChu Cinema, and then ..................(6) the first turning on the right. That’s LeLoi Road. Turn left ............... (7) the first junction, then go straight past the church as far as the next crossroads. ..............(8) and our block of flats is the second on the right. Do try and come. Of course you’re ........ (9) to bring someone with you if you want to. Look forward .............................. (10) you then! B. are having

C. going to have

D. will has

B. its

C. they’re

D. she’s

B. but

C. because

D. so

4. A. to follow

B. follow

C. following

D. follows

5. A. get up

B. get by

C. get on

D. get off

6. A. have

B. get

C. take

D. bring

7. A. in

B. at

C. of

D. on

8. A. Right turn

B. To right

C. To turn

D. Turn right

9. A. welcomed

B. welcome

C. welcoming

D. to welcome

10. A. to see

B. for seeing

C. of seeing

D. to seeing

DẠ

3. A. too

KÈ

2. A. it’s

1. A. have

Write your answers here: 4

1 ……….....

2...................

3....................

4..................

5................

6 ……….....

7...................

8....................

9..................

10...............

IA L

VIII. Read the following passage then answer the questions below. (10 pts)

Write your answers here: 2...................

3.........................

4........................

5.....................

QU Y

1 …………

NH ƠN

OF F

Every year people in many countries learn English. Some of them are young children. Others are teenagers. Many are adults. Some learn at school. Others study by themselves. A few learn English just by hearing the language in films, on television, in the office or among their friends. Most people must work hard to learn English. Why do all these people learn English? It’s not difficult to answer this question. Many boys and girls learn English at school because it is one of their subjects. Many adults learn English because it is useful for their work. Teenagers often learn English for their higher studies because some of their books are in English at the college or university. Other people learn English because they want to read newspapers or magazines in English. 1. According to the writer. English is learned by_________. A. young children B. adults C. teenagers D. all are correct 2. In the line 2 of the second part, the word “it” refers to_________. A. country B. young children C. English D. question 3. Where do many boys and girls learn English? A. at home B. at school C. in evening classes D. in the office 4. Why do adults learn English? A. Because they want to see movies in English B. Because they need it for their job. C. Because they are forced to learn it D. Because it’s not difficult to learn. 5. What of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage? A. Children like reading English newspapers B. People in many countries learn English C. English is one subject in school. D. Some books are written in English.

IX. Fill in each numbered blank with ONE suitable word. (2,5 points)

Football is the most popular game in Britain. You can see that if you go to (1)................. of the important matches. Young and old people shout and cheer (2) ............. one side of the other. Nearly every school (3)................. . its football team and every boy in Britain (4)............. much about games. He can tell you the name of the (5)................. in most important teams. He has a picture of (6).............. and knows the results of many matches.

KÈ

In Britain the football season (7) ................. in the middle of August, usually (8) ............ the second saturday in April. At the beginning of the (9). all the school teams and the professional teams (40) . very hard. They want to win their matches. 3....................

4..................

5................

6 ……….....

8....................

9..................

10...............

7...................

DẠ

Write your answers here: 1 ………..... 2...................

SECTION 5. WRITING X. Rewrite the sentences as suggested keeping its meaning unchanged (1,25points) 1.

Antarctica is colder than any other place in the world 5

 Antarctica is ___________________________________ 2.

Doing exercises every morning is good for you.

 It ____________________________________________ Lan likes playing tennis the most.

IA L

 Tennis ________________________________________ Do you enjoy listening to music?

 Are you interested ___________________________________ 5.

Whose new schoolbag is this?

OF F

 Who _________________________________________

XI. Making full sentences using the words given. Make the changes and additions if necessary. (1,25points)

The end

DẠ

KÈ

QU Y

NH ƠN

1. Discovery Channel / make / funny education / children / over / world. ………………………………………………………………………………………. 2. Students/ our school/ take part/ a lot/ outdoor activity. ………………………………………………………………………………………. 3. summer / we / swimming / my friends / weekend / winter / we / often / ice skating.………………………………………………………………………………………. 4. It/ necessary/ we/ be/ present/ class discussions/ Saturdays.………………………………………………………………………………………. 5. That boy / the / intelligent / our class.……………………………………………………………………………………….

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM THI MÔN: Tiếng Anh 6

IA L

1. F

2.F

3.F

4.T

(5 x 0,25 = 1,25 points)

5.T

1,25 points )

(5 x 0,25 = 1,25 points) 1. mountains

2.bird

3.1

4.430

5. oceans

NH ƠN

SECTION 2: PHONETICS

OF F

II. Part 2: Listen to a man talking about his meal in a restaurant and complete the menu.(

III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. Write your answers in the space provided. (3 x 0,25 = 0,75 points) 1.D 2. D 3.D

QU Y

IV. Choose the word that has the stress pattern different from that of the other words. Identify your answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D. (5 x 2 = 0,5 points) 1. A 2.D SECTION 3. LEXICO - GRAMMAR

V. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence, identify your answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D. (6,25 points). (25 x 0,25 = 6,25 points)

2. D 7. A 12. C 17. A 22. B

KÈ

1. B 6. C 11. C 16. B 21. D

3. C 8. D 13.A 18. A 23. D

4. A 9. C 14. B 19. C 24. A

5. C 10. A 15. A 20. C D 25. B

DẠ

VI. There is one mistake in each sentence. Identify the mistake and write your answers in the space provided. (1,25 points) (5 x 0,25 = 1,25 points) 1. B

2. D

3. D

4. C

5. C

SECTION 4: READING. VII. ChooseA, B, C or D to fill in the blank. (10 x 0,25 = 2,5 points) 3. D

4. B

6. C 7. B 8. D. VIII. Read the text and choose the best answer. (5 x 0,25 = 1,25 points)

9. B

1. D

2. C

3. B

4. B

(10 x 0,25 = 2,5 points) 6. them/players

5. A

2. for

3.has

4. knows

5. players/footballers

7. begins/starts

8. on

9. season

10. train/work/practise

SECTION 5. WRITING

NH ƠN

1. one

10. D.

OF F

IX. Fill in each numbered blank with ONE suitable word.

5. D

IA L

2. A

1. B

X. Rewrite the sentences as suggested keeping its meaning unchanged (1,25points) 1. Antartica is the coldest (place) in the world. 2. It is good for you to do exercises every morning. 3. Tennis is Lan’s favourite sport. 4. Are you interested in listening to music? 5. Who does this new school bag belong to?/ Who is the owner of this new school bag?

QU Y

XI. Making full sentences using the words given. Make the changes and additions if necessary. (1,25points) 1. Discovery Channel makes funny education for children all over the world.

2.Students in our school take part in a lot of outdoor activities. 3. In summer, we go swimming with my friends at weekend and in winter, we often go ice skating. 4. It isnecessary for us to be present at the class discussions on Saturdays. 5. That boy is the most intelligent (person/ pupil/ student/ one) our class.

_____The end_____

DẠ

KÈ

Total mark = 20 points.

TUYỂN CHỌN VÀ ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ GIAO LƯU HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 6 (CÓ PHẦN NGHE)

Articles inside

Huyen goes to school on foot every afternoon

Mr Minh is Trung’s father

What is he often do when it’s hot? A B C D

My house is to the right of the bakery

There are forty-two classrooms in our school

A. too B. but C. because D. so

How much rooms are there in the new house? A B C D

A. it’s B. its C. they’re D. she’s

My father always goes to work ………… car

I agree ………… you about that

You mustn’t (eat) ……………….……food in this canteen

Is she good ………… English?

Mrs. Thuy is cleaning the windows and doors. Let’s (help) ……………….……her

Are you interested………… history?

Mr. Tung is a teacher and he (not have).……………….……classes in the afternoon

Ha’s father (drive) ……………….……his car to the garage at the moment

I 7. in 8. has 9. red 10. blue

Is the Underground in London ............................ than the Metro in Paris?

Mount Everest is very high. It is ............................ mountain in the world. (HIGH

II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, using the word given in brackets. Do not change the words given in any way. (5 x 0

We must be .............................. when we cross the road. (CARE

x 0.2 = 1.0 pt

Look! The plane is flying towards the airport. It (land

Lee comes from China. He speaks ............................ (CHINA