TEST BANK for Anatomy, Physiology, & Disease: Foundations for the Health Professions, 3rd Edition By

CHAPTER 1 The Basics 1)

Anatomy is defined as the study of

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A) atoms B) body structures C) how the body functions D) how the body malfunctions

2)

Physiology is defined as the study of

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A) physics B) body structures C) how the body functions D) how the body malfunctions

3)

Anatomy and physiology are defined as the study of

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A) the normal and abnormal function of the body B) body structures C) how the body functions D) the body's structure and how those structures function

4)

What is considered standard anatomical position?

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A) The body is upright, the legs are close together, the feet are flat on the floor, the arms are close to the sides, and the face and palms of the hands are facing forward.

B) The body is upright, the legs are far apart, the feet are flat on the floor, the arms are close to the sides, and the face and palms of the hands are facing forward.

C) The body is upright, the legs are close together, the feet are flat on the floor, the arms are spread far from the sides, and the face and palms of the hands are facing backward.

D) The body is lying in a horizontal position, the legs are close together, the feet are pointing upward, the arms are close to the sides, and the face and palms of the hands are facing upward.

5)

What do anatomical terms of direction describe?

A) The specific region in which a body part is located B) The body's position C) The location of a particular structure in the body D) The cavity that contains certain organs within the body

6) Which anatomical term of direction is used to describe the location of the ankle in relation to the knee?

A) Proximal B) Distal C) Superficial D) Ventral

7) What anatomical term of direction is used to describe the location of the nose in relation to the eyes?

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A) Medial B) Superior C) Lateral D) Ventral

8)

What are the two major anatomical regions of the body?

A) Axial and abdominal B) Appendicular and cephalic C) Axial and appendicular D) Cephalic and thoracic

9) If a person sustained cervical dislocation in an accident, what region of his/her body was affected?

A) Head B) Neck C) Chest D) Face

10)

What are the two different ways the abdominal region of the body can be divided?

A) The abdominal region can be divided into 4 quadrants or 2 regions.

B) The abdominal region can be divided into 4 regions or 6 quadrants.

C) The abdominal region can be divided into 4 quadrants or 9 regions.

D) The abdominal region can only be divided into 4 regions.

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11)

Which of the following organs is located in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen?

A) Heart B) Lungs C) Left kidney D) Liver

12)

In which of the following regions of the abdomen is the navel located?

A) Right hypogastric B) Left hypogastric C) Epigastric D) Umbilical

13)

Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that affects what region of the body?

A) Foot B) Arm C) Leg D) Wrist

14)

Which of the following anatomical terms of direction refer to the dorsal side of the body?

A) Posterior B) Anterior C) Superior D) Inferior

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15)

Where is the diaphragm in relation to the lungs?

A) Superficial B) Deep C) Superior D) Inferior

16)

All of the following describe an anatomical region except which one?

A) Axial B) Cubital C) Bilateral D) Tarsal

17)

Which of the following describes an anatomical region?

A) Right B) Cubital C) Bilateral D) Medial

18)

All of the following are anatomical terms of direction except which one?

A) Proximal B) Superior C) Bilateral D) Transverse

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19)

Which of the following is an anatomical plane?

A) Sagittal B) Inguinal C) Appendicular D) Plantar

20)

How does a sagittal plane separate the body?

A) Top from bottom B) Right from left C) Front from back D) Up from down

21)

If a plane is exactly down the midline of the body, this is called

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A) transverse B) medial C) midsagittal D) coronal

22)

How does a transverse plane separate the body?

A) Top from bottom B) Right from left C) Front from back D) Up from down

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23) Which of the following terms describes an anatomical plane that separates the body top from bottom?

A) Sagittal B) Transverse C) Midsagittal D) Frontal

24)

How does a frontal or coronal plane separate the body?

A) Top from bottom B) Right from left C) Front from back D) Up from down

25) Which of the following terms describes an anatomical plane that separates the body front from back?

A) Sagittal B) Transverse C) Midsagittal D) Frontal or coronal

26)

What kind of term can be used to describe the position of the entire body or a body part?

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A) Anatomical plane B) Anatomical region C) Anatomical cavity D) Anatomical position

27)

Which anatomical term of position describes the anterior surface facing up?

A) Supine B) Ventral C) Anterior D) Prone

28)

Which anatomical term of position describes the anterior surface facing down?

A) Supine B) Ventral C) Anterior D) Prone

29)

In standard anatomical position, the palms are in what position?

A) At the sides, facing forward B) Lifted anteriorly and supine C) At the sides and pronated D) At the sides, facing medially

30)

A patient lying on their ventral or anterior surface, face down would be in what position?

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A) Supine B) Dorsal C) Posterior D) Prone

31)

Which of the following is not an anatomical cavity in the body?

A) Thoracic B) Dorsal C) Inguinal D) Abdominal

32)

The thoracic cavity can be subdivided into which cavities?

A) Abdominal and pelvic cavities B) Cranial and vertebral cavities C) Pleural and pericardial cavities D) Thoracic and abdominal pelvic cavities

33)

The abdominopelvic cavity can be subdivided into which two cavities?

A) Abdominal and pelvic cavities B) Cranial and vertebral cavities C) Pleural and pericardial cavities D) Thoracic and abdominal pelvic cavities

34)

How many anatomical cavities does the thoracic cavity contain?

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A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

35)

Which membrane lines the abdominal and pelvic cavities?

A) Meningeal B) Pleural C) Pericardial D) Peritoneal

36)

Which organs are associated with the dorsal cavity?

A) Brain and spinal cord B) Lungs and heart C) Digestive organs D) Reproductive organs

37)

What is the mediastinum?

A) The wall separating the thoracic cavity from the abdominopelvic cavity B) The three layers of membrane surrounding the brain and spinal cord C) The space between the pleural cavities that contains the heart, esophagus, trachea, thymus, and major vessels D) Another name for the anatomical cavity located in the middle of the body

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38) two?

Which of the following anatomical cavities has an organ that serves as a wall between the

A) Cranial and vertebral B) Pleural and pericardial C) Abdominal and pelvic D) Thoracic and abdominopelvic

39)

Which of the following cavities contain serous membranes?

A) Cranial B) Inguinal C) Thoracic D) Brachial

40)

What is a serous membrane?

A) A single layered membrane B) A double layered membrane with air between the two layers C) A double layered membrane that contains fluid between the two layers D) A membrane that covers the brain and spinal cord

41)

Which of the following statements is false regarding serous membranes?

A) Serous membranes are found in the thoracic and cranial body cavities.

B) Serous membranes have fluid between the two membrane layers.

C) The pleurae and peritoneum are examples of serous membranes.

D) Serous membranes are double layered membranes.

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42)

Which membrane surrounds the lungs in the thoracic cavity?

A) Meninges B) Pleura C) Pericardium D) Peritoneum

43)

Which membrane surrounds the heart in the thoracic cavity?

A) Meninges B) Pleura C) Pericardium D) Peritoneum

44)

Which of the following statements is false regarding the pericardium?

A) The pericardium is an example of a serous membrane.

B) The pericardium is composed of two layers, the visceral pleura and parietal pericardium.

C) The visceral layer of the pericardium is in contact with the heart.

D) Pericardial fluid fills the space between the two layers of the pericardium.

45)

Which organ is surrounded by the pericardium?

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A) Lung B) Small intestine C) Heart D) Kidney

46)

Which organs are surrounded by a pleural membrane?

A) Lung B) Large intestine C) Heart D) Kidney

47)

What is homeostasis?

A) The body's ability to maintain a steady internal environment B) Negative feedback C) Positive feedback D) The body's ability to function outside of the optimal range

48) Which of the following statements is an example of the body's ability to maintain homeostasis?

A) Michael has been sick with the flu and he has a fever.

B) Bill must be sure to take his blood pressure medication in order to control his chronic hypertension.

C) Mary had a physical and was pleased to hear that her blood pressure was within the normal range.

D) Connie has diabetes and must take insulin injections to control her high blood glucose levels.

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49)

What is negative feedback?

A) The body's ability to maintain homeostasis B) The process the body uses to reverse the direction of movement away from homeostasis C) The process the body uses to increase the movement away from homeostasis D) The body's ability to function outside of the optimal range

50)

All of the following are examples of negative feedbackexcept

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A) sweating in response to elevated body temperature B) secretion of insulin in response to increased blood glucose C) secretion of glucagon in response to decreased blood glucose D) uterine contractions in response to the pressure of the baby's head on the cervix

51)

What is positive feedback?

A) The body's ability to maintain homeostasis B) The process the body uses to reverse the direction of movement away from homeostasis C) The process the body uses to increase the movement away from homeostasis D) The body's ability to function outside of the optimal range

52)

Positive feedback includes

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A) sweating in response to elevated body temperature B) secretion of insulin in response to increased blood glucose C) secretion of glucagon in response to decreased blood glucose D) uterine contractions in response to the pressure of the baby's head on the cervix E) All of these answers are examples of negative feedback.

53)

Which of the following statements regarding homeostasis is false?

A) If the body detects a change and works to make the levels move even farther away from homeostasis, that is positive feedback.

B) If the body detects a change beyond its normal homeostasis range (either too high or too low) and it works to reach its homeostasis range by reversing the direction of movement, that is positive feedback.

C) Homeostasis is the body's ability to maintain a steady internal environment. This is achieved using positive and negative feedback mechanisms.

D) Homeostasis is the body's ability to overcome an imbalanced internal environment.

This is achieved using positive and negative feedback mechanisms.

54) Which of the anatomical terms of direction describes the diaphragm's relation to the stomach?

A) Inferior B) Superior C) Anterior D) Posterior

55) Relating to or affecting two sides refers to which of the following anatomical terms of direction?

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A) Bilateral B) Superior C) Anterior D) Lateral

56) Closer to the connection to the body refers to which of the following anatomical terms of direction?

A) Distal B) Superficial C) Deep D) Proximal

57) Which of the anatomical terms of direction best describes the wrist's relationship to the shoulder?

A) Proximal B) Superior C) Distal D) Posterior

58) Which of the anatomical terms of direction describes the relationship of the hypodermis to the epidermis?

A) Superficial B) Superior C) Deep D) Distal

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59)

Which of the anatomical regions houses the stomach?

A) Abdominal B) Axillary C) Appendicular D) Anterior

60)

The lungs are housed in which of the following anatomical regions?

A) Axial B) Axillary C) Appendicular D) Abdominal

61) Bryan has a blister on the surface of his palm from raking the leaves. Which set of anatomical terms correctly describes Bryan's blister?

A) Bryan has a superficial blister on the palmar surface of his palm in the appendicular region of his body.

B) Bryan has a superior blister on the palmar surface of his palm in the appendicular region of his body.

C) Bryan has a superficial blister on the plantar surface of his palm in the appendicular region of his body.

D) Bryan has a superficial blister on the palmar surface of his palm in the axial region of his body.

62) Susan has a tumor on her left ovary. Which set of anatomical terms correctly describes Susan's tumor?

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A) Susan has a deep, lateral tumor located in the pelvic region of her body.

B) Susan has a deep, bilateral tumor located in the pelvic region of her body.

C) Susan has a deep tumor located in the abdominal region of her body.

D) Susan has a deep tumor located in the appendicular region of her body.

63)

The femoral region refers to which part of the body?

A) Knee B) Ankle C) Thigh D) Leg

64)

The cubital region refers to which part of the body?

A) Wrist B) Elbow C) Arm D) Hand

65)

The anterior cubital region refers to which part of the body?

A) Wrist B) Front of the elbow C) Upper arm D) Back of the hand

66)

The posterior patellar region refers to which part of the body?

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A) Knee B) Front of the knee C) Upper knee D) Back of the knee

67)

The dorsal cavity houses which of the following organs?

A) Brain B) Kidneys C) Vertebrae D) Lungs

68)

The thoracic cavity houses all of the following structures except which one?

A) Heart B) Lungs C) Pleural membrane D) Peritoneum

69)

Separating the right and left side of the body is achieved by what anatomical plane?

A) Sagittal B) Transverse C) Frontal D) Coronal

70)

Separating the top and bottom half of the body is achieved by what anatomical plane?

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A) Sagittal B) Transverse C) Frontal D) Coronal

71)

Separating the front and back half of the body is achieved by what anatomical plane?

A) Sagittal B) Transverse C) Frontal D) Midsagittal

72)

Which of the following organs are housed in the mediastinum?

A) Kidneys B) Lungs C) Esophagus D) Spleen

73)

All of the following organs are housed in the mediastinum except which one?

A) Heart B) Lungs C) Esophagus D) Trachea

74)

Which part of the pleural membrane is in direct contact with the lungs?

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A) Visceral B) Parietal C) Pleura D) Peritoneum

75) Which part of the pleural membrane lines the pleural cavity and is not in direct contact with the lungs?

A) Visceral B) Parietal C) Mesentery D) Peritoneal

76)

The dorsal cavity can be subdivided into which two cavities?

A) Abdominal and pelvic cavities B) Cranial and vertebral cavities C) Pleural and pericardial cavities D) Thoracic and abdominal pelvic cavities

77)

Pathology is defined as the study of

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A) disease B) body structures C) how the body functions D) pathways throughout the body

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78)

Disease is defined as

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A) the body's internal balance B) normally functioning organs or organ systems resulting in homeostasis C) abnormally functioning organs or organ systems where the body's internal balance is maintained D) abnormally functioning organs or organ systems resulting in a disruption in homeostasis

79)

Malaise is described as

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A) fever B) a feeling of general discomfort C) a genetic abnormality D) malnutrition

80)

Which of the following can indicate a disease may be present?

A) Malaise B) Inflammation C) Abnormal diagnostic test results D) All of the answer choices can indicate the presence of disease.

81)

What are predisposing factors of disease?

A) Factors that affect people's health B) Factors under a person's control such as lifestyle and environment C) Factors that a person cannot control such as age, gender, and heredity D) All of these answer choices are correct

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82)

Which of the following is not considered a predisposing factor of disease?

A) How old you are B) Whether you are male or female C) Your symptoms of disease D) Your genetic makeup

83)

Which predisposing factor of disease can be controlled by the individual?

A) Age B) Lifestyle C) Gender D) Heredity

84)

Which predisposing factor of disease cannot be controlled by the individual?

A) Age B) Lifestyle C) Environment D) All of these predisposing factors can be controlled by the individual.

85)

Which category of childhood diseases is characterized by a defect being present at birth?

A) Infectious disease B) Congenital disorder C) Genetic disorder D) Developmental disorder

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86) Which category of childhood diseases is characterized by an event that disrupts the normal development of the child?

A) Infectious disease B) Congenital disorder C) Genetic disorder D) Developmental disorder

87) Which category of childhood diseases is caused by inherited genes which have been passed to children by their parents?

A) Infectious disease B) Congenital disorder C) Genetic disorder D) Developmental disorder

88)

Which type of disease results from an infection caused by a microorganism?

A) Infectious disease B) Congenital disorder C) Genetic disorder D) Developmental disorder

89) Which statement correctly describes why children are more susceptible to infectious diseases?

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A) Children inherit this susceptibility from their parents.

B) A child's immune system is not fully developed and continues to mature throughout childhood.

C) Children are not as clean as adults.

D) Children are not more susceptible to infectious diseases.

90)

Which statement regarding age as a predisposing factor is false?

A) Children and the elderly are more susceptible to disease due to age.

B) This predisposing factor can be controlled by an individual.

C) As people live longer they become more susceptible to disease.

D) Children are more susceptible to diseases than adults because of their age.

91)

Which statement regarding the elderly and age as predisposing factor to disease is false?

A) All organs have the ability to regenerate so they work better as one gets older.

B) Aging changes normal body function.

C) As people live longer they become more susceptible to disease.

D) General body function is reduced as people age.

92)

Which predisposing factor refers to the genetic makeup of an individual?

A) Heredity B) Lifestyle C) Environment D) Gender

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93)

Which predisposing factor refers to the sex of an individual?

A) Age B) Lifestyle C) Environment D) Gender

94)

Which of the following statements is true regarding signs and symptoms of disease?

A) Signs cannot be measured.

B) Symptoms are objective signals of disease.

C) Symptoms cannot be measured.

D) Nausea is considered a sign.

95)

Which of the following is an example of a sign of disease?

A) Fever B) Vomiting C) Headache D) Nausea

96)

Which of the following is an example of a symptom of disease?

A) High blood pressure B) Fever C) Weight gain D) Nausea

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97)

What is pain?

A) The body's immune response to injury B) A defense mechanism used by the body to warn a person that everything is alright C) The increase of blood flow to an injured area D) Physical suffering or distress due to injury or illness

98)

What is the purpose of experiencing pain?

A) So the body's immune system can respond to injury B) To serve as a defense mechanism to warn the person that there is a problem C) To increase blood flow to an injured area D) To cause suffering or distress during injury or illness

99)

Which of the following happens during inflammation?

A) Blood vessels dilate.

B) Fluid leaks out of blood vessels causing swelling.

C) Blood flow to the injured area is increased.

D) All of the answers happen during inflammation.

100)

What is inflammation?

A) The body's normal immune response to injury and disease B) The decrease of blood flow to an injured area C) Physical suffering or distress due to injury or illness D) A defense mechanism to warn the person that there is a problem

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101)

Which statement regarding inflammation is false?

A) Inflammation causes pain.

B) Inflammation causes redness.

C) Inflammation causes an injured area to feel cooler.

D) Inflammation causes swelling.

102)

Which statement regarding inflammation is true?

A) Decreased blood flow causes redness and heat.

B) Increased blood flow causes vessel dilation.

C) Increased blood flow causes swelling D) Increased fluid leaking from blood vessels causes swelling.

103)

Which class of disease is caused by pathogens?

A) Infectious diseases B) Cancers C) Immune disorders D) Trauma

104)

Which class of disease is characterized by uncontrolled cell growth?

A) Infectious diseases B) Cancers C) Immune disorders D) Trauma

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105)

Which class of disease results from the inability of the body to effectively defend itself?

A) Genetic disorders B) Cancers C) Immune disorders D) Mental disorders

106)

Which statement correctly describes hypersensitivity?

A) Hypersensitivity can range from mild to severe.

B) Hypersensitivity involves an overreaction of the immune system to an allergen.

C) Severe hypersensitivity may cause anaphylaxis.

D) All of these statements correctly describe hypersensitivity.

107) Which immune disorder is characterized as an inability of the immune system to distinguish between its own tissues and foreign tissue or cells?

A) Autoimmune disorder B) Hypersensitivity C) Immunodeficiency disorder D) Anaphylaxis

108) Which type of immune disorder causes a deficiency in the immune system's ability to defend the body?

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A) Autoimmune disorders B) Hypersensitivities C) Immunodeficiency disorders D) Anaphylaxis

109)

Which immune disorder involves an overreaction of the immune system to an allergen?

A) Autoimmune disorder B) Hypersensitivity C) Immunodeficiency disorder D) HIV

110)

Which class of disease results from abnormalities in the genetic code?

A) Genetic disorder B) Infectious disease C) Immune disorder D) Trauma

111)

In the case of a genetic disorder, how can the genetic code be changed?

A) By an antigen B) By a mutagen C) By a trauma D) None of these answers are correct.

112)

What is a mutagen?

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A) An agent that causes an allergic response B) An agent that causes cancer C) An agent that causes a genetic mutation D) An agent that causes an immunodeficiency

113)

Which class of disorders includes conditions of the mind?

A) Genetic disorders B) Cancers C) Mental disorders D) Trauma

114)

Which class of disorders is characterized by a wound or shock caused by an injury?

A) Genetic disorders B) Cancers C) Mental disorders D) Trauma

115)

Which step in determining a diagnosis involves collecting information from the patient?

A) Obtaining a medical history B) Performing an examination C) Using diagnostic screening tools and tests D) Comparing test results with normal findings

116)

Which of the following can help a physician develop a diagnosis?

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A) Diagnostic test results B) Obtaining a medical history from the patient C) Performing a medical exam D) All of these will help a physician develop a diagnosis.

117)

When can a differential diagnosis be used?

A) When all the information collected clearly points to one disease or disorder B) When signs, symptoms, and results of the diagnostic examination do not yield enough information to diagnose the patient with a specific disease C) When test results are inaccurate D) When diagnostic test results have not been reviewed by the physician

118)

What is a differential diagnosis?

A) An interpretation of all the data collected to determine the cause of the problem B) A diagnosis used when more than one disease is responsible for the patient's condition C) A treatment plan D) A predicted outcome of how the patient will recover from the disease

119)

What type of treatment plan is used to make a patient more comfortable?

A) Palliative B) Curative C) Therapeutic D) Preventive

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120)

An organ transplant falls under what treatment plan?

A) Palliative B) Curative C) Therapeutic D) Preventive

121) Which treatment plan may involve a recommendation to eat healthy and exercise regularly?

A) Palliative B) Curative C) Therapeutic D) Preventive

122)

Which treatment plan may involve physical therapy after an injury?

A) Palliative B) Curative C) Therapeutic D) Preventive

123)

Which statement describes palliative treatment?

A) The goal of treatment is to make a patient more comfortable.

B) The goal of treatment is to cure the patient of the disease.

C) The goal of treatment is to restore normal function.

D) The goal of treatment is to prevent disease.

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124)

Which statement describes curative treatment?

A) The goal of treatment is to make a patient more comfortable during the terminal stages of the disease.

B) The goal of treatment is to cure the patient of the disease.

C) The goal of treatment is to restore normal function.

D) The goal of treatment is to prevent disease.

125)

Which statement describes therapeutic treatment?

A) The goal of treatment is to make a patient more comfortable during the terminal stages of the disease.

B) The goal of treatment is to cure the patient of the disease.

C) The goal of treatment is to restore normal function.

D) The goal of treatment is to prevent disease.

126)

Which statement describes preventative treatment?

A) The goal of treatment is to make a patient more comfortable during the terminal stages of the disease.

B) The goal of treatment is to cure the patient of the disease.

C) The goal of treatment is to restore normal function.

D) The goal of treatment is to prevent disease.

127)

Which statement correctly compares palliative and curative treatment plans?

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A) Palliative and curative treatment are both used to restore normal function.

B) Palliative treatment is used to cure the patient and curative treatment is used to make the patient more comfortable in the terminal stages of disease.

C) Palliative treatment is used to prevent disease and curative treatment is used to make the patient more comfortable in the terminal stages of disease.

D) Palliative treatment is used to make the patient more comfortable, and curative treatment is used to cure the patient.

128)

What is epidemiology?

A) The study of how disease affects the overall health and well-being of a population B) The rate and range of the occurrence of a disease C) How widespread the occurrence of a disease may be D) None of these answers are correct.

129)

What is the incidence of a disease?

A) The study of how the disease affects the overall health and well-being of a population B) The number of new cases of disease in a population C) The total number of cases of a disease in a population D) None of these is correct.

130)

What is the prevalence of a disease?

A) The study of how disease affects the overall health and well-being of a population B) The number of new occurrences of the disease in a population C) The total number of cases of a disease in a population D) None of these is correct.

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131)

How does epidemiology affect healthcare?

A) Epidemiology helps healthcare providers prevent the spread of disease.

B) Epidemiology helps healthcare providers treat disease.

C) Epidemiology helps healthcare providers diagnose disease.

D) All of these answers are correct.

132)

Which statement about the Spanish flu is false?

A) The Spanish flu occurred in 1819.

B) The Spanish flu claimed over 50 million lives worldwide.

C) The Spanish flu infected one-third of the world's population.

D) The Spanish flu was considered a pandemic.

133)

Which of the following accounts for about one third of all deaths in the United States?

A) Heart disease and stroke B) Diabetes C) Arthritis D) Obesity

134)

What is the second leading cause of death in the United States?

A) Heart disease B) Diabetes C) Cancer D) Obesity

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135) When considering developmental disorders, when does the damage to the brain that causes the disability occur?

A) Prenatally B) Perinatally C) Postnatally D) Damage to the brain can occur prenatally, perinatally, or postnatally.

136)

Which statement about pain is true?

A) A pain scale allows patients to rank their pain.

B) Pain can be measured.

C) Pain is an objective sign of disease.

D) Pain always disappears on its own.

137)

Which of the following are examples of mediators of inflammation?

A) Heparin and warfarin B) Histamine and prostaglandins C) Interferon and complement D) Coumadin and aspirin

138)

Which of the following is not a symptom of inflammation?

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A) Numbness B) Redness C) Heat D) Swelling

139)

Which of the following does not happen during inflammation?

A) The damaged tissues produce chemicals called mediators of inflammation.

B) Blood vessels become more permeable.

C) Fluid from the blood leaks out into the surrounding damaged tissue.

D) Blood flow to the area is decreased.

140) How does the body's immune system respond to an injury that allows bacteria and pathogens to enter tissue under the skin?

A) Pain B) Anaphylaxis C) Inflammation D) The body's immune system does not respond to this type of injury.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 01_3e_ Roiger 1) B 2) C 3) D 4) A 5) C 6) B 7) A 8) C 9) B 10) C 11) D 12) D 13) D 14) A 15) D 16) C 17) B 18) D 19) A 20) B 21) C 22) A 23) B 24) C 25) D 26) D Version 1

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27) A 28) D 29) A 30) D 31) C 32) C 33) A 34) C 35) D 36) A 37) C 38) D 39) C 40) C 41) A 42) B 43) C 44) B 45) C 46) A 47) A 48) C 49) B 50) D 51) C 52) D 53) B 54) B 55) A 56) D Version 1

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57) C 58) C 59) A 60) A 61) A 62) A 63) C 64) B 65) B 66) D 67) A 68) D 69) A 70) B 71) C 72) C 73) B 74) A 75) B 76) B 77) A 78) D 79) B 80) D 81) D 82) C 83) B 84) A 85) B 86) D Version 1

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87) C 88) A 89) B 90) B 91) A 92) A 93) D 94) C 95) A 96) D 97) D 98) B 99) D 100) A 101) C 102) D 103) A 104) B 105) C 106) D 107) A 108) C 109) B 110) A 111) B 112) C 113) C 114) D 115) A 116) D Version 1

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117) B 118) B 119) A 120) C 121) D 122) C 123) A 124) B 125) C 126) D 127) D 128) A 129) B 130) C 131) D 132) A 133) A 134) C 135) D 136) A 137) B 138) A 139) D 140) C

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CHAPTER 2 Levels of Organization of the Human Body 1) Which of the following lists the levels of organization of the human body in the correct order?

A) Chemical level, organelle level, cellular level, tissue level, organ level, systems level, organism level B) Chemical level, tissue level, organ level, systems level, organelle level, cellular level, organism level C) Organelle level, chemical level, cellular level, tissue level, organ level, systems level, organism level D) Chemical level, organelle level, cellular level, tissue level, organism level, organ level, systems level

2)

The organelle level of organization includes which of the following concepts?

A) Organ systems work together to form an organism B) Body organs work together to form organ systems C) Atoms bond to form molecules D) Organelles work together in a living cell

3)

Which of the following is not a level of organization in the human body?

A) Organs B) Cells C) Ions D) Tissues

4)

What is matter?

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A) Anything that takes up space B) Anything that has mass C) Anything that takes up space and has mass D) Everything is composed of matter.

5)

Which of the following is not composed of matter?

A) All of the answer choices contain matter.

B) The air we breathe C) The steam formed from boiling water D) The fumes emitted from a vehicle

6)

Which forms of an element can be used as a diagnostic tool?

A) Isomers B) Radioisotopes C) Ions D) Stereoisomers

7)

What are the outermost subatomic particles in an atom?

A) Protons B) Neutrons C) Electrons D) Nuclei

8)

Which of the following correctly describes the atomic number?

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A) The combined number of protons and neutrons B) The number of protons C) The number of electrons D) The combined number of protons and electrons

9) Which of the following types of bonding is characterized by two or more atoms sharing electrons to fill their outer shells?

A) Ionic bond B) Covalent bond C) Charged bond D) Hydrogen bond

10)

Which of the following is not true regarding the functions of water?

A) Water chemically bonds molecules to form electrolytes.

B) Water works as a lubricant in tears and the fluid of joints.

C) Water aids in chemical reactions as in saliva during digestion.

D) Water is used to transport nutrients and wastes in blood plasma.

11) Which statement correctly describes a hypertonic solution when compared to another solution?

A) The solution has a higher concentration of solutes than the other solution.

B) The solution has the same concentration of solutes as the other solution.

C) The solution has a lower concentration of solutes than the other solution.

D) The solution is less concentrated with solvent than the other solution.

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12)

What is an acid?

A) A molecule with a pH of 7 B) A molecule that releases a hydroxide ion when added to water C) A molecule that releases a hydrogen ion when added to water D) A molecule with a pH higher than 7

13)

What is a base?

A) A molecule with a pH of 7 B) A molecule that releases a hydroxide ion when added to water C) A molecule that releases a hydrogen atom when added to water D) A molecule with a pH of less than 7

14)

If a solution has a pH of 12, which of the following statement is incorrect?

A) The solution is a base.

B) The solution will release hydroxide ions when added to water.

C) The solution is alkaline.

D) The solution will release hydrogen ions when added to water.

15)

What condition results if the blood's pH is less than 7.35?

A) Acidosis B) Alkalosis C) Acidic D) Alkaline

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16)

What are the four types of organic molecules?

A) Glucose, proteins, lipids, nucleic acids B) Carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, nucleic acids C) Monosaccharides, proteins, lipids, nucleotides D) Carbohydrates, amino acids, lipids, nucleic acids

17)

Which of the following is not a function of proteins?

A) To transport other molecules B) To provide strength C) To fight foreign invaders D) To store energy

18)

Which organic molecules make up the genetic material of a cell?

A) Proteins B) Lipids C) Nucleic acids D) Carbohydrates

19)

What are the building blocks of proteins?

A) Monosaccharides B) Amino acids C) Nucleotides D) Glycerols

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20)

Which of the following is a function of lipids?

A) To form genetic material B) To transport other molecules C) To fight foreign invaders D) To store energy

21)

Carbohydrates contain carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in which of the following ratios?

A) 1:1:1 B) 2:1:2 C) 1:2:1 D) 2:1:1

22)

What is metabolism?

A) The speed of chemical reactions in a human body B) The sum total of all chemical reactions in the human body C) The temperature of chemical reactions in the human body D) The concentration of reactants in chemical reactions within the human body

23)

What governs the speed of a reaction?

A) The concentration of reactants B) The temperature of the reaction C) The presence of a catalyst D) All of these choices are correct.

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24)

What does the human body use cellular respiration for?

A) To release and capture the energy held in molecular bonds B) To create carbon dioxide C) To produce water D) To allow us to breathe

25)

What is ATP?

A) A usable form of energy for the cell B) A modified glucose molecule C) The waste product produced by cellular respiration D) Adenosine diphosphate

26)

Which organelle regulates what enters and exits the cell?

A) Cell membrane B) Golgi complex C) Lysosomes D) Nucleus

27)

Which organelle is responsible for assembling amino acids into proteins?

A) Cell membrane B) Golgi complex C) Lysosome D) Ribosome

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28)

Which organelle is responsible for carrying out cellular respiration?

A) Cell membrane B) Golgi complex C) Mitochondrion D) Ribosome

29)

Which organelle does not play a role in synthesizing and processing proteins?

A) Mitochondrion B) Golgi complex C) Endoplasmic reticulum D) Ribosome

30)

Which of the following is not a function of the cell membrane?

A) To give the cell structure B) To regulate what enters and exits the cell C) To defines the cell's intracellular and extracellular environment D) To house the DNA

31)

The phospholipids in the cell membrane are composed of what?

A) Transport proteins B) Hydrophilic tails C) Hydrophobic heads D) Hydrophobic chains and hydrophilic heads

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32)

The cell membrane contains all of the following except

.

A) phospholipids B) secretory vesicles C) cholesterol D) channels

33)

Which of the following correctly describes passive transport?

A) Transport of materials across the cell membrane B) Transport of materials across the cell membrane up the concentration gradient C) Transport of materials across the cell membrane with the use of energy D) Transport of materials across the cell membrane without the use of energy

34)

Which statement correctly compares passive and active transport?

A) Passive transport moves materials across the cell membrane without the use of energy while active transport moves materials across the cell membrane against the concentration gradient with the use of energy.

B) Passive transport moves materials across the cell membrane with the use of energy while active transport moves materials across the cell membrane against the concentration gradient without the use of energy.

C) Passive transport moves materials across the cell membrane with the use of energy while active transport moves materials across the cell membrane against the concentration gradient with the use of energy.

D) Passive transport moves materials across the cell membrane without the use of energy while active transport moves materials across the cell membrane against the concentration gradient without the use of energy.

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35)

Which of the following types of transport require energy?

A) Filtration B) Facilitated diffusion C) Active D) Osmosis

36)

Which of the following is not a form of passive transport?

A) Filtration B) Endocytosis C) Osmosis D) Simple diffusion

37)

What is osmosis?

A) The diffusion of water across a semipermeable membrane until concentrations are equal on either side of the membrane B) The diffusion of water across a semipermeable membrane against its concentration gradient C) The diffusion of water across a semipermeable membrane from an area of low water concentration to high water concentration D) The diffusion of solutes across a semipermeable membrane

38)

Which statement incorrectly describes active transport?

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A) The transport of materials from areas of low concentration to areas of high concentration B) The movement of materials up a concentration gradient C) The transport of materials across the cell membrane with the use of energy D) The transport of materials from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration

39)

The sodium/potassium pump is an example of which type of transport?

A) Filtration B) Facilitated diffusion C) Active D) Osmosis

40)

Which statement correctly describes endocytosis?

A) The movement of materials in bulk out of the cell B) The movement of materials in bulk into the cell C) The passive movement of materials out of the cell D) The movement of small molecules out of the cell

41)

Protein synthesis involves which two stages?

A) Active and passive transport B) Endocytosis and exocytosis C) Osmosis and diffusion D) Transcription and translation

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42)

ACGUUGCACGU represents what kind of nucleic acid?

A) DNA B) RNA C) cDNA D) ssDNA

43) Which of the following stages of protein synthesis reads the mRNA strand and assembles a protein based on the sequence of codons present on the mRNA strand?

A) Transcription B) Translation C) Translocation D) Replication

44)

Which statement best describes meiosis?

A) Meiosis is a type of cell division that involves all cell types in the human body.

B) Meiosis is a type of cell division that involves sperm and egg cells.

C) Meiosis is a type of cell division that involves all cell types except sperm and egg cells.

D) Meiosis is a type of cell cloning.

45)

Which of the following statements best describes mitosis?

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A) Mitosis is a type of cell division that involves all cell types in the human body.

B) Mitosis is a type of cell division that involves sperm and egg cells.

C) Mitosis is a type of cell division that involves all cell types except sperm and egg cells.

D) Mitosis is a type of gamete formation.

46) Which of the following statements correctly describes the parent cell and daughter cells in mitosis?

A) In mitosis, the parent cell divides to become two identical daughter cells.

B) In mitosis, the parent cell divides to become two different daughter cells.

C) In mitosis, the parent cell divides to become one identical daughter cell.

D) In mitosis, the parent cell divides to become two identical sex cells.

47)

Which statement correctly compares chromatin to chromosomes?

A) Chromatin is loosely arranged DNA in the cell's nucleus while the cell is not dividing while chromosomes are tight compact bundles of DNA present during cell division.

B) Chromatin is tightly packed DNA in the cell's nucleus while the cell is not dividing while chromosomes are also tight compact bundles of DNA present during cell division.

C) Chromatin is loosely arranged DNA in the cell's nucleus while the cell is dividing while chromosomes are tight compact bundles of DNA present while the cell is not dividing.

D) Chromatin is tightly packed DNA in the cell's nucleus while the cell is not dividing while chromosomes are loosely arranged bundles of DNA present during cell division.

48)

In humans, what is the total number of chromosomes in a daughter cell after mitosis?

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A) 12 B) 23 C) 46 D) 92

49)

Which of the following is false regarding mutations in DNA replication?

A) Mutations can benefit the cell.

B) Mutations can be detrimental to the cell.

C) Mutations will be passed to future daughter cells.

D) There is no mechanism for proofreading DNA replication in order to avoid mutations.

50)

What is telomerase?

A) An enzyme present in cancer cells that repairs telomere damage during replication making the cancer cell immortal B) An enzyme present in normal cells that repairs telomere damage during replication making the normal cell immortal C) An enzyme present in normal cells that repairs telomere damage during replication D) An enzyme present in cancer cells that repairs telomere damage during replication making the cancer cell die

51)

Which statement correctly describes the function of telomeres?

A) Telomeres are protective caps on the ends of chromosomes that help stabilize them.

B) Telomeres are protective caps on the ends of chromosomes that prevent replication.

C) Telomeres are protective caps on the ends of chromosomes that help the cell age.

D) Telomeres are protective caps on the ends of chromosomes that allow the chromosome to stick to other chromosomes.

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52)

What is histology?

A) The study of tissues B) The study of the human body C) The study of the history of anatomy D) The study of body functions

53)

Which of the following is not a class of tissues?

A) Epithelial B) Muscle C) Neuron D) Connective

54)

Which of the following statements correctly describes epithelial tissue?

A) Epithelial tissues cover and line all body surfaces including organs, vessels, and ducts.

B) Epithelial tissues allow for movement of the body.

C) Epithelial tissues have fibers in a matrix.

D) Epithelial tissues allow for communication within the body by using electrical and chemical signals.

55)

Which of the following statements correctly describes muscle tissue?

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A) Tissue that lines and covers all body surfaces B) Tissue that allows for communication through chemical and electrical signals C) Tissue that allows movements through the contraction of cells D) Tissue that has cells and fibers in a matrix

56)

Which of the following statements correctly describes nervous tissue?

A) Tissue that lines and covers all body surfaces B) Tissue that allows for communication through chemical and electrical signals C) Tissue that allows movements through the contraction of cells D) Tissue that has cells and fibers in a matrix

57)

Which of the following is a function of nervous tissue?

A) Movement B) Communication C) Structural support D) Protection

58)

Which of the following is a function of connective tissue?

A) Movement B) Communication C) Structural support D) Coverage

59)

Which of the following is a function of muscle tissue?

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A) Movement B) Communication C) Structural support D) Coverage

60)

Which of the following is a function of epithelial tissue?

A) Movement B) Communication C) Structural support D) Coverage

61)

Which of the following is not an eptithelial cell shape?

A) Cuboidal B) Squamous C) Columnar D) Stratified

62)

Which of the following is a correct statement about cardiac muscle?

A) Cardiac muscle cells are branched and multinucleated.

B) Cardiac muscle is striated and voluntary.

C) Cardiac muscle is smooth and involuntary.

D) Cardiac muscle is striated and involuntary.

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63) Which of the following statements correctly compares skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle?

A) Skeletal muscle is striated and voluntary, while cardiac muscle is striated and involuntary.

B) Skeletal muscle is smooth and voluntary, while cardiac muscle is striated and involuntary.

C) Skeletal muscle is striated and voluntary, while cardiac muscle is striated and voluntary.

D) Skeletal muscle is striated and involuntary, while cardiac muscle is smooth and involuntary.

64)

Which of the following is not a type of connective tissue?

A) Bone B) Blood C) Muscle D) Cartilage

65)

Which term describes a stacked layer of epithelial cells?

A) Simple B) Stratified C) Pseudostratified D) Transitional

66)

The respiratory tract is lined with which tissue type?

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A) Muscle B) Connective C) Epithelial D) Nervous

67)

Which of the following correctly describes transitional epithelial tissue?

A) It is composed of a single layer of cells.

B) It is found lining the kidney tubules.

C) It is designed to stretch.

D) It provides protection from abrasion.

68)

Which connective tissue type functions in storing lipids?

A) Blood B) Bone C) Adipose D) Cartilage

69)

What type of cartilage is found in the outer ear?

A) Hyaline cartilage B) Elastic cartilage C) Fibrocartilage D) Fibroelastic cartilage

70)

What type of cartilage is found in the nose?

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A) Hyaline cartilage connective tissue B) Elastic cartilage connective tissue C) Fibrocartilage connective tissue D) Fibroelastic cartilage connective tissue

71)

Which of the following is not one of the three types of cartilage?

A) Hyaline cartilage connective tissue B) Elastic cartilage connective tissue C) Fibrocartilage connective tissue D) Fibroelastic cartilage connective tissue

72)

What is the function of neuroglia?

A) Communication B) Protection and support C) Movement D) Coverage

73)

Which statement describes hypertrophy?

A) Tissue growth is achieved by an increase in the number of cells B) Tissue growth achieved by an increase in cell size C) Tissue growth is achieved by a decrease in the number of cells D) Tissue growth achieved by a decrease in cell size

74)

Which statement describes hyperplasia?

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A) Tissue growth achieved by an increase in the number of cells B) Tissue growth achieved by an increase in cell size C) Tissue growth achieved by a decrease in the number of cells D) Tissue growth achieved by a decrease in cell size

75)

What is neoplasia?

A) Tissue growth achieved by an increase in the number of cells B) Tissue growth achieved by an increase in cell size C) The mutation of cells from one type into another D) The uncontrolled growth of cells

76)

Which of the following incorrectly describes a benign neoplasm?

A) A neoplasm that remains localized B) A neoplasm that is encapsulated C) A neoplasm that does not metastasize D) A neoplasm in which cells have broken off and traveled to other parts of the body where they are producing more abnormal cells

77)

Which of the following correctly describes a malignant neoplasm?

A) A neoplasm that remains localized B) A neoplasm that is encapsulated C) A neoplasm that does not metastasize D) A neoplasm in which cells have broken off and traveled to other parts of the body where they are producing more abnormal cells

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78)

Which term refers to the change of tissue from one type to another?

A) Neoplasia B) Hyperplasia C) Metaplasia D) Cytoplasia

79)

Which term refers to shrinkage of tissue due to a decrease in cell size?

A) Atrophy B) Necrosis C) Hypertrophy D) Apoptosis

80)

Which term refers to programmed cell death?

A) Atrophy B) Necrosis C) Hypertrophy D) Apoptosis

81) Which term refers to premature tissue death caused by disease, infection, toxins, and trauma?

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A) Atrophy B) Necrosis C) Hypertrophy D) Apoptosis

82)

Which statement correctly compares necrosis and apoptosis?

A) Necrosis is premature tissue death caused by disease, infection, toxins, or trauma, and apoptosis is programmed cell death.

B) Necrosis is prolonged tissue death caused by disease, infection, toxins, or trauma, and apoptosis is programmed cell death.

C) Necrosis is programmed tissue death caused by disease, infection, toxins, or trauma, and apoptosis is programmed cell death.

D) Necrosis is premature tissue death caused by diseases, infection, toxins, or trauma, and apoptosis is premature cell death.

83)

What causes gangrene?

A) Insufficient blood supply B) The formation of neoplasms C) The presence of infection D) Insufficient blood supply that is associated with an infection

84)

Infarction is defined as

.

A) programmed cell death B) prolonged death of a tissue C) sudden blood loss D) sudden tissue death resulting from the loss of blood supply

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85)

Which of the following are true regarding apoptosis?

A) It is programmed cell death.

B) It removes old, worn-out cells.

C) It removes cells that have fulfilled their function and are no longer needed.

D) All of these choices are correct.

86) What organ system is responsible for gas exchange, sense of smell, and creating pressure gradients necessary to circulate blood and lymph?

A) Cardiovascular system B) Nervous system C) Respiratory system D) Lymphatic system

87) What organ system is responsible for fluid balance, immunity, and lipid absorption, and defense against disease?

A) Cardiovascular system B) Nervous system C) Respiratory system D) Lymphatic system

88)

What organ system is responsible for communication and hormone production?

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A) Cardiovascular system B) Nervous system C) Endocrine system D) Lymphatic system

89) What organ system is responsible for movement, stability, control of body openings and passages, communication, and heat production?

A) Cardiovascular system B) Nervous system C) Endocrine system D) Muscular system

90)

Which statement describes a malignant tumor?

A) Malignant tumors do not spread to other areas of the body.

B) Malignant tumors are not cancerous.

C) Malignant tumors spread to other areas of the body.

D) Malignant tumors do not cause tissue or organ damage.

91)

Which statement describes a benign tumor?

A) Benign tumors do not spread to other areas of the body.

B) Benign tumors are cancerous.

C) Benign tumors spread to other areas of the body.

D) Benign tumors never cause tissue or organ damage.

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92)

What are oncogenes?

A) Genes that code for uncontrolled production of cellular growth factors B) Genes that turn on or off in response to various environmental factors C) Genes that regulate blood vessel growth D) Genes that can cause noncancerous growths

93)

Which tumor originates in epithelial tissue?

A) Carcinoma B) Sarcoma C) Leukemia D) Lymphoma

94)

Which tumor originates in connective tissue?

A) Carcinoma B) Sarcoma C) Leukemia D) Lymphoma

95)

Which tumor originates in blood-forming tissues in the red bone marrow?

A) Carcinoma B) Sarcoma C) Leukemia D) Lymphoma

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96)

In what tissue would a carcinoma originate?

A) Lymphoid B) Epithelial C) Connective D) Bone marrow

97)

In what tissue would a sarcoma originate?

A) Lymphoid B) Epithelial C) Connective D) Bone marrow

98)

In what tissue would lymphoma originate?

A) Lymphoid B) Epithelial C) Connective D) Bone marrow

99)

In what tissue would leukemia originate?

A) Lymphoid B) Epithelial C) Connective D) Red bone marrow

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100)

A cancerous tumor found on the skin would be considered what type of tumor?

A) Carcinoma B) Sarcoma C) Leukemia D) Lymphoma

101)

A cancerous tumor found in bone would be considered what type of tumor?

A) Carcinoma B) Sarcoma C) Leukemia D) Lymphoma

102)

Which of the following categories does phagocytosis belong to?

A) Endocytosis B) Exocytosis C) Pinocytosis D) Facilitated diffusion

103)

Which of the following describes the exit of a vesicle from a cell?

A) Endocytosis B) Exocytosis C) Pinocytosis D) Osmosis

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104)

Where does a protein usually go immediately after being formed?

A) Out of the cell B) To the Golgi complex C) To a mitochondrion D) To a ribosome

105)

What will happen to a protein that is produced that needs to affect another cell?

A) It will be transported out of the cell.

B) It will go to the Golgi complex.

C) It will go to a mitochondrion.

D) It will exit the rough endoplasmic reticulum.

106) What will happen if a point mutation in an mRNA code for a different amino acid than the original mRNA?

A) The protein that is produced will be incorrect, causing possible problems.

B) The protein that is produced will be correct.

C) The protein that is produced will be enhanced.

D) A protein will not be produced.

107) What will happen if a point mutation in an mRNA code for the same amino acid as the original mRNA?

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A) The protein that is produced will be incorrect, causing possible problems.

B) The protein that is produced will be correct.

C) The protein that is produced will be enhanced.

D) A protein will not be produced.

108)

What is a mistake in replication called?

A) Codon B) Mutation C) Anticodon D) Teratogen

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 02_3e_ Roiger 1) A 2) D 3) C 4) C 5) A 6) B 7) C 8) B 9) B 10) A 11) A 12) C 13) B 14) D 15) A 16) B 17) D 18) C 19) B 20) D 21) C 22) B 23) D 24) A 25) A 26) A Version 1

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27) D 28) C 29) A 30) D 31) D 32) B 33) D 34) A 35) C 36) B 37) A 38) D 39) C 40) B 41) D 42) B 43) B 44) B 45) C 46) A 47) A 48) C 49) D 50) A 51) A 52) A 53) C 54) A 55) C 56) B Version 1

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57) B 58) C 59) A 60) D 61) D 62) D 63) A 64) C 65) B 66) C 67) C 68) C 69) B 70) A 71) D 72) B 73) B 74) A 75) D 76) D 77) D 78) C 79) A 80) D 81) B 82) A 83) D 84) D 85) D 86) C Version 1

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87) D 88) C 89) D 90) C 91) A 92) A 93) A 94) B 95) C 96) B 97) C 98) A 99) D 100) A 101) B 102) A 103) B 104) B 105) A 106) A 107) B 108) B

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CHAPTER 3 The Integumentary System 1)

Which of the following word roots refer to the skin?

A) cutane/o B) cyan/o C) melan/o D) onych/o

2)

Which of the following word roots refers to the color black?

A) cutane/o B) cyan/o C) melan/o D) onych/o

3)

Which of the following word roots refers to a nail?

A) cutane/o B) cyan/o C) melan/o D) onych/o

4)

Which of the following word roots refers to the color blue?

A) cutane/o B) cyan/o C) melan/o D) onych/o

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5)

Which of the following word roots refers to hardness?

A) kerat/o B) cyan/o C) melan/o D) onych/o

6)

Which word root does not refer to the skin?

A) cutane/o B) derm/o C) dermat/o D) seb/o

7)

Which word root refers to oil?

A) kerat/o B) seb/o C) melan/o D) onych/o

8)

What is the body's largest organ?

A) Liver B) Brain C) Stomach D) Skin

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9)

The skin makes up approximately what percentage of the body's weight?

A) 10% B) 15% C) 25% D) 50%

10)

Skin is composed of what two layers?

A) Dermis, hypodermis B) Dermis, subcutaneous C) Epidermis, dermis D) Epidermis, hypodermis

11)

Which of the following statements describes the epidermis?

A) The epidermis has cutaneous glands, hair follicles, and nerve endings.

B) The epidermis is the skin's most superficial layer.

C) The epidermis is the skin's deepest layer.

D) The dermis is composed of loose/areolar connective tissue over dense irregular connective tissue.

12)

What is the hypodermis?

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A) The layer of adipose tissue beneath the dermis B) The layer of skin beneath the dermis C) The layer of loose/areolar connective tissue beneath the dermis D) The layer of stratified squamous epithelial tissue beneath the dermis

13)

Which layer of skin is best for subcutaneous injections?

A) Dermis B) Epidermis C) Dermis or hypodermis D) Hypodermis

14)

Which of the following statements does not describe the dermis?

A) The dermis has cutaneous glands, hair follicles, and nerve endings.

B) The dermis is the skin's most superficial layer.

C) The dermis is the skin's deepest layer.

D) The dermis is composed of loose/areolar connective tissue over dense irregular connective tissue.

15)

Which of the following statements is true about the hypodermis?

A) The hypodermis is the third layer of skin.

B) The hypodermis contains the skin's blood vessels, nerve endings, and glands.

C) The hypodermis lies deep to the dermis, is composed of adipose tissue, and connects the skin to the body.

D) The hypodermis is composed of stratified squamous epithelial tissue.

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16)

Which of the following is not a layer of the epidermis?

A) The stratum basale B) The stratum lucidum C) The stratum corneum D) The stratum keratum

17) Which layer of the epidermis has cells that are actively growing and dividing to produce new epidermis?

A) The stratum basale B) The stratum lucidum C) The stratum corneum D) The stratum spinosum

18)

What shape of the cell does the stratum basale contain?

A) Squamous B) Cuboidal C) Columnar D) Transitional

19)

The stratum basale dips into the dermis to form what?

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A) Nail bed B) Hypodermis C) Sweat glands D) Hair follicle

20)

The stratum basale lies deep to which layer of the epidermis?

A) The stratum basale B) The stratum lucidum C) The stratum corneum D) The stratum spinosum

21)

Which of the following does not have a stratum lucidum?

A) Thin skin B) Thick skin C) The skin on the palms of hands D) Skin with no hair

22)

Which of the following is the most superficial layer of the epidermis?

A) The stratum basale B) The stratum lucidum C) The stratum corneum D) The stratum spinosum

23)

What differentiates thick and thin skin?

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A) Thin skin is thinner than thick skin.

B) Thick skin has hair.

C) Thin skin does not have the stratum lucidum layer while thick skin does.

D) Thick skin is found all over the body, while thin skin is found on lips, palms of hands, and soles of feet.

24)

What cell type in the epidermis is responsible for the skin's pigment?

A) Keratinocyte B) Melanocyte C) Tactile corpuscle D) Dendritic cell

25)

Which cells in the epidermis grow and divide?

A) Keratinocytes B) Melanocytes C) Tactile corpuscles D) Dendritic cells

26)

What is the hard, waterproof protein that fills keratinocytes?

A) Melanin B) Keratin C) Sebum D) Corneum

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27)

What is cornification?

A) The process of epidermal cells filling with keratin and moving to the surface of the epidermis to form a durable waterproof layer B) The process of skin pigmentation C) The process of receptors allowing for fine touch D) The process of the immune system being alerted by the presence of pathogens

28)

What is the purpose of cornification?

A) To form a durable, waterproof layer on the surface of the skin B) To give the skin color C) To allow skin to feel fine touch D) To protect the skin from pathogens

29)

Melanocytes reside predominantly in which layer of the epidermis?

A) The stratum basale B) The stratum lucidum C) The stratum corneum D) The stratum spinosum

30)

What is the function of tactile corpuscles found in the skin?

A) To form a durable, waterproof layer on the surface of the skin B) To give the skin color C) To detect fine touch D) To protect the skin from pathogens

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31)

Dendritic cells are found in what layer of the epidermis?

A) The stratum basale B) The stratum lucidum C) The stratum corneum D) The stratum spinosum

32)

What is the function of dendritic cells in the skin?

A) To form a durable, waterproof layer on the surface of the skin B) To give the skin color C) To allow skin to feel fine touch D) To protect the skin from pathogens

33)

Which of the following are not found in the dermis?

A) Hair follicles B) Nerve endings C) Blood vessels D) Melanocytes

34)

The arrangement of what feature in the dermis creates unique fingerprints?

A) Keratin B) Papillae C) Cutaneous glands D) Nerve endings

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35)

Which connective tissues make up the dermis?

A) Adipose tissue and loose/areolar tissue B) Adipose tissue and dense irregular tissue C) Collagen and elastic tissue D) Loose/areolar tissue and dense irregular tissue

36)

Fibroblasts in the dermis produce which two protein fibers?

A) Loose/areolar and elastic B) Collagen and dense irregular C) Collagen and elastic D) Loose/areolar and dense irregular

37)

What is the function of elastic fibers in the skin?

A) Strength B) Cushioning C) Extensibility D) Elasticity

38)

What is the function of collagen fibers in the skin?

A) Strength B) Cushioning C) Extensibility D) Elasticity

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39)

What is the definition of elasticity?

A) The ability to be stretched B) The ability to extend C) The ability to keep shape D) The ability to return to shape after being stretched

40)

How do vitamin A and C contribute to healthy skin?

A) They allow for elasticity.

B) They help with collagen production.

C) They help with elastic fiber production.

D) They help with melanin production.

41)

Which of the following is not a function of dermal nerve endings?

A) They are receptors for warm and cold.

B) They are receptors for pain and pressure.

C) They are receptors for hair movement.

D) All of the answer choices are functions of the nerve cell endings in the dermis.

42)

What is the function of sebaceous glands?

A) To produce oil B) To produce milk C) To produce sweat D) To produce cerumen

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43)

What is the function of sweat?

A) To cool the body B) To nourish an infant C) To moisturize the skin D) To waterproof the ear

44)

What is the function of sebum?

A) To cool the body B) To nourish an infant C) To moisturize the skin and hair D) To waterproof the ear

45)

Which cutaneous gland produces sebum?

A) Sebaceous B) Mammary C) Apocrine D) Ceruminous

46)

Which of the following is not a function of lactic acid in sweat?

A) To maintain a pH between 4 and 6 B) To produce a scent that influences behavior C) To form an acid mantle on the skin D) To reduce the number of pathogens on the skin

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47)

What is the function of a dermal papilla at the base of a hair follicle?

A) To add pigmentation to a growing hair B) To add strength to a growing hair C) To add texture to a growing hair D) To provide nourishment to a growing hair

48)

What is the function of keratinocytes as it relates to hair?

A) To provide pigmentation to a growing hair B) To provide texture to a growing hair C) To form the hair matrix D) To assist in the movement of the hair

49)

What is considered a hair growth center?

A) Stratum spinosum B) Dermal papilla C) Reticular layer of the dermis D) Hair cortex

50)

What is the function of the arrector pili muscle?

A) Pigmentation B) Strength C) Movement D) Nourishment

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51)

What type of hair is very fine, unpigmented, and forms on the developing fetus?

A) Lanugo B) Vellus C) Terminal D) Vellum

52)

What type of hair is thick, coarse, and heavily pigmented?

A) Lanugo B) Vellus C) Terminal D) Vellum

53)

Which part of the hair extends out from the skin's surface?

A) Shaft B) Hair follicle C) Bulb D) Root

54)

Which of the following is not a layer of hair?

A) Medulla B) Cuticle C) Corneum D) Cortex

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55)

What factor affects hair texture?

A) The shaft's cross-sectional shape B) The length of the shaft C) The color of the hair shaft D) The amount of keratin in the hair shaft

56)

Which of the following is not a stage of a hair's life cycle?

A) Growing B) Resting C) Dormant D) Dying

57)

Which of the following is not part of the nail plate?

A) The free edge of the nail B) Nail body C) The visible portion of the nail D) Nail root

58)

Which epidermal cells are found in the eponychium of the nail?

A) Stratum basale cells B) Stratum lucidum cells C) Stratum corneum cells D) Stratum granulosum cells

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59)

What is considered the nail's growth center?

A) Nail groove B) Nail plate C) Nail matrix D) Nail fold

60)

Which of the following statements is not a description of how skin protects the body?

A) Cornified stratum corneum makes it hard for pathogens to enter.

B) The skin's surface has an acidic pH. C) The skin has dendritic cells that respond to pathogens.

D) All of these are descriptions of how the skin protects the body.

61)

Why is vitamin D production by the skin important to the body?

A) Vitamin D adds strength to the skin, making it hard to penetrate.

B) Vitamin D protects the skin from pathogens.

C) Vitamin D protects the skin from UV light.

D) Vitamin D is necessary for calcium absorption.

62)

How does the process of sweating help the body regulate temperature?

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A) Sweat is cold and the production of it decreases body temperature.

B) Sweat produced on the skin will evaporate and cool the body if body temperature is too high.

C) Sweat helps trap cool air against the skin thereby reducing body temperature.

D) Sweat causes vasodilation which allows the core temperature of the body to drop.

63)

The fact that the epidermis is waterproof allows the skin to perform what function?

A) Nonverbal communication B) Water retention C) Vitamin D production D) Sensation

64)

What are the two ways in which wounds heal?

A) Fibrosis and granulation B) Regeneration and contracture C) Regeneration and fibrosis D) Contracture and granulation

65)

Wounds that heal by regeneration result in what?

A) The wound is healed with the same tissue that was damaged and normal function is restored.

B) The wound is healed with scar tissue and normal function is not restored.

C) The wound is healed with the same tissue that was damaged and normal function is not restored.

D) The wound is healed with scar tissue and normal function is restored.

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66)

Wounds that heal by fibrosis result in what?

A) The wound is healed with the same tissue that was damaged and normal function is restored.

B) The wound is healed with scar tissue and normal function is not restored.

C) The wound is healed with the same tissue that was damaged and normal function is not restored.

D) The wound is healed with scar tissue and normal function is restored.

67)

Which of the following lists the steps to wound healing in the correct order?

A) Bleeding and clotting of the wound, wound contracture, granulation tissue fills in the wound's clot, a cut into the dermis B) A cut into the dermis, bleeding and clotting of the wound, granulation tissue fills in the wound's clot, wound contracture C) Wound contracture, a cut into the dermis, bleeding and clotting of the wound, granulation tissue fills in the wound's clot D) A cut into the dermis, bleeding and clotting of the wound, wound contracture, granulation tissue fills in the wound's clot

68)

What type of burn is the most common?

A) First-degree burn B) Second-degree burn C) Third-degree burn D) Fourth-degree burn

69)

What type of burn is also referred to as a partial thickness burn?

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A) First-degree burn B) Second-degree burn C) Third-degree burn D) Fourth-degree burn

70)

What type of burn involves the epidermis, the dermis, and the hypodermis?

A) First-degree burn B) Second-degree burn C) Third-degree burn D) Fourth-degree burn

71)

All of the following are signs of a second-degree burn except which one?

A) Pain B) Redness C) Blisters D) Charring

72)

All of the following are signs of a first-degree burn except which one?

A) Pain B) Redness C) Blisters D) Swelling

73)

Which of the following is a sign of a third-degree burn?

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A) Pain B) Redness C) Blisters D) Charring

74)

How can we determine the extent of a burn-in relation to the body's surface area?

A) The rule of nines B) The degree of the burn C) The rule of quarters D) The ABCD rule

75)

Which statement incorrectly describes a change in skin as it ages?

A) The dermis gets thinner.

B) The skin sags and wrinkles.

C) Blood vessels are quicker to respond to temperature regulation.

D) The number of dermal sweat glands decreases.

76)

Which statement correctly describes the effect of aging on hair?

A) Terminal hairs become coarser.

B) Hair on scalp becomes thicker.

C) Hair follicle sebaceous glands increase in number, causing hair to be oilier.

D) Loss of melanocytes in the skin has caused the hair to turn gray.

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77) Which diagnostic test removes a piece of tissue from the body so that it can be analyzed in the laboratory?

A) Skin biopsy B) Skin scraping C) Wood's light D) Wood's biopsy

78)

Which diagnostic test may be performed to determine pigment changes in the skin?

A) Skin biopsy B) Skin scraping C) Wood's light D) Wood's biopsy

79) Which diagnostic test may show the presence of scabies mites that have burrowed into the skin and deposited their eggs?

A) Skin biopsy B) Skin scraping C) Wood's light D) Wood's biopsy

80)

Which type of skin cancer is the most common?

A) Basal cell carcinoma B) Squamous cell carcinoma C) Malignant melanoma D) Malignant carcinoma

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81)

What type of skin cancer starts in the melanocytes?

A) Basal cell carcinoma B) Squamous cell carcinoma C) Malignant melanoma D) Malignant carcinoma

82)

Which of the following answer choices correctly lists the ABCDEs of skin cancer?

A) Asymmetry, border, color, diameter, evolving B) Asymmetry, border, cancerous, diameter, evolving C) Abstract, border, color, diameter, evading D) Asymmetry, border, color, deadly, emerging

83)

Which skin infection is caused by a bacterium?

A) Cellulitis B) Wart C) Tinea infection D) Cancer

84)

Which skin infection is caused by a fungus?

A) Cellulitis B) Wart C) Tinea infection D) Cancer

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85)

What type of infection causes warts?

A) Bacterial B) Fungal C) Viral D) Cancerous

86)

Cellulitis is caused by what type of infection?

A) Bacterial B) Fungal C) Viral D) Cancerous

87)

Which skin infection is caused by a virus?

A) Cellulitis B) Wart C) Tinea infection D) Cancer

88) Which skin condition is characterized by ulcerated tissue caused by the pressure of a bony prominence in the body and another surface?

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A) Scleroderma B) Hives C) Cancer D) Decubitus ulcers

89)

Which skin condition is also known as urticaria?

A) Scleroderma B) Hives C) Cancer D) Decubitus ulcers

90) Which skin condition is a type of autoimmune disease that results in excess connective tissue in the skin and various organs?

A) Scleroderma B) Hives C) Cancer D) Decubitus ulcers

91) Which skin condition is characterized by an overgrowth of skin cells and improper keratinization?

A) Scleroderma B) Warts C) Psoriasis D) Dermatitis

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92) Which skin condition is characterized by inflammation of the skin caused by a direct contact with a skin irritant or an allergic reaction?

A) Scleroderma B) Warts C) Psoriasis D) Dermatitis

93)

All of the following skin conditions are infections of the skin except which one?

A) Impetigo B) Warts C) Psoriasis D) Scabies

94)

Which of the following skin conditions is a type of dermatitis?

A) Scleroderma B) Warts C) Psoriasis D) Atopic eczema

95)

What causes the skin conditions psoriasis and scleroderma?

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A) Viral infection B) Autoimmune disease C) Bacterial infection D) Allergic reaction

96)

What is the name for the procedure used to quantify the extent of a burn?

A) Wood's rule B) Rule of nines C) Rule of quarters D) Rule of percentages

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 03_3e_ Roiger 1) A 2) C 3) D 4) B 5) A 6) D 7) B 8) D 9) B 10) C 11) B 12) A 13) D 14) B 15) C 16) D 17) A 18) B 19) D 20) D 21) A 22) C 23) C 24) B 25) A 26) B Version 1

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27) A 28) A 29) A 30) C 31) D 32) D 33) D 34) B 35) D 36) C 37) D 38) A 39) D 40) B 41) D 42) A 43) A 44) C 45) A 46) B 47) D 48) C 49) B 50) C 51) A 52) C 53) A 54) C 55) A 56) C Version 1

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57) D 58) C 59) C 60) D 61) D 62) B 63) B 64) C 65) A 66) B 67) D 68) A 69) B 70) C 71) D 72) C 73) D 74) A 75) C 76) A 77) A 78) C 79) B 80) A 81) C 82) A 83) A 84) C 85) C 86) A Version 1

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87) B 88) D 89) B 90) A 91) C 92) D 93) C 94) D 95) B 96) B

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CHAPTER 4 The Skeletal System 1)

Which of the following word roots refers to a rib?

A) cost/o B) orth/o C) myel/o D) stern/o

2)

Which of the following word roots refers to straight?

A) humer/o B) ili/o C) orth/o D) carp/o

3)

Which of the following word roots refers to the lower back?

A) maxill/o B) femor/o C) phalang/o D) lumb/o

4)

Which of the following word roots refers to a joint?

A) burs/o B) arthr/o C) tars/o D) synov/o

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5)

Which of the following word roots refers to the upper jaw?

A) maxill/o B) crani/o C) pub/o D) oste/o

6)

Which word root does not refer to a bone in the hip?

A) pub/o B) ili/o C) ischi/o D) condyl/o

7)

Which of the following word roots refers to cartilage?

A) chondr/o B) carp/o C) cranio/o D) cost/o

8)

What are the two major divisions of the human skeleton?

A) Sagittal and frontal B) Coronal and lambdoidal C) Longitudinal and transverse D) Axial and appendicular

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9)

Which of the following is not part of the appendicular skeleton?

A) Femur B) Rib C) Clavicle D) Radius

10)

Which of the following is not part of the axial skeleton?

A) Tibia B) Cervical vertebra C) Zygomatic bone D) The hyoid bone

11)

Which statement best describes a short bone?

A) A bone that looks like a sheet of modeling clay molded over an object B) A bone that is longer than it is wide and has clubby ends C) A bone that is not longer than it is wide D) A bone that looks like a sesame seed

12)

Which statement best describes a flat bone?

A) A bone that looks like a sheet of modeling clay molded over an object B) A bone that is longer than it is wide and has clubby ends C) A bone that is not longer than it is wide D) A bone that looks like a sesame seed

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13)

Which bone is not a flat bone?

A) Rib B) Sternum C) Frontal bone D) Vertebra

14) What type of bone resembles a sesame seed and grows in tendons where there is a lot of friction?

A) Short bone B) Sesamoid bone C) Long bone D) Flat bone

15)

What type of bone is a vertebra?

A) Short bone B) Sesamoid bone C) Irregular bone D) Flat bone

16)

Which of the following is not a cranial bone?

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A) Frontal B) Occipital C) Temporal D) Hyoid

17) What is the name of the large opening in the occipital bone that allows the spinal cord to exit the cranial cavity?

A) Foramen magnum B) Magnum foramen C) Occipital foramen D) Foramen occipital

18)

What type of bone is the sphenoid bone?

A) Short bone B) Sesamoid bone C) Long bone D) Irregular bone

19)

What structure protects the pituitary gland?

A) The cribriform plate B) The concha C) The ethmoid bone D) The sella turcica

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20)

Which of the following bones is not a facial bone?

A) Frontal B) Lacrimal C) Zygomatic D) Nasal

21)

What is a sinus?

A) A hole in a facial bone that allows nerves and blood vessels to pass-through B) An attachment point for ligaments C) A cavity within a bone D) An attachment point for tendons

22)

Which bone does not contain a sinus?

A) Frontal B) Ethmoid C) Mandible D) Sphenoid

23)

What are sinuses lined with?

A) A thin layer of smooth muscle B) A mucous membrane C) Hyaline cartilage D) A serous membrane

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24)

Which of the following is not a function of the mucous membrane lining the sinuses?

A) To fill the sinus with air B) To warm the air C) To give resonance to the voice D) To moisten the air

25)

How many bones make up the adult spinal column?

A) 20 B) 26 C) 31 D) 22

26)

Which of the following lists the number of each type of vertebrae correctly?

A) Seven cervical vertebrae, twelve thoracic vertebrae, five lumbar vertebrae, one sacrum, and one coccyx B) Seven cervical vertebrae, five thoracic vertebrae, twelve lumbar vertebrae, one sacrum, and one coccyx C) Twelve cervical vertebrae, five thoracic vertebrae, five lumbar vertebrae, one sacrum, and one coccyx D) Seven cervical vertebrae, twelve thoracic vertebrae, five lumbar vertebrae, two sacra, and one coccyx

27)

Starting at the superior end of the spinal column, name the types of vertebrae in order.

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A) Cervical, thoracic, coccygeal, lumbar, sacral B) Thoracic, cervical, sacral, lumbar, coccygeal C) Cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacral, coccygeal.

D) Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccygeal

28)

What is the most common abnormal curvature of the spine?

A) Scoliosis B) Lordosis C) Kyphosis D) Swayback

29)

Which statement correctly describes kyphosis?

A) Lateral curvature of the spine B) Exaggerated curvature of the lumbar vertebrae C) Exaggerated abnormal curvature of the thoracic vertebrae D) Swayback

30)

Which term describes an exaggerated curvature of the lumbar vertebrae?

A) Scoliosis B) Lordosis C) Kyphosis D) Hunchback

31)

What is the function of the spinous and transverse processes of the vertebrae?

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A) To allow spinal nerves to exit a vertebra B) To support the weight of the body C) To allow the spinal cord to pass through the vertebrae D) To serve as attachment points for tendons and ligaments

32)

What is the function of the vertebral foramen?

A) To allow spinal nerves to exit the vertebra B) To support the weight of the body C) To allow the spinal cord to pass through the vertebra D) To serve as an attachment point for tendons and ligaments

33)

Which of the following is not a function of an intervertebral disk?

A) To support body weight B) To allow nerves to exit between the vertebrae C) To act as shock absorbers D) To cushion the vertebrae

34)

What is compression of the intervertebral disk causing it to bulge out laterally called?

A) An intervertebral hernia B) An intervertebral compression C) A herniated compression D) A herniated disc

35)

What type of vertebrae are the axis and the atlas?

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A) Cervical B) Thoracic C) Lumbar D) Sacral

36)

How many cervical vertebrae are in the spinal column?

A) 7 B) 12 C) 5 D) 2

37)

How many thoracic vertebrae are in the spinal column?

A) 7 B) 12 C) 5 D) 2

38)

Which type of vertebra has costal facets?

A) Cervical B) Thoracic C) Lumbar D) Sacral

39)

What allows the ribs to attach to the thoracic vertebrae?

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A) Odontoid processes B) Costal facets C) Xyphoid processes D) Intertubercular grooves

40)

How many lumbar vertebrae are in the spinal column?

A) 7 B) 12 C) 5 D) 2

41)

Which of the following is not a function of the sternum?

A) To protect the heart B) To serve as an attachment site for the ribs C) To protect the lungs D) To serve as an attachment point for the pectoral girdle

42)

Which part of the sternum is most likely to be broken during CPR?

A) Manubrium B) Body C) Xyphoid process D) Hyoid

43)

Which statement is false regarding the hyoid bone?

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A) The hyoid bone is attached to the mandible.

B) The hyoid bone is not attached to another bone.

C) The hyoid bone forms the angle between the chin and neck.

D) A fractured hyoid bone can be an indication of strangulation.

44)

Which of the following is not a type of rib?

A) True B) False C) Costal D) Floating

45)

Which statement correctly describes the pectoral girdle and the pelvic girdle?

A) The pelvic girdle bones attach the arm bones to the axial skeleton while the pectoral girdle bones attach the leg bones to the axial skeleton.

B) The pectoral girdle bones attach the arm bones to the axial skeleton while the pelvic girdle bones attach the leg bones to the axial skeleton.

C) The pectoral girdle bones attach the arm bones to the axial skeleton while the pelvic girdle bones attach the leg bones to the appendicular skeleton.

D) The pectoral girdle bones attach the arm bones to the appendicular skeleton while the pelvic girdle bones attach the leg bones to the axial skeleton.

46)

Which two bones connect the arm to the axial skeleton?

A) Fibula and tibia B) Radius and ulna C) Humerus and femur D) Clavicle and scapula

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47)

Which of the following is not found on the scapula?

A) Acromion process B) Coracoid process C) Glenoid cavity D) Capitulum

48)

What is the proximal long bone of the arm?

A) Ulna B) Radius C) Humerus D) Clavicle

49)

What is the function of the deltoid tuberosity of the humerus?

A) To articulate with the glenoid cavity of the scapula B) To provide a point of attachment for tendons C) To articulate with the radius D) To articulate with the scapula

50)

Which of the following is not found on the humerus?

A) Head B) Greater tubercle C) Styloid process D) Capitulum

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51)

Which bones are long bones of the forearm?

A) Fibula and tibia B) Radius and ulna C) Humerus and femur D) Clavicle and scapula

52)

Which of the following bones are located in the hand?

A) Metatarsals B) Tarsals C) Metacarpals D) Calcaneus

53)

Which of the following is not a bone in the pelvic girdle?

A) Acetabulum B) Ilium C) Ischium D) Pubis

54)

The two pelvic girldes, sacrum, and coccyx from which structure?

A) Sacroiliac joint B) Pubic symphysis C) Pelvis D) Acetabulum

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55)

What is the function of the pubic symphysis?

A) To connect the right and left pelvic girdles B) The hip socket that allows the pelvic girdle to articulate with the femur C) To connect the ilium and the sacrum D) To fuse the ilium, ischium, and pubis together

56)

What is the proximal long bone of the leg?

A) Tibia B) Fibula C) Femur D) Ilium

57)

Which bone articulates with the femur at the knee?

A) Tibia B) Fibula C) Patella D) Ilium

58)

Where are tarsal bones found?

A) The hand B) The pelvic girdle C) The ankle and foot D) The toes

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59)

Which of the following features can be found on the humerus, radius, and femur?

A) Greater tuberosity B) Lateral condyle C) Head D) Styloid process

60)

Which of the following is found outside of the foot and ankle?

A) Talus B) Tarsal C) Metatarsal D) Phalanx

61)

The Achilles tendon attaches the calf muscles to what bone?

A) Talus B) Calcaneus C) Navicular D) Cuneiform

62)

What is the function of hydroxyapatite in bone?

A) To make the matrix flexible B) To harden the matrix C) To soften the matrix D) To secrete the matrix

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63)

What are osteoblasts?

A) Cells that break down bone B) Cells that build bone C) Cells that build cartilage D) Cells that break down cartilage

64)

What are osteoclasts?

A) Cells that break down bone B) Cells that build bone C) Cells that build cartilage D) Cells that break down cartilage

65)

Which function is not performed by osteoblasts?

A) To build bone B) To allow hard minerals to be deposited in the matrix C) To break down bone when necessary D) To become osteocytes

66) Which disorder is a congenital defect characterized by brittle bones that lack collagen fibers?

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A) Osteogenesis imperfecta B) Rickets C) Osteomalacia D) Osteoarthritis

67)

What type of bone is dense and highly organized?

A) Cancellous bone B) Compact bone C) Haversian bone D) Trabeculae bone

68)

Which statement is false regarding cancellous bone?

A) This type of bone is found in the end of long bones.

B) This type of bone does not have Haversian systems.

C) This type of bone is arranged in slivers and plates called trabeculae.

D) This type of bone is arranged in a series of osteons.

69)

Which of the following is not a feature of compact bone?

A) Lacunae B) Trabeculae C) Haversian canals D) Lamellae

70)

What type of cartilage covers the ends of long bones?

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A) Hyaline cartilage B) Elastic cartilage C) Fibrocartilage D) Fibroelastic cartilage

71)

What type of cartilage is found in the pinna of the ear and in the epiglottis of the throat?

A) Hyaline cartilage B) Elastic cartilage C) Fibrocartilage D) Fibroelastic cartilage

72)

What type of cartilage is found in the intervertebral disks?

A) Hyaline cartilage B) Elastic cartilage C) Fibrocartilage D) Fibroelastic cartilage

73)

Which term is used to describe the shaft of a long bone?

A) Epiphysis B) Metaphysis C) Diaphysis D) Endosteum

74)

Which of the following describes the periosteum?

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A) The fibrous covering of the diaphysis B) The lining of the marrow cavity C) The nutrient artery that enters the diaphysis D) A source of osteoclasts

75)

What part of the long bone is a source of osteoblasts?

A) Articular cartilage B) Red marrow C) Endosteum D) Periosteum

76)

What type of bone marrow is found in the cavity of mature long bones?

A) Yellow B) Red C) White D) Brown

77)

Which statement about red bone marrow is false?

A) Red marrow is composed of stem cells.

B) Red marrow is found in the cavity of adult long bones.

C) Red marrow produces both red and white blood cells and platelets.

D) Red marrow is found in the spaces of cancellous bone.

78)

What type of joint is formed by fibrous ligaments holding a tooth in its socket?

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A) Suture B) Syndesmosis C) Gomphosis D) Symphysis

79)

Which type of joint has a joint cavity?

A) Suture B) Syndesmosis C) Synovial D) Symphysis

80)

Which type of synovial joint has concave surfaces that articulate with one another?

A) Hinge B) Ball and socket C) Saddle D) Gliding

81)

Which statement is false regarding rheumatoid arthritis?

A) It is the most common form of arthritis.

B) It is an autoimmune disorder.

C) It is a progressive disease.

D) It can affect a person of any age.

82)

What is ankylosis?

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A) Creaking noises in arthritic joints B) An autoimmune disorder that attacks synovial membranes C) The destruction of cartilage eventually leading to the fusion of bones D) Arthritis that occurs in people over the age of 40

83)

Which statement is false regarding mineral deposition in bone?

A) Osteoblasts produce hydroxyapatite crystals.

B) Osteoblasts allow hydroxyapatite crystals to be deposited in the matrix.

C) Calcium phosphate circulates through the blood and other bodily fluids.

D) Osteoblasts produce the collagen fibers of the bone matrix.

84)

Which statement about intramembranous ossification is false?

A) It forms the long bones, vertebrae, ribs, sternum, scapula, pelvis, and limb bones of the developing fetus.

B) It forms the bones of the skull in the developing fetus.

C) Osteoblasts deposit bone in membranes.

D) The site of ossification is the center of future bone.

85)

Which statement about endochondral ossification is true?

A) It forms the long bones, vertebrae, ribs, sternum, scapula, pelvis, and limb bones of the developing fetus.

B) It forms the bones of the skull in the developing fetus.

C) Osteoblasts deposit bone in membranes.

D) The site of ossification is the center of future bone.

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86)

Which type of ossification is complete when the epiphyseal plates are completely closed?

A) Intramembranous B) Endochondral C) Intermembranous D) Epichondral

87) Which of the following correctly compares endochondral bone growth and appositional bone growth?

A) Endochondral bone growth deposits bone at the epiphyseal plate, allowing the bone to grow longer. Appositional bone growth occurs in all types of bone and allows bone to become more massive.

B) Endochondral bone growth deposits bone at the epiphyseal plate, allowing the bone to grow wider. Appositional bone growth occurs in all types of bone and allows bone to become more massive.

C) Endochondral bone growth deposits bone at the epiphyseal plate, allowing the bone to grow longer. Appositional bone growth occurs only in long bones and allows bone to become more massive.

D) Appositional bone growth deposits bone at the epiphyseal plate, allowing the bone to grow longer. Endochondral bone growth occurs in all types of bone and allows bone to become more massive.

88)

Which of the following is not required for bone remodeling?

A) Decreased stress on bones B) Increased stress on bones C) Sufficient calcium in the blood D) Sufficient vitamin D in the diet

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89)

What must be present for calcium to be absorbed from the small intestine?

A) Vitamin C B) Fat C) Calcitriol D) Phosphorus

90)

Which gland secrets calcitonin?

A) Parathyroid gland B) Thymus C) Thyroid gland D) Adrenal gland

91)

Which of the following is not a function of PTH?

A) It causes osteoclasts to resorb bone thereby increasing blood calcium levels.

B) It causes the kidneys to reabsorb calcium in order to increase blood calcium levels.

C) It causes osteoblasts to deposit bone, thereby reducing blood calcium levels.

D) It causes the small intestines to absorb calcium in order to increase blood calcium levels.

92)

Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system?

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A) Communication B) Movement C) Protection D) Electrolyte balance

93) What is the relationship between bone deposition and bone resorption in people 45 and older?

A) Deposition = Resorption B) Deposition < Resorption C) Deposition > Resorption D) There is no relationship between deposition and resorption.

94)

What type of fracture is characterized by a crack in the bone?

A) Open B) Displaced C) Hairline D) Compression

95)

Which of the following is true about closed reduction?

A) Closed reduction sets bone in proper alignment using surgery.

B) Closed reduction uses pins, plates and screws to ensure bones stay aligned.

C) Closed reduction sets bones in proper alignment without using surgery.

D) Closed reduction moves the fragments of fractured bone to ensure healing.

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96) Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry is commonly used to diagnose which of the following skeletal conditions?

A) Osteomyelitis B) Gout C) Cleft palate D) Osteoporosis

97)

Which statement regarding X-rays is false?

A) X-rays use radiation.

B) X-rays and DEXA scans both measure bone density.

C) X-rays allow the visualization of dense structures.

D) X-rays can be used to visualize fractures associated with osteoporosis.

98)

Which bone disorder does not involve softening of the bone?

A) Osteoarthritis B) Osteoporosis C) Osteomalacia D) Rickets

99)

Which of the following is not an abnormal curvature of the spine?

A) Scoliosis B) Lordosis C) Kyphosis D) Osteoporosis

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100)

Which of the following does not directly affect the joints?

A) Gout B) Rheumatoid arthritis C) Rickets D) Bursitis

101) Which condition is characterized by a congenital defect resulting in failure of the hard and/or soft palate to fuse?

A) Cleft palate B) Rheumatoid arthritis C) Rickets D) Bursitis

102)

Which condition is characterized by a malignant tumor of the bone?

A) Chondrosarcoma B) Osteomyelitis C) Osteosarcoma D) Mastoiditis

103)

What type of feedback loop does the process of mineral deposition use?

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A) Positive B) Negative C) Neutral D) Inhibitory

104)

What is the function of calcitonin?

A) To cause osteoclasts to resorb bone thereby increasing blood calcium levels B) To causes the kidneys to reabsorb calcium in order to increase blood calcium levels C) To causes osteoblasts to deposit bone, thereby reducing blood calcium levels D) To causes the small intestine to absorb calcium in order to increase blood calcium levels

105) Which function is directly related to the fact that the skeletal system is a mineral reservoir?

A) Communication B) Movement C) Protection D) Electrolyte balance

106)

Which of the following age-related changes is linked to a loss of height?

A) Hormonal changes B) Thinning vertebrae C) Long bones losing mass D) Stiffening joints

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107)

What type of fracture results in the bone being out of alignment?

A) Greenstick B) Depressed C) Displaced D) Compression

108)

What materials make up a soft callus?

A) Cancellous bone and marrow B) Compact bone and collagen C) Collagen and fibrocartilage D) Cancellous bone and fibrocartilage

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 04_3e_ Roiger 1) A 2) C 3) D 4) B 5) A 6) D 7) A 8) D 9) B 10) A 11) C 12) A 13) D 14) B 15) C 16) D 17) A 18) D 19) D 20) A 21) C 22) C 23) B 24) A 25) B 26) A Version 1

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27) D 28) A 29) C 30) B 31) D 32) C 33) B 34) D 35) A 36) A 37) B 38) B 39) B 40) C 41) C 42) C 43) A 44) C 45) B 46) D 47) D 48) C 49) B 50) C 51) B 52) C 53) A 54) C 55) A 56) C Version 1

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57) A 58) C 59) C 60) D 61) B 62) B 63) B 64) A 65) C 66) A 67) B 68) D 69) B 70) A 71) B 72) C 73) C 74) A 75) D 76) A 77) B 78) C 79) C 80) C 81) A 82) C 83) A 84) A 85) A 86) B Version 1

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87) A 88) A 89) C 90) C 91) C 92) A 93) B 94) C 95) C 96) D 97) B 98) A 99) D 100) C 101) A 102) C 103) A 104) C 105) D 106) B 107) C 108) C

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CHAPTER 5 The Muscular System 1)

Which of the following word roots refers to muscle?

A) Myo/o B) Myco/o C) Sacr/o D) Sthen/o

2)

Which of the following word roots refers to strength?

A) Myo/o B) Muscul/o C) Sacr/o D) Sthen/o

3)

Which of the following word roots refers to the flesh?

A) Myo/o B) Muscul/o C) Sarc/o D) Sthen/o

4) Which of the following terms refers to the attachment of a muscle to the bone or structure that does not move when the muscle contracts?

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A) Insertion B) Origin C) Belly D) Tendon

5) Which of the following terms refers to the attachment of a muscle to the bone or structure thatdoes move when the muscle contracts?

A) Insertion B) Origin C) Belly D) Tendon

6) Which of the following terms refers to a muscle that has an origin and insertion located in the same body region?

A) Bipennate B) Concentric C) Intrinsic D) Extrinsic

7) Which of the following terms refers to a muscle that has an origin located in a different body region than its insertion?

A) Concentric B) Unipennate C) Intrinsic D) Extrinsic

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8)

What does the term intrinsic refer to in regard to muscle?

A) Intrinsic describes a muscle that has an origin and insertion located in the same body region.

B) Intrinsic describes a muscle that has an origin and insertion located in different body regions.

C) Intrinsic describes the attachment of a muscle to the bone or structure that does not move when the muscle contracts.

D) Intrinsic describes the attachment of a muscle to the bone or structure that does move when the muscle contracts.

9)

What does the term extrinsic refer to in regard to muscle?

A) Extrinsic describes a muscle that has an origin and insertion located in the same body region.

B) Extrinsic describes a muscle that has an origin and insertion located in different body regions.

C) Extrinsic describes the attachment of a muscle to the bone or structure that does not move when the muscle contracts.

D) Extrinsic describes the attachment of a muscle to the bone or structure that does move when the muscle contracts.

10)

What is a fixator?

A) A muscle that holds an origin stable for another muscle B) A muscle that has the same action C) The main muscle of the synergist to perform the action D) A muscle that has the opposite action

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11)

What is a prime mover?

A) A muscle that holds an origin stable for another muscle B) A muscle that has the same action as the antagonist C) The main muscle that performs an action D) A muscle that has the opposite action of the synergist

12)

What is a synergist?

A) A muscle that holds an origin stable for another muscle B) A muscle that has the same action as the prime mover C) A muscle that opposes the agonist D) A muscle that has the opposite action of the primer mover

13)

What is an antagonist?

A) A muscle that holds an origin stable for another muscle B) A muscle that has the same action as the agonist C) A muscle that aids the prime mover D) A muscle that has the opposite action of the prime mover

14)

What is the term for a muscle that holds an origin stable for another muscle?

A) Fixator B) Synergist C) Prime mover D) Antagonist

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15)

What is the term for muscles that have the same action?

A) Fixators B) Synergists C) Prime movers D) Antagonists

16)

What is the term for muscles that have opposite actions?

A) Fixators B) Synergists C) Prime movers D) Antagonists

17)

What is the term for the main muscle that performs an action?

A) Fixator B) Synergist C) Prime mover D) Antagonist

18)

Which term describes bending a body part anteriorly (except in regard to the knee)?

A) Flexion B) Extension C) Abduction D) Adduction

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19)

Which term describes bending a body part posteriorly (except in regard to the knee)?

A) Flexion B) Extension C) Abduction D) Adduction

20)

Which term describes moving a body part away from the midline?

A) Flexion B) Extension C) Abduction D) Adduction

21)

Which term describes moving a body part toward the midline?

A) Flexion B) Extension C) Abduction D) Adduction

22)

A person doing jumping jacks is performing which muscle actions?

A) Extension and flexion B) Abduction and adduction C) Protraction and retraction D) Inversion and eversion

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23)

A person moving their jaw to the side is performing what muscle action?

A) Protraction B) Retraction C) Lateral excursion D) Medial excursion

24)

A person bringing part of the body backward is performing which muscle action?

A) Protraction B) Retraction C) Lateral excursion D) Medial excursion

25)

A person bringing part of the body forward is performing which muscle action?

A) Protraction B) Retraction C) Lateral excursion D) Medial excursion

26) If a person rotates the soles of their feet together so they are facing each other, what muscle action is he or she performing?

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A) Dorsiflexion B) Plantar flexion C) Inversion D) Eversion

27) If a person stands on their heels with their toes pointing up, what action are they performing?

A) Dorsiflexion B) Plantar flexion C) Inversion D) Eversion

28) If a person stands on their tiptoes with their heels off the floor, what action are they performing?

A) Dorsiflexion B) Plantar flexion C) Inversion D) Eversion

29) If a person rotates the soles of their feet away from one another, what action are they performing?

A) Dorsiflexion B) Plantar flexion C) Inversion D) Eversion

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30) If you can hold soup in the palm of your hand without spilling it, what muscle action are you performing?

A) Rotation B) Circumduction C) Supination D) Pronation

31) If you pour soup from your hand by holding the bowl in your palm and turning it upside down, what muscle action are you performing?

A) Rotation B) Circumduction C) Supination D) Pronation

32)

What muscle action means to spin on an axis?

A) Rotation B) Circumduction C) Supination D) Pronation

33)

What muscle action means to make a circle with part of the body?

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A) Rotation B) Circumduction C) Supination D) Pronation

34) A hitchhiker is performing what muscle action with their thumb when trying to "thumb" a ride?

A) Opposition B) Reposition C) Elevation D) Depression

35)

What muscle action describes bringing the thumb into the palm?

A) Opposition B) Reposition C) Elevation D) Depression

36)

What muscle action describes raising the shoulders or closing the jaw?

A) Opposition B) Reposition C) Elevation D) Depression

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37)

What muscle action describes lowering the shoulders or opening the jaw?

A) Opposition B) Reposition C) Elevation D) Depression

38)

Which of the following is not a muscle of the head or neck?

A) Orbicularis Oris B) Occipitalis C) Pectoralis major D) Buccinator

39)

Which of the following is not found in the thorax or abdomen?

A) Orbicularis Oris B) Diaphragm C) Pectoralis major D) Rectus abdominus

40)

Which of the following is not found on the back or buttocks?

A) Deltoid B) Trapezius C) Erector spinae D) Gluteus medius

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41)

Which of the following is not found on the arm or forearm?

A) Deltoid B) Brachialis C) Erector spinae D) Extensor carpi ulnaris

42)

Which of the following is not found on the thigh or leg?

A) Gracilis B) Brachialis C) Sartorius D) Soleus

43)

Which of the following muscles close the eye?

A) Gracilis B) Brachialis C) Orbicularis oculi D) Soleus

44)

Which of the following muscles has an insertion on the mandible?

A) Temporalis B) Masseter C) Platysma D) All of these muscles insert on the mandible.

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45)

What is the origin of the frontalis muscle?

A) Skin of the forehead B) Epicranial aponeurosis C) Temporal bone D) Medial eye orbit

46)

Which group of muscles below are synergists?

A) Frontalis and occipitalis B) Buccinator and sternocleidomastoid C) Temporalis and masseter D) Masseter and platysma

47)

Which group of muscles below are antagonists?

A) Frontalis and occipitalis B) Buccinator and sternocleidomastoid C) Temporalis and masseter D) Masseter and platysma

48) Which answer choice lists the layers of the abdominal wall from most superficial to deepest?

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A) Transverse abdominal, external abdominal oblique, internal abdominal oblique B) Internal abdominal oblique, external abdominal oblique, transverse abdominal C) Internal abdominal oblique, transverse abdominal, external abdominal oblique D) External abdominal oblique, internal abdominal oblique, transverse abdominal

49)

Which of the following muscles does not originate on the ribs?

A) Pectoralis major B) Serratus anterior C) Diaphragm D) External abdominal oblique

50)

What is the function of the rectus abdominus?

A) To compress the thoracic cavity B) To compress the abdomen C) To flex the spine D) To rotate the waist

51)

What is the insertion of the pectoralis major?

A) Scapula B) Humerus C) Ribs D) Pubis

52)

Which of the following extends and laterally rotates the hip?

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A) Trapezius B) Latissimus dorsi C) Gluteus maximus D) Gluteus medius

53)

Which of the following does not flex the arm at the elbow?

A) Biceps brachii B) Triceps brachii C) Brachialis D) Brachioradialis

54)

Which of the following does not originate on the humerus?

A) Biceps brachii B) Triceps brachii C) Brachialis D) Brachioradialis

55)

Which of the following muscles inserts on the metacarpals and the carpals?

A) Extensor carpi radialis B) Extensor carpi ulnaris C) Flexor carpi radialis D) Flexor carpi ulnaris

56)

In the forearm, where do all the flexors originate?

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A) At the lateral epicondyle of the humerus B) At the medial epicondyle of the femur C) At the medial epicondyle of the humerus D) At the lateral epicondyle of the femur

57)

What is the function of the sartorius?

A) To flex the knee and flex the hip B) To flex the knee and adduct the hip C) To extend the knee and flex the hip D) To extend the knee

58)

Which of the following is not part of the hamstring group?

A) Biceps femoris B) Semitendinosus C) Semimembranosus D) Gracilis

59)

Which of the following do not originate on the femur?

A) Rectus femoris B) Vastus lateralis C) Vastus medialis D) Vastus intermedius

60)

The gracilis, adductor longus, and pectineus are synergists that perform what function?

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A) Hip extension B) Hip flexion C) Hip adduction D) Hip abduction

61)

Which of the following accurately describes the gastrocnemius and soleus?

A) They are synergists for doriflexion.

B) They are synergists for plantar flexion.

C) They are ntagonists for plantar flexion.

D) They evert the foot.

62)

Which muscle dorsiflexes and inverts the foot?

A) Gastrocnemius B) Soleus C) Peroneus D) Tibialis anterior

63)

In a skeletal muscle, what is the connective tissue that surrounds a fascicle?

A) Fascia B) Epimysium C) Endomysium D) Perimysium

64)

What is the layer of connective tissue that surrounds an entire muscle?

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A) Fascia B) Epimysium C) Endomysium D) Perimysium

65) What is the connective tissue that surrounds several muscles of an area forming muscle compartments?

A) Fascia B) Epimysium C) Endomysium D) Perimysium

66)

What is the cell membrane of muscle fiber called?

A) Sarcolemma B) Sarcoplasmic reticulum C) Sarcomere D) Myofibril

67)

What are the functional units of a skeletal muscle fiber?

A) Sarcolemma B) Sarcoplasmic reticulum C) Sarcomere D) Myofibril

68)

Z-lines form the ends of what structure?

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A) Sarcolemma B) Sarcoplasmic reticulum C) Sarcomere D) Myofibril

69)

Which of the following statements about sarcomeres is false?

A) Sarcomeres are made of thick and thin myofilaments.

B) Only thick myofilaments attach to Z-lines.

C) Thin myofilaments are composed of actin, tropomyosin, and troponin.

D) Thick myofilaments are composed of myosin.

70) Which term describes the ability of a muscle cell to be stretched and return to its original shape?

A) Excitability B) Extensibility C) Contractility D) Elasticity

71)

Which term describes the ability of a muscle cell to shorten with force?

A) Excitability B) Extensibility C) Contractility D) Elasticity

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72)

A stimulated muscle cell signals the release of what chemical from the synaptic knob?

A) Acetylcholine B) Actin C) Myosin D) Tropomyosin

73)

Which statement about a muscle's response to nerve stimulation is true?

A) A muscle's response to nerve stimulation is all or nothing.

B) A muscle's response to nerve stimulation is based on the threshold amount of acetylcholine fitting into receptors.

C) A muscle's response to nerve stimulation is ultimately responsible for conductivity and contractility.

D) All of these answers are correct.

74) What theory of muscle contraction involves thick myofilaments grabbing thin myofilaments and pulling them toward the center of the sarcomere?

A) Cross-bridge theory B) Power stroke theory C) Sliding filament theory D) All or nothing theory

75)

What is a power stroke?

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A) The electrical impulse that travels down the nerve cell to stimulate the muscle cell B) The grabbing hold of the actin active sites by myosin C) Myosin pulling on actin to draw Z-lines toward the center, shortening the sarcomere D) The binding of ATP to myosin

76) In which phase of a contraction is calcium actively transported back to the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

A) Latent phase B) Contraction phase C) Relaxation phase D) Refractory phase

77) Which of the following describes an event that occurs in the latent phase of a muscle contraction?

A) Acetylcholine is released and fits into the receptors on the muscle cell.

B) The muscle goes back to shape because it is elastic.

C) Calcium is actively transported back to the sarcoplasmic reticulum and the muscle produces acetylcholinesterase to remove the acetylcholine from the receptors.

D) The muscle cell shortens.

78)

What term describes a sustained muscle contraction?

A) Tetany B) Tetanus C) Twitch D) Tetani

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79)

What is a motor unit?

A) The use of multiple muscles for one movement B) A single nerve cell and all the muscle cells it stimulates C) A single nerve cell D) Hundreds of nerve endings stimulating a group of muscles

80)

Which statement correctly compares isotonic and isometric contractions?

A) Isotonic contractions involve increased tension in the muscle that results in no movement, while isometric contractions involve increased tension in the muscle that results in movement.

B) Isometric contractions involve increased tension in the muscle that results in movement, while isotonic contractions involve increased tension in the muscle resulting in no movement.

C) Isotonic contractions involve increased tension in the muscle that results in movement, while isometric contractions involve increased tension in the muscle resulting in no movement.

D) Isotonic contractions involve increased tension in the muscle that results in movement while isometric contractions involve decreased tension in the muscle resulting in no movement.

81)

What is a lever?

A) Weight to be lifted B) A force applied to lift a weight C) A pivot point that does not move D) A rigid object used to lift something

82)

Which of the following is at the insertion of the muscle?

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A) Lever B) Fulcrum C) Resistance D) Effort

83)

What is the most common lever system in the human body?

A) First class B) Second class C) Third class D) Fourth class

84)

In the lever where the biceps brachii flexes the elbow, what is the effort?

A) The hand B) The insertion of the muscle on the radius C) The radius D) The elbow joint

85)

What type of cellular respiration do muscle cells perform when they do not have oxygen?

A) Glycolysis B) Aerobic C) Anaerobic D) Either aerobic or anaerobic

86)

Which statement comparing aerobic and anaerobic respiration is false?

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A) Aerobic respiration takes longer than anaerobic respiration.

B) Aerobic respiration requires oxygen while anaerobic respiration does not.

C) Anaerobic respiration produces more ATP than aerobic respiration.

D) Anaerobic respiration produces lactic acid while aerobic respiration produces carbon dioxide.

87)

Which statement about muscle fatigue is false?

A) The levels of lactic acid in the muscle build up during muscle fatigue.

B) Muscle cells become less able to respond to nerve stimuli.

C) The muscle may weaken to the point of being unable to respond.

D) Lactic acid build up is a slow process so activity fueled by anaerobic respiration can be extended.

88)

Which type of muscle tissue is voluntary and under conscious control?

A) Skeletal B) Cardiac C) Smooth D) All of the answers are correct

89) Which type of muscle tissue has the ability to self-stimulate, meaning it requires no nerve stimulus for contraction?

A) Skeletal B) Cardiac C) Smooth D) None of the answers are correct

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90)

Which type(s) of muscle tissue perform(s) aerobic respiration?

A) Skeletal B) Cardiac and skeletal C) Smooth and cardiac D) Skeletal, cardiac, and smooth

91)

Which type(s) of muscle tissues perform(s) anaerobic respiration?

A) Skeletal B) Cardiac and smooth C) Smooth D) All three types of muscle tissue perform anaerobic respiration.

92) In addition to the essential and non-essential amino acids required for muscle cell function, what minerals are required?

A) Iron and calcium B) Magnesium and potassium C) Calcium and potassium D) Zinc and iron

93) What is the dietary recommended daily allowance of protein for a person of average weight?

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A) 4,700 mg B) 1,200 mg C) 46–56 g D) 44–60 mg

94)

What is not a function of the muscular system?

A) Communication B) Movement C) Heat production D) Electrolyte balance

95) What function of the muscular system is performed when a person's facial expression can tell you how they feel?

A) Communication B) Movement C) Heat production D) Stability

96)

Which of the following statements about the aging of the muscular system is not true?

A) Muscle mass decreases with age.

B) Fat is deposited in muscle tissue and muscle fibers shrink.

C) Some muscle is replaced by fibrous tissue.

D) Our diet and lifestyle solely determine the rate and extent of muscle loss.

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97)

Electromyography is a diagnostic test used to assess how the muscle responds to what?

A) Heat B) Electric stimuli C) Pressure D) Cold

98) What muscular disorder is characterized by a part of the viscera protruding through the abdominal wall?

A) Hernia B) Cramp C) Muscular dystrophy D) Myasthenia gravis

99) Which disorder describes a group of genetic disorders that result in progressive weakening, degeneration, and replacement of muscle tissue with fibrous scar tissue?

A) Hernia B) Cramp C) Muscular dystrophy D) Myasthenia gravis

100)

Which muscular disorder is characterized by painful muscle spasms?

A) Hernia B) Cramp C) Muscular dystrophy D) Myasthenia gravis

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101) Which muscular disorder is characterized as an autoimmune disorder where antibodies attack the acetylcholine receptors in the neuromuscular junction?

A) Hernia B) Cramp C) Muscular dystrophy D) Myasthenia gravis

102)

Which statement accurately compares sprains and strains?

A) A sprain is a tear in the muscle or tendon while a strain is a tear in the ligament.

B) A sprain is a tear in the ligament while a strain is a tear in muscle tissue or tendons.

C) A sprain is a major strain and both are tears in the ligament.

D) A strain is a minor sprain and both are tears in the tendon or muscle tissue.

103)

Which muscular disorder does not result from an injury or trauma?

A) Compartment syndrome B) Sprain C) Myasthenia gravis D) Strain

104)

Which statement describes muscle atrophy?

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A) Painful muscle spasms B) A tear in the muscle tissue C) Inflammation of the muscle tissue D) Wasting away of muscle tissue

105) Which condition is characterized by pain in the lower front leg along the tibia that commonly occurs after the level of physical activity changes?

A) Sprain B) Myalgia C) Strain D) Shin splints

106)

What is the effect of motor unit recruitment?

A) Involvement of multiple muscles for one movement B) Cramps C) Wave summation D) Hundreds of nerve endings stimulating a group of muscles

107)

Which type of contraction is used when pushing against a door that will not open?

A) Isotonic contraction B) Isometric contraction C) Hypertonic contraction D) Hypotonic contraction

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108)

What is atrophy?

A) A decrease in muscle mass B) Fat is deposition in muscle C) The replacement of muscle tissue with fibrous tissue D) An increase in the number of myofibrils within a muscle fiber

109)

What is a diagnostic test used to assess how the muscle responds to stimuli?

A) EKG B) EMG C) ECG D) EEG

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 05_3e_ Roiger 1) A 2) D 3) C 4) B 5) A 6) C 7) D 8) A 9) B 10) A 11) C 12) B 13) D 14) A 15) B 16) D 17) C 18) A 19) B 20) C 21) D 22) B 23) C 24) B 25) A 26) C Version 1

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27) A 28) B 29) D 30) C 31) D 32) A 33) B 34) B 35) A 36) C 37) D 38) C 39) A 40) A 41) C 42) B 43) C 44) D 45) B 46) C 47) D 48) D 49) C 50) C 51) B 52) C 53) B 54) A 55) B 56) C Version 1

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57) A 58) D 59) A 60) C 61) B 62) D 63) D 64) B 65) A 66) A 67) C 68) C 69) B 70) D 71) C 72) A 73) D 74) C 75) C 76) D 77) A 78) A 79) B 80) C 81) D 82) D 83) C 84) B 85) C 86) C Version 1

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87) D 88) A 89) B 90) D 91) A 92) C 93) C 94) D 95) A 96) D 97) B 98) A 99) C 100) B 101) D 102) B 103) C 104) D 105) D 106) A 107) B 108) A 109) B

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CHAPTER 6 The Nervous System 1)

Which word root refers to the head?

A) Cephal/o B) Cerebell/o C) Cerebr/o D) Dur/o

2)

Which word root refers to toughness?

A) Cephal/o B) Cerebell/o C) Cerebr/o D) Dur/o

3)

Which word root refers to the spinal cord?

A) Mening/o B) Medull/o C) Myel/o D) Neur/o

4)

Which word root refers to the medulla?

A) Mening/o B) Medull/o C) Myel/o D) Neur/o

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5)

Which word root refers to a ganglion?

A) Mening/o B) Gangli/o C) Gli/o D) Neur/o

6)

Which word root does not refer to apart of the brain?

A) Medull/o B) Cerebell/o C) Cerebr/o D) Encephal/o

7) Which of the following word roots refers to the membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord?

A) Mening/o B) Gangli/o C) Gli/o D) Neur/o

8)

What are the two major divisions of the nervous system?

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A) Sensory and motor B) Afferent and efferent C) Central and peripheral D) Parasympathetic and sympathetic

9)

Which of the following is not found in the central nervous system?

A) Sensory neurons B) Medulla oblongata C) Cerebrum D) Thalamus

10)

Which of the following is not a part of the PNS?

A) Sensory neurons B) Motor neurons C) Interneurons D) Sympathetic nerves

11)

Which statement accurately describes sensory and motor neurons?

A) Sensory neurons carry afferent or incoming messages to the brain, while motor neurons carry efferent or outgoing messages away from the brain.

B) Sensory neurons carry afferent or outgoing messages to the brain, while motor neurons carry efferent or incoming messages away from the brain.

C) Sensory neurons carry efferent or incoming messages to the brain, while motor neurons carry afferent or outgoing messages away from the brain.

D) Motor neurons carry afferent or incoming messages to the brain, while sensory neurons carry efferent or outgoing messages away from the brain.

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12)

Which division of the PNS prepares the body for physical activity or fight or flight?

A) Parasympathetic B) Central C) Somatomotor D) Sympathetic

13)

Which part of a neuron carries the nerve impulse?

A) Dendrites B) Body C) Axon D) Nissl substance

14)

Which part of a neuron usually receives the information?

A) Dendrite B) Body C) Axon D) Synaptic knob

15)

What part of the axon is called the trigger zone?

A) Terminal arborization B) Myelin sheath C) Axon hillock D) Synaptic knob

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16)

What is found at the end of each axon?

A) Terminal arborization B) Myelin sheath C) Axon hillock D) Motor end plate

17)

What insulates the axon?

A) Terminal arborization B) Myelin sheath C) Node of Ranvier D) Synaptic knob

18)

Which of the following statements correctly describes white matter and gray matter?

A) Gray matter in the brain and spinal cord is a concentration of myelinated axons, and white matter in the brain and spinal cord is a concentration of dendrites.

B) White matter in the brain and spinal cord is a concentration of unmyelinated axons, and gray matter in the brain and spinal cord is a concentration of dendrites.

C) White matter in the brain and spinal cord is a concentration of myelinated axons, and gray matter in the brain and spinal cord is a concentration of myelinated dendrites.

D) White matter in the brain and spinal cord is a concentration of myelinated axons, and gray matter in the brain and spinal cord is a concentration of dendrites.

19)

Which type of neuron has one process that serves as the dendrite and axon?

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A) Multipolar B) Unipolar C) Bipolar D) Tripolar

20)

Which type of neuron groups together to form ganglia?

A) Multipolar B) Unipolar C) Bipolar D) Tripolar

21)

Which type of neuron is found in the nasal cavity, retina, and inner ear?

A) Multipolar B) Unipolar C) Bipolar D) Tripolar

22)

Which of the following is not a type of neuron?

A) Multipolar B) Unipolar C) Bipolar D) Tripolar

23)

Which of the following types of neurons have sensory functions?

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A) Multipolar B) Unipolar and multipolar C) Bipolar and multipolar D) Unipolar and bipolar

24)

Which neuroglial cell is found in the PNS?

A) Oligodendrocyte B) Astrocyte C) Schwann cell D) Microglial cell

25)

Which two types of neuroglial cells produce myelin?

A) Oligodendrocytes and astrocytes B) Ependymal cells and Schwann cells C) Oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells D) Microglia and satellite cells

26)

Which type of neuroglial cell functions to form the blood-brain barrier?

A) Oligodendrocyte B) Astrocyte C) Satellite cells D) Microglia

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27) Which of the following lists the three meninges in the correct order from superficial to deep?

A) Dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater B) Pia mater, arachnoid mater, dura mater C) Dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid mater D) Pia mater, dura mater, arachnoid mater

28)

*Which of the following meninges are the deepest, closest to the brain and spinal cord?

A) Dura mater B) Pia mater C) Arachnoid mater D) Epidural mater

29)

The epidural space is found between a vertebra and which meningeal layer?

A) Dura mater B) Pia mater C) Arachnoid mater D) Subarachnoid mater

30)

The subarachnoid space is between what two meninges?

A) Dura mater and arachnoid mater B) Pia mater and dura mater C) Dura mater and pia mater D) Arachnoid mater and pia mater

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31)

In which space does CSF circulate?

A) Subarachnoid space B) Epidural space C) Choroid plexus D) Dural sinus

32)

What is the function of CSF?

A) To cushion the brain from impact B) To provide buoyancy so the brain is not damaged by the bony floor of the skull C) To rid the brain and spinal cord of metabolic waste D) All of these are functions of the CSF.

33)

The brain can be divided into four subdivisions?

A) Cerebrum, diencephalon, brainstem, cerebellum B) The Frontal lobe, parietal lobe, temporal lobe, occipital lobe C) Medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain, reticular formation D) Brainstem, cerebrum, pons, cerebellum

34)

The cerebrum is divided into four major lobes?

A) Cerebrum, diencephalon, brainstem, cerebellum B) Frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital C) Medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain, reticular formation D) Dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid mater, epidural mater

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35)

What are the folds on the cerebrum that allow for the extra surface area?

A) Sulci B) Gyri C) Folia D) Fissures

36)

Which lobe of the cerebrum is responsible for general senses like touch?

A) Frontal B) Temporal C) Occipital D) Parietal

37)

Which lobe of the cerebrum is responsible for hearing?

A) Frontal B) Temporal C) Occipital D) Parietal

38)

What is the function of the frontal lobe of the cerebrum?

A) Sense of smell B) Motivation C) Aggression D) All of these are correct.

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39)

What is the function of the occipital lobe of the cerebrum?

A) Hearing B) Smell C) Vision D) Touch

40)

What are the two major components of the diencephalon?

A) Cerebrum and brainstem B) Frontal lobe and parietal lobe C) Medulla oblongata and pons D) Thalamus and hypothalamus

41)

Which of the following is not a function of the hypothalamus?

A) Temperature regulation B) Sexual development C) Autonomic functions D) All of these are functions of the hypothalamus.

42)

The brainstem is composed of what four parts?

A) Cerebrum, diencephalon, brainstem, cerebellum B) Frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital C) Medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain, reticular formation D) Neither of these answers is correct

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43)

Which part of the brainstem serves as a bridge for motor tracts to the cerebellum?

A) Pons B) Midbrain C) Reticular formation D) Medulla oblongata

44) Which part of the brainstem is important for arousal as it determines whether sensory messages will be consciously noticed?

A) Pons B) Midbrain C) Reticular formation D) Medulla oblongata

45)

What is the function of the midbrain of the brainstem?

A) To direct sensory messages to the thalamus B) Visual attentiveness C) Auditory attentiveness D) All of these are functions of the midbrain.

46)

Which of the following is not a function of the cerebellum?

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A) To maintain coordination B) To fine-tune efferent skeletal muscle messages to coordinate position, balance, and movement C) To receive sensory messages concerning the position of limbs, muscles, and joints D) All of these are functions of the cerebellum.

47)

How many pairs of spinal nerves are there?

A) 12 B) 30 C) 31 D) 14

48)

The cauda equina extends from which vertebrae?

A) L-1 to S-5 B) L-1 to S-1 C) L-5 to S-5 D) L-5 to S-1

49)

What is gray matter of the spinal cord composed of?

A) Dendrites B) Cell bodies C) Short unmyelinated neurons D) All of these make up the gray matter of the spinal cord.

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50)

White matter of the spinal cord is composed of what?

A) Unmyelinated neurons B) Myelinated neurons arranged in columns C) Dendrites D) Cell bodies

51)

Which connective tissue layer surrounds a bundle of axons?

A) Endoneurium B) Perineurium C) Epineurium D) Perimysium

52)

What is the function of the endoneurium?

A) To surround a bundle of axons B) To surround the axon of an individual neuron C) To surround a nerve D) To surround a component of the CNS

53)

What is the function of cranial nerve V?

A) Sensory for smell B) Sensory for pain C) Sensory for vision D) Sensory for taste

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54)

What is a function of the abducens nerve?

A) Motor for eye movement B) Sensory for pain C) Motor for trapezius D) Motor for tongue

55) Which of the following cranial nerves does not carry both sensory and motor information?

A) Trigeminal B) Abducens C) Facial D) Glossopharyngeal

56)

Which of the following cranial nerves functions as a sensory nerve for taste?

A) Trigeminal B) Abducens C) Facial D) Hypoglossal

57) Which of the following does not represent the correct number of spinal nerves in each region?

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A) C1-8 B) T1-12 C) L1-6 D) S1-5

58)

Which statement about spinal nerves is incorrect?

A) Each spinal nerve splits into two roots as it approaches the spinal cord.

B) The ventral roots contain ganglion and the dorsal roots do not.

C) The dorsal root carries sensory messages.

D) The ventral root carries efferent messages.

59)

Which statement about a ganglion is true?

A) A ganglion is a group of cell bodies in the bipolar neurons.

B) A ganglion is found in the dorsal roots of the spinal nerves.

C) A ganglion is a group of dendrites that create a bulge in the spinal nerve.

D) A ganglion is associated with spinal nerves that carry efferent messages.

60)

Which statement regarding dorsal and ventral roots is correct?

A) Dorsal roots carry afferent messages, while ventral roots carry efferent messages.

B) Dorsal roots carry efferent messages, while ventral roots carry afferent messages.

C) Dorsal roots carry motor messages, while ventral roots carry sensory messages.

D) Dorsal roots carry sensory messages, while ventral roots carry afferent messages.

61)

What kind of information is carried by the autonomic nervous system?

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A) Efferent B) Afferent C) Sensory D) Voluntary

62) Which of the following is false regarding the function of the sympathetic nervous system?

A) It prepares the body for fight or flight.

B) It dilates blood vessels.

C) It signals the heart to beat slower.

D) It decreases blood flow to the digestive organs.

63) Which statement is true regarding the anatomy of the nerves in the sympathetic nervous system?

A) A short preganglionic neuron leaves the spinal cord from the thoracic and lumbar regions and synapses with the post ganglionic neuron at the sympathetic chain of ganglia just outside the vertebral column.

B) A short preganglionic neuron leaves the spinal cord from the cervical region and synapses with the post ganglionic neuron at the sympathetic chain of ganglia just outside the vertebral column.

C) A short preganglionic neuron leaves the spinal cord from the thoracic and lumbar regions and synapses with the post ganglionic neuron at the sympathetic chain of ganglia just inside the vertebral column.

D) A long preganglionic neuron leaves the spinal cord from the lumbar and sacral regions and synapses with the post ganglionic neuron at the sympathetic chain of ganglia just inside the vertebral column.

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64) Which of the following is true regarding the function of the parasympathetic nervous system?

A) It prepares the body for fight or flight.

B) It dilates blood vessels.

C) It carries messages for everyday body maintenance.

D) It decreases blood flow to the digestive organs.

65) Which statement is true regarding the anatomy of the nerves in the parasympathetic nervous system?

A) Post ganglionic neurons come off the brain and the sacral region of the spinal cord, and synapse with preganglionic neurons in ganglia close to the structure they stimulate.

B) Preganglionic neurons come off the brain and the sacral region of the spinal cord, and synapse with post ganglionic neurons in ganglia far from to the structure they stimulate.

C) Preganglionic neurons come off the lumbar and sacral region of the spinal cord, and synapse with post ganglionic neurons in ganglia close to the structure they stimulate.

D) Preganglionic neurons come off the brain and the sacral region of the spinal cord, and synapse with post ganglionic neurons in ganglia close to the structure they stimulate.

66)

During a resting membrane potential, what is true about the neuron membrane?

A) The membrane is polarized.

B) The outside of the membrane is positive.

C) The inside of the membrane is negative.

D) All of the answer choices are true.

67)

Which statement about sodium ions during a resting membrane potential is true?

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A) More sodium ions are located on the outside of the neuron membrane.

B) More sodium ions are located on the inside of the neuron membrane.

C) Sodium ions can move freely across the neuron cell membrane.

D) Sodium ions cannot cross the membrane at all.

68)

Which statement is true about potassium ions during a resting membrane potential?

A) More potassium ions are found on the outside of the neuron cell membrane.

B) Potassium ions can freely cross the neuron cell membrane.

C) Potassium ions are attracted to positive ions on the inside of the cell.

D) Potassium ions must have an open channel to cross the neuron membrane using active transport.

69)

What is the function of the sodium/potassium exchange pump?

A) To re-establish and maintain the resting membrane potential B) To pump sodium ions out of the cell using active transport C) To prepare the neuron for another nerve impulse D) All of these statements are correct.

70)

What is a local potential?

A) The flow of electricity begun by stimulating the axon of a neuron B) The flow of electricity begun by stimulating the dendrite of a neuron C) The flow of electricity begun by stimulating the cell body of a neuron D) None of these answers are correct.

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71) Which term describes a response in which the amount of stimulation determines how many sodium ions enter the neuron?

A) Graded B) Decrimental C) Excitatory D) Inhibitory

72)

Which term refers to the ability of a local potential to cause a neuron to send a signal?

A) Graded B) Decrimental C) Excitatory D) Inhibitory

73) Which term refers to the ability of a local potential to prevent a neuron from sending a signal?

A) Graded B) Decrimental C) Excitatory D) Inhibitory

74)

What is an action potential?

A) The flow of electricity along an axon of a neuron in one direction B) The flow of electricity begun by stimulating the axon of a neuron C) The flow of electricity along an axon of a neuron in multiple directions D) The flow of electricity along a dendrite of a neuron in one direction

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75)

Which statement comparing an action potential and local potential is false?

A) Action potentials are graded and local potentials are not.

B) Action potentials are not graded and local potentials are.

C) Action potentials are not decrimental and local potentials are.

D) Action potentials are not reversible and local potentials are.

76)

What allows an action potential to travel more quickly?

A) Polarization of a neuron B) Myelination of an axon C) Wider nodes of Ranvier D) A larger trigger zone

77)

Which statement about reflexes is true?

A) A reflex is involuntary.

B) A reflex is a motor response.

C) A reflex has a fast response.

D) All of these statements are true.

78)

What is the correct order of a reflex arc?

A) Receptor, efferent neuron, integrating center, afferent neuron, effector B) Receptor, afferent neuron, integrating center, efferent neuron, effector C) Effector, afferent neuron, integrating center, efferent neuron, receptor D) Receptor, afferent neuron, efferent neuron, effector, integrating center

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79)

In a reflex arc, what is the receptor?

A) Either the brain or spinal cord where the signal is received from the afferent neuron and conducted to a motor neuron B) The structure causing the effect C) The dendrite of a neuron receiving the stimulus D) The generation of a graded potential at an axon hillock

80)

In a reflex arc, what carries the signal to the CNS?

A) Receptor B) Effector C) Afferent neuron D) Efferent neuron

81)

Which type of memory lasts for a few seconds to a few hours?

A) Immediate B) Short term C) Long term D) Sensory

82)

Brain damage to the Wernicke's area will result in what?

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A) An inability to speak B) An inability to understand spoken language C) An inability to respond to language spoken to them D) An inability to process sensory information from the left side of the brain

83)

Where is the Broca's area?

A) Frontal lobe B) Temporal lobe C) Parietal lobe D) Occipital lobe

84)

Where is the Wernicke's area?

A) Frontal lobe B) Temporal lobe C) Parietal lobe D) Occipital lobe

85) What is the correct order of neurons in the pathway when one touches the ice and then says it is cold?

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A) Unipolar neuron, spinal cord, medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain, thalamus, parietal lobe, frontal lobe B) Unipolar neuron, spinal cord, medulla oblongata, pons, thalamus, midbrain, parietal lobe, frontal lobe C) The spinal cord, unipolar neuron, medulla oblongata, pons, thalamus, midbrain, frontal lobe, parietal lobe D) Unipolar neuron, spinal cord, pons, midbrain, medulla oblongata, thalamus, parietal lobe, frontal lobe

86)

Which ions are required for the nervous system to function?

A) Iron and calcium B) Magnesium and potassium C) Calcium and potassium D) Sodium and potassium

87)

Which statement about the effects of aging on the nervous system is false?

A) Verbal skills decline around age 70.

B) Intellectual performance remains high until around age 80.

C) Aging slows reaction time.

D) Short-term memory is not affected by aging.

88)

How is cognitive function affected by aging?

A) The cognitive function increases rapidly.

B) The cognitive function remains stable.

C) Cognitive function declines.

D) Cognitive function declines but motor skills improve.

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89) A nerve conduction study assesses the conduction of nervous impulses along peripheral nerves by using what?

A) Heat B) Electric stimuli C) Pressure D) Cold

90)

Which condition might warrant a lumbar puncture for diagnosis?

A) Concussion B) Meningitis C) Cerebral palsy D) Parkinson's disease

91)

What is Alzheimer's disease?

A) A progressive brain disease characterized by dementia B) A disorder characterized by death to part of the brain caused by a lack of blood supply C) Inflammation of the brain D) Inflammation of the meninges that cover the brain and spinal cord

92) Which disorder is characterized by death to part of the brain caused by a lack of blood supply?

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A) CVA B) Alzheimer's disease C) Meningitis D) Huntington's disease

93)

Which type of paralysis affects only one side of the body?

A) Hemiplegia B) Quadriplegia C) Paraplegia D) Biplegia

94) Which condition is a degenerative disorder of the brain characterized by tremors and slow, uncoordinated movements?

A) Alzheimer's disease B) Cerebrovascular accident C) Parkinson's disease D) Huntington's disease

95) Which condition is a disorder of the brain characterized by destruction of brain cells caused by a defective gene?

A) Alzheimer's disease B) Cerebrovascular accident C) Parkinson's disease D) Huntington's disease

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96)

Which statement is false regarding cerebral palsy?

A) Cerebral palsy can result following an injury to the brain in children younger than 5 years old.

B) Cerebral palsy is a progressive disorder that will get worse with age.

C) Cerebral palsy can occur during the birth process.

D) The symptoms of cerebral palsy vary greatly.

97)

Where is CSF produced?

A) Arachnoid villus B) Third ventricle C) Dural sinuses D) Choroid plexus

98)

Which type of memory has the potential to last a lifetime?

A) Immediate B) Short term C) Long term D) Working

99)

Where does almost all sensory information go after passing through the midbrain?

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A) Thalamus B) Pons C) Frontal lobe D) Parietal lobe

100)

What is necessary for the diet for proper myelination?

A) Iron and calcium B) Magnesium and potassium C) Calcium and potassium D) Lipids

101)

What does a lumbar puncture analyze?

A) Heat B) Electric stimuli C) CSF D) EEG

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 06_3e_ Roiger 1) A 2) D 3) C 4) B 5) B 6) D 7) A 8) C 9) A 10) C 11) A 12) D 13) C 14) A 15) C 16) A 17) B 18) D 19) B 20) B 21) C 22) D 23) D 24) C 25) C 26) B Version 1

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27) A 28) B 29) A 30) D 31) A 32) D 33) A 34) B 35) B 36) D 37) B 38) D 39) C 40) D 41) D 42) C 43) A 44) C 45) D 46) D 47) C 48) A 49) D 50) B 51) B 52) B 53) B 54) A 55) B 56) C Version 1

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57) C 58) B 59) B 60) A 61) A 62) C 63) A 64) C 65) D 66) D 67) A 68) B 69) D 70) B 71) A 72) C 73) D 74) A 75) A 76) B 77) D 78) B 79) C 80) C 81) B 82) B 83) A 84) B 85) A 86) D Version 1

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87) D 88) C 89) B 90) B 91) A 92) A 93) A 94) C 95) D 96) B 97) D 98) C 99) A 100) D 101) C

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CHAPTER 7 The Nervous System—Senses 1)

Which word root refers to hearing?

A) Audi/o B) Aur/o C) Tympan/o D) Ot/o

2)

Which word root does not refer to the ear or a part of the ear?

A) Aur/o B) Tympan/o C) Ot/o D) Opt/o

3)

Which word root does not refer to the eye?

A) Ocul/o B) Opt/o C) Ophthalm/o D) Scler/o

4)

Which word root refers to stone?

A) Lacrim/o B) Lith/o C) Propri/o D) Aur/o

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5)

Which word root means own?

A) Presby/o B) Retin/o C) Corne/o D) Propri/o

6)

Which word root refers to a part of the ear?

A) Corne/o B) Cochle/o C) Scler/o D) Retin/o

7)

Which statement about the special senses is false?

A) Special senses are simple receptors in the skin, muscles, joints, tendons, and organs.

B) Special senses involve organs located only in the head.

C) Special sense organs are used for taste, smell, hearing, equilibrium, and vision.

D) Special sense organs are not located all over the body and are not used for touch, stretch, heat, cold, and pain.

8)

What type of receptor detects tissue injury?

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A) Thermoreceptor B) Nociceptor C) Mechanoreceptor D) Photoreceptor

9)

What type of receptor detects pressure?

A) Thermoreceptors B) Nociceptors C) Mechanoreceptors D) Photoreceptors

10)

Which of the following is not a mechanoreceptor?

A) Free nerve ending B) Tactile corpuscle C) Hair receptor D) Lamellar corpuscle

11)

What is the function of tactile disks?

A) To detect light touch B) To detect heavy touch C) To detect deep pressure D) To detect light touch that bends a hair

12)

Which statement best describes the receptive field?

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A) The brain's ability to distinguish between different types of sensations B) The ability of each neuron in the skin to detect a stimulus in a given area C) The ability of the brain to detect different levels of intense sensation D) The ability of the receptor to have various durations of the sensation

13)

Which of the following pathways for pain is shown in the correct order?

A) Unipolar neuron — spinal cord — medulla oblongata — pons — midbrain — thalamus — parietal lobe B) Unipolar neuron — spinal cord — reticular formation — hypothalamus and limbic system C) Unipolar neuron — spinal cord — medulla oblongata — pons — midbrain — parietal lobe D) All of these answers are correct.

14)

Which cell in a taste bud is responsible for replacing taste cells as they die?

A) Mitral cell B) Basal cell C) Support cell D) Germinator cell

15)

Which cell type in the taste bud is the chemoreceptor for taste?

A) Taste cells B) Basal cells C) Support cells D) Mitral cell

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16)

What are the bumps on the surface of the tongue called?

A) Taste cells B) Lingual nodules C) Lingual papillae D) Taste buds

17)

Which statement about taste cells is false?

A) They are the bumps that cover the surface of the tongue.

B) They are epithelial cells with sensory neurons at their base.

C) They secrete a neurotransmitter to stimulate the sensory neuron at their base.

D) They have taste hairs on their surface.

18)

Which taste is described as meaty?

A) Salty B) Umami C) Bitter D) Sweet

19)

Which cranial nerve does not carry the sense of taste?

A) CN VII B) CN IX C) CN X D) CN VI

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20)

Olfaction is the sense of

.

A) taste B) hearing C) smell D) touch

21)

What type of neuron is an olfactory cell?

A) Multipolar B) Unipolar C) Bipolar D) Tripolar

22)

What kind of receptors are found on olfactory hairs?

A) Mechanoreceptors B) Chemoreceptors C) Nociceptors D) Photoreceptors

23)

Which cranial nerve is the olfactory nerve?

A) CN I B) CN IX C) CN VII D) CN X

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24)

Which of the following statements about how we perceive odor is false?

A) Each olfactory cell has one type of receptor to detect one particular odor.

B) The binding of an odor molecule initiates a local potential.

C) If there is a threshold stimulus at the trigger zone of the olfactory cell, an action potential is generated and passed to a synapse within the olfactory bulb of CN II. D) All of these statements are true.

25)

Which of the following represents the pathway for smell?

A) Bipolar neuron – CN I – temporal lobe – hypothalamus and amygdala B) Bipolar neuron – CN I – temporal lobe – frontal lobe C) Both answers are correct.

D) Neither answer is correct.

26)

The pinna and auditory canal are part of what section of the ear?

A) Outer ear B) Middle ear C) Inner ear D) Cochlea E) Vestibule

27)

Which statement is false regarding cerumen?

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A) It is produced by ceruminous glands.

B) It coats the auditory canal.

C) It contains lysozymes and a high pH to deter bacteria.

D) It serves to protect the ear.

28)

What are swimmer's ear?

A) An infection of the outer ear B) An infection of the middle ear C) An infection of the inner ear D) An infection of the mastoid process

29)

Which of the following is not an auditory ossicle?

A) Malleus B) Incus C) Tympanum D) Stapes

30)

The auditory ossicles are found in which section of the ear?

A) Outer ear B) Middle ear C) Inner ear D) Cochlea E) Vestibule

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31)

What structure leads from the middle ear to the nasopharynx?

A) Auditory tube B) External auditory canal C) Semicircular duct D) Round window

32)

What is otitis media?

A) An infection of the outer ear B) An infection of the middle ear C) An infection of the inner ear D) An infection of the mastoid process

33)

The bony labyrinth is in what section of the ear?

A) Outer ear B) Middle ear C) Inner ear D) Organ of Corti E) Tympanic membrane

34)

What is the oval window?

A) The membrane at which the stapes contacts the vestibule B) The fluid-filled tube that coils to form a snail-like structure C) The end of the cochlea D) The fluid within the cochlea

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35)

The endolymph fills what structure in the inner ear?

A) Round window B) Cochlear duct C) Bony labyrinth D) Vestibule

36)

What type of neurons are found at the base of the hair cells in the cochlear duct?

A) Multipolar B) Unipolar C) Bipolar D) Tripolar

37)

Sound waves hit what structure causing vibrations?

A) Pinna B) Auditory canal C) Tympanic membrane D) Oval window

38)

What is the function of the middle ear?

A) To transfer sound waves to the tympanic membrane B) To amplify the vibration of the tympanic membrane C) To guide sound waves into the auditory canal D) To separate the outer ear and inner ear

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39)

Vibrations of which structure create waves within the perilymph of the cochlear tube?

A) Tympanic membrane B) Pinna C) Auditory canal D) Oval window

40)

What kind of receptor are the hair cells on the basilar membrane?

A) Mechanoreceptor B) Chemoreceptor C) Nociceptor D) Photoreceptor

41)

Which cranial nerve is the auditory nerve?

A) CN I B) CN IX C) CN VIII D) CN X

42)

Which of the following represents the pathway for hearing in the correct order?

A) Bipolar neurons of CN VIII – pons – midbrain – temporal lobe B) Bipolar neurons of CN VII – pons – midbrain – temporal lobe C) Bipolar neurons of CN VIII – midbrain – pons – temporal lobe D) Bipolar neurons of CN VIII – pons – midbrain – frontal lobe

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43)

What is the function of the vestibular apparatus?

A) To perceive taste B) To perceive touch C) To perceive equilibrium D) To perceive sound

44)

What type of equilibrium is perceived when the head is stationary or moving straight?

A) Static equilibrium B) Dynamic equilibrium C) Rotational D) Linear

45)

What type of equilibrium is perceived when the head is rotating?

A) Static equilibrium B) Dynamic equilibrium C) Rotational D) Linear

46)

What type of equilibrium is active when a gymnast does somersaults?

A) Static equilibrium B) Dynamic equilibrium C) Rotational equilibrium D) Linear equilibrium

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47)

The saccule and utricle are used to perceive what kind of equilibrium?

A) Static equilibrium B) Dynamic equilibrium C) Rotational equilibrium D) Linear equilibrium

48)

What kind of receptors are used in vision?

A) Mechanoreceptors B) Chemoreceptors C) Nociceptors D) Photoreceptors

49)

Which of the following structures protect the eye?

A) Eyelids B) Eyelashes C) Eyebrows D) All of these structures protect the eye.

50)

What structure produces an oil to help lubricate the eye?

A) Lacrimal gland B) Tarsal gland C) Conjuctiva D) Puncta

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51)

What statement about conjunctivitis is false?

A) It is also called pink eye.

B) It is not contagious.

C) It is usually caused by a bacterium.

D) It is characterized by redness and pain.

52)

What part of the eye consists of three regions: choroid layer, ciliary body, and the iris?

A) Sclera B) Uvea C) Pupil D) Retina

53)

What part of the eye produces aqueous humor?

A) Sclera B) Ciliary body C) Pupil D) Retina

54)

What ocular disorder results in an increase in intraocular pressure?

A) Conjunctivitis B) Myopia C) Glaucoma D) Astigmatism

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55)

What of the following describes the rods in the retina?

A) They are photoreceptors for color vision.

B) They are photoreceptors for non-color vision.

C) They are responsible for the best visual acuity.

D) They work best in bright light.

56)

What is not true of the cones in the retina?

A) They are the photoreceptors for color vision.

B) They are the photoreceptors for non-color vision.

C) They are responsible for the best visual acuity.

D) They work best in bright light.

57)

Which part of the retina has a higher concentration of cones than rods?

A) Optic disc B) Macula lutea C) Uvea D) Ciliary body

58)

What part of the retina contains only cones and is the area of sharpest vision?

A) Optic disc B) Uvea C) Fovea centralis D) Ciliary body

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59)

Which part of the retina has no photoreceptors and is therefore considered the blind spot?

A) Optic disc B) Macula lutea C) Fovea centralis D) Cornea

60)

What condition results if the cornea and lens focus the image ahead of the retina?

A) Myopia B) Hyperopia C) Deuteranopia D) Presbyopia

61)

What condition results if the cornea and lens focus the image behind the retina?

A) Myopia B) Hyperopia C) Deuteranopia D) Presbyopia

62)

Which cranial nerve is the optic nerve?

A) CN I B) CN IX C) CN II D) CN X

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63)

Which answer lists the pathway for vision in the correct order?

A) Both answers are correct.

B) Optic nerve – optic chiasm – optic tracts – thalamus – superior colliculi of the midbrain C) Optic nerve – optic chiasm – optic tracts – thalamus – occipital lobe D) Neither of these answers is correct.

64) Which term describes a persistent abnormal ear noise, commonly experienced in the elderly due to mild hearing loss?

A) Tinnitus B) Otoliths C) Presbyopia D) Sensorineural hearing loss

65) Which term describes a decreased ability to accommodate between near and far vision with aging, resulting in difficulty seeing objects up close?

A) Myopia B) Deuteranopia C) Presbyopia D) Hyperopia

66)

Which test is used to diagnose color blindness?

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A) Ishihara test B) Rinne test C) Weber test D) Snellen test

67)

Which test is used to diagnose glaucoma?

A) Ishihara test B) Snellen test C) Weber test D) Tonometry

68)

Which test is used to diagnose hearing loss?

A) Ishihara test B) Rinne test C) Snellen test D) Tonometry

69) What type of hearing loss is characterized by a lesion in the outer or middle ear, preventing the proper conduction of vibrations to the inner ear?

A) Conductive hearing loss B) Sensorineural hearing loss C) Tinnitus D) Meniere's disease

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70) What type of hearing loss is characterized by a problem with the organ of Corti or the auditory nerve?

A) Conductive hearing loss B) Sensorineural hearing loss C) Tinnitus D) Meniere's disease

71)

What type of hearing loss can be tested using a tuning fork?

A) Conductive hearing loss B) Sensorineural hearing loss C) Both of these answers are correct.

D) Neither of these answers is correct.

72) If a person cannot hear the sound produced by the tuning fork through the air but can hear the sound when the tuning fork is placed on the bone of the skull behind the ear, what type of hearing loss do they most likely have?

A) Conductive hearing loss B) Sensorineural hearing loss C) Both of these answers are correct.

D) Neither of these answers is correct.

73) If a person cannot hear the sound produced by the tuning fork through the air or when the tuning fork is placed on the bone of the skull behind the ear, what type of hearing loss do they most likely have?

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A) Conductive hearing loss B) Sensorineural hearing loss C) Both of these answers are correct.

D) Neither of these answers is correct.

74) What disorder is characterized by a progressive, painless, loss of vision due to the clouding of the lens of the eye?

A) Glaucoma B) Cataract C) Presbyopia D) Astigmatism

75)

Which statement about the general senses is true?

A) The general senses use simple receptors in the skin, muscles, joints, tendons, and organs.

B) The general senses use organs located only in the head.

C) The general sense organs detect taste, smell, hearing, equilibrium, and vision.

D) The general sense organs are complex and multicellular.

76)

Which of the following statements about how we perceive odor is true?

A) Each olfactory cell has one type of receptor to detect multiple odors.

B) The binding of an odor molecule initiates an action potential.

C) If there is a threshold stimulus at the trigger zone of the olfactory cell, an action potential is generated and passed to a synapse within the olfactory bulb of CN II. D) Olfaction is coupled with gustation (taste).

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77) Which of the following represents the pathway for smell that will trigger an emotional reaction?

A) Bipolar neuron – CN I – temporal lobe – hypothalamus and amygdala B) Bipolar neuron – CN I – temporal lobe – frontal lobe C) Both answers are correct.

D) Neither answer is correct.

78)

Which cranial nerve is involved in the pathway for hearing?

A) CN VIII B) CN VII C) CN VI D) CN V

79)

Which of the following is involved in static equilibrium?

A) Semicircular canals B) Cochlea C) Utricle and saccule D) Crista ampullaris

80)

Which of the following represents the pathway for equilibrium in the correct order?

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A) Bipolar neurons of CN VIII – medulla oblongata – pons – cerebellum B) Bipolar neurons of CN VII – pons – midbrain – temporal lobe C) Bipolar neurons of CN VIII – midbrain – pons – temporal lobe D) Bipolar neurons of CN VIII – pons – midbrain – frontal lobe

81)

What cranial nerve is involved in equilibrium?

A) CN I B) CN IX C) CN VIII D) CN X

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 07_3e_ Roiger 1) A 2) D 3) D 4) B 5) D 6) B 7) A 8) B 9) C 10) A 11) A 12) B 13) D 14) B 15) A 16) C 17) A 18) B 19) D 20) C 21) C 22) B 23) A 24) C 25) C 26) A Version 1

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27) C 28) A 29) C 30) B 31) A 32) B 33) C 34) A 35) B 36) C 37) C 38) B 39) D 40) A 41) C 42) A 43) C 44) A 45) B 46) B 47) A 48) D 49) D 50) B 51) B 52) B 53) B 54) C 55) B 56) B Version 1

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57) B 58) C 59) A 60) A 61) B 62) C 63) A 64) A 65) C 66) A 67) D 68) B 69) A 70) B 71) C 72) A 73) C 74) B 75) A 76) D 77) A 78) A 79) C 80) A 81) C

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CHAPTER 8 The Endocrine System 1)

Which of the following word roots means "secrete"?

A) Aden/o B) Cortic/o C) Crin/o D) Dips/o

2)

Which word root does not refer to the adrenal gland?

A) All of the answer choices refer to the adrenal gland.

B) Aden/o C) Adren/o D) Adrenal/o

3)

Which word root refers to "thirst"?

A) Aden/o B) Cortic/o C) Crin/o D) Dips/o

4)

Which word root does not refer to sugar?

A) Gluc/o B) Glyc/o C) Neither gluco/o nor glyc/o refer to sugar.

D) Both gluco/o and glyc/o refer to sugar.

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5)

Which of the word roots refers to the "sex glands"?

A) Andr/o B) Crin/o C) Ster/o D) Gonad/o

6)

Which of the word roots refers to "male"?

A) Andr/o B) Aden/o C) Adren/o D) Adrenal/o

7)

What are the chemical messengers of the endocrine system?

A) Neurotransmitters B) Electrical impulses C) Hormones D) All of these answers are correct.

8) Which statement is true regarding the speed of communication by the nervous system compared to the endocrine system?

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A) The nervous system responds to stimulus slower than the endocrine system.

B) The nervous system responds to stimulus quicker than the endocrine system.

C) The nervous system responds to stimulus at the same rate as the endocrine system.

D) The nervous system responds to stimulus and the endocrine system does not.

9) Which statement is true regarding the specificity of communication by the nervous system compared to the endocrine system?

A) The nervous system is more specific compared to the endocrine system.

B) The endocrine system is more specific compared to the nervous system.

C) The nervous system and the endocrine system have the same level of target specificity.

D) Neither the nervous system nor the endocrine systems are specific to a target.

10)

Which of the following statements about the endocrine system is false?

A) Communication through the endocrine system has a slow start.

B) Communication through the endocrine system is less specific as to its target.

C) Communication through the endocrine system is quicker to end than the nervous system.

D) Communication through the endocrine system takes longer to end than the nervous system.

11)

What is the function of a gland?

A) To produce hormones B) To secrete hormones C) To target certain tissues D) To produce hormones, target certain tissues, and secrete hormones

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12) Which gland functions to regulate daily biological rhythms and inhibit GnRH production?

A) Hypothalamus B) Pineal gland C) Pituitary gland D) Thyroid gland

13)

What is the target tissue for the hypothalamic hormones?

A) Thyroid gland B) Ovaries C) Adrenal cortex D) Anterior pituitary gland

14)

Which of the following is not a function of the hypothalamus?

A) To stimulate the release of FSH and LH B) To stimulate the release of ACTH C) To stimulate the release of CRH D) To stimulate the release of TSH

15)

What hormone does the pineal gland secrete?

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A) Melatonin B) Growth hormone C) Gonadotropin hormone D) Follicle-stimulating hormone

16)

What hormone does the anterior pituitary gland secrete?

A) Melatonin B) Oxytocin C) Gonadotropin hormone D) Follicle-stimulating hormone

17)

Which of the following is not a function of the anterior pituitary gland?

A) To regulate daily biological rhythms B) To stimulate the production of sperm C) To stimulate widespread tissue growth D) To stimulate the secretion of thyroid hormone

18) Which of the following is not a target tissue for the hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary gland?

A) Ovaries B) Thyroid C) Adrenal cortex D) All of the answers are target tissues for the hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary gland.

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19)

Which hormone stimulates the secretion of estrogen and stimulates sperm production?

A) FSH B) LH C) Progesterone D) Testosterone

20)

Which hormone stimulates the secretion of testosterone and stimulates ovulation?

A) FSH B) LH C) CRH D) Testosterone

21)

What organ does ADH target?

A) Uterus B) Liver C) Bone D) Kidney

22)

Which endocrine gland secretes calcitonin?

A) Thyroid gland B) Parathyroid gland C) Testis D) Pituitary gland

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23)

Which statement is true about the hormone oxytocin?

A) It stimulates bone reabsorption.

B) It stimulates water retention.

C) It stimulates uterine contractions and the release of milk.

D) It stimulates testosterone secretion.

24)

What is the function of glucagon?

A) To stimulate cells to take in glucose B) To tell the liver to store excess glucose as glycogen C) To stimulate the conversion of glycogen to glucose D) To block the secretion of glycogen converted glucose

25)

Which hormones are secreted from the adrenal cortex?

A) Mineralocorticoids B) Glucocorticoids C) Mineralcorticoids, glucocorticoids, and gonadocorticoids D) Gonadocorticoids

26)

What is the function of the hormone epinephrine?

A) To raise the basal metabolic rate B) To increase the heart rate C) To increase blood glucose levels D) To raise the basal metabolic rate, increase heart rate, and increase blood glucose levels

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27)

Which endocrine gland secretes PTH?

A) Thyroid gland B) Parathyroid gland C) Testis D) Anterior pituitary gland

28)

Which organ belongs to both the endocrine and digestive systems?

A) Pancreas B) Pituitary gland C) Thyroid gland D) Adrenal gland

29)

Which gland is located beneath the posterior end of the corpus callosum in the brain?

A) Pineal gland B) Hypothalamus C) Pituitary gland D) Pancreas

30)

Which gland is connected to the pituitary gland by the infundibulum?

A) Pineal gland B) Hypothalamus C) Adenohypophsis D) Pancreas

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31) Which gland resembles a bow tie and is located anterior and lateral to the trachea just inferior to the larynx?

A) Pineal gland B) Hypothalamus C) Thyroid gland D) Pancreas

32)

Which of the following is not an endocrine gland?

A) Ovary B) Testis C) Mammary gland D) None of these are endocrine glands.

33)

Which of the following is not a category of hormone-based on chemical structure?

A) Steroid B) Amino acid derivative C) Protein D) All of these answers are categories of hormones based on chemical structure.

34) Estrogen, testosterone, progesterone, mineralocorticoids, and glucocorticoids are examples of what category of hormone?

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A) Steroids B) Amino acid derivatives C) Proteins D) Nucleic acid derivatives

35) Thyroid hormone, epinephrine, and melatonin are examples of what category of hormone?

A) Steroids B) Amino acid derivatives C) Proteins D) Nucleic acid derivatives

36)

Insulin, glucagon, calcitonin, and oxytocin are examples of what category of hormone?

A) Steroids B) Amino acid derivatives C) Proteins D) Nucleic acid derivatives

37)

What is true about protein hormones?

A) They can bind anywhere within the cell.

B) They can bind anywhere on the cell membrane.

C) They must bind to receptors on the cell membrane.

D) They must bind to receptors on the nuclear membrane.

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38)

What is true about steroid hormones?

A) They can bind anywhere within the cell.

B) They can bind anywhere on the cell membrane.

C) They must bind to receptors within the cell either in the cytoplasm or nucleus.

D) They must bind to receptors on the nuclear membrane.

39)

Which of the following is true of autocrine hormones?

A) They cause a response outside of the body in another person.

B) They travel through the blood to get to their target tissue.

C) They target the same cells they are secreted from.

D) They work on neighboring cells without having to go through the blood.

40) Which term refers to hormones that work on neighboring cells without having to go through blood to get to their target tissue?

A) Autocrine B) Paracrine C) Endocrine D) Pheromone

41)

Which category of hormones might interest the perfume industry?

A) Autocrine B) Paracrine C) Endocrine D) Pheromone

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42)

Which of the following does not describe a mechanism controlling hormone secretion?

A) Neural stimulation of a gland B) Stimulation of a gland by another hormone C) A substance other than a hormone stimulating a gland D) All of these describe a method of hormone secretion.

43)

How do target tissues regulate their sensitivity to a hormone?

A) They can change the type of hormone needed to cause a response.

B) They can change the shape of the hormone receptor.

C) They can change the number of receptors present.

D) None of these answers are correct.

44)

Which statement is true about up-regulation and down-regulation?

A) Up-regulation is the decrease in the number of receptors for a given hormone and down-regulation is the increase in the number of receptors for a hormone.

B) Up-regulation is the increase in the amount of hormone and down-regulation is the decrease in the amount of hormone.

C) Up-regulation is the increase in the number of receptors for a given hormone and down-regulation is the decrease in the number of receptors for a hormone.

D) Up-regulation is the increase in the number of receptors for a given hormone and down-regulation is the decrease in the amount of hormone.

45)

Which statement regarding the half-life of hormones is false?

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A) Steroid hormones and thyroid hormones have their half-lives extended by binding to plasma proteins.

B) Steroid hormones and thyroid hormones have unstable levels within the body.

C) Protein hormones have short half-lives.

D) Epinephrine and protein hormones are quickly degraded, recycled, or excreted from the body.

46)

Which of the following is not a method of elimination of hormones from the body?

A) Excretion B) Conjugation C) Passive transport D) Metabolism

47) What is the term used to describe the length of time it takes for one-half of a substance to be eliminated from the circulatory system?

A) Clearance time B) Threshold C) Half-life D) Doubling time

48) Federico just ate a piece of birthday cake. Which statement is true about his hormone levels after his snack?

A) Federico's pancreas is releasing glucagon to raise his blood glucose levels.

B) Federico's pancreas is releasing insulin to lower his blood glucose levels.

C) Federico's pancreas is releasing glucagon to lower his blood glucose levels.

D) Federico's pancreas is releasing insulin to raise his blood glucose levels.

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49) Yichen woke up late for work and did not have time to eat breakfast. He ate dinner at 6 PM the previous night and has not eaten since. Which statement is true about Yichens blood glucose levels?

A) Yichen's blood glucose levels are high.

B) Yichen's blood glucose levels are within normal limits.

C) Yichen's blood glucose levels are low.

D) Yichen's blood glycogen levels are high.

50) Shaniece has just turned 12 years old and is entering puberty. Which statement is true regarding her hormone levels?

A) Her melatonin is low.

B) Her GnRH is low.

C) Her FSH is low.

D) Her LH is low.

51)

Which endocrine disorder is characterized by adrenal cortex degeneration?

A) Diabetes mellitus B) Gigantism C) Addison's disease D) Diabetes insipidis

52)

Which statement is false regarding the symptoms of Addison's disease?

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A) Addison's disease will cause a decrease in aldosterone production which will result in a decreased ability to control blood pressure and blood volume.

B) Addison's disease will cause a decrease in cortisol which will result in a decreased ability to use fat and protein as fuel.

C) Addison's disease will cause a decrease in cortisol which will result in a decreased ability to deal with inflammation and injury.

D) Addison's disease will cause a decrease in DHEA which will affect a male's ability to develop male sex characteristics.

53) Elimu has Addison's disease so his ability to produce cortisol is reduced. How does his hypothalamus respond?

A) His hypothalamus will increase the production of CRH in response to low levels of cortisol.

B) His hypothalamus will increase the production of ACTH in response to low levels of cortisol.

C) His hypothalamus will produce cortisol if the adrenal cortex cannot.

D) His hypothalamus will not respond to low levels of cortisol.

54)

Which statement is true about oxytocin's role in childbirth?

A) Oxytocin stimulates uterine contractions.

B) Oxytocin suppresses uterine contractions.

C) Oxytocin targets the fetus to push on the cervix.

D) Oxytocin is released by the uterus as it contracts, causing more contractions until the baby is born.

55)

Which of the following is a function of the anterior pituitary gland?

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A) To produce TSH B) To produce ACTH C) To produce FSH D) To produce TSH, ACTH, and FSH.

56)

What is the function of adrenocorticotropic hormone?

A) To stimulate the secretion of growth hormone B) To stimulate the secretion of thyroid hormone C) To stimulate the secretion of estrogen D) To stimulate the secretion of glucocorticoids

57)

Which hormone is not produced by the anterior pituitary gland?

A) TSH B) FSH C) CRH D) ACTH

58)

Which hormone is not produced by the hypothalamus?

A) TSH B) GnRH C) CRH D) GHRH

59)

What is the function of ADH?

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A) To stimulate bone resorption B) To stimulate water retention C) To stimulate tissue growth D) To increase the basal metabolic rate

60)

What is the function of CRH?

A) To stimulate the release of GH B) To stimulate the release of TSH C) To stimulate the release of ACTH D) To stimulate the release of LH

61)

What is the function of GnRH?

A) To stimulate the release of GH B) To stimulate the release of TSH C) To stimulate the release of ACTH D) To stimulate the release of LH

62)

What is the function of TRH?

A) To stimulate the release of GH B) To stimulate the release of TSH C) To stimulate the release of ACTH D) To stimulate the release of LH

63)

What is the function of GHRH?

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A) To stimulate the release of GH B) To stimulate the release of TSH C) To stimulate the release of ACTH D) To stimulate the release of LH

64)

What is the function of LH?

A) To stimulate the secretion of testosterone B) To induce fertilization C) To stimulate spermatogenesis D) To stimulate follicle development

65)

What is the function of thyroid hormone?

A) To stimulate bone resorption B) To stimulate water retention C) To stimulate tissue growth D) To increase the basal metabolic rate

66)

Which statement about the effects of aging on the endocrine system is false?

A) Levels of hormones decline with age.

B) Estrogen and testosterone decrease dramatically with aging.

C) The increase of estrogen and testosterone cause osteoporosis.

D) Some hormone levels remain high but target tissue may lose their sensitivity.

67)

How can X-rays be used to diagnose endocrine disorders?

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A) X-rays can determine changes in bone growth.

B) X-rays can detect changes in soft tissue.

C) X-rays produce scans in slices and can show whether a tumor is present.

D) X-rays can determine inappropriate levels of chemicals in the blood.

68)

How can a urinalysis be used to diagnose endocrine disorders?

A) A urinalysis can determine changes in bone growth.

B) A urinalysis can determine inappropriate levels of chemicals in the urine.

C) A urinalysis produces scans in slices and can show whether a tumor is present.

D) A urinalysis can determine inappropriate levels of chemicals in the blood.

69)

How can DEXA scans be used to diagnose endocrine disorders?

A) DEXA scans can determine changes in bone density as they age.

B) DEXA scans can determine inappropriate levels of chemicals in the urine.

C) DEXA scans can determine changes in bone growth.

D) DEXA scans can determine inappropriate levels of chemicals in the blood.

70)

Which term means that there is glucose in the urine?

A) Polyuria B) Polydipsia C) Glycosuria D) Hyperglycemia

71)

Which term refers to excessive urination?

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A) Polyuria B) Polydipsia C) Glycosuria D) Hyperglycemia

72)

Which term refers to excessive thirst?

A) Polyuria B) Polydipsia C) Glycosuria D) Hyperglycemia

73)

Which disorder has polyuria and polydipsia as symptoms?

A) Type I diabetes mellitus B) Diabetes insipidis C) All of these disorders have polyuria and polydipsia as symptoms.

D) Type II diabetes mellitus

74) What disorder is characterized by an inability to release sufficient ADH to cause water reabsorption in the kidney?

A) Acromegaly B) Grave's disease C) Diabetes mellitus D) Diabetes insipidis

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75) What disorder is characterized by an inability to regulate blood glucose levels due to insufficient insulin?

A) Acromegaly B) Grave's disease C) Diabetes mellitus D) Diabetes insipidus

76) What disorder is characterized by an antibody made by white blood cells that mistakenly fits into the TSH receptor of the thyroid gland and acts like TSH?

A) Acromegaly B) Grave's disease C) Diabetes insipidis D) Dwarfism

77)

Which disorder causes hypothyroidism?

A) Hashimoto's disease B) Cushing's syndrome C) Myxedema D) Dwarfism

78)

Which disorder causes hyperthyroidism?

A) Hashimoto's disease B) Cushing's syndrome C) Myxedema D) Graves' disease

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79) Which disorder is characterized by excess cortisol or corticosteroid levels in the blood that results from hypersecretion of ACTH?

A) Hashimoto's disease B) Cushing's syndrome C) Myxedema D) Graves' disease

80)

Which of the following is a symptom of myxedema?

A) Drooping eyelids B) Collection of fat on the lower neck and shoulders C) Goiter D) Unusually short stature

81)

Which of the following is a symptom of Cushing's syndrome?

A) Drooping eyelids B) Collection of fat on the lower neck and shoulders C) Goiter D) Accelerated bone growth

82)

Which of the following is a symptom of acromegaly?

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A) Hair loss B) Collection of fat on the lower neck and shoulders C) Goiter D) Organ enlargement

83)

Which of the following is a symptom of hyperthyroidism?

A) Moon face B) Polydipsia C) Goiter D) Organ enlargement

84)

What is a target tissue?

A) A tissue that produces hormones B) A tissue that secretes hormones C) A tissue that targets certain tissues D) A tissue that contains receptors for a hormone

85)

What is often a response to chronically high levels of a hormone?

A) Up-regulation B) Down-regulation C) De-regulation D) De-escalation

86)

Which statement about the effects of aging on the endocrine system is true?

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A) Levels of hormones decline with age.

B) Estrogen and testosterone increase dramatically with aging.

C) The increase of estrogen and testosterone cause osteoporosis.

D) Up-regulation stops.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 08_3e_ Roiger 1) C 2) B 3) D 4) D 5) D 6) A 7) C 8) B 9) A 10) C 11) D 12) B 13) D 14) C 15) A 16) D 17) A 18) D 19) A 20) B 21) D 22) A 23) C 24) C 25) C 26) D Version 1

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27) B 28) A 29) A 30) B 31) C 32) C 33) D 34) A 35) B 36) C 37) C 38) C 39) C 40) B 41) D 42) D 43) C 44) C 45) B 46) C 47) C 48) B 49) C 50) A 51) C 52) D 53) A 54) A 55) D 56) D Version 1

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57) C 58) A 59) B 60) C 61) D 62) B 63) A 64) A 65) D 66) C 67) A 68) B 69) A 70) C 71) A 72) B 73) C 74) D 75) C 76) B 77) A 78) D 79) B 80) A 81) B 82) D 83) C 84) D 85) B 86) A Version 1

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CHAPTER 9 The Cardiovascular System—Blood 1)

Which of the following word roots refers to blood?

A) Agglutin/o B) Erythr/o C) Hemat/o D) Phag/o

2)

Which of the following word roots does not refer to blood?

A) All of the answer choices refer to blood.

B) Hemat/o C) Hem/o D) Leuk/o

3)

Which of the following word roots means to eat or swallow?

A) Agglutin/o B) Erythr/o C) Hemat/o D) Phag/o

4)

Which word root does not mean clot?

A) Agglutin/o B) Thromb/o C) Coagul/o D) All of these answers mean clot.

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5)

Which word root refers to primitive?

A) Blast/o B) Erythr/o C) Hemat/o D) Phag/o

6)

Which word root refers to red?

A) Agglutin/o B) Erythr/o C) Hemat/o D) Phag/o

7)

Which of the following is not a formed element of blood?

A) Red blood cell B) White blood cell C) Plasma D) Platelet

8)

Which of the following is a formed element of blood?

A) Red blood cell B) White blood cell C) All of the answers are formed elements of blood.

D) Platelet

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9) of?

If you spin a tube of blood in a centrifuge, what is the bottom layer primarily composed

A) Red blood cells B) White blood cells C) Plasma D) Platelets

10) of?

If you spin a tube of blood in a centrifuge, what is the top straw-colored layer composed

A) Red blood cells B) White blood cells C) Plasma D) Platelets

11)

If you spin a tube of blood in a centrifuge, which component of the blood is the heaviest?

A) Red blood cells B) White blood cells C) Plasma D) Platelets

12) If you spin a tube of blood in a centrifuge, which component of the blood is the most abundant?

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A) Red blood cells B) White blood cells C) Plasma D) Platelets

13)

What is the most abundant component of plasma?

A) Albumin B) Globulin C) Fibrinogen and clotting factors D) Water

14)

What type of proteins are the antibodies found in plasma?

A) Albumins B) Globulins C) Clotting factors D) Plasmins

15)

What is serum?

A) Another name for plasma B) Plasma with clotting factors removed C) Plasma with globulins removed D) Blood with the red blood cells removed

16)

Which statement about plasma is false?

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A) Plasma contains regulatory substances used for communication.

B) Dissolved proteins make up 7% of plasma.

C) Ions and nutrients are found in plasma.

D) Plasma is free of waste products.

17)

Which of the following is not a leukocyte?

A) Thrombocyte B) Neutrophil C) Basophil D) Lymphocyte

18) Which of the following leukocytes releases histamine to promote inflammation and heparin as an anticoagulant?

A) Eosinophils B) Neutrophils C) Basophils D) Lymphocytes

19) Which of the following leukocytes become macrophages and phagocytize dead and dying tissue, microorganisms, and any other foreign matter or debris?

A) Eosinophils B) Monocytes C) Basophils D) Lymphocytes

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20)

Which of the following leukocytes attack parasitic worms?

A) Eosinophils B) Monocytes C) Basophils D) Lymphocytes

21)

Which of the following leukocytes is the most abundant in circulating blood?

A) Neutrophils B) Monocytes C) Basophils D) Lymphocytes

22)

Which statement about erythrocytes is true?

A) Erythrocytes function to fight off infection.

B) Erythrocytes are round, multinucleated cells.

C) Erythrocytes function to transport oxygen and carbon monoxide.

D) Erythrocytes are biconcave in shape.

23)

What is the function of thrombocytes (platelets)?

A) To fight off infection B) To transport oxygen and carbon dioxide C) To form platelet plugs and release clotting factors D) To attack parasitic worms

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24)

Which of the following cells lacks a nucleus when fully mature?

A) Neutrophils B) Monocytes C) Erythrocytes D) Lymphocytes

25)

What is hemopoiesis?

A) The process of forming clots B) The production of blood cells C) The method leukocytes use to combat infection D) The dissolution of a blood clot

26)

Which of the following is not a form of hemopoiesis?

A) Thrombopoiesis B) Leukopoiesis C) Erythropoiesis D) All of these are types of hemopoiesis.

27)

Where does leukopoiesis occur?

A) Yellow bone marrow B) Red bone marrow C) Blood vessels D) Spleen

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28)

Which of the following stimulates the production of red blood cells?

A) Thrombopoietin B) Colony-stimulating factors C) Erythropoietin D) A low number of circulating WBCs

29)

Where is thrombopoietin produced?

A) Liver B) Lymphocytes C) Spleen D) Red bone marrow

30)

What produces colony-stimulating factors?

A) Kidney B) Lymphocytes C) Erythrocyte D) Bone marrow

31)

Which statement about hemoglobin is true?

A) The cytoplasm of white blood cells contains hemoglobin.

B) Hemoglobin is a complex protein made of 5 chains of amino acids called globins.

C) Each globin chain on a hemoglobin molecule contains a heme group.

D) Each hemoglobin molecule can carry five oxygen molecules.

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32)

Which of the following is not transported by hemoglobin?

A) Oxygen B) Hydrogen ions C) Carbon dioxide D) Hydroxyl ions

33)

What makes hemoglobin a buffer?

A) Hemoglobin can transport oxygen from the lungs to the tissues.

B) Hemoglobin can bind ions.

C) Hemoglobin can transport carbon dioxide from the tissues to the lungs.

D) All of these answers are correct.

34) What disorder is characterized by an alternative form of hemoglobin that changes the shape of the red blood cell?

A) Sickle cell disease B) Hypoxia C) Thrombocytopenia D) Hemophilia

35)

What is the RDA for iron?

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A) 15 mg/day B) 27 mg/day C) 100 mg/day D) 8 mg/day

36)

Which of the following nutrients is not important for erythropoiesis?

A) Folic acid B) Vitamin C) Copper D) All of these nutrients are important for erythropoiesis.

37)

Which nutrient allows hemoglobin to bind oxygen?

A) Folic acid B) Vitamin C) Copper D) Iron

38)

Which nutrient is necessary for the enzymes that produce hemoglobin?

A) Folic acid B) Vitamin C) Copper D) Iron

39)

How long do red blood cells typically survive?

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A) 50–70 days B) 80–100 days C) 110–120 days D) 130–140 days

40)

Which organs function to remove old, worn out red blood cells?

A) Liver and kidney B) Liver and spleen C) Spleen and kidney D) Liver and bone marrow

41) What happens to the four globin chains when hemoglobin is broken down by the liver and spleen?

A) They are secreted into bile.

B) They are broken down to form iron.

C) They are considered a waste product and removed from the body.

D) They are broken down into free amino acids which are then recycled to the bone marrow.

42)

What happens to the heme when hemoglobin is broken down by the liver and spleen?

A) It is secreted into bile.

B) It is broken down to form iron.

C) It is considered a waste product and removed from the body.

D) It is broken down to iron and bilirubin.

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43)

What is the correct order of hemostasis?

A) Vascular spasm – platelet plug formation – coagulation B) Platelet plug formation – coagulation – vascular spasm C) Vascular spasm – coagulation – platelet plug formation D) Coagulation – vascular spasm – platelet plug formation

44)

Which term describes the constriction of a broken vessel?

A) Vascular spasm B) Fibrinolysis C) Coagulation D) Vasodilation

45)

Which term describes blood clotting?

A) Vascular spasm B) Platelet plug formation C) Coagulation D) Hemolysis

46)

Which of the following statements is false?

A) The extrinsic pathway of blood clotting is initiated by damaged tissues.

B) The intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of blood clotting are initiated by damaged tissues.

C) The intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of blood clotting both require calcium.

D) The intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of blood clotting both require clotting factors.

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47)

What is the process of dissolving an unnecessary blood clot called?

A) Syneresis B) Fibrinolysis C) Anticoagulation D) Hemostasis

48)

Which of the following is true regarding the elimination of clots?

A) Plasmin is converted to plasminogen to help dissolve the clot.

B) The process of dissolving clots is called fibrinolysis.

C) The clot is necessary once a vessel has healed.

D) The process of dissolving clots is called anticoagulation.

49)

What is a thrombus?

A) A moving, unnecessary clot B) Clot formation in a broken vessel C) A stationary, unnecessary clot D) A platelet plug

50)

What is an embolus?

A) A moving, unnecessary clot B) Clot formation in a broken vessel C) A stationary, unnecessary clot D) A platelet plug

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51)

Which of the following is a mechanism that helps prevent inappropriate clotting?

A) Vessels are coated with a platelet repellent to prevent them from sticking to vessel walls.

B) Circulation dilutes thrombin in the blood.

C) Anticoagulants interfere with pathways of clotting.

D) All of these mechanisms prevent unwanted clotting.

52)

How is one's blood type determined?

A) By the antibodies on the red blood cell's surface B) By the antigens on the red blood cell's surface C) By the proteins in the blood's plasma D) By the globulins on the red blood cell's surface

53)

Which of the following is not a real blood type?

A) B) C) O D)

54)

If Tarone has type AB blood, what blood type can he receive?

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A) A B) B C) AB D) He can receive A, B, and AB blood.

55)

If Leticia has type O blood, what type of blood can she receive?

A) A B) B C) O D) AB

56)

Which blood type is considered the universal donor because it can be given to anyone?

A) A B) B C) O D) AB

57) Which blood type is considered the universal recipient because people with this blood type can accept blood from anyone?

A) A B) B C) O D) AB

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58)

What happens when two non-compatible blood types are mixed together?

A) Phagocytosis B) Opsonization C) Coagulation D) Agglutination

59)

How is a person's blood type determined in the lab?

A) By mixing a person's white blood cells with other white blood cells to see if agglutination occurs B) By mixing a person's blood with different antisera to see which agglutinate C) By mixing a person's antibodies with A and B antibodies to see which agglutinate D) By mixing a person's red blood cells with various white blood cells to see if agglutination occurs

60)

Which of the following statements regarding transfusions is true?

A) The donor cells must survive the recipient's antibodies.

B) The recipient's antibodies must survive the donor's antigens.

C) The donor's antibodies must survive the recipient's antigens.

D) The recipient's cells must survive the donor's antigens.

62)

Which of the following is not a function of the blood?

A) Transportation B) Protection C) Regulation D) Communication

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63)

What role do white blood cells play in the various functions of the blood?

A) Transportation B) Protection C) Regulation D) Communication

64)

What role do red blood cells play in the various functions of the blood?

A) Transportation B) Transportation and regulation C) Regulation D) Protection E) Protection and transportation

65)

What blood test measures the percentage of erythrocytes to whole blood?

A) Hematocrit B) Hemoglobin C) Red blood cell count D) White blood cell count

66)

What blood test measures the number of leukocytes in the blood?

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A) Hematocrit B) Hemoglobin C) Red blood cell count D) White blood cell count

67) What blood test gives a percentage of each leukocyte of the total number of leukocytes in the blood?

A) Hematocrit B) Hemoglobin C) White blood cell differential D) White blood cell count

68)

What is considered a normal platelet count?

A) 3,540–9,060/mcL of blood B) 4.00–5.20 million/mcL of blood C) 150,000–450,000/mcL of blood D) 13,000–19,000/mcL of blood

69)

What is considered a normal white blood cell count?

A) 3,500–10,500/mcL of blood B) 4.00–5.20 million/mcL of blood C) 165,000–415,000/mcL of blood D) 540–9,060/mcL of blood

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70)

Which diagnostic test evaluates the function of clotting factors within the blood?

A) Prothrombin time B) Partial thromboplastin time C) Bone marrow biopsy D) Platelet count

71) Which diagnostic test collects and analyzes cerebrospinal fluid for the presence of white blood cells?

A) Lumbar puncture B) Partial thromboplastin time C) Bone marrow biopsy D) White blood cell differential

72)

Which disorder describes a condition of too many red blood cells?

A) Polycythemia B) Anemia C) Hemophilia D) Thrombocytopenia

73) Which disorder results from insufficient red blood cells or hemoglobin to carry enough oxygen to maintain homeostasis?

A) Polycythemia B) Anemia C) Hemophilia D) Thrombocytopenia

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74) Which disorder is an inherited disorder characterized by the inability to make one or more clotting factors?

A) Polycythemia B) Anemia C) Hemophilia D) Thrombocytopenia

75)

Which disorder is characterized by a low platelet count?

A) Polycythemia B) Anemia C) Hemophilia D) Thrombocytopenia

76)

What type of anemia can be caused by the destruction of red blood cells?

A) Iron deficiency anemia B) Pernicious anemia C) Aplastic anemia D) Hemolytic anemia

77)

Which type of anemia is caused by the lack of intrinsic factor?

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A) Iron deficiency anemia B) Pernicious anemia C) Aplastic anemia D) Hemolytic anemia

78)

What type of leukemia usually occurs in children?

A) Acute myeloid leukemia B) Chronic myeloid leukemia C) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia D) Chronic lymphoblastic leukemia

79)

What type of leukemia usually occurs in adults over 70 years of age?

A) Acute myeloid leukemia B) Chronic myeloid leukemia C) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia D) Chronic lymphoblastic leukemia

80)

Which disorder is not considered a cancer of the blood?

A) Acute myeloid leukemia B) Thrombocytopenia C) Primary polycythemia D) Chronic lymphoblastic leukemia

81)

Which of the following triggers the extrinsic pathway of coagulation?

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A) Damaged tissues B) The conversion of throboplastin to thrombin C) The conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin D) Platelets

82)

If a pregnant woman is Rh+, which of the following statements is true about her blood?

A) She does not have anti-Rh antibodies.

B) She will develop anti-Rh antibodies if she carries an child.

C) She will develop anti-Rh antibodies if she carries an child.

D) She will be given RhoGAM to prevent anti-Rh antibody formation.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 09_3e_ Roiger 1) C 2) D 3) D 4) A 5) A 6) B 7) C 8) C 9) A 10) C 11) A 12) C 13) D 14) B 15) B 16) D 17) A 18) C 19) B 20) A 21) A 22) D 23) C 24) C 25) B 26) D Version 1

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27) B 28) C 29) A 30) B 31) C 32) D 33) B 34) A 35) B 36) D 37) D 38) C 39) C 40) B 41) D 42) D 43) A 44) A 45) C 46) B 47) B 48) B 49) C 50) A 51) D 52) B 53) D 54) D 55) C 56) C Version 1

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57) D 58) D 59) B 60) A 61) D 62) D 63) B 64) B 65) A 66) D 67) C 68) C 69) A 70) B 71) A 72) A 73) B 74) C 75) D 76) D 77) B 78) C 79) D 80) B 81) A 82) A

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CHAPTER 10 The Cardiovascular System—Heart and Vessels 1)

Which word root refers to an artery?

A) Atri/o B) Ather/o C) Arter/o D) Vas/o

2)

Which word root refers to an atrium?

A) Atri/o B) Ather/o C) Arter/o D) Vas/o

3)

Which word root refers to a ventricle?

A) Vas/o B) Vascul/o C) Ven/o D) Ventricul/o

4)

Which word root refers to a vein?

A) Vas/o B) Vascul/o C) Ven/o D) Ather/o

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5)

Which word root means rapid?

A) Brady/ B) Tachy/ C) Rhythm/o D) Sphygm/o

6)

Which of the word roots describes an anatomical structure of the heart?

A) Pericardi/o B) Ventricul/o C) Atri/o D) All of these word roots describe a heart structure.

7)

What is the pericardium?

A) The cardiac muscle tissue of the heart B) The tissue that lines the heart's four chambers C) A fluid-filled, double-walled membrane that surrounds the heart D) The inner layer of the heart

8)

Which statement about the pericardium is false?

A) The pericardium is a serous membrane.

B) The parietal pericardium anchors the heart to the great vessels.

C) The visceral pericardium is the outer layer of the pericardium.

D) Pericardial fluid is between the two layers of the pericardium.

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9)

What is the endocardium?

A) The cardiac muscle tissue of the heart B) The tissue that lines the heart's four chambers C) A fluid-filled, double-walled membrane that surrounds the heart D) The lining of the pericardial cavity

10)

What are the two superior chambers of the heart?

A) Atria B) Ventricles C) Auricles D) Vena cavae

11)

What are the two inferior chambers of the heart?

A) Atria B) Ventricles C) Auricles D) Vena cavae

12)

Which chambers in the heart receive blood?

A) Atria B) Ventricles C) Coronary arteries D) Vena cavae

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13)

Which chambers in the heart pump blood?

A) Atria B) Ventricles C) Auricles D) Papillary muscles

14)

What structure marks the separation of the atria from the ventricles?

A) Interventricular septum B) Coronary sulcus C) Anterior interventricular sulcus D) Interatrial sulcus

15)

What structure separates the right ventricle from the left ventricle?

A) Interventricular septum B) Coronary sulcus C) Anterior interventricular sulcus D) Interatrial sulcus

16)

What structure separates the right atrium from the left atrium?

A) Interventricular septum B) Coronary sulcus C) None of these answers are correct.

D) Interatrial sulcus

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17)

The atria are separated from the ventricles by what type of valve?

A) Atrioventricular valve B) Interventricular valve C) Interatrial valve D) Ventriculoatrial valve

18)

Which valve lies between the right atrium and the right ventricle?

A) Tricuspid B) Bicuspid C) Mitral D) Pulmonary

19)

What is the function of the tendinous chords?

A) They open and close the valve.

B) They attach the valve to the papillary muscle.

C) They prevent blood from flowing into a chamber.

D) All of these answers are true.

20)

Which of the following is a semilunar valve within the heart?

A) Mitral valve B) Tricuspid valve C) Aortic valve D) Bicuspid valve

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21)

Which of the following is true about cardiac muscle tissue?

A) Intercalated discs allow slow, accurate electrical transmission between cells.

B) Cardiac muscle is voluntary.

C) Cardiac muscle lacks striations.

D) Intercalated discs allow the atrium or ventricles to contract simultaneously.

22)

What is the purpose of intercalated discs in cardiac muscle tissue?

A) Intercalated discs allow the atrium or ventricles to contract simultaneously.

B) Intercalated discs allow fast electrical transmission between cells.

C) Intercalated discs allow the atrium or ventricles to contract simultaneously and allow fast electrical transmission between cells.

D) Intercalated discs allow the atrium or ventricles to contract simultaneously but create delayed electrical transmission between cells.

23) All of the following are adaptations that allow the heart to use aerobic respiration for energy except which one?

A) Cardiac cells have fewer mitochondria.

B) Cardiac cells are rich in myoglobin.

C) Cardiac cells are rich in glycogen.

D) Cardiac cells use a variety of fuels as energy sources.

24)

Deoxygenated blood enters the heart from the body through what structure?

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A) Coronary artery B) Pulmonary vein C) Superior vena cava D) Aorta

25)

Blood enters into what structure in the heart from the superior and inferior vena cavae?

A) Left atrium B) Right atrium C) Left ventricle D) Right ventricle

26)

Blood leaves the right atrium and passes through what valve to get to the right ventricle?

A) Aortic valve B) Mitral valve C) Bicuspid valve D) Tricuspid valve

27)

Blood leaves the right ventricle through what structure?

A) Tricuspid valve B) Pulmonary valve C) Pulmonary trunk D) Bicuspid valve

28)

What structure takes blood from the right ventricle to the lungs to pick up oxygen?

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A) Pulmonary capillaries B) Pulmonary valve C) Pulmonary trunk D) Pulmonary veins

29)

The pulmonary trunk splits into what structures, taking blood to the lungs?

A) Pulmonary arteries B) Pulmonary valves C) Coronary arteries D) Pulmonary veins

30)

When in the lungs, blood absorbs what?

A) B) C) CO D) O

31)

When blood reaches the lungs, what does it unload?

A) B) C) CO D) O

32)

Which structures return blood from the lungs to the heart?

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A) Pulmonary arteries B) Pulmonary capillaries C) Pulmonary trunks D) Pulmonary veins

33)

Blood enters into what structure when it returns to the heart from the lungs?

A) Right atrium B) Left atrium C) Right ventricle D) Left ventricle

34)

Blood leaves the left atrium through what valve?

A) Bicuspid valve B) Tricuspid valve C) Aortic valve D) Pulmonary valve

35)

Blood leaves the left atrium and enters what chamber of the heart?

A) Right ventricle B) Left ventricle C) Right atrium D) Left atrium

36)

Blood is forced through what valve when leaving the left ventricle?

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A) Tricuspid valve B) Bicuspid valve C) Pulmonary valve D) Aortic valve

37)

Blood leaves the left ventricle and travels to what structure?

A) Pulmonary artery B) Pulmonary vein C) Vena cavae D) Aorta

38)

What structure takes oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body?

A) Pulmonary artery B) Pulmonary vein C) Aorta D) Vena cavae

39)

In the systemic circuit, what happens to the CO2 and O2 in the blood?

A) Both and are unloaded.

B) is unloaded and is loaded.

C) is loaded and is unloaded.

D) Both and are loaded.

40)

In the pulmonary circuit, what happens to the CO2 and O2 in the blood?

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A) Both and are unloaded.

B) is unloaded and is loaded.

C) is loaded and is unloaded.

D) Both and are loaded.

41)

A heartbeat is started by what structure?

A) Atrioventricular node B) Atrioventricular bundle C) Purkinje fibers D) Sinoatrial node

42)

What is considered to be the pacemaker of the heart?

A) Atrioventricular node B) Atrioventricular bundle C) Purkinje fibers D) Sinoatrial node

43)

What structure sends the electrical impulse to stimulate the ventricles to contract?

A) Atrioventricular node B) Left bundle branch C) Papillary fibers D) Sinoatrial node

44)

What structure sends the electrical impulse to stimulate the atria to contract?

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A) Atrioventricular node B) Atrioventricular bundle C) Purkinje fibers D) Sinoatrial node

45) What structure carries the electrical impulse from the AV node toward the apex of the heart?

A) Atrioventricular node B) Atrioventricular bundle C) Purkinje fibers D) Sinoatrial node

46)

What structure fans out from the end of the AV bundle to the wall of the ventricles?

A) Atrioventricular node B) Atrioventricular bundle C) Purkinje fibers D) Sinoatrial node

47)

Which term refers to contraction?

A) Diastole B) Systole C) Bradycardia D) Tachycardia

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48)

Which term refers to relaxation?

A) Diastole B) Systole C) Bradycardia D) Tachycardia

49)

Which statement about the cardiac cycle is false?

A) The right and left atria go through systole and diastole at the same time.

B) The AV valves function together.

C) The right and left ventricle go through systole and diastole one after the other.

D) The semilunar valves function together.

50)

Which of the following happens during atrial systole?

A) The atria depolarize and contract together creating decreased volume and higher pressure in the atria than the ventricles.

B) The atria then repolarize and relax.

C) Blood rushes in from the vena cavae and pulmonary veins to fill the right and left atria.

D) The increased pressure pushes blood through the AV valves into the atria.

51)

Which of the following statements is false regarding atrial systole?

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A) The atria depolarize and contract together creating decreased volume and higher pressure in the atria than the ventricles.

B) The atria then repolarize and relax.

C) Blood rushes in from the vena cavae and pulmonary veins to fill the right and left atria.

D) The increased pressure pushes blood through the AV valves into the atria.

52)

Which of the following does not happen during atrial diastole?

A) The atria depolarize and contract together creating decreased volume and higher pressure in the atria than the ventricles.

B) The atria repolarize and relax.

C) Blood rushes in from the vena cavae and pulmonary veins to fill the right and left atria.

D) The elastic fibers in the walls of the atria return them to their original shape.

53)

Which of the following does not happen during ventricular systole?

A) Papillary muscles contract, pulling on the tendinous chords to ensure that the AV valves stay closed and do not swing open towards the atria.

B) Contraction of the ventricles decreases the volume and increases the pressure inside the ventricles.

C) The conduction system carries the electrical impulses from the AV node to the Purkinje fibers, the ventricles depolarize and contract together.

D) All of these happen during ventricular systole.

54)

Which of the following happens during ventricular diastole?

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A) The pressure inside the ventricles is greater than inside the relaxed atria, so blood moves through the AV valves from the atria to the ventricles.

B) The pressure is greater in the ventricles than inside the pulmonary trunk and aorta.

C) Only the ventricles fill with blood during ventricular diastole.

D) The ventricles repolarize and relax.

55) What is the term used when any other part of the conduction system other than the SA node is setting the pace of the heart?

A) Vagal tone B) Arrhythmia C) Ectopic focus D) Nodal rhythm

56) What is the term used to describe the ability of the autonomic nervous system to control the pace of the SA node through the vagus nerve?

A) Vagal tone B) Arrhythmia C) Ectopic focus D) Nodal rhythm

57)

Which of the following is not a wave on an ECG?

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A) P B) Q C) T D) U E) R

58)

Which wave on the ECG shows the depolarization of the atria?

A) P B) Q, R, S C) T D) S-T

59)

Which wave on the ECG shows the depolarization of the ventricles?

A) P B) Q, R, S C) T D) S-T

60)

Which wave on the ECG shows the repolarization of the ventricles?

A) P B) Q, R, S C) T D) S-T

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61)

What term describes the amount of blood ejected by each ventricle each minute?

A) Cardiac output B) Heart rate C) Stroke volume D) Cardiac reserve

62) What term describes the difference between the cardiac output of a heart at rest and the maximum cardiac output the heart can achieve?

A) Cardiac output B) Heart rate C) Stroke volume D) Cardiac reserve

63)

What term describes the amount of blood ejected from each ventricle per beat?

A) Cardiac output B) Heart rate C) Stroke volume D) Cardiac reserve

64)

Which of the following is the correct equation for calculating cardiac output?

A) CO = HR x SV B) CO = HR/SV C) CO = HR+ SV D) CO = HR - SV

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65) What is the cardiac output if the heart rate is 115 beats/minute and the stroke volume is 95 mL/beat?

A) 210 mL/min B) 1.21 mL/min C) 10,925 mL/min D) 10,529 mL/min

66)

What term describes the amount of tension in the myocardium of the ventricular wall?

A) Frank-Starling law of the heart B) Afterload C) Contractility D) Preload

67)

What term describes the pressure in the pulmonary trunk and aorta during diastole?

A) Frank-Starling law of the heart B) Afterload C) Contractility D) Preload

68) What term describes the fact that the heart must pump out the amount of blood it receives?

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A) Frank-Starling law of the heart B) Afterload C) Contractility D) Preload

69)

Which factor below does not affect stroke volume?

A) Aortic blood pressure B) Afterload C) Contractility D) Preload

70)

Which of the following is a chronotropic factor?

A) Anything that changes the heart rate B) The cardiac accelerator center that uses sympathetic neurons to stimulate the SA and AV nodes to speed up the heart rate C) The cardiac inhibitory center that uses parasympathetic neurons of the vagus nerve to keep the SA node at 70−80 beats/minute D) All of these are chronotropic factors.

71)

Which of the following chemicals does not have a positive chronotropic effect?

A) Epinephrine B) Potassium C) Caffeine D) Thyroid hormone

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72)

Which blood vessel carries blood toward the heart?

A) Artery B) Vein C) Capillary D) All of these vessels carry blood toward the heart.

73)

Which blood vessel carries blood away from the heart?

A) Artery B) Vein C) Capillary D) All of these vessels carry blood away from the heart.

74)

Which blood vessel has a thicker tunica media?

A) Artery B) Vein C) Capillary D) The tunica media is the same size in all vessels.

75)

What is the function of the tunica externa?

A) To move blood through a vessel B) To anchor a vessel to surrounding tissue C) To repel platelets so blood can easily flow through a vessel D) To prevent backflow

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76)

What is the function of the tunica interna?

A) To contract moving blood through a vessel B) To anchors the vessel to surrounding tissue C) To secrete a chemical to repel platelets so blood can easily flow through a vessel D) To prevent backflow

77)

Which blood vessel layer is composed of simple squamous epithelium and fibrous tissue?

A) Tunica externa B) Tunica media C) Tunica interna D) Tunica intermedia

78)

An arteriole is an example of what type of artery?

A) Conducting B) Distributing C) Resistance D) Muscular

79)

What type of artery carries blood directly away from the heart?

A) Conducting B) Distributing C) Resistance D) Muscular

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80)

What is the smallest of all blood vessels?

A) Arteriole B) Vein C) Capillary D) Venule

81)

What is the correct sequence of systemic vessels that blood travels as it leaves the heart?

A) Aorta – arteries – arterioles – capillaries – veins – venules – vena cavae B) Aorta – arteries – arterioles – capillaries – venules – veins – vena cavae C) Vena cavae – veins – venules – capillaries – arterioles – arteries – aorta D) Aorta – arterioles –arteries – capillaries – venules – veins – vena cavae

82)

What is the function of capillaries?

A) To carry blood away from the heart B) To carry blood toward the heart C) To exchange fluids and other materials between the tissues and the blood D) All of these are functions of capillaries.

83)

Which type of blood vessel has valves to prevent backflow of blood?

A) Artery B) Vein C) Capillary D) All blood vessels have valves to prevent backflow of blood.

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84)

Which of the following merges blood vessels together?

A) Bypass B) Deviation C) Portal system D) Anastomosis

85)

What are the most common anastomoses?

A) Arteriovenous anastamoses B) Arterial anastamoses C) Venous anastomoses D) Capillary anastamoses

86) Which of the following is not a mechanism that aids in the venous return of blood to the heart?

A) Pressure gradient B) Gravity C) Smooth muscle pump D) Cardiac suction

87)

Which of the following is not a form of resistance that affects blood flow?

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A) Force of the ventricular contraction B) Blood viscosity C) Vessel length D) Vessel radius

88)

Blood pressure is usually measured in which artery?

A) Carotid B) Brachial C) Femoral D) Radial

89)

What is the normal blood pressure for a 20–30 year old?

A) 139/89 mmHg B) 140/90 mmHg C) 90/50 mmHg D) 120/72 mmHg

90)

What is pulse pressure?

A) The average pressure arteries must be able to withstand B) The surge of pressure that small arteries must withstand with each ventricular contraction C) The average pressure veins must be able to withstand D) The surge of pressure that small veins must withstand with each ventricular contraction

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91)

Which statement is true about pulse pressure?

A) As stroke volume increases, pulse pressure also increases.

B) As stroke volume decreases, pulse pressure increases.

C) As stroke volume increases, pulse pressure decreases.

D) As stroke volume decreases, pulse pressure also decreases.

92)

Which of the following is a mechanism of blood pressure regulation?

A) Local regulation by the tissues B) Hormonal regulation by the endocrine system C) Neural regulation by the nervous system D) Blood pressure is regulated by all of these mechanisms.

93) Which of the following is an example of how the body can locally control blood pressure?

A) Chemoreceptors monitor oxygen, carbon dioxide, and pH B) Baroreceptors in the aortic arch and carotid arteries monitor pressure C) The secretion of angiotensin II by the kidneys D) Inflammation

94) Which of the following does not occur in the cardiovascular system as a result of aging and hypertension?

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A) The heart becomes less efficient due to decreased resting stroke volume which decreases cardiac output.

B) The vessels thicken and become less elastic.

C) Vascular resistance increases with age in individuals with hypertension.

D) All of these happen to the cardiovascular system as a result of aging and hypertension.

95)

Which diagnostic test records the heart's electric activity?

A) Echocardiogram B) Electrocardiogram C) Heart CT scan D) Stress test

96)

Which diagnostic tool uses sound waves to visualize the heart?

A) Ultrasound B) Nuclear heart scan C) Heart CT scan D) Stress test

97)

Which diagnostic test injects contrast dye through a catheter into the heart?

A) CT angiography B) Nuclear heart scan C) Heart CT scan D) Cardiac catheterization

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98)

What cardiac disorder is characterized by the death of myocardial tissue due to ischemia?

A) Angina pectoris B) Myocardial infarction C) Atherosclerosis D) Congestive heart failure

99) What cardiovascular disorder is characterized by a buildup of fatty deposits within arterial walls?

A) Angina pectoris B) Myocardial infarction C) Atherosclerosis D) Congestive heart failure

100) What cardiac disorder is characterized by heaviness or pain in the chest caused by a temporary or reversible myocardial ischemia?

A) Angina pectoris B) Myocardial infarction C) Atherosclerosis D) Congestive heart failure

101)

Which cardiac defect is not a defect seen in Tetralogy of Fallot?

A) VSD B) Overriding aorta C) Aortic valve stenosis D) Right ventricular hypertrophy

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102) Which disorder is caused by dysfunctional valves in the veins that allow the backflow and pooling of blood, resulting in enlarged veins?

A) Aneurysm B) Coronary artery disease C) Varicose veins D) Thrombophlebitis

103)

Which disorder is characterized as inflammation of the vein caused by thrombosis?

A) Aneurysm B) Coronary artery disease C) Varicose veins D) Thrombophlebitis

104)

Which of the following is not a disorder of the cardiac valves?

A) Cardiac tamponade B) Murmur C) Prolapse D) Stenosis

105)

Which of these blood pressures would be considered hypertensive?

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A) 89/50 mmHg B) 119/79 mmHg C) 150/99 mmHg D) 100/70 mmHg

106) Which of the following is an adaptation that allows the heart to have oxygen readily available?

A) Cardiac cells have fewer mitochondria.

B) Cardiac cells are rich in myoglobin.

C) Cardiac cells are rich in glycogen.

D) Cardiac cells use a variety of fuels as energy sources.

107)

What artery is the first systemic branch off the aorta?

A) Brachiocephalic artery B) Right common carotid artery C) Left common carotid artery D) Subclavian artery

108)

What artery serves the lower limb?

A) External iliac artery B) Inferior mesenteric artery C) Left common carotid artery D) Subclavian artery

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109)

What vein drains the thigh?

A) Popliteal vein B) Femoral vein C) Left common carotid vein D) Subclavian vein

110)

What vein drains essentially everything below the diaphragm?

A) Inferior vena cava B) Femoral vein C) Superior vena cava D) Aorta

111) Which of the following is the mechanism in which skeletal muscles assist venous return of blood to the heart?

A) Frank-Starling law of the heart B) Valvular pump C) Contraction of limb muscles D) Cardiac suction

112)

Which of the following is the most controllable factor of resistance?

A) Force of the ventricular contraction B) Blood viscosity C) Vessel length D) Vessel radius

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113)

How do muscle contractions of exercise affect the cardiac output?

A) Increase preload = increase stroke volume = increase cardiac output B) Increase preload = decrease stroke volume = decrease cardiac output C) Increase afterload = increase stroke volume = increase cardiac output D) Decrease afterload = increase stroke volume = increase cardiac output

114)

What is a long-term effect of chronic exercise on the vascular system?

A) Angiogenesis B) Closing of the precapillary sphincters C) Opening of the precapillary sphincters D) Vessel constriction

115)

What can be done to minimize the effects of aging on the cardiovascular system?

A) Physical conditioning B) Eating a diet low in sodium C) Not smoking D) All of these minimize the effects to the cardiovascular system as a result of aging.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 10_3e_ Roiger 1) C 2) A 3) D 4) C 5) B 6) D 7) C 8) C 9) B 10) A 11) B 12) A 13) B 14) B 15) A 16) C 17) A 18) A 19) B 20) C 21) D 22) C 23) A 24) C 25) B 26) D Version 1

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27) B 28) C 29) A 30) B 31) A 32) D 33) B 34) A 35) B 36) D 37) D 38) C 39) C 40) B 41) D 42) D 43) A 44) D 45) B 46) C 47) B 48) A 49) C 50) A 51) C 52) A 53) D 54) D 55) C 56) A Version 1

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57) D 58) A 59) B 60) C 61) A 62) D 63) C 64) A 65) C 66) D 67) B 68) A 69) A 70) D 71) B 72) B 73) A 74) A 75) B 76) C 77) C 78) C 79) A 80) C 81) B 82) C 83) B 84) D 85) C 86) C Version 1

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87) A 88) B 89) D 90) B 91) A 92) D 93) D 94) D 95) B 96) A 97) D 98) B 99) C 100) A 101) C 102) C 103) D 104) A 105) C 106) B 107) A 108) A 109) B 110) A 111) C 112) D 113) A 114) A 115) D

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CHAPTER 11 The Lymphatic System 1)

Which word root refers to a lymph node?

A) Lymph/o B) Thym/o C) Lymphaden/o D) Immun/o

2)

Which word root refers to the thymus?

A) Lymph/o B) Thym/o C) Lymphaden/o D) Immun/o

3)

Which word root refers to lymph?

A) Lymph/o B) Thym/o C) Lymphaden/o D) Immun/o

4)

Which word root refers to protection?

A) Lymph/o B) Thym/o C) Lymphaden/o D) Immun/o

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5)

Lymph is similar to what other bodily fluid?

A) Blood B) Plasma C) Urine D) Intracellular fluid

6)

Which of the following statements about lymph and lymph vessels is false?

A) Lymph leaves the system of blood vessels through the capillaries due to blood pressure.

B) Lymph returns to the cardiovascular system through a network of open lymph capillaries and vessels that drain the tissues of lymph.

C) Valves inside the lymph vessels direct the flow of lymph in either direction.

D) Lymph vessels eventually drain into one of two collecting ducts, the thoracic duct and the right lymphatic duct.

7)

Which of the following statements about lymph and lymph vessels is true?

A) Lymph leaves the system of blood vessels through the veins due to blood pressure.

B) Lymph returns to the cardiovascular system through a network of open lymph capillaries and vessels that drain the tissues of lymph.

C) Valves inside the lymph vessels direct the flow of lymph in either direction.

D) Lymph vessels eventually drain into one collecting duct.

8)

Where do the thoracic and right lymphatic ducts deliver lymph?

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A) Aorta B) Inferior vena cava C) Subclavian vein D) Cisterna chyli

9)

Which duct drains lymph from the head, the right arm, and the right side of the thorax?

A) Right lymphatic duct B) Thoracic duct C) Subclavian vein D) None of these are correct.

10) Which duct drains lymph from parts of the body other than the head, the right arm, and the right side of the thorax?

A) Right lymphatic duct B) Thoracic duct C) Subclavian vein D) None of these are correct.

11)

What moves lymph through lymph vessels?

A) The muscular layer of the lymph vessel B) The skeletal pump C) The valves within the lymph vessel D) Both the muscular layer of the lymph vessel and valves within the lymph vessel

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12)

The lymphatic system is closely connected to what other system?

A) Nervous B) Endocrine C) Cardiovascular D) Muscular

13) Which lymphatic disorder is a tropical disease caused by a round worm that blocks lymphatic drainage?

A) Lymphadenitis B) Elephantiasis C) Allergies D) HIV/AIDS

14)

Which of the following is not a category of cells found in the lymphatic system?

A) Natural killer cells B) T lymphocytes C) B lymphocytes D) Monocytes

15) Which cell type destroys bacteria, fights against transplanted tissues, attacks cells infected by viruses, and destroys cancer cells?

A) Natural killer cells B) Thelper cells C) Bplasma cells D) Monocytes

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16)

Which cell type stands guard to alert the body of pathogens entering through the skin?

17) What type of T cell suppresses an immune response by inhibiting multiplication and chemical secretions from other T cells?

18) What type of T cells are important for nonspecific defense and specific immunity by recognizing foreign pathogens and activating the cells to fight them?

A) Tcytotoxic cells B) Thelper cells C) Tmemory cells D) Tregulatory cells

19) What type of T cells directly kill cells infected by viruses and cancer cells in specific immunity?

20) Which type of B cell constantly samples material from their environment, processes it, and then displays it for other cells to see?

21) Which type of B cell is important in specific immunity because they produce antibodies, which are dissolved proteins in plasma that seek out specific foreign antigens for their destruction?

A) cells B) cells C) APCs D) cells

22) Which type of B cell remembers pathogens that have been introduced to the body so that repeated exposure can be fought more swiftly?

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A)

cells

B) cells C) APCs D) cells

23) What lymphoid tissue is scattered throughout the body lining tracts to the outside environment?

A) MALT B) Peyer's patches C) Lymph nodes D) Tonsils

24) What lymphoid tissue is located at the distal end of the small intestine, just before the opening to the large intestine?

A) MALT B) Peyer's patches C) Lymph nodes D) Tonsils

25)

What is the function of Peyer's patches?

A) To stand guard against and fight any pathogens trying to enter the body B) To fight any bacteria moving up into the small intestine from the colon C) To remove anything that may be potentially harmful in lymph D) To guard against pathogens entering the body through the nose or mouth

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26) What lymphoid tissue guards against pathogens entering the body through the nose or mouth?

A) MALT B) Peyer's patches C) Lymph nodes D) Tonsils

27)

What lymphoid tissue removes anything that may be potentially harmful in lymph?

A) MALT B) Peyer's patches C) Lymph nodes D) Tonsils

28) Which lymphatic disorder is characterized by a lymph node that has become swollen and painful to the touch as a pathogen is being attacked by the lymph node's lymphocytes?

A) Lymphadenitis B) Elephantiasis C) Allergies D) HIV/AIDS

29)

Where are the adenoids located?

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A) The roof of the nasopharynx B) Laterally in the oropharynx C) At the root of the tongue D) In the adrenal gland

30)

Where are the palatine tonsils located?

A) The roof of the nasopharynx B) Laterally in the oropharynx C) At the root of the tongue D) At the ileocecal junction

31)

T cells migrate from the red bone marrow to what organ to mature?

A) Spleen B) Tonsils C) Thymus D) Thyroid gland

32)

Which statement about the thymus is false?

A) T cells migrate from the red bone marrow to the thymus gland where they mature.

B) The thymus is located in the superior mediastinum between the sternum and the aortic arch.

C) The thymus is well developed at birth and continues to develop during adulthood.

D) All of the statements are true.

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33)

What part of the spleen serves as a reservoir for lymphocytes and macrophages?

A) Red pulp B) White pulp C) Both red and white pulp D) Pink pulp

34)

Which of the following is not one of the three lines of defense?

A) External barriers B) Inflammation C) Specific immunity D) Antibiotic proteins

35)

Which of the following is not considered part of the nonspecific resistance?

A) External barriers B) Inflammation C) Humoral immunity D) Fever

36)

Which of the following is true about nonspecific resistance and specific immunity?

A) Nonspecific defenses are widespread, meaning they work to fight many pathogens without prior exposure.

B) Nonspecific defenses work to fend off any pathogen in the same way every time the pathogen comes along in the body.

C) Specific immunity requires a prior exposure to a pathogen so the system can recognize the pathogen D) All of these statements are true.

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37)

Which of the following does not fall under the first line of defense?

A) Skin B) Mucous membranes C) Tears D) Antimicrobial proteins

38)

Which of the following falls under the second line of defense?

A) Inflammation B) Mucous membranes C) Tears D) Mucus

39)

How does keratin in skin help defend the body?

A) It forms an acid mantle which bacteria do not like.

B) It traps microbes.

C) It is a tough protein that bacteria cannot easily break through.

D) It creates an acidic environment hostile to bacteria.

40)

Which of the following is not a function of mucus and mucous membranes?

A) To trap microbes B) To destroy pathogens C) To inhibit pathogens from progressing D) To initiate tissue repair

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41)

Which of the following is not a function of inflammation?

A) To trap microbes B) To remove debris and damaged tissue C) To limit the spread of pathogens D) To initiate tissue repair

42)

What is the correct sequence of events in the inflammatory process?

A) Vasodilation – margination – diapedesis – chemotaxis – phagocytosis B) Vasodilation – diapedesis – chemotaxis – margination – phagocytosis C) Vasodilation – margination – phagocytosis – diapedesis – chemotaxis D) Vasodilation – diapedesis – margination – chemotaxis – phagocytosis

43)

What are interferons?

A) Chemicals released by the presence of a virus within a cell that help protect neighboring cells B) Chemicals produced by virally infected cells that encourage the production of antibodies C) Chemicals that raise the body temperature D) Chemicals released by damaged tissue cause blood vessels to widen

44)

What is the complement system?

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A) A set of 20 inactive proteins activated by the presence of a pathogen B) Chemicals released by virally infected cells that encourage the production of antiviral protein C) Chemicals that raise the body temperature D) Chemicals released by damaged tissue to cause blood vessels to widen

45)

What are pyrogens?

A) A set of 20 inactive proteins activated by the presence of a pathogen B) Chemicals released by virally infected cells that encourage the production of antiviral proteins C) Chemicals released by activated macrophages that raise the body temperature D) Chemicals released by damaged tissue to cause blood vessels to widen

46) Which of the following statements describes the function of basophils in the second line of defense?

A) They target and fight bacteria using perforins and granzymes.

B) They release histamine to promote inflammation.

C) They target and attack worm parasites.

D) They become macrophages to phagocytize bacteria.

47) Which of the following statements describes the function of monocytes in the second line of defense?

A) They use perforins to kill virally infected cells.

B) They release histamine to promote inflammation.

C) They attack worm parasites.

D) They become macrophages to phagocytize bacteria.

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48) Which of the following statements describes the function of neutrophils in the second line of defense?

A) They use granzymes to destroy cancer cells.

B) They release histamine to promote inflammation.

C) They attack worm parasites.

D) They become macrophages to phagocytize bacteria.

49) Which of the following statements describes the function of eosinophils in the second line of defense?

A) They produce interferons and activate the complement system.

B) They release histamine to promote inflammation.

C) They attack worm parasites.

D) They become macrophages to phagocytize bacteria.

50)

Which statement is false about MHC and APC?

A) MHC proteins display both what is self and what is foreign.

B) If an epitope in an MHC is foreign, a specific immune response is initiated.

C) Epitopes are displayed on an MHC protein on the surface of an APC. D) MHCs process antigens and APCs present what was processed.

51)

Which of the following statements about humoral immunity is false?

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A) Humoral immunity involves plasma cells making antibodies.

B) Plasma cells produce antigen-specific antibodies.

C) Humoral immunity begins when an APC in lymphoid tissue displays an epitope from its environment on an MHC protein.

D) Humoral immunity is also called cell-mediated immunity.

52) How long does it take for humoral immunity to accomplish antibody production in the first exposure to the pathogen?

A) 3–6 days B) 2–5 days C) 13–16 days D) 5-10 days

53) How long does it take for humoral immunity to accomplish antibody production in the second exposure to the pathogen?

A) 3–6 days B) 2–5 days C) 13–16 days D) 5-10 days

54) In humoral immunity, B cells clone themselves in the germinal centers of the lymphatic nodules to become what two types of cells?

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A) Natural killer cells and helper cells B) Natural killer cells and memory cells C) Helper cells and plasma cells D) Plasma cells and memory cells

55)

Cellular immunity is not effective against which of the following?

A) Cancer cells B) Virally infected cells C) A bacterial skin infection D) Cellular immunity is not effective against any of these.

56)

Humoral immunity is effective against what?

A) Cancer cells B) Virally infected cells C) Pathogens present in the tissues D) All of these answers are correct.

57)

Which cells are involved in humoral immunity?

A) Neutrophils B) cells C) Plasma cells D) Basophils

58)

Which cells are involved in cellular immunity?

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A) Neutrophils B) cells C) Plasma cells D) cells

59)

Which cells are involved in both humoral and cellular immunity?

A)

cells

B) cells C) Plasma cells D) cells

60) In cellular immunity, which cells secrete interleukins to attract neutrophils and NK cells to the area, attract and activate macrophages to clean up any debris, and further activate more T cells and B cells?

61)

In cellular immunity, which cells directly attack a pathogen or cancer cell?

62) Aiden is a 4-month-old baby boy. When he was born his mother decided to breast feed him, instead of using formula. What type of immunity will baby Aiden develop from receiving mom's antibodies through her breast milk?

A) Natural active immunity B) Natural passive immunity C) Artificial active immunity D) Artificial passive immunity

63) Gavin turned 4 years old and received vaccinations at his yearly physical examination.

What type of immunity will Gavin develop from the vaccinations he receives?

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A) Natural active immunity B) Natural passive immunity C) Artificial active immunity D) Artificial passive immunity

64) Muan was hiking the mountains and was bitten by a rattlesnake. When she arrived at the hospital, she was given anti-venom to combat the snake bite. What type of immunity will Muan develop from the anti-venom?

A) Natural active immunity B) Natural passive immunity C) Artificial active immunity D) Artificial passive immunity

65) Zawadi got the chickenpox from her little brother when she was 6. She will most likely not contract this disease again. What type of immunity is described in this scenario?

A) Natural active immunity B) Natural passive immunity C) Artificial active immunity D) Artificial passive immunity

66)

What term is used to indicate that the body created its own immunity?

A) Passive B) Active C) Natural D) Artificial

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67) What term is used to indicate the immunity was acquired through someone or something else?

A) Passive B) Active C) Natural D) Artificial

68)

Which of the following statements about T cells is false?

A)

cells activate macrophages for nonspecific defenses like inflammation and

fever.

B) In humoral immunity, cells first recognize what is foreign and then release interleukin-2 to have B cells react by cloning themselves and producing antibodies.

C) In cellular immunity, cells recognize what is foreign and release interleukin-1 to get cells to clone themselves and attack.

D) All of these statements are true.

69)

What is the function of the lymphatic system?

A) To maintain fluid balance B) To absorb lipids C) To defend against disease D) All of the answers are functions of the lymphatic system.

70) Which of the following statements about the effects of aging on the lymphatic system is true?

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A) B cell production will decrease with age.

B) T cell production will decrease with age.

C) The hypersensitivity response will increase causing allergies to become worse.

D) T cell production will increase with age.

71)

Which of the following would be determined by a white blood cell differential test?

A) The presence of abnormal white blood cells in the CSF B) The presence of abnormal cells in the lymph nodes C) The presence of abnormal cells in the bone marrow D) The presence of an abnormal percentage of basophils

72) Which diagnostic exam can indicate whether there are abnormal cells in the bone marrow?

A) Bone marrow aspiration and biopsy B) Lumbar puncture C) X-ray D) Lymph node biopsy

73)

Which type of T cell is infected by HIV?

A)

cell

B) C)

cell cell

D)

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74)

What causes acquired immunodeficiency syndrome?

A) Lymphadenitis B) Elephantiasis C) Allergies D) HIV

75) Rheumatoid arthritis, Graves' disease, and myasthenia gravis all are examples of what kind of lymphatic disorder?

A) Lymphadenitis B) Autoimmune C) Allergies D) HIV/AIDS

76)

What lymphatic disorder is characterized by a hypersensitivity to a foreign antigen?

A) Lymphadenitis B) Elephantiasis C) Allergy D) HIV/AIDS

77)

Which disorder is characterized as a cancer of the bone marrow plasma cells?

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A) Lymphadenitis B) Elephantiasis C) Lymphoma D) Multiple myeloma

78)

Which disorder is not a type of cancer?

A) Elephantiasis B) Hodgkin lymphoma C) Non-Hodgkin lymphoma D) Multiple myeloma

79)

From what fluid does lymph originate?

A) Blood B) Plasma C) Urine D) Intracellular fluid

80)

An APC displays a(an)

blank on an MHC molecule.

A) MHC protein B) epitope C) self antigen D) foreign antigen

81)

What releases interleukin-2 to activate humoral immunity?

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A) cell B) Macrophage C) D) APC

82)

cell

Which function of the lymphatic system relates to circulation?

A) Maintaining fluid balance B) Absorbing lipids C) Defending against disease D) Providing immunity

83)

What might chicken pox re-emerge as in an aging individual?

A) Lupus B) Shingles C) Lyme disease D) Polio

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 11_3e_ Roiger 1) C 2) B 3) A 4) D 5) B 6) C 7) B 8) C 9) A 10) B 11) B 12) C 13) B 14) D 15) A 16) D 17) C 17) F 17) C 17) F 18) B 19) A 20) C 21) A 22) B 23) A Version 1

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24) B 25) B 26) D 27) C 28) A 29) A 30) B 31) C 32) C 33) B 34) D 35) C 36) D 37) D 38) A 39) C 40) D 41) A 42) A 43) A 44) A 45) C 46) B 47) D 48) A 49) C 50) D 51) D 52) A 53) B Version 1

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54) D 55) C 56) C 57) C 58) B 59) A 60) B 61) A 62) B 63) C 64) D 65) A 66) B 67) A 68) D 69) D 70) B 71) D 72) A 73) B 74) D 75) B 76) C 77) D 78) A 79) B 80) B 81) A 82) A 83) B Version 1

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CHAPTER 12 The Respiratory System 1)

Which word root refers to a bronchial tube?

A) Bronch/o B) Bronchi/o C) Brochiol/o D) Bronc/o

2)

Which word root refers to air?

A) Phren/o B) Pneum/o C) Pulmon/o D) Pharyng/o

3)

Which word root refers to a bronchus?

A) Bronch/o B) Bronchi/o C) Brochiol/o D) Bronc/o

4)

Which word root refers to the diaphragm?

A) Phren/o B) Pneum/o C) Pulmon/o D) Pharyng/o

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5)

Which word root refers to the chest?

A) Phren/o B) Thorac/o C) Trache/o D) Spir/o

6)

What does the word root cyan/o mean?

A) Blue B) Carbon dioxide C) Chest D) Air

7)

What does the word root alveol/o mean?

A) Blue B) Alveolus C) Lung D) Air

8)

Which word root does not mean nose?

A) Rhin/o B) Nas/o C) Sinus/o D) All of these combining forms mean nose.

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9)

Which word root refers to a lung?

A) Phren/o B) Pneum/o C) Pulmon/o D) Pharyng/o

10)

Which of the following structures is considered part of the upper respiratory tract?

A) Lungs B) Bronchi C) Pharynx D) Alveolus

11)

Which of the following structures is considered part of the lower respiratory tract?

A) Lungs B) Nose C) Pharynx D) Larynx

12) Which of the following correctly lists the sequence in which air travels through the respiratory system?

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A) The air enters the nasal cavity through the nose, to the larynx, to the pharynx, to the trachea, to the bronchi, to the lungs, to the bronchial tree, and to the alveoli.

B) The air enters the nasal cavity through the nose, to the pharynx, to the larynx, to the trachea, to the bronchi, to the lungs, to the bronchial tree, and to the alveoli.

C) The air enters the nasal cavity through the nose, to the trachea, to the pharynx, to the larynx, to the bronchi, to the lungs, to the bronchial tree, and to the alveoli.

D) The air enters the nasal cavity through the nose, to the trachea, to the pharynx, to the larynx, to the bronchi, to the bronchial tree, to the lungs, and to the alveoli.

13)

What are the three bony lateral ridges in the nasal cavity called?

A) The vestibule B) The guard hairs C) The sinuses D) The nasal chonchae

14)

What is another name for the throat?

A) Pharynx B) Larynx C) Trachea D) Epiglottis

15)

What is another name for the voice box?

A) Pharynx B) Larynx C) Trachea D) Epiglottis

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16) What structure folds over the glottis during swallowing to prevent solids and liquids from entering the larynx?

A) Pharynx B) Larynx C) Trachea D) Epiglottis

17)

Air passes through the parts of the pharynx in what order?

A) The oropharynx – the nasopharynx – the laryngopharynx B) The nasopharynx – the oropharynx – the laryngopharynx C) The laryngopharynx – nasopharynx – the oropharynx D) None of these are correct.

18)

Which structure serves as a common passage way for food and air?

A) Pharynx B) Trachea C) Larynx D) Esophagus

19)

Which statement about the bronchi is false?

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A) The right and left main bronchi each enter their respective lung at the hilum.

B) The right bronchus is slightly more horizontal than the left bronchus due to the location of the heart.

C) The main bronchi and all of their further branches make up the bronchial tree.

D) All of these statements are false.

20)

How many lobes does the right lung have?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

21)

What are the grape-like clusters at the end of each bronchiole?

A) Lobule B) Bronchi C) Hilum D) Alveoli

22)

What is surfactant?

A) A chemical secreted by alveolar dust cells for defense B) The fluid found between the visceral and parietal pleurae C) The substance responsible for gas exchange in the alveoli D) A fluid secreted by the great alveolar cells

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23)

Which statement about surfactant is false?

A) Surfactant increases the surface tension of water.

B) Surfactant causes water to form a thin sheet instead of a bead.

C) Surfactant reduces the chance the alveoli walls collapsing on each other.

D) All of these statements are false.

24) Which disorder occurs in premature infants and is characterized by collapsed alveoli due to a lack of surfactant?

A) Respiratory membrane disease B) Hyaline membrane disease C) Surfactant disease D) Fetal respiratory disease

25) Infants born prematurely are susceptible to which of the following due to a lack of surfactant?

A) Respiratory distress syndrome B) Pneumothorax C) Emphysema D) Asthma

26)

Which statement lists all of the components of the respiratory membrane?

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A) The respiratory membrane is composed of a thin layer of surfactant on the alveoli, a single squamous cell alveolar wall, and the single cell capillary wall.

B) The respiratory membrane is composed of a thin layer of water on the alveoli, a single squamous cell alveolar wall, and a single cell capillary wall.

C) The respiratory membrane is composed of a thin layer of water with surfactant on the alveoli, a single squamous cell alveolar wall, and a single cell capillary wall.

D) The respiratory membrane is composed of a thin layer of water with surfactant on the alveoli and a single cell capillary wall.

27)

Which statement correctly describes what happens during inspiration?

A) The external intercostal, pectoralis minor, and sternocleidomastoid muscles contract to expand the rib cage and the diaphragm contracts to flatten its dome shape.

B) The external intercostal, pectoralis major, and sternocleidomastoid muscles contract to expand the rib cage and the diaphragm contracts to flatten its dome shape.

C) The external intercostal, pectoralis major, and sternocleidomastoid muscles contract to expand the rib cage and the diaphragm relaxes to flatten its dome shape.

D) The external intercostal and sternocleidomastoid muscles contract to expand the rib cage and the diaphragm contracts to flatten its dome shape.

28)

Which statement correctly describes what happens during expiration?

A) The external intercostal, pectoralis minor, and sternocleidomastoid muscles contract to expand the rib cage and the diaphragm contracts to flatten its dome shape.

B) The external intercostal, pectoralis minor, and sternocleidomastoid muscles relax allowing the rib cage to return to its unexpanded size and the diaphragm relaxes to return to its dome shape.

C) The external intercostal, pectoralis minor, and sternocleidomastoid muscles contract to expand the rib cage and the diaphragm relaxes to return to its dome shape.

D) The external intercostal and sternocleidomastoid muscles relax to expand the rib cage and the diaphragm relaxes to return to its dome shape.

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29)

Which of the following statements about inspiration is true?

A) As the lung expands, the pressure within the lung increases, so air moves in until the pressure inside the lung is equal to the pressure outside the body.

B) As the lung expands, the pressure within the lung decreases, so air moves in until the pressure inside the lung is equal to the pressure outside the body.

C) As the lung expands, the pressure within the lung decreases, so air moves out until the pressure inside the lung is equal to the pressure outside the body.

D) As the lung expands, the pressure within the lung decreases, so air moves out until the pressure inside the lung is greater than the pressure outside the body.

30)

Which of the following statements about pressure in the lungs is true?

A) When the pressure in the lung is greater than inside the body, air flows from the body until the pulmonary and atmospheric pressures are equal.

B) When the pressure in the lung is greater than outside the body, air flows into the body until the pulmonary and atmospheric pressures are equal.

C) When the pressure in the lung is less than outside the body, air flows from the body until the pulmonary and atmospheric pressures are equal.

D) When the pressure in the lung is greater than outside the body, air flows from the body until the pulmonary and atmospheric pressures are equal.

31) Which condition results from air being introduced in the pleural cavity between the pleural membranes?

A) Emphysema B) Pneumonia C) Pneumothorax D) Asthma

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32)

What can spirometry measure?

A) Lung volume B) Lung capacity C) Both lung capacity and lung volume.

D) Neither lung capacity nor lung volume.

33)

What does the tidal volume represent?

A) The amount of air in the lungs that cannot be moved B) The amount of air that can be forcefully expired beyond the amount expired in a normal breath at rest C) The amount of air that can be forcefully inspired beyond the amount inspired in a normal breath at rest D) The amount of air moved in a normal breath (inspired or expired) at rest

34)

What does the inspiratory reserve volume represent?

A) The amount of air in the lungs that cannot be moved B) The amount of air that can be forcefully expired beyond the amount expired in a normal breath at rest C) The amount of air that can be forcefully inspired beyond the amount inspired in a normal breath at rest D) The amount of air moved in a normal breath (inspired or expired) at rest

35)

What does the expiratory reserve volume represent?

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A) The amount of air in the lungs that cannot be moved B) The amount of air that can be forcefully expired beyond the amount expired in a normal breath at rest C) The amount of air that can be forcefully inspired beyond the amount inspired in a normal breath at rest D) The amount of air moved in a normal breath (inspired or expired) at rest

36)

What does the functional residual capacity represent?

A) The maximum amount of air the lung can hold B) The maximum amount of air that can be inspired after the expiration of a normal breath at rest C) The maximum amount of air that can be moved D) The amount of air remaining in the lungs after the expiration of a normal breath at rest

37)

What does the total lung capacity represent?

A) The maximum amount of air the lung can hold B) The maximum amount of air that can be inspired after the expiration of a normal breath at rest C) The maximum amount of air that can be moved D) The amount of air remaining in the lungs after the expiration of a normal breath at rest

38)

What does the vital capacity represent?

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A) The maximum amount of air the lung can hold B) The maximum amount of air that can be inspired after the expiration of a normal breath at rest C) The maximum amount of air that can be moved D) The amount of air remaining in the lungs after the expiration of a normal breath at rest

39)

What does the inspiratory capacity represent?

A) The maximum amount of air the lung can hold B) The maximum amount of air that can be inspired after the expiration of a normal breath at rest C) The maximum amount of air that can be moved D) The amount of air remaining in the lungs after the expiration of a normal breath at rest

40)

How can the vital capacity be calculated?

A) IC + FRC B) ERV + RV C) TV + IRV D) VC + RV

41)

How can the functional residual capacity be calculated?

A) IC + FRC B) ERV + RV C) TV + IRV D) VC + RV

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42)

How can the total lung capacity be calculated?

A) IC + FRC B) ERV + RV C) TV + IRV D) VC + RV

43)

What does compliance measure in terms of lung function?

A) It measures how well the lung can expand and return to shape.

B) It measures how much the lung can expand.

C) It measures how much the lung can hold.

D) It measures how much air is left in the lung after a maximum exhalation.

44) Which of the following statements correctly list the partial pressures of nitrogen, oxygen, carbon dioxide, and water vapor?

A) PN2 is 78.6% of 760 or 597 mmHg, PO2 is 0.04% of 760 or 0.3 mmHg, PCO2 is 20.9% of 760 or 159 mmHg, and the remainder 3.7 mmHg is the partial pressure of water vapor.

B) PN2 is 78.6% of 760 or 597 mmHg, PO2 is 20.9% of 760 or 159 mmHg, PCO2 is 0.04% of 760 or 0.3 mmHg, and the remainder 3.7 mmHg is the partial pressure of water vapor.

C) PN2 is 0.04% of 760 or 0.3 mmHg, PO2 is 78.6% of 760 or 597 mmHg, PCO2 is 20.9% of 760 or 159 mmHg, and the remainder 3.7 mmHg is the partial pressure of water vapor.

D) None of the answers are correct.

45)

Which statement regarding gas exchange is true?

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A) Blood coming from the right side of the heart to the lung is high in oxygen and the air inspired to the alveolus in the lung is low in oxygen.

B) Oxygen-rich blood travels from the lung to the right side of the heart before traveling to the capillaries at the tissues of the body.

C) The blood leaving the capillaries at the tissues of the body travels to the left side of the heart before returning to the lungs.

D) Blood leaves the left side of the heart to carry oxygen through the capillaries to the body's tissues.

46)

Which of the following situations comparing inspired air to expired air is false?

A) Oxygen diffuses into the arterial end of capillaries to the tissues, and CO2 diffuses into the tissues of the capillaries due to the differences in partial pressures.

B) Oxygen diffuses into the arterial ends of pulmonary capillaries, and CO2 diffuses into the alveoli because of differences in partial pressures.

C) The partial pressure of O2 is reduced in the pulmonary veins due to the mixing of blood drained from the bronchi and bronchial tree.

D) Oxygen diffuses out of the arterial end of capillaries to the tissues, and CO2 diffuses out of the tissues to the capillaries due to the differences in partial pressures.

47)

Which of the following does not influence gas exchange?

A) Concentration of the gases B) Membrane area and thickness C) Solubility of the gas D) All of these influence gas exchange.

48)

Which statement about gas exchange is false?

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A) The thicker the respiratory membrane, the harder it is for gases to diffuse across it.

B) Gases must be able to dissolve in water if they are to diffuse across a membrane into the blood.

C) The greater the area of respiratory membrane, the greater the opportunity for gas exchange.

D) The lesser the concentration gradient, the more diffusion takes place.

49)

What does ventilation-perfusion coupling refer to?

A) The air flow to the lung must be greater than or less than but not equal to the blood flow to the lung.

B) The air flow to the lung must be less than the blood flow to the lung.

C) The air flow to the lung must be greater than the blood flow to the lung.

D) The air flow to the lung must match the blood flow to the lung.

50)

What does lung perfusion refer to?

A) The blood flow to the alveoli B) The air flow to the alveoli C) The blood flow to the bronchioles D) The air flow to the bronchioles

51)

What does alveolar ventilation refer to?

A) The blood flow to the alveoli B) The air flow to the alveoli C) The blood flow to the bronchioles D) The air flow to the bronchioles

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52)

How does lung perfusion work in ventilation-perfusion coupling?

A) If partial pressure of carbon dioxide increases, the bronchioles dilate.

B) Air flow is directed to lobules where partial pressure of carbon dioxide is high.

C) If partial pressure of carbon dioxide decreases, the bronchioles constrict.

D) Alveolar capillaries constrict where the partial pressure of oxygen is low, so blood is diverted to where the partial pressure of oxygen is high.

53)

How does alveolar ventilation work in ventilation-perfusion coupling?

A) If partial pressure of carbon dioxide increases, the bronchioles dilate.

B) Air flow is directed to lobules where partial pressure of carbon dioxide is high.

C) If partial pressure of carbon dioxide decreases, the bronchioles constrict.

D) All of these answers are correct.

Which of these relationships between the partial pressure of CO2 in tissues and capillaries 54) is correct?

A) PCO2Tissues> PCO2 Capillary B) PCO2 Tissues < PCO2 Capillary C) PCO2 Tissues = PCO2 Capillary D) All of these answers are correct.

55)

Which statement about gas transport in the blood is true?

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A) Most of the carbon dioxide is transported in the blood by hemoglobin as oxyhemoglobin, and most of the oxygen is transported in the blood as bicarbonate ions.

B) Most of the oxygen is transported in the blood by hemoglobin as bicarbonate ions, and most of the carbon dioxide is transported in the blood as oxyhemoglobin.

C) Most of the oxygen is transported in the blood by hemoglobin as oxyhemoglobin, and most of the carbon dioxide is transported in the blood as bicarbonate ions.

D) None of these are correct.

56)

What is the function of the Hering-Breuer reflex?

A) To prevent over inflation of the lungs B) To aid in the transition from inspiration to expiration C) The exert voluntary control over the respiratory system D) To adjust the respiratory rate in response to CO2 levels

57)

What is the function of the pontine respiratory group?

A) To prevent over inflation of the lungs B) To aid the transition from inspiration to expiration C) To exert voluntary control over the respiratory system D) To adjust the respiratory rate in response to CO2 levels

58) What send(s) information to the respiratory centers in the medulla oblongata concerning pH, CO2, and O2?

A) The pontine respiratory group B) Chemoreceptors C) Baroreceptors D) Mechanoreceptors

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59) of

Respiration is adjusted by the medulla oblongata to maintain a blood pH blank.

A) 7.35 to 7.45 B) 6.35 to 7.45 C) 7.00 to 7.45 D) 7.35 to 8.45

60)

Acidosis occurs if the pH of the blood is less than

blank.

A) 7.35 B) 6.35 C) 7.00 D) 8.35

61)

Alkalosis occurs if the pH of the blood is higher than

blank.

A) 7.35 B) 6.35 C) 7.45 D) 8.35

62)

Which of the following is not a function of the respiratory system?

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A) To facilitate gas exchange B) To maintain the acid-base balance C) To perform speech D) To remove nitrogenous wastes

63)

Which of the following is not an effect of aging on the respiratory system?

A) The ciliated escalator becomes more efficient B) Compliance of the thoracic wall decreases C) The area of the respiratory membrane decreases D) Obstructive sleep apnea may develop

64)

What is sleep apnea?

A) Breathing that repeatedly stops and starts during sleep B) A decrease in thoracic wall compliance due to the diminished ability to expand the chest during sleep C) The breakdown of alveolar walls during sleep D) Punctuated sleep due to increased mucus production

65)

Which result of aging reduces one's vital capacity?

A) Breathing that repeatedly stops and starts during sleep B) A decrease in thoracic wall compliance C) The breakdown of alveolar walls D) Decreased mucus production

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66) Which diagnostic tool uses an infrared light to determine the amount of oxygenated hemoglobin in the blood?

A) Peak flow meter B) Mantoux test C) Arterial blood gas test D) Pulse oximeter

67)

Which diagnostic tool measures the rate at which a person can exhale air?

A) Peak flow meter B) Mantoux test C) Arterial blood gas test D) Pulse oximeter

68) Which diagnostic tool determines whether a person has developed an immune response to the bacterium that causes tuberculosis?

A) Peak flow meter B) Mantoux test C) Arterial blood gas test D) Pulse oximeter

69)

Which diagnostic tool measures the amount of oxygen carried by red blood cells?

A) Peak flow meter B) Oxygen saturation test C) Arterial blood gas test D) Spirometry

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70)

What procedure removes fluid from the chest through a needle or tube?

A) Chest x-ray B) Monospot test C) Thoracentesis D) Spirometry

71)

Which of the following respiratory infections is the most common?

A) Influenza B) Pertussis C) Cold D) Pneumonia

72) Which of the following respiratory infections causes the loss of cilia in the respiratory epithelium resulting in the accumulation of mucus and a whooping cough?

A) Influenza B) Pertussis C) Tuberculosis D) Pneumonia

73)

Which of the following is not a COPD?

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A) Emphysema B) Asthma C) Chronic bronchitis D) Pneumonia

74) Which respiratory disorder results from long-term irritation of the epithelium of the bronchial tree?

A) Emphysema B) Asthma C) Chronic bronchitis D) Pneumonia

75) Which respiratory disorder is characterized by a loss of respiratory membrane, thereby reducing gas exchange and lung compliance?

A) Emphysema B) Asthma C) Chronic bronchitis D) Pneumonia

76)

Which type of lung cancer is the least common but most deadly?

A) Squamous cell carcinoma B) Adenocarcinoma C) Oat cell carcinoma D) Non-small cell lung carcinoma

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77) Which type of lung cancer originates in the mucous glands of the bronchial tree in the lung?

A) Squamous cell carcinoma B) Adenocarcinoma C) Oat cell carcinoma D) Non-small cell lung carcinoma

78)

Which type of lung cancer originates in the bronchial epithelium?

A) Squamous cell carcinoma B) Adenocarcinoma C) Oat cell carcinoma D) Non-small cell lung carcinoma

79)

Which disorder is a genetic disease characterized by the production of sticky mucus?

A) Pleurisy B) Adenocarcinoma C) Cystic fibrosis D) Hyaline membrane disease

80) Which disorder is characterized by inflammation of the membrane surrounding the lungs?

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A) Pleurisy B) Adenocarcinoma C) Cystic fibrosis D) Hyaline membrane disease

81)

What is the concentration of a gas in a mixture of gases called?

A) Alveolar pressure B) Partial pressure C) Gas pressure D) Ventilation pressure

82)

How does the amount of carbon dioxide compare between inhaled and exhaled air?

A) There is more carbon dioxide in exhaled air.

B) There is more carbon dioxide in inhaled air.

C) Inhaled and exhaled air contain the same amount of carbon dioxide.

D) Neither inhaled nor exhaled air contain measureable amounts of carbon dioxide.

83) The amount of carbon dioxide exhaled directly affects which function of the respiratory system?

A) The facilitation of gas exchange B) Maintenance of the acid-base balance C) The performing of speech D) The creation of pressure gradients

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 12_3e_ Roiger 1) A 2) B 3) B 4) A 5) B 6) A 7) B 8) C 9) C 10) C 11) A 12) B 13) D 14) A 15) B 16) D 17) B 18) A 19) B 20) C 21) D 22) D 23) A 24) B 25) A 26) C Version 1

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27) A 28) B 29) B 30) D 31) C 32) C 33) D 34) C 35) B 36) D 37) A 38) C 39) B 40) A 41) B 42) D 43) A 44) B 45) D 46) A 47) D 48) D 49) D 50) A 51) B 52) D 53) D 54) A 55) C 56) A Version 1

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57) B 58) B 59) A 60) A 61) C 62) D 63) A 64) A 65) B 66) D 67) A 68) B 69) B 70) C 71) C 72) B 73) D 74) C 75) A 76) C 77) B 78) A 79) C 80) A 81) B 82) A 83) B

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CHAPTER 13 The Digestive System 1)

Which word root refers to the colon?

A) Col/o B) Chole/o C) Enter/o D) Duoden/o

2)

Which word root refers to the intestines?

A) Col/o B) Chole/o C) Enter/o D) Duoden/o

3)

Which word root refers to vomit?

A) Esophag/o B) Emet/o C) Enter/o D) Gastr/o

4)

Which word root refers to the stomach?

A) Esophag/o B) Emet/o C) Enter/o D) Gastr/o

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5)

Which word root refers to the liver?

A) Hepat/o B) Peps/o C) Gloss/o D) Sigmoid/o

6)

Which word root does not refer to apart of the intestines?

A) All of these word roots refer to the small intestine.

B) Enter/o C) Duoden/o D) Sigmoid/o

7)

What does the word root peps/o refer to?

A) Stomach B) Digestion C) Vomit D) Colon

8)

What does the word root cyst/o refer to?

A) Sac B) Cell C) Colon D) Gall

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9)

Which word root refers to the gums?

A) Gingiv/o B) Peps/o C) Gloss/o D) Sigmoid/o

10)

Which word root refers to the tongue?

A) Gingiv/o B) Peps/o C) Gloss/o D) Sigmoid/o

11)

Which word root refers to a structure in the mouth?

A) Duoden/o B) Gloss/o C) Esophag/o D) Sigmoid/o

12)

Which structure forms the roof of the oral cavity?

A) Teeth B) Palate C) Uvula D) Cheek

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13)

Which structure in the oral cavity directs materials downward into the pharynx?

A) Teeth B) Palate C) Uvula D) Cheek

14)

What holds each tooth into its alveolus?

A) Periodontal ligament B) Gingiva C) Enamel D) Dentin

15) What organ in the digestive system manipulates what is ingested and provides the sense of taste?

A) Pharynx B) Tongue C) Salivary gland D) Soft palate

16)

Which salivary glands are located anterior to the ears?

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A) Parotid glands B) Submandibular glands C) Sublingual glands D) Supramandibular glands

17)

Where are the submandibular salivary glands?

A) Anterior to the ears B) Inferior to the angle of the mandible on each side C) Below the tongue D) None of these are correct.

18)

Which term refers to the process of chewing?

A) Deglutition B) Mastication C) Peristalsis D) Segmentation

19)

Which muscles move the jaw in a crushing motion during mastication?

A) Tongue B) Orbicularis oris C) Buccinator D) Temporalis

20)

What is the pH of saliva?

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A) 6.5 to 7.0 B) 6.8 to 7.5 C) 7.8 to 8.0 D) 6.8 to 7.0

21)

Which salivary enzyme breaks down carbohydrates?

A) Lingual lipase B) Amylase C) Lingual peptidase D) Pepsin

22)

Which structure belongs to both the respiratory and digestive systems?

A) Epiglottis B) Esophagus C) Pharynx D) Larynx

23)

Which term refers to swallowing?

A) Deglutition B) Mastication C) Peristalsis D) Segmentation

24)

Which cranial nerve is not required for deglutition?

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A) Cranial nerve V B) Cranial nerve VII C) Cranial nerve XI D) Cranial nerve XII

25) Which term refers to the wave-like contractions that move a bolus through the esophagus?

A) Deglutition B) Mastication C) Peristalsis D) Segmentation

26)

Which of the following represents the correct sequence of steps in deglutition?

A) The tongue pushes the bolus back to the pharynx – the bolus moves into the esophagus – the larynx pushes up, causing the epiglottis to close over the glottis – peristalsis moves the bolus toward the stomach.

B) The tongue pushes the bolus back to the pharynx – the larynx pushes up, causing the epiglottis to close over the glottis – the bolus moves into the esophagus – peristalsis moves the bolus toward the stomach.

C) The larynx pushes up, causing the epiglottis to close over the glottis – the tongue pushes the bolus back to the pharynx – peristalsis moves the bolus toward the stomach – the bolus moves into the esophagus.

D) The larynx pushes up, causing the epiglottis to close over the glottis – the tongue pushes the bolus back to the pharynx – the bolus moves into the esophagus – peristalsis moves the bolus toward the stomach.

27)

Which sphincter controls the opening between the esophagus and stomach?

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A) Pyloric B) Cardiac C) Esophageal D) Gastric

28)

Which sphincter regulates the passage of materials to the duodenum?

A) Pyloric B) Cardiac C) Esophageal D) Gastric

29)

Which of the following is not part of the stomach?

A) Lesser curvature B) Fundus C) Pyloric curvature D) Greater curvature

30)

Which layer of smooth muscle in the stomach is arranged longitudinally?

A) Outer layer B) Inner layer C) Middle layer D) All three of these layers are arranged longitudinally.

31)

Which of the following increases the surface area of the stomach?

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A) Microvilli B) Villi C) Rugae D) Circular folds

32)

Which cells secrete pepsinogen and gastric lipase in the stomach?

A) Mucous cells B) Endocrine cells C) Parietal cells D) Chief cells

33) Which cells secrete alkaline mucus to protect the stomach wall from acid and digestive enzymes?

A) Mucous cells B) Endocrine cells C) Parietal cells D) Chief cells

34)

Which cells produce gastrin?

A) Mucous cells B) Endocrine cells C) Parietal cells D) Chief cells

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35)

Which cells produce hydrochloric acid?

A) Mucous cells B) Endocrine cells C) Parietal cells D) Chief cells

36)

What is the function of hydrochloric acid in the stomach?

A) To convert dietary iron into a useable form that can be absorbed B) To convert pepsinogen to pepsin C) To activate lingual lipase D) All of these answers are correct.

37)

Which cells produce intrinsic factor?

A) Mucous cells B) Endocrine cells C) Parietal cells D) Chief cells

38)

What is the function of intrinsic factor?

A) To destroy bacteria B) To allow absorption of vitamin B12 C) To protect the stomach walls D) To partially break down lipids

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39)

What is the function of mucus in the stomach?

A) To destroy bacteria B) To allow vitamin B12 absorption C) To protect the stomach walls D) To partially break down lipids

40)

What is the pH of stomach HCl?

A) 8.0 B) 0.08 C) 0.8 D) 6.8

41)

What converts pepsinogen to pepsin?

A) Gastrin B) Intrinsic factor C) Hydrochloric acid D) Gastric lipase

42)

What is the function of pepsin in the stomach?

A) To partially break down proteins B) To allow vitamin B12 absorption C) To protect the stomach walls D) To partially break down lipids

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43)

Which of the following describes chyme?

A) It is the liquefied contents of the stomach.

B) It forms when a bolus is mixed with gastric juices.

C) It contains partially digested carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.

D) All of these answers are correct.

44)

What causes the pyloric sphincter to open?

A) An increase in gastrin B) The mixing of chyme C) The low pH of the stomach D) Distention of the stomach walls

45)

Which ligament of the liver is a remnant of the umbilical vein?

A) Falciform ligament B) Round ligament C) Hepatic ligament D) None of these are correct.

46) Which ligament of the liver is a sheet of mesentery that suspends the liver from the diaphragm and anterior abdominal wall?

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A) Falciform ligament B) Round ligament C) Hepatic ligament D) None of these are correct.

47)

What is the digestive function of the hepatocytes?

A) To produce bile B) To produce steroids C) To produce lecithin D) To emulsify lipids

48)

Which of the following represent the correct sequence for bile leaving the liver?

A) Bile travels from the hepatocytes, to hepatic ductules, to the right and left hepatic ducts, to the common hepatic duct, to the common bile duct.

B) Bile travels from the hepatocytes, to the right and left hepatic ducts, to hepatic ductules, to the common hepatic duct, to the common bile duct.

C) Bile travels from the hepatocytes, to hepatic ductules, to the common bile duct, to the right and left hepatic ducts, to the common hepatic duct.

D) Bile travels from the hepatocytes, to the right and left hepatic ducts, to the common hepatic duct, to the common bile duct, to hepatic ductules.

49)

The common bile duct runs between what two structures?

A) The common bile and duodenum B) The common hepatic duct and duodenum C) The common bile duct and pancreatic duct D) The left hepatic duct and cystic duct

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50)

Which organ has both a digestive function and an endocrine function?

A) Liver B) Gall bladder C) Pancreas D) Adrenal gland

51)

What is the function of the pancreas?

A) To neutralize acidic chyme B) To chemically digest carbohydrates C) To chemically digest proteins D) All of these answers are correct.

52)

Chyme flows through the regions of the small intestine in what order?

A) Duodenum, jejunum, ileum B) Jejunum, duodenum, ileum C) Jejunum, ileum, duodenum D) Ileum, jejunum, duodenum

53)

What are the tiny projections of the duodenal lining called?

A) Villi B) Plica circulares C) Lacteals D) Rugae

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54)

Most absorption takes place in which part of the small intestine?

A) Duodenum B) Jejunum C) Ileum D) Absorption happens equally throughout the small intestine.

55)

Which part of the small intestine is lined with Peyer's patches?

A) Duodenum B) Jejunum C) Ileum D) Peyer's patches line the entire small intestine.

56)

Endocrine cells in the duodenum secrete what hormone?

A) Gastrin B) Pepsinogen C) Secretin D) Pepsin

57)

Which of the following is not a function of secretin and CCK?

A) To open the hepatopancreatic sphincter releasing pancreatic juice into the duodenum B) To inhibit the stomach's parietal and chief cells C) To release bile into the small intestine D) All of these are functions of secretin and cholecystokinin.

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58) What hormone tells the gallbladder to contract and release its bile to the common bile duct?

A) Gastrin B) Cholecystokinin C) Secretin D) Pepsin

59)

Which hormone induces the pancreas to release bicarbonate ions?

A) Gastrin B) Cholecystokinin C) Secretin D) Pepsin

60)

Which of the following emulsifies fats?

A) Mucus B) Lipase C) Bile D) Bicarbonate ions

61)

How is chyme moved through the small intestine?

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A) Segmentation B) Peristalsis C) Both segmentation and peristalsis D) Segmentation and gravity

62)

Which statement is false regarding nutrient absorption in the small intestines?

A) Monosaccharides and amino acids are absorbed into capillaries through the epithelium of the villi by facilitated diffusion.

B) Fatty acids and glycerides are absorbed across the epithelial membranes of the villi by diffusion.

C) The ileum reabsorbs 20% of the bile acids in the chyme, while the other 80% will leave the body during defecation.

D) All of these statements are true.

63)

Which of the following is not a region of the colon?

A) Cecum B) Sigmoid colon C) Rectum D) Anal canal

64)

Which of the following lists the regions of the colon in the correct order?

A) Sigmoid colon, rectum, cecum, descending colon, transverse colon, ascending colon B) Cecum, descending colon, transverse colon, ascending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum C) Cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum D) Transverse colon, descending colon, ascending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum, cecum

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65)

What initiates the defecation reflex?

A) Stretch receptors in the rectal wall B) Spinal cord C) Impulses from the cerebral cortex D) Motor neurons in the rectal wall

66)

What do the voluntary motor fibers of the defecation reflex innervate?

A) The external anal sphincter B) The internal anal sphincter C) The rectal wall D) The integration center in the spinal cord

67)

Where is the integration center for the defecation reflex located?

A) Thalamus B) Spinal cord C) Frontal lobe of the cerebrum D) Medulla oblongata

68)

What is the final determinant as to when defecation occurs?

A) Voluntary release of the external anal sphincter B) Involuntary release of the external anal sphincter C) Voluntary release of the internal anal sphincter D) Involuntary release of the internal anal sphincter

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69)

Which of the following statements about nutrient digestion and absorption is true?

A) Proteins are broken down into amino acids and absorbed into the small intestine capillaries.

B) Carbohydrates are broken down into monosaccharides and absorbed into stomach capillaries.

C) Lipids are broken down into fatty acids and absorbed into the large intestine lacteals.

D) Fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, and K) are absorbed along with the products of protein digestion.

70)

Which statement about the digestion and absorption of nutrients is false?

A) Proteins are broken down into amino acids and absorbed into small intestine capillaries.

B) Minerals are electrolytes that are absorbed into stomach capillaries.

C) Lipids are broken down into fatty acids and absorbed into small intestine lacteals.

D) Fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, and K) are absorbed along with the products of lipid digestion.

71)

Where does the blood from the capillaries of the stomach and intestine go?

A) Kidneys B) Liver C) Lymphatic vessels D) Spleen

72)

Which of the following does the liver not remove from the blood?

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A) Excess glucose B) Excess amino acids C) Excess fatty acids D) Excess vitamins

73)

The digestive system is controlled by the

blank.

A) DNS B) CNS C) SNS D) ANS

74)

Which of the following is not a function of the digestive system?

A) Ingestion B) Digestion C) Absorption D) Filtration

75)

Which of the following is not an effect of aging on the digestive system?

A) The enamel on the teeth thins and the gingiva recedes allowing for increased tooth decay and loosening of the teeth.

B) Less intrinsic factor is produced resulting in less vitamin absorption leading to possible pernicious anemia.

C) The liver may metabolize drugs differently as it ages.

D) The rate of movement through the large intestine increases with age.

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76)

Which diagnostic test uses an instrument to visualize the lower colon and rectum?

A) Colonoscopy B) Laparoscopy C) Sigmoidoscopy D) Proctoscopy

77)

Which diagnostic test uses an instrument to visualize the abdomen or pelvic region?

A) Colonoscopy B) Laparoscopy C) Sigmoidoscopy D) Proctoscopy

78)

Which diagnostic test uses a lighted endoscope to visualize the rectum?

A) Colonoscopy B) Laparoscopy C) Sigmoidoscopy D) Proctoscopy

79)

What digestive system disorder is characterized by chronic gastric reflux?

A) Heartburn B) GERD C) Food poisoning D) Peptic ulcers

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80) Which organism can cause food poisoning that results in nausea, diarrhea, and vomiting one to six hours after eating contaminated food?

A) Staphylococcus B) Amoeba C) Clostridium D) Trypanosoma

81) Which digestive parasites crawl out of the anus to lay their eggs, causing an itching sensation?

A) Pinworms B) Giardia C) Tapeworms D) Round worms

82) Which digestive parasites attach to the intestinal wall by suckers and feed off the partially digested materials passing by?

A) Pinworms B) Giardia C) Tapeworms D) Round worms

83)

Peptic ulcers can be found in all of the following places except the

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A) esophagus B) stomach C) small intestine D) pancreas

84)

Which disorder affects an accessory organ of the digestive system?

A) Colon cancer B) Dental caries C) Hepatitis D) Gastroenteritis

85)

Which disorder is characterized by inflammation of the gall bladder?

A) Cholecystitis B) Cirrhosis C) Intussusception D) Cholelithiasis

86) Which disorder occurs when a portion of the intestines folds back into itself, similar to a telescope, resulting in obstruction of the intestines and possible ischemia?

A) Cholecystitis B) Cirrhosis C) Intussusception D) Cholelithiasis

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87) Which disorder occurs when contents in the abdomen protrude through a weak portion in the abdominal wall?

A) Crohn's disease B) Irritable bowel syndrome C) Abdominal hernia D) Diverticulitis

88) Which disorder is characterized by abdominal pain and discomfort, a change in the frequency of bowel movements, and a change in the consistency of stool?

A) Crohn's disease B) Irritable bowel syndrome C) Abdominal hernia D) Diverticulitis

89) Which disorder is a type of autoimmune inflammatory bowel disease that causes chronic inflammation along the gastrointestinal tract?

A) Crohn's disease B) Irritable bowel syndrome C) Abdominal hernia D) Diverticulitis

90) Which disorder of the oral cavity commonly seen in patients with HIV or compromised immune systems?

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A) Hairy leukoplakia B) Dental caries C) Peridontitis D) Gingivitis

91)

The mechanical and chemical breakdown of food is called

.

A) digestion B) ingestion C) defecation D) absorption

92)

Chewing is an example of

digestion.

A) mechanical B) chemical C) hydrolytic D) absorptive

93) Parasympathetic fibers of the vagus nerve blank digestion, while sympathetic neurons from the celiac ganglion blank digestion.

A) stimulate; suppress B) suppress; stimulate C) stimulate; stimulate D) suppress; suppress

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94)

The intake of food into the digestive system is called

blank.

A) ingestion B) digestion C) absorption D) filtration

95)

Which of the following is an effect of aging on the digestive system?

A) The enamel on the teeth thickens and decreases tooth decay.

B) Intrinsic factor production decreases resulting in less vitamin absorption.

C) The spleen may metabolize drugs differently as it ages.

D) The rate of movement through the large intestine increases with age.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 13_3e_ Roiger 1) A 2) C 3) B 4) D 5) A 6) B 7) B 8) A 9) A 10) C 11) B 12) B 13) C 14) A 15) B 16) A 17) B 18) B 19) D 20) D 21) B 22) C 23) A 24) C 25) C 26) B Version 1

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27) B 28) A 29) C 30) A 31) C 32) D 33) A 34) B 35) C 36) D 37) C 38) B 39) C 40) C 41) C 42) A 43) D 44) C 45) B 46) A 47) A 48) A 49) B 50) C 51) D 52) A 53) A 54) B 55) C 56) C Version 1

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57) D 58) B 59) C 60) C 61) C 62) C 63) D 64) C 65) A 66) A 67) B 68) A 69) A 70) B 71) B 72) C 73) D 74) D 75) D 76) C 77) B 78) D 79) B 80) A 81) A 82) C 83) D 84) C 85) A 86) C Version 1

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87) C 88) B 89) A 90) A 91) A 92) A 93) A 94) A 95) B

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CHAPTER 14 The Excretory/Urinary System 1)

Which word root refers to the tubes leading from the kidneys to the bladder?

A) Ren/o B) Ureter/o C) Urethr/o D) Ur/o

2)

Which word root refers to the tube leading from the bladder to the outside of the body?

A) Ren/o B) Ureter/o C) Urethr/o D) Ur/o

3)

Which word root refers to the urinary tract?

A) Ren/o B) Ureter/o C) Urethr/o D) Ur/o

4)

Which word root refers to the urinary bladder?

A) Ren/o B) Cyt/o C) Cyst/o D) Ur/o

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5)

Which word root refers to a structure within the kidney?

A) Ren/o B) Ur/o C) Cyst/o D) Glomerul/o

6)

Which word root refers to the kidney?

A) Azot/o B) Nephr/o C) Cyst/o D) Glomerul/o

7)

What term refers to the removal of metabolic waste from the body?

A) Defecation B) Excretion C) Vomit D) Urination

8)

Urea, uric acid, and creatine are examples of which of the following?

A) Metabolic wastes B) Chemicals excreted in feces C) Metabolic requirements D) Precursors to urinary system hormones

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9)

Which of the following organs is not part of the excretory system?

A) Skin B) Lungs C) Liver D) Stomach

10)

How does the skin function as a part of the excretory system?

A) By removing bilirubin B) By removing carbon dioxide C) By removing salts, lactic acid, and urea D) By removing nitrogenous wastes

11)

How do the kidneys function as a part of the excretory system?

A) By removing bilirubin B) By removing carbon dioxide C) By removing salts, lactic acid, and urea D) By removing nitrogenous wastes

12)

How do the lungs function as a part of the excretory system?

A) By removing bilirubin B) By removing carbon dioxide C) By removing salts, lactic acid, and urea D) By removing nitrogenous wastes

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13)

What is the primary organ for the excretory system?

A) Skin B) Lung C) Kidney D) Liver

14)

Which nitrogenous waste is produced by the breakdown of amino acids?

A) Ammonia B) Urea C) Uric acid D) Creatinine

15)

Which nitrogenous waste must be converted to a less toxic form by the liver?

A) Ammonia B) Urea C) Uric acid D) Creatinine

16)

Which of the following is not a function of the kidneys?

A) To excrete wastes in the urine B) To regulate blood volume and pressure C) To produce EPO D) All of these are functions of the kidneys.

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17)

Which statement about the location and position of the kidneys is true?

A) The kidneys are retroperitoneal.

B) The left kidney is slightly lower than the right due to the position of the liver.

C) The kidneys extend from L1 to L3.

D) The kidneys are protected inferiorly by the ribs.

18)

Each kidney is protected by which of the following?

A) A fibrous renal capsule B) A perirenal fat capsule C) Both a fibrous renal capsule and a perirenal fat capsule D) Neither a fibrous renal capsule nor a perirenal fat capsule

19)

Which structure anchors the kidney to the posterior muscle wall of the body's abdomen?

A) Fibrous renal capsule B) Perirenal fat capsule C) Renal fascia D) Perirenal ligament

20)

All structures entering or leaving the kidney do so at what structure?

A) Renal pelvis B) Renal cortex C) Renal medulla D) Renal hilum

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21)

Which structure does not enter or leave the kidney?

A) Renal vein B) Renal artery C) Ureter D) Urethra

22)

Which of the following is not a layer of the kidney?

A) Renal capsule B) Renal pelvis C) Renal cortex D) Renal medulla

23)

Which of the following is the inner layer of the kidney?

A) Renal capsule B) Renal pelvis C) Renal cortex D) Renal medulla

24)

What structure empties into the renal pelvis?

A) Renal pyramid B) Major calyx C) Minor calyx D) Nephron

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25)

What is the functional unit of the kidney?

A) Renal pyramid B) Major calyx C) Renal lobe D) Nephron

26)

Which of the following is not part of a renal tubule?

A) Glomerular capsule B) Distal convoluted tubule C) Proximal convoluted tubule D) Nephron loop

27)

Which of the following is a part of the renal corpuscle?

A) Glomerulus B) Distal convoluted tubule C) Proximal convoluted tubule D) Nephron loop

28)

Which of the following delivers blood to the glomerulus?

A) Vasa recta B) Afferent arteriole C) Efferent arteriole D) Peritubular capillary

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29)

Which of the following allows blood to exit the renal corpuscle?

A) Vasa recta B) Afferent arteriole C) Efferent arteriole D) Peritubular capillary

30)

Fluid flows through the structures of a kidney in which order?

A) Proximal convoluted tubule – nephron loop – distal convoluted tubule – collecting duct – minor calyx B) Distal convoluted tubule – collecting duct – minor calyx – proximal convoluted tubule – nephron loop C) Nephron loop – proximal convoluted tubule – distal convoluted tubule – collecting duct – minor calyx D) Minor calyx – proximal convoluted tubule – nephron loop – distal convoluted tubule – collecting duct

31) What is missing from the following sequence: glomerular capsule – nephron loop – DCT – collecting duct – minor calyx?

A) PCT B) Macula densa C) Renal cortex D) None of these are correct.

32) Which of the following represents the correct sequence of blood flow to and from a nephron?

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A) Blood enters the kidney through the renal artery – efferent arteriole – glomerulus – afferent arteriole – peritubular capillaries – renal vein – exits the kidney.

B) Blood enters the kidney through the renal vein – afferent arteriole – glomerulus – efferent arteriole – peritubular capillaries – renal artery – exits the kidney.

C) Blood enters the kidney through the renal artery – afferent arteriole – glomerulus – efferent arteriole – peritubular capillaries – renal vein – exits the kidney.

D) Blood enters the kidney through the renal artery – afferent arteriole – peritubular capillaries – efferent arteriole – glomerulus – renal vein – exits the kidney.

33)

Which of the following is not a process in urine formation?

A) Filtration B) Reabsorption C) Secretion D) Excretion

34)

Where does filtration occur?

A) Between the glomerulus and the glomerular capsule B) Between the proximal convoluted tubule and peritubular capillaries C) Between the peritubular capillaries and renal tubule D) Between the distal convoluted tubule and peritubular capillaries

35)

What drives filtration in the kidney?

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A) Energy B) Gravity C) Blood pressure D) Hypotonic pressure

36)

Which statement about the glomerular filtration rate is false?

A) The higher the pressure, the greater the glomerular filtration rate.

B) Adjusting the diameter of the afferent and efferent arterioles regulates the glomerular filtration rate.

C) The lower the pressure, the lower the glomerular filtration rate and the greater the amount of materials filtered.

D) The greater the glomerular filtration rate the greater the amount of materials filtered.

37) How are glucose and amino acids transported back into the capillaries during reabsorption?

A) Active transport B) Osmosis C) Blood pressure D) Diffusion

38)

How is water transported back into the capillaries during reabsorption?

A) Active transport B) Osmosis C) Blood pressure D) Diffusion

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39)

After reabsorption, which of the following remains in the renal tubule?

A) Water B) Nitrogenous waste C) Mineral salts D) Amino acids

40)

After secretion, which of the following remains in the renal tubule?

A) Most drugs B) Nitrogenous waste C) Excess hydrogen ions D) All of the answer choices remain in urine following secretion.

41) A decrease in H+ elimination or an increase in metabolic acid production would result in which of the following?

A) Respiratory acidosis B) Respiratory alkalosis C) Metabolic acidosis D) Metabolic alkalosis

42)

Diabetics may suffer from which of the following?

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A) Respiratory acidosis B) Respiratory alkalosis C) Metabolic acidosis D) Metabolic alkalosis

43)

Hyperventilation may cause which of the following?

A) Respiratory acidosis B) Respiratory alkalosis C) Metabolic acidosis D) Metabolic alkalosis

44)

What percentage of water is found in each of the major fluid compartments of the body?

A) 35% ICF, 65% ECF B) 50% ICF, 50% ECF C) 30% ICF, 70% ECF D) 65% ICF, 35% ECF

45)

Which statement about fluids and electrolyte balance is true?

A) The concentration of urine is determined by the amount of water in it.

B) The principal electrolyte in the body is potassium.

C) Where salt goes, water will follow.

D) The volume of urine is determined by the amount of sodium in it.

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46) Which statement accurately describes how the kidneys maintain fluid and electrolyte balance in the body?

A) If the blood's concentration of solutes is lower than normal, the kidney will put out large volumes of dilute urine and if the blood's concentration of solutes is higher than normal, the kidney will put out small volumes of concentrated urine.

B) If the blood's concentration of solutes is higher than normal, the kidney will put out large volumes of dilute urine and if the blood's concentration of solutes is lower than normal, the kidney will put out small volumes of concentrated urine.

C) If the blood's concentration of solutes is lower than normal, the kidney will put out small volumes of dilute urine and if the blood's concentration of solutes is higher than normal, the kidney will put out large volumes of concentrated urine.

D) None of these are correct.

47)

Which hormone is not involved in regulating urine production?

A) ADH B) ANH C) Aldosterone D) Diuretic hormone

48) Which statement is false regarding the function of ADH in regulating urine volume and concentration?

A) Under the influence of ADH, the kidney conserves water and sodium.

B) If blood sodium concentration increases or blood pressure falls, the hypothalamus sends nerve signals to the posterior pituitary telling it to release ADH. C) ADH targets distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts in the kidney to make them more permeable so more water is reabsorbed.

D) ADH only has an effect on water reabsorption, not sodium reabsorption.

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49) Which statement is false regarding the function of aldosterone in regulating urine volume and concentration?

A) When aldosterone levels are up, urine output is increased with both water and sodium conserved in the blood, and decreased potassium in urine.

B) When aldosterone levels are up, more sodium ions are actively transported from the tubule to the peritubular capillaries.

C) When aldosterone levels are up, more potassium ions are secreted.

D) When aldosterone levels are up, urine output is reduced with both water and sodium conserved in the blood, and increased potassium in urine.

50)

Which structure regulates aldosterone secretion?

A) Glomerulus B) Juxtaglomerular apparatus C) Nephron loop D) Adrenal medulla

51)

In which condition does the juxtaglomerular apparatus secrete renin?

A) Hypotension B) Hyponatremia C) Hyperkalemia D) All of the answers are correct.

52)

Which of the following is not a way in which ANH increases urine output?

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A) ANH dilates the afferent arterioles, while constricting the efferent arterioles in the kidney.

B) ANH inhibits the production of renin by the juxtaglomerular apparatus.

C) ANH inhibits sodium filtration in the nephron directly.

D) ANH inhibits the secretion of ADH from the posterior pituitary.

53)

What is a diuretic?

A) Anything that increases urine production B) Anything that increases urine concentration C) Anything that increases water retention D) Anything that decreases salt excretion

54)

How does alcohol act as a diuretic?

A) By inhibiting the secretion of ADH B) By increasing blood flow to the kidney C) By inhibiting active transport of sodium D) By inhibiting the secretion of ANH

55)

How does caffeine act as a diuretic?

A) By inhibiting the secretion of ADH B) By increasing blood flow to the kidney C) By inhibiting active transport of sodium D) None of these are correct.

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56)

How do many diuretics act to increase urine volume?

A) By inhibiting the secretion of ADH B) By increasing blood flow to the kidney C) By inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium D) By inhibiting the secretion of ANH

57)

Which structure carries urine from the renal pelvis to the urinary bladder?

A) Urethra B) Ureter C) Collecting duct D) Major calyx

58)

What is the maximum volume the bladder can hold?

A) 700 to 800 mL B) 500 to 600 mL C) 1,000 mL D) 500 mL

59)

Which structure compresses the urethra so that urine remains in the bladder?

A) Trigone B) Internal urethral sphincter C) Detrusor muscle D) Dartos muscle

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60)

What is often the site of infection in the urinary bladder?

A) Trigone B) Internal urethral sphincter C) Detrusor muscle D) Rugae

61)

Which muscle is under voluntary control?

A) External urethral sphincter B) Internal urethral sphincter C) Detrusor muscle D) Dartos muscle

62)

What is micturition?

A) The production of urine B) The passing of urine C) The production and passing of urine D) The cessation of urine production

63)

Which statement represents the correct order of the reflex arc for micturition?

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A) The reflex arc begins with stretch receptors sending signals to the sacral region of the spinal cord – stretch receptors receive signals in the urinary bladder's walls – the detrusor muscle contracts the internal urethral sphincter relaxes – parasympathetic neurons go from the spinal cord to the detrusor muscle – urine is passed.

B) The reflex arc begins with stretch receptors in the urinary bladder's walls – stretch receptors send signals to the sacral region of the spinal cord – the detrusor muscle contracts the internal urethral sphincter relaxes – parasympathetic neurons go from the spinal cord to the detrusor muscle – urine is passed.

C) The reflex arc begins with stretch receptors in the urinary bladder's walls – stretch receptors send signals to the sacral region of the spinal cord – parasympathetic neurons go from the spinal cord to the detrusor muscle – the detrusor muscle contracts the internal urethral sphincter relaxes – urine is passed.

D) The reflex arc begins with stretch receptors in the urinary bladder's walls – parasympathetic neurons go from the spinal cord to the detrusor muscle – stretch receptors send signals to the sacral region of the spinal cord – the detrusor muscle contracts the internal urethral sphincter relaxes – urine is passed.

64)

What serves as the effector for the micturition reflex arc?

A) Bladder wall B) Trigone C) Internal urethral sphincter D) External urethral sphincter

65)

Where are the afferent neurons for the micturition reflex arc located?

A) Bladder wall B) Sacral region of the spinal cord C) Internal urethral sphincter D) Ureteral openings

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66)

Which of the following is a function of the urinary system?

A) All of these are functions of the urinary system.

B) Maintenance of the body's fluid and electrolyte balance C) Maintenance of the body's acid-base balance D) Regulation of blood pressure

67)

Which of the following is not an effect of aging on the excretory system?

A) The number of functioning nephrons decreases.

B) The glomerular filtration rate decreases.

C) Drugs remain in circulation longer.

D) Responsiveness to ADH increases.

68) Which diagnostic test produces an X-ray image of the kidneys and urinary tract using a contrast dye injected intravenously?

A) Computed tomography B) Intravenous pyelography C) Urinalysis D) Cystoscopy

69)

Which diagnostic test examines the urinary bladder, lower urinary tract, and prostate?

A) Computed tomography B) Intravenous pyelography C) Urinalysis D) Cystoscopy

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70) Which excretory system disorder is an inflammation of the urinary bladder usually caused by a bacterial infection?

A) Kidney stones B) Glomerular nephritis C) Renal failure D) Cystitis

71) Which excretory system disorder is an inflammation of the urinary bladder usually caused by a bacterial infection that has traveled up the ureters to the renal pelvis?

A) Kidney stones B) Glomerular nephritis C) Pyelitis D) Cystitis

72)

Which excretory system disorder is not a UTI?

A) Pyelonephritis B) Glomerular nephritis C) Pyelitis D) Cystitis

73) Which excretory system disorder is an inflammation of the filtration membrane in the glomerulus of the nephron?

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A) Pyelonephritis B) Glomerular nephritis C) Pyelitis D) Cystitis

74)

Which excretory system disorder is treated by dialysis or a kidney transplant?

A) Kidney stones B) Glomerular nephritis C) Renal failure D) Cystitis

75) Which excretory system disorder is characterized by the buildup of urine in the kidney, which results from an obstructed flow of urine from the kidney?

A) Hydronephrosis B) Incontinence C) Kidney cancer D) Benign prostatic hyperplasia

76)

Which excretory system disorder is characterized by urine leakage?

A) Hydronephrosis B) Incontinence C) Kidney cancer D) Benign prostatic hyperplasia

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77)

Which excretory system disorder is characterized by enlargement of the prostate gland?

A) Hydronephrosis B) Incontinence C) Kidney cancer D) BPH

78)

Blood flows from the afferent arteriole into the

blank.

A) efferent arteriole B) peritubular capillaries C) glomerulus D) renal vein

79) Which age-related change in the excretory system is it most important for a physician to keep in mind when treating elderly patients?

A) The number of functioning nephrons decreases.

B) The glomerular filtration rate decreases.

C) Drugs remain in circulation longer.

D) Responsiveness to ADH increases.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 14_3e_ Roiger 1) B 2) C 3) D 4) C 5) D 6) B 7) B 8) A 9) D 10) C 11) D 12) B 13) C 14) A 15) A 16) D 17) A 18) C 19) C 20) D 21) D 22) B 23) D 24) B 25) D 26) A Version 1

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27) A 28) B 29) C 30) A 31) A 32) C 33) D 34) A 35) C 36) C 37) A 38) B 39) D 40) D 41) C 42) C 43) B 44) D 45) C 46) A 47) D 48) A 49) A 50) B 51) D 52) C 53) A 54) A 55) B 56) C Version 1

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57) B 58) A 59) B 60) A 61) A 62) B 63) C 64) C 65) A 66) A 67) D 68) B 69) D 70) D 71) C 72) B 73) B 74) C 75) A 76) B 77) D 78) C 79) C

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CHAPTER 15 The Male Reproductive System 1)

Which word root refers to a structure within the male reproductive system?

A) Epididym/o B) Orch/o C) Pen/o D) All of these answers refer to a male reproductive organ.

2)

Which word root refers to a testicle?

A) Testi/o B) Orochid/o C) Orch/o D) Tes/o

3)

Which word root refers to the prostate gland?

A) Pen/o B) Vas/o C) Prosta/o D) Prostat/o

4)

Which word root refers to something being hidden?

A) Orchi/o B) Semin/o C) Vas/o D) Crypt/o

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5)

Which word root refers to a duct?

A) Orchi/o B) Semin/o C) Vas/o D) Crypt/o

6)

Which word root refers to semen?

A) Orch/o B) Semin/o C) Vas/o D) Crypt/o

7)

Which word root refers to a male?

A) Orchid/o B) Andr/o C) Vas/o D) Crypt/o

8)

Which pair of chromosomes determines whether a child is male or female?

A) 20th B) 21st C) 22nd D) 23rd

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9)

Which sex cell determines the gender of the offspring?

A) Sperm or egg B) Sperm C) Egg D) Neither sperm or egg

10)

Which of the following represents the 23rd chromosome of an egg cell?

A) XX B) XY C) X D) Y

11)

Which of the following represents a male zygote?

A) XX B) XY C) X D) Y

12)

Which of the following represents a female zygote?

A) XX B) XY C) X D) Y

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13)

The testes belong to which two systems?

A) Reproductive and lymphatic B) Reproductive and endocrine C) Endocrine and excretory D) Reproductive and excretory

14)

During development, the testes descend through what opening in the abdominal wall?

A) Testicular canal B) Inguinal canal C) Gubernaculum canal D) Hiatal canal

15)

What is the outer fibrous capsule of the testis?

A) Tunica albuginea B) Seminiferous tubule C) Rete testis D) Scrotum

16)

What is the sac that houses the testes?

A) Tunica albuginea B) Seminiferous tubule C) Rete testis D) Scrotum

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17)

Which of the following is not a secondary reproductive structure in the male?

A) Penis B) Vas deferens C) Testis D) Scrotum

18)

Which statement about the dartos muscle is false?

A) The dartos muscle is the smooth muscle wall in the scrotum.

B) The contraction of the dartos muscle reduces the surface area of the scrotum to reduce heat loss.

C) The dartos muscle reacts to temperature changes.

D) If it is warm, the dartos muscle contracts to help keep the testes cool.

19)

What is the function of the cremaster muscle?

A) To regulate temperature B) To carry sperm C) To divide the scrotum into compartments D) To aid in erection

20)

Which structure cools the warm blood from the testicular artery?

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A) Cremaster muscle B) Rete testis C) Dartos muscle D) Pampinform plexus

21)

Sperm travels from the testes into which duct?

A) Efferent ductules B) Epididymis C) Ductus deferens D) Ejaculatory duct

22)

Which structure stores mature sperm?

A) Efferent ductules B) Epididymis C) Ductus deferens D) Ejaculatory duct

23) Which of the following merges with a duct from the seminal vesicle to form the ejaculatory duct?

A) Efferent ductules B) Epididymis C) Ductus deferens D) Ejaculatory duct

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24)

Sperm move from the vas deferens into which structure?

A) Efferent ductules B) Epididymis C) Ductus deferens D) Ejaculatory duct

25)

Which of the following is not an accessory gland in the male reproductive system?

A) Seminal vesicle B) Prostate C) Bulbourethral D) Glans penis

26) Which accessory gland secretes a thick, yellowish fluid that contains sugar and other carbohydrates to nourish sperm?

A) Seminal vesicle B) Prostate gland C) Bulbourethral gland D) Glans penis

27)

Which accessory gland surrounds the urethra?

A) Seminal vesicle B) Prostate gland C) Bulbourethral gland D) Glans penis

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28) Which accessory gland secrets an alkaline fluid to help protect sperm from the acidity of the vagina?

A) Ejaculatory duct B) Prostate gland C) Bulbourethral gland D) Seminal vesicle

29) Which accessory gland produces trace amounts of a fluid that lubricate the end of the penis to make intercourse easier?

A) Seminal vesicle B) Prostate gland C) Bulbourethral gland D) Glans penis

30)

Which part of the penis has a lot of nerve endings for sexual stimulation?

A) Root B) Shaft C) Glans D) Prepuce

31) Which of the following represents the correct sequence of how sperm travel through the spermatic ducts?

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A) Efferent ductules – epididymis – ductus deferens – ejaculatory duct B) Efferent ductules – ductus deferens – ejaculatory duct – epididymis C) Ductus deferens – ejaculatory duct – efferent ductules – epididymis D) Epididymis – ductus deferens – ejaculatory duct – efferent ductules

32)

Which part of the penis is surgically removed during a circumcision?

A) Root B) Shaft C) Glans D) Prepuce

33)

Which of the following columns of erectile tissue is composed of smaller spaces?

A) Corpora cavernosa B) Corpora spongiosum C) Both columns have smaller spaces.

D) Neither column has smaller spaces.

34)

Which part of the sperm contains an acrosome cap?

A) Head B) Tail C) Midpiece D) Nucleus

35)

Which part of the sperm cell has mitochondria?

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A) Head B) Tail C) Midpiece D) Antrum

36)

What is the purpose of the acrosome cap?

A) To store enzymes that are used to penetrate an egg B) To house the mitochondria that produce ATP C) To house the sperm's chromosomes D) To propel the sperm

37)

What is the purpose of the sperm's midpiece?

A) To storm enzymes that are used to penetrate an egg B) To house mitochondria that make ATP C) To house the sperm's chromosomes D) To propel the sperm

38)

What is the purpose of the sperm's tail?

A) To store enzymes that are used to penetrate an egg B) To house mitochondria that supply ATP C) To house the sperm's chromosomes D) To propel the sperm

39)

Which statement about the physiology of the male reproductive system is false?

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A) The SRY gene results in the formation of androgen receptors in the fetus.

B) Developing gonads in the fetus produce large amounts of testosterone to fit into these receptors so that the male anatomy continues to develop.

C) Testosterone production ceases a few months after birth and remains dormant until puberty.

D) Puberty ends with the first ejaculation of viable sperm at around age 10.

40)

What role does FSH play in stimulating sperm production?

A) FSH allows testosterone to accumulate in the tubules to initiate sperm production.

B) FSH produces androgen-binding protein.

C) FSH stimulates sustentacular cells in the seminiferous tubules to produce androgenbinding protein.

D) FSH inhibits the production of LH.

41)

What role does LH play in stimulating sperm production?

A) LH allows testosterone to accumulate in the tubules to initiate sperm production.

B) LH targets the interstitial cells between seminiferous tubules in the testes, telling them to produce testosterone.

C) LH stimulates sustentacular cells in the seminiferous tubules to produce androgenbinding protein.

D) LH stimulates the production of FSH by stimulating GnRH production.

42)

Which of the following is not a male secondary sex characteristic?

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A) Deeper voice B) Development of pubic hair C) Increased aggression D) All of the answers choices are male secondary sex characteristics.

43)

Which process in meiosis involves chromatids exchanging parts?

A) Independent assortment B) Crossing over C) Mitosis D) Prophase II

44)

What process in meiosis involves random alignment of chromosomes?

A) Independent assortment B) Crossing over C) Mitosis D) Meiosis II

45)

Which statement about meiosis is false?

A) Meiosis is a two-division process that starts with a parent cell of 46 chromosomes.

B) Meiosis results in four identical daughter cells, each having 23 chromosomes.

C) Meiosis produces a set of chromosomes in each daughter cell that is different than the sets in the other daughter cells due to independent assortment and crossing-over.

D) Meiosis produces haploid cells.

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46)

What is the purpose of spermatogenesis?

A) To produce four cells, each with 23 chromosomes, from a specialized stem cell with 46 chromosomes B) To produce two cells, each with 23 chromosomes, from a specialized stem cell with 46 chromosomes C) To produce four cells, each with 23 pairs of chromosomes, from a specialized stem cell with 46 chromosomes D) To produce four cells, each with 23 chromosomes, from a specialized stem cell with 23 chromosomes

47)

What is the male's germ cell?

A) Spermatocyte B) Spermatozoon C) Spermatogonium D) Spermatid

48)

What is the purpose of spermiogenesis?

A) To transform spermatids into functional spermatozoa B) To induce capacitation C) To allow sperm to form a tail D) To complete meiosis I

49)

Spermatogonia divide by which process?

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A) Meiosis B) Mitosis C) Both mitosis and meiosis.

D) Cytokinesis

50)

A spermatogonium enlarges to become what type of cell?

A) Primary spermatocyte B) Secondary spermatocyte C) Spermatid D) Sperm

51)

Primary spermatocytes complete which process?

A) Meiosis B) Meiosis I C) Meiosis II D) Mitosis I

52)

Secondary spermatocytes complete which process?

A) Spermiogenesis B) Meiosis I C) Meiosis II D) Cytokinesis

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53) Which of the following is not a result of testosterone's negative feedback effect on the hypothalamus?

A) Any further production of GnRH is inhibited.

B) FSH and LH production is increased.

C) The overproduction of testosterone is prevented.

D) All of these answers are correct.

54)

Which of the following represents the correct pathway for sperm during ejaculation?

A) Seminiferous tubules – ductus deferens – ejaculatory ducts – rete testes – efferent ductules – epididymis – prostatic urethra – penile urethra – outside the body B) Ductus deferens – ejaculatory ducts – rete testes – efferent ductules – epididymis – seminiferous tubules – prostatic urethra – penile urethra – outside the body C) Seminiferous tubules – rete testes – efferent ductules – epididymis – ductus deferens – ejaculatory ducts – prostatic urethra – penile urethra – outside the body D) Rete testes – efferent ductules – epididymis – seminiferous tubules – ductus deferens – ejaculatory ducts – prostatic urethra – penile urethra – outside the body

55) Which of the following represents the correct sequence of the stages of the male sexual response?

A) Arousal – emission – ejaculation – resolution B) Emission – arousal – ejaculation – resolution C) Arousal- ejaculation – emission – resolution D) Resolution - arousal - emission - ejaculation

56) During which stage of the sexual response are sperm moved by peristaltic contractions through the vas deferens?

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A) Arousal B) Emission C) Ejaculation D) Resolution

57) During which stage of the sexual response do the prostate gland and seminal vesicles add their secretions to the semen?

A) Arousal B) Emission C) Ejaculation D) Resolution

58)

During which stage of the sexual response does orgasm occur?

A) Arousal B) Emission C) Ejaculation D) Resolution

59)

During which stage of the sexual response do both heart rate and blood pressure increase?

A) Arousal B) Emission C) Ejaculation D) Resolution

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60) During which stage of the sexual response do neural signals cause the arteries in the penis to dilate, causing erectile tissues to engorge with blood?

A) Arousal B) Emission C) Ejaculation D) Resolution

61) During which stage of the sexual response do the bulbourethral glands secrete their lubricating fluid?

A) Arousal B) Emission C) Ejaculation D) Resolution

62) During which stage of the sexual response do sympathetic neurons constrict the arteries bringing blood to the penis?

A) Arousal B) Emission C) Ejaculation D) Resolution

63)

What is the frequent inability to achieve an erection that increases as men age?

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A) Andropause B) Erectile dysfunction C) Male climacteric D) Benign prostatic hyperplasia

64)

Increased levels of what two hormones cause andropause?

A) GnRH and FSH B) FSH and LH C) GnRH and LH D) Inhibit and FSH

65)

Which of the following is a congenital defect of the male reproductive system?

A) Erectile dysfunction B) Benign prostatic hyperplasia C) Androgen-insensitivity syndrome D) Hypospadias

66)

Which disorder is common in aging men?

A) Impotence B) Cryptorchidism C) Androgen-insensitivity syndrome D) Hypospadias

67)

What happens to testosterone as a man ages?

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A) It increases as men get older.

B) It decreases as men get older.

C) It does not change as men get older.

D) Age does not determine whether testosterone increases or decreases.

68) Which diagnostic test uses sound waves to visually assess the prostate for evidence of cancer?

A) Digital rectal exam B) Benign prostate hyperplasia C) Prostatic-specific antigen test D) Transrectal ultrasound

69)

An enlargement of the prostate gland without any other complications is known as blank.

A) cryptorchidism B) benign prostatic hyperplasia C) prostate cancer D) hypospadias

70)

A male infant born with undescended testes has

blank.

A) cryptorchidism B) benign prostatic hyperplasia C) prostate cancer D) hypospadias

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71) A male with a urethral opening on the ventral side of the penis instead of the tip of the glans has blank.

A) cryptorchidism B) benign prostatic hyperplasia C) prostate cancer D) hypospadias

72)

Which of the following statements is false regarding prostate cancer?

A) A common diagnostic exam for prostate cancer is a digital rectal exam.

B) Prostate cancer can be detected by measuring prostate-specific antigen levels.

C) Prostate enlargement happens toward the center of the prostate.

D) All of these statements are false.

73) If a person's external reproductive anatomy is female, but genetically they are male, this individual may have .

A) erectile dysfunction B) benign prostatic hyperplasia C) androgen-insensitivity syndrome D) hypospadias

74)

What causes androgen-insensitivity syndrome?

A) A lack of androgen receptors in the developing fetus B) Increased estrogen in the developing fetus C) A lack of testosterone in the developing fetus D) A lack of GnRH in the developing fetus

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75)

What is the sperm count of an infertile male?

A) Less than 100 million sperm/mL B) Less than 200 million sperm/mL C) Less than 20 million sperm/mL D) Less than 500 million sperm/mL

76)

Which STD is caused by the Treponema pallidum bacterium?

A) Gonorrhea B) Herpes C) Syphilis D) Chlamydia

77)

Which STD is characterized by the growth of warts on the genitals?

A) Gonorrhea B) HPV C) Syphilis D) HIV

78)

Which STD is characterized by having a primary, secondary, and latent stage?

A) Gonorrhea B) HPV C) Syphilis D) HIV

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79)

Which disorder is characterized by an accumulation of fluid in the scrotum?

A) Cryptorchidism B) Phimosis C) Hypospadias D) Hydrocele

80) Which disorder is characterized by tight foreskin that cannot be pulled back over the glans penis?

A) Cryptorchidism B) Phimosis C) Hypospadias D) Hydrocele

81)

Which of the following occurs when the testosterone level is low?

A) Any further production of GnRH is inhibited.

B) FSH and LH production is increased.

C) The overproduction of LH is prevented.

D) All of these answers are correct.

82)

Which diagnostic test is a blood test?

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A) Digital rectal exam B) Benign prostate hyperplasia C) Prostatic-specific antigen test D) Transrectal ultrasound

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 15_3e_ Roiger 1) D 2) C 3) D 4) D 5) C 6) B 7) B 8) D 9) B 10) C 11) B 12) A 13) B 14) B 15) A 16) D 17) C 18) D 19) A 20) D 21) A 22) B 23) C 24) D 25) D 26) A Version 1

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27) B 28) B 29) C 30) C 31) A 32) D 33) B 34) A 35) C 36) A 37) B 38) D 39) D 40) C 41) B 42) D 43) B 44) A 45) B 46) A 47) C 48) A 49) B 50) A 51) B 52) C 53) B 54) C 55) A 56) B Version 1

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57) B 58) C 59) C 60) A 61) A 62) D 63) B 64) B 65) D 66) A 67) B 68) D 69) B 70) A 71) D 72) C 73) C 74) A 75) C 76) C 77) B 78) C 79) D 80) B 81) B 82) C

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CHAPTER 16 The Female Reproductive System 1)

Which word root refers to a structure of the female reproductive system?

A) Episi/o B) Metr/o C) Vagin/o D) All of these choices refer to a structure of the female reproductive system.

2)

Which word root refers to an ovary?

A) Ov/o B) Ovari/o C) Ovulo/o D) Oopho/o

3)

Which word root does not refer to an egg?

A) Ov/o B) O/o C) Ovulo/o D) Oophor/o

4)

Which word root refers to the cervix?

A) Chorion/o B) O/o C) Lact/o D) Cervic/o

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5)

Which word root refers to the breast?

A) Mast/o B) O/o C) Lact/o D) Cervic/o

6)

Which word root refers to the uterus?

A) Hyster/o B) Metr/o C) Uter/o D) All of these word roots refer to the uterus.

7)

Which word root refers to the uterine tube?

A) Salping/o B) Uter/o C) Metr/o D) Cervic/o

8)

Which word root refers to milk?

A) Mast/o B) O/o C) Lact/o D) Cervic/o

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9)

Which word root refers to the vulva?

A) Mast/o B) Episi/o C) Lact/o D) Vagin/o

10)

A zygote would develop female anatomy in which of the following conditions?

A) The zygote has XX sex chromosomes.

B) There is an absence of an SRY gene.

C) There is an absence of androgen receptors.

D) A zygote would develop female anatomy in all of these situations.

11)

Which genotype represents a zygote that will be female?

A) XX B) XY C) X D) Y

12)

Which of the following is considered the primary reproductive structure in the female?

A) Breast B) Uterus C) Ovary D) Vagina

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13)

The ovaries belong to which two systems?

A) Reproductive and lymphatic B) Reproductive and endocrine C) Endocrine and excretory D) Reproductive and excretory

14)

What attaches the lateral edge of the ovary to the posterior wall of the pelvic cavity?

A) Tunica albuginea B) Follicle C) Ovarian ligament D) Suspensory ligament

15)

What is the outer fibrous capsule that encloses the ovary?

A) Tunica albuginea B) Follicle C) Ovarian ligament D) Suspensory ligament

16)

What attaches the medial edge of the ovary to the uterus?

A) Tunica albuginea B) Follicle C) Ovarian ligament D) Suspensory ligament

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17)

Which of the following is not an internal secondary reproductive structure in the female?

A) Uterine tubes B) Uterus C) Vulva D) Vagina

18) Which layer of the uterus is composed of smooth muscle that contracts to expel uterine contents?

A) Perimetrium B) Myometrium C) Endometrium D) Exometrium

19)

Which layer of the uterus is the outermost layer of the uterine wall?

A) Perimetrium B) Myometrium C) Endometrium D) Exometrium

20) Which layer of the uterus has two sublayers, the stratum basalis and the stratum functionalis?

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A) Perimetrium B) Myometrium C) Endometrium D) Exometrium

21)

Which female reproductive organ has the ability to expand with pregnancy?

A) Oviduct B) Uterus C) Vulva D) Vagina

22)

Which structures coax an egg that is released from the ovary into the uterine tube?

A) Ampullae B) Vulvae C) Fimbriae D) Oviducts

23)

Which of the following is not a function of the vagina?

A) The vagina allows for the flow of the menses during menstruation.

B) The vagina is a receptacle for semen.

C) The vagina delivers the egg to the uterus.

D) The vagina serves as the birth canal.

24)

Which of the following is a fragile membrane that covers the external vaginal opening?

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A) Infundibulum B) Hymen C) Cervix D) Fundus

25)

Which of the following is not a part of the vulva?

A) Mons pubis B) Labia majora C) Prepuce D) Bulbourethral glands

26)

Which structures drain the milk produced by the secretory cells in the breast?

A) Lactiferous ducts B) Lactiferous sinuses C) Myoepithelial cells D) Lobules

27)

At what age does puberty begin for most girls?

A) Between 7 and 9 years of age B) Between 8 and 10 years of age C) Between 10 and 12 years of age D) Between 6 and 18 years of age

28)

Which hormone targets the follicle within the ovary causing it to produce estrogen?

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A) GnRH B) FSH C) LH D) Progesterone

29)

Which of the following is not a secondary female sex characteristic?

A) Breast development B) Development of axillary and pubic hair C) Menstruation D) Slimmer pelvis

30)

How is oogenesis similar to spermatogenesis?

A) Oogenesis forms gametes that have a haploid number of chromosomes.

B) Oogenesis forms gametes that have a diploid number of chromosomes.

C) Oogenesis forms four viable gametes.

D) These are all ways that oogenesis is similar to spermatogenesis.

31)

Which of the following describes a function of the follicle?

A) The follicle provides nutrients for the oocyte.

B) The follicle removes wastes from the oocyte.

C) The follicle protects the oocyte from the female's immune system.

D) All of these are functions of a follicle.

32)

Which of the following remains dormant in mid-meiosis I until adolescence?

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A) Oogonium B) Primary oocyte C) Secondary oocyte D) Polar body

33)

How many chromosomes are present in a primary oocyte?

A) 23 B) 46 C) 92 D) 12

34)

Which of the following statements about oogenesis is false?

A) Primary oocyte produces two daughter cells, a secondary oocyte, and a first polar body.

B) The first polar body has 23 chromosomes.

C) The first polar body is likely to die before going through mitosis.

D) All of the cytoplasm and organelles go to the secondary oocyte.

35)

Which type of follicle will rupture to release the egg during ovulation?

A) Primordial B) Mature C) Primary D) Gravid

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36)

Which structure will secrete hormones to support pregnancy if an egg is fertilized?

A) Primary follicle B) Graafian follicle C) Corpus luteum D) Corpus albicans

37)

Which structure will stop secreting hormones after two weeks if an egg is not fertilized?

A) Primordial follicle B) Mature follicle C) Corpus luteum D) Corpus rubrum

38)

Which part of the female reproductive cycle affects the endometrial lining of the uterus?

A) Ovarian B) Menstrual C) Follicular D) Luteal

39)

When is the menstrual phase of a woman's period?

A) Day 1–14 B) Day 1–5 C) Day 5–14 D) Day 22–28

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40)

Which statement about the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle is false?

A) The anterior pituitary secretes FSH, which targets the primordial follicle.

B) The primordial follicle secretes estrogen.

C) Estrogen levels reach a peak just before day 5.

D) All of these about the follicular phase are true.

41)

Which statement is true regarding the proliferative phase of the uterine cycle?

A) The proliferative phase is day 5–14 of the menstrual cycle.

B) Estrogen is secreted by the follicle.

C) Estrogen targets the uterine lining, causing it to thicken.

D) All of these statements about the proliferative phase are true.

42)

What happens on day 14 of a woman's reproductive cycle?

A) A woman starts her period.

B) A mature follicle ruptures and releases an egg.

C) The primordial follicle develops.

D) FSH levels begin to decrease.

43)

Which of the following does not happen during the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle?

A) The ruptured follicle remains in the ovary and changes to become a corpus luteum.

B) The corpus luteum releases estrogen and progesterone.

C) FSH and LH production is inhibited.

D) New follicles begin to develop.

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44) In which phase of the uterine cycle do high levels of estrogen and progesterone cause the endometrial glands to secrete glycogen?

A) Follicular phase B) Luteal phase C) Secretory phase D) Proliferative phase

45)

If an egg is not fertilized, what happens to the corpus luteum?

A) It goes through involution, shrinking until it disappears.

B) It becomes a Graafian follicle.

C) It becomes a corpus albicans.

D) It becomes a primordial follicle.

46)

A home pregnancy test detects the presence of which hormone in the urine?

A) FSH B) LH C) hCG D) Progesterone

47) Which of the following represents the correct sequence of the stages of the female sexual response?

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A) Arousal – plateau – orgasm – resolution B) Plateau – arousal – orgasm – resolution C) Arousal – orgasm – plateau – resolution D) Plateau - arousal - resolution - orgasm

48) During which stage of the sexual response does the innermost part of the vagina dilate and the vaginal lining and vestibular glands secrete lubrication?

A) Arousal B) Plateau C) Orgasm D) Resolution

49) During which stage of the sexual response does the lower one-third of the vagina constrict around the penis due to the engorgement of the vestibular bulbs?

A) Arousal B) Plateau C) Orgasm D) Resolution

50) During which stage of the sexual response does the erectile tissue of the clitoris become engorged with blood?

A) Arousal B) Plateau C) Orgasm D) Resolution

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51) During which stage of the sexual response does the uterus undergo peristaltic contractions that cause the cervix to dip down?

A) Arousal B) Plateau C) Orgasm D) Resolution

52) During which stage of the sexual response does the reproductive anatomy return to a prearousal state?

A) Arousal B) Plateau C) Orgasm D) Resolution

53) Diminished levels of estrogen and progesterone during menopause can cause blank.

A) heavier menstrual periods B) hot flashes C) thicker vaginal secretions D) increased bone mass

54)

Which of the following is not an effect of aging on the female reproductive system?

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A) Decreasing bone mass B) Thinning vaginal secretions C) Increased muscle and connective tissue D) Menopause

55) As a result of decreased muscle and connective tissue that accompanies aging in woman, what can happen?

A) Incontinence B) Difficult bowel movements C) Bladder, uterine, and rectal prolapse D) All of these can happen due to decreased muscle and connective tissue.

56) Which diagnostic test allows internal visualization of a developing fetus during gestation?

A) Ultrasound B) Mammogram C) Pap smear D) Colposcopy

57)

Which diagnostic test allows visualization of the vagina and cervix?

A) Hysteroscopy B) Mammogram C) Pap smear D) Colposcopy

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58)

Which diagnostic test detects abnormal cells on the cervix?

A) Hysteroscopy B) Mammogram C) Pap smear D) Colposcopy

59) Which female reproductive system disorder is characterized by abnormal growth of breast tissue, usually occurring in the lactiferous ducts and lobules of the breast?

A) Breast cancer B) Cervical cancer C) Endometriosis D) Fibroids

60) Which female reproductive system disorder is characterized as a slow-growing cancer that has few symptoms and is often caused by human papillomavirus (HPV) infection?

A) Breast cancer B) Cervical cancer C) Endometriosis D) Fibroids

61) Which female reproductive system disorder is characterized by the growth of endometrium in additional places other than the uterus?

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A) Breast cancer B) Cervical cancer C) Endometriosis D) Fibroids

62) Which female reproductive system disorder is characterized by the growth of noncancerous tumors in the uterus?

A) Breast cancer B) Cervical cancer C) Endometriosis D) Fibroids

63)

Which term describes removal of the uterus?

A) Mastectomy B) Oophorectomy C) Hysterectomy D) Dysmenorrhea

64)

Which term describes painful periods?

A) Mastectomy B) Oophorectomy C) Hysterectomy D) Dysmenorrhea

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65)

Which term describes removal of the breast?

A) Mastectomy B) Oophorectomy C) Hysterectomy D) Lumpectomy

66)

Which term describes removal of a tumor found in the breast?

A) Mastectomy B) Oophorectomy C) Hysterectomy D) Lumpectomy

67)

Which of the following is a requirement for pregnancy to occur?

A) There must be a sperm and an egg.

B) The sperm must meet and fertilize the egg.

C) The fertilized egg must implant in the uterus.

D) All of these must happen for pregnancy to occur.

68)

What is the correct sequence of the journey for mature sperm?

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A) Epididymis – ductus deferens – prostatic urethra – ejaculatory duct – penile urethra – vagina – uterus – uterine tube B) Epididymis – ductus deferens – ejaculatory duct – prostatic urethra – penile urethra – uterine tube – vagina – uterus C) Epididymis – ductus deferens – ejaculatory duct – prostatic urethra – penile urethra – vagina – uterus – uterine tube D) Ejaculatory duct – prostatic urethra – epididymis – ductus deferens – penile urethra – vagina – uterus – uterine tube

69)

Which of the following is the second step in the process of fertilization?

A) A sperm fuses with the egg's plasma membrane.

B) The sperm nucleus enters the egg, and the egg immediately prevents any further sperm from gaining access by forming a fertilization membrane that a sperm cannot penetrate.

C) The nuclei of the sperm and egg rupture within the fertilized egg and the chromosomes mix to form a single nucleus.

D) The capacitated sperm release their acrosomal enzymes to penetrate through the cells surrounding the egg.

70)

Which of the following is the first step in the process of fertilization?

A) A sperm fuses with the egg's plasma membrane.

B) The sperm nucleus enters the egg, and the egg immediately prevents any further sperm from gaining access by forming a fertilization membrane that a sperm cannot penetrate.

C) The nuclei of the sperm and egg rupture within the fertilized egg and the chromosomes mix to form a single nucleus.

D) The capacitated sperm release their acrosomal enzymes to penetrate through the cells surrounding the egg.

71)

Which of the following is the last step in the process of fertilization?

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A) A sperm fuses with the egg's plasma membrane.

B) The sperm nucleus enters the egg, and the egg immediately prevents any further sperm from gaining access by forming a fertilization membrane that a sperm cannot penetrate.

C) The nuclei of the sperm and egg rupture within the fertilized egg and the chromosomes mix to form a single nucleus.

D) The capacitated sperm release their acrosomal enzymes to penetrate through the cells surrounding the egg.

72)

What type of cell division does the zygote perform?

A) Meiosis B) Mitosis C) Meiosis I D) The zygote does not divide.

73) Which hormone from the developing blastocyst causes the corpus luteum to continue to secrete estrogen and progesterone?

A) Human chorionic somatomammotropin B) Progesterone C) Estrogen D) Human chorionic gonadotropin

74) Which hormone suppresses uterine contractions, promotes a rich lining of the uterus for the developing blastocyst and embryo to feed upon, and promotes the development of mammary glands and ducts?

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A) Human chorionic somatomammotropin B) Progesterone C) Estrogen D) Human chorionic gonadotropin

75)

Which of these hormones is produced by the placenta but not by the corpus luteum?

A) Human chorionic somatomammotropin B) Progesterone C) Estrogen D) Human chorionic gonadotropin

76) Which hormone regulates carbohydrate and protein metabolism so that glucose and amino acids are available in the blood for the developing fetus?

A) Human chorionic somatomammotropin B) Progesterone C) Estrogen D) Human chorionic gonadotropin

77) Which hormone causes the breasts to double in size, encourages the external genitalia and uterus to grow, causes the uterus to be more irritable, and causes the pubic symphysis to become more elastic?

A) Human chorionic somatomammotropin B) Progesterone C) Estrogen D) Human chorionic gonadotropin

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78)

Which statement is false regarding the nutritional requirements for pregnancy?

A) Calcium is necessary for bone development in the fetus and bone maintenance in the mother.

B) Folic acid is important to prevent birth defects, especially those concerning neural development.

C) Protein is not important for fetal growth during the second and third trimester.

D) Iron is important for increased hemoglobin production to maintain the increased blood volume.

79)

Which of the following initiates the birth process?

A) CRH targets the fetal anterior pituitary to release ACTH. B) Progesterone production levels decrease around six months, while estrogen levels keep increasing making the uterus more likely to contract.

C) The hypothalamus signals the posterior pituitary to secrete oxytocin.

D) All of these happen to initiate the birth process.

80)

Which term refers to the thinning of the cervix during the birth process?

A) Dilation B) Effacement C) Episiotomy D) Crowning

81) Which stage of the birth process involves the expulsion of the placenta and its associated membranes?

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A) Stage 1 B) Stage 2 C) Stage 3 D) Stage 4

82)

Which stage of the birth process involves crowning of the baby's head?

A) Stage 1 B) Stage 2 C) Stage 3 D) Stage 4

83)

Which stage of the birth process involves dilation and effacement?

A) Stage 1 B) Stage 2 C) Stage 3 D) Stage 4

84)

Which statement about breast feeding is false?

A) Breast milk provides good nutrition.

B) Breast milk contains many of the mother's antibodies to provide passive natural immunity to the baby.

C) Breast milk has a laxative effect.

D) All of these statements about breast feeding are true.

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85)

What causes the milk ejection reflex?

A) Suckling B) Child birth C) LH D) Prolactin

86)

Which statement regarding lactation is false?

A) Estrogen and progesterone levels do not affect milk production.

B) All through the pregnancy, estrogen and progesterone together cause breast development, and suppress the effects of prolactin.

C) Prolactin is a hormone that stimulates milk production in the mammary glands.

D) The increased prolactin at birth causes milk production within a few days

87) Which pregnancy disorder is characterized by pregnancy-induced hypertension accompanied by protein in the urine?

A) Spontaneous abortion B) Ectopic pregnancy C) Preeclampsia D) Miscarriage

88) What pregnancy disorder is characterized by a fertilized egg implanting outside of the uterus?

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A) Spontaneous abortion B) Ectopic pregnancy C) Preeclampsia D) Miscarriage

89) What pregnancy disorder is characterized by premature detachment of the placenta from the uterine wall?

A) Placenta previa B) Ectopic pregnancy C) Preeclampsia D) Placental abruption

90) What pregnancy disorder is characterized by the placenta being positioned over the cervix, blocking the opening of the uterus?

A) Placenta previa B) Ectopic pregnancy C) Preeclampsia D) Placental abruption

91)

What is the last stage of fertilization?

A) A sperm finds the egg.

B) A sperm fertilizes the egg.

C) The fertilized egg implants in the uterus.

D) A placenta is formed.

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92)

How long after ovulation can a successful fertilization take place?

A) 3 days B) 1 hour C) 24 hours D) One week

93) Which of the following is made possible by the expansion of the thoracic cage during pregnancy?

A) A decreased motility in the digestive system B) A 30% increase in cardiac output C) An increase in urine volume D) A 50% increase in respiratory ventilation

94)

Which statement regarding the nutritional requirements for pregnancy is true?

A) Calcium is necessary for bone development in the fetus and bone maintenance in the mother.

B) Folic acid should be avoided due to toxicity. It can cause birth defects, especially those concerning neural development.

C) Fat is vitally important for fetal growth during the second and third trimester.

D) Iron should be avoided as it is toxic to the developing fetus.

95) Which of the following is a nutritional requirement for red blood cell production during pregnancy?

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A) Calcium B) Folic acid C) Fat D) Iron

96)

What is the medical term for the birth process?

A) Parturition B) Menstruation C) Oogenesis D) Effacement

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 16_3e_ Roiger 1) D 2) B 3) D 4) D 5) A 6) D 7) A 8) C 9) B 10) D 11) A 12) C 13) B 14) D 15) A 16) C 17) C 18) B 19) A 20) C 21) B 22) C 23) C 24) B 25) D 26) A Version 1

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27) B 28) B 29) D 30) A 31) D 32) B 33) B 34) C 35) B 36) C 37) C 38) B 39) B 40) C 41) D 42) B 43) D 44) C 45) C 46) C 47) A 48) A 49) B 50) B 51) C 52) D 53) B 54) C 55) D 56) A Version 1

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57) D 58) C 59) A 60) B 61) C 62) D 63) C 64) D 65) A 66) D 67) D 68) C 69) A 70) D 71) C 72) B 73) D 74) B 75) A 76) A 77) C 78) C 79) D 80) B 81) C 82) B 83) A 84) D 85) A 86) A Version 1

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87) C 88) B 89) D 90) A 91) C 92) C 93) D 94) A 95) D 96) A

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