TEST BANK for Explorations: Introduction to Astronomy 9th Edition by Thomas Arny & Stephen Schneider

Explorations: Introduction to Astronomy 9th Edition Thomas Arny Chapter 1 The Cycles of the Sky 1) Directly above Earth's equator lies the A) North Celestial Pole B) South Celestial Pole C) Celestial equator D) ecliptic

in the sky.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Locating Objects in the Sky Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Celestial Sphere Model 2) All celestial objects rise in the east and set in the west because A) Earth is rotating from east to west.

B) Earth is rotating from west to east.

C) Earth is orbiting around the Sun from east to west.

D) the celestial sphere is rotating from east to west.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Locating Objects in the Sky; Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Celestial Sphere Model; Diurnal and Annual Motion 3) What is the ecliptic?

A) the line of the solar and lunar eclipses on the celestial sphere B) the extension of Earth's path on the celestial sphere C) the elliptical shape of Earth's orbit around the Sun D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.01 Topic: Locating Objects in the Sky Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: The Ecliptic

4) Which of the following statements describes the ecliptic?

A) the path of the Moon on the celestial sphere B) the extension of Earth's equator on the celestial sphere C) the extension of Earth's path on the celestial sphere D) the apparent path of the Sun across the celestial sphere E) The extension of Earth's equator on the celestial sphere and the apparent path of the Sun across the celestial sphere are correct.

Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.01 Topic: Locating Objects in the Sky Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: The Ecliptic 5) Suppose that Earth's spin would suddenly reverse direction, but the direction of Earth's motion around the Sun was preserved. Which of the following changes would you expect to observe?

A) The Sun would rise in the west and set in the east.

B) The stars would rise in the west and set in the east.

C) The planets would rise in the west and set in the east.

D) All of these would be observed.

E) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.01 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Diurnal and Annual Motion 6) For someone in the Northern Hemisphere stars rise in the east and set in the west. For someone in the Southern Hemisphere A) the situation is the same—stars also rise in the east and set in the west.

B) the opposite is true—stars rise in the west and set in the east.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Diurnal and Annual Motion

7) The motion of the Sun relative to the stars is from A) east; west B) west; east

to

.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Diurnal and Annual Motion 8) Which of the following statements regarding the motion of objects on the celestial sphere is true?

A) The Sun moves along the Celestial Equator.

B) The Moon moves along the Celestial Equator.

C) The stars move along the zodiac.

D) The stars move parallel to the Celestial Equator.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.01 Topic: Locating Objects in the Sky Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Celestial Sphere Model 9) How much time is there between when a star rises and when it sets?

A) less than twelve hours B) about twelve hours C) more than twelve hours D) It depends on the star.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Locating Objects in the Sky; Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Celestial Sphere Model; Diurnal and Annual Motion

10) The zodiac is tilted by 23.5 degrees relative to the Celestial Equator.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.01 Topic: Locating Objects in the Sky Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Celestial Sphere Model 11) There are constellations that are not visible for observers living in North America.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.01 Topic: Locating Objects in the Sky Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Celestial Sphere Model 12) Although all known stars appear to rise from the eastern horizon, astronomers might someday discover a star that will rise from the western horizon.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Locating Objects in the Sky Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Celestial Sphere Model 13) What is the celestial sphere?

A) an observatory dome B) the Sun C) Earth D) the imaginary sphere of the sky, on which stars lie Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Locating Objects in the Sky Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Celestial Sphere Model

14) For which of the following is the celestial sphere an accurate representation of reality?

A) the distance to the stars B) the spherical bubble that surrounds Earth C) the view of the stars from Earth D) the motion of the Sun around Earth E) the motion of the planets around Earth Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.01 Topic: Locating Objects in the Sky Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Celestial Sphere Model 15) Constellations are .

A) fixed patterns of stars on the celestial sphere B) groups of stars that are close to each other in space C) stars that neither rise nor set D) stars representing the path of the Sun through the sky E) animals that look like groupings of stars Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.01 Topic: Locating Objects in the Sky Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Constellations 16) What do we call a specific pattern of stars in the sky, often named for an animal?

A) a cluster B) a star animal C) a constellation D) the ecliptic Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Locating Objects in the Sky Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Constellations

17) Stars in a constellation .

A) are close to one another in space B) all formed at about the same time C) neither rise nor set D) are in the same direction in the sky E) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.01 Topic: Locating Objects in the Sky Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Constellations 18) Constellations rise in the A) east; west B) west; east C) morning; evening D) evening; morning E) Constellations neither rise nor set.

and set in the

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Locating Objects in the Sky Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Constellations 19) Over the course of a single night, stars move overhead due to A) their motion around Earth B) the rotation of Earth on its axis C) the motion of the Sun around the galaxy D) the rotation of the celestial sphere E) the tilt of Earth's axis Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Diurnal and Annual Motion

_.

20) The celestial equator is always located .

A) running north to south, and directly overhead B) in the northern sky, at an altitude equal to your latitude C) running due east to due west, 90 degrees from the north Celestial Pole D) running east to west, between the ecliptic and the North Celestial Pole E) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.01 Topic: Locating Objects in the Sky Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Celestial Coordinate Systems, Celestial Sphere Model 21) What is the Celestial Equator?

A) a band of constellations through which the planets and Sun appear to move B) the line that the Sun traces across the celestial sphere C) an imaginary line in the sky, directly above Earth's equator D) the cycle of lunar phases Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.01 Topic: Locating Objects in the Sky Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Celestial Coordinate Systems, Celestial Sphere Model 22) The North Celestial Pole is located A) directly above Earth's equator B) directly overhead C) at the geographic North Pole D) directly above the geographic North Pole E) at the center of the celestial sphere

.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.01 Topic: Locating Objects in the Sky Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Celestial Coordinate Systems, Celestial Sphere Model

23) The star nearest the North Celestial Pole is A) Vega B) Thuban C) Denebola D) Polaris E) Mizar

.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Locating Objects in the Sky Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Celestial Coordinate Systems, Celestial Sphere Model 24) Circumpolar stars are stars that .

A) rise in the east and set in the west B) neither rise nor set C) are pointed to by the celestial poles D) follow circular orbits around the celestial poles E) can only be seen from the poles of Earth Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Diurnal and Annual Motion 25) A constellation directly overhead at midnight in June will be December.

A) directly overhead B) on the eastern horizon C) on the western horizon D) below the horizon E) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Diurnal and Annual Motion

at midnight in

26) The change in constellations with the seasons are caused by A) the rotation of Earth B) the revolution of Earth C) the precession of Earth's axis D) the Sun's orbit around the center of the galaxy E) zodiacal shift

.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.01 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Diurnal and Annual Motion 27) "Annual motion" refers to changes in the positions of stars in the sky as the result of .

A) Earth's rotation on its axis B) Earth's motion as it orbits the Sun C) the rotation of the celestial sphere around Earth D) the motion of the Sun around Earth E) the Sun's orbit around the center of the galaxy Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Diurnal and Annual Motion 28) The daily spin of Earth on its axis is called A) revolution B) precession C) annualization D) rotation E) constellation Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Diurnal and Annual Motion

.

29) The annual motion of Earth around the Sun is called A) revolution B) precession C) annualization D) rotation E) constellation

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Diurnal and Annual Motion 30) The star Vega rises today at 6:40 A.M. Tomorrow it will rise at A) 6:44 A.M. B) 6:40 A.M. C) 6:36 A.M. D) 6:32 A.M. E) 6:44 P.M.

.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Diurnal and Annual Motion 31) The star Aldebaran is seen today just on the western horizon at 9:38 P.M. Tomorrow night at 9:38 P.M., Aldebaran will be .

A) below the horizon B) on the horizon C) above the horizon D) on the eastern horizon E) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Diurnal and Annual Motion

32) The "zodiac" is .

A) a belt-shaped region of the sky surrounding the ecliptic B) a pink-colored glow above the horizon due to scattered sunlight C) a band of stars falling along the Celestial Equator D) a group of constellations through which the Sun passes on the equinoxes E) a series of astrological signs Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Diurnal and Annual Motion 33) What do we call the line that the Sun traces across the celestial sphere?

A) the Celestial Equator B) the Mason-Dixon Line C) the extension of Earth's equator on the celestial sphere D) the ecliptic Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.01 Topic: Locating Objects in the Sky Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Celestial Coordinate Systems, Celestial Sphere Model 34) What causes the change of the constellations with the seasons?

A) It is caused by Earth's motion around the Sun. B) It is caused as the constellations move amongst themselves.

C) This is merely an illusion caused as the length of the day changes.

D) the cycle of lunar phases Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.01 Topic: Locating Objects in the Sky; Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: The Ecliptic; Seasons, Diurnal and Annual Motion

35) In which season is Earth farthest from the Sun? A) when it is winter in North America B) when it is summer in North America C) when it is autumn in North America D) when it is spring in North America Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.02 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Seasons, Diurnal and Annual Motion 36) The equinox is the time when A) the number of daylight hours is longest in the Northern Hemisphere.

B) the number of daylight hours is shortest in the Northern Hemisphere.

C) the number of daylight hours equals the number of nighttime hours everywhere on Earth.

D) all the nights are equally long throughout the month.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.02 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Seasons, Diurnal and Annual Motion, Solstices and Equinoxes 37) On what date/s does the Sun rise exactly due east and set exactly due west?

A) June 21 and December 21 B) March 21 and September 22 C) only on March 21 D) only on June 21 Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.02 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Diurnal and Annual Motion, Solstices and Equinoxes

38) In the Northern Hemisphere, between what dates does the location of the Sun's rising and setting shift a little farther south each day?

A) from March 20 until September 22 B) from June 21 until December 21 C) from September 22 until March 20 D) from December 21 until June 21 Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.02 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Seasons, Diurnal and Annual Motion, Solstices and Equinoxes 39) Why do the constellations that are visible in the sky at night change with the seasons?

A) because the celestial sphere revolves around Earth B) because Earth is a sphere C) because Earth rotates about an axis D) because Earth revolves around the Sun Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.02 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Diurnal and Annual Motion 40) What causes the seasons?

A) the tilt of the celestial sphere with respect to the equator B) Earth's distance from the Sun varies throughout the year.

C) The ecliptic is tilted with respect to the Celestial Equator.

D) the motion of the equinoxes E) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.02 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Seasons

41) What causes the seasons?

A) the changing distance between Earth and the Sun B) the tilt of Earth's spin axis relative to Earth's orbit C) Earth's spin axis is tilted from the poles of the celestial sphere D) the elliptical shape of Earth's equator Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.02 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Seasons 42) Which of the following is true during the equinoxes?

A) The Sun is on the ecliptic.

B) The Sun is on the Celestial Equator.

C) The Sun rises due east and sets due west.

D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.02 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solstices and Equinoxes 43) During the June solstice, the Sun rises in the southeast horizon in Earth's Northern Hemisphere.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.02 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solstices and Equinoxes, Diurnal and Annual Motion

44) During the December solstice, the Sun rises in the southeast horizon in Earth's Northern Hemisphere and in the northeast horizon in Earth's Southern Hemisphere.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.02 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solstices and Equinoxes, Diurnal and Annual Motion 45) Temperatures in New York City are warmer in July than in January because Earth is closer to the Sun in July than in January.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.02 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Seasons 46) The Northern Hemisphere is warmer in its summer months because .

A) Earth is closer to the Sun during this time B) the Sun is in the sky for a longer period of time C) the Sun is more directly overhead during this time D) the Sun is in the sky for a longer period of time and the Sun is more directly overhead during this time E) Earth is closer to the Sun during this time and the Sun is in the sky for a longer period of time Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.02 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Seasons

47) Earth's axis is tilted by A) 32.5 B) 11 C) 23.5 D) 25 E) 66.5

degrees relative to the Celestial Equator.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.02 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Seasons 48) The ecliptic is tilted by A) 32.5 B) 11 C) 23.5 D) 25 E) 66.5

degrees relative to the Celestial Equator.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.02 Topic: Locating Objects in the Sky; Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: The Ecliptic; Seasons 49) If Earth's axis was not tipped relative to the Celestial Equator, A) Earth would experience winter all year B) Earth would experience summer all year C) Earth would not experience seasons D) there would be an eclipse every month E) there would never be an eclipse Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.02 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Seasons

.

50) During the summer months in the Southern Hemisphere, A) Earth is closer to the Sun B) the Sun is in the sky for a longer period of time C) the Sun is more directly overhead during this time D) the Northern Hemisphere experiences winter weather E) All of these choices are correct.

.

Answer: E Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.02 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Seasons 51) In the Northern Hemisphere, winter shadows are longer because A) the Sun is in the sky for a longer period of time B) the Sun moves through the sky closer to the horizon C) the Sun moves through the sky farther from the horizon D) the Sun is in the sky for a shorter period of time E) None of these choices is correct.

.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.02 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Seasons 52) Regions of Earth where the Sun is more directly overhead will experience A) colder weather B) warmer weather C) longer nights D) more eclipses E) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.02 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Seasons

.

53) On the vernal equinox, the Sun rises A) north of east B) south of east C) due east D) south of west E) due west

.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.02 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solstices and Equinoxes 54) On the autumnal equinox, the Sun sets A) north of east B) south of east C) due east D) south of west E) due west

.

Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.02 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solstices and Equinoxes 55) At solar noon on the summer solstice, the Sun is located A) 23.5 degrees above the Celestial Equator B) 23.5 degrees below the Celestial Equator C) 23.5 degrees above the ecliptic D) 23.5 degrees below the ecliptic E) 23.5 degrees above the horizon Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.02 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solstices and Equinoxes

.

56) At solar noon on the winter solstice, the Sun is located A) 23.5 degrees above the Celestial Equator B) 23.5 degrees below the Celestial Equator C) 23.5 degrees above the ecliptic D) 23.5 degrees below the ecliptic E) 23.5 degrees above the horizon

.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.02 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solstices and Equinoxes 57) Ypsilanti, Michigan, is located at latitude 42 degrees North. What is the altitude (above the southern horizon) of the Sun at solar noon on the summer solstice?

A) 71.5 degrees B) 108.5 degrees C) 42 degrees D) 132 degrees E) 23.5 degrees Answer: A Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 01.02 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solstices and Equinoxes 58) At the North Pole, the summer solstice Sun A) circles the pole along the horizon B) circles the pole 23.5 degrees above the horizon C) circles the pole 23.5 degrees below the horizon D) is directly overhead for the entire day E) rises north of east and sets north of west Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.02 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solstices and Equinoxes

.

59) At the North Pole, the vernal equinox Sun A) circles the pole along the horizon B) circles the pole 23.5 degrees above the horizon C) circles the pole 23.5 degrees below the horizon D) is directly overhead for the entire day E) rises north of east and sets north of west

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.02 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solstices and Equinoxes 60) At the North Pole, the winter solstice Sun A) circles the pole along the horizon B) circles the pole 23.5 degrees above the horizon C) circles the pole 23.5 degrees below the horizon D) is directly overhead for the entire day E) rises north of east and sets north of west

.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.02 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solstices and Equinoxes 61) After a full moon, about how long is it until the next new moon?

A) a month B) 2 weeks C) a week D) 6 hours Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.03 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Phases of the Moon

62) If there is a full moon visible from Paris one evening, twelve hours later in Australia there will be a visible.

A) full moon B) new moon C) first quarter moon D) crescent moon Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.03 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Phases of the Moon 63) When the Moon and the Sun lie exactly in the same direction in the sky, what phase of the Moon would you see?

A) full B) half C) gibbous D) crescent E) new Answer: E Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.03 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Phases of the Moon 64) The Full Moon sets at A) sunrise.

B) sunset.

C) midnight.

D) noon.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.03 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Phases of the Moon

65) Which phase of the Moon sets at noon?

A) full Moon B) third quarter C) new Moon D) waxing crescent E) None, the Moon always sets at sunrise.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.03 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Phases of the Moon 66) When does the full Moon phase occur?

A) when Earth is between the Sun and the Moon B) when the Sun is between Earth and the Moon C) when the Moon is between Earth and the Sun D) when the Moon and the Sun are on the Celestial equator Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.03 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Phases of the Moon 67) When does the new Moon phase occur?

A) when Earth is between the Sun and the Moon B) when the Sun is between Earth and the Moon C) when the Moon is between Earth and the Sun D) when the Sun and the Moon are on the Celestial Equator Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.03 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Phases of the Moon

68) Which phase of the moon do you expect to see high in the sky at 6:00 P.M.?

A) the first quarter B) the new moon C) the full moon D) the third quarter Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.03 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Phases of the Moon 69) Which phase of the moon do you expect to see rising at dawn?

A) full moon B) first quarter C) waning crescent D) third quarter Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.03 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Phases of the Moon 70) If the Moon sets at 10 A.M. today, approximately what time did the Moon set yesterday?

A) 10:04 A.M. B) 9:56 A.M. C) 10:50 A.M. D) 9:10 A.M. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.03 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Phases of the Moon

71) During which phase of the moon do you expect to observe a lunar eclipse?

A) full moon B) new moon C) first quarter D) third quarter E) Lunar eclipses can occur at any phase of the moon.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.03 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Phases of the Moon, Eclipses 72) During which phase of the moon do you expect to observe a solar eclipse?

A) full moon B) new moon C) first quarter D) third quarter E) Solar eclipses can occur at any phase of the moon.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.03 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Phases of the Moon, Eclipses 73) Solar eclipses can occur during A) the new moon B) the full moon C) the waning crescent moon D) the waxing crescent moon E) any phase of the moon Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.03 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Phases of the Moon, Eclipses

.

74) Relative to the stars, the Moon moves from A) east; west B) west; east

to

.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.03 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Phases of the Moon 75) During a solar eclipse, the A) Moon; Earth B) Sun; Moon C) Earth; Sun D) Moon; Sun E) Earth; Moon

casts a small circular shadow on the

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.03 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Phases of the Moon, Eclipses 76) Lunar eclipses do not occur every full Moon, because the path of the relative to the .

A) Earth; ecliptic B) Moon; ecliptic C) Sun; ecliptic D) Moon; equator Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.03 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Eclipses

is tilted

77) Which of the following statements about eclipses is true?

A) A total solar eclipse is visible from any location on the day-side of Earth.

B) A partial solar eclipse happens every month, but not the total solar eclipse.

C) A lunar eclipse is visible from any location on the night-side of Earth.

D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.03 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Eclipses 78) An annular eclipse A) is a solar eclipse that happens every November.

B) occurs when the Moon's shadow does not completely reach Earth during a solar eclipse.

C) is a lunar eclipse that happens every November.

D) occurs when Earth's shadow does not completely reach the Moon during a lunar eclipse.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.03 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Eclipses 79) At totality during the lunar eclipse, the Moon generally appears A) bluish B) yellowish C) greenish D) reddish Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.03 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Eclipses

in color.

80) What is the maximum number of eclipses that can occur in a year?

A) 2 (one solar and one lunar) B) 4 (two solar and two lunar) C) 7 (five solar and two lunar) D) 7 (four solar and three lunar) E) 7 (five solar and two lunar) or 7 (four solar and three lunar) Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.03 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Eclipses 81) Eclipses generally occur in pairs, with a solar eclipse about eclipse.

A) a day B) a week C) 2 weeks D) a month E) 2 months

before or after a lunar

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.03 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Eclipses 82) An annular solar eclipse occurs A) when the Moon in its orbit is farthest from Earth, and, so not able to cover the complete disk of the Sun. B) when the Moon in its orbit is closest to Earth, and, so not able to cover the complete disk of the Sun. C) every year when the Sun is highest in the sky.

D) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.03 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Eclipses

83) Are the Sun and the Moon ever above the horizon at the same time?

A) yes, always B) yes, sometimes C) no, never D) The moon always rises as the sun sets.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.03 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Phases of the Moon 84) If there is a first-quarter moon visible from Paris one evening, six hours later in New York there will be full moon visible.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.03 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Phases of the Moon 85) The first-quarter moon is at its highest point at about 6 P.M. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.03 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Phases of the Moon 86) The first-quarter phase of the Moon in the Northern Hemisphere occurs at the time of the third-quarter phase in the Southern Hemisphere.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.03 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Phases of the Moon

87) An annular solar eclipse occurs every year.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.03 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Eclipses 88) The reason that solar eclipses are not observed each month is that the Moon's shadow only covers a small portion of Earth so very few people can actually see the monthly eclipses.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.03 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Eclipses 89) It is possible for the Moon to rise at the same time as the Sun. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.03 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Phases of the Moon 90) During totality of a lunar eclipse the Moon disappears from view on the night sky.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.03 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Eclipses

91) The Moon takes approximately A) 1 day B) 7 days C) 30 days D) 90 days

to go through a cycle of phases.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 01.03 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Phases of the Moon 92) The Moon rises later each day because .

A) the Moon shifts eastward relative to the stars in its orbit around Earth B) Earth moves approximately one degree per day in its orbit around the Sun C) the Moon moves in its orbit faster than Earth rotates D) the Moon follows an elliptical orbit around Earth E) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.03 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Phases of the Moon 93) The Moon moves relative to the background stars over the course of an evening.

A) eastward B) westward C) northward D) southward E) The Moon does not move relative to the background stars.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.03 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Phases of the Moon

94) The sidereal month is .

A) the time the Moon takes to complete an orbit relative to the background stars B) the time it takes Earth to rotate 30 times on its axis C) the time it takes the Moon to complete an orbit relative to the Sun D) the time between successive new moons E) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 01.03 Topic: Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Phases of the Moon

Explorations: Introduction to Astronomy 9th Edition Thomas Arny Chapter 2 The Rise of Astronomy 1) The Moon appears larger when it rises than when it is high in the sky because A) you are closer to it when it rises (angular-size relation).

B) you are farther from it when it rises (angular-size relation).

C) it's an illusion from comparison to objects on the horizon.

D) it's brighter when it rises.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.01 Topic: History of Astronomy; Locating Objects in the Sky Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Diameter-distance Relation (a.k.a. the small angle formula); Observational astronomy 2) was the first person to measure the circumference of Earth.

A) Ptolemy B) Copernicus C) Eratosthenes D) Galileo E) Aristarchus Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.01 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Historical: Shape and Size of Earth 3) When was it first known that Earth was spherical in shape?

A) It was always known to be spherical.

B) at the time of the Greeks C) at the beginning of the Renaissance D) only after Galileo used a telescope to study other planets E) only recently within the last hundred years Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.01 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Historical: Shape and Size of Earth

4) What is the size of an object located at a distance of 1,000 meters and that has angular size A = 4 degrees?

A) about 11 meters B) about 35 meters C) about 70 meters D) about 4,000 meters Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.01 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Diameter-distance Relation (a.k.a. the small angle formula) 5) The angular size of an object increases as the distance to the observer increases.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.01 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Diameter-distance Relation (a.k.a. the small angle formula) 6) The angular size of the Sun as observed from Earth is about 0.5 degree.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.01 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Diameter-distance Relation (a.k.a. the small angle formula); Historical: Distances and Sizes of the Sun and Moon

7) The angular size of the Moon as observed from Earth is about 0.5 degree.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.01 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Diameter-distance Relation (a.k.a. the small angle formula); Historical: Distances and Sizes of the Sun and Moon 8) One observation supporting the idea of a spherical Earth is that .

A) the shape of Earth's shadow on the Moon during an eclipse is circular B) a traveler moving south will see stars they could not previously see C) a ship moving away from the observer will move such that the hull is not seen, then the sails D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.01 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Historical: Shape and Size of Earth 9) The curved shape of Earth's shadow during an eclipse was evidence for A) a flat, circular Earth B) a spherical Earth C) a spherical Moon D) a flat, circular Moon E) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.01 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Historical: Shape and Size of Earth

.

10) Which of the following is a contribution that Eratosthenes made to astronomy?

A) He determined the circumference of Earth.

B) He discovered epicycles.

C) He discovered his Three Laws (of Planetary Motion).

D) He was the first person known to have pointed a telescope at the sky.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.01 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Historical: Shape and Size of Earth 11) What is meant by the phrase "angular size"?

A) an object's diameter B) how big an object looks, expressed as an angle C) the distance around an object D) the angle between two circular objects Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.01 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Diameter-distance Relation (a.k.a. the small angle formula) 12) If you triple your distance from an object, what happens to its angular size?

A) It decreases by one half.

B) It stays the same.

C) It reduces to one third of what it was.

D) It increases by a factor of nine.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.01 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Diameter-distance Relation (a.k.a. the small angle formula)

13) The Sun and the Moon have an angular size of approximately A) 1 degree B) 5 degrees C) 0.5 degree D) 23.5 degrees E) 2.35 degrees

_.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.01 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Diameter-distance Relation (a.k.a. the small angle formula) 14) The similarity of the Sun's and the Moon's angular sizes allows A) tides B) lunar phases C) eclipses D) sunspots E) seasons

to occur.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.01 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Diameter-distance Relation (a.k.a. the small angle formula) 15) The apparent size of an object based on the amount of sky it covers is called its A) diameter B) shadow-width C) horizon D) angular size E) celestial extent Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.01 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Diameter-distance Relation (a.k.a. the small angle formula)

.

16) The Sun and the Moon have the same angular size. If the Sun is 400 times farther away from the Moon, the Sun must be times the size of the Moon.

A) 400 B) 1/400 C) 1/4 D) 4 E) 4π Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.01 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Diameter-distance Relation (a.k.a. the small angle formula); Historical: Distances and Sizes of the Sun and Moon 17) One of two identical buildings is nearby; the other is twice as far away as the first. The angular size of the more distant building is the nearby building's angular size.

A) two times B) four times C) one half D) one fourth E) the same as Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.01 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Diameter-distance Relation (a.k.a. the small angle formula)

18) When the Moon is on the horizon, it appears larger than when it is high in the sky. Why? A) When it is on the horizon, it is closer to us.

B) This is an optical illusion.

C) The brightness of the Moon makes it seem larger.

D) Earth's atmosphere acts like a lens, magnifying it.

E) Its angular size is larger on the horizon.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.01 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Diameter-distance Relation (a.k.a. the small angle formula); Historical: Distances and Sizes of the Sun and Moon 19) One observation that supported an Earth-centered solar system is A) retrograde motion B) the phases of the Moon C) the lack of parallax in the stars D) the shape of Earth's shadow on the Moon E) the phases of Venus

.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.01 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Geocentric Models; Parallax 20) The shift of a star's apparent position due to Earth's motion around the Sun is called .

A) parallax B) retrograde motion C) prograde motion D) geocentricity E) proper motion Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.01 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Geocentric Models; Parallax

21) The parallax shift of a nearby star would be A) greater than B) less than C) the same as D) brighter than E) faster than

that of a more distant star.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.01 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Parallax 22) The paths of the planets in the sky are tilted with respect to the celestial equator by about A) 5 degrees.

B) 23 degrees.

C) 45 degrees.

D) 90 degrees.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.02 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Motion of the planets 23) One of the methods used to date supernova remnants (the remains of exploded stars) today is by using A) the notebooks of Galileo.

B) the records of ancient Chinese, Japanese, and Korean astronomers.

C) the works of Ptolemy.

D) Kepler's laws.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.02 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Motion of the planets

24) Which of the following objects passes through the zodiac?

A) Sun B) Planets C) Earth and Moon D) All of these choices are correct.

E) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.02 Topic: History of Astronomy; Locating Objects in the Sky Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Motion of the planets; The ecliptic 25) What is retrograde motion?

A) east to west motion of the Sun over many successive nights B) east to west motion of the Moon relative to the stars over many successive nights C) occasional east to west motion of the planets relative to the stars over many successive nights D) occasional west to east motion of the planets relative to the stars over many successive nights Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.02 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Motion of the planets 26) During retrograde motion, a planet moves from A) east; west (moves westward) B) west; east (moves eastward) Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.02 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Motion of the planets

to

relative to the stars.

27) Retrograde motion is discernible by watching a planet over the course of A) a few minutes.

B) many hours.

C) many nights.

D) many years.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.02 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Motion of the planets 28) During the course of a single night, a planet that is moving in retrograde motion will move A) east to west.

B) west to east.

C) not at all.

D) randomly about the sky.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.02 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Motion of the planets 29) Imagine the much more massive Jupiter were to switch places with the less massive Mercury. Which of the following would accurately describe the outcome?

A) Jupiter would orbit the Sun in less time than it did before.

B) Jupiter would orbit the sun in more time than it did before.

C) Mercury would orbit the Sun in less time than it did before.

D) The orbital time for each of the planets would not change.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.02 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Motion of the planets; Kepler

30) The paths of the planets' orbits lie in all different directions in the sky.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.02 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Motion of the planets 31) The inability to observe parallax of stars contributed to the ancient Greek astronomers' rejection of the idea that Earth revolves around the Sun. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.02 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Geocentric Models; Parallax; Heliocentric Models 32) The motion of the Sun with respect to the stars is retrograde, i.e., east to west relative to the stars.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.02 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Motion of the planets 33) During retrograde motion, the planet Mars rises in the west and sets in the east.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.02 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Motion of the planets

34) Parallax is the shift in a star's apparent position due to Earth's motion around the Sun. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.02 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Geocentric Models; Parallax; Heliocentric Models 35) The concept of the epicycle was introduced in the heliocentric model to explain the retrograde motion of the planets.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.02 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Geocentric Models; Motion of the planets; Epicycles 36) In the heliocentric model, the retrograde motion of the planets was explained as the consequence of the different orbital speeds of the planets, without the use of epicycles.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.02 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Motion of the planets; Heliocentric Models; Epicycles 37) Where on the celestial sphere would you look for the planets?

A) on the celestial equator B) on the galactic equator C) in the zodiac (near the ecliptic) D) at the north celestial pole Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.02 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Motion of the planets

38) If you see a bright "star" in the sky, how could you tell whether it is a star or a planet?

A) Planets are too dim to be seen without a telescope.

B) Planets are round; stars have five points.

C) Planets always appear right next to the Moon.

D) Look at it several days later—if it's a planet, it will move across the background stars.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.02 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Motion of the planets 39) The planets move through the sky, relative to the background stars.

A) east to west B) west to east C) retrograde D) northeast to southwest E) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.02 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Motion of the planets 40) Of the earliest known planets, which exhibits retrograde motion?

A) only Mars B) Mercury, Venus, and Mars C) Mars and Mercury D) All of these choices are correct.

E) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.02 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Motion of the planets

41) What do we call it when a planet moves backward (east to west) through the stars?

A) retrograde motion B) the Zodiac C) regression D) prograde motion Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.02 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Motion of the planets 42) Where will a planet in retrograde motion rise?

A) in the north B) in the south C) in the east (just like everything else in the sky) D) in the west (the opposite of everything else in the sky) Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.02 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Motion of the planets 43) The planets (other than Earth) known to ancient Western cultures were A) Mercury, Venus, and Mars B) Venus, Mars, Jupiter, and Saturn C) Venus, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune D) Mercury, Venus, Mars, Jupiter, and Saturn E) Mercury, Mars, Jupiter, and Saturn Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.02 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Motion of the planets

.

44) As the planets orbit the Sun, they are never far from the A) ecliptic B) celestial equator C) horizon D) celestial pole E) meridian

on the celestial sphere.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.02 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Motion of the planets 45) The path of the planets through the sky is tipped 23.5 degrees from the A) celestial equator B) ecliptic C) zodiac D) north celestial pole E) the plane of the galaxy Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.02 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Motion of the planets 46) The geocentric model was based on the observation that A) everything moves around Earth from east to west B) the sphere was a divine shape C) crystalline spheres rotated through the sky D) the Sun and Moon were flawless spheres E) Earth is motionless in space Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.02 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Geocentric Models

.

.

47) One phenomenon that the geocentric models struggled to explain was _ A) sunspots B) the rotation of Earth C) retrograde motion D) parallax E) epicycles Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.02 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Geocentric Models 48) An epicycle was used in geocentric models to explain A) parallax B) aurora C) retrograde motion D) eclipses E) Earth's circular shadow Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.02 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Geocentric Models 49) Islamic scholars .

A) studied and expanded upon older texts in astronomy B) made detailed studies of the motions of the planets C) influenced the naming of bright stars D) developed algebra E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.02 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Motion of the planets

.

.

50) Asian astronomers .

A) kept detailed records of unusual celestial events B) devised ways to predict eclipses C) recorded the existence of sunspots D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.02 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Motion of the planets 51) Kepler's Third, or harmonic, law states that the A) period of an orbit cubed equals the semi-major axis squared.

B) semi-major axis of an orbit cubed equals the period squared.

C) planets move fastest when they are closest to the Sun. D) semi-major axis of an orbit is inversely proportional to the period.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.03 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Kepler's Laws 52) Copernicus's heliocentric model failed to work as well as it might fail to predict the positions of planets because Copernicus insisted the orbits were A) circular.

B) elliptical.

C) circular, mounted on epicycles.

D) hyperbolic.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.03 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Motion of the planets; Heliocentric Models

53) One of Tycho Brahe's major contributions to astronomy was to prove that .

A) a supernova (exploding star); much farther away than the planets B) a comet; outside Earth's atmosphere C) the Sun; the center of the solar system D) both A and B E) A, B, and C

was

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.03 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Geocentric Models 54) The general heliocentric model proposed by Copernicus was appealing, and eventually became preferred, because A) it explained why we do not observe stellar parallax.

B) it replaced Earth with the Sun as the center of the solar system.

C) it was more aesthetically pleasing than the complicated Ptolemaic model.

D) it made more accurate predictions than the Ptolemaic model.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.03 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Geocentric Models; Heliocentric Models 55) In models, the Sun is assumed as the center of the solar system.

A) Geocentric B) Anthropomorphic C) Epicyclic D) Heliocentric Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.03 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Heliocentric Models

56) Galileo was the first to observe the phases of A) the moon B) Venus C) Earth D) the sun

.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.03 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Galileo 57) In Copernicus' model of the solar system, the planets orbited the orbits.

A) Earth; circular B) Sun; elliptical C) Sun; circular D) Earth; elliptical

in

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.03 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Heliocentric Models 58) major contribution to astronomy is his extensive series of measurements of planetary positions.

A) Tycho Brahe's B) Galileo's C) Kepler's D) Copernicus's Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.03 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Motion of the planets

59) used the extensive records of planetary positions measured by discover that the orbits of the planets are _.

A) Tycho; Kepler; circular B) Tycho; Kepler; elliptical C) Kepler; Tycho; elliptical D) Kepler; Galileo; elliptical

to

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.03 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Motion of the planets; Kepler 60) Kepler's focus.

A) First B) Second C) Third D) Fourth

law states that the orbits of planets are elliptical, with the Sun at one

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.03 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Motion of the planets; Kepler 61) From Kepler's A) First B) Second C) Third D) Fourth

law, we conclude that the planets do not move with constant speed.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.03 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Motion of the planets; Kepler

62) From Kepler's Pluto.

A) First B) Second C) Third D) Fourth

law, we conclude that Mars completes a full orbit much faster than

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.03 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Motion of the planets; Kepler 63) Observations indicate that it takes Saturn longer than Jupiter to complete one orbit about the Sun. This is in agreement with which of Kepler's laws?

A) First B) Second C) Third D) Fourth Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.03 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Motion of the planets; Kepler 64) The time between the vernal equinox and the autumnal equinox is somewhat greater than the time between the autumnal equinox and the vernal equinox. This is a result of Kepler's law.

A) First B) Second C) Third D) Fourth Answer: B Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 02.03 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Motion of the planets; Kepler

65) Copernicus' model was significantly better at predicting future positions of planets than Ptolemy's.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.03 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Heliocentric Models 66) Galileo deduced many empirical laws of motion before Newton was even born.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.03 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Galileo 67) During the month of January, Earth goes through the point of closest approach to the Sun. Using Kepler's Second law we can conclude that Earth moves faster in January than in July.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.03 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Motion of the planets; Kepler 68) In geocentric theories, Earth is assumed to be the center of the solar system.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.03 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Geocentric Models

69) The Sun is located at the center of Earth's elliptical orbit.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.03 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Kepler 70) According to Kepler's laws the Sun is located at one of the foci of Earth's orbit.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.03 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Kepler 71) Copernicus was able to calculate the distances to the observed planets relative to Earth's distance from the Sun. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.03 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Motion of the planets; Heliocentric Models 72) Which of the following is a contribution that Kepler made to astronomy?

A) He determined the size of Earth.

B) He discovered epicycles.

C) He discovered his Three laws (of Planetary Motion).

D) He discovered four moons (or satellites) of Jupiter.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.03 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Kepler's Laws

73) Which of the following is a contribution that Galileo made to astronomy?

A) He determined the size of Earth.

B) He discovered epicycles.

C) He developed the first successful heliocentric theory.

D) He discovered four moons (or satellites) of Jupiter.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 02.03 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Galileo 74) Galileo's observation of sunspots showed that A) the Sun was not a flawless sphere B) Earth revolved around the Sun C) planets moved along elliptical orbits around the Sun D) the stars could change E) None of these choices is correct.

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.03 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Galileo 75) Galileo's observation of the satellites of Jupiter showed that A) there were objects that did not orbit Earth B) planets orbited the Sun C) the Moon was not a flawless sphere D) nothing orbited Earth E) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.03 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Galileo

.

76) Tycho Brahe relied on the use of telescopes to record his accurate positions for the planets.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 02.03 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Motion of the planets

Explorations: Introduction to Astronomy 9th Edition Thomas Arny Chapter 3 Gravity and Motion 1) What property summarizes a body's tendency to stay in the state of rest or motion?

A) temperature B) acceleration C) pressure D) inertia E) volume Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.01 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Inertia 2) Which statement is true about Newton's First law of motion?

A) A body at rest stays at rest unless a force is applied to it.

B) A body in motion stays in motion unless a force is applied to it.

C) A body in motion has the tendency to come to a stop eventually.

D) A body at rest stays at rest unless a force is applied to it and a body in motion has the tendency to come to a stop eventually.

E) A body at rest stays at rest unless a force is applied to it and a body in motion stays in motion unless a force is applied to it.

Answer: E Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.01 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Inertia; Newton's Laws of Motion

3) While riding a bicycle, if you stop pedaling you will still continue to move forward due to .

A) gravity B) inertia C) acceleration D) pressure Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.01 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Inertia 4) Consider a large truck and a small car driving up a straight, steep hill. The truck is moving at 60 miles per hour and the car at 30 miles per hour. Assuming that the speeds are constant, which of the two vehicles experiences a larger net force?

A) the truck B) the car C) the same: zero net force Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.01 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Newton's Laws of Motion 5) A car is moving down a straight, steep hill. By applying the brake, the driver is able to keep the speed of the car constant. Which of the following statements is true in this situation?

A) There is a net force on the car.

B) The net acceleration is negative.

C) There is no net force on the car.

D) The net acceleration is positive.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.01 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Newton's Laws of Motion

6) When a bus makes a sudden stop the passengers lurch forward as a consequence of law.

A) Newton's First B) Kepler's Third C) Newton's Third D) Kepler's First Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.01 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Inertia 7) An object is moving in a straight line and at a constant speed of 60 kilometers per hour. We therefore conclude that the net force on this object is zero.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.01 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Inertia 8) An object moving on a circle at constant speed is an example of accelerated motion.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.01 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Inertia; Mass and Acceleration

9) What do we call the tendency of a body at rest to remain at rest or a body in motion to remain in motion?

A) gravity B) the "action-reaction" law C) the tendency of a person to stay in bed in the morning D) inertia Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.01 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Inertia; Newton's Laws of Motion 10) Galileo hypothesized that a ball rolling along a flat surface with no change in speed would .

A) have no net force acting on it B) accelerate, depending on its mass C) have a net force acting on it, upward from the surface D) slow down as it rolled down a slope E) speed up as it rolled up a slope Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.01 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Inertia; Newton's Laws of Motion 11) A magician pulls a tablecloth out from under the settings on a dinner table without disturbing the dishes. This is an example of .

A) Newton's First law of motion B) Newton's Second law of motion C) Newton's Third law of motion D) the Hannum-Barnum law E) Kepler's laws of motion Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.01 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Inertia; Newton's Laws of Motion

12) A parachutist jumps out of an airplane and opens her parachute. She then floats downward at a constant rate. Why is she not accelerating?

A) The parachute provides an upward force to balance gravity, so the net force is zero.

B) She is accelerating, but gravity's pull is weak at high altitudes.

C) As she falls, she is weightless and therefore cannot accelerate.

D) The parachute has very little mass, so its inertia is negligible.

E) The parachutist exerts a gravitational pull on Earth that is equal to its pull on her.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.01 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Inertia; Newton's Laws of Motion 13) What is Newton's First law of motion?

A) A body continues in a state of rest or uniform motion in a straight line unless made to change that state by forces acting on it.

B) Force equals mass times acceleration, F=ma.

C) Every mass exerts a force on any other mass that is proportional to the product of the masses divided by the square of the distance between them.

D) When two bodies interact, they create equal and opposite forces on each other.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.01 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Inertia; Newton's Laws of Motion

14) How can we tell that the Moon is held in orbit around Earth by a force?

A) The Moon follows a curved path as it orbits.

B) The Moon's gravity creates tides in Earth's oceans.

C) The Moon is always at the same distance from Earth.

D) One side of the Moon is always facing Earth.

E) Earth's gravitational force pulls inward on the Moon.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.01 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Inertia; Newton's Laws of Motion 15) If you see a body in space that is not moving in a straight line at constant speed, what can you say about it?

A) It must be an artificial satellite.

B) There must be a net force acting on it.

C) It is not subject to any outside forces.

D) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.01 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Newton's Laws of Motion 16) When an astronaut experiences weightlessness in space, their mass is A) zero.

B) the same as on Earth.

C) double than on Earth.

D) becoming lesser and lesser as s/he is going higher.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.02 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Newton's Laws of Motion; Universal Law of Gravity

17) After tying a string to a rock, you twirl the rock around above your head. If the string were to break, what path would the rock follow?

A) The rock will fall down immediately.

B) The rock will complete the circle before falling down.

C) The rock will go in a straight line before falling down.

D) The rock will fly upward.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.02 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Inertia 18) The reason Earth's moon does not fall into Earth is because it orbits beyond Earth's gravitational pull.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.02 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Newton's Laws of Motion; Universal Law of Gravity 19) An astronaut in orbit around Earth drops her pen, and it floats gently next to her hand. Why does it not fall to the floor?

A) There is no gravity in space.

B) The gravitational pull is very weak at typical altitudes for orbiting spacecraft.

C) Objects in orbit have no mass.

D) All objects in the spacecraft are falling toward Earth at the same rate.

E) The net force on the pen is zero.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.02 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Newton's Laws of Motion

20) In your office, you have a rolling chair and a rolling filing cabinet. The chair weighs 10 pounds, and the filing cabinet weighs 50 pounds (it's partly full). If you push both of them away with about the same strength A) the chair will accelerate about 25 times as much as the cabinet.

B) the cabinet will accelerate about 25 times as much as the chair.

C) the chair will accelerate about 5 times as much as the cabinet.

D) the cabinet will accelerate about 5 times as much as the chair.

E) both will accelerate about the same.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.03 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Newton's Laws of Motion; Mass and Acceleration 21) If the net force acting on an object doubles, then the A) mass B) acceleration C) speed D) velocity Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.03 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Newton's Laws of Motion; Mass and Acceleration

doubles as well.

22) Which of the following objects (A–D) are accelerating? A) an object at rest, B) an object in motion in a straight line at a constant speed, C) an object in motion in a straight line with increasing speed, D) an object moving in a circle at constant speed.

A) an object at rest only B) all but an object at rest C) an object in motion in a straight line with increasing speed only D) an object in motion in a straight line with increasing speed and an object moving in a circle at constant speed.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.03 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Newton's Laws of Motion; Mass and Acceleration 23) An ion engine provides a small but constant force on a spacecraft as it moves from Earth to Pluto. Compare the speed of the spacecraft near the beginning of its journey with its speed as itflies past Pluto.

A) The spacecraft's speed at Pluto is the same as its speed near Earth.

B) The spacecraft's speed at Pluto is slower than its speed near Earth.

C) The spacecraft's speed at Pluto is faster than its speed near Earth.

D) The relative speed cannot be determined with the information given.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.03 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Newton's Laws of Motion; Mass and Acceleration

24) An ion engine provides a small but constant force on a spacecraft as it moves from Earth to Pluto. Compare the acceleration of the spacecraft near the beginning of its journey with its acceleration as it flies past Pluto.

A) The spacecraft's acceleration at Pluto is the same as its acceleration near Earth.

B) The spacecraft's acceleration at Pluto is slower than its acceleration near Earth.

C) The spacecraft's acceleration at Pluto is faster than its acceleration near Earth.

D) The relative acceleration cannot be determined with the information given.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.03 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Newton's Laws of Motion; Mass and Acceleration 25) What is Newton's Second law of motion?

A) A body continues in a state of rest or uniform motion in a straight line unless made to change that state by forces acting on it.

B) Every mass exerts a force on any other mass that is proportional to the product of the masses divided by the square of the distance between them.

C) Force equals mass times acceleration, F = ma.

D) When two bodies interact, they create equal and opposite forces on each other.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.03 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Newton's Laws of Motion; Mass and Acceleration 26) A 200-kg spacecraft is launched to the Moon. While in orbit around the Moon, its weight is .

A) zero B) 200 kg C) about 1/6 its weight on Earth D) The answer depends on how close to the Moon the ship is orbiting.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.03 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Newton's Laws of Motion; Mass and Acceleration; Surface Gravity and Weight

27) A 200-kg spacecraft is launched to the Moon. While in orbit around the Moon, its mass is .

A) zero B) 200 kg C) about 1/6 its mass on Earth D) The answer depends on how close to the Moon the ship is orbiting.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.03 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Newton's Laws of Motion; Mass and Acceleration; Surface Gravity and Weight 28) A 200-kg spacecraft is launched to the Moon. After it has landed on the Moon, its weight is .

A) zero B) 200 kg C) about 1/6 its weight on Earth D) The answer depends on which side of the Moon the spacecraft landed on.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.03 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Newton's Laws of Motion; Mass and Acceleration; Surface Gravity and Weight 29) A 200-kg spacecraft is launched to the Moon. After it has landed on the Moon, its mass is .

A) zero B) 200 kg C) about 1/6 its mass on Earth D) The answer depends on which side of the Moon the spacecraft landed on.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.03 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Newton's Laws of Motion; Mass and Acceleration; Surface Gravity and Weight

30) A weather satellite moves at a constant orbital speed around Earth. Is this satellite accelerating?

A) yes, the satellite is accelerating — its speed is constant but its direction is changing.

B) yes, the satellite is accelerating — the force of gravity is pulling it toward the ground.

C) yes, the satellite is accelerating — it is in freefall toward the ground.

D) Yes, the satellite is accelerating — its speed is constant but its direction is changing and yes, the satellite is accelerating — it is in freefall toward the ground.

E) Yes, the satellite is accelerating — its speed is constant but its direction is changing; yes, the satellite is accelerating — the force of gravity is pulling it toward the ground; and yes, the satellite is accelerating — it is in freefall toward the ground, are correct.

Answer: E Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.03 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Newton's Laws of Motion; Mass and Acceleration 31) The recoil experienced when firing a shotgun is a consequence of A) Newton's First B) Kepler's Third C) Newton's Third D) Kepler's First Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.04 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Newton's Laws of Motion

law.

32) The force that pulls an upward going ball back to Earth and keeps the Moon in its orbit is called .

A) inertia B) gravity C) pressure D) escape speed Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.04 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Newton's Laws of Motion; Universal Law of Gravity 33) If you double the distance between two bodies, the force of gravity between them would A) double.

B) become four times as strong.

C) decrease by one half.

D) decrease by one fourth.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.04 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Universal Law of Gravity 34) The Moon is gravitationally attracted to Earth. Is Earth gravitationally attracted to the Moon?

A) Yes, but the force of attraction is less.

B) Yes, and the force of attraction is the same.

C) Yes, but the force of attraction is greater.

D) No, the Moon has no gravity.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.04 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Newton's Laws of Motion; Universal Law of Gravity

35) Which of the following objects is obeying Newton's laws of motion?

A) a sleeping cat B) a satellite orbiting Earth C) a runner racing around a track D) a skydiver falling under the force of gravity E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: E Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.04 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Newton's Laws of Motion 36) Consider an apple falling from a tree. Which of the following applies to this situation?

A) The apple is attracting Earth.

B) Earth is attracting the apple.

C) Earth is attracting the apple; the apple is not attracting Earth.

D) The apple is attracting Earth and Earth is attracting the apple.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.04 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Newton's Laws of Motion 37) Newton's laws of motion apply only to objects experiencing the force of gravity. They do not apply to objects experiencing a magnetic force.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.04 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Newton's Laws of Motion

38) By Newton's Third law, Earth's pull on the Moon is equal to the Moon's pull on Earth.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.04 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Newton's Laws of Motion; Universal Law of Gravity 39) The gravitational force exerted by the Sun on Earth is exerted by Earth on the Sun. A) greater than B) less than C) equal to D) unrelated to

the gravitational force

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.04 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Newton's Laws of Motion; Universal Law of Gravity 40) What is Newton's Third law of motion?

A) When two bodies interact, they create equal and opposite forces on each other.

B) Force equals mass times acceleration, F = ma.

C) Every mass exerts a force on any other mass that is proportional to the product of the masses divided by the square of the distance between them.

D) A body continues in a state of rest or uniform motion in a straight line unless made to change that state by forces acting on it.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.04 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Newton's Laws of Motion

41) A diver in midair is pulled toward the pool below by the force of gravity from Earth. Earth experiences an upward force from the diver that _ .

A) is equal to the force on the diver by Earth B) is less than the force on the diver by Earth C) is greater than the force on the diver by Earth D) There is no upward force by the diver on Earth.

E) There is insufficient information to determine the gravitational pull on Earth by the diver.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.04 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Newton's Laws of Motion 42) A bowling ball exerts a force on the pins when it strikes them, knocking them down. The force of the pins on the ball is .

A) less than the force of the ball on the pins B) the same as the force of the ball on the pins C) larger than the force of the ball on the pins D) either less or more, depending on how hard the ball is thrown E) A system of ten bowling pins is too complicated to know the force on the ball.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.04 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Newton's Laws of Motion 43) A delivery truck and a car collide. Which vehicle experiences the greater force?

A) the truck B) the car C) Both the car and the truck experience the same force.

D) We need to know the speed of the truck and the car to find the answer.

E) We need to know the mass of the truck and the car to find the answer.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.04 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Newton's Laws of Motion

44) A delivery truck and a car collide. Which vehicle experiences the greater acceleration?

A) the truck B) the car C) Both the car and the truck experience the same acceleration.

D) We need to know the speed of the truck and the car to find the answer.

E) We need to know the mass of the truck and the car to find the answer.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.04 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Newton's Laws of Motion 45) A rocket in space fires its engines continuously until it runs out of fuel. Describe the motion of the rocket.

A) The rocket's speed increases until its engines stop firing, and then coasts in a straight line.

B) The rocket's speed is a constant value until the engines stop firing, and then coasts to a stop.

C) The rocket's speed increases until its engines stop firing, and then coasts to a stop.

D) The rocket's speed does not change, and it continues to move in a straight line.

E) The rocket does not move, as the engines have nothing to push against.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.04 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Newton's Laws of Motion 46) At which place on the Earth will you weigh less?

A) at the equator B) at the North Pole C) at the South Pole D) You weigh the same at all of these places.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.05 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Universal Law of Gravity; Surface Gravity and Weight

47) If you are lucky enough to get a chance to visit different planets of our Solar System, which of the following statements will be true?

A) Your weight will change, but your mass will remain the same.

B) Your mass will change, but your weight will remain the same.

C) Both your weight and mass will remain the same.

D) Both your weight and mass will change.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.05 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Universal Law of Gravity; Surface Gravity and Weight 48) Which of the following objects is experiencing Earth's gravitational force?

A) a boat floating in water B) an airplane taking-off C) a skydiver falling under the force of gravity D) All of these choices are correct.

E) Only an airplane taking-off and a skydiver falling under the force of gravity above.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.05 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Newton's Laws of Motion; Universal Law of Gravity 49) Suppose that the Sun started shrinking in size, without losing any mass. What would be the effect of the Sun's change on the orbits of the planets?

A) The orbits would become smaller in size.

B) The orbits would become larger.

C) The orbits would not be affected.

D) The planets would escape.

Answer: C Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 03.05 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Universal Law of Gravity

50) If the distance between two objects doubles, the gravitational attraction between them becomes half.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.05 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Universal Law of Gravity 51) How can we mathematically express Newton's law of gravity? (In the following, F is the force of Gravity, G is a constant; m and M are the masses or two bodies (such as Earth and the Sun); and r is the distance between the centers of mass of the two bodies.)

A) F = GMm/r B) F = GMm/r2 C) F = GMm/r3 D) F = Gm2M/r2 Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.05 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Universal Law of Gravity 52) If the distance between two masses is tripled, the gravitational force between them is A) increased by a factor of 3.

B) increased by a factor of 9.

C) decreased by a factor of 3.

D) decreased by a factor of 9.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.05 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Newton's Laws of Motion; Universal Law of Gravity

53) If an object's mass (M) is doubled, the gravitational force between it and other objects will be A) increased by a factor of 2.

B) increased by a factor of 4.

C) decreased by a factor of 2.

D) decreased by a factor of 4.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.05 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Newton's Laws of Motion; Universal Law of Gravity 54) A satellite is moved from a low orbit to one that is twice as far from Earth. The force of gravity is .

A) unchanged B) decreased by a factor of 2 C) decreased by a factor of 4 D) increased by a factor of 2 E) There is no gravity in space.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.05 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Universal Law of Gravity 55) A satellite is moved from a low orbit to one that is twice as far from Earth. Its weight at its new orbit is .

A) unchanged B) decreased by a factor of 2 C) decreased by a factor of 4 D) increased by a factor of 2 E) There is no gravity in space.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.05 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Mass and Acceleration; Universal Law of Gravity; Surface Gravity and Weight

56) A satellite is moved from a low orbit to one that is twice as far from Earth. Its mass at its new orbit is .

A) unchanged B) decreased by a factor of 2 C) decreased by a factor of 4 D) increased by a factor of 2 E) There is no gravity in space.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.05 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Mass and Acceleration; Universal Law of Gravity; Surface Gravity and Weight 57) Why does something weigh less on the Moon than on Earth?

A) The farther something is from Earth, the lower its weight.

B) The Moon's lower mass creates a lower force of gravity at its surface.

C) The object's weight is the same on the Moon as it is on Earth.

D) Earth's gravity pulls in the opposite direction as the Moon's, so the net force is reduced.

E) The Moon has no atmosphere to apply a downward force on surface objects.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.05 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Universal Law of Gravity; Surface Gravity and Weight

58) If the force of gravity exerted on the Sun by Earth is the same as the force exerted by Earth on the Sun, why does Earth orbit the Sun, and not the other way around?

A) Earth is less massive, and is accelerated more by the gravitational force and moves faster.

B) Planets, by definition, orbit the Sun, and not the other way around.

C) They each orbit around the geometric center of the system.

D) The combined gravitational forces of all the planets keeps the Sun at the center of the Solar System.

E) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.05 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Mass and Acceleration; Universal Law of Gravity; Surface Gravity and Weight 59) What is the average orbital speed of Earth around the Sun? (Note: r = 1.5 × 1011 m and P = 3.16 × 107 s.)

A) about 30 km/s B) about 4.7 km/s C) about 9.8 m/s2 D) 365 days E) 1,000 km/s Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.06 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Universal Law of Gravity

60) Newton's modification of Kepler's Third law allows astronomers to determine the of celestial objects.

A) mass B) period C) distance D) acceleration Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.06 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Universal Law of Gravity 61) Mars completes one orbit around the Sun in approximately two Earth years. Mars orbits at an average distance to the Sun of about 1.5 AU, and Mars' mass is about 1/10 of Earth's mass.

Therefore, Mars' orbital speed is the orbital speed of Earth.

A) about 0.8 times B) 1.5 times larger than C) about 1/10 of D) about 3 times Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.06 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Universal Law of Gravity 62) Astronomers can determine the mass of the Sun by applying Newton's modification of Kepler's Third law.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.06 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Universal Law of Gravity

63) Larger planets (higher mass) in the solar system have higher orbital speeds because they are attracted more strongly by the Sun. Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.06 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Universal Law of Gravity 64) Mars completes one orbit around the Sun in approximately two Earth years. Mars' average distance to the Sun is about 1.5 AU. Therefore, Mars' orbital speed is lower than Earth's orbital speed.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.06 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Universal Law of Gravity 65) It is possible to use Newton's modification to Kepler's Third law to determine the mass of Jupiter's moon, Io. Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.06 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Universal Law of Gravity 66) If it were possible to move Earth so that its new orbit was twice as large as it is now, then the length of a year (in terms of the number of days) would also double.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.06 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Universal Law of Gravity

67) If the Moon is suddenly and inexplicably moved to four times its current distance from Earth, its orbital speed _ .

A) increases by a factor of 2 B) increases by a factor of 4 C) decreases by a factor of 2 D) decreases by a factor of 4 E) is unchanged due to its low mass Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.06 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Mass and Acceleration; Universal Law of Gravity 68) A planet is discovered at a distance of 1 AU from its parent star with a period of 1 year. How does the star's mass compare to our Sun's?

A) The star has the same mass as the Sun. B) The star's mass is around 2 times smaller than the Sun's.

C) The star's mass is around 2 times larger than the Sun's.

D) The star's mass is around 4 times smaller than the Sun's.

E) The star's mass is around 4 times larger than the Sun's.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.06 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Mass and Acceleration; Universal Law of Gravity

69) A planet is discovered at a distance of 1 AU from its parent star with a period of 2 years.

How does the star's mass compare to our Sun's?

A) The star has the same mass as the Sun. B) The star's mass is around 2 times smaller than the Sun's.

C) The star's mass is around 2 times larger than the Sun's.

D) The star's mass is around 4 times smaller than the Sun's.

E) The star's mass is around 4 times larger than the Sun's.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.06 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Mass and Acceleration; Universal Law of Gravity 70) Earth's radius at the equator is larger than that at the poles. Where is Earth's surface gravity more?

A) at the equator B) at the North and South Poles C) at the top of Mount Everest D) It is the same everywhere.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.07 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Surface Gravity and Weight 71) If a newly discovered planet has four times the mass of Earth, but it still has the same surface gravity as Earth, how big must this new planet be?

A) four times as large as Earth B) twice as large as Earth C) the same size as Earth D) half the size of Earth E) one fourth of the size of Earth Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.07 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Universal Law of Gravity; Surface Gravity and Weight

72) The acceleration of gravity on Earth's surface is 9.8 m/s2. What is the acceleration of gravity at a height of 6,400 km above Earth's surface? (Hint: recall the 1/r2 dependence and note that Earth's radius is 6,400 km.)

A) 4.9 m/s2 B) 2.45 m/s2 C) 19.6 m/s2 D) 9.8 m/s2 Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.07 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Universal Law of Gravity; Surface Gravity and Weight 73) What does surface gravity measure?

A) the tendency of a planet's surface to collapse under gravity B) how fast an object needs to go to escape a planet's gravity C) the attraction between the surfaces of two massive objects D) the gravitational acceleration at a planet's or star's surface Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.07 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Surface Gravity and Weight 74) Why does a golf ball hit on the Moon travel farther than one hit on Earth? (Neglect air resistance and bad golfers.)

A) The surface gravity is lower on the Moon, so the acceleration of gravity is lower.

B) The mass of the ball is lower on the Moon, so it is accelerated more easily there.

C) The surface gravity is lower on the Moon, so the golf club can be accelerated more easily there.

D) The Moon is physically smaller than Earth, so the golf ball only looks like it travels farther.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.07 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Mass and Acceleration; Surface Gravity and Weight

75) How are mass and weight different?

A) There is no difference; they are the same.

B) Weight is a measure of how much gravity pulls an object; mass is how much matter the object has.

C) Mass is the amount of matter an object contains; weight is how much mass an object contains.

D) Weight is the amount of matter an object contains; mass is the type of matter an object is made of.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.07 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Surface Gravity and Weight 76) If your mass is 60 kilograms on Earth, what is it on the Moon?

A) 0 kilograms, because the Moon has no gravity B) 60 kilograms, because mass does not depend on gravity C) 120 kilograms, because the Moon's gravity is greater than Earth's D) 360 kilograms, because the Moon is a spherical object Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.07 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Surface Gravity and Weight 77) The surface gravity of Jupiter is only 2.5 times larger than Earth's, despite the fact that Jupiter's mass is more than 300 times that of Earth. How can this be?

A) The radius of Jupiter is much larger than Earth's, so a point in the cloud tops of Jupiter is farther from its center.

B) The radius of Earth is 300 times smaller than the radius of Jupiter.

C) Jupiter is mostly hydrogen and helium, while Earth is mostly iron and rock.

D) Jupiter has no surface, so it does not have a surface gravity.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.07 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Surface Gravity and Weight

78) If a barbell weighs 10 pounds on the Moon, what would it weigh on Earth?

A) 1.67 pounds. Surface gravity on the Moon is 1/6 that on Earth.

B) 10 pounds. Gravity is the same on Earth and the Moon.

C) 30 pounds. Surface gravity on Earth is 3 times that on the Moon.

D) 60 pounds. Surface gravity on Earth is 6 times that on the Moon.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.07 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Surface Gravity and Weight 79) An astronaut on the Moon drops a feather and a hammer at the same time. Which hits the ground first?

A) The hammer hits first due to its larger mass.

B) The feather hits first due to the decreased weight of the hammer.

C) The feather hits first since there is no air resistance on the Moon.

D) The feather and the hammer hit the ground at the same time.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.07 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Surface Gravity and Weight 80) The speed an object needs to move away from the gravitational pull of Earth is called A) orbital velocity.

B) escape velocity.

C) rotational velocity.

D) random velocity.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.08 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Escape Velocity

81) Suppose that a planet was discovered that has twice the mass and twice the diameter of Earth. What would be the escape velocity for this planet? (Assume that for Earth the escape velocity is 11 km/s.)

A) 22 km/s B) 11 km/s C) 15.6 km/s D) 7.8 km/s Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.08 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Escape Velocity 82) What does escape velocity measure?

A) the gravitational attraction at a planet's surface B) how fast an object needs to go to escape a planet's gravity C) how far away an object needs to be to escape a planet's gravity D) how fast an object needs to go to escape hostile space aliens Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 03.08 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Escape Velocity 83) The escape velocity from the Moon is 2.4 km/s. If an astronaut hits a golf ball such that it just reaches this speed, the ball will .

A) continue moving away from the Moon, never to return B) follow a very elliptical orbit around the Moon C) move away from the Moon, but return some time later D) either orbit the Moon or escape its gravitational pull, depending on the direction the ball is hit Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 03.08 Topic: Gravity and Motion Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Escape Velocity

Explorations: Introduction to Astronomy 9th Edition Thomas Arny Chapter 4 Light and Atoms 1) In materials like glass or water, the speed of light is A) reduced B) increased C) the same as in a vacuum D) sometimes reduced and sometimes increased Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.01 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Properties of light 2) A(n) A) proton B) photon C) electron D) neutron

is a particle of light.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.01 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Properties of light 3) If a photon's frequency increases, its wavelength A) will decrease.

B) will increase.

C) will not change.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.01 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Properties of light

.

4) The lower the frequency of the electromagnetic wave, the shorter its wavelength.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.01 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Properties of light 5) What is light?

A) Light is radiant energy in the form of a stream of energy particles, called photons.

B) Light is radiant energy in the form of a wave of electromagnetic energy.

C) Light is radiant energy that can be mathematically treated as a wave or particle of energy.

D) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.01 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Properties of light 6) Which of the following colors travels most quickly through glass or plastic?

A) blue B) orange C) yellow D) red E) green Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.01 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Properties of light

7) How is light different from sound?

A) Light can be reflected from a surface; sound cannot.

B) Sound requires a medium to move through; light does not.

C) Light can be treated as a wave; sound cannot.

D) Sound of any frequency can be heard; only visible light can be seen.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.01 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Properties of light 8) Assuming that light could curve around Earth, about how long would it take for one trip?

A) 1/7 second B) 1 second C) 7 seconds D) 7 minutes Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.01 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Properties of light 9) Is light a wave or a particle?

A) a wave B) a particle C) both a wave and a particle at the same time D) neither a wave nor a particle E) Sometimes it is a wave, other times it is a particle.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.01 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Properties of light

10) In the wave model, light is .

A) a mix of electric and magnetic energy B) a compression wave moving through the air C) a packet of energy moving through space D) the absence of dark E) a ripple in space-time Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.01 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Properties of light 11) In the particle model, light is .

A) a mix of electric and magnetic energy B) a compression wave moving through the air C) a packet of energy moving through space D) the absence of dark E) a ripple in space-time Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.01 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Properties of light 12) For which of these scenarios is the particle model of light more convenient to use?

A) reflection of light from a mirror B) refraction of light through a lens C) diffraction of light through a slit D) the Doppler shift of light E) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.01 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Properties of light

13) For which of these scenarios is the wave model of light more convenient to use?

A) diffraction of light through a slit B) refraction of light through a lens C) receiving radio transmissions D) the Doppler shift of light E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.01 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Properties of light 14) The visible spectrum is .

A) the range of wavelengths of light that human eyes can detect B) the spectrum emitted by the Sun C) a series of dark lines corresponding to electron transitions D) a series of bright lines corresponding to electron transitions E) the range of wavelengths visible to humans and animals on Earth Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.01 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Properties of light 15) The wavelength of a wave describes _.

A) the distance between two successive peaks in a wave B) the distance between a peak and the nearest trough C) the distance a wave can travel before being absorbed D) the distance from one end of a laser beam to the other E) the distance a wave will travel after being emitted Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.01 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Properties of light

16) Which of the following colors has the shortest wavelength?

A) red B) yellow C) green D) blue E) violet Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.01 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Properties of light 17) Visible light coming from the Sun is a combination of all colors called A) white B) yellow C) ultraviolet D) spectral E) visible Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.01 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Properties of light 18) The mixing of light of all visible colors results in A) white B) brown C) Sun D) spectral E) visible Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.01 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Properties of light

light.

light.

19) The mixing of paints of all colors results in A) white B) brown C) black D) yellow-white E) rainbow

-colored paint.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.01 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Properties of light 20) What is the relationship between wavelength (λ) and frequency (f)? ("c" is the speed of light.)

A) λf = c B) λ/f = c C) f/λ = c D) λc = f Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.01 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Properties of light 21) The frequency of a wave describes .

A) the number of wave crests that pass a given point in 1 second B) the speed at which a wave crest passes a given point C) the distance between two successive peaks in a wave D) the time it takes for two crests to pass a given point Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.01 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Properties of light

22) If the frequency of a given wave is decreased by a factor of four, how will its wavelength change?

A) The wavelength will decrease by a factor of four.

B) The wavelength will increase by a factor of four.

C) The wavelength will remain unchanged.

D) The change in wavelength is determined by the medium through which the wave is traveling.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.01 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Properties of light 23) What is the approximate wavelength of red light?

A) 5 m B) 7 cm C) 400 nm D) 700 nm Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.01 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Electromagnetic spectrum 24) range in wavelength from millimeters to hundreds of meters.

A) X-rays B) Gamma rays C) Ultraviolet waves D) Visible light waves E) Radio waves Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.02 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Electromagnetic spectrum

25) Which of the following statements is true?

A) X-rays have higher energy, hence they move faster than visible light.

B) X-rays have higher energy, but still they move slower than visible light.

C) Even though X-rays have higher energy, they move with the same speed as that of visible light.

D) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.02 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Properties of light; Electromagnetic spectrum 26) Which kind of electromagnetic radiation has a wavelength that is about the size of a person?

A) X-ray B) ultraviolet C) visible D) infrared E) radio Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.02 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Electromagnetic spectrum 27) Adam's toy gun emits blue light, Sue's emits red light, Bonnie's emits infrared light, and James's emits ultraviolet light. Which gun produces the most energetic light?

A) Adam B) Sue C) Bonnie D) James E) All of the toy guns have the same energy.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.02 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Electromagnetic spectrum

28) Which of the following correctly lists the various parts of the electromagnetic spectrum in the correct order from lowest to highest energy.

A) gamma rays, infrared, ultraviolet, radio waves, visible B) radio waves, infrared, visible, ultraviolet, gamma rays C) infrared, ultraviolet, radio waves, gamma rays, visible D) radio waves, ultraviolet, visible, infrared, gamma rays E) gamma rays, ultraviolet, visible, infrared, radio waves Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.02 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Electromagnetic spectrum 29) A photon of blue light has A) more energy than B) the same energy as C) less energy than

a photon of red light.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.02 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Properties of light; Electromagnetic spectrum 30) A night vision camera A) is just much more sensitive to visible light than your eyes.

B) uses a detector sensitive to infrared light, so you can see objects that are warmer than their surroundings.

C) can only detect green photons, which reflect well in the dark, but which our eyes have trouble seeing.

D) uses a detector sensitive to X-ray light, so you can see through the dark.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.02 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Electromagnetic spectrum

31) In space, X-rays travel faster than radio waves.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.02 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Properties of light; Electromagnetic spectrum 32) Electromagnetic waves of all wavelengths are collectively known as A) the electromagnetic spectrum B) the visible spectrum C) white light D) a continuous spectrum E) blackbody radiation

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.02 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Electromagnetic spectrum 33) Compared to the entire electromagnetic spectrum, visible light is A) a small fraction of the possible wavelengths of light B) the most energetic C) the least energetic D) the fastest moving E) the most valuable to astronomers Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.02 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Electromagnetic spectrum

.

34) A very energetic event like a supernova would emit mostly A) X-ray B) visible C) infrared D) radio E) white

light.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.02 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Electromagnetic spectrum 35) Of the following objects, which will emit mostly infrared light?

A) a cup of hot coffee B) an LED (Light-Emitting Diode) C) a star like our Sun D) a red laser beam Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.02 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Electromagnetic spectrum 36) The warmth you feel when you put your hand in a sunbeam is due to which part of the electromagnetic spectrum?

A) radio waves B) infrared light waves C) ultraviolet waves D) X-ray E) gamma ray Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.02 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Electromagnetic spectrum

37) Ultraviolet light has wavelengths that are A) longer than B) shorter than C) faster than D) slower than E) the same energy as

visible wavelengths.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.02 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Electromagnetic spectrum 38) The energy of an ultraviolet photon is A) higher than B) lower than C) longer than D) shorter than E) faster than

a photon in the visible part of the spectrum.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.02 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Electromagnetic spectrum 39) The energy of a radio photon is A) higher than B) lower than C) longer than D) shorter than E) faster than Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.02 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Electromagnetic spectrum

a photon in the visible part of the spectrum.

40) Radio waves have wavelengths that are A) longer than B) shorter than C) faster than D) slower than E) the same energy as

visible wavelengths.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.02 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Electromagnetic spectrum 41) The electromagnetic waves with the highest energy are A) gamma rays B) X-rays C) ultraviolet light D) visible light E) microwaves Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.02 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Electromagnetic spectrum 42) A significant source of gamma rays is A) electrons moving in Jupiter's electric field B) a supernova explosion C) the collision of two black holes D) a thermonuclear explosion E) halogen lamps Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.02 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Electromagnetic spectrum

.

.

43) List these electromagnetic radiations from short to long wavelengths.

A) gamma rays, X-rays, ultraviolet, visible light, infrared, radio waves B) radio waves, infrared, visible light, ultraviolet, X-rays, gamma rays C) gamma rays, X-rays, infrared, visible light, ultraviolet, radio waves D) radio waves, ultraviolet, visible light, infrared, X-rays, gamma rays Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.02 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Electromagnetic spectrum 44) List these electromagnetic radiations from lowest to highest energy.

A) gamma rays, X-rays, ultraviolet, visible light, infrared, radio waves B) radio waves, infrared, visible light, ultraviolet, X-rays, gamma rays C) gamma rays, X-rays, infrared, visible light, ultraviolet, radio waves D) radio waves, ultraviolet, visible light, infrared, X-rays, gamma rays Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.02 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Electromagnetic spectrum 45) As the wavelength of light increases, its energy A) increases B) decreases C) remains constant D) moves more quickly E) moves more slowly Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.02 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Electromagnetic spectrum

.

46) As the frequency of light increases, its energy A) increases B) decreases C) remains constant D) moves more quickly E) moves more slowly

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.02 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Electromagnetic spectrum 47) Which part of the electromagnetic spectrum would we use to study the relatively cool dust of interstellar space?

A) radio waves B) infrared light C) visible light D) ultraviolet light E) gamma rays Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.02 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Electromagnetic spectrum 48) Star A is blue, Star B is yellow, and Star C is red. Which one of these is the hottest star?

A) star A B) star B C) star C D) From color, temperature cannot be predicted.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.03 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Electromagnetic spectrum; The Kelvin temperature scale; Temperature and radiation

49) Which of the following emits a spectrum very close to a blackbody spectrum?

A) a neon light B) an interstellar cloud C) the Sun Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.03 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Electromagnetic spectrum; Temperature and radiation 50) Which one of the following is an example of a blackbody that you see in everyday life?

A) a neon light B) a stove burner C) a fluorescent light D) a laser pointer Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.03 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Electromagnetic spectrum; Temperature and radiation 51) An atom consists of A) electrons in a nucleus orbited by protons.

B) negatively charged protons in a nucleus orbited by positively charged electrons.

C) positively charged protons in a nucleus orbited by negatively charged neutrons.

D) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.03 Topic: Light and Atoms; Language of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy; Elementary particles (quarks, atoms, protons, neutrons, electrons)

52) Wien's law allows astronomers to measure what property of a star?

A) the surface temperature of the star B) the chemical composition of the star C) the distance to the star D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.03 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Electromagnetic spectrum; The Kelvin temperature scale; Temperature and radiation 53) As a solid is heated (from a low to a high temperature) the radiated light will move through what sequence of colors?

A) red, yellow, blue B) blue, yellow, red C) yellow, red, blue D) blue, red, yellow E) It depends on what solid is being heated.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.03 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Electromagnetic spectrum; The Kelvin temperature scale; Temperature and radiation 54) attraction holds the electron in orbit around the nucleus of the hydrogen atom.

A) Gravitational B) Electrical C) Centrifugal D) Nuclear Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.03 Topic: Language of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Elementary particles (quarks, atoms, protons, neutrons, electrons)

55) In the Orion constellation are stars Rigel, a blue supergiant, and Betelgeuse, a red supergiant.

Which star has a greater surface temperature?

A) Rigel B) Betelgeuse C) They have the same surface temperature.

D) There is not enough information to tell.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.03 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Electromagnetic spectrum; The Kelvin temperature scale; Temperature and radiation 56) A temperature of 0 Kelvin means there is essentially no motion at the atomic level.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.03 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Electromagnetic spectrum; The Kelvin temperature scale; Temperature and radiation 57) A piece of iron heated to 200 degrees Celsius has twice as much internal energy as a piece of iron at 100 degrees Celsius.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.03 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Electromagnetic spectrum; The Kelvin temperature scale; Temperature and radiation 58) A continuous blackbody spectrum provides information about the surface temperature of the object.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.03 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Electromagnetic spectrum; The Kelvin temperature scale; Temperature and radiation

59) Scientist use the term "blackbody" to indicate a surface that will not emit any color of visible light.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.03 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Electromagnetic spectrum; The Kelvin temperature scale; Temperature and radiation 60) According to Wien's law, the dominant wavelength in the continuous emission spectrum of a red apple is 700 nm. (Hint: use Wien's law.)

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.03 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Electromagnetic spectrum; The Kelvin temperature scale; Temperature and radiation 61) Cooler stars (about 3000 K) emit most of their radiation at wavelengths shorter than 600 nm.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.03 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Electromagnetic spectrum; The Kelvin temperature scale; Temperature and radiation 62) The color of a yellow banana is a result of blackbody emission.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.03 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Electromagnetic spectrum; The Kelvin temperature scale; Temperature and radiation

63) Negatively charged particles in an atom are called A) protons B) neutrons C) electrons D) positrons E) neutrinos

.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.03 Topic: Light and Atoms; Language of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy; Elementary particles (quarks, atoms, protons, neutrons, electrons) 64) Positively charged particles in an atom are called A) protons B) neutrons C) electrons D) positrons E) neutrinos

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.03 Topic: Light and Atoms; Language of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy; Elementary particles (quarks, atoms, protons, neutrons, electrons) 65) Uncharged particles in an atom are called A) protons B) neutrons C) electrons D) positrons E) neutrinos

.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.03 Topic: Light and Atoms; Language of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy; Elementary particles (quarks, atoms, protons, neutrons, electrons)

66) are found in the nucleus of atoms.

A) Protons B) Electrons C) Mitochondria D) Neutrinos E) Positrons Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.03 Topic: Light and Atoms; Language of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy; Elementary particles (quarks, atoms, protons, neutrons, electrons) 67) On the Kelvin temperature scale, a body's temperature is directly related to its A) internal energy content B) kinetic energy due to its motion through space C) mass D) kinetic energy due to rotation E) None of these choices are correct.

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.03 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Electromagnetic spectrum; The Kelvin temperature scale; Temperature and radiation 68) Zero Kelvin is also known as A) absolute zero B) the freezing point of water C) thermal equilibrium D) an ideal blackbody E) the boiling point of water

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.03 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Electromagnetic spectrum; The Kelvin temperature scale; Temperature and radiation

69) According to Wien's law, a hotter object will A) appear darker than B) radiate the same intensity of wavelengths as C) radiate more strongly at shorter wavelengths than D) appear the same color as

a cooler object.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.03 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Electromagnetic spectrum; The Kelvin temperature scale; Temperature and radiation 70) The maximum temperature on the Kelvin scale is called A) absolute zero B) absolute energy C) the vapor point D) gamma temperature E) There is no maximum temperature on the Kelvin scale.

.

Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.03 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Electromagnetic spectrum; The Kelvin temperature scale; Temperature and radiation 71) As a body cools, its decreases.

A) internal energy B) total emitted energy C) brightness D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.03 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Electromagnetic spectrum; The Kelvin temperature scale; Temperature and radiation

72) Object A emits most strongly at 400 nm, while object B emits most strongly at 800 nm. What can we say about their relative temperatures?

A) A's temperature is twice as high as B's.

B) B's temperature is twice as high as A's.

C) A's temperature is the same as B's.

D) Nothing. Temperature is related to brightness, not emitted wavelength.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.03 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Electromagnetic spectrum; The Kelvin temperature scale; Temperature and radiation 73) The electrons are quantized in an atom. That means A) the electrons are in bulk.

B) the electrons can stay only in specific orbits.

C) the quantity of electrons keeps changing.

D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.04 Topic: Light and Atoms; Language of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy; Elementary particles (quarks, atoms, protons, neutrons, electrons) 74) occurs when an electron in an atom jumps from a lower energy orbital to a higher energy orbital.

A) Ionization B) Acceleration C) Excitation D) Relaxation Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.04 Topic: Light and Atoms; Language of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy; Elementary particles (quarks, atoms, protons, neutrons, electrons)

75) What determines the identity of a chemical element?

A) the number of protons in the nucleus B) the number of electrons orbiting the nucleus C) the number of neutrons in the nucleus D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.04 Topic: Light and Atoms; Language of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy; Elementary particles (quarks, atoms, protons, neutrons, electrons) 76) What happens when an electron in an atom absorbs a photon?

A) The electron moves to a higher energy level.

B) The electron moves to a lower energy level.

C) The electron moves to the nucleus.

D) The electron turns into a proton.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.04 Topic: Light and Atoms; Language of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy; Elementary particles (quarks, atoms, protons, neutrons, electrons) 77) The helium atom has A) two electrons B) one proton C) two protons D) two protons and two electrons

in its nucleus.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.04 Topic: Light and Atoms; Language of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy; Elementary particles (quarks, atoms, protons, neutrons, electrons)

78) Conservation of energy requires that if an atom absorbs a photon, A) an electron ends up with an energy equal to that of the photon.

B) the atom must emit an electron.

C) the atom must emit a photon.

D) an electron rises to a new orbital with an energy equal to that of the previous orbital plus the energy of the photon.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.04 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy 79) An atom with 6 protons and 6 neutrons is a carbon atom, and an atom with 6 protons and 7 neutrons is also a carbon atom.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.04 Topic: Light and Atoms; Language of Astronomy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy; Elementary particles (quarks, atoms, protons, neutrons, electrons) 80) Electrons orbit the atomic nucleus in just the same way that planets orbit the Sun. Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.04 Topic: Light and Atoms; Language of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy; Elementary particles (quarks, atoms, protons, neutrons, electrons) 81) When an atom absorbs energy, it becomes excited.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.04 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy

82) When an atom emits light, an electron in it moves from a higher to a lower energy level.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.04 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy 83) What is the difference between emission and absorption in an atom?

A) In emission, the nucleus goes from a lower to a higher orbit.

B) In emission, the electron goes from a higher to a lower orbit.

C) In absorption, the electron goes from a higher to a lower orbit.

D) In absorption, the nucleus goes from a higher to a lower orbit.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.04 Topic: Light and Atoms; Language of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy; Elementary particles (quarks, atoms, protons, neutrons, electrons) 84) A helium atom with only one neutron in its nucleus is called A) an ion B) an isotope C) a neutrino D) deuterium

_.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.04 Topic: Light and Atoms; Language of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy; Elementary particles (quarks, atoms, protons, neutrons, electrons)

85) Electrons exist in a cloud-like structure around the nucleus called a(n) _ A) orbital B) level C) spectrum D) particle wave

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.04 Topic: Light and Atoms; Language of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy; Elementary particles (quarks, atoms, protons, neutrons, electrons) 86) As an electron moves closer to the nucleus, it A) loses B) gains C) absorbs D) generates E) quantizes

energy.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.04 Topic: Light and Atoms; Language of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy; Elementary particles (quarks, atoms, protons, neutrons, electrons) 87) As an electron moves farther from the nucleus, it A) loses B) gains C) absorbs D) generates E) quantizes

energy.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.04 Topic: Light and Atoms; Language of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy; Elementary particles (quarks, atoms, protons, neutrons, electrons)

88) If a hydrogen atom absorbs a photon of the correct wavelength, its electron will move the nucleus.

A) toward B) away from C) around D) into Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.04 Topic: Light and Atoms; Language of Astronomy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy; Elementary particles (quarks, atoms, protons, neutrons, electrons) 89) If an electron moves from a higher energy orbital to a lower energy one, the atom will .

A) emit a photon B) absorb a photon C) become excited D) vibrate E) become a different element Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.04 Topic: Light and Atoms; Language of Astronomy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy; Elementary particles (quarks, atoms, protons, neutrons, electrons) 90) You are heating a jar full of hydrogen and observing its spectrum. When you add more hydrogen to it, what happens to the spectral lines in the spectrum?

A) The positions of emission lines will change.

B) You will start seeing lots of absorption lines instead of emission lines.

C) The positions of emission lines will remain the same, but the lines will get broader and brighter.

D) There will be no change in the spectrum.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.05 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy

91) A(n) spectrum has dark lines on a continuous background.

A) absorption B) emission C) continuous D) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.05 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy 92) A(n) spectrum has bright lines on dark background.

A) absorption B) emission C) continuous D) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.05 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy 93) Which of the following electromagnetic waves are completely blocked by Earth's atmosphere?

A) radio waves B) visible light C) infrared D) X-rays Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.05 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy

94) What is an atmospheric window?

A) a region in the atmosphere where light can get through B) a region in the atmosphere where infrared radiation can penetrate C) a range of wavelengths of electromagnetic radiation which transmit through Earth's atmosphere D) a part of the upper atmosphere with depleted ozone Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.05 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy 95) You are heating a jar full of hydrogen and observing its spectrum. If you add more hydrogen to the jar, the position of spectral lines will change.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.05 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy 96) By studying the continuous blackbody spectrum from a solid it is possible to deduce the composition of the solid.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.05 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy

97) The chemical composition of a gas can be determined by analysis of the spectral lines of the gas.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.05 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy 98) An X-ray telescope placed on the surface of Earth can detect X-rays that are emitted from a distant astrophysical source.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.05 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy 99) Determining the composition of an astronomical body using its emitted or reflected light is called .

A) spectroscopy B) astronomy C) quantization D) radiation E) refraction Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.05 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy

100) If an atom emits a photon, that photon must have a wavelength A) that corresponds to the energy difference between two orbitals B) shorter than the absorbed photon that caused the emission C) as long as the distance between two orbitals D) that corresponds to twice the energy difference between two orbitals E) that corresponds to the lowest energy level of that atom

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.05 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy 101) Why is the absorption spectrum of atomic hydrogen different from that of helium?

A) The energy differences between orbitals in hydrogen are different from those in helium.

B) Helium has more neutrons than hydrogen.

C) There is usually more hydrogen than helium in stars.

D) Hydrogen atoms have a lower mass, and are therefore faster.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.05 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy 102) Hydrogen has absorption lines at 656 nm and 486 nm. Where are the emission lines from hydrogen in this part of the electromagnetic spectrum?

A) 656 nm and 486 nm B) 571 nm and 401 nm C) 826 nm and 656 nm D) 486 nm and 316 nm Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.05 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy

103) In order to measure a spectral line from an atom at one particular frequency, A) that frequency must correspond to one particular electron transition in that atom B) that spectral line must be in the visible part of the electromagnetic spectrum C) the line must be as wide as the distance between two orbitals D) that frequency must not create an excited state in that atom

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.05 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy 104) How does an absorption spectrum for water (H20) compare to that of atomic hydrogen?

A) Water has a very complex spectrum; hydrogen's is fairly simple.

B) The two spectra are very similar due to hydrogen's presence in water.

C) Hydrogen's spectrum is in the ultraviolet wavelengths, while water's is in the visible.

D) The two cannot be compared, as water is a liquid, not a gas.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.05 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy 105) A candle emits what kind of spectrum?

A) continuous B) emission-line C) absorption-line D) redshifted E) blueshifted Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.05 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy

106) A fluorescent bulb emits what kind of spectrum?

A) continuous B) emission-line C) absorption-line D) redshifted E) blueshifted Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.05 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy 107) An incandescent bulb emits what kind of spectrum?

A) continuous B) emission-line C) absorption-line D) redshifted E) blueshifted Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.05 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy 108) Of these gases in Earth's atmosphere, which strongly absorbs infrared radiation?

A) water vapor B) nitrogen C) ozone D) carbon monoxide Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.05 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy

109) Which gases in Earth's atmosphere strongly absorb ultraviolet radiation?

A) ozone and oxygen B) nitrogen and argon C) water vapor and carbon dioxide D) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.05 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy 110) What type of spectrum is emitted by a heated solid object (such as the filament of an incandescent bulb)?

A) continuous B) emission-line C) absorption-line D) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.05 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy 111) What type of spectrum is observed when the light from a hot, dense body is seen through a cooler, tenuous gas?

A) continuous B) emission-line C) absorption-line D) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.05 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy

112) What type of spectrum is emitted by a hot, tenuous gas?

A) continuous B) emission-line C) absorption-line D) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.05 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy 113) What are some of the things astronomers can learn about astronomical objects from their spectra?

A) chemical composition B) whether a gas or solid or combination, due to the type of spectrum C) how fast the objects are moving D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.05 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spectroscopy 114) An object is moving very fast perpendicularly to your line of sight. What shift will you observe in its spectrum?

A) blue shift B) red shift C) yellow shift D) no shift Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.06 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Doppler shift

115) A star's emission line of 656 nm appears shifted to 649 nm in the spectrum. What can you conclude from this shift?

A) The star is approaching you with the speed of 3,200 km/s.

B) The star is receding from you with the speed of 3,200 km/s.

C) The star is approaching you with the speed of 320,000 km/s.

D) The star is receding from you with the speed of 320,000 km/s.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.06 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Doppler shift 116) What conclusion can we draw about the motion of a star that does not show any Doppler shift in its spectrum?

A) The star is not moving.

B) The star is spinning fast.

C) The star does not have a magnetic field.

D) The star may be moving perpendicular to our line of sight.

E) We cannot draw any conclusions about the motion of this star.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.06 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Doppler shift 117) When astronomers study the light emitted from the Sun they notice that the light emitted from the east limb (edge) is blueshifted while the light emitted from the west limb is redshifted.

The reason for this is that A) the Sun contains different chemicals that emit different colors.

B) the distance between Earth and the Sun is constantly changing.

C) the Sun is rotating.

D) the two opposing limbs have different surface temperatures.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.06 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Doppler shift

118) Spectral lines shifted toward higher frequencies are called A) red shifted B) blue shifted C) Lines cannot be shifted toward higher frequencies.

.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.06 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Doppler shift 119) The spectral lines of a star will appear if the star is moving away from the Earth.

A) red shifted (i.e., shifted toward the longer wavelengths) B) blue shifted (i.e., shifted toward the shorter wavelengths) C) the same (no shift) Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.06 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Doppler shift 120) The wavelength of the red-pink line emitted by a laboratory sample of excited hydrogen is 656 nm. Taking a spectrum of a glowing nebula, you find that the same red-pink line of hydrogen appears at 662 nm. You conclude that the nebula A) is 1% hotter than hydrogen in the laboratory sample.

B) is moving toward us at about 1% the speed of light.

C) is 1% cooler than hydrogen in the laboratory sample.

D) is moving away from us at about 1% the speed of light.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.06 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Doppler shift

121) The Doppler shift is the same if the emitting object is moving toward you at some speed, or you (the observer) are moving toward it at that speed and it is still.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.06 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Doppler shift 122) The Doppler shift applies only to the line spectrum. It does not apply to the continuous (blackbody) spectrum.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.06 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Doppler shift 123) The spectral lines from a star that is moving toward Earth will appear redshifted.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.06 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Doppler shift 124) As a body cools, its spectrum will shift to A) longer B) shorter C) emission D) absorption E) continuous

wavelengths.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.06 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Electromagnetic spectrum; The Kelvin temperature scale; Temperature and radiation

125) Which of these are effects of the Doppler shift?

A) When an object is moving toward us, the wavelengths of its light decrease.

B) When an object is moving away from us, the frequencies of its light increases.

C) When an object accelerates, the wavelengths of its light get warmer.

D) When an object slows, the wavelengths of its light get cooler.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 04.06 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Doppler shift 126) As a body heats, the radiation it emits A) increases in wavelength B) decreases in intensity C) peaks at a shorter wavelength D) peaks at a longer wavelength E) All of these choices are correct.

.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 04.03 Topic: Light and Atoms Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Electromagnetic spectrum; The Kelvin temperature scale; Temperature and radiation

Explorations: Introduction to Astronomy 9th Edition Thomas Arny Chapter 5 Telescopes 1) If your pupils have a diameter of about 5 mm, about how many times more light gathering power does a telescope with a diameter of about 20 cm (8 inches) have than your pupils?

A) 4 times B) 16 times C) 40 times D) 160 times E) 1,600 times Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.01 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Collecting and filtering light; Telescope fundamental properties 2) The two most important properties of any telescope are A) the light-gathering power and the length of the tube.

B) the length of the tube and the magnification.

C) the magnification and the light-gathering power.

D) the resolving power and the magnification.

E) the light-gathering power and the resolving power.

Answer: E Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.01; 05.02 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Telescope fundamental properties

3) A pencil inside a water glass appears to be bent because of A) reflection of light.

B) refraction of light.

C) diffraction of light.

D) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.01 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Reflectors and refractors 4) What is a disadvantage of using a single large lens in a telescope?

A) Large lenses are expensive to fabricate.

B) A lens has to be supported only at its edges, so the lens can sag in the middle.

C) Different colors of white light on passing through a lens focus at different points and result in a blurred image.

D) Some lens materials completely absorb short wavelengths.

E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: E Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.01 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Reflectors and refractors 5) Carl has a 5-inch refracting telescope, and Jim has a 3-inch reflecting telescope. Whose telescope has a higher light-gathering power?

A) Carl's, because lenses gather more light.

B) Jim's, because mirrors gather more light.

C) Carl's, because the larger the diameter, the more light to be collected.

D) Jim's, because the smaller the diameter, the more light to be collected.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.01 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Collecting and filtering light; Telescope fundamental properties

6) If a 3-meter diameter telescope is doubled in size, then its new light collecting power would A) not change.

B) double.

C) increase by a factor of four.

D) reduce by half.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.01 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Collecting and filtering light; Telescope fundamental properties 7) How do astronomers calculate a telescope's light collecting area (A)? (where r = radius of the telescope's mirror or lens) A) A = 2πr B) A = πr2 C) A = 4πr2 D) A = 4/3 πr3 Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.01 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Collecting and filtering light; Telescope fundamental properties 8) Telescope A has a mirror twice the diameter of telescope B's mirror. How does A's lightgathering power compare to B's?

A) A gathers 1/2 the light that B does.

B) A gathers twice the light that B does.

C) A gathers 4 times the light that B does.

D) A gathers 1/4th as much light as B does.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.01 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Collecting and filtering light; Telescope fundamental properties

9) How does the light-gathering power of a telescope affect the ability to see faint objects?

A) Faint objects are brighter if the telescope can gather a lot of light.

B) Faint objects appear larger when viewed through a large-diameter telescope.

C) Faint objects do not twinkle if the telescope can gather a lot of light.

D) Faint objects are clearer (better resolved) if the telescope can gather a lot of light.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.01 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Telescope fundamental properties 10) What is the difference between a reflecting and a refracting telescope?

A) A reflecting telescope uses a lens to focus light; a refracting telescope uses a mirror.

B) A reflecting telescope uses a mirror to focus light; a refracting telescope uses a lens.

C) Both use a mirror to focus light, but a reflecting telescope uses mirrors elsewhere to bend light.

D) There is no difference. "Refracting" is an outmoded way of saying "reflecting."

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.01 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Telescope fundamental properties; Reflectors and refractors 11) Light travels A) faster B) slower C) at the same speed D) perpendicular to

in water than in air.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.01 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Telescope fundamental properties; Reflectors and refractors

12) Astronomy's largest optical telescopes are A) reflectors B) refractors C) diffractors D) deflectors

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.01 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Telescope fundamental properties; Reflectors and refractors 13) Chromatic aberration creates images fringed with color when using which kind of telescope?

A) reflector B) refractor C) radio D) interferometer E) adaptive optic Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.01 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Telescope fundamental properties; Reflectors and refractors 14) When light passes through a transparent material, different wavelengths (colors) of light are refracted by differing amounts. This effect is called .

A) reflection B) diffraction C) dispersion D) aberration E) scintillation Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.01 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Telescope fundamental properties; Reflectors and refractors

15) Which of these is a reason for using mirrors rather than lenses in telescopes?

A) Lenses are more expensive to make than mirrors.

B) Most transparent materials focus light of different colors to different spots.

C) Lenses can only be supported by their edges, making them sag in the middle (mirrors can be supported from behind).

D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.01 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Telescope fundamental properties; Reflectors and refractors 16) In a reflecting telescope, the secondary mirror causes a hole in the center of the image.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.01 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Reflectors and refractors 17) Most of the modern large optical telescopes are refractors.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.01 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Reflectors and refractors 18) To double the light-gathering power of a telescope, we need to double the diameter.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.01 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Collecting and filtering light; Telescope fundamental properties

19) The design of radio telescopes is very similar to the design of refracting telescopes.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.01 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Reflectors and refractors 20) Using , scientists can use a few smaller telescopes to take images with the same resolution as a much larger telescope.

A) satellite telescopes B) charge-coupled devices (CCDs) C) interferometry D) adaptive optics Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.02 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Collecting and filtering light; Telescope fundamental properties; Resolution 21) To double the resolving power of a telescope, you must A) increase the diameter by a factor of two B) increase the collecting area by a factor of two C) decrease the diameter by half D) decrease the collecting area by half

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.02 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Collecting and filtering light; Telescope fundamental properties; Resolution

22) Ignoring the effects of the atmosphere, what is the theoretical resolution of an 8-inch telescope (about 20 cm) if you are looking at visible light with a wavelength of about 500 nm?

A) about half an arc second B) about half a degree C) about 1/100 of an arc second D) about 25 arc seconds Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.02 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Telescope fundamental properties; Resolution 23) The resolving power of a telescope is affected by the property of light called A) refraction.

B) diffraction.

C) reflection.

D) seeing.

E) attenuation.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.02 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Telescope fundamental properties; Resolution 24) The ability of a telescope to show two very close objects separately is called its A) light-gathering power B) resolving power C) magnification D) focal length Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.02 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Telescope fundamental properties; Resolution

.

25) Tom has a 4-inch refracting telescope, and Steve has a 3-inch reflecting telescope. Whose telescope has a higher resolving power?

A) Tom's, because lenses are more efficient in showing the objects separately.

B) Steve's, because mirrors are more efficient in showing the objects separately.

C) Tom's, because the larger the diameter, the better the resolution.

D) Steve's, because the smaller the diameter, the better the resolution.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.02 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Telescope fundamental properties; Resolution 26) is the most important quality of an astronomical telescope.

A) Magnification B) Resolving power C) Ability to see at night D) Rigidity Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.02 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Telescope fundamental properties; Resolution 27) A telescope's resolving power measures its ability to see A) fainter sources.

B) more distant sources.

C) finer details in sources.

D) larger sources.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.02 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Telescope fundamental properties; Resolution

28) One way to increase the resolving power of a telescope is to A) make its mirror bigger.

B) make its mirror smaller.

C) replace its mirror with a lens of the same diameter.

D) observe objects using longer wavelengths.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.02 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Telescope fundamental properties; Resolution 29) In a telescope, diffraction creates A) bright and clear images B) images fringed with color C) images with faint ripples D) washed out images

.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.02 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Telescope fundamental properties; Resolution 30) "Spikes" seen in images of stars are caused by A) diffraction from the telescope support structures B) dispersion from the telescope's primary lens C) deflection from the inner surfaces of the telescope D) disruption from nearby light sources Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.02 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Telescope fundamental properties; Resolution

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31) What process limits a telescope's resolving power?

A) reflection B) refraction C) diffraction D) distraction Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.02 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Telescope fundamental properties; Resolution 32) A telescope with a large-diameter aperture or mirror will A) collect a lot of light and have high resolution B) collect less light, but have higher resolution C) collect a lot of light, but have poor resolution D) collect less light, and have poor resolution

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.02 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Telescope fundamental properties; Resolution 33) Why use an interferometer?

A) Its two widely spaced mirrors act like one giant telescope with increased collecting area.

B) Its two widely spaced mirrors act like one giant telescope with increased resolving power.

C) By putting one mirror above the other you can make the instrument much smaller.

D) It can detect light at wavelengths not available to single telescopes.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.02 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Telescope fundamental properties; Resolution

34) The effect of tripling the size of a telescope's primary mirror is to triple its resolving power.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.02 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Telescope fundamental properties; Resolution 35) An optical telescope is able to resolve blue objects better than red objects.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.02 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Telescope fundamental properties; Resolution 36) A warm dust cloud in which stars are forming would be best observed with a(n) telescope.

A) radio B) gamma-ray C) infrared D) optical (visible light) Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.03 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Collecting and filtering light

37) A galaxy with almost no starlight but plenty of cool clouds of hydrogen gas would be best observed with a(n) telescope.

A) X-ray B) radio C) infrared D) optical (visible-light) Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.03 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Collecting and filtering light 38) In a false color image, A) only one color is used.

B) color information from optical telescopes is combined with information from a non-visible wavelength telescope to make the image.

C) stars appear black and the background appears white.

D) colors can represent photon energies or the intensity of electromagnetic radiation.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.03 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Collecting and filtering light 39) Which is the most efficient means of recording light?

A) photographic films B) photomultiplier tubes C) charge-coupled device (CCD) D) the human eye Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.03 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Light detection with CCDs

40) Which of the following is an inherent disadvantage of radio telescopes?

A) Radio telescopes cannot detect visible light.

B) Radio telescopes have low magnification.

C) Radio signals are very weak, and their photons do not penetrate the atmosphere easily.

D) The long wavelength of radio waves results in lower resolving power, compared to other telescopes of the same size.

E) They only work at night.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.03 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Collecting and filtering light; Ground-based vs. space-based observation 41) What does CCD stand for?

A) charge-coupled device B) cosmic-ray channel detector C) charge collecting device D) channel-coupled detector Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.03 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Collecting and filtering light 42) How is a CCD better than film for astronomical imaging?

A) CCDs are much more sensitive to light than film.

B) Film images require developing, CCD images do not.

C) It is more difficult to enhance the contrast and clarity with film images.

D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.03 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Collecting and filtering light

43) What technique does a radio telescope use to focus incoming light?

A) reflection B) refraction C) diffraction D) dispersion Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.03 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Collecting and filtering light 44) Which of the following astronomical objects emit radiation mostly at non-visible wavelengths?

A) dust clouds in space B) hot gas surrounding black holes C) cold interstellar gas clouds D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.03 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Collecting and filtering light; Ground-based vs. space-based observation 45) An interstellar dust cloud may be very cold. What kind of telescope would we use to observe it at its strongest wavelength?

A) a ground-based infrared telescope B) a ground-based X-ray telescope C) a space-based ultraviolet telescope D) a ground-based visible-light telescope E) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: E Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 05.03 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Collecting and filtering light; Ground-based vs. space-based observation

46) The accretion disk of a black hole is typically very hot. What kind of telescope would we use to observe it at its strongest wavelength?

A) a ground-based X-ray telescope B) a space-based X-ray telescope C) a ground-based gamma-ray telescope D) a space-based radio telescope E) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: B Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 05.03 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Collecting and filtering light; Ground-based vs. space-based observation 47) Radio telescopes allow us to observe objects that are too cold to emit strongly in the visible part of the spectrum. Astronomers still use images of these object for study. What kind of images are these?

A) artist's renditions B) false-color images C) black-and-white images D) holographic images E) Astronomers do not use images to study radio objects.

Answer: B Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 05.03 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Collecting and filtering light 48) CCDs are widely used in astronomy because the images are easily manipulated in computers, but photographic film is actually more sensitive to photons.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.03 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Light detection with CCDs

49) Radio telescopes on Earth can only make observations at night.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.03 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Collecting and filtering light; Ground-based vs. space-based observation 50) The best site for placing an X-ray telescope is A) a mountaintop B) a valley C) near an ocean D) a desert E) above Earth's atmosphere

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Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.04 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Ground-based vs. space-based observation 51) An interstellar gas is emitting 10-centimeter wavelength radiation, and a nearby star is emitting 10-micrometer wavelength radiation. Which of these can you observe through an Earthbased telescope?

A) the interstellar gas B) the star C) both interstellar gas and the star D) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: A Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 05.04 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Collecting and filtering light; Ground-based vs. space-based observation

52) X-rays are blocked by and A) water molecules; carbon dioxide B) ozone; oxygen C) nitrogen; helium D) electric charges; clouds

present in Earth's atmosphere.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.04 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Collecting and filtering light; Ground-based vs. space-based observation 53) Which space telescope is observing X-rays?

A) the Hubble Space Telescope (HST) B) the Chandra Observatory C) the Spitzer Space Telescope D) the Extreme Ultraviolet Explorer (EUVE) Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.04 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Ground-based vs. space-based observation 54) Which of the following telescopes is most suitable for observing cool gas clouds?

A) X-ray telescope B) radio telescope C) visible-light telescope D) All of these choices are correct.

E) Cool gas clouds cannot be observed by telescopes.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.04 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Collecting and filtering light; Ground-based vs. space-based observation

55) Do astronomers use ground-based X-ray telescopes?

A) Yes, because they can penetrate gas clouds.

B) No, because no astronomical objects emit X-rays.

C) No, because X-rays cannot get through Earth's atmosphere.

D) No, because astronomers have not yet devised detectors for X-rays.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.04 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Collecting and filtering light; Ground-based vs. space-based observation 56) Why must radio telescopes have very large dishes?

A) A large mirror is necessary to resolve radio-emitting images.

B) Radio-emitting objects are very far from Earth, and so are very dim.

C) Large radio telescopes are easier to repair than small instruments.

D) The large dish is to compensate for atmospheric absorption of radio waves.

E) Size is immaterial to quality observations.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.04 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Collecting and filtering light; Ground-based vs. space-based observation 57) Ground-based observations can be made easily in the A) radio and visible B) ultraviolet and visible C) radio and ultraviolet D) infrared

part(s) of the spectrum.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.04 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Collecting and filtering light; Ground-based vs. space-based observation

58) The Hubble Telescope gets much clearer images of astronomical objects than ground-based telescopes because it has a much larger mirror than ground-based telescopes.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.04 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Collecting and filtering light; Ground-based vs. space-based observation 59) The Hubble Space Telescope only detects visible light.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.04 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Collecting and filtering light; Ground-based vs. space-based observation 60) Gamma-ray telescopes, such as the Fermi Gamma Ray Space Telescope, are launched into space because they are dangerous to operate on Earth.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.04 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Collecting and filtering light; Ground-based vs. space-based observation 61) The Hubble Space Telescope is the largest telescope ever built.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.04 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Collecting and filtering light; Ground-based vs. space-based observation

62) One of the biggest problems for ground-based astronomy today is A) all the best mountains already have telescopes on them.

B) atmospheric pollution has significantly worsened the seeing.

C) space-based observatories are making most of the observations.

D) light pollution makes it difficult to observe faint objects.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.05 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Ground-based vs. space-based observation 63) Why does the Sun look flattened near the horizon?

A) The Sun's light is reflected off the horizon, making the Sun appear compressed.

B) Earth's dense atmosphere compresses the gaseous Sun. C) The larger refraction near the horizon lifts the lower edge of the Sun more than the upper edge and makes the Sun look flattened.

D) The Sun is cooler on the horizon, so it looks flattened.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.05 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Ground-based vs. space-based observation 64) Why does the Moon appear bigger near the horizon?

A) due to an optical illusion B) due to refraction C) due to reflection D) due to the compression produced by Earth's atmosphere Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.05 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Ground-based vs. space-based observation

65) What is "seeing"?

A) the ability of a telescope to show two very close objects separately B) the capacity of a telescope to gather more light C) the ability of a telescope to see in the night D) the distortion of an image due to an atmospheric turbulence Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.05 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Resolution; Ground-based vs. space-based observation 66) The best site for placing a ground-based optical telescope is A) a mountaintop B) a valley C) in an urban setting D) in a location that has few sunny days throughout the year Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.05 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Ground-based vs. space-based observation 67) Why do stars twinkle?

A) due to rapid changes occurring on their surfaces B) due to their movement across the sky C) due to the refraction caused by atmospheric irregularities D) due to imperfections in the human eye Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.05 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Resolution; Ground-based vs. space-based observation

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68) Why does the useful resolving power of a ground-based telescope not match its theoretical value?

A) Mirrors can't be built accurately enough.

B) The atmosphere blurs the image, decreasing the resolving power.

C) Mirrors cannot collect enough light to reach their theoretical expectations.

D) The theoretical value can only be reached when there is a Full Moon.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.05 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Collecting and filtering light; Resolution; Ground-based vs. space-based observation 69) On some telescopes, actuators on the mirror change its shape to match distortions in the atmosphere. What is this technique called?

A) actuary observing B) interferometry C) refraction D) adaptive optics Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.05 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Collecting and filtering light; Ground-based vs. space-based observation 70) Which of the following is a reason to build an observatory in space?

A) They are much less expensive than ground-based observatories.

B) They can last forever.

C) to avoid atmospheric blurring D) There is no good reason to build a space-based observatory.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.05 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Collecting and filtering light; Ground-based vs. space-based observation

71) What causes the image of a star to "twinkle" or scintillate?

A) irregularities in the density of layers of Earth's atmosphere, rapidly refracting the light B) the flickering fusion process in the stars C) a purely physiological reaction in the eye D) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 05.05 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Collecting and filtering light; Ground-based vs. space-based observation 72) Why are remote sites chosen for ground-based telescopes?

A) Populated areas produce light pollution that degrades the quality of observations.

B) Deserts and mountaintops tend to be cloud-free, making observations convenient.

C) Mountaintops allow astronomers to avoid morning hazes.

D) Remote areas have less interference from power lines and other sources of noise.

E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: E Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.05 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Collecting and filtering light; Ground-based vs. space-based observation 73) The collision of two neutron stars might be detected as what?

A) an atmospheric window B) a nebula.

C) an emission-line spectrum.

D) a gamma-ray burst.

E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 05.04 Topic: Telescopes Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Collecting and filtering light; Ground-based vs. space-based observation

Explorations: Introduction to Astronomy 9th Edition Thomas Arny Chapter 6 The Earth 1) A rock has a density of 2 g/cm3. If another rock has twice as much mass but the same volume, its density must be g/cm3.

A) 0.5 B) 2 C) 4 D) 8 Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.01 Topic: Earth; Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Size, shape and composition of Earth; Average density 2) A spherical rock has a density of 3 g/cm3. If another rock has the same mass but is twice as wide, its density must be g/cm3.

A) 3/8 B) 3/4 C) 3/2 D) 6 Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.01 Topic: Earth; Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Size, shape and composition of Earth; Average density 3) The radius of Earth is A) larger at the poles.

B) larger at the equator.

C) the same everywhere.

D) not known.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.01 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Size, shape and composition of Earth

4) Density is calculated as A) mass times volume.

B) mass divided by volume.

C) volume divided by mass.

D) mass times gravity.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.01 Topic: Earth; Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Size, shape and composition of Earth; Average density 5) The average density of Earth is A) about 5.5 g/cm3 B) about 5.5 cm3/g C) about 1 g/cm3 D) about 1 cm3/g

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.01 Topic: Earth; Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Size, shape and composition of Earth; Average density 6) The typical density for a rock found on the surface of Earth is of Earth overall.

A) greater than B) less than C) about equal to Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.01 Topic: Earth; Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Size, shape and composition of Earth; Average density

the average density

7) Why are Earth and other planets spherical while smaller bodies such as most asteroids are not?

A) Asteroids were never molten, and so never underwent differentiation.

B) The larger mass of a planet produces enough gravity to pull it into a round shape.

C) The atmosphere of a planet is heavy enough to push the planet into a round shape.

D) Earth and other planets formed from planetesimals pulled together by gravity into circular orbits.

E) It is the nature of massive objects to pull themselves into spherical shapes.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.01 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Size, shape and composition of Earth 8) What is the geometric shape of Earth?

A) a perfect sphere B) an oblate spheroid C) a prolate ellipsoid D) an annular toroid E) flat Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.01 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Size, shape and composition of Earth 9) Rocks that include silicon and oxygen as major components are called _ A) silicons B) silicates C) dioxides D) di-silicons E) silicides Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.01 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Size, shape and composition of Earth

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10) What is a silicate?

A) rocks that include silicon and oxygen as major components B) low-density rocks frequently found on the surface of Earth C) quartz D) silicon dioxide E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.01 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Size, shape and composition of Earth 11) What is olivine?

A) silicate rock that makes up much of the mantle B) silicate rock found mostly on the surface of Earth C) iron-based non-silicate rock that is green in color D) lithium dioxide E) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.01 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Size, shape and composition of Earth 12) The Moon has an average density of 3.3 g/cm3. From this number, what can we infer about the composition of the Moon?

A) Its composition is mostly metals and water ice.

B) Its composition is mostly silicates, with some iron.

C) Its composition is exactly the same as Earth's.

D) Its composition is entirely silicates.

E) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.01 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Size, shape and composition of Earth

13) What are the most common elements composing Earth?

A) hydrogen and helium B) carbon and nitrogen C) oxygen and silicon D) uranium and plutonium Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.01 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Size, shape and composition of Earth 14) Silicates are minerals composed of silicon and oxygen.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.01 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Size, shape and composition of Earth 15) Oxygen is the most common element in minerals in Earth's crust, which is why the release of gases from the crust over time has produced an atmosphere rich in oxygen today.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.01 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Size, shape and composition of Earth 16) The heavier elements like iron and nickel are abundant on Earth's surface, and the silicates dominate at the center of Earth.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.01 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Size, shape and composition of Earth

17) Olivine is the most common mineral in Earth's mantle.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.01 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Size, shape and composition of Earth 18) The outer core of Earth extends out to a little over halfway to the surface of Earth. The volume of the core is therefore about the volume of Earth.

A) 1/64 B) 1/8 C) 1/4 D) 1/2 Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.02 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interior structure 19) From the center outward, the correct order of the zones of Earth is A) solid core, mantle, liquid core, crust, atmosphere.

B) liquid core, solid core, crust, mantle, atmosphere.

C) solid core, liquid core, mantle, crust, atmosphere.

D) liquid core, solid core, mantle, crust, atmosphere.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.02 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interior structure

20) The most abundant element in Earth's core is A) nitrogen B) oxygen C) hydrogen D) iron

.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.02 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Size, shape and composition of Earth; Interior structure 21) After an earthquake, an S-type seismic wave travels with a velocity of about 10 km/s and reaches another part of Earth in about 10 minutes. How far has the S-type wave traveled?

A) 6,000 km B) 1,000 km C) 600 km D) 100 km E) 60 km Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.02 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Size, shape and composition of Earth; Interior structure 22) The interior layer just below the crust of Earth is called the A) inner core B) outer core C) mantle D) troposphere Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.02 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interior structure

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23) The hotter inner core of Earth is A) solid; also solid B) liquid; also liquid C) liquid; solid D) solid; liquid

and the relatively cooler outer core is

.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.02 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interior structure 24) Why is Earth's inner core solid?

A) due to extremely high temperature B) due to the tremendous pressure of overlying material C) due to the spinning of earth D) Earth formed by liquid material piling on top of a solid sphere.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.02 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interior structure 25) The -type seismic waves can travel through liquids and solids. The seismic waves can travel through solids only.

A) S; P B) S; S C) P; S D) P; P Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.02 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Size, shape and composition of Earth; Interior structure

-type

26) Scientists refer to Earth as a differentiated planet because .

A) the temperature in the core is higher than the temperature on the surface B) the material in the interior of Earth is arranged by density C) iron is more dense than silicate material D) Earth's structure is different from the other planets Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.02 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Size, shape and composition of Earth; Interior structure 27) Earthquakes generate Earth.

A) seismic waves B) weather patterns C) magnetic fields D) electromagnetic waves E) lava flows

that scientists can use to deduce the internal structure of

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.02 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interior structure; Internal dynamics 28) How do earthquake-generated waves help scientists deduce the internal structure of Earth?

A) Primary waves are detected at a seismometer when they pass through solid or liquid materials.

B) Secondary waves are detected at a seismometer when they pass through solid materials.

C) The path of waves bends as they travel through material of different density.

D) Earthquake-generated waves can be detected and studied anywhere in the world.

E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: E Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.02 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interior structure; Internal dynamics

29) The uppermost layer of Earth's structure is called the A) core B) mantle C) crust D) surface E) silicate

.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.02 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interior structure 30) The uppermost layer of Earth's structure is composed of mostly A) silicates B) olivines C) metals D) oxygen and nitrogen E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.02 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Size, shape and composition of Earth; Interior structure 31) How has Earth's interior remained warm over its geological history?

A) radioactive decay B) leftover heat from formation C) Earth's proximity to the Sun D) tidal stresses from the Moon E) the greenhouse effect Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.02 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interior structure; Internal heat

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32) Why will a smaller body (the Moon, for example) cool much faster than a larger body like Earth?

A) A smaller body has a larger surface area for heat to escape through, relative to its volume.

B) A smaller body will have a smaller proportion of radioactive elements.

C) A smaller body is less likely to have an atmosphere than a larger body.

D) A smaller body will have a smaller iron core, which holds heat better than rock.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.02 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Internal heat 33) How does the differentiation process generate heat?

A) As dense material sinks through less dense rock, it generates heat through friction.

B) As low-density rock rises to the surface, it carries heat from the interior of the planet.

C) Heat is generated by the constant bombardment of the planet by planetesimals.

D) Iron and nickel accumulating at the center of the planet concentrate the planet's heat.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.02 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Internal heat 34) How do we know Earth has a liquid core?

A) Both S and P waves pass through it.

B) S waves pass through it, but P waves do not.

C) P waves pass through it, but S waves do not.

D) Because we have used X-rays to probe it.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.02 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interior structure

35) Why is the inner core solid even though it is hotter than the outer liquid core?

A) This is not unusual: hotter things tend to be more solid.

B) The great pressure at Earth's center forces the atoms in the core together, causing it to solidify.

C) Radioactivity causes liquid materials to become solid.

D) The dynamo effect causes ions in Earth's interior to become solid.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.02 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interior structure; Internal heat 36) Why do we believe Earth has an iron core?

A) Samples from deep holes are iron rich.

B) X-ray cameras show a dark, impenetrable mass at the planet's center.

C) The properties of seismic waves match those expected of a region of iron.

D) Astronomers have seen asteroid impacts sinking into the deep interior.

E) Volcanoes erupt nearly pure iron.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.02 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interior structure; Internal heat 37) About how hot is the core of Earth?

A) 15 million K B) 15,000 K C) 6,500 K D) 300 K Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.02 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interior structure; Internal heat

38) The interior of Earth is very hot because of A) fusion reactions B) the radioactive decay of elements C) oxidation D) internal combustion

.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.02 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interior structure; Internal heat 39) What might explain how the core formed?

A) asteroids hitting and penetrating B) iron sinking to the core as the bulk of Earth melted C) the magnetic field pulling it inward D) Earthquakes shake the planet and the iron gradually "sifts" downward.

E) The silicon of the crust decays into iron at high temperatures.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.02 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interior structure; Internal heat 40) Why is the core hot?

A) from the steady decay of radioactive atoms in the rock B) from heat left over from the planet's birth C) The high pressure in the core drives the temperature higher.

D) from both the decay of radioactive atoms and the leftover heat E) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.02 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interior structure; Internal heat

41) Knowledge of Earth's interior comes primarily from returning samples of material deep within Earth.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.02 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Size, shape and composition of Earth; Interior structure 42) Earth's core is slightly hotter than the surface of the Sun. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.02 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interior structure; Internal heat 43) The central part of Earth's core consists of iron-rich liquid.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.02 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spin of Earth 44) Carbon-13 is a radioactive isotope. About half of a sample decays in 6,000 years. After how long would only 1/8 of the original carbon 13 be left?

A) 6,000 years B) 12,000 years C) 18,000 years D) 24,000 years E) 30,000 years Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.03 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Internal heat; Age of Earth

45) How is the age of a rock determined?

A) by determining the ratio of argon to potassium B) by counting the number of circles just like the circles on the trunk of a tree C) by measuring the temperature of the rock D) by measuring the amount of calcium it contains Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.03 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Internal heat; Age of Earth 46) What is the approximate age of Earth?

A) 6,000 years B) 1,000,000 years C) 4.5 million years D) 4.5 billion years E) 13.7 billion years Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.03 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Age of Earth 47) Suppose that we have a sample of 20 atoms of radioactive potassium which decays by half every 1.3 billion years into calcium and argon at ratios of 9:1, respectively. How many atoms of calcium do you expect to find in this sample after 1.3 billion years?

A) 18 B) 1 C) 9 D) 2 Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.03 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Internal heat; Age of Earth

48) How is the age of Earth measured?

A) by counting tree rings B) by analyzing the strength of Earth's magnetic field C) by studying the ratios of radioactive materials in rocks D) by measuring the amount of heat the planet emits into space Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.03 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Age of Earth 49) and are common in regions where subduction occurs.

A) Rifts; polarity shifts B) Volcanoes; plate spreading C) Auroras; the Coriolis effect D) Mountains; earthquakes Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.04 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Internal dynamics 50) The process in which two tectonic plates meet and one slips beneath another is called .

A) convection B) pangea C) subduction D) rifting Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.04 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Internal dynamics

51) How fast are Earth's plates moving due to tectonic motion?

A) a few kilometers per year B) a meters per year C) a few centimeters per year D) a few centimeters per century Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.04 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Internal dynamics 52) The process by which material heated from below rises and cooled material sinks is called .

A) conduction B) convection C) radiation D) differentiation E) subduction Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.04 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Internal dynamics 53) Within the mantle, how is heat transported outward away from the core?

A) conduction B) convection C) radiation D) differentiation E) subduction Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.04 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Internal dynamics

54) The circular flow of rising hot material and sinking cool material is responsible for what phenomena on and in Earth?

A) rifting B) subduction C) volcanic eruptions D) earthquakes E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: E Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.04 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Internal dynamics 55) is the process in which hot mantle material drags sections of Earth's crust apart, creating new crust.

A) Subduction B) Rifting C) Drifting D) Conduction E) Ridging Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.04 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Internal dynamics 56) Where do we find the youngest parts of Earth's crust?

A) subduction zones B) ridges on the ocean floor C) at the bases of mountains D) at the tops of mountains E) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.04 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Internal dynamics

57) The shifting of large blocks of Earth's surface is usually referred to today as what?

A) the dynamo effect B) continental drift C) the Coriolis effect D) plate tectonics Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.04 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Internal dynamics 58) What is happening when two plates are smashing into one another?

A) Subduction causes mountains to be built up; earthquakes and volcanoes may also occur.

B) Rifting causes mountains to be built up; earthquakes and volcanoes may also occur.

C) Precession causes mountains to be built up; earthquakes and volcanoes may also occur.

D) nothing Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.04 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Internal dynamics 59) The Atlantic Ocean has existed for most of the time since Earth's crust cooled.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.04 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Internal dynamics

60) Van Allen Belts exist in Earth's A) troposphere B) core C) mantle D) magnetosphere

.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.05 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Magnetic field 61) The are two doughnut-shaped rings of charged particles trapped by Earth's magnetic field.

A) Aurora Borealis and the Aurora Australis B) Van Allen Radiation Belts C) jet streams D) convection cells Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.05 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Magnetic field 62) What do we mean when we say that a magnetic field has polarity?

A) A magnetic field has a north and south "poles" or directions.

B) A magnetic field is able to flip its poles over a long period of time.

C) A planetary magnetic field is aligned with the geographic poles of the planet.

D) A planetary magnetic field is strongest at the poles of the planet.

E) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.05 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Magnetic field

63) What evidence do we have that Earth's magnetic field reverses its polarity every 250,000 years?

A) historical documents from ancient Egypt and other civilizations B) The direction of the magnetic field is "frozen" into new crust as it cools.

C) Core samples from Antarctica show a regular change in polarity.

D) Earth's magnetic field strength and direction change constantly.

E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.05 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Magnetic field 64) What is the dynamo model of Earth's magnetic field?

A) Earth's magnetic field is maintained by convection in the interior of the planet, as well as its rotation.

B) Electric currents in the atmosphere (aurora) generate Earth's magnetic field.

C) Currents in Earth's oceans maintain the planet's magnetic field.

D) Earth's magnetic field changes too rapidly for it to be generated in Earth's interior.

E) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.05 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Magnetic field 65) Why does the Moon not have a magnetic field?

A) It rotates very slowly and has a cold interior.

B) Any field the Moon could generate is overwhelmed by Earth's field.

C) The Moon lacks an atmosphere.

D) Only planets can have magnetic fields.

E) The Moon's magnetic field was destroyed by bombardment by planetesimals.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.05 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Magnetic field

66) Currents in Earth's molten iron core create the planet's magnetic field. These currents are probably caused by A) rotational motion and radioactivity.

B) rotational motion and convection.

C) radioactivity and convection.

D) rifting and subduction.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.05 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Internal dynamics; Magnetic field 67) What causes auroras?

A) sunlight reflected off meteor dust high in the atmosphere B) micro meteorites burning up as they sweep along Earth's magnetic field C) particles from the Sun colliding with and exciting atoms in our upper atmosphere D) fluorescence by upper atmospheric hydrogen atoms E) waves in the magnetic field creating an upper atmospheric laser-like effect Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.05 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Magnetic field 68) Earth's magnetic poles will eventually reverse. This shift will also cause the seasons to reverse.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.05 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Magnetic field

69) Earth's magnetic axis is the same as its rotation axis.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.05 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Magnetic field 70) If Earth did not spin, the magnetic field around it would not exist.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.05 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spin of Earth; Magnetic field 71) A compass needle points to the North Star.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.05 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Magnetic field 72) Magnetic fields are created by moving charged particles.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.05 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Magnetic field

73) Analysis of volcanic emissions suggests that eruptions could be the source of all but which of the following gases in our atmosphere?

A) oxygen B) nitrogen C) water D) carbon dioxide Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.06 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Origin of atmospheres 74) Ozone A) is an element.

B) is a molecule consisting of two oxygen atoms and a hydrogen atom.

C) is a molecule consisting of three oxygen atoms.

D) is a molecule consisting of two oxygen atoms and a nitrogen atom.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.06 Topic: Earth; Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Origin of atmospheres; Terrestrial atmospheres 75) The composition of Earth's atmosphere today is about 78% about 1% , with trace amounts of other gases.

A) oxygen; nitrogen; water vapor B) nitrogen; carbon dioxide; oxygen C) oxygen; carbon dioxide; nitrogen D) nitrogen; oxygen; argon E) nitrogen; oxygen; carbon dioxide Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.06 Topic: Earth; Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Origin of atmospheres; Terrestrial atmospheres

, 21%

, and

76) The majority of Earth's atmosphere is found within which atmospheric layer?

A) troposphere B) stratosphere C) ozone layer D) van Allen Belts E) ionosphere Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.06 Topic: Earth; Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Origin of atmospheres; Terrestrial atmospheres 77) The lowest layer of Earth's atmosphere is called the A) troposphere B) stratosphere C) ozone layer D) ionosphere E) terrasphere

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.06 Topic: Earth; Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Origin of atmospheres; Terrestrial atmospheres 78) What is the troposphere?

A) the layer of the atmosphere where the weather we experience is located B) the layer of the atmosphere containing the aurora C) the layer of the atmosphere containing the ozone layer D) the uppermost layer of the atmosphere E) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.06 Topic: Earth; Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Origin of atmospheres; Terrestrial atmospheres

79) The ozone layer is found within which of Earth's atmospheric layers?

A) troposphere B) stratosphere C) ozone layer D) ionosphere E) terrasphere Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.06 Topic: Earth; Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Origin of atmospheres; Terrestrial atmospheres 80) What is the stratosphere?

A) the layer of the atmosphere where the weather we experience is located B) the layer of the atmosphere containing the aurora C) the layer of the atmosphere containing the ozone layer D) the uppermost layer of the atmosphere E) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.06 Topic: Earth; Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Origin of atmospheres; Terrestrial atmospheres 81) Why is the Moon's average surface temperature so much lower than Earth's?

A) The Moon is much smaller than Earth and cooled more quickly.

B) The Moon has no magnetic field to prevent infrared radiation from escaping.

C) The Moon has no atmosphere to help retain heat at its surface.

D) The Moon's rotation rate is much slower than Earth's.

E) The Moon reflects more of the Sun's energy than Earth.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.06 Topic: Earth; Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Origin of atmospheres; Terrestrial atmospheres; The greenhouse effect

82) What is the origin of Earth's atmosphere?

A) Gases were brought to Earth by cometary impacts.

B) Gases were released into the atmosphere by volcanic eruptions.

C) Gases were released when planetesimals impacted Earth's surface and melted it.

D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.06 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Origin of atmospheres 83) The early atmosphere of Earth had more methane and ammonia than what is present today.

Where did these gases go?

A) Sunlight broke methane and ammonia apart and the hydrogen escaped to space.

B) Methane and ammonia dissolved in Earth's oceans.

C) Plant life converted methane and ammonia to nitrogen and carbon through photosynthesis.

D) Cometary and planetesimal impacts provided enough energy for these gases to escape to space.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.06 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Origin of atmospheres 84) Which gases are added to Earth's atmosphere by volcanic eruptions?

A) carbon dioxide, water vapor, and nitrogen B) ammonia, methane, and oxygen C) carbon dioxide, ozone, and methane D) nitrogen, oxygen, and ammonia Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.06 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Origin of atmospheres

85) The early atmosphere of Earth had much less oxygen than today. How has Earth's oxygen abundance increased over Earth's history?

A) Plant life generated oxygen through photosynthesis.

B) Volcanic eruptions release large amounts of oxygen.

C) Ultraviolet light breaks up ozone into oxygen.

D) Cometary impacts over Earth's history have contributed oxygen to the atmosphere.

E) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.06 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Origin of atmospheres 86) What causes the greenhouse effect?

A) Water vapor and carbon dioxide absorb visible sunlight and warms the atmosphere.

B) Ozone absorbs solar ultraviolet radiation and warms the atmosphere.

C) Oxygen and nitrogen scatter sunlight which heats the atmosphere by its frictional passage.

D) Water vapor and carbon dioxide absorb infrared radiation from the ground and reradiate the heat toward the surface.

E) Fluorocarbons absorb infrared radiation from the Sun and heat the surface.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.06 Topic: Earth; Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Origin of atmospheres; The greenhouse effect 87) What does the Greenhouse Effect cause?

A) It shields us from the Sun's ultraviolet rays.

B) It causes Earth's surface and atmosphere to be warmer than they would be otherwise.

C) It is the main source of Earth's oxygen.

D) It protects the surface of Earth from cosmic rays.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.06 Topic: Earth; Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Origin of atmospheres; The greenhouse effect

88) What are the main constituents of Earth's atmosphere?

A) carbon dioxide and water vapor B) hydrogen and helium C) methane and ozone D) nitrogen and oxygen Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.06 Topic: Earth; Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Origin of atmospheres; Terrestrial atmospheres 89) The ozone layer protects us from A) infrared radiation.

B) ultraviolet radiation.

C) gamma rays.

D) cosmic rays.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.06 Topic: Earth; Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Origin of atmospheres; Terrestrial atmospheres 90) Water vapor in the atmosphere can cause a greenhouse effect.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.06 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial atmospheres; The greenhouse effect

91) The jet stream is a result of the Coriolis effect.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.06 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spin of Earth 92) Greenhouse gases (water molecules and carbon dioxide) generate heat to make our Earth warm.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.06 Topic: Earth; Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Origin of atmospheres; The greenhouse effect 93) The amount of oxygen in Earth's atmosphere has gradually grown over the last few billion years.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.06 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Origin of atmospheres 94) The composition of Earth's atmosphere has not changed since its formation.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.06 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Origin of atmospheres

95) In about 14,000 AD, the North Pole of Earth will point at star A) Polaris B) Antares C) Vega D) Thuban

.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.07 Topic: Earth; Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spin of Earth; Precession 96) The deflection of air and ocean currents from their original direction of motion due to the rotation of Earth is called .

A) precession B) the Coriolis effect C) differentiation D) circulation E) revolution Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.07 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spin of Earth 97) A pocket of air moving south in the Northern Hemisphere will be deflected rotation of Earth?

A) to the west B) to the east C) upward to a higher altitude D) downward toward the surface E) to the south Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.07 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spin of Earth

by the

98) A pocket of air moving north in the Northern Hemisphere will be deflected rotation of Earth.

A) to the west B) to the east C) upward to a higher altitude D) downward toward the surface E) to the south

by the

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.07 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spin of Earth 99) Why isn't Earth a perfect sphere?

A) Rotation causes the equator to bulge out.

B) Rotation causes the poles to bulge out.

C) Earth's magnetic field causes the equator to bulge out.

D) Earth is perfectly round.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.07 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Size, shape and composition of Earth; Spin of Earth 100) The wobble of Earth's rotational axis resulting in a change in location of the north celestial pole is called .

A) precession B) the Coriolis effect C) revolution D) deflection E) differentiation Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.07 Topic: Earth; Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spin of Earth; Precession

101) What causes the slow wobble of Earth's rotational axis?

A) The Sun and the Moon exert unbalanced gravitational forces on Earth's equatorial bulge.

B) Continents are concentrated in the Northern Hemisphere, which creates an unbalanced rotation of Earth.

C) The Moon exerts a gravitational force on Earth's tidal bulges, creating a wobble.

D) The accumulation of ice at the poles during ice ages creates an unbalanced rotation of Earth.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.07 Topic: Earth; Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spin of Earth; Precession 102) Some anthropological evidence for the precession of Earth's tilt is that the passage into the Great Pyramid in Egypt points at the star Thuban, which was the polestar about 6,000 years ago.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.07 Topic: Earth; Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spin of Earth; Precession 103) Earth's spin creates the day and night cycle, but does not affect the weather pattern.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.07 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spin of Earth 104) Polaris is always the polestar.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.07 Topic: Earth; Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spin of Earth; Precession

105) The Coriolis effect demonstrates that Earth spins.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 06.07 Topic: Earth Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spin of Earth 106) Precession is the slow change in direction of Earth's rotation axis due to the gravitational interaction of the Sun and of the Moon with Earth's equatorial bulge.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 06.07 Topic: Earth; Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spin of Earth; Precession

Explorations: Introduction to Astronomy 9th Edition Thomas Arny Chapter 7 The Moon 1) Which of the following is NOT a kind of geological feature found on the Moon?

A) scarp B) crater C) maria D) rille Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.01 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Lunar Surface Features 2) Basalt, a dense congealed lava rock rich in iron, is the primary material in the Moon's A) highlands.

B) crust.

C) maria.

D) far side's regolith.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.01 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Lunar Surface Features; Lunar Geography 3) The large dark areas on the Moon that form the face of the "Man in the Moon" are called what?

A) craters and rays B) rilles C) maria D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.01 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Lunar Surface Features; Lunar Geography

4) The majority of lunar craters formed when .

A) lunar volcanoes erupted B) solid bodies such as asteroids impacted the Moon's surface C) pieces of the Moon fell off, leaving holes in its surface D) tidal forces from Earth cracked the Moon's surface Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.01 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Lunar Surface Features 5) The central peak of a crater is formed by .

A) the upward rebounding of compressed rock B) molten rock being thrown upward and then solidifying C) ejected material falling back into the crater D) regolith drifting toward the center of the crater E) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.01 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Lunar Surface Features 6) The lunar highlands are composed primarily of A) anorthosite B) basalt C) olivine D) silicon dioxide Answer: A Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 07.01 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Lunar Surface Features

.

7) Heavily cratered, lower-density regions of the lunar surface are called _ A) highlands B) maria C) rilles D) regolith E) Tycho Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.01 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Lunar Surface Features 8) The lunar maria are primarily composed of A) anorthosite B) basalt C) olivine D) silicon dioxide

.

Answer: B Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 07.01 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Lunar Surface Features 9) Why do the lunar maria have a darker color than the highland regions?

A) The maria are composed of different materials than the highlands.

B) The maria are younger and experienced fewer impacts to weather the surface.

C) The maria have less regolith than the highlands.

D) The maria are sitting in the shadows of surrounding mountains.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.01 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Lunar Surface Features

.

10) What are rays?

A) canyons, caused by lava flows or crustal cracking B) long, light streaks of pulverized rock radiating outward from craters C) mountainous regions D) areas with no craters at all Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.01 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Lunar Surface Features 11) The lunar highlands have more craters than the maria because A) the surface of the maria is liquid and craters quickly disappear there B) the material composing the highlands is very soft and easily cratered C) the maria are much younger than the highlands D) the maria are much older than the highlands

_.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.01 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Lunar Surface Features; Lunar Geography 12) How were the maria formed?

A) Maria were formed by ancient oceans on the Moon's surface.

B) Maria formed from ash falls from long dead volcanoes.

C) Successive volcanic eruptions flooded huge basins formed by large impacts.

D) They were formed by the huge tidal interaction between Earth and Moon.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.01 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Lunar Surface Features; Origin of the Maria

13) What is the source for the lava that covers the maria?

A) molten rock from impacts B) rock melted by radioactive heating C) volcanic eruptions due to subducting lunar crust D) the original molten surface of the Moon Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.01 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Lunar Surface Features; Origin of the Maria 14) Long canyons on the lunar surface are called _ A) rilles B) rays C) maria D) rifts

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.01 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Lunar Surface Features 15) Rilles on the lunar surface were formed by A) the flow of ancient rivers B) ancient lava flows C) the impact of small asteroids D) ancient volcano chains Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.01 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Lunar Surface Features

.

16) Why is the Moon's surface cratered but Earth's is not?

A) The Moon's stronger magnetic field attracted more iron asteroids.

B) Meteors bounce off Earth's atmosphere.

C) Earth's impact craters have been mostly obliterated by erosion and plate tectonics.

D) When the dinosaurs died, their remains filled all Earth's craters.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.01 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Lunar Surface Features 17) One result of bombardment of the Moon's surface is a layer of broken, pulverized, and powdered rock called A) maria.

B) regolith.

C) basalt.

D) lunar rays.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.02 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Lunar Surface Features 18) The primary reason the Moon lacks an atmosphere is because A) the Moon is made up of the wrong kinds of rocks to release atmospheric gases.

B) Earth's gravity pulls away any atmosphere the Moon collects.

C) the Moon lacks sufficient gravity to retain an atmosphere.

D) there is no life on the Moon.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.02 Topic: The Moon; Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Atmospheres

19) What we call the Moon's surface layer?

A) regolith B) rilles C) maria D) craters Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.02 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Lunar Surface Features 20) What is the composition of the lunar regolith?

A) anorthosite and basalt B) basalt and olivine C) olivine and silicon dioxide D) silicon dioxide and anorthosite Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.02 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Lunar Surface Features 21) Why is the regolith light-colored in the highlands, while darker in the maria?

A) The highland regions receive more sunlight than the maria.

B) The regolith in the maria has a different mineral composition.

C) The highland regolith is younger, and therefore lighter in color.

D) Lunar regolith is the same color everywhere, but the maria reflect less light.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.02 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Lunar Surface Features

22) What does the Moon's lack of a magnetic field suggest about its internal structure?

A) The Moon's core is smaller and cooler than Earth's.

B) The Moon's interior has not differentiated.

C) The Moon's mantle is too cold to form convection cells.

D) The Moon's crust is very thick and poor in iron.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.02 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Internal Structure of the Moon 23) What does the Moon's low density suggest about its internal structure?

A) The Moon's iron core is smaller relative to Earth's.

B) The lunar interior has not differentiated.

C) The lunar mantle extends to the center of the Moon.

D) The Moon's crust is very thick and poor in iron.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.02 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Internal Structure of the Moon 24) How is the Moon's mantle different from Earth's?

A) The lunar mantle is too cold to form convection cells.

B) The lunar mantle has a different composition than Earth's.

C) The Moon's mantle has a higher density than Earth's.

D) The lunar mantle extends to the center of the Moon.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.02 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Internal Structure of the Moon

25) How is the Moon's crust similar to Earth's?

A) The lunar crust is mostly silicate rock.

B) The lunar crust is thicker on one side than the other.

C) Volcanic activity produced most of the craters on the Moon.

D) New lunar crust is forming at plate boundaries.

E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.02 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Lunar Surface Features; Lunar Geography; Internal Structure of the Moon 26) Comparing the near and far sides of the Moon, we find that the far side A) is more heavily cratered than the near side B) has as many maria as the near side C) has regolith composed mostly of basalt D) has a much lower temperature than the near side E) All of these choices are correct.

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.02 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Lunar Surface Features; Lunar Geography; Internal Structure of the Moon 27) One difference between the near and far sides of the moon is that A) the far side has no maria B) the far side is more heavily cratered C) the far side is almost all rough terrain D) the far side's crust is mostly anorthosite E) All of these choices are correct.

.

Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.02 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Lunar Surface Features; Lunar Geography; Internal Structure of the Moon

28) Why doesn't the Moon have an atmosphere?

A) It had very few volcanoes and the gravity is too weak to hold a substantial atmosphere.

B) The blasts that formed the craters blew it away.

C) The Moon's atmosphere was drawn away from it by Earth's stronger gravitational force.

D) The solar wind evaporated the Moon's atmosphere.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.02 Topic: The Moon; Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Atmospheres 29) Scientists recently confirmed the presence of water ice at the poles of the Moon. Where did this water come from?

A) The ice is all that remains of the Moon's polar ice caps, present in the Moon's early history.

B) Water was deposited on the Moon by cometary impacts, and it condensed in deep polar craters.

C) Early lunar oceans evaporated quickly, and the water vapor condensed in deep polar craters.

D) The water is released as polar region crust stretches due to tidal forces from Earth.

E) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.02 Topic: The Moon; Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Lunar Surface Features; Lunar Geography; Terrestrial Atmospheres 30) The lunar escape velocity is Earth's.

A) higher than B) lower than C) the same as D) We have not measured the Moon's escape velocity.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.02 Topic: The Moon; Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Atmospheres

31) Until we sent missions to the Moon, no one on Earth had seen the far side of the Moon.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.02 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Lunar Surface Features; Lunar Geography 32) Like the near side of the Moon, the far side has the same general features, a mix of maria and highlands.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.02 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Lunar Surface Features; Lunar Geography 33) The Moon contains small amounts of frozen water that is mixed in with its rocks.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.02 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Lunar Surface Features; Lunar Geography 34) The distance between Earth and the Moon A) remains constant as the Moon orbits about Earth.

B) varies as the Moon orbits about Earth.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.03 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Orbit of the Moon

35) Which statement about the Moon's orbit is true?

A) The Moon is in synchronous rotation as it orbits Earth.

B) The Moon is in a geosynchronous orbit around Earth.

C) The Moon's orbit is aligned with Earth's orbit.

D) The Moon rotates in the opposite direction than it orbits Earth.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.03 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Orbit of the Moon 36) How many times does the Moon rotate on its axis in one orbital period?

A) only once B) twice C) several times D) The Moon does not rotate.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.03 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Orbit of the Moon 37) From the observation that the same side of the Moon always faces Earth, one can conclude that A) the Moon does not rotate.

B) the Moon completes one rotation each time Earth rotates.

C) the Moon completes one rotation each time it completes an orbit around Earth.

D) the Moon completes two rotations each time it completes an orbit around Earth.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.03 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Orbit of the Moon

38) The Moon is about one-quarter the diameter of Earth. How does its mass compare?

A) The Moon is 1/4 as massive as Earth.

B) The Moon is 1/6 as massive as Earth.

C) The Moon is 1/32 as massive as Earth.

D) The Moon is 1/81 as massive as Earth.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.03 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Internal Structure of the Moon; Formation of the Moon 39) The Moon's angular size .

A) is largest at the full moon phase and smallest at the new moon phase B) does not change as it orbits Earth C) is larger during eclipses than at other times D) is higher when the Moon is closer to Earth E) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.03 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Orbit of the Moon 40) How do we most accurately measure the distance to the Moon?

A) We measure the lunar period and use Kepler's Third Law. B) We bounce a pulse of light off the lunar surface and measure how long the trip takes.

C) We know how long it took Apollo astronauts to get there, and how fast the rocket traveled.

D) We measure its angular size and compare it to its actual diameter, which gives us its distance.

E) All of these choices provide equally accurate measurements.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.03 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Orbit of the Moon

41) What is synchronous rotation?

A) a body's rotation rate that does not change with time B) a body's rotation rate that is equal to its orbital period C) a body's rotation rate that is equal to its parent planet's rotation rate D) a body's rotation rate that changes with orbital distance Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.03 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Orbit of the Moon 42) How is the Moon's orbit around Earth different from most major satellite orbits around other planets?

A) The Moon orbits much faster than other satellites.

B) The Moon's orbital plane is tipped relative to Earth's equator.

C) The Moon follows an elliptical orbit around Earth.

D) The same side of the Moon faces Earth throughout its orbit.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.03 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Orbit of the Moon 43) There is a permanent dark side of the Moon.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.03 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Orbit of the Moon

44) Which of the following hypotheses for the origins of the Moon is generally accepted by astronomers?

A) The Moon formed alongside Earth (the twin theory).

B) The Moon is the result of a collision between Earth and a Mars-sized object in the early days of the solar system (the collision theory).

C) The Moon was originally a bulge on Earth that was flung off by the rapidly spinning Earth (fission theory).

D) The Moon formed somewhere else and was later captured by Earth (capture theory).

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.04 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Formation of the Moon 45) If the Moon was originally a small planet orbiting the Sun, which was then captured by Earth's gravity, what can we predict about the composition of moon rocks collected by Apollo astronauts?

A) Moon rocks should have the same composition as rocks found on Earth.

B) Moon rocks should have a completely different composition than rocks found on Earth.

C) Moon rocks should have a composition that is the same as Earth's crust.

D) Moon rocks should have some similar, and some different compositional characteristics.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.04 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Formation of the Moon

46) If the Moon formed out of the same cloud of material from which Earth formed, what can we predict about the composition of moon rocks collected by Apollo astronauts?

A) Moon rocks should have the same composition as rocks found on Earth.

B) Moon rocks should have a completely different composition than rocks found on and inside Earth.

C) Moon rocks should have a composition that is the same as Earth's crust.

D) Moon rocks should have some similar and some different compositional characteristics.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.04 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Formation of the Moon 47) If the material that formed the Moon was ejected by Earth due to a rapid rotation rate, what can we predict about the composition of moon rocks collected by Apollo astronauts?

A) Moon rocks should have the same composition as rocks found on and inside Earth.

B) Moon rocks should have a completely different composition than rocks found on Earth.

C) Moon rocks should have a composition that is the same as Earth's crust.

D) Moon rocks should have some similar and some different compositional characteristics.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.04 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Formation of the Moon 48) If the material that formed the Moon was debris from a collision between the early Earth and another body, what can we predict about the composition of moon rocks collected by Apollo astronauts?

A) Moon rocks should have the same composition as rocks found on and inside Earth.

B) Moon rocks should have a completely different composition than rocks found on Earth.

C) Moon rocks should have a composition that is the same as Earth's crust.

D) Moon rocks should have some similar and some different compositional characteristics.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.04 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Formation of the Moon

49) Planetary scientists believe that the Moon was most likely a nearby small planet gravitationally captured by Earth.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.04 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Formation of the Moon 50) If high tide is at noon, the next high tide will be at A) midnight.

B) 6 pm C) 6 am D) noon tomorrow.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.05 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Tides 51) If the Moon were farther from Earth, compared to now, the tides would be A) about the same as now.

B) neap tides would be shallower, and spring tides would be taller than now.

C) less tall all the time.

D) higher all the time.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.05 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Tides

52) Why do we always see only one side of the Moon?

A) The Moon does not rotate.

B) The Moon is tidally locked with Earth.

C) The far (opposite) side only faces Earth during the daytime when the Sun's light outshines the Moon.

D) From time to time we see all the sides of the Moon from Earth.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.05 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Tidal Braking 53) When our Earth becomes tidally locked with the Moon, which of the following statements will be true?

A) The Moon will only be visible during the day.

B) There will be no eclipses.

C) The Moon will not go through phases.

D) An astronaut on the Moon would see only one side of Earth.

Answer: D Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 07.05 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Tidal Braking 54) The differential gravitational force of the Moon on Earth is the cause of A) tides B) precession C) phases D) the Coriolis force E) seasons Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.05 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Tides

.

55) Why is there a tidal bulge on the opposite side of Earth from the Moon?

A) Centrifugal force makes the far side of Earth push outward.

B) The far side of Earth receives a weaker pull from the Moon, and accelerates less than the near side.

C) The gravitational force from the Moon is stronger on the near side, but the pull of Earth on the water is stronger on the far side.

D) The Sun creates a tidal bulge as well as the Moon.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.05 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Tides 56) Why do we have two high tides per day?

A) There are two tidal bulges, and the rotation of Earth carries us through both of them every day.

B) The rotation of Earth and the motion of the Moon around Earth drag both tidal bulges over us.

C) The Moon and the Sun create separate tidal bulges, resulting in two high tides per day.

D) About half of Earth's water must flow past more geological barriers, slowing it down.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.05 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Tides 57) Why do today's high tides arrive about an hour later than yesterday's tides?

A) Friction between the surface of Earth and the water slow the water's motion.

B) The Moon rises and sets about an hour later every day, and the tides follow the Moon.

C) The gravitational pull of the Sun on the tidal bulges slows their flow around Earth.

D) The tidal bulges include dry land as well as water, and dry land responds to the tidal forces more slowly.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.05 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Tides

58) If there is a high tide at noon, about when can you expect the next low tide?

A) at about 3 PM B) at about 6 PM C) around 9 PM D) at about midnight Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.05 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Tides 59) How will high tides differ from their average values when the Moon is in its new phase?

A) They will be higher than average.

B) They will be lower than average.

C) They will not differ from average values significantly.

D) There are no high tides when the Moon is new.

Answer: A Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 07.05 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Tides 60) How will high tides differ from their average values when the Moon and the Sun are on the same side of Earth?

A) They will be higher than average.

B) They will be lower than average.

C) They will not differ from average values significantly.

D) There are no high tides when the Moon is near the Sun in the sky.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.05 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Tides

61) How will high tides differ from their average values when the Moon is in its full phase?

A) They will be higher than average.

B) They will be lower than average.

C) They will not differ from average values significantly.

D) There are no high tides when the Moon is full.

Answer: A Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 07.05 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Tides 62) How will high tides differ from their average values when the Moon and the Sun are on opposite sides of Earth?

A) They will be higher than average.

B) They will be lower than average.

C) They will not differ from average values significantly.

D) There are no high tides when the Moon and Sun pull in opposite directions.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.05 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Tides 63) How will high tides differ from their average values when the Moon is in its first- or thirdquarter phase?

A) They will be higher than average.

B) They will be lower than average.

C) They will not differ from average values significantly.

D) There are no high tides when the Moon is in its first- or third-quarter phase.

Answer: B Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 07.05 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Tides

64) How will high tides differ from their average values when the Moon and the Sun are 90 degrees from each other in the sky?

A) They will be higher than average.

B) They will be lower than average.

C) They will not differ from average values significantly.

D) There are no high tides when the Moon and the Sun are 90 degrees from each other in the sky.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.05 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Tides 65) When our Earth becomes tidally locked with the Moon, which of the following statements will be true?

A) The Moon will only be visible from one side of Earth.

B) There will be no eclipses.

C) The Moon will not go through phases.

D) An astronaut on the Moon will always see the day side of Earth.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.05 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Tidal Braking 66) How do the tides slow the rotation of Earth?

A) Tidal bulges move mass away from the center of Earth, slowing its rotation like a figure skater.

B) Tidal bulges generate drag forces between Earth and its water, slowing its rotation.

C) Alternating high and low tides create a wobble in Earth's rotation.

D) The tip in the Moon's orbital plane makes moving the tidal bulges away from the equator more difficult.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.05 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Tidal Braking

67) If the Moon orbited Earth backward, how would tidal interactions change?

A) The tides would arrive about an hour earlier every day.

B) The Moon would not be tidally locked with Earth.

C) The length of the day on Earth would increase.

D) The distance between Earth and the Moon would increase.

Answer: A Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 07.05 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Tidal Braking 68) Earth's rotation is being gradually slowed by the Moon's gravity.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.05 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Tidal Braking 69) The Sun causes tides on the Earth in addition to the Moon.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.05 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Tides 70) Solar tides are not as strong as lunar tides mostly because the Sun is much farther away than the Moon.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 07.05 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Tides

71) We can think of the high tide on the side of Earth opposite the Moon as a result of the Moon pulling Earth away from the water.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.05 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Tides 72) The spring tides occur in spring seasons and the neap tides in autumn.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.05 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Tides 73) Because of its distance, the Sun does not have any effect on Earth's ocean tides.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 07.05 Topic: The Moon Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Tides

Explorations: Introduction to Astronomy 9th Edition Thomas Arny Chapter 8 Survey of Solar Systems 1) Based on our understanding of our own solar system, which of the following would be most surprising to observe in an extra solar system of planets?

A) The planets nearest to the star have a lower density than the planets farther out.

B) Several planets show large tilts of their rotation axis compared to the plane of their orbits.

C) All the gas giants have moons.

D) Several planets have dense atmospheres containing carbon compounds.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.01 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Planets; Average Density 2) Complete this sentence: The Sun, Earth, Jupiter, and Saturn's icy moons are all very different environments, .

A) the result of each type of object forming from different interstellar clouds B) but their differences are only because of where each currently is in the Solar System C) but all formed from the same basic group of chemicals D) but their differences are because each contains very different chemicals Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.01 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar System Formation

3) How many stars are there in our Solar System?

A) one B) eight C) nine D) a few hundred E) about ten million Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.01 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: None 4) Counting out from the Sun, which planet occupies the position after Jupiter?

A) Neptune B) Mars C) Venus D) Earth E) Saturn Answer: E Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.01 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Planetary Orbits and Spins 5) When we see them in the night sky, which of the following objects are emitting their own light?

A) Mars B) Venus C) the Moon D) the Sun E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.01 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: None

6) How many planets are there in our Solar System?

A) 1 B) 4 C) 8 D) 9 Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.01 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: None 7) The farthest planet of our Solar System is A) Mars B) Uranus C) Jupiter D) Neptune

.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.01 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: None 8) Which planets have densities similar to that of Earth's?

A) Mars and Mercury B) Jupiter and Saturn C) Uranus and Neptune D) Pluto and Charon Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.01 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Planets; Average Density

9) In our Solar System, an object is called a planet if A) it orbits the Sun. B) it is spherical.

C) it has cleared its neighborhood.

D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.01 Topic: Solar Systems; Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar System Formation; Pluto and Plutoids; The Pluto Decision 10) Pluto is classified as a dwarf planet because A) it doesn't orbit the Sun. B) it is not spherical.

C) it has not cleared its neighborhood.

D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.01 Topic: Solar Systems; Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar System Formation; Pluto and Plutoids; The Pluto Decision 11) A spherical region that surrounds the Solar System and extends up to about 100,000 AU from the Sun is called the A) Asteroid belt.

B) Kuiper belt.

C) Oort cloud.

D) Solar nebula.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.01 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Comets

12) Comets are A) icy; rocky B) large; small C) rocky; icy D) young; old

_ while asteroids are

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.01 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Comets; Asteroids 13) Astronomers estimate that the age of the Solar System is about A) 4.6 million B) 4.6 billion C) 4.6 trillion D) 13.7 billion

years.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.01 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar System Formation 14) Compared to the planets the A) Jovian; terrestrial; low density B) Jovian; terrestrial; high escape velocity C) terrestrial; Jovian; small diameter D) terrestrial; Jovian; many satellites

planets have

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.01 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Planets; Average Density; Jovian Planets

.

15) How many exoplanets are there in the Solar System?

A) 0 B) 8 C) at least 2000 D) 100 billion Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.02 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Exoplanets 16) What are the third, fifth, and seventh planets in order of increasing distance from the Sun? A) Venus, Earth, Jupiter B) Earth, Jupiter, Uranus C) Mercury, Mars, Saturn D) Mars, Jupiter, Neptune Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.01 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Planetary Orbits and Spins 17) All planets spin in the same direction except for A) Mercury, Earth, and Jupiter.

B) Venus, Mars, and Saturn.

C) Venus, Uranus, and Pluto.

D) Neptune, Uranus, and Pluto.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.01 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Planetary Orbits and Spins

18) Which of the following is an outer planet?

A) Earth B) Jupiter C) Mars D) Venus Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.01 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Planetary Orbits and Spins 19) Which of the following is NOT a property of the outer planets?

A) They all have solid surfaces for spacecraft to land on.

B) They are composed mostly of hydrogen and helium.

C) They all have rings.

D) They are all far more massive than Earth.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.01 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Jovian Planets 20) A planet's average density is equal to its A) mass; surface area B) volume; mass C) mass; volume D) mass; radius Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.01 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Average Density

divided by its

.

21) What do we call the swarm of comet nuclei in a huge shell surrounding the Sun and planets?

A) the Solar System B) the Asteroid belt C) the ecliptic D) the Oort cloud Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.01 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Comets 22) Why is Pluto NOT considered a Jovian planet?

A) Its mass and radius are very small, and it lacks the thick atmosphere of hydrogen seen on the other Jovian planets.

B) It is so far out in the Solar System.

C) Its interior is mostly rock and iron.

D) Its atmosphere is rich in oxygen, making it more like Earth.

E) It is not really orbiting the Sun but is simply drifting through the outer edge of the Solar System.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.01 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Average Density; Jovian Planets 23) How do we know the interior composition of Jupiter?

A) Astronomers examined Jupiter's spectrum.

B) Astronomers studied earthquake waves using instruments on Jupiter's surface.

C) Astronomers calculated Jupiter's average density and compared it to those of abundant candidate materials, taking gravitational compression into account.

D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.01 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Average Density; Jovian Planets

24) Why are Uranus and Neptune known as ice giants, rather than gas giants?

A) Their interiors may contain large quantities of water ice and other ices under tremendous pressure.

B) Their interiors may contain liquid water and other materials that would be ices if not for the hot cores of those planets.

C) Uranus and Neptune are much smaller than Jupiter or Saturn.

D) Uranus and Neptune are much colder than Jupiter or Saturn.

E) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.01 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Jovian Planets 25) Which two planets are known as ice giants?

A) Uranus and Neptune B) Pluto and Charon C) Jupiter and Saturn D) Earth and Mars Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.01 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Jovian Planets 26) How do scientists estimate the age of the Solar System?

A) They measure the ratios of radioactive elements in rocks.

B) They count the number of craters on the Moon and Mercury.

C) They measure the heat content of the planets.

D) They compare the weathering of rocks on Earth with lunar rocks.

E) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.01 Topic: Solar Systems; Earth Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar System Formation; Age of Earth

27) Asteroids are located in the Kuiper belt.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.01 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Comets; Asteroids 28) All the planets move about the Sun in randomly oriented orbits.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.01 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Planetary Orbits and Spins 29) As seen from the north celestial pole, the planets orbit the Sun in a counterclockwise direction.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.01 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Planetary Orbits and Spins 30) All of the Solar System's dwarf planets are located in the Kuiper belt.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.01 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Planetary Orbits and Spins

31) Which of the following is NOT a method used by astronomers to detect and study exoplanets?

A) rotational mapping B) gravitational lensing C) doppler shift D) transit detection E) direct imaging Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.02 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Exoplanet Detection Methods 32) Exoplanets are A) another name for dwarf planets.

B) the outermost planets in our Solar System.

C) minor planets in the Asteroid belt.

D) planets around stars other than the Sun. Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.02 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Exoplanets 33) Why is it difficult to observe an exoplanet directly through a telescope?

A) Exoplanet atmospheres absorb too much light B) Exoplanets are small compared to their parent star, so they reflect only a small portion of the star's light.

C) Exoplanets tend to be far away from their parent stars, making it hard to get both the star and the exoplanet in the telescope's field of view.

D) It is hard to see exoplanets against the blackness of space.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.02 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Exoplanet Detection Methods; Exoplanets

34) What is gravitational lensing?

A) the use of small telescopes to enhance the brightness of stars B) the focusing and brightening of starlight by the gravitational field of a foreground object C) the temporary disappearance of a star as an object passes in front of it D) the use of Earth's gravity to shape lenses during grinding Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.02 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Exoplanet Detection Methods; Exoplanets 35) How have astronomers discovered planets orbiting a star beyond the Sun? A) They can see the planet brighten as it passes in front of its parent star.

B) They can be detected by the slight gravitational tug that they exert on their parent stars.

C) They have bounced radar off them.

D) So far, no planets have been discovered around any other stars.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.02 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Exoplanet Detection Methods; Exoplanets 36) Measuring the changing light output of a star to search for exoplanets is called A) the transit method B) gravitational lensing C) the Doppler method D) spectroscopy Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.02 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Exoplanet Detection Methods

.

37) Alien astronomers are using the radial-velocity method to look for planets around our Sun. Which planet are they most likely to detect first?

A) Earth B) Jupiter C) Neptune D) Mercury Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.02 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Exoplanet Detection Methods 38) Astronomers are surprised that the radial-velocity method for detecting planets has not discovered more smaller, Earth-like planets.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.02 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Exoplanet Detection Methods; Exoplanets 39) The discovery of extra solar planets confirms Bode's law.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.02 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Planetary Orbits and Spins

40) Which of the following observations does NOT inform astronomers about how the Solar System must have formed.

A) All known ages for Solar System bodies are 4.6 billion years or younger.

B) The Solar System is flat in structure.

C) The farther out planets take longer to complete an orbit about the Sun. D) The inner four planets are small and rocky, while the outer four planets are large and gaseous.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.03 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar System Formation 41) Given that Mercury, Mars, and some of the moons of the gas giants are covered with craters, why do we not see lots of impacts happening today?

A) All the planetesimals have collided with planets already.

B) We would, but the impacts have always happened at a very slow rate and built up over billions of years.

C) Most of the impacts happen on the far sides of these bodies.

D) Gravitational interactions between planets and planetesimals ejected most of the larger debris.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.03 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar System Formation

42) Thinking about the formation of the solar system, what trend in composition would you expect to see from the inside to the outside of the asteroid belt?

A) rockier asteroids progressing toward ones with more hydrogen and carbon compounds B) iron asteroids progressing more toward one with silicates C) essentially the same composition all the way through D) asteroids with hydrogen and carbon compounds, progressing toward asteroids made primarily of ice E) asteroids with hydrogen and carbon compounds, progressing toward asteroids made primarily of iron and silicates Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.03 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar System Formation 43) What is the name of the nebula from which our Solar System was formed?

A) Pseudo nebula B) Solar nebula C) Orion nebula D) Crab nebula Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.03 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar System Formation 44) Which property of the Solar nebula was the most influential in giving the planets their characteristics?

A) mass B) pressure C) volume D) temperature Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.03 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar System Formation

45) The process in which a gas cools and its molecules stick together to form liquid particles is called A) condensation.

B) depression.

C) evaporation.

D) sublimation.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.03 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar System Formation 46) Which was the last part of the planet-forming process?

A) formation of the atmosphere of the planets B) formation of the planets' core C) formation of the planetesimals D) formation of the Sun Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.03 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar System Formation 47) Which of the following explains the rocky nature of the inner planets?

A) The lighter elements (hydrogen and helium) were sucked in by the Sun's gravity.

B) The Sun's gravity attracted the rocks to the inner part of the Solar System.

C) Only the rocky material could condense at the higher temperatures of the inner part of the Solar nebula.

D) As the Solar nebula was spinning, the light gases were tossed to the outer parts of the disk.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.03 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar System Formation

48) According to the nebular hypothesis, which of the following sequences of events are chronologically correct?

A) Solar nebula, interstellar cloud, collisions between planetesimals, accretion, planets B) interstellar cloud, Solar nebula, accretion, collisions between planetesimals, planets C) interstellar cloud, accretion, Solar nebula, collisions between planetesimals, planets D) accretion, Solar nebula, interstellar cloud, collisions between planets, planetesimals Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.03 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar System Formation 49) What conclusion can be drawn from the fact that some planets and satellites with solid surfaces have impact craters?

A) Collisions between Solar System bodies and planetesimals were common at one time.

B) The young planets had softer surfaces.

C) Volcanoes were very active in the early stages of planet formation.

D) The Sun went through several explosions, ejecting material that scarred the planets and satellites.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.03 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar System Formation 50) Why was the recent discovery that planets more massive than Jupiter orbit nearby stars in small orbits surprising?

A) Because according to the nebular hypothesis, massive planets should only form away from their star.

B) The density of these planets is very high.

C) According to the nebular hypothesis, planets cannot be larger than Jupiter.

D) The nebular hypothesis predicts that close-in planets should have formed a second star.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.03 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar System Formation

51) Which of the following is the strongest evidence in support of the hypothesis that the Solar System was formed by the collapse of a gas and dust nebula?

A) radiometric dating of dust from the Moon's surface B) images of other stars with gas and dust disks surrounding them C) the existence of large clouds D) the discovery of extra solar planets Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.03 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar System Formation 52) Which of the following Solar System objects has a composition that most resembles the original Solar nebula?

A) the terrestrial planets B) the Jovian planets C) the dwarf planets D) the asteroids E) comets Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.03 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar System Formation; Jovian Planets 53) Astronomers believe that many satellites of the Jovian planets were .

A) formed by fission B) formed by collisions with other objects C) formed from planetesimals orbiting the growing planet and accreting into larger bodies D) formed elsewhere in the Solar System and were later captured by Jupiter's gravitational pull Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.03 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar System Formation; Jovian Planets

54) A huge interstellar cloud collapsed into a rotating disk with a central bulge. What did this object become?

A) The disk was the Solar nebula and the bulge became Jupiter.

B) A large belt containing asteroids in a gap between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.

C) The disk was the solar nebula and the bulge became the Sun. D) They formed the outer planets which eventually met up with the Sun. Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.03 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar System Formation 55) Which of the following features of the Solar System does the solar nebula hypothesis explain?

A) All the planets orbit the Sun in the same direction.

B) All the planets' orbits lie in nearly the same plane.

C) The planets nearest the Sun contain only small amounts of substances that condense at low temperatures.

D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.03 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar System Formation 56) One reason the planets near the Sun are composed mainly of rock and iron may be that A) the Sun's magnetic field attracted all the iron into the region around the Sun. B) the Sun's heat made it difficult for ices and gases to condense near it.

C) the Sun's gravity sucked in iron and heavy material and the lighter materials floated farther away.

D) the Sun is made mostly of iron, so the planets nearest it are formed of iron.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.03 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar System Formation

57) What are interstellar grains?

A) tiny dust particles that are part of interstellar clouds B) leftover fragments of planetesimals that are blown out of the Solar System C) droplets of material that have condensed out of the Solar nebula D) the material out of which exoplanets are formed Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.03 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar System Formation 58) What are planetesimals?

A) very small planets B) satellites of the giant planets C) planets that are found orbiting other stars D) large chunks of material (1 mm to several km in size) from which the planets were formed Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.03 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar System Formation 59) How did the natural satellites in the Solar System form?

A) The moons probably formed from planetesimals orbiting the growing planets.

B) The moons likely were "captured" as they wandered too close to the planets.

C) The moons formed by the accretion of debris from massive collisions.

D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.03 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar System Formation

60) Which of the following features of the Solar System does the solar nebula hypothesis explain?

A) All the planets orbit the Sun in the same direction.

B) All the planets move in orbits that lie in nearly the same plane.

C) The planets nearest the Sun contain only small amounts of substances that condense at low temperatures.

D) All the planets and the Sun, to the extent that we know, are the same age.

E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.03 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar System Formation 61) The numerous craters we see on the solid surfaces of so many Solar System bodies are evidence that .

A) they were so hot in their youth that volcanoes were widespread B) the Sun was so hot that it melted all these bodies and made them boil C) these bodies were originally a mix of water and rock. As the young Sun heated up, the water boiled, creating hollow pockets in the rock D) they were bombarded in their youth by many solid objects E) all the planets were once part of a single, very large and volcanically active mass that subsequently broke into many smaller pieces Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.03 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar System Formation

62) Ice giants have been discovered orbiting very close to their parent stars. How is this possible?

A) The stars are relatively cool, allowing ice giants to form close to them.

B) Ice giants may have formed farther from their star, but migrated inward.

C) The star may have captured a passing planet.

D) The gravitational force of massive stars can pull icy planetesimals inward from the outer parts of the system.

E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.03 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar System Formation; Exoplanets 63) All the planets, asteroids, comets, and most of the moons in the Solar System formed at about the same time.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.03 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar System Formation 64) Most of the larger moons of gas giants were formed at the same time as the gas giants, but somewhere else in the Solar System, and captured by the gas giants later.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.03 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar System Formation; Jovian Planets

65) The fact that some satellites and planets have cratered surfaces supports the hypothesis that planets and satellites were bombarded by planetesimals.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.03 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar System Formation 66) The discovery of extra solar planetary systems supports the idea that over time, planets may migrate inward.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.03 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar System Formation; Exoplanets 67) Which dwarf planet does NOT have a moon?

A) Pluto B) Ceres C) Makemake D) Haumea E) Eris Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.01 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Pluto and Plutoids

68) After correcting for detection limitations, what do astronomers believe is the most common type of exoplanet?

A) Terrestrial B) Super-Earths C) Ice giants D) Gas giants E) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 08.02 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Exoplanets 69) Which properties affect the location of the habitable zone?

A) Exoplanet semi-major axis B) Number of exoplanets in the system C) Star size D) All of these choices are correct.

E) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.02 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Exoplanets 70) Which exoplanet detection method requires us to be in the same plane as the exoplanetary system?

A) Direct imaging B) Radial-velocity method C) Gravitational lensing D) Transit method E) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.02 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Exoplanet Detection Methods

71) Which statement is correct?

A) Only radial-velocity and gravitational lensing methods reveal the mass of the planet.

B) Only direct imaging and transit methods reveal the radius of the planet.

C) Only radial-velocity and transit methods reveal the radius of the planet.

D) Only direct imaging and gravitational lensing methods reveal the mass of the planet.

E) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.02 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Exoplanet Detection Methods 72) Which statement is correct?

A) No exoplanets have been detected orbiting closer than 1 au to their stars.

B) No exoplanets have been detected orbiting binary stars.

C) No gas giants have been detected orbiting closer than 1 au to their stars.

D) No systems of multiple exoplanets have been detected.

E) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.02 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Exoplanets 73) Several surprising discoveries were made as astronomers began detecting exoplanets. Which statement is correct?

A) There are terrestrial planets larger than Earth.

B) Some exoplanets have extremely elliptical orbits.

C) Gas giants can orbit extremely close to their star.

D) All of these choices are correct.

E) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.02 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Exoplanets

74) What makes direct imaging of exoplanets possible?

A) Exoplanets emit their own light in the infrared, where the host star is dimmer.

B) Exoplanets emit their own light in visible wavelengths, where the host star is dimmer.

C) Exoplanets reflect light directly toward their host star.

D) Exoplanets are very dim compared to their host star.

E) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 08.02 Topic: Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Exoplanet Detection Methods

Explorations: Introduction to Astronomy 9th Edition Thomas Arny Chapter 9 The Terrestrial Planets 1) Which terrestrial planet is about one-third the size of Earth?

A) Mercury B) Venus C) Earth D) Mars Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.01 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Differences between Terrestrial Planets 2) The Caloris Basin found on Mercury was probably formed by what process?

A) plate tectonics B) an impact from a planetesimal C) volcanic activity D) erosion from solar wind Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.01 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Surface Features 3) Mercury has only a trace atmosphere because A) its close proximity to the Sun allows the Sun to gravitationally pull gases directly off the surface of Mercury.

B) impacts from planetesimals caused its original atmosphere to evaporate away.

C) its slow rotation allows atmospheric gases to escape the planet.

D) its smaller size means it has gravitational attraction that is too weak to hold onto an atmosphere.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.01 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Atmospheres

4) Which planet shows the largest variation of day and night temperatures?

A) Mercury B) Venus C) Earth D) Mars Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.01 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Differences between Terrestrial Planets, Terrestrial Atmospheres 5) The surface of Mercury resembles the Moon's surface in that they are both A) eroded by wind B) newly resurfaced C) heavily cratered D) covered with volcanoes Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.01 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Surface Features 6) Of all the terrestrial planets, A) Mercury B) Venus C) Earth D) Mars

has the largest daily temperature variation.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.01 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Differences between Terrestrial Planets, Terrestrial Atmospheres

.

7) Mercury's average density is about as high as Earth's. This is most likely because A) it contains a significantly higher fraction of iron than Earth.

B) it is highly compressed by its own gravity.

C) it is composed of material blasted off Earth in a collision.

D) unlike Earth, it does not have a (light) atmosphere that lowers its average density.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.01 Topic: Terrestrial Planets; Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interior Structures and Dynamics; Average Density 8) Mercury's crust A) is molten because it is so close to the Sun. B) may have been mostly lost after a collision with a large planetesimal.

C) is much thicker than Earth's or Venus's.

D) has an unusually high concentration of silicate rocks.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.01 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Surface Features 9) Mercury features long, steep cliffs in its crust called "scarps" which probably formed A) after impacts from a planetesimal or asteroid.

B) from floods of running water left to evaporate after comet impacts.

C) as plates of crust shifted as a result of massive earthquakes at a fault.

D) like giant wrinkles as the crust cooled and shrank.

E) by erosion from high solar winds.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.01 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Surface Features

10) For every two trips around the Sun, Mercury only spins about its rotational axis three times.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.01 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Planetary Motion 11) What is the surface of Mercury like?

A) rocky, with craters and scarps B) rocky, with volcanoes and old ocean basins C) gaseous D) mostly rock, but covered about 40% by liquid methane Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.01 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Surface Features 12) Which surface feature of the Moon is NOT found on Mercury?

A) craters B) maria C) rays D) mountains Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.01 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Surface Features

13) Why is the surface of Mercury more level (flatter) than the surface of the Moon?

A) Mercury has stronger gravity and had a hotter interior.

B) Heat from the Sun made Mercury's surface softer and more malleable.

C) The Moon formed out of the debris from a collision of two larger bodies.

D) Tidal forces from Earth have pulled the Moon out of shape.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.01 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Surface Features 14) How did Mercury's chaotic terrain form?

A) A hot spot in Mercury's crust generated earthquakes, which jumbled the surface material.

B) Earthquake waves from the impact that formed Caloris Basin heaved up the rock in this region.

C) Many impacts in that region created the feature, and it was never smoothed over by lava flows.

D) Tidal stresses from Mercury's elliptical orbit have wrinkled that part of the surface.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.01 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Surface Features 15) What does Mercury most resemble in size and appearance?

A) Venus B) Mars C) the Moon D) Earth Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.01 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Surface Features

16) Does Mercury have an atmosphere? Why or why not?

A) Yes. Mercury has a substantial atmosphere of solar hydrogen and helium.

B) Yes, but it is only one-tenth the atmosphere of Venus.

C) It has only traces of gases temporarily captured from space, as well as material outgassing from the surface.

D) Astronomers have not been able to tell so far.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.01 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Atmospheres 17) Why is the nightside of Mercury so much colder (relatively speaking) than the dayside?

A) Mercury is in synchronous rotation, so the far side of Mercury never sees the Sun. B) Mercury's small size lets it cool quickly.

C) Mercury's slow rotation gives the nightside plenty of time to release its heat.

D) Mercury's magnetic field acts like a blanket on the planet's dayside.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.01 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Atmospheres 18) Why is the nightside of Mercury so much colder (relatively speaking) than the dayside?

A) Mercury is in synchronous rotation, so the far side of Mercury never sees the Sun. B) Mercury's small size lets it cool quickly.

C) Mercury's lack of an atmosphere keeps the planet from retaining its surface heat.

D) Mercury's magnetic field acts like a blanket on the planet's dayside.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.01 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Atmospheres

19) Ice has been discovered at Mercury's poles. How can it survive, given the planet's dayside temperature?

A) Mercury's small size let the planet cool quickly.

B) Mercury has an elliptical orbit that carries it far from the Sun. C) Parts of Mercury's poles are in permanent shadow.

D) Mercury rotates such that one side of the planet always faces the Sun. Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.01 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Atmospheres 20) Mercury's average density is about 50% greater than the Moon's, even though the two bodies have similar radii. This suggests that Mercury('s) A) interior is much richer in iron than the Moon's.

B) contains proportionately far more rock than the Moon.

C) greater mass has prevented its gravitational attraction from compressing it as much as the Moon's is.

D) must have a liquid water core.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.01 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interior Structures and Dynamics 21) Why was the discovery of Mercury's liquid core a surprise to scientists?

A) Mercury's small size should have allowed it to cool early in its history.

B) Mercury's magnetic field was too weak to be generated by a liquid core.

C) Mercury's density suggested that there should have been a small solid core.

D) Mercury's rotation was too slow to sustain a liquid core.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.01 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interior Structures and Dynamics

22) Why is Mercury's magnetic field so weak, relative to Earth's?

A) Mercury has a solid core that cannot sustain a strong field.

B) Mercury's rotation is too slow to generate a strong field.

C) Mercury has a very small iron core that cannot sustain a strong field.

D) Mercury's dayside temperature is too high for a strong field to form.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.01 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interior Structures and Dynamics 23) What is the effect of resonance on Mercury's rotation?

A) Mercury shows the same face to the Sun when Mercury is closest to it.

B) Mercury spins three times on its axis for every two orbits.

C) Mercury's spin has slowed down.

D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.01 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interior Structures and Dynamics 24) Which planet has the hottest surface temperature?

A) Mercury B) Venus C) Earth D) Mars Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.02 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Differences between Terrestrial Planets, Terrestrial Atmospheres

25) Which planet has a greenhouse effect?

A) Mercury B) Venus C) Earth D) Mars E) Venus, Earth, and Mars Answer: E Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.02 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Atmospheres, The Greenhouse Effect 26) Which of the other terrestrial planets is closest in size to Earth?

A) Mars B) Venus C) Mercury D) the Moon Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.02 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Differences between Terrestrial Planets 27) The atmosphere of Venus consists mainly of A) carbon dioxide B) sulfuric acid C) nitrogen and oxygen D) carbon monoxide E) hydrogen and helium Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.02 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Atmospheres

.

28) The clouds of Venus consist mainly of A) carbon dioxide B) water vapor C) hydrogen and helium D) sulfuric acid E) carbon monoxide

.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.02 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Atmospheres 29) The surface of Venus is dominated by A) impact craters B) recent lava flows C) scarps D) large canyons E) oceans of sulfuric acid

.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.02 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Surface Features, Interior Structures and Dynamics 30) Venus's extremely high surface temperatures are due to A) the composition of its atmosphere.

B) volcanic activity.

C) its relatively close proximity to the Sun. D) a recent impact that heated the planet.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.02 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Atmospheres, The Greenhouse Effect

31) Of all the terrestrial planets, A) Mercury B) Venus C) Earth D) Mars

has the highest surface barometric pressure.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.02 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Atmospheres 32) Maps of Venus have been made by A) landing spacecraft on the surface to take pictures.

B) bouncing radio waves off the planet from satellites and Earth.

C) optical telescopic observations from Earth when the clouds part.

D) measuring seismic waves from earthquakes.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.02 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Surface Features 33) You would most likely find pancake-shaped lava domes on A) Mercury.

B) Venus.

C) Earth.

D) Mars.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.02 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Surface Features, Interior Structures and Dynamics

34) Although Venus is farther from the Sun than Mercury, its surface temperature is hotter than Mercury's.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.02 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: The Greenhouse Effect, Differences between Terrestrial Planets 35) Venus spins faster than any other terrestrial planet.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.02 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Planetary Motion 36) The retrograde spin of Venus could be the result of a collision with a large planetesimal.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.02 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Planetary Motion 37) Venus's retrograde spin is not unique among terrestrial planets.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.02 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Planetary Motion

38) On Venus the Sun rises in the west and sets in the east.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.02 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Planetary Motion 39) The atmosphere of Venus is 95% A) water vapor B) sulfuric acid C) carbon dioxide D) hydrogen

.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.02 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Atmospheres 40) Where in Venus's atmosphere are sulfuric acid clouds found?

A) near the surface, like fog B) at very high altitudes C) everywhere in the atmosphere D) There are no sulfuric acid clouds on this planet.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.02 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Atmospheres

41) What drives the high-speed winds in Venus's atmosphere?

A) light from the Sun in its equatorial regions B) cold temperatures at the poles C) the slow spin of the planet D) a polar vortex Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.02 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Atmospheres 42) Despite its thick cloud cover, astronomers can observe the surface of Venus with A) visible light.

B) infrared light.

C) ultraviolet light.

D) radar.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.02 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Surface Features 43) The atmosphere of Venus is A) dry and thin.

B) hot and dense.

C) cold and moist.

D) dense and moist.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.02 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Atmospheres

44) The polar vortex at the south pole of Venus is A) a high-pressure zone with winds flowing away from its center.

B) a region where cooler gases sink to the surface before moving back to the equatorial regions.

C) a region of the atmosphere where the surface can be seen from orbit.

D) a low-pressure, high-humidity storm, much like a hurricane on Earth.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.02 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Atmospheres 45) What are the clouds of Venus mainly composed of?

A) methane B) water vapor C) sulfuric acid droplets D) carbon dioxide Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.02 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Atmospheres 46) Why is Venus's surface hotter than Mercury's?

A) Venus rotates more slowly, so it "bakes" more in the Sun's heat.

B) Clouds in Mercury's atmosphere reflect sunlight back into space and keep its surface cool.

C) Carbon dioxide in Venus's atmosphere traps heat radiating from its surface, thereby making it warmer.

D) Venus is closer to the Sun. Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.02 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Atmospheres, The Greenhouse Effect

47) The runaway greenhouse effect on Venus is most directly responsible for which planetary characteristic?

A) the planet's retrograde rotation B) the absence of water on Venus C) the absence of a planetary magnetic field at Venus D) Venus's polar vortex Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.02 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Atmospheres, The Greenhouse Effect 48) Which characteristic of Venus is NOT due to the runaway greenhouse effect?

A) surface temperatures that are higher than Mercury's B) thick lava that creates pillow-shaped domes C) a very slow rotation rate D) clouds that completely hide the surface Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.02 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Atmospheres, The Greenhouse Effect 49) Which terrestrial planet has the youngest surface?

A) Mercury B) Venus C) Earth D) Mars Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.02 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Surface Features

50) Brief increases in atmospheric sulfur in Venus's atmosphere may be due to A) a large meteor entering Venus's atmosphere.

B) a volcanic eruption on Venus's surface.

C) cloud-to-cloud lightning in Venus's atmosphere.

D) chemical reactions between sulfuric acid clouds and the surface.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.02 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Surface Features 51) Why is Venusian lava less viscous than Earth's?

A) There is more water in Earth's lava.

B) Earth's surface has a lower temperature.

C) Atmospheric pressure on Venus is much higher than on Earth.

D) Earth's rapid rotation stirs its lava, making it thinner.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.02 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interior Structures and Dynamics 52) Venus's crust is thicker than Earth's because A) Venus has little internal activity, keeping the crust from melting.

B) rocks on Venus melt at higher temperatures.

C) the high temperatures at the surface of Venus have baked the crust.

D) volcanic eruptions continuously add more material to the surface.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.02 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interior Structures and Dynamics

53) The slow, retrograde spin of Venus is responsible for which phenomenon on Venus?

A) the polar vortex B) high-speed upper atmospheric winds C) Mercury is a permanent "morning star."

D) The Sun rises in the west and sets in the east.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.02 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Planetary Motion 54) The red coloration seen on the Martian surface originates from A) past volcanic activity covering the surface of the planet with red lava.

B) when Mars' had flowing water, it also has red algae, which stained the surface rocks.

C) the atmosphere blocking out blue light, only allowing red light to reflect off the surface.

D) the iron minerals in the surface rocks combining with oxygen in the atmosphere causing the surface to rust.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.03 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Surface Features 55) Which planet is about half the size of Earth?

A) Mercury B) Venus C) Earth D) Mars Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.03 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Differences between Terrestrial Planets

56) Which terrestrial planet has the most moons?

A) Mercury B) Venus C) Earth D) Mars Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.03 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Differences between Terrestrial Planets 57) Besides Earth, which terrestrial planet also has seasons?

A) Mercury B) Venus C) Mars D) Seasons are unique to Earth.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.03 Topic: Terrestrial Planets; Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Atmospheres; Seasons 58) The Valles Marineris is A) an old riverbed B) a 4,000-km canyon C) a long scarp D) a large volcano Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.03 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Surface Features

on the surface of Mars.

59) The atmosphere of Mars consists mainly of A) carbon dioxide B) carbon monoxide C) nitrogen D) oxygen

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.03 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Atmospheres 60) Mars' axial tilt and spin are most similar to A) Earth's B) Mercury's C) Venus's D) the Moon's

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.03 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Differences between Terrestrial Planets 61) Evidence that there is a considerable amount of water frozen under the surface of Mars is provided by all of the following except A) squishy-looking flow patterns around crater impact sites.

B) features resembling channels cut by flowing water.

C) periodic eruptions of geysers when subsurface ice is melted by volcanic activity.

D) discovery by the Mars rovers of chemicals in surface rocks formed in the presence of large amounts of water.

E) satellite measurements of water in the polar caps.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.03 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Water on Mars

62) Mars has almost no water.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.03 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Water on Mars 63) The clouds of Mars consist mainly of frozen carbon dioxide and frozen water.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.03 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Atmospheres 64) The axial tilt of Mars has varied from near 0 to 60 degrees.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.03 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Planetary Motion, Surface Features 65) Mars' moons are probably captured asteroids.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.03 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Differences between Terrestrial Planets

66) The highest mountain of our Solar System exists on Earth.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.03 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Surface Features 67) Mars' red color comes from iron minerals in its surface rocks.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.03 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Surface Features 68) Mars experiences a sequence of seasons similar to Earth's. Why? A) Mars's distance from the Sun is about the same as Earth's.

B) Mars's axial tilt is almost the same as Earth's.

C) Mars has polar ice caps, much like Earth's.

D) Mars experiences gravitational forces from its moons, just as Earth does.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.03 Topic: Terrestrial Planets; Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Atmospheres; Seasons

69) Which group contains only features that can be seen on the surface of Mars?

A) canyons, oceans, volcanoes, polar caps B) craters, canyons, polar caps, volcanoes C) polar caps, oceans, dried up riverbeds D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.03 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Surface Features 70) Olympus Mons is A) a volcano on Mars.

B) the largest mountain on Earth.

C) a Mars observatory in Greece.

D) one of Mars's moons.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.03 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Surface Features 71) The slopes of Olympus Mons are relatively free of impact craters. What does this imply about its history?

A) Olympus Mons has erupted in the last 250 million years.

B) The mountain is tall enough to be eroded by planetary dust storms.

C) It is one of the oldest features on Mars.

D) Olympus Mons was once submerged in water.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.03 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Surface Features

72) How do the Martian polar caps differ from Earth's?

A) They change size and shape with the seasons.

B) They are composed of frozen water and carbon dioxide.

C) They contain a large fraction of the planet's water.

D) They contain a record of the planet's climate history.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.03 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Surface Features 73) The Martian polar caps are composed of frozen A) water and carbon dioxide.

B) water and methane.

C) methane and carbon dioxide.

D) water and sulfuric acid.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.03 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Surface Features 74) Of these, which is evidence that Mars once had running water on its surface?

A) There are vast amounts of H2O present in Martian rocks.

B) There is a medium-sized ocean in the Southern Hemisphere of Mars.

C) Spacecraft have observed channels and dry riverbeds on the Martian surface.

D) There is no such evidence.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.03 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Surface Features, Water on Mars

75) Some recent evidence points to the possibility of there being some liquid water on Mars "recently." Why does this puzzle astronomers?

A) Currently Mars is too hot for liquid water.

B) The Martian atmosphere is too thick, and clouds would form.

C) The Martian atmosphere is too cold and has too low a pressure for liquid water.

D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.03 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Atmospheres, Water on Mars 76) A cupful of liquid water placed on the surface of Mars would A) quickly freeze into solid ice.

B) quickly boil and evaporate.

C) expand rapidly and shatter.

D) rapidly cool but remain liquid.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.03 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Atmospheres, Water on Mars 77) Why did the discovery of Martian "blueberries" suggest the presence of water on Mars?

A) Plant life must have water to grow.

B) "Blueberries" on Earth form by the deposition of minerals in water.

C) They were found in an ancient seafloor on Mars.

D) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.03 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Atmospheres, Water on Mars

78) Other than in the polar caps, any remaining water on Mars is likely stored as A) frost on the surface of the planet.

B) clouds high in the atmosphere of the planet.

C) permafrost beneath the surface of the planet.

D) mists in the equatorial regions of the planet.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.03 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Atmospheres, Water on Mars 79) If Mars had liquid water on its surface in the distant past, then its atmosphere must have been than it is now.

A) warmer B) wetter C) denser D) All of these choices are correct.

E) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.03 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Atmospheres, Water on Mars 80) Mars's atmosphere is most similar in composition to the atmosphere of A) Mercury B) Venus C) Earth D) the Moon Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.03 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Atmospheres

.

81) Why is the greenhouse effect weaker on Mars than on Earth or Venus?

A) There is no carbon dioxide in Mars's atmosphere.

B) Mars's atmosphere is much thinner than those of Venus and Earth.

C) High water vapor clouds reduce the amount of sunlight that reaches the planet's surface.

D) Fog and frost on the Martian surface reflect much of the Sun's energy.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.03 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Atmospheres 82) Mars spins on its axis at approximately the same speed as Earth, yet it has no magnetic field. Why not?

A) Mars has no iron core.

B) Mars is small and cooled quickly.

C) Mars is farther from the Sun than Earth is.

D) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.03 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interior Structures and Dynamics 83) The moons of Mars are A) Phobos and Deimos.

B) captured asteroids.

C) too small to pull themselves round.

D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.03 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Differences between Terrestrial Planets

84) What features are unique to Earth?

A) canyons B) volcanoes C) an atmosphere D) precipitation E) None of these features is unique to Earth.

Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.04 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Differences between Terrestrial Planets 85) List the terrestrial planets in increasing order of their size.

A) Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars B) Mercury, Mars, Venus, Earth C) Earth, Mars, Venus, Mercury D) Venus, Earth, Mars, Mercury Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.04 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Differences between Terrestrial Planets 86) On which planet does plate tectonics take place?

A) Mercury B) Venus C) Earth D) Mars Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.04 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Differences between Terrestrial Planets, Interior Structures and Dynamics

87) Which of the terrestrial planets does not have any craters?

A) Mercury B) Venus C) Earth D) Mars E) All of them have craters.

Answer: E Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.04 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Differences between Terrestrial Planets 88) List the terrestrial planets in decreasing order of their mass.

A) Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars B) Mercury, Mars, Venus, Earth C) Earth, Venus, Mars, Mercury D) Venus, Earth, Mars, Mercury Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.04 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Differences between Terrestrial Planets 89) Which terrestrial planet is tilted upside down?

A) Mercury B) Venus C) Earth D) Mars Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.04 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Differences between Terrestrial Planets

90) Which of the terrestrial planets have the most similar atmospheric compositions?

A) Venus and Mars B) Earth and Venus C) Earth and Mercury D) Mercury and Venus E) Earth and Mars Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.04 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Atmospheres, Differences between Terrestrial Planets 91) Which of the following statements correctly compares the terrestrial planets?

A) Venus has the densest atmosphere and the highest average temperature.

B) Earth is the only planet that has active plate tectonics and surface water.

C) Mercury is the planet with the thinnest atmosphere and the smallest size.

D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.04 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Differences between Terrestrial Planets 92) A) Venus B) Earth C) Pluto D) Mars E) Mercury

is the smallest of the terrestrial planets.

Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.04 Topic: Terrestrial Planets; Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Differences between Terrestrial Planets

93) A) Jupiter B) Earth C) Venus D) Mars E) Mercury

is the largest of the terrestrial planets.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.04 Topic: Terrestrial Planets; Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Differences between Terrestrial Planets 94) Mercury's and, therefore, the planet does not have seasons.

A) axial tilt is zero B) orbit is too close to the Sun C) atmosphere is almost nonexistent D) orbit is a perfect circle Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.04 Topic: Terrestrial Planets; Astronomical Cycles Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Planetary Motion; Seasons 95) Which reason best explains why both Venus's and Mars's atmospheres are primarily carbon dioxide, but Earth's is much less than 1% carbon dioxide?

A) Earth's rocks had much less carbon and oxygen in them.

B) Venus and Mars, being smaller than Earth, can't retain the same mixture of gases as Earth.

C) Each planet has a significantly different surface temperature.

D) Plant life has existed on Earth for an extended amount of time.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.04 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Atmospheres, Differences between Terrestrial Planets

96) The primary reason that Mercury and the Moon lack atmospheres is because they are not volcanically active.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.04 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Atmospheres 97) Venus's atmosphere lacks water because the Sun's ultraviolet rays tend to break up any water molecules at the top of the atmosphere.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.04 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Atmospheres, Differences between Terrestrial Planets 98) The atmospheric pressure at the surface of the terrestrial planets increases as their distance from the Sun increases.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.04 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Atmospheres, Differences between Terrestrial Planets 99) One reason Earth's atmosphere contains substantially less carbon dioxide than Venus because carbon dioxide dissolves in water and is carried by rain to the surface where it reacts with rocks and forms carbonates.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.04 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Atmospheres, Differences between Terrestrial Planets

100) Mars has the longest orbital period of all the terrestrial planets.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.04 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Differences between Terrestrial Planets 101) The present atmospheres of the terrestrial planets probably originated from their internal activity.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.04 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Atmospheres, Differences between Terrestrial Planets 102) Earth and Venus have more substantial atmospheres because they are larger and had more volcanic activity.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.04 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Atmospheres, Differences between Terrestrial Planets 103) Which terrestrial planet is the least dense?

A) Mercury B) Venus C) Earth D) Mars Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.04 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Differences between Terrestrial Planets

104) Why do Earth and Venus have active interiors, while Mercury and Mars do not?

A) Mercury and Mars have small iron cores, while Earth and Venus have large ones.

B) Earth and Venus are much more massive, and cool more slowly, than Mars and Mercury.

C) Earth and Venus have rapid rotations, while Mercury and Mars do not.

D) All of these choices are correct.

E) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.04 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Differences between Terrestrial Planets 105) Which terrestrial planet has the oldest surface?

A) Mercury B) Venus C) Earth D) Mars Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.04 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Differences between Terrestrial Planets 106) Why do Venus and Earth have the youngest surfaces?

A) Both have liquid water that erode the planets' surfaces.

B) Both Venus and Earth have active interiors that recycle the planets' crusts.

C) Venus and Earth have been bombarded by impactors that have renewed their surfaces.

D) Mercury and Mars formed earlier than Earth and Venus.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.04 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Differences between Terrestrial Planets

107) The internal activity of Mercury is responsible for its A) high surface temperature B) slow rotation C) lack of an atmosphere D) magnetic field

.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.04 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Differences between Terrestrial Planets 108) The internal activity of Venus is responsible for its A) thick, corrosive atmosphere B) slow rotation C) surface lakes and oceans D) magnetic field

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.04 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Differences between Terrestrial Planets 109) The internal activity of Mars is responsible for its A) 4,000-km long rift valley, Valles Marineris B) slow rotation C) lack of an atmosphere D) magnetic field Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.04 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Differences between Terrestrial Planets

.

110) Which terrestrial planet has the greatest radius?

A) Mercury B) Venus C) Earth D) Mars Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.04 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Differences between Terrestrial Planets 111) Why do astronomers think Earth ended up with so little CO2 compared with Mars and Venus?

A) Plant life and abundant water have removed most of the CO2, locking it into rocks and the oceans.

B) Volcanoes on Earth outgassed less CO2 than on Venus and Mars.

C) Comets striking the surfaces of Venus and Mars added CO2 to their atmospheres, but not to Earth.

D) Pollution on Earth has reduced the amount of CO2 originally present.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.04 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Differences between Terrestrial Planets, Terrestrial Atmospheres 112) The greenhouse effect keeps the surface of A) Mercury B) Venus C) Earth D) All of these choices are correct.

E) None of these choices is correct.

warmer than it otherwise would be.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.04 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Differences between Terrestrial Planets, Terrestrial Atmospheres

113) Sunlight can break apart water (and other) molecules in a process called A) differentiation B) erosion C) photodissociation D) sublimation Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.04 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Differences between Terrestrial Planets, Terrestrial Atmospheres 114) The absence of liquid water on Venus is responsible for its A) magnetic field B) dense, corrosive atmosphere C) retrograde rotation D) tall volcanic peaks

.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.04 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Differences between Terrestrial Planets 115) Which of the following statements is true?

A) Venus's thick atmosphere causes strong tidal braking.

B) Venus rotates almost precisely 5 times relative to Earth between closest approaches.

C) Venus has a longer day than its year.

D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.04 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Differences between Terrestrial Planets

.

116) Why does Mars's northern ice cap shrink and grow less than Mars's southern ice cap?

A) The northern ice cap is made of water but the southern ice cap is dry ice.

B) The southern ice cap is made of water but the northern ice cap is dry ice.

C) Mars is closer to the Sun during southern winter.

D) Mars is farther from the Sun during southern winter.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.03 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Atmospheres, Water on Mars 117) Why are the layers of ice and dust in Mars's permanent ice caps not all the same thickness?

A) Mars's orbital eccentricity has changed over time.

B) Mars's axial tilt has changed over time.

C) Jupiter's gravity affects Mars's climate.

D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.03 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Planetary Motion, Surface Features 118) We have sent several rovers to explore the surface of Mars. What is the correct order, from oldest to most recent, of these robotic explorers?

A) Viking, Sojourner, Opportunity and Spirit, Curiosity.

B) Viking, Opportunity and Spirit, Sojourner, Curiosity.

C) Sojourner, Viking, Opportunity and Spirit, Curiosity.

D) Opportunity and Spirit, Viking, Sojourner, Curiosity.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.03 Topic: History of Astronomy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Planets

119) What happened to Venus's water?

A) Venus never had any water.

B) Venus still has all of its water, it has just become vapor in the atmosphere.

C) Greenhouse warming caused its oceans to evaporate, and then its hydrogen was lost to space.

D) A runaway greenhouse effect caused the water to be frozen in permanent ice caps.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.02 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Planets, the Greenhouse Effect 120) Why are planetary magnetic fields important?

A) They keep the planet rotating.

B) They protect the planet from impacts.

C) They help prevent the loss of a planet's atmosphere.

D) They counteract tidal forces.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.04 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Atmospheres; Interior Structures and Dynamics 121) Which of the following is evidence of past internal activity on Mercury?

A) "the Spider" B) Vents C) "Hollows" D) Scarps E) All of these choices are correct Answer: E Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 09.01 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Terrestrial Atmospheres; Interior Structures and Dynamics

122) Why is a more massive terrestrial planet more likely to have an atmosphere than a less massive planet?

A) It has a larger gravitational force.

B) It has a larger magnetic field.

C) Its interior is hotter.

D) It had a larger primordial atmosphere.

E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 09.04 Topic: Terrestrial Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interior Structures and Dynamics; Terrestrial Atmospheres, Differences between Terrestrial Planets

Explorations: Introduction to Astronomy 9th Edition Thomas Arny Chapter 10 The Outer Planets 1) Which of the following lists the outer planets in order of increasing mass?

A) Jupiter, Saturn, Neptune, Uranus B) Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune C) Saturn, Jupiter, Uranus, Neptune D) Uranus, Neptune, Saturn, Jupiter Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.01 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: None 2) Which is the largest planet?

A) Saturn B) Jupiter C) Uranus D) Earth E) Neptune Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.01 Topic: Outer Planets; Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: None; Jovian Planets 3) Which planet has the largest satellite in the Solar System?

A) Saturn B) Jupiter C) Uranus D) Mars E) Mercury Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.01 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Satellites

4) How does the mass of Jupiter compare to the rest of the planets in the Solar System?

A) Jupiter's mass is greater than all the other planet masses combined.

B) Jupiter and Saturn have comparable masses.

C) Jupiter's mass is about equal to the sum of the terrestrial planet masses.

D) Jupiter's mass is about equal to the sum of Uranus and Neptune's masses.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.01 Topic: Outer Planets; Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: None; Jovian Planets 5) What is the largest satellite (moon) in the Solar System?

A) Earth's moon B) Jupiter's moon, Ganymede C) Saturn's moon, Titan D) Neptune's moon, Triton Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.01 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Satellites 6) Scientists believe a liquid water ocean might exist on the moon A) Titan.

B) Europa.

C) Mimas.

D) Triton.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.01 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Satellites

7) The appearance of an aurora indicates that A) the planet is being bombarded by small meteors.

B) there is a lot of lightning discharges in the planet's atmosphere.

C) the planet has a magnetic field.

D) there is intelligent life on the planet producing the aurora from below.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.01 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Magnetic Fields 8) Which of the following is a common characteristic of the Jovian planets?

A) mostly composed of hydrogen and helium B) thick atmosphere C) lack of solid surface D) ring systems and satellites E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.01 Topic: Outer Planets; Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: None; Jovian Planets 9) Why do astronomers believe that the Jovian planets are composed mainly of hydrogen and helium?

A) Because hydrogen and helium are the main constituents of the Solar System.

B) Because the Jovian planets are very large.

C) Because the Jovian planets have low densities.

D) The Voyager missions measured the chemical compositions of the interiors of the Jovian planets.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.01 Topic: Outer Planets; Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Jovian Atmospheres; Average Density

10) Why do astronomers believe that the Jovian planets must contain rocky material in their cores?

A) Because silicates and irons were part of the overall composition of the Solar nebula.

B) Because the Jovian planets have large magnetic fields.

C) Because the Jovian planets have large gravity.

D) The statement of the question is incorrect. Astronomers believe that the Jovian planets consist exclusively of hydrogen and helium.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.01 Topic: Outer Planets; Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Jovian Planets; Jovian Atmospheres; Average Density; Internal Structures and Dynamics 11) Of all the Jovian planets, A) Jupiter B) Saturn C) Uranus D) Neptune E) None of these choices is correct.

shows signs of tectonic plate motion.

Answer: E Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.01 Topic: Outer Planets; Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: None; Jovian Planets 12) The colors of Jupiter's clouds suggest the presence of A) organic molecules B) hydrogen and helium C) carbon dioxide D) red-shifted colors due to the fast motion E) iron oxides Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.01 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Jovian Atmospheres

.

13) The energy that stirs the circulation in Jupiter's atmosphere comes from A) the Sun B) the planet's interior C) the tidal force of the Galilean moons D) the planet's magnetic field

.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.01 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Jovian Atmospheres; Internal Structures and Dynamics 14) The powerful Jupiter is a result of the the planet.

A) magnetic field of; Coriolis effect; heat generated B) wind on; rotation; excess hydrogen C) magnetic field of; rapid rotation; heat generated D) wind on; Coriolis effect; heat generated

and

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.01 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Jovian Atmospheres; Internal Structures and Dynamics 15) is the largest of the Galilean moons.

A) Callisto B) Europa C) Ganymede D) Io Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.01 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Satellites

in the interior of

16) The average density of the Galilean satellites of Jupiter from the planet.

A) increases B) decreases C) does not change Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.01 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Satellites 17) The rings of Jupiter consist primarily of A) small particles B) boulder-size rocks C) solid rings D) hydrogen and helium

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.01 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Planetary Rings 18) The Great Red Spot on Jupiter is .

A) a large rising cloud of gas B) a giant vortex that has persisted for over 300 years C) a planetesimal impact site D) a largo tornado sweeping the planet from north to south Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.01 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Jovian Atmospheres

with increasing distance

19) Jupiter's mass is about Earth's.

A) 10; 300 B) 30; 10 C) 300; 10 D) 100; 300

times that of Earth, and its diameter is

times

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.01 Topic: Outer Planets; Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: None; Jovian Planets 20) Astronomers think that the inner core of Jupiter is composed mainly of A) hydrogen B) helium C) uranium D) rock and iron E) water Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.01 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Internal Structures and Dynamics 21) The lighter-colored bands in Jupiter's atmosphere are called A) belts B) zones C) layers D) cells E) gaps Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.01 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Jovian Atmospheres

.

.

22) The darker-colored bands in Jupiter's atmosphere are called A) belts B) zones C) layers D) cells E) gaps

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.01 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Jovian Atmospheres 23) The darker-colored bands in Jupiter's atmosphere are A) warmer than the lighter-colored bands B) lower in altitude than the lighter-colored bands C) transparent, relative to the lighter-colored bands D) moving downward E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: E Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.01 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember; 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Jovian Atmospheres 24) Jupiter's magnetic field is the result of .

A) the large amount of iron present in its interior B) its rapid rotation and convective interior C) an aurora in its upper atmosphere D) the alternating wind directions in its atmosphere E) huge storms in its upper atmosphere generating lightning Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.01 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Magnetic Fields

.

25) The source of particles for Jupiter's rings is A) volcanic eruptions on Io B) collisions between debris and two small moons C) material pulled in by Jupiter's magnetic field D) ice geysers on Enceladus E) gravitationally captured interplanetary dust

.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.01 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Planetary Rings 26) Which of the Galilean moons has its own magnetic field?

A) Io B) Europa C) Ganymede D) Callisto E) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.01 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Satellites 27) What are the major gaseous substances that make up Jupiter and Saturn?

A) carbon dioxide and water vapor B) hydrogen, hydrogen-rich compounds, and helium C) methane and ozone D) nitrogen and oxygen Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.01 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Jovian Atmospheres

28) Which statement about Jupiter is true?

A) It may become a star in about a billion years.

B) It has a solid core of ice about 1,000 km under the visible surface.

C) It is the least dense of the Giant Planets.

D) It is more massive than all other planets combined.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.01 Topic: Outer Planets; Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: None; Jovian Planets 29) What is the Great Red Spot?

A) a region of gas on Jupiter's surface that contains a great deal of iron B) a huge spinning vortex larger than Earth in Jupiter's atmosphere C) a place on Jupiter's surface where comet Shoemaker-Levy landed in 1992 D) another name for Jupiter Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.01 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Jovian Atmospheres 30) Why will astronauts probably never set foot on any of the Giant Planets?

A) These planets have no solid surfaces for them to land on.

B) Their clouds are so hot that any spacecraft getting near it would burn up.

C) Their gravitational attraction is so weak that they would float off.

D) Astronauts will land on the Giant Planets—the idea is perfectly reasonable.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.01 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Jovian Atmospheres

31) Why is the moon Io volcanically active with a hot interior?

A) Radioactive decay of elements in Io's core heat up the rock to molten temperatures.

B) Io is very close to the Sun. C) Io was formed later than the other Galilean satellites, so it hasn't finished cooling yet.

D) Io gets flexed between the changing gravitational pulls of Jupiter and Europa, heating it by friction.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.01 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Satellites 32) On which of Jupiter's moons do scientists think there may exist an ocean covered with ice?

A) Io B) Europa C) Ganymede D) Callisto Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.01 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Satellites 33) What are the satellites of the outer planets thought to be composed of?

A) hydrogen and helium B) hydrogen and methane C) water and carbon dioxide D) ice and rock Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.01 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Satellites

34) The low average densities of Jupiter and Saturn compared with Earth suggests A) they are hollow B) they have no solid cores C) they contain large quantities of light elements, such as hydrogen and helium D) they are very hot E) heavier elements must be in gaseous form in their interiors

.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.01 Topic: Outer Planets; Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Average Density; Internal Structures and Dynamics 35) Astronomers can determine the mass of Jupiter by the gravitational pull Jupiter exerts on its moons.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.01 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: None 36) Hydrogen is the most abundant element in Jupiter's atmosphere.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.01 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Jovian Atmospheres 37) Jupiter is more massive than all the other planets put together.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.01 Topic: Outer Planets; Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: None; Jovian Planets

38) Jupiter's core is hotter than Earth's core.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.01 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Internal Structures and Dynamics 39) The temperature of Jupiter's core is higher than the surface temperature of the Sun. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.01 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Internal Structures and Dynamics 40) The existence of auroral activity and lightning on Jupiter proves that Jupiter's atmosphere has the same chemical composition as Earth's atmosphere.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.01 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Magnetic Fields; Jovian Atmospheres; Internal Structures and Dynamics 41) Astronomers expect that due to friction and collisions, the particles in Jupiter's ring are slowing down and will eventually spiral into the planet.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.01 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Planetary Rings

42) All of the Galilean moons are heavily cratered.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.01 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Satellites 43) Together the Cassini spacecraft and its probe Huygens discovered which of the following features on Titan?

A) river networks B) lakes near the polar regions C) dunes of ice crystals D) an ice volcano E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.02 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Satellites 44) The surface structure of Saturn's largest satellite, Titan, is completely unknown because no spacecraft so far could take pictures through Titan's thick clouds.

A) True, because no probe can pass through Titan's methane and ethane clouds.

B) True, because Titan's atmosphere blocks all wavelengths of electromagnetic radiation.

C) False, recently in 2005, Cassini parachuted a probe into Titan's atmosphere and took the pictures of its surface.

D) False, but all information related to Titan's surface comes from radar images taken by the Cassini spacecraft.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.02 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Satellites

45) What type of dunes exist on Titan?

A) sand dunes B) dust dunes C) ice crystal dunes D) We have not discovered any dunes on Titan.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.02 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Satellites 46) Which of the outer planets has rings?

A) Jupiter B) Saturn C) Uranus D) Neptune E) All of the outer planets have a ring system.

Answer: E Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.02 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Planetary Rings 47) Which planet has the lowest density?

A) Saturn B) Jupiter C) Uranus D) Earth E) Neptune Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.02 Topic: Outer Planets; Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: None; Jovian Planets

48) Which satellite has lakes of liquid methane near its poles?

A) Ganymede B) Io C) Miranda D) Triton E) Titan Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.02 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Satellites 49) Although Saturn and Jupiter have similar compositions their outer appearances are different because A) Saturn's magnetic field is weaker than Jupiter's magnetic field.

B) Saturn's smaller size means it has a weaker gravitational field and thus less dramatic atmospheric effects.

C) Saturn has more water molecules throughout its atmosphere giving it a uniform appearance.

D) Saturn's cooler temperatures allow for the formation of a hazy layer of ammonia clouds that surrounds the planet.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.02 Topic: Outer Planets; Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Jovian Planets; Jovian Atmospheres 50) The iron and rocky cores found inside Jupiter and Saturn are closest in size to A) an asteroid.

B) the Moon.

C) Earth.

D) the size of Jupiter and Saturn themselves.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.02 Topic: Outer Planets; Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Jovian Planets; Internal Structures and Dynamics

51) Which of the following accurately describes the properties of Saturn's rings?

A) The rings are a single, solid object.

B) The rings are very wide but very thin and composed of large planetesimals a few kilometers in size.

C) The rings are very wide but very thin and composed of small particles typically a few centimeters or meters in size.

D) The rings are very wide but a very thin veil of gas that surrounds the planet.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.02 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Planetary Rings 52) A) Pluto B) Saturn C) Mercury D) Uranus E) Jupiter

has the lowest density of all the planets in the Solar System.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.02 Topic: Outer Planets; Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: None; Jovian Planets; Average Density 53) The rings of Saturn consist primarily of A) hydrogen and helium B) silicate rocks C) water ice D) methane and ammonia Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.02 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Planetary Rings

.

54) The Roche limit refers to a A) distance B) force C) speed D) mass E) density

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.02 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Planetary Rings 55) Compared the Galilean satellites, the larger satellites of Saturn have density.

A) lower B) higher C) about the same (as the Galilean satellites)

average

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.02 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Satellites 56) Astronomers believe that the interior of Saturn's satellites is mostly A) ice B) rock C) hydrogen and helium D) iron Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.02 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Satellites

.

57) Spectral analysis of Titan's atmosphere indicates that it consists mainly of A) carbon dioxide B) nitrogen C) hydrogen and helium D) oxygen

.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.02 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Satellites 58) What are the rings of Saturn made of?

A) chunks composed of water, ice, and carbon compounds B) a huge sheet of ice C) helium droplets D) small fragments of dust Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.02 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Planetary Rings 59) What is the Roche limit?

A) the mass a planet must exceed to have satellites B) the greatest distance from a planet that its satellites can orbit without falling into the Sun C) the distance at which a moon held together by gravity may be broken apart by the planet's gravitational attraction D) the distance astronomers can see into a planet's clouds Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.02 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Planetary Rings

60) Which of the Jovian planets has rings?

A) Jupiter B) Saturn C) Uranus D) Neptune E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.02 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Planetary Rings 61) Astronomers knew for some time that the rings of Saturn are thin, because they could see stars through the rings.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.02 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Planetary Rings 62) Saturn's larger satellites have lower average density than the Galilean satellites of Jupiter; therefore, we can conclude that Saturn's satellites contain less rock and more ice than the Galilean satellites.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.02 Topic: Outer Planets; Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Satellites; Average Density

63) Earth is probably the only Solar System object with a liquid ocean.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.02 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Satellites 64) The Cassini division seen in Saturn's rings is the result of a gravitational interaction from one of its moons on Saturn's rings.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.02 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Satellites; Planetary Rings 65) What observational evidence suggests that Uranus was struck by a large planetesimal early in its formation?

A) Astronomers have identified a large impact crater on the surface of Uranus.

B) Uranus orbits the Sun in the opposite direction as the other planets.

C) Uranus's rotational axis is tipped over.

D) Uranus's moon Miranda shows a patchwork surface, suggesting a collision in its past.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.03 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Planetary Motion

66) Which planet's rotation axis is closest to its orbital plane?

A) Saturn B) Jupiter C) Uranus D) Earth E) Venus Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.03 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Planetary Motion 67) Which planet has the most extreme seasons?

A) Saturn B) Jupiter C) Uranus D) Venus E) Mercury Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.03 Topic: Outer Planets; Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: None; Jovian Planets 68) What causes the blue appearance of the planet Uranus?

A) Uranus's atmosphere contains methane that strongly absorbs red colors from the sunlight.

B) The planet is covered by an ocean of water.

C) The planet is very cold.

D) The composition of Uranus's atmosphere is the same as Earth's atmosphere that makes the sky blue.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.03 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Jovian Atmospheres

69) Uranus completes an orbit around the Sun every 84 years and spins once every 17 hours, approximately. Which of the following could be observed from the planet Uranus?

A) season cycle of 84 years near the poles B) one sunrise every 17 hours on the equator C) days lasting several years near the pole tipped toward the Sun D) nights lasting several years near the pole tipped away from the Sun E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.03 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Planetary Motion 70) Compared to Uranus, Neptune has a smaller diameter and more mass. What can we conclude from this comparison?

A) Neptune has higher average density than Uranus.

B) Uranus has higher average density than Neptune.

C) Uranus spins faster and therefore has a larger diameter.

D) The statement of the question is incorrect. Uranus is larger and has more mass than Neptune.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.03 Topic: Outer Planets; Solar Systems Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: None; Average Density 71) What chemical compound is responsible for Uranus and Neptune's color?

A) complex organic compounds of sulfur and phosphorus B) ammonia C) methane D) water Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.03 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Jovian Atmospheres

72) Which of the Jovian planets is tilted by about 90 degrees to its orbital plane?

A) Jupiter B) Saturn C) Uranus D) Neptune Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.03 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Planetary Motion 73) Why are Uranus and Neptune so blue?

A) Hydrogen appears blue when it reflects sunlight.

B) They reflect blue light from their moons.

C) Methane in their atmospheres absorb red light and reflect blue light.

D) The planets are very hot, so their blackbody spectra peak at blue wavelengths.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.03 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Jovian Atmospheres 74) What makes some astronomers think that Uranus was hit by a large body early in its history?

A) It goes around the Sun in a direction opposite to the other planets.

B) Its rotation axis has such a large tilt with respect to its orbit.

C) Its composition is so different from those of Neptune, Jupiter, and Saturn.

D) It has no moons.

E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.03 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Planetary Motion

75) The geography of Uranus's moon Miranda suggests it may have been broken apart into pieces by an impact and then drawn back together out of order by gravity.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.03 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Satellites 76) Of the outer planets, A) Jupiter B) Saturn C) Uranus D) Neptune E) Pluto

has the smallest diameter.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.04 Topic: Outer Planets; Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: None; Jovian Planets 77) Which is the smallest of the outer planets?

A) Saturn B) Jupiter C) Uranus D) Neptune Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.04 Topic: Outer Planets; Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: None; Jovian Planets

78) What prompted astronomers to search for Neptune?

A) Uranus was not following the precise orbit predicted by Newtonian physics.

B) An explosive impact on Neptune from a colliding planetesimal caught the attention of astronomers.

C) Bode's rule predicted a planet at the location of Neptune.

D) Nothing prompted astronomers to look for Neptune; it was found by accident.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.04 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Planetary Motion 79) Which of the following statements comparing Uranus and Neptune is correct?

A) Uranus has larger diameter and Neptune has more mass.

B) Uranus has larger diameter and more mass.

C) Neptune has larger diameter and smaller mass.

D) Neptune has larger diameter and more mass.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.04 Topic: Outer Planets; Solar Systems Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: None; Jovian Planets 80) Neptune's blue color comes from water vapor in its upper atmosphere.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.04 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Jovian Atmospheres

81) The highly inclined and backwards rotation of Triton supports the hypothesis that Triton is a Kuiper belt object captured by Neptune.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.04 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Satellites 82) All four of the Gas Giant Planets have ring systems.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 10.04 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Planetary Rings 83) Juno discovered that the polar regions of Jupiter are far more chaotic than the belts and zones.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 10.01 Topic: Outer Planets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Jovian Atmospheres

Explorations: Introduction to Astronomy 9th Edition Thomas Arny Chapter 11 Small Bodies Orbiting the Sun 1) Why do astronomers believe chondrite meteorites are about 4.6 billion years old—formed when the Solar system formed?

A) Their chemical composition suggests they are pieces broken off Mars, which is believed to have formed at that time.

B) There is no other reasonable time period in the solar system's history when any meteoroids could have formed.

C) The chemicals they are made of were only common at the formation of the solar system.

D) Radioactive dating can be used to determine their age.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.01 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Meteors, Meteoroids, and Meteorites 2) Fragments that do not completely burn in the atmosphere and eventually fall on Earth are called A) meteoroids.

B) meteorites.

C) meteors.

D) asteroids.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.01 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Meteors, Meteoroids, and Meteorites

3) Chondritic meteorites provide important clues because they are believed to A) contain grains from the first material that condensed out of the Solar nebula.

B) contain many rare metals.

C) be the only source of the necessary amino acids required for life.

D) be the source of all coal found on Earth.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.01 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Meteors, Meteoroids, and Meteorites 4) What is a meteor?

A) a glowing trail of hot gas and debris heated by friction as an object moves through the atmosphere B) a space rock that survives its fall through Earth's atmosphere and reaches the ground C) the object that causes a "shooting star," but before it passes through the atmosphere D) any one of the large rocky bodies that orbit the Sun, primarily between Jupiter and Saturn Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.01 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Meteors, Meteoroids, and Meteorites 5) What is a meteoroid?

A) a glowing trail of hot gas and debris heated by friction as an object moves through the atmosphere B) a space rock that survives its fall through Earth's atmosphere and reaches the ground C) the object that causes a "shooting star," but before it passes through the atmosphere D) any one of the large rocky bodies that orbit the Sun, primarily between Jupiter and Saturn Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.01 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Meteors, Meteoroids, and Meteorites

6) What is a meteorite?

A) a glowing trail of hot gas and debris heated by friction as an object moves through the atmosphere B) a space rock that survives its fall through Earth's atmosphere and reaches the ground C) the object that causes a "shooting star," but before it passes through the atmosphere D) any one of the large, rocky bodies that orbit the Sun, primarily between Jupiter and Saturn Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.01 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Meteors, Meteoroids, and Meteorites 7) What is the difference between a meteor and a meteorite?

A) A meteorite is a very tiny meteor.

B) A meteorite is the pit made on Earth or a planet when a meteor hits.

C) A meteor is the flash of light in the sky. A meteorite is the solid body ending up on the ground.

D) A meteorite is the flash of light in the sky. A meteor is the solid body ending up on the ground.

E) A meteorite comes from a comet. A meteor comes from an asteroid.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.01 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Meteors, Meteoroids, and Meteorites 8) What are the three broad categories of meteorites?

A) small, medium, and large B) organic, inorganic, vegetal C) iron, stony, stony-iron D) red, yellow, and blue Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.01 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Meteors, Meteoroids, and Meteorites

9) The existence of amino acids in carbonaceous chondrites proves that life on Earth originated in space.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.01 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Meteors, Meteoroids, and Meteorites 10) Astronomers believe that most of the meteorites come from broken up asteroids and comets, but some of the meteorites are fragments from the Moon or Mars.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.01 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Meteors, Meteoroids, and Meteorites 11) All of the Asteroids in the Asteroid Belt together have A) a tiny fraction of Earth's mass.

B) about Earth's mass.

C) about ten times Earth's mass.

D) a mass somewhere between the mass of Mars and the mass of Jupiter.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.02 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Asteroids; Asteroid Belt

12) Infrared observations are used to determine the mass of asteroids because .

A) asteroids reflect too little visible light to use optical telescopes for the measurements B) the infrared radiation is the glow of heat from the asteroid, and larger asteroids emit more infrared light C) the Hubble Space Telescope only has infrared cameras D) most asteroids are made of dark minerals which are more efficient at reflecting infrared light than visible light Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.02 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Asteroids 13) How would you explain the average density of an asteroid being about 2 g/cm3, if the density of rock is usually around 3 g/cm3?

A) The asteroid contains an unusually large quantity of helium.

B) The asteroid contains significant quantities of icy compounds.

C) The asteroid is made of fragments only loosely held together by gravity.

D) The asteroid is of the stony type, not the iron type.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.02 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Asteroids 14) Asteroids .

A) are small bodies, typically the size of a grain of sand or a boulder B) can range in size from a few meters to many hundreds of kilometers C) are larger objects, a few hundred kilometers in size, but not quite large enough to be classified as a planet D) are about the same size as planets, but have not pulled themselves into a spherical shape Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.02 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Asteroids

15) Which of the following asteroids is now officially a dwarf planet?

A) Ceres B) Itokawa C) Ida D) Eros E) Mathilde Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.02 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Asteroids; The Pluto Decision 16) To which compositional group do asteroids mainly belong?

A) carbonaceous B) silicates C) metallic iron-nickel D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.02 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Asteroids 17) Planet A) Jupiter B) Mars C) Earth D) Saturn

creates the gaps in the Asteroid belt called Kirkwood gaps.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.02 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Asteroid Belt

18) The gaps created by the planet Jupiter in the Asteroid belt are called A) Asteroid gaps B) Kepler gaps C) Kirkwood gaps D) Jupiter gaps

.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.02 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Asteroid Belt 19) The Trojan asteroids orbit the Sun at an average distance of A) 60 ahead B) 60 behind C) 5.2 AU D) 100,000,000 miles

.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.02 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Asteroids 20) How was the first asteroid discovered?

A) It collided with the Moon.

B) Galileo saw it whiz by Jupiter.

C) Piazzi found it by searching for objects at the distance suggested by Bode's law.

D) Kepler traced back the path of meteors to the Asteroid belt.

E) Newton inferred their existence by their gravitational influence on Jupiter.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.02 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Asteroids; Asteroid Belt

21) What is a typical asteroid made of?

A) water frozen into ice B) solid carbon dioxide and other gases C) rock and iron D) liquid water E) solid hydrogen Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.02 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Asteroids 22) About how big is the largest asteroid known in the Solar System?

A) about the size of Earth B) about one-quarter the size of the Moon C) about 50 miles D) about 50 yards E) about 50 feet Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.02 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Asteroids 23) The observation that there are asteroids made entirely of rock or entirely of iron suggests that .

A) the early Solar System had intermediate-sized differentiated planetesimals B) large planetesimals formed entirely out of the same material C) asteroids made of both rock and iron are particularly fragile and are easily destroyed D) these asteroids were formed from volcanic eruptions on early planets Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.02 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Asteroids

24) On average, a body 100 meters in diameter or larger impacts Earth every A) 1,000 B) 10,000 C) 100,000 D) one million E) 10 million

years.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.02 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Asteroids; Impact Event Effects 25) What is the Asteroid belt?

A) the place in the Solar System where most of the asteroids are found B) a line of craters on the Moon caused by an asteroidal impact about 50 million years ago C) a line of craters on Earth caused by an asteroidal impact about 50 million years ago D) a term used to describe the impact of a very large asteroid with a planet E) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.02 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Asteroid Belt 26) How do we know what asteroids are made of?

A) Astronomers have studied meteorites that originated in the Asteroid belt.

B) Astronomers have landed a spacecraft on one of them and analyzed its composition.

C) The spectrum of sunlight reflected from an asteroid shows absorption features, from which we can determine its composition.

D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.02 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Asteroids

27) Most Asteroids are found in the asteroid belt, which lies between the orbits of A) Earth and Mars B) Saturn and Jupiter C) Venus and Earth D) Mars and Jupiter E) Neptune and Pluto

.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.02 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Asteroid Belt 28) The main asteroid belt lies between the orbits of A) Earth and Mars B) Saturn and Jupiter C) Venus and Earth D) Mars and Jupiter E) Pluto and the Oort cloud

.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.02 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Asteroid Belt 29) Typical asteroids are irregularly shaped. Why is Ceres not so shaped?

A) Ceres is near Earth; it was shaped into a sphere by Earth's gravitational force.

B) Ceres is relatively massive; its gravitational force is strong enough to crush its material into a sphere.

C) Ceres is near the Sun; the Sun's heat melted Ceres, and it solidified into a sphere.

D) Ceres is shaped like all the other asteroids.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.02 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Asteroids

30) The existence of asteroids is supporting evidence of the solar nebula hypothesis, in that .

A) the asteroids are probably fragments of a shattered planet B) inner belt asteroids are richer in silicate and iron materials and contain fewer carbon-rich materials C) the gaps in the asteroid belt are created by the same process that creates gaps in Saturn's rings D) asteroids in the inner Solar System are small and rocky, while those in the outer Solar System are larger and have atmospheres Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.02 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Asteroid Belt 31) A dwarf planet orbiting the Sun outside of Neptune's orbit is called a(n) A) plutoid B) plutino C) comet D) Oort Cloud Object E) neptoid

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.02 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Pluto and Plutoids 32) The combined mass of all of the asteroids is probably less than 1/1,000 the mass of Earth.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.02 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Asteroids; Asteroid Belt

33) Some asteroids have peculiar orbits that do not obey Kepler's laws.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.02 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Asteroids 34) In the inner part of the asteroid belt one is more likely to find silicate-rich asteroids, while the carbon-rich asteroids are more abundant in the outer parts of the Asteroid belt.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.02 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Asteroids; Asteroid Belt 35) Which of the following is NOT an outer planet?

A) Saturn B) Jupiter C) Uranus D) Pluto E) Neptune Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.03 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Pluto and Plutoids

36) Which of the following are dwarf planets?

A) Uranus and Neptune B) Neptune and Pluto C) Pluto and Eris D) Eris and Uranus E) Mercury and Eris Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.03 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Pluto and Plutoids 37) Which Trans-Neptunian Object is largest in diameter?

A) Pluto B) Sedna C) Makemake D) Eris E) Orcus Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.03 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Pluto and Plutoids 38) The discovery of Charon was significant because it allowed astronomers to determine the and of Pluto.

A) distance; age B) age; mass C) mass; radius D) radius; speed E) speed; distance Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.03 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Pluto and Plutoids

39) What is a useful result of the discovery that Charon occasionally eclipses Pluto?

A) It showed that eclipses occur in other parts of the Solar System.

B) It allowed astronomers to determine the size of Pluto and Charon more accurately.

C) It allowed astronomers to image surface features of Pluto.

D) It allowed astronomers to measure the distance between Pluto and Charon.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.03 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Pluto and Plutoids 40) Which of the following is a characteristic that Pluto shares with the Jovian planets?

A) It is mostly composed of hydrogen and helium.

B) It has a thick atmosphere.

C) It has a ring system.

D) All of these choices are correct.

E) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: E Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.03 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Pluto and Plutoids 41) Astronomers believe that Pluto was pulled into the Solar System by Neptune. The hypothesis is supported by the fact that Pluto and Neptune have a 3:2 orbital period ratio.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 11.03 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Pluto and Plutoids

42) The dwarf planet Pluto and its moon Charon are unique in the Solar Systems in that the orbital period of Charon equals the rotation period of Pluto. The synchronous rotation is the result of tidal interaction between them.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.03 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Pluto and Plutoids 43) A comet that has a semi-major axis of 100 AU must have a period of about A) 10 years.

B) 20 years.

C) 100 years.

D) 1,000 years.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.04 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets; History of Astronomy Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Origin of Comets; Kepler's Laws 44) At its closest approach, a particular comet is about half an AU away from the Sun, and it's about 40 AU away at its farthest point. The semi-major axis of the comet's orbit is about A) 1/2 AU. B) 20 AU. C) 40 AU. D) 60 AU. Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.04 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets; History of Astronomy Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Origin of Comets; Kepler's Laws

45) In the process of fluorescence, is absorbed by an atom and the energy is emitted as .

A) an ultraviolet photon; at least one visible light and one or more lower energy photons B) a visible light and one or more lower energy photons; an ultraviolet photon C) an ultraviolet and one or more lower energy photons; a visible light photon D) a visible light photon; at least one ultraviolet and one or more lower energy photons Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.04 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Cometary Composition 46) The tails streaming from a comet's coma are caused by A) the comet leaving the material behind it as it travels forward.

B) explosive forces from the hot nucleus ejecting the gas.

C) radiation pressure and the particle wind from the Sun pushing them out.

D) the comet's magnetic field channeling and ejecting the particles of the tail.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.04 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Cometary Structure 47) Which spacecraft launched a probe that smashed into comet Tempel 1?

A) Stardust B) Deep Impact C) Hayabusa D) NEAR Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.04 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Cometary Composition

48) A meteor shower occurs when the leftover debris of a(n) atmosphere to produce the beautiful streaks of light.

A) star B) asteroid belt C) comet D) planet Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.04 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Meteor Showers 49) Comets belong to the .

A) Asteroid belt and Kuiper belt B) Kuiper belt and Oort cloud C) Oort cloud and dwarf planets D) dwarf planets and Asteroid belt E) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.04 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Origin of Comets 50) Comets are rich in .

A) water B) carbon monoxide (CO) C) carbon dioxide (CO2) D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.04 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Cometary Composition

intersects with our

51) The short-period comets originate in .

A) Kuiper belt; Oort cloud B) Oort cloud; Kuiper belt C) Kuiper belt; Asteroid belt D) Asteroid belt; Kuiper belt

and the long-period comets originate in

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.04 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Origin of Comets 52) The radiant is the common point from which A) comets B) asteroids C) a meteor shower D) meteorites

seem(s) to diverge.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.04 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Meteor Showers 53) Meteor showers are generally named A) after the Greek gods and goddesses.

B) after the constellation from which they appear to diverge.

C) after the comet to which they belong.

D) after the planet from which they seem to come to Earth.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.04 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Meteor Showers

54) What proves the existence of the Kuiper belt?

A) the existence of short-period comets B) the fact that many comets orbit on the ecliptic C) the fact that comets are icy objects D) Objects of the Kuiper belt were detected by the Hubble Space Telescope.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.04 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Origin of Comets 55) What is the evidence for the existence of the Oort cloud?

A) Objects of the Oort cloud were detected by the Hubble Space Telescope.

B) The fact that new comets continue to appear indicates that a distant reservoir of icy bodies must exist.

C) the fact that many comets orbit on the ecliptic D) the fact that some comets have retrograde orbits Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.04 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Origin of Comets 56) The Leonid meteor shower occurs in mid-November. Which of the following statements regarding the Leonids is true?

A) The radiant of the meteor shower is in the constellation of Leo. B) The shower occurs when Earth crosses the path of an old comet.

C) The shower is best observed very early in the morning, before dawn.

D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.04 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Meteor Showers

57) travel(s) the farthest from the Sun. A) Pluto B) Comets C) Asteroids D) Charon Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.04 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Origin of Comets 58) The tail of a comet always points A) forward B) backward C) away from the Sun D) toward the Sun

.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.04 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Cometary Structure 59) The typical size of a comet's nucleus is A) 10 m B) 10 km C) 100 km D) 1,000 km E) 1 AU Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.04 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Cometary Structure

.

60) What is the Kuiper Belt?

A) a swarm of comet nuclei in a huge shell surrounding the Sun and planets B) a large belt containing asteroids in a gap between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter C) a disklike swarm of icy objects that lies from near the orbit of Neptune to past Pluto's orbit D) an enormous aggregate of gas and dust from which the Solar System was formed Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.04 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Origin of Comets 61) Why are there two tails to some comets?

A) The "gas tail" is formed by solar radiation pressure. The "dust tail," is pushed out by the solar wind.

B) The "dust tail" is formed by solar radiation pressure. The "gas tail," is pushed out by the solar wind.

C) Comets contain dense material which is attracted by the Sun's gravity, forming a tail which points toward the Sun. D) The statement is false: comets have only one tail.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.04 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Cometary Structure 62) In what direction does a comet's tail point?

A) toward the Sun, pulled by its gravity B) away from the Sun C) trailing the comet in its orbit D) perpendicular to the comet's orbit E) along the comet's orbit in the direction the comet is moving Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.04 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Cometary Structure

63) A comet's tail .

A) is gas and dust pulled off the comet by the Sun's gravity B) always trails behind the comet C) is gas and dust expelled from the comet's nucleus by the Sun's heat and radiation pressure D) is composed mainly of captured particles from the solar wind Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.04 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Cometary Structure 64) The tail of a comet _ .

A) points toward the Sun on its way into the Solar System, and away from the Sun on its way out B) always points away from the Sun C) trails behind the comet, pointing away from the Sun as the comet approaches it, and toward the Sun as the comet moves out of the inner Solar System D) always points toward the Sun Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.04 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Cometary Structure 65) Comet nuclei typically have an average density of 0.5 g/cm3. This suggests a(n) composition.

A) icy and gaseous B) icy and loosely packed C) icy and rocky D) gaseous and rocky E) gaseous Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.04 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Cometary Composition

66) Astronomers think that most comets come from .

A) interstellar space B) material ejected by eruptions on the icy moons of the outer planets C) a region of space between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter D) small icy bodies in the extreme outer parts of the Solar System that are disturbed into orbits that bring them closer to the Sun Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.04 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Origin of Comets 67) What is the Kuiper belt?

A) a prize given to the person who discovers the most asteroids in a given year B) a region beyond Neptune in which a large number of small icy objects orbit C) a ring around Jupiter in which comets are captured D) a halo of light seen around some bright comets E) streaks seen in the tails of some comets Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.04 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Origin of Comets 68) What is the Oort cloud?

A) gas around a comet's head B) the glowing light around a meteor as it burns up C) a region in the outer Solar System from which comets come D) a zone between the Sun and Mercury where comets burn up and release their gases E) the gas boiled off a comet that forms its tail Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.04 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Origin of Comets

69) What are comets made of?

A) mostly iron, rock, and hydrogen B) mostly ice and frozen gases C) mostly hydrogen and helium D) mostly oxygen and uranium E) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.04 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Cometary Composition 70) Annual meteor showers such as the Perseids in August are caused by _ .

A) the breakup of asteroids that hit our atmosphere at predictable times B) Earth passing through the debris left behind by a comet as we cross its orbit C) nuclear reactions in the upper atmosphere triggered by meteoritic particle storms D) passing asteroids triggering auroral displays Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.04 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Meteor Showers 71) The coma around the nucleus of a comet can be 10 times the size of Earth.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.04 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Cometary Structure

72) Comets consist primarily of water, carbon dioxide, and carbon monoxide.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.04 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Cometary Composition 73) Halley's comet orbits the Sun approximately every 76 years, therefore it is a short-period comet.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.04 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Origin of Comets 74) The Oort cloud was probably formed by planetesimals that were tossed to the outer parts of the Solar System by the planets.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.04 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Origin of Comets 75) What evidence supports the assumption that a large number of living species disappeared about 65 million years ago due to a catastrophic impact?

A) the existence of a thin iridium layer of comparable geological age B) the existence of a thin layer of soot of comparable geological age C) the Chicxulub crater D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.05 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Impact Event Effects

76) What evidence do we have that an impact played a role in the extinction of the dinosaurs?

A) The dinosaurs, as well as large numbers of other animals and plants, disappeared rather suddenly.

B) There is iridium (rare on Earth, but abundant in meteors) and soot (evidence of widespread fires) in a layer of clay laid down 65 million years ago.

C) Astronomers have found evidence for a 65-million-year-old impact crater in the Yucatán.

D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 11.05 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Impact Event Effects 77) Why can a rather small meteorite make such a big crater when it hits?

A) It is so hot from its passage through the air that it melts the surroundings.

B) Air pressure on the leading side of the meteorite forms a shock wave that blows out the crater.

C) Meteorites are much harder than the surface of the planet, and punch through it easily.

D) It is traveling so fast that it has a very large kinetic energy even with small mass.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.05 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Impact Event Effects 78) Why do astronomers suspect 'Oumuamua is not from our solar system?

A) It came from the direction of the constellation Lyra.

B) Its shape is too elongated compared to asteroids in the solar system.

C) Its composition is too different from the Sun's.

D) It is moving too fast to be in orbit around the Sun. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.02 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Asteroids

79) Why do astronomers suspect there may be a ninth planet beyond Neptune?

A) Neptune's orbit extends closer to the Sun than expected.

B) Pluto has more moons than it should.

C) Several Trans-Neptunian Objects have elongated orbits yet are all currently closest to the Sun. D) The Kuiper Belt is not in the expected position.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 11.03 Topic: Asteroids, Meteors, and Comets Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Pluto and Plutoids

Explorations: Introduction to Astronomy 9th Edition Thomas Arny Chapter 12 The Sun, Our Star 1) Approximately how massive is the Sun as compared to Earth?

A) 100 times B) 300 times C) 3,000 times D) 300,000 times E) one million times Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.01 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: None 2) Which is more massive?

A) the Sun (a gaseous giant) B) Earth (a solid object) Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.01 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: None 3) Which is denser?

A) the Sun, which is about 300,000 times more massive than Earth B) Earth (a solid object) Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.01 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: None

4) If you could manage to stand on the Sun, you would weigh approximately more than your weight on Earth.

A) 10 B) 30 C) 100 D) 300,000 Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.01 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: None 5) The sunlight we receive on Earth originates from the Sun's A) radiative zone.

B) photosphere.

C) chromosphere.

D) corona.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.01 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar Interior Structure 6) The hottest part of the Sun is A) the core.

B) the radiative zone.

C) the photosphere.

D) the corona.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.01 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar Interior Structure

times

7) Approximately how long does energy take to travel from the core to the surface of the Sun? A) a few seconds B) a few minutes C) a thousand years D) 16 million years E) 10 billion years Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.01 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interior Processes for the Sun 8) The Sun's core is generating energy in the form of A) gamma rays B) ultraviolet waves C) X-rays D) visible light E) radio waves Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.01 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interior Processes for the Sun 9) Which part of the Sun is covered with granules?

A) corona B) chromosphere C) photosphere D) core Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.01 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar Interior Structure

.

10) Which part of the Sun is NOT in hydrostatic equilibrium?

A) core B) radiation zone C) convection zone D) corona Answer: D Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 12.01 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar Interior Structure; Solar Atmosphere 11) The diameter of the Sun is determined by measuring its A) volume; density B) distance; volume C) distance; angular size D) mass; density

and

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.01 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: None 12) The surface temperature of the Sun can be measured using A) Kepler's third law B) the Doppler shift C) Wien's law D) Bode's rule Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.01 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: None

.

.

13) The temperature at the Sun's core is about A) 15,000,000 K B) 1,500,000 K C) 150,000 K D) 15,000 K

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.01 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar Interior Structure 14) The Sun's composition by the % of mass is 71% .

A) nitrogen; oxygen; argon B) helium; hydrogen; other elements C) hydrogen; helium; other elements D) hydrogen; helium; carbon

, 27%

, and 2%

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.01 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: None 15) Light travels for about to reach the Sun's surface from the Sun's core, and about to reach Earth from the Sun's surface.

A) 16 million years; 8 minutes B) 100 years; 8 minutes C) 1 minute; 8 seconds D) 100 years; 8 seconds Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.01 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar Interior Structure

16) The Sun's atmosphere consists of the A) photosphere; chromosphere B) photosphere; corona C) chromosphere; corona D) corona; solar wind

_ and the

.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.01 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar Atmosphere 17) The temperature at the of the Sun's chromosphere is higher than the temperature .

A) base; at the top of the chromosphere B) top; at the base of the chromosphere C) top; of the Sun's corona D) base; of the Sun's corona Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.01 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar Atmosphere 18) How is the composition of the Sun today different than when it formed 4.6 billion years ago?

A) There is no difference, the composition has not changed.

B) There is now more hydrogen and less helium.

C) There is now more helium and less hydrogen.

D) The amount of hydrogen and helium has not changed, but the amount of heavier elements has decreased.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.01 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar Atmosphere

19) The photosphere A) is the part of the Sun where nuclear fusion is occurring.

B) is the layer of the Sun where it transitions from being opaque to transparent.

C) is the hottest part of the Sun. D) is the densest part of the Sun. Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.01 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar Atmosphere 20) From the center out, the correct order of the parts of the Sun is A) core, convection zone, radiative zone, photosphere, chromosphere, corona.

B) radiative zone, core, chromosphere, convection zone, photosphere, corona.

C) core, convection zone, photosphere, chromosphere, corona, radiative zone.

D) core, radiative zone, convection zone, photosphere, chromosphere, corona.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.01 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar Interior Structure 21) Although the Sun's core has a density much greater than rock, it is considered a gaseous object because A) the Sun's high internal temperature prevent the atoms from bonding together to form a liquid or a solid.

B) a large fraction of the Sun's interior is made of electromagnetic radiation (light).

C) it is composed mostly of hydrogen.

D) the Sun formed from the Solar nebula which itself was a large gas and dust cloud.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.01 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar Interior Structure; Interior Processes for the Sun

22) How big is the Sun compared to Earth, approximately?

A) 5 times bigger B) 15 times bigger C) 500 times bigger D) 100 times bigger E) 1,000 times bigger Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.01 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: None 23) The surface of the Sun is about A) 6,000 K/15 million K B) 11,000 K/27 million K C) depleted/to explode D) None of these choices is correct.

and the core is about

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.01 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar Interior Structure 24) The Sun is composed of about A) 71% helium/27% hydrogen B) 50% hydrogen/50% helium C) 71% hydrogen/27% helium D) 77% nitrogen/22% oxygen Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.01 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: None

and

plus 2% other elements.

25) The Sun is about how far from Earth?

A) 380,000 km B) 93,000,000 km C) 150,000,000 km D) one light-year Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.01 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: None 26) What is the visible surface of the Sun called?

A) the corona B) the chromosphere C) the photosphere D) the radiative zone Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.01 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar Interior Structure 27) What is the Sun's outermost atmosphere called?

A) the corona B) the chromosphere C) the photosphere D) the radiative zone Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.01 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar Atmosphere

28) The average density of the Sun is about the same as that of Jupiter.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.01 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: None 29) One method of measuring the distance between Earth and the Sun is by bouncing radar waves off the Sun. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.01 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: None 30) Astronomers use Wien's law to measure the temperature at the Sun's interior.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.01 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar Interior Structure; Interior Dynamics of the Sun 31) Astronomers use theory to determine the temperature of the Sun's core, because they cannot measure the core temperature directly.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.01 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar Interior Structure; Interior Dynamics of the Sun

32) The gases at the interior of the Sun are in a state of plasma, i.e., an ionized gas.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.01 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar Interior Structure; Interior Dynamics of the Sun 33) Starting from the core, the internal temperature of the Sun decreases gradually until reaching the photosphere.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.01 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar Interior Structure 34) The Sun's surface is hotter than the Solar corona.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.01 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar Atmosphere 35) The convection zone constantly cycles fresh hydrogen into the Sun's core and moves created helium into the outer parts of the star.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.01 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar Interior Structure; Interior Dynamics of the Sun

36) The light produced in the Sun's core is able to pass freely through the Sun. Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.01 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar Interior Structure; Interior Processes for the Sun; Interior Dynamics of the Sun 37) The energy in the Sun's core is produced by A) the chemical reaction of hydrogen and helium.

B) the fusion of hydrogen to helium.

C) radioactive decay.

D) the release of gravitational potential energy.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.02 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Proton-Proton Chain 38) One way to probe the rate of nuclear reactions in the center of the Sun is by studying produced because .

A) positrons; they annihilate into gamma rays of very specific energies B) neutrinos; they pass out of the Sun without undergoing a random walk C) heavy hydrogen; it has different spectral lines than normal hydrogen D) wave motions; they can be measured at the Sun's surface Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.02 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Proton-Proton Chain; Neutrinos

39) Since nuclear fusion in the Sun creates energy from matter, why doesn't it violate the law of conservation of energy?

A) Conservation of energy only applies to mechanical and electrical systems, not to nuclear physics.

B) The energy actually comes from the motion of the four separate hydrogen atoms, which move less bound together as one helium atom.

C) Matter and energy are equivalent, as expressed by Einstein's equation E = mc2.

D) It does, but conservation of energy is only a law in Newtonian physics, which does not work under the conditions at the center of the Sun. Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.02 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Proton-Proton Chain 40) In the Sun, nuclear fusion occurs A) in the core and the radiative zone.

B) only in the core.

C) throughout the entire star.

D) in concentric shells Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.02 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar Interior Structure; Interior Processes for the Sun; Proton-Proton Chain 41) What holds the Sun together?

A) electrostatic forces between ions in its interior B) gas pressure.

C) its gravitational force D) Nothing, the Sun is actually expanding very slowly.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.02 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interior Processes for the Sun

42) The Sun produces its energy through A) the fusion of neutrinos into helium B) the fusion of helium into hydrogen C) the fusion of hydrogen into helium D) electric currents generated in its core E) gradual gravitational collapse

_.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.02 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interior Processes for the Sun; Proton-Proton Chain 43) What is the specific 3-step energy generating process in the Sun called?

A) hydrostatic equilibrium B) thermography C) the proton-proton chain D) radiative transfer Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.02 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interior Processes for the Sun; Proton-Proton Chain 44) The Sun's energy comes from .

A) the release of magnetic energy B) the conversion of mass into energy C) its rotation slowing down D) meteors and asteroids striking its surface Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.02 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interior Processes for the Sun; Proton-Proton Chain

45) What holds the Sun together?

A) the Sun's gravity B) the Sun's magnetic field C) the pressure of the solar wind D) radiation pressure E) quantum forces Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.02 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interior Processes for the Sun 46) What powers the Sun? A) chemical burning of hydrogen and oxygen B) nuclear fusion of hydrogen into helium C) nuclear fission of helium into hydrogen D) the breakdown of neutrinos E) friction as it moves through the gases of space Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.02 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interior Processes for the Sun; Proton-Proton Chain 47) The Sun is supported against the crushing force of its own gravity by _ A) magnetic forces B) its rapid rotation C) the force exerted by escaping neutrinos D) gas pressure E) quantum forces Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.02 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interior Processes for the Sun

.

48) Coronal holes are cooler parts of the corona from which the solar wind escapes.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.02 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar Atmosphere 49) The ideal gas law implies that raising the temperature and density of a gas increases the pressure of the gas.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.02 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar Interior Structure; Interior Dynamics of the Sun 50) According to the ideal gas law, the only way to have high pressure is by having a high density.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.02 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar Interior Structure; Interior Dynamics of the Sun 51) At which observatory listed below are scientists trying to capture neutrinos?

A) SOHO (Solar & Heliospheric Observatory) B) Super Kamiokande, Japan C) GONG (Global Oscillations network group) D) Hubble Space Telescope Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.03 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Neutrinos

52) provides a way to measure the speed of seismic waves in the Sun. A) Newton's third law B) Wien's law C) the Doppler effect D) Kepler's third law Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.03 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interior Dynamics of the Sun 53) Astronomers know what the solar interior is like by A) observing the interior directly. By using the appropriate filters, it is possible to reduce the bright glow of the Sun and to peer directly at the Sun's interior.

B) constructing a miniature Sun in the laboratory and extrapolating the results to the real Sun. C) using locally tested physics combined with observations to build a mathematical model of what the Sun should be like in its interior.

D) sending probes directly into the Sun and sending back the information.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.03 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar Interior Structure; Interior Processes for the Sun 54) Why are astronomers interested in detecting neutrinos from the Sun? A) Neutrinos can reveal the Sun's inner magnetic field.

B) Neutrinos give information about the nuclear reactions in the Sun's core.

C) Neutrinos allow the prediction of the sunspot cycle.

D) Neutrinos help in predicting the occurrence of solar flares.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.03 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Proton-Proton Chain; Neutrinos

55) Seismic waves observed at the surface of the Sun provide clues about the temperature and the density of the solar interior.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.03 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar Interior Structure; Interior Dynamics of the Sun 56) The nuclear fusion that occurs in the Sun's core causes the total mass of the Sun to decrease in time.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.03 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Proton-Proton Chain 57) The Sun converts mass to energy through the proton-proton chain.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.03 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Proton-Proton Chain 58) The mass of an entire hydrogen atom is converted into energy during the proton-proton chain.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.03 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Proton-Proton Chain

59) Sunspots are dark because they are A) landmasses like continents on Earth.

B) holes in the photosphere, allowing astronomers to view into the Sun's interior.

C) shadows from clouds in the Sun's atmosphere.

D) slightly cooler regions, meaning they emit less light than the surrounding areas.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.04 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Sunspots and Sunspot Cycle 60) The solar wind is created in the Sun's A) core B) radiation zone C) convection zone D) corona

.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.04 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar Atmosphere; Solar Activity 61) What is the name of a sudden, highly energetic, eruptive explosion on the surface of the Sun? A) sunspot B) granulation C) flare D) coronal hole Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.04 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Sunspots and Sunspot Cycle; Solar Activity; Solar Magnetic Field

62) A solar prominence is essentially A) a cloud of hot gas lifting off the surface of the Sun. B) an eruption of gas heated by the sudden recombination of opposite polarity parts of the Sun's magnetic field.

C) a plasma confined to a magnetic tube sticking out of the surface of the Sun. D) an aurora occurring in the Sun's atmosphere instead of Earth's.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.04 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Sunspots and Sunspot Cycle; Solar Activity; Solar Magnetic Field 63) Generally speaking, activity on the surface of the Sun is primarily driven by A) gravity.

B) thermodynamics.

C) electromagnetism.

D) nuclear reactions.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.04 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Sunspots and Sunspot Cycle; Solar Activity; Solar Magnetic Field 64) The Zeeman effect, in which energy levels of electrons are shifted and produce a corresponding split in spectral lines observed, is used to measure at the Sun's surface.

A) magnetic field strength B) the intensity of gamma rays C) gravitational field strength D) the velocity and oscillations of gas Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.04 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar Activity; Solar Magnetic Field

65) How do a prominence and a flare differ?

A) A prominence is a huge plume of glowing gas trapped in the Sun's magnetic field; a flare is a brief, bright eruption in the chromosphere.

B) A prominence is brief, bright eruption in the chromosphere; a flare is a tenuous flow of hydrogen and helium that sweeps across the Solar System.

C) A prominence is a jet of hot gas thousands of kilometers long; a flare is an immense bubble of hot gas rising from deep within the Sun. D) There is no difference between a prominence and a flare.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.04 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar Activity 66) Which of the following gives evidence of the solar wind?

A) the tails of comets B) jet streams on Earth C) solar prominences D) solar flares E) sunspots Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.04 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar Atmosphere 67) How do we know sunspots have magnetic fields?

A) the Zeeman effect B) Wien's law C) the Hubble effect D) We have measured the sunspots' fields with spacecraft.

E) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.04 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar Magnetic Field

68) What is solar seismology?

A) the study of the Sun's atmosphere by analyzing waves in the Sun's interior B) the study of the Sun's interior by analyzing waves in the Sun's atmosphere C) the study of gravitational waves from the Sun D) the study of the Sun's changing size Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.04 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Solar Atmosphere 69) The magnetic fields in sunspots can be detected by the fact that some lines in the spectrum of a gas split into two or more lines by the action of magnetic fields.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.04 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Sunspots and Sunspot Cycle; Solar Magnetic Field 70) The Sun rotates A) slower B) the same C) faster D) backwards

at its equator compared to near its poles.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.05 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interior Dynamics of the Sun

71) The a period , that coincides with .

A) sunspot cycle is; of 11 years; the Sun's rotation around its axis B) Maunder Minimum is; of low sunspot activity; the "little ice age" in the late 17th century C) magnetic cycle is; of 22 years; a period of intense solar and earthquakes D) solar cycle is; of high sunspot activity; the cycle of the planetary alignments Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.05 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Sunspots and Sunspot Cycle 72) If the Sun's rotation carries two sunspots around the side out of sight, you might see them again in about A) twelve hours.

B) two weeks.

C) a month.

D) six months.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.05 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Sunspots and Sunspot Cycle 73) The solar cycle is a result of the A) nuclear fusion at the core of the Sun. B) loss of energy in the Sun's magnetic field through flares, sunspots, and prominences.

C) differential rotation of the Sun. D) motion in the convection zone cycling material into the Sun's core.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.05 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Sunspots and Sunspot Cycle; Solar Activity; Solar Magnetic Field

74) About how long is the solar cycle (evidenced by sunspots)?

A) 3 years B) 5 days C) 11 years D) 22 years Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.05 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Sunspots and Sunspot Cycle 75) About how long is the solar cycle (evidenced by the polarity of the Sun's magnetic field)?

A) 3 years B) 5 days C) 11 years D) 22 years Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.05 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Sunspots and Sunspot Cycle 76) Which of the following is evidence that solar activity affects Earth's climate?

A) The Maunder Minimum—a period of abnormally low sunspot numbers—coincided with abnormally cold northern winters.

B) The Schwab Cycle—a period of abnormally numerous and large sunspots—preceded a 250year drought in Africa.

C) The dust bowl of the 1930s in the United States coincided with the complete disappearance of sunspots during that time.

D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.05 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Sunspots and Sunspot Cycle

77) Why does the number of sunspots change over time?

A) The temperature of the Sun increases and decreases over time.

B) The brightness of the Sun increases and decreases with time.

C) The Sun's magnetic field changes in strength and shape with time.

D) The solar wind changes speed with time, obscuring them.

E) The number of sunspots does not change–the spots are simply on the other side.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.05 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Sunspots and Sunspot Cycle 78) How long is it between peaks in the number of sunspots?

A) 11 months B) 5 years C) 2.5 years D) 11 years E) 22 years Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.05 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Sunspots and Sunspot Cycle 79) Why do sunspots appear dark?

A) They are made of different material than the surrounding gases.

B) They are hotter than the surrounding gases.

C) They are cooler than the surrounding gases.

D) Their magnetic fields block light.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.05 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Sunspots and Sunspot Cycle

80) The Sun rotates slower near its poles than near its equator.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.05 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interior Dynamics of the Sun 81) Comparison of the number of sunspots and the surface temperature of Earth shows a correspondence right up to the present day.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.05 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Sunspots and Sunspot Cycle 82) Why does the Sun's convection zone exist?

A) There is too much energy passing through the region to transport by radiation.

B) The rate of energy transport is too low for radiation to be efficient.

C) It serves as a way to replenish the core with hydrogen.

D) The sun does not have a convection zone.

Answer: A Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 12.02 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interior Dynamics of the Sun

83) What is the approximate density of the Sun's core?

A) 1.6 g/cm3 B) 16 g/cm3 C) 160 g/cm3 D) 1600 g/cm3 Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.02 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interior Dynamics of the Sun 84) How do we know the Sun is in hydrostatic equilibrium?

A) It is not exploding.

B) It is not collapsing.

C) It is not growing colder.

D) All of these choices are correct.

E) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 12.02 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interior Dynamics of the Sun 85) What was the "solar neutrino puzzle"?

A) Neutrinos fired at the Sun's core were not reflecting properly back to Earth.

B) The Sun's core was producing too many neutrinos.

C) Particle accelerators on Earth were interfering with the Sun's core.

D) The sun did not produce any neutrinos, indicating it cannot be powered by fusion.

E) Neutrinos from the Sun were spontaneously changing into unexpected types.

Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 12.03 Topic: The Sun Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interior Processes for the Sun; Neutrinos

Explorations: Introduction to Astronomy 9th Edition Thomas Arny Chapter 13 Measuring the Properties of Stars 1) What is parallax?

A) the distance to an object, measured in parsecs B) the difference between the apparent and absolute magnitude C) the apparent shift in position of an object caused by a change in the observer's position D) the shift in angular position of an object as the object actually moves in space Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.01 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Measuring Distance to Stars 2) Parallax measurements of the distances to the nearest stars use A) Earth's orbit B) Earth's diameter C) Earth-Moon distance D) about the length of a football field

_ as a baseline.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.01 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Measuring Distance to Stars 3) A star has a parallax angle of 0.2 arc seconds, which means it is at a distance of A) 2 parsecs.

B) 2 light-years.

C) 5 parsecs.

D) 5 light-years.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.01 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Measuring Distance to Stars

4) The parallax of a star is A) a distance; arc seconds B) an angle; arc seconds C) an angle; parsecs D) a distance; AUs

usually measured in

.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.01 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Measuring Distance to Stars 5) If the distance between Earth and a star is measured using parallax measurements, how far apart in time should the two measurements be made to make the parallax measurement as accurate as possible?

A) instantaneously B) a day C) six months D) a year Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.01 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Measuring Distance to Stars 6) If Star A has a parallax angle of 3 arc seconds while Star B has a parallax angle of 9 arc seconds then we know that A) Star A is three times farther away.

B) Star A is nine times farther away.

C) Star B is three times farther away.

D) Star B is nine times farther away.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.01 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Measuring Distance to Stars

7) A star's parallax can reveal its distance. Stars with larger parallaxes are _ A) farther away B) closer C) the same distance as other stars D) This is a trick question. Parallax cannot be measured for stars!

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.01 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Measuring Distance to Stars 8) A star has a parallax of 0.04 arc seconds. What is its distance?

A) 4 light-years B) 4 parsecs C) 25 light-years D) 25 parsecs Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.01 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Measuring Distance to Stars 9) A star has a parallax of 0.08 arc seconds. What is its distance?

A) 8 light-years B) 8 parsecs C) 80 parsecs D) 12.5 parsecs E) 125 parsecs Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.01 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Measuring Distance to Stars

.

10) The method of standard candles can be used to measure a star's A) distance B) luminosity C) mass D) brightness E) absolute magnitude

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.01 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Measuring Distance to Stars 11) Nearby stars have larger parallax angles, therefore their distance in parsecs is smaller.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.01 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Measuring Distance to Stars 12) The apparent magnitude of a star tells us how bright the star would appear if placed at a distance of 10 pc from the Sun. Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.01 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Magnitude Systems 13) One parsec is equal to 3.26 light-years.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.01 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Measuring Distance to Stars

14) The relative brightness of the stars as we see them in our sky is represented by their A) absolute magnitude.

B) apparent magnitude.

C) surface temperature.

D) luminosity.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.02 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Magnitude Systems 15) If it were possible to move a star closer to Earth then its apparent magnitude number would while its absolute magnitude number would .

A) decrease; increase B) decrease; stay the same C) increase; decrease D) increase; stay the same Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.02 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Magnitude Systems 16) If a star has an apparent magnitude of 8 and an absolute magnitude of 6 it is A) much closer than 10 parsecs away.

B) slightly closer than 10 parsecs away.

C) exactly 10 parsecs away.

D) slightly farther than 10 parsecs away.

E) much farther than 10 parsecs away.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.02 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Magnitude Systems

17) The amount of energy emitted by a star each second is the .

A) apparent brightness; degrees K B) temperature; degrees K C) apparent brightness; watts D) luminosity; watts

and is measured in

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.02 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Luminosity, Temperature and the Inverse-Square Law 18) A light source at a distance of 1 meter that emits 50 watts of visible radiation has the same as a source emitting 200 watts and is located .

A) luminosity; 2 meters away B) luminosity; 4 meters away C) apparent brightness; 2 meters away D) apparent brightness; 4 meters away Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.02 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Luminosity, Temperature and the Inverse-Square Law 19) A star of apparent magnitude 6 appears magnitude 7.

A) 1.00 B) 13.0 C) 2.51 D) 0.5 E) 10.0 Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.02 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Magnitude Systems

times brighter than a star of apparent

20) A star of apparent magnitude magnitude 4.

A) 1 B) 1.49 C) 3 D) 6.51 E) 10

appears 2.51 times brighter than a star of apparent

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.02 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Magnitude Systems 21) If Star A is twice as far as Star B, and they are identical in all other ways, then the brightness of Star A would be A) one-fourth the brightness of Star B. B) one-half the brightness of Star B. C) the same brightness as Star B. D) twice the brightness of Star B. E) four times the brightness of Star B. Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.02 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Luminosity, Temperature and the Inverse-Square Law 22) A 10th magnitude star is A) 2 times brighter B) 2 times fainter C) 100 times brighter D) 100 times fainter Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.02 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Magnitude Systems

than a 5th magnitude star.

23) Differences in apparent magnitude correspond to ratios of A) luminosity B) brightness C) mass D) temperature E) distance

.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.02 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Magnitude Systems 24) Differences in absolute magnitude correspond to ratios of A) luminosity B) brightness C) mass D) temperature E) distance

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.02 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Magnitude Systems 25) The luminosity of a star allows astronomers to determine the radius and distance of the star.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.02 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Luminosity, Temperature and the Inverse-Square Law; Wien's Law and the StefanBoltzmann Law

26) A star of absolute magnitude 1 is about 2.51 times more luminous than a star of absolute magnitude 2.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.02 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Magnitude Systems 27) A star with an apparent magnitude of 10 is visible by the naked eye.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.02 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Magnitude Systems 28) Two stars that have the same absolute magnitude also have the same luminosity.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.02 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Magnitude Systems; Luminosity, Brightness, and the Inverse-Square Law 29) Star A and Star B have same temperatures, but Star A is more luminous than Star B. Based on this information, which of the following must be the case?

A) Star A is smaller than Star B. B) Star A is larger than Star B. C) Star A and Star B have same size.

D) Star A is more massive than Star B. Answer: B Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 13.03 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Luminosity, Brightness, and the Inverse-Square Law; Temperature, Wien's Law, and the Stefan-Boltzmann Law

30) Luminosity (absolute brightness) of a star depends on its A) temperature and radius B) radius and distance C) distance and mass D) mass and age E) age and temperature

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.03 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Luminosity, Brightness, and the Inverse-Square Law 31) Star A and Star B have the same size, but Star A is more luminous than Star B. Based on this information, which of the following must be the case?

A) Star A is cooler than Star B. B) Star A is hotter than Star B. C) Star A and Star B have same temperature.

D) Star A is more massive than Star B. Answer: B Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 13.03 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Luminosity, Brightness, and the Inverse-Square Law; Temperature, Wien's Law, and the Stefan-Boltzmann Law 32) can be used to measure the A) Parallax measurements; radius B) The method of standard candles; brightness C) Interferometry; radius D) Spectroscopy; brightness

of nearby stars.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.03 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Temperature, Wien's Law, and the Stefan-Boltzmann Law

33) The luminosity of a star is determined by the star's A) brightness; temperature B) apparent brightness; surface temperature C) diameter; surface temperature D) distance; surface temperature E) diameter; distance

and

.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.03 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Luminosity, Temperature and the Inverse-Square Law; Temperature, Wien's Law, and the Stefan-Boltzmann Law 34) A star with a spectrum that peaks at a wavelength of 1 micron (1 × 10-6) would have a surface temperature of and be an star.

A) 2,900 K; O B) 2,900 K; M C) 29,000 K; O D) 29,000 K; M Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.03 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Wien's Law and the Stefan-Boltzmann Law 35) How does Rigel, a bluish star, surface temperature compare to Betelgeuse, a reddish star.

A) Rigel's surface temperature is less than Betelgeuse's.

B) Rigel's surface temperature is greater than Betelgeuse's.

C) They have the same surface temperature because they are both members of the constellation Orion.

D) It is impossible to say without knowledge of the sizes of the stars.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.03 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Wien's Law and the Stefan-Boltzmann Law

36) A star radiates most strongly at 600 nanometers. What is its surface temperature?

A) 483 K B) 4,830 K C) 6,000 K D) 72,500 K E) 7,250 K Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.03 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Temperature, Wien's Law, and the Stefan-Boltzmann Law 37) A star radiates most strongly at 400 nm. What is its surface temperature?

A) 483 K B) 4,830 K C) 7,250 K D) 72,500 K Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.03 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Temperature, Wien's Law, and the Stefan-Boltzmann Law 38) Wien's law implies that a blue star is cooler than a red star.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.03 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Wien's Law and the Stefan-Boltzmann Law

39) Wien's law can only tell us about the surface temperature of a star, not the temperatures of the star's interior.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.03 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Wien's Law and the Stefan-Boltzmann Law 40) Which of the following stars has the hottest stellar surface temperature?

A) M6 B) A0 C) G5 D) B2 E) K9 Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.04 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Stellar Spectra 41) Which of the following stars is reddish in color?

A) F6 B) A0 C) G5 D) B2 E) K9 Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.04 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Stellar Spectra

42) Which of the following is a main sequence star hotter than the Sun? (Note: the Sun is a G2V star.)

A) K2V B) G1II C) G2III D) G1V E) O2II Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.04 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Stellar Spectra; Main Sequence Stars 43) Which of the following statements would explain the fact that larger molecules, such as amino acids, do not produce spectral lines in the OBAFGKM classification?

A) Larger molecules require higher temperatures to show absorption lines.

B) The spectra of hydrogen and helium are sufficient to classify stars.

C) The spectra of larger molecules are too complicated.

D) Larger molecules break apart at the high temperatures of stellar atmospheres.

E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.04 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Stellar Spectra

44) How can we explain the fact that hydrogen Balmer lines are essentially absent in the hot O type and the cool M stars?

A) O type stars do not contain hydrogen.

B) In cool stars hydrogen combines to form large molecules.

C) In O stars hydrogen is ionized and in M stars the electrons of hydrogen are in level 1, not level 2.

D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.04 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Stellar Spectra 45) The spectrum of a star shows the 656 nm absorption line shifted to 654 nm. Which of the following can we conclude about this star?

A) The star is approaching us with an approximate speed of 1,800 km/sec.

B) The star is receding with an approximate speed of 1,800 km/sec.

C) The star is approaching us with an approximate speed of 900 km/sec.

D) The star is receding with an approximate speed of 900 km/sec.

E) The star is spinning rapidly.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.04 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Stellar Spectra; Stellar Motion

46) If a main sequence, giant, and a supergiant all have the same spectral class, what characteristic is known to make these stars different?

A) luminosity B) distance C) surface temperature D) color E) It shows that the more massive stars are cooler.

Answer: A Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 13.04 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Stellar Spectra 47) Analysis of stellar spectra shows that most stars consist of 71% and a 2% mix of the other elements.

A) hydrogen; oxygen B) hydrogen; helium C) helium; hydrogen D) oxygen; nitrogen

, 27%

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.04 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Stellar Spectra 48) The Balmer lines correspond to wavelengths in the atom.

A) ultraviolet; helium B) visible; hydrogen C) infrared; hydrogen D) X-ray; helium Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.04 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Stellar Spectra

part of the spectrum of a(n)

,

49) The hydrogen absorption lines are the strongest in A) A B) B C) O D) G

type stars.

Answer: A Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 13.04 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Stellar Spectra 50) Lines from molecules are strongest in A) A B) F C) M D) K E) O

type stars.

Answer: C Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 13.04 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Stellar Spectra 51) In

stars most of the electrons in the hydrogen atom are above level 2 and in stars most of the electrons are below level 2, therefore the are essentially absent in both types.

A) type M; type O; Balmer lines B) type O; type M; Balmer lines C) type A; type M; emission lines D) type M; type A; absorption lines E) type O; type A; emission lines Answer: B Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 13.04 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Stellar Spectra

52) Yellow dwarfs have A) narrower B) stronger C) weaker D) wider

spectral lines than red giants.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.04 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Stellar Spectra 53) Why do stars have dark lines in their spectra?

A) The cooler atoms in their surface layers absorb the radiation at some wavelengths.

B) They simply don't emit light at certain wavelengths.

C) Magnetic fields in Earth's atmosphere absorb the radiation at some wavelengths.

D) The statement is false. Stars have bright emission lines in their spectra, but no absorption lines.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.04 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Stellar Spectra 54) Which of the following stellar spectral types is cooler than our Sun? A) K B) F C) G D) O Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.04 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Stellar Spectra

55) What distinguishes the spectral type of a star?

A) its brightness B) the lines in its spectrum C) its distance D) its velocity Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.04 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Stellar Spectra 56) If a star exhibits no Doppler shift in its emitted light, it must be true that A) the star is not moving relative to Earth B) the star is neither moving toward nor away from Earth C) the star only displays proper motion D) the star does not emit much visible light Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.04 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Stellar Motion 57) Which of the following stars is hottest?

A) M B) F C) G D) B E) O Answer: E Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.04 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Stellar Spectra

.

58) The Sun is a G2V type star.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.04 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Stellar Spectra 59) The sequence OBAFGKM orders the stars in decreasing temperature and decreasing mass.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.04 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Stellar Spectra 60) Hydrogen Balmer lines are essentially absent in the O and M type stars.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 13.04 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Stellar Spectra 61) A star approaching Earth will show spectral lines that are shifted to longer wavelengths.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.04 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Stellar Motion

62) Stars with surface temperatures near 10,000 K have the strongest hydrogen absorption lines in their spectra.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 13.04 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Stellar Spectra 63) Eighty percent of A) O and B B) A and F C) F and G D) K and M

type stars have orbiting companions.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.05 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Binary Stars 64) In which binary system can we observe both the stars separately and follow their orbits around each other?

A) visual binary system B) spectroscopic binary system C) eclipsing binary system D) transiting binary system Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.05 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Binary Stars

65) Binary star systems are very important because they allow A) measurement of star masses.

B) measurement of the speed of stars.

C) more precise measurement of the distance of stars.

D) more precise measurement of the temperature of stars.

E) more precise measurement of the spectral type of stars.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.05 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Binary Stars 66) What is the difference between spectroscopic and visual binaries?

A) Spectroscopic binaries have double spectral lines but do not move.

B) Visual binaries are pairs of stars in the same region in the sky but are not gravitationally interacting.

C) A visual binary does not show changes in the spectral lines.

D) In a visual binary we can see two distinct stars; in spectroscopic binaries, the images of the two stars cannot be resolved.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.05 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Binary Stars 67) A visual binary star system has rotation period, P = 10 years. The semi-major axis of the orbit of one of the stars is 5 AU. What is the combined mass of the binary star system?

A) 0.4 solar masses B) 8 solar masses C) 4 solar masses D) 40 solar masses E) 200 solar masses Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.05 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Binary Stars

68) The study of eclipsing binary stars is very important because it allows astronomers to determine A) the distance between two stars.

B) the speed of stars from the Doppler shift of their spectral lines.

C) the diameters of stars.

D) the luminosity of each star.

E) the brightness of each star.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.05 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Binary Stars 69) binary star systems are important because they allow astronomers to determine the mass and the of the stars in the system.

A) Eclipsing; temperature B) Spectroscopic; diameter C) Spectroscopic; temperature D) Eclipsing; diameter E) Visual; temperature Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.05 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Binary Stars

70) Analysis of solar masses.

A) binary; 1; 10 B) spinning; 1,000; 0.1 C) binary; 100; 1 D) spinning; 1; 100 E) binary; 30; 0.1

stars has shown that star masses are in the range of

to

Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.05 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Binary Stars 71) A binary star is a pair of stars that orbit around each other. By detecting this orbital motion, and using Kepler's laws and the law of gravitation, one can directly measure the stars' .

A) temperatures B) luminosities C) masses D) distances Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.05 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Binary Stars 72) What is a spectroscopic binary?

A) A spectroscopic binary looks, to us on Earth, like a single star, but its spectrum shows double lines that shift.

B) a visual binary for which we have spectra of both stars C) a visual binary in which one or both stars have peculiar spectra D) a visual binary that is shown by its spectrum to be a single star Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.05 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Binary Stars

73) The hottest (O and B type) stars are usually binary stars, while the coolest (M type) stars are usually single stars.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.05 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Binary Stars 74) Measuring stellar masses using binary stars is difficult because binary stars are rare.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.05 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Binary Stars 75) The study of eclipsing binary star systems provides information about the radii of stars.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.05 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Binary Stars

76) In the above H-R diagram sketch, which star is a white dwarf?

A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.06 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: H-R Diagram 77) In the above H-R diagram sketch, which star is a red dwarf?

A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.06 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: H-R Diagram

78) In the above H-R diagram sketch, which star is a red giant?

A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.06 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: H-R Diagram 79) In the above H-R diagram sketch, which star is a blue giant?

A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.06 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: H-R Diagram 80) In the above H-R diagram, which main sequence star is bluish in color?

A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.06 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: H-R Diagram

81) In the above H-R diagram, which main sequence star is reddish in color?

A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.06 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: H-R Diagram 82) In the above H-R diagram, which main sequence star is biggest in size?

A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.06 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: H-R Diagram 83) The H-R diagram is a diagram plotting the stars according to their A) apparent brightness and temperature.

B) spectral type and temperature.

C) brightness and luminosity class.

D) luminosity and temperature.

E) mass and diameter.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.06 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: H-R Diagram

84) The star Aldebaran is a red giant, and is much more luminous than the Sun. What conclusions can be drawn from this fact?

A) Aldebaran is hotter and much more massive than the Sun. B) Aldebaran is cooler than the Sun, but has larger diameter than the Sun. C) In the H-R diagram, Aldebaran is above and to the left of the Sun. D) Aldebaran is a binary star.

E) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.06 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Temperature, Wien's Law, and the Stefan-Boltzmann Law 85) The star Aldebaran is cooler and much more luminous than the Sun. Where do you expect to find Aldebaran in the H-R diagram?

A) top left B) top right C) center D) bottom right E) bottom left Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.06 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: H-R Diagram 86) Stars on the main sequence have different luminosities because A) they have different chemical compositions.

B) they have different ages.

C) they are at different distances from the Sun. D) they have different masses.

E) they have different apparent magnitudes.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.06 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Main Sequence Stars; Mass-Luminosity Relation

87) Star A is located at the top left of the H-R diagram and has the same luminosity as Star B which is located at the top right of the H-R diagram. How must these stars differ?

A) Star A is hotter and bigger than Star B. B) Star A is cooler and bigger than Star B. C) Star A is hotter and smaller than Star B. D) Star A is cooler and smaller than Star B. Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.06 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Luminosity, Temperature and the Inverse-Square Law; H-R Diagram 88) An M type star 1,000 times more luminous than the Sun will be located near the part of the H-R diagram.

A) top left B) top right C) center D) bottom right E) bottom left Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.06 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: H-R Diagram

89) A main sequence star has 3 times the mass of the Sun. Using is times more luminous than the Sun. A) the mass-luminosity relation; 9 B) the Stefan-Boltzmann law; 3 C) Wien's law; 3 D) the mass-luminosity relation; 3 E) the inverse-square law; 9

we find that the star

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.06 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Mass-Luminosity Relation 90) If two stars are stacked vertically on a H-R diagram then they necessarily differ in their A) distance.

B) luminosity class.

C) spectral class.

D) temperature.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.06 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Stellar Spectra; H-R Diagram 91) A star that is hot and has low luminosity must have A) a very large radius B) a very small radius C) a very small mass D) a very great distance E) a very low velocity

.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.06 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Temperature, Wien's Law, and the Stefan-Boltzmann Law; H-R Diagram

92) In what part of the H-R diagram are white dwarfs?

A) upper left B) lower center C) upper right D) lower right E) just above the Sun on the main sequence Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.06 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Temperature, Wien's Law, and the Stefan-Boltzmann Law; H-R Diagram 93) The H-R diagram is a plot of stars' A) temperature vs. mass B) mass vs. luminosity C) luminosity vs. temperature D) mass vs. diameter

.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.06 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: H-R Diagram 94) What is the main sequence?

A) a region of cool, luminous stars in the upper right corner of the H-R diagram B) a region of hot dim stars in the lower left corner of the H-R diagram C) an approximately straight line on the H-R diagram along which 90% of stars lay D) the order in which spectral types are listed Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.06 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Main Sequence Stars; H-R Diagram

95) A cool but very luminous star must have A) a very large radius B) a very small radius C) a very small mass D) a very low velocity

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.06 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Temperature, Wien's Law, and the Stefan-Boltzmann Law; H-R Diagram 96) Cooler, less luminous main sequence stars have A) higher masses B) lower masses C) the same masses as hotter stars D) masses that vary widely Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.06 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Main Sequence Stars; Mass-Luminosity Relation 97) Where are red giants on the H-R diagram?

A) upper left B) upper right C) lower left D) lower right Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.06 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: H-R Diagram; Giants and Dwarfs

_.

98) The masses of stars are generally in the range of 30 to 0.1 solar masses.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.06 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Mass-Luminosity Relation 99) The luminosity class of a star can be determined from the width of the spectral lines of the star.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.06 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Stellar Spectra; H-R Diagram; Giants and Dwarfs 100) In the H-R diagram, stars of luminosity class A1 are located near the center.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.06 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Stellar Spectra; H-R Diagram; Giants and Dwarfs 101) Stellar luminosities vary much more than stellar masses.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.06 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: H-R Diagram; Mass-Luminosity Relation

102) How does the spectrum of a star depend on its surface temperature?

A) The hotter the star, the more colors will be present in its continuous spectrum.

B) The cooler the star, the more molecular absorption bands will be present in its spectrum.

C) Hot stars and cool stars can both have weak hydrogen lines.

D) All of these choices are correct.

E) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 13.04 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Temperature, Wien's Law, and the Stefan-Boltzmann Law; Stellar Spectra 103) What was Cecilia Payne's discovery?

A) She proved that stars are composed mainly of hydrogen.

B) She classified stellar spectra by temperature.

C) She showed how to calculate the level in which an atom's electrons were most likely to be found.

D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 13.04 Topic: Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Stellar Spectra

Explorations: Introduction to Astronomy 9th Edition Thomas Arny Chapter 14 Stellar Evolution 1) The most important property that determines the evolution of a star is its A) temperature.

B) composition.

C) mass.

D) location.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.01 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Low-Mass Stellar Evolution; High-Mass Stellar Evolution 2) For a star like the Sun, the gravitational collapse of the interstellar cloud lasted for about and stopped with the ignition of the fusion reaction.

A) 50–100 billion years B) 5–10 billion years C) 1 billion years D) 100 million years E) 1–10 million years Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.01 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Star Formation 3) is the most significant force that determines the evolution of stars.

A) Temperature B) Luminosity C) Energy D) Gravity Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.01 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Low-Mass Stellar Evolution; High-Mass Stellar Evolution; Star Formation

4) Why does a high-mass star evolve differently from a low-mass star?

A) It can fuse additional elements because its core can get hotter.

B) It has more material to burn so it can last longer.

C) It is so bright that it drives material in space away from it so it can't gather up more fuel.

D) It has a lower gravity so it can't pull in more fuel from space.

E) The statement is false. High and low-mass stars evolve the same way.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.01 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Low-Mass Stellar Evolution; High-Mass Stellar Evolution 5) The Sun's evolution from youngest to oldest stage is A) white dwarf, red giant, main sequence, protostar.

B) red giant, main sequence, white dwarf, protostar.

C) protostar, red giant, main sequence, white dwarf.

D) protostar, main sequence, red giant, white dwarf.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.01 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Low-Mass Stellar Evolution 6) Brown dwarfs are A) large terrestrial planets.

B) objects massive enough to fuse deuterium but not massive enough to sustain hydrogen fusion.

C) very low-mass main sequence stars.

D) what is left over after a massive star ejects most of its material through a supernova.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.02 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Star Formation

7) When do we say that a star is born?

A) when the interstellar cloud collapses B) when the interstellar matter achieves the Jeans instability C) when fusion of hydrogen atoms into helium atoms starts D) when the star leaves the main sequence Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.02 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Star Formation 8) What stars form the slowest?

A) O and B B) A and F C) G and A D) K and M Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.02 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Star Formation 9) Protostars shine brightest in A) radio waves.

B) infrared spectrum.

C) visible spectrum.

D) X-ray.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.02 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Star Formation

10) The Sun formed from the gravitational collapse of a cold A) red giant B) planet C) planetary nebula D) interstellar cloud

.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.02 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Star Formation 11) A protostar becomes a main sequence star when it A) starts fusing helium B) starts fusing hydrogen to helium C) starts fusing heavier elements D) starts glowing with infrared light

.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.02 Topic: Stellar Evolution; Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Main Sequence Stellar Lifetimes and Structures; Main Sequence Stars 12) The typical temperature of an interstellar cloud that could collapse to a protostar is about .

A) 1,500 K B) 1,000 K C) 300 K D) 10 K Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.02 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Star Formation

13) Protostars are observable by radio telescopes but hard to detect in visible light because they have and are _ .

A) low surface temperature; very distant B) small size; very hot C) low surface temperature; surrounded by dust D) small size; very distant Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.02 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Star Formation 14) A is a region where jets of gas from young stars impact and heat the gas surrounding the young star.

A) planetary nebula B) bok globule C) bipolar outflow D) T Tauri star Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.02 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Star Formation 15) In the H-R diagram a T Tauri star will be located .

A) near the upper right corner B) near the upper left corner C) near the bottom left corner D) below the main sequence E) on the right-hand side and a little above the main sequence Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.02 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Star Formation

16) A protostar is not A) producing energy B) collapsing C) in hydrostatic equilibrium D) heating up

.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.02 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Star Formation 17) Protostars initially do not experience hydrogen fusion. How does their temperature increase?

A) the light from nearby stars B) gravitational energy from infalling material C) fusion of hydrogen into helium D) energy from their magnetic fields Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.02 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Star Formation 18) Because protostars are at a low temperature and surrounded by dust and gas, astronomers must observe them with .

A) radar B) ultraviolet telescopes C) infrared and radio telescopes D) gamma ray telescopes Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.02 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Star Formation

19) What is a T Tauri star?

A) any variable star B) a red giant with a peculiar spectrum C) any star found in the constellation of Taurus D) a young star that exhibits variable light and outflowing gas Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.02 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Star Formation 20) A star enters the main sequence when .

A) nuclear fuel in its core can supply enough energy to stop its collapse B) it collapses, and its envelope becomes degenerate C) it stops fusing nuclear fuel in its core and starts to expand D) it forms planets Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.02 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Star Formation 21) What makes a gas cloud contract to form stars?

A) The cloud's magnetic field draws material together.

B) The dust in the cloud is pulled together by static electricity.

C) All parts of the cloud are gravitationally attracted to all other parts, collapsing the cloud.

D) Pressure from meteor collisions pushes the cloud together.

E) Uranium atoms attract lead atoms by nuclear fusion.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.02 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Star Formation

22) What makes a star stop contracting?

A) Its magnetic field pushes back against the force of gravity.

B) The dust in it gets packed so tightly that it cannot continue to contract.

C) Its gravity gets too strong for it to continue contracting.

D) It gets hot enough that its pressure builds up, pushing back against the force of gravity.

E) It gets cool enough that it freezes, and the resulting ice is hard enough to push back against gravity.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.02 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Star Formation 23) From what do stars form?

A) globular clusters B) open clusters C) black holes D) planetary nebulas E) interstellar clouds Answer: E Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.02 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Star Formation 24) The gravitational collapse of an interstellar cloud can be triggered by a collision with another cloud.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.02 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Star Formation

25) The temperature of a protostar can reach 1,500 K but they are very hard to detect in visible wavelengths because of their low luminosity and because they are surrounded by dust.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.02 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Star Formation 26) Large interstellar clouds can collapse to form several stars approximately at the same time.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.02 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Star Formation 27) The lifetime of a star is dependent on its A) mass B) volume C) luminosity D) temperature

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.03 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Low-Mass Stellar Evolution; High-Mass Stellar Evolution; Main Sequence Stellar Lifetimes and Structures

28) The Sun will leave the main sequence in about A) 5 million B) 100 billion C) 100 million D) 5 billion

years from now.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.03 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Main Sequence Stellar Lifetimes and Structures 29) If a star is in hydrostatic equilibrium A) it is in a stable binary orbit.

B) it is generating energy at the same rate everywhere.

C) it is near the end of its life.

D) it must be losing mass.

E) its radiation pressure outwards and gravitational forces inwards are in balance.

Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.03 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Main Sequence Stellar Lifetimes and Structures 30) In which stage of a star's evolutionary cycle does it spend the most time?

A) the pre-main sequence B) the main sequence C) the post-main sequence D) It depends on the mass of the star.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.03 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Main Sequence Stellar Lifetimes and Structures

31) What characteristic do all stars on the main sequence share?

A) They all have the same size.

B) They all have the same luminosity.

C) They all have the same temperature.

D) They are all fusing hydrogen into helium in their cores.

E) They will all go through a helium flash in the future.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.03 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Low-Mass Stellar Evolution; High-Mass Stellar Evolution; Main Sequence Stellar Lifetimes and Structures 32) The main source of energy in main sequence stars is A) fusion of hydrogen to helium B) gravity C) the triple alpha process D) the chemical reaction between hydrogen and helium

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.03 Topic: Stellar Evolution; Properties of Stars Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Main Sequence Stellar Lifetimes and Structures; Main Sequence Stars 33) Hydrostatic equilibrium is the balance between A) the internal pressure; energy production B) hydrogen fusion; temperature C) the size; energy production D) the internal pressure; gravity Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.03 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Main Sequence Stellar Lifetimes and Structures

of a star and

.

34) The CNO cycle produces energy by fusing A) neon into magnesium and oxygen.

B) hydrogen into helium.

C) carbon and nitrogen into oxygen.

D) silicon into iron.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.03 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Main Sequence Stellar Lifetimes and Structures 35) During a star's main sequence portion of its life it does not change size appreciably. This observation indicates that A) the Sun produces more energy than it radiates into space.

B) the Sun produces less energy than it radiates into space.

C) the Sun produces about the same amount of energy as it radiates into space.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.03 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Main Sequence Stellar Lifetimes and Structures 36) A star whose mass is 5 times larger than the Sun's and whose luminosity is 100 times larger than the Sun's has a main sequence lifetime about A) 5 times longer than the Sun's.

B) 500 times longer than the Sun's.

C) 5 times shorter than the Sun's.

D) 100 times shorter than the Sun's.

E) 20 times shorter than the Sun's.

Answer: E Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.03 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Main Sequence Stellar Lifetimes and Structures

37) When a star has stopped contracting and settled down, where is it in the H-R diagram?

A) on the main sequence B) below the main sequence in the lower left C) in the upper right as a red giant D) in the instability strip E) It is not on the H-R diagram at that time.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.03 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Main Sequence Stellar Lifetimes and Structures 38) What fuel do stars on the main sequence burn?

A) hydrogen B) helium C) carbon D) iron E) uranium Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.03 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Main Sequence Stellar Lifetimes and Structures 39) Why do elements fuse only in a star's core?

A) The fuel settles to the core.

B) Only the core is hot enough for fusion.

C) Only the core spins fast enough.

D) The statement is incorrect. Fusion occurs just below the surface.

E) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.03 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Main Sequence Stellar Lifetimes and Structures; Dynamics of Giant Stars

40) What makes a star shine?

A) reflected light from the galaxy B) radioactive decay of elements in its core C) nuclear fusion of light elements D) nuclear fission of heavy elements E) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.03 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Main Sequence Stellar Lifetimes and Structures 41) What determines how long a star stays on the main sequence?

A) its temperature and mass B) its luminosity and radius C) its mass and luminosity D) its radius and mass Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.03 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Main Sequence Stellar Lifetimes and Structures 42) What determines how rapidly a star burns up its fuel?

A) its mass B) its luminosity C) the pressure in its core D) the temperature in its core E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.03 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Main Sequence Stellar Lifetimes and Structures

43) What of the following most directly determines how much fuel a star has?

A) its density B) its mass C) its temperature D) its luminosity E) its speed of rotation Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.03 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Main Sequence Stellar Lifetimes and Structures 44) Massive stars burn their fuel less rapidly than low-mass stars.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.03 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Main Sequence Stellar Lifetimes and Structures 45) Before turning into a white dwarf, a star like the Sun will spend most of its life as a main sequence star.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.03 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Main Sequence Stellar Lifetimes and Structures; Death of Low-Mass Stars 46) Convection in the outer layers of a star like the Sun helps mixing and makes more hydrogen available for burning.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.03 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Main Sequence Stellar Lifetimes and Structures

47) The more massive a star is, the longer it lives because it has more hydrogen to fuse into helium.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.03 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Main Sequence Stellar Lifetimes and Structures 48) Main sequence stars are in hydrostatic equilibrium.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.03 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Main Sequence Stellar Lifetimes and Structures 49) The proton-proton chain and the CNO cycle produce energy by fusing hydrogen into helium.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.03 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Main Sequence Stellar Lifetimes and Structures 50) In the core of high-mass stars, the energy is transported by convection currents.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.03 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Main Sequence Stellar Lifetimes and Structures

51) When the outer envelope of a red giant is ejected, the remaining exposed core of a low mass star is called a A) black hole.

B) neutron star.

C) white dwarf.

D) red super giant.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.04 Topic: Stellar Evolution; Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Low-Mass Stellar Evolution; Death of Low-Mass Stars; White Dwarfs 52) Which of the following statements about the "helium flash" is correct?

A) It does not occur in high-mass stars.

B) It does not occur in stars smaller than 0.5 solar masses.

C) It marks the end of the red giant stage for a star like the Sun. D) It releases enough energy to change the degenerate gas in the core to normal gas.

E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.04 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Low-Mass Stellar Evolution; Dynamics of Giant Stars 53) After a star leaves the main sequence, .

A) it continues to fuse hydrogen into helium in its core B) it now fuses hydrogen into helium in a shell outside the core C) it no longer fuses hydrogen into helium anywhere inside the star D) all hydrogen in the star has been fused, and helium fusion begins Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.04 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Low-Mass Stellar Evolution; High-Mass Stellar Evolution

54) When a star moves off the main sequence and becomes a red giant it is brighter because A) the star moves closer to Earth.

B) the size of the star increases.

C) the surface temperature increases.

D) the star's mass increases.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.04 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Dynamics of Giant Stars 55) The triple alpha process produces energy by fusing A) helium; carbon B) hydrogen; helium C) oxygen; carbon D) oxygen and carbon; carbon dioxide E) carbon and nitrogen; cyanogen Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.04 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Dynamics of Giant Stars 56) After the hydrogen in the star's core is depleted, the core A) shrinks and cools down.

B) shrinks and heats up.

C) expands and cools down.

D) expands and heats up.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.04 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Dynamics of Giant Stars

into

.

57) What happens to a star's core as the hydrogen there is used up?

A) Nothing. It just turns to helium.

B) It expands and cools.

C) It contracts and cools.

D) It contracts and heats.

E) As the helium accumulates, the core rises to the surface of the star and escapes into space.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.04 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Dynamics of Giant Stars 58) What happens to the star's outer layers as the fuel in its core is used up?

A) They shrink and cool.

B) They shrink and heat up.

C) They expand and cool.

D) They expand and heat up.

E) Nothing. Only the interior changes.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.04 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Dynamics of Giant Stars 59) Why does the star's core get hotter as the core shrinks?

A) The fusing elements settle there to liberate their heat.

B) The core is compressed and compression heats a gas.

C) The core spins faster and friction heats it.

D) The statement is false. A shrinking core cools.

E) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.04 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Dynamics of Giant Stars

60) What kind of object does a main sequence star become on first using up its core hydrogen?

A) a white dwarf B) a protostar C) a supernova D) a planetary nebula E) a red giant Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.04 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Dynamics of Giant Stars 61) Stars like the Sun probably do not form iron cores during their evolution because A) all the iron is ejected when they become planetary nebulas.

B) their cores never get hot enough for them to make iron by nucleosynthesis.

C) the iron they make by nucleosynthesis is all fused into uranium.

D) their strong magnetic fields keep their iron in their atmospheres.

E) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.04 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Dynamics of Giant Stars 62) As a star like the Sun evolves into a red giant, its core A) expands and cools.

B) contracts and heats.

C) expands and heats.

D) turns into iron.

E) turns into uranium.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.04 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Dynamics of Giant Stars

63) A star leaves the main sequence when A) nuclear fuel in its core can supply enough energy to stop its collapse.

B) it collapses, and its envelope becomes degenerate.

C) it stops fusing hydrogen in its core and starts to expand.

D) it forms planets.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.04 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Dynamics of Giant Stars 64) When a massive star begins to run out of hydrogen to fuse, its core A) expands and cools B) contracts and heats C) expands and heats D) contracts and cools

.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.04 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Dynamics of Giant Stars 65) When a massive star begins to run out of hydrogen to fuse, its outer layers of gas A) expand and cool B) contract and heat C) expand and heat D) contract and cool Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.04 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Dynamics of Giant Stars

.

66) Why can high-mass stars "burn" helium more easily than low-mass stars?

A) A high-mass star's core is already very hot, so it only needs to compress its core a little to burn helium.

B) High-mass stars are already burning helium on the main sequence.

C) Low-mass stars have proportionately less helium than high-mass stars.

D) This statement is false. It is much harder for high-mass stars to burn helium.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.04 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Dynamics of Giant Stars; Death of High-Mass Stars 67) The triple alpha process requires higher temperatures to start and produces less energy for a given mass than the proton-proton chain.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.04 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Dynamics of Giant Stars 68) Red giants are huge because their outer layers have expanded to a very low-density tenuous atmosphere.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.04 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Dynamics of Giant Stars

69) The period-luminosity law of pulsating variable stars indicates that A) the more slowly a star pulsates, the more luminous it is.

B) the faster a star pulsates, the more luminous it is.

C) the period of pulsation is independent of luminosity.

D) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.05 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Period-Luminosity Relation for Variable Stars 70) What makes variable stars useful in determining star distances?

A) Their exact location in the H-R diagram is known.

B) They are brighter than other stars.

C) Their luminosity can be determined from their pulsation period.

D) They are easier to spot than ordinary stars.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.05 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Period-Luminosity Relation for Variable Stars 71) High-mass stars become variables when they cross the instability strip, while lowmass stars become variables.

A) Cepheid; RR Lyrae B) RR Lyrae; Cepheid C) ZZ Ceti; RR Lyrae D) Cepheid; T Tauri E) T Tauri; Cepheid Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.05 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Mechanics of Variable Stars

72) The light curve of a large Cepheid variable would typically show pulsations in luminosity .

A) every 6 minutes B) every 6 hours C) every 60 days D) every 6 months E) every 6 years Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.05 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Mechanics of Variable Stars 73) What is a "pulsating star"?

A) a rotating neutron star that emits radio waves in a narrow beam B) a star whose luminosity changes as it regularly expands and contracts C) a planetary nebula D) a star whose mass changes as it comes into contact with another star Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.05 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Mechanics of Variable Stars 74) The larger pulsating stars have a shorter pulsation period and higher luminosity.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.05 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Period-Luminosity Relation for Variable Stars; Mechanics of Variable Stars

75) The pulsation in the luminosity of variable stars is driven by the changing opacity of their atmosphere.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.05 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Mechanics of Variable Stars 76) Which of the following statements about planetary nebulas is correct?

A) They are shells of glowing gas and dust ejected by dying Sun-like stars.

B) They contain flakes of carbon and silicon material.

C) They expand at a typical rate of 20 kilometers per second.

D) Their shape can be very irregular.

E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.06 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Death of Low-Mass Stars 77) What is a "planetary nebula"?

A) It is the disk of gas around a young star.

B) It is the cloud from which protostars form.

C) It is a shell of gas ejected from a star late in its life.

D) It is what is left when a white dwarf star explodes as a supernova.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.06 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Death of Low-Mass Stars

78) What is left when a planetary nebula dissipates?

A) a red giant B) a black hole C) a white dwarf D) a neutron star Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.06 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Death of Low-Mass Stars 79) All stars ultimately leave behind a white dwarf and an expanding planetary nebula after they exhaust their nuclear fuel.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.06 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Death of Low-Mass Stars 80) Which of the following elements in your body is formed in stars?

A) carbon B) oxygen C) calcium D) iron E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.07 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Nucleosynthesis

81) The process in which two or more lighter elements combine to form a single heavier element is called A) nucleosynthesis.

B) photodisintegration.

C) neutronization.

D) fission.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.07 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Nucleosynthesis 82) Which of the following statements applies in the final moments of the life of high-mass stars?

A) Their outer layer is mainly hydrogen and helium.

B) Around their cores, they have a series of nested shells, each made of a heavier element than the one surrounding it.

C) They have iron cores.

D) The core temperature is about 2 billion degrees.

E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.07 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Death of High-Mass Stars 83) Which of the following statements about the evolution of high-mass stars is NOT correct?

A) High-mass stars evolve much faster than low-mass stars.

B) High-mass stars can fuse elements heavier than helium in their core.

C) High-mass stars stop fusing elements once they reach a carbon-filled core.

D) High-mass stars do not have a helium flash.

E) The life of a high-mass star ends with a supernova explosion.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.07 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: High-Mass Stellar Evolution

84) How do most of the heavier elements up to iron form in the universe?

A) in supernova explosions B) by nucleosynthesis in the cores of massive stars C) in the original interstellar clouds D) in the cores of protostars Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.07 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Death of High-Mass Stars; Nucleosynthesis 85) Where do most of the elements heavier than iron form?

A) in the interior of stars B) in the interior of high-mass stars C) in supernova explosions D) in the interstellar clouds Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.07 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Death of High-Mass Stars; Nucleosynthesis 86) The last fusion product possible in stars is because A) lead, fusing lead nuclei absorbs energy; it does not liberate it B) iron, fusing iron nuclei absorbs energy; it does not liberate it C) iron; no stars are hot enough in their cores to fuse iron nuclei D) carbon; no stars are hot enough in their cores to fuse carbon nuclei Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.07 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Death of High-Mass Stars; Nucleosynthesis

.

87) Supernova remnants .

A) initially expand at thousands of km/s B) may contain up to 10 solar masses of material ejected from the star C) are important for mixing material into the interstellar medium D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 14.07 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Death of High-Mass Stars 88) What makes a high-mass star's core collapse?

A) Energy from its outer layers compresses its core.

B) The only thing that can make a star's core collapse is a collision with another star.

C) Massive stars develop iron cores that cannot fuse anymore, so the core collapses under gravity.

D) Massive stars' cores don't collapse. They expand and become planetary nebulas.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.07 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Death of High-Mass Stars 89) What can be observed from Earth when a supernova explodes?

A) photons and neutrinos B) electrons and protons C) photons and neutrons D) neutrons and neutrinos Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.07 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Death of High-Mass Stars

90) What allows a high-mass star to fuse different elements from a low-mass star?

A) Its greater mass means that it contains more elements.

B) More mass means a stronger magnetic field that helps heavier elements fuse.

C) More mass means more compression and thus a hotter core that allows heavier elements to fuse.

D) High-mass stars spin slower and thus do not mix their fuels as well.

E) The statement is false. Low-mass and high-mass stars can fuse the same elements.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.07 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Low-Mass Stellar Evolution; High-Mass Stellar Evolution 91) Iron does not release energy when it is fused.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.07 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Death of High-Mass Stars; Nucleosynthesis 92) As stars evolve, their temperature and luminosity change; therefore, their spectral type (OBAF, etc.) changes as well.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.07 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Death of Low-Mass Stars; Death of High-Mass Stars

93) The energy released when a star explodes in a supernova can be more than the nuclear fusion energy produced by the same star throughout its entire lifetime.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.07 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Death of High-Mass Stars 94) The gold found in jewelry was made during a supernova.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.07 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Death of High-Mass Stars 95) How do astronomers test models of stellar evolution?

A) by comparing the paths in the H-R diagram predicted by models with the H-R diagrams of star clusters B) by measuring the number of stars in a cluster and comparing with the number predicted by the models C) by recording the properties of a star over an extended period of time D) by assuming that all the stars in our galaxy formed at the same time, and comparing with predictions of the models Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.08 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Clusters as Tests for Evolutionary Models

96) Which of the following statements regarding the H-R diagrams of star clusters is NOT correct?

A) A very young cluster will have stars that lie in the right-hand side and a little above the main sequence.

B) A very old cluster will show a turn-off point and will have many red and yellow giant stars.

C) A very young cluster will not show a turn-off point.

D) A very old cluster will have many stars in the upper left corner of the H-R diagram.

E) A very young cluster will not have all its stars on the main sequence.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.08 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Clusters as Tests for Evolutionary Models 97) Interstellar clouds usually form groups of stars that leave the main sequence at the same time.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.08 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Clusters as Tests for Evolutionary Models 98) T Tauri stars are never seen in old star clusters.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 14.08 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Clusters as Tests for Evolutionary Models

99) What becomes of the heavy elements produced by fusion in low-mass stars?

A) They are forever trapped in the core of the star.

B) When the star goes supernova, they are sucked into the neutron star or black hole.

C) Low-mass stars do not produce heavy elements.

D) At the end of the star's life, they are dredged up by convection and pushed outward by photons.

E) They are blasted outward in a violent explosion.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.06 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Low-Mass Stellar Evolution; Nucleosynthesis; Giants and Dwarfs 100) Which of the following statements is true?

A) Planetary nebulae are an important source of interstellar carbon and nitrogen.

B) Low-mass stars can fuse heavier elements by the triple-alpha process and neutron capture.

C) Low-mass stars cannot produce neon.

D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 14.06 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Low-Mass Stellar Evolution; Nucleosynthesis; Giants and Dwarfs 101) Which of the following elements is produced by high-mass stars but not low-mass stars?

A) Nitrogen B) Carbon C) Strontium D) Rubidium E) Lead Answer: D Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 14.07 Topic: Stellar Evolution Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: High-Mass Stellar Evolution; Nucleosynthesis; Giants and Dwarfs

Explorations: Introduction to Astronomy 9th Edition Thomas Arny Chapter 15 Stellar Remnants: White Dwarfs, Neutron Stars, and Black Holes 1) are hot compact stars whose mass is comparable to the Sun's and size to Earth's.

A) White dwarfs B) Neutron stars C) Pulsars D) Black holes Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.01 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: White Dwarfs 2) Which of the following objects do you expect to find at the center of a planetary nebula?

A) planet B) neutron star C) white dwarf D) black hole Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.01 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: White Dwarfs 3) A happens when a white dwarf in a binary system accumulates more mass than the Chandrasekhar limit.

A) Nova B) Type Ia supernova C) Type II supernova D) Pulsar E) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.01 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: White Dwarfs; Type Ia Supernovas

4) This event recurs and happens when one of the companions in the binary system is a white dwarf.

A) Nova B) Type I supernova C) Type II supernova D) Pulsar E) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.01 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: White Dwarfs; Novas 5) Which of the following is a remnant of a dying star?

A) white dwarf B) neutron star C) black hole D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.01 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: None 6) The Chandrasekhar limit is the largest A) speed B) mass C) temperature D) wavelength

a white dwarf can have.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.01 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: White Dwarfs; Degeneracy and The Chandrasekhar Limit

7) are remnants of low-mass stars.

A) Neutron stars B) Pulsars C) White dwarfs D) Black holes Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.01 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: White Dwarfs 8) Type Ia supernovas involve a A) white dwarf B) neutron star C) black hole D) planetary nebula

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.01 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Type Ia Supernovas 9) Compared to the Sun, white dwarfs have higher A) masses; surface temperatures B) volumes; surface temperatures C) surface temperatures; luminosities D) luminosities; surface temperatures Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.01 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: White Dwarfs

and lower

.

10) White dwarfs have a surface composed of a thin layer of A) hydrogen and oxygen B) hydrogen and helium C) carbon and oxygen D) carbon and helium

.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.01 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: White Dwarfs 11) Astronomers use to determine the magnetic field of white dwarfs.

A) the doppler effect B) Wien's law C) conservation of angular momentum D) the Zeeman splitting of spectral lines Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.01 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: White Dwarfs 12) Why do white dwarfs have high temperatures?

A) heat left over from their formation B) chemical reactions on their surfaces C) nuclear fusion in their cores D) frictional heating from motions inside the white dwarfs Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.01 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: White Dwarfs

13) If left in isolation, a white dwarf will eventually A) cool off and become a black dwarf.

B) explode as a type la supernova.

C) form a brown dwarf.

D) become the seed for a new star.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.01 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: White Dwarfs 14) The surface temperature of a white dwarf is higher than the surface temperature of the Sun. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.01 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: White Dwarfs 15) The more mass a white dwarf has, the larger it is.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.01 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: White Dwarfs; Degeneracy and The Chandrasekhar Limit 16) A chunk of material from the interior of a white dwarf would weigh about 100 times more than an Earth rock of the same size.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.01 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: White Dwarfs

17) White dwarfs have magnetic fields as much as 100 million times larger than Earth's magnetic field.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.01 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: White Dwarfs 18) The interior of a white dwarf behaves like a degenerate gas, i.e., the temperature has little effect on the pressure.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.01 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: White Dwarfs; Degeneracy and The Chandrasekhar Limit 19) Typically, if the mass of a white dwarf increases, the white dwarf shrinks and then explodes if the mass exceeds 1.4 solar masses.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.01 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: White Dwarfs; Degeneracy and The Chandrasekhar Limit 20) The spectral lines of white dwarf stars are redshifted, because their high gravity reduces the energy carried by light escaping from the white dwarf.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.01 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: White Dwarfs

21) Nova explosions involve a binary system of a white dwarf and a companion star and can occur in the same system repeatedly.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.01 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: White Dwarfs; Novas 22) A Type Ia supernova results in the formation of a neutron star.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.01 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: White Dwarfs; Type Ia Supernovas 23) The strong gravitational field of a white dwarf slows down the speed of escaping light, and results in the gravitational redshift.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.01 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: White Dwarfs 24) A happens when a single high-mass star explodes.

A) Nova B) Type Ia supernova C) Type II supernova D) Pulsar E) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.02 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Neutron Stars

25) are hot compact remnant stars whose mass is typically between one and several times that of the Sun, but their size is only 10 km or less.

A) White dwarfs B) Neutron stars C) Pulsars D) Black dwarfs Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.02 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Neutron Stars 26) This recurring event happens in the case of a binary system in which one of the companions is a neutron star.

A) novae B) Type I supernovae C) Type II supernovae D) X-ray bursts E) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.02 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Neutron Stars; Neutron Stars in Binary Systems

27) If stars rotate with periods of tens of days, why does a neutron star rotate several to thousands of times a second?

A) When a neutron star collapses, the intensified magnetic field causes it to rotate much more quickly.

B) When a neutron star collapses, its rotation is kicked up by the ejected material from the supernova.

C) When a neutron star collapses, its rotation rate speeds up because of conservation of angular momentum.

D) The collapsing neutron star becomes hot and the fast rotation is the result of thermal energy.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.02 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Neutron Stars 28) Two important properties of young pulsars are A) rapid rotation and no magnetic field.

B) no rotation and strong magnetic field.

C) extremely rapid rotation and a weak magnetic field.

D) extremely rapid rotation and a strong magnetic field.

E) no rotation and no magnetic field.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.02 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Pulsars 29) Millisecond pulsars rotate about A) 10 B) 100 C) 1,000 D) 1 million Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.02 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Pulsars

times per second.

30) In comparison to main sequence stars, which of the neutron star properties listed is not considered extreme?

A) magnetic field B) spin rate C) density D) mass Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.02 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Neutron Stars 31) The first pulsars were observed using A) optical B) X-ray C) infrared D) radio E) gamma ray

telescopes.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.02 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Pulsars 32) The fast rotation of neutron stars is a consequence of A) Wien's law B) the doppler effect C) their high temperature D) the law of conservation of angular momentum Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.02 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Neutron Stars; Pulsars

.

33) Gravitational waves A) are how pulsars pulse.

B) carry material into black holes.

C) are traveling distortions of space and time.

D) do not carry energy.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.02 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Neutron Stars 34) When a high-mass star's core collapses, the star could A) explode as a supernova B) become a pulsar C) become a neutron star D) become a black hole E) All of these choices are correct.

.

Answer: E Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.02 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Neutron Stars 35) Why are supernova explosions important for our existence?

A) They heat the interstellar medium and help keep Earth warm.

B) They liberate from the star's core the heavy elements of which we and Earth are made.

C) They destroy wandering stars that might otherwise collide with our Sun. D) They bathe Earth in X-rays that may have helped life form.

E) They sterilized the young Earth and allowed life to originate by killing off competing bacteria.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.02 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Neutron Stars; Black Holes

36) When a spinning object changes its size, its rotation rate A) remains the same.

B) always increases.

C) always decreases.

D) increases or decreases, depending on whether it shrinks or expands.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.02 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Neutron Stars; Pulsars 37) The change in rotation rate of a spinning object caused by its size change is a consequence of A) conservation of magnetic energy.

B) the law of action-reaction.

C) conservation of angular momentum.

D) the special theory of relativity.

E) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.02 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Neutron Stars; Pulsars 38) The law of conservation of angular momentum states that when an object of a fixed mass changes its radius R, its rotation velocity V will change so that A) V/R = constant.

B) VR = constant.

C) R/V = constant.

D) V2R = constant.

E) R2V = constant.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.02 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Neutron Stars; Pulsars

39) If a spinning object's radius shrinks by a factor of 5, its rotation velocity will A) get five times faster.

B) get five times slower.

C) remain the same.

D) get 10 times faster.

E) get 25 times faster.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.02 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Neutron Stars; Pulsars 40) The Sun rotates now with a rotation speed of about 2 km/sec. If its radius shrank to the size of Earth, about how fast would it spin?

A) 20 km/sec.

B) 2,000 km/sec.

C) 200 km/sec.

D) 0.2 km/sec.

E) 400 km/sec.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.02 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Neutron Stars; Pulsars 41) The fast rotation of neutron stars is a consequence of the law of conservation of angular momentum.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.02 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Neutron Stars

42) Neutron stars must have a mass smaller than the Chandrasekhar limit.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.02 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Neutron Stars 43) Pulsars are rotating white dwarfs.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.02 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Neutron Stars 44) A gravitational wave can carry energy away from two very dense objects if they are orbiting each other or collide.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.02 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Neutron Stars 45) A method for identifying a black hole is to A) observe them directly through the space-based telescopes.

B) look for voids (holes) in the star fields.

C) look for its effect on nearby companions.

D) search for radio waves from the accretion disk.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.03 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Observation of Black Holes

46) The escape velocity inside a black hole is A) zero.

B) infinity.

C) unknown.

D) half the speed of light.

E) greater than the speed of light.

Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.03 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Black Holes 47) What is the escape velocity at the event horizon of a black hole?

A) speed of sound B) supersonic speed C) speed of light D) half the speed of light Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.03 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Black Holes; Event Horizon; Schwarzschild Radius 48) Which of the following can actually escape a black hole?

A) electrons B) very high energy gamma rays C) visible light D) very low energy radio waves E) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: E Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.03 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Black Holes

49) The mass of a black hole can be determined by .

A) measuring its volume and density B) the electromagnetic radiation it emits C) how rapidly it is spinning D) applying the modified version of Kepler's Third law, if the black hole is in a binary system Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.03 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Black Holes 50) The temperature of black holes is estimated to be A) hotter than the Sun B) less than 1 millionth of a degree C) hotter than 1 million degrees D) hotter than a white dwarf E) Black holes do not have temperature.

.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.03 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Black Holes 51) Black holes emit radiation in the form of A) gravitational B) electromagnetic C) seismic D) nuclear Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.03 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Black Holes

waves known as Hawking radiation.

52) An isolated black hole will A) eventually suck in all of the universe.

B) implode due to its own gravity.

C) not change in any way.

D) slowly evaporate away through the emission of Hawking radiation.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.03 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Black Holes 53) If the Sun were instantly replaced by a black hole of the same mass as our Sun, Earth would be sucked into the black hole.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 15.03 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Black Holes 54) A black hole is an object with escape velocity about half the speed of light.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 15.03 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Black Holes

55) Which of the following elements is NOT produced in a Type Ia supernova?

A) Silicon B) Nickel C) Cobalt D) Iron E) Neon Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.01 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: White Dwarfs; Type Ia Supernovas 56) Why do pulsars "pulse"?

A) They have extremely strong magnetic fields.

B) They have extremely fast rotation rates.

C) Their rotation axis is misaligned with their magnetic field axis.

D) Their surface expands and contracts rapidly, causing changes in brightness.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.02 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Neutron Stars; Pulsars 57) Which of the following elements is NOT produced by neutron star mergers?

A) Silver B) Gold C) Uranium D) Copper E) Lead Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 15.02 Topic: Stellar Remnants Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Neutron Stars; Neutron Stars in Binary Systems

Explorations: Introduction to Astronomy 9th Edition Thomas Arny Chapter 16 The Milky Way Galaxy 1) What is the approximate diameter of the Milky Way Galaxy in light-years?

A) 10 B) 100 C) 1,000 D) 100,000 E) 1,000,000 Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.01 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Shape and Size of the Milky Way 2) What fraction of the Galaxy's mass is in a form that does not emit electromagnetic radiation?

A) about 90% B) about 50% C) about 10% D) Zero percent; all of the Galaxy emits some form of light.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.01 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy; Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Composition and Mass of the Milky Way; Dark Matter 3) The Sun lies the disk of our Milky Way Galaxy.

A) at the center of B) about half of the way out in C) about one-tenth of the way out in D) in the halo above Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.01 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Structure of the Milky Way

4) Astronomers measured the location of the Sun in the Milky Way Galaxy by A) counting the number of stars.

B) plotting the position of globular star clusters.

C) plotting distribution of water molecules.

D) plotting the position of O and B stars.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.01 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Shape and Size of the Milky Way; Star Clusters 5) Who was the first to measure the structure of Milky Way using globular clusters?

A) Jacobus Kapteyn B) Edwin Hubble C) Harlow Shapley D) William Herschel Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.01 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Shape and Size of the Milky Way; Star Clusters 6) One of the reasons that Kapteyn underestimated the size of the Milky Way and Shapley overestimated it is that they did not recognize the .

A) effects of the motion of the Sun from the center B) dimming effect of interstellar dust C) age of the globular clusters D) existence of dark matter Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.01 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Shape and Size of the Milky Way

7) The Solar System is located about A) 8 kiloparsecs B) 8 light-years C) 8 AU D) 8 parsecs

from the center of the Milky Way.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.01 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Structure of the Milky Way 8) The Solar System is about 5 billion years old and completes one orbit around the center of the Milky Way in 220 million years. Therefore, we conclude that the Solar system has completed a total of about orbits around the Galactic center.

A) 5 B) 10 C) 22 D) 50 Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.01 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Structure of the Milky Way; Motion of Stars in the Milky Way 9) The gas and dust in the disk of the Milky Way amount to approximately of the stars.

A) 15% B) 30% C) 50% D) 90% Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.01 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Composition and Mass of the Milky Way

of the mass

10) The estimated age of the Milky Way Galaxy is about A) 20 billion years B) 100,000 years C) 13 billion years D) 4.6 billion years

.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.01 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Composition and Mass of the Milky Way 11) The average distance between stars in the neighborhood of the Solar System is about .

A) 4 AU B) 4 light-years C) 4 kiloparsecs D) 4 arc seconds Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.01 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Shape and Size of the Milky Way

12) Sir William Herschel counted the number of stars in different directions, and getting similar numbers in each direction along the disk, concluded the Sun was near the center of a disk like collection of stars. Herschel came to the wrong conclusion about the Sun's location because A) He was predisposed to believe the Sun was in the center of the Milky Way, and ignored data which disagreed with that conclusion.

B) He did not know that interstellar dust made it hard for him to see a large part of the Milky Way's disk.

C) He only counted globular clusters, and not regular stars.

D) The Sun's position in the Milky Way at that particular time was very unusual and skewed his results.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.01 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Shape and Size of the Milky Way 13) The Milky Way is tilted on the sky because A) it's appearance depends entirely on where you are on Earth.

B) the Solar System is tilted compared to the disk of the Galaxy.

C) the Sun's gravity deflects incoming starlight.

D) the disk of the Galaxy is warped.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.01 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Structure of the Milky Way 14) What does the Milky Way look like on the night sky?

A) a spiral-shaped region of nebulosity B) a pale band of light scattered with stars that stretches across the sky C) a uniform scattering of stars throughout the sky D) The Milky Way is not visible from Earth without a telescope.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.01 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Shape and Size of the Milky Way

15) Roughly how far across is the Milky Way? A) 25 light-years B) 25,000 light-years C) 100,000 light-years D) 10 million light-years Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.01 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Shape and Size of the Milky Way 16) About how much mass does our galaxy contain?

A) 1 million solar masses B) 1 billion solar masses C) 1011 solar masses D) 1020 solar masses Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.01 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Measuring the Milky Way 17) What did Harlow Shapley study in order to deduce the Milky Way's size and the Sun's position in it?

A) open star clusters B) globular star clusters C) interstellar gas clouds D) spiral arms Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.01 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Shape and Size of the Milky Way

18) Although it hasn't been observed (yet), why do astronomers think that the Milky Way may contain "dark" material?

A) Theory predicts that there should be more black holes than we've so far detected.

B) The Galaxy's gravity seems too big for the mass astronomers can see.

C) Due to its large size, the light from stars on the other side of the Milky Way has not reached us yet.

D) Astronomers have detected neutrinos from unseen sources.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.01 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Measuring the Milky Way 19) One way astronomers deduce that the Milky Way has a disk is that they A) see stars arranged in a circular region around the north celestial pole.

B) see far more stars along the band of the Milky Way than in other directions.

C) see a large dark circle silhouetted against the Milky Way in the Southern Hemisphere.

D) see the same number of stars in all directions in the sky.

E) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.01 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Structure of the Milky Way 20) The Milky Way has no sharply defined outer edge.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.01 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Structure of the Milky Way

21) Of the normal matter in the Milky Way, the vast majority of the mass is in the form of gas and dust.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.01 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Composition and Mass of the Milky Way; Interstellar Matter 22) The estimated age of the Milky Way Galaxy is about 13 billion years.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.01 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Shape and Size of the Milky Way; Structure of the Milky Way 23) The main parts of the Milky Way Galaxy are the disk, the bulge, and the halo.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.01 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Structure of the Milky Way 24) The space between the stars is known to contain A) a large quantity of dust but no gas at all.

B) a variable amount of gas but no dust at all.

C) a perfect vacuum.

D) both gas (atomic or molecular) and dust.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.02 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Composition and Mass of the Milky Way; Interstellar Matter

25) Stars in globular clusters belong to Population A) I B) II C) III D) Zero

.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.02 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Star Clusters; Stellar Populations 26) The Milky Way Galaxy contains about .

A) 100 billion; red giants B) 100 billion; O and B type stars C) 10 billion; white dwarfs D) 100 billion; cool dwarfs

stars. Most of these stars are probably

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.02 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Composition and Mass of the Milky Way 27) The majority of stars in the Milky Way appear to be in the A) O and B spectral type B) mass range of 0.1 to 0.5 solar masses C) 6,000 K to 10,000 K temperature range D) Sagittarius A* region Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.02 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Composition and Mass of the Milky Way

.

28) Older red stars are found where in the Galaxy?

A) only in the halo B) only in the disk C) only in the bulge D) all throughout the Galaxy Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.02 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Stellar Populations 29) One difference between Population I and Population II stars in the Milky Way is A) that Pop I stars produce energy by fusion and Pop II by fission.

B) that Pop I stars have very few metals and Pop II stars are metal rich.

C) that Pop I stars have orbits in the disk and Pop II stars have orbits that pass through the disk.

D) that Pop I stars produce energy by fusion and Pop II stars through gravitational contraction.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.02 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Stellar Populations 30) In general, Population I stars are A) older B) younger C) the same age D) sometimes older, and sometimes younger Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.02 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Stellar Populations

than Population II stars.

31) In general, Population I stars are A) massive; dwarfs B) dwarfs; massive C) blue; red D) red; blue

and Population II stars are

.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.02 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Stellar Populations 32) If you made a plot of open clusters on a star map, they would be A) evenly scattered on the page.

B) concentrated along the Galaxy's disk.

C) clustered away from the Galactic bulge.

D) spherically arranged in a halo.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.02 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Star Clusters 33) Which statement is NOT true about open clusters?

A) After a molecular cloud has collapsed and formed many stars, the cloud dissipates and the stars spread out into an open cluster.

B) Open clusters usually contain many blue stars.

C) Open clusters are gravitationally bound and therefore have a spherical shape.

D) Open clusters typically contain dozens to hundreds of stars.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.02 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Star Clusters

34) Which of the following may explain the failure to observe Population III stars?

A) We do not expect to observe Population III stars, because pure hydrogen and helium stars never formed.

B) Population III stars had their surfaces contaminated by remnants of massive stars.

C) The first stars to be formed in the young Milky Way are too far away to be detected.

D) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.02 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Stellar Populations 35) What is not true of Population I stars?

A) They are old.

B) They are frequently blue.

C) They are high heavy element content.

D) They are found in the disk.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.02 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Stellar Populations 36) A young blue star moving along a circular orbit in the disk is a A) Pop I star.

B) Pop II star.

C) Pop III star.

D) Pop V star.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.02 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Motion of Stars in the Milky Way; Stellar Populations

37) An old red star moving along a random orbit around the bulge is a A) Pop I star.

B) Pop II star.

C) Pop III star.

D) Pop V star.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.02 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Motion of Stars in the Milky Way; Stellar Populations 38) New surveys suggest brown dwarfs, stars under the critical mass for stable fusion, are probably very rare.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.02 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Stellar Populations 39) Astronomers can measure the diameter of our Milky Way Galaxy by plotting the position of globular star clusters.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 16.02 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Shape and Size of the Milky Way 40) The Solar System is located about 8 light-years away from the Galactic center.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.02 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Structure of the Milky Way

41) Associations are loose groups of young stars in the spiral arms usually mingled with large clouds of gas and dust.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.02 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Star Clusters 42) What happens when the electron in a hydrogen atom flips its direction of spin, from parallel to anti parallel to that of the proton?

A) Nothing, this transition never occurs.

B) The atom emits 656-nm radiation that gives red color.

C) The atom emits high-energy ultraviolet rays.

D) The atom emits 21-cm radio radiation.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.03 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: 21 cm Radiation 43) Which radiation is the most useful to map the structure of our Galaxy?

A) far ultraviolet B) 21-cm radio radiation C) X-rays D) gamma rays Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.03 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: 21 cm Radiation

44) What is the characteristic color of a reflection nebula?

A) blue B) red C) green D) yellow E) black Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.03 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interstellar Matter 45) What is the characteristic color of an emission nebula?

A) blue B) red C) green D) yellow E) black Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.03 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interstellar Matter 46) What is an emission nebula?

A) a region of gas around cool K or M type stars B) a region of ionized gas around hot O or B type stars C) a region of gas around black holes D) a gas cloud in globular clusters Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.03 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interstellar Matter

47) The typical size of the interstellar dust particles is and they consist of A) 1 cm; silicates and carbon compounds B) 1 mm; hydrogen and helium C) about a micrometer or less; hydrogen and helium D) about a micrometer or less; silicates and carbon compounds

.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.03 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interstellar Matter 48) Dust and gas in the Milky Way A) are spread evenly throughout the halo and disk.

B) are concentrated in a thin layer in the disk.

C) are found in different places: dust primarily in the disk and gas primarily in the halo.

D) are found in different places: gas primarily in the disk and dust primarily in the halo.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.03 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interstellar Matter 49) Why is it NOT possible to use visible light to investigate the center of our Galaxy?

A) Intervening gas locating in the disk of the Galaxy blocks our view of the Galactic center.

B) The massive black hole located at the center of the Galaxy prevents light from escaping the region.

C) There are no sources of visible light found at the center of the Galaxy.

D) The density of stars toward the Galactic center is so high that it is not possible to see through them.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.03 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interstellar Matter; 21 cm Radiation

50) In a telescopic observation of a field of stars, you see an irregularly-shaped dark patch. This is most likely A) an area where there are no stars.

B) a black hole.

C) the dusty center of a globular cluster.

D) a dark nebula.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.03 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interstellar Matter 51) A bright red nebula is called an HII region when it contains A) molecular hydrogen gas, H2.

B) hot hydrogen gas thermally glowing.

C) hydrogen atoms which have been ionized by ultraviolet radiation.

D) hydrogen which is generating 21-cm radio waves.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.03 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interstellar Matter 52) Compared to a cold molecular cloud at 10 K, an HII region has a temperature about A) 1,000,000 times hotter.

B) 1,000 times hotter.

C) 10 times hotter.

D) the same.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.03 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interstellar Matter

53) We know interstellar matter exits because A) we can see it in dark clouds and clouds that absorb light.

B) the matter creates narrow absorption lines in the spectra of some stars.

C) we can detect radio waves coming from atoms and molecules in the cold gas.

D) some stars appear red in color despite their temperature.

E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.03 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interstellar Matter 54) How do we know that some interstellar matter is dust?

A) We can observe the tiny particles with the Hubble Space Telescope.

B) Dust emits X-rays.

C) Dust obscures and reddens starlight.

D) Interstellar matter is composed only of hydrogen gas.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.03 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interstellar Matter 55) What is the difference between an emission and a reflection nebula?

A) Emission nebulas give off their own light; reflection nebulas reflect the light of nearby stars.

B) Generally, emission nebulas appear blue, and reflection nebulas look red.

C) Emission nebulas contain many dying stars; reflection nebulas are stellar nurseries.

D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.03 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interstellar Matter

56) What is the zone of avoidance?

A) a part of the region of the Solar System where it is too dangerous to send spacecraft B) a quadrant of the Galaxy where no galaxies exist C) a part of the sky in which astronomers cannot observe due to bright emission from interstellar dust D) the region of the sky where no galaxies are seen due to obscuring dust in the Milky Way Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.03 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interstellar Matter 57) Which of these objects can be found in the spiral arms of the Galaxy?

A) HII regions B) Associations C) Pop I stars D) dying, red stars E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.03 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interstellar Matter 58) Dust accounts for about 1% of the total mass of interstellar matter.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.03 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interstellar Matter

59) The zone of avoidance is the region around the massive black hole found at the center of the Galaxy.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.03 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interstellar Matter 60) We know that galaxies exist in the zone of avoidance because we can detect them using radio telescopes.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.03 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interstellar Matter 61) The composition of the interstellar gas is very similar to the composition of our Sun. Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.03 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interstellar Matter 62) Hydrogen, both in neutral and in molecular form, can be used to map out features of the Galaxy through its emission of 21-cm radiation.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.03 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interstellar Matter; 21 cm Radiation

63) According to the density-wave theory, spiral arms are blue because they A) contain many reflection nebulae from sites of young star formation.

B) contain only young stars, whose formation was triggered by the explosion of older red stars just in front of the spiral arm.

C) contain a lot of young stars formed from clouds compressed by the density wave.

D) have too much metal content to form red stars.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.04 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Origin of Galactic Arms 64) The theory offers a likely explanation for the formation of A) high rotation speed; spiral arms B) density wave; Galactic bulge C) density wave; spiral arms D) high rotation speed; dark matter Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.04 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Motion of Stars in the Milky Way 65) What is the density-wave model?

A) It is a way of describing the formation of Galactic spiral arms.

B) It is a model who puts on a show at astronomy meetings.

C) It is a description of how light propagates.

D) It is a theory of the origin of the Universe.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.04 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Motion of Stars in the Milky Way; Origin of Galactic Arms

.

66) Astronomers think the Milky Way has spiral arms because A) they can see them unwinding along the celestial equator.

B) radio maps show that gas clouds are distributed in the disk with a spiral pattern.

C) Pop II stars, hot molecular clouds, and asterisms outline spiral arms.

D) globular clusters outline spiral arms.

E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.04 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Motion of Stars in the Milky Way; Origin of Galactic Arms 67) Astronomers think the Milky Way has spiral arms because A) they can see them unwinding along the celestial equator.

B) X-ray maps show that dust clouds are distributed in the disk with a spiral pattern.

C) young star clusters, HII regions, and associations outline spiral arms.

D) globular clusters outline spiral arms.

E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.04 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Motion of Stars in the Milky Way; Origin of Galactic Arms 68) Rotational velocity outside the visible boundary of our Galaxy is expected on the basis of observed stars and gas, indicating the presence of A) zero; a vacuum B) lower; gas C) smaller; white dwarfs D) higher; dark matter Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.05 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy; Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Dark Matter; Measuring the Milky Way

_ than would be .

69) Astronomers have measured the Milky Way's mass by A) observing magnetic fields in the Solar System.

B) using radar.

C) sending unmanned space missions to the center of the Galaxy.

D) observing its gravitational attraction on matter in and near it.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.05 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Measuring the Milky Way 70) Although it hasn't been observed (yet), why do astronomers think that the Milky Way is embedded in a halo of dark matter?

A) Theory predicts that there should be more black holes than we've so far detected.

B) Stars in the outer regions of the Galaxy are orbiting faster than expected.

C) Due to its large size, the light from stars on the other side of the Milky Way has not reached us yet.

D) Astronomers have detected neutrinos from unseen sources.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.05 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Motion of Stars in the Milky Way 71) The modified form of Kepler's Third law allows astronomers to determine the Milky Way's .

A) mass B) age C) composition D) shape E) number of spiral arms Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.05 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Measuring the Milky Way

72) The radio waves emitted from Sagittarius A* region take how long to travel to Earth?

A) 50,000 years B) 100,000 years C) 8.5 years D) 220 million years Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.06 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Structure of the Milky Way 73) Astronomers believe that the massive object at the center of the Milky Way is a black hole because A) images show an accretion disk surrounding an empty spot.

B) gravitational wave measurements indicate a black hole is there.

C) observations at X-ray waves, infrared waves, and radio waves limit the size of the object to smaller than 10 AU. D) it is necessary to explain the Galaxy's rotation curve.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.06 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Supermassive Black Holes 74) Astronomers have found the black hole at the center of the Milky Way has a mass of about solar masses.

A) 40 B) 4 hundred thousand C) 4 million D) 4 billion Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.06 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Supermassive Black Holes

75) What might you find at the center of the Milky Way? A) a region 10,000 light-years across containing no stars B) a 10,000 solar mass star whose luminosity is 100 million solar luminosities C) a black hole with the mass of a few million Suns D) the first stars that formed in the galaxy Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.06 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Supermassive Black Holes 76) Which of the following may explain the failure to observe Population III stars?

A) We do not expect to observe Population III stars, because pure hydrogen and helium stars never formed.

B) Population III stars are shrouded by gas and dust, making them difficult to see.

C) The first stars to be formed in the young Milky Way were very massive and therefore shortlived.

D) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.07 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Stellar Populations; Evolution of the Milky Way 77) The Milky Way shows evidence that over its history it has merged with and "cannibalized" smaller galaxies.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 16.07 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Evolution of the Milky Way

78) Which of the following could NOT be the result of scattering?

A) A star appears dimmer than it is.

B) A star appears redder than it is.

C) A nebula appears bluer than it is.

D) The sky appears blue.

E) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: E Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 16.03 Topic: The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Interstellar Matter

Explorations: Introduction to Astronomy 9th Edition Thomas Arny Chapter 17 Galaxies 1) The most elongated of the elliptical galaxies are class A) Ea. B) Sb. C) E0.

D) E7.

E) Irr 1.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.01 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Hubble Tuning Fork; Elliptical Galaxies 2) The most circular of the elliptical galaxies are class A) Ea. B) Sb. C) E0.

D) E7.

E) Irr 1.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.01 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Hubble Tuning Fork; Elliptical Galaxies

3) What type of galaxy has a mix of young and old stars, an abundant amount of gas and dust, ongoing star formation, and a definitive shape?

A) spiral galaxies B) elliptical galaxies C) irregular galaxies D) All types of galaxies share these features Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.01 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spiral and Barred Spiral Galaxies 4) What type of galaxy has only old stars, little dust, low density, hot gas, and no star formation?

A) spiral galaxies B) elliptical galaxies C) irregular galaxies D) All types of galaxies share these features Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.01 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Elliptical Galaxies 5) A(n) type galaxy is A) Sa; a spiral galaxy B) E0; an elliptical galaxy C) E7; a spiral galaxy D) SB; a spiral galaxy

with elongated central regions.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.01 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Hubble Tuning Fork; Spiral and Barred Spiral Galaxies

6) galaxies contain mostly Population II stars; while Population I and Population II stars.

A) Irregular; elliptical B) Elliptical; spiral C) Irregular; spiral D) Spiral; elliptical

galaxies contain both

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.01 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Elliptical Galaxies; Spiral and Barred Spiral Galaxies 7) galaxies.

A) Sd; Sc B) Sa; Sb C) Sa; S0 D) E0; S0

galaxies have smaller nuclei and loosely wound arms compared to

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.01 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Hubble Tuning Fork; Spiral and Barred Spiral Galaxies 8) The accurate determination of star distances by the method of standard candles requires accurate knowledge of the of the standard candle.

A) speed B) luminosity C) temperature D) size Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.01 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: The Hubble Distance Law

9) Hubble's law implies that the A) more distant; redshift B) more distant; blueshift C) nearby; blueshift D) nearby; redshift

galaxies have larger

in their spectral lines.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.01 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: The Hubble Distance Law; Galaxy Redshifts 10) Hubble's law is not applicable to because the motion of these galaxies is affected by .

A) elliptical galaxies; their rotation B) spiral galaxies; their spiral arms C) distant galaxies; intervening dust D) galaxies in the Local Group; gravitational interaction with the Milky Way Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.01 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: The Hubble Distance Law 11) galaxies may contain a few million to few trillion solar masses.

A) Spiral B) Elliptical C) Irregular D) Independent of their type Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.01 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Elliptical Galaxies

12) Of the methods listed below, which is the best for measuring the distance to the Andromeda galaxy, a member of the Local Group?

A) the Cepheid variable period-luminosity relationship B) Hubble's law C) trigonometric parallax Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.01 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: The Hubble Distance Law; Local Group 13) The

that is affecting the motion of the Local Group is believed to be a yet unseen .

A) Great Wall; super massive black hole B) Great Wall; Great Attractor C) Great Attractor; super massive black hole D) Great Attractor; cluster of superclusters Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.01 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Local Group 14) You measure Cepheid variables in galaxy A and galaxy B. Both Cepheids have the same period, but the one in galaxy B appears 16 times brighter than the other. You conclude A) Galaxy B is 4 times more distant than galaxy A. B) Galaxy B is 16 times more distant than galaxy A. C) Galaxy B is 16 × 16 = 256 times more distant that galaxy A. D) Galaxy A is 16 × 16 = 256 times more distant that galaxy B. E) Galaxy A is 4 times more distant than galaxy B. Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.01 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: The Hubble Distance Law

15) A large galaxy contains mostly old (Pop II) stars spread smoothly throughout its volume, but it has little dust or gas. What type galaxy is it most likely to be?

A) Irr B) S C) SB D) E E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.01 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Hubble Tuning Fork 16) Galaxies come in three varieties, which are A) barred spiral, irregular, and Seyfert.

B) Seyfert, radio, and quasar.

C) spiral, elliptical, and irregular.

D) old, young, and intermediate.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.01 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Elliptical Galaxies; Spiral and Barred Spiral Galaxies; Irregular Galaxies 17) Which of the following is NOT a property of elliptical galaxies?

A) They contain mostly old (Pop II) stars.

B) They have little dust or cold gas.

C) They have prominent spiral arms.

D) Stars are distributed smoothly throughout their volume.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.01 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Elliptical Galaxies

18) The apparent shape of an elliptical galaxy is an effect of perspective.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.01 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Elliptical Galaxies 19) It is expected that only elliptical galaxies have a massive black hole at their center.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.01 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Elliptical Galaxies; Spiral and Barred Spiral Galaxies 20) The Hubble law does not apply for nearby galaxies.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.01 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: The Hubble Distance Law 21) Irregular galaxies, although small in size, have lots of star formation taking place in them.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.01 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Irregular Galaxies

22) When viewed through a small telescope, galaxies appear bright, with a definitive edge.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.01 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Elliptical Galaxies; Spiral and Barred Spiral Galaxies; Irregular Galaxies 23) The NGC (New General Catalog) is a compilation started by Herschel, and lists galaxies and other astronomical objects.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.01 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: None 24) Edwin Hubble was the first to classify galaxies in three main types: spirals, ellipticals and irregulars.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.01 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Hubble Tuning Fork 25) Hubble's tuning fork diagram represents the evolution path of galaxies from elliptical to spiral.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.01 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Hubble Tuning Fork

26) Hubble's law can be applied to measure the distance of the constellation of Orion.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.01 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: The Hubble Distance Law 27) The blue color seen in some galaxies is an indication that star formation is occurring in those galaxies.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.01 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Spiral and Barred Spiral Galaxies; Irregular Galaxies 28) The Hubble Law does not work for nearby galaxies because A) it is difficult to take the spectrum of nearby galaxies as compared to distant galaxies.

B) the speed of nearby galaxies is affected by their gravitational interaction with one another.

C) nearby galaxies are contracting rather than expanding.

D) the Hubble law works for all galaxies; distance doesn't matter.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.02 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: The Hubble Distance Law

29) What approach for estimating the distance to a galaxy requires the measurement of a galaxy's rotation speed?

A) the Tully-Fisher method B) Cepheid variables as standard candles C) Hubble's law D) Type Ia supernova as standard candles Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.02 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: The Hubble Distance Law 30) A galaxy's spectrum has a redshift of 30,000 kilometers per second. If the Hubble constant is 75 kilometers per second per megaparsec, how far away from Earth is the galaxy?

A) 106 megaparsecs B) 1,000 megaparsecs C) 20 megaparsecs D) 50 megaparsecs E) 400 megaparsecs Answer: E Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.02 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: The Hubble Distance Law 31) A galaxy has a recession velocity of 10,000 km/sec. If the Hubble constant is 65 km/sec. per megaparsec, roughly how far away is the galaxy?

A) 10 megaparsecs B) 25 megaparsecs C) 60 megaparsecs D) 130 megaparsecs Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.02 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: The Hubble Distance Law

32) A(n) galaxy is the result of the collision and merger of galaxies that leave little cold gas remaining in the system.

A) elliptical B) spiral C) irregular D) barred spiral Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.03 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Elliptical Galaxies; Galaxy Interaction and Evolution 33) An encounter in which a large galaxy absorbs a smaller galaxy is referred to as A) "Galactic absorption".

B) "Galactic merger".

C) "Galactic cannibalism".

D) "Galactic assimilation".

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.03 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Galaxy Interaction and Evolution 34) What is the most likely outcome after the collision between two spiral galaxies?

A) the destruction of most of their stars B) enhanced formation of spiral arms C) formation of a larger galaxy D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.03 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Galaxy Interaction and Evolution

35) form when galaxies collide and .

A) S0 galaxies; all their stars are destroyed B) Starburst galaxies; star formation is triggered, making them very bright C) Quasars; emit large amounts of heat and radio waves D) Starburst galaxies; all their stars are destroyed Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.03 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Galaxy Interaction and Evolution 36) What is the most likely outcome after the collision between two spiral galaxies?

A) the destruction of most of their stars B) enhanced formation of new stars C) formation of a supermassive black hole D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.03 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Galaxy Interaction and Evolution 37) When two galaxies collide, what happens to their stars?

A) About 30% of them collide and become black holes.

B) About 50% of them become binary stars.

C) The evolution of all the stars in the larger galaxy is accelerated.

D) Nothing happens to them, except that their orbits may change.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.03 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Galaxy Interaction and Evolution

38) Why are galaxy collisions of interest?

A) Collisions and mergers play an important role in shaping galaxies.

B) Collisions have a strong effect on the evolution of stars.

C) Collisions are extremely rare.

D) Collisions generate hundreds of black holes.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.03 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Galaxy Interaction and Evolution 39) Most galaxies have remained the same type and size since they formed.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.03 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Galaxy Interaction and Evolution 40) A spiral galaxy is the result of the collision and merger of galaxies that leave moderate to large amounts of gas in the system.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.03 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Elliptical Galaxies; Spiral and Barred Spiral Galaxies; Galaxy Interaction and Evolution 41) Galactic cannibalism is the capture of the stars in a smaller galaxy by a larger galaxy during collision between the two.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.03 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Galaxy Interaction and Evolution

42) Most of the Seyfert galaxies are A) elliptical B) spiral C) irregular D) All of these choices are correct.

.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.04 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Seyfert Galaxies 43) What type of object is believed to be the central source of energy for an active galaxy?

A) an unusually large and bright main sequence star B) a large amount of gas and dust C) a massive black hole D) globular cluster Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.04 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Seyfert Galaxies; Quasars 44) Which of the following are active galaxies?

A) radio galaxies B) quasars C) Seyfert galaxies D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.04 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Seyfert Galaxies; Quasars

45) Seyfert galaxies are _ .

A) bright elliptical galaxies B) small irregular galaxies C) spiral galaxies whose nucleus is abnormally luminous D) isolated black holes emitting radio waves E) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.04 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Seyfert Galaxies 46) Which of the following statements about quasars is not correct?

A) Their spectra have the largest redshifts observed.

B) They are probably the most distant observable objects.

C) They have abnormally high luminosities.

D) Their cores are extremely large, probably several thousand light-years across.

E) Sometimes they appear in pairs, due to gravitational lenses formed by intervening galaxies.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.04 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Quasars 47) What observational evidence suggests that the centers of quasars are small, about a fraction of a light-year?

A) the fact that quasars are so distant, and therefore are very young B) photographs of quasars C) They emit radiation over a very wide range of wavelengths D) The intensity of their radiation fluctuates over periods of months E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.04 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Quasars

48) What is the origin of synchrotron radiation in radio galaxies?

A) high-speed electrons spiraling around the magnetic field lines B) supernova explosions C) neutron stars at the center of the radio galaxy D) hydrogen gas E) radiation from a massive black hole at the center of the galaxy Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.04 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Seyfert Galaxies; Quasars 49) What is the origin of the lobes often observed on opposite sides of radio galaxies?

A) gas ejected from the core of the galaxy B) high-speed electrons spiraling around magnetic field lines C) hot planetary nebulas surrounding the galaxy D) black holes orbiting the center E) supernovae from massive stars Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.04 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Seyfert Galaxies; Quasars 50) Astronomers speculate that most galaxies have a massive black hole at their center. What could be the origin of the suspected black hole?

A) First, a supernova explosion formed a black hole, which in time became more massive by accretion.

B) the collision of galaxies C) The gravitational attraction drew in stars from the disk.

D) the rapid rotation of the galaxy that compressed material to high densities E) dark matter at the galactic center Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.04 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Seyfert Galaxies; Quasars

51) What is thought to be at the center of most galaxies?

A) an unusually large and bright main sequence star B) a globular cluster C) an open cluster D) a massive black hole E) a regularly exploding nova Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.04 Topic: Galaxies; The Milky Way Galaxy Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Seyfert Galaxies; Quasars; Supermassive Black Holes 52) Suppose that an astronomer discovers an active galaxy, and that the intensity of the radiation from the galactic nucleus fluctuates in intervals of 8 minutes. Based on her observations, the astronomer should infer that the active nucleus of this galaxy is about in diameter.

(Hint: It takes light about 8 minutes to reach Earth from the Sun.) A) 1 AU B) 1 Mpc C) 8 AU D) 8 light-years Answer: A Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 17.04 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Seyfert Galaxies; Quasars

53) Astronomers believe that the X-ray radiation from the nuclei of active galaxies comes from .

A) a black hole B) the accretion disk around a massive black hole C) gravity waves D) magnetic fields Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.04 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Seyfert Galaxies; Quasars 54) What are some signs of an active galaxy?

A) The core is very bright.

B) The core is very small.

C) Spectra of the core show that it contains hot gas moving at high speeds.

D) Electromagnetic radiation from the core fluctuates rapidly.

E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: E Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.04 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Seyfert Galaxies; Quasars 55) Which of the following is NOT an active galaxy?

A) Seyfert galaxies B) radio galaxies C) QSO's D) Attractor voids E) None of these choices is an active galaxy.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.04 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Seyfert Galaxies; Quasars

56) What theory do astronomers think explains the activity in galaxies?

A) the explosion of a supermassive star B) a chain reaction of supernovas C) a cosmic worm hole D) a supermassive black hole E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.04 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Seyfert Galaxies; Quasars 57) How does the prevailing model for activity explain the hot ejected gas seen in active galaxies?

A) It is shot out of a black hole.

B) It is material trapped between two orbiting black holes being gravitationally scattered.

C) It is gas evaporating from an accretion disk around a massive black hole.

D) It is energy released as matter is funneled into a black hole.

E) It is a rip in space-time from which Hawking radiation is released.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.04 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Seyfert Galaxies; Quasars 58) Name the three main types of active galaxies.

A) barred spiral, irregular, and Seyfert B) Seyfert, radio, and quasar C) spiral, elliptical, and irregular D) old, young, and intermediate Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.04 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Seyfert Galaxies; Quasars

59) Where does most of the radio emission in a radio galaxy come from?

A) the center B) the spiral arms C) outside the galaxy in radio lobes D) a thin shell surrounding the galaxy Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.04 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Seyfert Galaxies; Quasars 60) Which of the following is a property of Seyfert galaxies?

A) Their nuclei have abnormally low luminosities.

B) They contain no gas clouds.

C) The radiation from their cores fluctuates rapidly.

D) Most are elliptical galaxies.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.04 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Seyfert Galaxies 61) Why do we think that quasars are extremely distant?

A) Their light varies rapidly.

B) Their spectra show immense redshifts.

C) They are very bright.

D) They are very faint.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.04 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Quasars

62) Why do we think that active galaxies have small core regions?

A) We can measure their size on the sky, which means they are small and near.

B) They emit radio waves that larger objects cannot do.

C) Their light varies rapidly, implying small radius.

D) They are very far away, and thus are younger and less expanded.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.04 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Seyfert Galaxies; Quasars 63) A spiral galaxy has a small bright central region and its spectrum shows that it contains hot, rapidly moving gas. It is most likely a galaxy.

A) barred spiral B) Seyfert C) radio D) BL Lac E) quasar Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.04 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Seyfert Galaxies 64) What do most astronomers now think explains why active galaxies are so energetic?

A) an immense black hole B) intense magnetic fields C) a supernova explosion D) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.04 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Seyfert Galaxies; Quasars

65) Active galactic nuclei is a term used to indicate the centers of quasars, radio galaxies, and Seyfert galaxies.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.04 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Seyfert Galaxies; Quasars 66) Galaxies are labeled as active if there is an unusually large amount of star formation occurring in their centers.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.04 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Seyfert Galaxies; Quasars 67) The only evidence that astronomers have supporting the hypothesis that quasars are very distant objects is the fact that spectral lines of quasars have huge redshifts.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.04 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Quasars 68) Astronomers believe that the reason some quasars seem to have nearby companions with very similar properties is that quasars are often binary systems.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.04 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Quasars

69) Gravitational lenses formed by galaxy clusters can cause the images of some quasars to appear double.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.04 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Quasars 70) A quasar is a strong X-ray pulsar that emits radiation at set time intervals.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.04 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Quasars 71) In radio galaxies, the main source of radio emissions is a small region at the center of the galaxy.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.04 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Seyfert Galaxies; Quasars 72) Quasars are rotating black holes resulting from the collapse of massive stars.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.04 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Quasars

73) A supercluster is a _ .

A) group of globular star clusters B) group of open star clusters C) cluster of several dozen galaxy clusters D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.05 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Clusters and Superclusters 74) The Local Group is _ .

A) the name of the spiral arm of our Galaxy in which the Sun is located B) the group of planets around the Sun C) a star cluster to which the Sun belongs D) a cluster of galaxies in which the Milky Way is located Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.05 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Local Group 75) Voids are A) spaces between stars.

B) spaces between galaxies within a cluster.

C) huge regions of space with few or no galaxies.

D) regions in the centers of galaxies containing many black holes.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.05 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Clusters and Superclusters

76) Our Milky Way is part of A) the coma cluster; 500 B) the Pleiades; 3 C) the local group; 30 D) the beehive association; 100

which has about

member galaxies.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.05 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Local Group 77) What is a void?

A) a region in the universe where there are almost no galaxies B) a part of the sky where no galaxies are visible to us because of obscuring dust in the milky way C) a part of the sky that astronomers cannot observe due to bright emission from interstellar dust D) another name for a dark nebula Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.05 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Clusters and Superclusters 78) A region in the Universe where there are almost no galaxies is called a A) void B) dark nebula C) zone of avoidance D) supermassive black hole Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.05 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Clusters and Superclusters

.

79) The Local Group A) contains about 30 member galaxies.

B) has the Milky Way as its center.

C) is the globular cluster to which the Milky Way belongs.

D) is a supercluster.

E) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.05 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Local Group 80) The Local Group A) contains about 30 member galaxies.

B) has the Milky Way as its center.

C) is the small cluster to which the Milky Way belongs.

D) is a supercluster.

E) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.05 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Local Group 81) What is the name of the galaxy cluster to which the Milky Way belongs?

A) the local group B) M31 C) the Sagittarius cloud D) the Scorpius group E) the Virgo cluster Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.05 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Local Group

82) What holds galaxy clusters together?

A) the pressure from the cosmic background radiation B) the cosmological constant force C) gravity D) the strong force E) the electromagnetic force Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.05 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Clusters and Superclusters 83) The majority of galaxies in the local group are irregulars and small ellipticals. This fact proves that the majority of galaxies in the Universe are of the irregular or small elliptical type.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 17.05 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Local Group 84) A galaxy supercluster typically contains a few thousand clusters of galaxies.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.05 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Clusters and Superclusters

85) What is the "rotation curve" of a galaxy?

A) It is a graph of the orbital velocities at various distances from the center of the galaxy.

B) It is a graph of the speed at the center of the galaxy.

C) It is the recession speed of galaxies at various distances from the Milky Way. D) It is the speed of the globular clusters in a galaxy.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.06 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Dark Matter 86) What is one piece of evidence for dark matter?

A) the presence of neutrinos B) the fact that the rotation curves of most galaxies become flat at large distances from the center C) the existence of many planetary systems D) the existence of many dark cool dust clouds that do not emit radiation Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.06 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Dark Matter 87) In attempting to find the missing matter that seems to be required to explain observed properties of galaxies and clusters, astronomers have been able to rule out which populations?

A) black holes B) hot and cold gas C) weakly interacting massive particles D) dead white dwarfs Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.06 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Dark Matter

88) Which of the following provides evidence for the existence of dark matter?

A) The orbital speeds of stars in galaxies are higher than what can be accounted for by the detectable mass in the galaxy.

B) The orbital speeds of galaxies in clusters are higher than what can be accounted for by the detectable mass of the cluster.

C) the ability of rich galaxy clusters to prevent their hot gases from expanding D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.06 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Dark Matter 89) Which of the following objects are difficult to model as existing in large enough numbers to significantly explain the effects of "dark matter"?

A) black holes B) planetesimal-sized objects C) cold white dwarfs D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 17.06 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Dark Matter 90) The observation that outer parts of galaxies rotate faster than the observable mass within their orbit can pull them implies that .

A) galaxies are unstable B) all galaxies will eventually develop a bulge C) in time, galaxies will develop spiral arms D) the masses of galaxies are larger than their luminous mass E) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.06 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Dark Matter

91) In their search for dark matter, astronomers can exclude the possibility that cold gas clouds account for dark matter because cold gas clouds _ .

A) have very low mass B) would be detectable by radio telescopes C) do not produce gravitational force D) would emit visible spectral lines E) would slow down the rotation of the galaxy Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.06 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Dark Matter 92) Astronomers believe that dark matter exists because A) they can detect it with radio telescopes.

B) the outer parts of galaxies rotate faster than expected on the basis of the material visible in them.

C) the galaxies in clusters move slower than expected on the basis of the material visible in them.

D) it is the only way to explain the black holes in active galaxies.

E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.06 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Dark Matter

93) Astronomers believe that dark matter exists because A) they can detect it with radio telescopes.

B) the outer parts of galaxies rotate faster than expected on the basis of the material visible in them.

C) the galaxies in clusters move slower than expected on the basis of the material visible in them.

D) it is the only way to explain the black holes in active galaxies.

E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.06 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Dark Matter 94) What is a gravitational lens?

A) a star that is eclipsed by one of its planets B) a massive object that bends the space around it, causing light passing it to bend C) an extremely massive refractor telescope D) a lens that is affected by gravity Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.06 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Dark Matter 95) Although dark matter is invisible, its location can be mapped by its gravitational lensing effect on background objects.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.06 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Dark Matter

96) Under the right conditions, it is possible to see multiple images of the same galaxy in one particular direction.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.06 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Dark Matter 97) The mass of a galaxy can be estimated using Newton's modification of Kepler's Third law.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.06 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Dark Matter 98) Why is it difficult to use the method of standard candles to find the distance to galaxies?

A) It is difficult to isolate the light of a single star from the galaxy.

B) There are no known standard candles outside of our galaxy.

C) Standard candles are too bright to be used for all but the farthest galaxies.

D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.02 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: The Hubble Distance Law 99) A galactic bar forms from a gravitational disturbance and is a temporary feature of galaxies.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.01 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Hubble Tuning Fork; Spiral and Barred Spiral Galaxies

100) Why do galaxy collisions lead to star formation?

A) Stars collide with each other, explode, and their gas creates new stars.

B) Interstellar clouds are ignited by passing stars from the other galaxy.

C) Interstellar clouds collide and become highly compressed.

D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 17.03 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Galaxy Interaction and Evolution 101) Many objects classified as irregular galaxies are actually galactic mergers.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 17.03 Topic: Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Hubble Tuning Fork; Irregular Galaxies; Galaxy Interaction and Evolution

Explorations: Introduction to Astronomy 9th Edition Thomas Arny Chapter 18 Cosmology 1) If Hubble's constant is actually half the value we believe it to be (70 km/(s/Mpc)), the Universe would be A) twice as old as we think it is.

B) half as old as we think it is.

C) four times as old as we think it is.

D) the same age.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.01 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Age of the Universe 2) The age of the Universe can be deduced from A) Hubble's law.

B) Kepler's Third law.

C) the Doppler shift law.

D) the Inverse-square law.

E) Shapley's law.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.01 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Age of the Universe 3) The study of the structure and evolution of the Universe is called A) anthropology B) cosmology C) astrology D) archaeology Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.01 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: None

.

4) provides experimental evidence that the Universe is expanding.

A) The Big Bang model B) The cosmological constant C) Hubble's law D) Dark matter Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.01 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Expansion of Space 5) The inverse of Hubble's constant (1/H) gives the approximate A) size of the Universe B) age of the Universe C) magnitude of the cosmic horizon D) density of the Universe

.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.01 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Age of the Universe 6) According to the present estimates, the Universe is about A) 14 × 105 B) 14 × 107 C) 14 × 109 D) 14 × 1011 Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.01 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Age of the Universe

years old.

7) The Cosmological Principle states that A) the Universe began as a hot violent event.

B) there is not a preferred location in the Universe.

C) the expansion of the Universe is speeding up.

D) the Universe will continue to expand forever.

E) the laws of physics apply everywhere in the Universe.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.01 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Expansion of Space; Distribution of Galaxies 8) When astronomers use Hubble's law to measure the distance to a galaxy they have to measure the of the galaxy.

A) mass B) luminosity C) recessional speed D) rotational speed Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.01 Topic: Cosmology; Galaxies Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Expansion of Space; The Hubble Distance law 9) Why does the observation that all distant galaxies are moving away from Earth not violate the Cosmological Principle?

A) Any other galaxy in the Universe will also see the Universe expanding in the same way.

B) The night sky is still dark.

C) The motion of galaxies relative to Earth has nothing to do with the Cosmological Principle.

D) It does violate the Cosmological Principle but for only the location of Earth.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.01 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Expansion of Space

10) One limit on the age of the Universe is that it must be older than the oldest stars.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.01 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Age of the Universe 11) We are at the center of the Universe, and hence, everything is expanding away from us.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.01 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Expansion of Space 12) An astronomer claims to have measured the spectrum of a nearby galaxy and finds that the spectral lines are slightly blueshifted. This result is unreliable because it violates Hubble's law.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.01 Topic: Cosmology; Galaxies Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Expansion of Space; The Hubble Distance law 13) How do astronomers estimate the approximate age of the Universe?

A) The age of the Universe is equal to the Hubble constant (H).

B) The age of the Universe is equal to 1/H. C) The age of the Universe is approximately the age of our Sun. D) They measure the distance to the cosmic horizon and divide by the speed of light.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.01 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Age of the Universe

14) Suppose the Hubble constant turned out to be 130 km/sec/Mpc and not 65 km/sec/Mpc. How would that affect our estimate of the age of the Universe?

A) The Universe would be about 30 billion yrs old.

B) The Universe would be about 7 billion yrs old.

C) The Universe would be about 130 billion yrs old.

D) It would have no effect on our estimates of the Universe's age.

E) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.01 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 3. Apply Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Age of the Universe 15) Dividing the separation of two galaxies by their recession speed is a simple way to estimate A) the density of the Universe.

B) if the Universe is flat.

C) if the Universe contains dark matter.

D) the age of the Universe.

E) the temperature of the CMB. Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.01 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Age of the Universe 16) When astronomers look at distant galaxies, what sort of motion do they see?

A) The galaxies are all spinning rapidly.

B) The galaxies are all moving rapidly toward us.

C) The galaxies are all moving rapidly away from us.

D) Galaxies are orbiting a single point in the Universe.

E) Galaxies in half of the sky are moving away from us. Those in the other half are approaching.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.01 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Expansion of Space; Distribution of Galaxies

17) How do astronomers detect the movement of galaxies?

A) the shift in spectral lines of the galaxies B) the steady dimming of the galaxy's light C) the rapid brightening of the galaxy's light D) the disappearance of the most distant galaxies as they move past the cosmic horizon Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.01 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Expansion of Space; Distribution of Galaxies 18) What is meant by the redshift?

A) Distant galaxies appear red in color due to having older stars.

B) The temperature of distant galaxies is decreasing.

C) The spectral lines of the galaxies are shifted to redder wavelengths.

D) Distant galaxies appear red in color as their light passes through dust.

E) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.01 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Expansion of Space; Distribution of Galaxies 19) What do astronomers infer from the motion of the distant galaxies?

A) The Universe is contracting.

B) The Universe is expanding.

C) The Universe is static.

D) The Universe is spinning.

E) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: B Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 18.01 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Expansion of Space; Distribution of Galaxies

20) What evidence do astronomers have that the Universe is expanding?

A) There is a measurable redshift in the spectral lines of distant galaxies.

B) The disks of galaxies are getting smaller over time.

C) Distant galaxies are dispersing, pulled apart by the expansion of space.

D) Galaxies disappear when they pass the cosmic horizon.

E) Nearby clusters of galaxies are smaller than more distant ones.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.01 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Expansion of Space 21) The light travel time distance to the cosmic horizon is about A) 14 × 105 light-years B) 14 × 107 light-years C) 14 × 109 light-years D) 14 × 1011 light-years Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.02 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Cosmic Horizon 22) If the Universe had _ , that would resolve Olbers' paradox.

A) a finite age B) an infinite extent C) sources of new matter, like white holes D) more mass than electromagnetic radiation E) more electromagnetic radiation than mass Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.02 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Cosmic Horizon

.

23) Olbers' paradox asks A) Why isn't the night sky bright as day?

B) Which is the simplest cosmological model?

C) If dark matter is dark, how can we ever see it?

D) How can the Universe be younger than some of the stars in it?

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.02 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Olbers' Paradox 24) The "light travel time distance" measures A) the distance light travels in one year.

B) how far the light from a galaxy would have traveled if the Universe was not expanding.

C) the amount of time the sunlight takes to reach Earth.

D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.02 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Cosmic Horizon 25) The Big Bang refers to A) the creation of the Solar System.

B) the creation of the Moon.

C) the origin of the Universe.

D) the origin of the heavy elements in a supernova.

E) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.02 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: The Big Bang

26) The cosmic microwave background (CMB) radiation is A) light from distant stars.

B) radiation from pulsars.

C) light from gravitational lenses.

D) radiation from the birth of the Universe.

E) energy emitted by black holes at the centers of the nearby galaxies.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.02 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Cosmic Microwave Background 27) The cosmic background radiation has a low temperature today because A) it is rich in heavy elements that absorb radiation very strongly.

B) the Universe has expanded, and expansion causes cooling.

C) it was created with a low temperature.

D) it has gotten so far from the Sun. E) all the stars that were heating it have burned out.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.02 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Cosmic Microwave Background 28) The is determined by the distance that the age of the Universe.

A) cosmic horizon; light B) recession velocity; galaxies C) event horizon; light D) cosmological constant; neutrinos Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.02 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Cosmic Horizon

can travel in a time span equal to

29) Recent measurements of the variations of the cosmic background radiation suggest that the curvature of the Universe is .

A) positive B) negative C) flat (i.e., no curvature) Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.02 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Structure of the Universe 30) It is difficult to use light from distant galaxies to compute the true physical distance to those galaxies today because the Universe has expanded since it was emitted.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.02 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Expansion of Space; Cosmic Horizon 31) As space expands, everything in it is also getting bigger.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.02 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Expansion of Space 32) The cosmic horizon is the distance beyond which there are no more stars or galaxies.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.02 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Cosmic Horizon

33) The cosmic microwave background radiation argues in favor of the Big Bang model.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.02 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: The Big Bang; Cosmic Microwave Background 34) If the universe had _ , that would resolve Olbers' paradox.

A) an infinite age B) an edge in space C) sources of new matter, like white holes D) more mass than electromagnetic radiation E) more electromagnetic radiation than mass Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.02 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Cosmic Horizon 35) What is the cosmic horizon?

A) the place where the Big Bang occurred B) the average distance between galaxies C) the distance beyond which astronomical objects are invisible because their light has not yet reached us D) the diameter of the Universe Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.02 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Cosmic Horizon

36) If the Universe is infinitely large, infinitely old, and expanding, the night sky should be bright. But in fact, it is not. What do we call this?

A) the Cosmological Principle B) Olbers' paradox C) the Hubble Distance law D) the Neutrino Discrepancy E) Grand Unified Theory Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.02 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Olbers' Paradox 37) Astronomers have found the cosmic microwave background (CMB) radiation. What is the nature of this radiation?

A) It is a bright, uniform X-ray glow.

B) It is a faint, uniform radio signal.

C) It is a faint, uniform X-ray glow.

D) It is a weak and very patchy glow at visible wavelengths.

E) It is a weak background of cosmic neutrinos.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.02 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Cosmic Microwave Background 38) About what temperature does the CMB have at this time?

A) 30 million K B) 3 trillion K C) 3 billion K D) 3,000 K E) 3 K Answer: E Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.02 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Cosmic Microwave Background

39) Why is the CMB so cool now?

A) The expansion of the Universe has stretched the radiation to longer wavelengths.

B) Clouds of dust have blocked or scattered most of the radiation.

C) Energy from the CMB was transformed into dark energy.

D) The radiation's energy drives the expansion of the Universe.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.02 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Cosmic Microwave Background 40) What is the cosmic microwave background?

A) radio noise from Seyfert galaxies B) radiation from hot gas in intergalactic space C) radiation from the first stars formed when the Universe was young D) radiation released when neutral atoms formed in the young Universe Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.02 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Cosmic Microwave Background 41) Which of the following is evidence that the early Universe was hot and dense?

A) intense X-ray emission from gas in galaxy clusters B) The ratio of helium to hydrogen is approximately the same in all old stars.

C) the cosmic microwave background D) the intense luminosity of quasars Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.02 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Cosmic Microwave Background

42) Which sequence of events is in the correct chronological order?

A) Protons form, helium is produced, protons and electrons recombine into atoms, quarks form.

B) Protons form, quarks form, protons and electrons recombine into atoms, helium is produced.

C) Quarks form, protons form, protons and electrons recombine into atoms, helium is produced.

D) Quarks form, protons form, helium is produced, protons and electrons recombine into atoms.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.03 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Origin and Evolution of the Universe 43) When the Universe was young, it was A) bigger and colder.

B) smaller and hotter.

C) bigger and more dense.

D) bigger and hotter.

E) smaller and less dense.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.03 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Origin and Evolution of the Universe 44) According to the Big Bang model, most of the .

A) hydrogen and helium; during the first 3 minutes B) hydrogen and helium; during supernova explosions C) hydrogen and helium; in the interior of massive stars D) heavy elements; during the first 3 minutes

in the Universe were formed

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.03 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: The Big Bang; Origin and Evolution of the Universe

45) According to the Big Bang model, in the earlier state of the Universe gamma rays converted into .

A) pairs of matter and antimatter B) pairs of protons and neutrons C) hydrogen and helium D) X-rays Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.03 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: The Big Bang; Origin and Evolution of the Universe 46) At the time of recombination, all of the Universe was about as hot as the core of the Sun. Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 18.03 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Origin and Evolution of the Universe 47) The Big Bang produced all the observed helium that we see today.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.03 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: The Big Bang; Origin and Evolution of the Universe

48) When the Universe was young, it was A) bigger and colder.

B) smaller and colder.

C) denser.

D) bigger and hotter.

E) smaller and less dense.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.03 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Origin and Evolution of the Universe 49) Where did helium come from the early Universe?

A) The early Universe was so hot and dense that fusion of protons (hydrogen) into helium could occur.

B) Helium was formed in the cores of stars formed in the early Universe.

C) Photons bombarded hydrogen atoms and broke them up into helium atoms.

D) Helium was not formed in the early Universe, because only neutrons were present.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.03 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Origin and Evolution of the Universe 50) What is a quark?

A) a remote active galaxy B) a kind of subatomic particle that protons and neutrons are composed of C) a burst of radiation seen near black holes D) a very short wavelength radiation emitted by active galaxies E) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.03 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Origin and Evolution of the Universe

51) The Big Bang theory can explain A) the expansion of the Universe B) the cosmic microwave background radiation C) the relative abundance of helium in the Universe D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.03 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Origin and Evolution of the Universe 52) In a positively-curved Universe (the surface of Earth has positive curvature), the angles of a triangle add up to A) exactly 180 degrees.

B) more than 180 degrees.

C) less than 180 degrees.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.04 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Structure of the Universe 53) In a negatively-curved Universe (like the surface of a saddle), the angles of a triangle add up to A) exactly 180 degrees.

B) more than 180 degrees.

C) less than 180 degrees.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.04 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Structure of the Universe

54) The curvature of space can be measured by A) drawing triangles on the surface of Earth and adding up the angles.

B) studying the redshift of light from distant galaxies.

C) studying the ratio of helium and lithium produced in the Big Bang to hydrogen.

D) studying the fluctuations in the cosmic microwave background radiation.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.04 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Structure of the Universe 55) In a flat Universe the angles of a triangle add up to A) exactly 180 degrees B) exactly 360 degrees C) less than 180 degrees

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.04 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Structure of the Universe 56) Which of the following are predictions of inflation theories?

A) The Universe expanded rapidly over a short period of time.

B) The smaller initial size of the Universe allowed thorough mixing.

C) The cosmic microwave background must be uniform.

D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.05 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Cosmic Inflation

57) Within cosmology, inflation is the idea that A) the force of gravity suddenly grew stronger in the distant past.

B) the Universe increased dramatically in size in an extremely brief period of time.

C) the number of galaxies we see at large distances is greater than the number we can see near us.

D) the diameters of distant galaxies are much greater than those of galaxies near us.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.05 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Cosmic Inflation 58) Which Big Bang "puzzles" does the inflationary model resolve?

A) The energy of expansion is almost exactly equal to the collective gravitational force between galaxies.

B) The Universe is all ordinary matter with almost no antimatter.

C) The cosmic background radiation is smooth, but the distribution of matter in the Universe is lumpy.

D) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.05 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Cosmic Inflation 59) In a GUT (Grand Unified Theory), what is "unified"?

A) matter and energy B) the fundamental forces C) galaxies D) subatomic particles E) all of space Answer: B Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 18.05 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Origin and Evolution of the Universe

60) The discovery that the Universe is expanding faster today than in the past was possible because of observations of A) Cepheid variable stars.

B) Type Ia (white dwarf) supernovae.

C) Type II (core collapse) supernovae.

D) galaxy rotation curves.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.06 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Expansion of Space; Fate of the Universe; Dark Energy 61) The observational evidence in favor of the existence of dark energy involves using to calculate .

A) the method of inflation; the distance to distant galaxies B) the method of standard candles; the distance to distant galaxies C) Hubble's law; the distance to distant galaxies D) Hubble's law; the age of the Universe Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.06 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Dark Energy 62) If the density of the Universe is less than the critical density, then A) the Universe will expand forever.

B) the Universal expansion will eventually stop sometime in the future.

C) the Universe will eventually stop expanding, and then begin to collapse until it ends in a Big Crunch.

D) the Universe will not change because its evolution does not depend on the critical density.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.06 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Density of the Universe

63) Astronomers have found that the expansion of the Universe is A) speeding up B) slowing down C) changing randomly D) constant

_.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.06 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Fate of the Universe; Density of the Universe 64) Dark energy appears to make up approximately A) 90% B) 70% C) 10% D) 1%

of the Universe.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.06 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Dark Energy 65) If the density of the Universe is than the critical density, then the Universe will .

A) larger; expand forever B) larger; eventually collapse in a "Big Crunch" C) less; not change in size D) less; eventually collapse in a "Big Crunch" Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.06 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Fate of the Universe; Density of the Universe

66) The critical density for the Universe is about A) equal to six hydrogen atoms per cubic meter.

B) the same as the density of Earth.

C) the same as the density of the Sun. D) equal to 6,000 hydrogen atoms per cubic meter.

E) equal to 600,000 hydrogen atoms per cubic meter.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.06 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Fate of the Universe; Density of the Universe 67) Dark energy can exist in completely empty space.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 3 Hard Section: 18.06 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Dark Energy 68) Dark energy is speeding up the expansion of the Universe.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.06 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Dark Energy 69) All the ordinary matter, both luminous and nonluminous, makes up less than 5% of the Universe.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.06 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Structure of the Universe; Density of the Universe

70) If the density of the Universe is greater than the critical density, then the expansion of the Universe will continue indefinitely.

Answer: FALSE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.06 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Fate of the Universe; Density of the Universe 71) The inflation theories of the Universe allow for the existence of other unobservable Universes that may be expanding or collapsing.

Answer: TRUE Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.06 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Cosmic Inflation 72) Within cosmology, the critical density is A) the density of the Universe.

B) the density of the most massive black hole in the Universe.

C) the density that determines whether the Universe expands forever or recollapses.

D) the density of Universes in the multiverse.

E) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.06 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Density of the Universe

73) If its density is less than the critical density, then a universe A) expands forever B) will re-collapse C) contains only antimatter D) never expands

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.06 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Density of the Universe 74) Astronomers have found evidence that the expansion of the Universe is accelerating. Such acceleration A) is evidence for a cosmic repulsion related to the cosmological constant of relativity theory.

B) is deduced because nearby galaxies are receding faster than expected from the Hubble law.

C) is deduced because distant galaxies are receding faster than expected from the Hubble law.

D) was predicted by the Big Bang model in cosmology.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.06 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Dark Energy 75) Astronomers have found evidence that the expansion of the Universe is accelerating. Such acceleration A) is deduced because nearby galaxies are receding faster than expected from the Hubble law.

B) is deduced because distant galaxies are receding more slowly than expected from the Hubble law.

C) is deduced because distant galaxies are receding faster than expected from the Hubble law.

D) was predicted by the Big Bang model in cosmology.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.06 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Dark Energy

76) How does the observed density of luminous matter (stars and galaxies) in the Universe compare with the critical density?

A) The density of luminous matter is far smaller than the critical density.

B) Amazingly, the density of stars and galaxies exactly equals the critical density.

C) The density of stars and galaxies is vastly bigger than the critical density.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.06 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Density of the Universe 77) Observations of the tiny irregularities in the cosmic microwave background support the idea that the Universe A) will collapse in the distant future.

B) contains no dark matter.

C) will continue to expand forever.

D) is composed primarily of neutrinos.

E) is composed primarily of matter, rather than antimatter.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Section: 18.06 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 2. Understand Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Fate of the Universe 78) Observations of the tiny irregularities in the cosmic microwave background support the idea that the Universe A) must contain about 5 times more dark matter than regular matter.

B) does not contain dark energy.

C) must contain hidden pockets of antimatter.

D) must be one of many "island universes."

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Section: 18.04 Topic: Cosmology Bloom's: 1. Remember Gradable: automatic Subtopic: Cosmic Microwave Background; Structure of the Universe